Below is a list of multiple-choice questions and answers on Demand and Supply to help students

understand the topic better.

1. Normally the demand curve will have a _______________ shape.

a. Upward sloping
b. Downward sloping
c. Vertical
d. Horizontal

Answer: b

2. Which of the following is an assumption made while drawing the demand curve?
a. The demand curve must be linear
b. The price of substitutes should not change
c. The quantity demanded should not change
d. The price of the commodity should not change

Answer: b

3. The elasticity for the demand of durable goods is __________.

a. Zero
b. Equal to unity
c. Greater than unity
d. Less than unity

Answer: c

4. Law of demand shows a relation between the ___________.

a. Quantity demand and quantity supply of a commodity
b. Income and quantity demand of a commodity
c. Price and quantity of a commodity
d. Income and price of a commodity

Answer: c

5. If the quantity demanded of a commodity is unresponsive to change in prices, then the

demand of that commodity is ________.
a. Perfectly inelastic
b. Elastic
c. Unit elastic
d. Inelastic

Answer: a

6. When the price of a product falls by 10% and its demand rises by 30%, then the elasticity of
demand is _________.
 a. 13
b. 3
c. 10
d. 30

Answer: b

7. When the elasticity of demand for a commodity is very low, it shows that the product
________.
a. Has little importance in the total budget
b. Is a luxury
c. Is a necessity
d. None of the above

Answer: c

8. Which of the following is not a cause of the shift in demand for a product?
a. Change in the price of substitutes
b. Change in the income of a consumer
c. Change in the price of a product
d. None of the above

Answer: c

9. When the demand for a product is perfectly inelastic, a price increase will result in
__________.
a. A decrease in quantity demanded of the product
b. No change in the total income from a product
c. An increase in the total income from a product
d. A reduction in the total income from a product

Answer: c

10. In case the price of a product and the total revenue from that product move in the same
direction, then the demand is ____________.
a. Perfectly elastic
b. Inelastic
c. Elastic
d. Unrelated

Answer: b

11. Would an increase in demand for a product cause the supply curve to shift in any direction?
a. No effect on supply
b. Change in the slope of a supply curve
c. The supply curve will move to the right
 d. The supply curve will move to the left

Answer: a

12. If the elasticity of supply is greater than one, the supply curve would be _______.
a. Touching y-axis
b. Passing through the origin
c. Vertical
d. Horizontal

Answer: a

13. In a particular year, the farmers experienced dry weather. If all other factors remain the
same, the supply curve of wheat for farmers will shift to the ________ direction.
a. Downward
b. Rightward
c. Leftward
d. None of the above

Answer: c

14. In May 2019, a firm was providing 5000 kg of sugar at a market price of Rs. 30 per kg. But
in June 2019, the supply of sugar decreased to 4500 kg at a market price of Rs. 20 per kg.
This change shows that the supply of sugar is _____.
a. More elastic
b. Less elastic
c. Perfectly inelastic
d. Perfectly elastic

Answer: b

15. If the market supply curve for a product shifts rightwards, what is the best possible
explanation for this shift?
a. Increase in the price of raw materials
b. Introduction of a tax on that product by the government
c. Introduction of a new technique that makes the production of that commodity
cheaper
d. An advertising campaign that is successful in promoting the product

Answer: c

16. Which of the following scenarios will not shift the demand curve for a particular product?
a. A change in the income of the consumers of that product
b. Effective advertising campaign by producers of a substitute good
c. A reduction in the price of the raw material for that product
d. A widely publicised study that says the product is harmful to the health of consumers
 Answer: c

17. A firm’s supply curve is on an upward slope because ______.

a. The production costs of additional units of output will rise beyond a point
b. Consumers see a positive relationship between price and quality
c. Expansion of production leads to the use of inferior inputs
d. None of the above

Answer: a

18. Which of the following scenarios will not lead to a change in demand for a product?
a. A change in the tastes of its consumers
b. A change in the price of that product
c. An increase in the income of its consumers
d. None of the above

Answer: d

19. ______ leads to an increase in the supply of a commodity without a change in its price.
a. Rise in supply
b. Contraction in supply
c. Expansion in supply
d. Fall in supply

Answer: a

20. If price changes by 1% and supply changes by 2%, then the supply is ______.
a. Static
b. Indeterminate
c. Inelastic
d. Elastic

Answer: d

21. If the income of a consumer increases or the price of a complementary good falls, then the
__________.
a. The demand curve for the product shifts rightward
b. The demand curve for the product shifts leftward
c. The supply curve for the product shifts rightward
d. The supply curve for the product shifts leftward

Answer: a

22. Because of increasing marginal costs, most supply curves ________.

a. Have a positive slope
b. Have a negative slope
 c. Are horizontal
d. Are vertical

Answer: a

23. Which of the following metrics is not a constant factor while moving upwards along the
supply curve?
a. The price of the commodity
b. The number of sellers
c. Expected future prices
d. Cost of the resources used for producing that commodity

Answer: a

24. An increase in the number of restaurants serving fast-food leads to _______.

a. Growth in the demand of fast-food meals
b. Increase in the supply of fast-food meals
c. Increase in the price of fast-food meals
d. Growth in the demand for substitutes of fast-food meals

Answer: b

25. When the quantity demanded of a goods is equal to the quantity supplied of that goods,
then ___________.
a. There is a surplus
b. The government is intervening in the market
c. There is a shortage
d. None of the above

Answer: d

Multiple Choice Quiz

1. The market demand curve shows

 a. the effect on market supply of a change in the demand for a good or service. 
 b. the quantity of a good that consumers would like to purchase at different prices. 
 c. the marginal cost of producing and selling different quantities of a good. 
 d. the effect of advertising expenditures on the market price of a good. 

2. At a price of $4.95, a pulp fiction novel is expected to sell 9,000 copies. If the novel is offered
for sale at a price of $3.95, then the publisher can expect to sell
  a. less than 9,000 copies. 
 b. 9,000 copies. 
 c. more than 9,000 copies. 
 d. It is impossible to predict the effect of a lower price on sales. 

3. During a recession, economies experience increased unemployment and a reduced level of

activity. How would a recession be likely to affect the market demand for new cars?

 a. Demand will shift to the right. 

 b. Demand will shift to the left. 
 c. Demand will not shift, but the quantity of cars sold per month will decrease. 
 d. Demand will not shift, but the quantity of cars sold per month will increase. 

4. The market supply curve shows

 a. the effect on market demand of a change in the supply of a good or service. 
 b. the quantity of a good that firms would offer for sale at different prices. 
 c. the quantity of a good that consumers would be willing to buy at different prices. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

5. At a price of $299.95, the manufacturer of a portable gas-powered generator is willing to

produce 19,000 units per quarter. At a price of $349.95, it is likely that the manufacturer will
be willing to produce

 a. more than 19,000 units per quarter. 

 b. 19,000 units per quarter. 
 c. less than 19,000 units per quarter. 
 d. It is impossible to predict the effect of a higher price on the number of units of a
product that a firm will be willing to produce. 

6. Unionized workers may be able to negotiate with management for higher wages during periods
of economic prosperity. Suppose that workers at automobile assembly plants successfully
negotiate a significant increase in their wage package. How would the new wage contract be
likely to affect the market supply of new cars?

 a. Supply will shift to the right. 

 b. Supply will shift to the left. 
 c. Supply will not shift, but the quantity of cars produced per month will decrease. 
 d. Supply will not shift, but the quantity of cars produced per month will increase. 

7. If automobile manufacturers are producing cars faster than people want to buy them,

 a. there is an excess supply and price can be expected to decrease. 

 b. there is an excess supply and price can be expected to increase. 
 c. there is an excess demand and price can be expected to decrease. 
 d. there is an excess demand and price can be expected to increase. 

8. If a computer software company introduces a new program and finds that orders from
wholesalers far exceed the number of units that are being produced,

 a. there is an excess supply and price can be expected to decrease. 

 b. there is an excess supply and price can be expected to increase. 
 c. there is an excess demand and price can be expected to decrease. 
 d. there is an excess demand and price can be expected to increase. 
9. Market equilibrium refers to a situation in which market price

 a. is high enough to allow firms to earn a fair profit. 

 b. is low enough for consumers to buy all that they want. 
 c. is at a level where there is neither a shortage nor a surplus. 
 d. is just above the intersection of the market supply and demand curves. 

10. If the price of a good increases while the quantity of the good exchanged on markets
increases, then the most likely explanation is that there has been

 a. an increase in demand. 

 b. a decrease in demand. 
 c. an increase in supply. 
 d. a decrease in supply. 

11. If the price of a good decreases while the quantity of the good exchanged on markets
increases, then the most likely explanation is that there has been

 a. an increase in demand. 

 b. a decrease in demand. 
 c. an increase in supply. 
 d. a decrease in supply. 

12. If the price of a good increases while the quantity of the good exchanged on markets
decreases, then the most likely explanation is that there has been

 a. an increase in demand. 

 b. a decrease in demand. 
 c. an increase in supply. 
 d. a decrease in supply. 

13. If the price of a good decreases while the quantity of the good exchanged on markets
decreases, then the most likely explanation is that there has been

 a. an increase in demand. 

 b. a decrease in demand. 
 c. an increase in supply. 
 d. a decrease in supply. 

14. An increase in the demand for a good will cause

 a. an increase in equilibrium price and quantity. 

 b. a decrease in equilibrium price and quantity. 
 c. an increase in equilibrium price and a decrease in equilibrium quantity. 
 d. a decrease in equilibrium price and an increase in equilibrium quantity. 

15. An increase in the supply of a good will cause

 a. an increase in equilibrium price and quantity. 

 b. a decrease in equilibrium price and quantity. 
 c. an increase in equilibrium price and a decrease in equilibrium quantity. 
 d. a decrease in equilibrium price and an increase in equilibrium quantity. 
16. Assume that firms in an industry observe a 10% increase in the productivity of labor, but to
get there they had to increase the cost of labor by 5%. What should be expected to happen in
the output market as a result of this development?

 a. The supply should increase 

 b. The supply should decrease 
 c. The supply should remain unchanged 
 d. The demand should increase 
 e. The demand should decreased 

17. During 2002 – 2005 we saw significant increases in the construction of new housing stock in
the US. During the same time period we also observed significant rises in the demand for
homes. We know that during that time period both price and the level of homes traded
increased. Based on that information what most likely happened in the market?

 a. The rise in supply outpaced the rise in demand. 

 b. The rise in demand outpaced the rise in supply. 
 c. The rise in demand was perfectly matched by rise in the supply. 
 d. None of the above 

18. If a rise in supply exceeds a rise in demand, then we should expect

 a. the equilibrium price and quantity levels will rise. 

 b. the equilibrium price will rise while the equilibrium quantity will decline. 
 c. The equilibrium price will fall while the equilibrium quantity will rise. 
 d. the equilibrium price and quantity levels will decline. 

19. In which instance will both the equilibrium price and quantity rise?

 a. When demand and supply increase, but the rise in demand exceeds the rise in
supply. 
 b. When demand and supply increase, but the rise in supply exceeds the rise in
demand. 
 c. When demand and supply decline, but decline in the demand exceeds the decline in
supply. 
 d. When demand and supply decline, but the decline in supply exceeds decline in the
demand. 

20. In which instance can we observe a rise in the equilibrium price accompanied by a decline in
the equilibrium quantity?

 a. If both demand and supply decline, but the decline in demand exceeds the decline
in supply. 
 b. If supply declines while demand increases, and the decline in supply exceeds the
increase in demand. 
 c. If both demand and supply increase. 
 d. None of the above. 

21. To be an importer of a product the country must have its domestic price of the product be
_____ the foreign price

 a. higher than 

 b. lower than 
 c. equal to 
 22. To be an exporter of a product the country must have its domestic price of the product be
_____ the foreign price

 a. higher than 

 b. lower than 
 c. equal to 

23. Which of the following will help a country become an exporter of a product (assume that the
product is a normal good given the median consumer income)?

 a. An increase in incomes of domestic consumers 

 b. A recession abroad 
 c. An increased productivity of domestic labor 
 d. An increased cost of domestic labor 

24. In 2010 Russia was affected by a significant draught. Russia is a major producer and exporter
of several agricultural commodities. As a result of the draught, Russia reduced some of its
agricultural exports. In the context of the world supply/demand model for the affected
agricultural commodities we should observe:

 a. Reduced demand and reduced supply 

 b. Reduced supply and unchanged demand 
 c. Reduced supply and increased demand 
 d. Increased supply and unchanged demand 
 e. Increased supply and reduced demand 

25. In November of 2010 the US Central Bank, the Federal Reserve, embarked on a policy of
quantitative easing. Since this policy essentially represents an increase in the supply of
money, it may create inflationary expectations. Let’s assume (and this is a strong
assumption), that as a result of this policy, US households start to expect inflation (price
increases) in the housing market. The effect on the housing market will be:

 a. A rise in the demand, causing prices to increase 

 b. A rise in the supply, causing prices to decrease 
 c. A decline in the demand, causing prices to decrease 
 d. None of the above 

Multiple Choice Quiz - Results

You answered 0 out of 25 questions correctly, for a score of 0%.

1. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The market demand curve shows

The correct answer was: b. the quantity of a good that consumers would like to purchase at
different prices..

2. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

At a price of $4.95, a pulp fiction novel is expected to sell 9,000 copies. If the novel is offered
for sale at a price of $3.95, then the publisher can expect to sell

The correct answer was: c. more than 9,000 copies..

3. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

During a recession, economies experience increased unemployment and a reduced level of

activity. How would a recession be likely to affect the market demand for new cars?

The correct answer was: b. Demand will shift to the left..

4. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The market supply curve shows

The correct answer was: b. the quantity of a good that firms would offer for sale at different
prices..

5. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

At a price of $299.95, the manufacturer of a portable gas-powered generator is willing to

produce 19,000 units per quarter. At a price of $349.95, it is likely that the manufacturer will
be willing to produce

The correct answer was: a. more than 19,000 units per quarter..

6. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Unionized workers may be able to negotiate with management for higher wages during periods
of economic prosperity. Suppose that workers at automobile assembly plants successfully
negotiate a significant increase in their wage package. How would the new wage contract be
likely to affect the market supply of new cars?

The correct answer was: b. Supply will shift to the left..

7. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If automobile manufacturers are producing cars faster than people want to buy them,

The correct answer was: a. there is an excess supply and price can be expected to decrease..

8. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If a computer software company introduces a new program and finds that orders from
wholesalers far exceed the number of units that are being produced,

The correct answer was: d. there is an excess demand and price can be expected to increase..

9. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Market equilibrium refers to a situation in which market price

The correct answer was: c. is at a level where there is neither a shortage nor a surplus..

10. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

 If the price of a good increases while the quantity of the good exchanged on markets
increases, then the most likely explanation is that there has been

The correct answer was: a. an increase in demand..

11. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If the price of a good decreases while the quantity of the good exchanged on markets
increases, then the most likely explanation is that there has been

The correct answer was: c. an increase in supply..

12. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If the price of a good increases while the quantity of the good exchanged on markets
decreases, then the most likely explanation is that there has been

The correct answer was: d. a decrease in supply..

13. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If the price of a good decreases while the quantity of the good exchanged on markets
decreases, then the most likely explanation is that there has been

The correct answer was: b. a decrease in demand..

14. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

An increase in the demand for a good will cause

The correct answer was: a. an increase in equilibrium price and quantity..

15. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

An increase in the supply of a good will cause

The correct answer was: d. a decrease in equilibrium price and an increase in equilibrium
quantity..

16. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Assume that firms in an industry observe a 10% increase in the productivity of labor, but to
get there they had to increase the cost of labor by 5%. What should be expected to happen in
the output market as a result of this development?

The correct answer was: a. The supply should increase.

17. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

During 2002 – 2005 we saw significant increases in the construction of new housing stock in
the US. During the same time period we also observed significant rises in the demand for
homes. We know that during that time period both price and the level of homes traded
increased. Based on that information what most likely happened in the market?
 The correct answer was: b. The rise in demand outpaced the rise in supply..

18. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If a rise in supply exceeds a rise in demand, then we should expect

The correct answer was: c. The equilibrium price will fall while the equilibrium quantity will
rise..

19. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

In which instance will both the equilibrium price and quantity rise?

The correct answer was: a. When demand and supply increase, but the rise in demand
exceeds the rise in supply..

20. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

In which instance can we observe a rise in the equilibrium price accompanied by a decline in
the equilibrium quantity?

The correct answer was: b. If supply declines while demand increases, and the decline in
supply exceeds the increase in demand..

21. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

To be an importer of a product the country must have its domestic price of the product be
_____ the foreign price

The correct answer was: a. higher than.

22. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

To be an exporter of a product the country must have its domestic price of the product be
_____ the foreign price

The correct answer was: b. lower than.

23. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following will help a country become an exporter of a product (assume that the
product is a normal good given the median consumer income)?

The correct answer was: c. An increased productivity of domestic labor.

24. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

In 2010 Russia was affected by a significant draught. Russia is a major producer and exporter
of several agricultural commodities. As a result of the draught, Russia reduced some of its
agricultural exports. In the context of the world supply/demand model for the affected
agricultural commodities we should observe:

The correct answer was: b. Reduced supply and unchanged demand.

 25. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

In November of 2010 the US Central Bank, the Federal Reserve, embarked on a policy of
quantitative easing. Since this policy essentially represents an increase in the supply of
money, it may create inflationary expectations. Let’s assume (and this is a strong
assumption), that as a result of this policy, US households start to expect inflation (price
increases) in the housing market. The effect on the housing market will be:

The correct answer was: a. A rise in the demand, causing prices to increase.

Multiple Choice Quiz

1. Relationships between economic variables can be expressed in the form of

 a. a graph. 
 b. an equation. 
 c. a table. 
 d. any of the above. 

2. The optimal solution to a problem is best defined as the solution that

 a. is superior to any other possible solution. 

 b. costs less than any other possible solution. 
 c. generates more revenue than any other possible solution. 
 d. corresponds to the inflection point on a total product or total cost curve. 

3. Differential calculus can be used to solve problems in cases where economic relationships are
expressed in the form of

 a. a graph. 
 b. a table. 
 c. an equation. 
 d. any of the above. 

4. Average cost is defined as

 a. total cost divided by marginal cost. 

 b. total cost divided by total output. 
 c. total output times cost per unit. 
 d. total output times marginal cost. 

5. The marginal cost when output = 10 is equal to

 a. the slope of a line drawn tangent to the total cost curve where output = 10. 
 b. the total cost of 10 units of output divided by 10. 
 c. the average cost of 10 units of output. 
 d. the slope of a ray drawn from the origin to the point on the total cost curve where
output = 10. 

6. If a firm's total revenue function is a straight line that begins at the origin, then
  a. marginal revenue is zero. 
 b. average revenue is zero. 
 c. marginal revenue is equal to average revenue. 
 d. all of the above are true. 

7. If marginal revenue is equal to zero, then

 a. total revenue is zero. 

 b. average revenue is zero. 
 c. total revenue is at a maximum or a minimum. 
 d. average revenue is at a maximum or a minimum. 

8. If average cost is at a minimum, then

 a. it is equal to marginal cost. 

 b. total cost is also at a minimum. 
 c. profit is at a maximum. 
 d. all of the above are true. 

9. The level of output where a straight line drawn from the origin is tangent to the total cost
curve is where

 a. total cost is at a minimum. 

 b. average cost is equal to marginal cost. 
 c. profit is at a maximum. 
 d. all of the above are correct. 

10. The economic concept that corresponds most closely to a "derivative" in calculus is the
concept of

 a. an average value. 

 b. a total value. 
 c. a marginal value. 
 d. economic profit. 

11. The marginal principle asserts that, in general, when net benefit is maximized

 a. total benefit will be equal to total cost. 

 b. average benefit will be equal to average cost. 
 c. marginal benefit will be equal to marginal cost. 
 d. average cost will be above total cost but below average benefit. 

12. When total revenue is at a maximum

 a. average revenue is at a maximum. 

 b. marginal revenue is at a maximum. 
 c. average revenue is equal to zero. 
 d. none of the above is correct. 

13. If both average cost (AC) and marginal cost (MC) are U shaped, then

 a. AC will reach a minimum at a level of output that is less than that at which MC
reaches a minimum. 
 b. the total cost curve will be a straight line. 
 c. AC will reach a minimum at a level of output that is greater than that at which MC
 reaches a minimum. 
 d. both AC and MC will reach a minimum at the same level of output. 

14. If a firm's marginal revenue is greater than its marginal cost, then the firm should

 a. increase output to increase profit. 

 b. decrease output to increase profit. 
 c. keep output the same. 
 d. collect additional information before taking any action. 

15. If a firm's average cost is equal to its average revenue, then

 a. profit is at a maximum. 

 b. profit is at a minimum. 
 c. profit is equal to zero. 
 d. the firm is in equilibrium. 

16. The inflection point refers to the point on a total cost curve where

 a. average cost is at a minimum. 

 b. average cost is at a maximum. 
 c. marginal cost is at a minimum. 
 d. marginal cost is at a maximum. 

17. If an average curve has a negative slope, then the corresponding

 a. marginal curve is below the average curve. 

 b. total curve has a negative slope. 
 c. marginal curve is above the average curve. 
 d. total curve has a positive slope. 

18. If a firm's total cost curve is defined by a straight line that has a positive intercept that is
equal to fixed costs, then

 a. average cost is equal to marginal cost for all levels of output. 
 b. average cost is negatively sloped and marginal cost is horizontal. 
 c. both average cost and marginal cost are negatively sloped, but they are not equal
to each other. 
 d. both average cost and marginal cost are horizontal, and average cost is below
marginal cost at all levels of output. 

19. If a firm is producing a level of output where marginal cost is equal to marginal revenue, then

 a. profit is at a maximum if marginal cost has a negative slope and marginal revenue
is horizontal. 
 b. profit is at a minimum if marginal cost has a negative slope and marginal revenue
is horizontal. 
 c. profit is at a maximum if average revenue is greater than average cost. 
 d. profit is at a minimum if average revenue is greater than average cost. 

20. The optimal amount of pollution to society is where

 a. the total cost of pollution is equal to zero. 

 b. the total benefit of pollution is equal to zero. 
  c. the marginal benefit of pollution equals the marginal cost of pollution. 
 d. there is no pollution at all. 

Multiple Choice Quiz - Results

You answered 0 out of 20 questions correctly, for a score of 0%.

1. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Relationships between economic variables can be expressed in the form of

The correct answer was: d. any of the above..

2. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The optimal solution to a problem is best defined as the solution that

The correct answer was: a. is superior to any other possible solution..

3. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Differential calculus can be used to solve problems in cases where economic relationships are
expressed in the form of

The correct answer was: c. an equation..

4. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Average cost is defined as

The correct answer was: b. total cost divided by total output..

5. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The marginal cost when output = 10 is equal to

The correct answer was: a. the slope of a line drawn tangent to the total cost curve where
output = 10..

6. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If a firm's total revenue function is a straight line that begins at the origin, then

The correct answer was: c. marginal revenue is equal to average revenue..

7. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If marginal revenue is equal to zero, then

The correct answer was: c. total revenue is at a maximum or a minimum..

8. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

 If average cost is at a minimum, then

The correct answer was: a. it is equal to marginal cost..

9. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The level of output where a straight line drawn from the origin is tangent to the total cost
curve is where

The correct answer was: b. average cost is equal to marginal cost..

10. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The economic concept that corresponds most closely to a "derivative" in calculus is the
concept of

The correct answer was: c. a marginal value..

11. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The marginal principle asserts that, in general, when net benefit is maximized

The correct answer was: c. marginal benefit will be equal to marginal cost..

12. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

When total revenue is at a maximum

The correct answer was: d. none of the above is correct..

13. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If both average cost (AC) and marginal cost (MC) are U shaped, then

The correct answer was: c. AC will reach a minimum at a level of output that is greater than
that at which MC reaches a minimum..

14. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If a firm's marginal revenue is greater than its marginal cost, then the firm should

The correct answer was: a. increase output to increase profit..

15. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If a firm's average cost is equal to its average revenue, then

The correct answer was: c. profit is equal to zero..

16. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The inflection point refers to the point on a total cost curve where
 The correct answer was: c. marginal cost is at a minimum..

17. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If an average curve has a negative slope, then the corresponding

The correct answer was: a. marginal curve is below the average curve..

18. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If a firm's total cost curve is defined by a straight line that has a positive intercept that is
equal to fixed costs, then

The correct answer was: b. average cost is negatively sloped and marginal cost is horizontal..

19. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If a firm is producing a level of output where marginal cost is equal to marginal revenue, then

The correct answer was: b. profit is at a minimum if marginal cost has a negative slope and
marginal revenue is horizontal..

20. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The optimal amount of pollution to society is where

The correct answer was: c. the marginal benefit of pollution equals the marginal cost of
pollution..

Multiple Choice Quiz

1. Which of the following is not a determinant of a consumer's demand for a commodity?

 a. Income 
 b. Population 
 c. Prices of related goods 
 d. Tastes 

2. The law of demand refers to the

 a. inverse relationship between the price of a commodity and the quantity demanded
of the commodity per time period. 
 b. direct relationship between the desire a consumer has for a commodity and the
amount of the commodity that the consumer demands. 
 c. inverse relationship between a consumer's income and the amount of a commodity
that the consumer demands. 
 d. direct relationship between population and the market demand for a commodity. 

3. If the price of a good increases, then

  a. the demand for complementary goods will increase. 
 b. the demand for the good will increase. 
 c. the demand for substitute goods will increase. 
 d. the demand for the good will decrease. 

4. If consumer income declines, then the demand for

 a. normal goods will increase. 

 b. inferior goods will increase. 
 c. substitute goods will increase. 
 d. complementary goods will increase. 

5. Which of the following will cause a decrease in quantity demanded while leaving demand
unchanged?

 a. An increase in the price of a complementary good. 

 b. An increase in income when the good is inferior. 
 c. A decrease in the price of a substitute good. 
 d. An increase in the price of the good. 

6. Which of the following will not decrease the demand for a commodity?

 a. The price of a substitute decreases 

 b. Income falls and the good is normal 
 c. The price of a complement increases 
 d. The commodity's price increases 

7. Demand curves have a negative slope because

 a. firms tend to produce less of a good that is more costly to produce. 
 b. the substitution effect always leads consumers to substitute higher quality goods
for lower quality goods. 
 c. the substitution effect always causes consumers try to substitute away from the
consumption of a commodity when the commodity's price rises. 
 d. an increase in price reduces real income and the income effect always causes
consumers to reduce consumption of a commodity when income falls. 

8. If a good is normal, then a decrease in price will cause a substitution effect that is

 a. positive and an income effect that is positive. 

 b. positive and an income effect that is negative. 
 c. negative and an income effect that is positive. 
 d. negative and an income effect that is negative. 

9. If the consumption decisions of individual consumers are independent, then

 a. the market demand curve will be flatter because of the bandwagon effect. 
 b. the market demand curve will be steeper because of the snob effect. 
 c. the market demand curve will not be equal to the horizontal summation of the
demand curves of individual consumers. 
 d. none of the above is correct. 

10. If the demand curve for a firm's output is perfectly elastic, then the firm is
  a. a monopolist. 
 b. perfectly competitive. 
 c. an oligopolist. 
 d. monopolistically competitive. 

11. Firms in an industry that produces a differentiated product

 a. are either monopolists or oligopolists. 

 b. are either monopolistically competitive or perfectly competitive. 
 c. are either monopolistically competitive or oligopolists. 
 d. are either perfectly competitive or oligopolists. 

12. The type of industry organization that is characterized by recognized interdependence and
non-price competition among firms is called

 a. monopoly. 
 b. perfect competition. 
 c. oligopoly. 
 d. monopolistic competition. 

13. The demand by a firm for inputs used in the production of a commodity that the firm offers for
sale

 a. is called a derived demand. 

 b. is directly related to the demand for the commodity. 
 c. is negatively sloped. 
 d. is all of the above. 

14. If the price elasticity of demand for a firm's output is elastic, then the firm's marginal revenue
is

 a. positive, and an increase in price will cause total revenue to increase. 
 b. positive, and an increase in price will cause total revenue to decrease. 
 c. negative, and an increase in price will cause total revenue to increase. 
 d. negative, and an increase in price will cause total revenue to decrease. 

15. If a firm that produces carrots operates in a perfectly competitive industry, then

 a. the demand for the firm's carrots must be horizontal. 

 b. the demand by individual consumers for carrots must be horizontal. 
 c. the market demand for carrots must be horizontal. 
 d. all of the above must be true. 

16. If a firm raises its price by 10% and total revenue remains constant, then

 a. the price elasticity of demand for its output is unitary. 

 b. marginal revenue is equal to zero. 
 c. quantity demanded has decreased by 10%. 
 d. all of the above are correct. 

17. The price elasticity of demand for a good will tend to be more elastic if

 a. the good is broadly defined (e.g., the demand for food as opposed to the demand
for carrots). 
 b. the good has relatively few substitutes. 
  c. a long period of time is required to fully adjust to a price change in the good. 
 d. none of the above are true. 

18. If a good is inferior, then

 a. the income elasticity of demand will be negative. 

 b. the income elasticity of demand will be zero. 
 c. the income elasticity of demand will be positive. 
 d. a decrease in income will cause demand to decrease. 

19. If two goods are complements, then

 a. the cross-price elasticity of demand will be negative. 

 b. the cross-price elasticity of demand will be zero. 
 c. the cross-price elasticity of demand will be positive. 
 d. an increase in the price of one good will increase demand for the other. 

20. The cross-price elasticity of demand between two differentiated goods produced by firms in
the same industry will be

 a. negative and large. 

 b. negative and small. 
 c. positive and large. 
 d. positive and small. 

21. Which of the following is viewed by firms as an advantage of electronic commerce over
traditional commerce?

 a. Consumers have the ability to easily compare product prices. 

 b. The cost of executing a transaction is much lower. 
 c. Firms have the ability to gather useful information about buyers. 
 d. Firms can reduce their reaction times to changing market conditions and increase
their sales reach. 

22. Electronic commerce is a significant market channel for the sale of

 a. travel services. 

 b. books. 
 c. computer products. 
 d. All of the above. 

Multiple Choice Quiz - Results

You answered 0 out of 22 questions correctly, for a score of 0%.

1. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is not a determinant of a consumer's demand for a commodity?

The correct answer was: b. Population.

2. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

 The law of demand refers to the

The correct answer was: a. inverse relationship between the price of a commodity and the
quantity demanded of the commodity per time period..

3. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If the price of a good increases, then

The correct answer was: c. the demand for substitute goods will increase..

4. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If consumer income declines, then the demand for

The correct answer was: b. inferior goods will increase..

5. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following will cause a decrease in quantity demanded while leaving demand
unchanged?

The correct answer was: d. An increase in the price of the good..

6. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following will not decrease the demand for a commodity?

The correct answer was: d. The commodity's price increases.

7. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Demand curves have a negative slope because

The correct answer was: c. the substitution effect always causes consumers try to substitute
away from the consumption of a commodity when the commodity's price rises..

8. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If a good is normal, then a decrease in price will cause a substitution effect that is

The correct answer was: a. positive and an income effect that is positive..

9. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If the consumption decisions of individual consumers are independent, then

The correct answer was: d. none of the above is correct..

10. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If the demand curve for a firm's output is perfectly elastic, then the firm is
 The correct answer was: b. perfectly competitive..

11. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Firms in an industry that produces a differentiated product

The correct answer was: c. are either monopolistically competitive or oligopolists..

12. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The type of industry organization that is characterized by recognized interdependence and

non-price competition among firms is called

The correct answer was: c. oligopoly..

13. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The demand by a firm for inputs used in the production of a commodity that the firm offers for
sale

The correct answer was: d. is all of the above..

14. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If the price elasticity of demand for a firm's output is elastic, then the firm's marginal revenue
is

The correct answer was: b. positive, and an increase in price will cause total revenue to
decrease..

15. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If a firm that produces carrots operates in a perfectly competitive industry, then

The correct answer was: a. the demand for the firm's carrots must be horizontal..

16. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If a firm raises its price by 10% and total revenue remains constant, then

The correct answer was: d. all of the above are correct..

17. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The price elasticity of demand for a good will tend to be more elastic if

The correct answer was: d. none of the above are true..

18. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If a good is inferior, then

 The correct answer was: a. the income elasticity of demand will be negative..

19. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If two goods are complements, then

The correct answer was: a. the cross-price elasticity of demand will be negative..

20. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The cross-price elasticity of demand between two differentiated goods produced by firms in
the same industry will be

The correct answer was: c. positive and large..

21. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is viewed by firms as an advantage of electronic commerce over

traditional commerce?

The correct answer was: a. Consumers have the ability to easily compare product prices..

22. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Electronic commerce is a significant market channel for the sale of

The correct answer was: d. All of the above..

Multiple Choice Quiz

1. Which of the following is an example of a capital input?

 a. Money. 
 b. Shares of stock. 
 c. Long-term bonds. 
 d. A hammer. 

2. Which of the following is an example of an intermediate product?

 a. A personal computer. 

 b. A barrel of crude oil. 
 c. A sports car. 
 d. A house. 

3. Which of the following is an assumption associated with the definition of a production function?

 a. Technology remains constant. 

 b. Both inputs and outputs are measured in monetary units. 
 c. The function shows the maximum level of output possible with a given combination
of inputs. 
 d. All units of the inputs are homogeneous. 
4. The marginal product of labor is equal to

 a. the additional labor required to produce one more unit of output. 
 b. average product when average product is at a minimum. 
 c. the additional output produced by hiring one more unit of labor. 
 d. the slope of a ray drawn from the origin to a point on the total product curve. 

5. The average product of labor is equal to

 a. the additional labor required to produce one more unit of output. 
 b. marginal product when average product is at a minimum. 
 c. the additional output produced by hiring one more unit of labor. 
 d. the slope of a ray drawn from the origin to a point on the total product curve. 

6. The output elasticity of labor is

 a. equal to one at the level of output where average product is at a maximum. 
 b. the percentage change in labor required to produce one more unit of output. 
 c. equal to the ratio of total product to the quantity of labor employed. 
 d. a measure of the percentage change in output that can result when the quantity of
labor is held constant. 

7. The point of inflection on the total product curve corresponds to the level of output where

 a. Stage II of production begins. 

 b. average product is at a maximum. 
 c. marginal product is at a maximum. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

8. The law of diminishing returns

 a. is reflected in the negatively sloped portion of the marginal product curve. 
 b. is the result of specialization and division of labor. 
 c. applies in both the short run and the long run. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

9. Stage II of production begins at the point

 a. of inflection of the total product curve. 

 b. where average and marginal product are equal. 
 c. where total product is at a maximum. 
 d. where marginal product is at a maximum. 

10. The marginal revenue product of labor for a firm

 a. will increase if the price of the firm's output increases. 

 b. is the firm's demand curve for labor. 
 c. will decrease if the firm hires more labor. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

11. An isoquant that is

 a. further from the origin represents greater output. 

 b. flatter represents the trade-offs between inputs that are poor substitutes. 
 c. negatively sloped represents input combinations associated with Stage I of
 production. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

12. The absolute value of the slope of a convex isoquant

 a. is equal to the marginal rate of technical substitution. 

 b. is equal to the ratio of the marginal products of the two inputs. 
 c. decreases from left to right. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

13. The combination of inputs is optimal

 a. at points of tangency between isoquants and isocosts. 

 b. if the marginal revenue product is equal to the marginal resource cost for all
inputs. 
 c. if the marginal rate of technical substitution between every pair of inputs is equal
to the ratio of the prices of those inputs. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

14. An isocost line will be shifted further away from the origin

 a. if the prices of both inputs increase. 

 b. if total cost increases. 
 c. if there is an advance in technology. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

15. If isoquants are plotted on a graph with capital measured on the vertical axis and labor on the
horizontal axis, then an increase in the wage rate will cause the isocost line

 a. to become steeper and the optimal quantity of labor will decrease. 
 b. to become steeper and the optimal quantity of labor will increase. 
 c. to become flatter and the optimal quantity of labor will decrease. 
 d. to become flatter and the optimal quantity of labor will increase. 

16. A line that connects all points where the marginal rate of technical substitution is equal to the
ratio of input prices is called the

 a. input demand curve. 

 b. total product curve. 
 c. expansion path. 
 d. isocost line. 

17. Suppose that three isoquants that represent 10, 20, and 30 units of output are plotted on a
graph and a straight line is drawn from the origin through the isoquants. If the portion of the
line between the isoquants that represent 10 and 20 units of output is longer than the portion
of the line between the isoquants that represent 20 and 30 units of output, then the firm
represented by these isoquants

 a. has engaged in product innovation. 

 b. is experiencing increasing returns to scale. 
 c. is experiencing decreasing returns to scale. 
 d. will maximize profits by producing 10 units of output. 

18. If the output elasticities of all inputs used by a firm are summed together, then the total
  a. will be greater than one if returns to scale are decreasing. 
 b. will be equal to one if returns to scale are constant. 
 c. will be less than one if returns to scale are increasing. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

19. Which of the following is not a characteristic of production technologies that can be described
by the Cobb-Douglas production function?

 a. The marginal product of an input divided by the average product of that input is
constant. 
 b. The exponents will sum to one if returns to scale are constant. 
 c. Linear regression can be used to estimate the parameters of the function. 
 d. All of the above are characteristics of the Cobb-Douglas production function. 

20. If the marginal product of labor is 2, the marginal product of capital is 4, the wage rate is $3,
the rental price of capital is $6, and the price of output is $1.50, then the firm should

 a. Increase output by hiring more labor, more capital, or both. 

 b. Hold output constant, but hire more labor and less capital. 
 c. Decrease output by reducing the quantity of capital, reducing the number of units
of labor, or both. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

21. Comparative advantage is the basis for

 a. efficient production. 

 b. international trade. 
 c. economies of scale. 
 d. the capital-labor tradeoff. 

22. A country that has an abundance of cheap labor will tend to

 a. import goods that are produced using a lot of labor. 

 b. refrain from international trade entirely. 
 c. export goods that are produced using a lot of labor. 
 d. export goods that are produced using little labor. 

23. Intra-industry trade refers to

 a. international trade in differentiated products. 

 b. the exchange of information between firms in the same industry. 
 c. the exchange of information between firms in different industries. 
 d. barter between competing firms. 

24. Which of the following acronyms refers to the use of computers to design new products?

 a. CDP 
 b. ADP 
 c. CAM 
 d. CAD 

25. By using computers to design and manufacture products, firms are able to

 a. reduce production costs. 

 b. reduce the optimal lot size. 
  c. reduce the time required to introduce new products. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

Multiple Choice Quiz - Results

You answered 0 out of 25 questions correctly, for a score of 0%.

1. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is an example of a capital input?

The correct answer was: d. A hammer..

2. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is an example of an intermediate product?

The correct answer was: b. A barrel of crude oil..

3. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is an assumption associated with the definition of a production function?

The correct answer was: b. Both inputs and outputs are measured in monetary units..

4. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The marginal product of labor is equal to

The correct answer was: c. the additional output produced by hiring one more unit of labor..

5. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The average product of labor is equal to

The correct answer was: d. the slope of a ray drawn from the origin to a point on the total
product curve..

6. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The output elasticity of labor is

The correct answer was: a. equal to one at the level of output where average product is at a
maximum..

7. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The point of inflection on the total product curve corresponds to the level of output where

The correct answer was: c. marginal product is at a maximum..

8. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

 The law of diminishing returns

The correct answer was: a. is reflected in the negatively sloped portion of the marginal
product curve..

9. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Stage II of production begins at the point

The correct answer was: b. where average and marginal product are equal..

10. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The marginal revenue product of labor for a firm

The correct answer was: d. All of the above are correct..

11. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

An isoquant that is

The correct answer was: a. further from the origin represents greater output..

12. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The absolute value of the slope of a convex isoquant

The correct answer was: d. All of the above are correct..

13. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The combination of inputs is optimal

The correct answer was: d. All of the above are correct..

14. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

An isocost line will be shifted further away from the origin

The correct answer was: b. if total cost increases..

15. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If isoquants are plotted on a graph with capital measured on the vertical axis and labor on the
horizontal axis, then an increase in the wage rate will cause the isocost line

The correct answer was: a. to become steeper and the optimal quantity of labor will decrease..

16. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A line that connects all points where the marginal rate of technical substitution is equal to the
ratio of input prices is called the
 The correct answer was: c. expansion path..

17. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Suppose that three isoquants that represent 10, 20, and 30 units of output are plotted on a
graph and a straight line is drawn from the origin through the isoquants. If the portion of the
line between the isoquants that represent 10 and 20 units of output is longer than the portion
of the line between the isoquants that represent 20 and 30 units of output, then the firm
represented by these isoquants

The correct answer was: b. is experiencing increasing returns to scale..

18. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If the output elasticities of all inputs used by a firm are summed together, then the total

The correct answer was: b. will be equal to one if returns to scale are constant..

19. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is not a characteristic of production technologies that can be described
by the Cobb-Douglas production function?

The correct answer was: d. All of the above are characteristics of the Cobb-Douglas production
function..

20. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If the marginal product of labor is 2, the marginal product of capital is 4, the wage rate is $3,
the rental price of capital is $6, and the price of output is $1.50, then the firm should

The correct answer was: d. None of the above is correct..

21. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Comparative advantage is the basis for

The correct answer was: b. international trade..

22. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A country that has an abundance of cheap labor will tend to

The correct answer was: c. export goods that are produced using a lot of labor..

23. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Intra-industry trade refers to

The correct answer was: a. international trade in differentiated products..

24. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

 Which of the following acronyms refers to the use of computers to design new products?

The correct answer was: d. CAD.

25. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

By using computers to design and manufacture products, firms are able to

The correct answer was: d. All of the above are correct..

Multiple Choice Quiz

1. Which of the following is a variable cost?

 a. Interest payments 

 b. Raw materials costs 
 c. Property taxes 
 d. All of the above are variable costs. 

2. Which of the following is an implicit cost?

 a. The salary earned by a corporate executive 

 b. Depreciation in the value of a company-owned car as it wears out 
 c. Property taxes 
 d. All of the above are implicit costs. 

3. If the output levels at which short-run marginal and average cost curves reach a minimum are
listed in order from smallest to greatest, then the order would be

 a. AVC, MC, ATC 

 b. ATC, AVC, MC 
 c. MC, AVC, ATC 
 d. AVC, ATC, MC 

4. Learning curves represent the relationship between

 a. average variable cost and the number of units produced per time period. 
 b. average variable cost and the cumulative number of units produced. 
 c. total cost and technology. 
 d. average variable cost and the rate of increase in technology. 

5. If an input is owned and used by a firm, then its

 a. explicit cost is zero. 

 b. implicit cost is zero. 
 c. opportunity cost is zero. 
 d. economic cost is zero. 

6. Short-run marginal cost is equal to

  a. the change in total cost divided by the change in output. 
 b. the change in total variable cost divided by the change in output. 
 c. the cost per unit of the variable input divided by the marginal product of the
variable input. 
 d. all of the above. 

7. Short-run average variable cost is equal to

 a. total variable cost divided by output. 

 b. average total cost minus average fixed cost. 
 c. the cost per unit of the variable input divided by the average product of the
variable input. 
 d. all of the above. 

8. Which of the following short-run cost curves declines continuously?

 a. Average total cost 

 b. Marginal cost 
 c. Average fixed cost 
 d. Average variable cost 

9. The law of diminishing returns begins at the level of output where

 a. marginal cost is at a minimum. 

 b. average variable cost is at a minimum. 
 c. average fixed cost is at a maximum. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

10. The long-run average cost curve is at a minimum at a level of output where

 a. the firm is experiencing constant returns to scale. 

 b. it is equal to long-run marginal cost. 
 c. the long-run average cost curve is tangent to the lowest point on a short-run
average total cost curve. 
 d. all of the above occur. 

11. If a firm has a downward sloping long-run average cost curve, then

 a. it is experiencing decreasing returns to scale. 

 b. it is experiencing decreasing returns. 
 c. it is a natural monopoly. 
 d. marginal cost is greater than average cost. 

12. One reason that a firm may experience increasing returns to scale is that greater levels of
output make it possible for the firm to

 a. employ more specialized machinery. 

 b. obtain bulk purchase discounts. 
 c. employ a greater division of labor. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

13. One reason that a firm may experience decreasing returns to scale is that greater levels of
output can result in
  a. a greater division of labor. 
 b. an increase in meetings and paperwork. 
 c. smaller inventories per unit of output. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

14. Economies of scope refers to the decrease in average total cost that can occur when a firm

 a. produces more than one product. 

 b. has monopoly power in world markets. 
 c. controls the raw materials used as inputs. 
 d. narrows the scope of its regional markets. 

15. Breakeven analysis identifies the

 a. profit-maximizing level of output. 

 b. level of output where economic profit is equal to zero. 
 c. level of output where marginal revenue is equal to marginal cost. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

16. Which of the following is an assumption of linear breakeven analysis?

 a. Output price is constant 

 b. Average variable cost is constant 
 c. Average fixed cost is constant 
 d. All of the above are assumptions of linear breakeven analysis. 

17. The responsiveness or sensitivity of a firm's profits to changes in output is measured by a

firm's

 a. operating leverage. 

 b. contribution margin per unit. 
 c. degree of operating leverage. 
 d. returns to scale. 

18. Which of the following values cannot be calculated at the firm's breakeven level of output?

 a. operating leverage. 

 b. contribution margin per unit. 
 c. degree of operating leverage. 
 d. profit. 

19. If a linear short-run variable cost function is estimated using cross-sectional data, then the
corresponding marginal cost function will be

 a. U-shaped. 
 b. upward-sloping. 
 c. downward-sloping. 
 d. horizontal. 

20. The survival technique

 a. can be used to estimate short-run total variable cost functions. 

 b. is based on a technical knowledge of a firm's production function. 
 c. uses regression analysis in combination with time-series or cross-sectional data. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 
 21. The process whereby firms reduce their production costs by taking advantage of international
differences in the prices of inputs and international similarities in preferences is referred to as
the

 a. strategic opportunity concept. 

 b. new international economies of scale. 
 c. global dictum. 
 d. transnational cost theorem. 

22. Which of the following would be referred to as "outsourcing?"

 a. Marketing products outside of a firm's home country 

 b. Hiring temporary workers on a contract basis 
 c. Subcontracting production to firms in other countries 
 d. Identifying and implementing production innovations 

23. When a firm designs a core product for the entire world that can be adapted in a number of
ways to accommodate different types of markets, it is taking advantage of the

 a. strategic opportunity concept. 

 b. new international economies of scale. 
 c. global dictum. 
 d. transnational cost theorem. 

24. The Japanese cost-management system involves

 a. designing a product and then determining the cost of producing it. 
 b. a new system of accounting for capital depreciation. 
 c. determining how much a product should cost and then determining how it should
be produced. 
 d. minimizing international transportation costs. 

25. The contribution margin per unit is equal to the

 a. price of a good. 

 b. the difference between total revenue and total cost. 
 c. difference between price and average total cost. 
 d. difference between price and average variable cost. 

Multiple Choice Quiz - Results

You answered 0 out of 25 questions correctly, for a score of 0%.

1. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is a variable cost?

The correct answer was: b. Raw materials costs.

2. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

 Which of the following is an implicit cost?

The correct answer was: b. Depreciation in the value of a company-owned car as it wears out.

3. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If the output levels at which short-run marginal and average cost curves reach a minimum are
listed in order from smallest to greatest, then the order would be

The correct answer was: c. MC, AVC, ATC.

4. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Learning curves represent the relationship between

The correct answer was: b. average variable cost and the cumulative number of units
produced..

5. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If an input is owned and used by a firm, then its

The correct answer was: a. explicit cost is zero..

6. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Short-run marginal cost is equal to

The correct answer was: d. all of the above..

7. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Short-run average variable cost is equal to

The correct answer was: d. all of the above..

8. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following short-run cost curves declines continuously?

The correct answer was: c. Average fixed cost.

9. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The law of diminishing returns begins at the level of output where

The correct answer was: a. marginal cost is at a minimum..

10. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The long-run average cost curve is at a minimum at a level of output where

 The correct answer was: d. all of the above occur..

11. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If a firm has a downward sloping long-run average cost curve, then

The correct answer was: c. it is a natural monopoly..

12. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

One reason that a firm may experience increasing returns to scale is that greater levels of
output make it possible for the firm to

The correct answer was: d. All of the above are correct..

13. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

One reason that a firm may experience decreasing returns to scale is that greater levels of
output can result in

The correct answer was: b. an increase in meetings and paperwork..

14. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Economies of scope refers to the decrease in average total cost that can occur when a firm

The correct answer was: a. produces more than one product..

15. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Breakeven analysis identifies the

The correct answer was: b. level of output where economic profit is equal to zero..

16. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is an assumption of linear breakeven analysis?

The correct answer was: c. Average fixed cost is constant.

17. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The responsiveness or sensitivity of a firm's profits to changes in output is measured by a

firm's

The correct answer was: c. degree of operating leverage..

18. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following values cannot be calculated at the firm's breakeven level of output?

The correct answer was: c. degree of operating leverage..

19. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If a linear short-run variable cost function is estimated using cross-sectional data, then the
corresponding marginal cost function will be

The correct answer was: d. horizontal..

20. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The survival technique

The correct answer was: d. None of the above is correct..

21. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The process whereby firms reduce their production costs by taking advantage of international
differences in the prices of inputs and international similarities in preferences is referred to as
the

The correct answer was: b. new international economies of scale..

22. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following would be referred to as "outsourcing?"

The correct answer was: c. Subcontracting production to firms in other countries.

23. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

When a firm designs a core product for the entire world that can be adapted in a number of
ways to accommodate different types of markets, it is taking advantage of the

The correct answer was: b. new international economies of scale..

24. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The Japanese cost-management system involves

The correct answer was: c. determining how much a product should cost and then determining
how it should be produced..

25. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The contribution margin per unit is equal to the

The correct answer was: d. difference between price and average variable cost..
Multiple Choice Quiz
1. Which of the following is not a type of market structure?

 a. Competitive monopoly 

 b. Oligopoly 
 c. Perfect competition 
 d. All of the above are types of market structures. 

2. If the market demand curve for a commodity has a negative slope then the market structure
must be

 a. perfect competition. 

 b. monopoly. 
 c. imperfect competition. 
 d. The market structure cannot be determined from the information given. 

3. If a firm sells its output on a market that is characterized by many sellers and buyers, a
homogeneous product, unlimited long-run resource mobility, and perfect knowledge, then the
firm is a

 a. a monopolist. 
 b. an oligopolist. 
 c. a perfect competitor. 
 d. a monopolistic competitor. 

4. If a firm sells its output on a market that is characterized by a single seller and many buyers
of a homogeneous product for which there are no close substitutes and barriers to long-run
resource mobility, then the firm is

 a. a monopolist. 
 b. an oligopolist. 
 c. a perfect competitor. 
 d. a monopolistic competitor. 

5. If a firm sells its output on a market that is characterized by many sellers and buyers, a
differentiated product, and unlimited long-run resource mobility, then the firm is

 a. a monopolist. 
 b. an oligopolist. 
 c. a perfect competitor. 
 d. a monopolistic competitor. 

6. If a firm sells its output on a market that is characterized by few sellers and many buyers and
limited long-run resource mobility, then the firm is

 a. a monopolist. 
 b. an oligopolist. 
 c. a perfect competitor. 
 d. a monopolistic competitor. 

7. If one perfectly competitive firm increases its level of output, market supply
  a. will increase and market price will fall. 
 b. will increase and market price will rise. 
 c. and market price will both remain constant. 
 d. will decrease and market price will rise. 

8. Which of the following markets comes close to satisfying the assumptions of a perfectly
competitive market structure?

 a. The stock market. 

 b. The market for agricultural commodities such as wheat or corn. 
 c. The market for petroleum and natural gas. 
 d. All of the above come close to satisfying the assumptions of perfect competition. 

9. A perfectly competitive firm should reduce output or shut down in the short run if market price
is equal to marginal cost and price is

 a. greater than average total cost. 

 b. less than average total cost. 
 c. greater than average variable cost. 
 d. less than average variable cost. 

10. The market demand curve for a perfectly competitive industry is QD = 12 - 2P. The market
supply curve is QS = 3 + P. The market will be in equilibrium if

 a. P = 6 and Q = 9. 

 b. P = 5 and Q = 2. 
 c. P = 4 and Q = 4. 
 d. P = 3 and Q = 6. 

11. Which of the following is a barrier to entry that typically results in monopoly?

 a. The firm controls the entire supply of a raw material. 

 b. Production of the industry's product is subject to economies of scale over a broad
range of output. 
 c. Production of the industry's product requires a large initial capital investment. 
 d. The firm holds an exclusive government franchise. 

12. In the short run, a monopolist will shut down if it is producing a level of output where marginal
revenue is equal to short-run marginal cost and price is

 a. greater than average total cost. 

 b. less than average total cost. 
 c. greater than average variable cost. 
 d. less than average variable cost. 

13. A natural monopolyrefers to a monopoly that is defended from direct competition by

 a. economies of scale over a broad range of output. 

 b. a government franchise. 
 c. control over a vital input. 
 d. a patent or copyright. 

14. When a perfectly competitive industry is in long-run equilibrium, all firms in the industry
  a. earn zero economic profits. 
 b. produce a level of output where short-run marginal cost is equal to short-run
average total cost. 
 c. produce a level of output where long-run marginal cost is equal to long-run average
cost. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

15. The short-run supply curve of a perfectly competitive firm

 a. is equal to that portion of the short-run marginal cost curve that is above the
average variable cost curve. 
 b. is equal to that portion of the short-run marginal cost curve that is above the
average total cost curve. 
 c. is equal to that portion of the short-run average total cost curve that is above the
average variable cost curve. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

16. The long-run supply curve of a perfectly competitive firm

 a. is equal to that portion of the long-run marginal cost curve that is above the
relevant short-run average variable cost curve. 
 b. is equal to that portion of the long-run marginal cost curve that is above the
relevant short-run average total cost curve. 
 c. is equal to that portion of the long-run average total cost curve that is above the
relevant short-run average variable cost curve. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

17. A depreciation of the U.S. dollar relative to foreign currencies will make

 a. foreign imports less expensive in the United States. 

 b. U.S. exports less expensive in foreign countries. 
 c. the demand for U.S. exports decrease. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

18. The value of the U.S. dollar on the foreign exchange market will tend to

 a. increase if there is an increase in the demand for U.S. exports by foreign
countries. 
 b. decrease if there is an increase in the demand for foreign imports by the United
States. 
 c. decrease if monetary authorities intervene on the foreign exchange market by
selling U.S. dollars for foreign currencies. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

19. A monopolized market is in long-run equilibrium when

 a. zero economic profit is earned by the monopolist. 

 b. production takes place where price is equal to long-run marginal cost and long-run
average cost. 
 c. production takes place where long-run marginal cost is equal to marginal revenue
and price is not below long-run average cost. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

20. A monopolist produces 14,000 units of output and charges $14 per unit. Its marginal revenue
is $8, its marginal cost is $7 and rising, its average total cost is $10, and its average variable
cost is $9. The monopolist should
  a. increase output, which will result in an increase in the firm's positive economic
profit. 
 b. increase output, which will reduce the firm's economic losses. 
 c. shut down, which will reduce the firm's economic losses. 
 d. decrease output, which will result in an increase in the firm's positive economic
profit. 

21. Which of the following types of firms is likely to be a monopolistic competitor?

 a. A local telephone company. 

 b. An automobile manufacturer. 
 c. A restaurant. 
 d. All of the above are likely to be monopolistic competitors. 

22. Which of the following is a differentiated product?

 a. A hamburger. 
 b. A shirt. 
 c. An automobile. 
 d. All of the above are differentiated products. 

23. Which of the following is a characteristic of monopolistic competition?

 a. Few sellers. 

 b. A differentiated product. 
 c. Easy entry into and exit from the industry. 
 d. All of the above are characteristics of monopolistic competition. 

24. The demand curve faced by a monopolistically competitive firm is

 a. perfectly elastic. 

 b. elastic. 
 c. unit elastic. 
 d. inelastic. 

25. If an imperfectly competitive firm is producing a level of output where marginal cost is equal
to marginal revenue, marginal revenue is below average variable cost, and price is equal to
average total cost, then the firm

 a. should shut down. 

 b. should decrease output, but should not shut down. 
 c. should increase output. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

26. If an imperfectly competitive firm is producing a level of output where marginal cost is equal
to marginal revenue, marginal revenue is below average variable cost, and price is equal to
average total cost, then the firm is

 a. in long-run equilibrium. 

 b. in short-run equilibrium. 
 c. minimizing short-run average total cost. 
 d. breaking even. 

27. Product variation refers to

  a. an activity undertaken by a firm to increase demand. 
 b. a problem with quality control that tends to decrease demand. 
 c. an activity undertaken by a firm to make demand more price inelastic. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

28. Which of the following is a criticism of the theory of monopolistic competition?

 a. It is difficult to define a monopolistically competitive market and to determine the

firms and products that comprise it. 
 b. When product differentiation is slight, each firm's demand curve is nearly
horizontal so the perfectly competitive solution provides an adequate approximation to
the monopolistically competitive solution. 
 c. When there are strong brand preferences and few producers of many differentiated
products, or when there are many producers but only a few compete as rivals for any
given consumer, then the oligopoly solution provides an adequate approximation to
the monopolistically competitive solution. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

29. Which of the following industries is most likely to be monopolistically competitive?

 a. The automobile industry 

 b. The steel industry 
 c. The car repair industry 
 d. The electrical generating industry 

30. Marginal revenue is equal to price for which one of the following types of market structure?

 a. Monopoly 
 b. Perfect competition 
 c. Monopolistic competition 
 d. Oligopoly 

Multiple Choice Quiz - Results

You answered 0 out of 30 questions correctly, for a score of 0%.

1. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is not a type of market structure?

The correct answer was: a. Competitive monopoly.

2. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If the market demand curve for a commodity has a negative slope then the market structure
must be

The correct answer was: d. The market structure cannot be determined from the information
given..

3. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

 If a firm sells its output on a market that is characterized by many sellers and buyers, a
homogeneous product, unlimited long-run resource mobility, and perfect knowledge, then the
firm is a

The correct answer was: c. a perfect competitor..

4. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If a firm sells its output on a market that is characterized by a single seller and many buyers
of a homogeneous product for which there are no close substitutes and barriers to long-run
resource mobility, then the firm is

The correct answer was: a. a monopolist..

5. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If a firm sells its output on a market that is characterized by many sellers and buyers, a
differentiated product, and unlimited long-run resource mobility, then the firm is

The correct answer was: d. a monopolistic competitor..

6. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If a firm sells its output on a market that is characterized by few sellers and many buyers and
limited long-run resource mobility, then the firm is

The correct answer was: b. an oligopolist..

7. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If one perfectly competitive firm increases its level of output, market supply

The correct answer was: c. and market price will both remain constant..

8. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following markets comes close to satisfying the assumptions of a perfectly
competitive market structure?

The correct answer was: d. All of the above come close to satisfying the assumptions of
perfect competition..

9. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A perfectly competitive firm should reduce output or shut down in the short run if market price
is equal to marginal cost and price is

The correct answer was: d. less than average variable cost..

10. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The market demand curve for a perfectly competitive industry is QD = 12 - 2P. The market
supply curve is QS = 3 + P. The market will be in equilibrium if
 The correct answer was: d. P = 3 and Q = 6..

11. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is a barrier to entry that typically results in monopoly?

The correct answer was: c. Production of the industry's product requires a large initial capital
investment..

12. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

In the short run, a monopolist will shut down if it is producing a level of output where marginal
revenue is equal to short-run marginal cost and price is

The correct answer was: d. less than average variable cost..

13. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A natural monopolyrefers to a monopoly that is defended from direct competition by

The correct answer was: a. economies of scale over a broad range of output..

14. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

When a perfectly competitive industry is in long-run equilibrium, all firms in the industry

The correct answer was: d. All of the above are correct..

15. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The short-run supply curve of a perfectly competitive firm

The correct answer was: a. is equal to that portion of the short-run marginal cost curve that is
above the average variable cost curve..

16. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The long-run supply curve of a perfectly competitive firm

The correct answer was: b. is equal to that portion of the long-run marginal cost curve that is
above the relevant short-run average total cost curve..

17. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A depreciation of the U.S. dollar relative to foreign currencies will make

The correct answer was: b. U.S. exports less expensive in foreign countries..

18. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The value of the U.S. dollar on the foreign exchange market will tend to
 The correct answer was: d. All of the above are correct..

19. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A monopolized market is in long-run equilibrium when

The correct answer was: c. production takes place where long-run marginal cost is equal to
marginal revenue and price is not below long-run average cost..

20. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A monopolist produces 14,000 units of output and charges $14 per unit. Its marginal revenue
is $8, its marginal cost is $7 and rising, its average total cost is $10, and its average variable
cost is $9. The monopolist should

The correct answer was: a. increase output, which will result in an increase in the firm's
positive economic profit..

21. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following types of firms is likely to be a monopolistic competitor?

The correct answer was: c. A restaurant..

22. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is a differentiated product?

The correct answer was: d. All of the above are differentiated products..

23. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is a characteristic of monopolistic competition?

The correct answer was: a. Few sellers..

24. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The demand curve faced by a monopolistically competitive firm is

The correct answer was: b. elastic..

25. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If an imperfectly competitive firm is producing a level of output where marginal cost is equal
to marginal revenue, marginal revenue is below average variable cost, and price is equal to
average total cost, then the firm

The correct answer was: d. None of the above is correct..

26. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

 If an imperfectly competitive firm is producing a level of output where marginal cost is equal
to marginal revenue, marginal revenue is below average variable cost, and price is equal to
average total cost, then the firm is

The correct answer was: c. minimizing short-run average total cost..

27. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Product variation refers to

The correct answer was: a. an activity undertaken by a firm to increase demand..

28. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is a criticism of the theory of monopolistic competition?

The correct answer was: d. All of the above are correct..

29. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following industries is most likely to be monopolistically competitive?

The correct answer was: c. The car repair industry.

30. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Marginal revenue is equal to price for which one of the following types of market structure?

The correct answer was: b. Perfect competition.

Multiple Choice Quiz

1. The market for automobiles is an example of

 a. monopolistic competition. 

 b. duopoly. 
 c. differentiated oligopoly. 
 d. pure oligopoly. 

2. If an industry is comprised of four firms and their market shares are 40%, 30%, 20%, and
10%, then the Herfindahl index for the industry is

 a. 100 
 b. 200 
 c. 3,000 
 d. 10,000 

3. The Herfindahl index will be largest for an industry that is

  a. a monopoly. 
 b. perfectly competitive. 
 c. a duopoly. 
 d. monopolistically competitive. 

4. The Herfindahl index will be smallest for an industry that is

 a. a monopoly. 
 b. perfectly competitive. 
 c. a duopoly. 
 d. a differentiated oligopoly. 

5. According to the Cournot model, a firm will

 a. assume that rival firms will keep their production constant. 
 b. produce the quantity where marginal revenue equals marginal cost. 
 c. respond to changes in production by rival firms by adjusting its production. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

6. According to the Bertrand model, a firm will assume that rival firms will

 a. keep their rates of production constant. 

 b. keep their prices constant. 
 c. match price cuts but not price increases. 
 d. match price increases but not price cuts. 

7. According to the kinked demand curve model, a firm will assume that rival firms will

 a. keep their rates of production constant. 

 b. keep their prices constant. 
 c. match price cuts but not price increases. 
 d. match price increases but not price cuts. 

8. The refrigerator industry is an example of

 a. monopolistic competition. 

 b. monopoly. 
 c. oligopoly. 
 d. perfect competition. 

9. The petroleum industry is an example of

 a. monopolistic competition. 

 b. pure oligopoly. 
 c. duopoly. 
 d. differentiated oligopoly. 

10. The kinked demand curve model assumes that

 a. firms match price increases, but not price cuts. 

 b. demand is more elastic for price cuts than for price increases. 
 c. changes in marginal cost can never lead to changes in market price. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

11. Which of the following is a form of nonprice competition?

  a. Advertising 
 b. Quality of service 
 c. Product quality 
 d. All of the above are forms of nonprice competition. 

12. A cartel that gives each member the exclusive right to operate in a particular geographic area
is a

 a. market-sharing cartel. 

 b. centralized cartel. 
 c. price leadership cartel. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

13. A cartel that operates like a multiplant monopolist is a

 a. market-sharing cartel. 

 b. centralized cartel. 
 c. price leadership cartel. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

14. Under the dominant-firm price leadership model,

 a. all firms but the dominant firm are price takers. 
 b. the dominant firm acts as the residual monopolistic supplier. 
 c. the demand curve faced by the dominant firm is flatter than the market demand
curve. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

15. Oligopolistic firms can earn positive economic profits

 a. in the short run, but not in the long run. 

 b. in the short run and in the long run. 
 c. in the long run, but not in the short run. 
 d. in neither the short run nor the long run. 

16. Which of the following forms of market organization assumes that entry and exit of firms is
costless?

 a. Differentiated oligopoly 

 b. Duopoly 
 c. Monopolistic competition 
 d. Pure oligopoly 

17. The harmful effects of oligopoly include all of the following

 a. Economies of scale result in a small number of large firms that spend more of
research and development. 
 b. Price is greater than long-run marginal and average cost. 
 c. Production does not generally take place at the lowest point on the long-run
average cost curve. 
 d. All of the above are harmful effects of oligopoly. 

18. The sales maximization model assumes that imperfectly competitive firms will produce a level
of output where
  a. marginal revenue is equal to zero. 
 b. marginal revenue is equal to marginal cost. 
 c. marginal revenue is equal to zero if profit is satisfactory. 
 d. they will break even. 

19. One reason that most economists do not support government industrial and trade policies is
that the outcomes of these policies cannot

 a. have a positive effect on a country's industries. 

 b. be accurately predicted. 
 c. help a country to overcome a comparative disadvantage. 
 d. prevent a country from losing a comparative advantage. 

20. The growth of global oligopolists has been encouraged by

 a. the development of new transportation and telecommunications technologies. 

 b. the globalization of tastes. 
 c. reductions in barriers to international trade and investment. 
 d. All of the above. 

21. In which of the sectors listed below has the growth in concentration has been most
pronounced during the past decade?

 a. Agriculture. 
 b. Mining. 
 c. Banking. 
 d. Home construction. 

22. Firms in which of the following industries have used mergers and acquisitions to grow and
globalize?

 a. Telecommunications 
 b. Entertainment and communications media 
 c. Consumer products 
 d. All of the above. 

23. Compared to relationship enterprises, virtual corporations are more likely to be

 a. lasting and stable. 

 b. short term and temporary. 
 c. global in scope. 
 d. oligopolistic. 

24. When several independent firms form a temporary network to take advantage of a short-term
business opportunity, the result is called a

 a. collaborative firm. 

 b. relationship enterprise. 
 c. virtual corporation. 
 d. cartelized partnership. 

25. The ideal firm architecture includes all of the following EXCEPT:

 a. A focus on core competencies 

 b. The integration of physical and virtual systems 
  c. A hierarchical, top down management structure 
 d. Smaller, more flexible production facilities 

26. Porter's strategic framework identifies forces that influence an industry's

 a. intensity of competition and profitability. 

 b. rate of growth. 
 c. popularity among consumers. 
 d. potential as an exporter within the global economy. 

27. Which of the following is nota force identified by Porter's strategic framework?

 a. Threat of entry 

 b. Intensity of rivalry 
 c. Government tax policy 
 d. Bargaining power of buyers 

28. The knowledge economy is characterized by a reliance on

 a. innovation and creativity. 

 b. a customer-centric approach. 
 c. efficiency in production. 
 d. All of these answers are correct. 

29. An emphasis on design innovation is typical of

 a. the knowledge economy. 

 b. the virtual corporation. 
 c. relationship enterprises. 
 d. the creative firm. 

30. CENCOR is an acronym for a design strategy that consists of the following parts:

 a. Collaborate, evaluate, celebrate, occlude, and rationalize 

 b. Calibrate, explore, create, organize, and realize 
 c. Create, evoke, circumvent, officiate, and redeem 
 d. Calculate, erect, consign, offer, and return

Multiple Choice Quiz - Results

You answered 0 out of 30 questions correctly, for a score of 0%.

1. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The market for automobiles is an example of

The correct answer was: c. differentiated oligopoly..

2. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If an industry is comprised of four firms and their market shares are 40%, 30%, 20%, and
10%, then the Herfindahl index for the industry is

The correct answer was: c. 3,000.

3. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The Herfindahl index will be largest for an industry that is

The correct answer was: a. a monopoly..

4. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The Herfindahl index will be smallest for an industry that is

The correct answer was: b. perfectly competitive..

5. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

According to the Cournot model, a firm will

The correct answer was: d. All of the above are correct..

6. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

According to the Bertrand model, a firm will assume that rival firms will

The correct answer was: b. keep their prices constant..

7. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

According to the kinked demand curve model, a firm will assume that rival firms will

The correct answer was: c. match price cuts but not price increases..

8. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The refrigerator industry is an example of

The correct answer was: c. oligopoly..

9. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The petroleum industry is an example of

The correct answer was: b. pure oligopoly..

10. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The kinked demand curve model assumes that

The correct answer was: d. None of the above is correct..

11. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is a form of nonprice competition?

 The correct answer was: d. All of the above are forms of nonprice competition..

12. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A cartel that gives each member the exclusive right to operate in a particular geographic area
is a

The correct answer was: a. market-sharing cartel..

13. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A cartel that operates like a multiplant monopolist is a

The correct answer was: b. centralized cartel..

14. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Under the dominant-firm price leadership model,

The correct answer was: d. All of the above are correct..

15. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Oligopolistic firms can earn positive economic profits

The correct answer was: b. in the short run and in the long run..

16. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following forms of market organization assumes that entry and exit of firms is
costless?

The correct answer was: c. Monopolistic competition.

17. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The harmful effects of oligopoly include all of the following

The correct answer was: a. Economies of scale result in a small number of large firms that
spend more of research and development..

18. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The sales maximization model assumes that imperfectly competitive firms will produce a level
of output where

The correct answer was: c. marginal revenue is equal to zero if profit is satisfactory..

19. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

One reason that most economists do not support government industrial and trade policies is
that the outcomes of these policies cannot
 The correct answer was: b. be accurately predicted..

20. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The growth of global oligopolists has been encouraged by

The correct answer was: d. All of the above..

21. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

In which of the sectors listed below has the growth in concentration has been most
pronounced during the past decade?

The correct answer was: c. Banking..

22. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Firms in which of the following industries have used mergers and acquisitions to grow and
globalize?

The correct answer was: d. All of the above..

23. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Compared to relationship enterprises, virtual corporations are more likely to be

The correct answer was: b. short term and temporary..

24. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

When several independent firms form a temporary network to take advantage of a short-term
business opportunity, the result is called a

The correct answer was: c. virtual corporation..

25. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The ideal firm architecture includes all of the following EXCEPT:

The correct answer was: c. A hierarchical, top down management structure.

26. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Porter's strategic framework identifies forces that influence an industry's

The correct answer was: a. intensity of competition and profitability..

27. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is nota force identified by Porter's strategic framework?

The correct answer was: c. Government tax policy.

 28. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The knowledge economy is characterized by a reliance on

The correct answer was: c. efficiency in production..

29. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

An emphasis on design innovation is typical of

The correct answer was: d. the creative firm..

30. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

CENCOR is an acronym for a design strategy that consists of the following parts:

The correct answer was: b. Calibrate, explore, create, organize, and realize.

Multiple Choice Quiz

1. A firm that considers the potential reactions of its competitors when it makes a decision

 a. is referred to as a price leader. 

 b. is engaged in strategic behavior. 
 c. is engaged in collusion. 
 d. is referred to as a barometric firm. 

2. Which of the following is an example of strategic behavior?

 a. A firm builds excess capacity to discourage the entry of competitors. 

 b. A firm adopts the pricing behavior of a dominant firm under the assumption that
other firms will do likewise. 
 c. Firms in an industry increase advertising expenditures to avoid losing market
share. 
 d. All of the above are examples of strategic behavior. 

3. Which one of the following is a part of every game theory model?

 a. Players 
 b. Payoffs 
 c. Probabilities 
 d. Strategies 

4. In game theory, a choice that is optimal for a firm no matter what its competitors do is
referred to as

 a. the dominant strategy. 

 b. the game-winning choice. 
 c. super optimal. 
 d. a gonzo selection. 
5. Which of the following circumstances in an industry will result in a Nash equilibrium?

 a. All firms have a dominant strategy and each firm chooses its dominant strategy. 
 b. All firms have a dominant strategy, but only some choose to follow it. 
 c. All firms have a dominant strategy, and none choose it. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

6. Which of the following describes a Nash equilibrium?

 a. A firm chooses its dominant strategy, if one exists. 

 b. Every competing firm in an industry chooses a strategy that is optimal given the
choices of every other firm. 
 c. Market price results in neither a surplus nor a shortage. 
 d. All firms in an industry are earning zero economic profits. 

7. A prisoners' dilemma is a game with all of the following characteristics except one. Which one
is present in a prisoners' dilemma?

 a. Players cooperate in arriving at their strategies. 

 b. Both players have a dominant strategy. 
 c. Both players would be better off if neither chose their dominant strategy. 
 d. The payoff from a strategy depends on the choice made by the other player. 

8. Which of the following legal restrictions, if enforced effectively, would be likely to solve a
prisoners' dilemma type of problem for the firms involved?

 a. A law that prevents a cartel from enforcing rules against cheating. 
 b. A law that makes it illegal for oligopolists to engage in collusion. 
 c. A law that prohibits firms in an industry from advertising their services. 
 d. All of the above would be likely to solve a prisoners' dilemma for the firms. 

9. Until recently, medical doctors and lawyers have been prohibited from engaging in competitive
advertising. If the prisoners' dilemma applies to this situation, then the presence of this
restriction would be likely to

 a. increase profits earned by individuals in these professions. 

 b. reduce profits earned by individuals in these professions. 
 c. have no effect on the profits earned by individuals in these professions. 
 d. increase the profits of some and reduce the profits of other individuals in these
professions. 

10. Which one of the following conditions is required for the success of a tit-for-tat strategy?

 a. Demand and cost conditions must change frequently and unpredictably. 
 b. The number of oligopolists in the industry must be relatively small. 
 c. The game can be repeated only a small number of times. 
 d. Firms must be unable to detect the behavior of their competitors. 

11. An oligopolist may engage in short-run behavior that results in lower profits if

 a. it leads to a Nash equilibrium. 

 b. it is a dominant strategy. 
 c. it is not involved in a repeated game. 
 d. it lends credibility to the firm's threats. 
12. A firm may decide to increase its scale so that it has excess production capacity because, by
doing so, it is able to

 a. minimize its average cost of production. 

 b. establish a credible deterrent to the entry of competing firms. 
 c. take advantage of a dominant strategy in a prisoners' dilemma. 
 d. attain a Nash equilibrium and avoid repeated games. 

13. Game theory is concerned with

 a. predicting the results of bets placed on games like roulette. 

 b. the choice of an optimal strategy in conflict situations. 
 c. utility maximization by firms in perfectly competitive markets. 
 d. the migration patterns of caribou in Alaska. 

14. Which of the following is an example of a game theory strategy?

 a. You scratch my back and I’ll scratch yours. 

 b. If the shoe fits, wear it. 
 c. Monkey see, monkey do. 
 d. None of the above. 

15. In game theory, a situation in which one firm can gain only what another firm loses is called a

 a. nonzero-sum game. 

 b. prisoners’ dilemma. 
 c. zero-sum game. 
 d. cartel temptation. 

16. Which of the following is a nonzero-sum game?

 a. Prisoners’ dilemma 

 b. Chess 
 c. Competition among duopolists when market share is the payoff 
 d. All of the above. 

17. Which of the following is a zero-sum game?

 a. Prisoners’ dilemma 

 b. Chess 
 c. A cartel member’s decision regarding whether or not to cheat 
 d. All of the above. 

18. A plan of action that considers the reactions of rivals is an example of

 a. accounting liability. 

 b. strategic behavior. 
 c. accommodating behavior. 
 d. risk management. 

19. In game theory, the outcome or consequence of a strategy is referred to as the

 a. payoff. 
 b. penalty. 
  c. reward. 
 d. end-game strategy. 

20. A strategy that is best regardless of what rival players do is called

 a. first-mover advantage. 

 b. a Nash equilibrium strategy. 
 c. tit-for-tat. 
 d. a dominant strategy. 

21. A game that involves interrelated decisions that are made over time is a

 a. sequential game. 

 b. repeated game. 
 c. zero-sum game. 
 d. nonzero-sum game. 

22. A game that involves multiple moves in a series of identical situations is called a

 a. sequential game. 

 b. repeated game. 
 c. zero-sum game. 
 d. nonzero-sum game. 

23. Sequential games can be solved using

 a. tit-for-tat. 
 b. dominated strategies. 
 c. backward induction. 
 d. risk averaging. 

24. Industrial policy

 a. is strategic behavior that takes place at the national level. 

 b. may be accomplished by protecting and subsidizing selected industries. 
 c. is intended to provide competitive advantage to selected firms. 
 d. All of the above. 

25. A firm that is threatened by the potential entry of competitors into a market builds excess
production capacity. This is an example of

 a. a prisoners’ dilemma. 

 b. collusion. 
 c. a credible threat. 
 d. tit-for-tat. 

Multiple Choice Quiz - Results

You answered 0 out of 25 questions correctly, for a score of 0%.

1. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A firm that considers the potential reactions of its competitors when it makes a decision

The correct answer was: b. is engaged in strategic behavior..

2. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is an example of strategic behavior?

The correct answer was: d. All of the above are examples of strategic behavior..

3. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which one of the following is a part of every game theory model?

The correct answer was: d. Strategies.

4. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

In game theory, a choice that is optimal for a firm no matter what its competitors do is
referred to as

The correct answer was: a. the dominant strategy..

5. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following circumstances in an industry will result in a Nash equilibrium?

The correct answer was: a. All firms have a dominant strategy and each firm chooses its
dominant strategy..

6. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following describes a Nash equilibrium?

The correct answer was: b. Every competing firm in an industry chooses a strategy that is
optimal given the choices of every other firm..

7. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A prisoners' dilemma is a game with all of the following characteristics except one. Which one
is present in a prisoners' dilemma?

The correct answer was: a. Players cooperate in arriving at their strategies..

8. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following legal restrictions, if enforced effectively, would be likely to solve a
prisoners' dilemma type of problem for the firms involved?

The correct answer was: c. A law that prohibits firms in an industry from advertising their
services..

9. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Until recently, medical doctors and lawyers have been prohibited from engaging in competitive
advertising. If the prisoners' dilemma applies to this situation, then the presence of this
restriction would be likely to
 The correct answer was: a. increase profits earned by individuals in these professions..

10. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which one of the following conditions is required for the success of a tit-for-tat strategy?

The correct answer was: b. The number of oligopolists in the industry must be relatively
small..

11. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

An oligopolist may engage in short-run behavior that results in lower profits if

The correct answer was: d. it lends credibility to the firm's threats..

12. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A firm may decide to increase its scale so that it has excess production capacity because, by
doing so, it is able to

The correct answer was: b. establish a credible deterrent to the entry of competing firms..

13. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Game theory is concerned with

The correct answer was: b. the choice of an optimal strategy in conflict situations..

14. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is an example of a game theory strategy?

The correct answer was: a. You scratch my back and I’ll scratch yours..

15. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

In game theory, a situation in which one firm can gain only what another firm loses is called a

The correct answer was: c. zero-sum game..

16. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is a nonzero-sum game?

The correct answer was: a. Prisoners’ dilemma.

17. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is a zero-sum game?

The correct answer was: b. Chess.

 18. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A plan of action that considers the reactions of rivals is an example of

The correct answer was: b. strategic behavior..

19. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

In game theory, the outcome or consequence of a strategy is referred to as the

The correct answer was: a. payoff..

20. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A strategy that is best regardless of what rival players do is called

The correct answer was: d. a dominant strategy..

21. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A game that involves interrelated decisions that are made over time is a

The correct answer was: a. sequential game..

22. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A game that involves multiple moves in a series of identical situations is called a

The correct answer was: b. repeated game..

23. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Sequential games can be solved using

The correct answer was: c. backward induction..

24. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Industrial policy

The correct answer was: d. All of the above..

25. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A firm that is threatened by the potential entry of competitors into a market builds excess
production capacity. This is an example of

The correct answer was: c. a credible threat..

Multiple Choice Quiz

1. Carolina Berries manufactures many varieties of jams and jellies. An increase in the price of
their strawberry jam can be expected to

 a. increase the demand for their strawberry jelly because the two are complements. 
 b. increase the demand for their strawberry jelly because the two are substitutes. 
 c. decrease the demand for their strawberry jelly because the two are complements. 
 d. decrease the demand for their strawberry jelly because the two are substitutes. 

2. The Nintari Company produces video game playing machines and a second firm, Necsega,
owns exclusive rights to manufacture games that can be used with the Nintari game machine.
Both of these imperfectly competitive firms are maximizing profits. If Nintari buys Necsega
and nothing else changes, then profits will be maximized if Nintari

 a. decreases the prices of game machines and games. 

 b. does not change the prices of game machines or games. 
 c. increases the prices of game machines and games. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

3. Icarus Medical Supplies produces patented adhesives that are used to reassemble broken
bones. Pindrop Medical Products manufactures patented pins that are also used to reassemble
broken bones. Both of these imperfectly competitive firms are maximizing profit. If Icarus
merges with Pindrop, then the merged firm will maximize profits if it

 a. decreases the prices of pins and adhesives. 

 b. does not change the prices of pins or adhesives. 
 c. increases the prices of pins and adhesives. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

4. A single-plant, multi-product firm will introduce additional products

 a. in order of diminishing price elasticities of demand. 

 b. until the marginal revenue from the last product introduced is equal to zero. 
 c. until 100% of unused plant capacity is employed. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

5. The optimal output of joint products that are produced in fixed proportions is found where

 a. the vertical sum of the marginal revenue from each product is equal to marginal
cost. 
 b. the horizontal sum of the marginal revenue from each product is equal to marginal
cost. 
 c. the marginal revenue from each product is equal to the marginal cost of producing
each product. 
 d. the marginal cost is equal to the corresponding price of each product. 

6. The optimal combination of joint products that are produced in variable proportions is found
where

 a. the marginal revenue from each product is equal to the marginal cost of producing
each product. 
 b. the isorevenue line is tangent to the product transformation curve. 
 c. the isorevenue line is tangent to the relevant total cost curve. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

7. Which of the following is an example of price discrimination?

  a. It costs more to make a long-distance phone call during the day than it does late at
night. 
 b. A ticket to the zoo costs less for a child than it does for an adult. 
 c. Regular gasoline costs less than premium gasoline. 
 d. All of the above are examples of price discrimination. 

8. A firm will realize the highest level of profit if it is able to engage in

 a. first-degree price discrimination. 

 b. second-degree price discrimination. 
 c. third-degree price discrimination. 
 d. The answer cannot be determined without additional information. 

9. A grocery store that offers one can of soup for $0.35 and three cans for $1.00 is engaging in

 a. first-degree price discrimination. 

 b. second-degree price discrimination. 
 c. third-degree price discrimination. 
 d. The answer cannot be determined without additional information. 

10. A movie theater that charges a lower price for matinees than for evening showings is engaging
in

 a. first-degree price discrimination. 

 b. second-degree price discrimination. 
 c. third-degree price discrimination. 
 d. The answer cannot be determined without additional information. 

11. A firm that is engaging in price discrimination will

 a. charge a higher price to consumers with a higher price elasticity of demand. 
 b. charge a higher price to consumers with a lower price elasticity of demand. 
 c. earn lower profits than a similar firm that does not engage in price discrimination. 
 d. generally be a perfectly competitive firm. 

12. Persistent dumping refers to the practice of

 a. international price discrimination. 

 b. charging a lower price on foreign markets where demand is more price elastic. 
 c. taking advantage of the segmentation of markets that results from domestic
restrictions on imports. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

13. A firm that is selling a product at or below cost on foreign markets in order to drive foreign
producers out of business is engaging in

 a. international price discrimination. 

 b. persistent dumping. 
 c. predatory dumping. 
 d. sporadic dumping. 

14. If there is no external market for an intermediate product, then the transfer price should be
set equal to
  a. the marginal cost of producing the optimal quantity of the intermediate product. 
 b. the marginal cost of producing the final product. 
 c. the selling price of the final product. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

15. If the external market for an intermediate product is perfectly competitive, then the transfer
price should be set equal to

 a. the market price of the final product. 

 b. the competitive market price of the intermediate product. 
 c. the marginal cost of the final product. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

16. If the external market for an intermediate product is imperfectly competitive, then the transfer
price should be set equal to

 a. the market price of the intermediate product. 

 b. the marginal cost of producing the optimal quantity of the intermediate product. 
 c. the market price of the final product. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

17. A firm charges $14 for a product. If the markup is 40%, then the fully allocated average cost
is

 a. $19.60 
 b. $10.00 
 c. $8.40 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

18. A firm produces a product with a fully allocated average cost equal to $20. If the price
elasticity of demand for the product is -5, then the product price should be set at

 a. $25. 
 b. $24. 
 c. $23. 
 d. $22. 

19. Setting a high price when a product is first introduced and then gradually lowering its price
over time is referred to as

 a. value pricing. 

 b. skimming. 
 c. price lining. 
 d. prestige pricing. 

20. Developing a product to sell at a predetermined price is called

 a. value pricing. 

 b. skimming. 
 c. price lining. 
 d. prestige pricing. 

21. A pricing practice that involves charging a fixed fee plus a per unit price for a good or service
is referred to as
  a. bundling. 
 b. skimming. 
 c. a two-part tariff. 
 d. first degree price discrimination. 

22. A tying agreement requires buyers of a product to

 a. purchase another product needed in the use of the first product. 
 b. purchase a minimum number of units. 
 c. refrain from exporting the product to certain countries. 
 d. All of the above are true of a tying agreement. 

23. A pricing practice that requires buyers to purchase packages of different goods and does not
make the goods available separately is called

 a. value pricing. 

 b. bundling. 
 c. a two-part tariff. 
 d. skimming. 

24. A firm has two products and two customers. Customer 1 is willing to pay $5 for Product A and
$3 for Product B. Customer 2 is willing to pay $7 for Product A and $4 for Product B. Can the
firm increase revenue by bundling and, if so, how much should be charged for the bundle?

 a. The firm cannot increase profits by bundling. 

 b. The firm can increase profits by bundling. The bundle should sell for $12. 
 c. The firm can increase profits by bundling. The bundle should sell for $10. 
 d. The firm can increase profits by bundling. The bundle should sell for $7. 

25. A firm has two products and two customers. Customer 1 is willing to pay $9 for Product A and
$4 for Product B. Customer 2 is willing to pay $7 for Product A and $5 for Product B. Can the
firm increase revenue by bundling and, if so, how much should be charged for the bundle?

 a. The firm cannot increase profits by bundling. 

 b. The firm can increase profits by bundling. The bundle should sell for $12. 
 c. The firm can increase profits by bundling. The bundle should sell for $10. 
 d. The firm can increase profits by bundling. The bundle should sell for $7. 

Multiple Choice Quiz - Results

You answered 0 out of 25 questions correctly, for a score of 0%.

1. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Carolina Berries manufactures many varieties of jams and jellies. An increase in the price of
their strawberry jam can be expected to

The correct answer was: b. increase the demand for their strawberry jelly because the two are
substitutes..

2. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The Nintari Company produces video game playing machines and a second firm, Necsega,
owns exclusive rights to manufacture games that can be used with the Nintari game machine.
 Both of these imperfectly competitive firms are maximizing profits. If Nintari buys Necsega
and nothing else changes, then profits will be maximized if Nintari

The correct answer was: a. decreases the prices of game machines and games..

3. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Icarus Medical Supplies produces patented adhesives that are used to reassemble broken
bones. Pindrop Medical Products manufactures patented pins that are also used to reassemble
broken bones. Both of these imperfectly competitive firms are maximizing profit. If Icarus
merges with Pindrop, then the merged firm will maximize profits if it

The correct answer was: c. increases the prices of pins and adhesives..

4. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A single-plant, multi-product firm will introduce additional products

The correct answer was: d. None of the above is correct..

5. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The optimal output of joint products that are produced in fixed proportions is found where

The correct answer was: a. the vertical sum of the marginal revenue from each product is
equal to marginal cost..

6. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The optimal combination of joint products that are produced in variable proportions is found
where

The correct answer was: b. the isorevenue line is tangent to the product transformation
curve..

7. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is an example of price discrimination?

The correct answer was: c. Regular gasoline costs less than premium gasoline..

8. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A firm will realize the highest level of profit if it is able to engage in

The correct answer was: a. first-degree price discrimination..

9. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A grocery store that offers one can of soup for $0.35 and three cans for $1.00 is engaging in

The correct answer was: b. second-degree price discrimination..

10. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A movie theater that charges a lower price for matinees than for evening showings is engaging
in

The correct answer was: c. third-degree price discrimination..

11. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A firm that is engaging in price discrimination will

The correct answer was: b. charge a higher price to consumers with a lower price elasticity of
demand..

12. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Persistent dumping refers to the practice of

The correct answer was: d. All of the above are correct..

13. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A firm that is selling a product at or below cost on foreign markets in order to drive foreign
producers out of business is engaging in

The correct answer was: c. predatory dumping..

14. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If there is no external market for an intermediate product, then the transfer price should be
set equal to

The correct answer was: a. the marginal cost of producing the optimal quantity of the
intermediate product..

15. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If the external market for an intermediate product is perfectly competitive, then the transfer
price should be set equal to

The correct answer was: b. the competitive market price of the intermediate product..

16. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If the external market for an intermediate product is imperfectly competitive, then the transfer
price should be set equal to

The correct answer was: b. the marginal cost of producing the optimal quantity of the
intermediate product..

17. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

 A firm charges $14 for a product. If the markup is 40%, then the fully allocated average cost
is

The correct answer was: b. $10.00.

18. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A firm produces a product with a fully allocated average cost equal to $20. If the price
elasticity of demand for the product is -5, then the product price should be set at

The correct answer was: a. $25..

19. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Setting a high price when a product is first introduced and then gradually lowering its price
over time is referred to as

The correct answer was: b. skimming..

20. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Developing a product to sell at a predetermined price is called

The correct answer was: c. price lining..

21. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A pricing practice that involves charging a fixed fee plus a per unit price for a good or service
is referred to as

The correct answer was: c. a two-part tariff..

22. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A tying agreement requires buyers of a product to

The correct answer was: a. purchase another product needed in the use of the first product..

23. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A pricing practice that requires buyers to purchase packages of different goods and does not
make the goods available separately is called

The correct answer was: b. bundling..

24. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A firm has two products and two customers. Customer 1 is willing to pay $5 for Product A and
$3 for Product B. Customer 2 is willing to pay $7 for Product A and $4 for Product B. Can the
firm increase revenue by bundling and, if so, how much should be charged for the bundle?

The correct answer was: a. The firm cannot increase profits by bundling..
 25. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A firm has two products and two customers. Customer 1 is willing to pay $9 for Product A and
$4 for Product B. Customer 2 is willing to pay $7 for Product A and $5 for Product B. Can the
firm increase revenue by bundling and, if so, how much should be charged for the bundle?

The correct answer was: b. The firm can increase profits by bundling. The bundle should sell
for $12..

Multiple Choice Quiz

1. Which one of the following types of government regulation does limit competition and create
artificial market power?

 a. Licensing regulations 

 b. Patents 
 c. Copyrights 
 d. All of the above limit competition and create artificial market power. 

2. Which of the following is a law designed to protect the consumers of products?

 a. Warranty Act of 1975 

 b. Federal Trade Commission Act of 1914 
 c. 1990 Nutrition Labeling Act 
 d. All of the above are designed to protect the consumers of products. 

3. If an increase in output by a firm imposes uncompensated costs on other firms, these costs
are referred to as

 a. external diseconomies of production. 

 b. external economies of production. 
 c. external diseconomies of consumption. 
 d. external economies of consumption. 

4. If an increase in output by a firm confers uncompensated benefits to other firms, these

benefits are referred to as

 a. external diseconomies of production. 

 b. external economies of production. 
 c. external diseconomies of consumption. 
 d. external economies of consumption. 

5. If the consumption expenditures of some individuals impose uncompensated costs on other

individuals, these costs are referred to as

 a. external diseconomies of production. 

 b. external economies of production. 
 c. external diseconomies of consumption. 
 d. external economies of consumption. 
6. If the consumption expenditures of some individuals confer uncompensated benefits on other
individuals, these benefits are referred to as

 a. external diseconomies of production. 

 b. external economies of production. 
 c. external diseconomies of consumption. 
 d. external economies of consumption. 

7. Government regulation of natural monopolies typically sets the market price so that the level
of output corresponds to the point of intersection between long-run

 a. marginal cost and marginal revenue. 

 b. marginal cost and demand. 
 c. average cost and marginal revenue. 
 d. average cost and demand. 

8. Natural monopolies will produce a socially optimal level of output if government subsidies
ensure an economic profit of zero and the market price is set by regulators at the point of
intersection between long-run

 a. marginal cost and marginal revenue. 

 b. marginal cost and demand. 
 c. average cost and marginal revenue. 
 d. average cost and demand. 

9. Which of the following is a complication encountered by public utility regulatory commissions

when they set rates?

 a. It is difficult to determine the economic value of a public utility's fixed assets. 
 b. Public utilities typically engage in price discrimination, so many different rates must
be determined. 
 c. The services provided by public utilities are typically jointly produced, so the
allocation of costs among different services is difficult or impossible. 
 d. All of the above are problems that are encountered when regulatory commissions
set rates. 

10. The Averch-Johnson effect refers to

 a. the inefficiencies that result when regulators set public utility rates too high or too
low. 
 b. the tendency toward natural monopoly in firms that have downward-sloping long-
run average cost curves. 
 c. the 9 to 12 month time lag between recognition of a need for rate revision and
action by regulatory commissions. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

11. Which of the following made monopolization and restraint of trade illegal?

 a. Robinson-Patman Act 

 b. Sherman Act 
 c. Clayton Act 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

12. Which of the following prohibits tying contracts?

  a. Robinson-Patman Act 
 b. Sherman Act 
 c. Clayton Act 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

13. Which of the following made it illegal to charge unreasonably low prices with the intention of
destroying competition or eliminating competitors?

 a. Robinson-Patman Act 

 b. Sherman Act 
 c. Clayton Act 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

14. Which of the following stated that "unfair methods of competition" are unlawful?

 a. Robinson-Patman Act 

 b. Sherman Act 
 c. Clayton Act 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

15. The Wheeler-Lea Act was designed to protect consumers from

 a. monopoly. 
 b. unfair methods of competition. 
 c. false or deceptive advertising. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

16. Most antitrust actions have been settled by means of

 a. dissolution and divestiture. 

 b. an injunction. 
 c. a consent decree. 
 d. fines and jail sentences. 

17. Which of the following is illegal?

 a. Price discrimination 

 b. Collusion 
 c. Monopoly 
 d. Interlocking directorates 

18. Which of the following industries was deregulated during the 1970s and 1980s?

 a. Airlines 
 b. Electricity generation and distribution 
 c. Telecommunications 
 d. Banking 

19. Which of the following protect domestic producers from foreign competition?

 a. Import tariffs 

 b. Import quotas 
 c. Voluntary export restrictions 
 d. All of the above protect domestic producers from foreign competition. 
 20. Which of the following will result from the imposition of an import tariff on a commodity?

 a. The supply of the commodity will increase. 

 b. The price of the commodity will increase. 
 c. Domestic production of the commodity will increase. 
 d. All of the above will result from an import tariff. 

Multiple Choice Quiz - Results

You answered 0 out of 20 questions correctly, for a score of 0%.

1. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which one of the following types of government regulation does limit competition and create
artificial market power?

The correct answer was: d. All of the above limit competition and create artificial market
power..

2. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is a law designed to protect the consumers of products?

The correct answer was: d. All of the above are designed to protect the consumers of
products..

3. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If an increase in output by a firm imposes uncompensated costs on other firms, these costs
are referred to as

The correct answer was: a. external diseconomies of production..

4. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If an increase in output by a firm confers uncompensated benefits to other firms, these

benefits are referred to as

The correct answer was: b. external economies of production..

5. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If the consumption expenditures of some individuals impose uncompensated costs on other

individuals, these costs are referred to as

The correct answer was: c. external diseconomies of consumption..

6. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If the consumption expenditures of some individuals confer uncompensated benefits on other

individuals, these benefits are referred to as

The correct answer was: d. external economies of consumption..

7. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Government regulation of natural monopolies typically sets the market price so that the level
of output corresponds to the point of intersection between long-run

The correct answer was: d. average cost and demand..

8. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Natural monopolies will produce a socially optimal level of output if government subsidies
ensure an economic profit of zero and the market price is set by regulators at the point of
intersection between long-run

The correct answer was: d. average cost and demand..

9. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is a complication encountered by public utility regulatory commissions

when they set rates?

The correct answer was: d. All of the above are problems that are encountered when
regulatory commissions set rates..

10. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The Averch-Johnson effect refers to

The correct answer was: a. the inefficiencies that result when regulators set public utility rates
too high or too low..

11. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following made monopolization and restraint of trade illegal?

The correct answer was: b. Sherman Act.

12. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following prohibits tying contracts?

The correct answer was: c. Clayton Act.

13. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following made it illegal to charge unreasonably low prices with the intention of
destroying competition or eliminating competitors?

The correct answer was: a. Robinson-Patman Act.

14. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following stated that "unfair methods of competition" are unlawful?
 The correct answer was: d. None of the above is correct..

15. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The Wheeler-Lea Act was designed to protect consumers from

The correct answer was: c. false or deceptive advertising..

16. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Most antitrust actions have been settled by means of

The correct answer was: c. a consent decree..

17. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is illegal?

The correct answer was: b. Collusion.

18. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following industries was deregulated during the 1970s and 1980s?

The correct answer was: b. Electricity generation and distribution.

19. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following protect domestic producers from foreign competition?

The correct answer was: d. All of the above protect domestic producers from foreign
competition..

20. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following will result from the imposition of an import tariff on a commodity?

The correct answer was: a. The supply of the commodity will increase..

Multiple Choice Quiz

1. A situation in which a decision maker knows all of the possible outcomes of a decision and also
knows the probability associated with each outcome is referred to as

 a. certainty. 
 b. risk. 
 c. uncertainty. 
 d. strategy. 
2. Which of the following methods of selecting a strategy is consistent with risk averting
behavior?

 a. If two strategies have the same expected profit, select the one with the smaller
standard deviation. 
 b. If two strategies have the same standard deviation, select the one with the smaller
expected profit. 
 c. Select the strategy with the larger coefficient of variation. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

3. Which one of the following does measure risk?

 a. Coefficient of variation 

 b. Standard deviation 
 c. Expected value 
 d. All of the above are measures of risk. 

4. If a person's utility doubles when their income doubles, then that person is risk

 a. averse. 
 b. neutral. 
 c. seeking. 
 d. There is not enough information given in the question to determine an answer. 

5. Strategy A has an expected value of 10 and a standard deviation of 3. Strategy B has an

expected value of 10 and a standard deviation of 5. Strategy C has an expected value of 15
and a standard deviation of 10. Which one of the following statements is true?

 a. A risk averse decision maker will always prefer A to B, but may prefer C to A. 
 b. A risk neutral decision maker will always prefer C to A or B. 
 c. A risk seeking decision maker will always prefer C to A or B. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

6. The coefficient of variation measures

 a. the risk per unit of expected payoff. 

 b. the risk-adjusted expected value. 
 c. the payoff per unit of risk. 
 d. a decision maker's risk-return tradeoff. 

7. A situation in which a decision maker must choose between strategies that have more than
one possible outcome when the probability of each outcome is unknown is referred to as

 a. diversification. 
 b. certainty. 
 c. risk. 
 d. uncertainty. 

8. If a decision maker is risk averse, then the best strategy to select is the one that yields the

 a. highest expected payoff. 

 b. lowest coefficient of variation. 
 c. highest expected utility. 
 d. lowest standard deviation. 
9. Circumstances that influence the profitability of a decision are referred to as

 a. strategies. 
 b. a payoff matrix. 
 c. states of nature. 
 d. the marginal utility of money. 

10. The marginal utility of money diminishes for a decision maker who is

 a. a risk seeker. 

 b. risk neutral. 
 c. a risk averter. 
 d. in a situation of uncertainty. 

11. A strategy that yields an expected monetary payoff of zero is called a

 a. risk-neutral strategy. 

 b. fair game. 
 c. zero-sum game. 
 d. certainty equivalent. 

12. A risk-return tradeoff function

 a. shows the minimum expected return required to compensate an investor for
accepting various levels of risk. 
 b. slopes upward for a risk averse decision maker. 
 c. is horizontal for a risk neutral decision maker. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

13. If the market interest rate is 10% and a decision maker's risk adjusted discount rate is 12%,
then the decision maker

 a. is risk averse. 

 b. has a certainty-equivalent coefficient that is greater than one. 
 c. is risk neutral. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

14. Fred is willing to pay $1 for a lottery ticket that has an expected value of zero. This proves
that Fred

 a. is risk averse. 

 b. has a certainty-equivalent coefficient that is equal to one. 
 c. is risk neutral. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

15. The analysis of a complex decision situation by constructing a mathematical model of the
situation and then performing a large number of iterations in order to determine the
probability distribution of outcomes is called

 a. sensitivity analysis. 

 b. expected utility analysis. 
 c. simulation. 
 d. a decision tree. 
16. A payoff matrix presents all the information required to determine the optimal strategy using
the

 a. expected value criterion. 

 b. the maximin criterion. 
 c. the utility maximization criterion. 
 d. simulation criterion. 

17. Which of the following is a way to deal with decision making under uncertainty?

 a. Simulation 
 b. Diversification 
 c. Acquisition of additional information 
 d. Application of the maximin criterion 

18. A matrix that, for each state of nature and strategy, shows the difference between a strategy's
payoff and the best strategy's payoff is called

 a. a maximin matrix. 

 b. a minimax regret matrix. 
 c. a payoff matrix. 
 d. an expected utility matrix. 

19. The sequence of possible managerial decisions and their expected outcome under each set of
circumstances can be represented and analyzed by using

 a. the minimax regret criterion. 

 b. a decision tree. 
 c. a payoff matrix. 
 d. simulation. 

20. According to a survey carried out by Gitman and Forrester that was published in 1977, the
most common way for businesses in the United States to deal with risk in capital budgeting
decisions is by

 a. ignoring it. 

 b. using the certainty equivalent method. 
 c. using the risk-adjusted discount rate method. 
 d. using the expected utility method. 

21. A futures contract

 a. is a type of bond that specifies the amount of interest that must be paid on a loan
at a future point in time. 
 b. is an agreement to buy or sell a commodity at a specified price at a specified point
in time. 
 c. is a partnership agreement between two parties that determines their future
business relationship. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

22. Hedging refers to an investment strategy that is used to

 a. control risk from variations in currency prices. 

 b. prevent losses due to corporate bankruptcies. 
  c. ensure the highest possible rate of return. 
 d. prevent foreign competition in domestic capital markets. 

23. Asymmetric information refers to circumstances in which

 a. both parties to a transaction have identical amounts of information. 

 b. neither party to a transaction has any relevant information. 
 c. one party to a transaction has more information than the other party. 
 d. the riskiness of a transaction is greater than its expected return. 

24. The tendency for low-quality cars to drive high quality cars out of the used car market is an
example of

 a. hedging. 
 b. adverse selection. 
 c. portfolio analysis. 
 d. moral hazard. 

25. A person with health insurance is more likely to become ill and visit a doctor than is someone
without health insurance. One reason is that a person with health insurance is less likely to
take precautions that will prevent illness. This is an example of

 a. propinquity. 
 b. a futures contract. 
 c. hedging. 
 d. moral hazard. 

26. The principal-agent problem may result if

 a. a firm is owned and operated by the same person. 

 b. managers make decisions that are not in the best interest of owners. 
 c. a firm compensates managers based on the profitability of the firm. 
 d. All of these answers are correct. 

27. One way to correct a potential principal-agent problem is for stockholders to

 a. offer managers "golden parachutes" in the event of a takeover. 

 b. empower managers to make the decisions they feel are best. 
 c. ensure that there is no explicit linkage between managers' compensation and the
profitability of the firm. 
 d. All of these answers are correct. 

28. Which of the following is a sequential, ascending bid auction?

 a. Dutch auction 

 b. First-price sealed bid auction 
 c. Second-price sealed bid auction 
 d. English auction 

29. Which of the following is a descending bid auction?

 a. Dutch auction 

 b. First-price sealed bid auction 
 c. Second-price sealed bid auction 
 d. English auction 
 30. The winner's curse refers to

 a. the reaction of losers in an English auction to the winner. 

 b. a tax imposed on the winners of English auctions. 
 c. paying an amount that exceeds the true value of an item at auction. 
 d. a Dutch auction in which the winner is obliged, by tradition, to berate the
auctioneer. 

Multiple Choice Quiz - Results

You answered 0 out of 30 questions correctly, for a score of 0%.

1. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A situation in which a decision maker knows all of the possible outcomes of a decision and also
knows the probability associated with each outcome is referred to as

The correct answer was: b. risk..

2. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following methods of selecting a strategy is consistent with risk averting
behavior?

The correct answer was: a. If two strategies have the same expected profit, select the one
with the smaller standard deviation..

3. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which one of the following does measure risk?

The correct answer was: c. Expected value.

4. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If a person's utility doubles when their income doubles, then that person is risk

The correct answer was: b. neutral..

5. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Strategy A has an expected value of 10 and a standard deviation of 3. Strategy B has an

expected value of 10 and a standard deviation of 5. Strategy C has an expected value of 15
and a standard deviation of 10. Which one of the following statements is true?

The correct answer was: d. All of the above are correct..

6. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The coefficient of variation measures

The correct answer was: a. the risk per unit of expected payoff..
7. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A situation in which a decision maker must choose between strategies that have more than
one possible outcome when the probability of each outcome is unknown is referred to as

The correct answer was: d. uncertainty..

8. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If a decision maker is risk averse, then the best strategy to select is the one that yields the

The correct answer was: c. highest expected utility..

9. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Circumstances that influence the profitability of a decision are referred to as

The correct answer was: c. states of nature..

10. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The marginal utility of money diminishes for a decision maker who is

The correct answer was: c. a risk averter..

11. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A strategy that yields an expected monetary payoff of zero is called a

The correct answer was: b. fair game..

12. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A risk-return tradeoff function

The correct answer was: d. All of the above are correct..

13. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

If the market interest rate is 10% and a decision maker's risk adjusted discount rate is 12%,
then the decision maker

The correct answer was: a. is risk averse..

14. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Fred is willing to pay $1 for a lottery ticket that has an expected value of zero. This proves
that Fred

The correct answer was: d. None of the above is correct..

15. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

 The analysis of a complex decision situation by constructing a mathematical model of the
situation and then performing a large number of iterations in order to determine the
probability distribution of outcomes is called

The correct answer was: c. simulation..

16. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A payoff matrix presents all the information required to determine the optimal strategy using
the

The correct answer was: b. the maximin criterion..

17. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is a way to deal with decision making under uncertainty?

The correct answer was: a. Simulation.

18. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A matrix that, for each state of nature and strategy, shows the difference between a strategy's
payoff and the best strategy's payoff is called

The correct answer was: b. a minimax regret matrix..

19. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The sequence of possible managerial decisions and their expected outcome under each set of
circumstances can be represented and analyzed by using

The correct answer was: b. a decision tree..

20. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

According to a survey carried out by Gitman and Forrester that was published in 1977, the
most common way for businesses in the United States to deal with risk in capital budgeting
decisions is by

The correct answer was: c. using the risk-adjusted discount rate method..

21. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A futures contract

The correct answer was: b. is an agreement to buy or sell a commodity at a specified price at
a specified point in time..

22. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Hedging refers to an investment strategy that is used to

The correct answer was: a. control risk from variations in currency prices..
23. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Asymmetric information refers to circumstances in which

The correct answer was: c. one party to a transaction has more information than the other
party..

24. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The tendency for low-quality cars to drive high quality cars out of the used car market is an
example of

The correct answer was: b. adverse selection..

25. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A person with health insurance is more likely to become ill and visit a doctor than is someone
without health insurance. One reason is that a person with health insurance is less likely to
take precautions that will prevent illness. This is an example of

The correct answer was: d. moral hazard..

26. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The principal-agent problem may result if

The correct answer was: b. managers make decisions that are not in the best interest of
owners..

27. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

One way to correct a potential principal-agent problem is for stockholders to

The correct answer was: a. offer managers "golden parachutes" in the event of a takeover..

28. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is a sequential, ascending bid auction?

The correct answer was: d. English auction.

29. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is a descending bid auction?

The correct answer was: a. Dutch auction.

30. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The winner's curse refers to

 The correct answer was: c. paying an amount that exceeds the true value of an item at
auction..

Multiple Choice Quiz

1. The process of planning expenditures that will influence the operation of a firm over a number
of years is called

 a. investment. 
 b. capital budgeting. 
 c. net present valuation. 
 d. dividend valuation. 

2. Which of the following is an example of a capital investment project?

 a. Replacement of worn out equipment 

 b. Expansion of production facilities 
 c. Development of employee training programs 
 d. All of the above are examples of capital investment projects. 

3. A firm is considering three investment projects which we will refer to as A, B, and C. Each
project has an initial cost of $10 million. Investment A offers an expected rate of return of
16%, B of 8%, and C of 12%. The firm's cost of capital is 6% if it borrows $10 million, 10% if
it borrows $20 million, and 15% if it borrows $30 million. Which project(s) should the firm
invest in?

 a. Just A, because it offers the highest rate of return and is the only investment that
has a rate of return higher than 15% 
 b. All three should be undertaken, because the rate of return on B is above 6%, on C
is above 10%, and on A is above 15%. 
 c. Only A and C should be undertaken because both have rates of return that are
greater than 10%. 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

4. Which of the following is an appropriate way to measure cash flows?

 a. Treat depreciation as a negative cash flow 

 b. Consider only incremental costs and revenues 
 c. Consider only after-tax cash flows 
 d. All of the above are appropriate ways to measure cash flows. 

5. The net present value of a project is equal to

 a. the present value of all net cash flows that result from the project. 
 b. the present value of all revenues minus the present value of all costs that result
from the project. 
 c. the present value of all future net cash flows that result from the project minus the
initial investment required to start the project. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

6. The net present value method and the internal rate of return method will always yield the
same decision when
  a. a single project is evaluated. 
 b. mutually exclusive projects are evaluated. 
 c. a limited number of projects must be selected from a large number of
opportunities. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

7. Which of the following is a form of capital as the term is used in economics?

 a. Houses owned by individuals 

 b. Factories owned by businesses 
 c. Education 
 d. Money 

8. In cases where capital must be rationed, a firm should rank projects according to their

 a. net present values. 

 b. internal rates of return. 
 c. profitability indexes. 
 d. external rates of return. 

9. Which of the following is an internal source of investment funding?

 a. Issuing bonds 

 b. Sale of stocks 
 c. Undistributed profits 
 d. All of the above are internal sources. 

10. A firm can borrow at an interest rate of 10%. Its marginal tax rate is 40%. What is its cost of
debt?

 a. 10% 
 b. 14% 
 c. 6% 
 d. None of the above is correct. 

11. The method of raising funds for capital investment that involves the greatest risk to the firm is

 a. borrowing by selling bonds. 

 b. relying on retained profits. 
 c. issuing common stock. 
 d. raising the dividend rate. 

12. Which of the following sources of funds for capital investment involves a tax adjustment to
determine the cost of capital?

 a. Retained profits 

 b. Issuing debt 
 c. Issuing common stock 
 d. All of the above involve a tax adjustment. 

13. Assume that the risk-free interest rate is 6% and that a firm can issue bonds at an interest
rate of 9%. Assume further that the difference between the average yield on stocks and the
average yield on corporate bonds is 4%. What is the risk premium associated with the firm's
cost of equity capital?
  a. 15% 
 b. 13% 
 c. 7% 
 d. 4% 

14. Assume that investors require a rate of return of 10% to invest in a firm that pays a dividend
of $2 per year. The price of the firm's stock is currently based on the assumption that the
firm's dividend will remain constant. By how much will the price of the firm's stock increase if
the firm begins to grow at a rate of 2% per year and is expected to continue to do so
indefinitely?

 a. $25 
 b. $20 
 c. $10 
 d. $5 

15. The beta coefficient is associated with

 a. the capital asset pricing model. 

 b. the dividend valuation model. 
 c. the risk-free rate plus premium model. 
 d. the tax-adjusted cost of debt. 

16. Assume that the risk-free rate is 5% and that the rate of return on a balanced portfolio of
common stocks is 9%. If a firm has a beta coefficient of 2, then its risk premium is

 a. 18% 
 b. 10% 
 c. 8% 
 d. 4% 

17. A firm must raise $10 million dollars in funding for a capital investment project. $2 million will
be raised by issuing debt with an interest rate of 10% while the remainder will be raised by
issuing stocks that will yield a return of 12%. The firm's marginal tax rate is 30%. What is the
firm's composite cost of capital?

 a. 15% 
 b. 12% 
 c. 11% 
 d. 10% 

18. The debt to equity ratio that is selected by a firm depends

 a. on the attitude of the firm towards risk. 

 b. the cost of debt and the cost of equity capital. 
 c. the nature of the firm's business. 
 d. All of the above are correct. 

19. The review of projects after they have been implemented is called

 a. capital budgeting. 

 b. a postaudit. 
 c. blame spreading. 
 d. context correlation. 
 20. According to the Gitman and Forrester study published in 1977, the two most commonly used
capital budgeting techniques are

 a. net present value and profitability index. 

 b. internal rate of return and payback period. 
 c. net present value and average rate of return. 
 d. profitability index and average rate of return. 

Multiple Choice Quiz - Results

You answered 0 out of 20 questions correctly, for a score of 0%.

1. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The process of planning expenditures that will influence the operation of a firm over a number
of years is called

The correct answer was: b. capital budgeting..

2. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is an example of a capital investment project?

The correct answer was: d. All of the above are examples of capital investment projects..

3. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A firm is considering three investment projects which we will refer to as A, B, and C. Each
project has an initial cost of $10 million. Investment A offers an expected rate of return of
16%, B of 8%, and C of 12%. The firm's cost of capital is 6% if it borrows $10 million, 10% if
it borrows $20 million, and 15% if it borrows $30 million. Which project(s) should the firm
invest in?

The correct answer was: c. Only A and C should be undertaken because both have rates of
return that are greater than 10%..

4. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is an appropriate way to measure cash flows?

The correct answer was: a. Treat depreciation as a negative cash flow.

5. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The net present value of a project is equal to

The correct answer was: d. All of the above are correct..

6. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The net present value method and the internal rate of return method will always yield the
same decision when
 The correct answer was: a. a single project is evaluated..

7. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is a form of capital as the term is used in economics?

The correct answer was: d. Money.

8. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

In cases where capital must be rationed, a firm should rank projects according to their

The correct answer was: c. profitability indexes..

9. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following is an internal source of investment funding?

The correct answer was: c. Undistributed profits.

10. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A firm can borrow at an interest rate of 10%. Its marginal tax rate is 40%. What is its cost of
debt?

The correct answer was: c. 6%.

11. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The method of raising funds for capital investment that involves the greatest risk to the firm is

The correct answer was: a. borrowing by selling bonds..

12. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Which of the following sources of funds for capital investment involves a tax adjustment to
determine the cost of capital?

The correct answer was: b. Issuing debt.

13. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Assume that the risk-free interest rate is 6% and that a firm can issue bonds at an interest
rate of 9%. Assume further that the difference between the average yield on stocks and the
average yield on corporate bonds is 4%. What is the risk premium associated with the firm's
cost of equity capital?

The correct answer was: c. 7%.

14. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

 Assume that investors require a rate of return of 10% to invest in a firm that pays a dividend
of $2 per year. The price of the firm's stock is currently based on the assumption that the
firm's dividend will remain constant. By how much will the price of the firm's stock increase if
the firm begins to grow at a rate of 2% per year and is expected to continue to do so
indefinitely?

The correct answer was: d. $5.

15. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The beta coefficient is associated with

The correct answer was: a. the capital asset pricing model..

16. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

Assume that the risk-free rate is 5% and that the rate of return on a balanced portfolio of
common stocks is 9%. If a firm has a beta coefficient of 2, then its risk premium is

The correct answer was: c. 8%.

17. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

A firm must raise $10 million dollars in funding for a capital investment project. $2 million will
be raised by issuing debt with an interest rate of 10% while the remainder will be raised by
issuing stocks that will yield a return of 12%. The firm's marginal tax rate is 30%. What is the
firm's composite cost of capital?

The correct answer was: c. 11%.

18. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The debt to equity ratio that is selected by a firm depends

The correct answer was: d. All of the above are correct..

19. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

The review of projects after they have been implemented is called

The correct answer was: b. a postaudit..

20. Incorrect. You did not provide an answer. 

According to the Gitman and Forrester study published in 1977, the two most commonly used
capital budgeting techniques are

The correct answer was: b. internal rate of return and payback period..

AGRIEXTENSION
 Geissler & Powers: Human Nutrition 13e

Chapter 33: Multiple choice questions

Instructions
Answer the following questions and then press 'Submit' to get your score.

Question 1

Since the 1996 World Food Summit, how has the number of food insecure people in the world
changed?
a) The Summit's goal of cutting the number of hungry people in half by 2015 was achieved.
b) The number decreased, but not by nearly enough to meet the Summit's goal.
c) The number increased slightly.
d) Because of rising food prices, the number increased dramatically.
Question 2

What is food security?

a) It relates to efforts to prevent terrorists from poisoning food supplies.

b) It is about ensuring everyone's access to food.
c) Its component elements include availability, utilisation, and stability, as well as access.
d) Food security focuses primarily on ending micronutrient malnutrition.
Question 3

Was T.R. Malthus correct in concluding that population growth will outstrip food production
growth?
a) No, technological and institutional innovations have permitted food supplies to more than
keep pace with population growth.
b) Yes, it is only because of widespread famines that population has not overwhelmed food
supplies altogether.
c) No, but it is only because of the introduction of genetically modified food that supplies have
kept pace with population growth.
d) No, but supplies are not likely to keep pace with population growth over the next 10 years.
Question 4

What was the Green Revolution?

a) The term refers to the use of plant residues ('green manure') for fertiliser.
b) It is a reference to the 1992 UN Conference on Environment and Development.
c) It refers to the appointment of Green Party ministers in Germany's coalition governments
between 1998 and 2005.
d) It refers to the widespread adoption of high-yielding cereal crop varieties by farmers in many
developing countries starting in the mid-1960s.
Question 5

Are most developing-country farmers engaged in subsistence or commercial production?

a) Almost all are subsistence farmers.
b) Very few engage in subsistence production, instead selling almost all of their produce on the
market.
c) Virtually all small-scale producers are engage in some self-provisioning and market sales.
d) 37% engage in pure subsistence production.
Question 6

What role do women play in food security?

a) Their main role is preparing meals.
b) They play a central role as producers of food, managers of natural resources, income earners
and caretakers of household nutrition.
c) They weed the fields, but never plough or plant them, as only men are strong enough for those
activities.
d) Their efforts focus mainly on vegetable gardens and chickens; men are involved with cereal
crops and larger livestock.
Question 7

How will climate change affect future food security?

a) It will have negative impacts in most developing countries because of the increased frequency
of droughts, storms and floods.
b) The impact will be positive, because drier weather will mean less habitat for malaria
mosquitoes, so fewer workers will be sick at harvest time.
c) The impact will be positive because there will be more carbon dioxide available for plant
photosynthesis.
d) There currently is no scientific consensus as to whether climate change is occurring or
whether it will over the next 50 years.
Question 8

What difference will urbanisation make for hunger and malnutrition?

a) No significant difference; low-income urban and rural people face similar constraints in
accessing food and consume similar diets in developing countries.
b) It will reduce poverty and hunger because these are almost entirely concentrated in rural areas.
c) Urban dwellers depend more than rural people on purchases to acquire food, have little
opportunity to grow their own food, and so are much more vulnerable to food price increases.
d) Poor city folk eat mainly sorghum, millet, maize and root crops, so a lot more of those foods
will need to be produced as the world urbanises.
Question 9

What caused the food-price spike of 2007-2008?

a) Long-term neglect of agricultural and rural development caused the spike.
b) The use of food crops to produce biofuel caused food prices to rise.
c) It was caused by commodity price speculation.
d) All of the above were among the causes.
Question 10

What are entitlements to food?

a) The term refers to social welfare programmes, e.g. the Fair Price food shops in India.
b) It means the pathways through which people access food, whether by production, purchase,
social protection programmes or other means.
c) When countries enact right-to-food legislation, then people are entitled to food.
d) The term is a reference to agrarian reform programmes that provide farmers with land titles.
Question 11

What are the effects of globalisation on food security?

a) Wealthy countries subsidies and trade barriers make it difficult for developing countries to
take advantage of the potential of globalisation for advancing food security.
b) World Trade Organisation rules do not cover agriculture, so globalisation really has no
bearing on food security.
c) Supermarkets are so far the only way in which food and agriculture have experienced
globalisation.
d) Developing countries need to create publicly-owned food reserves in order to realise the
potential benefits.
Question 12

How does agricultural research help reduce hunger and poverty?

a) Transnational private-sector firms are the main source of research oriented towards poor
farmers and consumers.
b) Agricultural research mainly benefits commercial farmers in developed countries.
c) Research focused on the problems of poor farmers and consumers is a 'public good' with little
profit potential but high social benefits; public investment is needed to support it.
d) Pro-poor research should only focus on organic farming.

Geissler & Powers: Human Nutrition 13e

Chapter 33: Multiple choice questions

Results
You have answered 0 out of 12 questions correctly.
Your percentage score is 0%.
Question 1

Since the 1996 World Food Summit, how has the number of food insecure people in the world
changed?
You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
b) The number decreased, but not by nearly enough to meet the Summit's goal.
Feedback:
 See section 33.1 Introduction
Page reference: 647
Question 2

What is food security?

You did not answer the question.

Correct answer:
c) Its component elements include availability, utilisation, and stability, as well as access.
Feedback:
See section 33.2 Definitions of Food Security.
Page reference: 648
Question 3

Was T.R. Malthus correct in concluding that population growth will outstrip food production
growth?
You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
a) No, technological and institutional innovations have permitted food supplies to more than keep
pace with population growth.
Feedback:
See section 33.3 on World food supply.
Page reference: 648
Question 4

What was the Green Revolution?

You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
d) It refers to the widespread adoption of high-yielding cereal crop varieties by farmers in many
developing countries starting in the mid-1960s.
Feedback:
See Green Revolution in section 33.3 on World food supply.
Page reference: 648
Question 5

Are most developing-country farmers engaged in subsistence or commercial production?

You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
c) Virtually all small-scale producers are engage in some self-provisioning and market sales.
 Feedback:
See Subsistence and Commercial Agriculture in section 33.3 on World food supply.
Page reference: 651
Question 6

What role do women play in food security?

You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
b) They play a central role as producers of food, managers of natural resources, income earners and
caretakers of household nutrition.
Feedback:
See Gender bias in section 33.3 on World food supply.
Page reference: 651
Question 7

How will climate change affect future food security?

You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
a) It will have negative impacts in most developing countries because of the increased frequency of
droughts, storms and floods.
Feedback:
See Agro-ecological constraints in section 33.3 on World food supply.
Page reference: 652
Question 8

What difference will urbanisation make for hunger and malnutrition?

You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
c) Urban dwellers depend more than rural people on purchases to acquire food, have little
opportunity to grow their own food, and so are much more vulnerable to food price increases.
Feedback:
See Demand for Food in section 33.4 on World food demand.
Page reference: 654
Question 9

What caused the food-price spike of 2007-2008?

You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
d) All of the above were among the causes.
 Feedback:
See Food-price volatility in section 33.4 on World food demand.
Page reference: 654
Question 10

What are entitlements to food?

You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
b) It means the pathways through which people access food, whether by production, purchase, social
protection programmes or other means.
Feedback:
See Access to Food in section 33.4 on World food demand.
Page reference: 656
Question 11

What are the effects of globalisation on food security?

You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
a) Wealthy countries subsidies and trade barriers make it difficult for developing countries to take
advantage of the potential of globalisation for advancing food security.
Feedback:
See Section 33.5 on Globalisation.
Page reference: 658
Question 12

How does agricultural research help reduce hunger and poverty?

You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
c) Research focused on the problems of poor farmers and consumers is a 'public good' with little
profit potential but high social benefits; public investment is needed to support it.
Feedback:
See Agricultural Research in section 33.6 on Agricultural and rural development.
Page reference: 659