Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

1. Among the terms listed below, those that are not technically correct names
(I) androecium
(II) carpel
(III) corolla
(IV) sepal
(a) I and IV
(b) III and IV
(c) II and IV
(d) I and II
2. Identify A to G in following figure and answer accordingly.

(a) A – ovary, B – filaments, C – sepal, D – petal, E – style, F – stigma, G – anther

(b) A – sepal, B – ovary, C – petal, D – filament, E – anther, F – stigma, G – style
(c) A – ovary, B – sepal, C – filament, D – petal, E – anther, F – stigma, G – style
(d) A – petal, B – anther, C – stigma, D – style, E – filament, F – sepal, G – ovary
3. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the
(a) anther
(b) connective
(c) placenta
(d) thalamus or petal
4. Identify A and B in the diagram given below.

(a) A – pistil, B – stamen

(b) A – stamen, B – stigma
(c) A – anther, B – filament
(d) A – stamen, B – pistil
5. A typical angiosperm anther is
(a) bilobed
(b) dithecous
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) monothecous
6. Identify A to D in the following diagram.

(a) A – Filament (stalk), B – Pollen sac, C – Pollen grain, D – Line of dehiscence

(b) A – Filament (stalk), B – Pollen sac, C – Line of dehiscence, D – Pollen grain
(c) A – Line of dehiscence, B – Filament (Stalk), C – Pollen sac, D – Pollen grain
(d) A – FIlament (stalk), B – Line of dehiscence, C – Pollen sac, D – Pollen grain
7. The lengthwise running groove on anther which separate theca is called
(a) rupture line
(b) line of dehiscence
(c) suture of anther
(d) none of these
8. The outermost and innermost wall layers of microsporangium in an anther
are respectively
(a) endothecium and tapecium
(b) epidermis and endodermis
(c) epidermis and middle layer
(d) epidermis and tapetum
9. Pollen grains of different plants differ in
(a) size and shape
(b) colour and design
(c) size, shape and design
(d) size, shape, colour and design
10. Microsporogenesis is the
(a) development of megaspore
(b) development of pollen grain
(c) development of male gametophyte
(d) development of female gametophyte
11. During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in
(a) endothecium
(b) microspore mother cell
(c) microspore tetrad
(d) pollen grains
12. Microspore tetrad (pollen grains) is the result of
(a) mitotic cell division
(b) meiotic cell division
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
13. The following is the diagram of TS of anther. Identify the parts labelled A, B
and C.

(a) A – connective tissue, B – endothecium, C – pollen grain

(b) A – endothecium, B- connective tissue, C – pollen grain
(c) A – pollen grain, B – connective tissue, C- endothecium
(d) A – endothecium, B – pollen grain, C – connective tissue
14. Which of the following perform microsporogenesis?
(a) microspore mother cell
(b) pollen mother cell
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
15. Tapetal cells are characterized by presence of dense cytoplasm and one
nuclei.
(a) true
(b) false
(c) cannot say
(d) partially true or false
16. The Pollen Grain is
(a) an immature male gametophyte
(b) a mature male gametophyte
(c) partially developed male gametophyte
(d) last stage of male gametophyte
17. Pollen have two prominant walls which are …A… and …B… . Here, A and B
refers to
(a) A – intine, B – protein coat
(b) A – exine, B – intine
(c) A – sporopollenin, B – intine
(d) A – sporopollenin, B – exine
18. Which of the following statements about sporopollenin are true?
(I) Exine is made up of sporopollenin
(II) Sporopollenin is one of the most resistant organic material
(III) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures and strong acids
(IV) So far no in them is known to treat sporopollenin
(a) I and II
(b) III and IV
(c) I and III
(d) all of these
19. Intine is made of
(a) cellulose
(b) pectin
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) protein
20. The function of germ pore is/are
(a) emergence of radical
(b) absorption of water for seed germination
(c) initiation of pollen tube
(d) all of the above
21. Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces
(a) single sperm and to vegetative cell
(b) 3 sperms
(c) two sperms and a vegetative cell
(d) single sperm and a vegetative cell
22. 60% of angiosperms shed their pollens at the
(a) 2-celled stage
(b) 3-celled stage
(c) 4-celled stage
(d) 1-celled stage
23. Viability of pollen grains depends on
(a) temperature
(b) humidity
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) pressure
24. Pollen tablets are available in the market for
(a) in vitro fertilization
(b) breeding programmes
(c) supplementing food
(d) ex situ conservation
25. Identify the type of pistil in the diagram.
(a) multicarpellary, apocarpous
(b) multicarpellary, syncarpous
(c) multicarpellary, pistillate
(d) monocarpellary, apocarpous
26. Identify the various parts A to C in the given diagram of an ovule.

(a) A – embryo sac, B – inner integument, C – outer integument

(b) A – inner integument, B – nucellus, C – chalazal
(c) A – hilum, B – funicle, C – embryo sac
(d) A – micropylar end, B – hilum, C – inner integument
27. Match the following.
COLUMN 1 COLUMN 2
(A) Funicle 1. Stalk of ovule
(B) Integuments 2. Protective envelopes of ovule
(C) Chalaza 3. Junction part of ovule
(D) Hilum 4. Basal part of ovule
(a) (A) – 1, (B) – 2, (C) – 4, (D) – 3
(b) (A) – 1, (B) – 3, (C) – 2, (D) – 4
(c) (A) – 2, (B) – 3, (C) – 1, (D) – 4
(d) (A) – 2, (B) – 4, (C) – 3, (D) – 1
28. A micropyle is a
(a) small pore through which water enters
(b) small aperture where no integuments are present
(c) small pore needed for seed existence
(d) all of the above
29. An ovule is a
(a) differentiated megasporangium
(b) dedifferentiated megasporangium
(c) integumented megasporangium
(d) redifferentiated megasporangium
30. Starting from the innermost part, the correct sequence of part in an ovule
is
(a) egg, nucellus, embryo sac, integument
(b) egg, embryo sac, nucellus, integument
(c) embryo sac, nucellus, integument, egg
(d) egg, integument, embryo sac, nucellus
31. What is A, B and C in the given figure of an embryo sac?
(a) A – antipodals, B – polar nucei, C – synergids
(b) A – antipodals, B – central cells, C – egg cells
(c) A – synergids, B – polar nucei, C – egg cell
(d) A – synergids, B – egg cell, C – filiform apparatus
32. In majority of angiosperms
(a) egg has a filiform aparatus
(b) there are numerous antipodal cells
(c) reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother cells
(d) a small central cell is present in the embryo sac
33. In a flower, if the megaspore mother cell forms megaspores without
undergoing meiosis and if one of the megaspores develop into an embryo sac,
its nuclei would be
(a) haploid
(b) diploid
(c) a few haploid and a few diploid
(d) with varying ploidy
34. In angiosperm functional megaspore develops into
(a) embryo sac
(b) ovule
(c) endosperm
(d) pollen sac
35. Which of the most common type of embryo sac in angiosperm?
(a) tetrasporic with one mitotic stage of division
(b) monosporic with 3 sequential mitotic division
(c) monosporic with 2 sequential mitotic division
(d) bisporic with 2 sequential mitotic divisions
36. Function of filiform apparatus is to
(a) recognise the suitable pollen at stigma
(b) stimulate division of generative cell
(c) produce nectar
(d) guide the entry of pollen tube
37. Identify the type of cell division A to D in the following flowchart.

(a) A – meiosis-I, B – mitosis, C – mitosis, D – meiosis

(b) A – meiosis-I, B – meiosis-II, C – no division, D – mitosis
(c) A – mitosis, B – no division, C – meiosis-II, D – meiosis-I
(d) A – mitosis, B – mitosis, C – meiosis-I, D – meiosis-I
38. From the statement given below choose the option that are true for a
typical female gametophyte.
(I) it is 8 nucleate and 7-celled at maturity
(II) it is free-nuclear during the development
(III) it is situated inside integument, but inside outside the nucellus
(IV) it has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal end
(a) I and IV
(b) II and III
(c) I and II
(d) II and IV
39. Autogamy stands for
(a) self pollination in same flower
(b) pollination in two flowers
(c) self pollination in different flowers
(d) pollination by only one type of organism
40. Match the following.
COLUMN 1 COLUMN 2
(A) Cleistogamy 1. Pollination in open flower
(B) 2. Pollination in bisexual flower which
Geitonogamy remains closed
(C) 3. Pollination between flowers which remain
Chasmogamy closed
(D) Xenogamy 4. Cross-pollination

(a) (A) – 3, (B) – 1, (C) – 4, (D) – 2

(b) (A) – 1, (B) – 4, (C) – 2, (D) – 3
(c) (A) – 2, (B) – 3, (C) – 1, (D) – 4
(d) (A) – 1, (B) – 4, (C) – 3, (D) – 2
41. The main advantage of cleistogamy is that it insures
(a) cross-pollination
(b) seed setting even in the absence of pollinators
(c) protandry in flowers
(d) gainetogamy instead of autogamy
42. Which of the following statements are true about self pollination?
(I) It is most economic method as wastage of pollen grain is minimum
(II) Genetic stability can be maintained in the progeny through self pollination
(III) Undesirable characters can be eliminated through self-pollination
(IV) Continued self pollination may result in weaker progeny
Choose the right option.
(a) I, II, IV are right and III is wrong
(b) III is right and I, II, IV are wrong
(c) I, III are right and II, IV are wrong
(d) All are correct
43. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of another flower of
same plant is called
(a) geitonogamy
(b) chasmogamy
(c) xenogamy
(d) cleistogamy
44. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther of stigma of another flower of
different plant is called
(a) geitonogamy
(b) xenogamy
(c) chasmogamy
(d) cleistogamy
45. Cross-pollination is preferred over self pollination because it results in a
better offspring.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Can’t Say
(d) Partially true or false
46. Match the following.
COLUMN 1 COLUMN 2

(A) Wind 1. Anemophily

(B) Water 2. Hydrophily

(C) Insects 3. Entomophily

(D) Birds 4. Ornithophily

47. Autogamy can occur in chasmogamous flower if both pollen and ovules
mature simultaneously.
(a) true
(b) false
(c) can’t say
(d) partially true or false
48. Majority of plants use
(a) biotech agents for pollination
(b) non-biotech agents for pollination
(c) air for pollination
(d) animal for pollination
49. A particular species of plant produces light, non-sticky pollen in large
numbers and its stigmas are long and feathery. These modifications facilitate
pollination by
(a) insects
(b) water
(c) wind
(d) animals
50. Which of the following features are common to both wind and water
pollinated flowers?
(I) pollen grains are long and ribbon-like
(II) stigma is large and feathery
(III) the flowers are not colourful
(IV) the flowers do not produce nectar
(a) III & IV
(b) II & III
(c) I & II
(d) II
51. Pollen grain of water pollinated plants are coated by covering to prevent it
from wetting
(a) mucilage
(b) cuticle
(c) exine
(d) intine
52. Wind-pollinated plants differ from insect-pollinated plants in having
(a) small petals and sticky pollen
(b) small colour petals and heavy pollen
(c) colour patterns and large pollen
(d) no petals and light pollen
53. Choose the mismatched option.
(a) wind – grasses – Anemophily
(b) water – Zostera – Hydrophily
(c) Insects – Salvia – Entomophily
(d) Birds – Adansonia – Ornithophily
54. From among the given situations, choose the one which prevents both
autogamy and geitonogamy.
(a) Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers
(b) Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers
(c) Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers
(d) Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers
55. Continued self pollination results in
(a) inbreeding depression
(b) outbreeding depression
(c) hybrid vigor
(d) better results of offsprings
56. All the events from depression of pollen grain on the stigma to the entry of
pollen tube in the ovule are referred to as
(a) fertilization
(b) conjugation
(c) pollen-pistil interaction
(d) singamy
57. Find out the correct sequence of events taking place in pollen-pistil
interaction.
(I) Pollen tube and was one of these gifts and bursts to release male gametes.
(II) Pollen tube enters ovule through micropile of ovary
(III) Pollen tube growth through this stigmatic tissue and then style
(IV) Pistol recognises the compatible pollen and accept it
(a) IV → III → II → I
(b) IV → II → III → I
(c) I → IV → III → II
(d) III → IV → II → I
58. Pollen grain of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but
only one pollen tube of the same species grows into the style.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Can’t say
(d) Partially true/false
59. Self incompatibility is a process to
(I) ensure cross pollination
(II) prevent self fertilization
(III) ensure self fertilization
(IV) genetic control for self fertilization
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II, III and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II and IV
60. Protandry is the condition in which
(a) anthers mature after stigma
(b) anthers and stigma mature at the same time
(c) anthers mature earlier than the stigma
(d) pollens of the same flower pollen on stigma
Answer
1. (c)
Sepal and carpel are technically incorrect names for a whorl. This is because sepals
collectively form a whorl called as calyx, while the carpel is known an gynocium.
2. (c)
3. (d)
Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the thalamus or petal and
distal end is attached to the anther.
4. (c)
5. (c)
Billobed or Ditaceous are the same terms used for angiospermic anther lobes.
6. (d)
7. (b)
The dehiscence which is the running groove on anther longitudinally. It seperates
the theca of anther.
8. (d)
9. (d)
Pollens of different species are different in size, shape, colour and design because
different species are adapted differently according to their environment.
10. (b)
The formation of microspores inside the microsporangia of seed plants is called as
microsporogensis.
11. (b)
During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in microspore mother cell and four
haploid microspores are formed.
12. (b)
13. (a)
14. (c)
Microspore mother cell and pollen mother cell are the same terms which form male
gametes by the process of microsporogenesis.
15. (d)
The tapetal layer is the innermost layer of anther wall. Is composed of a single layer
of cells characterized by the presence of dense cytoplasm and generally have more
than one nucleus.
16. (c)
Pollen Grain is partially developed male gametophyte because the rest of the
development is completed on stigma when pollen grains start to germinate and
produce Pollen tube having two male nuclei.
17. (b)
Pollen grain has a prominent two-layered wall. The hard outer layer called exine
and inner layer called intine.
18. (d)
19. (c)
The inner layer of pollen grain is called intine. It is continous and thin layer made up
of cellulose and pectin.
20. (c)
21. (c)
The protoplast of the male gametophyte divides mitotically to produce two unequal
cells; a small generative cell and a large vegetative cell. The generative cell divides
into two non motile male gametes. Thus, the male gametophyte in angiosperms
produce two sperms and a vegetative cell. The vegetative cell later on grows to
produce pollen tube.
22. (a)
60% of angiosperms shed their pollens at two-celled stage and in rest 40% of
pollens are shed at three cell stage, which is formed by division in generative cell
mitotically.
23. (c)
The period in which the pollen grains remain viable is highly variable. It depends on
the temperature and humidity.
24. (c)
Pollen grains are rich in nutrients. These are available in the market in form of
tablets and a used as food supplements to improve health. In consumption has been
claimed to enhance the performance of athletes and race horses.
25. (b)
The diagram represents the multicarpellary pistil of the notion of this plant consists
of more than one pistil showing what is multi multicarpellary condition these
crystals are fused together and hence are called syncarpous.
26. (c)
27. (a)
28. (d)
Micropyle is very essential for seed existence because through this for the water
goes inside and germination takes place. Gaseous exchange also takes place through
these pores. Integument in circle the nucleus except where a small opening called
the micropile is organised.
29. (c)
An ovule is an integumented megasporangium found in angiosperms, which
develops into seed after fertilization.
30. (b)
Starting from the innermost part, the correct sequence of parts in an ovule is egg,
embryo sac, nucellus, integuments.
31. (a)
32. (c)
In most of the angiosperms, the megaspore mother cell divides miotically to
produce 4 cells. Out of these, three degenerate and the remaining one forms the
functional megaspore. This for the device mitotically and forms embryo sac.
33. (b)
In some species, the deployed egg cell is formed without reduction division and
develops into an employee without fertilization.
34. (a)
In angiosperms, the functional megaspore develops into the embryo sac, which is
having synergid cells, egg cell, polar nuclei and antipodal cells.
35. (b)
The most common type of female gametophyte in angiosperms is the monosporic
embryo sac in which embryo sac develops from a single functional megaspore, while
the other three megaspores degenerate.
The functional megaspore undergoes three sequential mitotic divisions and give rise
to the 8 nucleate and 7 celled mature embryo sac.
36. (d)
The function of filiform aparatus is to guide the entry of pollen tube into the
synergids and release of sperm cells.
37. (b)
38. (c)
Statement III and IV are incorrect and can be corrected as :
Female gametophyte is present inside the nucellus
Egg apparatus is situated at the micropylar end
39. (a)
40. (c)
41. (b)
42. (a)
Statement III can be corrected as:
Self pollination reduces the vigor and vitality of the plant and undesirable character
cannot be eliminated by it.
43. (a)
Geitonogamy transfer involves of pollen grains from anther and the stigma of
different plants of the same plant.
44. (b)
Xenogamy is also called cross-pollination. In this, transfer of pollen grains takes
place between the anther and the stigma of different plants of same species.
45. (d)
Cross-pollination results in new varieties which are mostly better than their parents
ometimes, but it may introduce undesirable characters also.
46. (a)
47. (a)
48. (a)
Majority of the plants use biotic agents for pollination as it reduces the chances of
wastage of pollen.
49. (c)
Wind pollination requires the light and non-sticky pollen grains, so that they can be
transported in wind currents.
Wind pollinated flowers, often possess well-exposed stamens and large , often-
feathery stigma to easily trap air-borne pollen grains.
50. (c)
Stigma is large and feathery in wind-pollinated flowers. Pollen grains are long and
ribbon like so that, it can float below the surface of water in water-pollinated
flowers.
51. (a)
Pollen grain of water pollinated plants are coated with mucilagenous covering to
prevent them from wetting.
52. (d)
Wind-pollinated flowers are small and non-essential parts like petals are either
absent or reduced. Pollen grains are light, small and dusty and are thus easy to be
carried away by winds.
In the insect pollinating flowers, the petals are bright and scented, so that the insect
gets attracted towards it.
53. (d)
Adansonia has chiropterophilous flowers that are pollinated by fruit bats.
54. (b)
The dioecious plants bearing only male or female flowers prevent both autogamy
and geitogamy.
55. (a)
Continued self-pollination means there is continuation of genetic material to the
progeny from the parents. As they are the product of same genotype of same plant.
This leads to less productivity called inbreeding depression.
56. (c)
57. (a)
Pollen-pistil interaction includes recognition of compatible pollen – The pistil has
the ability to recognise the right compatible pollen of the same species and to reject
the pollen grains that are incompatible either of same species or of other species.
Growth of a pollen tube – The content of pollen then move into this tube.
Entry of pollen tube into the ovule – After reaching the ovary, the pollen tube enters
the ovule through one of synergids at micropylar end and release male gametes.
58. (a)
59. (d)
60. (c)
In hermaphroditic plants, a condition in which the development and maturation of
male reproductive part occur before the maturation of female reproductive part to
promote cross pollination and prevent self-pollination is known as protandry.
Assertion-Reason Based
Code
Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
Assertion is true but reason is false.
Assertion is false but reason is true.
1. Assertion In flowering plants the structure related to sexual reproduction in
flowers.
Reason Various embryological processes of plants occur in a flower.
2. Assertion Meiosis is the cell division which occurs in the sexually reproducing
organisms.
Reason Meiotic cell division results into two cells having exact same genetic
makeup.
3. Assertion Pollen grain of angiosperm is considered as the male gametophyte.
Reason Stigma style and ovary are parts of pollen grain.
4. Assertion Synergids play an important role in directing the pollen tube growth.
Reason Because synergids secrete some chemotropically active substances.
5. Assertion The three cells of the egg apparatus are arranged in a triangular fashion.
Reason The degenerating synergid formed the seat for pollen tube discharge in the
embryo sac.
6. Assertion Geitonogamy is genetically similar to autogamy.
Reason In geitonogamy, pollen grains come from the same plant.
7. Assertion Cleistonogamy flowers produce assured seed set in the absence of
pollinator.
Reason Cleistonogamy flowers do not open at all.
8. Assertion In artificial hybridisation, removal of anthers is the first step.
Reason It prevents contamination of anthers.
9. Assertion Endosperm development preceds embryo development.
Reason It assures nutrition to the developing embryo.
10. Assertion There is no residual endosperm in non-albuminous seeds.
Reason The endosperm is completely consumed during embryo development.
11. Assertion An example of false fruit is mango.
Reason The thalamus also contributes to fruit formation in false fruits.
12. Assertion In apomixis, plants of new genetic variations are not produced.
Reason In apoximis, reductional division takes place.
13. Assertion Parthenocarpy involves the formation of seedless fruits.
Reason Apoximis occurs without fertilisation.
14. Assertion In apomixis, the plants of new genetic sequence are produced.
Reason In apoximis, two organisms of same genetic sequence meet.
Answer
1. (1)
Structures related to sexual reproduction in flowering plants are flowers. This is
because embryological processes during sexual reproduction occur in ovary which
is a part of flower.
2. (3)
In meiosis, the resultant cells do not have exactly same genetic makeup due to the
process of crossing over.
3. (3)
Pollen grain does not contain the stigma style and ovary these are parts of the
female reproductive structure of flower, i.e. gynoecium.
4. (1)
Synergids are part of the egg apparatus along with the egg cell. The pollen
germination on the stigma to form the pollen tube. The pollen tube reaches the egg
cell by chemotropism. A chemical stimulus is produced by synergids.
5. (2)
The three cells in the egg apparatus are arranged in a triangular fashion as it enables
the easy entry of male gametes. These enter the embryo sac within pollen tube
through synergids. The synergids degenerate after the male gametes are discharged
in the embryo sac.
6. (1)
Geitonogamy is functionally cross pollination involving a pollinating agent, but
genetically it is similar to autogamy. This is because the pollen grains come from
different flowers of the same plant.
7. (1)
Cleistogamous flowers do not open at all. This insures fertilization and consequently
leads to the production of assured of seed set even in the absence of pollinators.
8. (3)
Removal of anthers (emasculation) is done artificial hybridisation as a prevent
contamination of the pistil (female reproductive structure).
9. (1)
Endosperm is source of nutrition for the developing embryo, thus the development
in the sperm takes place before the process embryogenesis.
10. (1)
In non-albuminous seeds, the endosperm is fully consumed by the developing
embryo and thus, no residue is left in such seeds.
11. (4)
Mango is a true fruit, which develops only from the ovary.
12. (3)
Apoximis is the type of asexual reproduction in which seeds are produced without
meiosis and syngamy.
13. (2)
14. (4)
In apoximis, sexual reproduction is completely replaced by asexual reproduction. In
this process, no new genetic sequence is formed as the progeny is genetically
identical to the present.
Case-Study Based
1. Study the following figure of embryo sac in angiosperms and answer the
questions that follows.

(i) Embryo sac is also called

(a) female gamete
(b) synergids
(c) female gametophyte
(d) egg of angiosperms
(ii) The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo sac in the dicot
(a) 3+2+3
(b) 2+3+3
(c) 3+3+2
(d) 2+4+2
(iii) Antipodal nuclei in a typical angiospermic embryo sac which found
towards
(a) micropylar end
(b) in the middle (polar) region
(c) chalazal end
(d) on the lateral sides
(iv) What does the labelled part A do at the entrance into ovule?
(a) It brings about opening of the pollen tube
(b) It guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg
(c) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a synergid
(d) It prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into the embryo sac
2. Read the following passage and answer accordingly.
Pollination is the act of transferring pollen grains from male anther of a flower
to the female stigma.
The goal of every living organism including plants is to create offspring for the
next generation. One of the ways that plants can produce offspring is by
making seeds which then germinate to produce new plants. Two types of
flowers with their pollination is seen in plants are chasmogamy and
cleistogamy.
Chasmogamous flowers have strikingly coloured petals and nectar
guides/nectaries in contrast to cleistogamous flowers which are minute bud-
like.
(i) Cleitogamous flowers are strictly autogamous because, they remain
(a) always open
(b) always close
(c) always fragraned
(d) brightly coloured
(ii) In chasmogamy, pollination takes place in
(a) open flower
(b) closed flower
(c) large flower
(d) geitonogamy flower
(iii) Advantage of cleistogamy is
(a) higher genetic viriability
(b) more vigorous offspring
(c) no dependence on pollinators
(d) vivipary
(iv) Even in the absence of pollinating agents, seed-setting is assured in
(a) Commelina
(b) Zostera
(c) Salvia
(d) Fig
3. Study the given figure and answer the following questions accordingly.

(i) The embryo in sunflower has

(a) no cotyledon
(b) two cotyledon
(c) one cotyledon
(d) many cotyledon
(ii) In a cereal grain, the single cotyledon of embryo is represented by
(a) coleoptile
(b) coleorhiza
(c) scutellum
(d) none of these
(iii) The ephemeral structure which anchors the embryo and pushes it into the
nutritional zone of the embryo sac is called
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(iv) Dicot embryo consists of
(a) radicle and plumule
(b) radicle, plumule, cotyledons and sometimes endosperm
(c) radicle, plumule, cotyledons and tegmen
(d) radicle, plumule, cotyledons, tegmen and tests
4. Observe the following figure of an enlarged view of a sporangium showing
wall layers and answer the questions accordingly.

(i) The number of microsporangium present in the anther is

(a) one
(b) three
(c) two
(d) four
(ii) Microsporangia develops into
(a) megagametes
(b) pollens
(c) microgametes
(d) pollen sacs
(iii) Centre of each microsporangium is occupied by
(a) sporangenous tissue
(b) tapetum
(c) central tissue
(d) microspore mother cell
(iv) Which of the following wall layer does not helps in dehiscence of anther?
(a) epidemis
(b) endothecium
(c) middle layer
(d) tapetum
Answer
1. (i)(c) (ii)(a) (iii)(c) (iv)(c)
2. (i)(b) (ii)(a) (iii)(c) (iv)(a)
3. (i)(b) (ii)(c) (iii)(a) (iv)(b)
4. (i)(d) (ii)(d) (iii)(a) (iv)(d)