Mock Test
Mock Test
Mock Test
8 )The latest version of ‘Consumer Protection Act’ was passed in which year?
[A] 2010
[B] 2015
[C] 2019
[D] 2021
9) Which South-American country is drafting a new Constitution?
[A] Chile
[B] Brazil
[C] Argentina
[D] Bolivia
10) The Special Protection Group Act, 1988 was passed to provide security to……….
[A] Nuclear Power Plants
[B] Prime Minister and former Prime Ministers
[C] India’s land borders
[D] India’s water borders
11) Which institution launches the ‘World Employment and Social Outlook’?
[A] World Bank
[B] IMF
[C] ILO
[D] UNICEF
13) India along with which country signed the ‘Green Strategic Partnership – Action
Plan 2020-2025’?
[A] France
[B] Denmark
[C] Australia
[D] United Kingdom
[A] Satara
[B] Punjab
[C] Jhansi
[D] Karauli
22) .Which among the following was the first Presidency of British East India Company
in India ?
[A] Madras
[B] Masulipattam
[C] Surat
[D] Hungli
23) .The founder of Satya Shodhak Samaj was ___?
[A] Atmaram Pandurang
[B] Gopal Hari Deshmukh
[C] M. G. Ranade
[D] Jyotiba Phule
24) .The revolt of 1857 was described as a ‘National Rising’ by which of the following
political leaders of Britain?
[A] Canning
[B] Gladstone
[C] Palmerstone
[D] Disraeli
25) .Lord William Bentinck is credited for which of the following in the Indian History ?
[A] Education reforms
[B] Laws
[C] Abolition of sati
[D] Local government
26) Which Union Ministry implements the ‘PM MITRA’ Scheme?
[A] Ministry of Textiles
[B] Ministry of Home Affairs
[C] Ministry of Defence
[D] Ministry of External Affairs
27).When was the first ‘World Athletics Day’ celebrated?
[A] 2022
[B] 2020
[C] 2010
[D] 1996
28)‘PM-WANI’ scheme, which was seen in the news, is associated with which service?
DU LLB MOCK TEST
[A] Water
[B] Electricity
[C] Wi-fi Access
[D] Digital Paymen
29)Which country is the host of the ‘Second global pandemic summit’ held in May 2022?
[A] Indonesia
[B] USA
[C] India
[D] Australia
30)The first case of monkeypox in humans was recorded in which country?
[A] Kenya
[B] Nigeria
[C] DRC
[D] India
31).What was the theme for International Day of Yoga 2022?
[A] Yoga for Well-being
[B] Yoga for Harmony And Peace
[C] Yoga for Health
[D] Yoga for Humanity
32)A problem is given to three students whose chances of solving it are 1/2, 1/3 and
1/4 respectively. What is the probability that the problem will be solved?
A) 1/4 B) 1/2
C) 3/4 D) 7/12
A) 48 B) 50
C) 58 D) 60
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34) A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter
and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet?
A) X B) W
C) I D) H
A) 671 B) 462
C) 427 D) 264
36) A bag contains 50 P, 25 P and 10 P coins in the ratio 5: 9: 4, amounting to Rs. 206.
Find the number of coins of each type respectively.
37) A grocer has a sale of Rs 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5
consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an
average sale of Rs, 6500 ?
A) 4991 B) 5467
C) 5987 D) 6453
A) MFEDJJOE B) EOJDEJFM
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C) MFEJDJOE D) EOJDJEFM
39) Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What
is the probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5?
A) 1/2 B) 3/5
C) 9/20 D) 8/15
40) . The President may for violation of the Constitution be removed from the office by
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Electoral College consisting of members of Parliament and the State
Legislatures.
(c) Impeachment
(d) A no- confidence vote
41. In which of the following situations does the President act in his own
discretion ?
(a) In returning a proposal to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration
(b) None of the Above
(c) In appointing the Prime Minister
(d) Both of these
42. The Prime Minister, Union Cabinet Minister, Chief Minister and Council of
Ministers are all
members of
(a) National Development Council
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43. The President's Rule in a state means that the state is ruled by
(a) A caretaker government
(b) The Chief Minister nominated by the President
(c) The Governor of the State
(d) The President directly
44. The Chief - Minister of a Union Territory whenever such a set up exists, is
appointed by
(a) The Lt. Governor
(b) The majority party in the legislature
(c) The President
(d) The Prime Minister
45. Under what article of the Constitution of India can the President take over the
administration
of a state in case its constitutional machinery breaks down ?
(a) Art 352
(b) Art 343
(c) Art 356
(d) Art 83
47. Which of the following qualification is not essential for a person to become
the VicePresident ?
(a) He must be an Indian.
(b) He must be qualified to be a member of the Rajya Sabha.
(c) He must not be less than 35 years.
(d) He must be a graduate.
48. How many types of Emergency have been visualised in the Constitution of
India ?
(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) One
(d) Two
49. The impeachment proceedings against the Vice- President can be initiated
(a) Only in Lok Sabha
(b) In neither Hosue of Parliament
(c) In either House of Parliament
(d) Only in Rajya Sabha
51. The President of India can be removed from his office by the
(a) Parliament
(b) Chief Justice of India
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52. If the President returns a Bill sent to him for his assent and the Parliament
once again passes
the Bill in its original form, then the President
(a) Can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on the bill
(b) Gives assent to the bill
(c) Can once again return the bill for further reconsideration
(d) Can ask for a referendum on the bill
54. The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto
related to the
(a) Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill)
(b) Dowry Prohibition Bill
(c) Hindu Code Bill
(d) PEPSU Appropriation Bill
55. The control of the preparation of electoral rolls for parliament and legislature
vests with the
(a) President
(b) Election Commission
(c) Cabinet
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58. For Election to the lok sabha, a nomination paper can be field by
(a) Any citizen of India
(b) Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a
Constituency
(c) Anyone residing in India
(d) A resident of the Constituency from which the election to be contested
61. The election Commision dose not conduct the elections to the
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) President's election
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Local Bodies
64. To elect the President of India, which one of the following election
procedures is used ?
(a) System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable
vote
(b) Secondary voting system
(c) Proportional representation through list system
(d) Collective Voting system
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65. In which year were the first general election held in India ?
(a) 1950-51
(b) 1948-49
(c) 1951-52
(d) 1947-48
66. Election to the house of the people and the Legislative Assemblies of States in
India are
conducted on the basis of
(a) Single Transferable vote
(b) Propotional Representation
(c) Limited sufferage
(d) Adult Franchise
68. Which among the following is not a part of the electoral reforms ?
(a) Installation of electronic voting machines
(b) Appoinment of election Commissioner
(c) Registration of Political parties
(d) Disquallifying the offenders
70. The Chief Minister of a state in India is not eligible to vote in the Presidential
election if
(a) He is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(b) He is a caretaker Chief Minister
(c) He himself is a candidate
(d) He is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the state
Legislature
(b) Irrelevant
(c) Cannot be given as evidence
(d) Relevant in tort cases only
75. What is the meaning of the maxim “incumbit probation qui dicit, non qui
negat”
(a) Guilt must be proved beyond reasonable doubt
(b) The burden of proof is on him who denies a fact.
(c) No man is guilty without proof
(d) No one should be punished for the same offence more than once
76. 'Quid Probandium' means
(a) Things need not be proved
(b) Things already proved
(c) Things to be proved
(d) None of the above
77. Which among the following is relevant under Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(a) Confession to a Police Officer
(b) Judicial Confession
(c) Involuntary Confession
(d) Retracted Confession
78. Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or
expects to receive is called.
(a) Direct question
(b) Leading question
(c) Irrelevant question
(d) Oral question
79) LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is
justified by law or
who by reason or by mistake of fact and not by mistake of law, in good faith,
believes himself to
be justified by law in doing it.
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FACTS: A constable sees Julie carrying some goods. Seeing Julie behave in a
peculiar manner,
the constable becomes suspicious, approaches her and asks to inspect the goods.
Julie refuses
and tries to leave the scene but the constable persists and there is a scuffle. Julie
is arrested and
later released since the goods were found to be innocent. She sues the constable.
(a) The constable is liable since he should have obtained a search warrant before
searching Julie.
(b) The constable is liable since he should not have arrested Julie unless he had some
reasonable basis
to suspect that she was doing something wrong.
(c) The constable is not liable since he would have immunity as a policeman.
(d) The constable is not liable since he believed that he was legally justified in arresting
Julie.
80) . The Law Commission in which of its Report had recommended the retention
of death penalty in
India?
(a) 35th Report (b) 142nd Report
(c) 262nd Report (d) 142nd] Report
81). In which landmark judgment did the Supreme Court of India lay down
guidelines relating to
sexual harassment of women at workplace?
(a) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa
(b) Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan
(c) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(d) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar
82. What is an extradition treaty?
(a) A treaty for surrender of an alleged or convicted criminal by one nation to another.
(b) A treaty for ensuring fair trial of an alleged or convicted criminal transferred by one
nation to
another.
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85. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Cheating is defined as deceiving any person to deliver any
property and it
includes the dishonest concealment of facts. Cheating by personation means one
person cheating
another by pretending to be some other person or by knowingly substituting one
person for
another or representing that he or any other person is a person other than he or
such other
person really is.
FACTS: A while leaving a restaurant, by mistake picked up the umbrella of B
instead of his
own. The next day, he decided to return to the restaurant with the umbrella
hoping to find the
real owner. C, who had never seen B in person and had only communicated with B
through
letters was on his way to the restaurant to meet B. Since B and C had never met, it
was agreed
between them to identify each other at the pre-appointed spot, the restaurant
door, by the
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clothing of C and umbrella of B which they had described to each other in detail. C
saw A at the
door of the restaurant and identified the umbrella. Thinking A to be B, C delivered
a parcel
labelled Mr. B to A. A received the same without protest and promptly returned
home without
looking for B. Is A guilty of cheating by personation?
(a) A is not guilty because he was going to return the umbrella to the real owner and
handing over B’s
packet to A was C’s mistake.
(b) A is not guilty because he was overcome by the sudden temptation.
(c) A is guilty because he was aware of the mistaken identity and he knew that the
parcel was not
meant for him but for B.
(d) A is guilty because the parcel might have been valuable to B
86. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: When and act which would otherwise be a certain offence
is not that
offence by reason of the unsoundness of mind of the person doing that act, every
person has the
same right of private defence against that act which he would have if the act were
that offence.
FACTS: Z, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill A.
(a) Z is guilty of an offence
(b) A has the same right of private defence which he would have if Z were sane.
(c) A does not have the same right of private defence which he would have if Z were
sane
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct
87. Homicide means
(a) Causing death
(b) Intentionally causing death
(c) Causing death of anyone
(d) Causing death of a human being
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91. Which of the following reduces the offence of murder to culpable homicide?
(a) Unsoundness of mind
(b) Intoxication
(c) Provocation
(d) Accident
92. M was driving his fancy sports car at the speed of 120 km/h after consuming
alcohol. He lost
control of the car and ran over 3 persons leading to their death. M escaped the
accident with
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injuries. What offence, if any, has M committed under the Indian Penal Code?
(a) M is not guilty of any offence since he was incapable of judgment by reason of
intoxication caused
against his will.
(b) M is guilty of causing death by doing a rash or negligent act.
(c) M has committed the offence of culpable homicide since he caused death by doing an
act with the
intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death.
(d) M is guilty of committing murder since he did an act by which the death was caused
and which
was done with the intention of causing death.
93. On 1st April, P and Q, friends of X, decided to pull a prank on her. They wore
black masks to
cover their faces and proceeded in an unnumbered car towards the road that X
took her regular
morning walk. As X was taking her morning walk, they brought the car to a halt
next to her and
proceeded to forcefully get her in it. A bystander, Y, watching this, opened fire on
P and Q with
his licensed gun and caused grievous injuries to them.
(a) Y is guilty of causing grievous hurt as he had no right to intermeddle in the private
affairs of the
friends and he was neither a public authority nor a police official.
(b) Y is not guilty of any offence because he had a right to protect the body of any other
person besides
his own.
(c) Y is not guilty of any offence because he had a reasonable apprehension that X was
being assaulted
with an intention of abduction
(d) Both (b) and (c) are correct
94. The term doli incapax is meant for
(a) Child below 7 years
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