Prosthetic and Orthotic Multiple Choice Questions

1. Among these what is not source of the following gait deviation:

Cicumduction
A. Extension assist is too strong

B. Weak hip abductors

C. Medial brim of the socket impinges soft tissue during swing phase

D. Prothesis has been excessively lengthened Medial whip

Answer: B

2. ___________ lines the socket interface of knee prosthesis

A. suction

B. Pin locks

C. Belts

D. Gel liners

Answer: D

3. Which one of the following angle is true about the angle between the
neck and shaft of the femur in adult?
A. 140-150 degree

B. 130-140 degree

C. 120-130 degree

D. 110-120 degree

Answer: C
4. What is symes amputation
A. Amputation of knee

B. Amputation of middle finger

C. Amputation of ankle joint

D. Amputation of metatarsals

Answer: C

5. Which of these is not related to the abducted gait deviation

A. Prosthesis too long

B. Short stump length

C. Socket too small

D. Suspension belt may be insufficient

Answer: B

6. What kind of prosthesis does a patient with a small toe amputation

need?
A. low profile foot

B. SAFE foot

C. SACH foot

D. No prosthesis required

Answer: D

7. Which knee unit is the most stable?

A. Manual locking knee

B. Pneumatic knee

C. Hydraulic knee
D. All the above

Answer: A

8. What K ambulator is manual locking knee used in?

A. K1

B. K2

C. K3

D. K4

Answer: A

9. As the length of the residual limb increases, __________ improves

A. Function alone

B. Prosthetic control alone

C. Both function and Prosthetic control

D. Aesthetic factor

Answer: C

10. To ensure a sufficient lever arm for effective prosthetic control, at

least how many inches of the tibia are required?
A. 2-3

B. 3-4

C. 4-5

D. 5-6

Answer: D

11. Which of Newton’s laws do we use most when manufacturing

orthotic devices?
A. I
B. II

C. I and II

D. III

Answer: D

12. When weight is a major concern, in designing Prosthetics and

Orthotics ____________ is used.
A. Steel

B. aluminium

C. Titanium

D. Plastic

Answer: B

13. When residual forearm is so short, which of these is used to

augment function?
A. Supracondylar suspension

B. Step up Hinges

C. Both (1) and (2)

D. Prehensors

Answer: C

14. Which of these are used on uneven terrain?

A. Constant friction knee

B. Polycentric knee

C. Stance phase control

D. Fluid control knee

Answer: A

15. For fixed deformities, ___________ foot orthoses are used to

improve foot function.
A. Rigid

B. Soft

C. Semi-rigid

D. All the above

Answer: B

16. Which of these is not applicable for AFO?

A. Absorption of ground reaction forces

B. Protection of fusion sites

C. Protection of md foot

D. Providing mediolateral stability

Answer: D

17. Which of these is not applicable for orthosis?

A. Prevent deformity

B. Controls instability

C. Corrects a fixed joint contracture

D. Relieves pain

Answer: C

18. The mandibulor-occipital assembly is a part of ____________

orthosis
A. Foot
B. Spinal

C. Knee

D. Cervical

Answer: B

19. Central amputation involves _____________

A. Digits II and III

B. Digits III and IV

C. Digits IV and V

D. Thumb and index finger

Answer: B

20. _____________ provides stable support of prosthesis

A. Socket

B. Body of prosthesis

C. Harness

D. Control system

Answer: C

21. Mr. X has medio-lateral instability at the ankle joint.Which

type of orthotic ankle joint can be prescribed?
A. plantar flexion stop

B. Dorsiflexion assist

C. Free motion
D. Fixed

Answer: B

22. _____________ indicates that the patient has

ability/potential for ambulation with ability to traverse curbs,
stairs, uneven surfaces
A. K0

B. K1

C. K2

D. K3

Answer: C

23. Posterior lead spring is applicable for

A. Controlling all ankle motions

B. Allowing set amount of Plantar/ Dorsiflexion

C. Controlling Inversion/Eversion

D. Dorsiflexion assistance

Answer: D

24. Functional outcome at the transtibial level can be

___________ if there is good soft-tissue coverage of the
residual limb and good fitting of the socket
A. High

B. Very high

C. Low

D. Very low
Answer: B

25. The socket design for knee disarticulation does not include
_________
A. Partial end-bearing

B. Partial bearing on distal two-thirds of the thigh

C. Rigid outer frame

D. Ischial bearing

Answer: D

26. _____________ is used to provide adjustable swing

control with variable cadence and are generally used for level 2
or level 3 ambulators
A. Manual locking knees

B. Stance control knees

C. Pneumatic knees

D. Hydraulic knees

Answer: C

27. ________ incorporate pneumatic or hydraulic control

mechanism for stance stability and variable cadence, again for
longer residual limbs
A. Pneumatic knees

B. Hydraulic knees

C. Hybrid polycentric knees

D. Microprocessor-controlled hydraulic knees

Answer: C

28. The functional outcome at transfemoral amputation

generally depends on _________
A. Proximal muscle strength

B. The residual limb length

C. Overall status of the patient

D. all the above

Answer: D

29. Which of these does not pertain to general features of AFO?

A. trimlines

B. degrees of dorsiflexion

C. Ratchet lock

D. Foot plate design

Answer: C

30. When is the fitting of permanent prosthesis is scheduled?

A. Days 21-28

B. Months 2 and 3

C. Months 3-6

D. Months 6-9

Answer: C

31. Used for self-suspending transradial sockets such as the

muenster socket
A. Figure 4 harness

B. Figure 6 harness

C. Figure 8 harness

D. Figure 9 harness

Answer: D

32. _________ splint is used for Brachial plexus injury

A. Volkmann

B. Turnbuckle

C. Cock-up

D. Aeroplane

Answer: D

33. The flex-foot cheetah is made up of

A. Polyethylene

B. Foam

C. Carbon fibre reinforced polymer

D. Plastic fibre

Answer: C

34. Bony growth out from the main surface of the bone is called
___________
A. Secondary chondrosarcoma

B. Exostosis
C. Solitary ostoechondroma

D. None of the above

Answer: B

35. _________________ is not a clinical applications of creep

A. Spasticity

B. Joint Contracture

C. Elongatin

D. Hypotonia

Answer: D

36. Endoskeletal systems are made of ________

A. Titanium pylons

B. Carbon fiber

C. Steel

D. All the above

Answer: D

37. What does the abbreviation HKAFO stand for in orthotics?

A. high-kinesthetics-against-feet orthoses

B. hip-knee-ankle-foot occlusions

C. hip-knee-ankle-foot orthoses

D. hipster-knee-ankle-foot orthodontics

Answer: C
38. Which of thses are not an example of orthosis
A. Finger splint

B. hio-knee-ankle-foot orthoses

C. Knee brace

D. Spinal brace

Answer: B

39. Which of these is not a property of immediate post-op

prosthesis?
A. Non-adjustable

B. Non-removable

C. Permanent

D. Helps remove edemas

Answer: C

40. Hemipelvectomy refers to _____________

A. Midtarsal amputation

B. Ankle disarticulation

C. Removal of part of pelvis

D. Removal of all of pelvis

Answer: C

41. ________ is a type of transradial harness suspension

system.
A. Figure-8
B. Figure-9

C. Chest strap with shoulder saddle

D. All of the above

Answer: D

42. What kind of prosthetic foot is used for K2 users

A. Multi-axis foot

B. Seattle foot

C. SACH foot

D. Flex foot

Answer: A

43. Which dynamic response prosthetic foot consists of 1 pylon

and foot
A. Multi-axis foot

B. Seattle foot

C. SACH foot

D. Flex foot

Answer: D

44. What does TES stand for?

A. Tough Elongated Suspension

B. Total Elastic Suspension

C. Thick Elongated Suspension

D. Tough Extension Suspension

Answer: B

45. Which of the following is not the type of suction liner?

A. Pin system

B. ACE wrap

C. lanyard

D. seal-in liner

Answer: B

46. What is the preferred length of the residual limb for trans-
tibial prosthetics?
A. 3-4 inches

B. 3-4 cms

C. 6-7 inches

D. 6-7 cms

Answer: C

47. Excessive knee friction and inadequate suspension may lead

to which type of gait deviation?
A. Limited heel rise

B. Lateral whip

C. Vaulting

D. Lateral trunk bending

Answer: C
48. Which of these exercises should be done 1 week after a
transtibial amputation?
A. Quad sets

B. Glut sets

C. Short arc hip extension

D. abduction

Answer: A

49. How many years should a definitive prosthesis last?

A. 1-3 years

B. 2-4 years

C. 3-5 years

D. 4-6 years

Answer: C

50. On observation, ______________ is indicated by the areas

on the residual limb that are blanched and quickly turn deep
red.
A. infection

B. Excessive pressure

C. A rash

D. Edema

Answer: B

1. ______________ is most recommended for transtibial amputee gait

training?
A. quad Cane

B. Standard walker

C. Lofstrand crutches

D. All of the devices are equally effective

Answer: C

2. When the ischium does its weight bearing in standing gait, the anterior
socket wall produces a _____________ force which keeps the ischium
on the ischial seat.

A. Anterior

B. Posterior

C. Medial

D. Lateral

Answer: B

3. The length of a hip prosthesis should be __________

A. The same as the sound limb

B. Shorter than the sound limb

C. Longer than the sound limb

D. Longer by 2 inches

Answer: B

4. What does SACH stand for?

A. Solid ankle Cushion Heel

B. Sole Angulated Cuspidor Heel

C. Sole Angulated Customer Heel

D. Solid ankle Customer Heel

Answer: A

5. _____________ is applicable for a patient with compensated rearfoot

varus.

A. Soft, medical post

B. Soft, lateral post

C. Rigid, lateral post

D. Rigid, medial post

Answer: D

6. ASH brace is a spinal orthosis that prevent

A. Flexion of the spine

B. Extension of the spine

C. Side flexion of the spine

D. Rotation of the spine

Answer: A

7. ______________ plastic is commonly used in prefabricated Ankle

Foot Orthosis
A. Polypropylene

B. Polyethylene

C. Transpolyisoprene

D. Polycapriolactone

Answer: A

8. For a candidate who needs both motion control and shock absorption
__________ orthosis would be suggested

A. Rigid

B. Semi-Rigid

C. Soft

D. None of the above

Answer: B

9. Which of these is a true statement

A. Strain is force over tissue surface area

B. Stress is the tissue’s change in shape for applied pressure

C. The steeper the stress/strain curve, the more ductile the material

D. The steeper the stress/strain curve, the more ductile the material

Answer: D

10. Which of these is an option to reduce pronation during gait

A. Flare the lateral heel

B. Bevel the lateral heel

C. Bevel the posterior heel

D. Flare the posterior heel

Answer: B

1. _________ Patellar Tendon-Bearing Orthosis can be used for

dysvascular patients with chronic ulcerations on the feet

A. Bi-valve plastic clamshell

B. Calf corset design

C. Dual channel

D. None of the above

Answer: B

2. _____________ has an incremental locking mechanisms every 7-10º

to gradually stretch the knee following contracture or spasticity

A. Drop lock

B. Bail lock

C. Ratchet lock

D. Stance lock

Answer: C

3. __________ allows up to 25º of flexion, even in its locked position, to

mimic normal gait patterns.

A. Drop lock
B. Trick knee lock

C. Ratchet lock

D. Offset knee lock

Answer: B

4. Handi-Hook device is the prosthetic option for

A. Wrist disarticulation amputation

B. Partial hand amputation

C. Mitt amputation

D. Transradial amputation

Answer: B

5. While using an elbow Disarticulation Amputation, Once the elbow is

properly positioned, the elbow must be locked a __________ maneuver
of the shoulder

A. Down, back and out

B. Up, front and in

C. Up, back and out

D. Down, front and out

Answer: A

6. Long transhumeral amputation preserves _________ of humeral

length in Transhumeral Amputation

A. 40%
B. 30-60%

C. 50-90%

D. 100%

Answer: C

7. Which specialty Terminal Device can be designed for golf and skiing for
an amputee?

A. Robotic terminal devices

B. Waterproof terminal devices

C. Activity – specific terminal devices

D. All the above

Answer: C

8. No prosthetic device may be necessary for most of the functional tasks if

there is at least ________

A. Any three fingers remaining

B. The thumb and two figures remaining

C. The thumb and one finger remaining

D. Any two fingers remaining

Answer: C

9. Which of the following is an indication of Supra Malleolar Orthosis

(SMO)?

A. Moderate to severe subtalar instability

B. Flexible arch instability

C. Flexible equinus deformity

D. Mild to moderate subtalar instability

Answer: A

10. KAFO designs can be used for _______

A. Guillain-Barre

B. Polio

C. Lumbar spinal injury

D. All the above

Answer: D

1. What determines prehensile force of the voluntary opening terminal

device?

A. Myoelectric surface electrodes

B. Microswitch buttons

C. Number and type of rubber bands, springs

D. All the above

Answer: C

2. Hindfoot control orthosis is recommended for _________

A. Subtalar instability

B. Knee flexion
C. Knee extension

D. Persistent toe walking

Answer: A

3. ___________ is used for TB cervical spine?

A. Cervical Collar

B. Philadelphia collar

C. Four-post collar

D. Halo vest

Answer: D

4. How many harness will a clavicular orthosis have?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Answer: C

5. _________ is an indication for ASH brace?

A. Chronic low back pain

B. Sciatica

C. Adolescent kyphosis
D. Mild thoraco-lumbar injuries

Answer: C

6. ‘Three claw chunk’ is which type of prehension?

A. Spherical prehension

B. Palmar prehension

C. Lateral Prehension

D. Tip to tip prehension

Answer: B

7. ___________ is a device which is applied to lower limb to give

support or control a joint while walking.

A. Splint

B. Caliper

C. Elbow Hinge

D. None of the above

Answer: B

78. Boston brace for scoliosis is preferred for an age group of

_____________

A. 3 to 10 years

B. 11 to 22 years

C. 23 to 50 years
D. 51 to 75 years

Answer: A

79. Which is preferred for knee flexion deformity more than 35 degrees?

A. Post guard

B. Push Knee splint

C. Knee cage splint

D. None of the above

Answer: C

80. Which of these is an articulated ankle foot assembly?

A. Jaipur foot

B. SACH

C. SAFE

D. Single axis

Answer: D