ATA 26

1. The fire detection loops on PW1100G engines are (Level 1)

A. Dual loops
B. Singe loops
C. Single loops on pylon area, the other areas are dual loops
2. Fire detectors on PW1100G engine are located at: (Level 1)
A. Pylon area, fan area, core area
B. Pylon area, AGB area, core area
C. Fan area, AGB area, core area
3. The fire detectors of each fire detection loop onPW1100G engine are
(Level 1)
A. Parallel connected
B. Serial connected
C. Not connected together
4. Where are the Engine fire components located? (Level 1)
A. On the Fan and the Turbine and Pylon
B. On the left and right side of engine core, along the main gearbox and low
pressure turbine
C. On the left and right side of engine core, along the main gearbox
5. How many fire/overheat detectors does the Engine fire/overheat
detection system comprise of? (Level 2)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
6. What does the Engine fire/overheat detector assembly have? (Level 2)
A. An alarm switch
B. An integrity switch
C. An alarm switch that reacts to temperature and pressure, and an integrity
switch that responds to pressure
7. How is the Alarm switch of Engine fire/overheat detector operate?
(Level 2)
A. Operating on the principle that pressure decrease with a rise in
temperature. If ambient temperature around the sensor element increase,
or a short section of the sensor element is exposed to intense heat,
internal pressure in the sensor element and the responder housing will
decrease
B. Operating on the principle that pressure increase with a rise in
temperature. If ambient temperature around the sensor element increase,
or a short section of the sensor element is exposed to intense heat,
internal pressure in the sensor element and the responder housing will
increase in proportion
C. Operating on the principle that pressure increase with a rise in
temperature. If ambient temperature around the sensor element increase,
 or a short section of the sensor element is exposed to intense heat,
internal pressure in the sensor element and the responder housing will
decrease
8. In the normal condition, the status of Alarm switch and Integrity switch
is: (Level 3)
A. Alarm switch is in opened position, Integrity switch is in closed position
B. Alarm switch is in opened position, Integrity switch is in opened position
C. Alarm switch is in closed position, Integrity switch is in closed position
9. In case of fire: (Level 3)
A. Causing the fast release of a large amount of gas from the special core
material. This gas release very quickly increases the internal pressure to a
set value, makes the pressure-sensitive alarm switch inside the responder
closes
B. Causing the fast release of a large amount of gas from the special core
material. This gas release very quickly decrease the internal pressure to a
set value, makes the pressure-sensitive alarm switch inside the responder
closes
C. Causing the fast release of a large amount of gas from the special core
material. This gas release very quickly increases the internal pressure to a
set value, makes the pressure-sensitive alarm switch inside the responder
open
10. How the Integrity switch in the responder housing is kept closed
position? (Level 2)
A. By normal gas pressure in the sensor element
B. By airflow pressure from LPC
C. By electrical relay
11. In case of the gas leakage: (Level 2)
A. The subsequent pressure increase, will cause the integrity switch to close,
signaling a fault malfunction to the flight deck
B. The subsequent pressure decrease, will cause the integrity switch to
close, signaling a fault malfunction to the flight deck
C. The subsequent pressure decrease, will cause the integrity switch to
open, signaling a fault malfunction to the flight deck
12. The engine fire protection is fulfilled by: (Level 3)
A. The FIRE detection system only
B. The FIRE detection system and the FIRE extinguishing system
C. The FIRE extinguishing system only
13. The responder of engine fire loop has a chamber connected to two
pressure switches: (Level 3)
A. An ALARM switch and a FIRE switch.
B. An MONITOR switch and a INTEGRITY switch.
C. An ALARM switch and an INTEGRITY switch.
 14. On each engine, 2 continuous loops for the fire detection and each loop
contains: (Level 3)
A. 3 fire detectors connected in parallel and connected to a different channel
of the FDU (Fire Detection Unit).  
B. 2 fire detectors connected in parallel and connected to a different channel
of the FDU.
C. 3 fire detectors connected in series and connected to a different channel
of the FDU.
15. The fire extinguishing system of each PW1100G engine comprises of:
(Level 3)
A. 02 fire extinguishing bottles, 01 SQUIB P/B switch
B. 02 fire extinguishing bottles, 02 SQUIB P/B switches
C. 01 fire extinguishing bottle, 02 SQUIB P/B switches
16. The 3 PW fire detectors are located: (Level 2)
A. Around the AGB, in the Core between the fuel nozzles and the aft
circumferential ventilation outlet, at the pylon above the combustion
chamber.
B. Around the AGB, in the Core between the fuel nozzles and the aft
circumferential ventilation outlet, at around ventilation exit grid of the fan
compartment
C. Around the AGB, in the Core between the fuel nozzles and around
ventilation exit grid of the fan compartment, at the pylon above the
combustion chamber.

ATA 30. ICE PROTECTION

1. Hot air for nacelle anti-ice system on PW1100G engines supplied from (Level 3)
A. A/C bleed air system
B. Dedicated bleed air from LPC stage 3
C. Dedicated bleed air from HPC stage 6
2. On PW1100G engine anti-ice system, there is (are) (Level 2)
A. 01 PRSOV (Pressure Regulating an Shut Off Valve)
B. 01 SOV (Shut Off valve) and 01 PRV (Pressure Regulating Valve)
C. 02 PRSOVs (Pressure Regulating an Shut Off Valve)
3. On PW1100G engine anti-ice system, to deactivate an anti-ice PRSOV (Level 3)
A. You must open the fan cowls
B. You must open the thrust reverser cowls
C. You can deactivate the PRSOV with the fan cowls and reverser cowls
closed
4. On PW1100G engine the ENG ANTI-ICE P/B switches on overhead panel (Level
2)
A. Control the engine anti-ice valves directly
 B. Send signal to EEC, then the EEC controls the engine anti-ice valves
C. Send signal to EIU, then the EIU controls the engine anti-ice valves
5. To monitor the Nacelle Anti-Ice system operation, the EEC: (Level 2)
A. Uses 2 pressure transducers.
B. Uses 2 micro-switches located on 2 NAI PRSOV.
C. Uses 2 remote control solenoids.
6. In case of leakage or burst of NAI (Nacelle Anti Ice) duct in Fan compartment:
(Level 2)
A. EEC will recognize by Thermocouples.
B. EEC will recognize by Pressure Transducers.
C. EEC will recognize by 1 Pressure Transducer.
7. What is true regarding 2 NAI PRSOVs? (Level 2)
A. When the NAI solenoids de-energized, the HPC 6 th stage air is supplied to
inlet cowl.
B. When the NAI solenoids energized, the HPC 6th stage air is supplied to
inlet cowl.
C. At least one NAI solenoid de-energized, the HPC 6th stage air is supplied
to inlet cowl.

8. Hot air for nacelle anti-ice system on PW1100G engineis supplied from(Level 1)
A. A/C bleed air system
B. Dedicated bleed air from LPC stage 3
C. Dedicated bleed air from HPC stage 6

9. The nacelle anti-ice valves are(Level 1)

A. Electrical controlled & pneumatically operated
B. Electrical controlled & operated
C. Pneumatically controlled and operated

10. On PW1100G engine, nacelle anti-ice duct leak or burst is monitored by(Level
1)
A. A leak detector located in the core zone
B. 01 PT (Pressure Transducer)in the core zone, 01 PT in the fan zone and 01 dual
temperature sensor in the fan zone
C. A leak detector located in the fan zone

11. On PW1100G engineanti-ice system, there is (are) (Level 1)

A. 01 PRSOV (Pressure Regulating an Shut Off Valve)
B. 01 SOV (Shut Off valve) and 01 PRV (Pressure Regulating Valve)
C. 02 PRSOVs (Pressure Regulating an Shut Off Valve)

12. Regard to PW1100G engine anti-ice system, A/C can be dispatched with (Level
2)
 A. Two PRSOVs deactivated in OPEN position
B. One PRSOV deactivated in CLOSED position
C. One PRSOV deactivated in OPEN position

13. ENG anti-ice valve deactivated in the OPEN position through the Manual
Overridemechanism on the PRSOV, so A/c can (Level 2)
A. dispatch with 2 PRSOVS locked in open position
B. dispatch with 1 PRSOVS locked in open position
C. A & B are correct
14. Hot air for the Nacelle anti-ice system is supplied by a dedicated HP
Compressor (HPC) bleed: (Level 2)
A. on the PWl000G, 7th stage.
B. on the PWl000G, 6th stage.
C. on the PWl000G, 8th stage.
15. ln this NEO configuration, one BMC can (Level 2)
A. control& monitor both sides when the other BMC fails.
B. control& monitor both sides with degraded mode when the other BMC fails.
C. control& monitor both sides with limit function when the other BMC fails.
16. For the monitoring, the BMCs read (Level 2)
A. pressure transducers (upstream/downstream of the PRV), Precooler Differential
Pressure and downstream temperature with the Bleed Temperature Sensor (BTS)
B. pressure transducers (upstream/downstream of the PRV), Precooler Differential
Pressure.
C. pressure transducers (upstream/downstream of the PRV), and downstream
temperature with the Bleed Temperature Sensor (BTS)
17. The temperature regulation components are in the pylons : (Level 2)
A. Bleed Temperature Sensor (BTS), the Precooler, Fan air valve, Precooler
Differential Pressure
B. Bleed Temperature Sensor (BTS), the Precooler, Fan air valve.
C. Bleed Temperature Sensor (BTS), Fan air valve, Precooler Differential Pressure
18. Oil Shuttle Valve (JOSV) which modulates (Level 2)
A. the flow of oil to the No. l, 1.5, 2 and Fan Drive Gear System (FDGS) based on
engine power settings.
B. the flow of oil to the No. l, 1.5, 3 and Fan Drive Gear System (FDGS) based on
engine power settings.
C. the flow of oil to the No. l, 1.5 and Fan Drive Gear System (FDGS) based on
engine power settings.
19. The AODV is electrically controlled by the EEC to supply oil to the (Level 2)
A. damper during starting, acceleration and shut it off at high power
B. damper during starting and acceleration and shut it off at low power
C. damper during starting and acceleration and shut it off at minimum idle power
20. Each of Nacelle Anti-Ice Pressure Regulating Shutoff Valves (NAI PRSOV) can
be deactivated in _______ position according to MEL: (Level 2)
A. closed
B. open
C. either open or closed
21. Which statement below is correct? (Level 2)
A. Upper and lower NAI PRSOVs are not interchangeable
B. Upper and lower NAI PRSOVs are interchangeable
C. Upper and lower NAI PRSOVs are interchangeable with certain condition.

22. How can you operate the Nacelle anti-ice system? (Level 1)
A. By ENG ANTI-ICE push button, on ground
B. By ENG ANTI-ICE push button, on ground and in flight
C. By ENG ANTI-ICE push button, in flight only

23. How is the Engine anti-ice work? (Level 3)

A. Electrically controlled and operated by 3th stage high pressure
compressor air
B. Electrically controlled and operated by 6th stage high pressure
compressor air
C. Electrically controlled and operated by 9th stage high pressure
compressor air

24. What are the Nacelle anti-ice pressure regulating shutoff valves (NAI PRSOVs)
for? (Level 3)
A. Upper and lower NAI PRSOVs operate in tandem to control pressure and
airflow of LPC 3th stage air used for inlet anti-ice
B. Upper and lower NAI PRSOVs operate in tandem to control pressure and
airflow of HPC 6th stage air used for inlet anti-ice
C. Upper and lower NAI PRSOVs operate in tandem to control pressure and
airflow of HPC 9th stage air used for inlet anti-ice

25. What are the Nacelle anti-ice remote solenoids and manifold for? (Level 3)
A. To control the opening and closing of the NAI upper and lower PRSOVs
B. To control the opening of the NAI upper and lower PRSOVs
C. To control the closing of the NAI upper and lower PRSOVs
26. Where is Nacelle anti-ice pressure transducers located? (Level 3)
A. The downstream pressure transducer is located downstream of the two
NAI PRSOVs, as the primary role is to monitor NAI PRSOVs position
B. The upstream pressure transducer is located between of the two NAI
PRSOVs, as the secondary role is to figure out which NAI PRSOVs fail
 C. The downstream pressure transducer is located downstream of the two
NAI PRSOVs, as the primary role is to monitor NAI PRSOVs position. The
upstream pressure transducer is located between of the two NAI
PRSOVs, as the secondary role is to figure out which NAI PRSOVs fail
27. How many Fan compartment thermocouples are there in the system? (Level 2)
A. One type K thermocouples, one for both EEC channel. To provide the
EEC with temperature measurement in the fan compartment
B. Two type K thermocouples, one for each EEC channel. To provide the
EEC with temperature measurement in the fan compartment
C. Two type K thermocouples, one for each EEC channel. To provide the
EEC with temperature and pressure measurement in the fan compartment
28. Nacelle anti-ice ducts is segment into: (Level 1)
A. Two sections
B. Three sections
C. Four sections
29. Where is Swirl nozzle attached? (Level 1)
A. Attached to the rear of the inlet cowl at 5:00
B. Attached to upper of inlet cowl at 1:00
C. Attached to the rear of the inlet cowl at 7:00
30. To dispatch aircraft under failure of two engine anti-ice valves? (Level 2)
D. Deactivate the valves in open position through the manual override
mechanism
E. Deactivate the valves in closed position through the manual override
mechanism
F. No dispatch allowed

ATA 36. PNEUMATIC SYSTEM

1. What is the purpose of IP/HP switching? (Level 1)
A. To regulate the output pressure depending on the Fan Air Valve position.
B. To keep sufficient bleed pressure at low engine speed.
C. To regulate the output temperature depending on the configuration of users.
2. Each BMC can control the PRV, the HPV and the (Level 1)
A. Over Pressure Valve (OPV.
B. Intermediate Pressure Check Valve (IPCV.
C. Fan Air Valve (FAV.
3. The cross bleed valve is: (Level 1)
A. Controlled and operated electrically by 1 motors
B. Controlled and operated electrically by 2 motors
C. Controlled electrically, and operated pneumatically

4. The Engine Bleed Air System (EBAS uses: (Level 1)

A. Hydro-pneumatic valves
B. Electro-pneumatic valves
C. Electrical valves
5. Which area has the single detection loop? (Level 1)
A. APU aft supply duct
B. Pylon
C. Wing
6. The aircraft systems are supplied the HP compressor air from (Level 1)
A. Stage 3 and stage 8.
B. Stage 3 and stage 7.
C. Stage 3 and stage 6.

7. How are the position of valves of engine PW1100G bleed system monitored?
(Level 1)
A. By micro switches
B. By pressure transducers
C. By control signal from BMCs
8. The conditioned bleed air supplied by engine PW1100G bleed system is: (Level 2)
A. 150 deg.C, 44 PSI
B. 200 deg.C, 51 PSI
C. 250 deg.C, 75 PSI
9. How does FAV (Fan Air Valve operate? (Level 2)
A. BMC controlled by torque motor based on bleed air temperature
B. Autonomously pneumatic operative based on the controlled temperature thermostat
C. BMC controlled based on the precooler outlet temperature thermostat
10. Which statement below is true? (Level 2)
A. The BMC controls the HPV and PRV in independent mode.
B. The BMC controls the HPV and PRV in order to make sure that the HPV will close when
PRV is controlled closed.
C. The HPV and PRV are pneumatically operated and their operation is independent from
each other.
11. How is the cross bleed valve controlled and operated? (Level 2)
A. Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated
B. Pneumatically controlled and operated
C. Electrically controlled and operate
12. When APU bleed P/B is selected ON with Cross Bleed Valve rotary selector in
AUTO position, lower ECAM BLEED page indicates: (Level 2)
A. APU bleed valve open then the cross bleed valve open.
B. APU bleed valve open but the cross bleed valve not open.
C. Cross bleed valve open then APU bleed valve open.
13. In NEO configure 1 BMC can control and monitor: (Level 2)
A. 1 side that relation to.
B. The both sides in sequent.
C. The both sides when the other BMC fails.
14. BMC has: (Level 2)
A. 01 Channel.
B. 02 Channels A and B which the same function.
C. Channel A Main control, Channel A Backup control, Chanel B.
15. PRV is closed when: (Level 2)
A. HPV failed open.
B. Dual BTS channels failed.
C. Either Associated Starer Air Valve (SAV not Closed, HPV failed open or Dual BTS
channels failed.
16. Which Pneumatic leak detection is NOT double loop: (Level 2)
A. Wing loop.
B. Pylon loop.
C. APU loop.
17. IAW MEL, the aircraft can be dispatched with the defective High Pressure Valve
(HPV is deactivated in the following position: (Level 2)
A. Open.
B. Close.
C. Open or close depending on ice condition forecast during flight.
18. The OPV is: (Level 2)
A. Pneumatically operated, torque motor controlled and monitored by BMC.
B. Pneumatically operated, solenoid controlled and monitored by BMC.
C. Pneumatically operated.
19. On NEO aircrafts, to detect the hot air leakage in pylon there is(are: (Level 2)
A. Single loop that connected to the related BMC.
B. 2 loops and monitored by both BMCs.
C. 2 loops that connected to the related BMC for redundancy.
20. Hot air for nacelle anti-ice system on PW1100G engines supplied from (Level 2)
A. A/C bleed air system
B. Dedicated bleed air from LPC stage 3
C. Dedicated bleed air from HPC stage 6
21. For PW 1130 Engine, HPV is: (Level 2)
A. Electric control and Bleed Pressure open
B. Bleed Pressure control and open
C. Electric control and open
22. For PW 1130 Engine, when one BMC has failed(Level 2)
A. Remain BMC can control & monitor both side
B. Related PRV close
C. Related PRV open
23. What condition causes the engine PRV to close pneumatically? Level 3
A. Respective fire pushbutton guarded
B. Cross bleed valve in manual mode and engine PRV in auto-mode
C. In case of impending reserve flow to the engine1

24. What is the Differential pressure sensor (DPS for? (Level 3)

A. BMC uses the signal of DPS to control IP/HP switching
B. DPS monitors the pressure, control the OPV position
C. DPS monitors the pressure, control the PRV position and make sure that no reverse flow
occurs

25. When an APU duct leak is detected during engine start from APU bleed: (Level 3)
A. APU bleed and cross feed valves remain open
B. APU bleed and cross feed valves close
C. APU bleed valve closes and cross feed opens

26. Bleed monitoring control (BMC embedding: (Level 3)

A. Digital control channel is a full digital channel embedding all the control and monitoring
function to meet system requirements
B. Hardware safety part is a fully hardware part able to detect the system over-temperature
C. Two channels: Digital control channel (CHA is a full digital channel embedding all the
A. 4th and 9th stage of HPC
B. 5th and 10th stage of HPC
control and monitoring function to meet system requirements; Hardware safety part
(CHB is a fully hardware part able to detect the system over-temperature and is fully
independent from software part

27. What is the design principle of the bleed leak detection loop? (Level 1)
A. Resistance.
B. Pressure.
C. Capacitor.
28. IP Check Valve connect to: (Level 3)
A. HPC Stage HP3.
B. HPC Stage HP6.
C. LPC Stage LP2.
29. BMC was finding about reverser flow by: (Level 3)
A. DPS: DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE SENSOR.
B. BMPS: BLEED MONITORINC PRESSURE SENSOR.
C. BPS: BLEED PRESSURE SENSOR.
30. System pressure monitoring by BMC base on: (Level 3)
A. BPS: BLEED PRESSURE SENSOR.
B. BTS: BLEED TEMPERATURE SENSOR.
C. DPS: DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE SENSOR.
31. BMC used Temperature to position FAV from: (Level 3)
A. BMPS: BLEED MONITORINC PRESSURE SENSOR.
B. BTS: BLEED TEMPERATURE SENSOR.
C. BPS: BLEED PRESSURE SENSOR.
32. HP Valve connect to: (Level 3)
A. HPC Stage HP4.
B. LPC Stage LP2.
C. HPC Stage HP8.
33. Customer bleed for engine PW1100G are: (Level 3)
A. 3th and 8th stage of HPC
34. How can you operate the Nacelle anti-ice system? (Level 3)
A. By ENG ANTI-ICE push button, on ground
B. By ENG ANTI-ICE push button, on ground and in flight
C. By ENG ANTI-ICE push button, in flight only
35. How is the Engine anti-ice work? (Level 3)
A. Electrically controlled and operated by 3th stage high pressure compressor air
B. Electrically controlled and operated by 6th stage high pressure compressor air
 C. Electrically controlled and operated by 9th stage high pressure compressor air
36. In this NEO configuration, one BMC can: (Level 2)
A. Control and monitor both sides when the other BMC fails
B. Report the failure independently of each other
C. Both answers are correct
37. Which Engine Bleed Air System sensor is used by BMC for overpressure alarms?
(Level 2)
A. Bleed Pressure Sensor (BPS)
B. Bleed Monitoring Pressure Sensor (BMPS)
C. Differential Pressure Sensor (DPS)

ATA 71

1. Features of PW1100G-JM engine are: (Level 1)

A. Axial flow, twin spool turbofan with an ultra-high bypass ratio, low speed gear-
driven fan
B. Axial flow, twin spool turbofan with an ultra-high bypass ratio, high speed gear-
driven fan
C. Axial flow, twin spool turbofan with an low bypass ratio, low speed gear-driven
fan
2. “PW1130G-JM” means: (Level 1)
A. Engine is rated at max thrust of 25300 lbs to install in the Airbus A/C
B. Engine is rated at max thrust of 30000 lbs to install in the Airbus A/C
C. Engine is rated at max thrust of 25000 lbs to install in the Airbus A/C
3. Fan cowls: (Level 2)
A. Each of the 3 fan cowl door latches has a fan cowl door proximity sensor which
is able to detect weather the relative latch is locked to alert the ground crew to
the fan cowl’s position
B. Fan cowl door has two fan cowl door proximity sensors which are able to detect
weather the relative latch is locked to alert the ground crew to the fan cowl’s
position
C. Fan cowl door has a fan cowl door proximity sensor which is able to detect
weather the relative latch is locked to alert the ground crew to the fan cowl’s
position
4. Engine mounts have: (Level 2)
A. The FWD mount assy is attached to the CIC, supports side and vertical loads
and the AFT mount assy is attached to the TEC, reacts to engine force-aft,
side, vertical, roll loads
B. The FWD mountassy is attached to the TEC, supports side and vertical loads
and the AFT mountassy is attached to the CIC, reacts to engine force-aft, side,
vertical, roll loads
C. The FWD mountassy is attached to the CICF, supports side and vertical loads
and the AFT mountassy is attached to the TECF, reacts to engine force-aft,
side, vertical, roll loads

5. Nacelle system components provide the engine with the capabilities: (Level 3)
A. An aerodynamic for engine mounted components
 B. An aerodynamic and protective enclosure for engine mounted components;
Collection and discharge of oil, fuel and hydraulic fluid from the engine and its
components
C. An aerodynamic and protective enclosure for engine mounted components;
Collection and discharge of oil, fuel from the engine and its components.
6. The Aft Engine Mount Assy supports : (Level 3)
A. The engine fore-aft, side, vertical, and roll loads.
B. The engine vertical, and roll loads.
C. The engine side and vertical loads.
7. The aerodynamic station 2.5 locates at : (Level 2)
A. Outlet of LPC
B. Outlet of HPC
C. Outlet of LPT
8. To alert the maintenance staff to fan cowl’s not closed position: (Level 2)
A. Each fan cowl latch has a proximity switch
B. The middle fan cowl latch has a proximity switch
C. Each fan cowl has a proximity switch
9. The primary thrust control parameter of the engine PW1100G is: (Level 2)
A. N1
B. N2
C. EPR
10. ENG PW110G Equips with Aircraft Model: (Level 1)
A. A321 only.
B. A320 only.
C. A319, A320, A321.
11. PW1100G highest Thrust could be set up to: (Level 1)
A. 33.000lb.
B. 23.000lb.
C. 43.000lb.
12. Proximity sensors are installed on each latch of fan cowl doors which sends its
position signal to (Level 2)
A. the Engine lnterface Unit (EIU) & the EEC
B. the EEC
C. the Engine lnterface Unit (EIU)
13. How many Bearing PW1100G has: (Level 1)
A. 8
B. 7
C. 4
14. How many Bearing Compartment PW1100G has: (Level 2)
A. 5
B. 3
C. 7
15. The Fan rotor contributes to approximately (Level 1)
A. 70% of the thrust.
B. 80% of the thrust.
C. 90% of the thrust.
16. How many fan blades are there at the fan rotor? (Level 1)
A. 20
B. 24
C. 36
17. Each half of C ducts includes one translating sleeves, two actuators, (Level 2)
 A. ten blockers doors and cascades.
B. five blockers doors and cascades.
C. five blockers doors and pivoting doors.
18. How many preservation methods are used for the protection of out-of-service
engines? (Level 3)
A. 3: Preserve the engine for 30 days, or 60 days, or 90 days.
B. 2: Preserve the engine for 30 days, or 60 days.
C. 2: Preserve the engine for more than 60 days or for 60 days or less.
19. Each fan cowl door is manually opened, and held open with: (Level 1)
A. Two telescopic hold open rods.
B. One telescopic and one fix hold open rods.
C. Two fix hold open rods.
20. Each thrust reverser cowl door can be opened: (Level 2)
A. By hand and held open with two hold open rods.
B. Using the Door Opening System (DOS) by means of hydraulic hand pump and
held open by one fix hold open rod.
C. Using the Door Opening System (DOS) by means of hydraulic hand pump and
held open by two fix hold open rods.
21. The Engine Drain System collects and discharged fluids from engine and pylon
through drain outlets located: (Level 2)
A. On the sides of the drain mast.
B. On the bottom of the drain mast.
C. On the side and bottom of the drain mast.
22. For PW 1130 Engine, The ENG Drain mast gives a leak path exit for hydraulic, oil
and : (level 3)
A. Fuel component
B. Reverser system actuators
C. Permanent Magnet Altenator (PMA)
23. The PW1000G engine unique design features: (Level 1)
A. An engine fan separated from the low pressure rotor, so that each module
operates at optimal speeds.
B. The engine makes use of a number of composite components including a
composite fan blade, to achieve a significant weight reduction.
C. The unique debris rejection system provides the best erosion protection,
preventing sand, dirt, and other harmful items from reaching the core.
24. Proximity sensors are installed on each latch of fan cowl doors which sends its
position signal to (Level 1)
A. The Engine lnterface Unit (EIU) & the EEC
the EEC
B. The Engine lnterface Unit (EIU)
25. The inlet cone is made of composite material and is anti-iced with a continuous
airflow from (Level 1)
A. The HP compressor stage
B. The 2.5 compressor stage
C. The ram air inlet
26. The FDGS permits the LPC to rotate at a higher speed and (Level 1)
A. Helps in reducing the fan rotating speed .
B. Helps in increasing the fan rotating speed .
C. Helps in remaining the fan rotating speed constant.
27. The forward mount assembly bears (Level 1)
 A. The engine thrust, vertical and lateral loads
B. The engine vertical and radial loads
C. The engine thrust and radial loads
28. The fan rotational speeds being lower (Level 1)
A. Helps in reducing rotational loads and bird strike fan damage.
B. Helps in increasing rotational loads and bird strike fan damage.
C. Helps in reducing rotational loads.
29. The geared turbo fan engine reduces the CO2 and NOx emissions and provides
improved(Level 1)
A. Fuel efficiency and low cost
B. Fuel efficiency and reduces engine noise.
C. Fuel efficiency and reduces flight range
30. Each half of reverser cowl doors: (Level 2)
A. Is held closed by 4 latches
B. Is held open by a hold open rod and an opening actuator
C. Is held open by two hold open rods
31. To open the PW1100G engine’s thrust reverser cowls (Level 2)
A. Slats must be fully retracted
B. Slats must be fully extended
C. Slats can be at any position

32. When opening the engine cowls: (Level 2)

A. Respect the wind limitations and the opening/closing sequence,
B. Always secure cowls with the hold-open rods,
C. Make sure that the slats are retracted and install a warning notice to prevent
slat operation
D. All above
33. Engine drains system provides an aerodynamic drain mast protrudes: (Level 2)
A. Exit holes on the sides and bottom surface which are identified to enable
trouble shooting
B. Exit holes on the sides which are identified to enable trouble shooting
C. Exit holes on the bottom surface which are identified to enable trouble shooting
34. Fluids drained from the power plant are? (Level 2)
A. Fuel, oil or hydraulic
B. Fuel, oil or water
C. Fuel, oil, hydraulic or water
35. The forward mount: (Level 2)
A. Carries the engine torque, thrust and side loads.
B. Carries the engine torque, vertical and side loads.
C. Carries the engine thrust, vertical and side loads.
36. The aft mount: (Level 2)
A. Carries the engine torque, thrust and side loads.
B. Carries the engine torque, vertical and side loads.
C. Carries the engine thrust, vertical and side loads.
37. Fluids drained from the pylon are? (Level 2)
A. Fuel, oil or hydraulic
B. Fuel, oil or water
C. Fuel, hydraulic or water
38. The engine is attached to the pylon by Level 2)
A. FWD and AFT mounts.
 B. FWD, middle and AFT mounts.
C. Three mounts.
39. How many Fan Cowl Door latches are there on PW 1130? (Level 1)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
40. How many Thrust Reverser cowl Door latches are there on PW 1130? (Level 1)
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
41. How many hold open rob on each Reverser cowl? (Level 1)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3

ATA 72

1. How many type of Engine main bearings : (Level 1)

A. Three types of bearing: Roller bearing with alignment and load: axial; Ball
bearing and Tapered roller bearing with alignment and load: axial and radial
B. Three types of bearing: Roller bearing with alignment and load: radial; Ball
bearing and Tapered roller bearing with alignment and load: axial and radial
C. Three types of bearing: Roller bearing with alignment and load radial; Ball
bearing and Tapered roller bearing with alignment and load axial
2. Engine’s main bearing No.1 and No.1.5 are: (Level 3)
A. Oil-damped bearings
B. Tapered roller type
C. Ball type bearings
3. What kind of bearing is used for bearing compartments (4, 5, 6)? (Level 2)
A. Tapered Roller
B. Ball
C. Roller
4. Features of PW1100G engine are: (Level 2)
A. Axial flow, dual-rotor, variable stator, high bypass ratio power plant
B. Radial flow, dual-rotor, variable stator, high bypass ratio power plant
C. Axial flow, dual-rotor, geared fan, variable stator, ultra high bypass ratio power
plant
5. Identify the number of blades in one engine fan set? (Level 1)
A. Thirty six (36)
B. Twenty (20)
C. Twenty two (22)
6. The LPCompressor has how many stages? (Level 1)
A. Only one stage
B. Two stages
C. Three stages
7. The engine rotor comprises (Level 1)
A. A single stage fan rotor, 3 stage LP Compressor,8 stage HP
Compressor,2 stage HP turbine and 3 stage Lp turbine.
 B. A single stage fan rotor, 3 stage LP Compressor,9 stage HP Compressor,2
stage HP turbine and 3 stage Lp turbine.
C. A single stage fan rotor, 4 stage LP Compressor,8 stage HP Compressor,2
stage HP turbine and 3 stage Lp turbine.
8. The primary structure of the PW1100G-JM engine are: (Level 2)
A. FIC ( Fan Intermadiate Case) and TIC ( Turbine Intermediate Case)
B. CIC ( Compressor Intermediate Case) and TEC ( Turbine Exhaust Case)
C. Fan case and TIC ( Turbine Intermediate Case)
9. The Fan Drive Gear System (FDGS) is made up of: (Level 2)
A. A central gear surrounded by three star gears which are supported by journal
bearings
B. A central sun gear surrounded by five star gears which are supported by journal
bearings and an outer ring gear
C. A central sun gear surrounded by five star gears which are supported by an
outer ring gear
10. What is No. 4 Roller Bearing assembly support? (Level 3)
A. The rear of HPT rotor and contains the No. 4 Bearing support, attached to the
inner case
B. The rear of LPT rotor and contains the No. 4 Bearing support, attached to the
outer case
C. The rear of LPT rotor and contains the No. 4 Bearing support, attached to the
inner case

11. How the Engine main gearbox (MGB) are driven by? (Level 3)
A. N1 rotor.
B. N2 rotor via the transfer gear box
C. The Angle gearbox (AGB) extracts power from HPC and provides it to the MGB
through a series of gear shafts

12. What is the purpose of Compressor Intermediate Case (CIC)? (Level 3)

A. Providing a flow path for engine core airflow coming from the LPC to the HPC
B. Providing a flow path for engine core airflow coming from the Fan Intermediate
Case (FIC) to the LPC
C. Neither A nor B
13. The PW1100G-JM engine’s stage counting is as follow: (Level 3)
A. 1-4-9-1-5
B. 1-G-4-10-2-5
C. 1-G-3-8-2-3
14. How to identify the Fan blade No.1? (Level 1)
A. The number is vibro-peened on fan hub platform.
B. The number is vibro-peened on fan blade.
C. The number is vibro-peened on retaining lock ring.
15. The PW1100G engine unique design features : (Level 3)
A. An engine fan separated from the low pressure rotor, so that each module
operates at optimal speeds.
B. The engine makes use of a number of composite components including a
composite fan blade, to achieve a significant weight reduction.
C. The unique debris rejection system provides the best erosion protection,
preventing sand, dirt, and other harmful items from reaching the core.
 16. Which component does help in improving engine performance by reducing fan
rotating speed and permitting LPC to higher speed? (Level 2)
A. Fan Exit Guide Vane (VIGV)
B. Variable Inlet Guide Vanes (VIGV)
C. Fan Drive Gear System (FDGS)
17. What is true regarding the PW1100G Fan blades? (Level 3)
A. Solid laminate composite structured with titanium strip reinforced on the leading
edge.
B. Partially hollow and made of aluminum and a titanium strip is bonded to the
leading edge.
C. Partially hollow and made of titanium with a steel strip is bonded to the leading
edge.
18. Fan Drive Gear System (FDGS) basically is: (Level 3)
A. Worm gearbox
B. Differential gearbox
C. Planetary gearbox
19. The FDGS is a reduction gear mechanism which comprises of a central sun gear
and (Level 1)
A. Five planetary gears arranged like a star
B. Four planetary gears arranged like a star
C. Six planetary gears arranged like a star

ATA 73
1. Power supplies to EEC: (Level 2)
A. From the Permanent magnet alternator (PMA) only
B. From the aircraft or from the Permanent magnet alternator (PMA) as a backup
supply
C. From the Permanent magnet alternator (PMA) or from the aircraft as a backup
supply
2. What is Integrated fuel pump and control (IFPC) for? (Level 3)
A. IFPC supplies metered fuel flow to the engine as scheduled by the EEC
B. IFPC supplies pressurized fuel to engine component actuators
C. Both answer are correct
3. How is Return to tank (RTT) valve controlled? (Level 3)
A. The RTT valve is controlled by EEC (12)
B. The RTT valve is controlled by EEC, and is actuated based on aircraft altitude,
ambient temperature and fuel flow
C. The RTT valve is controlled by FQIC and EEC, and is actuated based on
aircraft altitude, ambient temperature and fuel flow

4. The fuel metering valve located in IFPC and controlled by: (Level 2)
A. EIU
B. EEC
C. PHMU
5. To minimize the build-up of carbon in the combustion chamber and to reduces
toxic gas emissions at engine shutdown: (Level 3)
A. Remaining fuel from the primary and secondary lines is collected and
discharged overboad through drain mast.
B. Remaining fuel from the primary and secondary lines is purged into combustion
chamber.
 C. Remaining fuel from the primary and secondary lines is drained and collected in
recovery tank and reused at next startup.

6. How is the Return-to-Tank (RTT) valve controlled? (Level 3)

A. By the EEC and is actuated based on aircraft altitude, ambient temperature,
and fuel flow.
B. By the PHMU and is actuated based on fuel temperature.
C. By the EIU and is actuated based on fuel temperature.
C. Engine configuration and identification, usage and exceedance historical data , thrust
ratings and vibration monitoring
D. Engine configuration , identification and vibration monitoring
E. Engine configuration and identification, usage and exceedance historical data , thrust
ratings and fan trim balance

7. How do the EEC’s both channels operate at normal mode? (Level 2)

A. They are in active/passive mode
B. They are in active/active mode
C. They are in active/standby mode

8. What data is stored in DSU( Data Storage Unit)? (Level 3)

9. Identify the number of fuel nozzles? (Level 1)

A. Twelve (12)
B. Eighteen (18)
C. Twenty two (22)

10. The ring of vanes of Turbine Nozzle Assembly makes? (Level 3)

A. Changing the direction of the hot gases to provide optimal flow, and pressure to
the 1st stage turbine blades
B. Changing the direction of the hot gases to provide optimal angle, and flow to
the combustion champer
C. Changing the direction of the hot gases to provide optimal angle, pressure, and
flow to the 1st stage turbine blades

11. Where is P2.5/T2.5 probe locate? (Level 1)

A. On Compressor Intermediate Case at 1:00
B. On Compressor Intermediate Case at 6:00
C. On High-pressure Intermediate Case at 1:00
12. PMA (Permanent Magnet Alternator) is cooled by: (Level 2)
A. Fan air
B. 2.5 bleed air
C. Engine oil

13. The PHMU (Prognostics and Health Management Unit ) communicates with EEC
via: (Level 3)
A. ARINC 429 data bus
 B. CAN (Control Area Network ) data bus
C. Ethernet bus

14. The engine inlet pressure (P2) is measured by: (Level 3)

A. P2/T2 probe located at 1 o’clock on inlet cowl
B. Pressure port located on EEC
C. It is not measured directly, instead the EEC calculates P2 from Ps14.
15. What is the function of the PHMU (Prognostics and Health Management Unit)?
(Level 3)
A. To monitor engine oil debris and FDGS lubrication. Also to calculates engine
vibration and fan trim balance solutions.
B. To predict the engine future malfunctions
C. To back up EEC operation.
16. The Pressure Fuel consist of: (Level 2)
A. Fuel cooling, fuel metered and fuel muscle.
B. Fuel cooling, fuel return and fuel cycle.
C. Fuel return, fuel cycle and fuel muscle.
17. Is fuel flow used to cool down IDG oil and engine oil through? (Level 2)
A. Integrated Fuel Pump and Control
B. Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger
C. Return-To-Tank valve
18. The collected fuel remains in ecology collector tank is drawn back into fuel
system when? (Level 3)
A. Next engine start up
B. Last engine shut down
C. Aircraft is energized
19. The FADEC consists of? (Level 3)
A. EEC and PHMU
B. EEC, PHMU and sensors
C. EEC, PHMU, sensors and output drivers
20. The PW110G Engine rating adjusted by: (Level 1)
A. MCDU.
B. DSU.
C. Cannot be adjusted.
21. The EEC and PHMU attached to Engine Fan Case (Level 1)
A. At position 12h O’clock.
B. At position 2h30 O’clock.
C. At position 4h O’clock.
22. The fan speed (Nf) speed sensors send signals direct to (Level 1)
A. The PHMU &EEC.
B. The PHMU.
C. The EEC .
23. How many fuel nozzles are there on PW 1130 Engine? (Level 1)
A. 16
B. 18
C. 20
24. When the fuel filter becomes blocked by contamination: (Level 3)
A. “Fuel filter degraded” message generated on ECAM.
B. "Fuel filter clogged” message generated on ECAM.
 C. “Fuel filter degraded” or "Fuel filter clogged” message generated on ECAM
depending on specific differential pressure values.
25. What is the function of the PHMU (Prognostics and Health Management Unit)?
(Level 3)
A. To monitor engine oil debris and FDGS lubrication, also to calculates engine
vibration and fan trim balance solutions.
B. To predict the engine future malfunctions
C. To back up EEC operation.

F. engine configuration and identification, usage and exceedance historical data,

thrust ratings and vibration monitoring.
G. engine configuration, identification and vibration monitoring.
H. engine configuration and identification, usage and exceedance historical data,
thrust ratings and fan trim balance configuration.
26. When an output control failure is detected in active channel EEC: (Level 1)
A. The EEC switches to passive/ active operation mode.
B. The EEC switches to active/active operation mode.
C. The EEC switches to standby /active operation mode.
27. What data is stored in DSU (Data Storage Unit)? (Level 1)
28. Normally the EEC is powered from: (Level 2)
A. The Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA) always.
B. The Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA) when N2>12%.
C. The aircraft as a primary supply.
29. Which component divides the fuel to primary and secondary manifold? (Level3)
A. Fuel Metering Valve.
B. Fuel Divider Valve.
C. Pressure Regulating Valve.
30. Data Storage Unit connect to: (Level 3)
A. EEC Chanel A.
B. EEC Chanel B.
C. PHMU.
31. What are(is) kind of different pressure fuel filter clog indication(s) available(Level
1)
A. Degrad
B. Clog &degrad
C. Clog
32. The annular combustion chamber houses(Level 1)
A. 18 fuel nozzles(6 simplex and 12 duplex)
B. 18 fuel nozzles(9 simplex and 9 duplex)
C. 18 fuel nozzles(12 simplex and 6 duplex)

ATA 74

1. Which type is the ignition system? (Level 1)

A. Low voltage, high energy
B. High voltage, low energy
C. High voltage, high energy

2. What happen in case of a surge is detected in flight or during take-off? (Level 3)

 A. Igniters will be powered until 30 seconds after the surge recovers
B. Only one igniter will be powered, the other will be hot standby
C. Igniters will be powered and cut-off immediately after the surge recovers
3. What provide the selection of ignition A/B? (Level2)
A. The EEC
B. The engine control panel
C. The ECAM control panel
4. When using the Manual start ignition selection: (Level 3)

I. EEC Channel A - Igniter 1, EEC Channel B - Igniter 1, EEC Channel A - Igniter 2,

L.
EEC Channel B - Igniter 2.
J. EEC Channel A - Igniter 1, EEC Channel B - Igniter 2, EEC Channel A - Igniter 2,
M.
EEC Channel B - Igniter 1.
K. EEC active channel randomly select the igniters.
N.
A. EEC energizes one of igniters based on logic and aircraft inputs of flap position
B. EEC energizes both igniters based on logic and aircraft inputs of flap position,
cowl anti-ice status, and/or continuous ignition commands
C. EEC energizes both igniters based on logic and aircraft inputs of thrust lever
position, cowl anti-ice status, and/or continuous ignition commands
5. What does Continuous Relight mean? (Level 2)
A. An active ignition system will work continuously.
B. Both ignition systems are selected during engine start.
C. Both ignition systems are demanded to work continuously
6. Each engine equipped with? (Level 1)
A. One ignition system with two igniters
B. Two ignition systems, each has two igniters
C. Two ignition systems with two igniters
7. Ignition system power supply is? (Level 1)
A. 115 V from the aircraft
B. 115 V from engine generator
C. 28 V from the FADEC PMA
8. How many ignition exciter unit are located on PW 1100G engine? (Level 2)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
9. In what conditions is the automatic dual-igniter continuous ignition provided by
EEC? (Level 3)
A. An engine flameout or a surge during takeoff or when fuel cutback due to
Thrust Control Malfunction (TCM)
B. FADEC failure
C. Exciter Unit failure

10. During an autostart on the ground, exciters are alternated as follow: (Level 3)
11. During an auto start on the ground, exciters are alternated as follow: (Level 3)
12. The ignition system has the following number of Ignition Exciter Boxes and
Igniter Plugs: (Level 2)
A. One Ignition Exciter Box and two Igniter plugs
B. Two Ignition Exciter Box and two Igniter plugs
C. One Ignition Exciter Box and one Igniter plugs
 O. During normal engine operation, the valve is closed at start and ATA 75
idle
1. How many start bleed valve on PW1100G? (Level 1)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
2. Which stage the start bleed valve install on? (Level 2)
A. 6th
B. 7th
C. 8th

3. The operating LP compressor stator vane actuator (LPC SVA), if there is a loss of
electrical power? (Level 3)
A. The actuator positions vanes in the full close position for inhibited airflow
through the LPC
B. The actuator positions vanes in the full open fail safe position for maximum
airflow through the LPC
C. Neither A nor B

4. What is the purpose of the 2.5 Bleed valve actuator? (Level 2)

A. Control the LPC bleed valve through the 2.5 bleed valve linkage when
commanded by ECC
B. Control the HPC bleed valve through the 2.5 bleed valve linkage when
commanded by ECC
C. Control the LPT bleed valve through the 2.5 bleed valve linkage when
commanded by ECC

5. Which is bleed air system used to improve engine startup performance? (Level 3)
A. The HPC Bleed air system bleeds 6th stage HPC air
B. The HPC Bleed air system bleeds 8th stage HPC air
C. The LPC Bleed air system bleeds 8th stage HPC air

6. At start, how are the HPC active and passive bleed valve operate? (Level 3)
A. Mechanically spring loaded (fail safe) open
B. Electrically control to close
C. Electrically control to open

7. How is Active clearance control valve operate? (Level 3)

A. Partially open at takeoff and climb, and fully open at cruise
B. Both answer are correct
8. Is the purpose of the Active Clearance Control (ACC) system? (Level 3)
A. To improve compressor efficiency
B. To improve and maintain engine performance
C. To reduce overall engine thermal growth

9. What is 5 major function of air system on PW1100G? (Level 3)

1. increase engine operability and stability,
2. reduce noise from engine
3. cool engine parts
4. improve fuel effiency,
5. remove ingested debris from the airstream.
6. supply bleed air for ESC
7. pressurize and seal bearing compartments
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 7
C. 1, 3, 4, 6, 7

10. What is the fail safe position of 2.5 Bleed valve actuator? (Level 3)
A. Fully Close
B. Fully open
C. 30% open

11. The HPC Stator Vane Actuator can control how many stage of HPC? (Level 1)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
12. What is the purpose of Buffer air heat exchanger? (Level 3)
A. Provides discrete (on/off) control of HPC 3rd Stage bleed air supply to the Bearing
Ventilation System
B. Use station 2.5 bleed air to cool HPC 3rd Stage Air before its delivery to the No4
Bearing housing.
C. Provide cooling buffer air to the engine main bearing compartment and prevent oil
leakage
13. What is the purpose of LPBSOV - Low pressure buffer shutoff valve? (Level 3)
A. Provides discrete (on/off) control of HPC 3rd Stage servo pressure sent
to the LPBSOV
B. Direct buffer air to the Bearing Ventilation System)
C. Provides discrete (on/off) control of HPC 3rd Stage bleed air supply to
the Bearing Ventilation System.
14. How is the inlet cone anti-iced ? (Level 2)
A. The inlet cone is not anti-iced at all.
B. The inlet cone is anti-iced when engine anti-ice pushbutton is pushed on
C. The inlet cone is anti-iced with a continuous flow of 2.5 bleed air.
15. The VVS (Variable Vanes System) actuators of LPC and HPC are : (Level 2)
A. Electrically controlled by EEC and actuated by servo fuel.
B. Electrically controlled by EEC and actuated by P3 pneumatic motive air.
C. Electrically controlled and actuated by EEC .
16. The 2.5 bleed valve actuator commanded by the EEC and actuated: (Level 3)
A. By P3 pneumatic motive air
 B. Electrical motor
C. Servo fuel
17. What is the fail-safe position of LPC Stator Vane System ? (Level 3)
A. Full closed
B. Full open
C. Preselected partially open
18. What is the fail-safe position of 2.5 Bleed Valve ? (Level 3)
A. Full closed
B. Full open
C. Preseted partially open
19. How to improve engine startup performance by the HPC Air System? (Level 3)
A. By 2.5 bleed air valve
B. By two HPC bleed valves
C. By three HPC bleed valve
20. What is the function of HPC bleed valves? (Level 3)
A. Allow HPC 6th Stage air to bleed directly into the core compartment during
engine start
B. Allow HPC 6th Stage air to bleed directly into fan flow during engine
start
C. Allow HPC 3rd Stage air to bleed directly into the core compartment
during engine start
21. How does EEC monitor the position of HPC bleed valves? (Level 3)
A. By thermocouple sensors
B. By pressure sensors
C. There is no position feedback to EEC
22. The ACC (Active Clearance Control) System uses fan air to : (Level 3)
A. Cool turbine’s blades and vanes
B. Cool turbine cases to improve the fuel efficiency
C. Cool bearing compartments
23. What is the fail-safe mode of the ACC(Active Clearance Control) valve and
actuator ? (Level 3)
A. Closed
B. Full open
C. Partially open
24. 2.5 Stage Bleed Valve locates at: (Level 1)
A. Low Pressure Compressor
B. Compressor Intermediate Case
C. High Pressure Compressor
25. The engine inlet cone is anti-iced with (Level 1)
A. Continuous airflow from the 2.5 compressor stage
B. Continuous airflow from the 3 compressor stage
C. Continuous airflow from the 6 compressor stage
26. A single stage Variable Inlet Guide Vanes (VIGVs) which direct the air to the LP
Compressor at the correct angle and (Level 1)
 A. Are controlled by the PHMU
B. Are controlled by the EEC
C. Are not controlled by the EEC
27. No.4 bearing compartment is cooled and sealing by: (Level 1)
A. Buffer air (HPC 3rd stage air cooled by 2.5 bleed air)
B. Buffer air (HPC 3rd stage air cooled by fan air)
C. Buffer air (2.5 bleed air cooled by fan air)
28. To maintain the proper air pressure at bearing compartment Nos. 1,2, 3, and 5/6 for
carbon seals: (Level 3)
A. HPC 3rd Stage air is supplied to archive the function.
B. 2.5 bleed air is used for this function.
C. Depending on power setting 2.5 bleed air or HPC 3rd stage air is used for
bearing compartments sealing/ pressurizing.

ATA 76 – Engine controls.

1. Which computer controls the engine thrust? (Level 2)

A. EEC in both manual and automatic thrust modes
B. FMGC in automatic thrust mode and ECU in manual mode
C. FCU in both manual and automatic thrust modes
2. When the throttle is between two detent points, what position corresponds to the
thrust limit? (Level 2)
A. The upper detent point
B. The lower detent point
C. The actual throttle lever position
3. What does the FMGC compute? (Level 1)
A. N1 limit
B. N1 target
C. N1 command
4. What is the normal engine throttle cruise detent point? (Level 2)
A. CL
B. FLX/MCT
C. TOGA
5. Throttle control system consists of? (Level 3)
A. Throttle control lever, throttle control artificial feel unit, throttle control unit,
electrical harness
B. Throttle control lever, throttle control artificial feel unit, throttle control unit,
electrical harness, EGT thermocouple
C. Throttle control lever, throttle control artificial feel unit, electrical harness
6. In case of overspeed, EEC will control: (Level 1)
A. Thrust Control Malfunction (TCM)/Overspeed TM in IFPC
B. FMV TM in IFPC
C. FDR to stop the fuel in the combustion chamber
7. In case of TCM (Thrust Control Malfunction) on ground, the fuel shut-off valve will be
controlled in: (Level 2)
A. Open position.
B. Closed position.
C. Partially open position.
 8. In case of TCM (Thrust Control Malfunction) in flight, the fuel shut-off valve will be
controlled in: (Level 3)
A. Open position
B. Closed position
C. Partially open position
9. In case of the event of Thrust control malfunction (TCM) on ground: (Level 3)
A. There is no protection, the Thrust lever must be moved forward manually
B. The torque motor shuts down
C. The Engine master switch switches off immediately

ATA 77 - ENGINE MONITORING AND INDICATION

10. What is the N2 speed sensor located on? (Level 2)

A. Main Gearbox
B. N2
C. Angle Gearbox
11. How many speed sensors on PW1100G? (Level 2)
A. 1 N1, 1 N2
B. 2 N1 (one active/one spare), 1 N2
C. 1 N1, 1 N2, 1 Nfan

12. Where is the PHMU located? (Level 2)

A. Fan Case forward the EEC
B. On FWD Avionic Bay
C. Inside the EEC
13. PHMU is monitoring… ? (Level 2)
A. Oil Debris monitoring, Vibration monitoring, Auxiliary Oil pressure Monitoring*
B. Oil Debris monitoring, Auxiliary Oil pressure Monitoring
C. Oil Debris monitoring, Vibration monitoring

14. How many EGT thermocouple on PW1100G? (Level 1)

A. 4
B. 6
C. 2
15. What is the Cold Junction Compensation to compute EGT? (Level 3)
A. Main Oil temp Sensor
B. T3 temp sensor
C. Fuel temp sensor
16. How many vibration sensors on PW1100G? (Level 1)
A. 02 - at aft and forward
B. 01 - at core
C. 02 - at core and fan case

17. The engine primary parameters are displayed on? (Level 1)

A. The lower ECAM engine page
B. The upper ECAM
C. Both The lower ECAM engine page and the upper ECAM

18. The engine page is selected? (Level 1)

A. Manually or automatically depend on flight phases
B. Manually only
C. Automatically only depend on flight phases
19. The engine “N2 SPEED” parameter is displayed on? (Level 1)
A. The Upper ECAM
B. The Lower ECAM engine page
C. The Lower ECAM engine page or Cruise page

20. The engine oil quantity parameters are displayed on? (Level 1)
A. The Upper ECAM
B. The Lower ECAM engine page
C. The Lower ECAM engine page or Cruise page
21. The IGN indication is displayed on? (Level 2)
A. The Upper ECAM during engine start
B. The Lower ECAM engine page during engine start
C. The Lower ECAM engine page or Cruise page

22. The fuel used indication is reset to Zero: (Level 2)

A. Five minutes after engine shut down
B. After a new take-off
C. At each engine start
23. The engine thrust indicated on ECAM via what parameter? (Level 3)
A. N1 speed
B. N2 speed
C. EGT
24. For PW 1130 Engine, with the Ignition system of the engine is supply with power as
follows: (Level 2)
A. 115 V from the A/C electrical system
B. 115 V from PMA
C. 115 V from PMA or 115 V from the A/C electrical system depend on N2 speed
25. For PW 1130 Engine, the Ignition system is controlled by : (Level 2)
A. EEC
B. EIU
C. PMA
26. A fan cowl loss prevention system is installed with: (Level 3)
A. Mechanically with a flag only
B. Mechanically with a flag and Electrcally monitored by proximity switches
C. Electrcally monitored by proximity switches only
27. The fan speed (Nf) is used: (Level 2)
A. By the EEC to detect decoupling of the fan shaft and by the PHMU to calculate trim
balance solutions .
B. By the EEC to control the thrust.
C. By the EEC for indication.
28. The engine EGT is sensed and averaged by (Level 1)
A. Five thermocouple probes (T5 probes)
B. Four thermocouple probes (T5 probes)
C. Six thermocouple probes (T5 probes)
29. EEC and PHMU are cooled by: (Level 2)
A. Natural Convection.
B. Individual Air Tube.
C. Air Conditioning.

30. Sensor T3 transmits signal: (Level 3)

A. Of temperature from 3rd stage of HPC.
B. Of temperature from last stage of HPC.
C. Of temperature from 3rd stage of LPT.
31. The PHMU (Prognostics and Health Management Unit) communicates with EEC via:
(Level 3)
A. ARINC 429 data bus
B. CAN (Control Area Network) data bus
C. Ethernet bus
32. The N1& N2 speed sensors send signals direct to(Level 1)
A. The EEC
B. The PHMU.
C. The PHMU &EEC .
33. If the signal from one vibration sensor (either forward or aft vibration sensor) is
lost during engine operation,the display for the affected sensor will be presented in
(Level 1)
A. Degraded mode.
B. Normal mode
C. Cross amber
34. What are indication ENG speed sensors on the ECAM. (Level 1)
A. Nf& N2
B. N1 & N2
C. N1 , N2 &Nf

35. What are purposes of Prognostics and Health Management Unit (PHMU)? (Level 2)
A. Monitor and process levels for engine oil debris and rotor vibration
B. Calculate fan trim balance solutions
C. Respond to requests from avionics system that are received through EEC
D. All of above
36. Which sensor is used by the EEC to measure compressor discharge temperature
for total temperature calculation : (Level 2)
A. T2 sensor
B. T2.5 sensor
C. T3 sensor

ATA 78 – REVERSER

1. For PW 1130 Engine, When slats are extended, can you fully open reverser cowls?
(Level 3)
A. Yes
B. No, you must not open the reverser cowl when the slats are extended
C. Yes, if open by hand
 2. Where is HCU Inhibit Lever located in? (Level 2)
A. On HCU
B. On RH fan case
C. On LH Fan case
3. How many Hold Open Rod on each Reverser half? (Level 1)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
4. How many blocker door on each reverser half? (Level 1)
A. 5
B. 6
C. 4
5. How many latches are used to fully closed reversers? (Level 1)
A. 7
B. 5
C. 6

6. How many locking actuator installed in 1 engine? (Level 2)

A. 1 on LH Reverser only
B. 2
C. 1 on RH Reverser only
7. How many locking feedback actuator install in 1 engine? (Level 2)
A. 1 on RH side only
B. 2
C. 1 on LH side only
8. Two Translating sleeves of engine are synchronized by: (Level 3)
A. Flexible shafts
B. Latching system
C. They are not synchronized at all.
9. The Tertiary Lock system is controlled by: (Level 1)
A. EEC
B. EIU
C. SECs
10. For maintenance the reversers can be deployed and stowed manually on the ground
by: (Level 1)
A. Using the Manual Drive Units (MDU) located on the lower actuators
B. The test initiated on MCDU
C. Using the Manual Drive Units (MDU) located on the upper actuators
11. Deactivation of the Hydraulic Control Unit (HCU) is provided by: (Level 2)
A. An inhibit lever and inhibit pin
B. Inhibit pin
C. An inhibit handle to provide to lock out the DCV( Directional Control Valve)
12. Two Translating sleeves of engine are synchronized by: (Level 3)
A. Flexible shafts
B. Latching system
C. They are not synchronized at all.
13. For de-activation thrust reverser Hydraulic Control Unit (HCU), we need to(Level 1)
 A. Open the oil tank access-door on the left fan cowl-door, or if necessary, open the
fan cowl doors
B. Open the RH fan cowl door.
C. Open engine thust reserve doors
14. Track Lock Valve (TLV) solenoids are controlled independently by SEC. (Level 2)
A. Independently by EECs.
B. Independently by LGCIUs.
C. Independently by SEC.

ATA79: OIL SYSTEM

1. Which computer control JOSV? (Level 2)

A. EEC
B. EIU
C. No computer, only mechanical
2. How many warning level can main oil filter triggered? (Level 2)
A. None
B. Clogged
C. Degraged and Clogged

3. What is the type of bearing in FDGS? (Level 3)

A. Journal Bearing
B. Tapered roller bearing
C. Oil firm Bearing
4. Which computer control VORV? (Level 3)
A. No computer, only mechanical
B. EEC
C. EIU
5. What is the Fail Safe position of VORV? (Level 3)
A. Fully Open
B. Fully Close
C. 30% open
6. What is the new component on Oil Monitoring system compare to V2500? (Level 3)
A. Master Magnetic Chip Detector
B. Oil Debris Monitoring
C. Last Chance Strainer
7. For PW 1130 Engine, The Starter Air oil system is: (Level 3)
A. Independent
B. Using with Engine Oil System
C. Using IDG Oil System
8. How many pump inside the Journal Bearing? (Level 1)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
9. What is the pressure maintain on oil tank assembly by Deaerator? (Level 2)
A. 8 psi
B. 12 psi
C. 20 psi
 10. Which side of engine where most of oil system component installed in? (Level 2)
A. LH side
B. RH side
C. Both side
11. How many pump stage on LSOP? (Level 3)
A. 1 supply pump and 6 scavenge pumps
B. 2 supply pumps and 5 scavenge pumps
C. 1 supply pump and 5 scavenge pumps
12. What is the purpose of the Auxiliary Lubrication System? (Level 1)
A. To protects the FDGS journal bearings from low oil pressure conditions in windmilling
operation.
B. To provide correct oil flow to the Fan Drive Gear System and the No. 3 Bearing.
C. To controls oil flow to the No. 3 Bearing damper
13. What is function of the Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger Bypass Valve (FOHEBV)? (Level 1)
A. To control and distribute oil flow between two pathways based on fuel temperature
B. To direct the oil to journal bearings, ensuring their lubrication at low power setting
C. To controls oil flow to the No. 3 Bearing damper.
14. The Oil Debris Monitoring (ODM) sensor (Level 1)
A. Sends signals proportional to size and type of the pollution particles to the HMU
B. Sends signals proportional to size and type of the pollution particles to the EIU
C. Sends signals proportional to size and type of the pollution particles to the PHMU
15. Which mechanical device keeps a continuous supply of oil to the fan drive journal
bearings from the auxiliary oil supply in windmill (Level 1)
A. JOSV
B. AODV
C. VORV
16. For PW 1130 Engine, the signal from the Oil Debris Monitoring Sensor (ODMS)
sends to : (Level 3)
A. EEC
B. PHMU
C. EIU
17. The Main Oil Temperature (MOT) sensor is a dual channel sensor and is used
to(Level 1)
A. Measure the temperature of the scavenge oil returning to the tank
B. Measure the temperature of the lubrication oil pressure from the tank
C. Measure the pressure of the scavenge oil returning to the tank
18. The No. 4 bearing magnetic chip collector is located (Level 1)
A. The lubrication and scavenge oil pump, at the 6 o'clock position..
B. In the No. 4 bearing oil scavenge line.
C. Exist in supply oil.
19. Is fuel flow used to cool down IDG oil and engine oil through? (Level 2)
A. Integrated Fuel Pump and Control
B. Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger
C. Return-To-Tank valve
20. Which component modulates flow of oil based on engine power settings? (Level
2)
A. VORV/JOSV
B. FOHEBV
C. IDGOOHE
21. Oil Debris Monitoring Sensor: (Level 2)
A. Detects any type of pollution that crossed its electromagnetic field
 B. Detects any type of pollution between the main oil scavenge line and oil supply
line
C. Sends signal corresponding to ferrous and non-ferrous debris to EEC

ATA 80: START

1. What is the different in starting sequence of PW1100G with V2500? (Level 3)
A. Cooling time (auto dry cranking)
B. Ignition sequence
C. High pressure bleed air
2. How can we manual open Start valve? (Level 2)
A. By an access door in RH fan cowl
B. By an access door in LH Reverser
C. By an access door in RH Reverser
3. Air Starter used oil for cooling and lubricating from… ? (Level 3)
A. Starter lubricating system
B. Engine Lubricating system.
C. IDG lubricating system
4. Start valve control by (Level 3)
A. Torque motor
B. Solenoid
C. LVDT
5. What is fail safe position of Starter Valve? (Level 3)
A. Fully closed.
B. Do not have fail safe position
C. Partition open
6. EGT limit during engine start is : (Level 2)
A. 635 deg.C
B. 725 deg.C
C. 1083.33 deg.C
7. The normal duty cycle of starter of the engine PW1100G is: (Level 1)
A. Three attempts with 35 seconds cooling period between two attempts and total
cumulative time is less than 15 min.
B. Three attempts , each attempt last less than 3 minutes with 35 seconds cooling period
between two attempts .
C. Three attempts , each attempt last less than 5 minutes with 35 seconds cooling period
between two attempts .
8. The Air Starter is mounted on (Level 2)
A. the right side aft of the MGB
B. the left side aft of the MGB
C. the fan cowl area
9. The EEC will abort a start, will not dry motor the engine and will not attempt a restart
if (Level 3)
A. the starter duty cycle is exceeded.
B. EEC unable to control fuel flow.
C. N 1 locked rotor.
10. When an automatic start is manually aborted. (Level 1)
A. EEC does dry motor the engine
B. EEC does not dry motor the engine
C. EEC does wet motor the engine
 11. The usual starter duty cycle is 3 starter crank cycles and (Level 2)
A. 60 seconds cooling period between each start attempt
B. 35 seconds cooling period between each start attempt
C. 45 seconds cooling period between each start attempt
12. “Dual Cooling” mode during engine start: (Level 2)
A. ECAM Memo “DUAL COOLING” is displayed
B. Select DUAL COOLING P/B to ON, “COOLING” sequence starts after initiating
engine start sequence
C. Select DUAL COOLING P/B to ON, “COOLING” sequence starts on both engine
13. How does the starter operate? (Level 2)
A. Hydraulically
B. Electrically
C. Pneumatically