Lecture 3 PDF
Lecture 3 PDF
I All allocations we have seen so far are functions of the inverse covariance matrix of
Understanding the inverse covariance returns
matrix I This is the classic optimal weighting matrix for much of linear estimation - but also
carries important finance intuition
I Turns out that we can represent this matrix as a parameters from system of linear
regressions
I For simplicity take two returns r1 and r2 such that, I Take the simple linear regression r1 = a + r2 + "1 and recall V["1 ] = ( 2
1
2 2
1,2 / 2 )
we can revise the diagonal and o↵-diagonal elements
!
2
1 1,2
⌃= 1,2
2
2 1
. 2 = and =
2 2 2
1 2
2
1,2 V["1 ] 2 2
1 2
2
1,2 V["1 ]
I the inverse of this covariance matrix is then,
I thus giving us a representation in terms of linear regression,
! 0 2 1
2 2 1,2 0 2 1 !
1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1,2
⌃ 1
= 2 1,2
=@ 1 2 1,2 1 2 1,2 A 2 2 2 2 2 2 V("1 ) 1 V(") 1
1
=@ A=
2 2 2 2 1 2 1,2 1 2 1,2
1 2 1,2 . 2
. 1 ⌃ 2
1 2 2
1 2
2
1,2 . 2 2
1
2 . V("2 ) 1
1 2 1,2
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The inverse covariance matrix IV The inverse covariance matrix V
I Expanding the set of returns to N gives us,
I For i.i.d. returns the tangency weight of asset i is proportional to µi / 2
i
X
ri = a + j rj + ✏i . I When returns are correlated that weight is proportional to V("i ) = 2
i (1 Ri2 )
j6=i I This is the non-diversifiable risk of asset i
I Which then provides an N ⇥ N matrix,
I Linear regression minimizes the residual variance, hence this is the minimal
0 1 non-diversifiable risk of i given a portfolio of the other N 1 assets - this is understood
✓1,1 ✓1,2 . . . ✓1,N
B C as a hedging portfolio
B ✓2,1 ✓2,2 . . . ✓2,N C
1 B C
⌃ =B . .. .. .. C
B ..
@ . . . C
A I The o↵-diagonal elements i,j V("i )
1 are the optimal hedging portfolio weight of
✓N,1 ✓N,2 . . . ✓N,N asset j with respect to i
I A long position in i is optimally hedged by a short position of i,j V("i )
1
in j
I where ✓i,i = V("i ) 1 and ✓i,j = i,j V("i )
1
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I The global minimum variance allocation is forming a linear combination of N optimal I Empirically we can exploit this regression representation of the inverse
hedging portfolios
⌃ 1◆ I Estimating the system of linear regressions we can construct the inverse without
wgmv =
◆0 ⌃ 1 ◆ performing the sometimes troublesome matrix inversion
I The tangency portfolio scales the combination of optimal hedges by their expected
I The difficulty is constructing the matrix such that it is symmetric and positive
returns
⌃ 1 µ̃ semi-definite
wtan =
◆0 ⌃ 1 µ̃
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Regression Approaches to Portfolio Choice
On weights from linear regressions I Empirical portfolio weights can be computed as parameter estimates of linear
regression models with/without restriction
I Advantages,
I battery of tools from regression analysis can be used (s.e., tests, goodness of fit measures)
I models can be easily tested against each other
I insights into empirical issues
I straightforward extension tho other estimation approaches (shrinkage estimation, Bayes)
model - is a function of this projection onto the excess return space I y = p1 ⌃ 12 µ̃ is N ⇥ 1 vector
I Again, Asset pricing and Portfolio management are closely related I Then the OLS estimator ŵ = (X 0 X) 1
X 0y = 1 ⌃ 1 µ̃, i.e. it is equal to the mean
variance portfolio with a risk free rate (no adding up constraint)
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Regression representation IV
I Kempf-Memmel (2006) show that the GMV portfolio weights can be obtained by the
following OLS regression,
N
X
rt1 = µp + wj (rt1 rtj ) + "pt (1)
j=2
Testing portfolio performance
I Where,
I Ledoit, O. and Wolf, M. (2008). Robust performance hypothesis testing with the
I The models can help us estimate the inputs (µ,⌃)
Sharpe ratio. Journal of Empirical Finance.
I Matlab/R code is available on Michael Wolf’s website
I The improved estimates should enable better performance from our portfolio
allocation I Ledoit, O. and Wolf, M. (2011). Robust performance hypothesis testing with the
variance. Wilmott Magazine.
I But how do we know if the gains are statistically significant?
I Matlab/R code is available on Michael Wolf’s website
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I Assume that rt,i and rt,j are strictly stationary processes with, I Denote E(r1,i
2 )=
i and E(r1,j
2 )=
j with their estimates ˆi and ˆj
! !
µi 2
i i,j
µ= and ⌃ =
2 I Further define v = (µi , µj , i , j)
0 and v̂ = (µ̂i , µ̂j , ˆi , ˆj )
µj i,j j
I The di↵erence in Sharpe Ratios is given by, I Such that = f (v) and ˆ = f (v̂) with,
µi µj
= SRi SRj = . a b
i j f (a, b, c, d) = p p (2)
c a2 d b2
I Its estimator using sample moments is given by,
ˆ = SR
ˆi ˆ j = µ̂i µ̂j
SR
ˆi ˆj
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The Solution I The Solution II
I Under (relatively) mild regularity conditions on the higher moments of excess returns,
I In our notation we now have the gradients,
p d
T (v̂ v) ! N(0, ) ✓ ◆
c d 1 a 1 b
r0 f (a, b, c, d) = , , ,
(c a2 )1.5 (d b2 )1.5 2 (c a2 )1.5 2 (d b2 )1.5
I is an unknown symmetric positive semi-definite matrix
I If a consistent estimator ˆ is available, the standard error for ˆ is given by,
I These results largely date back to early time-series literature, e.g. Andrews (1991). s
⇣ ⌘ r0 f (v̂) ˆ rf (v̂)
s ˆ = . (4)
I Using the Delta method we further find, T
p d I Hence, this is now a classic time-series econometrics exercise
T(ˆ ) ! N(0, r0 f (v) rf (v)) (3)
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I Again, two strategies i and j with excess returns rt,i and rt,j for t = 1, . . . , T
Nominal level α = 1%
Normal-IID 1.2 1.2 1.2 1.1 1.0
t6-IID 3.5 1.9 2.1 1.4 1.3
Normal-GARCH 1.7 1.8 1.8 1.5 1.1
t6-GARCH 1.8 2.0 2.0 1.6 1.2
Normal-VAR
t6-VAR
2.5
6.4
2.2
2.6
1.8
2.2
2.7
1.8
1.2
1.1
I Both assumed strictly stationary with,
Nominal level α = 5%
! !
Normal-IID 5.0 5.3 5.4 4.9 4.8 µi 2
i i,j
t6-IID
Normal-GARCH
10.7
7.2
6.7
7.1
6.9
7.2
5.2
6.0
5.0
5.5
µ= and ⌃=
µj 2
t6-GARCH 7.4 7.7 7.5 6.9 5.7 i,j j
Normal-VAR 9.5 6.9 6.1 8.5 5.0
t6-VAR 14.5 7.9 7.3 7.3 5.1
dy:
Normal-IID 0.2 1.2 1.4 0.9 0.9 An empirical example
t6-IID 4.2 1.5 1.7 0.8 0.8
ed on the QS kernel with Normal-GARCH 0.4 1.4 1.3 1.0 0.9
ws (1991). t6-GARCH 0.3 1.5 1.5 1.0 1.0
ased on the prewhitened QS
Normal-VAR 0.5 2.1 2.0 1.6 0.9
ion of Andrews and Monahan
t6-VAR 3.8 2.1 2.0 1.1 1.0
ection 3.2.1 of Ledoit and
I Nominal level a =bootstrap
5%
Again, the time-series is generally reliable, there is some loss under HAC
Normal-IID
class estimators 2.4 6.1 6.1 5.1 4.9
ection 3.2.2 of Ledoit and
to pick a data-dependent t -IID
6 Lönn
11.5 6.8 7.0 4.9 4.7
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25/10/11 8:48 PM
I Average refers to the time series average of returns
I We consider 2 allocations; minimum-variance, tangency
I Vol. is the time series volatility of returns
I We start by simply plugging the sample moments without using any factor structure
I All values are annualized
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Allocations and performance Performance
I Minimum-variance and mean-variance portfolio returns over time
⌃ 1 µ̃
wtan =
◆0 ⌃ 1 µ̃
⌃ 1◆
wgmv =
◆0 ⌃ 1 ◆
I To estimate the inputs ⌃ 1 and µ̃ we use the sample mean and sample
variance-covariance matrix over a rolling window of 500 days
I Let ⌃✏ be diagonal such that all covariance stems from the factors
I Estimate ⌃f with the sample covariance matrix and a and B by linear regression
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Significance test I Significance test II
⇣ ⌘
I Are they also statistically significant? I Without annualization we find ˆ = 0.0062 and s ˆ = 0.017
I Let H0 : = 0 against a two-sided alternative and, I Which gives a p-value around 0.70 so we fail to reject our null hypothesis
ˆ = SR
ˆ i SR ˆ j = µ̂i µ̂j
ˆi ˆj I What could be the next step to improve? Is the diagonal ⌃✏ too restrictive?
s
⇣ ⌘ r0 f (v̂) ˆ rf (v̂)
s ˆ =
T
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I It seems like the tangency allocation (⌃ 1 µ̃/(◆0 ⌃ 1 µ̃)) performs below expectations.
It should provide an optimal trade-o↵ between variance and mean returns
I Could we solve this by performing the Britten-Jones regression and allocating wealth
in accordance with the assets respective b̂?