Maths Panacea (Bilingual) Book PDF
Maths Panacea (Bilingual) Book PDF
Maths Panacea (Bilingual) Book PDF
Aditya Ranjan
Excise Inspector
Editor
Rudra Pratap Verma
About Aditya Ranjan
Aditya Ranjan Sir is a renowned Maths Faculty , who has taught lakhs of students
through Rankers Gurukul You Tube channel and its offline centre. His free maths
& guidance videos have millions of views on you tube. He has a unique approach
of solving new TCS questions . He always focuses on relevant and updated content.
His new innovative idea of completing entire maths syllabus for any govt. exam on
you tube through "60 Days 60 Marathon" is a landmark in online education.
He has got selected at his very early age and his words "SELECTED gSSELECTION
fnyk;saxs
" are very popular among students.
EXAMS QUALIFIED:
CGL , CHSL, CPO , CDS (3 TIMES)
** HE SCORED **
MATHS – 50/50
ENGLISH – 50/50
REASONING – 50/50
and got selected in SSC CHSL 2019 with AIR - 114.
He scored the same in CGL 2019 PRE and 227/200 in MAINS (MATHS) and got
selected in SSC CGL 2019 as an EXCISE INSPECTOR.
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Dedicated to my dear
“ASPIRANTS” & team
“RANKERS' GURUKUL”
Who have inspired me
to write this book.
ACKNOWLEDGMENT
eSa mu lHkh yksxksa dk vkHkkjh gw¡ ftUgksaus bl iqLrd dks rS;kj djus esa esjh
foØethr lj dk ½.kh gw¡] ftUgksaus ges'kk cM+s HkkbZ dh rjg esjk ekxZn'kZu fd;k vk
bl eqdke ij igq¡puk laHko ugha FkkA lkFk esa lcls Rudra
T;knk vkHkkjh
Sir dk gw¡] ftUgksaus fn
jkr esgur djds bl iqLrd dks rS;kj fd;k gS mUgksaus cPpksa dks ,d ekLVjihl fn;k gS
dkiQh enn feysxh] lkFk gh lkFk fiz;adk lksyadh] lq;k'k] lfpu] vuh'k]Proofread
eunhi vkfn us
djds bldksError Free cuk;k gS vkSj ftl rjg ls egkHkkjr ds jpf;rk osnO;kl th gS ysfd
bls fy[kk x.ks'k th us gS mlh rjg ls bl fdrkc dks fy[kus okys gekjs VkbfiLV vfer flag
vt; vkSj f'kokuh eSe gSaA eSa vius Nk=kksa dks Hkh /U;okn nsuk pkgrk gw¡ ftU
iqLrd dks cukus ds fy, izsfjr fd;kA
PERCENTAGE
01
izfr'krrk
1. The length and breadth of a rectangle are 4. In the election, 8% of the voters did not cast
increased by 8% and 5%, respectively. By how their votes. Two candidates contested the
much percentage will the area of the rectangle election in which the winning cadidate got 48%
increase? of the total votes and won election by 1100
votes. Find the total number of voters in the
,d vk;r dh yackbZ vkSj pkSM+kbZ esa Øe'k% 8» vkSj election,
5» given that all the votes cast were valid?
dh o`f¼ dh tkrh gSA vk;r ds {ks=kiQy eas fdrus izfr'kr ,d pquko esa 8» ernkrkvksa us viuk er ugha MkykA nk
dh o`f¼ gksxh\ mEehnokjksa us pquko yM+k] ftlesa thrus okys mEe
dks dqy erksa ds 48» er feys vkSj og 1100 erksa ls
r
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
pquko thr x;kA pquko esa ernkrkvksa dh dqy la[;k Kkr
si
(a) 13.4% (b) 15.4%
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(c) 12.4% (d) 16.4%
2.
an by
The price of a scooter increases successively
(a) 25500
(c) 27500
(b) 26500
(d) 28500
n
by10%, 5% and 15%. What is the total 5. In an election between two candidates, the
percentage increase in price of scooter? defeated candidate secured 42% of the valid
ja
,d LdwVj ds ewY; eas Øfed rkSj ij 10»] 5» vkSj
votes polled and lost the election by 7,68,400
R s
votes. If 82,560 votes were declared invalid
15» dh o`f¼ gksrh gSA LdwVj dh dher esa dqy fdrus and 20% people did NOT cast their vote, then
a th
izfr'kr dh o`f¼ gqbZ gSA the invalid votes were what percentage
(rounded off to 1 decimal place) of the votes
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
which people did NOT cast?
ty a
7. The reduction of 20% in the price of rice ;fn ued dk ewY; 20» de gks tkrk gS] rks O;; dks
enables a person to obtain 50 kg more for leku j[kus ds fy, [kir esa fdrus izfr'kr dh o`f¼
Rs.450. Find the original price of rice per kg.
dh tkuh pkfg,\
pkoy dh dher esa 20» dh deh ,d O;fDr dks 450
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
#i;s esa 50kg vf/d pkoy izkIr djus esa l{ke cukrh
(a) 26% (b) 27%
gsA pkoy dk ewy ewY; izfrkg Kkr dhft,A
(c) 25% (d) 24%
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
12. The cost of apples is increased by 20% and
(a) Rs.1 (b) Rs.2 then decreased by 20%. What is the net
(c) Rs.1.25 (d) Rs.2.25 pecentage decrease?
8. In an election between two candidates, 12% lsc dh dher esa 20» dh o`f¼ dh tkrh gS vkSj fiQj
of voters did not cast their votes. The winner
20» dh deh dh tkrh gSA 'kq¼ izfr'kr deh D;k gS\
by obtaining 68% of the total votes defeated
his contestant by 2880 votes. What was the SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
total number of voters who cast their votes (a) 4% (b) 3%
r
in the election? (c) 5% (d) 6%
nks mEehnokjksa ds chp ,d pquko esa 12» ernkrkvksa us is what percentage of 20?
13. 0.5
si
oksV ugha MkykA fotsrk us dqy erksa dk 68» çkIr djds0.5, 20 dk fdruk izfr'kr gS\
an by
vius çfr;ksxh dks 2880 erksa ls gjk;kA pquko esa ernku
djus okys ernkrkvksa dh dqy la[;k fdruh Fkh\ (a) 25%
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(b) 0.25%
n
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 03) (c) 2.5% (d) 0.025%
14. Mr. X has a monthly income of $26,500 and
(a) 5280 ja (b) 8000
R s
(c) 4000 (d) 6000 his monthly expenditure is $20,500. The next
year, his salary is increased by 12% and
a th
Rs.630. How much money did Ram have O;; $20,500 gSA vxys o"kZ] mudh vk;12% esa dh
initially?
o`f¼ gksrh gS vkSj O;;6% esadh o`f¼ gksrh gSA mldh
di M
1
jke ds ikl ftruk /u Fkk mldk 12 % [kks x;k cpr esa fdrus izfr'kr dh o`f¼ gksrh gS\
2 SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
vkSj 'ks"k /u dk 75» [kpZ djus ds ckn mlds ikl (a) 32.5% (b) 27.3%
630 #i;s 'ks"k cprs gSaA jke ds ikl 'kq# esa fdrus #i;s (c) 32.0% (d) 34.7%
Fks\ 15. During the first year, the population of a town
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 02) increased by 12%.The next year, due to some
(a) Rs.2,080 (b) Rs.2,880 contagious disease, it decreased by 8%. At the
(c) Rs.2,205 (d) Rs.2,808 end of the second year, the population was
64,400. Find the population of the town at
10. Number p is 15% more than 150. If k is 15%
beginning of the first year.
less than p, then k is equal to:
A
16. Two candidates P and Q contested in an 19. A man loses 20% of his money and after
election. 70% of the registered voters are P spending 85% of the remainder, he is left with
supporters. If 60% of the P supporters and Rs.120. How much did he have at first?
30% of the Q supporters are expected to vote
for candidate P, then what percentage of the fdlh O;fDr ds ikl ekStwn mldh dqy jkf'k dk 20»
registered voters are expected to vote for [kks tkus vkSj 'ks"k jkf'k dk 85» [kpZ djus ds ckn
candidate P? 120 #i;s cprs gSaA izkjaHk eas mlds ikl fdruh jkf'k
nks mEehnokj P vkSj Q us ,d pquko yM+kA iathÑr Fkh\
ernkrkvksa esa ls 70» ernkrk
P ds leFkZd gsaA ;fn
P
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
ds 60» leFkZdksa vkSj
Q ds 30» leFkZdksa ls mEehn dh
(a) Rs.1,200 (b) Rs.1,000
tkrh gS fd os mEehnokj P dks oksV nsaxs] rks fdrus
izfr'kr iathÑr ernkrkvksa ls mEehnokj
P dks oksV nsus (c) Rs.800 (d) Rs.500
dh mEehn gS\ 20. A mask manufacturing company manufactured
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 01) ‘X’ number of masks in 2018. It increased its
manufacturing capacity by 30% in 2019 and
r
(a) 30% (b) 51%
(c) 26% (d) 47% further increased its manufacturing by 15%
si
17. The population of country A decreased by p% in 2020. In 2021, due to the machinery
and the population of country B decreased by breakdown, its manufacturing declined by
an by
q% from the year 2020 to 2021. Here 'p' is
greater than ‘q’. Let 'x' be the ratio of the
40%. What is the value of ‘X’ if it
manufactured 179400 masks in 2021?
n
population of country A to the population of
,d ekLd fuekZ.k daiuh us 2018 'X'
esala[;k ds ekLd
country B in the given year. What is the
ja dk fuekZ.k fd;kA blus 2019 esa viuh fuekZ.k {kerk es
R s
percentage decrease in 'x' from 2020 to 2021?
o"kZ 2020 ls 2021 rd ns'k A dh tula[;k esa p% dh 30» dh o`f¼ dh vkSj mlds ckn 2020 esa blds fuekZ.k
a th
deh gqbZ vkSj ns'k B dh tula[;k esa q% dh deh esa 15» dh vkSj o`f¼ dhA 2021 esa] e'khujh ds [kjkc
vkbZA ;gk¡
'p', 'q' ls cM+k gSA ekuk
'x' fn, x, o"kZ eas gksus ds dkj.k blds fuekZ.k esa 40» dh fxjkoV vkbZ
ns'kA dh tula[;k dk ns'k B dh tula[;k ls vuqikr ;fn 2021 esa 179400 ekLd dk fuekZ.k fd;k tkrk gS
ty a
gSA 2020 ls 2021 rd'x' esa fdrus izfr'kr dh deh rks'X' dk eku D;k gksxk\
gS\
di M
22. The length and breadth of a cuboid is igys o"kZ eas dksjksuk ok;jl dh igyh ygj ds dkj.k
increased by 20% and 25%, respectively, while
,d 'kgj dh vkcknh 5» de gks xbZA vxys o"kZ nwljs
its height is reduced by 30%. What must be
the total percentage increase/decrease in the ygj ds dkj.k ;g vkcknh fiQj ls 5» de gks xbZ vkSj
volume of the cuboid? rhljs Ok"kZ eas ;g vkcknh 5» c<+ xbZA rhljs Ok"kZ d
,d ?kukHk dh yackbZ vkSj pkSM+kbZ eas Øe'k% 20» easvkSj
vkcknh 9]47]625 FkhA igys o"kZ dh 'kq#vkr eas vkc
25» dh o`f¼ dh tkrh gS] tcfd bldh Å¡pkbZ eas 30» fdruh Fkh\
dh deh dh tkrh gSA ?kukHk ds vk;ru esa dqy izfr'kr
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
o`f¼@deh fdruh gksuh pkfg,\
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 03) (a) 7,00,000 (b) 10,00,000
(a) Increase by 5% (b) Increase by 3%
(c) 8,97,993 (d) 9,92,519
(c) Decrease by 2% (d) Decrease by 4%
23. Three candidates were participating in an 26. Three candidates P, Q and R participated in
election. The person at third place got 20% an election. P got 35% more votes than Q,
of the total votes while the difference between and R got 15% more votes than Q. P overtook
r
the votes of the winner and the first runner R by 2,412 votes. If 90% voters voted and
si
up was 20% of the total votes. If the difference no invalid or illegal votes were cast, then what
between the votes of the first runner up and
was the number of voters in the voting list?
an by
the second runner up was 37,000, how many
votes did the winner receive? rhu izR;kf'k;ksa
P, Q vkSjR us ,d pquko esa Hkkx fy;kA
n
,d pquko esa rhu mEehnokj Hkkx ys jgs FksA rhljs LFkku
P us Q ls 35» vf/d er izkIr fd, vkSj R dks Q ls
ij jgus okys O;fDr dks dqy erksa dk 20» izkIr gqvk 15» vf/d er izkIr gq, P us R dks 2]412 erksa ls
ja
tcfd fotsrk vkSj izFke mifotsrk ds erksa dk varj
R s
ihNs NksM+ fn;kA ;fn 90» ernkrkvksa us ernku fd;k
dqy erksa dk 20» FkkA ;fn izFke mifotsrk vkSj f}rh;
gks vkSj dksbZ vekU; ;k voS/ er u Mkyk x;k gks] rks
a th
28. During the first year, the strength of a school 31. Out of an earning of Rs.720, Pankaj spends
increased by 12%, in the second year it 65%. How much does he save?
decreased by 12% and in the third year it
increased by 10%. At the end of the third year
Rs.720 dh dekbZ esa ls iadt 65» [kpZ djrk gSA og
its strength was nearly 10842. What was the fdruk cpkrk gS\
strength at the beginning of the first year?
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
igys o"kZ ds nkSjku] ,d fo|ky; esa fo|k£Fk;ksa dh la[;k (a) Rs.250 (b) Rs.252
esa 12» dh o`f¼ gqbZA nwljs Ok"kZ esas 12» dh deh gqbZ
(c) Rs.253 (d) Rs.251
vkSj rhljs Ok"kZ esa 10» dh o`f¼ gqbZA rhljs o"kZ ds var
esa bleas fo|k£Fk;ksa dh la[;k yxHkx 10842 FkhA 32.igys
The expenditure on the cost of living of a man
and his family is 60% of his salary. He gets
o"kZ dh 'kq#vkr esa ;g la[;k D;k Fkh\
two increment of 30% and 60% in his salary.
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 03) If his saving increases by 250% of his initial
saving, then the new cost of living expenditure
(a) 8000 (b) 10000 is what percentage (rounded off to the nearest
r
(c) 6500 (d) 12000 integer) of the increased salary?
si
29. In an election between two candidates, a ,d vkneh vkSj mlds ifjokj dk fuokZg O;;] mlds
candidate who gets 64% of the votes polled
an by osru dk 60» gSA og vius osru esa 30» vkSj 60» dh
is elected by a majority of 252 votes. What nks o`f¼ izkIr djrk gSA ;fn mldh cpr mldh izkjafHkd
is the total number of votes polled?
n
cpr ds 250» ls c<+ tkrh gS] rks u;k fuokZg O;;]
nks mEehnokjksa ds chp ,d pquko esa] ,d mEehnokjc<+s gq, osru dk fdruk izfr'kr (fudVre iw.kkZad rd
ja
ftls Mkys x, erksa dk 64» izkIr gksrk gS] og 252 erksa iw.kkZafdr)gS\
R s
ds cgqer ls fuokZfpr gksrk gSA Mkys x, erksa dh dqy
a th
34. The sum of two numbers is 680. If the bigger (a) 408 (b) 310
number is decreased by 15% and the smaller
(c) 308 (d) 410
number is increased by 15%, then the
resultant numbers are equal. Find the smaller 38. If radius of a sphere is decreased by 48%, then
number. by what percent does its surface area
nks la[;kvksa dk ;ksx 680 gSA ;fn cM+h la[;k esa 15»
decrease?
dh deh dh tkrh gS vkSj NksVh la[;k esa 15» dh o`f¼ ;fn fdlh xksys dh f=kT;k %48 de dj nh tk,] rks
dh tkrh gS] rks ifj.kkeh la[;k,¡ cjkcj gksrh gSaA NksVh
mldk i`"Bh; {ks=kÝQy fdrus izfr'kr de gks tk,xk\
la[;k Kkr dhft,A SSC CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
(a) 82.91% (b) 72.96%
(a) 307 (b) 285
(c) 289 (d) 304 (c) 78.98% (d) 86.26%
35. Shiva’s monthly salary is Rs.75,000. He 39. Two candidates contested an election.One of
spends Rs.12,000 on household items, them got 64% of the votes and won by 434
Rs.14,000 on LIC and mutual funds, Rs.15,000 votes.What was the total number of votes polled?
r
on his children’s education, and keeps
Rs.10,000 for miscellaneous expenses. His nks çR;kf'k;ksa us ,d pquko yM+kA muesa ls ,d us 64»
si
savings are Rs.21,000 per month and he çkIr fd, vkSj 434 erksa ls thr x;kA dqy iM+s erksa dh
donates the rest of the amount to an or
an by la[;k Kkr dhft,A
phanage. The percentage of his income that
SSC CGL TIER- II 03/03/2023
he donates is:
n
f'ko dk ekfld osru 75]000 #i;s gSA og ?kjsyw lkekuksa(a) 1550
ij 12]000 #i;s ,yvkbZlh vkSj E;wpqvy iQaM ij 14]000 (b) 1345
ja
R s
#i;s vius cPpksa dh f'k{kk ij 15]000 #i;s [kpZ djrk (c) 1680
gS vkSj iQqVdj [kpkZsa ds fy, 10]000 j[krk gSA mldh
a th
(d) 1684
cpr 21]000 izfr ekg gS vkSj og 'ks"k jkf'k ,d vukFkky;
40. Mrs. Deepa Devi saves 30% of her salary. If he
dks nku dj nsrk gSA mldh vk; dk izfr'kr] tks og gets Rs. 42,000 per month as salary, what is
nku djrk gS og gS%
ty a
(a) 3% (b) 6%
(c) 8% (d) 4% osru ds :i esa izfr ekg #i;s 42]000 feyrs gSa] rks mudk
ekfld O;; D;k gS\
36. Two numbers are, respectively, 10% and 25%
more than the third number. The ratio of the two SSC CGL TIER- II 06/03/2023
numbers is: (a) Rs. 29,300
nks ls[;k,¡] rhljh la[;k ls Øe'k% 10
% vkSj 25% vf/d gSaA (b) Rs. 29,200
mu nksuksa la[;kvksa dk vuqikr gSA
(c) Rs. 29,400
SSC CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023
(d) Rs. 29,100
(a) 22 : 25
41. If 20% of (A + B) = 30% of (A – B), then what
(b) 19 : 25
percentage of B is equal to A?
A
(c) 23 : 25
;fn (A + B) dk 20% = (A – B) dk 30» gS] rksB dk
(d) 18 : 25
fdruk çfr'kr A ds cjkcj gS\
37. A basket contains 350 eggs. If 12% of the eggs
are rotten, how many eggs are good enough SSC CGL TIER- II 07/03/2023
to be sold? (a) 400%
,d Vksdjh esa 350 vaMs gSaA%;fnvaMs12 lMs gq, gSa] (b) 300%
rks fdrus vaMs csps tkus ds fy, cps gS\ (c) 500%
SSC CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023 (d) 100%
ANSWER KEY
1.(a) 2.(a) 3.(a) 4.(c) 5.(d) 6.(b) 7.(d) 8.(a) 9.(b) 10.(d)
11.(c) 12.(a) 13.(c) 14.(a) 15.(c) 16.(b) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(b) 20.(c)
21.(b) 22.(a) 23.(b) 24.(c) 25.(b) 26.(a) 27.(a) 28.(b) 29.(b) 30.(d)
31.(b) 32.(a) 33.(c) 34.(c) 35.(d) 36.(a) 37.(c) 38.(b) 39.(a) 40.(c)
41.(c)
r
si
an by
n
ja
R s
a th
ty a
di M
A
SOLUTIONS
1. (a) 5. (d)
Let total valid votes be 100
Old New
Length 100 108 ATQ,
Breadth 100 105 (58 – 42)% = 768400
Area 10000 11340 16% = 768400
11340 – 10000 100% = 4802500
% Change = 100
10000
Valid votes = 4802500
= 13.4%
Ivalid votes = 82560
r
2. (a)
Total votes = 4885060
si
Old New
No. of people who did not cast their votes
10% 10 11
5%
15%
20
20
an by 21
23
=
20
100
4885060
n
4000 5313 = 1221265
ja
5313 – 4000 82560
R s
% Increase = 100 Required% = 100
4000 1221265
a th
33 = 6.8%
= 32 % 6 (b)
40
3. (a) 1
2.5% =
ty a
I. 40 41
30 32 33
II. 40 41
3 5136
III. 40 41
100 171200
64000 68921
4. (c)
64000 1024000
Let total votes be
1024000
100 68921 68921
64000
= 16 × 68921
–8%
= 1102736
7. (d)
A
450 100
Old price =
4 1100 250 80
100 27500 = 2.25
r
40 2
ATQ,
si
48 2880 14. (a)
n
= 5280.
Old New
9. (b)
Income 53 53 + 6.36 = 59.36
1 25 ja
R s
12 % = % Exp. 41 41 + 2.46 = 43.46
2 2
Savings 12 15.90
a th
1 100
195
= = 32.5%
630 6
di M
200 4 200
175 15. (c)
= 2880 Old New
10. (d)
I. 100 112
Overall change in 150
II. 100 92
15 15 10000 10304
= 15 15 = 2.25
100
10304 64400
2.25 6.75
Now, 150 = 64400
100 2 10000 10000
10304
6.75 = 62500
k = 150 – = 146.625
A
2 16. (b)
11. (c) Let total votes be 100
Initial Final P Q
Price 5 4 Supporters 70 30
Exp. 1 1 60% 30%
Consumption 4 5 42 9
51
1 Expected votes of P = 42 + 9
% Increase = = 25%
4 = 51%
r
x 1
% Change = 100 5% Increase
si
20
(100 – q– 100 p) x
= 100 23. (b)
an by (100 – q) x
Let total votes be 100, then
n
100 (p– q) A B C
=
100 – q 50 30 20
18. (b) ja ATQ,
R s
Old New 10 37000
a th
A B
28
Required% = 100 76 24
di M
128
ATQ,
= 21.88%
19. (b) 76 – 24 52 1480
Let initial money = 100 1480
100 100
ATQ, 52
= 2846
15
80 120 25. (b)
100
120 Old New
100 100 100
15 80 I. 20 19
= 1000
A
II. 20 19
20. (c) III. 20 21
Old New 8000 7581
2019 100 130 ATQ,
2020 100 115
7581 947625
2021 100 60
947625
1000 897 8000 8000
7581
897 179400
1000 200000 = 10,00,000
r
+ winner votes + looser votes 100% = 15% + 68
Required% = 100 = 32.7%
si
100 + 45% + 45% – 400
208
5% = 300
100% = 6000
28. (b)
an by 33. (c)
2019 2020 Net decrease %Decrease
n
Old New 1875
A 12500 10625 1875 100 = 15%
I. 100 112 12500
II. 100 ja 88
R s
B 34000 30600 3400 10%
III. 10 11
a th
100000 108416 15 3
Required ratio = =
10 2
108416 10842
34. (c)
10842
ty a
A= B
29. (b) 20 20
Let total votes polled = 100
A 23
A B =
B 17
64 36 40 680
ATQ, 17 289
28 252 35. (d)
252 Salary = 75000
100 100 = 900
28 Exp. 12000
30. (d) 14000
Let original no. be 100, then.
A
15000
A B C 10000
100 80 240 51000
ATQ, Savings = 21000
240 – 100 = 140 Donation = 75000 – 72000
240 – 80 = 160 = 3000
20 3000
Required% = 100 Required% = 100
160 75000
= 12.5% Loss = 4%
r
88 = 29400
= 350
100
si
41. (c)
= 308
38. (b) an byInitial Final
Given,
20
100
(A B) =
30
100
(A – B)
n
2A + 2B = 3A – 3B
Radius 100 52
5B = A
S. Ar (Radius)² ja 2500 676
R s
B 1
2500 – 676 =
Required% = 100 A 5
a th
2500
A = 500% of B
= 72.96%
ty a
di M
......-------......
A
r
(a) 6.25% loss (b) 12.5% gain (a) 5% loss (b) 6% profit
si
(c) 18.75 gain (d) 10.5% loss (c) 5% profit (d) 6% loss
2. The difference between the cost price and 6.
an by The price of some wooden furniture increases
selling price of a pair of shoes is Rs.1,200. by 65% when it passes through three hands.
If the profit is 15%, the selling price is: If the first and second sellers made a profit
n
of 20% and 25%, respectively, then find the
,d tksM+h twrs ds Ø;&ewY; vkSj foØ;&ewY; ds chpprofit percentage of the third seller.
ja
dk varj 1]200 #i;s gS ;fn ykHk 15» gS] rks foØ;
dqN ydM+h ds iQuhZpj dh dher rhu gkFkksa ls xqtj
R s
ewY; gS%
ij 65» c<+ tkrh gSA ;fn igys vkSj nwljs foØsrk us
a th
4. A horse was sold for Rs.60,000 at a profit of 8. A trader has a weighing balance that shows
20%. For what price should be have sold to 1300 g for a kg. He further marks up his cost
gain a 30% profit? price by 15%. The net profit percentage is:
,d ?kksMs+ dks 20» ds ykHk ij 60]000 #i;s eas cspk,d O;kikjh ds ikl ,d otu rjktw gS] rks ,d kg ds
x;kA 30» ykHk izkIr djus ds fy, mls fdl ewY; ij fy, 1300 g fn[kkrk gSA og vkxs vius Ø;&ewY; eas
cspuk pkfg, Fkk\ 15» dh o`f¼ djrk gSA 'kq¼ ykHk izfr'kr gSA
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 04) SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(a) Rs.64,000 (b) Rs.65,000 (a) 48.5% (b) 49.5%
(c) Rs.50,000 (d) Rs.55,000 (c) 50% (d) 45%
9. If the cost price is 72% of the selling price, 14. A tradesman marks his goods 20% above his
then what is the percentage of profit? (Correct cost price. If he allows his customer 20%
to 2 decimal places) discount on the marked price, how much profit
;fn ^Ø;&ewY;* foØ;&ewY; dk 72» gS] rks ykHk dkor loss does he make, if any:
izfr'kr D;k gS\ (2 n'keyo LFkkuksa rd lgh) ,d O;kikjh vius eky ij mlds Ø; ewY; ls 20» vfèkd
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
ewY; vafdr djrk gSA ;fn og vius xzkgd dks vafdr
(a) 38.89% (b) 35.75%
ewY; ij 20» dh NwV nsrk gS] rks mls fdruk ykHk ;k
(c) 32.25% (d) 28.75%
10. A dishonest trader says to customers that he gkfu gksrh gS] ;fn dksbZ gks\
sells his goods at a cost price, but he uses a SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
false weight and gains 12.5% as profit. How
(a) 2% loss (b) 4% loss
many grams does he use to weigh 1 kg?
,d csbZeku O;kikjh xzkgdksa ls dgrk gS fd og viuh (c) 1% profit (d) 3% profit
oLrq,a Ø;&ewY; ij csprk gS] ysfdu og xyr otu dk15. A businessman cheats by using faulty weights,
to the tune of 12% each time, when buying
mi;ksx djrk gS vkSj ykHk ds :i eas 12-5» ykHk v£tr
r
and selling material. What is the rise in his
djrk gSA 1kg otu djus ds fy, og fdrus xzke dk
si
profit percentage using faulty weights only?
mi;ksx djrk gS\
,d O;olk;h lkexzh [kjhnrs vkSj csprs le;] gj ckj
(a) 900 g
an by
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(b) 880.5 g 12» nks"kiw.kZ ckVksa dk mi;ksx djds /ks[kk nsrk gSA
nks"kiw.kZ ckVksa dk mi;ksx djds mlds ykHk izfr'k
n
(c) 850 g (d) 888.8 g
11. Ram sold a plot for Rs.4,00,000 at a 20% loss. fdruh o`f¼ gqbZ gS\
ja
For what price should he sell the plot to gain
R s
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
a 5% profit?
jke us ,d IykWV dks 20» gkfu ij 4]00]000 #i;s eas (a) 22% (b) 25.44%
a th
cspkA 5» ykHk izkIr djus ds fy, mls IykWV dks fdl (c) 24% (d) 26.32%
dher ij cspuk pkfg,\ 16. Apples were purchased at 100 for Rs.350 and
ty a
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 01) sold at Rs.48 a dozen. What is the profit or
(a) Rs.5,25,000 (b) Rs.5,20,000 loss percentage?
di M
18. A shopkeeper has 2220 kg of rice. A part of 22. The initial profit percentage on the sale of
which he sells at a 20% profit and the rest an item was 55%.If the cost price of the item
at a 12% profit. He gains 18% on the whole. went up by 24% but the selling price remained
The quantity (in kg) sold at a 12% profit is: the same, what would be the new profit
,d nqdkunkj ds ikl 2220 kg pkoy gSaA pkoyksa ds percentage?
,d Hkkx dks og 20» ykHk ij rFkk 'ks"k dks 12» ykHk fdlh OkLrq dh fcØh ij izkjafHkd ykHk izfr'kr 55»
ij csprk gSA mls dqy feykdj 18» dk ykHk izkIr gksrk FkkA ;fn ml oLrq ds Ø; ewY; eas 24» dh o`f¼ gksrh
gSA 12» ykHk ij csph xbZ ek=kk
kg esa)
( D;k gksxh\ gS] ysfdu foØ; ewY; ogh jgrk gS] rks u;k YkkHk izfr'kr
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 02) Kkr dhft,A
(a) 555 (b) 1210 SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(c) 1665 (d) 425 (a) 36% (b) 25%
19. Piyush sold a guitar to Anuj at 16% gain and (c) 28% (d) 33%
Anuj sold it to Mayank at 32% gain. If Mayank
1
paid Rs.3,828 for the guitar, what amount did 23. A shopkeeper sells an article at 13 % loss.
r
Piyush pay for the same? 2
si
If he sells it for Rs.1,274 more, then he gain
ih;w"k us vuqt dks 16» ds YkkHk ij ,d fxVkj cspk
11%. What is the cost price of the article?
vkSj vuqt us bls 32» ykHk ij e;ad dks csp fn;kA
an by
;fn e;ad us fxVkj ds fy, 3]828 #i;s dk Hkqxrku ,d nqdkunkj ,d OkLrq dks
1
13 % gkfu ij csprk gSA
n
fd;k] rks ih;w"k us mlds fy, fdruh jkf'k dk Hkqxrku 2
fd;k Fkk\ ;fn og bls 1]274 #i;s vf/d esa csprk gS] rks mls
ja 11» dk ykHk gksrk gSA oLrq dk Ø; ewY; D;k gS\
R s
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
(a) Rs.2,500 (b) Rs.3,200 SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
a th
cjkcj gSA ykHk ;k gkfu dk izfr'kr D;k gS\ ,d nqdkunkj us 1]200 #i;sa esa ,d lkbZfdy [kjhnh
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 03) vkSj mls 1]500 #i;sa esa csp fn;kA mldk ykHk@gkf
izzfr'kr Kkr dhft,A
2 2
(a) 39 % loss (b) 39 % profit SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
7 7
(a) 3% profit (b) 15% loss
2 2 (c) 30% loss (d) 25% profit
(c) 33 % profit (d) 33 % loss
7 7 25. Ramesh claims that he is selling onions at
21. Three-fourth of a consignment was sold at a Rs.36 per kg, which costs him Rs.40 per kg,
profit of 8% and the rest at a loss of 4%. If but he gives 800 grams instead of 1 kg. Find
A
there was an overall profit of Rs.600, then Ramesh’s percentage gain or loss.
find the value of the consignment. jes'k dk nkok gS fd og 36 #i;s izfrkg I;kt csp
,d [ksi dk rhu&pkSFkkbZ 8» ds ykHk ij vkSj 'ks"k 4»jgk gS] ftldh dher #i;s 40 izfr kg gS] ysfdu og
dh gkfu ij cspk x;k FkkA ;fn dqy feykdj #i;s 600 1 kg ds ctk; 800 xzke nsrk gSA jes'k dk izfr'kr
dk ykHk gqvk] rks [ksi dk ewY; Kkr dhft,A ykHk ;k gkfu Kkr dhft,A
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 04) SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(a) Rs.15,000 (b) Rs.6,000 (a) Gain 13.5% (b) Loss 13.5%
(c) Rs.18,000 (d) Rs.12,000 (c) Loss 12.5% (d) Gain 12.5%
26. A shopkeeper advertises for selling cloth at 30. A dealer sells his goods at a profit of 20%,
7% loss. However, by using a false scale of but uses a weight of 800 g in place of a kg
length 1 metre he actually gains 24%. What weight. Find his real gain percentage
will be the actual length he uses instead of ,d Mhyj vius lkeku dks 20» ds ykHk ij csprk gS]
1 metre ?
ysfdu ,d kg ds LFkku ij ek=k
800 g gh otu djrk
,d nqdkunkj 7» gkfu ij diM+k cspus dk foKkiu gSA mldk okLrfod ykHk izfr'kr Kkr dhft,A
djrk gSA ysfdu okLro eas og 1 ehVj yackbZ ds xyr SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
Ldsy dk mi;ksx djds 24» ykHk izkIr dekrk gSA 1 (a) 40% (b) 44%
ehVj ds Ldsy ds LFkku ij og fdl yackbZ dk Ldsy (c) 50% (d) 42%
mi;ksx dj jgk gS\ 31. Sofia sold an iPhone at the cost of Rs.46,068
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 01) at a loss of 12%. At what cost will she have
to sell it to get a profit of 18%?
(a) 75 cm (b) 31 cm
lksfiQ;k us 12» dh gkfu ij 46]068 #i;s dh dher
(c) 76 cm (d) 93 cm
ij ,d vkbZ&iQksu cspkA 18» dk ykHk izkIr djus ds
r
27. A person having bought goods for Rs.400 sells
half of it at a gain of 5%. At what gain
fy, mls bls fdl dher ij cspuk gksxk\
si
percentage must he sell the remainder, so as SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
to gain 25% on the whole? (a) Rs.61,773 (b) Rs.65,773
an by
,d O;fDr 400 #i;s eas Ø; fd, gq, eky dk vk/k
5» ds ykHk ij csp nsrk gSA mls 'ks"k eky dks 32. fdl
(c) Rs.58,350 (d) Rs.52,350
In a certain shop, the profit is 130% of the
n
cost. If the cost increases by 28% and the
ykHk izfr'kr ij cspuk pkfg, rkfd iwjs eky ij 25» selling price remains constant, then what is
ykHk gks\ ja
R s
the profit percentage to the nearest whole
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 02) number?
a th
(a) 30% (b) 25% ,d fuf'pr nqdku eas] ykHk] Ø; ewY; dk 130» gSA
(c) 20% (d) 45% ;fn Ø;ewY; eas 28» dh o`f¼ gksrh gS vkSj foØ; ewY;
28. Mohit purchased a table for Rs.1,260 and due fLFkj jgrk gS] rks (fudVre iw.kZ la[;k eas) ykHk izfr'k
ty a
eksfgr us ,d est 1]260 #i;s eas [kjhnh vkSj mlds (a) 75% (b) 60%
Åij dqN [kjksap yxus ds dkj.k mlus mls 1]197 #i;s (c) 59% (d) 80%
eas csp fn;kA mldk gkfu izfr'kr D;k gS\ 33. A man sells two cows for Rs.15,640 each,
gaining 15% on one and losing 15% on the
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
other. Find his total gain or loss.
(a) 7% (b) 4%
,d vkneh nks xk;ksa dks 15]640 #i;s izR;sd eas csprk
(c) 6% (d) 5% gS] ,d ij 15» dk ykHk vkSj nwljh ij 15» dh gkfu
29. If the cost of 20 books is equal to the selling gksrh gSA mldk dqy ykHk ;k gkfu Kkr dhft,A
price of 18 books, then the gain percentage
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
is:
A
35. A Microwave oven is sold in Hyderabad for SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
Rs.M. A retailer, Elahi from Hyderabad went
(a) 25.65% (b) 12.82%
to Madras and bought it for 25% less (when
compared to the price in Hyderabad). He (c) 28.75% (d) 13.41%
spends Rs.1,000 on transport to bring it from 39. Ramesh purchases a table and a chair for
Madras to Hyderabad. He sold it in Hyderabad Rs.3,900. He sells the table at a profit of 8%
for Rs.M making a profit of 10%. Find the and the chair at a profit of 16%. He earns a
value of M (in Rs.). profit of Rs.540. What is the difference
gSnjkckn esa ,d ekbØksoso vksou
Rs.M esa cspk tkrk between the original price of the table and
gSA ,d [kqnjk foØsrk] bykgh gSnjkckn ls enzkl x;k the chair?
vkSj bls 25» de eas [kjhnk (tc gSnjkckn dh dher jes'k 3]900 #i;sa esa ,d est vkSj ,d dqlhZ [kjhnrk
ls rqyuk dh tkrh gSA) og bls enzkl ls gSnjkckn ykus gSA og est dks 8» ds ykHk ij vkSj dqlhZ dks 16» ds
ds fy, ifjogu ij 1]000 #i;s [kpZ djrk gSA mlus ykHk ij csprk gSA mls 540 #i;s dk ykHk gksrk gSA es
bls gSnjkckn esa
Rs.M esa csp fn;k vkSj 10» dk ykHk vkSj dqlhZ ds ewy ewY; esa fdruk varj gS\
v£tr fd;kA M dk eku (#i;sa eas) Kkr dhft,A
r
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
si
(a) Rs.2,00 (b) Rs.1,800
(a) 6,305.8 (b) 6,258.8 (c) Rs.1,900 (d) Rs.1,700
36.
(c) 6,285.7 an by (d) 6,527.9
A dishonest dealer professes to sell his goods
40. A girl purchases 9 mangoes for Rs.90 and sells
10 mangoes for Rs.95. Find the gain or loss
n
at cost price but uses a false weight and thus
percentage.
gains 15%. For a kilogram, he uses a weight
ja
of (rounded off to one digit after decimal). ,d yM+dh 90 #Ik;s eas 9 vke [kjhnrh gS vkSj 10 vke
R s
,d Bx Mhyj vius eky dks Ø; ewY; ij cspus dk 95 #i;s esa csprh gSA ykHk ;k gkfu izfr'kr Kkr dhft,A
[kqysvke nkok djrk gSA ysfdu ,d xyr ckV dk mi;ksx
a th
okys ckV dk mi;ksx djrk gSA 41. Ram sold an item costing Rs.1,250 at a gain
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 02) of 18% to Ramesh. It was again sold by
di M
(a) 833.3 gm (b) 876.7 gm Ramesh to Shyam at a loss of 10%. Find the
(c) 869.6 gm (d) 898.33 gm selling price of Ramesh.
37. A watch is sold at a profit of 25%. Had it been jke us #i;s 1]250 dh ,d oLrq jes'k dks 18» ds ykHk
sold for Rs.120 less then, there would have
ij csphA bls jes'k }kjk ';ke dks fiQj ls 10» dh gkfu
been a less then of 15%. What is the cost price
in rupees? ij csp fn;k x;kA jes'k dk foØ; ewY; Kkr dhft,A
,d ?kM+h dks 25» ds ykHk ij cspk x;k gSA ;fn bls SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
120 #i;s de eas cspk tkrk rks 15» gkfu gksrhA #i;s (a) Rs.1,328.50 (b) Rs.1,428.50
esa Ø; ewY; D;k gS\ (c) Rs.1,427.50 (d) Rs.1,327.50
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 03) 42. By selling an article for Rs.33,000 a man gains
A
(a) Rs.400 (b) Rs.350 10%. To get a profit of 20%, he has to sell it
(c) Rs.200 (d) Rs.300 for:
38. A dishonest dealer sells the goods at 7% loss ,d oLrq dks 33]000 #i;s eas cspus ij ,d O;fDr dks
on cost price but uses 18% less weight. What
10» dk ykHk gksrk gSA 20» dk ykHk izkIr djus ds
is his percentage of profit? (Correct to 2
decimal places) fy, mls bls fdl ewY; ij cspuk gksxk\
,d csbZeku Mhyj oLrqvksa dks Ø;&ewY; ij 7» dh gkfu SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
ij csprk gS ysfdu 18» de otu dk mi;ksx djrk gSA (a) Rs.30,000 (b) Rs.35,000
mld s ykHk dk izfr'kr D;k gS\ (2 n'keyo LFkkuksa rd lgh) (c) Rs.36,000 (d) Rs.36,600
43. A man buys a machine for Rs. 5,000. After 44. Products pass successively through the hands
one year, he sells it for Rs. 6000. After two of three traders and each of them sells his
years, again he buys the same machine at Rs. goods at a profit of 30% of his cost price. If
8,000 and sells it for Rs.10,000. Find his the last trader sold the products for Rs. 300,
overall profit percentage for both the then how much did the first trader pay for
transactions. them?
,d vkneh Rs.5]000 esa ,d e'khu •jhnrk gSA ,d dksbZ eky rhu O;kikfj;ksa ds gkFkksa ls Øfed :i ls xqtjrk
o"kZ ds ckn] og bls Rs.6000 esa csprk gSA nks o"kZgS vkSj muesa ls çR;sd O;kikjh vius eky dks vius Ø;
ckn] og fiQj ls mlh e'khu dksRs.8]000 esa •jhnrk ewY; ds 30» ds ykHk ij csprk gSA ;fn vafre O;kikjh us
gS vkSj
Rs.10]000 esa csprk gSA nksuksa ysu&nsu ds fy,
eky dks #i;s 300 esa cspk] rks igys O;kikjh us bls fdrus
mldk lexz ykHk çfr'kr Kkr dhft,A esa •jhnk Fkk\
SSC CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023
SSC CGL TIER- II 03/03/2023
(a) 20.23%
(a) Rs. 330.55 (approx)
(b) 23.08% (b) Rs. 136.55 (approx)
r
(c) 18.75% (c) Rs. 240.55 (approx)
si
(d) 15.23% (d) Rs. 137.55 (approx)
an by ANSWER KEY
n
1.(b) 2.(b) ja 3.(c) 4.(b) 5.(b) 6.(a) 7.(a) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10.(d)
R s
a th
11.(a) 12.(b) 13.(d) 14.(b) 15.(b) 16.(a) 17.(d) 18.(a) 19.(a) 20.(a)
21.(d) 22.(b) 23.(c) 24.(d) 25.(d) 26.(a) 27.(d) 28.(d) 29.(a) 30.(c)
ty a
31.(a) 32.(d) 33.(a) 34.(a) 35.(c) 36.(c) 37.(d) 38.(d) 39.(b) 40.(b)
di M
SOLUTIONS
5. (b) Let C.P of pen be 100
1. (b) 166.44 114
Merchant Customer
114
Price 8 7 154.76 15476
16644
Quantity 28 36 = 106
6% Profit
224 252 6. (a) I II
20% 25%
1 25 20
12.5% =
Successive profit = 20 + 25 +
r
100
8
= 50%
si
252 – 224 Let III. profit 60x%
P/L = 100
224
an by 50x
50 + x + = 65
100
28
n
= 100 = 12.5% Profit
224 3x
= 15
2
SP – CP ja
R s
2. (b) P% = 100 x = 10%
CP 7. (a) Let CP = 100
a th
125 278000
1200
15 = 100 278000
CP 118 118
125
ty a
CP = 8000
= 262432
115
di M
r
18. (a) By allegation
80
20 12
si
= 525000
12. (b)
an by Trader Customer
Price 100 89
n
18
Quantity 78 100
ja 78 89
R s
6 2
a th
11 1100
P% = 100 = :
78 78 3 1
= 14.1% gain. 4 2220
ty a
100 – 96
P/L 100 = 4% Loss SP 17
100 =
CP 28
15. (b) 12% cheating on buying
28 – 17
12% cheating on selling L/P% = 100
28
overall profit:-
11
= 100
12 12 28
12 12
100 2
= 39 % Loss
24 + 1.44 = 25.44% 7
3 Rate 100 93
324
4
1 Quantity x cm 100 cm
96
4
x 93
Total SP = 324 + 96 = 420
20 600
Price 100 124
600
400 400 = 12000
20
x 100
22. (b) =
CP SP Profit 93 124
r
New 124 155 31 124
si
31 27. (d) Let the seels remainder at by allegation:-
P% = 100 = 25%
23. (c) 13
1
an by
124
27
x% profit
5 x
n
%=
2 200
ja
R s
CP SP
25
a th
200 173
+ (1274)
200 222
ty a
49 x – 25 = 20
5200
24. (d) SP = 1500 x = 45
CP = 1200 28. (d) SP = 1197
P = 300
CP = 1260
300
P% = 100 = 25% L = 63
1200
25. (d) 63
Ramesh Customer L% = 100
1260
Rate 10 9 = 5%
A
30. (c) CP 10
Dealer Customer 34. (a) =
SP 11
Gain = 11 – 10 = 1
Rate 5 6
1
Gain% = = 10%
Quantity 800 1000 10
35. (c) S.P in hydrabad = Rs. M
Price 2 3
3
S.P in Madras = M
4
3–2 ATQ,
Gain% = 100
2
33
= 50% M 11000 = 10 M
4
31. (a) Let, CP = 100
88 46068 4
M = 11000
7
46068
r
118 118 44000
88 M=
7
si
= 61773 = 6285.7
32. (d) an by 36. (c) Let the ares x gm. for 1 kg.
CP SP CP for Dealer = x
SP for dealer = 1000
n
Initial 100 230 ATQ,
x 100 20
New ja 128 230 = =
R s
1000 115 23
23x = 20000
a th
230 – 128
P% = 100 20000
128 x= = 869.6 gm.
23
102
ty a
= 100
128 37. (d)
CP SP
80%
di M
125 – 85 = 40 120
100 300
x
38. (d)
Dealer Customer
Rate 100 93
17 23
A
r
84 228 C.P S.P Profit
si
7 : 19 5,000 6,000 1,000
an by
7 + 19 = 26 3900
8,000
13, 000
10,000 2,000
3, 000
n
3900 3, 000
19 – 7 = 12 12 Profit% = × 100 = 23.08%
26 13, 000
ja
R s
= 1800 44. (b)
C.P S.P
a th
90
40. (b) C.P of 1 Mango = = 10 I. Trader 10 13
9
II. Trader 10 13
95 III. Trader 10 13
ty a
2197 300
0.5
L% = 100 = 5% 300
10 1000 1000 = Rs. 136.55
2197
......-------......
A
DISCOUNT
03
NwV@cV~Vk
1. Riya could not decide between discount of SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
30% or two successive discounts of 25% and (a) Rs.7.80 (b) Rs.700
5%, both given on shopping of Rs.3,840. What (c) Rs.790 (d) Rs.607.2
is the difference between both the discounts? 5. What is the single percentage discount
fj;k 30» dh NwV ;k 25» vkSj 5» dh nks Øfed NwVksaequivalent to two successive discounts of 15%
ds chp fu.kZ; ugha ys ik jgh Fkh] nksuksa and 5%?
dks 3]840
15% vkSj5% dh nks Øfed NwVksa ds cjkcj ,dy NwV
#Ik;sa dh [kjhnkjh ij fn;k tk jgk FkkA nksuksa NwVksa esa
izfr'kr D;k gS\
D;k varj gS\
r
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(a) 19.00% (b) 19.25%
si
(a) Rs.44 (b) Rs.48
(c) 18.00% (d) 18.25%
(c) Rs.42 (d) Rs.46
2.
an by
A shopkeeper makes a net profit of 44% on
selling an article at successive discounts of
6. A laptop is sold for Rs.65,520 after a discount
of 25%. What was the marked price of the
n
laptop?
10% and 20%. Find the net profit percentage,
,d ySiVkWi 25» dh NwV ds ckn 65]520 #i;s esa cspk
if the shopkeeper sells the same article at a
ja tkrk gSA ySiVkWi dk vafdr ewY; D;k Fkk\
R s
discount of 15%.
,d nqdkunkj ,d oLrq dks 10» vkSj 20» dh Øfed SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
a th
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 02) a 15% discount, he would have saved Rs.400.
(a) 50% (b) 70% Find the labelled price of the fan.
di M
(c) 30% (d) 40% lquhy us ,d ia[kk vafdr ewY; ij 10» dh NwV ij
3. The single discount equivalent to two [kjhnkA ;fn mlus bls 15» dh NwV ij [kjhnk gksrk] rks
successive discounts of 15% and 12% on an mls 400 #i;s dh cpr gksrhA ia[ks dk vafdr ewY; Kkr
article is:
dhft,A
,d oLrq ij 15» vkSj 12» dh nks Øekxr NwV fdl SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
,d ,dy NwV ds cjkcj gS\ (a) Rs.8,400 (b) Rs.7,500
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 03) (c) Rs.800 (d) Rs.8,000
(a) 3% (b) 25.2% 8. A shopkeeper gives two successive discounts
(c) 74.8% (d) 27% on a watch marked Rs.2,750. The first
4. A dealer buys an old cooler listed at Rs.650 discount given is 10%. If the customer pays
A
and gets successive discounts of 20% and Rs.2,103.75 for the watch, then what is the
10%. He spends Rs.38 on its repairs and sells second discount?
it at a profit of 20%. Find the selling price ,d nqdkunkj 2]750 #Ik;s ds vafdr ewY; okyh ?kM+h
of the cooler. ij nks Øfed NwV nsrk gSA nh xbZ igyh NwV 10» g
,d Mhyj 650 #i;s lwphc¼ ewY; ij ,d iqjkuk dwyj ;fn xzkgd ?kM+h ds fy, 2]103-75 #i;s dk Hkqxrku
[kjhnrk gS vkSj bl ij 20» vkSj 10» dh Øfed NwV djrk gS] rks nwljh NwV fdruh gS\
izkIr djrk gSA og bldh ejEer ij 38 #i;s [kpZ djrk SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
gS vkSj bls 20» ds ykHk ij csprk gSA dwyj dk foØ; (a) 15% (b) 30%
ewY; Kkr djsaA (c) 12% (d) 10%
9. The difference between a discount of 25% and 13. A hotel is giving a discount of 12% on the
two successive discounts of 15% and 10% on booking of 2 or more rooms. Additionally, the
a certain bill was Rs.25. Find the amount of hotel is offering a 5% discount only on
the bill. payment using any card of SBI. Rakesh booked
,d fuf'pr fcy ij 25» dh NwV vkSj 15» vkSj 10» 2 rooms in the hotel for a day at the rate of
Rs.1,500 per room per day. While checking
dh nks Øfed NwVksa ds chp dk varj 25 #i;s FkkA fcy out, he paid the bill using SBI Silver Card.
dh jkf'k Kkr dhft,A How much amount did he have to pay?
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 01) ,d gksVy 2 ;k vf/d dejksa dh cqfdax ij 12» dh NwV
(a) Rs.3,333.33 (b) Rs.2,500 ns jgk gSA blds vykok] gksVy dsoy ,lchvkbZ ds fdlh
(c) Rs.833.33 (d) Rs.1,666.67 Hkh dkMZ dk mi;ksx djds Hkqxrku djus ij 5» dh NwV n
10. The marked price of an article is Rs.10,927. jgk gSA jkds'k us gksVy eas ,d fnu ds fy, 1]500 #i;s
Due festive season, a certain percentage of
izfr dejk izfr fnu dh nj ls 2 dejs cqd fd,A psd
discount is declared. Raju buys an article at
reduced price and sells it at Rs.109,27, and
vkmV djrs le; mlus ,lchvkbZ flYoj dkMZ ls fcy dk
Hkqxrku fd;kA mls fdruh jkf'k dk Hkqxrku djuk iM+k\
r
makes a profit of 11.5%. What was the
percentage discount offered? SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
si
,d oLrq dk vafdr ewY; 10]927 #i;s gSA R;ksgkjksa ds(a) Rs.2,498 (b) Rs.1,254
(c) Rs.2,508 (d) Rs.2,618
ekSle ds dkj.k] ,d fuf'pr izfr'kr eas NwV ?kksf"kr dh
an by 14. A shopkeeper offers three types of discount
tkrh gSA jktw ,d oLrq dks de dh xbZ dher ij [kjhnrk schemes for buyers. Which of them has the
n
gS vkSj mls 10]927 #i;s ij csprk gS] vkSj 11-5» dk maximum discount percentage?
ykHk dekrk gSA rks crkb, fd fdrus izfr'kr dh NwV nh ,d nqdkunkj [kjhnkjksa ds fy, rhu izdkj dh NwV Ldhe
xbZ Fkh\
ja
R s
iznku djrk gSA bueas ls fdl Ldhe dk NwV izfr'kr
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 02) lcls vf/d gS\
a th
he had bought it for 24% discount, he would 15» vkSj 5» dh Øfed NwVA
have got the watch for Rs.2400 less. The III. 20% discount.
di M
16. Successive discounts of 18% and 22% are SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
equal to a single discount of ______. (a) Rs.2,500 (b) Rs.2,225.5
18» vkSj 22» dh Øfed NwV dh ,dy NwV ______ ds
(c) Rs.2,375.5 (d) Rs.2,137.5
cjkcj gSA
21. A discount of 20% is given for the purchase
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 01) of two books by a bookseller and a discount
(a) 36.04% (b) 35.04% of 25% is offered if a customer buys more than
(c) 37.04% (d) 34.04% two books. A 10% discount is being offered
17. If 3 coconuts are offered free on purchase of
to all the customers on purchase of one book.
12 coconuts, priced Rs.25 each, what is the
An additional 5% discount will be given to
effective discount on each coconut?.
students. Sohan, a student of M.Com. in
;fn 25 #i;s izR;sd dh dher okys 12 ukfj;y [kjhnus college, bought a book for Rs.513. What was
ij 3 ukfj;y eqÝr fn, tkrs gSa] rks izR;sd ukfj;y ij the marked price of the book?
izHkkoh NwV D;k gS\
,d iqLrd foØsrk xzkgdksa dks nks iqLrdsa [kjhnus ij 20
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
dh NwV vkSj nks ls vf/d iqLrdsa [kjhnus ij 25» dh
(a) 20% (b) 24%
r
(c) 20.83% (d) 15% NwV nsrk gSA ,d iqLrd [kjhnus okyh lHkh xzkgdks
si
18. A dealer buys an article listed at Rs.3,000 and 10» dh NwV nh tk jgh gSA Nk=kksa dks vyx ls 5» d
gets successive discounts of 15% and 15%. vkSj NwV nh tk,xhA ,d dkWyst eas ,e-dkWe- dh i<+
an by
He spends Rs.250 on transportation and sells
it at a profit of 20%. Find the selling price
djus okys Nk=k] lksgu us 513 #i;s dh ,d iqLrd [kjhnhA
iqLrd dk vafdr ewY; D;k Fkk\
n
of the article
,d Mhyj 3]000 #i;s vafdr ewY; dh ,d oLrq [kjhnrk SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
ja
gS vkSj 15» ,oa 15» dh Øekxr NwVsa izkIr djrk gSA(a) Rs.650
R s
og ifjogu ij 250 #i;s [kpZ djrk gS vkSj bls 20» (b) Rs.540
a th
ds ykHk ij csprk gSA oLrq dk foØ; ewY; Kkr djsaA (c) Rs.600
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 03) (d) Rs.605
(a) Rs.3,300 (b) Rs.2,901
22. What will be the cost price of the goods if a
ty a
the final amount to be paid (in Rs.) by a a skirt marked at Rs.800, how much would
customer, if he buys five products each of she need to pay?
price Rs.500.
,d nqdku eas 5 izfr'kr dh NwV iznku dh tkrh gS vkSj fØlel dh fcØh ij ,d nqdku eas lHkh oLrq,¡ 30»
;fn NwV ds ckn dqy ns; jkf'k 2]000 #i;s ls vf/d NwV ij miyC/ ij gSaA ;fn tSLehu 800 #i;s vafdr
gS] rks 10 izfr'kr dh vfrfjDr NwV iznku dh tkrh gSA ewY; okyh LdVZ [kjhnrh gS] rks mls fdruk Hkqxrku d
;fn xzkgd 500 #i;s izR;sd dh dher ds ik¡p mRikn gksxk\
[kjhnrk gS] rks mlds }kjk Hkqxrku dh tkus okyh jkf'k(a) Rs.476 (b) Rs.400
(#i;s eas) Kkr dhft;sA (c) Rs.770 (d) Rs.560
24. A dealer marks his goods at 15% above the 29. A shopkeeper offers a cash discount of Rs.85
cost price and allows a discount of 5% for cash first and then two successive discounts of 10%
payment. His profit percentage is: and 2% on the marked price of a fan. If the
,d O;kikjh viuh oLrqvksa dks Ø; ewY; ls 15» vf/d marked price of the fan is Rs.1,285, what is
ij vafdr djrk gS vkSj udn Hkqxrku ds fy, 5» dh its selling price (in Rs.)?
NwV nsrk gSA mldk ykHk izfr'kr fdruk gksxk\ ,d nqdkunkj ,d ia[ks ds vafdr ewY; ij igys 85
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 01) #i;s dh udn NwV nsrk gS vkSj fiQj 10» vkSj 2» dh
(a) 9.25% (b) 7.25% Øekxr nks NwV nsrk gSA ;fn ia[ks dk vafdr ewY; 1]28
(c) 11.25% (d) 10.25%
25. A shopkeeper listed the marked price of a
#i;s gS] rks mldk foØ; ewY; (#i;sa esa) D;k gS\
chair at a certain amount. If the shopkeeper SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
declares a 15% discount and sold it at (a) Rs.1058.4 (b) Rs.1000.4
Rs.1,445, then what is the marked price?
(c) Rs.958.4 (d) Rs.1100
,d nqdkunkj us] ,d dqlhZ dk vafdr ewY; ,d fuf'pr
30. A megastore is offering 20% discount on all
jkf'k ij j[kkA ;fn nqdkunkj 15» NwV nsrk gS vkSj mls
r
grocery items. Sakshi bought one grocery item
1]445 #i;s ij csprk gS] rks vafdr ewY; D;k Fkk\ marked at Rs.400. What is its cost price if
si
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 02) the store earned a profit of 25% after giving
(a) Rs.1,750 (b) Rs.1,800 the discount?
26.
(c) Rs.1,700
an by (d) Rs.1,850
A shopkeeper claims to sell his article at a ,d esxkLVksj lHkh fdjkuk lkekuksa ij 20» dh NwV n
n
discount of 10%, but marks his articles by jgk gSA lk{kh us 400 #i;s vafdr ewY; dk ,d fdjkuk
increasing the cost of each by 20%. His gain lkeku [kjhnkA ;fn NwV nsus ds ckn LVksj us 25» d
percentage is:ja ykHk v£tr fd;k rks mldk Ø; ewY; D;k gS\
R s
,d nqdkunkj viuh oLrq dks 10» dh NwV ij cspus
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
a th
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 03) 31. A grocery shop is offering 10% discount on
(a) 18% (b) 12% the purchase of Rs.500 and above. A 5%
di M
32. A shopkeeper offers the following three 35. Raghav went to a shopping mall to purchase
schemes. clothes. He had two coupons with him, but
,d nqdkunkj fuEUkfyf[kr rhu Ldheksa dh is'kd'k djrk gSA only one can be used on a single day. Using
the first coupon, a total discount of 30% could
Scheme-I: Two successive discounts of 15%
be obtained on the total amount. Using the
and 25%
second coupon, he will get 80% off on the
;kstuk &I % 15» vkSj 25» dh nks Øfed NwV price of the costliest shirt if he buys at least
Scheme-II: Buy 5, get 3 free 3 shirts. What is the price at which Raghav
can purchase 3 shirts at a minimum price if
;kstuk &II % 5 [kjhnsa] 3 eqÝr ik,a
the prices of the three shirts are Rs.1,250,
Scheme-III: Buy 4, get 6 Rs.1,540 and Rs.1,375?
;kstuk &III % 4 [kjhnsa] 6 ik,a jk?ko ,d 'kkWfiax ekWy esa diM+s [kjhnus x;k FkkA
Which scheme is the best for customers? ikl nks dwiu Fks] ysfdu ,d fnu eas dsoy ,d gh
xzkgdksa ds fy, lcls vPNh Ldhe dkSu&lh gS\ bLrseky fd;k tk ldrk gSA igys dwiu dk mi;skx djds
r
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 01) dqy jkf'k ij 30» dh dqy NwV izkIr dh tk ldrh gSA
nwljs dwiu dk mi;ksx djrs gq,] ;fn og de ls de
si
(a) Scheme - I
Ldhe - I 3 'kVZ [kjhnrk gS] rks mls lcls eg¡xh 'kVZ dh dher
an by
(b) Scheme - III
ij 80» dh NwV feysxhA ;fn rhu 'kVZ dh dher 1]250
#i;s] 1]540 #i;s vkSj 1]375 #i;s gS] rks jk?ko U;wure
n
Ldhe - III
dher ij 3 'kVsZ fdl dher ij [kjhn ldrk gS\
ja
(c) Scheme - II
R s
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
Ldhe - II
(a) Rs.2,760
a th
(d) Rs.2,933
It is sold for Rs.10,000 with two consecutive
discounts. If the first discount is 10%, then 36. An article costs Rs.4,000 to a shopkeeper, who
di M
what is the second discount? marks its price at Rs.8,400. The shopkeeper
sells it to a customer at a discount of 25%.
,d Vhoh lsV dk eqfnzr ewY; 14]500 #i;s gSA bls yxkrkj The customer gets a further discount of 15%
nks NwV ds lkFk 10]000 #i;s eas cspk tkrk gSA ;fnon the discounted price if the customer
igyh NwV 10» gS] rks nwljh NwV fdruh gS\ redeems a coupon issued by the store
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 02) previously. What is the profit percentage (to
the nearest integer) earned by the shopkeeper
(a) 23.37% (b) 25.37%
in this transaction?
(c) 20.37% (d) 27.37%
,d nqdkunkj ds fy, ,d oLrq dh dher 4]000 #i;s
34. Raghav purchased a shirt at Rs.1,500 and
marked up the price of the shirt by 40%. What gS] tks bldh dher 8]400 vafdr djrk gSA nqdkunkj
A
is the discount percentage he has to offer in bls xzkgd dks 25» ds NwV ij csprk gSA ;fn xzkgd
order to get a profit of Rs.75? LVksj }kjk igys ls tkjh fd, x, dwiu dks bLrseky
jk?ko us ,d 'kVZ dks 1]500 #i;s eas [kjhnk vkSj 'kVZdjrk gS] rks xzkgd dks fj;k;rh ewY; ij 15» dk vkSj
dh dher eas 40» dh o`f¼ dhA 75 #i;s dk ykHk izkIr NwV izkIr gksrk gSA bls lkSns esa nqdkunkj }kjk
djus ds fy, mls fdruk izfr'kr NwV nsuk gksxk\ ykHk izfr'kr (fudVre iw.kkZad rd) fdruk gS\
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 03) SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(a) 25% (b) 15% (a) 34% (b) 51%
(c) 75% (d) 50% (c) 42% (d) 36%
37. Sita gets a discount of 20% on Rs.3,000 juicer 41. Find the single equivalent discount for
mixer machine. Since she pays cash, she gets successive discounts of 12%, 18% and 25% on
additional 5% discount too. How much does the marked price of a car.
she pay?
,d dkj ds vafdr ewY; ij nh xbZ 12»] 18» vkSj 25»
lhrk dks 3]000 #i;s dh twlj feDlj e'khu ij 20»
dh Øfed NwV fdl ,dy NwV ds lerqY; gS\
dh NwV feyrh gSA pwafd og udn Hkqxrku djrh gS]
SSC CGL TIER- II 03/03/2023
blfy, mls vfrfjDr 5» dh NwV Hkh feyrh gSA og
fdruk Hkqxrku djrh gS\ (a) 35.28%
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 02) (b) 42.65%
(a) Rs.2,280 (b) Rs.2,280 (c) 40.25%
(c) Rs.2,282 (d) Rs.2,278
(d) 45.88%
38. The cost price of an article is Rs.800. After
allowing a discount of 10%, a gain of 12.5% 42. A dishonest trader marks up his goods by 50%
was made. The marked price of the article is: and then allows a discount of 20% on its
r
,d oLrq dk Ø; ewY; 800 #i;s gSA 10» dh NwV nsus ds marked price. Additionally, he uses a faulty
si
scale which measures 900 gm. for 1 kg. shows.
ckn 12-5» dk ykHk gqvkA oLrq dk vafdr ewY; Kkr dhft,A
What will be his net profit percentage (rounded
(a) Rs.1,300
an by
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
(b) Rs.1,200
off to the nearest integer)?
,d csbZeku O;kikjh vius eky ij 50» vkf/d ewY; vafdr
n
(c) Rs.1,000 (d) Rs.1,100
djrk gS vkSj fiQj mlds vafdr ewY; ij 20» dh NwV nsrk
39. A shopkeeper allows a discount of 12% to his
ja gSA blds vfrfjDr] og ,d nks"kiw.kZ rjktw dk mi;ksx djrk
R s
customers and still gains 18%. Find the gS tks900 gm. ds fy, 1 kg. fn[kkrk gSA mldk 'kq¼
marked price of an article which costs Rs.528 ykHk izfr'kr (fudVre iw.kk±d rd) D;k gksxk\
a th
fiQj Hkh 18» dk ykHk izkIr djrk gSA ,d oLrq dk (c) 27 (d) 24
vafdr ewY; Kkr dhft, ftldk Ø;ewY; nqdkunkj ds 43. Two successive discounts of 10% and 10% will
di M
(a) 1,56,100 (b) 1,58,225 (a) Rs. 550 (b) Rs. 600
(c) 1,56,250 (d) 1,55,500 (c) Rs. 500 (d) Rs. 650
ANSWER KEY
1.(b) 2.(b) 3.(b) 4.(d) 5.(b) 6.(b) 7.(d) 8.(a) 9.(d) 10.(a)
11.(c) 12.(b) 13.(c) 14.(c) 15.(a) 16.(a) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(d) 20.(d)
21.(c) 22.(a) 23.(d) 24.(a) 25.(c) 26.(c) 27.(c) 28.(a) 29.(a) 30.(a)
31.(b) 32.(c) 33.(a) 34.(a) 35.(b) 36.(a) 37.(a) 38.(c) 39.(b) 40.(c)
r
si
an by
n
ja
R s
a th
ty a
di M
A
SOLUTIONS
1. (b) 6. (b)
I. case: 30% Discount S.P
II. case: 25% and 5% Discount M.P = 100
(100 – D)
25 5
Eff. Discount = 25 5 – 65520 100
100 =
75
= 28.75%
= 87,360
Difference = 30 – 28.75 = 1.25%
7. (d)
1.25 5% = 400
× 3840 = 48 Rs.
100 400
r
2. (b) 100% = 100
5
si
200 = 8000
Effective Discount = 10 20 –
100 8. (a)
= 28%
an by Discount = 2750 – 2103.75
= 646.25
n
CP 100 – D 72 1 100 Let, be the II discount
= = = = (say)
MP 100 P 144 2 200 10x 646.25
ja 10 x – 100
R s
100 – 15 85 100 2750
SP = × MP = × 200
100 100
a th
9x
= 170 10 23.5
10
170 – 100 9x 135
Profit = 100 = 70% = 13.5 =
100
ty a
10 10
3. (b) x = 15%
di M
15 12 9. (d)
Eff. Discount = 15 12 –
100 15 ×10
Eff. Discount = 15 +10 – = 23.5
= 27 – 1.8 100
= 25.2% 25 – 23.5 = 1.5% 25
4. (d) 25
100% 1000
15
200
Eff. Discount = 20 10 – = 1666.67
100
10. (a)
= 28% Let CP = 100
72 – x% 11.5%
C.P = 650 = 468 M.P C.P S.P = M.P
100
A
SP 111.5 = MP
120 11.5
S.P = (468 38)
100 x% = 100
111.5
= 607.2 Rs. = 10.3%
5. (b) 11. (c)
15 5 24% – 12% = 12% = 2400
Eff. Discount = 15 5 –
100 2400
100% 100
= 20 – 0.75 12
= 19.25% = 20,000
r
14. (c)
100
100
si
I. 10 10 – = 19% = 14.5%
100
513 100
II. 15 5 –
an by
20
100
= 19%
85.5
= M.P
n
M.P = Rs. 600
III. 20% maximum.
22. (a)
15. (a) ja MP 100 P
R s
=
90 – 68 CP 100 – D
D= 100
a th
90 100 108
=
22 CP 90
= 100 = 24.44%
90
ty a
9000
16. (a) CP = Rs. 83
108
18 22
di M
15 ×15
Eff. Discount = 15 + 15 – 1445
100 M. P = 100
Eff. Discount = 30 – 2.25 85
= 27.75% = 1700
72.25 26. (c)
C.P 3000 250
100 MP CP SP
= 2417.5 90
120 100 120 = 108
120 100
S.P = 2417.5 = Rs. 2901 Gain = 8%
100
r
4500 900
190 D% = 100
si
19 10 – = 27.1% 14500 29
100
29. (c)
I.
an by
Step: 1285 – 85 = 1200
Eff. Discount = 10 x –
10x 900
100
=
29
n
20 9 900
10 x=
II. Step: Eff. Discount = 10 2 –
ja 100 10 29
R s
= 11.8% 9x 610
=
a th
10 29
88.2
S.P = 1200 610 10
100 x=
29 9
ty a
= Rs. 1058.4
= 23.37%
di M
= 750
70
S.P = × (1250 + 1540 + 1375)
10 100
Eff. Discount = 10 1 – = 11 – 0.1
100 II. Coupon:
= 10.9%
20
S.P = × 1540 + 308 + 1250 + 1375
89.1 100
Amount to pay = 750
100 = Rs. 2933
= Rs. 668.25 Coupon I gives minimum price.
r
MP 100 P 100 150 90 120
si
38. (c) =
CP 100 – D
120 – 90
Profit% = 100
M.P =
an by
800 112.5
33%
90
n
90
43. (c)
= Rs. 1000
ja We know,
R s
MP 100 P D1 D2
39. (b) =
a th
Eff. Dis = D1 + D2 –
CP 100 – D 100
528 118 10 10
MP = = 10 10 –
100
ty a
88
= 19%
= Rs. 708
di M
44. (c)
40. (c)
100 – D
S.P = M.P
100 – D 100
S.P = M.P
100
330 100
M.P =
87500 100 55
M.P =
56
= 600
= 156250
......-------......
A
SIMPLE INTEREST
04
lk/kj.k C;kt
1. Rs.2,500, when invested for 8 years at a given nekuh us 7]500 #i;s dh ykxr okyh ,d oLrq [kjhnh
rate of simple interest per year, amounted to vkSj mlh ds fy, Mkmu isesaV ds :i esa 3]500 #i;s
Rs.3,725 on maturity. What was the rate of
simple interest that was paid per annum?
dk Hkqxrku fd;kA ;fn 'ks"k jkf'k ds fy, fy;k x;k
lk/kj.k C;kt 9» izfr o"kZ gS vkSj nekuh us [kjhn ds
tc 2]500 #i;s izfr o"kZ lk/kj.k C;kt dh nh xbZ nj
4 eghus ckn cdk;k jkf'k dk Hkqxrku fd;k] rks nekuh
ij 8 o"kksaZ ds fy, fuos'k fd, tkrs gSa] rks ifjDdrk
us 4 eghus ds ckn C;kt ds :i eas fdruk Hkqxrku fd;k\
ij 3]725 #Ik;s dh jkf'k izkIr gksrh gSA izfr o"kZ Hkqxrku
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
fd, tkus okys lk/kj.k C;kt dh nj D;k Fkh\
r
(a) Rs.120 (b) Rs.100
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
si
(c) Rs.132 (d) Rs.125
(a) 6% (b) 6.125% 5. A sum of Rs.6,000 is to be paid back in two
2.
(c) 6.25% an by (d) 5.875%
A person lent certain sum of money at the
equal annual instalments; each instalment is
to be paid at the end of every year. How much
n
annual rate of 25 percent on simple interest. is each instalment if the interest is
In 6 years the interest amounted to Rs.360 compounded annually at 2% p.a.? (Rounded
ja
more than the sum lent. What is the sum lent? off up to two decimal places)
R s
,d O;fDr fdlh fuf'pr jkf'k dks 25 izfr'kr dh ok£"kd 6]000 #i;s dh jkf'k nks leku ok£"kd fd'rksa esa pqdkbZ
a th
nj ls lk/kj.k C;kt ij m/kj nsrk gSA 6 o"kksaZ dk C;kt] tkuh gS_ izR;sd fd'r dk Hkqxrku izR;sd o"kZ ds var e
m/kj nh xbZ jkf'k ls 360 #i;s vf/d gks tkrk gSA fd;k tkuk gSA ;fn C;kt 2» izfr o"kZ ds nj ls ok£"kd
mèkkj nh xbZ jkf'k D;k gS\ :i ls pØo`f¼ fd;k tkrk gS] rks izR;sd fd'r fdruh
ty a
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 02) gksxh\ (n'keyo ds nks LFkkuksa rd iw.kkZafdr)
(a) Rs.600 (b) Rs.360 SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
di M
(a) Rs.16,000 (b) Rs.10,000 Rs.832 in 2 years. What will Rs.860 becomes
(c) Rs.15,000 (d) Rs.12,000 in 4 years at the same rate of simple interest?
4. Damani purchased an item costing Rs.7,500 lk/kj.k C;kt ij 640 #i;s dh /ujkf'k 2 o"kZ esa 832
and paid Rs.3,500 as a down payment for the #i;s gks tkrh gSA lk/kj.k C;kt dh leku nj ij 4 o"kZ
same. If the simple interest charged for the eas 860 #i;s fdrus gks tk,axs\
remaining amount is 9% per annum and
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
Damani cleared all dues after 4 months of the
purchase, how much did Damani pay after 4 (a) Rs.1,250 (b) Rs.1,376
months as interest? (c) Rs.1,426 (d) Rs.1,150
8. Rs.5,000 is divided into two parts such that 5250 #i;s dh ,d jkf'k 11 izfr'kr izfro"kZ dh nj lss
if one part is invested at 4% and the other fdrus le; eas lk/kj.k C;kt ij 9870 #i;s gks tk;sxh\
at 5%, then the whole annual interest from
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
both the sums is Rs.223. How much was
(a) 8 years (b) 14 years
invested at 4%?
(c) 2 years (d) 15 years
5]000 #i;s dks nks Hkkxksa eas bl izdkj foHkkftr13. fd;kA certain sum of money becomes triple of
tkrk gS fd ,d Hkkx dks 4» dh nj ls vkSj nwljs dks itself in 26 years at simple interest. In how
5» dh nj ls fuos'k fd;k tkrk gS] rks nksuksa jkf'k;ksa lsmany years it will becomes five times of itself?
izkIr dqy ok£"kd C;kt 223 #i;s gSA 4» ij fdruk 26 o"kksaZ esa ,d fuf'pr jkf'k lk/kj.k C;kt ij Lo;a
fuos'k fd;k x;k Fkk\ dh rhu xquk gks tkrh gSA fdrus o"kksaZ esa og Lo;
ik¡p xquk gks tk,xh\
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
(a) Rs.2,600 (b) Rs.2,700
(a) 64 years (b) 52 years
(c) Rs.2,400 (d) Rs.2,300 (c) 56 years (d) 60 years
14. A sum of money invested at simple interest
r
9. Suman paid Rs.9,600 in interest on a loan she
obtained 5 years ago with a simple interest 17
si
rate of 16%. What was the amount of the loan becomes of itself in 2 years and 6 months.
10
she had taken?
an by
lqeu us 5 o"kZ igys 16» dh lk/kj.k C;kt nj ij
fy, x, ,d ½.k ij C;kt ds :i eas 9]600 #i;s dk
What is the rate of interest per annum?
,d jkf'k lk/kj.k C;kt ij fuos'k djus ij 2 o"kZ rFkk
n
17
Hkqxrku fd;kA mlus fdruk ½.k fy;k Fkk\ 6 eghus esa Lo;a dh gks tkrh gSA C;kt dh ok£"kd
10
ja
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
R s
nj D;k gS\
(a) Rs.13,250 (b) Rs.12,500 SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
a th
if the interest is compounded half yearly? and Rs.4,060 in 8 years at simple interest. Find
the approximate rate percentage per annum?
;fn C;kt v¼Zok£"kd :i ls ns; gS] rks nks o"kksaZ eas
di M
17. A car with a price of Rs.6,50,000 is bought 21. A sum is deposited in a bank which gives simple
by making some down payment. On the interest. The sum becomes 1.25 times in 3
balance, a simple interest of 10% is charged years. If there is a requirement of Rs.7,60,000
in lump sum and the money is to be paid in after seven years, how much amount (in Rs.)
20 equal annual instalments of Rs.25,000. How should one deposit to fulfil the requirement?
much is the down payment? ,d jkf'k ,d cSad eas tek dh tkrh gS tks lk/kj.k
6]50]000 #i;s dh dher okyh dkj dqN Mkmu isesaV C;kt nsrk gSA jkf'k 3 o"kksaZ esa 1-25 xquk gks tk
(rRdky Hkqxrku) djds [kjhnh tkrh gSAS 'ks"k jkf'k ij];fn lkr o"kksaZ ds ckn 7]60]000 #i;s dh vko';drk
,deq'r 10» dk lk/kj.k C;kt yxk;k tkrk gS vkSj gks] rks ml vko';drk dks iwjk djus ds fy, fdlh dks
jkf'k dk Hkqxrku 25]000 #i;s dh 20 leku ok£"kd fdruh jkf'k (#i;s esa) tek djuh pkfg,\
fd'rksa eas fd;k tkuk gSA Mkmu isesaV (rRdky Hkqxrku) SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
dh jkf'k fdruh gS\ (a) 5,20,000 (b) 5,70,000
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 02) (c) 4,80,000 (d) 6,00,000
(a) Rs.1,55,945 (b) Rs.1,95,455 22. What annual instalment will discharge a debt of
Rs.9,600 due in 5 years at 10% simple interest?
r
(c) Rs.1,94,555 (d) Rs.1,45,955
18. A sum of money amounts to Rs.767 in 3 years, 5 o"kksaZ esa 10» lk/kj.k C;kt ij ns; 9]600 #i;s ds
si
and to Rs.806 in 4 years on simple interest ½.k dks fdruh ok£"kd fd'rksa ls pqdrk fd;k tk,xk\
at 6% annum. What is the sum? SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
an by
,d /ujkf'k 6» ok£"kd lk/kj.k C;kt nj ij 3 o"kZ esa
767 #i;s vkSj 4 Ok"kZ eas 806 #i;s gks tkrh gSA rks
(a) Rs.1450 (b) Rs.1450
n
(c) Rs.1500 (d) Rs.1600
jkf'k D;k Fkh\ 23. Find the simple interest on Rs.2,700 for 8
months at 5 paisa per rupee per month?
ja
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
R s
(a) Rs.600 (b) Rs.560 2]700 #i;s ij 8 eghus ds fy, 5 iSls izfr #i;s izfr
ekg dh nj ls lk/kj.k C;kt Kkr dhft,\
a th
3625 in all from both of them as interest. What 24. In a certain duration of time, a sum become 2 times
is the annual rate of interest? itself at the rate of 5% per annum simple interest.
di M
920 less than the sum lent. What is the sum the principal amount becomes 3 times in 10
lent? years. What is the yearly rate of simple
,d O;fDr fdlh fuf'pr jkf'k dks 7 izfr'kr dh ok£"kd interest offered by the firm?
nj ls lk/kj.k C;kt ij m/kj nsrk gS rFkk 11 o"kksaZ easvuqjk/k viuk iSlk ,d iQeZ eas fuos'k djrh gS] tgk¡
izkIr fd;k x;k C;kt m/kj nh xbZ jkf'k ls 920 #Ik;s ewy jkf'k 10 o"kksaZ eas 3 xquk gks tkrh gS] iQeZ }
de gSA m/kj nh xbZ jkf'k D;k gS\ tkus okyh lk/kj.k C;kt dh ok£"kd nj D;k gS\
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 01) SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
(a) Rs.41200 (b) Rs.4000 (a) 25% (b) 20%
(c) Rs.52000 (d) Rs.2400 (c) 22% (d) 18%
26. A certain amount will become six times in eksaVh us 2 o"kZ ckn ,d fuf'pr jkf'k ij 480 #i;s ds
20 years. How long does it take for the same lk/kj.k C;kt dk Hkqxrku fd;kA nj 8» ok£"kd FkhA
amount to become 5 times? Assume the same
rate of simple interest in each case.
jkf'k Kkr dhft,A
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
,d fuf'pr jkf'k 20 o"kksaZ eas Ng xquk gks tk,xhA mlh(a) Rs.2,200 (b) Rs.2,000
jkf'k dks 5 xquk gksus esa fdruk le; yxrk gS\ izR;sd (c) Rs.3,000 (d) Rs.2,500
ekeys eas lk/kj.k C;kt dh leku nj eku ysaA 31. In how many least number of complete years
a sum of money become more than four times
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
of itself at the rate of 50 percent per annum
(a) 16 years 8 months on simple interest?
(b) 15 years 8 months ,d jkf'k 50 izfr'kr izfro"kZ dh nj ls lk/kj.k C;kt
(c) 15 years ij de ls de fdrus iw.kZ o"kksaZ esa Lo;a ds pkj xquk l
(d) 16 years vf/d gks tkrh gS\
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
27. A certain sum of money is given at a certain
r
rate for 3 years. Had it been given at 5% (a) 9 years (b) 7 years
(c) 6 years (d) 5 years
si
higher rate, it would have fetched Rs.600
more. Find the sum. 32. A person borrows Rs.1,00,000 from a bank at
10% per annum simple interest and clears the
an by
dksbZ fuf'pr jkf'k ,d fuf'pr nj ij 3 o"kksaZ ds fy,
nh tkrh gSA ;fn ;g 5» vf/d nj ij nh xbZ gksrh]
debt in five years. If the instalment paid at
the end of the first, second, third and fourth
n
;g 600 #i;s vf/d v£tr djrh A og jkf'k Kkr dhft,A years to clear the debt are Rs.10,000,
Rs.20,000, Rs.30,000 and Rs.40,000,
ja
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
R s
respectively, what amount should be paid at
(a) Rs.8,000 (b) Rs.5,000 the end of the fifth year to clear the debt?
a th
(c) Rs.6,000 (d) Rs.4,000 ,d O;fDr ,d cSad ls 10» ok£"kd lk/kj.k C;kt ij
28. In how much time will a sum of Rs. 10200 1]00]000 #i;s m/kj ysrk gS vkSj ik¡p o"kksaZ eas ½.k
amounts to Rs. 19125 at the rate of 12.5 Hkqxrku djrk gSA ;fn ½.k pqdkus ds fy, igys] nwljs]
ty a
percent per annum at simple interest? rhljs vkSj pkSFks o"kZ ds var eas Hkqxrku dh xbZ
10200 #i;s dh ,d jkf'k 12-5 izfr'kr izfro"kZ dh nj Øe'k% 10]000 #i;s] 20]000 #i;s] 30]000 vkSj 40]000
di M
ls fdrus le; esa lk/kj.k C;kt ij 19125 #i;s gks #i;s gS] rks ½.k pqdkus ds fy, ik¡posa o"kZ ds var ea
tk;sxh\ fdruh jkf'k dk Hkqxrku fd;k tkuk pkfg,A
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(a) Rs.38,250 (b) Rs.39,490
(a) 6 years (b) 5 years (c) Rs.40,450 (d) Rs.36,450
(c) 8 years (d) 7 years 33. What is the rate of interest per annum for
simple interest at which Rs.880 amount to
29. What is the present value of Rs.10,000
received in 2 years, if the interest rate is 12% 1
Rs.913 in 1 years?
per year discounted semi-annually? 2
2 o"kZ eas izkIr 10]000 #i;s dk orZeku ewY; D;k gS]lk/kj.k C;kt ds fy, ok£"kd C;kt nj D;k gksxh ftl ij
A
34. A person deposited Rs.15,600 in a fixed ,d O;fDr us 3 leku ok£"kd fd'rksa esa izfrns; 5»
deposit at 10% per annum simple interest. ok£"kd lk/kj.k C;kt ij 2]000 #i;s m/kj fy,A ok£"kd
After every second year he adds his interest
earned to the principal. The interest at the fd'r D;k gksxh\
end of 4 years is: SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
,d O;fDr us lkof/ tek esa 10» ok£"kd lk/kj.k C;kt 10 9
(a) 730 (b) 840
ij 15]600 #i;s tek fd,A izR;sd nwljs o"kZ ds ckn 63 61
og v£tr C;kt dks ewy/u esa tksM+rk gSA 4 o"kZ ds var
11 10
esa C;kt gSA (c) 640
63
(d) 250
63
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
39. A certain sum of money lent at simple interest
(a) Rs.6,655 (b) Rs.6,864 amounts to Rs.1,200 in 2 years and Rs.1,600
(c) Rs.3,975 (d) Rs.3,744 in 4 years. The rate per cent per annum is:
35. A sum of money doubles itself in 7 years at
lk/kj.k C;kt ij m/kj nh xbZ ,d fuf'pr jkf'k 2
simple interest. In how much time will it
becomes 5 times of itself? o"kksaZ eas 1]200 #i;s vkSj 4 o"kksaZ esa 1]600 #
tkrh gSA ok£"kd nj fdrus izfr'kr gS\
r
dksbZ /ujkf'k lk/kj.k C;kt ij 7 o"kZ eas nksxquh gks tkrh
gSA fdrus le; esa ;g jkf'k 5 xquh gks tk,xh\ SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
si
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 04) (a) 20% (b) 30%
(a) 25 years
(c) 23 years
an by (b) 28 years
(d) 21 years
40.
(c) 25% (d) 16%
The difference of simple interest from two
n
banks on Rs. 8,000 in 3 years is Rs. 800. If
36. The monthly income of Mr. Roy is Rs.18,000.
the rate of interest per annum in two banks
He took a loan of Rs.30,000 on simple interest
are R1 and R2, then what is the value of R1
ja
for 3 years at the rate of 5% per annum. The
R s
- R2? (Where R1 > R2)
amount that he will be paying as simple
interest in 3 years is what percent of his 3 o"kZ esa
Rs.8]000 ij nks cSadksa ds lk/kj.k C;ktdk
a th
monthly salary? varj Rs.800 gSA ;fn nks cSadksa esa C;kt dh çfro"kZ
jkW; dh ekfld vk; 18]000 #i;s gSA mlus 5» dh R1 rFkkR2 gS] rksR1 – R2 dk eku D;k gS\ (tgk¡
ok£"kd nj ls 3 o"kZ ds fy, lk/kj.k C;kt ij 30]000 R1 > R2)
ty a
#i;s dk ½.k fy;kA og 3 o"kksaZ esa lk/kj.k C;kt ds SSC CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023
:i eas ftl jkf'k dk Hkqxrku djsxk] ;g mlds ekfld
di M
1 1
osru dh fdruh izfr'kr gS\ (a) 5 % (b) 3 %
3 3
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
1 1
(a) 30% (b) 35% (c) 1 % (d) 2 %
3 3
(c) 20% (d) 25%
37. A sum of Rs.10 is lent by a child to his friend to 41. What is the ratio of the simple interest earned
be returned in 11 monthly instalments of Rs.1 each, on a certain amount at the rate of 21% per
the interest being simple. The rate of interest is: annum for 8 years to that earned on the same
,d cPps us 10 #i;s dh jkf'k vius nksLr dks 1 #i;s sum at the same rate for 21 years?
dh 11 ekfld fd'rksa eas ykSVkus ds fy, m/kj nh] C;kt ,d fuf'pr /ujkf'k ij 8 o"kZ esa 21» okf"kZd nj ls
lk/kj.k gSA C;kt nj gS% vftZr lk/kj.k C;kt dk mlh /ujkf'k ij 21 o"kZ esa leku
A
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 02) nj ls vftZr lk/kj.k C;kt ls vuqikr D;k gS\
9 9 SSC CGL TIER- II 03/03/2023
(a) 11 % (b) 21 %
11 11 (a) 8 : 21 (b) 21 : 5
2 1 (c) 5 : 21 (d) 21 : 8
(c) 10 % (d) 9 %
11 11 42. The simple interest on a sum of Rs X in 5
38. A person borrowed Rs.2,000 at 5% annual 2th
simple interest repayable in 3 equal annual years is of the principal. What is the
5
installments. What will be the annual
installment? annual rate of interest?
5 o"kks± Rs.
esa]X dh jkf'k ij lk/kj.k C;kt] ewy/u dk (a) Rs. 10,123.20 (b) Rs. 9,824.00
2th (c) Rs. 10,520.00 (d) Rs. 9,956.86
5
gSA C;kt dh okf"kZd nj D;k gS\
46. If a sum of Rs. 6,500 is to be borrowed for 2
SSC CGL TIER- II 06/03/2023 years at 10% per annum compounded half
(a) 5% (b) 12% yearly, find the compound amount (integer
(c) 8% (d) 10% values only).
43. A sum triple itself in 9 years at simple interest. ;fn #i;s 6]500 dh jkf'k v/Zokf"kZd :i ls pØo`f¼ gksus
Find the rate of interest per annum is. okys 10» okf"kZd pØo`f¼ C;kt ij 2 o"kks± ds fy, m/kj
,d jkf'k lk/kj.k C;kt ij 9 o"kZ esa Lor% dh frxquh gks yh tk jgh gS] rks feJ/u (dsod iw.kk±d eku) Kkr dhft,A
tkrh gSA C;kt dh okf"kZd nj Kkr dhft,A SSC CGL TIER- II 06/03/2023
SSC CGL TIER- II 07/03/2023 (a) Rs. 7,900 (b) Rs. 8,250
(c) Rs. 7,650 (d) Rs. 8,150
2 1
(a) 38 % (b) 33 %
47. Rajnish borrowed Rs. 1,500 from a bank and
9 3
repaid the entire amount with interest in two
r
1 2 equal annual instalments, the first instalment
(c) 27 % (d) 22 %
9 9 being paid a year after Rajnish borrowed from
si
44. If interest be compounded half-yearly, then the bank. If the rate of interest was 40% per
find the compound interest on Rs. 8,000 at annum, compounded annually, then what was
an by
the rate of 20% per annum for 1 year.
;fn C;kt v/Z&okf"kZd :i ls pØo`f¼ gksrk gS]Rs.
rks
the value (in Rs.) of each instalment paid by
Rajnish?
n
8]000 dh jkf'k ij 20 % okf"kZd dh nj ls 1 o"kZ dk jtuh'k us ,d cSad ls #i;s 1]500 dh jkf'k m/kj yh vkSj
pØo`f¼ C;kt Kkr djsaA nks leku okf"kZd fd'rksa esa C;kt lfgr iwjh jkf'k pqdk nh
ja tgka jtuh'k us cSad ls m/kj ysus ds ,d o"kZ ckn igyh
R s
SSC CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023
fd'r dk Hkqxrku fd;kA ;fn C;kt dh nj 40» okf"kZd Fkh
a th
#i;s 25]000 dh jkf'k ij rhu o"kZ ckn 12 çfr'kr okf"kZd (b) 1470
nj ls pØo`f¼ C;kt fdruk gksxk ] tc C;kt okf"kZd :i (c) 1225
ls pØo`f¼ gksrk gS\ (d) 1350
SSC CGL TIER- II 03/03/2023
ANSWER KEY
1.(b) 2.(c) 3.(c) 4.(a) 5.(b) 6.(c) 7.(b) 8.(b) 9.(c) 10.(d)
A
11.(c) 12.(a) 13.(b) 14.(c) 15.(b) 16.(d) 17.(b) 18.(d) 19.(c) 20.(b)
21.(c) 22.(d) 23.(d) 24.(a) 25.(b) 26.(d) 27.(d) 28.(d) 29.(c) 30.(c)
31.(b) 32.(b) 33.(c) 34.(b) 35.(b) 36.(d) 37.(b) 38.(a) 39.(c) 40.(b)
SOLUTIONS
1. (b) Interest for 8 yrs. = 3725 – 2500 6. (c) Amount = 5664
= 1225 T = 4 yrs.
R = 12%
1225
Interest for 1 yr. =
8 100 A
Installment =
R t (t– 1)
1225 100 100 t
Rate = 2
8 2500
100 5664
49 =
= = 6.125% 3
8 400 48
2
r
2. (c) R = 25%
si
T = 6 yrs. 100 5664
=
I = P + 360 472
P 360 =
an by
P 25 6
100 7. (b)
= 1200
Interest for yrs. = 832 – 640
n
= 192
3 P = 2P + 720
Interest for 1 yr. = 96
P = 720 ja
R s
3. (c) T1 = 3 yrs. , T2 = 5 yrs. 96
Rate = 100 = 15%
a th
R = 14% 640
ATQ,
Now,
P 14 2
4200 860 96
ty a
Principle Amount
2500 2601
2500 2601 0.54 0.46
5050 5202 27 : 23
5050 6000
27
6000 at 4% 5000
2601 2601 50
5050
2700
3090.30
4 A 17 5
9. (c) 16% = 14. (c) = in yrs.
25 P 10 2
4 I 7 5
P 5 = 9600 = in yrs.
25 P 10 2
4 7 2
P 9600 Rate = 100
5 10 5
P = 12000 28%
10. (d) R = 20% , R1 = 10%
15. (b) 6 yrs. interest = 4060 – 3640
Time = 2 yrs. , T1 = 4 yrs.
= 420
Effective rate = 46.41%
2 yr. = 140
46.41 Principle = 3640 – 140
× 15750 = 7309.575
100
r
= 3500
si
30 21
11. (c) R 7 (for 7 yrs .) 70 100
100 10 Rate =
an by 3500
31 15500
= 2%
n
1 5000
Interest = 15500 – 5000 I 25
16. (d)
ja = 10500 P 36
R s
12. (a) Interest = 9870 – 5250 Time = Rate
a th
= 4620
Time Rate I
4620 100 100 P
Time =
5250 11
ty a
(Rate)² 25
= 8 yrs.
100 36
di M
I 2P 2
13. (b) In 26 yrs. = = Rate 5
P P 1
10 6
Now,
5 time Principle = Amount 25
Rate = 8.33%
3
I 4
=
P 1 17. (b) Total Amount paid in installments
3625 5 A 2 I 1
R= = = 2.5% =
145000 23 P 1 P 1
r
A 5 I 4
P 7 11 =
si
20. (b) = P – 920 P 1 P 1
100
an by From..(1)
77 P = 100 P – 92,000
5 Rate2
n
23 P = 92, 000 =
1 4
P = 4,000
ja Rate2 = 5 × 4 = 20%
R s
Amount 1.25 5
21. (c) = = 25. (b) A = 3P
Principle 1 4
a th
I = 2P
I 1 T = 10 yrs.
=
P 4
ty a
2P 100
R=
P 10
1
di M
3 yrs.
4 = 20%
7
7 yrs. I 5
12 26. (d)
P 1
After 7 yrs.
I1 4
Amount 19 76, 0000 P 1
= =
Principle 12 x
I I1
=
x = 4,80,000 Time1 Time2
100 A 5 4
A
89258 10
Time = 34. (b) Interest for first 2 yrs. = 2 × 15600
10200 1 100
= 1560 × 2 = 3120
= 7 yrs.
Principle for 3rd yr. = 15600 + 3120 = 18720
Amount
29. (c) Present value = time
Principle for next 2 yrs. = 18720
R
1
100 18720
Interest = 2× × 10 = 1872 × 2 = 3744
100
10, 000
r
= Total interest after 4 yrs. = 3120 + 3744
4
6
1 = 6864
si
100
an by 35. (b) I 1 I1 4
7 yrs. , =
10000 (50)4 P 1 P 1
=
(53)4
n
Time1 Time2
= 7920.94 =
I1 I2
ja
R s
30. (c) I = 480
R = 8% 7 Time2
a th
=
1 4
T = 2 yrs.
Time2 = 28 yrs.
480 100
P=
ty a
8 2 5
36. (d) S.I in 3 yrs. = 3 × 30,000 = 4500
100
di M
= 3000
1 4500
31. (b) Rate = 50% = Required% 100 = 25%
2 18000
1 1 R 10 1 R 9 1 R 1
6 P = 3P 6 years =
1 1
...
1 1
2 100 12 100 12 12 100
P R9
From (1) and (2) = 2P
100
11R 11R 200 2
10 11 R= = 22 %
120 240 9 9
44. (d)
11R 240 9
=1 R = = 21 % P = 8000
240 11 11
R = 20%, R1 = 10%
38. (a) 100 A Time = 1 yr. = 2 half yrs.
Installment
Rt (t – 1)
100t Eff. rate = 21%
2
r
2000 5 3 21
C.I = 8000 = 1680
si
Amount = 2000 + 100
100
= 2000 + 300 = 2300 45. (a)
an by
Installment =
2300 100
P = 25,000, t = 3 yrs. R = 12%
n
I yr. 3000
300 15
II yr. 3000 360
230000 10
ja= = 730 III yr. 3000 360 360 43.2
R s
315 63
Total C.I = 10123.20
39. (c) Interest of 2 yrs. = 1600 – 1200
a th
'OR'
= 400
Principle = 1200 – 400 Effective rate of 12% for 3 yrs. = 40.4928
= 800 40.4928
C.I = 25000 = 10123.20
ty a
200 100
R= 100 25%
800 46. (a)
di M
41. (a)
P A
P 21 8 8 5×7 7 × 7 = 49
A.T.Q, =
P 21 21 21
25
42. (c) 49
60
Let, Rate = R%
60 1500
X 5 R 2
= X 1500
100 5 49 49 = 1225
60
R = 8%
RATIO
05
vuqikr
1. The ratio of expenditure to savings of a woman ,d fo'ofo|ky; ds iqLrdky; esa xf.kr] HkkSfrdh vkSj
is 5:1. If her income and expenditure are jlk;u foKku dh iqLrdksa dh la[;k 8 % 5 % 9 ds
increased by 10% and 20%, respectively, then vuqikr eas gSaA bu iqLrdksa eas Øe'k% 10»] 5» vkS
find the percentage change in her savings.
dh o``f¼ djus dk izLRkko gSA o`f¼ ds ckn iqLrdksa
,d efgyk dk O;; vkSj cpr dk vuqikr 5 % 1 gSA la[;k dk vuqikr D;k gksxk\
;fn mldh vk; vkSj O;; esa Øe'k% 10» vkSj 20» dh SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
o`f¼ dh tkrh gS] rks mldh cpr eas izfr'kr ifjorZu (a) 212 : 117 : 47
Kkr dhft,A (b) 37 : 47 : 83
r
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 03) (c) 176 : 105 : 189
(d) 189 : 115 : 117
si
(a) 55% (b) 60%
(c) 50% (d) 40% 1
2. an by
By mistake, instead of dividing Rs.702 among
Ram, Ramesh, and Naresh in the ratio
5. The tax on the salary of C is
1
4
of the salary
n
1 1 1 and savings are of the salary. the ratio of
: : , it was divided in the ratio of 3 : 4 3
3 4 6 the expenditures of the savings is.
ja
R s
: 6. Who gained the most and by how much?
1
702 #i;s dks jke] jes'k vkSj ujs'k ds chp xyrh ls C ds osru ij mlds osru dk dj gS vkSj mldh
a th
4
1 1 1
: : ds vuqikr eas foHkkftr djus ds ctk;] bls cpr osru dh
1
gSA O;; vkSj cpr dk vuqikr gSA
3 4 6 3
3 % 4 % 6 ds vuqikr eas foHkkftr dj fn;k x;k FkkA
ty a
7. : : .
The sides of a triangle are in the ratio
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 02) 3 5 6
(a) Rs.34,000 (b) Rs.28,000 If the perimeter is 147 cm, then the length
of the smallest side is.
(c) Rs.25,000 (d) Rs.31,000
4. The number of books on Mathematics, Physics 1 1 1
,d f=kHkqt dh Hkqtkvksa dk vuqikr
: : gSA ;fn
and Chemistry in a University library is in 3 5 6
the ratio 8 : 5 : 9. There is a proposal to ifjeki 147 lseh gS] rks lcls NksVh Hkqtk dh yackbZ gS
increase these books by 10%, 5% and 5% SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
respectively. What will be the ratio of the (a) 12 cm (b) 25 cm
number of books after increment?
(c) 30 cm (d) 35 cm
8. Rohan scored twice as many marks in English nks deZpkfj;ksa dh vk; dk vuqikr 7%4 gS] vkSj mud
as he did in Science. His total marks in O;; dk vuqikr 3%1 gSA ;fn muesa ls izR;sd
Rs. 4]800
English, Science and Mathematics are 126. If dh izfr ekg cpr djrk gS] rks mudh ekfld vk; dk
the ratio of his marks in English and ;ksx (Rs. esa) Kkr dhft,A
Mathematics is 2 : 3, his marks in English are:
SSC CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023
jksgu us vaxzsth eas foKku ls nksxqus vad izkIr fd, vaxzsth]
(a) 21120 (b) 20120
fOkKku vkSj xf.kr esa mlds dqy vad 126 gSaA ;fn vaxzsth (c) 21150 (d) 18150
vkSj xf.kr eas mlds vadksa dk vuqikr 2 % 3 gSa] rks
12. The ratio of marks obtained by Rajesh, Rakesh
vaxzsth esa mlds vad fdrus gSa\ and Ramesh in an exam is 2 : 4 : 9.
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 04) What are the marks obtained by Rakesh and
Ramesh, if Rajesh scored 30 marks in the
(a) 63 (b) 20 exam?
(c) 21 (d) 42 ,d ijh{kk esa jkts'k] jkds'k vkSj jes'k }kjk çkIr vadksa dk
r
9. Wheat worth Rs.80 per kg and Rs.50 per kg vuqikr 2 % 4 % 9 gSA ;fn jkts'k us ijh{kk esa 30 vad
si
is mixed with a third variety in the ratio 1 : çkIr fd, gSa] rks jkds'k vkSj jes'k }kjk çkIr vad D;k gSa\
2 : 3 . If the mixture is worth Rs.75 per kg,
an by
then the price of the third variety per kg will
be equal to:
SSC CGL TIER- II 03/03/2023
(a) Rakesh = 40, Ramesh = 90
n
(b) Rakesh = 60, Ramesh = 135
80 #i;s izfr kg vkSj 50 #i;s izfr kg dh xsgwa dks 1
(c) Rakesh = 120, Ramesh = 180
ja
% 2 % 3 ds vuqikr esa rhljh fdLe dh xsgwa ds lkFk
R s
(d) Rakesh = 90, Ramesh = 40
feyk;k tkrk gSA ;fn feJ.k dk ewY; 75 #i;s izfrkg
a th
10. Salaries of Rida and Riya are in the ratio of la[;k 348 gS] rks jhok ds ikl dqy fdruh cdfj;ka gS\
3 : 5, respectively. If the salary of each one
is increased by Rs.5,000, then the new ratio SSC CGL TIER- II 03/03/2023
;fn izR;sd ds osru eas 5]000 #i;s dh o`f¼ dh tkrh14. Six years ago, the ratio of the ages of A and B was
7 : 5. 4 years from now, the ratio of their ages
gS] rks u;k vuqikr 5 % 7 gks tkrk gSA fj;k dk orZeku will be 11 : 9. What is the age of A at present?
osru fdruk gS\ Ng o"kZ igys] A vkSjB dh vk;q dk vuqikr 7 % 5 FkkA
vc ls 4 o"kZ ckn] mudh vk;q dk vuqikr 11 % 9 gksxkA
A
15. The numbers of coins of 25 paise, 50 paise, 16. If two LED TVs and one mobile phone cost
Rs. 2 and Rs. 5 are in the ratio 5 : 4 : 3 : 1 Rs. 31,000, while two mobile phones and one
respectively. If the total amount of coins is Rs LED TV cost Rs. 35,000, then the value of one
285, then what will be the difference between mobile phone is:
the number of 25 paise and Rs. 5 coins? ;fn nks ,y-bZ-Mh-Vh-oh- vkSj ,d eksckby iQksu dh dhe
25 iSls] 50 iSls] #i;s 2 vkSj #i;s 5 ds flDdksa dh #i;s 31]000 gS] tcfd nks eksckby iQksu vkSj ,d ,y-bZ-
la[;kvksa dk vuqikr Øe'k% 5 % 4 % 3 % 1 gSA ;fn flDdksa
Mh-Vh-oh- dh dher #i;s 35]000 gS] rks ,d eksckby iQksu
dh dqy jkf'k #i;s 285 gS] rks 25 iSls vkSj #i;s 5 ds dh dher Kkr djsaA
flDdksa dh la[;k ds chp varj D;k gksxk\ SSC CGL TIER- II 07/03/2023
SSC CGL TIER- II 06/03/2023 (a) Rs. 13,500 (b) Rs. 12,500
(a) 60 (b) 30 (c) Rs. 13,000 (d) Rs. 12,000
(c) 80 (d) 40
r
ANSWER KEY
si
1.(d) 2.(c) 3.(b) 4.(c) 5.(c) 6.(a) 7.(d) 8.(d) 9.(d) 10.(a)
11.(a) 12.(b)
an by
13.(b) 14.(b) 15.(c) 16.(c)
n
ja
R s
a th
ty a
di M
A
SOLUTIONS
1. (d) 5. (c)
Let the expenditure and savings be 500 and 100 Let, Salary = 300
Income Expenditure Savings Tax = 75
Old 600 500 100 Savings = 100
New 600 600 60 Expenditure = 300 – 75 – 100 = 125
2. (c) 6. (a)
r
Let nos. be 5x and 7x
Ram Ramesh Naresh
si
A.T.Q.
Mistaken 3 4 6
Actual
an by
1
3
1
4
1
6
5x + 6 3
= .
7x + 6 4
n
4 3 2 20x + 24 = 21x + 18
6=x
ja
Clearly, Naresh gained the most his Actual
R s
nos. are = 30, 42
2
7. (d)
a th
3 5 6
324 – 156 = 168 10 : 6 : 5
di M
=
= 28000 M 3
4. (c)
3
M= E
Maths Physics Chemisty 2
8 5 9
E 3
Original 800 500 900 E+ + E = 126
2 2
New 880 525 945
6E = 252
176 105 189
E = 42
x = 90 – 6 yrs. 7 5
+ 10 +4
10. (a) + 4 yrs. 11 9
Rida Riya 4 10
r
Salary 3 5 5 55
+5000 +5000 11 11 =
si
2 2
Now 5 7
55 1
3x + 5000 5
=
5x + 5000 7
an by Present age of A =
15. (c)
2
– 4 = 23
2
yrs.
n
21x + 35000 = 25x + 25000
1 1
Amt. 2 5
10,000 = 4x ja 4 2
R s
2500 = x Ratio 5x 4x 3x 1x
a th
5x = 12500 T.Amt. 5x
2x 6x 5x
11. (a) 4
A B A B A.T.Q,
ty a
Income 7 4 ×2 = 14 8 5 4
Exp. 6 5
x = 285
3 1 ×3 = 9 3 4 2
di M
......-------......
PROPORTION
lekuqikr 06
1. The mean proportion of 169 and 144 is: (6 + 8) vkSj(3 – 2) ds chp eè;kuqikrh Kkr dhft,A
169 vkSj144 dk eè;kuqikrh gSA SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 01) (a) 212 (b) 14
(a) 156 (b) 147 (c) (6 – 8) (d) 15 – 7
(c) 126 (d) 165 7. Which smallest positive number should be
2. What is the ratio of the mean proportional subtracted from each of 9 and 13 so that 18
between 1.6 and 3.6 and the third proportional is the third proportion to them?
of 5 and 8? 9 vkSj 13 esa izR;sd ls lcls NksVh /ukRed dkSu&lh
r
1.6 vkSj 3.6 ds chp eè;kuqikrh rFkk5 vkSj 8 ds la[;k ?kVkbZ tkuh pkfg, rkfd mudk r`rh;kuqikr 18 gks\
r`rh;kuqikrh dk vuqikr D;k gS\
si
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 02) (a) 2 (b) 4
(a) 2 : 15
(c) 3 : 16
an by (b) 5 : 16
(d) 4 : 15 8.
(c) 3 (d) 1
A varies directly as the positive square root
n
3. What is the ratio of the fourth proportional of B, and inversely as the cube of C. If A =
of 2, 5, 6 and the fourth proportional of 6, 15, when B = 27 and C = 2, then find B when
8, 9? ja A = 9 and C = 2.
R s
2, 5, 6 ds prqFkkZuqikrh 6,
vkSj
8, 9 ds prqFkkZuqikrh A, B ds /ukRed oxZewy ds vuqØekuqikrh gS] C vkSj
dk vuqikr D;k gS\ ds ?ku ds O;qRØekuqikrh gSA
B = ;fn
27 vkSj C = 2
a th
(a) (b)
;fn a : b = c : d gS] rks fuEufyf[kr eas ls dkSu&lk 42 25
vuqikr a : c ds cjkcj gS\ 264 275
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 01) (c) (d)
37 51
(a) a : d (b) b : c 9. The fourth porportion to 12 , 24 and 27 is
(c) a + d : b + c (d) a + b : c + d the same as the third proportion to A and 36.
5. The cost of a piece of diamond varies with What is the value of A?
the square of its weight. A diamond of 12, 24 vkSj27 dk prqFkkZuqikr]
A vkSj36 ds r`rh;kuqikr
Rs.6,084 value is cut into 3 pieces whose
ds cjkcj gSA
A dk eku Kkr dhft,A
weights are in the ratio 3 : 2 : 1. Find the
loss involved in the cutting. SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
A
11. If x is the mean proportional between 12.8 15. Find the fourth proportional to the numbers
and 64.8, then the value of x is: 24, 192 and 27.
;fn x, 12.8 vkSj 64.8 dk eè;kuqikrh gS] rks
x dk la[;kvksa
24, 192 vkSj27 dk prqFkkZuqikrh Kkr dhft,A
eku gS% SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 02) (a) 216 (b) 108
(a) 32 (b) 34 (c) 162 (d) 170.67
(c) 28.8 (d) 26.4 16. Find the mean proportion between 27 and 300.
27 vkSj300 ds chp eè;kuqikrh Kkr dhft,A
a3 + b3
12. Find the mean proportion of and SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
a–b
(a) 90 (b) 45
a 2 – b2 (c) 135 (d) 180
.
a 2 – ab + b2 17. The fourth proportion to 16 and 26 and 32
is:
a3 + b3 a 2 – b2 16, 26 vkSj32 dk prqFkkZuqikrh D;k gS\
vkSj dk eè;kuqikrh Kkr dhft,A
a–b a 2 – ab + b2 SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
r
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 03) (a) 16 (b) 52
si
(a) 1 (b) a + b (c) 54 (d) 24
a+b 18. Find the fourth proportional to the number
(c)
a–b
an by (d) a+b 17, 272 and 19.
la[;kvksa
17, 272 vkSj19 dk prqFkkZuqikrh Kkr dhft,A
n
13. The mean proportionl of 6 and 54 is more than
15. SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
6 vkSj54 dk eè;kuqikrh15 ls vf/d gSA
ja (a) 332 (b) 323
R s
(c) 403 (d) 304
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
19. If a : b = 4 : 5 and b : c = 3 : 10, then a : c
a th
(a) 3 (b) 6
is:
(c) 4 (d) 5
14. If 14 : 30 :: 7 : x, then what is th value of x?
;fn a : b = 4 : 5 vkSjb : c = 3 : 10, rks a : c gSA
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
;fn 14 : 30 :: 7 : x gS] rksx dk eku D;k gS\
ty a
(a) 4 : 10 (b) 5 : 3
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
(c) 25 : 6 (d) 6 : 25
(a) 15 (b) 21
di M
(c) 09 (d) 12
ANSWER KEY
1.(a) 2.(c) 3.(d) 4.(d) 5.(b) 6.(b) 7.(d) 8.(b) 9.(b) 10.(c)
SOLUTIONS
1. (a) Add (1) Both sides in (1)
If b is the mean proportion of a and c, then,
a c
1= 1
a b b d
=
b c
ab cd
or b² = ac =
b d
b² = 169 × 144
ab b
b = 169 144 = .........(3)
cd d
= 13 × 12
From (2) and (3)
r
= 156
si
2. (c) Let, mean proportion = b a ab
=
c cd
4² 6²
an by
b² = 1.6 × 3.6 =
(10)² 5. (b) cost k (weight)²
C = kw²
n
4 × 6 24 6084 = k (6)²
b= =
10 10
ja 6084
R s
b = 2.4 k= = 169 ..........(1)
36
Let, third proportion be c
a th
8² = 5 × c New cost:- C = C1 + C2 + C3
kw12 + kw22 + kw32
64
c= k (9 + 4 + 1)
5
ty a
169 × 14 = 2366
02.4 Loss = 6084 – 2366
di M
Required ratio = 5
64 = 3718 Rs.
3 6. (b) b² = 6+ 8 3 – 2
=
16
= 2 3 2
3 – 2
2 6
3. (d) = =
5 a = 2 × 7 = 14
a = 15
b = 14
Also,
7. (d) Let no. be x
6 9
= = 9–x 13 – x
8 a
A
13 – x 18
a = 12
From option:- (d)
15 5
Required ratio = =
12 4 9 – 1 13 – 1
=
13 – 1 18
a c
4. (d) = ........(1)
b d 8 12
=
12 18
a b
= ..........(2) 1=1
c d
r
k 13 c = (a + b)
9=
2 13. (a) b² = 6 × 54
si
b = 18
B= an by
9 2 27
15 2
18 – 15 = 3
(Question incomplete)
n
243 14 7
B= 14. (a) =
ja
25 30 x
R s
x = 15
a th
243
B=
25 24 27
15. (a) =
192 d
12 27
ty a
9. (b) = d = 27 × 8
24 a
= 216
di M
d = 16 × 19
A = 24
304
10. (c) c² = ab
Let, d be the mean proportion 19. (d) a : b : c
4 5
d² = a²c × b²c
3 10
d² = a² b² c² = c4.c² 12 : 15 : 50
d = c³
a : c = 6 : 25
r
(c) 10 years (d) 25 years dqy ykHk (#i;s esa fudVre iw.kkZad rd) fdruk gS\
si
2. The ratio of the present ages of Ram and SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
Ramesh is 3 : 5. After 7 years the ratio of (a) Rs.51,745 (b) Rs.55,715
an by
their ages will be 4 : 5. Find the present age
of Ramesh. 6.
(c) Rs.57,545 (d) Rs.51,575
Nihit starts a business with Rs.700. After 5
n
months Amit and Patel joined him with Rs.300
jke vkSj jes'k dh orZeku vk;q dk vuqikr 3 % 5 gSA 7
and Rs.400 respectively. At the end of the
o"kZ ckn mudh vk;q dk vuqikr 4 % 5 gksxkA jes'k dhyear, the business gave a profit of Rs.627. Find
ja
R s
orZeku vk;q Kkr dhft,A the share of Patel in the profit.
fufgr 700 #i;s ls ,d O;olk; 'kq: djrk gSA 5 eghus
a th
3. The average age of a man and his son is 55 esa] O;olk; esa 627 #i;s dk ykHk izkIr gqvkA ykHk e
years. The ratio of their ages is 7 : 4, iVsy dk fgLlk Kkr dhft,A
di M
r
(b) 2,50,000 and 1,58,800
ykHk izkIr gqvkA muds fuosf'kr le; dk vuqikr D;k gS\ (c) 2,48,000 and 1,60,800
si
SSC CGL TIER- II 06/03/2023 (d) 2,49,500 and 1,59,300
an by
n
ja ANSWER KEY
R s
1.(b) 2.(c) 3.(d) 4.(b) 5.(d) 6.(c) 7.(c) 8.(c) 9.(a) 10.(a)
a th
ty a
di M
A
SOLUTIONS
1. (b) 6. (c) N A P
A B Investment 700 300 400
Time 12 7 7
Present 2 3
Difference = 1 Profit 8400 2100 2800
5 yrs. hence 3 4 12 : 3 : 4
19 627
1 5
627
4 4
3 15 19
= 33 × 4 = 132
r
2. (c) Ram Ramesh 7. (c)
si
Investment x time = Profit
Present 3 5×1
an by A B C
7 yrs. hence 4 5×2 Time 3 2 7
n
Profit 4 3 14
Present 3 5 4 3 14
Difference = 5 Investment
7 yrs. hence 8 ja 10
3 2 7
R s
= 8 9 12
57
a th
8. (c)
Ramesh Present age = 7 yrs.
Given:- S D R
3. (d) M + S = 55 × 2 Let, Initial 300 600 800
ty a
9. (a)
11 110
Man = 7 70 A B C
Son = 4 40 I. 3 4 8
P. 2 3 5
M 76 38
After 6 yrs.:- = = 2 3 5
X 46 23 T.
3 4 8
4. (b) Father Son = 16 : 18 : 15
Present 10. (a)
7 2
Difference = 2 A B
10 yrs. hence 9 4 Investment 75, 000 80,000
A
2 10
Time 12 7
7 35 yrs.
Profit 9, 00, 000 5,60,000
5. (d) A : B
9:5 14,60,000 4,08,800
Let x = Total profit 7
1
ATQ, 25
90 9 A 2,52,000
x = 29840
100 14 B 1,56,800
x = 51575
MIXTURE
08
feJ.k
1. A container contains 25 litre of milk. From 5. A can of water and milk mixture contains 60%
this container, 5 litre of milk is taken out milk. A part of this mixture is replaced by
and replaced by water. This process is further another mixture containing 50% milk and the
repeated two times. How much milk is there percentage of milk was found to be 52%. The
in the container now? quantity of mixture replaced is:
fdlh crZu esa 25 yhVj nw/ gSA bl crZu ls 5 yhVj ikuh vkSj nw/ ds feJ.k ds ,d fMCcs esa 60» nw/ gSA
nwèk fudky dj mlds LFkku ij ikuh feyk fn;k tkrk bl feJ.k ds ,d Hkkx dks nwljs feJ.k ls cny fn;k
gSA ;g izfØ;k iqu% nks ckj nksgjkbZ tkrh gSA vc ml
tkrk gS ftlesa 50» nw/ gksrk gS vkSj nw/ dk çfr'kr
crZu esa fdruk nw/ gS\ 52» ik;k tkrk gSA çfrLFkkfir feJ.k dh ek=kk gS%
r
(a) 11.5 litre (b) 14.8 litre SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
si
(c) 13.5 litre (d) 12.8 litre
1 3
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 03) (a) (b)
2.
an by
A mixture of milk and water measures 60
litres. It contains 10% water. How much water 4
5
2
5
n
should be added to it, so that the water may (c) (d)
5 5
be 25%? 6. P and Q are two alloys of aluminium and
ja
nw/ vkSj ikuh ds feJ.k dk ifjek.k 60 yhVj gSA blesa
R s
copper. The ratios of aluminium and copper
10» ikuh gSA bleas vkSj fdruk ikuh feyk;k tkuk pkfg, in P and Q are 5 : 11 and 3 : 5, respectively.
a th
rkfd ikuh 25» gks tk,A If a third alloy is formed by mixing alloys P
and Q in the ratio of 1 : 3, then aluminium
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
is what percentage (rounded off to the nearest
(a) 18 litre (b) 14 litre
integer) of the copper in the third alloy ?
ty a
concentrated x ml mixture such that the net 5 % 11 vkSj 3 % 5 gSA ;fn feJ/krq
P vkSj Q dks 1 %
mixture is 30% concentrated. Determine x. 3 ds vuqikr eas feykdj ,d rhljh feJ/krq cukbZ tkrh
20% dh lkanzrk okys H2SO4 ds 100 ml ?kksy dks gS] rks ,Y;qfefu;e rhljh feJ/krq esa dkWij dk fdruk
50% lkanzx ml feJ.k ds lkFk bl rjg feyk;k tkrk izfr'kr (fudVre iw.kkZad rd iw.kkZafdr) gS\
gS fd 'kq¼ feJ.k (net mixture) 30% lkanz gksA x SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
dk eku Kkr dhft,A (a) 63 Percent (b) 52 Percent
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 01) (c) 48 Percent (d) 56 Percent
(a) 70 ml (b) 80 ml 7. 40 litres of milk are kept in a container. 4
(c) 60 ml (d) 50 ml litres of milk were removed from this
4. A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio container and replaced with water. This
A
of 5 : 3, respectively. On adding 7 litres of procedure was performed two more times. How
water, the ratio of milk to water becomes much milk does the container now hold?
1 : 2. Find the quantity of milk in the fdlh ik=k esa 40 yhVj nw/ j•k gSA bl ik=k ls 4 yhVj
mixture.
nw/ fudky fy;k x;k vkSj mruk gh ikuh mlesa feyk
,d feJ.k eas nw/ vkSj ikuh dk vuqikr Øe'k% 5 % 3
fn;k x;k A ;g çfØ;k nks ckj vkSj dh xbZA ik=k esa
gSA 7 yhVj ikuh feykus ij nw/ dk ikuh ls vuqikr
1 % 2 gks tkrk gSA feJ.k esa nw/ dh ek=kk Kkr dhft,Avc fdruk nw/ gS\
SSC CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(a) 7 litres (b) 10 litres (a) 30 litres (b) 34.23 litres
(c) 5 litres (d) 3 litres (c) 29.16 litres (d) 32 litres
8. The cost of 3 kg of rice is Rs. 180. The cost ;fn 80 yhVj nw/ ds foy;u esa 60» nw/ gS] rks foy;u
of 8 kg of rice is equal to that of 5 kg of esa nw/ dks 80» cukus ds fy, fdruk nw/ feykuk pkfg,\
pulse.The cost of 15 kg of pulses is equal to
that of 2 kg of tea. The cost of 3 kg of tea is SSC CGL TIER- II 06/03/2023
equal to that of 6 kg of walnuts. What is the (a) 80 L (b) 60 L
cost (in Rs.) of 10 kg of walnuts? (c) 70 L (d) 50 L
3 fdxzk pkoy dk ewY; #i;s 180 gSA 8 fdxzk pkoy dk
10. How many kilogram of rice costing Rs. 60 per
ewY; 5 fdxzk nky ds ewY; ds cjkcj gSA 15 fdxzk nkykg. must be mixed with 24 kg. of rice costing
dk ewY; 2 fdxzk pk; ds ewY; ds cjkcj gSA 3 fdxzk pk; Rs. 42 per kg. so that there may be a gain of
12% by selling the mixture at Rs. 56 per kg.?
dk ewY; 6 fdxzk v•jksV ds ewY; ds cjkcj gSA 10 fdxzk
v•jksV dk ewY; (#i;s esa) D;k gS\ #i;s 60 çfr kg. dh ykxr okys fdrus kg. pkoy dks
#i;s 42 çfr kg. dh ykxr okys 24 kg. pkoy ds lkFk
SSC CGL TIER- II 03/03/2023
feyk;k tkuk pkfg,] rkfd ifj.kkeh feJ.k dks #i;s 56
(a) 2400 (b) 3200 çfr kg. dh nj ls cspus ij 12» dk ykHk gks lds\
(c) 2800 (d) 3600
SSC CGL TIER- II 07/03/2023
r
9. If 80 liters of milk solution contains 60% milk,
how much milk should be added to make the (a) 22 kg. (b) 20 kg.
si
solution 80% milk? (c) 19.2 kg. (d) 21.2 kg.
an by ANSWER KEY
n
1.(d) 2.(d) ja 3.(d) 4.(c) 5.(c) 6.(d) 7.(c) 8.(d) 9.(a) 10.(c)
R s
a th
ty a
di M
A
SOLUTIONS
1. (d) Final milk = Initial quantity Quantity of Milk is same in new solution
n
1 – Quantity out Milk Water
Total quantity
5
3 Old 5 : 3
= 25
1 –
+7
25
New 5 : 10
4 4 4 64
= 25 = = 12.8 ltr.
5 5 5 5 77
2. (d) By allegation 5 5 ltr.
r
10% 100% 5. (c) Using allegation:-
si
60 50
an by25%
n
52
ja
R s
75 15
a th
5 : 1 2 8
5 60 1 : 4
1 12 ltr.
ty a
6. (d)
Al Cu Total Al Cu
P 5 11 = 16 × 1 5 + 18 11 + 30
30
Q 3 5 =8 23 43
23
Q 6 10 = 16 × 3 Required% = 100 56%
43
20 10
7. (c)
2 : 1
We know,
2 100
A
Volume left
100 no. of times
x = 50 ml. Amount taken out
2 = original amt. × 1 –
Original amount
4. (c)
Milk Water
3
4
= 40 1 –
Old 5 : 3
40
+7
9 9 9
New 1 : 2 = 40 = 29.16 ltr.
10 10 10
r
A.T.Q,
si
40 20
80 = (80 Milk) 8 10
100 100
32 =
1
an by
(80 + Milk)
8 : 10
n
5 5 24
Milk added = 80 ltr. 4 19.2 kg.
ja
R s
a th
......-------......
ty a
di M
A
AVERAGE
09
vkSlr
1. The batting average for 27 innings of a cricket 4. The average weight of 49 students in a class
player is 47 runs. His highest score in an is 39 kg. Seven of them whose average weight
innings exceeds his lowest score by 157 runs. is 40 kg leave the class and other seven
If these two innings are excluded, the average students whose average weight is 54 kg join
score of the remaining 25 innings is 42 runs. the class. What is the new average weight (in
Find his highest score in an innings. kg) of the class?
27 ikfj;ksa ds fy, fdlh fØdsV f[kykM+h dk cYysckth ,d d{kk esa 49 Nk=kksa dk vkSlr39Hkkj
kg gSA muesals
vkSlr 47 ju gSA ,d ikjh esa mldk mPpre Ldksj] mlds lkr ftudk vkSlr Hkkj 40 kg gS] d{kk NksM+ nsrs gS
fUkEure Ldksj ls 157 ju vf/d gSA ;fn ;s nks ikfj;k¡ vkSj vU; lkr Nk=k ftudk vkSlr Hkkj
54 kg gS] d{kk
r
gVk nh tk,¡] rks 'ks"k 25 ikfj;ksa dk vkSlr Ldksj 42 esa 'kkfey gks tkrs gSaA d{kk dk u;k vkSlr
(kgHkkj
esa
)
si
ju gSA ,d ikjh esa mldk mPpre Ldksj Kkr dhft,A fdruk gS\
an by
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(a) 41
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(b) 39
n
(a) 176 (b) 188 (c) 42 (d) 40
(c) 186 (d) 174 5. The average marks of 60 students in a class
2. ja
The average of the marks of 25 students in are 62. The average marks of boys and girls
R s
a class, in an examination was calculated to in that subject are 60 and 65, respectively.
a th
be 19. Later, the teacher realized that the The number of boys in the class is:
marks of two students were taken as 18 and ,d d{kk eas 60 Nk=kksa ds vkSlr vad 62 gSaA ml fo"
19 respectively, instead of 14 and 15. Find esa yM+ds vkSj yM+fd;ksa ds vkSlr vad Øe'k% 60 v
the new actual average marks of the class. 65 gSaA d{kk eas yM+dksa dh la[;k gS%
ty a
,d ijh{kk eas d{kk ds 25 Nk=kksa ds vadksa dk vkSlr 19 SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
FkkA ckn eas] f'k{kd us eglwl fd;k fd nks Nk=kksa (a)ds 36
di M
(b) 25
vad 14 vkSj 15 ds ctk; xyrh ls Øe'k% 18 vkSj 19 (c) 41 (d) 31
6. The average weight of 5 men decreases by 3
fy, x, FksA d{kk dk u;k okLrfod vkSlr vad Kkr
kg when one of them weighing 150 kg is
dhft,A replaced by another person. Find the weight
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 02) of the new person.
(a) 17.43 (b) 16.56 5 iq#"kksa dk vkSlr otu kg 3 de gks tkrk gS] tc
(c) 18.68 (d) 17.65 muesa ls ,d 150kg otu okys ,d O;fDr dh txg
3. Find the weighted arithmetic mean of the first nwljs O;fDr dks j[kk tkrk gSA u, O;fDr dk otu Kkr djsaA
‘n’ natural numbers, the weights being the SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
corresponding numbers.
(a) 125 kg (b) 100 kg
A
lksukyh us ,d Ldwy eas lkbal Vhpj dh ukSdjh ds 11. fy, A student‘s marks were wrongly entered as
65 instead of 45. Due to this, the average
vIykbZ fd;k FkkA ukSdjh ds fy, ijh{kk eas] mlus HkkSfrdh
esa 8] jlk;u foKku eas 8] tho foKku esa 6 vkSj lk{kkRdkjmarks for the class got increased by 1 . The
esa 6-5 vad izkaIr fd,A iQkbuy Ldksj dh x.kuk ds fy, 3
Øe'k% 2] 3] 3 vkSj 4 dk osVst HkkSfrdh] jlk;u foKku] number of students in the class is:
tho foKku vkSj lk{kkRdkj dks fn;k x;k FkkA lksukyh,d Nk=k ds vad 45 ds LFkku ij xyrh ls 65 ntZ dj
dk Hkkfjr (osVst) vkSlr vad D;k gS\ 1
fn, x,A blds dkj.k d{kk ds vkSlr vad esa dh
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 01) 3
(a) 7 (b) 8.4 o`f¼ gks xbZA d{kk eas Nk=kksa dh la[;k gSA
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
(c) 7.2 (d) 21
(a) 40 (b) 20
8. The average weight of 12 persons increases
(c) 60 (d) 30
by 3.5 kg when a new person comes in place
12. While finding the average marks of a class,
of one of them weighing 58 kg. The weight
r
Vikas’s marks were wrongly entered as 98 in
of the new person is:
place of 89. Due to this error, the average
si
tc 12 O;fDr;ksa ds ,d lewg esa 58 kg otu okys marks of the class were 0.25 more than the
O;fDr dks ,d u, O;fDr ls izfrLFkkfir fd;k tkrk gS] actual average. What is the number of students
an by
rks buds vkSlr otu esa
3.5 kg dh o`f¼ gksrh gSA u,
O;fDr dk otu D;k gksxk\
in the class?
,d d{kk ds vkSlr vad Kkr djrs le;] fodkl ds
n
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
vad 89 ds LFkku ij xyrh ls 98 ds :i eas ntZ gks
ja x, FksA bl =kqfV ds dkj.k] d{kk ds vkSlr vad] okLrfod
R s
(a) 100 kg
vkSlr ls 0-25 vf/d FksA d{kk esa Nk=kksa dh la[;k D;k g
(b) 16 kg
a th
9. The average of the first 7 non-zero multiples 13. In a hotel, there are 120 staff members. Their
of 17 is: average weight is 62.5 kg. When one of the
di M
17 ds igys 7 xSj&'kwU; xq.kdksa dk vkSlr gS% staff members leaves the hotel, the average
weight is reduced by 250 g. Find the weight
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 03) of the staff member who left the hotel.
(a) 67 (b) 68 ,d gksVy esa 120 deZpkjh lnL; gSaA budk vkSlr Hkk
(c) 69 (d) 66 62-5 kg gSA tc mu deZpkjh lnL;ksa esa ls dksbZ ,d
10. The average weight of apples in a basket is gksVy NksM+rk gS] rks vkSlr Hkkj
g de gks
250tkrk gSA
50 kg. 6 more apples with the average weight ml deZpkjh lnL; dk Hkkj Kkr dhft,] ftlus gksVy
of 60 kg are added in the basket. If the average
NksM+ fn;kA
weight of the basket is increased by 5 kg, then
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
find the number of apples in the basket
originally. (a) 64.25 kg (b) 78.75 kg
A
r
vk;q (o"kkZsa eas) fdruh gS\ gksrh gS] tc muesa ls ,d O?;fDr] ftldk otu 100 fdxzk
si
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 04) gS] dks nwljs O;fDr }kjk çfrLFkkfir fd;k tkrk gSA u,
(a) 59 an by (b) 65 O;fDr dk otu D;k gS\
(c) 75 (d) 69 SSC CGL TIER- II 03/03/2023
17. Ram, Shyam, Rohan, Reeta and Mukesh are
n
(a) 107 kg. (b) 103 kg.
five members of a family who are weighed (c) 104 kg. (d) 112 kg
consecutively and their average weight is 21. The average marks obtained by Saloni in four
ja
calculated after each member is weighed. If
R s
papers is 51, and in the fifth paper she
the average weight increases by 2 kg each obtained 56 marks. Find his new average in
a th
time, how much heavier is Mukesh than Ram? all the five papers.
jke] ';ke] jksgu] jhrk vkSj eqds'k ,d ifjokj ds ikap lyksuh }kjk pkj isijksa esa izkIr vkSlr vad 51 gS] vkS
lnL; gSa ftudk Øfed :i ls Hkkj rksyk tkrk gS vkSj ikapos isij esa mls 56 vad izkIr gq, gSaA lHkh ik¡p isijks
izR;sd lnL; dk Hkkj rksyus ds ckn muds vkSlr Hkkj mldk u;k vkSlr Kkr dhft,A
ty a
dh x.kuk dh tkrh gSA ;fn izR;sd ckj vkSlr Hkkj 2 esa SSC CGL TIER- II 06/03/2023
kg dh o`f¼ gksrh gS] rks jke ls eqds'k fdruk Hkkjh gS\(a) 52 (b) 49
di M
ju gksrk gSA 61 dk vkSlr Ldksj izkIr djus ds fy, mls (a) 550.50 (b) 750.80
(c) 650.89 (d) 725.90
nloha ikjh esa fdrus ju cukus gksaxs\
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
A
ANSWER KEY
1.(b) 2.(c) 3.(c) 4.(a) 5.(a) 6.(d) 7.(a) 8.(a) 9.(b) 10.(b)
11.(c) 12.(d) 13.(d) 14.(a) 15.(c) 16.(c) 17.(c) 18.(a) 19.(d) 20.(d)
21.(a) 22.(c)
SOLUTIONS
1. (b)
14 × 7
H – L = 157 Average change = 39 +
49
A.T.Q.
= 41
x +H+L
= 47 ...(1) 5. (a)
27
Boys Girls
x 60 65
and = 42
25
x = 1050 ...(2) 62
put (2) in (1)
r
H + L = 47 × 27 – 1050
si
3 2
H + L = 219 ...(3)
H – L = 157 5x = 60
H + L = 219
an by 6.
3x = 36
(d)
n
376
H= = 188 Let y be the weight of new person
2
2. (c) ja Change in weight = +4 – 150
R s
Total error = (18 + 19) – (14 + 15) A.T.Q.
a th
=8
y – 150
Change in average = = –3
8 5
Actual Average = 19 –
25 y = 135
ty a
= 19 – 0.32
7. (a)
= 18.68
di M
n n + 1 2n + 1 × 2
= 84
6 n n +1 = = 7 marks.
12
2n +1 8. (a)
=
3 Change in weight = x – 58
4. (a)
Total change in weight of loss x – 58
Change in average = = 3.5
54 × 7 – 40 × 7 12
14 × 7 x = 100 kg
r
= 8.72
si
8.72
5 : 5 Average = = 4.36
2
1 : 1
1
an by
6
16. (c)
n
1
11. (c) 12.5% =
8
ja
Error = –45 + 65 = +20 Let, age of guest be 'x' years
R s
Let these be x students Change in average =
a th
20 1 9
Change in average = = 6 × 40 + x = 7 × × 40
x 3 8
x = 60 x = 315 – 240
ty a
1 Mukesh – Ram:-
kg reduced from all 119 members
4 (x + 16) – x = 16 kg
18. (d)
1 Increase in average = 61 – 58 = 3
Total weight reduced = 119 ×
4
Total inning = 10
= 29.75 Total sums increase = 3 × 10 = 30
Weight of the person left Runs in 10th inning = 58 + 30
= 62.5 + 29.75 = 92.25 kg. = 88
20 32 – 29 – 31 5
S18 = New avg. = 51 = 52
18 5
= 32.22 22. (c)
20. (d)
Total Sum
Total increase in weight = 4 × 3 Avg. =
Total Numbers
= 12
Weight of new man = 100 + 12 = 112 kg. 5858
= = 650.89
9
......-------......
r
si
an by
n
ja
R s
a th
ty a
di M
A
r
fd;k] ysfdu 2 fnuksa ds cknQ dks NksM+uk iM+k vkSj
P us vdsys 'ks"k dke iwjk fd;kA iwjk dke fdrus fnuksa
si
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
esa lekIr gqvk\ (a) 10 days (b) 15 days
an by
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 01) (c) 12 days (d) 20 days
n
(a) 11 (b) 12
5. 6 men and 8 women can do a piece of work
(c) 13 (d) 10 in 10 days, whereas 26 men and 48 women
2. ja
A, B and C can complete a piece of work
R s
can do the same work in 2 days. What will
separately in 10, 20 and 40 days, respectively. be the time taken by 15 men and 20 women
a th
In how many days will the work be completed to do the same work?
if A is assisted by both B and C every third
day? 6 iq#"k vkSj 8 efgyk,a ,d dke dks 10 fnuksa es dj
vkSj C ,d dk;Z dks vyx&vyx Øe'k% 10, ldrs gSa] tcfd 26 iq#"k vkSj 48 efgyk,a mlh dke
ty a
A, B
20 vkSj 40 fnu esa iwjk dj ldrs gSaA ;fn A dks dks 2 fnuksa esa dj ldrs gSaA mlh dke dks djus ds fy,
15 iq#"kksa vkSj 20 efgykvksa dks fdruk le; yxsxk\
di M
are needed to complete the same work in 30 gSa vkSj 9 yM+fd;k¡ mlh dk;Z dks 2 fnuksa eas iwj
days? ldrh gSa] rks 8 efgykvksa vkSj 6 yM+fd;ksa }kjk m
;fn 450 iq#"k ,d vikVZesaV dk fuekZ.k 20 fnuksa esadk;Z dks iwjk djus esa fy;k x;k le; Kkr dhft,A
iwjk dj ldrs gSa] rks mlh dk;Z dks 30 fnuksa esa iwjk SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
djus ds fy, fdrus iq#"kksa dh vko';drk gksxh\
(a) 3 days (b) 4 days
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
(a) 150 (b) 300 9
(c) 6 days (d) days
(c) 400 (d) 250 7
7. A takes twice as much time as B and thrice #fp] [kq'kh vkSj rstw ,d dk;Z dks Øe'k% 30] 40 vkSj
as much time as C to finalise a task. Working 60 fnu esa iwjk dj ldrs gSaA ;fn [kq'kh vkSj rstw nks
together, they can complete the task in 8
gj rhljs fnu #fp dh lgk;rk djrs gSa] rks #fp fdrus
days. The time (in days) taken by A, B and
fnu esa dk;Z iwjk dj ldrh gS\
C, respectively, to complete the task is:
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
A fdlh dk;Z dks iwjk djus esa
B ls nksxquk vkSj
C ls 550 85
(a) days (b) days
rhu xquk le; ysrk gSA ,d lkFk feydj dk;Z djrs 12 4
gq,] os 8 fnuksa esa dk;Z dks iwjk dj ldrs gSaA dk;Z dks 71 360
iwjk djus ds fy, Øe'k%A, B vkSj C }kjk fy;k x;k (c)
2
days (d)
17
days
le; (fnuksa esa) Kkr dhft,A 11. A and B can do a certain work in 6 hours,
and A, B and C together take 4 hours to do
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
the same. How long will it take for C alone
(a) 42, 21, 14 (b) 60, 30, 20 to accomplish the task?
A vkSj B ,d fuf'pr dk;Z dks 6 ?kaVs esa dj ldrs gSa
r
(c) 54, 27, 18 (d) 48, 24, 16
vkSjA, B vkSjC feydj mlh dk;Z dks iwjk djus esa 4
si
8. If one man or two women or four boys or five ?kaVs dk le; ysrs gSaA vdsys
C dks dk;Z iwjk djus esa
girls can finish a work in 39 days, then how
an by fdruk le; yxsxk\
many days will one man, one woman, one boy SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
and one girl together take to finish the same (a) 12 hours (b) 4 hours
n
work? (c) 2 hours (d) 6 hours
12. 5 men and 8 women can complete a work in
;fn ,d iq#"k ;k nks efgyk,a ;k pkj yM+ds ;k ik¡p
ja
R s
12 days working together, while 3 men and
yM+fd;k¡ fdlh dke dks 39 fnu esa iwjk dj ldrs gSa] 7 women together can complete the same
a th
rks ,d iq#"k] ,d efgyk] ,d yM+dk vkSj ,d yM+dh work in 15 days. In how many days will 11
feydj mlh dke dks fdrus fnu esa iwjk djsaxs\ women complete the same work?
5 iq#"k vkSj 8 efgyk,¡ ,d lkFk dke djrs gq, ,d
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 03) dke dks 12 fnu esa iwjk dj ldrs gSa] tcfd 3 iq#"k
ty a
(a) 40 (b) 10 vkSj 7 efgyk,a feydj mlh dke dks 15 fnu esa iwjk
di M
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 04) Øe'k% 10 vkSj 16 fnuksa esa iwjk dj ldrs gSaA ;fn o
(a) 70 (b) 110 ,d fnu ds fy, ckjh&ckjh ls dk;Z djrs gSa]
A }kjk dk;Z
'kq: djus ds lkFk] dk;Z fdrus fnu@fnuksa esa iwjk gks
(c) 80 (d) 105
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
10. Ruchi, Khushi and Teju can do a piece of work 1 1
in 30, 40 and 60 days respectively. In how (a) 10 (b) 12
4 4
many days can Ruchi do the work, if she is
assisted by both Khushi and Teju on every 1 1
(c) 1 (d)
third day? 4 4
r
15. A contractor decided to complete a work in
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
si
80 days and employed 60 men at the
beginning and 20 men additionally after 20 (a) 32% (b) 75%
an by
days and got the work completed as per
schedule. If he had not employed the
(c) 52% (d) 72%
n
additional men, how many extra days would 18. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 11 days,
he have needed to complete the work (round 20 days and 55 days respectively. If B works
ja
off to the nearest integer)? daily and is supported by A and C on alternate
R s
days beginning with A, then in how many days
,d Bsdsnkj us 80 fnuksa esa ,d dke iwjk djus dk iQSlyk will the work be finished?
a th
fd;k vkSj 'kq#vkr esa 60 iq#"kksa dks vkSj 20 fnuksaA,dsB vkSj C ,d dke Øe'k% 11 fnu] 20 fnu vkSj
ckn vfrfjDr 20 iq#"kksaZ dks fu;qDr fd;k vkSj dke dks55 fnu esa iwjk dj ldrs gSaA B;fnizfrfnu dk;Z djrk
le; ds vuqlkj iwjk fd;kA ;fn mlus vfrfjDr iq#"kksa gS vkSjA ls 'kq: djrs gq, ,dkarj fnuksa esa mldh
ty a
A
dks fu;ksftr ugha fd;k gksrk] rks dk;Z dks iwjk djus dsvkSjC }kjk lgk;rk dh tkrh gS] rks dke fdrus fnuksa
di M
fy, mls fdrus vfrfjDr fnuksa dh vko';drk gksrh esa lekIr gks tk,xk\
(fudVre iw.kkZad rd iw.kkZafdr)\ SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
1
(a) 10 (b) 9
(a) 32 days (b) 20 days 3
(c) 30 days (d) 26 days (c) 12 (d) 8
16. 40 men can complete a work in 15 days. Three 19. A group of men decided to do a job in 6 days,
days after they started working, 20 more men but 18 men dropped out every day. If the job
joined them. In how many days the total work was completed in 8 days, then how many men
will be completed? initially decided to do the job.
A
40 vkneh ,d dke dks 15 fnuksa esa iwjk dj ldrs gSaA muds iq#"kksa ds ,d lewg us 6 fnuksa esa ,d dke djus dk
dke 'kq: djus ds rhu fnu ckn 20 vkSj vkneh muds iQSlyk fd;k] ysfdu gj fnu 18 O;fDr dke NksM+rs
x,A ;fn dke 8 fnuksa es iwjk fd;k tkrk gS] rks izkjaH
lkFk tqM+ tkrs gSaA ;g iwjk dke fdrus fnuksa esa iwjk gksxk\
eas fdrus iq#"kksa us dke djus dk fu.kZ; fy;k Fkk\
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
(a) 12 (b) 13
(a) 300 (b) 252
(c) 11 (d) 10 (c) 188 (d) 150
20. A and B can complete a piece of work in 10 23. A civil contractor planned to build an over
and 16 days respectively. A begins to do the bridge of 3 km distance in 600 days. For this
work and they work alternatively one at a time purpose, he employed 90 workers. After 200
for one day each. The whole work will be days of work, it was observed that only 0.5
completed in : km of the bridge was completed. What is the
number of extra workers required to complete
A vkSj B ,d dk;Z dks Øe'k% 10 vkSj 16 fnuksa esa the work in time?
lekIr dj ldrs gSaAA dk;Z djuk 'kq: djrk gS vkSj
,d flfoy Bsdsnkj us 600 fnuksa esa 3 fdeh dh nwjh
os ,d&,d fnu ,dkarj :i ls ,d&,d djds dke
dk ,d vksoj fctz cukus dh ;kstuk cukbZA bl mís';
djrs gSaA iwjk dk;Z fdrus fnuksa esa lekIr gks tk,xk\ ds fy,] mlus 90 Jfedksa dks fu;qDr fd;kA 200 fnuksa
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 03) ds dke ds ckn] ;g ns[kk x;k fd iqy dk dsoy 0-5
fdeh Hkkx gh iwjk gqvk FkkA dk;Z dks le; ij iwjk djus
1 1
(a) 12 days (b) 13 days ds fy, fdrus vfrfjDr deZpkfj;ksa dh vko';drk gS\
4 4
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
r
1 1 (a) 100 (b) 140
(c) 15 days (d) 14 days
si
4 4
(c) 125 (d) 135
21.
65
an by
1 man and 4 women can complete a work in
24. 12 men and 12 women can complete a piece
of work in 9 days. 6 men and 15 women can
n
days, while 3 men and 4 women can
4 complete the same work in 12 days. How long
13 (in days) would it take 9 women to complete
complete it in ja
days. In who many days will half the work?
R s
2
be 13 women compelete the same. 12 iq#"k vkSj 12 efgyk,¡ fdlh dke dks 9 fnu esa iwjk
a th
13
dj ldrs gaS] tcfd 3 iq#"k vkSj 4 efgyk,a bls
2
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
fnu esa iwjk dj ldrs gSaA 13 efgyk,a bls fdrus fnu esa
di M
(a) 20 (b) 16 25. Ten men begin to do a work. But after some
days, four of them left the job. As a result,
(c) 14 (d) 18
the job that could have been completed in 40
22. 25 men and 45 women can complete a piece days is completed in 50 days. How many days
of work in 15 days, while 15 men and 60 after the commencement of the work did the
women can complete it in 20 days. In how four men leave?
many days can 69 men and 67 women
complete the work? nl vkneh ,d dk;Z djuk 'kq: djrs gSaA ysfdu dqN
A
26. In a factory, Ajay and Vijay work on the same 28. A and B can complete a piece of work in 13
machine to cut diamonds but on alternate and 17 days respectively. A begins to do the
hour basis. Ajay works for the first hour and work, and they work alternatively one at a
then Vijay works for the second hour and so time for one day each. The whole work will
on. Ajay can complete the work in 6 hours, be completed in:
while Vijay completes it in 16 hours if they
A vkSj B ,d dke dks Øe'k% 13 vkSj 17 fnu eas iwjk
work individually. In how much time can they
complete the work if they are using the dj ldrs gSaAA dke djuk 'kq: djrk gS] vkSj os ckjh&ckjh
machine on alternate basis? ls ,d&,d fnu djds dk;Z djrs gSaA lEiw.kZ dke fdrus
fnu esa iwjk gksxk\
,d dkj[kkus eas vt; vkSj fot; ghjs dkVus ds fy,
,d gh e'khu ij dke djrs gSa] ysfdu ckjh&ckjh ls SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
r
iwjk dj ldrk gS] tcfd fot; mls 16 ?kaVs eas iwjk 11 11
si
(c) 14 days (d) 11 days
17 17
djrk gS vxj os vyx&vyx dke djrs gSaaA ;fn os
an by
ckjh&ckjh vk/kj ij e'khu dk mi;ksx dj jgs gSa] rks29.
dk;Z dks fdrus le; esa iwjk dj ldrs gSa\
os Anshu, Swati and Rajni can finish a work in
4 days if they work together. However, Anshu
n
alone will take 9 days to complete the work,
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 02) and Swati alone will complete the work in 12
ja days. How many days will Rajni alone take
R s
(a) 8 hours 30 min
to complete the work?
a th
(b) 8 hours
va'kq] Lokfr vkSj jtuh ,d lkFk dke djrs gq, fdlh
(c) 9 hours dke dks 4 fnuksa esa iwjk dj ldrh gSaA gkyk¡fd va'kq
vdsys dke dks iwjk djus esa 9 fnu dk le; yxsxk]
ty a
a work in 20, 30 and 40 days, respectively. ysxhA jtuh dks vdsys dke dks iwjk djus eas fdrus fnu
In how many days Raju can finish the work, dk le; yxsxk\
if he is assisted by Sunil and Vishal on
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
alternate days, starting with Sunil?
(a) 18 (b) 12
jktw] lquhy vkSj fo'kky vyx&vyx ,d dke dks Øe'k% (c) 24 (d) 16
20] 30 vkSj 40 fnuksa esa iwjk dj ldrs gSaA jktw fdrus
30. 20 men can finish a work in 220 days, but
fnuksa esa ;g dke [kRe dj ldrk gS] ;fn lquhy ls at the end of 90 days, 20 additional men are
'kq: djrs gq,] lquhy vkSj fo'kky }kjk ,dkarj fnuksa eas employed. In how many more days will the
(igys fnu lquhy vkSj nwljs fnu fo'kky) mldh lgk;rk work be completed?
A
dh tkrh gS\ 20 iq#"k ,d dk;Z dks 220 fnuksa esa lekIr dj ldrs
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 03) gSaA] ysfdu 90 fnu iwjs gksus ij 20 vkSj iq#"k fu;ksf
fd, tkrs gSaA dk;Z dks lekIr gksus esa vkSj fdrus fn
(a) 12
3
(b) 12
1 yxsaxs\
5 20
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
1 3 (a) 50 (b) 60
(c) 11 (d) 11
20 5 (c) 65 (d) 55
31. Abha and Anuj working together completed 34. If Anju is 30% more efficient than Bitt, then
how much time will they take, working
40
a job in days. If Abha had worked twice together, to complete a job which Anju alone
9
could have done in 23 days?
as efficiently as she actually did and Anuj had
;fn vatw fcV ls 30» vf/d n{k gS] rks ,d lkFk dke
1
worked of his actual efficiency, then the djrs gq,] os ml dk;Z dks iwjk djus esa fdruk le;
3
ysaxs] ftls vatw vdsys 23 fnuksa esa iwjk dj ldrh Fkh\
60 SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
work would have been completed in days.
17
Find the time Abha would take to complete 3
the work alone. (a) 13 days (b) 20 days
17
vkHkk vkSj vuqt ,d lkFk feydj dk;Z djrs gq, fdlh (c) 15 days (d) 11 days
40
dke dks fnu eas iwjk djrs gSaA ;fn vkHkk us 35.
viuh A machine takes 10 h to cut 240 tools. How
9 many tools will it cut in 25 h?
r
okLrfod n{krk ls nksxquh n{krk ls dk;Z fd;k gksrk ,d e'khu 240 vkStkjksa dks dkVus esa 10 ?kaVs dk le
ysrh gSA 25 ?kaVs eas ;g fdrus vkStkjksa dks dkVsxh
si
1
vkSj vuqt us viuh okLrfod n{krk ds ls dk;Z
3 SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
an by
fd;k gksrk] rks dke
60 (a) 600
fnu esa iwjk gks tkrkA vkHkk (c) 550
(b) 480
n
17 (d) 360
}kjk vdsys dke dks iwjk djus esa fy;k x;k le; Kkr djsaA
36. Raju, Shobh and Mohan can do a work in 15
ja
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 03) days, 20 days and 25 days respectively. In
R s
how many days,will the work be finished, if
(a) 10 days (b) 8 days
they do it on alternate days?
a th
work?
djrs gSa] rks dke fdrus fnuksa eas iwjk gks tk,xk\
nks O;fDrP vkSj Q ,d lkFk fdlh dk;Z dks 36 fnuksa
di M
vkSj 15 fnuksa esa dj ldrs gSaA os ,d lkFk dke djuk gq, ml dk;Z dks iwjk djus esa fdruk le; ysaxs] ftls
'kq: djrs gSa ysfduC, 2 fnuksa ds ckn dke NksM+ nsrk B vdsyk 36 fnuksa esa iwjk dj ldrk gS\
gSA 'ks"k dk;Z fdrus fnuksa esa iwjk gksxk\ SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
1
2 1 (a) 18 days (b) 9 days
(a) 1 (b) 1 3
4 4
5 7 2
(c) 1 (d) 2 (c) 15 days (d) 11 days
8 4 3
r
16 13
complete a job which A alone could have done (a) 16 days (b) 16 days
17 17
si
in 29 days?
15 14
A, B ls 20» vf/d n{k gSA os ,d lkFk dk;Z djrs (c) 16
17
days (d) 16
17
days
an by
gq, ml dk;Z dks iwjk djus esa fdruk le; ysaxs Aftls 43.
vdsys 29 fnuksa esa iwjk dj ldrk Fkk\
There are three taps of diameter 2 cm, 3 cm
and 4 cm, respectively. The ratio of the water
n
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 01) flowing through them is equal to the ratio of
the square of their diameters. The biggest tap
145 ja 116 can fill an empty tank alone in 81 min. If all
R s
(a) (b)
11 11 the taps are opened simultaneously, then how
a th
many days can B alone do the work? ,d lkFk [kksy fn;k tk,] rks Vadh dks Hkjus esa fdruk le;
A, B vkSj C feydj fdlh dke dks 10 fnuksa esa iwjk (feuV esa) yxsxk\
dj ldrs gSa] ftlesaB] A vkSjC dks feydj ml dke SSC CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023
dks djus esa yxus okys le; dk 3 xquk le; ysrk gSA 20 20
(a) 34 (b) 60
B vdsyk ml dk;Z dks fdrus fnuksa esa dj ldrk gS\ 29 29
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 02) 20 20
(a) 50 days (b) 40 days (c) 54 (d) 44
29 29
(c) 10 days (d) 15 days 44. There are two inlets A and B connected to a
41. Two persons A and B working separately can tank. A and B can fill the tank in 32 h and 28
sanitise a building in 6 and 10 hours, h, respectively. If both the pipes are opened
A
respectively. They work in stretches of one alternately for 1 h, starting with A, then in
hour alternately. If A begins at 8 a.m., then how much time (in hours, to nearest integer)
when will the work be finished? will the tank be filled?
nl O;fDr A vkSj B vyx&vyx dke djds fdlh ,d VSad ls nks buysV A vkSj B tqM+s gq, A gSaA
vkSj B
VSad dks Øe'k%
Hkou dks Øe'k% 6 vkSj 10 ?kaVs eas LoPN dj ldrs gSaA 32 h vkSj 28 h esa Hkj ldrs gSaA ;fn
os ckjh&ckjh ls ,d&,d ?kaVs ds varjky ij dke djrs nksuksa ikbiksa
A lsdks
'kq: djrs gq,] ckjh&ckjh ls]
1 h ds
8 a.m. ij A dk;Z izkjaHk djrk gS] rks og fy, •ksyk tkrk gS] rks VSad fdrus le; (?kaVksa esa] fudVr
gSaA ;fn
dk;Z fdruh nsj esa lekIr gksxk\ iw.kkZad) esa Hkj tk,xk\
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 03) SSC CGL TIER- II 03/03/2023
r
on till the work is completed. In how many SSC CGL TIER- II 07/03/2023
days the work will be completed?
si
(a) 7 hours 30 minutes/ 7 ?kaVs 30 feuV
P, Q vkSjR vdsys dk;Z djrs gq, fdlh dk;Z dks Øe'k%
an by
5 fnu] 10 fnu vkSj 15 fnu esa iwjk dj ldrs gSaA
Q igys fnu dk;Z djrs gSa]
P vkSj
P vkSjR nwljs fnu dk;Z djrs
(b) 5 hours/5 ?kaVs
(c) 20 hours/20 ?kaVs
n
gSa rFkk
P vkSjQ rhljs fnu dk;Z djrs gSa rFkk blh Øe esa (d) 10 hours/10 ?kaVs
dk;Z djrs gSa tc rd dk;Z iwjk ugha gks tkrkA dk;Z fdrus
ja
R s
fnu esa iwjk gksxk\
a th
ANSWER KEY
ty a
1.(b) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(c) 6.(d) 7.(d) 8.(d) 9.(c) 10.(b)
di M
11.(a) 12.(a) 13.(b) 14.(d) 15.(b) 16.(c) 17.(d) 18.(b) 19.(b) 20.(a)
21.(a) 22.(d) 23.(d) 24.(c) 25.(d) 26.(a) 27.(a) 28.(c) 29.(a) 30.(c)
31.(b) 32.(c) 33.(b) 34.(a) 35.(a) 36.(d) 37.(c) 38.(a) 39.(d) 40.(b)
SOLUTIONS
1. (b) 5. (c)
Given,
P – 15 (2)
30 6M + 8W 10 days
Q – 10 (3) 3M + 4W 20 days
15M + 20W 4 days
A.T.Q. 6. (d)
2(P + Q) + xP = 30 6W 3 days 1W 18 days
2(5) + 2x = 30 9G 2 days 1G 18 days
2x = 20 W 18 (1)
x = 10 18 units
r
Whole work completed in:- G 18 (1)
si
10 + 2 = 12 days 18 18 9
2. (a) 8W + 6G = = =
8 + 6 14 7
A – 10 (4)
an by 7. (d)
A B C
n
B – 20 (2) 40 units Time 6 3 2
Efficiency 1 2 3
C – 40 (1) ja
R s
Total work = 8 × 6 = 48 units
(A,A, A + B + C) Working fashion
48
a th
8 days by A 38 units
48
2 C = 16 days
3
di M
9 days by (A + B + C)
7 'or'
38 + 2 = 40 units Directly check from option ratio of time
should be
2 (6 : 3 : 2)
Total days = 8 days. 8. (d)
7
1M + 2W = 4B = 5G = 39 days
3. (b) 1M = 39
M1 × D1 × H M2 × D2 × H2 1W = 39 × 2
= 39 × 20
W1 W2 1B = 39 × 4
450 × 20 = x × 30 1G = 39 × 5
x = 300 39 × 20
A
4. (a) 1M + 1W + 1B + 1G =
20 +10 + 5 + 4
= 20 days
A B C 9. (c)
days 20 5 4 A + B 50
A B
efficiency 1 4 5 3 5
Total work = 8 × 50 = 400 units
Let total work = 10 × 4 = 40 units
3 400
40 60% work by A = ×
B = 10 days. 5 3
4 = 80 days
r
= days 80 Men 60 days
4 (60 × 20) + (80 × 60) = Total work
si
11. (a)
6000
A + B 6 (2) Required days = = 100 days
an by
A + B + C 4 (3)
12 units
20 Additional days
60
n
16. (c)
C (1)
(40 × 15) = Total work
ja 12 A.T.Q.
R s
C will take = = 12 hours
1 (40 × 3) + (60 × x) = (40 × 15)
12. (a)
a th
M 3 B – 20 (5)
= 100 units
W 5
Total work = 12(15 + 40) C – 25 (4)
= 660 units A.T.Q.
2 × (A + B + C) + 2(A + B) + xA = 100
660 38 + 30 + xA = 100
11 women ]
11 × 5 xA = 100 – 68 = 32
12 days 32 16
13. (b) x= = days.
10 5
A 10 (8) 16
80 units Work (2 × 10) + (2 ×10) + ×10
A
5
B 16 (5) 40 + 32 = 72
Working fashion = (A, B, A, B...) 72
2 days 13 units Required% = ×100 = 72%
100
12 days 78 units
'or'
1 C=4×2=8
13th days by A days 80 units B = 5 × 4 20
4
100 – 28 = 72
1 72
Total time = 12 days ×100 = 72%
4 100
r
19. (b) 300(1M + 4W) = 75(5M + 9W)
si
Let there be 'x' men initial with efficiency '1' 4M + 16W = 5M + 9W
of each man. 7W = M
an by
First day x × 1 units
II day (x – 18) units
W 1
=
n
M 7
VIII day (x – 126) units
Total work = 300 × (7 + 4)
also, total work = 6x
ja
x + (x – 18) +....+ (x – 126) = 6x
= 3300 units
R s
3300
8x – 18 – 36-------126 = 6x 69 man + 67 women =
a th
8x – 18(1 + 2 +....+ 7) = 6x 69 × 7 + 67
= 6 days
8x – 18 × 7 × 4 = 6x
23. (d)
2x = 18 × 28
x = 252. M1 × D1 × H1 M2 × D2 × H2
ty a
=
20. (a) W1 W2
di M
21. (a) 3M + 3W = 2M + 5W
65 M = 2W
1M + 4W = days
4 M 2
=
13 W 1
3M + 4W = days
2 Total work = 36 (4 + 5)
= 36 × 9 = 324
65 13
1M + 4W = 3M + 4W 162
4 2 9 Women = 18 days
9
25. (d)
36
Let 4 men leave after x days. = 18 days.
A.T.Q. 2
10x + 6(50 – x) = 40 × 10 30. (c)
10x + 300 – 6x = 400 20 Men 220 days
x = 25 days A.T.Q.
26. (a) (20 × 90) + (40 × x) = 220 × 20
40x = 4400 – 1800
A 6 (8)
40x = 2600
48 units
x = 65
V 16 (3)
31. (b)
Working fashion (A, V, A, V....)
2 hours 11 units 40
Ab + An
8 hours 44 units 9
1 1 60
9 hours hours 48 units 2Ab + An
2 3 17
r
1 40 60 1
Total time = 8 hours (Ab + An) = 2Ab + An
2 9 17 3
si
27. (a)
2 2 6 1
R –20 (6) an by Ab + An = Ab + An
9 9 17 17
S – 30 (4) 120 units An Ab
n
2 1 6 2
– = –
17 9
V – 40 (3) 9 17
ja 25An = 20Ab
R s
Working fashion (R + S, R + V)
2 days 10 + 9 = 19 units An 4
=
a th
3 40
Total time 12 days Abha = 8 days
5 5
di M
11 A 6 (5)
Total time 14 days
A
17
B 10 (3) 30 units
29. (a)
C 15 (2)
A + S + R 4 (9)
A.T.Q.
A 9 (4) 36 2(A + B + C) + x(A + B) = 30
20 + 8x = 30
S 12 (3)
8x = 10
R (2) 5 1
x= = 1 days
Rajani will complete the work in 4 4
r
36. (d) 41. (b)
si
R 15 (20) A 6 (5)
an by 30
S 20 (15) 300 units B 10 (3)
n
M 25 (12) Working fashion (A, B, A, B,....)
2 hours 8 units
Working fashion (R, S, M, R, S, M....)
ja 6 hours 24 units
R s
3 days 47 units
18 days 282 units 7 hours 29 units
a th
18 1
19 days days 300 units 8 hours hours 30 units
20 3
9 1
ty a
42. (a)
A B P 32
14 10 8
In 8 days, Pawan can do =
7 : 15 32
Let, total work = 36 × 5 th
1
36 × 5 = work
Both will take = = 15 days 4
12
th
38. (a) 3
work by Sandeep in 27 days
4
A 12 (10)
Fill work by Sandeep in 36 days
A
168 288 16
Time taken = = 8 days = = 16 days.
21 17 17
r
7
224 Units 2 days 17 units
8
si
B 28 3 days 26 units
an by
2 hr. 15 units
1
2
days 30 units
n
28 hrs. 210 units
29 hrs. 217 units Total time = 3 1 = 7 days
ja 2 2
R s
7 47. (b)
hrs. 224 units
8
a th
We know,
7 M1 D1 H1 M2 D2 H2
Total time 29 hrs. =
8 W1 W2
ty a
30 hrs. 10 × 6× D1 = 12 × H1 × D1
di M
5 = H1
......-------......
A
r
(c) 451 km (d) 452 km 1
2. If Ram covers a certain journey at 60% of his 5. If a man travels at km/h on a journey and
si
x
usual speed, he reaches the destination late
1
an by
by 36 min. His usual time (in min) to reach
the destination is:
returns at
x2
km/h, then his average speed
for the journey is:
n
;fn jke ,d fuf'pr ;k=kk viuh lkekU; pky dh 60»
1
pky ls r; djrk gS] rks og 36 feuV dh nsjh ls xarO; ;fn ,d O;fDr ;k=kk ij km/h dh pky ls pyrk
ja
ij igq¡prk gSA xarO; rd igq¡pus eas mldk lkekU; le;
x
R s
1
(feuV eas) gSA gS vkSj km/h dh pky ls ykSVrk gS] rks ;k=kk ds
a th
x2
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 04) fy, mldh vkSlr pky D;k gS\
(a) 60 (b) 72 SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
ty a
(c) 50 (d) 54 x +1 2
3. Two-thirds of a certain distance was covered (a) (b)
x2 x + x2
di M
7. A thief steals a bike at 12:30p.m. and drives ,d iqfyldehZ us ,d pksj dks 450 m dh nwjh ls
it at 48km/h. But the theft is discovered after ns[kkA iqfyldehZ us mldk ihNk djuk 'kq# fd;k rks
half an hour. The bike owner starts to chase
him on another bike at 58km/h. The thief will
pksj Hkh Hkkxus yxkA pksj dh pky vkSj iqfyldehZ d
be caught at ________. pky dk vuqikr 7 % 8 gSA fdruh nwj(km easa
) nkSM+us
,d pksj us 12:30p.m. ij ,d ckbd pqjkbZ vkSj bls ds ckn iqfyldehZ pksj dks idM+ ldrk gS\
48km/h dh pky ls pykrk gSA ysfdu vk/s ?kaVs ds SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
ckn pksjh dk irk pyrk gSA ckbd dk Lokeh 58 km/ (a) 3.75 (b) 3.4
h dh pky ls nwljh ckbd ij mldk ihNk djuk izkjaHk (c) 3.6 (d) 3.15
dj nsrk gSA pksj fdrus le; ij idM+ fy;k tk,xk\ 11. R jogs at twice the speed of walking and runs
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 02) at twice the speed of jogging. From his home
(a) 3:40p.m. (b) 3:54p.m. to office, he covers half of the distance by
(c) 3:10p.m. (d) 3:24p.m. walking and the rest by jogging. From his
8. Vikas covered a certain distance by bike. If office to home, he covers half the distance
he covers 40% of the distance at 40 km/h, jogging and the rest by running. What is his
r
50% of the distance at 25 km/h and the average speed (in km/h) in a complete round
si
remaining 10% distance at 10 km/h. Find his from his home to office and back home if the
average speed over the whole distance. distance between his office and home is 10
an by
fodkl us ,d fuf'pr nwjh ckbd ls r; dhA ;fn og
40» dh nwjh40 km/h dh pky ls] 50» nwjh 25
km and he walks at the speed of 5 km/h?
R pyus dh pky dh rqyuk eas nksxquh pky ls tkWfxax
n
km/h dh pky ls vksj 'ks"k 10» dh nwjh 10 km/h djrk gS vkSj tkWfxax dh rqyuk esa nksxquh pky nk
dh pky ls r; djrk gS] rks iwjh nwjh r; djus eas mldh gSA vius ?kj ls vkWfiQl rd og vk/h nwjh pydj r;
ja
R s
vkSlr pky Kkr dhft,A djrk gS vkSj 'ks"k tkWfxax djdsA og vius vkWfiQl
?kj vkrs le; vk/h nwjh tkWfxax djds vkSj 'ks"k nwj
a th
r
(d) The speed of 99 km/h is less than the 7 dwnksa eas r; dh xbZ nwjh Bhd oghB gS }kjk
tks5
si
speed of 24 m/s.
dwnksa esa r; dh tkrh AgSA
vkSj B dh pkyksa ds chp
99 km/h dh pky 24 m/s dh pky ls de gksrh gSA
an by vuqikr Kkr djsaA
14. Prasad goes 96 kilometres on a bike at a speed
of 16 km/h, 124 kilometres at 31 km/h in a SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
n
car, and 105 kilometres at 7 km/h in a horse (a) 32 : 24 (b) 30 : 56
cart. Find his average speed for the entire
ja (c) 20 : 21 (d) 28 : 36
R s
distance travelled.
18. John drives 250 km at 50 km/h and then he
izlkn ,d ckbd ij 16 km/h dh pky ls 96 fdyksehVj drives 350km at 70km/h. Find his average
a th
dkj eas31 km/h dh pky ls 124 fdyksehVj vkSj speed for the whole journey in km/h.
?kksM+k xkM+h eas dh pky ls 105 fdyksehVj
7 km/h
tkWu250 km dh nwjh50 km/h dh pky ls xkM+h
tkrk gSA r; dh xbZ iwjh nwjh ds fy, mldh vkSlr pykdj r; djrk gS vkSj fiQj og 350 km dh nwjh
ty a
pky Kkr dhft,A 70 km/h dh pky ls xkM+h pykdj r; djrk gSA iwjh
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
;k=kk ds nkSjku mldh vkSlr pky
( km/h esa
) Kkr dhft,A
di M
ds chp dh nwjh fdruh gksxh\ ,d pksj us ,d nqdku ls 8:15 p.m. ij tsoj pqjk,
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 04) vkSj60 km/h dh pky ls ckbd ij Hkkx x;kA iqfyl
(a) 175m (b) 350m dks8:30 p.m. cts lwpuk nh xbZA ;fn iqfyl pksj dks
(c) 250m (d) 150m
9:00 p.m. cts fxjÝrkj djuk pkgrh gS] rks iqfyl
16. A dog saw a cat at a distance of 280 m. The
cat started running at the speed of 10 km/h thi dh U;wure pky fdruh gksuh pkfg,\
and the dog also ran to catch it with the speed SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
of 24 km/h. How much time will the dog take (a) 60 km/h (b) 75 km/h
to catch the cat?
(c) 80 km/h (d) 90 km/h
20. Two cities A and B are 135 km apart on a straight 'x' km/h dh pky ls nkSM+ jgs ,d pksj dk ihNk]
10
track. One car starts from A at 8 a.m. and travels km/h dh pky ls nkSM+ jgs ,d iqfyldehZ }kjk fd;k
towards B at 25 km/h. Another car starts from
tkrk gSA ;fn pksj 100 ehVj vkxs gS] rks iqfyldehZ 3
B at 9 a.m. and travels towards A at a speed of
30 km/h. At what time will they meet?
feuV ds ckn pksj dks idM+ ysrk gSA rks crkb, fd
pksj fdl pky ls Hkkx jgk gS
('x' vKkr pky gSA
)\
nks 'kgjA vkSj B lh/s jkLrs ij 135 km dh nwjh ij SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
gSaA ,d dkjA ls 8 a.m. ij pyuk 'kq: djrh gS (a) 4 km/h (b) 8 km/h
vkSjB dh vksj 25 km/h dh pky ls pyrh gSA ,d (c) 10 km/h (d) 6 km/h
vU; dkj 9 a.m. ij B ls pyuk 'kq: djrh gS vkSj 24. A person covers a certain distance by bus at 45
km/h and immediately returns to the starting
A dh vksj 30 km/h dh pky ls pyrh gSA os fdl
point by car at a speed of 80 km/h. What is his
le; feysaxh\ average speed during the whole journey?
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 01) ,d O;fDr fdlh fuf'pr nwjh dks cl }kjk 45 km/h
(a) 11 a.m. (b) 10 a.m. dh pky ls r; djrk gS vkSj rqjar dkj }kjk80 km/
h dh pky ls izkjafHkd fcUnq ij okil vkrk gSA iwjh
r
(c) 10:45 a.m. (d) 11:30 a.m.
;k=kk ds nkSjku mldh vkSlr pky fdruh gS\
21. A person travels in a car at 40 km/h for 3
si
hours, on a bike at 30 km/h for 2 hours, and SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
(a) 57.6 km/h (b) 63.2 km/h
in a train at 80 km/h for 5 hours. What is
an by (c) 73.5 km/h (d) 45.5 km/h
the average speed at which he travelled?
25. A jeep travels to a place 300 km away at an
,d O;fDr dkj eas 40 km/h dh pky ls 3 ?kaVs] ckbd
n
average speed of 60 km/h and returns at a
ij 30 km/h dh pky ls 2 ?kaVs vkSj Vªsu80esa speed of 30 km/h. What is the average speed
ja
km/h dh pky ls 5 ?kaVs ;k=kk djrk gSA mlds }kjk
(in km/h) for the whole journey?
R s
,d thi 300 km nwj fdlh LFkku dh ;k=kk60 km/
fdl vkSlr pky ls ;k=kk dh xbZ\
dh vkSlr pky ls djrh gS vkSj 30 km/h dh
a th
h
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
pky ls okil vkrh gSA bl iwjh ;k=kk ds fy, vkSlr
(a) 56 km/h (b) 60 km/h pky (km/h esa) Kkr dhft,A
(c) 62 km/h (d) 58 km/h
ty a
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 02) h dh pky ls] os ,d ?kaVs rd pys_ fiQj mUgksaus ,d
(a) 35 km (b) 60 km ?kaVs vkjke fd;k vkSj vk/s ?kaVs rd nksigj dk Hkks
(c) 45 km (d) 62 km fd;k_ fiQj 1 m/s dh pky ls] os ,d ?kaVs rd pydj
23. A thief running at speed of ‘x’ km/h is chased ,d cxhps esa x,_ vkSj var esa
4 km/h dh pky ls os
by a policeman running at a speed of 10 km/ 3 ?kaVs esa ?kj ykSV vk,A mudh vkSlr km/hpky]esa]
h. If the thief is ahead by 100 metres, the fdruh (nks n'keyo LFkku rd iw.kkZafdr) gS\
policeman catches the thief after 3 minutes. SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
At what speed is the thief running (‘x’ being (a) 3.48 (b) 129.23
the unknown speed)? (c) 0.28 (d) 251.62
27. Ram starts from point A at 8 a.m. and reaches ,d Nk=k esVªks LVs'ku rd igq¡pus ds fy, vius ?kj ls 6
point B at 2 p.m. on the same day. On the same fdeh pyk] fiQj ,d esVªks esa lokj gqvk ftldh vkSlr
day, Raju starts from point B at 8 a.m. and
reaches point A at 6 p.m. on the same day. Both
xfr 60 fdeh@?kaVk gS] vkSj xarO; ij igq¡p x;kA iw
points A and B are separated by only a straight ;k=kk esa 3 ?kaVs dk le; yxkA ;fn iwjh ;k=kk dh vkSl
line track. At what time they both meet? xfr 32 fdeh@?kaVk gS] rks pyus dh xfr gSA
jke fcUnqA ls 8 a.m. ij pyuk 'kq: djrk gS vkSj SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
mlh fnu fcUnq B ij 2 p.m. ij igq¡prk gSA mlh fnu] (a) 1.5 km/h (b) 3 km/h
(c) 2 km/h (d) 4 km/h
jktw fcUnqB ls 8 a.m. ij pyuk 'kq: djrk gS vkSj
30. A man can row 10 km/h in still water. When
mlh fnu fcUnqA ij 6 p.m. ij igq¡prk gSA nksuksa
the river is running at a speed of 4.5 km/h,
fcUnqA vkSj B dsoy ,d lh/h js[kk okys VªSd }kjk then it takes him 2 h to row to a place and
i`Fkd fd, x, gSaA os nksuksa fdrus cts feyrs gSa\ comes back to the initial point . How far is
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 03) the place (in km) (rounded off to two decimal
places)?
(a) 11:45 a.m. (b) 9:42 a.m.
(c) 10:42 a.m. (d) 12:42 p.a.
,d vkneh 'kkar ty esa 10 km/h dh pky ls uko
r
pyk ldrk gSA ;fn unh 4.5 km/h dh pky ls cg
28. A policeman spotted a thief 40 metres ahead
jgh gS] rks mls ,d LFkku rd tkus vkSj vkjafHkd fcUn
si
of him. The moment they both saw each other
they started running in the same direction rd okil vkus esa 2 ?kaVs dk le; yxrk gSA og LFkku
an by
on the same track. The thief was running at
10 m/sec and the policeman was chasing him
fdruh nwjh km
( esa) ij fLFkr gS (nks n'keyo LFkku
rd iw.kkZafdr)\
n
at the speed of 12 m/sec. How much distance
(in metres) the policeman needed to cover to SSC CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023
catch the thief?
ja (a) 5.50 (b) 8.98
R s
,d iqfyldehZ us vius lkeus 40 ehVj dh nwjh ij ,d
(c) 7.98 (d) 6.25
pksj ns[kkA nksuksa us ,d nwljs dks ns[krs gh ,d gh ekxZ ij
a th
iqfyldehZ dks fdruh nwjh (ehVj esa) r; djuh gksxh\ decimal places)
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 04) js'kek lkbfdy ls 45 km dh nwjh15 km/h dh pky
di M
(a) 180 (b) 240 ls] dkj ls 80 km dh nwjh40 km/h dh pky ls vkSj
(c) 200 (d) 225
29. A student walked 6 km from his house to
iSny pydj ckdh 6 km dh nwjh2 km/h dh pky ls
reach the metro station, then boarded a metro r; djrh gSA iwjh ;k=kk ds fy, mldh vkSlr pky Kkr
that has an average speed of 60km/h, and dhft,A (2 n'keyo LFkku rd iw.kk±fdr)
reached the destination. It took 3 hours for SSC CGL TIER- II 06/03/2023
the entire journey. If the average speed of the
entire journey is 32 km/h, then the speed of (a) 15.25 km/h (b) 16.38 km/h
walking is ________. (c) 18.36 km/h (d) 43.50 km/h
ANSWER KEY
A
1.(c) 2.(d) 3.(d) 4.(d) 5.(b) 6.(b) 7.(d) 8.(a) 9.(d) 10.(c)
11.(d) 12.(b) 13.(d) 14.(b) 15.(c) 16.(c) 17.(c) 18.(b) 19.(d) 20.(a)
21.(d) 22.(b) 23.(b) 24.(a) 25.(c) 26.(a) 27.(a) 28.(b) 29.(d) 30.(c)
31.(b)
SOLUTIONS
1. (c) 36 ltr. 492 km. 2
492 x³
33 ltr. 33 x 1
36
x²
= 41 × 11
2 x²
= 451 km.
x³ (x 1)
1
2. (d) Speed 2
Time
x (x 1)
Usual New 6. (b)
r
A B
Speed 5 3 20 km/hr.
si
1
Let AB = x kmr. in 1 hrs. first can travel
Time 3an by 5 2
2 3
20 = 30 km.
n
2 36 min. 2
ATQ,
3 54 min.
ja
R s
x – 30 x 5
3. (a) Let, Total Distance = 12 × 900 – =
20 30 2
a th
12 900 2
T1 = = 160 3x – 90 – 2x 5
45 3 =
60 2
12 900 1 x = 240 km.
ty a
T2 = = 45
60 4 48
7. (d) In how hover thief will cover = = 24 km.
2
di M
12 900 1
T3 = = 12 Relative speed = (58 – 48) km/hr.
75 12
= 10 km/hr.
12 900 24
Average Speed = Time = = 2.4 hr.
160 45 12 10
= 2 hr. 24 min.
12 900
= at 1 : 00 + 2 hr 24 min.
217 03 : 24 pm.
= 49.76 km/hr. 8. (a) Let, Total distance = 100 km.
4. (d) Relative speed = (23 – 21) m/sec. 40
T1 = = 1hr.
= 2m/sec. 40
A
97 50
Time = = 48.5 sec . T2 = = 2 hr.
2 25
2 a b 10
5. (b) Average speed = T3 = = 1hr.
ab 10
100
1 1 Average speed =
2 T1 T2 T3
x x²
1 1 100
= = 25 km/hr.
x x² 4
r
x
= 3150 m 96 124 105
si
16 31 7
3.15 km.
11. (d)
Speed
Walking
5
an by Jogging
10
Running
20
325
6 4 15
=
325
25
= 13
n
10 km. 15. (c)
48 km/hr.
ja
R s
Home K Office
36 km/hr.
a th
Hk ko 1
T1 = = 1, T2 = =
5 10 2
ok 1 kh 1
ty a
T3 = = , T4 = =
10 2 20 4
di M
Total distance
Avg. speed =
Total time Let, Bus 1 travels D1 km. in 15 sec. and Bus 2
travels D2 km. in 15 sec.
20
=
1 1 1 5
1 D1 = 48 × 15 200 m.
2 2 4 18
20 5
= D2 = 36 15 = 150 m.
1 18
2
4 Distance b/w D1 and D2 :-
80 = (200)² (150)²
A
=
9
= 250
8 16. (c) Relative Speed = 24 – 10
12. (b) S1 = 50 S2 = × 50
5 = 14 km/hr.
= 80 280 18
Time = = 72 sec .
2 S1 S2 14 5
Avg. speed =
S1 S2 72
= 1.2 min .
= 61.53 km/hr. 60
r
= AC = 105 – 45
250 350
= 60 km.
si
50 70
23. (b) Relative speed = (10 – x) km/hr.
=
600
5 5
an by
= 60 km/hr. ATQ,
n
19. (d) Distance travelled by thief in 15 min. 100 18
= 3 60
(10 – x) 5
1
60 × ja
= 15 km.
10 – x = 2
R s
4
ATQ, x = 8 km/hr.
a th
1 15 2 × S1 × S2
= 24. (a) Avg. speed =
2 (P– 60) S1 + S2
ty a
30 = P – 60 2 45 80
P = 90 km/hr. =
45 80
di M
C = 57.6 km/hr.
20. (a) A B
25 Total distance
25. (c) Avg. speed =
Relative speed = 25 + 30 Total time
= 55 km/hr. 300 300 600
Distance = 135 – 25 = 110 km. = =
5 10 15
110 = 40 km/hr.
Time = = 2 hrs.
55
Total distance
i.e. at 11 am. 26. (a) Avg. speed =
Total time
A
27. (a)
3
A B he walked of hrs.
2
A B
Time 6 10 62
Walking speed =
Speed 10x : 6x 3
Relative speed = 10 + 6 = 16x = 4 km/hr.
Distance = 10 × 6 = 60x 30. (c)
Time at which they meet:- x = 10 km/hr., y = 4.5 km/hr.
60 15 3 D D
= = = 3 hrs. =2
16 4 4 10 4.5 10 – 4.5
3 hrs. 45 min. 1 1
at 11 : 45 am. D =2
14.5 5.5
28. (b)
r
Relative speed = 12 – 10 2
D= 14.5 5.5
20
si
= 2 m/sec.
= 7.98
40
an by
Time = = 20 sec . 31. (b)
2
n
distance by police = 20 × 12 Total distance
Average speed =
= 240 m. Total time
29. (d) ja
R s
45 80 6
=
6 km. x km. 45 80 6
a th
15 40 2
ATQ,
131 131
32 × 3 = 6 + 60 × t = = = 16.38
ty a
3 23 8
3
t= = 1.5 hr.
di M
2
......-------......
A
TRAIN
12
jsyxkM+h
1. The distance covered by a train in (5y – 1) fcUnqH ls ,d jsyxkM+h 6:30 vijkgu ij K dh vksj
hours is (125y³ – 1) km. The speed of the train
90 fd-eh-@?kaVk dh pky ls pyuk vkjaHk djrh gSA ,d
is:
vU; jsyxkM+h 7:30 vijkgu ij fcUnq K ls fcUnqH
,d jsyxkM+h }kjk (5y – 1) ?kaVks esa r; dh xbZ nwjh
(125y³ – 1) km gSA jsyxkM+h dh pky Kkr dhft,A
dh vksj 72 fd-eh-?kaVk dh pky ls pyuk vkjaHk djrh
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
gSA nksuksa jsyxkfM+;k¡ J ij fcUnq
11:30 vijkgu ij
(a) (5y³ – 1) km/h feyrh gSAHJ rFkkKJ nwjh dk vuqikr D;k gS\
(b) (25y² – 5y + 1) km/h SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
r
(c) (5y + 1) km/h (a) 25 : 16 (b) 5 : 16
si
(d) (25y² + 5y + 1) km/h
(c) 36 : 25 (d) 31 : 19
2. Two trains P and Q start from stations S and
an by
T towards each other. Train P takes 4 hours
48 minutes and train Q takes 3 hours 20
5. Two trains are moving in the same direction
at the speed of 36 km/hr and 48 km/hr. The
n
minutes to reach T and S, respectively, after time taken by faster train to cross a man
they meet. If the speed of train P is 45 km/ sitting in the slower train is 33 seconds. What
ja
h, what is the speed of train Q? will be the length of the faster train?
R s
nks Vªsusa
P vkSj Q, LVs'kuS vkSjT ls ,d nwljs dh
nks jsyxkfM+;k¡ 36 fd-eh@?kaVk rFkk 48 fd-eh-@?
vksj pyuk 'kq: djrh gSaA muds feyus ds ckn Øe'k%
a th
7. A train travels at a speed of 18 m/s in the 9. Two stations R and S are 400 km apart from
first 5 minutes, covers 7.5 km in the next 10 each other. A train leaves from R to S and
minutes and covers 12 km in another 10 simultaneously another train leaves from S to
minutes. What is its average speed (in km/h, R. Both trains meet after 10 hours. If the speed
rounded off to 1 decimal place) for the entire of the first train is 4 km/hr more than the second
journey?
train, then what is the speed of the slower train?
,d Vsªu igys 5 feuV esa18 m/s dh xfr ls ;k=kk
nks LVs'ku
R rFkkS ,d nwljs ls 400 fd-eh- dh nwjh
djrh gS] vxys 10 feuV esa 7.5 km dh nwjh r; djrh
gS vkSj nwljs 10 feuV12 esakm dh nwjh r; djrh gSA ij gSaA ,d jsyxkM+h
R ls S ds fy, fudyrh gS rFkk
iwjh ;k=kk ds fy, bldh vkSlr xfr(km/h esa 1 n'keyo mlh le; ,d vU; jsyxkM+hS ls R ds fy, fudyrh
ds LFkku rd iw.kkZafdr
) D;k gS\ gSA 10 ?kaVs ds i'pkr~ nksuksa jsyxkfM+;k¡ feyrh gS
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 03) igyh jsyxkM+h dh pky nwljh jsyxkM+h ls 4 fd-eh-@?
(a) 59.8 (b) 71.2
vfèkd gS] rks /heh okyh jsyxkM+h dh pky D;k gS\
(c) 45.7 (d) 64.6 SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(a) 18 km/h (b) 26 km/h
r
8. Train A running at 81 km/h takes 72 sec to
overtake train B, when both the trains are (c) 16 km/h (d) 22 km/h
si
running in the same direction, but it takes
36 sec to cross each other if the trains are 10. A goods train 350 m long passes through a
an by
running in the opposite direction. If the length
of train B is 600 metres, then find the length
tunnel of length 1250 m in 80 seconds. What
is the speed of the train?
n
of train A. (in metres)
350 m yach ,d ekyxkM+h 1250 m yach lqjax dks 80
81 km/h dh pky ls pyus okyh VªsuA, VsuB ls
ja lsdaM esa ikj djrh gSA ekyxkM+h dh pky D;k gS\
vkxs fudyus esa 72 sec dk le; rc ysrh gS] tc
R s
nksuksa Vªsusa ,d gh fn'kk esa py jgh gksrh gSa] ysfdu ;fn SSC CGL TIER- II 07/03/2023
a th
Vªsusa
foijhr fn'kk esa py jgh gS] rks ,d&nwljs dks ikj (a) 64 km/h
djus esa36 sec dk le; ysrh gSaA ;fn Vsªu
B dh yackbZ (b) 56 km/h
600 ehVj gS] rks Vªsu
A dh yackbZ Kkr djsaA (ehVj esa)
(c) 78 km/h
ty a
ANSWER KEY
1.(d) 2.(c) 3.(c) 4.(a) 5.(c) 6.(d) 7.(a) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10.(d)
A
SOLUTIONS
1. (d) I train travelled for 5 hours before meeting
Distance = (125y³ – 1³) Distance by P = 90 × 5 = 450
Time = (5y –1) = HJ
II Train travelled for 4 hours before meeting
Distance
Speed = Distance by = 72 × 4
time
= 288 km = KJ
3 3
125y – 1 HJ : KJ = 450 : 288
=
5y – 1 = 25 : 16
r
5. (c)
5y 3 – 13 Relative speed = 48 – 36
si
=
5y – 1
= 12 km/hr
2. (c)
an by
= (25y² + 5y + 1) km/hr
Length of faster train
= time
n
Relative speed
We know,
5
ja
Speed of P time by Q after meet Length = 33 × 12 ×
R s
= 18
Speed of Q time by p after meet
a th
= 55 × 2 = 110 metre.
48 6. (d)
4 10 × 5
45 60 Relative speed = 48 + 60
= =
20
ty a
Q 3 × 24 = 108 km/hr
3
60
5
di M
Length = 12 × 108 ×
18
25
= = 360 metre.
36
7. (a)
45 5 Distance1 = 18 × 5 × 60
=
Q 6
= 5400 metre.
Q = 54 km/hr = 5.4 km
3. (c) Distance2 = 7.5 km
We know, Distance 3
= 12 km
A
S1 × S2 Total Distance
× t = Distance Average speed =
S1 – S2 Total Time
8. (b) 9. (a)
(A – B)× 72 = LA + 600
400 km
5
(81 – B)× 72 = LA + 600 ...(1) R S
18
Let, speed of B = x
Also,
Speed o A = 4 + x
5 A.T.Q.
(A + B) × 36 = LA + 600 ...(2)
18
400
From (1) and (2) (x + 4 + x) =
10
5 5 = 2x = 40 – 4
× (81 – B)72 = (81 + B) 36 ×
18 18 x = 18
81 × 2 – 2B = 81 + B Speed of slower train = 18 km/hr
3B = 81 10. (d)
81
B= = 27 Length of train + tunnel
Speed =
r
3 Time
Put B in (1)
si
350 1250 1600
5 = =
(81 – 27) × 72 ×
an by = LA + 600 80 80
18
1080 – 600 = LA = 20 m/s.
n
LA = 480 mtr. 18
d 20 × = 72 km/hr.
5
ja
R s
......-------......
a th
ty a
di M
A
RACE
13
nkSM+
1. In a 1500 m race, Anil beats Bakul by 150 SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
m and in the same race Bakul beats Charles
by 75 m. By what distance does Anil beat 17 26
(a) m / sec (b) m / sec
Charles? 3 9
1500 m dh nkSM+ eas] vfuy us cdqy150dks m ls
17 26
gjk;k vkSj mlh nkSM+ esa cdqy us pkYLkZ
75 m lsdks (c)
9
m / sec (d)
3
m / sec
gjk;kA vfuy us pkYlZ dks fdruh nwjh ls gjk;k gS\
5. In a linear race of 1000 m, A beats B by 50
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
r
m or 5 seconds. What is the difference between
(a) 217.50 m (b) 200.15 m the speeds (in m/s) of A and B?
si
(c) 293.50 m (d) 313.75 m
2. an by
In a 400-metre race, A runs at a speed of 16
m/sec. If A gives B a start of 15 metres and
1000 m dh jSf[kd nkSM+A,esa
lsdaM ls gjk nsrk gSA
B dks 50 m ;k 5
A vkSj B dh pky (m/s eas
) ds
n
still beats him by 10 sec, then what is the
speed of B? chp fdruk varj gS\
ja
400 ehVj dh nkSM+Aesa]
16 ehVj@lsdaM dh pky ls SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
R s
nkSM+rk gSA A,;fn
B dks 15 ehVj dh 'kq#vkr nsrk gS
10 10
a th
(c) (d)
(a) 11 m/sec (b) 10 m/sec 19 10
(c) 13 m/sec (d) 9 m/sec 6. In a race, there are 4 members in a team. Each
di M
3. In a 100-m race, A beats B by 20 m and B member has to cover 5 km one after another.
beats C by 20 m. By how much distance does If the total time taken is 30 minutes, then
A beat C. what would have been the average speed?
100 m dh nkSM+A, esaB dks 20 m ls gjkrk gS vkSj ,d nkSM+ esa] ,d Vhe4eas
lnL; gSaA izR;sd lnL; dks
B, C dks 20 m ls gjkrk gSAA, C dks fdruh nwjh ls ,d ds ckn ,d 5 km dh nwjh r; djuh gSA ;fn dqy
gjkrk gS\ 30 feuV dk le; yxk gS] rks vkSlr pky D;k gksxh\
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 03) SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(a) 64 m (b) 24 m
(c) 25 m (d) 36 m km km
(a) 50 (b) 40
hr hr
A
1500 m dh jsl eas] ;fn okgu P okgu Q dks 200 9. In a 1000 m race, Arjun, Balaji and Charan
m dh c<+r nsrk gS] rks okgu P, 8 lsd.M jsl thr are running. Arjun beats Balaji by 100 m, and
Balaji beats Charan by 100 m. In the next
tkrk gSA blds foijhr] ;fn okguP okgu Q dks 400
1000 m race (the speeds are the same as in
m dh c<+r nsrk gS] rks jsl cjkcjh ij lekIr gksrh gSA
the previous), Balaji gives Charan a head start
okgu P dks 1500 m pyus esa fdruk le; yxrk gS\ of 100 m, and Arjun gives Balaji a head start
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 01) of 100 m. Find the distance by which the
(a) 44 sec (b) 45 sec winner is ahead of the person just behind him.
(c) 40 sec (d) 60 sec
8. In a linear race of 500 m, A can beat B by
1000 m dh nkSM+ esa vtqZu] ckykth vkSj pj.k nkS
50 m and in a race of 600 m, B can beat C jgs gSaA vtqZu us ckykth
100dks
m ls vkSj ckykth us
by 60 m. By how many metres will A beat C pj.k dks 100 m ls gjk;kA vxyh 1000 m nkSM+ esa
in a race of 400 m? (xfr fiNys dh rjg gh gS) ckykth] pj.k dks 100
500 m dh ,d js[kh; nkSM+ esa]
A, B dks 50 m ls
m dh 'kq#vkr nsrs gSaA vkSj vtqZu] ckykth 100dks
gjk ldrk gS vkSj600 m dh nkSM+ B,
esaC dks 60
m dh 'kq#vkr nsrs gSaA og nwjh Kkr dhft,A ftlls
r
m ls gjk ldrk gSA 400 m dh nkSM+ A, esaC dks
fotsrk Bhd ihNs okys O;fDr ls vkxs gSA
fdrus ehVj ls gjk,xk\
si
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
(a) 70
(c) 76
an by (b) 68
(d) 72
(a) 100 m
(c) 30 m
(b) 40 m
(d) 20 m
n
ja ANSWER KEY
R s
a th
SOLUTIONS
1. (a) AnilBakul Charles Total distance
6. (b) Avg. speed
15001350 Total time
1500 1425 45
= 20 × 2 = 40 km/hr.
1500 : 1350 : 1282.5 30
Anil beats charles by (1500 – 1282.5) 60
217.50m 7. (a) P Q
2. (a) A's speed = 16 m/sec. Distance 1500 1100
A B Time 1 1
Distance 400 385 Speed 15x 11x
Also,
Speed 16 m/s –
r
Time 25 sec. 35 sec. 1100 1500
– =8
si
11x 15x
385
B's speed = = 11 m/s 1300 – 1100
35
an by =8
11x
3. (d) A B C 200 = 88x
n
100 80 200
x=
100 80 88
ja
R s
25 : 20 : 16 200
Speed of P = 15
a th
88
100 64 1500
Time = 88
A beat C by 36 m 15 200
= 44 sec.
ty a
4. (a) A B C
8. (c) A B C
1200 1100
di M
500 450
600 500
600 540
72 66 55
100 90 81
720 550
400 324
C cover (720 – 550)m in
A beat C by 76 m
30 sec.
170 17 9. (d) Arjun Balay Charan
C's Speed = = m/sec. 1000 900
30 3
5. (b) A B 1000 900
100 950 100 90 81
A
r
4. A boat racer can row 21 km/h in still water.
eas mls 18 ?kaVs dk le; yxrk gSA 'kkar ty eas leku 2
nwjh ds rhu cVs ik¡p Hkkx dk uko pykus esa mls fdrusIf the speed of river is 12.5 km/h, it takes him
si
?kaVs yxsaxs\ 40 minutes to row to a place and back, how
(a) 9.5
an by
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
(b) 7.2
far off is the place (consider up to two decimals)?
n
3
(c) 10 (d) 12 ,d cksV jslj fLFkj ty esa21 fdeh@?kaVk dh pky
2
2. A swimmer swims from a point P against the
ja ls cksV pyk ldrk gSA ;fn12.5 fdeh@?kaVk dh pky
R s
current for 6 min and then swims back along
the current for next 6 min and reaches at a ls pyus okyh unh esa] mls ,d LFkku rd tkus vkSj
a th
point Q. If the distance between P and Q is okil vkus esa40 feuV dk le; yxrk gS] rks og
120 m then the speed of the current (in km/
LFkku fdruh nwj gS (n'keyo ds nks LFkku rd eku Kkr
h) is:
djsa)\
,d rSjkd ,d fcUnq P ls /kjk ds foijhr 6 feuV rd
ty a
the same distance in the river stream. Find ,d vkneh 48 km nwj ,d LFkku ij uko pykdj
the speed of the river stream. tkrk gS vkSj 14 ?kaVs eas okil vkrk gSA og ikrk gS f
1 og /kjk ds lkFk 4 km dh nwjh r; dj ldrk gS]
'kkar ty eas ,d uko dh pky 5 km/h gSA ;g ik;k tcfd mlh le; esa /kjk ds foijhr og 3 km dh nwjh
3
gS fd uko dks /kjk dh foijhr fn'kk eas ,d fuf'pr r; dj ldrk gSA /kjk dh pky gSA
nwjh r; djus esa yxus okyk le;] /kjk dh fn'kk eas SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
ogh nwjh r; djus esa yxus okys le; dk rhu xquk gSA (a) 1.5 km/h (b) 3.5 km/h
unh dh /kjk dh pky Kkr dhft,A (c) 1.8 km/h (d) 1 km/h
6. A boat moves 25km upstream and 39km ,d uko /kjk dh foijhr fn'kk esa] ,d fuf'pr nwjh
downstream in 8 hours. It travels 35km dks 9 ?kaVs 36 feuV eas r; djrh gSA vkSj ;g /kjk dh
upstream and 52km downstream in 11 hours.
What is the speed of the stream if it travels
fn'kk esa leku nwjh dks 6 ?kaVs esa r; djrh gSA fL
at a uniform speed? ty esa uko dh pky vkSj /kjk dh pky dk vuqikr
,d ukSdk 8 ?kaVs esa /kjk dh foijhr fn'kk
25esa
km D;k gksxk\
vkSj /kjk dh fn'kk esa
39 km pyrh gSA ;g 11 ?kaVs SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
esa /kjk dh foijhr fn'kk esa
35 km vkSj /kjk dh (a) 13 : 3 (b) 9 : 2
(c) 11 : 6 (d) 8 : 5
fn'kk esa52 km dh nwjh r; djrh gSA ;fn ;g ,d
8. A boat covers 35 km downstream in 2 h and
leku pky ls ;k=kk djrh gS] rks /kjk dh pky crkb,A covers the same distance upstream in 7 h. Find
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 01) the speed (in km/h) of the boat in still water.
(a) 4 km/h ,d uko /kjk ds vuqdwy 35 fdeh- dh nwjh 2 ?kaVs esa r;
(b) 5 km/h
djrh gS vkSj /kjk ds çfr dwy leku nwjh 7 ?kaVs esa r;
(c) 6 km/h
(d) 3 km/h djrh gSA 'kkar ty esa uko dh pky (fdeh-@?kaVk esa) Kk
r
7. A boat covers a certain distance against the dhft,A
si
stream in 9 hours 36 min and it covers the SSC CGL TIER- II 03/03/2023
same distance along the stream in 6 hours.
an by (a) 11.25 (b) 28.75
What is the ratio of the speed of the boat in
still water to that of the stream? (c) 18.25 (d) 10.55
n
ja ANSWER KEY
R s
a th
SOLUTIONS
1. (b) 45
Let, x = speed of boat 4. (a) x= km / hr.
2
y = speed of stream
y = 12.5 km/hr.
ATQ,
9 (x + y) = (x – y) 18 D D 40
=
27y = 9x x – y x y 60
y 1 1 1 2
= D =
x 3 10 35 3
D = 9 (x + y) 2 35 10 35 4 5
D= = =5 km.
= 9 (4y) 3 45 27 27
r
3 3 xy 4
D × 9x 4y 5. (d)
si
5 x–y 3
5 x = 7y
x 3y
ATQ,
=
an by
36
5
= 7.2
48
xy x–y
48
= 14
n
2. (d) P 48 48
= 14
ja 8y 6y
R s
Q
6 8
P = 14
a th
y y
PQ = 120m
y = 1 km/hr.
x = speed of swimmer
y = speed of stream 25 39
6. (a) =8
ATQ, x–y xy
ty a
6 6 120 35 52
x + y – x – y = = 11
60 60 1000 x–y xy
di M
x–y=5
20 6 6 x + y = 13
x y – x – y
100 5 y = 4 km/hr.
3
6 9
xy 48 8
2y =
5 7. (a) = 5 = =
x–y 6 5 6 5
y = 0.6 km/hr. 5x + 5y = 8x – 8y
3x = 13y
16
3. (c) x km / hr. x 13
3 =
y 3
x–y 1 8. (a)
Let, Speed of boat = x
xy 3
A
Speed of stream = y
x = 2a, y = a A.T.Q,
16 35 35
2a = 2, =7
3 xy x–y
x – y = 5
16 8
a= = km / hr. 35
6 3 xy=
2
8 5 20 45
m / sec . x= = 11.25
3 18 27 4
NUMBER SYSTEM
15
la[;k iz.kkyh
1. Which of the following numbers is a divisor 5. If the 4-digit number x67y is exactly divisible
of (4915–1)? by 9, then the least value of (x + y) is _____.
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh la[;k15(49
&1) dk Hkktd ;fn x67y ,d ,slh 4&vadh; la[;k gS tks 9 ls iw.kZr%
gS\ foHkkT; gS] (x
rks+y) dk U;wure eku_________gSA
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 01) SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(a) 46 (b) 14
(a) 9 (b) 0
(c) 8 (d) 50
(c) 5 (d) 3
2. The table given below shos the number of
r
spoon manufactured by five factories. 6. In a class of students, the first student has
si
2 toffees, second has 4 toffees, third has 6
Factory Spoon toffees and so on. If the number of students
P
Q
an by 100
200
in the class is 25, then the total number of
toffees are divisible by ________.
n
R 150 Nk=kksa dh ,d d{kk esa] igys Nk=k ds ikl 2 VkWfiQ;k
S 50 nwljs ds ikl 4 VkWfiQ;ka gSa] rhljs ds ikl 6 VkWfiQ
ja vkSj blh rjg lHkh Nk=kksa ds ikl
iQ;ka
VkWf
gSA ;fn d{kk
R s
T 250
esa Nk=kksa dh la[;k 25 gS] rks
sa
dhVkWfiQ;k
dqy la[;k dks
a th
9. Which of the following numbers are divisible 14. Find the largest number of 3 digits divisible
by 2, 3 and 5? by 4 and 7.
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh la[;k 2] 3 vkSj 5 ls foHkkT; 4 vkSj 7 ls foHkkT;vadksa
3 okyh lcls cM+h la[;k Kkr
djsaA
gS\ SSC CGL Pre 3/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 04) (a) 960 (b) 980
(a) 5467760 (b) 1345678 (c) 990 (d) 970
15. If the 8-digit number 123456xy is divisible
(c) 2345760 (d) 2456732
by 8, then the total possible pairs of (x,y) are:
10. Which of the following statement is correct?
;fn 8 vadksa dh la[;k123456xy, 8 ls foHkkT; gS]
I. The value of 100²–99²+98²–97²+96²–95²+94²–
93²+.......+2²–1² is 5050. rks(x,y) ds dqy fdrus laHkkfor ;qXe gksaxs\
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 *Shift- 04)
8
II. If 8x + = –16 and x < 0, then the value (a) 8 (b) 13
x (c) 10 (d) 11
of x197+x–197 is 2. 16. Which of the following pairs of non-zero values
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku lgh gS\ of p and q make 6-digit number 674pq0
r
I. 100²–99²+98²–97²+96²–95²+94²– divisible by both 3 and 11?
si
93²+.......+2²–1² dk eku 5050 gSA p vkSjq ds 'kwU;srj ekuksa dk fuEufyf[kr esa ls
dkSu&
;qXe 6 vadksa dh la[;k
674pq0 dks 3 vkSj 11 nksuksa
II. ;fn 8x +
an by
8
x
= –16 x < 0 gS] rk
s x197+x –197 dk ls foHkkT; cukrk gS\
n
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
eku 2 gSA (a) p = 2 and q = 2 (b) p = 5 and q = 4
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
ja (c) p = 4 and q = 2 (d) p = 5 and q = 2
R s
(a) Only I (b) Only II 17. On dividing a certain number by 363, we get
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II 17 as the remainder. What will be the
a th
11. The nearest number which is greater to 87501, remainder when the same number is divided
and is completely divisible by 765 is : by 11?
og fudVre la[;k tks 87501 ls cM+h gS vkSj 765 ls ,d la[;k dks 363 }kjk foHkkftr fd;k tkrk gS rks
ty a
iw.kZr% foHkkT; gS og Kkr dhft,A 'ks"kiQy 17 izkIr gksrk gSA tc mlh la[;k dks 11 }kjk
foHkkftr fd;k tk,xk rks 'ks"kiQy D;k gksxk\
di M
20. What is the smallest number that should be 26. The average of eight consecutive odd numbers
added to 4567 so that the sum is divisible is 48. Find the sum of the fifth and seventh
by 7? numbers.
4567 esa og NksVh ls NksVh dkSu&lh la[;k tksM+hvkB
tk, Øekxr fo"ke la[;kvksa dk vkSlr 48 gSA ik¡poha
fd ;ksxiQy 7 ls foHkkT; gks\ vkSj lkroha la[;kvksa dk ;ksx Kkr dhft,A
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 03) SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
(a) 7 (b) 5
(a) 102 (b) 86
(c) 6 (d) 4
(c) 89 (d) 90
21. If the 9–digit number 83p93678Q is divisible
by 72, then what is the value of 27. What is the smallest perfect square which is
completely divisible by each of 16, 18 and 36?
P 2 + Q 2 + 12 ?
og lcls NksVk iw.kZ oxZ dkSu lk gS tks 16] 18 vkSj 3
;fn 9 vadksa dh la[;k83p93678Q, 72 ls foHkkT; esa ls izR;sd ls iw.kZr% foHkkT; gS\
gS] rks P 2 + Q2 + 12 dk eku D;k gS\ SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
r
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 04) (a) 144 (b) 81
si
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 196 (d) 169
(c) 8 (d) 9 28. Numbers divisible by 9 between 43 and 481
22. an by
The value of 97 × 103 is _________.
97 × 103 dk eku _____ gSA
are:
43 vkSj 481 ds chp esa fdruh la[;k,¡ 9 }kjk foHkkT;
n
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 01) gSa\
(a) 7999 (b) 9991
ja SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
R s
(c) 8991 (d) 9981
(a) 51 (b) 49
23. Find the greatest number that will divide 49,
a th
vkSj 322 dks foHkkftr djus ij izR;sd fLFkfr esa leku 246837 esa ls fdruk ?kVk;k tk, fd og 13 ls foHkkT;
'ks"kiQy izkIr gksA gks tk,xk\
di M
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 01) SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(a) 9 (b) 5 (a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 7 (d) 8
(c) 3 (d) 6
24. A number n when divided by 6 leaves a
30. If a number K = 42 × 25 × 54 × 135 is divisible
remainder 3. What will be the remainder when
by 3, then find the maximum value of a.
(n² + 5n + 8) is divided by 6?
,d la[;k n dks tc 6 ls foHkkftr fd;k tkrk gS] rks ;fn ,d la[;k K = 42 × 25 × 54 × 135, 3 }kjk
'ks"kiQy 3 cprk gSA(n² + 5n + 8) dks 6 ls foHkkftr foHkkT; gS] arks
dk vf/dre eku Kkr dhft,A
djus ij 'ks"kiQy D;k gksxk\ SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 01) (a) 6 (b) 7
A
32. 9435 is added to 7593, then 2607 is 37. If 7-digit number 678p37q is divisible by 75
subtracted from the sum. The result is and p is not a composite, then the values of
divisible by: p and q are:
9435 dks 7593 esa tksM+k tkrk gS] vkSj fiQj 2607 dks ;fn 7 vadksa dh la[;k678p37q, 75 ls foHkkT; gS
buds ;ksxiQy ls ?kV;k tkrk gSA ifj.kke fdlls foHkkT; vkSjp ,d HkkT; la[;k ugha gS] p
rksvkSjq ds eku
gksxk\ Kkr dhft,A
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 03) SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(a) 4 (b) 10 (a) p = 5, q = 5 (b) p = 3, q = 0
(c) 3 (d) 5 (c) p = 3, q = 5 (d) p = 2, q = 5
33. Find the remainder when we divide 3x4 – 2x² 38. The largest 5-digit number that is exactly
+4x – 1 by 2x – 1. divisible by 88 is:
3x4– 2x² +4x – 1 dks 2x – 1 }kjk foHkkftr djus 5 vadksa dh lcls cM+h la[;k
______ gS] tks 88 ls
ij izkIr 'ks"kiQy Kkr dhft,A iw.kZr% foHkkT; gSA
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
r
(a) 2 (b) 3
(a) 99968 (b) 99689
si
11 15 (c) 68999 (d) 66698
(c) (d)
16 16 39. If the number 123456789 is divided by 9, then
34.
an by
A number when divided by 221, leaves a
remainder 30. If the same number is divided
the remainder is:
;fn la[;k 123456789 dks 9 }kjk foHkkftr fd;k tkrk
n
by 13, the remainder will be: gS] rks 'ks"kiQy D;k gksxk\
fdlh la[;k dks 221 ls foHkkftr djus ij 'ks"kiQy 30
ja
jgrk gSA ;fn mlh la[;k dks 13 ls foHkkftr fd;k tk,]
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
R s
(a) 0 (b) 1
rks 'ks"kiQy Kkr dhft,A
a th
(c) 2 (d) 3
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 01) 40. In a 7-digit number 89476*2, what is the
(a) 4 (b) 3 smallest possible value of * such that the
(c) 2 (d) 1 number is divisible by 8?
ty a
35. In a division sum, the divisor is 10 times the ,d 7& vadh; la[;k 89476*2 esa]* dk U;wure laHko
quotient and four times the remainder. What
eku D;k gS ftlls la[;k 8 ls foHkkT; gks\
di M
If the result comes to 16, then what is the SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
original number? (a) 148 (b) 156
,d fuf'pr la[;k esa 7tksM+k gS vkSj ;ksx dks 5 ls (c) 126 (d) 208
xq.kk fd;k tkrk gSA fiQj xq.kuiQy dks 3 ls foHkkftr
42. The remainder when 1919
+20 is divided by 18 is:
tc 1919 + 20 dks 18 ls foHkkftr fd;k tk,] rks 'ks"k
fd;k tkrk gSA vkSj 4 dks HkkxiQy esa ls ?kVk;k tkrk
gSA ;fn ifj.kke 16 vkrk gS] rks ewy la[;k D;k gS\ Kkr dhft,A
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 03) SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(a) 3 (b) 1 (a) 3 (b) 2
(c) 5 (d) 4 (c) 1 (d) 0
43. The least number that should be added to 48. Choose the option in which the numbers are
35460 so that the sum is exactly divisible by in correct ascending order.
3, 4, 5 and 7 is:
ml fodYi dk pquko djsa ftlesa nh x;h la[;k,a vkjksgh
35460 esa dkSu&lh lcls NksVh la[;k tksM+h tkuh pkfg,Øe esa gksa\
rkfd ;ksxiQy 3] 4] 5 vkSj 7 ls iw.kZr% foHkkT; gks\
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(a) 84 (b) 420 4 2 1 2 1 2 2 4
(a) , , and (b) , , and
5 3 11 9 11 9 3 5
(c) 240 (d) 180
44. Any six-digit number that is formed by
2 1 4 2 2 4 1 2
repeating a three-digit number, is always (c) , , and (d) , , and
9 11 5 3 3 5 11 9
divisible by:
r
b = 2a, c = 2b, d = 2c. The pin is divisible
si
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 02) by.
(a) 111 (b)
an by 1001 ,d ykWd ds pkj vadksa ds fiu] abcd dgrs gSa] esa
(c) 19 (d) 101 vyx&vyx xSj&'kwU; vad gksrs gSaA b = vad
2a, c =
n
45. If the seven-digit number 52A6B7C is divisible 2b, d = 2c dks larq"V djrs gSaA fiu fdlls foHkkT; gS\
by 33, and A, B, C are primes, then the
ja
maximum value of 2A+3B+C is:
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
R s
(a) 2, 3, 5
;fn lkr vadksa dh la[;k 52A6B7C, 33 ls foHkkT;
a th
52. 8 + 1681 7 1
(a) (b)
18 9
fn, x, O;atd dk eku Kkr dhft,A
8 + 1681 2 5
(c) (d)
9 18
SSC CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023
(a) 5 (b) 6 58. The number 1254216 is divisible by which of
(c) 4 (d) 7 the following numbers?
53. Find the average of the cubes of the first five la[;k 1254216 fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl la[;k ls foHkkT; gS\
natural numbers. SSC CGL TIER- II 06/03/2023
r
(c) 45 (d) 50 rhu vadksa dh lcls cM+h la[;k tks 3] 5 vkSj 9 ls foHkkftr
gksus ij leku 'ks"kiQy 2 nsrh gS] ----------------- gSA
si
54. The number 5769116 is divisible by which of
the following numbers? SSC CGL TIER- II 07/03/2023
gS\
an by
la[;k 5769116 fuEufyf•r esa ls fdl la[;k ls foHkkT; (a) 999
(c) 998
(b) 984
(d) 992
n
SSC CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023 60. If x = 64 121 – 169 , then find the value
(a) 4 (b) 5 of x².
ja
R s
(c) 12 (d) 8
;fn x = 64 121 – 169 gS] rksx² dk eku Kkr
55. Find the value of the given expression.
a th
djsaA
fn, x, O;atd dk eku Kkr dhft,A SSC CGL TIER- II 07/03/2023
(a) 16 (b) 25
ty a
20 – 20 – 20 – 20 – ......
(c) 36 (d) 49
(a)d
di M
ANSWER KEY
1.(c) 2.(b) 3.(d) 4.(a) 5.(c) 6.(b) 7.(a) 8.(d) 9.(c) 10.(a)
11.(b) 12.(c) 13.(d) 14.(b) 15.(b) 16.(d) 17.(c) 18.(d) 19.(c) 20.(d)
21.(c) 22.(b) 23.(c) 24.(d) 25.(a) 26.(a) 27.(a) 28.(b) 29.(d) 30.(b)
31.(a) 32.(c) 33.(c) 34.(a) 35.(b) 36.(c) 37.(c) 38.(a) 39.(a) 40.(d)
41.(d) 42.(a) 43.(c) 44.(b) 45.(b) 46.(a) 47.(c) 48.(b) 49.(c) 50.(d)
51.(a) 52.(d) 53.(c) 54.(a) 55.(a) 56.(b) 57.(c) 58.(c) 59.(d) 50.(c)
r
si
61.(a) 62.(c) 63.(a)
an by SOLUTIONS
n
ja
R s
1. (c) 4915 – 1 is divisible by 5. (c) x 67y
(49 – 1) = 48 and 8 is a factor of 48 x + 6 + 7 + y 9a
a th
x + y = 5 (least value)
P 100 2
2. (b) = = 6. (b) 2, 4, 6..........
R 150 3
= (2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + ....... + 50)
ty a
27 27
27 27 (–i) (–i) = 2 (1 + 2 + 3 + .......... + 25)
3. (d)
28 28
di M
25 26
= 2 Divisible by 13 and 5
2
–1 – 1
= = –2
28 7. (a) LCM (15, 18, 25, 32) = 7200
= 26 7200
Required no. = = 3600
4. (a) 750 PQ 2
Divisible by 3:- 8. (d) x – y = 1564 ......(1)
7 + 5 + P + Q = 12 + P + Q x = y × 6 + 19 .....(2)
P + Q = 3a ..........(1) But (2) in (1)
(7 + Q) – (5 + P) = 0 or 116 6y – y = 1564 – 19
2+Q–P=0 5y = 1545
A
Q–P=–2 y = 309
P–Q=2 ..........(2) 9. (c) From options:-
From (1) and (2) (b) and (d) are eliminated by unit digit addivig
digits of (a) not divisible by 3
(P, Q) = (4, 2) or (7, 5)
(c) is divisible by 2, 3, 5
But 75042 is not divisible by 7
10. (a) I. 100² – 99² + 98² – 97² + 96² – 95² + 94² –
(P, Q) = (7, 5) 93² + ..... + 2² – 1²
P + 2Q = 17 (100 – 99) (100 + 99) + (98 – 97) (98 + 97) +
(96 – 95) (96 + 95) + ...... + (2 – 1) (2 + 1)
r
8+3+P+9+3+6+7+8+4
Required no. = 87501 + (765 – 291)
= 48 + P
si
= 87975 P=6
12. (c)
48
=
48
an by
742 (7²)21 (49)21
=
48
=1 P² Q² 12 36 16 12
=8
n
13. (d) N = 7a + 4 22. (b) 97 × 103
N² = 49a² + 16 + 56a
ja (100 – 3) (100 + 3)
R s
= 7a (7a + 8) + 14 + 2 = 100² – 9 10000 – 9
= 9991
a th
7 [7a² + 8a + 2] + 2
Remainder = 2 23. (c) HCF (147 – 49, 322 – 147)
14. (b) LCM (4, 7) = 28 HCF (98, 175)
=7
ty a
999 = 28 × 35 + 19
Required no. = 999 – 19 24. (d) n = 6a + 3
n² = 36a² + 9 + 36a
di M
= 980
n² + 5n = 36a² + 9 + 36a + 30a + 15
15. (c) 1 2 3 4 5 6 xy
= 36a² + 96a + 24
6xy is divisible by 8
(n² + 5n + 8) = 36a² + 96a + 32
(x, y) = (0, 0), (1, 6) (2, 4)
= 6 (6a² + 16a + 5) + 2
(3, 2), (4, 0) (5, 6)
Remainder = 2
(7, 2), (8, 0) (8, 8), (9, 6) 25. (a) 350 + 926 + 2718 + 928 + 929
10 pairs 925 + 926 + 927 + 928 + 929
16. (d) 674pq0 925 [1 + 9 + 9² + 9³ + 94]
6 + 7 + 4 + p + q = 17 + p + q 925 [1 + 9 + 81 + 729 + 6561]
p + q = 4 or 7 or 10 and 6 + 4 + q – (7 + p) 925 × 7381
A
27. (a) LCM (16, 18, 36) = 24 × 32 = 288 36. (c) ATQ,
only 144 is divisible by 288 {[(7 + a) × 5] ÷ 3} – 4 = 16
28. (b) A = 45, L = 477, D = 9
35 5a
L = A + (N – I) D – 4 = 16
3
432 35 + 5a = 60
N–I
9 5a = 25
N = 48 + 1 = 49 a=5
29. (d) 246837 = 13 × 18987 + 6 37. (c) 678p37q is divisible by (25 and 3) = 75
6 must be sulo tracted 7q is divisible by 25
30. (b) K = 42 × 25 × 54 × 135 q=5
= 3 × 14 × 25 × 3³ × 2 × 3³ × 5 Now,
6 + 7 + 8 + p + 3 + 7 + q = 36 + p, p = prime
37 × 2 × 14 × 25 × 5
p = 3.
(question incorrect)
r
p = 3, q = 5
31. (a) LCM (7, 11) = 77
38. (a) 99999 = 88 × 1136 + 31
si
430 Required no. = 99999 – 31
=5
77
an by
Required no. = 5
= 99968
39. (a) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 is divisible by 9
n
32. (c) (9435 + 7593) – 2607 Remainder = 0
= 14421 40. (d) 89476 2
ja
by unit digit option
R s
6 2 is divisible by 8
(a), (b) and (d) are
=3
a th
Eliminated
41. (d) Let nos. be 4x, 5x, 7x.
33. (c) Put 2x – 1 = 0
16x² + 25x² + 49x² = 15210
1
ty a
x= x² = 169
2 x = 13
di M
= 17 × 13a + 26 + 4
= 240
= 13 (17a + 2) + 4 44. (b) xyzxyz is divisible by 1001
Remainder = 4 xyzxyz = xyz × 1001
35. (b) Divisor, d = 10q and d = 4r 45. (b) 5 2 A 6 B 7 C is divisible by 33 = 3 × 11
r = 45 33 = 3 × 11
dividevd = dq + r 5+2+A+6+B+7+C
45 20 + A + B + C 3a
= 4 × 45 × × 4 + 45 = 3240 + 45 = 3285 A + B + C = 4, 7, 10
10
r
12
f(m) = m –1 x=4
si
12
f(–1) = (–1) –1=1–1=0 56. (b)
Remainder = 0
an by Since the given number is not divisible by '3'
or '9' [sum rule]
4 2 1 2
n
48. (b) , , , only option left is (b) 11.
5 3 11 9
57. (c)
1 ja
R s
clearly, is smallest of all
11 10 25 108 154 225 x
=
a th
1248
= 10 25 11
di M
it is divisible by
1248 = 2 × 3 × 13 × 16 = 10 6 = 4
50. (d) 6 78 8 9 3 4a 4
y = 16 19.25 16 = 16 308
(6 + 8 + 9 + 4 + 4) – (7 + 8 + 3 + a)
31 – 18 – a = 11 = 324
13 – a = 11 = 18
a=2 x 4 2
= =
51. (a) 3422213AB is divisible by 99 = 9 × 11 y 18 9
3+4+2+2+2+1+3+A+B
58. (c)
A
r
y
Let, 2x = a 3 = b
si
an by ......-------......
n
ja
R s
a th
ty a
di M
A
r
2. What is the ratio between the HCF and LCM rhu la[;k,¡ 2%3%5 ds vuqikr esa gSa vkSj mudk y?kq
si
of the numbers whose LCM is 48 and the
lekioR;Z(LCM) 90 gSA mudk egÙke lekiorZd
(HCF)
product of the numbers is 384?
an by Kkr dhft,A
mu la[;kvksa ds egÙke lekiorZd
(HCF) vkSj y?kqÙke
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
lekioR;Z(LCM) ds chp dk vuqikr D;k gS ftudk
n
(a) 9 (b) 1
y?kqÙke lekioR;Z
(LCM) 48 gS vkSj la[;kvksa dk xq.kuiQy
(c) 6 (d) 3
384 gS\ ja
R s
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 02) 12 14 16
8. Claculate the HCF of , and .
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 6 5 15 17
a th
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 2 : 5 12 14 16
3. Two numbers are in the ratio of 6 : 5. If their , vkSj ds egÙke lekiorZd(HCF) dh x.kuk
5 15 17
HCF is 3, then what is the LCM of the two
djsaA
ty a
numbers?
nks la[;k,¡ 6 % 5 ds vuqikr esa gSA ;fn mudk egÙke SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift-s 01)
di M
(a) 80 (b) 48 10. The LCM of two numbers is 120 and the
(c) 36 (d) 60 numbers are in the ratio 3 : 8. The sum of
5. What is the largest common divisor of the the numbers will be:
numbers 1026, 2268 and 2430? nks la[;kvksa dk y?kqÙke lekiorZd
(LCM) 120 gS vkSj
la[;k 1026] 2268 vkSj 2430 dk egÙke lekiorZd
( la[;k,¡ 3 : 8 d vuqikr esa gSA la;kvksa dk ;ksx Kkr
largest common divisor) D;k gS\ djsaA
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 01) SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
(a) 108 (b) 54 (a) 48 (b) 55
(c) 81 (d) 27 (c) 45 (d) 60
11. The HCF of two numbers 110 and 1980 is: 15. What is the LCM of (8x³ + 80x2 + 200x) and
nks la[;kvksa 110 vkSj 1980 dk egÙke lekiorZd
(HCF) (4x4+16x³ – 20x²)?
D;k gS\ vkSj(4x4 + 16x³ – 20x²) dk
(8x³ + 80x² + 200x)
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 01) y?kqÙke lekioR;Z
(LCM) D;k gS\
(a) 140 (b) 110 SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift 01)
(c) 120 (d) 180 (a) 8x2 (x+5)2 (x–1) (b) 8x2 (x–1)2 (x+5)
12. The LCM of the two numbers is 4104 and the (c) 4x2 (x–1)2 (x+5) (d) 4x2 (x+5)2 (x–1)
HCF is 9. If one of the numbers is 171, find 16. Find the LCM of 186.6 and 373.2.
the other.
186-6 vkSj 373-2 dk y?kqÙke lekioR;Z
(LCM) Kkr
nks la[;kvksa dk y-l-i
(LCM) 4104 vkSj e-l-i (HCF)
djsaA
9 gS ;fn la[;kvksa esa ls ,d la[;k 171 gS] rks nwljh
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
la[;k Kkr dhft,A
(a) 373.2 (b) 398.2
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(c) 186.6 (d) 276.6
(a) 218 (b) 215
17. If the HCF of two numbers is 8, then which
r
(c) 220 (d) 216
of the following can NEVER be their LCM?
13. Choose the correct statement from the
;fn nks la[;kvksa dk egÙke lekiorZd
(HCF) 8 gS] rks
si
following.
fuEufyf•r esa ls lgh dFku dk p;u dhft,A fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk mudk y?kqÙke lekioR;Z
(LCM) dHkh
an by
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 02) ugha gks ldrk gS\
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
n
(a) HCF is the least common multiple of the
given numbers. (a) 56 (b) 48
,plh,iQ nh xbZ la[;kvksa dk lcls NksVk lkekU;
ja (c) 42 (d) 40
R s
xq.kd gSA 18. The HCF of three numbers 105, 335 and 465
will be:
a th
(c) HCF is also called the least common divisor. 19. The HCF of 222, 642 and 1062 is ____.
HCF dks y?kqre lekiorZd Hkh dgk tkrk gSA 222] 642 vkSj 1062 dk egÙke lekiorZd
(HCF) _____
(d) In prime factorisation method of HCF, the gSA
multiples of all the given numbers are
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
listed.
(a) 6 (b) 8
e-l-i- dh vHkkT; xq.ku•aMu fof/ esa] lHkh nh xbZ
(c) 4 (d) 2
la[;kvksa ds xq.kt lwphc¼ gksrs gSaA
20. Find the HCF of 4.08 and 6.63.
14. The sum of two numbers is 18 and their HCF
and LCM are 3 and 54 respectively. What will 4-08 vkSj 6-63 dk egÙke lekiorZd
(HCF) Kkr djsaA
be the sum of their reciprocals? SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
A
nks la[;kvksa dk ;ksx 18 gS vkSj mudk egÙke lekiorZd (a) 0.50 (b) 0.52
(HCF) vkSj y?kqÙke lekioR;Z (LCM) Øe'k% 3 vkSj (c) 0.51 (d) 0.53
54 gSA muds O;qRØeksa dk ;ksx D;k gksxk\ 21. If the HCF of xy , x y and x³y4 is xy, then their
3 2
LCM is _____.
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
;fn xy3, x²y vkSjx³y4 dk egÙke lekiorZd(HCF),
1 1
(a) (b) xy gS rks mudk y?kqÙke lekioR;Z
(LCM) _____ gSA
7 11
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
1 1 3 4
(a) x y (b) x3y3
(c) (d)
6 9 (c) x4y3 (d) x4y4
22. The LCM of 96, 136 and 504 is: 28. The HCF of three numbers 98, 175 and 210
96] 136 vkSj 504 dk y?kqÙke lekiorZd
(LCM) D;k will be:
gS\ rhu la[;kvksa 98] 175 vkSj 210 dk egÙke lekiorZd
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 01) (HCF) Kkr djsaA
(a) 34272 (b) 36548 SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
(c) 25872 (d) 28564 (a) 6 (b) 3
23. The LCM of 144, 360 and 450 is: (c) 5 (d) 7
144] 360 vkSj 450 dk y?kqÙke lekioR;Z
(LCM) Kkr 29. Find the HCF of 60, 148 and 382.
dhft,A
60] 148 vkSj 382 dk egÙke lekiorZd(HCF) Kkr
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
dhft,A
(a) 4800 (b) 3600
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(c) 7200 (d) 2400
(a) 2 (b) 6
1 3 5 7
24. The HCF of , , and is. (c) 4 (d) 24
r
2 4 6 8
30. Determine the LCM of two numbers if their
si
1 3 5 7 HCF is 9 and their ratio is 14 : 19.
, , vkSj dk egÙke lekiorZd (HCF) Kkr
2 4 6
an by 8 nks la[;kvksa dk y?kqÙke lekioR;Z
(LCM) Kkr dhft,]
djsaA ;fn mudk egÙke lekiorZd (HCF) 9 gS vkSj mudk
vuqikr 14 % 19 gSA
n
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
7 1
(c) (d) 31. The HCF of two numbers is 17 and the other
24 48
two factors of their LCM are 11 and 19. The
3 5 7 smaller of the two numbers is:
25. The LCM of , and is
ty a
8 16 2 nks la[;kvksa dk
HCF 17 gS vkSj muds LCM ds vU;
nks dkjd 11 vkSj 19 gSaA nks la[;kvksa esa ls NksVk
di M
3 5 7
, vkSj dk y?kqÙke lekioR;Z
(LCM) D;k gS\
8 16 2 SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 04) (a) 209 (b) 187
(a) 101½ (b) 52½ (c) 323 (d) 306
(c) 28½ (d) 25¼ 32. The HCF of three numbers 72, 108 and 2010
26. The HCF of two numbers is 21 and their LCM is:
is 840. If one of the numbers is 49, then the
rhu la[;kvksa 72] 108 vkSj 2010 dk egÙke lekiorZd
other number is:
(HCF) D;k gS\
nks la[;kvksa dk egÙke lekiorZd (HCF) 21 gS vkSj
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
mudk y?kqÙke lekioR;Z (LCM) 840 gS ;fn buesa ls
(a) 18 (b) 6
,d la[;k 49 gS] rks nwljh la[;k D;k gksxh\
A
(c) 12 (d) 5
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
33. The ratio of two numbers is 6 : 7 and their
(a) 650 (b) 540
HCF is 3. Their LCM is _____.
(c) 810 (d) 360
27. The LCM of 1.2 and 2.7 is: nks la[;kvksa dk vuqikr 6%7 gS vkSj mudk egÙke lekiorZ
1-2 vkSj 2-7 dk y?kqÙke lekioR;Z
(LCM) Kkr djsaA (HCF), 3 gSA mudk y?kqÙke lekioR;Z
(LCM)____ gSA
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 02) SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(a) 5.4 (b) 10.8 (a) 124 (b) 128
(c) 1.08 (d) 32.4 (c) 122 (d) 126
34. The product of the two numbers is 1500 and 36. If the greatest common factor (HCF) of x and
their HCF is 10. The number of such possible y is 15, then the HCF of 36x² – 81y² and 81x²
pairs is/are: – 9y² is divisible by _________?
nks la[;kvksa dk xq.kuiQy 1500 gS vkSj mudk e-l-i ;fn x vkSj y dk egÙke lekiorZd (HCF) 15 gS] rks
( HCF)10 gSA ,sls laHkkfor ;qXeksa _____
dh la[;k
gS@gSaA 36x² – 81y² vkSj81x² – 9y² dk HCF _________ ls
foHkkT; gksxk\
SSC CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023
SSC CGL TIER- II 06/03/2023
(a) 1 (b) 3
(a) 135
(c) 4 (d) 2
(b) 120
35. The LCM of x² – 8x + 15 and x² – 5x + 6 is:
(c) 90
SSC CGL TIER- II 03/03/2023
(d) 180
(a) (x – 2) (x – 3) (x – 5)
(b) (x – 6)² (x + 1) (x – 3)
(c) (x – 6) (x + 1) (x – 3)
r
(d) (x + 6) (x + 1) (x – 3)
si
an by ANSWER KEY
n
1.(c) 2.(b) ja 3.(c) 4.(a) 5.(b) 6.(a) 7.(d) 8.(c) 9.(c) 10.(b)
R s
a th
11.(b) 12.(d) 13.(b) 14.(d) 15.(a) 16.(a) 17.(c) 18.(b) 19.(a) 20.(c)
21.(a) 22.(a) 23.(b) 24.(b) 25.(b) 26.(d) 27.(b) 28.(d) 29.(a) 30.(a)
ty a
SOLUTIONS
1. (c) LCM = HCF x a 11. (b) 110 = 2 × 5 × 11
But, 90 is not a multiple of 12 1980 = 110 × 18
2. (b) N1 × N2 = HCF × LCM HCF = 110
384 = HCF × 48 12. (d) N1 × N2 = LCM × HCF
171 × N2 = 4104 × 9
384
HCF = =8
48 4104 9
N2 =
171
HCF 8 1
= = = 216
LCM 48 6
r
13. (b) HCF = Highest common factor
3. (c) N1 × N2 = LCM × HCF
Which perfectly divides all given mumbers
si
6 × 3 × 5 × 3 = LCM × 3
14. (d) N1 + N2 = 18
LCM = 90
an by
4. (a) N1 × N2 = LCM × HCF
N1 + N2 = 3 × 54
= 162
n
5 × 4 × 4 × 4 = LCM × 4
LCM = 80 1 1 N N2
= 1
ja
5. (b) HCF (1026, 2268, 2430) N1 N2 N1N2
R s
1026 = 2 × 3 × 9 × 19 = 2 + 3³ × 19
18
a th
2268 = 2² × 34 × 7 =
162
2430 = 2 × 35 × 5
HCF = 2 × 3³ = 54 1
=
ty a
391 = 17 × 23 = 8x (x + 5) (x + 5)
4
HCF = 17 4x + 16x³ – 20x² = 4x² (x² + 4x – 5)
7. (d) 2 × 3 × 5 × x = HCF × 90 = 4x² (x – 1) (x + 5)
x=3 LCM = 8x² (x + 5)² (x – 1)
9. (c) 36 = 2² × 3² = 373.2
198 = 2 × 3² × 11 17. (c) LCM = HCF × a
HCF = 2 × 3² = 18 = 8a
10. (b) N1 × N2 = LCM × HCF 42 is not a multiple of 8.
3x × 8x = 120 × x 18. (b) HCF (105, 335, 465)
x=5 105 = 3 × 5 × 7
N1 + N2 = 5(3 + 8) 335 = 5 × 67
= 55 465 = 3 × 5 × 31
HCF = 5
19. (a) HCF (222, 642, 1062) 29. (a) HCF (60, 148, 382)
222 = 2 × 3 × 37 60 = 2² × 3 × 5
642 = 2 × 3 × 107 148 = 2² × 37
1062 = 2 × 3² × 59 382 = 2 × 191
HCF = 2 × 3 = 6 HCF = 2
408 663 30. (a) N1 × N2 = LCM × HCF
20. (c) HCF
,
100 100 14 × 9 × 19 × 9 = LCM × 9
LCM = 2394
HCF (408, 663) 3 17
= 31. (b) 11 × 19 × 17 × 17 = LCM × 17
LCM (100, 100) 100
LCM = 323
408 = 2³ × 3 × 17 32. (b) 72 = 2³ × 3²
663 = 3 × 17 × 13 108 = 2² × 3³
HCF = 0.51 2010 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 67
21. (a) HCF (xy³, x²y, x³y4) = xy
HCF = 2 × 3 = 6
LCM = x³y4
r
33. (d) N1 × N2 = HCF × LCM
22. (a) LCM (96, 136, 504)
6 × 3 × 7 × 3 = 3 × LCM
si
96 = 25 × 3
LCM = 126
136 = 2³ × 17
an by
504 = 2³ × 3² × 7
LCM = 25 × 3² × 7 × 17
34. (d)
N1 × N2 = 1500 = HCF × LCM
n
= 34272 LCM = 150
23. (b) LCM (144, 360, 450) 10a × 106 = 1500
ja
R s
144 = 24 × 3² ab = 15
360 = 2³ × 3² × 5 3 × 5 = 15
a th
450 = 2 × 3² × 5² 1 × 15 = 15
LCM = 24 × 3² × 5² 2 possible values.
= 3600 35. (a)
ty a
1 3 5 7 x² – 8x + 15 = 0
24. (b) HCF
, , ,
x² – 5x – 3x + 15 = 0
2 4 6 8
di M
x (x – 5) – 3 (x – 5) = 0
HCF (1, 3, 5, 7) 1 (x – 3) (x – 5) = 0 ..........(1)
= =
LCM (2, 4, 6, 8) 24 Also x² – 5x + 6 = 0
x² – 2x – 3x + 6 = 0
3 5 7 = 105 = 52 1
25. (b) LCM
, ,
x(x – 2) – 3(x – 2) = 0
8 16 2 2 2
(x – 3)(x – 2) = 0 ..........(2)
26. (d) N1 × N2 = LCM × HCF
LCM = (x – 3) (x – 2) (x – 5)
49 × N2 = 840 × 21
36. (a)
N2 = 360
HCF (x, y) = 15
12 27 x = 15a, y = 156
27. (b) LCM (1.2, 2.7) = LCM
,
A
10 10 36x² – 81y² = (6x)² – (9y)²
= (6 × 15a)² – (9 × 15b)²
LCM (12, 27) 108
= = = 10.8 = (45)² [4a² – 9a²]
HCF (10, 10) 10
= (45)² (–5a²)
28. (d) HCF (98, 175, 210)
81x² – 9y² = 9 [9x² – y²]
98 = 2 × 7²
= (45)² [9a² – a²]
175 = 5² × 7
= (45)² (8a²)
210 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 7
HCF = (45)², which is divisible by 135
HCF = 7
SIMPLIFICATION
17
ljyhdj.k
1. Simplify x9 × x5 × x–4 × x0 × x–6. 6. The value of 95 × 105 is:
x9 × x5 × x–4 × x0 × x–6 dks ljy djsaA 95 × 105 dk eku gSA
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 02) SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
(a) x4 (b) x–4
(a) 9981 (b) 9935
(c) x–6 (d) x6
(c) 9965 (d) 9975
428 × 428 × 428 + 348 × 348 × 348 7. Simplify the following 25³ – 75³ + 50³
2. The value of
428 × 428 – 428 × 348 + 348 × 348
fuEufyf[kr dks ljy djsaA
is:
r
25³ – 75³ + 50³
428 × 428 × 428 + 348 × 348 × 348
si
dk eku D;k SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
428 × 428 – 428 × 348 + 348 × 348
(a) –281250 (b) 281350
gksxk\ an by (c) 271250 (d) –281450
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
n
8. Simplify the following equation. What is the
(a) 776 (b) 62080
difference between the two value of x?
(c) 80 (d) 40
3. ja
Simplify x + 3(y + x – 2) – (x + y).
R s
1
x + 3(y + x – 2) – (x + y). dks ljy djsaA 7x+4[x² ÷ (5x ÷ 10)] – 3 5 – x 3 ÷ 3x 2 ÷ x = 0
3
a th
x 2 + 2x + y 2 y2 1
4. Simplify 3 2 if x + = 5. 7x+4[x² ÷ (5x ÷ 10)] – 3 5 – x 3 ÷ 3x 2 ÷ x = 0
x – 5x x 3
di M
762 × 762 × 762 + 316 × 316 × 316 (c) 125x³ + 512y³ (d) 25x³ – 64y³
762 × 762 – 762 × 316 + 316 × 316 10. 4
Simplify x – 15x³ + 15x² – 15x + 40; given x
fuEufyf[kr dks ljy dhft,A = 14.
762 × 762 × 762 + 316 × 316 × 316 x4 – 15x³ + 15x² – 15x + 40 dk eku Kkr dhft,
762 × 762 – 762 × 316 + 316 × 316 x = 14 fn;k x;k gSA
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 03) SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
(a) 1064 (b) 1056 (a) 0 (b) 40
(c) 1042 (d) 1078 (c) 14 (d) 26
r
SSC CGL TIER- II 06/03/2023
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 03) (a) 7 (b) 15
si
(a) 0
(c) – 1 (d) 1
(b) 1
(c) –1
(d) 2
an by 16. The value of
0.7 0.7 0.7 0.3 0.3 0.3
is
n
0.7 0.7 – 0.7 0.3 0.3 0.3
13. Find the value of given expression. __________.
30 – [40 – {56 – (25 – 13 – 12)}]
ja
fn, x, O;atd dk eku Kkr dhft,A 0.7 0.7 0.7 0.3 0.3 0.3
R s
0.7 0.7 – 0.7 0.3 0.3 0.3
dk eku -------------- gSA
30 – [40 – {56 – (25 – 13 – 12)}]
a th
ANSWER KEY
1.(a) 2.(a) 3.(c) 4.(d) 5.(d) 6.(d) 7.(a) 8.(d) 9.(c) 10.(d)
SOLUTIONS
1. (a) 7. (a)
x9 × x5 × x–4 × x0 × x–6 25³ – 75³ + 50³
9+5–4+0–6 a = 25, b = –75, c = 50
x4 a+b+c=0
2. (a) a³ + b³ + c³ = +3abc
–3 × 25 × 75 × 50
428 × 428 × 428 + 348 × 348 × 348
–281250
428 × 428 – 428 × 348 + 348 × 348
8. (d)
3 3
a +b
= = a + b 1
r
7x + 4 [x² ÷ (5x ÷ 10)] –3 5 – x 3x x = 0
3 2
a 2 – ab + b2
3
si
= 428 + 348 = 776
3. (c) 2 1 16
an by
x + 3(y + x – 2) – (x + y)
7x + 4 x ÷ x – 3
2 3
– x 3 ÷ 3x = 0
n
x + 3y + 3x – 6 – x – y 7x + 4 × 2x – (16 – x²) = 0
3x + 2y – 6 7x + 8x – 16 + x² = 0
4. (d) ja
R s
x² + 15x – 16 = 0
2 2 2
x + 2x + y y x² – x + 16x – 16 = 0
a th
if x + =5
x 3 – 5x 2 x x = 1 , x = –16
Difference = 17
y2
x+ = 5 x² + y² = 5x ...(1)
ty a
x 9. (c)
a 2 – ab + b2
= 40 – x = 40 – 14 = 26
= (762 + 316) = 1078
11. (b)
6. (d)
146 ×146 ×146 – 143 ×143 ×143
95 × 105
146 ×146 +143 ×143 +146 +143
= (100 – 5) (100 + 5)
= (100)² – (5)² a 3 – b3
= = a – b
= 10000 – 25 a + b2 + ab
2
r
......-------......
si
an by
n
ja
R s
a th
ty a
di M
A
ALGEBRA
18
chtxf.kr
1. If x² – 5x + 1 = 0, then the value of
1
5. If x + = 5 2, then what is the value of
x6 + x4 + x2 +1 x
=? = ?
5x 3
(x4 + x –4) ?
x6 + x4 + x2 +1
;fn x² – 5x + 1 = 0 gS] rks = dk 1
;fn x + = 5 2 gS] rks(x4 + x–4) dk eku Kkr
5x 3 x
eku Kkr dhft,A
djasA
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
r
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
(a) 30 (b) 25
(a) 2542 (b) 2650
si
(c) 23 (d) 28
(c) 2452 (d) 2302
173 + 73an by 6. If a + b = 11 and ab = 35, then what is the
2. If = 24, then what is the value
17 2
+ 7 – k
2
value of (a4 + b4)?
n
of k?
;fn a + b = 11 vkSj ab = 35 gS] rks(a4 + b4) dk
eku D;k gS\
173 + 73ja
R s
;fn = 24 gS] rks
k dk eku D;k gS\ SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
17 2
+ 7 – k
2
(a) 151 (b) 261
a th
3 3 Kkr dhft,A
4 17 – 7
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
di M
3 3 1 1
4 17 – 7 8. If y + = 3, then what is the value of 3 +
;fn = 40 gS] rks
p dk eku D;k gS\ y y
17 + 7 + p
2 2
y³ + 2 ?
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
1 1
(a) –119 (b) –129 ;fn y + = 3, gS] rks 3 + y³ + 2 dk eku D;k gS\
y y
(c) 119 (d) 129
4. x is a negative number such that k + k–1 = –2, SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
A
(a) 24 (b) 18
k 2 + 4k – 2
then what is the value of ? (c) 20 (d) 29
k2 + k – 5
9. If p + q = 6 and pq = 4, then what is the value
x ,d ½.kkRed la[;k bl izdkj gS fd k + k–1 = –2 of p³ + q³ ?
k 2 + 4k – 2 ;fn p + q = 6 rFkkpq = 4 gS] rksp³ + q³ dk eku
gS] rks dk eku D;k gS\
k2 + k – 5 D;k gS\
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 02) SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(a) 7 (b) 1 (a) 81 (b) 64
(c) –7 (d) –4 (c) 144 (d) 256
5–2 1 5
10. If x = , then the value of x² + x–2 is : 15. If x + = 8, then find the value of 2 .
5 +2 x x – 8x +2
1 5
;fn x=
5–2
gS] rksx² + x dk eku gSA
–2 ;fn x + =8 gS] rksx 2 – 8x + 2 dk eku Kkr dhft,A
5 +2 x
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(a) 350 (b) 345 (a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 284 (d) 322 (c) 0 (d) 5
1 1 1
11. If x > 0, and x 4 + = 2207, what is the value 16. If K + = 3, then what is the value of 3 + K 3?
x4 K K
1 1 1
of x 7 + ? ;fn K + =3 gS] rks + K3 dk eku D;k gS\
x7 K K3
r
1 1 SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
;fn x > 0 gS] vkSjx 4 + = 2207 gS] rksx 7 +
x4 x7 (a) 36 (b) 10
si
dk eku D;k gS\ (c) 18 (d) 54
(a) 710649
an bySSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(b) 710647 17.
5
If 4a + + 5 = 14, what is the value of
n
(c) 710654 (d) 710661 a
12. If a + b = 5 and ab = 6, then find 3(a² + b²). 25
ja 2
;fn a + b = 5 vkSjab = 6 gS] rks3(a² + b²) Kkr 16a + 2 ?
R s
a
dhft,A
a th
5 25
;fn 4a + + 5 = 14 gS] rks16a2 + 2 dk eku
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
(a) 39 (b) 48 a a
(c) 26 (d) 13 D;k gksxk\
ty a
1
k3 + ? 19. 4
the factors of x + x² + 25 are:
k3
x4 + x² + 25 ds xq.ku[kaM buesa ls dkSu&ls gSa\
1 1
;fn 4
k + 4 = 194 gS] rksk + 3
3
dk eku D;k SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
k k
gS\ (a) (x² + 3x – 5) (x² – 3x + 5)
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 03) (b) (x² + 3x + 5) (x² – 3x + 5)
(a) 42 (b) 52 (c) (x² – 3x + 5) (x² – 3x + 5)
(c) 36 (d) 18 (d) (x² + 3x + 5) (x² + 3x + 5)
r
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 02) (mx + n) fuEu esa ls fdldk ,d xq.ku[kaM gS\
si
(a) 1 (b) 2 SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(c) 2 (d) 22 (a) m² x² + 2nx + n² (b) m² x² + 2mnx + n²
22. If x +
1
an by
= –2 then what is the value of x17 + 28.
(c) m² x² + 2mx + n² (d) m² x² + 2mn + n²
If x + y + z = 0, then what is the value of
n
x
x–17 + x¹² + x–12 ? (x < 0) x2 y2 z2
+ + ?
ja yz xz xy
R s
1
;fn x + = –2 gS] rksx17 + x–17 + x¹² + x–12 dk
x
x2 y2 z2
a th
places) is:
2 1
value of x – ?
2
k – kcot 30º x2
;fn = sin²60º + 4tan²45º – cosec²60º
1 + cot2 30º 1
gS] rks
k dk eku (n'keyo ds ckn nks vad rd) Kkr
;fn x + 1 = –14 gS] vkSjx < –1 gS] rksx 2 –
x x2
dhft,A dk eku D;k gksxk\
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 03) SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(a) 5.55 (b) –6.83 (a) –1123 (b) 1123
(c) –5.58 (d) 6.83 (c) –1402 (d) 1402
r
36. Select the correct algebraic expression.
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 01) lgh chth; O;atd dk p;u dhft,A
si
(a) 2x³ + 24xy² (b) 2x³ – 24xy² SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
(c) x³ – 8y³
an by (d) x³ + 8y³
(a) ab – a – b + 1 = (a – 1) (b – 1)
(b) ab + a – b + 1 = (1 – a) (a – b) (1 + a) (a + b)
n
33. If a – b = 2 and a³ – b³ = 80, then what will (c) ab – a – b + 1 = (1 – a) (b – 1)
be the value of ab? (d) ab – a – b + 1 = (a – 1) (1 – b)
ja
;fn a – b = 2 vkSja³ – b³ = 80 gks] rks
ab dk eku
37. What is the value of
R s
100² – 99² + 98² – 97² + 96² – 95² + 94² – 93²
D;k gksxk\
a th
10x 4 + 5y 4 + 7z 4
1 find the value of
;fn = x 2 – a2 gS] rksx dk eku gSA 13x 2 y 2 + 6y 2 z 2 + 3z 2 x 2
x + a2
2
(c) a 4
– 1 4 (d) a 4 +1 4
(c) –1 (d) 1
35. Which of the following statement is correct? 1 3 1
39. If x + = 3, then exaluate 8x 3 .
2x x
fuEufyf[kr eas ls dkSu&lk dFku lgh gS\
1 1
I. The value of 100² – 99² + 98² – 97² + 96² ;fn x + = 3, gS] rks8x 3 + dk eku Kkr dhft,A
– 95² + 94² – 93² + ..... + 22² – 21² is 4840. 2x x3
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
100² – 99² + 98² – 97² + 96² – 95² + 94² –
(a) 212 (b) 216
93² + ..... + 22² – 21² dk eku 4840 gSA (c) 180 (d) 196
40. If x² – 2xy = 84 and x – y = –10, then the 45. If 2a + 3b = 10 and ab = 3, then find the value
value of y is: of 4a² + 9b².
;fn x² – 2xy = 84 vkSj x – y = –10 gS] rksy dk ;fn 2a + 3b = 10 vkSj ab = 3 gS] rks4a² + 9b²
eku D;k gS\ dk eku Kkr dhft,A
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 04) SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
(a) 2 (b) 1 (a) 60 (b) 62
(c) 4 (d) 3 (c) 64 (d) 66
46. If (4x – 7y) = 11 and xy = 8, what is the value
1 of 16x² + 49y² given that x and y are positive
41. If x + = 1, then the value of x¹² + x9 + x6 +
x numbers?
x³ + 1 is: ;fn (4x – 7y) = 11 vkSjxy = 8 gS]x vkSjy èkukRed
1 la[;k,a gS] rks
16x² + 49y² dk eku D;k gksxk\
;fn x + =1 gS] rksx¹² + x9 + x6 + x³ + 1 dk
x SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
eku D;k gS\ (a) 596 (b) 484
r
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 01) (c) 569 (d) 448
si
(a) 1 (b) –1 47. What is the value of
(c) 0 an by (d) –2
1 2 1 4 1 8 1 16 1
k – k + 2 k + 4 k + 8 k + 16
n
a b
42. If + = 1 and a + b = 2, then the value of k k k k k
b a
a³ + b³ is: ja 32 1
R s
k + 32 ?
k
a b
;fn vkSj a + b = 2 gS] rksa³ + b³ dk
a th
+ =1
b a
eku Kkr dhft,A 1 2 1 4 1 8 1 16 1
k – k + 2 k + 4 k + 8 k + 16
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 02) k k k k k
ty a
(a) 0 (b) 3 32 1
k + 32 dk eku D;k gS\
di M
(c) 1 (d) 2 k
43. If 4x² + y² = 40 and xy = 6, find the positive SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
value of 2x + y.
;fn 4x² + y² = 40 vkSj xy = 6 gS] rks2x + y dk 1 1
k 64 – k 32 –
k 64 k 32
/ukRed eku Kkr dhft,A (a)
1
(b)
1
k+ k–
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 02) k k
(a) 8 (b) 6
(c) 5 (d) 4 1 1
k 32 – k 32 +
(c) k 32 (d) k 32
44. If p = 7 + 43, then what is the value of 1 1
k+ k+
A
p6 + p4 + p2 +1 k k
?
p3
1 1
48. If x + = 2, then the value of x 57 + 57 is:
p6 + p4 + p2 +1 x x
;fn p = 7 + 43 rks p3
dk eku fdruk gS\
1 1
;fn x + =2 gS] rksx 57 + dk eku D;k gS\
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 02) x x 57
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(a) 2617 (b) 2167
(a) 1 (b) –2
(c) 2716 (d) 2176
(c) 0 (d) 2
r
2mn 2mn
si
(c) (d) 1 1
x m
n 2
+n 2
x n
n 2
– m2 ;fn K + +2 = 0 rFkkK < 0 gS] rksK10 dk
K K11
50.
an by
If, for a non-zero x, 5x² + 7x + 5 = 0, then eku D;k gS\
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
n
1
the value of x 3 + is: (a) 1 (b) 0
x3
(c) – (d) 2
ja
,d 'kwU;srjx ds fy, 5x² + 7x + 5 = 0 gS] rks
R s
1 1
54. If x + = 2, then x 3 + 3 = ?
1 x x
a th
(c) 2 (d) 0
125 182
(c) (d) 3
532 125 1 1
55. 3 a – + a – = ?
a a
x+y
51. If x² + y² + 2y + 4x + 5 = 0, then . SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
x–y
2 1 3 1
x+y (a) a – (b) a –
a3 a3
;fn x² + y² + 2y + 4x + 5 = 0 gS] rks dk
x–y
1 1
eku D;k gksxk\ 3
(c) a +
2
(d) a –
a3 a2
A
r
(a) 343 (b) 322
(a) (x – 2y – 4) (x – 2y + 2)
si
(c) 340 (d) 332
(b) (x² – 2y – 4) (x² – 2y + 2)
59. an by
Which of the following statement is correct?
n
(d) (x² – 2y – 4) (x² + 2y + 2)
1 1 63. If y = 1 +3 + 4, then the value of 2y4 – 8y³
I. If K + ja
= 12, then K 2 + 2 = 142
R s
K K – 6y² + 28y – 84 is:
1 1
;fn K + = 12 gS] rksK 2 + 2 = 142 28y – 84 dk eku D;k gksxk\
K K
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
ty a
2 1 1 4 1
II. The value of k + 2 k – k + 4 (a) 403 (b) 803
k k k
di M
2p 1 1 1
65. If 2
= , p 0, then the value of ;fn K + =3 gS] rksk 2 + dk eku D;k gS\
p – 5p +1 10 K k2
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
1
p + p is: (a) 9 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 5
70. What is the value of a² + b² + c², if a + b + c
2p 1
;fn = , gS] p 0 rks p + 1 dk = 9 and ab + bc + ca = 23?
2
p – 5p +1 10 p
a² + b² + c² dk eku D;k gS] ;fn a + b + c = 9
eku Kkr dhft,A vkSjab + bc + ca = 23 gS\
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 02) SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(a) 10 (b) 25
(a) 22 (b) 32
(c) 1 (d) 15
(c) 49 (d) 35
66. If abc = 5, what is the value of
1
71. If x + = 2 5 where x > 1, then the value of
1 1 1 x
r
+ +
–1 ?
–1 –1
1 + a + b 1 + b + 5c c
1+ + a 1
si
5 x3 – is:
x3
an by
;fn abc = 5 gS] rks
;fn x +
1
x
=2 5 tgk¡ x > 1 gS] rksx 3 –
1
x3
dk
n
1 1 1 eku Kkr dhft,A
–1
+ + dk eku
1 + a + b 1 + b + 5c –1 c
ja 1 + + a –1 SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
5
R s
(a) 82 (b) 76
(c) 86 (d) 78
fdruk gSA
a th
(c) 0 (d) (a + b + c)
67. If 4(z + 7) (2z – 1) = Az² + Bz + C, then the x2 y2 z2
;fn x + y + z = 0 rks yz + zx + xy dk eku Kkr
value of A + B + C is:
di M
(a) (p – 3) (p² – 3p + 9) 12 p – q q – r r – p
(b) (p + 3) (p² + 3p + 9)
pqr gSA
(c) (p + 3) (p² – 3p + 9)
(d) (p + 3) (p² – 3p – 9) SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
1 1 1
69. If K + = 3, then what is the value of (a) (b)
K 9 3
1 1 1
k2 + ? (c) (d)
k2 4 2
1 1 2 1
;fn x 2 + = 66 gS] rksx – dk eku____ gSA x – 2 , given that x > 0?
x2 x x
r
2
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 02) 1
;fn x – = 12 gS vkSjx > 0 fn;k x;k gS] rks
x
si
(a) 10 (b) 8
(c) 9 (d) 6 2 1
76.
1
an by
If k + = 4, then what is the value of
x – 2
x
dk eku D;k gksxk\
n
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
k
(a) 62 (b) 83
(c) 63 (d) 82
1
k4 + 4 ? ja
R s
k 81. a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc if____
a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc ;fn ____
a th
1
(a) 410 (b) 192 82. If m + = 4, then find the value of (m – 2)²
m–2
di M
r
1 1
85. If a + = 5, then what is the value of a 3 + 3 ? 90. If x = 222, y = 223 and z = 224, then find
si
a a
the value of x³ + y³ + z³ – 3xyz.
;fn a +
1
a
an by
=5 gS] rksa 3 +
1
a3
dk eku D;k gS\ x = 222, y = 223 vkSj z = 224 gS] rksx³ + y³ +
dk eku Kkr dhft,A
n
z³ – 3xyz
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(a) 110 ja (b) 15
R s
(c) 105 (d) –10 (a) 2007 (b) 2004
a th
86. What is the value of a² + b² + c² – 2ab – 2bc (c) 2006 (d) 2005
+ 2ca?
91. If , are the roots of 6x² + 13x + 7 = 0, then
a² + b² + c² – 2ab – 2bc + 2ca dk eku D;k gS\ the equation whose roots are ², ² is:
ty a
93. Which of the following statement is correct? 97. If 2p + q = 19 and 8p³ + q³ = 361, then find
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku lgh gS\ the value of pq.
I. If x = 12, y = –2 and z = –10, then x³ + y³ ;fn 2p + q = 19 rFkk8p³ + q³ = 361 gS] rkspq
+ z³ = 360. dk eku Kkr djsaA
;fn x = 12, y = –2 rFkkz = –10 gS] rksx³ +
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
y³ + z³ = 360
II. If x + y = 48 and 4xy = 128, then 4x² + (a) 56 (b) 59
4y² = 4480. (c) 58 (d) 57
;fn x + y = 48 rFkk4xy = 128 gS] rks4x² + 98. Which of the following statement is correct?
4y² = 4480
fuEufyf[kr eas ls dkSu&lk dFku lgh gS\
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
I. If x = 12, y = –2 and z = –10, then x³ + y³
(a) Neither I nor II (b) Only I
+ z³ = 720
(c) Both I and II (d) Only II
;fn x = 12, y = –2 rFkk z = –10 gS rksx³ +
r
1
94. If K + + 2 = 0 and K < 0, then what is the y³ + z³ = 720
K
si
II. If x + y = 48 and 4xy = 128, then s the
11 1 value of 4x² + 4y² is 8960
value of K + 4?
an by
K
;fn x + y = 48 rFkk4xy = 128 gS rks4x² +
4y² dk eku 8960 gSA
n
1 1
;fn K + +2 = 0 rFkk K < 0 gS] rksK11 +
K K4 SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
dk eku D;k gS\ ja
R s
(a) Neither I nor II (b) Only I
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
a th
3x 13 r
2
.
2x – 5x + 2
1 3x
;fn x + =6 gS] rks 2 dk eku Kkr SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
x 2x – 5x + 2
(a) –2157 (b) 2197
dhft,A
(c) 2157 (d) –2197
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
3 a b
(a) 1 (b) 100. If + = –1 and a – b = 2 then the value a³ –
7 b a
b³ is:
2
A
(c) (d) 0 a b
3
;fn + = –1 vkSj a – b = 2 gS] rksa³ – b³ dk
b a
96. If a – b = 8 and ab = 9, then the value of a +
b is. eku Kkr djsaA
;fn a – b = 8 rFkk ab = 9 gS] rksa + b dk eku SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
Kkr djsaA
1
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 02) (a) 0 (b)
2
(a) ±9 (b) ±7
(c) ±8 (d) ±10 (c) 1 (d) –1
r
16
(c) 1 – x (d) 1 – x42
(c) 6 (d) 8
106. If 4x² + y² = 40 and xy = 6, then find the value
si
103. If a = –12, b = –6 and c = 18, then what is
of 2x + y.
2abc ;fn 4x² + y² = 40 vkSjxy = 6 gS] rks2x + y dk eku
the value of an by 9
2abc
Kkr dhft,A
SSC CGL TIER- II 06/03/2023
n
;fn a = –12, b = –6 rFkkc = 18 gS] rks
9 (a) 8 (b) 6
dk eku D;k gS\ (c) 4 (d) 5
ja
R s
ANSWER KEY
a th
1.(c) 2.(a) 3.(c) 4.(b) 5.(d) 6.(a) 7.(d) 8.(c) 9.(c) 10.(d)
ty a
11.(b) 12.(a) 13.(c) 14.(b) 15.(d) 16.(c) 17.(c) 18.(d) 19.(b) 20.(c)
di M
21.(c) 22.(d) 23.(a) 24.(b) 25.(d) 26.(b) 27.(b) 28.(d) 29.(d) 30.(b)
31.(c) 32.(a) 33.(a) 34.(d) 35.(c) 36.(a) 37.(c) 38.(d) 39.(c) 40.(c)
41.(a) 42.(a) 43.(a) 44.(c) 45.(c) 46.(c) 47.(a) 48.(d) 49.(d) 50.(d)
51.(d) 52.(b) 53.(b) 54.(c) 55.(b) 56.(a) 57.(a) 58.(b) 59.(a) 60.(d)
61.(d) 62.(a) 63.(a) 64.(d) 65.(b) 66.(b) 67.(b) 68.(c) 69.(c) 70.(d)
A
71.(b) 72.(a) 73.(c) 74.(b) 75.(b) 76.(d) 77.(d) 78.(c) 79.(b) 80.(b)
81.(b) 82.(d) 83.(a) 84.(c) 85.(a) 86.(b) 87.(b) 88.(d) 89.(b) 90.(a)
91.(b) 92.(a) 93.(a) 94.(a) 95.(b) 96.(d) 97.(d) 98.(c) 99.(d) 100.(a)
SOLUTIONS
1. (c) 5. (d)
x² – 5x + 1 = 0 ..........(1) 1
x =5 2
Consider, x
1 2
x 6 x 4 x² 1 1 1 1 x² = 5 2
–2
= x³ x x²
5x³ 5
x x³ = 48
1
1 1 1 x4 = (48)² – 2
=
x
x³
x4
5 x x ³
= 2302
r
From (1) 6. (a)
a + b = 11, ab = 35
si
1 We know,
x – 5 =0
x a4 + b4 = (a² + b²)² – 2a²b²
x+
1
an by
= 5 x³
1
= 5³ – 3 5 = 110
a² + b² = 121 – 70 = 51
a4 + 64 = 2601 – 2450
n
x x³ = 151
7. (d)
ja
x 6 x 4 x² 1 1
R s
= [5 110] = 23 x + y = 36 x – 27 + y – 9 = 0
5x³ 5 Consider,
a th
a³ + b³ = (a + b) (a² + b² – ab) 1 1
y = 3 y³ = 3³ – 3 3 = 18
di M
y y³
(17 7) (17² 7² – 17 7)
= 24 Consider,
(17² 7² – k)
1
k = 17 × 7 = 119 y³ + y³ + 2 = 18 + 2 = 20
3. (c) 9. (c)
p + q = 6, pq = 4
4 [17³ – 7³]
= 40 p³ + q³ = (p + q)³ – 3pq (p + q)
17² 7² P
= 6³ – 12 (6)
= 144
4 (17 – 7) (17² 7² 17 7)
= 40 10. (d)
17² 7² P
A
5–2 1 52
P = 119 x= , =
52 x 5–2
4. (b)
1 5–2 52
1 x =
k = –2 x 52 5–2
k
k=–1 1 18
x =
x 1
k² 4k – 2 1 – 4 – 2
= =1 1
k² k – 5 1–1– 5 x = 18² – 2 = 322
x²
1 1
x4 = 2207 k =3
x4 k
1
1 k³ = 3³ – 3 3 = 18
x² = 2207 2 = 2209 = 47 k³
x²
17. (c)
1
x = 47 2 = 7 5
x 4a 5 = 14
a
1 5
x³ + = 7³ – 3 × 7 = 322 4a =9
x³ a
1 1 4 1 1 25
x7 + 7
=
x³ x 4
–
x
16a² + = 9² – 2 4 5
x x³ x x a²
= 41
r
= 322 × 2207 – 7
18. (d)
= 710647
si
1
12. (a) x– = 13
an by x
a + b = 5, ab = 6
1
3 (a² + b²) = 3 [(a + b)² – 2ab] x²+ = 13² 2 = 171
n
x²
= 3 [25 – 12]
1
= 39 ja x4 + = 171² – 2 = 29239
R s
x4
13. (c) 19 (b)
a th
= 18
(a + 5)² – a
14. (b)
di M
a 5 – 3 a a 5 3 a
1 (x² + 5 – 3x) (x² + 5 + 3x)
k4 = 194
k4 20. (c)
1 1
k2 = 196 = 14 x = 2 cos
k2 x
1
1 x³ = 8 cos ³ – 6 cos
k = 16 = 4 x³
k
= 2 [4cos³ – 3cos]
1 = 2 cos3
k³ + = 4³ – 12
k³ 21. (c)
A
= 52 x = 32 2
15. (d)
1
=3–2 2
1 x
x = 8 x² + 1 = 8x
x 1
x =6
Consider, x
5 5 1
= =5 x – = 6–2=2
x² – 8x 2 –1 2 x
r
(x y) = 1 80 x³ y³ z³
=
si
= 81 = 9 xyz xyz xyz
24. (b)
k – k cot²30
an by =
x³ y³ z³ 3xyz
xyz
=
xyz
=3
n
= sin²60 + 4 tan²45 – cosec²60°
1 cot ²30 [ x + y + z = o x³ + y³ + z³ = 3 xyz]
LHS:- 29. (d)
ja (a + b + c)² = a² + b² + c² + 2 (ab + bc + ca)
R s
k – 3k –k
= =9+2×8
1 3 2
a th
= 25
RHS:- a+b+c=5
3 4 9 48 – 16 (a + b + c) – 3 = 2
4– = 30. (d)
ty a
4 3 12
1
41 x = –14
di M
= x
12
1
–k 41 – 41 x² = 196 + 2 = 198
= = = – 6.83 x²
2 12 6
25. (d) 1
x² – = (198)² – 4
8a³ + 27b³ = 16, 2a + 3b = 4 x²
We know, = 39200
(2a + 3b)³ = 8a³ + 27b³ + 3 × 2a × 3b (2a + 3b)
= 2 19600
64 = 16 + 18 ab (4) = 140 2
48 2 31. (c)
A
= ab =
42 3 1
k4 = 47
(2a)² + (3b)² = (2a + 3b)² – 12ab k4
2 1
= 16 – 12 =8 x² = 47 2 = 7
3 k²
16a4 + 81b4 = (8)² – 2 × 4a² × 96² 1
k = 72 =3
4 k
= 64 – 72
9 1
k³ + = 3³ – 3 × 3 = 18
= 32 k³
r
4995
34. (d)
si
38. (d)
1 x² + y² + z² = xy + yz + zx
x ² a²
an by
= x² – a²
x=y=z=1
n
x4 – a4 = 1 10x 4 5y 4 7z 4 10 5 7
=
x4 = 1 + a4 13x²y² 6y²z² 3z²x² 13 6 3
ja
R s
1 =1
a th
x = (1 + a 4 ) 4
39. (c)
35. (c)
1
x =3
I. 100² – 99² + 98² – 97² +96² – 95² +94² – 2x
ty a
= 100 + 99 + 98 + 97 +........ + 22 + 21 1 3
(2 x)³
= 6³ – 3 6 2
100 101 20 21 x
= –
2 2 = 180
It is true x² – 2 xy = 84
x (x – 2y) = 84 .........(1)
II. 1 1 4 1 1 4 1
k² k –
k 4
k
k – 4 x – y = – 10
A
k² k k k k
x = y – 10 .......(2)
1 1 4 1 4 1 Put (2) in (1)
=
k² k² –
k 4
k – 4
k² k² k k (y–10) (y–10–2y) = 84
– (y–10) (y+10) = 84
4 1 8 1 16 1
=
k – 4
k – 8 k – 16
y² – 100 = – 84
k k k
y² = 16
It is true y=4
r
1 1 1 1 4 1
x6 =4–2=2
si
k
k –
k²
k 4
x6
x x x² x
=
1 an by 1 1 8 1 16 1 32 1
x6 + x³ 2–2+1=1 k
k 8
k 16
k 32
x6 x³ x
x x x
42. (a)
n
1
a b k 64 –
=1 k 64
b a ja =
1 [Using (a – b) (a + b) = a² – b²]
R s
a² + b² = ab, a + b = 2 k
k
(a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab
a th
48. (d)
4 = 3ab
1 1
4 x = 2, x 57 57 1 1 2
ab = x x
3
ty a
=x=1
Consider,
a³ + b³ = (a + b) (a² + b² – ab) 49. (d)
di M
= 40 24 1 1
xm xn xm – xn
= 64 = 8
44. (c) 1 1
1 n n x
P = 74 3 =7–4 3 x xn xn – xn
P m m
m m
A
P6 P4 P2 1 1 1
= P3 P 3 nx n mx n nx n – mx n
P3 P P
1 m m
P = 14
P x n (n m) x n (n – m)
1 m (n– m) m (n m)
P³ + = 14³ – 14 3
P³ x n (n² – m ²)
P 6 P 4 P² 1
= 14³ – 14 3 14 2mn
P³ n
x (n ² – m ²)
= 2716
3 a – a –
5
a
a
5x 7 =0
x 1 1 1
3 a – a³ – – 3 a –
1 –7
a
a³
a
x+ =
x 5 1
a³ –
a³
1 – 343 21
x³ + = 56. (a)
x³ 125 5
1
x4 = 194
182 x4
=
125
1
x² = 194 2 = 14
51. (d) x²
x² + y² + 2y + 4x + 5 = 0 1
r
x = 14 2 = 4
x² + 4x + 4 + y² + 2y + 1 = 0 x
si
(x + 2)² + (y + 1)² = 0
1
x = – 2, y = – 1 x³ + = 4³ – 12
x y –3
=
an by
=3
x³
= 52
n
57. (a)
x – y –1
36x² – 108x 81
52. (b) ja
R s
= 9(4 x ² – 12 x 9)
(x – y)³ (y– z)³ (z – x)³
(1)
a th
6(x – y) (y – z) (z – x) = 3 (2 x– 3)²
= 3 (2x – 3)
Consider,
= 6x – 9
(x – y) + (y – z) + (z – x) = 0 58. (b)
ty a
x
So, equation (1) we come:-
1
x³ = 343 – 7 3
3(x– y) (y– z) (3 – x) 1 x³
=
6(x– y) (y– z) (z– x) 2 = 322
59. (a)
53. (b)
1
I. k = 12
1 k
k = –2
k
1
k=–1 x² = 144 – 2
k²
1 = 142
A
k10 – = –1 1 = 0 It is true
k11
(Typing error in question)
1 1 4 1 1
k²
II. k –
k 4
k
k² k k k
54. (c)
1 1 4 1
1 k²
k² –
k 4
x = 2 x =1 k² k² k
x
4 1 4 1 8 1 16 1
1 k – 4 k 4
= k – 8 k – 16
x³ + =2 k k k k
x³
It is not true
= 64 = 8 65. (b)
62. (a) 2P 1
=
x² + 4y² + 4y – 4xy – 2x – 8 P² – 5P 1 10
r
We will check from options.
2 1 1
si
Option (a) satisfies the equation = 20 = P + – 5
1 10 P
P – 5
an by P
Coefficient of x Coefficient of y Constant
1
n
1 –2 –4 25 = P +
P
1 ja –2 2 66. (b)
R s
Consider,
a th
x² 1, y² = 4, constant = – 8, xy = – 4
1 1 1
y = + 4, x = – 2
1 5 c 1
1 a 1 b 1
63. (a) b c 5 a
ty a
y = 1 3 4 = 1 3 2 = 3 3 abc = 5 Let, a = 1, b = 1, c = 5
di M
1 1 1
y–3= 3 =1
3 3 3
Squaring both sides 67. (b)
y² + 9 – 6y = 3 4 (z + 7) (2z – 1) = Az² + Bz + C
y² = 6y – 6 .........(1) 8z² – 4z + 56z – 28 = Az² + Bz + C
Squaring both sides again:- 8z² + 52z – 28 = Az² + Bz + C
y4 = 36 [y² + 1 – 2y] .........(2) A = 8, B = 52, C = – 28
A + B + C = 8 + 52 – 28
y³ = y.y² = 6 (y² – y) .........(3)
= 32
Putting (1), (2) and (3) in given equation
68. (c)
A
1 2
x³ – = 4³ 3 4 1 1
x³ p² = p– 2
p² p
= 76
= 38
r
72. (a)
1
x + y + z = o x³ + y³ + z³ = 3xyz p4 = 1444 – 2
si
p4
Consider,
= 1442
yz zx xy
=
an by
x² y² z² x³ y³ z³
xyz
79. (b)
n
1 1
y = 11 y – = 121 – 4
=3 y y
73. (c) ja 1
R s
3
y³ – = 3 13
– 3 3 13
Consider, y³
a th
(p – q) + (q – r) + (r – p) = 0
= 351 13 9 13
(p – q)³ + (q – r)³ + (r – p)³ = 3 (p – q) (q – r) (r – p)
= 360 13
(p– q)³ (q– r)³ (r– p)³ 3 1 80. (b)
ty a
= =
12 (p– q) (q– r) (r– p) 12 4 2
1 1
x – = 12 x – = 2 3
di M
74. (b) x x
(a + b)³ – a³ + b³ Now,
a³ + b³ + 3ab (a + b) – a³ + b³ 1 1 1
x² – =
x
x –
2b³ + 3ab (a + b) x² x x
75. (b)
= 42 3
1 =8 3
x² = 66
x² 81. (b)
a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc
1 if a + b + c = o
x –
= 66 – 2 = 8
x 82. (d)
A
76. (d) 1
m =4
m–2
1
k =4
k 1
(m – 2)+ =2
(m – 2)
1
x² = 14 (m – 2) = 1
k² m=3
1 1
k4 = 194 (m – 2)² + =2
k4 (m – 2)²
1 2 4
5
x –
= –6 x4
x = 15617
x
2
1 1 2 2
x² =
x – 2
x²
= 15617 8 = 15625 = 125
x² x x
36 2
= 2 x = 125 4 = 129
25 x
86 90. (a)
=
25 We know that,
84. (c)
1
a³ + b³ + c³ – 3abc = (a + b + c) [(a – b)² + (b – c)²
a³ – b³ 3ab 2
–
r
a² – b² a b + (c – a)²]
si
a² b² ab 3ab 1
– = (222 + 223 + 224) [1 + 1 + 4]
ab an by ab 2
n
=
ab a b 2007
85. (a) 6 6
1 ² + ² = [ + ]² – 2
a =5
a
ty a
169 7
= –
1 36 3
di M
a³ = 5³ – 3 5 = 110
a³
169 – 84
=
86. (b) 36
a² + b² + c² – 2ab – 2bc + 2ca
= (a – b + c)² 85
=
87. (b) 36
x 8 x 49
=1 Let =y ²² =
8 x 8 36
1
y =1 y³ = – 1 x² – (² + ²) x + ² ² = o is therequired
y equation
A
x 3 85 49
= –1 x² – x =0
8 36 36
x³ = – 512
36x² – 85x + 49 = 0
88. (d)
Consider, 92. (a)
p + q + r = 8.15 + 9.06 – 17.21 (x + y + z)² = x² + y² + z² + 2 (xy + yz + xz)
=0 0 = 40 + 2 (xy + yz + xz)
p³ + q³ + r³ – 3 pqr = 0 (xy + yz + xz) = – 20
r
95. (b)
a b
si
1 = –1
x =6 b a
x
Consider,
an by a² + b² + ab = 0
n
3x 3 a³ – b³ = (a – b) (a² + b² + ab)
=
2x² – 5x 2 2
2x – 5 =0
ja x
R s
101. (d)
3
a th
= 1 2
1
2
x –5 x = 2 – 2 3 23
x
ty a
3 3 2 1 3
= = (x – 2)³ = 2 – 2 3
3
12 – 5 7
di M
96. (d)
(a b) (a – b)² 4 ab x³ – 8 – 3x × 2 (x – 2) = 2² – 2 –
2 1 2 1
= 64 36
3 23. 23
2 3
– 2 3
= 10
97. (d)
8p³ + q³ = (2p + q)³ – 6pq (p + q) x³ – 6x² + 12x = 2 – 3× 2 (x – 2)
361 = 19³ – 6pq (19)
x³ – 6x² + 12x – 8 = 2 – 6x + 12
361 = 19 (361 – 6pq)
19 = 361 – 6pq x³ – 6x² + 18x = 22
6pq = 342 102. (a)
A
r
x=4
x
si
1
x² = 4² – 2 = 14
x² an by ......-------......
n
ja
R s
a th
ty a
di M
A
TRIGONOMETRY
19
f=kdks.kfefr
cos45º sin30º sin40º sin50º sin60º
1. Simplify dk eku D;k gksxk\
sec30º +cosec30º cos30º cos40º cos50º cos60º
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
cos45º
ljy dhft,A 1
sec30º +cosec30º (a) (b) 3
2
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
1
(c) 1 (d)
3 3
r
3 2+ 6
(a) (b) 5. The value of (sin30º cos60º – cos30º sin60º)
8 2 2–2 6
si
is equal to:
3 2– 6 3 (sin30º cos60º – cos30º sin60º) dk eku fuEu esa
(c)
8
an by (d)
2 6–2 2 ls fdlds cjkcj gS\
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
n
2. In a right-angled triangle PQR, right-angled
at Q, the length of the side PR is 17 units, (a) –cos30º (b) –sin30º
(c) cos30º (d) sin30º
ja
length of the base QR is 8 units, and length
R s
of the side PQ is 15 units. If RPQ = , then 6. What is sin – sin ?
sin + cos is: sin – sin D;k gS\
a th
– +
18 23 (c) 2 cos sin
(a) (b) 2 2
17 17
+ –
21 15 (d) 2 cos cos
(c) (d) 2 2
17 17
2tan60º
3. The value of tan² + cot² – sec² cosec² is: 7. The value of is:
1 + tan2 60º
tan² + cot² – sec² cosec² dk eku D;k gS\ 2tan60º
dk eku D;k gS\
1 + tan2 60º
A
r
(a) 0 (b) 2
4
si
(c) 1 (d) –1 ;fn sec²A + tan²A = gS] rkssec4A – tan4A
17
a 2 + b2 + c2 – 1024
11. If an by = –2 and a + b = 5c, where dk eku D;k gksxk\
ab – bc – ca
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
c > 0, then the value of c is.
n
13 4
a 2 + b2 + c2 – 1024 (a) (b)
;fn ja = –2 vkSj a + b = 5c gS] 17 13
ab – bc – ca
R s
tgk¡ c > 0 gS] rksc dk eku Kkr dhft,A (c)
4
(d)
5
a th
3 3 3 7
(c) 2 – a
2 2
(d) a 2 (c)
25
(d)
25
r
4 4 15
24. If sinA = and sin B = , what is the value
si
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 02) 5 17
of sin(A – B)?
8 8
(a)
15
an by (b)
17 ;fn sinA =
4
5
vkSj sin B =
15
17
gS] rkssin(A – B)
n
15 17
(c) (d) dk eku D;k gksxk\
17 15
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
ja
R s
20. The value of cot15º cot25º cot45º cot75º
32 13
cot65º is: (a) – (b) –
a th
45 85
cot15º cot25º cot45º cot75º cot65º dk eku D;k
gksxk\ (c)
13
(d)
32
85 45
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
ty a
(c) (d)
2 2 (c) 0 (d) 2tan²
22. If tanA + cotA = 2, then the value of 2(tan²A 27. sin4 + cos4 in terms of sin can be written as:
+ cot²A) is: sin4 + cos4 dks sin ds :i eas bl izdkj fy[kk
;fn tanA + cotA = 2 gS] rks2(tan²A + cot²A) tk ldrk gS%
dk eku Kkr dhft,A SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
(a) 2sin4 + 2sin² – 1
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(b) 2sin4 – 2sin²
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 2sin4 – 2sin² – 1
(c) 2 (d) 3 (d) 2sin4 – 2sin² + 1
28. tan( – 14) is equal to: 33. ABC is a right-angle triagle at B. If tanA =
tan( – 14) fuEUk esa fdlds cjkcj gS\ 5
, then sinA + sinB + sinC will be equal to:
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 02) 12
(a) tan (b) –cot ABC, B ij ,d ledks.k f=kHkqt gSA ;fntanA =
(c) cot (d) –tan 5
rkssinA + sinB + sinC fdlds cjkcj gksxk\
k – kcot²30º 12
29. If = sin²60º + 4tan²45º – cosec²60º,
1 + cot²30º SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
then the value of k (correct to two decimal
5 4
places) is: (a) 1 (b) 2
13 13
k – kcot²30º
;fn = sin²60º + 4tan²45º – cosec²60º 1 1
1 + cot²30º (c) 3 (d) 2
13 13
gS] rks
k dk eku (n'keyo ds ckn nks vad rd) Kkr
dhft,A If sin + cos =
3 –1
, then what is the value
r
34.
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 03) 2 2
si
(a) 5.55 (b) –6.83 of tan + cot?
(c) –5.58 an by (d) 6.83 3 –1
30. If cot B = 9, then what will be the value of
;fn sin + cos = gS] rkstan + cot dk
2 2
n
sec2 B?
eku D;k gS\
;fn cotB = 9 gS] rkssec²B dk eku D;k gksxk\
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
ja
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
R s
(a) 8(3 – 2) (b) 12(3 – 2)
98 92 (c) 12(3 + 2) (d) 8(3 + 2)
a th
(a) (b)
81 81 8
35. If sin = , then find the value of tan.
17
42 82
(c) (d)
ty a
81 81 8
;fn sin = gS] rkstan dk eku Kkr dhft,A
17
cosx – 3sinx
di M
r
2
40. If tanA = , then what is the value of the
3 12 13
si
following? (a) (b)
5 5
;fn
2
an by
(5 sin²A – 2 cos²A) ÷ (15 sin²A + 3 cos²A)
n
tanA =
3
46. If bsin = a, then sec + tan = ?
(5 sin²A – 2 cos²A) ÷ (15 sin²A + 3 cos²A)
ja ;fn bsin = a gS] rkssec + tan = ?
R s
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
a th
21 2
(a) (b) b+a 1
47 87 (a) (b)
b–a b+a
2 3
ty a
1
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 03) (a) –2 (b)
2
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 1 (d) 2 1
(c) – (d) 2
42. cot²A – cos²A is equal to: 2
cot²A – cos²A fdlds cjkcj gS\ 4
48. What will be the value of sin10º – sin³ 10º?
A
15 1
49. If cotA = , then what will be the value of tan2A? 54. If sin = , then the value of (3cos – 4cos³) is:
8 2
15 1
;fn cotA = gS] rkstan2A dk eku D;k gksxk\ ;fn sin = gS] rks(3cos – 4cos³) dk eku gS%
8 2
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 02) SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
(a) 0 (b) 1
200 240 (c) 2 (d) –1
(a) (b)
161 161 7
55. If sec – 2cos = , where is a positive acute
240 220 2
(c) (d)
173 171 angle, then the value of sec is:
cos37º 7
50. What is the value of ? ;fn sec – 2cos = gS] tgk¡ ,d /ukRed U;wu
sin53º 2
cos37º dks.k gS] rks
sec dk eku Kkr dhft,A
dk eku D;k gksxk\ SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
sin53º
r
(a) 6 (b) 8
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
(c) 5 (d) 4
si
1 1 56. Find the value of tan3 if sec 3 = cosec (4 – 15º).
(a)
2
(b)
2 ;fn sec 3 = cosec (4 – 15º) gS] rkstan3 dk
(c) 0
an by (d) 1
eku Kkr dhft,A
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
n
17 1
51. What is the value of cos –
3 (a) (b) 3
ja 3
R s
17 (c) –1 (d) 1
cos – dk eku D;k gksxk\
3 57. What is the value of cos²15º?
a th
1
(c)
2
(d) 0
(c)
2 + 3 (d)
1 + 3
52. Simplify the follwing: 2 2
cot13º cot27º cot45º cot63º cot77º = ? 58. In XYZ, X = 90º, YZ = 15 cm, and XZ = 12
cm. Then find CosY.
fuEUkfyf[kr dks ljy dhft,A
XYZ esa]XYZ, X = 90º, YZ = 15 cm vkSjXZ
cot13º cot27º cot45º cot63º cot77º = ?
= 12 cm gSA fiQj
CosY Kkr dhft,A
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 2 2 4
(a) (b)
53. Solve the following to find its value in terms 5 5
of trigonometric ratios. 3 3
A
(a)
3 –1 (b)
3 –1 4sin – cos +1
2 4 67. If 4tan = 3, then =.
4sin + cos – 1
(c) (3 + 1) (d) 23 – 1
r
62. If 1 + sin = mcos, then what is the value of sin? 4sin – cos +1
;fn 4tan = 3 gS] rks = gksxkA
;fn 1 + sin = mcos gS] rkssin dk eku D;k gksxk\ 4sin + cos – 1
si
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 02) SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(a)
2m 2 – 1
m2 +1
an by (b)
m2 – 1
m2 + 1 (a)
14
(b)
12
n
11 11
m2 +1 m2 + 1 10 13
(c) ja (d) (c) (d)
R s
2m 2 – 1 m2 – 1 11 11
63. cos(30º + ) – sin(60º – ) = .
a th
(c) (d)
2 2 (c) 142 (d) 132
64. Find the value of the following expression. 69. If sinY = x, then what will be the value of
5(sin4 + cos4) + 3(sin6 + cos6) + 19sin² cos² cos2Y (where 0 Y 90º)?
fuEufyf[kr O;atd dk eku Kkr dhft,A ;fn sinY = x gS] rkscos2Y (tgk¡ 0 Y 90º) dk
5(sin4 + cos4) + 3(sin6 + cos6) + 19sin² cos² eku D;k gksxk\
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 03) SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(a) 8 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7 (a) (2 – 1)x (b) 2x
(c) 1 – 2x (d) 1 – 2x²
tan45º –tan15º
65. What will be the value of ? 70. If A + B = C, then tanA tanB tanC = ?
A
1 + tan45º tan15º
tan45º –tan15º ;fn A + B = C gS] rkstanA tanB tanC dk eku
dk eku D;k gksxk\ D;k gksxk\
1 + tan45º tan15º
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 03) SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
1 (a) tanC + tanA – tanB
(a) 3 (b)
2 (b) tanC + tanA + tanB
71. If x = 8(sin + cos) and y = 9(sin – cos), 76. Which of the following will satisfy a² = b² +
2 2 (ab)² for the values a and b?
x y
then the value of +
82 92
is: easa vkSj b ds eku ds fy, dkSu&lk
a² = b² + (ab)²
;fn cotA =
12
gS] rkssinA dk eku = ? 2cos() sin(y) dk eku D;k gS\
5
r
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
si
3 –1 1– 3
5 12 (a) (b)
(a) (b) 2 2
5
13 an by 13
13
78.
(c) 2 – 3 (d) 3 – 2
If secx – cosx = 4, then what will be the value
n
(c) (d)
12 12
73. What is the value of tan6º × tan45º × tan84º? of
1 + cos x
2
?
ja cosx
R s
tan6º × tan45º × tan84º dk eku D;k gS\
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 03) 1 + cos x 2
a th
4 9 1
di M
74. If sin – cos = , then find the value of sin (a) (b)
5 4 4
+ cos. (c) 25 (d) 5
4
;fn sin – cos = gS] rkssin + cos dk eku 79. Evaluate the expression sin 63º + sin 27º .
2 2
5 2 2
cos 17º + cos 73º
Kkr dhft,A
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 02) sin2 63º + sin2 27º
O;atd dk eku Kkr dhft,A
cos217º + cos 2 73º
5 5
(a) (b) SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
34 24
(a) 0 (b) 3
A
34 24 (c) 1 (d) 2
(c) (d)
5 5
80. If is an acute angle, tan(4 – 50º) = cot(50º–
75. If tan( + ) = 3, tan ( –) = 1 where ( + ) ), then find the value of (in degreees).
and ( – ) are acute angles, then what is tan (6)?
;fn dksbZ U;wu dks.k gS] – 50º) = cot(50º– )
tan(4
;fn tan( + ) = 3, tan ( –) = 1 tgk¡ ( + ) ij
rks(fMxzh esa) dk eku Kkr dhft,A
rFkk( – ) U;wudks.k gSa] rks dk eku D;k gS\
tan(6)
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
(a) 60º (b) 45º
(a) –1 (b) 0
(c) 1 (d) 2 – 1 (c) 30º (d) 90º
cosx 2
81. If tanA tanB + = 1, then x = ? 86. If tanA = , then find sinA.
cosA cosA 3
2
cosx ;fn tanA = rks sinA Kkr dhft,A
;fn tanA tanB + = 1 gS] rks
x=? 3
cosA cosA
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
1 2
(a) A (b) B (a) (b)
3 13
(c) A + B (d) A – B
2 3
82. cos³60 – cos³240 – cos³360 = . (c) (d)
3 13
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
sin + cos 3
–3 –7 87. If = , then the value of sin4 –
(a) (b) sin – cos 2
4 5 cos4 is:
r
–3 –9 sin + cos 3
(c) (d) ;fn = gS] rkssin4 – cos4 dk eku
sin – cos 2
si
5 7
83. If 5sin²A + 3cos²A = 4, 0 < A < 90º, then what
D;k gksxk\
an by
is the value of tanA?
;fn 5sin²A + 3cos²A = 4, 0 < A < 90º gS] rks 5
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
12
n
(a) (b)
tanA dk eku D;k gksxk\ 12 13
ja
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 01) 11 5
R s
(c) (d)
(a) 0 (b) 3 12 13
a th
(c) 1 (d) 2 8
88. If sin = where is an acute angle, then
84. What is the value of sin28º sin35º sin45º 17
sec62º sec55º? what is the value of tan + cot?
ty a
2
3 ;fn sin2 cos 2 = gS] rkscosec² + sec² dk
9
vxj cos(A – B) = vkSj cos(A + B) = 0 gS]
2 eku D;k gksxk\
tgk¡ A vkSj B /ukRed U;wu dks.k gSa AvkSj
B gS] SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
rksA vkSjB ds eki D;k gS\ 7 5
(a) (b)
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 02) 2 2
(a) 80º and 10º (b) 60º and 30º 9
(c) (d) 92
(c) 70º and 20º (d) 50º and 40º 2
r
p2 – 1
3 3 ;fn cosec + cot = p rks p2 +1 dk eku gSA
si
(c) (d)
2 2
92. an by
If cosec + cot = 2, then what is the value SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
of cosec ? (a) cos (b) sin
;fn cosec + cot = 2 rks cosec dk eku D;k gS\
n
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 04) (c) cot (d) cosec
nh xbZ vkÑfr esa]ABC ,d lef}ckgq f=kHkqt gS ftleas (c) cos (2A + 2B) (d) cos (2A – 2B)
BC = 8 cm vkSj AB = AC = 5 cm gSAtanC –
97. Find the value of tan27º tan34º + tan34º
cotB dk eku gSA
tan29º + tan29º tan27º.
A
tan27º tan34º + tan34º tan29º + tan29º tan27º
dk eku Kkr dhft,A
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(a) 0 (b) –1
(c) 3 (d) 1
A
1 + sin 4
99. is equal to which of the following 104. If sinA = , then what is the value of sin²A?
cos 5
4
where ? ;fn sinA = gS] rkssin²A dk eku D;k gS\
2 5
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
1 + sin
cos tgk¡ ?
fuEufyf[kr eas ls fdlds cjkcj gS 26 36
2 (a) (b)
25 25
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 02) 48 16
(c) (d)
1 + cos tan +1 25 25
(a) (b) 105. If sec²A + tan²A = 3, then what is the value
sin tan – 1
of cotA?
tan – 1 cos ;fn sec²A + tan²A = 3 gS] rkscotA dk eku D;k gksxk\
(c) (d)
tan +1 1 – sin SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
r
100. If tan3. tan7 = 1, where 7 is an acute angle,
1
then find the value of cot15. (a) (b) 0
si
3
;fn tan3. tan7 = 1 gS] tgk¡7 ,d U;wu dks.k
(c) 1 (d) 3
gS] rks
cot15 dk eku Kkr dhft,A
an by 106. If is an acute angle and tan + cot = 2,
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 03) then the value of tan200 + cot200 is:
n
(a) 1 (b) –1
;fn ,d U;wu dks.k gS vkSj
tan + cot = 2 gS]
(c) –3 (d) 3
ja rkstan + cot dk eku Kkr dhft,A
200 200
R s
101. Find the value of sec – tan, if sec + tan
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
= 5.
a th
(a) 1 (b) 2
;fn sec – tan gS] rkssec + tan = 5 dk eku
(c) –1 (d) 0
Kkr dhft,A
107. If a = 45º and b = 15º, what is the value of
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
ty a
cos a – b – cos a + b
1 ?
(a) 5 (b) 5 cos a – b + cos a + b
di M
5
;fn a = 45º vkSjb = 15º rks
5
(c) (d) 5 cos a – b – cos a + b
5 dk eku D;k gS\
cos a – b + cos a + b
102. If 2 sin + 2 sin² = 2, then the value of 2
cos4 + 2 cos² is: SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
;fn 2 sin + 2 sin² = 2 rks 2 cos4 + 2 cos² (a) 2 – 22 (b) 3 – 6
dk eku D;k gksxk\ (c) 3 – 2 (d) 2 – 3
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 03) 108. What is the value of cosec15º sec15º
(a) 4 (b) 2
cosec15º sec15º dk eku D;k gS\
(c) 1 (d) 0
A
;fn sec +
1
=2 gS] rkssec55 +
1
dk fuEufyf•r dk eku fudkfy,A
cos sec55
eku Kkr dhft,A sin 25° sin 65° – cos25° cos 65°.
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 03) SSC CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023
(a) 2 (b) 0
(c) 1 (d) 55 (a) 4 (b) 1
tan320º –tan310º (c) 0 (d) 40
111. If tan40º = , then find .
1 + tan320º .tan310º
1
tan320º –tan310º 116. If tan(A + B) = 3 and tan (A – B) = ; 0º <
;fn tan40º = gS] rks dk 3
1 + tan320º .tan310º
r
(A + B) < 90º; A > B, then the values of A and
eku Kkr dhft,A
si
B are _____.respectively.
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
1 – 2 1 + 2 1
(a) an by (b) ;fn tan(A + B) = 3 vkSj tan (A – B) = ; 0º
3
rks A vkSjB ds eku Øe'k%
n
1 – 2 1 + 2 < (A + B) < 90º; A > B,
(c)
2
(d)
_____ gS
ja
112. If tan² + tan4 = 1, then: SSC CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023
R s
;fn tan² + tan4 = 1 gS] rks gksxk (a) 45º and 15º (b) 15º and 45º
a th
120. (sin + cosec)² + (cos + sc)² = ? 17-75 m Åaps ,d lh/s •M+s •aHks ds 'kh"kZ ls] ,d lh/h
SSC CGL TIER- II 07/03/2023 •M+h ehukj ds 'kh"kZ dk mUu;u60°dks.k
FkkA ;fn ehukj
57-75 m Åaph Fkh] rks •aHks ds vk/kj ls ehukj dk vkèkkj
(a) 5 + tan² + cot²
fdruh nwjh m
( esa) ij Fkk\
(b) 7 + tan² – cot²
SSC CGL TIER- II 03/03/2023
(c) 7 + tan² + cot²
(d) 5 + tan² – cot² 151 3
121. Two ships are on the opposite of a light house such (a) 40 3 (b)
6
that all three of them are colline Zar. The
angles of depression of the two ships from the top 77 40 3
of the light house 30º and 60º. If the ships (c) 3 (d)
4 3
are 230 3 m apart, then find the height of the light 124. The angle of elevation of the top of an upright
house (in m).
tower from the top of a straight pole 24 3 feet
nks tgkt ,d izdk'kLraHk ds lEeq[k bl izdkj gS fd os high is 60°. If the base of the pillar was at a
r
rhuksa lajs[k gSaA izdk'kLraHk ds 'kh"kZ ls nks tgktksa ds voueu of 60 feet from the base of the tower,
distance
si
dks.k30º vkSj 60º gSaA ;fn tgktksa ds chp dh nwjh what was the height (in feet) of the tower?
230 3 m gS] rks izdk'kLraHk dh m¡pkbZ
an by m esa) (Kkr 24 3 iQhV mQaps ,d lh/s [kM+s [kaHks ds f'k[kj ls ,
dhft,A lh/h [kM+h ehukj ds f'k[kj dk mUu;u dks.k
60° FkkA ;fn
n
[kaHks dk vk/kj ehukj ds vk/kj ls 60 iQhV dh nwjh ij
SSC CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023
Fkk] rks ehukj dh mQapkbZ (iQhV esa) D;k Fkh\
(a) 175.4 ja SSC CGL TIER- II 06/03/2023
R s
(b) 165.2
(c) 172.5 (a) 44 3
a th
(a) 340 3 3
(d) 70 2 m
(b) 310 3 – 3
123. From the top of an upright pole 17.75 m high,
the angle of elevation of the top of an upright
(c) 310 3 3
tower was 60° . If the tower was 57.75 m tall,
how far away (in m) from the foot of the pole
(d) 340 3 – 3
was the foot of the tower?
ANSWER KEY
1.(c) 2.(b) 3.(b) 4.(c) 5.(b) 6.(a) 7.(c) 8.(c) 9.(d) 10.(a)
11.(a) 12.(a) 13.(c) 14.(c) 15.(c) 16.(a) 17.(d) 18.(b) 19.(a) 20.(a)
21.(d) 22.(b) 23.(a) 24.(b) 25.(b) 26.(a) 27.(d) 28.(a) 29.(b) 30.(d)
31.(c) 32.(b) 33.(b) 34.(a) 35.(b) 36.(d) 37.(a) 38.(c) 39.(d) 40.(b)
41.(b) 42.(b) 43.(c) 44.(b) 45.(d) 46.(a) 47.(d) 48.(b) 49.(b) 50.(d)
51.(c) 52.(a) 53.(a) 54.(a) 55.(d) 56.(d) 57.(b) 58.(c) 59.(a) 60.(d)
61.(b) 62.(b) 63.(b) 64.(a) 65.(c) 66.(d) 67.(d) 68.(c) 69.(d) 70.(d)
71.(d) 72.(a) 73.(a) 74.(c) 75.(a) 76.(c) 77.(b) 78.(c) 79.(c) 80.(c)
r
81.(c) 82.(a) 83.(c) 84.(b) 85.(b) 86.(b) 87.(b) 88.(c) 89.(c) 90.(c)
si
91.(c) 92.(a) 93.(b) 94.(c) 95.(a) 96.(c) 97.(d) 98.(d) 99.(d) 100.(b)
101.(c)
an by
102.(b) 103.(c) 104.(d) 105.(c) 106.(b) 107.(d) 108.(b) 109.(d) 110.(a)
n
111.(c) 112.(b) 113.(a) 114.(d) 115.(c) 116.(a) 117.(c) 118.(a) 119.(a) 120.(c)
121.(c) 122.(a) ja123.(d) 124.(d) 125.(a)
R s
a th
ty a
di M
A
SOLUTIONS
cos 45 sin 30º sin 40º sin 50º sin 60º
1. (c) 4. (c)
sec 30 cosec30 cos 30º cos 40º cos 50º cos 60º
We know, sin = cos (90º – )
1
2 cos 60º cos 50º cos 40º cos 30º
=
2 2 cos 30º cos 40º cos 50º cos 60º
3 1
=1
5. (b) sin30º cos60º – cos30º sin60º
1
2 sin30º sin30º – cos30º cos30º
r
22 3 = sin² 30º – cos²30º
si
3 = – cos60º
= – sin30º
1
2
an by
3
22 3 6. (a) sin – sin = 2cos
sin
–
n
2 2
3 by direct formula.
2 22 6 ja
R s
2 tan 60º 2 3
7. (c) =
3 2 6–2 2
1 tan ²60º 13
a th
16
3
=
6 2–2 6 2
ty a
16 = sin60º
di M
3 2– 6 8. (c) tan240º
8 tan(180º + 60º)
tan60º = 3
2. (b) P
9. (d) tan + sec = 7
1
17 sec– tan =
15 7
50
2 sec =
7
Q 8 R
25
A
8 15 sec =
sin + cos = 7
17 17
7
23 cos =
= 25
17
3. (b) tan² + cot² – sec² cosec². 24
sin =
25
Let = 45°
1 + 1 – (2)² (2)² 24
5 sin =
2 – 4 = –2 5
3 1
10. (a) 16 cos ³ – 12 cos 14. (c) cot x – tan x = =2–
6 6 2 2
1
3 3 cot x = 2, tan x =
16× – 12 3 2
2 2
1 5
cot x + tan x = 2 =
6 3–6 3=0 2 2
4
a² b² c² – 1024 15. (c) sec²A + tan²A =
11. (a) = –2 17
ab – bc – ca
sec4A – tan4A = (sec²A – tan²A) (sec²A + tan²A)
a² + b² + c² – 1024 = 2bc + 2ca – 2ab = 1 (sec²A + tan²A)
a² + b² + c² + 2ab – 2ca – 2bc = 1024
4
(a + b – c)² = 1024 =
17
a + b – c = 32 .........(1)
16. (a) sin (A + B) = cos (A + B)
r
Given,
sin (A B)
si
a + b – 5c = 0 .....(2) =1
cos (A B)
From (1) and (2)
4C = 32
C=8
an by tan (A + B) = 1
tan A tan B
n
=1
1 – tan A tan B
9 40
12. (a) cos A = sin A = tan A + tan B = 1 – tan A tan B
ja
41 41
R s
tan A + tan A + tan B = 1 – tan B
cos A 9 tan A (1 + tan B) = 1 – tan B
a th
cot A = =
sin A 40
1 – tan B
tan A =
1 1 tan B
2
1 – a² (1 – a ²)
ty a
1
1 (2 – a²)2 25
sec= = 7
cos 1
3
tan³ = (1 – a ²) 2
B 24 C
1
2 – a² 2
cosec
AC – BC = 1
2
1 – a AC = 25, BC = 24
sec + tan³. cosec 7
sin C =
1 25
A
1 3
(2 – a²) 2
2
= (2 – a²) (1 – a²) 2
1
18. (b) sin + cos = 5 sin (90 – )
2
(1 – a²) sin = 5 cos – cos
1
sin = cos 5 –1
(2 – a²) 2 [1 + (1 – a²)]
1
1
cot =
(2 – a²) 2 (2 – a²) 5 –1
3 5 1
= (2 – a²) 2 cot =
4
1 4 15
19. (a) cosec A – cot A = 24. (b) sin A = , sin B =
4 5 17
cosec A + cot A = 4
1 15 3 8
2 cot A = 4 – = cos A = , cos B =
4 4 5 17
r
cos A sin A
25. (b) 1 tan A – 1 cot A
si
an by
cos A
1
sin A
–
sin A
1
cos A
n
Q R cos A sin A
'OR'
1 1
cot P = 3 P = 30º 26. (a) 1 cos(90 – ) 1 – cos(90 –)
di M
1
sin 30º =
2 1 1
=
22. (b) tan A + cot A = 2 1 sin 1 – sin
Squaring Both sides:-
2 2
tan²A + cot²A + 2 = 4 =
1 – sin² cos²
2 (tan²A + cot²A) = 4
2 sec²
1 – cos 1
23. (a) = 27. (d)
sin 5
We know,
Multiply and divide by (1 + cos)
sin4 + cos4 = 1 – 2 sin² cos²
A
1 – cos1 cos =
1 = 1 – 2 sin² (1 – sin²)
sin 1 cos 5
= 1 – 2 sin² + 2 sin4
2
sin 1 = 2 sin4 – 2 sin² + 1
=
sin(1 cos) 5 28. (a)
sin 1 tan ( – 14)
=
1 cos 5 – tan (14 – )
1 cos – tan (7 × 2 – )
=5
sin = tan
29. (b) 5
tan A =
k – k cot² 30º 12
= sin²60º + 4 tan²45º – cosec²60º sin A + sin B + sin C
1 cot² 30º
5 12
k (1 – cot² 30º ) 1
13 13
1 cot² 30º
30 4
= sin²60º + 4 tan²45º – cosec²60º =2
13 13
k (– 2) 3 4 34. (a)
= 4–
4 4 3
3 –1
9 48 – 16 sin cos = .......(1)
k= (– 2) 2 2
12
Consider, tan + cot
= – 6.83
30. (d) sin cos 1
=
cot B = 9
r
cos sin sincos
1 squaring both sides in (1)
si
tan B =
9
4– 3–8
tan²B =
1
81
an by 1 + 2 sin cos =
8
n
sec²B = 1 + tan²B =–
4 2 3
8
= ja
82
R s
81
31. (c) =–
2 3
a th
4
cos x – 3 sin x – 4 2
tan cot =
2 2 3
ty a
1 3 =
2
cos x –
2
sin x – 8
3
di M
r
42. (b)
sin
cot²A – cos²A
si
x = 2 cosec
cos²A [cosec²A – 1]
39. (d)
an by
cos x cosec x – sin x sec x
43.
cos²A × cot²A
(c)
n
cos x sin x
– 1 sin A
sin x cos x
ja 1 – sin A
R s
cos² x – sin² x Rationalizing we, get
a th
cos x sin x
(1 sinA)²
cos 2x
= 2 cos ²A
2 cos x sin x
ty a
1 sin A
cos 2x
2 = 2 cot 2x cos A
di M
sin 2x
sec A + tan A
40. (b)
44. (b)
A
13 5
3 4
B C
2 3
8 cot = 6
A
2
tan A =
3 3
cot =
(5 sin²A – 2 cos²A) ÷ (15 sin²A + 3 cos²A) 4
4 9 4 9 4 3
5
– 2 ÷
15 3
sin cos 5 5
13 13 13 13 =
sin– cos 4 – 3
5 5
2 13 2
=
13 87 87 7
1
A 8 16
2
12 = 15 = 15
64 161
5 12 1–
tan A = cos A = 225 225
12 13
46. (a) 240
=
161
50. (d)
b cos37º sin(90º –37º )
=
r
a sin53º sin53º
si
1
51. (c)
b² – a²
b sin = a
an by 17
cos
–
3
n
a 17
sin =
b ja cos
[ cos (– x) = cos x]
3
R s
1 sin
sin tan =
a th
cos
= cos
6 –
a 3
1
= b 1
b² – a² = cos
=
ty a
3 2
b
52. (a)
ba ba
di M
r
2 3 1 + sin = m cos
cos ²15º =
si
4
58. (c) 1 sin (1 sin)²
m=
4 an by cos
(1 sin) (1 sin)
1 – sin ²
1 sin
n
15 = =
(1 – sin) (1 sin) 1 – sin
9
ja m² 1 sin
R s
=
1 1 – sin
a th
9 3
cos y = = 63. (b)
15 5
cos (30º + ) – sin (60º – )
di M
59. (a)
cos30º cos – sin30º sin – sin60º cos +
tanA – tanB – tanC = tanA tanB tanC cos60º sin
tanA + tan(–B) + tan(–C) = tanA tanB tanC
3 3 1 1
We know, tanA + tanB + tanC = tanA tanB tanC – cos sin – =0
2
2 2 2
If A + B + C = n, where n = 0, 1, 2, 3
for A + B + C = 0, it is true 64. (a)
A + (–B) + (–C) = 0 5 (sin4 + cos4) + 3 (sin6 + cos6) + 19 sin²
A=B+C cos²
60. (d) = 5 [1 – 2 sin² cos²] + 3 [1 – 3 sin² cos²] +
tan² = 3 + Q² 19 sin²cos²
sec² = 1 + 3 + Q² = 4 + Q² = 5 – 10 sin² cos² + 3 – 9 sin² cos² + 19
A
1 cos² sin²
2
sec= (4 Q²) =8
sin³ 65. (c)
Consider, sec + tan³ cosec = sec +
cos ³
tan45º –tan15º
sin ² tan (45 – 15) = tan30
cosec = sec + 1+tan45º tan15º
cos ³
3 1
cos ² sin ² =
= sec³ (4 Q²) 2 3
cos ³
5 13
3 5
0
4 B
12 A
3
sin = 12
5 cot A =
5
3
tan = 5
4 sin A =
67. (d) 13
73. (a)
4 sin – cos 1
r
4 tan = 3, then tan6º tan45º tan84º
4 sin cos – 1
Consider, tan6º tan84º
si
A + B = 6º + 84º = 90º
3
an by
5
If (A + B) = 90º
tanA tanB = 1
n
tan6º tan84º tan45º = 1
74. (c)
ja
R s
4
4 sin – cos =
5
a th
3
tan =
4 4²
sin + cos = 1 1 –
3 4 13 5²
4 – 1
4 sin – cos 1 5 5 13
= 5 =
ty a
= 16
4 sin cos – 1 4 3 4 – 1 11 11 = 2–
25
5 5 5
di M
68. (c) 34
=
tan + cot = 12 5
tan² + cot² + 2 = 144 75. (a)
tan² + cot² = 142 tan ( + ) = 3 + = 60º
69. (d) tan ( + ) = 1 – = 45º
sin y = x 2 = 105º
cos 2y = 1 – 2 sin²y
6 = 315º
= 1 – 2x²
70. (d) tan6 = tan (315º) = tan (360º – 45º)
A+B=CA+B–C=0 = – tan 45º
tanA tanB tanC = tanA + tanB – tanC =–1
A
r
1– 3 2 sin²A + 3 = 4
si
=
2 sin²A = 1
78. (c) an by 1
sin A =
1 cos ²x 2
Consider, = sec x cos x
n
cos x
A = 45º
sec x – cos x = 4
tanA = tan45º = 1
ja
R s
sec x + cos x = (secx– cosx)² 4 84. (b)
sin28º sin35º sin45º sec62º sec55º
a th
= 20 = 2 5
cos62º cos55º sin45º sec62º sec55º
1 1
Using, if x – = a x = a² 4 1
x x
ty a
2
79. (c)
85. (b)
sin² 63 sin² 27
di M
= 30°
81. (c)
cos x B
tan A tan B =1 3 A
cos A cos B
r
2 2
1
si
Form (2) 3
=
2
an by
sin4 – cos 4 =
25
–
1
=
24 12
26 26 26 13
= 92. (a)
cosec + cot = 2, cosec = ?
n
88. (c)
1
cosec – cot =
2
ja
R s
17 1 5
2 cosec = 2 =
2 2
a th
8
5
cosec =
4
93. (b)
ty a
15
A
8
di M
sin =
17
tan + cot
8 15 64 225 5 5
15 8 120
289
=
120
89. (c) B D C
2 8cm.
sin² cos² =
9 Since, ABC is an is scales triangle.
AD is the perpendicular bisector.
A
1 1 1 9
cosec² sec² = = = BD = DC = 4
sin² cos ² sin²cos ² 2
90. (c) AD = 25 – 16 = 3
cos ²x – sec ²x 3 4
2
= a b cos 2x
tan C – cot B = –
tan ² x 4 3
9 – 16
1 =
cos ²x –
12
cos ²x
2 = a b cos 2x 7
sin² x =–
cos ² x 12
r
b b = 9
b² – a² b² – a²
si
cot 15 = cot 135º
b = cot(180º – 45º)
b+a
an by
=
b+a
b–a
= – cot45º
=–1
n
b² – a² 101. (c)
95. (c)
sec tan = 5
cosec + cot = pja
R s
1
1 sec– tan =
cosec – cot = p 5
a th
p² 1 p² – 1 5
cosec = and cot = =
2p 2p 5
ty a
If A + B + C = 90°
tanA tanB + tanB tanC + tanA tanC
4
tan27º tan34º + tan34º tan29º + tan29º tan27º
=1 5
sec A =
4
98. (d)
sin² – 3sin + 2 = 0 tan A sin A
–
1 tan ²A sec A
3 9 – 8 tan A – sinA secA
sin = =0
2 sec ²A
r
107. (d) tan² + tan4 = 1
tan² [1 + tan²] = 1
si
cos (a– b) – cos (a b)
tan². sec² = 1
cos (a– b) cos (a b)
an by
cos 30º – cos 60º 3 –1
tan² = cos²
– 1 + sec² = cos²
n
=
cos 30º cos 60º 3 1 1
–1+ = cos ²
cos ²
ja 4–2 3
R s
=
2 cos4 + cos²= 1
a th
113. (a)
=2– 3
tan ( + ) = a
108. (b)
cosec15º sec15º tan ( – ) = b
ty a
2 –=B
sin (215º )
tan A tan B
tan (A+B) =
2 1 – tan A tan B
=4
sin 30º
109. (d) ab
tan2 =
1 – ab
cos A sin A
114. (d)
1 – tan A 1 – cot A
cos ²A sin ²A
cos( – A) cot
cos A – sin A sin A – cosA A cos (– A)
2
A
cos ²A – sin ²A 3
= cosA + sinA tan( A) tan
A
sin(2 – A)
cos A – sin A 2
110. (a)
1 cos A(– tan A) cos A
sec =2 –
cos tanA (– cot A) (– sin A)
2 sec = 2
sin A cos A
sec = 1
sin A
1
sec55 =2 = cos A
sec55
1
tan (A – B) =
3
h
A + B = 60°
A – B = 30°
30° 60º
A = 45°, B = 15° A B
D
117. (c)
r
230 3
We know,
si
sec² + cos² 1
AD 3
118. (a) an by
cos 120° = cos (180° – 60°)
We know, =
DB 1
n
= cos180º cos60º – sin180º sin60º 4 230 3
230 3
1 1ja DB 1
R s
= –1 – 0 = – = – 0.5 4
2 2
a th
119. (a) CD
tan 60 =
a cot + bcosec = P DB
CD = 3
Let = 30° 4
di M
Then, = 172.5
3a 2b = P 122. (a)
2a 3b = q
p–q= 3 –2 a 2– 3 b
p q = 3 2 a 2 3 b
H
p² – q² = – a² + b²
120. (c)
A
2 2 60°
1 1
sin
cos
sin cos 70 m
1 1
sin² 2 cos ² 2
sin² cos ² H
tan 60 =
70
1 1
= 5 H = 70 3
sin² cos ²
A h 45°
60°
D
B H
680 680
57.75 17.75
60°
C E x
x
h 680
tan 60 =
AB = 57.75 – 17.75 = 40 m x
r
AB AB h 680
tan60º = = x= ..........(1)
BD CE 3
si
40 h
3=an by CE tan 45 =
x
n
x=h ..........(2)
40 40 3
CE = = put (2) in (1)
3 3
ja
R s
124. (d) h 680
h=
3
a th
A
60°
3 h – h = 680
B D
680
ty a
h= = 340 3 1
3 –1
24 3
di M
H = 680 + 340 3 1
= 340
3 1 2
C E
60
= 340
3 3
AB AB
tan 60 = =
CE 60
AB = 60 3
AC = 60 3 24 3 = 84 3
A
......-------......
TRIANGLE
20
f=kHkqt
1. In the triangle ABC, AB = 12cm and AC = 4. In the figure, AB = AD = 7cm and AC = AE
10cm, and BAC = 60º What is the value of and BC = 11cm, then find the length of ED.
the length of the side BC?
vkÑfr esa]AB = AD = 7 vkSjAC = AE rFkkBC =
f=kHkqt
ABC esaAB = 12 cm vkSj AC = 10 cm, 11 lseh gks] rks
ED dh yackbZ Kkr dhft,A
vkSj BAC = 60º gSA Hkqtk
BC dh yackbZ dk eku
D;k gS\ E D
r
A
si
60º A
an by
n
B C
B C
ja SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
R s
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 01) (a) 12 (b) 10
a th
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 02) SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 7 : 3
(a) 15 degrees (b) 24 degrees
(c) 3 : 10 (d) 3 : 7
(c) 26 degrees (d) 13 degrees
7. In the given triangle, CD is the bisector of 11. In the given figure, AB=DB and AC = DC. If
BCA. CD = DA. If BDC = 76º, what is the ABD = 58º and DBC = (2x + 4)º, ACB = (y
degree measure of CBD? + 15)º and DCB = 63º, then the value of 2x
fn, x, f=kHkqt esa]
CD BCA dk lef}Hkktd gSA CD + 5y is:
= DA ;fn BDC = 76º gS] rks
CBD dk va'k eki nh xbZ vkÑfr esa
AB = DB vkSjAC = DC gSA ;fn
fdruk gksxk\ dks.k ABD = 58º vkSj dks.kDBC = (2x – 4)º,
dks.kACB = (y + 15)º vkSj dks.k
DCB = 63º gSA
C rks2x + 5y dk eku D;k gksxk\
B D A
r
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
si
(a) 32º (b) 76º
an by SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(c) 80º (d) 66º
(a) 325 (b) 273
8. In DABC, AB = AC, O is a point on BC such
n
that BO = CO and OD is perpendicular to AB (c) 259 (d) 268
and OE is perpendicular to AC. If BOD = 60º, 12. O is the incentre of the triangle PQR. If angle
ja POR = 140 degree, then what is the angle
R s
then measure of AOE is:
PQR?
f=kHkqtABC, esaAB = AC gS] fcanq
O, BC ij bl
a th
gS vkSjOE js[kkAC ij yEcor gSA ;fn BOD = fMxzh gS] rks dks.k
PQR D;k gS\
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 02) (a) 40 degree (b) 140 degree
(c) 100 degree (d) 70 degree
di M
10. Side of an equilateral triangle is 24 cm. What the side BC at D. If AB = 10 cm, and AC = 14
will be the radius of in circle of this equilateral cm, then what is BD : BC ?
triangle? f=kHkqt
ABC esa] dks.k
BAC dk lef}Hkktd HkqtkBC
,d leckgq f=kHkqt dh Hkqtk 24 lseh- gSA bl leckgq dks D ij dkVrk gSA ;fnAB = 10 lseh] vkSjAC =
f=kHkqt ds var% o`Ùk dh f=kT;k D;k gksxh\ 14 lseh gS] rks
BD : DC D;k gS\
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 03) SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(a) 6 cm (b) 12 cm (a) 10 : 7 (b) 5 : 7
(c) 8 cm (d) 3 cm (c) 7 : 5 (d) 7 : 10
15. In an equilateral triangle ABC, D is the 19. Suppose ABC be a right-angled triangle where
midpoint of side BC. If the length of BC is 8 A = 90º and AD BC. If area (ABC) = 80
cm, then the height of the triangle is: cm² and BC = 16 cm, then the length of AD
,d leckgq f=kHkqt
ABC esa]D Hkqtk
BC dk eè;fcanq is:
r
BC dh yackbZ Kkr djsaA
cjkcj gSA
si
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
(a) 16 cm (b) 18 cm
(a) 5
3
cm
an by (b) 4
3
cm 21.
(c) 15 cm (d) 13 cm
Study the given triangle and find the length
n
4 5
of BC.
5 3 fn, x, f=kHkqt dk vè;;u dhft, vkSj BC dh yackbZ
(c) 3 cm ja (d) 6 cm
R s
7 4 Kkr dhft,A
a th
10
x
XYZ ~ GST vkSjXY : GS = 2 : 3, XV Hkqtk
YZ
di M
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 02) SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
4 3 5
(a) (b) (a) (b) 6
9 9 2
(c) 5 (d) 3
1 2
(c) (d) 1
A
23. In triangle ABC, AD is the angle bisector of 28. The perimeter of a triangle with sides of
angle A. If AB = 8.4 cm and AC = 5.6 cm and integer values is equal to 13. How many such
DC = 2.8 cm, then the length of side BC will triangles are possible?
be: iw.kkZad ekuksa dh Hkqtkvksa okys f=kHkqt dk ifjek
f=kHkqt
ABC esaAD dks.kA dk dks.k lef}Hkktd gSA cjkcj gSA ,sls fdrus f=kHkqt cuuk laHko gSa\
;fn AB = 8.4 cm vkSjAC = 5.6 cm vkSjDC = SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
2.8 cm gS] rks Hkqtk
BC dh yackbZ gksxhA (a) 5 (b) 8
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 01) (c) 7 (d) 6
29. In a ABC, the internal bisectors of the angle
(a) 4.2 cm (b) 5.6 cm
B and the angle C intersect at an angle of 105º.
(c) 7 cm (d) 2.8 cm What is the value of the angle A?
24. I ,d ABC esa dks.k
B vkSj dks.k
C ds vkarfjd lef}Hkktd
m g 105º ds dks.k ij izfrPNsn djrs gSaA dks.k
A dk eku
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 01) D;k gS\
r
(a) A (b) A SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
si
(a) 52.5º (b) 75º
(c) A (d) A
(c) 15º (d) 30º
25. ABC and DEF are congruent respectively.
an by
If AB = 6 = DE, BC = 8 = EF and m B = 30º,
then m D + m C =_________.
30. If ABC ~ QRP,
ar ABC 9
= , AB = 18 cm,
ar QRP 4
n
ABC vkSjDEF Øe'k% lokZaxle gSA ;fn
AB = 6 BC = 15 cm, then the length of PR is:
ja
= DE, BC = 8 = EF vkSjm B = 30º gS] rksm
R s
ar ABC 9
D + m C dk eku D;k gksxk\ ;fn ABC ~ QRP, = , AB = 18 cm,
ar QRP 4
a th
(a) 16 cm (b) 14 cm
26. If an angle of a right-angled triangle is 35º, (c) 10 cm (d) 12 cm
then find the other angles.
di M
33. The mid points of AB and AC of a ABC are 37. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio of
X and Y, respectively. If BC + XY = 24 units, 1 : 2 : 3, what is the type of such triangle?
then the value of BC – XY is: ;fn fdlh f=kHkqt ds dks.kksa dk vuqikr 1 % 2 % 3 gS
ABC dh HkqtkAB vkSjAC ds eè; fcUnq Øe'k%X rks ;g fdl izdkj dk f=kHkqt gS\
vkSjY gSaA ;fn
BC + XY = 24 bdkbZ gS] BC
rks – XY SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
dk eku Kkr dhft,A (a) Isosceles triangle
(b) Equilateral triangle
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(c) Right-angle triangle
(a) 5 cm (b) 4 cm (d) Obtuse-angle triangle
(c) 6 cm (d) 8 cm 38. In triangle XYZ, P is the incentre of the
triangle XYZ. If angle XYZ = 50º, then what
34. AD is the median of triangle ABC. P is the
is the value of angle XPZ?
centroid of triangle ABC. If AP = 14 cm, then
what is the length of PD? f=kHkqt
XYZ esa]P f=kHkqt
XYZ dk var%dsUnz gSA ;fn
dks.kXYZ = 50º gS] rks dks.k
XPZ dk eku D;k gS\
r
AD f=kHkqt
ABC dh ekfè;dk gSA
P f=kHkqt
ABC dk dsUnzd
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
gSA ;fnAP = 14 ls-eh gS] rks
PD dh yEckbZ fdruh gS\
si
(a) 100º (b) 115º
(a) 14 cm
an by
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(b) 28 cm 39.
(c) 140º (d) 130º
Two concentric circles are drawn with radii
n
20 cm and 16 cm. What will be the length of
(c) 21 cm (d) 7 cm a chord of the larger circle which is tangent
35. ja
PQR is an isosceles triangle and PQ = PR = to the smaller circle?
R s
2a unit, QR = a unit. Draw PX QR, and find 20 lseh vkSj 16 lseh f=kT;k okys nks ladsafnzr o`Ùk cu
a th
the length of PX. tkrs gSaA cM+s o`Ùk dh ml thok dh yEckbZ D;k gksx
PQR ,d lef}ckgq f=kHkqt gS vkSj
PQ = PR = 2a NksVs o`Ùk dh Li'kZjs[kk gS\
bdkbZ]QR = a bdkbZ gSA
PX QR [khafp, vkSj
PX SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
ty a
42. If in a triangle ABC as drawn in the figure, AB 45. In ABC and PQR, AB = PQ and B = Q.
= AC and ACD = 130º, then BAC is equal to: The two triangles are congruent by SAS
;fn vkÑfr esa fn[kk, x, vuqlkj ,d f=kHkqtABC criteria if:
[khapk x;k gS] ftlesa
AB = AC vkSjACD = 130º gS ABC vkSj PQR esaAB = PQ vkSj B = Q gSA
rksBAC fdlds cjkcj gksxk\ ;fn _____gS] rks Hkqtk dks.k(SAS)
HkqtkekunaM ds vuqlkj
A nks f=kHkqt lokZaxle gSaA
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
(a) BC = QR (b) AC = PR
(c) AC = QR (d) BC = PQ
13 46. In ABC and DEF, A = 55º, AB = DE, AC =
0º
DF, E = 85º and F = 40º. By which property
B C D are ABC and DEF congruent?
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
vkSjDEF esa]A = 55º, AB = DE, AC =
r
ABC
(a) 60º (b) 50º
DF, E = 85º vkSj F = 40º gSA dkSu ls xq.k ds
si
(c) 70º (d) 80º
vuq:i ABC vkSjDEF lokZaxle gSaA
43. an by
In ABC, P and Q are points on AB and BC,
respectively, such that PQ || AC. Given that SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
n
AB = 26, PQ = 7 and AC = 10 find the value (a) SAS property
of AP.
(b) ASA property
ABC ja
esaP vkSjQ Øe'k%AB vkSjBC ij ,sls fcUnq gSa
R s
(c) RHS property
fd PQ || AC gSA fn;k x;k gS fdAB = 26, PQ =
a th
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 01) 47. If the angles of a triangle are (x – 6) degree,
(x + 26) degree and 8x degree, then what is
(a) 7.1 (b) 7.8
ty a
49. In the follwing figure, if l || m, then find the 53. Triangle ABC and DEF are similar. If AB = 92
measures of angles marked by a and b. cm, BC = 48 cm, AC =120 cm, and the length
fuEufyf[kr vkÑfr eas ;fnif l || m gS rksa vkSj b of the smallest side of DEF is 200 cm, then
}kjk fpfUgr dks.kksa dh eki Kkr djsaA find the length of the longest side of triangle
DEF?
l m
f=kHkqt
ABC vkSjDEF le:i gSaA ;fn AB = 92 cm,
BC = 48 cm, AC = 120 cm gS] vkSj
DEF dh lcls
0º NksVh Hkqtk dh yackbZ
200 cm gS] rks f=kHkqt
DEF dh
c 11
a lcls yach Hkqtk dh yackbZ Kkr dhft,\
40º
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
b
(a) 400 cm (b) 225 cm
(c) 350 cm (d) 500 cm
54. Two angles of a triangle are equal and the third
angle measures 78º. What is the measure of
each of the unknown angles?
r
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
,d f=kHkqt ds nks dks.k cjkcj gSa vkSj rhljs dks.k dh
(a) a = 90º and b = 90º
si
eki 78º gSA izR;sd vKkr dks.k dh eki D;k gS\
(b) a = 55º and b = 125º
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
an by
(c) a = 70º and b = 110º
(d) a = 60º and b = 120º
(a) 50º
(c) 49º
(b) 51º
(d) 52º
n
50. In a PRQ, AB is drawn parallel to QR, cutting 55. If it is given that for two right angled triangles
sides at A and B where length of PQ = 6cm, ABC and DFE, A = 25º, E = 25º, B = F =
ja
length of QR = 8cm and length of QA = 3cm.
R s
90º and AC = ED, then which one of the
What is the length of AB?
following is TRUE?
a th
fdlh PQR esaAB, QR ds lekukarj [khaph xbZ gS] tks ;fn ;g fn;k x;k gS fd nks ledks.k f=kHkqtkas
ABC
HkqtkvksaAdks
vkSjB ij dkVrh gS] tgk¡PQ dh yackbZ vkSjDFE ds fy, A = 25º, E = 25º, B = F
= 6 cm, QR dh yackbZ = 8 cm vkSjQA dh yackbZ
= 90º vkSjAC = ED gS] rks fuEUkfyf[kr esa ls dkSu&l
ty a
= 3 cm gSA
AB yackbZ fdruh gS\
fodYi lR; gS\
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
di M
(a) 4.0 cm (b) 4.2 cm (a) ABC FED (b) ABC DEF
(c) 5.0 cm (d) 2.4 cm (c) ABC EFD (d) ABC DEF
51. In triangle ABC, B = 90º, and C = 45º. If 56. If ABC PQR, BC = 6 cm, and A = 75º,
AC = 22 cm, then the length of BC is: then which one of the follwoing is true?
f=kHkqt
ABC esaB = 90º, vkSj C = 45º gSaA ;fn ;fn ABC PQR, BC = 6 cm vkSj A = 75º
AC = 22 cm gS] rks
BC dh yackbZ D;k gS\ gS] rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk fodYi lR; gS\
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 01) SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
(a) 3 cm (b) 2 cm (a) QR = 6 cm, R = 75º
(b) QR = 6 cm, Q = 75º
(c) 1 cm (d) 4 cm
(c) QR = 6 cm, P = 75
A
58. If the ratio of corresponding sides of two nks f=kHkqt rc lokZaxle dgykrs gSa] ;fn ,d f=kHkq
similar triangles is 5 : 7 then what is the
ds 2 dks.k vkSj varxZr Hkqtk nwljs f=kHkqt ds 2 dk
ratio of the area of the two triangles?
vkSj varxZr Hkqtk ds cjkcj gksaA
;fn nks le:i f=kHkqtksa dh laxr Hkqtkvksa dk vuqikr(c) Two triangles are said to be congruent if
5 : 7 gS] rks nksuksa f=kHkqtksa ds {ks=kiQy dk vuqikr
2 sides and the included angle of one
D;k gS\ triangle are equal to 2 sides and the
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 04) included angle of the other triangle.
3
nks f=kHkqt rc lokZaxle dgykrs gSa] ;fn ,d f=kHkq
(a) 5 : 7 (b) 25 : 49
dh 2 Hkqtk,a vkSj varxZr dks.k nwljs f=kHkqt dh
(c) 5 : 7 (d) 5 : 7
Hkqtkvksa vkSj varxZr dks.k ds cjkcj gksaA
59. In ABC, D and E are points on sides AB and (d) Two triangles are said to be congruent if
AC, such that DE || BC. If AD = x + 3, DB = any pair of 2 angles and any 1 pair of sides
2x – 3, AE = x + 1 and EC = 2x – 2, then the
of both the triangles are equal.
value of x is:
nks f=kHkqt rc lokZaxle dgykrs gSa] ;fn nksuksa f=
ABC eas]D vkSjE ,sls fcUnq gSaAB
tksvkSjAC ij
ds 2 dks.kksa dk dksbZ ;qXe vkSj Hkqtkvksa dk d
r
bl izdkj gSa fdDE || BC gksrk gSA ;fnAD = x +
;qXe cjkcj gksA
si
3, DB = 2x – 3, AE = x + 1 vkSjEC = 2x – 2,
62. If the areas of two isosceles triangles are in
rksx dk eku gS% the ratio of x²: y², then the ratio of their
an by
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 01) corresponding heights is:
;fn nks lef}ckgq f=kHkqtksa ds x²
{ks=kiQy
: y² ds vuqikr
n
4 1
(a) (b) esa gS] rks mudh laxr Å¡pkb;ksa dk vuqikr D;k gS\
5 2
ja SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
R s
3 1 (a) x : y (b) x : y
(c) (d) (c) x³ : y³ (d) x² : y²
5 5
a th
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 01) SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(a) 12 cm (b) 10 cm (a) 16 cm (b) 14 cm
(c) 14 cm (d) 8 cm (c) 12 cm (d) 18
64. In the figure BCDE is a square and ABC is
61. What is the ASA congruence rule of triangles,
equilateral triangle then ADC is:
where A and S represents angle and side of
nh xbZ vkÑfr esaBCDE ,d oxZ gS vkSjABC leckgq
triangle respectively?
f=kHkqt gS]ADC
rks gSA
f=kHkqtksa dk ,-,l-,
(ASA) lokZaxlerk fu;e D;k gS]
tgk¡ vkSj Øe'k% f=kHkqt ds dks.k vkSj Hkqtk dks
A S A
fu:fir djrs gSa\
A
65. In PQR, Q = 90º, PQ = 8 cm and PRQ = 70. In the given figure, if KI = IT and EK = ET,
45º. Find the length of QR. then TEI = ____.
PQR easQ = 90º, PQ = 8 cm vkSj PRQ = nh xbZ vkÑfr esa] ;fn
KI = IT vkSj EK = ET gS] rks
45º gSAQR dh yackbZ Kkr dhft,A TEI =
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 01) K
(a) 6 cm (b) 3 cm
(c) 5 cm (d) 8 cm
66. ABC and DEF are similar triangles and their
150º
areas are 49 cm² and 144 cm² respectively. E I
If EF = 16.80 cm, then find BC.
ABC vkSjDEF le:i f=kHkqt gSa vkSj muds {ks=kiQy
Øe'k% 49 lseh2
vkSj 144 lseh
2
gSaA ;fn
EF = 16.80
lseh gS] rks
BC Kkr dhft,A T
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
r
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(a) 7.5 cm (b) 9.8 cm (a) 75º (b) 125º
si
(c) 8.7 cm (d) 11.4 cm
(c) 105º (d) 150º
67. an by
The side of an equilateral triangle is 9 cm.
What is the radius of the circle circumscribing
71. In a ABC, B + C = 110º, then find the
measure of A.
n
this equilateral triangle?
,d leckgq f=kHkqt dh Hkqtk 9 ls-eh gSA bl leckgq ,d ABC esaB + C = 110º gS] rksA dk eki
f=kHkqt dks ifjxr djus okys o`Ùk dh f=kT;k D;k gS\ Kkr dhft,A
ja
R s
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 03) SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
a th
and 289 cm², respectively. What is the ratio is 5 cm and PRQ = 30º. Determine the length
of their corresponding altitudes? of side QR.
di M
74. A,B, C are three points such that AB = 9 cm, BC ABCD ,d pØh; prqHkqZt gS vkSj
BC lacaf/r o`Ùk dk
= 11 cm and AC = 20 cm. The number of circles O;kl gS ftl ij A vkSjD Hkh fLFkr gSaA
BCA = 19°
passing through points A,B,C is:
vkSjCAD = 32° gSA ACD dk eki Kkr djsaA
A, B, Crhu fcanq bl izdkj gSa AB
fd = 9 cm, BC = SSC CGL TIER- II 03/03/2023
11 cm vkSjAC = 20 cm gSA fcanq A, B, C ls xqtjus (a) 41° (b) 38°
okys o`rksa dh la[;k D;k gS\ (c) 40° (d) 39°
SSC CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023 78. If the external angle of a regular polygon is
18°, then the number of diagonals in this
(a) 2 (b) 0 polygon is:
r
,d o`r ] prqHkZtABCD dh pkjksa Hkqtkvksa dks79.
Li'kZIf the areas of two similar triangles are in the
djrk gSA ;fnAB = 18 cm, BC = 21 cm vkSjAD
si
ratio 196 : 625, what would be the ratio of the
= 15 cm gS] rks dhCD yackbZ D;k gksxh\ corresponding sides?
an by
SSC CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023
;fn nks le:i f=kHkqtksa ds {ks=kiQyksa dk vuqikr 196 %
gS] rks laxr Hkqtkvksa dk vuqikr D;k gksxk\
n
(a) 16 cm (b) 14 cm
SSC CGL TIER- II 03/03/2023
(c) 12 cm (d) 18 cm (a) 14 : 25 (b) 13 : 20
ja
R s
76. In PQR, PQ = QR and O is an interior point (c) 14 : 20 (d) 13 : 25
of PQR such that OPR = ORP.
80. If ABC is right angled at B, AB = 12 cm. and
a th
Consider the following statements: CAB = 60°, then find the length of BC.
(i) POR is an isosceles triangle. ;fn ABC, B ij ledks.k gS] AB = 12 cm vkSj
CAB = 60° gS] rks
BC dh yackbZ Kkr dhft,A
ty a
(a) 24 3 cm (b) 12 cm
Which of the above statements are correct?
PQR esa]
PQ = QR gS vkSj
PQR esaO bl çdkj ls (c) 12 3 cm (d) 12 2 cm
,d var% fcanq gS fd
OPR = ORP gSA 81. L is the centroid of an equilateral triangle PQR.
If PQ = 6 cm, then what is the length of PL?
fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%
,d leckgq f=kHkqt
PQR dk dsaædL gSA ;fnPQ = 6
(i) POR ,d lef}ckgq f=kHkqt gSA cm, rksPL dh yackbZ D;k gS\
83. If one of the interior angles of a regular polygon 86. For what value of m will the system of
equations 17x + my + 102 = 0 and
15
is times of one of the interior angles of a 23x + 299y + 138 = 0 have infinite number
16
of solutions?
regular decagon, then find the number of
diagonals of the polygon. fuEufyf•r esa lsm ds fdl eku ls lehdj.k fudk;
;fn fdlh le cgqHkqt dk ,d var%dks.k fdlh le nlHkqt 17x + my + 102 = 0 vkSj23x + 299y + 138 =
0 ds vla[; gy çkIr gksxsa\
15
ds ,d var%dks.k dk16 xquk gS] rks cgqHkqt ds fod.kk±s SSC CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023
dh la[;k Kkr dhft,A (a) 221
SSC CGL TIER- II 07/03/2023 (b) 223
(a) 20 (c) 220
(b) 14 (d) 219
r
(c) 2 87. For which of the following values of the system
si
of equations 18x – 72y + 13 = 0 and
(d) 35
7x – my – 17 = 0 will have no solution?
an by
84. PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral. IfP is three
times of R and S is four times of Q, then
fuEufyf[kr esa ls
m ds fdl eku ls lehdj.k fudk;
18x – 72y + 13 = 0 vkSj7x – my – 17 = 0 dk
n
the sum of S + R will be: dksbZ gy ugha gksxk\
ja
,d pØh; prqHkZqt gSA
;fnP, R dk rhu xquk SSC CGL TIER- II 06/03/2023
R s
PQRS
(a) 9
vkSjS, Q dk pkj xquk gS] rksS + R dk ;ksx
a th
(b) 12
D;k gksxk\ (c) 24
SSC CGL TIER- II 07/03/2023 (d) 28
ty a
(a) 169° 88. Find the coordinates of the points where the
(b) 171° graph 57x – 19y = 399 cuts the coordinate
di M
axes.
(c) 187°
mu fcanqvksa ds funZs'kkad Kkr dhft, ftuesa vkjs
(d) 189°
57x – 19y = 399 funZs'kkad v{kksa dks dkVrk gSA
85. It is given that ABC PQR, AB = 5 cm,
SSC CGL TIER- II 07/03/2023
B = 40°, and A = 80°. Which of the following
options is true? (a) x – axis at (– 7,0) and y – axis at (0, – 21)
fn;k x;k gS fd ABC PQR, AB = 5 cm, x– v{k ij (– 7,0) vkSjy – v{k ij (0, – 21)
B = 40°, vkSj A = 80° fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk
(b) x – axis at (– 7,0) and y – axis at (0,21)
fodYi lgh gS\
v{k ij vkSjy – v{k ij
A
x– (– 7,0) (0,21)
SSC CGL TIER- II 07/03/2023
(c) x – axis at (7,0) and y – axis at (0, – 21)
(a) PQ = 5 cm and R = 60°
(b) QR = 5 cm and R = 60° x– v{k ij (7,0) vkSjy – v{k ij (0, – 21)
ANSWER KEY
1.(d) 2.(c) 3.(c) 4.(c) 5.(c) 6.(a) 7.(d) 8.(c) 9.(b) 10.(c)
11.(b) 12.(b) 13.(a) 14.(b) 15.(d) 16.(d) 17.(a) 18.(c) 19.(a) 20.(b)
21.(c) 22.(a) 23.(c) 24.(d) 25.(d) 26.(c) 27.(d) 28.(a) 29.(d) 30.(c)
31.(d) 32.(a) 33.(d) 34.(d) 35.(d) 36.(c) 37.(c) 38.(b) 39.(b) 40.(a)
41.(c) 42.(d) 43.(b) 44.(d) 45.(a) 46.(a) 47.(d) 48.(c) 49.(c) 50.(a)
51.(b) 52.(c) 53.(d) 54.(b) 55.(c) 56.(c) 57.(c) 58.(d) 59.(c) 60.(a)
r
si
61.(b) 62.(a) 63.(a) 64.(d) 65.(d) 66.(b) 67.(d) 68.(d) 69.(d) 70.(c)
71.(b) 72.(a)
an by
73.(a) 74.(b) 75.(d) 76.(b) 77.(d) 78.(c) 79.(a) 80.(c)
n
81.(d) 82.(c) 83.(a) 84.(d) 85.(a) 86.(a) 87.(d) 88.(c)
ja
R s
a th
ty a
di M
A
SOLUTIONS
1. (d) A AB = AD (given)
AE = AC
BAC = EAD (VOA)
60°
ABC ADE
C = 12 10 = b
BC = ED = 11 cm.
5. (c) A
B C
a x y
We know,
r
a² = b² + c² – 2bc cosA 120°
z 110°
si
= 100 + 144 – 2 × 120 × cos60º
B C D F
an by
= 244 – 240
1
2
A + B = ADF [Exterior angle]
x + y + z = 120°
n
a² = 124 6. (a)
A
a = 124 11 ja
R s
= 11.13 cm.
a th
2
ar ABC (x)² BC
2. (c) = =
ar DEF (y)² EF
ty a
Given, EF = a B C
6 D 8
BC² x² By angle bisector theorem:-
di M
=
a² y²
AB BD 6 3
= = =
ax AC DC 8 4
BC =
y 7. (d) C
4. (c) E D
DCA = DAC = x [ CD = AD]
7 Also,
A 2x = 76º [Exterior angle]
x = 38º
By angle sum property:-
B C y + 3x = 180º.
11 y = 180º – 38º × 3
In ABC, ADE y = 66º.
8. (c) A AB = BD
AC = CD
BC = BC
ABC DBC (Bysss)
D E
ABC = DBC
58
2x – 4 = = 29
2
60° 60°
2x = 33
B O C
Also,
AB = AC y + 15 = 63
ABC = ACB = x (say) y = 48 2x + 5y = 273
In ODB, OEC 12. (c) P
D = E
B = C
r
BOD = EOC = 60°
si
Since, ABC is an isosceles triangle. 140°
AO is the perpendicular bisector
an by O
AOC = 90º
n
AOE = 90º – 60º Q R
= 30º
9. (b) Given:- ja 1
R s
POR = 90 + PQR
Sides ratio = 4 : 6 : 8 2
a th
=2:3:4 1
Consider, 140º = 90º + PQR
2
(2x)² + (3x)² = 4x² + 9x²
PQR = 100º
= 13x²
ty a
13. (a) X
13x² < (4x)² = 16x²
(Incorrect question)
di M
a² + b² < C²
It is an obtuse angled triaugle. 60°
12
=
3 Y Z
M
=4 3 YXZ = 60°
A YLZ = 2 × YXZ
A
= 120°
58° In YLM, ZLM
(y+15)º YM = MZ
11. (b) B C
(2x+4)º 63° YML = LMZ
LY = LZ (Radius of circumcircle)
YLM ZLM (By RHS)
D
(Question printing mistake) 120º
YLM = ZLM = = 60º
2
In ABC, DBC
10 14
Y V Z S D T
XYZ ~ GST
B C 1
D YZ
XY 2 YZ 2
By angle bisector theorem:- = = =
GS 3 ST 1 ST
AB BD 10 2
= =
AC DC 14 YV
=
5 BD SD
r
=
7 DC
YV 2 4
si
15. (d) A
=
SD 9
an by 18. (c) A – B = 45º
B – C = 15º
n
A + B + C = 180º (Angle sum prop.)
let c = x
ja
R s
60º + x + 15º + x + x = 180º
3x = 180º – 75º
a th
B C 105º
D x= = 35º
3
Side = 8 cm
ty a
A = 60 + x = 95º
3
Height = side
19. (a) B
di M
3
= 8
2 D
= 4 3 cm.
16. (d) A F
A
9 11 16 C
Area AB C = 80
A
B C D E 1
12 × base × height = 80
ABC ~ FDE 2
AB BC 1
= × BC × AD = 80
FD DE 2
9 BC
= 1
16 12 × 16 × AD = 80
2
27 3
BC = = 6 cm. AD = 10 cm.
4 4
8.4 5.6
E
12 G B C
D 2.8
By Angle Bisector theorem:-
B C
We know, AB BD
=
AC CD
BG 2
=
GE 1 8.4 BD
= BD = 4.2
12 2 5.6 2.8
=
r
GE 1 BC = 4.2 + 2.8
GE = 6
si
= 7 cm.
BE = 12 + 6 = 18 24. (*)
21. (c)
an by B d
25. (d) A D
n
ja 10 6 6
R s
X
a th
30°
B C E F
8 8
30°
A ABC DEF
Y C
ty a
B = E
BC x
Sin 30 = = A = D
di M
AB 10
1
C = F
x= 10 = 5
2 A + B + C = 180º
22. (a) A + C = 150º
B A
D + C = 150º
x
26. (c) A
3x x 35°
Q P R S
1
A
A = R = S
3
BPQ ASR 90°
B C
Q = R
In ASR:- A + B + C = 180º
x + 3x + x = 180º.
35º + 90º + C = 180º
5x = 180º
x = 36º C = 55º
3x =108º 90º and 55º
r
48
5 B C
si
29. (d) Q
A
an by In PQR, ACB
PQ QR PR 1
n
= = =
AC AB BC 2
O
PQR ~ ACB
ja
R s
105°
1 PR QR
= =
a th
B C 2 BC AB
1 BC = 10 = AB
BOC = 90º + BAC
2 QR = 5 cm.
(105º – 90º) = BAC
ty a
18 X Y
B C R P
15
2
ar ( ABC) AB 9 3
2 B C
= = =
ar (QRP)
QR 4 2 BC + × y = 24
Also, Also,
AB BC 3 1
= = BC = XY
QR PR 2 2
A
M 25 6.5
=
P of ABC 9.1
P
Perimeter of ABC = 35 cm.
37. (c) a = x b = 2x c = 3x
B C x + 2 x + 3x = 180°
D
We know, 6x = 180°
x = 30°
AP 2
= a = 30°, b = 60°, c = 90°
PD 1
PD = 7cm Right angled
r
35. (d) P 38. (b) X
si
2a
an by 2a
P
n
ja 50°
R s
Q Y Z
a x a R
a th
2 2 XYZ = 50º
PQ = PR = 2a 1
XPZ = 90º + × XYZ
In an is os cales 2
ty a
a = 115º
QX =
2 39. (b)
By Pythagoras theorem in PXQ
PQ² = QX² + PX²
a² 20
PX² = – 4a² 16
4
15a²
4
A
a 15 Radius Tangent
PX =
2
Tangent 2
36. (c) A D (20)² = (16)² +
2
B C E F Tangent = 24 cm.
x 2x
26 P 10
B C E F
8
AB DE 7
=
BC EF
B Q C
x 2x PQ || AC
=
8 EF
BQP ~ BCA
EF = 16 cm.
PQ PB 7
41. (c) = =
X AC AB 10
r
30°
si
PB 7
=
26 10
an by PB =
91
n
5
91
Y ja Z AP = AB – PB = 26 – = 7.8 cm.
R s
O 5
In XYO:-
a th
44. (d) M
1
OX = OY = YZ
2
ty a
60°
YXO = XYO
A B
[Angles opposite to equal sides are equal]
di M
90°
XYO = 30°
42. (d)
A
80° D C
ABCD is a square
AB = AD, AB = AM
50° 50° 130° AD = AM
B C D In ADM:-
A
45. (a) A P l 11 m
C = 110º
a = 180º – 110º [Linear angle]
b = 40º + a [Exterior angle]
= 40º + 70º
= 110º
B C Q R 50. (a) P
SAS Angle includes in 2 equal sides
BC = QR and AB = PQ
46. (a) A D
B A 6
55° 3
85° 40° R 8 Q
r
B C E F AB || QR
D = 180º – 85º – 40º PBA ~ PRQ
si
AB PA 3
= 55º = A = =
RQ PQ 6
AB = DE & AC = DF
ABC DEF
an by
AB 3
=
n
8 6
By SAS. AB = 4 cm.
51. (b) A
ja
47. (d) (x – 6) + (x + 26) + 8x = 180º
R s
By Angle sum Property
45°
a th
10x = 160º 2 2
x = 16º
2x = 32º
ty a
BCA = CAB
AB = BC = x, (say)
F O E 2
2x² = 2 2 =8
x² = 4
x = 2 = BC
52. (c) A
B D C
The point 'O' is called 'Centroid' where all
medians meet.
49. (c) l m
A
55° 55°
110°
B D C
40° a c ABD ACD [SAS]
b 1
BAD = CAD = BAC
2
BAC = 180º – 110º
= 70º
BAD = 35º
36
92 120
B 48 C E 200 F
B C
ABC ~ DEF
AC BC
=
DF EF Side 36
R= =
= 12 3
3 3
120 48
= 58. (d) Let ABC ~ PQR
DF 200 2
ar ABC (AB)² 5 = 5
r
DF = 500 Longest side =
ar PQR (PQ)²
7 7
si
54. (b) Let, equal augles be x°
59. (c) A
2x° + 78 = 180° an by
[Angle sum property]
x+3 x+1
n
x = 51°
55. (c) A ja D E
R s
D
2x–3 2x–1
a th
25° 25°
B C
25° DE || BC
ty a
B C F E AD AE
=
AB AC
di M
A = E, B = F
x3 x 1
AC = DE =
3x 3x – 1
BAC FED (x + 3) (3x – 1) = 3x (x + 1)
3x² + 8x – 3 = 3x² + 3x
or 5x = 3
3
ABC EFD x=
5
56. (c) 60. (a)
A P A
75°
A
6 8
B C D 16 F
B 6 C Q R ABC ~ EDF
ABC PQR AB BC
=
ED DF
A = P = 75° 6 BC
=
BC = QR = 6 8 16
BC = 12 cm.
8
Q R B C
When,
45°
P = A Q R
Q = B QPR = 180 – 90 – 45
PQ = AB = 45°
PQR ABC (By ASA) PQ = QR
[Sides opp. to equal angles]
r
62. (a) A D
QR = 8 cm.
si
ar (ABC) 49 (BC)²
66. (b) ar (DEF) = 144 = (EF)²
an by BC 7
n
=
EF 12
B P C E Q F
ja BC =
7
16.8
R s
ar ABC x² AP
2 12
= = = 9.8 cm.
a th
ar DEF y²
DQ
Side
67. (d) Circumradius =
AP x 3
=
DQ y
ty a
9
= =3 3
P ( ABC) AB 3
di M
B C
B C Q R
ABC = x + 60º = PQR = 85º – 4x
x + 60º = 85º – 4x
5x = 25º
E D
x = 5º
BC = AC = CD
ABC = x + 60º
CAD = CDA = x (say) = 65º
T
KEI TEI 15 S Q 21
(By SSS)
KEI = IKT = x (say)
P
2x + 150º = 360º (complete angle)
A B
x = 105º 18
r
71. (b) A + B + C = 180º We know, PA = AS, DS = DR1 RC = CQ, QB = PB
si
(Angle sum property) DR + DS + SA + AP + PB + QB + CQ + CR =
A = 180º – 110º 15 + 18 + 21 + CD
A= 70º
72. (a) P
an by 2 (DS + AS) + 2 (QB + CQ) = 54 + CD
30 + 42 = 54 + CD
CD = 18
n
76. (b)
P
ja
R s
5
a th
30°
Q R
P PQ O
ty a
tan 30º = =
B QR
Q R
di M
1 5 OP = OR
=
3 QR OPR is isosceles
I is true
QR = 5 3 O is not centroid but an in centre II is false
73. (a) A PQO RQO (SAS) III is true
77. (d)
D
c b A
32°
o
19° C
A
B
B a C
2
Side = (P1 P2 P3 )
3
20 17 83. (a)
= = 170
2 Decagon = 10 sided polygon.
79. (a) A.T.Q,
Let ABC ~ PQR
(n – 2) 15 8
r
ar ABC (AB)² 196 180 = 180
= = n 16 10
ar PQR (PQ)² 625
si
n–2 3
AB 14 =
80. (c)
=
PQ 25
an by n
n = 8
4
n
A n (n – 3)
No. of diagonals =
60° ja 2
R s
85
a th
= = 20
12 2
84. (d)
ty a
B C
BC S R
di M
tan 60º =
AB 4y x
BC
3=
12
AB = 12 3
81. (d) 3x y
P P Q
Let R = x°
6 P = 3x°
A
L
Let, Q = y°
Q R S = 4y°
S
We know,
3
PS = PQ = 3 3 R + P + Q + S = 4x + 5y = 360°
2
5y = 180° and 4x = 180°
2 2
PL = PS = 3 3 = 2 3 y = 36° x = 45°
3 3
R + S = x + 4y = 45° + 144° = 189°
r
(0, – 21)
a1 = 17, b1 = m, c1 = – 102 When, y = 0
si
a2 = 23, b2 = 299, c2 = – 138 57x = 399
17
=
m
23 299
an by
m = 221
(7, 0)
x=7
n
ja ......-------......
R s
a th
ty a
di M
A
CIRCLE
o`Ùk 21
1. Two circles touch each other externally at P. 8 cm f=kT;k okys nks leku o`Ùk ,d nwljs dks bl izdkj
AB is a direct common tangent to the two
izfrPNsfnr djrs gSa fd izR;sd ,d nwljs ds dsaæ ls gksdj
circles, A and B are points of contact, and
PAB = 40º. The measure of ABP is: xqtjrk gSA mHk;fu"B thok dh yackbZ D;k gS\
nks o`r ,d nwljs dks ckár%
P ij Nwrs gSaA
AB nksuksa o`Ùkksa dh SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift 04)
mHkfu"B vuqLi'kZ js[kkA vkSj
gS]B Li'kZ fcanq gSa]PAB
vkSj (a) 83 cm (b) 3 cm
= 40º rks
ABP dk eki D;k gksxk\ (c) 23 cm (d) 43 cm
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 01) 6. A chord of length 42 cm is drawn in a circle
r
(a) 45º (b) 55º having diameter 58 cm. What is the minimum
si
(c) 50º (d) 40º distance of other parallel chord of length 40
2. Radius of a circle is 10 cm. Angle made by cm in the same circle from 42 cm long chord?
an by
chord AB at the centre of this circle is 60
degree. What is the length of this chord?
,d 58 lseh- O;kl okys o`Ùk esa 42 lseh- yEckbZ dh
,d thok [khpha tkrh gSa mlh o`Ùk esa 42 lseh- yEck
n
,d o`Ùk dh f=kT;k 10 lseh- gSa bl o`Ùk ds dsUæ ij okyh thok ls ,d vU; lekukarj thok ftldh yEckbZ
thok AB }kjk cuk;k x;k dks.k 60 fMxzh gSA bl thok 40 lseh- gS] dh U;wure nwjh fdruh gS\
ja
dh yackbZ fdruh gS\
R s
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
a th
(a) 4 cm (b) 1 cm
(a) 40 cm (b) 20 cm
(c) 3 cm (d) 2 cm
(c) 30 cm (d) 10 cm
7. In the given figure, a circle is inscribed in
3. The side of an equilateral triangle is 12 cm.
ty a
o`Ùk dks
Q ij Li'kZ djrh gSA ;fnPQ = 24 lseh vkSj F
8. The length of the tangent to a circle from a 12. How many circles can be drawn that pass(es)
point P is 15 cm. Point P is 17 cm away from through two fixed points?
the centre. What is the radius of the circle? ,sls fdrus o`Ùk [khaps tk ldrs gSa tks nks fuf'pr fcanqv
,d fcanq P ls ,d o`Ùk dh Li'kZ js[kk dh yackbZ 15 ls gksdj xqtjsa\
lseh- gSA fcUnq
P dsUæ ls17 cm dh nwjh ij gSA o`Ùk SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
(a) Infinite (b) Only two
dh f=kT;k dh eki Kkr dhft,A
(c) One or two (d) Only one
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
13. A chord of length 40 cm is drawn in a circle
(a) 7 cm (b) 9 cm having diameter 50 cm. What is the minimum
(c) 8 cm (d) 4 cm distance of other parallel chord of length 30
9. Select the correct option with respect to the cm in the same circle from 40 cm long chord?
given statement. Two tangents are drawn at ,d 50 lseh- O;kl okys o`Ùk esa 40 lseh- yEckbZ dh ,d
the end of the diameter of a circle. thok [khpha tkrh gSA mlh o`Ùk esa 40 lseh- yEckbZ ok
fn, x, dFku ds lanHkZ esa lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A ,d v U; lekukarj thok ftldh yEckbZ 30 lseh- gS] dh
,d o`Ùk ds O;kl ds fljksa (var) ij nks Li'kZ js[kk,¡ U;wure nwjh fdruh gS\
[khaph tkrh gSaA
r
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 01) (a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm
si
(a) They intersect each other. (c) 5 cm (d) 20 cm
14. A tangent is drawn from a point M to a circle,
os ,d nwljs dks izfrPNsn djrh gSaA
an by which meets the circle at T such that MT =
(b) They pass through origin. 12 cm. A secant MAB intersects the circle at
n
os mXne fcanq ls xqtjrh gSaA points A and B. If MA = 8 cm, what is the
(c) They are parallel to each other. length (in cm) of the chord AB?
ja
os ,d nwljs ds lekukarj gksrh gSA ,d o`Ùk ij fcanqM ls ,d Li'kZ js[kk [khaph tkrh gS]
R s
(d) They are perpendicular to each other. tks o`Ùk dks
T ij bl izdkj Li'kZ djrh gS] rkfd MT
a th
os ,d nwljs ds yacor gksrh gSaA = 12 cm gksA ,d Nsnd js[kk MAB o`Ùk dks fcanq
A
10. Let O be the center of a circle and P be a point vkSjB ij izfrPNsn djrh gSA ;fnMA = 8 cm gS] rks
outside the circle. If PAB is a secant of the thok AB dh yackbZ (lseh- esa) D;k gS\
ty a
circle which cuts the circle at A and B and SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
PT is the tangent drawn from P, then find the (a) 16 (b) 10
di M
16. The number of parallel tangents of a circle 20. If two circles do not touch or intersect each
with a given tangent is: other and one does not lie inside the other,
then find the number of common tangents.
o`Ùk ds fdlh fn, x, Li'kZjs[kk ds lekarj Li'kZ js[kkvksa
dh la[;k fdruh gksrh gS\ ;fn nks o`Ùk ,d nwljs dks Li'kZ ;k izfrPNsn ugha djrs
gSa vkSj ,d nwljs ds vanj ugha gS] rks mHk;fu"B L
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
js[kkvksa dh la[;k Kkr dhft,A
(a) 1 (b) 2
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
(c) 3 (d) 4
(a) 5 (b) 4
17. A circle is inscribed in a ABC having sides
(c) 2 (d) 3
AB = 16 cm, BC = 20 cm and AC = 24 cm,
and side AB, BC and AC touches circle at D, 21. The radius of a circle is 5 cm. Calculate the
E and F, respectively. The measure of AD is: length of a tangent drawn to this circle from
a point at a distance of 10 cm from its centre.
,d o`Ùk DABC esa var£ufgr gS vkSj f=kHkqt dh Hkqtk,¡
Ab = 16 cm, BC= 20 cm vkSjAC = 24 cm gSa]
,d o`Ùk dh f=kT;k 5 lseh gSA bl o`Ùk ds dasæ ls 10
lseh dh nwjh ij fLFkr ,d fcanq ls bl ij [khaph xbZ
r
rFkk HkqtkAB,BC vkSjAC o`Ùk dks Øe'k%
D, E vkSj
F ij Li'kZ djrh gSaA
AD dk eki D;k gksxk\
Li'kZ js[kk dh yackbZ dh x.kuk djsaA
si
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
(a) 10 cm
an by (b) 20 cm
(a) 55 cm
(c) 5 cm
(b) 52 cm
(d) 53 cm
n
(c) 6 cm (d) 14 cm
22. There are two circles which touch each other
18. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle externally. The radius of the first circle with
ja
and AOC = 140º find ABC. centre O is 17 cm and radius of the second
R s
nh xbZ vkÑfr esa]
O o`Ùk dk dsUæ vkSj
AOC = 140º circle with centre A is 7 cm. BC is a direct
a th
O
dh mHk;fu"B vuqLi'kZ js[kk gS] B vkSj
tgk¡ C Øe'k%
O vkSjA dsUæksa okys o`Ùkksa ij flFkrBC fcanq
dh gSa
A C
yackbZ fdruh gS\
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
B
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 04) (a) 2 188 cm (b) 2 119 cm
If P be point on the circle such that AOP = the length of the tangent segment PT.
110º, then the measure of OBP is: ;fn PT ,d o`Ùk ds fcUnq
T ij ,d Li'kZ js[kk gS]
AB, dsUæO okys o`Ùk dk O;kl gSAP;fno`Ùk ij ,d vkSj bl o`Ùk dk dsUæ
O gS vkSjOP = 17 cm rFkk
fcanq gS vkSj
AOP = 110º gS] rksOBP dk eki OT = 8 cm gS] rks Li'kZjs[kk [kaM (lsxesaV)
PT dh
Kkr dhft,A yackbZ Kkr dhft,A
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 01) SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(a) 50º (b) 65º (a) 13 cm (b) 14 cm
(c) 60º (d) 55º (c) 16 cm (d) 15 cm
24. In a circle of radius 3 cm, two chords of length ;fn 18 lseh vksj 8 lseh f=kT;k okys nks o`Ùk cká :i
2 cm and 3 cm lie on the same side of a ls Li'kZ djrs gSa] rks ,d mHk;fu"B vuqLi'kZ js[kk d
diameter. What is the perpendicular distance
yackbZ Kkr dhft,A
between the two chords?
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
3 lseh- f=kT;k okys ,d o`Ùk esa] 2 lseh vkSj 3 lseh (a) 24 cm (b) 14 cm
yackbZ dh nks thok,¡ ,d O;kl ds ,d gh vksj fLFkr gSaA(c) 16 cm (d) 12 cm
nksuksa thokvksa ds chp yacor nwjh D;k gS\ 29. The diameters of two circles are 12 cm and
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 02) 20 cm, respectively and the distance between
their centres is 16 cm. Find the number of
4 3–3 2 4 2–3 3 common tangents to the circles.
(a)
2
cm (b)
2
cm nks o`Ùkksa ds O;kl Øe'k% 12 lseh vkSj 20 lseh gSa
muds dsUæksa dh chp dh nwjh 16 lseh gSA o`Ùkksa ij m
4 2–3 3 4 2–3 3 Li'kZ js[kkvksa dh la[;k Kkr dhft,A
(c) cm (d) cm
3 4 SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
(a) 2 (b) 3
r
25. The perpendicular distance between the centre
of a circle and the longest chord of that circle (c) 1 (d) 4
si
is _______. 30. In the given figure, if PA and PB are tangents
to the circle with centre O such that APB
,d o`Ùk ds dsUæ vkSj ml o`Ùk dh lcls yach thok dh
an by = 54º, then OBA = _____.
yacor nwjh______ gSA nh xbZ vkÑfr esa] ;fnPA vkSjPB dsUæ O okys o`Ùk
n
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 03) ij bl izdkj Li'kZ gSa fdAPB = 54º, rksOBA =
(a) 1 (b) 0 ___A
ja
R s
(c) 2 (d) A
26. Radius of a circle is 5 cm. Length of chord
a th
B
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(a) 4 cm (b) 5 cm
(a) 27º (b) 40º
(c) 6 cm (d) 8 cm (c) 30º (d) 35º
27. If C1, C2 be the centres of two circles and r1,r2 31. In the figure, XYZ is a secant and ZT is a
be the respective radii such that the distance tangent to the circle at T. If TZ = 12 cm and
between the centres is equal to the sum of YZ = 8cm, then find the length of XY.
the radii of the two circles, find the number vkÑfr esa]XYZ ,d Nsnd js[kk gS vkSj ZT, fcanqT
of common tangents.
ij o`Ùk dh Li'kZ js[kk gSATZ;fn= 12cm vkSjYZ =
;fn C1, C2 nks o`Ùkksa ds dsUæ rgksa1
, r2 vkSj
lacaf/r 8 cm gS] rksXY dh yackbZ Kkr dhft,A
f=kT;k,¡ bl izdkj gksa fd dsUæksa ds chp dh nwjh nks
A
32. The length of the chord of a circle is 24 cm, (c) The diameter of a circle is the longest
and the perpendicular distance between the chord of a circle.
centre and the chord is 5 cm. The radius of o`Ùk dk O;kl o`Ùk dh lcls yach thok gksrh gSA
the circle is: (d) The perpendicular distance from the centre
,d o`Ùk dh thok dh yackbZ 24 lseh gS] vkSj dsaæ vkSj of a circle increases when the length of a
chord increases.
thok ds chp dh yacor nwjh 5 lseh gSA o`Ùk dh f=kT;k
thok dh yackbZ c<+us ij o`Ùk ds dsaæ ls yacor nw
gS%
c<+ tkrh gSA
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 02) 34. In the given figure, ABC = 81º and ACB =
(a) 10 cm (b) 13 cm 9º. What is the value of BDC ?
(c) 12 cm (d) 24 cm nh xbZ vkÑfr esaABC = 81º vkSjACB = 9º gS
33. Select the INCORRECT statement with respect rksBDC dk eku D;k gS\
to the properties of a circle. D
,d o`Ùk ds xq.kksa ds laca/ esa xyr dFku dk p;u djsaA
r
A
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
si
(a) Two tangents drawn at the end of the
diameter of a circle are parallel.
an by
,d o`Ùk ds O;kl ds var esa •haph xbZ nks Li'kZ
js•k,¡ lekukarj gksrh gSaA
81º 9º
n
B C
(b) The radius drawn perpendicular to a chord
ja
bisects the chord.
R s
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
fdlh thok ij yac •haph xbZ f=kT;k thok dks
a th
ANSWER KEY
1.(c) 2.(d) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(a) 6.(b) 7.(d) 8.(c) 9.(c) 10.(c)
11.(c) 12.(a) 13.(c) 14.(b) 15.(a) 16.(a) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(d) 20.(c)
21.(d) 22.(b) 23.(d) 24.(b) 25.(b) 26.(a) 27.(d) 28.(a) 29.(b) 30.(a)
A
SOLUTIONS
1. (c) A B OQP = 90° (Radius Tangent)
OP² = 10² + 24²
= 100 + 576
= 676
P OP = 26
5. (a) C
r
APB = 90°
APB + ABP + BAP = 180 (Angle sum
si
property)
D
PBA = 50°
an by AB = 8 cm.
2. (d) AO = 4 cm.
n
AC = 8 cm.
0
In AOC
10 ja 10
OC² = 8² – 4²
R s
60°
= 64 – 16 = 48
a th
A B OC = 43
CD = 2.OC = 83
OAB = OBA = 60°
[Angeles opp. to equal sides]
ty a
6. (b)
AOB is an equilateral triangle
AB = 10
di M
3. (b) O
A B
12 12
O1
C D
E O11 F
12
58
OC = = 29 cm
2
Side
r= 42
3 O1 C = 21cm.
A
2
12
= =4 3
3 OO1 = 29² – 21²
4. (a) l 001 = 20
OE = 29 cm.
24
10 O11 E = 20 cm.
7. (d) (2)
11. (c) (1)
R
F r1 r2
E c1 c2
(3)
P D Q
PQ = 15 Total 3 tavgents
QR = 11 12. (a)
RP = 13
PQ + QR + RP = PD + PF + FR + RE + EQ + DQ
15 + 11 + 13 = 2PD + 2RE + 2EQ
39 = 2PD + 2 (RE + EQ)
r
2PD = 39 – 22
si
PD = 8.5
Q
8. (c) an by There can be infinite circle drawn from 2 fixed
15
points. (with different radii)
n
P
O 17 13. (c)
ja
R s
a th
OQP = 90° O
A B
OQ² = 17² – 15² = (17 – 15) (17 + 15) 1
O
OQ = 8 C D
ty a
11
9. (c) P Q O
E F
di M
O1 O11 = 20 – 15
OAP = OBQ = 90°
O1 O11 = 5 cm.
PA||BQ
14. (b) T
10. (c) T 12
A
M
P 8
O 3 A
A B
9
B MT² = MA × MB
We know,
144 = 8 × (8 + AB)
PT² = PA × PB
= 3 × 12 18 = 8 + AB
PT = 6 AB = 10
110°
A B
O
AP = AB – PB Q
= 20 – 12 = 8 AOP = 110°
AP × PB = CP × PD 110
AQP = = 55
8 × 12 = 8 × PD 2
r
PD = 12 cm. (Angle formed at circumference is half the
16. (a) There will always be only one tangent parallel angle at centre)
si
to a given tangent. Now,
17. (a) an by A AQP = ABP = 55°
(Angle formed by same are.)
n
20. (b)
16 D F 24
ja
R s
a th
Q
AB + BC + AC = AD + AF + FC + EC + BE + DB 21. (d)
di M
17 7
A C
O A
1 BC = 2 r1 r2
ABC = 180 – AOC
2
= 180 – 70 = 2 7 17
= 110° = 2 119
8 r1 r2
P c1 c2
O 17
(2) (3)
OTP = 90°
PT² = 17² – 8² c1 c2 = r1 + r2
= 9 × 25 Common tangents = 3
PT = 225 28. (a) B C
= 15
24. (b) 18 8
r
O
A
si
B
1
O
C an by D BC = 2 r1 r2
E F = 2 18 8
n
11 =2×3×4
O
BC = 24
ja
O1 O11 = r² – O11 E² – r² – O1 C²
R s
29. (b)
a th
9
= 9 –1 – 9 – 6 10
4
3 3
= 2 2–
ty a
2
4 2–3 3 No. of common tangents = 3
di M
2
25. (b) 30. (a) A
Zero
(The biggest chords of the circle is the diameter) O
Now the perpendicular distance between the
biggest chord diameter and the centre of the
circle is 0. 54°
Since the chord passes through the centre. P
B
26. (a) We can directly say that:-
1
OBA = APB
A
2
O
A B
1
= 54 = 27
2
C D 'OR'
O1
AOB = OBA [OA = OB]
O O1 = OC² – O1 C²
180 – 126
= 5² – 3² OBA = = 27
2
O O1 = 4
31. (d) 24
AC = = 12
X 2
x OC = 5
Y OA² = 12² + 5²
8 = 144 + 25 = 169 = 13
33. (d) Is incorrect
Z
T 12 because, length of chord decreases with
ZT² = (zy) × (ZX) increase in perpendicular distance
12² = 8 × (8 + x) 34. (b) In ABC
r
32. (b)
si
O
an by
5
n
A B
12 C
ja
R s
a th
......-------......
ty a
di M
A
MENSURATION-2D
22
{ks=kfefr&
2D
1. The circumference of the two circles is 198 6. In the given figure, a square ABCD is inscribed
cm and 352 cm respectively. What is the in a quadrant APCQ. If AB = 16 cm, find the
difference between their radii? area of the shaded region (take = 3.14)
nks o`Ùkksa dh ifjf/ Øe'k% 198 ls-eh- rFkk 352 ls-eh-
correct to two places of decimal.
gSA mudh f=kT;kvksa ds eè; vUrj D;k gS\ nh xbZ vkÑfr esa] ,d prqFkkZa'k
APCQ eas ,d oxZABCD
r
2. The area of a triangle is 480 cm² and the ratio
si
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
of its sides is 10 : 24 : 26. What is the
perimeter of the triangle? (a) 155.98 cm² (b) 179.68 cm²
an by
,d f=kHkqt dk {ks=kiQy 4802 ls-eh-
gS rFkk bldh Hkqtkvksa
7.
(c) 163.85 cm² (d) 145.92 cm²
If the side of an equilateral triangle is 20 cm,
dk vuqikr 10 % 24 % 26 gSA f=kHkqt dk ifjeki D;k gS\ then what is its area?
n
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 04) ;fn ,d leckgq f=kHkqt dh Hkqtk 20 ls-eh- gS] rks mldk
(a) 120 cm ja (b) 30 cm {ks=kiQYk D;k gS\
R s
(c) 150 cm (d) 60 cm SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
a th
3. In the side of an equilateral triangle is 24 cm, (a) 1103 cm² (b) 1253 cm²
then what is its area? (c) 2003 cm² (d) 1003 cm²
;fn ,d leckgq f=kHkqt dh Hkqtk 24 ls-eh- gS] rks mldk
8. The area of a sector of a circle is 66cm2 and
ty a
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 9 : 4
(c) 3 : 2 (d) 27 : 8 intersecting region?
5. How far will the tip of a 2cm-long minute hand nks ,dleku o`Ùk ftuesa ls izR;sd dh f=kT;k 30 ls-eh-
of a clock move in 45 minutes? gS] ,d nwljs dks bl izdkj izfrPNsn djrs gSa fd muesa
?kM+h dh 2 ls-eh- yach feuV dh lqb dh (tip)
uksd ls izR;sd dh ifjf/ nwlj ds dsUnz ls gksdj xqtjrh gSA
}kjk 45 feuV esa fdruh nwjh r; dh tk,xh\ izfrPNsfnr {ks=k dk {ks=kiQYk D;k gS\
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 03) SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(a) cm (b) 3 cm (a) 400 – 2503 cm² (b) 300 – 1503 cm²
(c) 4 cm (d) 2 cm (c) 500 – 3503 cm² (d) 600 – 4503 cm²
10. The area of a sector of a circle is 308cm², 15. A wire is in the form of square with side 11
with the central angle measuring 45º. The cm. It is bent to form a circle. What is the
radius of the circle is: radius of the circle?
,d o`Ùk ds f=kT;[kaM dk {ks=kiQy
308 cm² gS] rFkk ,d rkj 11 ls-eh- Hkqtk okys oxZ ds vkdkj esa gSA bls
bldk dsUnzh; dks.k
45º gSA o`Ùk dh f=kT;k D;k gksxh\ ,d o`Ùk cukus ds fy, eksM+k tkrk gSA o`Ùk dh f=k
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
D;k gS\
(a) 14 cm (b) 21 cm
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(c) 7 cm (d) 28 cm
11. Three circles of radius 6 cm are kept touching (a) 11 cm (b) 5 cm
each other. The string is tightly tied around (c) 9 cm (d) 7 cm
these three circles. What is the length of the
16. Find the area of the sector of a circle with
string?
radius 4 cm and angle 30º.
6 cm f=kT;k okys rhu o`Ùkksa dks vkil esa Li'kZ djrs
fdlh o`Ùk ds ,sls f=kT;[kaM dk {ks=kiQy Kkr djsa ftld
gq, j[kk x;k gSA bu rhu o`Ùkksa ds pkjksa vksj ,d /kxk
f=kT;k 4 ls-eh- vkSj dks.k
30º gSA
dldj ck¡/k x;k gSA /kxs dh yEckbZ D;k gS\
r
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 02) SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
si
(a) 36 + 12 cm (b) 36 + 18 cm (a) 7.186 cm² (b) 6.186 cm²
12.
(c) 24 + 36 cm an by (d) 36 + 20 cm
If the ratio of area of two similar triangles 17.
(c) 4.186 cm² (d) 5.186 cm²
The height of an equilateral triangle is 73
n
is 3 : 2 then what is the ratio of the cm. What is the area of this equilateral
corresponding sides of the two triangles? triangle?
;fn nks le:i f=kHkqtksa ds {ks=kiQy dk 3
ja vuqikr
: 2
,d leckgq f=kHkqt dh Å¡pkbZ
73 ls-eh- gSA bl leckgq
R s
gS] rks nkuksa f=kHkqtksa dh laxr Hkqtkvksa dk vuqikr D;k gS\
f=kHkqt dk {ks=kiQy D;k gS\
a th
these three circles. What is the length of the radius 10 metres and angle of 90 degrees at
string? the centre.
10 ehVj f=kT;k vkSj dsUnz esa 90 fMxzh ds dks.k
4 ls-eh- f=kT;k okys rhu o`Ùkksa dks vkil esa Li'kZ djrs
o`Ùk ds ,d f=kT;[kaM ds {ks=kiQy dh x.kuk dhft,A
gq, j[kk x;k gSA bu rhu o`Ùkksa ds pkjksa vksj ,d /kxk
dldj ck¡/k x;k gSA /kxs dh yEckbZ D;k gS\ SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 04) (a) 79.3 m² (b) 79.5 m²
(a) 24 + 8p cm (b) 24p + 16 cm (c) 78.5 m² (d) 75 m²
(c) 32 + 16p cm (d) 24 + 18p cm 19. The ratio of the outer and the inner
14. If the length of certain rectangle is decreased circumference of a circular path is 5 : 4. If
by 4 cm and breadth is increased by 2 cm, it
A
20. The diagonal of the square is 82 cm. Find 26. If the side of an equilateral triangle is 8cm,
the diagonal of another square whose area is then find the area of the triangle (correct to
triple that of the first square. two decimal places).
oxZ dk fod.kZ82 cm gSA ,d nwljs ,sls oxZ dk ;fn ,d leckgq f=kHkqt dh Hkqtk
8 cm gS] rks f=kHkqt
fod.kZ Kkr dhft, ftldk {ks=kiQy igys oxZ ds {ks=kiQy dk {ks=kiQy (nks n'keyo LFkkuksa rd iw.kkZafdr)
dk frxquk gSA dhft,A
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 04) SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(a) 85 cm (b) 83 cm (a) 27.17 cm² (b) 27.27 cm²
(c) 82 cm (d) 86 cm (c) 27.71 cm² (d) 27.72 cm²
21. The height of an equilateral triangle is 93 27. The radius of a circle with centre at O is 6 cm
cm. What is the area of this equilateral and the central angle of a sector is 40º. Find
triangle? the area of the sector.
,d leckgq f=kHkqt dh Å¡pkbZ
93 ls-eh- gSA bldk leckgq dsUnzO okys ,d o`Ùk dh f=kT;k 6 cm gS vkSj ,d
f=kHkqt dk {ks=kiQy D;k gS\ f=kT;[kaM dk dsUnzh;40º
dks.k
gSA f=kT;[kaM dk {ks=kiQ
Kkr dhft,A
r
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
(a) 923 cm² (b) 673 cm² SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
si
(c) 493 cm² (d) 813 cm² (a) 6 cm² (b) 5 cm²
(c) 4 cm² (d) 8 cm²
22. an by
If the circumference of a circle is 220 cm,
then what is its radius? 28. Three circles of radius 7 cm are kept touching
each other. The string is tightly tied around
n
;fn ,d o`Ùk dh ifjfèk 220 ls-eh- gS] rks mldh f=kT;k
these three circles. What is the length of the
D;k gS\ string?
ja
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 01) 7 ls-eh- f=kT;k okys rhu o`Ùkksa dks vkil esa Li'kZ d
R s
(a) 26 cm (b) 25 cm gq, j[kk x;k gSA bu rhu o`Ùkksa ds pkjksa vksj ,d /k
a th
(c) 35 cm (d) 40 cm
dldj ck¡/k x;k gSA /kxs dh yEckbZ D;k gS\
23. The perimeter of a square is 124 metres. What
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
is its area?
(a) 42 + 7p cm (b) 21p + 14 cm
,d oxZ dk ifjeki 124 ehVj gSA mldk {ks=kiQy Kkr
ty a
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 02) cm and 396 cm respectively. What is the
(a) 448 m² (b) 884 m² difference between their radii?
(c) 764 m² (d) 961 m² nks o`Ùkksa dh ifjf/ Øe'k% 264 ls-eh- rFkk 396 ls-e
24. The circumference of the two circles is 308 gSA mudh f=kT;kvksa ds eè; vUrj D;k gS\
cm and 440 cm respectively. What is the SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
difference between their radii?
(a) 25 cm (b) 32 cm
nks o`Ùkksa dh ifjf/ Øe'k% 308 ls-eh- rFkk 440 ls-eh-
(c) 16 cm (d) 21 cm
gSA mudh f=kT;kvksa ds eè; vUrj D;k gS\ 30. The area of a sector of a circle is 88 sq. cm.,
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 02) and the angle of the sector is 45º. Find the
(a) 21 cm (b) 49 cm 22
radius of the circle Use =
A
(c) 35 cm (d) 14 cm
7
25. The length of the altitude of an equilateral
triangle is 63 m. The perimeter of the
,d o`Ùk dh f=kT;[kaM dk {ks=kiQy 88 oxZ lss-eh-
equilateral triangle (in m) is: vkSj f=kT;[kaM dks.k
45º gSA o`Ùk dh f=kT;k Kkr dhft,
,d leckgq f=kHkqt dh Å¡pkbZ ('kh"kZyac)
63 m gSA 22
= dk iz;ksx dhft,
leckgq f=kHkqt dk ifjeki
(m esa
) D;k gS\ 7
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 03) SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(a) 122 (b) 362 (a) 311 cm (b) 414 cm
(c) 36 (d) 243 (c) 613 cm (d) 514 cm
31. The minute hand of a clock is 20 cm long. 35. The circumference of the two circles is 110
Find the area on the face of the clock swept cm and 330 cm respectively. What is the
by the minute hand between 8 a.m. and 8:45 difference between their radii?
a.m.
nks o`Ùkksa dh ifjf/ Øe'k% 110 ls-eh- rFkk 330 ls-eh
,d ?kM+h dh feuV dh lqbZ20 cm yach gSA lqcg8 gSA mudh f=kT;kvksa ds eè; vUrj D;k gS\
a.m. ls lqcg 8:45 a.m. ds chp feuV dh lqbZ }kjk SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
?kwes x, ?kM+h ds i`"B dk {ks=kiQy Kkr dhft,A
(a) 70 cm (b) 15 cm
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 01) (c) 46 cm (d) 35 cm
6600 6600 36. The hour hand moves through 4 hours and
(a) cm2 (b) cm 2 has a length of 6 cm. Find the area (in cm²,
7 9
rounded off to two decimal places) of the
sector covered by the hour hand.
6600 6600
(c) cm2 (d) cm 2
18 14 ?kaVs dh lqbZ 4 ?kaVs pyrh gS vkSj bldh yackbZ 6 l
r
32. The area of a triangle is 96 cm² and the ratio
gSA ?kaVs dh lqbZ ls doj fd, tkus okys f=kT;[kaM
si
of its sides is 6 : 8 : 10. What is the perimeter {ks=kiQy (ls-eh
2
esa n'keyo ds nks LFkkuksa rd iw.kkZafd
of the triangle? Kkr dhft,A
an by
,d f=kHkqt dk {ks=kiQy 962ls-eh-
gS rFkk bldh Hkqtkvksa SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
n
dk vuqikr 6 % 8 % 10 gSA f=kHkqt dk ifjeki D;k gS\ (a) 32.69 (b) 30.67
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 02) 38. A horse is grazing in a field. It is tied to a
pole with a rope of length 6 m. The horse
(a) 120 metres (b) 210 metres moves from point A to point B making an arch
(c) 140 metres (d) 70 metres with an angle of 70°. Find the area of the
sector grazed by the horse.
A
39. A rectangular park is 120 m long and 104 m 41. The difference between the lengths of two
wide. A 1-m wide path runs along the boundary parallel sides of a trapezium is 12 cm. The
of the park, remaining completely inside the perpendicular distance between these two
park area. Thus, the outside edges of the path parallel sides is 60 cm. If the area of the
run along the boundary wall of the park. The trapezium is 1380 cm², then find the length
inside edges of the path are marked with a (in cm) of each parallel side.
white line of negligible thickness. If it costs ,d leyac dh nks lekukarj Hkqtkvksa dh yEckbZ ds chp
Rs. 2.50 to mark each metre with the white dk varj 12 cm. gSA bu nksuksa lekukarj Hkqtkvksa ds
line, then how much would it cost (in Rs.) to dh yacor nwjh60 cm. gSA ;fn leyac dk {ks=kiQy
1380
fully mark the inside edges of the path? cm² gS] rks izR;sd lekarj Hkqtk dh yackbZ
(cm. esa
) Kkr
,d vk;rkdkj ikdZ 120 m yack vkSj 104m pkSM+k dhft,A
gSA ikdZ dh lhek ds lkFk&lkFk ,d m 1&
pkSM+k jkLrk SSC CGL TIER- II 06/03/2023
pyrk gS] tks ikdZ ds {ks=k ds iwjh rjg ls Hkhrj jgrk (a) 31, 19
gSA bl çdkj] jkLrs ds ckgjh fdukjs] ikdZ dh pkjnhokjh (b) 24, 12
ds lkFk pyrs gSaA jkLrs ds vanj ds fdukjksa dks ux.;(c) 27, 15
r
ek VkbZ dh ,d liQsn js•k iksrh tkuh gSA ;fn çR;sd (d) 29, 17
si
ehVj ij liQsn js•k iksrus ijRs. 2.50 dk •pZ vkrk 42. In a trapezium ABCD, AB and DC are parallel
to each other with a perpendicular distance of
gS] rks jkLrs ds vanj ds fdukjksa dks iwjh rjg ls iksrus
an by
ds fy, fdruk •pZ vk,xk ( Rs. esa)\
8 m between them. Also, (AD) = (BC) = 10 m,
and (AB) = 15 m < (DC). What is the perimeter
n
SSC CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023 (in m) of the trapezium ABCD?
(a) 1090 (b) 1080
,d leyac prqHkqZtABCD esa]AB vkSjDC ,d nwljs ds
(c) 1120 ja (d) 1100
lekukarj gSa rFkk muds chp dh yacor8nwjhm gSA lkFk
R s
40. What is the perimeter of the square inscribed
in a circle of radius 5 cm?
gh] (AD) = (BC) = 10 m, vkSj (AB) = 15 m < (DC)
a th
(c) 62
(c) 30 2 cm (d) 40 2 cm (d) 58
ANSWER KEY
1.(d) 2.(a) 3.(d) 4.(a) 5.(b) 6.(d) 7.(d) 8.(d) 9.(d) 10.(d)
11.(a) 12.(d) 13.(a) 14.(c) 15.(d) 16.(c) 17.(c) 18.(c) 19.(c) 20.(d)
A
21.(d) 22.(c) 23.(d) 24.(a) 25.(c) 26.(c) 27.(c) 28.(c) 29.(d) 30.(b)
31.(a) 32.(a) 33.(c) 34.(d) 35.(d) 36.(c) 37.(c) 38.(a) 39.(d) 40.(a)
41.(d) 42.(c)
SOLUTIONS
1. (d) Given,
2 (r1 – r2) = 352 – 198 6. (d) Q
49
=
2
r
= 24.5 A P
16 B
si
2 (a) From ratio of sides it is clear that the triangle
is a right angle triangle having triplets in the
1
an by
ratio (10 : 24 : 26)
Radius of quadrant = diagonal of square
n
Area = × 10x × 24x r = 16 2
2
Area of shaded region = (Area of quadrant –
ja
480 = 120x²
R s
Area of square)
x=2
a th
3. (d) = 3 1 22
(side)² (16)² 2 – 1
4 4 7
di M
3 4
= 24 24
4 = 256 = 145.92 cm²
7
= 144 3 cm²
3
2
7. (d) Area = (side)²
4
4. (a)
Area 1
=
3 2
=
3
Area 2 2
2 =
3
20 20
4
5. (b) Angle formed in 45 minutes
A
45 = 100 3 cm²
360 = 270
60
8. (d) r² = 66
Q 360
Area = r²
360
1 22
270 22 r² 66
= 22 6 7
360 7
= 3 r = 3 14 cm
c 1
ATQ,
D r O
(L – 4) = (B + 2)
L–B=6 .........(1)
B Also,
OA = O1 A = O O1
LB = (L – 4) (B + 2)
AOD1 is an equilateral
LB = LB – 4B + 2L – 8
AOO1 = 60º
After solving (i) and (ii)
AOB = 120º
4B – 2L = – 8 ........(2)
Now,
L + B = 10
AC = OA² – OC² = 30² – 15² = 900 – 225
r
2 (L + B) = 2(10) = 20 cm.
AC = 675 = 15 3 15. (d) ATQ,
si
AB = 30 3 4 × 11 = 22r
1
an by
ar. AO BA = ar. secta OAO B – ar of AOB 1
4 11 = 2
22
r
n
120 1 7
= 30² – 30 3 15
360 2
r = 7 cm.
ja
R s
= (300 – 225 3 ) cm² Q
16. (c) Area = r²
a th
Now, 360
ar. of shaded region = 2 × ar. AO1 BA 30 22
= 44
= (600 – 450 3 ) cm² 360 7
ty a
45 21
r² = 308
360
3
17. (c) height = side
308 8 2
r² = 7
22
r = 28 cm 7 3 2
side =
3
11. (a) length of string = 2r + n (2r)
= (12 + 36) cm = 14 cm.
1 2 3
Area = 14 14
area 1 ( 3) (3) 4 4
A
12 (d) = = 1
are 2 ( 2)
(2) 4
= 49 3 cm²
1
Side of 1 3 4 Q
=
18. (c) Area = r²
Side of 2 2 360
90 22
13. (a) Lenth of string = 2hr + 2nr. = 10 10
360 7
= (8 + 24) cm = 78.5 m²
6 3
= 3 2
3
R = 36 m.
r 3
26. (c) Area = 8 8 = 16 3
4
= 16 × 1.732
= 27.71 cm²
2R 5 40
= 27. (c) Area = (6)²
2r 4 360
= 4 cm²
r
R 5
= 28. (c) length of string = 2r + 2nr
si
r 4
(14 + 42) cm.
1 50
4 200 mtr. an by 29. (d) 2(R – r) = 396 – 264
132 7
n
Diagonal 8 2 (R – r) =
20. (d) Side = = =8 22 2
2 2
ATQ, ja = 21 cm.
R s
3 × 8 × 8 = a² 45
30. (b) r² = 88
a th
a=8 3 360
d = 2 a
88 8 7
r² =
Diagonal = 8 6 cm. 22
ty a
3 r = 4 14 cm.
di M
23. (d) Area = 32. (a) Given ratio of sides, form a triplet of right
4
angle triangle.
2
124
=
= 961 cm²
1
4 × 6x × 8x = 96
2
24. (a) 2 (R – r) = 440 – 308 x² = 4
132 7 x=2
=
22 2 Perimeter = (6 + 8 + 10) × 2
(R – r) = 21 cm. = 48 cm.
44 360 7
r= = 140 mtr.
2 22 18
5
3 3
34. (d) Area (side)² = 16 16 = 64 3 cm²
4 4
35. (d) 2 (r1 – r2) = 330 – 110 = 220
(r1 – r2) = 35 cm.
d = 5 + 5 = 10
4
36. (c) Angle in 4 hrs. = × 360 = 120. d
12 8= =5 2
r
2
Area of sector = 120 22 6 6 = 37.71 cm²
si
Perimeter = 20 2
360 7
41. (d)
37. (c)
D
an by E D C
n
C
60
12 ja
R s
A B
E
a th
Given,
A B
28 AB – CD = 12, DE = 60 .........(1)
Area of parallelogram = ar. of triangle 1
1 Area = × DE (DC + AB)
ty a
70°
10
B
6 8 8
70 22
A
Area of sector = 6 6 = 22 m²
360 7
D P 15 Q 6 C
39. (d) BQ = AP = 8
AD = BD = 10
By pythagorean triplet:-
104
QC = DP = 6
DC = 6 + 6 + 15 = 27
120
Perimeter of ABCD = 15 + 10 + 27 + 10 = 62
MENSURATION-3D
23
{ks=kfefr&
3D
1. How many spherical lead shots each of ,d 13 ls-eh- f=kT;k okys Bksl /kfRod xksys dks fi?kykdj
diameter 8.4 cm can be obtained from a ,d 'kadq dk vkdkj fn;k tkrk gS ftlds vk/kj ij
rectangular solid of lead with dimension 88
O;kl 13 ls-eh- gSA 'kadq dh Å¡pkbZ D;k gS\
22 SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
cm, 63 cm, 42 cm take = ?
7
(a) 246 cm (b) 152 cm
88 cm, 63 cm, 42 cm dh foekvkssa okys lhls ds (c) 174 cm (d) 208 cm
,d vk;rkdkj Bksl ls 8.4 cm O;kl ds lhls ds fdrus 5. What is the edge of a cube whose volume is
r
equal to the sum of the volumes of the cubes
22
si
xksykdkj 'kkWV izkIr fd, tk ldrs gSa\
= ysa
of edge 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm?
7
an by ml ?ku dh dksj Kkr dhft, ftldk vk;ru 6 ls-eh-]
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 01) 8 ls-eh- vkSj 10 ls-eh- dksj okys ?kuksa ds vk;ruksa
;ksxiQy ds cjkcj gSA
n
(a) 920 (b) 750
(c) 650 (d) 860 SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
ja
R s
2. A hemisphere of lead of radius 4 cm is cast (a) 5 cm (b) 3 cm
into a right circular cone of height 72 cm. (c) 6 cm (d) 12 cm
a th
What is the radius of the base of the cone? 6. Which of the following two will provide more
4 cm f=kT;k okys lhls ds ,d v/Zxksys dks 72 ls-eh- valume?
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSUk vf/d vk;ru iznku djsxk\
Å¡pkbZ okys ,d yEc o`Ùkh; 'kadq eas <kyk tkrk gSA 'kadq
ty a
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 02) 6 ls-eh-] 7 ls-eh- vkSj 8 ls-eh- okys fdukjs dk ,d
(a) 1.63 cm (b) 1.35 cm ?kukHk
II. A cube of edge 7 cm
(c) 1.33 cm (d) 1.45 cm
3. A copper sphere of diameter 18 cm is drawn
7 ls-eh fdukjs dk ,d ?ku
into a wire of diameter 6 mm. Find the length SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
of the wire. (a) Cube will have more volume
18 cm O;kl okys fdlh rk¡cs ds ,d xksys ls
6 mm (b) Both will have equal volume
O;kl okys ,d rkj dk fuekZ.k fd;k tkrk gSA fu£er (c) Cuboid will have more volume
rkj dh yackbZ Kkr dhft,A
A
ls n'keyo ds nks LFkkuksa rd vanj dh vksj fVu p<+kus;fn xksyss dk vk;ru24,416.64 cm³ gS] rks bldk
dh ykxr Kkr dhft,A i`"Bh; {ks=kiQy Kkr dhft, tks n'keyo ds nks LFkkuk
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
rd lgh gks ( = 3.14 yhft, )
r
(a) Rs.2,328.48 (b) Rs.2,425.48 SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
si
(c) Rs.2,425.60 (d) Rs.2,355.48 (a) 3069.55 cm² (b) 4069.44 cm²
(c) 5069.66 cm² (d) 6069.67 cm²
9. an by
If the diameter of a hemisphere is 28 cm, then
what is the volume of hemisphere? 14. If the diameter of a sphere is 3.5 cm, then
n
what is the total surface area of the sphere?
;fn ,d v/Zxksys dk O;kl 28 ls-eh- gS] rks v/Zxksys
dk vk;ru D;k gS\ ;fn ,d xksys dk O;kl 3-5 ls-eh- gS] rks xksys dk dqy
ja i`"Bh; {ks=kiQy D;k gS
R s
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
a th
10. The surface area of a cube is 864 cm2. The (c) 38.5 cm² (d) 34.25 cm²
ty a
volume of the cube is _______. 15. The radii of two cylinders are in the ratio 1
: 4 and their heights are in the ratio 4 : 3.
,d ?ku dk i`"Bh; {ks=kiQy
864 cm² gSA ml ?ku dk
di M
17. A solid copper sphere of radius 9 cm is ,d ?ku dh Hkqtk dh yackbZ 4-2 ls-eh- gSA ?ku ds ckg
hammered and moulded into a wire of radius fudkys tk ldus okys lcls cM+s xksys dk vk;ru D;k gS\
2 cm. What is the length of this wire?
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
9 cm f=kT;k okys rk¡cs ds Bksl xksys
dks gFkkSMs+ ls ihV&ihV
(a) 26.40 cm³ (b) 20.50 cm³
dj 2 cm f=kT;k okyk rkj fu£er fd;k tkrk gSA bl
(c) 38.80 cm³ (d) 48.60 cm³
fu£er rkj dh yackbZ fdruh gS\
23. A hollow sphere has an outer radius of 4 cm
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 03) and inner radius of 1 cm. What is the volume
(a) 224 cm (b) 183 cm of this hollow sphere?
(c) 198 cm (d) 243 cm ,d [kks[kys xksys dh ckgjh f=kT;k 4 ls-eh- rFkk vkarfjd
18. If the length of the diagonal of a cube is 73 f=kT;k 1 ls-eh- gSA bl [kks[kys xksys dk vk;ru D;k gS
cm, then the surface area of the cube is. SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
;fn fdlh ?ku ds fod.kZ dh yackbZ
73 cm gS rks ml (a) 84p cm³ (b) 68p cm³
?ku dk i`"Bh; {ks=kiQYk Kkr dhft,A (c) 48p cm³ (d) 92p cm³
r
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (Shift- 03) 24. The volume of the hemisphere is 19,404 cm³.
The radius of the hemisphere is _______.
si
(a) 216 cm² (b) 256 cm²
(c) 284 cm² (d) 294 cm² ,d xksyk¼Z dk vk;ru 19,404 cm³ gSA ml xksyk¼Z
19.
an by
The length of the side of a cube is 5.6 cm.
What is the volume of the largest sphere that
dh f=kT;k gSA
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
n
can be taken out of the cube? (a) 14 cm (b) 19 cm
,d ?ku dh Hkqtk dh yackbZ 5-6 ls-eh- gSA ?ku ds ckgj(c) 21 cm
ja (d) 17 cm
R s
fudkys tk ldus okys lcls cM+s xksys dk vk;ru D;k
25. Three cubes of equal volume are joined end
gS\ to end. Find the surface area of the resulting
a th
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 01) cuboid if the diagonal of the cube is 63 cm.
(a) 91.98 cm³ (b) 99.96 cm³ cjkcj vk;ru okys rhu ?kuksa dks fljs ls fljs lVkdj
vkil esa tksM+k tkrk gSA ;fn ?ku dk fod.kZ
63 cm
ty a
cm². Find the volume of the sphere (rounded SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
off to one digit after decimal). (a) 509 cm² (b) 504 cm²
,d xksys dk oØi`"Bh; {ks=kiQy
154 cm² gSA xksys dk (c) 516 cm² (d) 512 cm²
vk;ru (n'keyo ds ckn ,d vad rd iw.kkZafdr) Kkr 26. A solid hemisphere has radius 21 cm. It is
dhft,A melted to form a cylinder such that the ratio
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (Shift- 01) of its curved surface area to total surface area
is 2 : 5. What is the radius (in cm) of its base
(a) 156.9 cm³ (b) 179.7 cm³
(c) 161.1 cm³ (d) 147.8 cm³ 22
take = ?
21. The total surface area of a cube is 1536 m². 7
Find its volume.
,d Bksl v/Zxksys dh f=kT;k
21 cm gSA bls fi?kykdj
A
27. The external diameter of an iron pipe is 20 LVhy dk mi;ksx ,d xksyk¼Z dVksjk cukus ds fy, fd;k
cm and its length is 12 cm. If the thickness tkrk gS tks0.37 cm eksVk gksrk gSA dVksjs dh Hkh
of the pipe is 1 cm, find the surface area of
f=kT;k6 cm gSA dVksjs dk ckgjh oØ i`"Bh; {ks=kiQ
22
the pipe take = correct to two places 22
7 Kkr dhft, = yhft;s .
7
of decimal.
ykssgs ds ikbi dk ckgjh O;kl 20 ls-eh- gS vkSj bldh SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
yackbZ 12 ls-eh- gSA ;fn ikbi dh eksVkbZ 1 ls-eh- gS](a)
rks532 cm² (b) 255.0548 cm²
ikbi dk i`"Bh; {ks=kiQy Kkr djsa tks n'keyo ds nks (c) 484 cm² (d) 523.4107 cm²
r
(a) 1,662.67 cm² (b) 1,552.57 cm²
yackbZ csyukdkj rkj esa [khapk x;k gSA rkj dh f=k
(c) 1,442.48 cm² (d) 1,772.76 cm²
D;k gS\
si
2 SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
28. If the volume of a sphere is 179
an by m³, what
3
(a) 5 metre (b) 9 metre
is its surface area?
n
(c) 3 metre (d) 12 metre
2
;fn fdlh xksys dk vk;ru 179 m³ gS] rks mldk 33. What is the total surface area of a cone, if
ja 3
R s
the slant height and radius of a cone is 30
i`"Bh; {ks=kiQy Kkr dhft,A cm and 14 cm, respectively?
a th
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (Shift- 03) ;fn ,d 'kadq dh fr;Zd Å¡pkbZ vkSj f=kT;k Øe'k%
30
(a) 221 m² (b) 154 m² cm vkSj 14 cm gS] rks 'kadq dk dqy i`"Bh; {ks=kiQy
(c) 144 m² (d) 151 m² fdruk gS\
ty a
36. What is the area of the curved surface of a 41. A solid cone of height 42 cm with diameter
right circular cone with height 8 m and slant of its base 42 cm is cut out from a wooden
height 10 m? solid sphere of radius 24 cm. Find the
8 m mapkbZ vkSj10 m fr;Zd Å¡pkbZ okys ,d yac percentage of wood wasted correct to two
places of decimal.
o`Ùkh; 'kadq ds oØi`"B {ks=kiQy D;k gS\
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 01) 42 cm Å¡pkbZ dk ,d Bksl 'kadq ftlds vk/kj dk
(a) 60 m² (b) 60 m² O;kl 42 cm gS] 24 cm f=kT;k ds ydM+h ds Bksl
(c) 40 m² (d) 40 m² xkssys ls dkVk tkrk gSA cckZn gqbZ ydM+h dk iz
37. An iron rod with diameter 4 cm and length Kkr dhft, tks n'keyo ds nks LFkkuks rd lgh gksA
12 cm is drawn into a wire of length 12 m of SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
uniform thickness. Determine the thickness
of the wire. (a) 75.56% (b) 56.65%
4 lseh O;kl vkSj 12 lseh yackbZ okyh ,d yksgs dh (c) 66.50% (d) 67.50%
NM+ dks leku eksVkbZ ds 12 ehVj yacs rkj esa 42.•hapk
r
The length of the side of a cube is 2.8 cm.
tkrk gSA rkj dh eksVkbZ Kkr dhft,A What is the volume of the largest sphere that
si
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 02) can be taken out of the cube?
(a) 0.6 cm an by (b) 0.7 cm ,d ?ku dh Hkqtk dh yackbZ 2-8 ls-eh- gSA ?ku ls ckg
(c) 0.3 cm (d) 0.4 cm fudkys tk ldus okys lcls cM+s xksys dk vk;ru D;k gS\
n
38. Find the total surface area of cube whose
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
volume is 343 m³.
ja (a) 11.50 cm³ (b) 1.15 cm³
R s
?ku dk dqy i`"Bh; {ks=kiQy Kkr dhft, ftldk vk;ru
343 m³ ehVj gSA (c) 11.55 cm³ (d) 115 cm³
a th
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (Shift- 03) 43. A conical vessel (solid) is made of iron. Its
(a) 186 m² (b) 294 m² base radius is 7 cm and height is 15 cm. If
the weight of the iron per cubic centimetre
ty a
45. The number of solid spheres, each of diameter 7 cm Å¡pkbZ okys ,d 'kadq ds fN=kd ds fljksa dh
6 cm, that could be moulded to form a solid
f=kT;k,¡
5 cm vkSj3 cm gSaA bldk vk;ru Kkr dhft,
metal cylinder of height 90cm and diameter
4 cm is: tks n'eyo ds ,d LFkku rd lgh gksA
izR;sd6 cm O;kl okys ,sls Bksl xksyksa dh la[;k fdruh 22
gS ftUgsa fi?kykdj
90 m Å¡pk vkSj4 cm O;kl okyk = z ksx dhft,
dk i;
7
,d Bksl csyu cuk;k tk ldsA
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(a) 10 (b) 14 (a) 345.6 cm³ (b) 359.3 cm³
(c) 16 (d) 13 (c) 379.3 cm³ (d) 369.3 cm³
46. The length of the side of a cube is 1.4 cm.
50. Area of the floor of a cubical room is 64 m².
What is the volume of the largest sphere that
The length of the longest rod that can be kept
can be taken out of the cube?
in the room is:
,d ?ku dh Hkqtk dh yackbZ1.4 cm gSA ?ku ls ckgj
r
fudkys tk ldus okys lcls cM+s xksys dk vk;ru D;k ,d ?kukdj dejs ds iQ'kZ dk {ks=kiQy
64 m² gSA dejs
si
gS\ esa j[kh tk ldus okyh lcls yach NM+ dh yackbZ D;k gS\
n
(c) 2.66 cm³ (d) 5.64 cm³
(c) 123 m (d) 83 m
47. How many metres of 2-m-wide cloth will be
ja 51. A conical vessel, whose internal radius is 20
R s
required to make a conical tent with the
diameter of the base as 14 m and slant height cm and height is 27 cm, is full of water. If
a th
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 01) dks 15 cm f=kT;k okys ,d csyukdkj ik=k es mM+syk
(a) 66 m (b) 88 m tk,] rks ml ik=k esa ikuh fdl Å¡pkbZ rd igq¡psxk\
(c) 99 m (d) 77 m SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
48. The radius of a right circular cylinder is four
(a) 16 cm (b) 10 cm
times of its height. If the height of the cylinder
is 14 cm, then what is the volume of cylinder? (c) 12 cm (d) 14 cm
,d yac o`Ùkkdkj csyu dh f=kT;k mldh Å¡pkbZ dh52.
pkj A solid metallic sphere of radius 12 cm is
xquk gSA ;fn csyu dh Å¡pkbZ 14 ls-eh- gS] rks csyu dk
melted and recast into a cone having diameter
vk;ru D;k gS\ of the base as 12 cm. What is the height of
A
(a) 15468 cm³ (b) 14262 cm³ ,d 12 cm f=kT;k okys Bksl /kfRod xksys dks fi?kykdj
(c) 137984 cm³ (d) 11296 cm³ ,d 'kadq dk vkdkj fn;k tkrk gS ftlds vk/kj dk
49. The radii of the ends of a frustum of a cone O;kl 12 cm gSA 'kadq dh Å¡pkkbZ D;k gS\
7 cm height are 5 cm and 3 cm. Find its
volume correct to one decimal place. SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
53. If the numerical value of twice the curved ydM+h ds 21cm dh Hkqtk okys ?ku ls dkVs tk ldus
surface area of a right circular cylinder is equal
to the numerical value of its volume, then 22
okys lcls cM+s xksys dk vk;ru fdruk gS\
=
7
what is the numerical value of the radius of
the base of the cylinder? SSC CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023
(a) 3851cm³ (b) 6858cm³
;fn ,d yaco`Ùkh; csyu ds oØi`"Bh; {ks=kiQy ds nksxqus
(c) 4851cm³ (d) 5821cm³
dk la[;kRed eku] mlds vk;ru ds la[;kRed eku ds
57. A hemispherical bowl of internal radius 18 cm
cjkcj gS] rks csyu ds vk/kj dh f=kT;k dk la[;kRed is full of liquid. This liquid is to be filled in
eku Kkr dhft,A cylindrical bottles each of radius 3 cm and
height 6 cm. How many bottles are required
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
to empty the bowl?
(a) 2 (b) 3
18 cm dh vkarfjd f=kT;k dk ,d v¼Zxksyh; dVksjk æo
(c) 5 (d) 4 ls Hkjk gqvk gSA bl æo 3dks cm f=kT;k vkSj 6 cm
Å¡pkbZ okyh csyukdkj cksryksa esa Hkjk tkuk gSA I;ky
r
54. If the diameter of a solid hemisphere is 12.6
djus ds fy, fdruh cksryksa dh vko';drk gksxh\
si
22
cm, then its volume is take = :
7 SSC CGL TIER- II 03/03/2023
an by
;fn ,d Bksl v/Zxksys dk O;kl12.6 cm gS] rks bldk (a) 72 (b) 70
n
22 (c) 68 (d) 66
vk;ru gS = yhft, :
7 58. What is the total surface area of a pyramid
ja
R s
whose base is a square with side 8 cm and
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (Shift- 3)
height of the pyramid is 3 cm?
a th
(a) 1,259 cm³ ,d fijkfeM dk laiw.kZ i`"Bh; {ks=kiQy D;k gS ftldk vkèkk
(b) 987 cm³ 8 cm Hkqtk okyk ,d oxZ gS vkSj fijkfeM dh Å¡pkbZ3
cm gS\
ty a
19 18 b
(c) (d) (b)
2
17 17
21b
56. What is the volume of the largest sphere that (c)
can be carved out of a wooden cube of sides 2
22 19b
21 cm? = (d)
7 2
60. If the curved surface area of a cylinder is 126 62. A prism and a pyramid have the same base and
cm² and its height is 14 cm. then, what is the the same height. Find the ratio of the volumes
volume of the cylinder? of the prism and the pyramid.
r
of the pyramid?
csyu dk vk;ru D;k gksxk ;fn csyu dh f=kT;k
10 cm
,d fijkfeM dk vk/kj ,d leckgq f=kHkqt gS] ftldh
vkSj Å¡pkbZ
20 cm gks\( = 3.14 ysa
si
)
izR;sd Hkqtk dh yEckbZ
8 cm. gSA bldk fr;Zd dksj
(Slant
edge) 24 cm. gSa fijkfeM dk lEiw.kZ i`"Bh; (cm²
an by {ks=kiQy SSC CGL TIER- II 07/03/2023
esa
) fdruk gS\
(a) 6280 cm³
n
SSC CGL TIER- II 06/03/2023
(b) 5306 cm³
(a) 24 3 36 35
ja (b) 16 3 48 35 (c) 6260 cm³
R s
(c) 24 3 24 35 (d) 12 3 24 35
(d) 5280 cm³
a th
ANSWER KEY
ty a
di M
1.(b) 2.(c) 3.(b) 4.(d) 5.(d) 6.(a) 7.(c) 8.(a) 9.(a) 10.(a)
11.(a) 12.(a) 13.(b) 14.(c) 15.(a) 16.(d) 17.(d) 18.(d) 19.(a) 20.(b)
21.(c) 22.(c) 23.(a) 24.(c) 25.(b) 26.(b) 27.(b) 28.(b) 29.(c) 30.(a)
31.(b) 32.(b) 33.(d) 34.(c) 35.(a) 36.(b) 37.(d) 38.(b) 39.(a) 40.(c)
41.(c) 42.(a) 43.(d) 44.(c) 45.(a) 46.(a) 47.(c) 48.(c) 49.(b) 50.(d)
A
51.(a) 52.(b) 53.(d) 54.(c) 55.(d) 56.(c) 57.(a) 58.(c) 59.(c) 60.(a)
SOLUTIONS
1. (b) Volume of cuboid = volume of spheres
8. (a) T.S.A = 4r² = 2 22 42 42
3 7
4 22 8.4
88 × 63 × 42 = x ×
= 11088 cm²
3 7 2
Rate = 21 per 100 cm²
88 63 42 3 7 1000 T. Price = 110.88 × 21
x=
4 22 4.2 4.2 4.2 = Rs. 2328.48
x = 750 2 22
2. (c) ATQ, 9. (a) Volume = 14 14 14
3 7
r
2 22 1 22 = 5749.33 cm²
4³ = r² 72
si
3 7 3 7 10. (a) 6a² = 864
2×4×4×4
72
an by
= r² a=
864
6
= 144 = 12
n
Volume = a³ = 1728 cm³
4
= =r 11. (a) r = 5h
3 ja
R s
= 5 × 3.5
r = 1.33 cm.
a th
22
v= × 5 × 5 × 3.5 × 3.5 × 3.5
4 7
3. (b) (9)³ = (3)² × length
3 = 22 × 125 × 1225 × 10–3
ty a
= 3368.75 cm³
4 9 9 9
l= 12. (a) ATQ,
3 33
di M
18 × 36 × 9 = a³
= 108 m
a = 9 × 2 = 18 m.
2
4 1 13 Diagonal = 18 3 m.
4. (d) × × (13)³ = h
3 3 2
4
4 × 13 × 4 = h 13. (b) × 3.14 × r³ = 24416.64
3
h = 208 cm.
5. (d) a³ = 6³ + 8³ + 10³ 7776 3
r³ =
4
a³ = 1728
a = 12 r³ = 1944 × 3 = 216 × 27
A
22 3.5 3.5
7. (c) T.S.A = 4r² = 4 22 63 63 14. (c) T.S.A = 4
7 2 2 7 2 2
r
1000 4 22
= 63
= 261.95 cm³ 3 7
si
17. (d) ATQ,
= 264 or 84p cm³
4 22
3
7
9 9 9 =
an by
22
7
(2)² l
24. (c)
2 22
3 7
r³ = 19404
n
l = 81 × 3 = 243 cm
r³ = 441 × 21
18. (d) Side = Diagonal = 7 r = 21
ja
R s
3
25. (b) Diagonal = 6 3
S.A = 6a² = 6 × 49 = 294 cm² Side = 6 cm.
a th
5.6
r= a
2
Surface area of visible faces:-
14a² = 14 × 6² = 504 cm²
26. (b) r = 21
4 22 5.6 5.6 5.6 2
Volume = r³ = r12 h
3 7 2 2 2 3
= 91.98 cm³
20. (b) C.S.A = 154 2
(21)³ = r12 h .........(1)
3
22
4× r² = 154
A
7 C.S.A 2r1 h h 2
= = =
7 T.S.A 2r1 (h r1 ) h r1 5
r=
2 h = 2x r1 = 3x .......(2)
Put (2) in (1)
22 4 7 7 7
Volume = 2
7 3 2 2 2 × 21 × 21 × 21 = 9x² × 2x
3
11 49 539
= = x³ = 7 × 7 × 7
3 3 x=7
= 179.7 cm³ r = 3 × 7 = 21
27. (b) R = 10 m.
4 22
t = 1 cm. 34. (c) r³ = 38808
3 7
inner radius, r = 10 – 1 = 9 cm.
S.A = 2 Rh + 2 rh + 2 (R² – r²) 38808 3 7
r³ =
4 22
= 2 [Rh + rh + R² – r²]
r = 21
= 2 [(r + R) (h + R – r)]
22
22 4r² = 4 × × 21 × 21
= 2 [19 (13)] 7
7
= 5544 cm²
= 1552.57 cm²
2 22
4 22 539 35. (a) V = (5.6)³
28. (b) r³ = 3 7
3 7 3
= 367.95 cm³
7 36. (b)
r= m
r
2
l = 10, h = 8
si
S.A = 4r²
r = 100 – 64
= 4
22 7 7
7 2 2
an by r=6
rl = × 6 × 10
n
= 154 m² = 60 m²
2 22
29. (c) Volume = ja
6.3 × 6.3 × 6.3 12
R s
3 7 37. (b) × 4 × 12 = × r² ×
100
a th
= 523.90 cm³
r = 20 cm.
2 22 35 35 35 Thickness = 40 cm.
30. (a) Volume =
3 7 2 2 2 = 0.4 cm.
ty a
r=6 T.S.A = 6 × 7²
R = 6.37 = 294 m²
C.S.A = 2R²
4 22
39. (a) v = (R³ – r³)
22 3 7
=2× × 6.37 × 6.37
7
4 22
= 255.0548 cm² = (6³ – 3³)
3 7
4 18 3 = 252 cm³
32. (b)
= r² 12
3 2 40. (c) 12 × 18 × 27 = a³
A
4 9 9 9 a = 18
r² =
3 12
T.S.A of cuboid 2(lb bh lh)
=
r = 9 mtr. T.S.A of cube 6a²
33. (d) l = 30, r = 14
T.S.A = r (l + r) 2(12 18 18 27 27 12)
6 18 18
22
= 14 (30 14)
7 19
=
= 1936 cm³ 18
l = 99m
681
= 100
1024 48. (c) r = 4h = 4 × 14
r
2.8 22
42. (a) Radius of sphere = = 1.4
si
2 = × 4 × 14 × 4 × 14 × 14
7
volume =
an by 4 22
3 7
1.4 × 1.4 × 1.4 = 137984 cm³
n
= 11.50 cm³ 3
ja 49. (b)
R s
1 22
43. (d) Volume = 7 7 15
3 7
a th
= 770 cm³ 7
= 11550 g.
= 11.55 kg.
di M
4 90 3 L × B = 64 m²
n= = 10
4 93 L = L = 64
Side L=B=H=8
46. (a) Radius =
2
Length of lougest rod = 8 3
4 4 22
r³ = (0.7)³
3 3 7 = Diagonal of cube
4
Volume = R³
3
51. (a)
4 22 21 21 21
=
3 7 2 2 2
27 = 4851 cm³
h 57. (a)
20 15
1
r² h = r12 h1
3 R = 18 cm.
r
× (20)² × 27 = × (15)² × h1
3
si
h1 = 16 cm.
52. (b) Let height of cone be h
4 22
an by 1 22
12 12 12 = 66h 6
n
3 7 3 7
h = 192 cm.
ja
R s
53. (d) ATQ,
2(2rh) = r²h
a th
3
4=r 2
R³ = n × r² h
2 22 3
54. (c) Volume = × 6.3 × 6.3 × 6.3
ty a
3 7 2
× 18³ = n × 3² × 6
= 523.908 cm³ 3
di M
n = 4 × 18 = 72
Ar. 1 324 (18)² 58. (c)
55. (d) Ar. = 289 = (17)²
2
Side of 1 18
=
Side of 2 17
3
56. (c)
8
A
h = 3 cm, s = 8 cm.
21 1
T.S.A = × 4 × s × l + s²
2
Also,
We know,
s 2
l² = h² + = 9 + 16
Diagonal = 2 3 Radius 2
21 3 = 2 3 Radius l=5
61. (b)
1
T.S.A = × 4 × 8 × 5 + 64
2
= 80 + 64
= 144
24
59. (c)
1
b = 2h = l
2
Diagonal = l² b² h² 8
b²
= 4b² b²
4
1 3
21 T.S.A = ×3×8×l (8)²
= b² 2 4
r
4
= 12 l + 16 3
si
b
= 21
2 l = (24)² – 4² = 560
60. (a)
an by = 4 35
n
Given,
T.S.A = 48 35 16 3
2 rh = 126
ja 62. (b)
R s
2 × × r × 14 = 126
1
a th
Ar h 3
Requaired ratio = =
81 1 1
= 14 ar h
di M
4 3
......-------......
A
DATA INTERPRETATION
vkdMa+s fuoZpu 24
1. The following table shows the number of pages The number of trucks sold by B, C, F and H
printed by 3 printers during 3 days. is how much percent less than the number
fuEu rkfydk 3 fnuksa ds nkSjku 3 fizaVjksa }kjk eqfnzr
of trucks sold by all these 8 companies?
i`"Bksa dh la[;k n'kkZrh gSA B, C, F rFkkH }kjk csps x, Vªdksa dh la[;k bu lHkh
Printers
8 daifu;ksa }kjk csps x, Vªdksa dh la[;k ls fdrus izfr'kr
Days X Y Z de gS\
Monday 130 140 210 SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
r
Tuesday 110 145 160 (a) 46 percent
si
Wednesday 180 90 218 (b) 22 percent
an by
What is the average number of pages printed
by printer Z during the 3 days?
(c) 34 percent
(d) 14 percent
n
3 fnuksa ds nkSjku fizaVj
Z }kjk eqfnzr i`"Bksa dh vkSlr
3. The table given below shows the number of
la[;k fdruh gS\
ja spoon manufactured by five factories.
R s
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
uhps nh xbZ rkfydk ik¡p iQSfDVª;ksa }kjk mRiknu dh
a th
question.
D
C
12%
18%
fn, x, pkVZ dk vè;;;u djsa vkSj fuEufyf[kr iz'u
dk mÙkj nsaA
r
F 90 90 90 85
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
si
(a) 82º (b) 65.8º Answer the following question based on the table:
5.
(c) 75.2º an by (d) 72º
The following table shows the number of
rkfydk ds vk/kj ij fuEufyf[kr iz'u dk mÙkj nsa%
What is the number of students whose overall
n
different items in different shops and their percentage obtained is 80% and above?
respective selling prices per unit. mu Nk=kksa dh la[;k fdruh gS] ftuds dqy izkIr izfr'kr
ja
fuEu rkfydk fofHkUu nqdkuksa esa fofHkUu oLrqvksa dh vkSj mlls vf/d gS\
vad 80%
R s
la[;k vkSj izfr bdkbZ muds lacaf/r foØ; ewY; dks SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 02)
a th
8. The pie chart given below shows the number If the interest on loans amounted to Rs.3.15
of bike sold by 8 different companies. The total crores, then the total amount of expenditure
number of bike sold by all these 8 companies on salary, taxes and infrastructure is:
are 2000. Number of bikes sold by a particular ;g ½.k ij C;kt dh jkf'k 3-15 djksM+ #i;s gS] rks osru]
company is shown as a percent of total number djksa vkSj cqfu;knh <k¡ps ij O;; dh dqy jkf'k Kkr djsaA
of bike sold by all these 8 companies.
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 03)
uhps fn;k x;k o`Ùk fp=k 8 foHkUu daifu;ksa }kjk csph
(a) 9 crores (b) 7.8 crores
xbZ ckbd dh la[;k dks n'kkZrk gSA bu lHkh 8 daifu;ksa(c) 5.5 crores (d) 8.5 crores
}kjk csph xbZ ckbd dh dqy la[;k 2000 gSA ,d fof'k"V
10. The table given below shows the income of
daiuh }kjk csph xbZ ckbd dh la[;k dks bu lHkh 8 two companies C1 and C2 in 6 years.
daifu;ksa }kjk csph xbZ ckbd dh dqy la[;k ds izfr'kr uhps nh xbZ rkfydk 6 o"kksaZ esa nksCIdaifu;ksa
rFkk
ds :i eas n'kkZ;k x;k gSA C2 dh vk; dks n'kkZrh gSA
V Company
2% W
10% P Year C1 C2
r
21% P 750 850
U
si
16% Q 200 250
Q R 330 350
an by T
7% 19% S 550 650
S
T 530 270
n
20% R
5% U 370 390
ja
What is the difference between the average Which of the following statement is NOT correct?
R s
number of bikes sold by P, Q, R and S and the fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku lgh ugha gS\
a th
10 C 1000 24 5 : 19
10 D 800 18 3:9
5
5 Find the ratio of the number of female students
0
who opted biology in school B and school D.
LdwyB vkSj LdwyD esa tho foKku dks pquus okyh
Interstion
Infrastructure
Transport
Advertisement
R&D
Taxes
Salary
Loans
12. The table given below shows the number of uhps fn;k x;k o`Ùk fp=k 6 fofHkUu iQSfDVª;kas dks m
bicycle sold by six companies. dks n'kkZrk gSA bu lHkh 6 iQSfDVª;ksa dk dqy m
uhps nh xbZ rkfydk N% daifu;ksa }kjk csph xbZ lkbfdy22000 gSA ,d fof'k"V iQSDVªh ds mRiknu dks bu lH
dh la[;k dks n'kkZrh gSA 6 iQSfDVª;ksa ds dqy mRiknu ds izfr'kr ds :i esa n'kkZ
Companies Bicycle x;k gSA
A 60
F
B 90 10%
C 120 E
A
D 165 16%
37%
E 180
D
F 120 4% C
B
20%
What are the ratio of number of bicycle sold 13%
by B to the number of bicycle sold by D?
r
B }kjk csph xbZ lkbfdy dh la[;k dk]D }kjk csph P1 = The value of average production of A,
si
C, D and F.
xbZ lkbfdy dh la[;k ls vuqikr D;k gS\
P1 = A, C, D rFkkF ds vkSlr mRiknu dk ekuA
(a) 11 : 5
an by
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 04)
(b) 11 : 6
P2 = The difference between the production
of B and E.
n
(c) 5 : 13 (d) 6 : 11 P2 = B rFkkE ds mRiknu ds chp dk varjA
13. The following table gives the subscription of What is the value of (P1 + P2)?
ja
R s
different schemes of a Mutual Fund Company (P1 + P2) dk eku D;k gS\
over th months.
a th
V W X Y Z Total
company is shown in terms of degree with respect
September 200 70 30 290 10 600
to the total sales of all these 7 companies.
October 120 130 70 150 290 760
November 45 35 25 125 160 390
uhps fn;k x;k o`Ùk fp=k 7 fofHkUu daifuk;sa dh fcØh d
December 160 110 40 115 130 555 n'kkZrk gSA bu lHkh 7 daifu;ksa dh dqy fcØh 2880 g
January 80 90 70 100 140 480 ,d fof'k"V daiuh dh fcØh dks bu lHkh 7 daifu;ksa dh
February 130 150 30 40 390 740 dqy fcØh ds lanHkZ esa fMxzh ds :i eas n'kkZ;k x;k gSA
What is the different in the subscription of
D
17º
scheme X between December and February?
fnlacj vkSj iQjojh ds chp ;kstukX dh lnL;rk esa J
A
The average sales of G and H is how much percent SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
more than the average sales of D and I? (a) 56 (b) 55
G rFkkH dh vkSlr fcØh] D rFkkI dh vkSlr fcØh (c) 57 (d) 58
18. The table given below shows the number of
ls fdruh izfr'kr vf/d gS\
pencils sold by 7 shops.
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift- 04) uhps nh xbZ rkfydk 7 nqqdkuksa }kjk csph xbZ isafly
(a) 18.86 percent (b) 24.25 percent la[;k n'kkZrh gSA
(c) 56.21 percent (d) 22.86 percent
Shops Pencils
16. The table given below shows the production S1 54
of beauty products by five different companies.
S2 68
uhps nh xbZ rkfydk ik¡p fofHkUu daifu;ksa }kjk lkSan;Z S3 70
mRinksa ds mRiknu dks n'kkZrh gSA S4 120
Companies Production S5 84
S6 130
r
P 80
Q 120 S7 36
si
R 84 What is the ratio of number of pencils sold
an by
S
T
50
70
by S3 to the number of pencils sold by S6?
S3 }kjk csph xbZ isaflyksa dh la[;kS6dk}kjk csph
n
xbZ isaflyksa dh la[;k ls vuqikr D;k gS\
The production of beauty product by T is what
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
percent of the production of beauty product
ja (a) 8 : 15 (b) 13 : 7
R s
by S?
(c) 15 : 7 (d) 7 : 13
T }kjk lkSan;Z mRikn dk mRiknu]
S }kj lkSna;Z mRikn
a th
(c) 240 percent (d) 120 percent uhps fn;k xk; o`Ùk fp=k ,d o"kZ esa 8 'kgjksa dh tula[;k
17. Observe the given graph and answer the
dks n'kkZrk gSA bu lHkh 8 'kgjksa dh dqy tula[;k 30]00
di M
following question.
gsA ,d fof'k"V 'kgj esa tula[;k dks bu lHkh 8 'kgjksa
fn, x, xzkiQ dks è;ku ls nsf[k, vkSj phps fn, x,
eas dqy tula[;k ds izfr'kr ds :i eas n'kkZ;k x;k gSA
iz'u dk mÙkj nhft,A
C7
C6 3%
10 6% C8
9 7% C1
18 C5 15%
8
No. of students
5%
7
6 C2
15 24%
5 C4
14
A
4 32%
3 13 C3
12 8%
2
10 11
1
0
What is the average population (approximately)
125 130 135 140 145 150 160 of cities C3, C5 and C7?
Marks Obtained C3, C5 vkSjC7 'kgjksa dh vkSlr tula[;k (yxHkx) D;k gS\
How many students obtained more than 135 SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (Shift- 01)
marks? (a) 1200 (b) 1800
fdrus Nk=kksa us 135 ls vf/d vad izkIr fd, gSa\ (c) 1600 (d) 2000
ANSWER KEY
1.(a) 2.(c) 3.(b) 5.(d) 6.(a) 7.(a) 8.(d) 9.(a) 10.(a) 10.(a)
SOLUTIONS
1. (a)
4 8000
r
Total pages by z (4 8000) (20 26500) (16 12200)
Avg. =
3
si
32000
=
210 160 218 32000 530000 195200
= an by
3
=
320
n
320 5300 1950
588
= = 196
3 320
ja = = 4.226%
R s
2. (c) 7572
Total trucks sold by B, C, F, H 6. (a)
a th
= 27 + 18 + 7 + 14 = 66% 92 + 90 + 90 + 80
% of A = × 100 > 80%
Total trucks = 100% 400
Required% = 100 – 66 = 34% % of B > 80%
ty a
= 72 No. of Bikes by T, U, V, W = 7 + 16 + 2 + 10 = 35
(Question incomplete)
35
5. (a) Avg. = % of 2000
4
Let total items be 40
(65 – 35)
Difference = % of 2000
4 4
Fan = 40 = 16
10
30
AC = 20 = 2000
400
Cooler = 4 = 150
I. C1 in P = 750 83 22000
= = 4565
C2 in Q = 250 4 100
Required% = 300% 15. (d)
Not True 73 13
Avg. of G and H =
2
CI C2 530 270
II. =
2 2 = 43º
r
= 400 53 17
si
Avg. of D and I =
True. 2
11. (a)
an by = 35°
n
Biology Female in school B 43 – 35
Required% = 100
35
7 36
= ja
400
R s
12 100 800
= = 22.86%
35
a th
= 84
16. (b)
Biology Female in school D
70
Required% = 100
ty a
9 18 50
= 800
12 100 = 140%
di M
......-------......
STATISTICS
lkaf[;dh 25
1. Find the mode for the given distribution 5. Mean of a sample data = 60 and median = 48.
(rounded off to two decimal places). Find the mode of this distribution.
Class 5 – 10 10 – 15 15 – 20 20 – 25 25 – 30 30 – 35 ,d uewuk vkadM+ksa dk= ekè;
60 vkSj ekfè;dk= 48 gSA
Interval bl caVu dk cgqyd Kkr dhft,A
Frequency 8 7 6 9 11 10
SSC CGL TIER- II 06/03/2023
(a) 36 (b) 18
fn, x, cVu dk cgqyd Kkr dhft, (nks n'keyo
(c) 24 (d) 48
LFkku rd iw.kkZfdr)A
6. What will be the mode of the following data?
r
13, 15, 31, 12, 27, 13, 27, 30, 27, 28 and 16
C
S
fuEufyf[kr vkadM+ksa dk cgqyd D;k gksxk\
si
CGL TIER - II 02/03/2023 13] 15] 31] 12] 27] 13] 27] 30] 27] 28 vkSj 16
(a) 35.25
(c) 30.33
an by (b) 40.25
(d) 28.33 (a) 28
SSC CGL TIER- II 06/03/2023
(b) 31
n
2. The arithmetic mean of the following data is
(c) 30 (d) 27
_________.
7. The median of a set of 11 distinct observations
23, 17,20,19,21 ja
R s
is 73.2. If each of the largest five observations
fuEufyf•r la[;kvksa dk vadxf.krh;@lekarj ekè;
____ gksxkA of the set is increased by 3, then the median
a th
3. Find the standard deviation of the following SSC CGL TIER- II 07/03/2023
data (rounded off to two decimal places).
di M
ANSWER KEY
1.(d) 2.(a) 3.(a) 4.(c) 5.(c) 6.(d) 7.(c) 8.(a)
SOLUTIONS
1. (d) Step:- 3
Modal class = max. frequency group.
1 49 9 81
Here, modal class = 25 – 30
16 16 16 16 = 140
f1 – f0 4 64
Mode = l
2f – f – f h
1 0 2 Step:- 4
l = lower limit of modal class = 25
140
h = size of interval =5 Standard deviation = 1.48
64
r
f1 = frequency of modal class = 11
4. (c)
si
f0 = rrequency of class preceeding modal class =
9 Median = middle term
an by
f² = frequency of class suceeding modal class =
10
arranging data increasing order:-
25, 27, 29, 30, 32, 33, 35
n
11 – 9 Median = 30
Mode = 25 +
5
ja
22 – 9 – 10 5. (c)
R s
We know,
85
a th
23 17 20 19 21
Arithmetic mean = 6. (d)
5
From given data
di M
= 20
27 appears maximum no. of times.
3. (a)
Standard deviation of 5, 3, 4, 7 Mode = 27
Step:- 1 7. (c)
Since, median is the middle term, increase in
19 largest five observation does not affect the
Mean of data
4 median.
Step:- 2 It will remain same
2 2 2 2
19 19 19 19 8. (a)
5 –
,
– 3
,
– 4
,
7 –
4 4 4 4 Maximum repetition = 7
A
Mode = 7
1 49 9 81
, , ,
16 16 16 16
......-------......
PROBABILITY
26
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1. A glass jar contains 6 white, 8 black, 4 red 3. The probability that three students A, B and
and 3 blue marbles. If a single marble is chosen
3 5 1
at random from the jar, what is the probability C solve a problem are , and
that it is black or blue? 7 9 5
respectively. What is the probability that the
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r
7 9 5
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si
8 11 SSC CGL TIER- II 06/03/2023
(a)
21
an by (b)
21
(a)
64
315
(b)
32
315
n
5 1
(c) (d)
21 7 251 155
ja (c) (d)
R s
315 315
2. A speaks the truth 5 out of 7 times and B
speaks truth 8 out of 9 times. What is the 4. A person can hit a target 5 times out of 8
a th
probability that they contradict each other in shots. If he fires 10 shots, what is the
stating the same fact? probability that he will hit the target twice?
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di M
ANSWER KEY
1.(b) 2.(d) 3.(c) 4.(d)
SOLUTIONS
1. (b)
4 4
Black = 8, Blue = 3, total = 21 P (A1 ) = , P (B1 ) =
7 9
8 3 11
P (Black or Blue) = = 4
21 21 21 P (C1 ) =
5
2. (d)
P (question not solved)
5 P (A1) × P (B1) × P (C1)
Probability that A speaks truth = P (A) =
7
4 4 4 64
= =
8 7 9 5 315
r
and B speaks truth = P (B) =
9
64
si
P (question solved) = 1 –
5 2 8 1 315
P (A lies) = 1 – = , P (B lies) = 1 – =
an by
7 7
Required probability
9 9
=
251
315
n
= [P (A) × P (B1)] + [P (A1) × P (B)]
4. (d)
5 1 2 8 ja
R s
=
5
7 9 7 9 P (A hits target) = P (A) =
8
a th
5 16 21 1
= = = 3
63 63 63 3 P (A does not hit target) = P (A1 ) = ,
8
3. (c)
ty a
3 10
3 P (does not hit in 10 shots) =
P (A) = 8
di M
7
P (hit the target twice in 10 shots)
5
P (B) = 5 2 3 8
9 = 10
C2
8 8
1
P (C) =
5 10 9 25 38 1125 38
= =
2 810 810
......-------......
A
r
si
an by
n
ja
R s
a th
ty a
di M
A
r
si
an by
n
ja
R s
a th
ty a
di M
A