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FINAL NEET REVISION TEST-04

PHYSICS

1. A solid metallic sphere has a charge + 3Q. Concentric 6. An electron enters an electric field with its velocity
with this sphere is a conducting spherical shell having in the direction of the electric lines of field then :
charge –Q. The radius of the sphere is ‘a’ and that of (1) the path of the electron will be a circle
the spherical shell is ‘b’ (b > a). What is the electric (2) the path of the electron will be a parabola
field at a distance R (a < R < b) from the centre ? (3) the velocity of the electron will decrease just after
4Q 3Q enter
(1) 2 (2)
2πε0 R 4πε0 R 2 (4) the velocity of the electron will increase just after
Q enter
3Q
(3) 2 (4) 7. Two equal negative charges –q, are placed at points
2πε0 R 2πε0 R 2
(0, a) and (0, –a) on y axis, one positive charge q at
2. Two positive point charge of 12 µC and 8 µC are rest is left to move from point (2a, 0). This charge
10 cm apart. The work done in bringing them 4 cm will be :
closer is, (1) execute S.H.M. about the origin.
(1) 1.3 eV (2) 13 J (2) oscillate but not execute S.H.M.
(3) 5.8 J (4) 5.8 eV (3) move towards origin and will become stationary.
3. Three equal charges are placed at the three corners (4) S.H.M. along x axis.
of an equilateral triangle as shown in the figure. The 8. Charges +q are placed at points A and B respectively
statement which is true for electric potential V and which are a distance 2L apart, C is the mid point
the field intensity E at the centre of the triangle - between A and B. The work done in moving a charge
q +Q along the semicircle CRD is :

o
qQ qQ
(1) – (2)
6π∈0 L 4 π∈ 0 L
q q
qQ qQ
(1) V = 0, E = 0 (2) V = 0, E ≠ 0 (3) (4)
2π∈ L 6π∈0 L
(3) V ≠ 0, E = 0 (4) V ≠ 0, E ≠ 0
9. A hollow charged metal sphere has radius r. If the
4. In the fig. force on charge at A in the direction normal potential difference between its surface and a point at
to BC will be : a distance 3r from the centre is V, then electric field
intensity at distance 3 r from the centre is -
V V
(1) (2)
3r 4r
V V
(3) (4)
6r 2r
kq kq 2 10. A family of equipotential surfaces are shown. The
− 2 (2)
(1) − 2
a 2a direction of the electric field at point A is along -
kq 2 ü 2
(3) 2 (4)
2a a2
5. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged
such that the potential on its surface is 10 volts. The
electric field at the centre of the sphere will be
(1) 50 volt/meter (2) 10 volt/meter (1) AB (2) AC
(3) 5 volt/meter (4) zero (3) AD (4) AF

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11. In nature, the electric charge of any system is always 15. An infinite number of identical capacitors each of
equal to - capacitance 1µ F are connected as in adjoining figure.
(1) half integral multiple of the least amount of Then the equivalent capacitance between A and B is:
charge
(2) zero
(3) square of the least amount of charge
(4) integral multiple of the least amount of charge
12. Two charges 9e and 3e are placed at a distance r. The
distance of the point where the electric field intensity (1) 1 µ F (2) 2µ F
will be zero is- 1
(3) ∞
µF (4)
 r  2
(1)
  from 9e charge
1+ 3  16. Half of the space between parallel plate capacitor is
filled with a medium of dielectric constant K parallel
 
(2)
  from 9e charge to the plates. If initially the capacity is C, then the
1+ 1/ 3  new capacity will be :
 r  (1) 2KC/(1+K) (2) C (K + 1)/2
(3)
  from 3e charge
1− 3  (3) CK/(1 + K) (4) KC

 r  17. Capacitance C1 = 2C2 = 2C3 and potential difference

(4)
  from 3e charge. across C1, C2 & C3 are V1, V2 & V3 respectively then:
1+ 1/ 3 
13. There are two metallic plates of a parallel plate
capacitor. One plate is given a charge +q while the
other is earthed as shown. Points P, P1 and P2 are
taken as shown in adjoining figure. then the electric
intensity is not zero at :
(1) V1 = V2 = V3 (2) V1 = 2V2 = V3
(3) 2V1 = V2 = V3 (4) 2V1 = 2V2 = V3
18. If each resistance in the fig. is of 9Ω then reading of
ammeter is :

(1) P only (2) P1 only

(3) P2 only (4) P, P1 and P2
(1) 5 A (2) 8A
14. The equivalent capacitance between the point A and
B in the given diagram is : (3) 2 A (4) 9 A
19. If I = 0.25 amp. in fig. then value of R is :

(1) 8 µF (2) 6 µF
(1) 48 Ω (2) 12 Ω
8 3
(3) µF (4) µF (3) 120 Ω (4) 42 Ω
3 8

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20. An electric bulb is designed to draw power P0 at 25. The resistance in the two arms of the meter bridge
voltage V0. If the voltage is V, it draws a power P, are 5Ω and RΩ, respectively. When the resistance R
then : is shunted with an equal resistance, the new balance
point is at 1.6 1 . The resistance ‘R’ is :
V
P = 
(1)  P0
 V0 
 V0 
P=
(2)  P0
V
2
 V0 
P=
(3)  P0
V
2
V (1) 10 Ω (2) 15 Ω
(4)
P =   P0
 V0  (3) 20 Ω (4) 25 Ω
21. Length of a potentiometer wire is kept long and 26. The electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in
uniform to achive : a medium is represented by Ex = 0 :
(1) uniform and more potential gradient N  rad   −2 rad  
= E y 2.5 cos  2π × 106  t −  π × 10  x
(2) non-uniform and more potential gradient C   m   s  
(3) uniform and less potential gradient Ez = 0. The wave is :
(4) non-uniform and less potential gradient (1) Moving along –x direction with frequency
106 Hz and wave length 200 m
22. A group of N cells whose emf varies directly with
(2) Moving along y direction with frequency
the internal resistance as per the equation EN = 1.5 2π × 106 Hz and wave length 200 m.
rN are connected as shown in the figure. The current (3) Moving along +x direction with frequency
in the circuit is : 106 Hz and wave length 100 m
(4) Moving along +x direction with frequency 106
Hz and wave length 200 m
27. The condition under which a microwave oven heats
up a food item containing water molecules most
efficiently is :
(1) Infra-red waves produce heating in a microwave
(1) 5.1 A (2) 0.51 A oven
(3) 1.5 A (4) 0.15 A (2) The frequency of the microwaves must match
the resonant frequency of the water molecules
23. A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter will have :
(3) The frequency of the microwaves has no relation
(1) a high resistance in series with its coil (4) Microwaves are heat waves, so always produce
(2) a low resistance in parallel with its coil heating
(3) a low resistance in series with its coil 28. A and B are two concentric circular loop carrying
(4) a high resistance in parallel with its coil current i1 and i2 as shown in figure. If ratio of their
radii is 1 : 2 and ratio of the flux densities at the centre
24. Consider the following two statements : i1
(a) Kirchhoff’s junction law follows from the O due to A and B is 1 : 3 then the value of will be:
i2
conservation of charge.
(b) kirchhoff’s loop law follows from the conservation
of energy
Which of the following is correct ?
(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct
1 1
(2) Both (A) and (B) are wrong (1) (2)
2 3
(3) (A) is correct and (B) is wrong 1 1
(4) (A) is wrong and (B) is correct (3) (D*)
4 6

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29. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn 36. The graph shows variation of I with f for a series
from the result ? R-L-C network. Keeping L and C constant. If R
  decreases :
∫
 B.dA = 0

(1) magnetic field is zero everywhere

(2) magnetic monopole cannot exist
(3) magnetic lines of forces do not intersect each
(4) a current produces magnetic field
30. A cyclotron is used to accelerate charged particles.
(a) Maximum current (Im) increase
Then the time period under the influence of 1T (b) Sharpness of the graph increases
magnetic field of a proton : (c) Quality factor increases
(1) 20π ns (2) 40 π ns (d) Band width increases
(3) 10π ns (4) 5π ns (1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d
(3) c, d, a (4) All
31. Faraday law represents :
37. An alternating voltage is connected in series with
(1) relation between 1 and B a resistance r and an inductance L. If the potential
(2) relation between magnetic force and magnetic drop across the resistance is 200 volt and across the
inductance is 150 volt, the applied voltage :
field
(1) 350 volt (2) 250 volt
(3) relation between e.m.f and rate of change of flux (3) 500 volt (4) 300 volt
(4) none of these 38. In an a.c. circuit V and I are given by
32. Inductance of a solenoid is 3H and it consist of 500 V = 100 sin (100 t) volts
turns. If number of turn make twice, then the value I = 100 sin (100t + π/3) mA
The power dissipated in the circuit is
of self inductance becomes :
(1) 104 watt (2) 10 watt
(1) 1.5 H (2) 3 H (3) 2.5 watt (4) 5.0 watt
(3) 9 H (4) 12 H 39. A fully charged capacitor C with initial charge q0 is
33. Dynamo is based on the principle of : connected to a coil of self inductance L at t = 0. The
time at which the energy is stored equally between
(1) electro magnetic induction the electric and the magnetic field is :
(2) induced current (1) 2π LC (2) LC
(3) induced magnetism π
(3) π LC (4) LC
(4) faraday effect 4
40. A wire of resistance 4Ω is stretched to twice it original
34. Two coaxial solenoids are made by winding thin Cu length. The resistance of stretched with would be :
wire over a pipe of cross-sectional area A = 10 cm2 (1) 16 Ω (2) 2Ω
and length = 20 cm. If one of the solenoids has 300 (3) 4Ω (4) 8Ω
turns and the other 400 turns, their mutual inductance 41. The conduction current is the same as displacement
is : current when source is :
(1) 2.4 π × 10-5 H (2) 4.8 π × 10-4 H (1) ac only (2) dc only
(3) both ac and dc (4) neither dc nor ac
(3) 4.8 × 10-5 H (4) 2.4 × 10-4 H
42. A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 60 Ω
35. A resonant A.C. circuit contains a capacitor of shows full scale deflection when a current of 1.0
capacitance 10-6 F and an inductor of 10-4 H. the amp passes through it. It can be converted into an
ammeter to read currents upto 5.0 amp by :
frequency of electrical oscillations will be :
(1) putting parallel a resistance of 15 Ω
(1) 105 (2) 10 Hz (2) putting parallel a resistance of 240 Ω
105 10 (3) putting in series a resistance of 15Ω
(3) Hz (4) Hz
2π 2π (4) putting in series a resistance of 240 Ω

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43. In the figure a capacitor is filled with dielectrics. The 48. An alternating current is given by
resultant capacitance is : i = i1 cos wt + i2 sinwt.
Thus rms current is given by
i1 + i 2 |i +i |
(1) (2)
1 2

2 2

1 i 2 + i 22 i12 + i 22
(3) (4)
2 2
2ε A  1 1 1 ε A1 1 1
(1) 0
 + +  (2) 0  + +  49. Determine the magnetic field at the centre of the
d  k1 k 2 k 3  d  k1 k 2 k 3 
current carrying wire arrangement shown in figure.
2ε A ε A k k k 
(3) 0
[k1 + k 2 + k 3 ] (4) 0  1 2 + 3  The arrangement extends to infinity. (The wires
d d  k1 + k 2 2  joining the successive squares are along the line
44. A circuit has a section AB as shown in the figure with passing through the centre).
E = 10V. C1 = 1.0 µC, C2 = 2.0 µF and the potential ∞
difference VA–VB = 5V. The voltage across C1 is : 4a
3a
2a
a
∞ i
O ∞
(1) zero (2) 5V
(3) 10V (4) 15 V
45. If i1 = 3 sin wt and i2 = 4 cos wt, then i3 is –
i1 i2 ∞

µ 0i
(1)
2 πa
i3
2 2µ0i
(2) (n 2)
πa
(1) 5 sin (wt + 53º) (2) 5 sin (wt + 37º)
(3) 5 sin (wt + 45º) (4) 5 cos (wt + 53º) 2 2µ 0 i
(3)
πa
46. A choke coil is preferred to a rheostat in AC circuit
as- (4) none of these
(1) It consumes almost zero power 50. In the adjoining figure, two very long, parallel
(2) It increases current wires A and C carry currents of 10 ampere and
20 ampere respectively and are at a distance
(3) It increases power
20 cm apart. If a third wire B (length 15 cm) having
(4) It increases voltage a current of 10 ampere is placed between them then
47. Two electric bulbs of 100 watt (220 volt) are how much force will act on C? The direction of
connected in series and these are connected with other current in all the three wires is same-
bulb of 100W (220V) in parallel then total power in A B C
watt will be -
100W 100W

10cm
100W

20cm

220V(50Hz) (1) 3 × 10–5N (left)

~ (2) 30 × 10–6N (right)
(1) 300 watt (2) 50 watt (3) 6 × 10–5N(left)
(3) 150 watt (4) 25 watt (4) 6 × 10–5N (right)

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CHEMISTRY

51. Consider the following four electrodes: 57. Pyrolusite is

P = Cu2+ (0.0001 M)/ Cu(s) (1) A sulphide ore of Mn
Q = Cu2+ (0.1 M)/ Cu(s) (2) An oxide ore of Mn
R = Cu2+ (0.01 M)/Cu(s) (3) A carbide ore of P
S = Cu2+ (0.001 M)/ Cu(s) (4) A chloride ore of Zn
If the standard electrode potential of Cu2+/Cu is + 58. From the Ellingham graph between Gibb’s energy
0.34 V, the reduction potentials (in volts) of the above and temperature, out of C and CO which is a better
electrodes follow the order: reducing agent for ZnO?
(1) P > S > R > Q (2) S > R > Q > P
(1) Carbon (2) CO
(3) R > S > Q > P (4) Q > R > S > P
(3) Both of these (4) None of these
52. For the cell reaction: 4Br– + O2 + 4H+  2Br2 +
59. Formation of Ni(CO) 4 and subsequent its
2H2O; E° = 0.18 V. The value of (log KC) at 298 K
decomposition into Ni and CO makes basis of Mond’s
is [2.303 RT/F = 0.06]
process;
(1) 12 (2) 6 T1 T2
Ni + 4CO  → Ni(CO)4  → Ni + 4CO, T1
(3) 18 (4) 3
and T2 are :
53. Equivalent conductivity of Fe2(SO4)3 is related to
(1) 100°C, 50°C (2) 50°C, 100°C
molar conductivity by the expression
(3) 57°C, 177°C (4) 230°C, 50°C
(1) ⋀eq = ⋀m (2) ⋀eq = ⋀m/3
(3) ⋀eq = 3⋀m (4) ⋀eq = ⋀m/6 60. The pair having similar magnetic moment is
54. In BCC lattice of solid PQ, P atoms are at corner & Ti3+ , V3+
(1)
Q atoms are at body-center. If separation between
o Cr 3+ , Mn 2+
(2)
nearest ‘P’ atom is 2.4 A , the separation between
closest ‘P’ & ‘Q’ atom is Mn 2+ , Fe3+
(3)
o o
Fe2+ , Mn 2+
(4)
(1) 3.2 A (2) 3.39 A
61. Find out the incorrect statement about oxides and
o o
(3) 4.8 A (4) 2.07 A oxocations of vanadium.
(1) V2O4 when dissolved in acid gives VO +2 salts
55. In an FCC arrangement of metallic atoms, what is
the relative ratio of the ideal sizes of tetrahedral and (2) V2O5 on reaction with alkalies gives VO34−
octahedral voids? (3) V2O5 on reaction with acids gives VO +2
(1) 0.543 (2) 0.732 (4) All of these.
(3) 0.414 (4) 0.637 62. Which of the following is a lanthanide :
56. Structure shown here represents: (1) Ta (2) Rh
A+ B– A+ B– (3) Th (4) Gd
A+ 63. CoCl3.4H2O is an anhydrous binary solute hence its
B –
A + B–
A + Werner’s representation is :
Cation : A+
–
e
Anion : B–
A +
B –
A +
B – (1) (2)

B– A+ B– A+
(1) Schottky defect (2) Frenkel defect (3) (4) None
(3) Both defects (4) None of these

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64. If excess of AgNO3 solution is added to 100 ml of 72. Freundlich adsorption isotherm in the logarithmic
0.024 M Solution of dichlorobis(ethylene diamine) form is
cobalt(III) chloride, how many moles of AgCl will
be precipitated? 1 x
(1)
= log P log   + log K
(1) 0.0012 (2) 0.0016 n m
(3) 0.0024 (4) 0.0048 1 x
(2)
log
= K log P + log  
65. Which of the following complex is optically inactive n m
(consider all its isomers)? x 1
(3)
log
=   log K + log P
(1) [RhCl(CO)(PPh3)(NH3)] m n
(2) [Fe(C2O4)3]3– x 1
(4)
log=  log P + log K
(3) [Fe(en)2Cl2] m n
(4) [Pd(en)2Cl2]
73. Which is prepared by Bredig’s arc method?
66. Which is dibasic?
(1) Gold sol (2) Starch sol
(1) Orthophosphoric acid
(3) Cod liver oil (4) Cold cream
(2) Pyrophosphoric acid
(3) Orthophosphorus acid 74. Name the three lanthanides which show +2 oxidation
state also:
(4) Hypophosphorus acid
(1) Sm,Tb,Gd
67. Which of the following is used in estimation of ozone.
(2) Sm, Eu, Yb
(1) Na2S2O3
(3) La,Gd, Lu
(2) Na2S2O3 + KI (excess)
(3) Na2S4O6 (4) Yb, Pm,Sm
(4) Na2S4O6 + I2 75. The yellow colour solution of Na2CrO4 changes to
orange-red on passing CO2 gas due to the formation
68. Industrial preparation of nitric acid by ostwald’s
process involves: of:
(1) Oxidation of NH3 (1) CrO5 (2) CrO3
(2) Reduction of NH3 (3) Na 2 Cr2 O7 (4)
Cr2 O3
(3) Hydrogenation of NH3 76. The octahedral complex of a metal ion M3+ with
(4) Hydrolysis of NH3 four monodentate ligands L1, L2, L3 and L4 absorbs
69. XeF2 and XeF6 are separately hydrolysed then: wavelengths in the region of red, green, yellow and
(1) Both give out O2 blue, respectively. The increasing order of ligand
strength of the four ligands is
(2) XeF6 gives O2 and XeF2 does not
(3) XeF2 alone gives O2 (1) L1 < L2 < L4 < L3
(4) Neither of them gives HF (2) L4 < L3 < L2 < L1
o (3) L1 < L3 < L2 < L4
70. A container contains component A with PA = 200
o (4) L3 < L2 < L4 < L1
mm and component B of PB = 500 mm. If moles of
A = 2 and moles of B = 3, find vapour pressure of 77. Containers containing mixture (X) is pierced and
solution if solute is volatile. thrown in sea when the gas evolved burns and serves
(1) 120 mm (2) 520 mm as signal (Holme’s signal). Mixture (X) contains:
(3) 380 mm (4) 420 mm (a) CaC2 (b) CaCl2
71. Which of the following pairs of solutions are expected (c) Ca3P2 (d) Ca3N2
to be isotonic at same temperature? (1) a, c (2) b, c
(1) 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M NaCl (3) a,b,c (4) a, b, d
(2) 0.1 M urea and 0.2 M MgCl2 78. Calculate CFSE of the following complex [Fe(CN)6]4–
(3) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M Na2SO4 (1) –0.4 ∆o (2) –2.4 ∆o
(4) 0.1 M Ca(NO3)2 and 0.1 M Na2SO4 (3) 0.4 ∆o (4) 0.6 ∆o

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79. The process of zone refining is used in the purification 85. The possible mechanism for the reaction:
of : 2NO + Br2 → 2NOBr is
(1) Al (2) Ge NO + Br2 ⇌ NOBr2 (fast) ;
(3) Cu (4) Ag NOBr2 + NO → 2NOBr (slow). Rate law is
80. Butter is a colloid. It is formed when (1) r = k [NO] [Br2]
(1) Fat is dispersed in solid casein (2) r = k [NO]2 [Br2]–1
(2) Fat globules are dispersed in water (3) r = k [NOBr2] [NO]
(3) Water is dispersed in fat (4) r = k [NO]2 [Br2]
(4) Casein is suspended in H2O
86. On adding AgNO 3 solution into KI solution, a
81. Consider the following in respect of zero order negatively charged colloidal sol is obtained when
reaction. they are in
I. t 1/2 is directly proportional to the initial (1) 100 ml of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 100 ml of 0.1 M KI
concentration. (2) 100 ml of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50 ml of 0.2 M KI
II. Time taken for the completion of the reaction is
(3) 100 ml of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 100 ml of 0.02 M KI
twice its t1/2
(4) 100 ml of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 100 ml of 0.15 M KI
III. Concentration of the reactant decreases linearly
with time 87. If the specific resistance of a solution of concentration
Which of the statements given above are correct? C g equivalent litre –1 is R, then its equivalent
conductance is:
(1) I & II only (2) I & III only
(3) II & III only (4) I, II & III 100R RC
(1) (2)
82. The rate constant for a first order reaction is
C 1000
4.606 × 10–3 s–1. The time required to reduce 2.0 g 1000 C
(3) (4)
of the reactant to 0.2 g is RC 1000R
(1) 100 s (2) 200 s 88. Rusting of iron is catalyzed by which of the
(3) 500 s (4) 1000 s following?
83. Match Column I with Column II. (1) Fe (2) O2
Column I Column II (3) Zn (4) H+
(a) Van Arkel 1. Manufacture of caustic soda 89. The composition of a sample of cuprous oxide is
method found to be Cu1.92O1.00 due to metal deficiency defect.
(b) Solvay process 2. Purification of titanium The molar ratio of Cu2+ and Cu+ ions in the crystal
(c) Cupellation 3. Manufacture of Na2CO3 is
(d) Poling 4. Purification of copper (1) 4 : 5 (2) 1 : 12.5
5. Refining of silver (3) 1 : 23 (4) 1 : 24
Choose the correct match.
90. Which of the following is incorrect?
(1) (a – 2), (b – 3) (c – 5), (d – 4)
(1) Cubic crystal has three bravias lattice.
(2) (a – 3), (b – 1) (c – 4), (d – 5)
(2) Hexagonal crystal has only primitive packing.
(3) (a – 4), (b – 5) (c – 3), (d – 1)
(3) Tetragonal crystal has primitive & end-centered
(4) (a – 5), (b – 4) (c – 2), (d – 3)
packing.
84. The rate of a reaction is expressed as (4) Triclinic crystal has only primitive packing.
1 ∆[C] 1 ∆[D] 1  ∆[A]   ∆[B] 
+ = = − = −  91. In a cold climate, water gets frozen causing damage
2 ∆t 3 ∆t 4  ∆t   ∆t  to radiator of a car. Ethylene glycol is used as anti-
Then reaction is freezing agent. Calculate the amount of ethylene
(1) 4A + B → 2C + 3D glycol to be added to 4 kg of water to prevent it from
(2) B + 3D → 4A + 2C freezing at –6°C (Kf for water = 1.85 K kg mol–1)
(3) A + B → C + D (1) 8.04 g (2) 80.4 g
(4) B + D → A + C (3) 0.80 g (4) 804.32 g

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92. Consider two liquids A & B having pure vapour 96. The measured voltage for the reaction with the
pressures PA0 & PB0 forming an ideal solution. The plot indicated concentration is 1.50 V. Calculate E°.
1 1 Cr(s) + 3Ag +(aq, 0.10M) → 3Ag(s) + Cr 3+(aq,
of v/s (where XA and YA are the mole fraction 0.30M)
XA YA
(1) 1.35 (2) 1.40
of liquid A in liquid and vapour phase respectively)
is linear with slope and y intercepts respectively: (3) 1.65 (4) 1.55

PAº
(1) and
(
PAº − PBº
(2)
)
PAº PBº − PAº ( ) 97. Which of the following compounds are monobasic
proton donor acid in water?
and
PBº PBº PBº PBº (1) H3PO2, H3BO3 (2) H3BO3, H3PO3

PBº
(3) (
PAº − PBº
(4) )
PBº
and
PBº − PAº ( ) (3) H3PO3, H3PO2 (4) H3PO2, HClO4
and 98. Aqueous solution of Na2S2O3 on reaction with Cl2
PAº PBº PAº PBº
gives
93. Dry air was passed successively through a solution of (1) Na2S4O6 (2) NaHSO4
5 g of solute in 80 g of water and then through pure
(3) NaCl (4) NaOH
water. The loss in mass of solution was 2.5 g and that
of pure solvent was 0.04 g. What is the molecular 99. Associated colloids:
mass of the solute? (1) Raise both the surface tension and viscosity of
(1) 70.3 (2) 71.43 water
(3) 14.28 (4) 14.06 (2) Lower both the surface tension and viscosity of
water
94. On addition of one ml. solution of 10% NaCl to
10 ml gold sol. in presence of 0.025 g of starch, the (3) Lower the surface tension and raise the viscosity
coagulation is just prevented. The gold no. of starch of water
is (4) Have greater concentration at the surface layer
(1) 25 (2) 0.25 than the bulk of the solution
(3) 0.025 (4) 2.5 100. Which of the following oxide shows electrical
properties like metals?
95. The data for the reaction: A + B → C is
(A) SiO2 (B) MgO
Exp. [A]0 [B]0 Initial rate (C) SO2(s) (D) CrO2
1 0.012 0.035 0.10
2 0.024 0.070 0.80
3 0.024 0.035 0.10
4 0.012 0.070 0.80
The rate law corresponds to the above data is
(1) Rate = k [A][B]3 (2) Rate = k [A]2 [B]2
(3) Rate = k [B]3 (4) Rate = k[B]4

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BOTANY

SECTION-A (3) The generative cell is small and floats in the

cytoplasm of the vegetative cell.
101. Morphologically and genetically similar individuals
are described as, (4) In over 60 percent of angiosperms, pollen grains
are shed at 3-called stage.
(1) Clones (2) Buds
(3) Offsprings (4) All of the above 107. Pollen grains lose viability within 30 minutes of their
release in,
102. Match the columns
(1) rice and wheat
Column A Column B
(2) some members of Rosaceae
(i) Eyes (a) Water hyacinth
(3) mostly members of Leguminosae
(ii) Rhizome (b) Ginger
(4) some members of Solanaceae
(iii) Bulbil (c) Potato
108. The method of embryo sac formation from a single
(iv) Leaf buds (d) Agave
megaspore is known as,
(v) Offset (e) Bryophyllum
(1) Monosporic development
(1) (i)-(a) ; (ii)-(b) ; (iii)-(c) ; (iv)-(d) ; (v)-(e)
(2) Bisporic development
(2) (i)-(e) ; (ii)-(a) ; (iii)-(b) ; (iv)-(c) ; (v)-(d)
(3) Tetrasporic development
(3) (i)-(e) ; (ii)-(d) ; (iii)-(c) ; (iv)-(b) ; (v)-(a)
(4) Microsporogenesis
(4) (i)-(c) ; (ii)-(b) ; (iii)-(d) ; (iv)-(e) ; (v)-(a)
109. The egg apparatus, consists of,
103. Find out the incorrect statement.
(1) 8-nucleate 7-celled
(1) Strobilanthus kunthiana (Neelakuranji), flowers
(2) 7-nucleate 8-celled
once in 12 years
(3) Two synergids and one egg cell
(2) Monoecious plants are papaya and date
palm while dioecious plants are cucurbits and (4) one synergids, two filliform apparatus and one
coconuts. egg cell
(3) In Chara, male sex organ is antheridium and 110. Find the correct one.
female sex organ is oogonium. (a) In pollination, pollen grains are transfered from
(4) Birds living in nature lay eggs only seasonally. anther to the stigma
However, birds in captivity can be made to lay (b) Genetically, both geitonogamy and xenogamy
eggs throughout the year. are different to each other.
104. A typical angiospermic anther is, (c) Viola, Oxalis and Commelina produce either
(1) bilobed with each lobe having one theca chasmogamous or cleistogamous flowers.
(2) bilobed with each lobe having two theca (d) Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed-set
(3) unilobed with each lobe having one theca even in the absence of pollinators.
(4) unilobed with each lobe having two theca (e) Majority of plants use abiotic agents for
pollination.
105. What is correct for Tapetum,
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (e) are correct
(1) The inner most wall layer
(2) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
(2) It nourishes the developing pollen grains
(3) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
(3) Cells of tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and
generally have more than one nucleus. (4) All are correct
(4) All of the above. 111. Double fertilization involves,
106. Find the odd one (1) Syngamy only
(1) The pollen grains represent the male gametophyte. (2) Triple fusion only
(2) Pollen grain exine has prominent apertures called (3) Syngamy and triple fusion
germ pores where sporopollenin is absent. (4) Parthenogenesis

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112. Find out the correct sequence of embryogeny in a 119. When a cross was made between pink flowered and
dicotyledonous embryo. white flowered Snapdragon plants, what will be the
(1) Proembryo → heart-shaped → globular → percentage of white flowered plants in progeny?
mature embryo (1) 0% (2) 25%
(2) Proembryo → globular → heart-shaped → (3) 50% (4) 100%
mature embryo 120. The physical association of genes on chromosome is
(3) Proembryo → globular → mature embryo → called,
heart-shaped (1) Linkage (2) Recombiation
(4) Proembryo → mature embryo → heart-shaped (3) Pleiotropy (4) Multiple allelism
→ globular. 121. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. ‘Haemophilia’
113. There is no residual endosperm in, (1) It is an autosomal recessive disorder
(1) Non-albuminous seeds (2) It shows its trasmission from unaffected carrier
(2) Albuminous seeds female to some of the male progeny
(3) Perispermic seeds (3) In this disease, a single protein that is a part of
(4) All of the above the cascade of proteins involved in clotting of
blood is affected
114. Apple, strawberry and cashew are examples of,
(4) The possibility of female becoming a haemophilic
(1) True fruits
is extremely rare.
(2) False fruits
122. The [AA + XO] type of chromosomal constitution is
(3) Parthenocarpic fruits seen in
(4) Dry dehiscent fruits (1) Male grasshopper
115. ‘Apomixis’ is a special mechanism, in which seeds (2) Female grasshopper
are produced _______ and has been observed in some (3) Male bird
species of _____.
(4) Female bird
(1) With fertilization, Asteraceae and grasses
123. Which one of the following conditions in humans is
(2) Without fertilization, Citrus and mango correctly matched with its chromosomal abnormality
(3) Without fertilization, Asteraceae and grasses / linkage?
(4) With fertilization, Citrus and mango (1) Down syndrome - 44 autosomes + XO
116. Which of the following characters was not taken by (2) Klinefelter syndrom - 44 autosomes + XXY
Mendel during his experiments on pea plant? (3) Colour blindness - Y-linked
(1) Seed shape (2) Pod position (4) Erythroblastosis foetalis - X-linked
(3) Flower position (4) Seed colour 124. A woman with normal vision, but whose father was
117. Which of the following is/are correct according to a colour blind man marries with normal eyed man.
the “Law of Dominance”? Suppose that the fourth child of this couple was a
(1) Characters are controlled by discrete units called boy. This boy,
factors. (1) Must have normal colour vision
(2) Factors occur in pairs (2) Will be partially colour blind since he is
(3) In a dissimilar pair of factors one member of the heterozygous for the colour blind mutant allele
pair dominates (dominant) the other (recessive). (3) Must be colour blind
(4) All of the above (4) May be colour blind or may be of normal vision
118. In Mendel’s dihybrid cross, the probability of getting 125. The recombination frequency between the genes,
plants which are heterozygous for both seed shape a and c = 5%
and seed colour is, b and c = 15%
1 2 b and d = 9%
(1) (2)
16 9 a and b = 20%
c and d = 24%
1 3
(3) (4) a and d = 29%
4 4

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then, what will be the sequence of these genes on a 132. Select the correct statement(s) about lac operon.
linear chromosome? (a) Glucose or galactose act as inducer for the
(1) abcd (2) acbd expresison of lac operon
(3) adcb (4) acdb (b) In the presence of lactose the repressor protein
126. The double helix model for the structure of DNA binds with the lactose molecules
proposed by Waston and Crick was based on (c) It is an example of repressible operon system
(1) Visible light spectrum analysis (d) Its regulation by repressor protein is called
(2) Chromatography positive regulation,
(3) X-ray diffraction data (1) a and b (2) b and c
(4) Autoradiography (3) Only b (4) Only d
127. A nucleosome is composed of 133. Polymorphism in DNA sequence is the basis of which
of the following?
(1) Positively charged DNA and negatively charged
histone octamer (a) Genetic mapping of human genome.
(2) A negatively charged H1 histone and positively (b) DNA fingerprinting
charged DNA molecule (c) Similarities among human beings
(3) Negatively charged DNA and positively charged (1) Only (a)
histone (2) Only (b)
(4) Negatively charged lysines and positively (3) Only (a) and (b)
charged arginine amino acids (4) Only (b) and (c)
128. In the experiment conducted by Griffith, when a 134. Mark the wrong statement.
mixture of heat killed S-strain and live R-strain of (1) In prokaryotes, transcription and translation
Streptococcus bacteria was injected into a healthy occur in the different compartments
mice, it developed pneumonia. This was due to
(2) In eukaryotes, usually structural gene of
(1) Reactivation of S-strain bacteria into R-strain transcription unit is monocistronic
bacteria
(3) In prokaryotes, the mRNA is produced in the
(2) Transformation of S-strain bacteria into R-strain cytoplasm
bacteria
(4) In eukaryotes, the primary transcript undergoes
(3) Synthesis of polysaccharide coat around heat splicing
killed S-strain bacteria
135. To catalyse the transcription of all types of RNA in
(4) Transformed R-strain bacteria into S-strain
bacteria, how many type(s) of DNA-dependent RNA
bacteria
polymerase is/are present in them?
129. The discontinuously synthesised fragements of DNA (1) Two (2) Three
are joined by the enzyme
(3) Five (4) One
(1) DNA ligase
(2) DNA-dependent DNA-polymerase SECTION-B
(3) Phosphorylase 136. Read the following statements carefully, then answer
(4) Topoisomerase accordingly.
130. Select the incorrect statement from the following. (a) The unmodified (functioning) allele, which
(1) In most of the eukaryotes, the structural gene in represents the original phenotype is the dominant
monocistronic allele and the modified allele is generally the
(2) Exons are the expressed sequences of genes recessive allele.
(3) introns do not appear in processed RNA (b) In Morgan’s experiment, when genes were
(4) A gene does not code for tRNA grouped on the same chromosome, some genes
were very tightly linked (showed very low
131. In eukaryotes, rRNAs are transcribed by recombination) while others were loosely linked
(1) RNA polymerase I and III (showed higher recombination).
(2) RNA polymerase III only (c) In many birds, female has pair of dissimilar
(3) RNA polymerase I and II chromosomes ZW and male two similar ZZ
(4) RNA polymerase I only chromosomes.

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(d) Because of incomplete dominance, when IA and 141. Find the correct option.
IB are present together they both express their (a) Viruses having RNA genome and having shorter
own types of sugars. life span mutate and evolve faster.
Now, find out the incorrect statement mentioned (b) The primary transcripts undergo splicing where
above the introns are removed and exons are joined in
a defined order, hnRNA undergoes additional
(1) (a) (2) (b) processing called as capping and tailing.
(3) (c) (4) (d) (c) The Untranslated regions (UTR) are present
at both 5’-end (after stop codon) and at 3’-end
137. Statement I : When two pairs of traits are combined (before start codon)
in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of characters is (d) 23S- rRNA acts as catalyst in translation in
independent of the other pair of characters. prokaryotes
Statement II : ‘Walter Sutton and Theodore Boveri’ (1) (a) True (b) True (c) True (d) True
noted that, “The behaviour of chromosomes was (2) (a) True (b) True (c) False (d) True
anti-parallel to the behaviour of genes.” (3) (a) True (b) False (c) True (d) False
(1) Both statements are correct (4) (a) False (b) True (c) False (d) True
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect 142. Assertion (A) : The flowers produce enormous
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct amount of pollen when compared to the number of
(4) Both statements are incorrect. ovules available for pollination in those plants which
are pollinated by water or wind.
138. The below diagram represents a pedigree analysis of
Reason (R) : Pollen grains coming in contact with
stigma is a chance factor in both wind and water
pollination.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(1) Autosomal dominant trait
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(2) Autosomal recessive trait
143. Find the odd one.
(3) X-linked dominant trait
(1) Continued self-pollination results in inbreeding
(4) X-linked recessive trait depression.
139. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words. (2) Self-incompatibility is the genetic mechanism
The largest known human gene being _________ that prevents self-fertilization.
at __________ bases. DNA fingerprinting involves (3) Production of unisexual flowers can prevent cross
identifiying differences in some specific regions in pollination but not self pollination
DNA sequence called as __________ DNA. (4) Emasculation, bagging and rebagging processes
(1) TDF, 3164.7 million, Satellite are performed during artificial hybridization.
(2) Dystrophin, 3164.7 million, Satellite 144. Statement I : The central cell after triple fusion
(3) Dystrophin, 2.4 million, repetitive become the zygote and further develops into an
embryo.
(4) TDF, 2.4 million, repetitive
Statement II : The coconut water is nothing but
140. Which of the following is not applicable for ‘Genetic free-nuclear endosperm and the surrounding white
code’ kernel is the cellular endosperm.
(1) Triplet codon (1) Both statements are correct
(2) Ambiguous and non-specific generally (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Degenerate (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Nearly universal (4) Both statements are incorrect.

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145. In a cross, Drosophila, the heterozygous animal with 148. Select true (T) or False (F) for the following
grey body (b+) and long wings (Vg+) was crossed statements and choose the correct option.
with black body and vestigeal wings. A. QB bacteriophage has RNA as genetic material.
The progeny has the animals in the following ratios B. Free 2’OH of RNA makes it more labile and
Grey vetigeal (GV) = 24 easily degradable.
Grey long (GL) = 126 C. The experiement of Hershey and Chase gave
Black long (BL) = 26 unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic
Black Vestigeal (BV) = 124 material.
What is the frequency of recombinations in the A B C
population? (1) T F T
(1) 17.6% (2) 600% (2) F F T
(3) 50% (4) 16.7% (3) T T T
146. In a nucleotide, a phosphate group is linked to (4) T F F
___(i)____ of a nucleoside through ___(ii)____. 149. Select the incorrect match(es) from the following
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i) and
(ii). (a) Minisatellites 0.1 to 20 bp
(1) (i) OH of 3’C (ii) Hydrogen bond (b) SNPs Due to single base
DNA differences
(2) (i) OH of 5’C (ii) Phosphoester linkage
(c) Frederick Sanger Developed method
(3) (i) 3’ – C (ii) Glycosidic linkage
to determine amino
(4) (i) OH of 5’C (ii) Glycosidic linkage acid sequence in
147. Identify the incorrect difference between prokaryotic proteins
and eukaryotic transcription. (d) VNTR Does not show
Prokaryotic Eukaryotic polymorphism
Transcription Transcription (1) a, b and c (2) a and d
(1) Splicing is Splicing is required (3) d only (4) b and c only
generally not 150. Assertion (A) : For evolution and speciation, DNA
required polymorphism plays very important role.
(2) There is only There are three types Reason (R) : ‘Alec Jeffreys’ used a satellite DNA as
one type of RNA of RNA polymerases probe that shows very high degree of polymorphism.
polymerase
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
(3) Structural gene is Structural gene is explanation of (A).
polycistronic monocistronic
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(4) Post transcriptional Post transcriptional correct explanation of (A).
modification modification takes
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
takes place in the place in the nucleolus
cytoplasm (4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

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ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A 157. The signals for parturition originate from:

151. Which of the following statements about ovary is not (1) Placenta only
true? (2) Placenta as well as fully developed foetus
(1) Ovaries are responsible for the production of (3) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
several steroid hormones. (4) Fully developed foetus only
(2) Each ovary is about 4 to 6 cm in length. 158. Capacitation refers to changes in the
(3) Ovary is connected to the pelvic wall. (1) Sperm before fertilization
(4) Ovary produces female gamete (Ovum). (2) Ovum before fertilization
152. The terminal structure of the mammary glands (3) Ovum after fertilization
through which milk is sucked out is known as: (4) Sperm after fertilization
(1) Lumen of alveoli 159. Which of the following cells during gametogenesis
(2) Mammary duct is normally diploid?
(3) Lactiferous duct (1) Primary polar body
(4) Mammary lobe (2) Spermatid
153. Luteinizing hormone (LH) acts on ____ cells and (3) Spermatogonia
stimulates synthesis and secretion of ____: (4) Secondary polar body
(1) Leydig cells, FSH 160. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as
(2) Interstitial cells, Androgens (1) Implantation of embryo other than uterus
(3) Leydig cells, GnRH (2) Implantation of defective embryo in the uterus
(4) None of these (3) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal
imbalance
154. The membrane around secondary oocyte is known
as: (4) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality
(1) Zona fasciculata 161. Select the incorrect option on the basis of labelling
(2) Zona reticularis given in the diagrammatic view of female reproductive
system:
(3) Zona externa
(4) Zona pellucida
155. In females, gonadotropins attain a peak level at about
____ day of the menstrual cycle:
(1) 15th (2) 14th
(3) 28th (4) 29th
156. Which is the correct path for the secretion and
transport of milk in mammary gland?
(1) Alveoli → Cavity of alveoli → Mammary tubule
→ Mammary duct → Mammary ampulla → (1) Birth canal = I + J
Lactiferous duct (2) Fallopian tube = E + F+ G + H
(2) Mammary duct → Mammary tubule → Alveoli (3) D is Infundibulum
→ Lactiferous duct → Mammary ampulla →
(4) A + B+ C = Uterine wall layers
Cavity of alveoli
162. After ovulation which hormone maintains the corpus
(3) Mammary duct → Cavity of alveoli →
luteum?
Lactiferous duct → Mammary ampulla →
Mammary tubule → Alveoli (1) HCG
(4) Alveoli → Mammary tubule → Mammary (2) Progesterone
ampulla → Cavity of alveoli → Mammary duct (3) Oxytocin
→ Lactiferous duct (4) LH

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163. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection is a specialized 171. Sexually transmitted diseases are also known as
procedure in which the sperm is directly injected into (1) Venereal disease
the ____: (2) Vulnerable diseases
(1) Ovary (2) Fallopian tube (3) Reproductive tract infections
(3) Ovum (4) Uterus (4) Both (1) and (3)
164. The age group vulnerable to STDs: 172. Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy
(1) 10 to 19years (2) 15 to 22 years before full term is called: ________.
(3) 17 to 27years (4) 15 to 24years (1) Medical transformation of pregnancy
165. Under ZIFT procedure, zygote or embryos, with up (2) Median terminal pregnancy
to 8 blastomeres can be transferred into the: (3) Medical Termination of Pregnancy
(1) Uterus (2) Placenta (4) None of these
(3) Fallopian tube (4) Cervix 173. A natural method of contraception, periodic
abstinence is
166. Which of the following defines ‘Test Tube Baby’
correctly? (1) Abstaining from coitus from day 1 to 5 of the
menstrual cycle.
(1) Ova and sperms are collected and mixed in test
(2) Abstaining from coitus from day 17 to 22 of the
tube to form zygote.
menstrual cycle.
(2) Ova and sperms are centrifuged in test tube to
(3) Abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the
form zygote.
menstrual cycle.
(3) Ova and sperms are induced to form zygote under
(4) Abstaining from coitus from day 5 to 10 of the
controlled condition. menstrual cycle
(4) Embryogenesis is allowed to continue in test tube
174. The viruses of the following diseases are known to
under controlled conditions
remain in the body tissues for long periods of time:
167. Motivation for smaller families in India can be (1) Herpes simplex and chicken pox
provided by: (2) Trachoma and ringworm
(1) Slogans like ‘Hum Do Hamare Do’. (3) Scarlet fever and warts
(2) Raising marriageable age (female–18 years and (4) Small pox and boils
male–21 years).
175. ‘Smack’ is a drug obtained from the:
(3) Giving incentive to couples with small families.
(1) Latex of Papaver somniferum
(4) All the above
(2) Leaves of Cannabis sativa
168. Every ________ person in the world is an Indian: (3) Fruits of Erythroxylum coca
(1) 4th (2) 6th (4) Flowers of Datura stramonium
th
(3) 8 (4) 10th 176. In malignant tumors, the cells proliferate, grow
169. In order to combat infertility, special techniques are rapidly and move to other parts of the body to form
used like ________: new tumors. This stage of disease is called
(1) Stimulated reproductive technologies (1) mitosis
(2) Assisted reproductive technologies (2) metastasis
(3) Fertile reproductive technologies (3) metagenesis
(4) In vitro fertilization (4) teratogenesis
170. Which infections can be transmitted by sharing of 177. AIDS is caused by HIV. Among the following, which
injection needles, surgical instruments, etc., with one is not a mode of transmission of HIV?
infected persons; through transfusion of blood, or (1) Sharing the infected needles
from an infected mother to the foetus? (2) Transfusion of contaminated blood
(1) AIDS (2) Hepatitis B (3) Shaking hands with infected persons
(3) Genital herpes (4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Sexual contact with infected persons

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178. Diagrammatic view of an antibody molecule is given 183. Identify the correct pair representing the causative
below. Identify A, B, C and D by selecting the correct agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory test for
option: typhoid
(1) Streptococcus pneumoniae / Widal test
(2) Plasmodium vivax / UTI test
(3) Salmonella typhi / Anthrone test
(4) Salmonella typhi / Widal test
184. The substance produced by a cell in viral infection
that can protect other cells from further infection is
(1) serotonin (2) colostrum
(3) interferon (4) histamine
185. To which type of barriers under innate immunity, do
the saliva in the mouth and the tears from the eyes,
(1) A – Antigen binding site, B – Light chain, C –
Heavy chain, D – Disulphide bonds belong?
(2) A – Antigen binding site, B – Heavy chain, C – (1) Cytokine barriers
Light chain, D – Disulphide bonds (2) Cellular barriers
(3) A – Disulphide bonds, B – Light chain, C – Heavy (3) Physiological barriers
chain, D – Antigen binding site (4) Physical barriers
(4) A – Light chain, B – Antigen binding site, C –
Heavy chain, D – Disulphide bonds SECTION-B
179. In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen 186. Relaxin is produced by
cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels? (1) Ovary (2) Adrenal cortex
(1) Elephantiasis (2) Ascariasis (3) Pituitary gland (4) Thyroid gland
(3) Ringworm disease (4) Amoebiasis 187. In human female, blastocyst is related to?
180. Match the causative organisms with their disease: (1) Birth canal
Column – I Column – II (2) Puberty of male
A. Haemophilus influenzae 1. Malignant malaria (3) Uterine growth
B. Entamoeba histolytica 2. Elephantiasis (4) Uterine implantation
C. Plasmodium falciparum 3. Pneumonia 188. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. menstrual cycle
D. Wuchereria bancrofti 4. Typhoid (I) The secretions of LH and FSH increases during
E. Salmonella typhi 5. Amoebiasis secretary phase
(1) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–5, E–3 (II) Follicular maturation occurs during secretary
(2) A–3, B–5, C–1, D–2, E–4 phase
(3) A–5, B–1, C–3, D–2, E–4 (III) Corpus luteum is formed during secretary phase
(4) A–3, B–4, C–1, D–5, E–2 (IV) Progesterone level increases during secretary
phase
181. The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm
disease in human belongs to the same Kingdom of (1) I, II (2) I, III, IV
organisms as that of: (3) II, III, IV (4) III, IV
(1) Taenia, a tapeworm 189. Which of these events occur after spermiogenesis in
(2) Rhizopus, a mould human being
(3) Ascaris, a round worm A. Beginning of spermatogenesis
(4) Wuchereria, a filarial worm B. Formation of spermatozoa from spermatids
182. Analgesic is a C. Spermiation
(1) pain causing drug D. Sperm heads become embedded in the sertoli
(2) fatigue causing drug cells
(3) pain relieving drug (1) A, B, C (2) B, C, D
(4) fatigue relieving drug (3) C only (4) C, D

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190. When the ovum is penetrated by the sperm which 197. Assertion: LSD and marijuana are clinically used as
one of the following activities done first? analgesic.
(1) First meiosis complete Reason: Both these drugs suppress brain function.
(2) Formation of first polar body (1) Assertion and reason both are the reason is correct
(3) Meiosis IInd complete explanation of assertion.
(4) Formation of second polar body (2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is
191. After parturition, which natural contraception way not correct explanation of assertion.
can be utilized? (3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(1) Lactational menorrhea
(4) Assertion and Reason both are wrong.
(2) Lactational amenorrhea
(3) Lactational deficiency 198. Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained
from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown
(4) Lactational prevention
below?
192. Purpose of tubectomy is to
(1) Prevent the development of an embryo
(2) Prevent the implantation
(3) Prevent the fertilization
(4) prevent the egg formation
193. The programme of ‘Family Planning’ was initiated
in the year ________. (1) Pain – killer
(1) 1950 (2) 1947 (2) Hallucinogen
(3) 1949 (4) 1951 (3) Depressant
194. Statutory ban has been laid on ________ to check (4) Stimulant
female foeticide.
199. Which one of the following is the correct statement
(1) Choriocentesis (2) Amniocentesis
regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?
(3) Uterocentesis (4) Embryocentesis
(1) Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary
195. Which of the following STDs is not correctly
euphoria
matched with its causative agent?
(2) Hashish effects cardiovascular system of the body
(1) Genital warts – Haemophilus ducrei
(2) Syphilis – Treponema pallidum (3) Opium stimulates nervous system and causes
(3) Genital herpes – Type II Herpes simplex virus hallucinations
(HSV–2) (4) Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed
(4) Trichomoniasis – Trichomonas vaginalis emotions.
196. Select the incorrect statement with respect to 200. Assertion (A): MRI detects cancer by using ionizing
acquired immunity radiations.
(1) Acquired immunity is non-specific type of Reason (R): MRI is harmful.
defence present at the time of birth (1) If both the Assertion and the Reason are and the
(2) Primary response is produced when our body Reason are correct explanation of the Assertion.
encounters a pathogen for the first time
(2) If both the Assertion and the Reason are true but
(3) Anamnestic response is elicited on subsequent
the Reason is not a correct.
encounters with the same pathogen.
(4) Anamnestic response is due to memory of first (3) If the Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
encounter (4) If the Assertion and Reason are false.

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