KIU

CAT/EXAMS
A. MCQS
1. Choose the most correct statement
a) Bacterial cells are very small - about 10 times smaller than most plant and
animal cells
b) Bacterial cells are about 10 times bigger than most plant and
animal cells
c) Bacterial cells are rod shaped cells
d) Bacteria belong to the a group of cells called eukaryotes
2. The following are all correct, except
a) Common Escherichia coli, or E.coli, bacteria are rod-shaped bacteria
b) Smaller cells have a large surface area compared to cell volume, while
larger cells have a reduced ratio of surface area to volume
c) One reason why bacterial cells are so big is that they need a large surface
area to cell volume to take in nutrients.
d) Amoebas are single-cell organisms that live in lakes, ponds, streams,
sewage, polluted water and animal intestines.
4. Select the ODD Man out
a) Acanthamoeba
b) Hartmannella
c) Naegleria
d) Legionella
5. Which of the following is correct about Campylobacter?
a) Campylobacter uses other organisms as Trojan horse to infect new host
b) Campylobacter causes prions disease
c) Campylobacter belongs to a group of cell type known as eukarya
d) All the above
6. An organism that uses carbondioxed as a carbon source and light energy
from the environment to make food is called a:
a) Photoautotroph
b) Chemoautotroph
c) Photoheterotroph
d) Chemoheterotroph
7. Which of the groups of microbes below is most metabolically diverse in
terms of nutritional classes or nutritional strategies?
a) Algae
b) Fungi
c) Prokaryotes
d) Protozoa
8. Which element listed below is the most common limiting factor for bacterial
growth?
a) Carbon
b) Nitrogen
c) Hydrogen
d) Oxygen
9. Vitamins are examples of:
a) Trace elements
b) Antioxidants
c) Growth factors
d) Both b and c
10. An organism living at the bottom of the ocean would have to be:
a) Barophilic
b) Psychrophilic
c) Anaerobic
d) All of the above
11. Microbiologists use the term bacterial growth to indicate
a) A decrease in population of some bacteria
b) An increase in a population of bacteria rather than an increase in size.
c) Formation of a triangular colony
d) Aggregation of eukaryotic cells arising from a single parent cell
12. Biofilms are best described as:
a) Antagonistic relationships between microbes
b) Synergistic relationships between microbes
c) Symbiotic relationships between microbes
d) Complex relationships showing features of synergy and symbiosis
13. On the bacterial growth curve, which stage comes after the LOG phase?
a) Lag phase
b) Stationary phase
c) Death phase
d) Exponential phase
14. Laboratory studies of bacterial growth in continuous culture showing that
the microorganisms grow exponentially in a condition of balanced growth
can also be referred to as?
a) In vitro studies
b) In vivo studies
c) Xenic studies
d) Axenic studies
15. Which of the following are Gram-positive bacteria
a) Bacillus anthracis
b) Escherichia coli
c) Bacillus subtilis
d) A and B
16. Pharmacovigilance is?
 a) The practice of monitoring the distribution, and the effects of medical drugs
after they have been licensed for use, especially to identify and evaluate
previously unreported side effects and adverse drug reactions.
b) The practice of distributing medical and veterinary drugs by specialised
health care agents.
c) It is a phenomenon that entails disease detection caused by the medical
drugs
d) All of the above
17. In a typical pressure type, vertical autoclave, what phase comes after the
heating phase?
a) Drying phase
b) Temperature phase
c) Heating phase
d) Pressure phase
18. The following are TRUE about a Sanitizer, EXCEPT?
a) An agent that reduces contaminants in the inanimate environment to levels
considered safe as determined by Public Health Regulations
b) An agent that reduces the bacterial population by significant numbers where
public health requirements have not been established
c) An agent which is very non-selective in terms of bacterial decontamination,
and often is discouraged for use on viruses and protozoa
d) Substance or preparation for killing germs or microbes designed for use
especially on food processing equipment
19. How many nucleotides does a codon contain?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
20. Which of the following is the initiation codon?
a) AUG
b) UAA
 c) UAG
d) UGA
21. Which is NOT TRUE about DNA and RNA
a) DNA is the principal molecule responsible for the storage of genetic
information
b) The basic building blocks for DNA and RNA include nucleotides, phosphate
group, pentose sugar, and nitrogenous bases
c) DNA is double stranded (double helix), whereas the RNA is single stranded
d) The 5’ to 3’ prime ends are parallel
22. Which one is a FALSE statement?
a) DNA is made up of molecules called nucleotides
b) The four types of nitrogen bases in DNA are adenine (A), thymine (T),
guanine (G) and cytosine (C)
c) RNA is typically single stranded and is made of ribonucleotides that are
linked by phosphodiester bonds
d) A ribonucleotide in the RNA chain contains one of the four nitrogenous
bases (A, T, G, and C)

23. Identify the MOST CORRECT statement about RNA primer

a) Once the DNA strands have been separated, a short piece of RNA called a
primer binds to the 5' end of the strand.
b) Once the DNA strands have been separated, a short piece of RNA called a
primer binds to the 3' end of the strand.
c) The primer always binds as the end point for replication
d) Primers are generated by the enzyme RNA primase.

24. Which of the following is a stop Codon?

a) UAA
b) UAU
c) UAC
d) UUU
25. The aetiologic agent of Anthrax is
a) Bacillus anthracis
 b) Bacillus subtilis
c) Bacillus rhizosphaerae
d) None of the above
26. The top ten priority zoonotic diseases to the Ugandan government include
Salmonella, Marburg, Rabies, Crimean Congo Haemorrhagic Fever,
Plague, African Trypanosomiasis, Rift Valley fever, Ebola, zoonotic
Influenza; the other two would be?
a) Anthrax and Amoebiasis
b) Anthrax and Brucellosis
c) Tuberculosis and Food poisoning
d) Tungiasis and Malaria
27. Which is correct about the epidemiology of anthrax
a) Anthrax manifests in three forms namely; cutaneous, inhalation and
intestinal
b) Anthrax is viral disease affecting animals and humans
c) Anthrax spores cannot exist in the environment for more than a year
d) The primary reservour for anthrax spores is water
28. Identify he most correct statement about anthrax
a) If Identified early, anthrax infection can be treated using an appropriate
antibiotic
b) Anthrax cannot be treated at any stage of infection
c) The incubation period for inhalation anthrax is 100 days
d) Anthrax is only distributed in Africa and Asia
29. Which of the following is correct about Replication Fork formation?
a) Before DNA can be replicated, the double stranded molecule must be
“unzipped” into two single strands
b) In order to unwind DNA, the interactions between base pairs must be
broken
c) DNA helicase disrupts the hydrogen bonding between base pairs to
separate the strands into a Y shape known as the replication fork
 d) All the above
30. After Replication fork formation, the next stages are
a) Primer binding
b) Primer binding and translation
c) Primer binding, elongation, termination
d) Elongation and blastocytosis

B. Short answer Questions

1) What is the Barcode system is used for in microbiology?

 Barcode system to check in and out the bio- specimens
 which specimen, how much material remains, documentation on factors
such as thawing which could influence future use of the material.

2) What principle does a vein scanner (new tech) use to reveal the patterns in a
person's vein in order to ease venipuncture?
 Vein scanners use near-infrared light to reveal the patterns in a person's
veins. As with irises and fingerprints, a person's veins are completely
unique. ... A camera takes a digital picture using near-infrared light. The
hemoglobin in your blood absorbs the light, so veins appear black in the
picture

3) In the color coding system for blood collection, red-top tubes have no additives,
whereas, lavender-top tubes contain?
 Lavender-top tubes: contain EDTA, commonly used clinically for complete
blood cell counts.
 This is the way to obtain lymphocytes for DNA extraction, plasma for
nutritional analysis, and red blood cells for other assays.

4) The principal molecule responsible for the storage of genetic information is known
as DNA
5) RNA is ribonucleic acid, whereas DNA is? Deoxyribonucleic Acid
6) A group of three nucleotide is known as a ? codon
7) Does Mitosis Occur in Prokaryotes, Eukaryotes, or Both? both
8) List several Examples of Eukaryotes
 Plants
 Animals
  Fungi
 protozoa
9) What Is the Lowest Number of Cells a Living Organism Can Have?
one
10) Outline ten trends (modern trends) in Disease diagnostics

 Bioluminometry;
 Fluorescence polarisation;
 Chemoluminescence technologies;
 Biosensors;
 Biomarkers;
 Recombinant proteins;
 Synthetic proteins;
 Improved monoclonals for enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISA).
 Technique based on nanoparticles
 Matrix assisted laser desorption ionization time of fligt mass spectrometry
 Next generation sequencing technologies
 Immune peroxidase staining
 Immunoassays
 Molecular techniques

11) Draw the structure of bacterium and label it

12) Outline all types of bacterial flagella arrangement

13) What do you understand by “Biofilms”?
Biofilms are a collective of one or more types of microorganisms that can grow
on many different surfaces. Microorganisms that form biofilms include bacteria,
fungi and protists.e.g. biofilm dental plaque: a slimy buildup of bacteria that
forms on the surfaces of teeth.
Biofilms are an example of complex relationships among numerous individuals,
which are often different species, that together attach to surfaces and display
metabolic and structural traits different from those expressed by any of the
microorganisms alone.

14) What is the Importance of biofilm formation in a surgical wound infection?

Biofilms in acute surgical and chronic wounds appear to cause a delay in healing
and potentially increase the risk of infection.
Biofilms can be prevented and once developed can be controlled using wound
desloughing and debridement

15) With examples briefly explain what bacterial endosymbiosis in amoeba is

A strain of large, free-living amoeba that became dependent on bacterial
endosymbionts which had infected the amoebae initially as intracellular
parasites, was studied by micrurgy and electron microscopy. The results show
that the infected host cells require the presence of live endosymbionts for their
survival.Thus, the nucleus of an infected amoeba can form a viable cell with the
cytoplasm of a noninfected amoeba only when live endosymbionts are present.
The endosymbiotic bacteria are not digested by the host amoebae and are not
themselves used as nutritional supplement. While the host amoebae are
dependent specifically on the endosymbionts, the latter can live inside amoebae
of different strains, indicating that their dependence on the host cells is not yet
strain specific.
16) Name five examples of capsulated bacteria
1. Streptococcus pneumoniae
2. Klebsiella pneumoniae
3. Haemophilus influenzae
4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
5. Neisseria meningitidis
6. Cryptococcus neoformans

17) Clinical samples from patients must be handled in such a way as to avoid
contamination. What are some of the ways a clinical sample can be contaminated
from, the time it is taken from the patient, to the time it is analyzed in the laboratory?
Sample Environment
An unsealed sample is in direct exposure to air-borne contaminants and
environmental changes due to changes in humidity levels, temperature or
exposure to light (in case of photosensitive materials). It is essential to maintain
the recommended environmental conditions between sample collection and
analysis. An exposed sample can pick up contaminants from air, while drying in
hot air ovens, ashing in muffle furnaces or storage in refrigerators.
Sample Container
A sample needs to be stored in a compatible inert container so that it does not
pick up contamination from it. It is a good practice to minimize the time between
sample collection and analysis to reduce leaching from container or loss of
analyte to the container through surface adsorption.
Sampling Tools
Samples can get contaminated from unclean sampling tools. It is recommended
to keep aside a separate set of tools for specific sampling requirements and the
sample drawer should wear gloves, masks and head covers while drawing
samples. It is equally important to use clean glassware while conducting the
analysis.
Contamination from other samples
Contamination of a sample by other samples is referred to as cross –
contamination. It can result from damaged or cracked containers, close proximity
of other samples and untidiness on work benches or weighing balance tables. Is
also goes without saying that clean spatulas or liquid sampling tools be used
when weighing or making dilutions.
Contamination from sub-standard reagents
Sub-standard reagents or those falling below the specified purity grades can
contribute to errors due to presence of impurities. It is therefore important to
procure your reagents and standards of recommended grades from reliable
sources.
Contamination from analyst
Contamination from this source is often overlooked in most laboratories. An
analyst can be a major contributor to contamination if the required standards of
hygiene are not maintained by laboratory analysts. In addition to personal
hygiene chemists should use gear such as disposable gloves, head covers, face
masks, etc when handling samples and special care is required to be taken as per
recommendations in microbiological testing laboratories.

18) When looking at the environmental requirements of microbes (pH, oxygen, etc.), the
terms "tolerant" and "obligate" are often used. Give one example of why being
tolerant is better than being an obligate.
According to Gas requirement:-Microorganisms fall into several groups with
respect to the effect of oxygen on their growth and metabolism:
Aerotolerant anaerobes grow either with or without oxygen, but metabolism
remains fermentative and do not use oxygen for example: Enterococcus faecalis,
some Lactobacillus.
While Obligate aerobes use and require oxygen as electron acceptor as a must
and lack the capacity for fermentations for example: Pseudomonas, some
Bacillus
And Obligate anaerobes do not need or use O2 as a nutrient. Obligate anaerobic
prokaryotes may live by fermentation, for example: Clostridium, Bacteroides.
Hence obligate aerobes can die in given conditions as tolerant microbes will
thrive in all conditions.

19) How can you prevent anthrax infection in humans

Immunisation for workers handling animals and animal products
Avoid contact with animals in critical areas
Banning use of animal products from areas with infected animals
Eating fully well cooked beef
Using hides of animals that were imported with international veterinary certificate
proving their safety.

20) Name two reservours of Bacillus anthracis

Infected animals, Soil.

21) Why wouldn’t Bacillus anthracis spores be phagoscytised inside an amoeba?

The weakly immunogenic poly y D glutamic acid capsule that surrounds the
bacilli confers resistance to phagocytosis.The anthrax toxin also disrupts
multiple host functions to diminish the immune response.
22)Give the differences between gram positive and gram negative.

Sec B compiled by TFT