� The duration of the exam is 2 Hours.

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� The Question Booklet consists of 100 Questions, each of them is of 4 Marks. The maximum Marks are 400.

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� Subject wise division of 100 Questions are as follows : Science-40, Maths-40 & Mat-20.

� Candidates will be awarded 4 Marks for indicated correct response of each question.
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� One mark will be deducted for incorrect response of each question.
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01. If a ray of light incident on a plane mirror is such that it 01.

makes an angle of 30° with the mirror, then the angle of 30°
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reflection will be–

(1) 30 (2) 45 (1) 30 (2) 45
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(3) 55 (4) 60 (3) 55 (4) 60

02. A mirror forms a virtual, erect and small image that kind 02.
of mirror is
(1) plane (2) concave (1) (2)
(3) convex (4) (1) and (2) both (3) (4) (1) (2)
03. A mirror which can produce a magnification of +1 is 03. +1
(1) convex mirror (1)
(2) concave mirro (2)
(3) plane mirror (3)
(4) both concave mirror and plane mirror (4)
04. Focal length of a convex lens is +40 cm. The power of 04. +40 cm
this lens will be:
(1) +4 dioptre (2) +2.5 dioptre (1) +4 (2) +2.5
(3) +40 dioptre (4) +25 dioptre (3) +40 (4) +25

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05. The net power (P) of three lenses having powers P1, P2, 05. P1, P2, P3
P3 placed in contact is given by (P)
(1) P = P1 × P2 × P3 (1) P = P1 × P2 × P3
(2) P = P1 + P2 + P3 (2) P = P1 + P2 + P3
(3) 1/P = 1/P1 + 1/P2 + 1/P3 (3) 1/P = 1/P1 + 1/P2 + 1/P3
(4) P = (P1 + P2 + P3)/3 (4) P = (P1 + P2 + P3)/3
06. In figure, a ray of light undergoes refraction from me- 06. A B
dium A to medium B. If the speed of light in medium A is A v
v, then the speed of light in medium B will be B

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(1) 3 (2) (1) 3 (2)

3 3
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(3) 2 (4) (3) 2 (4)

2 2
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07. A needle placed 45 cm from a lens from an image on a 07. 90 cm

secreen placed 90 cm on the other side of lens, focal 45 cm
length and type of lens is
(1) 10 cm convex lens (2) 30 cm, convex lens (1) 10 cm, (2) 30 cm,
(3) 30 cm, concave lens (4) 10 cm, concave lens (3) 30 cm, (4) 10 cm,
08. The path along which light travels in a homogenous me- 08.
dium is called the :
(1) beam of light (2) ray of light (1) (2)
(3) pencil of light (4) none of these (3) (4)
09. Choose the correct relation between u, v and R- 09. u, v R

2uv 2 2uv 2
(1) R (2) R (1) R (2) R
u v u v u v u v

2(u v ) 2(u v )
(3) R (4) None of these (3) R (4) None of these
( uv ) ( uv )

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10. Which of the following group of the ray diagram is cor- 10.
rect?

1. 1.

2. 2.

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3. 3.

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PA
4. 4.
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5. 5.
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6. 6.
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(1) 1, 2 and 5 (2) 4, 3 and 6 (1) 1, 2 5 (2) 4, 3 6

(3) 2, 3 and 5 (4) 1, 5 and 6 (3) 2, 3 5 (4) 1, 5 6
11. The image formed by a concave mirror is real, inverted 11.
and of the same size as that of the object. The position
of the object should be:
(1) Beyond C (2) Between C and F (1) C (2) C F
(3) At C (4) At F (3) C (4) F
12. At the traffic signals, red light is used for stop due to the 12.
reason that it can be seen from a distance. The phenom-
enon involved is known as :
(1) Reflection (2) Refraction (1) (2)
(3) Scattering (4) None of these (3) (4)

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13. Which one of the following phenomena is an example 13.
of scattering of light?
(1) Bending of ray of light at interface of air and water (1)
(2) Twinkling of star (2)
(3) Tyndall effect (3)
(4) Mirage in desert during summer Chemistry (4)
14. Which of the following are exothermic processes? 14.
(i) Reaction of water with quick lime (i)
(ii) Dilution of an acid (ii)
(iii) Evaporation of water (iii)
(iv) Sublimation of camphor (crystals) (iv)

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(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (1) (i) (ii) (2) (ii) (iii)

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(3) (i) and (iv) (4) (iii) and (iv) (3) (i) (iv) (4) (iii) (iv)
15. A teacher gave two test tubes to the students, one 15.
containing water and the other containing sodium
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hydroxide. She asked them to identify the test tube
containing sodium hydroxide solution. Which one of
the following can be used for the identification?
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(1) Blue litmus (1)

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(2) Red litmus (2)

(3) Sodium carbonate solution (3)
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(4) Dilute hydrochloric acid (4)

16. One of the following processes does not involve a 16.
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chemical reaction. That is:

(1) Melting of candle wax when heated (1)
(2) Burning of candle wax when heated (2)
(3) Digestion of food in our stomach (3)
(4) Ripening of banana (4)
17. All the methods mentioned below can be used to prevent 17.
the food from getting rancid except:
i. Storing the food in the air-tight containers i.
ii. Storing the food in refrigerator ii.
iii. Keeping the food in clean and covered containers iii.
iv. Always touching the food with clean hands iv.
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iii) (1) (i) (ii) (2) (i) (iii)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4) (iii) and (iv) (3) (i), (iii) (iv) (4) (iii) (iv)

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18. The displacement reaction between iron (III) oxide and 18. (III) X
a metal X is used for welding the rail tracks. Here X is:

(1) Copper granules (2) Magnesium ribbon (1) (2)

(3) Sodium pellets (4) Aluminium dust (3) (4)
19. Which one of the given is hydracid? 19.
(1) H3PO4 (2) H2SO4 (1) H3PO4 (2) H2SO4
(3) HCN (4) HNO3 (3) HCN (4) HNO3
20. Which one of the given is formed when sodium 20.
hydrogen carbonate reacts with hydrochloric acid?
(1) Sodium chloride (2) Carbon dioxide (1) (2)

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(3) Water (4) All the these (3) (4)

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21. In which one of the given reactions a salt is reacting 21.
with a base?
(1) NaOH + HCl NaCl + H2O (1) NaOH + HCl NaCl + H2O
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(2) Cu(OH)2 + H2SO4 CuSO4 + 2H2O (2) Cu(OH)2 + H2SO4 CuSO4 + 2H2O
(3) KOH + HCl KCl + H2O (3) KOH + HCl KCl + H2O
(4) 6NH4OH + Al(SO4)3 2Al(OH)3 +3(NH4)2 SO4 (4) 6NH4OH + Al(SO4)3 2Al(OH)3 +3(NH4)2 SO4
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22. Which element is always present in Arrhenius acid? 22.

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(1) Oxygen (2) Nitrogen (1) (2)

(3) Hydrogen (4) None of these (3) (4)
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23. During the preparation of HCl gas on a humid day, the 23.
gas is usually passed through the guard tube containing CaCl2 CaCl2
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CaCl2. The purpose of using CaCl2 is

(1) To add moisture to the gas (HCl) (1) (HCl)
(2) To absorb HCl gas (2) HCl
(3) To absorb moisture from HCl gas (3) HCl
(4) To Use it as a catalyst (4)
24. Aluminium is used for making cooking utensils. Which 24.
of the following properties of aluminium are responsible
for the same?
(1) Good thermal conductivity (1)
(2) Good electrical conductivity (2)
(3) Ductility (3)
(4) High melting point (4)
(1) (1) & (2) (2) (1) & (3) (1) (1) & (2) (2) (1) & (3)
(3) (2) & (3) (4) (1) & (4) (3) (2) & (3) (4) (1) & (4)

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25. Generally, non-metals are not lustrous. Which of the 25.
given nonmetals is lustrous?
(1) Sulphur (2) Oxygen (1) (2)
(3) Nitrogen (4) Iodine (3) (4)
26. Silver articles become black on prolonged exposure to 26.
air. This is due to the formation of
(1) Ag2O (1) Ag2O
(2) Ag2S (2) Ag2S
(3) AgCN (3) AgCN
(4) Ag2O and Ag2S (4) Ag2O and Ag2S
27. Which is the correct sequence - 27.

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(1) mouth - stomach - small intestine -oesophagus - (1) - - - -

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large intestine
(2) mouth -. oesophagus - stomach -large intestine - (2) - - -
small intestine
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(3) mouth - stomach - oesophagus - small intestine - (3) - -
large intestine
(4) mouth - oesophagus -. stomach - small intestine - (4) - - -
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large intestine
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28. If salivary amylase is lacking in saliva, which of the 28.

event in mouth will be affected-
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(1) Proteins breaking down into amino acids (1)

(2) starch breaking down into sugars (2)
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(3) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol (3)
(4) Absorption of vitamins (4)
29. The kidneys in human beings are part of . 29. .
(1) Nutrition (2) Respiration (1) (2)
(3) Excretion (4) Circulation (3) (4)
30. The opening and closing of stomatal pore depends upon. 30.
(1) Oxygen (1)
(2) Guard Cells (2)
(3) concentration of carbon dioxide in stomata (3)
(4) temperature (4)
31. Which part of the alimentary canal receives bile from 31.
the liver -
(1) stomach (2) small intestine (1) (2)
(3) large intestine (4) oesophagus (3) (4)

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32. In which part of alimentary canal food is finally 32.
digested?
(1) large intestine (2) Stomach (1) (2)
(3) Mouth cavity (4) small intestine (3) (4)
33. Xylem helps In ............. . 33. .............
(1) transportation of water (1)
(2) translocation of food (2)
(3) both a and b (3)
(4) transportation of water and minerals (4)
34. What is the approximate length of an alimentary canal? 34.
(1) 3m (2) 4m (1) 3m (2) 4m

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(3) 5m (4) 9m (3) 5m (4) 9m

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35. Which organelle is called powerhouse of the cell? 35.
(1) Mitochondria (2) golgi body (1) (2)
(3) ribosomes (4) none (3) (4)
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36. During respiration exchange of gases takes place In 36. ..........
.......... .
(1) Trachea and larynx (2) alveoli of lungs (1) (2)
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(3) Alveoli and throat (4) Throat and larynx (3) (4)
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37. What prevents back flow of blood during contraction? 37.

(1) Valves in heart (1)
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(2) Thick muscular walls of ventricles (2)

(3) Thin walls of atria (3)
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(4) All (4)

38. The cellular energy reserves in autotrophs are ...... . 38.
(1) glycogen (2) starch (1) (2)
(3) protein (4) fatty acids (3) (4)
39. The autotrophs require 39.
(1) CO2 and water (2) chlorophyll (1) CO2 and (2)
(3) sunlight (4) All (3) (4)
40. Write full form of ATP. 40. ATP
(1) adenosine diphosphate (1)
(2) adenosine phosphate (2)
(3) adenosine triphosphate (3)
(4) none (4)

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 129 129
41. The decimal form of is 41.
2557 75 2557 75
(1) terminating (1)
(2) non-termining and repeating (2)
(3) non-terminating and non-repeating (3)
(4) none of the above (4)
42. LCM of the given number ‘x’ and ‘y’ where y is a 42. ‘x’ ‘y’ LCM y, x
multiple of ‘x’ is given by
(1) x (2) y (1) x (2) y

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(3) xy (4) None (3) xy (4)
43. The product of three consecutive positive integers is 43.

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divisible by
(1) 4 (1) 4
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(2) 6 (2) 6
(3) no common factor (3)
(4) only 1 (4)
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44. m² – 1 is divisible by 8, if m is 44. m² – 1, 8 m

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(1) an even integer (1)

(2) an odd integer (2)
(3) a natural number (3)
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(4) a whole number (4)

45. The largest number that will divide 398, 436 and 542 45. 398, 436 542
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leaving remainders 7,11 and 15 respectively is 7,11 15

(1) 17 (2) 11 (1) 17 (2) 11
(3) 34 (4) 45 (3) 34 (4) 45
46. What will be the solution of these equations ax+ by = 46.
a - b, bx - ay = a + b ax + by = a - b, bx - ay = a + b
(1) x = 1, y = 2 (1) x = 1, y = 2
(2) x = 2,y = –1 (2) x = 2,y = –1
(3) x = –2, y = –2 (3) x = –2, y = –2
(4) x = 1, y = –1 (4) x = 1, y = –1
47. Rozly can row downstream 20km in 2 hours, and the 47. Rozly 20km 2
upstream 4km in 2 hours. What will be the speed of 4km 2
rowing in still water?
(1) 6km/hr (2) 4km/hr (1) 6km/hr (2) 4km/hr
(3) 3km/hr (4) 7km/hr (3) 3km/hr (4) 7km/hr

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48. Students are asked to stand in the lines. If one student is 48.
extra in a line, then there would be two less lines. If one
student is less in line, there would be three more lines.
Find the number of students in the class.
(1) 40 (2) 50 (1) 40 (2) 50
(3) 60 (4) 70 (3) 60 (4) 70
49. 8 girls and 12 boys can finish work in 10 days while 6 49. 8 12 10
girls and 8 boys can finish it in 14 days. Find the time 6 8 14
taken by the one girl alone that by one boy alone to
finish the work.
(1) 120, 130 (2) 140,280 (1) 120, 130 (2) 140,280

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(3) 240,280 (4) 100,120 (3) 240,280 (4) 100,120

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s s
50. If the zeroes of the polynomial x³ – 3x² + x – 1 are , s 50. x³ – 3x² + x – 1 s st s
t t
and st then value of s is
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(1) 1 (2) -1 (1) 1 (2) -1
(3) 2 (4) –3 (3) 2 (4) –3
51. If p(x) is a polynomial of at least degree one and p(k) = 51. p(x) p(k) = 0
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0, then k is known as , k
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(1) value of p(x) (1) p(x)

(2) zero of p(x) (2) p(x)
(3) constant term of p(x) (3) p(x)
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(4) none of these (4)

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52. A polynomial of degree n has 52. n

(1) only 1 zero (1) 1
(2) exactly n zeroes (2) n
(3) atmost n zeroes (3) n
(4) more than n zeroes (4) n
53. If p(x) = ax² + bx + c, and a + b + c = 0, then one zero 53. p(x) = ax² + bx + c, a+ b+c= 0 p(x)

(1) –b/a (2) b/a (1) –b/a (2) b/a

(3) c/a (4) –c/a (3) c/a (4) –c/a
54. To place a pole vertical on the ground a wire of length 54. 10
26 m is attached to it at a point 10 m away from its foot. 26
Then what will be the length of pole.
(1) 10 m. (2) 28 m (1) 10 m. (2) 28 m
(3) 20 m (4) 24 m (3) 20 m (4) 24 m

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55. Assertion (A) : If two angles of any triangle are equal 55. (A) :
to the corresponding two angles of another triangle then
the third angles are not necessarily equal.
Reason (R) : The sum of three angles of any triangle is (R) : 180°
equal to 180°
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reason of (1) A R R, A
A
(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct reason (2) A R R, A
of A
(3) A is true but R is false. (3) A R
(4) A is false but R is true.. (4) A R

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56. Assertion (A) : If any two sides of a triangle are 56. (A) :

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proportional to corresponding two sides of another
triangle and the included angles are equal then the SAS
triangles are similar by SAS similarity criterion.
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Reason (R) : If the equal angles are not included (R) :
between the proportional sides, then SAS criterion will SAS
be void.
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(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reason of (1) A R R, A
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A
(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct reason (2) A R R, A
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of A.
(3) A is true but R is false. (3) A R
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(4) A is false but R is true. (4) A R

57. D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively 57. �ABC AB AC D E
of a ³%ABC such that DE || BC. Which of the following DE || BC
statement is true?
(i) ADE ~ ABC (i) ADE ~ ABC
2 2
(ii) (area of ADE/ area of ABC) = (AD /AB ) (ii) ( ADE / ABC )
2 2
= (AD /AB )
(iii) (area of ADE/ area of ABC)= (AB2/AD2) (iii) ( ADE / ABC )
= (AB 2/AD2)
(1) only (iii) (1) (iii)
(2) only (i) (2) (i)
(3) only (i) and (ii) (3) (i) (ii)
(4) all (i) , (ii) and (iii) (4)

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58. ABC is an acute angled triangle. DE is drawn parallel 58. ABC DE BC
to BC as shown. Which of the following are always
true?
(i) ABC ADE A (i) ABC ADE A
(ii) AD/BD= AE/EC (ii) AD/BD= AE/EC
(iii) DE = BC/2 D E (iii) DE = BC/2 D E
(if D and E are mid ( D E, AB & AC
point of AB & AC) B C ) B C
(1) Only (i) (2) (i) and (ii) only (1) (i) (2) (i) (ii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) (ii) and (iii) only (3) (i), (ii) (iii) (4) (ii) (iii)
59. In ABC and DEF,, A= E = 40° and AB/ 59. ABC DEF A= E = 40° AB/ED =

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ED=AC/EF. Find B if F is 65° AC/EF F = 65° B

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(1) 85° (2) 75° (1) 85° (2) 75°
(3) 35° (4) 65° (3) 35° (4) 65°
60. The line segment joining the points (3, -1) and (-6, 5) is 60. (3, -1) (-6, 5)
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trisected. The coordinates of point of trisection are
(1) (3, 3) (2) (- 3, 3) (1) (3, 3) (2) (- 3, 3)
(3) (3, – 3) (4) (-3,-3) (3) (3, – 3) (4) (-3,-3)
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61. The line 3x + y – 9 = 0 divides the line joining the 61. 3x + y – 9 = 0 (1, 3) (2, 7)
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points (1, 3) and (2, 7) internally in the ratio

(1) 3 : 4 (2) 3 : 2 (1) 3 : 4 (2) 3 : 2
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(3) 2 : 3 (4) 4 : 3 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 4 : 3

62. The points (1,1), (-2, 7) and (3, -3) are 62. (1,1), (-2, 7) (3, -3)
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(1) vertices of an equilateral triangle (1)

(2) collinear (2)
(3) vertices of an isosceles triangle (3)
(4) none of these (4)
63. In a right triangle ABC, the right angle is at B. Which 63. ABC , B
of the following is true about the other two angles A A C
and C? ?
(1) There is no restriction on the measure of the angles (1)
(2) Both the angles should be obtuse (2)
(3) Both the angles should be acute (3)
(4) One of the angles is acute and the other is obtuse (4)
64. If sin A = 8/17, find the value of secA cosA + cosecA 64. sin A = 8/17, secA cosA + cosecA cosA
cosA.
(1) 23/8 (2) 15/8 (1) 23/8 (2) 15/8
(3) 8/15 (4) 6/23 (3) 8/15 (4) 6/23

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 2 2 2 2
65. If Cosec (A+ B) = , sec(A – B) = 65. Cosec (A+ B) = , sec(A – B) =
3 3 3 3
0° < A + B 90°, Find A and B. 0° < A + B 90° A B
(1) 25°,35° (2) 30°, 30° (1) 25°,35° (2) 30°, 30°
(3) 45°, 15° (4) 10°,50° (3) 45°, 15° (4) 10°,50°
3 3
(sinA 2 sin A) (sinA 2 sin A)
66. 66.
( 2 cos 3 A cosA) ( 2 cos 3 A cosA)
(1) tan A (2) cot A (1) tan A (2) cot A
(3) sec A (4) 1 (3) sec A (4) 1
4
67. If cos A + cos² A = 1, then sin² A + sin A is equal to 67. cos A + cos² A = 1 sin² A + sin4 A
(1) -1 (2) 0 (1) -1 (2) 0

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(3) 1 (4) None (3) 1 (4)
68. If x and y are complementary angles, then 68. x y

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(1) sin x = sin y (2) tan x = tan y (1) sin x = sin y (2) tan x = tan y
(3) cos x = cos y (4) sec x = cosec y (3) cos x = cos y (4) sec x = cosec y
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69. 3 sin² 20° – 2 tan² 45° + 3 sin² 70° is equal to 69. 3 sin² 20° – 2 tan² 45° + 3 sin² 70°
(1) 0 (2) 1 (1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) -1 (3) 2 (4) -1
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70. If the circumference of a circle and the perimeter of a 70.

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square are equal, then

(1) Area of the circle = Area of the square (1) =
(2) Area of the circle > Area of the square (2) >
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(3) Area of the circle < Area of the square (3) <
(4) Nothing definite can be said about the relation (4)
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between the areas of the circle and square.

71. The area of the circle that can be inscribed in a square 71. 6 cm
of side 6 cm is
(1) 36 � cm2 (2) 18 � cm2 (1) 36 � cm2 (2) 18 � cm2
(3) 12 � cm2 (4) 9 � cm2 (3) 12 � cm2 (4) 9 � cm2
72. The wheel of a motor cycle is of radius 35 cm. How 72. 35 cm 66 km/h
many revolutions per minute must the wheel make so
as to keep a speed of 66 km/h? ?
(1) 300 (2) 400 (1) 300 (2) 400
(3) 450 (4) 500 (3) 450 (4) 500
73. Area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a 73. r
semi-circle of radius r units, in square units is:
r2 r2
(1) r² (2) (1) r² (2)
2 2
(3) 2 r² (4) 2r 2 (3) 2 r² (4) 2r 2

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74. The ratio of areas of incircle and circumcircle of a square 74.
is
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 2
75. If the radius of a circle is increased by 100% then it’s 75. 100%
area increased by
(1) 100% (2) 200% (1) 100% (2) 200%
(3) 300% (4) 400% (3) 300% (4) 400%
76. The radius of smaller circle will be 76.

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PA
(1) 1/4 (2) (1) 1/4 (2) 2 –1
2 –1
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(3) 3 – 2 2 (4) None of these (3) 3 – 2 2 (4)

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77. The probability that a leap year selected at random 77. 53

contains 53 monday is
(1)7/366 (2)28/183 (1)7/366 (2)28/183
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(3) 1/7 (4) 2/7 (3) 1/7 (4) 2/7

78. 3
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78. When a die is thrown, the probability of getting an odd

number less them 3 is: :
(1) 1/6 (2) 1/3 (1) 1/6 (2) 1/3
(3) 1/2 (4) 0 (3) 1/2 (4) 0
79. Jaidev calculate that the probability of her winning the 79.
first prize in a lottery is 0.08. If 6000 tickets are sold, 0.08 6000
how many tickets has he bought?
(1) 40 (2) 240 (1) 40 (2) 240
(3) 480 (4) 750 (3) 480 (4) 750
80. Someone is asked to take a number from 1 to 100. The 80. 1 100
probability that it is a prime is:
(1) 1/5 (2) 6/25 (1) 1/5 (2) 6/25
(3) 1/4 (4) 13/50 (3) 1/4 (4) 13/50

, Sikar Class : X/Q IIT-JEE | NEET | NTSE | OLYMPIADS | KVPY 13

81. Find the missing term(s) in the following questions : 81.
0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, ? 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, ?
(1) 290 (2) 240 (1) 290 (2) 240
(3) 504 (4) 336 (3) 504 (4) 336
Directions : In each of the following questions a letter :
number series is given with one or more terms missing as
shown by (?). Choose the missing term out of the given al- (?)
ternatives.
82. Q1F, S2E, U6D, W21C, ? 82. Q1F, S2E, U6D, W21C, ?

R
(1) Y44B (2) Y66B (1) Y44B (2) Y66B

PE
(3) Y88B (4) Z88B (3) Y88B (4) Z88B
83. Triangle, Four-sided figure, Square 83.
PA
(1) (2) (1) (2)
E
PL
M

(3) (4) (3) (4)

SA

Direction : Each of the following questions consists of :

a pair of numbers that have a certain relationship to each
other, followed by four other pairs of numbers given as
alternatives. Select the pair in which the numbers are similarly
related as in the given pair.
84. 12 : 144 84. 12 : 144
(1) 22 : 464 (2) 20 : 400 (1) 22 : 464 (2) 20 : 400
(3) 15 : 135 (4) 10 : 140 (3) 15 : 135 (4) 10 : 140
85. If ‘+’ means divided by, - means multiplied by, � means 85. ‘+’ -
minus and � means plus, which of the following will –, ÷ +,
be the value of the expression 16 � 8 � 4 � 2 � 4 ? 16 � 8 � 4 � 2 � 4 ?
(1) 16 (2) 28 (1) 16 (2) 28
(3) 32 (4) 44 (3) 32 (4) 44

, Sikar Class : X/Q IIT-JEE | NEET | NTSE | OLYMPIADS | KVPY 14

86. In certain code language if HOCKEY is written as 86. HOCKEY YOKCEH
YOKCEH, what will be code of PENCIL in same PENCIL
language?
(1) LECNIP (2) LICNEP (1) LECNIP (2) LICNEP
(3) NCEILP (4) LICNPE (3) NCEILP (4) LICNPE
87. Ram is facing North-West. He turns in clock wise direc- 87.
tion by 90°, then 180° in the anti-clock wise direction 90°, 180° 90°
and then another 90° in the same direction. Which di-
rection is he facing now ?
(1) South-West (2) West (1) - (2)
(3) South (4) South-East (3) (4) -

R
Directions : In each of the following questions, :

PE
arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence and then
choose the most appropriate sequence from amongst the
alternatives provided below each question :
PA
88. 1. College 2. Child 88. 1. 2.
3. Salary 4. School 3. 4.
5. Employment 5.
E

(1) 1,2,4, 3, 5 (2) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3 (1) 1,2,4, 3, 5 (2) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3

PL

(3) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2 (4) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4 (3) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2 (4) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4

89. 1. Mother 2. Child 89. 1. 2.
M

3. Milk 4. Cry 3. 4.
5. Smile 5.
SA

(1) 3,4, 5, 1, 2 (2) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5 (1) 3,4, 5, 1, 2 (2) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5

(3) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5 (4) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 (3) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5 (4) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
Questions : Which of the following questions is based :
on the following alphabet series :
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
90. Which letter is sixteenth to the right of the letter which 90. I
is fourth to the left of I ?
(1) S (2) T (1) S (2) T
(3) U (4) V (3) U (4) V
91. If the above alphabet is written in the reverse order, 91. O
which will be the eight letter to the right of O ? ?
(1) F (2) G (1) F (2) G
(3) V (4) W (3) V (4) W

, Sikar Class : X/Q IIT-JEE | NEET | NTSE | OLYMPIADS | KVPY 15

 Direction : Read the following information carefully :
and answer the questions given below it.
(i) Eight persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are seated (i) E, F, G, H, I, J, K L
around a square table – Two on each side.
(ii) There are three lady members and they are not seated (ii)
next to each other.
(iii) J is between L and F. (iii) J, L F
(iv) G is between I and F. (iv) G, I F
(v) H, a lady member, is second to the left of J. (v) H, J
(vi) F, a male member, is seated opposite to E, a lady (vi) F, E
member.

R
(vii) There is a lady member between F and I. (vii) F I

PE
92. Who among the following is seated between E and H? 92. E H
(1) F (1) F
(2) I (2) I
PA
(3) J (3) J
(4) Cannot be determined (4)
93. How many persons are seated between K and F ? 93. K F ?
E

(1) One (1)

PL

(2) Two (2)

(3) Three (3)
M

(4) Cannot be determined (4)

94. Who among the following are three lady members ? 94.
SA

(1) E, J and G (1) E, J G

(2) E, H and G (2) E, H G
(3) G, H and J (3) G, H J
(4) Cannot be determined (4)
Directions : Study the following number line and :
answer the questions that follow.
25 917 25 197 395 24 681 975 27 319 785 26 54 25 917 25 197 395 24 681 975 27 319 785 26 54
19782010 97851973 5169721737951 19782010 97851973 5169721737951
95. How many times is number ‘3’ preceded by number ‘7’ 95. ‘3’ ‘7’
and not followed by an even number ?
(1) 6 (2) 5 (1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) 3 (3) 4 (4) 3

, Sikar Class : X/Q IIT-JEE | NEET | NTSE | OLYMPIADS | KVPY 16

96. How many times is number 5 followed by 1 or 2, but 96. 5 1 2 8
not preceded by 8 ? ?
(1) 4 (2) 5 (1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 6 (4) 7 (3) 6 (4) 7
97. When the given figure is converted to cube then which 97.
will be the correct alternative.

R
(1) A Only (2) B only (1) A Only (2) B only

PE
(3) A and C (4) A. B,C and D (3) A and C (4) A. B,C and D
Directions - Cube of edge 12cm is painted on all of its 12 cm
faces and then divided into number of cubes each of edge
PA
2cm, based on this answer the following questions : 2 cm
98. How many cubes have only two faces painted? 98.
(1) 48 (2) 56 (1) 48 (2) 56
E

(3) 64 (4) 8 (3) 64 (4) 8

PL

99. How many cubes have no face painted? 99.

(1) 56 (2) 48 (1) 56 (2) 48
M

(3) 96 (4) 64 (3) 96 (4) 64

100. How many cubes have at least two faces painted? 100.
SA

(1) 56 (2) 48 (1) 56 (2) 48

(3) 72 (4) 64 (3) 72 (4) 64

, Sikar Class : X/Q IIT-JEE | NEET | NTSE | OLYMPIADS | KVPY 17

 Your Search will End Here

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Sample Paper Answer Key : X (Code-Q)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. 4 3 3 2 2 1 2 2 1 4 3 3 3 1 2 1 4 4 3 4

Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Ans. 4 3 3 4 4 2 4 2 3 2 2 4 1 4 1 2 1 2 4 3

Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

Ans. 2 2 1 2 1 4 1 3 2 1 2 3 3 4 4 2 3 4 2 2

Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

Ans. 1 2 3 1 3 1 3 4 2 2 4 4 1 3 3 3 4 1 3 3

Que. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

Ans. 4 3 3 2 2 1 4 2 2 3 2 4 3 2 3 2 2 1 4 1

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