test bank answers

Chapter 1 Introduction and Mathematical Concepts

1. e 13. a 25. d 37. e 49. a 61. a
2. e 14. d 26. a 38. e 50. d 62. e
3. b 15. c 27. b 39. d 51. d 63. c
4. a 16. d 28. d 40. a 52. b 64. b
5. b 17. b 29. c 41. b 53. a 65. b
6. c 18. a 30. e 42. c 54. e 66. a
7. c 19. c 31. d 43. e 55. d 67. d
8. d 20. e 32. a 44. b 56. a 68. c
9. e 21. b 33. b 45. c 57. d 69. e
10. d 22. d 34. c 46. d 58. e 70. b
11. b 23. e 35. b 47. a 59. a
12. d 24. a 36. a 48. c 60. c

Chapter 2 Kinematics in One Dimension

1. c 19. c 37. c 55. c 73. d 91. b
2. b 20. d 38. a 56. d 74. e 92. a
3. d 21. b 39. b 57. e 75. b 93. a
4. e 22. c 40. b 58. d 76. d 94. c
5. a 23. c 41. c 59. b 77. b 95. e
6. e 24. d 42. e 60. c 78. e 96. b
7. a 25. b 43. c 61. a 79. d 97. c
8. a 26. b 44. d 62. b 80. e 98. a
9. e 27. a 45. b 63. b 81. b 99. c
10. b 28. d 46. b 64. a 82. d 100. b
11. d 29. c 47. c 65. b 83. a 101. d
12. e 30. d 48. c 66. d 84. c 102. d
13. a 31. b 49. d 67. e 85. a 103. e
14. c 32. b 50. a 68. a 86. c
15. a 33. e 51. b 69. d 87. d
16. b 34. a 52. b 70. a 88. b
17. d 35. d 53. c 71. e 89. d
18. e 36. e 54. e 72. c 90. b

Chapter 3 Kinematics in Two Dimensions

1. e 11. e 21. a 31. c 41. e 51. a
2. e 12. b 22. b 32. e 42. b 52. e
3. a 13. e 23. b 33. e 43. e 53. d
4. c 14. c 24. d 34. b 44. a 54. a
5. a 15. e 25. c 35. c 45. d 55. c
6. b 16. a 26. c 36. e 46. b 56. e
7. d 17. b 27. b 37. c 47. d 57. a
8. b 18. d 28. e 38. a 48. c 58. c
9. c 19. c 29. d 39. d 49. d 59. b
10. b 20. d 30. c 40. b 50. c 60. c
330 Answers TEST BANK

Chapter 3 (continued)
61. a 63. e 65. d 67. a
62. d 64. e 66. c 68. e
Chapter 4 Forces and Newton’s Laws of Motion
1. a 18. d 35. b 52. d 69. b 86. e
2. e 19. a 36. a 53. d 70. a 87. a
3. e 20. c 37. b 54. e 71. c 88. e
4. a 21. d 38. c 55. b 72. d 89. a
5. c 22. b 39. a 56. b 73. d 90. e
6. a 23. b 40. e 57. e 74. e 91. c
7. e 24. d 41. e 58. c 75. b 92. c
8. c 25. c 42. c 59. b 76. a 93. d
9. d 26. a 43. d 60. e 77. e 94. b
10. b 27. e 44. a 61. c 78. d 95. e
11. b 28. c 45. d 62. d 79. c 96. a
12. c 29. d 46. b 63. b 80. a 97. b
13. c 30. a 47. e 64. d 81. c 98. c
14. a 31. b 48. b 65. e 82. c 99. d
15. e 32. d 49. b 66. a 83. a 100. a
16. d 33. c 50. c 67. e 84. b 101. c
17. e 34. d 51. a 68. a 85. b 102. e
103. d
Chapter 5 Dynamics of Uniform Circular Motion
1. b 11. d 21. b 31. e 41. c 51. e
2. d 12. e 22. a 32. b 42. e 52. c
3. e 13. a 23. e 33. c 43. b 53. c
4. c 14. b 24. a 34. b 44. d 54. a
5. e 15. a 25. d 35. a 45. d 55. b
6. d 16. e 26. e 36. a 46. a 56. b
7. c 17. b 27. c 37. d 47. c 57. c
8. d 18. d 28. d 38. a 48. d 58. d
9. e 19. a 29. c 39. e 49. a 59. e
10. a 20. c 30. c 40. a 50. a
Chapter 6 Work and Energy
1. d 11. c 21. b 31. d 41. b 51. a
2. e 12. d 22. e 32. d 42. e 52. c
3. a 13. b 23. c 33. e 43. d 53. b
4. e 14. b 24. d 34. c 44. c 54. c
5. b 15. d 25. a 35. b 45. a 55. d
6. e 16. b 26. b 36. e 46. a 56. d
7. c 17. c 27. a 37. b 47. e 57. c
8. a 18. a 28. c 38. c 48. e 58. e
9. a 19. d 29. e 39. a 49. d 59. c
10. c 20. a 30. b 40. d 50. d 60. a
Physics, 7e TEST BANK Answers 331

Chapter 6 (continued)

61. e 64. d 67. c 70. d 73. e 76. b

62. b 65. a 68. c 71. b 74. a 77. d
63. b 66. e 69. b 72. c 75. e 78. d

Chapter 7 Impulse and Momentum

1. e 12. a 23. b 34. a 45. e 56. d

2. a 13. a 24. c 35. c 46. d 57. c
3. e 14. d 25. a 36. d 47. d 58. b
4. a 15. d 26. c 37. b 48. b 59. a
5. e 16. b 27. a 38. d 49. a 60. e
6. c 17. b 28. e 39. a 50. c 61. a
7. c 18. e 29. d 40. d 51. e 62. b
8. d 19. d 30. e 41. d 52. b 63. e
9. b 20. c 31. d 42. e 53. d 64. a
10. b 21. b 32. b 43. b 54. a 65. c
11. c 22. c 33. a 44. e 55. a 66. a

Chapter 8 Rotational Kinematics

1. b 10. e 19. d 28. d 37. b 46. c

2. e 11. d 20. b 29. c 38. e 47. c
3. b 12. a 21. e 30. e 39. c 48. a
4. a 13. d 22. b 31. b 40. d 49. c
5. c 14. e 23. d 32. a 41. a 50. d
6. d 15. c 24. e 33. b 42. d 51. c
7. c 16. b 25. c 34. e 43. d 52. c
8. b 17. a 26. b 35. d 44. e 53. e
9. a 18. e 27. d 36. b 45. a 54. c
55. a

Chapter 9 Rotational Dynamics

1. e 11. b 21. b 31. c 41. c 51. c

2. b 12. e 22. c 32. d 42. b 52. e
3. a 13. e 23. b 33. c 43. c 53. a
4. c 14. c 24. a 34. a 44. e 54. c
5. d 15. a 25. e 35. b 45. d 55. d
6. c 16. a 26. b 36. e 46. d 56. b
7. d 17. c 27. e 37. c 47. e 57. c
8. b 18. d 28. a 38. e 48. e
9. d 19. c 29. b 39. d 49. c
10. a 20. e 30. a 40. d 50. b
332 Answers TEST BANK

Chapter 10 Simple Harmonic Motion and Elasticity

1. e 12. a 23. c 34. c 45. e 56. b
2. e 13. b 24. c 35. a 46. d 57. e
3. d 14. c 25. e 36. d 47. c 58. a
4. b 15. d 26. d 37. b 48. a 59. e
5. c 16. a 27. e 38. d 49. b 60. c
6. d 17. c 28. d 39. a 50. c 61. a
7. b 18. a 29. d 40. e 51. b 62. a
8. b 19. c 30. b 41. b 52. a 63. b
9. e 20. a 31. a 42. c 53. b
10. c 21. b 32. a 43. a 54. d
11. a 22. a 33. d 44. e 55. c
Chapter 11 Fluids
1. d 12. a 23. b 34. e 45. e 56. a
2. a 13. b 24. a 35. e 46. d 57. a
3. d 14. e 25. e 36. c 47. a 58. d
4. c 15. c 26. c 37. b 48. d 59. d
5. a 16. b 27. d 38. a 49. d 60. b
6. c 17. e 28. b 39. b 50. b 61. e
7. e 18. e 29. b 40. c 51. e 62. d
8. d 19. d 30. d 41. d 52. a 63. b
9. b 20. c 31. c 42. a 53. b 64. a
10. b 21. a 32. e 43. e 54. b 65. c
11. e 22. e 33. b 44. c 55. c
Chapter 12 Temperature and Heat
1. e 12. c 23. d 34. e 45. d 56. e
2. b 13. a 24. e 35. d 46. e 57. c
3. e 14. b 25. b 36. a 47. b 58. e
4. d 15. b 26. a 37. a 48. c 59. b
5. a 16. d 27. c 38. b 49. a 60. a
6. c 17. a 28. d 39. b 50. a 61. a
7. d 18. c 29. a 40. c 51. c 62. d
8. a 19. e 30. b 41. c 52. b 63. b
9. d 20. c 31. c 42. e 53. b 64. c
10. d 21. d 32. b 43. a 54. e 65. a
11. c 22. e 33. e 44. d 55. d 66. b
Chapter 13 The Transfer of Heat
1. e 8. a 15. b 22. a 29. e 36. e
2. b 9. e 16. b 23. b 30. e 37. a
3. c 10. c 17. b 24. c 31. e 38. c
4. a 11. d 18. c 25. d 32. d 39. e
5. b 12. a 19. a 26. a 33. b 40. a
6. d 13. e 20. e 27. b 34. d 41. d
7. c 14. a 21. d 28. d 35. c 42. d
Physics, 7e TEST BANK Answers 333

Chapter 14 The Ideal Gas Law and Kinetic Theory

1. e 11. c 21. b 31. d 41. b 51. c

2. d 12. e 22. c 32. b 42. c 52. c
3. d 13. d 23. c 33. b 43. e 53. b
4. b 14. b 24. a 34. d 44. d 54. e
5. a 15. d 25. c 35. d 45. c 55. d
6. e 16. b 26. a 36. c 46. b
7. a 17. a 27. e 37. a 47. a
8. d 18. a 28. a 38. b 48. a
9. b 19. c 29. e 39. b 49. d
10. e 20. c 30. b 40. a 50. d
Chapter 15 Thermodynamics
1. a 15. d 29. b 43. b 57. a 71. d
2. e 16. e 30. c 44. c 58. e 72. a
3. d 17. e 31. d 45. a 59. d 73. a
4. a 18. c 32. c 46. c 60. c 74. c
5. a 19. d 33. d 47. a 61. b 75. a
6. c 20. b 34. e 48. e 62. a 76. a
7. a 21. c 35. e 49. b 63. b 77. d
8. c 22. e 36. b 50. a 64. d 78. e
9. b 23. a 37. d 51. a 65. d 79. d
10. d 24. b 38. d 52. c 66. c
11. e 25. b 39. b 53. a 67. e
12. b 26. e 40. c 54. c 68. e
13. e 27. c 41. a 55. b 69. b
14. b 28. a 42. d 56. e 70. e
Chapter 16 Wave Motion
1. a 13. d 25. a 37. d 49. a 61. b
2. b 14. c 26. c 38. e 50. c 62. d
3. d 15. d 27. e 39. b 51. e 63. d
4. e 16. a 28. a 40. e 52. d 64. d
5. b 17. c 29. a 41. d 53. a 65. a
6. c 18. e 30. d 42. c 54. b 66. e
7. e 19. b 31. c 43. c 55. b 67. a
8. d 20. a 32. d 44. c 56. a
9. b 21. d 33. c 45. e 57. e
10. b 22. b 34. b 46. c 58. c
11. e 23. e 35. a 47. b 59. c
12. c 24. b 36. e 48. c 60. a

Chapter 17 The Principle of Linear Superposition and Interference Phenomena

1. e 4. c 7. e 10. c 13. e 16. b

2. a 5. b 8. d 11. a 14. a 17. e
3. b 6. a 9. c 12. e 15. a 18. b
334 Answers TEST BANK

Chapter 17 (continued)

10. c 17. e 24. d 31. a 38. e 45. b

11. a 18. b 25. d 32. c 39. d 46. a
12. e 19. c 26. e 33. b 40. d 47. d
13. e 20. a 27. c 34. c 41. a 48. a
14. a 21. d 28. b 35. d 42. b 49. b
15. a 22. b 29. c 36. b 43. e 50. d
16. b 23. c 30. d 37. c 44. e 51. e

Chapter 18 Electric Forces and Electric Fields

1. c 12. c 23. b 34. c 45. b 56. c

2. c 13. b 24. e 35. e 46. d 57. c
3. e 14. a 25. e 36. b 47. d 58. b
4. d 15. a 26. b 37. c 48. d 59. a
5. c 16. c 27. e 38. e 49. c 60. e
6. d 17. d 28. a 39. a 50. a 61. b
7. b 18. e 29. c 40. a 51. e 62. d
8. b 19. b 30. d 41. b 52. a 63. c
9. a 20. d 31. e 42. d 53. b
10. c 21. d 32. e 43. b 54. e
11. d 22. a 33. d 44. a 55. a

Chapter 19 Electric Potential Energy and the Electric Potential

1. e 13. e 25. e 37. e 49. e 61. c

2. a 14. a 26. a 38. b 50. e 62. d
3. d 15. a 27. e 39. d 51. e 63. b
4. d 16. b 28. d 40. a 52. b 64. b
5. e 17. a 29. c 41. a 53. b 65. b
6. a 18. e 30. b 42. c 54. c 66. c
7. c 19. c 31. d 43. c 55. a 67. e
8. b 20. d 32. d 44. a 56. d 68. d
9. b 21. b 33. b 45. e 57. b 69. a
10. a 22. c 34. c 46. c 58. d 70. b
11. c 23. a 35. e 47. d 59. a 71. c
12. d 24. b 36. d 48. b 60. c

Chapter 20 Electric Circuits

1. d 10. c 19. c 28. b 37. c 46. b

2. a 11. c 20. e 29. d 38. a 47. c
3. e 12. d 21. b 30. b 39. c 48. b
4. d 13. a 22. b 31. c 40. b 49. e
5. d 14. e 23. e 32. a 41. c 50. d
6. c 15. d 24. e 33. c 42. b 51. b
7. e 16. a 25. d 34. b 43. d 52. c
8. e 17. b 26. a 35. e 44. a 53. a
9. b 18. c 27. a 36. a 45. a 54. b
Physics, 7e TEST BANK Answers 335

Chapter 20 (continued)

55. c 63. c 71. d 79. d 87. a 95. e

56. c 64. b 72. c 80. a 88. e 96. d
57. a 65. a 73. c 81. d 89. e 97. b
58. e 66. c 74. b 82. b 90. b 98. d
59. b 67. a 75. d 83. e 91. b 99. d
60. d 68. c 76. d 84. e 92. e 100. a
61. e 69. b 77. c 85. c 93. d
62. a 70. e 78. a 86. c 94. a

Chapter 21 Magnetic Forces and Magnetic Fields

1. e 13. c 25. e 37. b 49. e 61. b

2. d 14. b 26. a 38. c 50. e 62. a
3. e 15. e 27. e 39. c 51. c 63. d
4. a 16. c 28. d 40. d 52. e 64. d
5. b 17. b 29. c 41. a 53. b 65. c
6. a 18. d 30. b 42. a 54. d 66. d
7. c 19. c 31. b 43. c 55. c 67. b
8. d 20. a 32. a 44. a 56. b
9. c 21. b 33. d 45. e 57. e
10. a 22. b 34. e 46. d 58. d
11. e 23. c 35. c 47. a 59. b
12. a 24. d 36. b 48. d 60. e

Chapter 22 Electromagnetic Induction

1. a 13. d 25. b 37. a 49. d 61. e

2. d 14. a 26. d 38. e 50. e 62. b
3. e 15. a 27. d 39. b 51. a 63. d
4. e 16. c 28. c 40. e 52. c 64. c
5. e 17. d 29. e 41. b 53. a 65. d
6. e 18. c 30. d 42. b 54. c 66. c
7. b 19. e 31. c 43. e 55. b 67. e
8. a 20. d 32. c 44. c 56. e 68. b
9. b 21. b 33. a 45. a 57. a 69. a
10. e 22. a 34. d 46. e 58. e 70. d
11. a 23. b 35. c 47. d 59. d 71. b
12. b 24. d 36. e 48. b 60. a 72. c

Chapter 23 Alternating Current Circuits

1. e 6. d 11. e 16. d 21. a 26. e

2. c 7. e 12. c 17. b 22. a 27. b
3. a 8. a 13. b 18. c 23. c 28. c
4. c 9. a 14. b 19. e 24. b 29. e
5. b 10. d 15. d 20. e 25. c 30. d
336 Answers TEST BANK

Chapter 23 (continued)

31. a 40. c 49. b 58. d 67. b 76. a

32. e 41. d 50. b 59. c 68. e 77. d
33. d 42. b 51. c 60. d 69. a 78. b
34. d 43. b 52. b 61. c 70. e 79. d
35. a 44. a 53. b 62. a 71. c 80. a
36. b 45. a 54. a 63. c 72. c 81. b
37. c 46. e 55. b 64. e 73. d 82. c
38. e 47. d 56. e 65. c 74. a 83. e
39. a 48. d 57. b 66. a 75. d 84. d
85. a

Chapter 24 Electromagnetic Waves

1. a 12. d 23. d 34. c 45. e 56. a

2. a 13. e 24. c 35. b 46. a 57. c
3. c 14. a 25. e 36. b 47. d 58. b
4. d 15. e 26. b 37. a 48. e 59. c
5. a 16. b 27. b 38. b 49. a 60. d
6. b 17. c 28. c 39. a 50. d 61. e
7. b 18. c 29. d 40. c 51. b 62. a
8. e 19. b 30. a 41. d 52. c 63. b
9. d 20. a 31. d 42. e 53. b 64. c
10. c 21. c 32. c 43. d 54. e 65. e
11. e 22. b 33. a 44. a 55. d 66. e

Chapter 25 The Reflection of Light: Mirrors

1. d 9. e 17. e 25. b 33. b 41. e

2. c 10. a 18. a 26. e 34. d 42. c
3. a 11. e 19. e 27. c 35. e 43. e
4. c 12. a 20. a 28. d 36. c
5. c 13. d 21. c 29. b 37. b
6. a 14. b 22. b 30. d 38. e
7. d 15. e 23. a 31. b 39. c
8. b 16. b 24. a 32. a 40. c

Chapter 26 The Refraction of Light: Lenses and Optical Instruments

1. c 11. a 21. e 31. b 41. e 51. d

2. e 12. d 22. a 32. c 42. d 52. c
3. d 13. c 23. b 33. b 43. a 53. e
4. c 14. d 24. e 34. a 44. b 54. b
5. a 15. a 25. c 35. a 45. a 55. c
6. d 16. b 26. d 36. e 46. b 56. b
7. e 17. d 27. e 37. d 47. d 57. e
8. b 18. a 28. b 38. b 48. a 58. d
9. e 19. c 29. c 39. b 49. e 59. c
10. b 20. d 30. c 40. c 50. d 60. a
Physics, 7e TEST BANK Answers 337

Chapter 26 (continued)

61. b 68. b 75. c 82. b 89. e 96. b

62. d 69. d 76. b 83. a 90. a 97. b
63. c 70. e 77. b 84. c 91. c 98. b
64. e 71. a 78. e 85. e 92. c 99. d
65. d 72. c 79. e 86. d 93. a 100. e
66. d 73. c 80. b 87. c 94. d 101. d
67. e 74. a 81. a 88. a 95. a 102. d

Chapter 27 Interference and the Wave Nature of Light

1. a 11. d 21. c 31. c 41. b 51. b

2. b 12. d 22. b 32. e 42. e 52. c
3. d 13. c 23. e 33. d 43. b 53. e
4. c 14. d 24. c 34. c 44. a 54. a
5. b 15. b 25. a 35. b 45. e 55. e
6. c 16. e 26. a 36. b 46. d 56. e
7. d 17. a 27. d 37. d 47. a 57. a
8. e 18. d 28. d 38. b 48. b 58. c
9. a 19. e 29. c 39. a 49. c 59. d
10. e 20. e 30. a 40. a 50. c

Chapter 28 Special Relativity

1. e 13. e 25. b 37. b 49. e 61. b

2. a 14. b 26. d 38. a 50. a 62. e
3. d 15. a 27. e 39. e 51. b 63. b
4. e 16. d 28. d 40. d 52. b 64. c
5. e 17. c 29. c 41. a 53. d 65. e
6. b 18. a 30. c 42. c 54. a 66. b
7. c 19. d 31. d 43. c 55. d 67. d
8. a 20. c 32. c 44. e 56. e 68. e
9. b 21. a 33. d 45. b 57. a
10. b 22. c 34. a 46. c 58. d
11. a 23. b 35. d 47. b 59. a
12. c 24. c 36. d 48. d 60. c

Chapter 29 Particles and Waves

1. e 10. c 19. e 28. d 37. c 46. c

2. d 11. b 20. d 29. e 38. c 47. d
3. c 12. c 21. a 30. a 39. a 48. d
4. c 13. a 22. b 31. d 40. c 49. c
5. a 14. e 23. d 32. d 41. a 50. b
6. c 15. e 24. b 33. c 42. e 51. d
7. b 16. d 25. b 34. b 43. e 52. b
8. a 17. b 26. d 35. a 44. d 53. e
9. e 18. a 27. e 36. b 45. b 54. d
338 Answers TEST BANK

Chapter 30 The Nature of the Atom

1. e 14. e 27. c 40. e 53. c 66. b

2. b 15. c 28. e 41. e 54. b 67. d
3. d 16. c 29. d 42. d 55. c 68. b
4. a 17. b 30. a 43. e 56. a 69. c
5. c 18. a 31. a 44. a 57. e 70. d
6. b 19. c 32. a 45. b 58. e 71. b
7. d 20. b 33. d 46. c 59. e 72. e
8. b 21. d 34. e 47. d 60. b 73. c
9. e 22. c 35. e 48. d 61. c 74. b
10. a 23. a 36. d 49. e 62. b 75. c
11. d 24. a 37. b 50. c 63. e 76. d
12. d 25. d 38. c 51. c 64. d 77. c
13. e 26. e 39. a 52. b 65. a 78. e

Chapter 31 Nuclear Physics and Radioactivity

1. b 12. c 23. b 34. c 45. b 56. c

2. b 13. c 24. d 35. c 46. a 57. a
3. e 14. a 25. b 36. d 47. b 58. c
4. d 15. e 26. a 37. c 48. a 59. a
5. d 16. b 27. c 38. e 49. b 60. d
6. b 17. e 28. e 39. d 50. e 61. e
7. e 18. a 29. d 40. c 51. c
8. a 19. d 30. a 41. a 52. b
9. d 20. e 31. b 42. c 53. e
10. c 21. c 32. a 43. d 54. a
11. b 22. a 33. e 44. c 55. d

Chapter 32 Ionizing Radiation, Nuclear Energy, and Elementary Particles

1. e 11. b 21. b 31. c 41. e 51. a

2. d 12. e 22. a 32. b 42. d 52. e
3. e 13. d 23. a 33. c 43. a 53. e
4. d 14. c 24. d 34. b 44. a 54. d
5. a 15. c 25. c 35. e 45. e 55. d
6. a 16. c 26. c 36. e 46. b 56. b
7. a 17. b 27. d 37. d 47. b 57. d
8. e 18. c 28. a 38. d 48. c 58. a
9. c 19. b 29. e 39. d 49. c 59. e
10. b 20. a 30. b 40. a 50. b
 chapter INTRODUCTION AND
MATHEMATICAL CONCEPTS

Section 1.2 Units

Section 1.3 The Role of Units in Problem Solving
… 1. Which one of the following is an SI base unit?
(a) gram (c) newton (e) kilogram
(b) slug (d) centimeter

‡ 2. Complete the following statement: Today, the standard meter is defined in terms of
(a) the distance from the earth’s equator to the north pole.
(b) the wavelength of light emitted from a krypton atom.
(c) the wavelength of light emitted from a sodium atom.
(d) a platinum-iridium bar kept in France.
(e) the speed of light.

‡ 3. Complete the following statement: Today, the standard unit of mass is defined in terms of
(a) a specified volume of water at 4 °C. (d) a standard platinum bar.
(b) a standard platinum-iridium cylinder. (e) the speed of light.
(c) a specified number of cesium atoms.

‡ 4. Complete the following statement: Today, the standard unit of time is defined in terms of
(a) the electromagnetic waves emitted by cesium atoms.
(b) the motion of the moon around the earth.
(c) the motion of a precision pendulum.
(d) the average solar day.
(e) the speed of light.

‡ 5. The mass of a raindrop is 4 milligrams. Which one of the following statements indicates the correct
mass of the raindrop in grams?
(a) The raindrop has a mass of 4 × 106 grams.
(b) The raindrop has a mass of 4 × 10−3 grams.
(c) The raindrop has a mass of 4 × 10−1 grams.
(d) The raindrop has a mass of 4 × 103 grams.
(e) The raindrop has a mass of 4 × 10−6 grams.

‡ 6. Which one of the following is the longest length?

(a) 100 meters (c) 104 millimeters (e) 107 nanometers
2
(b) 10 centimeters (d) 105 micrometers

‡ 7. In the sport of platform diving, a platform is set at a height of 7.3 m above the surface of the
water. What is the height, expressed in feet, of the platform?
(a) 13 feet (c) 24 feet (e) 97 feet
(b) 18 feet (d) 33 feet

„ 8. A candy shop sells a pound of chocolate for $ 8.99. What is the price of 1.50 kg of chocolate at the
shop?
(a) $ 8.17 (c) $ 17.98 (e) $ 39.55
(b) $ 13.49 (d) $ 29.73
2 Chapter 1 Introduction and Mathematical Concepts

1 milligram
‡ 9. Complete the following statement: The ratio is equal to
1 kilogram
(a) 102. (c) 106. (e) 10−6.
(b) 103. (d) 10−3.

„ 10. Which one of the following choices is equivalent to 8.0 m2?

(a) 8.0 × 10–4 cm2 (c) 8.0 × 10–2 cm2 (e) 8.0 × 103 cm2
(b) 8.0 × 10 cm
2 2
(d) 8.0 × 104 cm2

… 11. Which one of the following pairs of units may not be added together, even after the appropriate unit
conversions have been made?
(a) grams and milligrams (c) miles and kilometers (e) slugs and kilograms
(b) kilometers and kilograms (d) centimeters and yards

‡ 12. Which one of the following choices is equivalent to 24.8 cm?

(a) 2.48 × 101 m (c) 24.8 × 10–1 m (e) 2.48 × 100 m
(b) 2.48 × 10 m
2
(d) 24.8 × 10–2 m

… 13. Which one of the following choices is equivalent to 15.2 m?

(a) 1.52 × 101 m (c) 1.52 × 10–1 m (e) 1.52 × 100 m
(b) 1.52 × 10 m
2
(d) 1.52 × 10–2 m

‡ 14. In the sport of horseshoe pitching, two stakes are 40.0 feet apart. What is the distance in meters
between the two stakes?
(a) 24.4 m (c) 18.3 m (e) 15.7 m
(b) 4.80 m (d) 12.2 m

‡ 15. The Boston Marathon is the oldest annual foot race, in which those that finish complete a distance of
26 miles, 385 yards. Express this distance in kilometers.
(a) 16.295 km (c) 42.186 km (e) 56.496 km
(b) 16.398 km (d) 42.453 km

„ 16. The surface of a lake has an area of 15.5 km2. What is the area of the lake in m2?
(a) 1.55 × 104 m2 (c) 1.55 × 106 m2 (e) 1.55 × 108 m2
(b) 1.55 × 10 m
5 2
(d) 1.55 × 10 m
7 2

b2
‡ 17. The mathematical relationship between three physical quantities is given by a = . If the
c
[L]
dimension of b is; and the dimension of c is [L]. Which one of the following choices is the
[T]
dimension of a?
[L] [L]2
(a) [L] (c) (e)
[T] [T]2
[L]
(b) (d) [T]
[T]2
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 3

‡ 18. The distance d that a certain particle moves may be calculated from the expression d = at + bt2,
where a and b are constants; and t is the elapsed time. Complete the following statement: The
dimensions of the quantities a and b are, respectively,
[L] [L] [L] [L] 1 1
(a) , 2 (c) 2
, 3 (e) ,
[T] [T] [T] [T] [T] [T]2
[L] [L]2
(b) [L], [L]2 (d) ,
[T] [T]2

„ 19. Using the dimensions given for the variables in the table, variable dimension
determine which one of the following expressions is correct.
1
f
[T ]
g l
(a) f = (d) 2πf =
2πl g
l [L]
(b) f = 2πgl (e) f = 2π gl [L]
g
(c) 2πf =
g [T ]2
l

‡ 20. A certain physical quantity, R, is calculated using the formula: R = 4a2(b – c) where a, b, and c are
distances. What is the SI unit for R?
(a) cm (c) m (e) m3
2 2
(b) cm (d) m

Section 1.4 Trigonometry

θ
… 21. Which one of the following expressions may 2 km
be used to correctly find the angle θ in the
drawing? 5 km
(a) θ = cos–1 ⎛⎜ 5 ⎞⎟ (c) θ = sin–1 ⎛⎜ 2 ⎞⎟ (e) θ = sin–1 ⎛⎜ 5 ⎞⎟
⎝2⎠ ⎝5⎠ ⎝2⎠
–1 ⎛ 5 ⎞ –1 ⎛ 2 ⎞
(b) θ = tan ⎜ ⎟ (d) θ = tan ⎜ ⎟
⎝2⎠ ⎝5⎠

‡ 22. The length of each side of a square is 4.0 m. What is the length of the
diagonal of the square (shown as a dashed line in the figure)? 4.0 m
(a) 2.8 m (d) 8.0 m
(b) 3.5 m (e) 16 m
(c) 5.7 m 4.0 m

‡ 23. Three sticks are arranged to form a right triangle. If the lengths of the three sticks are 0.47 m,
0.62 m and 0.78 m, what are the three angles of the triangle?
(a) 90°, 45°, and 45° (c) 90°, 59°, and 31° (e) 90°, 53°, and 37°
(b) 90°, 62°, and 28° (d) 90°, 48°, and 42°
4 Chapter 1 Introduction and Mathematical Concepts

‡ 24. A 3.0-m ladder leans against a wall and makes an angle with the wall of
28° as shown in the drawing. What is the height h above the ground
where the ladder makes contact with the wall?
(a) 2.6 m 28°
(b) 2.3 m h
(c) 2.1 m
(d) 1.9 m
(e) 1.6 m

„ 25. A pole is held vertically by attaching wires at a height of 13.4 m above the ground. The other end
of each wire is anchored in the ground at a distance of 9.54 m from the base of the pole. The pole
makes a right angle with the ground. What is the length of each wire?
(a) 14.1 m (c) 11.5 m (e) 22.8 m
(b) 19.7 m (d) 16.4 m

„ 26. A certain mountain road is inclined 3.1° with respect to the horizon. What is the change in
altitude of the car as a result of its traveling 2.90 km along the road?
(a) 157 m (c) 116 m (e) 289 m
(b) 181 m (d) 203 m

‡ 27. A surveyor wants to find the distance across a

river. A stake is placed on each bank of the river
as shown in the figure. She measures a distance
of 30.0 m from one stake to another on the same
side of the river, thus finding the third vertex on a
right triangle. She then measures the angle θ and
finds it equal to 75.9°. What is the distance θ
across the river? 30.0 m
(a) 89.2 m (d) 15.3 m
(b) 119 m (e) 29.0 m
(c) 268 m

Section 1.5 Scalars and Vectors

Section 1.6 Vector Addition and Subtraction
… 28. Which one of the following choices is a vector quantity?
(a) mass (c) time (e) volume
(b) temperature (d) displacement

‡ 29. Which one of the following quantities is a vector quantity?

(a) the age of the earth
(b) the mass of a freight train
(c) the earth's pull on your body
(d) the temperature of hot cup of coffee
(e) the number of people attending a soccer game

‡ 30. Which one of the following statements is true concerning scalar quantities?
(a) Scalar quantities must be represented by base units.
(b) Scalar quantities have both magnitude and direction.
(c) Scalar quantities can be added to vector quantities using rules of trigonometry.
(d) Scalar quantities can be added to other scalar quantities using rules of trigonometry.
(e) Scalar quantities can be added to other scalar quantities using rules of ordinary addition.
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 5

„ 31. Two vectors A and B are added together to form a vector C. The relationship between the
magnitudes of the vectors is given by A + B = C. Which one of the following statements concerning
these vectors is true?
(a) A and B must be displacements.
(b) A and B must have equal lengths.
(c) A and B must point in opposite directions.
(d) A and B must point in the same direction.
(e) A and B must be at right angles to each other.

‡ 32. Two vectors A and B are added together to form a vector C. The relationship between the magnitudes
of the vectors is given by: A2 + B2 = C2. Which statement concerning these vectors is true?
(a) A and B must be at right angles to each other.
(b) A and B could have any orientation relative to each other.
(c) A and B must have equal lengths.
(d) A and B must be parallel.
(e) A and B could be antiparallel.

„ 33. Three vectors A, B, and C add together to yield zero: A + B + C = 0. The vectors A and C point in
opposite directions and their magnitudes are related by the expression: A = 2C. Which one of the
following conclusions is correct?
(a) A and B have equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions.
(b) B and C have equal magnitudes and point in the same direction.
(c) B and C have equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions.
(d) A and B point in the same direction, but A has twice the magnitude of B.
(e) B and C point in the same direction, but C has twice the magnitude of B.

… 34. What is the angle between the vectors A and –A when they are drawn from a common origin?
(a) 0° (c) 180° (e) 360°
(b) 90° (d) 270°

‡ 35. What is the minimum number of vectors with unequal magnitudes whose vector sum can be zero?
(a) two (c) four (e) six
(b) three (d) five

… 36. What is the minimum number of vectors with equal magnitudes whose vector sum can be zero?
(a) two (c) four (e) six
(b) three (d) five

‡ 37. A physics student adds two displacement vectors with magnitudes of 8.0 km and 6.0 km. Which
one of the following statements is true concerning the magnitude of the resultant displacement?
(a) It must be 10.0 km.
(b) It must be 14.0 km.
(c) It could be equal to zero kilometers, depending on how the vectors are oriented.
(d) No conclusion can be reached without knowing the directions of the vectors.
(e) It could have any value between 2.0 km and 14.0 km depending on how the vectors are
oriented.

‡ 38. A student adds two displacement vectors with magnitudes of 3.0 m and 4.0 m, respectively.
Which one of the following could not be a possible choice for the resultant?
(a) 1.3 m (c) 5.0 m (e) 7.8 m
(b) 3.3 m (d) 6.8 m
6 Chapter 1 Introduction and Mathematical Concepts

„ 39. Two displacement vectors of magnitudes 21 cm and 79 cm are added. Which one of the
following is the only possible choice for the magnitude of the resultant?
(a) 0 cm (c) 37 cm (e) 114 cm
(b) 28 cm (d) 82 cm

„ 40. Which expression is false concerning the vectors shown in

the sketch? C
(a) C = A + B (d) C < A + B B
(b) C + A = –B (e) A2 + B2 = C2
(c) A + B + C = 0 A

‡ 41. City A lies 30 km directly south of city B. A bus, beginning at city A travels 50 km at 37° north of
east to reach city C. How far, and in what direction must the bus go from city C to reach city B?
(a) 20 km, west (c) 80 km, west (e) 80 km, east
(b) 40 km, west (d) 40 km, east

‡ 42. Town A lies 20 km north of town B. Town C lies 13 km west of town A. A small plane flies
directly from town B to town C. What is the displacement of the plane?
(a) 33 km, 33° north of west (d) 31 km, 57° north of west
(b) 19 km, 33° north of west (e) 6.6 km, 40° north of west
(c) 24 km, 57° north of west

‡ 43. A runaway dog walks 0.64 km due north. He then runs due west to a hot dog stand. If the
magnitude of the dog’s total displacement vector is 0.91 km, what is the magnitude of the dog’s
displacement vector in the due west direction?
(a) 0.27 km (c) 0.41 km (e) 0.65 km
(b) 0.33 km (d) 0.52 km

‡ 44. An escaped convict runs 1.70 km due east of the prison. He then runs due north to a friend’s
house. If the magnitude of the convict’s total displacement vector is 2.50 km, what is the
direction of his total displacement vector with respect to due east?
(a) 43° south of east (c) 56° north of east (e) 34° north of east
(b) 47° north of east (d) 34° south of east

„ 45. Four members of the Main Street Bicycle Club meet at a certain intersection on Main Street. The
members then start from the same location, but travel in different directions. A short time later,
displacement vectors for the four members are:
A = 2.0 km, east; B = 5.2 km, north; C = 4.9 km, west; D = 3.0 km, south
What is the resultant displacement R of the members of the bicycle club: R = A + B + C + D?
(a) 0.8 km, south (c) 3.6 km, 37° north of west (e) 4.0 km, south
(b) 0.4 km, 45° south of east (d) 4.0 km, east

„ 46. A force, F1, of magnitude 2.0 N and directed due east is exerted on an object. A second force
exerted on the object is F2 = 2.0 N, due north. What is the magnitude and direction of a third
force, F3, which must be exerted on the object so that the resultant force is zero?
(a) 1.4 N, 45° north of east (c) 2.8 N, 45° north of east (e) 4.0 N, 45° east of north
(b) 1.4 N, 45° south of west (d) 2.8 N, 45° south of west
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 7

„ 47. A sailboat leaves a harbor and sails 1.1 km in the direction 75° north of east, where the captain
stops for lunch. A short time later, the boat sails 1.8 km in the direction 15° south of east. What
is the magnitude of the resultant displacement from the harbor?
(a) 2.1 km (c) 2.9 km (e) 0.59 km
(b) 1.5 km (d) 1.2 km

‡ 48. Three vectors A, B, and C have the following x and y components:

Ax = 1 m, Ay = 0 m, Bx = 1 m, By = 1 m, Cx = 0 m, Cy = –1 m
According to the graph, how are A, B, and C combined to result in the vector D?
(a) D = A – B – C y
(b) D = A – B + C
(c) D = A + B – C
(d) D = A + B + C D
(e) D = –A + B + C

Section 1.7 The Components of a Vector

… 49. A displacement vector has a magnitude of 810 m and points at an angle of 18° above the positive
x axis. What are the x and y scalar components of this vector?
x scalar component y scalar component
(a) 770 m 250 m
(b) 560 m 585 m
(c) 585 m 560 m
(d) 250 m 750 m
(e) 713 m 385 m

‡ 50. Which one of the following statements concerning vectors and scalars is false?
(a) In calculations, the vector components of a vector may be used in place of the vector itself.
(b) It is possible to use vector components that are not perpendicular.
(c) A scalar component may be either positive or negative.
(d) A vector that is zero may have components other than zero.
(e) Two vectors are equal only if they have the same magnitude and direction.

… 51. A displacement vector is 23 km in length and directed 65° south of east. What are the components
of this vector?
Eastward Component Southward Component
(a) 21 km 9.7 km
(b) 23 km 23 km
(c) 23 km 0 km
(d) 9.7 km 21 km
(e) 0 km 23 km

‡ 52. The x and y components of a displacement vector are –3.00 m and +4.00 m, respectively. What
angle does this vector make with the positive x axis?
(a) 233° (c) –53.0° (e) 37.0°
(b) 127° (d) 53.0°
8 Chapter 1 Introduction and Mathematical Concepts

‡ 53. A racecar will make one lap around a circular track of radius R. When the car has traveled
halfway around the track, what is the magnitude of the car’s displacement from the starting point?
(a) 2R (c) πR (e) zero meters
(b) R (d) 2πR

‡ 54. A bug crawls 4.25 m along the base of a wall. Upon reaching a corner, the bug’s direction of
travel changes from south to west. The bug then crawls 3.15 m before stopping. What is the
magnitude of the bug’s displacement?
(a) 7.40 m (c) 3.83 m (e) 5.29 m
(b) 2.72 m (d) 4.91 m

„ 55. During the execution of a play, a football player carries the ball for a distance of 33 m in the
direction 58° north of east. To determine the number of meters gained on the play, find the
northward component of the ball’s displacement.
(a) 8.0 m (c) 24 m (e) 32 m
(b) 16 m (d) 28 m

„ 56. A bird flies 25.0 m in the direction 55° east of south to its nest. The bird then flies 75.0 m in the
direction 55° west of north. What are the northward and westward components of the resultant
displacement of the bird from its nest?
northward westward
(a) 29 m 41 m
(b) 41 m 29 m
(c) 35 m 35 m
(d) 81 m 57 m
(e) 57 m 81 m

Section 1.8 Addition of Vectors by Means of Components

‡ 57. Use the component method of vector addition to find the resultant of the following three vectors:
A = 56 km, east
B = 11 km, 22° south of east
C = 88 km, 44° west of south
(a) 81 km, 14° west of south (c) 52 km, 66° south of east (e) 66 km, 7.1° west of south
(b) 97 km, 62° south of east (d) 68 km, 86° south of east

… 58. Use the component method of vector addition to find +y

the components of the resultant of the four D A
displacements shown in the figure. The magnitudes
of the displacements are: A = 2.25 cm, B = 6.35 cm,
C = 5.47 cm, and D = 4.19 cm. 36.0° 60.0°
+x
x component y component
20.0°
(a) 2.19 cm –6.92 cm
(b) 3.71 cm –1.09 cm
(c) 5.45 cm –2.82 cm B
36.0°
(d) 1.09 cm –3.71 cm
(e) 6.93 cm –2.19 cm C
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 9

‡ 59. A vector F1 has a magnitude of 40.0 units and points 35.0° above the positive x axis. A second
vector F2 has a magnitude of 65.0 units and points in the negative y direction. Use the component
method of vector addition to find the magnitude and direction, relative to the positive x axis, of the
resultant F = F1 + F2.
(a) 53.3 units, 52.1° below the +x axis
(b) 53.3 units, 52.1° above the +x axis
(c) 76.3 units, 37.9° below the +x axis
(d) 76.3 units, 52.1° above the +x axis
(e) 9.23 units, 37.9° below the +x axis

„ 60. Two vectors A and B, are added together to form the vector C = A + B. The relationship between
the magnitudes of these vectors is given by: Cx = A cos 30° + B and Cy = –A sin 30°.
Which statement best describes the orientation of these vectors?
(a) A points in the negative x direction while B points in the positive y direction.
(b) A points in the negative y direction while B points in the positive x direction.
(c) A points 30° below the positive x axis while B points in the positive x direction.
(d) A points 30° above the positive x axis while B points in the positive x direction.
(e) A points 30° above the negative x axis while B points in the positive x direction.

Additional Problems
… 61. Which one of the following answers would give the correct number of significant figures when
the following masses are added together: 3.6 kg, 113 kg, and 4.19 kg?
(a) 121 kg (c) 120.79 kg (e) 120.8 × 103 kg
(b) 120.8 kg (d) 1.20 × 10 kg
2

„ 62. A physics text has 532 sheets (1064 pages) and is 33.5 millimeters thick between the inside front
cover and the inside back cover. What is the thickness of a single sheet?
(a) 6.36 × 10−4 m (c) 6.28 × 10−3 m (e) 6.30 × 10−5 m
−2 −6
(b) 3.16 × 10 m (d) 7.24 × 10 m

‡ 63. Justine and her friends exit the physics classroom and walk 0.81 km to their math class. While
walking, Justine’s average step length is 58 cm. How many steps does she take in walking
between these two classes?
(a) 310 (c) 1400 (e) 7200
(b) 720 (d) 3100

Questions 64 and 65 pertain to the following situation:

Two vectors, A and B, are added together to form the vector C = A + B. The relationship
between the magnitudes of these vectors is given by:
Cx = 0
Cy = A sin 60° + B sin 30°
Ax and Ay point in the positive x and y directions, respectively.

„ 64. Which one of the following statements best describes the orientation of vectors A and B?
(a) A and B point in opposite directions.
(b) A points 60° above the positive x axis while B points 30° above the negative x axis.
(c) A points 60° above the negative x axis while B points 30° above the positive x axis.
(d) A points 60° below the positive x axis while B points 30° above the positive y axis.
(e) A points 60° below the positive x axis while B points 30° below the positive y axis.
10 Chapter 1 Introduction and Mathematical Concepts

„ 65. How does the magnitude of A compare with that of B?

(a) A = B (c) A = 0.4B (e) A = 0.7B
(b) A = 1.7B (d) A = 0.5B

Questions 66 through 68 pertain to the following situation:

The table gives the x and y components of two vectors A and B:

Vector x component y component

A +15 units +10 units
B +15 units –10 units

‡ 66. Which one of the following statements concerning these vectors is true?
(a) The vector A – B has no x component.
(b) The two vectors have different magnitudes.
(c) A makes a 56° angle with the positive x axis.
(d) B makes a 34° angle with the positive y axis.
(e) The vector A + B makes a 34° angle with the positive x axis.

‡ 67. Determine the magnitude of the vector sum, A + B.

(a) 5 units (c) 20 units (e) 50 units
(b) 15 units (d) 30 units

‡ 68. Determine the magnitude of the vector difference, A – B.

(a) 5 units (c) 20 units (e) 50 units
(b) 15 units (d) 30 units

Questions 69 and 70 pertain to the following situation.

A boat radioed a distress call to a Coast Guard station. At the time of the call, a vector A from the
station to the boat had a magnitude of 45.0 km and was directed 15.0° east of north. A vector
from the station to the point where the boat was later found is B = 30.0 km, 15.0° north of east.

„ 69. What are the components of the vector from the point where the distress call was made to the
point where the boat was found? In other words, what are the components of vector C = B − A?
x component y component
(a) 35.7 km, west 17.4 km, north
(b) 40.6 km, east 51.2 km, south
(c) 17.3 km, west 51.2 km, south
(d) 40.6 km, east 35.7 km, north
(e) 17.3 km, east 35.7 km, south

‡ 70. How far did the boat travel from the point where the distress call was made to the point where the
boat was found? In other words, what is the magnitude of vector C?
(a) 65.3 km (c) 26.5 km (e) 42.5 km
(b) 39.7 km (d) 54.0 km
 chapter KINEMATICS IN
ONE DIMENSION

Section 2.1 Displacement

Section 2.2 Speed and Velocity
‡ 1. A particle travels along a curved path between two
points P and Q as shown. The displacement of the Q
particle does not depend on
(a) the location of P.
(b) the location of Q.
(c) the distance traveled from P to Q.
(d) the shortest distance between P and Q. P
(e) the direction of Q from P.

… 2. For which one of the following situations will the path length equal the magnitude of the
displacement?
(a) A jogger is running around a circular path.
(b) A ball is rolling down an inclined plane.
(c) A train travels 5 miles east before it stops. It then travels 2 miles west.
(d) A ball rises and falls after being thrown straight up from the earth's surface.
(e) A ball on the end of a string is moving in a vertical circle.

… 3. Which one of the physical quantities listed below is not correctly paired with its SI unit and
dimension?
Quantity Unit Dimension
(a) velocity m/s [L]/[T]
(b) path length m [L]
(c) speed m/s [L]/[T]
(d) displacement m/s2 [L]/[T] 2
(e) speed × time m [L]

… 4. A car travels in a straight line covering a total distance of 90.0 miles in 60.0 minutes. Which one of
the following statements concerning this situation is necessarily true?
(a) The velocity of the car is constant.
(b) The acceleration of the car must be non-zero.
(c) The first 45 miles must have been covered in 30.0 minutes.
(d) The speed of the car must be 90.0 miles per hour throughout the entire trip.
(e) The average velocity of the car is 90.0 miles per hour in the direction of motion.

‡ 5. At time t = 0 s, an object is observed at x = 0 m; and its position along the x axis follows this
expression: x = –3t +t3, where the units for distance and time are meters and seconds, respectively.
What is the object’s displacement ∆x between t = 1.0 s and t = 3.0 s?
(a) +20 m (c) +10 m (e) –2 m
(b) –20 m (d) +2 m
12 Chapter 2 Kinematics in One Dimension

Questions 6 and 7 pertain to the situation described below: time (s) position (cm)
0.00 49.6
Peter noticed a bug crawling along a meter stick and decided to 5.00 39.2
record the bug’s position in five-second intervals. After the bug 10.0 42.5
crawled off the meter stick, Peter created the table shown. 15.0 41.0
20.0 65.7

… 6. What is the displacement of the bug between t = 0.00 s and t = 20.0 s?

(a) +39.9 cm (c) +65.7 cm (e) +16.1 cm
(b) –39.9 cm (d) –16.1 cm

‡ 7. What is the total distance that the bug traveled between t = 0.00 s and t = 20.0 s? Assume the bug
only changed directions at the end of a five-second interval.
(a) 39.9 cm (c) 16.1 cm (e) 26.5 cm
(b) 65.7 cm (d) 47.1 cm

… 8. In the process of delivering mail, a postal worker walks 161 m, due east from his truck. He then
turns around and walks 194 m, due west. What is the worker’s displacement relative to his truck?
(a) 33 m, due west (c) 194 m, due west (e) 355 m, due west
(b) 33 m, due east (d) 252 m, due east

‡ 9. A Canadian goose flew 845 km from Southern California to Oregon with an average speed of
30.5 m/s. How long, in hours, did it take the goose to make this journey?
(a) 27.7 h (c) 66.1 h (e) 7.70 h
(b) 8.33 h (d) 462 h

… 10. When the outdoor emergency warning siren at Cheryl’s school was tested, the sound from the siren
took 7.0 s to reach her house located 2.40 km from the school. What is the speed of sound in air?
(a) 240 m/s (c) 440 m/s (e) 640 m/s
(b) 340 m/s (d) 540 m/s

… 11. A bus leaves New York City, takes a non-direct route and arrives in St. Louis, Missouri 23 hours, 16
minutes later. If the distance between the two cities is 1250 km, what is the magnitude of the bus’
average velocity?
(a) 37.2 km/h (c) 46.0 km/h (e) 58.1 km/h
(b) 41.4 km/h (d) 53.7 km/h

‡ 12. Carole’s hair grows with an average speed of 3.5 × 10−9 m/s. How long does it take her hair to grow
0.30 m? Note: 1 yr = 3.156 × 107 s.
(a) 1.9 yr (c) 0.37 yr (e) 2.7 yr
(b) 1.3 yr (d) 5.4 yr

„ 13. Carl Lewis set a world record for the 100.0-m run with a time of 9.86 s. If, after reaching the finish
line, Mr. Lewis walked directly back to his starting point in 90.9 s, what is the magnitude of his
average velocity for the 200.0 m?
(a) 0 m/s (c) 1.98 m/s (e) 10.1 m/s
(b) 1.10 m/s (d) 5.60 m/s
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 13

„ 14. During the first 18 minutes of a 1.0-hour trip, a car has an average speed of 11 m/s. What must the
average speed of the car be during the last 42 minutes of the trip be if the car is to have an average
speed of 21 m/s for the entire trip?
(a) 21 m/s (c) 25 m/s (e) 29 m/s
(b) 23 m/s (d) 27 m/s

„ 15. A turtle takes 3.5 minutes to walk 18 m toward the south along a deserted highway. A truck driver
stops and picks up the turtle. The driver takes the turtle to a town 1.1 km to the north with an
average speed of 12 m/s. What is the magnitude of the average velocity of the turtle for its entire
journey?
(a) 3.6 m/s (c) 6.0 m/s (e) 11 m/s
(b) 9.8 m/s (d) 2.6 m/s

Questions 16 through 19 pertain to the situation described below:

A racecar, traveling at constant speed, makes one lap around a circular track of radius r in a time t.
Note: The circumference of a circle is given by C = 2πr.

… 16. When the car has traveled halfway around the track, what is the magnitude of its displacement from
the starting point?
(a) r (c) πr (e) zero meters
(b) 2r (d) 2πr

‡ 17. What is the average speed of the car for one complete lap?
r πr
(a) (c) (e) zero meters/second
t t
2r 2πr
(b) (d)
t t

‡ 18. Determine the magnitude of the average velocity of the car for one complete lap.
r πr
(a) (c) (e) zero meters/second
t t
2r 2πr
(b) (d)
t t

‡ 19. Which one of the following statements concerning this car is true?
(a) The displacement of the car does not change with time.
(b) The instantaneous velocity of the car is constant.
(c) The average speed of the car is the same over any time interval.
(d) The average velocity of the car is the same over any time interval.
(e) The average speed of the car over any time interval is equal to the magnitude of the average
velocity over the same time interval.

Section 2.3 Acceleration

… 20. In which one of the following situations does the car have a westward acceleration?
(a) The car travels westward at constant speed.
(b) The car travels eastward and speeds up.
(c) The car travels westward and slows down.
(d) The car travels eastward and slows down.
(e) The car starts from rest and moves toward the east.
14 Chapter 2 Kinematics in One Dimension

‡ 21. An elevator is moving upward with a speed of 11 m/s. Three seconds later, the elevator is still
moving upward, but its speed has been reduced to 5.0 m/s. What is the average acceleration of the
elevator during the 3.0 s interval?
(a) 2.0 m/s2, upward (c) 5.3 m/s2, upward (e) 2.7 m/s2, downward
2 2
(b) 2.0 m/s , downward (d) 5.3 m/s , downward

‡ 22. A landing airplane makes contact with the runway with a speed of 78.0 m/s and moves toward the
south. After 18.5 seconds, the airplane comes to rest. What is the average acceleration of the
airplane during the landing?
(a) 2.11 m/s2, north (c) 4.22 m/s2, north (e) 14.3 m/s2, north
2 2
(b) 2.11 m/s , south (d) 4.22 m/s , south

„ 23. A pitcher delivers a fast ball with a velocity of 43 m/s to the south. The batter hits the ball and gives
it a velocity of 51 m/s to the north. What was the average acceleration of the ball during the 1.0 ms
when it was in contact with the bat?
(a) 4.3 × 104 m/s2, south (c) 9.4 × 104 m/s2, north (e) 7.0 × 103 m/s2, north
(b) 5.1 × 10 m/s , north
4 2
(d) 2.2 × 10 m/s , south
3 2

‡ 24. A car is moving at a constant velocity when it is involved in a collision. The car comes to rest after
0.450 s with an average acceleration of 65.0 m/s2 in the direction opposite that of the car’s velocity.
What was the speed, in km/h, of the car before the collision?
(a) 29.2 km/h (c) 80.5 km/h (e) 144 km/h
(b) 44.8 km/h (d) 105 km/h

‡ 25. A train approaches a small town with a constant velocity of +28.6 m/s. The operator applies the
brake, reducing the train’s velocity to +11.4 m/s. If the average acceleration of the train during
braking is –1.35 m/s2, for what elapsed time does the operator apply the brake?
(a) 8.44 s (c) 3.38 s (e) 10.4 s
(b) 12.7 s (d) 5.92 s

Section 2.4 Equations of Kinematics for Constant Acceleration

Section 2.5 Applications of the Equations of Kinematics
… 26. Which one of the following is not a vector quantity?
(a) acceleration (c) displacement (e) instantaneous velocity
(b) average speed (d) average velocity

… 27. In which one of the following cases is the displacement of the object directly proportional to the
elapsed time?
(a) a ball rolls with constant velocity
(b) a ball at rest is given a constant acceleration
(c) a ball rolling with velocity v0 is given a constant acceleration
(d) a bead falling through oil experiences a decreasing acceleration
(e) a rocket fired from the earth's surface experiences an increasing acceleration

… 28. Which one of the following statements must be true if the expression x = v0t + 2 at is to be used?
1 2

(a) x is constant. (c) t is constant. (e) Both v0 and t are constant.

(b) v is constant. (d) a is constant.
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 15

‡ 29. Starting from rest, a particle confined to move along a straight line is accelerated at a rate of 5.0 m/s2.
Which one of the following statements accurately describes the motion of this particle?
(a) The particle travels 5.0 m during each second.
(b) The particle travels 5.0 m only during the first second.
(c) The speed of the particle increases by 5.0 m/s during each second.
(d) The acceleration of the particle increases by 5.0 m/s2 during each second.
(e) The final speed of the particle will be proportional to the distance that the particle covers.

‡ 30. Which one of the following situations is not possible?

(a) A body has zero velocity and non-zero acceleration.
(b) A body travels with a northward velocity and a northward acceleration.
(c) A body travels with a northward velocity and a southward acceleration.
(d) A body travels with a constant velocity and a time-varying acceleration.
(e) A body travels with a constant acceleration and a time-varying velocity.

… 31. A truck accelerates from rest at point A with constant acceleration of magnitude a and,
subsequently, passes points B and C as shown in the figure.
a
MOVE
-IT

x
A B C
The distance between points B and C is x, and the time required for the truck to travel from B to C is t.
Which expression determines the average speed of the truck between the points B and C?
(a) v2 = 2ax (c) v = xt (e) v = at
x
(b) v = (d) v = 1 at 2
t 2

‡ 32. Two objects A and B accelerate from rest with the same constant acceleration. Object A accelerates
for twice as much time as object B, however. Which one of the following statements is true
concerning these objects at the end of their respective periods of acceleration?
(a) Object A will travel twice as far as object B.
(b) Object A will travel four times as far as object B.
(c) Object A will travel eight times further than object B.
(d) Object A will be moving four times faster than object B.
(e) Object A will be moving eight times faster than object B.

„ 33. Two cars travel along a level highway. It is observed that the distance between the cars is
increasing. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is necessarily true?
(a) The velocity of each car is increasing.
(b) At least one of the cars has a non-zero acceleration.
(c) The leading car has the greater acceleration.
(d) The trailing car has the smaller acceleration.
(e) Both cars could be accelerating at the same rate.

… 34. A car, starting from rest, accelerates in a straight-line path at a constant rate of 2.5 m/s2.
How far will the car travel in 12 seconds?
(a) 180 m (c) 30 m (e) 4.8 m
(b) 120 m (d) 15 m
16 Chapter 2 Kinematics in One Dimension

‡ 35. An object moving along a straight line is decelerating. Which one of the following statements
concerning the object’s acceleration is necessarily true?
(a) The value of the acceleration is positive.
(b) The direction of the acceleration is in the same direction as the displacement.
(c) An object that is decelerating has a negative acceleration.
(d) The direction of the acceleration is in the direction opposite to that of the velocity.
(e) The acceleration changes as the object moves along the line.

„ 36. A car starts from rest and accelerates at a constant rate in a straight line. In the first second the car
covers a distance of 2.0 meters. How fast will the car be moving at the end of the second second?
(a) 4.0 m/s (c) 2.0 m/s (e) 8.0 m/s
(b) 16 m/s (d) 32 m/s

„ 37. A car starts from rest and accelerates at a constant rate in a straight line. In the first second the car
covers a distance of 2.0 meters. How much additional distance will the car cover during the second
second of its motion?
(a) 2.0 m (c) 6.0 m (e) 13 m
(b) 4.0 m (d) 8.0 m

„ 38. A car is initially traveling at 50.0 km/h. The brakes are applied and the car stops over a distance of
35 m. What was magnitude of the car's acceleration while it was braking?
(a) 2.8 m/s2 (c) 36 m/s2 (e) 9.8 m/s2
(b) 5.4 m/s2 (d) 71 m/s2

‡ 39. The minimum takeoff speed for a certain airplane is 75 m/s. What minimum acceleration is required if
the plane must leave a runway of length 950 m? Assume the plane starts from rest at one end of the
runway.
(a) 1.5 m/s2 (c) 4.5 m/s2 (e) 7.5 m/s2
(b) 3.0 m/s2 (d) 6.0 m/s2

‡ 40. A car traveling along a road begins accelerating with a constant acceleration of 1.5 m/s2 in the
direction of motion. After traveling 392 m at this acceleration, its speed is 35 m/s. Determine the
speed of the car when it began accelerating.
(a) 1.5 m/s (c) 34 m/s (e) 2.3 m/s
(b) 7.0 m/s (d) 49 m/s

‡ 41. A train passes through a town with a constant speed of 16 m/s. After leaving the town, the train
accelerates at 0.33 m/s2 until it reaches a speed of 35 m/s. How far did the train travel while it was
accelerating?
(a) 0.029 km (c) 1.5 km (e) 3.0 km
(b) 0.53 km (d) 2.3 km

„ 42. A cheetah is walking at a speed of 1.10 m/s when it observes a gazelle 41.0 m directly ahead. If the
cheetah accelerates at 9.55 m/s2, how long does it take the cheetah to reach the gazelle if the gazelle
doesn’t move?
(a) 4.29 s (c) 3.05 s (e) 2.82 s
(b) 3.67 s (d) 1.94 s
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 17

… 43. A body initially at rest is accelerated at a constant rate for 5.0 seconds in the positive x direction.
If the final speed of the body is 20.0 m/s, what was the body's acceleration?
(a) 0.25 m/s2 (c) 4.0 m/s2 (e) 1.6 m/s2
2 2
(b) 2.0 m/s (d) 9.8 m/s

‡ 44. A racecar has a speed of 80 m/s when the driver releases a drag parachute. If the parachute causes a
deceleration of –4 m/s2, how far will the car travel before it stops?
(a) 20 m (c) 400 m (e) 1000 m
(b) 200 m (d) 800 m

‡ 45. A car is stopped at a red traffic light. When the light turns to green, the car has a constant
acceleration and crosses the 9.10-m intersection in 2.47 s. What is the magnitude of the car’s
acceleration?
(a) 1.77 m/s2 (c) 3.60 m/s2 (e) 9.80 m/s2
2 2
(b) 2.98 m/s (d) 7.36 m/s

Questions 46 through 48 pertain to the situation described below:

An object starts from rest and accelerates uniformly in a straight line in the positive x direction.
After 11 seconds, its speed is 70.0 m/s.

‡ 46. Determine the acceleration of the object.

(a) +3.5 m/s2 (c) −3.5 m/s2 (e) +7.7 m/s2
(b) +6.4 m/s2
(d) −6.4 m/s2

‡ 47. How far does the object travel during the first 11 seconds?
(a) 35 m (c) 390 m (e) 770 m
(b) 77 m (d) 590 m

‡ 48. What is the average velocity of the object during the first 11 seconds?
(a) +3.6 m/s (c) +35 m/s (e) −140 m/s
(b) +6.4 m/s (d) +72 m/s

Section 2.6 Freely Falling Bodies

‡ 49. Ball A is dropped from rest from a window. At the same instant, ball B is thrown downward; and
ball C is thrown upward from the same window. Which statement concerning the balls after their
release is necessarily true if air resistance is neglected?
(a) At some instant after it is thrown, the acceleration of ball C is zero.
(b) All three balls strike the ground at the same time.
(c) All three balls have the same velocity at any instant.
(d) All three balls have the same acceleration at any instant.
(e) All three balls reach the ground with the same velocity.

… 50. A ball is thrown vertically upward from the surface of the earth. Consider the following quantities:
(1) the speed of the ball; (2) the velocity of the ball; (3) the acceleration of the ball.
Which of these is (are) zero when the ball has reached the maximum height?
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 only (e) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 only
18 Chapter 2 Kinematics in One Dimension

‡ 51. A rock is thrown vertically upward from the surface of the earth. The rock rises to some maximum
height and falls back toward the surface of the earth. Which one of the following statements
concerning this situation is true if air resistance is neglected?
(a) As the ball rises, its acceleration vector points upward.
(b) The ball is a freely falling body for the duration of its flight.
(c) The acceleration of the ball is zero when the ball is at its highest point.
(d) The speed of the ball is negative while the ball falls back toward the earth.
(e) The velocity and acceleration of the ball always point in the same direction.

‡ 52. A brick is dropped from rest from a height of 4.9 m. How long does it take the brick to reach the
ground?
(a) 0.6 s (c) 1.2 s (e) 2.0 s
(b) 1.0 s (d) 1.4 s

‡ 53. A ball is dropped from rest from a tower and strikes the ground 125 m below. Approximately how
many seconds does it take the ball to strike the ground after being dropped? Neglect air resistance.
(a) 2.50 s (c) 5.05 s (e) 16.0 s
(b) 3.50 s (d) 12.5 s

‡ 54. Water drips from rest from a leaf that is 20 meters above the ground. Neglecting air resistance, what
is the speed of each water drop when it hits the ground?
(a) 30 m/s (c) 40 m/s (e) 20 m/s
(b) 15 m/s (d) 10 m/s

‡ 55. Elijah throws a tennis ball vertically upward. The ball returns to the point of release after 3.5 s.
What is the speed of the ball as it is released?
(a) 0 m/s (c) 17 m/s (e) 34 m/s
(b) 14 m/s (d) 21 m/s

„ 56. A rock is dropped from rest from a height h above the ground. It falls and hits the ground with a
speed of 11 m/s. From what height should the rock be dropped so that its speed on hitting the
ground is 22 m/s? Neglect air resistance.
(a) 1.4h (c) 3.0h (e) 0.71h
(b) 2.0h (d) 4.0h

‡ 57. A 5.0-kg rock is dropped from rest down a vertical mine shaft. How long does it take for the rock to
reach a depth of 79 m? Neglect air resistance.
(a) 2.8 s (c) 4.9 s (e) 4.0 s
(b) 9.0 s (e) 8.0 s

‡ 58. Neglecting air resistance, what maximum height will be reached by a stone thrown straight up with an
initial speed of 35 m/s?
(a) 98 m (c) 41 m (e) 18 m
(b) 160 m (d) 63 m

Questions 59 through 61 pertain to the situation described below:

A ball is shot straight up from the surface of the earth with an initial speed of 19.6 m/s.
Neglect any effects due to air resistance.
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 19

‡ 59. What is the magnitude of the ball’s displacement from the starting point after 1.00 second has
elapsed?
(a) 9.80 m (c) 19.6 m (e) 58.8 m
(b) 14.7 m (d) 24.5 m

‡ 60. What maximum height will the ball reach?

(a) 9.80 m (c) 19.6 m (e) 58.8 m
(b) 14.7 m (d) 24.5 m

„ 61. How much time elapses between the throwing of the ball and its return to the original launch point?
(a) 4.00 s (c) 12.0 s (e) 16.0 s
(b) 2.00 s (d) 8.00 s

Questions 62 through 65 pertain to the statement below:

A tennis ball is shot vertically upward in an evacuated chamber inside a tower with an initial speed
of 20.0 m/s at time t = 0 s.

‡ 62. How high does the ball rise?

(a) 10.2 m (c) 40.8 m (e) 98.0 m
(b) 20.4 m (d) 72.4 m

„ 63. Approximately how long does it take the tennis ball to reach its maximum height?
(a) 0.50 s (c) 4.08 s (e) 9.80 s
(b) 2.04 s (d) 6.08 s

‡ 64. Determine the velocity of the ball at t = 3.00 seconds.

(a) 9.40 m/s, downward (c) 29.4 m/s, downward (e) 38.8 m/s, downward
(b) 9.40 m/s, upward (d) 38.8 m/s, upward

… 65. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the ball when it is at its highest point?
(a) zero m/s2 (c) 19.6 m/s2 (e) 3.13 m/s2
2 2
(b) 9.80 m/s (d) 4.90 m/s

Section 2.7 Graphical Analysis of Velocity and Acceleration

‡ 66. Starting from rest, a particle that is confined to move along a straight line is accelerated at a rate of
5.0 m/s2. Which statement concerning the slope of the position versus time graph for this particle is
true?
(a) The slope has a constant value of 5.0 m/s.
(b) The slope has a constant value of 5.0 m/s2.
(c) The slope is both constant and negative.
(d) The slope is not constant and increases with increasing time.
(e) The slope is not constant and decreases with increasing time.
20 Chapter 2 Kinematics in One Dimension

‡ 67. The graph shows the height versus

time of an object. Estimate the 80
instantaneous velocity, in m/s, of the

Height (meters)
object at time t = 15 min. 60
(a) 0.90 m/s
(b) 0.70 m/s 40
(c) 0.50 m/s
(d) 0.30 m/s 20
(e) 0.10 m/s
0
0 10 20 30 40
Time (minutes)

Questions 68 through 70 pertain to the graph below:

10
A
An object is moving along the x axis. 5

position (m)
The graph shows its position from the B
starting point as a function of time. 0
Various segments of the graph are D
identified by the letters A, B, C, and C
−5
D.
−10
15 0 20 5 10 25 30
time (s)
… 68. During which interval(s) is the object moving in the negative x direction?
(a) during interval B only (d) during intervals B and D
(b) during intervals B and C (e) during intervals B, C, and D
(c) during intervals C and D

‡ 69. What is the velocity of the object at t = 7.0 s?

(a) +3.0 m/s (c) −2.0 m/s (e) zero m/s
(b) −1.0 m/s (d) −3.0 m/s

‡ 70. What is the acceleration of the object at t = 7.0 s?

(a) zero m/s2 (c) −3.0 m/s2 (e) +4.0 m/s2
(b) −2.0 m/s 2
(d) +9.8 m/s2

Questions 71 through 74 pertain to the statement and graph below:

D
40

30
position (m)

An object is moving along a straight

line. The graph shows the object’s 20
position from the starting point as a
function of time. 10 B
C
A E
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
time (s)
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 21

… 71. In which segment(s) of the graph does the object’s average velocity (measured from t = 0 s)
decrease with time?
(a) AB only (c) DE only (e) BC and DE
(b) BC only (d) AB and CD

‡ 72. What was the instantaneous velocity of the object at t = 4 s?

(a) +6 m/s (c) +10 m/s (e) +40 m/s
(b) +8 m/s (d) +20 m/s

… 73. In which segments(s) of the graph does the object have the highest speed?
(a) AB (c) CD (e) AB and CD
(b) BC (d) DE

‡ 74. At which time(s) does the object reverse its direction of motion?
(a) 1 s and 2 s (c) 1 s (e) 5 s
(b) 2 s and 5 s (d) 2 s

Questions 75 through 78 pertain to the statement and graph below:

20
velocity (m/s)

An object is moving along a straight

line. The graph shows the object’s 15
velocity as a function of time. 10
5
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
time (s)

‡ 75. During which interval(s) of the graph does the object travel equal distances in equal times?
(a) 0 s to 2 s (d) 0 s to 2 s and 3 s to 5 s
(b) 2 s to 3 s (e) 0 s to 2 s, 3 to 5 s, and 5 to 6 s
(c) 3 s to 5 s

„ 76. During which interval(s) of the graph does the speed of the object increase by equal amounts in
equal times?
(a) 0 s to 2 s (d) 0 s to 2 s and 3 s to 5 s
(b) 2 s to 3 s (e) 0 s to 2 s, 3 to 5 s, and 5 to 6 s
(c) 3 s to 5 s

‡ 77. How far does the object move in the interval from t = 0 to t = 2 s?
(a) 7.5 m (c) 15 m (e) 25 m
(b) 10 m (d) 20 m

‡ 78. What is the acceleration of the object in the interval from t = 5 s to t = 6 s?

(a) −40 m/s2 (c) −20 m/s2 (e) −10 m/s2
2 2
(b) +40 m/s (d) +20 m/s
22 Chapter 2 Kinematics in One Dimension

Questions 79 through 81 pertain to the situation described below:

10
B
An object is moving along a straight 5

position (m)
line in the positive x direction. The A
graph shows its position from the 0
C
starting point as a function of time.
−5 D
Various segments of the graph are
identified by the letters A, B, C, and D.
−10
0 5 10 15 20 25 30
time (s)
‡ 79. Which segment(s) of the graph represent(s) a constant velocity of +1.0 m/s?
(a) A (c) C (e) A and C
(b) B (d) D

… 80. What was the instantaneous velocity of the object at the end of the eighth second?
(a) +7.5 m/s (c) −0.94 m/s (e) zero m/s
(b) +0.94 m/s (d) +1.1 m/s

… 81. During which interval(s) did the object move in the negative x direction?
(a) only during interval B (d) during both intervals C and D
(b) only during interval C (e) The object never moved in the negative x direction.
(c) only during interval D

Additional Problems
‡ 82. The rate at which the acceleration of an object changes with time is called the jerk.
What is the dimension of the jerk?
[L] [L]2 [L]2
(a) (c) (e)
[T] [T]2 [T]3
[L] [L]
(b) (d)
[T]2 [T]3

‡ 83. In a race, José runs 1.00 mile in 4.02 min, mounts a bicycle, and rides back to his starting point,
which is also the finish line, in 3.02 min. What is the magnitude of José’s average velocity for the
race?
(a) zero mi/h (c) 14.9 mi/h (e) 19.9 mi/h
(b) 12.1 mi/h (d) 17.0 mi/h

Questions 84 and 85 pertain to the situation described below:

A motorist travels due north at 30 mi/h for 2 hours. She then reverses her direction and travels due
south at 60 mi/h for 1 hour.

‡ 84. What is the average speed of the motorist?

(a) zero mi/h (c) 40 mi/h (e) 60 mi/h
(b) 30 mi/h (d) 50 mi/h
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 23

„ 85. What is the average velocity of the motorist?

(a) zero mi/h (c) 40 mi/h, south (e) 45 mi/h, south
(b) 40 mi/h, north (d) 45 mi/h, north

Questions 86 through 88 pertain to the statement below:

Starting from rest, a particle confined to move along a straight line is accelerated at a rate of 4 m/s2.

… 86. Which statement accurately describes the motion of the particle?

(a) The particle travels 4 meters during each second.
(b) The particle travels 4 meters during the first second only.
(c) The speed of the particle increases by 4 m/s during each second.
(d) The acceleration of the particle increases by 4 m/s2 during each second.
(e) The final velocity of the particle will be proportional to the distance that the particle covers.

‡ 87. After 10 seconds, how far will the particle have traveled?
(a) 20 m (c) 100 m (e) 400 m
(b) 40 m (d) 200 m

‡ 88. What is the speed of the particle after it has traveled 8 m?

(a) 4 m/s (c) 30 m/s (e) 100 m/s
(b) 8 m/s (d) 60 m/s

Questions 89 through 92 pertain to the situation described below:

A rock, dropped from rest near the surface of an atmosphere-free planet, attains a speed of 20.0 m/s
after falling 8.0 meters.

‡ 89. What is the magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of this planet?
(a) 0.40 m/s2 (c) 2.5 m/s2 (e) 160 m/s2
2 2
(b) 1.3 m/s (d) 25 m/s

‡ 90. How long did it take the object to fall the 8.0 meters mentioned?
(a) 0.40 s (c) 1.3 s (e) 16 s
(b) 0.80 s (d) 2.5 s

‡ 91. How long would it take the object, falling from rest, to fall 16 m on this planet?
(a) 0.8 s (c) 2.5 s (e) 22 s
(b) 1.1 s (d) 3.5 s

‡ 92. Determine the speed of the object after falling from rest through 16 m on this planet.
(a) 28 m/s (c) 56 m/s (e) 320 m/s
(b) 32 m/s (d) 64 m/s

Questions 93 through 97 pertain to the situation described below:

A tennis ball is shot vertically upward from the surface of an atmosphere-free planet with an initial
speed of 20.0 m/s. One second later, the ball has an instantaneous velocity in the upward direction of
15.0 m/s.
24 Chapter 2 Kinematics in One Dimension

‡ 93. What is the magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of this planet?
(a) 5.0 m/s2 (c) 12 m/s2 (e) 24 m/s2
2 2
(b) 9.8 m/s (d) 15 m/s

„ 94. How long does it take the ball to reach its maximum height?
(a) 2.0 s (c) 4.0 s (e) 8.0 s
(b) 2.3 s (d) 4.6 s

„ 95. How high does the ball rise?

(a) 70.0 m (c) 50.0 m (e) 40.0 m
(b) 10.0 m (d) 20.0 m

„ 96. Determine the velocity of the ball when it returns to its original position.
Note: assume the upward direction is positive.
(a) +20 m/s (c) +40 m/s (e) zero m/s
(b) −20 m/s (c) −40 m/s

‡ 97. How long is the ball in the air when it returns to its original position?
(a) 4.0 s (c) 8.0 s (e) 16 s
(b) 4.6 s (d) 9.2 s

Questions 98 and 99 pertain to the situation described below:

A small object is released from rest and falls 1.00 × 102 feet near the surface of the earth. Neglect air
resistance.

‡ 98. How long will it take to fall through the 1.00 × 102 feet mentioned?
(a) 2.49 s (c) 4.50 s (e) 10.0 s
(b) 3.12 s (d) 6.25 s

‡ 99. Approximately how fast will the object be moving after falling through the 1.00 × 102 feet
mentioned?
(a) 9.8 ft/s (c) 80 ft/s (e) 320 ft/s
(b) 40 ft/s (d) 160 ft/s

Questions 100 through 103 pertain to the situation described below:

The figure shows the speed as a function of time

for an object in free fall near the surface of the
earth.
v

The object was dropped from rest in a long

evacuated cylinder. 0 t

„ 100. Which one of the following statements best explains why the graph goes through the origin?
(a) The object was in a vacuum. (d) All v vs. t curves pass through the origin.
(b) The object was dropped from rest. (e) The acceleration of the object was constant.
(c) The velocity of the object was constant.
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 25

„ 101. What is the numerical value of the slope of the line?

(a) 1.0 m/s2 (d) 9.8 m/s2
2
(b) 2.0 m/s (e) This cannot be determined from the information
(c) 7.7 m/s2 given since the speed and time values are unknown.

„ 102. What is the speed of the object 3.0 seconds after it is dropped?
(a) 3.0 m/s
(b) 7.7 m/s
(c) 9.8 m/s
(d) 29 m/s
(e) This cannot be determined since there is no specified value of height.

„ 103. If the same object were released in air, the magnitude of its acceleration would begin at the free-fall
value, but it would decrease continuously to zero as the object continued to fall.

For which one of the choices given does the solid line best represent the speed of the object as a
function of time when it is dropped from rest in air?

Note: The dashed line shows the free-fall under vacuum graph for comparison.
(a) (c) (e)

v v v

0 t 0 t 0 t

(b) (d)

v v

0 t 0 t
 chapter KINEMATICS IN
TWO DIMENSIONS

Section 3.1 Displacement, Velocity, and Acceleration

… 1. A park ranger wanted to measure the height of a tall tree. The ranger stood 9.50 m from the base
of the tree; and he observed that his line of sight made an angle of 73.5° above the horizontal as
he looked at the top of the tree. What is the height of the tree?
(a) 5.84 m (c) 11.7 m (e) 20.6 m
(b) 8.77 m (d) 17.3 m

… 2. A toolbox is carried from the base of a B 6.4mm

5.4
ladder at point A as shown in the figure.
The toolbox comes to a rest on a scaffold
5.0 m above the ground. What is the
magnitude of the displacement of the
toolbox in its movement from point A to
point B?
(a) 15 m
(b) 19 m
(c) 8.1 m 7.6 m
6.6 m A
(d) 11 m
(e) 13 m

‡ 3. A delivery truck leaves a warehouse and travels 2.60 km north. The truck makes a right turn and
travels 1.33 km east before making another right turn and then travels 1.45 km south to arrive at
its destination. What is the magnitude and direction of the truck’s displacement from the
warehouse?
(a) 1.76 km, 40.8° north of east (d) 2.40 km, 45.0° north of east
(b) 1.15 km, 59.8° north of east (e) 5.37 km, 49.2° north of east
(c) 1.33 km, 30.2° north of east

‡ 4. A car travels due east at 22 m/s. It makes a turn due south and continues to travel at 22 m/s.
What is the change in velocity of the car?
(a) 22 m/s, due east (d) 31 m/s, 45° south of east
(b) 22 m/s, due south (e) zero m/s
(c) 31 m/s, 45° south of west

‡ 5. A train travels due south at 60 m/s. It reverses its direction and travels due north at 60 m/s.
What is the change in velocity of the train?
(a) 120 m/s, due north
(b) 120 m/s, due south
(c) 60 m/s, due north
(d) 60 m/s, due south
(e) zero m/s

„ 6. A car travels along a highway with a velocity of 24 m/s, west. The car exits the highway; and 4.0 s
later, its instantaneous velocity is 16 m/s, 45° north of west. What is the magnitude of the average
acceleration of the car during the four-second interval?
(a) 2.4 m/s2 (c) 1.2 m/s2 (e) 17 m/s2
2 2
(b) 4.2 m/s (d) 11 m/s
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 27

„ 7. An electronic tracking device is placed on a police dog to monitor its whereabouts relative to the
police station. At time t1 = 23 min, the dog’s displacement from the station is 1.2 km, 33° north of
east. At time t2 = 57 min, the dog’s displacement from the station is 2.0 km, 75° north of east.
Find the magnitude and direction of the dog’s average velocity between these two times.
(a) 0.52 m/s, 88° north of east (d) 0.67 m/s, 21° west of north
(b) 1.4 m/s, 31° west of north (e) 0.80 m/s, 42° west of north
(c) 1.6 m/s, 42° north of east

Questions 8 through 11 pertain to the situation described below:

During a one-hour trip, a small boat travels 80.0 km north and then travels 60.0 km east.

… 8. What is the boat's displacement for the one-hour trip?

(a) 20 km (c) 140 km (e) 10 000 km
(b) 100 km (d) 280 km

‡ 9. What is the boat's average speed during the one-hour trip?

(a) 20 km/h (c) 140 km/h (e) 10 000 km/h
(b) 100 km/h (d) 280 km/h

‡ 10. What is the magnitude of the boat's average velocity for the one-hour trip?
(a) 20 km/h (c) 140 km/h (e) 20 000 km/h
(b) 100 km/h (d) 10 000 km/h

‡ 11. What is the direction of the boat's average velocity for the one-hour trip?
(a) due east (c) 41.7° north of east (e) 53.1° north of east
(b) 36.9° north of east (d) 49.2° north of east

Section 3.2 Equations of Kinematics in Two Dimensions

Section 3.3 Projectile Motion
‡ 12. An eagle is flying due east at 8.9 m/s carrying a gopher in its talons. The gopher manages to
break free at a height of 12 m. What is the magnitude of the gopher’s velocity as it reaches the
ground? Note: effects of air resistance are not included in this calculation.
(a) 22 m/s (c) 11 m/s (e) 8.9 m/s
(b) 18 m/s (d) 9.8 m/s

„ 13. At time t = 0 s, a puck is sliding on a horizontal table with a velocity 3.00 m/s, 65.0° above the +x
axis. As the puck slides, a constant acceleration acts on it that has the following components: ax =
–0.460 m/s2 and ay = –0.980 m/s2. What is the velocity of the puck at time t = 1.50 s?
(a) 1.83 m/s, 62.0° above the +x axis (d) 2.20 m/s, 55.0° above the +x axis
(b) 2.04 m/s, 71.3° above the +x axis (e) 1.38 m/s, 65.2° above the +x axis
(c) 1.06 m/s, 58.7° above the +x axis

„ 14. An airplane traveling north at 400 m/s is accelerated due east at a rate of 50 m/s2 for 6 s. If the
effects of air resistance and gravity are ignored, what is the final speed of the plane?
(a) 300 m/s (c) 500 m/s (e) 800 m/s
(b) 400 m/s (d) 700 m/s
28 Chapter 3 Kinematics in Two Dimensions

Questions 15 and 16 pertain to the following situation.

A spaceship is observed traveling in the positive x direction with a speed of 150 m/s when it
begins accelerating at a constant rate. The spaceship is observed 25 s later traveling with an
instantaneous velocity of 1500 m/s at an angle of 55° above the +x axis.

„ 15. What was the magnitude of the acceleration of the spaceship during the 25 seconds?
(a) 1.5 m/s2 (c) 28 m/s2 (e) 57 m/s2
2 2
(b) 7.3 m/s (d) 48 m/s

„ 16. What was the magnitude of the displacement of the spaceship during the 25 seconds?
(a) 2.0 × 104 m (c) 2.8 × 104 m (e) 1.7 × 102 m
(b) 1.4 × 10 m
4
(d) 1.0 × 10 m
4

… 17. A football is kicked at an angle θ with respect to the horizontal. Which one of the following
statements best describes the acceleration of the football during this event if air resistance is
neglected?
(a) The acceleration is zero m/s2 at all times.
(b) The acceleration is 9.8 m/s2 at all times.
(c) The acceleration is zero m/s2 when the football has reached the highest point in its trajectory.
(d) The acceleration is positive as the football rises, and it is negative as the football falls.
(e) The acceleration starts at 9.8 m/s2 and drops to some constant lower value as the ball
approaches the ground.

‡ 18. A baseball is hit upward and travels along a parabolic arc before it strikes the ground. Which one
of the following statements is necessarily true?
(a) The acceleration of the ball decreases as the ball moves upward.
(b) The velocity of the ball is zero m/s when the ball is at the highest point in the arc.
(c) The acceleration of the ball is zero m/s2 when the ball is at the highest point in the arc.
(d) The x-component of the velocity of the ball is the same throughout the ball's flight.
(e) The velocity of the ball is a maximum when the ball is at the highest point in the arc.

„ 19. A physics student standing on the edge of a cliff throws a stone vertically downward with an
initial speed of 10.0 m/s. The instant before the stone hits the ground below, it is traveling at a
speed of 30.0 m/s. If the physics student were to throw the rock horizontally outward from the
cliff instead, with the same initial speed of 10.0 m/s, what is the magnitude of the velocity of the
stone just before it hits the ground?
(a) 10.0 m/s (d) 40.0 m/s
(b) 20.0 m/s (e) The height of the cliff must be
(c) 30.0 m/s specified to answer this question.

„ 20. A tennis ball is thrown from ground level with velocity vo directed 30° above the horizontal. If it
takes the ball 1.0 s to reach the top of its trajectory, what is the magnitude of the initial velocity?
(a) 4.9 m/s (c) 11.3 m/s (e) 34.4 m/s
(b) 9.8 m/s (d) 19.6 m/s
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 29

Questions 21 and 22 pertain to the situation described below:

A projectile is fired at an angle of 60.0° above the horizontal with an initial speed of 30.0 m/s.

‡ 21. What is the magnitude of the horizontal component of the projectile's displacement at the end of 2 s?
(a) 30 m (c) 10 m (e) 50 m
(b) 40 m (d) 20 m

‡ 22. How long does it take the projectile to reach the highest point in its trajectory?
(a) 1.5 s (c) 4.0 s (e) 9.8 s
(b) 2.7 s (d) 6.2 s

Questions 23 through 28 pertain to the situation described below:

A projectile fired from a gun has initial horizontal and vertical components of velocity equal to
30 m/s and 40 m/s, respectively.

… 23. Determine the initial speed of the projectile.

(a) 40 m/s (c) 60 m/s (e) 80 m/s
(b) 50 m/s (d) 70 m/s

… 24. At what angle is the projectile fired (measured with respect to the horizontal)?
(a) 37° (c) 45° (e) 60°
(b) 40° (d) 53°

‡ 25. Approximately how long does it take the projectile to reach the highest point in its trajectory?
(a) 1 s (c) 4 s (e) 16 s
(b) 2 s (d) 8 s

‡ 26. What is the speed of the projectile when it is at the highest point in its trajectory?
(a) 0 m/s (c) 30 m/s (e) 50 m/s
(b) 20 m/s (d) 40 m/s

… 27. What is the acceleration of the projectile when it reaches its maximum height?
(a) zero m/s2
(b) 9.8 m/s2, downward
(c) 4.9 m/s2, downward
(d) less than 9.8 m/s2 and non-zero.
(e) Its magnitude is 9.8 m/s2; and its direction is changing.

… 28. What is the magnitude of the projectile's velocity just before it strikes the ground?
(a) zero m/s (c) 30 m/s (e) 50 m/s
(b) 9.8 m/s (d) 40 m/s

‡ 29. A quarterback throws a pass at an angle of 35° above the horizontal with an initial speed of 25 m/s.
The ball is caught by the receiver 2.55 seconds later. Determine the distance the ball was thrown.
(a) 13 m (c) 36 m (e) 72 m
(b) 18 m (d) 52 m
30 Chapter 3 Kinematics in Two Dimensions

‡ 30. A projectile is fired horizontally with an initial speed of 57 m/s. What are the horizontal and
vertical components of its displacement 3.0 s after it is fired?
horizontal vertical
(a) 44 m −29 m
(b) 170 m zero m
(c) 170 m −44 m
(d) 210 m −44 m
(e) 210 m zero m

‡ 31. A spring-loaded gun is aimed horizontally and is used to launch identical balls with different
initial speeds. The gun is at a fixed position above the floor. The balls are fired one at a time.

If the speed of the second ball fired is twice the speed of the first ball fired, how is the
horizontal range (denoted R in the figure) affected?
(a) The range for both balls will be the same.
(b) The range of the second ball will be half as much as that of the first ball.
(c) The range of the second ball will be twice as large as that of the first ball.
(d) The range of the second ball is about 1.4 times larger than that of the first ball.
(e) The range of the second ball will be smaller than that of the first ball by a factor of 1.4.

Questions 32 through 34 pertain to the situation described below:

A shell is fired with a horizontal velocity in the positive x

direction from the top of an 80-m high cliff. The shell 80 m
strikes the ground 1330 m from the base of the cliff. The
drawing is not to scale.
1330 m
„ 32. Determine the initial speed of the shell.
(a) 4.0 m/s (c) 82 m/s (e) 330 m/s
(b) 9.8 m/s (d) 170 m/s

‡ 33. What is the speed of the shell as it hits the ground?

(a) 4.0 m/s (c) 82 m/s (e) 330 m/s
(b) 9.8 m/s (d) 170 m/s

… 34. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the shell just before it strikes the ground?
(a) 4.0 m/s2 (c) 82 m/s2 (e) 330 m/s2
2 2
(b) 9.8 m/s (d) 170 m/s

‡ 35. An arrow is shot horizontally from a height of 4.9 m above the ground. The initial speed of the
arrow is 45 m/s. Neglecting friction, how long will it take the arrow to hit the ground?
(a) 9.2 s (c) 1.0 s (e) 4.6 s
(b) 6.0 s (d) 1.4 s
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 31

‡ 36. A cannonball at ground level is aimed 30.0° above the horizontal and is fired with an initial speed
of 125 m/s. How far away from the cannon will the cannonball hit the ground?
(a) 125 m (c) 695 m (e) 1380 m
(b) 138 m (d) 1040 m

‡ 37. A basketball is launched with an initial speed of 8.0 m/s

and follows the trajectory shown. The ball enters the
basket 0.96 s after it is launched. What are the
distances x and y? Note: The drawing is not to scale.
x y y
v0
(a) 5.4 m 0.73 m 45°
(b) 7.7 m 0.91 m x
(c) 5.4 m 0.91 m
(d) 5.7 m 0.73 m
(e) 5.4 m 5.4 m

„ 38. A puck slides across a smooth, level tabletop at height H at a constant speed vo. It slides off the
edge of the table and hits the floor a distance x away as shown in the figure.
x
vo

What is the relationship between the distances x and H?

2H v2 H
(a) x = vo (c) x = o (e) x = vo
g gH g
vo2 2x
(b) x = (d) H = vo
2 gH g

… 39. A bullet is aimed at a target on the wall a distance L away from the firing position. Because of
gravity, the bullet strikes the wall a distance ∆y below the mark as suggested in the figure.
Note: The drawing is not to scale.

If the distance L was half as large and the bullet had the same initial
velocity, how would ∆y be affected? Target

L
Bullet
∆y

(a) ∆y will double.

(b) ∆y will be half as large.
(c) ∆y will be four times larger.
(d) ∆y will be one fourth as large.
(e) ∆y is not possible to determine unless numerical values are given for the distances.
32 Chapter 3 Kinematics in Two Dimensions

Questions 40 through 43 pertain to the statement and diagram below:

A tennis ball is thrown upward at an angle from point A. It follows a parabolic trajectory and hits
the ground at point D. At the instant shown, the ball is at point B. Point C represents the highest
position of the ball above the ground.
C
B

A D

‡ 40. While in flight, how do the x and y components of the velocity vector of the ball compare at the
points B and C?
(a) The velocity components are non-zero at B and zero at C.
(b) The x components are the same; the y component at C is zero m/s.
(c) The x components are the same; the y component has a larger magnitude at C than at B.
(d) The x component is larger at C than at B; the y component at B points up while at C,
it points downward.
(e) The x component is larger at B than at C; the y component at B points down while at C, it
points upward.

‡ 41. While in flight, how do the x and y components of the velocity vector of the ball compare at the
points A and D?
(a) The velocity components are non-zero at A and are zero m/s at D.
(b) The velocity components are the same in magnitude and direction at both points.
(c) The velocity components have the same magnitudes at both points, but their directions are
reversed.
(d) The velocity components have the same magnitudes at both points, but the directions of the x
components are reversed.
(e) The velocity components have the same magnitudes at both points, but the directions of the y
components are reversed.

‡ 42. Which statement is true concerning the ball when it is at C, the highest point in its trajectory?
(a) The ball’s velocity and acceleration are both zero.
(b) The ball’s velocity is perpendicular to its acceleration.
(c) The ball’s velocity is not zero, but its acceleration is zero.
(d) The ball’s velocity is zero, but its acceleration is not zero.
(e) The horizontal and vertical components of the ball’s velocity are equal.

„ 43. At which point is the velocity vector changing most rapidly with time?
(a) A (d) D
(b) B (e) It is changing at the same rate at all four points.
(c) C

Questions 44 through 46 refer to the statement below:

A football is kicked with a speed of 18 m/s at an angle of 65° to the horizontal.

… 44. What are the respective horizontal and vertical components of the initial velocity of the football?
(a) 7.6 m/s, 16 m/s (c) 8.4 m/s, 13 m/s (e) 9 m/s, 9 m/s
(b) 16 m/s, 7.6 m/s (d) 13 m/s, 8.4 m/s
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 33

‡ 45. How long is the football in the air? Neglect air resistance.
(a) 1.1 s (c) 2.0 s (e) 4.0 s
(b) 1.6 s (d) 3.3 s

‡ 46. How far does the football travel horizontally before it hits the ground?
(a) 18 m (c) 36 m (e) 72 m
(b) 25 m (d) 48 m

Questions 47 and 48 pertain to the situation described below:

10 m/s
A rock is kicked horizontally at a speed
of 10 m/s from the edge of a cliff. The
rock strikes the ground 55 m from the H
foot of the cliff of height H as suggested
in the figure, which is not drawn to scale.
Neglect air resistance. 55 m
… 47. How long is the rock in the air?
(a) 1.0 s (c) 3.4 s (e) 11.2 s
(b) 1.2 s (d) 5.5 s

„ 48. What is the approximate value of H, the height of the cliff?

(a) 27 m (c) 150 m (e) 730 m
(b) 54 m (d) 300 m

Questions 49 through 51 refer to the statement below:

A projectile is fired horizontally with an initial speed of 50.0 m/s. Neglect air resistance.

‡ 49. What is the magnitude of the displacement of the projectile 3.00 s after it is fired?
(a) 29.4 m (c) 150 m (e) 194 m
(b) 44.1 m (d) 156 m

‡ 50. What is the speed of the projectile 3.00 s after it is fired?

(a) 29.4 m/s (c) 58.0 m/s (e) 98.6 m/s
(b) 50.0 m/s (d) 79.4 m/s

… 51. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the projectile 3.00 s after it is fired?
(a) 9.8 m/s2 (c) 29.4 m/s2 (e) zero m/s2
2 2
(b) 16.6 m/s (d) 5.42 m/s

*Section 3.4 Relative Velocity

‡ 52. A motorcycle has a velocity of 15 m/s, due south as it passes a car with a velocity of 24 m/s, due
north. What is the magnitude and direction of the velocity of the motorcycle as seen by the driver
of the car?
(a) 9 m/s, north
(b) 9 m/s, south
(c) 15 m/s, north
(d) 39 m/s, north
(e) 39 m/s, south
34 Chapter 3 Kinematics in Two Dimensions

‡ 53. A tennis ball is thrown vertically with an initial speed of 20.0 m/s at time t = 0 s. Approximately, what
is the initial speed of the ball relative to an observer in a car that moves horizontally past the launch
location with a constant speed of 30 m/s?
(a) 10 m/s (c) 30 m/s (e) 50 m/s
(c) 20 m/s (d) 36 m/s

Questions 54 and 55 pertain to the statement below:

A football is kicked with a speed of 22 m/s at an angle of 60.0° relative to the positive x direction. At
that instant, an observer rides past the football in a car that moves with a constant speed of 11 m/s in
the positive x direction.

‡ 54. Determine the initial velocity of the ball relative to the observer in the car.
(a) 19 m/s in the +y direction (d) 33 m/s at 60° to the +x direction
(b) 11 m/s in the +y direction (e) 17 m/s at 60° to the +x direction
(c) 19 m/s at 60° to the +x direction

„ 55. Complete the following statement: According to the observer in the car, the ball will
(a) follow a parabolic path.
(b) follow a hyperbolic path.
(c) follow a path that is straight up and down in the y direction.
(d) follow a path that is straight across in the +x direction.
(e) follow a straight line that is angled (less than 90°) with respect to the x direction.

Questions 56 and 57 pertain to the situation described below:

Two cars approach each other on a straight and level road. Car A is traveling at 75 km/h, due
north and car B is traveling at 45 km/h, due south. Both velocities are measured relative to the
ground.

‡ 56. What is the velocity of car A relative to an observer in car B?

(a) 75 km/h, north (c) 30 km/h, south (e) 120 km/h, north
(b) 30 km/h, north (d) 120 km/h, south

‡ 57. At a certain instant, the distance between the cars is 15 km. How long will it take from that
instant for the two cars to meet?
(a) 450 s (c) 720 s (e) 1900 s
(b) 900 s (d) 1200 s

‡ 58. A ferry can travel at an optimal speed of 8 km/h in still water measured relative to the shore.
What is the optimal speed of the ferry, relative to the shore, if it moves perpendicular to a 6 km/h
current?
(a) 4 km/h (c) 10 km/h (e) 28 km/h
(b) 8 km/h (d) 14 km/h

„ 59. A boat that can travel at 4.0 km/h in still water crosses a river with a current of 2.0 km/h. At what
angle must the boat be pointed upstream (that is, relative to its actual path) to go straight across
the river?
(a) 27° (c) 60° (e) 90°
(b) 30° (d) 63°
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 35

Questions 60 and 61 pertain to the situation described below:

A man at point A directs his rowboat due north toward point B, straight across a river of width
100 m. The river current is due east. The man starts across, rowing steadily at 0.75 m/s and
reaches the other side of the river at point C, 150 m downstream from his starting point.

B 150 C

100
N

W E
S
A

‡ 60. What is the speed of the river?

(a) 0.38 m/s (c) 1.1 m/s (e) 7.5 m/s
(b) 0.67 m/s (d) 6.7 m/s

‡ 61. While the man is crossing the river, what is his velocity relative to the shore?
(a) 1.35 m/s, 34° north of east (d) 2.11 m/s, 34° north of east
(b) 2.00 m/s, 56° north of east (e) 2.50 m/s, 42° north of east
(c) 1.74 m/s, 34° north of east

‡ 62. Two cars A and B approach each other at an intersection. Car A is traveling south at 20 m/s, while
car B is traveling east at 17 m/s. What is the velocity of car A as described by the passengers in car B?
(a) 37 m/s, eastward (d) 26 m/s, 50° south of west
(b) 26 m/s, 40° south of east (e) 26 m/s, 40° south of west
(c) 26 m/s, 50° south of east

… 63. A passenger at rest on a flatbed train car fires a bullet straight up. The event is viewed by
observers at rest on the station platform as the train moves past the platform with constant
velocity. What is the trajectory of the bullet as described by the observers on the platform?
(a) a straight horizontal path in the direction of the train's velocity
(b) a straight vertical path up and down
(c) a circular path centered on the gun
(d) a straight diagonal path
(e) a parabolic path

„ 64. Airplane One flies due east at 250 km/h relative to the ground. At the same time, Airplane Two
flies 325 km/h, 35° north of east relative to the ground. What is the velocity of Airplane One
relative to Airplane Two?
(a) 16 km/h, due west (d) 170 km/h, 15° north of east
(b) 270 km/h, due north (e) 190 km/h, 85° south of west
(c) 210 km/h, 55° south of east
36 Chapter 3 Kinematics in Two Dimensions

‡ 65. A police car is in pursuit of a stolen pickup truck. At one instant, the car has a speed of 34 m/s
and is 164 m behind the truck. At the same time, the truck has a speed of 32 m/s. If neither
vehicle accelerates, how long will it take the police to catch up to the truck?
(a) 4.8 s (c) 51 s (e) 96 s
(b) 24 s (d) 82 s

Additional Problems
‡ 66. A bicyclist is riding at a constant speed along a straight-line path. The rider throws a ball straight
up to a height a few meters above her head. Ignoring air resistance, where will the ball land?
(a) behind the rider
(b) in front of the rider
(c) in the same hand that threw the ball
(d) in the opposite hand to the one that threw it
(e) This cannot be determined without knowing the speed of the rider and the maximum height
of the ball.

„ 67. A basketball player is running at a constant speed of 2.5 m/s when he tosses a basketball upward
with a speed of 6.0 m/s. How far does the player run before he catches the ball? Ignore air
resistance.
(a) 3.1 m (d) 6.0 m
(b) 4.5 m (e) 7.5 m
(c) The ball cannot be caught because it will fall behind the player.

„ 68. A ball is fired at an angle of 45°, the angle that yields the maximum range in the absence of air
resistance. What is the ratio of the ball’s maximum height to its range?
(a) 1.0 (c) 0.67 (e) 0.25
(b) 0.75 (d) 0.50
 chapter FORCES AND
NEWTON’S LAWS OF MOTION

Section 4.1 The Concepts of Force and Mass

Section 4.2 Newton’s First Law of Motion
Section 4.3 Newton’s Second Law of Motion
… 1. With one exception, each of the following units can be used to express mass. What is the exception?
(a) newton (c) gram (e) kilogram
2
(b) slug (d) N⋅s /m

… 2. Complete the following statement: The term net force most accurately describes
(a) the mass of an object (d) the quantity that keeps an object
(b) the inertia of an object. moving.
(c) the quantity that causes displacement. (e) the quantity that changes the velocity of
an object.

… 3. Which one of the following terms is used to indicate the natural tendency of an object to remain at
rest or in motion at a constant speed along a straight line?
(a) velocity (c) acceleration (e) inertia
(b) force (d) equilibrium

‡ 4. Complete the following statement: An inertial reference frame is one in which

(a) Newton’s first law of motion is valid.
(b) the inertias of objects within the frame are zero.
(c) the frame is accelerating.
(d) the acceleration due to gravity is greater than zero m/s2.
(e) Newton’s third law of motion is not valid.

… 5. A net force F is required to give an object with mass m an acceleration a. If a net force 6 F is
applied to an object with mass 2m, what is the acceleration on this object?
(a) a (c) 3a (e) 6a
(b) 2a (d) 4a

‡ 6. When the net force that acts on a hockey puck is 10 N, the puck accelerates at a rate of 50 m/s2.
Determine the mass of the puck.
(a) 0.2 kg (c) 5 kg (e) 50 kg
(b) 1.0 kg (d) 10 kg
Velocity (m/s)

‡ 7. The figure shows the velocity versus time curve

for a car traveling along a straight line. Which of B
the following statements is false? A C
(a) No net force acts on the car during interval
B.
(b) Net forces act on the car during intervals A
and C. Time
(c) Opposing forces may be acting on the car
during interval B.
(d) Opposing forces may be acting on the car during interval C.
(e) The magnitude of the net force acting during interval A is less than that during C.
38 Chapter 4 Forces and Newton‘s Laws of Motion

‡ 8. The graph shows the velocities of

Object 1

Velocity (m/s)
two objects of equal mass as a
function of time. Net forces FA, A
FB, and FC acted on the objects Object 2
C
during intervals A, B, and C,
respectively. Which one of the B
following choices is the correct
relationship between the magnitudes Time
of the net forces?
(a) FB = FC > FA (c) FA > FB = FC (e) FA > FB > FC
(b) FC > FB > FA (d) FA = FB = FC

„ 9. A 15-N net force is applied for 6.0 s to a 12-kg box initially at rest. What is the speed of the box
at the end of the 6.0-s interval?
(a) 1.8 m/s (c) 3.0 m/s (e) 30 m/s
(b) 15 m/s (d) 7.5 m/s

‡ 10. A 810-kg car accelerates from rest to 27 m/s in a distance of 120 m. What is the magnitude of the
average net force acting on the car?
(a) 740 N (c) 91 N (e) 7900 N
(b) 2500 N (d) 1300 N

„ 11. A 2150-kg truck is traveling along a straight, level road at a constant speed of 55.0 km/h when the
driver removes his foot from the accelerator. After 21.0 s, the truck’s speed is 33.0 km/h. What is
the magnitude of the average net force acting on the truck during the 21.0 s interval?
(a) 2250 N (c) 1890 N (e) 229 N
(b) 626 N (d) 972 N

Questions 12 through 15 pertain to the situation described below:

A 2.0-kg object moves in a straight line on a

Velocity (m/s)

horizontal frictionless surface.

The graph shows the velocity of the object

as a function of time. The various equal
time intervals are labeled using Roman
numerals: I, II, III, IV, and V.
I II III IV V
The net force on the object always acts Time (s)
along the line of motion of the object.
‡ 12. Which section(s) of the graph correspond to a condition of zero net force?
(a) V only (c) II and IV (e) I, III, and V
(b) III only (d) II, III, and IV

‡ 13. Which section of the graph corresponds to the application of the largest constant net force?
(a) I (c) III (e) V
(b) II (d) IV

„ 14. In which section of the graph is the magnitude of the net force decreasing?
(a) I (c) III (e) V
(b) II (d) IV
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 39

„ 15. In which section(s) of the graph is the net force changing?

(a) I and III (c) III (e) I and V
(b) II and IV (d) IV

Section 4.4 The Vector Nature of Newton’s Second Law of Motion

Section 4.5 Newton’s Third Law of Motion
‡ 16. An object moves due east at constant speed. A net force directed due north then acts on the object
for 5.0 s. At the end of the 5.0-second period, the net force drops to zero newtons. Which one of
the following statements is necessarily true?
(a) The object will be moving eastward when the force drops to zero newtons.
(b) The change in the velocity of the object will be directed north of west.
(c) The direction of the object's acceleration depends on how fast the object was initially moving.
(d) The final velocity of the object will be directed north of east.
(e) The magnitude of the object's acceleration depends on how fast the object was initially moving.

„ 17. Two forces act on a 16-kg object. The first force has a magnitude of 68 N and is directed 24°
north of east. The second force is 32 N, 48° north of west. What is the acceleration of the object
resulting from the action of these two forces?
(a) 1.6 m/s2, 5.5° north of east (d) 3.6 m/s2, 5.5° north of west
2
(b) 1.9 m/s , 18° north of west (e) 4.1 m/s2, 52° north of east
2
(c) 2.4 m/s , 34° north of east

14.5 N
‡ 18. An apple crate with a weight of 225 N accelerates
along a frictionless surface as the crate is pulled with a NEWTON’S 19°
force of 14.5 N as shown in the drawing. What is the APPLES
horizontal acceleration of the crate?
2 2 2
(a) 1.40 m/s (c) 1.29 m/s (e) 0.644 m/s
2 2
(b) 0.427 m/s (d) 0.597 m/s

‡ 19. Two forces act on a 4.5-kg block resting on a frictionless surface as

shown. What is the magnitude of the horizontal acceleration of the 5.9 N
block? 3.7 N 43°
(a) 1.8 m/s2 (d) 3.2 m/s2
2
(b) 1.2 m/s (e) 8.9 m/s2
2
(c) 0.82 m/s

… 20. Two forces act on a hockey puck. For which orientation of the forces will the puck acquire an
acceleration with the largest magnitude?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(e) The magnitude of the acceleration will be the same in all four cases shown above.
40 Chapter 4 Forces and Newton‘s Laws of Motion

Questions 21 and 22 pertain to the situation described below:

A horse pulls a cart along a flat road. Consider the following four forces that arise in this situation.
(1) the force of the horse pulling on the cart (3) the force of the horse pushing on the road
(2) the force of the cart pulling on the horse (4) the force of the road pushing on the horse

… 21. Which two forces form an "action-reaction" pair that obeys Newton's third law?
(a) 1 and 4 (c) 2 and 4 (e) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

‡ 22. Suppose that the horse and cart have started from rest; and as time goes on, their speed increases in
the same direction. Which one of the following conclusions is correct concerning the magnitudes of
the forces mentioned above?
(a) Force 1 exceeds force 2. (d) Force 3 exceeds force 4.
(b) Force 2 is less than force 3. (e) Forces 1 and 2 cannot have equal
(c) Force 2 exceeds force 4. magnitudes.

Questions 23 and 24 pertain to the situation described below:

A physics student in a hot air balloon ascends vertically at constant speed. Consider the following
four forces that arise in this situation:
F1 = the weight of the hot air balloon F3 = the force of the student pulling on the earth
F2 = the weight of the student F4 = the force of the hot air balloon pulling on the student

… 23. Which two forces form an "action-reaction" pair that obeys Newton's third law?
(a) F1 and F2 (c) F1 and F3 (e) F3 and F4
(b) F2 and F3 (d) F2 and F4

‡ 24. Which one of the following relationships concerning the forces or their magnitudes is true?
(a) F4 > F2 (c) F4 > F1 (e) F3 = –F4
(b) F1 < F2 (d) F2 = –F4

Questions 25 and 26 pertain to the situation described below:

A book is resting on the surface of a table. Consider the following four forces that arise in this
situation:
(1) the force of the earth pulling on the book (3) the force of the book pushing on the table
(2) the force of the table pushing on the book (4) the force of the book pulling on the earth

… 25. Which two forces form an "action-reaction" pair that obeys Newton's third law?
(a) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 4 (e) 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

‡ 26. The book has an acceleration of 0 m/s2. Which pair of forces, excluding "action-reaction" pairs, must
be equal in magnitude and opposite in direction?
(a) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 4 (e) 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 41

Questions 27 and 28 pertain to the statement and figure shown:

A 70.0-kg astronaut pushes to the left on a spacecraft with a force F

in “gravity-free” space. The spacecraft has a total mass of 1.0 × 104
kg. During the push, the astronaut accelerates to the right with an
acceleration of 0.36 m/s2.

… 27. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation

is true?
(a) The spacecraft does not move, but the astronaut moves to the right with a constant speed.
(b) The astronaut stops moving after he stops pushing on the spacecraft.
(c) The force exerted on the astronaut is larger than the force exerted on the spacecraft.
(d) The force exerted on the spacecraft is larger than the force exerted on the astronaut.
(e) The velocity of the astronaut increases while he is pushing on the spacecraft.

‡ 28. Determine the magnitude of the acceleration of the spacecraft.

(a) 51.4 m/s2 (c) 2.5 × 10–3 m/s2 (e) 3.97 × 10–4 m/s2
(b) 0.36 m/s2 (d) 7.0 × 10–3 m/s2

Section 4.6 Types of Forces: An Overview

Section 4.7 The Gravitational Force
‡ 29. Consider the following forces.
(1) frictional (3) tension (5) normal
(2) gravitational (4) strong nuclear (6) electroweak
Which of the forces listed are considered fundamental forces?
(a) 1, 2, and 4 (c) 1, 3, and 5 (e) 2, 3, 4, and 6
(b) 1, 2, 3, and 5 (d) 2, 4, and 6

‡ 30. A rock is thrown straight up from the earth's surface. Which one of the following statements
concerning the net force acting on the rock at the top of its path is true?
(a) The net force is equal to the weight of the rock.
(b) The net force is instantaneously equal to zero newtons.
(c) The net force’s direction changes from up to down.
(d) The net force is greater than the weight of the rock.
(e) The net force is less than the weight of the rock, but greater than zero newtons.

… 31. Two point masses m and M are separated by a distance d. If the distance between the masses is
increased to 3d, how does the gravitational force between them change?
(a) The force will be one-third as great.
(b) The force will be one-ninth as great.
(c) The force will be three times as great.
(d) The force will be nine times as great.
(e) It is impossible to determine without knowing the numerical values of m, M, and d.

‡ 32. Two point masses m and M are separated by a distance d. If the separation d remains fixed and the
masses are increased to the values 3m and 3M respectively, how does the gravitational force between
them change?
(a) The force will be one-third as great. (d) The force will be nine times as great.
(b) The force will be one-ninth as great. (e) It is impossible to determine without knowing
(c) The force will be three times as great. the numerical values of m, M, and d.
42 Chapter 4 Forces and Newton‘s Laws of Motion

… 33. Which one of the following statements concerning the two "gravitational constants" G, the
universal gravitational constant, and g the magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity is true?
(a) The values of g and G depend on location.
(b) The values of g and G do not depend on location.
(c) The value of G is the same everywhere in the universe, but the value of g is not.
(d) The value of g is the same everywhere in the universe, but the value of G is not.
(e) The values of g and G are equal on the surface of any planet, but in general, vary with location in
the universe.

‡ 34. Two satellites of different masses are in the same circular orbit about the earth. Which one of the
following statements is true concerning the magnitude of the gravitational force that acts on each
of them?
(a) The magnitude of the gravitational force is zero newtons for both satellites.
(b) The magnitude of the gravitational force is the same for both satellites, but not zero newtons.
(c) The magnitude of the gravitational force is zero newtons for one, but not for the other.
(d) The magnitude of the gravitational force depends on their masses.
(e) The magnitude of the gravitational force varies from point to point in their orbits.

‡ 35. An astronaut orbits the earth in a space capsule whose height above the earth is equal to the earth's
radius. How does the weight of the astronaut in the capsule compare to her weight on the earth?
(a) Her weight is equal to her weight on earth.
(b) Her weight is equal to one-fourth her weight on earth.
(c) Her weight is equal to one-half of her weight on earth.
(d) Her weight is equal to one-third of her weight on earth.
(e) Her weight is equal to one-sixteenth her weight on earth.

‡ 36. An astronaut orbits the earth in a space capsule whose height above the earth is equal to the earth's
radius. How does the mass of the astronaut in the capsule compare to her mass on the earth?
(a) Her mass is equal to her mass on earth.
(b) Her mass is equal to one-fourth her mass on earth.
(c) Her mass is equal to one-half of her mass on earth.
(d) Her mass is equal to one-third of her mass on earth.
(e) Her mass is equal to one-sixteenth her mass on earth.

… 37. Which statement best explains why the weight of an object of mass m is different on Mars than it
is on the Earth?
(a) The mass of Mars is different from that of Earth.
(b) The masses and radii of Mars and Earth are not the same.
(c) The mass m is further from the Earth's center when it is on Mars.
(d) The constant G is different on Mars.
(e) The mass m will be different on Mars.

… 38. What is the weight of a 2.50-kg bag of sand on the surface of the earth?
(a) 2.50 N (c) 24.5 N (e) 98.0 N
(b) 9.80 N (d) 49.0 N

„ 39. A 2.00-kg projectile is fired at an angle of 20.0°. What is the magnitude of the force exerted on the
projectile when it is at the highest position in its trajectory? Neglect any effects of air resistance.
(a) 19.6 N (c) 9.80 N (e) 0 N
(b) 14.7 N (d) 4.90 N
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 43

‡ 40. A marble is dropped straight down from a distance h above the floor.
Let Fm = the magnitude of the gravitational force on the marble due to the earth;
Fe = the magnitude of the gravitational force on the earth due to the marble;
am = the magnitude of the acceleration of the marble toward the earth;
ae = the magnitude of the acceleration of the earth toward the marble.
Which set of conditions is true as the marble falls toward the earth? Neglect any effects of air
resistance.
(a) Fm = Fe and am < ae (d) Fm > Fe and am = ae
(b) Fm < Fe and am > ae (e) Fm = Fe and am > ae
(c) Fm < Fe and am = ae

‡ 41. What is the magnitude of the gravitational force acting on a 79.5-kg student due to a 60.0-kg
student sitting 2.25 m away in the lecture hall?
−9 −10 −8
(a) 3.14 × 10 N (c) 7.91 × 10 N (e) 6.29 × 10 N
−8 −7
(b) 2.82 × 10 N (d) 1.41 × 10 N

Section 4.8 The Normal Force

Section 4.9 Static and Kinetic Frictional Forces
… 42. A 44-kg child steps onto a scale and the scale reads 430 N. What is the magnitude of the normal
force acting on the child?
(a) 44 N (c) 430 N (e) 860 N
(b) 215 N (d) 645 N

Questions 43 and 44 pertain to the situation described below:

FN P = 160 N
A force P pulls on a crate of mass m that is in
contact with a rough surface. The figure
shows the magnitudes and directions of the 60 o
forces that act on the crate in this situation. W
represents the weight of the crate. FN f = 80 N
W = 196 N
represents the normal force on the crate, and f
represents the frictional force.
‡ 43. Which statement best describes the motion of the crate?
(a) The crate must be at rest.
(b) The crate must be moving with constant velocity.
(c) The crate must be moving with constant acceleration.
(d) The crate may be either at rest or moving with constant velocity.
(e) The crate may be either at rest or moving with constant acceleration.

‡ 44. What is the magnitude of FN, the normal force on the crate?
(a) 57 N (c) 160 N (e) 230 N
(b) 80 N (d) 196 N

„ 45. A 10-kg block is set moving with an initial speed of 6 m/s on a rough horizontal surface. If the
force of friction is 20 N, approximately how far does the block travel before it stops?
(a) 1.5 m (c) 6 m (e) 18 m
(b) 3 m (d) 9 m
44 Chapter 4 Forces and Newton‘s Laws of Motion

„ 46. The wheels of an automobile are locked as it slides to a stop from an initial speed of 30.0 m/s. If
the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.600 and the road is horizontal, approximately how long does
it take the car to stop?
(a) 4.22 s (c) 8.75 s (e) 15.3 s
(b) 5.10 s (d) 10.4 s

„ 47. A 250-N force is directed horizontally as shown to push a

29-kg box up an inclined plane at a constant speed.
Determine the magnitude of the normal force, FN, and the
coefficient of kinetic friction, µk. 27°
FN µk
(a) 330 N 0.31
(b) 310 N 0.33
(c) 250 N 0.27
(d) 290 N 0.30
(e) 370 N 0.26

Questions 48 through 50 pertain to the situation described below:

Two blocks rest on a horizontal frictionless

surface as shown. The surface between the top 5 kg
and bottom blocks is roughened so that there is 30 N
no slipping between the two blocks. A 30-N 10 kg
force is applied to the bottom block as
suggested in the figure.

… 48. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the "two block" system?
(a) 1 m/s2 (c) 3 m/s2 (e) 15 m/s2
(b) 2 m/s 2 (d) 6 m/s2

„ 49. What is the magnitude of the force of static friction between the top and bottom blocks?
(a) zero newtons (c) 20 N (e) 30 N
(b) 10 N (d) 25 N

‡ 50. What is the minimum coefficient of static friction necessary to keep the top block from slipping
on the bottom block?
(a) 0.05 (c) 0.20 (e) 0.40
(b) 0.10 (d) 0.30

‡ 51. Note the following situations:

F

F F M
θ θ
M M
θ

Case 1 Case 2 Case 3

In which case will the magnitude of the normal force on the block be equal to (Mg + F sin θ)?
(a) case 1 only (c) both cases 1 and 2 (e) cases 1, 2, and 3
(b) case 2 only (d) both cases 2 and 3
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 45

Questions 52 and 53 pertain to the situation described below:

FN
A block is pulled along a rough level surface
at constant speed by the force P. The figure
shows the free-body diagram for the block. P

FN represents the normal force on the block; f

and f represents the force of kinetic friction.
mg
… 52. What is the magnitude of FN?
(a) 2mg (c) f (e) This cannot be determined
(b) P (d) mg from the information given.

‡ 53. If the coefficient of kinetic friction, µk, between the block and the surface is 0.30 and the magnitude of
the frictional force is 80.0 N, what is the weight of the block?
(a) 1.6 N (c) 160 N (e) 410 N
(b) 4.0 N (d) 270 N

‡ 54. Two identical blocks are pulled along a rough surface

as suggested in the figure. Which one of the following
statements is false?
(a) The coefficient of kinetic friction is the same in
each case.
(b) A force of the same magnitude is needed to keep
each block moving.
(c) A force of the same magnitude was required to start each block moving.
(d) The normal force exerted on the blocks by the surface is the same for both blocks.
(e) The magnitude of the force of kinetic friction is greater for the block on the right.

„ 55. A crate rests on the flatbed of a truck that is initially traveling at 15 m/s on a level road. The
driver applies the brakes and the truck is brought to a halt in a distance of 38 m. If the
deceleration of the truck is constant, what is the minimum coefficient of friction between the crate
and the truck that is required to keep the crate from sliding?
(a) 0.20 (c) 0.39 (e) This cannot be determined without
(b) 0.30 (d) 0.59 knowing the mass of the crate.

Questions 56 and 57 pertain to the statement below:

A 2.0-N force acts horizontally on a 10-N block that is initially at rest on a horizontal surface.
The coefficient of static friction between the block and the surface is 0.50.

‡ 56. What is the magnitude of the frictional force that acts on the block?
(a) 0 N (c) 5 N (e) 10 N
(b) 2 N (d) 8 N

… 57. Suppose that the block now moves across the surface with constant speed under the action of
a horizontal 3.0-N force. Which statement concerning this situation is not true?
(a) The block is not accelerated.
(b) The net force on the block is zero newtons.
(c) The frictional force on the block has magnitude 3.0 N.
(d) The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the surface is 0.30.
(e) The direction of the total force that the surface exerts on the block is vertically upward.
46 Chapter 4 Forces and Newton‘s Laws of Motion

‡ 58. A 2.0-N rock slides on a frictionless inclined plane.

Which one of the following statements is true θ
concerning the normal force that the plane exerts on the
rock?
(a) The normal force is zero newtons.
(b) The normal force is 2.0 N.
(c) The normal force is less than 2.0 N, but greater than zero newtons.
(d) The normal force is greater than 2.0 N.
(e) The normal force increases as the angle of inclination, θ, is increased.

‡ 59. A boy pulls a sled of mass 5.0 kg with a rope that makes a 60.0° angle with respect to the
horizontal surface of a frozen pond. The boy pulls on the rope with a force of 10.0 N; and the sled
moves with constant velocity. What is the coefficient of friction between the sled and the ice?
(a) 0.09 (c) 0.18 (e) 0.24
(b) 0.12 (d) 0.06

‡ 60. In an experiment with a block of wood on an inclined plane, with dimensions shown in the figure,
the following observations are made:
(1) If the block is placed on the inclined plane,
it remains there at rest.
1.0 m
(2) If the block is given a small push, it will
accelerate toward the bottom of the incline
without any further pushing. 4.0 m
Which is the best conclusion that can be drawn from these observations?
(a) The coefficient of kinetic friction must be negative.
(b) Both coefficients of friction must be less than 0.25.
(c) Both coefficients of friction must be greater than 0.25.
(d) The coefficient of static friction must be less than the coefficient of kinetic friction.
(e) The coefficient of static friction is greater than 0.25 while the coefficient of kinetic friction is
less than 0.25.

Section 4.10 The Tension Force

Section 4.11 Equilibrium Applications of Newton’s Laws of Motion
… 61. A rock is suspended from a string and moves downward at constant speed. Which statement is true
concerning the tension in the string if air resistance is ignored?
(a) The tension is zero newtons.
(b) The tension points downward.
(c) The tension is equal to the weight of the rock.
(d) The tension is less than the weight of the rock.
(e) The tension is greater than the weight of the rock.

‡ 62. A rock is suspended from a string; and it moves downward at constant speed. Which one of the
following statements is true concerning the tension in the string if air resistance is not ignored?
(a) The tension is zero newtons.
(b) The tension points downward.
(c) The tension is equal to the weight of the rock.
(d) The tension is less than the weight of the rock.
(e) The tension is greater than the weight of the rock.
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 47

‡ 63. A rock is suspended from a string; and it accelerates downward. Which one of the following
statements concerning the tension in the string is true?
(a) The tension points downward.
(b) The tension is less than the weight of the rock.
(c) The tension is equal to the weight of the rock.
(d) The tension is greater than the weight of the rock.
(e) The tension is independent of the magnitude of the rock's acceleration.

‡ 64. A rock is suspended from a string; and it accelerates upward. Which statement is true concerning
the tension in the string?
(a) The tension points downward.
(b) The tension is less than the weight of the rock.
(c) The tension is equal to the weight of the rock.
(d) The tension is greater than the weight of the rock.
(e) The tension is independent of the magnitude of the rock's acceleration.

‡ 65. In a tug-of-war, each man on a 5-man team pulls with an average force of 500 N. What is the
tension in the center of the rope?
(a) zero newtons (c) 500 N (e) 5000 N
(b) 100 N (d) 2500 N

‡ 66. Under what condition(s) will an object be in equilibrium?

(a) If the object is either at rest or moving with constant velocity, it is in equilibrium.
(b) If the object is either moving with constant velocity or with constant acceleration, it is in
equilibrium.
(c) Only if the object is at rest can it be in equilibrium.
(d) Only if the object is moving with constant velocity can it be in equilibrium.
(e) Only if the object is moving with constant acceleration can it be in equilibrium.

‡ 67. A 4-kg block is connected by means of a massless rope to a 2-kg

block as shown in the figure. Complete the following statement: If 4 kg
the 4-kg block is to begin sliding, the coefficient of static friction
between the 4-kg block and the surface must be
(a) less than zero.
2 kg
(b) greater than 2.
(c) greater than 1, but less than 2.
(d) greater than 0.5, but less than 1.
(e) less than 0.5, but greater than zero.

… 68. A small plane climbs with a constant velocity of 250 m/s at an angle of 28° with respect to the
horizontal. Which statement is true concerning the magnitude of the net force on the plane?
(a) It is equal to zero newtons.
(b) It is equal to the weight of the plane.
(c) It is equal to the magnitude of the force of air resistance.
(d) It is less than the weight of the plane but greater than zero newtons.
(e) It is equal to the component of the weight of the plane in the direction of motion.

‡ 69. A muscle builder holds the ends of a massless θ θ

rope. At the center of the rope, a 15-kg ball is
hung as shown. What is the tension in the
rope if the angle θ in the drawing is 4.5°?
(a) 1900 N (c) 470 N (e) 150 N
(b) 940 N (d) 230 N
48 Chapter 4 Forces and Newton‘s Laws of Motion

‡ 70. A block of mass M is hung by ropes as shown. The system is

in equilibrium. The point O represents the knot, the junction
of the three ropes. Which of the following statements is true
F2 F1
concerning the magnitudes of the three forces in equilibrium?
(a) F1 = F2 = F3 30° O 30°
(b) F2 = 2F3
(c) F2 < F3 F3
F3 M
(d) F1 = F2 =
2
(e) F1 > F3

‡ 71. A 20-kg crate is suspended from a fixed beam by two vertical ropes. What is the approximate
tension in each rope?
(a) 10 N (c) 100 N (e) 390 N
(b) 40 N (d) 200 N

Questions 72 through 74 pertain to the situation described below:

T
A block of mass M is held motionless on a frictionless
M
inclined plane by means of a string attached to a vertical
wall as shown in the drawing.
θ
‡ 72. What is the magnitude of the tension T in the string?
(a) zero newtons (c) Mg cos θ (e) Mg tan θ
(b) Mg (d) Mg sin θ

‡ 73. If the string breaks, what is the magnitude of the acceleration of the block as it slides down the
inclined plane?
(a) zero m/s2 (c) g cos θ (e) g tan θ
(b) g (d) g sin θ

… 74. Assume the plane is not frictionless and the string breaks, what minimum value of the coefficient of
static friction, µs, would prevent the block from sliding down the inclined plane?
(a) zero (c) cos θ (e) tan θ
(b) 1 (d) sin θ

‡ 75. Two sleds are hooked together in tandem as shown in the figure. The front sled is twice as
massive as the rear sled.
m 2m
T F

The sleds are pulled along a frictionless surface by an applied force F. The tension in the rope
between the sleds is T. Determine the ratio of the magnitudes of the two forces, TF .
(a) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (e) 2.0
(b) 0.33 (d) 0.67
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 49

‡ 76. A block of weight W is suspended by a string of fixed length. The ends of the string are held at
various positions as shown in the figures below. In which case, if any, is the magnitude of the
tension along the string the largest?

(a)

(c
(b) (d)

(e) It will be the same in all four cases, since the string must support the entire weight of the block.

Questions 77 and 78 pertain to the system described below:

A system of two cables supports a 150-N ball as shown. 30°

‡ 77. What is the tension in the right-hand cable?

150 N
(a) 87 N (d) 260 N
(b) 150 N (e) 300 N
(c) 170 N

‡ 78. What is the tension in the horizontal cable?

(a) 87 N (c) 170 N (e) 300 N
(b) 150 N (d) 260 N

Section 4.12 Nonequilibrium Applications of Newton’s Laws of Motion

… 79. A woman stands on a bathroom scale in an elevator that is not moving. The scale reads 500 N.
The elevator then moves downward at a constant velocity of 5 m/s. What does the scale read
while the elevator descends with constant velocity?
(a) 100 N (c) 500 N (e) 750 N
(b) 250 N (d) 600 N

‡ 80. A rope connects boat A to boat B. Boat A starts from rest and accelerates to a speed of 9.5 m/s in
a time t = 47 s. The mass of boat B is 540 kg. Assuming a constant frictional force of 230 N acts
on boat B, what is the magnitude of the tension in the rope that connects the boats during the time
that boat A is accelerating?
(a) 340 N (c) 230 N (e) 160 N
(b) 1270 N (d) 860 N

„ 81. A certain crane can provide a maximum lifting force of 25 000 N. It hoists a 2000-kg load starting at
ground level by applying the maximum force for a 2-second interval; then, it applies just sufficient
force to keep the load moving upward at constant speed. Approximately how long does it take to raise
the load from ground level to a height of 30 m?
(a) 2 s (c) 7 s (e) 10 s
(b) 5 s (d) 9 s
50 Chapter 4 Forces and Newton‘s Laws of Motion

150

„ 82. A 10-kg block is pushed against a vertical wall by a horizontal 100 N

force of 100 N as shown in the figure. The coefficient of static
friction, µs, between the block and the wall is 0.60; and the 10 kg
coefficient of kinetic friction, µk, is 0.40. Which one of the
following statements is true if the block is initially at rest?
(a) The total force exerted on the block by the wall is directed horizontally.
(b) The block slides down the wall with an acceleration of magnitude 3.8 m/s2.
(c) The block will slide down the wall because the force of static friction can be no larger than 60 N.
(d) The block will remain at rest because the coefficient of static friction is greater than the coefficient
of kinetic friction.
(e) The block will slide down the wall because the coefficient of kinetic friction is less than the
coefficient of static friction.

„ 83. A 20.0-kg package is dropped from a high tower in still air and is "tracked" by a radar system. When
the package is 25 m above the ground, the radar tracking indicates that its acceleration is 7.0 m/s2.
Determine the force of air resistance on the package.
(a) 56 N (c) 340 N (e) 140 N
(b) 28 N (d) 196 N

Questions 84 and 85 pertain to the situation described below:

A 10-kg block is connected to a 40-kg block as shown in the figure. The surface on that the
blocks slide is frictionless. A force of 50 N pulls the blocks to the right.

T 50 N
10 kg 40 kg

… 84. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the 40-kg block?

(a) 0.5 m/s2 (c) 2 m/s2 (e) 5 m/s2
2
(b) 1 m/s (d) 4 m/s2

‡ 85. What is the magnitude of the tension T in the rope that connects the two blocks?
(a) 0 N (c) 20 N (e) 50 N
(b) 10 N (d) 40 N

‡ 86. A 71-kg man stands on a bathroom scale in an elevator. What does the scale read if the elevator is
ascending with an acceleration of 3.0 m/s2?
(a) 140 N (c) 690 N (e) 910 N
(b) 480 N (d) 830 N

‡ 87. A 4-kg block and a 2-kg block can move on the +12 N
horizontal frictionless surface. The blocks are 4 kg
accelerated by a +12-N force that pushes the larger 2 kg
block against the smaller one. Determine the force that
the 2-kg block exerts on the 4-kg block.
(a) −4 N (c) 0 N (e) +8 N
(b) −12 N (d) +4 N
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 51

… 88. A man stands on a spring scale in a moving elevator and notices that the scale reading is 20% larger
than when he weighs himself in his bathroom. Which statement can not be true?
(a) The tension in the supporting cable must exceed the weight of the elevator and its contents.
(b) The speed of the elevator changes by equal amounts in equal times.
(c) The elevator could be moving upward with increasing speed.
(d) The elevator could be moving downward with decreasing speed.
(e) The elevator could be moving upward at constant speed.

Additional Problems
Questions 89 through 91 pertain to the situation described below:

A block is pulled at constant speed along a rough level surface by a rope that makes an angle of
30° with respect to the horizontal. The applied force along the rope is P. The force of kinetic
friction between the block and the surface is 10 N.
P
30°

… 89. Which one of the following expressions gives the magnitude of the force P in SI units?
(a) 10/(cos 30°) (c) 10(cos 30°) (e) tan 30°
(b) 10/(sin 30°) (d) 10(sin 30°)

„ 90. Complete the following statement: The magnitude of the normal force could be reduced by
(a) increasing the speed of the block. (d) decreasing the angle made by the rope.
(b) decreasing the coefficient of kinetic friction. (e) increasing the angle made by the rope.
(c) decreasing the velocity of the block.

‡ 91. Which one of the following actions will increase the frictional force on the block?
(a) increasing the contact surface area (d) decreasing the speed of the block
(b) decreasing the contact surface area (e) increasing the angle made by the rope
(c) increasing the weight of the block

Questions 92through 94 pertain to the situation described below:

T

A rope holds a 10-kg rock at rest on a

frictionless inclined plane as shown. 30°

‡ 92. Determine the tension in the rope.

(a) 9.8 N (c) 49 N (e) 98 N
(b) 20 N (d) 85 N

… 93. Which one of the following statements concerning the force exerted on the plane by the rock is
true?
(a) It is 0 N. (d) It is less than 98 N, but greater than zero newtons.
(b) It is 98 N. (e) It increases as the angle of inclination is increased.
(c) It is greater than 98 N.
52 Chapter 4 Forces and Newton‘s Laws of Motion

‡ 94. Determine the magnitude of the acceleration of the rock down the inclined plane if the rope
breaks?
(a) zero m/s2 (c) 5.7 m/s2 (e) 9.8 m/s2
2 2
(b) 4.9 m/s (d) 8.5 m/s

… 95. Three spring scales are attached along a straight line as shown. The scale on the left is attached to
a wall. A force of 15 N is applied to the scale at the right.

15 N

What is the reading on the middle scale?

(a) 0 N (c) 10 N (e) 15 N
(b) 45 N (d) 5 N

„ 96. A massless horizontal strut is attached to the wall at the

hinge O. Which one of the following phrases best
describes the force that the hinge pin applies to the
10 feet
strut if the weight of the cables is also neglected?
(a) 50 lb, to the right
(b) 100 lb, straight up O
(c) 200 lb, to the right
5 feet
(d) 244 lb, 27° above the strut
(e) 56 lb, to the left
100 lb

‡ 97. At a playground, a child slides down a slide that makes a 42° angle with the horizontal direction.
The coefficient of kinetic friction for the child sliding on the slide is 0.20. What is the magnitude
of her acceleration during her sliding?
(a) 4.6 m/s2 (c) 5.4 m/s2 (e) 9.8 m/s2
2 2
(b) 5.1 m/s (d) 6.3 m/s

Questions 98 and 99 pertain to the situation described below:

Two 5-N boxes are attached to opposite ends of a spring scale and suspended from pulleys as
shown.

5N 5N

‡ 98. What is the reading on the scale?

(a) 0 N (c) 5 N (e) 25 N
(b) 2.5 N (d) 10 N
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 53

‡ 99. Suppose that the system were placed in an elevator that accelerated downward at 2 m/s2.
What would the scale read?
(a) 6 N (c) 0 N (e) 2 N
(b) 8 N (d) 4 N

‡ 100. A spring scale is fastened to the ceiling of

a railway car. When a 1.0-kg block is
hung from the scale, it reads 12 N and is θ
oriented as shown in the figure.
What is the approximate acceleration of
the car as measured by an observer at rest
on the ground outside of the car?
(a) 7 m/s2 to the right
(b) 7 m/s2 to the left
(c) 12 m/s2 to the right
(d) 12 m/s2 to the left
(e) It is impossible to calculate since the angle θ has not been given.

Questions 101 through 103 pertain to the following situation:

A block is at rest on a rough inclined plane and is

connected to an object with the same mass as shown.
The rope may be considered massless; and the pulley
may be considered frictionless. The coefficient of m m
static friction between the block and the plane is µs;
and the coefficient of kinetic friction is µk. θ

„ 101. What is the magnitude of the static frictional force acting on the block?
(a) mg sin θ (c) mg (1 − sin θ) (e) mg
(b) mg cos θ (d) mg (1 − cos θ)

„ 102. If the rope were cut between the block and the pulley, what would be the magnitude of the
acceleration of the block down the plane?
(a) g (c) g − µk cos θ (e) g(sin θ − µk cos θ)
(b) g − µk sin θ (d) g(tan θ − µk sin θ)

„ 103. If the mass of the suspended object is doubled, what will be the acceleration of the block up the
plane?
(a) g(2 − µk sin θ) (c) g(2tan θ − µk sin θ) (e) g(2cos θ − µk sin θ)
(b) 2g(µk sin θ − cos θ) (d) g(2 − sin θ − µk cos θ)
 chapter DYNAMICS OF
UNIFORM CIRCULAR MOTION

Section 5.1 Uniform Circular Motion

Section 5.2 Centripetal Acceleration
ˆ 1. A ball moves with a constant speed of 4 m/s around a circle of radius 0.25 m. What is the period of
the motion?
(a) 0.1 s (c) 0.7 s (e) 2 s
(b) 0.4 s (d) 1 s

ˆ 2. The second hand on a watch has a length of 4.50 mm and makes one revolution in 60.00 s. What is
the speed of the end of the second hand as it moves in uniform circular motion?
(a) 9.42 × 10−4 m/s (c) 5.34 × 10−3 m/s (e) 2.36 × 10−5 m/s
(b) 2.67 × 10−3 m/s (d) 4.71 × 10−4 m/s

ˆ 3. Approximately one billion years ago, the Moon orbited the Earth much closer than it does today.
The radius of the orbit was only 24 400 km. Today, the radius is 385 000 km. The orbital period
was only 23 400 s. The present period is 2.36 × 106 s. Assume that the orbit of the Moon is
circular. Calculate the ratio of the speed of the Moon in its ancient orbit to the speed that it has
today.
(a) 15.8 (c) 10.2 (e) 6.39
(b) 12.8 (d) 7.15

… 4. A racecar is traveling at constant speed around a circular track. What happens to the centripetal
acceleration of the car if the speed is doubled?
(a) The centripetal acceleration remains the same.
(b) The centripetal acceleration increases by a factor of 2.
(c) The centripetal acceleration increases by a factor of 4.
(d) The centripetal acceleration is decreased by a factor of one-half.
(e) The centripetal acceleration is decreased by a factor of one-fourth

ˆ 5. A ball is whirled on the end of a string in a horizontal circle of radius R at constant speed v.
Complete the following statement: The centripetal acceleration of the ball can be increased by a
factor of 4 by
(a) keeping the speed fixed and increasing the radius by a factor of 4.
(b) keeping the radius fixed and increasing the speed by a factor of 4.
(c) keeping the radius fixed and increasing the period by a factor of 4.
(d) keeping the radius fixed and decreasing the period by a factor of 4.
(e) keeping the speed fixed and decreasing the radius by a factor of 4.

„ 6. A rock is whirled on the end of a string in a horizontal circle of radius R with a constant period T.
If the radius of the circle is reduced to R/2, while the period remains T, what happens to the
centripetal acceleration of the rock?
(a) The centripetal acceleration remains the same.
(b) The centripetal acceleration increases by a factor of 2.
(c) The centripetal acceleration increases by a factor of 4.
(d) The centripetal acceleration decreases by a factor of 2.
(e) The centripetal acceleration decreases by a factor of 4.
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 55

ˆ 7. A car traveling at 20 m/s rounds a curve so that its centripetal acceleration is 5 m/s2.
What is the radius of the curve?
(a) 4 m (c) 80 m (e) 640 m
(b) 8 m (d) 160 m

ˆ 8. A satellite is placed in a circular orbit to observe the surface of Mars from an altitude of 144 km.
The equatorial radius of Mars is 3397 km. If the speed of the satellite is 3480 m/s, what is the
magnitude of the centripetal acceleration of the satellite?
(a) 2.17 m/s2 (c) 2.99 m/s2 (e) 4.05 m/s2
2 2
(b) 2.60 m/s (d) 3.42 m/s

Questions 9 and 10 pertain to the following situation:

One of the world’s largest Ferris wheels, the Cosmo Clock 21 with a radius of 50.0 m is located in
Yokohama City, Japan. Each of the sixty gondolas on the wheel takes 1.00 minute to complete
one revolution when it is running at full speed. Note: Ignore gravitational effects.

ˆ 9. What is the uniform speed of a gondola when the Ferris wheel is running at full speed?
(a) 314 m/s (c) 10.5 m/s (e) 5.24 m/s
(b) 1.67 m/s (d) 18.6 m/s

ˆ 10. What is the centripetal acceleration of the gondola when the Ferris wheel is running at full speed?
(a) 0.548 m/s2 (c) 2.21 m/s2 (e) 6.28 m/s2
2 2
(b) 6.91 m/s (d) 0.732 m/s

Section 5.3 Centripetal Force

ˆ 11. A boy is whirling a stone around his head by means of a string. The string makes one complete
revolution every second; and the tension in the string is FT. The boy then speeds up the stone, keeping
the radius of the circle unchanged, so that the string makes two complete revolutions every second.
What happens to the tension in the sting?
(a) The tension is unchanged.
(b) The tension reduces to half of its original value.
(c) The tension increases to twice its original value.
(d) The tension increases to four times its original value.
(e) The tension reduces to one-fourth of its original value.

„ 12. A 0.25-kg ball attached to a string is rotating in a horizontal circle of radius 0.5 m. If the ball
revolves twice every second, what is the tension in the string?
(a) 2 N (c) 7 N (e) 20 N
(b) 5 N (d) 10 N

ˆ 13. A certain string just breaks when it is under 25 N of tension. A boy uses this string to whirl a 2-kg
stone in a horizontal circle of radius 3 m. The boy continuously increases the speed of the stone.
At approximately what speed will the string break?
(a) 6 m/s (c) 12 m/s (e) 18 m/s
(b) 9 m/s (d) 15 m/s
56 Chapter 5 Dynamics of Uniform Circular Motion

„ 14. Sara puts a box into the trunk of her car. Later, she drives around an unbanked curve that has a
radius of 48 m. The speed of the car on the curve is 16 m/s, but the box remains stationary
relative to the floor of the trunk. Determine the minimum coefficient of static friction for the box
on the floor of the trunk.
(a) 0.42 (d) 0.33
(b) 0.54 (e) This cannot be determined without knowing the mass of
(c) 0.17 the box.

„ 15. In an amusement park ride, a small child stands against the wall of a cylindrical room that is then made
to rotate. The floor drops downward and the child remains pinned against the wall. If the radius of the
device is 2.15 m and the relevant coefficient of friction between the child and the wall is 0.400, with
what minimum speed is the child moving if he is to remain pinned against the wall?
(a) 7.26 m/s (c) 12.1 m/s (e) 9.80 m/s
(b) 3.93 m/s (d) 5.18 m/s

Section 5.4 Banked Curves

… 16. Which force is responsible for holding a car in a frictionless banked curve?
(a) the reaction force to the car's weight
(b) the vertical component of the car's weight
(c) the vertical component of the normal force
(d) the horizontal component of the car's weight
(e) the horizontal component of the normal force

… 17. Which force is responsible for holding a car in an unbanked curve?

(a) the car's weight
(b) the force of friction
(c) the reaction force to the car's weight
(d) the vertical component of the normal force
(e) the horizontal component of the normal force

ˆ 18. Complete the following statement: The maximum speed at which a car can safely negotiate an
unbanked curve depends on all of the following factors except
(a) the diameter of the curve.
(b) the acceleration due to gravity.
(c) the coefficient of static friction between the road and the tires.
(d) the coefficient of kinetic friction between the road and the tires.
(e) the ratio of the static frictional force between the road and the tires and the normal force
exerted on the car.

… 19. Complete the following statement: The maximum speed at which a car can safely negotiate a
frictionless banked curve depends on all of the following except
(a) the mass of the car.
(b) the angle of banking.
(c) the diameter of the curve.
(d) the radius of the curve.
(e) the acceleration due to gravity.

ˆ 20. Determine the minimum angle at which a roadbed should be banked so that a car traveling at 20.0 m/s
can safely negotiate the curve if the radius of the curve is 2.00 × 102 m.
(a) 0.200° (c) 11.5° (e) 78.2°
(b) 0.581° (d) 19.6°
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 57

ˆ 21. A car enters a horizontal, curved roadbed of radius 50 m. The coefficient of static friction between
the tires and the roadbed is 0.20. What is the maximum speed with which the car can safely negotiate
the unbanked curve?
(a) 5 m/s (c) 20 m/s (e) 100 m/s
(b) 10 m/s (d) 40 m/s

ˆ 22. An indoor track is to be designed such that each end is a banked semi-circle with a radius of 24 m.
What should the banking angle be for a person running at speed v = 6.0 m/s?
(a) 8.7° (c) 14° (e) 45°
(b) 11° (d) 22°

Questions 23 through 25 pertain to the statement below:

A 1000-kg Jeep travels along a straight A 10 m/s B

500-m portion of highway (from A to B)
at a constant speed of 10 m/s. At B, the 50 m
Jeep encounters an unbanked curve of N C
radius 50 m. The Jeep follows the road
from B to C traveling at a constant speed W E
of 10 m/s while the direction of the Jeep S
changes from east to south.

… 23. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the Jeep as it travels from A to B?
(a) 2 m/s2 (c) 10 m/s2 (e) zero m/s2
2 2
(b) 5 m/s (d) 20 m/s

ˆ 24. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the Jeep as it travels from B to C?
(a) 2 m/s2 (c) 10 m/s2 (e) zero m/s2
2 2
(b) 5 m/s (d) 20 m/s

ˆ 25. What is the magnitude of the frictional force between the tires and the road as the Jeep negotiates
the curve from B to C?
(a) 20 000 N (c) 5000 N (e) 1000 N
(b) 10 000 N (d) 2000 N

Section 5.5 Satellites in Circular Orbit

Section 5.6 Apparent Weightlessness and Artificial Gravity
… 26. The earth exerts the necessary centripetal force on an orbiting satellite to keep it moving in a circle at
constant speed. Which one of the following statements best explains why the speed of the satellite
does not change although there is a net force exerted on it?
(a) The satellite is in equilibrium.
(b) The acceleration of the satellite is zero m/s2.
(c) The centripetal force has magnitude mv2/r.
(d) The centripetal force is canceled by the reaction force.
(e) The centripetal force is always perpendicular to the velocity.
58 Chapter 5 Dynamics of Uniform Circular Motion

ˆ 27. Callisto and Io are two of Jupiter's satellites. The distance from Callisto to the center of Jupiter is
approximately 4.5 times farther than the distance from Io to the center of Jupiter. How does
Callisto's orbital period, TC, compare to that of Io, TI?
(a) TC = 4.5 TI (c) TC = 9.5 TI (e) TC = 2.7 TI
(b) TC = 21 TI (d) TC = 0.2 TI

ˆ 28. Consider a hypothetical planet in our solar system whose average distance from the Sun is about
four times that of Earth. Determine the orbital period for this hypothetical planet.
(a) 0.25 year (c) 4 years (e) 16 years
(b) 2.5 years (d) 8 years

„ 29. Consider a satellite in a circular orbit around the Earth. If it were at an altitude equal to twice the
radius of the Earth, 2RE, how would its speed v relate to the Earth's radius RE, and the magnitude
g of the acceleration due to gravity on the Earth's surface?
gR gRE gR
(a) v 2 = E (c) v 2 = (e) v 2 = E
9 3 2
gR
(b) v 2 = 2gRE (d) v 2 = E
4

„ 30. A satellite is placed in equatorial orbit above Mars, which has a radius of 3397 km and a mass
MM = 6.40 × 1023 kg. The mission of the satellite is to observe the Martian climate from an
altitude of 488 km. What is the orbital period of the satellite?
(a) 9.18 × 102 s (c) 7.36 × 103 s (e) 7.27 × 1012 s
(b) 3.62 × 10 s 3
(d) 1.08 × 10 s
5

„ 31. A satellite in orbit around the earth has a period of one hour. An identical satellite is placed in an
orbit having a radius that is nine times larger than that of the first satellite. What is the period of
the second satellite?
(a) 0.04 h (c) 4 h (e) 27 h
(b) 3 h (d) 9 h

ˆ 32. The orbital radius of Saturn about the Sun is about 10 times that of Earth. Complete the following
statement: The period of Saturn is about
(a) 10 yr. (c) 40 yr. (e) 160 yr.
(b) 30 yr. (d) 90 yr.

„ 33. An artificial satellite in a circular orbit around the Sun has a period of 8 years. Determine the
ratio of the satellite's orbital radius about the Sun to the earth's orbital radius about the Sun.
Assume that the earth's orbit about the Sun is circular.
(a) 1 (c) 4 (e) 23
(b) 2 (d) 8

ˆ 34. The mass and radius of the moon are 7.4 × 1022 kg and 1.7 × 106 m, respectively. What is the
weight of a 1.0-kg object on the surface of the moon?
(a) 1.0 N (c) 3.7 N (e) 9.8 N
(b) 1.7 N (d) 8.8 N

„ 35. An object weighs 10 N on the earth's surface. What is the weight of the object on a planet that has
one tenth the earth's mass and one half the earth's radius?
(a) 4 N (c) 1 N (e) 20 N
(b) 2 N (d) 10 N
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 59

Questions 36 through 38 pertain to the situation described below:

A 2400-kg satellite is in a circular orbit around a planet.

The satellite travels with a constant speed of 6.67 × 103 m/s.
satellite
The radius of the circular orbit is 8.92 × 10 m.
6
planet

… 36. At the instant shown in the figure, which arrow

indicates the direction of the net force on the satellite?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

ˆ 37. What is the acceleration of the satellite?

(a) 2.5 m/s2 (c) 9.8 m/s2 (e) zero m/s2
2
(b) 21 m/s (d) 5.0 m/s2

ˆ 38. Determine the magnitude of the gravitational force exerted on the satellite by the planet.
(a) 1.2 × 104 N (d) 7.5 × 10−4 N
(b) 2.4 × 104 N (e) This cannot be determined since the mass
(c) 5.0 × 10−3 N and radius of the planet are not specified.

„ 39. What is the acceleration due to gravity at an altitude of 1.00 × 106 m above the earth's surface?
Note: the radius of the earth is 6.38 × 106 m.
(a) 3.99 m/s2 (c) 5.00 m/s2 (e) 7.32 m/s2
2 2
(b) 9.80 m/s (d) 6.77 m/s

„ 40. The radius of the earth is 6.38 × 106 m and its mass is 5.98 × 1024 kg. What is the acceleration due
to gravity at a height of 1.28 × 107 m above the earth's surface?
(a) 1.08 m/s2 (c) 9.80 m/s2 (e) 0.114 m/s2
2 2
(b) 2.15 m/s (d) 0.659 m/s

… 41. A spaceship is in orbit around the earth at an altitude of 12 000 miles. Which one of the following
statements best explains why the astronauts experience “weightlessness?”
(a) The centripetal force of the earth on the astronaut in orbit is zero newtons.
(b) The pull of the earth on the spaceship is canceled by the pull of the other planets.
(c) The spaceship is in free fall and its floor cannot press upwards on the astronauts.
(d) The force of gravity decreases as the inverse square of the distance from the earth's center.
(e) The force of the earth on the spaceship and the force of the spaceship on the earth cancel
because they are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction.

„ 42. A space station is designed in the shape of a large, hollow donut that is uniformly rotating. The
outer radius of the station is 350 m. With what period must the station rotate so that a person
sitting on the outer wall experiences “artificial gravity,” i.e. an acceleration of 9.8 m/s2?
(a) 230 s (c) 110 s (e) 38 s
(b) 170 s (d) 76 s
60 Chapter 5 Dynamics of Uniform Circular Motion

B
„ 43. The radius of the earth is 6400 km. An
incoming meteorite approaches the earth
along the trajectory shown. The point C in C
the figure is 6400 km above the earth’s 30°
surface. The point A is located at the
earth’s center. At point C, what A
acceleration would the meteorite
experience due to the earth’s gravity?

(a) 9.8 m/s2 toward A (c) 2.5 m/s2 toward B (e) 5.0 m/s2 toward A
(b) 2.5 m/s2 toward A (d) 5.0 m/s2 toward B

*Section 5.7 Vertical Circular Motion

ˆ 44. A plane is traveling at 200 m/s following the arc of a
200 m/s
vertical circle of radius R. At the top of its path, the
passengers experience “weightlessness.” To one significant
figure, what is the value of R?
R
(a) 200 m (d) 4000 m
(b) 1000 m (e) 40 000 m
(c) 2000 m

ˆ 45. A 25-kg box is sliding down an ice-covered hill. When it reaches

point A, the box is moving at 11 m/s. Point A is at the bottom of a
circular arc that has a radius R = 7.5 m. What is the magnitude of
the normal force on the box at Point A? R
(a) 250 N (d) 650 N
(b) 280 N (e) 900 N A
(c) 400 N

„ 46. A 0.75-kg ball is attached to a 1.0-m rope and whirled in a vertical circle. The rope will break
when the tension exceeds 450 N. What is the maximum speed the ball can have at the bottom of
the circle without breaking the rope?
(a) 24 m/s (c) 32 m/s (e) 38 m/s
(b) 12 m/s (d) 16 m/s

Questions 47 and 48 pertain to the situation described below:

A small car of mass M travels along a straight,

horizontal track. R

As suggested in the figure, the track then M

bends into a vertical circle of radius R.

ˆ 47. What is the minimum acceleration that the car must have at the top of the track if it is to remain in
contact with the track?
(a) 4.9 m/s2, downward (c) 9.8 m/s2, downward (e) 19.6 m/s2, upward
2 2
(b) 4.9 m/s , upward (d) 9.8 m/s , upward
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 61

„ 48. Which one of the following expressions determines the minimum speed that the car must have at
the top of the track if it is to remain in contact with the track?
(a) v = MgR (c) v2 = 2gR (e) v = gR
(b) v = 2gR (d) v2 = gR

Additional Problems
Questions 49 through 52 pertain to the situation described below:

A 1500-kg SUV travels at a constant speed of 22 m/s around a circular track that has a radius of 85 m.

… 49. Which statement is true concerning this SUV?

(a) The velocity of the SUV is changing.
(b) The SUV is characterized by constant velocity.
(c) The SUV is characterized by constant acceleration.
(d) The SUV has a velocity vector that points along the radius of the circle.
(e) The SUV has an acceleration vector that is tangent to the circle at all times.

ˆ 50. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the SUV?

(a) 5.7 m/s2 (c) 9.8 m/s2 (e) zero m/s2
2
(b) 0.26 m/s (d) 1.2 m/s2

ˆ 51. What is the average velocity of the SUV during one revolution?
(a) 8.0 m/s (c) 26 m/s (e) zero m/s
(b) 12 m/s (d) 44 m/s

ˆ 52. Determine the magnitude of the net force that acts on the SUV.
(a) 390 N (c) 8.5 × 103 N (e) zero newtons
(b) 1800 N (d) 1.5 × 104 N

ˆ 53. Jupiter has a mass that is roughly 320 times that of the Earth and a radius equal to 11 times that of
the Earth. What is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Jupiter?
(a) 2.7 m/s2 (c) 26 m/s2 (e) 260 m/s2
2 2
(b) 9.8 m/s (d) 87 m/s

Questions 54 through 56 pertain to the situation described below:

A rocket orbits a planet in a circular orbit at a constant speed as shown in the

drawing.

Note these arrows:

[1] [2] [3] [4] [5]

… 54. At the instant shown in the drawing, which arrow indicates the direction of the acceleration of the
rocket?
(a) 1 (c) 3 (e) 5
(b) 2 (d) 4
62 Chapter 5 Dynamics of Uniform Circular Motion

… 55. At the instant shown in the drawing, which arrow shows the direction of the reaction force exerted
on the planet by the rocket?
(a) 1 (c) 3 (e) 5
(b) 2 (d) 4

ˆ 56. Suppose that the radius of the circular path is r when the speed of the rocket is v and the
acceleration of the rocket has magnitude a. If the radius and speed are increased to 2r and 2v
respectively, what is the magnitude of the rocket's subsequent acceleration?
a
(a) (c) a (e) 8a
2
(b) 2a (d) 4a

ˆ 57. The record for the highest speed achieved in a laboratory for a uniformly rotating object was
2.01 × 103 m/s for a 0.15-m long carbon rod. What was the period of rotation of the rod?
(a) 7.4 × 10−5 s (c) 4.7 × 10−4 s (e) 1.3 × 10−3 s
−4 −3
(b) 3.1 × 10 s (d) 5.2 × 10 s

Questions 58 and 59 pertain to the following situation.

An airplane flying at 115 m/s due east makes a gradual turn following a circular path to fly south.
The turn takes 15 seconds to complete.

„ 58. What is the radius of the curve that the plane follows in making the turn?
(a) 280 m (c) 830 m (e) 1600 m
(b) 350 m (d) 1100 m

ˆ 59. What is the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration during the turn?
(a) zero m/s2 (c) 8.1 m/s2 (e) 12 m/s2
2 2
(b) 6.9 m/s (d) 9.8 m/s
 chapter F
WORK AND ENERGY

Section 6.1 Work Done by a Constant Force

Section 6.2 The Work-Energy Theorem and Kinetic Energy
ˆ 1. In which one of the following situations is zero net work done?
(a) A ball rolls down an inclined plane.
(b) A physics student stretches a spring.
(c) A projectile falls toward the surface of Earth.
(d) A box is pulled across a rough floor at constant velocity.
(e) A child pulls a wagon across a rough surface causing it to accelerate.

… 2. Work may be expressed using all of the following units except:

(a) N ⋅ m (c) erg (e) watt
(b) joule (d) ft ⋅ lb

ˆ 3. A concrete block is pulled 7.0 m across a frictionless surface

by means of a rope. The tension in the rope is 40 N; and the θ
net work done on the block is 247 J. What angle does the
rope make with the horizontal?
(a) 28° (c) 47° (e) 88°
(b) 41° (d) 62°

ˆ 4. Mike is cutting the grass using a human-powered lawn mower. He pushes the mower with a force
of 45 N directed at an angle of 41° below the horizontal direction. Calculate the work that Mike
does on the mower in pushing it 9.1 m across the yard.
(a) 510 J (c) 410 J (e) 310 J
(b) 460 J (d) 360 J

ˆ 5. A 5.00-kg block of ice is sliding across a frozen pond at 2.00 m/s. A 7.60-N force is applied in the
direction of motion. After the ice block slides 15.0 m, the force is removed. The work done by the
applied force is
(a) −114 J. (c) −735 J. (e) +19.7 J.
(b) +114 J. (d) +735 J.

ˆ 6. A force of magnitude 25 N directed at an angle of 37° above the horizontal moves a 10-kg crate along
a horizontal surface at constant velocity. How much work is done by this force in moving the crate a
distance of 15 m?
(a) zero joules (c) 40 J (e) 300 J
(b) 1.7 J (d) 98 J

F
„ 7. A constant force of 25 N is applied as shown to a 30°
block which undergoes a displacement of 7.5 m to s
the right along a frictionless surface while the
force acts. What is the work done by the force?
(a) zero joules (c) −94 J (e) −160 J
(b) +94 J (d) +160 J
64 Chapter 6 Work and Energy

ˆ 8. A 1.0-kg ball on the end of a string is whirled at a constant speed of 2.0 m/s in a horizontal circle of
radius 1.5 m. What is the work done by the centripetal force during one revolution?
(a) zero joules (c) 6.0 J (e) 33 J
(b) 2.7 J (d) 25 J

ˆ 9. Brenda carries an 8.0-kg suitcase as she walks 25 m along a horizontal walkway to her room at a
constant speed of 1.5 m/s. How much work does Brenda do in carrying her suitcase?
(a) zero joules (c) 200 J (e) 2000 J
(b) 40 J (d) 300 J

… 10 Which one of the following situations is an example of an object with a non-zero kinetic energy?
(a) a drum of diesel fuel on a parked truck (d) a car parked at the top of a hill
(b) a stationary pendulum (e) a boulder resting at the bottom of a cliff
(c) a satellite in geosynchronous orbit

ˆ 11. Which one of the following statements concerning kinetic energy is true?
(a) Kinetic energy can be measured in watts.
(b) Kinetic energy is always equal to the potential energy.
(c) Kinetic energy is always positive.
(d) Kinetic energy is a quantitative measure of inertia.
(e) Kinetic energy is directly proportional to velocity.

ˆ 12. Which one of the following has the largest kinetic energy?
(a) a raindrop falling
(b) a woman swimming
(c) a jet airplane flying at its maximum speed
(d) the earth moving in its orbit around the sun
(e) the space shuttle orbiting the Earth

… 13. In which one of the following situations will there be an increase in kinetic energy?
(a) A projectile approaches its maximum height.
(b) A child pushes a merry go round causing it to rotate faster.
(c) A box is pulled across a rough floor at constant speed.
(d) A satellite travels in a circular orbit around the earth at fixed altitude.
(e) A stone at the end of a string is whirled in a horizontal circle at constant speed.

… 14. A 1500-kg car travels at a constant speed of 22 m/s around a circular track that is 80 m across.
What is the kinetic energy of the car?
(a) zero joules (c) 3.3 × 104 J (e) 7.2 × 105 J
(b) 3.6 × 10 J
5
(d) 1.6 × 10 J
4

… 15. The kinetic energy of a car is 8 × 106 J as it travels along a horizontal road. How much work is
required to stop the car in 10 s?
(a) zero joules (c) 8 × 105 J (e) 8 × 107 J
(b) 8 × 10 J
4
(d) 8 × 10 J 6

ˆ 16. How much energy is dissipated in braking a 1000-kg car to a stop from an initial speed of 20 m/s?
(a) 20 000 J (c) 400 000 J (e) 10 000 J
(b) 200 000 J (d) 800 000 J
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 65

ˆ 17. The kinetic energy of an 1100-kg truck is 4.6 × 105 J. What is the speed of the truck?
(a) 25 m/s (c) 29 m/s (e) 21 m/s
(b) 33 m/s (d) 17 m/s

„ 18. A 10.0-g bullet traveling horizontally at 755 m/s strikes a stationary target and stops after penetrating
14.5 cm into the target. What is the average force of the target on the bullet?
(a) 1.97 × 104 N (c) 6.26 × 103 N (e) 3.93 × 104 N
(b) 2.07 × 10 N
5
(d) 3.13 × 10 N
4

„ 19. A car is traveling at 7.0 m/s when the driver applies the brakes. The car moves 1.5 m before it comes
to a complete stop. If the car had been moving at 14 m/s, how far would it have continued to move
after the brakes were applied? Assume the braking force is constant.
(a) 1.5 m (c) 4.5 m (e) 7.5 m
(b) 3.0 m (d) 6.0 m

ˆ 20. Use the work-energy theorem to find the force required to accelerate an electron
(m = 9.11 × 10−31 kg) from rest to a speed of 1.50 × 107 m/s in a distance of 0.0125 m.
(a) 8.20 × 10−15 N (c) 8.20 × 10−17 N (e) 3.56 × 10−19 N
−22 −14
(b) 5.47 × 10 N (d) 1.64 × 10 N

Section 6.3 Gravitational Potential Energy

Section 6.4 Conservative versus Nonconservative Forces
… 21 In which one of the following systems is there a decrease in gravitational potential energy?
(a) a boy stretches a horizontal spring (d) a car ascends a steep hill
(b) a girl jumps down from a bed (e) water is forced upward through a pipe
(c) a crate rests at the bottom of an inclined plane

ˆ 22. An elevator supported by a single cable descends a shaft at a constant speed. The only forces acting
on the elevator are the tension in the cable and the gravitational force. Which one of the following
statements is true?
(a) The magnitude of the work done by the tension force is larger than that done by the gravitational
force.
(b) The magnitude of the work done by the gravitational force is larger than that done by the tension
force.
(c) The work done by the tension force is zero joules.
(d) The work done by the gravitational force is zero joules.
(e) The net work done by the two forces is zero joules.

… 23. During the construction of a high rise building, 40-kg block is vertically lifted 20 meters from the
surface of the earth. To one significant figure, what is the change in the gravitational potential energy
of the block?
(a) +800 J (c) +8000 J (e) zero joules
(b) −800 J (d) −8000 J

ˆ 24. A 1500-kg elevator moves upward with constant speed through a vertical distance of 25 m.
How much work was done by the tension in the elevator cable?
(a) 990 J (c) 140 000 J (e) 430 000 J
(b) 8100 J (d) 370 000 J
66 Chapter 6 Work and Energy

ˆ 25. Larry’s gravitational potential energy is 1870 J as he sits 2.20 m above the ground in a sky diving
airplane. What is Larry’s gravitational potential energy when be begins to jump from the airplane at
an altitude of 923 m?
(a) 7.85 × 105 J (c) 3.29 × 104 J (e) 4.22 × 106 J
(b) 1.87 × 10 J3
(d) 9.36 × 10 J
2

ˆ 26. Two balls of equal size are dropped from the same height from the roof of a building. One ball has
twice the mass of the other. When the balls reach the ground, how do the kinetic energies of the two
balls compare?
(a) The lighter one has one fourth as much kinetic energy as the other does.
(b) The lighter one has one half as much kinetic energy as the other does.
(c) The lighter one has the same kinetic energy as the other does.
(d) The lighter one has twice as much kinetic energy as the other does.
(e) The lighter one has four times as much kinetic energy as the other does.

7.0 m B
ˆ 27. A 12-kg crate is pushed up an incline from point A to
point B as shown in the figure. What is the change in
the gravitational potential energy of the crate?
2.0 m A
(a) +590 J (c) +1200 J (e) +60 J
(b) −590 J (d) −1200 J

ˆ 28. A woman stands on the edge of a cliff and throws a stone vertically downward with an initial speed
of 10 m/s. The instant before the stone hits the ground below, it has 450 J of kinetic energy. If she
were to throw the stone horizontally outward from the cliff with the same initial speed of 10 m/s,
how much kinetic energy would it have just before it hits the ground?
(a) 50 J (c) 450 J (e) 950 J
(b) 100 J (d) 800 J

ˆ 29. A donkey pulls a crate up a rough, inclined plane at constant speed. Which one of the following
statements concerning this situation is false?
(a) The gravitational potential energy of the crate is increasing.
(b) The net work done by all the forces acting on the crate is zero joules.
(c) The work done on the crate by the normal force of the plane is zero joules.
(d) The donkey does "positive" work in pulling the crate up the incline.
(e) The work done on the object by gravity is zero joules.

„ 30. A block is dropped from a high tower and is falling freely under the influence of gravity. Which
one of the following statements is true concerning this situation? Neglect air resistance.
(a) As the block falls, the net work done by all of the forces acting on the block is zero joules.
(b) The kinetic energy increases by equal amounts over equal distances.
(c) The kinetic energy of the block increases by equal amounts in equal times.
(d) The potential energy of the block decreases by equal amounts in equal times.
(e) The total energy of the block increases by equal amounts over equal distances.

ˆ 31. A rock is thrown straight up from the surface of the Earth. Which one of the following statements
describes the energy transformation of the rock as it rises? Neglect air resistance.
(a) The total energy of the rock increases.
(b) The kinetic energy increases and the potential energy decreases.
(c) Both the potential energy and the total energy of the rock increase.
(d) The kinetic energy decreases and the potential energy increases.
(e) Both the kinetic energy and the potential energy of the rock remain the same.
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 67

ˆ 32. Complete the following statement: A force that acts on an object is said to be conservative if
(a) it obeys Newton's laws of motion.
(b) it results in a change in the object's kinetic energy.
(c) it always acts in the direction of motion of the object.
(d) the work it does on the object is independent of the path of the motion.
(e) the work it does on the object is equal to the increase in the object's kinetic energy.

… 33. Which one of the following choices is an example of a conservative force?

(a) tension (c) static frictional force (e) elastic spring force
(b) normal force (d) motor propulsion force

… 34. Which one of the following choices is an example of a non-conservative force?

(a) gravitational force (c) kinetic frictional force
(b) electrical force (d) elastic spring force

Section 6.5 Conservation of Mechanical Energy

… 35. A helicopter (m = 1250 kg) is cruising at a speed of 25.0 m/s at an altitude of 185 m. What is the total
mechanical energy of the helicopter?
(a) 3.91 × 105 J (c) 2.27 × 106 J (e) 1.88 × 106 J
(b) 2.66 × 10 J
6
(d) 6.18 × 10 J
5

ˆ 36. A pebble rolls off the roof of Science Hall and falls vertically. Just before it reaches the ground, the
pebble’s speed is 17 m/s. Neglect air resistance and determine the height of Science Hall.
(a) 42 m (c) 26 m (e) 15 m
(b) 33 m (d) 21 m

Questions 37 and 38 pertain to the situation described below:

A 2.0-kg projectile is fired with initial velocity components vox = 30 m/s and voy = 40 m/s from a point
on the earth's surface. Neglect any effects due to air resistance.

ˆ 37. What is the kinetic energy of the projectile when it reaches the highest point in its trajectory?
(a) zero joules (c) 1600 J (e) 4900 J
(b) 900 J (d) 2500 J

„ 38. How much work was done in firing the projectile?

(a) 900 J (c) 2500 J (e) 9800 J
(b) 1600 J (d) 4900 J

„ 39. Two boxes are connected to each other as 3.00 kg

shown. The system is released from rest and
the 1.00-kg box falls through a distance of A
1.00 m. The surface of the table is
frictionless. What is the kinetic energy of box
B just before it reaches the floor? B 1.00 kg
(a) 2.45 J (d) 29.4 J
(b) 4.90 J (e) 39.2 J 1.00 m
(c) 9.80 J
68 Chapter 6 Work and Energy

ˆ 40. A roller-coaster car is moving at 20 m/s along a straight horizontal track. What will its speed be after
climbing the 15-m hill shown in the figure, if friction is ignored?

v = 20 m/s

15 m

(a) 17 m/s (c) 5 m/s (e) 14 m/s

(b) 7 m/s (d) 10 m/s

… 41. A 3.0-kg cylinder falls from rest through a distance of 6.0 m in an evacuated tube near the surface of
the earth. What is its speed after the cylinder has fallen the 6.0 m distance?
(a) 8.0 m/s (c) 13 m/s (e) 120 m/s
(b) 11 m/s (d) 26 m/s

ˆ 42. A bicyclist is traveling at a speed of 20.0 m/s as he approaches the bottom of a hill. He decides to
coast up the hill and stops upon reaching the top. Neglecting friction, determine the vertical height of
the hill.
(a) 28.5 m (c) 11.2 m (e) 20.4 m
(b) 3.70 m (d) 40.8 m

ˆ 43. A skier leaves the top of a slope with an initial speed of 5.0 m/s. Her speed at the bottom of the slope
is 13 m/s. What is the height of the slope?
(a) 1.1 m (c) 6.4 m (e) 11 m
(b) 4.6 m (d) 7.3 m

ˆ 44. A roller coaster starts from rest at the top of an 18-m hill as shown. The car travels to the bottom of
the hill and continues up the next hill that is 10.0 m high.

18 m
10.0 m

How fast is the car moving at the top of the 10.0-m hill, if friction is ignored?
(a) 6.4 m/s (c) 13 m/s (e) 27 m/s
(b) 8.1 m/s (d) 18 m/s

ˆ 45. An engineer is asked to design a playground slide such that the speed a child reaches at the bottom
does not exceed 6.0 m/s. Determine the maximum height that the slide can be.
(a) 1.8 m (c) 3.2 m (e) 14 m
(b) 2.9 m (d) 4.5 m

… 46. A care package is dropped from rest from a helicopter hovering 25 m above the ground.
What is the speed of the package just before it reaches the ground? Neglect air resistance.
(a) 22 m/s (c) 12 m/s (e) 5.0 m/s
(b) 16 m/s (d) 8.0 m/s
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 69

Questions 47 and 48 pertain to the statement and figure:

A block of mass m is released from rest at a height R above a horizontal

surface. The acceleration due to gravity is g. The block slides along the R
inside of a frictionless circular hoop of radius R. R
ˆ 47. Which one of the following expressions gives the speed of the mass at
the bottom of the hoop?
mg
(a) zero m/s2 (c) v = (e) v2 = 2gR
2R
g2
(b) v = mgR (d) v 2 =
R

„ 48. What is the magnitude of the normal force exerted on the block by the hoop when the block has
reached the bottom?
(a) zero newtons (c) mg (e) 3mg
(b) mg2/R (d) 2mg

Section 6.6 Nonconservative Forces and the Work-Energy Theorem

„ 49. A physics student shoves a 0.50-kg block from the bottom of a
frictionless 30.0° inclined plane. The student performs 4.0 J of work
and the block slides a distance s along the incline before it stops. s
Determine the value of s.
(a) 8.0 cm (c) 82 cm (e) 330 cm
(b) 16 cm (d) 160 cm
30.0°

„ 50. The initial velocity of a 4.0-kg box is 11 m/s, due west. After the box slides 4.0 m horizontally, its
speed is 1.5 m/s. Determine the magnitude and the direction of the non-conservative force acting on
the box as it slides.
(a) 42 N, due west (c) 31 N, due east (e) 83 N, due west
(b) 120 N, due east (d) 59 N, due east

„ 51. An automobile approaches a barrier at a speed of 20 m/s along a level road. The driver locks the
brakes at a distance of 50 m from the barrier. What minimum coefficient of kinetic friction is required
to stop the automobile before it hits the barrier?
(a) 0.4 (c) 0.6 (e) 0.8
(b) 0.5 (d) 0.7

Questions 52 and 53 pertain to the situation described below.

A 9.0-kg box of oranges slides from ora

ng
es
rest down a frictionless incline from a
height of 5.0 m. A constant frictional
force, introduced at point A, brings 5.0 m
the block to rest at point B, 19 m to A B
the right of point A.
19 m
70 Chapter 6 Work and Energy

ˆ 52. What is the speed of the block just before it reaches point A?
(a) 98 m/s (c) 9.9 m/s (e) 4.4 m/s
(b) 21 m/s (d) 5.7 m/s

„ 53. What is the coefficient of kinetic friction, µk, of the surface from A to B?
(a) 0.11 (c) 0.33 (e) 0.52
(b) 0.26 (d) 0.47

Section 6.7 Power

… 54. The kinetic energy of a car is 8 × 106 J as it travels along a horizontal road. How much power is
required to stop the car in 10 s?
(a) zero watts (c) 8 × 105 W (e) 8 × 107 W
(b) 8 × 10 W
4
(d) 8 × 10 W 6

ˆ 55. A 51-kg woman runs up a flight of stairs in 5.0 s. Her net upward displacement is 5.0 m.
Approximately, what average power did the woman exert while she was running?
(a) 5.0 kW (c) 0.75 kW (e) 0.25 kW
(b) 1.0 kW (d) 0.50 kW

ˆ 56. What power is needed to lift a 49-kg person a vertical distance of 5.0 m in 20.0 s?
(a) 12.5 W (c) 60 W (e) 210 W
(b) 25 W (d) 120 W

„ 57. An escalator is 30.0 meters long and slants at 30.0° relative to the horizontal. If it moves at 1.00 m/s,
at what rate does it do work in lifting a 50.0-kg woman from the bottom to the top of the escalator?
(a) 49.3 W (c) 245 W (e) 495 W
(b) 98.0 W (d) 292 W

„ 58. How much power is needed to lift a 75-kg student vertically upward at a constant speed of 0.33 m/s?
(a) 12.5 W (c) 115 W (e) 243 W
(b) 25 W (d) 230 W

ˆ 59. A warehouse worker uses a forklift to lift a crate of pickles on a platform to a height 2.75 m above the
floor. The combined mass of the platform and the crate is 207 kg. If the power expended by the
forklift is 1440 W, how long does it take to lift the crate?
(a) 37.2 s (c) 3.87 s (e) 1.86 s
(b) 5.81 s (d) 18.6 s

„ 60. A dam is used to block the passage of a river and to generate electricity. Approximately
5.73 × 104 kg of water fall each second through a height of 19.6 m. If one half of the gravitational
potential energy of the water were converted to electrical energy, how much power would be
generated?
(a) 5.50 × 106 W (c) 1.10 × 107 W (e) 1.25 × 105 W
(b) 2.70 × 10 W
9
(d) 1.35 × 10 W
9

ˆ 61. The amount of energy needed to power a 0.10-kW bulb for one minute would be just sufficient to
lift a 1.0-kg object through a vertical distance of
(a) 12 m (c) 100 m (e) 610 m
(b) 75 m (d) 120 m
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 71

Section 6.9 Work Done by a Variable Force

50
ˆ 62. The graph shows the force component along the
displacement as a function of the magnitude of the 40

Force (N)
displacement. Determine the work done by the 30
force during the interval from 2 to 10 m.
(a) 140 J 20
(b) 190 J 10
(c) 270 J
0
(d) 450 J 0 2 4 6 8 10 12
(e) 560 J Distance (m)

ˆ 63. The force component acting on an object along the

F cos θ (Ν)
displacement varies with the displacement s as shown in the 8
graph. Determine the work done on the object as it travels 4
from s = 0.0 to 12 m. 0
0 3 6 9 12
(a) 48 J (d) 57 J
s (m)
(b) 66 J (e) 81 J
(c) 72 J

Additional Problems
… 64. Which one of the following is not a unit of energy?
(a) foot ⋅ pound (c) newton ⋅ meter (e) joule
(b) kilowatt ⋅ hour (d) watt

A
Questions 65 and 66 pertain to the situation described below:

A 0.50-kg ball on the end of a rope is moving in a vertical

circle of radius 3.0 m near the surface of the Earth where the mg 3.0 m
acceleration due to gravity, g, is 9.8 m/s2. D B

Point A is at the top of the circle; C is at the bottom. Points B

and D are exactly halfway between A and C.

… 65. Which one of the following statements concerning the tension in C

the rope is true?
(a) The tension is smallest at A. (d) The tension is the same at A and C.
(b) The tension is smallest at C. (e) The tension is the same at A, B, C, and D.
(c) The tension is smallest at both B and D.

ˆ 66. The ball moves on the circle from A to C under the influence of gravity alone. If the kinetic
energy of the ball is 35 J at A, what is its kinetic energy at C?
(a) zero joules (c) 35 J (e) 64 J
(b) 29 J (d) 44 J

„ 67. A motorist driving a 1000-kg car wishes to increase her speed from 20 m/s to 30 m/s in 5 s.
Determine the horsepower required to accomplish this increase. Neglect friction.
(a) 20 hp (c) 70 hp (e) 90 hp
(b) 30 hp (d) 80 hp
72 Chapter 6 Work and Energy

„ 68. A top fuel dragster with a mass of 500.0 kg starts from rest and completes a quarter mile (402 m)
race in a time of 5.0 s. The dragster's final speed is 130 m/s. Neglecting friction, what average
power was needed to produce this final speed?
(a) 140 hp (c) 1100 hp (e) 8.5 × 105 hp
(b) 750 hp (d) 2.7 × 10 hp
4

Questions 69 through 73 pertain to the situation described below:

4.0 m/s
A 10.0-kg crate slides along a horizontal
frictionless surface at a constant speed of 4.0 m/s.
The crate then slides down a frictionless incline

3.0 m
and across a second horizontal surface as shown
in the figure.
4.0 m

ˆ 69. What is the kinetic energy of the crate as it slides on the upper surface?
(a) 30 J (c) 140 J (e) 490 J
(b) 80 J (d) 290 J

ˆ 70. While the crate slides along the upper surface, how much gravitational potential energy does it
have compared to what it would have on the lower surface?
(a) 30 J (c) 140 J (e) 490 J
(b) 80 J (d) 290 J

ˆ 71. What is the speed of the crate when it arrives at the lower surface?
(a) 7.7 m/s (c) 59 m/s (e) 98 m/s
(b) 8.6 m/s (d) 75 m/s

ˆ 72. What is the kinetic energy of the crate as it slides on the lower surface?
(a) 290 J (c) 370 J (e) 570 J
(b) 320 J (d) 490 J

„ 73. What minimum coefficient of kinetic friction is required to bring the crate to a stop over a distance of
5.0 m along the lower surface?
(a) 0.30 (c) 0.60 (e) 0.76
(b) 0.32 (d) 0.66

Questions 74 and 75 pertain to the situation described below:

A rope exerts a force F on a 20.0-kg crate. The crate F

starts from rest and accelerates upward at 5.00 m/s2 near
the surface of the earth. 20.0
kg

„ 74. What is the kinetic energy of the crate when it is 4.0 m above the floor?
(a) 400 J (c) 116 J (e) 1180 J
(b) 250 J (d) 704 J

ˆ 75. How much work was done by the force F in raising the crate 4.0 m above the floor?
(a) 399 J (c) 116 J (e) 1180 J
(b) 250 J (d) 704 J
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 73

Questions 76 through 78 pertain to the statement and diagram below:

A 325-N force accelerates a 50.0-kg crate from rest 325

300NN
along a horizontal frictionless surface for a 50.0 kg
distance of 20.0 m as shown in the figure.
20.0 m
„ 76. What is the final speed of the crate?
(a) 11.4 m/s (c) 32.2 m/s (e) 259 m/s
(b) 16.1 m/s (d) 131 m/s

ˆ 77. How much work is done on the crate?

(a) 1.62 × 102 J (c) 3.82 × 103 J (e) 1.50 × 104 J
(b) 7.70 × 10 J
2
(d) 6.50 × 103 J

„ 78. What coefficient of friction would be required to keep the crate moving at constant speed under the
action of the 325-N force?
(a) 0.250 (c) 0.508 (e) 0.747
(b) 0.321 (d) 0.663
 chapter F
IMPULSE AND MOMENTUM

Section 7.1 The Impulse Momentum Theorem

ˆ 1. Which one of the following statements concerning momentum is true?
(a) Momentum is a force.
(b) Momentum is a scalar quantity.
(c) The SI unit of momentum is kg ⋅ m2/s.
(d) The momentum of an object is always positive.
(e) Momentum and impulse are measured in the same units.

ˆ 2. A rock is dropped from a high tower and falls freely under the influence of gravity. Which one of
the following statements concerning the rock as it falls is true? Neglect the effects of air resistance.
(a) The rock will gain an equal amount of momentum during each second.
(b) The rock will gain an equal amount of kinetic energy during each second.
(c) The rock will gain an equal amount of speed for each meter through which it falls.
(d) The rock will gain an equal amount of momentum for each meter through which it falls.
(e) The amount of momentum the rock gains will be proportional to the amount of potential energy
that it loses.

„ 3. A stunt person jumps from the roof of a tall building, but no injury occurs because the person lands
on a large, air-filled bag. Which one of the following best describes why no injury occurs?
(a) The bag provides the necessary force to stop the person.
(b) The bag reduces the impulse to the person.
(c) The bag increases the amount of time the force acts on the person and reduces the change in
momentum.
(d) The bag decreases the amount of time during which the momentum is changing and reduces the
average force on the person.
(e) The bag increases the amount of time during which the momentum is changing and reduces
the average force on the person.

… 4. Jennifer is walking at 1.63 m/s. If Jennifer weighs 583 N, what is the magnitude of her momentum?
(a) 97.0 kg ⋅ m/s (c) 68.6 kg ⋅ m/s (e) 951 kg ⋅ m/s
(b) 137 kg ⋅ m/s (d) 672 kg ⋅ m/s

ˆ 5. A 1.0-kg ball has a velocity of 12 m/s downward just before it strikes the ground and bounces up
with a velocity of 12 m/s upward. What is the change in momentum of the ball?
(a) zero kg ⋅ m/s (c) 12 kg ⋅ m/s, upward (e) 24 kg ⋅ m/s, upward
(b) 12 kg ⋅ m/s, downward (d) 24 kg ⋅ m/s, downward

„ 6. A projectile is launched with 200 kg ⋅ m/s of momentum and 1000 J of kinetic energy. What is the
mass of the projectile?
(a) 5 kg (c) 20 kg (e) 50 kg
(b) 10 kg (d) 40 kg

ˆ 7. A 0.1-kg steel ball is dropped straight down onto a hard, horizontal floor and bounces straight up.
The ball’s speed just before and just after impact with the floor is 10 m/s. Determine the magnitude
of the impulse delivered to the floor by the steel ball.
(a) zero N ⋅ s (c) 2 N ⋅ s (e) 100 N ⋅ s
(b) 1 N ⋅ s (d) 10 N ⋅ s
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 75

ˆ 8. A machine gun fires 50-g bullets at the rate of 4 bullets per second. The bullets leave the gun at a
speed of 1000 m/s. What is the average recoil force experienced by the machine gun?
(a) 10 N (c) 100 N (e) 1000 N
(b) 20 N (d) 200 N

ˆ 9. A 0.065-kg tennis ball moving to the right with a speed of 15 m/s is struck by a tennis racket, causing
it to move to the left with a speed of 15 m/s. If the ball remains in contact with the racquet for 0.020 s,
what is the magnitude of the average force experienced by the ball?
(a) zero newtons (c) 160 N (e) 320 N
(b) 98 N (d) 240 N

… 10. A baseball of mass m, initially at rest, is struck by a bat so that it acquires a speed v. If t represents
the duration of the collision between the bat and the ball, which expression determines the
magnitude of the average force exerted on the ball?
(a) (1/2)mv2 (c) (1/2)mv2t (e) mvt
(b) mv/t 2
(d) mt /(2v)

ˆ 11. An airplane is traveling at 225 m/s when it strikes a weather balloon (m = 1.82 kg), which can be
considered to be at rest relative to the ground below. After the collision, the balloon is caught on
the fuselage and is traveling with the airplane. The collision takes place over a time interval of
4.44 × 10−3 N. What is the average force that the balloon exerts on the airplane?
(a) 415 N (c) 9.22 × 104 N (e) 5.07 × 106 N
(b) 2.78 × 104 N (d) 4.61 × 105 N

„ 12. While a car is stopped at a traffic light in a storm, raindrops strike the roof of the car. The area of
the roof is 5.0 m2. Each raindrop has a mass of 3.7 × 10–4 kg and speed of 2.5 m/s before impact and
is at rest after the impact. If, on average at a given time, 150 raindrops strike each square meter,
what is the impulse of the rain striking the car?
(a) 0.69 N ⋅ s (c) 0.14 N ⋅ s (e) 21 N ⋅ s
(b) 0.046 N ⋅ s (d) 11 N ⋅ s

ˆ 13. A bat strikes a 0.050-kg baseball so that its velocity changes by +30 m/s in 0.10 s. With what
average force was the ball struck?
(a) +15 N (c) +300 N (e) +150 N
(b) −15 N (d) −300 N

„ 14. The head of a hammer (m = 1.5 kg) moving at 4.5 m/s strikes a nail and bounces back with the same
speed after an elastic collision lasting 0.075 s. What is the magnitude of the average force the
hammer exerts on the nail?
(a) 6.8 N (c) 90 N (e) 240 N
(b) 60 N (d) 180 N

„ 15. A football player kicks a 0.41-kg football initially at rest; and the ball flies through the air. If the
kicker’s foot was in contact with the ball for 0.051 s and the ball’s initial speed after the collision is
21 m/s, what was the magnitude of the average force on the football?
(a) 9.7 N (c) 81 N (e) 210 N
(b) 46 N (d) 170 N
76 Chapter 7 Impulse and Momentum

Questions 16 and 17 pertain to the situation described below:

A 4.0-kg block slides along a frictionless surface with a constant speed of 5.0 m/s as shown. Two
seconds after it begins sliding, a horizontal, time-dependent force is applied to the mass. The force
is removed eight seconds later. The graph shows how the force on the block varies with time.

Force (N)
4.0 kg
v 3
0
04 2 6 8 10
Time (s)
ˆ 16. What is the magnitude of the total impulse of the force acting on the block?
(a) 20 N ⋅ s (c) 48 N ⋅ s (e) 60 N ⋅ s
(b) 42 N ⋅ s (d) 54 N ⋅ s

„ 17. What, approximately, is the speed of the block at t = 11 seconds?

(a) 5.0 m/s (c) 25 m/s (e) 75 m/s
(b) 16 m/s (d) 65 m/s

Section 7.2 The Principle of Conservation of Linear Momentum

ˆ 18. In which one of the following situations is linear momentum not conserved?
(a) A bomb suspended by a string explodes into one hundred fragments.
(b) A bowling ball collides with a set of ten pins.
(c) A golf ball is struck by a club.
(d) An astronaut floating in space throws a hammer away and subsequently moves in the opposite
direction.
(e) A tree limb is struck by lightning and falls to the ground.

ˆ 19. A stationary bomb explodes in space breaking into a number of small fragments. At the location of
the explosion, the net force due to gravity is zero newtons. Which one of the following statements
concerning this event is true?
(a) Kinetic energy is conserved in this process.
(b) The fragments must have equal kinetic energies.
(c) The sum of the kinetic energies of the fragments must be zero.
(d) The vector sum of the linear momenta of the fragments must be zero.
(e) The velocity of any one fragment must be equal to the velocity of any other fragment.

ˆ 20. An object of mass 3m, initially at rest, explodes breaking into two fragments of mass m and 2m,
respectively. Which one of the following statements concerning the fragments after the explosion is
true?
(a) They will fly off at right angles.
(b) They will fly off in the same direction.
(c) The smaller fragment will have twice the speed of the larger fragment.
(d) The larger fragment will have twice the speed of the smaller fragment.
(e) The smaller fragment will have four times the speed of the larger fragment.

ˆ 21. A 100-kg cannon at rest contains a 10-kg cannon ball. When fired, the cannon ball leaves the
cannon with a speed of 90 m/s. What is the recoil speed of the cannon?
(a) 4.5 m/s (c) 45 m/s (e) zero m/s
(b) 9 m/s (d) 90 m/s
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 77

„ 22. A 50-kg toboggan is coasting on level snow. As it passes beneath a bridge, a 20-kg parcel is dropped
straight down and lands in the toboggan. If (KE)1 is the original kinetic energy of the toboggan and
(KE) 2 is the kinetic energy after the parcel has been added, what is the ratio (KE) 2/(KE) 1.
(a) 0.4 (c) 0.7 (e) 1
(b) 0.6 (d) 0.8

ˆ 23. A sled of mass m is coasting on the icy surface of a frozen river. While it is passing under a bridge,
a package of equal mass m is dropped straight down and lands on the sled (without causing any
damage). The sled plus the added load then continue along the original line of motion. How does
the kinetic energy of the sled + load compare with the original kinetic energy of the sled?
(a) It is 1/4 the original kinetic energy of the sled.
(b) It is 1/2 the original kinetic energy of the sled.
(c) It is 3/4 the original kinetic energy of the sled.
(d) It is the same as the original kinetic energy of the sled.
(e) It is twice the original kinetic energy of the sled.

„ 24. A bullet of mass m is fired at speed v0 into a wooden block of mass M. The bullet instantaneously
comes to rest in the block. The block with the embedded bullet slides along a horizontal surface
with a coefficient of kinetic friction µ.
initial position final position
v0 M

s
Which one of the following expressions determines how far the block slides before it comes
to rest (the magnitude of displacement s in the figure)?
2
mv02 ⎛ m ⎞ v0
2
v02
(a) s = (c) s = ⎜ ⎟ (e) s =
Mµg ⎝ m + M ⎠ 2 µg µg
m ⎛ v02 ⎞ ⎛ m ⎞
2
v02
(b) s = ⎜ ⎟ (d) s = ⎜ ⎟
m+M ⎜ µg ⎟ ⎝m+M ⎠ 2 µg
⎝ ⎠

ˆ 25. While in Earth’s orbit, an 80-kg astronaut carrying a 20-kg tool kit is initially drifting toward a
stationary (to her) space shuttle at a speed of 2 m/s. If she throws the tool kit toward the shuttle with
a speed of 6 m/s as seen from the shuttle, her final speed is
(a) 1 m/s toward the shuttle. (d) 4 m/s toward the shuttle.
(b) 1 m/s away from the shuttle. (e) 6 m/s away from the shuttle.
(c) 2 m/s toward the shuttle.

ˆ 26. On an interplanetary mission, a 58.5-kg astronaut is floating toward the front of her ship at 0.15 m/s,
relative to the ship. She wishes to stop moving, relative to the ship. She decides to throw away the
2.50-kg book she’s carrying. What should the speed and direction of the book be to achieve her
goal?
(a) 0.15 m/s, toward the front of the ship (d) 0.30 m/s, toward the back of the ship
(b) 3.5 m/s, toward the back of the ship (e) 1.8 m/s, toward the front of the ship
(c) 3.7 m/s, toward the front of the ship
78 Chapter 7 Impulse and Momentum

Section 7.3 Collisions in One Dimension

Section 7.4 Collisions in Two Dimensions
… 27. Complete the following statement: Different types of collisions between interacting bodies are
categorized on the basis of
(a) kinetic energy conservation. (d) the magnitude of the forces involved.
(b) mechanical energy conservation. (e) the temporal duration of the collision.
(c) linear momentum conservation.

… 28. Complete the following statement: A collision is elastic if

(a) the final velocities are zero. (d) the final momentum is zero.
(b) the objects stick together. (e) the total kinetic energy is conserved.
(c) the final kinetic energy is zero.

… 29. Which one of the following is characteristic of an inelastic collision?

(a) Total mass is not conserved. (d) Kinetic energy is not conserved.
(b) Total energy is not conserved. (e) The change in momentum is less than
(c) Linear momentum is not conserved. the total impulse.

ˆ 30. Two objects of equal mass traveling toward each other with equal speeds undergo a head on
collision. Which one of the following statements concerning their velocities after the collision is
necessarily true?
(a) They will exchange velocities. (d) Their velocities will be zero.
(b) Their velocities will be reduced. (e) Their velocities may be zero.
(c) Their velocities will be unchanged.

ˆ 31. Complete the following statement: Momentum will be conserved in a two-body collision only if
(a) both bodies come to rest.
(b) the collision is perfectly elastic.
(c) the kinetic energy of the system is conserved.
(d) the net external force acting on the two-body system is zero.
(e) the internal forces of the two body system cancel in action-reaction pairs.

… 32. Two cars of equal mass collide on a horizontal frictionless surface. Before the collision, car A is at
rest while car B has a constant velocity of 12 m/s. After the collision, the two bodies are stuck
together. What is the speed of the composite body (A + B) after the collision?
(a) 3.0 m/s (c) 12 m/s (e) 36 m/s
(b) 6.0 m/s (d) 24 m/s

ˆ 33. A stone of mass 2 kg falls 100 meters near the surface of the earth. It strikes the ground without any
rebound thereby making a completely inelastic collision with the earth. Approximately how much
kinetic energy is transferred to the earth in this process?
(a) zero joules (c) 2000 J (e) 20 000 J
(b) 200 J (d) 10 000 J

ˆ 34. A tennis ball has a velocity of 12 m/s downward just before it strikes the ground and bounces up
with a velocity of 12 m/s upward. Which statement is true concerning this situation?
(a) The momentum of the ball and the momentum of the earth both change.
(b) Neither the momentum of the ball nor the momentum of the earth changes.
(c) The momentum of the ball is changed; the momentum of the earth is not changed.
(d) The momentum of the ball is unchanged; the momentum of the earth is changed.
(e) Both the momentum and the kinetic energy of the ball change because of the collision.
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 79

ˆ 35. A 3.0-kg cart moving to the right with a speed of 1.0 m/s has a head-on collision with a 5.0-kg cart
that is initially moving to the left with a speed of 2.0 m/s. After the collision, the 3.0-kg cart is
moving to the left with a speed of 1.0 m/s. What is the final velocity of the 5.0-kg cart?
(a) zero m/s (c) 0.80 m/s to the left (e) 2.0 m/s to the left
(b) 0.80 m/s to the right (d) 2.0 m/s to the right

ˆ 36. A 1000-kg car traveling east at 20 m/s collides with a 1500-kg car traveling west at 10 m/s. The
cars stick together after the collision. What is the common velocity of the cars after the collision?
(a) 16 m/s, east (c) 4 m/s, east (e) 1 m/s, west
(b) 6 m/s, west (d) 2 m/s, east

ˆ 37. A 0.050-kg lump of clay moving horizontally at 12 m/s strikes and sticks to a stationary 0.10-kg cart
that can move on a frictionless air track. Determine the speed of the cart and clay after the collision.
(a) 2 m/s (c) 6 m/s (e) 12 m/s
(b) 4 m/s (d) 8 m/s

„ 38. A 0.10-kg cart traveling in the positive x direction at 10.0 m/s collides with a 0.30-kg cart at rest.
The collision is elastic. What is the velocity of the 0.10-kg cart after the collision?
(a) +2.5 m/s (c) +5 m/s (e) +3.3 m/s
(b) −2.5 m/s (d) −5 m/s
2.5 m/s
ˆ 39. A 50.0-kg boy runs at a speed of 10.0 m/s 10 m/s
and jumps onto a cart as shown in the
figure. The cart is initially at rest. If the v=0
speed of the cart with the boy on it is 2.50
m/s, what is the mass of the cart?

(a) 150 kg (c) 210 kg (e) 300 kg

(b) 175 kg (d) 260 kg

„ 40. A 0.015-kg marble moving to the right at 0.40 m/s has a head-on, elastic collision with a 0.045-kg
marble sitting at rest on a smooth, level surface. Which of the following are the correct magnitudes
and directions of the velocities of the two marbles after the collision?
0.015 kg marble 0.045 kg marble
(a) 0.15 m/s, left 0.25 m/s, right
(b) 0.10 m/s, right 0.30 m/s, right
(c) zero m/s 0.25 m/s, right
(d) 0.20 m/s, left 0.20 m/s, right
(e) 0.40 m/s, left zero m/s

ˆ 41. A 7.30-kg bowling ball strikes a 1.60-kg pin at rest head-on. Before the collision, the velocity of the
ball is +6.00 m/s. After the collision, the velocity of the ball is +5.40 m/s. What is the velocity of the
pin after the collision?
(a) +0.6 m/s (c) +1.2 m/s (e) +3.2 m/s
(b) +5.4 m/s (d) +2.7 m/s

„ 42. A 2.5-kg ball and a 5.0-kg ball have an elastic collision. Before the collision, the 2.5-kg ball was at
rest and the other ball had a speed of 3.5 m/s. What is the kinetic energy of the 2.5-kg ball after the
collision?
(a) 1.7 J (c) 8.1 J (e) 27 J
(b) 3.4 J (d) 14 J
80 Chapter 7 Impulse and Momentum

… 43. Two objects constitute an isolated system. In an elastic collision between the two objects, which
one of the following statements is a false statement?
(a) The total kinetic energy is conserved.
(b) The kinetic energy of each object is the same before and after the collision.
(c) The total momentum is conserved.
(d) The magnitude of the force exerted by each object on the other object is equal.
(e) The total kinetic energy before the collision is equal to the total kinetic energy after the
collision.

„ 44. A 35-kg girl is standing near and to the left of a 43-kg boy on the frictionless surface of a frozen
pond. The boy throws a 0.75-kg ice ball to the girl with a horizontal speed of 6.2 m/s. What are the
velocities of the boy and the girl immediately after the girl catches the ice ball?
girl boy
(a) 0.81 m/s, left 0.67 m/s, right
(b) 0.17 m/s, left 0.14 m/s, left
(c) 0.18 m/s, right 0.13 m/s, left
(d) 0.42 m/s, left 0.49 m/s, right
(e) 0.13 m/s, left 0.11 m/s, right

Questions 45 and 46 pertain to the following situation.

A comet fragment of mass 1.96 × 1013 kg is moving at 6.50 × 104 m/s when it crashes into Callisto, a
moon of Jupiter. The mass of Callisto is 1.08 × 1023 kg. The collision is completely inelastic.

ˆ 45. Assuming for this calculation that Callisto’s initial momentum is zero kg ⋅ m/s, what is the recoil
speed of Callisto immediately after the collision?
(a) 3.34 × 10−18 m/s (c) 3.58 × 10−12 m/s (e) 1.18 × 10−5 m/s
−14 −7
(b) 1.27 × 10 m/s (d) 6.13 × 10 m/s

ˆ 46. How much kinetic energy was released in the collision?

(a) 8.28 × 1022 J (c) 7.02 × 1027 J (e) 1.50 × 1013 J
(b) 3.51 × 10 J
27
(d) 4.14 × 1022 J

(3)
… 47. Car One is traveling due north and Car Two is traveling due (2) (4)
east. After the collision shown, Car One rebounds in the
due south direction. Which of the numbered arrows is the (1) (5)
only one that can represent the final direction of Car Two?
(a) 1
Two
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
One

(e) 5

ˆ 48. A 0.50-kg bomb is sliding along an icy pond (frictionless surface) with a velocity of 2.0 m/s to the
west. The bomb explodes into two pieces. After the explosion, a 0.20-kg piece moves south at 4.0
m/s. What are the components of the velocity of the 0.30-kg piece?
(a) 4.0 m/s north, 0 m/s (d) 0 m/s, 2.0 m/s east
(b) 2.7 m/s north, 3.3 m/s west (e) 4.0 m/s north, 2.0 m/s east
(c) 4.0 m/s north, 2.7 m/s west
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 81

„ 49. Two asteroids are drifting in space with trajectories shown. Assuming y
the collision at point O between them is completely inelastic, at what O•
angle from its original direction is the larger asteroid deflected? x
(a) 80° above the +x axis (d) 47° above the +x axis 47°
45 m/s 15 m/s
(b) 69° above the +x axis (e) 90° above the +x axis
(c) 42° above the +x axis 0.10m m

„ 50. In the game of billiards, all the balls have 3.0 m/s 30.0°
approximately the same mass, about 0.17 kg.
In the figure, the cue ball strikes another ball
such that it follows the path shown. The other 60.0°
ball has a speed of 1.5 m/s immediately after
the collision. What is the speed of the cue ball
1.5 m/s
after the collision?
(a) 1.5 m/s (c) 2.6 m/s (e) 5.2 m/s
(b) 1.8 m/s (d) 4.3 m/s

Section 7.5 Center of Mass

ˆ 51. Which one of the following statements concerning center of mass is true?
(a) All of an object’s mass is located at its center of mass.
(b) The center of mass of an object must be located within the object.
(c) The center of mass of a system of objects cannot change even if there are forces acting on the
objects.
(d) The velocity of the center of mass of a system of objects is greatly affected by a collision of
objects within the system.
(e) The velocity of the center of mass of a system of objects is constant when the sum of the
external forces acting on the system is zero.

ˆ 52. The drawing shows two 4.5-kg balls located on the y axis at 1.0 10.0
4.5 kg
and 9.0 m, respectively; a third ball with a mass 2.3 kg is located 8.0
at 6.0 m. What is the location of the center of mass of this
2.3 kg
y (m)

system? 6.0
(a) 4.8 m 4.0
(b) 5.2 m
(c) 5.6 m 2.0
(d) 6.0 m 4.5 kg
0
(e) 6.4 m

ˆ 53. During hockey practice, two pucks are sliding across the ice in the same direction. At one instant, a
0.18-kg puck is moving at 16 m/s while the other puck has a mass of 0.14 kg and a speed of 3.8 m/s.
What is the velocity of the center of mass of the two pucks?
(a) 5.0 m/s (c) 9.0 m/s (e) 13 m/s
(b) 7.0 m/s (d) 11 m/s
82 Chapter 7 Impulse and Momentum

„ 54. A juggler demonstrates his abilities by y (m)

keeping a 2.3-kg pipe wrench, a 1.5-kg
hatchet, and a 1.0-kg hammer flying 1.0
through the air above his head. The
white circles on the graph represent the 0.80
positions of the center of mass of each
of the flying objects at one instant.
0.60
What are the x and y coordinates of the
center of mass for the system of these
three objects? 0.40
x y
(a) 0.46 m 0.47 m
(b) 0.30 m 0.54 m 0.20
(c) 0.42 m 0.60 m x (m)
(d) 0.47 m 0.26 m 0
0 0.20 0.40 0.60 0.80 1.0 1.2
(e) 0.60 m 0.42 m

Additional Problems
Questions 55 through 57 pertain to the following situation:

A space vehicle of mass m has a speed v. At some instant, it separates into two pieces, each of mass
0.5m. One of the pieces is at rest just after the separation.

… 55. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true?
(a) The moving piece has speed 2v.
(b) This process conserves kinetic energy.
(c) The piece at rest possesses kinetic energy.
(d) The process does not conserve total energy.
(e) This process does not conserve momentum.

… 56. What is the kinetic energy of the moving piece just after the separation?
2
(a) zero joules (c) 12 mv 2 (e) 2mv
2
(b) 1
4
mv 2 (d) mv

ˆ 57. How much work was done by the internal forces that caused the separation?
2
(a) zero joules (c) 12 mv 2 (e) 2mv
2
(b) 1
4
mv 2 (d) mv

ˆ 58. A mother is holding her 4.5-kg baby in her arms while riding in a car moving at 22 m/s. The car is
involved in a head-on collision and stops within 1.5 seconds. What is the magnitude of the force
exerted by the baby on his mother’s arms?
(a) 45 N (c) 90 N (e) 150 N
(b) 66 N (d) 99 N

ˆ 59. A rocket is launched vertically from rest; and it burns fuel at a constant rate of 136 kg/s. Exhaust
gases are expelled with a speed of 5.25 × 103 m/s relative to the rocket. What is the magnitude of
the thrust?
(a) 7.14 × 105 N (c) 2.59 × 10−2 N (e) 38.6 N
(b) 3.64 × 10 N6
(d) 808 N
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 83

ˆ 60. A 100-kg fisherman and a 500-kg supply crate are on a frozen pond that is essentially frictionless.
The man and the crate are initially separated by a distance of 600 meters. The fisherman uses a very
light rope to pull the crate closer to him. How far has the man moved when the crate reaches the
fisherman?
(a) zero meters (c) 50 m (e) 500 m
(b) 10 m (d) 100 m

ˆ 61. A 160-kg space probe is moving in the positive x direction at 18 km/s when it encounters a time-
dependent force directed in the negative x direction. The force is as follows:
⎧0 N for 0 ≤ t < 1.5 s
⎪
F = ⎨− 750 N for 1.5 s ≤ t ≤ 3.5 s
⎪0 N for t > 3.5 s
⎩
Determine the final speed of the space probe.
(a) 8.6 km/s (c) 11 km/s (e) 23 km/s
(b) 5.3 km/s (d) 16 km/s

Questions 62 through 64 pertain to the situation described below:

A 2.0-kg pistol fires a 1.0-g bullet with a muzzle 1000 m/s

speed of 1000 m/s. The bullet then strikes a 10-kg
wooden block resting on a horizontal frictionless
surface. The block and the embedded bullet then
slide across the surface.

… 62. What is the kinetic energy of the bullet as it travels toward the block?
(a) 100 J (c) 1000 J (e) 10 000 J
(b) 500 J (d) 5000 J

ˆ 63. The explosive charge in the pistol acts for 0.001 s. What is the average force exerted on the bullet
while it is being fired?
(a) 0.001 N (c) 100 N (e) 1000 N
(b) 1.0 N (d) 500 N

ˆ 64. What is the speed of the "bullet + block" system immediately after the bullet is embedded in the
block?
(a) 0.1 m/s (c) 1000 m/s (e) zero m/s
(b) 10 m/s (d) 10 000 m/s

Questions 65 and 66 pertain to the following situation:

A stationary 4-kg shell explodes into three pieces. Two of the 2 kg

fragments have a mass of 1 kg each and move along the paths
shown with a speed of 10 m/s. The third fragment moves
upward as shown.

ˆ 65. What is the speed of the third fragment?

(a) zero m/s (d) 10 m/s 1 kg 60° 60° 1 kg
(b) 1 m/s (e) 20 m/s
(c) 5 m/s
10 m/s 10 m/s

ˆ 66. What is the speed of the center of mass of this system after the explosion?
(a) zero m/s (c) 3 m/s (e) 7 m/s
(b) 1 m/s (d) 5 m/s
 chapter F
ROTATIONAL KINEMATICS

Section 8.1 Rotational Motion and Angular Displacement

Section 8.2 Angular Velocity and Angular Acceleration
… 1. Complete the following statement: The angular measure 1.0 radian is equal to
(a) 0.0175°. (c) 1.57°. (e) 6.28°.
(b) 57.3°. (d) 3.14°.

ˆ 2. A bicycle travels 141 m along a circular track of radius 15 m. What is the angular
displacement in radians of the bicycle from its starting position?
(a) 1.0 rad (c) 3.0 rad (e) 9.4 rad
(b) 1.5 rad (d) 4.7 rad

ˆ 3. What is the angular speed in rad/s of the second hand of a watch?

(a) 1.7 × 10−3 rad/s (c) 0.02 rad/s (e) 60 rad/s
(b) 0.10 rad/s (d) 6.28 rad/s

ˆ 4. The Earth takes slightly less than one day to complete one rotation about the axis passing through its
poles. The actual time is 8.616 × 104 s. Given this information, what is the angular speed of the
Earth about its axis?
(a) 7.292 × 10−5 rad/s (c) 9.951 × 10−5 rad/s (e) 1.990 × 10−7 rad/s
−6 −4
(b) 2.321 × 10 rad/s (d) 6.334 × 10 rad/s

ˆ 5. A wheel with a 0.10-m radius is rotating at 35 rev/s. It then slows uniformly to 15 rev/s over a 3.0-s
interval. What is the angular acceleration of a point on the wheel?
(a) −2.0 rev/s2 (c) −6.7 rev/s2 (e) −17 rev/s2
2 2
(b) 0.67 rev/s (d) 42 rev/s

Section 8.3 The Equations of Rotational Kinematics

ˆ 6. Which equation is valid only when the angular measure is expressed in radians?
∆ω
(a) α = (c) ω 2 = ω02 + 2αθ (e) θ = 12 αt 2 + ω0t
∆t
∆θ v
(b) ω = (d) ω = T
∆t r

ˆ 7. During the spin-dry cycle of a washing machine, the motor slows from 95 rad/s to 30 rad/s while the
turning the drum through an angle of 402 radians. What is the magnitude of the angular acceleration
of the motor?
(a) 64 rad/s2 (c) 10 rad/s2 (e) 1.0 rad/s2
2 2
(b) 32 rad/s (d) 20 rad/s

„ 8. A fan rotating with an initial angular velocity of 1000 rev/min is switched off. In 2 seconds, the
angular velocity decreases to 200 rev/min. Assuming the angular acceleration is constant, how many
revolutions does the blade undergo during this time?
(a) 10 (c) 100 (e) 1200
(b) 20 (d) 125
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 85

„ 9. An airplane engine starts from rest; and 2 seconds later, it is rotating with an angular speed of
300 rev/min. If the angular acceleration is constant, how many revolutions does the propeller
undergo during this time?
(a) 5 (c) 50 (e) 600
(b) 10 (d) 300

ˆ 10. During the time a compact disc (CD) accelerates from rest to a constant rotational speed of
477 rev/min, it rotates through an angular displacement of 0.250 rev. What is the angular
acceleration of the CD?
(a) 358 rad/s2 (c) 901 rad/s2 (e) 794 rad/s2
2 2
(b) 126 rad/s (d) 866 rad/s

Questions 11 through 13 pertain to the statement below:

A grindstone of radius 4.0 m is initially spinning with an angular speed of 8.0 rad/s. The angular
speed is then increased to 10 rad/s over the next 4.0 seconds. Assume that the angular acceleration is
constant.

… 11. What is the average angular speed of the grindstone?

(a) 0.5 rad/s (c) 4.5 rad/s (e) 18 rad/s
(b) 2.0 rad/s (d) 9.0 rad/s

ˆ 12. What is the magnitude of the angular acceleration of the grindstone?

(a) 0.50 rad/s2 (c) 4.5 rad/s2 (e) 18 rad/s2
(b) 2.0 rad/s2 (d) 9.0 rad/s2

„ 13. Through how many revolutions does the grindstone turn during the 4.0-second interval?
(a) 0.64 (c) 4.0 (e) 36
(b) 3.8 (d) 5.7

ˆ 14. A grindstone, initially at rest, is given a constant angular acceleration so that it makes 20.0 rev in the
first 8.00 s. What is its angular acceleration?
(a) 0.313 rad/s2 (c) 2.50 rad/s2 (e) 3.93 rad/s2
(b) 0.625 rad/s 2 (d) 1.97 rad/s 2

ˆ 15. A wheel, originally rotating at 126 rad/s undergoes a constant angular deceleration of 5.00 rad/s2.
What is its angular speed after it has turned through an angle of 628 radians?
(a) 15 rad/s (c) 98 rad/s (e) 150 rad/s
(b) 19 rad/s (d) 121 rad/s

ˆ 16. A wheel turns through an angle of 188 radians in 8.0 s; and its angular speed at the end of the period
is 40 rad/s. If the angular acceleration is constant, what was the angular speed of the wheel at the
beginning of the 8.0 s interval?
(a) 4.8 rad/s (c) 9.1 rad/s (e) 32.5 rad/s
(b) 7.0 rad/s (d) 23.5 rad/s

ˆ 17. A spinning disc rotating at 130 rev/min slows and stops 31 s later. How many revolutions did the
disc make during this time?
(a) 34 (c) 8.4 (e) 4.2
(b) 67 (d) 17
86 Chapter 8 Rotational Kinematics

ˆ 18. A 1.0-m roulette wheel reaches a maximum angular speed of 18 rad/s before it begins decelerating.
After reaching this maximum angular speed, it turns through 35 revolutions (220 rad) before it stops.
How long did it take the wheel to stop after reaching its maximum angular speed?
(a) 12 s (b) 3.7 s (e) 24 s
(b) 48 s (d) 8.8 s

Section 8.4 Angular Variables and Tangential Variables

ˆ 19. What is the tangential speed of a lug nut on a wheel of a car if the lug nut is located 0.114 m from the
axis of rotation; and the wheel is rotating at 6.53 rev/sec?
(a) 0.745 m/s (c) 2.98 m/s (e) 9.36 m/s
(b) 1.49 m/s (d) 4.68 m/s

ˆ 20. A 0.254-m diameter circular saw blade rotates at a constant angular speed of 117 rad/s. What is the
tangential speed of the tip of a saw tooth at the edge of the blade?
(a) 29.7 m/s (c) 9.46 m/s (e) 2.17 m/s
(b) 14.9 m/s (d) 7.45 m/s

„ 21. What is the tangential speed of Nairobi, Kenya, a city near the equator? The earth makes one
revolution every 23.93 h and has an equatorial radius of 6380 km.
(a) 74.0 m/s (c) 148 m/s (e) 465 m/s
(b) 116 m/s (d) 232 m/s

Questions 22 and 23 pertain to the following situation:

On an amusement park ride, passengers are seated in a horizontal circle of radius 7.5 m. The seats
begin from rest and are uniformly accelerated for 21 seconds to a maximum rotational speed of 1.4
rad/s.

„ 22. What is the tangential acceleration of the passengers during the first 21 s of the ride?
(a) 0.067 m/s2 (c) 1.4 m/s2 (e) 11 m/s2
2 2
(b) 0.50 m/s (d) 7.5 m/s

„ 23. What is the instantaneous tangential speed of the passengers 15 s after the acceleration begins?
(a) 0.067 m/s (c) 1.4 m/s (e) 11 m/s
(b) 0.50 m/s (d) 7.5 m/s

Section 8.5 Centripetal Acceleration and Tangential Acceleration

… 24. A rigid body rotates about a fixed axis with a constant angular acceleration. Which one of the
following statements is true concerning the tangential acceleration of any point on the body?
(a) The tangential acceleration is zero m/s2.
(b) The tangential acceleration depends on the angular velocity.
(c) The tangential acceleration is equal to the centripetal acceleration.
(d) The tangential acceleration is constant in both magnitude and direction.
(e) The tangential acceleration depends on the change in the angular velocity.

ˆ 25. A circular disk of radius 0.010 m rotates with a constant angular speed of 5.0 rev/s. What is the
acceleration of a point on the edge of the disk?
(a) 0.31 m/s2 (c) 9.9 m/s2 (e) zero m/s2
2 2
(b) 1.6 m/s (d) 2500 m/s
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 87

„ 26. A circular disk of radius 2.0 m rotates, starting from rest, with a constant angular acceleration of 20.0
rad/s2. What is the tangential acceleration of a point on the edge of the disk at the instant that its
angular speed is 1.0 rev/s?
(a) 40 m/s2 (c) 110 m/s2 (e) zero m/s2
2 2
(b) 79 m/s (d) 120 m/s

… 27. Two points are located on a rigid wheel that is rotating with decreasing A•
angular velocity about a fixed axis. Point A is located on the rim of the
wheel and point B is halfway between the rim and the axis. Which one of B •
the following statements concerning this situation is true?
(a) Both points have the same centripetal acceleration.
(b) Both points have the same tangential acceleration.
(c) The angular velocity at point A is greater than that of point B.
(d) Both points have the same instantaneous angular velocity.
(e) Each second, point A turns through a greater angle than point B.

Questions 28 through 30 pertain to the statement below:

A wheel of radius 0.5 m rotates with a constant angular speed about an axis perpendicular to its
center. A point on the wheel that is 0.2 m from the center has a tangential speed of 2 m/s.

ˆ 28. Determine the angular speed of the wheel.

(a) 0.4 rad/s (c) 4.0 rad/s (e) 20 rad/s
(b) 2.0 rad/s (d) 10 rad/s

ˆ 29. Determine the tangential speed of a point 0.4 m from the center of the wheel.
(a) 0.4 m/s (c) 4 m/s (e) 20 m/s
(b) 2 m/s (d) 10 m/s

ˆ 30. Determine the tangential acceleration of the point that is 0.2 m from the center.
(a) 0.4 m/s2 (c) 4.0 m/s2 (e) zero m/s2
2 2
(b) 2.0 m/s (d) 10 m/s

„ 31. The original Ferris wheel had a radius of 38 m and completed a full revolution (2π radians) every
two minutes when operating at its maximum speed. If the wheel were uniformly slowed from its
maximum speed to a stop in 35 seconds, what would be the magnitude of the tangential
acceleration at the outer rim of the wheel during its deceleration?
(a) 0.0015 m/s2 (c) 0.54 m/s2 (e) 6.8 m/s2
2 2
(b) 0.057 m/s (d) 1.6 m/s

ˆ 32. A ball attached to a string starts at rest and undergoes a constant angular acceleration as it travels in
a horizontal circle of radius 0.30 m. After 0.65 sec, the angular speed of the ball is 9.7 rad/s. What
is the tangential acceleration of the ball?
(a) 4.5 m/s2 (c) 15 m/s2 (e) 28 m/s2
2 2
(b) 0.32 m/s (d) 7.6 m/s

Section 8.6 Rolling Motion

ˆ 33. A bicycle with wheels of radius 0.4 m travels on a level road at a speed of 8 m/s.
What is the angular speed of the wheels?
(a) 10 rad/s (c) (π/10) rad/s (e) (20/π) rad/s
(b) 20 rad/s (d) (10π) rad/s
88 Chapter 8 Rotational Kinematics

ˆ 34. Two motorcycles are riding around a circular track at the same angular velocity. One motorcycle
is at a radius of 15 m; and the second is at a radius of 18 m. What is the ratio of their linear
speeds, v2/v1?
(a) 1.0 (c) 1.4 (e) 1.2
(b) 0.83 (d) 0.71

„ 35. A bicycle has tires of radius 0.35 meters. If the bicycle is traveling at a constant speed of 12 m/s, at
approximately what angular speed are the tires rotating?
(a) 85 rev/min (c) 214 rev/min (e) 423 rev/min
(b) 197 rev/min (d) 327 rev/min

„ 36. Joe is painting the floor of his basement using a paint roller. The roller
has a mass of 2.4 kg and a radius of 3.8 cm. In rolling the roller across
the floor, Joe applies a force F = 16 N directed at an angle of 35° as 35°
shown. Ignoring the mass of the roller handle, what is the magnitude
of the angular acceleration of the roller?
(a) 7.2 × 101 rad/s2 (d) 2.3 × 102 rad/s2
(b) 1.0 × 10 rad/s
2 2
(e) 2.8 × 102 rad/s2
(c) 1.7 × 10 rad/s
2 2

… 37. A car travels in a circular path with constant speed. Which one of the following quantities is
constant and non-zero for this car?
(a) linear velocity (c) centripetal acceleration (e) total acceleration
(b) angular velocity (d) angular acceleration

ˆ 38. Which statement concerning a wheel undergoing rolling motion is true?

(a) The angular acceleration of the wheel must be zero m/s2.
(b) The tangential velocity is the same for all points on the wheel.
(c) The linear velocity for all points on the rim of the wheel is non-zero.
(d) The tangential velocity is the same for all points on the rim of the wheel.
(e) There is no slipping at the point where the wheel touches the surface on which it is rolling.

ˆ 39. A circular hoop rolls without slipping on a flat horizontal surface. Which one of the following is
necessarily true?
(a) All points on the rim of the hoop have the same speed.
(b) All points on the rim of the hoop have the same velocity.
(c) Every point on the rim of the wheel has a different velocity.
(d) All points on the rim of the hoop have acceleration vectors that are tangent to the hoop.
(e) All points on the rim of the hoop have acceleration vectors that point toward the center of the
hoop.

ˆ 40. A bicycle wheel of radius 0.70 m is turning at an angular speed of 6.3 rad/s as it rolls on a
horizontal surface without slipping. What is the linear speed of the wheel?
(a) 1.4 m/s (b) 0.11 m/s (e) 9.1 m/s
(b) 28 m/s (d) 4.4 m/s
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 89

Section 8.7 The Vector Nature of Angular Variables

ˆ 41. A top is spinning counterclockwise as shown in the figure. It is
also moving to the right with a linear speed v. What is the
direction of the angular velocity? v
(a) upward (d) right
(b) downward (e) into the paper
(c) left

ˆ 42. A car is moving along a horizontal road at a constant velocity that is directed 45° south of east. What
is the direction of the angular velocity of the wheels of the car?
(a) 45° south of west (c) 45° south of east (e) due east
(b) 45° north of west (d) 45° north of east

Additional Problems
Questions 43 through 45 pertain to the statement below:

A grindstone of radius 1.0 m is spinning with a constant angular speed of 2.0 rad/s.

ˆ 43. What is the tangential speed of a point on the rim of the grindstone?
(a) zero m/s (c) 1.0 m/s (e) 4.0 m/s
(b) 0.5 m/s (d) 2.0 m/s

ˆ 44. What is the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration of a point on the rim of the grindstone?
(a) zero m/s2 (c) 1.0 m/s2 (e) 4.0 m/s2
(b) 0.5 m/s2 (d) 2.0 m/s2

ˆ 45. What is the magnitude of the tangential acceleration of a point on the rim of the wheel?
(a) zero m/s2 (c) 1.0 m/s2 (e) 4.0 m/s2
(b) 0.5 m/s2 (d) 2.0 m/s2

Questions 46 through 49 pertain to the statement below:

A long thin rod of length 2L rotates with a constant angular acceleration of 10 rad/s2 about an axis
that is perpendicular to the rod and passes through its center.

ˆ 46. What is the ratio of the tangential acceleration of a point on the end of the rod to that of a point a
distance L/2 from the end of the rod?
(a) 1:1 (c) 2:1 (e) 1:4
(b) 1:2 (d) 4:1

ˆ 47. What is the ratio of the centripetal acceleration of a point on the end of the rod to that of a point a
distance L/2 from the end of the rod?
(a) 1:1 (c) 2:1 (e) 1:4
(b) 1:2 (d) 4:1

… 48. What is the ratio of the angular speed (at any instant) of a point on the end of the rod to that of a
point a distance L/2 from the end of the rod?
(a) 1:1 (c) 2:1 (e) 1:4
(b) 1:2 (d) 4:1
90 Chapter 8 Rotational Kinematics

ˆ 49. What is the ratio of the tangential speed (at any instant) of a point on the end of the rod to that of a
point a distance L/2 from the end of the rod?
(a) 1:1 (c) 2:1 (e) 1:4
(b) 1:2 (d) 4:1

Questions 50 and 51 pertain to the following situation:

A bicycle wheel of radius 0.70 m is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface with an angular
speed of 2.0 rev/s when the cyclist begins to uniformly apply the brakes. The bicycle stops in 5.0 s.

ˆ 50. Through how many revolutions did the wheel turn during the 5.0 seconds of braking?
(a) 10 rev (c) 9.6 rev (e) 0.4 rev
(b) 2.0 rev (d) 5.0 rev

„ 51. How far did the bicycle travel during the 5.0 seconds of braking?
(a) 1.8 m (c) 22 m (e) 44 m
(b) 8.8 m (d) 42 m

Questions 52 through 55 pertain to the statement below:

A 2.0-kg solid disk rolls without slipping on a A

horizontal surface so that its center proceeds to the
5.0 m/s
right with speed 5.0 m/s. B

The point A is the uppermost point on the disk and

the point B is along the horizontal line that connects
the center of the disk to the rim.

… 52. What is the direction of the disk’s angular velocity?

(a) to the left (d) out of the paper
(b) to the right (e) It varies from point to point on the disk.
(c) into the paper

… 53. What is the instantaneous speed of point A with respect to the ground?
(a) zero m/s (c) 5.0 m/s (e) 10.0 m/s
(b) 2.5 m/s (d) 7.1 m/s

ˆ 54. What is the instantaneous speed of point B with respect to the ground?
(a) zero m/s (c) 7.1 m/s (e) 10.0 m/s
(b) 5.0 m/s (d) 7.5 m/s

… 55. What is the instantaneous speed of the point of the disk that makes contact with the surface?
(a) zero m/s (c) 7.1 m/s (e) 10.0 m/s
(b) 5.0 m/s (d) 7.5 m/s
 chapter F
ROTATIONAL DYNAMICS

Section 9.1 The Effects of Forces and Torques on the Motion of Rigid Objects
… 1. Complete the following statement: When a net torque is applied to a rigid object, it always
produces a
(a) constant acceleration. (d) constant angular momentum.
(b) rotational equilibrium. (e) change in angular velocity.
(c) constant angular velocity.

ˆ 2. A wrench is used to tighten a nut as shown in

the figure. A 12-N force is applied 7.0 cm
from the axis of rotation. What is the torque
due to the applied force? 12 N
(a) 0.58 N ⋅ m
(b) 0.84 N ⋅ m 7.0 cm
(c) 1.71 N ⋅ m
(d) 14 N ⋅ m
(e) 58 N ⋅ m

F
„ 3. A string is tied to a doorknob 0.79 m from the hinge as shown in
the figure. At the instant shown, the force applied to the string is 33°
5.0 N. What is the torque on the door?
(a) 3.3 N ⋅ m (d) 0.84 N ⋅ m
57°
(b) 2.2 N ⋅ m e) 0.40 N ⋅ m
(c) 1.1 N ⋅ m

… 4. A uniform 13-kg trap door is oriented horizontally and 0.75 m

hinged as shown. What is the magnitude of the torque on
the door at the instant that the release is activated and the
door can freely rotate?
(a) 4.9 N ⋅ m (d) 72 N ⋅ m release hinge
(b) 9.8 N ⋅ m (e) 96 N ⋅ m
(c) 48 N ⋅ m

Section 9.2 Rigid Objects in Equilibrium

Section 9.3 Center of Gravity
… 5. Complete the following statement: A body is in translational equilibrium
(a) only if it is at rest.
(b) only if it is moving with constant velocity.
(c) only if it is moving with constant acceleration.
(d) if it is either at rest or moving with constant velocity.
(e) if it is moving with either constant velocity or constant acceleration.
92 Chapter 9 Rotational Dynamics

„ 6. A horizontal, 10-m plank weighs 100 N. It

rests on two supports that are placed 1.0 m
from each end as shown in the figure. How
close to one end can an 800-N person stand
without causing the plank to tip?
(a) 0 m (d) 0.7 m
(b) 0.3 m (e) 0.9 m 1.0 m 1.0 m
(c) 0.5 m

ˆ 7. A 3.0-kg ball and a 1.0-kg ball are b

placed at opposite ends of a a
massless beam so that the system 3.0 kg 1.0 kg
is in equilibrium as shown. Note:
The drawing is not drawn to scale.
What is the ratio of the lengths,
b/a?
(a) 2.0 (c) 3.0 (e) 5.0
(b) 2.5 (d) 4.0

ˆ 8. One end of a rope is tied to the handle of a horizontally-oriented and F

uniform door. A force F is applied to the other end of the rope as 20.0°
shown in the drawing. The door has a weight of 145 N and is hinged
on the right. What is the maximum magnitude of F for which the
door will remain at rest? 2.50 m
(a) 145 N (d) 424 N 3.13 m
(b) 265 N (e) 530 N
(c) 381 N

„ 9. A meter stick is pivoted at the 0.50-m line. A 3.0-kg object is hung from the 0.10-m line.
Where should a 5.0-kg object be hung to achieve equilibrium?
(a) 0.06-m line (d) 0.74-m line
(b) 0.24-m line (e) A 5.0-kg object cannot be used to
(c) 0.56-m line result in equilibrium in this system.

ˆ 10. In the drawing shown, the large wheel has a radius of 8.5 m. A
rope is wrapped around the edge of the wheel and a 7.6 kg-box
hangs from the rope. A smaller disk of radius 1.9 m is attached
to the wheel. A rope is wrapped around the edge of the disk as
shown. An axis of rotation passes through the center of the
wheel-disk system. What is the value of the mass M that will
prevent the wheel from rotating?
(a) 34 kg (d) 3.8 kg M
(b) 12 kg (e) 46 kg
(c) 1.7 kg 7.6 kg

Questions 11 and 12 pertain to the situation

described below:

An 80-kg man balances the boy on a teeter-

boy man
totter as shown.
fulcrum
Note: Ignore the weight of the board. 4m 1m
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 93

ˆ 11. What is the approximate mass of the boy?

(a) 10 kg (c) 40 kg (e) 50 kg
(b) 20 kg (d) 45 kg

… 12. What, approximately, is the magnitude of the downward force exerted on the fulcrum?
(a) zero newtons (c) 600 N (e) 1000 N
(b) 100 N (d) 800 N

… 13. Which one of the following statements most accurately describes the center of gravity of an object?
(a) It is the point where gravity acts on the object.
(b) It is the point where all the mass is concentrated.
(c) It must be experimentally determined for all objects.
(d) It is the point on the object where all the weight is concentrated.
(e) It is the point from which the torque produced by the weight of the object can be calculated.

ˆ 14. Consider four point masses located as shown in the sketch. The acceleration due to gravity is the
same everywhere.
0 1 kg 2 kg 3 kg 4 kg
x
0 1m 2m 3m 4m
What is the x coordinate of the center of gravity for this system?
(a) 2.0 m (c) 3.0 m (e) 3.8 m
(b) 2.7 m (d) 3.3 m

ˆ 15. Three objects are positioned along the x axis as follows: 4.4 kg at x = + 1.1 m, 3.7 kg at x = –0.80 m,
and 2.9 kg at x = –1.6 m. The acceleration due to gravity is the same everywhere. What is the
distance from the location of the center of gravity to the location of the center of mass for this system?
(a) zero meters (c) –0.26 m (e) +0.52 m
(b) –0.52 m (d) +0.26 m

ˆ 16. A 14-kg beam is hinged at one end. A 6.0-kg axis

triangular object and a 7.5-kg I-shaped object are
positioned as shown. Dots indicate the individual
0.36 m

0.53 m

1.92 m

centers of gravity of the beam and the two objects.

What is the distance from the axis of rotation to the
center of gravity for this system?
(a) 1.3 m (c) 0.96 m (e) 0.71 m
(b) 1.1 m (d) 0.89 m

Section 9.4 Newton’s Second Law for Rotational Motion about a Fixed Axis
„ 17. Consider the following four objects:
a hoop a solid sphere
a flat disk a hollow sphere
Each of the objects has mass M and radius R. The axis of rotation passes through the center of each
object, and is perpendicular to the plane of the hoop and the plane of the flat disk. Which object
requires the largest torque to give it the same angular acceleration?
(a) the solid sphere (d) the flat disk
(b) the hollow sphere (e) both the solid and the hollow spheres
(c) the hoop
94 Chapter 9 Rotational Dynamics

„ 18. A 50-N ⋅ m torque acts on a wheel with a moment of inertia 150 kg ⋅ m2. If the wheel starts from
rest, how long will it take the wheel to make one revolution?
(a) 0.33 s (c) 2.4 s (e) 10 s
(b) 0.66 s (d) 6.1 s

ˆ 19. A string is wrapped around a pulley of radius 0.05 m and moment of inertia F
0.2 kg ⋅ m2. If the string is pulled with a force F, the resulting angular
acceleration of the pulley is 2 rad/s2. Determine the magnitude of the force F.
(a) 0.4 N (c) 8 N (e) 40 N
(b) 2 N (d) 16 N

ˆ 20. A massless frame in the shape of a square with 2-m sides 1 1

has a 1-kg ball at each corner. What is the moment of 2
inertia of the four balls about an axis through the corner
marked O and perpendicular to the plane of the paper?
(a) 4 kg ⋅ m2
(b) 8 kg ⋅ m2
1 1
(c) 10 kg ⋅ m2
O
(d) 12 kg ⋅ m2
(e) 16 kg ⋅ m2

„ 21. A certain merry-go-round is accelerated uniformly from rest and attains an angular speed of 0.4
rad/s in the first 10 seconds. If the net applied torque is 2000 N ⋅ m, what is the moment of inertia
of the merry-go-round?
(a) 400 kg ⋅ m2 (d) 800 kg ⋅ m2
(b) 50 000 kg ⋅ m 2
(e) This cannot be determined since the
(c) 5000 kg ⋅ m2 radius is not specified.

10.0 N
ˆ 22. The drawing shows the top view of a door that is 2 m
wide. Two forces are applied to the door as indicated. 60.0°
What is the magnitude of the net torque on the door
with respect to the hinge? 1.0 m 60.0°
(a) 0 N ⋅ m (d) 10.0 N ⋅ m
(b) 5.0 N ⋅ m (e) 26.0 N ⋅ m 10.0 N
(c) 8.7 N ⋅ m

ˆ 23. Which one of the following statements concerning the moment of inertia I is false?
(a) I may be expressed in units of kg ⋅ m2.
(b) I depends on the angular acceleration of the object as it rotates.
(c) I depends on the location of the rotation axis relative to the particles that make up the object.
(d) I depends on the orientation of the rotation axis relative to the particles that make up the object.
(e) Of the particles that make up an object, the particle with the smallest mass may contribute the
greatest amount to I.

ˆ 24. Two uniform solid spheres, A and B have the same mass. The radius of sphere B is twice that of
sphere A. The axis of rotation passes through each sphere. Which one of the following statements
concerning the moments of inertia of these spheres is true?
(a) The moment of inertia of A is one-fourth that of B.
(b) The moment of inertia of A is one-half that of B.
(c) The moment of inertia of A is 5/4 that of B.
(d) The moment of inertia of A is 5/8 that of B.
(e) The two spheres have equal moments of inertia.
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 95

ˆ 25. Three objects are attached to a massless rigid rod that has an axis of rotation as shown.
Assuming all of the mass of each object is located at the point shown for each, calculate the
moment of inertia of this system.
axis

1.0 m 2.0 kg

1.0 m 1.0 kg
0.50 kg

0.50 m
(a) 1.3 kg ⋅ m 2
(c) 5.3 kg ⋅ m 2
(e) 9.1 kg ⋅ m2
(b) 3.1 kg ⋅ m2 (d) 7.2 kg ⋅ m2

ˆ 26. Three children are pulling on a rotatable platform on a

playground. The platform has a radius of 3.65 m. In the
40.0 N
picture, two children are pulling with equal forces of
40.0 N in an attempt to make the platform rotate
clockwise. The third child applies a force of 60 N as
shown. What is the net torque on the platform?
60.0 N
Note: “ccw” is counterclockwise and “cw” is clockwise.
40.0 N
(a) 73 N ⋅ m, ccw (c) 511 N ⋅ m, ccw (e) zero N ⋅ m
(b) 73 N ⋅ m, cw (d) 511 N ⋅ m, cw

ˆ 27. A string is wrapped around a pulley of radius 0.10 m and moment of inertia 0.15 kg ⋅ m2. The string is
pulled with a force of 12 N. What is the magnitude of the resulting angular acceleration of the pulley?
(a) 18 rad/s2 (c) 80 rad/s2 (e) 8.0 rad/s2
2 2
(b) 0.13 rad/s (d) 0.055 rad/s

„ 28. A 45-N brick is suspended by a light string from

a 2.0-kg pulley. The brick is released from rest
and falls to the floor below as the pulley rotates
through 5.0 rad. The pulley may be considered a
solid disk of radius 1.5 m. What is the angular
speed of the pulley?
(a) 17 rad/s (d) 8.1 rad/s
(b) 15 rad/s (e) 7.3 rad/s
(c) 9.4 rad/s

Section 9.5 Rotational Work and Energy

… 29. A hollow cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls down an inclined plane. A block of mass M slides
down an identical inclined plane. Complete the following statement: If both objects are released at
the same time,
(a) the cylinder will reach the bottom first.
(b) the block will reach the bottom first.
(c) the block will reach the bottom with the greater kinetic energy.
(d) the cylinder will reach the bottom with the greater kinetic energy.
(e) both the block and the cylinder will reach the bottom at the same time.
96 Chapter 9 Rotational Dynamics

… 30. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere each of mass M and radius R are released at the same time from
the top of an inclined plane. Which one of the following statements is necessarily true?
(a) The solid sphere will reach the bottom first.
(b) The hollow sphere will reach the bottom first.
(c) Both spheres will reach the bottom at the same time.
(d) The solid sphere will reach the bottom with the greater kinetic energy.
(e) The hollow sphere will reach the bottom with the greater kinetic energy.

ˆ 31. Consider the following three objects, each of the same mass and radius:

(1) a solid sphere (2) a solid disk (3) a hoop

All three are released from rest at the top of an inclined plane. The three objects proceed down the
incline undergoing rolling motion without slipping. In which order do the objects reach the
bottom of the incline?
(a) 3, 1, 2 (c) 1, 2, 3 (e) All three reach the bottom
(b) 2, 3, 1 (d) 3, 2, 1 at the same time.

ˆ 32. A 50-kg rider on a moped of mass 75 kg is traveling with a speed of 20 m/s. Each of the two wheels
of the moped has a radius of 0.2 m and a moment of inertia of 0.2 kg ⋅ m2. What is the total
rotational kinetic energy of the wheels?
(a) 80 J (c) 500 J (e) 4000 J
(b) 100 J (d) 2000 J

ˆ 33. A 1.0-kg wheel in the form of a solid disk rolls along a horizontal surface with a speed of 6.0 m/s.
What is the total kinetic energy of the wheel?
(a) 9.0 J (c) 27 J (e) 54 J
(b) 18 J (d) 36 J

ˆ 34. A 2.0-kg solid cylinder of radius 0.5 m rotates at a rate of 40 rad/s about its cylindrical axis. What
power is required to bring the cylinder to rest in 10 s?
(a) 20 W (c) 160 W (e) 400 W
(b) 40 W (d) 200 W

„ 35. A solid cylinder of radius 0.35 m is released from

rest from a height of 1.8 m and rolls down the
incline as shown. What is the angular speed of the 1.8 m
cylinder when it reaches the horizontal surface?

(a) 8.2 rad/s (c) 34 rad/s (e) This cannot be determined

(b) 14 rad/s (d) 67 rad/s because the mass is
unknown.

ˆ 36. A solid sphere rolls without slipping along a horizontal surface. What percentage of its total kinetic
energy is rotational kinetic energy?
(a) 33 % (c) 12 % (e) 29 %
(b) 50 % (d) 75 %

ˆ 37. A hollow sphere of radius 0.25 m is rotating at 13 rad/s about an axis that passes through its center.
The mass of the sphere is 3.8 kg. Assuming a constant net torque is applied to the sphere, how
much work is required to bring the sphere to a stop?
(a) 1.0 J (c) 13 J (e) 38 J
(b) 3.8 J (d) 25 J
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 97

ˆ 38. A ceiling fan has five blades, each with a mass of 0.34 kg and a length of 0.66 m. The fan is
operating in its “low” setting at which the angular speed is 9.4 rad/s. If the blades can be
approximated as uniform thin rods that rotate about one end, what is the total rotational kinetic
energy of the five blades?
(a) 35 J (c) 23 J (e) 11 J
(b) 29 J (d) 17 J

„ 39. A solid cylinder with a mass m and radius r is mounted so that it can be rotated about an axis that
passes through the center of both ends. At what angular speed ω must the cylinder rotate to have the
same total kinetic energy that it would have if it were moving horizontally with a speed v without
rotation?
v v v2
(a) ω = (c) ω = (e) ω =
r 2r 2r
v2 v
(b) ω = (d) ω = 2
r2 r

Section 9.6 Angular Momentum

… 40. A child standing on the edge of a freely spinning merry-go-round moves quickly to the center.
Which one of the following statements is necessarily true concerning this event and why?
(a) The angular speed of the system decreases because the moment of inertia of the system has
increased.
(b) The angular speed of the system increases because the moment of inertia of the system has
increased.
(c) The angular speed of the system decreases because the moment of inertia of the system has
decreased.
(d) The angular speed of the system increases because the moment of inertia of the system has
decreased.
(e) The angular speed of the system remains the same because the net torque on the merry-go-
round is zero N ⋅ m.

… 41. What happens when a spinning ice skater draws in her outstretched arms?
(a) Her angular momentum decreases.
(b) Her angular momentum increases.
(c) Her moment of inertia decreases causing her to speed up.
(d) Her moment of inertia decreases causing her to slow down.
(e) The torque that she exerts increases her moment of inertia.

… 42. A spinning star begins to collapse under its own gravitational pull. Which one of the following
occurs as the star becomes smaller?
(a) The star’s angular velocity decreases.
(b) The star’s angular momentum remains constant.
(c) The star’s angular momentum increases.
(d) The star’s angular velocity remains constant.
(e) Both the star’s angular momentum and its angular velocity remain constant.

ˆ 43. A spinning skater draws in her outstretched arms thereby reducing her moment of inertia by a factor
of 2. Determine the ratio of her final kinetic energy to her initial kinetic energy.
(a) 0.5 (c) 2 (e) 16
(b) 1 (d) 4
98 Chapter 9 Rotational Dynamics

„ 44. A 1500-kg satellite orbits a planet in a circular orbit of radius 6.2 × 106 m. What is the angular
momentum of the satellite in its orbit around the planet if the satellite completes one orbit every
1.5 × 104 s?
(a) 3.9 × 106 kg ⋅ m2/s (c) 6.2 × 108 kg ⋅ m2/s (e) 2.4 × 1013 kg ⋅ m2/s
(b) 1.4 × 1014 kg ⋅ m2/s (d) 8.1 × 1011 kg ⋅ m2/s

ˆ 45. A 60.0-kg skater begins a spin with an angular speed of 6.0 rad/s. By changing the position of her
arms, the skater decreases her moment of inertia by 50 %. What is the skater's final angular speed?
(a) 3.0 rad/s (c) 9.0 rad/s (e) 18 rad/s
(b) 4.5 rad/s (d) 12 rad/s

A
ˆ 46. Two equal spheres, labeled A and B in the figure, are attached to a R
massless rod with a frictionless pivot at the point P. The system is made
to rotate clockwise with angular speed ω on a horizontal, frictionless R/2
tabletop. Sphere A collides with and sticks to another equal sphere that is P
at rest on the tabletop. Note: the masses of all three spheres are equal. B
What is the angular speed of the system immediately after the collision?
(a) ω (c) 0.60ω (e) 0.29ω
(b) 0.82ω (d) 0.56ω

„ 47. Planets A and B are uniform solid spheres that rotate at a constant speed about axes through their
centers. Although B has twice the mass and three times the radius of A, each planet has the same
rotational kinetic energy. What is the ratio ωB/ωA of their angular speeds?
(a) 0.055 (c) 0.165 (e) 0.236
(b) 0.093 (d) 0.191

ˆ 48. A solid sphere of radius R rotates about a diameter with an angular speed ω. The sphere then
collapses under the action of internal forces to a final radius R/2. What is the final angular speed of
the sphere?
(a) ω/4 (c) ω (e) 4ω
(b) ω/2 (d) 2ω

… 49. A ball of mass M moves in a circular path on a horizontal,

frictionless surface. It is attached to a light string that passes
through a hole in the center of the table. If the string is pulled
down, thereby reducing the radius of the path of the ball, the
speed of the ball is observed to increase. Complete the
following sentence: This occurs because
(a) the linear momentum of the ball is conserved.
(b) it is required by Newton's first law of motion.
(c) the angular momentum of the ball is conserved.
(d) the angular momentum of the ball must increase.
(e) the total mechanical energy of the ball must remain constant.

„ 50. A 3.0-kg ball moves in a straight line at 10 m/s as shown in the figure. 4.0 m
At the instant shown, what is its angular momentum about the point P?
(a) 30 kg ⋅ m2/s (d) 150 kg ⋅ m2/s
3.0 m
(b) 90 kg ⋅ m /s
2
(e) zero kg ⋅ m2/s
(c) 120 kg ⋅ m /s2
P
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 99

Questions 51 and 52 pertain to the situation described below:

Two skaters, each of mass 40 kg, approach each other along
parallel paths that are separated by a distance of 2 m. Both Top 10 m/s
skaters have a speed of 10 m/s. View
The first skater carries a 2-m pole that may be considered 2m
massless. As he passes the pole, the second skater catches
pole
hold of the end. The two skaters then go around in a circle 10 m/s
about the center of the pole.

„ 51. What is the angular speed of the skaters after they have linked together?
(a) 4 rad/s (c) 10 rad/s (e) 40 rad/s
(b) 5 rad/s (d) 20 rad/s

ˆ 52. What is their combined angular momentum about the center of the pole?
(a) 2 kg ⋅ m2/s (c) 80 kg ⋅ m2/s (e) 800 kg ⋅ m2/s
(b) 40 kg ⋅ m /s
2
(d) 400 kg ⋅ m /s
2

Questions 53 and 54 pertain to the situation described below:

A 2.0-kg hoop rolls without slipping on a horizontal surface so that its center proceeds to the right
with a constant linear speed of 6.0 m/s.

6 m/s
2.0 kg

… 53. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the angular momentum of this hoop?
(a) It points into the paper. (d) It points to the right.
(b) It points out of the paper. (e) It varies from point to point on the hoop.
(c) It points to the left.

ˆ 54. What is the total kinetic energy of the hoop?

(a) 36 J (c) 72 J (e) 140 J
(b) 54 J (d) 96 J

Additional Problems
ˆ 55. A compact disc rotates about its center at constant angular speed. Which one of the following
quantities is constant and non-zero for a dust particle near the edge of the disc?
(a) linear velocity (d) angular momentum
(b) torque about the center of the disc (e) angular acceleration
(c) centripetal acceleration

„ 56. A steady horizontal force F of magnitude 21 N is applied at the

F = 21 N
axle of a solid disk as shown. The disk has mass 2.0 kg and
diameter 0.10 m. What is the linear speed of the center of the
disk after it has moved 12 m?
(a) 9.0 m/s (c) 16 m/s (e) 44 m/s
(b) 13 m/s (d) 22 m/s
100 Chapter 9 Rotational Dynamics

„ 57. A uniform disk of radius 1.2 m and mass 0.60 kg is rotating rotating
at 25 rad/s around an axis that passes through its center and is disk 4.5 N
perpendicular to the disk. A rod makes contact with the 0.75 m
rotating disk with a force of 4.5 N at a point 0.75 m from the
axis of rotation as shown. The disk is brought to a stop in 5.0
s. What is the coefficient of kinetic friction for the two
materials in contact?
(a) 0.22 (c) 0.64 (e) 0.55
(b) 0.15 (d) 0.37
 chapter SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION
AND ELASTICITY

Section 10.1 The Ideal Spring and Simple Harmonic Motion

… 1. A 25-coil spring with a spring constant of 350 N/m is cut into five equal springs with five coils each.
What is the spring constant of each of the 5-coil springs?
(a) 14 N/m (c) 350 N/m (e) 1750 N/m
(b) 70 N/m (d) 700 N/m

ˆ 2. A block is suspended from the ceiling by a long, thin strip of tungsten

metal. The strip behaves as a spring. To produce a 0.25 m horizontal
deflection of the block, a force of 6.5 N is required. Calculate the
spring constant for the tungsten strip.
6.5 N
(a) 0.038 N/m (d) 13 N/m
(b) 1.2 N/m (e) 26 N/m
(c) 1.6 N/m
0.25 m

4 5
ˆ 3. In the produce section of a supermarket, five pears are placed on a spring scale. 3 6
2 7
The placement of the pears stretches the spring and causes the dial to move
1 kg 8
from zero to a reading of 2.0 kg. If the spring constant is 450 N/m, what is the
0 9
displacement of the spring due to the weight of the pears?
(a) 0.0044 m
(b) 0.0088 m
(c) 0.018 m
(d) 0.044 m
(e) 0.088 m

ˆ 4. Gina’s favorite exercise equipment at the gym consists of various springs. In one exercise, she pulls
a handle grip attached to the free end of a spring to 0.80 m from its unstrained position. The other
end of the spring (spring constant = 45 N/m) is held in place by the equipment frame. What is the
magnitude of the force that Gina is applying to the handle grip?
(a) 29 N (c) 42 N (e) 66 N
(b) 36 N (d) 54 N

„ 5. A vertical block-spring system on earth has a period of 6.0 s. What is the period of this same system
on the moon where the acceleration due to gravity is roughly 1/6 that of earth?
(a) 1.0 s (c) 6.0 s (e) 36 s
(b) 2.4 s (d) 15 s

Section 10.2 Simple Harmonic Motion and the Reference Circle

ˆ 6. Which one of the following statements is true concerning an object executing simple harmonic
motion?
(a) The object’s velocity is never zero.
(b) The object’s acceleration is never zero.
(c) The object’s velocity and acceleration are simultaneously zero.
(d) The object’s velocity is zero when its acceleration is a maximum.
(e) The object’s maximum acceleration is equal to its maximum velocity.
102 Chapter 10 Rotational Dynamics

„ 7. When a force of 20.0 N is applied to a spring, it elongates 0.20 m. Determine the period of
oscillation of a 4.0-kg object suspended from this spring.
(a) 0.6 s (c) 3.1 s (e) 6.3 s
(b) 1.3 s (d) 4.1 s

… 8. The position of a simple harmonic oscillator is given by x (t ) = (0.50 m ) cos (π3 t ) where t is in
seconds. What is the maximum velocity of this oscillator?
(a) 0.17 m/s (c) 0.67 m/s (e) 2.0 m/s
(b) 0.52 m/s (d) 1.0 m/s

ˆ 9. The position of a simple harmonic oscillator is given by x (t ) = (0.50 m ) cos (π3 t ) where t is in
seconds. What is the period of the oscillator?
(a) 0.17 s (c) 1.5 s (e) 6.0 s
(b) 0.67 s (d) 3.0 s

ˆ 10. A ball hung from a vertical spring oscillates in simple harmonic motion with an angular frequency
of 2.6 rad/s and an amplitude of 0.075 m. What is the maximum acceleration of the ball?
(a) 0.13 m/s2 (c) 0.51 m/s2 (e) 35 m/s2
2 2
(b) 0.20 m/s (d) 2.6 m/s

„ 11. The velocity of a certain simple harmonic oscillator is given by v = −(12 m/s) sin [(6.0 rad/s) t].
What is the amplitude of the simple harmonic motion?
(a) 2.0 m (c) 6.0 m (e) 12 m
(b) 4.0 m (d) 8.0 m

2
„ 12. The acceleration of a certain simple harmonic oscillator is given by a = −(15.8 m/s ) cos (2.51t).
What is the amplitude of the simple harmonic motion?
(a) 2.51 m (c) 6.30 m (e) 15.8 m
(b) 4.41 m (d) 11.1 m

Section 10.3 Energy and Simple Harmonic Motion

ˆ 13. A 1.0-kg object is suspended from a spring with k = 16 N/m. The mass is pulled 0.25 m downward
from its equilibrium position and allowed to oscillate. What is the maximum kinetic energy of the
object?
(a) 0.25 J (c) 1.0 J (e) 4.0 J
(b) 0.50 J (d) 2.0 J

ˆ 14. A spring required a force of 1.0 N to compress it 0.1 m. How much work is required to stretch the
spring 0.4 m?
(a) 0.4 J (c) 0.8 J (e) 4 J
(b) 0.6 J (d) 2 J

ˆ 15. A certain spring compressed 0.20 m has 10 J of elastic potential energy. The spring is then cut into
two halves and one of the halves is compressed by 0.20 m. How much potential energy is stored in
the compressed half of the spring?
(a) 5 J (c) 14 J (e) 40 J
(b) 10 J (d) 20 J
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 103

„ 16. A 10-kg box is at rest at the end of an unstretched spring with

constant k = 4000 N/m. The mass is struck with a hammer giving it a
velocity of 6.0 m/s to the right across a frictionless surface. What is 10 kg
k
the amplitude of the resulting oscillation of this system?
(a) 0.3 m (d) 0.6 m
(b) 0.4 m (e) 2 m
(c) 0.5 m

„ 17. A 1.0-kg block oscillates with a frequency of 10 Hz at the end of a certain spring. The spring is then
cut into two halves. The 1.0-kg block is then made to oscillate at the end of one of the halves.
What is the frequency of oscillation of the block?
(a) 5 Hz (c) 14 Hz (e) 40 Hz
(b) 10 Hz (d) 20 Hz

ˆ 18. A 0.2-kg block is held in place by a force F that results in a 0.10-m

compression of a spring beneath the block. The spring constant is 1.0 × 102 F
N/m. Assuming the mass of the spring is negligible compared to that of the
block, to what maximum height would the block rise if the force F were 0.2 kg
removed.
(a) 0.26 m (d) 5 m
(b) 0.52 m (e) 10 m
(c) 2.5 m

„ 19. A spring with constant k = 40.0 N/m is at the base of

a frictionless, 30.0°-inclined plane. A 0.50-kg block
is pressed against the spring, compressing it 0.20 m
from its equilibrium position. The block is then 0.5 kg
released. If the block is not attached to the spring, 30.0°
how far up the incline will it travel before it stops?
(a) 0.080 m (c) 0.33 m (e) 3.2 m
(b) 0.16 m (d) 1.6 m

ˆ 20. A ping-pong ball weighs 0.025 N. The ball is placed inside a cup that
sits on top of a vertical spring. If the spring is compressed 0.055 m and
released, the maximum height above the compressed position that the compressed
ball reaches is 2.84 m. Neglect air resistance and determine the spring position
constant.
(a) 47 N/m (c) 11 N/m (e) 2.6 N/m
(b) 24 N/m (d) 5.2 N/m

Questions 21 and 22 pertain to the situation described below:

A relaxed spring protrudes from an opening 0.0500 meters as shown in Figure A.

A 1.00-kg block is found to just force the spring completely into the opening as shown in Figure B.

0.0500 m
1.00 kg

Figure A Figure B
104 Chapter 10 Rotational Dynamics

ˆ 21. Determine the spring constant k.

(a) 20.0 N/m (c) 392 N/m (e) 7840 N/m
(b) 196 N/m (d) 3920 N/m

ˆ 22. How much potential energy is stored in the spring in Figure B?

(a) 0.245 J (c) 4.90 J (e) 19.6 J
(b) 0.490 J (d) 9.80 J

ˆ 23. The spring constant for the spring in a special cannon is 1800 N/m. In cocking the cannon, the
spring is compressed 0.55 m. What is the initial speed of a 7.0-kg cannonball at rest on the free end
of the spring when it is released?
(a) 77 m/s (c) 12 m/s (e) 16 m/s
(b) 140 m/s (d) 8.8 m/s

„ 24. A spring with a spring constant k = 1600 N/m is at rest on the bottom of an
inclined plane. A 7.0-kg block slides down the plane and makes contact with the A
B
spring at point A as shown. After contact, the spring is compressed to point B,
0.20 m from point A, where the speed of the block is zero m/s. What was the
55°
speed of the block just before contact with the spring?
(a) 3.2 m/s (c) 2.4 m/s (e) 4.2 m/s
(b) 12 m/s (d) 9.1 m/s

Section 10.4 The Pendulum

ˆ 25. A pendulum is transported from sea-level, where the acceleration due to gravity g is 9.80 m/s2, to
the bottom of Death Valley. At this location, the period of the pendulum is decreased by 3.00%.
What is the value of g in Death Valley?
(a) 9.22 m/s2 (c) 9.80 m/s2 (e) 10.4 m/s2
2 2
(b) 9.51 m/s (d) 10.1 m/s

ˆ 26. In a certain clock, a pendulum of length L1 has a period T1 = 0.95 s. The length of the pendulum is
adjusted to a new value L2 such that T2 = 1.0 s. What is the ratio L2/L1?
(a) 0.90 (c) 1.0 (e) 1.3
(b) 0.95 (d) 1.1

ˆ 27. What is the period of a pendulum consisting of a 6-kg object oscillating on a 4-m string?
(a) 0.25 s (c) 1.0 s (e) 4.0 s
(b) 0.50 s (d) 2.0 s

ˆ 28. A simple pendulum consists of a ball of mass m suspended from the ceiling using a string of length L.
The ball is displaced from its equilibrium position by a small angle θ. What is the magnitude of the
restoring force that moves the ball toward its equilibrium position and produces simple harmonic
motion?
(a) kx (c) mg(cos θ) (e) mgL(sin θ)
(b) mg (d) mg(sin θ)

„ 29. A simple pendulum on earth has a period of 6.0 s. What is the approximate period of this pendulum
on the moon where the acceleration due to gravity is roughly 1/6 that of earth?
(a) 1.0 s (c) 6.0 s (e) 36 s
(b) 2.4 s (d) 15 s
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 105

„ 30. An iron ball hangs from a 24-m steel cable and is used in the demolition of a building at a location
where the acceleration due to gravity is 9.9 m/s2. The ball is swung outward from its equilibrium
position for a distance of 4.5 m. Assuming the system behaves as a simple pendulum, find the
maximum speed of the ball during its swing.
(a) 1.9 m/s (c) 11 m/s (e) 9.8 m/s
(b) 2.9 m/s (d) 7.0 m/s

„ 31. A thin, circular hoop with a radius of 0.22 m is hanging on a nail. Adam notices that the hoop is
oscillating back and forth through small angles like a physical pendulum. The moment of inertia of
the hoop for the rotational axis passing through the nail is I = 2mr2. What is the period of the hoop?
(a) 1.3 s (c) 0.59 s (e) 0.21 s
(b) 0.94 s (d) 0.42 s

Section 10.5 Damped Harmonic Motion

Section 10.6 Driven Harmonic Motion and Resonance
… 32. Which one of the following terms is used to describe a system in which the degree of damping is
just enough to stop the system from oscillating?
(a) critically damped (c) slightly damped (e) resonance
(b) underdamped (d) overdamped

… 33. Complete the following sentence: Resonance occurs in harmonic motion when
(a) the system is overdamped.
(b) the system is critically damped.
(c) the energy in the system is a minimum.
(d) the driving frequency is the same as the natural frequency of the system.
(e) the energy in the system is proportional to the square of the motion's amplitude.

„ 34. A simple harmonic oscillator with a period of 2.0 s is subject to damping so that it loses one percent
of its amplitude per cycle. About how much energy does this oscillator lose per cycle?
(a) 0.5 % (c) 2.0 % (e) 4.0 %
(b) 1.0 % (d) 3.0 %

Section 10.7 Elastic Deformation

Section 10.8 Stress, Strain, and Hooke’s Law
… 35. What are the SI units of the shear modulus?
(a) N/m2 (c) N ⋅ m (e) N ⋅ m2
(b) N/m (d) N/m3

… 36. Complete the following statement: Young's modulus cannot be applied to

(a) a stretched wire. (c) a bending beam. (e) a stretched rubber band.
(b) a compressed rod. (d) a compressed liquid.

ˆ 37. A cable stretches by an amount d when it supports a crate of mass M. The cable is then cut in half.
If the same crate is supported by either half of the cable, by how much will the cable stretch?
(a) d (c) d/4 (e) 4d
(b) d/2 (d) 2d
106 Chapter 10 Rotational Dynamics

ˆ 38. A cable stretches by an amount d as it supports a crate of mass M. The cable is cut in half. What is
the mass of the load that can be supported by either half of the cable if the cable stretches by an
amount d?
(a) M/4 (c) M (e) 4M
(b) M/2 (d) 2M

ˆ 39. A cable stretches by an amount d when it supports a crate of mass M. The cable is replaced by another
cable of the same material having the same length and twice the diameter. If the same crate is
supported by the thicker cable, by how much will the cable stretch?
(a) d/4 (c) d (e) 4d
(b) d/2 (d) 2d

ˆ 40. A cable stretches by an amount d when it supports a crate of mass M. The cable is replaced by another
cable of the same material having the same length and twice the diameter. What is the mass of the
load that can be supported by the thicker cable if it stretches by an amount d?
(a) M/4 (c) M (e) 4M
(b) M/2 (d) 2M

ˆ 41. The maximum compressional stress that a bone can withstand is 1.6 × 108 N/m2 before it breaks. A
thighbone (femur), which is the largest and longest bone in the human body, has a cross sectional area
of 7.7 × 10−4 m2. What is the maximum compressional force that can be applied to the thighbone?
(a) 2.1 × 1011 N (c) 4.8 × 1012 N (e) This cannot be determined
(b) 1.2 × 10 N
5
(d) 3.0 × 103 N since Young’s modulus is
not given.

ˆ 42. Young's modulus of nylon is 5 × 109 N/m2. A force of 5 × 105 N is applied to a 2-m length of nylon of
cross sectional area 0.1 m2. By what amount does the nylon stretch?
(a) 2 × 10−1 m (c) 2 × 10−3 m (e) 2 × 10−5 m
−2 −4
(b) 2 × 10 m (d) 2 × 10 m

„ 43. The radius of a sphere of lead (B = 4.2 × 1010 N/m2) is 1.000 m on the surface of the earth where the
pressure is 1.01 × 105 N/m2. The sphere is taken by submarine to the deepest part of the ocean to a
depth of 1.10 × 104 m where it is exposed to a pressure is 1.25 × 108 N/m2. What is the volume of the
sphere at the bottom of the ocean?
(a) 4.176 m3 (c) 1.25 × 10−2 m3 (e) 0.988 m3
3 3
(b) 4.189 m (d) 0.134 m

„ 44. The shear modulus of aluminum is 2.4 × 1010 N/m2. An aluminum nail of radius 7.5 × 10−4 m projects
0.035 m horizontally outward from a wall. A man hangs a wet raincoat of weight 25.5 N from the end
of the nail. Assuming the wall holds its end of the nail, what is the vertical deflection of the other end
of the nail?
(a) 1.8 × 10−3 m (c) 7.9 × 10−6 m (e) 2.1 × 10−5 m
−2 −4
(b) 3.3 × 10 m (d) 4.2 × 10 m

Questions 45 through 47 pertain to the situation described below:

A 5.0 × 102-N object is hung from the end of a wire of cross-sectional area
5.0 × 10 N
2
0.010 cm2. The wire stretches from its original length of 200.00 cm to
200.50 cm.

ˆ 45. What is the stress on the wire?

(a) 5.0 × 102 N/m2 (c) 1.0 × 108 N/m2 (e) 5.0 × 108 N/m2
(b) 1.0 × 106 N/m2 (d) 5.0 × 106 N/m2
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 107

ˆ 46. What is the elongation strain on the wire?

(a) 1.0 × 102 (c) 5.0 × 102 (e) 4.0 × 102
−2
(b) 1.0 × 10 (d) 2.5 × 10−3

ˆ 47. Determine the Young's modulus of the wire.

(a) 1.0 × 1011 N/m2 (c) 2.0 × 1011 N/m2 (e) 5.0 × 1012 N/m2
(b) 1.0 × 10 N/m
9 2
(d) 2.0 × 109 N/m2

Questions 48 and 49 pertain to the situation described below:

A plastic box has an initial volume of 2.00 m3. It is then submerged below the surface of a liquid
and its volume decreases to 1.96 m3.

ˆ 48. What is the volume strain on the box?

(a) 0.02 (c) 0.2 (e) 0.98
(b) 0.04 (d) 0.4

… 49. Complete the following statement: In order to calculate the "stress" on the box, in addition to the
information given, one must also know
(a) the mass of the box.
(b) the bulk modulus of the material from which the box is made.
(c) the shear modulus of the material from which the box is made.
(d) the Young's modulus of the material from which the box is made.
(e) the bulk modulus of the liquid.

… 50. Complete the following statement: In general, the term stress refers to
(a) a change in volume. (d) a fractional change in length.
(b) a change in length. (e) a force per unit length.
(c) a force per unit area.

… 51. Which one of the following statements concerning Hooke's law is false?
(a) Hooke’s law relates stress and strain.
(b) Hooke’s law is valid only for springs.
(c) Hooke’s law can be verified experimentally.
(d) Hooke’s law can be applied to a wide range of materials.
(e) Hooke’s law is valid only within the elastic limit of a given material.

F
ˆ 52. A cylinder with a radius of 0.120 m is placed between the plates of a hydraulic
press as illustrated in the drawing. A 4.45 × 105-N force is applied to the
cylinder. What is the pressure on the end of the cylinder due to the applied
force?
(a) 9.84 × 106 Pa (d) 5.34 × 104 Pa
(b) 3.13 × 10 Pa
5
(e) 3.71 × 106 Pa
(c) 6.18 × 10 Pa
6

Additional Problems
ˆ 53. A 0.750-kg object hanging from a vertical spring is observed to oscillate with a period of 2.00 s.
When the 0.750-kg object is removed and replaced by a 1.25-kg object, what will be the period of
oscillation?
(a) 1.55 s (c) 3.32 s (e) 7.45 s
(b) 2.58 s (d) 4.38 s
108 Chapter 10 Rotational Dynamics

„ 54. A 0.800-kg block is placed on top of a vertically oriented spring

block
as shown. The block is not attached to the spring, but the spring
is attached to the floor. The block oscillates in simple harmonic spring
motion. If the spring constant is 95.0 N/m, determine the
amplitude at which the block loses contact with the spring. floor
(a) 0.0505 m (d) 0.0825 m
(b) 0.0615 m (e) 0.0945 m
(c) 0.0735 m

Questions 55 through 61 pertain to the situation described below: 0.20 kg

When a 0.20-kg block is suspended from a vertically hanging spring, it
stretches the spring from its original length of 0.050 m to 0.060 m. The
same block is attached to the same spring and placed on a horizontal,
frictionless surface as shown. The block is then pulled so that the spring stretches to a total length of
0.10 m. The block is released at time t = 0 s and undergoes simple harmonic motion.

ˆ 55. What is the frequency of the motion?

(a) 0.50 Hz (c) 5.0 Hz (e) 31 Hz
(b) 1.00 Hz (d) 10.0 Hz

ˆ 56. Complete the following statement: In order to increase the frequency of the motion, one would have to
(a) reduce the spring constant.
(b) decrease the mass of the block on the end of the spring.
(c) increase the length of the spring.
(d) reduce the distance that the spring is initially stretched.
(e) increase the distance that the spring is initially stretched.

… 57. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the motion of the block?
(a) Its acceleration is constant.
(b) The period of its motion depends on its amplitude.
(c) Its acceleration is greatest when the spring returns to the 5.0 cm position.
(d) Its velocity is greatest when the mass has reached its maximum displacement.
(e) Its acceleration is greatest when the mass has reached its maximum displacement.

ˆ 58. Which one of the following expressions gives the displacement of the block as a function of time?
Let x be in cm and t in seconds.
(a) x = 5 cos(10πt) (c) x = 10 cos(5πt) (e) x = 10 cos(10πt)
(b) x = 5 sin(10πt) (d) x = 10 sin(5πt)

ˆ 59. What is the speed of the block each time the spring is 5.0 cm long?
(a) zero cm/s (c) 16 cm/s (e) 160 cm/s
(b) 5 cm/s (d) 120 cm/s

ˆ 60. What is the maximum acceleration of the block?

(a) 1.6 m/s2 (c) 49 m/s2 (e) 160 m/s2
2
(b) 3.1 m/s (d) 98 m/s2

ˆ 61. What is the total mechanical energy of the system at any instant?
(a) 0.25 J (c) 0.98 J (e) 9.8 J
(b) 0.49 J (d) 4.9 J
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 109

„ 62. A 2.0-kg object is attached to a spring (k = 55.6 N/m) that hangs vertically from the ceiling. The
object is displaced 0.045 m vertically. When the object is released, the system undergoes simple
harmonic motion. What is the magnitude of the maximum acceleration of the object?
(a) 1.3 m/s2 (c) 4.4 m/s2 (e) 11 m/s2
2 2
(b) 2.3 m/s (d) 9.8 m/s

ˆ 63. The brick shown in the drawing is glued to the 0.10 m 3500 N
floor. A 3500-N force is applied to the top
surface of the brick as shown. If the brick has 0.10 m 0.25 m
a shear modulus of 5.4 × 10 N/m , how far to
9 2

the right does the top face move relative to the

stationary bottom face?
(a) 5.8 × 10–6 m (c) 1.1 × 10–6 m (e) 3.4 × 10–7 m
(b) 2.6 × 10–6 m (d) 6.5 × 10–7 m
 chapter S
FLUIDS

Section 11.1 Mass Density

… 1. The density of mercury is 1.36 × 104 kg/m3. What is the mass of a 4.00 × 10−4-m3 sample of
mercury?
(a) 0.0343 kg (c) 2.94 kg (e) 6.29 kg
(b) 0.002 94 kg (d) 5.44 kg

ˆ 2. At standard temperature and pressure, carbon dioxide has a density of 1.98 kg/m3. What volume
does 0.85 kg of carbon dioxide occupy at standard temperature and pressure?
(a) 0.43 m3 (c) 1.7 m3 (e) 4.8 m3
3 3
(b) 0.86 m (d) 2.3 m

ˆ 3. What mass of water (at 4.0 °C) can be contained in a rectangular box whose dimensions are 10.0 cm
by 5.00 cm by 1.00 cm? The density of water at 4.0 °C is 1.000 × 103 kg/m3.
(a) 5.0 g (c) 25.0 g (e) 0.25 kg
(b) 10.0 g (d) 50.0 g

ˆ 4. The density of iron is 7860 kg/m3. What is the mass of an iron sphere whose diameter is 0.50 m?
(a) 123 kg (c) 514 kg (e) 4110 kg
(b) 164 kg (d) 983 kg

ˆ 5. The average density of the material in intergalactic space is approximately 2.5 × 10–27 kg/m3. What
is the volume of a gold sample, ρ = 19 300 kg/m3, that has the same mass as 8.0 × 1024 m3 of
intergalactic space?
(a) 1.0 × 10–6 m3 (c) 5.0 × 10–5 m3 (e) 1.0 × 10–4 m3
(b) 2.0 × 10 m–5 3
(d) 8.0 × 10 m
–5 3

„ 6. Within a certain type of star called a neutron star, the material at the center has a mass density of
1.0 × 1018 kg/m3. If a small sphere of this material of radius 1.0 × 10–5 m were somehow
transported to the surface of the earth, what would be the weight of this sphere?
(a) 1000 N (c) 4.1 × 104 N (e) 3.8 × 109 N
(b) 4200 N (d) 7.0 × 10 N
4

„ 7. A solid cylinder has a radius of 0.051 m and a height of 0.0030 m. The cylinder is composed of two
different materials with mass densities of 1950 kg/m3 and 1470 kg/m3. If each of the two materials
occupies an equal volume, what is the mass of the cylinder?
(a) 8.4 × 10−2 kg (c) 6.5 × 10−2 kg (e) 4.2 × 10−2 kg
−2 −2
(b) 7.1 × 10 kg (d) 5.3 × 10 kg

Section 11.2 Pressure

ˆ 8. How much force does the atmosphere exert on one side of a vertical wall 4.00-m high and 10.0-m
long?
(a) 2.53 × 103 N (c) 4.05 × 105 N (e) zero N
(b) 1.01 × 10 N
5
(d) 4.05 × 106 N
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 111

ˆ 9. A child wants to pump up a bicycle tire so that its pressure is 2.5 × 105 Pa above that of atmospheric
pressure. If the child uses a pump with a circular piston 0.035 m in diameter, what force must the
child exert?
(a) 120 N (c) 340 N (e) 1300 N
(b) 240 N (d) 930 N

„ 10. An ice cube, ρ = 917 kg/m3, is sliding down a frictionless incline

as shown in the drawing. The sides of the cube each have a length
of 0.75 m. What pressure does the cube exert on the incline? 16°
(a) 1800 Pa (c) 3600 Pa (e) 5100 Pa
(b) 6500 Pa (d) 2700 Pa

„ 11. A gas sample is confined within a chamber that has a movable piston. A
small load is placed on the piston; and the system is allowed to reach load
equilibrium. If the total weight of the piston and load is 70.0 N and the
piston has an area of 5.0 × 10−4 m2, what is the pressure exerted on the piston
piston by the gas? Note: Atmospheric pressure is 1.013 × 105 Pa.
(a) 2.8 × 104 Pa (d) 1.4 × 105 Pa
gas sample
(b) 5.6 × 10 Pa
4
(e) 2.4 × 105 Pa
(c) 7.3 × 10 Pa
4

ˆ 12. Using the value of atmospheric pressure at sea level, 1 × 105 Pa, estimate the total mass of the
earth’s atmosphere above a 5-m2 area.
(a) 5 × 104 kg (c) 2 × 10–4 kg (e) 3 × 105 kg
(b) 9 × 10 kg
2
(d) 4 × 10 kg
–2

Questions 13 and 14 pertain to the following situation:

In a classroom demonstration, a 73.5-kg physics professor lies on a “bed of nails.” The bed
consists of a large number of evenly spaced, relatively sharp nails mounted in a board so that the
points extend vertically outward from the board. While the professor is lying down,
approximately 1900 nails make contact with his body.

ˆ 13. What is the average force exerted by each nail on the professor’s body?
(e) 1.42 × 10 N
6
(a) 0.0201 N (c) 1.42 N
(b) 0.379 N (d) 723 N

−6
ˆ 14. If the area of contact at the head of each nail is 1.26 × 10
2
m , what is the average pressure at each
contact?
(a) 1.59 × 104 Pa (c) 1.11 × 1012 Pa (e) 3.01 × 105 Pa
(b) 5.71 × 10 Pa8
(d) 1.11 × 106 Pa

Questions 15 and 16 pertain to the situation 20 m

described below:
15 m
A swimming pool has the dimensions shown in the
drawing. It is filled with water to a uniform depth
of 8.00 m.

The density of water = 1.00 × 103 kg/m3.

112 Chapter 11 Fluids

„ 15. What is the total pressure exerted on the bottom of the swimming pool?
(a) 0.79 × 105 Pa (c) 1.80 × 105 Pa (e) 2.49 × 105 Pa
(b) 1.48 × 10 Pa
5
(d) 1.97 × 10 Pa
5

ˆ 16. What is the total force exerted on the bottom of the swimming pool?
(a) 2.40 × 107 N (c) 5.90 × 107 N (e) 8.40 × 107 N
(b) 5.40 × 10 N
7
(d) 7.50 × 107 N

Section 11.3 Pressure and Depth in a Static Fluid

Section 11.4 Pressure Gauges
… 17. The two dams are identical with the exception that the water reservoir behind dam A extends twice the
horizontal distance behind it as that of dam B. Which one of the following statements regarding these
dams is correct?
(a) The force exerted by the water on dam A is greater than that on dam B.
(b) The force exerted by the water on dam B is greater than that on dam A.
(c) Dam A is more likely to collapse than dam B if the water level rises.
(d) Dam B is more likely to collapse than dam A if the water level rises.
(e) The horizontal distance of the water behind the two dams does not determine the force on them.

ˆ 18. A submarine is operating at 100.0 m below the surface of the ocean. If the air inside the submarine
is maintained at a pressure of 1.0 atmosphere, what is the magnitude of the force that acts on the
rectangular hatch 2.0 m × 1.0 m on the deck of the submarine?
(a) 980 N (c) 5.0 × 104 N (e) 2.0 × 106 N
(b) 2.0 × 10 N
3
(d) 9.8 × 10 N
5

ˆ 19. At a location where the acceleration due to gravity is 9.807 m/s2, the atmospheric pressure is
9.891 × 104 Pa. A barometer at the same location is filled with an unknown liquid. What is
the density of the unknown liquid if its height in the barometer is 1.163 m?
(a) 210 kg/m3 (c) 5317 kg/m3 (e) 9688 kg/m3
3 3
(b) 4336 kg/m (d) 8672 kg/m

„ 20. A column of water of height 70.0 cm

supports a column of an unknown
liquid as suggested in the figure (not 70.0 cm
drawn to scale). Assume that both 27.0 cm
liquids are at rest and that the
density of water is 1.0 × 103 kg/m3.
Determine the density of the unknown liquid.
(a) 3.9 × 102 kg/m3 (c) 2.6 × 103 kg/m3 (e) 3.9 × 103 kg/m3
(b) 1.2 × 10 kg/m
3 3
(d) 3.3 × 103 kg/m3

ˆ 21. A woman is enjoying a tropical drink while lying on a beach. The acceleration due to gravity at her
location is 9.85 m/s2. What gauge pressure must exist in the woman’s mouth if she is drinking
through a straw extending 0.085 m above the surface of the drink? Note: Assume the drink has a
density of 1015 kg/m3.
(a) 850 Pa (c) 1100 Pa (e) 1.0 × 105 Pa
(b) 970 Pa (d) 2100 Pa
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 113

ˆ 22. A barometer is taken from the base to the top of a 279-m tower. Assuming the density of air is
1.29 kg/m3, what is the measured change in pressure?
(a) 359 Pa (c) 2120 Pa (e) 3530 Pa
(b) 927 Pa (d) 2730 Pa

ˆ 23. The largest barometer ever built was an oil-filled barometer constructed in Leicester, England in
1991. The oil had a height of 12.2 m. Assuming a pressure of 1.013 × 105 Pa, what was the density
of the oil used in the barometer?
(a) 798 kg/m3 (c) 981 kg/m3 (e) 1210 kg/m3
3 3
(b) 847 kg/m (d) 1150 kg/m

Section 11.5 Pascal’s Principle

… 24. Complete the following sentence: The operation of a hydraulic jack is an application of
(a) Pascal's principle. (c) Archimedes’ principle. (e) the continuity equation.
(b) Bernoulli's principle. (d) irrotational flow.

… 25. A u-shaped tube is connected to a flexible tube that has a membrane-covered

funnel on the opposite end as shown in the drawing. Jason finds that no matter
which way he orients to membrane, the height of the liquid in the u-shaped tube
does not change. Which of the following choices best describes this behavior?
(a) Archimedes’ principle (c) continuity equation (e) Pascal's principle
(b) Bernoulli's principle (d) irrotational flow

ˆ 26. Which one of the following statements concerning a completely enclosed fluid is true?
(a) Any change in the applied pressure of the fluid produces a change in pressure that depends on
direction.
(b) The pressure at all points within the fluid is independent of any pressure applied to it.
(c) Any change in applied pressure produces an equal change in pressure at all points within the fluid.
(d) An increase in pressure in one part of the fluid results in an equal decrease in pressure in another
part.
(e) The pressure in the fluid is the same at all points within the fluid.

27. A force of 250 N is applied to a hydraulic jack piston that is 0.01 m in diameter. If the piston that
supports the load has a diameter of 0.10 m, approximately how much mass can be lifted by the jack?
Ignore any difference in height between the pistons.
(a) 255 kg (c) 800 kg (e) 6300 kg
(b) 500 kg (d) 2550 kg

„ 28. In a car lift, compressed air with a gauge pressure of 4.0 × 105 Pa is used to raise a piston with a
circular cross-sectional area. If the radius of the piston is 0.17 m, what is the maximum mass that
can be raised using this piston?
(a) 530 kg (c) 9800 kg (e) 41 000 kg
(b) 3700 kg (d) 22 000 kg

Section 11.6 Archimedes’ Principle

ˆ 29. A balloon inflated with helium gas (density = 0.2 kg/m3) has a volume of 6 × 10−3 m3. If the density
of air is 1.3 kg/m3, what is the buoyant force exerted on the balloon?
(a) 0.01 N (c) 0.8 N (e) 7.8 N
(b) 0.08 N (d) 1.3 N
114 Chapter 11 Fluids

… 30. Which one of the following statements concerning the buoyant force on an object submerged in a
liquid is true?
(a) The buoyant force depends on the mass of the object.
(b) The buoyant force depends on the weight of the object.
(c) The buoyant force is independent of the density of the liquid.
(d) The buoyant force depends on the volume of the liquid displaced.
(e) The buoyant force will increase with depth if the liquid is incompressible.

ˆ 31. A 2-kg block displaces 10 kg of water when it is held fully

immersed. The object is then tied down as shown in the figure; object
and it displaces 5 kg of water. What is the tension in the string?
string
(a) 10 N (d) 70 N
(b) 20 N (e) 100 N
(c) 30 N

ˆ 32. Three blocks, labeled A, B, and C, are floating in water as A

shown in the drawing. Blocks A and B have the same mass C
B
and volume. Block C has the same volume, but is
submerged to a greater depth than the other two blocks.
Which one of the following statements concerning this
situation is false?
(a) The density of block A is less than that of block C.
(b) The buoyant force acting on block A is equal to that acting on block B.
(c) The volume of water displaced by block C is greater than that displaced by block B.
(d) The buoyant force acting on block C is greater than that acting on block B.
(e) The volume of water displaced by block A is greater than that displaced by block B.

ˆ 33. The density of ice is 0.92 g/cm3; and the density of seawater is 1.03 g/cm3. A large iceberg floats in
Arctic waters. What fraction of the volume of the iceberg is exposed?
(a) 0.080 % (c) 89 % (e) 99 %
(b) 11 % (d) 92 %

„ 34. A small sculpture made of brass (ρbrass = 8470 kg/m3) is believed to have a secret central cavity. The
weight of the sculpture in air is 15.76 N. When it is submerged in water, the weight is 13.86 N.
What is the volume of the secret cavity?
(a) 1 × 10−4 m3 (c) 3 × 10−5 m3 (e) 4 × 10−6 m3
−4 −6
(b) 2 × 10 m 3
(d) 2 × 10 m 3

„ 35. An object weighs 15 N in air and 13 N when submerged in water. Determine the density of the object.
(a) 330 kg/m3 (c) 1.2 × 103 kg/m3 (e) 7.5 × 103 kg/m3
(b) 500 kg/m 3
(d) 6.0 × 10 kg/m
3 3

„ 36. After a moving van drives onto a river ferry, the

ferry sinks 0.0367 m. The length and width of the
ferry are 15.24 m and 6.10 m, respectfully.
Valentine’s Transport Services
Determine the weight of the moving van.
(a) 6.09 × 103 N (c) 3.34 × 104 N (e) 6.68 × 104 N
(b) 1.00 × 10 N
4
(d) 5.11 × 104 N
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 115

Questions 37 and 38 pertain to the following situation:

When a block of volume 1.00 × 10−3 m3 is hung from a spring scale as shown in Figure A, the scale
reads 10.0 N. When the same block is then placed in an unknown liquid, it floats with 2/3 of its
volume submerged as suggested in Figure B. The density of water is 1.00 × 10−3 kg/m3.

unknown
water liquid

Figure Figure

ˆ 37. Determine the mass of the block.

(a) 1.02 kg (c) 3.02 kg (e) 9.80 kg
(b) 2.02 kg (d) 4.04 kg

ˆ 38. Determine the density of the unknown liquid.

(a) 3.03 × 103 kg/m3 (c) 6.16 × 103 kg/m3 (e) 1.57 × 104 kg/m3
(b) 4.62 × 103 kg/m3 (d) 8.01 × 103 kg/m3

Questions 39 through 41 pertain to the situation described below:

A balloon is released from a tall building. The total mass of the balloon including the enclosed gas
is 2.0 kg. Its volume is 5.0 m3. The density of air is 1.3 kg/m3.

… 39. What is the average density of the balloon?

(a) 0.2 kg/m3 (c) 0.8 kg/m3 (e) 1.2 kg/m3
3
(b) 0.4 kg/m (d) 1.0 kg/m3

ˆ 40. Will the balloon rise, fall, or remain stationary; and why?
(a) The balloon will fall because its density is greater than that of air.
(b) The balloon will remain stationary because its density is less than that of air.
(c) The balloon will rise because the upward buoyant force is greater than its weight.
(d) The balloon will fall because the upward buoyant force is less than its weight.
(e) The balloon will fall because the downward buoyant force is greater than the upward
buoyant force.

„ 41. What is the magnitude of the initial acceleration of the balloon?

(a) zero m/s2 (c) 10.9 m/s2 (e) 43.6 m/s2
2
(b) 9.8 m/s (d) 22.1 m/s2

Section 11.7 Fluids in Motion

Section 11.8 The Equation of Continuity
… 42. Which one of the following statements concerning streamline flow is true?
(a) At any given point in the fluid, the velocity is constant in time.
(b) Streamline flow occurs when there are sharp obstacles in the path of a fast-moving fluid.
(c) Streamline flow is described by Pascal's principle.
(d) Streamline flow is described by Archimedes’ principle.
(e) The velocity vectors are the same for all particles in the fluid.
116 Chapter 11 Fluids

ˆ 43. Which one of the following statements concerning fluid streamlines is true?
(a) In steady flow, streamlines must remain parallel and equally spaced.
(b) In turbulent flow, two or more streamlines may cross.
(c) In turbulent flow, streamlines can begin or end at any point.
(d) Streamlines are perpendicular to the velocity of the fluid at every point.
(e) In steady flow, the pattern of streamlines does not change with time.

ˆ 44. Ann uses a hose to water her garden. The water enters the hose through a faucet with a 6.0-cm
diameter. The speed of the water at the faucet is 5 m/s. If the faucet and the nozzle are at the same
height, and the water leaves the nozzle with a speed of 20 m/s, what is the diameter of the nozzle?
(a) 1.5 cm (c) 3.0 cm (e) 6.0 cm
(b) 2.0 cm (d) 4.0 cm

ˆ 45. Water flows through a pipe of diameter 8.0 cm with a speed of 10.0 m/s. It then enters a smaller
pipe of diameter 3.0 cm. What is the speed of the water as it flows through the smaller pipe?
(a) 1.4 m/s (c) 27 m/s (e) 71 m/s
(b) 2.8 m/s (d) 54 m/s

ˆ 46. Water enters a pipe of diameter 3.0 cm with a velocity of 3.0 m/s. The water encounters a constriction
where its velocity is 12 m/s. What is the diameter of the constricted portion of the pipe?
(a) 0.33 cm (c) 1.0 cm (e) 12 cm
(b) 0.75 cm (d) 1.5 cm

„ 47. Water is flowing through a channel that is 12 m wide with a speed of

0.75 m/s. The water then flows into four identical channels that have a
width of 4.0 m. The depth of the water does not change as it flows into
the four channels. What is the speed of the water in one of the smaller
channels?
(a) 0.56 m/s (d) 0.75 m/s
(b) 2.3 m/s (e) 0.12 m/s
(c) 0.25 m/s

ˆ 48. Alyssa went to her outside faucet to fill a 0.032-m3 bucket with water to wash her car. Water exits
with a speed of 0.64 m/s. The radius of the faucet is 0.0075 m. How long does it take to fill the
bucket completely?
(a) 9.0 s (c) 190 s (e) 890 s
(b) 17 s (d) 280 s

Section 11.9 Bernoulli’s Equation

Section 11.10 Applications of Bernoulli’s Equation
… 49. Complete the following statement: Bernoulli's principle is a statement of
(a) hydrostatic equilibrium. (d) energy conservation in dynamic fluids.
(b) thermal equilibrium in fluids. (e) momentum conservation in dynamic fluids.
(c) mechanical equilibrium in fluids.

ˆ 50. A curtain hangs straight down in front of an open window. A sudden gust of wind blows past the
window; and the curtain is pulled out of the window. Which law, principle, or equation can be
used to explain this movement of the curtain?
(a) Poiseuille's law (c) the equation of continuity (e) Pascal's principle
(b) Bernoulli's equation (d) Archimedes' principle
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 117

ˆ 51. Which one of the following statements is false concerning the derivation or usage of Bernoulli’s
equation?
(a) The fluid must be non-viscous.
(b) Streamline flow is assumed.
(c) The fluid must be incompressible.
(d) The work-energy theorem is used to derive Bernoulli’s equation.
(e) Vertical distances are always measured relative to the lowest point within the fluid.

… 52. A horizontal piping system that delivers a C D

constant flow of water is constructed from pipes
with different diameters as shown in the figure.
At which of the labeled points is the water in the E
pipe under the greatest pressure? B
(a) A (d) D
(b) B (e) E A
(c) C

ˆ 53. A large tank is filled with water to a depth of

15 m. A spout located 10.0 m above the
bottom of the tank is then opened as shown in
the drawing. With what speed will water
emerge from the spout?
(a) 3.1 m/s 15 m
(b) 9.9 m/s 10.0 m
(c) 14 m/s
(d) 17 m/s
(e) 31 m/s

ˆ 54. Oil (ρ = 925 kg/m3) is flowing through a pipeline at a constant speed

Point B
when it encounters a vertical bend in the pipe raising it 4.0 m. The
cross sectional area of the pipe does not change. What is the
difference in pressure (PB – PA) in the portions of the pipe before 4.0 m
Point A
and after the rise?
(a) +2.4 × 10 Pa
4
(d) –7.2 × 10 Pa
5

(b) –3.6 × 104 Pa (e) –1.8 × 103 Pa

(c) +5.1 × 105 Pa

ˆ 55. The density of the liquid flowing through the horizontal pipe in
the drawing is 1500 kg/m3. The speed of the fluid at point A is A B
5.5 m/s while at point B it is 8.0 m/s. What is the difference in
pressure, PB – PA, between points B and A?

(a) −1.9 × 103 Pa (c) −2.5 × 104 Pa (e) −7.6 × 105 Pa

(b) +3.8 × 103 Pa (d) +5.0 × 104 Pa

*Section 11.11 Viscous Flow

… 56. Which law, principle, or equation can be used to determine the volume flow rate of a liquid that is
forced through a hypodermic needle?
(a) Poiseuille's law (d) Archimedes' principle
(b) Pascal's principle (e) the equation of continuity
(c) Bernoulli's equation
118 Chapter 11 Fluids

„ 57. A hypodermic needle consists of a plunger of circular cross-section that

slides inside a hollow cylindrical syringe. When the plunger is pushed,
the contents of the syringe are forced through a hollow needle (also of
circular cross-section). If a 4.0-N force is applied to the plunger and the
diameters of the plunger and the needle are 1.2 cm and 2.5 mm, plunge
respectively, what force is needed to prevent fluid flow at the needle? content
(a) 0.17 N (d) 0.83 N
needl
(b) 0.27 N (e) 2.7 N
(c) 0.43 N

ˆ 58. A large vat is continually filled with a viscous liquid that flows
from two equally long, cylindrical pipes, labeled A and B, onto a
conveyer belt as shown in the drawing. The diameter of pipe B is
1.75 times larger than that of pipe A. What is the ratio of the
average volume flow rate of the liquid exiting pipe B to that of the
liquid exiting pipe A?
(a) 1.87 (d) 9.38 A B
(b) 3.06 (e) 4.33
(c) 1.32

Additional Problems
… 59. The figure shows two fish tanks, each having ends of width 1 foot. Tank A is 3 feet long while
tank B is 6 feet long. Both tanks are filled with 1 foot of water.

A B

1 foot 1 foot
3 feet 6 feet

SA = the magnitude of the force of the water on the end of tank A

SB = the magnitude of the force of the water on the end of tank B
BA = the magnitude of the force of the water on the bottom of tank A
BB = the magnitude of the force of the water on the bottom of tank B

Using the notation given above, which one of the following sets of equations below is correct for
this situation?
(a) SA = SB and BA = BB (d) SA = SB and 2BA = BB
(b) SA = 2SB and BA = BB (e) SA = 2SB and BA = 2BB
(c) 2SA = SB and 2BA = BB

Questions 60 through 65 pertain to the situation described below:

A glass tube has several different cross-sectional areas with the values indicated in the figure. A
piston at the left end of the tube exerts pressure so that mercury within the tube flows from the right
end with a speed of 8.0 m/s. Three points within the tube are labeled A, B, and C.
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 119

evacuated

h
2
12 cm 2 2
5.6 cm 6.0 cm

piston 8.0 m/s

A C
B

Notes: The drawing is not drawn to scale.

Atmospheric pressure is 1.01 × 105 N/m2; and the density of mercury is 13 600 kg/m3.

ˆ 60. At what speed is mercury flowing past the point labeled A?

(a) 2.0 m/s (c) 8.0 m/s (e) 16 m/s
(b) 4.0 m/s (d) 12 m/s

ˆ 61. What is the total pressure at point A?

(a) 1.01 × 105 Pa (c) 2.25 × 105 Pa (e) 4.27 × 105 Pa
(b) 2.02 × 10 Pa
5
(d) 3.26 × 105 Pa

ˆ 62. At what speed is mercury flowing past the point labeled B?

(a) 2.27 m/s (c) 7.47 m/s (e) 9.28 m/s
(b) 4.27 m/s (d) 8.57 m/s

ˆ 63. What is the total pressure at point B?

(a) 1.01 × 105 Pa (c) 4.27 × 105 Pa (e) 7.45 × 104 Pa
(b) 3.64 × 10 Pa
4
(d) 6.44 × 104 Pa

ˆ 64. What is the total pressure at point C?

(a) 1.01 × 105 Pa (c) 3.66 × 105 Pa (e) 7.45 × 105 Pa
(b) 3.26 × 10 Pa
5
(d) 6.44 × 105 Pa

ˆ 65. Determine the height h of mercury in the manometer with the evacuated upper end.
(a) 136 mm (c) 278 mm (e) 371 mm
(b) 269 mm (d) 366 mm
 chapter TEMPERATURE
AND HEAT

Section 12.1 Common Temperature Scales

Section 12.2 The Kelvin Temperature Scale
Section 12.3 Thermometers
… 1. Which one of the following temperatures is approximately equal to "room temperature?"
(a) 0 K (c) 100 °C (e) 293 K
(b) 0 °C (d) 100 K

… 2. Complete the following statement: A temperature decrease of 30 C° is equal to a temperature

decrease of
(a) 30 F°. (c) 17 F°. (e) 303 K.
(b) 30 K. (d) 26 F°.

ˆ 3. Absolute zero on the Celsius temperature scale is –273.15 °C. What is absolute zero on the
Fahrenheit temperature scale?
(a) –331.67 °F (c) –395.67 °F (e) –459.67 °F
(b) –363.67 °F (d) –427.67 °F

ˆ 4. The digital sign outside a local bank reports that the temperature is 44 °C. What is the temperature
in degrees Fahrenheit?
(a) 56 °F (c) 99 °F (e) 120 °F
(b) 79 °F (d) 111 °F

… 5. Three thermometers are in the same water bath. After thermal equilibrium is established, it is found
that the Celsius thermometer reads 100 °C, the Fahrenheit thermometer reads 212 °F, and the Kelvin
thermometer reads 273 K. Which one of the following statements is the most reasonable
conclusion?
(a) The Kelvin thermometer is incorrect.
(b) The Celsius thermometer is incorrect.
(c) The Fahrenheit thermometer is incorrect.
(d) All three thermometers are incorrect.
(e) The three thermometers are at different temperatures.

ˆ 6. Three thermometers are placed in a closed, insulated box and are allowed to reach thermal
equilibrium. One is calibrated in Fahrenheit degrees, one in Celsius degrees, and one in Kelvins.
The Celsius thermometer reads –40 °C and the Kelvin thermometer reads 233 K. Which one of the
following statements is necessarily true?
(a) The Kelvin thermometer should read –233 K.
(b) The Kelvin thermometer should read –313 K.
(c) The Fahrenheit thermometer must read –40 °F.
(d) If water were found within the box, it must be in the liquid state.
(e) If the temperature of the contents is increased by 10 C°, the reading on the Kelvin thermometer
should increase by 273 K.

ˆ 7. During an evening news broadcast in Helsinki, Finland, the meteorologist indicated that the day’s
lowest temperature was –4.0 °C. What is the corresponding value of this temperature on the
Fahrenheit scale?
(a) –7.2 °F (c) 17 °F (e) 39 °F
(b) –4.0 °F (d) 25 °F
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 121

… 8. Which one of the following properties could not be used as a temperature sensitive property in the
construction of a thermometer?
(a) the change in mass of a solid
(b) the change in volume of a liquid
(c) the change in length of a metal rod
(d) the change in electrical resistance of a wire
(e) the change in pressure of a gas at constant volume

Section 12.4 Linear Thermal Expansion

… 9. Complete the following statement: Bimetallic strips used as adjustable switches in electric
appliances consist of metallic strips that must have different
(a) mass. (c) volume. (e) specific heat capacities.
(b) length. (d) expansion coefficients.

ˆ 10. Which one of the following statements is the best explanation for the fact that metal pipes that carry
water often burst during cold winter months?
(a) Water contracts upon freezing while the metal expands at lower temperatures.
(b) The metal contracts to a greater extent than the water.
(c) The interior of the pipe contracts less than the outside of the pipe.
(d) Water expands upon freezing while the metal contracts at lower temperatures.
(e) Both the metal and the water expand, but the water expands to a greater extent.

ˆ 11. The coefficient of linear expansion of steel is 12 × 10−6/C°. A railroad track is made of individual
rails of steel 1.0 km in length. By what length would these rails change between a cold day when
the temperature is –10 °C and a hot day at 30 °C?
(a) 0.62 cm (c) 48 cm (e) 620 cm
(b) 24 cm (d) 480 cm

ˆ 12. The coefficient of linear expansion of aluminum is 23 × 10−6/C°. A circular hole in an aluminum
plate is 2.725 cm in diameter at 0 °C. What is the diameter of the hole if the temperature of the plate
is raised to 100 °C?
(a) 0.0063 cm (c) 2.731 cm (e) 2.788 cm
(b) 2.728 cm (d) 2.757 cm

ˆ 13. A metal rod 40.0000-cm long at 40 °C is heated to 60 °C. The length of the rod is then measured to
be 40.0105 cm. What is the coefficient of linear expansion of the metal?
(a) 13 × 10−6/C° (c) 44 × 10−6/C° (e) 71 × 10−6/C°
−6 −6
(b) 22 × 10 /C° (d) 53 × 10 /C°

„ 14. A copper plate has a length of 0.12 m and a width of 0.10 m at 25 °C. The plate is uniformly
heated to 175 °C. If the linear expansion coefficient for copper is 1.7 × 10−5/C°, what is the
change in the area of the plate as a result of the increase in temperature?
(a) 2.6 × 10−5 m2 (c) 3.2 × 10−6 m2 (e) 7.8 × 10−7 m2
−5 −7
(b) 6.1 × 10 m 2
(d) 4.9 × 10 m 2

„ 15. A thin, circular disc is made of lead and has a radius of 0.0350 cm at 20.0 °C. Determine the change
in the area of the circle if the temperature is increased to 625.0 °C. The coefficient of linear thermal
expansion for lead is 29.0 × 10−6/C°.
(a) 4.33 × 10−5 cm2 (c) 1.89 × 10−4 cm2 (e) 5.92 × 10−4 cm2
−4 −4
(b) 1.36 × 10 cm 2
(d) 3.19 × 10 cm 2
122 Chapter 12 Temperature and Heat

„ 16. At a certain temperature, a simple pendulum has a period of 1.500 seconds. The support wire is
made of silver and has a coefficient of linear thermal expansion of 1.90 × 10−5/C°. How much
must the temperature be increased to increase the period to 1.506 seconds?
(a) 118 C° (c) 316 C° (e) 528 C°
(b) 221 C° (d) 422 C°

„ 17. A steel string guitar is strung so that there is negligible tension in the strings at a temperature of 24.9
°C. The guitar is taken to an outdoor winter concert where the temperature of the strings decreases
to –15.1 °C. The cross-sectional area of a particular string is 5.5 × 10−6 m2. The distance between
the points where the string is attached does not change. For steel, Young’s modulus is 2.0 × 1011
N/m2; and the coefficient of linear expansion is 1.2 × 10−5/C°. Use your knowledge of linear
thermal expansion and stress to calculate the tension in the string at the concert.
(a) 530 N (c) 120 N (e) 30 N
(b) 240 N (d) 60 N

Section 12.5 Volume Thermal Expansion

ˆ 18. The coefficient of linear expansion of a certain solid is 9 × 10−6/C°. Assuming this solid behaves
like most solids, what is its coefficient of volume expansion?
(a) 9.1 × 10−6/C° (c) 27 × 10−6/C° (e) 729 × 10−36/C°
−36 −6
(b) 27 × 10 /C° (d) 729 × 10 /C°

… 19. Which one of the following statements explains why it is difficult to measure the coefficient of
volume expansion for a liquid?
(a) Liquids are more compact than solids.
(b) Liquids are more compact than gases.
(c) Liquids tend to expand more slowly than solids.
(d) The liquid will lose heat to the containing vessel.
(e) The volume of the containing vessel will also increase.

ˆ 20. Zirconium tungstate is an unusual material because its volume shrinks with an increase in
temperature for the temperature range 0.3 K to 1050 K (where it decomposes). In fact, the volumetric
coefficient of thermal expansion is –26.4 × 10–6/K. Determine the ratio ∆V/V0 for the above
mentioned temperature range. Express your answer in percent.
(a) –5.28% (c) –2.77% (e) –1.04%
(b) –3.59% (d) –1.90%

„ 21. A steel gas tank of volume 0.0700 m3 is filled to the top with gasoline at 20.0 °C. The tank is placed
inside a chamber with an interior temperature of 50.0 °C. The coefficient of volume expansion for
gasoline is 9.50 × 10–4/C°; and the coefficient of linear expansion of steel is 12.0 × 10–6/C°. After
the tank and its contents reach thermal equilibrium with the interior of the chamber, how much
gasoline has spilled?
(a) 2.52 × 10–5 m3 (c) 1.69 × 10–3 m3 (e) 2.00 × 10–3 m3
(b) 7.56 × 10 m–5 3
(d) 1.92 × 10 m–3 3

ˆ 22. The coefficient of volumetric expansion for gold is 4.20 × 10–5/C°. The density of gold is
19 300 kg/m3 at 0.0 °C. What is the density of gold at 1050 °C?
(a) 20 200 kg/ m3 (c) 19 000 kg/m3 (e) 18 500 kg/m3
(b) 19 300 kg/m3 (d) 18 800 kg/m3
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 123

ˆ 23. A tanker ship is filled with 2.25 × 105 m3 of gasoline at a refinery in southern Texas when the
temperature is 17.2 °C. When the ship arrives in New York City, the temperature is 1.3 °C. If the
coefficient of volumetric expansion for gasoline is 9.50 × 10–4/C°, how much has the volume of the
gasoline decreased when it is unloaded in New York?
(a) 1.50 × 10–2 m3 (c) 1290 m3 (e) 1.05 × 104 m3
(b) 66.2 m3 (d) 3400 m3

Section 12.6 Heat and Internal Energy

Section 12.7 Heat and Temperature Change: Specific Heat Capacity
… 24. Complete the following statement: The term heat most accurately describes
(a) the internal energy of an object.
(b) a measure of how hot an object is.
(c) the absolute temperature of an object.
(d) the molecular motion inside of an object.
(e) the flow of energy due to a temperature difference.

… 25. The units of heat are equivalent to those of which one of the following quantities?
(a) force/time (c) temperature (e) power
(b) work (d) specific heat capacity

… 26. The specific heat capacity of iron is approximately half that of aluminum. Two balls of equal
mass, one made of iron and the other of aluminum, both at 80 °C, are dropped into a thermally
insulated jar that contains an equal mass of water at 20 °C. Thermal equilibrium is eventually
reached. Which one of the following statements concerning the final temperatures is true?
(a) Both balls will reach the same final temperature.
(b) The iron ball will reach a higher final temperature than the aluminum ball.
(c) The aluminum ball will reach a higher final temperature than the iron ball.
(d) The difference in the final temperatures of the balls depends on the initial mass of the water.
(e) The difference in the final temperatures of the balls depends on the initial temperature of the
water.

… 27. Two cubes, one silver and one iron, have the same mass and temperature. A quantity Q of
heat is removed from each cube. Which one of the following properties causes the final
temperatures of the cubes to be different?
(a) density (c) specific heat capacity (e) volume
(b) latent heat of vaporization (d) coefficient of volume expansion

ˆ 28. A soft drink manufacturer claims that a new diet drink is “low Joule.” The label indicates the available
energy is 6300 J. What is the equivalent of this energy in Calories (1 Calorie = 1000 cal)?
(a) 0.015 Cal (c) 1.0 Cal (e) 4.8 Cal
(b) 0.48 Cal (d) 1.5 Cal

ˆ 29. Two spheres, labeled A and B, have identical masses, but are made of different substances. The
specific heat capacity of sphere A is 440 J/(kg · C°) and that of sphere B is 160 J/(kg · C°). The
spheres are initially at 21 °C; and the same quantity of heat is added to each sphere. If the final
temperature of sphere A is 72 °C, what is the final temperature of sphere B?
(a) 160 °C (c) 111 °C (e) 39 °C
(b) 140 °C (d) 51 °C
124 Chapter 12 Temperature and Heat

ˆ 30. A 2.00-kg metal object requires 5.02 × 103 J of heat to raise its temperature from 20.0 °C to 40.0 °C.
What is the specific heat capacity of the metal?
(a) 63.0 J/(kg · C°) (c) 251 J/(kg · C°) (e) 1.00 × 103 J/(kg · C°)
(b) 126 J/(kg · C°) (d) 502 J/(kg · C°)

„ 31. A 200.0-kg object is attached via an ideal pulley system to

paddle wheels that are submerged in 0.480 kg of water at
20.0 °C in an insulated container as shown in the drawing.
Then, the object falls through a distance of 5.00 m causing water
the paddle wheel to turn. Assuming all of the mechanical 200.0
energy lost by the falling object goes into the water, kg
determine the final temperature of the water.
paddle wheel
(a) 4.90 °C (d) 40.4 °C
(b) 20.5 °C (e) 98.2 °C
(c) 24.9 °C

ˆ 32. A 0.20-kg lead ball is heated to 90.0 °C and dropped into an ideal calorimeter containing 0.50 kg of
water initially at 20.0 °C. What is the final equilibrium temperature of the lead ball? The specific
heat capacity of lead is 128 J/(kg · C°); and the specific heat of water is 4186 J/(kg · C°).
(a) 4.8 °C (c) 22.4 °C (e) 42.1 °C
(b) 20.8 °C (d) 27.8 °C

„ 33. A gold sphere has a radius of 1.000 cm at 25.0 °C. If 7650 J of heat is added to the sphere, what will
the final volume of the sphere be? Gold has a density of 19 300 kg/m3 at 25.0 °C, a specific heat
capacity of 129 J/(kg · C°), and a coefficient of volume expansion of 42.0 × 10−6/C°.
(a) 2.88 × 10−6 m3 (c) 3.33 × 10−6 m3 (e) 4.32 × 10−6 m3
−6 −6
(b) 3.01 × 10 m 3
(d) 3.91 × 10 m 3

Questions 34 and 35 pertain to the situation described below:

A 2.00-kg metal block slides on a rough, horizontal surface inside an insulated pipe. After sliding a
distance of 500.0 m, its temperature is increased by 2.00 °C. Note: Assume that all of the heat
generated by frictional heating goes into the metal block. For this metal, the specific heat capacity is
0.150 cal/(g · C°).

ˆ 34. How much work does the force of friction do on the block?
(a) zero joules (c) −300 J (e) –2510 J
(b) 300 J (d) 2510 J

„ 35. What is the coefficient of sliding friction between the block and the surface?
(a) zero (c) 0.100 (e) 0.299
(b) 0.061 (d) 0.256
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 125

Section 12.8 Heat and Phase Change: Latent Heat

… 36. Complete the following statement: When a substance undergoes fusion it
(a) freezes. (c) condenses. (e) evaporates.
(b) sublimes. (d) vaporizes.

… 37. Which one of the following phrases is an example of sublimation?

(a) the fumes produced by moth balls
(b) the mist produced by liquid nitrogen
(c) the formation of dew on blades of grass
(d) the formation of raindrops in the atmosphere
(e) the condensation of steam on a kitchen window

… 38. Complete the following statement: When solid NH3 passes directly to the gaseous state it is said to
(a) melt. (c) condense. (e) fuse.
(b) sublime. (d) evaporate.

ˆ 39. A 1.0-g sample of steam at 100 °C loses 560 calories of heat. What is the resulting temperature of
the sample?
(a) 20 °C (c) 88 °C (e) 99 °C
(b) 80 °C (d) 96 °C

ˆ 40. Heat is added to a substance, but its temperature does not rise. Which one of the following
statements provides the best explanation for this observation?
(a) The substance must be a gas.
(b) The substance must be a non-perfect solid.
(c) The substance undergoes a change of phase.
(d) The substance has unusual thermal properties.
(e) The substance must be cooler than its environment.

ˆ 41. Which would cause a more serious burn: 30 g of steam or 30 g of liquid water, both at 100 °C;
and why is this so?
(a) Water, because it is denser than steam.
(b) Steam, because of its specific heat capacity.
(c) Steam, because of its latent heat of vaporization.
(d) Water, because its specific heat is greater than that of steam.
(e) Either one would cause a burn of the same severity since they are both at the same temperature.

ˆ 42. Heat is added to a sample of water in an insulated container. Which one of the following statements
is necessarily true?
(a) The temperature of the water will rise.
(b) The volume of the water must decrease.
(c) The mass of the system must decrease.
(d) Under certain conditions, the temperature of the water can decrease.
(e) The type of change that will occur depends on the original temperature of the water.

„ 43. A 5.0-g sample of ice at 0.0 °C falls through a distance of 20.0 m and undergoes a completely
inelastic collision with the earth. If all of the mechanical energy is absorbed by the ice, how much
of it melts?
(a) 2.9 × 10−3 g (c) 7.6 × 10−3 g (e) 2.1 × 10−2 g
−3 −2
(b) 4.3 × 10 g (d) 1.8 × 10 g
126 Chapter 12 Temperature and Heat

ˆ 44. What is the minimum amount of energy required to completely melt a 7.25-kg lead brick which
has a starting temperature of 18.0 °C? The melting point of lead is 328 °C. The specific heat
capacity of lead is 128 J/(kg · C°); and its latent heat of fusion is 23 200 J/kg.
(a) 1.20 × 105 J (c) 2.88 × 105 J (e) 7.44 × 105 J
(b) 1.68 × 10 J5
(d) 4.56 × 10 J5

ˆ 45. Using the data in the table, determine how many calories are needed to change 100 g of solid X at
10 °C to a vapor at 210 °C.

Thermodynamic Constants for Substance X

heat of fusion 40.0 cal/g
heat of vaporization 150.0 cal/g
melting point 10.0 °C
boiling point 210.0 °C
specific heat capacity (liquid X ) 0.500 cal/(g ⋅ C°)

(a) 4000 cal (c) 15 000 cal (e) 39 000 cal

(b) 10 000 cal (d) 29 000 cal

„ 46. A 0.030-kg ice cube at 0 °C is placed in an insulated box that

contains a fixed quantity of steam at 100 °C. When thermal steam
equilibrium of this closed system is established, its temperature
is found to be 23 °C. Determine the original mass of the steam ice cube
at 100 °C.
(a) 0.17 g (c) 2.5 g (e) 5.0 g
(b) 1.7 g (d) 4.8 g

„ 47. A 0.040-kg ice cube at 0 °C is placed in an insulated box that steam

contains 0.0075 kg of steam at 100 °C. What is the
equilibrium temperature reached by this closed system? ice cube
Note: Assume that all of the ice melts.
(a) 22.7 °C (d) 50.7 °C
(b) 33.6 °C (e) 66.4 °C
(c) 44.9 °C

ˆ 48. A thermos bottle contains 3.0 kg of water and 2.0 kg of ice in thermal equilibrium at 0 °C.
How much heat is required to bring the system to thermal equilibrium at 50 °C?
(a) 250 kcal (c) 410 kcal (e) 2700 kcal
(b) 310 kcal (d) 540 kcal

ˆ 49. Judy places 0.150 kg of boiling water in a thermos bottle. How many kilograms of ice at –12.0 °C
must Judy add to the thermos so that the equilibrium temperature of the water is 75.0 °C?
(a) 0.0233 kg (c) 0.0436 kg (e) 0.625 kg
(b) 0.0265 kg (d) 0.0713 kg

ˆ 50. Determine the latent heat of vaporization of unknown substance X in kcal/g if 3.0 g of boiling
liquid X are completely vaporized in 1.5 hours by an input of 10 kcal/h into the system by an energy
source.
(a) 5 kcal/g (c) 27 kcal/g (e) 57.9 kcal/g
(b) 15 kcal/g (d) 30 kcal/g
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 127

„ 51. In an insulated container, 0.50 kg of steam, initially at 140 °C, is mixed with 2.0 kg of ice, initially
at –20.0 °C. What is the final temperature inside the container if heat exchanges with the container
are ignored?
(a) 16 °C (c) 60 °C (e) 86 °C
(b) 50 °C (d) 64 °C

„ 52. A household humidifier continuously takes water in at 20.0 °C at a rate of 5.60 × 10−5 kg/s and
heats it until it evaporates. If the cost of electricity is $ 0.14/kWh, what is the daily cost of
operating the humidifier? Notes: one kWh = 3.60 × 106 J; and for water, the specific heat
capacity is 4186 J/(kg · C°); the latent heats of fusion and vaporization are 3.35 × 105 J/kg and
2.26 × 106 J/kg, respectively.
(a) $ 0.31 (c) $ 0.58 (e) $ 0.70
(b) $ 0.49 (d) $ 0.65

Questions 53 through 55 pertain to the situation described below:

A 0.0500-kg lead bullet of volume 5.00 × 10−6 m3 at 20.0 °C hits a block that is made of an
ideal thermal insulator and comes to rest at its center. At that time, the temperature of the bullet
is 327 °C. Use the following information for lead:
coefficient of linear expansion: α = 2.0 × 10−5/C°
specific heat capacity: c = 128 J/(kg · C°)
latent heat of fusion: Lf = 23 200 J/kg
melting point: Tmelt = 327 °C

ˆ 53. How much heat was needed to raise the bullet to its final temperature?
(a) 963 J (c) 3640 J (e) 4440 J
(b) 1960 J (d) 3880 J

ˆ 54. What is the volume of the bullet when it comes to rest?

(a) 5.00 × 10−6 m3 (c) 5.03 × 10−6 m3 (e) 5.09 × 10−6 m3
−6
(b) 5.01 × 10 m 3
(d) 5.07 × 10−6 m3

ˆ 55. What additional heat would be needed to melt the bullet?

(a) 420 J (c) 837 J (e) 2010 J
(b) 628 J (d) 1160 J

*Section 12.9 Equilibrium between Phases of Matter

… 56. A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor in a closed vessel. Which one of the following statements is
necessarily true?
(a) The rate of condensation is greater than the evaporation rate.
(b) The rate of evaporation is greater than the condensation rate.
(c) The temperature of the vapor is greater than that of the liquid.
(d) Molecules of the liquid do not have enough energy to vaporize.
(e) The temperature of the vapor is the same as that of the liquid.
128 Chapter 12 Temperature and Heat

Pressure (Pa)
ˆ 57. The graph shows the equilibrium vapor pressure 1.8 × 10 5
versus temperature for a certain liquid and its
vapor within an open container. If the container is 1.4 × 10 5
at sea level, at approximately what temperature
will the liquid boil? 1.0 × 10 5
(a) 50 °C
(b) 65 °C 6.0 × 10 4
(c) 75 °C
(d) 85 °C 2.0 × 10 4

(e) 100 °C 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90
Temperature (°C)

*Section 12.10 Humidity

ˆ 58. Given the following information, determine the relative humidity at 15 °C.
partial pressure of water at 15 °C = 1230 Pa
partial pressure of water at the dew point, 15 °C = 1710 Pa
(a) 39.0 % (c) 50.8 % (e) 71.9 %
(b) 47.9 % (d) 64.1 %

„ 59. On a warm summer day, the relative humidity is 30 % when the temperature is 32 °C. Which one
of the following statements is true if the temperature suddenly decreases to 26 °C and all other
conditions remain the same?
(a) The relative humidity will decrease. (d) The partial pressure of water vapor will decrease.
(b) The relative humidity will increase. (e) The vaporization curve of water will change.
(c) The dew point will change.

Additional Problems
ˆ 60. An ordinary mercury thermometer at room temperature is quickly placed in a beaker of hot water.
The mercury column is observed to drop slightly before it rises to the final equilibrium temperature.
Which one of the following statements is the best explanation for this behavior?
(a) The glass envelope expands before the heat reaches the mercury.
(b) The expansion coefficient of glass is larger than that of mercury.
(c) Both the mercury and the glass initially expand, but at different rates.
(d) Initially, the mercury contracts.
(e) Initially, the glass envelop contracts.

„ 61. After working a 0.55-kg iron horseshoe with a temperature of 460 °C on an anvil, a ferrier drops it
into a bucket that contains 11 kg of water with an initial temperature of 24 °C. Assuming no heat is
transferred to the environment, determine the final temperature of the horseshoe in the bucket of
water when thermal equilibrium is achieved. The specific heat capacity of iron is 452 J/kg · C°. For
water, the specific heat capacity is 4186 J/kg · C°.
(a) 26 °C (c) 41 °C (e) 52 °C
(b) 34 °C (d) 49 °C
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 129

Questions 62 through 66 pertain to the

situation described below:

Heat is added to a 1.0-kg solid sample

of a material at –200 °C. The figure
shows the temperature of the material
as a function of the heat added.

ˆ 62. Which one of the following statements concerning this substance is true?
(a) It boils at 300 °C. (d) It can coexist as a solid and a liquid at –50 °C.
(b) It melts at –200 °C. (e) It can exist as a solid, liquid, and gas at 150 °C.
(c) It is a liquid at 200 °C.

… 63. What is the latent heat of fusion of this material?

(a) 50 cal/g (c) 150 cal/g (e) 450 cal/g
(b) 100 cal/g (d) 300 cal/g

… 64. What is the latent heat of vaporization of this material?

(a) 50 cal/g (c) 150 cal/g (e) 450 cal/g
(b) 100 cal/g (d) 300 cal/g

ˆ 65. What is the specific heat capacity of this substance in its solid state?
(a) 0.33 cal/(g · C°) (c) 1.00 cal/(g · C°) (e) 3.00 cal/(g · C°)
(b) 0.75 cal/(g · C°) (d) 1.33 cal/(g · C°)

ˆ 66. What is the specific heat capacity of this substance in its liquid state?
(a) 0.33 cal/(g · C°) (c) 1.00 cal/(g · C°) (e) 3.00 cal/(g · C°)
(b) 0.75 cal/(g · C°) (d) 1.33 cal/(g · C°)
 chapter THE TRANSFER
OF HEAT

Section 13.1 Convection

… 1. Complete the following statement: The transfer of heat by convection will occur
(a) only in metals. (d) with or without the presence of matter.
(b) only in a vacuum. (e) only in the presence of a liquid or a gas.
(c) only in non-metallic solids.

ˆ 2. Which one of the following statements best explains why convection does not occur in solids?
(a) Molecules in a solid are more closely spaced than in a gas.
(b) The molecules in a solid are not free to move throughout the volume of the solid.
(c) Molecules in a solid vibrate at a lower frequency than those in a liquid.
(d) Solids are more compressible than liquids.
(e) Solids are less compressible than gases.

… 3. Which one of the following is not an example of convection?

(a) Smoke rises above a fire. (d) Spaghetti is cooked in water.
(b) An eagle soars on an updraft of wind. (e) An electric heater warms a room.
(c) A person gets a suntan on a beach.

ˆ 4. Which one of the following processes does not occur during the convective transfer of heat
within a container of air?
(a) The volume of a warmed part of the air is reduced and its density increases.
(b) A continuous flow of warmer and cooler parts of air is established.
(c) The flow of air molecules results in a flow of heat.
(d) The cooler portion of the air surrounding a warmer part exerts a buoyant force on it.
(e) As the warmer part of the air moves, it is replaced by cooler air that is subsequently warmed.

Section 13.2 Conduction

… 5. Suppose you are sitting next to a fireplace in which there is a fire burning. One end of a metal poker
has been left in the fire. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true?
(a) You can feel the heat of the fire primarily because of convection.
(b) The end of the poker that is not in the fire is warmed through conduction.
(c) Heat escapes through the chimney primarily through conduction.
(d) You can feel the heat of the fire primarily because of conduction.
(e) The end of the poker that is not in the fire is warmed through convection.

ˆ 6. The two ends of an iron rod are maintained at different temperatures. The amount of heat that flows
through the rod by conduction during a given time interval does not depend upon
(a) the length of the iron rod. (d) the mass of the iron rod.
(b) the thermal conductivity of iron. (e) the duration of the time interval.
(c) the temperature difference between the ends of the rod.

ˆ 7. The ends of a cylindrical steel rod are maintained at two different temperatures. The rod conducts
heat from one end to the other at a rate of 10 cal/s. At what rate would a steel rod twice as long and
twice the diameter conduct heat between the same two temperatures?
(a) 5 cal/s (c) 20 cal/s (e) 80 cal/s
(b) 10 cal/s (d) 40 cal/s
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 131

… 8. Which one of the following materials is the best thermal conductor?

(a) diamond (c) nitrogen gas (e) goose down
(b) Styrofoam (d) concrete

… 9. Which one of the following materials is the poorest thermal conductor?

(a) gold (c) copper (e) air
(b) ice (d) wood

… 10. The space between the inner walls of a thermos bottle is evacuated to minimize heat transfer by
(a) radiation. (d) conduction and radiation.
(b) conduction. (e) conduction, convection, and radiation.
(c) conduction and convection.

ˆ 11. At what rate is heat lost through a 1.0 m × 1.5 m rectangular glass windowpane that is 0.5 cm
thick when the inside temperature is 20 °C and the outside temperature is 5 °C? The thermal
conductivity for glass is 0.80 W/(m · C°).
(a) 18 W (c) 720 W (e) 7200 W
(b) 36 W (d) 3600 W

„ 12. Two cylindrical steel rods A and B have radii of 0.02 m and 0.04 m, respectively. The two steel
rods conduct the same amount of heat per unit time for the same temperature differences between
their two ends. What is the ratio of the lengths of the rods, LA/LB?
(a) 0.25 (c) 1.00 (e) 4.00
(b) 0.50 (d) 2.00

ˆ 13. A cabin has a 0.159-m thick wooden floor [k = 0.141 W/(m · C°)] with an area of 13.4 m2. A roaring
fire keeps the interior of the cabin at a comfortable 18.0 °C while the air temperature in the crawl
space below the cabin is −20.6 °C. What is the rate of heat conduction through the wooden floor?
(a) 31 J/s (c) 214 J/s (e) 459 J/s
(b) 138 J/s (d) 245 J/s

ˆ 14. A granite wall has a thickness of 0.61 m and a thermal conductivity of 2.1 W/(m · C°). The
temperature on one face of the wall is 3.2 °C and 20.0 °C on the opposite face. How much heat is
transferred in one hour through each square meter of the granite wall?
(a) 2.1 × 105 J/m2 (c) 7.7 × 104 J/m2 (e) 58 J/m2
5 2 3 2
(b) 1.0 × 10 J/m (d) 1.8 × 10 J/m

„ 15. On a cold winter day, the outside temperature is −5.0 °C while the interior of a well-insulated
garage is maintained at 20.0 °C by an electric heater. Assume the walls have a total area of 75 m2,
a thickness of 0.15 m, and a thermal conductivity of 0.042 W/(m · C°). What is the cost to heat
the garage for six hours at these temperatures if the cost of electricity is $ 0.14/kWh?
Note: 1 kWh = 3.6 × 106 J.
(a) $ 0.18 (c) $ 0.61 (e) $ 1.09
(b) $ 0.44 (d) $ 0.74

ˆ 16. Heat is conducted by two cylindrical rods, one carbon and one silver, with identical cross-sectional
area and length. The temperature difference between the ends of each rod is the same. Carbon has a
thermal conductivity of 1100 J/(s ⋅ m ⋅ C°) and that of silver is 420 J/(s ⋅ m ⋅ C°). What percentage of
the total energy transferred by the two rods each second is conducted by the silver rod?
(a) 64 % (c) 50 % (e) 72 %
(b) 28 % (d) 36 %
132 Chapter 13 The Transfer of Heat

ˆ 17. In an experiment to determine the thermal conductivity of a bar of a new alloy, one end of the bar is
maintained at 0.0 °C and the other end at 100.0 °C. The bar has a cross-sectional area of 1.0 cm2 and
a length of 15 cm. If the rate of heat conduction through the bar is 24 W, what is the thermal
conductivity of the bar?
(a) 24 W/(m · C°) (c) 160 W/(m · C°) (e) 0.029 W/(m · C°)
(b) 360 W/(m · C°) (d) 63 W/(m · C°)

240 °C 210 °C
„ 18. A slab of insulation is made of three layers, as
Drawing I indicates. Each of the layers A, B, and C
has the same thickness, but a different thermal
conductivity. Heat flows through the slab, and the 250 °C A B C 150 °C
temperatures are as shown. What are the
temperatures T1 and T2 in Drawing II where the Drawing I
layers are arranged in a different order?
(a) T1 = 230 °C and T2 = 170 °C
T1 T2
(b) T1 = 200 °C and T2 = 180 °C
(c) T1 = 220 °C and T2 = 160 °C
(d) T1 = 180 °C and T2 = 160 °C
250 °C B C A 150 °C
(e) T1 = 210 °C and T2 = 190 °C
Drawing II

Questions 19 through 22 pertain to the situation described below:

Two bars, A and B, each of length 2.0 m and A B

2
cross sectional area 1.0 m , are placed end to 373 K
end as shown in the figure. 273 K
The thermal conductivities of the bars are
kA = 339 J/(s ⋅ m ⋅ K) and kB = 837 J/(s ⋅ m ⋅ K), respectively. The left end of bar A is maintained at
373 K while the right end of B is maintained at 273 K.

ˆ 19. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the above situation?
(a) For a given time t, the amount of heat transferred through bar A is the same as that through B.
(b) For a given time t, the amount of heat transferred through bar A is smaller than that through B.
(c) For a given time t, the amount of heat transferred through bar A is less than that through B.
(d) The time for a quantity of heat Q to pass through bar A is less than that for B.
(e) Time is not a factor in determining the quantity of heat conducted through these bars.

„ 20. What is the temperature at the interface between A and B?

(a) 332 K (c) 296 K (e) 302 K
(b) 323 K (d) 313 K

ˆ 21. What is the rate of heat transfer through this combination?

(a) 3.0 × 103 J/s (c) 9.0 × 103 J/s (e) 2.4 × 104 J/s
(b) 6.0 × 103 J/s (d) 1.2 × 104 J/s

ˆ 22. How much heat passes the interface between A and B in 5.0 s?
(a) 6.0 × 104 J (c) 1.2 × 105 J (e) 3.0 × 104 J
(b) 1.5 × 10 J
3
(d) 4.5 × 104 J
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 133

Section 13.3 Radiation

… 23. Which one of the following objects, all initially at the same temperature, will be most efficient in
losing heat?
(a) a dull black box in vacuum (d) a polished silver box in air
(b) a dull black box in air (e) a polished silver box in vacuum
(c) a box with an emissivity of 0.1

… 24. Complete the following statement: Most of the heat that is lost to space from the earth occurs by
(a) conduction. (d) both conduction and radiation.
(b) convection. (e) both conduction and convection.
(c) radiation.

ˆ 25. Which object will emit more electromagnetic radiation than it absorbs from its surroundings?
(a) a 600 °C lead sphere in a 700 °C oven
(b) a girl scout sitting close to a campfire
(c) an ice cube in beaker of water at 50 °C
(d) a 200 °C copper coin in a beaker of water at 98 °C
(e) an ice cube in thermal equilibrium with the interior of a freezer

… 26. Complete the following statement: The interior of a thermos bottle is silvered to minimize heat
transfer due to
(a) radiation.
(b) conduction.
(c) conduction and convection.
(d) conduction and radiation.
(e) conduction, convection, and radiation.

ˆ 27. The sun continuously radiates energy into space, some of which is intercepted by the earth. The
average temperature of the surface of the earth remains about 300 K. Why doesn’t the earth’s
temperature rise as it intercepts the sun’s energy?
(a) The earth reflects the sun’s light.
(b) The earth radiates an amount of energy into space equal to the amount it receives.
(c) The energy only raises the temperature of the upper atmosphere and never reaches the surface.
(d) The thermal conductivity of the earth is low.
(e) The heat is carried away from the earth by convection currents.

„ 28. Two identical solid spheres have the same temperature. One of the spheres is cut into two
identical pieces. These two hemispheres are then separated. The intact sphere radiates an energy
Q during a given time interval. During the same interval, the two hemispheres radiate a total
energy Q′. What is the ratio Q′/Q?
(a) 2.0 (c) 4.0 (e) 0.25
(b) 0.50 (d) 1.5

ˆ 29. Which one of the following statements concerning the Stefan-Boltzmann equation is true?
(a) This equation applies only to perfect radiators.
(b) This equation applies only to perfect absorbers.
(c) This equation is valid with any temperature units.
(d) This equation describes the transport of thermal energy by conduction.
(e) The equation can be used to calculate the power absorbed by any surface.
134 Chapter 13 The Transfer of Heat

ˆ 30. Which one of the following statements concerning emissivity is false?

(a) The emissivity is 1.0 for a perfect radiator.
(b) The emissivity is 1.0 for a perfect absorber.
(c) Emissivity depends on the condition of the surface.
(d) Emissivity is a dimensionless quantity.
(e) Emissivity depends on the surface area of the object.

ˆ 31. A hot metal ball is hung in an oven that is maintained at 700 K; and it cools. When the
temperature of the ball is 900 K, it is losing heat at a rate of 0.10 J/min. At what rate will the ball
loose heat when the ball reaches 800 K? Assume that the emissivity of the ball does not change
appreciably with temperature.
(a) 0.1 J/min (c) 0.4 J/min (e) 0.04 J/min
(b) 0.2 J/min (d) 0.6 J/min

… 32. Which one of the following graphs shows the rate at which heat is emitted from a hot body as a
function of its Kelvin temperature T?
P P P P P

T T T T T
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

ˆ 33. Assume that the sun is a sphere of radius 6.96 × 108 m and that its surface temperature is 5.8 × 103
K. If the sun radiates at a rate of 3.90 × 1026 W and is a perfect emitter, at what rate is energy
emitted per square meter at the sun's surface?
(a) 5.6 × 107 W/m2 (c) 5.6 × 1017 W/m2 (e) 25.6 × 107 W/m2
(b) 6.4 × 10 W/m
7 2
(d) 12.8 × 10 W/m
7 2

ˆ 34. A blue supergiant star has a radius of 7.0 × 1010 m. The spherical surface behaves as a
blackbody radiator. If the surface temperature is 2.2 × 104 K, what is the rate at which energy is
radiated from the star?
(a) 1.2 × 10−3 J/s (c) 2.0 × 1023 J/s (e) 1.9 × 1043 J/s
(b) 7.7 × 10 J/s
19
(d) 8.2 × 10 J/s
32

ˆ 35. Assuming a filament in a 100 W light bulb acts like a perfect blackbody, what is the temperature of
the hottest portion of the filament if it has a surface area of 6.3 × 10−5 m2? The Stefan-Boltzmann
constant is 5.67 × 10−8 W/(m2 · K2).
(a) 130 K (c) 2300 K (e) 30 000 K
(b) 1100 K (d) 5800 K

ˆ 36. A person steps out of the shower and dries off. The person’s skin with an emissivity of 0.70 has a
total area of 1.2 m2 and a temperature of 33 °C. What is the net rate at which energy is lost to the
room through radiation by the naked person if the room temperature is 24 °C?
(a) 0.041 W (c) 81 W (e) 47 W
(b) 25 W (d) 67 W

„ 37. The power radiated by a distant star is 4.2 × 1027 W. The radius of the star, which may be
considered a perfect radiator, is 1.06 × 1010 m. Determine the surface temperature of the star.
(a) 2690 K (c) 7240 K (e) 9770 K
(b) 4430 K (d) 8510 K
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 135

„ 38. Object A has an emissivity of 0.95; and its temperature is 25 °C. At what temperature (in degrees
Celsius) does object B, whose emissivity is 0.60, emit radiation at the same rate as object A if both
objects have the same surface area?
(a) 28 °C (c) 61 °C (e) 97 °C
(b) 40 °C (d) 73 °C

Additional Problems
ˆ 39. A beaker of water is placed on a Bunsen burner. As the lower layers of water are heated, they become
less dense and rise. This permits cooler layers to move downward and be heated. Eventually, the
water boils. Which method(s) of heat transfer is (are) primarily responsible for boiling the sample?
(a) conduction (d) both conduction and radiation
(b) convection (e) both conduction and convection
(c) radiation

ˆ 40. If a beaker of water is placed under a broiler so that the heating coil is above the beaker. It is
observed that only the surface layer boils. The water at the bottom of the beaker remains close to
the initial temperature of the water. Which of the following statements is the most reasonable
conclusion to be drawn from these observations?
(a) Water is a poor conductor of heat.
(b) The sample must contain impurities.
(c) Water is easily heated by radiation.
(d) Water exhibits anomalous thermal behavior.
(e) The molecular motion in the sample is not random.

Questions 41 and 42 pertain to the situation described below:

Two kilograms of ice at 0.0 °C are placed in a sealed glass container [k = 0.80 W/(m · C°)].
The container is then placed in a room that is maintained at 30.0 °C. The top cover is a thermal
insulator and all other sides of the container are exposed to room air. The surface area of the
container is 6.53 × 10−2 m2; and its glass walls are 0.0050 m thick.

ˆ 41. How much heat is required to melt the ice?

(a) 16 J (c) 1.6 × 105 J (e) 4.5 × 106 J
(b) 1080 J (d) 6.7 × 105 J

„ 42. Approximately how long does it take all of the ice to melt?
(a) 4.7 min (c) 18 min (e) 2.7 h
(b) 7.8 min (d) 36 min
 chapter THE IDEAL GAS LAW
AND KINETIC THEORY

Section 14.1 Molecular Mass, the Mole, and Avogadro’s Number

… 1. Complete the following statement: The atomic mass unit (u) is defined so that 1 u is exactly equal
to the mass of
(a) a single hydrogen atom. (d) 1/32 of an oxygen molecule.
(b) 1/4 of a helium molecule. (e) 1/12 of a carbon-12 atom.
(c) 1/16 of an oxygen-16 atom.

ˆ 2. Which one of the following statements concerning the mole is false?

(a) The mole is related to Avogadro's number.
(b) The mole is defined in terms of the carbon-12 isotope.
(c) The mole is the SI base unit for expressing the “amount” of a substance.
(d) One mole of a substance has the same mass as one mole of any other substance.
(e) One mole of a substance contains the same number of particles as one mole of any other
substance.

ˆ 3. How many molecules are in 0.064 kg of sulfur dioxide, SO2? (atomic masses: S = 32 u; O = 16 u)
(a) 3 (c) 2.00 × 1024 (e) 3.85 × 1025
(b) 64 (d) 6.02 × 10 23

ˆ 4. What is the mass of 1.5 moles of hydrogen molecules, H2? (atomic mass of H = 1 u)
(a) 0.0063 g (c) 0.0082 kg (e) 0.022 kg
(b) 0.0030 kg (d) 0.015 kg

ˆ 5. How many moles are in a 0.23-kg sample of carbon dioxide, CO2? (atomic masses: C = 12 u;
O = 16 u)
(a) 5.2 (c) 230 (e) 1.4 × 1026
(b) 52 (d) 1.1 × 10 4

ˆ 6. Two pure samples of atoms, labeled A and B, contain oxygen atoms and carbon atoms, respectively.
Each sample contains the same number of atoms. What is the ratio of the mass of sample B to that of
sample A, mB/mA? Note the following atomic masses: C = 12 u; O = 16 u.
(a) 1.0 (c) 2.0 (e) 0.75
(b) 0.5 (d) 1.5

ˆ 7. A gold coin has a mass of 24.75 g. If the atomic mass of gold is 192.967 u, how many gold atoms
are in the coin?
(a) 7.724 × 1022 (c) 3.812 × 1023 (e) 1.390 × 1025
(b) 9.158 × 10 22
(d) 5.526 × 10 24

„ 8. The density of diamond, a form of carbon, is 3520 kg/m3. If the atomic mass of carbon is 12.011 u,
how many carbon atoms are there in a solid diamond sphere with a radius of 0.033 m?
(a) 5.16 × 1026 atoms (c) 2.08 × 1026 atoms (e) 4.90 × 1028 atoms
(b) 1.04 × 10 atoms
27
(d) 2.66 × 10 atoms
25
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 137

ˆ 9. What is the mass of an oxygen molecule, O2, if the atomic mass of oxygen is 15.9994 u?
(a) 2.657 × 10–26 kg (c) 3.200 × 10–25 kg (e) 1.927 × 10–23 kg
(b) 5.313 × 10 kg
–26
(d) 6.400 × 10 kg–25

Section 14.2 The Ideal Gas Law

… 10. Which one of the following statements best explains why gases are not commercially sold by volume?
(a) Gas volume is negligible.
(b) Gas volume is difficult to measure.
(c) Gas volume depends on the type of gas.
(d) Gases have comparatively low densities.
(e) Gas volume depends on temperature and pressure.

… 11. Note the following six properties:

(1) number of molecules (3) temperature (5) latent heat
(2) moment of inertia (4) pressure (6) volume
Which four of the listed properties are needed to describe an ideal gas?
(a) 1, 2, 4, 6 (c) 1, 3, 4, 6 (e) 2, 4, 5, 6
(b) 1, 3, 5, 6 (d) 1, 4, 5, 6

ˆ 12. A sample of neon gas at 20 °C is confined to a cylinder with a movable piston. The gas is then
heated until its pressure is doubled. What is the final temperature of the gas?
(a) 10 °C (c) 313 °C (e) This cannot be found since the final
(b) 40 °C (d) 586 °C and initial volumes are unknown.

ˆ 13. A sample of a monatomic ideal gas is originally at 20 °C. What is the final temperature of the gas
if both the pressure and volume are doubled?
(a) 5 °C (c) 80 °C (e) 1200 °C
(b) 20 °C (d) 900 °C

ˆ 14. An ideal gas at 0 °C is contained within a rigid vessel. The temperature of the gas is increased by
1 C°. What is Pf/Pi, the ratio of the final to initial pressure?
(a) 273/274 (c) 1/2 (e) 1/273
(b) 274/273 (d) 1/10

ˆ 15. Neon gas at 20 °C is confined within a rigid vessel. The gas is then heated until its pressure is
doubled. What is the final temperature of the gas?
(a) 10 °C (c) 40 °C (e) 586 °C
(b) 20 °C (d) 313 °C

ˆ 16. Argon gas at 305 K is confined within a constant volume at a pressure P1. If the gas has a
pressure P2 when it is cooled to 195 K, what is the ratio of P2 to P1?
(a) 0.410 (c) 0.717 (e) 1.56
(b) 0.639 (d) 1.28

ˆ 17. In the space between two stars, the temperature of a gas cloud is 12 K; and the density of the gas
is 1.2 × 10−8 atom/m3. What is the absolute pressure of the gas?
(a) 2.0 × 10−30 Pa (c) 2.0 × 10−17 Pa (e) 1.4 × 10−4 Pa
−28 −6
(b) 1.2 × 10 Pa (d) 1.2 × 10 Pa
138 Chapter 14 The Ideal Gas Law and Kinetic Theory

ˆ 18. An ideal gas is confined within a closed cylinder at atmospheric pressure (1.013 × 105 Pa) by a
piston. The piston moves until the volume of the gas is reduced to one-ninth of the initial volume.
What is the final pressure of the gas when its temperature returns to its initial value?
(a) 9.117 × 105 Pa (c) 4.559 × 105 Pa (e) 1.013 × 105 Pa
(b) 6.447 × 10 Pa
5
(d) 3.102 × 10 Pa
5

ˆ 19. Heat is supplied to a sample of a monatomic ideal gas at 40 °C. It is observed that the gas expands
until its volume is doubled and the pressure drops to half of its original value. What is the final
temperature of the gas?
(a) 10 °C (c) 40 °C (e) 1600 °C
(b) 20 °C (d) 80 °C

ˆ 20. An ideal gas with a fixed number of molecules is maintained at a constant pressure. At 30.0 °C, the
volume of the gas is 1.50 m3. What is the volume of the gas when the temperature is increased to
75.0 °C?
(a) 0.60 m3 (c) 1.72 m3 (e) 3.75 m3
3 3
(b) 1.30 m (d) 2.45 m

… 21. The volume of a carbon dioxide bubble rising in a glass of beer is observed to nearly double as the
bubble rises from the bottom to the top of the glass. Why, according to our textbook, does the
volume nearly double?
(a) The temperature at the bottom is cooler than it is at the top.
(b) The amount of carbon dioxide in the bubble increases.
(c) The fluid pressure of the beer is greater at the bottom of the glass than at the top.
(d) The pressure inside the bubble decreases as it rises.
(e) The shape of the glass determines the net force exerted on the bubble.

„ 22. A sealed container has a volume of 0.020 m3 and contains 15.0 g of molecular nitrogen (N2)
which has a molecular mass of 28.0 u. The gas is at a temperature of 525 K. What is the absolute
pressure of the nitrogen gas?
(a) 3.9 × 10−19 Pa (c) 1.2 × 105 Pa (e) 4.3 × 106 Pa
−5
(b) 4.3 × 10 Pa (d) 1.9 × 10 Pa
5

„ 23. The temperature of a monatomic ideal gas with a mass per mole of 0.00750 kg/mol is 294 K. The
absolute pressure of the gas is 1.05 × 105 Pa when its volume is 1.31 × 10–3 m3. What is the mass
of the gas?
(a) 8.04 × 10–5 kg (c) 4.22 × 10–4 kg (e) 1.19 × 10–3 kg
(b) 1.92 × 10 kg
–4
(d) 7.66 × 10 kg
–4

„ 24. An ideal gas is contained in a vessel with a moveable piston. Initially, the gas has a volume of 0.018
m3, an absolute pressure of 1.5 atm, and a temperature of 30.0 °C. The pressure is 0.75 atm when
the volume of the container is decreased to 0.009 m3. What is the final temperature of the gas?
(a) 76 K (c) 170 K (e) 300 K
(b) 98 K (d) 240 K
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 139

Section 14.3 Kinetic Theory of Gases

… 25. Complete the following statement: The absolute temperature of an ideal gas is directly proportional to
(a) the number of molecules in the sample.
(b) the average momentum of a molecule of the gas.
(c) the average translational kinetic energy of the gas.
(d) the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the gas by 1 C°.
(e) the relative increase in volume of the gas for a temperature increase of 1 C°.

… 26. Which one of the following properties of a gas is not consistent with kinetic theory?
(a) The average speed of the gas molecules is smaller at high temperatures.
(b) Gas molecules are widely separated.
(c) Gases fill whatever space is available to them.
(d) Gas molecules move rapidly in a random fashion.
(e) Gas molecules make elastic collisions with the walls of the containing vessel.

… 27. Which one of the following statements concerning a collection of gas molecules at a certain
temperature is true?
(a) All molecules move with the same velocity.
(b) Most of the molecules have the same kinetic energy.
(c) The lower the temperature, the greater are the molecular speeds.
(d) All molecules possess the same momentum.
(e) The molecules have a range of kinetic energies.

ˆ 28. At what temperature would one mole of molecular oxygen (O2) have 5.0 × 103 J of translational
kinetic energy? Note: the atomic mass of O is 16 u.
(a) 130 °C (c) 400 °C (e) 1000 °C
(b) 390 °C (d) 670 °C

„ 29. A five-liter tank contains 2.00 moles of oxygen gas, O2, at 40 °C. What pressure is exerted on the
sides of the tank by the oxygen molecules?
(a) 83.3 Pa (c) 1.33 × 105 Pa (e) 1.04 × 106 Pa
(b) 4.01 × 10 Pa
3
(d) 4.01 × 10 Pa
5

„ 30. A 1.00 × 10−2 m3 flask contains 0.0160 kg of oxygen gas, O2, at 77.0 °C. What is the pressure exerted
on the inner walls of the flask by the oxygen gas? Note: the atomic mass of O is 15.9994 u.
(a) 3.19 × 104 Pa (c) 2.90 × 105 Pa (e) 4.87 × 106 Pa
(b) 1.45 × 10 Pa
5
(d) 5.79 × 10 Pa
5

ˆ 31. Consider two ideal gases, A and B, at the same temperature. The rms speed of the molecules of
gas A is twice that of gas B. How does the molecular mass of A compare to that of B?
(a) The molecular mass of A is twice that of B.
(b) The molecular mass of A is one half that of B.
(c) The molecular mass of A is 1.4 times that of B.
(d) The molecular mass of A is one fourth that of B.
(e) The molecular mass of A is four times that of B.

… 32. Under which of the following conditions would you expect real gases to approach ideal behavior?
(a) low temperature and low pressure (d) high temperature and high pressure
(b) high temperature and low pressure (e) high temperature and high density
(c) low temperature and high pressure
140 Chapter 14 The Ideal Gas Law and Kinetic Theory

„ 33. Two moles of a monatomic gas with an rms speed of 254 m/s are contained in a tank that has a
volume of 0.15 m3. If each gas particle has a mass of 6.642 × 10–26 kg, what is the absolute pressure
of the gas?
(a) 2.3 × 105 Pa (c) 6.8 × 104 Pa (e) 3.4 × 104 Pa
(b) 1.1 × 10 Pa
4
(d) 5.4 × 10 Pa
4

… 34. Which one of the following factors is directly responsible for the pressure exerted by a confined gas?
(a) the atomic mass of the gas
(b) the density of the sample of molecules
(c) the temperature of the sample of molecules
(d) the collision of gas molecules with the sides of the containing vessel
(e) the average translational kinetic energy of the molecules

ˆ 35. Complete the following statement: A bicycle tire explodes after lying in the hot afternoon sun.
This is an illustration of
(a) Charles' law. (c) Fick's law. (e) the Maxwell speed
(b) Boyle's law. (d) the ideal gas law. distribution.

… 36. Complete the following statement: The internal energy of an ideal monatomic gas is
(a) proportional to the pressure and inversely proportional to the volume of the gas.
(b) independent of the number of moles of the gas.
(c) proportional to the Kelvin temperature of the gas.
(d) dependent on both the pressure and the temperature of the gas.
(e) a constant that is independent of pressure, volume or temperature.

… 37. Complete the following statement: The pressure exerted by a monatomic, ideal gas on the walls of
its containing vessel is a measure of
(a) the molecular kinetic energy per unit volume.
(b) the average random kinetic energy per molecule.
(c) the temperature of the gas, regardless of the volume of the vessel.
(d) the total internal energy of the gas, regardless of the volume of the vessel.
(e) the momentum per unit volume.

„ 38. A mixture of two ideal gases A and B is in thermal equilibrium at 600 K. A molecule of A has
one-fourth the mass of a molecule of B and the rms speed of molecules of A is 400 m/s.
Determine the rms speed of molecules of B.
(a) 100 m/s (c) 400 m/s (e) 1600 m/s
(b) 200 m/s (d) 800 m/s

ˆ 39. A canister containing 150 kg of an ideal gas has a volume of 8.0 m3. If the gas exerts a pressure
of 5.0 × 105 Pa, what is the rms speed of the molecules?
(a) 160 m/s (c) 350 m/s (e) 420 m/s
(b) 280 m/s (d) 390 m/s

„ 40. A physics student looks into a microscope and observes that small particles suspended in water
are moving about in an irregular motion. Which of the following statements is the best
explanation for this observation?
(a) Water molecules strike the particles giving them the same average kinetic energy as the water.
(b) The particles are carried by convection currents in the water.
(c) The small particles may be considered a fluid; and thus, move about randomly.
(d) The actual motion is regular, but the speeds of particles are too large to observe that motion.
(e) The particles are moving to be uniformly distributed throughout the volume of the water.
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 141

ˆ 41. A flask contains 1.00 mole of oxygen gas, O2, at 0.00 °C and 1.013 × 105 Pa. What is the rms
speed of the molecules? Note: the atomic mass of O is 16 u.
(a) 230 m/s (c) 651 m/s (e) 1302 m/s
(b) 460 m/s (d) 920 m/s

ˆ 42. A tank contains 135 moles of the monatomic gas argon at a temperature of 15.3 °C. How much
energy must be added to the gas to increase its temperature to 45.0 °C?
(a) 2.50 × 103 J (c) 5.00 × 104 J (e) 7.50 × 106 J
(b) 3.33 × 10 J
4
(d) 5.70 × 10 J5

… 43. A gas molecule with a molecular mass of 32.0 u has a speed of 325 m/s. What is the temperature
of the gas molecule?
(a) 72.0 K (c) 305 K (e) A temperature cannot be
(b) 136 K (d) 459 K assigned to a single molecule.

ˆ 44. Calculate the rms speed of the oxygen molecules in the air if the temperature is 5.00 °C.
Note: The mass of the oxygen molecule is 31.9988 u.
(a) 62.0 m/s (c) 328 m/s (e) 487 m/s
(b) 86.3 m/s (d) 465 m/s

ˆ 45. What is the internal energy of 1.75 kg of helium (atomic mass = 4.00260 u) with a temperature of
100 °C?
(a) 4.65 × 103 J (c) 2.03 × 106 J (e) 1.22 × 107 J
(b) 5.44 × 10 J
5
(d) 8.16 × 10 J
6

*Section 14.4 Diffusion

… 46. Which one of the following statements concerning diffusion is true?

(a) Diffusion occurs only in gases.
(b) Diffusion occurs in solids and fluids.
(c) Diffusion is described by Boyle's law.
(d) The SI unit for the diffusion constant D is m/s2.
(e) Diffusion occurs when molecules move from regions of lower concentration to regions of
higher concentration.

ˆ 47. A concentration difference of a certain solute of 1.0 × 10−2 kg/m3 is maintained between the ends of a
tube with a length of 3.5 m and a cross-sectional area of 0.25 m2. When 0.0040 g of the solute is
introduced to the tube, it takes 350 minutes for this solute to diffuse through the solvent to the opposite
end of the tube. What is the diffusion constant for the solute?
(a) 2.7 × 10−7 m2/s (c) 7.5 × 10−10 m2/s (e) 1.1 × 10−11 m2/s
−9 −8
(b) 4.5 × 10 m /s2
(d) 6.3 × 10 m /s 2

„ 48. A lower tank contains water while an upper tank contains air with a negligible concentration of water
vapor. A tube with a circular cross section and radius 0.050 m is inserted between the two tanks. The
length of the tube is 0.25 m. The diffusion coefficient of water vapor through air is 2.4 × 10−5 m2/s.
The concentration of water vapor just above the surface of the water is 1.7 × 10−2 kg/m3. If the water
vapor is removed from the upper tank so that the concentration there remains nearly zero, what mass
of water vapor diffuses through the tube each hour?
(a) 4.6 × 10−5 kg (c) 7.1 × 10−7 kg (e) 8.2 × 10−8 kg
−6 −8
(b) 2.0 × 10 kg (d) 1.3 × 10 kg
142 Chapter 14 The Ideal Gas Law and Kinetic Theory

Additional Problems
„ 49. How many air molecules are in a room at temperature 23.8 °C and standard pressure if the dimensions
of the room are 3.66 m × 3.66 m × 2.43 m?
(a) 1330 (c) 3.03 × 1024 (e) 1.00 × 1028
(b) 16 600 (d) 8.05 × 10 26

ˆ 50. An automobile tire is inflated to a gauge pressure of 32 lb/in2 at a temperature of –10.0 °C. Under
strenuous driving, the tire heats up to 40.0 °C. What is the new gauge pressure if the volume of the
tire remains essentially the same? (atmospheric pressure = 14.7 lb/in2)
(a) 17.5 lb/in2 (c) 38.0 lb/in2 (e) 55.6 lb/in2
2 2
(b) 20.6 lb/in (d) 40.9 lb/in

„ 51. An air bubble 20 m below the surface of a lake has a volume of 0.02 m3. The bubble then rises to
the surface. If the temperature of the lake is uniform, what is the volume of the bubble just before
it breaks through the surface?
(a) 0.02 m3 (c) 0.06 m3 (e) 0.10 m3
3 3
(b) 0.04 m (d) 0.08 m

„ 52. A bubble with a volume of 1.0 cm3 forms at the bottom of a lake that is 20.0 m deep. The temperature
at the bottom of the lake is 10.0 °C. The bubble rises to the surface where the temperature is 25.0 °C.
Assume that the bubble is small enough that its temperature always matches that of its surroundings.
What is the volume of the bubble just before it breaks the surface of the water?
(a) 2.1 cm3 (c) 3.1 cm3 (e) 7.7 cm3
3 3
(b) 2.8 cm (d) 6.0 cm

ˆ 53. On a cold day (−3 °C), the gauge pressure on a tire is 2.0 atm. If the tire is heated to 27 °C,
without changing its volume, what will the gauge pressure be?
(a) 2.1 atm (c) 2.9 atm (e) 27 atm
(b) 2.3 atm (d) 3.3 atm

ˆ 54. On a cold day (−3 °C), the gauge pressure on a tire reads 2.0 atm. If the tire is heated to 27 °C,
what will be the absolute pressure of the air inside the tire?
(a) 2.0 atm (c) 2.4 atm (e) 3.3 atm
(b) 2.2 atm (d) 2.9 atm

ˆ 55. What is the density of methane, CH4, (molecular mass = 16 u) at STP?

(a) 0.357 kg/m3 (c) 0.431 kg/m3 (e) 0.951 kg/m3
3 3
(b) 0.386 kg/m (d) 0.712 kg/m
 chapter T
THERMODYNAMICS

Section 15.1 Thermodynamic Systems and Their Surroundings

Section 15.2 The Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
Section 15.3 The First Law of Thermodynamics
… 1. Complete the following statement: Walls that separate a system from its surroundings and permit
heat to flow through them are called
(a) diathermal walls. (c) entropic walls. (e) isochoric walls.
(b) adiabatic walls. (d) isobaric walls.

ˆ 2. Which one of the following situations is a direct application of the Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics?
(a) Block A has twice the temperature of block B before they are brought into contact. Upon
contact, heat flows from block A to block B.
(b) A sample of gas within a cylinder with a piston is held at constant temperature and pressure
while it is allowed to expand. During this process, the gas absorbs heat from its surroundings.
(c) The motor of a refrigerator uses electric energy to remove heat from inside the refrigerator and
transfer it to the room.
(d) A physicist removes energy from a system in her laboratory until it reaches a temperature
of 3 × 10−10 K, a temperature very close to (but still greater than) absolute zero.
(e) A thermometer is calibrated by placing it in an ice water bath within an adiabatic container until
the thermometer is in thermal equilibrium with the ice water.

… 3. Complete the following statement: The first law of thermodynamics states that
(a) heat is a form of energy.
(b) entropy is a function of state.
(c) the entropy of the universe is increasing.
(d) the change in the internal energy of a system is given by Q − W.
(e) no engine can be more efficient than a Carnot engine operating between the same two
temperatures.

ˆ 4. Brad spends four hours watching football on television and does 1090 J of work. In the process, his
internal energy decreases by 2990 J. Determine the value of Q, including the algebraic sign.
(a) –1900 J (c) –2990 J (e) –4080 J
(b) +1900 J (d) +4080 J

ˆ 5. When the gas enclosed beneath the piston shown in the figure receives
1930 J of heat, Q, from its surroundings, it performs 2250 J of work in
raising the piston. What is the change in the internal energy of the gas?
(a) –320 J
(b) +320 J Q
(c) –4180 J
(d) +4180 J
(e) zero joules

„ 6. An ideal gas absorbs 750 J of heat as it performs 625 J of work. What is the resulting change in
temperature if there are 1.3 moles of the gas in the system?
(a) −8.6 K (c) 7.7 K (e) 23 K
(b) −4.3 K (d) 9.6 K
144 Chapter 15 Thermodynamics

„ 7. Enclosed beneath the moveable piston in the drawing is 4.8 moles of a

monatomic ideal gas. The gas performs work on the piston as 2300 J of
heat are added from the surroundings. During the process, the temperature
of the gas decreases by 45 K. How much work does the gas perform?
(a) 5.0 × 103 J (d) 6.0 × 102 J
(b) 3.2 × 10 J
3
(e) 4.0 × 102 J Q
(c) 1.4 × 10 J
3

Section 15.4 Thermal Processes

… 8. What are the SI units of the product of pressure and volume, PV?
(a) newton (c) joule (e) newton · second
(b) kilogram · meter/second (d) meter2

… 9. A match ignites within in an oxygen-filled cylinder that has a movable piston. The piston is moved so
quickly that no heat escapes. What kind of change is demonstrated in this process?
(a) an isobaric change (d) an isochoric change
(b) an adiabatic change (e) a change of heat capacity
(c) an isothermal change

… 10. Which one of the following pressure-volume graphs represents an isochoric process?
P P P P P

V V V V V
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

ˆ 11. An isobaric process is represented on a pressure-volume graph by which one of the following curves?
(a) a parabola (c) a vertical line (e) a horizontal line
(b) a hyperbola (d) a circle

ˆ 12. A system containing an ideal gas at a constant pressure of 1.22 × 105 Pa gains 2140 J of heat.
During the process, the internal energy of the system increases by 2320 J. What is the change in
volume of the gas?
(a) +1.48 × 10–3 m3 (c) +3.66 × 10–3 m3 (e) zero m3
(b) –1.48 × 10 m
–3 3
(d) –3.66 × 10 m–3 3

ˆ 13. A container is divided into two chambers that are separated

by a valve. The left chamber contains one mole of a
monatomic ideal gas. The right chamber is evacuated. At
some instant, the valve is opened and the gas rushes freely
into the right chamber. Which one of the following
statements concerning this process is true?
(a) Work is done by the gas.
(b) The temperature of the gas decreases.
(c) The change in the entropy of the gas is zero.
(d) The walls of the containing vessel must get colder.
(e) The change in the internal energy of the gas is zero.
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 145

ˆ 14. A thermally isolated sample of an ideal gas at a fixed

temperature is confined to one half of a container by an
impermeable membrane. The other half of the
container is evacuated. The membrane is then pierced
and the gas is allowed to expand freely and to double
its volume as shown. Which one of the following
statements is true concerning this situation?
(a) The process is reversible.
(b) This is an isothermal process.
(c) The entropy of the gas decreases.
(d) The internal energy of the gas must decrease.
(e)The temperature of the gas decreases to one-half of its original value.

Questions 15 through 17 pertain to the following situation:

5.00 kg of liquid water is heated to 100.0 °C in a closed system. At this

temperature, the density of liquid water is 958 kg/m3. The pressure is
maintained at atmospheric pressure of 1.01 × 105 Pa. A moveable piston of
negligible weight rests on the surface of the water. The water is then
converted to steam by adding an additional amount of heat to the system.
When all of the water is converted, the final volume of the steam is 8.50 m3.
The latent heat of vaporization of water is 2.26 × 106 J/kg.

ˆ 15. How much work is done by this closed system during this isothermal process?
(a) 8.37 J (c) 1.21 × 104 J (e) 1.94 × 106 J
(b) 4.20 × 10 J
3
(d) 8.58 × 10 J
5

„ 16. How much heat is added to the system in the isothermal process of converting all of the water into
steam?
(a) 2.17 × 103 J (c) 4.52 × 105 J (e) 1.13 × 107 J
(b) 1.70 × 10 J
4
(d) 3.78 × 106 J

ˆ 17. What is the change in the internal energy during this isothermal process?
(a) zero joules (c) 4.40 × 105 J (e) 1.04 × 107 J
(b) 1.28 × 10 J
4
(d) 2.93 × 10 J
6

Section 15.5 Thermal Processes Using an Ideal Gas

… 18. Heat is added to a sample of an ideal monatomic gas. Which one of the following statements is
necessarily true?
(a) The gas must expand.
(b) The gas must do work.
(c) The type of change that will occur depends on the conditions of the gas when the heat was added.
(d) The gas must change phase.
(e) The temperature of the gas must increase.

ˆ 19. Neon is a monatomic gas with a molar heat capacity at constant volume of 12.66 J/(mol · K). Two
moles of neon gas enclosed in a constant volume system receive 5250 J of heat. If the gas was initially
at 293 K, what is the final temperature of the neon?
(a) 200 K (c) 400 K (e) 600 K
(b) 300 K (d) 500 K
146 Chapter 15 Thermodynamics

ˆ 20. If one complete cycle of a reversible process is carried out on a sample of an ideal gas so that its
final state is the same as its initial state, which one of the following quantities is the only one which
can be non-zero?
(a) the change in volume of the sample
(b) the net heat absorbed by the sample
(c) the change in the entropy of the sample
(d) the change in temperature of the sample
(e) the change in the internal energy of the sample

ˆ 21. During one stage of a reversible process, the temperature of an ideal gas remains constant as its
volume is decreased. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true?
(a) The process is adiabatic.
(b) The pressure of the gas decreases in this process.
(c) Heat flows out of the gas and into the surroundings.
(d) The gas does "positive" work on its surroundings.
(e) The average kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases.

„ 22. A fixed amount of ideal gas is compressed adiabatically. Which entry in the table below correctly
depicts the sign of the work done, the change in the internal energy, and the heat exchanged with
the environment?
work done change in internal energy heat exchanged
(a) positive negative zero
(b) negative zero positive
(c) negative negative zero
(d) positive positive zero
(e) negative positive zero

„ 23. A fixed amount of ideal gas is compressed isothermally. Which entry in the table below correctly
depicts the sign of the work done, the change in the internal energy, and the heat exchanged with
the environment?
work done change in internal energy heat exchanged
(a) negative zero negative
(b) positive negative zero
(c) negative zero positive
(d) negative negative zero
(e) positive zero positive

ˆ 24. An ideal monatomic gas undergoes an adiabatic process; and its internal energy increases by 50 J.
Which pair of choices below is correct for this process?
work done heat exchanged
(a) 50 J by the system zero joules
(b) 50 J on the system zero joules
(c) 50 J by the system 100 J supplied
(d) zero joules 50 J removed
(e) zero joules 50 J added

ˆ 25. Beneath the moveable piston in the drawing, 1.5 moles of a monatomic
ideal gas is enclosed at 314 K. The initial volume of the gas is 3.0 m3. The
gas is compressed isothermally to a final volume of 1.0 m3. How much heat
is removed from the gas during this process? Q
(a) –6450 J (d) –1450 J
(b) –4300 J (e) zero joules
(c) –2900 J
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 147

ˆ 26. In an isothermal process, 2.33 moles of an ideal gas is compressed to one-fifth of its initial volume at
285 K. What quantity of heat is added to, or removed from, the system during this process?
(a) 133 J added (c) 1070 J removed (e) 8880 J removed
(b) 3020 J added (d) 6050 J removed

„ 27. A paddle wheel frictionally adds thermal energy to 5.0 moles of an ideal monatomic gas in a sealed
insulated container. The paddle wheel is driven by a cord connected to a falling object as shown in the
drawing. How far has the 2.0-kg object fallen when the temperature of the gas increases by 10.0 K?

ideal
monatomic 2.0 kg
gas
paddle wheel

(a) 8.0 m (c) 32 m (e) 98 m

(b) 16 m (d) 50 m

„ 28. A paddle wheel frictionally adds thermal energy to an ideal monatomic gas in a sealed, insulated
container. The paddle wheel is driven by a cord connected to a falling object as shown in the drawing.
In this experiment, a 5.0-kg object falls through a total distance of 2.0 m and the temperature of the
gas is found to increase by 4 C°. Assume that all of the mechanical energy lost by the falling object
goes into the gas. How many moles of gas must be present in this container?

ideal
monatomic 5.0 kg
gas
paddle wheel

(a) 2.0 (c) 4.0 (e) 6.0

(b) 3.0 (d) 5.0

ˆ 29. One mole of a monatomic gas at 400 K is reversibly taken to half of its original volume by an isobaric
process. How much work is done by the gas?
(a) +1700 J (c) +3300 J (e) –8300 J
(b) –1700 J (d) –3300 J

ˆ 30. An ideal gas is taken from state A to state B through process shown on the pressure-volume graph.
How much heat is added to the gas in this process?
(a) zero joules
(b) 1.0 × 104 J
(c) 2.4 × 104 J
(d) 6.0 × 104 J
(e) This cannot be determined since n and T are not specified.
148 Chapter 15 Thermodynamics

ˆ 31. A quantity of carbon monoxide gas is

slowly compressed adiabatically in an
A
insulated container to one-half of its initial
volume. The ratio of the specific heat
capacities at constant pressure and
constant volume, cP/cV , for carbon dioxide B
is approximately 1.3. Determine the final
pressure of the gas if the initial pressure is
2.0 × 105 Pa.
(a) 2.0 × 105 Pa
(b) 2.6 × 105 Pa
(c) 3.7 × 105 Pa
(d) 4.9 × 105 Pa
(e) 5.2 × 105 Pa

ˆ 32. Two moles of a confined ideal monatomic

gas begin at state A in the pressure-
A B
volume graph and follow the path shown
to state D. If the temperature of the gas at
A is 54 K, what is the temperature of the
gas at D?
(a) 32 K
(b) 46 K
(c) 54 K
(d) 60 K
(e) 78 K
C D

Questions 33 through 36 pertain to the situation described below:

Pressure (atm)

A
3
An ideal monatomic gas originally in state A is
taken reversibly to state B along the straight- 2
B
line path shown in the pressure-volume graph. 1

1 2 3
Volume (liters)

ˆ 33. What is the change in the internal energy of the gas for this process?
(a) zero calories (c) –110 cal (e) +122 cal
(b) +12 cal (d) +110 cal

ˆ 34. How much work was done by the gas?

(a) zero calories (c) –110 cal (e) +121 cal
(b) +12 cal (d) +110 cal

ˆ 35. How much heat was exchanged during this process?

(a) –110 cal (c) zero calories (e) +231 cal
(b) −12 cal (d) +121 cal
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 149

ˆ 36. Suppose that the same gas is originally in state A as described above, but its volume is increased
isothermally until a new volume of 3.0 liters is reached. Which one of the following statements for
this isothermal process is false?
(a) The change in the internal energy is zero.
(b) The final state of the system will still be B.
(c) The work done will be smaller for the isothermal process.
(d) The heat added will be smaller for the isothermal process.
(e) The heat added for the isothermal process will be equal to the work done.

Questions 37 through 39 pertain to the following situation described below:

An ideal monatomic gas expands isobarically from state A to state B. It is then compressed
isothermally from state B to state C and finally cooled at constant volume until it returns to its initial
state A.
VA = 4 × 10−3 m3 VB = 8 × 10−3 m3
6
P C PA = PB = 1 × 10 Pa TA = 600 K
PC = 2 × 106 Pa
A B

V
ˆ 37. What is the temperature of the gas when it is in state B?
(a) 437 K (c) 927 K (e) 1473 K
(b) 573 K (d) 1200 K

ˆ 38. How much work is done by the gas in expanding isobarically from A to B?
(a) 1 × 103 J (c) 3 × 103 J (e) 5 × 103 J
(b) 2 × 10 J
3
(d) 4 × 10 J
3

ˆ 39. How much work is done on the gas in going from B to C?

(a) 2.5 × 106 J (c) 4.5 × 106 J (e) 8.0 × 106 J
(b) 5.5 × 106 J (d) 6.5 × 106 J

Questions 40 through 42 pertain to the following situation:

Two moles of an ideal gas have an initial Kelvin temperature Ti and absolute pressure Pi. The gas
undergoes a reversible isothermal compression from an initial volume Vi to a final volume 0.5Vi.

ˆ 40. Which one of the following expressions represents the final pressure of the gas?
(a) 0.5Pi (c) 2Pi (e) 4Pi
(b) Pi/31.7 (d) 3.17Pi

ˆ 41. How much heat is exchanged with the environment? If heat is exchanged, is it absorbed or
released?
(a) PiVi (ln 2), released (c) (0.5)PiVi, released (e) zero
(b) PiVi (ln 2), absorbed (d) (0.5)PiVi, absorbed

ˆ 42. What is the change in entropy of the sample?

(a) +8.31 (ln 2) J/K (c) +16.62 (ln 2) J/K (e) zero J/K
(b) –8.31 (ln 2) J/K (d) –16.62 (ln 2) J/K
150 Chapter 15 Thermodynamics

ˆ 43. The ratio of the molar specific heat capacity at constant pressure to that at constant volume, γ, for
diatomic hydrogen gas is 7/5. In an adiabatic compression, the gas, originally at atmospheric pressure,
is compressed from an original volume of 0.30 m3 to 0.15 m3. What is the final pressure of the gas?
(a) 2.0 × 105 Pa (c) 3.0 × 105 Pa (e) 4.0 × 105 Pa
(b) 2.7 × 10 Pa
5
(d) 3.7 × 10 Pa
5

Section 15.6 Specific Heat Capacities

Section 15.7 The Second Law of Thermodynamics
… 44. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the ratio of the molar heat capacities Cp/Cv
for an ideal gas?
(a) The ratio is always 1. (d) The ratio is sometimes less than 1.
(b) The ratio is always less than 1. (e) The ratio is sometimes greater than 1.
(c) The ratio is always greater than 1.

ˆ 45. Determine the quantity of heat added to 3.5 moles of the ideal gas argon if the temperature increases
from 75 °C to 225 °C during an isobaric process. Note: The molar specific heats of argon are
CV = 3.0 cal/K·mol and CP = 5.0 cal/K·mol.
(a) 2600 cal (c) 1600 cal (e) 750 cal
(b) 2100 cal (d) 1100 cal

ˆ 46. What change in temperature occurs when 1200 J of heat are removed from 4.0 moles of monatomic
gas under constant pressure?
(a) –8.3 K (c) –14 K (e) –36 K
(b) –11 K (d) –28 K

Section 15.8 Heat Engines

… 47. Which one of the following statements best describes the operation of a heat engine?
(a) A heat engine uses input heat to perform work and rejects excess heat to a lower temperature
reservoir.
(b) A heat engine performs work and generates an equal amount of heat in a cyclic process.
(c) A heat engine transfers heat from a lower temperature reservoir to a higher temperature
reservoir through work performed on the system.
(d) A heat engine transfers heat from a higher temperature reservoir to a lower temperature
reservoir through work performed on the system.
(e) A heat engine decreases the entropy of the universe by generating an equal amount of heat
and work.

ˆ 48. Which one of the following statements is not a consequence of the second law of thermodynamics?
(a) The efficiency of any engine is less than 100%.
(b) The natural direction of heat flow is from hot to cold.
(c) A motor can operate using the atmosphere as a heat reservoir.
(d) Only reversible processes have a zero net entropy change for the universe.
(e) There is zero net entropy change for the universe in the operation of a real refrigerator.

ˆ 49. An engine is used to lift a 2700-kg truck to a height of 3.0 m at constant speed. In the lifting
process, the engine received 3.3 × 105 J of heat from the fuel burned in its interior. What is the
efficiency of the engine?
(a) 0.19 (c) 0.29 (e) 0.39
(b) 0.24 (d) 0.34
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 151

„ 50. A gasoline engine with an efficiency of 0.40 generates 1500 W of power. If a liter of gasoline has
an energy content of 3.7 × 107 J, how many liters of gasoline does the engine consume each hour?
(a) 0.36 (c) 1.4 (e) 6.9
(b) 0.48 (d) 2.8

„ 51. In a reversible heat engine, one mole of an ideal gas is

carried through a circular cycle beginning and ending
A
at point A as shown in the figure. Which one of the 30

Pressure (Pa)
following statements concerning this system is false?
(a) The entropy must increase in one cycle. 20
(b) The heat added in one cycle must be 314 J.
(c) The work done in completing one cycle is
10
314 J.
(d) The change in internal energy for one cycle is
zero joules. 0
(e) The internal energy for this system is dependent 0 10 20 30 40
on its state. Volume (m3 )

… 52. Two engines are identical except that engine A is two years old and engine B is new. If engine A
does 15% less work than engine B under identical operating conditions, what is the ratio of the
efficiencies of the two engines, eA/eB?
(a) 0.10 (c) 0.85 (e) 1.0
(b) 0.15 (d) 0.90

Section 15.9 Carnot’s Principle and the Carnot Engine

… 53. Under which one of the following conditions would a Carnot heat engine be 100% efficient?
(a) The engine discharges heat at 0 K. (d) The engine can be operated in reverse.
(b) The engine uses no heat. (e) The engine uses an ideal gas.
(c) The engine does no work.

ˆ 54. A heat engine operates in a Carnot cycle between reservoirs of temperatures 1000 K and 400 K. It is
found to discharge 20 J of heat per cycle to the cold reservoir. What is the work output per cycle?
(a) 10 J (c) 30 J (e) 50 J
(b) 20 J (d) 40 J

„ 55. A Carnot engine operates between hot and cold reservoirs with temperatures 527 °C and −73.0 °C,
respectively. If the engine performs 1000.0 J of work per cycle, how much heat is extracted per
cycle from the hot reservoir?
(a) 878 J (c) 1163 J (e) 2010 J
(b) 1333 J (d) 1527 J

ˆ 56. A Carnot heat engine is to be designed with an efficiency of 85%. If the low temperature reservoir
is 25 °C, what is the temperature of the “hot” reservoir?
(a) 45 °C (c) 850 °C (e) 1700 °C
(b) 430 °C (d) 1300 °C

„ 57. What is the maximum possible efficiency of an engine operating between the boiling and freezing
points of water at sea level?
(a) 0.27 (c) 0.61 (e) 1.0
(b) 0.49 (d) 0.85
152 Chapter 15 Thermodynamics

ˆ 58. A Carnot engine has a heat input of 3700 J and heat exhaust of 1400 J. What is the ratio of the
Kelvin temperature of the hot reservoir to that of the cold reservoir, TH/TC?
(a) 3.6 (c) 1.6 (e) 2.6
(b) 0.38 (d) 0.62

Questions 59 through 61 pertain to the following situation:

A heat engine operates between a hot reservoir at 1500 K and a cold reservoir at 500 K. During
each cycle, 1.0 × 105 J of heat is removed from the hot reservoir and 5.0 × 104 J of work is
performed.

ˆ 59. Determine the Carnot efficiency of this engine.

(a) 0.15 (c) 0.50 (e) 0.81
(b) 0.34 (d) 0.67

ˆ 60. What is the actual efficiency of this engine?

(a) 0.15 (c) 0.50 (e) 0.81
(b) 0.34 (d) 0.67

ˆ 61. Determine the change in entropy of the cold reservoir.

(a) −1.0 × 102 J/K (c) −1.8 × 102 J/K (e) −2.0 × 102 J/K
(b) +1.0 × 10 J/K
2
(d) +1.8 × 102 J/K

Section 15.10 Refrigerators, Air Conditioners, and Heat Pumps

ˆ 62. If the coefficient of performance for a refrigerator is 5.0 and 65 J of work are done on the system,
how much heat is rejected to the room?
(a) 390 J (c) 260 J (e) 130 J
(b) 330 J (d) 210 J

ˆ 63. A heat pump is found to remove 2400 J of heat from the exterior of a house and deliver 3500 J
of heat to the interior of the house. What is the coefficient of performance of the heat pump?
(a) 1.5 (c) 0.31 (e) 0.69
(b) 3.2 (d) 3.9

„ 64. A heat pump extracts 7.0 × 106 J of heat per hour from a well at 280 K and delivers its output heat
into a house at 320 K. If the heat pump uses an ideal Carnot cycle in its operation, what minimum
work must be supplied to the heat pump per hour?
(a) 8.6 × 105 J (c) 7.7 × 106 J (e) 4.7 × 107 J
(b) 8.0 × 10 J
6
(d) 1.0 × 10 J
6

Questions 65 through 67 pertain to the situation described below:

A container holding 1.2 kg of water at 20.0 °C is placed in a freezer that is kept at –20.0 °C.
The water freezes and comes into thermal equilibrium with the interior of the freezer.

„ 65. How much heat is extracted from the water in this process?
(a) 48 000 J (c) 400 000 J (e) 348 000 J
(b) 170 000 J (d) 550 000 J
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 153

ˆ 66. What is the minimum amount of electrical energy required by the refrigerator to carry out this
process if it operates between reservoirs at temperatures of 20.0 °C and –20.0 °C?
(a) 63 000 J (c) 87 000 J (e) 549 000 J
(b) 77 000 J (d) 348 000 J

ˆ 67. Which one of the following statements is true concerning this process?
(a) The water gains entropy in accord with the second law of thermodynamics.
(b) The water loses entropy so the process violates the second law of thermodynamics.
(c) The water gains entropy, but the air outside the refrigerator loses entropy in accord with the
second law of thermodynamics.
(d) Both the water and the air outside the refrigerator lose entropy, but the universe gains entropy in
accord with the second law of thermodynamics.
(e) The water loses entropy, but the air outside the refrigerator gains entropy in accord with the
second law of thermodynamics.

Section 15.11 Entropy

… 68. Which one of the following processes represents a decrease in entropy?
(a) the melting of ice (d) the vaporization of liquid helium
(b) the sublimation of carbon dioxide (e) the condensation of steam on a kitchen
(c) the evaporation of perfume window

… 69. Which of the following samples exhibits the highest degree of entropy?
(a) a diamond crystal (c) a block of graphite (e) liquid oxygen
(b) ammonia vapor (d) a block of paraffin

… 70. In which one of these processes will there be no net change in the entropy of the system?
(a) the growth of a microorganism
(b) the fusion of a crystalline solid
(c) the heating of water in an open container
(d) the combustion of fuel in a machine engine
(e) the evaporation and condensation of benzene in a closed vessel

… 71. A block that slides on a rough surface slows down and eventually stops. The reverse process
never occurs. That is, a block at rest never begins to move and accelerate on a rough surface
without the action of an external agent. The second situation is forbidden because it would violate
(a) conservation of total energy.
(b) conservation of momentum.
(c) the first law of thermodynamics.
(d) the second law of thermodynamics.
(e) both the first and second laws of thermodynamics.

ˆ 72. A 1.00-kg sample of steam at 100.0 °C condenses to water at 100.0 °C. What is the entropy
change of the sample if the heat of vaporization of water is 2.26 × 106 J/kg?
(a) −6.06 × 103 J/K (c) −2.26 × 104 J/K (e) zero J/K
(b) +6.06 × 10 J/K
3
(d) +2.26 × 104 J/K

ˆ 73. In an isothermal and reversible process, 945 J of heat is removed from a system and transferred to
the surroundings. The temperature is 314 K. What is the change in entropy of the system?
(a) –3.01 J/K (c) –0.332 J/K (e) +2.97 × 105 J/K
(b) +3.01 J/K (d) +0.332 J/K
154 Chapter 15 Thermodynamics

Additional Problems
Questions 74 through 79 pertain to the situation described below:

An ideal monatomic gas expands isothermally from state A to state B. The gas then cools at
constant volume to state C. The gas is then compressed isobarically to D before it is heated until it
returns to state A.

P A VA = VD = 2 liters VB = VC = 4 liters
PA 10 atm TA = 327 °C
B PC = 2 atm

D C
V
ˆ 74. What is the internal energy of the gas at point B?
(a) 1 × 103 J (c) 3 × 103 J (e) 5 × 103 J
(b) 2 × 10 J
3
(d) 4 × 103 J

ˆ 75. What is the pressure of the gas when it is in state B?

(a) 5 atm (c) 20 atm (e) 30 atm
(b) 10 atm (d) 25 atm

ˆ 76. What is the temperature of the gas when it is in state C?

(a) –33 °C (c) 327 °C (e) 1500 °C
(b) 130 °C (d) 817 °C

ˆ 77. What is the ratio of the internal energy of the gas in state C to that in state A?
(a) 2/1 (c) 130/327 (e) 600/240
(b) 1/2 (d) 240/600

ˆ 78. How much work is done on the gas as it is compressed isobarically from state C to state D?
(a) zero joules (c) 100 J (e) 400 J
(b) 50 J (d) 200 J

ˆ 79. What is the net amount of work done after one complete cycle?
(a) zero joules (c) 40 J (e) 1340 J
(b) 20 J (d) 1000 J
 chapter WAVES AND
SOUND

Section 16.1 The Nature of Waves

Section 16.2 Periodic Waves
… 1. Which one of the following waves is purely longitudinal?
(a) sound waves in air (d) waves on a plucked guitar string
(b) radio waves traveling through air (e) surface waves in a shallow pan of water
(c) light waves traveling through vacuum

… 2. A periodic wave is produced on a stretched string. Which one of the following properties is not
related to the speed of the wave?
(a) frequency (c) period (e) tension in the string
(b) amplitude (d) wavelength

ˆ 3. A periodic wave travels along a stretched string in the direction

shown by the arrow. The sketch shows a “snapshot” of the pulse at a
certain instant. Points A, B, and C are on the string. Which entry in
A C
the table below correctly describes how the particles of the string
between A and B and between B and C are moving? B
between A and B between B and C
(a) down down
(b) up up
(c) left right
(d) up down
(e) down up

ˆ 4. The speed of sound in a certain metal block is 3.00 × 103 m/s. The graph shows the amplitude (in
meters) of a wave traveling through the block versus time (in milliseconds). What is the wavelength
of this wave?
1
y (m)

0
0.5 1.5 2.5 3.5 4.5 t (ms)

–1
(a) 0.5 m (c) 3.0 m (e) 6.0 m
(b) 1.5 m (d) 4.0 m

„ 5. Two canoes are 10 m apart on a lake. Each bobs up and down with a period of 4.0 seconds. When
one canoe is at its highest point, the other canoe is at its lowest point. Both canoes are always
within a single cycle of the waves. Determine the speed of the waves.
(a) 2.5 m/s (c) 14 m/s (e) 80 m/s
(b) 5.0 m/s (d) 40 m/s

ˆ 6. What is the wavelength of a wave with a speed of 12 m/s and a period of 0.25 s?
(a) 0.25 m (c) 3.0 m (e) 48 m
(b) 1.5 m (d) 24 m
156 Chapter 16 Waves and Sound

… 7. Which one of the following statements concerning waves is false?

(a) A wave can have both transverse and longitudinal components.
(b) A wave carries energy from one place to another.
(c) A wave does not result in the bulk flow of the material of its medium.
(d) A wave is a traveling disturbance.
(e) A transverse wave is one in which the disturbance is parallel to the direction of travel.

… 8. A wave has a frequency of 58 Hz and a speed of 31 m/s. What is the wavelength of this wave?
(a) 1.9 m (c) 0.29 m (e) 31 m
(b) 3.5 m (d) 0.53 m

Questions 9 through 12 pertain to the situation described below:

The displacement of a vibrating string 4 B

versus position along the string is shown
in the figure. The periodic waves have a 2
speed of 10.0 cm/s. A and B are two
points on the string. y (mm) x (cm)
0

10.5

13.5

16.5
1.5

4.5

7.5
… 9. What is the amplitude of the wave?
(a) 2 mm (d) 12 mm −2
(b) 4 mm (e) 16 mm
(c) 8 mm −4 A

… 10. What is the wavelength of the wave?

(a) 3.0 cm (c) 9.0 cm (e) 15 cm
(b) 6.0 cm (d) 12 cm

ˆ 11. What is the frequency of the wave?

(a) 0.60 Hz (c) 1.1 Hz (e) 1.7 Hz
(b) 0.90 Hz (d) 1.3 Hz

… 12. What is the difference in phase between the points A and B?

(a) (π/4) radians (c) π radians (e) 2π radians
(b) (π/2) radians (d) (3π/4) radians

Section 16.3 The Speed of a Wave on a String

ˆ 13. The tension in a taut rope is increased by a factor of 9. How does the speed of wave pulses on the
rope change, if at all?
(a) The speed remains the same. (d) The speed is increased by a factor of 3.
(b) The speed is reduced by a factor of 3. (e) The speed is increased by a factor of 9.
(c) The speed is reduced by a factor of 9.

ˆ 14. A certain string on a piano is tuned to produce middle C (f = 261.63 Hz) by carefully adjusting the
tension in the string. For a fixed wavelength, what is the frequency when this tension is doubled?
(a) 130.08 Hz (c) 370.00 Hz (e) 523.26 Hz
(b) 185.00 Hz (d) 446.63 Hz
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 157

„ 15. A steel wire of mass 0.400 kg and length 0.640 m supports a 102-kg
block. The wire is struck exactly at its midpoint causing a small
displacement. How long does it take the peak of this displacement
to reach the top of the wire?
(a) 2.00 × 10–3 s (d) 8.00 × 10–3 s
(b) 4.00 × 10 s–3
(e) 1.60 × 10–2 s
(c) 6.00 × 10 s–3

102 kg

ˆ 16. A wave moves at a constant speed along a string. Which one of the following statements is false
concerning the motion of particles in the string?
(a) The particle speed is constant.
(b) The particle speed is not the same as the wave speed.
(c) The particle speed depends on the amplitude of the periodic motion of the source.
(d) The particle speed depends on the frequency of the periodic motion of the source.
(e) The particle speed is independent of the tension and linear density of the string.

ˆ 17. A wave is traveling at 5.5 m/s on a string with a linear density of 0.082 kg/m. What is the tension in
the string?
(a) 0.20 N (c) 2.5 N (e) 6.3 N
(b) 0.45 N (d) 4.4 N

*Section 16.4 The Mathematical Description of a Wave

„ 18. A transverse periodic wave described by the expression
⎡ ⎛x t ⎞⎤
y = sin ⎢2π ⎜ + ⎟ ⎥
⎣ ⎝ 2 10 ⎠⎦
(where y and x are in meters and t is in seconds) is established on a string. Which one of the
following statements concerning this wave is false?
(a) The wave is traveling in the negative x direction.
(b) The amplitude is 1.0 m.
(c) The frequency of the wave is 0.10 Hz.
(d) The wavelength of this wave is 2.0 m.
(e) The wave travels with speed 5.0 m/s.

ˆ 19. Of the three traveling waves listed below, which one(s) is(are) traveling in the +x direction?
(1) y = +3.2 sin [4.1t + 2.3x]
(2) y = –6.8 sin [–3.0t + 1.5x]
(3) y = +4.9 sin [12.0t + 18x]
(a) 1 only (c) 3 only (e) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2, and 3

„ 20. A wave has an amplitude of 0.35 m, a frequency of 1.05 × 106 Hz, and travels in the positive x
direction at the speed of light, 3.00 × 108 m/s. Which one of the following equations correctly
represents this wave?
(a) y = 0.35 sin (6.60 × 106t − 0.022x) (d) y = 0.35 sin (286t + 1.05 × 106x)
(b) y = 0.35 sin (6.60 × 10 t + 0.022x)
6
(e) y = 0.35 sin (1.05 × 106t + 3.00 × 108x)
(c) y = 0.35 sin (286t − 1.05 × 10 x)6
158 Chapter 16 Waves and Sound

ˆ 21. A transverse periodic wave is established on a string. The wave is described by the expression
y = 0.005 sin(20.0x – 2πft)
where y is in meters when x and t are in meters and seconds, respectively. If the wave travels with a
speed of 20.0 m/s, what is its frequency, f?
(a) 0.16 Hz (c) 31.9 Hz (e) 400 Hz
(b) 0.64 Hz (d) 63.7 Hz

„ 22. A transverse wave is traveling in the –x direction on a string that has a linear density of 0.011 kg/m.
The tension in the string is 7.4 N. The amplitude of the wave is 0.017 m; and its wavelength is 1.5 m.
Which one of the following is the correct equation for the displacement of a particle from its
equilibrium position?
(a) y = (0.017 m) sin[(84 Hz)t + (4.2 m–1)x] (d) y = (4.2 m) sin[(110 Hz)t – (59 m–1)x]
–1
(b) y = (0.017 m) sin[(110 Hz)t + (4.2 m )x] (e) y = (0.017 m) sin[(110 Hz)t – (8.4 m–1)x]
–1
(c) y = (4.2 m) sin[(84 Hz)t + (59 m )x]

„ 23. A transverse periodic wave on a string with a linear density of 0.200 kg/m is described by the
following equation: y = 0.005 sin(419t − 21.0x), where x and y are in meters and t is in seconds.
What is the tension in the string?
(a) 3.99 N (c) 42.1 N (e) 79.6 N
(b) 32.5 N (d) 65.8 N

Section 16.5 The Nature of Sound

Section 16.6 The Speed of Sound
ˆ 24. A guitar string is plucked and set into vibration. The vibrating string disturbs the surrounding air,
resulting in a sound wave. Which entry in the table below is correct?
wave in the string sound wave in air
(a) The wave is transverse. yes yes
(b) The wave speed increases if the temperature rises. no yes
(c) The wave is longitudinal. yes yes
(d) The wave is transmitted by particle vibrations. no yes
(e) The wave transports energy. yes no

„ 25. A bell is ringing inside of a sealed glass jar that is connected to a vacuum pump. Initially, the jar is
filled with air. What does one hear as the air is slowly removed from the jar by the pump?
(a) The sound intensity from the bell gradually decreases.
(b) The frequency of the sound from the bell gradually increases.
(c) The frequency of the sound from the bell gradually decreases.
(d) The speed of the sound from the bell gradually increases.
(e) The intensity of the sound from the bell does not change.

ˆ 26. A stationary railroad whistle is sounded. An echo is heard 5.0 seconds later by the train’s engineer.
If the speed of sound is 343 m/s, how far away is the reflecting surface?
(a) 68 m (c) 860 m (e) 2000 m
(b) 140 m (d) 1700 m

ˆ 27. The speed of sound in fresh water at 20 °C is 1482 m/s. At what temperature is the speed of
sound in helium gas the same as that of fresh water at 20 °C? Helium is considered a monatomic
ideal gas (γ = 1.67 and atomic mass = 4.003 u).
(a) 313 K (c) 442 K (e) 633 K
(b) 377 K (d) 525 K
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 159

ˆ 28. Two fans are watching a baseball game from different positions. One fan is located directly behind
home plate, 18.3 m from the batter. The other fan is located in the centerfield bleachers, 127 m from
the batter. Both fans observe the batter strike the ball at the same time (because the speed of light is
about a million times faster than that of sound), but the fan behind home plate hears the sound first.
What is the time difference between hearing the sound at the two locations? Use 345 m/s as the speed
of sound.
(a) 0.316 s (c) 3.17 s (e) 0.053 s
(b) 0.368 s (d) 1.89 s

ˆ 29. Two children setup a “telephone” by placing a long, slender aluminum (Y = 6.9 × 1010 N/m2) bar that
has a length of 6.1-m between their two houses. To communicate, a child taps a coded message on
one end. How long do the sound waves take to reach the other end? Note: the density of aluminum is
2700 kg/m3.
(a) 1.2 × 10–3 s (c) 8.0 × 10–6 s (e) 1.1 × 10–4 s
(b) 2.4 × 10 s
–7
(d) 6.3 × 10 s
–5

ˆ 30. Ethanol has a density of 659 kg/m3. If the speed of sound in ethanol is 1162 m/s, what is its
adiabatic bulk modulus?
(a) 1.7 × 108 N/m2 (c) 7.7 × 108 N/m2 (e) 6.1 × 109 N/m2
(b) 2.2 × 10 N/m
8 2
(d) 8.9 × 10 N/m
8 2

„ 31. A physics student is asked to determine the length of a long, slender, copper rod by measuring the
time required for a sound pulse to travel the length of the rod. The Young’s modulus of copper is 1.1
× 1011 N/m2; and its density is 8890 kg/m3. The student finds that the time for the pulse to travel from
one end to the other is 1.56 × 10−3 s. How long is the rod?
(a) 0.18 m (c) 5.5 m (e) 31 m
(b) 1.2 m (d) 19 m

ˆ 32. The speaker and two microphones shown in the figure are arranged inside a sealed container filled
with neon gas. The wires from the microphones are connected to an oscilloscope (not shown). The
signal from the microphones is monitored beginning at time t = 0 s when a sound pulse is emitted
from the speaker. The pulse is picked up by microphone 1 at t1 = 1.150 × 10–2 s and by microphone
2 at t2 = 1.610 × 10–2 s. What is the speed of sound in neon gas?

2.00 m

(a) 124 m/s (c) 362 m/s (e) 724 m/s

(b) 174 m/s (d) 435 m/s

… 33. The Young’s modulus of aluminum (density = 2700 kg/m3) is 6.9 × 1010 N/m2. Determine the speed
of sound in an aluminum rod.
(a) 1.4 × 103 m/s (c) 5.1 × 103 m/s (e) 7.0 × 103 m/s
(b) 2.5 × 10 m/s
3
(d) 6.3 × 10 m/s
3
160 Chapter 16 Waves and Sound

Section 16.7 Sound Intensity

ˆ 34. The intensity of a spherical wave 4.0 m from the source is 120 W/m2. What is the intensity at a
point 9.0 m away from the source?
(a) 11 W/m2 (c) 53 W/m2 (e) 270 W/m2
2 2
(b) 24 W/m (d) 80 W/m

ˆ 35. A bell produces sound energy at a rate of 4.00 × 10–3 W and radiates it uniformly in all directions.
What is the intensity of the wave 100.0 m from the bell?
(a) 3.18 × 10−8 W/m2 (c) 5.02 × 10–2 W/m2 (e) 6.28 × 107 W/m2
(b) 3.14 × 10 W/m
–7 2
(d) 5.02 × 10 W/m
2 2

ˆ 36. How far must one stand from a 5-mW point sound source if the intensity is at the hearing threshold?
Assume the sound waves travel to the listener without being disturbed.
(a) 500 m (c) 2 km (e) 20 km
(b) 1 km (d) 4 km

ˆ 37. During a typical workday (eight hours), the average sound intensity arriving at Larry’s ear is
1.8 × 10–5 W/m2. If the area of Larry’s ear through which the sound passes is 2.1 × 10–3 m2, what is
the total energy entering each of Larry’s ears during the workday?
(a) 1.8 × 10–5 J (c) 7.4 × 10–4 J (e) 4.1 × 10–3 J
(b) 2.2 × 10 J–4
(d) 1.1 × 10 J–3

ˆ 38. Two boys are whispering in the library. The radiated sound power from one boy’s mouth is
1.2 × 10–9 W; and it spreads out uniformly in all directions. What is the minimum distance the boys
must be away from the librarian so that she will not be able to hear them? The threshold of hearing
for the librarian is 1.00 × 10–12 W/m2.
(a) 100 m (c) 23 m (e) 9.8 m
(b) 35 m (d) 16 m

Section 16.8 Decibels

ˆ 39. The decibel level of a jackhammer is 130 dB relative to the threshold of hearing. Determine the
sound intensity produced by the jackhammer.
(a) 1.0 W/m2 (c) 13 W/m2 (e) 1013 W/m2
2 2
(b) 10 W/m (d) 130 W/m

„ 40. A person was talking in a small room; and the sound intensity level is 60 dB everywhere within the
room. Now, there are eight people talking in similar manner simultaneously in the room, what is the
sound intensity level?
(a) 60 dB (c) 74 dB (e) 69 dB
(b) 79 dB (d) 64 dB

ˆ 41. At a distance of 5.0 m from a point sound source, the sound intensity level is 110 dB. At what
distance is the intensity level 95 dB?
(a) 5.0 m (c) 14 m (e) 42 m
(b) 7.1 m (d) 28 m

„ 42. The decibel level of a jackhammer is 130 dB relative to the threshold of hearing. Determine the
decibel level if two jackhammers operate side by side.
(a) 65 dB (c) 133 dB (e) 260 dB
(b) 130 dB (d) 144 dB
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 161

„ 43. According to US government regulations, the maximum sound intensity level in the workplace is
90.0 dB. Within one factory, 32 identical machines produce a sound intensity level of 92.0 dB.
How many machines must be removed to bring the factory into compliance with the regulation?
(a) 2 (c) 12 (e) 24
(b) 8 (d) 16

Section 16.9 The Doppler Effect

ˆ 44. A train moving at a constant speed is passing a stationary observer on a platform. On one of the
train cars, a flute player is continually playing the note known as concert A (f = 440 Hz). After the
flute has passed, the observer hears the sound with a frequency of 415 Hz. What is the speed of the
train? The speed of sound in air is 343 m/s.
(a) 7.3 m/s (c) 21 m/s (e) 42 m/s
(b) 12 m/s (d) 37 m/s

ˆ 45. A car moving at 35 m/s approaches a stationary whistle that emits a 220 Hz sound. The speed of
sound is 343 m/s. What is the speed of the sound relative to the driver of the car?
(a) 300 m/s (c) 340 m/s (e) 378 m/s
(b) 305 m/s (d) 365 m/s

ˆ 46. A car moving at 35 m/s approaches a stationary whistle that emits a 220 Hz sound. The speed of
sound is 343 m/s. What is the frequency of sound heard by the driver of the car?
(a) 198 Hz (c) 242 Hz (e) 340 Hz
(b) 220 Hz (d) 282 Hz

ˆ 47. A source moving through water at 10.0 m/s generates water waves with a frequency of 5.0 Hz. The
speed of these water waves relative to the water surface is 20.0 m/s. The source approaches an
observer who is at rest in the water. What wavelength would be measured for these waves by the
stationary observer?
(a) 1.0 m (c) 4.0 m (e) 8.0 m
(b) 2.0 m (d) 6.0 m

„ 48. Two golf carts have horns that emit sound with a frequency of 390 Hz. The golf carts are traveling
toward one another, each traveling with a speed of 9.0 m/s with respect to the ground. What
frequency do the drivers of the carts hear? The speed of sound at the golf course is 343 m/s.
(a) 390 Hz (c) 410 Hz (e) 430 Hz
(b) 400 Hz (d) 420 Hz

„ 49. Two motorcycles are traveling in opposite directions at the same speed when one of the cyclists
blasts her horn, which has frequency of 544 Hz. The other cyclist hears the frequency as 563 Hz. If
the speed of sound in air is 344 m/s, what is the speed of the motorcycles?
(a) 5.90 m/s (c) 8.19 m/s (e) 11.6 m/s
(b) 7.24 m/s (d) 10.0 m/s

„ 50. A loudspeaker at the base of a cliff emits a pure tone of

frequency 3000.0 Hz. A man jumps from rest from the top
of the cliff and safely falls into a net below. How far has the
man fallen at the instant he hears the frequency of the tone as
3218.0 Hz? The speed of sound is 343 m/s.
(a) 12.2 m (d) 46.8 m
(b) 15.3 m (e) 61.0 m
(c) 31.7 m
162 Chapter 16 Waves and Sound

Questions 51 through 53 pertain to the situation described below:

The diagram shows the

various positions of a child
in motion on a swing.
Somewhere in front of the
child a stationary whistle is
blowing. D
A Stationary
Whistle
B
C

„ 51. At which position(s) will the child hear the highest frequency for the sound from the whistle?
(a) at both A and D (d) at C when moving toward B
(b) at B when moving toward A (e) at C when moving toward D
(c) at B when moving toward C

„ 52. At which position(s) will the child hear the lowest frequency for the sound from the whistle?
(a) at both A and D (d) at C when moving toward B
(b) at B when moving toward A (e) at C when moving toward D
(c) at B when moving toward C

„ 53. At which position(s) will the child hear the same frequency as that heard by a stationary observer
standing next to the whistle?
(a) at both A and D (d) at C when moving toward B
(b) at B when moving toward A (e) at C when moving toward D
(c) at B when moving toward C

Questions 54 through 57 pertain to the following situation:

The car in the drawing is

moving to the left at 35 m/s. Direction of
The car’s horn continuously motion
emits a 2.20 × 102 Hz sound.
The figure also shows the first
two regions of compression of
the emitted sound waves. The Second emitted compression
speed of sound is 343 m/s. First emitted compression

„ 54. How far does the car move in one period of the sound emitted from the horn?
(a) 0.08 m (c) 8 m (e) 35 m
(b) 0.16 m (d) 16 m

„ 55. How far has the initial compression traveled when the second compression is emitted?
(a) 0.77 m (c) 7.7 m (e) 35 m
(b) 1.56 m (d) 15.5 m

ˆ 56. What is the wavelength of the sound in the direction of motion of the car?
(a) 1.40 m (c) 1.70 m (e) 35 m
(b) 1.56 m (d) 1.93 m

ˆ 57. What is the frequency heard by a stationary observer standing in front of the car?
(a) 9.7 Hz (c) 200 Hz (e) 245 Hz
(b) 176 Hz (d) 219 Hz
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 163

Additional Problems
„ 58. An unstretched spring has a length of 0.30 m. When the spring is stretched to a total length of
0.60 m, it supports traveling waves moving at 4.5 m/s. How fast will waves travel on this spring
if it is stretched to 0.90 m?
(a) 2.3 m/s (c) 6.4 m/s (e) 10.8 m/s
(b) 4.5 m/s (d) 9.0 m/s

Questions 59 through 62 pertain to the situation described below:

A periodic transverse wave is established on a string such that there are exactly two cycles traveling
along a 3.0-m section of the string. The crests move at 20.0 m/s.

ˆ 59. What is the frequency of the wave?

(a) 0.67 Hz (c) 13 Hz (e) 57 Hz
(b) 1.33 Hz (d) 30 Hz

„ 60. What is the shortest horizontal distance from a crest to a point of zero acceleration?
(a) 0.38 m (c) 1.5 m (e) 6.0 m
(b) 0.75 m (d) 3.0 m

ˆ 61. How long does it take a particle at the top of a crest to reach the bottom of an adjacent trough?
(a) 0.018 s (c) 0.075 s (e) 0.30 s
(b) 0.038 s (d) 0.150 s

… 62. How could the speed of the wave be increased?

(a) by increasing the period (d) by increasing the tension in the string
(b) by decreasing the amplitude (e) by increasing amplitude
(c) by decreasing the frequency

Questions 63 through 67 pertain to the situation described below:

A periodic traveling wave is generated on a string of linear density 8.0 × 10–4 kg/m. Figure A
shows the displacements of the particles in the string as a function of the position x along the
string at t = 0 s. Figure B shows the displacement of the particle at x = 0 m as a function of time.
The particle positions are measured from the left end of the string (x = 0 m) and the wave pulses
move to the right.

0.010 0.010

0.005 0.005
y (m)
y (m)

x (m) t (s)
0 0
0.01 0.02 0.03 0.20 0.45 0.70

−0.005 −0.005

−0.010 −0.010

… 63. What is the wavelength of the wave?

(a) 0.005 m (c) 0.015 m (e) 0.025 m
(b) 0.010 m (d) 0.020 m
164 Chapter 16 Waves and Sound

ˆ 64. What is the minimum time required for the particles to return to their respective positions at t = 0 s?
(a) 0.1 s (c) 0.3 s (e) 0.7 s
(b) 0.2 s (d) 0.4 s

… 65. What is the amplitude of the wave?

(a) 0.01 m (c) 0.04 m (e) 0.7 m
(b) 0.02 m (d) 0.07 m

ˆ 66. Determine the speed of the wave.

(a) 0.01 m/s (c) 0.03 m/s (e) 0.05 m/s
(b) 0.02 m/s (d) 0.04 m/s

ˆ 67. What is the tension in the string?

(a) 2 × 10–6 N (c) 4 × 10–5 N (e) 6 × 10–5 N
(b) 4 × 10–6 N (d) 5 × 10–5 N
 chapter THE PRINCIPLE OF LINEAR
SUPERPOSITION AND
INTERFERENCE

Section 17.1 The Principle of Linear Superposition

Section 17.2 Constructive and Destructive Interference of Sound Waves
… 1. Two pulses of identical shape
travel toward each other in
opposite directions on a string, as
shown in the figure.
Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true?
(a) The pulses will reflect from each other.
(b) The pulses will diffract from each other.
(c) The pulses will interfere to produce a standing wave.
(d) The pulses will pass through each other and produce beats.
(e) As the pulses pass through each other, they will interfere destructively.

ˆ 2. Two traveling pulses on a rope move toward each other at a y

speed of 1.0 m/s. The waves have the same amplitude. The
drawing shows the position of the waves at time t = 0 s. +2 m
x
Which one of the following drawings depicts the waves on
−2 m
the rope at t = 2.0 s?

(a) (d)
y y
+2 m
x x
−2 m −2 m +2 m

y y
(b) (e)
+2
x −2
x
−2 +2

(c) y

x
−2 +2

Questions 3 through 5 pertain to the

following statement and diagrams:
1 2 3
Consider the figures depicting
rectangular pulses on a string.

ˆ 3. If pulse 1 were reflected from a wall, 4 5

which one of the patterns above would
represent the reflected pulse?
(a) 1 (c) 3 (e) 5
(b) 2 (d) 4
166 Chapter 17 The Principle of Linear Superposition and Interference

ˆ 4. Complete the following statement: If pulse 2 were superimposed on pulse 3,

(a) constructive interference would occur.
(b) the resulting pattern would be represented by 1.
(c) the resulting pattern would be represented by 4.
(d) the resulting pattern would be represented by 5.
(e) the resulting pattern would be different than 1, 4, and 5.

… 5. Which pulses must be superimposed to give the situation shown in 5.

(a) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 4 (5) 2, 3, and 4.
(b) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2, and 4

ˆ 6. Sound waves are emitted from two speakers. Which one of the following statements about sound
wave interference is false?
(a) In a region where both destructive and constructive interference occur, energy is not conserved.
(b) Destructive interference occurs when two waves are exactly out of phase when they meet.
(c) Interference redistributes the energy carried by the individual waves.
(d) Constructive interference occurs when two waves are exactly in phase when they meet.
(e) Sound waves undergo diffraction as they exit each speaker.

ˆ 7. A pebble is dropped in a lake; and it produces ripples with a frequency of 0.25 Hz. When
should a second pebble be dropped at the same place to produce destructive interference?
(a) 0.50 s after the first (c) 1.0 s after the first (e) 2.0 s after the first
(b) 0.75 s after the first (d) 1.5 s after the first

„ 8. Two loudspeakers, A and B, are separated by a distance

of 2.0 m. The speakers emit sound waves at a frequency 2.0 m x
of 680 Hz that are exactly out of phase. The speed of
sound is 343 m/s. How far from speaker A along the +x A B
axis will a point of constructive interference occur?
(a) 0.25 m (c) 0.46 m (e) 0.98 m
(b) 0.30 m (d) 0.88 m

„ 9. A speaker generates a continuous tone of 440 Hz. In the

drawing, sound travels into a tube that splits into two
segments, one longer than the other. The sound waves
recombine before being detected by a microphone. The
speed of sound in air is 339 m/s. What is the minimum
difference in the lengths of the two paths for sound travel if the waves arrive in phase at the
microphone?
(a) 0.10 m (c) 0.77 m (e) 1.54 m
(b) 0.39 m (d) 1.11 m

Questions 10 and 11 pertain to the situation described below:

Two loudspeakers are located 3 m apart on the stage of an auditorium. A listener at point P is seated
29.0 m from one speaker and 25.0 m from the other. A signal generator drives the speakers in phase
with the same amplitude and frequency. The wave amplitude at P due to each speaker alone is A.
The frequency is then varied between 20 Hz and 300 Hz. The speed of sound is 343 m/s.
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 167

ˆ 10. At what frequency or frequencies will the listener at P hear a maximum intensity?
(a) 170 Hz only (d) 57 Hz, 113 Hz, 170 Hz, 227 Hz, and 284 Hz
(b) 113 Hz and 226 Hz (e) 43 Hz, 85 Hz, 128 Hz, 170 Hz, 213 Hz, 257 Hz, and 298 Hz
(c) 86 Hz, 170 Hz, 257 Hz

ˆ 11. Determine the value of the maximum amplitude in terms of A.

(a) 2.0A (c) 3.0A (e) 5.0A
(b) 2.5A (d) 4.0A

Section 17.3 Diffraction

ˆ 12. Water waves approach an aperture. The resulting patterns are shown for two different cases, A and B,
in which the wavelength and aperture size are varied.

A B
Which one of the following statements concerning these cases is true?
(a) Neither figure shows diffraction. In both cases, the wavelength is much smaller than the
aperture.
(b) Diffraction occurs in A, but not in B because the wavelength in A is much smaller than the
aperture.
(c) Diffraction occurs in B, but not in A because the wavelength in B is much smaller than the
aperture.
(d) Both figures show diffraction. In both cases, the wavelengths are approximately the same size
as the aperture.
(e) Diffraction occurs in B, but not in A because the wavelength in B is approximately the same size
as the aperture.

„ 13. A speaker is designed for wide dispersion for a high frequency sound. What should the diameter of
the circular opening be in a speaker where the desired diffraction angle is 75° and a 9100 Hz sound
is generated? The speed of sound is 343 m/s.
(a) 0.039 m (c) 0.21 m (e) 0.048 m
(b) 0.077 m (d) 0.13 m

ˆ 14. For a diffraction horn loudspeaker, sound emerges through a rectangular opening. The opening of a
diffraction horn has a width of 0.15 m. If the speaker emits a continuous tone with a wavelength of
0.11 m, at what angle does the first minimum occur?
(a) 47° (c) 23° (e) 8.4°
(b) 39° (d) 12°

„ 15. For a diffraction horn loudspeaker, the sound emerges through a rectangular opening. The width of
a diffraction horn is 0.18 m. If the speed of sound in air is 343 m/s, at what frequency is the
diffraction angle θ equal to 35°?
(a) 3300 Hz (c) 6300 Hz (e) 9200 Hz
(b) 4800 Hz (d) 7700 Hz
168 Chapter 17 The Principle of Linear Superposition and Interference

Section 17.4 Beats

ˆ 16. A guitar string produces 4 beats/s when sounded with a 250 Hz tuning fork and 9 beats per second
when sounded with a 255 Hz tuning fork. What is the vibrational frequency of the string?
(a) 240 Hz (c) 254 Hz (e) 263 Hz
(b) 246 Hz (d) 259 Hz

… 17. Which one of the following superpositions will result in beats?

(a) the superposition of waves that travel with different speeds
(b) the superposition of identical waves that travel in the same direction
(c) the superposition of identical waves that travel in opposite directions
(d) the superposition of waves that are identical except for slightly different amplitudes
(e) the superposition of waves that are identical except for slightly different frequencies

ˆ 18. Two timpani (tunable drums) are played at the same time. One is correctly tuned so that when it is
struck, sound is produced that has a wavelength of 2.20 m. The second produces sound with a
wavelength of 2.08 m. If the speed of sound is 343 m/s, what beat frequency is heard?
(a) 7 beats/s (c) 11 beats/s (e) 15 beats/s
(b) 9 beats/s (d) 13 beats/s

„ 19. Two identical tuning forks vibrate at 587 Hz. After a small piece of clay is placed on one of them,
eight beats per second are heard. What is the period of the tuning fork that holds the clay?
(a) 1.68 × 10−3 s (c) 1.73 × 10−3 s (e) 1.80 × 10−3 s
−3 −3
(b) 1.70 × 10 s (d) 1.76 × 10 s

„ 20. A guitar string has a linear density of 8.30 × 10−4 kg/m and a length of 0.660 m. The tension in the
string is 52.0 N. When the fundamental frequency of the string is sounded with a 196.0-Hz tuning
fork, what beat frequency is heard?
(a) 6 Hz (c) 12 Hz (e) 2 Hz
(b) 4 Hz (d) 8 Hz

„ 21. The beat period occurring when two tuning forks are vibrating is 0.333 s. One of the forks is known
to vibrate at 588.0 Hz. What are the possible vibration frequencies of the second tuning fork?
(a) 587.7 or 588.3 Hz (c) 580.3 or 596.7 Hz (e) 584.5 Hz or 591.5 Hz
(b) 586.0 or 592.0 Hz (d) 585.0 or 591.0 Hz

ˆ 22. One string on a guitar is exactly in tune. The guitarist uses this string to produce a tone with a
frequency of 196 Hz by pressing down at the proper fret. An adjacent string can also be used to
produce this tone without being pressed against a fret. However, this adjacent string is out of tune and
produces a tone that sounds lower in frequency than the other tone. When the tones are produced
simultaneously, the beat frequency is 5.0 Hz. What frequency does the adjacent string produce?
(a) 196 Hz (c) 171 Hz (e) 186 Hz
(b) 191 Hz (d) 201 Hz

Section 17.5 Transverse Standing Waves

… 23. Which one of the following will result in standing waves?
(a) the superposition of waves that travel with different speeds
(b) the superposition of identical waves that travel in the same direction
(c) the superposition of identical waves that travel in opposite directions
(d) the superposition of nearly identical waves of slightly different amplitudes
(e) the superposition of nearly identical waves of slightly different frequencies
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 169

„ 24. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the points on a string that sustain a
standing wave pattern?
(a) All points vibrate with the same energy.
(b) All points undergo the same displacements.
(c) All points vibrate with different frequencies.
(d) All points vibrate with different amplitudes.
(e) All points undergo motion that is purely longitudinal.

… 25. What is the distance from the fixed end of a guitar string to the nearest antinode?
(a) λ (c) λ/2 (e) 3λ/4
(b) 2λ (d) λ/4

ˆ 26. A rope of length L is clamped at both ends. Which one of the following is not a possible
wavelength for standing waves on this rope?
(a) L/2 (c) L (e) 4L
(b) 2L/3 (d) 2L

ˆ 27. A 4.00-m long string, clamped at both ends, vibrates at 2.00 × 102 Hz. If the string resonates in six
segments, what is the speed of transverse waves on the string?
(a) 100 m/s (c) 267 m/s (e) 400 m/s
(b) 133 m/s (d) 328 m/s

ˆ 28. A certain string, clamped at both ends, vibrates in seven segments at a frequency of 2.40 × 102 Hz.
What frequency will cause it to vibrate in four segments?
(a) 89 Hz (c) 274 Hz (e) 420 Hz
(b) 137 Hz (d) 411 Hz

ˆ 29. Four standing wave segments, or loops, are observed on a string fixed at both ends as it vibrates at a
frequency of 140 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the string?
(a) 23 Hz (c) 35 Hz (e) 70 Hz
(b) 28 Hz (d) 47 Hz

„ 30. When plucked, a 0.62-m guitar string produces a sound wave with a fundamental frequency of 196
Hz. The speed of sound in air is 343 m/s. Determine the ratio of the wavelength of the sound wave to
the wavelength of the waves that travel on the string.
(a) 0.071 (c) 0.49 (e) 2.0
(b) 0.28 (d) 1.4

„ 31. A string with a linear density of 0.035 kg/m and a mass of 0.014 kg is clamped at both ends. Under
what tension in the string will it have a fundamental frequency of 110 Hz?
(a) 270 N (c) 550 N (e) 790 N
(b) 410 N (d) 680 N

Questions 32 and 33 pertain to the situation described below:

Vibrations with frequency 6.00 × 102 Hz are established on a 1.33-m length of string that is clamped
at both ends. The speed of waves on the string is 4.00 × 102 m/s.

„ 32. How many antinodes are contained in the resulting standing wave pattern?
(a) 2 (c) 4 (e) 6
(b) 3 (d) 5
170 Chapter 17 The Principle of Linear Superposition and Interference

ˆ 33. How far from either end of the string does the first node occur?
(a) 0.17 m (c) 0.49 m (e) 0.75 m
(b) 0.33 m (d) 0.66 m

Questions 34 and 35 pertain to the situation described below:

A 3.00-m long string sustains a three-loop

standing wave pattern as shown. The wave
speed is 1.00 × 102 m/s.

ˆ 34. What is the frequency of vibration?

(a) 25.0 Hz (c) 50.0 Hz (e) 1.00 × 102 Hz
(b) 33.0 Hz (d) 75.0 Hz

ˆ 35. What is the lowest possible frequency for standing waves on this string?
(a) 50.0 Hz (c) 25.0 Hz (e) 8.33 Hz
(b) 33.3 Hz (d) 16.7 Hz

Questions 36 through 40 pertain to the following situation:

A string with a length of 2.5 m has two adjacent resonances at frequencies 112 Hz and 140 Hz.

ˆ 36. Determine the fundamental frequency of the string.

(a) 14 Hz (c) 42 Hz (e) 70 Hz
(b) 28 Hz (d) 56 Hz

ˆ 37. Determine the wavelength of the 140 Hz resonance.

(a) 0.50 m (c) 1.0 m (e) 2.0 m
(b) 0.75 m (d) 1.5 m

„ 38. Determine the speed of the waves on the string.

(a) 28 m/s (c) 56 m/s (e) 140 m/s
(b) 42 m/s (d) 112 m/s

ˆ 39. How many antinodes will be found on the 112 Hz resonance?

(a) 1 (c) 3 (e) 5
(b) 2 (d) 4

„ 40. What is the wavelength of the first harmonic?

(a) 1.25 m (c) 3.75 m (e) 28 m
(b) 2.50 m (d) 5.00 m

Section 17.6 Longitudinal Standing Waves

Section 17.7 Complex Sound Waves
ˆ 41. Pipe A is 0.50 m long and open at both ends. Pipe B is open at one end and closed at the other end.
Determine the length of pipe B so that it has the same fundamental frequency as A.
(a) 0.25 m (c) 0.75 m (e) 2.0 m
(b) 0.50 m (d) 1.0 m
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 171

ˆ 42. Determine the shortest length of pipe, open at both ends, which will resonate at 256 Hz. The speed
of sound is 343 m/s.
(a) 0.330 m (c) 0.990 m (e) 1.67 m
(b) 0.670 m (d) 1.32 m

ˆ 43. A cylindrical tube sustains standing waves at the following frequencies: 600 Hz, 800 Hz, and 1000 Hz.
The tube does not sustain standing waves at 500 Hz, at 900 Hz, at any frequencies between 600 and
800 Hz, or at any frequencies between 800 and 1000 Hz. Determine the fundamental frequency of the
tube and whether the tube is open at both ends or has only one end open.
(a) 50 Hz, both ends (c) 100 Hz, both ends (e) 200 Hz, both ends
(b) 100 Hz, one end (d) 200 Hz, one end

ˆ 44. When a tuba is played, the player blows into one end of a tube that has an effective length of 3.50
m. The other end of the tube is open. If the speed of sound in air is 343 m/s, what is the lowest
frequency the tuba can produce?
(a) 8.00 Hz (c) 16.0 Hz (e) 49.0 Hz
(b) 12.0 Hz (d) 24.0 Hz

ˆ 45. Some of the lowest pitches attainable on a musical instrument are achieved on the world’s largest
pipe organs. What is the length of an organ pipe that is open on both ends and has a fundamental
frequency of 8.75 Hz when the speed of sound in air is 341 m/s?
(a) 9.83 m (c) 21.2 m (e) 32.4 m
(b) 19.5 m (d) 29.3 m

… 46. A cylindrical tube sustains a fundamental frequency f1 when both of its ends are open. A second
cylindrical tube with one end closed has the same fundamental frequency. What is the ratio of the
length of the second tube to that of the first, L2/L1?
(a) 0.5 (c) 2 (e) 1
(b) 4 (d) 0.25

Questions 47 through 51 pertain to the statement and diagrams below:

The figures show standing waves of sound in six organ pipes of the same length. Each pipe has one
end open and the other end closed. Note: some of the figures show situations that are not possible.

(1) (4)

(2) (5)

(3) (6)

„ 47. Which of the figures do not illustrate possible resonant situations?

(a) 1 and 4 (c) 4 and 5 (e) 4, 5, and 6
(b) 2 and 3 (d) 5 and 6
172 Chapter 17 The Principle of Linear Superposition and Interference

… 48. Which one of the pipes emits sound with the lowest frequency?
(a) 1 (c) 3 (e) 6
(b) 2 (d) 4

… 49. Which one of the pipes emits sound with the highest frequency?
(a) 1 (c) 3 (e) 6
(b) 2 (d) 4

ˆ 50. Which one of the pipes is resonating in its third harmonic?

(a) 1 (c) 3 (e) 6
(b) 2 (d) 4

ˆ 51. If the length of the pipes is 0.500 m, what is the frequency of the sound emitted from pipe 3?
The speed of sound is 343 m/s.
(a) 172 Hz (c) 429 Hz (e) 858 Hz
(b) 344 Hz (d) 515 Hz
 chapter ELECTRIC FORCES AND
ELECTRIC FIELDS

Section 18.1 The Origin of Electricity

Section 18.2 Charged Objects and the Electric Force
Section 18.3 Conductors and Insulators
Section 18.4 Charging by Contact and by Induction
… 1. Which one of the following statements best explains why tiny bits of paper are attracted to a charged
rubber rod?
(a) Paper is naturally a positive material. (d) Rubber and paper always attract each other.
(b) Paper is naturally a negative material. (e) The paper acquires a net positive charge by
(c) The paper becomes polarized by induction. induction.

ˆ 2. Five styrofoam balls are suspended from insulating

threads. Several experiments are performed on the balls;
and the following observations are made:
I. Ball A attracts B and A repels C.
II. Ball D attracts B and D has no effect on E.
III. A negatively charged rod attracts both A and E. A B C
What are the charges, if any, on each ball?

A B C D E
(a) + – + 0 +
(b) + – + + 0
(c) + – + 0 0
(d) – + – 0 0 D E
(e) + 0 – + 0

ˆ 3. Two uncharged conducting spheres, A and B, are suspended

from insulating threads so that they touch each other. While
a negatively charged rod is held near, but not touching
sphere A, someone moves ball B away from A. How will the
spheres be charged, if at all? A B
Sphere A Sphere B
(a) 0 +
(b) – +
(c) 0 0
(d) – 0
(e) + –

… 4. Each of three objects has a net charge. Objects A and B attract one another. Objects B and C also
attract one another, but objects A and C repel one another. Which one of the following table
entries is a possible combination of the signs of the net charges on these three objects?
A B C
(a) + + −
(b) − + +
(c) + − −
(d) − + −
(e) − − +
174 Chapter 18 Electric Forces and Electric Fields

ˆ 5. A conducting sphere has a net charge of −4.8 × 10−17 C. What is the approximate number of excess
electrons on the sphere?
(a) 100 (c) 300 (e) 500
(b) 200 (d) 400

… 6. Complete the following statement: When an ebonite rod is rubbed with animal fur, the rod becomes
negatively charged as
(a) positive charges are transferred from the fur to the rod.
(b) negative charges are transferred from the rod to the fur.
(c) negative charges are created on the surface of the rod.
(d) negative charges are transferred from the fur to the rod.
(e) positive charges are transferred from the rod to the fur.

… 7. Complete the following statement: When a glass rod is rubbed with silk cloth, the rod becomes
positively charged as
(a) positive charges are transferred from the silk to the rod.
(b) negative charges are transferred from the rod to the silk.
(c) positive charges are created on the surface of the rod.
(d) negative charges are transferred from the silk to the rod.
(e) positive charges are transferred from the rod to the silk.

… 8. A charged conductor is brought near an uncharged insulator. Which one of the following statements
is true?
(a) Both objects will repel each other.
(b) Both objects will attract each other.
(c) Neither object exerts an electrical force on the other.
(d) The objects will repel each other only if the conductor has a negative charge.
(e) The objects will attract each other only if the conductor has a positive charge.

ˆ 9. An aluminum nail has an excess charge of +3.2 µC. How many electrons must be added to the nail
to make it electrically neutral?
(a) 2.0 × 1013 (c) 3.2 × 1016 (e) 5.0 × 10−14
(b) 2.0 × 10 19
(d) 3.2 × 10 6

ˆ 10. Two uncharged, conducting spheres, A and B, are held at rest +

on insulating stands and are in contact. A positively charged
rod is brought near sphere A as suggested in the figure. While
the rod is in place, someone moves sphere B away from A.
How will the spheres be charged, if at all?
Sphere A Sphere B
(a) positive positive A B
(b) positive negative
(c) negative positive
(d) negative negative
(e) zero zero

ˆ 11. Consider three identical metal spheres, A, B, and C. Sphere A carries a charge of −2.0 µC; sphere B
carries a charge of −6.0 µC; and sphere C carries a charge of +5.0 µC. Spheres A and B are touched
together and then separated. Spheres B and C are then touched and separated. Does sphere C end
up with an excess or a deficiency of electrons and how many electrons is it?
(a) deficiency, 6 × 1013 (c) excess, 2 × 1013 (e) deficiency, 1 × 1012
(b) excess, 3 × 10 13
(d) deficiency, 3 × 10 12
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 175

Section 18.5 Coulomb’s Law

… 12. Three charged particles A, B, and C are located near one another. Both the magnitude and direction
of the force that particle A exerts on particle B is independent of
(a) the sign of charge B. (d) the distance between A and B.
(b) the sign of charge A. (e) the magnitude of the charge on B.
(c) the distance between C and B.

D
ˆ 13. Four point charges, each of the same magnitude, with varying A
signs are arranged at the corners of a square as shown. Which +Q –Q
of the arrows labeled A, B, C, and D gives the correct direction
of the net force that acts on the charge at the upper right B
corner? C
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C –Q +Q
(d) D
(e) The net force on that charge is zero.

ˆ 14. Two positive point charges Q and 2Q are separated by a distance R. If the charge Q experiences a
force of magnitude F when the separation is R, what is the magnitude of the force on the charge 2Q
when the separation is 2R ?
(a) F/4 (c) F (e) 4F
(b) F/2 (d) 2F

ˆ 15. A charge Q exerts a 12 N force on another charge q. If the distance between the charges is doubled,
what is the magnitude of the force exerted on Q by q?
(a) 3 N (c) 24 N (e) 48 N
(b) 6 N (d) 36 N

ˆ 16. At what separation will two charges, each of magnitude 6.0 µC, exert a force of 1.4 N on each other?
(a) 5.1 × 10−6 m (c) 0.48 m (e) 40 m
(b) 0.23 m (d) 2.0 m

„ 17. One mole of a substance contains 6.02 × 1023 protons and an equal number of electrons. If the protons
could somehow be separated from the electrons and placed in very small, individual containers
separated by 1.00 × 103 m, what would be the magnitude of the electrostatic force exerted by one box
on the other?
(a) 8.7 × 108 N (c) 2.2 × 1010 N (e) 1.6 × 1019 N
(b) 9.5 × 10 N
9
(d) 8.3 × 10 N
13

„ 18. Three charges are positioned as indicated in the figure. What + 15 µC

are the horizontal and vertical components of the net force
exerted on the +15 µC charge by the +11 µC and +13 µC
charges? 0.075 m
horizontal vertical 37°
(a) 95 N 310 N
(b) 76 N 310 N + 13 µC 0.10 m + 11 µC
(c) 250 N 130 N
(d) 95 N 130 N
(e) 76 N 370 N
176 Chapter 18 Electric Forces and Electric Fields

ˆ 19. A −4.0-µC charge is located 0.30 m to the left of a +6.0-µC charge. What is the magnitude and
direction of the electrostatic force on the positive charge?
(a) 2.4 N, to the right (c) 4.8 N, to the right (e) 7.2 N, to the right
(b) 2.4 N, to the left (d) 4.8 N, to the left

„ 20. Determine the ratio of the electrostatic force to the gravitational force between a proton and an
electron, FE/FG. Note: k = 8.99 × 109 N•m2/C2; G = 6.672 × 10−11 N•m2/kg2; me = 9.109 × 10−31 kg;
and mp = 1.672 × 10−27 kg.
(a) 1.24 × 1023 (c) 1.15 × 1031 (e) 1.42 × 1058
(b) 2.52 × 10 29
(d) 2.26 × 10 39

„ 21. In Frame 1, two identical conducting spheres, A and B, carry equal amounts of excess charge
that have the same sign. The spheres are separated by a distance d; and sphere A exerts an
electrostatic force on sphere B that has a magnitude F. A third sphere, C, which is handled only
by an insulating rod, is introduced in Frame 2. Sphere C is identical to A and B except that it is
initially uncharged. Sphere C is touched first to sphere A, in Frame 2, and then to sphere B, in
Frame 3, and is finally removed in Frame 4.
1 2
A B C A B

d d

3 4
A B C A B

d d

Determine the magnitude of the electrostatic force that sphere A exerts on sphere B in Frame 4.
(a) F/2 (c) 3F/4 (e) zero
(b) F/3 (d) 3F/8

Q
„ 22. Three identical point charges, Q, are placed at the
vertices of an equilateral triangle as shown in the
figure. The length of each side of the triangle is d. d d
Determine the magnitude and direction of the total
electrostatic force on the charge at the top of the Q d Q
triangle.
Q2 3 Q2
(a) , directed upward (d) , directed downward
4πε o d 2
2πε o d 2
Q2 3
(b) , directed downward (e) zero
4πε o d 2
Q2
(c) , directed upward
2πε o d 2
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 177

„ 23. Three charges are located along the x +1.5 µC –1.2 µC +2.0 µC
axis as shown in the drawing. The mass
of the –1.2 µC is 4.0 × 10–9 kg. –5 –3 –1 0 1 3 5 7
x (m)
Determine the magnitude and direction
of the acceleration of the –1.2 µC charge when it is allowed to move if the other two charges remain
fixed.
(a) 2 × 105 m/s2, to the right (c) 7 × 104 m/s2, to the right (e) 4 × 106 m/s2, to the right
(b) 1 × 10 m/s , to the left
5 2
(d) 3 × 10 m/s , to the left
5 2

ˆ 24. Four point charges are held fixed at the corners of a square as shown –Q –2Q
in the figure. Which of the five arrows shown below most accurately
shows the direction of the net force on the charge –Q due to the
presence of the three other charges? –2Q +Q

45° > 45° 45°

(a) (c) (e)

(b) (d)

Questions 25 and 26 pertain to the situation described below:

A
The figure shows an equilateral triangle ABC. A positive q
point charge +q is located at each of the three vertices A,
B, and C. Each side of the triangle is of length a. a a

A point charge Q (that may be positive or negative) is Q

q q
placed at the mid-point between B and C. B C
a/2 a/2

… 25. Is it possible to choose the value of Q (that is non-zero) such that the force on Q is zero? Explain
why or why not.
(a) Yes, because the forces on Q are vectors and three vectors can add to zero.
(b) No, because the forces on Q are vectors and three vectors can never add to zero.
(c) Yes, because the electric force at the mid-point between B and C is zero whether a charge is
placed there or not.
(d) No, because the forces on Q due to the charges at B and C point in the same direction.
(e) No, because a fourth charge would be needed to cancel the force on Q due to the charge at A.

„ 26. Determine an expression for the magnitude and sign of Q so that the net force on the charge at
A is zero newtons.
⎛3 3⎞ ⎛ 3 ⎞
(a) Q = + q⎜ ⎟ (d) Q = + q⎜⎜ ⎟⎟
⎜ 4 ⎟
⎝ ⎠ ⎝4 3⎠
⎛3 3⎞ ⎛4 3⎞
(b) Q = − q⎜ ⎟ (e) Q = + q⎜ ⎟
⎜ 4 ⎟ ⎜ 3 ⎟
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
⎛4 3⎞
(c) Q = − q⎜ ⎟
⎜ 3 ⎟
⎝ ⎠
178 Chapter 18 Electric Forces and Electric Fields

Section 18.6 The Electric Field

Section 18.7 Electric Field Lines
Section 18.8 The Electric Field Inside a Conductor: Shielding
… 27. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the magnitude of the electric field at a
point in space?
(a) It is a measure of the total charge on the object.
(b) It is a measure of the electric force on any charged object.
(c) It is a measure of the ratio of the charge on an object to its mass.
(d) It is a measure of the electric force per unit mass on a test charge.
(e) It is a measure of the electric force per unit charge on a test charge.

ˆ 28. In the figure, point A is a distance L away from a B A Q

point charge Q. Point B is a distance 4L away from
Q. What is the ratio of the electric field at B to that 3L L
at A, EB/EA?
(a) 1/16 (d) 1/3
(b) 1/9 (e) This cannot be determined since neither the value of Q
(c) 1/4 nor the length L is specified.

ˆ 29. At which point (or points) is the electric field zero N/C for the two point charges shown on the x axis?
+4 q -2q
x
(a) The electric field is never zero in the vicinity of these charges.
(b) The electric field is zero somewhere on the x axis to the left of the +4q charge.
(c) The electric field is zero somewhere on the x axis to the right of the –2q charge.
(d) The electric field is zero somewhere on the x axis between the two charges, but this point is
nearer to the –2q charge.
(e) The electric field is zero at two points along the x axis; one such point is to the right of the
–2q charge and the other is to the left of the +4q charge.

ˆ 30. An electron traveling horizontally enters a region where a

uniform electric field is directed upward. What is the
direction of the force exerted on the electron once it has electron
entered the field?
(a) to the left
(b) to the right
(c) upward
(d) downward
(e) out of the page, toward the reader

ˆ 31. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the strength of the electric field between
two oppositely charged parallel plates?
(a) It is zero midway between the plates.
(b) It is a maximum midway between the plates.
(c) It is a maximum near the positively charged plate.
(d) It is a maximum near the negatively charged plate.
(e) It is constant between the plates except near the edges.
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 179

„ 32. Two particles of the same mass carry charges +3Q and –2Q, respectively. They are shot into a
region that contains a uniform electric field as shown. The particles have the same initial
velocities in the positive x direction. The lines, numbered 1 through 5, indicate possible paths for
the particles. If the electric field points in the negative y direction, what will be the resulting paths
for these particles?

y 1
2
x

3 E

point of 4
entry
5

(a) path 1 for +3Q and path 4 for –2Q (d) path 2 for +3Q and path 5 for –2Q
(b) path 3 for +3Q and path 2 for –2Q (e) path 5 for +3Q and path 2 for –2Q
(c) path 4 for +3Q and path 3 for –2Q

Questions 33 through 35 pertain to the following situation:

Five particles are shot from the

1
left into a region that contains a
uniform electric field. The x 2
numbered lines show the paths
taken by the five particles. A
3
negatively charged particle with
a charge –3Q follows path 2
point of 4
while it moves through this field. entry
Do not consider any effects due 5
to gravity.

ˆ 33. In which direction does the electric field point?

(a) toward the top of the page (d) toward the bottom of the page
(b) toward the left of the page (e) out of the page, toward the reader
(c) toward the right of the page

… 34. Which path would be followed by a helium atom (an electrically neutral particle)?
(a) path 1 (c) path 3 (e) path 5
(b) path 2 (d) path 4

ˆ 35. Which path would be followed by a charge +6Q?

(a) path 1 (c) path 3 (e) path 5
(b) path 2 (d) path 4

ˆ 36. What is the magnitude of the electric field due to a 4.0 × 10−9 C charge at a point 0.020 m away?
(a) 1.8 × 103 N/C (c) 1.0 × 105 N/C (e) 7.2 × 107 N/C
(b) 9.0 × 10 N/C
4
(d) 3.6 × 10 N/C
6
180 Chapter 18 Electric Forces and Electric Fields

Questions 37 through 39 pertain to the statement and diagram below:

+ + + + + +
The figure shows a parallel plate capacitor. The surface charge
density on each plate is 8.8 × 10−8 C/m2. The point P is located P
1.0 × 10−5 m away from the positive plate.
– – – – – –

… 37. Which one of the following statements concerning the direction of the electric field between the
plates is true?
(a) It points to the left. (d) It points toward the positive plate.
(b) It points to the right. (e) It points up out of the plane of the page.
(c) It points toward the negative plate.

ˆ 38. What is the magnitude of the electric field at the point P?

(a) 8.8 N/C (c) 1.0 × 102 N/C (e) 9.9 × 103 N/C
(b) 88 N/C (d) 8.8 × 102 N/C

ˆ 39. If a +2.0 × 10−5 C point charge is placed at P, what is the force exerted on it?
(a) 0.2 N, toward the negative plate (d) 5 × 104 N, toward the negative plate
(b) 0.2 N, toward the positive plate (e) 5 × 104 N, into the plane of the page
(c) 5 × 10 N, toward the positive plate
4

„ 40. A small sphere of mass 1.0 × 10−6 kg carries a total charge of 2.0 × 10−8 C.
The sphere hangs from a silk thread between two large parallel conducting
plates. The excess charge on each plate is equal in magnitude, but opposite
in sign. If the thread makes an angle of 30° with the positive plate as shown,
30°
what is the magnitude of the charge density on each plate?
(a) 2.5 × 10−9 C/m2 (d) 2.1 × 10−8 C/m2
−9
(b) 5.2 × 10 C/m 2
(e) 4.2 × 10−8 C/m2
−9
(c) 1.0 × 10 C/m 2 + –

… 41. Complete the following statement: The magnitude of the electric field at a point in space does not
depend upon
(a) the distance from the charge causing the field.
(b) the sign of the charge causing the field.
(c) the magnitude of the charge causing the field.
(d) the force that a unit positive charge will experience at that point.
(e) the force that a unit negative charge will experience at that point.

„ 42. Four point charges are placed at the corners of a square as +4 µC +1 µC

shown in the figure. Each side of the square has length 2.0 m.
Determine the magnitude of the electric field at the point P,
the center of the square. P
(a) 2.0 × 10−6 N/C (d) 1.8 × 104 N/C
−6
(b) 3.0 × 10 N/C (e) 2.7 × 104 N/C –3 µC +4 µC
(c) 9.0 × 10 N/C
3
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 181

ˆ 43. The figure shows the electric field lines in the vicinity
of two point charges. Which one of the following
statements concerning this situation is true?
(a) q1 is negative and q2 is positive.
(b) The magnitude of the ratio (q2/ q1) is less than q1
one. q2
(c) Both q1and q2 have the same sign of charge.
(d) The magnitude of the electric field is the same
everywhere.
(e) The electric field is strongest midway between
the charges.

„ 44. A rigid electric dipole is free to move in the electric

field represented in the figure. Which one of the
following phrases most accurately describes the
initial motion of the dipole if it is released from rest
in the position shown? E
(a) It moves to the left. −Q +Q
(b) It moves to the right.
(c) It does not move at all.
(d) It moves toward to the top of the page.
(e) It moves toward the bottom of the page.

„ 45. An electric dipole is released from rest in a uniform electric

field with the orientation shown. Which entry in the table +Q
below correctly describes the net torque and the net force on
the dipole? E
net torque net force
(a) zero zero −Q
(b) clockwise zero
(c) counterclockwise zero
(d) clockwise non-zero
(e) counterclockwise non-zero

… 46. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the spacing of the electric field lines in the
vicinity of two point charges of equal magnitude and opposite sign?
(a) It indicates the direction of the electric field.
(b) It does not depend on the magnitude of the charges.
(c) It is large when the magnitude of the charges is large.
(d) It indicates the relative magnitude of the electric field.
(e) It is small when the magnitude of the charges is small.

… 47. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the electrostatic charge on a conductor?
(a) The charge is uniformly distributed throughout the volume.
(b) The charge is confined to the surface and is uniformly distributed.
(c) Most of the charge is on the outer surface, but it is not uniformly distributed.
(d) The charge is entirely on the surface and it is distributed according to the shape of the object.
(e) The charge is dispersed throughout the volume of the object and distributed according to the
object’s shape.
182 Chapter 18 Electric Forces and Electric Fields

… 48. The magnitude of the electric field at a distance of two meters from a negative point charge is E.
What is the magnitude of the electric field at the same location if the magnitude of the charge is
doubled?
(a) E/4 (c) E (e) 4E
(b) E/2 (d) 2E

ˆ 49. What is the magnitude and direction of the electric force on a −1.2 µC charge at a point where
the electric field is 2500 N/C and is directed along the +y axis.
(a) 0.15 N, −y direction (c) 0.0030 N, −y direction (e) 4.3 N, +x direction
(b) 0.15 N, +y direction (d) 0.0030 N, +y direction

ˆ 50. A conducting sphere carries a net charge of –6 µC. conducting sphere

The sphere is located at the center of a conducting
spherical shell that carries a net charge of +2 µC. conducting spherical
Determine the excess charge on the outer surface shell
of the spherical shell.
(a) –4 µC (c) –8 µC (e) +6 µC
(b) +4 µC (d) +8 µC

Section 18.9 Gauss’ Law

… 51. A cubical Gaussian surface is placed in a uniform electric field
as shown in the figure to the right. The length of each edge of
the cube is 1.0 m. The uniform electric field has a magnitude of
5.0 × 108 N/C and passes through the left and right sides of the
cube perpendicular to the surface. What is the total electric flux
that passes through the cubical Gaussian surface?
(a) 5.0 × 108 N⋅m2/C (c) 2.5 × 106 N⋅m2/C (e) zero N⋅m2/C
(b) 3.0 × 10 N⋅m /C
9 2
(d) 1.5 × 107 N⋅m2/C

ˆ 52. What is the electric flux passing through a Gaussian surface that surrounds a +0.075 C point charge?
(a) 8.5 × 109 N⋅m2/C (c) 1.3 × 107 N⋅m2/C (e) 7.2 × 105 N⋅m2/C
(b) 6.8 × 10 N⋅m /C
8 2
(d) 4.9 × 10 N⋅m /C
6 2

ˆ 53. A uniform electric field with a magnitude of 125 000 N/C passes through a rectangle with sides of
2.50 m and 5.00 m. The angle between the electric field vector and the vector normal to the
rectangular plane is 65.0°. What is the electric flux through the rectangle?
(a) 1.56 × 106 N⋅m2/C (c) 1.42 × 105 N⋅m2/C (e) 4.23 × 104 N⋅m2/C
(b) 6.60 × 10 N⋅m /C
5 2
(d) 5.49 × 10 N⋅m /C
4 2

„ 54. A straight, copper wire has a length of 0.50 m and an excess charge of –1.0 × 10−5 C distributed
uniformly along its length. Find the magnitude of the electric field at a point located
7.5 × 10–3 m from the midpoint of the wire.
(a) 1.9 × 1010 N/C (c) 6.1 × 1013 N/C (e) 4.8 × 107 N/C
(b) 1.5 ×10 N/C
6
(d) 7.3 × 10 N/C
8
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 183

ˆ 55. A total charge of –6.50 µC is uniformly distributed within a sphere that has a radius of 0.150 m.
What is the magnitude and direction of the electric field at 0.300 m from the surface of the sphere?
(a) 2.89 × 105 N/C, radially inward (d) 9.38 × 105 N/C, radially outward
(b) 6.49 × 10 N/C, radially outward
5
(e) 1.30 × 106 N/C, radially inward
(c) 4.69 × 10 N/C, radially inward
5

Additional Problems
ˆ 56. A circular loop of wire with a diameter of 0.626 m is rotated in a uniform electric field to a
position where the electric flux through the loop is a maximum. At this position, the electric flux
is 7.50 × 105 N⋅m2/C. Determine the magnitude of the electric field.
(a) 8.88 × 105 N/C (c) 2.44 × 106 N/C (e) 6.00 × 106 N/C
(b) 1.07 × 10 N/C
6
(d) 4.24 × 10 N/C
6

„ 57. A helium nucleus is located between the plates of a parallel-plate

capacitor as shown. The nucleus has a charge of +2e and a mass of – – – – –
6.6 × 10−27 kg. What is the magnitude of the electric field such that
the electric force exactly balances the weight of the helium nucleus +2 e
so that it remains stationary? mg
(a) 4.0 × 10−7 N/C (d) 5.0 × 10−3 N/C
−26
(b) 6.6 × 10 N/C (e) 1.4 × 10−8 N/C + + + + +
−7
(c) 2.0 × 10 N/C

„ 58. Two identical conducting spheres carry charges of +5.0 µC and –1.0 µC, respectively. The centers of
the spheres are initially separated by a distance L. The two spheres are brought together so that they
are in contact. The spheres are then returned to their original separation L. What is the ratio of the
magnitude of the electric force on either sphere after the spheres are touched to that before they were
touched?
(a) 1/1 (c) 9/5 (e) 4/9
(b) 4/5 (d) 5/1

Questions 59 and 60 pertain to the situation described below:

Two point charges, A and B, lie along a line separated A B

by a distance L. The point x is the midpoint of their x
separation.

ˆ 59. Which combination of charges would yield the greatest repulsive force between the charges?
(a) –2q and –4q (c) –1q and –4q (e) +1q and +7q
(b) +1q and –3q (d) –2q and +4q

ˆ 60. Which combination of charges will yield zero electric field at the point x?
(a) +1q and –1q (c) +1q and –4q (e) +4q and +4q
(b) +2q and –3q (d) –1q and +4q
184 Chapter 18 Electric Forces and Electric Fields

Questions 61 through 63 pertain to the situation described below:

A solid, conducting sphere of radius a carries an excess

charge of +6 µC. This sphere is located at the center of a
hollow, conducting sphere with an inner radius of b and an
outer radius of c as shown. The hollow sphere also carries a
total excess charge of +6 µC. a

ˆ 61. Determine the excess charge on the inner surface of the outer c
sphere (a distance b from the center of the system). b
(a) zero coulombs (d) +12 µC
(b) –6 µC (e) –12 µC
(c) +6 µC

„ 62. Determine the excess charge on the outer surface of the outer sphere (a distance c from the center of
the system).
(a) zero coulombs (c) +6 µC (e) –12 µC
(b) –6 µC (d) +12 µC

ˆ 63. Which one of the following figures shows a qualitatively accurate sketch of the electric field lines in
and around this system?

(a) (b) (c)

(d) (e)
 chapter ELECTRIC POTENTIAL ENERGY
AND THE ELECTRIC
POTENTIAL

Section 19.1 Potential Energy

Section 19.2 The Electric Potential Difference
… 1. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the work done by an external force in
moving an electron at constant speed between two points in an electrostatic field?
(a) The work done is always zero joules.
(b) The work done is always positive.
(c) The work done is always negative.
(d) The work done depends on the total distance covered.
(e) The work done depends only on the displacement of the electron.

… 2. Complete the following statement: The electron volt is a unit of

(a) energy. (c) electric charge. (e) electric power.
(b) electric field strength. (d) electric potential difference.

ˆ 3. Which one of the following statements best explains why it is possible to define an electrostatic
potential in a region of space that contains an electrostatic field?
(a) Work must be done to bring two positive charges closer together.
(b) Like charges repel one another and unlike charges attract one another.
(c) A positive charge will gain kinetic energy as it approaches a negative charge.
(d) The work required to bring two charges together is independent of the path taken.
(e) A negative charge will gain kinetic energy as it moves away from another negative charge.

ˆ 4. The electric potential at a certain point is space is 12 V. What is the electric potential energy of
a –3.0 µC charge placed at that point?
(a) +4 µJ (c) +36 µJ (e) zero µJ
(b) –4 µJ (d) –36 µJ

… 5. A completely ionized beryllium atom (net charge = +4e) is accelerated through a potential
difference of 6.0 V. What is the increase in kinetic energy of the atom?
(a) zero eV (c) 4.0 eV (e) 24 eV
(b) 0.67 eV (d) 6.0 eV

ˆ 6. Two positive point charges are separated by a distance R. If the distance between the charges is
reduced to R/2, what happens to the total electric potential energy of the system?
(a) It is doubled. (d) It is reduced to one-half of its original value.
(b) It remains the same. (e) It is reduced to one-fourth of its original value.
(c) It increases by a factor of 4.

ˆ 7. A charge q = −4.0 µC is moved 0.25 m horizontally to point P in a region E

where an electric field is 150 V/m and directed vertically as shown. What
is the change in the electric potential energy of the charge? q P
(a) −2.4 × 10−3 J (d) +1.5 × 10−4 J
−4
(b) −1.5 × 10 J (e) +2.4 × 10−3 J
(c) zero joules
186 Chapter 19 Electric Potential Energy and the Electric Potential

ˆ 8. A proton moves in a constant electric field E from point A to

point B. The magnitude of the electric field is 4.2 × 104 N/C; A
E
and it is directed as shown in the drawing, the direction
opposite to the motion of the proton. If the distance from proton B
point A to point B is 0.18 m, what is the change in the
proton’s electric potential energy, EPEA – EPEB?
(a) +2.4 × 10–15 J (c) +1.2 × 10–15 J (e) –1.8 × 10–15 J
–15
(b) –1.2 × 10 J (d) –2.4 × 10–15 J

Section 19.3 The Electric Potential Difference Created by Point Charges

+2.0 µC –5.0 µC
ˆ 9. Two point charges are arranged along the x axis as shown in
the figure. At which of the following values of x is the x
electric potential equal to zero?
0 1.0 m
Note: At infinity, the electric potential is zero.
(a) +0.05 m (c) +0.40 m (e) +0.71 m
(b) +0.29 m (d) +0.54 m

ˆ 10. Two point charges are located at two of the vertices of a right triangle, as
shown in the figure. If a third charge −2q is brought from infinity and placed at
the third vertex, what will its electric potential energy be? Use the following b
values: a = 0.15 m; b = 0.45 m, and q = 2.0 × 10−5 C.
(a) −17 J (d) +8.5 J a
(b) −12 J (e) +14 J −q +2q
(c) −2.8 J

„ 11. A +1.0 µC point charge is moved from point

A to B in the uniform electric field as shown. E = 3 V/m B
Which one of the following statements is
necessarily true concerning the potential 3.6 m 2.0 m
energy of the point charge?
(a) It increases by 6.0 × 10−6J.
A 3.0 m
(b) It decreases by 6.0 × 10−6 J.
(c) It decreases by 9.0 × 10−6 J.
(d) It increases by 10.8 × 10−6 J.
(d) It decreases by 10.8 × 10−6 J.

„ 12. Three point charges –Q, –Q, and +3Q are arranged along a line as shown in the sketch.
P

−Q +3Q −Q

R R
What is the electric potential at the point P?
(a) +kQ/R (c) –1.6kQ/R (e) +4.4kQ/R
(b) –2kQ/R (d) +1.6kQ/R
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 187

ˆ 13. If the work required to move a +0.35 C charge from point A to point B is +125 J, what is the
potential difference between the two points?
(a) zero volts (c) 88 V (e) 360 V
(b) 44 V (d) 180 V

Questions 14 through 16 pertain to the electrostatic system described below:

Two point charges are held at the corners –5.0 µC A

of a rectangle as shown in the figure.
The lengths of sides of the rectangle are
0.050 m and 0.150 m. Assume that the
electric potential is defined to be zero at B +2.0 µC
infinity.

ˆ 14. Determine the electric potential at corner A.

(a) +6.0 × 104 V (c) +4.6 × 105 V (e) zero volts
5
(b) –2.4 × 10 V (d) –7.8 × 105 V

„ 15. What is the potential difference, VB − VA, between corners A and B?

(a) −8.4 × 105 V (c) −7.2 × 105 V (e) zero volts
5
(b) −7.8 × 10 V (d) −6.0 × 105 V

ˆ 16. What is the electric potential energy of a +3.0 µC charge placed at corner A?
(a) 0.10 J (c) 2.3 J (e) zero joules
(b) 0.18 J (d) 3.6 J

Questions 17 through 19 pertain to the situation described below:

+Q +Q

Four point charges are individually brought from infinity and placed
at the corners of a square as shown in the figure. Each charge has the P
identical value +Q. The length of the diagonal of the square is 2a.
+Q +Q

ˆ 17. The first two charges are brought from infinity and placed at adjacent corners. What is the electric
potential energy of these two charges?
kQ 2 kQ kQ 2
(a) (c) (e)
a 2 a 2 4a
2kQ kQ 2
(b) (d)
a 2a

ˆ 18. What is the magnitude of the electric field at P, the center of the square?
(a) kQ/a2 (c) 4kQ/a2 (e) zero V/m
(b) 2kQ/a 2 (d) kQ/4a2

ˆ 19. What is the electric potential at P, the center of the square?

(a) kQ/a (c) 4kQ/a (e) zero volts
(b) 2kQ/a (d) kQ/4a
188 Chapter 19 Electric Potential Energy and the Electric Potential

Questions 20 and 21 refer to the

following statement and figure:
P 0.1 m Q
P and Q are points within a uniform
electric field that are separated by a E
distance of 0.1 m as shown. The
potential difference between P and Q is
50 V.

ˆ 20. Determine the magnitude of this electric field.

(a) 0.5 V/m (c) 50 V/m (e) 5000 V/m
(b) 5.0 V/m (d) 500 V/m

„ 21. How much work is required to move a +1000 µC point charge from P to Q?
(a) 0.02 J (c) 200 J (e) 5000 J
(b) 0.05 J (d) 1000 J

Questions 22 and 23 pertain to the following situation: +2.8 × 10−8 C

0.0025 m
Two point charges are separated by 1.00 × 10−2 m. One charge is B
−2.8 × 10−8 C; and the other is +2.8 × 10−8 C. The points A and B
are located 2.5 × 10−3 m from the lower and upper point charges as 0.0050 m
shown.
A
ˆ 22. If an electron, which has a charge of 1.60 × 10−19 C, is moved from 0.0025 m
rest at A to rest at B, what is the change in electric potential energy of −2.8 × 10−8 C
the electron?
(a) +4.3 × 10−15 J (c) –2.1 × 10−14 J (e) zero joules
−15
(b) +5.4 × 10 J (d) –3.2 × 10−14 J

ˆ 23. If a proton, which has a charge of +1.60 × 10–19 C, is moved from rest at A to rest at B, what is
change in electrical potential energy of the proton?
(a) +2.1 × 10–14 J (c) – 4.3 × 10–15 J (e) zero joules
–14
(b) +3.2 × 10 J (d) – 5.4 × 10–15 J

Questions 24 through 26 pertain to the +Q

situation described below:
1.0 m 4.0 m
Two charges of opposite sign and equal
magnitude Q = 2.0 C are held 2.0 m apart as ∞
P
shown in the figure.
1.0 m 4.0 m
ˆ 24. Determine the magnitude of the electric field at
the point P. −Q
9 8
(a) 2.2 × 10 V/m (c) 4.4 × 10 V/m (e) zero V/m
(b) 5.6 × 108 V/m (d) 2.8 × 108 V/m

ˆ 25. Determine the electric potential at the point P.

(a) 1.1 × 109 V (c) 4.5 × 109 V (e) zero volts
9
(b) 2.2 × 10 V (d) 9.0 × 109 V
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 189

„ 26. How much work is required to move a 1.0 C charge from infinity to the point P?
(a) zero joules (c) 4.5 × 109 J (e) infinity
9 9
(b) 2.2 × 10 J (d) 9.0 × 10 J

Section 19.4 Equipotential Surfaces and Their Relation to the Electric Field
ˆ 27. Which one of the following statements concerning electrostatic situations is false?
(a) E is zero everywhere inside a conductor.
(b) Equipotential surfaces are always perpendicular to E.
(c) Zero work is needed to move a charge along an equipotential surface.
(d) If V is constant throughout a region of space, then E must be zero in that region.
(e) No force component acts along the path of a charge as it is moved along an equipotential
surface.

… 28. Which one of the following statements best describes the equipotential surfaces surrounding a
point charge?
(a) The equipotential surfaces are planes extending radially outward from the charge.
(b) The equipotential surfaces are curved planes surrounding the charge, but only one passes
through the charge.
(c) The equipotential surfaces are concentric cubes with the charge at the center.
(d) The equipotential surfaces are concentric spheres with the charge at the center.
(e) The equipotential surfaces are concentric cylinders with the charge on the axis at the center.

ˆ 29. A charge is located at the center of sphere A (radius RA = 0.0010 m), which is in the center of
sphere B (radius RB = 0.0012 m). Spheres A and B are both equipotential surfaces. What is the
ratio VA/VB of the potentials of these surfaces?
(a) 0.42 (c) 1.2 (e) 2.4
(b) 0.83 (d) 1.4

Questions 30 through 38 refer to the statement and figure below:

The sketch below shows cross sections of equipotential surfaces between two charged
conductors that are shown in solid grey. Various points on the equipotential surfaces near the
conductors are labeled A, B, C, ..., I.
0.4 m

I C
H
–70 V G
–60 V D B A
F E
–50 V

–40 V

–30 V –20 V 0 +20 V +40 V

… 30. At which of the labeled points will the electric field have the greatest magnitude?
(a) G (c) A (e) D
(b) I (d) H

ˆ 31. At which of the labeled points will an electron have the greatest potential energy?
(a) A (c) G (e) I
(b) D (d) H
190 Chapter 19 Electric Potential Energy and the Electric Potential

… 32. What is the potential difference between points B and E?

(a) 10 V (c) 40 V (e) 60 V
(b) 30 V (d) 50 V

ˆ 33. What is the direction of the electric field at B?

(a) toward A (c) toward C (e) up and out of the page
(b) toward D (d) into the page

ˆ 34. How much work is required to move a –1.0 µC charge from A to E?

(a) +3.0 × 10–5 J (c) +7.0 × 10–5 J (e) zero joules
–5
(b) –4.0 × 10 J (d) –7.0 × 10–5 J

… 35. How much work is required to move a –1.0 µC charge from B to D to C?

(a) +2.0 × 10–5 J (c) +4.0 × 10–5 J (e) zero joules
–5
(b) –2.0 × 10 J (d) –4.0 × 10–5 J

… 36. A positive point charge is placed at F. Complete the following statement: When it is released,
(a) no force will be exerted on it. (d) a force will cause it to move away from E.
(b) a force will cause it to move toward E. (e) it would subsequently lose kinetic energy.
(c) a force will cause it to move toward G.

ˆ 37. What is the magnitude of the electric field at point A?

(a) 10 V/m (c) 30 V/m (e) 100 V/m
(b) 25 V/m (d) 75 V/m

ˆ 38. A point charge gains 50 µJ of electric potential energy when it is moved from point D to point G.
Determine the magnitude of the charge.
(a) 1.0 µC (c) 25 µC (e) 130 µC
(b) 1.3 µC (d) 50 µC

Questions 39 through 41 pertain to the following situation:

The sketch shows cross sections of equipotential surfaces between two charged conductors shown
in solid black. Points on the equipotential surfaces near the conductors are labeled A, B, C, ..., H.
D
G
C
A E –500 V
B
F –400 V
H
–200 V

–50 V
0V
+200 V

… 39. What is the magnitude of the potential difference between points A and H?
(a) 100 V (c) 400 V (e) 700 V
(b) 200 V (d) 600 V

ˆ 40. What is the direction of the electric field at point E?

(a) toward G (c) toward H (e) toward F
(b) toward B (d) toward C
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 191

„ 41. How much work is required to move a +6.0 µC point charge from B to F to D to A?
(a) +1.2 × 10–3 J (c) +3.6 × 10–3 J (e) zero joules
–3
(b) –1.2 × 10 J (d) –3.6 × 10–3 J

Section 19.5 Capacitors and Dielectrics

Section 19.6 Biomedical Applications of Electric Potential Differences
ˆ 42. The magnitude of the charge on the plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor is doubled.
Which one of the following statements is true concerning the capacitance of this parallel-plate
system?
(a) The capacitance is decreased to one half of its original value.
(b) The capacitance is increased to twice its original value.
(c) The capacitance remains unchanged.
(d) The capacitance depends on the electric field between the plates.
(e) The capacitance depends on the potential difference across the plates.

ˆ 43. A parallel plate capacitor with plates of area A and plate separation d is charged so that the
potential difference between its plates is V. If the capacitor is then isolated and its plate separation
is decreased to d/2, what happens to the potential difference between the plates?
(a) The final potential difference is 4V.
(b) The final potential difference is 2V.
(c) The final potential difference is 0.5V.
(d) The final potential difference is 0.25V.
(e) The final potential difference is V.

ˆ 44. A parallel plate capacitor with plates of area A and plate separation d is charged so that the
potential difference between its plates is V. If the capacitor is then isolated and its plate separation
is decreased to d/2, what happens to its capacitance?
(a) The capacitance is twice its original value.
(b) The capacitance is four times its original value.
(c) The capacitance is eight times its original value.
(d) The capacitance is one half of its original value.
(e) The capacitance is unchanged.

„ 45. A parallel plate capacitor is fully charged at a potential V. A dielectric with constant κ = 4 is
inserted between the plates of the capacitor while the potential difference between the plates
remains constant. Which one of the following statements is false concerning this situation?
(a) The energy density remains unchanged.
(b) The capacitance increases by a factor of four.
(c) The stored energy increases by a factor of four.
(d) The charge on the capacitor increases by a factor of four.
(e) The electric field between the plates increases by a factor of four.

ˆ 46. Which one of the following changes will necessarily increase the capacitance of a capacitor?
(a) decreasing the charge on the plates
(b) increasing the charge on the plates
(c) placing a dielectric between the plates
(d) increasing the potential difference between the plates
(e) decreasing the potential difference between the plates
192 Chapter 19 Electric Potential Energy and the Electric Potential

ˆ 47. Complete the following statement: When a dielectric with constant κ is inserted between the
plates of a charged isolated capacitor
(a) the capacitance is reduced by a factor κ.
(b) the charge on the plates is reduced by a factor of κ.
(c) the charge on the plates is increased by a factor of κ.
(d) the electric field between the plates is reduced by a factor of κ.
(e) the potential difference between the plates is increased by a factor of κ.

ˆ 48. A parallel plate capacitor has a potential difference between its plates of 1.2 V and a plate
separation distance of 2.0 mm. What is the magnitude of the electric field if a material that has a
dielectric constant of 3.3 is inserted between the plates?
(a) 75 V/m (c) 250 V/m (e) 500 V/m
(b) 180 V/m (d) 400 V/m

ˆ 49. A capacitor has a very large capacitance of 10 F. The capacitor is charged by placing a potential
difference of 2 V between its plates. How much energy is stored in the capacitor?
(a) 2000 J (c) 100 J (e) 20 J
(b) 500 J (d) 40 J

ˆ 50. The effective area of each plate of a parallel plate capacitor is 2.4 m2. The capacitor is filled with
neoprene rubber (κ = 6.4). When a 3.0-V potential difference exists across the plates of the
capacitor, the capacitor stores 5.0 µC of charge. Determine the plate separation of the capacitor.
(a) 7.2 × 10–5 m (c) 1.7 × 10–4 m (e) 8.2 × 10–5 m
–4 –4
(b) 3.0 × 10 m (d) 5.3 × 10 m

ˆ 51. A uniform electric field of 8 V/m exists between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor. How
much work is required to move a +20 µC point charge from the negative plate to the positive plate
if the plate separation is 0.050 m?
(a) 0.4 J (c) 8 × 10–4 J (e) 8 × 10–6 J
(b) 1.6 J (d) 8 × 10–5 J

ˆ 52. A capacitor is initially charged to 2 V. It is then connected to a 4 V battery. What is the ratio of
the final to the initial energy stored in the capacitor?
(a) 2 (c) 6 (e) 10
(b) 4 (d) 8

ˆ 53. A parallel plate capacitor has plates of area 2.0 × 10–3 m2 and plate separation 1.0 × 10−4 m.
Determine the capacitance of this system if air fills the volume between the plates.
(a) 1.1 × 10–10 F (c) 3.2 × 10–10 F (e) 5.3 × 10–10 F
–10 –10
(b) 1.8 × 10 F (d) 4.4 × 10 F

ˆ 54. A parallel plate capacitor has plates of area 2.0 × 10−3 m2 and plate separation 1.0 × 10−4 m.
Air fills the volume between the plates. What potential difference is required to establish a
3.0 µC charge on the plates?
(a) 9.3 × 102 V (c) 1.7 × 104 V (e) 3.7 × 105 V
(b) 2.4 × 104 V (d) 6.9 × 103 V
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 193

ˆ 55. A potential difference of 120 V is established between two parallel metal plates. The magnitude
of the charge on each plate is 0.020 C. What is the capacitance of this capacitor?
(a) 170 µC (c) 7.2 µC (e) 2.4 C
(b) 24 µC (d) 0.12 C

Questions 56 through 61 pertain to the situation described below:

The plates of a parallel plate capacitor each have an area of 0.40 m2 and are separated by a
distance of 0.02 m. They are charged until the potential difference between the plates is 3000 V.
The charged capacitor is then isolated.

… 56. Determine the magnitude of the electric field between the capacitor plates.
(a) 60 V/m (c) 1.0 × 105 V/m (e) 3.0 × 105 V/m
5
(b) 120 V/m (d) 1.5 × 10 V/m

ˆ 57. Determine the value of the capacitance.

(a) 9.0 × 10−11 F (c) 3.6 × 10−10 F (e) 6.4 × 10−10 F
−10
(b) 1.8 × 10 F (d) 4.8 × 10−10 F

ˆ 58. Determine the magnitude of the charge on either capacitor plate.

(a) 1.8 × 10−7 C (c) 4.9 × 10−7 C (e) 6.8 × 10−7 C
−7
(b) 2.7 × 10 C (d) 5.4 × 10−7 C

ˆ 59. How much work is required to move a –4.0 µC charge from the negative plate to the positive plate
of this system?
(a) –1.2 × 10−2 J (c) –2.4 × 10−2 J (e) –5.4 × 10−2 J
−2 −2
(b) +1.2 × 10 J (d) +2.4 × 10 J

„ 60. Suppose that a dielectric sheet is inserted to completely fill the space between the plates and the
potential difference between the plates drops to 1000 V. What is the capacitance of the system
after the dielectric is inserted?
(a) 1.8 × 10−10 F (c) 5.4 × 10−10 F (e) 6.8 × 10−10 F
−10 −10
(b) 2.7 × 10 F (d) 6.2 × 10 F

ˆ 61. Suppose that a dielectric sheet is inserted to completely fill the space between the plates and the
potential difference between the plates drops to 1000 V. Determine the dielectric constant.
(a) 0.333 (c) 3.0 (e) 2000
(b) 0.666 (d) 6.0

Questions 62 through 64 pertain to the situation described below:

The figure below shows four parallel plate capacitors: A, B, C, and D. Each capacitor carries the
same charge q and has the same plate area A. As suggested by the figure, the plates of capacitors A
and C are separated by a distance d while those of B and D are separated by a distance 2d.
Capacitors A and B are maintained in vacuum while capacitors C and D contain dielectrics with
constant κ = 5. vacuum dielectric
(κ = 5)
A B C D

d 2d d 2d
194 Chapter 19 Electric Potential Energy and the Electric Potential

„ 62. Which list below places the capacitors in order of increasing capacitance?
(a) A, B, C, D (c) A, B, D, C (e) D, C, B, A
(b) B, A, C, D (d) B, A, D, C

ˆ 63. Which capacitor has the largest potential difference between its plates?
(a) A (c) C (e) A and D are the same
(b) B (d) D and larger than B or C.

ˆ 64. Which capacitor is storing the greatest amount of electric potential energy?
(a) A (d) D
(b) B (e) Since all four carry the same charge, each will store the
(c) C same amount of energy.

Additional Problems

… 65. At what distance from a 1.0-C charge is the electric potential equal to 12 V?
(a) 8.3 × 107 m (c) 9.0 × 108 m (e) 3.0 × 109 m
8 9
(b) 7.5 × 10 m (d) 1.1 × 10 m

Questions 66 through 69 pertain to the situation described below:

A +3.0 µC
Two positive charges are located at points A and B as shown in the
figure. The distance from each charge to the point P is a = 2.0 m.
a

+3.0 µC
P B
a
ˆ 66. Determine the magnitude of the electric field at the point P.
(a) 3.38 × 103 V/m (c) 9.55 × 103 V/m (e) 2.70 × 104 V/m
3
(b) 6.75 × 10 V/m (d) 1.35 × 104 V/m

ˆ 67. Which statement is true concerning the direction of the electric field at P?
(a) The direction is toward A.
(b) The direction is toward B.
(c) The direction is directly away from A.
(d) The direction makes a 45° angle above the horizontal direction.
(e) The direction makes a 135° angle below the horizontal direction.

ˆ 68. Determine the electric potential at the point P.

(a) 1.35 × 104 V (c) 2.30 × 104 V (e) 3.68 × 104 V
4
(b) 1.89 × 10 V (d) 2.70 × 104 V

P
… 69. Suppose that the charges are rearranged as A B
a a
shown in this figure.
Which one of the following statements is true for this new arrangement?
(a) The electric field will be zero, but the electric potential remains unchanged.
(b) Both the electric field and the electric potential are zero at P.
(c) The electric field will remain unchanged, but the electric potential will be zero.
(d) The electric field will remain unchanged, but the electric potential will decrease.
(e) Both the electric field and the electric potential will be changed and will be non-zero.
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 195

Questions 70 and 71 pertain to the situation described below:

An isolated system consists of two conducting spheres A and B. Sphere A has five times the
radius of sphere B. Initially, the spheres are given equal amounts of positive charge and are
isolated from each other. The two spheres are then connected by a conducting wire.
Note: The potential of a sphere of radius R that carries a charge Q is V = kQ/R, if the potential at
infinity is zero.

… 70. Which one of the following statements is true after the spheres are connected by the wire?
(a) The electric potential of A is 1/25 as large as that of B.
(b) The electric potential of A equals that of B.
(c) The electric potential of A is 25 times larger than that of B.
(d) The electric potential of A is 1/5 as large as that of B.
(e) The electric potential of A is five times larger than that of B.

„ 71. Determine the ratio of the charge on sphere A to that on sphere B, qA/qB, after the spheres are
connected by the wire.
(a) 1 (c) 5 (e) 1/25
(b) 1/5 (d) 25
 chapter ELECTRIC CIRCUITS

Section 20.1 Electromotive Force and Current

Section 20.2 Ohm’s Law
ˆ 1. Which one of the following situations results in a conventional electric current that flows westward?
(a) a beam of protons moves eastward (d) a beam of electrons moves eastward
(b) an electric dipole moves westward (e) a beam of neutral atoms moves westward
(c) a beam of electrons moves westward

… 2. Complete the following statement: The electromotive force is

(a) the maximum potential difference between the terminals of a battery.
(b) the force that accelerates electrons through a wire when a battery is connected to it.
(c) the force that accelerates protons through a wire when a battery is connected to it.
(d) the maximum capacitance between the terminals of a battery.
(e) the maximum electric potential energy stored within a battery.

„ 3. How many electrons flow through a battery that delivers a current of 3.0 A for 12 s?
(a) 4 (c) 4.8 × 1015 (e) 2.2 × 1020
(b) 36 (d) 6.4 × 10 18

ˆ 4. A 10-A current is maintained in a simple circuit with a total resistance of 200 Ω. What net
charge passes through any point in the circuit during a 1-minute interval?
(a) 200 C (c) 500 C (e) 1200 C
(b) 400 C (d) 600 C

ˆ 5. Which one of the following combinations of units is equivalent to the ohm?

(a) V/C (c) J/s (e) W/A
(b) A/J (d) J•s/C2

… 6. The potential difference across the ends of a wire is doubled in magnitude. If Ohm’s law is
obeyed, which one of the following statements concerning the resistance of the wire is true?
(a) The resistance is one half of its original value.
(b) The resistance is twice its original value.
(c) The resistance is not changed.
(d) The resistance increases by a factor of four.
(e) The resistance decreases by a factor of four.

ˆ 7. Which one of the following circuits has the largest resistance?

(a) (b) (c)

10 A 40 A 10 A

2V 8V 10 V
(d) (e)

75 A 5A

15 V 20 V
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 197

ˆ 8. A physics student performed an experiment in which the potential difference V between the ends
of a long straight wire was varied. The current I in the wire was measured at each value of the
potential difference with an ammeter and the results of the experiment are shown in the table.

Trial V (volts) I (amperes)

1 5.0 0.25
2 10.0 0.50
3 15.0 0.75
4 20.0 1.00
5 25.0 1.50
6 30.0 1.65
7 35.0 1.55
8 40.0 1.53

Which one of the following statements is the best conclusion based on the data?
(a) The resistance of the wire is 20 Ω.
(b) The wire does not obey Ohm's law.
(c) The current in the wire is directly proportional to the applied potential difference.
(d) The wire obeys Ohm's law over the range of potential differences between 5 and 30 V.
(e) The wire obeys Ohm's law over the range of potential differences between 5 and 20 V.

… 9. When a light bulb is connected to a 4.5 V battery, a current of 0.16 A passes through the bulb
filament. What is the resistance of the filament?
(a) 440 Ω (c) 9.3 Ω (e) 0.72 Ω
(b) 28 Ω (d) 1.4 Ω

Section 20.3 Resistance and Resistivity

… 10. Which one of the following statements concerning resistance is true?
(a) The resistance of a semiconductor increases with temperature.
(b) Resistance is a property of resistors, but not conductors.
(c) The resistance of a metal wire changes with temperature.
(d) The resistance is the same for all samples of the same material.
(e) The resistance of a wire is inversely proportional to the length of the wire.

ˆ 11. Which one of the following statements concerning superconductors is false?

(a) Below its critical temperature, the resistivity of a superconductor is zero Ω-m.
(b) Critical temperatures for some superconductors exceed 100 K.
(c) All materials are superconducting at temperatures near absolute zero kelvin.
(d) A constant current can be maintained in a superconducting ring for several years without an emf.
(e) Superconductors are perfect conductors.

ˆ 12. Determine the length of a copper wire that has a resistance of 0.172 Ω and cross-sectional area of
1 × 10–4 m2. The resistivity of copper is 1.72 × 10–8 Ω ⋅ m.
(a) 0.1 m (c) 100 m (e) 10 000 m
(b) 10 m (d) 1000 m

ˆ 13. The resistivity of a silver wire with a radius of 5.04 × 10–4 m is 1.59 × 10–8 Ω ⋅ m. If the length
of the wire is 3.00 m, what is the resistance of the wire?
(a) 0.0598 Ω (c) 9.46 µΩ (e) 1.88 Ω
(b) 47.0 µΩ (d) 0.167 Ω
198 Chapter 20 Electric Circuits

Questions 14 through 16 pertain to the following situation:

The characteristics of five wires are given in the table.

Wire Material Length Gauge

A iron 2.0 m #22
B copper 2.0 m #22
C copper 2.0 m #18
D copper 1.0 m #18
E iron 2.0 m #18

The gauge is a measure of the diameter of the wire; and #18 corresponds to a diameter of
1.2 × 10–3 m; and #22 corresponds to a diameter of 6.4 × 10–4 m. The resistivity of iron is
9.7 × 10–8 Ω ⋅ m; and the value for copper is 1.72 × 10–8 Ω ⋅ m.

ˆ 14. Which one of the wires carries the smallest current when they are connected to identical
batteries?
(a) wire E (c) wire C (e) wire A
(b) wire D (d) wire B

ˆ 15. Of the five wires, which one has the smallest resistance?
(a) wire A (c) wire C (e) wire E
(b) wire B (d) wire D

ˆ 16. Which one of the five wires has the largest resistance?
(a) wire A (c) wire C (e) wire E
(b) wire B (d) wire D

Section 20.4 Electric Power

… 17. Complete the following statement: The unit kilowatt ⋅ hour measures
(a) current. (c) power. (e) voltage.
(b) energy. (d) potential drop.

… 18. Which one of the following quantities can be converted to kilowatt ⋅ hours (kWh)?
(a) 2.0 A (c) 5.8 J (e) 6.2 C/V
(b) 8.3 V (d) 9.6 W

ˆ 19. The current through a certain heater wire is found to be fairly independent of its temperature. If the
current through the heater wire is doubled, the amount of energy delivered by the heater in a given
time interval will
(a) increase by a factor of two. (d) decrease by a factor of four.
(b) decrease by a factor of two. (e) increase by a factor of eight.
(c) increase by a factor of four.

ˆ 20. A 4-A current is maintained in a simple circuit with a total resistance of 2 Ω. How much energy
is delivered in 3 seconds?
(a) 3 J (c) 12 J (e) 96 J
(b) 6 J (d) 24 J
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 199

… 21. A 40-W and a 60-W light bulb are designed for use with the same voltage. What is the ratio of
the resistance of the 60-W bulb to the resistance of the 40-W bulb?
(a) 1.5 (c) 2.3 (e) 3.0
(b) 0.67 (d) 0.44

ˆ 22. A 5-A current is maintained in a simple circuit that consists of a resistor between the terminals of
an ideal battery. If the battery supplies energy at a rate of 20 W, how large is the resistance?
(a) 0.4 Ω (c) 2 Ω (e) 8 Ω
(b) 0.8 Ω (d) 4 Ω

„ 23. A computer monitor uses 2.0 A of current when it is plugged into a 120 V outlet. The monitor is
never turned off. What is the yearly cost of operating the monitor if the cost of electricity is
$0.12/kWh?
(a) $14 (c) $98 (e) $250
(b) $21 (d) $170

ˆ 24. A resistor dissipates 1.5 W when it is connected to a battery with a potential difference of 12 V.
What is the resistance of the resistor?
(a) 0.13 Ω (c) 18 Ω (e) 96 Ω
(b) 220 Ω (d) 8.0 Ω

Section 20.5 Alternating Current

… 25. An ac current has an rms value of 3.54 A. Determine the peak value of the current.
(a) 1.25 A (c) 3.75 A (e) 7.08 A
(b) 2.50 A (d) 5.00 A

ˆ 26. A 220-Ω resistor is connected across an ac voltage source V = (150 V) sin [2π(60 Hz)t].
What is the average power delivered to this circuit?
(a) 51 W (c) 280 W (e) 550 W
(b) 110 W (d) 320 W

„ 27. A lamp uses an average power of 55 W when it is connected to an rms voltage of 120 V. Which
entry in the following table is correct for this circuit?
lamp resistance R (Ω) Irms (A)
(a) 260 0.46
(b) 22 3.8
(c) 130 0.65
(d) 170 0.57
(e) 38 1.2

ˆ 28. When a 1500-W hair dryer is in use, the current passing through the dryer may be represented as
I = (17.7 A) sin (120πt). What is the rms current for this circuit?
(a) 17.7 A (c) 85.7 A (e) 8.85 A
(b) 12.5 A (d) 25.0 A
200 Chapter 20 Electric Circuits

Questions 29 through 33 pertain to the situation described below:

+ 10
The figure shows variation of
the current through the heating I (A)
element with time in an iron
t
when it is plugged into a
standard 120 V, 60 Hz outlet.
t1 t2
– 10

ˆ 29. What is the peak voltage?

(a) 10 V (c) 120 V (e) 240 V
(b) 60 V (d) 170 V

ˆ 30. What is the rms value of the current in this circuit?

(a) 1.4 A (c) 11 A (e) 18 A
(b) 7.1 A (d) 14 A

„ 31. What is the resistance of the iron?

(a) 24 Ω (c) 17 Ω (e) 1.8 Ω
(b) 7.1 Ω (d) 12 Ω

„ 32. If t1 = 0.050 s, what is the value of t2? Note: The origin for the graph is not necessarily at t = 0 s.
(a) 0.067 s (c) 0.10 s (e) 61 s
(b) 0.079 s (d) 0.60 s

ˆ 33. What is the approximate average power dissipated in the iron?

(a) 450 W (c) 850 W (e) 1700 W
(b) 600 W (d) 1200 W

Section 20.6 Series Wiring

… 34. Which one of the following statements concerning resistors in series is true?
(a) The voltage across each resistor is the same.
(b) The current through each resistor is the same.
(c) The power dissipated by each resistor is the same.
(d) The rate at which charge flows through each resistor depends on its resistance.
(e) The total current through the resistors is the sum of the current through each resistor.

ˆ 35. Two wires, A and B, and a variable resistor, R, are connected in series to a battery. Which one
of the following results will occur if the resistance of R is increased?
(a) The current through A and B will increase.
(b) The voltage across A and B will increase.
(c) The voltage across the entire circuit will increase.
(d) The power used by the entire circuit will increase.
(e) The current through the entire circuit will decrease.

… 36. Three resistors, 50-Ω, 100-Ω, 200-Ω, are connected in series in a circuit. What is the equivalent
resistance of this combination of resistors?
(a) 350 Ω (c) 200 Ω (e) 29 Ω
(b) 250 Ω (d) 120 Ω
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 201

„ 37. A 4.5-V battery is connected to two resistors connected in series as

shown in the drawing. Determine the total power dissipated in the 4.5 V 68 Ω
resistors.
68 Ω
(a) 0.033 W (d) 0.60 W
(b) 0.090 W (e) 4.7 W
(c) 0.15 W

ˆ 38. Two 15-Ω and three 25-Ω light bulbs and a 24 V battery are connected in a series circuit. What is
the current that passes through each bulb?
(a) 0.23 A
(b) 0.51 A
(c) 0.96 A
(d) 1.6 A
(e) The current will be 1.6 A in the 15-Ω bulbs and 0.96 A in the 25-Ω bulbs.

Section 20.7 Parallel Wiring

ˆ 39. Complete the following statement: A simple series circuit contains a resistance R and an ideal
battery. If a second resistor is connected in parallel with R,
(a) the voltage across R will decrease.
(b) the current through R will decrease.
(c) the total current through the battery will increase.
(d) the rate of energy dissipation in R will increase.
(e) the equivalent resistance of the circuit will increase.

„ 40. Some light bulbs are connected in parallel to a

120 V
120 V source as shown in the figure. Each bulb
dissipates an average power of 60 W. The circuit
F
has a fuse F that burns out when the current in
the circuit exceeds 9 A. Determine the largest number of bulbs, which can be used in this circuit
without burning out the fuse.
(a) 9 (c) 25 (e) 36
(b) 17 (d) 34
2Ω

„ 41. Two resistors are arranged in a circuit that carries a 15 A

total current of 15 A as shown in the figure. Which one 4Ω
of the entries in the following table is correct?
Current through 2-Ω resistor Voltage across 4-Ω resistor
(a) 5A 10 V
(b) 5A 20 V
(c) 10 A 20 V
(d) 15 A 15 V
(e) 10 A 10 V

ˆ 42. What is the total power dissipated in the two

resistors in the circuit shown? 10 V 10 Ω
(a) 10 W (d) 67 W
(b) 15 W (e) 670 W 20 Ω
(c) 33 W
202 Chapter 20 Electric Circuits

ˆ 43. Three resistors, 6.0-Ω, 9.0-Ω, 15-Ω, are connected in parallel in a circuit. What is the equivalent
resistance of this combination of resistors?
(a) 30 Ω (c) 3.8 Ω (e) 0.34 Ω
(b) 10 Ω (d) 2.9 Ω

Section 20.8 Circuits Wired Partially in Series and Partially in Parallel

„ 44. Five resistors are connected as shown. What is I
the equivalent resistance between points A and B? 4.0 Ω 3.0 Ω
(a) 6.8 Ω (d) 2.1 Ω A 4.0 Ω
(b) 9.2 Ω (e) 16 Ω
(c) 3.4 Ω B
2.0 Ω 3.0 Ω

„ 45. Jason’s circuit has a 24-Ω resistor that is connected in series to two 12-Ω resistors that are
connected in parallel. JoAnna’s circuit has three identical resistors wired in parallel. If the
equivalent resistance of Jason’s circuit is the same as that of JoAnna’s circuit, determine the
value of JoAnna’s resistors.
(a) 90 Ω (c) 30 Ω (e) 12 Ω
(b) 48 Ω (d) 24 Ω

Questions 46 through 48 pertain to the statement and diagram below:

2.0 Ω
Three resistors are connected as I
shown in the figure. The potential
difference between points A and B
is 26 V. A 3.0 Ω B

4.0 Ω
ˆ 46. What is the equivalent resistance between the points A and B?
(a) 3.8 Ω (c) 5.1 Ω (e) 9.0 Ω
(b) 4.3 Ω (d) 6.8 Ω

„ 47. How much current flows through the 3-Ω resistor?

(a) 2.0 A (c) 6.0 A (e) 10.0 A
(b) 4.0 A (d) 8.7 A

„ 48. How much current flows through the 2-Ω resistor?

(a) 2.0 A (c) 6.0 A (e) 10.0 A
(b) 4.0 A (d) 8.7 A

Questions 49 through 51 pertain to the statement and diagram below:

Four resistors and a 6-V battery are 10 Ω

arranged as shown in the circuit 6V
20 Ω
diagram. 30 Ω 60 Ω

ˆ 49. Determine the equivalent resistance for this circuit.

(a) 50 Ω (c) 29 Ω (e) 12 Ω
(b) 120 Ω (d) 5 Ω
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 203

… 50. The smallest current passes through which resistor(s)?

(a) the 10-Ω resistor (d) the 60-Ω resistor
(b) the 20-Ω resistor (e) It is the same and the smallest in
(c) the 30-Ω resistor the 30-Ω and 60-Ω resistors.

ˆ 51. The largest potential difference is across which resistor(s)?

(a) the 10-Ω resistor (d) the 60-Ω resistor
(b) the 20-Ω resistor (e) It is the same and the largest for
(c) the 30-Ω resistor the 30-Ω and 60-Ω resistors.

Questions 52 through 55 pertain to the statement and diagram below:

60 Ω
Three resistors are placed in a circuit
10 Ω
as shown. The potential difference
between points A and B is 30 V. A 30 Ω B

ˆ 52. What is the equivalent resistance between the points A and B?

(a) 10 Ω (c) 30 Ω (e) 100 Ω
(b) 20 Ω (d) 50 Ω

ˆ 53. What is the potential drop across the 10-Ω resistor?

(a) 10 V (c) 30 V (e) 100 V
(b) 20 V (d) 60 V

„ 54. What is the potential drop across the 30-Ω resistor?

(a) 10 V (c) 30 V (e) 100 V
(b) 20 V (d) 60 V

„ 55. What is the current through the 30-Ω resistor?

(a) 0.3 A (c) 0.7 A (e) 2 A
(b) 0.5 A (d) 1 A

Section 20.9 Internal Resistance

ˆ 56. A non-ideal battery has a 6.0-V emf and an internal resistance of 0.6 Ω. Determine the terminal
voltage when the current drawn from the battery is 1.0 A.
(a) 5.0 V (c) 5.4 V (e) 5.8 V
(b) 6.0 V (d) 6.6 V

„ 57. A battery has a terminal voltage of 12 V when no current flows and an internal resistance of 2 Ω.
The battery is placed in series with a 1-Ω resistor. Which one of the entries in the following
table is correct?
Terminal voltage Current through the 1-Ω resistor
(a) 4V 4A
(b) 4V 12 A
(c) 12 V 4A
(d) 12 V 12 A
(e) 18 V 3A
204 Chapter 20 Electric Circuits

„ 58. A battery is manufactured to have an emf of 24.0 V, but the terminal voltage is only 22.0 V when
the battery is connected across a 7.5-Ω resistor. What is the internal resistance of the battery?
(a) 3.2 Ω (c) 1.2 Ω (e) 0.68 Ω
(b) 0.27 Ω (d) 0.75 Ω

Section 20.10 Kirchhoff’s Rules

16 Ω
ˆ 59. Three resistors are connected in a circuit as shown. 8.0 Ω
Using Kirchhoff’s rules, determine the current in one of
the 16-Ω resistors. 16 Ω –
24 V
(a) 0.50 A (d) 1.3 A +
(b) 0.75 A (e) 2.0 A
(c) 1.0 A

„ 60. Three resistors and two 10.0-V batteries

are arranged as shown in the circuit 40 Ω 10 Ω
diagram. Which one of the following
entries in the table is correct?
Power Delivered Power Delivered
by Battery 1 by Battery 2 V1 V2
(a) 2.5 W 2.5 W 12 Ω
(b) 4.0 W 1.0 W
(c) 1.0 W 1.0 W
(d) 1.0 W 4.0 W
(e) 4.0 W 4.0 W

„ 61. Three resistors and two batteries are connected as 18 V

shown in the circuit diagram. What is the
magnitude of the current through the 12-V battery? 16 Ω 25 Ω
(a) 0.15 A
(b) 0.82 A
(c) 0.30 A 12 V
(d) 0.67 A
(e) 0.52 A 18 Ω

ˆ 62. Determine the power dissipated by the 40-Ω 18 V

resistor in the circuit shown.
(a) 3.6 W (d) 14 W 4.0 Ω 40 Ω 10 Ω
(b) 4.5 W (e) 27 W
(c) 9.0 W

Questions 63 through 67 pertain to the statement and diagram below:

3.6 Ω 3.5 Ω
A
Five resistors are connected as
shown in the diagram. The
1.8 Ω
potential difference between
points A and B is 25 V.
2.4 Ω 5.1 Ω
B
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 205

ˆ 63. What is the equivalent resistance between the points A and B?

(a) 1.5 Ω (c) 7.5 Ω (e) 11 Ω
(b) 4.8 Ω (d) 9.4 Ω

ˆ 64. What is the current through the 3.6-Ω resistor?

(a) 1.3 A (c) 6.9 A (e) 25 A
(b) 3.3 A (d) 7.5 A

ˆ 65. What is the current through the 1.8-Ω resistor?

(a) 2.8 A (c) 5.6 A (e) 14 A
(b) 3.3 A (d) 6.9 A

„ 66. How much energy is dissipated in the 1.8-Ω resistor in 4.0 seconds?
(a) 18 J (c) 55 J (e) 93 J
(b) 28 J (d) 64 J

„ 67. What is the potential drop across the 3.5-Ω resistor?

(a) 2.0 V (c) 8.0 V (e) 25 V
(b) 5.0 V (d) 17 V

Questions 68 through 71 pertain to the statement and diagram below:

A 3.2 Ω 4.1 Ω

Five resistors are connected as

2.7 Ω 2.4 Ω
shown in the diagram. The
potential difference between
points A and B is 15 V. 3.6 Ω B

„ 68. What is the equivalent resistance between the points A and B?

(a) 1.5 Ω (c) 8.7 Ω (e) 11.1 Ω
(b) 4.8 Ω (d) 10.4 Ω

ˆ 69. What is the current in the 3.6-Ω resistor?

(a) 1.3 A (c) 2.9 A (e) 15 A
(b) 1.7 A (d) 3.5 A

„ 70. What is the current in the 2.7-Ω resistor?

(a) 12 A (c) 2.2 A (e) 1.2 A
(b) 0.8 A (d) 0.4 A

„ 71. What amount of energy is dissipated in the 2.7-Ω resistor in 9.0 seconds?
(a) 15 J (c) 29 J (e) 52 J
(b) 24 J (d) 36 J
206 Chapter 20 Electric Circuits

Section 20.12 Capacitors in Series and Parallel

… 72. Which one of the following statements is true concerning capacitors of unequal capacitance
connected in series?
(a) Each capacitor holds a different amount of charge.
(b) The equivalent capacitance of the circuit is the sum of the individual capacitances.
(c) The total voltage supplied by the battery is the sum of the voltages across each capacitor.
(d) The total positive charge in the circuit is the sum of the positive charges on each capacitor.
(e) The total voltage supplied by the battery is equal to the average voltage across all the capacitors.

ˆ 73. Three parallel plate capacitors, each having a capacitance of 1.0 µF are connected in parallel.
The potential difference across the combination is 100 V. What is the equivalent capacitance of
this combination?
(a) 0.3 µF (c) 3 µF (e) 30 µF
(b) 1 µF (d) 6 µF

ˆ 74. Three parallel plate capacitors, each having a capacitance of 1.0 µF are connected in parallel.
The potential difference across the combination is 100 V. What is the charge on any one of the
capacitors?
(a) 30 µC (c) 300 µC (e) 3000 µC
(b) 100 µC (d) 1000 µC

ˆ 75. A 3.0-µF capacitor is connected in series with a 4.0-µF capacitor and a 48-V battery. What
quantity of charge is supplied by the battery to charge the capacitors?
(a) 3.4 × 10–4 C (c) 3.0 × 10–5 C (e) 1.8 × 10–6 C
(b) 7.3 × 10 C
–4
(d) 8.2 × 10 C
–5

ˆ 76. What is the equivalent capacitance of the combination of

capacitors shown in the circuit?
(a) 0.37 µF (d) 0.67 µF 100 V 1.0 µF 1.0 µF
(b) 3.3 µF (e) 2.1 µF
(c) 4.6 µF

1.0 µF

ˆ 77. How much energy is stored in the combination of capacitors

shown?
(a) 0.01 J (d) 0.04 J 100 V 4 µF 2 µF
(b) 0.02 J (e) 0.05 J
(c) 0.03 J

… 78. A battery supplies a total charge of 5.0 µC to a circuit that consists of a series combination of
two identical capacitors, each with capacitance C. Determine the charge on either capacitor.
(a) 5.0 µC (c) 1.5 µC (e) 0.50 µC
(b) 2.5 µC (d) 1.0 µC

ˆ 79. When two capacitors are connected in series, the equivalent capacitance of the combination is 100 µF.
When the two are connected in parallel, however, the equivalent capacitance is 450 µF. What are the
capacitances of the individual capacitors?
(a) 200 µF and 250 µF (d) 150 µF and 300 µF
(b) 125 µF and 325 µF (e) 80 µF and 370 µF
(c) 175 µF and 275 µF
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 207

Questions 80 through 82 pertain to the situation described below:

A 10.0-µF capacitor is charged so that the potential difference between its plates is 10.0 V.
A 5.0-µF capacitor is similarly charged so that the potential difference between its plates is 5.0 V.
The two charged capacitors are then connected to each other in parallel with positive plate
connected to positive plate and negative plate connected to negative plate.

„ 80. How much charge flows from one capacitor to the other when the capacitors are connected?
(a) 17 µC (c) 67 µC (e) zero coulombs
(b) 33 µC (d) 83 µC

ˆ 81. What is the final potential difference across the plates of the capacitors when they are connected
in parallel?
(a) 5.0 V (c) 7.5 V (e) 10 V
(b) 6.7 V (d) 8.3 V

ˆ 82. How much energy is dissipated when the two capacitors are connected together?
(a) 33 µJ (c) 63 µJ (e) 560 µJ
(b) 42 µJ (d) 130 µJ

Section 20.13 RC Circuits

ˆ 83. A simple RC circuit consists of a 1-µF capacitor in series with a 3000-Ω resistor, a 6-V battery,
and an open switch. Initially, the capacitor is uncharged. How long after the switch is closed
will the voltage across the capacitor be 3.8 V?
(a) 3 × 109 s (c) 3 × 10−9 s (e) 0.003 s
(b) 3 s (d) 3 × 10−8 s

Questions 84 and 85 pertain to the statement and diagram below:

The figure shows a simple RC circuit S R

consisting of a 100.0-V battery in
series with a 10.0-µF capacitor and a
resistor. Initially, the switch S is open 100.0 V
and the capacitor is uncharged. Two
seconds after the switch is closed, the 10.0 µF
voltage across the resistor is 37 V.

„ 84. Determine the numerical value of the resistance R.

(a) 0.37 Ω (c) 5.0 × 104 Ω (e) 4.3 × 105 Ω
(b) 2.70 Ω (d) 2.0 × 105 Ω

ˆ 85. How much charge is on the capacitor 2.0 s after the switch is closed?
(a) 1.1 × 10−3 C (c) 3.7 × 10−4 C (e) 6.6 × 10−4 C
−3
(b) 2.9 × 10 C (d) 5.2 × 10−4 C

Questions 86 through 88 pertain to the situation described below:

An uncharged 5.0-µF capacitor and a resistor are connected in series to a 12-V battery and an open
switch to form a simple RC circuit. The switch is closed at t = 0 s. The time constant of the circuit
is 4.0 s.
208 Chapter 20 Electric Circuits

ˆ 86. Determine the value of the resistance R.

(a) 15 Ω (c) 8.0 × 105 Ω (e) 8.0 × 108 Ω
(b) 60 Ω (d) 8.0 × 107 Ω

ˆ 87. Determine the maximum charge on the capacitor.

(a) 6.0 × 10–5 C (c) 1.5 × 10–5 C (e) 5.5 × 10–5 C
(b) 9.5 × 10 C
–5
(d) 4.8 × 10–5 C

„ 88. What is the charge remaining on either plate after one time constant has elapsed?
(a) 7.4 × 10–5 C (c) 1.2 × 10–5 C (e) 2.2 × 10–5 C
(b) 5.5 × 10 C
–5
(d) 3.8 × 10 C–5

Questions 89 through 91 pertain to the situation described below:

The figure shows a simple RC circuit consisting of a 10.0-µF capacitor in

series with a resistor. Initially, the switch is open as suggested in the
figure. The capacitor has been charged so that the potential difference R
10 µF
between its plates is 100.0 V. At t = 0 s, the switch is closed. The
capacitor discharges exponentially so that 2.0 s after the switch is closed,
the potential difference between the capacitor plates is 37 V. In other Switch
words, in 2.0 s the potential difference between the capacitor plates is
reduced to 37 % of its original value.

„ 89. Calculate the electric potential energy stored in the capacitor before the switch is closed.
(a) 0.01 J (c) 0.03 J (e) 0.05 J
(b) 0.02 J (d) 0.04 J

… 90. Determine the potential drop across the resistor R at t = 2.0 s (i.e., two seconds after the switch is
closed).
(a) zero volts (c) 63 V (e) 100 V
(b) 37 V (d) 87 V

ˆ 91. Determine the numerical value of the resistance R.

(a) 1.0 × 105 Ω (c) 5.0 × 105 Ω (e) 2.5 × 106 Ω
(b) 2.0 × 10 Ω
5
(d) 1.0 × 106 Ω

Questions 92 through 95 pertain to the situation described below:

C2
An RC circuit consists of a resistor with resistance 1.0 kΩ, 1.0 kΩ
a 120-V battery, and two capacitors, C1 and C2, with
capacitances of 20.0 µF and 60.0 µF, respectively.
C1
Initially, the capacitors are uncharged; and the switch is
closed at t = 0 s.
Switch 120 V

… 92. What is the current through the resistor a long time after the switch is closed? Recall that current
is the charge per unit time that flows in a circuit.
(a) 0.60 A (c) 0.24 A (e) zero amperes
(b) 0.12 A (d) 0.48 A
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 209

ˆ 93. What is the time constant of the circuit?

(a) 1.0 × 10−2 s (c) 6.0 × 10−2 s (e) 3.0 × 10−1 s
−2
(b) 2.0 × 10 s (d) 8.0 × 10−2 s

ˆ 94. How much charge will be stored in each capacitor after a long time has elapsed?
Charge on C1 Charge on C2
(a) 2.4 × 10−3 C 7.2 × 10−3 C
(b) 1.8 × 10−3 C 1.8 × 10−3 C
(c) 6.0 × 10−3 C 2.0 × 10−3 C
(d) 9.6 × 10−3 C 9.6 × 10−3 C
(e) zero coulombs zero coulombs

ˆ 95. Determine the total charge on both capacitors two time constants after the switch is closed.
(a) 1.3 × 10−3 C (c) 4.7 × 10−3 C (e) 8.3 × 10−3 C
−3 −3
(b) 2.2 × 10 C (d) 6.1 × 10 C

Additional Problems
… 96. Two wires A and B are made of the same material and have the same diameter. Wire A is twice
as long as wire B. If each wire has the same potential difference across its ends, which one of
the following statements is true concerning the current in wire A?
(a) The current is one-fourth that in B. (d) The current is half as much as that in B.
(b) The current is four times that in B. (e) It is twice as much as that in B.
(c) The current is equal to the current in B.

Questions 97 through 100 pertain to the situation described below:

S R
1
The figure shows a circuit. The switch S
can be closed on either point A or C, but C A
not both at the same time. Use the V1 V2 R R
following quantities: 2 3
V1 = V2 = 12 V R
4
R1 = R4 = 1.0 Ω B
R2 = R3 = 2.0 Ω

ˆ 97. What is the equivalent resistance between the points A and B?

(a) 1 Ω (c) 3 Ω (e) 5 Ω
(b) 2 Ω (d) 4 Ω

ˆ 98. Determine the current through R1 when the switch S is closed on A.

(a) 1 A (c) 3 A (e) 12 A
(b) 2 A (d) 6 A

ˆ 99. At what rate is energy dissipated by R1 when the switch S is closed on A?

(a) 1 W (c) 9 W (e) 144 W
(b) 4 W (d) 36 W

„ 100. Determine the current through R4 when the switch S is closed on C.

(a) zero amperes (c) 3 A (e) 24 A
(b) 2 A (d) 6 A
 chapter MAGNETIC FORCES AND
MAGNETIC FIELDS

Section 21.1 Permanent Magnets

Section 21.2 The Force that a Magnetic Field Exerts on a Moving Charge
… 1. Which one of the following statements concerning permanent magnets is false?
(a) The north pole of a permanent magnet is attracted to a south pole.
(b) All permanent magnets are surrounded by a magnetic field.
(c) The direction of a magnetic field is indicated by the north pole of a compass.
(d) Magnetic field lines outside a permanent magnet originate from the north pole and end on
the south pole.
(e) When a permanent magnet is cut in half, one piece will be a north pole and one piece will be
a south pole.

„ 2. Which combination of units can be used to express the magnetic field?

(a) kg ⋅ m2/C (c) N ⋅ m2/C (e) kg ⋅ m/(C ⋅ s2)
(b) kg ⋅ s/C2
(d) kg/(C ⋅ s)

ˆ 3. Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic force on a charged particle in a
magnetic field is true?
(a) It is a maximum if the particle is stationary.
(b) It is zero if the particle moves perpendicular to the field.
(c) It is a maximum if the particle moves parallel to the field.
(d) It acts in the direction of motion for a positively charged particle.
(e) It depends on the component of the particle's velocity that is perpendicular to the field.

… 4. Complete the following statement: The magnitude of the magnetic force that acts on a charged particle
in a magnetic field is independent of
(a) the sign of the charge.
(b) the magnitude of the charge.
(c) the magnitude of the magnetic field.
(d) the direction of motion of the particle.
(e) the velocity components of the particle.

… 5. A charged particle is moving in a uniform, constant magnetic field. Which one of the following
statements concerning the magnetic force exerted on the particle is false?
(a) It does no work on the particle. (d) It can act only on a particle in motion.
(b) It increases the speed of the particle. (e) It does not change the kinetic energy of
(c) It changes the velocity of the particle. the particle.

ˆ 6. A proton traveling due east in a region that contains only a magnetic field experiences a
vertically upward force (away from the surface of the earth). What is the direction of the
magnetic field?
(a) north (c) south (e) down
(b) east (d) west

ˆ 7. A charged particle is fired from a gun with a velocity of 5.2 × 104 m/s at an angle of 35° with respect
to a 0.0045-T magnetic field. If the magnetic field exerts a force of 0.0026 N on the particle,
determine the magnitude of the charge.
(a) 11 µC (c) 19 µC (e) 27 µC
(b) 15 µC (d) 23 µC
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 211

ˆ 8. Which one of the following statements best explains why a constant magnetic field can do no
work on a moving charged particle?
(a) The magnetic field is conservative.
(b) The magnetic force is a velocity dependent force.
(c) The magnetic field is a vector and work is a scalar quantity.
(d) The magnetic force is always perpendicular to the velocity of the particle.
(e) The electric field associated with the particle cancels the effect of the magnetic field on the
particle.

ˆ 9. An electron traveling due south enters a region that contains a uniform magnetic field that points
due east. In which direction will the electron be deflected?
(a) east (c) up (e) south
(b) west (d) down

„ 10. Two electrons are located in a region of space where the magnetic field is zero. Electron A is at
rest; and electron B is moving westward with a constant velocity. A non-zero magnetic field
directed eastward is then applied to the region. In what direction, if any, will each electron be
moving after the field is applied?
electron A electron B
(a) at rest westward
(b) northward eastward
(c) at rest eastward
(d) southward downward, toward the earth
(e) upward, away from earth westward

ˆ 11. An electron is moving with a speed of 3.5 × 105 m/s when it encounters a magnetic field of 0.60 T.
The direction of the magnetic field makes an angle of 60.0° with respect to the velocity of the electron.
What is the magnitude of the magnetic force on the electron?
(a) 4.9 × 10–13 N (c) 1.7 × 10–13 N (e) 2.9 × 10–14 N
(b) 3.2 × 10 N
–13
(d) 3.4 × 10 N
–14

Section 21.3 The Motion of a Charged Particle in a Magnetic Field

Section 21.4 The Mass Spectrometer
ˆ 12. A proton traveling due north enters a region that contains both a magnetic field and an electric field.
The electric field lines point due west. It is observed that the proton continues to travel in a straight
line due north. In which direction must the magnetic field lines point?
(a) up (c) east (e) south
(b) down (d) west

„ 13. An electron travels through a region of space with no acceleration. Which one of the following
statements is the best conclusion?
(a) Both E and B must be zero in that region.
(b) E must be zero, but B might be non-zero in that region.
(c) E and B might both be non-zero, but they must be mutually perpendicular.
(d) B must be zero, but E might be non-zero in that region.
(e) E and B might both be non-zero, but they must point in opposite directions.

ˆ 14. A proton is traveling south as it enters a region that contains a magnetic field. The proton is
deflected downward toward the earth. What is the direction of the magnetic field?
(a) downward, toward the earth (c) north (e) south
(b) west (d) east
212 Chapter 21 Magnetic Forces and Magnetic Fields

„ 15. A particle with a mass of 6.64 × 10–27 kg and a charge of +3.20 × 10–19 C is accelerated from rest
through a potential difference of 2.45 × 106 V. The particle then enters a uniform 1.60-T
magnetic field. If the particle’s velocity is perpendicular to the magnetic field at all times, what
is the magnitude of the magnetic force exerted on the particle?
(a) zero newtons (c) 6.55 × 10–10 N (e) 7.87 × 10–12 N
(b) 1.14 × 10 N
–10
(d) 4.09 × 10 N
–11

ˆ 16. An electron traveling horizontally enters a region where a uniform

magnetic field is directed into the plane of the paper as shown. electron × × × × ×
Which one of the following phrases most accurately describes the
motion of the electron once it has entered the field? × × × × ×
(a) upward and parabolic × × × × ×
(b) upward and circular × × × × ×
(c) downward and circular
(d) upward, along a straight line
(e) downward and parabolic

„ 17. An electron enters a region that contains a magnetic field directed

into the page as shown. The velocity vector of the electron makes
an angle of 30° with the +y axis. What is the direction of the
x x x x x
magnetic force on the electron when it enters the field? x x x x x
(a) up, out of the page 30° x x x x x
(b) at an angle of 30° below the positive x axis x x x x x
(c) at an angle of 30° above the positive x axis y x x x x x
(d) at an angle of 60° below the positive x axis
(e) at an angle of 60° above the positive x axis x

ˆ 18. Two particles move through a uniform magnetic field

that is directed out of the plane of the page. The • • • • • • • • • •
figure shows the paths taken by the two particles as B
they move through the field. The particles are not • • • • • • • • •
2
subject to any other forces or fields. Which one of the
following statements concerning these particles is • • • • • • • • • •
true? 1
(a) The particles may both be neutral. • • • • • • • • • •
(b) Particle 1 is positively charged; 2 is negative.
(c) Particle 1 is positively charged; 2 is positive. • • • • • • • • • •
(d) Particle 1 is negatively charged; 2 is negative.
(e) Particle 1 is negatively charged; 2 is positive.

„ 19. A mass spectrometer is used to separate two isotopes of uranium with .Β. . . .
. . .
masses m1 and m2 where m2 > m1. The two types of uranium atom exit . . . . .
. . .
. . . . .
. . .
an ion source S with the same charge of +e and are accelerated through . . . . .
. . .
a potential difference V. The charged atoms then enter a constant, − r1 r2
uniform magnetic field B as shown. If r1 = 0.5049 m and r2 = 0.5081 m, V+
what is the value of the ratio m1/m2? S
(a) 0.9984 (c) 0.9874 (e) 0.9749
(b) 0.9937 (d) 0.9812
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 213

„ 20. Two charged particles of equal mass are traveling in circular orbits in a region of uniform, constant
magnetic field as shown. The particles are observed to move in circular paths of radii R1 and R2
with speeds v1 and v2, respectively.
x x x x x x x x

x x x x x x x x
Q1 R2 Q2
x x R1 x x x x x x

x x x x x x x x
As the figure shows, the path of particle 2 has a smaller radius than that of particle 1. Which one of
the following statements about this system is false?
(a) |v1/Q1| < |v2/Q2|
(b) Particle 2 carries a positive charge.
(c) Particle 1 carries a negative charge.
(d) Neither particle gains energy from the magnetic field.
(e) The particle velocities have no components parallel to the magnetic field.

„ 21. Two charged particles are traveling in circular orbits with the same speed in a region of uniform
magnetic field that is directed into the page, as shown. The magnitude of the charge on each
particle is identical, but the signs of the charges are unequal.
x x x x x x x x

x x x x x x x x
Q1 R2 Q2
x x R1 x x x x x x

x x x x x x x x
Which one of the entries in the table below is correct?
Mass Relationship Sign of charge Q1 Sign of charge Q2
(a) M1 = m2 + –
(b) M1 > m2 – +
(c) m1 < m2 – +
(d) m1 > m2 + –
(e) m1 < m2 + –

Questions 22 through 24 pertain to the situation described below:

A beam consisting of five types of ions labeled A, B, C, D, and E enters a region that contains a
uniform magnetic field as shown in the figure below. The field is perpendicular to the plane of
the paper, but its precise direction is not given. All ions in the beam travel with the same speed.
The table below gives the masses and charges of the ions. Note: 1 mass unit = 1.67 × 10−27 kg and
e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Ion Mass Charge

Region containing A 2 units +e
magnetic field
B 4 units +e
C 6 units +e
D 2 units –e
E 4 units –e
1 2 3 4 5

Ion beam
214 Chapter 21 Magnetic Forces and Magnetic Fields

„ 22. Which ion falls at position 2?

(a) A (c) C (e) E
(b) B (d) D

ˆ 23. What is the direction of the magnetic field?

(a) toward the right (c) into the page (e) toward the bottom
(b) toward the left (d) out of the page of the page

ˆ 24. Determine the magnitude of the magnetic field if ion A travels in a semicircular path of radius
0.50 m at a speed of 5.0 × 106 m/s.
(a) 1.0 T (c) 0.42 T (e) 0.11 T
(b) 0.84 T (d) 0.21 T

Section 21.5 The Force on a Current in a Magnetic Field

ˆ 25. A 0.150-m wire oriented horizontally between the poles of an B
electromagnet carries a direct current of 12.5 A. The angle
between the direction of the current and that of the magnetic 25.0°
field is 25.0°. If the magnetic field strength is 0.625 T, what is I
the magnitude and direction of the magnetic force on the wire
between the poles?
(a) 1.17 N, upward (c) 0.792 N, upward (e) 0.495 N, upward
(b) 3.30 N, downward (d) 1.44 N, downward

ˆ 26. A long, straight wire carries a 6.0-A current that is directed in the I y
positive x direction. When a uniform magnetic field is applied
perpendicular to a 3.0-m segment of the wire, the magnetic force x
F
on the segment is 0.36 N, directed in the negative y direction, as
shown. What are the magnitude and direction of the magnetic field?
(a) 0.020 T, out of the paper (c) 0.060 T, out of the paper (e) 0.65 T, out of the paper
(b) 0.020 T, into the paper (d) 0.060 T, into the paper

„ 27. A loop of wire with a weight of 1.47 N is oriented vertically and carries a
I 0.20 m
current I = 1.75 A. A segment of the wire passes through a magnetic field
directed into the plane of the page as shown. The net force on the wire is
measured using a balance and found to be zero. What is the magnitude of the × × × × ×
magnetic field? × × × × ×
(a) zero tesla (d) 1.5 T × × × × ×
(b) 0.51 T (e) 4.2 T
(c) 0.84 T

Questions 28 and 29 pertain to the statement and figure below:

A long straight vertical segment of wire

P
traverses a magnetic field of magnitude 2.0 T
in the direction shown in the diagram. The
length of the wire that lies in the magnetic S N
V
field is 0.060 m. When the switch is closed, a B
current of 4.0 A flows through the wire from
point P to point Q. switch Q
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 215

ˆ 28. Which one of the following statements concerning the effect of the magnetic force on the wire is true?
(a) The wire will be pushed to the left.
(b) The wire will be pushed to the right.
(c) The wire will have no net force acting on it.
(d) The wire will be pushed downward, into the plane of the paper.
(e) The wire will be pushed upward, out of the plane of the paper.

ˆ 29. What is the magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the wire?
(a) 0.12 N (c) 0.48 N (e) zero newtons
(b) 0.24 N (d) 67 N

Section 21.6 The Torque on a Current-Carrying Coil

… 30. A current-carrying, rectangular coil of wire is placed in a magnetic field. The magnitude of the
torque on the coil is not dependent upon which one of the following quantities?
(a) the magnitude of the current in the loop
(b) the direction of the current in the loop
(c) the length of the sides of the loop
(d) the area of the loop
(e) the orientation of the loop

ˆ 31. A circular coil consists of 5 loops each of diameter 1.0 m. The coil is placed in an external magnetic
field of 0.5 T. When the coil carries a current of 4.0 A, a torque of magnitude 3.93 N•m acts on it.
Determine the angle between the normal to the plane of the coil and the direction of the magnetic field.
(a) 0° (c) 45° (e) 90°
(b) 30° (d) 60°

„ 32. A single circular loop of radius 1.00 m carries a current of

10.0 mA. It is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 10.0 mA 0.500 T
magnitude 0.500 T that is directed parallel to the plane of
the loop as suggested in the figure. What is the magnitude
of the torque exerted on the loop by the magnetic field? 1.00 m
(a) 1.57 × 10−2 N ⋅ m
(b) 3.14 × 10−2 N ⋅ m
(c) 6.28 × 10−2 N ⋅ m
(d) 9.28 × 10−2 N ⋅ m
(e) zero N ⋅ m

„ 33. A rectangular loop has sides of length 0.06 m and 0.08 y

m. The wire carries a current of 10 A in the direction
shown. The loop is in a uniform magnetic field of
magnitude 0.2 T and directed in the positive x direction.
What is the magnitude of the torque on the loop? 10 A
(a) 2 × 10−2 N ⋅ m 0.08 m
(b) 4 × 10−2 N ⋅ m
(c) 5 × 10−3 N ⋅ m
(d) 8 × 10−3 N ⋅ m
(e) 1 × 10−4 N ⋅ m 30° x

z 0.06 m
216 Chapter 21 Magnetic Forces and Magnetic Fields

ˆ 34. A single circular loop of wire of radius 0.75 m carries a constant current of 3.0 A. The loop may
be rotated about an axis that passes through the center and lies in the plane of the loop. When
the orientation of the normal to the loop with respect to the direction of the magnetic field is 25°,
the torque on the coil is 1.8 N ⋅ m. What is the magnitude of the uniform magnetic field exerting
this torque on the loop?
(a) 0.37 T (c) 3.0 T (e) 0.80 T
(b) 1.7 T (d) 0.46 T

ˆ 35. A coil consists of 240 circular loops, each of radius 0.044 m, and carries a current of 2.2 A.
Determine the magnetic moment of the coil.
(a) 0.21 A ⋅ m2 (c) 3.2 A ⋅ m2 (e) 23 A ⋅ m2
(b) 0.65 A ⋅ m 2
(d) 15 A ⋅ m 2

Section 21.7 Magnetic Fields Produced by Currents

… 36. Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic field inside (far from the
surface) a long, current-carrying solenoid is true?
(a) The magnetic field is zero.
(b) The magnetic field is non-zero and nearly uniform.
(c) The magnetic field is independent of the number of windings.
(d) The magnetic field is independent of the current in the solenoid.
(e) The magnetic field varies as 1/r as measured from the solenoid axis.

ˆ 37. Complete the following statement: The magnetic field around a current-carrying, circular loop is
most like that of
(a) the earth.
(b) a short bar magnet.
(c) a current-carrying, rectangular loop.
(d) a long straight wire that carries a current.
(e) two long straight wires that carry currents in opposite directions.

ˆ 38. A solenoid of length 0.250 m and radius 0.0200 m is comprised of 120 turns of wire. Determine the
magnitude of the magnetic field at the center of the solenoid when it carries a current of 15.0 A.
(a) 2.26 × 10−3 T (c) 9.05 × 10−3 T (e) zero tesla
−3
(b) 4.52 × 10 T (d) 7.50 × 10−3 T

„ 39. The drawing shows two long, thin wires that

carry currents in the positive z direction. Both z
wires are parallel to the z axis. The 50-A wire is
in the x-z plane and is 5 m from the z axis. The 50 A 40 A
40-A wire is in the y-z plane and is 4 m from the
z axis. What is the magnitude of the magnetic 5m 4m
field at the origin?
(a) zero tesla
(b) 1 × 10−6 T x
y
(c) 3 × 10−6 T
(d) 5 × 10−6 T
(e) 7 × 10−6 T
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 217

„ 40. The radius of a coil of wire with N turns is r = 0.22 m. A clockwise Iwire
current of Icoil = 2.0 A flows in the coil, as shown. A long, straight wire
carrying a current Iwire = 31 A toward the left is located 0.05 m from the r
edge of the coil. The magnetic field at the center of the coil is zero tesla. Icoil
Determine N, the number of turns.
(a) 8 (c) 6 (e) 1
(b) 2 (d) 4

… 41. A long, straight wire carries a current I. If the magnetic field at a distance d from the wire has
magnitude B, what is the magnitude of the magnetic field at a distance 2d from the wire?
(a) B/2 (c) 2B (e) 8B
(b) B/4 (d) 4B

ˆ 42. An overhead electric power line carries a maximum current of 125 A. What is the magnitude of
the maximum magnetic field at a point 4.50 m directly below the power line?
(a) 5.56 × 10–6 T (c) 3.49 × 10–5 T (e) 7.95 × 10–3 T
(b) 1.75 × 10 T
–5
(d) 4.69 × 10 T
–4

… 43. A coil of wire carries current I as shown in the

figure. If the observer could “see” the magnetic
field inside this arrangement of loops, how would
it appear?
I

x x x • • • •
x x x x • • • • •
x x x x • • • • •
x x x • • • •

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

ˆ 44. A wire, connected to a battery and switch, passes through the center of a long current-carrying
solenoid as shown in the drawing.
I I

switch

When the switch is closed and there is a current in the wire, what happens to the portion of the wire
that runs inside of the solenoid?
(a) There is no effect on the wire. (d) The wire is pushed into the plane of the paper.
(b) The wire is pushed downward. (e) The wire is pushed out of the plane of the paper.
(c) The wire is pushed upward.
218 Chapter 21 Magnetic Forces and Magnetic Fields

„ 45. Two loops carry equal currents I in the same direction. The loops are held
I
in the positions shown in the figure and are then released. Which one of
the following statements correctly describes the subsequent behavior of the
loops?
(a) Both loops move to the left. I
(b) The loops remain in the positions shown.
(c) The top loop moves to the right; the bottom loop moves to the right.
(d) The loops repel each other.
(e) The loops attract each other.

„ 46. Four long, straight wires are parallel to each other; and their cross-section • •
forms a square. Each side of the square is 0.020 m as shown in the figure.

0.020 m
If each wire carries a current of 8.0 A in the direction shown in the figure,
determine the magnitude of the total magnetic field at P, the center of the P
square.
(a) 5.1 × 10−5 T (d) 2.3 × 10−4 T
−4 0.020 m
(b) 1.1 × 10 T (e) zero tesla • x
(c) 1.7 × 10−4 T

ˆ 47. The figure shows two concentric metal loops, each carrying a current. 8.0 A
The larger loop carries a current of 8.0 A and has a radius of 0.060 m.
The smaller loop has a radius of 0.040 m. What is the value of a current
in the smaller loop that will result in zero total magnetic field at the
center of the system? 0.040 m
(a) 5.3 A (d) 12 A
(b) 6.0 A (e) 24 A 0.060 m
(c) 8.8 A

ˆ 48. Two loops carry equal currents I in the same direction. They
are held in the positions shown in the figure and project above
and below the plane of the paper. The point P lies exactly
P
halfway between them on the line that joins their centers. The
centers of the loops and the point P lie in the plane of the
paper. Which one of the figures below shows the position of a I I
compass needle if the compass were placed in the plane of the
paper at P?
(a) (c) N (e) S
S N

N
S

(b) S (d) N S

N
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 219

„ 49. Two long, straight wires are perpendicular to the plane of the paper as
shown in the drawing. Each wire carries a current of magnitude I. The y
currents are directed out of the paper toward you. Which one of the
following expressions correctly gives the magnitude of the total magnetic
field at the origin of the x, y coordinate system? d
µ0 I µ0 I
(a) (d)
2d πd O x
µ0 I µ0 I d
(b) (e)
2d 2πd
µ0 I
(c)
2πd

Questions 50 and 51 pertain to the statement and figure below:

I
A long, straight wire is carrying a current of 5.0 A in the
direction shown in the figure. The point P is 0.040 m from the
wire. 0.04 m

… 50. What is the direction of the magnetic field at point P due to P

the current in the wire?
(a) to the right of page (d) into the plane of the page
(b) to the left of the page (e) out of the plane of the page
(c) toward the bottom of the page

ˆ 51. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at the point P?

(a) 1.3 × 10−5 T (c) 2.5 × 10−5 T (e) 9.4 × 10−5 T
−5
(b) 1.9 × 10 T (d) 7.9 × 10−5 T

Questions 52 and 53 pertain to the statement and figure below:

A single circular loop of wire with radius 0.020 m carries a current of 8.0 A. It is placed at the
center of a solenoid that has length 0.65 m, radius 0.080 m, and 1400 turns.

solenoid

current-carrying loop

„ 52. Determine the value of the current in the solenoid so that the magnetic field at the center of the
loop is zero tesla.
(a) 1.4 × 10−1 A (c) 4.4 × 10−2 A (e) 9.3 × 10−2 A
−4 −3
(b) 2.5 × 10 A (d) 5.0 × 10 A

„ 53. Determine the magnitude of the total magnetic field at the center of the loop (due both to the
loop and the solenoid) if the current in the loop is reversed in direction from that needed to make
the total field equal to zero tesla.
(a) 2.5 × 10−4 T (c) 6.4 × 10−4 T (e) 9.2 × 10−4 T
(b) 5.0 × 10−4 T (d) 8.7 × 10−4 T
220 Chapter 21 Magnetic Forces and Magnetic Fields

Questions 54 and 55 pertain to the statement and figure below:

Two long, straight, parallel wires separated by a I

distance d carry currents in opposite directions as
shown in the figure. The bottom wire carries a current d C
of 6.0 A. Point C is at the midpoint between the wires
and point O is a distance 0.50d below the 6-A wire as
suggested in the figure. The total magnetic field at 6.0 A O
point O is zero tesla.

„ 54. Determine the value of the current, I, in the top wire.

(a) 2 A (c) 6 A (e) This cannot be determined since
(b) 3 A (d) 18 A the value of d is not specified.

ˆ 55. Determine the magnitude of the magnetic field at point C if d = 0.10 m.

(a) 2.4 × 10–5 T (c) 9.6 × 10–5 T (e) 1.4 × 10–4 T
–5 –4
(b) 4.8 × 10 T (d) 1.1 × 10 T

Questions 56 and 57 pertain to the two-wire system described below:

18 A 6A
Two long, straight wires separated by
0.10 m carry currents of 18 A and 6 A in P
the same direction as shown. 0.05 m
0.10 m

ˆ 56. Determine the magnitude of the magnetic field at the point P.

(a) 2.4 × 10–5 T (c) 7.2 × 10–5 T (e) zero tesla
(b) 4.8 × 10–5 T (d) 9.6 × 10–5 T

… 57. What is the direction of the magnetic field at the point P?

(a) to the left of the page (d) out of the plane of the page
(b) to the right of the page (e) into the plane of the page
(c) toward the bottom of the page

Section 21.8 Ampere’s Law

Section 21.9 Magnetic Materials
… 58. Which one of the following materials is not ferromagnetic?
(a) iron (c) nickel (e) cobalt
(b) chromium dioxide (d) aluminum

„ 59. Each second, 1.25 × 1019 electrons in a narrow beam pass through a small hole in a wall. The beam
is perpendicular to the wall. Using Ampere’s law, determine the magnitude of the magnetic field in
the wall at a radius of 0.750 m from the center of the beam.
(a) 1.18 × 10–9 T (c) 2.62 × 10–3 T (e) 3.33 × 1012 T
(b) 5.33 × 10 T–7
(d) 4.14 × 10 T8
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 221

Questions 60 and 61 pertain to the following:

B
A long, coaxial cable, shown in cross-section in the drawing, is
made using two conductors that share a common central axis,
A
labeled C. The conductors are separated by an electrically
insulating material that is also used as the outer cover of the
cable. The current in the inner conductor is 2.0 A directed into C
the page and that in the outer conductor is 2.5 A directed out of b
the page. The distance from point C to point A is 0.0015 m; a
and the distance from C to B is 0.0030 m. The radii a and b of
the conductors are 6.0 × 10–4 m and 1.9 × 10–3 m, respectively.

„ 60. What is the magnitude and direction of the magnetic field at point A?
(a) 3.3 × 10–5 T, clockwise (d) 6.8 × 10–5 T, counterclockwise
(b) 3.3 × 10 T, counterclockwise
–5
(e) 2.7 × 10–4 T, clockwise
(c) 6.8 × 10 T, clockwise
–5

„ 61. What is the magnitude and direction of the magnetic field at point B?
(a) 3.3 × 10–5 T, clockwise (d) 6.8 × 10–5 T, counterclockwise
(b) 3.3 × 10 T, counterclockwise
–5
(e) 2.7 × 10–4 T, clockwise
(c) 6.8 × 10 T, clockwise
–5

Additional Problems 40 A
„ 62. A long straight wire carries a 40.0 A current in the +x
direction. At a particular instant, an electron moving at 0.10 m
1.0 × 107 m/s in the +y direction is 0.10 m from the wire.
The charge on the electron is –1.6 × 10–19 C. What is the electron
force on the electron at this instant?
(a) 1.3 × 10–16 N in the +x direction (d) 6.5 × 10–10 N in the –y direction
(b) 1.3 × 10 N in the −x direction
–16
(e) 6.5 × 10–16 N in the –y direction
(c) 6.5 × 10 N in the +y direction
–10

Questions 63 through 65 pertain to the statement and diagram below:

20.0 A

A wire is bent into the shape of a r

circle of radius r = 0.10 m and
carries a 20.0-A current in the
direction shown.

… 63. What is the direction of the magnetic field at the center of the loop?
(a) to the right of the page (d) into the plane of the paper
(b) to the left of the page (e) out of the plane of the paper
(c) toward the top of the page

ˆ 64. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at the center of the loop?
(a) 2.0 × 10–5 T (c) 2.0 × 10–4 T (e) zero tesla
(b) 1.3 × 10 T
–5
(d) 1.3 × 10 T –4
222 Chapter 21 Magnetic Forces and Magnetic Fields

ˆ 65. Determine the magnetic moment of the loop.

(a) 0.20 A ⋅ m2 (c) 0.63 A ⋅ m2 (e) 1.3 A ⋅ m2
(b) 0.40 A ⋅ m2 (d) 0.84 A ⋅ m2

Questions 66 and 67 pertain to the following statement and figure:

1.20 m y
A long, straight wire carries a 10.0-A current in the
+y direction as shown in the figure. 10.0 A x

Next to the wire is a square copper loop that carries a

2.00-A current as shown. The length of each side of 2.00 A
the square is 1.00 m.
1.00 m

„ 66. What is the magnitude of the net magnetic force that acts on the loop?
(a) 8.0 × 10–6 N (c) 1.4 × 10–5 N (e) 2.3 × 10–5 N
(b) 1.1 × 10 N
–5
(d) 1.7 × 10 N
–5

„ 67. What is the direction of the net magnetic force that acts on the loop?
(a) +x direction (c) +y direction (e) 30° with respect to
(b) –x direction (d) –y direction the +x direction
 chapter ELECTROMAGNETIC
INDUCTION

Section 22.1 Induced EMF and Induced Current

Section 22.2 Motional EMF
ˆ 1. A conducting loop of wire is placed in a magnetic field that is normal to the plane of the loop.
Which one of the following actions will not result in an induced current in the loop?
(a) Rotate the loop about an axis that is parallel to the field and passes through the center of the loop.
(b) Increase the strength of the magnetic field.
(c) Decrease the area of the loop.
(d) Decrease the strength of the magnetic field.
(e) Rotate the loop about an axis that is perpendicular to the field and passes through the center of the
loop.

„ 2. Which of the following units are equivalent to those of motional emf?

(a) T ⋅ m/s (c) J/s (e) T ⋅ m
(b) V ⋅ m2/s (d) kg ⋅ m2/(C ⋅ s2)

ˆ 3. The figure shows a uniform magnetic field that is normal to x x x x x

the plane of a conducting loop, which has a resistance R.
Which one of the following changes will cause an induced x x x x x
current to flow through the resistor?
x x x x x
(a) decreasing the area of the loop
(b) decreasing the magnitude of the magnetic field R
x x x x x
(c) increasing the magnitude of the magnetic field
(d) rotating the loop through 90° about an axis in the plane of the paper
(e) all of the above

ˆ 4. A conducting bar moves to the left at a constant speed I

v on two conducting rails joined at the left as shown.
As a result of the bar moving through a constant
magnetic field, a current I is induced in the indicated v
direction. Which one of the following directions is
that of the magnetic field?
(a) toward the right (d) into the page
(b) toward the left (e) out of the page
(c) parallel to the long axis of the bar I

„ 5. A 2.0-kg rod that has a length of 1.0 m and a

resistance of 4.0 Ω slides with constant speed down a 1.0 m
pair of frictionless vertical conducting rails that are
joined at the bottom. Other than the rod, the rest of
the circuit is resistanceless. A uniform magnetic field g
of magnitude 3.0 T is perpendicular to the plane B
formed by the rod and the rails as shown. Determine
the speed of the rod.
(a) 0.38 m/s (d) 5.6 m/s
(b) 0.90 m/s (e) 8.7 m/s
(c) 2.6 m/s
224 Chapter 22 Electromagnetic Induction

ˆ 6. A 0.45-m metal rod moves 0.11 m in a direction that is perpendicular to a 0.80-T magnetic field
in an elapsed time of 0.036 s. Assuming that the acceleration of the rod is zero m/s2, determine
the emf that exists between the ends of the rod.
(a) 1.1 V (d) 9.1 × 10–5 V
(b) 0.27 V (e) This cannot be determined without knowing the
(c) 0.076 V orientation of the rod relative to the magnetic field.

Section 22.3 Magnetic Flux

ˆ 7. A 0.50-T magnetic field is directed perpendicular to the plane of a circular loop of radius 0.25 m.
What is the magnitude of the magnetic flux through the loop?
(a) 0.049 Wb (c) 0.20 Wb (e) zero Wb
(b) 0.098 Wb (d) 0.39 Wb

ˆ 8. The Earth’s magnetic field passes through a square tabletop with a magnitude of 4.95 × 10−5 T and is
directed at an angle of 165° relative to the normal of the tabletop. If the tabletop has 1.50-m sides,
what is the magnitude of the magnetic flux through it?
(a) 1.08 × 10–4 Wb (c) 2.88 × 10–5 Wb (e) 3.30 × 10–6 Wb
(b) 7.11 × 10 Wb
–5
(d) 1.92 × 10 Wb
–5

ˆ 9. A circular copper loop is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.50 T. Due to external
forces, the area of the loop decreases at a rate of 1.26 × 10–3 m2/s. Determine the induced emf in the
loop.
(a) 3.1 × 10–4 V (c) 1.2 × 10–3 V (e) 3.1 V
(b) 6.3 × 10 V–4
(d) 7.9 × 10–3 V

„ 10. A conducting loop has an area of 0.065 m2 and is positioned such that a uniform magnetic field is
perpendicular to the plane of the loop. When the magnitude of the magnetic field decreases to
0.30 T in 0.087 s, the average induced emf in the loop is 1.2 V. What is the initial value of the
magnetic field?
(a) 0.42 T (c) 0.87 T (e) 1.9 T
(b) 0.75 T (d) 1.2 T

„ 11. A uniform magnetic field passes through two areas, A1 and A2. The angles between the magnetic
field and the normals of areas A1 and A2 are 30.0° and 60.0°, respectively. If the magnetic flux
through the two areas is the same, what is the ratio A1/A2?
(a) 0.577 (c) 1.00 (e) 1.73
(b) 0.816 (d) 1.23

„ 12. A 150-turn solenoid carries a current of 12 A. The radius of the solenoid is 0.050 m; and its
length is 0.18 m. Determine the magnetic flux through the circular cross-sectional area at the
center of the solenoid.
(a) 1.8 × 10–5 Wb (c) 4.3 × 10–4 Wb (e) 2.2 × 10–3 Wb
(b) 9.9 × 10 Wb
–5
(d) 7.0 × 10 Wb
–4
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 225

Section 22.4 Faraday’s Law of Electromagnetic Induction

ˆ 13. A magnetic field is directed perpendicular to the plane of a 0.15-m × 0.30-m rectangular coil
consisting of 120 loops of wire. To induce an average emf of −1.2 V in the coil, the magnetic
field is increased from 0.1 T to 1.5 T during a time interval ∆t. Determine ∆t.
(a) 0.053 s (c) 1.6 s (e) 7.6 s
(b) 0.13 s (d) 6.3 s

50.0°
„ 14. The area of a 333-turn conducting coil is 7.85 × 10–3 m2. The resistance of B
the coil is 10.4 Ω. If the coil is oriented as shown in a magnetic field B, at
what rate in T/s should the magnitude of B change to induce a current of
2.50 × 10–3 A in the coil?
(a) 0.0155 T/s (c) 0.228 T/s (e) 1.52 T/s
(b) 0.0996 T/s (d) 0.757 T/s

„ 15. A circular coil of wire has 25 turns and has a radius of 0.075 m. B (T)
The coil is located in a variable magnetic field whose behavior is
shown on the graph. At all times, the magnetic field is directed 0.80
at an angle of 75° relative to the normal to the plane of a loop. 0.60
What is the average emf induced in the coil in the time interval 0.40
from t = 5.00 s to 7.50 s? 0.20
(a) −18 mV (d) −140 mV 0.00
(b) −49 mV (e) −180 mV

0.00
2.50

5.00
7.50

10.00
t (s)
(c) −92 mV

Questions 16 through 19 pertain to the situation described below:

• • • • • • • •
The figure shows a uniform, 3.0-T magnetic field that is normal
• • • • • • • •
to the plane of a conducting, circular loop with a resistance of B R
1.5 Ω and a radius of 0.024 m. The magnetic field is directed • • • • • • • •
out of the paper as shown. Note: The area of the non-circular • • • • • • • •
portion of the wire is considered negligible compared to that of
the circular loop. • • • • • • • •

ˆ 16. What is the magnitude of the average induced emf in the loop if the magnitude of the magnetic
field is doubled in 0.4 s?
(a) 0.43 V (c) 0.014 V (e) 0.038 V
(b) 0.65 V (d) 0.027 V

„ 17. What is the average current around the loop if the magnitude of the magnetic field is doubled in 0.4 s?
(a) 2.8 × 10–3 A, clockwise (d) 9.0 × 10–3 A, clockwise
(b) 4.5 × 10 A, clockwise
–3
(e) 9.0 × 10–3 A, counterclockwise
(c) 4.5 × 10 A, counterclockwise
–3

ˆ 18. If the magnetic field is held constant at 3.0 T and the loop is pulled out of the region that
contains the field in 0.2 s, what is the magnitude of the average induced emf in the loop?
(a) 8.6 × 10–3 V (c) 2.7 × 10–2 V (e) 6.4 × 10–2 V
(b) 9.8 × 10 V
–2
(d) 5.4 × 10 V
–2

„ 19. If the magnetic field is held constant at 3.0 T and the loop is pulled out of the region that
226 Chapter 22 Electromagnetic Induction

contains the field in 0.2 s, at what rate is energy dissipated in R?

(a) 1.8 × 10–2 W (c) 3.8 × 10–3 W (e) 4.9 × 10–4 W
(b) 3.6 × 10 W
–2
(d) 2.7 × 10–4 W

Section 22.5 Lenz’s Law

Section 22.6 Applications of Electromagnetic Induction to the Reproduction of Sound
ˆ 20. A long, straight wire is in the same plane as a rectangular, conducting loop.
The wire carries a constant current I as shown in the figure. Which one of
the following statements is true if the wire is suddenly moved toward the
loop?
(a) There will be no induced emf and no induced current. I
(b) There will be an induced emf, but no induced current.
(c) There will be an induced current that is clockwise around the loop.
(d) There will be an induced current that is counterclockwise around the loop.
(e) There will be an induced electric field that is clockwise around the loop.

„ 21. A long, straight wire is in the same plane as a wooden, non-

conducting loop. The wire carries an increasing current I in the
direction shown in the figure.
(a) There will be no induced emf and no induced current. I
(b) There will be a counterclockwise induced emf, but no induced current.
(c) There will be a clockwise induced emf, but no induced current.
(d) There will be a clockwise induced current in the loop.
(e) There will be a counterclockwise induced current in the loop.

ˆ 22. A metal ring is dropped from rest below a bar magnet that is fixed in position
as suggested in the figure. An observer views the ring from below. Which stationary
one of the following statements concerning this situation is true? bar magnet
(a) As the ring falls, an induced current will flow counterclockwise as N

viewed by the observer.

(b) As the ring falls, an induced current will flow clockwise as viewed by the
observer.
(c) As the ring falls, there will be an induced magnetic field around the ring
that appears counterclockwise as viewed by the observer.
(d) As the ring falls, there will be an induced magnetic field around the ring
that appears clockwise as viewed by the observer.
(d) Since the magnet is stationary, there will be no induced current in the
ring.

„ 23. Two conducting loops carry equal currents I in the same direction as
shown in the figure. If the current in the upper loop suddenly drops to
zero, what will happen to the current in the lower loop according to I
Lenz’s law?
(a) The current in the lower loop will decrease.
(b) The current in the lower loop will increase. I
(c) The current in the lower loop will not change.
(d) The current in the lower loop will also drop to zero.
(e) The current in the lower loop will reverse its direction.
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 227

ˆ 24. A sheet of copper is pulled at constant velocity v

from a region that contains a uniform magnetic field. Region containing
magnetic field
At the instant shown in the figure, the sheet is
partially in and partially out of the field. The induced
emf in the sheet leads to the eddy current shown. v
Which one of the following statements concerning
the direction of the magnetic field is true?
(a) The magnetic field points to the right.
(b) The magnetic field points to the left. eddy current
(c) The magnetic field points into the paper.
(d) The magnetic field points out of the paper.
(e) The direction of the magnetic field cannot be determined from the information given.

Questions 25 and 26 pertain to the situation described below:

x x x x x x
A circuit is pulled with a 16-N force toward the
right to maintain a constant speed v. At the x x x x x
instant shown, the loop is partially in and
partially out of a uniform magnetic field that is R
x x x x x v
directed into the paper. As the circuit moves, a
6.0-A current flows through a 4.0-Ω resistor.
x x x x x x

ˆ 25. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true?
(a) The temperature of the circuit remains constant.
(b) The induced current flows clockwise around the circuit.
(c) Since the circuit moves with constant speed, the force F does zero work.
(d) If the circuit were replaced with a wooden loop, there would be no induced emf.
(e) As the circuit moves through the field, the field does work to produce the current.

„ 26. What is the magnitude of v?

(a) 1.5 m/s (c) 6.4 m/s (e) 12 m/s
(b) 3.0 m/s (d) 9.0 m/s

Section 22.7 The Electric Generator

ˆ 27. A circular coil has 275 turns and a radius of 0.045 m. • • • • • • • • •
The coil is used as an ac generator by rotating it in a • • • • • • • • •
0.500 T magnetic field, as shown in the figure. At • • • • • • • • •
• • • • • • • • •
what angular speed should the coil be rotated so that • • • • • • • • •
the maximum emf is 175 V?
• R
• • • • • • • • • •
(a) 28 rad/s (d) 200 rad/s • • • • • • • • •
(b) 50 rad/s (e) 490 rad/s • • • • • • • • •
• • • • • • • • •
(c) 130 rad/s • • • • • • • • •

ˆ 28. The angular speed of a motor is 262 rad/s. The back emf generated by the motor is 89.4 V.
Assuming all other factors remain the same, determine the back emf if the angular speed of the
motor is reduced to 154 rad/s.
(a) 32.3 V (c) 52.5 V (e) 152 V
(b) 44.7 V (d) 89.4 V
228 Chapter 22 Electromagnetic Induction

Questions 29 through 31 pertain to the situation described below:

Emf

7.5 V

A single conducting loop with an area 3.75 8.75 13.75

of 2.0 m2 rotates in a uniform magnetic
field so that the induced emf has a t (s)
1.25 6.25 11.25
sinusoidal time dependence as shown.
−7.5 V

ˆ 29. With what angular frequency does the loop rotate?

(a) 0.16 rad/s (c) 0.52 rad/s (e) 1.26 rad/s
(b) 0.30 rad/s (d) 0.80 rad/s

ˆ 30. What is the period of the induced current?

(a) 1.25 s (c) 3.75 s (e) 6.25 s
(b) 2.50 s (d) 5.00 s

„ 31. Determine the strength of the magnetic field in which the loop rotates.
(a) 0.5 T (c) 3.0 T (e) 18.8 T
(b) 2.4 T (d) 7.5 T

Section 22.8 Mutual Inductance and Self-Inductance

… 32. A closed loop carries a current that increases with time. Which one of the quantities listed below
relates the emf induced in the loop to the rate at which the current is increasing?
(a) resistance of the loop (d) power dissipated by the loop
(b) capacitance of the loop (e) mutual inductance of the loop
(c) self-inductance of the loop

ˆ 33. The current in a solenoid is decreased to one-half of its original value. Which one of the following
statements is true concerning the self-inductance of the solenoid?
(a) The self-inductance does not change.
(b) The self-inductance increases by a factor of two.
(c) The self-inductance decreases by a factor of two.
(d) The self-inductance increases by a factor of four.
(e) The self-inductance decreases by a factor of four.

… 34. Determine the energy stored in a 95-mH inductor that carries a 1.4-A current.
(a) 0.38 J (c) 0.19 J (e) 0.066 J
(b) 0.27 J (d) 0.093 J

ˆ 35. A solenoid with 1000 turns has a cross-sectional area of 7.0 cm2 and length of 25 cm. How much
energy is stored in the magnetic field of the solenoid when it carries a current of 10.0 A?
(a) 0.10 J (c) 0.18 J (e) 0.36 J
(b) 2.8 J (d) 28 J
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 229

„ 36. Which one of the following combinations of units is equivalent to one henry?
(a) N ⋅ m ⋅ s/C (c) N ⋅ m ⋅ C2/s2 (e) N ⋅ m ⋅ s2/C2
(b) N ⋅ m ⋅ s2/C (d) N ⋅ m ⋅ C/s2

ˆ 37. The figure shows a circular, conducting loop that is connected

to a 5.0-V battery and a switch S. Immediately after the S
switch S is closed, the current through the loop changes at a • •
rate of 15 A/s and the emf induced in the loop has a R
magnitude of 5.0 V. Determine the self-inductance of the
coil. 5V
(a) 0.33 H (d) 3.0 H
(b) 0.60 H (e) 5.0 H
(c) 1.5 H

… 38. Two coils share a common axis as shown in the figure. The
mutual inductance of this pair of coils is 6.0 mH. If the
current in coil 1 is changing at the rate of 3.5 A/s, what is the
magnitude of the emf generated in coil 2?
(a) 5.8 × 10−4 V (d) 1.5 × 10−2 V
−3
(b) 1.7 × 10 V (e) 2.1 × 10−2 V coil 1 coil 2
−3
(c) 3.5 × 10 V

ˆ 39. A coil of wire with a resistance of 0.15 Ω has a self-inductance of 0.083 H. If a 5.0-V battery is
connected across the ends of the coil and the current in the circuit reaches an equilibrium value, what
is the stored energy in the inductor?
(a) 92 J (c) 16 J (e) 1.4 J
(b) 46 J (d) 4.1 J

Questions 40 through 44 pertain to the situation described below:

A 0.100-m long solenoid has a radius of 0.050 m and 1.50 × 104 turns. The current in the
solenoid changes at a rate of 6.0 A/s. A conducting loop of radius 0.0200 m is placed at the
center of the solenoid with its axis the same as that of the solenoid as shown.

I solenoid I

loop

ˆ 40. What is the magnetic flux through the small loop when the current through the solenoid is 2.50 A?
(a) 2.95 × 10−2 Wb (c) 2.95 × 10−4 Wb (e) 5.92 × 10−4 Wb
−2 −4
(b) 7.28 × 10 Wb (d) 4.38 × 10 Wb

ˆ 41. Determine the mutual inductance of this combination.

(a) 1.8 × 10−4 H (c) 3.6 × 10−4 H (e) 5.9 × 10−4 H
−4
(b) 2.4 × 10 H (d) 4.4 × 10−4 H

ˆ 42. Determine the induced emf in the loop.

230 Chapter 22 Electromagnetic Induction

(a) 0.7 × 10–3 V (c) 2.8 × 10–3 V (e) zero volts

(b) 1.4 × 10–3 V (d) 5.6 × 10–3 V

… 43. Determine the induced emf in the loop if the loop is oriented so that its axis is perpendicular to
the axis of the solenoid, instead of parallel.
(a) 0.7 × 10–4 V (c) 2.8 × 10–4 V (e) zero volts
(b) 1.4 × 10 V–4
(d) 5.6 × 10–4 V

ˆ 44. Determine the self-induced emf in the solenoid due to the changing current.
(a) 60 V (c) 130 V (e) 250 V
(b) 98 V (d) 180 V

Questions 45 through 51 pertain to the situation described below:

Two coils, 1 and 2, with iron cores are positioned as shown in the figure. Coil 1 is part of
a circuit with a battery and a switch.
Coil 2

Coil 1

A B C

S
R
r
+ -

„ 45. Immediately after the switch S is closed, which one of the following statements is true?
(a) An induced current will flow from right to left in R.
(b) An induced current will flow from left to right in r.
(c) A magnetic field that points toward B appears inside coil 1.
(d) An induced magnetic field that points toward B appears inside coil 2.
(e) A current will pass through r, but there will be no current through R.

ˆ 46. Assume the switch S has been closed for a long time. Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) An induced current will flow from right to left in R.
(b) An induced current will flow from left to right in r.
(c) A magnetic field that points toward B appears inside coil 1.
(d) An induced magnetic field that points toward B appears inside coil 2.
(e) A current will pass through r, but there will be no current through R.

ˆ 47. Assume S has been closed for a long time. Which one of the following statements is true when
coil 1 and its core are moved toward point B?
(a) There is no induced current in r.
(b) There is a magnetic field in coil 1 that points toward B.
(c) There is an induced current in R that flows from left to right.
(d) There is an induced current in R that flows from right to left.
(e) There is an induced magnetic field in coil 2 that points toward B.
„ 48. Assume that S has been closed for a long time. Which one of the following changes will not
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 231

result in an induced current in coil 2 that flows from left to right through R.
(a) Coil 1 and its core are moved toward A. (d) The switch S is opened.
(b) Coil 2 and its core are moved toward B. (e) The iron core is removed from coil 1.
(c) Coil 2 and its core are moved toward C.

„ 49. Assume that S has been closed for a long time. Which one of the following changes will result
in an induced magnetic field in coil 2 that points toward C?
(a) The switch S is opened. (d) Coil 1 and its core are moved toward B.
(b) The iron core is removed from coil 1. (e) Coil 2 and its core are moved toward C.
(c) Coil 1 and its core are moved toward A.

ˆ 50. Assume that S has been closed for a long time. Which one of the following statements is true if
S is suddenly opened?
(a) There is no induced current through R.
(b) There is no induced magnetic field in coil 2.
(c) There is an induced current in R that flows from right to left.
(d) There is an induced magnetic field in coil 2 that points toward C.
(e) There is an induced magnetic field in coil 2 that points toward B.

ˆ 51. Assume that S has been closed for a long time. Which one of the following statements is true if
coil 2 is moved toward C?
(a) There is an induced magnetic field in coil 2 that points toward B.
(b) There is an induced magnetic field in coil 2 that points toward C.
(c) There is an induced current in R that flows from right to left.
(d) There is an induced north pole at the right end of coil 2.
(e) There is no induced current in R.

„ 52. In the drawing, a coil of wire is wrapped around a aluminum

cylinder from which an iron core extends upward. ring
The ends of the coil are connected to an ac voltage
source. After the alternating current is established
iron
in the coil, an aluminum ring of resistance R is
core
placed onto the iron core and released. Which one
of the following statements concerning this situation
is false? ac voltage
coil
(a) The induced current in the ring is an alternating source
current.
(b) The temperature of the ring will increase.
(c) At any instant, the direction of the induced
current in the ring is in the same direction as
that in the coil.
(d) The induced magnetic field in the ring may by directed either upward or downward at an
instant when the direction of the magnetic field generated by the current in the coil is upward.
(e) The ring may remain suspended at the position shown with no vertical movement of its
center of mass.

Section 22.9 Transformers

ˆ 53. The current in the secondary coil of a step-up transformer is 0.86 A when the current in the
primary coil is 4.8 A. Determine the turns ratio, Ns/Np, of the transformer.
(a) 5.6 (c) 0.24 (e) 0.12
(b) 4.1 (d) 0.18
… 54. Which one of the following statements concerning transformers is false?
232 Chapter 22 Electromagnetic Induction

(a) Their operation makes use of mutual induction.

(b) They are an application of Faraday's and Lenz's laws.
(c) A transformer can function with either an ac current or a steady dc current.
(d) A transformer that steps down the voltage, steps up the current.
(e) A transformer that steps up the voltage, steps down the current.

ˆ 55. A transformer changes 120 V across the primary to 1200 V across the secondary. If the
secondary coil has 800 turns, how many turns does the primary coil have?
(a) 40 (c) 100 (e) 4000
(b) 80 (d) 400

„ 56. A transformer has 450 turns in its primary coil and 30 turns in its secondary coil. Which one of
the following statements concerning this transformer is true?
(a) This is a step-up transformer.
(b) The turns ratio is 15 for this transformer.
(c) The ratio of the voltages Vs / Vp is 15 for this transformer.
(d) The ratio of the currents Is / Ip is 0.067 for this transformer.
(e) The power delivered to the secondary must be the same as that delivered to the primary.

Questions 57 and 58 relate to the following situation:

A small power plant produces a voltage of 6.0 kV and 150 A. The voltage is stepped up to 240 kV
by a transformer before it is transmitted to a substation. The resistance of the transmission line
between the power plant and the substation is 75 Ω.

ˆ 57. What is the current in the transmission line from the plant to the substation?
(a) 3.8 A (c) 6.4 A (e) 7.5 A
(b) 5.2 A (d) 7.0 A

„ 58. What percentage of the power produced at the power plant is lost in transmission to the substation?
(a) 0.47 % (c) 0.34 % (e) 0.12 %
(b) 0.41 % (d) 0.23 %

Additional Problems
Questions 59 and 60 pertain to the statement and diagram below:
• • • • • • • •
The figure shows a uniform magnetic field • • • • • • • •
that is normal to the plane of the conducting B R
loop of resistance R. Note: the area of the • • • • • • • •
non-circular portion of the circuit is • • • • • • • •
negligible compared to that of the loop.
• • • • • • • •

„ 59. Which entry in the table below correctly pairs the change in the system with the direction of the
induced current through R?
change in the system direction of current through R
(a) decrease the area of the loop from top toward bottom
(b) rotate loop into the paper no induced current
(c) increase the area of the loop from bottom toward top
(d) decrease the magnitude of B from bottom toward top
(e) pull loop to the right from top toward bottom

ˆ 60. Suppose that the radius of the loop is 0.500 m. At what rate must B change with time if the emf
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 233

induced in the loop is 3π volts?

(a) 12.0 T/s (c) 24.0 T/s (e) 49.2 T/s
(b) 18.8 T/s (d) 37.7 T/s

ˆ 61. A circular loop of copper wire with an area of 2.0 m2 lies in a plane perpendicular to a time-dependent
magnetic field oriented as shown. The time-dependence of the field is shown in the graph.
Magnetic Field (T)

• • • • •
10

• • • • •
5
• • • • •

0
• • • • •
0 2 4 6 8 10
Time (s)

Which one of the entries in the table below is incorrect?

Time Induced emf
(a) 1 s zero volts
(b) 4 s 2.5 V, counterclockwise
(c) 5 s 2.5 V, counterclockwise
(d) 7 s 10 V, clockwise
(e) 9 s 10 V, counterclockwise

Questions 62 through 64 pertain to the situation described below:

A loop is pulled with a force F to the right to maintain a x x x x x x

constant speed of 8.0 m/s. The loop has a length of 0.15
x x x x x
m, a width of 0.080 m, and a resistance of 200.0 Ω. At v
R
the instant shown, the loop is partially in and partially x x x x x
out of a uniform magnetic field that is directed into the
paper. The magnitude of the field is 1.2 T. x x x x x x

ˆ 62. What is the magnitude of the emf induced in the loop?

(a) zero volts (c) 1.4 V (e) 9.6 V
(b) 0.77 V (d) 4.9 V

ˆ 63. What is the induced current in the loop?

(a) 0.048 A (c) 7.2 × 10−3 A (e) zero amperes
(b) 0.024 A (d) 3.8 × 10−3 A

„ 64. Determine the magnitude of the force F required to pull the loop.
(a) 1.3 × 10−4 N (c) 3.7 × 10−4 N (e) 9.0 × 10−4 N
−4
(b) 2.1 × 10 N (d) 6.8 × 10−4 N

Region containing
Questions 65 through 69 pertain to the situation magnetic field
described below:
F
A loop with a resistance of 2.0 Ω is pushed to the left at a
constant speed of 4.0 m/s by a 32 N force. At the instant shown
in the figure, the loop is partially in and partially out of a
uniform magnetic field. An induced current flows from left to induced current
right through the resistor. The length and width of the loop are 2.0 m and 1.0 m, respectively.
ˆ 65. What is the direction of the magnetic field?
234 Chapter 22 Electromagnetic Induction

(a) to the left (c) out of the paper (e) toward the top of the page
(b) to the right (d) into the paper

„ 66. Determine the magnitude of the induced current through the resistor.
(a) 2.0 A (c) 8.0 A (e) 32 A
(b) 4.0 A (d) 16 A

ˆ 67. Determine the magnitude of the induced emf in the loop.

(a) 2.0 V (c) 8.0 V (e) 16 V
(b) 4.0 V (d) 12 V

ˆ 68. Determine the magnitude of the uniform magnetic field.

(a) 2.0 T (c) 6.0 T (e) 12 T
(b) 4.0 T (d) 8 T

ˆ 69. At what rate is energy dissipated by the resistor?

(a) 130 W (c) 32 W (e) 8.0 W
(b) 96 W (d) 16 W

Questions 70 through 72 pertain to the situation described below:

A flexible, circular conducting loop of radius 0.15 m and resistance 4.0 Ω lies in a uniform
magnetic field of 0.25 T. The loop is pulled on opposite sides by equal forces and stretched until
its enclosed area is essentially zero m2, as suggested in the drawings. It takes 0.30 s to close the
loop.
x x x x x x x x x x x x

x x x x x x x x x x x x

x x x x x x x x x x x x

x x x x x x x x x x x x
initial situation final situation

ˆ 70. Determine the magnitude of the emf induced in the loop.

(a) 1.2 × 10−1 V (c) 1.8 × 102 V (e) 5.9 × 102 V
−2
(b) 1.8 × 10 V (d) 5.9 × 10−2 V

ˆ 71. At what rate is heat generated in the loop?

(a) 3.6 × 10−3 W (c) 8.7 × 104 W (e) 8.1 × 10−5 W
−4
(b) 8.7 × 10 W (d) 8.1 × 105 W

ˆ 72. Which one of the following phrases best describes the direction of the induced magnetic field
generated by the current induced in the loop while the loop is being stretched?
(a) clockwise (c) into the page (e) The induced field is zero.
(b) counterclockwise (d) out of the page
 chapter ALTERNATING CURRENT
CIRCUITS

Section 23.1 Capacitors and Capacitive Reactance

… 1. An ac voltage source that has a frequency f is connected across the terminals of a capacitor.
Which one of the following statements correctly indicates the effect on the capacitive reactance
when the frequency is increased to 4f?
(a) The capacitive reactance increases by a factor of four.
(b) The capacitive reactance increases by a factor of eight.
(c) The capacitive reactance is unchanged.
(d) The capacitive reactance decreases by a factor of eight.
(e) The capacitive reactance decreases by a factor of four.

1
… 2. Which of the following units results when calculating the quantity, ?
2πfC
(a) F/s (c) Ω (e) Wb
(b) F ⋅ s (d) V

ˆ 3. The current in a certain ac circuit is independent of the frequency at a given voltage. Which
combination of elements is most likely to comprise the circuit?
(a) resistors only (d) a combination of inductors and resistors
(b) inductors only (e) a combination of inductors and capacitors
(c) capacitors only

ˆ 4. A battery is used to drive a circuit. After a certain amount of time, the current is zero amperes. When
the same circuit is driven by an ac generator, the current is non-zero and alternates. Which
combination of elements is most likely to comprise the circuit?
(a) resistors only (d) a combination of inductors and resistors
(b) inductors only (e) a combination of inductors and capacitors
(c) capacitors only

ˆ 5. Three 4.0-µF capacitors are connected in parallel across the terminals of a 120-Hz generator.
What is the capacitive reactance of the circuit?
(a) 39 Ω (c) 330 Ω (e) 1.0 × 103 Ω
(b) 110 Ω (d) 720 Ω

… 6. Which one of the following graphs illustrates how capacitive reactance varies with frequency?
XC XC XC

(a) (c) (e)

f (Hz) f (Hz) f (Hz)
XC XC

(b) (d)
f (Hz) f (Hz)
236 Chapter 23 Alternating Current Circuits

ˆ 7. A variable capacitor is connected to an ac source. What effect does decreasing the capacitance have
on the reactance and current in this circuit?
Reactance Current
(a) no change no change
(b) decreases no change
(c) increases increases
(d) decreases increases
(e) increases decreases

ˆ 8. The reactance of a capacitor at 110 Hz is 35 Ω. Determine the capacitance.

(a) 41 µF (c) 51 mF (e) 0.31 F
(b) 260 µF (d) 0.10 F

ˆ 9. What is the capacitive reactance of a circuit comprised of a 65.0-µF capacitor and a 50.0-Hz
generator?
(a) 49.0 Ω (c) 97.6 Ω (e) 308 Ω
(b) 72.5 Ω (d) 145 Ω

ˆ 10. An ac generator is connected across the terminals of a 3.25-µF capacitor. Determine the
frequency at which the capacitive reactance is 495 Ω.
(a) 60.0 Hz (c) 85.7 Hz (e) 152 Hz
(b) 72.4 Hz (d) 98.9 Hz

„ 11. Two 3.25-µF capacitors are connected in series across the terminals of a 60.0-Hz ac generator
that has a peak voltage of 248 V. Determine the rms current in the circuit.
(a) 0.917 A (c) 0.308 A (e) 0.107 A
(b) 0.802 A (d) 0.621 A

Questions 12 through 16 pertain to the situation described below:

The graph shows the voltage across and the

current through a single circuit element
connected to an ac generator.

ˆ 12. Determine the frequency of the generator.

(a) 0.14 Hz (d) 25.0 Hz
(b) 7.14 Hz (e) 50.0 Hz
(c) 12.5 Hz

ˆ 13. Determine the rms voltage across this element.

(a) 49.5 V (c) 112 V (e) 170 V
(b) 70.0 V (d) 140 V

ˆ 14. Determine the rms current through this element.

(a) 1.4 A (c) 3.4 A (e) 5.6 A
(b) 2.0 A (d) 3.9 A

ˆ 15. What is the reactance of this element?

(a) 20 Ω (c) 30 Ω (e) 40 Ω
(b) 25 Ω (d) 35 Ω
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 237

„ 16. Identify the circuit element.

(a) The element is a 25-Ω resistor. (d) The element is a 360-µF capacitor.
(b) The element is a 35-Ω resistor. (e) The element is a 510-µF capacitor.
(c) The element is a 0.45-H inductor.

Section 23.2 Inductors and Inductive Reactance

ˆ 17. When the frequency of an ac circuit is decreased, the current in the circuit increases. Which
combination of elements is most likely to comprise the circuit?
(a) resistors only (c) capacitors only (e) inductors and capacitors
(b) inductors only (d) capacitors and resistors

ˆ 18. Which circuit elements act to oppose changes in the current in an ac circuit?
(a) resistors only (d) both resistors and inductors
(b) capacitors only (e) both capacitors and resistors
(c) inductors only

… 19. Which one of the following graphs shows how the inductive reactance varies with frequency?
XL XL XL

(a) (c) (e)

f (Hz) f (Hz) f (Hz)

XL XL

(b) (d)
f (Hz) f (Hz)

ˆ 20. A variable inductor is connected to an ac source. What effect does increasing the inductance have on
the reactance and current in this circuit?
Reactance Current
(a) no change no change
(b) decreases decreases
(c) increases increases
(d) decreases increases
(e) increases decreases

… 21. An ac voltage source that has a frequency f is connected across the ends of an inductor. Which
one of the following statements correctly indicates the effect on the inductive reactance when the
frequency is increased to 2f?
(a) The inductive reactance increases by a factor of two.
(b) The inductive reactance increases by a factor of four.
(c) The inductive reactance is unchanged.
(d) The inductive reactance decreases by a factor of four.
(e) The inductive reactance decreases by a factor of two.
238 Chapter 23 Alternating Current Circuits

„ 22. Two 0.18-H inductors and one 0.36-H inductor are connected in series across the terminals of a
50.0-Hz ac generator. What is the total inductive reactance of this circuit?
(a) 230 Ω (c) 88 Ω (e) 27 Ω
(b) 112 Ω (d) 56 Ω

„ 23. In an ac circuit, a 0.025-H inductor is connected to a generator that has an rms voltage of 25 V
and operates at 50.0 Hz. What is the rms current through the inductor?
(a) 0.62 A (c) 3.2 A (e) 14 A
(b) 2.0 A (d) 7.1 A

… 24. Which one of the following phasor models correctly represents a circuit comprised of only an
inductor and an ac generator?
V0 V0
I0 I0
I0
2πft 2πft 2πft
(a) (c) (e)
V0

V0 V0

2πft 2πft
(b) (d)
I0 I0

Questions 25 through 28 pertain to the situation described below:

The voltage across and the current through a single

circuit element connected to an ac generator are
shown in the graph.

„ 25. Which one of the following statements concerning

this circuit element is true?
(a) The element is a resistor.
(b) The element is a capacitor.
(c) The element is an inductor.
(d) The element could be a resistor or an inductor.
(e) The element could be an inductor or a capacitor.

ˆ 26. At what frequency do charges oscillate in this circuit?

(a) 0.01 Hz (c) 0.09 Hz (e) 25 Hz
(b) 0.04 Hz (d) 11 Hz

ˆ 27. Determine the rms current through this circuit element.

(a) 1.0 A (c) 2.0 A (e) 4.0 A
(b) 1.4 A (d) 2.8 A

ˆ 28. Determine the reactance of this circuit element.

(a) 20 Ω (c) 40 Ω (e) 80 Ω
(b) 25 Ω (d) 57 Ω
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 239

Section 23.3 Circuits Containing Resistance, Capacitance, and Inductance

… 29. Which one of the following statements concerning an ac circuit is true?
(a) The current and voltage are in phase for a capacitor in an ac circuit.
(b) On average, the power dissipated by a resistor in an ac circuit is zero.
(c) For a resistor in an ac circuit, the current and voltage are 90° out of phase.
(d) Inductors in an ac circuit offer little opposition to current at high frequencies.
(e) When only resistance is present in an ac circuit, voltage and current are in phase.

… 30. Note the following circuit elements: (1) resistors, (2) capacitors, and (3) inductors.
Which of these elements uses no energy, on average, in an ac circuit?
(a) 1 only (c) 3 only (e) both 1 and 3
(b) 2 only (d) both 2 and 3

… 31. Which one of the following statements concerning the impedance of an RCL circuit is true?
(a) The impedance is dominated by the capacitance at low frequencies.
(b) The impedance is dominated by the resistance at high frequencies.
(c) The impedance depends only on the values of C and L.
(d) The impedance depends only on the resistance.
(e) The impedance is independent of frequency.

ˆ 32. When the frequency of an ac circuit is increased at constant voltage, the current increases and
then decreases. Which combination of elements is most likely to comprise this circuit?
(a) resistors only (d) a combination of inductors and resistors
(b) inductors only (e) a combination of inductors and capacitors
(c) capacitors only

… 33. For which one of the following circuit arrangements will the power factor be non-zero?
(a) a capacitor in series with an ac generator
(b) an inductor in series with an ac generator
(c) two capacitors in series with an ac generator
(d) a capacitor and resistor in series with an ac generator
(e) a capacitor and inductor in series with an ac generator

„ 34. The table below shows the values of the resistance, capacitive reactance and inductive reactance
for five RCL circuits. In which circuit will the voltage lead the current?
Resistance Capacitive reactance Inductive reactance
(a) 30 Ω 219 Ω 180 Ω
(b) 50 Ω 288 Ω 244 Ω
(c) 120 Ω 58 Ω 18 Ω
(d) 150 Ω 79 Ω 212 Ω
(e) 212 Ω 314 Ω 78 Ω

ˆ 35. The graph shows the impedance as a function of frequency for a Z

series RCL circuit. At what frequency does the capacitor make
the largest contribution?
(a) f1 (d) f1 or f3
(b) f2 (e) f1 or f2 or f3
(c) f3
f f f
1 2 3
240 Chapter 23 Alternating Current Circuits

„ 36. Complete the following statement: When the current in an oscillating LC circuit is zero,
(a) the charge on the capacitor is zero.
(b) the energy in the electric field is maximum.
(c) the energy in the magnetic field is a maximum.
(d) the charge is moving through the inductor.
(e) the energy is equally shared between the electric and magnetic fields.

… 37. An ac circuit consists of a series combination of an inductor and a capacitor. What is the phase
angle between the voltages across these two circuit elements?
(a) 0° (c) 180° (e) 360°
(b) 90° (d) 270°

„ 38. The table below shows the values of the resistance, capacitive reactance, and inductive reactance
for five RCL circuits. Which circuit will have a negative phase angle?
Resistance Capacitive Reactance Inductive Reactance
(a) 78 Ω 306 Ω 346 Ω
(b) 86 Ω 49 Ω 86 Ω
(c) 120 Ω 314 Ω 314 Ω
(d) 127 Ω 218 Ω 306 Ω
(e) 148 Ω 219 Ω 180 Ω

ˆ 39. A series RCL circuit operating at 60.0 Hz contains a 35-Ω resistor and an 8.2-µF capacitor. If
the power factor of the circuit is +1.00, what is the inductance of the inductor in this circuit?
(a) 0.86 H (c) 2.3 H (e) 320 H
(b) 1.1 H (d) 57 H

ˆ 40. Use the information given in the figure for the series 0.035 H
RCL circuit to determine its total impedance. 60.0 Hz
150 Ω
(a) 300 Ω (d) 1700 Ω
(b) 500 Ω (e) 1900 Ω 1.75 x 10–6 F
(c) 1500 Ω

„ 41. Use the information given in the figure for the series
RCL circuit to determine the phase angle between 0.035 H
the current and the voltage. 60.0 Hz
150 Ω
(a) zero degrees (d) –84°
(b) +5.3° (e) +90° 1.75 x 10–6 F
(c) –9.6°

ˆ 42. A 7.70-µF capacitor and a 1250-Ω resistor are connected in series to a generator operating at 50.0 Hz
and producing an rms voltage of 208 V. What is the average power dissipated in this circuit?
(a) 346 W (c) 19.7 W (e) zero watts
(b) 31.2 W (d) 1.66 W

Questions 43 through 49 pertain to the ac circuit described below:

An ac generator supplies a peak (not rms) voltage of 150 V at 60.0 Hz. The generator is
connected in series with a 35-mH inductor, a 45-µF capacitor and an 85-Ω resistor.

ˆ 43. Determine the rms voltage of the generator.

(a) 220 V (c) 82 V (e) 53 V
(b) 110 V (d) 75 V
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 241

ˆ 44. What is the capacitive reactance for this circuit?

(a) 59 Ω (c) 99 Ω (e) 310 Ω
(b) 85 Ω (d) 120 Ω

ˆ 45. What is the inductive reactance for this circuit?

(a) 13 Ω (c) 59 Ω (e) 99 Ω
(b) 23 Ω (d) 85 Ω

ˆ 46. What is the impedance of the circuit?

(a) 13 Ω (c) 59 Ω (e) 97 Ω
(b) 23 Ω (d) 85 Ω

„ 47. Determine the rms current in the circuit.

(a) 0.28 A (c) 0.75 A (e) 1.6 A
(b) 0.40 A (d) 1.1 A

ˆ 48. What is the power factor for this circuit?

(a) 0.47 (c) 0.64 (e) 28.3
(b) 0.54 (d) 0.88

„ 49. Which one of the following statements concerning this circuit is true?
(a) The voltage leads the current.
(b) The circuit is more capacitive than inductive.
(c) The voltage and current are exactly out of phase.
(d) The voltage and current are in phase.
(e) The phase angle for this circuit is positive.

Questions 50 through 54 pertain to the ac circuit described below:

The following table gives the reactance and rms voltage across the elements of a series RCL circuit:
Circuit element Reactance Voltage across element
resistor 2.00 × 102 Ω 86 V
capacitor 6.63 × 102 Ω 285 V
inductor 3.77 × 102 Ω 162 V

„ 50. What is the rms current in the circuit?

(a) 0.25 A (c) 0.50 A (e) 1.08 A
(b) 0.43 A (d) 0.86 A

ˆ 51. What is the impedance of the circuit?

(a) 11 Ω (c) 349 Ω (e) 1240 Ω
(b) 22 Ω (d) 486 Ω

„ 52. Determine the peak (not rms) voltage of the ac generator.

(a) 150 V (c) 300 V (e) 533 V
(b) 212 V (d) 414 V

ˆ 53. What is the power factor for this circuit?

(a) 0.40 (c) 0.81 (e) 5.5
(b) 0.57 (d) 1.4
242 Chapter 23 Alternating Current Circuits

ˆ 54. What is the average power consumed by the circuit?

(a) 37.0 W (c) 73.3 W (e) 129 W
(b) 64.5 W (d) 95.4 W

Questions 55 through 64 pertain to the ac circuit described below:

An ac generator supplies an rms (not peak) voltage of 180 V at 60.0 Hz. The generator is
connected in series with a 0.50-H inductor, a 6.0-µF capacitor and a 300-Ω resistor.

ˆ 55. Determine the peak voltage of the generator.

(a) 180 V (c) 300 V (e) 480 V
(b) 255 V (d) 360 V

ˆ 56. What is the capacitive reactance?

(a) 150 Ω (c) 360 Ω (e) 440 Ω
(b) 190 Ω (d) 390 Ω

ˆ 57. What is the inductive reactance?

(a) 150 Ω (c) 360 Ω (e) 440 Ω
(b) 190 Ω (d) 390 Ω

ˆ 58. What is the impedance of the circuit?

(a) 150 Ω (c) 360 Ω (e) 440 Ω
(b) 190 Ω (d) 390 Ω

„ 59. What is the peak (not rms) current through the resistor?
(a) 0.46 A (c) 0.65 A (e) 0.85 A
(b) 0.52 A (d) 0.78 A

„ 60. What is the phase angle for this circuit?

(a) 26° (c) 38° (e) 50°
(b) –32° (d) –40°

ˆ 61. What is the average power supplied to the circuit?

(a) 48 W (c) 63 W (e) 112 W
(b) 54 W (d) 83 W

ˆ 62. What is the peak (not rms) voltage across the inductor?
(a) 120 V (c) 190 V (e) 290 V
(b) 180 V (d) 260 V

ˆ 63. What is the peak (not rms) voltage across the resistor?
(a) 120 V (c) 190 V (e) 290 V
(b) 140 V (d) 260 V

ˆ 64. What is the peak (not rms) voltage across the capacitor?
(a) 120 V (c) 190 V (e) 290 V
(b) 180 V (d) 210 V
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 243

„ 65. A series RCL circuit contains a 222-Ω resistor, a 1.40-µF capacitor, and a 0.125-H inductor. The
444-Hz ac generator in the circuit has an rms voltage of 208 V. What is the average electric
power dissipated by the circuit?
(a) 135 W (c) 166 W (e) 102 W
(b) 81 W (d) 191 W

Section 23.4 Resonance in Electric Circuits

ˆ 66. What is the inductance of the inductor in a series RCL circuit with a resonant frequency of 640
Hz if the only other element in the circuit is a 1.2-µF capacitor?
(a) 52 mH (c) 0.12 H (e) 13 H
(b) 74 mH (d) 2.1 H

Z
ˆ 67. The graph shows the impedance as a function of frequency for a series
RCL circuit. At what frequency will this circuit resonate?
(a) f1 (c) f3 (e) f1 or f2 or f3
(b) f2 (d) f1 or f3
f f f
1 2 3

ˆ 68. A series RCL circuit is comprised of a 6.00-mH inductor and a 2.50-µF capacitor. What is the
resonant frequency of this circuit?
(a) 11.9 Hz (c) 1.06 × 102 Hz (e) 1.30 × 103 Hz
(b) 69.4 Hz (d) 8.27 × 10 Hz
2

ˆ 69. Two series RCL circuits have the same resonant frequency. Circuit A has an inductance of 0.45 H
and circuit B has an inductance of 0.20 H. Determine the ratio of the capacitances of the circuits,
CA/CB.
(a) 0.44 (c) 5.0 (e) 2.3
(b) 0.20 (d) 1.6

Questions 70 through 72 pertain to the LC circuit described below:

An oscillating LC circuit has a resonant frequency of 1.2 × 106 Hz.

The diagram shows the system at t = 0 s when there is no charge L = 0.20 mH
on the capacitor and the current is in the direction shown. At this
time, the energy stored in the inductor is 2.5 × 10–7 J.
C
ˆ 70. Determine the numerical value of the capacitance.
(a) 2.4 × 10–11 F (c) 4.4 × 10–11 F (e) 8.8 × 10–11 F
(b) 3.6 × 10 F
–11
(d) 6.8 × 10–11 F

„ 71. Determine the value of the current at the instant shown in the drawing.
(a) 0.02 A (c) 0.05 A (e) 0.12 A
(b) 0.03 A (d) 0.09 A

„ 72. Which one of the following statements is true for this circuit?
(a) When the current in the inductor is zero, ∆I/∆t = 0 A/s.
(b) The circuit will allow dc as well as ac current to flow.
(c) The magnetic field in the inductor is a maximum at t = 0 s.
(d) The charge on the capacitor will be a maximum at t = 4.2 × 10–7 s.
(e) As the current through the inductor decreases, the induced emf in the coil is directed opposite to
the direction of the current.
244 Chapter 23 Alternating Current Circuits

Section 23.5 Semiconductor Devices

… 73. Which one of the following statements best explains why semiconductors in transistors are doped?
(a) Doping makes the charge carriers mobile.
(b) Doping makes the charge carriers immobile.
(c) Doping makes the semiconducting material non-conducting.
(d) Doping changes the conductive properties of the semiconductors.
(e) Doping converts the semiconducting material into a metallic material like copper.

„ 74. Complete the following statement: The main difference between an npn transistor and a pnp transistor
is that
(a) the bias voltages are reversed.
(b) they are made from different materials.
(c) one is a bipolar transistor and the other is not.
(d) one conducts electricity and the other does not.
(e) the current directions are the same while the voltages are reversed.

ˆ 75. Which one of the following materials would be in an n-type semiconductor?

(a) silicon doped with boron (d) silicon doped with phosphorus
(b) silicon doped with gallium (e) germanium doped with gallium
(c) germanium doped with boron

ˆ 76. Which one of the following statements concerning diodes is false?

(a) A diode is fabricated by forming junctions between one n-type and two p-type semiconductors
or one p-type and two n-type semiconductors.
(b) At an n-p junction in a diode that is not connected to a battery, an electric field exists across the
junction.
(c) A battery can be connected to a diode so that a continual flow of charge results.
(d) A diode connected to an ac source allows current to flow only in one direction.
(e) Holes move in a diode under a forward-bias condition.

Additional Problems
„ 77. A 315-Ω resistor is connected in series with a parallel-plate capacitor across the terminals of a
60.0-Hz ac generator. When the gap between the plates is empty, its capacitance is 2.65 µF.
Determine the ratio of the rms current in the circuit when the capacitor is empty to that when
ruby mica (κ = 5.40) is inserted between the plates?
(a) 2.87 (c) 0.430 (e) 0.253
(b) 2.32 (d) 0.348

„ 78. Two 250-µF capacitors, with equal capacitances, and a

1.5-mH inductor are connected as shown in the figure. It is
desired to "drive" the circuit by placing an ac generator in C C L
series with the inductor. Which output voltage for the
generator will produce the largest current in the above
circuit? Assume that V is in volts when t is in seconds.
(a) V = 0.6 sin[(1.1 × 106 rad/s)t] (d) V = 1.2 sin[(2.3 × 105 rad/s)t]
(b) V = 0.6 sin[(1.2 × 10 rad/s)t]
3
(e) V = 2.8 sin[(4.6 × 106 rad/s)t]
(c) V = 1.2 sin[(5.3 × 10 rad/s)t]
6
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 245

„ 79. In the circuit shown in the drawing, the generator supplies C

the same amount of rms current at either very small or L
very large frequencies. What can be deduced about the R1 R2 R3
resistances R1, R2, and R3 from this information?
(a) R1 = R2 = R3 (d) R1 = R3 L C
(b) R1 = 2R2 (e) R2 = R3
(c) R1 = R2

Questions 80 through 85 refer to the ac circuit described below:

An ac generator supplies a peak (not rms) voltage of 120.0 V at 60.0 Hz. It is connected in series with
a 50.0-Ω resistor and a 0.500-H inductor.

ˆ 80. What is the rms voltage of the generator?

(a) 84.9 V (c) 151 V (e) 240 V
(b) 138 V (d) 169 V

ˆ 81. What is the inductive reactance of the circuit?

(a) 60 Ω (c) 377 Ω (e) 754 Ω
(b) 188 Ω (c) 514 Ω

ˆ 82. Determine the impedance of the circuit.

(a) 50 Ω (c) 195 Ω (e) 210 Ω
(b) 190 Ω (d) 240 Ω

„ 83. What is the rms current through the resistor?

(a) 2.40 A (c) 1.33 A (e) 0.437 A
(b) 1.71 A (d) 0.617 A

„ 84. What is the peak current through the resistor?

(a) 2.40 A (c) 1.33 A (e) 0.437 A
(b) 1.71 A (d) 0.617 A

ˆ 85. What is the average power dissipated in the circuit?

(a) 9.50 W (c) 74.9 W (e) 138 W
(b) 21.2 W (d) 113 W
 chapter ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES

Section 24.1 The Nature of Electromagnetic Waves

… 1. Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false?
(a) Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal waves.
(b) Electromagnetic waves transfer energy through space.
(c) The existence of electromagnetic waves was predicted by Maxwell.
(d) Electromagnetic waves can propagate through a material substance.
(e) Electromagnetic waves do not require a physical medium for propagation.

… 2. Which one of the following will not generate electromagnetic waves or pulses?
(a) a steady direct current
(b) an accelerating electron
(c) a proton in simple harmonic motion
(d) an alternating current
(e) charged particles traveling in a circular path in a mass spectrometer

… 3. Complete the following sentence: When electrons from a heated filament accelerate through
vacuum toward a positive plate,
(a) only an electric field will be produced.
(b) only a magnetic field will be produced.
(c) electromagnetic waves will be produced.
(d) longitudinal waves will be produced.
(e) neither electric nor magnetic fields will be produced.

ˆ 4. The electric field E of an electromagnetic wave y

traveling the positive x direction is illustrated in E
the figure. This is the wave of the radiation
field of an antenna. What are the direction and
the phase relative to the electric field of the
magnetic field at a point where the electric field
is in the negative y direction? x
Note: The wave is shown in a region of space
that is a large distance from its source.
z
(a) +y direction, in phase
(b) −z direction, 90° out of phase
(c) +z direction, 90° out of phase
(d) −z direction, in phase
(e) +z direction, in phase

ˆ 5. A television station broadcasts at a frequency of 86 MHz. The circuit contains an inductor with an
inductance L = 1.2 × 10–6 H and a variable-capacitance C. Determine the value of C that allows this
television station to be tuned in.
(a) 2.9 × 10–12 F (c) 1.8 × 10–11 F (e) 1.1 × 10–10 F
(b) 5.8 × 10 F–12
(d) 3.6 × 10 F
–11
248 Chapter 24 Electromagnetic Waves

Section 24.2 The Electromagnetic Spectrum

… 6. Which one of the following types of wave is intrinsically different from the other four?
(a) radio waves (c) gamma rays (e) visible light
(b) sound waves (d) ultraviolet radiation

… 7. Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false?

(a) Electromagnetic waves carry energy.
(b) X-rays have longer wavelengths than radio waves.
(c) In vacuum, all electromagnetic waves travel at the same speed.
(d) Lower frequency electromagnetic waves can be produced by oscillating circuits.
(e) They consist of mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields that oscillate perpendicular to
the direction of propagation.

ˆ 8. Which one of the following statements concerning the wavelength of an electromagnetic wave in
a vacuum is true?
(a) The wavelength is independent of the speed of the wave for a fixed frequency.
(b) The wavelength is inversely proportional to the speed of the wave.
(c) The wavelength is the same for all types of electromagnetic waves.
(d) The wavelength is directly proportional to the frequency of the wave.
(e) The wavelength is inversely proportional to the frequency of the wave.

ˆ 9. Complete the following sentence: The various colors of visible light differ in
(a) frequency only. (d) frequency and wavelength.
(b) wavelength only. (e) frequency and their speed in a vacuum.
(c) their speeds in a vacuum.

„ 10. Note the different types of electromagnetic radiation:

(1) X-rays (4) visible light
(2) radio waves (5) infrared radiation
(3) gamma rays (6) ultraviolet radiation
Which list correctly ranks the electromagnetic waves in order of increasing frequency?
(a) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 1 (c) 2, 5, 4, 6, 1, 3 (e) 3, 6, 1, 4, 5, 2
(b) 2, 5, 4, 1, 6, 3 (d) 3, 1, 6, 4, 5, 2

ˆ 11. Which one of the following colors of visible light has the highest frequency?
(a) yellow (c) green (e) violet
(b) red (d) blue

ˆ 12. What is the correct order, beginning with shortest wavelength and extending to the longest
wavelength, of the following colors in the visible light spectrum: blue, green, red, violet, and
yellow?
(a) red, yellow, blue, green, violet (d) violet, blue, green, yellow, red
(b) violet, blue, yellow, red, green (e) red, blue, violet, green, yellow
(c) red, yellow, green, blue, violet

ˆ 13. When a radio telescope observes a region of space between two stars, it detects electromagnetic
radiation that has a wavelength of 0.21 m. This radiation was emitted by hydrogen atoms in
the gas and dust located in that region. What is the frequency of this radiation?
(a) 7.1 × 1010 Hz (c) 3.0 × 108 Hz (e) 1.4 × 109 Hz
(b) 2.1 × 10 Hz
14
(d) 6.9 × 10 Hz
11
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 249

ˆ 14. An FM radio station generates radio waves that have a frequency of 95.5 MHz. The frequency
of the waves from a competing station have a frequency of 102.7 MHz. What is the difference in
wavelength between the waves emitted from the two stations?
(a) 0.22 m (c) 0.84 m (e) 42 m
(b) 0.45 m (d) 2.4 m

ˆ 15. Which one of the following wavelengths is in the infrared range of the electromagnetic spectrum?
(a) 100 mm (c) 400 m (e) 20 µm
(b) 100 nm (d) 2 × 10–15 m

Section 24.3 The Speed of Light

ˆ 16. Which one of the following scientists did not attempt to measure the speed of light?
(a) Galileo (c) Fizeau (e) Michelson
(b) Newton (d) Foucault

ˆ 17. A radio wave sent from the surface of the earth reflects from the surface of the moon and returns to the
earth. The elapsed time between the generation of the wave and the detection of the reflected wave is
2.6444 s. Determine the distance from the surface of the earth to the surface of the moon. Note: The
speed of light is 2.9979 × 108 m/s.
(a) 3.7688 × 108 m (c) 3.9638 × 108 m (e) 7.9276 × 108 m
(b) 3.8445 × 10 m 8
(d) 4.0551 × 10 m8

ˆ 18. The average distance between the surface of the earth and the surface of the sun is 1.49 × 1011 m.
How much time, in minutes, does it take for light leaving the surface of the sun to reach the earth?
(a) zero minutes (c) 8.3 min (e) 500 min
(b) 2.9 × 10−3 min (d) 74 min

… 19. A cellular telephone transmits electromagnetic waves at a frequency of 935 MHz. What is the
wavelength of these waves?
(a) 0.0106 m (c) 0.642 m (e) 2.40 m
(b) 0.321 m (d) 1.22 m

… 20. A distant space probe is programmed to emit a radio signal toward Earth at regular time
intervals. One such pulse arrives on Earth 2.92 s after it is emitted from the probe. What is the
approximate distance from the Earth to the probe?
(a) 8.76 × 108 m (c) 6.94 × 108 m (e) 3.50 × 108 m
(b) 7.40 × 10 m
8
(d) 4.12 × 10 m
8

Section 24.4 The Energy Carried by Electromagnetic Waves

… 21. Which one of the following statements concerning the energy carried by an electromagnetic
wave is true?
(a) The energy is carried only by the electric field.
(b) More energy is carried by the electric field than by the magnetic field.
(c) The energy is carried equally by the electric and magnetic fields.
(d) More energy is carried by the magnetic field than by the electric field.
(e) The energy is carried only by the magnetic field.
250 Chapter 24 Electromagnetic Waves

ˆ 22. The amplitude of the electric field component of an electromagnetic wave is increased from E to
4E. What is the corresponding change in the intensity of the wave?
(a) The intensity is unchanged by the increase in E.
(b) The intensity increases by a factor of sixteen.
(c) The intensity increases by a factor of four.
(d) The intensity decreases by a factor of four.
(e) The intensity decreases by a factor of sixteen.

ˆ 23. The peak value of the electric field component of an electromagnetic wave is E. At a particular
instant, the intensity of the wave is of 0.020 W/m2. If the electric field were increased to 5E,
what would be the intensity of the wave?
(a) 0.020 W/m2 (c) 0.25 W/m2 (e) 1.0 W/m2
2 2
(b) 0.10 W/m (d) 0.50 W/m

ˆ 24. An electromagnetic wave has an electric field with peak value 250 N/C. What is the average
intensity of the wave?
(a) 0.66 W/m2 (c) 83 W/m2 (e) 170 W/m2
2 2
(b) 0.89 W/m (d) 120 W/m

„ 25. An electromagnetic wave has an electric field with peak value 250.0 N/C. What is the average
energy delivered to a surface with area 2.00 m2 by this wave in one minute?
(a) 83.1 J (c) 2490 J (e) 9960 J
(b) 166 J (d) 4980 J

„ 26. An incandescent light bulb radiates uniformly in all directions with a total average power of 1.0 × 102
W. What is the maximum value of the magnetic field at a distance of 0.50 m from the bulb?
(a) 8.4 × 10−7 T (c) 3.1 × 10−7 T (e) zero tesla
(b) 5.2 × 10 T
–7
(d) 1.6 × 10−7 T

„ 27. A local radio station transmits radio waves uniformly in all directions with a total power of
1.50 × 105 W. What is the intensity of these waves when they reach a receiving antenna located
40.0 km from the transmitting antenna?
(a) 2.98 × 10−5 W/m2 (c) 9.25 × 10−7 W/m2 (e) 5.60 × 10−10 W/m2
−6 −8
(b) 7.46 × 10 W/m 2
(d) 1.17 × 10 W/m 2

ˆ 28. A laser uniformly illuminates an area with green light that has an average intensity of 550 W/m2.
What is the rms value of the electric field of this light?
(a) 322 N/C (c) 455 N/C (e) 891 N/C
(b) 405 N/C (d) 643 N/C

„ 29. Electromagnetic waves are radiated uniformly in all directions from a source. The rms electric
field of the waves is measured 35 km from the source to have an rms value of 0.42 N/C.
Determine the average total power radiated by the source.
(a) 4.1 × 105 W (c) 3.0 × 106 W (e) 1.7 × 107 W
(b) 8.3 × 10 W5
(d) 7.2 × 10 W
6
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 251

Section 24.5 The Doppler Effect and Electromagnetic Waves

ˆ 30. An astronomer observes electromagnetic waves emitted by oxygen atoms in a distant galaxy that
have a frequency of 5.710 × 1014 Hz. In the laboratory on earth, oxygen atoms emit waves that
have a frequency of 5.841 × 1014 Hz. Determine the relative velocity of the galaxy with respect
to the astronomer on the earth. Note: The speed of light is 2.9979 × 108 m/s.
(a) 6.724 × 106 m/s, away from earth (d) 4.369 × 104 m/s, toward earth
(b) 6.724 × 10 m/s, toward earth
6
(e) 4.369 × 104 m/s, away from earth
(c) 2.931 × 10 m/s, away from earth
8

ˆ 31. What would the speed of an observer be if a red (4.688 × 1014 Hz) traffic light appeared green
(5.555 × 1014 Hz) to the observer?
(a) 4.445 × 108 m/s (c) 8.438 × 107 m/s (e) 2.890 × 106 m/s
(b) 2.219 × 10 m/s
8
(d) 5.548 × 10 m/s
7

„ 32. A minivan moving at 38 m/s passes an unmarked state police car moving at 24 m/s. The
electromagnetic waves produced by the radar gun in the police car have a frequency of 8.25 × 109 Hz.
What is the magnitude of the difference in frequency between the waves emitted by the gun and those
that are reflected back from the speeding minivan?
(a) 180 Hz (c) 770 Hz (e) 2100 Hz
(b) 390 Hz (d) 1440 Hz

Section 24.6 Polarization

… 33. The most convincing evidence that electromagnetic waves are transverse waves is that
(a) they can be polarized.
(b) they carry energy through space.
(c) they can travel through a material substance.
(d) they do not require a physical medium for propagation.
(e) all electromagnetic waves travel with the same speed through vacuum.

ˆ 34. The magnitude of the magnetic field component of a plane polarized electromagnetic wave
traveling in vacuum is given by By = Bo sin[k z – ωt]. Which one of the following statements
concerning this electromagnetic wave is true?
(a) The wavelength is equal to k/ω.
(b) The wave propagates in the y direction.
(c) The wave is polarized in the x direction.
(d) The electric field component vibrates in the z direction.
(e) The electric field component has a magnitude of E = cBo cos[k z – ωt].

„ 35. Light emerges from a polarizer that has its transmission axis located along the x axis. The light
then passes through two additional sheets of polarizing material. It is desired to orient the two
sheets so that, after passing through both of them, the electromagnetic wave has the maximum
possible intensity and is polarized 90° with respect to the x axis. How should the transmission
axes of the sheets be oriented? Note: the following answers give the angles that the transmission
axes make with respect to the x axis.
First polarizing sheet Second polarizing sheet
(a) 45° with respect to the x axis 45° with respect to the x axis
(b) 45° with respect to the x axis 90° with respect to the x axis
(c) 90° with respect to the x axis 45° with respect to the x axis
(d) 30° with respect to the x axis 60° with respect to the x axis
(e) 30° with respect to the x axis 90° with respect to the x axis
252 Chapter 24 Electromagnetic Waves

ˆ 36. Unpolarized light of intensity S0 passes through

two sheets of polarizing material whose
S0
transmission axes make an angle of 60° with each 60°
other as shown in the figure. What is the
intensity of the transmitted beam, ST?
(a) S0/4 (d) S0/16
(b) S0/8 (e) zero
(c) 3 S0/4 ST

ˆ 37. Linearly polarized light is incident of a sheet of polarizing material. The angle between the
transmission axis and the incident electric field is 52°. What percentage of the incident intensity is
transmitted?
(a) 38 % (c) 52 % (e) 79 %
(b) 43 % (d) 62 %

ˆ 38. A linearly polarized beam of

light is incident upon a 45°
group of three polarizing E 90°
S0
sheets which are arranged so
that the transmission axis of Stransmitted
each sheet is rotated by 45° with respect to the preceding sheet as shown. What fraction of the
incident intensity is transmitted?
(a) 1/8 (c) 3/8 (e) 3/4
(b) 1/4 (d) 1/2

ˆ 39. Unpolarized light with an average intensity of 750.0 W/m2 enters a polarizer with a vertical
transmission axis. The transmitted light then enters a second polarizer. The light that exits the second
polarizer is found to have an average intensity of 125 W/m2. What is the orientation angle of the
second polarizer relative to the first one?
(a) 54.7° (c) 29.0° (e) zero degrees
(b) 19.5° (d) 70.5°

ˆ 40. Two polarizing sheets have their transmission axes parallel so that the intensity of unpolarized
light transmitted through both of them is a maximum. Through what angle must either sheet be
rotated if the transmitted intensity is 25 % of the incident intensity?
(a) 15° (c) 45° (e) 75°
(b) 30° (d) 60°

„ 41. Linearly polarized light is incident upon a polarizing sheet that has a transmission axis is parallel
to the incident light. The sheet is rotated about its axis through 360° (one complete revolution).
At how many positions, including the initial and final positions, will the transmitted intensity be
a maximum?
(a) 6 (c) 4 (e) 2
(b) 5 (d) 3
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 253

Questions 42 through 45 pertain to the situation described below:

A linearly polarized electromagnetic wave is sent through E0 S

0 30
two sheets of polarizing material. The first sheet, A, is
oriented so that its transmission axis makes an angle of 30°
with respect to the incident electric field of the wave. The
second sheet, B, is oriented so that its transmission axis 90
makes an angle of 90° with the incident electric field of the
wave. The incident beam has an electric field of peak
magnitude E0 and average intensity S0. S

„ 42. What is the peak value of the electric field amplitude after it goes through sheet A?
(a) 0.30E0 (c) 0.60E0 (e) 0.87E0
(b) 0.50E0 (d) 0.75E0

ˆ 43. What is the average intensity of the wave after it passes through A?
(a) 0.30S0 (c) 0.60S0 (e) 0.86S0
(b) 0.50S0 (d) 0.75S0

ˆ 44. What is the average intensity of the wave after it passes through B?
(a) 0.19S0 (c) 0.43S0 (e) zero
(b) 0.34S0 (d) 0.50S0

„ 45. Suppose that A and B are interchanged so that the wave is first incident upon B. What is the
average wave intensity after passing through both polarizing sheets?
(a) 0.19S0 (c) 0.43S0 (e) zero
(b) 0.34S0 (d) 0.50S0

Additional Problems
„ 46. An FM radio station emits an electromagnetic wave which is received by a circuit containing a
3.33 × 10−7 H inductor and a variable capacitor set at 7.31 × 10−12 F. What is the frequency of the
radio wave?
(a) 1.02 × 108 Hz (c) 1.58 × 108 Hz (e) 9.80 × 107 Hz
(b) 8.80 × 10 Hz
7
(d) 9.40 × 10 Hz
7

Questions 47 through 55 pertain to the statement and figure below:

The electromagnetic wave of the radiation field from a wire O

y
antenna travels toward the plane of the paper (which is in the –z
direction). At time t = 0 s, the wave strikes the paper at normal
incidence. The magnetic field vector at point O in the figure B (t = 0) x
points in the –y direction and has a magnitude of 4.0 × 10−8 T.
The frequency of the wave is 1.0 × 1016 Hz.

ˆ 47. What is the magnitude of the associated electric field E at time t = 0 s?

(a) 7.5 × 10−16 N/C (c) 7.5 N/C (e) 7.5 × 1015 N/C
(b) 1.3 N/C (d) 12 N/C

„ 48. What is the direction of the electric field?

(a) It points in the negative y direction. (d) It points in the negative x direction.
(b) It points in the positive y direction. (e) It points in the positive x direction.
(c) It points in the negative z direction.
254 Chapter 24 Electromagnetic Waves

ˆ 49. What is the direction of polarization of this electromagnetic wave?

(a) the x direction (d) 45° with respect to the x direction
(b) the y direction (e) the wave is not polarized
(c) the z direction

ˆ 50. What is the wavelength of this electromagnetic wave?

(a) 0.33 nm (c) 20 nm (e) 40 nm
(b) 3.3 nm (d) 30 nm

ˆ 51. What is the rms value of the electric field? Assume that the figure shows the peak value of B.
(a) 7.5 N/C (c) 17 N/C (e) 8.5 × 10−16 N/C
(b) 8.5 N/C (d) 1.1 × 10 N/C
15

… 52. What is the rms value of the magnetic field? Assume that the figure shows the peak value of B.
(a) 1.0 × 10−8 T (c) 2.8 × 10−8 T (e) 5.7 × 10−8 T
−8 −8
(b) 1.4 × 10 T (d) 4.6 × 10 T

ˆ 53. What is the intensity of the electromagnetic wave at time t = 0 s?

(a) 0.24 W/m2 (c) 0.48 W/m2 (e) 24 W/m2
2
(b) 0.38 W/m (d) 0.76 W/m2

… 54. What is the direction of electromagnetic energy transport?

(a) the positive x direction (c) the positive y direction (e) the negative z direction
(b) the negative x direction (d) the negative y direction

„ 55. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at point O at time t = 5.0 × 10–17 s? Note: Assume that
the figure shows the peak value of B.
(a) 1.0 × 10−8 T (c) 3.0 × 10−8 T (e) 5.0 × 10−8 T
−8 −8
(b) 2.0 × 10 T (d) 4.0 × 10 T

Questions 56 through 66 pertain to the statement and figure below:

10.0
The figure shows the time variation
of the magnitude of the electric 3.0 7.0
field of an electromagnetic wave t (×10−9 s)
E

produced by a wire antenna. 1.0 5.0 9.0

–10.0

… 56. Determine the rms value of the electric field magnitude.

(a) 7.1 N/C (c) 14 N/C (e) 28 N/C
(b) 12 N/C (d) 19 N/C

ˆ 57. What is the peak value of the magnetic field?

(a) 1.4 × 10−8 T (c) 3.3 × 10−8 T (e) 5.4 × 10−8 T
−8
(b) 2.3 × 10 T (d) 4.6 × 10−8 T
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 255

ˆ 58. What is the rms value of the magnitude of the magnetic field?
(a) 1.4 × 10−8 T (c) 3.3 × 10−8 T (e) 5.4 × 10−8 T
−8
(b) 2.4 × 10 T (d) 4.6 × 10−8 T

… 59. Determine the frequency of the wave.

(a) 1.0 × 109 Hz (c) 2.5 × 108 Hz (e) 5.0 × 108 Hz
(b) 1.3 × 10 Hz
8
(d) 3.8 × 108 Hz

ˆ 60. Determine the wavelength of the wave.

(a) 0.30 m (c) 0.79 m (e) 2.3 m
(b) 0.60 m (d) 1.2 m

ˆ 61. What is the average total energy density of this electromagnetic wave?
(a) 6.2 × 10−11 J/m3 (c) 1.1 × 10−10 J/m3 (e) 4.4 × 10−10 J/m3
−11 −10
(b) 8.6 × 10 J/m 3
(d) 1.8 × 10 J/m 3

ˆ 62. What is the average intensity of this electromagnetic wave?

(a) 0.13 W/m2 (c) 0.33 W/m2 (e) 0.54 W/m2
2
(b) 0.26 W/m (d) 0.36 W/m2

„ 63. What is the magnitude of the electric field at t = 3.34 × 10−10 s?

(a) 2.0 N/C (c) 7.1 N/C (e) zero N/C
(b) 5.0 N/C (d) 10.0 N/C

„ 64. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at t = 6.67 × 10−10 s?

(a) 1.7 × 10−8 T (c) 2.9 × 10−8 T (e) zero tesla
(b) 2.3 × 10−8 T (d) 3.3 × 10−8 T

ˆ 65. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at t = 6.0 × 10−9 s?

(a) 1.7 × 10−8 T (c) 2.8 × 10−8 T (e) zero tesla
(b) 2.3 × 10−8 T (d) 3.3 × 10−8 T

„ 66. To which region of the electromagnetic spectrum does this wave belong?
(a) X-rays (c) visible light (e) radio waves
(b) gamma rays (d) infrared radiation
 chapter REFLECTION OF LIGHT:
MIRRORS

Section 25.1 Wave Fronts and Rays

Section 25.2 The Reflection of Light
Section 25.3 The Formation of Images by a Plane Mirror
… 1. Which one of the following phrases most accurately describes the term wave front?
(a) the surface of a plane mirror
(b) the surface of a convex mirror
(c) a surface upon which a wave is incident
(d) a surface of constant phase within a wave
(e) a surface that is parallel to the direction of wave propagation

… 2. Which one of the following statements concerning rays is false?

(a) Rays point in the direction of the wave velocity.
(b) Rays point outward from the wave source.
(c) Rays are parallel to the wave front.
(d) Rays are radial lines that originate from a point source of waves.
(e) Rays for a plane wave are parallel to each other.

… 3. Which one of the following statements is not a characteristic of a plane mirror?

(a) The image is real.
(b) The magnification is +1.
(c) The image is always upright.
(d) The image is reversed right to left.
(e) The image and object distances are equal in magnitude.

… 4. An object is placed near two perpendicular plane

mirrors as shown in the figure. How many images object
will be formed?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5

ˆ 5. Daniel walks directly toward a plane mirror at a speed of 0.25 m/s. Determine the speed of the
image relative to him.
(a) 0.13 m/s (c) 0.50 m/s (e) 1.0 m/s
(b) 0.25 m/s (d) 0.75 m/s

Plane mirror
„ 6. Five balls labeled A, B, C, D, and E are
placed in front of a plane mirror as shown in
the figure. Which ball(s) will the observer see
reflected in the mirror?
A B C
(a) A only
(b) C only
(c) A and B D E
(d) A, B, D and E
(e) A, B, C, D and E
256 Chapter 25 Reflection of Light: Mirrors

„ 7. The view in the figure is from above a plane mirror

suspended by a thread connected to the center of the mirror Initial 12°
at point C. A scale is located 0.65 m (the distance from position
point C to point A) to the right of the center of the mirror. of the
Initially, the plane of the mirror is parallel to the side of the mirror 30° A
scale; and the angle of incidence of a light ray which is 0.65 m
directed at the center of the mirror is 30°. A small torque Normal
applied to the thread causes the mirror to turn 12° away to the mirror B
from its initial position. The reflected ray then intersects in its initial
the scale at point B. What is the distance from point A to position
point B on the scale?
(a) 0.37 m (d) 0.89 m
(b) 0.58 m (e) 1.0 m
(c) 0.76 m

„ 8. A ray of light is reflected from two plane mirror surfaces

as shown in the figure. What are the correct values of α
and β? 26 o
Value of α Value of β
α
(a) 26° 26°
(b) 26° 64° β
(c) 38° 52°
o
(d) 52° 26° 90
(e) 64° 26°

„ 9. In the figure, Joel is using a device known as a periscope to observe 45°

an object, represented by an upright arrow. The periscope contains
two plane mirrors tilted at an angle of 45° relative to Joel’s line of
sight. Which one of the following pairs of characteristics of the 45°
final image is correct relative to those of the object?
(a) inverted, real (d) inverted, same size
(b) upright, enlarged (e) upright, virtual
(c) inverted, smaller

ˆ 10. Two plane mirrors are connected perpendicular to each other, Only the
as shown in the figure. If a person looks into the corner at the left eye
image straight ahead of him and closes his left eye as shown, is closed.
which one of the following statements is true?
(a) The left eye of the image is closed.
(b) The right eye of the image is closed.
(c) Both eyes of the image are open.
(d) Both eyes of the image are closed.
(e) There is no image straight ahead of him, so this question is meaningless.

ˆ 11. An object is placed 1 m in front of a plane mirror. An observer stands 3 m behind the object.
For what distance must the observer focus his eyes in order to see the image of the object?
(a) 1 m (c) 3 m (e) 5 m
(b) 2 m (d) 4 m

„ 12. Two mirrors are arranged as shown in the drawing. Light is incident on the first mirror at an angle of
40.0°. The light reflects toward a second mirror. Determine the angle θ.
(a) 20.0° (c) 15.0° (e) 10.0°
(b) 25.0° (d) 30.0°
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 257

Section 25.4 Spherical Mirrors

Section 25.5 The Formation of Images by Spherical Mirrors
… 13. The focal length of a spherical concave mirror is 20 cm. What is its radius of curvature?
(a) 5 cm (c) 20 cm (e) 50 cm
(b) 10 cm (d) 40 cm

ˆ 14. The radius of curvature of a spherical convex mirror is 52 cm. What is its focal length?
(a) +26 cm (c) +52 cm (e) +104 cm
(b) –26 cm (d) –52 cm

ˆ 15. Which one of the following statements concerning a convex mirror is true?
(a) A convex mirror can form a real image.
(b) A convex mirror must be spherical in shape.
(c) The image produced by a convex mirror will always be inverted relative to the object.
(d) A convex mirror produces a larger image than a plane mirror does for the same object
distance.
(e) The image a convex mirror produces is closer to the mirror than it would be in a plane
mirror for the same object distance.

ˆ 16. A concave mirror has a radius of curvature of 30.0 cm. How close to the mirror should an object
be placed so that the rays travel parallel to each other after reflection?
(a) 10.0 cm (c) 30.0 cm (e) 60.0 cm
(b) 15.0 cm (d) 45.0 cm

ˆ 17. Which one of the following phrases most accurately describes paraxial rays?
(a) rays that pass through the principal focus
(b) any rays that are parallel to the principal axis
(c) rays that come to a focus on the principal axis
(d) rays close to the principal axis and parallel to it
(e) rays close to the principal axis, but not necessarily parallel to it

ˆ 18. Which one of the following statements concerning the image formed by a concave spherical mirror
is true?
(a) When the object distance is less than the focal length, the image is virtual.
(b) When the object distance is larger than the focal length, the image is virtual.
(c) When the object is at the center of curvature, the image is formed at infinity.
(d) When the object distance is less than the focal length, the image is inverted relative to the object.
(e) When the object distance is larger than the focal length, the image is upright relative to the object.

ˆ 19. Santa Claus looks at his reflection in a spherical Christmas tree ornament. Which one of the
following statements concerning Santa’s image is true?
(a) The image must be real.
(b) The image is farther from the ornament than Santa is.
(c) The image is larger than Santa.
(d) The image must be inverted.
(e) The image must be smaller than Santa.
258 Chapter 25 Reflection of Light: Mirrors

Questions 20 through 22 pertain to the system described below:

An object is placed in front of a concave

1
spherical mirror as shown below. The three
2
rays 1, 2, and 3, leave the top of the object and, 3
after reflection, converge at a point on the top
C F
of the image. Ray 1 is parallel to the principal
axis, ray 2 passes through F, and ray 3 passes
through C.

ˆ 20. Which ray(s) will pass through F after reflection?

(a) 1 only (c) 3 only (e) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 2 only (d) both 1 and 2

… 21. Which ray(s) will reflect back on itself (themselves)?

(a) 1 only (c) 3 only (e) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 2 only (d) both 1 and 2

ˆ 22. Which one of the following groups of terms best describes the image?
(a) real, upright, enlarged (d) real, inverted, enlarged
(b) real, inverted, reduced (e) virtual, inverted, reduced
(c) virtual, upright, enlarged

Section 25.6 The Mirror Equation and the Magnification Equation

ˆ 23. A concave mirror in an amusement park has a radius of curvature of 4.0 m. A child stands in front of
the mirror so that she appears 2.5 times taller than her actual height. If the image is upright, how far is
she standing from the mirror?
(a) 1.2 m (c) 2.8 m (e) 7.0 m
(b) 3.5 m (d) 4.0 m

ˆ 24. A convex mirror in an amusement park has a radius of curvature of 3.00 m. A man stands in front of
the mirror so that his image is half as tall as his actual height. At what distance must the man focus his
eyes in order to see his image?
(a) 2.25 m (c) 4.50 m (e) 6.75 m
(b) 3.00 m (d) 5.00 m

„ 25. A woman stands 2.0 m in front of a convex mirror and notices that her image height is 1/4 of her
actual height. Determine the radius of curvature of the mirror.
(a) 0.67 m (c) 2.0 m (e) 6.0 m
(b) 1.3 m (d) 4.0 m

ˆ 26. A concave mirror has a radius of curvature of 20 cm. For which one of the following object
distances will the image be real, inverted and smaller than the object?
(a) 5 cm (c) 15 cm (e) 25 cm
(b) 10 cm (d) 18 cm

ˆ 27. An object is 1.0 m in front of a mirror. A virtual image is formed 10.0 m behind the mirror.
What is the radius of curvature of the mirror?
(a) 0.56 m (c) 2.2 m (e) 10 m
(b) 1.1 m (d) 4.4 m
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 259

„ 28. The table below lists object and image distances for five objects in front of mirrors. For which one of
the following cases is the image formed by a convex spherical mirror?
Object distance Image distance
(a) 7.10 cm 18.0 cm
(b) 25.0 cm 16.7 cm
(c) 5.0 cm –10.0 cm
(d) 20.0 cm –5.71 cm
(e) 40.0 cm –80.0 cm

ˆ 29. An object is placed 30 cm in front of a concave spherical mirror that has a radius of curvature 40 cm.
Which one of the following phrases best describes the image?
(a) virtual and located at infinity (d) virtual and located 60 cm from the mirror
(b) real and located 60 cm from the mirror (e) virtual and located 120 cm from the mirror
(c) real and located 120 cm from the mirror

ˆ 30. An object is placed 30.0 cm from a convex spherical mirror with radius of curvature 40.0 cm.
Which one of the following phrases best describes the image?
(a) virtual and located at infinity (d) virtual and located 12 cm from the mirror
(b) real and located 12 cm from the mirror (e) virtual and located 17 cm from the mirror
(c) real and located 17 cm from the mirror

ˆ 31. A spherical concave mirror has a radius of curvature of 6.0 cm. At what distance from the mirror
should a 6.0-cm object be placed to obtain an image that is 48 cm tall?
(a) 1.3 cm (c) 4.2 cm (e) 6.8 cm
(b) 3.6 cm (d) 5.3 cm

ˆ 32. A convex mirror has a radius of curvature of 0.50 m. Where must an object be placed in front of
the mirror such that the image is formed 0.15 m behind the mirror?
(a) 0.38 m (c) 0.77 m (e) 0.57 m
(b) 0.19 m (d) 0.093 m

„ 33. A concave mirror is found to focus parallel rays at a distance of 9.0 cm. Where is the image formed
when an object is placed 6.0 cm in front of the mirror?
(a) 11 cm in front of the mirror (d) 5.6 cm behind the mirror
(b) 18 cm behind the mirror (e) 9.2 cm in front of the mirror
(c) 3.6 cm in front of the mirror

„ 34. A rubber ball is held 4.0 m above a concave spherical mirror with a radius of curvature of 1.5 m. At
time equals zero, the ball is dropped from rest and falls along the principal axis of the mirror. How
much time elapses before the ball and its image are at the same location?
(a) 0.30 s (c) 0.63 s (e) 0.90 s
(b) 0.55 s (d) 0.71 s

ˆ 35. A 0.127-m pencil is oriented perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave spherical mirror that
has a radius of curvature of 0.300 m. What are the image distance and the image height if the pencil
is 0.250 m from the mirror?
Image Distance Image Height
(a) 0.150 m −0.076 m
(b) 0.225 m −0.114 m
(c) 0.250 m −0.127 m
(d) 0.300 m −0.152 m
(e) 0.375 m −0.191 m
260 Chapter 25 Reflection of Light: Mirrors

ˆ 36. A dime is placed in front of a concave mirror that has a radius of curvature R = 0.15 m. The image of
the dime is inverted and three times the size of the dime. Determine the distance between the dime and
the mirror.
(a) 0.23 m (c) 0.10 m (e) 0.038 m
(b) 0.15 m (d) 0.075 m

ˆ 37. The inverted image of a light bulb is formed on a screen located 9.00 m from a spherical mirror.
The image is 4.00 times larger than the light bulb. Determine the object distance and the type of
mirror used.
(a) +0.444 m, concave (d) +0.0278 m, convex
(b) +2.25 m, concave (e) +36.0 m, convex
(c) +36.0 m. concave

ˆ 38. A convex mirror with a focal length of 58 cm is used to form an image that is 29 cm behind the
mirror. What is the object distance?
(a) +22 cm (c) +69 cm (e) +58 cm
(b) +15 cm (d) +28 cm

Additional Problems
ˆ 39. A 6.0-ft tall football player stands in front of a plane mirror. How tall must the mirror be so that
the football player can see his full-sized image?
(a) 2.0 ft (c) 3.0 ft (e) 6.0 ft
(b) 2.5 ft (d) 3.5 ft

ˆ 40. Which one of the following statements concerning a virtual image produced by a mirror is true?
(a) A virtual image is always larger than the object.
(b) A virtual image is always smaller than the object.
(c) A virtual image is always upright relative to the object.
(d) A virtual image is always inverted relative to the object.
(e) A virtual image can be photographed or projected onto a screen.

ˆ 41. A plane mirror is 8 ft tall. What is its focal length?

(a) zero feet (c) 8 ft (e) infinity
(b) 4 ft (d) 16 ft

Questions 42 and 43 pertain to the situation described below:

A 3.0-cm object is placed 8.0 cm in front of a mirror. The virtual image is 4.0 cm further from
the mirror when the mirror is concave than when it is planar.

ˆ 42. Determine the focal length of the concave mirror.

(a) 6.0 cm (c) 24 cm (e) 96 cm
(b) 12 cm (d) 48 cm

ˆ 43. Determine the image height in the concave mirror.

(a) 0.5 (c) 2.0 (e) 4.5
(b) 1.5 (d) 3.0
 chapter REFRACTION OF LIGHT:
LENSES AND OPTICAL
INSTRUMENTS

Section 26.1 The Index of Refraction

… 1. The table lists the index of refraction for Substance n

various substances at 20 °C for light with a fused quartz 1.458
wavelength of 589 nm in a vacuum. Through ethyl alcohol 1.362
which substance will light with a vacuum crown glass 1.520
wavelength of 589 nm travel with the greatest carbon tetrachloride 1.461
speed? crystalline quartz 1.544
(a) fused quartz (c) ethyl alcohol (e) crystalline quartz
(b) crown glass (d) carbon tetrachloride

ˆ 2. Which one of the following statements concerning the index of refraction for a given material is true?
(a) The index of refraction may be less than 1.
(b) The index of refraction may be measured in nanometers.
(c) The index of refraction does not depend on the frequency of the incident light.
(d) For a given frequency, the index of refraction is inversely proportional to the wavelength of
light in vacuum.
(e) For a given frequency, the index of refraction is inversely proportional to the wavelength of
light in the material.

… 3. The bending of light as it moves from one medium to another with differing indices of refraction
is due to a change in what property of the light?
(a) amplitude (c) frequency (e) color
(b) period (d) speed

ˆ 4. When certain light rays pass from a vacuum into a block of an unknown material, the measured
index of refraction of the material is 3.50. What is the speed of light inside the block?
(a) 1.0 × 107 m/s (c) 8.6 × 107 m/s (e) 2.9 × 108 m/s
(b) 4.8 × 107 m/s (d) 1.9 × 108 m/s

ˆ 5. What is the frequency of light that has a wavelength in water of 6.00 × 102 nm if the refractive
index for this light is 1.33?
(a) 3.76 × 1014 Hz (c) 6.65 × 1014 Hz (e) 9.52 × 1014 Hz
14 14
(b) 5.00 × 10 Hz (d) 7.25 × 10 Hz

ˆ 6. Blue light with a wavelength of 425 nm passes from a vacuum into a glass lens; and the index of
refraction is found to be 1.65. The glass lens is replaced with a plastic lens. The index of
refraction for the plastic lens is 1.54. In which one of the two lenses does the light have the
greatest speed and what is that speed?
(a) glass, 2.28 × 108 m/s
(b) plastic, 2.13 × 108 m/s
(c) glass, 1.82 × 108 m/s
(d) plastic, 1.95 × 108 m/s
(e) The speed of the blue light is the same in the vacuum and both lenses; and it is 3.00 × 108 m/s.
262 Chapter 26 Refraction of Light: Lenses and Optical Instruments

ˆ 7. The speed of light in material A is 1.25 times as large as it is in material B. What is the ratio of
the refractive indices, nA/nB, of these materials?
(a) 1.50 (c) 1.00 (e) 0.800
(b) 1.25 (d) 0.90

Section 26.2 Snell’s Law and the Refraction of Light

ˆ 8. A beam of light passes from air into water. Which is necessarily true?
(a) The frequency is unchanged and the wavelength increases.
(b) The frequency is unchanged and the wavelength decreases.
(c) The wavelength is unchanged and the frequency decreases.
(d) Both the wavelength and frequency increase.
(e) Both the wavelength and frequency decrease.

„ 9. A ray of light passes from air into a block of glass with a refractive 50°
index of 1.50 as shown in the figure.
Note: The drawing is not to scale.
What is the value of the distance D?
(a) 1.42 cm (d) 2.14 cm 4.00 cm
(b) 1.66 cm (e) 2.38 cm
(c) 1.90 cm
D

ˆ 10. A fish swims 2.00 m below the surface of a pond. At what apparent depth does the fish appear to
swim if viewed from directly above? The index of refraction of water is 1.33.
(a) 1.33 m (c) 2.00 m (e) 3.00 m
(b) 1.50 m (d) 2.66 m

ˆ 11. A grizzly bear is sitting on a rock in the middle of a calm river when she observes a fish directly
below. If the apparent depth of the fish is 0.60 m, what is the actual depth at which the fish is
swimming? The index of refraction of water is 1.33.
(a) 0.80 m (c) 0.62 m (e) 0.45 m
(b) 0.71 m (d) 0.53 m

ˆ 12. A scuba diver shines a flashlight from beneath the surface of water (n = 1.33) such that the light
strikes the water-air boundary with an angle of incidence of 43°. At what angle is the beam
refracted?
(a) 31° (c) 48° (e) 90°
(b) 43° (d) 65°
n1 n2 n3
„ 13. The figure shows the path of a portion of a ray of light as it passes
through three different materials. Note: The figure is drawn to scale.
What can be concluded concerning the refractive indices of these
three materials?
(a) n1 < n2 < n3 (d) n2 < n1 < n3
(b) n1 > n2 > n3 (e) n1 < n3 < n2
(c) n3 < n1 < n2

ˆ 14. A ray of light propagates in water (n = 1.333) and strikes a sheet of crown glass (n = 1.523). If
the angle of refraction in the glass is 35.2°, determine the angle of incidence.
(a) 30.3° (c) 35.2° (e) 45.0°
(b) 32.8° (d) 41.2°
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 263

„ 15. Light with a wavelength of 589 nm in a vacuum strikes the surface of an unknown liquid at an angle of
31.2° with respect to the normal to the surface. If the light travels at a speed of 1.97 × 108 m/s
through the liquid, what is the angle of refraction?
(a) 19.9° (c) 34.2° (e) 51.9°
(b) 26.1° (d) 39.3°

Questions 16 and 17 pertain to the statement and diagram below:

60°
The figure shows the path of a ray of light as 30° air
it travels through air and crosses a boundary water
into water. The index of refraction of water
for this light is 1.33.

ˆ 16. What is the speed of this ray of light as it travels through the water?
(a) 1.54 × 108 m/s (c) 2.86 × 108 m/s (e) 4.43 × 109 m/s
8
(b) 2.26 × 10 m/s (d) 3.99 × 108 m/s

ˆ 17. What is the angle of refraction for this situation?

(a) 0.37° (c) 22° (e) 60°
(b) 0.65° (d) 41°

Section 26.3 Total Internal Reflection

… 18. Complete the following statement: Fiber optics make use of
(a) total internal reflection. (c) chromatic aberration. (e) dispersion.
(b) polarization. (d) Brewster's angle.

ˆ 19. Which one of the following expressions determines the critical angle for quartz (n = 1.5)
immersed in oil (n = 1.1)?
(a) θc = 1.5/1.1 (c) θc = sin−1 (1.1/1.5) (e) θc = tan−1 (1.1/1.5)
(b) θc = 1.5/1.1 (d) θc = sin (1.1/1.5)

„ 20. A ray of light originates in medium A and is incident upon medium B. For which one of the
following pairs of indices of refraction for A and B is total internal reflection not possible?
nA nB
(a) 1.36 1.00
(b) 1.26 1.15
(c) 2.54 1.63
(d) 1.28 1.36
(e) 1.12 1.06

„ 21. A glass block with an index of refraction of 1.7 is

immersed in an unknown liquid. A ray of light inside 40° 40°
the block undergoes total internal reflection as shown in 50° 50°
the figure. Which one of the following relations best
indicates what may be concluded concerning the index
of refraction of the liquid, nL?
(a) nL < 1.0 (c) nL ≥ 1.3 (e) nL ≤ 1.3
(b) nL ≥ 1.1 (d) nL ≤ 1.1
264 Chapter 26 Refraction of Light: Lenses and Optical Instruments

ˆ 22. A light ray is traveling in a diamond (n = 2.419). If the ray approaches the diamond-air interface,
what is the minimum angle of incidence that will result in all of the light reflected back into the
diamond? The index of refraction for air is 1.000.
(a) 24.42° (c) 54.25° (e) 77.54°
(b) 32.46° (d) 65.58°

„ 23. A fiber optic line is composed of a core with an index of refraction of 1.47 and cladding with an
index of 1.31. Which one of the following relations best describes angles of incidence θ that will
result in total internal reflection within the fiber optic line?
(a) θ < 63° (c) θ < 27° (e) 0 ≤ θ ≤ 90°
(b) θ > 63° (d) θ > 27°

ˆ 24. Light propagates from soda lime glass (n = 1.518) into Pyrex glass (n = 1.473). Determine the
critical angle for this situation.
(a) 13.99° (c) 52.48° (e) 76.01°
(b) 45.86° (d) 65.22°

Section 26.4 Polarization and the Reflection and Refraction of Light

„ 25. A child is looking at a reflection of the sun in a pool of water. When she puts on a pair of Polaroid
sunglasses with a vertical transmission axis, she can no longer see the reflection. At what angle is she
looking at the pool of water?
(a) 45.0° (c) 53.1° (e) 77.3°
(b) 48.8° (d) 61.6°

ˆ 26. A ray of light originating in oil (n = 1.21) is incident at the Brewster angle upon a flat surface of
a quartz crystal (n = 1.458). Determine the angle of incidence for this ray.
(a) 0.82° (c) 40° (e) 56°
(b) 1.2° (d) 50°

ˆ 27. What is the Brewster angle if light is reflected from a plastic plate (n = 1.575) submerged in ethyl
alcohol (n = 1.362)?
(a) 68.3° (c) 59.8° (e) 49.1°
(b) 40.8° (d) 30.1°

Questions 28 and 29 pertain to the following situation.

Light in air is incident on a plastic plate at the Brewster angle. The angle of refraction is 35.0°.

ˆ 28. Determine the Brewster angle.

(a) 35.0° (c) 46.5° (e) 82.3°
(b) 55.0° (d) 43.5°

ˆ 29. What is the index of refraction of the plastic plate?

(a) 1.58
(b) 1.36
(c) 1.43
(d) 1.61
(e) 1.74
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 265

Section 26.5 The Dispersion of Light: Prisms and Rainbows

… 30. A ray of green light travels through air and is refracted as unknown
it enters a glass prism shown in the figure. An unknown liquid
liquid is in contact with the right side of the prism. The
light then follows the path shown. Which one of the
following statements concerning this situation is true? air glass
(a) The frequency of the light changes inside the prism.
(b) The index of refraction of the glass is smaller than that of air.
(c) The index of refraction of the unknown liquid is the same as that of the glass.
(d) The speed of light is larger in the liquid than in the glass.
(e) The refractive index of the liquid is the same as that of air.

ˆ 31. Complete the following statement: The term dispersion refers to the fact that the index of
refraction of certain materials
(a) depends on the Brewster angle. (d) depends on the intensity of light.
(b) depends on the wavelength of light. (e) depends on the polarization of light.
(c) depends on the angle of incidence.

ˆ 32. White light enters a glass prism, but the color components of the light are observed to emerge
from the prism. Which one of the following statements best explains this observation?
(a) The separation of white light into its color components is due to the increase in the speed of
light within the glass.
(b) Some of the color components of the white light are absorbed by the glass and only the
remaining components are observed.
(c) The index of refraction of the glass depends on the wavelength, so the color components are
refracted at different angles.
(d) Only some of the color components are refracted by the glass; and these are the ones that are
observed.
(e) White light is separated into its color components by total internal reflection within the
prism.

Questions 33 and 34 pertain to the situation described below:

A ray of light is normally incident on face incident ray

ab of a plastic prism with an index of
refraction n = 1.20 as shown. α
b c

ˆ 33. Determine the largest value of the angle α so that the ray is totally reflected at the face ac if the
prism is immersed in air.
(a) 28° (c) 45° (e) Total internal reflection will
(b) 34° (d) 56° not occur for any value of α.

„ 34. Determine the largest value of the angle α so that the ray is totally reflected at the face ac if the
prism is immersed in a liquid with refractive index 1.12.
(a) 21° (c) 69° (e) Total internal reflection will
(b) 34° (d) 78° not occur for any value of α.
266 Chapter 26 Refraction of Light: Lenses and Optical Instruments

„ 35. A certain type of glass is used in making flat-panel computer monitors. For light with a wavelength in
air of 656.3 nm, the refractive index of the glass is nA = 1.5160. For light with a wavelength in air of
435.8 nm, nB = 1.5290. Determine the difference, λΑ – λΒ, in their wavelengths inside the glass.
(a) 147.9 nm (c) 220.5 nm (e) 293.1 nm
(b) 156.0 nm (d) 268.4 nm

Questions 36 through 39 pertain to the situation described below:

A beam of light that consists of a mixture of red, green and violet color n
light strikes a prism (surrounded by air) as shown. Indices of red 1.43
refraction for this prism for the various colors are indicated in the green 1.40
table. An observer is located to the right of the prism as shown. violet 1.37
Incident
beam 45°

45°
45°

„ 36. Which color(s) could, in principle, be seen by the observer?

(a) only red light (c) only violet light (e) only green and violet light
(b) only green light (d) only green and red light

ˆ 37. Which physical phenomenon is illustrated by the fact that the observer will not see all three colors of
light?
(a) Doppler effect (c) diffraction (e) interference
(b) dispersion (d) total internal reflection

… 38. Which physical phenomenon is illustrated by the fact that the prism has different refractive
indices for different colors?
(a) Doppler effect (c) diffraction (e) interference
(b) dispersion (d) total internal reflection

ˆ 39. Which physical phenomenon is illustrated by the fact that the emerging rays are spread into the
component colors of the beam?
(a) Doppler effect (c) diffraction (e) interference
(b) dispersion (d) total internal reflection

Section 26.6 Lenses

Section 26.7 The Formation of Images by Lenses
Section 26.8 The Thin-Lens Equation and the Magnification Equation
… 40. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the focal length of a lens?
(a) The focal length is the same for all colors.
(b) The focal length is different for different colors because of reflection.
(c) The focal length is different for different colors because of dispersion.
(d) The focal length is different for different colors because of polarization.
(e) The focal length is different for different colors because of spherical aberration.
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 267

ˆ 41. An object is placed at the focal point of a converging lens of focal length f. What is the image
distance?
(a) f (c) 1/f (e) at an infinite distance
(b) 2f (d) 2/f

ˆ 42. An object is placed at the focal point of a thin diverging lens of focal length f. What is the image
distance?
(a) f (c) 1/f (e) at an infinite distance
(b) 2f (d) f/2

ˆ 43. An object is placed 4.0 cm from a thin converging lens with a focal length of 12 cm. Which one
of the following statements is true concerning the image?
(a) The image is virtual and 6.0 cm from the lens.
(b) The image is virtual and 12 cm from the lens.
(c) The image is real and 3.0 cm from the lens.
(d) The image is real and 6.0 cm from the lens.
(e) The image is real and 12 cm from the lens.

„ 44. A converging lens is used to focus light from a small bulb onto a book. The lens has a focal
length of 10.0 cm and is located 40.0 cm from the book. Determine the distance from the lens to
the light bulb.
(a) 8.6 cm (c) 20 cm (e) 50 cm
(b) 13 cm (d) 30 cm

„ 45. When an object is placed 25 cm from a lens, a real image is formed. Which one of the following
conclusions is incorrect?
(a) The image is upright.
(b) The lens is a converging lens.
(c) The image may be reduced or enlarged.
(d) The image distance can be less than 25 cm.
(e) The focal length of the lens is less than 25 cm.

„ 46. When an object is placed 15 cm from a lens, a virtual image is formed. Which one of the
following conclusions is incorrect?
(a) The lens may be a convex or concave.
(b) If the image is upright the lens must be a diverging lens.
(c) If the image is reduced, the lens must be a diverging lens.
(d) If the lens is a diverging lens, the image distance must be less than 15 cm.
(e) If the lens is a converging lens, the focal length must be greater than 15 cm.

„ 47. When an object is placed 20 cm from a diverging lens, a reduced image is formed. Which one of
the following statements is necessarily true?
(a) The image is inverted.
(b) The image could be real.
(c) The image distance must be greater than 20 cm.
(d) The focal length of the lens may be less than 20 cm.
(e) The refractive power of the lens must be greater than 0.05 diopters.

ˆ 48. A 6.0-cm object is placed 30.0 cm from a lens. The resulting image height has a magnitude of
2.0 cm; and the image is inverted. What is the focal length of the lens?
(a) 7.5 cm (c) 22.5 cm (e) 45.0 cm
(b) 15.0 cm (d) 30.0 cm
268 Chapter 26 Refraction of Light: Lenses and Optical Instruments

ˆ 49. A converging lens with a focal length of 12 cm produces a 3-cm high virtual image of a 1-cm
high object. Which entry in the table below is correct?
image distance location of image
(a) 8 cm same side of lens as object
(b) 8 cm opposite side of lens from object
(c) 12 cm opposite side of lens from object
(d) 24 cm opposite side of lens from object
(e) 24 cm same side of lens as object

„ 50. A camera with a focal length of 0.0500 m (a 50-mm lens) is focused for an object at infinity.
To focus the camera on a subject which is 4.00 m away, how should the lens be moved?
(a) 1.0 cm closer to the film (d) 0.06 cm farther from the film
(b) 0.06 cm closer to the film (e) 4.94 cm farther from the film
(c) 4.94 cm closer to the film

ˆ 51. A 4-cm object is placed in front of a converging lens of focal length 20 cm. The image is formed
60 cm on the other side of the lens. Which entry in the table below is correct?
object distance magnitude of the image height
(a) 15 cm 2 cm
(b) 15 cm 4 cm
(c) 30 cm 4 cm
(d) 30 cm 8 cm
(e) 60 cm 2 cm

ˆ 52. A 2.00-cm tall object is placed 40.0 cm from a lens. The resulting image is 8.00-cm tall and
upright relative to the object. Determine the focal length of the lens.
(a) 26.6 cm (c) 53.3 cm (e) 80.0 cm
(b) 32.0 cm (d) 64.0 cm

„ 53. In a slide projector, the slide is illuminated; and light passing through the slide then passes
through a converging lens of focal length 0.10 m. If a screen is placed 5.0 m from the lens, a
sharp image is observed. How far is the slide from the lens?
(a) 0.082 m (c) 0.50 m (e) 0.10 m
(b) 0.050 m (d) 0.27 m

„ 54. Joseph uses a converging lens (f = 0.12 m) to read a map located 0.080 m from the lens. What is
the magnification of the lens?
(a) +3.4 (c) +1.7 (e) +0.33
(b) +3.0 (d) +0.60

Questions 55 through 58 pertain to the statement and diagram below:

The figure is a scaled diagram of an object and a

converging lens surrounded by air. Only one focal
point, F, of the lens is shown. F
A B C D E
ˆ 55. At which of the labeled points will the image be
formed?
(a) A (d) D
(b) B (e) E
(c) C
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 269

ˆ 56. Which pair of terms most accurately describes the image?

(a) real, upright (c) virtual, upright (e) virtual, reduced
(b) real, inverted (d) virtual, inverted

„ 57. The index of refraction of this lens is 1.51 for red light and 1.53 for blue light. Blue light is
focused at the point F. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the focal
point for red light?
(a) It is also at F. (d) It is to the left of and close to F.
(b) It is very close to D. (e) It is to the right of and close to F.
(c) It is very close to the lens.

„ 58. The system is immersed in a fluid other than air that has an index of refraction that is larger than
that of the lens. Which one of the following statements is true concerning this new situation?
(a) The image will be real.
(b) The image will be inverted.
(c) The image will be enlarged relative to the object.
(d) The image will be formed on the same side of the lens as the object.
(e) The lens may act as a diverging lens or a converging lens depending on the location of the
object.

Questions 59 through 61 refer to the statement below:

A diverging lens has a focal length of –10 cm. A 3-cm object is placed 25 cm from the lens.

„ 59. Determine the approximate distance between the object and the image.
(a) 7 cm (c) 18 cm (e) 35 cm
(b) 10 cm (d) 32 cm

ˆ 60. What is the magnification of the image?

(a) +0.3 (c) +0.7 (e) +0.8
(b) –0.3 (d) –0.7

ˆ 61. Which pair of terms most accurately describes the image?

(a) real, upright (c) real, inverted (e) real, reduced
(b) virtual, upright (d) virtual, inverted

Lens
Questions 62 through 64 pertain to the
statement and diagram below: Object
F
A 4.0-cm object is placed 30.0 cm from a
converging lens that has a focal length of 10.0
cm as shown in the diagram. Note: The
diagram is not drawn to scale.
10.0 cm

ˆ 62. Where is the image located? 30.0 cm

(a) 15 cm to the left of the lens (d) 15 cm to the right of the lens
(b) 7.5 cm to the left of the lens (e) 30 cm to the right of the lens
(c) 7.5 cm to the right of the lens

ˆ 63. Determine the height and orientation of the image.

(a) 2 cm and upright (c) 2 cm and inverted (e) 8 cm and inverted
(b) 1 cm and inverted (d) 8 cm and upright
270 Chapter 26 Refraction of Light: Lenses and Optical Instruments

„ 64. A second converging lens is placed 20.0 cm to the right of the lens shown in the figure.
Determine the focal length of the second lens if an inverted image (relative to the object in the
diagram) is formed 13.3 cm to the right of the first lens.
(a) 1.33 cm (c) 13.3 cm (e) 19.7 cm
(b) 6.67 cm (d) 15.4 cm

Questions 65 through 67 pertain to the statement and diagram below:

Lens
The figure is a scaled Object
diagram of a an object and
a converging lens. The F
focal length of the lens is
5.0 units. An object is
placed 3.0 units from the
lens as shown.

ˆ 65. Approximately, what is the image distance?

(a) −2.0 units (c) +6.0 units (e) +9.0 units
(b) −4.0 units (d) −7.5 units

ˆ 66. The object has a height of 1.5 units. What is the approximate height of the image?
(a) 2.0 units (c) 5.0 units (e) 9.8 units
(b) 1.2 units (d) 3.8 units

ˆ 67. Which pair of terms most accurately describes the image?

(a) real, upright (c) real, inverted (e) virtual, upright
(b) real, enlarged (d) virtual, inverted

Section 26.9 Lenses in Combination

Questions 68 and 69 pertain to the following statement:

Two converging lenses, each with a focal length of 0.12 m, are used in combination to form an image
of an object that is located 0.36 m to the left of the left lens in the pair. The distance between the
lenses is 0.24 m.

ˆ 68. Where is the final image located relative to the lens on the right?
(a) 0.06 m to the left of the lens (d) 0.12 m to the right of the lens
(b) 0.12 m to the left of the lens (e) 0.36 m to the right of the lens
(c) 0.18 m to the left of the lens

„ 69. What is the total magnification of this lens combination?

(a) +1/2 (c) +1 (e) +2
(b) –1/2 (d) –1

Questions 70 and 71 pertain to the following statement:

A 1.5-cm tall object is placed 0.50 m to the left of a diverging lens with a focal length of 0.20 m.
A converging lens with a focal length of 0.17 m is located 0.08 m to the right of the diverging
lens.
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 271

„ 70. What is the location of the final image with respect to the object?
(a) The final image is located 0.14 m to the left of the object.
(b) The final image is located 0.32 m to the right of the object.
(c) The final image is located 0.40 m to the right of the object.
(d) The final image is located 0.83 m to the right of the object.
(e) The final image is located 1.3 m to the right of the object.

„ 71. What is the height and orientation with respect to the original object of the final image?
(a) 1.4 cm, inverted (c) 0.95 cm, inverted (e) 0.28 cm, inverted
(b) 1.4 cm, upright (d) 0.95 cm, upright

Questions 72 through 74 pertain to the 75 cm

statement and diagram below:

An object is placed 20.0 cm from a Object

converging lens with focal length 15 cm. A
F F
concave mirror with focal length 10 cm is
located 75 cm to the right of the lens as
shown in the figure. Note: The figure is not
drawn to scale.
15 cm
„ 72. Determine the location of the final image.
(a) 48 cm to the right of the lens 20.0 cm
10 cm
(b) 96 cm to the right of the lens
(c) 30 cm to the left of the mirror
(d) 0.225 cm to the left of the mirror
(e) 0.225 cm to the right of the mirror

„ 73. If the height of the object is 1.0 cm, what is the height of the image?
(a) 1.2 cm (c) 6.0 cm (e) 24 cm
(b) 2.4 cm (d) 12 cm

„ 74. Which pair of terms most accurately describes the final image?
(a) real, upright (c) real, inverted (e) inverted, enlarged
(b) virtual, upright (d) virtual, inverted

Section 26.10 The Human Eye

ˆ 75. An object is placed 15 cm from a converging lens with a 5.0-diopter refractive power. At what
distance from the object will the image be located?
(a) 15 cm (c) 45 cm (e) 75 cm
(b) 20 cm (d) 60 cm

ˆ 76. Rachel has a far point of 5 m. Which statement below concerning Rachel’s vision is true?
(a) She has normal vision.
(b) She is myopic and requires diverging lenses to correct her vision.
(c) She is myopic and requires converging lenses to correct her vision.
(d) She is hyperopic and requires diverging lenses to correct her vision.
(e) She is hyperopic and requires converging lenses to correct her vision.
272 Chapter 26 Refraction of Light: Lenses and Optical Instruments

„ 77. Without his contact lenses, Mr. Zheng can focus from 0.80 m to infinity. What refractive power
of the lenses does he require for normal reading (0.25 m from the eyes)?
(a) 1.25 diopters (c) 4.00 diopters (e) –5.25 diopters
(b) 2.75 diopters (d) 5.25 diopters

„ 78. The right lens of Josh's contact lenses is a converging lens of +2.50 diopters. He can read
a book held as close as 25 cm from his eyes. Without his lenses, Josh's right eye has
(a) a far point of 15.4 cm. (d) a near point of 15.4 cm.
(b) a far point of 40.0 cm. (e) a near point of 66.7 cm.
(c) a far point of 66.7 cm.

„ 79. Mrs. York has been prescribed eyeglasses with lenses that have a +3.2-diopter refractive power.
The glasses are worn 2.0 cm from her eyes. With the lenses, she can read a magazine held 25 cm
from her eyes. Which one of the following statements is necessarily true?
Note: The near points and far points given in the following answers are measured relative to her eye.
(a) She has a far point of 3.2 m. (d) She has a near point of 6.4 m.
(b) She has a far point of 0.25 m. (e) She has a near point of 0.87 m.
(c) She has a near point of 3.2 m

„ 80. Matthew's near point is 20.0 cm and his far point is 2.0 m. His contact lenses are designed so
that he can see objects that are infinitely far away. What is the closest distance that he can see an
object clearly when he wears his contacts?
(a) 18 cm (c) 25 cm (e) 180 cm
(b) 22 cm (d) 75 cm

ˆ 81. In a scene from a movie, a nearsighted character removes his eyeglasses and uses them to focus
the nearly parallel rays of the sun to start a fire. What is physically wrong with this scene?
(a) The eyeglasses have diverging lenses and cannot be used to focus parallel rays.
(b) The eyeglasses have converging lenses and cannot be used to focus parallel rays.
(c) Sunlight cannot be used to start a fire.
(d) A fire can only be started if the image is virtual.
(e) Parallel rays cannot be focused.

„ 82. Light that is incident upon the eye is refracted several times before it reaches the retina. As light
passes through the eye, at which boundary does the majority of the overall refraction occur?
(a) lens/aqueous humor (c) lens/vitreous humor (e) vitreous humor/retina
(b) air/cornea (d) aqueous humor/iris

Section 26.11 Angular Magnification and the Magnifying Glass

… 83. Which one of the following statements is true concerning a magnifying glass?
(a) It produces a virtual image.
(b) It produces an inverted image.
(c) It can be made from a diverging lens.
(d) The image distance will be less than the object distance.
(e) The object must be placed outside the focal point of the lens.

ˆ 84. Madison is using a magnifying glass (f = 0.095 m) while trying to solder a computer circuit board.
The image is 0.24 m from the lens. What is the distance between the glass and the circuit board?
(a) 0.052 m (c) 0.068 m (e) 0.16 m
(b) 0.060 m (d) 0.091 m
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 273

„ 85. A stamp collector observed his favorite stamp with a magnifying glass with a focal length of 24.0
cm. The image of the stamp was located at his near point distance of 30.0 cm. What was the
approximate angular magnification of the magnifying glass when the collector observed his stamp?
(a) 1.00 (c) 1.75 (e) 2.25
(b) 1.25 (d) 2.00

Section 26.12 The Compound Microscope

ˆ 86. The compound microscope discussed in Cutnell and Johnson's text is made from two lenses.
Which one of the following statements is true concerning the operation of this microscope?
(a) Both lenses form real images.
(b) Both lenses form virtual images.
(c) Only the lens closest to the eye forms an image.
(d) The lens closest to the object forms a real image; the other lens forms a virtual image.
(e) The lens closest to the object forms a virtual image; the other lens forms a real image.

„ 87. In her biology class, Chris examines an insect wing under a compound microscope that has an
objective lens with a focal length of 0.70 cm, an eyepiece with a focal length of 3.0 cm, and a lens
separation distance of 16.00 cm. Chris has a near point distance of 22.5 cm. What is the approximate
angular magnification of the microscope as Chris views the insect wing?
(a) −75 (c) −140 (e) −250
(b) −110 (d) −190

Section 26.13 The Telescope

Section 26.14 Lens Aberrations
„ 88. The moon is observed using a telescope that has an objective lens with a focal length of 3.0 m
and an eyepiece with a focal length of 7.5 cm. What is the angular diameter of the moon if the
earth-moon distance is 3.85 × 108 m and the diameter of the moon is 3.48 × 106 m?
(a) 0.36 rad (c) 9.0 rad (e) 40 rad
(b) 4.7 rad (d) 22 rad

ˆ 89. Which one of the following statements best explains why chromatic aberration occurs in lenses,
but not in mirrors?
(a) The shape of the mirror prevents chromatic aberration.
(b) The thickness of a lens varies from top to bottom.
(c) The frequency of light changes when it passes through glass.
(d) The angle of incidence varies over the surface of a lens for incident parallel rays of light.
(e) Different colors of light are refracted by different amounts as the light passes through a lens.

Additional Problems
„ 90. The length of the wing of an insect is 1 mm. When viewed through a microscope, the image is 1 m
long and located 5 m away. Determine the angular magnification if the observer’s near point of 25
cm.
(a) 50 (c) 200 (e) 1000
(b) 100 (d) 500

ˆ 91. A child sitting at the edge of a swimming pool sees a coin resting on the bottom of the pool.
The coin appears to be 2.0 ft directly below the water's surface. How deep is the pool at the
location of the coin? The index of refraction of water is 1.33.
(a) 1.5 ft (c) 2.7 ft (e) 4.0 ft
(b) 2.0 ft (d) 3.2 ft
274 Chapter 26 Refraction of Light: Lenses and Optical Instruments

ˆ 92. A physics student desires to create a beam of light that consists of parallel rays. Which one of
the following arrangements would allow her to accomplish this task?
(a) A light bulb is placed at the focal point of a convex mirror.
(b) A light bulb is placed at the focal point of a diverging lens.
(c) A light bulb is placed at the focal point of a converging lens.
(d) A light bulb is located at twice the focal length from a concave mirror.
(e) A light bulb is located at twice the focal length from a converging lens.

„ 93. The leg of a spider is 0.2 cm long. When viewed through a microscope, a person with a near
point of 25 cm sees an image 2 m long located 10 m away. What is the angular magnification?
(a) 25 (c) 100 (e) 1000
(b) 50 (d) 250

Questions 94 through 97 pertain to the statement and figure below:

Air O
The figure shows a point source of unpolarized light S S'
Crystal
at A inside a uniform transparent crystal. The ray
AO in the crystal strikes the plane surface SS' 16 cm
making an angle of 30° with the normal. This angle 30°
is the critical angle for transmission into air.
A
ˆ 94. Determine the index of refraction of the crystal.
(a) 0.58 (c) 1.7 (e) 2.4
(b) 1.2 (d) 2.0

„ 95. If point A is 16 cm below the plane SS', what is the radius of the largest circle at the air-crystal
interface through which light can emerge from the crystal?
(a) 9.2 cm (c) 18.4 cm (e) 32.0 cm
(b) 16.0 cm (d) 27.0 cm

ˆ 96. For what angle of incidence will the reflected rays of light be completely polarized?
(a) 15° (c) 30° (e) 63°
(b) 27° (d) 60°

ˆ 97. Which one of the following statements is true concerning this situation?
(a) When the angle of incidence is equal to the Brewster angle, the angle of refraction is 13°.
(b) When the angle of incidence is equal to the Brewster angle, the angle of refraction is 63°.
(c) When the angle of incidence is equal to the Brewster angle, the angle of refraction is 42°.
(d) Since the Brewster angle is less than the critical angle, there is no refraction when the angle of
incidence is equal to θB.
(e) Since the Brewster angle is greater than the critical angle, there is no refraction when the angle of
incidence is equal to θ B.
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 275

Questions 98 through 100 pertain to the statement and diagram below:

A fish swims 4.0 m below the surface

of a still lake as shown in the figure. 1.2 m
When an archer attempts to shoot the
P
fish, the arrow enters the water at point
P that is a horizontal distance 1.2 m 5 4 4.0 m
from the fish.
3
1 2

„ 98. At which of the numbered positions should the archer aim to hit the fish?
(a) 1 (c) 3 (e) 5
(b) 2 (d) 4

ˆ 99. Which one of the following phrases most accurately describes the image of the fish as seen by
the archer?
(a) real and inverted (d) virtual with its orientation unaltered
(b) virtual and inverted (e) real with its orientation unaltered
(c) real and reversed right to left

„ 100. If the archer is successful in shooting the fish, what angle does the arrow make with the
horizontal as it enters the water?
(a) 12° (c) 23° (e) 73°
(b) 17° (d) 67°

Questions 101 and 102 pertain to the situation described below:

30.0°
The figure shows a ray of light that originates Water
in an aquarium. It travels through water, is n = 1.33
incident on the glass side, and emerges into
the air. Ignore any partial reflections. glass
α n = 1.45
Note: The figure is not drawn to scale.
air
β n = 1.00
„ 101. Which entry in the table below gives the correct values for the angles shown in the figure?
α β
(a) 0.55° 2.66°
(b) 27.3° 18.4°
(c) 27.3° 30.0°
(d) 27.3° 41.7°
(e) 33.0° 52.2°
276 Chapter 26 Refraction of Light: Lenses and Optical Instruments

„ 102. Which one of the following figures shows the smallest angle of incidence in the water for which
no light emerges into air?
Note: Only one figure is physically possible.

(a) 43.6° (b) 66.5°

Water Water
n = 1.33 n = 1.33

glass glass
n = 1.45 n = 1.45
48.8°
air air
n = 1.00 n = 1.00

(c) 48.8° (d) 48.8°

Water Water
n = 1.33 n = 1.33

glass glass
n = 1.45 n = 1.45
46.3° 43.6°
air air
n = 1.00 n = 1.00

(e) 43.6°
Water
n = 1.33

glass
n = 1.45

air
n = 1.00
 chapter INTERFERENCE AND THE
WAVE NATURE OF LIGHT

Section 27.1 The Principle of Linear Superposition

Section 27.2 Young’s Double Slit Experiment
… 1. Complete the following sentence: The term coherence relates to
(a) the phase relationship between two waves. (d) the amplitude of two waves.
(b) the polarization state of two waves. (e) the frequency of two waves.
(c) the diffraction of two waves.

ˆ 2. Two identical light waves, A and B, are emitted from different sources and meet at a point P. The
distance from the source of A to the point P is LA; and the source of B is a distance LB from P.
Which of the following statements is necessarily true concerning the interference of the two waves?
(a) A and B will interfere constructively because their amplitudes are the same.
(b) A and B will interfere constructively if LA = LB.
(c) A and B will interfere destructively if LA − LB = mλ where m = 0, 1, 2, 3, ...
(d) A and B will interfere destructively if LA is not equal to LB.
(e) A and B will interfere constructively because their wavelengths are the same.

ˆ 3. Which one of the following statements provides the most convincing evidence that visible light is
a form of electromagnetic radiation?
(a) Two light sources can be coherent.
(b) Light can be reflected from a surface.
(c) Light can be diffracted through an aperture.
(d) Light can form a double-slit interference pattern.
(e) Light travels through vacuum at the same speed as X-rays.

ˆ 4. Which one of the following statements best explains why interference patterns are not usually
observed for light from two ordinary light bulbs?
(a) Diffraction effects predominate.
(b) The two sources are out of phase.
(c) The two sources are not coherent.
(d) The interference pattern is too small to observe.
(e) Light from ordinary light bulbs is not polarized.

ˆ 5. A double slit is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength 6.00 × 102 nm.
The m = 0 and m = 1 bright fringes are separated by 3.0 cm on a screen which is located 4.0 m
from the slits. What is the separation between the slits?
(a) 4.0 × 10−5 m (c) 1.2 × 10−4 m (e) 2.4 × 10−4 m
−5 −4
(b) 8.0 × 10 m (d) 1.6 × 10 m

ˆ 6. What does one observe on the screen in a Young’s experiment if white light illuminates the
double slit instead of light of a single wavelength?
(a) a white central fringe and no other fringes
(b) a dark central fringe and a series of alternating white and dark fringes on each side of the center
(c) a white central fringe and a series of colored and dark fringes on each side of the center
(d) a continuous band of colors with no dark fringes anywhere
(e) a dark screen since no constructive interference can occur
278 Chapter 27 Interference and the Wave Nature of Light

ˆ 7. In two separate double slit experiments, an interference pattern is observed on a screen. In the
first experiment, violet light (λ = 754 nm) is used and a second-order bright fringe occurs at the
same location as a third-order dark fringe in the second experiment. Determine the wavelength of
the light used in the second experiment.
(a) 1320 nm (c) 594 nm (e) 388 nm
(b) 862 nm (d) 431 nm

ˆ 8. Two slits separated by 2.00 × 10−5 m are illuminated by light of wavelength 500 nm. If the screen
is 8.00 m from the slits, what is the distance between the m = 0 and m = 1 bright fringes?
(a) 1.25 cm (c) 5.00 cm (e) 20.0 cm
(b) 2.50 cm (d) 10.0 cm

„ 9. Two slits are separated by 2.00 × 10−5 m. They are illuminated by light of wavelength 5.60 × 10−7 m.
If the distance from the slits to the screen is 6.00 m, what is the separation between the central bright
fringe and the third dark fringe?
(a) 0.421 m (c) 0.168 m (e) 0.070 m
(b) 0.224 m (d) 0.084 m

„ 10. In a Young's double slit experiment, the separation between the slits is 1.20 × 10−4 m; and the
screen is located 3.50 m from the slits. The distance between the central bright fringe and the
second-order bright fringe is 0.0415 m. What is the wavelength of the light used in this
experiment?
(a) 428 nm (c) 517 nm (e) 711 nm
(b) 474 nm (d) 642 nm
m=0
„ 11. Light is incident on two slits that are
separated by 0.2 mm. The figure
shows the resulting interference
pattern observed on a screen 1.0 m
from the slits. Determine the
wavelength of light used in this 7.5 mm
experiment.
(a) 0.05 nm (c) 50 nm (e) 5000 nm
(b) 0.50 nm (d) 500 nm

„ 12. The figure shows the interference pattern

produced when light of wavelength 500 nm
is incident on two slits. Fringe A is equally
distant from each slit. By what distance is
fringe B closer to one slit than the other?
A B
(a) 250 nm (c) 750 nm (e) 1500 nm
(b) 500 nm (d) 1000 nm

„ 13. In a Young’s double slit experiment, green light is incident on the two slits. The interference pattern
is observed on a screen. Which one of the following changes would cause the fringes to be more
closely spaced?
(a) Reduce the slit separation distance. (d) Move the screen farther away from the slits.
(b) Use red light instead of green light. (e) Move the light source farther away from the
(c) Use blue light instead of green light. slits.
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 279

„ 14. Light of wavelength 530 nm is incident on two slits that are spaced 1.0 mm apart. How far from the
slits should the screen be placed so that the distance between the m = 0 and m = 1 bright fringes is
1.0 cm?
(a) 7.9 m (c) 16 m (e) 36 m
(b) 9.5 m (d) 19 m

Questions 15 through 20 pertain to Central bright fringe

the interference pattern shown
below:

The figure shows the interference

pattern obtained in a double-slit
experiment using light of wavelength
600 nm. A B C D E
… 15. Which fringe is the same distance from both slits?
(a) A (c) C (e) E
(b) B (d) D

ˆ 16. Which fringe is the third order maximum?

(a) A (c) C (e) E
(b) B (d) D

ˆ 17. Which fringe is 300 nm closer to one slit than to the other?
(a) A (c) C (e) E
(b) B (d) D

„ 18. Which fringe results from a phase difference of 4π?

(a) A (c) C (e) E
(b) B (d) D

„ 19. Which one of the following phenomena would be observed if the wavelength of light were increased?
(a) The fringes would be brighter.
(b) More bright fringes would appear on the screen.
(c) The distance between dark fringes would decrease.
(d) Single-slit diffraction effects would become non-negligible.
(e) The angular separation between bright fringes would increase.

„ 20. Which one of the following phenomena would be observed if the distance between the slits were
increased?
(a) The fringes would become brighter.
(b) The central bright fringe would change position.
(c) The distance between dark fringes would increase.
(d) The distance between bright fringes would increase.
(e) The angular separation between the dark fringes would decrease.
280 Chapter 27 Interference and the Wave Nature of Light

Section 27.3 Thin-film Interference

Section 27.4 The Michelson Interferometer

ˆ 21. A 4.0 × 102-nm thick film of kerosene (n = 1.2) is floating on water. White light is normally
incident on the film. What is the visible wavelength in air that has a maximum intensity after the
light is reflected? Note: the visible wavelength range is 380 nm to 750 nm.
(a) 380 nm (c) 480 nm (e) 580 nm
(b) 430 nm (d) 530 nm

ˆ 22. A portion of a soap bubble appears green (λ = 500.0 nm in vacuum) when viewed at normal
incidence in white light. Determine the two smallest, non-zero thicknesses for the soap film if its
index of refraction is 1.40.
(a) 89 nm and 179 nm (c) 125 nm and 250 nm (e) 170 nm and 536 nm
(b) 89 nm and 268 nm (d) 125 nm and 375 nm.

ˆ 23. Light of wavelength λ in vacuum strikes a lens that is made of glass with index of refraction 1.6.
The lens has been coated with a film of thickness t and index of refraction 1.3. For which one of
the following conditions will there be no reflection?
λ λ 1⎛ λ ⎞
(a) 2t = (c) 2t = (e) 2t = ⎜ ⎟
2 1.6 2 ⎝ 1.3 ⎠
λ 1⎛ λ ⎞
(b) 2t = (d) 2t = ⎜ ⎟
1.33 2 ⎝ 1.6 ⎠

ˆ 24. What is the minimum (non-zero) thickness of a benzene (n = 1.501) thin film that will result in
constructive interference when viewed at normal incidence and illuminated with orange light
(λvacuum = 615 nm)? A glass slide (ng = 1.620) supports the thin film.
(a) 51.0 nm (c) 204 nm (e) 76.0 nm
(b) 306 nm (d) 102 nm

„ 25. Light of wavelength 650 nm is incident

normally upon a glass plate. The glass plate 0.0325 mm
rests on top of a second plate so that they
touch at one end and are separated by 0.0325 120 mm
mm at the other end as shown in the figure.
Which range of values contains the horizontal separation between adjacent bright fringes?
(a) 1.1 mm to 1.4 mm (c) 2.8 mm to 4.2 mm (e) 5.6 mm to 7.0 mm
(b) 1.4 mm to 2.8 mm (d) 4.2 mm to 5.6 mm

ˆ 26. A transparent film (n = 1.4) is deposited on a glass lens (n = 1.5) to form a non-reflective coating.
What thickness would prevent reflection of light with wavelength 5.00 × 102 nm in air?
(a) 89 nm (c) 170 nm (e) 357 nm
(b) 125 nm (d) 250 nm

ˆ 27. A lens that has an index of refraction of 1.61 is coated with a non-reflective coating that has an
index of refraction of 1.45. Determine the minimum thickness for the film if it is to be non-
reflecting for light of wavelength 5.60 × 102 nm.
(a) 1.93 × 10−7 m (c) 4.83 × 10−8 m (e) 8.69 × 10−8 m
−7 −8
(b) 3.86 × 10 m (d) 9.66 × 10 m
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 281

„ 28. Two glass plates, each with an index of refraction of 1.55, are separated by a small distance D. The
space between the plates is filled with water (n = 1.33) as
shown. For which one of the following conditions will
the reflected light appear green? Note: The wavelength
of green light is 460 nm in vacuum.
⎛ 460 nm ⎞ ⎛ 460 nm ⎞
(a) D = ⎜ ⎟ (d) 2D = 1 ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠ 2 ⎝ 1.33 ⎠
⎛ 460 nm ⎞ ⎛ 460 nm ⎞
(b) 2D = ⎜ ⎟ (e) 2D = 1 ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 1.33 ⎠ 2
⎝ 1.55 ⎠
⎛ 460 nm ⎞
(c) 2D = ⎜ ⎟ D
⎝ 1.55 ⎠

„ 29. The table lists the range of wavelengths in vacuum Color Wavelength (nm)
corresponding to a given color. If under white light red 780 - 622
one looks at a film that has a refractive index of orange 622 - 597
1.333 and thickness of 183 nm, which color is yellow 597 - 577
missing from the light reflected from the film? green 577 - 492
(a) red (d) green blue 492 - 455
(b) yellow (e) orange violet 455 - 390
(c) blue

ˆ 30. Monochromatic light of wavelength λfilm is normally incident on a soap film in air. In terms of the
wavelength, what is the thickness of the thinnest film for which the intensity of the reflected light
will be a maximum?
(a) λfilm/4 (c) 3 λfilm/4 (e) 3 λfilm/2
(b) λfilm/2 (d) λfilm

ˆ 31. A Michelson interferometer is used to measure the wavelength of light emitted from a monochromatic
source. As the adjustable mirror is slowly moved through a distance DA = 0.0265 mm, an observer
counts 411 alternations between bright and dark fields. What is the wavelength of the monochromatic
light used in this experiment?
(a) 193 nm (c) 258 nm (e) 369 nm
(b) 227 nm (d) 346 nm

Section 27.5 Diffraction

ˆ 32. Which one of the following statements best explains why the diffraction of sound is more
apparent than the diffraction of light under most circumstances?
(a) Sound requires a physical medium for propagation.
(b) Sound waves are longitudinal, and light waves are transverse.
(c) Light waves can be represented by rays while sound waves cannot.
(d) The speed of sound in air is six orders of magnitude smaller than that of light.
(e) The wavelength of light is considerably smaller than the wavelength of sound.

ˆ 33. Light of wavelength 700.0 nm passes through a diffraction grating. The m = 0 and m = 1 bright spots
are 6.0 cm apart on a screen positioned 2.0 cm from the grating. What is the spacing between the slits
in the grating?
(a) 233 nm (c) 467 nm (e) 1240 nm
(b) 420 nm (d) 738 nm
282 Chapter 27 Interference and the Wave Nature of Light

„ 34. Light of wavelength 625 nm shines through a single slit of width 0.320 mm and forms a
diffraction pattern on a flat screen located 8.00 m away. Determine the distance between the
middle of the central bright fringe and the first dark fringe.
(a) 0.156 cm (c) 1.56 cm (e) 6.51 cm
(b) 0.516 cm (d) 5.16 cm

ˆ 35. Light of 600.0 nm is incident on a single slit of width 6.5 µm. The resulting diffraction pattern is
observed on a nearby screen and has a central maximum of width 3.5 m. What is the distance
between the screen and the slit?
(a) 9.5 m (c) 38 m (e) 76 m
(b) 19 m (d) 57 m

„ 36. Red laser light passes through a single slit to form a diffraction pattern. If the width of the slit is
increased by a factor of two, what happens to the width of the central maximum?
Note: Assume that the angle θ is sufficiently small so that (sin θ) is nearly equal to θ.
(a) The width of the central maximum increases by a factor of 4.
(b) The width of the central maximum decreases by a factor of 2.
(c) The width of the central maximum decreases by a factor of 4.
(d) The width of the central maximum increases by a factor of 2.
(e) The width of the central maximum does not change.

ˆ 37. Light of wavelength 600 nm is incident upon a single slit with width 4 × 10−4 m. The figure
shows the pattern observed on a screen positioned 2 m from the slits.

s
Determine the distance s.
(a) 0.002 m (c) 0.004 m (e) 0.008 m
(b) 0.003 m (d) 0.006 m

„ 38. Light of 600.0 nm is incident upon a single slit. The resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a
screen that is 0.50 m from the slit. The distance between the first and third minima of the
diffraction pattern is 0.80 mm. Which range of values listed below contains the width of the slit?
(a) 0.1 mm to 0.4 mm (c) 0.8 mm to 1.2 mm (e) 1.6 mm to 2.0 mm
(b) 0.4 mm to 0.8 mm (d) 1.2 mm to 1.6 mm

„ 39. A monochromatic beam of microwaves with a wavelength of 0.052 m is directed at a rectangular

opening of width 0.35 m. The resulting diffraction pattern is measured along a wall 8.0 m from
the opening. What is the distance between the first- and second-order dark fringes?
(a) 1.3 m (c) 2.1 m (e) 3.7 m
(b) 1.8 m (d) 2.5 m

ˆ 40. The table lists the range of wavelengths in vacuum Color Wavelength (nm)
corresponding to a given color. Which one of red 780 - 622
these colors will produce a diffraction pattern with orange 622 - 597
the widest central maximum, assuming all other yellow 597 - 577
factors are equal? green 577 - 492
(a) red (d) blue blue 492 - 455
(b) yellow (e) violet violet 455 - 390
(c) green
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 283

„ 41. Diffraction occurs when light passes through a single slit. Rank the following three choices in
decreasing order, according to the extent of the diffraction that occurs (largest diffraction first):
A - blue light, narrow slit
B - red light, narrow slit
C - blue light, wide slit
Note: The blue light referred to in choices A and C is the same wavelength. Also, the narrow slit
referred to in choices A and B is the same width.
(a) A, B, C (c) C, A, B (e) B, C, A
(b) B, A, C (d) A, C, B

ˆ 42. Light with a wavelength of 644 nm uniformly illuminates a single slit. What is the width of the slit
if the first-order dark fringe is located at θ = 0.125°?
(a) 9.42 × 10–4 m (c) 4.71 × 10–4 m (e) 2.95 × 10–4 m
(b) 7.60 × 10 m –4
(d) 3.80 × 10 m
–4

„ 43. When light with a wavelength of 425 nm uniformly illuminates a single slit, the central bright
fringe, observed on a screen located 0.630 m from the slit, has a width of 0.0166 m. What is the
width of the slit?
(a) 1.61 × 10–5 m (c) 4.84 × 10–5 m (e) 1.09 × 10–4 m
(b) 3.23 × 10 m
–5
(d) 8.07 × 10 m
–5

Section 27.6 Resolving Power

ˆ 44. The Hubble Space Telescope in orbit above the Earth has a 2.4 m circular aperture. The telescope
has equipment for detecting ultraviolet light. What is the minimum angular separation between
two objects that the Hubble Space Telescope can resolve in ultraviolet light of wavelength 95 nm?
(a) 4.8 × 10−8 rad (c) 1.9 × 10−7 rad (e) 3.3 × 10−9 rad
−8 −7
(b) 7.0 × 10 rad (d) 1.5 × 10 rad

ˆ 45. A spy satellite is in orbit at a distance of 1.0 × 106 m above the ground. It carries a telescope that can
resolve the two rails of a railroad track that are 1.4 m apart using light of wavelength 600 nm. Which
one of the following statements best describes the diameter of the lens in the telescope?
(a) It is less than 0.14 m.
(b) It is greater than 0.14 m and less than 0.23 m.
(c) It is greater than 0.23 m and less than 0.35 m.
(d) It is greater than 0.35 m and less than 0.52 m.
(e) It is greater than 0.52 m.

„ 46. The headlights of a car are 1.6 m apart and produce light of wavelength 575 nm in vacuum. The
pupil of the eye of the observer has a diameter of 4.0 mm and a refractive index of 1.4. What is
the maximum distance from the observer that the two headlights can be distinguished?
(a) 8.0 km (c) 11 km (e) 16 km
(b) 9.1 km (d) 13 km

ˆ 47. Two stars are just barely resolved by a telescope with a lens diameter of 0.500 m. Determine the
angular separation of the two stars. Assume incident light of wavelength 500.0 nm.
(a) 1.22 × 10−6 rad (c) 2.44 × 10−7 rad (e) 1.22 × 10−7 rad
−5 −5
(b) 5.66 × 10 rad (d) 4.88 × 10 rad
284 Chapter 27 Interference and the Wave Nature of Light

ˆ 48. The wavelength of light emitted from two distant objects is 715 nm. What is the minimum angle
at which these objects can just be resolved when using binoculars with a 50-mm objective lens?
(a) 10−2 degrees (c) 10−4 degrees (e) 10−6 degrees
−3 −5
(b) 10 degrees (d) 10 degrees

ˆ 49. Two candles are lit and separated by 0.10 m. If the diameter of the pupil of an observer’s eye is
3.5 mm, what is the maximum distance that the candles can be away from the observer and be
seen as two light sources? Use 545 nm for the wavelength of light in the eye.
(a) 170 m (c) 530 m (e) 850 m
(b) 340 m (d) 680 m

Section 27.7 The Diffraction Grating

Section 27.8 Compact Discs, Digital Video Discs, and the Use of Interference
ˆ 50. A 30.0-mm wide diffraction grating produces a deviation of 30.0° in the second order principal
maxima. The wavelength of light is 600.0 nm. What is the total number of slits on the grating?
(a) 10 000 (c) 12 500 (e) 15 000
(b) 11 500 (d) 14 000

„ 51. A beam of light that consists of a mixture of red light (λ = 660 nm in vacuum) and violet light
(λ = 410 nm in vacuum) falls on a grating that contains 1.0 × 104 lines/cm. Find the angular
separation between the first-order maxima of the two wavelengths if the experiment takes
place in a vacuum.
(a) 11° (c) 24° (e) 65°
(b) 17° (d) 41°

ˆ 52. Red light of wavelength 600.0 nm is incident on a grating. If the separation between the slits is
5.0 × 10−5 m, at what angle does the first principal maximum occur?
(a) 0.6 × 10−2 rad (c) 1.2 × 10−2 rad (e) 5.0 × 10−2 rad
−2 −2
(b) 0.8 × 10 rad (d) 3.6 × 10 rad

ˆ 53. A diffraction grating that has 4500 lines/cm is illuminated by light that has a single wavelength. If
a second order maximum is observed at an angle of 42° with respect to the central maximum,
what is the wavelength of this light?
(a) 1500 nm (c) 930 nm (e) 740 nm
(b) 370 nm (d) 1100 nm

ˆ 54. Light from two sources, λ1 = 623 nm and λ2 = 488 nm, is incident on a diffraction grating that has
5550 lines/cm. What is the angular separation, θ1 – θ2, of the second order maxima of the two waves?
(a) 11.0° (c) 25.0° (e) 43.8°
(b) 15.0° (d) 32.8°

m=1
„ 55. Light from a laser (λ = 640 nm) passes through a
diffraction grating and spreads out into three beams 4 cm
grating
as shown in the figure. Determine the spacing
Incident
between the slits of the grating. m=0
beam
(a) 240 nm (d) 680 nm
(b) 410 nm (e) 800 nm
(c) 500 nm screen

3 cm m=1
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 285

ˆ 56. Visible light of wavelength 589 nm is incident on a diffraction grating that has 3500 lines/cm. At
what angle with respect to the central maximum is the fifth order maximum observed?
(a) 17.9° (c) 35.7° (e) A fifth order maximum
(b) 23.8° (d) 71.3° cannot be observed.

ˆ 57. White light is passed through a diffraction grating that has 2.50 × 105 lines/m. On each side of the
white central maximum, a spectrum of colors is observed. What is the wavelength of the light
observed at an angle of 7.00° in the first-order bright fringes?
(a) 487 nm (c) 632 nm (e) 731 nm
(b) 589 nm (d) 668 nm

Additional Problems
ˆ 58. Which one of the following statements provides the most convincing evidence that electromagnetic
waves have a transverse character?
(a) Electromagnetic waves can be refracted. (d) Electromagnetic waves can be diffracted.
(b) Electromagnetic waves can be reflected. (e) Electromagnetic waves exhibit interference.
(c) Electromagnetic waves can be polarized.

„ 59. Light of wavelength 530 nm is incident on two slits that are spaced 1.0 mm apart. If each of the slits
has a width of 0.10 mm, how many interference maxima lie within the central diffraction peak?
(a) 1 (c) 12 (e) infinity
(b) 4 (d) 21
 chapter SPECIAL RELATIVITY

Section 28.1 Events and Inertial Reference Frames

Section 28.2 The Postulates of Special Relativity
Section 28.3 The Relativity of Time: Time Dilation
ˆ 1. At time t = 2.3 s, a 4-kg block that initially moves with a constant speed of 6 m/s undergoes an
inelastic collision with another block. Any two inertial observers must agree that
(a) the event took place at t = 2.3 s.
(b) the initial speed of the block is 6 m/s.
(c) the initial momentum of the block has magnitude 24 kg ⋅ m/s.
(d) the second block is moving after the collision.
(e) the momentum of the two block system is conserved during the collision.

ˆ 2. Which one of the following systems would constitute an inertial reference frame?
(a) a weather balloon descending at constant velocity
(b) a rocket undergoing uniform acceleration
(c) a train rounding a turn at constant speed
(d) an orbiting space station
(e) a rotating merry-go-round

ˆ 3. Which one of the following is a consequence of the postulates of special relativity?

(a) There is no such thing as an inertial reference frame.
(b) Newton's laws of motion apply in every reference frame.
(c) Coulomb's law of electrostatics applies in any reference frame.
(d) The question of whether an object is at rest in the universe is meaningless.
(e) The value of every physical quantity depends on the reference frame in which it is measured.

… 4. Complete the following statement: The Michelson-Morley experiment

(a) confirmed that time dilation occurs.
(b) proved that length contraction occurs.
(c) verified the conservation of momentum in inertial reference frames.
(d) supported the relationship between mass and energy.
(e) indicated that the speed of light is the same in all inertial reference frames.

… 5. Jasmine is moving in a spaceship at a constant velocity away from a group of stars. Which
one of the following statements indicates a method by which she can determine her absolute
velocity through space?
(a) She can measure her increase in mass.
(b) She can measure the contraction of her ship.
(c) She can measure the vibration frequency of a quartz crystal.
(d) She can measure the change in total energy of her ship.
(e) She can perform no measurement to determine this quantity.

… 6. Which one of the following statements concerning the proper time interval between two events is
true?
(a) It is the longest time interval that any inertial observer can measure for the event.
(b) It is the shortest time interval that any inertial observer can measure for the event.
(c) It is the time measured by an observer who is in motion with respect to the event.
(d) Its value depends upon the speed of the observer.
(e) Its value depends upon the choice of reference frame.
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 287

… 7. Which one of the following statements concerning time dilation is true?

(a) Time dilation is predicted by special relativity, but has never been observed.
(b) Time dilation has been observed only in experiments involving radioactive decay processes.
(c) Time dilation has been observed in experiments involving both atomic clocks and radioactive
decay processes.
(d) Time dilation was demonstrated by the Michelson-Morley experiment.
(e) Time dilation has been disproved in experiments with atomic clocks.

ˆ 8. Which one of the following statements is a consequence of Special Relativity?

(a) Clocks that are moving run slower than when they are at rest.
(b) The length of a moving object is larger than it was at rest.
(c) Events occur at the same coordinates for observers in all inertial reference frames.
(d) Events occur at the same time for observers in all inertial reference frames.
(e) The speed of light has the same value for observers in all reference frames.

ˆ 9. Two helium-filled balloons are released y

simultaneously at points A and B on the x axis in
an earth-based reference frame. Which one of
the following statements is true for an observer
moving in the +x direction?
(a) The observer always sees the balloons x
released simultaneously. A B
(b) The observer could see either balloon
released first depending on her speed and the distance between A and B.
(c) The observer sees balloon A released before balloon B.
(d) The observer sees balloon B released before balloon A.
(e) The observer cannot determine whether they were released separately or simultaneously.

ˆ 10. In the year 2100, an astronaut wears an antique, but accurate, “quartz" wristwatch on a
journey at a speed of 2.0 × 108 m/s. According to mission control in Houston, the trip lasts
12 hours. How long was the trip as measured on the watch?
(a) 6.7 hr (c) 12.0 hr (e) 21.6 hr
(b) 8.9 hr (d) 16.1 hr

ˆ 11. In a science fiction novel, a starship takes three days to travel between two distant space stations
according to its own clocks. Instruments on one of the space stations indicate that the trip took four
days. How fast did the starship travel, relative to the space station?
(a) 1.98 × 108 m/s (c) 2.51 × 108 m/s (e) 2.99 × 108 m/s
(b) 2.24 × 10 m/s
8
(d) 2.83 × 10 m/s
8

ˆ 12. The proper mean lifetime of a muon is 2.2 × 10−6 s. A beam of muons is moving with speed 0.6c
relative to an inertial observer. How far will a muon in the beam travel, on average, before it decays?
(a) 288 m (c) 500 m (e) 800 m
(b) 360 m (d) 600 m

ˆ 13. A bomb is designed to explode 2.00 s after it is armed. The bomb is launched from earth and
accelerated to an unknown final speed. After reaching its final speed, however, the bomb is
observed by people on earth to explode 4.25 s after it is armed. What is the final speed of the
bomb just before it explodes?
(a) 0.995c (c) 0.939c (e) 0.882c
(b) 0.971c (d) 0.904c
288 Chapter 28 Special Relativity

ˆ 14. During a baseball game, a batter hits a ball directly back to the pitcher who catches it. An observer
flying over the stadium at a speed of 0.75c, measures 0.658 s as the time between the two events
(hitting and catching the ball). What is the proper time interval between the two events?
(a) 0.288 s (c) 0.658 s (e) 0.994 s
(b) 0.435 s (d) 0.715 s

ˆ 15. A spaceship traveling at 0.8550c relative to the Earth monitors a motorcycle drag race on Earth.
The space travelers measure the time from the start to the finish of the race to be 14.46 s. What is
the proper time interval for the motorcycle race?
(a) 7.499 s (c) 10.22 s (e) 27.90 s
(b) 8.348 s (d) 14.46 s

ˆ 16. Mars rotates about its axis once every 88 642 s. A spacecraft comes into the solar system and
heads directly toward Mars at a speed of 0.800c. What is the rotational period of Mars according
to the beings on the spaceship?
(a) 53 100 s (c) 105 000 s (e) 181 000 s
(b) 88 600 s (d) 148 000 s

Section 28.4 The Relativity of Length: Length Contraction

… 17. Complete the following statement: To measure the proper length of an object moving relative to
the surface of the earth, one must note the coordinates of points on the front and back ends
(a) at the same time with respect to a clock at rest on the earth.
(b) at different times with respect to a clock on the moving object.
(c) at the same time with respect to a clock on the moving object.
(d) at different times with respect to a clock at rest on the earth.
(e) at the same time with respect to a clock moving at the same speed on the surface of the earth.

ˆ 18. Which one of the following statements concerning the proper length of a meter stick is true?
(a) The proper length is always one meter.
(b) The proper length depends upon the speed of the observer.
(c) The proper length depends upon the acceleration of the observer.
(d) The proper length depends upon the reference frame in which it is measured.
(e) The proper length is the length measured by an observer who is moving with respect to the
meter stick.

ˆ 19. A meter stick is observed to be only 0.900 meters long to an inertial observer. At what speed,
relative to the observer, must the meter stick be moving?
(a) 0.44 × 108 m/s (c) 0.95 × 108 m/s (e) 2.70 × 108 m/s
(b) 0.57 × 10 m/s
8
(d) 1.31 × 10 m/s
8

ˆ 20. A UFO flies directly over a football stadium at a speed of 0.50c. If the proper length of the field
is 100 yards, what field length is measured by the crew of the UFO?
(a) 59 yards (c) 87 yards (e) 121 yards
(b) 75 yards (d) 113 yards

ˆ 21. A spaceship leaves our solar system at a constant speed of 0.900c and travels to a point in the
Andromeda galaxy. According to astronomers in an inertial reference frame on Earth, the distance to
the galaxy is 2.081 × 1022 m. What distance does the crew on the ship measure on its journey?
(a) 9.07 × 1021 m (c) 1.91 × 1022 m (e) 4.77 × 1022 m
(b) 9.85 × 10 m21
(d) 2.83 × 10 m22
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 289

ˆ 22. The Milky Way galaxy is a part of a group of galaxies called the Local Group. The proper distance
from the Milky Way, on one side of the Local Group, to the M31 galaxy on the other side is
approximately 2.4 × 106 light-years. How long (in years) would it take a spaceship traveling at 0.999c
to travel this distance according to travelers onboard?
(a) 2.4 × 106 years (c) 1.1 × 105 years (e) 2.0 × 104 years
(b) 8.4 × 10 years
5
(d) 5.6 × 10 years
4

Section 28.5 Relativistic Momentum

ˆ 23. A proton has a mass of 1.673 × 10−27 kg. If the proton is accelerated to a speed of 0.93c, what is the
magnitude of the relativistic momentum of the proton?
(a) 6.2 × 10–17 kg ⋅ m/s (c) 4.7 × 10–19 kg ⋅ m/s (e) 1.6 × 10–27 kg ⋅ m/s
(b) 1.3 × 10 kg ⋅ m/s
–18
(d) 5.9 × 10 kg ⋅ m/s
–24

ˆ 24. An electron gun inside a computer monitor sends an electron toward the screen at a speed of
1.20 × 108 m/s. If the mass of the electron is 9.109 × 10−31 kg, what is the magnitude of its
relativistic momentum?
(a) 9.88 × 10−23 kg ⋅ m/s (c) 1.19 × 10−22 kg ⋅ m/s (e) 3.25 × 10−22 kg ⋅ m/s
−22 −22
(b) 1.09 × 10 kg ⋅ m/s (d) 1.41 × 10 kg ⋅ m/s

ˆ 25. In the distant future, a 5.40 × 105-kg intergalactic ship leaves Earth orbit and accelerates to a
constant speed of 0.92c. Determine the difference, p – p0, between the relativistic and classical
momenta of the ship.
(a) 3.9 × 1014 kg ⋅ m/s (c) 8.0 × 1013 kg ⋅ m/s (e) 1.2 × 1013 kg ⋅ m/s
(b) 2.3 × 10 kg ⋅ m/s
14
(d) 5.8 × 10 kg ⋅ m/s
13

„ 26. The momentum of an electron is 1.60 times larger than the value computed non-relativistically.
What is the speed of the electron?
(a) 2.94 × 108 m/s (c) 2.61 × 108 m/s (e) 1.83 × 108 m/s
(b) 2.76 × 10 m/s
8
(d) 2.34 × 10 m/s
8

Section 28.6 The Equivalence of Mass and Energy

ˆ 27. Determine the total energy of an electron traveling at 0.98c.
(a) 0.25 MeV (c) 0.76 MeV (e) 2.6 MeV
(b) 0.51 MeV (d) 1.8 MeV

ˆ 28. Determine the speed at which the kinetic energy of an electron is equal to twice its rest energy.
(a) 0.45c (c) 0.87c (e) 0.99c
(b) 0.63c (d) 0.94c

ˆ 29. A muon has rest energy 105 MeV. What is its kinetic energy when its speed is 0.95c?
(a) 37 MeV (c) 231 MeV (e) 741 MeV
(b) 47 MeV (d) 441 MeV

ˆ 30. A space ship at rest on a launching pad has a mass of 1.00 × 105 kg. How much will its energy
have increased when the ship is moving at 0.600c?
(a) 1.12 × 1021 J (c) 2.25 × 1021 J (e) 9.00 × 1021 J
(b) 1.62 × 10 J
21
(d) 6.00 × 10 J
21
290 Chapter 28 Special Relativity

„ 31. The rest energies of three subatomic particles are:

Particle X: 107 MeV; Particle Y: 140 MeV; Particle Z: 0.51 MeV.
Which one of the following statements is necessarily true concerning these three particles?
(a) Particle Z, at rest, could decay into particle X and give off electromagnetic radiation.
(b) Particle X, at rest, could decay into particle Y and give off electromagnetic radiation.
(c) Particle X, at rest, could decay into particles Y and Z and give off electromagnetic radiation.
(d) Particle Y, at rest, could decay into particles X and Z and give off electromagnetic radiation.
(e) Particle Z, at rest, could decay into particles X and Y and give off electromagnetic radiation.

„ 32. The temperature of a 5.00-kg lead brick is increased by 225 C°. If the specific heat capacity of
lead is 128 J/(kg ⋅ C°), what is the increase in the mass of the lead brick when it has reached its
final temperature?
(a) 4.33 × 10−11 kg (c) 1.60 × 10−12 kg (e) 4.80 × 10−4 kg
−11 −12
(b) 9.66 × 10 kg (d) 2.40 × 10 kg

ˆ 33. How much energy would be released if 1.0 g of material were completely converted into energy?
(a) 9 × 108 J (c) 9 × 1011 J (e) 9 × 1016 J
(b) 9 × 109 J (d) 9 × 1013 J

ˆ 34. A particle travels at 0.60c. Determine the ratio of its kinetic energy to its rest energy.
(a) 0.25 (c) 0.60 (e) 0.80
(b) 0.50 (d) 0.64

„ 35. The average power output of a nuclear power plant is 5.00 × 102 MW. In one minute, what is the
change in the mass of the nuclear fuel due to the energy being taken from the reactor? Assume
100% efficiency.
(a) 9.3 × 10−17 kg (c) 3.3 × 10−13 kg (e) 9.3 kg
−11
(b) 9.3 × 10 kg (d) 3.3 × 10−7 kg

ˆ 36. At what speed is a particle traveling if its kinetic energy is three times its rest energy?
(a) 0.879c (c) 0.943c (e) 0.989c
(b) 0.918c (d) 0.968c

ˆ 37. How much energy is required to accelerate a golf ball of mass 0.046 kg initially at rest to a speed
of 0.75c?
(a) 1.2 × 1014 J (c) 6.3 × 1015 J (e) 7.5 × 1016 J
(b) 2.1 × 10 J
15
(d) 3.6 × 10 J
16

ˆ 38. Calculate the ratio of the relativistic kinetic energy to the classical kinetic energy, KErel/KEclass, for
an electron (mass = 9.109 × 10−31 kg) moving with a constant speed of 0.75c.
(a) 1.8 (c) 1.4 (e) 0.56
(b) 1.6 (d) 0.74

„ 39. During each hour of flight, a large jet airplane consumes 3330 gallons of fuel via combustion.
Combustion releases 1.25 × 106 joules/gallon. One gallon of fuel has a mass of 2.84 kg. Calculate
the energy equivalent of 3330 gallons of fuel and determine the ratio (in percent) of this energy
equivalent to the amount of energy released by combustion in one hour of flight.
(a) 7.63 × 10–6 % (c) 2.42 × 10–8 % (e) 4.89 × 10–10 %
(b) 1.20 × 10 %–7
(d) 6.75 × 10 %–9
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 291

Questions 40 through 44 pertain to the situation described below:

A subatomic particle X spontaneously decays into two particles, A and B, each of rest energy
1.40 × 102 MeV. The particles fly off in opposite directions, each with speed 0.827c relative
to an inertial reference frame S.

ˆ 40. Determine the total energy of particle A.

(a) 109 MeV (c) 200 MeV (e) 314 MeV
(b) 140 MeV (d) 249 MeV

ˆ 41. Determine the kinetic energy of particle B (relative to frame S).

(a) 109 MeV (c) 206 MeV (e) 314 MeV
(b) 140 MeV (d) 249 MeV

… 42. Which one of the following statements concerning particle X is true?

(a) Momentum conservation requires that it was moving in frame S.
(b) Energy conservation requires that it must have been at rest in frame S.
(c) Momentum conservation requires that it must have been at rest in frame S.
(d) Energy conservation requires that its total energy was 280 MeV in frame S.
(e) There is not enough information to determine its state of motion at the time of the decay.

„ 43. Which expression gives the momentum of particle A (relative to frame S)?
(a) 109 MeV/c (c) 206 MeV/c (e) 314 MeV/c
(b) 140 MeV/c (d) 249 MeV/c

„ 44. Use energy conservation to determine the rest energy of particle X.

(a) 206 MeV (c) 280 MeV (e) 498 MeV
(b) 249 MeV (d) 392 MeV

Section 28.7 The Relativistic Addition of Velocities

ˆ 45. Two spaceships are observed from earth to be approaching each other along a straight line.
Ship A moves at 0.40c relative to the earth observer, while ship B moves at 0.50c relative to
the same observer. What speed does the captain of ship A report for the speed of ship B?
(a) 0.10c (c) 0.85c (e) 0.99c
(b) 0.75c (d) 0.95c

„ 46. Spaceship A travels at 0.400c relative to an earth observer. According to the same observer,
spaceship A overtakes a slower moving spaceship B that moves in the same direction. The
captain of B sees A pass her ship at 0.114c. Determine the speed of B relative to the earth
observer.
(a) 0.100c (c) 0.300c (e) 0.700c
(b) 0.214c (d) 0.625c

ˆ 47. An earth observer sees an alien ship pass overhead at 0.3c. The ion gun of the alien ship shoots
ions straight ahead of the ship at a speed 0.4c relative to the ship. What is the speed of the ions
relative to the earth observer?
(a) 0.40c (c) 0.70c (e) 0.99c
(b) 0.63c (d) 0.79c
292 Chapter 28 Special Relativity

ˆ 48. Two rockets, A and B, travel toward each other with speeds 0.5c relative to an inertial observer.
0.5c 0.5c
A B

inertial
observer

Determine the speed of rocket A relative to rocket B.

(a) 0.2c (c) 0.6c (e) c
(b) 0.4c (d) 0.8c

ˆ 49. The starship Enterprise approaches the Klingon home world with speed 0.6c relative to the planet.
To announce its arrival, the Enterprise sends a message in a projectile that travels toward the
planet with speed 0.4c relative to the Enterprise. At what speed does a Klingon at the surface of
the planet see the projectile approach?
(a) 0.2c (c) 0.5c (e) 0.8c
(b) 0.4c (d) 0.6c

ˆ 50. An astronomer on earth observes two galaxies moving away from each other along a line that
passes through the earth. The astronomer finds that each is moving with a speed of 2.1 × 108 m/s
relative to the earth. At what speed are the galaxies moving apart relative to each other?
(a) 2.8 × 108 m/s (c) 2.1 × 108 m/s (e) 1.4 × 108 m/s
(b) 2.4 × 10 m/s
8
(d) 1.8 × 10 m/s
8

„ 51. The starship Enterprise approaches the planet Risa at a speed of 0.8c relative to the planet. On the
way, it overtakes the intergalactic freighter Astra. The relative speed of the two ships as measured
by the navigator on the Enterprise is 0.5c. At what speed is Astra approaching the planet?
(a) 0.3c (c) 0.6c (e) 0.99c
(b) 0.5c (d) 0.92c

„ 52. Rocket A travels with speed 0.800c relative to the earth. Rocket B passes rocket A with speed
0.500c relative to rocket A.
B

0.800c A

Determine the speed of rocket B relative to the earth. Assume that the earth is an inertial
reference frame.
(a) 0.714c (c) 1.30c (e) 1.70c
(b) 0.929c (d) 1.40c
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 293

ˆ 53. Astronomers on Earth, an inertial reference frame, observe galaxies A and B that are moving
away from the Earth as shown. The speeds indicated are those measured by the astronomers on
Earth.
0.82c 0.60c

Galaxy A Earth Galaxy B

What is the speed of galaxy B as measured by an observer in galaxy A?
(a) 0.22c (c) 0.71c (e) 1.42c
(b) 0.60c (d) 0.95c

Additional Problems
… 54. Complete the following statement: The results of special relativity indicate that
(a) Newtonian mechanics is a valid approximation at low speeds (v << c).
(b) the laws of electromagnetism are invalid at speeds that are comparable to that of light.
(c) Newtonian mechanics is an incorrect theory.
(d) moving clocks run fast compared to when they are at rest.
(e) moving objects appear to be longer than when they are at rest.

„ 55. A cubic asteroid with proper side length 10.0 m is

stationary in an inertial reference frame S. A 0.8c
10 m
rocket ship moves along one side of the asteroid as
shown in the figure with speed 0.80c relative to
frame S. An astronaut in the rocket ship measures
the volume of the asteroid. What volume does the
astronaut measure? 10 m
(a) 220 m3 (c) 360 m3 (e) 1000 m3
3
(b) 300 m (d) 600 m3

Questions 56 and 57 pertain to the situation described below:

The rest energy of a block is E0. Relative to inertial observer O, the block is moving with speed v
v2 1
so that 1− = .
c2 4

„ 56. Which one of the following table entries is correct?

Kinetic Energy of Block Total Energy of Block
(a) 4E0 5E0
(b) 0.75E0 0.25E0
(c) 4E0 4E0
(d) 5E0 4E0
(e) 3E0 4E0

ˆ 57. Observer O finds that the block takes 12 s to go from A to B. How long would this time interval
appear to be to an observer riding on the block?
(a) 3 s (c) 12 s (e) 48 s
(b) 6 s (d) 24 s
294 Chapter 28 Special Relativity

Questions 58 through 60 pertain to the situation described below:

The figure shows a side view of a galaxy that is 50.0 light years in diameter. This value for the
diameter is its proper length. A spaceship enters the galactic plane with speed 0.995c relative to the
galaxy. Assume that the galaxy can be treated as an inertial reference frame. Note: A light year is the
distance that light travels through vacuum in one year; that is, 1 light year = c × (1 year).
galaxy
0.995c

50.0 light years

ˆ 58. How long does it take the spaceship to cross the galaxy according to an observer at rest in the galaxy?
(a) 5.00 years (c) 49.8 years (e) 90.0 years
(b) 12.5 years (d) 50.3 years

ˆ 59. How long does it take the spaceship to cross the galaxy according to a clock on board the
spaceship?
(a) 5.02 years (c) 49.8 years (e) 90.0 years
(b) 12.5 years (d) 50.3 years

ˆ 60. Determine the diameter of the galaxy as perceived by a person in the spaceship.
(a) 2.49 light years (c) 4.99 light years (e) 36.3 light years
(b) 3.63 light years (d) 12.4 light years

Questions 61 through 63 pertain to the situation described below:

Two rockets, A and B, approach each other as shown in the figure. A travels to the right at 0.7c
while B travels to the left at 0.8c. Both speed measurements are made relative to an inertial
observer.
0.7c 0.8c

A B
inertial
observer

ˆ 61. Determine the speed of A relative to B.

(a) c (c) 0.92c (e) 0.86c
(b) 0.96c (d) 0.89c

„ 62. Both rockets have a supply of unstable mesons with a mean proper lifetime of 2.6 × 10−8 s.
Which one of the following is a correct observation for the inertial observer?
(a) The mesons in A have a mean lifetime of 4.3 × 10−8 s.
(b) The mesons in B have a mean lifetime of 3.6 × 10−8 s.
(c) The mesons in both rockets have a mean lifetime of 2.6 × 10−8 s.
(d) The mean lifetime of the mesons is the same for both rockets, but less than 2.6 × 10−8 s.
(e) On average, the mesons in A will decay before the mesons in B.

ˆ 63. Determine the ratio of the kinetic energy of rocket B to its rest energy.
(a) 0.80 (c) 0.54 (e) 0.25
(b) 0.67 (d) 0.33
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 295

Questions 64 through 68 pertain to the situation described below:

A space ship traveling east flies directly over the head of an inertial observer who is at rest on the
v2 1
earth's surface. The speed of the space ship can be found from this relationship: 1− = .
c2 2

ˆ 64. The observer is 5 feet tall. According to the navigator of the space ship, how tall is the observer?
(a) 2.5 ft (c) 5 ft (e) 10 ft
(b) 3.6 ft (d) 8 ft

… 65. The navigator of the space ship observes a neon sign on a storefront. If he measures the speed of
light emitted from the sign as he approaches the sign, what value will he obtain?
(a) 1.5 × 108 m/s (c) 2.2 × 108 m/s (e) 3.0 × 108 m/s
(b) 1.8 × 10 m/s
8
(d) 2.8 × 10 m/s
8

ˆ 66. The navigator's on-board instruments indicate that the length of the space ship is 20 m. If the
length of the ship is measured by the inertial earth-bound observer, what value will be obtained?
(a) 5 m (c) 20 m (e) 80 m
(b) 10 m (d) 40 m

„ 67. The pilot fires an ion gun that propels ions from the space ship at 1.0 × 108 m/s relative to the
ship. What is the speed of the ions as measured by the earth observer?
(a) 1.0 × 108 m/s (c) 2.4 × 108 m/s (e) 3.0 × 108 m/s
(b) 2.0 × 10 m/s
8
(d) 2.8 × 10 m/s
8

ˆ 68. An apple falls from a tree and takes 4 s to reach the ground as reported by the earth-bound
observer. According to the navigator's instruments, how long did it take the apple to fall?
(a) 1 s (c) 4 s (e) 8 s
(b) 2 s (d) 6 s
 chapter PARTICLES AND WAVES

Section 29.1 The Wave-Particle Duality

Section 29.2 Blackbody Radiation and Planck’s Constant
Section 29.3 Photons and the Photoelectric Effect
… 1. Light is usually thought of as wave-like in nature and electrons as particle-like. In which one of
the following activities does light behave as a particle or does an electron behave as a wave?
(a) A Young’s double slit experiment is conducted using blue light.
(b) X-rays are used to examine the crystal structure of sodium chloride.
(c) Water is heated to its boiling point in a microwave oven.
(d) An electron enters a parallel plate capacitor and is deflected downward.
(e) A beam of electrons is diffracted as it passes through a narrow slit.

… 2. Upon which one of the following parameters does the energy of a photon depend?
(a) mass (c) polarization (e) phase relationships
(b) amplitude (d) frequency

… 3. For which one of the following problems did Max Planck make contributions that eventually led
to the development of the “quantum” hypothesis?
(a) photoelectric effect (d) the motion of the earth in the ether
(b) uncertainty principle (e) the invariance of the speed of light through vacuum
(c) blackbody radiation curves

ˆ 4. Determine the energy of a single photon in a beam of light of wavelength 450 nm.
(a) 2.0 eV (c) 2.8 eV (e) 4.5 eV
(b) 2.5 eV (d) 4.2 eV

ˆ 5. A laser emits a single, 2.0-ms pulse of light that has a frequency of 2.83 × 1011 Hz and a total
power of 75 000 W. How many photons are in the pulse?
(a) 8.0 × 1023 (c) 2.4 × 1025 (e) 4.0 × 1026
24 25
(b) 1.6 × 10 (d) 3.2 × 10

„ 6. A laser emits a pulse of light with energy 5.0 × 103 J. Determine the number of photons in the
pulse if the wavelength of light is 480 nm.
(a) 5.2 × 1016 (c) 1.2 × 1022 (e) 8.1 × 1024
19 22
(b) 2.5 × 10 (d) 3.1 × 10

ˆ 7. A laser emits photons of energy 2.5 eV with a power of 10–3 W. How many photons are emitted
in one second?
(a) 4.0 × 1014 (c) 4.0 × 1018 (e) 2.5 × 1021
15 21
(b) 2.5 × 10 (d) 1.0 × 10

ˆ 8. An X-ray generator produces photons with energy 49 600 eV or less. Which one of the following
phrases most accurately describes the wavelength of these photons?
(a) 0.025 nm or longer (c) 0.75 nm or longer (e) 0.75 nm or shorter
(b) 0.050 nm or longer (d) 0.25 nm or shorter
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 297

„ 9. A laser produces 3.0 W of light at wavelength 600 nm. How many photons per second are
produced?
(a) 7.3 × 1015 (c) 1.0 × 1017 (e) 9.1 × 1018
17 18
(b) 4.2 × 10 (d) 3.0 × 10

ˆ 10. The graph shows the variation in radiation intensity per unit I
wavelength versus wavelength for a perfect blackbody at temperature
λ
T. Complete the following statement: As the blackbody temperature
is increased, the peak in intensity of this curve
(a) will remain constant. λ
(b) will be shifted to longer wavelengths and its magnitude will increase.
(c) will be shifted to shorter wavelengths and its magnitude will increase.
(d) will be shifted to longer wavelengths and its magnitude will decrease.
(c) will be shifted to shorter wavelengths and its magnitude will decrease.

… 11. Complete the following statement: The photon description of light is necessary to explain
(a) polarization (c) diffraction of light (e) interference of light
(b) photoelectric effect (d) electron diffraction

… 12. Which one of the following phrases best describes the term work function?
(a) the minimum energy required to vaporize a metal
(b) the work required to place a charged particle on a metal surface
(c) the minimum energy required to remove electrons from the metal
(d) the minimum energy required to remove an atom from a metal surface
(e) the work done by electromagnetic radiation when it hits a metal surface

… 13. Which one of the following quantities is the same for all photons in vacuum?
(a) speed (c) kinetic energy (e) total energy
(b) frequency (d) wavelength

… 14. Complete the following statement: The term photon applies

(a) only to X-rays. (d) to any form of particle motion.
(b) only to visible light. (e) to any form of electromagnetic radiation.
(c) to any form of wave motion.

… 15. Which type of wave motion does not involve photons?

(a) gamma rays (c) radio waves (e) sound waves
(b) microwaves (d) infrared radiation

ˆ 16. Which one of the following statements concerning photons is false?

(a) Photons have zero mass.
(b) The rest energy of all photons is zero.
(c) Photons travel at the speed of light in a vacuum.
(d) Photons have been brought to rest by applying a strong magnetic field to them.
(e) The energy of a photon is proportional to its frequency.

ˆ 17. Photons of what minimum frequency are required to remove electrons from gold?
Note: The work function for gold is 4.8 eV.
(a) 7.3 × 1014 Hz (c) 3.8 × 1017 Hz (e) 4.6 × 1014 Hz
15 15
(b) 1.2 × 10 Hz (d) 6.5 × 10 Hz
298 Chapter 29 Particles and Waves

„ 18. Photons of energy 6 eV cause electrons to be emitted from a certain metal with a maximum kinetic
energy of 2 eV. If photons of twice the wavelength are incident on this metal which one of the
following statements is true?
(a) No electrons will be emitted.
(b) Electrons will be emitted with a maximum kinetic energy of 1 eV.
(c) Electrons will be emitted with a maximum kinetic energy of 8 eV.
(d) Electrons will be emitted with a maximum kinetic energy of 10 eV.
(e) Electrons will be emitted with a maximum kinetic energy of 20 eV.

ˆ 19. White light consisting of wavelengths 380 nm ≤ λ ≤ 750 nm is incident on a lead surface. For
which one of the following ranges of wavelengths will photoelectrons be emitted from the lead
surface that has a work function W0 = 6.63 × 10–19 J?
(a) 380 nm ≤ λ ≤ 750 nm (d) 380 nm ≤ λ ≤ 410 nm
(b) 380 nm ≤ λ ≤ 630 nm (e) No photoelectrons will be emitted.
(c) 380 nm ≤ λ ≤ 540 nm

„ 20. When ultraviolet photons with a wavelength of 3.45 × 10−7 m are incident on an unknown metal
surface in a vacuum, electrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 1.52 eV are emitted from the
surface. What is the work function of the metal?
(a) 3.60 eV (c) 2.59 eV (e) 1.98 eV
(b) 3.11 eV (d) 2.08 eV

ˆ 21. Photons of energy 5.0 eV strike a metal whose work function is 3.5 eV. Determine which one of
the following best describes the kinetic energy of the emitted electrons.
(a) 1.5 eV or less (c) 2.5 eV or more (e) 3.5 eV or less
(b) 1.5 eV or more (d) 3.5 eV or more

„ 22. The work function for a particular metal is 4.0 eV. Which one of the following best describes the
wavelength of electromagnetic radiation needed to eject electrons from this metal?
(a) 310 nm or greater (c) 620 nm or greater (e) 800 nm or greater
(b) 310 nm or smaller (d) 620 nm or smaller

Questions 23 and 24 pertain to the situation described below:

A physicist wishes to produce electrons by shining Metal W0 (eV)

light on a metal surface. The light source emits light barium 2.5
with a wavelength of 450 nm. The table lists the only lithium 2.3
available metals and their work functions. tantalum 4.2
tungsten 4.5

„ 23. Which metal(s) can be used to produce electrons by the photoelectric effect?
(a) barium only (d) barium or lithium
(b) tungsten only (e) lithium, tantalum, or tungsten
(c) tungsten or tantalum

ˆ 24. Which entry in the table below correctly identifies the metal that will produce the most energetic
electrons and their energies?
Metal Maximum electron energy observed
(a) lithium 2.3 eV
(b) lithium 0.5 eV
(c) tungsten 1.8 eV
(d) tungsten 2.8 eV
(e) tungsten 4.5 eV
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 299

Section 29.4 The Momentum of a Photon and the Compton Effect

ˆ 25. A digital wireless telephone communicates via microwaves that have a frequency of 1930 MHz.
What are the momentum and energy for the microwave photons emitted by the telephone?
photon momentum photon energy
(a) 8.73 × 10–32 kg ⋅ m/s 2.72 × 10–25 J
–33
(b) 4.27 × 10 kg ⋅ m/s 1.28 × 10–24 J
–33
(c) 4.27 × 10 kg ⋅ m/s 5.79 × 10–25 J
–34
(d) 9.04 × 10 kg ⋅ m/s 2.72 × 10–25 J
–34
(e) 9.04 × 10 kg ⋅ m/s 1.28 × 10–24 J

ˆ 26. In the Compton effect, a photon of wavelength λ and frequency f hits an electron that is initially at
rest. Which one of the following occurs as a result of the collision?
(a) The photon is absorbed completely.
(b) The photon gains energy, so the final photon has a frequency greater than f.
(c) The photon gains energy, so the final photon has a wavelength greater than λ.
(d) The photon loses energy, so the final photon has a frequency less than f.
(e) The photon loses energy, so the final photon has a wavelength less than λ.

… 27. Which one of the following is demonstrated by the Compton effect?

(a) time dilation (d) electrons have wave properties
(b) length contraction (e) electromagnetic radiation has particle properties
(c) the uncertainty principle

… 28. Complete the following statement: The photon or "particle" theory of electromagnetic radiation is
necessary to explain the
(a) refraction of light by a prism.
(b) diffraction of light by a grating.
(c) reflection of light from a mirrored surface.
(d) results of Compton scattering experiments.
(e) interference of light in Young's double-slit experiment.

ˆ 29. In the Compton scattering experiment shown in the figure, scattered X-rays
a monochromatic beam of X-rays strikes a target
containing free electrons. Scattered X-rays are detected target
45°
with a wavelength of 2.50 × 10−12 m at an angle of 45°
away from the original beam direction. What is the
wavelength of the incident monochromatic X-rays? Note: monochromatic unscattered
The mass of an electron is 9.11 × 10−31 kg. X-ray beam X-rays
(a) 3.21 × 10−12 m (c) 2.50 × 10−12 m (e) 1.79 × 10−12 m
−12
(b) 2.86 × 10 m (d) 2.03 × 10−12 m

„ 30. What is the speed of an electron that has the same momentum as a photon with a wavelength in a
vacuum of 380 nm? The mass of an electron is 9.11 × 10−31 kg.
(a) 1.9 × 103 m/s (c) 2.5 × 105 m/s (e) 2.9 × 108 m/s
4 6
(b) 2.1 × 10 m/s (d) 2.7 × 10 m/s

ˆ 31. A photon of wavelength 200 nm is scattered by an electron that is initially at rest. Which one of
the following statements concerning the wavelength of the scattered photon is true?
(a) The wavelength is zero nm. (d) The wavelength is greater than 200 nm.
(b) The wavelength is 200 nm. (e) The wavelength is less than 200 nm,
(c) The wavelength is 100 nm. but greater than zero.
300 Chapter 29 Particles and Waves

ˆ 32. Incident X-rays in a Compton scattering experiment have a wavelength of 0.400 nm. Determine
the wavelength of the scattered X-rays that are detected at an angle of 80.0°. The Compton
wavelength of the electron is 2.43 × 10−12 m.
(a) 0.041 nm (c) 0.399 nm (e) 0.403 nm
(b) 0.398 nm (d) 0.402 nm

„ 33. A photon has a collision with a stationary electron (h/mc = 2.43 × 10−12 m) and loses 5.0% of its
energy. The photon scattering angle is 180°. What is the wavelength of the incident photon in
this scattering process?
(a) 2.4 × 10–12 m (c) 9.2 × 10–11 m (e) 3.1 × 10–12 m
–11 –10
(b) 4.6 × 10 m (d) 1.9 × 10 m

Section 29.5 The De Broglie Wavelength and the Wave Nature of Matter
ˆ 34. What kinetic energy must each neutron in a beam of neutrons have if their wavelength is 0.10 nm?
The mass of a neutron is 1.67 × 10−27 kg.
(a) 6.6 × 10−19 J (c) 2.6 × 10−20 J (e) 7.1 × 10−20 J
−20 −20
(b) 1.3 × 10 J (d) 6.3 × 10 J

ˆ 35. Approximately, what is the de Broglie wavelength of an electron that has been accelerated
through a potential difference of 150 V? The mass of an electron is 9.11 × 10−31 kg.
(a) 0.1 nm (c) 10 nm (e) 1000 nm
(b) 1 nm (d) 100 nm

… 36. Which experimental evidence confirms the hypothesis that matter exhibits wave properties?
(a) photoelectric experiments (d) Compton scattering experiments
(b) electron diffraction experiments (e) Michelson-Morley experiment
(c) Young's double-slit experiments

… 37. Complete the following statement: According to the de Broglie relation, the wavelength of a
"matter" wave is inversely proportional to
(a) Planck's constant. (d) the frequency of the wave.
(b) the mass of the particle. (e) the speed of the particle.
(c) the momentum of the particle.

„ 38. What is the de Broglie wavelength of an electron (m = 9.11 × 10−31 kg) in a 5.0 × 103-volt X-ray tube?
(a) 0.007 nm (c) 0.017 nm (e) 0.034 nm
(b) 0.014 nm (d) 0.028 nm

ˆ 39. Determine the de Broglie wavelength of a neutron (m = 1.67 × 10−27 kg) that has a speed of 5.0
m/s.
(a) 79 nm (c) 395 nm (e) 1975 nm
(b) 162 nm (d) 529 nm

ˆ 40. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron (m = 9.11 × 10–31 kg) is 1.2 × 10–10 m. Determine the
kinetic energy of the electron.
(a) 1.5 × 10–15 J (c) 1.7 × 10–17 J (e) 1.9 × 10–19 J
–16 –18
(b) 1.6 × 10 J (d) 1.8 × 10 J
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 301

ˆ 41. What is the kinetic energy of each electron in a beam of electrons if the beam produces a
diffraction pattern of a crystal which is similar to that of a beam of 1.00 eV neutrons?
Note: The electron mass is 9.11 × 10−31 kg; and the neutron mass is 1.67 × 10−27 kg.
(a) 1830 eV (c) 3.35 × 106 eV (e) 2.34 × 10−2 eV
−4
(b) 42.8 eV (d) 5.46 × 10 eV

ˆ 42. What happens to the de Broglie wavelength of an electron if its momentum is doubled?
(a) The wavelength decreases by a factor of 4. (d) The wavelength increases by a factor of 2.
(b) The wavelength increases by a factor of 4. (e) The wavelength decreases by a factor of 2.
(c) The wavelength increases by a factor of 3.

ˆ 43. The Hubble Space Telescope has an orbital speed of 7.56 × 103 m/s and a mass of 11 600 kg.
What is the de Broglie wavelength of the telescope?
(a) 8.77 × 107 m (c) 6.63 × 10−34 m (e) 7.56 × 10−42 m
−26 −40
(b) 5.81 × 10 m (d) 3.78 × 10 m

„ 44. A beam of electrons is incident on a single slit that has a width of 1.00 × 10–6 m and a diffraction
pattern is observed on a screen located 15.0 m from the slit. The momentum of an individual
electron in the beam is 5.91 × 10–24 kg ⋅ m/s. What is the width of the central maximum fringe?
(a) 5.87 × 10−5 m (c) 6.67 × 10−4 m (e) 7.50 × 10−3 m
−4 −3
(b) 1.33 × 10 m (d) 3.37 × 10 m

„ 45. In a computer monitor, electrons approach the screen at 1.20 × 108 m/s. What is the de Broglie
wavelength of these electrons? Note: the mass of electrons is 9.109 × 10−31 kg; and use the
relativistic momentum in your calculation.
(a) 4.31 × 10−12 m (c) 6.07 × 10−12 m (e) 7.85 × 10−12 m
−12 −12
(b) 5.56 × 10 m (d) 6.62 × 10 m

Questions 46 and 47 pertain to the situation described below:

It is desired to obtain a diffraction pattern for electrons using a diffraction grating with lines
separated by 10 nm. The mass of an electron is 9.11 × 10−31 kg.

ˆ 46. What is the approximate kinetic energy of electrons that would be diffracted by such a grating?
(a) 1.5 × 10−6 eV (c) 1.5 × 10−2 eV (e) 1.5 × 108 eV
−4 2
(b) 1.5 × 10 eV (d) 1.5 × 10 eV

ˆ 47. Suppose it is desired to observe diffraction effects for a beam of electromagnetic radiation using
the same grating. Roughly, what is the required energy of the individual photons in the beam?
(a) 10−6 eV (c) 10−2 eV (e) 104 eV
−4 2
(b) 10 eV (d) 10 eV

Section 29.6 The Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle

ˆ 48. If Planck’s constant were changed to 660 J ⋅ s, what would be the minimum uncertainty in the
position of a 120-kg football player running at a speed of 3.5 m/s?
(a) 0.032 m (c) 0.13 m (e) 0.50 m
(b) 0.065 m (d) 0.25 m
302 Chapter 29 Particles and Waves

ˆ 49. In an experiment to determine the speed and position of an electron (m = 9.11 × 10−31 kg), three
researchers claim to have measured the position of the electron to within ± 10−9 m.
They reported the following values for the speed of the electron:
Researcher A 3 × 106 ± 2 × 104 m/s
Researcher B 4 × 108 ± 2 × 107 m/s
Researcher C 2 × 107 ± 5 × 105 m/s
Which of these measurements violates one or more basic laws of modern physics?
(a) A only (c) A and B (e) A, B, and C
(b) B only (d) B and C

ˆ 50. The x component of the velocity of an electron (m = 9.11 × 10−31 kg) is known to be between 100
m/s and 300 m/s. Which one of the following is a true statement concerning the uncertainty in the
x coordinate of the electron?
(a) The maximum uncertainty is about 106 m.
(b) The minimum uncertainty is about 6 × 10−7 m.
(c) The maximum uncertainty is about 6 × 10−7 m.
(d) The minimum uncertainty is about 3 × 10−36 m.
(e) The maximum uncertainty is about 3 × 10−36 m.

„ 51. The position of a 1-g object moving in the x direction at 1 cm/s is known to within ± 10 nm.
In which range is the fractional uncertainty, (∆px)/px , in the x component of its momentum?
(a) 10−2 to 10−4 (c) 10−16 to 10−18 (e) less than 10−30
(b) 10−12 to 10−14 (d) 10−20 to 10−22

ˆ 52. The speed of a bullet with a mass of 0.050 kg is 420 m/s with an uncertainty of 0.010 %. What is
the minimum uncertainty in the bullet’s position if it is measured at the same time as the speed is
measured?
(a) 2.5 × 10−31 m (c) 7.5 × 10−33 m (e) 6.0 × 10−36 m
−32 −34
(b) 5.0 × 10 m (d) 2.5 × 10 m

ˆ 53. The position of a hydrogen atom (m = 1.7 × 10−27 kg) is known to within 2.0 × 10−6 m.
What is the minimum uncertainty in the atom’s velocity?
(a) zero m/s (c) 0.011 m/s (e) 0.031 m/s
(b) 0.0085 m/s (d) 0.016 m/s

ˆ 54. A proton (mp = 1.673 × 10−27 kg) and an electron (me = 9.109 × 10−31 kg) are confined such that the
x position of each is known to within 1.50 × 10−10 m. What is the ratio of the minimum uncertainty
in the x component of the velocity of the electron to that of the proton, ∆ve/∆vp?
(a) 5.444 × 10−4 (c) 808.2 (e) 36 290
(b) 0.2272 (d) 1837
 chapter THE NATURE OF THE ATOM

Section 30.1 Rutherford Scattering and the Nuclear Atom

… 1. Which model of atomic structure

was developed to explain the
results of the experiment shown?
(a) Bohr model
(b) quantum mechanical atom
alpha metal
(c) billiard ball atom screen
particle foil
(d) plum-pudding model
source
(e) nuclear atom

ˆ 2. Which one of the following statements concerning the plum-pudding model of the atom is false?
(a) There is no nucleus at the center of the plum-pudding model atom.
(b) The plum-pudding model was proven correct in experiments by Ernest Rutherford.
(c) The plum-pudding model was proposed by Joseph J. Thomson.
(d) Positive charge is spread uniformly throughout the plum-pudding model atom.
(e) Negative electrons are dispersed uniformly within the positively charged “pudding” within the
plum-pudding model atom.

ˆ 3. In the planetary model of the atom where electrons orbit a centralized nucleus, what is the
approximate ratio of the radius of the nucleus to that of the electron orbits, rn/re?
(a) 105 (c) 103 (e) 10−7
−3 −5
(b) 10 (d) 10

ˆ 4. The nucleus of a certain atom has a radius of 4.0 × 10–15 m. An electron orbits the nucleus at a
radius of 1.5 × 10–10 m. Imagine the electron orbit is on the surface of a sphere and that the shape
of the nucleus is spherical. Approximately how many nuclei would fit into the sphere on which
the electron orbits?
(a) 5.3 × 1013 (c) 1.4 × 109 (e) 3.8 × 104
(b) 4.9 × 10 11
(d) 7.5 × 10 7

Section 30.2 Line Spectra

Section 30.3 The Bohr Model of the Hydrogen Atom
Section 30.4 De Broglie’s Explanation of Bohr’s Assumption about Angular Momentum
… 5. Each atom in the periodic table has a unique set of spectral lines. Which one of the following
statements is the best explanation for this observation?
(a) Each atom has a dense central nucleus.
(b) Electrons in atoms orbit the nucleus.
(c) Each atom has a unique set of energy levels that electrons can move between.
(d) Electrons in atoms are in constant motion.
(e) Each atom is composed of positive and negative charges.

ˆ 6. Each atom in the periodic table has a unique set of spectral lines. The model of atomic structure
that provides the best explanation for this observation was proposed by
(a) Balmer. (c) Einstein. (e) Thomson.
(b) Bohr. (d) Rutherford.
304 Chapter 30 The Nature of the Atom

… 7. Which one of the following pairs of characteristics of light is best explained by assuming that
light can be described in terms of photons?
(a) photoelectric effect and the effect observed in Young's experiment
(b) diffraction and the formation of atomic spectra
(c) polarization and the photoelectric effect
(d) existence of line spectra and the photoelectric effect
(e) polarization and the formation of line spectra

ˆ 8. Which one of the following statements is the assumption that Niels Bohr made about the angular
momentum of the electron in the hydrogen atom?
(a) The angular momentum of the electron is zero.
(b) The angular momentum can assume only certain discrete values.
(c) Angular momentum is not quantized.
(d) The angular momentum can assume any value greater than zero because it’s proportional to
the radius of the orbit.
(e) The angular momentum is independent of the mass of the electron.

ˆ 9. Why was it necessary for Bohr to require that electrons remain in stationary orbits?
(a) An electron must travel in a circular path.
(b) It was required by the Heisenberg uncertainty principle.
(c) No two electrons can be in the same region in the atom.
(d) It was required by the Pauli exclusion principle.
(e) Classical physics predicts that the electron should spiral into the nucleus.

ˆ 10. Complete the following statement: For the ground state of the hydrogen atom, the Bohr model
correctly predicts
(a) only the energy.
(b) only the angular momentum.
(c) only the angular momentum and the spin.
(d) the angular momentum and the energy.
(e) the energy, the angular momentum, and the spin.

… 11. Complete the following statement: An individual copper atom emits electromagnetic radiation
with wavelengths that are
(a) evenly spaced across the spectrum.
(b) unique to that particular copper atom.
(c) the same as other elements in the same column of the periodic table.
(d) unique to all copper atoms.
(e) the same as those of all elements.

„ 12. Electrons have been removed from a beryllium atom (Z = 4) until only one remains. Determine
the energy of the photon that can be emitted if the remaining electron is in the n = 2 level.
(a) 13.6 eV (c) 122 eV (e) 218 eV
(b) 54.4 eV (d) 164 eV

„ 13. Which one of the following will result in an electron transition from the n = 4 level to the n = 7
level in a hydrogen atom?
(a) emission of a 0.28 eV photon (d) absorption of a 0.28 eV photon
(b) emission of a 0.57 eV photon (e) absorption of a 0.57 eV photon
(c) absorption of a 0.85 eV photon
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 305

ˆ 14. Determine the wavelength of incident electromagnetic radiation required to cause an electron
transition from the n = 6 to the n = 8 level in a hydrogen atom.
(a) 1.2 × 103 nm (c) 3.4 × 103 nm (e) 7.5 × 103 nm
(b) 2.2 × 10 nm
3
(d) 5.9 × 10 nm
3

ˆ 15. The second ionization energy (the energy required to remove the second outermost electron) of
calcium is 11.9 eV. Determine the maximum wavelength of incident radiation that can be used to
remove the second electron from a calcium atom?
(a) 16.6 nm (c) 104 nm (e) 416 nm
(b) 52 nm (d) 208 nm

„ 16. Determine the maximum wavelength of incident radiation that can be used to remove the
remaining electron from a singly ionized helium atom He+ (Z = 2). Assume the electron is in its
ground state.
(a) 6.2 nm (c) 22.8 nm (e) 54.4 nm
(b) 12.4 nm (d) 45.6 nm

ˆ 17. What is the longest wavelength in the Paschen series of atomic spectra?
(a) 8.204 × 10–7 m (c) 2.216 × 10–6 m (e) 6.756 × 10–5 m
(b) 1.875 × 10 m
–6
(d) 5.522 × 10 m
–6

ˆ 18. Determine the energy of the photon emitted when the electron in a hydrogen atom undergoes a
transition from the n = 8 level to the n = 6 level.
(a) 0.17 eV (c) 0.36 eV (e) 13.4 eV
(b) 0.21 eV (d) 0.57 eV

ˆ 19. The kinetic energy of the ground state electron in hydrogen is +13.6 eV. What is its potential energy?
(a) –13.6 eV (c) –27.2 eV (e) zero eV
(b) +27.2 eV (d) +56.2 eV

ˆ 20. An electron is in the ground state of a hydrogen atom. A photon is absorbed by the atom and the
electron is excited to the n = 2 state. What is the energy in eV of the photon?
(a) 13.6 eV (c) 3.40 eV (e) 0.54 eV
(b) 10.2 eV (d) 1.51 eV

ˆ 21. According to the Bohr model, what is the radius of a hydrogen atom when its electron is excited to
the n = 9 state?
(a) 5.87 × 10–12 m (c) 4.76 × 10–10 m (e) 1.51 × 10–8 m
(b) 5.29 × 10 m–11
(d) 4.28 × 10 m–9

„ 22. Determine the kinetic energy of an electron that has a de Broglie wavelength equal to twice the
diameter of the hydrogen atom. Assume that the hydrogen atom is a sphere of radius 5.3 × 10–11 m.
(a) 13.6 eV (c) 33.6 eV (e) 65.2 eV
(b) 27.2 eV (d) 48.9 eV

„ 23. What is the shortest possible wavelength in the Lyman series for atomic hydrogen?
(a) 91.3 nm (c) 122 nm (e) 820 nm
(b) 104 nm (d) 364 nm
306 Chapter 30 The Nature of the Atom

ˆ 24. The electron in a hydrogen atom is in the n = 3 state. What is(are) the possible value(s) for an
emitted photon?
(a) 1.89 eV or 12.09 eV (c) 0.66 eV or 13.6 eV (e) 1.51 eV only
(b) 1.89 eV or 13.6 eV (d) 0.66 eV or 12.09 eV

„ 25. What energy (in eV) is required to remove the remaining electron from a singly ionized helium
+
atom, He (Z = 2)?
(a) 3.40 eV (c) 27.2 eV (e) 76.9 eV
(b) 13.6 eV (d) 54.4 eV

Section 30.5 The Quantum Mechanical Picture of the Hydrogen Atom

ˆ 26. According to the quantum mechanical picture of the atom, which one of the following is a true
statement concerning the ground state electron in a hydrogen atom?
(a) The ground state electron has zero kinetic energy.
(b) The ground state electron has zero binding energy.
(c) The ground state electron has zero ionization energy.
(d) The ground state electron has zero spin angular momentum.
(e) The ground state electron has zero orbital angular momentum.

ˆ 27. A hydrogen atom is in a state for which the principle quantum number is n = 3. How many possible
such states are there for which the magnetic quantum number is m = 0 ?
(a) 2 (c) 6 (e) 10
(b) 4 (d) 8

ˆ 28. According to the quantum mechanical picture of the atom, which one of the following statements
is true concerning the magnitude of the angular momentum L of an electron in the n = 3 level of
the hydrogen atom?
(a) L is 0.318h. (d) L could be 0.225h or 0.276h.
(b) L is 0.477h. (e) L could be 0.225h or 0.390h.
(c) L could be 0.159h or 0.318h.

ˆ 29. An electron in a hydrogen atom is described by the quantum numbers: n = 8 and m = 4 .

What are the possible values for the orbital quantum number ?
(a) only 0 or 4 (d) only 4, 5, 6, or 7
(b) only 4 or 7 (e) only 5, 6, 7, or 8
(c) only 5 or 8

ˆ 30. Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers is not possible?
n m ms
(a) 2 3 –2 +1/2
(b) 4 3 +2 +1/2
(c) 3 1 0 –1/2
(d) 6 2 –1 +1/2
(e) 5 4 –4 –1/2

„ 31. The principle quantum number for the electron in a hydrogen atom is n = 4. According to the
quantum mechanical picture of the atom, what is the maximum possible value for the magnitude
of the z-component of the angular momentum of the electron?
(a) 3.17 × 10−34 kg ⋅ m2/s (c) 1.99 × 10−34 kg ⋅ m2/s (e) 2.11 × 10−33 kg ⋅ m2/s
−34 −34
(b) 4.22 × 10 kg ⋅ m /s2
(d) 1.06 × 10 kg ⋅ m /s2
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 307

ˆ 32. Which quantum number applies to most of the electrons in a collection of hydrogen atoms at room
temperature?
(a) n = 1 (c) n = 3 (e) n = 5
(b) n = 2 (d) n = 4

„ 33. How many electron states (including spin states) are possible in a hydrogen atom if its energy is –
3.4 eV?
(a) 2 (c) 6 (e) 10
(b) 4 (d) 8

„ 34. Determine the maximum number of electron states with principal quantum number n = 3?
(a) 2 (c) 6 (e) 18
(b) 3 (d) 9

ˆ 35. Which one of the following values of m is not possible for = 2?

(a) zero (c) +1 (e) +3
(b) –1 (d) +2

ˆ 36. Two possible states for the hydrogen atom are labeled A and B. The maximum magnetic quantum
number for state A is +3. For state B, the maximum value is +1. What is the ratio of the
magnitudes of the orbital angular momenta, LA/LB, of an electron in these two states?
(a) 1.22 (c) 2.00 (e) 3.46
(b) 1.73 (d) 2.45

Section 30.6 The Pauli Exclusion Principle and the Periodic Table of the Elements
… 37. To which model of atomic structure does the Pauli exclusion principle apply?
(a) the nuclear atom (d) the plum-pudding model
(b) the quantum mechanical atom (e) the planetary model
(c) the billiard ball atom

… 38. Which one of the following factors best explains why the six electrons of a carbon atom are not all
in the 1s state?
(a) electron spin (d) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
(b) Coulomb's law (e) Rutherford model of atomic structure
(c) Pauli exclusion principle

ˆ 39. Which one of the following statements concerning the electrons specified by the notation 3p4 is true?
(a) The electrons are in the M shell.
(b) The electrons are in the = 2 subshell.
(c) The electrons are necessarily in an excited state.
(d) They have principal quantum number 4.
(e) There are 3 electrons in the specified subshell.

ˆ 40. How many electrons could be accommodated in a g subshell?

(a) 4 (c) 8 (e) 18
(b) 5 (d) 9
308 Chapter 30 The Nature of the Atom

ˆ 41. Which one of the following subshells is not compatible with a principle quantum number of n = 4?
(a) s (c) d (e) g
(b) p (d) f

ˆ 42. Which one of the following electronic configurations corresponds to an atomic ground state?
(a) 1s2 2s1 2p6 (c) 1s1 2s2 3p1 (e) 1s1 2s2 2p1
1 1 1 2 2 1
(b) 1s 2s 2p (d) 1s 2s 2p

ˆ 43. An h subshell refers to orbital quantum number

(a) =1 (c) =3 (e) =5
(b) =2 (d) =4

ˆ 44. What is the total number of subshells in the n = 3 level?

(a) 3 (c) 7 (e) 18
(b) 6 (d) 9

… 45. Name the physicist credited with the following statement: No two electrons in an atom can have
the same set of values for the four quantum numbers.
(a) Werner Heisenberg (c) Arthur Compton (e) Erwin Schrödinger
(b) Wolfgang Pauli (d) Niels Bohr

ˆ 46. The ground state electronic configuration of a neon atom is 1s2 2s2 2p6. How many of these
electrons have magnetic quantum number ml = 0?
(a) 2 (c) 6 (e) 10
(b) 4 (d) 8

Questions 47 through 49 pertain to the statement below:

A neutral atom has the following electronic configuration: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5

ˆ 47. How many electrons are in the M shell?

(a) 2 (c) 6 (e) 8
(b) 5 (d) 7

ˆ 48. How many protons are in the atomic nucleus?

(a) 4 (c) 12 (e) 34
(b) 7 (d) 17

ˆ 49. To which group of the periodic table does this element belong?
(a) I (c) III (e) VII
(b) II (d) VI

Questions 50 through 52 pertain to the statement below:

An electron in an atom has the following set of quantum numbers:

n = 3, = 2, m = +1, ms = +1/2.

ˆ 50. What shell is this electron occupying?

(a) K shell (c) M shell (e) O shell
(b) L shell (d) N shell
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 309

ˆ 51. In which subshell can the electron be found?

(a) s (c) d (e) g
(b) p (d) f

„ 52. According to the quantum mechanical picture of the atom, which quantum number(s) could be
different for electrons in this same atom that have exactly the same energy?
(a) n, , m and ms (c) only and m (e) ms
(b) only , m and ms (d) only m and ms

Questions 53 through 57 pertain to the statement below

Consider the following list of electron configurations:

(1) 1s2 2s2 3s2 (4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2
2 2 6
(2) 1s 2s 2p (5) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d6
2 2 6 1
(3) 1s 2s 2p 3s

ˆ 53. Which one of the above lists represents the electronic configuration for the ground state of the
atom with Z = 11?
(a) 1 (c) 3 (e) 5
(b) 2 (d) 4

… 54. Which electronic configuration is characteristic of noble gases?

(a) 1 (c) 3 (e) 5
(b) 2 (d) 4

ˆ 55. Which one of the above configurations represents a neutral atom that readily forms a singly
charged positive ion?
(a) 1 (c) 3 (e) 5
(b) 2 (d) 4

ˆ 56. Which one of the above configurations represents an excited state of a neutral atom?
(a) 1 (c) 3 (e) 5
(b) 2 (d) 4

ˆ 57. Which one of the above configurations represents a transition element?

(a) 1 (c) 3 (e) 5
(b) 2 (d) 4

Section 30.7 X-rays

ˆ 58. In an X-ray tube, electrons with energy 35 keV are incident on a cobalt (Z = 27) target.
Determine the cutoff wavelength for X-ray production.
(a) 1.4 × 10−11 m (c) 2.8 × 10−11 m (e) 3.6 × 10−11 m
−11 −11
(b) 1.8 × 10 m (d) 3.2 × 10 m

ˆ 59. Which electron energy will produce the lowest cutoff wavelength for X-ray production from a
nickel (Z = 28) surface?
(a) 25 keV (c) 35 keV (e) 45 keV
(b) 30 keV (d) 40 keV
310 Chapter 30 The Nature of the Atom

ˆ 60. Which one of the following statements concerning the cutoff wavelength typically exhibited in X-ray
spectra is true?
(a) The cutoff wavelength depends on the target material.
(b) The cutoff wavelength depends on the potential difference across the X-ray tube.
(c) The cutoff wavelength is independent of the energy of the incident electrons.
(d) The cutoff wavelength occurs because of the mutual shielding effects of K-shell electrons.
(e) The cutoff wavelength occurs because an incident electron cannot give up all of its energy.

ˆ 61. Calculate the Kα X-ray wavelength for a gold atom (Z = 79).

(a) 5.13 × 10−10 m (c) 2.00 × 10−11 m (e) 2.47 × 10−13 m
(b) 8.54 × 10−10 m (d) 3.60 × 10−11 m

ˆ 62. Electrons in an X-ray tube are accelerated through a potential difference of 40 kV. The electrons
then strike a zirconium (Z = 40) target. Determine the cutoff frequency for X-ray production.
(a) 4.7 × 1019 Hz (c) 3.2 × 1018 Hz (e) 1.1 × 1016 Hz
(b) 9.7 × 10 Hz
18
(d) 6.7 × 10 Hz
17

ˆ 63. What is the operating voltage of a medical X-ray machine that has a cut-off wavelength of
2.20 × 10–11 m?
(a) 83 800 V (c) 30 700 V (e) 56 500 V
(b) 10 900 V (d) 44 900 V

Section 30.8 The Laser

Section 30.9 Medical Applications of the Laser
Section 30.10 Holography
… 64. Complete the following sentence: In the condition known as population inversion,
(a) the amount of one type of gas atoms is larger than that of another in a mixture.
(b) the number of energy levels that are populated is larger than that of unpopulated levels.
(c) there are more electrons occupying lower energy levels than occupying higher energy levels.
(d) there are more electrons occupying higher energy levels than occupying lower energy levels.
(e) there are more photons than electrons in a given system.

ˆ 65. An argon-ion laser emits a blue-green beam of light with a wavelength of 488 nm in a vacuum.
What is the difference in energy in joules between the two energy states for the atomic transition
that produces this light?
(a) 4.08 × 10−19 J (c) 6.18 × 10−20 J (e) 5.10 × 10−28 J
−20 −24
(b) 1.05 × 10 J (d) 4.76 × 10 J

ˆ 66. A pulsed laser has an average output power of 4.0 W. Each pulse consists of light at wavelength
5.0 × 10−7 m and has a 25 ms duration. How many photons are emitted in a single pulse?
(a) 1.0 × 1017 (c) 3.7 × 1017 (e) 7.4 × 1017
(b) 2.5 × 10 17
(d) 5.0 × 10 17

… 67. An electron makes a transition from a higher energy state to a lower one without any external
provocation. As a result of the transition, a photon is emitted and moves in a random direction.
What is the name of this emission process?
(a) stationary emission (c) spectral emission (e) specular emission
(b) stimulated emission (d) spontaneous emission
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 311

… 68. Complete the following statement: In the laser-based medical procedure known as photorefractive
keratectomy (PRK), nearsightedness and farsightedness can be treated using the laser to
(a) remove small amounts of tissue from the lens and change its curvature.
(b) remove small amounts of tissue from the cornea and change its curvature.
(c) change the index of refraction of the aqueous humor.
(d) alter the fluid pressure within the eye.
(e) stimulate unused rods and cones on the retina.

… 69. Complete the following sentence: Holography is

(a) the projection of an image produced by a combination of mirrors and lenses.
(b) a photograph of the light produced by a laser.
(c) a process for producing three dimensional images using the interference of laser light beams.
(d) the name for an imaging process that occurs within a camera when a photograph is taken.
(e) the production of a two dimensional image of the three dimensional object.

Additional Problems
… 70. An atom will emit photons when one of its electrons goes from
(a) the K shell to the L shell. (d) the N shell to the L shell.
(b) the M shell to the N shell. (e) the K shell to the N shell.
(c) the K shell to the M shell.

ˆ 71. Which one of the following statements best explains why a neon sign does not emit visible light
after it is turned off?
(a) All of the neon atoms are ionized.
(b) Most of the neon atoms are in the ground state.
(c) None of the neon atoms are in the n = 2 state.
(d) All of the neon atoms have principle quantum number n = 0.
(e) Only some of the neon atoms have returned to the n = 1 state.

Questions 72 through 78 pertain to the statement and diagram below.

∞
Principal Quantum Number

4
The figure shows an energy level diagram C
for the hydrogen atom. Several transitions 3
are shown and are labeled by letters. B
E
2
Note: The diagram is not drawn to scale.

D
A

1
„ 72. In which transition is a Balmer series photon absorbed?
(a) A (c) C (e) E
(b) B (d) D

ˆ 73. Which transition corresponds to the absorption of the photon with the longest wavelength?
(a) A (c) C (e) E
(b) B (d) D
312 Chapter 30 The Nature of the Atom

ˆ 74. Determine the energy of the photon involved in transition E.

(a) 1.5 eV (c) 3.4 eV (e) 12.1 eV
(b) 1.9 eV (d) 10.2 eV

„ 75. Determine the wavelength of the radiation involved in transition B.

(a) 291 nm (c) 487 nm (e) 1910 nm
(b) 364 nm (d) 652 nm

„ 76. Which transition will occur when a hydrogen atom is irradiated with radiation of wavelength
103 nm?
(a) A (c) C (e) E
(b) B (d) D

„ 77. Which transition will occur when a hydrogen atom is irradiated with radiation of frequency
1.60 × 1014 Hz?
(a) A (c) C (e) E
(b) B (d) D

„ 78. Which transition involves the longest wavelength line in the visible portion of the hydrogen
spectrum?
(a) A (c) C (e) E
(b) B (d) D
 chapter NUCLEAR PHYSICS AND
RADIOACTIVITY

Section 31.1 Nuclear Structure

Section 31.2 The Strong Nuclear Force and the Stability of the Nucleus
205
ˆ 1. How many neutrons are there in the nucleus 82 Pb ?
(a) 82 (c) 205 (e) 287
(b) 123 (d) 246

… 2. Which one of the following pairs of symbols represents two isotopes?

(a) 168 O, 147 N (c) 168 O, 23
11Na (e) 14 13
7 N, 6 C
12 14 14 14
(b) 6 C, 6 C (d) 7 N, 6 C

ˆ 3. In which one of the following sets do the species have the same neutron number N?
(a) 168 O, 147 N (c) 168 O, 23
11Na (e) 147 N, 136C
12 14 14 14
(b) 6 C, 6 C (d) 7 N, 6 C

… 4. In which one of the following sets do the species have the same number of nucleons?
(a) 168 O, 147 N (c) 168 O, 23
11Na (e) 147 N, 136C
12 14 14 14
(b) 6 C, 6 C (d) 7 N, 6 C

ˆ 5. Osmium has atomic number 76. A particular isotope of osmium has an atomic mass of 186.956 u.
Which symbol correctly represents this isotope?
(a) 187
111 Os
76
(c) 187 Os 111
(e) 187 Os
111 187
(b) 76 Os (d) 76 Os

ˆ 6. A tellurium nucleus contains 73 neutrons. A particular isotope of tellurium has atomic mass
124.904418 u. Which symbol correctly represents this isotope?
(a) 125
73Te
52
(c) 125 Te (e) 73
52Te
125 73
(b) 52Te (d) 125Te

ˆ 7. The nucleus of a certain isotope of tin contains 68 neutrons and 50 protons. Which symbol
correctly represents this isotope?
(a) 50
68 Sn (c) 118
68 Sn (e) 118
50 Sn
68 68
(b) 50 Sn (d) 118 Sn

„ 8. A particular isotope of dysprosium has atomic number 66 and atomic mass 159.925 202 u.
Identify the nucleus with a radius that is one half that of this isotope.
(a) 20
10 Ne (c) 5025 Mn (e) 180
74W
16 60
(b) 8O (d) 28 Ni
314 Chapter 31 Nuclear Physics and Radioactivity

ˆ 9. Which of the following is not an assumption involved in the expression: r = (1.2 × 10−15 m)A1/3?
(a) Nuclei are incompressible.
(b) The nucleus is spherical in shape.
(c) All nucleons have roughly the same mass.
(d) Nuclear densities are proportional to the mass numbers.
(e) The number of nucleons is proportional to the nuclear mass.

ˆ 10. What is the approximate radius of a carbon nucleus that has six protons and six neutrons?
(a) 1.2 × 10−15 m (c) 2.7 × 10−15 m (e) 3.2 × 10−15 m
−15 −15
(b) 2.2 × 10 m (d) 2.9 × 10 m

ˆ 11. The nucleus of an atom has a radius of 5.61 × 10–15 m. If the nucleus contains 45 protons, how
many neutrons does the nucleus contain?
(a) 45 (c) 69 (e) 102
(b) 57 (d) 84

„ 12. The nucleus of a particular isotope of beryllium contains 4 protons and 5 neutrons. Which nucleus has
a radius that is approximately 3 times that of this isotope?
(a) 27
13 Al (c) 24394 Pu
81
(e) 36 Kr
24 135
(b) 12 Mg (d) 56 Ba

„ 13. Assuming the radius of a hydrogen atom is given by the Bohr radius, rBohr = 5.29 × 10−1 m, what is
the ratio of the nuclear density of a hydrogen atom to its atomic density? Note: Assume for this
calculation that the mass of the atom is equal to the mass of the proton.
(a) 1.2 × 10−14 (c) 8.6 × 1013 (e) 2.3 × 10−5
(b) 4.4 × 10 4
(d) 3.9 × 10 17

„ 14. 207
82 Pb has a mass of 3.4368 × 10−25 kg. What is the approximate density of this lead nucleus?
(a) 2.3 × 1017 kg/m3 (c) 4.8 × 1019 kg/m3 (e) 6.1 × 1021 kg/m3
(b) 3.5 × 1018 kg/m3 (d) 5.2 × 1020 kg/m3

ˆ 15. Which one of the following statements concerning stable nuclei is true?
(a) Stable nuclei have nucleon numbers less than 83.
(b) Stable nuclei generally have odd atomic numbers.
(c) Stable nuclei have atomic numbers greater than 83.
(d) Stable nuclei generally have an odd number of neutrons.
(e) Stable nuclei generally have more neutrons than protons.
N
… 16. This question refers to the figure shown. Which one of the
following concepts explains why heavy nuclei do not follow
the N = Z line (or trend) in the figure?
(a) transmutation
(b) Coulomb repulsion
(c) particle-wave duality N=Z
(d) Pauli exclusion principle
(e) Heisenberg uncertainty principle

Z
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 315

ˆ 17. Which one of the following descriptive terms does not apply to nuclear forces?
(a) strong (c) weak (e) long-range
(b) charge-independent (d) short-range

Section 31.3 The Mass Defect of the Nucleus and Nuclear Binding Energy
… 18. Which one of the following expressions relates the terms binding energy and mass defect?
(a) ∆E0 = (∆m)c2 (c) ∆E = h∆f (e) E0 = 12 mv 2
h hc
(b) ∆ ( mc) = (d) λ =
∆λ ∆E

ˆ 19. The binding energy of an isotope of chlorine is 298 MeV. What is the mass defect of this chlorine
nucleus in atomic mass units?
(a) 3.13 u (c) 0.882 u (e) 0.034 u
(b) 2.30 u (d) 0.320 u

ˆ 20. What is the mass defect of 120

50 Sn (atomic mass = 119.902 200 u)? The hydrogen atom has a mass
of 1.007 83 u; and the neutron has a mass of 1.008 67 u.
(a) 6.9175 × 10–28 kg (c) 2.2391 × 10–27 kg (e) 1.8202 × 10–27 kg
(b) 8.0024 × 10 kg
–28
(d) 1.0687 × 10 kg
–27

15
„ 21. How much energy is required to remove a neutron (mn = 1.008 665 u) from 7N that has an
14
atomic mass of 15.000 108 u to make 7N that has an atomic mass of 14.003 074 u?
Note: The energy equivalent of the atomic mass unit is 931.5 MeV.
(a) 1.163 MeV (c) 10.83 MeV (e) 939.6 MeV
(b) 6.423 MeV (d) 928.7 MeV

„ 22. How much energy is required to split a 52

24 Cr atom of mass 51.940 509 u into two identical
26
12 Mg
atoms? The mass of this isotope of magnesium is 25.982 59 u.
(a) 22.98 MeV (c) 0.0247 MeV (e) 0.1562 MeV
(b) 14.20 MeV (d) 0.6936 MeV

„ 23. The proton has a mass of 1.007 28 u; and the neutron has a mass of 1.008 67. Use this information to
determine the binding energy per nucleon of 232
90Th which has an atomic mass of 232.038 054 u.
(a) 6.5 MeV (c) 8.7 MeV (e) 10.2 MeV
(b) 7.4 MeV (d) 9.8 MeV

202
„ 24. What is the binding energy per nucleon of 80 Hg that has an atomic mass of 201.970 617 u? Note:
Use the following atomic masses in your calculation: 11 H =1.007 825 u and 01 n =1.008 665 u.
(a) 8.647 MeV (c) 9.151 MeV (e) 8.361 MeV
(b) 11.47 MeV (d) 7.897 MeV

Section 31.4 Radioactivity

ˆ 25. Which one of the following processes is illustrated by the reaction: 238
90Th → 234 4
88 Ra + 2 He ?
(a) beta decay (c) gamma decay (e) positron emission
(b) alpha decay (d) neutrino emission
316 Chapter 31 Nuclear Physics and Radioactivity

… 26. Which one of the following thicknesses of lead would be least effective in stopping β rays?
(a) 0.04 mm (c) 0.30 mm (e) 0.50 mm
(b) 0.25 mm (d) 0.40 mm

ˆ 27. Which one of the following types of nuclear radiation is not affected by a magnetic field?
(a) alpha particles (c) gamma rays (e) helium nuclei
(b) β− rays (d) β+ rays

40
ˆ 28. Which particle(s) is(are) emitted when 19 K decays into 40
20 Ca ?
(a) a photon (d) a positron and a neutrino
(b) a proton (e) an electron and an antineutrino
(c) an alpha particle

39Y → 38 Sr
90 90
ˆ 29. Consider the nuclear decay process: + ? What is(are) the missing product(s)?
(a) a photon (d) a positron and a neutrino
(b) a proton (e) an electron and an alpha particle
(c) an alpha particle

… 30. Which process is used in the operation of the smoke detector discussed in Cutnell and Johnson's
text?
(a) alpha decay (c) gamma decay (e) proton absorption
(b) beta decay (d) X-ray absorption

ˆ 31. Which one of the following isotopes is produced when 145

61 Pm decays by emitting an α particle?
143 145 145
(a) 57 La (c) 60 Nd (e) 62 Sm
141 145
(b) 59 Pr (d) 61 Pm

31
ˆ 32. Which entry in the table below describes the daughter nucleus when 14 Si decays by β− emission?
number of protons number of neutrons
(a) 15 16
(b) 15 31
(c) 13 17
(d) 13 18
(e) 14 30

… 33. Which one of the following quantities is not a conserved quantity according to the laws of physics?
(a) electric charge (c) angular momentum (e) kinetic energy
(b) nucleon number (d) linear momentum

… 34. Complete the following sentence: In a β+ decay process, the emitted particle is
(a) an electron. (c) a positron. (e) a photon.
(b) a neutron. (d) a proton.

ˆ 35. What is the wavelength of the 0.059-MeV γ ray photon emitted by 60

27 Co
?
(a) 6.7 × 10−12 m (c) 2.1 × 10−11 m (e) 3.4 × 10−11 m
(b) 1.4 × 10−11 m (d) 2.8 × 10−11 m
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 317

… 36. Radiation or(and) particles emerge(s) from a radioactive sample. These products from the sample
are allowed to pass through a narrow slit and may be considered a beam. The beam is passed
between two plates that carry opposite electrical charge. The experimental region contains no
magnetic fields. It is observed that the beam is deflected toward the negatively charged plate.
negative
source

positive
Which one of the following statements is the best conclusion for this situation?
(a) The beam is only α rays. (d) The beam could be either α rays or β+ rays.
(b) The beam is only β− rays. (e) The beam could be α rays, β+ rays, or γ rays.
(c) The beam is only γ rays.

Section 31.5 The Neutrino

Section 31.6 Radioactive Decay and Activity
→ 6C + ? +ν
12 12
ˆ 37. Complete the following nuclear reaction: 7N .
−
(a) α (c) β (e) γ
(b) p (d) β−

… 38. What is the SI unit for activity?

(a) Ci (c) Hz (e) Bq
(b) counts/min (d) Gy

… 39. In a beta decay process, not all of the released energy is carried by the beta particle. Who
proposed the existence of the neutrino in 1930 to account for the missing energy?
(a) Niels Bohr (c) Werner Heisenberg (e) Enrico Fermi
(b) Erwin Schrödinger (d) Wolfgang Pauli

ˆ 40. An isotope of krypton has a half-life of 3 minutes. A sample of this isotope produces 1000 counts per
minute in a Geiger counter. Determine the number of counts per minute produced after 15 minutes.
(a) zero (c) 30 (e) 1000
(b) 15 (d) 60

214
ˆ 41. Which one of the following isotopes is produced when 83 Bi decays by emitting an alpha particle?
210 210 210
(a) 81Tl (c) 79 Au (e) 83 Bi
212 212
(b) 81Tl (d) 79 Au

22 20
ˆ 42. Which one of the following particles is emitted when 11 Na decays into 10 Ne ?
(a) α (c) β +
(e) n
(b) p (d) β−

ˆ 43. The half-life of a particular isotope of iodine is 8.0 days. How much of a 10.0-g sample of this isotope
will remain after 30 days?
(a) 0.37 g (c) 0.60 g (e) 1.25 g
(b) 0.45 g (d) 0.74 g
318 Chapter 31 Nuclear Physics and Radioactivity

ˆ 44. The half-life a particular isotope of barium is 12 s. What is the activity of a 1.0 × 10−6 kg
sample of this isotope?
(a) 1.2 × 1015 Bq (c) 2.5 × 1017 Bq (e) 6.0 × 1023 Bq
(b) 1.8 × 10 Bq
16
(d) 3.6 × 10 Bq
18

ˆ 45. A sample contains 1000 nuclei of a radioactive isotope of barium. Exactly sixty seconds later,
970 nuclei in the sample have decayed. Determine the half-life of this isotope.
(a) 10 s (c) 14 s (e) 18 s
(b) 12 s (d) 16 s

ˆ 46. Determine the activity of 6.0 × 1012 atoms of Rn-220 that has a half-life of 56 s.
(a) 2.0 Ci (c) 3.0 Ci (e) 4.0 Ci
(b) 2.5 Ci (d) 3.5 Ci

„ 47. The half-life of 200

79 Au is 2.88 × 103 s. What is the mass of a sample of 200
79 Au that has an activity
of 1.42 × 10 Bq?
12

(a) 9.80 × 10−9 g (c) 5.89 × 10−12 g (e) 2.78 × 10−15 g

(b) 1.96 × 10−6 g (d) 2.41 × 10−3 g

„ 48. The same activity is measured for two different isotope samples. One sample contains 0.0450 kg of
230
92 U (atomic mass = 230.033 937 u, t1/2 = 20.8 days). The second sample contains an unknown

amount of 231
92 U (atomic mass = 231.036 264 u, t1/2 = 4.3 days). What is the mass of the second
sample?
(a) 0.0093 kg (c) 0.110 kg (e) 0.0450 kg
(b) 0.23 kg (d) 0.037 kg

Section 31.7 Radioactive Dating

Section 31.8 Radioactive Decay Series
ˆ 49. Which process is involved in determining the age of a prehistoric object?
(a) alpha decay (c) gamma decay (e) proton absorption
(b) beta decay (d) X-ray absorption

146
ˆ 50. How much time is required before a 2.50-mg sample of 61 Pm (t1/2 = 2020 days) is reduced to
1.25 mg?
(a) 3030 days (c) 8080 days (e) 2020 days
(b) 4040 days (d) 16 200 days

ˆ 51. The activity of carbon-14 in a sample of charcoal from an archaeological site is 0.04 Bq.
Determine the age of the sample. The half-life of carbon-14 is 5730 years.
(a) 10 500 yr (c) 14 500 yr (e) 18 500 yr
(b) 12 500 yr (d) 16 500 yr

… 52. The activity of a carbon-14 sample is 0.1 Ci. If this sample is burned, what is the activity of the
resulting CO2?
(a) zero curies (c) 0.2 Ci (e) 2.00 Ci
(b) 0.1 Ci (d) 0.3 Ci
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 319

ˆ 53. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the radioisotope carbon-14 that is used
in carbon dating?
(a) Carbon-14 is produced by living cells.
(b) Carbon-14 is produced during β− decay.
(c) Carbon-14 is produced by the decay of carbon-12.
(d) Carbon-14 is produced by cells after they have died.
(e) Carbon-14 is produced by cosmic rays striking the atmosphere.

ˆ 54. The ratio of the abundance of carbon-14 to carbon-12 in a sample of dead wood is one quarter the ratio
for living wood. If the half-life of carbon-14 is 5730 years, which one of the following expressions
determines how many years ago the wood died?
(a) 2 × 5730 (c) 0.75 × 5730 (e) 0.25 × 5730
(b) 4 × 5730 (d) 0.50 × 5730

ˆ 55. Tritium is an isotope of hydrogen that has two neutrons in addition to its proton. Tritium
undergoes β− decay with a half-life of 12.3 years. What percentage of an initially pure sample of
tritium will remain undecayed after 35 years?
(a) 2.9 % (c) 7.0 % (e) 19 %
(b) 6.0 % (d) 14 %

Additional Problems
ˆ 56. Determine the amount of energy released in the following alpha decay process:
94 Pu → 92 U+ 2 He
234 230 4

234 230
The relevant atomic masses are 94 Pu = 234.043 299 u, 92 U =230.033 937 u, and
4
2 He= 4.002 603 u.
(a) 3.73 keV (c) 6.30 MeV (e) 10.6 MeV
(b) 927 keV (d) 8.04 MeV

−
„ 57. 14
6C (14.003 241) undergoes β decay into 147 N (14.003 074 u). What is the maximum kinetic
energy of the beta rays emitted in this decay process?
(a) 0.156 MeV (c) 3.09 MeV (e) 28.0 MeV
(b) 0.342 MeV (d) 17.7 MeV

„ 58. In a certain γ decay process, an excited neon atom emits a γ-ray that has an energy of 1.630 MeV. The
neon atom in the ground state has a mass of 19.992 435 u. What is the mass of the excited neon atom?
(a) 17.498 658 u (c) 19.994 185 u (e) 20.003 185 u
(b) 18.746 422 u (d) 19.999 685 u

Questions 59 through 61 pertain to the reaction shown below:

Consider the following nuclear decay: 236

92 U → 232
90Th +X

ˆ 59. What is X?
(a) α (c) β+ (e) n
(b) p (d) β−
320 Chapter 31 Nuclear Physics and Radioactivity

ˆ 60. Determine the amount of energy released in this decay. Use the following atomic masses:
236 232 4
92 U = 236.045 562 u; 90Th = 232.038 054 u; 2 He = 4.002 603 u;
1 1
0 n = 1.008 665 u; and 1p = 1.007 277 u
Conversion factors: 1 u = 931.5 MeV; 1 eV = 1.602 × 10−19 J
(a) 3.5 × 10−8 J (c) 4.6 × 10−12 J (e) 2.9 × 10−12 J
−10
(b) 6.0 × 10 J (d) 7.3 × 10−13 J

„ 61. If the uranium nucleus is at rest before its decay, which one of the following statements is true
concerning the final nuclei?
(a) They have equal kinetic energies, but the thorium nucleus has much more momentum.
(b) They have momenta of equal magnitudes, but the thorium nucleus has much more kinetic energy.
(c) They have equal kinetic energies and momenta of equal magnitudes.
(d) They have equal kinetic energies, but X has much more momentum.
(e) They have momenta of equal magnitudes, but X has much more kinetic energy.
 chapter IONIZING RADIATION, NUCLEAR
ENERGY, AND ELEMENTARY
PARTICLES

Section 32.1 Biological Effects of Ionizing Radiation

… 1. Complete the following statement: The term ionizing radiation does not apply to
(a) alpha particles. (c) X-ray photons. (e) radio photons.
(b) electrons. (d) positrons.

ˆ 2. What absorbed dose of protons with an RBE of 10 will cause the same damage to biological tissue
as a 200 rd dose of neutrons that have an RBE of 2.6?
(a) 3.8 rd (c) 26 rd (e) 520 rd
(b) 20 rd (d) 52 rd

ˆ 3. A radiologist absorbs 3.6 × 10–5 J of radiation. Determine the absorbed dose if his mass is 70.0 kg.
(a) 1.9 × 10−7 Gy (c) 2.6 × 10−7 Gy (e) 5.1 × 10−7 Gy
−7 −7
(b) 2.3 × 10 Gy (d) 3.6 × 10 Gy

ˆ 4. A physicist wishes to measure the exposure of a beam of gamma rays. The beam is passed through
2.00 × 10−2 kg of dry air at STP. The beam produces positive ions in the air which have a total
charge of 3.87 × 10−6 C. What is the exposure (in roentgens) of the beam?
(a) 7.74 × 10−8 R (c) 3.25 × 10−2 R (e) 1.25 R
−4
(b) 1.94 × 10 R (d) 0.750 R

ˆ 5. Complete the following statement: The average biologically equivalent dose of radiation from
consumer products received by a resident of the United States is about
(a) 10 mrem/yr. (c) 20 mrem/yr. (e) 200 mrem/yr.
(b) 15 mrem/yr. (d) 50 mrem/yr.

ˆ 6. Which source of radiation contributes most to the average biological equivalent dose received by
a United States resident?
(a) radon gas (c) consumer products (e) medical diagnostics
(b) cosmic rays (d) internal radioactive nuclei

ˆ 7. A medical researcher wishes to compare the tissue damage produced by slow neutrons, which
have a relative biological effectiveness (RBE) of 2.2, to that produced by fast neutrons with an
RBE of 8.8. For the slow neutrons, the absorbed dose is 560 rd. What absorbed dose (in rd) of
fast neutrons will produce the same biologically equivalent dose (in rem) as that for the slow
neutrons?
(a) 140 rd (c) 560 rd (e) 2240 rd
(b) 29 rd (d) 310 rd

ˆ 8. A single, whole-body dose of 450 rem is considered a lethal dose for approximately fifty percent
of all individuals receiving such a dose. If a 62-kg person were exposed to such a dose of
radiation that has an RBE of 0.845, how much energy has the person absorbed?
(a) 480 J (c) 75 J (e) 330 J
(b) 5.3 J (d) 120 J
322 Chapter 32 Ionizing Radiation, Nuclear Energy, and Elementary Particles

ˆ 9. A beam of 4.5-MeV neutrons is directed at a 0.030-kg tissue sample. Each second, 1.5 × 106
neutrons strike the sample. If the relative biological effectiveness of these neutrons is 7.0, what
biologically equivalent dose (in rem) is received by the sample in 65 seconds?
(a) 0.23 rem (c) 1.6 rem (e) 33 rem
(b) 0.55 rem (d) 19 rem

ˆ 10. A biological tissue is irradiated with neutrons. The biologically equivalent dose of the neutrons is
5.0 × 102 rem. Determine the RBE of the neutrons if the absorbed dose is 250 rd.
(a) 0.5 (c) 4.0 (e) 25
(b) 2.0 (d) 5.0

ˆ 11. What radiation absorbed dose of slow neutrons (RBE = 2.5) is equivalent to a dose of 35.0 rad of
fast neutrons (RBE = 9.0)?
(a) 9.7 rad (c) 160 rad (e) 320 rad
(b) 130 rad (d) 260 rad

ˆ 12. A 75-kg worker is accidentally exposed to a 44-rad dose of gamma radiation. How much energy
does the worker absorb?
(a) 25 J (c) 74 J (e) 33 J
(b) 17 J (d) 59 J

Section 32.2 Induced Nuclear Reactions

ˆ 13. Consider the following nuclear reaction: 42 He + 105B → 136C + X . Which one of the following
correctly identifies X and represents the reaction?
(
(a) 105 B α , β + 136 C ) (c) 136 C(α , p )105 B (e) 105 B(α , n )136 C
(b) 13
6C (p, α )
10
5B (d) 10
5B (α , p )136 C

ˆ 14. Complete the following nuclear reaction: 42 He + 126 C → 01n + 11H + ?

16 14 15
(a) 8O (c) 7N (e) 7N
15 14
(b) 8O (d) 9F

„ 15. Consider the nuclear reaction: 122

52Te (X, d )12453 I . The symbol “d” indicates a deuterium nucleus
2
1 H . Which one of the following statements is true concerning X?
(a) X could be a proton. (d) X must have mass number 2.
(b) X could be a gamma ray. (e) X must have atomic number 4.
(c) X must contain 2 neutrons.

„ 16. Consider the following reaction: 147 N (d, α )126 C where 14

7N has a mass of 14.003 074 u; 12
6C has a
mass of 12.000 000 u; d has a mass of 2.014 102 u; and α has a mass of 4.002 603 u. How much
energy is released in this reaction (Note: 1 u = 931.5 MeV)?
(a) 1.2 MeV (c) 13.6 MeV (e) 58.3 MeV
(b) 8.3 MeV (d) 27.4 MeV

ˆ 17. Which one of the following quantities is not necessarily conserved in nuclear reactions?
(a) electric charge (d) angular momentum
(b) number of protons (e) number of protons and neutrons
(c) linear momentum
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 323

ˆ 18. Determine the atomic number Z and the nucleon number A in the following reaction:
23 3 2 A
Z Na ( 2 He, 1 H)12 Mg .
Z A
(a) 12 23
(b) 12 24
(c) 11 24
(d) 11 23
(e) 11 22

62 Sm →
„ 19. Consider the reaction: 11 H + 150 147 4 1
61Pm + 2 He where the masses are 1 H = 1.007 825 u;
4
2 He = 4.002 603 u; 150
62 Sm = 149.917 276 u; 147
61 Pm = 146.915 108 u. How much energy is
released in the reaction?
(a) 3.14 MeV (c) 12.6 MeV (e) 36.2 MeV
(b) 6.88 MeV (d) 19.8 MeV

„ 20. The first induced nuclear reaction, 14

7N (α , p )178 O , in a laboratory was studied by Rutherford in 1919.
14
How much energy is absorbed in this reaction if the atomic masses are: 7N= 14.003 074 u,
17
8O = 16.999 133 u, α = 4.002 603 u, and p = 1.007 825 u? Note: 1 u = 931.5 MeV.
(a) 1.193 MeV (c) 6.603 MeV (e) 27.91 MeV
(b) 3.338 MeV (d) 15.08 MeV

ˆ 21. In the induced nuclear reaction, 178 O + 23He → 20

10 Ne * → X + Y , the reaction produces neon in an
excited state, which subsequently decays into a nucleus X and a particle Y. Which one of the
following X and Y pairs is not possible?
X Y
(a) 178 O 3
2 He
19 2
(b) 9F 1H

(c) 20
10 Ne γ
16 4
(d) 8O 2 He
19 1
(e) 10 Ne 0n

Section 32.3 Nuclear Fission

Section 32.4 Nuclear Reactors
… 22. What is the importance of thermal neutrons in nuclear processes?
(a) Thermal neutron capture results in uranium fission.
(b) Thermal neutrons are released in radioactive decay.
(c) Thermal neutrons are necessary in the fusion of deuterium.
(d) Thermal neutrons are commonly released in fusion reactions.
(e) Thermal neutrons are sources of gamma rays.

… 23. Which one of the following energy values would be characteristic of a thermal neutron?
(a) 0.03 eV (c) 3 eV (e) 0.04 MeV
(b) 0.4 eV (d) 100 eV
324 Chapter 32 Ionizing Radiation, Nuclear Energy, and Elementary Particles

ˆ 24. A particular nuclear fission reaction produces 1.50 × 102 MeV per fission. How many fissions per
second are required to generate 3.00 × 108 W of power?
(a) 2.00 × 1016 (c) 3.20 × 1018 (e) 6.02 × 1023
(b) 5.25 × 10 17
(d) 1.25 × 10 19

ˆ 25. A nuclear reaction that uses one nucleus of 236

92 U generates 170 MeV. How much energy is
released when 5.0 kg of this isotope are used?
(a) 1.4 × 1010 J (c) 3.5 × 1014 J (e) 8.2 × 1016 J
(b) 6.9 × 10 J
13
(d) 8.9 × 10 J
14

ˆ 26. How many neutrons are produced in the reaction: 01 n + 92 U → 56 Ba

235 144 89
+ 36 Kr+ ? 01n ?
(a) 1 (c) 3 (e) 5
(b) 2 (d) 4

92 U + γ →
ˆ 27. Identify X in the following nuclear fission reaction: 235 142
56 Ba + 90
36 Kr + X .
(a) one alpha particle (c) three protons (e) six neutrons
(b) two alpha particles (d) three neutrons

ˆ 28. One example of a nuclear fission reaction involving slowly moving neutrons is
0 n + 92 U → 92 U * → 42 Mo + 57 La + 2 0 n
1 235 236 95 139 1

What is the total kinetic energy (in eV) of the products of the reaction? The relevant masses are:
235 95 139 1
92 U = 235.043 924 u, 42 Mo = 94.9058 u, 57 La = 138.9061 u, and 0 n = 1.0087 u.
(a) 208.0 MeV (c) 1879 MeV (e) 219 700 MeV
(b) 640.4 MeV (d) 4102 MeV

… 29. Which one of the following processes causes the explosion of a nuclear bomb?
(a) beta decay (c) moderation (e) chain reaction
(b) alpha decay (d) photon absorption

ˆ 30. How many neutrons are produced in the following reaction: 01 n + 92 U → 38 Sr

235 88
+ 136
54 Xe + ?
(a) 11 (c) 22 (e) 48
(b) 12 (d) 24

… 31. What is the function of the moderator in a fission reactor?

(a) The moderator absorbs gamma rays.
(b) The moderator absorbs slow neutrons.
(c) The moderator decreases the speeds of fast neutrons.
(d) The moderator prevents heat loss from the reactor core.
(e) The moderator prevents the reactor from reaching a critical state.

„ 32. A nuclear reactor continuously generates 150 MW of power through the fissioning of
uranium. Suppose that each fission releases 190 MeV. If one mole of uranium (6.023 × 1023
nuclei) has a mass of 0.235 kg, what mass of uranium has undergone fission in a 4.0 day
period?
(a) 0.33 kg (c) 1.3 kg (e) 5.2 kg
(b) 0.67 kg (d) 2.6 kg
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 325

Section 32.5 Nuclear Fusion

ˆ 33. Determine the amount of energy released in the following reaction: 2

1H + 21H → 42 He . Use the
following information for your calculation: 21 H has a mass of 2.014 102 u, 42 He has a mass of
4.002 603 u, and 1 u = 931.5 MeV.
(a) 0.20 MeV (c) 23.8 MeV (e) 7480 MeV
(b) 11.9 MeV (d) 257 MeV

ˆ 34. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the reaction 21 H + 63Li → 42 He + 42 He
where 21 H has a mass of 2.014 u; 42 He has a mass of 4.003 u; 63 Li has a mass of 6.015 u; and
1 u = 931.5 MeV?
(a) The reaction releases 14 MeV. (d) The reaction requires 14 MeV to occur.
(b) The reaction releases 21 MeV. (e) The reaction requires 21 MeV to occur.
(c) The reaction releases 36 MeV.

ˆ 35. Determine the amount of energy released in the following reaction: 42 He + 42 He + 42 He → 126 C
where 42 He = 4.002 603 u and 12
6C = 12.000 000 u.
(a) 2.27 MeV (c) 3.73 MeV (e) 7.27 MeV
(b) 3.01 MeV (d) 4.37 MeV

… 36. Which one of the following statements is the best explanation as to why nuclear fusion is not at
present used to generate electric power?
(a) Fusion produces too much radiation.
(b) Fusion requires isotopes that are scarce.
(c) Fusion processes can result in nuclear explosions.
(d) Fusion results in large amounts of radioactive waste.
(e) Fusion requires very high temperatures that are difficult to contain.

ˆ 37. Determine the amount of energy released in the following reaction: 21 H + 21H → 11H + 31H
where the masses are 21 H = 2.014 102 u; 11H = 1.007 825 u; and 3
1H = 3.016 u.
(a) 2.02 eV (c) 2.02 MeV (e) 8.00 MeV
(b) 4.03 eV (d) 4.03 MeV

ˆ 38. Determine the nucleon number A in the following nuclear fusion reaction: A7 N( 11H, α )126 C .
(a) 11 (c) 14 (e) 13
(b) 16 (d) 15

„ 39. How many kilowatt ⋅ hours of energy are released from 25 g of deuterium 21 H fuel in the fusion
reaction: 21 H + 21H → 42 He + γ where the masses are 21 H = 2.014 102 u and 42 He = 4.002 603 u.
Notes: Ignore the energy carried off by the gamma ray. Conversion factors: 1 kWh = 3.600 × 106 J;
1 eV = 1.602 × 10−19 J.
(a) 1 × 106 kWh (c) 3 × 106 kWh (e) 5 × 106 kWh
(b) 2 × 10 kWh
6
(d) 4 × 10 kWh
6
326 Chapter 32 Ionizing Radiation, Nuclear Energy, and Elementary Particles

10 Ne + 2 He → 12 Mg + 0 n
21 4 24 1
ˆ 40. One of the nuclear fusion reactions that occurs in stars is: where the
21 4 24
masses are 10 Ne = 20.993 849 u; 2 He = 4.002 603 u; 12 Mg = 23.985 042 u; and
1
0n = 1.008 665 u. How much energy is released in this reaction?
(a) 2.557 MeV (c) 6.452 MeV (e) 9.370 MeV
(b) 4.572 MeV (d) 8.493 MeV

Section 32.6 Elementary Particles

ˆ 41. Note the forces:
(1) weak nuclear force (3) gravitational force
(2) strong nuclear force (4) electromagnetic force
Through which force(s) can leptons interact?
(a) only 1 (c) only 1 and 2 (e) only 1, 3, and 4
(b) only 2 (d) only 2, 3 and 4

… 42. In the medical diagnostic technique known as positron emission tomography (PET), a positron
and an electron annihilate each other and two γ−ray photons are emitted. What is the angle
between the momentum vectors of the two photons?
(a) zero degrees (c) 90° (e) Any angle is possible.
(b) 45° (d) 180°

„ 43. Of the reactions listed below, which will not proceed via the strong interaction?
(a) n + p → e − + ν e (d) π − + p → n + γ
(b) p + p → Σ + + K + (e) K − + p → K + + Ξ −
(c) π − + p → Σ 0 + K 0

ˆ 44. A sigma particle, initially at rest, decays into a lambda particle and a photon: Σ 0 → Λ0 + γ .
Determine the kinetic energy of the lambda particle if the energy of the photon is 74 MeV. The
rest energies are 1192 MeV and 1116 MeV for the sigma and lambda particles, respectively.
(a) 2 MeV (c) 74 MeV (e) 1118 MeV
(b) 9 MeV (d) 248 MeV

ˆ 45. In the reaction π − + p → n + π 0 , the proton was initially at rest. The final kinetic energies of the
neutron and the pion are 0.4 MeV and 2.9 MeV, respectively. Determine the initial kinetic energy of
the π −. The rest energies are: π − = 139.6 MeV; π0 = 135.0 MeV; p = 938.3 MeV; and n = 939.6
MeV.
(a) 2.5 MeV (c) 139.6 MeV (e) zero electron volts
(b) 3.4 MeV (d) 279.2 MeV

„ 46. Which one of the following particles completes the reaction: K + → π + + π + + ?

(a) π+ (c) π0 (e) η0
(b) π– (d) K0
Physics, 7e TEST BANK 327

ˆ 47. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the proton?
(a) The proton cannot be further subdivided.
(b) The proton is composed of two up quarks and a down quark.
(c) The proton is composed of two down quarks and an up quark.
(d) The proton is composed of a down quark and an up antiquark.
(e) The proton is composed of an up quark and a down antiquark.

ˆ 48. Which one of the following particles is not a baryon?

(a) proton (c) pion (e) lambda particle
(b) neutron (d) sigma particle

ˆ 49. Which one of the following particles is not a member of the hadron family?
(a) pion (c) muon (e) proton
(b) neutron (d) kaon

ˆ 50. Which one of the following particles is not composed of quarks?

(a) neutron (c) pion (e) proton
(b) muon (d) kaon

… 51. How many members are in the photon family?

(a) 1 (c) 3 (e) 5
(b) 2 (d) 4

ˆ 52. Which one of the following statements concerning pions is true?

(a) They are stable particles.
(b) They belong to the lepton family.
(c) They are composed of three quarks.
(d) They only exist in two charge states.
(e) They interact with protons via the strong interaction.

… 53. What is the antiparticle of an electron?

+ +
(a) π (c) electron (self) (e) β
+
(b) ν (d) photon

… 54. Which one of the following names is not one that is used to name quarks?
(a) charm (c) strange (e) down
(b) top (d) exotic

ˆ 55. Which one of the following statements about the standard model is false?
(a) The weak nuclear force and the electromagnetic force are manifestations of a more
fundamental interaction called the electroweak interaction.
(b) The strong nuclear force between quarks is described in terms of the concept of color.
(c) The standard model provides an explanation for the strong nuclear and weak nuclear forces.
(d) The gravitational force and the strong nuclear force are manifestations of a more fundamental
interaction called the quark interaction.
(e) Nucleons are composed of quarks.
328 Chapter 32 Ionizing Radiation, Nuclear Energy, and Elementary Particles

Section 32.7 Cosmology

ˆ 56. Astronomers studying the light from calcium atoms located in a galaxy in the constellation Boötes
find that the spectral lines are shifted toward the red end of the spectrum. The redshift indicates
that the galaxy is moving away at a speed of 3.9 × 106 m/s. What is the distance (in light ⋅ years) to
the galaxy?
(a) 4.7 × 109 light ⋅ years (c) 1.1 × 107 light ⋅ years (e) 6.6 × 104 light ⋅ years
(b) 2.3 × 10 light ⋅ years
8
(d) 8.4 × 10 light ⋅ years
6

ˆ 57. Which one of the following statements concerning the standard cosmological model is false?
(a) Shortly after the Big Bang, all of the fundamental forces behaved as a single force.
(b) About 0.5 million years after the Big Bang, hydrogen and helium atoms began to form.
(c) The first distinguishable particles in existence after the Big Bang were quarks and leptons.
(d) The Grand Unified Theory describes the universe immediately before and shortly after the
Big Bang.
(e) At 10−43 s after the Big Bang, the gravitational force was distinguishable from the other
fundamental forces.

Additional Problems
ˆ 58. Nucleus A has Z protons and N neutrons. Nucleus B has 2Z protons and 2N neutrons. Nucleus A
has a smaller binding energy per nucleon than B. Which entry in the table below is correct?
The fusion of two A's to form B The fission of B to form two A's
(a) process releases energy process absorbs energy
(b) process absorbs energy process absorbs energy
(c) process releases energy process releases energy
(d) process absorbs energy process releases energy
(e) process is not possible process releases energy

92 U → X
235 94 235
„ 59. Consider the nuclear reaction + 40 Zr + n and the masses: 92 U = 235.0439 u;
94
40 Zr = 93.9063 u; n = 1.008 67 u. If 208.66 MeV of energy is released in this reaction,
determine the mass of X.
(a) 38.970 u (c) 40.962 u (e) 139.905 u
(b) 39.962 u (d) 84.589 u
preface
Welcome to the seventh edition of the Cutnell/Johnson Test Bank. The Test Bank
contains approximately 2200 questions of varying difficulty. The Homework Choices
section lists all of the even-numbered problems in the text and provides multiple-
choice answers for them. The notation and language used throughout this volume
match the usage in the text; and the questions have been placed into the section of
each chapter from which its subject originates. The sections are grouped in the same
manner as the homework problems are at the end of each chapter in the text.
The test bank has been designed for use in test preparation software for both
Windows and Macintosh platforms by Brownstone Research Group. The software is
very easy to use and provides full-editing capability. I highly recommend trying the
program. Copies are available from your Wiley representative.
Test Bank questions are designed to test conceptual understanding of the material
as well as problem-solving ability. The questions have also been labeled with a
difficulty indicator:
… − less than average difficulty
ˆ − average difficulty
„ − greater than average difficulty
Instructors may choose to use the test bank questions in either open- or closed-
book test conditions. Some problems include the necessary constants, but, in general,
students will require access to the constants that are listed on the inside covers of the
text. Each question has five answers labeled a, b, c, d, and e for use in a multiple
choice format. An instructor who prefers to not use the multiple choice test format
may still use the questions by simply omitting the choices.
The Homework Choices section of this volume allows instructors to assign
homework in a multiple choice format. Each problem has, in almost all cases, five
choices that are labeled A, B, C, D, and E. The few problems that require a graph,
drawing, or proof are not available for multiple choice solutions and are noted
accordingly. The Concepts & Calculations section in each chapter has multiple
choice answers only for the problem portion of each question because the conceptual
questions are, in general, not suited for the multiple choice format. The Brownstone
software is also available for preparing multiple choice homework assignments.

Acknowledgments: I would like to thank Stuart Johnson, John D. Cutnell and

Kenneth W. Johnson for their patience and unwavering attention to detail and
Bruce R. Boller for carefully reviewing the sixth edition of the Test Bank. I am
also grateful to my wife, Cathie, and daughter Rachel for their continued support.

This book is dedicated to Frank R. Valentine (1910-1990)

and Henry J. Deutschendorf, Jr. (1943-1997).

David T. Marx
Department of Physics
Illinois State University
Normal, IL 61790-4560
e-mail: [email protected]