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FACULTY OF MEDICINE

DEPARTMENT OF PATHOLOGY
PTH 220
QUIZ 1

FRIDAY, 7TH ARPIL, 2022


TIME: 30 MINUTES
TOTAL MARKS: 50

INSTRUCTIONS:
CIRCLE THE BEST ANSWER IN SECTION A
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN NSECTION B
SECTION A

1. Hypothalamic disorders include?


A. kallman syndrome C. diabetes insipidus
B. syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic D. all of the above
hormone secretion (SIADH)

2. A patient presents with Bitemporal Hemianopsia due to a tumor compressing the optic
chiasm. What type of tumor could the patient have?
A. growth hormone cell adenoma C. choroid plexus papilloma
B. pituitary adenoma D. hemangioma

3. Which of the following clinical features is present in Graves disease?


A. cold intolerance C. cardiac arrhythmias
B. carpal tunnel syndrome D. bradycardia

4. A 26 year old female patient presents with moon face, buffalo hump, centripetal obesity,
hirsutism and hypertension. What is your most likely diagnosis?
A. addisons disease C. all of the above
B. cushings syndrome D. none of the above

5. The CURB 65 score is a practical method used in the assessment of the severity of
pneumonia, components of the CURB 65 score includes all of the following except?
A. cyanosis C. respiratory rate > 30bpm
B. urea > 7mmol D. age >65

6. Which of the following is correct with regards to the stages of pneumonia in their correct
order of progression?
A. red hepatization – congestion – resolution – gray hepatization
B. congestion - gray hepatization – red hepatization – resolution
C. congestion – red hepatization – gray hepatization – resolution
D. congestion – resolution – red hepatization – gray hepatization

7. Multi drug resistant tuberculosis refers to?


A. resistance to rifampicin only
B. resistance to rifampicin, isoniazide, fluoroquinolones and a 2nd line injectable drug
C. resistance to rifampicin and isoniazide
D. resistance to isoniazide only
8. Which of the following is correct with regards to the treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis
A. 1 month rifampicin + isoniazide – 4 months rifampicin + isoniazide + pyrazinamide+
ethambutol
B. 2 month rifampicin + isoniazide – 6 months rifampicin + isoniazide + pyrazinamide+
ethambutol
C. 2 month rifampicin + isoniazide – 4 months rifampicin + isoniazide + pyrazinamide+
ethambutol
D. 3 month rifampicin + isoniazide – 3 months rifampicin + isoniazide + pyrazinamide+
ethambutol

9. According to the NYHA classification of heart failure, class III comprises of


A. no limitation at rest and during physical activity
B. marked limitation at rest and during physical activity
C. marked limitation during physical activity however, patient is comfortable at rest
D. slight limitation during physical activity however, patient is comfortable at rest

10. Modifiable risk actors of ischemic heart disease include


A. genetics C. smoking
B. gender D. all of the above

11. Which of the following best describes unstable angina?


A. caused by vasospasms D. has less risk of progressing to myocardial
B. pain at rest infarction
C. absence of pain at rest

12. Which of the following is the earliest enzymatic marker for myocardial infarction?
A. CK-MB C. LDH
B. troponin I D. none of the above

13. Clinical features of right sided heart failure include?


A. Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea C. orthopnea
B. unilateral pedal edema D. bilateral pedal edema

14. Which of the following best describes primary hypertension?


A. it is essential hypertension C. it is idiopathic
B. mechanism is unknown D. all of the above
15. Which of the following best describes arteriolosclerosis?
A. affects large arteries C. characterized by calcium deposition is
B. affects arterioles and small arteries muscular arteries
D. none of the above

16. Complications of atherosclerosis include


A. cerebral vascular accident C. myocardial infarction
B. gangrene D. all of the above

17. A fifty-year-old man is admitted in emergency ward with acute myocardial infarction. Which
of the following drug is used as acute reperfusion therapy?
A. Aspirin C. Heparin
B. Clopidogrel D. Streptokinase

18. An old patient presented in emergency ward with history of weakness of right side of rapid
onset. The most helpful first line investigation for management of this patient is:
A. Fasting lipid profile C. Cerebral angiography
B. Cerebro spinal fluid examination D. Computerized tomography scan brain

19. A fifty-year-old man presents in emergency ward with central chest pain. On examination
his blood pressure is 90/60mmHg and pulse is 106 per minute. He is pale and sweating
profusely. The most likely diagnosis is
A. hyperthyroidism C. Pericarditis
B. Myocardial infarction D. Pneumothorax

20 In a patient with history of shortness of breath, which of the following signs indicates left
heart failure?
A. Ascites C. Basal crepitation’s
B. Dependent edema D. Engorged neck veins

SECTION B
1. A 50-year-old man has the sudden onset of substernal chest pain. The pain persists for the
next three hours. He then becomes short of breath and diaphoretic. He goes to the emergency
department and on physical examination his vital signs include T 37oC, Pulse 100/minute,
RR26/minute and BP 130/90mmHg. A chest X-ray shows a slightly enlarged heart and mild
pulmonary edema.
1. What is the most likely diagnosis? (3marks)
2. List 4 investigations you are going to do (4marks)
3. Mention 1 possible ECG finding (2 marks)
4. Discuss the medical management of your patient (6 marks)

2. A 33 year old woman presents to you in outpatient department complaining of excessive


sweating, awareness of her heart beat, heat intolerance and weight loss despite having an
increased appetite, on physical examination, you notice exophthalmos and a staring gaze. Blood
pressure is 130/70 mmhg, pulse is 105b/p.
1. What is the most likely diagnosis (4 marks?)
3. List 5 other clinical features you would look for (5 marks)
4. List 3 diagnostic investigations you would carry out (6 marks)

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