Cyberops Associate (Version 1.0) - Modules 1 - 2: Threat Actors and Defenders Group Exam Answers

CyberOps Associate (Version 1.
0) – Modules 1 – 2:
Threat Actors and Defenders Group Exam Answers
1. Which organization is an international nonprofit organization that offers
the CISSP certification?
▪ CompTIA
▪ (ISC)2
▪ IEEE
▪ GIAC
Explanation: (ISC)2 is an international nonprofit organization that offers the
CISSP certification.
2. What is a benefit to an organization of using SOAR as part of the SIEM
system?
▪ SOAR was designed to address critical security events and high-end
investigation.
▪ SOAR would benefit smaller organizations because it requires no
cybersecurity analyst involvement once installed.
▪ SOAR automates incident investigation and responds to workflows
based on playbooks.
▪ SOAR automation guarantees an uptime factor of “5 nines”.
Explanation: SIEM systems are used for collecting and filtering data, detecting
and classifying threats, and analyzing and investigating threats. SOAR
technology does the same as SIEMs but it also includes automation. SOAR
integrates threat intelligence and automates incident investigation. SOAR also
responds to events using response workflows based on previously developed
playbooks.
3. Which personnel in a SOC are assigned the task of hunting for potential
threats and implementing threat detection tools?
▪ Tier 3 SME
▪ Tier 2 Incident Reporter
▪ Tier 1 Analyst
▪ SOC Manager
Explanation: In a SOC, Tier 3 SMEs have expert-level skills in network,
endpoint, threat intelligence, and malware reverse engineering (RE). They are
deeply involved in hunting for potential security threats and implementing
threat detection tools.
4. Which three technologies should be included in a SOC security
information and event management system? (Choose three.)
▪ security monitoring
▪ threat intelligence
▪ proxy service
▪ firewall appliance
▪ intrusion prevention
▪ log management
Explanation: Technologies in a SOC should include the following:
Event collection, correlation, and analysis
Security monitoring
Security control
Log management
Vulnerability assessment
Vulnerability tracking
Threat intelligence
Proxy server, VPN, and IPS are security devices deployed in the network
infrastructure.
5. The term cyber operations analyst refers to which group of personnel in a
SOC?
▪ Tier 1 personnel
▪ SOC managers
Explanation: In a typical SOC, the Tier 1 personnel are called alert analysts,
also known as cyberoperations analysts.
6. How does a security information and event management system (SIEM) in
a SOC help the personnel fight against security threats?
▪ by analyzing logging data in real time
▪ by combining data from multiple technologies
▪ by integrating all security devices and appliances in an organization
▪ by dynamically implementing firewall rules
Explanation: A security information and event management system (SIEM)
combines data from multiple sources to help SOC personnel collect and filter
data, detect and classify threats, analyze and investigate threats, and manage
resources to implement preventive measures.
7. An SOC is searching for a professional to fill a job opening. The employee
must have expert-level skills in networking, endpoint, threat intelligence,
and malware reverse engineering in order to search for cyber threats
hidden within the network. Which job within an SOC requires a professional
with those skills?
▪ Incident Responder
▪ Alert Analyst
▪ SOC Manager
▪ Threat Hunter
Explanation: Tier 3 professionals called Threat Hunters must have expert-
level skills in networking, endpoint, threat intelligence, and malware reverse
engineering. They are experts at tracing the processes of malware to
determine the impact of the malware and how it can be removed.
8. Which three are major categories of elements in a security operations
center? (Choose three.)
▪ technologies
▪ Internetconnection
▪ processes
▪ data center
▪ people
▪ database engine
Explanation: The three major categories of elements of a security operations
center are people, processes, and technologies. A database engine, a data
center, and an Internet connection are components in the technologies
category.
9. Which KPI metric does SOAR use to measure the time required to stop the
spread of malware in the network?
▪ MITR
▪ Time to Control
▪ MITC
▪ MTTD
Explanation:
The common key performance indicator (KPI) metrics compiled by SOC
managers are as follows:
• Dwell Time: the length of time that threat actors have access to a network
before they are detected and the access of the threat actors stopped
• Mean Time to Detect (MTTD): the average time that it takes for the SOC
personnel to identify that valid security incidents have occurred in the network
• Mean Time to Respond (MTTR): the average time that it takes to stop and
remediate a security incident
• Mean Time to contain (MTTC): the time required to stop the incident from
causing further damage to systems or data
• Time to Control the time required to stop the spread of malware in the
network
10. What job would require verification that an alert represents a true
security incident or a false positive?
▪ Alert Analyst
▪ Threat Hunter
▪ SOC Manager
▪ Incident Reporter
Explanation: A Cybersecurity Analyst monitors security alert queues and uses
a ticketing system to assign alerts to a queue for an analyst to investigate.
Because the software that generates alerts can trigger false alarms, one job of
the Cybersecurity Analyst would be to verify that an alert represents a true
security incident.
11. When a user turns on the PC on Wednesday, the PC displays a message
indicating that all of the user files have been locked. In order to get the files
unencrypted, the user is supposed to send an email and include a specific ID
in the email title. The message also includes ways to buy and submit
bitcoins as payment for the file decryption. After inspecting the message,
the technician suspects a security breach occurred. What type of malware
could be responsible?
▪ Trojan
▪ spyware
▪ adware
▪ ransomware
Explanation: Ransomware requires payment for access to the computer or
files. Bitcoin is a type of digital currency that does not go through a particular
bank.
12. An employee connects wirelessly to the company network using a cell
phone. The employee then configures the cell phone to act as a wireless
access point that will allow new employees to connect to the company
network. Which type of security threat best describes this situation?
▪ rogue access point
▪ cracking
▪ spoofing
▪ denial of service
Explanation: Configuring the cell phone to act as a wireless access point
means that the cell phone is now a rogue access point. The employee
unknowingly breached the security of the company network by allowing a user
to access the network without connecting through the company access point.
Cracking is the process of obtaining passwords from data stored or transmitted
on a network. Denial of service attacks refer to sending large amounts of data
to a networked device, such as a server, to prevent legitimate access to the
server. Spoofing refers to access gained to a network or data by an attacker
appearing to be a legitimate network device or user.
13. What are two examples of personally identifiable information (PII)?
(Choose two.)
▪ first name
▪ IP address
▪ language preference
▪ street address
▪ credit card number
Explanation: Personally identifiable information (PII) is any data that could
potentially identify and track a specific individual. A credit card number and
street address are the best examples of PII.
14. What is the dark web?
▪ It is a website that reports the most recent activities of cybercriminals all
over the world.
▪ It is a website that sells stolen credit cards.
▪ It is part of the internet where a person can obtain personally identifiable
information from anyone for free
▪ It is part of the internet that can only be accessed with special
software.
Explanation: One of the more lucrative goals of cybercriminals is obtaining
lists of personally identifiable information that can then be sold on the dark
web. The dark web can only be accessed with special software and is used by
cybercriminals to shield their activities. Stolen PII can be used to create fake
accounts, such as credit cards and short-term loans.
15. A company has just had a cybersecurity incident. The threat actor
appeared to have a goal of network disruption and appeared to use a
common security hack tool that overwhelmed a particular server with a
large amount of traffic. This traffic rendered the server inoperable. How
would a certified cybersecurity analyst classify this type of threat actor?
▪ terrorist
▪ hacktivist
▪ state-sponsored
▪ amateur
Explanation:Amateurs or script kiddies use common, existing tools found on
the internet to launch attacks. Hacktivists disrupt services in protest against
organizations or governments for a particular political or social idea. State-
sponsored threat actors use cyberspace for industrial espionage or interfering
with another country in some way. Terrorist groups attack for a specific cause.
16. A user calls the help desk complaining that the password to access the
wireless network has changed without warning. The user is allowed to
change the password, but an hour later, the same thing occurs. What might
be happening in this situation?
▪ password policy
▪ weak password
▪ user error
▪ user laptop
Explanation:Man-in-the-middle attacks are a threat that results in lost
credentials and data. These type of attacks can occur for different reasons
including traffic sniffing.
17. Which regulatory law regulates the identification, storage, and
transmission of patient personal healthcare information?
▪ FISMA
▪ HIPAA
▪ PCI-DSS
▪ GLBA
Explanation: The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
requires that all patient personally identifiable healthcare information be
stored, maintained, and transmitted in ways that ensure patient privacy and
confidentiality.
18. A worker in the records department of a hospital accidentally sends a
medical record of a patient to a printer in another department. When the
worker arrives at the printer, the patient record printout is missing. What
breach of confidentiality does this situation describe?
▪ EMR
▪ PII
▪ PSI
▪ PHI
Explanation: Protected Health Information (PHI) includes patient name,
addresses, visiting dates and more. The Health Insurance Portability and
Accountability Act (HIPAA) regulates and provides severe penalties for
breaches of PHI. EMRs (Electronic Medical Records) are documents created
and maintained by the medical community that contain PHI. Personally
identifiable information (PII) is any information that can be used to positively
identify an individual, such as name and social security number. Personal
Security Information (PSI) is related to information about an individual such as
passwords, access keys, and account details.
19. What type of cyberwarfare weapon was Stuxnet?
▪ botnet
▪ virus
▪ worm
▪ ransomware
Explanation:The Stuxnet worm was an excellent example of a sophisticated
cyberwarfare weapon. In 2010, it was used to attack programmable logic
controllers that operated uranium enrichment centrifuges in Iran.
20. Which example illustrates how malware might be concealed?
▪A hacker uses techniques to improve the ranking of a website so that

users are redirected to a malicious site.
▪ An attack is launched against the public website of an online retailer with
the objective of blocking its response to visitors.
▪ A botnet of zombies carry personal information back to the hacker.
▪ An email is sent to the employees of an organization with an
attachment that looks like an antivirus update, but the attachment
actually consists of spyware.
Explanation: An email attachment that appears as valid software but actually
contains spyware shows how malware might be concealed. An attack to block
access to a website is a DoS attack. A hacker uses search engine optimization
(SEO) poisoning to improve the ranking of a website so that users are directed
to a malicious site that hosts malware or uses social engineering methods to
obtain information. A botnet of zombie computers is used to launch a DDoS
attack.
21. What websites should a user avoid when connecting to a free and
open wireless hotspot?
▪ websites to check account fees
▪ websites to check product details
▪ websites to check stock prices
▪ websites to make purchases
Explanation: Many free and open wireless hotspots operate with no
authentication or weak authentication mechanisms. Attackers could easily
capture the network traffic in and out of such a hotspot and steal user
information. Therefore, users who use free and open wireless hotspots to
connect to websites should avoid giving any personal information to the
websites.
22. In a smart home, an owner has connected many home devices to the
Internet, such as the refrigerator and the coffee maker. The owner is
concerned that these devices will make the wireless network vulnerable to
attacks. What action could be taken to address this issue?
▪ Configure mixed mode wireless operation.
▪ Install the latest firmware versions for the devices.
▪ Assign static IP addresses to the wireless devices.
▪ Disable the SSID broadcast.
Explanation: The Internet of Things (IoT) is facilitating the connection of
different kinds of devices to the internet, like home devices such as coffee
makers and refrigerators, and also wearable devices. In order to make these
devices secure and not vulnerable to attacks, they have to be updated with the
latest firmware.
23. Match the SOC metric to the description. (Not all options are used.)
Explanation: SOCs use many metrics as performance indicators of how long it

takes personnel to locate, stop, and remediate security incidents.
▪ Dwell Time
▪ Mean Time to Detect (MTTD)
▪ Mean Time to Respond (MTTR)
▪ Mean Time to Contain (MTTC)
▪ Time to Control
24. A group of users on the same network are all complaining about their
computers running slowly. After investigating, the technician determines
that these computers are part of a zombie network. Which type of malware
is used to control these computers?
▪ botnet
▪ spyware
▪ virus
▪ rootkit
Explanation: A botnet is a network of infected computers called a zombie
network. The computers are controlled by a hacker and are used to attack
other computers or to steal data.
25. Which statement describes cyberwarfare?
▪ It is Internet-based conflict that involves the penetration of
information systems of other nations.
▪ It is simulation software for Air Force pilots that allows them to practice
under a simulated war scenario.
▪ Cyberwarfare is an attack carried out by a group of script kiddies.
▪ It is a series of personal protective equipment developed for soldiers
involved in nuclear war
Explanation: Cyberwarfare is Internet-based conflict that involves the
penetration of the networks and computer systems of other nations. Organized
hackers are typically involved in such an attack.
26. Why do IoT devices pose a greater risk than other computing devices on
a network?
▪ Most IoT devices do not receive frequent firmware updates.
▪ Most IoT devices do not require an Internet connection and are unable
to receive new updates.
▪ IoT devices cannot function on an isolated network with only an Internet
connection.
▪ IoT devices require unencrypted wireless connections.
Explanation: IoT devices commonly operate using their original firmware and
do not receive updates as frequently as laptops, desktops, and mobile
platforms.
27. Which cyber attack involves a coordinated attack from a botnet of
zombie computers?
▪ DDoS
▪ MITM
▪ address spoofing
▪ ICMP redirect
Explanation: DDoS is a distributed denial-of-services attack. A DDoS attack is
launched from multiple coordinated sources. The sources of the attack are
zombie hosts that the cybercriminal has built into a botnet. When ready, the
cybercriminal instructs the botnet of zombies to attack the chosen target.
28. What is the main purpose of cyberwarfare?
▪ to protect cloud-based data centers
▪ to develop advanced network devices
▪ to gain advantage over adversaries
▪ to simulate possible war scenarios among nations
Explanation: Cyberwarfare is Internet-based conflict that involves the
penetration of the networks and computer systems of other nations. The main
purpose of cyberwarfare is to gain advantage over adversaries, whether they
are nations or competitors.
CyberOps Associate (Version 1.0) – Modules 3 – 4:

Operating System Overview Group Exam
1. Why would a network administrator choose Linux as an operating system
in the Security Operations Center (SOC)?
▪ It is easier to use than other operating systems.
▪ More network applications are created for this environment.
▪ It is more secure than other server operating systems.
▪ The administrator has more control over the operating system.
Explanation: There are several reasons why Linux is a good choice for the
SOC.
Linux is open source.
The command line interface is a very powerful environment.
The user has more control over the operating system.
Linux allows for better network communication control.
2. Which two methods can be used to harden a computing device? (Choose
two.)
▪ Allow default services to remain enabled.
▪ Allow USB auto-detection.
▪ Enforce the password history mechanism.
▪ Update patches on a strict annual basis irrespective of release date.
▪ Ensure physical security.
Explanation: The basic best practices for device hardening are as follows:
Ensure physical security.
Minimize installed packages.
Disable unused services.
Use SSH and disable the root account login over SSH.
Keep the system updated.
Disable USB auto-detection.
Enforce strong passwords.
Force periodic password changes.
Keep users from reusing old passwords.
Review logs regularly.
3. Which Linux command can be used to display the name of the current
working directory?
▪ sudo
▪ ps
▪ pwd
▪ chmod
Explanation: One of the most important commands in Linux is the pwd
command, which stands for print working directory. It shows users the physical
path for the directory they are working in.
4. Consider the result of the ls -l command in the Linux output below. What
are the file permissions assigned to the sales user for the analyst.txt file?
ls –l analyst.txt
-rwxrw-r-- sales staff 1028 May 28 15:50 analyst.txt
▪ write only
▪ read, write
▪ read only
▪ read, write, execute
Explanation: The file permissions are always displayed in the User Group and
Other order. In the example displayed, the file has the following permissions:
The dash ( – ) means that this is a file. For directories, the first dash would
replaced with a “d”.
The first set of characters is for user permission (rwx).
The user, sales, who owns the file can read, write and execute the file.
The second set of characters is for group permissions (rw-). The group, staff,
who owns the file can read and write to the file.
The third set of characters is for any other user or group permissions (r–). Any
other user or group on the computer can only read the file.
5. A Linux system boots into the GUI by default, so which application can a
network administrator use in order to access the CLI environment?
▪ system viewer
▪ file viewer
▪ package management tool
▪ terminal emulator
Explanation: A terminal emulator is an application program a user of Linux
can use in order to access the CLI environment.
6. What is the well-known port address number used by DNS to serve
requests?
▪ 25
▪ 53
▪ 110
▪ 60
Explanation: Port numbers are used in TCP and UDP communications to
differentiate between the various services running on a device. The well-
known port number used by DNS is port 53.
7. Which user can override file permissions on a Linux computer?
▪ any user that has ‘group’ permission to the file
▪ only the creator of the file
▪ any user that has ‘other’ permission to the file
▪ root user
Explanation: A user has as much rights to a file as the file permissions allow.
The only user that can override file permission on a Linux computer is the root
user. Because the root user has the power to override file permissions, the
root user can write to any file.
8. Match the commonly used ports on a Linux server with the corresponding
service.
▪ SMTP: 25
▪ DNS: 53
▪ HTTPS: 443
▪ SSH: 22
▪ TELNET: 23
9. Match typical Linux log files to the function.
▪ used by RedHat and CentOS computers and tracks authentication-

related events: /var/log/secure
▪ contains generic computer activity logs, and is used to store
informational and noncritical system messages: /var/log/messages
▪ stores information related to hardware devices and their
drivers: /var/log/dmesg
▪ used by Debian and Ubuntu computers and stores all authentication-
related events: /var/log/auth.log
10. Which type of tool allows administrators to observe and understand
every detail of a network transaction?
▪ log manager
▪ malware analysis tool
▪ ticketing system
▪ packet capture software
Explanation: Network packet capture software is an important tool because it
makes it possible to observe and understand the details of a network
transaction.
11. Why is Kali Linux a popular choice in testing the network security of an
organization?
▪ It is a network scanning tool that prioritizes security risks.
▪ It is an open source Linux security distribution containing many
penetration tools.
▪ It can be used to test weaknesses by using only malicious software.
▪ It can be used to intercept and log network traffic.
Explanation: Kali is an open source Linux security distribution that is
commonly used by IT professionals to test the security of networks.
12. Match the octal value to the file permission description in Linux. (Not all
options are used.)
▪ write only ~~> 010

▪ read and execute ~~> 101
▪ read and write ~~> 110
▪ execute only ~~> 001
▪ write and execute ~~> NOT SCORED
▪ no access ~~> 000
13. Match the Linux command to the function. (Not all options are used.)
▪ Displays the name of the current working directory: pwd

▪ runs a command as another user: sudo
▪ modifies file permissions: chmod
▪ shuts down the system: Empty
▪ lists the processes that are currently running: ps
14. What are two advantages of the NTFS file system compared with FAT32?
(Choose two.)
▪ NTFS is easier to configure.
▪ NTFS supports larger files.
▪ NTFS allows faster formatting of drives.
▪ NTFS allows the automatic detection of bad sectors.
▪ NTFS allows faster access to external peripherals such as a USB drive.
▪ NTFS provides more security features.
Explanation: The file system has no control over the speed of access or
formatting of drives, and the ease of configuration is not file system-
dependent.
15. A PC user issues the netstat command without any options. What is
displayed as the result of this command?
▪ a historical list of successful pings that have been sent
▪ a list of all established active TCP connections
▪ a network connection and usage report
▪ a local routing table
Explanation: When used by itself (without any options), the netstat command
will display all the active TCP connections that are available.
16. Which two commands could be used to check if DNS name resolution is
working properly on a Windows PC? (Choose two.)
▪ nslookup cisco.com
▪ net cisco.com
▪ ipconfig /flushdns
▪ nbtstat cisco.com
▪ ping cisco.com
Explanation: The ping command tests the connection between two hosts.
When ping uses a host domain name to test the connection, the resolver on
the PC will first perform the name resolution to query the DNS server for the IP
address of the host. If the ping command is unable to resolve the domain
name to an IP address, an error will result.
Nslookup is a tool for testing and troubleshooting DNS servers.
17. What is the purpose of using the net accounts command in Windows?
▪ to display information about shared network resources
▪ to show a list of computers and network devices on the network
▪ to start a network service
▪ to review the settings of password and logon requirements for users
Explanation: These are some common net commands:
net accounts – sets password and logon requirements for users
net start – starts a network service or lists running network services
net use – connects, disconnects, and displays information about shared
network resources
net view – shows a list of computers and network devices on the network
When used without options, the net accounts command displays the current
settings for password, logon limitations, and domain information.
18. Match the Windows 10 boot sequence after the boot manager
(bootmgr.exe) loads.
▪ Step one: The Windows boot loader Winload.exe loads

▪ Step two: Ntosknl.exe and hal.dll are loaded
▪ Step three: Winload.exe reads the registry, chooses a hardware profile,
and loads the device drivers.
▪ Step four: Ntoskrnl.exe takes over the process.
▪ Step five: Winlogon.exe is loaded and excutes the logon process.
19. A technician has installed a third party utility that is used to manage a
Windows 7 computer. However, the utility does not automatically start
whenever the computer is started. What can the technician do to resolve
this problem?
▪ Set the application registry key value to one.
▪ Use the Add or Remove Programs utility to set program access and
defaults.
▪ Change the startup type for the utility to Automatic in Services .
▪ Uninstall the program and then choose Add New Programs in the Add or
Remove Programs utility to install the application.
Explanation: The Services console in Windows OS allows for the
management of all the services on the local and remote computers. The
setting of Automatic in the Services console enables the chosen service to
start when the computer is started.
20. Which statement describes the function of the Server Message Block
(SMB) protocol?
▪ It is used to stream media contents.
▪ It is used to manage remote PCs.
▪ It is used to compress files stored on a disk.
▪ It is used to share network resources.
Explanation: The Server Message Block (SMB) protocol is primarily used by
Microsoft to share network resources.
21. A user creates a file with .ps1 extension in Windows. What type of file is
it?
▪ PowerShell function
▪ PowerShell cmdlet
▪ PowerShell documentation
▪ PowerShell script
Explanation: The types of commands that PowerShell can execute include the
following:
▪ cmdlets – perform an action and return an output or object to the next
command that will be executed
▪ PowerShell scripts – files with a .ps1 extension that contain PowerShell
commands that are executed
▪ PowerShell functions – pieces of code that can be referenced in a script
22. Match the Windows command to the description.

Modules 3 – 4: Operating System Overview Group Exam
▪ renames a file ~~> ren
▪ creates a new directory ~~> mkdir
▪ changes the current directory ~~> cd
▪ lists files in a directory ~~> dir
23. A user logs in to Windows with a regular user account and attempts to
use an application that requires administrative privileges. What can the
user do to successfully use the application?
▪ Right-click the application and choose Run as Priviledge .
▪ Right-click the application and choose Run as Superuser .
▪ Right-click the application and choose Run as Administrator .
▪ Right-click the application and choose Run as root .
Explanation: As a security best practice, it is advisable not to log on to
Windows using the Administrator account or an account with administrative
privileges. When it is necessary to run or install software that requires the
privileges of the Administrator, the user can right-click the software in the
Windows File Explorer and choose Run as Administrator .
24. An IT technician wants to create a rule on two Windows 10 computers to
prevent an installed application from accessing the public Internet. Which
tool would the technician use to accomplish this task?
▪ Local Security Policy
▪ Computer Management
▪ Windows Defender Firewall with Advanced Security
▪ DMZ
Explanation: Windows Firewall with Advanced Security or the Windows 10
Windows Defender Firewall with Advanced Security is used to create inbound
and outbound rules, connection security rules such as security traffic between
two computers, and monitoring any active connection security rules.
25. What technology was created to replace the BIOS program on modern
personal computer motherboards?
▪ UEFI
▪ MBR
▪ CMOS
▪ RAM
Explanation: As of 2015, most personal computer motherboards are shipped
with UEFI as the replacement for the BIOS program.
26. Match the Linux system component with the description. (Not all
options are used.)
▪ CLI : a text based interface that accepts user commands

▪ shell : a program that interprets and executes user commands
▪ daemon : a background process that runs without the need for user
interaction
▪ (Empty) : a program that manages CPU and RAM allocation to
processes, system calls, and file systems
27. What is the outcome when a Linux administrator enters the man man
command?
▪ The man man command configures the network interface with a manual
address
▪ The man man command opens the most recent log file
▪ The man man command provides a list of commands available at the
current prompt
▪ The man man command provides documentation about the man
command
Explanation: The man command is short for manual and is used to obtain
documentation about a Linux command. The command man man would
provide documentation about how to use the manual.
28. Match the description to the Linux term. (Not all options are used.)
▪a type of file that is a reference to another file or directory ~~> symlink

▪a running background process that does not need user interaction ~~>
daemon
▪ protecting remote access ~~> hardening
▪ (Empty) ~~>logging
29. What are two benefits of using an ext4 partition instead of ext3? (Choose
two.)
▪ an increase in the number of supported devices
▪ improved performance
▪ compatibility with NTFS
▪ increase in the size of supported files
▪ decreased load time
▪ compatibility with CDFS
Explanation: Based on the ex3 file system, an ext4 partition includes
extensions that improve performance and an increase in the of supported files.
An ext4 partition also supports journaling, a file system feature that minimizes
the risk of file system corruption if power is suddenly lost to the system.
30. Consider the result of the ls -l command in the Linux output below. What
are the file permissions assigned to the sales user for the analyst.txt file?
ls -l analyst.txt
-rwxrw-r-- sales staff 1028 May 28 15:50 analyst.txt

▪ write only
▪ read only
▪ read, write
Explanation: The file permissions are always displayed in the User Group and
Other order. In the example displayed, the file has the following permissions:
The dash ( – ) means that this is a file. For directories, the first dash would
The first set of characters is for user permission (rwx).
The user, sales, who owns the file can read, write and execute the file.
31. What is the purpose of entering the netsh command on a Windows PC?
▪ to configure networking parameters for the PC
▪ to change the computer name for the PC
▪ to create user accounts
▪ to test the hardware devices on the PC
Explanation: The netsh.exe tool can be used to configure networking
parameters for the PC from a command prompt.
32. Which type of Windows PowerShell command performs an action and
returns an output or object to the next command that will be executed?
▪ cmdlets
▪ functions
▪ routines
▪ scripts
following:
▪ cmdlets – perform an action and return an output or object to the next
▪ PowerShell scripts – files with a .ps1 extension that contain PowerShell
▪ PowerShell functions – pieces of code that can be referenced in a
script
33. A user creates a file with .ps1 extension in Windows. What type of file
is it?
▪ PowerShell documentation
▪ PowerShell cmdlet
▪ PowerShell script
▪ PowerShell function
following:
cmdlets – perform an action and return an output or object to the next
PowerShell scripts – files with a .ps1 extension that contain PowerShell
PowerShell functions – pieces of code that can be referenced in a script
34. Match the Windows system tool with the description. (Not all options
are used.)
: a hierarchical database of all system and user information

▪ Registry
▪ Windows Firewall : selectively denies traffic on specified interfaces
▪ PowerShell : a CLI environment used to run scripts and automate
tasks
▪ Event Viewer : maintains system logs
▪ (Empty) : provides information on system resources and processes
▪ (Empty) : provides virus and spyware protection
35. In the Linux shell, which character is used between two commands to
instruct the shell to combine and execute these two commands in sequence?
▪$
▪#
▪%
▪|
Explanation: In the Linux shell, several commands can be combined to
perform a complex task. This technique is known as piping. The piping
process is indicated by inserting the character “|” between two consecutive
commands.
36. Why is Linux considered to be better protected against malware than
other operating systems?
▪ customizable penetration and protection tools
▪ fewer deployments
▪ file system structure, file permissions, and user account restrictions
▪ integrated firewall
Explanation: The Linux operating design including how the file system is
structured, standard file permissions, and user account restrictions make Linux
a better protected operating system. However, Linux still has vulnerabilities
and can have malware installed that affects the operating system.
37. Match the commonly used ports on a Linux server with the
corresponding service. (Not all options are used.)
38. Which Windows tool can be used by a cybersecurity administrator to

secure stand-alone computers that are not part of an active directory
domain?
▪ PowerShell
▪ Windows Defender
▪ Windows Firewall
Explanation: Windows systems that are not part of an Active Directory
Domain can use the Windows Local Security Policy to enforce security
settings on each stand-alone system.
Network Fundamentals Group Exam
1. When a wireless network in a small office is being set up, which type of IP
addressing is typically used on the networked devices?
▪ private
▪ public
▪ network
▪ wireless
Explanation: In setting up the wireless network in a small office, it is a best
practice to use private IP addressing because of the flexibility and easy
management it offers.
2. Which two parts are components of an IPv4 address? (Choose two.)
▪ logical portion
▪ host portion
▪ broadcast portion
▪ subnet portion
▪ network portion
▪ physical portion
Explanation: An IPv4 address is divided into two parts: a network portion – to
identify the specific network on which a host resides, and a host portion – to
identify specific hosts on a network. A subnet mask is used to identify the
length of each portion.
3. Match each IPv4 address to the appropriate address category. (Not all
options are used.)
host address:
▪ 192.168.100.161/25
▪ 203.0.113.100/24
network address:
▪ 10.10.10.128/25
▪ 172.110.12.64/28
broadcast address:
▪ 192.168.1.191/26
▪ 10.0.0.159/27
Explanation: To determine whether a given IPv4 address is a network, host,
or broadcast address, first determine the address space based on the subnet
mask. Convert the address and mask to binary values, then perform the
ANDing function to determine the network address. To calculate the of the
address space, use the number of host bits in the subnet mask as an
exponent of 2. The number of valid host addresses in the space is that number
minus 2. The network address will have all zeroes in the host portion, and the
broadcast address will have all ones. For example, 10.0.50.10/30 yields a
network IP address of 10.0.50.8 when the mask is ANDed with the given
address. Because there are only 2 host bits in the mask, there are only 2 valid
host addresses (4-2). 10.0.50.10 is one of the two valid host IP addresses.
4. What is the full decompressed form of the IPv6 address

2001:420:59:0:1::a/64?
▪ 2001:4200:5900:0:1:0:0:a000
▪ 2001:0420:0059:0000:0001:0000:000a
▪ 2001:0420:0059:0000:0001:000a
▪ 2001:0420:0059:0000:0001:0000:0000:000a
▪ 2001:420:59:0:1:0:0:a
▪ 2001:4200:5900:0000:1000:0000:0000:a000
Explanation: To decompress an IPv6 address, the two rules of compression
must be reversed. Any 16-bit hextet that has less than four hex characters is
missing the leading zeros that were removed. An IPv6 address should have a
total of 8 groups of 16-bit hextets, a (::) can be replaced with consecutive
zeros that were removed.
5. A cybersecurity analyst believes an attacker is spoofing the MAC address
of the default gateway to perform a man-in-the-middle attack. Which
command should the analyst use to view the MAC address a host is using to
reach the default gateway?
▪ route print
▪ ipconfig /all
▪ netstat -r
▪ arp -a
Explanation: ARP is a protocol used with IPv4 to map a MAC address to an
associated specific IP address. The command arp -a will display the MAC
address table on a Windows PC.
6. A user sends an HTTP request to a web server on a remote network.
During encapsulation for this request, what information is added to the
address field of a frame to indicate the destination?
▪ the network domain of the destination host
▪ the MAC address of the destination host
▪ the IP address of the default gateway
▪ the MAC address of the default gateway
Explanation: A frame is encapsulated with source and destination MAC
addresses. The source device will not know the MAC address of the remote
host. An ARP request will be sent by the source and will be responded to by
the router. The router will respond with the MAC address of its interface, the
one which is connected to the same network as the source.
7. What addresses are mapped by ARP?
▪ destination IPv4 address to the source MAC address
▪ destination MAC address to a destination IPv4 address
▪ destination MAC address to the source IPv4 address
▪ destination IPv4 address to the destination host name
Explanation: ARP, or the Address Resolution Protocol, works by mapping a
destination MAC address to a destination IPv4 address. The host knows the
destination IPv4 address and uses ARP to resolve the corresponding
destination MAC address.
8. What type of information is contained in an ARP table?
▪ domain name to IP address mappings
▪ switch ports associated with destination MAC addresses
▪ routes to reach destination networks
▪ IP address to MAC address mappings
Explanation: ARP tables are used to store mappings of IP addresses to MAC
addresses. When a network device needs to forward a packet, the device
knows only the IP address. To deliver the packet on an Ethernet network, a
MAC address is needed. ARP resolves the MAC address and stores it in an
ARP table.
9. Match the characteristic to the protocol category. (Not all options are
used.)
TCP:
▪ 3-wayhandshake
▪ window size
UDP:
▪ connectionless
▪ bestfor VoIP
Both UDP and TCP:
▪ Port number
▪ checksum
Explanation: TCP uses 3-way handshaking as part of being able to provide
reliable communication and window size to provide data flow control. UDP is a
connectionless protocol that is great for video conferencing. Both TCP and
UDP have port numbers to distinguish between applications and application
windows and a checksum field for error detection.
10. What type of information is contained in a DNS MX record?

▪ the IP address of an authoritative name server
▪ the FQDN of the alias used to identify a service
▪ the domain name mapped to mail exchange servers
▪ the IP address for an FQDN entry
Explanation: MX, or mail exchange messages, are used to map a domain
name to several mail exchange servers that all belong to the same domain.
11. Match the application protocols to the correct transport protocols.
▪ TCP: FTP, HTTP, SMTP.

▪ UDP: TFTP, DHCP.
12. A PC is downloading a large file from a server. The TCP window is 1000
bytes. The server is sending the file using 100-byte segments. How many
segments will the server send before it requires an acknowledgment from
the PC?
▪ 1000 segments
▪ 100 segments
▪ 1 segment
▪ 10 segments
Explanation: With a window of 1000 bytes, the destination host accepts
segments until all 1000 bytes of data have been received. Then the destination
host sends an acknowledgment.
13. A user issues a ping 192.168.250.103 command and receives a
response that includes a code of 1 . What does this code represent?
▪ port unreachable
▪ network unreachable
▪ protocol unreachable
▪ host unreachable
14. Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the
routing table? (Choose two.)
▪ netstat -r
▪ show ip route
▪ netstat -s
▪ route print
▪ tracert
Explanation: On a Windows host, the route print or netstat -r commands
can be used to display the host routing table. Both commands generate the
same output. On a router, the show ip route command is used to display the
routing table. The netstat -s command is used to display per-protocol
statistics. The tracert command is used to display the path that a packet
travels to its destination.
15. A user issues a ping 2001:db8:FACE:39::10 command and receives a
response that includes a code of 2 . What does this code represent?
Explanation: When a host or gateway receives a packet that it cannot deliver,
it can use an ICMP Destination Unreachable message to notify the source that
the destination or service is unreachable. The message will include a code that
indicates why the packet could not be delivered. These are some of the
Destination Unreachable codes for ICMPv4:
0 : net unreachable
1 : host unreachable
2 : protocol unreachable
3 : port unreachable
16. What message informs IPv6 enabled interfaces to use stateful

DHCPv6 for obtaining an IPv6 address?
▪ the ICMPv6 Router Solicitation
▪ the DHCPv6 Advertise message
▪ the DHCPv6 Reply message
▪ the ICMPv6 Router Advertisement
Explanation: Before an IPv6 enabled interface will use stateful DHCPv6 to
obtain an IPv6 address, the interface must receive an ICMPv6 Router
Advertisement with the managed configuration flag (M flag) set to 1.
17. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?
▪ to inform routers about network topology changes
▪ to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
▪ to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions
▪ to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution
Explanation: The purpose of ICMP messages is to provide feedback about
issues that are related to the processing of IP packets.
18. Match the HTTP status code group to the type of message generated by
the HTTP server.
▪ client error: ~~> 4xx

▪ redirection: ~~> 3xx
▪ success: ~~> 2xx
▪ informational: ~~> 1xx
▪ server error: ~~> 5xx
19. What network service uses the WHOIS protocol?
▪ HTTPS
▪ DNS
▪ SMTP
▪ FTP
Explanation: WHOIS is a TCP-based protocol that is used to identify the
owners of internet domains through the DNS system.
20. What action does a DHCPv4 client take if it receives more than one
DHCPOFFER from multiple DHCP servers?
▪ It sends a DHCPNAK and begins the DHCP process over again.
▪ It accepts both DHCPOFFER messages and sends a DHCPACK.
▪ It discards both offers and sends a new DHCPDISCOVER.
▪ It sends a DHCPREQUEST that identifies which lease offer the client is
accepting.
Explanation: If there are multiple DHCP servers in a network, it is possible for
a client to receive more than one DHCPOFFER. In this scenario, the client will
only send one DHCPREQUEST, which includes the server from which the
client is accepting the offer.
21. Refer to the exhibit. From the perspective of users behind the NAT
router, what type of NAT address is 209.165.201.1?
▪ inside global
▪ inside local
▪ outside global
▪ outside local
Explanation: From the perspective of users behind NAT, inside global
addresses are used by external users to reach internal hosts. Inside local
addresses are the addresses assigned to internal hosts. Outside global
addresses are the addresses of destinations on the external network. Outside
local addresses are the actual private addresses of destination hosts behind
other NAT devices.
22. Match each characteristic to the appropriate email protocol. (Not all
options are used.)
POP:
▪ does not require a centralized backup solution.
▪ mail is deleted as it is downloaded.
▪ desirable for an ISP or large business.
IMAP:
▪ download copies of messages to be the client.
▪ original messages must be manually deleted.
▪ requires a larger a mount of disk space.
23. What is done to an IP packet before it is transmitted over the physical
medium?
▪ It is tagged with information guaranteeing reliable delivery.
▪ It is segmented into smaller individual pieces.
▪ It is encapsulated in a Layer 2 frame.
▪ It is encapsulated into a TCP segment.
Explanation: When messages are sent on a network, the encapsulation
process works from the top of the OSI or TCP/IP model to the bottom. At each
layer of the model, the upper layer information is encapsulated into the data
field of the next protocol. For example, before an IP packet can be sent, it is
encapsulated in a data link frame at Layer 2 so that it can be sent over the
physical medium.
24. Which PDU is processed when a host computer is de-encapsulating a

message at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model?
▪ segment
▪ packet
▪ frame
▪ bits
Explanation: At the transport layer, a host computer will de-encapsulate a
segment to reassemble data to an acceptable format by the application layer
protocol of the TCP/IP model.
25. Which networking model is being used when an author uploads one
chapter document to a file server of a book publisher?
▪ peer-to-peer
▪ client/server
▪ master-slave
▪ point-to-point
Explanation: In the client/server network model, a network device assumes
the role of server in order to provide a particular service such as file transfer
and storage. In the client/server network model, a dedicated server does not
have to be used, but if one is present, the network model being used is the
client/server model. In contrast, a peer-to-peer network does not have a
dedicated server.
26. Which type of transmission is used to transmit a single video stream

such as a web-based video conference to a select number of users?
▪ anycast
▪ broadcast
▪ unicast
▪ multicast
Explanation: An anycast is used with IPv6 transmissions. A unicast is a
transmission to a single host destination. A broadcast is a transmission sent to
all hosts on a destination network.
27. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 attempts to connect to File_server1 and
sends an ARP request to obtain a destination MAC address. Which MAC
address will PC1 receive in the ARP reply?
▪ the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R2

▪ the MAC address of S2
▪ the MAC address of S1
▪ the MAC address of File_server1
▪ the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R1
Explanation: PC1 must have a MAC address to use as a destination Layer 2
address. PC1 will send an ARP request as a broadcast and R1 will send back
an ARP reply with its G0/0 interface MAC address. PC1 can then forward the
packet to the MAC address of the default gateway, R1.
28. What is the result of an ARP poisoning attack?

▪ Network clients are infected with a virus.
▪ Network clients experience a denial of service.
▪ Client memory buffers are overwhelmed.
▪ Client information is stolen.
Explanation: ARP poisoning is a technique used by an attacker to reply to an
ARP request for an IPv4 address belonging to another device, such as the
default gateway. The attacker, who is effectively doing an MITM attack,
pretends to be the default gateway and sends an ARP reply to the transmitter
of the ARP request. The receiver of the ARP reply will add the wrong MAC
address to the ARP table and will send the packets to the attacker. Therefore,
all traffic to the default gateway will funnel through the attacker device.
29. What is the function of the HTTP GET message?

▪ to upload content to a web server from a web client
▪ to retrieve client email from an email server using TCP port 110
▪ to request an HTML page from a web server
▪ to send error information from a web server to a web client
Explanation: There are three common HTTP message types:
GET – used by clients to request data from the web server
POST – used by clients to upload data to a web server
PUT – used by clients to upload data to a web server
30. Which protocol is a client/server file sharing protocol and also a
request/response protocol?
▪ FTP
▪ UDP
▪ TCP
▪ SMB
Explanation:The Server Message Block (SMB) is a client/server file sharing
protocol that describes the structure of shared network resources such as
directories, files, printers, and serial ports. SMB is also a request/response
protocol.
31. How is a DHCPDISCOVER transmitted on a network to reach a DHCP
server?
▪ A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with the broadcast IP address as
the destination address.
▪ A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with a multicast IP address that all
DHCP servers listen to as the destination address.
▪ A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with the IP address of the default
gateway as the destination address.
▪ A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with the IP address of the DHCP
server as the destination address.
Explanation: The DHCPDISCOVER message is sent by a DHCPv4 client and
targets a broadcast IP along with the destination port 67. The DHCPv4 server
or servers respond to the DHCPv4 clients by targeting port 68.
32. What is a description of a DNS zone transfer?
▪ transferring blocks of DNS data from a DNS server to another server
▪ the action taken when a DNS server sends a query on behalf of a DNS
resolver
▪ forwarding a request from a DNS server in a subdomain to an
authoritative source
▪ finding an address match and transferring the numbered address from a
DNS server to the original requesting client
Explanation: When a server requires data for a zone, it will request a transfer
of that data from an authoritative server for that zone. The process of
transferring blocks of DNS data between servers is known as a zone transfer.
33. What are the two sizes (minimum and maximum) of an Ethernet
frame? (Choose two.)
▪ 128 bytes
▪ 64 bytes
▪ 1024 bytes
▪ 56 bytes
▪ 1518 bytes
Explanation: The minimum Ethernet frame is 64 bytes. The maximum
Ethernet frame is 1518 bytes. A network technician must know the minimum
and maximum frame size in order to recognize runt and jumbo frames.
34. Which process failed if a computer cannot access the internet and
received an IP address of 169.254.142.5?
▪ DNS
▪ IP
▪ HTTP
▪ DHCP
Explanation: When a Windows computer cannot communicate with an IPv4
DHCP server, the computer automatically assigns itself an IP address in
the169.254.0.0/16 range. Linux and Apple computers do not automatically
assign an IP address.
35. Which statement describes a feature of the IP protocol?
▪ IP relies on Layer 2 protocols for transmission error control.
▪ MAC addresses are used during the IP packet encapsulation.
▪ IP relies on upper layer services to handle situations of missing or
out-of-order packets.
▪ IP encapsulation is modified based on network media.
Explanation: IP protocol is a connection-less protocol, considered unreliable in
terms of end-to-end delivery. It does not provide error control in the cases
where receiving packets are out-of-order or in cases of missing packets. It
relies on upper layer services, such as TCP, to resolve these issues.
36. What is a basic characteristic of the IP protocol?

▪ connectionless
▪ media dependent
▪ user data segmentation
▪ reliable end-to-end delivery
Explanation: Internet Protocol (IP) is a network layer protocol that does not
require initial exchange of control information to establish an end-to-end
connection before packets are forwarded. Thus, IP is connectionless and does
not provide reliable end-to-end delivery by itself. IP is media independent.
User data segmentation is a service provided at the transport layer.
37. Which statement describes the ping and tracert commands?

▪ Both ping and tracert can show results in a graphical display.
▪ Ping shows whether the transmission is successful; tracert does not.
▪ Tracert shows each hop, while ping shows a destination reply only.
▪ Tracert uses IP addresses; ping does not.
Explanation: The ping utility tests end-to-end connectivity between the two
hosts. However, if the message does not reach the destination, there is no
way to determine where the problem is located. On the other hand, the
traceroute utility ( tracert in Windows) traces the route a message takes from
its source to the destination. Traceroute displays each hop along the way and
the time it takes for the message to get to that network and back.
38. A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access
network resources from their personal laptops and smart phones. Which
networking trend does this describe?
▪ cloud computing
▪ video conferencing
▪ online collaboration
▪ bring your own device
Explanation: BYOD allows end users to use personal tools to access the
corporate network. Allowing this trend can have major impacts on a network,
such as security and compatibility with corporate software and devices.
39. Match each description to its corresponding term. (Not all options are
used.)
▪ message encoding : the process of converting information from one

format into another acceptable for transmission
▪ message sizing : the process of breaking up a long message into
individual pieces before being sent over the network
▪ message encapsulation : the process of placing one message format
inside another message format
▪ (Empty) : the process of determining when to begin sending messages
on a network
▪ (Empty) : the process of unpacking one message format from another
message format
40. Which method would an IPv6-enabled host using SLAAC employ to learn
the address of the default gateway?
▪ router advertisement messages received from the link router
▪ router solicitation messages received from the link router
▪ neighbor advertisement messages received from link neighbors
▪ neighbor solicitation messages sent to link neighbors
Explanation: When using SLAAC, a host will learn from the router
advertisement that is sent by the link router the address to use as a default
gateway.
41. Refer to the exhibit. This PC is unable to communicate with the host at
172.16.0.100. What information can be gathered from the displayed output?
▪ The target host is turned off.

▪ The communication fails after the default gateway.
▪ 172.16.0.100 is only a single hop away.
▪ This PC has the wrong subnet configured on its NIC
Explanation: The tracert command shows the path a packet takes through
the network to the destination. In this example, only a response from the first
router in the path is received, and all other responses time out. The first router
is the default gateway for this host, and because a response is received from
the router, it can be assumed that this host is on the same subnet as the
router.
42. A user issues a ping 192.168.250.103 command and receives a response
that includes a code of 1. What does this code represent?
43. What are three responsibilities of the transport layer? (Choose three.)
▪ identifying the applications and services on the client and server that
should handle transmitted data
▪ conducting error detection of the contents in frames
▪ meeting the reliability requirements of applications, if any
▪ directing packets towards the destination network
▪ formatting data into a compatible form for receipt by the destination
devices
▪ multiplexing multiple communication streams from many users or
applications on the same network
Explanation: The transport layer has several responsibilities. Some of the
primary responsibilities include the following:
Tracking the individual communication streams between applications on the
source and destination hosts
Segmenting data at the source and reassembling the data at the destination
Identifying the proper application for each communication stream through the
use of port numbers
Multiplexing the communications of multiple users or applications over a single
network
Managing the reliability requirements of applications
44. How does network scanning help assess operations security?
▪ It can detect open TCP ports on network systems.
▪ It can detect weak or blank passwords.
▪ It can simulate attacks from malicious sources.
▪ It can log abnormal activity.
Explanation: Network scanning can help a network administrator strengthen
the security of the network and systems by identifying open TCP and UDP
ports that could be targets of an attack.
45. Refer to the exhibit. A network security analyst is examining captured

data using Wireshark. The captured frames indicate that a host is
downloading malware from a server. Which source port is used by the
host to request the download?
▪ 66
▪ 1514
▪ 6666
▪ 48598
Explanation: During the TCP three-way handshake process, the output shows
that the host uses source port 48598 to initiate the connection and request the
download.
46. Which two operations are provided by TCP but not by UDP? (Choose
two.)
▪ retransmitting any unacknowledged data
▪ acknowledging received data
▪ reconstructing data in the order received
▪ identifying the applications
▪ tracking individual conversations
Explanation: Numbering and tracking data segments, acknowledging received
data, and retransmitting any unacknowledged data are reliability operations to
ensure that all of the data arrives at the destination. UDP does not provide
reliability. Both TCP and UDP identify the applications and track individual
conversations. UDP does not number data segments and reconstructs data in
the order that it is received.
47. A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a
router, which is in the path to the destination device, stop forwarding the
packet?
▪ when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message
▪ when the RTT value reaches zero
▪ when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages
reach zero
▪ when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message
▪ when the value in the TTL field reaches zero
Explanation: When a router receives a traceroute packet, the value in the TTL
field is decremented by 1. When the value in the field reaches zero, the
receiving router will not forward the packet, and will send an ICMP Time
Exceeded message back to the source.
48. A network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the
ping command on a router. Which symbol will be displayed to indicate that
a time expired during the wait for an ICMP echo reply message?
▪U
▪.
▪!
▪$
Explanation: When the ping command is issued on a router, the most
common indicators are as follows:
! – indicates receipt of an ICMP echo reply message
. – indicates a time expired while waiting for an ICMP echo reply message
U – an ICMP message of unreachability was received
49. A technician is configuring email on a mobile device. The user wants to
be able to keep the original email on the server, organize it into folders, and
synchronize the folders between the mobile device and the server. Which
email protocol should the technician use?
▪ SMTP
▪ MIME
▪ POP3
▪ IMAP
Explanation: The IMAP protocol allows email data to be synchronized
between a client and server. Changes made in one location, such as marking
an email as read, are automatically applied to the other location. POP3 is also
an email protocol. However, the data is not synchronized between the client
and the server. SMTP is used for sending email, and is typically used in
conjunction with the POP3 protocol. MIME is an email standard that is used to
define attachment types, and allows extra content like pictures and documents
to be attached to email messages.
50. At which OSI layer is a source MAC address added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
▪ application layer
▪ presentation layer
▪ data link layer
▪ transport layer
51. Which value, that is contained in an IPv4 header field, is decremented by
each router that receives a packet?
▪ Time-to-Live
▪ Fragment Offset
▪ Header Length
▪ Differentiated Services
Explanation: When a router receives a packet, the router will decrement the
Time-to-Live (TTL) field by one. When the field reaches zero, the receiving
router will discard the packet and will send an ICMP Time Exceeded message
to the sender.
52. What are three responsibilities of the transport layer? (Choose three.)
▪ identifying the applications and services on the client and server that
should handle transmitted data
▪ conducting error detection of the contents in frames
▪ meeting the reliability requirements of applications, if any
▪ directing packets towards the destination network
▪ formatting data into a compatible form for receipt by the destination
devices
▪ multiplexing multiple communication streams from many users or
applications on the same network
Explanation: The transport layer has several responsibilities. Some of the
primary responsibilities include the following:
Tracking the individual communication streams between applications on the
source and destination hosts
Segmenting data at the source and reassembling the data at the destination
Identifying the proper application for each communication stream through the
use of port numbers
Multiplexing the communications of multiple users or applications over a single
network
Managing the reliability requirements of applications
53. Which two ICMP messages are used by both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols?
(Choose two.)
▪ route redirection
▪ neighbor solicitation
▪ router solicitation
▪ router advertisement
Explanation: The ICMP messages common to both ICMPv4 and ICMPv6
include: host confirmation, destination (net, host, protocol, port) or service
unreachable, time exceeded, and route redirection. Router solicitation,
neighbor solicitation, and router advertisement are new protocols implemented
in ICMPv6.
54. What mechanism is used by a router to prevent a received IPv4 packet
from traveling endlessly on a network?
▪ It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 100, it discards the packet
and sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.
▪ It decrements the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 0, it
discards the packet and sends a Time Exceeded message to the
source host.
▪ It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 0, it discards the packet
and sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.
▪ It increments the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 100, it
discards the packet and sends a Parameter Problem message to the
source host.
Explanation: To prevent an IPv4 packet to travel in the network endlessly,
TCP/IP protocols use ICMPv4 protocol to provide feedback about issues.
When a router receives a packet and decrements the TTL field in the IPv4
packet by 1 and if the result is zero, it discards the packet and sends a Time
Exceeded message to the source host.
55. A device has been assigned the IPv6 address of
2001:0db8:cafe:4500:1000:00d8:0058:00ab/64. Which is the host
identifier of the device?
▪ 2001:0db8:cafe:4500:1000:00d8:0058:00ab
▪ 00ab
▪ 2001:0db8:cafe:4500
▪ 1000:00d8:0058:00ab
Explanation: The address has a prefix length of /64. Thus the first 64 bits
represent the network portion, whereas the last 64 bits represent the host
portion of the IPv6 address.
56. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol
suite? (Choose three.)
▪ DHCP
▪ PPP
▪ FTP
▪ DNS
▪ NAT
▪ ARP
Explanation: DNS, DHCP, and FTP are all application layer protocols in the
TCP/IP protocol suite. ARP and PPP are network access layer protocols, and
NAT is an internet layer protocol in the TCP/IP protocol suite.
57. A computer can access devices on the same network but cannot access
devices on other networks. What is the probable cause of this problem?
▪ The computer has an invalid IP address.
▪ The cable is not connected properly to the NIC.
▪ The computer has an incorrect subnet mask.
▪ The computer has an invalid default gateway address.
Explanation: The default gateway is the address of the device a host uses to
access the Internet or another network. If the default gateway is missing or
incorrect, that host will not be able to communicate outside the local network.
Because the host can access other hosts on the local network, the network
cable and the other parts of the IP configuration are working.
58. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send
a packet to PC3. In this scenario, what will happen next?
▪ RT1 will send an ARP reply with its own Fa0/1 MAC address.
▪ SW1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/1 MAC address.
▪ RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC3 MAC address.
▪ RT1 will forward the ARP request to PC3.
▪ RT1 will send an ARP reply with its own Fa0/0 MAC address.
Explanation: When a network device has to communicate with a device on
another network, it broadcasts an ARP request asking for the default gateway
MAC address. The default gateway (RT1) unicasts an ARP reply with the
Fa0/0 MAC address.
59. A user who is unable to connect to the file server contacts the help desk.
The helpdesk technician asks the user to ping the IP address of the default
gateway that is configured on the workstation. What is the purpose for this
ping command?
▪ to resolve the domain name of the file server to its IP address
▪ to request that gateway forward the connection request to the file server
▪ to obtain a dynamic IP address from the server
▪ to test that the host has the capability to reach hosts on other
networks
Explanation: The ping command is used to test connectivity between hosts.
The other options describe tasks not performed by ping . Pinging the default
gateway will test whether the host has the capability to reach hosts on its own
network and on other networks.
60. A user gets an IP address of 192.168.0.1 from the company network
administrator. A friend of the user at a different company gets the same IP
address on another PC. How can two PCs use the same IP address and still
reach the Internet, send and receive email, and search the web?
▪ ISPs use Domain Name Service to change a user IP address into a
public IP address that can be used on the Internet.
▪ Both users must be using the same Internet Service Provider.
▪ Both users must be on the same network.
▪ ISPs use Network Address Translation to change a user IP address
into an address that can be used on the Internet.
Explanation: As user traffic from behind an ISP firewall reaches the gateway
device, Network Address Translation changes private IP addresses into a
public, routable IP address. Private user addresses remain hidden from the
public Internet, and thus more than one user can have the same private IP
address, regardless of ISP.
61. How many host addresses are available on the 192.168.10.128/26
network?
▪ 30
▪ 32
▪ 60
▪ 62
▪ 64
Explanation: A /26 prefix gives 6 host bits, which provides a total of 64
addresses, because 2 6 = 64. Subtracting the network and broadcast
addresses leaves 62 usable host addresses.
62. What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal
private use? (Choose three.)
▪ 64.100.0.0/14
▪ 192.168.0.0/16
▪ 192.31.7.0/24
▪ 172.16.0.0/12
▪ 10.0.0.0/8
▪ 127.16.0.0/12
Explanation: The private IP address blocks that are used inside companies
are as follows:10.0.0.0 /8 (any address that starts with 10 in the first octet)
172.16.0.0 /12 (any address that starts with 172.16 in the first two octets
through 172.31.255.255)
192.168.0.0 /16 (any address that starts with 192.168 in the first two octets)
63. Refer to the exhibit. A cybersecurity analyst is viewing captured packets
forwarded on switch S1. Which device has the MAC address
50:6a:03:96:71:22?
▪ PC-A
▪ router DG
▪ DSN server
▪ router ISP
▪ web server
The Wireshark capture is of a DNS query from PC-A to the DNS server.
Because the DNS server is on a remote network, the PC will send the query to
the default gateway router, router DG, using the MAC address of the router
G0/0 interface on the router.
64. A host PC is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. What
message is sent by the server to let the client know it is able to use the
provided IP information?
▪ DHCPDISCOVER
▪ DHCPOFFER
▪ DHCPREQUEST
▪ DHCPACK
▪ DHCPNACK
Explanation: When a host uses DHCP to automatically configure an IP
address, the typically sends two messages: the DHCPDISCOVER message
and the DHCPREQUEST message. These two messages are usually sent as
broadcasts to ensure that all DHCP servers receive them. The servers
respond to these messages using DHCPOFFER, DHCPACK, and
DHCPNACK messages, depending on the circumstance.
65. An employee complains that a Windows PC cannot connect to the
Internet. A network technician issues the ipconfig command on the PC and
is shown an IP address of 169.254.10.3. Which two conclusions can be
drawn? (Choose two.)
▪ The PC is configured to obtain an IP address automatically.
▪ The default gateway address is not configured.
▪ The DNS server address is misconfigured.
▪ The enterprise network is misconfigured for dynamic routing.
▪ The PC cannot contact a DHCP server.
Explanation: When a Windows PC is configured to obtain an IP address
automatically, the PC will try to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server.
When the PC cannot contact a DHCP server, Windows will automatically
assign an address belonging to the 169.254.0.0/16 range.
66. What is a function of the tracert command that differs from
the ping command when they are used on a workstation?
▪ The tracert command is used to test the connectivity between two
devices.
▪ The tracert command reaches the destination faster.
▪ The tracert command shows the information of routers in the path.
▪ The tracert command sends one ICMP message to each hop in the
path.
Explanation: The tracert command sends three pings to each hop (router) in
the path toward the destination and displays the domain name and IP address
of hops from their responses. Because tracert uses the ping command, the
travel time is the same as a standalone ping command. The primary function
of a standalone ping command is to test the connectivity between two hosts.
67. Which two functions or operations are performed by the MAC sublayer?
(Choose two.)
▪ It is responsible for Media Access Control.
▪ It performs the function of NIC driver software.
▪ It adds a header and trailer to form an OSI Layer 2 PDU.
▪ It handles communication between upper and lower layers.
▪ It adds control information to network protocol layer data.
Explanation: The MAC sublayer is the lower of the two data link sublayers and
is closest to the physical layer. The two primary functions of the MAC sublayer
are to encapsulate the data from the upper layer protocols and to control
access to the media.
68. Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically stay the same during
its transmission?
▪ Flag
▪ Time-to-Live
▪ Packet Length
▪ Destination Address
Explanation: The value in the Destination Address field in an IPv4 header will
stay the same during its transmission. The other options might change during
its transmission.
69. Match each statement about FTP communications to the connection it
describes. (Not all options are used.)
CyberOps Associate (Version 1.0) – Modules 5 – 10: Network Fundamentals
Group Exam
Explanation: Both connections that are required for FTP operations are
established from the client to the FTP server. The client first opens a control
connection via TCP port 21. The client then opens a data connection for the
actual file transfer via TCP port 20.
1. What is an advantage of HIPS that is not provided by IDS?

▪ HIPS protects critical system resources and monitors operating
system processes.
▪ HIPS deploys sensors at network entry points and protects critical
network segments.
▪ HIPS monitors network processes and protects critical files.
▪ HIPS provides quick analysis of events through detailed logging.
Explanation: Network-based IDS (NIDS) sensors are typically deployed in
offline mode. They do not protect individual hosts. Host-based IPS (HIPS) is
software installed on a single host to monitor and analyze suspicious activity. It
can monitor and protect operating system and critical system processes that
are specific to that host. HIPS can be thought of as a combination of antivirus
software, antimalware software, and a firewall.
2. Which statement describes a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?
▪ RADIUS separates authentication and authorization whereas TACACS+
combines them as one process.
▪ RADIUS is supported by the Cisco Secure ACS software whereas
TACACS+ is not.
▪ RADIUS uses TCP whereas TACACS+ uses UDP.
▪ RADIUS encrypts only the password whereas TACACS+ encrypts all
communication.
Explanation: TACACS+ uses TCP, encrypts the entire packet (not just the
password), and separates authentication and authorization into two distinct
processes. Both protocols are supported by the Cisco Secure ACS software.
3. What are two disadvantages of using an IDS? (Choose two.)
▪ The IDS does not stop malicious traffic.
▪ The IDS works offline using copies of network traffic.
▪ The IDS has no impact on traffic.
▪ The IDS analyzes actual forwarded packets.
▪ The IDS requires other devices to respond to attacks.
Explanation: The disadvantage of operating with mirrored traffic is that the
IDS cannot stop malicious single-packet attacks from reaching the target
before responding to the attack. Also, an IDS often requires assistance from
other networking devices, such as routers and firewalls, to respond to an
attack. An advantage of an IDS is that by working offline using mirrored traffic,
it has no impact on traffic flow.
4. Which statement describes one of the rules that govern interface
behavior in the context of implementing a zone-based policy firewall
configuration?
▪ An administrator can assign interfaces to zones, regardless of whether
the zone has been configured.
▪ An administrator can assign an interface to multiple security zones.
▪ By default, traffic is allowed to flow among interfaces that are
members of the same zone.
▪ By default, traffic is allowed to flow between a zone member interface
and any interface that is not a zone member.
Explanation: An interface can belong to only one zone. Creating a zone is the
first step in configuring a zone-based policy firewall. A zone cannot be
assigned to an interface if the zone has not been created. Traffic can never
flow between an interface that is assigned to a zone and an interface that has
not been assigned to a zone.
5. Which technique is necessary to ensure a private transfer of data using a
VPN?
▪ encryption
▪ virtualization
▪ scalability
▪ authorization
Explanation: Confidential and secure transfers of data with VPNs require data
encryption.
6. What is the function of the distribution layer of the three-layer network
design model?
▪ providing direct access to the network
▪ providing secure access to the Internet
▪ aggregating access layer connections
▪ providing high speed connection to the network edge
Explanation: The function of the distribution layer is to provide connectivity to
services and to aggregate the access layer connections
7. What two components of traditional web security appliances are
examples of functions integrated into a Cisco Web Security Appliance?
(Choose two.)
▪ email virus and spam filtering
▪ VPN connection
▪ firewall
▪ web reporting
▪ URL filtering
Explanation: The Cisco Web Security Appliance is a secure web gateway
which combines advanced malware protection, application visibility and
control, acceptable use policy controls, reporting, and secure mobility
functions. With traditional web security appliances, these functions are
typically provided through multiple appliances. It is not a firewall appliance in
that it only filters web traffic. It does not provide VPN connections, nor does it
provide email virus and spam filtering; the Cisco Email Security Appliance
provides these functions.
8. Which AAA component can be established using token cards?
▪ authentication
▪ accounting
▪ authorization
▪ auditing
Explanation: The authentication component of AAA is established using
username and password combinations, challenge and response questions,
and token cards. The authorization component of AAA determines which
resources the user can access and which operations the user is allowed to
perform. The accounting and auditing component of AAA keeps track of how
network resources are used.
9. Which statement describes a VPN?
▪ VPNs use open source virtualization software to create the tunnel
through the Internet.
▪ VPNs use dedicated physical connections to transfer data between
remote users.
▪ VPNs use logical connections to create public networks through the
Internet.
▪ VPNs use virtual connections to create a private network through a
public network.
Explanation: A VPN is a private network that is created over a public network.
Instead of using dedicated physical connections, a VPN uses virtual
connections routed through a public network between two network devices.
10. What is a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS)?
▪ It detects and stops potential direct attacks but does not scan for
malware.
▪ It is an agentless system that scans files on a host for potential malware.
▪ It identifies potential attacks and sends alerts but does not stop the
traffic.
▪ It combines the functionalities of antimalware applications with
firewall protection.
Explanation:Accurrent HIDS is a comprehensive security application that
combines the functionalities of antimalware applications with firewall
protection. An HIDS not only detects malware but also prevents it from
executing.
Because the HIDS runs directly on the host, itis considered an agent-based
system.
11. Which two devices would commonly be found at the access layer of the
hierarchical enterprise LAN design model? (Choose two.)
▪ modular switch
▪ Layer 3 device
▪ Layer 2 switch
▪ firewall
▪ access point
Explanation: While some designs do route at the access layer, the two
devices that should always be placed at the access layer of the hierarchical
design model are an access point and a Layer 2 switch. A modular switch is
commonly used at the core layer. Routing by a Layer 3 device is commonly
used in the distribution layer. The firewall is a device in the Internet edge
network design.
12. Which two statements are true about NTP servers in an enterprise
network? (Choose two.)
▪ There can only be one NTP server on an enterprise network.
▪ NTP servers at stratum 1 are directly connected to an authoritative
time source.
▪ NTP servers control the mean time between failures (MTBF) for key
network devices.
▪ NTP servers ensure an accurate time stamp on logging and debugging
information.
▪ All NTP servers synchronize directly to a stratum 1 time source.
Explanation: Network Time Protocol (NTP) is used to synchronize the time
across all devices on the network to make sure accurate timestamping on
devices for managing, securing and troubleshooting. NTP networks use a
hierarchical system of time sources. Each level in this hierarchical system is
called a stratum. The stratum 1 devices are directly connected to the
authoritative time sources.
13. In the data gathering process, which type of device will listen for traffic,
but only gather traffic statistics?
▪ NetFlow collector
▪ NMS
▪ SNMP agent
▪ syslog server
Explanation: A NetFlow collector is the device that receives traffic statistics
from networking devices. NetFlow only gathers traffic statistics, unlike syslog
and SNMP which can collect various network events.
14. Which two protocols are link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
▪ ISIS
▪ EIGRP
▪ BGP
▪ RIP
▪ OSPF
Explanation: ISIS and OSPF are link-state routing protocols. EIGRP and RIP
are distance vector routing protocols. BGP is a path vector protocol.
15. What type of route is created when a network administrator manually
configures a route that has an active exit interface?
▪ directly connected
▪ static
▪ local
▪ dynamic
Explanation: A static route is one that is manually configured by the network
administrator.
16. Which characteristic describes a wireless client operating in active
mode?
▪ must be configured for security before attaching to an AP
▪ broadcasts probes that request the SSID
▪ ability to dynamically change channels
▪ must know the SSID to connect to an AP
Explanation: A wireless client operating in active mode must know the name
of the SSID. Probe requests are broadcast by a client across multiple channels
and include the SSID name and supported standards. Active mode is used if
an AP is configured to not broadcast beacon frames.
17. What are two types of addresses found on network end devices?
(Choose two.)
▪ return
▪ IP
▪ MAC
▪ TCP
▪ UDP
Explanation: Intermediary devices use two types of addresses when sending
messages to the final destination device, MAC and IP addresses. TCP and
UDP are protocols used at Layer 4 to identify what port numbers are being
used on the source and destination devices. A return address is used when
mailing a letter, not in networking.
18. What is a characteristic of the WLAN passive discover mode?
▪ The client must know the name of the SSID to begin the discover
process.
▪ The client begins the discover process by sending a probe request.
▪ The beaconing feature on the AP is disabled.
▪ The AP periodically sends beacon frames containing the SSID.
Explanation: In passive mode, the wireless clients learn what networks and
APs are available. The client learns this information from beacon frames, sent
by the APs, that contain the WLAN SSID, supported standards, and security
settings.
19. What is a characteristic of a routed port that is configured on a Cisco
switch?
▪ It supports subinterfaces.
▪ It is associated with a single VLAN.
▪ It runs STP to prevent loops.
▪ It is assigned an IP address.
Explanation: Routed ports on a Cisco switch behave similarly to those on a
router. They are configured with an IP address and forward Layer 3 packets.
Unlike Layer 2 switch interfaces, routed ports do not support STP, nor do they
support subinterfaces as routers do.
20. What action does an Ethernet switch take when it receives a frame with
an unknown Layer 2 source address?
▪ It forwards the frame out all interfaces except the interface on which it
was received.
▪ It forwards the frame to the default gateway.
▪ It records the source address in the address table of the switch.
▪ It drops the frame.
Explanation: When an Ethernet switch receives a frame with an unknown
Layer 2 address, the switch records that address in the address table.
21.. Match each device to a category.
22. Which routing protocol is used to exchange routes between internet

service providers?
▪ OSPF
▪ EIGRP
▪ ISIS
▪ BGP
▪ RIP
Explanation: BGP is a path vector routing protocol and it is used by internet
service providers to exchange routes.
23. What is the first step in the CSMA/CA process when a wireless client is
attempting to communicate on the wireless network?
▪ The client sends an RTS message to the AP.
▪ The client sends a test frame onto the channel.
▪ The client listens for traffic on the channel.
▪ The AP sends a CTS message to the client.
Explanation: When a wireless client is attempting to communicate on the
network, it will first listen to the channel to be sure it is idle. Next, the client
sends an RTS message to the AP to request dedicated access to the network.
The AP will then send a CTS message granting access to the client. The client
will then transmit data.
24. What Wi-Fi management frame is regularly broadcast by APs to
announce their presence?
▪ authentication
▪ beacon
▪ probe
▪ association
Explanation: Beacon frames are broadcast periodically by the AP to advertise
its wireless networks to potential clients. Probing, association, and
authentication frames are only sent when a client is associating to the AP.
25. What are the three parts of all Layer 2 frames? (Choose three.)
▪ source and destination IP address
▪ payload
▪ sequence number
▪ frame check sequence
▪ time-to-live
▪ header
Explanation: Layer 2 frames have three components: the header, the payload,
and a frame check sequence at the end.
26. What is a function of SNMP?
▪ synchronizes the time across all devices on the network
▪ captures packets entering and exiting the network interface card
▪ provides a message format for communication between network
device managers and agents
▪ provides statistical analysis on packets flowing through a Cisco router or
multilayer switch
Explanation: SNMP is an application layer protocol that allows administrators
to manage devices on the network by providing a messaging format for
communication between network device managers and agents.
27. Which firewall feature is used to ensure that packets coming into a
network are legitimate responses to requests initiated from internal hosts?
▪ application filtering
▪ stateful packet inspection
▪ packet filtering
▪ URL filtering
Explanation: Stateful packet inspection on a firewall checks that incoming
packets are actually legitimate responses to requests originating from hosts
inside the network. Packet filtering can be used to permit or deny access to
resources based on IP or MAC address. Application filtering can permit or
deny access based on port number. URL filtering is used to permit or deny
access based on URL or on keywords.
28. In which memory location is the routing table of a router maintained?
▪ ROM
▪ flash
▪ NVRAM
▪ RAM
Explanation: The routing table of a router is maintained in RAM, which is
volatile memory. If a router loses power or is rebooted, the content of RAM is
lost and the routing table must be rebuilt.
29. Lightweight access points forward data between which two devices on
the network? (Choose two.)
▪ wireless router
▪ default gateway
▪ wireless LAN controller
▪ autonomous access point
▪ wireless client
Explanation: In a wireless deployment that is using lightweight access points
(LWAPs), the LWAP forwards data between the wireless clients and the
wireless LAN controller (WLC).
30. A Cisco router is running IOS 15. What are the two routing table entry
types that will be added when a network administrator brings an interface
up and assigns an IP address to the interface? (Choose two.)
▪ route that is manually entered by a network administrator
▪ local route interface
▪ route that is learned via OSPF
▪ directly connected interface
▪ route that is learned via EIGRP
Explanation: A local route interface routing table entry is found when a router
runs IOS 15 or higher or if IPv6 routing is enabled. Whenever an interface is
addressed and enabled (made active), a directly connected interface is
automatically shown in the routing table.
31. Match the secunty service with the description.
Match the security service with the description.
32. Match the network security device type with the descnption.
33. What is used on WLANs to avoid packet collisions?

▪ SVIs
▪ STP
▪ CSMA/CA
▪ VLANs
Explanation: WLANs are half-duplex networks which means that only one
client can transmit or receive at any given moment. WLANs use carrier sense
multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA/CA) to determine when to
send data on the network to avoid packet collisions.
34. What information within a data packet does a router use to make
forwarding decisions?
▪ the destination MAC address
▪ the destination host name
▪ the destination service requested
▪ the destination IP address
Explanation: A Layer 3 device like a router uses a Layer 3 destination IP
address to make a forwarding decision.
35. What is a characteristic of a hub?
▪ operates at Layer 2
▪ regenerates signals received on one port out all other ports
▪ subdivides the network into collision domains
▪ uses CSMA/CA to avoid collisions
Explanation: A hub is a Layer 1 device that regenerates signals out all ports
other than the ingress port. All ports on a hub belong to the same collision
domain. Hubs use CSMA/CD to detect collisions on the network.
36. Match the network security device type with the description.
Threats and Attacks Group Exam
1. What is the significant characteristic of worm malware?
▪ Worm malware disguises itself as legitimate software.
▪ Once installed on a host system, a worm does not replicate itself.
▪ A worm must be triggered by an event on the host system.
▪ A worm can execute independently of the host system.
Explanation: Worm malware can execute and copy itself without being
triggered by a host program. It is a significant network and Internet security
threat.
2. What are the three major components of a worm attack? (Choose three.)
▪ a payload
▪ a propagation mechanism
▪ an infecting vulnerability
▪ a probing mechanism
▪ an enabling vulnerability
▪ a penetration mechanism
Explanation: A computer can have a worm installed through an email
attachment, an executable program file, or a Trojan Horse. The worm attack
not only affects one computer, but replicates to other computers. What the
worm leaves behind is the payload–the code that results in some action.
3. A user is curious about how someone might know a computer has been
infected with malware. What are two common malware behaviors? (Choose
two.)
▪ The computer emits a hissing sound every time the pencil sharpener is
used.
▪ The computer beeps once during the boot process.
▪ The computer gets increasingly slower to respond.
▪ No sound emits when an audio CD is played.
▪ The computer freezes and requires reboots.
Explanation: Common symptoms of computers infected with malware:
Appearance of files, applications, or desktop icons
Security tools such as antivirus software or firewalls turned off or changed
System crashes
Emails spontaneously sent to others
Modified or missing files
Slow system or browser response
Unfamiliar processes or services running
Unknown TCP or UDP ports open
Connections made to unknown remote devices
4. Which two types of attacks are examples of reconnaissance attacks?
(Choose two.)
▪ brute force
▪ port scan
▪ ping sweep
▪ man-in-the-middle
▪ SYN flood
Explanation: Reconnaissance attacks attempt to gather information about the
targets. Ping sweeps will indicate which hosts are up and responding to pings,
whereas port scans will indicate on which TCP and UDP ports the target is
listening for incoming connections. Man-in-the-middle and brute force attacks
are both examples of access attacks, and a SYN flood is an example of a
denial of service (DoS) attack.
5. An administrator discovers a vulnerability in the network. On analysis of
the vulnerability the administrator decides the cost of managing the risk
outweighs the cost of the risk itself. The risk is accepted, and no action is
taken. What risk management strategy has been adopted?
▪ risk transfer
▪ risk acceptance
▪ risk reduction
▪ risk avoidance
Explanation: Risk acceptance is when the cost of risk management options
outweighs the cost of the risk itself, the risk is accepted, and no action is
taken.
6. Which protocol is exploited by cybercriminals who create malicious
iFrames?
▪ HTTP
▪ DNS
▪ ARP
▪ DHCP
Explanation: An HTML element known as an inline frame or iFrame allows the
browser to load a different web page from another source.
7. How can a DNS tunneling attack be mitigated?
▪ by preventing devices from using gratuitous ARP
▪ by using a filter that inspects DNS traffic
▪ by securing all domain owner accounts
▪ by using strong passwords and two-factor authentication
Explanation: To be able to stop DNS tunneling, a filter that inspects DNS
traffic must be used. Also, DNS solutions such as Cisco OpenDNS block much
of the DNS tunneling traffic by identifying suspicious domains.
8. What is the function of a gratuitous ARP sent by a networked device when
it boots up?
▪ to request the netbios name of the connected system
▪ to request the MAC address of the DNS server
▪ to request the IP address of the connected network
▪ to advise connected devices of its MAC address
Explanation: A gratuitous ARP is often sent when a device first boots up to
inform all other devices on the local network of the MAC address of the new
device.
9. What is the result of a passive ARP poisoning attack?
▪ Data is modified in transit or malicious data is inserted in transit.
▪ Network clients experience a denial of service.
▪ Confidential information is stolen.
▪ Multiple subdomains are created.
Explanation: ARP poisoning attacks can be passive or active. The result of a
passive attack is that cybercriminals steal confidential information. With an
active attack, cybercriminals modify data in transit or they inject malicious
data.
10. What are two methods used by cybercriminals to mask DNS attacks?
(Choose two.)
▪ reflection
▪ shadowing
▪ domain generation algorithms
▪ fast flux
▪ tunneling
Explanation: Fast flux, double IP flux, and domain generation algorithms are
used by cybercrimals to attack DNS servers and affect DNS services. Fast flux
is a technique used to hide phishing and malware delivery sites behind a
quickly-changing network of compromised DNS hosts (bots within botnets).
The double IP flux technique rapidly changes the hostname to IP address
mappings and the authoritative name server. Domain generation algorithms
randomly generate domain names to be used as rendezvous points.
11. Match the security tool with the description. (Not all options apply.)
12. Match the type of cyberattackers to the description. (Not all options are
used.)
13. Match the threat actors with the descriptions. (Not all options are used.)
▪ hacktivists : threat actors that publicly protest against organizations or

governments by posting articles, videos, leaking sensitive information,
and performing distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks
▪ script kiddies : inexperienced threat actors running existing scripts,
tools, and exploits, to cause harm, but typically not for profit
▪ State-sponsored : threat actors who steal government secrets, gather
intelligence, and sabotage networks of foreign governments, terrorist
groups, and corporations
14. What scenario describes a vulnerability broker?
▪ a teenager running existing scripts, tools, and exploits, to cause harm,
but typically not for profit
▪ a threat actor attempting to discover exploits and report them to
vendors, sometimes for prizes or rewards
▪ a threat actor publicly protesting against governments by posting articles
and leaking sensitive information
▪ a State-Sponsored threat actor who steals government secrets and
sabotages networks of foreign governments
Explanation: Vulnerability brokers typically refers to grey hat hackers who
attempt to discover exploits and report them to vendors, sometimes for prizes
or rewards.
15. In what type of attack is a cybercriminal attempting to prevent
legitimate users from accessing network services?
▪ DoS
▪ session hijacking
▪ MITM
Explanation: In a DoS or denial-of-service attack, the goal of the attacker is to
prevent legitimate users from accessing network services.
16. Which field in the IPv6 header points to optional network layer
information that is carried in the IPv6 packet?
▪ traffic class
▪ version
▪ flow label
▪ next header
Explanation: Optional Layer 3 information about fragmentation, security, and
mobility is carried inside of extension headers in an IPv6 packet. The next
header field of the IPv6 header acts as a pointer to these optional extension
headers if they are present.
17. Which type of attack is carried out by threat actors against a network to
determine which IP addresses, protocols, and ports are allowed by ACLs?
▪ social engineering
▪ phishing
▪ reconnaissance
Explanation: Packet filtering ACLs use rules to filter incoming and outgoing
traffic. These rules are defined by specifying IP addresses, port numbers, and
protocols to be matched. Threat actors can use a reconnaissance attack
involving port scanning or penetration testing to determine which IP
addresses, protocols, and ports are allowed by ACLs.
18. What kind of ICMP message can be used by threat actors to create a
man-in-the-middle attack?
▪ ICMP echo request
▪ ICMP unreachable
▪ ICMP redirects
▪ ICMP mask reply
Explanation:Common ICMP messages of interest to threat actors include the
following:
ICMP echo request and echo reply: used to perform host verification and DoS
attacks
ICMP unreachable: used to perform network reconnaissance and scanning
attacks
ICMP mask reply: used to map an internal IP network
ICMP redirects: used to lure a target host into sending all traffic through a
compromised device and create a man-in-the-middle attack
ICMP router discovery: used to inject bogus route entries into the routing table
of a target host
19. What are two purposes of launching a reconnaissance attack on a
network? (Choose two.)
▪ to escalate access privileges
▪ to prevent other users from accessing the system
▪ to scan for accessibility
▪ to gather information about the network and devices
▪ to retrieve and modify data
Explanation: Gathering information about a network and scanning for access
is a reconnaissance attack. Preventing other users from accessing a system is
a denial of service attack. Attempting to retrieve and modify data, and
attempting to escalate access privileges are types of access attacks.
20. Which type of network attack involves randomly opening many Telnet
requests to a router and results in a valid network administrator not being
able to access the device?
▪ DNS poisoning
▪ SYN flooding
▪ spoofing
Explanation: The TCP SYN Flood attack exploits the TCP three-way
handshake. The threat actor continually sends TCP SYN session request
packets with a randomly spoofed source IP address to an intended target. The
target device replies with a TCP SYN-ACK packet to the spoofed IP address
and waits for a TCP ACK packet. Those responses never arrive. Eventually
the target host is overwhelmed with half-open TCP connections and denies
TCP services.
21. What functionality is provided by Cisco SPAN in a switched network?
▪ It mirrors traffic that passes through a switch port or VLAN to another
port for traffic analysis.
▪ It prevents traffic on a LAN from being disrupted by a broadcast storm.
▪ It protects the switched network from receiving BPDUs on ports that
should not be receiving them.
▪ It copies traffic that passes through a switch interface and sends the
data directly to a syslog or SNMP server for analysis.
▪ It inspects voice protocols to ensure that SIP, SCCP, H.323, and MGCP
requests conform to voice standards.
▪ It mitigates MAC address overflow attacks.
Explanation: SPAN is a Cisco technology used by network administrators to
monitor suspicious traffic or to capture traffic to be analyzed.
22. Which statement describes an operational characteristic of NetFlow?
▪ NetFlow collects basic information about the packet flow, not the flow
data itself.
▪ NetFlow captures the entire contents of a packet.
▪ NetFlow flow records can be viewed by the tcpdump tool.
▪ NetFlow can provide services for user access control.
Explanation: NetFlow does not capture the entire contents of a packet.
Instead, NetFlow collects metadata, or data about the flow, not the flow data
itself. NetFlow information can be viewed with tools such as nfdump and
FlowViewer.
23.. Match the network monitoring solution with a description. (Not all
options are used.)
24. Which technology is a proprietary SIEM system?

▪ StealthWatch
▪ NetFlow collector
▪ SNMP agent
▪ Splunk
Explanation: Security Information Event Management (SIEM) is a technology
that is used in enterprise organizations to provide real-time reporting and long-
term analysis of security events. Splunk is a proprietary SIEM system.
25. What are three functionalities provided by SOAR? (Choose three.)
▪ It automates complex incident response procedures and
investigations.
▪ It provides 24×7 statistics on packets that flow through a Cisco router or
multilayer switch.
▪ It uses artificial intelligence to detect incidents and aid in incident
analysis and response.
▪ It presents the correlated and aggregated event data in real-time
monitoring and long-term summaries.
▪ It provides a complete audit trail of basic information about every IP flow
forwarded on a device.
▪ It provides case management tools that allow cybersecurity
personnel to research and investigate incidents.
Explanation: SOAR security platforms offer these functionalities:
• Gather alarm data from each component of the system
• Provide tools that enable cases to be researched, assessed, and
investigated
• Emphasize integration as a means of automating complex incident response
workflows that enable more rapid response and adaptive defense strategies
• Include predefined playbooks that enable automatic response to specific
threats
26. Which devices should be secured to mitigate against MAC address
spoofing attacks?
▪ Layer 7 devices
▪ Layer 4 devices
▪ Layer 3 devices
▪ Layer 2 devices
Explanation: Layer 2 attacks such as MAC address spoofing can be mitigated
by securing Layer 2 devices.
27. A network administrator is checking the system logs and notices
unusual connectivity tests to multiple well-known ports on a server. What
kind of potential network attack could this indicate?
▪ access
▪ information theft
▪ reconnaissance
Explanation: A reconnaissance attack is the unauthorized discovery and
mapping of systems, services, or vulnerabilities. One of the most common
reconnaissance attacks is performed by using utilities that automatically
discover hosts on the networks and determine which ports are currently
listening for connections.
28. What is a vulnerability that allows criminals to inject scripts into web
pages viewed by users?
▪ Cross-site scripting
▪ XML injection
▪ bufferoverflow
▪ SQL injection
Explanation: Cross-site scripting (XSS) allows criminals to inject scripts that
contain malicious code into web applications.
29. Which cyber attack involves a coordinated attack from a botnet of
zombie computers?
▪ ICMP redirect
▪ MITM
▪ DDoS
Explanation: DDoS is a distributed denial-of-services attack. A DDoS attack is
launched from multiple coordinated sources. The sources of the attack are
zombie hosts that the cybercriminal has built into a botnet. When ready, the
cybercriminal instructs the botnet of zombies to attack the chosen target.
30. What technique is a security attack that depletes the pool of IP
addresses available for legitimate hosts?
▪ reconnaissance attack
▪ DHCP starvation
▪ DHCP spoofing
▪ DHCP snooping
Explanation: DHCP starvation attacks create a denial of service for network
clients. The attacker sends DHCP discovery messages that contain fake MAC
addresses in an attempt to lease all of the IP addresses. In contrast, DHCP
spoofing occurs when a cybercriminal configures a rogue DHCP server to
provide network clients with incorrect IP configuration information.
31 Which type of Trojan horse security breach uses the computer of the
victim as the source device to launch other attacks?
▪ proxy
▪ FTP
▪ DoS
▪ data-sending
Explanation: The attacker uses a proxy Trojan horse attack to penetrate one
device and then use that device to launch attacks on other devices. The Dos
Trojan horse slows or halts network traffic. The FTP trojan horse enables
unauthorized file transfer services when port 21 has been compromised. A
data-sending Trojan horse transmits data back to the hacker that could include
passwords.
32. What are two examples of DoS attacks? (Choose two.)
▪ buffer overflow
▪ SQL injection
▪ port scanning
▪ phishing
▪ ping of death
Explanation: The buffer overflow and ping of death DoS attacks exploit system
memory-related flaws on a server by sending an unexpected amount of data
or malformed data to the server.
33. Why would a rootkit be used by a hacker?
▪ to try to guess a password
▪ to reverse engineer binary files
▪ to gain access to a device without being detected
▪ to do reconnaissance
Explanation: Hackers use rootkits to avoid detection as well as hide any
software installed by the hacker.
34. What causes a buffer overflow?
▪ sending too much information to two or more interfaces of the same
device, thereby causing dropped packets
▪ attempting to write more data to a memory location than that
location can hold
▪ sending repeated connections such as Telnet to a particular device, thus
denying other data sources
▪ downloading and installing too many software updates at one time
▪ launching a security countermeasure to mitigate a Trojan horse
Explanation: By sending too much data to a specific area of memory, adjacent
memory locations are overwritten, which causes a security issue because the
program in the overwritten memory location is affected.
35. Which type of security threat would be responsible if a spreadsheet add-
on disables the local software firewall?
▪ DoS
▪ Trojan horse
▪ buffer overflow
▪ brute-force attack
Explanation: A Trojan horse is software that does something harmful, but is
hidden in legitimate software code. A denial of service (DoS) attack results in
interruption of network services to users, network devices, or applications. A
brute-force attack commonly involves trying to access a network device. A
buffer overflow occurs when a program attempts to store more data in a
memory location than it can hold.
36. Which two types of hackers are typically classified as grey hat hackers?
(Choose two.)
▪ hacktivists
▪ cyber criminals
▪ vulnerability brokers
▪ script kiddies
▪ state-sponsored hackers
Explanation: Grey hat hackers may do unethical or illegal things, but not for
personal gain or to cause damage. Hacktivists use their hacking as a form of
political or social protest, and vulnerability brokers hack to uncover
weaknesses and report them to vendors. Depending on the perspective one
possesses, state-sponsored hackers are either white hat or black hat
operators. Script kiddies create hacking scripts to cause damage or disruption.
Cyber criminals use hacking to obtain financial gain by illegal means.
37. A white hat hacker is using a security tool called Skipfish to discover the
vulnerabilities of a computer system. What type of tool is this?
▪ debugger
▪ fuzzer
▪ vulnerability scanner
▪ packet sniffer
Explanation: Fuzzers are tools used by threat actors when attempting to
discover the vulnerabilities of a computer system. Examples of fuzzers include
Skipfish, Wapiti, and W3af.
38. Which two functions are provided by NetFlow? (Choose two.)
▪ It uses artificial intelligence to detect incidents and aid in incident
analysis and response.
▪ It provides a complete audit trail of basic information about every IP
flow forwarded on a device.
▪ It provides 24×7 statistics on packets that flow through a Cisco router
or multilayer switch.
▪ It allows an administrator to capture real-time network traffic and
analyze the entire contents of packets.
▪ It presents correlated and aggregated event data in real-time monitoring
and long-term summaries.
Explanation: NetFlow is a Cisco IOS technology that provides statistics and
complete audit trails on TCP/IP flows on the network. Some of the capabilities
of NetFlow include the following: 24×7 network and security monitoring,
network planning, traffic analysis, identification of network bottlenecks, and IP
accounting for billing purposes.
39. Which statement describes the function of the SPAN tool used in a Cisco
switch?
▪ It is a secure channel for a switch to send logging to a syslog server.
▪ It provides interconnection between VLANs over multiple switches.
▪ It supports the SNMP trap operation on a switch.
▪ It copies the traffic from one switch port and sends it to another
switch port that is connected to a monitoring device.
Explanation: To analyze network traffic passing through a switch, switched
port analyzer (SPAN) can be used. SPAN can send a copy of traffic from one
port to another port on the same switch where a network analyzer or
monitoring device is connected. SPAN is not required for syslog or SNMP.
SPAN is used to mirror traffic, while syslog and SNMP are configured to send
data directly to the appropriate server.
40. What are two evasion methods used by hackers? (Choose two.)
▪ scanning
▪ access attack
▪ resource exhaustion
▪ phishing
▪ encryption
Explanation: The following methods are used by hackers to avoid
detection:Encryption and tunneling – hide or scramble the malware content
Resource exhaustion – keep the host device too busy to detect the invasion
Traffic fragmentation – split the malware into multiple packets
Protocol-level misinterpretation – sneak by the firewall
Pivot – use a compromised network device to attempt access to another
device
Rootkit – allow the hacker to avoid detection as well as hide software installed
by the hacker
41. Which attack involves threat actors positioning themselves between a
source and destination with the intent of transparently monitoring,
capturing, and controlling the communication?
▪ man-in-the-middle attack
▪ DoS attack
▪ ICMP attack
▪ SYN flood attack
Explanation: The man-in-the-middle attack is a common IP-related attack
where threat actors position themselves between a source and destination to
transparently monitor, capture, and control the communication.
42. What is the goal of a white hat hacker?
▪ validating data
▪ modifying data
▪ stealing data
▪ protecting data
Explanation: White hat hackers are actually “good guys” and are paid by
companies and governments to test for security vulnerabilities so that data is
better protected.
43. Once a cyber threat has been verified, the US Cybersecurity
Infrastructure and Security Agency (CISA) automatically shares the
cybersecurity information with public and private organizations. What is
this automated system called?
▪ AIS
▪ NCSA
▪ ENISA
▪ NCASM
Explanation: Governments are now actively promoting cybersecurity. For
instance, the US Cybersecurity Infrastructure and Security Agency (CISA) is
leading efforts to automate the sharing of cybersecurity information with public
and private organizations at no cost. CISA use a system called Automated
Indicator Sharing (AIS). AIS enables the sharing of attack indicators between
the US government and the private sector as soon as threats are verified.
CISA offers many resources that help to limit the size of the United States
attack surface.
44. A user receives a phone call from a person who claims to represent IT
services and then asks that user for confirmation of username and
password for auditing purposes. Which security threat does this phone call
represent?
▪ spam
▪ anonymous keylogging
▪ DDoS
Explanation: Social engineering attempts to gain the confidence of an
employee and convince that person to divulge confidential and sensitive
information, such as usernames and passwords. DDoS attacks, spam, and
keylogging are all examples of software based security threats, not social
engineering.
45. Which two characteristics describe a worm? (Choose two)
▪ is self-replicating
▪ travels to new computers without any intervention or knowledge of
the user
▪ infects computers by attaching to software code
▪ hides in a dormant state until needed by an attacker
▪ executes when software is run on a computer
Explanation: Worms are self-replicating pieces of software that consume
bandwidth on a network as they propagate from system to system. They do
not require a host application, unlike a virus. Viruses, on the other hand, carry
executable malicious code which harms the target machine on which they
reside.
46. An attacker is redirecting traffic to a false default gateway in an attempt
to intercept the data traffic of a switched network. What type of attack could
achieve this?
▪ MAC address snoopin
▪ DHCP snooping
▪ MAC address starvation
▪ DHCP spoofing
Explanation: In DHCP spoofing attacks, an attacker configures a fake DHCP
server on the network to issue DHCP addresses to clients with the aim of
forcing the clients to use a false default gateway, and other false services.
DHCP snooping is a Cisco switch feature that can mitigate DHCP attacks.
MAC address starvation and MAC address snooping are not recognized
security attacks. MAC address spoofing is a network security threat.
47. What would be the target of an SQL injection attack?
▪ DHCP
▪ DNS
▪ email
▪ database
Explanation: SQL is the language used to query a relational database.
Cybercriminals use SQL injections to get information, create fake or malicious
queries, or to breach the database in some other way.
48. The IT department is reporting that a company web server is receiving
an abnormally high number of web page requests from different locations
simultaneously. Which type of security attack is occurring?
▪ adware
▪ DDoS
▪ phishing
▪ spyware
Explanation: Phishing, spyware, and social engineering are security attacks
that collect network and user information. Adware consists, typically, of
annoying popup windows. Unlike a DDoS attack, none of these attacks
generate large amounts of data traffic that can restrict access to network
services.
49. Why would an attacker want to spoof a MAC address?
▪ so that the attacker can capture traffic from multiple VLANs rather than
from just the VLAN that is assigned to the port to which the attacker
device is attached
▪ so that a switch on the LAN will start forwarding frames to the
attacker instead of to the legitimate host
▪ so that a switch on the LAN will start forwarding all frames toward the
device that is under control of the attacker (that can then capture the
LAN traffic)
▪ so that the attacker can launch another type of attack in order to gain
access to the switch
Explanation: MAC address spoofing is used to bypass security measures by
allowing an attacker to impersonate a legitimate host device, usually for the
purpose of collecting network traffic.
50. Match the security concept to the description.
51. Which two characteristics describe a virus? (Choose two.)

▪ Malicious code that can remain dormant before executing an
unwanted action.
▪ Malware that executes arbitrary code and installs copies of itself in
memory.
▪ Malware that relies on the action of a user or a program to activate.
▪ Program code specifically designed to corrupt memory in network
devices.
▪ A self-replicating attack that is independently launched.
Explanation: A virus is malicious code that is attached to legitimate programs
or executable files. Most viruses require end user activation, can lie dormant
for an extended period, and then activate at a specific time or date. In contrast,
a worm executes arbitrary code and installs copies of itself in the memory of
the infected computer. The main purpose of a worm is automatic replication to
spread quickly across a network. A worm does not require a host program to
run.
52. Which type of security attack would attempt a buffer overflow?
▪ ransomware
▪ reconnaissance
▪ DoS
▪ scareware
Explanation: Denial of service (DoS) attacks attempt to disrupt service on the
network by either sending a particular device an overwhelming amount of data
so no other devices can access the attacked device or by sending malformed
packets.
1. Why is asset management a critical function of a growing organization against

security threats?
▪ It identifies the ever increasing attack surface to threats.
▪ It allows for a build of a comprehensive AUP.
▪ It serves to preserve an audit trail of all new purchases.
▪ It prevents theft of older assets that are decommissioned.
Explanation: Asset management is a critical component of a growing organization from a
security aspect. Asset management consists of inventorying all assets, and then developing
and implementing policies and procedures to protect them. As an organization grows, so does
the attack surface in terms of security threats. Each of these assets can attract different threat
actors who have different skill levels and motivations. Asset management can help mitigate
these threats by inventorying the risks as the attack surface grows.
2. In a defense-in-depth approach, which three options must be identified to
effectively defend a network against attacks? (Choose three.)
▪ total number of devices that attach to the wired and wireless network
▪ assets that need protection
▪ vulnerabilities in the system
▪ location of attacker or attackers
▪ past security breaches
▪ threats to assets
Explanation: In order to prepare for a security attack, IT security personnel must identify
assets that need to be protected such as servers, routers, access points, and end devices. They
must also identify potential threats to the assets and vulnerabilities in the system or design.
3. What is the first line of defense when an organization is using a defense-in-
depth approach to network security?
▪ edge router
▪ firewall
▪ proxy server
▪ IPS
Explanation: A defense-in-depth approach uses layers of security measures starting at the
network edge, working through the network, and finally ending at the network endpoints.
Routers at the network edge are the first line of defense and forward traffic intended for the
internal network to the firewall.
4. What three goals does a BYOD security policy accomplish? (Choose three.)
▪ identify all malware signatures and synchronize them across corporate databases
▪ identify which employees can bring their own devices
▪ identify safeguards to put in place if a device is compromised
▪ identify and prevent all heuristic virus signatures
▪ identify a list of websites that users are not permitted to access
▪ describe the rights to access and activities permitted to security personnel
on the device
Explanation: A comprehensive BYOD policy should accomplish the following:
Identification of which employees can bring their own devices
Identification of which devices will be supported
Identification of the level of access employees are granted when using personal devices
Describe the rights to access and activities permitted to security personnel on the device
Identification of which regulations must be adhered to when using employee devices
Identification of safeguards to put in place if a device is compromised
5. Which two options are security best practices that help mitigate BYOD risks?
(Choose two.)
▪ Use paint that reflects wireless signals and glass that prevents the signals from going
outside the building.
▪ Keep the device OS and software updated.
▪ Only allow devices that have been approved by the corporate IT team.
▪ Only turn on Wi-Fi when using the wireless network.
▪ Decrease the wireless antenna gain level.
▪ Use wireless MAC address filtering.
Explanation: Many companies now support employees and visitors attaching and using
wireless devices that connect to and use the corporate wireless network. This practice is
known as a bring-your-own-device policy or BYOD. Commonly, BYOD security practices
are included in the security policy. Some best practices that mitigate BYOD risks include the
following:
Use unique passwords for each device and account.
Turn off Wi-Fi and Bluetooth connectivity when not being used. Only connect to trusted
networks.
Keep the device OS and other software updated.
Backup any data stored on the device.
Subscribe to a device locator service with a remote wipe feature.
Provide antivirus software for approved BYODs.
Use Mobile Device Management (MDM) software that allows IT teams to track the device
and implement security settings and software controls.
6. What is the purpose of mobile device management (MDM) software?
▪ It is used to create a security policy.
▪ It is used to implement security policies, setting, and software
configurations on mobile devices.
▪ It is used to identify potential mobile device vulnerabilities.
▪ It is used by threat actors to penetrate the system.
Explanation: Mobile device management (MDM) software is used with mobile devices so
that corporate IT personnel can track the devices, implement security settings, as well as
control software configurations.
7. What does the incident handling procedures security policy describe?
▪ It describes how security incidents are handled.
▪ It describes the procedure for auditing the network after a cyberattack.
▪ It describes the procedure for mitigating cyberattacks.
▪ It describes how to prevent various cyberattacks.
Explanation: The incident handling procedures security policy describes how security
incidents are handled.
8. Match the type of business policy to the description.
▪ defines system requirements and objectives, rules, and requirements for users when
they attach to or on the network ==> security
▪ protects the rights of workers and the company interests ==> company
▪ identifies salary, pay schedule, benefits, work schedule, vacations,
etc. ==> employee
9. Match the threat intelligence sharing standards with the description.
▪ Thisis the specification for an application layer protocol that allows the
communication of CTI over HTTPS. ==> TAXII
▪ This is a set of specifications for exchanging cyberthreat information between
organizations. ==> STIX
▪ This is is a set of standardized schemata for specifying, capturing, characterizing, and
communicating events and properties of network operations. ==> CybOX
10. What is the primary purpose of the Forum of Incident Response and Security
Teams (FIRST)?
▪ to enable a variety of computer security incident response teams to
collaborate, cooperate, and coordinate information sharing, incident
prevention, and rapid reaction strategies
▪ toprovide a security news portal that aggregates the latest breaking news pertaining to
alerts, exploits, and vulnerabilities
▪ to offer 24×7 cyberthreat warnings and advisories, vulnerability identification, and
mitigation and incident response
▪ to provide vendor neutral education products and career services to industry
professionals worldwide
Explanation: The primary purpose of the Forum of Incident Response and Security Teams
(FIRST) is to enable a variety of computer security incident response teams to collaborate,
cooperate, and coordinate information sharing, incident prevention, and rapid reaction
between the teams.
11. What is the primary purpose of the Malware Information Sharing Platform
(MISP) ?
▪ to publish all informational materials on known and newly discovered cyberthreats
▪ to enable automated sharing of IOCs between people and machines using
the STIX and other exports formats
▪ to provide a set of standardized schemata for specifying and capturing events and
properties of network operations
▪ to exchange all the response mechanisms to known threats
Explanation: Malware Information Sharing Platform (MISP) is an open source platform that
enables automated sharing of IOCs between people and machines using the STIX and other
exports formats.
12. Which statement describes Trusted Automated Exchange of Indicator
Information (TAXII)?
▪ It is a set of specifications for exchanging cyber threat information between
organizations.
▪ It is a signature-less engine utilizing stateful attack analysis to detect zero-day threats.
▪ It is a dynamic database of real-time vulnerabilities.
▪ It is the specification for an application layer protocol that allows the
communication of CTI over HTTPS.
Explanation: Trusted Automated Exchange of Indicator Information (TAXII) is the
specification for an application layer protocol that allows the communication of CTI over
HTTPS. TAXII is designed to support Structured Threat Information Expression (STIX).
13. Which organization defines unique CVE Identifiers for publicly known
information-security vulnerabilities that make it easier to share data?
▪ Cisco Talos
▪ DHS
▪ FireEye
▪ MITRE
Explanation: The United States government sponsored the MITRE Corporation to create
and maintain a catalog of known security threats called Common Vulnerabilities and
Exposures (CVE). The CVE serves as a dictionary of common names (i.e., CVE Identifiers)
for publicly known cybersecurity vulnerabilities.
14. How does FireEye detect and prevent zero-day attacks?
▪ by establishing an authentication parameter prior to any data exchange
▪ by addressing all stages of an attack lifecycle with a signature-less engine
utilizing stateful attack analysis
▪ by keeping a detailed analysis of all viruses and malware
▪ by only accepting encrypted data packets that validate against their configured hash
values
Explanation: FireEye uses a three-pronged approach combining security intelligence,
security expertise, and technology. It addresses all stages of an attack lifecycle with a
signature-less engine utilizing stateful attack analysis to detect zero-day threats.
15. What is the primary function of the Center for Internet Security (CIS)?
▪ to maintain a list of common vulnerabilities and exposures (CVE) used by security
organizations
▪ to provide a security news portal that aggregates the latest breaking news pertaining to
alerts, exploits, and vulnerabilities
▪ to offer 24×7 cyberthreat warnings and advisories, vulnerability
identification, and mitigation and incident responses
▪ to provide vendor-neutral education products and career services to industry
professionals worldwide
Explanation: CIS offers 24×7 cyberthreat warnings and advisories, vulnerability
identification, and mitigation and incident responses to state, local, tribal, and territorial
(SLTT) governments through the Multi-State Information Sharing and Analysis Center (MS-
ISAC).
16. What is CybOX?
▪ It is a specification for an application layer protocol that allows the communication of
CTI over HTTPS.
▪ It is a set of standardized schemata for specifying, capturing, characterizing,
and communicating events and properties of network operations.
▪ It enables the real-time exchange of cyberthreat indicators between the U.S. Federal
Government and the private sector.
▪ It is a catalog of known security threats called Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
(CVE) for publicly known cybersecurity vulnerabilities.
Explanation: CybOX is a set of open standards that provide the specifications that aid in the
automated exchange of cyberthreat intelligence information in a standardized format. It is a
set of standardized schemata for specifying, capturing, characterizing, and communicating
events and properties of network operations that support many cybersecurity functions.
17. A web server administrator is configuring access settings to require users to
authenticate first before accessing certain web pages. Which requirement of
information security is addressed through the configuration?
▪ availability
▪ integrity
▪ scalability
▪ confidentiality
Explanation: Confidentiality ensures that data is accessed only by authorized individuals.
Authentication will help verify the identity of the individuals.
18. When designing a prototype network for a new server farm, a network
designer chooses to use redundant links to connect to the rest of the network.
Which business goal will be addressed by this choice?
▪ availability
▪ manageability
▪ security
▪ scalability
Explanation: Availability is one of the components of information security where authorized
users must have uninterrupted access to important resources and data.
19. When a security audit is performed at a company, the auditor reports that new
users have access to network resources beyond their normal job roles.
Additionally, users who move to different positions retain their prior permissions.
What kind of violation is occurring?
▪ least privilege
▪ network policy
▪ password
▪ audit
Explanation: Users should have access to information on a need to know basis. When a user
moves from job role to job role, the same concept applies.
20. Which component of the zero trust security model focuses on secure access
when an API, a microservice, or a container is accessing a database within an
application?
▪ workflow
▪ workforce
▪ workload
▪ workplace
Explanation: The workload pillar focuses on applications that are running in the cloud, in
data centers, and other virtualized environments that interact with one another. It focuses on
secure access when an API, a microservice, or a container is accessing a database within an
application.
21. What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?
▪ to determine which resources a user can access
▪ to provide challenge and response questions
▪ to keep track of the actions of a user
▪ to require users to prove who they are
Explanation: Authentication, authorization, and accounting are network services collectively
known as AAA. Authentication requires users to prove who they are. Authorization
determines which resources the user can access. Accounting keeps track of the actions of the
user.
22. Which term describes the ability of a web server to keep a log of the users who
access the server, as well as the length of time they use it?
▪ authentication
▪ accounting
▪ assigning permissions
▪ authorization
Explanation: Accounting records what users do and when they do it, including what is
accessed, the amount of time the resource is accessed, and any changes that were made.
Accounting keeps track of how network resources are used.
23. Match the information security component with the description.
▪ Only authorized individuals, entities, or processes can access sensitive information.

: confidentiality
▪ Data is protected from unauthorized alteration. : Integrity
▪ Authorized users must have uninterrupted access to important resources and data.
: availability
24. What are two characteristics of the RADIUS protocol? (Choose two.)
▪ encryption of the entire body of the packet
▪ encryption of the password only
▪ the use of UDP ports for authentication and accounting
▪ the separation of the authentication and authorization processes
▪ the use of TCP port 49
Explanation: RADIUS is an open-standard AAA protocol using UDP port 1645 or 1812 for
authentication and UDP port 1646 or 1813 for accounting. It combines authentication and
authorization into one process.
25. Which AAA component can be established using token cards?
▪ accounting
▪ authorization
▪ authentication
▪ auditing
Explanation: The authentication component of AAA is established using username and
password combinations, challenge and response questions, and token cards. The authorization
component of AAA determines which resources the user can access and which operations the
user is allowed to perform. The accounting and auditing component of AAA keeps track of
how network resources are used.
26. What is a characteristic of the security artichoke, defense-in-depth approach?
▪ Threat actors can easily compromise all layers safeguarding the data or systems.
▪ Threat actors no longer have to peel away each layer before reaching the
target data or system.
▪ Threat actors can no longer penetrate any layers safeguarding the data or system.
▪ Each layer has to be penetrated before the threat actor can reach the target data or
system.
Explanation: In the security artichoke, defense-in-depth approach not every layer needs to
be penetrated by the threat actor in order to get to the data or systems. Each layer provides a
layer of protection while simultaneously providing a path to attack.
27. What is a characteristic of a layered defense-in-depth security approach?
▪ Three or more devices are used.
▪ Routers are replaced with firewalls.
▪ One safeguard failure does not affect the effectiveness of other safeguards.
▪ When one device fails, another one takes over.
Explanation: When a layered defense-in-depth security approach is used, layers of security
are placed through the organization-at the edge, within the network, and on endpoints. The
layers work together to create the security architecture. In this environment, a failure of one
safeguard does not affect the effectiveness of other safeguards.
28. What is the benefit of a defense-in-depth approach?
▪ All network vulnerabilities are mitigated.
▪ The need for firewalls is eliminated.
▪ Only a single layer of security at the network core is required.
▪ The effectiveness of other security measures is not impacted when a
security mechanism fails.
Explanation: The benefit of the defense-in-depth approach is that network defenses are
implemented in layers so that failure of any single security mechanism does not impact other
secuirty measures.
29. Match the term to the description.
30. What is the principle behind the nondiscretionary access control model?
▪ It applies the strictest access control possible.
▪ It allows access decisions to be based on roles and responsibilities of a user
within the organization.
▪ It allows users to control access to their data as owners of that data.
▪ It allows access based on attributes of the object be to accessed.
Explanation: The nondiscretionary access control model used the roles and responsibilities
of the user as the basis for access decisions.
31. Which type of access control applies the strictest access control and is
commonly used in military or mission critical applications?
▪ Non-discretionary access control
▪ discretionary access control (DAC)
▪ attribute-based access control (ABAC)
▪ mandatory access control (MAC)
Explanation: Access control models are used to define the access controls
implemented to protect corporate IT resources. The different types of access
control models are as follows:
Mandatory access control (MAC) – The strictest access control that is typically used in
military or mission critical applications.
Discretionary access control (DAC) – Allows users to control access to their data as owners of
that data. Access control lists (ACLs) or other security measures may be used to specify who
else may have access to the information.
Non-discretionary access control – Also known as role-based access control (RBAC). Allows
access based on the role and responsibilities of the individual within the organization.
Attribute-based access control (ABAC) – Allows access based on the attributes of the
resource to be accessed, the user accessing the resource, and the environmental factors such as
the time of day.
32. Passwords, passphrases, and PINs are examples of which security term?
▪ identification
▪ access
▪ authentication
▪ authorization
Explanation: Authentication methods are used to strengthen access control systems. It is
important to understand the available authentication methods.
33. How does AIS address a newly discovered threat?
▪ by creating response strategies against the new threat
▪ by advising the U.S. Federal Government to publish internal response strategies
▪ by enabling real-time exchange of cyberthreat indicators with U.S. Federal
Government and the private sector
▪ by mitigating the attack with active response defense mechanisms
Explanation: AIS responds to a new threat as soon as it is recognized by immediately
sharing it with U.S. Federal Government and the private sector to help them protect their
networks against that particular threat.

Cryptography and Endpoint Protection Group Exam
1. Which type of attack does the use of HMACs protect against?
▪ brute force
▪ DDoS
▪ DoS
Explanation: Because only the sender and receiver know the secret key, only
parties that have access to that key can compute the digest of an HMAC
function. This defeats man-in-the-middle attacks and provides authentication
of where the data originated.
2. Which objective of secure communications is achieved by encrypting
data?
▪ confidentiality
▪ integrity
▪ availability
▪ authentication
Explanation: When data is encrypted, it is scrambled to keep the data private
and confidential so that only authorized recipients can read the message. A
hash function is another way of providing confidentiality.
3. Which two statements correctly describe certificate classes used in the
PKI? (Choose two.)
▪ A class 4 certificate is for online business transactions between
companies.
▪ A class 0 certificate is more trusted than a class 1 certificate.
▪ A class 0 certificate is for testing purposes.
▪ The lower the class number, the more trusted the certificate.
▪ A class 5 certificate is for users with a focus on verification of email.
Explanation: A digital certificate class is identified by a number. The higher the
number, the more trusted the certificate. The classes include the following:
Class 0 is for testing purposes in which no checks have been performed.
Class 1 is for individuals with a focus on verification of email.
Class 2 is for organizations for which proof of identity is required.
Class 3 is for servers and software signing for which independent verification
and checking of identity and authority is done by the issuing certificate
authority.
Class 4 is for online business transactions between companies.
Class 5 is for private organizations or governmental security.
4. A customer purchases an item from an e-commerce site. The e-commerce
site must maintain proof that the data exchange took place between the site
and the customer. Which feature of digital signatures is required?
▪ nonrepudiation of the transaction
▪ integrity of digitally signed data
▪ authenticity of digitally signed data
▪ confidentiality of the public key
Explanation: Digital signatures provide three basic security services:
Authenticity of digitally signed data – Digital signatures authenticate a source,
proving that a certain party has seen and signed the data in question.
Integrity of digitally signed data – Digital signatures guarantee that the data
has not changed from the time it was signed.
Nonrepudiation of the transaction – The recipient can take the data to a third
party, and the third party accepts the digital signature as a proof that this data
exchange did take place. The signing party cannot repudiate that it has signed
the data.
5. What is the purpose of a digital certificate?
▪ It provides proof that data has a traditional signature attached.
▪ It guarantees that a website has not been hacked.
▪ It ensures that the person who is gaining access to a network device is
authorized.
▪ It authenticates a website and establishes a secure connection to
exchange confidential data.
Explanation: Digital signatures commonly use digital certificates that are used
to verify the identity of the originator in order to authenticate a vendor website
and establish an encrypted connection to exchange confidential data. One
such example is when a person logs into a financial institution from a web
browser.
6. In a hierarchical CA topology, where can a subordinate CA obtain a
certificate for itself?
▪ from the root CA or another subordinate CA at a higher level
▪ from the root CA or another subordinate CA at the same level
▪ from the root CA or from self-generation
▪ from the root CA only
▪ from the root CA or another subordinate CA anywhere in the tree
Explanation: In a hierarchical CA topology, CAs can issue certificates to end
users and to subordinate CAs, which in turn issue their certificates to end
users, other lower level CAs, or both. In this way, a tree of CAs and end users
is built in which every CA can issue certificates to lower level CAs and end
users. Only the root CA can issue a self-signing certificate in a hierarchical CA
topology.
7. What is the purpose for using digital signatures for code signing?
▪ to establish an encrypted connection to exchange confidential data with
a vendor website
▪ to verify the integrity of executable files downloaded from a vendor
website
▪ to authenticate the identity of the system with a vendor website
▪ to generate a virtual ID
Explanation: Code signing is used to verify the integrity of executable files
downloaded from a vendor website. Code signing uses digital certificates to
authenticate and verify the identity of a website.
8. What technology has a function of using trusted third-party protocols to
issue credentials that are accepted as an authoritative identity?
▪ digital signatures
▪ hashing algorithms
▪ PKI certificates
▪ symmetric keys
Explanation: Digital certificates are used to prove the authenticity and integrity
of PKI certificates, but a PKI Certificate Authority is a trusted third-party entity
that issues PKI certificates. PKI certificates are public information and are
used to provide authenticity, confidentiality, integrity, and nonrepudiation
services that can scale to large requirements.
9. In addressing a risk that has low potential impact and relatively high cost
of mitigation or reduction, which strategy will accept the risk and its
consequences?
▪ risk avoidance
▪ risk reduction
▪ risk retention
▪ risk sharing
Explanation: There are four potential strategies for responding to risks that
have been identified:
Risk avoidance – Stop performing the activities that create risk.
Risk reduction – Decrease the risk by taking measures to reduce vulnerability.
Risk sharing – Shift some of the risk to other parties.
Risk retention – Accept the risk and its consequences.
10. Which two classes of metrics are included in the CVSS Base Metric
Group? (Choose two.)
▪ Confidentiality Requirement
▪ Modified Base
▪ Exploit Code Maturity
▪ Exploitability
▪ Impact metrics
Explanation: The Base Metric Group of CVSS represents the characteristics
of a vulnerability that are constant over time and across contexts. It contains
two classes of metrics, Exploitability and Impact.
11. Match the NIST Cybersecurity Framework core function with the
description. (Not all options are used.)
▪ develop and implement the appropriate activities to identify the

occurrence of a cybersecurity event : detect
▪ develop and implement the appropriate safeguards to ensure delivery of
critical infrastructure services : protect
▪ develop and implement the appropriate activities to act on a detected
cybersecurity event
▪ develop an organizational understanding to manage cybersecurity risk
to systems, assets, data, and capabilities : identify
12. A cybersecurity analyst is performing a CVSS assessment on an attack
where a web link was sent to several employees. Once clicked, an internal
attack was launched. Which CVSS Base Metric Group Exploitability metric is
used to document that the user had to click on the link in order for the
attack to occur?
▪ scope
▪ integrity requirement
▪ availability requirement
▪ user interaction
Explanation: The CVSS Base Metric Group has the following metrics: attack
vector, attack complexity, privileges required, user interaction, and scope. The
user interaction metric expresses the presence or absence of the requirement
for user interaction in order for an exploit to be successful.
13. In network security assessments, which type of test employs software to
scan internal networks and Internet facing servers for various types of
vulnerabilities?
▪ vulnerability assessment
▪ risk analysis
▪ strength of network security testing
▪ penetration testing
Explanation: In vulnerability assessment, security analysts use software to
scan internal networks and Internet facing servers for various types of
vulnerabilities. Tools for vulnerability assessment include the open source
OpenVAS platform, Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer, Nessus, Qualys,
and Fireeye Mandiant services.
14. What are the three outcomes of the NIST Cybersecurity Framework
identify core function? (Choose three.)
▪ information protection process and procedures
▪ governance
▪ mitigation
▪ risk assessment
▪ asset management
▪ recovery planning
Explanation: The identify core function is concerned with the development of
organizational understanding to manage cybersecurity risk to systems, assets,
data, and capabilities. It involves the following outcomes:
Asset management
Business environment
Governance
Risk assessment
Risk management strategy
15. When a server profile for an organization is being established, which
element describes the TCP and UDP daemons and ports that are allowed to
be open on the server?
▪ critical asset address space
▪ service accounts
▪ software environment
▪ listening ports
Explanation: A server profile will often contain the following:
Listening ports – the TCP and UDP daemons and ports that are allowed to be
open on the server
User accounts – the parameters defining user access and behavior
Service accounts – the definitions of the type of service that an application is
allowed to run on a server
Software environment – the tasks, processes, and applications that are
permitted to run on the server
16. What is an action that should be taken in the discovery step of the
vulnerability management life cycle?
▪ documenting the security plan
▪ assigning business value to assets
▪ developing a network baseline
▪ determining a risk profile
Explanation: During the discovery step of the vulnerability management life
cycle, an inventory of all network assets is made. A network baseline is
developed, and security vulnerabilities are identified.
17. In what order are the steps in the vulnerability management life cycle
conducted?
▪ discover, assess, prioritize assets, report, remediate, verify
▪ discover, prioritize assets, assess, remediate, report, verify
▪ discover, prioritize assets, assess, remediate, verify, report
▪ discover, prioritize assets, assess, report, remediate, verify
Explanation: There are six steps in the vulnerability management life cycle:
▪ Discover
▪ Prioritize assets
▪ Assess
▪ Report
▪ Remediate
▪ Verify
17. What does the telemetry function provide in host-based security

software?
▪ It updates the heuristic antivirus signature database.
▪ It blocks the passage of zero-day attacks.
▪ It enables updates of malware signatures.
▪ It enables host-based security programs to have comprehensive
logging functions.
Explanation: The telemetry function allows for robust logging functionality that
is essential to cybersecurity operations. Some host-based security programs
will submit logs to a central location for analysis.
19. A security professional is making recommendations to a company for
enhancing endpoint security. Which security endpoint technology would be
recommended as an agent-based system to protect hosts against malware?
▪ IPS
▪ HIDS
▪ blacklisting
▪ baselining
Explanation: A host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) is a
comprehensive security application that provides antimalware applications, a
firewall, and monitoring and reporting.
20. What is a feature of distributed firewalls?
▪ They all use an open sharing standard platform.
▪ They use only TCP wrappers to configure rule-based access control and
logging systems.
▪ They use only iptables to configure network rules.
▪ They combine the feature of host-based firewalls with centralized
management.
Explanation: Distributed firewalls combine features of host-based firewalls
with centralized management, which pushes rules to the hosts.
21. An administrator suspects polymorphic malware has successfully
entered the network past the HIDS system perimeter. The polymorphic
malware is, however, successfully identified and isolated. What must the
administrator do to create signatures to prevent the file from entering the
network again?
▪ Execute the polymorphic file in the Cisco Threat Grid Glovebox.
▪ Run the Cisco Talos security intelligence service.
▪ Use Cisco AMP to track the trajectory of a file through the network.
▪ Run a baseline to establish an accepted amount of risk, and the
environmental components that contribute to the risk level of the
polymorphic malware.
Explanation: The isolated polymorphic malware file should be run in a
sandbox environment like Cisco Threat Grid Glovebox, and the activities of the
file documented by the system. This information can then be used to create
signatures to prevent the file from entering the network again.
22. On a Windows host, which tool can be used to create and maintain
blacklists and whitelists?
▪ Local Users and Groups
▪ Group Policy Editor
▪ Task Manager
▪ Computer Management
Explanation: In Windows, blacklisting and whitelisting settings can be
managed through the Group Policy Editor.
23. What is blacklisting?
▪ This is an application list that can dictate which user applications are
not permitted to run on a computer.
▪ This is a user list to prevent blacklisted users from accessing a
computer.
▪ This is a network process list to stop a listed process from running on a
computer.
▪ This is a Heuristics-based list to prevent a process from running on a
computer.
Explanation: Blacklisting can dictate which user applications are not permitted
to run on a computer. Windows Local Group Policy Editor can be used to add
entries for blacklisted applications.
24. Which technology is used by Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)
in defending and protecting against known and emerging threats?
▪ network admission control
▪ network profiling
▪ website filtering and blacklisting
Explanation: Cisco AMP uses threat intelligence along with known file
signatures to identify and block policy-violating file types and exploitations.
25. Which technique could be used by security personnel to analyze a
suspicious file in a safe environment?
▪ sandboxing
▪ baselining
▪ whitelisting
▪ blacklisting
Explanation: Sandboxing allows suspicious files to be executed and analyzed
in a safe environment. There are free public sandboxes that allow for malware
samples to be uploaded or submitted and analyzed.
26. Which statement describes the term iptables?
▪ It is a file used by a DHCP server to store current active IP addresses.
▪ It is a rule-based firewall application in Linux.
▪ It is a DHCP application in Windows.
▪ It is a DNS daemon in Linux.
Explanation: Iptables is an application that allows Linux system administrators
to configure network access rules.
27. What is the difference between an HIDS and a firewall?
▪ An HIDS works like an IPS, whereas a firewall just monitors traffic.
▪ An HIDS monitors operating systems on host computers and
processes file system activity. Firewalls allow or deny traffic
between the computer and other systems.
▪ A firewall performs packet filtering and therefore is limited in
effectiveness, whereas an HIDS blocks intrusions.
▪ An HIDS blocks intrusions, whereas a firewall filters them.
▪ A firewall allows and denies traffic based on rules and an HIDS monitors
network traffic.
Explanation: In order to monitor local activity an HIDS should be implemented.
Network activity monitors are concerned with traffic and not operating system
activity.
28. Which statement describes the Cisco Threat Grid Glovebox?
▪ It is a network-based IDS/IPS.
▪ It is a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) solution to fight
against malware.
▪ It is a sandbox product for analyzing malware behaviors.
▪ It is a firewall appliance.
Explanation: Cisco ThreatGrid Glovebox is a sandbox product for analyzing
malware behaviors.
29. Which statement describes the policy-based intrusion detection
approach?
▪ It compares the signatures of incoming traffic to a known intrusion
database.
▪ It compares the operations of a host against well-defined security
rules.
▪ It compares the antimalware definitions to a central repository for the
latest updates.
▪ It compares the behaviors of a host to an established baseline to identify
potential intrusion.
Explanation: With the anomaly-based intrusion detection approach, a set of
rules or policies are applied to a host. Violation of these policies is interpreted
to be the result of a potential intrusion.
30. What is the purpose of the DH algorithm?
▪ to provide nonrepudiation support
▪ to generate a shared secret between two hosts that have not
communicated before
▪ to encrypt data traffic after a VPN is established
▪ to support email data confidentiality
Explanation: DH is an asymmetric mathematical algorithm that allows two
computers to generate an identical shared secret, without having
communicated before. Asymmetric key systems are extremely slow for any
sort of bulk encryption. It is common to encrypt the bulk of the traffic using a
symmetric algorithm such as DES, 3DES, or AES, and use the DH algorithm
to create keys that will be used by the symmetric encryption algorithm.
31. What is a difference between symmetric and asymmetric encryption
algorithms?
▪ Symmetric encryption algorithms are used to authenticate secure
communications. Asymmetric encryption algorithms are used to
repudiate messages.
▪ Symmetric encryption algorithms are used to encrypt data. Asymmetric
encryption algorithms are used to decrypt data.
▪ Symmetric encryption algorithms use pre-shared keys. Asymmetric
encryption algorithms use different keys to encrypt and decrypt
data.
▪ Symmetric algorithms are typically hundreds to thousands of times
slower than asymmetric algorithms.
Explanation: Asymmetric algorithms can use very long key lengths in order to
avoid being hacked. This results in the use of significantly increased resources
and time compared to symmetric algorithms.
32. A company implements a security policy that ensures that a file sent
from the headquarters office to the branch office can only be opened with a
predetermined code. This code is changed every day. Which two algorithms
can be used to achieve this task? (Choose two.)
▪ HMAC
▪ MD5
▪ 3DES
▪ SHA-1
▪ AES
Explanation: The task to ensure that only authorized personnel can open a file
is data confidentiality, which can be implemented with encryption. AES and
3DES are two encryption algorithms. HMAC can be used for ensuring origin
authentication. MD5 and SHA-1 can be used to ensure data integrity.
33. Which security management plan specifies a component that involves
tracking the location and configuration of networked devices and software
across an enterprise?
▪ patch management
▪ vulnerability management
▪ risk management
Explanation: Asset management involves tracking the location and
configuration of networked devices and software across an enterprise.
34. In addressing an identified risk, which strategy aims to stop performing
the activities that create risk?
▪ risk retention
▪ risk avoidance
▪ risk sharing
▪ risk reduction
▪ Risk avoidance – Stop performing the activities that create risk.
▪ Risk reduction – Decrease the risk by taking measures to reduce
vulnerability.
▪ Risk sharing – Shift some of the risk to other parties.
▪ Risk retention – Accept the risk and its consequences.
35. A company is developing a security policy for secure communication. In

the exchange of critical messages between a headquarters office and a
branch office, a hash value should only be recalculated with a
predetermined code, thus ensuring the validity of data source. Which aspect
of secure communications is addressed?
▪ data integrity
▪ data confidentiality
▪ non-repudiation
▪ origin authentication
Explanation: Secure communications consists of four elements:
Data confidentiality – guarantees that only authorized users can read the
message
Data integrity – guarantees that the message was not altered
Origin authentication – guarantees that the message is not a forgery and
does actually come from whom it states
Data nonrepudiation – guarantees that the sender cannot repudiate, or
refute, the validity of a message sent
36. Match the network profile element to the description. (Not all options
are used.)
Explanation: Important elements of a network profile include:

▪ Total throughput – the amount of data passing from a given source to a
given destination in a given period of time
▪ Session duration – the time between the establishment of a data flow
and its termination
▪ Ports used – a list of TCP or UDP processes that are available to accept
data
▪ Critical asset address space – the IP addresses or the logical location of
essential systems or data
37. Which three security services are provided by digital signatures?
(Choose three.)
▪ provides nonrepudiation using HMAC functions
▪ guarantees data has not changed in transit
▪ provides data encryption
▪ authenticates the source
▪ provides confidentiality of digitally signed data
▪ authenticates the destination
Explanation: Digital signatures are a mathematical technique used to provide
three basic security services. Digital signatures have specific properties that
enable entity authentication and data integrity. In addition, digital signatures
provide nonrepudiation of the transaction. In other words, the digital signature
serves as legal proof that the data exchange did take place.

Protocols and Log Files Group Exam
1. Which ICMP message type should be stopped inbound?
▪ source quench
▪ echo-reply
▪ echo
▪ unreachable
Explanation: The echo ICMP packet should not be allowed inbound on an
interface. The echo-reply should be allowed so that when an internal device
pings an external device, the reply is allowed to return.
2. How can IMAP be a security threat to a company?
▪ Someone inadvertently clicks on a hidden iFrame.
▪ Encrypted data is decrypted.
▪ An email can be used to bring malware to a host.
▪ It can be used to encode stolen data and send to a threat actor.
Explanation: IMAP, SMTP, and POP3 are email protocols. SMTP is used to
send data from a host to a server or to send data between servers. IMAP and
POP3 are used to download email messages and can be responsible for
bringing malware to the receiving host.
3. Which two technologies are primarily used on peer-to-peer networks?
(Choose two.)
▪ Bitcoin
▪ BitTorrent
▪ Wireshark
▪ Darknet
▪ Snort
Explanation: Bitcoin is used to share a distributed database or ledger.
BitTorrent is used for file sharing.
4. Which protocol is exploited by cybercriminals who create malicious
iFrames?
▪ HTTP
▪ ARP
▪ DHCP
▪ DNS
Explanation: An HTML element known as an inline frame or iFrame allows the
browser to load a different web page from another source.
5. Which method is used by some malware to transfer files from infected
hosts to a threat actor host?
▪ UDP infiltration
▪ ICMP tunneling
▪ HTTPS traffic encryption
▪ iFrame injection
Explanation: ICMP traffic from inside the company is also a threat. Some
varieties of malware use ICMP packets to transfer files from infected hosts to
threat actors via ICMP tunneling.
6. Why does HTTPS technology add complexity to network security
monitoring?
▪ HTTPS dynamically changes the port number on the web server.
▪ HTTPS uses tunneling technology for confidentiality.
▪ HTTPS hides the true source IP address using NAT/PAT.
▪ HTTPS conceals data traffic through end-to-end encryption.
Explanation: With HTTPS, a symmetric key is generated by the client after the
client verifies the trustworthiness of the web server. The symmetric key is
encrypted with the public key of the web server and then sent to the web
server. The web server uses its public key to decrypt the key. The key is then
used to encrypt the data requested by the client and the data is sent to the
client. This end-to-end encryption complicates inline network security
monitoring. The HTTPS port number, typically 443, is configured statically on
the web server.
7. Which approach is intended to prevent exploits that target syslog?
▪ Use a Linux-based server.
▪ Use syslog-ng.
▪ Create an ACL that permits only TCP traffic to the syslog server.
▪ Use a VPN between a syslog client and the syslog server.
Explanation: Hackers may try to block clients from sending data to the syslog
server, manipulate or erase logged data, or manipulate the software used to
transmit messages between the clients and the server. Syslog-ng is the next
generation of syslog and it contains improvements to prevent some of the
exploits.
▪ phishing
▪ reconnaissance
9. Which two application layer protocols manage the exchange of messages
between a client with a web browser and a remote web server? (Choose
two.)
▪ HTTP
▪ HTTPS
▪ DNS
▪ DHCP
▪ HTML
Explanation: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) and HTTP Secure (HTTPS)
are two application layer protocols that manage the content requests from
clients and the responses from the web server. HTML (Hypertext Mark-up
Language) is the encoding language that describes the content and display
features of a web page. DNS is for domain name to IP address resolution.
DHCP manages and provides dynamic IP configurations to clients.
10. What is Tor?
▪ a rule created in order to match a signature of a known exploit
▪ a software platform and network of P2P hosts that function as
Internet routers
▪ a way to share processors between network devices across the Internet
▪ a type of Instant Messaging (IM) software used on the darknet
Explanation: A special browser is used to access the Tor network. This
browser allows a user to browse the Internet anonymously.
11. Which protocol is a name resolution protocol often used by malware to
communicate with command-and-control (CnC) servers?
▪ IMAP
▪ DNS
▪ HTTPS
▪ ICMP
Explanation: Domain Name Service (DNS) is used to convert domain names
into IP addresses. Some organizations have less stringent policies in place to
protect against DNS-based threats than they have in place for other exploits.
12. Which technique is necessary to ensure a private transfer of data using a
VPN?
▪ authorization
▪ scalability
▪ encryption
▪ virtualization
Explanation: Confidential and secure transfers of data with VPNs require data
encryption.
13. Which technology would be used to create the server logs generated by
network devices and reviewed by an entry level network person who works
the night shift at a data center?
▪ syslog
▪ NAT
▪ ACL
▪ VPN
Explanation: Syslog is a daemon or service run on a server that accepts
messages sent by network devices. These logs are frequently examined to
detect inconsistencies and issues within the network.
14. Which function is provided by the Sguil application?
▪ It reports conversations between hosts on the network.
▪ It makes Snort-generated alerts readable and searchable.
▪ It detects potential network intrusions.
▪ It prevents malware from attacking a host.
Explanation: Applications such as Snorby and Sguil can be used to read and
search alert messages generated by NIDS/NIPS.
15. Which statement describes a Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA)?
▪ It protects a web server by preventing security threats from accessing
the server.
▪ It provides high performance web services.
▪ It acts as an SSL-based VPN server for an enterprise.
▪ It functions as a web proxy.
Explanation: Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA) devices provide a wide
range of functionalities for security monitoring. WSA effectively acts as a web
proxy. It logs all inbound and outbound transaction information for HTTP
traffic.
16. Which statement describes session data in security logs?
▪ It can be used to describe or predict network behavior.
▪ It shows the result of network sessions.
▪ It is a record of a conversation between network hosts.
▪ It reports detailed network activities between network hosts.
Explanation: Session data is a record of a conversation between two network
endpoints.
17. Which two options are network security monitoring approaches that
use advanced analytic techniques to analyze network telemetry data?
(Choose two.)
▪ NBAD
▪ Sguil
▪ NetFlow
▪ IPFIX
▪ Snorby
▪ NBA
Explanation: Network behavior analysis (NBA) and network behavior anomaly
detection (NBAD) are approaches to network security monitoring that use
advanced analytical techniques to analyze NetFlow or IPFIX network telemetry
data.
18. How does a web proxy device provide data loss prevention (DLP) for an
enterprise?
▪ by functioning as a firewall
▪ by inspecting incoming traffic for potential exploits
▪ by scanning and logging outgoing traffic
▪ by checking the reputation of external web servers
Explanation: A web proxy device can inspect outgoing traffic as means of data
loss prevention (DLP). DLP involves scanning outgoing traffic to detect
whether the data that is leaving the enterprise network contains sensitive,
confidential, or secret information.
19. Which information can be provided by the Cisco NetFlow utility?
▪ security and user account restrictions
▪ IDS and IPS capabilities
▪ peak usage times and traffic routing
▪ source and destination UDP port mapping
Explanation: NetFlow efficiently provides an important set of services for IP
applications including network traffic accounting, usage-based network billing,
network planning, security, denial of service monitoring capabilities, and
network monitoring. NetFlow provides valuable information about network
users and applications, peak usage times, and traffic routing.
20. Which statement describes statistical data in network security
monitoring processes?
▪ It is created through an analysis of other forms of network data.
▪ It contains conversations between network hosts.
▪ It shows the results of network activities between network hosts.
▪ It lists each alert message along with statistical information.
Explanation: Like session data, statistical data is about network traffic.
Statistical data is created through the analysis of other forms of network data.
21. Match the SIEM function with the description.
▪ links logs and events from disparate systems or applications, speeding

detection of and reaction to security threats : correlation
▪ satisfies the requirements of various compliance regulations :
▪ reduces the volume of event data by consolidating duplicate event
records : aggregation
▪ maps log messages from different systems into a common data
model : normalization
22. Which two tools have a GUI interface and can be used to view and
analyze full packet captures? (Choose two.)
▪ nfdump
▪ Wireshark
▪ Cisco Prime Network Analysis Module
▪ tcpdump
▪ Splunk
Explanation: The Network Analysis Module of the Cisco Prime Infrastructure
system and Wireshark have GUI interfaces and can display full packet
captures. The tcpdump tool is a command-line packet analyzer.
23. Which Windows log contains information about installations of
software, including Windows updates?
▪ system logs
▪ application logs
▪ setup logs
▪ security logs
Explanation: On a Windows host, setup logs record information about the
installation of software, including Windows updates.
24. Match the Windows host log to the messages contained in it. (Not all
options are used.)
▪ events logged by various applications : application logs

▪ events related to the web server access and activity :
▪ events related to the operation of drivers, processes, and
hardware : system logs
▪ information about the installation of software, including Windows
updates : setup logs
▪ events related to logon attempts and operations related to file or object
management and access : security logs
25. Which Cisco appliance can be used to filter network traffic contents to
report and deny traffic based on the web server reputation?
▪ WSA
▪ AVC
▪ ASA
▪ ESA
Explanation: The Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA) acts as a web proxy
for an enterprise network. WSA can provide many types of logs related to web
traffic security including ACL decision logs, malware scan logs, and web
reputation filtering logs. The Cisco Email Security Appliance (ESA) is a tool to
monitor most aspects of email delivery, system functioning, antivirus, antispam
operations, afnd blacklist and whitelist decisions. The Cisco ASA is a firewall
appliance. The Cisco Application Visibility and Control (AVC) system combines
multiple technologies to recognize, analyze, and control over 1000
applications.
26. Which technique would a threat actor use to disguise traces of an
ongoing exploit?
▪ Create an invisible iFrame on a web page.
▪ Corrupt time information by attacking the NTP infrastructure.
▪ Encapsulate other protocols within DNS to evade security measures.
▪ Use SSL to encapsulate malware.
Explanation: The Network Time Protocol (NTP) uses a hierarchy of time
sources to provide a consistent time clock to network infrastructure devices.
Threat actors may attack the NTP infrastructure in order to corrupt time
information that is used in network logs.
27. A system administrator runs a file scan utility on a Windows PC and
notices a file lsass.exe in the Program Files directory. What should the
administrator do?
▪ Delete the file because it is probably malware.
▪ Move it to Program Files (x86) because it is a 32bit application.
▪ Uninstall the lsass application because it is a legacy application and no
longer required by Windows.
▪ Open the Task Manager, right-click on the lsass process and choose
End Task .
Explanation: On Windows computers, security logging and security policies
enforcement are carried out by the Local Security Authority Subsystem
Service (LSASS), running as lsass.exe. It should be running from the
Windows\System32 directory. If a file with this name, or a camouflaged name,
such as 1sass.exe, is running or running from another directory, it could be
malware.
28. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is viewing some output on
the Netflow collector. What can be determined from the output of the traffic
flow shown?
▪ This is a UDP DNS request to a DNS server.

▪ This is a UDP DNS response to a client machine.
▪ This is a TCP DNS request to a DNS server.
▪ This is a TCP DNS response to a client machine.
Explanation: The traffic flow shown has a source port of 53 and a destination
port of 1025. Port 53 is used for DNS and because the source port is 53, this
traffic is responding to a client machine from a DNS server. The IP
PROTOCOL is 17 and specifies that UDP is being used and the TCP flag is
set to 0.
29 In a Cisco AVC system, in which module is NetFlow deployed?
▪ Management and Reporting
▪ Control
▪ Application Recognition
▪ Metrics Collection
Explanation: NetFlow technology is deployed in the Metrics Collection module
of a Cisco AVC system to collect network flow metrics and to export to
management tools.
30. What does it indicate if the timestamp in the HEADER section of a syslog
message is preceded by a period or asterisk symbol?
▪ There is a problem associated with NTP.
▪ The timestamp represents the round trip duration value.
▪ The syslog message should be treated with high priority.
▪ The syslog message indicates the time an email is received.
1. Match the intrusion event defined in the Diamond Model of intrusion to
the description.
▪ network path used to establish and maintain command and

control : infrastructure
▪ a tool or technique used to attack the victim : capability
▪ the parties responsible for the intrusion : adversary
▪ the target of the attack : victim
2. What two shared sources of information are included within the MITRE
ATT&CK framework? (Choose two.)
▪ collection of digital evidence from most volatile evidence to least volatile
▪ attacker tactics, techniques, and procedures
▪ details about the handling of evidence including times, places, and
personnel involved
▪ eyewitness evidence from someone who directly observed criminal
behavior
▪ mapping the steps in an attack to a matrix of generalized tactics
Explanation: The MITRE Framework uses stored information on attacker
tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTP) as part of threat defense and attack
attribution. This is done by mapping the steps in an attack to a matrix of
generalized tactics and describing the techniques that are used in each tactic.
These sources of information create models that assist in the ability to attribute
a threat.
3. What information is gathered by the CSIRT when determining the scope
of a security incident?
▪ the networks, systems, and applications affected by an incident
▪ the amount of time and resources needed to handle an incident
▪ the strategies and procedures used for incident containment
▪ the processes used to preserve evidence
Explanation: The scoping activity performed by the CSIRT after an incident
determines which networks, systems, or applications are affected; who or what
originated the incident; and how the incident is occurring.
4. According to NIST standards, which incident response stakeholder is
responsible for coordinating an incident response with other stakeholders
to minimize the damage of an incident?
▪ human resources
▪ legal department
▪ management
▪ IT support
Explanation: The management team creates the policies, designs the budget,
and is in charge of staffing all departments. Management is also responsible
for coordinating the incident response with other stakeholders and minimizing
the damage of an incident.
5. According to NIST, which step in the digital forensics process involves
drawing conclusions from data?
▪ reporting
▪ collection
▪ examination
▪ analysis
Explanation: NIST describes the digital forensics process as involving the
following four steps:
Collection – the identification of potential sources of forensic data and
acquisition, handling, and storage of that data.
Examination – assessing and extracting relevant information from the collected
data. This may involve decompression or decryption of the data.
Analysis – drawing conclusions from the data. Salient features, such as
people, places, times, events, and so on should be documented.
Reporting – preparing and presenting information that resulted from the
analysis. Reporting should be impartial and alternative explanations should be
offered if appropriate.
6. A cybersecurity analyst has been called to a crime scene that contains
several technology items including a computer. Which technique will be
used so that the information found on the computer can be used in court?
▪ Tor
▪ rootkit
▪ unaltered disk image
▪ log collection
Explanation: A normal file copy does not recover all data on a storage device
so an unaltered disk image is commonly made. An unaltered disk image
preserves the original evidence, thus preventing inadvertent alteration during
the discovery phase. It also allows recreation of the original evidence.
7. In which phase of the NIST incident response life cycle is evidence
gathered that can assist subsequent investigations by authorities?
▪ postincident activities
▪ detection and analysis
▪ preparation
▪ containment, eradication, and recovery
Explanation: NIST defines four phases in the incident response process life
cycle. It is in the containment, eradication, and recovery phase that evidence is
gathered to resolve an incident and to help with subsequent investigations.
8. When dealing with security threats and using the Cyber Kill Chain model,
which two approaches can an organization use to block a potential back
door creation? (Choose two.)
▪ Audit endpoints to discover abnormal file creations.
▪ Establish an incident response playbook.
▪ Consolidate the number of Internet points of presence.
▪ Conduct damage assessment.
▪ Use HIPS to alert or place a block on common installation paths.
Explanation: In the installation phase of the Cyber Kill Chain, the threat actor
establishes a back door into the system to allow for continued access to the
target. Among other measures, using HIPS to alert or block on common
installation paths and auditing endpoints to discover abnormal file creations
can help block a potential back door creation.
9. What is defined in the SOP of a computer security incident response
capability (CSIRC)?
▪ the details on how an incident is handled
▪ the procedures that are followed during an incident response
▪ the metrics for measuring incident response capabilities
▪ the roadmap for increasing incident response capabilities
Explanation: A CSIRC will include standard operating procedures (SOPs) that
are followed during an incident response. Procedures include following
technical processes, filling out forms, and following checklists.
10. How does an application program interact with the operating system?
▪ sending files
▪ accessing BIOS or UEFI
▪ making API calls
▪ using processes
Explanation: Application programs interact with an operating system through
system calls to the OS application programming interface (API). These system
calls allow access to many aspects of system operation such as software
process control, file management, device management, and network access.
11. Which tool included in the Security Onion provides a visual interface to
NSM data?
▪ Curator
▪ Beats
▪ Squert
▪ OSSEC
Explanation: Dashboards provide a combination of data and visualizations
designed to improve the access of individuals to large amounts of information.
Kibana includes the capability of designing custom dashboards. In addition,
other tools that are included in Security Onion, such as Squert, provide a
visual interface to NSM data.
12. Which tool included in the Security Onion includes the capability of
designing custom dashboards?
▪ Sguil
▪ Kibana
▪ Squert
▪ OSSEC
Explanation: Dashboards are usually interactive and provide a combination of
data and visualizations designed to improve the access of individuals to large
amounts of information. Kibana includes the capability of designing custom
dashboards.
13. How is the hash value of files useful in network security investigations?
▪ It is used to decode files.
▪ It helps identify malware signatures.
▪ It verifies confidentiality of files.
▪ It is used as a key for encryption.
Explanation: When ELSA is used to investigate downloaded files, the hash
value of each file is created and stored with other information about the file. If
a cybersecurity analyst is suspicious of the file, the hash value can be
submitted to an online malware repository site to determine if the file is known
malware.
14. Which technology is a major standard consisting of a pattern of symbols
that describe data to be matched in a query?
▪ OSSEC
▪ POSIX
▪ Squert
▪ Sguil
Explanation: A regular expression (regex) is a pattern of symbols that
describe data to be matched in a query or other operation. Regular
expressions are constructed similarly to arithmetic expressions, by using
various operators to combine smaller expressions. There are two major
standards of regular expression, POSIX and Perl.
15. Which tool is a Security Onion integrated host-based intrusion detection
system?
▪ Snort
▪ OSSEC
▪ ELK
▪ Sguil
Explanation: OSSEC is a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) that is
integrated into Security Onion and actively monitors host system operation.
16. Which term is used to describe the process of converting log entries into
a common format?
▪ classification
▪ systemization
▪ normalization
▪ standardization
Explanation: For processing log entries, data normalization can organize and
convert data values in datasets from difference sources into common format.
The normalization makes it easy for further data analysis and reporting.
17. What is the purpose for data normalization?
▪ to simplify searching for correlated events
▪ to reduce the amount of alert data
▪ to enhance the secure transmission of alert data
▪ to make the alert data transmission fast
Explanation: With data normalization various sources of data are combined
into a common display format, which simplifies the searching for similar or
relevant events.
18. Which personnel in a SOC is assigned the task of verifying whether an
alert triggered by monitoring software represents a true security incident?
▪ SOC Manager
Explanation: In a SOC, the job of a Tier 1 Alert Analyst includes monitoring
incoming alerts and verifying that a true security incident has occurred.
19. Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst is reviewing an alert message
generated by Snort. What does the number 2100498 in the message
indicate?
▪ the id of the user that triggers the alert

▪ the message length in bits
▪ the Snort rule that is triggered
▪ the session number of the message
Explanation: The sid field in a Snort alert message indicates the Snort security
rule that is triggered.
20. What are security event logs commonly based on when sourced by
traditional firewalls?
▪ static filtering
▪ application analysis
▪ signatures
▪ 5-tuples
Explanation: Traditional firewalls commonly provide security event logs based
on the 5-tuples of source IP address and port number, destination IP address
and port number, and the protocol in use.
21. A threat actor has successfully breached the network firewall without
being detected by the IDS system. What condition describes the lack of
alert?
▪ false negative
▪ true negative
▪ true positive
▪ false positive
Explanation: A false negative is where no alert exists and exploits are not
being detected by the security systems that are in place.
22. What information is contained in the options section of a Snort rule?
▪ direction of traffic flow
▪ text describing the event
▪ action to be taken
▪ source and destination address
Explanation: Snort rules consist of two sections, the rules header and the rule
options. The rule options section of a snort rule consists of the messages text
displayed to describe an alert as well as metadata about the alert.
23. A network administrator is trying to download a valid file from an
internal server. However, the process triggers an alert on a NMS tool. What
condition describes this alert?
▪ false negative
▪ false positive
▪ true negative
▪ true positive
Explanation: Alerts can be classified as follows:
True Positive: The alert has been verified to be an actual security incident.
False Positive: The alert does not indicate an actual security incident. Benign
activity that results in a false positive is sometimes referred to as a benign
trigger.
An alternative situation is that an alert was not generated. The absence of an
alert can be classified as:
True Negative: No security incident has occurred. The activity is benign.
False Negative: An undetected incident has occurred.
24. What is indicated by a Snort signature ID that is below 3464?
▪ The SID was created by Sourcefire and distributed under a GPL
agreement.
▪ This is a custom signature developed by the organization to address
locally observed rules.
▪ The SID was created by the Snort community and is maintained in
Community Rules.
▪ The SID was created by members of EmergingThreats.
Explanation: Snort is an open source network intrusion prevention system
(NIPS) and network intrusion detection system (NIDS) developed by
Sourcefire. It has the ability to perform real time traffic analysis and packet
logging on Internet Protocol (IP) networks and can also be used to detect
probes or attacks.
25. After a security monitoring tool identifies a malware attachment
entering the network, what is the benefit of performing a retrospective
analysis?
▪ A retrospective analysis can help in tracking the behavior of the
malware from the identification point forward.
▪ It can identify how the malware originally entered the network.
▪ It can calculate the probability of a future incident.
▪ It can determine which network host was first affected.
Explanation: General security monitoring can identify when a malware
attachment enters a network and which host is first infected. Retrospective
analysis takes the next step and is the tracking of the behavior of the malware
from that point forward.
26. A threat actor collects information from web servers of an organization
and searches for employee contact information. The information collected
is further used to search personal information on the Internet. To which
attack phase do these activities belong according to the Cyber Kill Chain
model?
▪ action on objectives
▪ exploitation
▪ reconnaissance
▪ weaponization
Explanation: According to the Cyber Kill Chain model, in the reconnaissance
phase the threat actor performs research, gathers intelligence, and selects
targets.
27. Which HIDS is integrated into the Security Onion and uses rules to
detect changes in host-based operating parameters caused by malware
through system calls?
▪ OSSEC
▪ Bro
▪ Snort
▪ Suricata
Explanation: OSSEC is a HIDS integrated into the Security Onion and uses
rules to detect changes in host-based parameters like the execution of
software processes, changes in user privileges, registry modifications, among
many others. OSSEC rules will trigger events that occurred on the host,
including indicators that malware may have interacted with the OS kernel. Bro,
Snort, and Suricata are examples of NIDS systems.
28. Which type of events should be assigned to categories in Sguil?
▪ false positive
▪ true positive
▪ false negative
▪ true negative
Explanation: Sguil includes seven pre-built categories that can be assigned to
events that have been identified as true positives.
29. A cybersecurity analyst is going to verify security alerts using the
Security Onion. Which tool should the analyst visit first?
▪ Bro
▪ Sguil
▪ CapME
▪ ELK
Explanation: The primary duty of a cybersecurity analyst is the verification of
security alerts. In the Security Onion, the first place that a cybersecurity
analyst will go to verify alerts is Sguil because it provides a high-level console
for investigating security alerts from a wide variety of sources.
30. Refer to the exhibit. Which field in the Sguil application window
indicates the priority of an event or set of correlated events?
▪ ST
▪ AlertID
▪ Pr
▪ CNT
Explanation: The Sguil application window has several fields available that
give information about an event. The ST field gives the status of an event that
includes a color-coded priority from light yellow to red to indicate four levels of
priority.
31. Match the Snort rule source to the description.
32. What is the purpose for data reduction as it relates to NSM?

▪ to make the alert data transmission fast
▪ to remove recurring data streams
▪ to enhance the secure transmission of alert data
▪ to diminish the quantity of NSM data to be handled
Explanation: The amount of network traffic that is collected by packet captures
and the number of log file entries and alerts that are generated by network and
security devices can be enormous. For this reason, it is important to identify
the NSM-related data that should be gathered. This process is called data
reduction.
33. Why would threat actors prefer to use a zero-day attack in the Cyber Kill
Chain weaponization phase?
▪ to avoid detection by the target
▪ to launch a DoS attack toward the target
▪ to get a free malware package
▪ to gain faster delivery of the attack on the target
Explanation: When a threat actor prepares a weapon for an attack, the threat
actor chooses an automated tool (weaponizer) that can be deployed through
discovered vulnerabilities. Malware that will carry desired attacks is then built
into the tool as the payload. The weapon (tool plus malware payload) will be
delivered to the target system. By using a zero-day weaponizer, the threat
actor hopes that the weapon will not be detected because it is unknown to
security professionals and detection methods are not yet developed.
34. What is the objective the threat actor in establishing a two-way
communication channel between the target system and a CnC
infrastructure?
▪ to allow the threat actor to issue commands to the software that is
installed on the target
▪ to send user data stored on the target to the threat actor
▪ to steal network bandwidth from the network where the target is located
▪ to launch a buffer overflow attack
Explanation: In the command and control phase of the Cyber Kill Chain, the
threat actor establishes command and control (CnC) with the target system.
With the two-way communication channel, the threat actor is able to issue
commands to the malware software installed on the target.
35. Which meta-feature element in the Diamond Model describes
information gained by the adversary?
▪ methodology
▪ resources
▪ results
▪ direction
Explanation: The meta-feature element results are used to delineate what the
adversary gained from the intrusion event.
36. In which step of the NIST incident response process does the CSIRT
perform an analysis to determine which networks, systems, or applications
are affected; who or what originated the incident; and how the incident is
occurring?
▪ incident notification
▪ attacker identification
▪ scoping
▪ detection
Explanation: In the detection and analysis phase of the NIST incident
response process life cycle, the CSIRT should immediately perform an initial
analysis to determine the scope of the incident, such as which networks,
systems, or applications are affected; who or what originated the incident; and
how the incident is occurring.
37. Which classification indicates that an alert is verified as an actual
security incident?
▪ false negative
▪ true positive
▪ false positive
▪ true negative
Explanation:
Alerts can be classified as follows:
True Positive: The alert has been verified to be an actual security incident.
trigger.
An alternative situation is that an alert was not generated. The absence of an
alert can be classified as follows:
1. What are two problems that can be caused by a large number of ARP
request and reply messages? (Choose two.)
▪ All ARP request messages must be processed by all nodes on the local
network.
▪ A large number of ARP request and reply messages may slow down the
switching process, leading the switch to make many changes in its
MAC table.
▪ The network may become overloaded because ARP reply messages
have a very large payload due to the 48-bit MAC address and 32-bit
IP address that they contain.
▪ The ARP request is sent as a broadcast, and will flood the entire
subnet.
▪ Switches become overloaded because they concentrate all the traffic
from the attached subnets.
Explanation: ARP requests are sent as broadcasts:
(1) All nodes will receive them, and they will be processed by software,
interrupting the CPU.
(2) The switch forwards (floods) Layer 2 broadcasts to all ports.
A switch does not change its MAC table based on ARP request or reply
messages. The switch populates the MAC table using the source MAC
address of all frames. The ARP payload is very small and does not overload
the switch.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Which field in the Sguil application window indicates
the priority of an event or set of correlated events?
▪ ST
▪ AlertID
▪ Pr
▪ CNT
Explanation: The Sguil application window has several fields available that
give information about an event. The ST field gives the status of an event that
includes a color-coded priority from light yellow to red to indicate four levels of
priority.
3. Match the job titles to SOC personnel positions. (Not all options are used.)
▪ Tier 1 Alert Analyst —> monitors incoming alerts & verifies that a true
incident has occured
▪ Tier 2 Incident Responder –> involved in deep investigation of incident
▪ Tier 3 Subject Matter Expert –> involved in hunting for potential threads
& implements thread detection tools
▪ (not use) –> serve as the point of contact for the large organitazion
4. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the
impact on communications?
▪ The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
▪ The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but
is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
▪ The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is
unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
▪ There is no impact on communications.
Explanation: A default gateway is only required to communicate with devices
onanother network. The absence of a default gateway does not affect
connectivity between devices on the same local network
5. When a connectionless protocol is in use at a lower layer of the OSI
model, how is missing data detected and retransmitted if necessary?
▪ Connectionless acknowledgements are used to request retransmission.
▪ Upper-layer connection-oriented protocols keep track of the data
received and can request retransmission from the upper-level
protocols on the sending host.
▪ Network layer IP protocols manage the communication sessions if
connection-oriented transport services are not available.
▪ The best-effort delivery process guarantees that all packets that are sent
are received.
Explanation: When connectionless protocols are in use at a lower layer of the
OSI model, upper-level protocols may need to work together on the sending
and receiving hosts to account for and retransmit lost data. In some cases, this
is not necessary, because for some applications a certain amount of data loss
is tolerable.
6. What is the prefix length notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?
▪ /25
▪ /26
▪ /27
▪ /28
Explanation: The binary format for 255.255.255.224 is
11111111.11111111.11111111.11100000. The prefix length is the number of
consecutive 1s in the subnet mask. Therefore, the prefix length is /27.
7. Which network monitoring tool saves captured network frames in PCAP
files?
▪ NetFlow
▪ Wireshark
▪ SNMP
▪ SIEM
Explanation: Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer used to capture
network traffic. The traffic captured by Wireshark is saved in PCAP files and
includes interface information and timestamps.
8. What is the TCP mechanism used in congestion avoidance?
▪ three-way handshake
▪ socket pair
▪ two-way handshake
▪ sliding window
Explanation: TCP uses windows to attempt to manage the rate of
transmission to the maximum flow that the network and destination device can
support while minimizing loss and retransmissions. When overwhelmed with
data, the destination can send a request to reduce the of the window. This
congestion avoidance is called sliding windows.
9. What is the Internet?
▪ It is a network based on Ethernet technology.
▪ It provides network access for mobile devices.
▪ It provides connections through interconnected global networks.
▪ It is a private network for an organization with LAN and WAN
connections.
Explanation: The Internet provides global connections that enable networked
devices (workstations and mobile devices) with different network technologies,
such as Ethernet, DSL/cable, and serial connections, to communicate. A
private network for an organization with LAN and WAN connections is an
intranet.
10. Which protocol is used by the traceroute command to send and receive
echo-requests and echo-replies?
▪ SNMP
▪ ICMP
▪ Telnet
▪ TCP
Explanation: Traceroute uses the ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)
to send and receive echo-request and echo-reply messages.
11. What are two ICMPv6 messages that are not present in ICMP for IPv4?
(Choose two.)
▪ Neighbor Solicitation
▪ Destination Unreachable
▪ Host Confirmation
▪ Time Exceeded
▪ Router Advertisement
▪ Route Redirection
Explanation: ICMPv6 includes four new message types: Router
Advertisement, Neighbor Advertisement, Router Solicitation, and Neighbor
Solicitation.
12. Match the network security testing technique with how it is used to test
network security. (Not all options are used.)
Explanation: Network scanning tools are used to probe network devices,

servers and hosts for open TCP or UDP ports. Vulnerability scanning tools are
used to discover security weaknesses in a network or computer system.
Penetration testing tools are used to determine the possible outcome of a
successful attack on a network or computer system.
13. What are two monitoring tools that capture network traffic and forward
it to network monitoring devices? (Choose two.)
▪ SPAN
▪ network tap
▪ SNMP
▪ SIEM
▪ Wireshark
Explanation: A network tap is used to capture traffic for monitoring the
network. The tap is typically a passive splitting device implemented inline on
the network and forwards all traffic including physical layer errors to an
analysis device. SPAN is a port mirroring technology supported on Cisco
switches that enables the switch to copy frames and forward them to an
analysis device.
14. Which network monitoring tool is in the category of network protocol
analyzers?
▪ SNMP
▪ SPAN
▪ Wireshark
▪ SIEM
Explanation: Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer used to capture
network traffic. The traffic captured by Wireshark is saved in PCAP files and
includes interface information and timestamps.
15. Based on the command output shown, which file permission or
permissions have been assigned to the other user group for the data.txt file?
ls –l data.txt
-rwxrw-r-- sales staff 1028 May 28 15:50 data.txt
▪ fullaccess
▪ read, write
▪ read
Explanation: The file permissions are always displayed in the user, group and
other order. In the example displayed, the file has the following permissions:
The dash ( – ) means that this is a file. For directories, the first dash would be
The first set of characters is for user permission (rwx). The user, sales, who
owns the file can read, write and execute the file.
16. What are three benefits of using symbolic links over hard links in Linux?
(Choose three.)
▪ They can link to a directory.
▪ They can be compressed.
▪ Symbolic links can be exported.
▪ They can be encrypted.
▪ They can link to a file in a different file system.
▪ They can show the location of the original file.
Explanation: In Linux, a hard link is another file that points to the same
location as the original file. A soft link (also called a symbolic link or a symlink)
is a link to another file system name. Hard links are limited to the file system in
which they are created and they cannot link to a directory; soft links are not
limited to the same file system and they can link to a directory. To see the
location of the original file for a symbolic link use the ls –l command.
17. A network security specialist is tasked to implement a security measure
that monitors the status of critical files in the data center and sends an
immediate alert if any file is modified. Which aspect of secure
communications is addressed by this security measure?
▪ origin authentication
▪ data integrity
▪ nonrepudiation
▪ data confidentiality
Explanation: Secure communications consists of four elements:
Data confidentiality – guarantees that only authorized users can read the
message
Data integrity – guarantees that the message was not altered
Origin authentication – guarantees that the message is not a forgery and does
actually come from whom it states
Data nonrepudiation – guarantees that the sender cannot repudiate, or refute,
the validity of a message sent
18. A network administrator is configuring an AAA server to manage
TACACS+ authentication. What are two attributes of TACACS+
authentication? (Choose two.)
▪ TCP port 40
▪ encryption for all communication
▪ single process for authentication and authorization
▪ UDP port 1645
▪ encryption for only the password of a user
▪ separate processes for authentication and authorization
Explanation: TACACS+ authentication includes the following attributes:
Separates authentication and authorization processes
Encrypts all communication, not just passwords
Utilizes TCP port 49
19. In an attempt to prevent network attacks, cyber analysts share unique
identifiable attributes of known attacks with colleagues. What three types
of attributes or indicators of compromise are helpful to share? (Choose
three.)
▪ IP addresses of attack servers
▪ changes made to end system software
▪ netbios names of compromised firewalls
▪ features of malware files
▪ BIOS of attacking systems
▪ system ID of compromised systems
Explanation: Many network attacks can be prevented by sharing information
about indicators of compromise (IOC). Each attack has unique identifiable
attributes. Indicators of compromise are the evidence that an attack has
occurred. IOCs can be identifying features of malware files, IP addresses of
servers that are used in the attack, filenames, and characteristic changes
made to end system software.
20. Which two types of messages are used in place of ARP for address
resolution in IPv6? (Choose two.)
▪ anycast
▪ broadcast
▪ echo reply
▪ echo request
▪ neighbor advertisement
Explanation: IPv6 does not use ARP. Instead, ICMPv6 neighbor discovery is
used by sending neighbor solicitation and neighbor advertisement messages.
21. What is indicated by a true negative security alert classification?
▪ An alert is verified to be an actual security incident.
▪ An alert is incorrectly issued and does not indicate an actual security
incident.
▪ Normal traffic is correctly ignored and erroneous alerts are not being
issued.
▪ Exploits are not being detected by the security systems that are in place.
Explanation: True negative classifications are desirable because they indicate
that normal traffic is correctly not being identified as malicious traffic by
security measures.
22. Which statement describes the anomaly-based intrusion detection
approach?
▪ It compares the antivirus definition file to a cloud based repository for
latest updates.
▪ It compares the behavior of a host to an established baseline to
identify potential intrusions.
▪ It compares the signatures of incoming traffic to a known intrusion
database.
▪ It compares the operations of a host against a well-defined security
policy.
Explanation: With an anomaly-based intrusion detection approach, a baseline
of host behaviors is established first. The host behavior is checked against the
baseline to detect significant deviations, which might indicate potential
intrusions.
23. Match the description to the antimalware approach. (Not all options are
used.)
Explanation: Antimalware programs may detect viruses using three different

approaches:
▪ signature-based – by recognizing various characteristics of known
malware files
▪ heuristics-based – by recognizing general features shared by various
types of malware
▪ behavior-based – through analysis of suspicious activities
24. Which two protocols are associated with the transport layer? (Choose
two.)
▪ ICMP
▪ IP
▪ UDP
▪ PPP
▪ TCP
Explanation: TCP and UDP reside at the transport layer in both the OSI and
TCP/IP models.
25. A network administrator is creating a network profile to generate a
network baseline. What is included in the critical asset address space
element?
▪ the time between the establishment of a data flow and its termination
▪ the TCP and UDP daemons and ports that are allowed to be open on
the server
▪ the IP addresses or the logical location of essential systems or data
▪ the list of TCP or UDP processes that are available to accept data
Explanation: A network profile should include some important elements, such
as the following:
Total throughput – the amount of data passing from a given source to a given
destination in a given period of time
Session duratio n – the time between the establishment of a data flow and its
termination
Ports used – a list of TCP or UDP processes that are available to accept data
Critical asset address space – the IP addresses or the logical location of
26. What are the three impact metrics contained in the CVSS 3.0 Base Metric
Group? (Choose three.)
▪ confidentiality
▪ remediation level
▪ integrity
▪ attack vector
▪ exploit
▪ availability
Explanation:
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is a vendor-neutral,
industry standard, open framework for weighing the risks of a vulnerability
using a variety of metrics. CVSS uses three groups of metrics to assess
vulnerability, the Base Metric Group, Temporal Metric Group, and
Environmental Metric Group. The Base Metric Group has two classes of
metrics (exploitability and impact). The impact metrics are rooted in the
following areas: confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
27. What is a characteristic of DNS?
▪ DNS servers can cache recent queries to reduce DNS query traffic.
▪ All DNS servers must maintain mappings for the entire DNS structure.
▪ DNS servers are programmed to drop requests for name translations
that are not within their zone.
▪ DNS relies on a hub-and-spoke topology with centralized servers.
Explanation: DNS uses a hierarchy for decentralized servers to perform name
resolution. DNS servers only maintain records for their zone and can cache
recent queries so that future queries do not produce excessive DNS traffic.
28. What are two differences between HTTP and HTTP/2? (Choose two.)
▪ HTTP/2 uses a compressed header to reduce bandwidth
requirements.
▪ HTTP/2 uses multiplexing to support multiple streams and enhance
efficiency.
▪ HTTP/2 uses different status codes than HTTP does to improve
performance.
▪ HTTP/2 issues requests using a text format whereas HTTP uses binary
commands.
▪ HTTP has a different header format than HTTP/2 has.
Explanation: The purpose of HTTP/2 is to improve HTTP performance by
addressing the latency issues of HTTP. This is accomplished using features
such as multiplexing, server push, binary code, and header compression.
29. Match the steps with the actions that are involved when an internal host
with IP address 192.168.10.10 attempts to send a packet to an external
server at the IP address 209.165.200.254 across a router R1 that is running
dynamic NAT. (Not all options are used.)
Explanation: The translation of the IP addresses from 209.65.200.254 to

192.168.10.10 will take place when the reply comes back from the server.
30. A router has received a packet destined for a network that is in the
routing table. What steps does the router perform to send this packet on its
way? Match the step to the task performed by the router.
31. What are two shared characteristics of the IDS and the IPS? (Choose
two.)
▪ Both have minimal impact on network performance.
▪ Both are deployed as sensors.
▪ Both analyze copies of network traffic.
▪ Both use signatures to detect malicious traffic.
▪ Both rely on an additional network device to respond to malicious traffic.
Explanation: Both the IDS and the IPS are deployed as sensors and use
signatures to detect malicious traffic. The IDS analyzes copies of network
traffic, which results in minimal impact on network performance. The IDS also
relies on an IPS to stop malicious traffic.
32. Which statement describes a typical security policy for a DMZ firewall
configuration?
▪ Traffic that originates from the DMZ interface is selectively permitted
to the outside interface.
▪ Return traffic from the inside that is associated with traffic originating
from the outside is permitted to traverse from the inside interface to
the outside interface.
▪ Return traffic from the outside that is associated with traffic originating
from the inside is permitted to traverse from the outside interface to
the DMZ interface.
▪ Traffic that originates from the inside interface is generally blocked
entirely or very selectively permitted to the outside interface.
▪ Traffic that originates from the outside interface is permitted to traverse
the firewall to the inside interface with few or no restrictions.
Explanation:
With a three interface firewall design that has internal, external, and DMZ
connections, typical configurations include the following:
Traffic originating from DMZ destined for the internal network is normally
blocked.
Traffic originating from the DMZ destined for external networks is typically
permitted based on what services are being used in the DMZ.
Traffic originating from the internal network destined from the DMZ is normally
inspected and allowed to return.
Traffic originating from external networks (the public network) is typically
allowed in the DMZ only for specific services.
33. After complaints from users, a technician identifies that the college web
server is running very slowly. A check of the server reveals that there are an
unusually large number of TCP requests coming from multiple locations on
the Internet. What is the source of the problem?
▪ The server is infected with a virus.
▪ A DDoS attack is in progress.
▪ There is insufficient bandwidth to connect to the server.
▪ There is a replay attack in progress.
Explanation: The source of the problem cannot be a virus because in this
situation the server is passive and at the receiving end of the attack. A replay
attack uses intercepted and recorded data in an attempt to gain access to an
unauthorized server. This type of attack does not involve multiple computers.
The issue is not the bandwidth available, but the number of TCP connections
taking place. Receiving a large number of connections from multiple locations
is the main symptom of a distributed denial of service attack which use botnets
or zombie computers.
34. Which two statements describe access attacks? (Choose two.)
▪ Password attacks can be implemented by the use of brute-force attack
methods, Trojan horses, or packet sniffers.
▪ To detect listening services, port scanning attacks scan a range of TCP
or UDP port numbers on a host.
▪ Port redirection attacks use a network adapter card in promiscuous
mode to capture all network packets that are sent across a LAN.
▪ Trust exploitation attacks often involve the use of a laptop to act as a
rogue access point to capture and copy all network traffic in a public
location, such as a wireless hotspot.
▪ Buffer overflow attacks write data beyond the allocated buffer
memory to overwrite valid data or to exploit systems to execute
malicious code.
Explanation: An access attack tries to gain access to a resource using a
hijacked account or other means. The five types of access attacks include the
following:
password – a dictionary is used for repeated login attempts
trust exploitation – uses granted privileges to access unauthorized material
port redirection – uses a compromised internal host to pass traffic through a
firewall
man-in-the-middle – an unauthorized device positioned between two legitimate
devices in order to redirect or capture traffic
buffer overflow – too much data sent to a memory location that already
contains data
35. Which two actions can be taken when configuring Windows Firewall?
(Choose two.)
▪ Turn on port screening.
▪ Manually open ports that are required for specific applications.
▪ Allow a different software firewall to control access.
▪ Enable MAC address authentication.
▪ Perform a rollback.
Explanation: When a different software firewall is installed, Windows Firewall
must be disabled through the Windows Firewall control panel. When Windows
Firewall is enabled, specific ports can be enabled that are needed by specific
applications.
36. Which statement describes the state of the administrator and guest
accounts after a user installs Windows desktop version to a new computer?
▪ By default, the guest account is enabled but the administrator account is
disabled.
▪ By default, both the administrator and guest accounts are enabled.
▪ By default, both the administrator and guest accounts are disabled.
▪ By default, the administrator account is enabled but the guest account is
disabled.
Explanation: When a user installs Windows desktop version, two local user
accounts are created automatically during the process, administrator and
guest. Both accounts are disabled by default.
37. What is a purpose of entering the nslookup cisco.com command on a
Windows PC?
▪ to check if the DNS service is running
▪ to connect to the Cisco server
▪ to test if the Cisco server is reachable
▪ to discover the transmission time needed to reach the Cisco server
Explanation: The nslookup command queries DNS servers to find out the IP
address or addresses associated with the domain name cisco.com. A
successful result indicates that the DNS configuration on the PC is functional,
and also indicates the IP address for the domain name being displayed. The
command does not try connect to the actual Cisco host directly.
38. How is the event ID assigned in Sguil?
▪ All events in the series of correlated events are assigned the same
event ID.
▪ Only the first event in the series of correlated events is assigned a
unique ID.
▪ Allevents in the series of correlated events are assigned the same
event group ID.
▪ Each event in the series of correlated events is assigned a unique ID.
Explanation: In Sguil, each event receives a unique event ID, but only the first
event ID in the series of correlated events is displayed in the RealTime tab.
39. Which two types of network traffic are from protocols that generate a
lot of routine traffic? (Choose two.)
▪ routing updates traffic
▪ Windows security auditing alert traffic
▪ IPsec traffic
▪ STP traffic
▪ SSL traffic
Explanation: To reduce the huge amount of data collected so that
cybersecurity analysts can focus on critical threats, some less important or
less relevant data could be eliminated from the datasets. For example, routing
network management traffic, such as routing updates and STP traffic, could be
eliminated.
40. What are two elements that form the PRI value in a syslog message?
(Choose two.)
▪ facility
▪ timestamp
▪ severity
▪ header
▪ hostname
Explanation: The PRI in a syslog message consists of two elements, the
facility and severity of the message.
41. Which three pieces of information are found in session data? (Choose
three.)
▪ default gateway IP address
▪ source and destination port numbers
▪ Layer 4 transport protocol
▪ source and destination MAC addresses
▪ user name
▪ source and destination IP addresses
Explanation: Session data includes identifying information such as source and
destination IP addresses, source and destination port numbers, and the Layer
4 protocol in use. Session data does not include user name, source and
destination MAC addresses, and a default gateway IP address.
42. What kind of ICMP message can be used by threat actors to perform
network reconnaissance and scanning attacks?
▪ ICMP mask reply
▪ ICMP router discovery
▪ ICMP unreachable
▪ ICMP redirects
Explanation: Common ICMP messages of interest to threat actors include the
these:
ICMP echo request and echo reply: used to perform host verification and DoS
attacks
ICMP unreachable: used to perform network reconnaissance and scanning
attacks
ICMP mask reply: used to map an internal IP network
ICMP redirects: used to lure a target host into sending all traffic through a
compromised device and create a man-in-the-middle attack
ICMP router discovery: used to inject bogus route entries into the routing table
of a target host
43. A flood of packets with invalid source IP addresses requests a
connection on the network. The server busily tries to respond, resulting in
valid requests being ignored. What type of attack has occurred?
▪ TCP session hijacking
▪ TCP SYN flood
▪ TCP reset
▪ UDP flood
Explanation: The TCP SYN Flood attack exploits the TCP three-way
handshake. The threat actor continually sends TCP SYN session request
packets with a randomly spoofed source IP address to an intended target. The
target device replies with a TCP SYN-ACK packet to the spoofed IP address
and waits for a TCP ACK packet. Those responses never arrive. Eventually
the target host is overwhelmed with half-open TCP connections and denies
TCP services.
44. An attacker is redirecting traffic to a false default gateway in an attempt
to intercept the data traffic of a switched network. What type of attack could
achieve this?
▪ DNS tunneling
▪ TCP SYN flood
▪ DHCP spoofing
▪ ARP cache poisoning
Explanation: In DHCP spoofing attacks, a threat actor configures a fake
DHCP server on the network to issue DHCP addresses to clients with the aim
of forcing the clients to use a false or invalid default gateway. A man-in-the-
middle attack can be created by setting the default gateway address to the IP
address of the threat actor.
45. What is the most common goal of search engine optimization (SEO)
poisoning?
▪ to increase web traffic to malicious sites
▪ to build a botnet of zombies
▪ to trick someone into installing malware or divulging personal
information
▪ to overwhelm a network device with maliciously formed packets
Explanation: A malicious user could create a SEO so that a malicious website
appears higher in search results. The malicious website commonly contains
malware or is used to obtain information via social engineering techniques.
46. Users report that a database file on the main server cannot be accessed.
A database administrator verifies the issue and notices that the database
file is now encrypted. The organization receives a threatening email
demanding payment for the decryption of the database file. What type of
attack has the organization experienced?
▪ man-in-the-middle attack
▪ DoS attack
▪ ransomware
▪ Trojan horse
Explanation: A cybersecurity specialist needs to be familiar with the
characteristics of the different types of malware and attacks that threaten an
organization.
47. What two kinds of personal information can be sold on the dark web by
cybercriminals? (Choose two.)
▪ city of residence
▪ Facebook photos
▪ name of a bank
▪ name of a pet
▪ street address
Explanation: Personally identifiable information (PII) is any information that
can be used to positively identify an individual. Examples of PII include the
following:
Name
Social security number
Birthdate
Credit card numbers
Bank account numbers
Facebook information
Address information (street, email, phone numbers).
48. What three services are offered by FireEye? (Choose three.)
▪ blocks attacks across the web
▪ creates firewall rules dynamically
▪ identifies and stops latent malware on files
▪ subjects all traffic to deep packet inspection analysis
▪ deploys incident detection rule sets to network security tools
▪ identifies and stops email threat vectors
Explanation: FireEye is a security company that uses a three-pronged
approach combining security intelligence, security expertise, and technology.
FireEye offers SIEM and SOAR with the Helix Security Platform, which use
behavioral analysis and advanced threat detection.
49. After containment, what is the first step of eradicating an attack?
▪ Change all passwords.
▪ Patch all vulnerabilities.
▪ Hold meetings on lessons learned.
▪ Identify all hosts that need remediation.
Explanation: Once an attack is contained, the next step is to identify all hosts
that will need remediation so that the effects of the attack can be eliminated.
50. Which activity is typically performed by a threat actor in the installation
phase of the Cyber Kill Chain?
▪ Install a web shell on the target web server for persistent access.
▪ Harvest email addresses of user accounts.
▪ Open a two-way communication channel to the CnC infrastructure.
▪ Obtain an automated tool to deliver the malware payload.
target.
51. When dealing with a security threat and using the Cyber Kill Chain
model, which two approaches can an organization use to help block
potential exploitations on a system? (Choose two.)
▪ Collect email and web logs for forensic reconstruction.
▪ Conduct full malware analysis.
▪ Train web developers for securing code.
▪ Build detections for the behavior of known weaponizers.
▪ Perform regular vulnerability scanning and penetration testing.
Explanation: The most common exploit targets, once a weapon is delivered,
are applications, operating system vulnerabilities, and user accounts. Among
other measures, such as regular vulnerability scanning and penetration
testing, training web developers in securing code can help block potential
exploitations on systems.
52. How might corporate IT professionals deal with DNS-based cyber
threats?
▪ Limit the number of simultaneously opened browsers or browser tabs.
▪ Monitor DNS proxy server logs and look for unusual DNS queries.
▪ Use IPS/IDS devices to scan internal corporate traffic.
▪ Limit the number of DNS queries permitted within the organization.
Explanation: DNS queries for randomly generated domain names or
extremely long random-appearing DNS subdomains should be considered
suspicious. Cyberanalysts could do the following for DNS-based attacks:
Analyze DNS logs.
Use a passive DNS service to block requests to suspected CnC and exploit
domains.
53. How does using HTTPS complicate network security monitoring?
▪ HTTPS adds complexity to captured packets.
▪ HTTPS cannot protect visitors to a company-provided web site.
▪ Web browser traffic is directed to infected servers.
▪ HTTPS can be used to infiltrate DNS queries.
Explanation:
HTTPS adds extra overhead to the HTTP-formed packet. HTTPS encrypts
using secure socket layer (SSL). Even though some devices can perform SSL
decryption and inspection, this can present processing and privacy issues.
HTTPS adds complexity to packet captures due to the additional message
involved in establishing an encrypted data connection.
55. What are the two important components of a public key infrastructure
(PKI) used in network security? (Choose two.)
▪ intrusion prevention system
▪ digital certificates
▪ symmetric encryption algorithms
▪ certificate authority
▪ pre-shared key generation
Explanation: A public key infrastructure uses digital certificates and certificate
authorities to manage asymmetric key distribution. PKI certificates are public
information. The PKI certificate authority (CA) is a trusted third-party that
issues the certificate. The CA has its own certificate (self-signed certificate)
that contains the public key of the CA.
56. Which three algorithms are designed to generate and verify digital
signatures? (Choose three.)
▪ 3DES
▪ IKE
▪ DSA
▪ AES
▪ ECDSA
▪ RSA
Explanation: There are three Digital Signature Standard (DSS) algorithms that
are used for generating and verifying digital signatures:
Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA)
Rivest-Shamir Adelman Algorithm (RSA)
Elliptic Curve Digital Signature Algorithm (ECDSA)
57. Which section of a security policy is used to specify that only authorized
individuals should have access to enterprise data?
▪ statement of authority
▪ identification and authentication policy
▪ campus access policy
▪ Internet access policy
▪ statement of scope
▪ acceptable use policy
Explanation: The identification and authentication policy section of the security
policy typically specifies authorized persons that can have access to network
resources and identity verification procedures.
58. Refer to the exhibit. A cybersecurity analyst is viewing captured packets
forwarded on switch S1. Which device has the MAC address
d8:cb:8a:5c:d5:8a?
▪ PC-A
▪ DNS server
▪ web server
▪ router DG
▪ router ISP
Explanation: The Wireshark capture is a DNS response from the DNS server
to PC-A. Because the packet was captured on the LAN that the PC is on,
router DG would have encapsulated the response packet from the ISP router
into an Ethernet frame addressed to PC-A and forwarded the frame with the
MAC address of PC-A as the destination.
59. What kind of message is sent by a DHCPv4 client requesting an IP
address?
▪ DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message
▪ DHCPDISCOVER unicast message
▪ DHCPOFFER unicast message
▪ DHCPACK unicast message
Explanation: When the DHCPv4 client requests an IP address, it sends a
DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message seeking a DHCPv4 server on the
network.
60. Place the evidence collection priority from most volatile to least volatile
as defined by the IETF guidelines.
61. What is the responsibility of the human resources department when

handling a security incident?
▪ Coordinate the incident response with other stakeholders and minimize
the damage of the incident.
▪ Perform actions to minimize the effectiveness of the attack and preserve
evidence.
▪ Apply disciplinary measures if an incident is caused by an employee.
▪ Review the incident policies, plans, and procedures for local or federal
guideline violations.
Explanation: The human resources department may be called upon to
perform disciplinary measures if an incident is caused by an employee.
62. How does a security information and event management system (SIEM)
in a SOC help the personnel fight against security threats?
▪ by integrating all security devices and appliances in an organization
▪ by analyzing logging data in real time
▪ by combining data from multiple technologies
▪ by dynamically implementing firewall rules
Explanation: A security information and event management system (SIEM)
combines data from multiple sources to help SOC personnel collect and filter
data, detect and classify threats, analyze and investigate threats, and manage
resources to implement preventive measures.
63. At which OSI layer is a source IP address added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
▪ network layer
▪ transport layer
▪ data link layer
▪ application layer
64. What is the purpose of CSMA/CA?
▪ to prevent loops
▪ to isolate traffic
▪ to filter traffic
▪ to prevent collisions
Explanation: CSMA/CA stands for carrier sense multiple access with collision
avoidance. It is a mechanism used in wireless networks to prevent packet
collisions from occurring.
65. Why is DHCP preferred for use on large networks?
▪ Hosts on large networks require more IP addressing configuration
settings than hosts on small networks.
▪ It prevents sharing of files that are copyrighted.
▪ It is a more efficient way to manage IP addresses than static address
assignment.
▪ Large networks send more requests for domain to IP address resolution
than do smaller networks.
▪ DHCP uses a reliable transport layer protocol.
Explanation: Static IP address assignment requires personnel to configure
each network host with addresses manually. Large networks can change
frequently and have many more hosts to configure than do small networks.
DHCP provides a much more efficient means of configuring and managing IP
addresses on large networks than does static address assignment.
66 Which NIST incident response life cycle phase includes continuous
monitoring by the CSIRT to quickly identify and validate an incident?
▪ postincident activities
▪ detection and analysis
▪ containment, eradication, and recovery
▪ preparation
Explanation: It is in the detection and analysis phase of the NIST incident
response life cycle that the CSIRT identifies and validates incidents through
continuous monitoring. The NIST defines four stages of the incident response
life cycle.
67. What will a threat actor do to create a back door on a compromised
target according to the Cyber Kill Chain model?
▪ Add services and autorun keys.
▪ Collect and exfiltrate data.
▪ Open a two-way communications channel to the CnC infrastructure.
Explanation: Once a target system is compromised, the threat actor will
establish a back door into the system to allow for continued access to the
target. Adding services and autorun keys is a way to create a point of
persistent access.
68. Which type of evidence supports an assertion based on previously
obtained evidence?
▪ direct evidence
▪ corroborating evidence
▪ best evidence
▪ indirect evidence
Explanation: Corroborating evidence is evidence that supports a proposition
already supported by initial evidence, therefore confirming the original
proposition. Circumstantial evidence is evidence other than first-hand accounts
of events provided by witnesses.
69. A technician is configuring email on a mobile device. The user wants to
be able to keep the original email on the server, organize it into folders, and
synchronize the folders between the mobile device and the server. Which
email protocol should the technician use?
▪ POP3
▪ MIME
▪ IMAP
▪ SMTP
Explanation: The IMAP protocol allows email data to be synchronized
between a client and server. Changes made in one location, such as marking
an email as read, are automatically applied to the other location. POP3 is also
an email protocol. However, the data is not synchronized between the client
and the server. SMTP is used for sending email, and is typically used in
conjunction with the POP3 protocol. MIME is an email standard that is used to
define attachment types, and allows extra content like pictures and documents
to be attached to email messages.
70. What is the goal of an attack in the installation phase of the Cyber Kill
Chain?
▪ Break the vulnerability and gain control of the target.
▪ Establish command and control (CnC) with the target system.
▪ Create a back door in the target system to allow for future access.
▪ Use the information from the reconnaissance phase to develop a
weapon against the target.
target.
CyberOps Associate (Version 1.0) – CyberOps Associate

1.0 Final exam answers
1. Which two statements are characteristics of a virus? (Choose two.)
▪ A virus typically requires end-user activation.
▪ A virus can be dormant and then activate at a specific time or date.
▪ A virus replicates itself by independently exploiting vulnerabilities in
networks.
▪ A virus has an enabling vulnerability, a propagation mechanism, and a
payload.
▪ A virus provides the attacker with sensitive data, such as passwords
Explanation: The type of end user interaction required to launch a virus is
typically opening an application, opening a web page, or powering on the
computer. Once activated, a virus may infect other files located on the
computer or other computers on the same network.
2. What is a characteristic of a Trojan horse as it relates to network
security?
▪ Too much information is destined for a particular memory block, causing
additional memory areas to be affected.
▪ Extreme quantities of data are sent to a particular network device
interface.
▪ An electronic dictionary is used to obtain a password to be used to
infiltrate a key network device.
▪ Malware is contained in a seemingly legitimate executable program.
Explanation: A Trojan horse carries out malicious operations under the guise
of a legitimate program. Denial of service attacks send extreme quantities of
data to a particular host or network device interface. Password attacks use
electronic dictionaries in an attempt to learn passwords. Buffer overflow
attacks exploit memory buffers by sending too much information to a host to
render the system inoperable.
3. What technique is used in social engineering attacks?
▪ sending junk email
▪ buffer overflow
▪ phishing
Explanation: A threat actor sends fraudulent email which is disguised as being
from a legitimate, trusted source to trick the recipient into installing malware on
their device, or to share personal or financial information.
4. What is a purpose of implementing VLANs on a network?
▪ They can separate user traffic.
▪ They prevent Layer 2 loops.
▪ They eliminate network collisions.
▪ They allow switches to forward Layer 3 packets without a router.
Explanation: VLANs are used on a network to separate user traffic based on
factors such as function, project team, or application, without regard for the
physical location of the user or device.
5. Refer to the exhibit. A cybersecurity analyst is viewing packets forwarded
by switch S2. What addresses will identify frames containing data sent from
PCA to PCB?
Src IP: 192.168.2.1

Src MAC: 00-60-0F-B1-33-33
Dst IP: 192.168.2.101
Dst MAC: 08-CB-8A-5C-BB-BB
Src IP: 192.168.1.212
Src MAC: 01-90-C0-E4-AA-AA
Dst IP: 192.168.2.101
Src IP: 192.168.1.212
Src MAC: 00-60-0F-B1-33-33
Dst IP: 192.168.2.101
Src IP: 192.168.1.212
Src MAC: 00-60-0F-B1-33-33
Dst IP: 192.168.2.101
Dst MAC: 00-D0-D3-BE-00-00
Explanation: When a message sent from PCA to PCB reaches router R2,
some frame header fields will be rewritten by R2 before forwarding to switch
S2. The frames will contain the source MAC address of router R2 and the
destination MAC address of PCB. The frames will retain the original IPv4
addressing applied by PCA which is the IPv4 address of PCA as the source
address and the IPv4 address of PCB as the destination.
6. A cybersecurity analyst needs to collect alert data. What are three
detection tools to perform this task in the Security Onion architecture?
(Choose three.)
▪ CapME
▪ Wazuh
▪ Kibana
▪ Zeek
▪ Sguil
▪ Wireshark
Explanation: A Security Onion Architecture:
Detection tools in Security Onion Architecture include: CapME, Snort, Zeek,

OSSEC, Wazuh, Suricata.
7. Match the Security Onion tool with the description.
8. In network security assessments, which type of test is used to evaluate
the risk posed by vulnerabilities to a specific organization including
assessment of the likelihood of attacks and the impact of successful exploits
on the organization?
▪ port scanning
▪ risk analysis
▪ vulnerability assessment
Explanation: A risk analysis includes assessment of the likelihood of attacks,
identifies types of likely threat actors, and evaluates the impact of successful
exploits on the organization.
9. Match the server profile element to the description. (Not all options are
used.)
Explanation: The elements of a server profile include the following:Listening
ports – the TCP and UDP daemons and ports that are allowed to be open on
the server
User accounts – the parameters defining user access and behavior
Service accounts – the definitions of the type of service that an application is
allowed to run on a given host
Software environment – the tasks, processes, and applications that are
10. In addressing an identified risk, which strategy aims to shift some of the
risk to other parties?
▪ risk avoidance
▪ risk sharing
▪ risk retention
▪ risk reduction
11. What is a network tap?
▪ a technology used to provide real-time reporting and long-term analysis
of security events
▪ a Cisco technology that provides statistics on packets flowing through a
router or multilayer switch
▪ a feature supported on Cisco switches that enables the switch to copy
frames and forward them to an analysis device
▪ a passive device that forwards all traffic and physical layer errors to
an analysis device
Explanation: A network tap is used to capture traffic for monitoring the
network. The tap is typically a passive splitting device implemented inline on
the network and forwards all traffic, including physical layer errors, to an
analysis device.
12. Match the monitoring tool to the definition.
13. If a SOC has a goal of 99.999% uptime, how many minutes of downtime a
year would be considered within its goal?
▪ Approximately 5 minutes per year.
▪ Approximately 10 minutes per year
Explanation: Within a year, there are 365 days x 24 hours a day x 60 minutes
per hour = 525,600 minutes. With the goal of uptime 99.999% of time, the
downtime needs to be controlled under 525,600 x (1-0.99999) = 5.256 minutes
a year.
14. The HTTP server has responded to a client request with a 200 status
code. What does this status code indicate?
▪ The request is understood by the server, but the resource will not be
fulfilled.
▪ The request was completed successfully.
▪ The server could not find the requested resource, possibly because of
an incorrect URL.
▪ The request has been accepted for processing, but processing is not
completed.
15. What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead
of POP?
▪ POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while
IMAP allows distributed storage.
▪ IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves email.
▪ When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are
kept in the mail server for a short time, but IMAP keeps them for a
long time.
▪ Messages are kept in the mail servers until they are manually deleted
from the email client.
Explanation: IMAP and POP are protocols that are used to retrieve email
messages. The advantage of using IMAP instead of POP is that when the user
connects to an IMAP-capable server, copies of the messages are downloaded
to the client application. IMAP then stores the email messages on the server
until the user manually deletes those messages.
16. What debugging security tool can be used by black hats to reverse
engineer binary files when writing exploits?
▪ WinDbg
▪ Firesheep
▪ Skipfish
▪ AIDE
17. Match the attack tools with the description. (Not all options are used.)
18. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)
▪ When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC
address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC
addresses.
▪ If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it
has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it
generates an ARP broadcast.
▪ If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address,
it responds with an ARP reply.
▪ If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will
broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.
▪ An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains
the IP address of the destination host and the multicast MAC address.
Explanation: When a node encapsulates a data packet into a frame, it needs
the destination MAC address. First it determines if the destination device is on
the local network or on a remote network. Then it checks the ARP table (not
the MAC table) to see if a pair of IP address and MAC address exists for either
the destination IP address (if the destination host is on the local network) or
the default gateway IP address (if the destination host is on a remote network).
If the match does not exist, it generates an ARP broadcast to seek the IP
address to MAC address resolution. Because the destination MAC address is
unknown, the ARP request is broadcast with the MAC address
FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. Either the destination device or the default gateway will
respond with its MAC address, which enables the sending node to assemble
the frame. If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node
will discard the packet because a frame cannot be created.
19. What is a property of the ARP table on a device?
▪ Entries in an ARP table are time-stamped and are purged after the
timeout expires.
▪ Every operating system uses the same timer to remove old entries from
the ARP cache.
▪ Static IP-to-MAC address entries are removed dynamically from the
ARP table.
▪ Windows operating systems store ARP cache entries for 3 minutes.
20. What is the purpose of Tor?
▪ to allow users to browse the Internet anonymously
▪ to securely connect to a remote network over an unsecure link such as
an Internet connection
▪ to donate processor cycles to distributed computational tasks in a
processor sharing P2P network
▪ to inspect incoming traffic and look for any that violates a rule or
matches the signature of a known exploit
Explanation: Tor is a software platform and network of peer-to-peer (P2P)
hosts that function as routers. Users access the Tor network by using a special
browserthat allows them to browse anonymously.
21. Which two network protocols can be used by a threat actor to exfiltrate
data in traffic that is disguised as normal network traffic? (Choose two.)
▪ NTP
▪ DNS
▪ HTTP
▪ syslog
▪ SMTP
22. What is a key difference between the data captured by NetFlow and data
captured by Wireshark?
▪ NetFlow data shows network flow contents whereas Wireshark data
shows network flow statistics.
▪ NetFlow data is analyzed by tcpdump whereas Wireshark data is
analyzed by nfdump.
▪ NetFlow provides transaction data whereas Wireshark provides session
data.
▪ NetFlow collects metadata from a network flow whereas Wireshark
captures full data packets.
Explanation: Wireshark captures the entire contents of a packet. NetFlow
does not. Instead, NetFlow collects metadata, or data about the flow.
23. Which tool captures full data packets with a command-line interface
only?
▪ nfdump
▪ Wireshark
▪ NBAR2
▪ tcpdump
Explanation: The command-line tool tcpdump is a packet analyzer. Wireshark
is a packet analyzer with a GUI interface.
24. Which method can be used to harden a device?
▪ maintain use of the same passwords
▪ allow default services to remain enabled
▪ allow USB auto-detection
▪ use SSH and disable the root account access over SSH
Explanation: The basic best practices for device hardening are as follows:
Ensure physical security.
Minimize installed packages.
Disable unused services.
Use SSH and disable the root account login over SSH.
Keep the system updated.
Disable USB auto-detection.
Enforce strong passwords.
Force periodic password changes.
Keep users from re-using old passwords.
Review logs regularly.
25. In a Linux operating system, which component interprets user
commands and attempts to execute them?
▪ GUI
▪ daemon
▪ kernel
▪ shell
26. A network administrator is configuring an AAA server to manage
RADIUS authentication. Which two features are included in RADIUS
authentication? (Choose two.)
▪ encryption for all communication
▪ encryption for only the data
▪ single process for authentication and authorization
▪ separate processes for authentication and authorization
▪ hidden passwords during transmission
Explanation: RADIUS authentication supports the following features:
RADIUS authentication and authorization as one process
Encrypts only the password
Utilizes UDP
Supports remote-access technologies, 802.1X, and Session Initiation Protocol
(SIP)
27. What is privilege escalation?
▪ Vulnerabilities in systems are exploited to grant higher levels of
privilege than someone or some process should have.
▪ Everyone is given full rights by default to everything and rights are taken
away only when someone abuses privileges.
▪ Someone is given rights because she or he has received a promotion.
▪ A security problem occurs when high ranking corporate officials demand
rights to systems or files that they should not have.
Explanation: With privilege escalation, vulnerabilities are exploited to grant
higher levels of privilege. After the privilege is granted, the threat actor can
access sensitive information or take control of the system.
28. What two assurances does digital signing provide about code that is
downloaded from the Internet? (Choose two.)
▪ The code contains no viruses.
▪ The code has not been modified since it left the software publisher.
▪ The code is authentic and is actually sourced by the publisher.
▪ The code contains no errors.
▪ The code was encrypted with both a private and public key.
Explanation: Digitally signing code provides several assurances about the
code:
The code is authentic and is actually sourced by the publisher.
The code has not been modified since it left the software publisher.
The publisher undeniably published the code. This provides nonrepudiation of
the act of publishing.
29. An IT enterprise is recommending the use of PKI applications to
securely exchange information between the employees. In which two cases
might an organization use PKI applications to securely exchange
information between users? (Choose two.)
▪ HTTPS web service
▪ 802.1x authentication
▪ local NTP server
▪ FTP transfers
▪ file and directory access permission
Explanation: The Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a third party-system
referred to as a certificate authority or CA. The PKI is the framework used to
securely exchange information between parties. Common PKI applications are
as follows:
SSL/TLS certificate-based peer authentication
Secure network traffic using IPsec VPNs
HTTPS Web traffic
Control access to the network using 802.1x authentication
Secure email using the S/MIME protocol
Secure instant messaging
Approve and authorize applications with Code Signing
Protect user data with the Encryption File System (EFS)
Implement two-factor authentication with smart cards
Securing USB storage devices
30. Which measure can a security analyst take to perform effective security
monitoring against network traffic encrypted by SSL technology?
▪ Use a Syslog server to capture network traffic.
▪ Deploy a Cisco SSL Appliance.
▪ Require remote access connections through IPsec VPN.
▪ Deploy a Cisco ASA.
31. An administrator is trying to develop a BYOD security policy for
employees that are bringing a wide range of devices to connect to the
company network. Which three objectives must the BYOD security policy
address? (Choose three.)
▪ All devices must be insured against liability if used to compromise the
corporate network.
▪ All devices must have open authentication with the corporate network.
▪ Rights and activities permitted on the corporate network must be
defined.
▪ Safeguards must be put in place for any personal device being
compromised.
▪ The level of access of employees when connecting to the corporate
network must be defined.
▪ All devices should be allowed to attach to the corporate network
flawlessly.
32. Match the security policy with the description. (Not all options are
used.)
33. Match the attack to the definition. (Not all options are used.)
34. What type of attack targets an SQL database using the input field of a
user?
▪ XML injection
▪ buffer overflow
▪ Cross-site scripting
▪ SQL injection
Explanation: A criminal can insert a malicious SQL statement in an entry field
on a website where the system does not filter the user input correctly.
35. What are two characteristics of Ethernet MAC addresses? (Choose two.)
▪ MAC addresses use a flexible hierarchical structure.
▪ They are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits.
▪ They are globally unique.
▪ They are routable on the Internet.
▪ MAC addresses must be unique for both Ethernet and serial interfaces
on a device.
36. A user calls to report that a PC cannot access the internet. The network
technician asks the user to issue the command ping 127.0.0.1 in a command
prompt window. The user reports that the result is four positive replies.
What conclusion can be drawn based on this connectivity test?
▪ The IP address obtained from the DHCP server is correct.
▪ The PC can access the network. The problem exists beyond the local
network.
▪ The PC can access the Internet. However, the web browser may not
work.
▪ The TCP/IP implementation is functional.
Explanation: The ping 127.0.0.1 command is used to verify that the TCP/IP
stack is functional. It verifies the proper operation of the protocol stack from
the network layer to physical layer, without sending a signal on the media.
That is, this test does not go beyond the PC itself. For example, it does not
detect whether a cable is connected to the PC or not.
37. What characterizes a threat actor?
▪ They are all highly-skilled individuals.
▪ They always use advanced tools to launch attacks.
▪ They always try to cause some harm to an individual or organization.
▪ They all belong to organized crime.
38. A computer is presenting a user with a screen requesting payment
before the user data is allowed to be accessed by the same user. What type
of malware is this?
▪ a type of logic bomb
▪ a type of virus
▪ a type of worm
▪ a type of ransomware
Explanation: Ransomware commonly encrypts data on a computer and
makes the data unavailable until the computer user pays a specific sum of
money
39. Which ICMPv6 message type provides network addressing information
to hosts that use SLAAC?
40. Which tol included in the Security Onion is a series of software plugins
that send different types of data to the Elasticsearch data stores?
▪ Curator
▪ Beats
▪ OSSEC
▪ ElastAlert
41. Which two types of unreadable network traffic could be eliminated from
data collected by NSM? (Choose two.)
▪ STP traffic
▪ IPsec traffic
▪ routing updates traffic
▪ SSL traffic
▪ broadcast traffic
Explanation: To reduce the huge amount of data collected so that
cybersecurity analysts can focus on critical threats, some less important or
unusable data could be eliminated from the datasets. For example, encrypted
data, such as IPsec and SSL traffic, could be eliminated because it is
unreadable in a reasonable time frame.
42. Which core open source component of the Elastic-stack is responsible
for accepting the data in its native format and making elements of the data
consistent across all sources?
▪ Logstash
▪ Kibana
▪ Beats
▪ Elasticsearch
43. Match the security incident stakeholder with the role.
44. In the NIST incident response process life cycle, which type of attack
vector involves the use of brute force against devices, networks, or
services?
▪ media
▪ impersonation
▪ attrition
▪ loss or theft
Explanation: Common attack vectors include media, attrition, impersonation,
and loss or theft. Attrition attacks are any attacks that use brute force. Media
attacks are those initiated from storage devices. Impersonation attacks occur
when something or someone is replaced for the purpose of the attack, and
loss or theft attacks are initiated by equipment inside the organization.
45. Match the security organization with its security functions. (Not all
options are used.)
46. What is a characteristic of CybOX?

▪ It is a set of standardized schemata for specifying, capturing,
characterizing, and communicating events and properties of
network operations.
▪ It enables the real-time exchange of cyberthreat indicators between the
U.S. Federal Government and the private sector.
▪ It is a set of specifications for exchanging cyberthreat information
between organizations.
▪ It is the specification for an application layer protocol that allows the
communication of CTI over HTTPS.
47. After host A receives a web page from server B, host A terminates the
connection with server B. Match each step to its correct option in the
normal termination process for a TCP connection. (Not all options are
used.)
48. What are two ways that ICMP can be a security threat to a company?
(Choose two.)
▪ by collecting information about a network
▪ by corrupting data between email servers and email recipients
▪ by the infiltration of web pages
▪ by corrupting network IP data packets
▪ by providing a conduit for DoS attacks
Explanation: ICMP can be used as a conduit for DoS attacks. It can be used
to collect information about a network such as the identification of hosts and
network structure, and by determining the operating systems being used on
the network.
49. Which three IPv4 header fields have no equivalent in an IPv6 header?
(Choose three.)
▪ fragment offset
▪ protocol
▪ flag
▪ TTL
▪ identification
▪ version
Explanation: Unlike IPv4, IPv6 routers do not perform fragmentation.
Therefore, all three fields supporting fragmentation in the IPv4 header are
removed and have no equivalent in the IPv6 header. These three fields are
fragment offset, flag, and identification. IPv6 does support host packet
fragmentation through the use of extension headers, which are not part of the
IPv6 header.
50. Which two net commands are associated with network resource
sharing? (Choose two.)
▪ net start
▪ net accounts
▪ net share
▪ net use
▪ net stop
Explanation:
The net command is a very important command. Some
common net commands include these:
▪ net accounts – sets password and logon requirements for users
▪ net session – lists or disconnects sessions between a computer and
other computers on the network
▪ net share – creates, removes, or manages shared resources
▪ net start – starts a network service or lists running network services
▪ net stop – stops a network service
▪ net use – connects, disconnects, and displays information about shared
network resources
▪ net view – shows a list of computers and network devices on the
network
51. Match the Windows 10 Registry key with its description. (Not all options
are used)
52. Which PDU format is used when bits are received from the network
medium by the NIC of a host?
▪ segment
▪ file
▪ packet
▪ frame
Explanation: When received at the physical layer of a host, the bits are
formatted into a frame at the data link layer. A packet is the PDU at the
network layer. A segment is the PDU at the transport layer. A file is a data
structure that may be used at the application layer.
53. A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a
router, which is in the path to the destination device, stop forwarding the
packet?
▪ when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message
▪ when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages
reach zero
▪ when the RTT value reaches zero
▪ when the value in the TTL field reaches zero
▪ when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message
Explanation: When a router receives a traceroute packet, the value in the TTL
field is decremented by 1. When the value in the field reaches zero, the
receiving router will not forward the packet, and will send an ICMP Time
Exceeded message back to the source.
54. Refer to the exhibit. What solution can provide a VPN between site A and
site B to support encapsulation of any Layer 3 protocol between the internal
networks at each site?
▪ an IPsec tunnel
▪ Cisco SSL VPN
▪ a GRE tunnel
▪ a remote access tunnel
Explanation: A Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) tunnel is a non-secure,
site-to-site VPN tunneling solution that is capable of encapsulating any Layer 3
protocol between multiple sites across over an IP internetwork.
55. For what purpose would a network administrator use the Nmap tool?
▪ protection of the private IP addresses of internal hosts
▪ identification of specific network anomalies
▪ collection and analysis of security alerts and logs
▪ detection and identification of open ports
56. Match the network service with the description.
57. A client application needs to terminate a TCP communication session
with a server. Place the termination process steps in the order that they will
occur. (Nat all options are used.)
58. Match the attack surface with attack exploits.
59. Match the Linux host-based firewall application with its description.
60. What network attack seeks to create a DoS for clients by preventing
them from being able to obtain a DHCP lease?
▪ DHCP starvation
▪ IP address spoofing
▪ DHCP spoofing
▪ CAM table attack
Explanation: DCHP starvation attacks are launched by an attacker with the
intent to create a DoS for DHCP clients. To accomplish this goal, the attacker
uses a tool that sends many DHCPDISCOVER messages in order to lease the
entire pool of available IP addresses, thus denying them to legitimate hosts.
61. Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to the server, what
layers of the TCP/IP model would be used?
▪ only application and Internet layers

▪ application, transport, Internet, and network access layers
▪ only Internet and network access layers
▪ only application, transport, network, data link, and physical layers
▪ only application, Internet, and network access layers
▪ application, session, transport, network, data link, and physical layers
Explanation: The TCP/IP model contains the application, transport, internet,
and network access layers. A file transfer uses the FTP application layer
protocol. The data would move from the application layer through all of the
layers of the model and across the network to the file server.
62. A company has a file server that shares a folder named Public. The
network security policy specifies that the Public folder is assigned Read-
Only rights to anyone who can log into the server while the Edit rights are
assigned only to the network admin group. Which component is addressed
in the AAA network service framework?
▪ automation
▪ authentication
▪ authorization
▪ accounting
Explanation: After a user is successfully authenticated (logged into the
server), the authorization is the process of determining what network
resources the user can access and what operations (such as read or edit) the
user can perform.
63. Match the destination network routing table entry type with a defintion.
64. A person coming to a cafe for the first time wants to gain wireless access
to the Internet using a laptop. What is the first step the wireless client will
do in order to communicate over the network using a wireless management
frame?
▪ associate with the AP
▪ authenticate to the AP
▪ discover the AP
▪ agree with the AP on the payload
Explanation: In order for wireless devices to communicate on a wireless
network, management frames are used to complete a three-stage process:
Discover the AP
Authenticate with the AP
Associate with the AP
65. A device has been assigned the IPv6 address of
2001:0db8:cafe:4500:1000:00d8:0058:00ab/64. Which is the network
identifier of the device?
▪ 2001:0db8:cafe:4500:1000
▪ 2001:0db8:cafe:4500:1000:00d8:0058:00ab
▪ 1000:00d8:0058:00ab
▪ 2001:0db8:cafe:4500
▪ 2001
Explanation: The address has a prefix length of /64. Thus the first 64 bits
represent the network portion, whereas the last 64 bits represent the host
portion of the IPv6 address.
66. An administrator wants to create four subnetworks from the network
address 192.168.1.0/24. What is the network address and subnet mask of
the second useable subnet?
subnetwork 192.168.1.64
subnet mask 255.255.255.192
subnet mask 255.255.255.240
subnet mask 255.255.255.240
subnet mask 255.255.255.192
subnet mask 255.255.255.224
Explanation: The number of bits that are borrowed would be two, thus giving a
total of 4 useable subnets:
192.168.1.0
192.168.1.64
192.168.1.128
192.168.1.192
Because 2 bits are borrowed, the new subnet mask would be /26 or
255.255.255.192
67. What term describes a set of software tools designed to increase the
privileges of a user or to grant access to the user to portions of the
operating system that should not normally be allowed?
▪ compiler
▪ rootkit
▪ package manager
Explanation: A rootkit is used by an attacker to secure a backdoor to a
compromised computer, grant access to portions of the operating system
normally not permitted, or increase the privileges of a user.
68. The IT security personnel of an organization notice that the web server
deployed in the DMZ is frequently targeted by threat actors. The decision is
made to implement a patch management system to manage the server.
Which risk management strategy method is being used to respond to the
identified risk?
▪ risk sharing
▪ risk avoidance
▪ risk reduction
▪ risk
retention
69. What are three characteristics of an information security management
system? (Choose three.)
▪ It involves the implementation of systems that track the location and
configuration of networked devices and software across an enterprise.
▪ It is a systematic and multilayered approach to cybersecurity.
▪ It addresses the inventory and control of hardware and software
configurations of systems.
▪ It consists of a set of practices that are systematically applied to
ensure continuous improvement in information security.
▪ It consists of a management framework through which an
organization identifies, analyzes, and addresses information
security risks.
▪ It is based on the application of servers and security devices.
Explanation: An Information Security Management System (ISMS) consists of
a management framework through which an organization identifies, analyzes,
and addresses information security risks. ISMSs are not based in servers or
security devices. Instead, an ISMS consists of a set of practices that are
systematically applied by an organization to ensure continuous improvement in
information security. ISMSs provide conceptual models that guide
organizations in planning, implementing, governing, and evaluating information
security programs.
ISMSs are a natural extension of the use of popular business models, such as
Total Quality Management (TQM) and Control Objectives for Information and
Related Technologies (COBIT), into the realm of cybersecurity.
An ISMS is a systematic, multi-layered approach to cybersecurity. The
approach includes people, processes, technologies, and the cultures in which
they interact in a process of risk management.
70. Which three technologies should be included in a SOC security
information and event management system? (Choose three.)
▪ event collection, correlation, and analysis
▪ security monitoring
▪ user authentication
▪ proxy service
▪ intrusion prevention
Explanation: Technologies in a SOC should include the following:
• Event collection, correlation, and analysis
• Security monitoring
• Security control
• Log management
• Vulnerability assessment
• Vulnerability tracking
• Threat intelligence
Proxy server, VPN, and IPS are security devices deployed in the network
infrastructure.
71. What part of the URL, http://www.cisco.com/index.html, represents the
top-level DNS domain?
▪ http
▪ www
▪ .com
▪ index
Explanation: The components of the URL http://www.cisco.com/index.htm are
as follows:
http = protocol
www = part of the server name
cisco = part of the domain name
index = file name
com = the top-level domain
72. What best describes the security threat of spoofing?
▪ sending bulk email to individuals, lists, or domains with the intention to
prevent users from accessing email
▪ sending abnormally large amounts of data to a remote server to prevent
user access to the server services
▪ intercepting traffic between two hosts or inserting false information into
traffic between two hosts
▪ making data appear to come from a source that is not the actual
source
73. A newly created company has fifteen Windows 10 computers that need
to be installed before the company can open for business. What is a best
practice that the technician should implement when configuring the
Windows Firewall?
▪ The technician should remove all default firewall rules and selectively
deny traffic from reaching the company network.
▪ After implementing third party security software for the company,
the technician should verify that the Windows Firewall is disabled.
▪ The technician should create instructions for corporate users on how to
allow an app through the WIndows Firewall using the Administrator
account.
▪ The technician should enable the Windows Firewall for inbound traffic
and install other firewall software for outbound traffic control.
Explanation: Only disable Windows Firewall if other firewall software is
installed. Use the Windows Firewall (Windows 7 or 8) or the Windows
Defender Firewall (Windows 10) Control Panel to enable or disable the
Windows Firewall.
74. Which statement defines the difference between session data and
transaction data in logs?
▪ Session data analyzes network traffic and predicts network behavior,
whereas transaction data records network sessions.
▪ Session data is used to make predictions on network behaviors,
whereas transaction data is used to detect network anomalies.
▪ Session data records a conversation between hosts, whereas
transaction data focuses on the result of network sessions.
▪ Session data shows the result of a network session, whereas
transaction data is in response to network threat traffic.
75. Match the network monitoring data type with the description.
76. Which device supports the use of SPAN to enable monitoring of

malicious activity?
▪ Cisco Catalyst switch
▪ Cisco IronPort
▪ Cisco NAC
▪ Cisco Security Agent
Explanation: SPAN is a Cisco technology that allows all of the traffic from one
port to be redirected to another port.
77. Which term is used for describing automated queries that are useful for
adding efficiency to the cyberoperations workflow?
▪ cyber kill chain
▪ playbook
▪ chain of custody
▪ rootkit
Explanation: A playbook is an automated query that can add efficiency to the
cyberoperations workflow.
78. When ACLs are configured to block IP address spoofing and DoS flood
attacks, which ICMP message should be allowed both inbound and
outbound?
▪ echo reply
▪ unreachable
▪ source quench
▪ echo
79. After a security monitoring tool identifies a malware attachment
entering the network, what is the benefit of performing a retrospective
analysis?
▪ It can identify how the malware originally entered the network.
▪ A retrospective analysis can help in tracking the behavior of the
malware from the identification point forward.
▪ It can calculate the probability of a future incident.
▪ It can determine which network host was first affected.
Explanation: General security monitoring can identify when a malware
attachment enters a network and which host is first infected. Retrospective
analysis takes the next step and is the tracking of the behavior of the malware
from that point forward.
80. Which two data types would be classified as personally identifiable
information (PII)? (Choose two.)
▪ house thermostat reading
▪ average number of cattle per region
▪ vehicle identification number
▪ hospital emergency use per region
▪ Facebook photographs
81. A help desk technician notices an increased number of calls relating to
the performance of computers located at the manufacturing plant. The
technician believes that botnets are causing the issue. What are two
purposes of botnets? (Choose two.)
▪ to transmit viruses or spam to computers on the same network
▪ to record any and all keystrokes
▪ to attack other computers
▪ to withhold access to a computer or files until money has been paid
▪ togain access to the restricted part of the operating system
Explanation: Botnets can be used to perform DDoS attacks, obtain data, or
transmit malware to other devices on the network.
82. Which two statements describe the use of asymmetric algorithms?
(Choose two.)
▪ Public and private keys may be used interchangeably.
▪ If a public key is used to encrypt the data, a private key must be used
to decrypt the data.
▪ If a public key is used to encrypt the data, a public key must be used to
decrypt the data.
▪ If a private key is used to encrypt the data, a public key must be used
▪ If a private key is used to encrypt the data, a private key must be used
Explanation: Asymmetric algorithms use two keys: a public key and a private
key. Both keys are capable of the encryption process, but the complementary
matched key is required for decryption. If a public key encrypts the data, the
matching private key decrypts the data. The opposite is also true. If a private
key encrypts the data, the corresponding public key decrypts the data.
83. Which three security services are provided by digital signatures?
(Choose three.)
▪ provides nonrepudiation using HMAC functions
▪ guarantees data has not changed in transit
▪ provides data encryption
▪ authenticates the source
▪ provides confidentiality of digitally signed data
▪ authenticates the destination
Explanation: Digital signatures are a mathematical technique used to provide
three basic security services. Digital signatures have specific properties that
enable entity authentication and data integrity. In addition, digital signatures
provide nonrepudiation of the transaction. In other words, the digital signature
serves as legal proof that the data exchange did take place.
84. What are two methods to maintain certificate revocation status?
(Choose two.)
▪ CRL
▪ DNS
▪ subordinate CA
▪ OCSP
▪ LDAP
Explanation: A digital certificate might need to be revoked if its key is
compromised or it is no longer needed. The certificate revocation list (CRL)
and Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP), are two common methods to
check a certificate revocation status.
85. What are two uses of an access control list? (Choose two.)
▪ ACLs provide a basic level of security for network access.
▪ ACLs can control which areas a host can access on a network.
▪ Standard ACLs can restrict access to specific applications and ports.
▪ ACLs assist the router in determining the best path to a destination.
▪ ACLs can permit or deny traffic based upon the MAC address
originating on the router.
Explanation: ACLs can be used for the following:Limit network traffic in order
to provide adequate network performance
Restrict the delivery of routing updates
Provide a basic level of security
Filter traffic based on the type of traffic being sent
Filter traffic based on IP addressing
86. A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for the interface. After
an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the
client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?
▪ It must send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation message to determine what
default gateway it should use.
▪ It must send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation message to request the
address of the DNS server.
▪ It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that
the address is not already in use on the network.
▪ It must wait for an ICMPv6 Router Advertisement message giving
permission to use this address.
Explanation: Stateless DHCPv6 or stateful DHCPv6 uses a DHCP server, but
Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) does not. A SLAAC client can
automatically generate an address that is based on information from local
routers via Router Advertisement (RA) messages. Once an address has been
assigned to an interface via SLAAC, the client must ensure via Duplicate
Address Detection (DAD) that the address is not already in use. It does this by
sending out an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message and listening for a
response. If a response is received, then it means that another device is
already using this address.
87. A technician is troubleshooting a network connectivity problem. Pings
to the local wireless router are successful but pings to a server on the
Internet are unsuccessful. Which CLI command could assist the technician
to find the location of the networking problem?
▪ tracert
▪ ipconfig
▪ msconfig
▪ ipconfig/renew
Explanation: The tracert utlility (also known as the tracert command or tracert
tool) will enable the technician to locate the link to the server that is down. The
ipconfig command displays the computer network configuration details. The
ipconfig/renew command requests an IP address from a DHCP server.
Msconfig is not a network troubleshooting command.
88. What are two evasion techniques that are used by hackers? (Choose
two.)
▪ Trojan horse
▪ pivot
▪ rootkit
▪ reconnaissance
▪ phishing
Explanation: The following methods are used by hackers to avoid
detection:Encryption and tunneling – hide or scramble the malware content
Resource exhaustion – keeps the host device too busy to detect the invasion
Traffic fragmentation – splits the malware into multiple packets
Protocol-level misinterpretation – sneaks by the firewall
Pivot – uses a compromised network device to attempt access to another
device
Rootkit – allows the hacker to be undetected and hides software installed by
the hacker
89. When a security attack has occurred, which two approaches should
security professionals take to mitigate a compromised system during the
Actions on Objectives step as defined by the Cyber Kill Chain model?
(Choose two.)
▪ Perform forensic analysis of endpoints for rapid triage.
▪ Train web developers for securing code.
▪ Build detections for the behavior of known malware.
▪ Collect malware files and metadata for future analysis.
▪ Detect data exfiltration, lateral movement, and unauthorized
credential usage.
Explanation: When security professionals are alerted about the system
compromises, forensic analysis of endpoints should be performed immediately
for rapid triage. In addition, detection efforts for further attacking activities such
as data exfiltration, lateral movement, and unauthorized credential usage
should be enhanced to reduce damage to the minimum.
90. Place the seven steps defined in the Cyber Kill Chain in the correct
order.
91. Which field in the TCP header indicates the status of the three-way
handshake process?
▪ control bits
▪ window
▪ reserved
▪ checksum
Explanation: The value in the control bits field of theTCP header indicates the
progress and status of the connection.
92. A user opens three browsers on the same PC to access www.cisco.com to
search for certification course information. The Cisco web server sends a
datagram as a reply to the request from one of the web browsers. Which
information is used by the TCP/IP protocol stack in the PC to identify which
of the three web browsers should receive the reply?
▪ the source IP address
▪ the destination port number
▪ the destination IP address
▪ the source port number
Explanation: Each web browser client application opens a randomly
generated port number in the range of the registered ports and uses this
number as the source port number in the datagram that it sends to a server.
The server then uses this port number as the destination port number in the
reply datagram that it sends to the web browser. The PC that is running the
web browser application receives the datagram and uses the destination port
number that is contained in this datagram to identify the client application.
93. What are two scenarios where probabilistic security analysis is best
suited? (Choose two.)
▪ when applications that conform to application/networking standards are
analyzed
▪ when analyzing events with the assumption that they follow
predefined steps
▪ when random variables create difficulty in knowing with certainty the
outcome of any given event
▪ when analyzing applications designed to circumvent firewalls
▪ when each event is the inevitable result of antecedent causes
94. Which tool is a web application that provides the cybersecurity analyst
an easy-to-read means of viewing an entire Layer 4 session?
▪ Snort
▪ Zeek
▪ CapME
▪ OSSEC
95. Match the category of attacks with the description. (Not all options are
used.)
96. What are two characteristics of the SLAAC method for IPv6 address
configuration? (Choose two.)
▪ The default gateway of an IPv6 client on a LAN will be the link-local
address of the router interface attached to the LAN.
▪ This stateful method of acquiring an IPv6 address requires at least one
DHCPv6 server.
▪ Clients send router advertisement messages to routers to request IPv6
addressing.
▪ IPv6 addressing is dynamically assigned to clients through the use of
ICMPv6.
▪ Router solicitation messages are sent by the router to offer IPv6
addressing to clients.
Explanation: With SLAAC, the default gateway for IPv6 clients will be the link-
local address of the router interface that is attached to the client LAN. The
IPv6 addressing is dynamically assigned via the ICMPv6 protocol. SLAAC is a
stateless method of acquiring an IPv6 address, a method that requires no
servers. When a client is configured to obtain its addressing information
automatically via SLAAC, the client sends a router solicitation message to the
IPv6 all-routers multicast address FF02::2. The router advertisement
messages are sent by routers to provide addressing information to clients.
97. A technician notices that an application is not responding to commands
and that the computer seems to respond slowly when applications are
opened. What is the best administrative tool to force the release of system
resources from the unresponsive application?
▪ Event Viewer
▪ System Restore
▪ Add or Remove Programs
▪ Task Manager
Explanation: Use the Task Manager Performance tab to see a visual
representation of CPU and RAM utilization. This is helpful in determining if
more memory is needed. Use the Applications tab to halt an application that is
not responding.
98. How can statistical data be used to describe or predict network
behavior?
▪ by comparing normal network behavior to current network behavior
▪ by recording conversations between network endpoints
▪ by listing results of user web surfing activities
▪ by displaying alert messages that are generated by Snort
Explanation: Statistical data is created through the analysis of other forms of
network data. Statistical characteristics of normal network behavior can be
compared to current network traffic in an effort to detect anomalies.
Conclusions resulting from analysis can be used to describe or predict network
behavior.
99. Which metric in the CVSS Base Metric Group is used with an attack
vector?
▪ the proximity of the threat actor to the vulnerability
▪ the presence or absence of the requirement for user interaction in order
for an exploit to be successful
▪ the determination whether the initial authority changes to a second
authority during the exploit
▪ the number of components, software, hardware, or networks, that are
beyond the control of the attacker and that must be present in order
for a vulnerability to be successfully exploited
Explanation: This is a metric that reflects the proximity of the threat actor to
the vulnerable component. The more remote the threat actor is to the
component, the higher the severity. Threat actors close to your network or
inside your network are easier to detect and mitigate.
100. Which NIST Cybersecurity Framework core function is concerned with
the development and implementation of safeguards that ensure the
delivery of critical infrastructure services?
▪ respond
▪ detect
▪ identify
▪ recover
▪ protect
101. Which two techniques are used in a smurf attack? (Choose two.)
▪ session hijacking
▪ botnets
▪ amplification
▪ reflection
102. What is the primary objective of a threat intelligence platform (TIP)?
▪ to aggregate the data in one place and present it in a comprehensible
and usable format
▪ to provide a specification for an application layer protocol that allows the
communication of CTI over HTTPS
▪ to provide a standardized schema for specifying, capturing,
characterizing, and communicating events and properties of network
operations
▪ to provide a security operations platform that integrates and enhances
diverse security tools and threat intelligence
103. Which wireless parameter is used by an access point to broadcast
frames that include the SSID?
▪ security mode
▪ active mode
▪ passive mode
▪ channel setting
Explanation: The two scanning or probing modes an access point can be
placed into are passive or active. In passive mode, the AP advertises the
SSID, supported standards, and security settings in broadcast beacon frames.
In active mode, the wireless client must be manually configured for the same
wireless parameters as the AP has configured.
104. Match the field in the Event table of Sguil to the description.
Match the field in the Event table of Sguil to the description
105. An employee connects wirelessly to the company network using a cell
phone. The employee then configures the cell phone to act as a wireless
access point that will allow new employees to connect to the company
network. Which type of security threat best describes this situation?
▪ cracking
▪ spoofing
Explanation: Configuring the cell phone to act as a wireless access point
means that the cell phone is now a rogue access point. The employee
unknowingly breached the security of the company network by allowing a user
to access the network without connecting through the company access point.
Cracking is the process of obtaining passwords from data stored or transmitted
on a network. Denial of service attacks refer to sending large amounts of data
to a networked device, such as a server, to prevent legitimate access to the
server. Spoofing refers to access gained to a network or data by an attacker
appearing to be a legitimate network device or user.
106. What information is required for a WHOIS query?
▪ outside global address of the client
▪ ICANN lookup server address
▪ link-local address of the domain owner
▪ FQDN of the domain
107. Which two statements describe the characteristics of symmetric
algorithms? (Choose two.)
▪ They are referred to as a pre-shared key or secret key.
▪ They use a pair of a public key and a private key.
▪ They are commonly used with VPN traffic.
▪ They provide confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
Explanation: Symmetric encryption algorithms use the same key (also called
shared secret) to encrypt and decrypt the data. In contrast, asymmetric
encryption algorithms use a pair of keys, one for encryption and another for
decryption.
108. What are two drawbacks to using HIPS? (Choose two.)
▪ With HIPS, the success or failure of an attack cannot be readily
determined.
▪ With HIPS, the network administrator must verify support for all the
different operating systems used inthe network.
▪ HIPS has difficulty constructing an accurate network picture or
coordinating events that occur across the entire network.
▪ If the network traffic stream is encrypted, HIPS is unable to access
unencrypted forms of the traffic.
▪ HIPS installations are vulnerable to fragmentation attacks or variable
TTL attacks
109. What are three functions provided by the syslog service? (Choose
three.)
▪ to select the type of logging information that is captured
▪ to periodically poll agents for data
▪ to provide statistics on packets that are flowing through a Cisco device
▪ to provide traffic analysis
▪ to gather logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting
▪ to specify the destinations of captured messages
Explanation: There are three primary functions provided by the syslog service:
1. gathering logging information
2. selection of the type of information to be logged
3. selection of the destination of the logged information
110. Which consideration is important when implementing syslog in a
network?
▪ Enable the highest level of syslog available to ensure logging of all
possible event messages.
▪ Synchronize clocks on all network devices with a protocol such as
Network Time Protocol.
▪ Log all messages to the system buffer so that they can be displayed
when accessing the router.
▪ Use SSH to access syslog information
111. What are the two ways threat actors use NTP? (Choose two.)
▪ They place an attachment inside an email message.
▪ They attack the NTP infrastructure in order to corrupt the
information used to log the attack.
▪ They place iFrames on a frequently used corporate web page.
▪ They encode stolen data as the subdomain portion where the
nameserver is under control of an attacker.
▪ Threat actors use NTP systems to direct DDoS attacks.
Explanation: Threat actors may attempt to attack the NTP infrastructure in
order to corrupt time information used to correlate logged network events. This
can serve to obfuscate traces of ongoing exploits. In addition, threat actors
have been known to use NTP systems to direct DDoS attacks through
vulnerabilities in client or server software. While these attacks do not
necessarily result in corrupted security monitoring data, they can disrupt
network availability.
112. Which two features are included by both TACACS+ and RADIUS
protocols? (Choose two.)
▪ password encryption
▪ separate authentication and authorization processes
▪ SIP support
▪ utilization of transport layer protocols
▪ 802.1X support
Explanation: Both TACACS+ and RADIUS support password encryption
(TACACS+ encrypts all communication) and use Layer 4 protocol (TACACS+
uses TCP and RADIUS uses UDP). TACACS+ supports separation of
authentication and authorization processes, while RADIUS combines
authentication and authorization as one process. RADIUS supports remote
access technology, such as 802.1x and SIP; TACACS+ does not.
113. Match the SIEM function to the description.
114. What are two types of attacks used on DNS open resolvers? (Choose
two.)
▪ amplification and reflection
▪ fast flux
▪ ARP poisoning
▪ resource utilization
▪ cushioning
Explanation: Three types of attacks used on DNS open resolvers are as
follows:DNS cache poisoning – attacker sends spoofed falsified information to
redirect users from legitimate sites to malicious sites
DNS amplification and reflection attacks – attacker sends an increased volume
of attacks to mask the true source of the attack
DNS resource utilization attacks – a denial of service (DoS) attack that
consumes server resources
115. What are three goals of a port scan attack? (Choose three.)
▪ to identify peripheral configurations
▪ to determine potential vulnerabilities
▪ to disable used ports and services
▪ to identify operating systems
▪ to identify active services
▪ to discover system passwords
116. Which protocol or service uses UDP for a client-to-server
communication and TCP for server-to-server communication?
▪ HTTP
▪ FTP
▪ DNS
▪ SMTP
Explanation: Some applications may use both TCP and UDP. DNS uses UDP
when clients send requests to a DNS server, and TCP when two DNS serves
directly communicate.
117. What is one difference between the client-server and peer-to-peer
network models?
▪ Only in the client-server model can file transfers occur.
▪ A data transfer that uses a device serving in a client role requires that a
dedicated server be present.
▪ A peer-to-peer network transfers data faster than a transfer using a
client-server network.
▪ Every device in a peer-to-peer network can function as a client or a
server.
Explanation: Data transfer speeds depend on a number of factors including
the amount of traffic, the quality of service imposed, and the network media.
Transfer speeds are not dependent on the network model type. File transfers
can occur using the client-server model or the peer-to-peer model. A data
transfer between a device acting in the client role and a device acting in the
server role can occur in both peer-to-peer and client-server networks.
118. Which statement is correct about network protocols?
▪ They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the
destination.
▪ They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.
▪ They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on
remote networks.
▪ Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is
mounted in racks.
Explanation: Network protocols are implemented in hardware, or software, or
both. They interact with each other within different layers of a protocol stack.
Protocols have nothing to do with the installation of the network equipment.
Network protocols are required to exchange information between source and
destination devices in both local and remote networks.
119. Which approach can help block potential malware delivery methods,
as described in the Cyber Kill Chain model, on an Internet-faced web
server?
▪ Build detections for the behavior of known malware.
▪ Collect malware files and metadata for future analysis.
▪ Audit the web server to forensically determine the origin of exploit.
▪ Analyze the infrastructure storage path used for files.
Explanation: A threat actor may send the weapon through web interfaces to
the target server, either in file uploads or coded web requests. By analyzing
the infrastructure storage path used for files, security measures can be
implemented to monitor and detect malware deliveries through these methods.
120. Which meta-feature element in the Diamond Model classifies the
general type of intrusion event?
▪ phase
▪ results
▪ methodology
▪ direction
Explanation: Methodology – This is used to classify the general type of event,
such as port scan, phishing, content delivery attack, syn flood, etc.
121. Which Linux command is used to manage processes?
▪ chrootkit
▪ ls
▪ grep
▪ kill
Explanation: The kill command is used to stop, restart, or pause a process.
The chrootkit command is used to check the computer for rootkits, a set of
software tools that can increase the privilege level of a user or grant access to
portions of software normally not allowed. The grep command is used to look
for a file or text within a file. The ls command is used to list files, directories,
and file information.
122. Which tool can be used in a Cisco AVC system to analyze and present
the application analysis data into dashboard reports?
▪ NetFlow
▪ NBAR2
▪ Prime
▪ IPFIX
Explanation: A management and reporting system, such as Cisco Prime, can
be used to analyze and present the application analysis data into dashboard
reports for use by network monitoring personnel.
123. Which Windows Event Viewer log includes events regarding the
operation of drivers, processes, and hardware?
▪ system logs
▪ application logs
▪ security logs
▪ setup logs
By default Windows keeps four types of host logs:
▪ Application logs – events logged by various applications
▪ System logs – events about the operation of drivers, processes, and
hardware
▪ Setup logs – information about the installation of software, including
Windows updates
▪ Security logs – events related to security, such as logon attempts and
operations related to file or object management and access
124. Which method is used to make data unreadable to unauthorized users?
▪ Encrypt the data.
▪ Fragment the data.
▪ Add a checksum to the end of the data.
▪ Assign it a username and password.
Explanation: Network data can be encrypted using various cryptography
applications so that the data is made unreadable to unauthorized users.
Authorized users have the cryptography application so the data can be
unencrypted.
125. Match the tabs of the Windows 10 Task Manager to their functions.
(Not all options are used.)
126. For network systems, which management system addresses the

inventory and control of hardware and software configurations?
▪ vulnerabilitymanagement
▪ risk management
▪ configuration management
Explanation: Configuration management addresses the inventory and control
of hardware and software configurations of network systems.
127. Match the common network technology or protocol with the
description. (Not all options are used.)
128. What are the three core functions provided by the Security Onion?
(Choose three.)
▪ business continuity planning
▪ full packet capture
▪ alert analysis
▪ intrusion detection
▪ securitydevice management
▪ threatcontainment
Explanation: Security Onion is an open source suite of Network Security
Monitoring (NSM) tools for evaluating cybersecurity alerts. For cybersecurity
analysts the Security Onion provides full packet capture, network-based and
host-based intrusion detection systems, and alert analysis tools.
129. In NAT terms, what address type refers to the globally routable IPv4
address of a destination host on the Internet?
▪ outside global
▪ inside global
▪ outside local
▪ inside local
Explanation: From the perspective of a NAT device, inside global addresses
are used by external users to reach internal hosts. Inside local addresses are
the addresses assigned to internal hosts. Outside global addresses are the
addresses of destinations on the external network. Outside local addresses
are the actual private addresses of destination hosts behind other NAT
devices.
130. Which two fields or features does Ethernet examine to determine if a
received frame is passed to the data link layer or discarded by the NIC?
(Choose two.)
▪ CEF
▪ source MAC address
▪ minimum frame size
▪ auto-MDIX
▪ Frame Check Sequence
Explanation: An Ethernet frame is not processed and is discarded if it is
smaller than the minimum (64 bytes) or if the calculated frame check
sequence (FCS) value does not match the received FCS value. Auto-MDIX
(automatic medium-dependent interface crossover) is Layer 1 technology that
detects cable straight-through or crossover types. The source MAC address is
not used to determine how the frame is received. CEF (Cisco Express
Forwarding) is a technology used to expedite Layer 3 switching.
131. Which type of data would be considered an example of volatile data?
▪ web browser cache
▪ memory registers
▪ log files
▪ temp files
Explanation: Volatile data is data stored in memory such as registers, cache,
and RAM, or it is data that exists in transit. Volatile memory is lost when the
computer loses power.
132. What is the main purpose of exploitations by a threat actor through the
weapon delivered to a target during the Cyber Kill Chain exploitation
phase?
▪ Launch a DoS attack.
▪ Send a message back to a CnC controlled by the threat actor.
▪ Break the vulnerability and gain control of the target.
▪ Establish a back door into the system.
Explanation: After the weapon has been delivered, the threat actor uses it to
break the vulnerability and gain control of the target. The threat actor will use
an exploit that gains the effect desired, does it quietly, and avoids detections.
Establishing a back door in the target system is the phase of installation.
133. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to troubleshoot
connectivity between PC1 and PC2 and uses the tracert command from PC1
to do it. Based on the displayed output, where should the administrator
begin troubleshooting?
CyberOps Associate 1.0 Final exam

▪ R1
▪ PC2
▪ SW2
▪ R2
▪ SW1
Explanation: Tracert is used to trace the path a packet takes. The only
successful response was from the first device along the path on the same LAN
as the sending host. The first device is the default gateway on router R1. The
administrator should therefore start troubleshooting at R1.
134. What three security tools does Cisco Talos maintain security incident
detection rule sets for? (Choose three.)
▪ Snort
▪ NetStumbler
▪ Socat
▪ SpamCop
▪ ClamAV
Explanation: Talos maintains the security incident detection rule sets for the
Snort.org, ClamAV, and SpamCop network security tools.
135. Which host-based firewall uses a three-profile approach to configure
the firewall functionality?
▪ iptables
▪ TCP Wrapper
▪ nftables
Explanation: Windows Firewall uses a profile-based approach to configuring
firewall functionality. It uses three profiles, Public, Private, and Domain, to
define firewall functions.
136. When a user visits an online store website that uses HTTPS, the user
browser queries the CA for a CRL. What is the purpose of this query?
▪ to verify the validity of the digital certificate
▪ to request the CA self-signed digital certificate
▪ to check the length of key used for the digital certificate
▪ to negotiate the best encryption to use
Explanation: A digital certificate must be revoked if it is invalid. CAs maintain a
certificate revocation list (CRL), a list of revoked certificate serial numbers that
have been invalidated. The user browser will query the CRL to verify the
validity of a certificate.
137. Which step in the Vulnerability Management Life Cycle determines a
baseline risk profile to eliminate risks based on asset criticality,
vulnerability threat, and asset classification?
▪ discover
▪ assess
▪ prioritize assets
▪ verify
Explanation: The steps in the Vulnerability Management Life Cycle include
these:
▪ Discover – inventory all assets across the network and identify host
details, including operating systems and open services, to identify
vulnerabilities
▪ Prioritize assets – categorize assets into groups or business units, and
assign a business value to asset groups based on their criticality to
business operations
▪ Assess – determine a baseline risk profile to eliminate risks based on
asset criticality, vulnerability threats, and asset classification
▪ Report – measure the level of business risk associated with assets
according to security policies. Document a security plan, monitor
suspicious activity, and describe known vulnerabilities.
▪ Remediate – prioritize according to business risk and fix vulnerabilities
in order of risk
▪ Verify – verify that threats have been eliminated through follow-up audits
138. Which management system implements systems that track the location
and configuration of networked devices and software across an enterprise?
▪ vulnerability management
▪ risk management
▪ configuration management
Explanation: Asset management involves the implementation of systems that
track the location and configuration of networked devices and software across
an enterprise.
139. A network administrator is reviewing server alerts because of reports
of network slowness. The administrator confirms that an alert was an
actual security incident. What is the security alert classification of this type
of scenario?
▪ false negative
▪ true positive
▪ true negative
▪ false positive
Explanation: True Positive: The alert has been verified to be an actual security
incident.
trigger.
140. Which application layer protocol is used to provide file-sharing and
print services to Microsoft applications?
▪ SMTP
▪ HTTP
▪ SMB
▪ DHCP
Explanation: SMB is used in Microsoft networking for file-sharing and print
services. The Linux operating system provides a method of sharing resources
with Microsoft networks by using a version of SMB called SAMBA.
141. Which device in a layered defense-in-depth approach denies
connections initiated from untrusted networks to internal networks, but
allows internal users within an organization to connect to untrusted
networks?
▪ access layer switch
▪ firewall
▪ internal router
▪ IPS
Explanation: A firewall is typically a second line of defense in a layered
defense-in-depth approach to network security. The firewall typically connects
to an edge router that connects to the service provider. The firewall tracks
connections initiated within the company going out of the company and denies
initiation of connections from external untrusted networks going to internal
trusted networks.
142. What are two potential network problems that can result from ARP
operation? (Choose two.)
▪ Large numbers of ARP request broadcasts could cause the host MAC
address table to overflow and prevent the host from communicating on
the network.
▪ On large networks with low bandwidth, multiple ARP broadcasts
could cause data communication delays.
▪ Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address
mappings in ARP messages with the intent of intercepting network
traffic.
▪ Multiple ARP replies result in the switch MAC address table containing
entries that match the MAC addresses of hosts that are connected to
the relevant switch port.
▪ Manually configuring static ARP associations could facilitate ARP
poisoning or MAC address spoofing.
Explanation: Large numbers of ARP broadcast messages could cause
momentary data communications delays. Network attackers could manipulate
MAC address and IP address mappings in ARP messages with the intent to
intercept network traffic. ARP requests and replies cause entries to be made
into the ARP table, not the MAC address table. ARP table overflows are very
unlikely. Manually configuring static ARP associations is a way to prevent, not
facilitate, ARP poisoning and MAC address spoofing. Multiple ARP replies
resulting in the switch MAC address table containing entries that match the
MAC addresses of connected nodes and are associated with the relevant
switch port are required for normal switch frame forwarding operations. It is not
an ARP caused network problem.
143. Which three procedures in Sguil are provided to security analysts to
address alerts? (Choose three.)
▪ Escalate an uncertain alert.
▪ Correlate similar alerts into a single line.
▪ Categorize true positives.
▪ Pivot to other information sources and tools.
▪ Construct queries using Query Builder.
▪ Expire false positives.
Explanation: Sguil is a tool for addressing alerts. Three tasks can be
completed in Sguil to manage alerts:
▪ Alerts that have been found to be false positives can be expired.
▪ An alert can be escalated if the cybersecurity analyst is uncertain how to
handle it.
▪ Events that have been identified as true positives can be categorized.
144. Match the SOC metric with the description. (Not all options apply.)
145. Which two services are provided by the NetFlow tool? (Choose two.)
▪ QoS configuration
▪ usage-based network billing
▪ log analysis
▪ access list monitoring
▪ network monitoring
Explanation: NetFlow efficiently provides an important set of services for IP
applications including network traffic accounting, usage-based network billing,
network planning, security, denial of service monitoring capabilities, and
network monitoring.
146. An administrator discovers that a user is accessing a newly established
website that may be detrimental to company security. What action should
the administrator take first in terms of the security policy?
▪ Ask the user to stop immediately and inform the user that this
constitutes grounds for dismissal.
▪ Create a firewall rule blocking the respective website.
▪ Revise the AUP immediately and get all users to sign the updated AUP.
▪ Immediately suspend the network privileges of the user.
Explanation: One of the most common security policy components is an AUP.
This can also be referred to as an appropriate use policy. This component
defines what users are allowed and not allowed to do on the various system
components. This includes the type of traffic that is allowed on the network.
The AUP should be as explicit as possible to avoid misunderstanding.
147. Which two tasks can be performed by a local DNS server? (Choose
two.)
▪ allowing data transfer between two network devices
▪ retrieving email messages
▪ providing IP addresses to local hosts
▪ forwarding name resolution requests between servers
▪ mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts
Explanation: Two important functions of DNS are to (1) provide IP addresses
for domain names such as http://www.cisco.com, and (2) forward requests that
cannot be resolved to other servers in order to provide domain name to IP
address translation. DHCP provides IP addressing information to local
devices. A file transfer protocol such as FTP, SFTP, or TFTP provides file
sharing services. IMAP or POP can be used to retrieve an email message
from a server.
148. Which type of event is logged in Cisco Next-Generation IPS devices
(NGIPS) using FirePOWER Services when changes have been detected in the
monitored network?
▪ intrusion
▪ connection
▪ host or endpoint
▪ network discovery
Explanation: Network discovery events in Cisco NGIPS represent changes
that have been detected in the monitored network.
149. Which two actions should be taken during the preparation phase of the
incident response life cycle defined by NIST? (Choose two.)
▪ Acquire and deploy the tools that are needed to investigate incidents.
▪ Detect all the incidents that occurred.
▪ Meet with all involved parties to discuss the incident that took place.
▪ Create and train the CSIRT.
▪ Fullyanalyze the incident.
Explanation: According to the guideline defined in the NIST Incident
Response Life Cycle, several actions should be taken during the preparation
phase including (1) creating and training the CSIRT and (2) acquiring and
deploying the tools needed by the team to investigate incidents.
150. What subnet mask is represented by the slash notation /20?
▪ 255.255.255.0
▪ 255.255.255.248
▪ 255.255.255.192
▪ 255.255.240.0
▪ 255.255.224.0
Explanation: The slash notation /20 represents a subnet mask with 20 1s.
This would translate to: 11111111.11111111.11110000.0000, which in turn
would convert into 255.255.240.0.
151. What is the benefit of converting log file data into a common schema?
▪ creates a data model based on fields of data from a source
▪ creates a set of regex-based field extractions
▪ allows the implementation of partial normalization and inspection
▪ allows easy processing and analysis of datasets
Explanation: When data is converted into a universal format, it can be
effectively structured for performing fast queries and event analysis.
152. Which Cisco sponsored certification is designed to provide the first
step in acquiring the knowledge and skills to work with a SOC team?
▪ CCNA CyberOps Associate
▪ CCNA Cloud
▪ CCNA Security
▪ CCNA Data Center
Explanation: The Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate certification provides a
valuable first step in acquiring the knowledge and skills needed to work with a
SOC team. It can be a valuable part of a career in the exciting and growing
field of cybersecurity operations.
153. Which three IP addresses are considered private addresses? (Choose
three.)
▪ 198.168.6.18
▪ 192.168.5.29
▪ 172.68.83.35
▪ 128.37.255.6
▪ 172.17.254.4
▪ 10.234.2.1
Explanation:The designated private IP addresses are within the three IP
address ranges:
▪ 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255
▪ 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255
▪ 192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255
154. When establishing a network profile for an organization, which
element describes the time between the establishment of a data flow and its
termination?
▪ bandwidth of the Internet connection
▪ routing protocol convergence
▪ session duration
▪ total throughput
as the following:
Session duration – the time between the establishment of a data flow and its
termination
155. What are the stages that a wireless device completes before it can
communicate over a wireless LAN network?
▪ discover a wireless AP, authenticate with the AP, associate with the
AP
▪ discover a wireless AP, associate with the AP, authorize with the AP
▪ discover a wireless AP, associate with the AP, authenticate with the AP
▪ discover a wireless AP, authorize with the AP, associate with the AP
156. Match the correct sequence of steps typically taken by a threat actor
carrying out a domain shadowing attack.
157. What are two properties of a cryptographic hash function? (Choose
two.)
▪ Complex inputs will produce complex hashes.
▪ The output is a fixed length.
▪ The hash function is one way and irreversible.
▪ Hash functions can be duplicated for authentication purposes.
▪ The input for a particular hash algorithm has to have a fixed size.
Explanation: A cryptographic hash function should have the following
properties:The input can be any length.
The output has a fixed length.
The hash value is relatively easy to compute for any given input.
The hash is one way and not reversible.
The hash is collision free, meaning that two different input values will result in
different hash values
158. Refer to the exhibit. The switches have a default configuration. Host A
needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC
address for the default gateway. Which network devices will receive the
ARP request sent by host A?
i360201v3n1_275353.png
▪ only host D
▪ only hosts A, B, C, and D
▪ only hosts B and C
▪ only hosts B, C, and router R1
▪ only hosts A, B, and C
▪ only router R1
159. Which type of evidence cannot prove an IT security fact on its own?
▪ hearsay
▪ corroborative
▪ best
▪ indirect
Explanation: Indirect evidence cannot prove a fact on its own, but direct
evidence can. Corroborative evidence is supporting information. Best evidence
is most reliable because it is something concrete such as a signed contract.
160. What is a characteristic of a probabilistic analysis in an alert
evaluation?
▪ each event an inevitable result of antecedent causes
▪ precise methods that yield the same result every time by relying on
predefined conditions
▪ random variables that create difficulty in knowing the outcome of any
given event with certainty
▪ analysis of applications that conform to application/networking standards
161. Why would a network administrator choose Linux as an operating
system in the Security Operations Center (SOC)?
▪ It is easier to use than other server operating systems.
▪ It can be acquired at no charge.
▪ More network applications are created for this environment.
▪ The administrator has control over specific security functions, but not
standard applications.
Linux is open source – Any person can acquire Linux at no charge and modify
it to fit specific needs. This flexibility allows analysts and administrators to
tailor-build an operating system specifically for security analysis.
162. A technician needs to verify file permissions on a specific Linux file.
Which command would the technician use?
▪ cd
▪ sudo
▪ ls -l
▪ vi
163. Which two protocols may devices use in the application process that
sends email? (Choose two.)
▪ HTTP
▪ POP
▪ POP3
▪ DNS
▪ IMAP
▪ SMTP
Explanation: POP, POP3, and IMAP are protocols that are used to retrieve
email from servers. SMTP is the default protocol that is used to send email.
DNS may be used by the sender email server to find the address of the
destination email server. HTTP is a protocol for send and receiving web
pages.
164. Which file system type was specifically created for optical disk media?
▪ ext3
▪ HFS+
▪ CDFS
▪ ext2
165. A piece of malware has gained access to a workstation and issued a
DNS lookup query to a CnC server. What is the purpose of this attack?
▪ to check the domain name of the workstation
▪ to send stolen sensitive data with encoding
▪ to masquerade the IP address of the workstation
▪ to request a change of the IP address
Explanation: A piece of malware, after accessing a host, may exploit the DNS
service by communicating with command-and-control (CnC) servers and then
exfiltrate data in traffic disguised as normal DNS lookup queries. Various types
of encoding, such as base64, 8-bit binary, and hex can be used to camouflage
the data and evade basic data loss prevention (DLP) measures.
166. Refer to the exhibit. Which field in the Sguil event window indicates the
number of times an event is detected for the same source and destination IP
address?
▪ CNT
▪ Pr
▪ ST
▪ AlertID
Explanation: The CNT field indicates the number of times an event is detected
from the same source and destination IP address. Having a high number of
events can indicated a problem with event signatures.
167. Refer to the exhibit. The IP address of which device interface should be
used as the default gateway setting of host H1?
▪ R1: G0/0
▪ R2: S0/0/0
▪ R2: S0/0/1
▪ R1: S0/0/0
Explanation: The default gateway for host H1 is the router interface that is
attached to the LAN that H1 is a member of. In this case, that is the G0/0
interface of R1. H1 should be configured with the IP address of that interface
in its addressing settings. R1 will provide routing services to packets from H1
that need to be forwarded to remote networks.
168. According to information outlined by the Cyber Kill Chain, which two
approaches can help identify reconnaissance threats? (Choose two.)
▪ Analyze web log alerts and historical search data.
▪ Audit endpoints to forensically determine origin of exploit.
▪ Build playbooks for detecting browser behavior.
▪ Conduct full malware analysis.
▪ Understand targeted servers, people, and data available to attack.
Threat actors may use port scanning toward a web server of an organization
and identify vulnerabilities on the server. They may visit the web server to
collect information about the organization. The web server logging should be
enabled and the logging data should be analyzed to identify possible
reconnaissance threats. Building playbooks by filtering and combining related
web activities by visitors can sometimes reveal the intentions of threat actors.
169. Which two ICMPv6 messages are used during the Ethernet MAC
address resolution process? (Choose two.)
▪ echo request
Explanation: IPv6 uses neighbor solicitation (NS) and neighbor advertisement
(NA) ICMPv6 messages for MAC address resolution.
170. What best describes the destination IPv4 address that is used by
multicasting?
▪ a single IP multicast address that is used by all destinations in a group
▪ an IP address that is unique for each destination in the group
▪ a group address that shares the last 23 bits with the source IPv4
address
▪ a 48 bit address that is determined by the number of members in the
multicast group
Explain:
The destination multicast IPv4 address is a group address, which is a single IP
multicast address within the Class D range.
171. What is the result of using security devices that include HTTPS
decryption and inspection services?
▪ The devices require continuous monitoring and fine tuning.
▪ The devices introduce processing delays and privacy issues.
▪ The devices must have preconfigured usernames and passwords for all
users.
▪ Monthly service contracts with reputable web filtering sites can be
costly.
Explanation: HTTPS adds extra overhead to the HTTP-formed packet.
HTTPS encrypts using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). Even though some
devices can perform SSL decryption and inspection, this can present
processing and privacy issues.
172. What is a disadvantage of DDNS?
▪ DDNS is considered malignant and must be monitored by security
software.
▪ DDNS is unable to co-exist on a network subdomain that also uses
DNS.
▪ Using free DDNS services, threat actors can quickly and easily
generate subdomains and change DNS records.
▪ Using DDNS, a change in an existing IP address mapping can take over
24 hours and could result in a disruption of connectivity.
Explanation: Dynamic DNS can be abused by threat actors in various ways.
Free DDNS services are especially useful to threat actors. DDNS can be used
to facilitate the rapid change of IP address for malware command-and-control
servers after the current IP address has become widely blocked.
173. Match the network-based antimalware solution to the function. (Not all
options are used.)
174. A threat actor has identified the potential vulnerability of the web
server of an organization and is building an attack. What will the threat
actor possibly do to build an attack weapon?
▪ Obtain an automated tool in order to deliver the malware payload
through the vulnerability.
▪ Install a webshell on the web server for persistent access.
▪ Create a point of persistence by adding services.
▪ Collect credentials of the web server developers and administrators.
One tactic of weaponization used by a threat actor after the vulnerability is
identified is to obtain an automated tool to deliver the malware payload
through the vulnerability.
175. Which tool included in the Security Onion is a series of software
plugins that send different types of data to the Elasticsearch data stores?
▪ OSSEC
▪ Curator
▪ Beats
▪ ElastAlert
Explanation: Beats – This is a series of software plugins that send different
types of data to the Elasticsearch data stores.
176. Which term is used to describe the process of identifying the NSM-
related data to be gathered?
▪ data archiving
▪ data normalization
▪ data reduction
▪ data retention
177. Match the alert classification with the description.
178. According to NIST, which step in the digital forensics process involves
preparing and presenting information that resulted from scrutinizing data?
▪ examination
▪ collection
▪ reporting
▪ analysis
Explanation: NIST describes the digital forensics process as involving the
following four steps:
Collection – the identification of potential sources of forensic data and
acquisition, handling, and storage of that data
Examination – assessing and extracting relevant information from the collected
data. This may involve decompression or decryption of the data
Analysis – drawing conclusions from the data. Salient features, such as
people, places, times, events, and so on should be documented
Reporting – preparing and presenting information that resulted from the
analysis. Reporting should be impartial and alternative explanations should be
offered if appropriate
179. Refer to the exhibit. A cybersecurity analyst is using Sguil to verify
security alerts. How is the current view sorted?
▪ by sensor number
▪ by source IP
▪ by date/time
▪ by frequency
Explanation: The CNT column, between the ST and Sensor columns, displays
the frequency of alerts. By sorting with frfequency, the analyst will get a better
sense of what has happened on the network.
180. Which two options are window managers for Linux? (Choose two.)
▪ File Explorer
▪ Kali
▪ Gnome
▪ PenTesting
▪ KDE
181. What are the two methods that a wireless NIC can use to discover an
AP? (Choose two.)
▪ transmitting a probe request
▪ sending an ARP request broadcast
▪ initiating a three-way handshake
▪ receiving a broadcast beacon frame
▪ sending a multicast frame
Explanation: Two methods can be used by a wireless device to discover and
register with an access point: passive mode and active mode. In passive
mode, the AP sends a broadcast beacon frame that contains the SSID and
other wireless settings. In active mode, the wireless device must be manually
configured for the SSID, and then the device broadcasts a probe request.
182. A client device has initiated a secure HTTP request to a web browser.
Which well-known port address number is associated with the destination
address?
▪ 110
▪ 80
▪ 443
▪ 404
Explanation: Port numbers are used in TCP and UDP communications to
differentiate between the various services running on a device. The well-
known port number used by HTTPs is port 443.
183. Which term describes evidence that is in its original state?
▪ Corroborating evidence
▪ Best evidence
▪ Indirect evidence
▪ Direct evidence
Explanation: Evidence can be classified as follows:
Best evidence: This is evidence that is in its original state. It might be storage
devices used by an accused or archives of files that can be proven to be
unaltered.
Corroborating evidence: This is evidence that supports a propositionalready
supported by initial evidence, therefore confirming the original proposition.
Indirect evidence: This evidence acts in combination with other facts to
establish a hypothesis.
184. Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose
three.)
▪ The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
▪ The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
▪ The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
▪ The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
▪ All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.
▪ Only the DHCP server receives the message.
Explanation: When a host configured to use DHCP powers up on a network it
sends a DHCPDISCOVER message. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF is the L2 broadcast
address. A DHCP server replies with a unicast DHCPOFFER message back to
the host.
185. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is sending a packet to the Server on the
remote network. Router R1 is performing NAT overload. From the
perspective of the PC, match the NAT address type with the correct IP
address. (Not all options are used.)
Explanation: The inside local address is the private IP address of the source
or the PC in this instance. The inside global address is the translated address
of the source or the address as seen by the outside device. Since the PC is
using the outside address of the R1 router, the inside global address is
192.0.2.1. The outside addressing is simply the address of the server or
203.0.113.5.
186. Which step in the Vulnerability Management Life Cycle categorizes
assets into groups or business units, and assigns a business value to asset
groups based on their criticality to business operations?
▪ remediate
▪ prioritize assets
▪ report
▪ assess
Explanation: The steps in the Vulnerability Management Life Cycle include
these:
Discover – inventory all assets across the network and identify host details,
including operating systems and open services to identify vulnerabilities
Prioritize assets – categorize assets into groups or business units, and assign
a business value to asset groups based on their criticality to business
operations
Assess – determine a baseline risk profile to eliminate risks based on asset
criticality, vulnerability threats, and asset classification
Report – measure the level of business risk associated with your assets
according to your security policies. Document a security plan, monitor
suspicious activity, and describe known vulnerabilities
Remediate – prioritize according to business risk and fix vulnerabilities in order
of risk
Verify – verify that threats have been eliminated through follow-up audits
187. A client application needs to terminate a TCP communication session
with a server. Place the termination process steps in the order that they will
occur. (Not all options are used.)
Explanation: In order to terminate a TCP session, the client sends to the
server a segment with the FIN flag set. The server acknowledges the client by
sending a segment with the ACK flag set. The server sends a FIN to the client
to terminate the server to client session. The client acknowledges the
termination by sending a segment with the ACK flag set.
188. Match the attack vector with the description.
189. Match the security management function with the description.

CyberOps Associate (Version 1.0) – CyberOps Associate 1.0 Final exam answers
Q189
190. What are two functions that are provided by the network layer?
(Choose two.)
▪ directing data packets to destination hosts on other networks
▪ placing data on the network medium
▪ carrying data between processes that are running on source and
destination hosts
▪ providing dedicated end-to-end connections
▪ providing end devices with a unique network identifier
CyberOps Associate (Version 1.0) – CyberOps Associate
(200-201) Certification Practice Exam
1. Match the definition to the Microsoft Windows term. (Not all options are
used.)
Case 2
Match the definition to the Microsoft Windows term. (Not all options are used.)
2. What are two motivating factors for nation-state sponsored threat actors?
(Choose two.)
▪ industrial espionage
▪ showing off their hacking skill
▪ disruption of trade or infrastructure
▪ social or personal causes
▪ financial gain
Explanation: Nation-state threat actors are not typically interested or
motivated by financial gain. They are primarily involved in corporate espionage
or disrupting international trade or critical infrastructure.
3. Match the description to the Linux term. (Not all options are used.)
Other case
4. Match the antimalware approach to the description.
5. Which type of data is used by Cisco Cognitive Intelligence to find
malicious activity that has bypassed security controls, or entered through
unmonitored channels, and is operating inside an enterprise network?
▪ statistical
▪ session
▪ alert
▪ transaction
Explanation: Cisco Cognitive Intelligence utilizes statistical data for statistical
analysis in order to find malicious activity that has bypassed security controls,
or entered through unmonitored channels (including removable media), and is
operating inside the network of an organization.
6. Which type of evasion technique splits malicious payloads into smaller
packets in order to bypass security sensors that do not reassemble the
payloads before scanning them?
▪ pivoting
▪ traffic fragmentation
▪ protocol-level misinterpretation
▪ traffic insertion
Explanation: In order to keep the malicious payload from being recognized by
security sensors, such as IPS or IDS, perpetrators fragment the data into
smaller packets.These fragments can be passed by sensors that do not
reassemble the data before scanning.
7. Which type of cyber attack is a form of MiTM in which the perpetrator
copies IP packets off the network without modifying them?
▪ compromised key
▪ eavesdropping
▪ denial-of-service
▪ IP spoofing
Explanation: An eavesdropping attack is a form of man-in-the-middle in which
the perpetrator just reads or copies IP packets off the network but does not
alter them.
8. Which is an example of social engineering?
▪ an anonymous programmer directing a DDoS attack on a data center
▪ an unidentified person claiming to be a technician collecting user
information from employees
▪ a computer displaying unauthorized pop-ups and adware
▪ the infection of a computer by a virus carried by a Trojan
Explanation: A social engineer attempts to gain the confidence of an
employee and convince that person to divulge confidential and sensitive
information, such as usernames and passwords. DDoS attacks, pop-ups, and
viruses are all examples of software based security threats, not social
engineering.
9. Which component is a pillar of the zero trust security approach that
focuses on the secure access of devices, such as servers, printers, and other
endpoints, including devices attached to IoT?
▪ workflows
▪ workloads
▪ workplace
▪ workforce
Explanation: The workplace pillar focuses on secure access for any and all
devices, including devices on the internet of things (IoT), which connect to
enterprise networks, such as user endpoints, physical and virtual servers,
printers, cameras, HVAC systems, kiosks, infusion pumps, industrial control
systems, and more.
10. A security analyst is reviewing information contained in a Wireshark
capture created during an attempted intrusion. The analyst wants to
correlate the Wireshark information with the log files from two servers that
may have been compromised. What type of information can be used to
correlate the events found in these multiple data sets?
▪ ISP geolocation data
▪ IP five-tuples
▪ logged-in user account
▪ ownership metadata
Explanation: The source and destination IP address, ports, and protocol (the
IP five-tuples) can be used to correlate different data sets when analyzing an
intrusion.
11. A security analyst is investigating a cyber attack that began by
compromising one file system through a vulnerability in a custom software
application. The attack now appears to be affecting additional file systems
under the control of another security authority. Which CVSS v3.0 base
exploitability metric score is increased by this attack characteristic?
▪ privileges required
▪ scope
▪ attack complexity
Explanation: The scope metric is impacted by an exploited vulnerability that
can affect resources beyond the authorized privileges of the vulnerable
component or that are managed by a different security authority.
12. Which regular expression would match any string that contains 4
consecutive zeros?
▪ {0-4}
▪ [0-4]
▪ 0{4}
▪ ^0000
Explanation: The regular expression 0{4} matches any string that contains 4
repetitions of zero or 4 consecutive zeros.
13. Refer to the exhibit. Which technology generated the event log?
▪ Wireshark
▪ Netflow
▪ web proxy
▪ syslog
Explanation: The source of the output is Netflow.
14. Refer to the exhibit. A security specialist is using Wireshark to review a
PCAP file generated by tcpdump . When the client initiated a file download
request, which source socket pair was used?
▪ 209.165.202.133:48598
▪ 209.165.202.133:6666
▪ 209.165.200.235:6666
▪ 209.165.200.235:48598
Explanation: The combination of the source IP address and source port
number, or the destination IP address and destination port number, is known
as a socket. A socket is shown as the IP address and associated port number
with a colon in between the two (IP_address:port_number).
15. Match the security service with the description.
16. Using Tcpdump and Wireshark, a security analyst extracts a
downloaded file from a pcap file. The analyst suspects that the file is a virus
and wants to know the file type for further examination. Which Linux
command can be used to determine the file type?
▪ file
▪ tail
▪ nano
▪ ls -l
Explanation: The Linux file command can be used to determine a file type,
such as whether it is executable, ASCII text, or zip.
17. Match the IPS alarm with the description.
CyberOps Associate (Version 1.0) – CyberOps Associate (200-201) Certification
Practice Exam
18. What is a feature of an IPS?
▪ It can stop malicious packets.
▪ It is deployed in offline mode.
▪ It has no impact on latency.
▪ It is primarily focused on identifying possible incidents.
Explanation: An advantage of an intrusion prevention systems (IPS) is that it
can identify and stop malicious packets. However, because an IPS is deployed
inline, it can add latency to the network.
19. Which three fields are found in both the TCP and UDP headers? (Choose
three.)
▪ window
▪ checksum
▪ options
▪ sequence number
▪ destination port
▪ source port
Explanation: The UPD header has four fields. Three of these fields are in
common with the TCP header. These three fields are the source port,
destination port, and checksum.
20. What will match the regular expression ^83?
▪ any string that includes 83
▪ any string that begins with 83
▪ any string with values greater than 83
▪ any string that ends with 83
Explanation: The expression ^83 indicates any string that begins with 83 will
be matched.
21. What is a key difference between the data captured by NetFlow and data
captured by Wireshark?
▪ NetFlow provides transaction data whereas Wireshark provides session
data.
▪ NetFlow data is analyzed by tcpdump whereas Wireshark data is
analyzed by nfdump.
▪ NetFlow collects metadata from a network flow whereas Wireshark
captures full data packets.
▪ NetFlow data shows network flow contents whereas Wireshark data
shows network flow statistics.
Explanation: Wireshark captures the entire contents of a packet. NetFlow
does not. Instead, NetFlow collects metadata, or data about the flow.
22. Which three IPv4 header fields have no equivalent in an IPv6 header?
(Choose three.)
▪ flag
▪ identification
▪ TTL
▪ fragment offset
▪ version
▪ protocol
Explanation: Unlike IPv4, IPv6 routers do not perform fragmentation.
Therefore, all three fields supporting fragmentation in the IPv4 header are
removed and have no equivalent in the IPv6 header. These three fields are
fragment offset, flag, and identification. IPv6 does support host packet
fragmentation through the use of extension headers, which are not part of the
IPv6 header.
23. What classification is used for an alert that correctly identifies that an
exploit has occurred?
▪ false negative
▪ false positive
▪ true positive
▪ true negative
Explanation: A true positive occurs when an IDS and IPS signature is
correctly fired and an alarm is generated when offending traffic is detected.
24. Match the NIST incident response life cycle phase with the description.
25. Place the seven steps defined in the Cyber Kill Chain in the correct
order.
26. During the detection and analysis phase of the NIST incident response
process life cycle, which sign category is used to describe that an incident
might occur in the future?
▪ attrition
▪ impersonation
▪ precursor
▪ indicator
Explanation: There are two categories for the signs of an incident:
▪ Precursor – a sign that an incident might occur in the future
▪ Indicator – a sign that an incident might already have occurred or is
currently occurring
27. According to the Cyber Kill Chain model, after a weapon is delivered to a
targeted system, what is the next step that a threat actor would take?
▪ action on objectives
▪ exploitation
▪ weaponization
▪ installation
Explanation: The Cyber Kill Chain specifies seven steps (or phases) and
sequences that a threat actor must complete to accomplish an attack:
▪ Reconnaissance – The threat actor performs research, gathers
intelligence, and selects targets.
▪ Weaponization – The threat actor uses the information from the
reconnaissance phase to develop a weapon against specific targeted
systems.
▪ Delivery – The weapon is transmitted to the target using a delivery
vector.
▪ Exploitation – The threat actor uses the weapon delivered to break the
vulnerability and gain control of the target.
▪ Installation – The threat actor establishes a back door into the system
to allow for continued access to the target.
▪ Command and Control (CnC) – The threat actor establishes command
and control (CnC) with the target system.
▪ Action on Objectives – The threat actor is able to take action on the
target system, thus achieving the original objective.
28. A company is applying the NIST.SP800-61 r2 incident handling process
to security events. What are two examples of incidents that are in the
category of precursor? (Choose two.)
▪ multiple failed logins from an unknown source
▪ log entries that show a response to a port scan
▪ an IDS alert message being sent
▪ a newly-discovered vulnerability in Apache web servers
▪ a host that has been verified as infected with malware
Explanation: As an incident category, the precursor is a sign that an incident
might occur in the future. Examples of precursors are log entries that show a
response to a port scan or a newly-discovered vulnerability in web servers
using Apache.
29. A network administrator is creating a network profile to generate a
network baseline. What is included in the critical asset address space
element?
▪ the time between the establishment of a data flow and its termination
▪ the TCP and UDP daemons and ports that are allowed to be open on
the server
▪ the IP addresses or the logical location of essential systems or data
▪ the list of TCP or UDP processes that are available to accept data
as the following:
Session duratio n – the time between the establishment of a data flow and its
termination
30. Which NIST-defined incident response stakeholder is responsible for
coordinating incident response with other stakeholders and minimizing the
damage of an incident?
▪ human resources
▪ IT support
▪ the legal department
▪ management
Explanation: The management team creates the policies, designs the budget,
and is in charge of staffing all departments. Management is also responsible
for coordinating the incident response with other stakeholders and minimizing
31. What is defined in the policy element of the NIST incident response
plan?
▪ how to handle incidents based on the mission and functions of an
organization
▪ a roadmap for updating the incident response capability
▪ the metrics used for measuring incident response capability in an
organization
▪ how the incident response team of an organization will communicate
with organization stakeholders
Explanation: The policy element of the NIST incident response plan details
how incidents should be handled based on the mission and function of the
organization.
32. What is the responsibility of the human resources department when
handing a security incident as defined by NIST?
▪ Review the incident policies, plans, and procedures for local or federal
guideline violations.
▪ Perform disciplinary actions if an incident is caused by an employee.
▪ Coordinate the incident response with other stakeholders and minimize
▪ Perform actions to minimize the effectiveness of the attack and preserve
evidence.
Explanation: The human resources department may be called upon to
perform disciplinary measures if an incident is caused by an employee.
33. What is the benefit of a defense-in-depth approach?
▪ All network vulnerabilities are mitigated.
▪ The need for firewalls is eliminated.
▪ Only a single layer of security at the network core is required.
▪ The effectiveness of other security measures is not impacted when a
security mechanism fails.
Explanation: The benefit of the defense-in-depth approach is that network
defenses are implemented in layers so that failure of any single security
mechanism does not impact other secuirty measures.
34. Which type of analysis relies on predefined conditions and can analyze
applications that only use well-known fixed ports?
▪ statistical
▪ deterministic
▪ log
▪ probabilistic
Explanation: Deterministic analysis uses predefined conditions to analyze
applications that conform to specification standards, such as performing a
port-based analysis.
35. Which type of analysis relies on different methods to establish the
likelihood that a security event has happened or will happen?
▪ deterministic
▪ statistical
▪ log
▪ probabilistic
Explanation: Probabilistic methods use powerful tools to create a probabilistic
answer as a result of analyzing applications.
36. Which access control model allows users to control access to data as an
owner of that data?
▪ mandatory access control
▪ nondiscretionary access control
▪ discretionary access control
▪ attribute-based access control
Explanation: In the discretionary access control (DAC) model, users can
control access to data as owners of the data.
37. What are the three impact metrics contained in the CVSS 3.0 Base Metric
Group? (Choose three.)
▪ confidentiality
▪ remediation level
▪ integrity
▪ attack vector
▪ exploit
▪ availability
Explanation: The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is a vendor-
neutral, industry standard, open framework for weighing the risks of a
vulnerability using a variety of metrics. CVSS uses three groups of metrics to
assess vulnerability, the Base Metric Group, Temporal Metric Group, and
Environmental Metric Group. The Base Metric Group has two classes of
metrics (exploitability and impact). The impact metrics are rooted in the
following areas: confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
38. Which access control model applies the strictest access control and is
often used in military and mission critical applications?
▪ discretionary
▪ mandatory
▪ nondiscretionary
▪ attribute-based
Explanation: Military and mission critical applications typically use mandatory
access control which applies the strictest access control to protect network
resources.
40. What is the principle behind the nondiscretionary access control model?
▪ It applies the strictest access control possible.
▪ It allows access decisions to be based on roles and responsibilities of
a user within the organization.
▪ It allows users to control access to their data as owners of that data.
▪ It allows access based on attributes of the object be to accessed.
Explanation: The nondiscretionary access control model used the roles and
responsibilities of the user as the basis for access decisions.
41. Match the information security component with the description.
42. Which attack is integrated with the lowest levels of the operating system
of a host and attempts to completely hide the activities of the threat actor
on the local system?
▪ rootkit
▪ traffic insertion
▪ traffic substitution
▪ encryption and tunneling
Explanation: A rootkit is a complex attack tool and it integrates with the lowest
levels of the operating system. The goal of the rootkit is to completely hide the
activities of the threat actor on the local system.
43. Which tool captures full data packets with a command-line interface
only?
▪ nfdump
▪ NBAR2
▪ tcpdump
▪ Wireshark
Explanation: The command-line tool tcpdump is a packet analyzer. Wireshark
is a packet analyzer with a GUI interface.
44. To which category of security attacks does man-in-the-middle belong?
▪ DoS
▪ access
▪ reconnaissance
Explanation: With a man-in-the-middle attack, a threat actor is positioned in
between two legitimate entities in order to read, modify, or redirect the data
that passes between the two parties.
45. What is an example of a local exploit?
▪ Port scanning is used to determine if the Telnet service is running on a
remote server.
▪ A threat actor performs a brute force attack on an enterprise edge router
to gain illegal access.
▪ A buffer overflow attack is launched against an online shopping website
and causes the server crash.
▪ A threat actor tries to gain the user password of a remote host by
using a keyboard capture software installed on it by a Trojan.
Explanation: Vulnerability exploits may be remote or local. In a local exploit,
the threat actor has some type of user access to the end system, either
physically or through remote access. The exploitation activity is within the local
network.
46. Which Cisco appliance can be used to filter network traffic contents to
report and deny traffic based on the web server reputation?
▪ WSA
▪ AVC
▪ ASA
▪ ESA
Explanation: The Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA) acts as a web proxy
for an enterprise network. WSA can provide many types of logs related to web
traffic security including ACL decision logs, malware scan logs, and web
reputation filtering logs. The Cisco Email Security Appliance (ESA) is a tool to
monitor most aspects of email delivery, system functioning, antivirus, antispam
operations, and blacklist and whitelist decisions. The Cisco ASA is a firewall
appliance. The Cisco Application Visibility and Control (AVC) system combines
multiple technologies to recognize, analyze, and control over 1000
applications.
47. Which evasion method describes the situation that after gaining access
to the administrator password on a compromised host, a threat actor is
attempting to login to another host using the same credentials?
▪ pivoting
▪ traffic substitution
▪ protocol-level misinterpretation
Explanation: Pivoting is an evasion method that assumes the threat actor has
compromised an inside host and the actor wants to expand the access further
into the compromised network.
48. What are two examples of DoS attacks? (Choose two.)
▪ port scanning
▪ SQL injection
▪ ping of death
▪ phishing
▪ buffer overflow
Explanation: The buffer overflow and ping of death DoS attacks exploit
system memory-related flaws on a server by sending an unexpected amount
of data or malformed data to the server.
▪ phishing
▪ reconnaissance
50. Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst is reviewing an alert message
generated by Snort. What does the number 2100498 in the message
indicate?
▪ the id of the user that triggers the alert

▪ the message length in bits
▪ the Snort rule that is triggered
▪ the session number of the message
Explanation: The sid field in a Snort alert message indicates the Snort security
rule that is triggered.
51. Which two attacks target web servers through exploiting possible
vulnerabilities of input functions used by an application? (Choose two.)
▪ SQL injection
▪ port scanning
▪ port redirection
▪ trust exploitation
▪ cross-site scripting
Explanation: When a web application uses input fields to collect data from
clients, threat actors may exploit possible vulnerabilities for entering malicious
commands. The malicious commands that are executed through the web
application might affect the OS on the web server. SQL injection and cross-site
scripting are two different types of command injection attacks.
52. Which security function is provided by encryption algorithms?
▪ key management
▪ authorization
▪ integrity
▪ confidentiality
Explanation: Encryption algorithms are used to provide data confidentiality,
which ensures that if data is intercepted in transit, it cannot be read.
53. Match the Windows term to the description.
54. Which security endpoint setting would be used by a security analyst to
determine if a computer has been configured to prevent a particular
application from running?
▪ baselining
▪ blacklisting
▪ services
▪ whitelisting
Explanation: Blacklisting can be used on a local system or updated on
security devices such as a firewall. Blacklists can be manually entered or
obtained from a centralized security system. Blacklists are applications that
are prevented from executing because they pose a security risk to the
individual system and potentially the company.
55. Refer to the exhibit. Which technology would contain information
similar to the data shown for infrastructure devices within a company?
▪ Apache server
▪ firewall
▪ HIDS
▪ syslog server
Explanation: A syslog server consolidates and maintains messages from
infrastructure devices that have been configured to send logging information.
Data from the syslog server can be analyzed to detect anomalies.
56. At the request of investors, a company is proceeding with cyber
attribution with a particular attack that was conducted from an external
source. Which security term is used to describe the person or device
responsible for the attack?
▪ threat actor
▪ fragmenter
▪ tunneler
▪ skeleton
Explanation: Some people may use the common word of “hacker” to describe
a threat actor. A threat actor is an entity that is involved with an incident that
impacts or has the potential to impact an organization in such a way that it is
considered a security risk or threat.
57. Which Windows application is commonly used by a cybersecurity
analyst to view Microsoft IIS access logs?
▪ Event Viewer
▪ Notepad
▪ SIEM
▪ Word
Explanation: Event Viewer is an application on a Windows-based device used
to view event logs including IIS access logs.
58. Which two algorithms use a hashing function to ensure message
integrity? (Choose two.)
▪ SEAL
▪ AES
▪ 3DES
▪ MD5
▪ SHA
Explanation: Hashing algorithms are used to provide data integrity, which
ensures that the data has not changed during transmission. MD5 and SHA are
commonly used hashing algorithms.
59. Which type of evidence cannot prove an IT security fact on its own?
▪ best
▪ corroborative
▪ indirect
▪ hearsay
Explanation: Indirect evidence cannot prove a fact on its own, but direct
evidence can. Corroborative evidence is supporting information. Best evidence
is most reliable because it is something concrete such as a signed contract.
60. Refer to the exhibit. Approximately what percentage of the physical
memory is still available on this Windows system?
▪ 32%
▪ 53%
▪ 68%
▪ 90%
Explanation: The graphic shows that there is 5.1 GB (187 MB) of memory in
use with 10.6 GB still available. Together this adds up to 16 GB of total
physical memory. 5 GB is approximately 32% of 16 GB leaving 68% still
available.
61. Which Windows tool can be used by a cybersecurity administrator to
secure stand-alone computers that are not part of an active directory
domain?
▪ PowerShell
▪ Windows Defender
Explanation: Windows systems that are not part of an Active Directory
Domain can use the Windows Local Security Policy to enforce security
settings on each stand-alone system.
62. What are three benefits of using symbolic links over hard links in Linux?
(Choose three.)
▪ They can show the location of the original file.
▪ Symbolic links can be exported.
▪ They can be compressed.
▪ They can be encrypted.
▪ They can link to a directory.
▪ They can link to a file in a different file system.
Explanation: In Linux, a hard link is another file that points to the same
location as the original file. A soft link (also called a symbolic link or a symlink)
is a link to another file system name. Hard links are limited to the file system in
which they are created and they cannot link to a directory; soft links are not
limited to the same file system and they can link to a directory. To see the
location of the original file for a symbolic link use the ls –l command.
63. When attempting to improve system performance for Linux computers
with a limited amount of memory, why is increasing the size of the swap file
system not considered the best solution?
▪ A swap file system uses hard disk space to store inactive RAM content.
▪ A swap file system cannot be mounted on an MBR partition.
▪ A swap file system only supports the ex2 file system.
▪ A swap file system does not have a specific file system.
Explanation: The swap file system is used by Linux when it runs out of
physical memory. When needed, the kernel moves inactive RAM content to
the swap partition on the hard disk. Storing and retrieving content in the swap
partition is much slower than RAM is, and therefore using the swap partition
should not be considered the best solution to improving system performance.
64. Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst is reviewing the logs of an Apache
web server. Which action should the analyst take based on the output
shown?
▪ Notifythe appropriate security administration for the country.

▪ Restart the server.
▪ Notify the server administrator.
▪ Ignore the message.
Explanation: An Apache web server is an open source server that delivers
web pages. Security access logs for an Apache web server include a 3-digit
HTTP code that represents the status of the web request. A code that begins
with 2 indicates access success. A code that begins with 3 represents
redirection. A code that begins with 4 represents a client error and a code that
begins with 5 represents a server error. The server administrator should be
alerted if a server error such as the 503 code occurs.
65. A security professional is making recommendations to a company for
enhancing endpoint security. Which security endpoint technology would be
recommended as an agent-based system to protect hosts against malware?
▪ IPS
▪ HIDS
▪ baselining
▪ blacklisting
Explanation: A host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) is a
comprehensive security application that provides antimalware applications, a
firewall, and monitoring and reporting.
66. Which technique could be used by security personnel to analyze a
suspicious file in a safe environment?
▪ whitelisting
▪ baselining
▪ sandboxing
▪ blacklisting
Explanation: Sandboxing allows suspicious files to be executed and analyzed
in a safe environment. There are free public sandboxes that allow for malware
samples to be uploaded or submitted and analyzed.
67. A cybersecurity analyst has been called to a crime scene that contains
several technology items including a computer. Which technique will be
used so that the information found on the computer can be used in court?
▪ rootkit
▪ log collection
▪ Tor
▪ unaltered disk image
Explanation: A normal file copy does not recover all data on a storage device
so an unaltered disk image is commonly made. An unaltered disk image
preserves the original evidence, thus preventing inadvertent alteration during
the discovery phase. It also allows recreation of the original evidence.
68. Which SOC technology automates security responses by using
predefined playbooks which require a minimum amount of human
intervention?
▪ SOAR
▪ Wireshark
▪ NetFlow
▪ SIEM
▪ syslog
Explanation: SOAR technology goes a step further than SIEM by integrating
threat intelligence and automating incident investigation and response
workflows based on playbooks developed by the security team.
69. What is the first line of defense when an organization is using a defense-
in-depth approach to network security?
▪ proxy server
▪ firewall
▪ IPS
▪ edge router
Explanation: A defense-in-depth approach uses layers of security measures
starting at the network edge, working through the network, and finally ending
at the network endpoints. Routers at the network edge are the first line of
defense and forward traffic intended for the internal network to the firewall.
70. Which access control model assigns security privileges based on the
position, responsibilities, or job classification of an individual or group
within an organization?
▪ rule-based
▪ role-based
▪ discretionary
▪ mandatory
Explanation: Role-based access control models assign privileges based on
position, responsibilities, or job classification. Users and groups with the same
responsibilities or job classification share the same assigned privileges. This
type of access control is also referred to as nondiscretionary access control.
71. Which metric in the CVSS Base Metric Group is used with an attack
vector?
▪ the presence or absence of the requirement for user interaction in order
for an exploit to be successful
▪ the number of components, software, hardware, or networks, that are
beyond the control of the attacker and that must be present in order
for a vulnerability to be successfully exploited
▪ the determination whether the initial authority changes to a second
authority during the exploit
▪ the proximity of the threat actor to the vulnerability
Explanation: The attack vector is one of several metrics defined in the
Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) Base Metric Group
Exploitability metrics. The attack vector is how close the threat actor is to the
vulnerable component. The farther away the threat actor is to the component,
the higher the severity because threat actors close to the network are easier to
detect and mitigate.
72. Which field in the IPv6 header points to optional network layer
information that is carried in the IPv6 packet?
▪ traffic class
▪ flow label
▪ next header
▪ version
Explanation: Optional Layer 3 information about fragmentation, security, and
mobility is carried inside of extension headers in an IPv6 packet. The next
header field of the IPv6 header acts as a pointer to these optional extension
headers if they are present.
73. Which data security component is provided by hashing algorithms?
▪ integrity
▪ confidentiality
▪ key exchange
▪ authentication
Explanation: Hashing algorithms are used to provide message integrity, which
ensures that data in transit has not changed or been altered.
74. Which attack surface, defined by the SANS Institute, is delivered through
the exploitation of vulnerabilities in web, cloud, or host-based applications?
▪ human
▪ network
▪ host
▪ software
Explanation: The SANS Institute describes three components of the attack
surface:
▪ Network Attack Surface – exploits vulnerabilities in networks
▪ Software Attack Surface – delivered through the exploitation of
vulnerabilities in web, cloud, or host-based software applications
▪ Human Attack Surface – exploits weaknesses in user behavior
75. What is the main goal of using different evasion techniques by threat
actors?
▪ to launch DDoS attacks on targets
▪ to identify vulnerabilities of target systems
▪ to prevent detection by network and host defenses
▪ to gain the trust of a corporate employee in an effort to obtain
credentials
Explanation: Many threat actors use stealthy evasion techniques to disguise
an attack payload because the malware and attack methods are most effective
if they are undetected. The goal is to prevent detection by network and host
defenses.
76. How can NAT/PAT complicate network security monitoring if NetFlow is
being used?
▪ It disguises the application initiated by a user by manipulating port
numbers.
▪ It changes the source and destination MAC addresses.
▪ It conceals the contents of a packet by encrypting the data payload.
▪ It hides internal IP addresses by allowing them to share one or a few
outside IP addresses.
Explanation: NAT/PAT maps multiple internal IP addresses with only a single
or a few outside IP addresses breaking end-to-end flows. The result makes it
difficult to log the inside device that is requesting and receiving the traffic. This
is especially a problem with a NetFlow application because NetFlow flows are
unidirectional and are defined by the addresses and ports that they share.
77. Which statement describes the function provided by the Tor network?
▪ It conceals packet contents by establishing end-to-end tunnels.
▪ It distributes user packets through load balancing.
▪ It allows users to browse the Internet anonymously.
▪ It manipulates packets by mapping IP addresses between two networks.
Explanation: Tor is a software platform and network of P2P hosts that function
as Internet routers on the Tor network. The Tor network allows users to
browse the Internet anonymously.
78. When establishing a server profile for an organization, which element
describes the type of service that an application is allowed to run on the
server?
▪ user account
▪ listening port
▪ service account
Explanation: A server profile should contain some important elements
including these:
▪ Listening ports – the TCP and UDP daemons and ports that are allowed
to be open on the server
▪ User accounts – the parameters defining user access and behavior
▪ Service accounts – the definitions of the type of service that an
application is allowed to run on a server
▪ Software environment – the tasks, processes, and applications that are
79. What will a threat actor do to create a back door on a compromised
target according to the Cyber Kill Chain model?
▪ Add services and autorun keys.
▪ Open a two-way communications channel to the CnC infrastructure.
Explanation: Once a target system is compromised, the threat actor will
establish a back door into the system to allow for continued access to the
target. Adding services and autorun keys is a way to create a point of
persistent access.
80. Which three things will a threat actor do to prepare a DDoS attack
against a target system on the Internet? (Choose three.)
▪ Install a black door on the target system.
▪ Establish two-way communications channels to the CnC
infrastructure with zombies.
▪ Compromise many hosts on the Internet.
▪ Install attack software on zombies.
Explanation: To prepare for launching a DDoS attack, a threat actor will
compromise many hosts on the Internet, called zombies. The threat actor will
then install attack software on zombies and establish a two-way
communications channel to CnC infrastructure with zombies. The threat actor
will issue the command to zombies through the CnC to launch a DDoS attack
against a target system.
81. What is specified in the plan element of the NIST incident response
plan?
▪ organizational structure and the definition of roles, responsibilities, and
levels of authority
▪ metrics for measuring the incident response capability and
effectiveness
▪ priority and severity ratings of incidents
▪ incident handling based on the mission of the organization
Explanation: NIST recommends creating policies, plans, and procedures for
establishing and maintaining a CSIRC. One component of the plan element is
to develop metrics for measuring the incident response capability and its
effectiveness.
82. What is the responsibility of the IT support group when handing an
incident as defined by NIST?
▪ coordinates the incident response with other stakeholders and
minimizes the damage of an incident
▪ performs disciplinary measures if an incident is caused by an employee
▪ performs actions to minimize the effectiveness of the attack and
preserve evidence
▪ reviews the incident policies, plans, and procedures for local or federal
guideline violations
Explanation: IT support best understands the technology used in the
organization and can perform the correct actions to minimize the effectiveness
of the attack and preserve evidence.
83. What is an example of privilege escalation attack?
▪ A DDoS attack is launched against a government server and causes the
server to crash.
▪ A port scanning attack finds that the FTP service is running on a server
that allows anonymous access.
▪ A threat actor performs an access attack and gains the administrator
password.
▪ A threat actor sends an email to an IT manager to request the root
access.
Explanation: With the privilege escalation exploit, vulnerabilities in servers or
access control systems are exploited to grant an unauthorized user, or
software process, higher levels of privilege than either should have. After the
higher privilege is granted, the threat actor can access sensitive information or
take control of a system.
84. A threat hunter is concerned about a significant increase in TCP traffic
sourced from port 53. It is suspected that malicious file transfer traffic is
being tunneled out using the TCP DNS port. Which deep packet inspection
tool can detect the type of application originating the suspicious traffic?
▪ syslog analyzer
▪ NBAR2
▪ NetFlow
▪ IDS/IPS
▪ Wireshark
Explanation: NBAR2 is used to discover the applications that are responsible
for network traffic. NBAR is a classification engine that can recognize a wide
variety of applications, including web-based applications and client/server
applications.
85. Which type of evaluation includes the assessment of the likelihood of an
attack, the type of threat actor likely to perpetrate such an attack, and what
the consequences could be to the organization if the exploit is successful?
▪ risk analysis
▪ vulnerability identification
▪ server profiling
86. When establishing a network profile for an organization, which element
describes the time between the establishment of a data flow and its
termination?
▪ session duration
▪ total throughput
▪ routing protocol convergence
▪ bandwidth of the Internet connection
as the following:
▪ Total throughput – the amount of data passing from a given source to a
given destination in a given period of time
▪ Session duration – the time between the establishment of a data flow
and its termination
▪ Ports used – a list of TCP or UDP processes that are available to accept
data
▪ Critical asset address space – the IP addresses or the logical location of
87. Which term describes a threat actor who has advanced skills and
pursues a social agenda?
▪ organized crime
▪ script kiddie
▪ corporate/industrial spies
▪ hacktivist
Explanation: Threat actors who have advanced hacking abilities and pursue a
social or political agenda are known as hacktivists.
88. Refer to the exhibit. A security specialist is checking if files in the
directory contain ADS data. Which switch should be used to show that a file
has ADS attached?
▪ /a
▪ /r
▪ /d
▪ /s
Explanation: By using NTFS, Alternate Data Streams (ADSs) can be
connected to a file as an attribute called $DATA. The command dir /r can be
used to see if a file contains ADS data.
89. The SOC manager is reviewing the metrics for the previous calendar
quarter and discovers that the MTTD for a breach of password security
perpetrated through the Internet was forty days. What does the MTTD
metric represent within the SOC?
▪ window of time required to stop the spread of malware in the network
▪ the average time that it takes to identify valid security incidents that
have occurred
▪ the time required to stop the incident from causing further damage to
systems or data
▪ the average time that it takes to stop and remediate a security incident
Explanation: Cisco defines MTTD as the average time that it takes for the
SOC personnel to identify that valid security incidents have occurred in the
network.
90. A cybersecurity analyst is performing a CVSS assessment on an attack
where a web link was sent to several employees. Once clicked, an internal
attack was launched. Which CVSS Base Metric Group Exploitability metric is
used to document that the user had to click on the link in order for the
attack to occur?
▪ scope
▪ integrity requirement
▪ availability requirement
Explanation: The CVSS Base Metric Group has the following metrics: attack
vector, attack complexity, privileges required, user interaction, and scope. The
user interaction metric expresses the presence or absence of the requirement
for user interaction in order for an exploit to be successful.
91. When a server profile for an organization is being established, which
element describes the TCP and UDP daemons and ports that are allowed to
be open on the server?
▪ critical asset address space
▪ service accounts
▪ listening ports
Explanation: A server profile will often contain the following:
▪ Listening ports – the TCP and UDP daemons and ports that are allowed
to be open on the server
▪ User accounts – the parameters defining user access and behavior
▪ Service accounts – the definitions of the type of service that an
application is allowed to run on a server
▪ Software environment – the tasks, processes, and applications that are
92. Which two actions should be taken during the preparation phase of the
incident response life cycle defined by NIST? (Choose two.)
▪ Fully analyze the incident.
▪ Meet with all involved parties to discuss the incident that took place.
▪ Detect all the incidents that occurred.
▪ Acquire and deploy the tools that are needed to investigate incidents.
▪ Create and train the CSIRT
Explanation: According to the guideline defined in the NIST Incident
Response Life Cycle, several actions should be taken during the preparation
phase including (1) creating and training the CSIRT and (2) acquiring and
deploying the tools needed by the team to investigate incidents.
93. Match the NIST incident response stakeholder with the role.
94. Match the file system term used in Linux to the function.
▪ supports increased file sizes –> ext4

▪ minimizes file corruption risk in the event of power loss –> journaling
▪ provides hard drive space that holds inactive RAM content –> swap file
system
▪ stores information about how the file system is organized –> MBR
95. Which information security component is compromised in a DDoS
attack?
▪ accountability
▪ confidentiality
▪ integrity
▪ availability
Explanation: Confidentiality, integrity, and availability are the elements
contained in the CIA triad. Availability means that all authorized users have
uninterrupted access to important resources and data. In a DDoS attack,
servers and services are overloaded and applications are no longer available
to users.

Cyberops Associate (Version 1.0) - Modules 1 - 2: Threat Actors and Defenders Group Exam Answers

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What are the major categories of elements in a security operations center?

What are the major categories of elements in a security operations center?

What does the MTTD metric represent within the SOC?

What does the MTTD metric represent within the SOC?

CyberOps Associate (Version 1.

▪A hacker uses techniques to improve the ranking of a website so that

Explanation: SOCs use many metrics as performance indicators of how long it

CyberOps Associate (Version 1.0) – Modules 3 – 4:

-rwxrw-r-- sales staff 1028 May 28 15:50 analyst.txt

▪ used by RedHat and CentOS computers and tracks authentication-

▪ write only ~~> 010

▪ Displays the name of the current working directory: pwd

▪ Step one: The Windows boot loader Winload.exe loads

22. Match the Windows command to the description.

▪ CLI : a text based interface that accepts user commands

▪a type of file that is a reference to another file or directory ~~> symlink

-rwxrw-r-- sales staff 1028 May 28 15:50 analyst.txt

▪ read, write, execute

: a hierarchical database of all system and user information

38. Which Windows tool can be used by a cybersecurity administrator to

4. What is the full decompressed form of the IPv6 address

10. What type of information is contained in a DNS MX record?

▪ TCP: FTP, HTTP, SMTP.

16. What message informs IPv6 enabled interfaces to use stateful

▪ client error: ~~> 4xx

24. Which PDU is processed when a host computer is de-encapsulating a

26. Which type of transmission is used to transmit a single video stream

▪ the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R2

28. What is the result of an ARP poisoning attack?

29. What is the function of the HTTP GET message?

36. What is a basic characteristic of the IP protocol?

37. Which statement describes the ping and tracert commands?

▪ message encoding : the process of converting information from one

▪ The target host is turned off.

45. Refer to the exhibit. A network security analyst is examining captured

1. What is an advantage of HIPS that is not provided by IDS?

22. Which routing protocol is used to exchange routes between internet

33. What is used on WLANs to avoid packet collisions?

▪ hacktivists : threat actors that publicly protest against organizations or

24. Which technology is a proprietary SIEM system?

51. Which two characteristics describe a virus? (Choose two.)

1. Why is asset management a critical function of a growing organization against

▪ Only authorized individuals, entities, or processes can access sensitive information.

CyberOps Associate (Version 1.0) – Modules 21 – 23:

▪ develop and implement the appropriate activities to identify the

17. What does the telemetry function provide in host-based security

35. A company is developing a security policy for secure communication. In

Explanation: Important elements of a network profile include:

CyberOps Associate (Version 1.0) – Modules 24 – 25:

▪ links logs and events from disparate systems or applications, speeding

▪ events logged by various applications : application logs

▪ This is a UDP DNS request to a DNS server.

▪ network path used to establish and maintain command and

▪ the id of the user that triggers the alert

32. What is the purpose for data reduction as it relates to NSM?

Explanation: Network scanning tools are used to probe network devices,

-rwxrw-r-- sales staff 1028 May 28 15:50 data.txt

Explanation: Antimalware programs may detect viruses using three different