Date: 13/03/2022 Question Paper Code

23

Max. Marks : 120 Time : 75 Min.

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Answers & Solutions

for
Indian Olympiad Qualifiers in
Biology (IOQB) (Part I) 2021-22

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

(1) Question Paper has two parts such as Part A1 and Part A2.

(2) There are 32 objective type questions. Out of 32 questions, 24 questions (Q. No. 1 to 24) in Part A1

and 8 questions (Q. No. 25 to 32) in Part A2. All questions are compulsory.

(3) In Part A1, each question has four alternatives out of which only one is correct.

(4) In Part A2, each question has four alternatives out of which any number of alternative(s) (a, b, c or

d) may be correct.

(5) For Part A1, each correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong

answer.

(6) For Part A2, each correct answer carries 6 marks if all correct answers are marked and no incorrect.

No negative marking for this part.

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PART-A1
1. Type I diabetes, if untreated leads to a cascade of events culminating in to coma or death.
Some of these events are listed below. Arrange them in the correct order.
I. Circulatory failure
II. Glucosuria
III. Renal threshold for glucose exceeded
IV. Blood volume and blood pressure drop
V. Hperglycemia
VI. Osmotic diuresis and polyuria
The correct order is
(a) II → III → V → VI → IV → I (b) V → II → I → III → VI → IV
(c) V → III → II → VI → IV → I (d) III → II → V → I → VI → IV
Answer (c)
Sol. Option (c) is correct because type I diabetes leads to increase in blood glucose level (hyperglycemia) due to
decrease in insulin. Then the glucose level will exceed the renal threshold value which will lead to presence of
glucose in urine, that is, glycosuria. After it, there is osmotic diuresis and polyuria (excessive urination) due to
which blood volume and blood pressure drop. It ultimately leads to circulatory failure.
2. Description of a few biomolecules is given below
I. When oxidised it can give as many as 544 ATP molecules by consuming 26 oxygen molecules.
II. This is the only biomolecule that can generate energy aerobically as well as anaerobically.
I and II respectively refer to:
(a) Fatty acid and amino acid (b) Glycerol and glucose
(c) Glycerol and fatty acid (d) Fatty acid and glucose
Answer (d)
Sol. Fatty acid molecule can produce lot of energy molecules such as 544 ATP molecules by consuming 28 oxygen
molecule.
Glucose is the only biomolecule that can generate energy aerobically as well as anaerobically.
3. Researchers were studying the effect of mineral Z on plant growth. They were also looking for its effect on seed
germination. They grew barley plants for three generations in 0.0, 0.6 and 1.0 M solutions of mineral Z. They
harvested seeds from the third-generation plants of each group. After estimation the mineral concentration using
a few seeds from every group, they remaining seeds were sown on ‘mineral Z free’ medium to check the
germination success. Which of the following plots will help drawing appropriate conclusion?
(a) X : Mineral Z concentration in nutrient solution, Y : Mineral Z concentration in seeds
(b) X : Mineral Z concentration in seed, Y : Percentage germination
(c) X : Mineral Z concentration in nutrient solution, Y : Length of coleoptile
(d) X : Mineral Z concentration in seeds, Y : Rate of germination
Answer (d)
Sol. The seeds harvested from third generation is grown in mineral ‘z’ free medium. This means that seeds utilise
mineral ‘z’ present in itself for germination and no external source of z is present.
Thus, graph with X-axis showing mineral Z concentration in seeds and Y-axis showing rate of germination will
help drawing appropriate conclusion.

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4. When two frog species Hyla ewingi and Hyla verreauxi were studied on three distant islands, following patterns
of oscillograms (songs) were obtained.

Mark the correct statement

(a) H. ewingi with song pattern I and H. verreauxi with song pattern III are likely to co-exist on the same island.
(b) H. ewingi with song pattern II and H. verreauxi with song pattern IV are likely to be staying on the same
island.
(c) H. ewingi with song pattern I and H. verreauxi with song pattern III are likely to be freely interbreeding on
one of the islands.
(d) Species H. verreauxi shows greater genetic variability that H. ewingi.
Answer (b)
Sol. Option (b) is correct because H.ewingi and H. verreauxi show different song patterns II and IV respectively w.r.t.
each other so there will be no competition and likely to be staying on the same island.
H. ewingi and H. verreauxi show only a little difference in song pattern I and III respectively w.r.t. each other so
they will compete with each other and hence, not likely to co-exist on the same island.
5. A vast country has a time difference of 3 hrs between the east and west coasts. Regular football matches are
played between the East Coat Team (ECT) and West Coast Team (WCT) of this country. The venue is always
a West Coast or East Coast. Considering the effect of day-night cycle on athletic performance, which of the
following statements about the outcome of the matches?
(a) Night matches will always be advantageous for West Coast players as their training time and match time
overlap.
(b) Matches played during day hours in summer will yield better performance of East Coast players.
(c) The outcome of the matches will depend on which team has to travel to the venue.
(d) Variation in the day-night temperature can affect the overall performance of athletes, thus favouring one
team over the other.
Answer (c)
Sol. Option (c) is correct because the team which has to travel to the venue will feel jet lag due to the disturbance in
their circadian rhythm or sleep wake cycle of the body as there is time difference of 3 hrs between the East and
West Coasts. Circadian rhythm of our body is controlled by melatonin hormone secreted by pineal gland.
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6. A group of scientists was working on the effect of different wavelengths of light on seed germination. They placed
hundred Vigna unguiculata (Cowpea) seeds in different Petridishes containing sand soaked with nutrient
solution. Each Petridish was exposed to a different wavelength of light up to 96 hrs. If we arrange the plates in
descending order of the percentage germination found at different wavelength of light, the most accurate
sequence will be:

(a) Green > Yellow > Blue > Red (b) Blue > Red > Green > Yellow

(c) Yellow > Green > Red > Blue (d) Red > Blue > Yellow > Green

Answer (d)

Sol. In an experiment, maximum percentage of seed germination in cowpea is recorded in red light. Almost no seed
germination is seen under green light even after 96 hours.

So, the correct sequence will be

Red > Blue > Yellow > Green.

7. The rhythmic contraction (systole) and relaxation (diastole) of the ventricles constitute the cardiac cycle. The
graphical representation below shows the pressure and volume changes during the cardiac cycle (for the left
ventricle).

P, Q and R in the graph respectively represent:

(a) Pressure in left ventricle; pressure in aorta and volume in left ventricle
(b) Volume in left ventricle; pressure in left ventricle and pressure in aorta
(c) Pressure in left ventricle; volume in left ventricle and pressure in aorta
(d) Volume in left ventricle; pressure in aorta and pressure in left ventricle
Answer (d)

Sol. Option (d) is correct because P is volume of left ventricle during ventricular diastole as it increases with increase
in time, i.e, filling of ventricles. Q is pressure of aorta as it remains nearly same during ventricular diastole and is
about 88 mm Hg which increases to more than 100 mm Hg during ventricular systole.

R is the pressure in left ventricle which remains nearly same during ventricular diastole but increases suddenly
from about 10 mm Hg upto 120 mm Hg during ventricular systole.

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8. Transcription of multiple genes of rRNA is represented below. P, Q, R and S in the figure respectively indicate.

(a) DNA; start of transcription; RNA elongation and rRNA strands

(b) mRNA strands; RNA elongation; start of transcription and DNA

(c) rRNA stands; start of transcription; RNA elongation and DNA

(d) Start of transcription; RNA elongation; rRNA and DNA strands

Answer (c)

Sol. In a given figure multiple genes of rRNA undergo transcription and label P represents the rRNA strands.

Q is a start of the transcription process and

R represents elongation of RNA.

S is DNA strand.

9. Reporter genes on plasmids are used in gene cloning experiments to determine the success of foreign DNA
insertion. In an experiment, pBR322 plasmid, as shown below, was used as a vector and BamHI was used as
the restriction enzyme to carry out the DNA insertion and cloning. Ampr and tetr genes which confer resistance
to ampicillin and tetracycline respectively were used as reporter genes.

Which of the following indicates the successful insertion of the foreign DNA?
(a) Cells will grow on medium containing ampicillin and tetracycline
(b) Cells will grow on media with tetracycline but not with ampicillin
(c) Cells will only grow on media without any antibiotic
(d) Cells will show resistance to ampicillin but not to tetracycline
Answer (d)
Sol. Option (d) is the correct answer as insertional inactivation occurs at BamHI lying within antibiotic resistance gene
‘tetracycline’. Since Ampr is not affected, so cells will not grow in presence of tetracycline but will grow in presence
of ampicillin.

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10. As part of cloning Dolly, the sheep, biologist lan Wilmut took differentiated cells from an ewe’s udder and starved
them of nutrients for a week. One of these cells was then fused with an enucleated egg from a different breed of
ewe and nutrients for the further development of egg were provided. Starvation of the differentiated cells halts
the cells in which phase of the cell cycle?
(a) M (b) G1
(c) S (d) G2
Answer (b)
Sol. Starvation of the differentiated cells halts the cells in G1 phase as this phase requires a lot of nutrients and
growth factors.
11. During the development of sea urchin embryos, the position of the polar body establishes the animal (upper)
pole and the vegetal (lower) pole. After fertilization and cell division upto the 8-cell stage, a developmental
biologist used a glass needle to bisect the embryos horizontally (Set 1) and vertically (Set 2). The results of the
treatments were as follows:
Set 1: cells of upper half remained embryonic while cells of lower half developed into small abnormal larvae.
Set 2: Normal but small larvae developed.
Which of the following can be concluded from this experiment?
(a) The right and left half of the embryo differ in their developmental potential.
(b) There is no asymmetry in the early embryos.
(c) The animal and vegetal halves of the embryos differ in the composition of cytoplasmic determinants.
(d) Segregation of nuclear components alone play a role in determining the developmental fate of cells.
Answer (c)
Sol. Option (c) is correct because cytoplasmic determinants are the substances present in the egg or blastomere that
determine the fate of the cells during cleavage. When a developmental biologist bisects the embryo vertically,
normal larvae develop which indicates that the right and left half of the embryo do not differ in their developmental
potential as the cleavage is indeterminate.
The cells at animal tier divide to form mesomeres whereas, the cells at vegetal tier divide to form macromeres
and micromeres that means there is asymmetry in the early embryo.
12. The figure below depicts two parts of an ecosystem namely the grazing food chain and the detrital food chain.
The solid arrows, curved arrows and dashed arrows respectively represent:

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(a) Energy flow; dead organic matter; respiration

(b) Energy flow; respiration; dead organic matter & waste products

(c) Total biomass; unconsumed biomass; faeces & urine

(d) Unconsumed biomass; waste products; energy flow

Answer (b)

Sol. The solid arrows represent energy flow from lower trophic level to higher trophic level. Curved arrows represent
loss of energy to environment which is in the form of respiration. Dashed arrows represent dead organic matter
and waste products as they are produced from each trophic level.

13. The loading of photosynthates from mesophyll cells into sieve tubes is sensitive to oxygen shortage and
metabolic inhibitors suggesting that the process is:

(a) Concentration dependent

(b) Spontaneous

(c) Facilitated diffusion

(d) Active-ATP dependent

Answer (d)

Sol. The movement of sucrose, synthesised in the mesophyll cells move into the companion cells and then into the
living phloem sieve tube cells is by active transport and this type of transport requires ATP energy; also they are
highly sensitive to inhibitors that react with protein side chains.
14. Photoconversion of phytochrome Pr to Pfr leads to regulation of gene expressions related to which of the
following?

I. Opening and greening of cotyledons

II. Shade avoidance

III. Etiolation

IV. Geotropism

V. Flowering

(a) I, II, III & VI

(b) II, IV, V & VI

(c) Only I, II & VI

(d) Only II, IV & V

Answer (c)

Sol. Pr is red absorbing form and is converted to far-red absorbing form i.e., Pfr.
• Opening and greening of cotyledon is triggered by accumulation of Pfr when they are exposed to adequate
sunlight.
• Shade avoidance is a response of tree that requires high light intensity i.e., Pfr.
• Amount of Pfr present in plant stimulates flowering.

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15. A statement and two assumptions, I and II are provided below. Choose the correct option from the options given
below-
Statement- Tropical plants develop adaptations to maintain the rate of photosynthesis to overcome the limitation
of CO2 concentration.
Assumption I- Intense light and high temperature induce partial to total closure of stomata.
Assumption II- In C3 plants RBPCase behaves as oxidase while in C4 plants PEPCase fixes CO2 at low
concentrations.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If neither I nor II is implicit. (d) If both I and II are implicit.
Answer (b)
Sol. Intense light and high temperature induce partial to total closure of stomata in CAM plants which are found in dry
arid regions. So, assumption I is not correct for tropical plants.
RUBPcase functions as oxidase in C3 plants. It binds with O2 to form PGA and phosphoglycolate during
photorespiration.
In C4 plants PEPcase can fix nitrogen at low concentration of CO 2.
16. Evaluate following statements and choose the correct option;
I. Statement: In a person having hyperthyroidism, there are high chances of infection of Helicobacter pylori.
II. Reason: One of the symptoms of the infection by H. pylori is bloody/ black vomit.
(a) Both I and II are correct but II cannot explain I
(b) Both I and II are correct and II explains I
(c) Only I is true and II false
(d) Both I and II are false
Answer (a)
Sol. Option (a) is correct because as stated in statement I, hyperthyroidism in Graves’ disease patients could be a
predisposing factor to H. pylori infection.
One of the symptoms of this infection is bloody vomit or vomit that looks like coffee grounds as given in
statement II.
But this is not the correct explanation of the statement I.
17. Relative compositions of major electrolytes in three body secretions in humans are depicted. Shaded regions
represent other constituents.

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The three secretions P, Q and R most likely represent (respectively)

(a) Blood plasma, gastric juice and gastric mucus.
(b) Blood plasma, gastric juice and pancreatic juice.
(c) Jejunal secretions, gastric mucus and bile.
(d) Gastric juice, hepatic duct secretion and pancreatic juice.
Answer (b)

Sol. Option (b) is correct because blood plasma (P) contains minerals like Na+, Ca++, Mg++, HCO3− , Cl–, etc.
Q is gastric juice as it contains high quantity of HCl secreted by parietal cells due to which gastric juice has acidic
pH.
R is pancreatic juice as it contains high quantity of Na+ and HCO3− which makes it alkaline in nature.
18. Salvia has commercial value for its bright beautiful inflorescence. Consider a situation where this short day plant
is cultivated under controlled environment of greenhouse. It is subjected to only 9 hours of light condition every
day to get the best yield. One day the worker accidentally flashed Far red light night over a new batch of plants
which were yet to bear flowers. What should be done to make the plant flower normally?
(a) A flash of red light need to be given during the same night.
(b) The whole batch should be kept in 24 hr darkness for the next day.
(c) The day time needs to be interrupted by momentary dark period.
(d) There is not need to do anything as it will not affect flowering.
Answer (d)
Sol. Far red light converts Pfr (active) form of phytochrome to Pr(inactive form). Pr plays role in flowering in SDP and
exposing Pr with far red light has no effect on flowering as Pr will be Pr only. It will not convert into Pfr.
19. Meena bought new bird feeder. She filled it with bird food and hung it over a window near her study table. After
a few days, sparrows started approaching the feeder but they continued to fly away as soon as they felt Meena's
presence. Meena's mother advised her to avoid approaching the window when sparrows were picking food. She
also told her to ignore them and not to show any sudden movements when they were nearby. In a couple of
weeks, the sparrows started visiting the feeder even when Meena was sitting at her table near the window. This
is an example of:
(a) Associative learning
(b) Habituation
(c) Imprinting
(d) Altruism
Answer (b)
Sol. Option (b) is correct because habituation is defined as a decline in response to a repeated stimulus, as the
sparrows started visiting the feeder even when Meena was sitting at her table near the window.
Associative learning is defined as learning about the relationship between two separate stimuli.
Altruism is behaviour of an animal that benefits another at its own expense.
Imprinting is a form of learning in which a very young animal fixes its attention on the first object with which it has
visual, auditory or tactile experience and thereafter follows the object.

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20. A team of researchers in an agricultural research institute was working on two varieties of commercially important
crop having genotypes PpQQRr and PPQqrr respectively. They were trying to get PpQqRr hybrid by crossing
the above two types. What is the probability of getting the expected genotype?
(a) 1/6 (b) 1/8
(c) 1/2 (d) 1/4
Answer (b)
Sol.
Parents PpQQRr × PPQqrr
f1 PpQqRr
Probability of Pp = Pp × PP ⎯→ Pp : PP
2/4 2/4
Probability of Qq = QQ × Qq ⎯→ QQ : Qq
2/4 2/4
Probability of Rr = Rr × rr ⎯→ Rr : rr
2/4 2/4
PpQqRr ⎯→ Pp × Qq × Rr
2/4 × 2/4 × 2/4 = 1/8
21. The following table indicates the different effects imposed by two species P and Q on each other. The ‘+’ sign
indicates growth of the population while ‘–’ is for decrease in the same. The ‘0’ sign is given for ‘no effect’.
Effect on growth and survival of Population P and Q
interaction
Types of

When not interacting When Interacting

P Q P Q

i 0 0 – 0

ii – 0 + 0

iii 0 0 + +

iv – – + +

The types of interaction i, ii, iii and iv respectively are:

(a) Ammensalism, Parasitism, Mutualism, Neutralism
(b) Ammensalism, Commensalism, Protocooperation, Mutualism
(c) Commensalism, Competition, Neutralism, Protocooperation
(d) Commensalism, Neutralism, Parasitism, Competition
Answer (b)
Sol. Ammensalism is the type of interaction between two organisms of different species in which one species inhibits
the growth of other species (–, 0)
Commensalism is the interaction in which one species is benefitted and other is neither harmed nor benefited
(+ ,0)
Protocooperation is an association between individual of two species, each of which is benefitted by the presence
of the other but can live equally well without association (+, +)

Mutualism is the interaction where both the interacting species are benefitted (+, +)

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22. Carbon dating is a process where age of certain fossils or old artifacts is determined with the help of its C 14
content. All the living organisms have C 12 and C14 in a certain proportion as it is continuously maintained in
equilibrium with the surrounding environment. As the organism dies, C 14 being unstable, starts decreasing in
amount. Its half life is around 5700 years.
One such fossil sample obtained by archaeologists had 0.185 mg of C 14 content. If the C14 was 0.26 mg at the
time of death of the organism. How old is the fossil?
(a) 1000-1500 years
(b) Around 3000 years
(c) 6000 years approximately
(d) 10,000-12,000 years old
Answer (b)

Sol. Option (b) is correct because the half life of C14 is around 5700 years. If the C14 was 0.26 mg at the time of death
of the organism then after around 5700 years it should be 0.13 mg.
Now the fossil sample obtained by archaeologists had 0.185 mg of C 14 content which means that 5700 years
have not passed, therefore, the fossil sample obtained was around 3000 years old.
23. Observe the following cladogram and determine which one is the false statement from the given options:

(a) Bryozoa, Annelida, Mollusca and Brachiopoda are monophyletic taxa

(b) Chordata is as distantly related to Echinodermata as Hemichordata

(c) Cnidaria is the earliest evolved class after Porifera

(d) Arthropoda, Onychophora and Priapulida form paraphyletic group

Answer (d)

Sol. Option (d) is the correct answer because paraphyletic group means that it consists of an ancestral species and
some of its descendants but not all of them. Arthropoda, Onychophora and Priapulida form monophyletic taxa.
Monophyletic taxon is a group composed of a collection of organisms, including the most recent common
ancestor of all those organisms and all the descendants of that most recent common ancestor.

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24. The inheritance in the following pedigree chart is of:

(a) Autosomal Dominant (b) Autosomal Recessive

(c) X-lined Dominant (d) X-linked Recessive
Answer (b)
Sol. Inheritance is not autosomal dominant as none of parents is diseased.
Inheritance is not X-linked dominant as all females are not diseased
In next generation female is affected, for this male has to be affected. So, this is not sex-linked recessive.
Thus, pedigree shows autosomal recessive trait inheritance as none of the parents is diseased but are carriers.

PART-A2
25. Consider two populations each with 200 diploid individuals. The genotypic distribution of people for a gene with
dominant allele ‘A’ and recessive allele ‘a’ for population I is 90AA, 40Aa and 70aa while for population II the
distribution is 45AA, 130Aa and 25aa. Which of the following statements are true?
(a) Population I is in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium while population II is not.
(b) Both the populations have the same allele frequencies for ‘A’ and ‘a’.
(c) Genetic variation of the two populations is the same.
(d) Allele frequency of the recessive allele for population II is 0.55.
Answer (b, c)

Sol. Option (b) and (c) are correct.

For population I,
Number of ‘a’ alleles in aa individuals = 70 × 2 = 140
Number of ‘a’ alleles in Aa individuals = 40
Total number of ‘a’ alleles = 180
180
Frequency of ‘a’ allele (q) = = 0.45
400
220
Frequency of ‘A’ allele = = 0.55
400
For population II,
Number of ‘a’ alleles in aa individuals = 25 × 2 = 50
Number of ‘a’ alleles in Aa individuals = 130
Total number of ‘a’ alleles = 130 + 50 = 180
180
Frequency of ‘a’ allele (q) = = 0.45
400
220
Frequency of ‘A’ allele (p) = = 0.55
400

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26. The West African butterfly Bicyclus anynana has two colour forms. During the dry season most butterflies rest
on the dry forest floor much of the time while the wet-season form is the more active form. The distal-less gene
in this organism is responsible for the eye-spot formation which helps the butterflies to adapt to different season.
Larvae that develop at temperatures < 20°C give rise to adult butterflies that have a more brown body form with
less eye spots while the larvae developing at > 24°C give rise to adults with lighter body form with conspicuous
white line and prominent eye spots.

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(a) Pupae developing under temperatures <20°C produce the dry season form.

(b) During pupal development, the area over which distal-less is expressed decreases with rise in temperature.

(c) The wet-season form possesses more prominent eye sports that helps in escaping predation by birds.

(d) The expression of distal-less gene is subdued in the wet-season form.

Answer (a, c)

Sol. Larvae that develop at temperatures <20°C give rise to adult butterflies that have less eye spots and the eye-
spot formation helps the butterflies to adapt to different seasons. So, pupae developing under temperatures
<20°C produce the dry season form. Larvae that develops at temperatures more than 24°C give rise to butterflies
with prominent eye spots i.e., the wet season forms.

27. Woodlice show the following behavioural patterns:

I. They show negative phototactic response during the day and positive response to humidity.

II. During night, they show negative phototaxis and less pronounced positive response to humidity.

III. Under extreme low humidity, they show weakly positive phototactic response.

Which of the following statements are true?

(a) The possibility of woodlice moving through dry places is higher at night

(b) Light is always a stronger cue for woodlice as compared to humidity

(c) The behavioural traits show that photoperiod has a direct influence on its survival

(d) All the three behavioural traits have adaptive significance

Answer (a, c, d)

Sol. The statements (a), (c) and (d) are true. The statement ‘a’ is true because during night, woodlice show less
pronounced positive response to humidity.

The behavioural traits shown by woodlice have adaptive significance.

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28. Trematode lifecycle is shown alongside. What could be the explanation for the lifecycle? (Choose the correct
answers)

(a) The final host of the parasite in snail and uses the bird dropping to gain access to soil
(b) The parasitic infection causes supernumerary limbs to develop in tadpoles
(c) The final host of parasite is bird, so by ensuring food, the parasite gains entry into the final host
(d) The parasite enters the tadpoles of frogs and accelerates their metamorphosis into frogs
Answer (b, c, d)
Sol. The correct answers are b, c and d. As shown in the illustration, parasitic infection causes supernumerary limbs
to develop in tadpoles. The definitive host of the trematode is bird. The infective stage of trematode i.e.,
metacercaria enters in the body of bird on ingestion of infected frog having metacercariae cyst. The parasite most
likely promotes metamorphosis in tadpoles.
29. Longnose killifish, Fundulus similis, are found in estuarian habitats of South Texas. They are naturally infected
with metacercariae of the trematode, Euhaplorchis sp. Relationship between the number of cysts of Euhaplorchis
sp. in the brain of Fundulus similis, and the time spent in the top 5 cm of the water column in an experimental
tank during 15 min of observations is depicted in the figure below;

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Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Changes in the surfacing behavior could make the infected fish survive longer in the murky estuarine water
by gulping air.
(b) It is possible that larger and, hence heavily infected fish are removed from the population by predation.
(c) The infection of trematode parasite and its effect on the behavior of killifish host, provides an adaptive
advantage to the host in the estuarine ecosystem.
(d) Time spent in the top 5 cm of the tank is significantly and positively related to the number of metacercariae
on the brain of the killifish.
Answer (b, d)
Sol. The correct answers are b and d. According to the figure given, heavily infected fishes spent more time in the
top 5 cm of water column. Hence, possibility of their predation increases.
30. In an experiment, a cluster of bees was exposed to uniform temperature. The figure alongside, shows the
percentage of bees not in clusters (free bees, FB), bees in small clusters (2–3 bees, SC) and the bees in big
clusters (>3 bees, BC) at 29 ±1°C compared to the free bees, bees in small clusters and bees in big clusters at
36 ±1°C. (* indicates significant difference.)

(a) Bees form more smaller clusters at 29°C, where the waiting time is short and form bigger clusters at 36°C.
(b) Clustering of the bees in the optimal temperatures spot is an occasional event and with homogeneous
temperatures in a given area, the bees tend to form several small clusters scattered across the area.
(c) The bees forming several big clusters in an area of homogeneous temperature in a hive, has the advantage
to bees of wandering from one small cluster to the other, increasing the probability of reaching all cells that
require cleaning.
(d) Bigger clusters form slowly than smaller ones, but in smaller clusters a higher percentage of bees may be
at sub-optimum temperature due to crowding effects.
Answer (a, d*)

Sol. The correct answers are (a) and (d). According to the figure given, at 36°C temperature, the bees form more
bigger clusters while at 29°C temperature, bees form more smaller clusters.

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31. Lantana camara leaf extracts were prepared in different concentrations. Germinating seeds of maize (Zea mays),
finger millet (Eleusine coracana) and tef grass (Eragrostis tef were exposed to soil treated with various
concentrations of the leaf extract. The relative elongation ratio (RER) was estimated for the root and shoot lengths.
The observations as compared to control plants treated with water are shown in the figure alongside.

Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) The leaf extract has differential allelopathic effect on the germination and growth of different seeds used in
the experiment

(b) Shoot growth is less affected by the leaf extract treatment than root growth

(c) The results indicate the possibility to cultivate maize and finger millet in agricultural lands invaded by Lantana
after its removal

(d) Growing tef grass may be promising in areas where Lantana invasion occurs due to positive allelopathic
interference

Answer (a, b)

Sol. Lantana camara is an invasive alien species and show allelopathic effect by releasing chemical into the
surrounding soil and prevent seed germination.

In a given graph of Relative Elongation Ratio for root and shoot length of given seeds plant show differential
allelopathic effect.

From the graph, shoot of growth of different plants is less affected by the leaf extract treatment.

No given crop can be cultivated in the land invaded by Lantana plant or near its vicinity.

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 IOQB (Part-I)-2021-22

32. Maximal oxygen output (VO2max) is high in endurance event athletes like marathon runners. Mean Marathon
velocity (VMa) and the VO2max in different groups of Elite marathon runners (ER) are shown in the figure with their
different styles of running i.e. Good runners (GR) and slow runners (SR). “r” is the correlation coefficient.

Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) There is a large variation in performance between runners of equal VO 2max and vice versa
(b) Marathon runners with a good performance timing (< 2h 30min) have VO 2max above 70 ml/Kg/min
(c) Elite Marathon runners with personal best of less than 2h 30min show a VO 2max more than 65 ml/Kg/min
(d) From the figure, it is evident that, when a subgroup of marathon runners is studied, there is a high correlation
between marathon performance and VO2max
Answer (a, c, d)
Sol. The correct statements are (a), (c), and (d). At equal VO2max, there is large difference in the performance of
athletes as indicated by time taken and mean marathon velocity. Some marathon runners with a good
performance timing (< 2h 30min) show a VO 2max even less than 65 mL/Kg/min. So, statement b is incorrect. ‘c’
is a correct statement because most members of elite marathon runners with personal best of less than 2h 30min
show a VO2max more than 65 mL/Kg/min.

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