Delhi Judicial Service Exam, 2023

Mock Test Paper 3

1. Decision on questions as to disqualifications of membership of either House of

Parliament rests with the__________.

(a) Chief Justice of India

(b) House of Parliament Concerned

(c) Election Commission on the recommendations of the Speaker/Chairman

(d) President after consultation with the Election Commission

2. What is the maximum possible strength of the Legislative Assembly of a State?

(a) 545 members

(b) 400 members

(c) 500 members

(d) 425 members

3. Disqualification on the ground of defection for a Member of Parliament will not

apply________.

(a) If he abstains from voting in the House contrary to the direction of the political
party

(b) If he has voluntarily given up his membership of a political party

(c) If a nominated member of a House joins a political party after six months

(d) In case of split in the original political party to which concerned member is
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elected

4. The Rajya Sabha has exclusive jurisdiction in___________.

(a) Approving a proclamation of Emergency

(b) The election of Vice-President

(c) Creation and abolition of States

(d) Authorizing Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State List

5. Which one of the following is directly related to the Appellate jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court?

(a) Appeals made in Civil, Criminal and Constitutional Cases

(b) Appeals made in disputes between the Union and a State on one side and other
States on the other side

(c) Adjudication of disputes between the States

(d) Adjudication of disputes between the Union and the States

6. Which one of the following statements regarding the judicial review in India is
NOT correct?

(a) Legislative enactments and executive orders may be struck down by the
Supreme Court

(b) Unanimous opinion of all the judges is necessary for declaring a law null and
void

(c) This power is implicit in the provisions of Article 13 of the Constitution

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(d) A case must be brought before the Supreme Court regarding the validity of a
law

7. Which one of the following items comes under the Concurrent List of the Indian
Constitution?

(a) Inter-State rivers

(b) Local Government

(c) Trade Unions

(d) Citizenship

8. Which one of the following is NOT the concern of local government?

(a) Public Utility Services

(b) Sanitation

(c) Public Health

(d) Maintenance of Public Order

9. Which one of the following statements regarding the status of the relationship
between Fundamental rights and Directive Principles of State Policy is Correct?

(a) Directive Principles cannot get priority over Fundamental Rights in any case

(b) Directive Principles always get Priority over Fundamental Rights

(c) Fundamental Rights always get Priority over Directive Principles

(d) In some cases, Directive Principles may get priority over Fundamental Rights

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10. It is mandatory for the Governor to reserve a bill for the consideration by the
President if such a Bill affects

(a) The rate of land revenue

(b) Powers of High Court

(c) The powers of the Advocate General of the State

(d) The amount of salary paid to the Members of Legislative Assembly

11. Which of the following directive principles of States Policy were added by
42nd Amendment?

1. Participation of workers in the management of industry

2. Minimizing inequality of income and status

3. Protection of environment

4. Free legal aid to poor

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

12. Which one of the following are the exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha?

1. To introduce Money bills

2. To ratify the declaration of emergency

3. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers

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4. To impeach the President

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

13. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

(a) First Schedule—List of State and Union Territories of Union

(b) Second Schedule—Functions and powers of Election Commission

(c) Seventh Schedule—Division of powers between the Union and the States

(d) Tenth Schedule—Anti defection Law

14. The Planning Commission was established by __________.

(a) An act of Parliament

(b) An Ordinance issued by the President

(c) A resolution of Union Council of Ministers

(d) The provisions of the Constitution

15. How many subjects have been included in the 11th Schedule of Constitution,
under the jurisdiction of Panchayati Raj institution?

(a) 19

(b) 29

(c) 39
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(d) 49

16. Which of the following combinations are correctly matched –

a. Equity of judgment –Section 49 C.P.C.

b. Privileged documents – Section 29 C.P.C.

c. Legal representative – Section 50 C.P.C.

d. Pauper suit –Section 33 C.P.C.

17. Which section of Civil Procedure Code prohibits arrest or detention of women
in the execution of decree for money?

a. Section 55

b. Section 56

c. Section 59

d. Section 60

18. Section 114 of Code of Civil Procedure should be read with –

a. Order 46 Rule 1

b. Order 47, Rule 1

c. Order 47, Rule 3

d. Order 41

19. Caveat shall not remain in force after expiry of –

a. Ninety days
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b. Sixty days

c. Thirty days

d. Fifteen days

20. Where the plaint has been rejected the plaintiff on the same cause of action –

a. May file new suit

b. Can’t file new suit

c. May present with the leave of High Court

d. None of these

21. In a suit, which relates to a railway, the authority to be named as plaintiff or

defendant shall be –

a. The General Manager of the Railway

b. A Secretary to the Central Government

c. The Collector of the District

d. The Station Master of the Railway

22. During service of summons defendant was found absent from his residence
and within reasonable time no chance to get back at his residence, service of the
summons may be made on –

a. On servant

b. Minor daughter

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c. Adult son

d. Munim

23. A Suit may be dismissed where, after a summons has been issued to the
defendant and returned unserved, plaintiff falls the apply for fresh summons for the
period of –

a. Seven days

b. Sixty days

c. One month

d. Two months when the plaintiff fails to apply for fresh summons from the court

24. Where any party dies after conclusion and before pronouncing Judgment –

a. The suit shall abate

b. The suit shall not abate

c. The suit shall not abate if cause of action survives

d. It depends on the discretion of the court whether is shall abate or not

25. Where an indigent person succeeds, the court fee shall be recovered –

a. From the defendant

b. By the State govt.

c. Not recoverable

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d. From the plaintiff

26. Appointment of receivers of any property can be made when –

a. Before decree

b. After decree

c. Only appellate court can made order

d. It appears to the court to be just and convenient whether before or after decree

27. Any objection of interrogatories may be taken on the ground that it is:

a. Irrelevant

b. Scandalous

c. Not exhibited bonafide

d. All or any of those

28. A decree can be:

a. Preliminary

b. Final

c. First preliminary then final

d. Either preliminary or final

29. Principle of res judicata applies:

a. To suits only

b. To execution proceedings only

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c. To arbitration proceedings only

d. To suit as well as execution proceedings

30. In case of failure of filing the written statement within thirty days, the
defendant can be allowed to file the same on such other day specified by the court
for reasons recorded in writing, which shall not be later than:

a. 45 days

b. 60 days

c. 90 days

d. 120 days

31. Punishment provided for voyeurism is –

(a) Imprisonment for a term not less than one year on first conviction
(b) Imprisonment for a term not less than three years on second conviction
(c) Death
(d) Both (a) or (b)

32. Which of the following would amount to an offence of stalking?

(a) Repeatedly following a woman with the intention to foster personal interaction
(b) Conversation with the woman using words favouring sexual intimacy
(c) Using means to allure woman to have sexual relations
(d) Both (a) or (b)

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33. Which of the following is true with respect to grievous hurt?
(a) Grievous hurt includes hurt
(b) Section 320 provides for 6 kinds of hurt
(c) Grievous hurt includes hurt which causes the sufferer to be in severe pain
for 10 days
(d) All of the above

34. A threat to injure the reputation of any deceased person in whom the person
threatened is interested would amount to -

(a) criminal intimidation

(b) defamation
(c)assault
(d) battery

35. A Thug is one who is habitually associated with any other or others for
(a) committing theft
(b) child stealing by means of or accompanied with murder
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Both (a) & (b)

36. For the purpose of offence of acid attack, the term acid as defined in the Penal
Code does not include –

(a) any substance of acidic, corrosive or burning nature

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(b) any substance capable of causing bodily injury leading to scars or
disfigurement or temporary or permanent disability
(c) neither (a) or (b)
(d) both (a) & (b)

37. Which of the following is correct with respect to wrongful restraint and
wrongful confinement?

(a) Wrongful restraint is not a form of wrongful confinement

(b) Wrongful restraint is a more serious offence than wrongful confinement
(c) In wrongful confinement, a person is merely restricted to proceed in a particular
direction while in wrongful restraint, a person is restrained from moving beyond a
certain area within which he is confined.
(d) All of the above

38. A person is said to have “reason to believe” a thing –

(a) If he has sufficient cause to believe that thing

(b) If he has sufficient cause to believe and even otherwise

(c) If he has sufficient cause to believe but not otherwise

(d) None of above

39. Which of the following is ‘common object’ as defined in section 141 of I.P.C?

(a)Resistance to execution of any law or legal process

(b) Commission of the offence of mischief

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 (c)Compelling any person to do an act which he is not legally bound to do by
use of criminal force

(d) All the above

40. A, intending to cause a theft to be committed, instigates B to take property

belonging to Z, out of Z’s possession. A induces B to believe that the property
belongs to A. B takes the property out of Z’s possession in good faith believing it
to be A’s property. In this case –

(a) A is not guilty of an offence but B is guilty of committing theft

(b) B is not guilty for committing theft but A is guilty of abetting theft

(c) Both A and B are guilty of committing theft

(d) None of the above

41. B abets A to murder C and A kills another man D believing him to be C, but he
happened to be a friend of A and B who had no malice against him and were even
sorry that he was killed. In this case –

(a) B would be liable for abetment and A would be liable for murder

(b) Both A and B would be liable for murder

(c) Neither A nor B will be liable for murder as they had no mens rea.

(d) Only A will be held liable for offence of murder

42. A, by putting B in fear of death induces B to burn a stock of corn belonging to

Z kept inside the hoarse where Z is sleeping. Here,

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(a) A is liable for abetting B to burn the stock of corn and also for putting B under
fear of death.

(b) A is liable for abetting B to burn the stock of corn

(c) A is liable for abetment by instigation

(d) None of the above

43.A orders B to take a loaded gun and waylay C and rob him. C was armed with a
sword and A cautions B on account to kill him unless to save himself. B attacks C,
whereupon C draws his sword and B then fires and kills C and also robs him. In
this case –

(a) A is liable for abetment u/s. 111 and 118

(b) A is not liable for abetment but B is liable for murder of C.

(c) Only B is liable for murder of C

(d) Both A and B are liable for murder

44. Which of the following is true with respect to Criminal Conspiracy?

(a) A criminal conspiracy is a continuing offence

(b) Offence of criminal conspiracy is exception to the general law where intent
alone does not constitute crime.

(c) It is impossible to adduce direct evidence of conspiracy.

(d) All of the above

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45. Which of the following is not essential constituent of the offence of gang rape?

(a) offence committed by five persons

(b)offence committed in furtherance of common intention
(c) each of the members of the group will be liable
(d) none of the above
46. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, the term “Offence” includes –

(a) Any act or omission made punishable by any law

(b) Any act and omission made punishable by I.P.C.

(c) Any act or omission made punishable under I.P.C.

(d) None of the above

47. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, Officer in charge of a police station
includes –

(a) Station House Officer or

(b) Officer next in rank to S.H.O and above rank of constable or

(c) Any other Public Officer present as directed by State Government

(d) Either (a) or (b) or (c)

48. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, Public Prosecutor means –

(a) Any person appointed under section 25

(b) Any person acting under the directions of a Public Prosecutor

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Either (a) or (b)

49. Which of the following is true with respect to summons and warrant cases?

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 i. Summons cases being relatively less serious in nature, the trial procedure is
not as elaborate and formal as in warrant cases

ii. Courts have been empowered to use summary procedure in respect of certain
petty cases including mostly summons cases and a few warrant cases

iii. Summons cases means a case relating to an offence punishable with

imprisonment for a term exceeding 1 year

iv. Summons cases may be tried by any Chief Judicial Magistrate, Metropolitan
Magistrate or any Magistrate of the first class specially empowered by High
Court

Choose the correct code –

(a) i, ii and iii

(b) i, ii and iv

(c) ii, iii and iv

(d) All the above

50. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, non cognizable offences are –

(a) Less serious offences

(b) No permission of Court is required to investigate such offences

(c) These offences are generally bailable offences

(d) Both (a) and (c)

51. As per the Code of Criminal Procedure, every metropolitan area shall be –

(a) District or consists of district

(b) A sessions division

(c) A separate sessions division and district

(d) A separate sessions division or district

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52. From the commencement of the Code of Criminal Procedure, which of the
following shall be deemed to be declared to be a metropolitan area?

(a) Bombay

(b) Madras

(c) Ahmedabad

(d) All of the above

53. As per the Code of Criminal Procedure, High Court appoints

(a) Judge of a Court of session

(b) Additional sessions Judges

(c) Assistant sessions Judges

(d) All of the above

54. Who among the following will be empowered by the Sessions Judge to dispose
any urgent appointment in his absence?

(a) Additional or assistant Sessions Judge

(b) Chief Judicial Magistrate

(c) Either (a) or (b)

(d) Both (a) and (b)

55. Who among the following shall establish Courts of JMFC and JMSC?

(a) State Government

(b) High Court

(c) Central Government

(d) State Government in consultation with High Court

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56. In a sub division, every sub divisional Judicial Magistrate shall have
superintendent and control over the work of –

(a) All Judicial Magistrates

(b) JM except Additional CJM

(c) JM except Assistant CJM

(d) JM of first class

57. If A is only charged with cheating and it appears that he committed the offence
of falsification of accounts or that of murder, then in that case –

(a) A can be convicted only for cheating and falsification of accounts and not for
murder

(b) A can be convicted only for cheating and not for falsification of accounts and
murder

(c)A can be convicted for cheating, falsification of accounts and murder.

(d) A cannot be convicted for all three offences together.

58. Every Chief Judicial Magistrate shall be ______ to the Sessions Judge and
every other Judicial Magistrate shall, subject to the _____ of the Sessions Judge, be
_______ to the Chief Judicial Magistrate.

(a) Subordinate, general control, subordinate

(b) Under general control, supervision, subordinate

(c) Subject, supervision, subordinate

(d) Subordinate, control, subordinate

59. For every High Court, the Centre shall appoint –

(a) Public Prosecutor

(b) One or more additional Public Prosecutor

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 (c) Public Prosecutors for any district or local area

(d) All of the above

60. A person shall be eligible to be appointed as a ________ only if he has been in

practice as an advisor for not less than 7 years

(a) Public Prosecutor or an Additional Public Prosecutor

(b) Public Prosecutor or Assistant Public Prosecutor

(c) Public Prosecutor only

(d) Public Prosecutor and Special Public Prosecutor

61. Which of the following principles of natural justice have been laid down in
Section 18 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

(a) Equal treatment of parties

(b)Audi Alteram partem

(c) Only (a)

(d) Both (a) & (b)

62. Which of the following is true?

(a) The tribunal shall not be bound by the Code of Civil procedure, 1908 or the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872

(b)Only the tribunal is empowered to decide the manner in which proceedings may
be conducted

(c) No freedom is given to the parties in conduct of proceedings

(d) The power of the tribunal is very limited and excludes the power to determine
the admissibility, relevance, materiality and weight of any evidence

63. The parties have freedom to choose –

(a) Language to be used in arbitration proceedings

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(b) Venue of arbitration

(c) the procedure for conduct of arbitral proceedings

(d) all of the above

64. When does arbitration commence?

(a) on the date on which a request for arbitration is made

(b) on the date on which a request for the resolution of dispute is received by the
respondent.

(c) on the date on which the letter invoking arbitration is in the course of
transmission

(d) on the date on which an arbitrator is appointed

65. Within how much time are parties required to submit their pleadings?

(a) within the period of time agreed upon by the parties

(b) within the period of time determined by the tribunal

(c) within the period of time agreed upon by the parties or within the period of time
determined by the tribunal

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

66. Which of the following are necessary constituents of pleadings submitted by

parties in arbitration?

(a) Facts supporting claim or defence, points of issue and relief sought

(b) all documents on which the claim is based to be annexed as annexures

(c) any amendment made to the pleadings during the course of arbitral proceedings

(d) all of the above

67. Oral hearings shall be conducted by the tribunal -

(a)on a request by a party

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(b) on it’s own

(c) on giving sufficient advance notice

(d) All of the above

68. The period of limitation for making an application to the Court for appointment
of arbitrator under section 11(5) is prescribed in -

(a) Section 137 of Limitation Act

(b) Section 139 of Limitation Act

(c) Section 141 of Limitation Act

(d) No limitation is prescribed

69. In case of default of the parties, the tribunal is empowered to –

(a) continue with the proceedings on the basis of pleadings of the Claimant upon
default of the Respondent

(b)terminate the proceedings

(c) continue with the proceedings and make the arbitral award on the basis of
evidence before it

(d) all of the above

70. The Expert appointed by the tribunal shall –

(a) be assisted by the parties in preparing a report on the issue

(b) be permitted to participate in the oral hearing for the purpose of answering
questions asked to it on the report

(c) deliver written or oral report

(d) all of the above

71. The Court shall intervene in the arbitral proceedings at the stage of evidence –

(a) on it’s own motion

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(b) upon an application made by the tribunal

(c) upon an application made by a party with the approval of the tribunal

(d) Both (b) and (c)

72. Consider the following statements?

(1) The tribunal is empowered to act as an amiable compositeur under the Act

(2) The tribunal shall decide the dispute ex aequo et bono only if the parties have
authorized it to do so

(3) In international Commercial Arbitrations, the dispute between the parties shall
be decided as per the conflict of laws

(4) The arbitral tribunal is empowered to decide which rules of law to be

applicable to the substance of dispute in case of both domestic and international
commercial arbitrations

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) Only 2

73. The questions of procedure in arbitration shall be decided by –

(a) the majority of the members

(b) the presiding arbitrator

(c) the presiding arbitrator only if authorized by the parties or all the members of
the tribunal

(d) all the members of the tribunal

74. The settlement of the parties during arbitral proceedings-

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(a) shall be recorded in the form of an arbitral award

(b) shall be recorded in the form of an arbitral award on agreed terms

(c) shall be made in accordance with section 31

(d) Both (b) and (c)

75. An arbitral award made under section 31 –

(a) shall have the status of a decree of Court

(b) shall be enforced immediately upon passing of the award under section 31

(c) shall be registered

(d) shall be given to the parties upon payment of fees

76. Who among the following are empowered to fulfil the promise in case of a
joint promise by two or more persons?

(a) All such persons during their joint lives

(b) After the death of any of them, his representative jointly with the survivor or
survivors

(c) After the death of the last survivor the representatives of all jointly, must fulfil
the

promise

(d) All of the above

77. When two or more persons make a joint promise -

(a) the promisee may compel any one or more of such joint promisors to perform
the whole promise

(b) each of two or more joint promisors may compel every other joint promisor to
contribute equally with himself to the performance of the promise, unless a
contrary intention appears from the contract

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(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

78. Which of the following is true?

(a)A contracting party is not obliged to disclose each and everything to the other
party.

(b)Famous Case related to "Mere silence is no fraud" is Keates v The Earl of

Cadogan (1851)

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

79. It is immaterial whether the Indian Penal Code -

(a) is not in force in the place where the coercion is employed

(b) is or is not in force in the place where the coercion is employed

(c) is in force in the place where the coercion is employed

(d) is in force in some other place other than where coercion is employed

80. When a promise is to be performed on a certain day, and the promisor has not
undertaken to perform it without application by the promisee, it is the duty -

(a) of the promisee to apply for the performance at a proper place within the usual
hours of business

(b) of the promisor to apply for the performance at a proper place within the usual
hours of business

(c) of either the promisor or the promisee to apply for the performance at a proper
place within the usual hours of business

(d) None of the above

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81. The performance of any promise may be made in -

(a) a manner prescribed by the promisor

(b) a manner decided by both the parties mutually

(c) any manner, or at any time which the promisee prescribes or sanctions

(d) None of the above

82. A fraudulently informs B that A's estate is free from encumbrance. B thereupon
buys the estate. The estate is subject to a mortgage. In this case –

(a) B may avoid the contract

(b) B may either avoid the contract or may insist on it’s being carried out and the
mortgage-debt redeemed

(c) B may continue with the contract with A

(d) The contract is void and hence unenforceable

83. Section 28 of the Contract Act provides that -

(a) Every agreement which restricts a party absolutely from enforcing his rights
under or in respect of any contract, by the usual legal proceedings in the ordinary
tribunals, is void

(b) Every agreement which limits the time within which a party may enforce his
rights is void

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

84. Which of the following is true?

(a)Section 32 of the Indian Contract Act provides for Enforcement of Contracts

contingent on an event happening

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(b)Section 34 of the Indian Contract Act provides for Enforcement of contract
contingent on an event not happening

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

85. In which of the following cases, the object is unlawful under Section 23 of the
Contract Act?

(a) A promises, for a certain sum paid to him by B, to make goods to B the value of
his ship of it is wrecked on a certain voyage.

(b) A promises to maintain B's child, and B promises to pay A 1,000 rupees yearly
for the purpose.

(c) A, B and C enter into an agreement for the division among them of gains
acquired or to be acquired, by them by fraud.

(d) A promises to obtain for B an employment in the public service and B promises
to pay 1,000 rupees to A.

86. When a party to a contract promises to do a certain thing at or before a

specified time, or certain things at or before a specified time and fails to do such
thing at or before a specified time, the contract or so much of it as has not been
performed, becomes -

(a) voidable at the option of the promisee, if the intention of the parties was that
time should be of essence of the contract

(b) void

(c) voidable at the option of the promisor

(d) contingent

87. Contingent agreements to do or not to do anything, if an impossible event

happens, are –

(a) voidable

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(b) void, whether the impossibility of the event is known or not to the parties to
agreement at the time when it is made.

(c) void, when the impossibility of the event is known to the parties to agreement
at the time when it is made

(d) void ab initio

88. If, in case of a contract voidable on account of the promisor’s failure to

perform his promise at the time agreed, the promisee accepts performance of such
promise at any time other than agreed, the promisee -

(a) can claim compensation of any loss occasioned by the non-performance of the
promise at the time agreed

(b) cannot claim compensation of any loss occasioned by the non-performance of

the promise at the time agreed, unless, at the time of acceptance, he give notice to
the promisor of his intention to do so.

(c) cannot claim compensation of any loss occasioned by the non-performance of

the promise at the time agreed

(d) None of the above

89. When the contract itself provides for extension of time -

(a) it is to be termed to be the essence of the contract

(b) the default, in such a case does not make the contract voidable

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

90. Promises bind the representative of the promisor in case of the death of such
promisors –

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(a)Only after performance of the contract, unless a contrary intention appears from
the contract

(b) before performance, unless a contrary intention appears from the contract

(c) before performance of the contract

(d) after performance of the contract

91. In case of a document being used as evidence, the Indian law –

(a) only recognizes writing and not the material

(b) not only the writing but also the material

(c) the definition of document under Indian Evidence Act is identical to the
definition of document given in IPC and General Clauses Act

(d) Both (a) and (c)

92. Is writing obtained by the Court for the accused for comparison, an evidence
under the Indian Evidence Act?

(a) Yes

(b) No

(c) May be

(d) None of the above

93. Relationship is not a factor to affect credibility of witness in the case of -

(a) Chance witness

(b) Interested Witness

(c) Natural Witness

(d) Inmical Witness

94. Which of the following is the best evidence?

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 (a) Documentary evidence

(b) Direct evidence

(c) Primary evidence

(d) All the above

95. Which of the following cases laid down the law pertaining to Circumstantial
evidence?

(a) Hanumant Govind Nargundkar v. State of M.P.

(b) Tufail v. State of M.P

(c) Har dayal v. State of U.P.

(d) Majendran Langeswara vs. State (NCT of Delhi)

96. Circumstantial evidence is -

(a) weak evidence and if necessary, requires corroboration

(b) presumptive evidence

(c) conviction can solely be based on circumstantial evidence

(d) All the above

97. In a suit, there is an issue whether a letter has been written by B. ‘X’, a
handwriting expert compares a genuine writing of B with the letter in question and
gives his opinion that both are identical. Can another expert ‘Y’ be allowed to say
that in the opinion of ‘X’, the writings are identical?

(a) Yes

(b) No, since this would tantamount to hearsay evidence

(c) Y may be allowed to say

(d) None of the above

98. An evidence is relevant –

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 (a) even if obtained illegally

(b) even if obtained in the course of a search or seizure in violation of the

provisions of Cr. PC

(c) Such evidence could be excluded only where the accused had been lured into
incriminating himself by deception after the commission of an offence

(d) All the above

99. Which of the following is good evidence?

(a) Confession of a co-accused

(b) Approver’s evidence

(c) Written statement of an accused person

(d) None of the above

100. Probative force of evidence implies force to induce the Court

(a) To believe in the existence of the fact sought to be proved

(b) To consider it’s existence so probable that a prudent man ought to act upon
the supposition that it exists

(c) Either (a) or (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

101. Which of the following is true in respect of the maxim “Falsus in uno Falsus
in Omnibus”?

(a) It is merely a rule of caution

(b) This maxim does not occupy the status of law in India

(c) It means that if a thing is false in respect of one, it must be taken to be false
in respect of all.

(d) All the above

29
102. Which of the following is an instance of a rebuttable presumption of law?

(a) Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age

(b) Burden of proving that case of accused comes within exceptions

(c) Presumptions as to documents thirty years old

(d) None of the above

103. Which of the following is not true about Relevancy and Admissibility of
evidence under Indian Evidence Act?

(a) Relevancy and admissibility are co-extensive and interchangeable terms.

(b) Relevant means that which is logical probative while admissibility is not based
on logic but on law and strict rules.

(c) In the Indian Evidence Act, the question of relevancy has been dealt with under
sections 6 to 55 and that of admissibility from section 56 onwards.

(d) The facts that are allowed to be proved are called relevant facts while the
admissibility is the means and the method of proving the relevant facts.

104. In a case, plaintiff filed a suit for injury received due to a defective staircase.
The defendant was allowed to adduce evidence that 43,000 persons have passed
from the stairs and none received injuries. Under which section of IEA, will the
fact be relevant?

(a) Section 7 of the IEA

(b) Section 6 of the IEA

(c) Section 8 of the IEA

(d) Section 9 of the IEA

105. Which of the following constitutes motive under section 8 of the IEA?

(a) The fact that the accused was the father of the child of which the deceased was
pregnant at the time of her murder.
30
(b) The accused Palmer was financially embarrassed and to overcome his
difficulties, he borrowed large sums of money from one of his friends. One night
after attending the races together, his friend came back to his hotel and died soon
after midnight under circumstances, which raised a suspicion that he had been
poisoned.

(c) In a case, certain lands were inherited by the deceased along with his brother,
but the accused got them transferred into their names. At the time of the incident,
criminal and revenue cases were pending between the accused and the deceased.

(d) All the above

106. The term pari delicto means -

a. in equal fault

b. at fault

c. at par

d. of equal value

107. Legal character or right under Section 34 must be

a. Specific

b. General

c. Existing

d. Permanent

108. In which of the following cases, rescission cannot be granted?

a. where the plaintiff has ratified the contract

31
b. where there is a valid contract

c. where the third party has acquired any interest under the contract

d. All of the above

109. Leeds Industrial Co-op. Society Ltd. v.Slack, [1924] AC 851, is related to the
proposition of

a. damages

b. injunctions

c. damages in lieu of injunction

d. Specific performance

110. Which of the following is true?

a. The Specific Relief Act, 1963 is the product of the 9th Report of the Law
Commission of India.

b. In case of cancellation under Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, the
relief of specific performance is out of question.

c. Both a and b

d. Neither a nor b

111. Which of the following is true?

a. Cancellation under Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 relates to mistake
in the formation of any instrument

32
b. Remedy of rectification available under Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act,
1963 relates to mistake inexpression of the contract only.

c. Both a and b

d. Neither a nor b

112. Which of the following is true?

a. Liquidation of damages is not a bar to specific performance

b. Liquidation of damages is not a bar to specific performance, if the court is

satisfied that, the sum was named only for the purpose of securing performance of
the contract

c. Liquidation of damages is a bar to specific performance

d. None of the above

113. The expression used in Section 34 of theSpecific Relief Act, 1963, “any right
as to any property” includes any right relatingto

a. Immovable property

b. Movable property

c. any property

d. special property

114. Under Section 26 of the Specific ReliefAct, 1963, a written contract may

a. first be rectified and then specifically enforced

33
b. be specifically enforced without rectification

c. only be rectified

d. only be enforced

115. Under Section 29 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, the plaintiff may pray, in a
suit for specific performance of the contract that, if the contract cannot be
specifically enforced then it may be

a. rescinded and delivered up to be cancelled by the court.

b. partially enforced

c. Both a and b

d. Only a

116. The objection as to maintainability of suitof declaration without further relief

must be taken

a. at the earliest stage

b. before cross examination

c. at the time of filing defence

d. at the time of filing arguments

117. Under section 34, Character or right sought to be declared

a. must be an existing right on the date of thesuit or up to the date of decree

b. shouldbe legal one and valid one.

34
c. Both a and b

d. Neither a nor b

118. “It has been already mentioned that when a debt becomes time-barred, it does
not become extinguished but only unenforceable in a court of law”. This was held
by the Supreme Court in the case of

a. Bombay Dyeing & Mfg. Co. Ltd. v. State of Bombay, AIR 1958 SC 328

b. Syndicate Bank v. Prabha D. Naik, (AIR 2001 SC 1968)

c. State of West Bengal v. W.B. Judicial Service Association, 1990 (2) Cal. L.J. 73

d. G. Ramegowda v. Special Land Acquisition Officer (1988(2)SCC142)

119. Which of the following is true about the nature of Limitation Act?

a. It is not open to the parties to waive or contract themselves the period of

limitation.

b. It is open to the defendant to give consent even in respect of a time-barred claim.

c. In considering whether a suit or proceeding is barred by limitation, the court will

be entitled to look into admission of the parties.

d. All of the above

120. Which of the following is true?

a. Section 4 has nothing to do with period of limitation. It does not add to the
period of Limitation.

35
b. Section 4 only extends the concession that is notwithstanding that the period of
limitation expires on a day when the court is closed suit appeal or application may
be filed on the day on which the court reopens.

c. Both a and b

d. Neither a nor b

121. Section 5 of Act which deals with extension of prescribed period in certain
cases. Which of the following is true?

a. It applies only to appeals or applications and not to suits.

b. It applies to appeals and applications

c. It applies to appeals, suits and applications

d. It applies to only applications and suits

122. Which of the following is true?

a. In the case of State of West Bengal v. W.B. Judicial Service Association, 1990
(2) Cal. L.J. 73, the Court held that “the doctrine of equality and rigid adherence
to the said doctrine notwithstanding, the Government can be classified as a distinct
and separate group to warrant different treatment inthe section 5 of the Limitation
Act”.

b. In G. Ramegowda v. Special Land AcquisitionOfficer (1988(2)SCC142) and

Collector, Land Acquisition v. Katiji (AIR 1987 SC 1353),the Court has stated the
various reasons for adopting a liberal approach towards the Government

c. Both a and b

36
d. Neither a nor b

123. Which of the following is true?

a. Section 5 applies to Criminal Appeals as well.

b. Delay in filing Criminal Appeal should be excused when where it was

erroneously filed in another court.

c. The delay in filing appeal against acquittal can be condoned under section 5. But
sufficient cause must be established to condone the delay by the appellate court.

d. All of the above

124. “Refusing to condone delay can result in a meritorious matter being thrown
out at the very threshold and cause of justice being defeated. As against this, when
delay is condoned, the highest that can happen is that cause would be decided on
merits after hearing the parties”. This has been held in

a. Collector, Land Acquisition v. Katiji (AIR 1987 SC 1353)

b. G. Ramegowda v. Special Land Acquisition Officer

c. Ajay Gupta v. Raju Rajendra Singh Yadav 2016(3) JBCJ 187 (SC)

d. West Bengal v. W.B. Judicial Service Association, 1990 (2) Cal. L.J. 73

125. “Even if the sufficient cause has been shown a party is not entitled to the
condonation of delay in question as a matter of right. The proof of a sufficient
cause is a condition precedent for the exercise of the discretionary jurisdiction
vested in the court by section 5. This aspect of the matter naturally introduces the
consideration of all facts and it is at this stage the diligence of the party of its bona
fides may fall for consideration…This was held in the case of
37
a. National Insurance company v. SmtRuniyaBinha, 2008(3)JCR456(Jhr)

b. Special Tehisldar, Land Acquisition Kerala v. K.V. Aiyusuma, 1996(10) SCC

634

c.PundikJalamPatil v. Executive Engineer Jalgaon medium project, 2009(1) JLJR

76 SC

d.Ramlal and others v. Rewa Coalfields Ltd. [ AIR 1962 SC 361]

126. Which of the following is true about section 6 of the Limitation Act?

a. Section 6 provides only for suits or applications for execution of decree.

b. Section 6 does not cover a case of anapplication under O 21 R 90 CPC to set

aside a sale held in execution of a decree.

c. Section 6 does itapply to an application for the readmission of an appeal under O

41 R 10 of the CPC.

d. All of the above

127. Sections 6,7 and 8 of the Limitation Act

a. from a group, they supplement each other and are not exclusive.

b. are inclusive

c. are mutually exclusive

d. does not supplement each other

128. Which of the following is true?

38
a. Section 7 provides that when one of several persons who are jointly entitled to
institute a suit or make an application for the execution of the decree is under any
such disability, and a discharge can be given without the concurrence of such
person, time will run against all of them but where no such discharge can be given,
time will not run against all of them until one of them becomes capable of giving
discharge.

b. Further, as per Explanation II appended to section 7, the manager of a Hindu

undividedfamily governed by Mitakshara Law shall be deemed to be capable of
giving a discharge withoutconcurrence of other members of family only if he is in
management of the joint family property.

c. Both a and b

d. Neither a nor b

129. Which of the following is true?

a. The combined effect of s. 6, and s. 8 read with the third column of the
appropriate Article of the Limitation Act would be that a person under disability
may sue within the same period as would otherwise be allowed from the time
specified therefore in the third column of the schedule

b. Special limitation as an exception has been provided in s. 8 laying down that the
extended period after cessation of disability would not be beyond three years of the
cessation of disability or the death of the disabled person.

c. Both a and b

d. Neither a nor b

39
130. The object of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 is to
-

(a) protect children from offences of sexual assault, sexual harassment and
pornography

(b) provide for establishment of Special Courts for trial of such offences and for
matters connected therewith or incidental thereto

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

131. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 has it’s basis in -

(a) Clause (3) of article 15 of the Constitution

(b) Convention on the Rights of the Child, adopted by the General Assembly of the
United Nations on 11th December, 1992

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

132. Which of the following is the date of enforcement of Protection of Children

from Sexual Offences Act, 2012?

(a) 9th November, 2012

(b) 14th November, 2012

(c) 5th November 2011

(d) 9th December 2012

133. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012,
“aggravated penetrative sexual assault" has the same meaning as assigned to it in

(a) section 5

(b) section 6

40
(c) section 8

(d) section 9

134. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012,
"aggravated sexual assault" has the same meaning as assigned to it in

(a) section 5

(b) section 6

(c) section 8

(d) section 9

135. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, "armed
forces or security forces" means

(a) armed forces of the Union

(b) security forces as specified in the Schedule

(c) police forces as specified in the Schedule

(d) All of the above

136. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, "child"
means any person below the age of -

(a) eighteen years

(b) sixteen years

(c) twenty years

(d) twenty-one years

137. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, "Child
pornography" means any visual depiction of sexually explicit conduct involving a
child which include -

41
(a) photograph, video, digital or computer generated image indistinguishable from
an actual child

(b) image created, adapted, or modified, but appear to depict a child

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

138. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, "domestic
relationship" shall have the same meaning as assigned to it in -

(a) clause (f) of section 2 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence
Act, 2005

(b) clause (a) of section 2 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence
Act, 2005

(c) clause (a) of section 3 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence
Act, 2005

(d) clause (a) of section 4 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence
Act, 2005

139. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012,
"penetrative sexual assault" has the same meaning as assigned to it in

(a) section 5

(b) section 6

(c) section 8

(d) section 3

140. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, “religious
institution” shall have the same meaning as assigned to it in the

(a) Religious Institutions (Prevention of Misuse) Act, 1988

(b) Religious Institutions (Prevention of Misuse) Act, 1984

42
 (c) Religious Institutions (Prevention of Misuse) Act, 1983

(d) Religious Institutions (Prevention of Misuse) Act, 1982

141. Who shall sign the Statement of Account and Solvency prepared by the LLP:
a. By any one partner, authorised in this behalf
b. By at least two partners, authorised in this behalf
c. By all the partners
d. By the designated partners
142. The Statement of Account and Solvency is required to be filed by the LLP with:
a. The Registrar of Co-op Societies
b. Need not to file.
c. The Registrar
d. The Registrar of Firms
143. Whether incorporation documents, names of partners and changes, if any,
Statement of Account and Solvency and Annual Return filed with the Registrar can
be inspected:
a. Yes, it can be inspected by any of the partners of the LLP
b. Yes, It can be inspected only Government Authorities and Banks
c. Yes, it can be inspected only the creditors of the LLP
d. Yes, it can be inspected by any person on payment of the prescribed fee.
144. The books of account which a LLP is required to keep shall be preserved for
how many years:
a. Eight Years
b. Six Years
c. Four years
d. Two years
145. What is the fee to paid to the Registrar for filing of the Statement of Account
and Solvency, where the contribution does not exceed Rs 1 lakh:
a. Rs. 200
b. Rs. 50
c. Rs. 100
43
 d. Rs. 150
146. What is the fee to paid to the Registrar for filing of the Statement of Account
and Solvency, where the contribution exceeds Rs 5 lakh but does not exceed Rs l0
lakh:
a. Rs. 200.
b. Rs. 100.
c. Rs 50.
d. Rs. 150.
147. What is the fee to paid to the Registrar for filing of the Statement of Account
and Solvency, where the contribution exceeds Rs 10 lakh?
a. Rs. 200.
b. Rs. 150.
c. Rs. 100.
d. Rs 50.
148. Who shall fix the remuneration of the auditor?
a. The designated partners shall fix the remuneration
b. As per the procedure laid down in the LLP Agreement.
c. The Registrar may fix the remuneration
d. Both A and B are correct.
149. LLP shall file its Annual Return in which form:
a. Form 12
b. Form 11
c. Form 10
d. Form 9
150. What is the fee for inspection of documents?
a. Rs 200.
b. Rs 150.
c. Rs 100.
d. Rs 50.

44
151. In which landmark case the court ruled that grants cannot change the minority
nature of the Institution?

(a) A.K Anthony college vs. State of Delhi

(b) St. Stephens vs. University of Delhi

(c) Christ University vs. U.O.I

(d) Nagaraj University vs. State of Kerala

152. In which landmark case the Court held that depiction of preparation of
violence is not in contravention of Constitution?

(a) Sneha Dalal v. Union of India

(b) Mukesh Dahiya v. U.O.I

(c) Narsingh Mehta v. State of Punjab

(d) Ramesh Dalal v. Union of India

153. Which Important case was the first one in which conviction happened under
the I.T Act 2000?

(a) Tamil Nadu v. Suhas Katti 2004

(b) Andhara Pradesh vs. Suhassini2006

(c)Nillaamma vs Sate of Karnataka 2000

(d) Nilbati Behra v. State of Odissa 2006

154. Which important case led to the First amendment of the Indian Constitution?

45
(a) A.K Goplan v. State of Madras

(b) Naiku v. State of Maharashtra

(c)Jeevan deep Singh v. State of Punjab

(d) Champakam Dorairjan v. State of Madras

155. In which Landmark case the Court held that acid victims must be paid
compensation?

(a) Saraswati v. Union of India

(b) Nalini v. State of Punjab

(c) Laxmi v. Union of India

(d) Rani vs. State of Bihar.

156. Which of the following is true?

(a) Right to privacy is fundamental right – it was held in the case of Justice
K.S.Puttaswami (Retd.) and Anr. vs. UOI and Ors.

(b) In a unanimous decision, a nine-judge Constitution Bench overruled the

Judgment in MP Sharma and Kharak Singh Case.

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

157. Which of the following is held in the case of Independent Thought vs. Union
of India & Anr.?

46
(a) Section 375 Exception 2 is arbitrary to Articles 14, 15 & 21 of the Constitution
of India.

(b) In all cases, sexual intercourse with a women including wife, if she is below the
age of 18 years, is rape

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

158. From an institutional perspective the Chief Justice is placed at the helm of the
Supreme Court. In the allocation of cases and the constitution of benches the Chief
Justice has an exclusive prerogative. As a repository of constitutional trust, the
Chief Justice is an institution in himself. This was held in –

(a)Ashok Pandey vs. Supreme Court of India Through Its Registrar &Ors. -

(b) Shafin Jahan vs. Asokan K.M.

(c) Suresh kaushal vs. union of India

(d) NAAZ Foundation vs. Delhi NCT

159. Right to choose is a fundamental right has been held in -

(a) Suresh kaushal vs. union of India

(b)Shafin Jahan vs. Asokan K.M. (Hadia Case)

(c) Common Cause (A Regd. Society) Vs. Union of India and Another

(d) Ashok Pandey vs. Supreme Court of India Through Its Registrar &Ors.

47
160. In which of the following it was held that misuse of Public Interest Litigation
has become industry of vested interests?

(a) Waman Rao v Union of India

(b)Common Cause (A Regd. Society) vs. Union of India and Another

(c) Suresh Kaushal vs. Union of India

(d) People's Union for Civil Liberties and Ors. vs. Union of India (UOI) and Ors.

161. In which of the following, it was held that Section 377 is unconstitutional and
hence has no force. It violates the fundamental rights of a person and is illegal?

(a) Suresh kaushal vs. union of India

(b)NAAZ Foundation vs. Delhi NCT

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d)Neither (a) nor (b)

162. In the case of the Ayodhya Ram Mandir Babri Masjid, the Court ruled that –

(a) the land was to be divided into three parts

48
(b) Two-thirds of the land was to be awarded to the Hindu plaintiffs and one-third
to the Sunni muslim Waqf board

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

163. Which of the following is NOT true about the NOTA Judgment?

(a)The right to reject candidates formalized in People's Union for Civil Liberties
and Ors. vs. Union of India (UOI) and Ors.

(b)In 2013, the Supreme Court introduced negative voting as an option for the
country’s electorate.

(c) According to this judgment, an individual would have the option of not voting
for any candidate (None-Of-The-Above) if they don’t find any of the candidates
worthy.
(d) None of the above

164. In the case of National Legal Services Authority v Union of India, the
Supreme Court in April, 2014 –

(a) recognised transgender persons as a third gender

(b)ordered the government to treat them as minorities

(c)extend reservations in jobs, education and other amenities.

49
(d) All of the above

165. Which of the following is true?

(a)Section 66A was struck down in the case of Shreya Singhal v Union of India
(b) Controversial section 66A of the Information Technology Act which allowed
arrests for objectionable content posted on the internet was struck down as
unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in March 2014.

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

166. In which of the following cases, it was held that Jat reservation is
unconstitutional?

(a) Ram Singh vs. Union of India

(b)Mewar Singh vs. State of Bihar

(c) Kehar Singh vs. State of Bihar

(d) Ram Singh vs. State of Rajasthan

167. Writs against Judicial actions by judiciary not maintainable. This was held in
–

(a) Kishan Singh vs. Union of India

50
(b)Raju Singh vs. State of Bihar

(c) Riju Prasad Sarma etc. vs. State of Assam

(d) Mahesh vs. State of Assam

168. In which of the following cases, it was held that forcing Husband to get
separated from his parents amounts to ’Cruelty’?

(a)Narendra vs. K.Meena

(b) Meena vs. Kishore

(c) Surinder vs. Mohsim

(d) Mahendra vs. Meena

169. Match List I with List II

List I

A. National anthem must in Theatres.

B. SC can transfer cases from Jammu & Kashmir Courts to courts outside it and
vice versa

C. Upload FIRs in Police Websites

51
D. Multiple Life Sentences will run concurrently, Remission of one will not affect
the other.

List II:

1. Shyam Narayan Chouski vs. Union of India.

2. Anita Kushwaha vs. Pushpa Sudan

3. Youth Bar Association of India vs.Union of India.

4. Muthuramalingam vs. State

(a) A-3,B-1,C-4,D-2

(b) A-1,B-2,C-3,D-4

(c) A-2,B-1,C-3,D-4

(d) A-1,B-3,C-4,D-2

170. In which of the following cases it was held “Social Security to the Legal
Profession Becomes an Essential Part of Legal System”

(a) Cardamom Marketing Corporation &Anr. Vs. State of Kerala &Ors

(b) Youth Bar Association of India vs. Union of India

(c) Muthuramalingam vs. State

(d) Anita Kushwaha vs. Pushpa Sudan

171. Under the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, “District Judge” shall have the same
meaning as assigned to it in -
52
(a) clause (a) of article 236 of the Constitution of India

(b) section 2(e) of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015

(c) section 2(a) of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015

(d) section 2(d) of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015

172. Under the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, “document” means any matter
expressed or described upon any substance by means of letters, figures or marks, or
electronic means, or by more than one of those means, intended to be used, or
which may be used, for the purpose of recording that matter. It is described in –

(a) Section 2(f)

(b) Section 2(e)

(c) Section 2(c)

(d) Section 2(d)

173. The words and expressions used and not defined in the Commercial Courts
Act but defined in the ____________________, shall have the same meanings
respectively assigned to them in that Code and the Act.

(a) Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

(b) Indian Evidence Act, 1872

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

174. Which chapter deals with Constitution of Commercial Courts under the
Commercial Courts Act, 2015?

(a) CHAPTER II

(b) CHAPTER III

53
(c) CHAPTER I

(d) CHAPTER IV

175. Which section provides for Constitution of Commercial Courts under the
Commercial Courts Act, 2015?

(a) Section 4

(b) Section 3

(c) Section 2

(d) Section 5

176. Who is empowered to constitute commercial courts at district level?

(a) The State Government after consultation with the concerned High Court

(b) The Central Government after consultation with the concerned High Court

(c) The Central Government

(d) The State Government

177. Which of the following is true?

(a) With respect to a territory over which the High Courts have ordinary original
civil jurisdiction, the State Government may, by notification, specify such
pecuniary value which shall not be less than three lakh rupees and not more than
the pecuniary jurisdiction exercisable by the District Courts, as it may consider
necessary.

(b) The State Government may, after consultation with the concerned High Court,
by notification, specify such pecuniary value which shall not be less than three
lakh rupees or such higher value, for whole or part of the State, as it may consider
necessary.

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

54
178. Which of the following is true?

(a) The State Government may, with the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the
High Court appoint one or more persons to be the Judge or Judges, of a
Commercial Court.

(b) The Judges to be appointed as judges of a commercial court must be having

experience in dealing with commercial disputes

(c) The judges must be appointed either at the level of District Judge or a court
below the level of a District Judge.

(d) All of the above

179. Who shall specify the local limits of the area to which the jurisdiction of a
Commercial Court shall extend and may, from time to time, increase, reduce or
alter such limits?

(a) The State Government after consultation with the concerned High Court

(b) The Central Government after consultation with the concerned High Court

(c) The Central Government

(d) The State Government

180. Which section of the Commercial Courts Act provides for designation of
commercial appellate courts?

(a) Section 3A

(b) Section 4A

(c) Section 5A

(d) Section 6A

DIRECTIONS: Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the
idiom/ phrase.

181. Hobson’s choice :

55
(a) Feeling of insecurity

(b) Accept or leave the other

(c) Feeling of strength

(d) Excellent choice

182. To talk through one’s hat :

(a) To speak fluently

(b) To talk nonsense

(c) To talk wisdom

(d) To speak at random

183. To snap one’s fingers :

(a) To speak abruptly

(b) To accept immediately

(c) To grasp eagerly

(d) To become contemptuous of

184. To take the bull by the horns :

(a) To punish a person severly for his arrogance

(b) To grapple courageously with difficulty that lies in our way

(c) To handle it by fierce attack

(d) To bypass the legal process and take action according to one’s own whims
56
185. To be in abeyance :

(a) To be in trouble

(b) Dual minded

(c) In a fighting mood

(d) In suspense

186. To cast pearls before a swine :

(a) To spend recklessly

(b) To spend a lot of money on the unkeep of domestic hogs

(c) To waste monkey over trifles

(d) To offer to a person a thing which he cannot appreciate

187. To take people by storm :

(a) To put people in utter surprise

(b) To captivate them unexpectedly

(c) To exploit people’s agitation

(d) To bring out something sensational attracting people’s attention

188. Harp on :

(a) To comment

(b) To criticize

(c) To keep on talking

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(d) To keep on insulting

189. To bring one’s eggs to a bad market :

(a) To face on humiliating situation

(b) To bring one’s commodities to a market where there is no demand for them

(c) To show one’s talents before audience which is incapable of appreciating them

(d) To fail in one’s plans because one goes to the wrong people for help

190. To give/get the bird :

(a) To get the awaited

(b) To have good luck

(c) To send away

(d) To get the impossible

191. To save one’s face :

(a) To hide oneself

(b) To oppose

(c) To evade disgrace

(d) To say plainly

192. To split hours :

(a) To sidetrack the issue

(b) To quarrel over trifles

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(c) To indulge in over-refined arguments

(d) To find faults with other

193. Will o’ the wisp :

(a) Anything which eludes or deceives

(b) To act in a childish way

(c) To act in a foolish way

(d) To have desires unbacked by efforts

194. To read between the lines :

(a) To concentrate

(b) To read carefully

(c) To suspect

(d) To grasp the hidden meaning

195. To flog a dead horse :

(a) To act in a foolish way

(b) To waste one’s efforts

(c) To revive interest in an old subject

(d) To revive old memories

196. A tall order :

(a) A task difficult to perform

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(b) A bid problem

(c) A royal summon

(d) A big demand

197. To turn the tables :

(a) To defeat (b) To oppose

(c) To create chaos (d) To change the sorry scheme

(e) To change completely the position of disadvantage

198. To keep the ball rolling :

(a) To earn more and more

(b) To work constantly

(c) To keep the conversation going

(d) To make the best use of

DIRECTIONS: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical
error in it.

199. (a) If tomorrow is

(b) /declared a holiday

(c) /we shall go

(d) /to a picnic.

(e) No Error
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200. (a) My grandfather used

(b)/ to go

(c)/ for a walk

(d)/ every morning.

(e) No Error

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