INDUSTRIAL-ORGANIZATIONAL PSYCHOLOGY

POST TEST ANSWER KEY

1. Tricia is involved in the process of ensuring that her firm has the right number of people with the right skills to
meet customer demand for the firm's products. Tricia is most likely engaged in:
a. HR benchmarking
b. HR planning
c. Recruiting
d. selecting.

2. In the hiring process, generating a pool of qualified candidates for a job constitutes the ________ phase.
a. recruitment
b. selection
c. socialization
d. interviewing

3. You are part of a team selecting employees at Company XYZ. All applicants will take a cognitive test and
participate in a structured interview. The selection process would most likely be more efficient if the team:
a. Oriented the applicants with potential co-workers.
b. Established a cut score for the aptitude test.
c. Expanded the structured interview.
d. Recruited nontraditional laborers.

4. Which recruitment source has been linked to the most loyal and satisfied hires?
a. Referrals from current employees
b. Referrals from customers
c. Employment agencies
d. Online job postings

5. Which method listed below has the highest level of validity for predicting job performance?
a. work sample tests
b. biographical data
c. grade point average
d. SAT scores
e. ratings of training and experience

6. Once a firm has a pool of applicants, the first step in pre-screening is the _____.
a. in-person interview
b. on-site visit
c. application form
d. telephone interview
e. recommendation from recruiters

7. _______________, sometimes called "staff sourcing," involves paying a fee to a leasing company or professional
employer organization that handles payroll, employee benefits, and routine human resources management
functions for the client company.
A. Sub-leasing
B. Outsourcing
C. Subcontracting
D. Temporary employment

8. In a stress interview, the interviewer _____.

a. tries to deduce what the applicant’s on-the-job performance will be based on his or her answers to
questions about past experiences
b. tries to make the applicant uncomfortable in order to spot sensitivity
c. gives a word problem to see how the candidates think under pressure
d. gives hypothetical situations for the applicant to respond to
e. tries to assess the strength of the applicant’s desire for success

9. All of the following are Big Five personality factors except:

a. Openness
b. Conscientiousness
c. Sensitivity
d. Extraversion

10. Jane's new fabric and textiles business is looking for its first employees. She hopes to open within the next two
weeks and needs an inexpensive, timely recruitment method that will reach a large pool of applicants for long-
term work. Her best option is to:
a. create a radio ad.
b. use online recruitment sites.
c. use print advertisements.
d. contact a local headhunter.
11. Ryan has been hired by a staffing agency and put to work at Columbus Enterprises as a data analyst. After 90
days, Ryan will learn if he will be hired as a permanent employee. Which of the following terms best describes this
recruiting method?
a. Offshoring
b. Evaluation orientation
c. Temporary hiring
d. Applicant-driven selection

12. Joy needs to hire a line manager and has a very small recruiting budget. The firm's current employees don't feel
they have many advancement opportunities. It would be best for Joy to recruit:
a. internally.
b. externally.
c. former military members.
d. nontraditional workers.

13. Which term refers to the consistency of measurement across time?

a. Reliability
b. Validity
c. Accuracy
d. Predictability

14. Which term refers to the extent to which a technique measures an intended skill?
a. Reliability
b. Validity
c. Accuracy
d. Predictability

15. An employment selection tool that has content validity:

a. Reports consistent results across time.
b. Results in consistency among evaluators.
c. Contains a high correlation to job performance
d. Accurately measures knowledge required for the job.

16. An employment selection tool that has empirical validity:

a. Reports consistent results across time.
b. Results in consistency among evaluators.
c. Correlates with job performance.
d. Measures unwanted influences.

17. Which activity would most likely be required of job applicants taking a work sample test?
a. Participating in an in-basket exercise
b. Assembling and disassembling a small motor
c. Discussing ethical situations with a manager
d. Answering questions about engineering processes

18. Questions developed from the critical incident technique for the purpose of discovering how job candidates would
respond to work-related events are called:
a. unstructured questions.
b. job knowledge questions.
c. worker requirement questions.
d. situational questions.

19. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a structured interview?

a. Questions are limited to job-related factors.
b. Answers are scored in the same manner.
c. Applicants are interviewed by one manager.
d. Applicants are asked the same questions.

20. You are considering three candidates for a manager's job. Each candidate's experience and education are quite
similar. You want to know how each candidate will perform, given certain tasks or situations. Your best selection
tool for predicting this is:
a. an assessment center.
b. personality testing.
c. psychological testing.
d. an unstructured interview.

21. _____ provides new employees with the basic background information required to perform their jobs satisfactorily.
a. Employee recruitment
b. Employee selection
c. Employee orientation
d. Employee development
e. Training

22. The methods used to give new or present employees the skills they need to perform their jobs are called _____.
a. orientation
 b. training
c. development
d. appraisal
e. management

23. The first step in a training program is to _____.

a. assess the program’s successes or failures
b. present the program to a small test audience
c. design the program content
d. conduct a needs analysis
e. train the targeted group of employees

24. What is the final step in the training process?

a. evaluate the program’s successes or failures
b. present the program to a small test audience
c. design the program content
d. conduct a needs analysis
e. train the targeted group of employees

25. Which of the following is not a consideration when designing a training program that motivates the trainees?
a. provide the opportunity to apply the material
b. provide prompt feedback
c. utilize a half or three-fourths day schedule
d. pay the trainees for the time spent in training
e. allow trainees to set their own pace

26. _____ is a detailed study of the job to determine what specific skills the job requires.
a. Needs analysis
b. Task analysis
c. Performance analysis
d. Training strategy
e. Development planning

27. The process of verifying that there is a performance deficiency and determining if such deficiency should be
corrected through training or through some other means is called _____.
a. needs analysis
b. task analysis
c. performance analysis
d. training strategy
e. development planning

28. The first step in a performance analysis is to _____.

a. compare the person’s performance to ideal performance
b. evaluate productivity per employee
c. assess number of employee-related customer complaints
d. evaluate supervisor performance reviews
e. conduct tests of job knowledge

29. _____ means having a person learn a job by actually doing it.
a. Practice
b. On-the-job training
c. Socialization
d. Social learning
e. Modeling

30. An employee was hired soon after graduation and assigned to complete a management trainee program. She will
move to various jobs each month for a nine-month period of time. Her employer is utilizing the _____ form of
training.
a. job rotation
b. understudy
c. coaching
d. special assignments
e. informal learning

31. When jobs consist of a logical sequence of steps and are best taught step-by-step, the appropriate training
method to use is _____.
a. job instruction training
b. informal learning
c. job rotation
d. programmed learning
e. apprenticeship training

32. _____ is a step-by-step self-learning method.

a. Job instruction training
b. Programmed learning
 c. Apprenticeship training
d. Lecturing
e. Job rotation

33. Another term for vestibule training is _____.

a. apprenticeship training
b. computer-based training
c. cubicle training
d. simulated training
e. job instruction training

34. Pilots train on flight simulators for safety, learning efficiency, and cost savings. This is an example of _____.
a. apprenticeship training
b. on-the-job training
c. simulated training
d. coaching
e. programmed learning

35. _____ are computer-based training systems that learn what the trainee did right and wrong and then adjusts the
instructional sequence to the trainee’s unique needs.
a. Programmed learning
b. Multi-media training
c. DVD training programs
d. Intelligent tutoring systems
e. Programmed instruction

36. A(n) _____ is a set of instruction, diagrams, or similar methods available at the job site to guide the worker.
a. instruction sheet
b. job aid
c. task analysis record form
d. skill sheet
e. work function analysis

37. Any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or increasing skills
is called _____.
a. diversity training
b. on-the-job training
c. performance improvement programs
d. management development
e. coaching

38. The _____ process consists of 1) anticipating management needs, 2) reviewing the firm’s management skills
inventory, and 3) creating replacement charts.
a. management development
b. management skills inventory
c. succession planning
d. action planning
e. performance support

39. _____ is a special approach to organizational change in which the employees formulate the change that’s
required and implement it.
a. Managerial development
b. Action research
c. Succession planning
d. Organizational development
e. Participative management

40. The basic aim of _____ is to increase the participant’s insight into his or her own behavior and the behavior of
others by encouraging an open expression of feelings in a trainer-guided group.
a. sensitivity training
b. action research
c. group therapy
d. diversity training
e. coaching

41. The process of evaluating an employee’s current and/or past performance relative to his or her performance
standards is called _____.
a. recruitment
b. employee selection
c. performance appraisal
d. organizational development
e. training

42. When goal setting, performance appraisal, and development are consolidated into a single, common system
designed to ensure that employee performance supports a company’s strategy, it is called _____.
 a. strategic organizational development
b. performance management
c. performance appraisal
d. human resource management
e. strategic management

43. Who is the primary person responsible for doing the actual appraising of an employee’s performance?
a. the employee’s direct supervisor
b. the company appraiser
c. the human resource manager
d. the labor contact person
e. none of the above

44. The most popular technique for appraising performance is the ______ method.
a. alternation ranking
b. graphic rating scale
c. Likert
d. MBO
e. constant sum rating scale

45. If a performance appraisal focuses on an employee’s ability to “identify and analyze problems” or to “maintain
harmonious and effective working relationships,” then the performance appraisal is focused on measuring _____.
a. generic dimensions of performance
b. performance of actual duties
c. employee competency
d. achievement of objectives
e. all of the above

46. The _____ method of performance appraisal involves listing all the subordinates to be rated, crossing out the
names of any not known well enough to rank, indicating the employee who is the highest on each characteristic
being measured and who is the lowest, and then alternating between the next highest and lowest until all
employees have been ranked.
a. alternation ranking
b. graphic rating scale
c. Likert
d. MBO
e. constant sum rating scale

47. Suppose you have five employees to rate. You make a chart of all possible pairs of employees for each trait being
evaluated. Then, you indicate the better employee of the pair for each pair. Finally, you add up the number of
positives for each employee. In this case, you have used the _____ method of performance appraisal.
a. graphic ranking scale
b. constant sum ranking scale
c. alternation ranking
d. paired comparison
e. forced distribution

48. John, the supervisor of the manufacturing department, is in the process of evaluating his staff’s performance. He
has determined that 15% of the group will be identified as high performers, 20% as above average performers,
30% as average performers, 20% as below average performers, and 15% as poor performers. John is using a
_____ method.
a. graphic rating scale
b. constant sum ranking scale
c. forced distribution
d. alternation ranking
e. paired comparison

49. When different supervisors define levels of performance (good, fair, poor) differently, unfair appraisals could result
due to a problem with _____.
a. unclear standards
b. halo effects
c. complexity
d. central tendency
e. leniency

50. Jason is generally considered unfriendly at work. His supervisor rates him low on the trait “gets along well with
others” but also rates him lower on other traits unrelated to socialization at work. Jason’s performance appraisal
may be unfair due to _____.
a. impression management
b. bias
c. stereotyping
d. halo effects
e. strictness
(d; difficult; p. 356)
51. Some supervisors, when filling in rating scales, tend to avoid the highs and lows on the scale and rate most
people in the middle. This _____ means that all employees may be rated average.
a. halo effect
b. stereotyping
c. central tendency
d. strictness
e. leniency

52. The best way of reducing the problem of central tendency in performance appraisals is to _____.
a. rank employees
b. be aware of the problem
c. train supervisors to avoid it
d. impose a distribution for performance
e. consider the purpose of the appraisal

53. The _____ problem occurs when supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently high.
a. central tendency
b. leniency
c. strictness
d. bias
e. halo effect

54. The _____ problem occurs when supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently low.
a. central tendency
b. leniency
c. strictness
d. bias
e. halo effect

55. The best way of reducing the problems of leniency or strictness in performance appraisals is to _____.
a. rank employees
b. be aware of the problem
c. train supervisors to avoid it
d. impose a distribution for performance
e. consider the purpose of the appraisal

56. What term refers to the knowledge, education, training, skills, and expertise of a firm’s workers?
a. human resources
b. human capital
c. intangible assets
d. knowledge assets
e. intellectual property

57. _____ is the procedure through which one determines the duties associated with positions and the characteristics
of people to hire for those positions.
a. Job description
b. Job specification
c. Job analysis
d. Job context
e. None of the above

58. Information regarding the quantity or quality levels for each job duty is included in the information about _____ an
HR specialist may collect during a job analysis.
a. work activities
b. human behaviors
c. machines, tools, equipment, and work aids
d. performance standards
e. job context

59. _____ means assigning workers additional same-level activities, thus increasing the number of activities they
perform.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job assignment
d. Job enlargement
e. Job adjustment

60. _____ tests include tests like finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and reaction time.
a. Motor ability
b. Personality
c. Achievement
d. Cognitive
e. Interest

61. How do situational interviews differ from behavioral interviews?

 a. situational interviews are based on responses to past situations
b. situational interviews are based on how an applicant might behave in a hypothetical situation
c. situational interviews utilize predetermined situational questions and answers
d. behavioral interviews ask applicants to describe their emotions in different hypothetical situations
e. situational and behavioral interviews do not differ

62. What type of interview might include the statement, “It must be difficult to leave a company after such accusations
of unethical behavior. Tell me about that”?
a. situational
b. behavioral
c. stress
d. puzzle
e. directive

63. Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following except _____.
a. the in basket
b. leaderless group discussion
c. tests of motor abilities
d. interviews
e. management games

64. When an interview is used to predict future job performance on the basis of an applicant’s oral responses to oral
inquiries, it is called a(n) _____ interview.
a. selection
b. appraisal
c. exit
d. preview
e. structured

65. Job posting refers to all of the following except

a. publicizing the open job to employees
b. listing the job’s attributes
c. listing the job’s pay rate
d. listing the job’s required qualifications
e. listing the number of desired applicants

66. ___________ theories focus on the importance of work itself, while _________ theories focus on the cognitive
processes used in making decisions about work.
a. Process; content
b. Content; process
c. Program; construct
d. Construct; program

67. _________________ is the motivational theory that emphasizes the need to accomplish something.
a. Achievement
b. Motivator-hygiene
c. Job characteristics
d. Path-goal

68. According to Maslow, our needs for _______ must be satisfied before _______ needs become prominent.
a. belonging; safety
b. self-actualization; esteem
c. safety; physiological
d. belonging; esteem

69. The need for self-fulfillment is known as _________.

a. self-esteem
b. self-concept
c. self-actualization
d. respect

70. According to Herzberg, ________ needs produce job satisfaction, and ________ needs produce job
dissatisfaction.
a. motivator; hygiene
b. hygiene; motivator
c. external; internal
d. satisfier; motivator

71. Which is the motivational theory that links specific aspects of the job with psychological conditions that lead to
greater motivation, performance, and satisfaction for employees with a high growth need?
a. Two-factor
b. Equity
c. Job characteristics
d. VIE
72. Core job characteristics identified by Hackman and Oldham include:
a. skill variety; task significance; promotion opportunity
b. feedback; autonomy; extrinsic rewards
c. task identity; feedback; task significance
d. skill variety; task significance; extrinsic rewards

73. The motivational theory stating that people make choices based on their expectations that certain rewards will
follow from certain behaviors is _________ theory.
a. VIE
b. Equity
c. Goal-setting
d. Two-factor

74. The probability that certain job behaviors will lead to a particular outcome is known as ________.
a. Expectancy
b. Instrumentality
c. Valence
d. Pygmalion effect

75. The motivational theory based on the idea that our level of motivation on the job is determined by our desire to
achieve a particular goal is ______________.
a. Goal-setting
b. Equity
c. VIE
d. Two-factor

76. Goals that are __________ to attain are better motivators than goals that are ___________ to attain.
a. difficult; easy
b. easy; difficult
c. slightly difficult; moderately difficult
d. no difference

77. The motivational theory based on the idea that our level of motivation on the job is determined by our desire to
achieve a particular goal is ______________.
a. Goal-setting
b. Equity
c. VIE
d. Two-factor

78. A waiter is asked to increase his check average by "suggestively selling" appetizers, salads, and desserts. It has
been explained to the waiter that the larger his check average, the more he will make in tips. However, the waiter
does not believe that suggestive selling will actually result in increased tips. In this scenario, the waiter's belief
that suggestive selling is not likely to result in more tips exemplifies:
a. Equity
b. Expectancy
c. Instrumentality
d. valence

79. According to _______ theory, an employee’s motivation is related to how fairly she believes she is being treated
compared to other employees.
a. Malow’s
b. Equity
c. Consistency
d. ERG

80. If an employee feels she is underpaid for the effort she exerts, she will probably:
a. Work harder
b. Not change her effort
c. Reduce her effort
d. Feel guilty

81. The psychological and physical reaction to certain events or situations is called:
a. Stress
b. Strain
c. Stressors
d. Eustress

82. Stress that is converted to positive energy is called:

a. Distress
b. Strain
c. Stressors
d. Eustress

83. The field of study dealing with the health effects of job stress and other aspects of employee well-being is known
as ___________.
 a. organizational health psychology
b. occupational health psychology
c. organizational Behavior
d. social psychology

84. ___________ results when job responsibilities are unstructured or poorly defined.
a. Role conflict
b. Work underload
c. Work overload
d. Role ambiguity

85. __________ results when there is a disparity between job demands and the employee’s personal standards.
a. Role conflict
b. Work underload
c. Work overload
d. Role ambiguity

86. ___________ is a condition of job stress that results from overwork.

a. Workaholism
b. Burnout
c. Mass psychogenic illness
d. Assembly-line hysteria

87. Depersonalization is a characteristic of __________.

a. Workaholism
b. Burnout
c. Mass psychogenic illness
d. Locus of control

88. ________ results if there is too much work to perform in the time available.
a. Organizational change
b. Role ambiguity
c. Work overload
d. Burnout

89. Work that is too difficult is associated with which of the following?
a. Quantitative work overload
b. Qualitative work overload
c. Job enlargement
d. Job engagement

90. In this team process an employee goes through the stages of joining a team, being on the team and eventually
leaving the team:
a. Interpersonal
b. Shared mental models
c. Socialization
d. Decision-making

91. Teamwork involves all of the following principles except:

a. to prevent any type conflict or disagreement
b. to foster within-team interdependence
c. to provide and accept constructive criticism to and from team members
d. to view the team's success as taking precedence over individual accomplishment.

92. Team ___ refers to the system of operations within a team that permit it to function smoothly and efficiently.
a. Structure
b. Development
c. Processes
d. design

93. _______ is the ability of team members to develop a common understanding of the problem as well as a strategy for
solving it.
a. Situational assessment
b. Meta-cognition
c. Shared mental models
d. Resource management

94. ____ refers to a practice of agreeing rather than challenging ideas and threatening the cohesion of the group.
a. Groupthink
b. Competitive conflict
c. Beneficial conflict
d. Group trust
 95. A(n) ___ team is one in which team members communicate electronically.
a. Committee
b. ad hoc
c. cross-functional
d. virtual

96. Which one is a quality that is characteristic of teams, in general?

a. Teams tend to be well structured, in that roles, norms, and relations are stable.
b. Teams have leaders who provide support and guidance to the team members.
c. Teams compete with other teams for limited resources or outcomes.
d. Members of teams compete with one another for positions of status and authority.

97. In the I-P-O model of teams, the P stands for

a. person
b. process
c. performance
d. project

98. If team members are glad they are part of the team and feel strongly about remaining in the team, then this team can be
said to have a high degree of:
a. trust
b. staff validity
c. dyadic sensitivity
d. cohesion.

99. They plan, direct, strategize, integrate, coordinate, and prioritize. They are ___ teams.
a. project
b. advisory
c. management
d. service

100. Which one is not a basic component of a systems approach to teams?

a. outputs
b. process
c. inputs
d. development