NEET 2020 Exam (Covid Re-exam)

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

1.
respective distinctive characteristics and select the
Which of the following is incorrect about Cyanobacteria? correct option :
1. They are photoautotrophs
  Organisms   Characteristics
2. They lack heterocysts
3. They often form blooms in polluted water bodies Cylindrical body
(a) Platyhelminthes   with no
4. They have chlorophyll A similar to green plants segmentation
2.
Phycoerythrin is the major pigment in : Warm blooded
animals with
(b) Echinoderms  
1. Red algae direct
development
2. Blue-green algae
3. Green algae Bilateral
4. Brown algae symmetry with
(c) Hemichordates  
incomplete
3. digestive system
Which of the following statements is incorrect about
gymnosperms? Radial symmetry
(d) Aves   with indirect
1. They are heterosporous development
2. Male and female gametophytes are free-living
1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
3. Most of them have narrow leaves with thick cuticle
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
4. Their seeds are not covered
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
4.
4. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv
Male and female gametophytes do not have an
independent free-living existence in:- 7.
1. Pteridophytes Match the following columns and select the correct
option :
2. Algae
      Column - I        Column - II
3. Angiosperms
(a) Aptenodytes     (i) Flying fox
4. Bryophytes
(b) Pteropus          (ii) Angel fish
5.
(c) Pterophyllum    (iii)Lamprey
Which of the following options does correctly represent
the characteristic features of phylum Annelida? (d) Petromyzon      (iv)Penguin
1. Triploblastic, unsegmented body, and bilaterally 1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
symmetrical.
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
2. Triploblastic, a segmented body, and bilaterally
symmetrical. 3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

3. Triploblastic, flattened body, and acoelomate 4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

condition. 8.
4. Diploblastic, mostly marine and radially symmetrical. All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not
6. vertebrates, why?

Match the following group of organisms with their 1. Notochord is replaced by a vertebral column in adult
of some chordates.
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2. Ventral hollow nerve cord remains throughout life in (4) (i) and (ii) only 
some chordates.
12.
3. All chordates possess a vertebral column.
Large, empty colorless cells of the adaxial epidermis
4. All chordates possess notochord throughout their life.  along the veins of grass leaves are
9. 1. Lenticels
Correct position of floral parts over thalamus in the 2. Guard cells
mustard plant is :
3. Bundle sheath cells
1. Gynoecium occupies the highest position, while the
other parts are situated below it. 4. Bulliform cells

2. Margin of the thalamus grows upward, enclosing the 13.

ovary completely, and other parts arise below the ovary. Which of the following statements about cork cambium
3. Gynoecium is present in the center and other parts is incorrect?
cover it partially. 1. It forms a secondary cortex on its outside
4. Gynoecium is situated in the center, and other parts of 2. It forms a part of periderm
the flower are located at the rim of the thalamus, at the
same level. 3. It is responsible for the formation of lenticels

10. 4. It is a couple of layers thick

Which of the following is the correct floral formula of 14.

Liliaceae? In cockroach, identify the parts of the foregut in correct
sequence:-
1. Mouth → Oesophagus → Pharynx → Crop →
1.  Gizzard
2. Mouth → Crop → Pharynx → Oesophagus →

Gizzard
2. 
3. Mouth → Gizzard → Crop → Pharynx →

Oesophagus
3.  4. Mouth → Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop →

Gizzard
15.
4. 
Match the following columns with reference to
11. cockroach and select the correct option :
Identify the correct features of Mango and Coconut         Column - I            Column - II
fruits.
(a) Grinding of            (i) Hepatic caeca the food particles
(i) In both fruit is a drupe
(ii) Endocarp is edible in both (b) Secrete gastric      (ii) 10th segment juice
(iii) Mesocarp in Coconut is fibrous, and in Mango, it is (c) 10 pairs                (iii) Proventriculus
fleshy
(iv) In both, the fruit develops from the monocarpellary (d) Anal cerci             (iv) Spiracles
ovary
                                (v) Alary muscles
Select the correct option from below :
1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(v), (d)-(ii)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(3) (i) and (iv) only
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4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) 2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

16. 3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
Select the incorrectly matched pair from the following: 4. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
1. Chondrocytes - Smooth muscle cells 21.
2. Neurons - Nerve cells Identify the statement which is incorrect.
3. Fibroblast - Areolar tissue 1. Sulphur is an integral part of cysteine.
4. Osteocytes - Bone cells 2. Glycine is an example of lipids.
17. 3. Lecithin contains a phosphorus atom in its structure.
Inclusion bodies of blue-green, purple, and green 4. Tyrosine possesses an aromatic ring in its structure.
photosynthetic bacteria are :
22.
1. Contractile vacuoles
Match the following :
2. Gas vacuoles
(a) Aquaporin (i) Amide
3. Centrioles
(b) Asparagine (ii) Polysaccharide
4. Microtubules
(c) Abscisic acid (iii) Polypeptide
18.
(d) Chitin (iv) Carotenoids
The biosynthesis of ribosomal RNA occurs in :
Select the correct option :
1. Ribosomes
1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
2. Golgi apparatus
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
3. Microbodies
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
4. Nucleolus
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c) -(ii), (d)-(iv)
19.
23.
The size of Pleuropneumonia - like Organism (PPLO) is :
Attachment of spindle fibers to kinetochores of
1. 0.02 μm chromosomes becomes evident in :
2. 1-2 μm 1. Anaphase
3. 10-20 μm 2. Telophase
4. 0.1 μm 3. Prophase
20. 4. Metaphase
Match the following columns and select the correct 24.
option :
In a mitotic cycle, the correct sequence of phases is
       Column - I              Column - II
1. S, G , G , M
1 2

(a) Smooth              (i) Protein synthesis endoplasmic

2. G , S, G , M
reticulum 1 2

3. M, G , G , S
(b) Rough                (ii) Lipid synthesis endoplasmic 1 2

reticulum 4. G , G , S, M
1 2

(c) Golgi complex     (iii) Glycosylation 25.

(d) Centriole            (iv) Spindle formation During Meiosis 1, in which stage synapsis takes place?
1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii). (d)-(iv) 1. Pachytene
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2. Zygotene 2. Zinc
3. Diplotene 3. Copper
4. Leptotene 4. Molybdenum
26. 30.
Match the following events that occur in their respective During non-cyclic photophosphorylation, when electrons
phases of cell cycle and select the correct option : are lost from the reaction center at PS II, what is the
source which replaces these electrons?
(a) G 1 phase                      (i) Cell grows and organelle
duplication 1. Oxygen
(b) S phase                         (ii) DNA replication and 2. Water
chromosome duplication
3. Carbon dioxide
(c) G 2 phase                       (iii) Cytoplasmic growth
4. Light 
(d) Metaphase in  M-phase      (iv) Alignment of
chromosomes 31.

1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) 1. RuBisCO is a bifunctional enzyme

3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) 2. In C4 plants, the site of RuBisCO activity is mesophyll
cell
4. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
3. The substrate molecule for RuBisCO activity is a 5-
27. carbon compound
Select the incorrect statement. 4. RuBisCO action requires ATP and NADPH 
1. Transport of molecules in phloem can be bidirectional. 32.
2. The movement of minerals in the xylem is Pyruvate dehydrogenase activity during aerobic
unidirectional. respiration requires :-
3. Unloading of sucrose at the sink does not involve the 1. Calcium
utilization of ATP.
2. Iron
4. Elements most easily mobilized in plants from one
region to another are phosphorus, sulfur, nitrogen, and 3. Cobalt
potassium. 4. Magnesium
28. 33.
In Glycine max, the product of biological nitrogen Who coined the term 'Kinetin'?
fixation is transported from the root nodules to other
parts as: 1. Skoog and Miller

1. Ammonia 2. Darwin

2. Glutamate 3. Went

3. Nitrates 4. Kurosawa

4. Ureides 34.

29. Inhibitory substances in dormant seeds cannot be

removed by subjecting seeds to:
Which of the following elements helps in maintaining the
structure of ribosomes? 1. Gibberellic acid

1. Magnesium 2. Nitrate
3. Ascorbic acid
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4. Chilling conditions Match the following columns and select the correct
option :
35.
        Column - I                              Column - II
Match the following concerning the activity/function and
the phytohormone involved :- (a) Pneumotaxic Centre                   (i) Alveoli
(a) Fruit ripener         (i) Abscisic acid (b) O Dissociation curve                (ii) Pons region of the
2

brain
(b) Herbicide             (ii) GA 3
(c) Carbonic  Anhydrase                  (iii) Haemoglobin
(c) Bolting agent       (iii) 2, 4-D
(d) Primary site of exchange            (iv) R.B.C. 
(d) Stress hormone   (iv) Ethephon      of gases
Select the correct option from following :- 1. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) 2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) 3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) 4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) 40.
36. Which of the following is associated with a decrease in
The intrinsic factor that helps in the absorption of vitamin cardiac output?
B is secreted by-
12
1. Sympathetic nerves
1. Goblet cells 2. Parasympathetic neural signals
2. Hepatic cells 3. Pneumotaxic center
3. Oxyntic cells 4. Adrenal medullary hormones
4. Chief cells 41.
37. Which of the following conditions causes
The proteolytic enzyme rennin is found in : erythroblastosis fetalis?

1. Intestinal juice 1. Mother Rh + ve

and fetus Rh − ve

2. Bile juice 2. Mother Rh − ve

and fetus Rh + ve

3. Gastric juice 3. Both mother and fetus Rh − ve

4. Pancreatic juice 4. Both mother and fetus Rh + ve

38. 42.
The Total Lung Capacity (TLC) is the total volume of air The increase in osmolarity from outer to inner medullary
accommodated in the lungs at the end of forced interstitium is maintained due to :
inspiration. This includes :
(i) Close proximity between Henle's loop and vasa recta
1. RV; IC (Inspiratory Capacity); EC (Expiratory
Capacity); and ERV (ii) Counter current mechanism

2. RV; ERV; IC and EC (iii) Selective secretion of HCO 3¯ and hydrogen ions in
PCT
3. RV; ERV; VC (Vital Capacity) and FRC (Functional
Residual Capacity) (iv) Higher blood pressure in glomerular capillaries

4. RV (Residual Volume); ERV (Expiratory Reserve 1. Only (ii)

Volume); TV (Tidal Volume); and IRV (Inspiratory 2. (iii) and (iv)
Reserve Volume
3. (i), (ii), and (iii)
39.
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4. (i) and (ii) Match the following columns and select the correct
option:-
43.
            Column-I              Column-II
Select the correct statement :
(a) Pituitary hormone     (i) Steroid
1. Atrial Natriuretic Factor increases the blood pressure.
(b) Epinephrine             (ii) Neuropeptides
2. Angiotensin II is a powerful vasodilator.
(c) Endorphins              (iii) Peptides, proteins
3. Counter current pattern of blood flow is not observed
in vasa recta. (d) Cortisol                   (iv) Biogenic amines
4. Reduction in Glomerular Filtration Rate activates JG 1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
cells to release renin. 
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
44.
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Match the following columns and select the correct
option 4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

        Column - I               Column - II 47.

(a) Gout                         (i) Decreased levels of estrogen Hormones stored and released from neurohypophysis
are:-
(b) Osteoporosis              (ii) Low Ca ++
ions in the blood
1. Thyroid-stimulating hormone and Oxytocin
(c) Tetany                       (iii) Accumulation of uric acid
2. Oxytocin and Vasopressin
crystals
3. Follicle-stimulating hormone and leutinizing hormone
(d) Muscular dystrophy     (iv) Autoimmune disorder
4. Prolactin and Vasopressin
                                       (v) Genetic disorder
48.
1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
 Vegetative propagule in Agave is as :
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(v)
1. Rhizome
3. (a)-(iv), .(b)-(v), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
2. Bulbil
4. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
3. Offset
45.
4. Eye
Match the following columns and select the correct
option : 49.
       Column - I              Column - II In some plants, the thalamus contributes to fruit
formation. Such fruits are termed as
(a) Rods and cones          (i) Absence of Cones
photoreceptor cells 1. False fruits
(b) Blind Spot                 (ii) Cones are densely packed 2. Aggregate fruits
(c) Fovea                       (iii) Photoreceptor cells 3. True fruits
(d) Iris                          (iv) Visible coloured portion of 4. Parthenocarpic fruit
the eye
50.
1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
Which of the following is incorrect for wind-pollinated
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) plants?
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) 1. Well exposed stamens and stigma
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) 2. Many ovules in each ovary
46. 3. Flowers are small and not brightly colored
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4. Pollen grains are light and non-sticky 1. Sutton and Boveri

51. 2. Bateson and Punnet
In human beings, at the end of 12 weeks (first trimester) 3. T. H. Morgan
of pregnancy, the following is observed:
4. Watson and Crick
1. Eyelids and eyelashes are formed
56.
2. Most of the major organ systems are formed
The number of contrasting characters studied by Mendel
3. The head is covered with fine hair for his experiments was :
4. Movement of the fetus  1. 14
52. 2. 4
Select the correct option of haploid cells from the 3. 2
following groups :
4. 7
1. Primary oocyte, Secondary oocyte, Spermatid
57.
2. Secondary spermatocyte, First polar body, Ovum
The best example for pleiotropy is:-
3. Spermatogonia, Primary spermatocyte, Spermatid
1. Skin color
4. Primary spermatocyte, Secondary spermatocyte,
Second polar body 2. Phenylketonuria

53. 3. Colour Blindness

Match the following columns and select the correct 4. ABO Blood group
option : 58.
      Column - I       Column - II The term 'Nuclein' for the genetic material was used by :
(a) Ovary                 (i) Human chorionic Gonadotropin 1. Franklin
(b) Placenta             (ii) Estrogen & Progesterone 2. Meischer
(c) Corpus luteum     (iii) Androgens 3. Chargaff
(d) Leydig cells         (iv) Progesterone only 4. Mendel 
1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) 59.
2. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) In the polynucleotide chain of DNA, a nitrogenous base
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) is linked to the –OH of:

4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) 1. 2'C pentose sugar

54. 2. 3'C pentose sugar

Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogens can 3. 5'C pentose sugar

be used as a contraceptive in the form of - 4. 1'C pentose sugar
1. Implants only 60.
2. Injections only E.coli has only 4.6 × 10 base pairs and completes the
6

3. Pills, injections and implants process of replication within 18 minutes; then the
average rate of polymerization is approximate-
4. Pills only 
1. 2000 base pairs/second
55.
2. 3000 base pairs/second
Chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed by :
3. 4000 base pairs/second
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4. 1000 base pairs/second For the commercial and industrial production of Citric
Acid, which of the following microbes is used?
61.
1. Aspergillus niger
Which is the basis of genetic mapping of the human
genome as well as DNA fingerprinting ? 2. Lactobacillus sp
1. Polymorphism in the DNA sequence 3. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
2. Single nucleotide polymorphism 4. Clostridium bretylium
3. Polymorphism in hnRNA sequence 67.
4. Polymorphism in the RNA sequence Match the following columns and select the correct
option:-
62.
Embryological support for evolution was proposed by   Column - I    Column -II
1. Ernst Heckel
Biocontrol agents
2. Karl Ernst von Baer a) Dragonflies (i) of several plant
3. Charles Darwin pathogens

4. Alfred Wallace
Bacillus Get rid of Aphids
b) (ii)
63. thuringiensis  and mosquitoes
After about how many years of the formation of the
earth, life appeared on this planet? Narrow spectrum
c) Glomus (iii) insecticidal
1. 500 billion years applications
2. 50 million years
Biocontrol agents
3. 500 million years
d) Baculoviruses (iv) of lepidopteran
4. 50 billion years plant pests
64.
Absorb
The phenomenon of the evolution of different species in     (v) phosphorus from
a given geographical area starting from a point and soil
spreading to other habitats is called:-
1. Saltation 1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(v), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
2. Co-evolution 2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
3. Natural selection 3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v)
4. Adaptive radiation 4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(v), (d)-(iii)
65.  
A Hominid fossil discovered in Java in 1891, now 68.
extinct, having a cranial capacity of about 900 ccs was:
Cyclosporin A, used as an immuno suppression agent, is
1. Homo erectus produced from
2. Neanderthal man 1. Monascus purpureus
3. Homo sapiens 2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
4. Australopithecus 3. Penicillium notatum
66. 4. Trichoderma polysporum
69.
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Inbreeding depression is - a specific sequence of six base pairs is:

1. Reduced motility and immunity due to close 1. EcoR1
inbreeding
2. Adenosine deaminase
2. Decreased productivity due to mating of superior male
and inferior female 3. Thermostable DNA polymerase

3. Decrease in body mass of progeny due to continued 4. Hind II

close inbreeding 74.
4. Reduced fertility and productivity due to continued In recombinant DNA technology antibiotics are used :
close inbreeding
1. to keep medium bacteria-free
70.
2. to detect alien DNA
Which of the following STDs are not curable?
3. to impart disease-resistance to the host plant
1. Genital herpes, Hepatitis B, HIV infection
4. as selectable markers
2. Chlamydiasis, Syphilis, Genital warts
75.
3. HIV, Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis
Match the following techniques or instruments with their
4. Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis, Hepatitis B  usage :
71. (a) Bioreactor               (i) Separation of DNA fragments
Match the following columns and select the correct (b) Electrophoresis       (ii) Production of large quantities
option :                                        of products
    Column - I           Column - II (c) PCR                       (iii) Detection of pathogen, based
(i) Typhoid              (a) Haemophilus influenzae                                        on antigen - antibody reaction

(ii) Malaria              (b) Wuchereria bancrofti (d) ELISA                    (iv) Amplification of nucleic acids

(iii) Pneumonia       (c) Plasmodium vivax Select the correct option from following:

(iv) Filariasis           (d) Salmonella typhi 1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

1. (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b) 2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

2. (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a) 3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

3. (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d) 4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

4. (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c) 76.

72. In a mixture, DNA fragments are separated by-

The yellowish fluid "colostrum" secreted by mammary 1. Bioprocess engineering

glands of the mother during the initial days of lactation 2. Restriction digestion
has abundant antibodies (IgA) to protect the infant. This
type of immunity is called as : 3. Electrophoresis

1. Passive immunity 4. Polymerase chain reaction

2. Active immunity 77.

3. Acquired immunity Spooling is :-

4. Autoimmunity 1. Amplification of DNA

73. 2. Cutting of separated DNA bands from the agarose gel

First discovered restriction endonuclease that always cuts 3. Transfer of separated DNA fragments to synthetic
DNA molecule at a particular point by recognizing membranes
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4. Collection of isolated DNA  4. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

78. 82.
Select the correct statement from the following : The impact of immigration on population density is:-
1. Gel electrophoresis is used for the amplification of a 1. Negative
DNA segment.
2. Both positive and negative
2. The polymerase enzyme joins the gene of interest and
the vector DNA. 3. Neutralized by natality

3. Restriction enzyme digestions are performed by 4. Positive

incubating purified DNA molecules with the restriction 83.
enzymes of optimum conditions.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
4. PCR is used for isolation and separation of genes of
interest. 1. Biomass decreases from first to fourth trophic level

79. 2. Energy content gradually increases from first to fourth

trophic level
RNA interference is used for which of the following
purposes in the field of biotechnology? 3. Number of individuals decreases from first trophic
level to fourth trophic level
1. to develop a plant tolerant to abiotic stresses
4. Energy content gradually decreases from first to fourth
2. to develop a pest-resistant plant against infestation by trophic level
nematode
84.
3. to enhance the mineral usage by the plant
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding
4. to reduce post-harvest losses the phosphorus cycle?
80. 1. Phosphates are the major form of phosphorus reservoir
The laws and rules to prevent unauthorized exploitation 2. Phosphorus solubilizing bacteria facilitate the release
of bio-resources are termed as - of phosphorus from organic remains
1. Biopatenting 3. There is the appreciable respiratory release of
2. Bioethics phosphorus into the atmosphere

3. Bioengineering 4. It is a sedimentary cycle

4. Biopiracy 85.

81. The rate of decomposition is faster in the ecosystem due

to the following factors EXCEPT:-
Match the items in Column-I with those in Column-II :
1. Detritus rich in sugars
            Column I               Column II
2. Warm and moist environment
(a) Herbivores-Plants      (i) Commensalism
3. Presence of aerobic soil microbes
(b) Mycorrhiza-Plants      (ii) Mutualism
4. Detritus richer in lignin and chitin
(c) Sheep-Cattle             (iii) Predation
86.
(d) Orchid-Tree              (iv) Competition
According to Alexander von Humboldt :
Select the correct option from following :
1. Species richness decreases with increasing area of
1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) exploration
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) 2. Species richness increases with the increasing area, but
only up to limit
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
3. There is no relationship between species richness
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91.
and area explored.
Which of the following statement is NOT true about acid
4. Species richness goes on increasing with increasing rain ?
area of exploration
(1) It is due to reaction of SO2, NO2 and CO2 with rain
87.
water
In the following, in each set, a conservation approach and
an example of a method of conservation are given (2) Causes no damage to monuments like Taj Mahal.

(a) In situ conservation - Biosphere Reserve (3) It is harmful to plants.

(b) Ex situ conservation - Sacred groves (4) Its pH is less than 5.6

(c) In situ conservation - Seed bank 92.

(d) Ex situ conservation - Cryopreservation ` The oxidation number of the underlined atom in the
following species
Select the option with the correct match of approach and
method : (1) Cu2O is -1

1. (a) and (c) (2) ClO  is +5

−

2. (a) and (d) (3) K2Cr2O7 is +6

3. (b) and (d) (4) HAuCl4  is +3
4. (a) and (b)
Identify the incorrect option.
88.
93.
A species that was introduced for ornamentation but has
Reaction of propanamide with ethanolic sodium
become a troublesome weed in India :
hydroxide and bromine will give
1. Parthenium hysterophorus
(1) Ethylamine
2. Eichhornia crassipes
(2) Methylamine
3. Prosopis juliflora
(3) Propylamine
4. Trapa Spinosa
(4) Aniline
89.
94.
Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was
A liquid compound (x) can be purified by steam
amended in 1987 to include among pollutants
distillation only if it is
1. Vehicular exhaust
(1) Steam volatile, immiscible with water 
2. Allergy causing pollen
(2) Not steam volatile, miscible with water
3. Noise
(3) Steam volatile, miscible with water
4. Particulates of size 2.5 micrometer or below
(4) Not steam volatile, immiscible with water
90.
95.
According to the Central Pollution Control Board
Among the compounds shown below which one revealed
[CPCB] what size (in diameter) of particulate is
a linear structure ?
responsible for causing greater harm to human health?
(1) NO2
1. 3.5 micrometers
2. 2.5 micrometers (2) HOCl

3. 4.0 micrometers (3) O3

4. 3.0 micrometers (4) N2O

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96.
(2) It is an addition polymer.
Which of the following compound is most reactive in
electrophilic aromatic substitution ? (3) It is a branched chain polymer.
(4) It is a linear polymer.
100.

If for a certain reaction Δ H is 30 kJ mol–1 at 450 K,the

r

value of Δ S (in JK–1 mol–1) for which the samereaction

r

will be spontaneous at the same temperature is

(1) 70
(2) –33
(3) 33
(4) -70
101.
Match the element in column I with that in column II.
97.      Column-I             Column-II
Which of the following will NOT undergo SN1 reaction (a) Copper             (i) Non-metal
with O H ? (b) Fluorine           (ii) Transition metal
(1) CH 2 = CH − CH2 Cl (c) Silicon             (iii) Lanthanoid
(2) (CH 3
) CCl
3
(d) Cerium            (iv) Metalloid
Identify the correct match :
(1) (a)-(ii),  (b)-(iv),  (c)-(i),   (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(ii),  (b)-(i),    (c)-(iv),  (d)-(iii)
(3) 
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii),   (c)-(i),   (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(i),   (b)-(ii),   (c)-(iii),   (d)-(iv)
102.
(4)  Which of the following is a free radical substitution
reaction ?
98.
(1) Benzene with Br2/AlCl3
Which of the following is not true about chloramphenicol
? (2) Acetylene with HBr
(1) It inhibits the growth of only grampositive bacteria. (3) Methane with Br2/hv
(2) It is a broad spectrum antibiotic.
(4) Propene with HBr/(C6H5COO)2
(3) It is not bactericidal.
103.
(4) It is bacteriostatic.
The reaction of concentrated sulphuric acid with
99. carbohydrates (C12H22O11) is an example of
Which of the following statement is correct about
(1) Dehydration
Bakelite ?
(2) Oxidation
(1) It is a cross linked polymer.
(3) Reduction

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(4) Sulphonation (2) Lanthanoids reveal only +3 oxidation state.

104. (3) The lanthanoid ions other than the f0 type and the f14
Which of the following substituted phenols is the type are all paramagnetic.
strongest acid? (4) The overall decrease in atomic and ionic radii from
lanthanum to lutetium is called lanthanoid contraction.
108.
Match the following aspects with the respective metal.
    Aspects                                            Metal
(a) The metal which reveals                 (i) Scandium
a maximum number of oxidation
states
(b) The metal although placed              (ii) Copper
inn 3d block is considered not
as a transition element
105.
(c) The metal which does not exhibit     (iii) Manganese
Match the compounds of Xe in column I with the variable oxidation states
molecular structure in column II.
     Column-I                 Column-II (d) The metal which in +1 oxidation       (iv) Zinc
state in aqueous solution undergoes
(a) XeF2                    (i) Square planar disproportionation

(b) XeF4                    (ii) Linear Select the correct option :

(1) (a)-(i)   (b)-(iv)  (c)-(ii)  (d)-(iii)
(c) XeO3                    (iii) Square pyramidal
(2) (a)-(iii)  (b)-(iv)  (c)-(i)  (d)-(ii)
(d) XeOF4                  (iv) Pyramidal (3) (a)-(iii)  (b)-(i)   (c)-(iv)  (d)-(ii)
(1) (a)-(ii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iii) (d)-(iv) (4) (a)-(ii)  (b)-(iv)  (c)-(i)   (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(iii) (d)-(i) 109.
(3) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iii) (c)-(i) (d)-(iv) If 8g of a non-electrolyte solute is dissolved in 114 g of
n-octane to reduce its vapour pressure to 80%, the molar
(4) (a)-(ii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iv) (d)-(iii)
mass (in g mol–1) of the solute is [Given that molar mass
106. of n-octane is 114 g mol–1 ]
The half-life for a zero order reaction having 0.02 M (1) 40
initial concentration of reactant is 100 s. The rate
constant (in mol L-1 s-1) for the reaction is (2) 60

(1) 1. 0 × 10 −4 (3) 80

(2) 2. 0 × 10 −4 (4) 20
110.
(3) 2. 0 × 10 −3

Match the coordination number and type of hybridisation

(4) 1. 0 × 10 −2

with distribution of hybrid orbitals in space based on

107. Valence bond theory.

Identify the incorrect statement from the following: Coordination number                            Distribution of
hybrid orbitals                     
(1) Zirconium and Hafnium have identical radii of 160 and type of hybridisation                       in space
pm and 159 pm, respectively as a consequence of
lanthanoid contraction. (a) 4, sp3                                          (i)

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trigonal bipyramidal
(1) PCl5                                                     Trigonal
(b) 4, dsp2                                        (ii) Octahedral
(2) SF6                                                      Octahedral
(c) 5, sp3d                                        (iii) tetrahedral
(3) BeCl2                                                     Linear
(d) 6, d2sp3                                       (iv) square planar
(4) NH3                                                       Trigonal
Select the correct option :
pyramidal
(1) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iii) (c)-(iv) (d)-(i)
115.
(2) (a)-(iii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)
B2 H6

CH3 CH2 CH = CH2 −−−−−−−−−→ Z

(3) (a)-(iv) (b)-(i) (c)-(ii) (d)-(iii) H2 O, H2 O2 , OH
−

(4) (a)-(iii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iv) (d)-(ii) What is Z?

111. (1) CH 3 CH2 CH2 CH2 OH

The number of angular nodes and radial nodes in 3s (2) CH 3 CH2 C H CH3
orbital are |
OH

(1) 0 and 2, respectively

(3) CH 3 CH2 CH2 CH O

(2) 1 and 0, respectively

(4) CH 3 CH2 CH2 CH3

(3) 3 and 0, respectively

116.
(4) 0 and 1, respectively
Identify the reaction from following having top position
112. in EMF series (Std reduction potential) according to their
electrode potential at 298 K.
Identify the correct statement from the following.
(1) The order of hydration enthalpies of alkaline earth (1) Mg2++ 2e–→Mg(s)
cations (2) Fe2+ + 2e–→ Fe(s)
Be2+ < Mg2+ < Ca2+ < Sr2+ < Ba2+ (3) Au3++ 3e–→Au(s)
(2) Lithium and Magnesium show some similarities in (4) K++ le –→K(s)
their physical properties as they are diagonally placed in
periodic table. 117.
(3) Lithium is softer among all alkali metals. Match the elements in Column I with methods of
purification in Column II.
(4) Lithium chloride is deliquescent and crystallises as a        Column I                           Column II
hydrate, LiCl·H2O. (a) Boron                           (i) Van Arkel method
113. (b) Tin                               (ii) Mond's process
Deficiency of which vitamin causes osteomalacia ? (c) Zirconium                     (iii) Liquation
(1) Vitamin A (d) Nickel                           (iv) Zone refining
(2) Vitamin D (1) (a)-(iv)    (b)-(iii)   (c)-(i)   (d)-(ii)
(3) Vitamin K (2) (a)-(iv)    (b)-(iii)   (c)-(ii)   (d)-(i)
(4) Vitamin E (3) (a)-(ii)    (b)-(i)      (c)-(iv)  (d)-(iii)
114. (4) (a)-(iii)    (b)-(iv)    (c)-(i)    (d)-(ii)
Identify the wrongly matched pair. 118.
Molecule                                            Shape or geometry Which among the following salt solutions is basic in
of the molecule nature ?

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(1) Ammonium chloride In collision theory of chemical reaction, ZAB represents

(2) Ammonium sulphate (1) the fraction of molecules with energies greater than
(3) Ammonium nitrate Ea

(4) Sodium acetate (2) the collision frequency of reactants, A and B

119. (3) steric factor
In which of the sols, the colloidal particles are with (4) the fraction of molecules with energies equal to Ea
negative charge ?
123.
(1) TiO2
Which of the following statement is not true about
(2) Haemoglobin glucose ?
(3) Starch (1) It is an aldohexose.
(4) Hydrated Al2O3 (2) It contains five hydroxyl groups.

120. (3) It is a reducing sugar.

Which of the following acid will form an (a) Anhydride (4) It is an aldopentose.
on heating and (b) Acid imide on strong heating with 124.
ammonia?
The potential energy (y) curve for H2 formation as a
function of internuclear distance (x) of the H atoms is
shown below.

The bond energy of H2 is:

121. (1) (b-a)
In a typical fuel cell, the reactants (R) and product (P) are (c−a)
(2) 
:- 2

(b−a)
(1) R = H 2(g)
,  O2(g) ;  P = H2 O2(l) (3)  2

(2) R = H 2(g)
,  O2(g) ;  P = H2 O(l) (4) (c-a)

(3) R = H 2(g)
,  O2(g) ,  Cl2 (g);  P = H ClO4(aq)
125.
Identify compound (A) in the following reaction :
(4) R = H 2(g) ,  N2(g) ;  P = N H3(aq)

122.

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(1) Benzoyl chloride (2) To provide water molecules for hydration process
(2) Toluene (3) To help to remove water molecules
(3) Acetophenone (4) To slow down the setting process
(4) Benzoic acid 130.
126. Which of the following oxide is amphoteric in nature?

How many (i) sp2 hybridised carbon atoms and (ii)  π (1) SnO2
bonds are present in the following compound?
(2) SiO2

(3) GeO2

(4) CO2

(1) 7, 5 131.

(2) 8, 6 Which one of the following reactions does not come

under hydrolysis type reaction?
(3) 7, 6
(1) SiCl 4(l)
+ 2H2 O(l) → SiO2(s) + 4H Cl(aq)
(4) 8, 5
(2) Li 3 N(s) + 2H2 O(l) → N H3(g) + 3LiOH(aq)
127.
(3) 2F + 2H2 O(l) → 4H F(aq) + O2(g)
At standard conditions, if the change in the enthalpy for 2(g)

the following reaction is -109 kJ mol-1 (4) P 4 O10(s) + 6H2 O(l) → 4H3 P O4(aq)

H2(g)+Br2(g) →2HBr(g) 132.

Given that bond energy of H2 and Br2 is 435 kJ mol-1 Which one of the following compounds shows both,
Frenkel as well as Schottky defects ?
and 192 kJ mol-1, respectively, what is the bond energy
(in kJ mol-1) of HBr? (1) AgBr

(1) 368 (2) AgI

(2) 736 (3) NaCl

(3) 518 (4) ZnS

(4) 259 133.

128. One mole of carbon atom weighs 12 g, the number of

atoms in it is equal to, (Mass of carbon – 12 is 
The minimum pressure required to compress 600 dm3 of  g)
−23
1. 9926 × 10

a gas at 1 bar to 150 dm3 at 40°C is (1) 1. 2 × 10 23

(1) 4.0 bar (2) 6. 022 × 10 22

(2) 0.2 bar

(3) 12 × 10 22

(3) 1.0 bar

(4) 6. 022 × 10 23

(4) 2.5 bar

134.
129.
Isotonic solutions have same
What is the role of gypsum, CaSO4.2H2O in setting of
(1) vapour pressure
cement? Identify the correct option from the following:
(2) freezing temperature
(1) To fasten the setting process

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(3) osmotic pressure 2.  4. 85  ×  10 −4

  rad

(4) boiling temperature 3.  4. 80  ×  10 −6

  rad

135. 4.  1. 75 ×  10 −2

  rad

The solubility product for a salt of the type AB is  140.

4 × 10
−8
. What is the molarity of its standard solution?
The magnetic flux linked with a coil (in Wb) is given by
(1) 2 × 10  mol/L
−4
the equation ϕ = 5t + 3t + 60.  2

The magnitude of induced emf in the coil at the fourth

(2) 16 × 10  mol/L
−16

second will be:

(3) 2 × 10 −16
 mol/L
1.  33 V
(4) 4 × 10 −4
 mol/L 2.  43 V
136. 3.  108 V
The E.M wave with the shortest wavelength among the 4.  10 V
following is:
141.
1.  Ultraviolet rays 
The electric field at a point on the equatorial plane at a
2.  X-rays distance r from the centre of a dipole having dipole
→
3.  Gamma-rays  moment P  is given by:
4.  Microwaves   (r>> separation of two charges forming the dipole,  ε 0 

= permittivity of free space ) 

137.
→
→
The angular speed of the wheel of a vehicle is increased 1.   E  =  
P

4π ε0  r
3

from 360 rpm to 1200 rpm in 14 seconds. Its angular

acceleration is:
→
→
2.   E  =  
2P

4π ε0  r
3

1.  2π rad/s 2

→
→

2.  28π  rad/s 2 3.    E  =   −  
4π ε0  r
P
2

3. 120π  rad/s
→
2 →
4.   E  =   −  
4π ε0  r
P

4.  1  rad/s 2

142.
138.
A plane-convex lens of unknown material and unknown
What happens to the mass number and the atomic focal length is given. With the help of a spherometer, we
number of an element when it emits γ−radiation? can measure the:
1. Mass number decreases by four and atomic number 1. focal length of the lens.
decreases by two.
2. radius of curvature of the curved surface.
2. Mass number and atomic number remain unchanged.
3. aperture of the lens.
3. Mass number remains unchanged while atomic
number decreases by one. 4. refractive index of the material.

4. Mass number increases by four and the atomic number 143.

increases by two. A light bulb and an inductor coil are connected to an ac
139. source through a key as shown in the figure below. The
key is closed and after some time an iron rod is inserted
The angle of 1' (minute of arc) in radian is nearly equal into the interior of the inductor. The glow of the light
to: bulb:
1.  2. 91  ×  10 −4
  rad

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1.  0.75 A 
2.  1 A 
3.  1.5 A 
4. 0.5 A 
147.
Two coherent sources of light interfere and produce
fringe pattern on a screen. For the central maximum, the
1.  decreases  phase difference between the two waves will be: 
2.  remains unchanged  1.  zero 
3.  will fluctuate  2.  π
4.  increases  3.  3π/2
144. 4.  π/2
The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends upon: 148.
1. the temperature of the sink only. The total energy of an electron in the  n  stationary orbit
th

2. the temperatures of the source and sink. of the hydrogen atom can be obtained by:
1.  E
13.6

3. the volume of the cylinder of the engine. n  =  

n
2
 eV

4. the temperature of the source only. 2.  E n  =    −

13.6
 eV
2
n

145.
3.  E n  =   −  
1.36

n
2
 eV

Out of the following which one is a forward-biased

diode?  4.  E n  =   − 13. 6 × n  eV
2

149.
Identify the function which represents a periodic motion.
1.  e ωt

2.  log e
(ωt)

3.  sin ωt + cos ωt
4.  e −ωt

150.
The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron moving with
the kinetic energy of 144 eV is nearly equal to:
146.
1.  102  ×  10 −3
 nm
For the circuit shown in the figure, the current I will be:
2.  102  ×  10 −4
 nm

3.  102  ×  10 −5
 nm

4.  102  ×  10 −2
 nm

151.
The mean free path l for a gas molecule depends upon the
diameter, d of the molecule as:
1.  l  ∝
1

2
d

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3.  2  ×  10 3
 m

2.  l  ∝ d 4. π  ×  10 −3

 m

3.  l  ∝  d 2 155.

4.  l  ∝ 1 The length of the string of a musical instrument is 90 cm

d
and has a fundamental frequency of 120 Hz. Where
152. should it be pressed to produce a fundamental frequency
of 180 Hz? 
An n-p-n transistor is connected in a common emitter
configuration (see figure) in which collector voltage drop 1.  75 cm
across load resistance ( 800  Ω  ) connected to the 2.  60 cm 
collector circuit is 0.8 V. The collector current is : 
3.  45 cm 
4.  80 cm 
 
156.
The acceleration of an electron due to the mutual
attraction between the electron and a proton when they
o

are 1. 6 A apart is,

−31 −19
(me ≃  9 × 10  kg,  e = 1. 6 × 10  C)

1.  2 mA  1 9 2 −2
(T ake    =  9 × 10  N m C )
4πε0
2.  0.1 mA 
3.  1 mA  1.  10 24
 m/s
2

4.  0.2 mA  2.  10 23

 m/s
2

153. 3.  10 22
 m/s
2

A person sitting on the ground floor of a building notices 4.  10  m/s 25 2

through the window, of height 1.5 m, a ball dropped from

the roof of the building crosses the window in 0.1 sec. 157.
What is the velocity of the ball when it is at the topmost The wave nature of electrons was experimentally verified
point of the window? ( g  =  10  m/s ) 2
by, 
1.  15.5 m/s  1. de-Broglie 
2.  14.5 m/s  2. Hertz
3. 4.5 m/s  3. Einstein 
4. 20 m/s  4. Davisson and Germer 
154. 158.
The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is Two solid conductors are made up of the same material,
given by: have the same length and same resistance. One of them
−7 3 11
has a circular cross-section of area  A  and the other one 1
BY   =  2 × 10   sin  (π × 10  x  +  3π  × 10  t) T
has a square cross-section of area  A . The ratio  A /A 2 1 2

Calculate the wavelength.   is:

1.  π  ×  10 3
 m
1.  1.5

2.  2  ×  10 −3
 m
2.  1
3.  0.8
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163.
4.  2
An object is placed on the principal axis of a concave
159. mirror at a distance of 1.5f ( f is the focal length). The
For the circuit given below, the Kirchoff's loop rule for image will be at:
the loop BCDEB is given by the equation: 1.  -3f
2. 1.5f
3. -1.5f
4.  3f
164.
The half-life of a radioactive sample undergoing  α−
decay is  1. 4 × 10   sec. If the number of nuclei in the
17

1.  −i 2 R2   +  E2 − E3   +  i3 R1   =  0 sample is  2. 0  ×  10 , the activity of the sample is
21

nearly equal to:

2.   i 2 R2   +  E2 − E3   −  i3 R1   =  0
1.  10 4
 Bq
3.  i 2 R2   +  E2 + E3   +  i3 R1   =  0

2.  10 5
 Bq
4.  −i 2
R2   +  E2 + E3   +  i3 R1   =  0

3.  10 6
 Bq
160.
Three stars A, B, and C have surface temperatures  4.  10  Bq
3

T ,  T ,  and T  respectively. Star A appears bluish, star 165.

A B C

B appears reddish and star C yellowish. Hence,

If the critical angle for total internal reflection from a
1.  T   > T    >  T
A B C medium to vacuum is  45°, the velocity of light in the
medium is, 
2.   T   > T    >  T
B C A

3.  T   > T    >  T 1.   1. 5  ×  10  m/s  8

C B A

4.  T A  > TC    >  TB 2.    3 8

  ×  10  m/s 
√2

161. 3.   √2  ×  10 8

 m/s 

A liquid does not wet the solid surface if the angle of

contact is: 4.   3 ×  10 8
 m/s 

1.  equal to 45° 166.

2.  equal to 60° A wheel with 20 metallic spokes, each 1 m long, is

rotated with a speed of 120 rpm in a plane perpendicular
3.  greater then 90° to a magnetic field of 0.4 G. The induced emf between
the axle and rim of the wheel will be, ( 1 G  =  10  T  )
−4

4.  zero 
 
162.
1.  2. 51  ×  10 −4
 V
A point mass 'm' is moved in a vertical circle of radius 'r'
with the help of a string. The velocity of the mass is  2.  2. 51  ×  10 −5
 V

√7 gr at the lowest point. The tension in the string at the

3.  4. 0  ×  10 −5
 V
lowest point is:
4.  2.51 V
1.  6mg 
167.
2.  7mg
ρRT

3. 8mg An ideal gas equation can be written as  P = M0

 where 
ρ and M  are respectively, 
0
4.  1mg 
1.  Mass density, the mass of the gas 
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 NEET 2020 Exam (Covid Re-exam)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

2.  Number density, molar mass  Which of the following gate is called universal gate? 
3.  Mass density, molar mass  1. OR gate 
4.  Number density, the mass of the gas  2. AND gate 
168. 3. NAND gate 
The variation of electrostatic potential with radial 4. NOT gate 
distance r from the centre of a positively charged metallic
thin shell of radius R is given by the graph: 170.
The P-V diagram for an ideal gas in a piston-cylinder
assembly undergoing a thermodynamic process is shown
in the figure. The process is:

1. 

1.  adiabatic 
2.  isochoric
3.  isobaric 
4.  isothermal 
171.
2. 
The power of a biconvex lens is 10 dioptre and the radius
of curvature of each surface is 10 cm. Then the refractive
index of the material of the lens is, 
1.   4

2.   9

3.  
5

4.  
3

3. 
172.
An intrinsic semiconductor is converted into an n-type
extrinsic semiconductor by doping it with: 
1.  Phosphorous 
2.  Aluminium 
3.  Silver 
4. Germanium 

4.  173.

169. A barometer is constructed using a liquid ( density = 760 

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 NEET 2020 Exam (Covid Re-exam)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

kg /m   ). What would be the height of the liquid

3

2.  
R(n−1)

column, when a mercury barometer reads 76 cm? 

n

3. 
Rn

3
(n−1)
(density   of   mercury   =  13600  kg /m )

1.  1.36 m  4. R/n 

2.  13.6 m  177.

3.  136 m  Time intervals measured by a clock give the following

readings : 
4.  0.76 m 
1.255 sec, 1.24 sec, 1.27sec, 1.21 sec and 1.28 sec. 
174.
What is the percentage relative error of the observations? 
A wire of length L meter carrying a current of I ampere is
bent in the form of a circle. Its magnetic moment is,  1. 2 %
2
2. 4 %
1.   IL

4
 A − m
2

2
3. 16 %
2.   I×πL
 A − m
2

4
4. 1.6 %
2

3.   2 IL

π
 A − m
2
178.

4.  
IL
2

 A − m
2 Three identical spheres, each of mass M, are placed at the
4π
corners of a right-angle triangle with mutually
175. perpendicular sides equal to 2 m (see figure). Taking the
point of intersection of the two mutually perpendicular
A parallel plate capacitor having cross-sectional area A sides as the origin, find the position vector of the centre
and separation d has air in between the plates. Now an of mass. 
insulating slab of the same area but thickness d/2 is
inserted between the plates as shown in the figure having
dielectric constant K(=4). The ratio of new capacitance to
its original capacitance will be, 

1.  2(ˆi + ˆj)

2.  ( î + ĵ)

1.  2: 1 3.  
2
( î + ĵ)
3

2.  8: 5
4.   4
( î + ĵ)
3.  6: 5 3

4.  4: 1 179.
176. The equivalent resistance between A and B for the mesh
shown in the figure is:
What is the depth at which the value of acceleration due
to gravity becomes 1/n times the value at the surface of
the earth? (radius of the earth = R) 

1.  
R

2
n

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 NEET 2020 Exam (Covid Re-exam)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

1.  7. 2 Ω
2.  16 Ω
3.  30  Ω
4.  4. 8 Ω
180.
Calculate the acceleration of the block and trolly system
shown in the figure. The coefficient of kinetic friction
between the trolly and the surface is 0.05.
(  g  =  10 m/s , mass of the string is negligible and no
2

other friction exists ). 

1.  1.25 m /s 2

2.  1.50  m /s 2

3. 1.66 m /s 2

4. 1.00 m /s 2

Fill OMR Sheet

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