Basic Ques Avsec

Option1 Option2Engli Option3Englis Correct
S.NO English Question Option4English

English sh h Option
Module 01
These are acts or attempted

Act of
acts such as to jeopardize the Dangerous
1 Sabotage Unlawful Security 2
safety of civil aviation and air Goods
Interference
transport.
Any machine that can

derive support in the
atmosphere from the Push Back
2 Aircraft HHMD XBIS 1
reactions of the air other than Trolley
the reactions of the air against
the earth’s surface.
An aircraft shall be deemed

to be inflight at any time from
the moment when all its
Aircraft Aircraft in
external doors are closed Aircraft in Aircraft In
3 under Security Maintenance 2
following embarkation until Service Flight
checks area
the moment when any such
door is opened for
disembarkation.
A parked aircraft which is Aircraft in Aircraft not Aircraft Aircraft

4 under surveillance sufficient Security maintenance 1
to detect unauthorized access. Service in flight checks area
An inspection of the
interior of an aircraft to which
passengers may have had
Aircraft
access and an inspection of Aviation
5 Security Profiling 2
the hold for the purposes of Screening Security
Checks
discovering suspicious objects,
weapons, explosives or other
dangerous devices.
An aircraft that is either

parked for a period of more
Aircraft not Aircraft in Aircraft in Unattended
6 than 12 hours or is not under 1
surveillance sufficient to in Service flight Service Aircraft
detect unauthorized access.
An area used or intended to

be used for the landing and
7 takeoff of aircraft, including its Landside Airside Apron Airport 4
building and ‘facilities.
The movement area of an

airport, adjacent terrain and Airside Baggage
8 buildings or portions thereof, Movement Airside waiting area make up area 2
area
access to which is controlled.
Standard Standard

Acts and
Annex 17 deals with and and
9 Standards recommende Recommende Rules on 3
___________
on AVSEC d process d practices AVSEC
A defined area, on a land
aerodrome, intended to
accommodate aircraft for
Cargo
10 purposes of loading or Airside Apron Landside 2
building
unloading passengers, mail or
cargo, fuelling, parking or
maintenance.
A check of a person’s

identity and previous
experience, including any
criminal history, where Pre
Security
11 appropriate, as part of the embarkatio Background Profiling 3
assessment of an individual’s n check checks checks
suitability for unescorted
access to a Security Restricted
Are
Personal property of
12 passengers or crew carried on Courier Baggage Cargo Mail 2
an aircraft by agreement with
the operator.
The area where all the arrival Baggage Baggage
13 passenger’s bags are delivered break up sorting Area Arrival Aircraft 1
to them. area
Space in which departure Baggage

14 baggage is sorted into flight make up Cargo area Airside Are Aircraft 1
loads. area
A status of alert, put in place
by competent authorities to
activate an intervention plan
intended to counter the
possible consequences arising
from a communicated threat, Bomb Bomb Crisis
15 Sabotage 1
anonymous or otherwise, or Alert Threat Management
arising from the discovery of a
suspect device or other
suspect item on an aircraft, at
an airport or in any civil
aviation facilities.
A communicated threat,
anonymous or otherwise,
which suggests, or infers,
whether true or false that the
16 safety of an aircraft in flight or Bomb Bomb Threat Call Red Alert 2
on the ground, or any airport Alert Threat
or civil aviation facility or any
person may be in danger from
an explosive or other item or
device.
A communicated threat,
___________ or otherwise,
which suggests, or infers,
whether true or false that the
safety of an aircraft in flight or
17 Enormous Anonymous Hoax 3
on the ground, or any airport Synonymous
or civil aviation facility or any
person may be in danger from
an explosive or other item or
device.
Any property carried on an
18 aircraft other then mail, stores Cargo Dangerous Company Catering 1
and accompanied or Goods stores supplies
mishandled baggage.
All items, other than catering

supplies, associated with
passenger in-flight services,
Catering Catering
19 for example newspapers, Dangerous Cargo 2
Stores Supplies
magazines, headphones, video goods
tapes, pillows and blankets,
amenity kits, etc.
Food, beverages, other dry

stores and associated Dangerous Company Catering
20 Cargo 4
equipment used on board an Goods stores Supplies
aircraft.
The process of reporting to an

Pre
aircraft operator for Secondary
21 embarkatio Check-in 3
acceptance on a particular check Reconciliation
n check
flight.
It means air transportation of

passengers and their Aviation General Civil Corporate
22 3
belongings, cargo, mail etc by Security Aviation Aviation Aviation
civil aircraft.
Articles or substances which
are capable of posing risk to
health, safety, property or the
environment and which are
Dangerous
23 shown in the list of dangerous Dangerous Cargo Guns 1
substance
goods in the Technical Goods
instructions or which are
classified according to those
instructions.
The Passenger who creates or

has the potential to create
disturbance either on board
the aircraft or on ground and
Special
in the process could endanger Crew Sky
24 Disruptive Protection 1
the safety of the aircraft, Member Marshall
Passenger Group
fellow passengers, crew
members, airline staff or
property thereby hampering
the operations.
A device, or combination of
devices and / or procedures,
Explosive
which are intended to detect Explosive
Device
25 amounts and types of Detection DFMD HHMD 2
Detection
explosives in passengers System
checked and hand carried System
baggage.
Passenger who has checked in Gate no

26 but not shown up for No show Go show Deportee 4
show
boarding.
All civil aviation operations
other than scheduled air
General Civil Corporate Aviation
27 services and non-scheduled air 1
Aviation Aviation Aviation Security
transport operations for
remuneration or hire.
Any person who on board an

aircraft in flight: (i) Unlawfully,
by force or threat thereof, or
by any other form of
intimidation, seizes, or
exercises control of that
28 Hijacking Sabotage Bomb Alert Bomb Threat 1
aircraft, or attempts to
perform any such act, or is an
accomplice of a person who
performs or attempts to
perform any such act, commits
the offence of
Any person who

_______________, unlawfully,
intimidation, seizes, or
exercises control of that On board Deplanes
29 aircraft, or attempts to an aircraft On board Boards an from an 1
any aircraft aircraft
perform any such act, or is an in-flight aircraft
accomplice of a person who
performs or attempts to
the offence of hijacking that
aircraft
Any person who on board an
aircraft in flight: (i) Unlawfully,
___________, seizes, or
exercises control of that
30 aircraft, or attempts to Initiation Imitation Intimation Intimidation 4
perform any such act, or (ii) Is
an accomplice of a person
who performs or attempts to
the offence of hijacking that
aircraft.

Any baggage of the passenger Hand
31 Registered Unaccompani Cargo 2
other than checked baggage Baggage
baggage ed baggage
Recognizing the shapes

displayed on x-ray units and
being able to evaluate and Explosive Image Explosive
32 classify them into the proper Trace Interpretatio Physical vapour 2
Inspection
categories of NO THREAT, detector n detector
POSSIBLE THREAT, and
OBVIOUS THREAT.
A person who is or will be

Interline Transit
33 refused admission to a State Inadmissible Sky Marshal 3
passenger passenger
by its authorities. passenger
Passenger who is transferred

between aircraft of different Transit Interline Transfer
34 Deportee 2
air carriers during the course passenger passenger passenger
of his journey.
Baggage of passengers subject
to transfer from the aircraft of
Courier Interline
35 one operator to the aircraft of Suspicious Hand bag 4
bag baggage
another operator in the course bag
of the passenger’s journey.
An originator of property for

transportation by air for their
own account and who has
established business with a Known Known
36 Consignor 3
regulated agent or an airline Consignee Consignee Consignor
on the basis of agreed criteria
addressing the security of
goods.
The area of an airport and

buildings to which both
37 travelling passengers and the Landside Airside Airport Runway 1
non-travelling public have
unrestricted access.
Dispatches of correspondence
and other items tendered by
and intended for delivery to Diplomatic Company
38 Courier Mail 2
postal services in accordance mail stores
with the rules of the Universal
Postal Union(UPU).
Baggage involuntarily, or
Interline Transfer Transit Mishandled
39 inadvertently, separated from baggage baggage baggage Baggage 4
passengers or crew.
That part of an aerodrome to
be used for the take‑off,
40 landing and taxing of aircraft, Movement Runway Apron Airside 1
consisting of the manoeuvring Area
area and the apron(s).
A person, organization or
enterprise engaged in or
41 BCAS Operator Airport ICAO 2
offering to engage in an
aircraft operation.
A system consists of cards or

other documentation issued
to individual persons
employed on airports or who Security Boarding
42 permit Ticket 2
otherwise have need for Equipment pass
authorized access to the
airport, airside or Security
Restricted Are
A corridor at, above or below
43 ground level to connect Terminal Passenger Airside Pier 4
aircraft stands to a passenger building Gangway
building.
Systematic observation of
persons and baggage and
questioning if necessary to
Pre-
44 categories them two group Baggage Profiling Access embarkation 2
threatening and non search Control
checks
threatening so that more
attention can be paid to the
threatening category.
An agent, freight forwarder or
any other entity who conducts
business with an operator and

provides security controls that Cargo Courier Customer
45 Regulated 1
are accepted or required by Agent Agent Service Agent
Agent
the appropriate authority in
respect of cargo, courier and
express parcels or mail.
An act or omission, intended

to cause malicious or wanton
destruction of property,
46 endangering or resulting in Sabotage Hijacking Bomb Bomb Alert 1
Threat
unlawful interference with
international civil aviation and
its facilities.
A means by which the

introduction of weapons,
47 explosives or articles likely to Sabotage Security Sterile Area Hijacking 2
be utilized to commit an act of Control
unlawful interference can be
prevented.
The application of technical or

other means which are
intended to identify and/or Standard
detect weapons, explosives or Security Screening Security and
48 2
other dangerous devices Control Audit Recommended
which may be used to commit Practices
an act of unlawful
interference.
An in depth compliance
examination of all aspects of
Security Security Aviation
49 the implementation of 2
Screening Audit Control Security
national civil aviation security
programme.
A combination of measures,
human and material
Aviation Security Security
50 resources, intended to Screening 1
Security Audit Control
safeguard civil aviation against
acts of unlawful interference.
Devices of a specialized nature

for use, individually or as part

of a system in the prevention Frisking Security Communicatio
51 Weapons 2
or detection of acts or booths Equipment
n systems
unlawful interference with
civil aviation and its facilities.
Measures adopted to
52 safeguard civil aviation against Profiling Security Security 4
acts of unlawful interference. Screening Audit Programme
Airside areas of an airport into

which access is controlled to
ensure security of civil Security Terminal
53 aviation. Such areas will Landside Airside Restricted 3
building
normally include, inter alia, Area
the ramp, baggage make-up
areas, cargo sheds, etc
The area between any
passenger inspection or Termina Sterile
54 screening control point and Stores Arrival hall 2
l Area
the aircraft into which access
is strictly controlled. building
Passengers making direct

55 connections between two Transfer Transit Unaccompani Disruptive 1
passenger passenger passenger
different flights. ed minor
Baggage making direct

Transit Transfer Unclaimed
56 connections between two Unaccompanie 2
baggage baggage baggage
different flights. d baggage
Passengers departing from an

Transfer Transit Interline
57 airport on the same flight as 3
Passenger passenger passenger passenger
that on which they arrived.
Baggage, which is transported

as cargo and may or may not
Interline Transit
58 be carried on the same aircraft Unidentifie Unaccompan 2
baggage baggage
with the person to whom it d baggage ied baggage
belongs.

Baggage, which arrives at an
Unaccompa Transit Transfer Unclaimed
59 airport and is not retrieved or 4
nied baggage baggage baggage
claimed by a passenger.
baggage
Baggage at an airport, with or

without a baggage tag, which Transit Transit
60 Unidentified Unaccompani 2
is not picked up by or baggage baggage
identified with a passenger. baggage ed baggage
A standard practice is defined
as any specification for
physical characteristics,
configuration material,
61 performance, personnel or Desirable Necessary Provisional Recommended 2
procedure, the uniform
application of which is
recognized as ____________
for the safety of civil aviation.
Any facility on or connected

with an airport, which, if
Access Vulnerable
62 damaged or destroyed, would Landside Bomb Alert 3
seriously impair the control Point
functioning of the airport.
Intrusion
PIDS installed at airports is a during Intrusion Intrusion from Internal
63 during defence 3
measure for detecting: passengers perimeter
deplaning system
boarding
64 ICAO has its headquarters in Chicago Geneva Paris Montreal 4
Power of central government Section Aircraft Aircraft Rule
65 Section 5 2
to make rules 5A Rule 8A 81B
Aircraft Aircraft
66 Power to issue direction Section 5 Section 5A 4
Rule 8A Rule 8
Power of central government

to make rules for securing safe Section Section 9A Section 5
67 Section 5A 1
custody any redelivery of 8C
unclaimed property.
Power of central government

68 to prohibit or regulate Section Section 9A Aircraft Aircraft Rule 2
construction of buildings, 8C Rule 24B 161
planting trees etc
Penalty for failure to comply
Section
69 with direction issued under Section 8C Section 11A Section 5 3
section 5A 9A
Penalty for failure to comply

Section Section
70 with directions issued under Section 8C Section 5A 2
11A 11B
section 9A
Security checks of person

Aircraft Aircraft Aircraft Aircraft Rule
71 boarding aircraft at 1
Rule 8A Rule 13 Rule 19 24
aerodrome
Prohibition of intoxicated Aircraft Aircraft Aircraft Aircraft Rule
72 2
person boarding the aircraft. Rule 8A Rule 24 Rule 13 19
Carriage of person suffering
73 from mental disorder or 4
Rule 24 Rule 24B Rule 24C 24A
epilepsy in an aircraft
Carriage of prisoners in an Aircraft Aircraft Aircraft Aircraft Rule
74 aircraft Rule 2003 Rule 24B Rule 161 24 2
Carriage of animals, birds and Aircraft Aircraft Aircraft Aircraft Rule
75 3
reptiles in the aircraft Rule 24B Rule 81B Rule 24C 91
76 Carriage of cabin crew 2
Rule 24B Rule 38B Rule 161 156
77 Smoking in aircraft 3
Rule 78 Rule 81 Rule 25 38B
Aircraft Aircraft Aircraft
78 Licensing of aerodromes Section 8C 2
Rule 81A Rule 78 Rule 91
79 Entry into public aerodrome Aircraft Section 8C Aircraft Aircraft Rule 3
Rule 8A Rule 90 91
Prohibition of slaughtering
and flaying of animals,
depositing of rubbish and Aircraft Aircraft Aircraft Aircraft Rule
80 2
other polluted or obnoxious Rule 90 Rule 91 Rule 24B 24
matter in the vicinity of
aerodrome.
81 Carriage of Dangerous Goods 4
Rule 2004 Rule 156 Rule 161 2003
Inspection by government Aircraft Aircraft Rule
82 Section 8C Section 9A 1
officials Rule 156 161
83 Penalties 3
Rule 2003 Rule 8A Rule 161 24B
8 feet
8 feet wall
wall with 2
feet ‘Y’ with 1½ feet 6 feet wall 7 feet wall
Which one of the following is ‘Y’ shaped with 2 feet ‘Y’ with 1 feet ‘Y’
shaped
84 the correct size of perimeter angle shaped angle shaped angle 2
angle
wall overhang overhang with overhang with
overhang
with barbed barbed wire barbed wire
with barbed
wire
wire
Which one of the following is 3 cms X 2 cms X 2.5cms X 3.5 cms X
85 3
the correct size of APSU stamp 2cms 2cms 3.5 cms 4.5 cms
Which one of the following is 4 X 4 X 4 4 X 4 X 4 4 X 4 X 4 4 X 4 X 4

86 1
the correct size of cooling pit feet cms meter inches
Sum total of all dimensions of

87 hand bag allowed at Jammu & 110cms 100cms 115cms 200cms 2
Srinagar is
Sum total of all dimensions of

88 hand bag allowed other than 115cms 110cms 111cms 100cms 1
Jammu & Srinagar
Size of hand bag allowed in

35 X 35 X 50 X 30 X 60 X 30 X 55 X 35 X 25
89 India other than at Jammu & 4
Srinagar 35 cms 20 cms 25 cms cms
Size of hand bag allowed in 50 X 30 X 35 X 35 X 25 X 25 X 60 X 30 X 25

90 1
Jammu & Srinagar 20 cms 35 cms 25 cms cms
3 inches
Which of the below of blade 5 inches of 6 inches of 5 inches of
mentioned Kirpan cannot be blade and 5 blade and 3 blade and 3
91 and 6 2
allowed on domestic flights in inches of inches of inches of
inches of
India handle handle handle
handle
92 Size of frisking booth 2.14 m X 2.14 cms X 2 m X 3 m 2.41 m X 1
2.43 m 2.43 cms 2.34 m
6 inches of 6 inches of 7 inches of

Which is the correct size of
Total 10 blade and 4 blade and 3 blade and 3
93 Kirpan allowed on domestic 3
inches inches of inches of inches of
flights
handle handle handle

94 Aerodrome manual 2
Rule 78 Rule 81 Rule 81B 90
Carriage of Arms and Aircraft Aircraft Rule Aircraft Rule Aircraft Rule
96 Ammunition on aircraft Rule 8A 8 8B 2003 2
Deployment of manpower by Arun

R P Singh B D Pandey Justice Kirpal
97 airline security at aircraft is as Mishra committee committee committee 1
per Committee
Security Security
Security Security
training tamper
98 What is STEB tamper tempered 3
experience emergency
baggage baggae evident bag excess bag
Liquid and Liquid and Liquids air Liquids

99 What is LAG 4
Guns Grease gels Aerosols Gels
Module 02
The convention laid down Chicago Montreal Hague Tokyo
foundation for International 1
Convention Convention Convention Convention
100 Civil Aviation Organization.
Convention on offences and
Montreal Chicago Tokyo Hague
certain other acts committed 3
Convention Convention Convention Convention
101 on board aircraft
Convention for suppression Tokyo Hague Montreal Chicago
2
of unlawful seizure of aircraft Convention Convention Convention Convention
102
Convention against
suppression of unlawful acts Chicago Tokyo Hague Montreal
4
against the safety of civil Convention Convention Convention Convention
aviation
103
After the hijack of Indian

Airlines Boeing 737 aircraft to
B. D.
Lahore on 10th September, Kripal R. P. Singh Arun Mishra
Pandey 2
1976 _______________ Committee Committee committee
Committee
committee was formed by
then Prime Minister.
104
B. D. Pandey committee
recommendation led
BCAS NCASP DCAS STP 3
formation of a cell called
________________________
105
____________________ was R. P. Arun
B.N. Kirpal B. D. Pandey
formed after Air India – Singh Mishra 2
Committee Committee
106 Kanishka tragedy. Committee Committee
Kirpal Committee report led

to the formation of NCASP BCAS DGCA DCAS 2
107 _________________________
Kanishka tragedy incident is Sabotage Airport Cyber
of aircraft Hijacking
1
108 the example of attack Terrorism
IC 814 incident is the Airport Cyber
Sabotage Hijacking 3
109 example of attack Terrorism
BCAS formed after
B D Kirpal Krishna R. P. Singh
____________ committee 2
Pandey commission Commission Committee
110 recommendations.
Coordinating with ICAO is Airport Appropriate
APSU Airlines 4
111 the responsibility of Operators Authority
Monitor implementation of Airport
Airlines BCAS APSU/ASG 3
NCASP is the responsibility of Operator
112
Detection and disposal of
explosive devices is the Airlines BCAS CISF BDDS 4
113 responsibility of
Which one of the following Unlawful Misuse of Misuse of Threat from
is the oldest threat to civil seizure of nuclear radioactive biological 1
114 aviation aircraft weapons substances weapons
Which one of the following Unlawful Sabotage Cyber Terrorist
is the new and emerging seizure of 3
of aircraft Terrorism attack
threat to civil aviation aircraft
115
Secondary security checks 30th Jan,

Kanishka IC814
were made compulsory after Tragedy Hijack US Attack 1971 IC 2
_______________ incident. Hijacking
116
Identification of baggage IC 814 Kanishka Air France
US Attack 2
117 was made mandatory after Hijack Tragedy Hijacking
Reconciliation of baggage
US Attack Air Lanka
Kanishka PanAM
was introduced after 3
bombing Tragedy sabotage
118 _________ tragedy
Implementation of
Kanishka Ethiopian
strengthening of cockpit doors IC 814 US Attack 4
Tragedy Hijack
119 started after
Strict implementation of
Kanishka US Attack Ethiopian
locking of cockpit doors IC 814 2
Tragedy Hijack
120 started after
Frisking of passengers is
Anti Anti Anti
____________________ Anti sabotage 1
hijacking Terrorist Security
121 measure
Measures
Security of catering item is Anti Anti
______________________ against hijacking terrorist Anti Security 2
terrorist
measure measure measure
attack
122
Measures
Supervision of registered
baggage is against Anti Anti Security of 3
terrorist hijacking sabotage personnel
_________________ measure
attack
123
Measures
Deployment of QRT is
against Anti Security of Security of
___________________ 1
terrorist sabotage personnel catering items
measure
attack
124
Provision of sky marshals in Measures

respect of flights under threat against Anti Security 3
is ________________ Anti terrorist Anti
125 measure sabotage attack hijacking
First hijacking in the world
1930 1931 1935 1945 2
126 took place in the year
First hijacking in India took
1976 1945 1971 1931 3
127 place in the year
IC – 814 was hijacked in the
1999 1971 1976 2001 1
128 year
Chennai airport bomb blast
1985 1986 2000 1984 4
129 took place in the year
Kanishka Aircraft was 1985 1971 1986 2001 1
130 bombed in the year
Colombo airport attack by
2000 1999 2001 2005 3
131 LTTE in the year
Quick Reaction Team is a Airport
Airline ASG/APSU BCAS 2
132 unit of Operator
Secondary ladder point
Airport
check is the responsibility of BCAS ASG/APSU Airlines 4
Operator
133 ________
Access control of aircraft is Airport
Airlines BCAS 2
the responsibility of ________ ASG/APSU Operator
134
Passenger baggage
Airport
reconciliation is the BCAS ASG/APSU Airlines 3
Operator
135 responsibility of ________
X-ray screening of registered Airport
baggage the responsibility of Operator / ASG APSU BDDS 1
136 ________ Airline
X-ray screening of hand

Airport
baggage is the responsibility Airlines Operator ASG/APSU BCAS 3
137 of ________
Receiving, carriage and
disposal of security removed Airport
articles is the responsibility of Operator Airlines ASG/APSU BCAS 2
________
138
Security of catering at pre –
Airport
set stage is the responsibility BCAS Airlines ASG/APSU 3
Operator
139 of ________
Provision and maintenance
of perimeter/ fencing, Airport
BCAS ASG/APSU Airlines 1
perimeter road is the Operator
responsibility of ________
140
Aircraft Aircraft can

Aircraft can be
be hijacked
can be hijacked by
secretly Aircraft can
hijacked by carrying
Which one of the following smuggling be hijacked by
bluffing arms and 2
is not correct arms and collusion with
about ammunition
possession concealed in ammunition airport staff
concealed on
of weapons registered person
baggage
141
Anti
Which one of the following Pre- Secondary
is the example of embarkatio sabotage Screening of ladder point 4
search of cargo
recommended practice n checks checks
aircraft
142
Following organisation is
responsible for detection and EDDS BDDS EDS ASG 2
143 disposal of explosives
Provision
Advise Co-
and
Which one of the following government ordination maintenance Develop
of India on among 3
is NOT the function of BCAS of NCASTP
security different
infrastructure
matters organizations
144 of airport
Which one of the following Misuse of Misuse of Aircraft can
is NOT a New and emerging nuclear radioactive be used as a Hijack 4
threats faced by civil aviation weapons substances missile
145
Which one of the following
Perimeter Watch
is NOT a physical measure Turnstile Frisking 3
wall Tower
146 taken at airport.
IC814 aircraft was hijacked
Delhi Kandahar Dubai 2
147 from Kathmandu
First hijacking in the world India England Peru Australia 3
148 took place in
CISF was introduced after IC 814 Kanishka US Attack 1931 Peru 1
149 __________ incident. Hijacking Tragedy hijacking
Random checking of baggage

manually even after x-ray IC 814 1931 Peru Kanishka
US Attack 4
screening was lesson learned Hijacking hijacking Tragedy
after _______ incident.
150
Which one of the following Pistol IED Weapons Dangerous
concealed in articles
is the technique to hijack the concealed concealed on 3
registered concealed in
151 plane in cargo
bag
person
mail
Preparation of Airline
Airport
security manual is ________ Airline BCAS DGCA 2
operator
152 responsibility
The appropriate authority on
Civil aviation security in India DGCA RDCOS DCAS COSCA 4
153 is
The regulatory authority for
Civil Aviation Security in India BCAS ASG DGCA DCAS 1
154 is
The regulatory authority for

the safety of civil aviation is ASG BCAS DCAS DGCA 4
155
_____________ is
responsible for coordinating RDCOS COSCA CASO DCOS 2
156 with ICAO
Anti hijacking unit is one of Airport
BCAS Airline ASG 3
157 the four units of operator
Protection unit is one of the Airport
Airline BCAS ASG 4
158 four units of operator
Chicago convention was held
1963 1944 1970 1988 2
159 in the year
Tokyo convention held in the 1963 1944 1970 1988 1
160 year
Hague convention held in 1963 1944 1970 1988 3
161 the year
Montreal convention held in 1963 1944 1988 1971 4
162 the year
Protocol supplementary to
Montreal convention held in 1963 1944 1971 1988 4
163 the year
Convention on the marking
of plastic explosive for the 1963 1944 1971 1991 4
purpose of detection held in
the year
164
Module 03
To mark
the boundary
To keep To prevent
between To prevent
The main purpose of cattle and people
landside and capture of 2
boundary fencing is livestock off looking at
airside airport land
the runway aircraft
restricted
areas
165
Within a
building
such as Only at the Only at the Only at the
Access control points are
terminal cargo vulnerable catering 1
located
and within complex points premises
airport
boundary
166
Only
manned Only Manned only
Manned at
Access control points are during manned at all times during high 3
daylight night threat
hours
167
Airport workers are required Only

Only if
Only if they Whenever
to use access control points when they they do not have permit they enter 4
168 are off duty have permit restricted area

Airline employees are Whenever Whenever
Whenever
authorized to by-pass access
they are in they are off they are on
Not ever 4
control points uniforms duty duty
169

Which one of the following Photograph Employee Period of Permit serial 2
170 is not shown on the AEP of holder code number validity number
Which color pass is issued to

those persons whose duty
warrants them to visit all Orange Orange-C Light Green Navy Blue 1
areas of civil airport/ civil
enclaves in India
171
Which color pass is issued

for crew members of Indian
registered airlines whose duty Orange Orange-C White Navy blue 2
warrants them to visit all
areas of civil airports in Indi
172
Which color pass is issued
for persons whose duty
Orange C Navy Blue Purple White 3
areas of a specific airports
173
For persons whose duty
Purple Navy blue White Light Brown 2
areas of a specific airport
except security hold area
174

warrants them to visit the
Light
operational area only, in a Navy blue Light Green White 4
Brown
specific airport, excluding SHA
and terminal building
175

warrants them to visit the
arrival or departure halls of a Navy Blue Orange-C Light Brown Light Green 3
specific airport which color
pass is issued
176
Which passes may be issued
to persons whose duty
warrants them to visit one
Light Light
specific airport for passenger Transferable Purple – ‘G’ 2
Brown Green
facilitation up to check-in area passes
of departure side and up to
visitor areas on arrival side.
177
For GHA persons whose duty

Purple ‘G’ Purple ‘T’ Light Brown Purple “P” 1
areas of a specific airports
which color pass is issued
178

warrants them to visit only all
areas of the terminal building Purple ‘G’ Purple ‘T Purple ‘P’ Light Green 2
of a specific airport which
color pass is issued
179
Given to casual workers who Casual

are hired only on daily wages Purple P labor token Light Green
Orange C 2
180
Hand Finger Iris
is not considered as Geometry printing Frisking Recognition 3
181 biometrics?
Color Designated
Which of the following
Registered indicating access gate to Safety status 2
details will be checked in AEP
182 number area be used
Designated

Registered access gate to Safety status 2
details will be checked in AEP Photograph
183 number be used
To see
To check
Background checks are staff is his To check his To check his 3
conducted to medically police record family status.
qualifications
fit
184
Not
MLAs of state legislature Up to permitted in
have free access up to which Aircrafts Terminal All areas the airport 4
185 area of airport Building. without valid
AEP
Maintain radio contact with
the airport ground operations taxiways Vital
and Apron Parking Bays 1
control(GOC) or ATC when Installations
runways
moving in the vicinity of
186

Which one of the following Employee Period of Permit serial
Photograph code number validity 2
is not shown on the AEP number
187 of holder
Designated

details will be checked in AEP Registered access gate Name Safety status 3
188 number to be used
Security
Ticket counter areas would Sterile Non-
Restricted Airside are 4
normally be identified as. Area restricted Are
189 Are
all
persons
only those
having all persons
Which of the following persons who only
employees must undergo a unescorted work full contract who work on 1
access to the airport
background check? time at an personnel
restricted territory
airport
areas of the
airport
190
Which of the following Safety Registered

Safety status 3
details will be checked in AEP status number Organization
191
Runway Use a vehicle
should be with hazard
Look left
crossed only warning light during high
and right 2
after to cross threat
Which of the following is the then cross
clearance runway at any
right way to cross runway in from ATC time
192 emergency situation
within a
building,
such as a only at the
Access control points are Only at fuel
terminal cargo Only at ATC 1
located: storage area
and within complex
the airport
boundary
193
Which of the following Baggage
Sterile Ticket
would not be considered make-up Ramp areas 3
areas counters
194 "restricted" areas? area
Red revolving light on top and You can

align front Engines are
You can open You can drive
below the aircraft if lit 2
195 indicates step ladder running aircraft hold close to aircraft
cards
authorizing visitors
access to cards stating personal
Permits or "Authorized ID" personal
the that this identification 1
are: name tags.
restricted person works documents
areas of the at the airport
airport
196
At all
times
At all times At all times
Airport movement rules apply except
except in an At all times except bad 3
to security staff when they emergency weather
are on
patrol
197
Color Designated
Which of the following details Registered Safety
indicating access gate to 1
will be checked in AEP number status
198 area be used
Which one of the following is Normal
SLPC Frisking Finger prints 4
199 considered as biometrics? ID Cards
Which one of the following is Iris PEC Manual Barriers 1
200 considered as biometrics? Recognition Gates.
Which one of the following is Stamping Voice Manual
Boarding Access CCTV 2
considered as biometrics? Recognition
201 cards Control
Only during
When moving airside in a conditions Only during When
vehicle it is necessary to use crossing the At all times 4
of poor darkness
hazard warning lights runway
visibility
202
For protocol persons whose
duty warrants them to visit all Light
Purple Tokens Purple “P” 4
areas of a specific airport Green
which color of pass is issued
203
Know
Which of the following is NOT Know the boundary Pre-
Use vehicle
a safety rule while moving at ICAO between embarkation 3
hazard light
airport definitions landside and checks
airside
204
Do not
Do not
assume
Which of the following is NOT cross runway
a safety rule while moving at that it is
Use vehicle Drive vehicle
unless 4
safe to light without ADP
the airport clearance
cross
given by ATC
205 runway
Which of the following is the Access Reservation

vulnerable point of the airport ATC
Arrival Hall 1
control gate counter
206
Maintain radio contact with
the airport ground operations Vital
Apron Runways Parking Bays 3
control (or ATC) when moving Installations
in the vicinity of
207
Which one of the following is
Access
the vulnerable point of the SHA Reservation ATC 4
control gate
208 airport counter
Which one of the following is Fuel Terminal Check in
the vulnerable point of the Storage City Offices 1
Building Counters
209 airport areas
Who has the Authority to

all persons
access departure & arrival Hall Members Security
Employees who work on
of the terminal using ID card of staff of the 2
of the the airport
issued by Parliament parliament parliament parliament territory
Secretariat?
210
the typical Passenger Visitors Bars &
City Offices area 1
location/installation of the terminal restaurants
airport building
211
the typical City Fuel City area Reservation 2
location/installation of the Offices storage area counter
airport
212
Visitors
the vulnerable point of the Arrival Navigational City Offices 3
area
213 airport Facilities
all time

AEPs for Airport employees accessibility for official for personal
2
are issued for the purposes of to the duty facilitation name tags.
airport
214
Access Communicati Bars &
the vulnerable point of the Power houses 2
gates ons facilities. restaurants
215 airport
Module 04
Which are the category of Hotel
Airline
people who need authorized representa Local Public Visitor 2
employee
216 access to airside tive

Which are the category of
Diplomatic Emergency
people who need authorized Visitors Local Police 1
representa people
access to airside
tive
217
Passengers can be given
access to airport on the basis Pan card Id card Ticket Passport 3
218 of
Staff can be given access to Company
Pan card ADP AEP 4
219 airside on the basis of ID card
Labors can be given access Company Casual Membership
ID card 2
220 to airside on the basis of id card labor token Card
Member of parliament can
Driving
be given access to airside on ADP ID Card Passport 3
license
221 the basis of
To
control
movement To allow To allow To allow
Purpose of access control of people everyone to non traveling visitor in 1
people enter
from enter airside are
airside
landside to
222 airside
Access control system can Only Only CCTV Automatic 4
223 be automatic manual and manual
What details to be Details of
Passport Ticket Visitors
maintained in access control vehicle 1
details details details
224 point log admitted
Which of the following is not a Person
part of Physical access control manning Automatic 3
225 system Bollards Turnstile entry gate gates
Which of the following is not a Person
Drop arm Tyre
part of Physical access control Gates manning entry 4
barrier breakers
226 system? gate
Need not
Have to
Airport staff members who Need not pass through Can be
need to pass the screening submit to a submit to the the permitted
same 2
point for performance of their physical walkthrough without search
procedure as
duties search. metal by the CASO
passengers.
227 detector.
For operational reasons who

Exempted
can move from land side to APD COSCA Local Police Category 4
airside without security Check
228
To mark the
boundary
To keep To prevent
between To prevent
The main purpose of boundary cattle and people
landside and capture of 3
fencing is livestock off looking at
airside airport land
the runway aircraft
restricted
229 areas

Airline employees are Whenever Whenever Whenever
authorized to by-pass access they are off they are on Not ever 4
they are in
control points duty duty
uniforms
230
Set of rules which control the AEP &

Vehicle Company
access of people and vehicles Vehicle AEP 1
Permits Identity Card
to restricted areas of airside is Permit
231
Bonafide Any one Only to
Airside area of airport is passengers holding Authorized Airport
3
accessible to
232 only visitor ticket person employees
Those Those
staff having All having
Local rules & regulation of the employees Those having
Airside permanent 2
Airport should be known to working at Bonafide ticket
Driving Airport Entry
Airport
Permit Pass
233
All staff working at Airport
Once in Once in 5 When pass Once in a
must have under gone AVSEC 4
two years year is re-issued year
234 awareness training
Which of the following is not a Angular Simulation Close circuit
equipment used at access Mirrors televisions Flash lights 2
Chambers
235 control point
Module 05
Authority to drive a Airport Airfield Airside
Vehicle 4
vehicle in the operational entry Driving Driving
permit
236 area (Airside) is permit Permit Permit

Vehicle should be 3
Contraban Prohibited Weapons
searched for Narcotics
237 d items items
Airport 3
ADP is issued by BCAS DGCA Airlines
238 Operator

Access Control points Only Only 1
Barrier Nothing
should have Barriers Gates
239 and Gates
Oral
To drive a vehicle in Driving 1
ADP permission Recommenda
operational area, one needs License
240 by AAI tion by APD
How many gates are More
As less 1
required for better access gates are 10 8
as possible
241 control? required
Which one of the given
Body Vehicle Flash 1
equipment is not used to Mirror
scanner scanner light
242 conduct check on vehicle?
What is common for X-Ray 1
DFMD HHMD
243 every duty post? Barrier BIS
Maximum Speed for
30 25 50 15 1
driving vehicle in airport
KMPH KMPH KMPH KMPH
244 premises is
Speed of vehicle near 5 7 10 15 1
245 parked aircraft must be KMPH KMPH KMPH KMPH
What is the highest speed
15 25
20 1
limit for driving a motor 35 km/hr
km/hr km/hr km/pr
246 vehicle at Apron

Which of the given is Monitoring
Drop arm 3
not a part of Physical CCTV from Gates
barrier Turnstile
247 access control system Control
room
Which one of the given Colour Designated
BCAS 3
details will be checked in Photo indicating access gate
stamp
248 vehicle permit area to be used

Which one of the given is
Registered Area of Period of 1
NOT mentioned in vehicle Photo
number of validity validity
permit
249 vehicle
We
should
The equipment which we never
use at the vehicle access disclose to Better It is
control point should be in passenger access requirement 2
Proper maintenance of equipment
satisfactory working that the control of DGCA
condition because equipment
is not
working
250
Vehicle permits are Airport 4
BCAS DGCA Airlines
251 issued by Operator
Any
time
Any
security
kind of Communicati
Effective communication staff can
emergency He can on system
system is required at talk to his 2
he can talk to his gives
vehicle access control point family
contact colleagues sophisticated
because member
control look to check
or friends
room point.
to release
stress.
252
Registration number
given on vehicle should Vehicle 2
ADP AEP
match with the number Vehicle permit
253 given on
Which of the given

equipment is not used to Drop 3
Explosive Gates
stop the vehicle at the Bollards arm barrier
detectors
254 access control point?
Which of the given

equipment is used to stop Flash Drop arm 4
Explosive Mirror
the vehicle at the access light barrier
detector
255 control point?
For
ADP
AEC is ADP NOC
is issued ADP is
Which of the given issued only from 1
only after issued by
statement is correct? after ADP commissione
AEC BCAS
256 issuance r is
issuance
required.

Only
Vehicle occupants can be Only Checking Checking 3
checking
checked by frisking AEC and ADP
257 AEC
frisking

A departing passenger Any
Vehicle Entrance to 2
can access the airport from entrance to Emergency
gate of the the
the the airport doors
258 airport terminal
Access control to
3
airport is the responsibility Airport Airlines BCAS
APSU/ASG
259 of Operator
Which vehicle is
ADP
allowed to enter airside if AEC ADP & 4
ADP but not
driver is having which of but not ADP AEC
AEC
260 the given document
Status of equipments Access
Beat Personal 4
and records of incidents control Equipment
book diary
261 will be maintained in point log Log Register
To To
control the control the
movement movement Control
The main aim of access Both a 3
of people of vehicle movement of
control points are: &b
from land from land aircraft
side to side to
airside airside
262
His
If the AAI’s driver is
ADP and
violating the Airside He
identificatio Both a 2
driving discipline what will be
n permit and b Terminated
penalty will be imposed excused
will be
263 upon him
withdrawn
Need to
Every vehicle, which is have anti-
needs Need not 1
running in operational collision
only flag have ADP Occupants
area light or
264 flag
Equipments for operating
Both a Only 3
barrier and turnstiles can
Manual Automatic &b manual
265 be
At an airport, Airside
Airlines 2
vehicle access control point Airport Immigration
ASG/APSU Security
266 are manned by operator /Custom
Name the areas of Interior & Engine
Both A 3
vehicles to be checked for chassis of compartme Holds
&B
267 prohibited items vehicle nt

Vehicle can be searched X-Ray 3
Trolley Physical Both A & B
by BIS
268 mirror checking
At what safe distance
radios should be used from 25meters 50meters 100meters 2
20meters
269 suspicious device.
What are the points Contact

Status
which should be Both a number of 3
of the Records of
maintained in access and b other
equipment the incident
270 control point log agencies
Don’t
What will be the course
try to
of action when a
Remain restrain the Both a
prohibited or suspicious
calm and driver or and b
Only a 3
item is discovered during
polite use physical
271 search of a vehicle
force

In a vehicle permit
Registrati
what are the important Designated Both a 3
on Only a
points which should be access gate and b
number of
272 seen while checking to be used
vehicle
Module 06

Transmiss

Remote control bomb ion of 4
Command Infrared Humidity
cannot be activated by electroma
wire bomb
gnetic
273 waves
Change
Remote control bomb can in 3
Time Infrared Humidity
be activated by temperatur
274 e
The abbreviation of POD Proof of Point of Power Postal 2
275 stands for departure detonation of detonator order
IED
IED IED IED with
A _______________ with
with with Anti Remote 3
type of IED is activated by Ambient
Delayed handling control
the victim mechanis
276 mechanism mechanism mechanism
m
Which of the given IED IED
IED IED
method of concealment of concealed concealed in 4
concealed concealed in
IED would be difficult to in a wooden a plastic
in a book a laptop
277 identify in XBIS box bottle
IED
IED IED IED with
Which of the given type of with
with with Anti Remote 3
IED is most dangerous to Ambient
Delayed handling control
handle mechanis
278 mechanism mechanism mechanism
m
A micro switch with a

pressure release Anti Remote
Ambient 3
mechanism is Delayed handling control
mechanis
_______________ type of mechanism mechanism mechanism
m
279 switch
An IED which may

explode once atmospheric Thermomete 1
Barometer Altimeter Micro switch
pressure changes, uses r
280 ____________ as a switch
An IED which would

explode once aircraft Anti Remote
Ambient 1
reaches exactly 35000 feet, Delayed handling control
mechanis
uses ____________ to mechanism mechanism mechanism
m
281 activate the device
An IED planted at

night automatically Micro Remote Light 4
Watch
explodes on sunrise, uses switch control sensor
282 ___________ as a switch

Only Only Chemicals
Which of the given is true
digital mechanical can also be Maximum 3
for time / delay mechanism
clock can clock can used to delay can be
in IED
283 be used be used cause a for 24 hours
delay
By
means of a
wire
Handling
IED with a command connecting
Electroma Loud it any way 2
wire mechanism is from
gnetic sound such as
activated by bomber to
waves lifting, tilting
the
intended
284 target
________________ can be
cast into shapes such as Sheet 2
RDX TNT Cordtex
dolls heads, animals, wall explosive
285 plaques
Which of the given is
1
an example of high Flares
Semtex Gunpowder Fireworks
286 explosive
Which of the given is an 2
ANFO Semtex C4
287 example of low explosive Gunpowder
In EVD presence of
Image 1
explosives is detected by Traces Smell
Vapours detection
288 collection of
In ETD presence of
Image 2
explosives is detected by Vapours Traces Smell
detection
289 collection of
Limited Low Low Limited
The abbreviation LTPE Threat Time Temperatur Temperature 3
stands for Plastic Plastic e Plastic Plastic
290 Explosive Explosive Explosive Explosive

Low Small
Electrical
Explosives are of two explosive explosive Traditional 1
and non
types and high and big and Modern
electrical
291 explosive explosive explosive
explosive
Anti handling bomb in Change
4
the bag cannot be activated Pulling Opening in
Lifting
292 by temperature
What is the colour of Dirty 2
White
293 the safety fuse Yellow black Chocolate
What is the colour of 2
Greenish Yellow Black White
294 gelatine

Does not
Which one of the given Requires Requires 3
Burns require
is true for an IED incendiary initiating
detonator
295 device mechanism

Concealing
Which of the given falls Concealin Concealing Concealing
explosive in 3
under concealment of g explosive explosive in explosive in
a box
explosives on person in the sole of false bottom
carried in
296 handbag shoe of bag
handbag
It is It does not It can
Which of the given is It can be 2
easy to require take any
NOT true for IED? of any size
297 conceal detonator shape
__________ is an explosive
Incendiar
device designed, Inert Impact
y Improvised 4
fabricated, placed and Explosive Exploding
Explosive Explosive
activated to create panic Devi Device
Device Device
298 and chaos among public
IED
IED can IED is device always
IED has
Which of the given is be of any always of uses 1
fixed
true for IED shape, size specific incendiary
mechanism
299 or colour shape material for
explosion
An IED which may Anti
Remote
explode if you tilt the handling Delayed 1
Ambient control
package, has ____________ mechanis mechanism
mechanism mechanism
300 mechanism m

Transmiss Transmission
Remote control bombs Transmissi 4
ion of Transmissio of
can be activated by on of sound
electric n of light electromagne
waves
301 current tic waves
1
an example of plastic RDX TNT ANFO
Semtex
302 explosive
Which of the given is an
example of plastic PEK RDX TNT ANFO 1
303 explosive
FM Transmission and

Radio Control mechanism Anti- Ambient 1
Remote
are ________ type of Delayed handling Condition
Control
304 Switch.
Explosives are of 2
One Two Three Four
305 _______ types?
Detonator is also 2
Switch
306 known as Initiator Explosive Mechanism
Nitroglycerine is
Not an 1
………………………. Liquid Plastic Solid
explosive
307 Explosive.
How many types of 2
One Two Three Four
308 detonators are available?
- PTD switch comes in Remote Ambient Anti- 2
Time delay
309 which category control condition handling
To avoid
effect
Dismantling is one of the To avoid For easy 1
before For safety
method to carry I.E.D detection carriage
310 decided
time
Pyro technique is a Anti
Delay 2
________ switch handling Ambient
Mechanism Command
311 mechanism switch
Anti
Pressure release Handling Delayed Time 1
Remote
mechanism is based on mechanis mechanism control
312 m
IED is which type of 4
Commerci Economic Military Home Made
Explosive
313 al
IED has how many 4
1 2 3 4
314 components
Not
Not Not using
manipulat
With regard to discovery throwing radio radio
ing or Failing to
of an explosive device, water or any equipment in 2
moving take threat
which of the given would other the vicinity of
the seriously
be an incorrect action? substance on the subject
suspect
315 the object device
object
Metal sensitive switch is a
Anti 3
_______________________ Delayed Ambient Remote
handling
_________ type of switch.
316
Total permissible size 3
6” 3” 9” 8”
317 of Kirpan is
An item a passenger
can carry in his hand Knife Lighter Book Blade 3
318 baggage
An item a passenger
Walking 1
cannot carry in his hand Knife Laptop Mobile
stick
319 baggage or on person
The switch mechanism is 3
2 3 4 1
320 classified into _____ types
Airlines security staff
Diffuse Dispose Relocate 2
working at the airport Recognize
IED IED IED
321 should be able to IED

Unconventional Disguised 4
Traditiona Modern Chemical
weapons are Weapons
322 l weapons weapons weapons
2
IID is designed to Burn Burst Blast
323 Explode
Which one of the given is 4
TNT RDX Semtex Gun Powder
324 incendiary material
Which one of the given
item can be carried in Machine Starter 4
Pistol
checked in luggage without Revolver gun pistol
325 license
Which of the given is an Pocket Box Hockey 1
Kirpan
326 example of weapon knife cutter stick
An IED planted in the day Ambient Anti Remote
explodes at night, uses mechanis Delayed handling control 1
_________________ switch m mechanism mechanism mechanism
327

X-ray sensitive switch is a Remote Delay Time 1
Ambient
_________type of switch. control mechanism delay
328 condition

Which one of the given is Requires Easy to 2
Burns
true for an IED ? incendiary Explodes identify
329 device
Small pieces (approx 50 g)

of blasting gelatine (nitro-
glycerine based) explosives
embedded with pistachio
and other nuts covered disguising 1
hidden
with icing sugar and and concealing disguising
wrapped in cellophane to concealing
give the appearance of
Arab sweetmeat is the
method used for
330
Any Any Fully
Kirpan of 6 inches blade is
flight registered domestic 3
permitted with a Sikh International
operated aircraft in flight in
passenger to be carried in flight
331 from India India India

Which one of the given is
Requires Requires a Less 3
NOT applicable for an Burns
incendiary high destruction
IID?
332 device explosive
Which one of the given is Sulphur 3
TNT RDX Semtex
333 NOT an explosive powder
Write number of
categories prohibited items Three four two five 2
334 are divided into
In addition to prohibited
( large
items, screeners should be dangerous food ( plants 1
quantity of
attentive to the discovery goods items and animals
money
335 of any
Airlines Airlines Airlines

security security security staff
staff staff to should hand
should obtain the
If passenger fails to
immediate necessary passenger
declare ammunition
ly declaration with a
carried in his registered Passenger
summon and register complaint to 2
baggage or hand baggage will be
the Local a complaint the local
before it is detected by released.
Police for with the police along
screener but is having a
necessary local police. with the
valid license with him:
legal There is no ammunition
action in need to for
this detain the necessary
regard. passenger. legal action.
336
Not
permitted Not Not
to be permitted to permitted to Allowed in
Prohibited items are carried be used be carried cockpit but not 3
while while aircraft on board an in cabin
entering an in flight
airport aircraft
337
Module 07
To
Look
The main aim to search make the to find To check 1
for left out
the SHA is ___________ ? area narcotics cleanliness
baggage
338 sterile
What is the course of Make
action when you see Screen Immediatel Don’t announceme 2
unauthorized weapon in it. y safeguard touch it. nt to find the
339 SHA it. owner.
Check
If weapon discovered
all hand
while conducting search of Find Immediately Evacuate 3
bags of
SHA searcher should owner safeguard area
passenger
340 immediately the weapon
in SHA
Check
If IED discovered while
all hand Keep in
conducting search of SHA Notify Find 1
bags of security
searcher should supervisor owner
passenger control room
341 immediately
in SHA

When conducting It is small
Passenger Very few
search of the SHA more It is area to be 2
is passengers
attention to be paid to dirty controlled
unsupervise use it
342 toilets because and secured
d
More
More the facilities in Passengers Passengers
Cost checks to be 3
the SHA greater the make SHA do lot of
involved conducted of
problem because dirty shopping
343 facilities
What are the different X-Ray
methods of screening of Physical examinatio By 4
A & B
passenger in Sterile Hold search of n of cooling pit
344 Area passenger baggage
Pax X-rays
Screening & physical Both a & 3
SHA is secured by Only b
& checking of b above
345 searching baggage
Deputy chief
Which one of the Chief
Governor minister of 1
following will be screened Airlines Justice of
of State Union
346 before entering into SHA staff High Court
Territory
Searching and securing
Airport 1
SHA is _________ ASG/APS Airlines BDDS
operators
347 responsibility U

Conduct
Conduct
search of
SHA search of Maintain
“Maintain sterility of SHA and 3
should be SHA but strict access
SHA” signifies. maintain
clean access need control
strict access
not to
348 control
maintain
Before
allowing
After After
Search of SHA to be any During bomb 1
boarding passenger
conducted passenger threat
over entered SHA
to enter
349 inside
Which one of the Owner

Orange Exempted
following is exempted from of shop 4
CISF colour pass category of
screening before entering inside
holders people
350 into SHA SHA

Effective
Keeping Observing
screening of
Which of the following is all entry Screening of operational 4
passenger
the method to secure SHA points passenger holding area
and not
open and not staff and keeping
351 hand
surveillance
baggage
Anti Allowing
Sterility of SHA is sabotage Effective pax & goods Only (a) 4
maintained by & access screening of without & (b)
352 control pax search
In As a
response routine
The search of a holding
to an precaution Whenever a To keep 2
area is conducted for the
airport to detect high level of SHA clean
given reasons
bomb prohibited threat exists
353 threat items
At
At the Before
least 60 At the
A sterile holding area time the passengers
minutes time
located at a boarding gate passengers are screened 3
before the passengers
must be searched at the start to and allowed
passengers start to enter
given times board the into the
board the SH
aircraft holding area
aircraft
354
There are ____ types of 3
1 2 3 4
355 sterile holding are
Pax can It’s It is the part
It is the
Which statement is true go there another of the
secure area 4
about the airports sterile directly by name for airport
beyond the
area? way of the the public where food
checkpoint.
356 exit lane. area. is prepared.
One of the action that will Submerge Close all Place sand
be taken on identification package in windows bags around Open package 3
357 of suspicious object will be the water and doors the package
It will be
It is
Which of the following is immediately
treated as It will not It should not
3
not applicable for an taken to the be opened
a potential be touched
unclaimed article local police
bomb
358 station
ensure
passengers throw the
Windows should kept in reduce allow BDDS
can package out
open condition on the the impact to enter 1
evacuate of the
discovery of suspicious of through any
through window or
object, to explosion window
windows as door.
359 well
Module 08
False
alarm Power
the sign of interference or Broken 3
given by failure at Malfunction
attempted unauthorized doors
security airport of CCTV
access
360 equipment
Landside is an area where Non- 2

Restricted Strict Free
movements are_________. restricted
361
Guarding is basically a
static duty but patrolling is Moving Stable Standing Effective 1
362 a__________ .function.
The movement area of an

airport, adjacent terrain &
building or partitions 2
Landside Airside Apron Tarmac
thereof to which access is
controlled is called
363 _________.

Perimeter 3
is an element of Physical DFMD HHMD Light House
Wall
364 Barrier.
Patrolling is done at Perimeter 1
Aircraft Building X-ray
365 _______ (Location). road
Guarding is done at APM 3
X-ray Aircraft Hanger
366 _______ location. office
Surveillan Anti- Anti 1
Objective of patrolling is Intelligence
367 ce sabotage Hijacking
Guarding is basically a 2
Moving Static duty Check post Frisking.
368 _____ function
369 Patrolling is basically a ___ Moving Static duty Check post Frisking. 1

Patrolling is done _____ Round the 1
One During During Flight
(times in a day) clock
370 watch Hours operations
Aircraft Guarding is Airport Airline State 3
ASG
371 primary responsibility of Operator Operator Police
8 ft wall
with 1.5 ft 8 ft wall
Height of Perimeter wall at “Y” with 1 ft 1
9 ft 8 ft
airport is Barbed “Y” Barbed
wire wire fencing
372 fencing
Passive
Which electronic gadget Radio Biometric 2
CCTV Infrared
373 is used for surveillance? Set Devices
Sensors
Terminal building comes Both ( & 4
Airside Operational
374 under Landside (b)
area
In night, aircraft should Dark well-lit Without Under 2
375 be parked in __________ area area guard camouflage

Guarding and Patrolling
Security Airline Airport 1
inside the airport is done Immigration
personal security operator
by staff
376 of ASG
In an airport, Apron area Fuel 2
Airside ATS
377 is within Landside Storage
Patrolling can be by Watch Control 2
Foot From ATC
378 __________ tower room
What is the prescribed
Focusing Very Focusing 1
position of the lights used out Focused at
dim down
379 at perimeter duty points

Separate
Not to To not to
Physical barriers are used restricted Marking 1
allow any allow any
to and non- of building
person vehicle
restricted
380 areas
Only Only

How many types of Both a 3
Foot Vehicle Profiling
patrolling are there and b
381 patrolling patrolling
Module 09
Body
equipment is used to screen HHMD X-BIS DFMD 3
scanners
382 bags
Screening of passenger is
done with the help of X-BIS EVD ETD DFMD 4
383
Which one is not the search
equipment used for Passenger HHMD MRTD DFMD WTMD 2
384 screening
The staff requirement at a
screening Point is 4 3 5 2 3
385
Person
Everyone will be subjected to Women under Medical
Staff 3
screening except &Children exempted patient
386 category
Subjected to
100%
screening by
means of x-
Subjected to
rays and
What security measures shall Hand or search only
walk through Answers
be applied to passengers and physically when 3
their cabin baggage? searched metal 1and 2 equipment
detectors
alarms
supported by
hand-held
metal
detectors
387
Hand Held Hand Held Hand Held
The abbreviation HHMD Hand Held
Man Metal Metal 2
stands for? Detector Detector Detection Man Detection
388
Electro-
HHMD works on the principle Back Radio magnetic Pulse
Scattering transmission Infra red 4
of field
389 Principle
technology
Every day
when using Every week Before Only when
How often should HHMD be
it in the on a random Frisking problems are 3
checked or verified?
screening basis Passenger identified
point
390
Check that the battery is fully None of the
DFMD HHMD X-BIS 2
391 charged is applicable to above
Do not hold
Do not HHMD away
Do not hold
place Do not use it from body, it
Select the wrong answer
HHMD on or swing it by as a hammer should touch
4
wet surface the head the area to be
392 checked
Hold HHMD at the distance of
2.5 cms 3 cm 5 cm 1 inch 1
393 ____ from passenger
While checking passenger,
Passenger He is carrying Faulty No Metal is
Long & Continuous beep in 2
is clear metal equipment there
394 HHMD indicates
He has to
remove all He has to He can carry
Before checking passenger metallic remove all He can carry all his
2
with HHMD objects metallic coins personnel
except cell objects items with him
phone
395
If it comes If the metal Detector
HHMD can detect metal items in direct items is in a placed 2.5 cm
Both 2 & 3 4
only contact specific from pax
with metal range only body
396
Gives fair Gives pin point
Gives Safety Health
Select the wrong one in case location of location of
Audio & standards 3
of HHMD Video alarm satisfied metal on metal on
397 person person
The abbreviation DFMD Door Frame Dual Fast Door Frame Door Frame
Multi Metal Metal 4
stands for? Metal Detector
398 Detector Detector Detection
DFMD is safe for ……….. And Metals, Pacemakers , Pacemakers, Weapons ,

non-metallic Pregnant 3
………..? Facemakers Drugs
399 material Women’s
DFMD is used to detect 30gms and 30gms and

metallic items on person’s below 0.30gms above 0.5gms 3
400 body which is of
Electro-
DFMD works on the principle magnetic Electric Pulse Radio
Infra red 1
of Pulse field technology transmission
technology
401
Ferrous and
Non metallic Metals of all
DFMD can detect Explosives Non ferrous 2
items item range
402
The DFMD resets after a
30 Minutes 3 Minutes 3 Sec 30 Sec 3
403 maximum time of
DFMD has ______ overlapping
06 08 10 05 2
404 zones
Calibration of DFMD is done
OTS CTP OTP OCC 3
405 by _______
406 The size of OTP is 10X10 cm 20X20 cm 05X05 cm 10 X 10 mm 1
Every day
How often should equipment when Every week Only when
calibration be checked or staffing the on a random Every month problems are 1
verified? screening basis identified
point
407
Distance between 02
passengers passing through 3 meters 3 feet 30cm 30 feet 2
408 DFMD should be
Red light illuminates on the Alarming

Electronic unit of DFMD, Weapon Explosive quantity of IED 3
indicates passenger is carrying metal
409
LEDs give what kind of
Exact Fair Pin point Perfect 2
410 locations of metal on person
Pat down search is divided Whole body Partial Half body
Both 1and 2 3
411 into how many parts search search search
Performance of X-BIS is
CTP OTP EVD Sniffer dogs 1
412 checked by
Non detection of IED or

replicas of weapons made of HHMD &
CCTV HHMD X-BIS 3
non-metallic material is the DFMD
short coming of
413
Need not
undergo Pre- Pre-
Passengers who are the pre- embarkation embarkation
Exempted from
ambulance cases, and are embarkatio security security check
Pre-
directly taken through the n checks if check of of passenger
embarkation
security gates to the aircraft accompanie passenger and vehicle 3
for boarding due to their d by Doctor will be search will be check on
Medical
exceptional condition/illness, and has carried out at carried out at
grounds
etc. valid the security the security
medical gate. gate
certificate.
414
If mixing or contact between All

passengers subjected to passengers Those
It must be
security control and other No further and cabin passengers
reported to 2
persons not subjected to such action baggage must be
ICAO
control takes place, what must be re- segregate
action shall be taken? screened
415
Performing
Asking the additional
passengers security
When performing screening to go back checks on
on passengers and cabin through the passengers in
Isolate the Isolate the
baggage, it is essential to screening addition to 2
passenger baggage
make sure that all alarms are point until those
cleared by: they do not performed at
generate an the normal
alarm signal screening
point
416
What must take place in the
event that a passenger is able Re-screening Re-screening
to bypass the normal security Nothing of all of all carry-on Both b and c 4
controls and become mixed passengers items
with other passengers?
417
In the
On the top of
terminal
the step
In case of inclement weather, building
ladder just Inside the
when the aircraft is parked at just before At entry of
before passenger 1
remote stand SLPC should be the step ladder
passenger coach
carried out passenger
gets into the
get into the
aircraft
bus
418
It is a group
Check-in of
There is group check-in out of check-in so it
weapon bag In group check-
which one passenger is No extra can checked
carrying weapon in registered precaution in on any one should be on in passenger 3
bag. What extra precaution required passenger’s the license will not carry
holder’s name weapon bag
you will take. name who is
only
in the group
419
As
At SLPC passenger denies to documenta
tion proves You will not You can
open bag and says it contains him to be physically inform him it You will tell
gold and currency. By goldsmith, check the is a procedure him to carry as 3
documentation it he proves to
not bag but only or else he registered bag
be goldsmith. What action you
will take. required to screen it cannot travel
check the
bag
420
He is within
Only allow his limits , but Allow him to
If the passenger is not ready him to pass Do not he can’t be
board the 3
to get frisked then through check him allowed to
aircraft
DFMD board the
421 aircraft
If during physical inspection of Inform

Unscrew the
Hold Baggage, a passenger is passenger
Take no container and Notify
found to be carrying an that he 3
action smell the supervisor
unsealed bottle of gin. You cannot carry
contents.
will: the bottle.
422
Not more than ____ LEDs
should glow when no one is 3-4 01-02 2-3 3-5 2
423 passing through DFMD
Module 10
X-ray X-ray
X-ray Bag X-ray Baggage
Baggage Baggage
XBIS stands for Image Inspection 4
Initiating Identification
System Software Solution System
424
Stand-alone XBIS commonly Ion Gas

used at airports for screening Mobility Chromatogra Multi-Energy Backscatter
3
of hand baggage works on the Spectromet technology technology
phy
principle of: ry
425
In how many maximum
stages/levels the baggage is 5 stages 3 stages 2 stages 4 stages 1
426 screened in inline baggage
Load officer of the X-BIS is also
Senior Profiler Pilot Loader 2
427 known as
As per approved technical
specifications, the approx 30 Kgs 25 Kgs 40 kgs 50 kgs 3
428 weight of ETD should be
Ion
Gas
ETD works on which principle? mobility Ion stability Chromatograp Ionization of 1
spectromet spectrometry particles
hy
ry
429
Gas
EVD works on which Ion mobility Gas
chromatogr Vapourization 1
principle? aphy spectrometry spectrometry
430
How much time should the
EVD take for analysis of a
3 sec 2 sec 2.5 sec 10 sec 3
sample, as per approved
specification?
431
Simulation chamber operates

on the principle of activating
Physical Gaseous Liquid
the explosive device in the Chemicals 1
conditions conditions conditions
suspect object by simulating
the
432
In how many colors does the
One Two Four Three 4
433 X-BIS project images?
434 How many test are in CTP 4 6 8 9 2
Which one Is not a test to Single Wire Thick Metal Simple
Resolution Multi energy
3
435 check the efficiency of X-BIS Imaging penetration
In Single wire resolution test
which SWG wire should be 24 SWG 26 SWG 40 SWG 42 SWG 3
436 seen on Perspex sheet?
The un insulated Copper wire

are placed in S shape on which Perplex Plastic Perspex Preflux 3
437 Sheet
What material is used to make

Iron Steel Lead Aluminum 4
the Step wedge in second test
438
Multi energy test
Atomic Molecular Atomic Serial number
discriminates the material as 3
Weight Weight Number in clerks table
439 per their
Strip of which metal is used in
Tin Copper Lead Steel 4
440 Simple penetration test
Lead should be visible
26 SWG 24mm 26mm 42 SWG 2
441 beneath which steel block
In spatial resolution test the

horizontal and vertical Nickel Brass Copper Aluminum 3
gratings is made on Plate
made up of
442
In thin metal imaging test
which mm strip should be 0.1 0.05 0.01 1 1
443 seen
How many minimum

screening staff are required
4 3 6 2 1
for each X-BIS for screening of
baggage
444 To detect
weapon,
To control To control
What is the main aim of the To detect explosive or
screening movement drugs movement of other 4
445 of people vehicle
dangerous
devices
Name the test of CTP in which
Spatial Simple Single wire Thin metal
a lead strip is placed beneath 2
resolution penetration resolution imaging
446 26mm steel
Dangerous
Dangerous goods register at Date of Manufactures
goods czkM dk uke 1
X-BIS will contain details of expiry name
447 detected
Activate X-
BIS as it will Ensure X-BIS
Measure
Pre-operation check of X-BIS is Radiation not work works as per
Both 1 & 2 3
carried out to without pre- BCAS
level
operation specification
448 check
Lower the SWG number, how
Thicker Denser Wider Thinner 1
449 is the wire
Feedback of detected TIP
Red Green Yellow Blue 2
object appears in which colour
450
Feedback of TIP object not
detected appears in which Red Green Yellow Blue 1
451 colour
Module 11
Airports are protected by Layers of Covers of Circles of Areas of

protection Protection 1
providing one of the following protection protection
452
Which facilities or locations
will be protected by first line Perimeter ATC SHA Aircraft 1
453 of defence?
Which facilities or locations Departure Windows of Cargo

will be protected by first line terminal Apron 1
entry gate warehouse
454 of defence? Building
Exterior of
building
will be protected by second ATC Aircraft Arrival gate 1
towards
line of defence?
airside
455
Exterior of
will be protected by third line building ATC Security Hold Boarding gate 2
towards Area
of defence?
airside
456
Who is responsible for
Airport Airline
protection of the first line of Police ASG/APSU 4
Operator Security
457 defence?
Who is responsible for ASG/APSU/ Agency

protecting an vulnerable point Airport BDDS working in Airline Security 1
458 in an airport Operator airport
Maximum protection required Outer line Inner line of Middle line of Key line of
2
under which line of defence of defence defence defence defence
459
Who is responsible for
protecting an diverted aircraft ASG/APSU Handling Police Pilot in 4
where the airlines doesn’t has Agency command
its set up
460
Who is primarily responsible Airport Airline

ASG BCAS 3
to protect an aircraft? operator operator
461
To look for
To look for
The Primary aim to search an To look for left behind To look for
prohibited 3
aircraft is drugs items by currency
articles
Passenger
462
Who will Search the interior of Handling Airline
Cleaners 3
463 the aircraft Engineering Agency Security
Searching the Galley & toilets
will be carried out by Cleaners Catering staff Technician Airline Security 4
464
Checking the Cargo hold is the Airline
Cargo staff Loaders Technician 3
465 responsibility of Security
Checking Engine cowl, Wheel

Airline
well and other exterior of the Captain Engineers In-flight 2
Security
aircraft is carried by
466
If searched
Search of aircraft will be If searched If searched Both 1 & 2 by a well 4
467 effective by ASG by QRT
trained staff
To conduct an effective search
of the aircraft the searcher Be familiar Know the
Know to
Both 1 & 3 1
should mechanism operate
468
For an effective search the Emergency Anti-hijacking

Contingenc Search Plan 2
searcher should have a y Plan Plan plan
469
To carry out the aircraft search
Aircraft Crew Transit Engineering
in a systematic way the 1
checklist checklist checklist checklist
470 searcher should carry a
Which tool is required to carry Mirror,
Night vision
out the search in an efficient mirror HHMD EVD 1
manner? extension lamps
471
Open and look
What will be the course of
Deposit it Lift and inside for
action when you notice an Don't touch 2
to APM Screen it dangerous
472 unattended baggage?
articles
Starter sockets, refueling wells Anti Anti

and battery access hatches of hijacking Sabotage Anti terrorist Anti theft
checks of 2
an aircraft shall be opened checks of checks of measures
aircraft
and searched as a part of aircraft aircraft
473
Controlled
Safe and Patrolled and
For security purposes, all and well Safe and Vital
Controlled Guarded 1
aircraft should be parked in illuminated areas
areas areas
areas
474
Not
necessary,
as crew
members
The aircraft operator should are obliged True, as it Searches As and when
have a search checklist placed to facilitates depend on required 2
on board an aircraft. memorize searches threat
the areas to
be searched
during
training.
475
Engineering Engineering, BCAS, Engineering,

Aircraft security release
, DGCA, Commercial, Commercial, Commercial,
certificate’ is signed by which
Catering, DGCA, Catering, Catering,
five departments related to 4
Ground Ground Ground Ground
Aviation before it is handed
Support, Support, Support, Support,
over to the commander?
Security Security Security Security
476
Interiors of
an aircraft
Aircraft security check may to which Hold of an (1) is true but
both (1) & (2) 4
be defined as an inspection of pax may aircraft (2) is false
have had
access
477
Module 12
Which one is not a method Physical Explosive Simulation
X-ray 4
of Screening a passenger’s bag Check detectors chamber
478
The bag The
The bag Higher
Physical inspection of has has currency level of threat passenger 3
baggage is required when valuables in misbehaves
in it exist
it with you
479
There is Contents Give some To show
Physically check of few bag no crowd cannot be work to that you do
2
has to be carried out as near X-ray determined Physical some work at
BIS by X-ray searcher X-ray BIS
480
Which is not a category of
Clear Doubtful Unsafe Oversize 4
481 bags
Start at Start from

Check Start from
This is a recommended bottom and center and
portions of top and work
technique for physical search work work the bag in a towards the 4
of bag toward the towards the random way
bottom
top edges
482
One of the security Don’t Affix security Don’t leave Deploy a
measures ensured for hand over
sticker / the bag staff to secure 2
registered bag after screening the bag to
is pax strapping unattended the bag always
483
Action on detecting Escort the Notify
prohibited item during Alarm Restrain pax upto supervisor by 4
physical inspection of a the pax the pax pre-arranged
aircraft
baggage signal
484
Action on detecting Tell the pax
Don’t allow the
dangerous article during Notify Clear the he can’t carry pax to board 3
physical inspection of a Police bag it with him as
the aircraft
baggage per DGR
485
The size of hand baggage
50 x 25 x 50 x 35 x 15 50 x 30 x 20 45 x 35 x 20
allowed in Jammu and 3
Kashmir is 25 cms cms cms cms
486
The size of hand baggage 55 x 25 x 50 x 40 x 55 x 35 x 20 55 x 35 x 25
allowed other than Jammu 4
35 cms 25 cms cms cms
487 and Kashmir is

Scale
X-raying Questioning
To find out false bottom of method or
the empty the pax about EVD / ETD 1
baggage, the method used are weighing
baggage any such
method possibilities
488
The checks should be made

not not spilling
on all supplies of LAGs and to prohibit it 1
Protected damaged out
STEBs to establish they are
489
Security tamper-evident
bags are the bags which Airport on board Both 1 and Check-in
3
should only be used for the outlets aircraft. 2 counters
sale of LAGs by
490
SPG personnel can carry

one Pistol with ____cartridges
and one Sub Machine Gun 60 & 150 70 & 100 50 & 100 100 & 150 1
/Assault Rifle with
____cartridges
491
For
100% physical baggage British On Threat Normal
Always 2
checking is required? Airlines call time
flight
492
Open and
What will be the course of
Deposit Don’t Lift and look inside for
action when you notice an 2
unattended baggage? it to APM touch search it dangerous
493 articles
Tallying
no. of
baggage
checked in
and
accepted Counting of
for loading Counting Hand Baggage Counting of
Baggage Reconciliation is in the of Registered loaded in the Pax at 1
Aircraft baggage Cabin of boarding gate
with the Aircraft
Pax
reported
for
boarding
the Aircraft
494
The bag containing any
Mishandled
component of I.E.D is Threat bag Clear bag Doubtful 1
bag
495 categorized into
Essential equipment for

conducting physical searches Torch Mirror 15 cm rule. Search table 4
496 of baggage is
Which item can be carried

Assault Starter
in check in luggage without Pistol Revolver Rifle Pistol 4
497 licence
The relevant document to

be checked at the time of
Travel Driving
accepting a weapon in X-BIS Duty Slip Gate Pass 1
Document Licence
from a bonafide Staff on duty
is
498

Who can carry weapon and
ammunition on person inside Dignitaries Chief of 1 & 2 Sky Marshal 4
of high risk Army
the aircraft
categories
499
People in
PSO of Dignitaries
Who Can carry weapon in SPG Exempted Prime of high risk 3
Cabin baggage category list
Minister categories
for PEC
500
Who can carry a weapon in PSO of PSO of Air chief
fully loaded condition on Prime Chief Sky Marshal 4
Marshal
501 board of an aircraft Minister Minister
Any
While carrying a service Gazetted rank
Army
weapon Movement order / PSO of VIP officer of SPG 3
staff
Duty slip is not required for Police dept
502 and army.
Whose permission is

required to carry more
number of weapon & Police CISF BCAS DGCA 4
ammunitions by sports
person.
503
There is Unit

Which Is a recommended The item no sign of securing The
procedure to check electronic operates tampering or screw show behaviour of 3
satisfactoril
items modification sign of pax is normal
y
of case damage
504
Inspection by holding and
Packed Aerosol Electronic
determining weight of the Medicine 2
food containers goods
505 contents applicable for
The relevant document to

be checked at the time of Passport Weapon Travel Driving
2
accepting a weapon in X-BIS Copy Licence Document Licence
from a bonafide pax is
506
How
many To check The camera
Checking the Film number the numbers
Photos contains film Both 1 & 2 4
indicator is to see are displayed
have been roll
correctly
taken
507
In BMA baggage
Load & BMA Grid Baggage Passenger
reconciliation is done with the 4
help of Trim Sheet Sheet Tally List Name List
508
Which of the item shall be
paid special attention while Aerosol
Jewellery Cash Food items 1
conducting physical checks of containers
baggage
509
Module 13

Immediatel Immediately
y disembark disembark all
Which of the following all passengers Immediately
action is implemented passengers who have disembark all Do not take
immediately after a bomb who have boarded passengers any action till
threat call is received for an boarded along with who have BTAC decision 2
aircraft where boarding has along with their hand boarded but is
completed but BTAC decision their hand baggage and leave hand communicated
is awaited baggage keep aircraft bags in the
and shift ready to be aircraft itself
aircraft to shifted to
isolated bay isolated bay
511
Help to Be useful
The recipient of bomb Help in Help in
get an idea in
threat call should try to tracing the Locating the 3
of age of recognising
prolong the call because it will the caller the caller call Bomb
512
Most of
Most
bomb the bomb Most of the Bomb
Which of the following is threats are bomb threats threats should
threats are 3
true in case of a bomb threat declared as are hoax in not be taken
preceded
specific nature too seriously
by warnings
513 threats
All
This passengers
travelling on
A passenger who reports for passenger This
check in after bomb threat call could have that flight He could passenger
have to be have checked
has been received for the been could be a VIP
handed over in the bag 1
flight on which he is travelling, responsible as he has
to containing the
is immediately referred to the for making reported at the
APSU/ASG, bomb
APSU/ASG because the threat last minute
hence he
call should also
be referred
514
As airport

Immediately You will be targeted, you
You are allocated at remote rush to extra alert
will call
bay guarding grounded terminal and vigilant at
security in
aircraft and you received news Immediatel building to the aircraft
charge to send 3
that bomb exploded in y run out of see the and conduct
CISF to man
terminal building, what action airport damage and periodical
the aircraft and
you will take. check if your checks of
to relieve you
help is aircraft
at the earliest
required
515
In case of a non specific Airline
Bomb
bomb call search of aircraft Technician ASG/APSU security/Engin DOG Squad 3
516 will be conducted by eering
Station Air

Who is the coordinator of Airport In charge of
Manager of Worthiness 3
BTAC Director BDDS
517 airline Officer
List out the AGENCY whose
representative is involved to
DGCA ASG/APSU Airline BDDS 2
cordon off an aircraft in case
of a specific call
518
A warning where the threat

permits identification of a
Non-
specific target, or where the Specific
specific Hoax call Bomb Alert 2
caller has positively identified threat
threat
himself or the organization
involved is
519
How much

Whether
‘What time is the bomb set time is
What the bomb was Who must
to explode’ is the question available in placed in the
type of have placed 2
asked to the caller of bomb hand before
device is it day or at the bomb
threat to know the bomb
night
explodes
520
A warning that can be

related to one or more targets
but where there is doubt Specific Non Hoax call Enquiry Call 2
about its credibility or about call specific call
the effectiveness of existing
countermeasures
521

Which one of the following Emergency
APD Commandan BDDS 3
is NOT the member of BTAC service people
522 t of ASG

Which one of the following Diplomatic
Commandan DGCA APD 1
is NOT the member of BTAC representa
t of ASG
tive
523
Inform
Aircraft Passengers
Which one of the following passenger to Do not
action will be taken in case of to be taken remain to deplane offload 1
to isolated without hand
specific bomb threat call seated in the catering
bay baggage
524 aircraft
All All registered

Registered
registered baggage will
Which one of the following baggage be offloaded Registered bags will be
action will be taken in case of will be and taken to bags will not offloaded and 4
kept 100mtr
specific bomb threat offloaded terminal be offloaded
away from
and taken building for aircraft
to BMA rescreening
525
In case of specific threat

agencies carrying out search
will sign a completion
CASO COSCA ATC BDDS 3
certificate and forward it to
which agency to get clearance
for aircraft to take off
526
Aircraft Aircraft to
Aircraft to Aircraft to be
In case of non specific call to be taken remain at its be taken to checked by 2
to isolated normal taxiways BDDS
bay parking bay
527
Aircraft to be
Aircraft checked by Aircraft to be
Aircraft to
to be airlines checked by
In case of non specific call
checked by be checked
3
security, CISF and airline
by dog squad
BDDS airlines security
528 engineer
you will follow on the Submerge Close all Place sand Open
windows and bags around 3
identification of suspicious package in package
object the water doors the package
529

Coordinator Coordinator
In case of specific threat to to make Passengers Coordinator will ensure to
will remain will ensure to
terminal building which one of announcem open 2
in terminal switch off air
the following is not correct ent on PA emergency
building conditioner
system to door
evacuate
530
Evacuation

All passengers of only
In case of non specific threat Evacuation Evacuation
except ones in passenger is
to terminal building which of of building of building is 1
SHA should be required, staff
the following is true is not required
evacuated will not leave
required
531 office
Pre-
Which of the following is a Perimeter
embarkatio
counter measure to reduce wall around Installation QRT’s 3
n security of caller ID
bomb threats at airport the airport
check
532
All
passengers
and their No
hand Only hand Only registered
Which of the following is additional
baggage bags of
true for a Non specific threat checks will bags of
call where all passengers have have to be carried passengers passengers will 1
undergo will be re-
boarded the aircraft. out on be re-checked
security checked
passengers
checks
again at
SHA
533

Which of the following is a Up Installing
Introductio Patrolling
counter measures to tackle gradation of watch towers
n of Sky around the 2
bomb threat incidents at EDS and around the
marshals on perimeter
airport EDDS perimeter
the aircraft
534
In case of a specific bomb
Security Watch
call which agencies one of the Bomb Representati Officer of Supervisory 4
following will not be involved squad
ve from CISF airline Officer
in search of aircraft
535
in getting
The recipient of bomb in
To get an In an idea of the
threat call should try and hear understanding
idea of age recognising location from 3
background sounds because it of the caller the caller where call the motive of
will help was made the caller
536
Search area should be Floor to Ceiling to Waist to Floor to
head, head
divided into which three levels waist, waist floor, floor to waist, waist to
to waist, 4
while searching for a suspect to head, head, head to head, head to
waist to
device head to floor ceiling ceiling
ceiling
537
It is A safe It should be
Which of the following is treated as a It will not distance
opened to
NOT the correct way to handle should be 4
potential be touched check if owner
an unclaimed article bomb maintained can be traced
538 from it
Recipient
Appendix “A” of BWAF is of the By ASG By airline
Bomb squad 1
filled by bomb personnel Personnel
threat call
539
Give wide
Which of the following is a Pre- Perimeter publicity in
embarkatio local
counter measure to reduce wall around QRT’s 3
bomb threat at the airport n security the airport newspaper if
check caller is
540 identified
Sabotage to
Which is not a medical Collapsed Injured in Delivery of terminal 2
541 emergency in aviation? person Tsunami new born
building
Sabotage Fire in
The emergency, which is not Sudden
New born to terminal Terminal 3
related to aircraft? death
542 building Building
To assess To maintain
Why is the BWAF required? specific and To assess perfect data Formality 1
non specific the Caller about the
calls caller
543
Which is not a medical Sudden Collapsed
New Born Illness 4
544 emergency ? death person
While receiving a bomb Asking
intimating Intimating intimating to
threat call what will be the informative 1
to supervisor to APD CASO
545 first action? questions
To Check To show

the To keep
more people
Mock exercises are done? preparedne It's a duty force 1
in uniform at
ss for personnel busy
airport
contingency
546
Which committee is
coordinated by the APD BTAC CCS COSAH DGCA 1
547
Which one is not an Filling
Notify Intimating to
immediate action when you appendix “A” 3
supervisor Questioning APD
548 receive a Bomb Threat Call of BWAF
Who circulates the draft Bomb

Threat Contingency Plan on
the basis of which each airport AAI ASG BCAS BDDS 3
prepares its own Contingency
Plan
549
Emergency
Emergency
Delivery of a new born in an Emergency not involving Medical involving 3
aircraft is an involving emergency terminal
aircraft
aircraft building
550
Which is the highest body in
India to deal with hijacking CCS CC CMC AC 1
551 situation
The receiver of the Bomb
threat call should fill which BTAC BTCF BWAF Initial Report 2
552 form

Who is not included in BTAC
CASO APD WSO Representative 4
553 at a domestic airport
of Immigration
The alert status put on place High alert Red alert Bomb alert Non Specific 1
554 at the time of crisis alert
The aircraft Hijackers

Which procedure to be should be Fuelling should be
should be QRT action to
followed when an hijacked immobilizes provided all
provided & be started 1
aircraft lands at an Indian / runway the facilities
allowed to immediately
airport should be as per their
fly
blocked demand
555
During the bomb threat
declared to the flight, very Captain Cabin crew Passengers Engineer 3
556 first to Disembark should be
What is the response time of
fire fighting services in case of 2-3 Can take their
10 minutes 15 Minutes 1
any fire emergency of the minutes own time
aircraft
557
For an aircraft approaching

the airport which is in danger Full Aircraft
of an accident or is suspected emergency Local standby VVIP Standby 1
accident
to be in such danger, the drill
at the airport would be of
558
In case of specific threat

agencies carrying out search
will sign a completion
CASO COSCA ATC BDDS 3
certificate and forward it to
which agency for getting
aircraft clearance to take off
559
Bomb Bomb Bomb Threat Bomb Threat
BTCL stands for Threat Threat Contingency coordinator 1
560 Check List Control List List List
Positive Target Identification Bomb Natural Aircraft Medical

1
come in context with Threat Calamities accident Emergency
561
Module 14
The persons who need not Person in Authorized
VIP Passengers 4
562 be escorted is custody visitor
Sky Marshals can carry arms

and ammunition in the
Aircraft, concealed on their COSCA DG/CISF DG/NSG DGCA 1
person, only by authorization
of
563
Guarding of deportee Airport
/inadmissible pax in refusal ASG Airlines Local police 1
operator
564 room is the responsibility of
Permission for the carriage of
BCAS DGCA AAI BDDS 1
565 prisoner given by
Prisoner while boarding the Along After all Before all Before the
with the
aircraft has to board the the pax have the pax have crew have 3
other
aircraft passengers boarded boarded boarded
566
No of dangerous prisoner
3 2 1 4 3
allowed on board the aircraft
567
Minimum no of escorts
4 2 3 1 2
require for dangerous prisoner
568
A bonafide passenger is
In
carrying a weapon what In the In weapon In hand
registered 3
would be the procedure for cockpit compartment baggage
baggage
carriage of weapon in ATR
569
Sky marshals are from
BCAS ASG/APSU NSG Airline 3
570 which organization
Sky marshals travel as per Airline
DGCA BCAS NSG 2
571 schedule given by operator
Which colour AEP sky marshal
Orange C Orange Purple Navy Blue 2
572 carry
Who can carry weapon and Any person Bonafide
PSO’s of PSO’s of passenger
ammunition on person or in on bonafide 1
VVIP’s VIP’s holding valid
573 hand baggage duty
license
Bonafide
Who can carry weapon and SPG’s when
PSO’s of Sky passenger
ammunition in registered VVIP marshal accompanying 4
holding valid
574 baggage SPG Protectee
license
1 weapon
Maximum no of weapon 2 weapon 1 weapon 2 weapon
and 25
and ammunition can be ammunitio and 50 and 50 and 25 3
carried by passenger ammunition ammunition ammunition
n
575

Passenger’s with a valid Not at all
Hand Registered/c
weapon license can carry On person allowed to 2
baggage hecked
weapon in their carry
baggage
576
In case of carriage of more

number of weapons by sports BCAS DGCA COSCA APM 2
person permission is given by
577

Deportees
are persons
They are
Who is the deportee who have unruly They are The one who 1
been terrorist carry drugs.
passengers.
ordered to
leave the
state.
578
Weapon
For carriage of weapon sky Movement Letter from
authorizatio License 1
marshal are issued with n card order DGCA
579
should not be
Prisoner under
should not Give plastic surveillance
Which of the following is Permission
be cutlery to when using
incorrect measure applied for to be 4
carriage of prisoner? obtained handcuffed prisoner and lavatory as he
while in escort should get
from BCAS
580 aircraft privacy while
using the
Law
Enforcemen
Primary responsibility for t Agency of Airline
escorting a deportee is with ASG DGCA 1
the Security
the
deporting
country
581
The weapon
Pilots
Pilots shall may be
Which is not a normal shall be be notified stowed in an The carriage of
notified of weapons is
measure to be taken with
the number as to the seat
area
allowed only 3
regard to special categories of of armed locations of accessible to for authorized
passengers? armed everybody
persons on officers
board persons during the
flight
582
While escorting prisoners, Adequate
, Adequate weapon on
escorts should be equipped restraining Money sets of dress person 1
583 with devices
Bonafide
SPG’s when
Who can carry loaded gun in PSO’s of Sky passenger
flight VVIP marshal accompanying holding valid 2
584 SPG Protectee
license
Is deemed
Is not a
to be threat Should be
Which one is true for, persons threat to the Should not be
to the seated on 1
suffering from mental illness safety of a accompanied
safety of a emergency exit
flight
flight
585
A passenger who creates or
has the potential to creates or
has the potential to create
disturbance either on board
the aircraft or on ground and
in the process could endanger Sky AME Unruly SPG 3
marshals passenger
the safety of the
aircraft ,fellow passengers,
crew members, airline staff or
property thereby hampering
the operation is known as a
586
The number of passenger 2 4 6 8 2
587 disturbance threat level are
How many days in

advance.the policing authority
requiring transportation of a 30 days 15 days 07 days 02 days 3
prisoner by air shall send their
request in written to BCAS
588
A person who had legally been

admitted to a state by its
authorities or who had
entered a state illegally, and Deportees Inadmissible Diplomatic
Unruly person 1
who at some later time is person person
formally ordered by the
competent authorities to
leave the state is known as
589
That they
To check To check the
are not
The purpose of frisking a how much quality of
carrying any To create panic 1
passenger is to ensure money they cloths the are
prohibited
are carrying wearing
objects
590
Passengers shall be screened Extended Not at all
. DFMD Flash light 1
591 by angle mirror screened
Module 15
Access
Preparation
Which one of the following is Sealing of control of Checking
of dispatch 2
the responsibility of caterer? carts catering trays
592 slip
premises
Access Security of Supervise
control of chilling room Delivery of the pre-setting
the duty of airlines in catering 4
catering and raw material of the catering
security
premises refrigerators uplift
593
X-ray BIS,
How do you check catering X-ray BIS
Cooling off HHMD and
supplies like newspaper and and Hand ETK 3
and EDS Manual
594 toilet cleaning items? Search
Search.
Module 16
Diplomatic In case of The
bag will not doubt concerned
Security procedure of Prior
be opened in protocol diplomat will
Diplomatic bags doesn’t permission any division of report in 1
include from BCAS circumstance
MEA to be airport security
595 s contacted control room
Provides
security
Conducts
control for
business with To ensure
Regulated Agent has not Ticketing of Cargo which
the aircraft they have
been involved in the function the is accepted 1
operator for trained staff as
of passengers and required
freight per NCASTP
by forwarding
appropriate
authority
596
Which one is the method of Frisking Pat down Simulation Screening 3
597 screening cargo search chamber not required
How many days / hour prior
One day
On board courier will be 5hrs prior 2hrs prior 10hrs prior 3
prior
598 accepted
Which shipment is

exempted from x-ray Food items AVI Flower 3
screening Documents
599
Letter
Whichdocument is required Approval Embalming Approval from
from 3
in case of acceptance of HUM from BCAS certificate DGCA
600 embassy
In case of acceptance of AVI Veterinary Airport

Police BCAS 2
letter from whom is required doctor director
601
Can be Subjected to
Accompanied diplomatic mail Not to be
bag can Screened screened physically stimulation 2
602 searched chamber
Module 17
Which is not the Quick

decision Intelligent Rigid Endurance 3
characteristic of profiler?
603 maker
Who is not exempted from Prime Dy. Prime Judges of High
President 3
pre-embarkation check? minister minister Court
604
On the grounds of protocol Former

Chief Justice
the who is allowed in their President President of Chief Ministers 1
of India
own vehicles with an escort India
605
On the grounds of protocol Former
Visiting Visiting Lt Governors
the following is allowed in President of Heads of Heads of of Union 1
their own vehicles without an
India State Govt. Territories
escort
606
On the grounds of protocol
Former
the following is allowed in Prime
Prime President Governors 1
their own vehicles without an Minister
Minister
escort
607
Who is allowed in their own
vehicles without escort up to Prime Vice Visiting
Governors 3
tarmac area within their Minister President Heads of states
states/union territories.
608
Who is not exempted from Prime Dy. Prime Judges of High
President 3
pre-embarkation check? minister minister Court
609
Minute
Which is not one of the Feeling of Posing as a observation of Following
4
suspicious signs in a person? fear VIP security procedures
personnel
610
Who among the following has Vice All All union
COS(CA)
access up to aircraft in their president of members of Minister of 2
611 own vehicle India Parliament Cabinet rank.
Grenade is categorized as_______
a) Explosive b) c) Dangerous Article d) Dangerous Goods
MODEL TEST PAPER - 2
1 Grenade is categorized as_______

a) Explosive b) c) Dangerous Article d) Dangerous Goods
2 In what color is explosive seen in X-BIS?

a) Green b) c) Orange d) Opaque
3 Profiling can be done on ______ things

a) One b) c) Six d) Seven
4 Security staff on duty may cross a runway:

a) At any time when answering an emergency call, taking reasonable care.
b) Only when the runway is clear.
c) Only after clearance from ground control or the Air Traffic Control Tower.
d) All the above
5 100% physical baggage checking is required?
a) For British Airlines flight b) on Threat c) Normal time d) Always
6 Minimum quantity of metal that a DFMD should detect?

a) 35 gms b) 30 gms c) 25 gms d) 20 gms
7 Baggage Reconciliation is the responsibility of _________?

a) APSU b) APD c) CASO d) Airlines
8 Security of Cargo is related to?

a) Regulated agent b) Airlines c) APSU d) both a & b
In how many colors does the X-BIS project images?

9
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
10 Pre-embarkation Check (PEC) is a __________
a) Recommended practice b) Standard Practice c) a & b d) None of these
11 What you should not do, when you find a suspicious person?
a) Keep under observation b) Inform the supervisor
c) Alarming the passenger d) Documents profiling
12 There are ________ Components of ASG?

a) One b) Three c) Four d) Seven
13 Airport staff members who need to pass the screening point for performance of
Their duties:
a) Need not submit to a physical search.
b) Need not pass through the walkthrough metal detector.
c) Have to submit to the same procedure as passengers.
d) Can be permitted without search by the CASO.
14 Which is not one of the suspicious signs in a person?
a) Feeling of fear
b) Posing as a VIP
c) Minute observation of security personnel
d) Following procedures
15 Airport has how many rings of protection?

a) One b) Three c) Four d) Seven
16 Which electronic gadget is used for surveillance?

a) Radio Set b) CCTV c) Biometric Dd) Passive Infrared Sensors
17 The persons who need not be escorted _________

a) VIP b) Person in c c) Authorized vd) Passengers
18 X-RAY moves at the speed of ________

a) Electricity b) light c) Rocket d) Wind
19 AEP is issued by __________

a) BCAS b) AAI c) APSU d) None of these
20 SLPC is __________ practice?

a) Recommended b) Standard c) a & b d) None of these
21 In a boarding gate plan

a) There are separate queue for airlines
b) All are having the same area
c) Main entrance screening is done
d) Screening starts at boarding gate
22 Apron guarding is the duty of _________

a) ASG/APSU b) AIRLINE c) BCAS d) AAI
23 In X-BIS all organic material will be seen in____________
a) Green & Blue b) Orange c) Purple d) all
24 Guarding is done for ____________
a) Psychological deterrence b) to protect the vulnerable points
c) Physical deterrence d) all the above
25 In night, aircraft should be parked in __________

a) Dark area b) well-lit area
c) Without guard d) under camouflage
26 Safety fuse comes under which category?

a) Weapon b) Dangerous substances c) Dangerous articles d) Explosives
27 Screener should not monitor the screen at a stretch for more than
a) 18min b) 30 min. c) 20 min. d) 40 min.
28 Which one is not the aim of terrorists?

a) Publicity b) Discredit the government
c) Broaden their base d) to pose as a VIP at airports
29 Deployment of CISF at airports was a result of __________

a) IC-814 hijack b) Kaniska i c) Lockerbee incident d) none of these
30 Security of Parked Aircraft is done by.

a) CISF b) AIRLINES c) BCAS d) AAI
31 Deployment of Sky marshals is a result of ____________

a) IC-814 hijack b) Kaniska incident c) First hijack d) none of these
32 What is through put rate of registered baggage?

a) 300 bags / hr b) 400 bags /c) 350 bags / d) 450 bags / hr
33 Chamber which creates similar pressure and real flight situation?

a) Personnel chamber b) Sterile chamber c) Simulation chamber d) a & b
34 Chisels come under which category?

a) Weapon b) Dangerouc) Dangerous ad) Explosives
35 What was the main outcome of Chicago Convention?

a) Formation of ICAO b) Formation of IATA
c) Formation of IAEA d) a & b
36 Which is not a suspicious sign in a passenger?

a) Nervous behavior b) luring others
c) First & last passenger d) Reporting in time
37 There are …………… test in CTP
a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 9
38 TIP stands for

a) Threat Image Projection b) Threat Item Projection
c) Threat Item Protection d) Three Image Projection
39 What is included in the outer ring of protection?

a) Perimeter b) Windows co) Apron d) None of these
In the concourse plan the screening starts at

40
a) Main entrance to the Concourse b) at boarding gate
c) Main entrance to the airport d) entrance to the SHA
41 In the holding area plan.

a) There is a separate area cal b) screening is not required
c) Screening is done at main e d) Screening is done at boarding gate
42 Which is the way to conceal a prohibited item?

a) Disguise b) Dismantle c) Camouflage d) All the above
43 Power given to Appropriate Authority to issue directions
a) Action 5A of Aircraft Act 19 b) Section 5A of Aircraft Act 1934
c) Section 5 of Aircraft Rule 19 d) Rule 5 of Aircraft Rule 1939
44 Vehicle should be searched for

a) Narcotics b) Contraband items c) Prohibited i d) All above
45 Which is not a medical emergency in aviation?

a) Collapsed person b) Injured in Tsunami
c) Delivery of new born d) Communicable disease
46 Which is not used in security?

a) HHMD b) RT SET c) CCTV d) Laptop
47 The main aim to search the SHA is ___________?

a) To make the area sterile b) Look for left out baggage
c) To find narcotics d) to check cleanliness
48 Explain BIPPS
a) Barometric integrated passenger permit system
b) Biometric integrated passenger profiling system
c) Bomb intelligence pick & parcel squad
d) Biometric integrated passenger pass system
What is Ambulift?
49
a) A vehicle/machine to lift Pax with reduced mobility into aircraft
b) Machine used to wrap machine
c) Lift for 100 people
d) None of these
50 Ramamithran committee was formed in

a) 1979 b) 1980 c) 1981 d) 1982
51 IGI Airport falls under which category?
a) Sensitive b) Normal c) Hypersensitid) Red alert airport
52 Which is not the duty of Airlines Security?

a) Hand baggage screening b) Registered baggage screening
c) Surveillance in BMA d) Reconciliation of baggage
53 Access point should contain?

a) RT set & communication facib) Radio for entertainment
c) Magazine to read & relax d) News papers for latest news
54 Distance to be maintained from person to person through DFMD?
a) 90 cms b) 100 cms c) 102 cms d) 105 cms
55 Which is not a benefit of TIP?

a) Motivation b) Immediate feedback c) Alertness
56 The emergency, which is not related to aircraft?

a) New born b) Sabotage c) Fire in Terminal Building d) None of these
57 Why is the BWAF required?

a) To assess specific and non spb) To assess the Caller
c) To maintain perfect data abod) Formality
58 What will be the course of action when X-BIS does not pass one of CTP tests?
a) Stop the machine b) Avoid it &work
c) Stop the machine & notify s d) none of these
59 Explosives are of _______ types?

60 Which is not a duty of BCAS?

a) Planning b) Monitoring c) Guiding d) Training
61 Srinagar Airport falls under which category?
a) Sensitive b) Normal c) Hypersensiti d) Supersensitive
62 If a pistol is detected during screening of hand baggage

a) Take action as per local SOP b) Inform BDDS
c) Inform BCAS d) Inform Police
63 Protection of employees & airport is the responsibility of?

a) ASG/APSU b) NSG c) SPG d) Local Police
64 Which is not a medical emergency?
a) Sudden death b) Collapsed person c) New Born d) Illness
65 Anti-Hijacking mock drill is done by………………..?

a) QRT b) ASG c) NSG d) All the above
66 The duty of QRT is?

a) To prevent take off of hijacked flight b) To cordon hijacked aircraft
c) Quick response at the times of crisis d) All the above
67 Airport entry permit does not contain?

a) Photo b) Name of Pass holder
c) Area of Validity d) Permanent address
68 What do you mean by APSU?

a) Airport Security Unit b) Airport Sterile Unit
c) Airport Security Union d) Airport Safety Unit
69 Who is the head of ASG at an Airport?

a) CASO b) BCAS c) COSCA d) APD
70 To provide training on aviation security is the responsibility of?

a) CASO b) BCAS c) APD d) AAI
When was CISF first inducted at airports?
71
a) 3 Feb’2000 b) 31 Dec’19c) 10 March 2 d) 3 Feb’2001
72 While receiving a bomb threat call what will be the first action?
a) Asking informative questions b) intimating to supervisor
c) Intimating to APD d) intimating to CASO
73 Checked-in passenger not reported to board would be?

a) Cancelled passenger b) Deportee
c) Gate no show d) Transit passenger
74 The Authority responsible for regulating Safety aspects of aircrafts in India?

a) ICAO b) Commander of concerned airports
c) BCAS d) DGCA
75 Aircraft security is concerned with?
a) APSU b) APD c) CASO d) Airline security
To cross the runway at non-operational time?

76
a) Requires permission from Ab) permission not required
c) Permission from CASO d) a & c
77 If a person is denying to be frisked, what is the course of action?

a) Allow him to board b) Apply - No search No fly
c) Use force to search him d) Frisk as a formality
78 What will be the course of action when you notice an unattended baggage?
a) Deposit it to APM b) don't touch
c) Lift and Screen it d) Open and look inside for dangerous articles
79 The alert status put on place at the time of crisis?

a) High alert b) Red alert c) Bomb Alert d) None of these
80 Which security measure is not related to post Kandahar hijacking?

a) Deployment of sky marshalsb) Deployment of CISF
c) PEC d) SLPC
81 In which year was the first International convention on aviation held?

a) 1937 b) 1944 c) 1947 d) 1934
CTX stands for?

82
a) Complex topographic X-Ray b) Crystal trace X-Ray
c) Computerized tomography d) Computerized telescopic X-Ray
83 BCAS stands for

a) Bureau of Civil Aircraft Secub) Bureau of Civil Aircraft Safety
c) Bureau of Civil Aviation Security d) Bureau of Central aviation Security
84 Which color pass holder can enter all area of all civil airports?
a) Orange b) Purple c) Green d) Blue
What is your action if you find Explosive inside the bag while screening?
85
a) Ask the passenger, why is he carrying it
b) Allow passenger to board
c) Stop the conveyor & inform supervisor
d) Remove the article and leave the passenger
86 How many International Conventions have been held?

a) One b) Four c) Five d) Eight
87 Which one is a Standard Practice?

a) PEC b) SLPC c) ABC d) SSLC
88 Which one is a Recommended Practice?

a) PEC b) SLPC c) ABC d) EVD
89 Which rule deals with pre-embarkation check of passengers?
a) Rule 8B of Aircraft Rule 193 b) Rule 8A of Aircraft Rule 1937
c) Section 8B Aircraft Rule 193 d) Section 10A Aircraft Rule 1937
90 Blue color pass holder can enter?
a) All areas except SHA b) All areas
c) Only in operational area d) only till check-in area
91 The baggage not carried on the same aircraft on which the Pax travels is called
a) Unclaimed baggage b) Unidentified baggage
c) Transfer baggage d) Unaccompanied baggage
92 What is the radiation distance from the tunnel of X-BIS?

a) 1 cm b) 5 cms c) 15 cms d) 25 cms
93 When should you man the access control points?

a) Only during daylight b) Only at night
c) Manned at all times d) whenever required
94 Who is not exempted from pre-embarkation check?

a) Prime minister b) Dy. Prime minister
c) Judges of High Court d) President
95 Access Control points should have?

a) Barrier and Gates b) Only Barriers
c) Only Gates d) Nothing
96 Every vehicle, which is running in operational area

a) Need to have anti-collision light or flag b) needs only flag
c) Need not have ADP d) none of these
97 To drive a vehicle in operational area, one needs?

a) ADP b) Driving License
c) Oral permission by AAI d) Recommendation by APD
98 How many gates are required for better access control?

a) As less as possible b) More gatec) 10 d) 8
99 What is common for every duty post?

a) Barrier b) DFMD c) Standing order/SOP d) HHMD
100 How many types of detonators are available?

MODEL PAPER – 2 KEY
1 A 2 C 3 B 4 C 5
11 C 12 C 13 C 14 D 15
21 D 22 A 23 B 24 D 25
31 A 32 A 33 C 34 C 35
41 A 42 D 43 B 44 C 45
51 C 52 A 53 A 54 A 55
61 C 62 A 63 A 64 D 65
71 A 72 A 73 C 74 D 75
81 B 82 C 83 C 84 A 85
91 D 92 B 93 C 94 C 95
Alertness d) tests calibration of X-BUS
B 6 B 7 D 8 D 9 C 10 B
B 16 B 17 D 18 B 19 A 20 A
B 26 D 27 C 28 D 29 A 30 B
A 36 D 37 B 38 A 39 A 40 A
B 46 D 47 A 48 B 49 A 50 A
D 56 C 57 A 58 C 59 B 60 C
D 66 D 67 D 68 A 69 A 70 B
D 76 A 77 B 78 B 79 A 80 C
C 86 C 87 A 88 B 89 B 90 A
A 96 A 97 A 98 A 99 C 100 B

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Option1 Option2Engli Option3Englis Correct

S.NO English Question Option4English

These are acts or attempted

Any machine that can

An aircraft shall be deemed

A parked aircraft which is Aircraft in Aircraft not Aircraft Aircraft

An aircraft that is either

An area used or intended to

The movement area of an

Standard Standard

A check of a person’s

Space in which departure Baggage

All items, other than catering

Food, beverages, other dry

The process of reporting to an

It means air transportation of

The Passenger who creates or

Passenger who has checked in Gate no

Any person who on board an

Any person who

Recognizing the shapes

A person who is or will be

Passenger who is transferred

An originator of property for

The area of an airport and

A system consists of cards or

An act or omission, intended

A means by which the

The application of technical or

Devices of a specialized nature

Airside areas of an airport into

Passengers making direct

Baggage making direct

Passengers departing from an

Baggage, which is transported

Baggage at an airport, with or

Any facility on or connected

Power of central government

Power of central government

Penalty for failure to comply

Security checks of person

Which one of the following is 4 X 4 X 4 4 X 4 X 4 4 X 4 X 4 4 X 4 X 4

Sum total of all dimensions of

Sum total of all dimensions of

Size of hand bag allowed in

Size of hand bag allowed in 50 X 30 X 35 X 35 X 25 X 25 X 60 X 30 X 25

6 inches of 6 inches of 7 inches of

Aircraft Aircraft Aircraft Aircraft Rule

Deployment of manpower by Arun

Liquid and Liquid and Liquids air Liquids

After the hijack of Indian

Kirpal Committee report led

Secondary security checks 30th Jan,

Provision of sky marshals in Measures

X-ray screening of hand

Aircraft Aircraft can

Random checking of baggage

The regulatory authority for