WMC MCQs 3

Wireless and mobile communication MCQ –
Wireless communication MCQ

1. One GSM radio channel is 0.2 MHz wide. (True/False)
Ans. True
2. The full form of ARFCN is ___.

Ans. Absolute Radio Frequency Channel Number
3. ARFCN is used to uniquely identify a radio channel. (True/False)

Ans. True
4. There may be either ___ number of 51-multi frames or ___ number of 26-
multi frames in a super frame.
Ans. 26, 51
5. One TDMA time slot of ___.

Ans. 577 µs
6. One TDMA Frame is 4.615ms. (True/False)

Ans. True
7. One ___ TDMA multi-frame is 120 ms.

Ans. 26
8. One 51 TDMA multi-frame is 235 ms. (True/False)

Ans. True
9. One super frame is of ___.

Ans. 6.12 ms.
10. Each TDMA time slot is guarded by a ___ bit period guard time.
Ans. 8.25
11. One-bit period is equal to 3.69 μs approximately. (True/False)

Ans. True
12. The synchronization burst is used to synchronize a mobile station’s

clock with the base station’s clock. (True/False)
Ans. True
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13. How many logical channels are defined by the GSM network?
Ans. Four
14. Name the types of logical channels to exist in GSM.

Ans. Traffic Channels (TCH), Broadcast Channels (BCH), Common control
channels, and Dedicated control channels
15. The TCH channels can transmit voice data at ___ kbps, ___ kbps, and
___ kbps.
Ans. 9.6 kbps, 4.8 kbps, and 2.4 kbps.
16. Broadcast Channels (BCH) are used for controlling the operation of the
GSM network. (True/False)
Ans. True
17. Frequency Correction Channel (FCCH) is a BCH. (True/False)

Ans. True
18. Synchronization Channel (SCH) is a BCH. (True/False)

Ans. True
19. Different common control channels are ___, ___ the, and ___.
Ans. The paging channel (PCH), – the Access Grant Channel (AGCH), and
the Random Access Channel (RACH).
20. The term SDCCH stands for ___.

Ans. Stand-alone Dedicated Control Channel (SDCCH)
21. The SDCCH, the SACCH, and the FACCH are Dedicated Control
channels. (True/False)
Ans. True
22. International Mobile Station Equipment Identity (IMEI) uniquely

identifies a mobile station internationally.(True/False)
Ans. True
23. The IMSI comprises ___ ___ and ___.

Ans. The Mobile Country Code (MCC The Mobile Network Code (MNC) and
the Mobile Subscriber Identification Number (MSIN).
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24. MCC of IMSI has ___ decimal digits.
Ans. 3 decimal digits.
25. ___ of IMSI uniquely identifies the mobile network of the subscriber
within a country.
Ans. MNC
26. The MSISDN stands for ___.

Ans. Mobile Subscriber ISDN Number
27. The MSISDN is assigned to the subscriber through the SIM assigned to
the subscriber by the GSM network operator. (True/False)
Ans. True
28. The TMSI is allocated by ___.

Ans. VLR
29. The Cell Identifier can have a maximum of ___ digits.

Ans. 16 digits
30. Cellular radio was developed by ___ at Bell Laboratories.

Ans. AT&T
31. A network is a collection of computers and communication devices to

share ___.
Ans. information
32. Two computers can be connected without a physical cable. (True/False)

Ans. True
33. DSL stands for ___.

Ans. Digital Subscriber Link
34. The term “wireless” refers to a method of communication using ___.

Ans. Radio waves
35. It is believed that the world’s first, wireless telephone conversation

occurred in ___.
Ans. 1880
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36. The ___ was the first Wireless Local Area Network
Ans. Aloha net
37. Advanced Mobile Phone System (AMPS) is an example of ___ in ___.

Ans. First-generation network, USA
38. ___ is the time ___ based mobile phone systems from 2G network.
Ans. Circuit Switched Data (CSD), time division multiple access (TDMA)
39. The 3G network supports the facilitates of global roaming. (True/False)

Ans. True
40. The 4G will support approximately ___ for low mobility such as
nomadic/local wireless access, according to the ITU requirements.
Ans. 1 Gbit/s
41. GSM stands for ___.

Ans. Global Systems for Mobile Communication
42. Small cells are more useful in densely populated are? (True / False)
Ans. True
43. Frequency reuse is maximized by increasing the cell size? (True/False)

Ans. False
44. ___ channels are used to carry traffic from the base station to mobile
stations.
Ans. Downlink
45. Two adjacent cells use the ___ frequencies.

Ans. Different
46. When the mobile station moves from one cell to another cell ___ take
place
Ans. Handoff
47. BSC interface between ___ and ___.

Ans. The base station and MSC
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48. High-powered transmissions expressed in dB-millivolts per meter.
(True/False)
Ans. True
49. Inn low-power systems the signal strength is usually expressed in

dBμV/m. (True/False)
Ans. True
50. Cells of hexagonal shape can reduce the inter-cell gap. (True/False)
Ans. True
51. List 2.5G technologies.

Ans. GPRS, Edge, CDMA-2000
52. What is the data speed of indoor 3G networks?

Ans. 2Mbps
53. WCDMA ___ MHz spectrum.

Ans. 5
54. Multimedia service is provided by ___ G cellular networks.

Ans. 3
55. The five categories of cells are ___, ___, ___,___, and ___
Ans. macro, micro, pico, femto, and umbrella cells
56. LPC encodes speech at rate ___.

Ans. 13kbps.
57. GSM uses frequency division multiple access mechanisms. (True/False)

Ans. True.
58. GSM allows ___ mobile stations simultaneously.

Ans. 124
59. The frequency band assigned to a single mobile station is ___.

Ans. 200 kHz.
60. PSTN stands for ___.

Ans. Public Switched Telephone Network.
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61. PLMN stands for ___.
Ans. Public Land Mobile Network.
62. GSM SMS is a bearer service. (True/False)

Ans. True
63. The three major subsystems of GSM PLMN are ___,___, and ___.
Ans. Network Switching Subsystem (NSS), Base Station Subsystem (BSS),
and Network Management System (NMS).
64. A database called ___ is associated with the MSC to contain information
about its currently associated mobile station.
Ans. VLR
65. Operation and Support System is part of ___.

Ans. Network Management System (NMS).
66. Each time slot can carry 156.25 bits. (True/False)

Ans. True
67. LAPD stands for Link ___.

Ans. Link Access Protocol for the ISDN D-Channel.
68. The Abis interface uses a 16 kbps traffic channel called Transcoder
Rate Adapter Unit. (True/False)
Ans. True
69. ITU-T E1 carrier in GSM provides a data rate of 2.048 Mbps. (True/False)
Ans. True
70. ANSI T1 carrier in GSM provides a data rate of 1.544. (True/False)

Ans. True
71. Each Abis Interface is shared by 31 timeslots for the E1 carrier.

(True/False)
Ans. True
72. Each Abis interface is shared by 24 timeslots for the T1 carrier.

(True/False)
Ans. True
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73. All the interfaces around the MSC use SS7-based protocols.
(True/False)
Ans. True
74. A, B, C, D, F, and G interfaces are called ___ interfaces.

Ans. MAP interfaces.
75. Two VLRs are connected through the ___ interface.

Ans. G interface.
1) The modulation technique used for mobile communication systems during

world war II was
a. Amplitude modulation
b. Frequency modulation
c. ASK
d. FSK
ANSWER: Frequency modulation
2) ———– introduced Frequency Modulation for mobile communication

systems in 1935.
a. Edwin Armstrong
b. Albert Einstein
c. Galileo Galilei
d. David Bohm
ANSWER: Edwin Armstrong
3) The early FM push-to-talk telephone systems were used in

a. Simplex mode
b. Half duplex mode
c. Full duplex mode
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Half duplex mode
4) DECT stands for

a. Digital European Cellular Telex
b. Digitized Emergency Cellular Telephone
c. Digital European Cordless Telephone
d. Digital European Cellular Telephone
ANSWER: Digital European Cordless Telephone
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5) World’s first cellular system was developed by
a. Nippon Telephone and Telegraph (NTT)
b. Bellcore and Motorola
c. AT&T Bell Laboratories
d. Qualcomm
ANSWER: Nippon Telephone and Telegraph (NTT)
6) Paging systems were based on

a. Simplex systems
b. Half duplex systems
c. Full duplex systems
ANSWER: Simplex systems
7) Paging systems could be used to

a. Send numeric messages
b. Send alphanumeric messages
c. Voice message
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
8) Garage door opener is a

a. Transmitter
b. Receiver
c. Transceiver
ANSWER: Transmitter
9) Carrier frequency of a TV remote control is in the range

a. of Infra red
b. < 100 MHz
c. < 1 GHz
d. < 2 GHz
ANSWER: of Infra red
10) Half duplex system for communication has

a. Communication in single direction
b. Communication in single direction at a time
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c. Communication in both directions at the same time
ANSWER: Communication in single direction at a time
11) MIN stands for

a. Mobile Identification Number
b. Mobile Internet
c. Mobility In Network
ANSWER: Mobile Identification Number
12) The process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to
another is
a. MSC
b. Roamer
c. Hand off
d. Forward channel
ANSWER: Hand off
13) PCN is
a. Wireless concept of making calls
b. For receiving calls
c. Irrespective of the location of the user
d. All of the above
14) IMT-2000 is a digital mobile system that functions as

a. Pager
b. Cordless
c. Low earth orbit satellites
d. All of the above
15) The 2G cellular network uses

a. TDMA/FDD
b. CDMA/FDD
c. Digital modulation formats
d. All of the above
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16) NADC is a 2G standard for

a. TDMA
b. CDMA
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: TDMA
17) 2G CDMA standard – cdma one supports up to

a. 8 users
b. 64 users
c. 32 users
d. 116 users
ANSWER: 64 users
18) 2G standards support

a. Limited internet browsing
b. Short Messaging Service
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: Both a & b
19) The 2G GSM technology uses a carrier separation of

a. 1.25 MHz
b. 200 KHz
c. 30 KHz
d. 300 KHz
ANSWER: 200 KHz
20) 3G W-CDMA is also known as

a. UMTS
b. DECT
c. DCS-1800
d. ETACS
ANSWER: UMTS
21) Commonly used mode for 3G networks is
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a. TDMA
b. FDMA
c. TDD
d. FDD
ANSWER: FDD
22) The minimum spectrum allocation required for W-CDMA is

a. 5MHz
b. 2MHz
c. 500KHz
d. 100KHz
ANSWER: 5MHz
23) CDMA2000 1xEV provides high speed data access with channel allocation
of
a. 5 MHz
b. 50 MHz
c. 1.25 MHz
d. 4 MHz
ANSWER: 1.25 MHz
24) In TD-SDMA, there is a frame of _____milliseconds and the frame is divided

into _____ time slots.
a. 5, 7
b. 7, 5
c. 2, 5
d. 5, 2
ANSWER: 5, 7
25) The interference between the neighboring base stations is avoided by

a. Assigning different group of channels
b. Using transmitters with different power level
c. Using different antennas
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Assigning different group of channels
26) Radio capacity may be increased in cellular concept by

a. Increase in radio spectrum
b. Increasing the number of base stations & reusing the channels
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c. Both a & b
ANSWER: Increasing the number of base stations & reusing the channels
27) The shape of the cellular region for maximum radio coverage is
a. Circular
b. Square
c. Oval
d. Hexagon
ANSWER: Hexagon
28) Hexagon shape is used for radio coverage for a cell because
a. It uses the maximum area for coverage
b. Fewer number of cells are required
c. It approximates circular radiation pattern
d. All of the above
29) Centre excited hexagonal cells use

a. Sectored directional antennas
b. Omni directional antennas
c. Yagi uda antennas
ANSWER: Omni directional antennas
30) Spectrum Efficiency of a cellular network is

a. The traffic carried by whole network
b. The traffic carried per cell divided by the bandwidth of the system and the area
of a cell
c. Expressed in Erlang /MHz /km2
d. Both b and c
e. Both a and c
ANSWER: Both b and c
31) The advantage of using frequency reuse is

a. Increased capacity
b. Limited spectrum is required
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c. Same spectrum may be allocated to other network
d. All of the above
32) The strategies acquired for channel assignment are

a. Fixed
b. Dynamic
c. Regular
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
ANSWER: Both a and b
33) In a fixed channel assignment strategy, if all the assigned channels are
occupied, the call
a. Gets transferred to another cell
b. Gets blocked
c. Is kept on waiting
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Gets blocked
34) In a fixed channel assignment strategy

a. Each cell is assigned a predetermined set of frequencies
b. The call is served by unused channels of the cell
c. The call gets blocked if all the channels of the cell are occupied
d. All of the above
35) In a dynamic channel assignment strategy,

a. Voice channels are not permanently assigned
b. The serving base station requests for a channel from MSC
c. MSC allocates the channel according to the predetermined algorithm
d. All of the above
36) Advantage of using Dynamic channel assignment is

a. Blocking is reduced
b. Capacity of the system is increased
c. Both a & b
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ANSWER: Both a & b
37) Disadvantage of using Dynamic channel assignment is

a. More storage required
b. Calculations and analysis is increased
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: Both a & b
38) In Dynamic channel assignment, any channel which is being used in one
cell can be reassigned simultaneously to another cell in the system at a
reasonable distance.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
39) In Handoff
a. Process of transferring the call to the new base station
b. Transfers the call
c. New channel allocation is done
d. All of the above
40) Delay in handoffs is caused due to

a. Week signal conditions
b. High traffic conditions
c. Un availability of the channel
d. All of the above
41) Inter system Handoffs are done

a. When mobile station moves in two cellular systems with different MSC
b. When mobile station moves between two cellular systems
c. When mobile station receives more power from other base station than the
serving base station
d. All of the above
42) When a fraction of assigned channel is reserved for handoffs, it is

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a. Guard channel concept
b. Fixed channel assignment
c. Dynamic channel assignment
ANSWER: Guard channel concept
43) While handoffs, the termination of call may be avoided by

a. Providing Guard channel
b. Queuing of handoffs
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: Both a & b
44) Dwell time is the time for

a. A call within the cell
b. Hand off
c. Waiting for channel allocation
ANSWER: A call within the cell
45) Dwell time depends upon

a. Interference
b. Distance between the subscriber and the base station
c. Propagation of call
d. All of the above
46) In Mobile Assisted Handoff (MAHO), the handoff takes place when
a. The power received by the mobile station from other base station is more than
the serving base station
b. The channel allocated is not available
c. The mobile station has no signal
d. All of the above
ANSWER: The power received by the mobile station from other base station is more
than the serving base station
47) Mobile Assisted Handoff (MAHO) provides

a. Faster handoffs
b. Suitability for frequent handoffs
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c. MSC need not monitor the signal strength
d. All of the above
48) Trunking in a cellular network refers to

a. Termination of a call
b. Spectrum unavailability
c. Accommodating large number of users in limited spectrum
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Accommodating large number of users in limited spectrum
49) When all of the radio channels are in use in a trunking system
a. The user is blocked
b. The access to the system is denied
c. The queue may be provided
d. All of the above
50) Umbrella cell approach

a. Uses large and small cells
b. Uses different antenna heights
c. Is used for high speed users with large coverage area and low speed users
with small coverage area
d. All of the above
51) Interference in cellular systems is caused by

a. Two base stations operating in same frequency band
b. Two calls in progress in nearby mobile stations
c. Leakage of energy signals by non cellular systems into cellular frequency band
d. All of the above
52) Interference in frequency bands may lead to

a. Cross talk
b. Missed calls
c. Blocked calls
d. All of the above
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53) Co-channel reuse ratio depends upon

a. Radius of the cell
b. Distance between the centers of the co channel cells
c. Frequency allocation of nearest cells
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
54) Increase in Co- channel reuse ratio indicates

a. Better transmission quality
b. Larger capacity
c. Low co-channel interference
d. Both a and c
e. Both a and b
ANSWER: Both a and c
55) Grade of service refers to

a. Accommodating large number of users in limited spectrum
b. Ability of a user to access trunked system during busy hour
c. Two calls in progress in nearby mobile stations
d. High speed users with large coverage area
ANSWER: Ability of a user to access trunked system during busy hour
56) Traffic intensity is expressed in

a. Erlangs /MHz /km2
b. Erlangs
c. λ/ sec
d. dB/sec
ANSWER: Erlangs
57) The techniques used to improve the capacity of cellular systems are
a. Splitting
b. Sectoring
c. Coverage zone approach
d. All of the above
58) Distributed antenna systems are used at
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a. Transmitters of mobile systems
b. Transmitters of base stations
c. Inputs and outputs of repeaters
d. Receivers of mobile stations
ANSWER: Inputs and outputs of repeaters
59) Antenna down tilting refers to

a. Focusing radio energy towards ground
b. Decreasing the strength of antenna
c. Decreasing the S/N ratio at the antenna input
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Focusing radio energy towards ground
60) Diffraction, at high frequencies, depends upon

1. Geometry of the object
2. Polarization of the incident wave
3. Amplitude of the incident wave
4. Frequency of the incident wave
a. 1 and 2 are correct

b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All are correct
ANSWER: 1, 2 and 3 are correct
61) The rainbow pattern seen on a CD is an example of

a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Diffraction
ANSWER: Diffraction
62) Fresnel Reflection Coefficient is a factor of
1. Polarization of the wave
2. Properties of the material at which reflection occurs
3. Angle of incidence of wave

b. 1 and 3 are correct
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c. All the three are correct
d. 2 and 3 are correct
ANSWER: All the three are correct
63) When a wave falls on a perfect conductor

a. Wave is partially reflected and partially transmitted
b. All incident energy is reflected back without loss of energy
c. Part of energy gets absorbed
d. Both a and c
ANSWER: All incident energy is reflected back without loss of energy
64) Brewster angle is the angle at which

a. No reflection occurs at the first medium
b. Reflection coefficient is zero
c. The wave gets refracted in the direction of source
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
65) Fading is caused due to

1. Multi path propagation
2. Obstacles
3. Frequency variations at the source
4. Variation in amplitude and phase at receiver

d. All are correct
66) Coherence time refers to

a. Time required to attain a call with the busy base station
b. Time required for synchronization between the transmitter and the receiver
c. Minimum time for change in magnitude and phase of the channel
ANSWER: Minimum time for change in magnitude and phase of the channel
67) Fading due to shadowing is

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a. Fading due to large obstructions
b. Large coherence time of the channel as compared to the delay constraints
c. Small coherence time of the channel as compared to the delay constraints
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
68) Deep fade is

1. Strong destructive interference
2. Drop in signal to noise ratio
3. Temporary failure of message transfer

d. All are correct
ANSWER: All are correct
69) Doppler spread refers to

a. Signal fading due to Doppler shift in the channel
b. Temporary failure of message transfer
c. Large coherence time of the channel as compared to the delay constraints
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Signal fading due to Doppler shift in the channel
70) Friis free space equation

1. Is an expression for noise power
2. Is a function of transmitting and receiving antenna gain
3. Depends upon the distance between transmitting and receiving antenna

d. All are correct
ANSWER: 2 and 3 are correct
71) The free space model of propagation refers to
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1. Unobstructed line of sight between the transmitter and receiver
2. Satellite communication systems and Microwave line of sight radio links
3. Propagation along the ground surface

d. All the three are correct
72) According to Friis free space equation

1. Received power falls with square of the distance between the transmitter and
receiver
2. Increases with square of the distance between the transmitter and receiver
3. Received power increases with gains of transmitting and receiving antennas

73) EIRP is
1. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power
2. Maximum radiated power available by the transmitter
3. A factor of power and gain of transmitter

74) Spread spectrum modulation involves

1. PN sequence for modulation
2. Large bandwidth
3. Multiple users
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75) PN sequence at the decoder acts as a locally generated carrier at the

receiver and decodes the signal using
a. Correlator
b. Adder
c. Frequency divider
d. PLL
ANSWER: Correlator
76) In spread spectrum technique, the multiple users are assigned with
a. Same spectrum and same PN code
b. Same spectrum and different PN code
c. Different spectrum and different PN code
d. Different spectrum and same PN code
ANSWER: Same spectrum and different PN code
77) Advantage of using Spread Spectrum modulation is/are

1. Interference rejection capability
2. Frequency planning is not required
3. Resistance to multipath fading
4. ISI is lesser

d. All the four are correct
ANSWER: All the four are correct
78) Direct sequence spread spectrum demodulation uses

a. DPSK
b. FSK
c. ASK
d. QPSK
ANSWER: DPSK
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79) Fast hopping is
a. More than one frequency hop during each symbol
b. Hopping rate greater than or equal to information symbol rate
c. One or more symbols transmitted between frequency hops
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
80) Slow frequency hopping refers to

a. One or more symbols transmitted in time interval between frequency hops
b. More than one frequency hop during each symbol
c. Hopping rate greater than or equal to information symbol rate
d. Both a and c are correct
ANSWER: One or more symbols transmitted in time interval between frequency
hops
81) Probability of outage refers to

a. Noise developed at the receiver
b. Number of bit errors during transmission
c. Signal to noise ratio
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Number of bit errors during transmission
82) The digital modulation technique used in frequency selective channels is

a. FSK
b. ASK
c. BPSK
d. QPSK
ANSWER: BPSK
83) Working of Adaptive Equalizers include

a. Training
b. Tracking
c. Modulation
d. Both a and b
e. All a, b and c are correct
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84) The time span for which the equalizer converges depends upon
1. Equalizer algorithm
2. Equalizer structure
3. Rate of change of multipath radio channel
4. Amplitude of signal

85) The Linear Equalizer may be implemented as

a. FIR filter
b. Lattice filter
c. Low pass filter
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
86) Linear equalizer is also known as

a. Transversal filter
b. Lattice filter
c. Low pass filter
ANSWER: Transversal filter
87) The methods used for non-linear equalization are

a. Decision Feedback Equalization
b. Maximum Likelihood Symbol Detection
c. Maximum Likelihood Sequence Estimation

88) The performance of algorithms for Adaptive Equalization are given by
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1. Rate of convergence
2. Computational complexity
3. Numerical properties
4. Frequency change

d. All are correct
89) Computational complexity of an algorithm refers to the

a. Number of operations for one iteration of algorithm
b. Inaccuracies in the mathematical analysis
c. Noise produced during one complete iteration of algorithm
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Number of operations for one iteration of algorithm
90) The algorithms acquired for adaptive equalization are

1. Zero forcing algorithm
2. Least mean squares algorithm
3. Recursive least squares algorithm

91) Fractionally spaced equalizer acts as

a. Matched filter
b. Equalizer
c. Demodulator
d. Both a and b
ANSWER: d
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1) The modulation technique used for mobile communication systems during
world war II was
a. Amplitude modulation
b. Frequency modulation
c. ASK
d. FSK
ANSWER: Frequency modulation
2) ———– introduced Frequency Modulation for mobile communication
systems in 1935.
a. Edwin Armstrong
b. Albert Einstein
c. Galileo Galilei
d. David Bohm
ANSWER: Edwin Armstrong
3) The early FM push-to-talk telephone systems were used in
a. Simplex mode
b. Half duplex mode
c. Full duplex mode
ANSWER: Half duplex mode
4) DECT stands for
a. Digital European Cellular Telex
b. Digitized Emergency Cellular Telephone
c. Digital European Cordless Telephone
d. Digital European Cellular Telephone
ANSWER: Digital European Cordless Telephone
5) World’s first cellular system was developed by
a. Nippon Telephone and Telegraph (NTT)
b. Bellcore and Motorola
c. AT&T Bell Laboratories
d. Qualcomm
ANSWER: Nippon Telephone and Telegraph (NTT)
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6) Paging systems were based on
a. Simplex systems
b. Half duplex systems
c. Full duplex systems
ANSWER: Simplex systems
7) Paging systems could be used to
a. Send numeric messages
b. Send alphanumeric messages
c. Voice message
d. All of the above
8) Garage door opener is a
a. Transmitter
b. Receiver
c. Transceiver
ANSWER: Transmitter
9) Carrier frequency of a TV remote control is in the range
a. of Infra red
b. < 100 MHz
c. < 1 GHz
d. < 2 GHz
ANSWER: of Infra red
10) Half duplex system for communication has
a. Communication in single direction
b. Communication in single direction at a time
c. Communication in both directions at the same time
ANSWER: Communication in single direction at a time
11) MIN stands for
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a. Mobile Identification Number
b. Mobile Internet
c. Mobility In Network
ANSWER: Mobile Identification Number
12) The process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to
another is
a. MSC
b. Roamer
c. Hand off
d. Forward channel
ANSWER: Hand off
13) PCN is
a. Wireless concept of making calls
b. For receiving calls
c. Irrespective of the location of the user
d. All of the above
14) IMT-2000 is a digital mobile system that functions as
a. Pager
b. Cordless
c. Low earth orbit satellites
d. All of the above
15) The 2G cellular network uses
a. TDMA/FDD
b. CDMA/FDD
c. Digital modulation formats
d. All of the above
16) NADC is a 2G standard for
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a. TDMA
b. CDMA
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: TDMA
17) 2G CDMA standard – cdma one supports up to
a. 8 users
b. 64 users
c. 32 users
d. 116 users
ANSWER: 64 users
18) 2G standards support
a. Limited internet browsing
b. Short Messaging Service
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: Both a & b
19) The 2G GSM technology uses a carrier separation of
a. 1.25 MHz
b. 200 KHz
c. 30 KHz
d. 300 KHz
ANSWER: 200 KHz
20) 3G W-CDMA is also known as
a. UMTS
b. DECT
c. DCS-1800
d. ETACS
ANSWER: UMTS
21) Commonly used mode for 3G networks is
a. TDMA
b. FDMA
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c. TDD
d. FDD
ANSWER: FDD
22) The minimum spectrum allocation required for W-CDMA is
a. 5MHz
b. 2MHz
c. 500KHz
d. 100KHz
ANSWER: 5MHz
23) CDMA2000 1xEV provides high speed data access with channel allocation
of
a. 5 MHz
b. 50 MHz
c. 1.25 MHz
d. 4 MHz
ANSWER: 1.25 MHz
24) In TD-SDMA, there is a frame of _____milliseconds and the frame is divided
into _____ time slots.
a. 5, 7
b. 7, 5
c. 2, 5
d. 5, 2
ANSWER: 5, 7
25) The interference between the neighboring base stations is avoided by
a. Assigning different group of channels
b. Using transmitters with different power level
c. Using different antennas
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Assigning different group of channels
26) Radio capacity may be increased in cellular concept by
a. Increase in radio spectrum
b. Increasing the number of base stations & reusing the channels
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c. Both a & b
ANSWER: Increasing the number of base stations & reusing the channels
27) The shape of the cellular region for maximum radio coverage is
a. Circular
b. Square
c. Oval
d. Hexagon
ANSWER: Hexagon
28) Hexagon shape is used for radio coverage for a cell because
a. It uses the maximum area for coverage
b. Fewer number of cells are required
c. It approximates circular radiation pattern
d. All of the above
29) Centre excited hexagonal cells use
a. Sectored directional antennas
b. Omni directional antennas
c. Yagi uda antennas
ANSWER: Omni directional antennas
30) Spectrum Efficiency of a cellular network is
a. The traffic carried by whole network
b. The traffic carried per cell divided by the bandwidth of the system and the area of
a cell
c. Expressed in Erlang /MHz /km2
d. Both b and c
e. Both a and c
ANSWER: Both b and c
31) The advantage of using frequency reuse is
a. Increased capacity
b. Limited spectrum is required
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c. Same spectrum may be allocated to other network
d. All of the above
32) The strategies acquired for channel assignment are
a. Fixed
b. Dynamic
c. Regular
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
33) In a fixed channel assignment strategy, if all the assigned channels are
occupied, the call
a. Gets transferred to another cell
b. Gets blocked
c. Is kept on waiting
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Gets blocked
34) In a fixed channel assignment strategy
a. Each cell is assigned a predetermined set of frequencies
b. The call is served by unused channels of the cell
c. The call gets blocked if all the channels of the cell are occupied
d. All of the above
35) In a dynamic channel assignment strategy,
a. Voice channels are not permanently assigned
b. The serving base station requests for a channel from MSC
c. MSC allocates the channel according to the predetermined algorithm
d. All of the above
36) Advantage of using Dynamic channel assignment is
a. Blocking is reduced
b. Capacity of the system is increased
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c. Both a & b
ANSWER: Both a & b
37) Disadvantage of using Dynamic channel assignment is
a. More storage required
b. Calculations and analysis is increased
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: Both a & b
38) In Dynamic channel assignment, any channel which is being used in one
cell can be reassigned simultaneously to another cell in the system at a
reasonable distance.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
39) In Handoff
a. Process of transferring the call to the new base station
b. Transfers the call
c. New channel allocation is done
d. All of the above
40) Delay in handoffs is caused due to
a. Week signal conditions
b. High traffic conditions
c. Un availability of the channel
d. All of the above
41) Inter system Handoffs are done
a. When mobile station moves in two cellular systems with different MSC
b. When mobile station moves between two cellular systems
c. When mobile station receives more power from other base station than the
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d. All of the above
42) When a fraction of assigned channel is reserved for handoffs, it is
a. Guard channel concept
b. Fixed channel assignment
c. Dynamic channel assignment
ANSWER: Guard channel concept
43) While handoffs, the termination of call may be avoided by
a. Providing Guard channel
b. Queuing of handoffs
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: Both a & b
44) Dwell time is the time for
a. A call within the cell
b. Hand off
c. Waiting for channel allocation
ANSWER: A call within the cell
45) Dwell time depends upon
a. Interference
b. Distance between the subscriber and the base station
c. Propagation of call
d. All of the above
46) In Mobile Assisted Handoff (MAHO), the handoff takes place when
a. The power received by the mobile station from other base station is more than the
b. The channel allocated is not available
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c. The mobile station has no signal
d. All of the above
ANSWER: The power received by the mobile station from other base station is
more than the serving base station
47) Mobile Assisted Handoff (MAHO) provides
a. Faster handoffs
b. Suitability for frequent handoffs
c. MSC need not monitor the signal strength
d. All of the above
48) Trunking in a cellular network refers to
a. Termination of a call
b. Spectrum unavailability
c. Accommodating large number of users in limited spectrum
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Accommodating large number of users in limited spectrum
49) When all of the radio channels are in use in a trunking system
a. The user is blocked
b. The access to the system is denied
c. The queue may be provided
d. All of the above
50) Umbrella cell approach
a. Uses large and small cells
b. Uses different antenna heights
c. Is used for high speed users with large coverage area and low speed users with
small coverage area
d. All of the above
51) Interference in cellular systems is caused by
a. Two base stations operating in same frequency band
b. Two calls in progress in nearby mobile stations
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c. Leakage of energy signals by non cellular systems into cellular frequency band
d. All of the above
52) Interference in frequency bands may lead to
a. Cross talk
b. Missed calls
c. Blocked calls
d. All of the above
53) Co-channel reuse ratio depends upon
a. Radius of the cell
b. Distance between the centers of the co channel cells
c. Frequency allocation of nearest cells
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
54) Increase in Co- channel reuse ratio indicates
a. Better transmission quality
b. Larger capacity
c. Low co-channel interference
d. Both a and c
e. Both a and b
55) Grade of service refers to
a. Accommodating large number of users in limited spectrum
b. Ability of a user to access trunked system during busy hour
c. Two calls in progress in nearby mobile stations
d. High speed users with large coverage area
ANSWER: Ability of a user to access trunked system during busy hour
56) Traffic intensity is expressed in
a. Erlangs /MHz /km2
b. Erlangs
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c. λ/ sec
d. dB/sec
ANSWER: Erlangs
57) The techniques used to improve the capacity of cellular systems are
a. Splitting
b. Sectoring
c. Coverage zone approach
d. All of the above
58) Distributed antenna systems are used at
a. Transmitters of mobile systems
b. Transmitters of base stations
c. Inputs and outputs of repeaters
d. Receivers of mobile stations
ANSWER: Inputs and outputs of repeaters
59) Antenna down tilting refers to
a. Focusing radio energy towards ground
b. Decreasing the strength of antenna
c. Decreasing the S/N ratio at the antenna input
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Focusing radio energy towards ground
60) Diffraction, at high frequencies, depends upon
1. Geometry of the object
2. Polarization of the incident wave
3. Amplitude of the incident wave
4. Frequency of the incident wave
d. All are correct
61) The rainbow pattern seen on a CD is an example of
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a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Diffraction
ANSWER: Diffraction
62) Fresnel Reflection Coefficient is a factor of
1. Polarization of the wave
2. Properties of the material at which reflection occurs
3. Angle of incidence of wave
63) When a wave falls on a perfect conductor
a. Wave is partially reflected and partially transmitted
b. All incident energy is reflected back without loss of energy
c. Part of energy gets absorbed
d. Both a and c
ANSWER: All incident energy is reflected back without loss of energy
64) Brewster angle is the angle at which
a. No reflection occurs at the first medium
b. Reflection coefficient is zero
c. The wave gets refracted in the direction of source
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
65) Fading is caused due to
1. Multi path propagation
2. Obstacles
3. Frequency variations at the source
4. Variation in amplitude and phase at receiver
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d. All are correct
66) Coherence time refers to
a. Time required to attain a call with the busy base station
b. Time required for synchronization between the transmitter and the receiver
c. Minimum time for change in magnitude and phase of the channel
ANSWER: Minimum time for change in magnitude and phase of the channel
67) Fading due to shadowing is
a. Fading due to large obstructions
b. Large coherence time of the channel as compared to the delay constraints
c. Small coherence time of the channel as compared to the delay constraints
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
68) Deep fade is
1. Strong destructive interference
2. Drop in signal to noise ratio
3. Temporary failure of message transfer
d. All are correct
ANSWER: All are correct
69) Doppler spread refers to
a. Signal fading due to Doppler shift in the channel
b. Temporary failure of message transfer
c. Large coherence time of the channel as compared to the delay constraints
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Signal fading due to Doppler shift in the channel
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70) Friis free space equation
1. Is an expression for noise power
2. Is a function of transmitting and receiving antenna gain
3. Depends upon the distance between transmitting and receiving antenna
d. All are correct
71) The free space model of propagation refers to
1. Unobstructed line of sight between the transmitter and receiver
2. Satellite communication systems and Microwave line of sight radio links
3. Propagation along the ground surface
72) According to Friis free space equation
1. Received power falls with square of the distance between the transmitter and
receiver
2. Increases with square of the distance between the transmitter and receiver
3. Received power increases with gains of transmitting and receiving antennas
73) EIRP is
1. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power
2. Maximum radiated power available by the transmitter
3. A factor of power and gain of transmitter
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74) Spread spectrum modulation involves
1. PN sequence for modulation
2. Large bandwidth
3. Multiple users
75) PN sequence at the decoder acts as a locally generated carrier at the
receiver and decodes the signal using
a. Correlator
b. Adder
c. Frequency divider
d. PLL
ANSWER: Correlator
76) In spread spectrum technique, the multiple users are assigned with
a. Same spectrum and same PN code
b. Same spectrum and different PN code
c. Different spectrum and different PN code
d. Different spectrum and same PN code
ANSWER: Same spectrum and different PN code
77) Advantage of using Spread Spectrum modulation is/are
1. Interference rejection capability
2. Frequency planning is not required
3. Resistance to multipath fading
4. ISI is lesser
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78) Direct sequence spread spectrum demodulation uses
a. DPSK
b. FSK
c. ASK
d. QPSK
ANSWER: DPSK
79) Fast hopping is
a. More than one frequency hop during each symbol
b. Hopping rate greater than or equal to information symbol rate
c. One or more symbols transmitted between frequency hops
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
80) Slow frequency hopping refers to
a. One or more symbols transmitted in time interval between frequency hops
b. More than one frequency hop during each symbol
c. Hopping rate greater than or equal to information symbol rate
d. Both a and c are correct
ANSWER: One or more symbols transmitted in time interval between
frequency hops
81) Probability of outage refers to
a. Noise developed at the receiver
b. Number of bit errors during transmission
c. Signal to noise ratio
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Number of bit errors during transmission
82) The digital modulation technique used in frequency selective channels is
a. FSK
b. ASK
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c. BPSK
d. QPSK
ANSWER: BPSK
83) Working of Adaptive Equalizers include
a. Training
b. Tracking
c. Modulation
d. Both a and b
84) The time span for which the equalizer converges depends upon
1. Equalizer algorithm
2. Equalizer structure
3. Rate of change of multipath radio channel
4. Amplitude of signal
85) The Linear Equalizer may be implemented as
a. FIR filter
b. Lattice filter
c. Low pass filter
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
86) Linear equalizer is also known as
a. Transversal filter
b. Lattice filter
c. Low pass filter
ANSWER: Transversal filter
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87) The methods used for non linear equalization are
a. Decision Feedback Equalization
b. Maximum Likelihood Symbol Detection
c. Maximum Likelihood Sequence Estimation
88) The performance of algorithms for Adaptive Equalization are given by
1. Rate of convergence
2. Computational complexity
3. Numerical properties
4. Frequency change
d. All are correct
89) Computational complexity of an algorithm refers to the
a. Number of operations for one iteration of algorithm
b. Inaccuracies in the mathematical analysis
c. Noise produced during one complete iteration of algorithm
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Number of operations for one iteration of algorithm
90) The algorithms acquired for adaptive equalization are
1. Zero forcing algorithm
2. Least mean squares algorithm
3. Recursive least squares algorithm
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91) Fractionally spaced equalizer acts as
a. Matched filter
b. Equalizer
c. Demodulator
d. Both a and b
92) Diversity employs the decision making at
a. Transmitter
b. Receiver
c. Transmitter and receiver
d. Communication channel
ANSWER: Receiver
93) The diversity schemes are based on
1. Time diversity
2. Frequency diversity
3. Space diversity
4. Polarization diversity
94) In time diversity
a. Multiple versions of signals are transmitted at different time instants
b. The signal is transmitted using multiple channels
c. Signal is transmitted with different polarization
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Multiple versions of signals are transmitted at different time
instants
95) RAKE receiver is
1. Several sub receivers
2. Several correlators
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3. Fingers
4. Equalization based
96) The RAKE receiver involves the steps
a. Correlator, estimation of transmitted signal, demodulation, bit decision
b. Estimation of transmitted signal, correlator, demodulation, bit decision
c. Estimation of transmitted signal, demodulation, correlator, bit decision
d. Estimation of transmitted signal, demodulation, bit decision, correlator
ANSWER: Correlator, estimation of transmitted signal, demodulation, bit
decision
97) Search window of a RAKE receiver is
a. Frequency band of the channel
b. Range of the time delays
c. Range of noise
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Range of the time delays
98) Speech Coders are categorized on the basis of
a. Signal compression techniques
b. Frequency of signal
c. Bandwidth of the signal
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Signal compression techniques
99) Waveform coders and Vocoders are the types of
a. Speech coders
b. Modulation technique
c. Frequency translation methods
d. Channel allocation for transmission
ANSWER: Speech coders
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100) PCM, DPCM, DM, ADPCM are the types of
a. Vocoders
b. Waveform coders
c. Channel allocation for transmission
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Waveform coders
101) Speech coding technique that is independent of the source is
a. Vocoders
b. Waveform coders
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: Waveform coders
102) Advantage of using waveform coders is
1. Independent of the signal source
2. Less complexity
3. Suitable for noisy environments
103) The type of frequency domain coding that divides the speech signal into
sub bands is
a. Waveform coding
b. Vocoders
c. Block transform coding
d. Sub-band coding
ANSWER: Sub-band coding
104) The speech coding technique that is dependent on the prior knowledge
of the signal is
a. Waveform coders
b. Vocoders
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c. Sub band coding
d. Block transform coding
ANSWER: Vocoders
105) The steps involved in Channel vocoders for speech transmission are
a. Envelope detection, sampling, encoding, multiplexing
b. Sampling, Envelope detection, encoding, multiplexing
c. Envelope detection, encoding, sampling, multiplexing
d. Sampling, Envelope detection, multiplexing, encoding
ANSWER: Envelope detection, sampling, encoding, multiplexing
106) Vocal tract cepstral coefficients and excitation coefficients are separated
by
a. Samplers
b. Linear filters
c. Encoders
d. Multiplexers
ANSWER: Linear filters
107) In voice excited vocoders, PCM transmission helps in transmission of
a. High frequency bands of speech
b. Low frequency bands of speech
c. Multiplexed signals
d. Modulated signals
ANSWER: Low frequency bands of speech
108) Linear predictive coders are based on the principle that
1. Current signal sample is obtained from linear combination of past samples
2. Current signal sample is independent of past samples
3. These are time domain vocoders
4. They are among low bit rate vocoders
a. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
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109) Multi pulse excited LPC includes
1. Multiple pulses per period
2. Minimization of weighted mean square error
3. Better speech quality
4. Pitch detection is not required
d. All four are correct
ANSWER: All four are correct
110) In residual excited LPC,
a. The residue of subtraction of generated and original signal is quantized at the
transmitter
b. Pitch detection is not required
c. Multiple pulses per period
d. Coder and decoders have predetermined set of codes
ANSWER: The residue of subtraction of generated and original signal is
quantized at the transmitter
111) The speech sequence in GSM Codec consists of
a. Pre emphasis, segmentation, windowing, filtering
b. Windowing, Pre emphasis, segmentation, filtering
c. Pre emphasis, windowing, segmentation, filtering
d. Pre emphasis, segmentation, filtering, windowing
ANSWER: Pre emphasis, segmentation, windowing, filtering
112) The windowing technique used for speech coding in GSM Codec is
a. Blackman window
b. Welch window
c. Cosine window
d. Hamming window
ANSWER: Hamming window
113) The received signal at the GSM speech decoder is passed through
a. STP filter
b. LTP filter
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c. Quantizer
d. PLL
ANSWER: LTP filter
114) In GSM Codec, the bits encoded for forward error correction are
a. Ia bits
b. Ib bits
c. II bits
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
115) The speech coders are selected on the basis of
1. Robustness to transmission errors
2. Cell size
3. Type of modulation technique used
4. Distance between the transmitter and receiver
116) FDMA is the division of
a. Time
b. Phase
c. Spectrum
d. Amplitude
ANSWER: Spectrum
117) Guard band is
a. The small unused bandwidth between the frequency channels to avoid
interference
b. The bandwidth allotted to the signal
c. The channel spectrum
d. The spectrum acquired by the noise between the signal
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ANSWER: The small unused bandwidth between the frequency channels to
avoid interference
118) Cable television is an example of
a. TDMA
b. FDMA
c. CDMA
d. SDMA
ANSWER: FDMA
119) In FDMA,
1. Each user is assigned unique frequency slots
2. Demand assignment is possible
3. Fixed assignment is possible
4. It is vulnerable to timing problems
c. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
120) FDMA demand assignment uses
1. Single channel per carrier
2. Multi channel per carrier
3. Single transmission in one time slot
4. Multi transmission in one time slot
121) The advantages of FDMA over TDMA includes
1. Division is simpler
2. Propagation delays are eliminated
3. Cheaper filters with less complicated logic functions
4. Linearity
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122) TDMA is a multiple access technique that has
a. Different users in different time slots
b. Each user is assigned unique frequency slots
c. Each user is assigned a unique code sequence
d. Each signal is modulated with frequency modulation technique
ANSWER: Different users in different time slots
123) In TDMA, the user occupies the whole bandwidth during transmission
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
124) TDMA allows the user to have
a. Use of same frequency channel for same time slot
b. Use of same frequency channel for different time slot
c. Use of same time slot for different frequency channel
d. Use of different time slot for different frequency channels
ANSWER: Use of same frequency channel for different time slot
125) GSM is an example of
a. TDMA cellular systems
b. FDMA cellular systems
c. CDMA cellular systems
d. SDMA cellular systems
ANSWER: TDMA cellular systems
126) TDMA is employed with a TDMA frame that has preamble. The preamble
contains Address of base station and subscribers
1. Synchronization information
2. Frequency allotted
3. Coded sequence
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127) CDMA is
1. Spread spectrum technology
2. Using same communication medium
3. Every user stays at a certain narrowband channel at a specific time period
4. Each user has unique PN code
128) Global Positioning System uses
a. CDMA
b. TDMA
c. SDMA
d. FDMA
ANSWER: CDMA
129) CDMA is advantageous over other Spread Spectrum techniques for
1. The privacy due to unique codes
2. It rejects narrow band interference
3. Resistance to multi path fading
4. Its ability to frequency reuse
130) The wide band usage in CDMA helps in
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1. Increased immunity to interference
2. Increased immunity to jamming
3. Multiple user access
4. Different spectrum allocation in different time slots
131) The advantages of using a CDMA technique over other spread spectrum
techniques are
1. Increased capacity
2. Easier handoff
3. Better measure of security
4. Multiple users occupy different spectrum at a time
132) FHMA is
1. Spread spectrum technology
2. Using same communication medium
3. Every user has assigned unique frequency slot
4. Each user has unique PN code
133) OFDM is a technique of
1. Encoding digital data
2. Multiple carrier frequencies
3. Wide band digital communication
4. 4G mobile communication
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134) Advantages of using OFDM include
1. Avoids complex equalizers
2. Low symbol rate and guard interval
3. Avoids ISI
4. Multiple users at same frequency
135) The troubles that OFDM faces over other spread spectrum techniques
are
1. Sensitivity to Doppler shift
2. Frequency synchronization problems
3. Time synchronization problems
4. Low efficiency due to guard intervals
136) The guard interval is provided in OFDM
a. To eliminate the need of pulse shaping filter
b. To eliminate ISI
c. High symbol rate
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
137) Packet radio refers to
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a. Multiple users on single channel
b. Single user on multiple channels as per demand
c. Multiple users on multiple channels at different time slots
d. Multiple users with coding techniques
ANSWER: Multiple users on single channel
138) Disadvantages of packet radio are
a. Induced delays
b. Low spectral efficiency
c. Large spectrum required
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
139) Pure ALOHA is a
a. Random access protocol
b. Scheduled access protocol
c. Hybrid access protocol
d. Demand access protocol
ANSWER: Random access protocol
140) The increase in number of users in PURE ALOHA causes
a. Increase in delay
b. Increase in probability of collision
c. Increase in spectrum
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
141) SDMA technique employs
a. Smart antenna technology
b. Use of spatial locations of mobile units within the cell
c. More battery consumption
d. Both a and b are correct
e. Both b and c are correct
ANSWER: Both a and b are correct
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142) The advantage of using SDMA over other spread spectrum technique is
a. Mobile station battery consumption is low
b. Reduced spectral efficiency
c. Increased spectral efficiency
e. Both a and c are correct
ANSWER: Both a and c are correct
143) The increased capacity of SDMA is due to
a. Focused signal transmitted into narrow transmission beams
b. Smart antennas pointing towards mobile stations
c. Use of different frequencies at same time slot
e. Both a and c are correct
ANSWER: Both a and b are correct
144) Coherence time is
a. Directly proportional to Doppler spread
b. Indirectly proportional to Doppler spread
c. Directly proportional to square of Doppler spread
d. Directly proportional to twice of Doppler spread
ANSWER: Directly proportional to Doppler spread
145) Types of small scale fading, based on Doppler spread are
a. Fast fading
b. Frequency non selective fading
c. Flat fading
d. Frequency selective fading
ANSWER: Fast fading
146) Flat fading or frequency nonselective fading is a type of
a. Multipath delay spread small scale fading
b. Doppler spread small scale fading
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: Multipath delay spread small scale fading
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147) In Frequency Selective Fading, the
a. Coherence Bandwidth of the channel is less than bandwidth of transmitted
channel
b. Coherence Bandwidth of the channel is more than bandwidth of transmitted
channel
c. Coherence Bandwidth of the channel is equal to bandwidth of transmitted channel
ANSWER: Coherence Bandwidth of the channel is less than bandwidth of
transmitted channel
148) If coherence time of the channel is smaller than the symbol period of the
transmitted signal, it is
a. Fast fading
b. Slow fading
c. Frequency selective fading
d. Frequency non selective fading
ANSWER: Fast fading
149) The power delay profile helps in determining
a. Excess delay
b. rms delay spread
c. Excess delay spread
d. All of the above
150) Coherence bandwidth is
a. Channel that passes all spectral components with equal gain
b. The bandwidth of modulated signal
c. Channel that passes all spectral components with linear phase
d. Both a and c
e. Both a and b
1. Bit error rate provides the information about the type of error.
a) True
b) False
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Answer: b
2. Which of the following is specified by a specific number of bit errors occurring in a
given transmission?
a) Bit error rate
b) Equally likely event
c) Outage event
d) Exhaustive events
Answer: c
3. Irreducible BER floor is created in frequency selective channels due to ____________
a) Inter symbol interference
b) Random spectral spreading
c) Time varying Doppler spread
d) Blind speed
Answer: a
4. Irreducible BER floor is created in non-frequency selective channels due to
____________
a) Inter symbol interference
b) Multipath time delay
c) Time varying Doppler spread
d) Blind speed
Answer: c
5. The performance of BPSK is best is term of BER because _______
a) Symbol offset interference does not exist
b) Existence of cross rail interference
c) No multipath delay
d) Doppler spread
Answer: a
6. High capacity mobile systems are interference limited.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
7. Which of the following do not impact bit error rate in mobile communication
systems?
a) Mobile velocity
59
MOHD ZEESHAN
b) Channel delay spread
c) Modulation format
d) Base station
Answer: d
8. Coherence time refers to ____________
a) Time required attaining a call with the busy base station
b) Time required for synchronization between the transmitter and the receiver
c) Minimum time for change in magnitude and phase of the channel
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
9. Doppler spread refers to _________
a) Signal fading due to Doppler shift in the channel
b) Temporary failure of message transfer
c) Large coherence time of the channel as compared to the delay constraints
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
10. A rake receiver uses multiple ______
a) Delay circuits
b) Correlators
c) Detectors
d) Flip flops
Answer: b
1. Which of the following is not used to improve received signal quality over small
scale times and distance?
a) Modulation
b) Equalization
c) Diversity
d) Channel coding
Answer: a
2. Equalization is used to compensate __________
a) Peak signal to noise ratio
b) Inter symbol interference
c) Channel fading
d) Noises present in the signal
60
MOHD ZEESHAN
Answer: b
3. Training and tracking are the operating modes of _________
a) Diversity techniques
b) Channel coding techniques
c) Equalization techniques
d) Demodulation techniques
Answer:
4. An equalizer is said to be converged when it is properly _______
a) Trained
b) Tracked
c) Installed
d) Used
Answer: a
5. Time for convergence of an equalizer is not a function of _______
a) Equalizer algorithm
b) Equalizer structure
c) Time rate of change of multipath radio channel
d) Transmitter characteristics
Answer: d
6. Equalizer is usually implemented in __________
a) Transmitter
b) Baseband or at IF in a receiver
c) Radio channel
d) Modulator stage
Answer: b
7. Equalizer is ________ of the channel.
a) Opposite
b) Same characteristics
c) Inverse filter
d) Add on
Answer: c
8. ______ controls the adaptive algorithm in an equalizer.
a) Error signal
b) Transmitted signal
61
MOHD ZEESHAN
c) Received signal
d) Channel impulse response
Answer: a
9. The adaptive algorithms in equalizer that do not require training sequence are
called ________
a) Linear adaptive algorithms
b) Blind algorithms
c) Non-linear adaptive algorithms
d) Spatially adaptive algorithms
Answer: b
10. Which of the following is a blind algorithm?
a) Linear adaptive algorithms
b) Constant modulus algorithm
c) Non-linear adaptive algorithms
d) Spatially adaptive algorithms
Answer: b
1. Equalization techniques can be categorised into _______ and ______ techniques.
a) Linear, non linear
b) Active, passive
c) Direct, indirect
d) Slow, fast
Answer: a
2. Equalization is linear if an analog signal is fed back to change the subsequent
outputs of the equalizer.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
3. In the context of equalizers, LTE stands for ________
a) Long transversal equalizer
b) Least time-varying equalizer
c) Linear transversal equalizer
d) Linear time-varying equalizer
Answer: c
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MOHD ZEESHAN
4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of FIR filter?
a) Many zeroes
b) Poles only at z=0
c) Transfer function is a polynomial of z-1
d) Many poles
Answer: d
5. Which of the following is not an advantage of lattice equalizer?
a) Simple structure
b) Numerical stability
c) Faster convergence
d) Dynamic assignment
Answer: a
6. Non-linear equalizers are used in applications where channel distortion is not
severe.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
7. Which of the following is not a non-linear equalization technique?
a) Decision feedback equalization
b) Maximum likelihood symbol detection
c) Minimum square error detection
d) Maximum likelihood sequence detection
Answer: c
8. For a distorted channel, LTE performance is superior to DFE.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
9. Which of the following does not hold true for MLSE?
a) Minimizes probability of sequence error
b) Require knowledge of channel characteristics
c) Requires the statistical distribution of noise
d) Operates on continuous time signal
Answer: d
63
MOHD ZEESHAN
10. MLSE decodes each received signal by itself.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
64
MOHD ZEESHAN

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Wireless and mobile communication MCQ –

Wireless communication MCQ

2. The full form of ARFCN is ___.

3. ARFCN is used to uniquely identify a radio channel. (True/False)

5. One TDMA time slot of ___.

6. One TDMA Frame is 4.615ms. (True/False)

7. One ___ TDMA multi-frame is 120 ms.

8. One 51 TDMA multi-frame is 235 ms. (True/False)

9. One super frame is of ___.

11. One-bit period is equal to 3.69 μs approximately. (True/False)

12. The synchronization burst is used to synchronize a mobile station’s

14. Name the types of logical channels to exist in GSM.

17. Frequency Correction Channel (FCCH) is a BCH. (True/False)

18. Synchronization Channel (SCH) is a BCH. (True/False)

20. The term SDCCH stands for ___.

22. International Mobile Station Equipment Identity (IMEI) uniquely

23. The IMSI comprises ___ ___ and ___.

26. The MSISDN stands for ___.

28. The TMSI is allocated by ___.

29. The Cell Identifier can have a maximum of ___ digits.

30. Cellular radio was developed by ___ at Bell Laboratories.

31. A network is a collection of computers and communication devices to

32. Two computers can be connected without a physical cable. (True/False)

33. DSL stands for ___.

34. The term “wireless” refers to a method of communication using ___.

35. It is believed that the world’s first, wireless telephone conversation

37. Advanced Mobile Phone System (AMPS) is an example of ___ in ___.

39. The 3G network supports the facilitates of global roaming. (True/False)

41. GSM stands for ___.

43. Frequency reuse is maximized by increasing the cell size? (True/False)

45. Two adjacent cells use the ___ frequencies.

47. BSC interface between ___ and ___.

49. Inn low-power systems the signal strength is usually expressed in

51. List 2.5G technologies.

52. What is the data speed of indoor 3G networks?

53. WCDMA ___ MHz spectrum.

54. Multimedia service is provided by ___ G cellular networks.

56. LPC encodes speech at rate ___.

57. GSM uses frequency division multiple access mechanisms. (True/False)

58. GSM allows ___ mobile stations simultaneously.

59. The frequency band assigned to a single mobile station is ___.

60. PSTN stands for ___.

62. GSM SMS is a bearer service. (True/False)

65. Operation and Support System is part of ___.

66. Each time slot can carry 156.25 bits. (True/False)

67. LAPD stands for Link ___.

70. ANSI T1 carrier in GSM provides a data rate of 1.544. (True/False)

71. Each Abis Interface is shared by 31 timeslots for the E1 carrier.

72. Each Abis interface is shared by 24 timeslots for the T1 carrier.

74. A, B, C, D, F, and G interfaces are called ___ interfaces.

75. Two VLRs are connected through the ___ interface.

1) The modulation technique used for mobile communication systems during

2) ———– introduced Frequency Modulation for mobile communication

3) The early FM push-to-talk telephone systems were used in

4) DECT stands for

6) Paging systems were based on

7) Paging systems could be used to

8) Garage door opener is a

9) Carrier frequency of a TV remote control is in the range

23. The IMSI comprises _ _ and ___.

37. Advanced Mobile Phone System (AMPS) is an example of _ in _.

47. BSC interface between _ and _.