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31/05/2022, 18:38 Directorate General of Shipping
Why is it necessary to prepare a comprehensive repair specification?
1. For giving required inputs to the shipyard/drydock to correctly estimate the cost and time for
submitting their offer and carry out repairs
2. For giving required inputs to the ship staff to raise suitable requisitions for additional crew
1. required for supervision of the project 2
3. For giving required inputs to the classification society so that they can depute a suitable surveyor
to inspect the repairs at the shipyard/drydock
4. For giving required inputs to the shipyard/drydock to correctly prepare their work completion
certificates
Information needed to prepare specification of repairs is collected from
1. Vessel repair specifications

2. Vessel damage or break down reports
2. 2
3. Class inspection reports
4. Specialist or service provider reports
5. All of the above
Your ship is going for damage repairs in one of her ballast tanks.What should the repair specification
address?
1. Details as per the ships' routine defect list and the budgeted cost and time
2. Photograph of the area with expected amount of steel renewal and the time allowed for
3. 2
completing the job
3. Description of the repair including plans, location, survey, testing, access, ventilation, staging and
lighting requirements
4. Class recommendations, tank drawings and budgeted cost and time
Specifications for equipment repair should have complete information on the make,type, serial number
and year of built, location,drawings, extracts from the technical manual and details of previous repairs,
if any, should be attached
4. 1
True
False
https://dgslms.aduacademy.in/form/ebook 1/2
Answer Key
For giving required inputs to the shipyard/drydock to correctly estimate the cost and time for submitting
1.
their offer and carry out repairs
2. All of the above
Description of the repair including plans, location, survey, testing, access, ventilation, staging and
3.
lighting requirements
4. TRUE
How does the top management use a repair completion report?
1. It allows top management to identify problem areas and make necessary provisions for them
1. 2. It serves as a reference for future repairs 2
3. It is used to impress the principals about the technical capability
4. It helps to review the cost effectiveness, efficacy and adequacy of the repair
Information needed to prepare repair completion report is collected from
1. Vessel repair specifications

2. Vessel damage or break down reports
2. 2
3. Class inspection reports
4. Specialist or service provider reports
5. All of the above
Why does a superintendent prepare a repair completion report?
1. It is a statutory requirement
3. 2. It is required to maintain class 2
3. It is used to inform about the work carried out and any follow ups required
4. It is required to sanction the service providers bills
Answer Key
1. It helps to review the cost effectiveness, efficacy and adequacy of the repair
2. All of the above
3. It is used to inform about the work carried out and any follow ups required
Face to face communication is an _____________ form of communication.
1. 2
1. avoidable
2. unavoidable
The face time with boss always has a ___________ in business world.
2. 2
1. high value
2. low value
Face to face communication is the best form of communication.
3. 1
True
False
Face to face communication helps to get verbal and non verbal clues and feedback.
4. 1
True
False
Misinterpretation of message occurs in __________.
1. letters
5. 2
2. documents
3. emails
4. face to face communication
Misinterpretation of message occurs in face to face communication.
6. True 1
False
Culture plays a main role in face to face communication.
7. 1
True
False
Use of emotions and timeliness __________ to all cultures.
8. 1. fit 1
2. don't fit
There is no possibility for immediate feedback or response in face to face communication.
9. 1
True
False
Answer Key
1. unavoidable
2. high value
3. TRUE
4. TRUE
5. face to face communication
6. FALSE
7. TRUE
8. don't fit
9. FALSE
What appropriate compensation was assured to the crew by the Superintendent in the media?
1. bonus and promotion to deserving persons

1. 2. bonus to all 2
3. promotion to all
4. None of the above
Why did the Superintendent insist on working with the same crew in the media?
1. because the crew were familiar with the repair work planned for drydocking
2. 2. because the crew were familiar with the drydocking 2
3. because the crew were familiar with the repair work
4. because the crew were repairing for drydocking
The carrier is scheduled for drydocking
1. before completion of discharging cargo

3. 2. after completion of discharging cargo 2
3. during the cargo discharge
4. none of the above
Who is the direct incharge of the crew?
1. Superintendent
4. 2. Chief officer 2
3. Chief Engineer
4. Bosun
the Master communicates only at times with the office personnel offshore.
5. 1
True
False
The Captain discusses with ________ about any issues that are too hard to clear of his own
1. Bosun
3. Superintendent
4. First officer
Answer Key
1. bonus and promotion to deserving persons

2. because the crew were familiar with the repair work planned for drydocking
3. after completion of discharging cargo
4. Bosun
5. FALSE
6. Superintendent
The __________ communicates with the officer in the arriving ship regarding the berthing
information.
1. Cadet
1. 2
2. Port officials
3. Port control
4. Bosun
Who communicates with the Port control about the Ship's arrival?
1. Master
2. 2. Chief Engineer 2
3. Chief officer
4. Superintendent
Who will board the vessel for inspections and formalities?
1. Port control & dock safety officials

3. 2. Port official & dock safety officials 2
3. Port health & dock safety officials
_________ arrive on the ship for inward clearance
1. Seaman
4. 2. Cadets 2
3. Port control
4. Port officials
The crew needs to communicate with external parties on a _________ basis
1. day to day
5. 2. Weekly once 2
3. Work completion
Answer Key
1. Port control
2. Chief officer
3. Port health & dock safety officials
4. Port officials
5. day to day
Listening carefully:
1. difficult task
1. 2. easy way 2
3. unimportant task
Listening helps you to:
1. All the above

2. 2
2. Earn respect
3. Gather knowledge
4. Enhance speech
Effective writers are good listeners
3. 1
True
False
Answer Key
1. difficult task
2. All the above
3. TRUE
Hearing is
1. an involuntary psychological process by which you process sound

1. 2. a deliberate psychological process by which you receive, understand & retain 2
3. a psychological process by which you receive but not retain
The main difference between listening and hearing is:
1. Listening is conscious and hearing is mechanical

2. 2
2. Listening is natural and hearing is physical
3. Listening is mechanical and hearing is normal
4. Listening is conscious and hearing is effortless
Listening involves processing of information
3. 1
True
False
Which of the following require listening?
1. Notes of a guitar
4. 2
2. Roar of a lion
3. Call of a Deer
4. Bark of a dog
You spend 42-52% of your time listening to something or the orhter of which you retain only
1. 10%
5. 2. 20% 2
3. 15%
4. 25%
You can listen to the chirping of birds as well as hear the birds chirping
6. 1
True
False
You use a tape recorder to
1. listen
7. 2. hear 2
3. both
4. none
Answer Key
1. a deliberate psychological process by which you receive, understand & retain

2. Listening is conscious and hearing is mechanical
3. TRUE
4. Notes of a guitar
5. 25%
6. TRUE
7. listen
Peter told Mary to send an e- mail. Which of the following information should Mary ask from Peter?
1. All the above
1. 2
2. What to send
3. Whom to send
4. What to write
You learn a lot through informative listening.
2. 1
True
False
Dan wanted to know the directions to the Supermarket. Pam gave him the directions, but still Dan had
to again ask the directions from the pedestrians on the road. What was the problem?
3. 1. Dan did not understand the directions properly

2
2. Dan wanted to confirm the directions
3. Dan lacked the sense of direction
Peter told Mary to send a mail. Which of the following information should Mary ask from Peter?
1. Gather information
4. 2
2. Gather knowledge
3. Gather details
4. Gather news
Answer Key
1. All the above
2. TRUE
3. Dan did not understand the directions properly
4. Gather information
Which of the following is not an example of critical listening?
1. Listening to an advertisement on radio
1. 2
2. Listening to a singer in a reality show
3. Listening to a debate on television
4. All the above
Listening to your colleague can be critical listening.
2. 1
True
False
He argued really well. What does tour comment imply?
1. Judgement about the person
3. 2
2. Attitude of the person
3. Quality of the person
4. Behaviour of a person
You always engage in critical listening whenever you listen to a politician.
4. 1
True
False
Answer Key
1. Listening to an advertisement on radio
2. TRUE
3. Judgement about the person
4. FALSE
Speaker's organisation of material is important for note making.
1. 1
True
False
Note making is itself is enough for recall.
2. 1
True
False
What is note making?
1. It is a skill that requires practice.
3. 2
2. It is a skill that requires training.
3. It is a method that requires practice.
4. It is a skill that requires patience.
Note making is difficult because:
1. Written language is different from spoken language
4. 2
2. Written language is difficult spoken language
3. Written language is easier from spoken language
Answer Key
1. TRUE
2. TRUE
3. It is a skill that requires practice.
4. Written language is different from spoken language
How would you describe Mr. James?
1. 1. Novice 1
2. Hard-worker
3. High achiever
Listening comprehension refers to:
1. Understanding an oral message
2. 2
2. Understanding a speech
3. Understanding a passage
4. Understanding an information
What kind of work did Mr. James do in his previous company?
3. 1. Manager 1
2. Sales officer
3. Caretaker
What is Mr. James's opinion about Java?
4. 1. An authoring program 1
2. A drink
3. A software
You can also engage in listening comprehension while listening to a song.
5. 1
True
False
Listening comprehension also means deducing incomplete information.
6. 1
True
False
Listening comprehension helps evaluate your listening skills.
7. 1
True
False
What name would you give to this kind of a conversation?
8. 1. Meeting 1
2. Discussion
3. Interview
Answer Key
1. Novice
2. Understanding an oral message
3. Caretaker
4. A drink
5. TRUE
6. TRUE
7. TRUE
8. Interview
They will always allow speakers to finish before they respond - Point out the trait.
1. Watch for feelings

1. 2. Not rush speakers 2
3. Not interrupt the speaker
4. React responsively
Mia gets defensive against negative criticism. She is a good listener.
2. 1
True
False
Which trait helps speakers to understand that they are being listened to?
1. Ask appropriate questions

3. 2. Maintaine eye - Contact 2
"good listeners will not become defensive" - Point out the trait.
1. Not interrupt the speaker

4. 2. Not rush speakers 2
3. Be emotionally controlled
4. Show interest
Which trait encourage others to speak freely
1. Not rush speakers

5. 2. React Responsively 2
4. Show interest
You are a good listener if you do not
1. Second guess the speaker
6. 2
2. Second the speaker
3. Ask questions to the speaker
4. All the above
Maintaining eye contact is an important trait of a good listener.
7. 1
True
False
Answer Key
1. Not rush speakers

2. TRUE
3. Maintaine eye - Contact
4. Be emotionally controlled
5. Show interest
6. Second guess the speaker
7. TRUE
Kate always answers before Jill can finish. She is a good listener.
1. 1
True
False
Which one these is not an irriating habit of the listener?
1. Showing interest in something other than the coversation

2. 2. forgetting what was talked about previously 2
3. asking too many questions about details
4. not interrupting the speakers
"Speaker : I must tell you...

Listener : Ya ya I should be careful" - Point out the Bad habit specific to this conversation.
3. 1. Rushing the speaker & making him feel that he's wasting time. 2
2. Interrupting the speaker
3. Getting ahead of the speaker & finishing his thoughts.
4. Asking too many questions about details.
Jack was irritated as Ben was busy watching television when he was talking about his problem. Is Jack's
anger justified?
4. 1
True
False
Which of the following is not a bad habit of listening?
5. 2
2. React critically
3. React violently
4. React meekly
Martin is a poor listener as he keeps asking the same information
6. 1
True
False
Bad listening is very common, but not always
1. important
7. 2. irritating 2
3. intentional
4. none
8. "Speaker : I went to ooty. It is a ....

2
Listener : Loverly place. I've been there" - Point out the bad habit specific to this conversation.
1. Not looking at the speaker

3. Not responding to the speakr's request
4. Asking too many questions about details
Answer Key
1. FALSE
2. not interrupting the speakers
3. Getting ahead of the speaker & finishing his thoughts.
4. TRUE
6. TRUE
7. intentional
Speaker's ___________ mannerems can be distracting for the listener
1. Questioning
1. 2. Doubts clarifying 2
3. Responding to your question
4. Fidgeting
Speakers can speak ________ workds per minute
1. 400-450
2. 2. 100-125 2
3. 175-200
4. 125-175
Fequent interruptions on the part of the speaker can
1. lead to effective listening

3. 2. have importance in listeing 2
3. impede listening
4. A person can speak a maximum of ________ words in a minute.

1
Passive listening is
1. listen carefully
5. 2. Focus on speakers words 2
3. Pretend to listen
Missing out on information is an external barrier to effective listening.
6. 1
True
False
Which one of these is not an internal barrier?
1. External distractions
7. 2. Unfamiliar langauge 2
3. Not speaking loudly
4. Not focusing on the message
Answer Key
1. Fidgeting
2. 125-175
3. impede listening
4. 175
5. Pretend to listen
6. FALSE
7. Not speaking loudly
Mannerisms are internal barrier to effective listening.
1. 1
True
False
Deadlines can hinder effective listening.
2. 1
True
False
Answer Key
1. FALSE
2. TRUE
A bad listener can become a good listener.
1. 1
True
False
A good listener should improve his skills by
1. getting defensive
2. 2. giving early conclusions 2
3. asking too many questions
4. practising paraphrase
Answer Key
1. TRUE
2. practising paraphrase
Most
readers are busy people who just want the main points of your message
and that too fast.
1. 1
True
False
If
you find yourself writing lengthy sentences, remove them.
2. 1
True
False
The
verb can be made active by putting the doer or the person doing the
action in the sentence,
3. _______ of its verb. 1
The
_____ voice tends to make the writing tighter, more personal and
introduces action earlier.
4. 1
Readers
______ longer sentences than full stops.
5. 1
Complicated
words in a document which are designed to impress rather than inform
may win the
business every time.
6. 1
True
False
Making
readers read _______ words is an unfriendly act.
7. 1
If
you find yourself writing lengthy sentences, remove them.
8. 1
True
False
Answer Key
1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. in front
4. active
5. fear
6. FALSE
7. excess
8. FALSE
________
is the initiator of the communication.
1. 1
Communication
will be effective when the ________ shows keen interest in the
message
2. transmitted. 1
Differing
frames of reference is an example of ______ related barriers.
3. 1
Irrespective
of the barriers, communication can be made effective if the receiver
plays his / her part
well.
4. 1
True
False
Because
of the _________ of the communication process, problems arise at
every stage resulting in
5. distortion of communication. 1
Lack
of interpersonal sensitivity is one of the receiver related barrier.
6. 1
True
False
The
_________ has greater responsibility to make the communication
effective.
7. 1
Barriers
can be overcome if conscious efforts are made either by the sender or
the receiver.
8. 1
True
False
When
the sender's responsibility is not properly discharged, communication
is bound to be
ineffective.
9. 1
True
False
Evaluating
the message instead of the sender is one of the receiver related
barriers.
10. 1
True
False
Answer Key
1. sender
2. receiver
3. sender
4. TRUE
5. complexity
6. TRUE
7. receiver
8. FALSE
9. TRUE
10. TRUE
Many
believe that it is the _________ of the writing that matters, not how
it is received or read.
1. 1
In
this electronic age, writing is a/an ________ necessity.
2. 1
Many
business professionals feel that writing inspirational text is
possible.
3. 1
True
False
Effective
written communication is essential for_______ development.
4. 1
For
generating an effective written communication, competencies and
skills in vocabulary usage are
required.
5. 1
True
False
For
generating an effective written communication, competencies and
skills in_________ usage are
6. required. 1
Many
business professionals feel that writing________ text is impossible.
7. 1
Written
communication is a_______ means of communication hence, it can be
saved for future
8. references. 1
Anybody
can write_________, by applying right skills, methods, models and
lots of practice.
9. 1
Show
respect towards the__________ time by constructing short, concise
sentences and brief
10. paragraphs. 1
All
business activities are planned, implemented, and analyzed in the
form of________ words.
11. 1
Public
and private entities depend upon these documents to communicate the
essential information
12. about the________ and condition of their
business. 1
Show
respect towards the reader's time by constructing ______, concise
sentences and brief
13. paragraphs. 1
Using
schematics- classifying information under headings with other visual
aids, such as graphics,
tables and charts will make a document less
interesting.
14. 1
True
False
Effective
written communication generates the _______ paper trails in which the
activities,
15. proposals and results of the countless business
transactions are recorded. 1
Answer Key
1. quality
2. day-to-day
3. FALSE
4. business
5. TRUE
6. vocabulary
7. inspirational
8. permanent
9. creatively
10. reader's
11. Written
12. conduct
13. Short
14. FALSE
15. hard-copy
When can a superintendent’s report be termed good?
1. Achieves the objective by being precise, has clear conclusion and recommendations
2. Is exhaustive and detailed and ensures that the reader of the report will be satisfied
1. 3. When accompanied by many digital photos, plans and graphics so that a technically qualified 2
person can draw own conclusions
4. When it contains all information to put the blame on the crew so that company claim costs of
repair from the insurance for crew negligence
What is the usefulness of a technical condition report to the management of the company?
1. Prepare the drydock specifications

2. Advertise their management capabilities to ship owners
2. 2
3. Review the vessel's maintenance with respect to operational requirements and asset value of the
ship
4. Satisfy class requirements of a Quarterly Survey Listing
Information needed to prepare technical condition report is collected from
1. Vessel: Month end report, corrective action reports and damage and breakdown report, etc.
2. Office:Vessel inspection records,vessel audit reports,class survey records,vessel performance
3. 2
reports from PMS
3. Both: Vessel and office
Technical condition reports are used by the management to review the vessel's maintenance,and to
assess the effectiveness of the superintendent
4. 1
True
False
What are the key elements of a technical condition report?
1. Detail reports on past performance accompanied by supporting documents and photographs

5. 2. Details on engine performance and history of breakdowns 2
3. Explanation for deficiencies observed during third party inspections
4. Status of hull & machinery, effectiveness of past maintenance, and areas requiring attention
Answer Key
1. Achieves the objective by being precise, has clear conclusion and recommendations
2. Review the vessel's maintenance with respect to operational requirements and asset value of the ship
3. Both: Vessel and office
4. TRUE
5. Status of hull & machinery, effectiveness of past maintenance, and areas requiring attention
What are the two types of distress?
1. Acute and passive stress

1. 2
2. Chronic and active stress
3. Active and passive stress
4. Acute and chronic stress
Which of the following is not a type of stress?
1. Estress
2. 2
2. Distress
3. Hyperstress
4. Hypostress
Name the stress which can demotivate a person?
1. Hyperstress
3. 2
2. Hypostress
3. Eustress
4. Distress
Which of the following statements about stress is false?
1. High demands plus low control are conditions of stress

4. 2
2. Some stress is normal, try to avoid staying in the alarm state
3. We often overlook less obvious causes of stress
4. Stress is mostly outside cause and partly internal response
Which of the following causes stress?
1. Financial Problems
5. 2
2. Social Problems
3. Neither financial and social problems
4. Both financial and social problems
Which of these statements about stress is not correct?
1. Stress is not always a part of our lives

6. 2
2. Understand yourself and replace negatives with positives
3. You can manage your stress with mental and physical outlets
4. Maintain mental fitness by constantly working to improve
Self induced stress is mainly due to
1. Family
7. 2
2. Personality
3. Economy
4. Health
8. Stress that occurs for a long period of time is referred to as: 2

1. Stress quotient
2. Panic attack
3. Chronic stress
4. Stressability
Which of the following is not a symptom of stress?
1. Anna is unable to sleep, worried about an important presentation

9. 2
2. Anxious about her assignment, Anna finds herself losing weight
3. Anna gets more work
4. Anna experiences physical problems like headaches
Which of the following is not a symptom of stress?
1. Pessimism
10. 2. Self esteem 2
3. Eating too much

4. Smoking
Answer Key
1. Acute and chronic stress

2. Estress
3. Hypostress
4. Stress is mostly outside cause and partly internal response
5. Both financial and social problems
6. Stress is not always a part of our lives
7. Personality
8. Chronic stress
9. Anna gets more work
10. Self esteem
Which is not a method to prioritise your activities?
1. Priority table
1. 2. Urgent-important matrix 2
3. Rank list
4. Diary
Which of the following behaviours should Peter work at keeping to better cope with stress?
1. He often useless negative words when talking about herself and others
2. 2. He sometimes has unrealistic views of herself and others 2
3. He takes time to maintain her to-do lists and schedules
4. He often forget to structure time off from work.
Hypercritical Emily has made Anna irritable, which would be the least useful coping skill?
1. Insulate herself by taking a break from Emily

3. 2. Set a good attitude example for Emily to pick up on 2
3. Confront Emily
4. Try to understand Emily and help her solve her problems
Which of the following probably would not be a helpful way to deal with the stress?
1. Developing a sense of humour

4. 2. Balancing work and play 2
3. Spending less time talking about the problems with friends and family
4. Consulting a professional counsellor
What coping mechanisms might Sandra use to keep from getting too stressed?
1. Work on her goal-setting skills

5. 2. learn to say no when she is already overbooked 2
3. avoid unimportant time wasting meetings
4. all of the above
Answer Key
1. Diary
2. He takes time to maintain her to-do lists and schedules
3. Confront Emily
4. Spending less time talking about the problems with friends and family
5. all of the above
People who say "no" are engaging in selfish behaviour that leads to internal stress.
1. True 1
False
Which of the following is not a major factor in controlling stress?
1. Breathing techniques
2. 2. Depression Medications 2
3. Watching television
4. Anger Management classes
A healthy diet, adequate sleep, and regular exercise can help you deal with on-the-job stress.
3. True 1
False
Spending most of your time with friends can reduce stress
4. True 1
False
An important element in stress reduction is learning to:
1. Fight to make one's view heard at all times

5. 2. Choose one's battles carefully 2
3. Avoid confrontation in all situations
Answer Key
1. FALSE
3. TRUE
4. FALSE
5. Choose one's battles carefully
What is the full form of the term UMS ship
1. Unmanned Machienery Spaces ship

1. 2. Unmanned Machienery Space ship 2
3. Unnamed Machienery Spaces ship
4. Unmaned Machienery Spaces ship
During a routine voyage, _______ must be tested
1. engine
2. 2. equipment 2
3. boat
4. all of the above
To test the emergency fire pump yu will have to
1. Set a new generator

3. 2. Use the same generator 2
3. Start another generator
Who take over the controls in the Engine Room?
1. Third Officer
4. 2. Third Engineer 2
3. Second officer
4. Second Engineer
Watchkeeping in engine room is required only to handle minor incidents.
5. 1
True
False
Who rectifies the defect in the alarm?
1. Third officer
3. Second Engineer
4. Third Engineer
Answer Key

2. equipment
4. Third Engineer
5. FALSE
6. Third Engineer
Before you write the document, you need to know the ______ of communication.
1. 1
1. Matter
2. subjects and purpose
Successful communication also depends upon the understanding capacity of the employees.
2. True 1
False
The process of passing information, both in oral and written form, within an organization is known as
workplace communication
3. 1
True
False
It is necessary to build and ______ the relationship in the workplace.
4. 2
1. maintain
2. grow
If the information's detail is too little , audience will not get it properly.
5. True 1
False
If the information’s detail is too much, it will make audience _______.
6. 2
1. more understandable
2. bore
A perfect balance of workplace communication is required for the proper ______ of the organisation.
7. 2
1. functioning
2. running
To produce successful workplace communication, follow ______ as a process.
8. 1
1. writing
2. oral
The method of communication should be only exchange of words
9. True 1
False
The information detail should be according to the ______ capacity of the audience.
10. 2
1. observing
2. grasping
11. The process of passing information, both in oral and written form, within an organization is known as 2
_________.
1. workplace communication
2. Effective communication
Final step of writing process of communication is ________.
12. 1. only edit 1

2. edit & rewrite
The method used for communication should be ________.
13. 2
1. clear & simple
2. understandable
Communication is the exchange of ________ between communicators.
14. 2
1. Words
2. thoughts and ideas
Answer Key
1. subjects and purpose

2. TRUE
3. TRUE
4. maintain
5. TRUE
6. bore
7. functioning
8. writing
9. FALSE
10. grasping
11. workplace communication
12. edit & rewrite
13. clear & simple
14. thoughts and ideas
Through __________ people can record the data, create documents, compose e-mails in the
workplace.
1. 2
1. Verbal clues
2. Voice Recognition Softwares
Technology allows businesses to expand quickly and efficiently.
2. 1
True
False
Communicating through _____________ helps in reshaping the world of workplace.
3. 1. technology 2
2. mails
3. letters
Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is replacing the traditional phone service.
4. 1
True
False
Intranets help in sharing the company’s inside information
5. True 1
False
Voice recognition softwares are used to read out the words with accurate transcription.
6. 1
True
False
Skype is high-cost internet telephony site.
7. 1
True
False
VoIP enables the people to communicate using broadband internet connection.
8. 1
True
False
________ presentations can be easily done by using projectors.
9. 1
1. Electronic
2. Electrical
10. _________ helps in sharing the company’s inside information such as employee data, directory, 1
employee discussion forums etc.
1. Internet
2. Intranet
Through voice, people can't record the data, create documents, compose e-mails in the workplace.
11. 1
True
False
_____________ helps to eliminate long distance and local telephone charges.
12. 2
1. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)
2. Voice between Internet Protocol (VbIP)
Answer Key
1. Voice Recognition Softwares

2. TRUE
3. technology
4. TRUE
5. TRUE
6. TRUE
7. FALSE
8. TRUE
9. Electronic
10. Intranet
11. FALSE
12. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)
You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which
of the following would you do FIRST?
1. Attempt to determine what is burning.

1. 1
2. Locate and acquire the nearest emergency breathing apparatus.
3. Break out a fire hose.
4. Wait for the fire team to arrive and assist them as instructed.
Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard a vessel is
1. More than six short blasts and one long blast on the whistle.
2. Continuous blast of the ship's whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds supplemented by
2. the same signal on the general alarm. 1
3. Three short blasts of the whistle supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm.
4. More than six short blasts and one long blast on the whistle supplemented by the same signal on
the general alarm.
Which of the following represents the emergency signal for fire aboard ship?
1. More than six short blasts and one long blast on the whistle.
2. Continuous blast of the ship's whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds supplemented by
3. the same signal on the general alarm. 2
3. Three short blasts of the whistle supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm.
4. More than six short blasts and one long blast on the whistle supplemented by the same signal on
the general alarm.
You hear the general alarm bells and ships whistle sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the
signal for
1. abandon ship
4. 1
2. dismissal from drills
3. fire and emergency
4. lower lifeboats
What is the spoken emergency signal for a "man overboard" on the VHF radio?
1. Man Overboard
5. 2. Security 1
3. Mayday
4. Pan-Pan
You notice a large amount of smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway, accompanied by the
odor of burning cotton fabric. After activating the fire alarm, your next course of action should be to
_________ .
6. 1. begin breaking out the nearest fire hose 1

2. activate the fixed CO2 system
3. close the door to the room
4. locate and don an available SCBA
Which of the following is used to signal crew members to report at boat stations or for boat drill?
1. More than six short blasts followed by one long blast of the ships whistle.
7. 2. A continuous blast of the ships whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds. 1
3. One long blast followed by three short blasts of the ships whistle.
4. Three short blasts of the ships whistle.
8. Which of the following signals is used to report for boat station drills _________ .
1
1. more than six short blasts followed by one long blast of the whistle
2. a continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds
3. one long blast followed by three short blasts of the whistle
4. three short blasts of the whistle
A distress signal ____________.
1. consists of 5 or more short blasts of the fog signal apparatus

9. 2. consists of the raising and lowering of a large white flag 1
3. may be used individually or in conjunction with other distress signals
4. is used to indicate doubt about another vessel's intentions
When you hear three short blasts on the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bells,
you_________.
1. are required to be at your liferaft

10. 1
2. are dismissed from drills
3. should point to the man overboard
4. should start the fire pump
Before releasing CO2 into the machinery space, the alarm for a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system
must sound for at least __________.
1. 20 seconds
11. 1
2. 30 seconds
3. 40 seconds
4. 60 seconds
As soon as you hear the fire and emergency signal, you should ensure that the ________.
1. ring buoys are thrown overboard

12. 2. engines are stopped 2
3. fire pumps are started
4. life preservers have been issued to everyone
When you hear three short blasts on the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bells,
you
1. are required to go to your life raft

13. 1
3. should point to the man overboard
4. should start the fire pump
A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by the
continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, would indicate a
__________.
14. 1. fire 2
2. collision
3. man overboard
4. flooded compartment
15. While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and 3 short rings on the 1
general alarm bells" is the signal for _________.
1. abandon ship
2. dismissal from fire and emergency stations

4. man overboard
When the general alarm is sounded continuously, the engine room personnel should _______.
1. proceed to their man overboard stations

16. 2. start the fire pump 1
3. put on lifejackets and go to their abandon ship stations
4. secure the propulsion diesel engines and evacuate the engine room
The signal for abandon ship is_______ .
1. three short blasts on the whistle or three rings on the general alarm
2. more than six short blasts and one long blast on the whistle and the same signal on the general
17. 1
alarm followed by Captains verbal orders.
3. rapid ringing of the ship's bell and general alarm for at least 10 seconds
4. four long blasts on the whistle and the same on the general alarm
You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the
signal for _________.
1. abandon ship
18. 1
4. man overboard
Distress signals may be ___________.
1. red flares
19. 2. smoke signals 1
3. sound signals
4. All of the above
In a typical automatic fire alarm system, which of the listed actions will cause an indication of a fire to
be given in the annunciator cabinet?
1. A rise in temperature activating a heat detector.

20. 1
2. The fire alarm test push- button is operated.
3. A manual fire alarm box is activated.
4. All of the above.
If there's a fire aboard your vessel, you should FIRST
1. notify the Coast Guard

21. 2. sound the alarm 1
3. have passengers put on life preservers
4. cut off air supply to the fire
If you hear more than six short blasts, followed by one long blast on the whistle, and supplemented by
the same signal on the general alarm, you should_________ .
1. start the fire pump

22. 1
2. go to your man overboard station
3. go to your lifeboat station
4. stand by for collision
23. Which of the following actions should be taken by the engine room watch when the general alarm is 2
sounded continuously?
1. The fire pump should be started.

2. The boiler fires should be secured.
3. The fixed CO2 system should be initiated into action.
4. The engine room ventilation should besecured.
When supplemented by a comparable signal on the general alarm, what is the signal for boat stations
or boat drill?
1. More than six short blasts followed by one long blast of the whistle
24. 1
2. A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds
3. One long blast followed by three short blasts of the whistle
4. Three short blasts of the whistle
What is the spoken emergency signal for a distress signal over a VHF radio?
1. Red Alert
25. 2. Security 1
3. Mayday
4. Pan
A distress signal __________.
1. consists of 5 or more short blasts of the fog signal apparatus

26. 2. consists of the raising and lowering of a large white flag 2
4. is used to indicate doubt about another vessel's intentions
"Category 1" EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by__________.
1. offshore supply vessels

27. 2. commercial fishing vessels 1
3. orbiting satellites in space
4. naval warships
If the alarm provided in the fixed CO2 system sounds in the engine room, you should_________ .
1. leave the space immediately

28. 2. start the fire pump 1
3. make certain that the CO2 starts flowing into the space
4. immediately assist the fixed system by discharging all portable units as well
What should be your FIRST action if you discover a fire aboard ship?
1. Sound the alarm.

29. 2. Attempt to put out the fire. 1
3. Confine it by closing doors, ports, vents, etc.
4. Call the Master.
A continuous blast of the ship's whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by a
continuous sounding of the general alarm for a period of not less than 10 seconds, is the _________.
1. boat stations signal

30. 1
2. secure from boat stations signal
3. fire alarm signal
4. lower lifeboats signal
31. Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is

1
1. more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast on the whistle, and the same signal on the general
alarm
2. continuous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general alarm for at least 10 seconds
3. 1 short blast on the whistle
4. alternating short and long blasts on the ship's whistle
If you hear a continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by
a continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, you should go to your
_________ .
32. 1. boat station 1

2. fire station
3. man overboard station
4. collision station
You can indicate that your vessel is in distress by
1. displaying a large red flag

33. 2. displaying three black balls in a vertical line 1
3. sounding four short blats and after two seconds sounding three more rapid blasts on the whistle
4. continuously sounding the fog horn
A continuous sounding of the vessel's whistle, supplemented by a continuous ringing of the general
alarm bells for a period of not less than 10 seconds, is the signal for _________.
1. man overboard
34. 1
2. boat stations
3. fire stations
4. secure from all drills
While on watch in the engine room, you hear a continuous sounding of the general alarm. Which of
the following actions should you take FIRST?
1. Secure the burners then proceed to your assigned boat station.

35. 2
2. Start the fire pump and establish flow to the fire main.
3. Open the guardian valve and standby to maneuver.
4. Open the master control valves on the fixed CO2 system.
The general emergency alarm signal composed of ________
1. One long blast

36. 2
2. Four long blast followed by one short blast
3. Announcemnt in P.A by Master
4. Seven long blast followed by one short blast
37. While on watch in the engine room, you hear a continuous sounding of the general alarm. Which of 1
the following actions should you take?
1. Make an entry in the official logbook.

2. Open the master control valves on the fixed CO2 system.
3. Start the fire pump and check discharge pressure.

4. Secure auxiliary condenser overboard discharge.
When more than six short blasts and one long blast of the ship's whistle, accompanied by the same
signal on the general alarm bell is sounded, the signal is for __________ .

38. 1
2. boat recall
3. man overboard
4. boat stations (abandon ship)
If you hear a continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds; supplemented by
a continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for the same time period, you should _________ .

39. 2
2. go to your fire station
3. standby for collision
4. proceed to your man overboard muster station
Answer Key
1. Attempt to determine what is burning.

Continuous blast of the ship's whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds supplemented by the same
2.
signal on the general alarm.
Continuous blast of the ship's whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds supplemented by the same
3.
signal on the general alarm.
5. Pan-Pan
6. close the door to the room
7. More than six short blasts followed by one long blast of the ships whistle.
8. more than six short blasts followed by one long blast of the whistle
11. 20 seconds
12. fire pumps are started
14. fire
16. start the fire pump
more than six short blasts and one long blast on the whistle and the same signal on the general alarm
17.
followed by Captains verbal orders.
19. All of the above
21. sound the alarm
23. The fire pump should be started.
24. More than six short blasts followed by one long blast of the whistle
25. Mayday
27. orbiting satellites in space
28. leave the space immediately
29. Sound the alarm.
30. fire alarm signal
31. continuous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general alarm for at least 10 seconds
32. fire station
33. continuously sounding the fog horn
34. fire stations
35. Start the fire pump and establish flow to the fire main.
36. Seven long blast followed by one short blast
37. Start the fire pump and check discharge pressure.

38. boat stations (abandon ship)
39. go to your fire station
Rank the following in order of importance:
1. Following the company’s SOP

1. 5
2. Trying to remain healthy and motivated
3. Abide by all the pollution prevention regulations
4. Be aware of cultural differences and prejudices within crew
5. Communicate effectively with fellow watchkeepers
“Human element” on ship means,
1. Human Behavior
2. 1
2. Human relationship
3. Human Interaction
4. Human Error
Highly competitive nature of the shipping business has resulted in,
1. management expectation for smooth ship operation with zero downtime;

3. 2. shoestring budget and inadequate and inappropriate resources 1
3. crew stress and fatigue
4. Some of the above
5. All of the above
The word organizing refers to the process that:
1. combines tasks and activities into jobs

4. 2. attaches people to jobs based on their abilities, knowledge and skills 2
3. facilitates achieving organizational goals
4. All the options
5. Two of the options
Challenges of crew toward safety and performance are, as listed. Rank them in order of Severity with
(1) being most sever
5. 1. Different design ergonomics 5

2. Too many inspections, rules and international regulations and guidelines;
3. Exposed to the complexity of individual personality traits.
4. Differing standards of education & training
5. Multinational, multilingual and multicultural crew
Ships compromise in accepting the challenging conditions on board and sail at sea by,
1. Following the company’s SOP

6. 1
2. Trying to remain healthy and motivated
3. Abiding by all the pollution prevention regulations
4. All the above
7. Crew Performance depends on the following; rank them by importance, 1 being the most important. 7
1. Vacation Leave
2. Union Support
3. psychological health and workplace wellness
4. standard of education and training
5. Crew attitude
6. Rewards and Salary schemes
7. Promotion Prospect
Answer Key
Trying to remain healthy and motivated
Abide by all the pollution prevention regulations
1. Communicate effectively with fellow watchkeepers
Following the company’s SOP
Be aware of cultural differences and prejudices within crew
2. Human Behavior
3. All of the above
4. All the options
Differing standards of education & training
Different design ergonomics
5. Multinational, multilingual and multicultural crew
Exposed to the complexity of individual personality traits.
Too many inspections, rules and international regulations and guidelines;
6. All the above

standard of education and training
psychological health and workplace wellness
Crew attitude
7. Rewards and Salary schemes
Vacation Leave
Promotion Prospect
Union Support
Managerial Challenges include:
1. Quicker turnarounds
1. 2. Small multinational crews 1
3. Styles of communication
4. All of the above
Example 1
1. A
2. 2. B 20
3. C
4. D
Answer Key
1. All of the above

2. A
The Shipping company organization: find an incorrect statement __________.
1. You are part of the 'sea staff' group as a whole, but you will become part of the onboard
management group consisting of either the Deck or Engineer officers.
1. 2. The deck and the engineering group are divided by hierarchy 1
3. Each person within a group is an individual.
4. Part of your job will be to get them all to understand the benefits of supporting and
cooperating with the other members of the group to achieve a common goal.
5. The work of supporting each other is the process of team building.
Requiring normal work hours during common religious holidays would be considered
1. Racial discrimination
2. 2
2. Sexual discrimination
3. Cultural discrimination
4. Ethnic Discrimination
The stack gasses can indicate performance levels of the machinery. Blue smoke would be an
indication of ___________.
3. 1. Water carry over or excess air 2

2. Unburnt fuel
3. Cylinder oil carryover
4. Plant operating normally.
In a shipping company, work is organized into functions or departments such as
1. Operations, Manning, Finance, and Chartering

4. 2
2. Human Resources, Purchasing, Engineering
3. Navigation, Engineering, Power Systems
4. Operations, Purchasing, Maintenance, and Navigation
Leakage from the emergency fire pump gland can be eliminated by changing the setting of the
packing gland. Which statement regarding this is true?
1. Remove the packing nut and apply a layer of absorbent packing.

5. 2
2. Tighten the gland slightly until flow subsides.
3. Tighten the gland until the flow stops, then tighten each packing nut one additional full turn.

4. Loosen the packing nuts to allow the packing to expand and reduce the water flow.
On board ship, the Chief Engineer is in charge of _________
1. All mechanical operations on deck

6. 2
2. The Engine Department
3. All personnel except the Master and Chief Mate
4. All areas of the ship except the navigation watch and bridge.
7. During an engine room round you notice an oil leak in the hydraulic rams. Your best course of 2
action should be to ___________.
1. Tighten the packing seals on the rams until the leakage stops
2. Notify the 1st engineer of the problem
3. Place absorbent pads under the leak and continue checking the leak to see if it increases in
intensity
4. Add more hydraulic oil to the steering gear system to account for the leakage
1. Part of the management process will involve the assigning of accountability for results
8. 1
2. Who will be rewarded for good performance with high safety awareness?
3. What are the consequences of poor performance with low safety awareness?
4. You should also consider that poor performance will almost certainly be economic.
The difference between a group and a team is that a _________
1. A team is made up of many groups

9. 2
2. Teams are safe and successful groups
3. Groups are made up of individuals
4. Teams require many support groups
A manager operating at the micro level will be concerned with
1. Government agencies and regulations

10. 2
2. Superiors, customers, and external agencies
3. Training people and human resources
4. Setting corporate long term goals
Conduct in the workplace is unacceptable if
1. It creates a intimidating, hostile, or humiliating work environment

11. 2
2. It is unwanted, unreasonable, or offensive
3. A person’s reaction to that conduct influences training or promotion decisions
4. All of the above
Formal appraisals of team members is used to
1. Identify strengths and weaknesses

12. 2
2. Motivate individuals
3. Identify potential and provide information for future promotion
4. All of the above
Employee feedback or appraisals are necessary because they
1. Identify employee strength and weaknesses as well as opportunities for future training and
advancement
13. 2
2. Allows the manager to provide the team member with negative criticism without worrying
about harassing the employee
3. Provides the employee an opportunity to criticize the manager without fear of retribution
4. All of the above
14. The Shipping company organization: find an incorrect statement __________. 1
1. You should consider that poor performance will almost certainly be uneconomic.
2. Another important factor to consider when you are dealing with individuals is that if you give
the same job to ten people, they will probably do it in ten different ways.
3. On board ship there will be strong safety reasons for wanting a standard way of doing a
particular job where poor performance is not acceptable.
4. One way of achieving the standard approach is to not to have set rules and systems of
working but, deal with poor performance strictly.
Informal feedback of an individual’s performance is typically carried out
1. During scheduled weekly meetings

15. 2
2. Using documented records
3. To maintain high levels of employee motivation
4. To resolve errors at the end of a project
The stack gasses can indicate performance levels of the machinery. Black smoke would be an
indication of ___________

2. Unburnt fuel
Language barriers develop when communicating with someone who is weaker in the language that
you speak. To avoid barriers in this situation, you should
1. Use common idioms or metaphors that are easily understood regardless of culture.
17. 2
2. Use common jargons and three letter abbreviations because these are easily learned by
others that you are communicating with
3. Avoid speaking slowly as this will humiliate the other person
4. Keep the vocabulary simple until you are sure the other person understands your meanings.
In order to comply with safety policies and procedures, ship’s crew and officers must
1. Minimize the use of alcohol on board

18. 2
2. Focus on delivering the ship and cargo at all cost
3. Stop unsafe practices which may cause accidents, injury, or environmental pollution
4. All of the above
Communication can take place in many forms including
1. Verbal and Written words

19. 2
2. Body language and facial expressions
3. Tone of voice
4. All of the above
20. Information that is not passed on, ignored, or based on scanty information is considered 2
1. Improper
2. Distorted
3. Relevant
4. Risky
Harasssment can involve
1. Requiring employees to work during religious holidays

21. 2
2. Providing special accommodations to minority groups
3. Restricting offensive material distribution in the workplace
4. Enforcing individual’s right to privacy at the workplace
When making a watch round of the boiler platform, which of the following would present an unsafe
condition?
22. 1. Low water level in the boiler 2

2. Dark flame color in the boiler
3. Icing on the suction line of the refrigeration system
4. All of the above
Before taking over the watch, the engineer must perform a complete round of the machinery
spaces. Approximately how much time must be devoted to this round?
23. 1. 5 minutes 2
2. 15 minutes
3. 30 minutes
4. 45 minutes
The stack gasses can indicate performance levels of the machinery. Barely visible smoke would be
an indication of ___________.

2. Unburnt fuel
A large pressure difference across the economizer would indicate ___________.
1. Normal operation of the economizer

25. 2
2. High operating load on the main engine
3. The exhaust side of the economizer is dirty or sooted up
4. The air intake side of the economizer is fouled
Positive recognition for job performance is
1. Improper for persons who meet but do not exceed job requirements
26. 2
2. Used to help individual team members feel good about themselves
3. Used by managers to coerce employees to work harder
4. Used only in group settings so as to not cause undue emphasis on a single team member
27. Company’s policies toward safe operations are found in the __________ 2
1. OSHA technical Manual

2. USCG Regulations
3. Total Management System (TMS) manuals
4. Health Safety and Environmental manuals
Good communication skills requires
1. Sending and listening skills

28. 2
2. Clear instructions
3. Timely responses
4. All of the above
One of the most important factors determining the success of an organization is
1. Effective management
29. 2
2. Continuous and positive profits
3. Performance of it’s employees
4. Methods to combat internal personnel stress
Managers should delegate tasks effectively using simple rules including:
1. Do not explain a task as unpleasant, rather tell team members the task is a required
management goal
30. 2
2. Always be stern when assigning tasks. Using humor to assign menial tasks is humiliating to
team members.
3. Never ask that a job be completed as that allows the team member to consider it optional.
4. Use face to face contact when assigning jobs rather than email or phone calls
When making a round of the Cylinder Head Platform, you notice that the jacket cooling and exhaust
temperature of a single unit is higher than the others. The most probable cause is:
31. 1. Cooling water for that cylinder is throttled or blocked 2

2. Fuel injection nozzle for that cylinder is fouled
3. Both A & B
4. Neither A or B
A Marine Superintendent is responsible for
1. Ensuring that all requirements of the ISM Code are adhered to

32. 2
2. Evaluating, revising, and updating the Fleet Personnel Manual
3. Documenting and recording essential requirements of the ISM and STCW codes
4. All of the above
When performing a round of the engine room, why must drum lashings be checked and adjusted as
necessary?
33. 1. During bad weather, drums could fall causing leakage and chemical spills. 2
2. Rolling drums could cause unsafe working conditions.
3. Unsecured drums could damage nearby machinery.
4. All of the above
34. The Shipboard Emergency Response Plan 2
1. Allocated duties and assignments of officers and crew during various emergencies
2. Divides personnel up into specific Emergency Response Teams

3. Dictates specific actions to be taken during emergencies
4. All of the above
Delegating responsibilities to subordinates allows
1. Team leaders to eliminate unwanted tasks

35. 2
2. Provide team members opportunities to increase knowledge and develop
3. Provide low level workers with mundane tasks to keep them occupied
4. All of the above
Verbal communication aimed at taking early corrective actions toward employee performance is an
example of
36. 1. Formal feedback 2

2. Informal feedback
3. Annual assessments
4. Documented feedback
While performing a pre-watch round, you hear a compressor making a chattering noise. You
should:
37. 1. Lower the compressor operating pressure to reduce the noise 2

2. Secure the compressor and inform the duty engineer
3. Open the compressor’s unloading valves until the chattering subsides
4. Drain the air receiver of water
The stack gasses can indicate performance levels of the machinery. White smoke would be an
indication of ___________.

2. Unburnt fuel
On board ship, the head of the Deck Department is the ________
1. Master
39. 2
2. Chief Mate
3. Chief Engineer
4. Chief Steward
Problem solving, improvements in methodology and relationships, and greater productivity are all
signs of
40. 1. Delegation of duties 2

2. Good communication
3. Micromanaging team members
4. Personal satisfaction of team members
Answer Key
1. The deck and the engineering group are divided by hierarchy

2. Cultural discrimination
4. Operations, Manning, Finance, and Chartering
5. Tighten the gland slightly until flow subsides.
6. The Engine Department
7. Notify the 1st engineer of the problem
8. You should also consider that poor performance will almost certainly be economic.
9. Teams are safe and successful groups
10. Training people and human resources
Identify employee strength and weaknesses as well as opportunities for future training and
13.
advancement
One way of achieving the standard approach is to not to have set rules and systems of working but,
14.
deal with poor performance strictly.
15. To maintain high levels of employee motivation
16. Unburnt fuel
18. Stop unsafe practices which may cause accidents, injury, or environmental pollution
20. Distorted
21. Requiring employees to work during religious holidays
22. Low water level in the boiler
23. 30 minutes
25. The exhaust side of the economizer is dirty or sooted up
26. Used to help individual team members feel good about themselves
27. Total Management System (TMS) manuals
29. Performance of it’s employees
30. Use face to face contact when assigning jobs rather than email or phone calls
31. Both A & B
35. Provide team members opportunities to increase knowledge and develop
36. Informal feedback
37. Secure the compressor and inform the duty engineer
38. Water carry over or excess air
39. Master
40. Good communication
Which one of the following is not a physical resource that engineers must manage?
1. Maintenance Tools: Hydraulic Jacks, Machine Tools, Pneumatic Tools, Chain blocks and tackles
1. etc. 2
2. Engine Room Store items
3. Information Material: equipment Manuals, Blueprints, Instructions, Quality and Safety Manuals
4. Information Technology: PMS and other software, Shipboard PCs, ship-shore internet
Workload management planning and coordination

A conventional engineroom watchkeeping schedule contains 4-hour watches day and night as
follows:
0400- 0800/ 1600- 2000 - 2nd Engineer (First Engineer).

0800-1200/ 2000-2400 - 4th Engineer.
1200- 1600/ 2400-0400 - 3rd Engineer.
2. 2
Identify a common denominator among all the above engineers:
1. The engineers have independent watchkeeping certification.

2. They are always assisted by cadets and engine crew during the watch period.
3. They must speak in English during watchkeeping
4. They must pump out bilges during every watch and record that in the logbook
Answer Key
1. Information Technology: PMS and other software, Shipboard PCs, ship-shore internet
2. The engineers have independent watchkeeping certification.
1. People have Not always formed themselves into groups.

2. Groups provide the basis for family living, protection, waging war, government, recreation,
1. work and running ships. 1
3. Why are some groups often more successful than others? Successful groups are those which
become safer and more productive units called teams.
4. A ship where the officers build a group performance into a team performance will certainly be
happier, safer and probably be more productive.
The Shipping company organization: find an incorrect statement _______.
1. In the shipping company, the work has been divided or organized into divisions or departments
where the tasks are common or related.
2. 1
2. The next step is to determine the functions to be carried out by each department.
3. Typically, people will work in groups which have uncommon or independent functions.
4. For example, you are part of the 'sea staff' group as a whole, but you will become part of the
onboard management group consisting of either the Deck or Engineer officers.
Factors influencing the management and organizational structure ashore are _____
1. Industry best practices

3. 2
2. Measures to control costs
3. Compliance with STCW, ISM
4. All of the above
Organization on Shore- They are organized in varying structures with common business goals. The
factors that influence the management and organizational structure are: Identify the most powerful
influence of all the relevant factors that creates the organizational structure ashore ______.
1. Traditional practices/industry best practices

4. 2. Measures to control costs 1
3. Compliance with international and regulatory requirements such as the STCW and ISM code of
the IMO
4. IT enabled MIS (Management Information System)
5. Types of trade and the vessels employed
6. Ownership, ship management and crew management
The Shipping company organization: The shipping industry is a service industry and the work within
a shipping company may be divided into groups as stated below; The work is organized into activities
based on the group functions. Find an error statement ______.
1. Ship Operating Department

5. 1
2. Sales and Marketing Department
3. Finance Department
4. Business Development Department
5. The 'group' for which we work, whether it be a marketing department or ship operation, we are
not part of the organization
Answer Key
1. People have Not always formed themselves into groups.

2. Typically, people will work in groups which have uncommon or independent functions.
3. All of the above
4. Traditional practices/industry best practices
The 'group' for which we work, whether it be a marketing department or ship operation, we are not
5.
part of the organization
Safe shipboard operations must minimize or eliminate __________.
1. Personal injury
1. 2
2. Environmental damages
3. Property damage to the vessel or the cargo
4. All of the above
Shipping companies develop their own policies and procedures based on their objectives and goals.
These goals are typically listed in a document called the _____
2. 1. Engineering Practices Manual 2

2. Health and Safety Procedures
3. Total Management System
4. Facility Operations Guide
Answer Key
1. All of the above

2. Total Management System
What resources engineers have to manage? Identify an error statement, _____________.
1. Bunker Fuel, Diesel Oil and Lube Oil

1. 2. Spare Parts 1
3. Consumables: Paints, Packing, Joints, Adhesives, Cables, Anchor, Grease, Hand tools and
portable measuring instruments
4. Equipment: Safety and Firefighting Equipment
Which one of the following is not a human resource that engineers must manage?
1. Engine Crew
2. 1
2. Cadet Engineer
3. Certified Engineers
4. Ship superintendent
The Regulatory Regimes for workload management; find an error statement, _____________.
1. In managing the shipboard workforce, you must be guided by the Standards of Maritime
Labour Convention, 2006 (MLC)
2. The MLC does not specify work hours for crew stressing but only the crew fatigue or over-
3. worked situation. 1
3. The ISM Code and the Flag State also requires appropriate manning level in terms of quantity
(number of crew) as well as quality (credential and experience).
4. Once you have them on board, it is up to you, as the Chief Engineer to plan and deploy your
staff in a way that keeps them happy, motivated and willing to share their experiences with
each other.
Under Emergency, the ship has an emergency response plan to follow; identify an incorrect
statement, _________.
4. 1. All crew are designated for assembling at Emergency Stations 2

2. All crew are to be guided by responsible officers.
3. For engineroom fire, the watch engineer must evacuate the machinery space
4. Only the Captain can order the total flooding of the engineroom by CO2
Workload management planning and coordination

When operating and maintaining engine room machinery, it is essential for personnel in charge of an
engineering watch to try to find any signs of malfunction that is information from the machinery
using their __________ through engine room rounds.
Pick your answer,
5. 1
1. five senses
2. intuition- sixth sense
3. instrumentation readings
4. system alarms
6. Workload management planning and coordination- Identify one item of observation, that is not 1
detected through machinery rounds that can be useful to prevent accidents.
1. Running sounds
2. Observed leaks
3. Felt vibrations
4. Information from the previous watch engineer
Answer Key
Consumables: Paints, Packing, Joints, Adhesives, Cables, Anchor, Grease, Hand tools and portable
1.
measuring instruments
2. Ship superintendent
The MLC does not specify work hours for crew stressing but only the crew fatigue or over-worked
3.
situation.
4. For engineroom fire, the watch engineer must evacuate the machinery space
5. five senses
6. Information from the previous watch engineer
Planning and coordination; find an incorrect assumption, ____________.
1. For the ship owner, upfront expenses for needing to ensure safe operation of his asset could be
high, in the long run it is admitted that it did make better business sense.
2. For the ship owner, upfront expenses for needing to ensure safe operation of his asset could be
high, appointing highly skilled and competent crew, maybe more expensive, in the long run
1. 1
always make better business sense.
3. A very important tool to utilize for making a professional approach to safe-ship-maintaining
and running, is to practice the exercise of “risk assessment and evaluation” for all important
shipboard activities.
4. The trained shipboard engineer, sub-consciously and perhaps even involuntarily, does this risk
assessment for virtually every activity he does on board.
Answer Key
For the ship owner, upfront expenses for needing to ensure safe operation of his asset could be high,
1. appointing highly skilled and competent crew, maybe more expensive, in the long run always make
better business sense.
The ISM Code – Safety Management System (SMS) requires work procedures which ____________
1. Ensures on-time delivery of goods and services

1. 2
2. Ensures safe performance
3. Ensures efficient performance
4. Ensures economic performance
Answer Key
1. Ensures safe performance
Procedures for mastering the engine room watch include all of the following except:
1. Following your instincts

1. 2
2. Silence nuisance alarms
3. Avoid fatigue
4. Provide clear communication
Answer Key
1. Silence nuisance alarms
Before the seas get rough, it is a good safety practice to
1. make a visual inspection of all engine spaces and secure loose gear
1. 2. move quickly about the ship 2
3. increase all engine space lighting
4. shutdown auxiliary equipment
Answer Key
1. make a visual inspection of all engine spaces and secure loose gear
As the duty engineer for an un-manned machinery space (UMS), when entering the engine room you
should
1. 1. Perform a complete round of the engine room 2

2. Notify the bridge, change watch selector switch and dead man switch
3. Call the 1st engineer to request night orders
4. Fill out the night log book
Answer Key
1. Notify the bridge, change watch selector switch and dead man switch
The four categories of stress are eustress, hypostress, hyperstress, and distress. Eustress is
defined as ____________
1. 1. Positive stress that motivates one to do one’s best 2

2. An insufficient quantum of stress below the threshold necessary for efficient human activity
3. A feeling of being pushed beyond normal capacity
4. Negative stress occurring when a normal routine is dramatically adjusted and altered.
As a stress management tool, being practical requires that you ___________
1. Require consistent perfect results from yourself

2. 2
2. Set realistic goals
3. Recognize flaws in seemingly flawless plans
4. All of the above
Balancing life goals, taking charge of thoughts and emotions, and managing schedules are all
components of ________________.
3. 2
1. Identifying sources of stress
2. Being practical
3. Taking control
4. Coping with stress
Stress is considered to be
1. An imaginary condition
4. 2. A mental and physiological condition 2
3. Is always bad for the human psyche
4. All of the above
A matrix list will provide daily activities based on _______________.
1. Level of importance
5. 2
2. Urgent versus unimportant tasks
3. High, medium, or low status
4. All of the above
A rank list will provide daily activities based on _______________.
6. 2
4. All of the above
7. Relationship stresses are attributable to 2
1. Efforts to change other people’s characteristics

2. Efforts to control other people
3. Both A & B
4. Neither A nor B
As opposed to physical stress, mental stress ___________
1. Is more difficult to control

8. 2
2. Does not usually lead to exhaustion
3. Only effects emotions
4. All of the above
An individual’s reaction to stress ______________
1. Varies between people

9. 2
2. Should be consistent
3. Can only be managed through counseling
4. Must be neutralized in order to successfully complete a task
Nurturing yourself is a positive stress management technique. Components of this include

_______________
10. 1. Exercise, relaxation, and laughing 2

2. Eating healthy, incorporating positive hobbies, and sleeping well
3. Connecting with others, getting fit, and having an outlet
4. All of the above
Inability to carry out job responsibilities can be caused by
1. Work stress
11. 2
2. Personal stress
3. Relationship stress
4. All of the above
The four categories of stress are eustress, hypostress, hyperstress, and distress. Hypostress is
defined as ____________
12. 1. Positive stress that motivates one to do one’s best 2

Insomnia, absenteeism, and anger are all effects of
1. Work stress
13. 2
2. Personal stress
3. Relationship stress
4. All of the above
14. The four categories of stress are eustress, hypostress, hyperstress, and distress. Distress is defined 2
as ____________
1. Positive stress that motivates one to do one’s best

Stress can cause _____________
1. Long term health effects

15. 2
2. Short term health effects
3. Anxieties
4. All of the above
Health, economy, and relationships all have possible _____________ effects on personal stress.
1. Positive
16. 2
2. Negative
3. Both A & B
4. Neither A nor B
A priority table will provide daily activities based on _______________.
17. 2
4. All of the above
A negative attitude, inability to manage time, and low self esteem are all ___________ that can
add to personal stress.
18. 1. Environmental factors 2

2. Emotional factors
3. Community factors
4. Personality factors
Answer Key
1. Positive stress that motivates one to do one’s best

2. Set realistic goals
3. Coping with stress
4. A mental and physiological condition
7. Both A & B
8. Is more difficult to control
9. Varies between people
13. Work stress
16. Both A & B
18. Personality factors
A leader that holds a sway over people and instills confidence and wins complete trust of their
followers is considered a(n) ____________ leader.
1. 1. Charismatic 2
2. Effective
3. Transformational
4. Pragmatic
Which leadership quality describes leaders as practicing what they teach, demand a lot from
subordinates, and inspire others?
2. 1. Humility 2
2. Role Model
3. Lifelong Learner
4. Integrity
Advantages of motivation include
1. Making you do more than necessary

3. 2
2. Making difficult tasks seem easy
3. Making tasks easy to start
4. All of the above
Characteristics of a good leader include
1. Those that demand perfection

4. 2
2. Those that demand excellence
3. Those that expect subordinated to fully understand their jobs
4. Those that are by nature assuming
To become a good leader, one must
1. Take responsibility for failures

5. 2
2. Accept that individuals are unique
3. Give credit for good work
4. All of the above
In order to motivate others effectively, leaders should
1. Provide very specific procedures that are followed

6. 2. Transfer non performing subordinates to areas where they can be less harmful to the 2
organization
3. Provide appropriate negative criticism when subordinates fail to meet goals
4. Trust subordinates to make decisions and take responsibility
7. A leader that boldly faces the realities of business, makes realistic decisions, and delegates 2
responsibilities is considered a(n) ____________ leader.
1. Charismatic
2. Effective
3. Transformational
4. Pragmatic
A leader that acquires the skills through experience, is comfortable with ambiguity, and cares about
people is considered a(n) ____________ leader.
8. 1. Charismatic 2
2. Transformational
3. Pragmatic
4. Effective
Which leadership quality is described by leaders that value other’s opinions but politely disagree as
necessary; convince people over issues through reason and logic; and listen to others with respect?
9. 1. Integrity 2
2. Adaptability
3. Role Model
4. Assertiveness
A leader that focuses on the team to achieve results, provides a well defined vision while clarifying
the importance of the vision is considered a(n) ____________ leader.
10. 1. Charismatic 2
2. Effective
3. Transformational
4. Pragmatic
Which leadership quality describes leaders as knowing their own strengths and weaknesses,
recognize their shortcomings, and willing to accept feedback?
11. 1. Adaptability 2
2. Humility
3. Integrity
4. Role Model
Answer Key
1. Charismatic
2. Role Model
3. All of the above
4. Those that demand excellence
5. All of the above
6. Trust subordinates to make decisions and take responsibility
7. Pragmatic
8. Effective
9. Assertiveness
10. Transformational
11. Adaptability
It is useful to have an idea of different styles of leadership. Each style has its advantages. A few
types of leaders are shown below: select one style that you shall choose when under normal
shipboard operation, ___________.
1. 1
1. Authoritative
2. Democratic (participative)
3. Delegative
4. Charismatic
Answer Key
1. Delegative
Here are some suggestions for becoming a good leader: which one would you rank as the most
important among your personal qualities to be a good leader?
1. Take responsibility for failures.

1. 1
2. Be certain about your objective.
3. Accept that each individual is unique.
4. Be the role model.
5. Learn from your mistakes and those of others.
Leadership Skills and Attributes of a Chief Engineer:

A. Communication Skills: Some argue that this is possibly the most important of all the attributes for
leaders. the ability of the leader to “listen” is rather crucial, even though such listening must be
“active”.
B. Emotional Intelligence: It is the capacity to be aware of, control, and express one’s emotions, and
to handle interpersonal relationships judiciously and empathetically.
C. Team-building skills: For any enterprise to succeed, team-building is a crucial priority. After all,
nothing can be accomplished by an individual, unless he has a team of well-meaning professionals
backing him.
D. Integrity: A leader’s level of integrity is something which is keenly observed by his team-mates.
E. Delegating: Delegating the tasks to the appropriate colleague is a key skill for managers.
2. F. Motivation: Chief Engineers can motivate the team by sharing his past experiences, by his being 2
part of a team and his quest for innovation and learning.
Which of the above skill sets would you rate as Number one ,for the chief engineer, in deck/engine
relationship on board a ship?
1. A and B
2. D and E
3. C and F
4. A and C
Answer Key
1. Be the role model.

2. A and B
Spending most of your time with friends can reduce stress
1. 1
True
False
A healthy diet, adequate sleep, and regular exercise can help you deal with on-the-job stress
2. 1
True
False
An important element in stress reduction is learning to:
1. Fight to make one's view heard at all times

3. 2
3. Avoid confrontation in all situations
Which of the following is not a major factor in controlling stress?
1. Breathing techniques
4. 2. Depression Medications 2
4. Anger Management classes
People who say "no" are engaging in selfish behaviour that leads to internal stress
5. 1
True
False
Answer Key
1. FALSE
2. TRUE
5. FALSE
Importance of Mentoring- find an incorrect statement, ___________.
1. Subordinate Satisfaction - Studies have shown that Subordinates that participate in mentoring
programs have a higher job satisfaction.
2. Higher job satisfaction leads to increased productivity.
1. 1
3. Subordinate Retention - Studies have shown that Subordinates that are mentored do not stay
on the job longer than those that are left to sink or swim.
4. Subordinate Productivity - Subordinates participating in mentoring programs have an effective
mechanism for getting answers quickly, allowing them to move on quickly increasing the
productivity.
Importance of Mentoring- find an incorrect statement, _____________.
1. Career Growth/Grooming - Mentoring programs is not an effective way to provide a career

growth in your subordinates. It takes away the personal initiative.
2. Mentoring is an effective mechanism for grooming subordinates to fill key roles as part of your
2. 2
Company’s plan.
3. Quality - The first step to improved quality is making sure everyone is following your current
internal process or the SOP.
4. The best way to insure consistency is to make sure subordinates are taught the right way in
the first place.
Allocation of Resources- find an incorrect statement, _____________.
1. Allocation and assignment of resources are requirements relating to human and physical
resources.
2. It also includes management of information and record keeping procedures.
3. 3. When entering or leaving ports, establishment of adequate command system and effective 1
machinery operation are necessary to ensure safe navigation and appropriate allocation of
personnel is essential for this purpose.
4. In allocating personnel, allocation of experienced personnel based on the situation and
required training of inexperienced personnel cannot be considered with scarce shipboard
resources
Importance of Mentoring- find an incorrect statement, __________.
1. Synergy - Mentoring gives yourself and your subordinates, both mentor and mentees the
opportunity to be better and more productive than either could be individually.
2. Mentor-mentee teams accomplish more than individual contributors because the highly skilled
4. mentor can focus more effectively on the high skilled areas of his work while offloading the less 1
skill-intensive work to the mentee.
3. The mentee preforms more effectively because he is working within his current range of
expertise and does not get stuck or road blocked trying to handle things outside his skill level.
4. As a member of the team, the mentee only learns how the mentor handles the highly skilled
aspects of the job, but shall not get credit for the successes of the team
5. Importance of Mentoring- find an incorrect statement, ____________. 2
1. Your main job is mentoring, you as a Chief Engineer will bring a lot of value to the table, when
your mentoring is effective.
2. Onboarding -- Speed up the process of bringing on new subordinate and speed up the process
of redeploying existing employees into new jobs. Bring them up to speed quickly and
effectively.
3. Studies have shown that the first few days of a person joining the ship who is new to the ship
type or engine is critical to the overall success of that employee's tenure with the organization.
4. Mentoring provides a key resource to your subordinates during this crucial learning phase.
Importance of Mentoring- find an incorrect statement, _____________.
1. As an added benefit to the mentor, when senior employees mentor others, they hone their own
skills more effectively in the process.
6. 2. With mentoring subordinates who do not understand their jobs and don't know where to go for 1
help become frustrated.
3. Frustration leads to morale problems for the individual subordinate.
4. Mentoring provides an avenue for subordinates to find resources and answers to problems, to
empower subordinates to resolve their problems by themselves.
Allocation of Resources- find an incorrect statement, _____________.
1. The ER duties are allocated by watchkeeping hours and normally a certified engineer will be
accompanied by cadet engineers and a oiler or engine crew
2. For the UMS class ships, the engineering department works through the day by undertaking
maintenance work and the night duties are transferred to duty engineers' cabins.
7.
3. For the Physical resources, the PMS system cannot always be used to order/reorder 2
consumables and spare parts and also schedule and track surveys to be done.
4. The allocation of human resources will depend on the type of work to be undertaken. For
example, when an auxiliary engine is under overhauling schedule, that might be under the
responsibility of the 3rd Engineer assisted by the 4th and the 5th Engineer together with the
Ship's Fitter and perhaps an Oiler.
Allocation of Resources- find an incorrect statement, ___________.
1. Personnel Assignment: Each crew is not assigned a duty as per the SOP and the QMS of the
ship.
8. 2. The work allocation provides the duty as well as the rest period. 1
3. There is also provision for contingency arrangement and personnel job assignments, like under
emergency station position and duty to start the Lifeboat engine etc.
4. However, under emergency breakdown situation, it is the duty of the senior engineer to divide
the engineers into work teams for prolonged period of work
Answer Key
Subordinate Retention - Studies have shown that Subordinates that are mentored do not stay on the
1.
job longer than those that are left to sink or swim.
Career Growth/Grooming - Mentoring programs is not an effective way to provide a career growth in
2.
your subordinates. It takes away the personal initiative.
In allocating personnel, allocation of experienced personnel based on the situation and required
3.
training of inexperienced personnel cannot be considered with scarce shipboard resources
As a member of the team, the mentee only learns how the mentor handles the highly skilled aspects of
4.
the job, but shall not get credit for the successes of the team
Your main job is mentoring, you as a Chief Engineer will bring a lot of value to the table, when your
5.
mentoring is effective.
With mentoring subordinates who do not understand their jobs and don't know where to go for help
6.
become frustrated.
For the Physical resources, the PMS system cannot always be used to order/reorder consumables and
7.
spare parts and also schedule and track surveys to be done.
8. Personnel Assignment: Each crew is not assigned a duty as per the SOP and the QMS of the ship.
Allocation and assignment of resources can be said that they are requirements relating to the
following, except one, identify that:
1. 1. Human resources 1
2. Physical resources
3. Preserving the intellectual property for ownership
4. Management of information and record keeping procedures.
One of the oldest workplace struggles is knowing how to prioritize your work. Find an incorrect
statement, ____________.
1. With more tasks to do, non-stop emails, and higher expectations, deciding what deserves
your attention can quickly become overwhelming.
2. mastering prioritization can change your life.
2. 3. Knowing your priorities reduces stress, helps you focus and can improve productivity and 1
time management, and even help with work-life balance as you create better boundaries for
your workday.
4. Prioritization is usually set up in operating/handling machinery.
5. When personnel carry out the assignment in various situations, they need to work on the
tasks giving consideration and decision-making to prioritization in all cases, without
exception.
Time and Resource Constraints; find an incorrect answer ___________.
1. Hierarchical Disputes: Differences of opinion and thoughts also arise in vessels when there
are conflicts between higher and lower hierarchical work personnel aboard a vessel.
2. Hierarchical Disputes: Such disputes could either be a matter of simple disagreement of
thoughts between two people or they could be more severe, threatening the work relationship
3. 1
irrevocably.
3. Miscommunication: Lapse of communication is a major problem that could affect working
relationship between the seafarers, especially in the times of crises.
4. Miscommunication could not be an inducer for more causation of conflict like unnecessary
envying and rivalry between seafarers aboard the vessel. This could lead to discord and
severe problems affecting the positive viability of the maritime operation on ships.
One of the oldest workplace struggles is knowing how to prioritize your work. Find an incorrect
statement, ___________.
1. In prioritization, take into account its safeness, urgency and adequacy.

2. if you are in a busy navigating channel. many times, more than one thing cannot go wrong at
4. 2
the same time, you have to decide on the safety, urgency and adequacy aspect.
3. you find that the day tank is getting delayed in filling up and suspect that the settling tank
level may have gone down thus the purifier is not getting the correct suction head
4. instead of checking on the tank level sounding, which may require you to go on to the deck
etc., you may changeover the settling tank to restore clean fuel flow to the day tank first
5. Time and Resource Constraints; find an incorrect answer ___________. 2
1. Reparation of Differences of Opinion: Since verbal communication channels get strained on

account of the conflicting and discord on the vessel, the primary duty of the chief engineer or
captain is not to try the verbal communication to reason out the conflicts.
2. It’s in such scenarios that the ship’s captain and alongside him, all other senior-level mariners
become most important tools to adjudicate the matter responsibly without any bias or
partisanship.
3. Since the atmosphere on ships can be constraining at times, it becomes the obligation of
these senior officials to ensure that all communication channels between each and every
seafarer are without lapses and even if, minor differences of opinion crop up, they are sorted
out before they further escalate.
4. In case of disputes threatening to arise on account of operational prioritizing, various
management principles like MBO (Management by Objective) can be employed to diffuse the
situation with utmost success.
One of the oldest workplace struggles is knowing how to prioritize your work. Which one of these
will attract your most serious attention in order of priority?
1. While taking over watch, you find the stern tube oil tank level is lower than normal
6. 2. One of the main engine exhaust temperature is showing higher reading, but no alarm 1
indication at the control room
3. The auxiliary boiler is failing to flash up and has locked down after 3 attempts of lighting the
burner flame.
4. The fuel oil purifier will need to be secured soon, since the tank level is almost full
Time and Resource Constraints; find an incorrect answer _____________.
1. A project management approach following PDCA principle will not go a long way to improve
shipboard competency. Differences of opinion or conflicts between seafarers on ships may
arise because of various reasons.
2. Constraints of Work Environment: Undertaking a maritime commissioning requires individuals
to spend longer months away from home and other acclimatized surroundings.
3. At times, this could cause severe debilitating scenarios when professionals feel the strain of
7. 1
being restricted to the work environment, getting to them. Such type of working environment
leads to frustration and stress, resulting in conflicts between seafarers.
4. Long working hours, unfriendly working environment, and limited resources are a part of
working on ships. At such situations, any minor verbal discord can result into a major
conflicting confrontation needing to be settled at the earliest.
5. Work pressure induced conflicts can stem in case multiple operations are required to be
carried out at the same time and there is a distinct lack of enough working personnel to carry
out all the operations efficiently.
Time and Resource Constraints; find an incorrect answer __________.
1. The key to managing the constraints and ultimately having a successful project is
TRANSPARENCY.
2. Even if you know where the project can and can’t bend, it will not help you make the right
8. decisions and deliver a successful end product. 2
3. If there is a decision that needs to be made, understanding the specific project constraints
and how they affect the project is what will drive you to make the decisions that are right for
the product.
4. This means every member of the project team and all stakeholders should be kept informed,
priorities should be set, and everybody should fully understand the project objectives.
9. Time and Resource Constraints; find an incorrect answer, ___________. 1
1. There are three constraints faced in every shipboard work that can be considered as a
project: Scope, Time, and Cost.
2. These are often characterized in the Project Management Triangle.

3. As an example, dry-docking of a ship will be an important project which will be affected if the
project scope or the dry-docking defect list and its specification changes.
4. However, it will be for the Chief Engineer and the Master to fix the drydocking defect list and
make sure the timeline and schedules are followed.
5. A contingency plan should not be required for anticipated or unexpected expansion of scope:
as it can never be planned within a particular budget.
Time and Resource Constraints; find an incorrect answer,
10. 2
Select one item in the above triangle, that is not going to enhance the project quality and not be
part of the triangle,
1. People
2. Time
3. Cost
4. Scope
5. Quality
One of the oldest workplace struggles is knowing how to prioritize your work. Which one of these
will attract your most serious attention in order of priority?
1. Delegating starts with finding the right person and explaining the task properly.
2. It also involves giving that person enough time and guidance to fully get the task off your
11. plate (and your mind). 2
3. If you have a task that takes 5 minutes to complete, you should budget 150 minutes to
delegate and train someone new on it.
4. Despite our best efforts, you end up with a massive list of urgent and important tasks we
need to get done. When on board, do not think of a task that will affect ship operation
immediately, but may affect efficiency, e.g., fuel consumption.
12. Time and Resource Constraints; find an incorrect answer _____________. 1
1. Each project is different and they each have their own special blend of constraints
2. If the scope cannot change then either the cost will or the timeline
3. If the timeline can’t change then either the scope will or the cost
4. If the cost can’t change then either the scope will or the timeline
5. Strong project managers can remove the Project constraints
You are a watchkeeping engineer. The engine department has a goal to keep the ship's power plant
run efficiently without any downtime. Part of this is accomplished by standing watch and monitoring
all the running machinery and arrest any fault from progressing further. During your watch, the
Bilge pump lost its suction and bilge water is accumulating. And, while part of your goal is to keep
all machinery functioning uninterrupted, under this scenario, what sequence of action would you
take to do the corrective task?
13. A Investigate the reason for lost suction by the Bilge pump; 1
B Repair the bilge pump;
C Start pumping out bilges using GS pump;
D Monitor bilge water level.
1. ABCD
2. CDAB
3. BCDA
4. CABD
Time and Resource Constraints; find an incorrect answer __________.
1. Today’s ships run on very tight schedule and budget. The financial pressure on the ship
owners, charterers and the ship managers are very high. Many works are undertaken by the
ship’s crew instead of shore workshops
2. The shipping companies demand very strict timeline to keep the cost elements down:
obviously this creates enormous strain on the crew and the work onboard is affected by
14. overstretching the human resource (working beyond the usual duty hours) 1
3. Not providing adequate shore support in effort to reduce cost: the immediate effect on the
project will be: unhappy and tired crew plus deterioration of work performance; leading to
shift in quality expectation on the work, that could lead to failure and accidents. Ultimately
increasing the cost burden to the company.
4. If the ship’s crew are not entrusted with a carefully planned scheme of work with adequate
contingency planning, and there is no element of positive attitude and team spirit on board,
that will lead to more efficient execution of project.
Answer Key
1. Preserving the intellectual property for ownership

When personnel carry out the assignment in various situations, they need to work on the tasks giving
2.
consideration and decision-making to prioritization in all cases, without exception.
Miscommunication could not be an inducer for more causation of conflict like unnecessary envying
3. and rivalry between seafarers aboard the vessel. This could lead to discord and severe problems
affecting the positive viability of the maritime operation on ships.
if you are in a busy navigating channel. many times, more than one thing cannot go wrong at the
4.
same time, you have to decide on the safety, urgency and adequacy aspect.
Reparation of Differences of Opinion: Since verbal communication channels get strained on account of
5. the conflicting and discord on the vessel, the primary duty of the chief engineer or captain is not to
try the verbal communication to reason out the conflicts.
One of the main engine exhaust temperature is showing higher reading, but no alarm indication at
6.
the control room
A project management approach following PDCA principle will not go a long way to improve shipboard
7. competency. Differences of opinion or conflicts between seafarers on ships may arise because of
various reasons.
Even if you know where the project can and can’t bend, it will not help you make the right decisions
8.
and deliver a successful end product.
A contingency plan should not be required for anticipated or unexpected expansion of scope: as it can
9.
never be planned within a particular budget.
10. People
Despite our best efforts, you end up with a massive list of urgent and important tasks we need to get
11. done. When on board, do not think of a task that will affect ship operation immediately, but may
affect efficiency, e.g., fuel consumption.
12. Strong project managers can remove the Project constraints
13. CDAB
If the ship’s crew are not entrusted with a carefully planned scheme of work with adequate
14. contingency planning, and there is no element of positive attitude and team spirit on board, that will
lead to more efficient execution of project.
MLC- Minimum hours of rest for watch personnel; find an error, ______________.
1. The minimum number of hours of rest for ratings and officers assigned to the shipboard duties is 10
hours in any 24-hour period.
1. 2. The 24-hour period is calculated from the time the watchkeeper’s duty starts and start from 00:00 1
hours.
3. The 10-hour rest period may be divided into no more than two periods, one of which must be at
least six hours long and no period less than one hour.
4. The rest period in any seven-day period must not be less than 77 hours.
The engineroom resource management has the following correlation diagram; these are based on the
following international convention and codes; identify one that is not part of the ERM elements.
2. 1
1. SOLAS Convention
2. Standards of Maritime Labour Convention, 2006 (MLC),
3. International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers
(STCW)
4. International Safety Management Code (ISM)
3. ISM code is all about company’s responsibilities. For a well-managed shipping company, identify the most 2
important ISM code requirement on board for the crew for ensuring ship safety:
1. The company needs to provide the instructions to the ship in form of SMS manual that defines the
roles and responsibilities of the crew members including the master, chief engineer etc.
2. The company needs to provide all the support (human, material information) a ship may need for
running the ship safely.
3. The company should ensure the ship is correctly manned with qualified, certificated and medically
fit seafarers who are properly familiarized with their duties.
4. The crew must properly understand the SMS to the level of their duties and are professionally
trained for its implementation.
5. The ship’s personnel must be able to communicate effectively in their duties.
ISM code is all about company’s responsibilities. For a well- skilled and competent crew, identify the most
important ISM code requirement on board from the following:
1. The company needs to provide the instructions to the ship in form of SMS manual that defines the
roles and responsibilities of the crew members including the master, chief engineer etc.
2. The company needs to provide all the support (human, material information) a ship may need for
4. running the ship safely. 1
3. The company should ensure the ship is correctly manned with qualified, certificated and medically
fit seafarers who are properly familiarized with their duties.
4. The company should ensure that the crew properly understand the SMS to the level of their duties
and are professionally trained for its implementation.
5. The company should also ensure that the ship’s personnel are able to communicate effectively in
their duties.
MLC- Minimum hours of rest for watch personnel; find an error, ____________.
5. 2. The 24-hour period is calculated from the time the watchkeeper’s duty starts, and not from 00:00 2
hours.
3. The 10-hour rest period may be divided into no more than three periods, one of which must be at
MLC- Minimum hours of rest for watch personnel; find an error, ___________.
6. 2. The 10-hour rest period may be divided into no more than two periods, one of which must be at 2
4. The minimum rest period is not obligatory in the case of emergencies, drills or overriding
operational conditions.
MLC- Minimum hours of rest for watch personnel; find an error, ___________.
7. 1
3. There are no exceptions from the MLC rule.
4. This does not mean that the other 14 hours should be spent on duty.
8. According to STCW Convention with 2010 Manila Amendments the following statements are made; 2
identify one that is not true.
1. Engine crew must receive training in accordance with STCW sections A-III/1 for watch keeping
engineer officers
2. STCW Section A-III/2 is for chief engineer officers and combines training on technical management,
legislative compliance and crew management, leadership and teamwork.
3. The revised convention (2010) has introduced bridge resource management and engine resource
management requirements for chief engineer officers and leadership and management skills within
their certification of competence.
4. The revised convention (2010) has introduced bridge resource management and engine resource
management requirements for senior officers and leadership and management skills within their
certification of competence.
Answer Key
1. The 24-hour period is calculated from the time the watchkeeper’s duty starts and start from 00:00 hours.
2. SOLAS Convention
The crew must properly understand the SMS to the level of their duties and are professionally trained for
3.
its implementation.
The company needs to provide all the support (human, material information) a ship may need for running
4.
the ship safely.
The 10-hour rest period may be divided into no more than three periods, one of which must be at least six
5.
hours long and no period less than one hour.
The minimum number of hours of rest for ratings and officers assigned to the shipboard duties is 12 hours
7.
in any 24-hour period.
The revised convention (2010) has introduced bridge resource management and engine resource
8. management requirements for chief engineer officers and leadership and management skills within their
certification of competence.
Oil consumption can be recorded based on the ship activity and ship state.
1. True 1
False
Oil consumption for an oil can be entered for each component separately.
2. True 1
False
While recording a class survey, a COC can be raised for that survey.
3. True 1
False
The manuals and pictures added for the components can be viewed while completing the
maintenance for that component.
4. 1
True
False
User can view last done date while completing the PMS job.
5. True 1
False
Planned jobs cannot be postponed.
6. True 1
False
Running hours entered for a component will not get copied to run hour based sub-components.
7. True 1
False
User can complete multiple maintenances in one time only.
8. True 1
False
Running hours should be entered either by run hour method or by counter based method for a
component.
9. 1
True
False
User can record the consumptions of parts, stores and oils during the maintenance completion.
10. True 1
False
A working component can be replaced with only spare component.
11. True 1
False
12. Maintenance can be classified as Critical or Survey based or closed while planning.

1
True
False
Similar to maintenance jobs, safety alarms testing and caliberation of components can be
postponed.
13. 1
True
False
The user can report the unscheduled jobs completed onboard.
14. True 1
False
When the PMS jobs are planned in office, the job will be displayed in ship.
15. True 1
False
Safety alarms are linked to component structure.
16. True 1
False
Job card prepared for a user includes the job assigned to other users also.
17. True 1
False
PMS jobs will be displayed for all the users.
18. True 1
False
PMS jobs can be planned by Ship staff on board ship.
19. 1
True
False
Initial running hour can be entered for components which are not run hour based.
20. True 1
False
Answer Key
1. TRUE
2. TRUE
3. TRUE
4. TRUE
5. TRUE
6. FALSE
7. FALSE
8. TRUE
9. TRUE
10. TRUE
11. TRUE
12. TRUE
13. TRUE
14. TRUE
15. FALSE
16. TRUE
17. TRUE
18. FALSE
19. FALSE
20. FALSE
Identify one statement on communication that you do not agree with, ____________.
1. Communication becomes effective when the receiver understands and reacts to the message in
the same way it is intended by the sender.
1. 2. Communication is a two-way process involving exchange of ideas. It is a skill that you acquire 1
through practice.
3. Communication is not happening when the receiver understands and reacts to the message in
a different way it is intended by the sender.
4. Verbal communication requires understanding of a common language
Answer Key
Communication is not happening when the receiver understands and reacts to the message in a
1.
different way it is intended by the sender.
For an engine overhaul, involving piston movement which one of the following communications will
be most vital?
1. Inform the Bridge (Watch Keeping Officer) when tool box talk is complete to obtain ‘propeller
clearance’ and permit to work
1. 2. Inform the Captain for ‘ship immobilization’ which may have to be obtained from Port 2
authority well in advance, when the main engine maintenance work is in progress.
3. Responsible member of the team should be assigned at the top platform, Crankcase level of
the Main engine and at the Scavenge space level of the unit.
4. Clear and unambiguous instruction should be explained for nonverbal communication e.g.,
hand signals, while lifting or lowering the piston by overhead crane.
Internal Communication: which one of the statement is an example of miscommunication?
1. As a marine engineer you are required to hand-over and takeover watches from another set
of crew. Clear Communication and feedback are important during this process.
2. There is normally a checklist under the company SOP and ISM Code requirement; but if you
are doing this routinely, you should not depend on a checklist
2. 1
3. Develop a safety mind-set, where you have to learn to be vigilant with a “what-if” attitude.
4. For example, if a pump overhaul is half-way complete and parts are scattered on a gunnysack
in one area of the machinery space, you have to scrutinize the situation and make sure that
nothing will be disturbed and it is safe to walk around and tagged with a safety sign.
5. Often times the relieving party forget to brief the takeover engineer properly- that is
irresponsible.
Communication can take place in many forms: Identify one that is part of non-verbal
communication, ____________.
3. 1. Verbal 2
2. Written
3. Body Language
4. Hand Movements
Internal Communication: which one of the statement is not an example of miscommunication?
1. There is normally a checklist under the company SOP and ISM Code requirement; but if you
are doing this routinely, you should not depend on a checklist
2. While alongside and testing an overboard pipeline valve, engineers must consult the Deck
4. 2
Officer on duty and seek his written permission that it is safe before undertaking the work.
3. Often time, people on wharf has been hurt due to this simple lapse of communication
between the engineer and the deck officer.
4. The same applies for rotating the propeller or even giving an air-kick of the engine at the
wharf or the anchorage, for example.
5. Communication can be distorted by all kinds of interference usually called 'noise'. Noise can take so 1
many forms: find an incorrect statement, _________.
1. Noise from other people, in the room

2. Distractions between the sender and receiver such as: sharing a common language or culture
3. The message is distorted between sender and receiver - the communication lines may be too
long
4. The message is distorted between sender and receiver - The message is not passed on or,
incomplete
Statements on Effective Communication. Find one that is not part of verbal communication,
___________.
1. Standard Marine Communication Phrases are known as SMPC

6. 2. SMPC includes Visual signals: The use of flags, signs, symbols, hand signals and gestures 2
3. SMPC is a comprehensive standardized safety language, covering all major safety-related
verbal communication
4. SMPC include phrases to cover the more important safety-related fields of verbal shore-to-
ship, ship-to-shore, ship-to-ship and on-board communications.
Focusing on two-way communication is the key to increasing safety on the vessel. From Statements
on Effective Communication, find one that you do not agree with, ___________.
1. Before commencing work on a main engine overhaul a “tool box talk” is carried out by the
Senior Engineer with all to discuss the job in hand, the basic procedure and who is doing
what.
7. 1
2. Restate the golden rule that all must comply with safety procedures and everyone has your
full support to intervene at any time.
3. Never discuss what could go wrong; but identify what are the hazards; what can we put in
place to reduce/eliminate all risks.
4. Provision of adequate PPE for all which should be fit for use and compatible for the risks
envisaged, to be ensured.
Statements on Effective Communication. Find one that you do not agree with, ___________.
1. The successful transmission of information through a common system of symbols, signs,

behavior, speech, writing, or signals, by physical, mechanical or electronic means.
2. For communication to be ‘effective’, the adjective indicates whether the meaning of the
8. 1
spoken or written word has caused the expected reaction, result or effect.
3. In the seagoing context, where English is a first language, there should be no problem in
communication
4. Where English is a ‘Foreign’ or ‘Second’ language, the subtle adjective, ‘effective’ may be
understood as meaning ‘strong’ or ‘emphatic’, and means ‘complete understanding’.
Interpersonal Communication: find an error statement _____________.
1. Interpersonal communication is the process that helps us express our feelings, ideas and
thoughts, and share them with the people around us.
2. Interpersonal communication is the face-to-face interaction between two or more individuals
9. 2
in which both are sending and receiving messages.
3. In interpersonal communication, only few individuals are involved, who are not in close
proximity to each other.
4. Interpersonal communication skills play an important role in the success of our private and
professional lives.
10. Which one of the below statements will be least likely to cause communication problems on board a 2
modern well-equipped vessel?
1. Common causes of communication problems include time pressure, workload, distractions,

insufficient training or experience, language difficulties
2. Causes of communication problems include the standard and provision of communications

equipment.
3. Shift handovers can pose problems and can be rushed due to time pressures to start/finish
work. Critical tasks may be handed from one shift to another without proper briefing of the
oncoming crew
4. IMO reports of casualties and accidents found that Communication difficulties often occur due
in part to cultural differences but also due to language ‘barriers’.
be most vital to avoid an accident external to the ship?
1. The duty deck officer has confirmed that the propeller is clear.
2. Before anyone is allowed to enter or work in the main engine crankcase , the engine-starting
11. system must be in local control and fully isolated with starting air drains opened to 1
atmosphere.
3. Turning gear should be engaged and a warning notice posted at the start position and turning
gear local control.
4. Before the main engine turning gear is used, a check should be made to ensure that all
seafarers are clear of the crankcase and any moving part of the main engine
What does SMPC in communication for ships stand for?
1. Standard Marine Communication Phrases

12. 1
2. Shipboard Marine Communication Protocols
3. Standard Marine Communication Protocols
4. Shipboard Maritime Communication Phrases
Focusing on two-way communication is the key to increasing safety on the vessel. From Statements
on Effective Communication, find one that you do not agree with, __________.
1. Effective communication on board a vessel also relies on crew members being good listeners.
13. 2. They must be attentive in order to receive and decipher the complete message, as well as 2
make the speaker feel heard and understood.
3. If the audience is not focused on the speaker, only part of the message is received, resulting
in frustration and hostility in both parties.
4. You cannot ensure that everyone has understood what you instructed
be most vital to avoid crankcase accidents for the working crew?
1. The opened crankcase or gear case should be well ventilated to expel all flammable gases
before any source of ignition, such as a portable lamp (unless of an approved safety type), is
brought near to it.
14. 2. If walkie-talkies are used they must be checked for efficient working. 1
3. The Company’s risk assessment procedure to be implemented to identify where the crew will
be working while lifting or lowering the Piston into the liner, and evaluate any risks from
inappropriate handling.
4. Appropriate measures should be taken to remove, control or minimize the risk. It is essential
before commencement of work the manufacturer’s safety data sheet (SDS) is referred to, to
select appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) and working methods.
15. Focusing on two-way communication is the key to increasing safety on the vessel. From Statements 1
on Effective Communication, find one that you do not agree with, __________.
1. Use standard, known, and agreed upon phrases to simplify the process and reduce the
chances of confusion
2. If feedback is not received or the feedback is not relevant to the expected response, then the
message must be repeated.
3. You may have to enhance the message using lesser volume and gestures. Remember that
you are in a noisy environment and it can be difficult to hear.
4. Try to make eye or physical contact during the communication process. This will improve
awareness and effectiveness of the message.
Statements on Effective Communication. Find one that you do not agree with, __________.
1. In face-to-face on-board communication, when instructions are given to a non-English

speaking crew member, the response may be an agreeable facial expression, or nod indicating
understanding, even a polite “yes sir”.
2. Where English is a ‘Foreign’ or ‘Second’ language, the subtle adjective, ‘effective’ may be
understood as meaning ‘strong’ or ‘emphatic’, but shall never mean ‘complete
16. 2
understanding’.
3. In face-to-face on-board communication, when instructions are given to a non-English
speaking crew member, should the instructions given is not carried out properly, ‘effective’
communication is unlikely to have taken place.
4. Training programs, safety committees, reporting systems, 'no blame culture', regular
meetings on board and seminars ashore, free e-mail access and telephones - all contributes
to effective ship communication.
Answer Key
Clear and unambiguous instruction should be explained for nonverbal communication e.g., hand
1.
signals, while lifting or lowering the piston by overhead crane.
2. Often times the relieving party forget to brief the takeover engineer properly- that is irresponsible.
3. Body Language
There is normally a checklist under the company SOP and ISM Code requirement; but if you are doing
4.
this routinely, you should not depend on a checklist
5. Distractions between the sender and receiver such as: sharing a common language or culture
6. SMPC includes Visual signals: The use of flags, signs, symbols, hand signals and gestures
Never discuss what could go wrong; but identify what are the hazards; what can we put in place to
7.
reduce/eliminate all risks.
In the seagoing context, where English is a first language, there should be no problem in
8.
communication
In interpersonal communication, only few individuals are involved, who are not in close proximity to
9.
each other.
10. Causes of communication problems include the standard and provision of communications equipment.
11. The duty deck officer has confirmed that the propeller is clear.
12. Standard Marine Communication Phrases
13. You cannot ensure that everyone has understood what you instructed
The opened crankcase or gear case should be well ventilated to expel all flammable gases before any
14.
source of ignition, such as a portable lamp (unless of an approved safety type), is brought near to it.
You may have to enhance the message using lesser volume and gestures. Remember that you are in
15.
a noisy environment and it can be difficult to hear.
Where English is a ‘Foreign’ or ‘Second’ language, the subtle adjective, ‘effective’ may be understood
16.
as meaning ‘strong’ or ‘emphatic’, but shall never mean ‘complete understanding’.
Statements on Assertiveness : find an incorrect answer, __________.
1. Assertiveness comes naturally to some but is a skill that cannot be acquired.

1. 2. Assertiveness is standing up for your right to be treated fairly. 1
3. It is expressing your opinions, needs and feelings without hurting others.
4. Many people often keep their opinions to themselves. But people may take advantage of this
behavior.
Major roadblocks to assertive behavior. Identify one that you do not agree with, ____________.
1. Wrong notion that being assertive can be cold and uncaring

2. 2. One might wrongly understand that being assertive is rather unfriendly and cruel and hence 2
prefer not being assertive
3. Do not Believe in intimidation as the only way to get what you want
4. For the sake of certain small personal gains one might become aggressive and arrogant
Statements on Assertiveness: find an incorrect answer, ____________.
1. Assertiveness is standing up for other people’s right to be treated fairly.

3. 2
2. Interpersonal conflicts reduce due to assertiveness.
3. Assertiveness is upholding one’s own integrity and dignity.
4. It also means encouraging and recognizing this behavior in others.
Statements on Assertiveness: benefits of being assertive. find an incorrect answer, __________.
1. Develop proactive behavior within you

4. 2. Aggressiveness and assertiveness are interchangeable 1
3. Assertiveness Increase in confidence levels
4. Assertiveness Reduces interpersonal conflicts
5. Assertiveness Helps in people management
Strategies for enhancing assertiveness. Identify one that you do not agree with, ___________.
1. Insist that your rights be respected

5. 2. Give others a chance to speak, hear them out 2
3. Respect others' opinions, even if that differs from your own views
4. Choose aggressive language without meaning to be aggressive
5. Avoid bullying and demanding behavior
Strategies for enhancing assertiveness. Identify one that you do not agree with, __________.
1. Stand up for your opinions

6. 2. Question rules or traditions 2
3. Do not hesitate to make requests
4. Refuse requests if they are unreasonable
5. Accept both compliments and adverse feedback
7. Major roadblocks to assertive behavior. Identify one that you do not agree with, _____________. 1
1. Fear of change for selfish reasons

2. Refusal to admit submissiveness

3. Feeling shy of one's inferior position - one might hide it by being arrogant
4. Having confidence in one's ability
5. One who is always diffident that he cannot do things properly
Answer Key
1. Assertiveness comes naturally to some but is a skill that cannot be acquired.

2. Do not Believe in intimidation as the only way to get what you want
3. Assertiveness is standing up for other people’s right to be treated fairly.
4. Aggressiveness and assertiveness are interchangeable
5. Choose aggressive language without meaning to be aggressive
6. Question rules or traditions
7. Having confidence in one's ability
Expressing your opinions, needs and feelings without hurting others is
1. Assertiveness
2. Aggressiveness
1. 2

3. Passive behaviour
Assertiveness is upholding one's own integrity and dignity
2. 1
True
False
Interpersonal conflicts reduce due to
1. Aggressive behaviour
3. 2. Assertiveness 2
3. Positive attitude
Answer Key
1. Assertiveness
2. TRUE
3. Assertiveness
Heightened self image goes down due to assertiveness
1. True 1
False
Assertiveness helps in people management
2. True 1
False
You can understand and assert your rights if you are assertive
3. True 1
False
Assertiveness develops proactive behaviour within you
4. True 1
False
Your confidence decreases due to assertiveness
5. True 1
False
Answer Key
1. FALSE
2. TRUE
3. TRUE
4. FALSE
5. FALSE
Being assertive can be unfriendly and cruel
1. True 1
False
Being assertive will help you to be aggressive
2. True 1
False
Being assertive can be cold and uncaring
3. 1
True
False
assertiveness and aggressiveness are one and the same
4. True 1
False
Fear of change is
1. is a pathway to assertive behaviour

5. 2. a roadblock to assertive behaviour 2
3. a positive emotion you receive out of assertiveness
4. good as it helps you to improve your confidence level
intimidation as the only way to get what you want.
6. True 1
False
Refusal to admit submissiveness is one of the roadblocks to assertive behaviour
7. True 1
False
Answer Key
1. FALSE
2. FALSE
3. FALSE
4. FALSE
5. a roadblock to assertive behaviour
6. FALSE
7. TRUE
Tensions are kept in a normal, constructive, and situationally appropriate range if you are aggressive.
1. True 1
False
Use of statements that are ------,--------, ----

----, or ----------- is aggressiveness
2. 1. loving,caring or understanding others 2

2. humble,kind or respect for others
3. confrontational,abusive,ridiculing or hostile
People responding assertively are ------- of their feelings
1. dependent
3. 2. aware 2
3. unaware
Aggressive individuals ------------the needs of others in satisfying their own needs
1. look into
4. 2. care for 2
3. regard
4. disregard
Assertive people feel empowered to speak honest and respectful.
5. True 1
False
Assertive people feel empowered to speak honest and respectful.
6. True 1
False
Tensions are kept in a normal, constructive, and situationally appropriate range if you are aggressive.
7. True 1
False
Answer Key
1. FALSE
2. confrontational,abusive,ridiculing or hostile
3. aware
4. disregard
5. TRUE
6. TRUE
7. FALSE
Refusing requests if they are unreasonable belongs to-------------
1. Assertiveness
1. 2. Unassertiveness 2
3. Aggressiveness
Aggressive people accept both compliments and feedback
2. True 1
False
Making requests and asking for favor is-------------------------
1. Aggressiveness
3. 2. Assertiveness 2
3. Unassertiveness
“I would like a chance to say something” is
1. assertive language pattern

4. 2. aggressive language pattern 2
3. passive language pattern
Giving others a chance to speak is
1. Aggressive behaviour
5. 2. Assertive behaviour 2
3. Unassertive behaviour
Aggressive people are always diplomatic
6. True 1
False
If a person has bullying and demanding behaviour he/she is
1. Assertive
7. 2. Aggressive 2
3. Passive
“You are always interrupting” is a
1. Passive language pattern

8. 2. Assertive language pattern 2
3. Aggressive language pattern
Answer Key
1. Assertiveness
2. FALSE
3. Assertiveness
4. assertive language pattern
5. Assertive behaviour
6. FALSE
7. Aggressive
8. Aggressive language pattern
Your body language is nothing but a reflection of your mind's internal representation.
1. True 1
False
If a person gives a loose handshake it means that he/she is
1. assertive
2. 2. aggressive 2
3. Passive
Your body language is nothing but a reflection of your mind's internal representation.
3. True 1
False
If a person gives a tight handshake it means he/she is
1. assertive
4. 2. aggressive 2
3. passive
Legs which are held apart when standing signals
1. depressed
5. 2. over confidence 2
3. power and confidence
4. sad
If a person gives a firm handshake it means that he/she is
1. assertive
6. 2. aggressive 2
3. emotional
4. passive
Eyebrows up with straight eyes without smile displays
7. 2. assertiveness 2
3. aggressiveness
Smiling with straight eyes displays
1. confidence and positive attitude

8. 2. negative attitude 2
3. split personality
9. If a person has a gesture of hands inside pockets and legs together it means he/she is
2
1. assertive
2. aggressive
3. emotional
4. Passive
Standing with hands on hips can mean
1. assertiveness
10. 2. aggression 2
3. power
Sitting straight with direct eye contact and head slightly tilted can mean
1. angry
11. 2. confidence 2
3. depressed
4. frustrated
Sitting posture with heads down can mean
1. confidence
12. 2. courageous 2
3. depression
4. potential
Sitting posture with legs crossed can mean
1. polite
13. 2. casual 2
3. dominating
4. furious
Answer Key
1. TRUE
2. Passive
3. TRUE
4. aggressive
5. power and confidence
6. assertive
7. aggressiveness
8. confidence and positive attitude
9. Passive
10. aggression
11. confidence
12. depression
13. dominating
Salient characteristics of assertive communication are the following: identify one that you do not
agree with, ___________.
1. 1. Empathy/validation statement 1
2. Statement of a problem
3. Statement of what you don’t want
4. Statement of what you want
Salient characteristics of assertive communication are the following: identify one that you do not
agree with, ___________.
1. Empathy/validation statement: Understanding other person's feelings from his point of view is
empathy.
2. 2. Statement of a problem: This is a straightforward way of stating the problem without mincing 2
words. The statement is objective and intends to communicate his views clearly.
3. Statement of what you want: This is never to be mentioned as a specific request for a change
in the person's behavior.
4. Statement of what you want: This is a specific request for a specific change in the person's
behavior.
Answer Key
1. Statement of what you don’t want

Statement of what you want: This is never to be mentioned as a specific request for a change in the
2.
person's behavior.
If you have a grievance how to handle it? Following steps are strategies for handling grievances
effectively. Identify one that is not being assertive:
1. Deal with the situation immediately

1. 1
2. Have the courage to be supportive
3. Be prepared to listen
4. Be prepared and know the facts.
5. Remain calm
Answer Key
1. Have the courage to be supportive
Fresh ideas are generated and productivity increases.
1. True 1
False
People work in separate units to achieve a common target.
2. True 1
False
Leads to commitment, support and accomplishment of goals.
3. True 1
False
Collaboration builds awareness and interdependence.
4. True 1
False
People work towards achieving different goals.
5. True 1
False
No opportunity to see the effect of efforts and achievements.
6. True 1
False
Answer Key
1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. TRUE
4. TRUE
5. FALSE
6. FALSE
Understanding Emergencies; find an error,

Assessment of the overall situation for a vessel involved in an emergency at sea should include:
1. Crew competence and nationality

1. 2. Time and resources 1
3. Proximity to other vessels and assistance
4. Proximity to land and shore-based assistance
5. Weather
6. Depth of water, tide and currents
Answer Key
1. Crew competence and nationality
Muster List and Emergency Instructions; The Important features displayed in the muster lists are:
find an error statement
1. All the crew listed in the muster list are not assigned with duties to perform in emergency
1. 2
2. Types of Emergency and different alarms for the same
3. Common Muster point for all the crew
4. Crew list of all crew member with assigned lifeboat
5. Assigned duties for abandon ship
As a Superintendent, how would you have prevented such deviations from occurring?
1. Ensure that emergency drills are carried out as per company’s policy.
2. 1
2. Ensure that the vessel maintains the emergency response equipment in good condition.
3. Advise the master to maintain a list of emergency contact numbers for port’s emergency
services.
Planning Emergency Response; find an error, ___________.
1. The planning process is a key element enabling exploration of viable options for employment in
an emergency.
2. Planning involves preparing response plans, training by conducting regular drills and exercises
for different emergencies and reviewing procedures.
3. 1
3. Drills and exercises test the effectiveness of the response plan, emergency equipment and
systems.
4. Drills identifies level of incompetence of the team and ensure that the response plan is kept
up-to-date and consistent with your company’s and vessel’s operations.
5. The success of an emergency response depends to a large degree on the organization and
practice established to prepare for, detect and manage an emergency
Muster List and Emergency Instructions; find an error statement
1. A muster list is displayed in prominent areas of the vessel so that every crew
member/passenger on onboard can read it.
2. Some of the important areas where the muster list is posted are - Bridge, Engine room,
4. 1
accommodation alleyways etc., areas where ship’s crew spends the maximum of their time.
3. The Important features displayed in the muster lists are: Types of Emergency and different
alarms for the same
4. The Important features displayed in the muster lists are: Instruction to NOT follow in case of
different types of emergency
Answer Key
All the crew listed in the muster list are not assigned with duties to perform in emergency
1.
Ensure that emergency drills are carried out as per company’s policy.
2. Ensure that the vessel maintains the emergency response equipment in good condition.
Advise the master to maintain a list of emergency contact numbers for port’s emergency services.
Drills identifies level of incompetence of the team and ensure that the response plan is kept up-to-date
3.
and consistent with your company’s and vessel’s operations.
The Important features displayed in the muster lists are: Instruction to NOT follow in case of different
4.
types of emergency
If you were the Marine Superintendent of the vessel, how would you have prevented such incidents
from occurring?
1. Develop a procedure for spray painting operation in enclosed spaces.

1. 1
2. Train the crew and highlight the hazards related to spray painting in an enclosed space.
3. Ban spray painting in enclosed spaces.
4. Provide adequate instructions in the usage and dangers of epoxy paint.
5. Provide proper equipment to carry out key operations on board.
Answer Key
Develop a procedure for spray painting operation in enclosed spaces.
Train the crew and highlight the hazards related to spray painting in an enclosed space.
1.
Provide adequate instructions in the usage and dangers of epoxy paint.
Provide proper equipment to carry out key operations on board.
To prepare for emergencies, the Company should __________.
1. Establish programmes for drills and exercises to prepare for emergency actions
1. 2. Be able to respond to hazards, accidents and emergency situations involving its ships 1
3. Establish procedures to identify, describe and respond to potential emergency shipboard
situations
4. All the above
Plans for key shipboard operations should include ___________.
1. Survival craft drills

2. 1
2. Fire drills
3. Piracy and terrorist drills
4. Cargo operations
Where will you find your duties and responsibilities for emergency response?
1. Muster list
3. 1
2. Appointment letter
3. Your joining instructions
4. QMS manuals
Where will you find the correct procedures to carry out shipboard operations?
1. ISM code
4. 1
2. Ships plans
3. QMS manuals
4. SOLAS
Key shipboard operations are __________.
1. Company specific
5. 1
2. Ship specific
3. Maintenance work
4. Cargo operations
Answer Key
1. All the above

2. Cargo operations
3. Muster list
4. QMS manuals
5. Ship specific
Decision options, selection, and outcome: find an error statement
1. Heuristics has been widely researched and recommended in fields such as aviation and
medicine and holds a promising scope for application in the maritime industry.
1. 2. Heuristics are also referred to as rules-of-thumb. 2
3. Decision making is an important part at sea but it is not always easy as one must often choose
between a good option and a better one but with incomplete information.
4. 80% of the onboard decisions are usually routine, or foreseeable and we can plan for them.
This is where heuristics cannot help.
Decision options, selection, and outcome: find an error statement,
1. The shipboard losses are mostly attributed to human error

2. Some of the decisions on board are small, and some are big. Many of these decisions will be
2. 2
deliberate conscious decisions.
3. Not acting is not a decision- which usually does not end well- because we simply delay the
inevitable.
4. Ignoring a situation does not make it go away but it leaves us with very few options later.
1. Seafarers make several decisions every day in an environment that is constantly changing and
unpredictable, miles away from land.
3. 2. With new technology and faster turnaround of ships, seafarers have not only to be fast but also 2
accurate in making decisions.
3. It is easy to get overwhelmed with information to decide or wait for further information and
this can lead to analysis by paralysis.
4. Both paralysis and analysis are Greek words, and the solution- is also a Greek word. Heuristics
1. Seafarers make several high-stake decisions every day

4. 2
2. There are on average 100 total ship losses and 1000 fatalities every year
3. The losses are Not mostly attributed to human error
4. Research shows that the average person makes over 35,000 decisions in just one day.
1. Figure out with your colleagues, the various rules of thumbs you can use for your daily
operations om board.
2. Debate the rules of thumbs and formalize the heuristics within your organization toward
5. building a heuristics inventory. 2
3. One such example could be, when the oil mist detector sounds: do not stop the engine.
4. There have been cases where the Chief Engineers have opted to do other things including
cleaning the lenses of the oil mist detector, to find if the equipment is working properly etc.
5. Surely enough, a crankcase explosion could be the end result after a mist alarm, disabling the
ship at sea.
6. Decision options, selection, and outcome: find an error statement, 2
1. Both paralysis and analysis are Greek words, and the solution- is also a Greek word, Heuristics
2. Heuristics today means the distilling of the issue and finding a solution in its most simple form-
which comes from experience and deep insight.
3. Heuristics are Not referred to as rules-of-thumb.
4. Heuristics has been widely researched and recommended in fields such as aviation and
medicine and holds a promising scope for application in the maritime industry.
Answer Key
80% of the onboard decisions are usually routine, or foreseeable and we can plan for them. This is
1.
where heuristics cannot help.
2. Not acting is not a decision- which usually does not end well- because we simply delay the inevitable.
It is easy to get overwhelmed with information to decide or wait for further information and this can
3.
lead to analysis by paralysis.
4. The losses are Not mostly attributed to human error
5. One such example could be, when the oil mist detector sounds: do not stop the engine.
6. Heuristics are Not referred to as rules-of-thumb.
1. In brainstorming, ask team members to identify one or more solutions on their own.
1. 2. Collate potential solutions so that you have access to a wider range of possibilities. 2
3. Bringing the ideas together allows the team, to see which alternatives fit.
4. Solicit team members’ perspectives on which alternative appeals and why it has merit.
5. At this point, do not include any risks associated with the option, or its pros and cons.
1. When you’re making a decision, having only one option to consider is really an option.
2. When you focus on only one idea, your (or your team’s) tunnel vision has bypassed potentially
better solutions
2. 2
3. Reasons for thinking you have only one choice: Narrow thinking: you consider only what has
been done before, regardless of whether it’s worked. You disregard creative or unproven ideas.
4. Reasons for thinking you have only one choice: Fearful thinking: the decision is being triggered
by fear, or the decision-making environment is characterized by fear or being afraid to take a
risk.
1. The rationale underlying narrow or fearful thinking when making a decision is that, if nothing
changes, then something better will certainly happen.
3. 2. The solution to overcoming narrow or fearful thinking is to reawaken and apply creativity. 2
3. Seek ideas and additional options by involving other involved parties (and don’t forget to give
credit where credit is due!).
4. Tapping into additional sources’ creative ideas helps you avoid missing an optimal solution no
one has yet thought of.
1. Brainstorming has long been used to come up with ideas

2. In brainstorming, strong-willed people too often end up pressuring others to conform to one
4. 2
view - the team view!
4. Independently coming up with ideas enables creative ideas to come forward that might
otherwise not be heard in a group setting.
1. Brainstorming has long been used to come up with ideas

2. In brainstorming, strong-willed people too often end up pressuring others to conform to one
5. 5
view - the team view!
4. Independently coming up with ideas enables creative ideas to come forward that might
otherwise not be heard in a group setting.
6. Decision options, selection, and outcome: find an error statement, 2
1. Solicit team members’ perspectives on which alternative appeals for decision-making and why
it has merit.
2. Do include any risks associated with the option, or its pros and cons.
3. Always consider dissenting views because they hold valued insights.
4. Collaborating may not result in creating a new solution or, identify the most viable alternatives.
1. Solicit team members’ perspectives on which alternative appeals for decision-making and why
7. it has merit. 5
2. Do include any risks associated with the option, or its pros and cons.
3. Always consider dissenting views because they hold valued insights.
Answer Key
1. At this point, do not include any risks associated with the option, or its pros and cons.
2. When you’re making a decision, having only one option to consider is really an option.
The rationale underlying narrow or fearful thinking when making a decision is that, if nothing changes,
3.
then something better will certainly happen.
In brainstorming, strong-willed people too often end up pressuring others to conform to one view - the
4.
team view!
In brainstorming, strong-willed people too often end up pressuring others to conform to one view - the
5.
team view!
As a decision maker you might come across varied problems that require a decision. Find an
incorrect assumption, ___________.
1. Ascertain whether all the problems are familiar or unfamiliar to you.

1. 2. All familiar problems entail a generic decision. 1
3. These decisions can be made with the help of established rules of thumb or principles as their
occurrences are high.
4. Decisions taken on a case-by-case basis and best resolved using heuristics.
5. unfamiliar problems are unique and require exceptional or unique decisions.
Why do you analyze your options when decision-making?
1. Decision making is the process of selecting an option or course of action from among
alternatives.
2. It can also be termed as the act of assigning resources like money, time, people etc, to handle
the situation at hand.
2. 1
3. While committing resources to achieve results people consider options or alternatives.
4. Clearly understanding and evaluating the options in the light of the outcomes puts people
under analysis.
5. During analysis people weigh the risks involved in choosing or dropping options.
6. Although people must settle for rationality in decisions, they sometimes allow their dislike of
risk to interfere with the desire to reach the best solution under the circumstances.
Answer Key
1. Decisions taken on a case-by-case basis and best resolved using heuristics.

2. During analysis people weigh the risks involved in choosing or dropping options.
Conductors are persons who derive satisfaction by use of power and authority. They are results-
oriented, but also want to dominate others. Find one problem with this decision making,
___________.
1. 1. This style is suitable when people involved in a decision are indecisive or confused 1
2. Conductors are quick in decision making
3. They impose their decisions on others
4. These people do not postpone decisions as they are result oriented
5. They hold themselves responsible for the outcomes of their decisions
Connectors are driven primarily by the need for affiliation. They have a strong people orientation.
Their decisions are taken in the best interest of the people. Find one problem with this decision
making, __________________.
2. 1. They are very receptive to suggestions from people 1

2. This type is very useful for large organizations or where decisions involve more number of
persons
3. Chances of wrong decisions are low in this type
4. There could be indecision and inaction due to lack of consensus among people over an issue.
Analyzers have a strong need for achievement in the form of new challenges. They have greater
tolerance for ambiguity than the conductors. They prefer to examine the situation thoroughly and
consider alternatives systematically before deciding on an option. Find one problem with this decision
making, ___________.
3. 2
1. They are rational and systematic in decision making
2. They are optimistic and progressive in their approach
3. Their decisions are backed by sound facts and evidence from the past
4. They may not be creative in their decisions
Ideators are those who attach importance to people over tasks. They seek praise and recognition for
their efforts. Their decisions are people-centered. Find one problem with this decision making,
____________.
4. 1. They are very creative in their decisions 2

2. They listen to people while making decisions that impact a larger group
3. They look at the long term perspective in their decisions
4. It is difficult for them to bring about agreement among the people for whom they make
decisions.
Answer Key
1. They impose their decisions on others

2. There could be indecision and inaction due to lack of consensus among people over an issue.
3. They may not be creative in their decisions
4. It is difficult for them to bring about agreement among the people for whom they make decisions.
The humans, systems and machines on ships have changed. Why?
1. Globalization and Competition

1. 2. Advances in technology 1
3. Multinational, multicultural crew
4. Reduced manning
5. All of the above
Safe and efficient operation of the ship and her associated systems depends primarily on,
1. ship design
2. 2. crew competency 1
3. Port and Flag State Inspections
4. Class Society Inspections
5. All of the above
Answer Key
Advances in technology
1.
Multinational, multicultural crew
ship design
2.
crew competency
Language barriers develop when communicating with someone who is weaker in the language that
you speak. To avoid barriers in this situation, you should
1. Use common idioms or metaphors that are easily understood regardless of culture.
1. 2
2. Use common jargons and three letter abbreviations because these are easily learned by others
that you are communicating with
3. Avoid speaking slowly as this will humiliate the other person
Good communication skills requires
1. Sending and listening skills

2. 2. Clear instructions 1
3. Timely responses
4. All of the above
5. Some of the given options
Answer Key
2. All of the above
Fault detection is critical to situational awareness. Elements of fault detection include:
1. Maintenance and troubleshooting

1. 2
2. Procedures in place for unplanned outages or events
3. Eliminating human error in system operations
4. Both A & C
Answer Key
1. Both A & C
Risk Management; find an incorrect statement, __________.
1. Risk is the chance of something happening as a result of a hazard or threat, which will impact on
1. business activity or a planned event. 1
2. Risk arises out of uncertainty.
3. Risk - The probabilities of the various possible outcomes are not known.
4. Uncertainty - The probabilities of the various possible outcomes are not known.
Risk management Definition and Terms; find an error, ___________.
2. 2
1. Because the values of F and N typically extend across several orders of magnitude both axes on an
FN curve are logarithmic.
2. More sophisticated analyses will have multiple curves with roughly the same shape as one another.
3. The distribution of the curves represents the uncertainty associated with predicting the frequency of
events.
4. The shape of the curve itself will vary according to the system being studied
5. FN curves are generally used for individual process facilities and not when making industry-wide
decisions
3. Risk management Definition and Terms; find an error, ___________. 1
1. The total risk associated with a facility is obtained by calculating the risk value for each hazard, and
then adding all the individual risk values together.
2. The result of this exercise is sometimes plotted in the form of an FN curve. Here, the ordinate
represents the cumulative frequency (F) of fatalities or other serious events, and the abscissa
represents the consequence term (usually expressed as N fatalities).
3. Because the values of F and N typically extend across several orders of magnitude both axes on an
FN curve are not logarithmic.
4. More sophisticated analyses will have multiple curves with roughly the same shape as one another.
4. Risk management Definition and Terms; find an error, ___________. 1
1. Figure shows that a proportional relationship generally exists between consequence and frequency.
2. In a typical process facility, a serious event such as the failure of a pressure vessel may occur only
once every ten years, whereas trips and falls may occur weekly.
3. The total risk associated with a facility is obtained by calculating the risk value for each hazard, and
then adding all the individual risk values together.
Risk Management; find an incorrect statement, _____________.
1. A situation has risk if the future state or outcome of the situation is known for certain.
5. 2. Most situations involve risk and can have more than one possible outcome. 2
3. For each possible outcome, you can assess the probability of that particular outcome will happen.
4. Risk is defined as the combination of the frequency of occurrence of a defined hazard and the severity
of the consequences of the occurrence. Risk = Frequency × Severity
Risk Management; find an incorrect statement, __________.
1. Risks are of two types: static, dynamic.

6. 2. Static risks are pure risks where the possibility is of a no loss. 1
3. Dynamic risks on the other hand, are more speculative in nature, where there can be profit or loss!
4. A typical example would be that of a shipowner time chartering his vessel rather than operating her
himself.
Risk management Definition and Terms; find an error, ____________.
1. Hazard A physical situation with a potential for human injury, damage to property, damage to the
environment or some combination of these
2. Risk The likelihood of a specified undesired event occurring within a specified period or in specified
circumstances
7. 1
3. Risk is defined as the combination of the frequency of occurrence of a defined hazard and the severity
of the consequences of the occurrence.
4. Risk, is made up of three components: Hazards. The consequences of the hazards; and the predicted
frequency (likelihood) of occurrence of the hazards.
5. These three terms can be combined as shown,
Predicted Frequency = Consequence Risk Hazard
8. Risk management Definition and Terms; find an error, ______________. 2
1. The assessment of risk followed by the making and implementation of decisions about what needs to
be done is to reduce risks to ALARP.
2. Individual risk: The frequency at which an individual may be expected to sustain a specified level of
harm from the realization of specified hazards Application: e.g. Machinery Guarding
3. Individual risk of death from Cancer is = 1 in 387 annually or, 3.6 10-3 is the annual risk
4. Societal Risk: The relationship between frequency and the number of people sustaining a specified
level of harm in a given population from the realization of specified hazards Application
Risk management Definition and Terms; find an error, _______________.
1. Predicted Frequency: Each event has a predicted frequency of occurrence, such as once in a hundred
years.
2. The word "predicted" is used to point out that the future frequency of an event is not necessarily the
same as its historical frequency, particularly if the risk management program is effectively reducing
the chance of a failure from occurring.
9. 3. N or frequency is the same as probability. An item has a frequency of failure measured in inverse time 2
units.
4. The consequences of that event may be mitigated by a safeguard, which has a (dimensionless)
probability of occurrence.
5. For example, high level in a tank may occur once every year. However, the tank has level control
instruments that detect high level and stop the flow of liquid into the tank. These instruments may
have a probability of failure of 0.01 or 1%. Therefore, the likelihood of a system failure is 0.01 yr-1,
i.e., once in 200 years.
Answer Key
1. Risk - The probabilities of the various possible outcomes are not known.
2. FN curves are generally used for individual process facilities and not when making industry-wide decisions
Because the values of F and N typically extend across several orders of magnitude both axes on an FN curve
3.
are not logarithmic.
4. Figure shows that a proportional relationship generally exists between consequence and frequency.
5. A situation has risk if the future state or outcome of the situation is known for certain.
6. Static risks are pure risks where the possibility is of a no loss.
These three terms can be combined as shown,
7.
Predicted Frequency = Consequence Risk Hazard
8. Individual risk of death from Cancer is = 1 in 387 annually or, 3.6 10-3 is the annual risk
For example, high level in a tank may occur once every year. However, the tank has level control
instruments that detect high level and stop the flow of liquid into the tank. These instruments may have a
9.
probability of failure of 0.01 or 1%. Therefore, the likelihood of a system failure is 0.01 yr-1, i.e., once in
200 years.
Managing Risk; find an error statement, _______________.
1. Costs, risks and benefits require balancing. Those risks, which cannot be reduced any further,
may be transferred to business associates by provisions in the contracts.
2. Risk may also be transferred to professional risk carriers such as insurance companies.
1. 2
3. In the shipping industry, mutual associations of ship owners, such as Protection and Indemnity
(P&I) Clubs, carry the liability risks of ship owners who are members.
4. Full understanding of a developing situation is essential. Identified risks, involving equipment
must be monitored through effective reporting mechanisms throughout an operation. Early
morning signs of human fatigue must be detected.
Managing Risk; find an error statement, The risk management process consists of:
1. identifying hazards
2. 2. assessing risks 2
3. managing risks
4. ignoring risk
5. monitoring and reviewing risk.
Managing Risk; find an error statement, ___________.
1. Risk response actions dont only occur when a risk happens - some of the responses are
preventive measures that are taken as soon as you identify the risk.
2. Once the preventive or mitigating actions are complete then the risk has to be re-assessed to
3. 1
find out if there are any residual risk in the system.
3. Risk exposure cannot be completely eliminated. Risk can only be reduced up to a point, beyond
which risk cannot be reduced, despite additional effort and expenditure.
4. There is the "point of diminishing returns". No further reduction in the level of safety is
possible beyond the point of diminishing returns.
Managing Risk; find an error statement, _____________.
1. Risk management is a formal process, whereby risk factors for a particular context are
systematically identified, analyzed, assessed, ranked and provided for.
2. It is a systematic way of protecting human, material and natural resources against losses so
4. that the commercial goals of the company can be achieved, 1
3. Risk cannot be managed due to the constant risk of losses due to hazards and perils that cause
accidents and consequential losses.
4. Risk management is the process whereby decisions are made to accept a known or assessed
risk and/or the implementation of actions to reduce the consequences or probability of
occurrence.
Answer Key
Full understanding of a developing situation is essential. Identified risks, involving equipment must be
1. monitored through effective reporting mechanisms throughout an operation. Early morning signs of
human fatigue must be detected.
2. ignoring risk
There is the "point of diminishing returns". No further reduction in the level of safety is possible
3.
beyond the point of diminishing returns.
Risk cannot be managed due to the constant risk of losses due to hazards and perils that cause
4.
accidents and consequential losses.
The overall process by which risk management is performed under the ALARP is as follows:
a) Identify the hazards
b) Decide who might be harmed and how
c) Evaluate the risks and decide on the precautions
d) Record significant findings
e) Review risk assessment and update if necessary
Identify the correct order:
1. 1
1. a, c, b, e, d
2. a, b, c, d, e
3. a, c, e, b, d
4. a, d, b, c, e
The overall process by which risk management is performed under the ALARP is as follows:
1. The objective of ALARP is to provide a process for the ship operators to determine risk acceptance
2. 2. With ALARP they will know the sacrifice that they must endure to reduce risk comparable to the total risk involved. 2
3. The primary focus of ALARP is on identifying the acceptability of risk, a task which largely resides in step 3 of the overall process,
“Identify the hazard”.
4. Under ALARP, risks are divided into three regions: broadly acceptable risk, intolerable risk, and tolerable if ALARP risk.
Individual risks for generic ship types; find an error, ______________.
1. If the risks are considered to be acceptable, then the further risk control measures will be not required.
2. In case the risks are considered tolerable based on the risk criteria, it is necessary to identify the risk reduction measures, based on most
3. 2
modern practices, so that they are found in a range that is considered acceptable.
3. UK HSE defines the zone between the unacceptable and broadly acceptable regions as the intolerable region.
4. Risk tolerance is the willingness to bear a certain risk to obtain certain benefits with the confidence that the risk has been controlled, is
being reviewed, or will be reduced in the future.
Identifying hazards make use of a number of techniques. Find an error, ___________.
1. Generally, for hazard identification comprises a combination of both creative and analytical techniques, the aim being to identify all
relevant hazards.
4. 2. This creative element is not to encourage that the process is proactive and not confined only to hazards that have materialized in the 1
past.
3. The most widely used in marine field is structured into what-if techniques SWIFT, a brainstorming group based on a prepared hazard
checklist,
4. Considering unplanned deviations from normal operations, and numerical method (Fault Tree Analysis-FTA and Event Tree Analysis-ETA)
With respect to Risk, Select the correct statement
1. The threat but not probability that an action or event will adversely or beneficially affect an organization's ability to achieve its objectives.
5. 2. The threat or probability that an action or event will adversely or beneficially affect an organization's ability to achieve its objectives. 1
3. The threat but not probability that an action or event will adversely or beneficially affect an organization's ability to not achieve its
objectives.
4. The threat or probability that an action or event will adversely or beneficially affect an organization's ability to not achieve its objectives.
ALARP and the Risk Management Process; find an error statement, ___________.
1. When first introduced to the concepts of Individual Risk (IR) and Societal Risk (SR), a question that often arises is 'Why is the Societal
Risk of N=1 (or more) so different to the Individual Risk?'.
6. 1
2. The difference arises from the fact that IR is calculated for a specific individual (or hypothetical individual) and their pattern of exposure
to the hazards.
3. SR is calculated for a group of individuals and their patterns of exposure to the hazards as a group.
4. SR does distinguish between 1 individual exposed for 24 hours and 24 individuals exposed for 1 hour, but IR would do so.
Individual risks for generic ship types; find an error, _____________.
1. Generally, the risk is not reduced to a level to which the benefit gained from further risk reduction is outweighed by the cost of achieving
that risk reduction.
7. 2
2. If the risks are considered to be acceptable, then the further risk control measures will be not required.
3. In case the risks are considered tolerable based on the risk criteria, it is necessary to identify the risk reduction measures, based on most
modern practices, so that they are found in a range that is considered acceptable.
4. UK HSE defines the zone between the unacceptable and broadly acceptable regions as the tolerable region.
8. With respect to Risk, Select the correct statement 1
1. Risk is a Combination of the likelihood of an occurrence of a hazardous event or exposure( s) and the severity of injury or ill health that
can be caused by the event or exposure(s).
2. Risk is not a Combination of the likelihood of an occurrence of a hazardous event or exposure( s) and the severity of injury or ill health
that can be caused by the event or exposure(s).
3. Risk is not a Combination of the likelihood of an occurrence of a hazardous event or exposure( s) and the severity of injury or ill health
that can not be caused by the event or exposure(s).
4. Risk is a Combination of the likelihood of an occurrence of a hazardous event or exposure( s) and the severity of injury or ill health that
can not be caused by the event or exposure(s).
Risk management framework. Identify A,B,C,D regions based on risk tolerance
9. 1
Framework for tolerability of risk
X Y Z M
A Tolerable
when risk reduction is The
risk cannot be justified Risk
remains, but acceptable Risk
remains, but acceptable
not feasible or costs too high
B The
risk cannot be justified Tolerable
when risk reduction is Tolerable
when cost reduction Tolerable
when risk reduction is
not feasible or costs too high exceeds improvement not feasible or costs too high
C Tolerable
when costs reduction Tolerable
when cost reduction Tolerable
when risk reduction is Tolerable
when cost reduction
exceeds improvement exceeds improvement not feasible or costs too high exceeds improvement
D Risk
remains, but acceptable Risk
remains, but acceptable The
risk cannot be justified The
risk cannot be justified
Select:
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. M
The likelihood of the risk appearance can be approached from qualitative and quantitative perspective. Find an error statement, _________.
1. The expert experiences and judgments can be performed for the qualitative approaches.
2. The quantitative approach is not based on national and international databases, but accident history reports and statistics, for the
10. particular vessel 2
3. To determine the likelihood and consequences, as being the two key elements for the risk assessment, based on the historical data
analysis and practical experience, scenarios for different types of accidents are identified.
4. For risk evaluation, it is necessary to combine the likelihood and consequences of events to be able to quantify the risk.
5. The estimated risks are compared and ranked, taking into account the ALARP criteria of acceptability.
11. A generalized framework for risk management that can utilize risk acceptance criteria, including ALARP: Identify the correct order, 1
X Y Z M
A Consequence
Analysis Risk
analysis and assessment Risk
scenario development Risk
scenario development
B Frequency
Analysis Consequence
Analysis
C Risk
scenario development Frequency
Analysis Frequency
Analysis Frequency
Analysis
D Risk
scenario development Risk
acceptance criteria Risk
analysis and assessment
E Risk
acceptance criteria
Select:
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. M
ALARP and the Risk Management Process; find an error statement, ______________.
1. Whether considering individual risk or societal risk, safety risks need to be reduced to levels that are As Low As Reasonably Practicable,
or ‘ALARP’.
12. 2
2. Whether considering individual risk or societal risk, safety risks need to be reduced to levels that are As Low As Reasoned in Practice, or
‘ALARP’.
3. The region that lies between unacceptably high and eligible risk levels is sometimes referred to as the ‘ALARP region’.
4. ALARP, as defined by the UK HSE is a well-established methodology for determining the acceptability of risk.
Why many risks onboard can not be completely removed?
1. Risk is inbuilt and known

13. 1
2. Too much time required to remove the risk
3. Too much effort required to remove the risk
4. To much man power required to remove the risk
With respect to spotting the hazard, Select the correct statement
1. A hazard is something that could not hurt you or someone else.

14. 1
2. A hazard is anything that could hurt you.
3. A hazard is anything that could someone else.
4. A hazard is anything that could hurt you or someone else.
15. With respect to ALARP, select the correct statement 1
1. Hazard should be as low as reasonably practicable
2. Risk should be as low as reasonably practicable
3. Changes made should be as low as reasonably practicable
Individual risks for generic ship types; find an error, ____________.
1. Generally, the risk is reduced to a level to which the benefit gained from further risk reduction is outweighed by the cost of achieving that
risk reduction.
16. 1
2. For example, in cases where the loss of lives exceeded 10-3 per person-year, a risk should be considered unacceptable.
3. If the risks are considered to be unacceptable, then the further risk control measures will be not required.
4. It is often essential to develop programs to monitor the situation so that it does not deteriorate over a period of time. For this purpose,
the safety audits are important tools.
With respect to 'making changes' after hazard identification and risk assessment, select the correct statement
1. The correct steps are possible substitution, isolation and taking safeguards
17. 1
2. The correct steps are possible elimination, substitution, isolation and taking safeguards
3. The correct steps are possible elimination, isolation and taking safeguards
4. The correct steps are possible elimination, substitution and taking safeguards
With respect to assessing a Risk, Select the correct statement
1. Assessing the risk means working out how likely it is that a hazard will harm someone and how serious the harm could be.
18. 1
2. Assessing the risk means working out how likely it is that a hazard will not harm someone and no serious harm results.
3. Assessing the risk means working out how likely it is that a hazard will not harm someone but serious harm results.
4. Assessing the risk means working out how likely it is that a hazard will harm someone but no serious harm results.
With respect to Risk, Select the correct statement
1. Risk include any possible change of undesirable, adverse consequences to health, property, or the environment.
19. 1
2. Risk include any possible change of undesirable, adverse consequences to human life, property, or the environment.
3. Risk include any possible change of undesirable, adverse consequences to human life, health, property, or the environment.
4. Risk include any possible change of undesirable, adverse consequences to human life, health, or the environment.

Answer Key
1. a, b, c, d, e
The primary focus of ALARP is on identifying the acceptability of risk, a task which largely resides in step 3 of the overall process, “Identify the
2.
hazard”.
3. UK HSE defines the zone between the unacceptable and broadly acceptable regions as the intolerable region.
4. This creative element is not to encourage that the process is proactive and not confined only to hazards that have materialized in the past.
5. The threat or probability that an action or event will adversely or beneficially affect an organization's ability to achieve its objectives.
6. SR does distinguish between 1 individual exposed for 24 hours and 24 individuals exposed for 1 hour, but IR would do so.
Generally, the risk is not reduced to a level to which the benefit gained from further risk reduction is outweighed by the cost of achieving that
7.
risk reduction.
Risk is a Combination of the likelihood of an occurrence of a hazardous event or exposure( s) and the severity of injury or ill health that can be
8. caused by the event or exposure(s).
9. Y
The quantitative approach is not based on national and international databases, but accident history reports and statistics, for the particular
10.
vessel
11. M
12. Whether considering individual risk or societal risk, safety risks need to be reduced to levels that are As Low As Reasoned in Practice, or ‘ALARP’.
13. Risk is inbuilt and known
14. A hazard is anything that could hurt you or someone else.
15. Risk should be as low as reasonably practicable
16. If the risks are considered to be unacceptable, then the further risk control measures will be not required.
17. The correct steps are possible elimination, substitution, isolation and taking safeguards
18. Assessing the risk means working out how likely it is that a hazard will harm someone and how serious the harm could be.
19. Risk include any possible change of undesirable, adverse consequences to human life, health, property, or the environment.
Qualitative Analysis; find an error statement, _______________.
1. A qualitative analysis is a non-mathematical process that assigns a low, medium or high impact
to the potential threats in each operation.
2. It considers both the consequences of possible failures and the frequency of those failures.
1. 1
3. The combination of consequences and likelihood identifies which equipment warrants the most
attention for managing risk.
4. The analysis is objective and allows more generalization and therefore it is less restricting.
5. It should be used where the level of risk does not justify the time and resources needed for a
numerical analysis where the data is inadequate, or to perform an initial screening of risks.
Qualitative Analysis: Some examples of qualitative analysis are: find an error statement __________.
1. Analysis based on records of the operation

2. 2. Checklists and questionnaires 2
3. Event trees
4. Flowcharts
5. Non-Physical inspections.
To analyze the identified hazards, you can use one of the methods given below: find an error,
___________.
3. 1. Qualitative 2
2. Quantitative
3. Semi-qualitative
4. Semi-quantitative
A simple risk assessment tool will help you assess and identify cost effective controls to reduce the
risk to as low as is reasonably practicable (ALARP).
1. The permit-to-work system- enclosed space entry permit is a well-designed risk assessment
carried out before any hazardous activity is undertaken.
4. 2. The system includes, among other things, an assessment of the environment in which the work 1
will take place including adjacent areas and compartments (especially for hot work),
3. The isolation of electrical circuits or the draining of pipes and tanks, the provision of appropriate
and well-maintained tools and equipment,
4. The assignment of qualified and experienced personnel, stand-by and emergency arrangements
need not be part of the procedure, that being a SOP.
Quantitative Analysis: find an error statement, ____________.
1. Quantitative analysis makes use of historical data and involves the numerical quantitative data
in the analysis to provide a quantitative result.
5. 1
2. Mathematical theories and models are used to calculate mishap risk factor.
3. The models used are the analysts view of the actual system itself.
4. The probability derived is an estimate, from a model that provides relative information for
decision making.
6. Quantitative Analysis: find an error statement, ____________. 2
1. Quantitative analysis makes use of historical data and involves the numerical quantitative data
in the analysis to provide a quantitative result.
2. Change in the system and operating conditions will not change the risk and will cause
uncertainty in the estimation.
3. Due to the lack of accident data in the shipping industry, other than for major accidents, this
method can be used for analyzing the high-risk areas, particularly those involving loss of life or
major pollution or damage to property.
4. Quantitative analysis is performed by computer modeling, fault tree analysis, hazard and
operability studies (HAZOP), hazard indices and statistical analysis.
Semi-Quantitative Analysis; find an error statement, __________.
1. Semi-quantitative analysis is the method where the results are interpreted to a finer level of
precision than is contained in the qualitative analysis.
7. 2. It uses techniques drawn from Quantitative Analysis but does not actually quantify the results. 2
3. For example, frequency may be analyzed using a modeling technique such as Fault Tree
Analysis (FTA) and consequences analyzed using Event Tree Analysis (ETA).
4. The best method is to conduct a quantitative risk analysis and then conduct qualitative a risk
analysis for high risk hazards to gain more precise knowledge.
Onboard risk assessment: find an error, _____________.
1. Onboard ship, the Master and Chief Engineer possess sufficient experience to do the risk
assessment, guided by company manuals, circulars and other safety manuals.
2. The assessment addresses not only job at hand but also the peripheral activities.
8. 1
3. If required, additional expert guidance should be provided.
4. The Risk assessment process onboard includes hazard identification and a vulnerability analysis
that addresses the following.
5. The hazards that could affect ship board operations e.g.: Enclosed space entry – lack of oxygen,
flammable gases or, Navigation under pilotage – shallow water.
9. To manage risk, one must first assess the risk. 1

a) Risk assessment is a careful examination of what could cause harm during an operation
b) With that decisions can be made regarding the adequacy of the precautions taken, or whether
something more should be done to prevent harm.
c) It identifies and assess various risks that an operation is exposed to both in terms of frequency of
occurrence as well as the severity of the consequences.
d) Identify A, B, C and D in the diagram below for Risk Management.
X Y Z M
A Risk Matrix Cost Benefit ALARP Risk Matrix
B Bow-Tie Bow-Tie Bow-Tie Bow-Tie
C ALARP Risk Matrix Risk Matrix Cost Benefit
D Cost Benefit ALARP Cost Benefit ALARP
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. M
Answer Key
1. The analysis is objective and allows more generalization and therefore it is less restricting.
2. Non-Physical inspections.
3. Semi-qualitative
The assignment of qualified and experienced personnel, stand-by and emergency arrangements need
4.
not be part of the procedure, that being a SOP.
5. The models used are the analysts view of the actual system itself.
Change in the system and operating conditions will not change the risk and will cause uncertainty in
6.
the estimation.
The best method is to conduct a quantitative risk analysis and then conduct qualitative a risk analysis
7.
for high risk hazards to gain more precise knowledge.
8. The assessment addresses not only job at hand but also the peripheral activities.
9. X
What is risk?
1. Risk is the loss that is likely to occur when carrying out a new and untried shipboard
operation
1. 2. Risk is defined as the combination of the frequency of occurrence of a defined hazard and the
1
severity of the consequences of the occurrence
3. Risk is defined as the combination of profit loss and loss of time caused by different hazards
in the operation
4. Risk is defined as probabilities of the various possible outcomes that are not known during an
operation
As a Chief Engineer, when will you plan for risk response actions?
1. You will plan and execute the risk response actions during an accident
2. 1
2. You will plan the risk response actions well before an accident happens
3. You will plan the risk response actions for future accidents based on previous experiences
4. You will plan the risk response actions after an accident occurs
What is qualitative risk analysis?
1. Qualitative risk analysis is a subjective analysis method that calculates the consequences of
possible failures and the frequency of those failures
2. Qualitative analysis is a subjective analysis method which uses qualitative information and
3. 1
data that is available with the company
3. Quantitative risk analysis is a method of analyzing risk using mathematical models and
theories which provide quantitative results
4. Qualitative analysis is a method which is used in analyzing high risk areas and critical
operations which involves loss of life and severe injuries
What is quantitative risk analysis?
1. Quantitative risk analysis is a method of assessing risk using insufficient and incomplete
historical data of past accidents
2. Quantitative risk analysis is a method of analyzing risk using mathematical models and
4. 1
theories which provide quantitative results
3. Quantitative risk analysis is a subjective analysis method that calculates the consequence of
possible failures
4. Quantitative risk analysis is a theoretical analysis method that calculates the frequency of
possible failures
As the Chief Engineer, what factors will you consider to select the appropriate risk assessment
method?
1. You will consider only the time allocated for the risk assessment process and the cost of
carrying out the assessment
5. 2. You will consider the complexity and severity of the operation and also the magnitude of risk 1
attached with the operation
3. You will consider the type of resources available, type of operation, complexity and size of the
problem, reason for risk assessment and type of accidents targeted
4. You will consider the type of accidents and near misses that are targeted and their severity,
consequences and impact
6. As the Chief Engineer, how will you ensure that shipboard operations are carried out in a safe 1
manner?
1. You will ensure that shipboard operations are carried out in a safe manner by assessing risks
and implementing controls
2. By involving the ship staff, you will carry out risk assessment and implement controls to
reduce the risk and verify that the controls are effective
and implementing cost effective controls
and implementing low cost controls
What are the benefits of accident causation theories?
1. Accident causation theories are used for analyzing an accident and preparing a detailed
accident report
7. 1
2. Accident causation theories are used for developing accident investigation reports
3. Accident causation theories assists in understanding how an accident occurs and helps in
formulating recommendations
4. Accident causation theories are widely used for preventing an accident and near miss
As the Chief Engineer, how will you address human element?
1. You will employ well experienced crew and provide no further training
8. 2. You will employ qualified crew, provide adequate training to equip them with right knowledge 1
and skills and develop a safety culture
3. You will repatriate the involved crew member and warn others of the same consequence
4. You will ignore human element because it cannot be addressed
Why is accident investigation important for accident prevention?
1. Accident investigation identifies the root cause so that remedial measures can be
implemented to prevent recurrence
9. 2. Accident investigation identifies the event sequence of an accident 1
3. Accident investigation provide detailed report which can be circulated to other vessels in the
fleet
4. Accident investigation identifies the person responsible so that punitive actions can be taken
against him
What process will the Chief Engineer follow to effectively manage risks?
1. He will identify hazards, assess risks for each hazard, implement controls to reduce the risks,
monitor and review at regular intervals
2. He will identify hazards, assess risk for each hazard and implement low cost controls to
10. 1
reduce the risk
3. He will identify hazards, assess risk for each hazard, implement controls to reduce the risk to
as low as practicably possible
4. He will identify hazards, assess risks for each hazard, implement controls for the lesser
hazard and eliminate the bigger hazards
11. What is the best method to analyze risks associated with shipboard operations? 1
1. The best method is to conduct a qualitative risk analysis and then conduct a quantitative risk
analysis for high risk hazards to gain more precise knowledge
2. The best method is to conduct a quantitative risk analysis for all types of hazard that are
applicable for an operation
3. The best method is to conduct a quantitative risk analysis and then conduct a qualitative risk
analysis for specific hazards
4. The best method is to conduct a qualitative risk analysis for all types of hazard that are
applicable for an operation
As the Chief Engineer, how will you ensure that control measures are effective and valid for the
operation ___________.
1. You will review risk assessment regularly to identify additional hazards and implement
12. 1
additional controls to reduce the risk
2. You will obtain feedback from the vessel and modify the control without re-assessing the risk
3. You will advice ship staff to ensure that the controls are in place all the time
4. You will re-assess the risk every 6 months and implement new controls
As a Chief Engineer, of the ship, how will you ensure that risk response plans are effective for your
vessel?
1. You will monitor the effectiveness of the risk responses by measuring the consequence of
various risks
13. 2. You will ensure the effectiveness of the risk responses by calculating the cost-benefit ratio of 1
various controls
3. You will monitor the effectiveness of the risk responses at periodic intervals, identify new risks
by looking out for early warning signs
4. You will ensure that risk responses are effective by collecting feedback from ship staff after an
accident
As per domino theory, how can you prevent an accident from occurring?
1. You can prevent an accident from occurring by removing the domino called 'Lack of Control'
14. 1
2. You can prevent an accident by removing only the immediate causes
3. You can prevent an accident by eliminating unsafe and unsafe conditions
4. You can prevent an accident by changing the behavior of ship staff
What are the benefits of Multiple Cause theory?
1. Multiple cause theory looks beyond the immediate circumstances of an accident and
scrutinizes the pre-conditions at the time of occurrence
2. Multiple cause theory provides a guide for uncovering all possible causes and reduces the
15. 1
likelihood of looking at facts in isolation
3. Multiple cause theory identifies the hazards in an operation so that controls can be
implemented
4. Multiple cause theory identifies the immediate causes in the accident chain which resulted in
an accident
16. As a Chief Engineer, how will you ensure that risk response plans are effective for your vessels? 1
1. You will monitor the effectiveness of the risk responses by measuring the consequence of
various risks
2. You will ensure the effectiveness of the risk responses by calculating the cost-benefit ratio of
various controls
3. You will monitor the effectiveness of the risk responses at periodic intervals, identify new risks
by looking out for early warning signs
4. You will ensure that risk responses are effective by collecting feedback from ship staff after an
accident
A Chief Engineer can prevent accidents by supervising and directing every operation on board
___________.
1. A Chief Engineer can prevent accidents by supervising and directing every operation on board
17. 2. Multiple cause theory explains that an accident is the result of many related factors that come 1
together at the same time
3. Multiple cause theory explains that an accident is the result of many flaws in the organization
that line up to create an accident
4. Multiple cause theory explains that an accident is the result of lack of control in the
management system
As a Chief Engineer, how will you manage risks?
1. You will manage risk by transferring all the risks to professional risk carriers
18. 2. You will identify the risk factors for a particular context, analyze, assess, rank and provide for 1
safety measures
3. You will manage risk by reducing the risk to a very low level under any cost
4. You will manage the risk by terminating all activities that contain risk
What are the slices of cheese in the Reason's model?
1. The slices of cheese are decision makers, line management, preconditions and environment
19. and activities 1
2. The slices of cheese are unsafe acts, unsafe conditions, personal factors and task allocation
3. The slices of cheese are improper behavior and practices, job factors and human error
4. The slices of cheese are task, material, personnel, environment and management
As per the Reason's model, how can a Chief Engineer prevent accidents?
1. A Chief Engineer can prevent accidents by removing unsafe acts and unsafe conditions and
situations
20. 2. A Chief Engineer can prevent accidents by removing the flaws in the policy and planning level, 1
and in the line management level
3. A Chief Engineer can prevent accidents by removing improper behavior and practices, job
factors and human error
21. What are the factors that lead to an accident? 1
1. The factors are fatigue, lack of knowledge, inadequate procedures, inadequate supervision
and inadequate compliance with procedures
2. The factors that lead to an accident are equipment failure, human error, excessive training
and over emphasis on procedures
3. The factors that lead to an accident are non compliance with statutory requirements, industry
guidelines, national and international rules and regulations
4. The factors that lead to an accident are complacency, adequate procedures and compliance
with instructions and procedures
How are accidents caused?
1. Accidents are caused by a chain of events developed due to the failure of shore side
management
22. 1
2. Accidents are caused by chain of events beginning with hazards and incidents such as an
equipment failure, human error or an external event
3. Accidents are always caused by human failure to perform as desired by the company
4. Accidents are caused by failure of equipment to respond to emergency and critical situations
What is an accident?
1. An accident is an undesired event resulting in harm to people, damage to property and

23. damage to environment 1
2. An accident is an undesired event resulting only in damage to the ship and shore structures
3. An accident is an undesired event resulting only in loss of life and severe injuries
4. An accident is an unplanned chain of event resulting in a desired outcome
As the Chief Engineer, what are the factors you will consider in decision making?
1. You will consider the risk associated with the decision and the resources available to control
or reduce the risk
2. You will consider the criticality of the decision, the associated risk, methods to manage the
24. 1
risk and the benefits of making the decision
3. You will consider only the benefits of the decision without taking into account of the various
risks and criticality of the decision
4. You will consider only the risks associated with the decision and assess the outcome of such
decisions
As a Chief Engineer, when will you use the qualitative risk analysis method?
1. You will use the qualitative risk analysis method when you require numerical results
2. You will use the qualitative risk analysis method when there are technical expertise available
25. 1
3. You will use the qualitative risk analysis method when you have sufficient historical data with
the company
4. You will use the qualitative risk analysis method when you have inadequate data, less
resources and insufficient time
Answer Key
Risk is defined as the combination of the frequency of occurrence of a defined hazard and the severity
1. of the consequences of the occurrence
2. You will plan the risk response actions well before an accident happens
Qualitative risk analysis is a subjective analysis method that calculates the consequences of possible
3. failures and the frequency of those failures
Quantitative risk analysis is a method of analyzing risk using mathematical models and theories which
4. provide quantitative results
You will consider the complexity and severity of the operation and also the magnitude of risk attached
5.
with the operation
By involving the ship staff, you will carry out risk assessment and implement controls to reduce the
6.
risk and verify that the controls are effective
Accident causation theories assists in understanding how an accident occurs and helps in formulating
7.
recommendations
You will employ qualified crew, provide adequate training to equip them with right knowledge and
8.
skills and develop a safety culture
Accident investigation identifies the root cause so that remedial measures can be implemented to
9. prevent recurrence
He will identify hazards, assess risks for each hazard, implement controls to reduce the risks, monitor
10.
and review at regular intervals
The best method is to conduct a qualitative risk analysis and then conduct a quantitative risk analysis
11.
for high risk hazards to gain more precise knowledge
12. You will obtain feedback from the vessel and modify the control without re-assessing the risk
You will monitor the effectiveness of the risk responses at periodic intervals, identify new risks by
13.
looking out for early warning signs
14. You can prevent an accident from occurring by removing the domino called 'Lack of Control'
Multiple cause theory provides a guide for uncovering all possible causes and reduces the likelihood of
15.
looking at facts in isolation
You will monitor the effectiveness of the risk responses at periodic intervals, identify new risks by
16. looking out for early warning signs
You will identify the risk factors for a particular context, analyze, assess, rank and provide for safety
18. measures
The slices of cheese are decision makers, line management, preconditions and environment and
19.
activities
A Chief Engineer can prevent accidents by removing the flaws in the policy and planning level, and in
20.
the line management level
The factors are fatigue, lack of knowledge, inadequate procedures, inadequate supervision and
21. inadequate compliance with procedures
Accidents are caused by chain of events beginning with hazards and incidents such as an equipment
22.
failure, human error or an external event
An accident is an undesired event resulting in harm to people, damage to property and damage to
23.
environment
You will consider the criticality of the decision, the associated risk, methods to manage the risk and
24. the benefits of making the decision
You will use the qualitative risk analysis method when you have inadequate data, less resources and
25.
insufficient time
Situation and workplace environment; find an error statement, _____________.
1. Situation awareness is not being aware of what is happening around , in terms of where you
are, and whether anyone or anything around you is a threat to your health and safety.
2. Everyone's situational awareness is potentially different. Our situational awareness is only as
accurate as our own perception or reading of the situation, so what we think is happening may
not accurately reflect reality.
1. 1
3. Situation awareness is also affected by complacency, which may happen due to over-
familiarity, especially, when people have been doing the same work continually which could
give rise to a false sense of security and over-dependence on previous experience.
4. This often happens on board; watchkeepers become lax and not take their engine room rounds
properly. As a Chief Engineer, always check the logbook readings noted by engineers. If you
find, a particular pressure or temperature is never changing, you suspect that people are not
being vigilant.
Answer Key
Situation awareness is not being aware of what is happening around , in terms of where you are, and
1.
whether anyone or anything around you is a threat to your health and safety.
Situation and workplace environment; find an error statement, _____________.
1. Situation awareness is not being aware of what is happening around , in terms of where you
are, and whether anyone or anything around you is a threat to your health and safety.
2. Everyone's situational awareness is potentially different. Our situational awareness is only as
accurate as our own perception or reading of the situation, so what we think is happening may
not accurately reflect reality.
1. 1
3. Situation awareness is also affected by complacency, which may happen due to over-
familiarity, especially, when people have been doing the same work continually which could
give rise to a false sense of security and over-dependence on previous experience.
4. This often happens on board; watchkeepers become lax and not take their engine room rounds
properly. As a Chief Engineer, always check the logbook readings noted by engineers. If you
find, a particular pressure or temperature is never changing, you suspect that people are not
being vigilant.
Answer Key
Situation awareness is not being aware of what is happening around , in terms of where you are, and
1.
whether anyone or anything around you is a threat to your health and safety.
Reasons for Human Error: from the list, identify the most probable cause of an engineroom accident due to human error
1. Loud noises
1. 2. Personal life problems 1
3. Slippery floor
4. Snow
5. Lack of spare parts
What are the Causes of accidents; find an error statement
1. Accidents occur through a chain of events ending in one single undesired consequence.
2. This chain of events begins with hazards, which are situations, conditions, characteristics or properties that are
capable of causing an accident.
2. 1
3. If there are no hazards, there are no accidents.
4. An incident such as an equipment failure, human error, or external event is necessary for the hazards to cause an
accident.
5. This is the initiating event of the accident chain, which requires further equipment failures, human errors, or external
events to take place after the initiating event for an accident occurs.
Human Element Issues which are considered for HRA ; find an incorrect assumption
1. The techniques of hazard identification can be “creative” (i.e. proactively being able to realistically imagine the
hazards which have not instanced, but were likely to happen and their consequences)
2. The techniques of hazard identification can be “analytical” (i.e. taking the previous statistical data on the nature of
accidents / near misses; applicable regulations and codes; records of hazards to personnel and the marine
3. environment). 1
3. The HRA exercises need to be carried out by way of structured group reviews / brainstorming-sessions, comprising
experts from the fields
4. The hazards will need to be ranked, in the order of the extent of their lack of severity.
5. The degree of the “severity” will be based on: The frequency of occurrence of the hazard, viz. Frequent, Reasonably
Probable, Remote, Extremely Remote; and, Consequence of the Hazard, i.e. Catastrophic, Severe, Significant and
Minor.
4. Find the correct step column for FSA 1
Steps X Y Z M
A Hazard Risk
assessment Hazard Hazard
identification identification identification
B Risk assessment Hazard Risk assessment Risk assessment

identification
C Recommendation Recommendation Recommendation Risk Control

for decision for decision for decision options
making making making
D Cost benefit Risk Control Risk Control Cost benefit

assessment options options assessment
E Risk Control Cost benefit Cost benefit Recommendation

options assessment assessment for decision
making
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. M
Prevention of Human Error; find an incorrect statement
1. The human factors cause error in "human - machine" interface leading to an accident.
2. The man-machine interface can be perceived as one between the crew and the ship as the technical system that does
5. not include the ship equipment. 1
3. We can clearly see how the interaction of mental, emotional, physical and environmental disturbances can challenge
the human capabilities on board.
4. Add to this an inexperienced crew with knowledge and skills limitation, and impacted at the same time by heavy
workload, can seriously bring hazardous situations fast forward.
Some basic terminologies related to HRA: find an error statement
1. Performance shaping factor: Factors that can have a positive or negative effect on human performance.
2. Task analysis: A collection of techniques used to compare the demands of a system with the capabilities of the
operator, usually with a view to improving performance (e.g., by reducing errors).
6. 1
3. Technique for Human Error Rate Prediction (THERP): this is not a widely used human error quantitative prediction
technique
4. Human reliability technique and Human error data bank. The technique is dependent on its database of human-error-
probabilities and objectively considers Performance Shaping Factors which affect human beings. This is particularly
effective in quantifying errors in activities which involve a series of sequential procedures.
Important criteria to be considered for undertaking the process of Formal Safety Assessment; find an incorrect statement
1. Availability of Information and Data: in order to undertake any analytical exercise which will have an objective
outcome, the availability of relevant data is important.
2. For adopting policies to preventing maritime casualties, data related to near-misses, ashore and shipboard operational
7. 1
failures / incident reports and their consequences, help us to gain insight.
3. Considering the old data available with the IMO with respect to casualties and deficiencies, cannot add a major
dimension to FSA study.
4. FSA needs to specify the need for examining the main causes, underlying causes and the latent causes associated
with an incident.
If you were the Marine Superintendent of the vessel, how would you have prevented such incidents from occuring?

8. 1
9. Reasons for Human Error: The marine industry dirty dozen identified by MCA, UK identifies the 4 causes that are statistically 1
the lowest among the 12 reasons: put them by rank from lowest to the highest
A. Pressure
B. Distractions
C. Fatigue
D. Fit for Duty
1. D, C, B, A
2. B, A, C, D
3. C, A, B, D
4. D, A, B, C
Examples of human error include the following; find an error statement
1. Following procedures or not neglecting routine duties

2. Improper or inadequate training of crew
10. 1
3. Errors in operating instructions
4. Equipment or system design, construction, or installation errors
5. Improper or inadequate inspection, testing, or repair of equipment
6. Lack of management oversight
FSA consists of five steps: the top 3 are contained in the following statements: identify the one that is not part of the FSA
1. What might go wrong? = identification of hazards (a list of all relevant accident scenarios with potential causes and
outcomes)
11. 1
2. How bad and how likely? = assessment of risks (evaluation of risk factors)
3. Can matters be improved? = risk control by engaging more competent, maybe more expensive crew
4. Can matters be improved? = risk control options (devising regulatory measures to control and reduce the identified
risks)
Some basic terminologies related to HRA: find an error statement
1. Human error: A departure from acceptable or desirable practice by an individual or a group of individuals that can
result in undesirable results.
12. 2. Human error consequence: The undesired consequence of human error 2
3. Human error probability: HEP = Number of Human Errors that have occurred / Number of opportunities of human
error.
4. Human reliability: The probability that a person: Correctly performs some system-required activity in a particular time
period (if the time limit is specified), and Performs additional extraneous activity that can degrade the system.
Reasons for Human Error: from the list of human error causes, identify the least probable cause of an engineroom accident
due to human error
1. Fatigue
2. Poor Communication
13. 3. Poor tool control 1
4. Poor Instructions
5. Personal life problems
6. Slippery floor
7. Snow
8. Lack of spare parts
Human Element Issues which need be considered for HRA ; find an incorrect assumption
1. Examining a checklist of the errors that are liable to be commonly committed by humans, is an example of a simple
methodology
2. The error checklist is used to sensitize all concerned on the human-error-committing-potential to facilitate its
14. prevention / reduction. 1
3. The techniques of hazard identification cannot be “creative” (i.e. proactively being able to realistically imagine the
hazards which have not instanced, but were likely to happen and their consequences)
4. The techniques of hazard identification must be “analytical” (i.e. taking the previous statistical data on the nature of
accidents / near misses; applicable regulations and codes; records of hazards to personnel and the marine
environment).
15. Human Error Assessment and Reduction Technique (HEART): It considers the following criteria which contribute to human 2
error: find an error statement
1. Lack of system knowledge

2. Shortage of response time
3. Vague system feedback / lessons learnt
4. Lack of judgement required of the operator
5. Want of alertness arising out of excessive workload, ill-health or non-conducive working environment.
6. Problems identified specific to multiracial crew
Comparison of FSA with Current Approach to maritime Safety (e.g., ISM Code)
Steps Questions Current FSA

Approach?
1 What might
go wrong? A-Hazard
identification
2 How often,
how likely? B-Risk
assessment
How bad?
3 How can
matters be C-Risk
Control options
improved?
16. 4 How much?

How much D-Cost
benefit assessment 1
better?
5 What
actions are E-Recommendation
for decision
worthwhile to take? making

Select the existing current approach prevalent in the shipping industry:
1. Only C and E
2. A, C and E
3. A, B, C
4. A, B, C, D, E
In the present context, reduced manning and the pressures of faster turnarounds, the burden of additional regulations and
paperwork, have had a real impact on the quality of ship staff. Some of the visible problems identified by the US
Coastguard, may not include:
1. Stress, fatigue and reduced socializing

17. 2. Breach of rest hours and falsified records 1
3. Sufficient people to handle emergencies and to share the workload
4. Restricted shore leave producing a stressed reaction
5. Reduced time for on board training, resulting in declining practical professional competence
6. Desire of senior officers’ to quit the industry
7. Problems of drug and alcohol abuse.
What are the Causes of accidents; find an error statement
1. Accidents occur through a chain of events ending in one or more undesired consequence.
2. This chain of events begins with hazards, which are situations, conditions, characteristics or properties that are
18. capable of causing an accident. 2
3. The outcome of the accident chain can be influenced by the success or the failure of the safeguards present
throughout the chain.
4. Causes are the underlying reasons why the initial incident occurred and safeguard failures shall not allow the chain of
events to progress.
FSA statements, find an incorrect one
1. FSA provides a means of being proactive, enabling potential hazards to be considered before a serious accident
occurs.
19. 2. FSA represents a fundamental change from what was previously a largely piecemeal and proactive regulatory 1
approach
3. FSA is proactive, integrated, and based on risk evaluation and management
4. FSA is transparent and justifiable thereby encouraging greater compliance with the maritime regulatory framework, in
turn leading to improved safety and environmental protection.
As the vessel's superintendent, what would you have done to prevent such incident from occurring? Explore the following
options
20. 1. Implement an unannounced alcohol testing system. 1

2. Ensure that the rest hours are maintained as required by STCW 95 regulations.
3. Ensure that the able seaman are used as look out during darkness.
21. How can you improve the situation?
1
1. Ensure that critical equipment gives adequate input signal for ship staff to respond.
2. Provide training to the ship's crew to increase the likelihood that signals are identified and understood.
3. Reduce workload during critical operations by providing
4. Employ experienced manpower manpower with appropriate skills required to carry out the shipboard operations in an
efficient manner.
Prevention of Human error and Safety Assessment; find an incorrect statement
1. To prevent “human error”, the fundamental need is to have a measure of the contribution this malaise makes to
shipping incidents and casualties.
2. the standard methodology adopted to ascertain how protected a ship is against incidents or casualties, is to carry out
22. 2
a “Formal Safety Assessment” (FSA).
3. Unless the scourge of “human error” is factored in, the exercise of an Formal Safety Assessment is devoid of any
merit.
4. To attempt an assessment of the chances of an “human error” being committed, the need for a “Human Reliability
Analysis” (HRA) will not be necessary.
Human Element Issues which need not be considered for HRA shall not include
1. Equipment status, maintenance reports and failure data

23. 2. Complexity / skills required for the task 1
3. Stress, fatigue, age, handicaps, psychological disturbances
4. Manning levels, multitasking, lack of familiarization / training
5. Working conditions, shipboard inter-departmental relations
Prevention of Human error and Safety Assessment; find an incorrect statement
1. Formal Safety Assessment (FSA) - was originally developed partly as a response to the Piper Alpha disaster of 1988
2. Piper Alpha, an offshore platform exploded in the North Sea and 167 people lost their lives
24. 3. Operators on Piper Alpha were inexperienced with production method while many other safety risk elements were 1
punching holes in the layers of protection in place and waiting to help escalate the problem.
4. Piper Alpha incident is now being reimposed in the IMO rule making process.
5. FSA is a structured and a systematic methodology aimed at enhancing Maritime Safety including protection of life,
health, marine environment and property by using risk analysis and cost-benefit assessment.
Reasons for Human Error: The marine industry dirty dozen identified by MCA, UK identifies the 4 major causes that are
statistically the highest among the 12 reasons: put them by rank highest to the lowest
A. Situational Awareness
B. Alerting – not speaking up
C. Communication
D. Complacency
25. 2
1. A,B,C,D
2. B,A,C,D
3. C,A,B,D
4. D,A,B,C
Considering the Human Reliability Analysis: find an error statement.
1. Identification of the key tasks required to be performed

2. A broad analysis of these tasks that are required to be performed
26. 2
3. Identification of the human errors that are liable to be committed in performing these tasks
4. An analysis of these human errors, and Quantification of the human reliability (by developing a set of Human Error
Probabilities).
5. Human Element Issues which need not be considered for HRA include, Complexity / skills required for the task
27. Considering the Human Element: find an error statement. 2
1. The crucial role the single causative factor human element plays, in an accident, requires no elaboration.
2. The human element factor needs to be included in the FSA process by deploying the method of Human Reliability
Analysis (HRA).
3. HRA is preferably used whenever an FSA is conducted on a system which involves human action / interaction, which is
not liable to impact the performance of the system.
4. FSA needs to specify the need for examining the main causes, underlying causes and the latent causes associated
with an incident.
Human Error Analysis: The purpose of carrying out this analysis is to identify the potential human errors that can lead to
undesirable consequences. These may Not be:
1. Lack of complicity
2. Omission of action
28. 2
3. Action taken, much more than required / much lesser than required
4. Action which is wrong or taken at the wrong time or in the wrong direction
5. Lack of knowledge
6. Lack of commitment / attention
7. Lack of clear communication
Reasons for Human Error: from the diagram, identify the cause of an engineroom accident that is unlikely on board a ship
from the example drawn from aviation
29. 1
1. All applies
2. None applies
3. Some applies
Human Error Assessment and Reduction Technique (HEART): find an error statement
1. HEART: this technique considers factors such as ergonomics

2. Ergonomics is the scientific discipline which is concerned with the understanding of interactions / interfacing between
30. human beings and other elements of a system tasks, and the environment which is liable to affect human- 2
performance adversely.
3. The extent to which each of these factors affect human-performance in a system is estimated, and the consequential
human error probability computed.
4. The technique does not give information on the remedies that could control the risks arising out of human error.
FSA consists of five steps: the lower 2 are contained in the following statements: identify the one that is not part of the FSA
1. What would it cost and how much better would it be? = cost benefit assessment (cost effectiveness of each risk
control option).
31. 2
2. What actions should be taken? = recommendations for decision-making (information about the hazards, their
associated risks and the cost effectiveness of alternative risk control options is provided).
3. Application of FSA may be particularly relevant to proposals for regulatory measures that have far reaching
implications in terms of costs to the maritime industry or the administrative or legislative burdens that may result.
32. Application of Human Reliability Analysis to Risk Control; Risk control measures, where human interfacing is involved, will 2
not comprise of
1. Technical sub-systems; (e.g. good bridge layout, spacious machinery spaces, clear labelling and instructions on the
operation of ship’s systems, ergonomic design of the man-machine interface etc.)
2. Nonworking environment; (noise and vibration levels, weather hazards, appropriate lightings, stability of the ship,
comfortable boarding and lodging etc.)
3. Personnel sub-system; (motivational / leadership issues, language and cultural issues, crew levels, inter-departmental
harmony etc.), and
4. Organizational sub-system; (safety management systems, professional organizational policies with respect to
recruitment / training, development of proper emergency procedures).
Answer Key
1. Slippery floor
2. Accidents occur through a chain of events ending in one single undesired consequence.
3. The hazards will need to be ranked, in the order of the extent of their lack of severity.
4. Z
The man-machine interface can be perceived as one between the crew and the ship as the technical system that does not
5.
include the ship equipment.
6. Technique for Human Error Rate Prediction (THERP): this is not a widely used human error quantitative prediction technique
Considering the old data available with the IMO with respect to casualties and deficiencies, cannot add a major dimension to
7.
FSA study.
8.
9. D, C, B, A
10. Following procedures or not neglecting routine duties
11. Can matters be improved? = risk control by engaging more competent, maybe more expensive crew
Human reliability: The probability that a person: Correctly performs some system-required activity in a particular time period
12.
(if the time limit is specified), and Performs additional extraneous activity that can degrade the system.
13. Snow
The techniques of hazard identification cannot be “creative” (i.e. proactively being able to realistically imagine the hazards
14.
which have not instanced, but were likely to happen and their consequences)
15. Problems identified specific to multiracial crew
16. A, C and E
17. Sufficient people to handle emergencies and to share the workload
Causes are the underlying reasons why the initial incident occurred and safeguard failures shall not allow the chain of events
18.
to progress.
19. FSA represents a fundamental change from what was previously a largely piecemeal and proactive regulatory approach
Implement an unannounced alcohol testing system.
Ensure that the able seaman are used as look out during darkness.
Provide training to the ship's crew to increase the likelihood that signals are identified and understood.
Reduce workload during critical operations by providing

21.
Employ experienced manpower manpower with appropriate skills required to carry out the shipboard operations in an
efficient manner.
To attempt an assessment of the chances of an “human error” being committed, the need for a “Human Reliability Analysis”
22.
(HRA) will not be necessary.
23. Equipment status, maintenance reports and failure data
24. Piper Alpha incident is now being reimposed in the IMO rule making process.
25. A,B,C,D
26. Human Element Issues which need not be considered for HRA include, Complexity / skills required for the task
HRA is preferably used whenever an FSA is conducted on a system which involves human action / interaction, which is not
27.
liable to impact the performance of the system.
28. Lack of complicity
29. All applies
30. The technique does not give information on the remedies that could control the risks arising out of human error.
Application of FSA may be particularly relevant to proposals for regulatory measures that have far reaching implications in
31.
terms of costs to the maritime industry or the administrative or legislative burdens that may result.
Nonworking environment; (noise and vibration levels, weather hazards, appropriate lightings, stability of the ship,
32.
comfortable boarding and lodging etc.)
Which of the following type of pumps is most suited to act as Waste Oil Sludge Pump?
1. Centrifugal pump
1. 2
2. Screw pump
3. Progressive cavity pump.
4. Reciprocating pump.
Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because:--
1. Stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated with other gear pumps
2. 2
2. It is not necessary to closely maintain design clearances in this pump
3. They are essentially self-priming and produce a high suction lift
4. These pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles.
Answer Key
1. Progressive cavity pump.

2. They are essentially self-priming and produce a high suction lift
Name the types of rotary pumps.
1. 1
1. Axial flow and radial flow pumps
2. Gear, Screw , Vane and scroll pumps
Liquid is kept from leaking out at the shaft ends of a helical,gear pump by __________.
1. overlapping spaces,between gear teeth

2. 1
2. a roller bearing
3. a stuffing box
4. the use of shaft end caps
3. How is hydraulic balance achieved in screw pumps?

2
Which of the devices listed is common to all types of,pumps?
1. A power end and fluid end

4. 2. A propeller and educator 1
3. A volute and impeller
4. A turbine and piston
Which of the following statements is true regarding a,positive displacement rotary pump?
1. Theoretically, there is no,limit to shut off head,pressure.

5. 2. Theoretically it is self priming. 1
3. The discharge side,should be protected,against excessive,pressure build up via a,relief valve.
Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump,to allow for wear on the lobe edges?
1. Replaceable gib,inserts
6. 2. Spur gear adjusters 1
3. Casing gear thrust bearings
4. Replaceable liner plates
The factors that determine the service life of packing in a pump will include which of the following
conditions?
1. type of pump
7. 1
2. condition of the shaft
3. length of time in use
4. all of the above
8. Which letter represents the mechanical seal in the illustration below? 1
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
Which of the following statements represents the advantage,of rotary pumps as compared to
reciprocating pumps?
1. The high discharge,pressure of the rotary,pumps permits a larger,volume of fluid per unit,time
than the,reciprocating pump.
9. 1
2. Rotary pumps are,capable of pumping,more fluid than,reciprocating pumps,of the same weight.
3. Rotary pumps occupy,only one-half the space,of reciprocating pumps.
4. Rotary pumps eliminate,discharge slippage of,the pumped liquid, while,this does not hold
true,for a reciprocating,pump.
10. Which letter represents the bearing in the illustration below? 1
1. D and F
2. C and H
3. E and G
4. A and B
An advantage of a helical gear pump over a simple gear,pump is that the helical gear pump is
capable of
11. 1. maintaining a steadier speed 1

2. delivering liquids over greater distances
3. operating for longer periods of time
4. producing a smoother discharge flow
The packing installed in the pump stuffing box is normally lubricated by __________ .
1. gravity and feed oil cups

12. 2. grease cups 1
3. hand during installation
4. leakage through the stuffing box
13. Increasing the speed of a rotary pump above its rated speed,will result in which of the following 1
conditions to occur?
1. Loss of suction
2. Increased clearances
3. Decreased clearances
4. Decreased slippage
14. How is the lubrication of shaft bushes or bearings carried out in gear pump?
2
One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the _______.
1. Stuffing box diameter

15. 2
2. Direction of rotation of the screws
3. Pitch of the screws
4. Type of driving gears.
If the discharge valve is closed before the drive motor is,stopped, which of the following types of
pumps will most,likely be damaged?
1. Centrifugal
16. 1
2. Gear
3. Propeller
4. Turbine
What are the material used in a screw pump?
17. 1
1. Casing made of cast iron,Screw shafts made of high grade carbon steel
2. Casing and shaft is made of stainless steel
18. What are the usual types of gears employed in gear pumps?
2
a. Sketch and describe a screw pump indicating the fl ow of fluid.
b. State the materials used in the manufacture of the components of screw pumps.
19. 4
c. Specify three applications of screw pumps.
When operating with a negative suction head, which of the,following types of pumps will require
priming?
1. Reciprocating
20. 1
2. Centrifugal
3. Rotary
4. Gear
Which of the listed conditions will occur if the discharge,pressure of a rotary pump is increased from
the designed 3.5 bar to 18 bar, while maintaining the same RPM?
1. The pump capacity will be decreased.

21. 1
2. The pump capacity will be increased.
3. Pump efficiency will be increased.
4. Internal liquid slippage will be reduced.
Spring reinforced oil seals are generally installed with the tail or lip of the seal facing __________ .
1. toward the oil pressure being sealed

22. 2. toward the bearing preload washer 1
3. away from the oil pressure being sealed
4. away from the bearing housing recess
23. If the viscosity of the liquid being transferred remains,constant as the discharge pressure increases, the 1
rotary,Pump __________ .
1. capacity will increase

2. capacity will decrease
3. suction pressure will increase
4. suction pressure will decrease
Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or highly flammable
liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?
1. Conventional stuffing box

24. 1
2. External mechanical seal
3. Double mechanical seal
4. Rubber bellows mechanical seal
Machinery driving fuel oil transfer and fuel oil service pumps,must be fitted with a remote means of
stopping the,machinery from __________ .
1. within the space concerned

25. 1
2. outside the space concerned
3. the throttle station
4. within the fire room
The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump,can be changed only by __________ .
1. changing the angle of the tilting plate

26. 2. changing the speed of the pump 1
3. moving the slide block and rotor
4. moving the shaft trunnion block
which letter represents the location bearing?
27. 1
1. D
2. E
3. F
4. G
28. Which of the following statements is true regarding,mechanical seals?

1
1. They may be used in,lieu of conventional,packing glands for any,service other than,saltwater.
2. They are not suitable for,use on fuel oil transfer,pumps.
3. They are normally,lubricated and cooled,by the fluid being,pumped.
4. Once placed into,service, leakage,between the dynamic,seal surfaces may be,reduced by
monthly,adjustment of the spring,compression.
An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will
1. increase discharge pressure

29. 2. decrease pump capacity 1
3. decrease pump cavitation
4. decrease reaction ring clearance
In what direction does a liquid flow in a screw pump?
30. 1
1. Radial
2. Axial
which letter represents the driving gear from the illustration below?
31. 1
1. C
2. H
3. B
4. A
32. The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when operated at a,constant speed, will decrease with an 1
increase in the pump
1. discharge volume
2. suction pressure
3. torque rating
4. rotor clearances
Fabric type packing, such as flax or hemp, is best suited for
1. low temperature use

33. 2. high temperature use 1
3. use where alignment is critical
4. superheated steam applications
The capacity of a rotary pump, delivering a constant,viscosity fluid, will decrease when the discharge
pressure is,increased, due to__________ .
1. decreased suction pressure

34. 1
2. increased suction pressure
3. reduced slippage
4. increased slippage
Operating a rotary pump at speeds in excess of design,requirements could cause __________ .
1. decreased clearances between rotating parts

35. 2. decreased slippage to the suction side of the pump 1
3. air binding in the discharge ports
4. erosion and excessive wear
One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead,of mechanical packing is that __________ .
1. it requires periodic,disassembly and,adjustment

36. 2. it is unsuitable for high,temperature applications 1
3. seal failure usually,requires the immediate,removal of the pump,from service
4. it is unsuitable for high,pressure applications
a. What is backlash?
b. Why is backlash required?
37. c. How do you measure backlash? 2
When installing a new rotary pump, the suction piping,Should __________ .
1. be of the same diameter,as the pump suction,connection

38. 2. be at least one size,larger than the pump,suction connection 1
3. be the next size smaller,than the pump suction,connection
4. be sloped to the pump
Answer Key
1. Gear, Screw , Vane and scroll pumps

2. a stuffing box
3. Each screw shaft has a right hand screw and a left hand screw. This ensures good hydraulic balance.
6. Replaceable gib,inserts
7. all of the above
8. B
10. D and F
11. producing a smoother discharge flow
13. Increased clearances
14. The bearings are lubricated by the working fluid through the passages provided in the bearing block.
15. Pitch of the screws
16. Gear
17. Casing made of cast iron,Screw shafts made of high grade carbon steel
18. Spur gears, helical gears, herring bone gears are used in gear pumps.
19. a.
Sketch and describe a screw pump indicating the fl ow of fluid.
Description
Screw pumps are a special type of rotary positive displacement pump in which fl ow of fluid
is truly
axial. The liquid is carried between the screw threads on one or more rotors and is
displaced axially,
as the screws rotate and mesh.
In screw pumps, it is the intermeshing of the threads on the rotors and the close fit with
the
surrounding casing, which creates cavity. The cavities trap the liquid at the inlet and
carry it along the
outlet, providing a smooth flow.
Timing gears are fitted in all double screw pumps to ensure the two screws, one left hand
screw and
the other right hand to rotate in phase, in order to prevent seizure. This also
ensures axial hydraulic
balance and no load is imposed on the location bearings.
b.
State the materials used in the manufacture of the components of screw
pumps.
Materials used in the manufacture of screw pumps are:
Casing, bearing housings - cast iron

Screw shafts - high grade carbon steel
c.
Specify three applications of screw pumps.
Screw pumps are suitable for:
pumping high viscosity fluids especially oil.

variety of liquid cargoes carried in bulk.
lubrication system as these pumps are self priming and can deal with large volume of
air and
maintain even discharge pressure.
draining tanks of high pressure liquids as they can handle both liquid and vapour
without loss of
suction.
operation at high rotational speeds and can easily be matched with standard electric
motors.
20. Centrifugal
21. The pump capacity will be decreased.
23. capacity will decrease
25. outside the space concerned
26. changing the speed of the pump
27. F
29. decrease pump capacity
30. Axial
31. H
32. rotor clearances
34. increased slippage
35. erosion and excessive wear
a.Backlash of a gear drive is the width of a tooth space exceeding the thickness of the engaging tooth
on the pitch circle.
b.Backlash reduces the pressure developed in the trapped liquid between the engaging gear teeth.
37. This prevents power loss, additional load on the bearings, spreading of gears and heating of the
liquid.
c.One of the gears is held tightly in place, while the other is moved back slowly. The clearance
between the two gear teeth are measured by feeler gauge.
38. be at least one size,larger than the pump,suction connection
A typical shipboard domestic multi-box refrigeration system operates with one compressor and
condenser. What is the purpose of the sensing line connected to the thermal bulb at the evaporator
coil outlet?
1. 1. To direct evaporator outlet pressure to the lower part of the solenoid bellows 1
2. To open or close the solenoid valve when the box temperature increases or decreases.
3. To open the back-pressure regulating valve when evaporator coil pressure increases.
4. To transmit the bulb pressure (proportional to the coil temperature) to the thermal expansion
valve diaphragm.
Answer Key
To transmit the bulb pressure (proportional to the coil temperature) to the thermal expansion valve
1.
diaphragm.
When the temperature in a refrigerated space rises above its normal set point, which of the listed actions should occur first?
1. The thermal expansion valve will close.

1. 2
2. The compressor will start.
3. The solenoid valve will open.
4. The automatic defrost timer will activate.
In a multi-evaporator refrigeration system, a solenoid valve is installed in the liquid line before ______.
1. The receiver.
2. 1
2. Each expansion valve.
3. The condenser.
4. The oil separator.
Which of the following electrically operated refrigeration system valves would be most appropriate for use as a 2 position diverting hot
gas bypass solenoid valve?
3. 2
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
4. In a multi-evaporator refrigeration system, a solenoid valve is installed in the liquid line prior to what device? 2
1. the condenser
2. the receiver
3. the oil separator
4. each expansion valve
A solenoid valve is operated by magnetic action through ____.
1. Suction pressure at the compressor.

5. 2
2. An electrically energized coil.
3. Superheat at the evaporator outlet coil.
4. A vacuum operated bellows.
A liquid line solenoid valve controls refrigerant flow to the evaporator by what means?
1. fully opening or closing

6. 1
2. sensing the temperature in the liquid line
3. throttling the refrigerant
4. sensing the superheat in the tail coil

7. 2
How does a refrigeration solenoid valve differ from a modulating valve?
1. A liquid line solenoid valve is either completely opened or closed, whereas a modulation valve is infinitely positioned according to
the strength of the applied electrical signal.
8. 1
2. Both valves operate in exactly the same manner, only the manufacturer's terminology is the differentiating factor.
3. A solenoid valve can only be installed in liquid lines.
4. Solenoid Valves are only used in low voltage refrigeration control systems, while modulation valves are used in high voltage
applications.
A box solenoid valve used in a multi-box refrigeration system is operated by electromagnetic action by what control device?
1. evaporator outlet temperature actuated thermostat

9. 1
2. box temperature actuated thermostat
3. discharge pressure actuated pressure switch
4. suction pressure actuated pressure switch
Answer Key
1. The solenoid valve will open.

2. Each expansion valve.
3. B
4. the condenser
5. An electrically energized coil.
A liquid line solenoid valve is either completely opened or closed, whereas a modulation valve is infinitely positioned according to the
8. strength of the applied electrical signal.
9. box temperature actuated thermostat
Regulations require refrigerated spaces that can be locked from the outside and that cannot be
opened from the inside to have an audible alarm. Where is the audible alarm required to be?
1. 1. the galley 1
2. a manned location
3. the wheelhouse
4. the chief steward's berthing quarters
With reference to the illustration below, identify the part marked as “D“?
2. 1
1. Condenser
2. Thermostatic switch.
3. Evaporator
4. Thermostatic exp. Valve
The purpose of the water failure switch in a refrigeration system is to react to a loss of cooling
water by ______.
3. 1. Stopping the compressor. 1

2. Bypassing refrigerant to the receiver.
3. Closing the high pressure cutout switch.
4. Opening the high pressure cutout switch.
4. What is the function of HP cut out? 1
1. It starts the compressor when the delivery pressure decreases

2. It cools the refrigerant gas during compression
3. It trips the compressor, if the delivery pressure increases above the set value
4. It is used for starting and stopping of the compressor to maintain the temperatures
5. What is the function of the Low lub oil differential pressure cut out? 1
1. To check the starting current and start the compressor

2. To trip the compressor if the L.O. Pressure is higher
3. If the differential pressure between lub oil pressure and suction pressure of the compressor
falls below 1.2 bar, the the compressor trips.
4. To trip the compressor if the there is low level lub oil in the systems.
If the water failure switch should fail to shutdown the refrigeration compressor, the refrigerant
pressure will build up in the high pressure side of the system to the point where the ______.
6. 1. Compressor discharge valves would be damaged. 2

2. Condenser tubes would rupture.
3. System relief valve would open.
4. High pressure cutout switch would function.
With reference to the illustration below, identify the part marked as “B“ ?
7. 1
1. Lp cut-in/cut-out
2. HP cut out
3. Themostatic switch.
4. Expansion valve.
Air trapped in a refrigeration system using a watercooled condenser is usually indicated by ____.
1. Unusually high head pressure when compared to the existing temperature of the liquid
refrigerant.
8. 1
2. Higher than normal liquid level in the receiver.
3. Unusually lower than normal discharge pressure when compared to the existing temperature
of the liquid refrigerant.
4. Higher than normal liquid refrigerant temperature.
9. For protection purposes, what is required of all refrigeration systems? 1
1. refrigerant receiver
2. high pressure cut-out

3. low pressure cut-out
4. pressure relief device
If the head pressure of a reciprocating refrigeration compressor is excessive______.
1. The relief valve should open before the high pressure cutout.
10. 2
2. The relief valve should open and allow the excess refrigerant to flow to the receiver.
3. The high pressure cutout switch should operate before the relief valve opens.
4. You should close in on the suction valve.
Which part(s) could be considered to be a safety device?
1. High pressure cutout.

11. 2
2. Low oil pressure cutout.
3. Relief valve.
The device which normally stops the refrigeration compressor before the relief valve starts to open
is the _______.
12. 1. Low pressure cutout switch. 1

2. Back pressure cutout switch.
3. High pressure cutout switch.
4. Relief valve bypass.
13. what are the Safety Devices fitted in the below illustration of a typical refrigeration system? 1
1. Sensing bulb, Fan, Defrost heating element

2. Sight glass, meat room, Evaporator
3. Thermostatic switch, HP Cut out, LP cut in /cut out , DP Cut out , L.O. DP Cut out
4. Solenoid valve, bypassvalve, condensor
With reference to the illustration below, identify the part marked as “A“?
14. 1
1. Thermostatic expansion valve.

2. Thermostatic switch
3. Condenser
4. Evaporator
Answer Key
1. a manned location
2. Evaporator
3. Stopping the compressor.
4. It trips the compressor, if the delivery pressure increases above the set value
If the differential pressure between lub oil pressure and suction pressure of the compressor falls
5.
below 1.2 bar, the the compressor trips.
6. High pressure cutout switch would function.
7. Themostatic switch.
8. Unusually high head pressure when compared to the existing temperature of the liquid refrigerant.
9. pressure relief device
10. The high pressure cutout switch should operate before the relief valve opens.
12. High pressure cutout switch.
13. Thermostatic switch, HP Cut out, LP cut in /cut out , DP Cut out , L.O. DP Cut out
14. Condenser
What characteristic can be applied to Refrigerant 134a when compared to R-12?
1. It is corrosive.
1. 2
2. It is not compatible with mineral based lubricants.
3. It is visible as a blue fog.
4. It has a distinctive taste.
Why can CFC or HCFC refrigerants leaking into a confined space or in limited surroundings cause
suffocation?
2. 1. Refrigerants are heavier than air and displace oxygen. 1

2. Refrigerants contain an acidic substance.
3. Refrigerants obnoxious odor prevents breathing.
4. Refrigerants lighter than air will rise.
What is the color-coding for a storage container of R-134a refrigerant?
1. green
3. 1
2. purple
3. light blue
4. grey
The "tare weight" of a refrigerant storage cylinder refers to what weight?
1. the weight of an empty cylinder

4. 2
2. the total weight of a fully charged cylinder
3. the weight of a cylinder AND its current contents
4. the maximum weight of the refrigerant allowed
Which of the listed refrigerants has been more suitable than the others for use in a centrifugal
refrigeration compressor?
5. 1. R-12. 2
2. R-11.
3. Ammonia.
4. Carbon dioxide.
EPA Clean Air Act rules permit refrigerant to be released to the atmosphere under which of the
following conditions?
6. 1. when testing a system for leaks using R-12 and nitrogen 2

2. when release is considered 'de minimis'
3. when adding oil to a compressor
4. during replacement of a compressor
7. The amount of HCFC-123 in a storage cylinder is measured by what means? 1
1. saturation pressure
2. saturation temperature
3. weight
4. volume
Which refrigerant is most preferred refrigerant to protect the ozone layer?
1. R-12
8. 1
2. R-22
3. HFC 134A.
4. Argon.
For safe storage, the maximum allowable temperature to which refrigerant bottles should be
exposed is what temperature?
9. 1. 100°F /38°C 2
2. 125°F/52°C
3. 150°F/66°C
4. 175°F/80°C
If you find the pressure of a refrigeration system containing a Class I or Class II refrigerant to be
opened for the accomplishment of repairs is 0 psig, what must be done?
1. only recover the vapor refrigerant

10. 2
2. only recover the liquid refrigerant in the system
3. recover liquid and vapor refrigerant and have it reclaimed
4. do not attempt to recover the refrigerant and repair the leak before pulling a vacuum on the
system
Which of the following substances is normally classified as a low pressure refrigerant?
1. R-12
11. 1
2. R-22
3. R-123
4. R-134A
For safe storage, the maximum allowable temperature to which refrigerant bottles should be
exposed is ______.
12. 1. 100°F or 38°C 2

2. 125°F or 51°C
3. 150°F or 64° C
4. 175°F or 77° C
Alkyl benzene ISO 32 cSt synthetic refrigerant oil is miscible and suitable to use with which of the
following refrigerants?
13. 1. R-22 2
2. R-32
3. R-134a
4. R-143a
14. Which of the following substances is normally classified as a low-pressure refrigerant? 2
1. R-12
2. R-22
3. R-123
4. R-134A
All shipboard personnel responsible for the maintenance and repair of air conditioning systems
using refrigerants covered under the EPA Clean Air Act venting prohibition, must be certified
through an approved Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) program to do which of the following?
1. before performing any maintenance or repair regardless of the actual procedure

15. 1
2. before they can set the operating controls of the system
3. before performing maintenance, service or repair that could reasonably be expected to
release Class 1 or Class 2 refrigerants into the atmosphere
4. before they can pump down the system in preparation for shifting over to the standby
condensing unit
R-12 has been a suitable refrigerant for use in high temperature applications with _____.
1. Reciprocating compressors.
16. 1
2. Rotary compressors.
3. Centrifugal compressors.
In the presence of an open flame or hot surfaces, chlorinated fluorocarbon refrigerants decompose
and form what chemical substance?
17. 1. petroleum crystals 2

2. water vapor
3. carbon monoxide
4. phosgene gas
Personnel servicing refrigeration systems that exposes them to commonly used refrigerants should
wear what type of personal protective equipment?
18. 1. an all purpose gas mask 1

2. rubber soled shoes
3. goggles and gloves
4. a respirator
All shipboard.personnel responsible for the maintenance and repair of air conditioning systems
using refrigerants covered under the EPA Clean Air Act venting prohibition, must be certified
through an approved Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) program to do which of the following?
1. before they can pump down.the system in preparation for shifting over to the standby
19. 1
condensing unit
2. before they can set the operating controls of the system
3. before performing maintenance, service or repair that could reasonably be expected to
release Class 1 or Class 2 refrigerants into the atmosphere
4. before performing any maintenance or repair regardless of the actual procedure
20. Which of the refrigerants listed is considered safe and ideal for most marine applications? 1
1. Carbon Dioxide.
2. Ammonia.
3. R-12.
4. Sulfur dioxide.
With regards to shipboard refrigeration systems, after July 1, 1992, what action became illegal?
1. working on a refrigeration system without permission of the Officer in Charge Marine

21. Inspection 2
2. producing a class I refrigerant
3. intentionally venting class I or II refrigerants to the atmosphere
4. mixing R-12 and R-22
Ammonia when used as a refrigerant is valuable because of its high efficiency, it is however _____.
1. Toxic.
22. 1
2. Flammable.
3. Explosive.
Within the territorial limits of the United States, violations of the Clean Air Act of 1990, that includes
the intentional release of R-11, R-12, R-22 and other related class I or class II substances may
result in fines for each violation per day of what amount?
23. 1
1. $5,000
2. $10,000
3. $25,000
4. $50,000
Answer Key
1. It is not compatible with mineral based lubricants.

2. Refrigerants are heavier than air and displace oxygen.
3. light blue
4. the weight of an empty cylinder
5. R-11.
6. when release is considered 'de minimis'
7. weight
8. HFC 134A.
9. 125°F/52°C
10. do not attempt to recover the refrigerant and repair the leak before pulling a vacuum on the system
11. R-123
12. 125°F or 51°C
13. R-22
14. R-123
before performing maintenance, service or repair that could reasonably be expected to release Class
15. 1 or Class 2 refrigerants into the atmosphere
17. phosgene gas
18. goggles and gloves
before performing maintenance, service or repair that could reasonably be expected to release Class
19. 1 or Class 2 refrigerants into the atmosphere
20. R-12.
21. intentionally venting class I or II refrigerants to the atmosphere
23. $25,000
As shown in the illustrated LP centrifugal chiller high efficiency purge recovery unit piping schematic,
what statement is true concerning the vacuum pump?
1. 2
1. The vacuum pump is designed to perform a dehydration evacuation on the system prior to
charging with refrigerant.
2. The vacuum pump is designed to remove air and non-condensable gases from the evaporator and
transfer these gases to the carbon filter tank for eventual venting to the atmosphere.
3. The vacuum pump is designed to remove refrigerant vapor from the carbon filter tank and
transfer these vapors to the purge chamber to blow the float valve clear.
4. The vacuum pump is designed to remove refrigerant vapor from the carbon filter tank and
transfer these vapors to the evaporator to minimize the loss of refrigerant to the atmosphere.
Answer Key
The vacuum pump is designed to remove refrigerant vapor from the carbon filter tank and transfer these
1.
vapors to the evaporator to minimize the loss of refrigerant to the atmosphere.
Charging liquid HCFC-123 into a system under a deep vacuum could cause what to happen unless necessary precautions are taken?
1. rupture disk to rupture

1. 1
2. air and moisture to enter the receiver
3. system secondary refrigerant to freeze
4. the purge unit to operate
What is the maximum volume to which refillable refrigeration cylinders should be filled?
1. 60% full
2. 2
2. 70% full
3. 80% full
4. 90% full
After the refrigerant has been recovered, leaks repaired if necessary, the system ideally should undergo a dehydration evacuation prior to
recharging with refrigerant. As shown in the illustration, besides the vacuum pump suction manifold isolation valve being opened, what would
be the proper valve positions to accomplish and prove the evacuation?
3. 2
1. Valves 1, 2, and 3 should be back seated and both gauge manifold hand valves should be open.
2. Valves 1, 2, and 3 should be front seated and both gauge manifold hand valves should be closed.
3. Valves 1, 2, and 3 should be in the mid-position and the low-side gauge manifold hand valve should be open, and the high-side gauge
manifold hand valve should be closed.
4. Valves 1, 2, and should be in the mid-position and the low-side gauge manifold hand valve should be closed, and the high-side gauge
manifold hand valve should be open.
If passive recovery is used on a small appliance fitted with a capillary tube as a metering device with a non-operating compressor, the recovery
should be made through what means?
4. 1. recovery from both the high and low sides 2

2. by venting to atmosphere, cannot be recovered
3. recovery from the high side only
4. recovery from the low side only
5. Which of the valves listed is normally closed when charging the refrigeration system through the high side? 1
1. Dehydrator inlet valve

2. Thermal expansion valve
3. Liquid line king valve
4. Suction line valve
Concerning the arrangement of equipment and associated hoses shown in the illustration, what statement is true?
6. 2
1. when recovering refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller using this method, it is permissible to exceed 90% of the weight capacity of the
refrigerant drum.
2. When recovering refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller using this method, it minimizes the risk of chiller tube freeze up.
3. When recovering refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller using this method, it is possible to achieve the recovery levels required by law
without any further recovery.
4. When recovering refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller using this method, the vent hose connection should be closed.
When the test is carried out to find a leak in an evaporator coil, it is important to remember that ___.
1. The flame will turn blue in the presence of a refrigerant.

7. 1
2. A large flame is more sensitive than a small flame.
3. The refrigerant is heavier than air and will be detected below the leak.
Concerning the charging of refrigerant into a vapor compression refrigerating system, which of the following is true?
1. when charging as a liquid it should be to the high side only

8. 2
2. when charging as a liquid it should be to the low side only
3. when charging as a vapor it should be directly to the receiver only
4. when charging as a liquid it may be to the low or highside
The charging of a refrigerating system should be carried out by adding ____.
1. Refrigerant vapor to the receiver only

9. 1
2. Liquid refrigerant to the low side only
3. Liquid refrigerant to the high side only
4. Liquid refrigerant to the high or low side.
When a refrigeration system is being topped off with a small amount of refrigerant through the low side with the compressor running, what
should be done?
10. 1. the discharge service valve must be front seated 1

2. the refrigerant charging cylinder should be turned upside down
3. the refrigerant should be charged into the system as a vapor
4. the suction service valve must be back seated
When using nitrogen to pressure leak test a system , the nitrogen cylinder should always be equipped with what device or feature?
1. temperature indicator
11. 2
2. pressure regulator
3. blue top
4. level indicator
12. A refrigeration unit will tend to short-cycle when operating under what conditions? 2
1. under heavy loads

2. during starting conditions
3. lack of refrigerant
4. during hot gas defrost
Using the device shown in the illustration, which of the following statements is true when adding refrigerant as a vapor to the low side of the
refrigeration system?
13. 2
1. The hose labeled "K" should be connected to the suction service valve service port, the hose labeled "J" should be connected to the vapor
valve on the refrigerant cylinder and the valve labeled "C" should be closed.
2. The hose labeled "K" should be connected to the suction service valve service port, the hose labeled "J" should be connected to the vapor
valve on the refrigerant cylinder and the valve labeled "C" should be open.
3. The hose labeled "H" should be connected to the suction service valve service port, the hose labeled "J" should be connected to the vapor
valve on the refrigerant cylinder and the valve labeled "G" should be closed.
4. The hose labeled "H" should be connected to the suction service valve service port, the hose labeled "J" should be connected to the vapor
valve on the refrigerant cylinder and the valve labeled "G" should be open.
The dehydrator on a freon 12 system is cut in ______.
1. When charging the system to remove the moisture.

14. 1
2. During normal operation.
3. When the unit is put into storage.
4. None of the above.
15. Overfilling a refrigerant container is extremely dangerous because of the high pressures generated. The generation of pressure is the result of 2
what?
1. discharge pressure from the recovery cylinder

2. vapor pressure of the refrigerant at saturation temperature
3. hydrostatic pressure of the expanding liquid
4. discharge pressure of the recovery compressor
What must be done, at a minimum, before a system can legally be opened up for repairs while adhering to the prohibition against the venting
of halogenated fluorocarbon refrigerants to the atmosphere?
16. 1. destruction of the refrigerant 1

2. recovery of the refrigerant
3. reclamation of the refrigerant
4. recycling of the refrigerant
What is the color of the flame produced by a halide torch when there is no refrigerant present?
1. Orange.
17. 2
2. Blue.
3. Red.
4. Green.
A high-pressure centrifugal chiller currently charged with R-134a is being evaluated for the need for leak testing. Using the leak test procedures
decision tree illustrated and the R-134a pressure-temperature chart illustrated, with the machine idle and the pressures equalized at 10 psig
with an ambient temperature of 60°F, what statement is true?
18. 2
1. The machine has a suspected leak; therefore nitrogen should be added to bring the pressure to 70 psig prior to checking for leaks.
2. The machine has a suspected leak; therefore the refrigerant pressure should be raised to 35 psig by adding refrigerant prior to checking
for leaks.
3. The machine definitely does not have a leak; therefore no attempt at leak detection is necessary.
4. The machine may or may not have a leak; therefore the machine should be checked for leaks without any adjustments in pressure.
If you overcharge a refrigeration system with refrigerant, one result will be _______.
1. Low suction pressure.

19. 2
2. High compressor head pressure.
3. Increased system operating efficiency.
4. Short cycling on the low pressure cutout.
20. An indication of too much freon in the system is _______. 1

1. When the safety valve lifts repeatedly.

2. When the unit runs for prolonged periods without stopping.
3. When the unit runs in short cycles.
4. When the compressor absorbs oil in its crankcase.
After detecting and repairing a leak in the freon-12 system, you should ______.
1. Continue checking for additional leaks.

21. 1
2. By-pass the receiver.
3. Recharge the unit with Freon.
4. Test run the unit.
When you find a small refrigerant leak with a halide torch, the color of the torch flame will be _______.
1. Orange.
22. 2
2. Blue.
3. White.
4. Green.
The best way to determine the amount of freon added to a system when charging is to _______.
1. Weigh the cylinder.

23. 2
2. Look at the "bull's eye."
3. Feel the suction line and run the system intermittently.
4. Open the purge valve.
Before charging a refrigeration unit, unless quick disconnect fittings are used, the refrigerant charging hoses should be prepared in what way?
1. they should be cleaned with carbon tetrachloride

24. 1
2. they should be purged with refrigerant
3. they should be flushed with clean refrigerant oil
4. they should be warmed in an oven
What is the correct color-coding of refrigerant recovery cylinders regardless of the refrigerant contained within?
1. light blue top and yellow lower body

25. 2
2. yellow top and gray body
3. gray top and light blue lower body
4. gray top and yellow lower body
The most cost-effective method of recovering refrigerant from a low-pressure chiller with more than 500 lbs of refrigerant and to meet EPA
requirements is to recover the refrigerant using what protocol?
26. 1. recovery using a vacuum pump based vapor recovery machine only 1
2. vapor recovery using a vacuum pump based recovery unit followed by liquid recovery using a liquid pump
3. recovering using a liquid pump only
4. liquid recovery using a liquid pump, followed by vapor recovery using a vacuum pump based recovery unit
Which of the valves listed is normally closed when charging the refrigeration system through the high side?

27. 1
Which of the following statements is correct concerning the testing of an R-22 refrigeration system for leaks in an enclosed compartment with a
halide torch?
28. 1. The flame of a halide torch will tum blue in the presence of R-22. 1
2. Halide torches are not sultable for detecting R-22 leaks.
3. Halide torches are useful in locating very small R-22 leaks.
4. To gain sensitivity, the largest possible flame should be used with the halide torch.
Charging liquid HCFC-123 into a system under a deep vacuum could cause what to happen unless necessary precautions are taken?
1. the purge unit to operate

29. 1
2. air and moisture to enter the receiver
4. rupture disk to rupture
What refrigerant is used in the refrigerating plant?
1. R404 A
30. 2. R-12 2
3. ammonia
4. R-22
Which of the valves listed is normally closed when charging the refrigeration system through the high side?

31. 2
To add small amounts of refrigerant to the low side of an air conditioning system, the refrigerant should be introduced through a particular valve
and in a particular state. What valve and state combination is correct?
32. 1. discharge service valve as a vapor 1

2. suction service valve as a vapor
3. discharge service valve as a liquid
4. suction service valve as a liquid
In a refrigeration system, the push-pull technique can be used for the recovery of the refrigerant in what state?
1. liquid only
33. 1
2. vapor only
3. both liquid and vapor
4. should never be used with low-pressure systems
To add refrigerant to the high side of an air conditioning system, you should close the king valve and introduce the refrigerant through what
valve in what state?
34. 1. discharge service valve as a vapor 1

2. charging valve as a liquid
4. condenser purge valve as a vapor

Answer Key

2. 80% full
Valves 1, 2, and should be in the mid-position and the low-side gauge manifold hand valve should be closed, and the high-side gauge manifold
3.
hand valve should be open.
4. recovery from both the high and low sides
6. When recovering refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller using this method, it minimizes the risk of chiller tube freeze up.
7. The refrigerant is heavier than air and will be detected below the leak.
8. when charging as a liquid it should be to the high side only
9. Liquid refrigerant to the high side only
10. the refrigerant should be charged into the system as a vapor
11. pressure regulator
12. lack of refrigerant
The hose labeled "H" should be connected to the suction service valve service port, the hose labeled "J" should be connected to the vapor valve
13.
on the refrigerant cylinder and the valve labeled "G" should be open.
15. hydrostatic pressure of the expanding liquid
16. recovery of the refrigerant
17. Blue.
The machine has a suspected leak; therefore the refrigerant pressure should be raised to 35 psig by adding refrigerant prior to checking for
18.
leaks.
20. When the unit runs in short cycles.
21. Continue checking for additional leaks.
22. Green.
23. Weigh the cylinder.
24. they should be purged with refrigerant
25. yellow top and gray body
26. liquid recovery using a liquid pump, followed by vapor recovery using a vacuum pump based recovery unit
28. Halide torches are useful in locating very small R-22 leaks.
30. R404 A
33. both liquid and vapor
The gas that exists in the stratosphere forming a protective shield that helps to protect the
environment from the harmful effects ultraviolet radiation is called what?
1. 1. nitrogen 1
2. ozone
3. oxygen
4. radon
Answer Key
1. ozone
The FIRST thing to do to ensure that a refrigeration unit will not start before carrying out repairs, is
to _________.
1. 1. Inform all engineers. 1

2. Place a crowbar in the flywheel of the unit.
3. Secure and tag electrical circuit.
4. Make a log book entry
Answer Key
1. Secure and tag electrical circuit.
Alkyl benzene ISO 32 cSt synthetic refrigerant oil is miscible and suitable to use with which of the
following refrigerants?
1. 1. R-22 1
2. R-32
3. R-134a
4. R-143a
Answer Key
1. R-22
Refrigerated control air dryer employ two heat exchangers. In the first heat exchanger, the cold
outgoing air cools down the hot incoming air which helps in :
1. 1. Reduces the required refrigerant charge. 1

2. Reduced maintenance cost.
3. Reducing the size of required compressor.
4. Reduces required piping.
What is the ill effect of moisture in control air on control instruments and air logic devices?
1. Damages which can not be rectified.

2. 1
2. Clogging of connecting pipes.
3. Malfunction and high maintenance.
4. High cost of renewal.
What is the common refrigerant gas used in control air dryers up to 100 cfm?
1. Freon-12
3. 1
2. Freon-22
3. R-134a and R-410a
4. Freon-11
What is the dew point of control air delivered from a regenerative desiccant dryer?
1. −10°C
4. 1
2. −20°C
3. between −40°C and −73°C
4. −30°C
What is the most common type of control air dryer used on ships ?
1. Deliquescent dryer.
5. 1
2. Coalescing type
3. Refrigerated control air dryer.
4. Desiccant
What is the primary disadvantage of refrigerant type control air dryer?
1. High maintenance cost.

6. 1
2. Frequent recharge of refrigerant.
3. Limited dew point capability.
4. High initial capital cost.
7. The remaining oil content of typical refrigerated control air dryer is 6 mg/m3. With addition of 1
internal cold coalescing filter, the remaining oil content can be reduced to as low as :
1. 0.8 mg/m3
2. 0.5 mg/m3
3. 0.008 mg/m3
4. 8 mg/m3
What is the main purpose of control air dryer?
1. To reduce the temperature of control air.

8. 1
2. To remove dirt.
3. To remove water present in control air.
4. To prolong renewal of filters.
In refrigerated control air dryer, the liquid CFC is maintained at a pressure allowing the CFC liquid to
boil at :
9. 1. 30°C 1
2. 15°C
3. 3°C
4. 20°C
What is the dew point of control air delivered from a refrigerated air dryer?
1. 10°C
10. 1
2. 20°C
3. 2°C
4. 5°C
Answer Key
1. Reducing the size of required compressor.

2. Malfunction and high maintenance.
3. R-134a and R-410a
4. between −40°C and −73°C
5. Refrigerated control air dryer.
6. Limited dew point capability.
7. 0.008 mg/m3
8. To remove water present in control air.
9. 3°C
10. 2°C
Piping cross-sections over 30 cm in diameter are sized by the___.
1. Inside diameter
1. 1
2. Wall thickness
3. Outside diameter
4. Threaded diameter
(a) Why is the Flow Pressure, flow Rate and flow Velocity important for shipboard pumping ?
Discuss the effects of such properties on pump design and efficiency.
2. (b) What are the key pump piping pitfalls that you should avoid or be concerned about, when 10
installing a pumping system?
Answer Key
1. Outside diameter
2. (a)
Efficiency
Proper piping material selection and system design controls the flow rate and velocity in a way
that minimizes energy costs. Reasons for this:
Faster fluid translates to greater friction loss, increasing stress on pumps. More energy will be
consumed and larger pumps may be needed.
Certain materials, such as metals, will corrode more quickly at high speeds. Corroded
materials are less smooth and thus create more friction loss.
Reliability and Service Life

Decreasing the velocity of fluid in a piping system not only improves efficiency but can also reduce
the likelihood of pipe damage. Fast moving fluid creates a potential liability to the dependability and
service life of metallic piping system:
Because higher fluid velocity can promote corrosion, piping may need to be repaired or
replaced sooner than expected.
Similarly, piping worn by abrasives and erosion may cause premature failure.
At bends and turns, fast moving fluid can damage the system and lead to pitting and
other problems.
Hydraulic shock, or water hammer occurs from a sudden change fluid velocity, and the
related surge pressure is more devastating at higher speeds.
In general, higher fluid velocities result in worse efficiency—increasing energy expenses—and lessen
system reliability—as damage to the pipe becomes more likely.
(b)
Pump piping design is sometimes overlooked when setting up new installations. The focus is more on
the equipment than the pipes that supply it. However, when installed with inappropriate piping
arrangements, pumps can experience premature and repeated failures during the life of the pump.
Maintenance teams will regularly repair the pump, effectively treating the symptom instead of the true
problem.
After carefully selecting the right size and materials, make sure the new pump is set up for success
with proper installation. Setting the base correctly and aligning the pump is crucial. It’s also
extremely important that piping to the pump is done properly. Piping design is an area where basic
principles are frequently ignored, resulting in increased vibration and premature failure of the seals
and bearings. Incorrect piping has long been disregarded as a reason for these failures because of
the many other reasons this equipment can fail.
Following these 6 simple rules, you can avoid premature pump failure and related pump piping pitfalls.
1. Keep Suction Piping as Short as possible: Include a straight run pipe length equal to 5 to 10
times the pipe diameter between the pump inlet and any obstruction in the suction line. Note:
Obstructions include valves, elbows, "tees", and etc. Keeping the pump suction piping short ensures
that the inlet pressure drop is as low as possible. The straight run pipe gives you a uniform velocity
across the pipe diameter at the pump inlet. Both are important to achieving optimal suction.

2. Pipe Diameter on Suction side should be Equal or One Size Larger than Pump Inlet
Pipe sizing is a balancing act between cost and friction loss. Larger pipes cost more, and weighs
more; whereas smaller pipes impose greater friction losses on the system. In terms of diameter,
discharge pipe diameter should normally match the discharge flange on the pump but can be larger
to reduce friction losses and decrease system pressure. On the suction side, the diameter can be the
same size, but oftentimes selected a size or two bigger, thus requiring an eccentric reducer. Larger
suction piping on the suction side is usually preferred if the liquid viscosity is greater than water.
This also helps produce an even flow to the pump and avoid cavitation.
3. Use Eccentric Reducers on the Suction Side

Consider using eccentric reducers on the suction side of the pump when a pipe size transition is
required. Install the flat side of the reducer on the top when fluid is coming from below the pump. If
the fluid comes from the top, the flat portion of the reducer should be mounted on the bottom of the
pipe. The flat portion is designed to discourage an air pocket from forming at the pump suction.
4. Eliminate Elbows Mounted on or Close to the Inlet Nozzle of the Pump

Include 5 to 10 pipe diameters of straight run pipe between the pump inlet and elbow. This helps to
eliminate the "side loading" of the pump impeller and creates uniform pump axial bearing loading.
5. Eliminate Potential for Air Entrapment in The Suction Piping
Maintain adequate levels in supply tanks to eliminate vortices from forming and air entrapment.
Avoid high pockets in suction piping, which can trap air
Keep all pipe and fitting connections tight in suction vacuum conditions to prevent air from
getting into the pump.
6. Ensure the Piping Arrangement does not cause Strain on the Pump Casing
Pumps should never support the suction or discharge piping. Any stress on the pump casing by the
piping system greatly reduces pump life and performance.
Keep in mind that increasing the performance of the pump will help to make up for piping mistakes
made on the discharge side of a pump. Problems on the suction side, however, can be the source of
repetitive failures, which could cause problems for years to come if not addressed appropriately.
Suction side piping problems cause the majority of pump issues.
When the axis of the pinion gear is parallel to the center of,the bevel gear, similar to right angle drive
gear shown in the,illustration, the drive would be identified as a __________.
1. 1. hypoid type 1
2. spiral bevel type
3. zerol type
4. straight-tooth bevel type
Answer Key
1. spiral bevel type
Name the two types of rotodynamic pumps.
1. 1
1. Axial flow and flow pumps
2. Reciprocating and rotary pumps
What is the difference between the centrifugal and positive displacement pump?
1. Positive displacement pump moves fluid at the same speed regardless there is pressure at the
inlet, whereas centrifugal pump will require the priming pump
2. 1
2. PDP discharge length is higher than CP
3. PDP generates higher pressure than CP
4. volume of discharge is more with PDP than CP
Answer Key
1. Axial flow and flow pumps

Positive displacement pump moves fluid at the same speed regardless there is pressure at the inlet,
2.
whereas centrifugal pump will require the priming pump
Which of the following methods applies to how a vacuum is created by a jet pump or an eductor?
1. Centrifugal force,converted into potential,energy.

1. 1
2. A reciprocating plunger,directly applying force to,a fluid.
3. A rapidly moving,stream of fluid passing,through a nozzle.
4. A propeller drawing a,fluid through a Venturi,nozzle.
The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber, and the __________ .
1. injector
2. 1
2. compressor
3. diffuser
4. siphon
The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the __________ .
1. total head
3. 2. discharge head 1
3. net positive suction head
4. suction head
A pump is defined as a device that __________ .
1. produces pressure
4. 2. imparts energy to a,fluid to move it from,point "A" to point "B" 1
3. creates a vacuum to,move a liquid in all,installations
4. is to develop a pressure,differential
Explain the basic function of a displacement pump
5. 1. The liquid is displaced from suction to discharge point by mechanical variation in the volume 1
of pump chamber
2. Flow through the pump is induced by rotation of impeller.
The static positive suction head of a pump is the
1. distance of the suction,liquid level above the,center line of the,pump

6. 2. distance the suction,liquid level is below the,center line of the pump 1
3. force necessary to,overcome frictional,losses in the pump and,piping
4. amount in inches of,mercury the total suction,head is below,atmospheric pressure
The static positive suction head of a pump is the:--
1. Force necessary to overcome frictional losses in the pump and piping.

7. 1
2. Distance of the suction liquid level below the center line of the pumps.
3. Vertical distance from the centerline of the pump to the free level of liquid to be pumped.
4. Amount in inches of mercury the total suction head is below atmospheric pressure.
8. If the existing vapor pressure is subtracted from the indicated pressure at the pump suction, the 1
remainder is the
1. pump head
2. total suction head
3. discharge head
4. apparent net positive suction head
The static suction lift of a pump is the difference in elevation between the __________ .
1. centerline of the pump and the level of the liquid in the suction well when the source of liquid is
below the pump
9. 1
2. centerline of the pump and the suction liquid level when the source of liquid is above the pump
3. centerline of the pump and the level of the discharge liquid
4. liquid levels of the suction and discharge
Devices which utilize the rapid flow of a fluid to entrain, another fluid and thereby move it from one
place to another,are called__________ .
10. 1. mixed flow pumps 1

2. jet pumps
3. volute pumps
4. centrifugal pumps
Which type of pump would normally be used to transfer fairly,large quantities of fluids at relatively
low pressures?
1. propeller type
11. 1
2. reciprocating type
3. gear type
4. screw type
Which of the listed types of pumps is NOT likely to be,installed in a main drainage or evacuation
system?
1. Reciprocating pump
12. 1
2. Centrifugal pump
3. High pitch rotary vane pump
4. Eductor pump
Pump efficiency may be lost as a result of __________ .
1. air entering the pump,through a pin hole leak,in the discharge,manifold

13. 2. a leak in a gasket on,the suction side of the,pump 1
3. the suction valve in the,wide open position
4. the pump being installed,too close to the suction,tank
Which of the listed pumps is NOT a positive displacement,pump?
1. Centrifugal
14. 2. Reciprocating 1
3. Gear
4. Rotary
What is the function of a pump?
15. 1
1. Remove heat from the liquid
2. Add energy to the liquid
16. A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the __________ . 1
1. discharge end being,smaller than the suction,end

2. small size of impeller
3. lack of moving parts
4. ease at which the,wearing rings may be,changed
Which of the following conditions will prevent a shipboard,pump from achieving its maximum
suction lift?
1. Leaks developed in the,suction piping.

17. 1
2. Friction losses as a,result of improperly,sized pipe.
3. Gases or vapors,released in the liquid as,a result of greater than,normal pressure drops.
Answer Key
1. A rapidly moving,stream of fluid passing,through a nozzle.

2. diffuser
3. discharge head
4. imparts energy to a,fluid to move it from,point "A" to point "B"
The liquid is displaced from suction to discharge point by mechanical variation in the volume of pump
5. chamber
7. Vertical distance from the centerline of the pump to the free level of liquid to be pumped.
centerline of the pump and the level of the liquid in the suction well when the source of liquid is below
9.
the pump
10. jet pumps
11. propeller type
13. a leak in a gasket on,the suction side of the,pump
14. Centrifugal
15. Add energy to the liquid
16. lack of moving parts
The main disadvantage of a reciprocating pump over a Gear pump is that:
1. A gear pump is self priming while a reciprocating pump is not

2. Discharge of a gear pump is not affected by the direction of rotation while that of
1. 2
reciprocating pump is reversed
3. The discharge of reciprocating pump is pulsating and discharge rate is lesser.
4. Reciprocating pumps are only available in high capacities and for smaller capacities only gear
pumps can be used.
When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the packing is cut square,
installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the butted ends __________ .
1. 45° apart
2. 1
2. 90° apart
3. 120° apart
4. 180° apart
Sketch and describe a positive displacement pump where the fluid is displaced by the movement of
piston. Why is such pump chosen for bilge pumping duties? Explain the working principle of a
3. double acting reciprocating pump . State , 10
(a) why these pumps should not be started with the discharge valve closed and,
(b) the purpose of accumulators fitted at the discharge in these pumps
The function of an accumulator on the discharge side of a reciprocating pump is to:
1. Supply liquid even when the pump is not running

4. 2
2. Increase the discharge pressure by storing liquid under pressure
3. Reduce the pressure pulses.
4. No such device is required to be fitted to modern bilge pumps.
Answer Key
1. The discharge of reciprocating pump is pulsating and discharge rate is lesser.

2. 90° apart
3.
4. Reduce the pressure pulses.
In the diagram given below, “X” represents __________.
1. 1
1. Discharge Pipe
2. Suction Pipe (Inlet)
3. Liquid Cylinder
4. None of these above
priming?
1. Reciprocating
2. 1
2. Centrifugal
3. Rotary
4. Gear
To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a reciprocating pump, you should
__________ .
1. use a packing hook

3. 1
2. open the throttle valve and 'blow' the old packing out
3. do nothing, as this type of pump utilizes O-rings in lieu of packing
4. open the steam chest and pry the packing loose with a scraper
Which of the listed pumps, is fitted with a relief valve on its discharge side?
1. Bilge pump
4. 2. Ballast pump 1
3. General service pump
4. All of the above
5. What does “V” indicate in the illustration given below? 1
1. Cylinder barrel
2. Liquid cylinder
3. Cylinder block
4. Piston
In a reciprocating pump, the position of the pilot valve is,controlled by the position of the __________
.
1. main steam piston valve

6. 1
2. piston in the steam cylinder
3. cushioning valve
4. governor valve spindle
Which of the listed devices is used to control the admission,of steam to the steam cylinder of a
reciprocating pump?
1. Valve operating differential

7. 1
2. Crosshead arm
3. Pump rod
4. Pilot valve and operating rod
When replacing packing rings in the stuffing boxes of reciprocating pump piston rods, the ends of the
rings should be cut __________ .
1. square
8. 1
2. beveled
3. step-designed
4. diagonal
9. Which of the following statements represents the advantage,of rotary pumps as compared to 1
reciprocating pumps?
1. The high discharge,pressure of the rotary,pumps permits a larger,volume of fluid per unit,time
than the,reciprocating pump.
3. Rotary pumps occupy,only one-half the space,of reciprocating pumps.
4. Rotary pumps eliminate,discharge slippage of,the pumped liquid, while,this does not hold
true,for a reciprocating,pump.
What does item “VIII” refer to the illustration given below?
10. 1
1. Rubber Packing
2. Piston Rod Packing
3. Labyainth Packing
The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can,be adjusted by __________ .
1. increasing or decreasing,the number of packing,rings around the piston,rod

11. 2. variations in the throttle adjustment 1
3. twisting the stay rod in a clockwise direction
4. changing the setting of,the tappet collars on,the pilot valve,operating rod
Which of the following statements is true regarding,mechanical seals?
12. 1
13. What are the important operating features of positive displacement pumps?
2
14. From the illustration given below, identify the name of the marking “III”. 1
1. Discharge check valve

2. Suction check valve
3. Valve plate
4. Safety valve

16. What is the purpose of relief valve in a positive displacement pump?

2
17. Which number represents the "Valve" in the illustration given below? 1
1. II
2. IV
3. III
4. I
Which of the following valve arrangements permits the,reciprocating pump liquid piston to take
suction from the,suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the,discharge chamber during
the up and down strokes?
18. 1. Two sets of suction and,discharge valves in the,liquid cylinder. 1

2. Two sets of valves,,one set each for,suction and discharge,located in the water,chest.
3. One set of valves in the,water chest and another,set in the liquid cylinder.
4. Two relief valves, one on,each of the liquid,cylinder.
19. Why do you need accumulators in a reciprocating pump?

2
If you determine that a steam reciprocating pump is,operating with too long of a stroke, causing the
piston nut to,strike the cylinder head, you should __________ .
1. completely open the steam cushioning valves

20. 1
2. install a smaller nut on the piston rod
3. adjust the valve gear,to manufacturer's,specified,measurements
4. install a shorter piston rod
What is a reversible gear pump?
21. 1
1. A gear pump that has pumping action in both directions
2. A pump which has one suction and one delivery valve
Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be avoided on bronze or
brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?
1. Heat transfer is restricted.

22. 1
2. Scoring may result.
3. Valve seat will be damaged.
4. Bonnet corrosion may result.
23. What does “I” indicate in the diagram given below? 1
1. Suction Pipe
2. Discharge Pipe (Outlet)
3. Connection For Drain Pipe
4. Oil Pipe

which letter represent the “ Air vessel” in the illustration below?
25. 1
1. E
2. F
3. G
4. H
26. which letter represents the suction valve of the illustration below? 1
1. A and B
2. B and D
3. E and F
4. D and F
Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex,reciprocating pump will cause the
__________ .
1. pump to short stroke,continuously at both,ends of the stroke for,both cylinders

27. 1
2. pistons to stop in mid- stroke
3. pump to operate sluggishly
4. cushioning valves to wear
When piston rod packing persists in leaking on a,reciprocating steam pump, the cause may be
__________ .
1. a loose tappet collar

28. 1
2. clogged suction strainers
3. an open snifter valve
4. misalignment of the crosshead guide
What is the purpose of sleeve in pump shaft?
1. Increases pump output.

29. 2
2. Less power consumption.
3. Protects shaft from corrosion.
4. Reduces pump speed.
30. Which of the following is NOT an identifiable characteristic of a steam reciprocating pump?
1
1. Direct-acting
2. Diffuser
3. High-pressure
4. Vertical
What does “II” stand for in the image given below?
31. 1
1. Suction Manifold
2. Discharge Manifold
Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam,reciprocating pump from delivering its rated
capacity?
1. Excessive suction lift

32. 1
2. Air trapped in the,discharge expansion,chamber
3. A leaking snifter valve,allowing air to enter the,suction side of the pump
4. All of the above
The steam supplied to operate a steam driven reciprocating,pump is usually obtained from the
__________ .
1. desuperheated steam,line via a reducing,station

33. 1
2. auxiliary exhaust line
3. main steam line via a reducing station
4. contaminated steam generator

34. 2. grease cups 1
The suction-force principle of operation is a typical,characteristic of__________ .
1. centrifugal pumps
35. 2. jet pumps 1
3. propeller pumps
4. reciprocating pumps
36. What does figure “VI” represent? 1
1. Motor shaft
2. Turbine shaft
3. Piston rod
4. Thrust shaft
The first step when resetting the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to __________ .
1. position the steam pistons on 3/4 stroke

37. 2. ensure the balance piston is on the down stroke 1
3. place the steam pistons in the mid stroke position
4. measure the present port openings to ensure reassembly will be the same
38. The area indicated by the number “VII” is known as the _______________. 1
1. Suction Manifold
2. Discharge Pipe
3. Motion
4. Piston Rod

Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the,position of the pilot slide valve?
1. Moving tappets
40. 2. Adjusting of the tappet collars 1
3. Stay rods
4. Movement of the main,piston through the,steam cylinder
In the below diagram the part “XI” indicates ____________.
41. 1
1. Discharge Pipe
4. Suction Manifold
What is the most common type of gear used in a gear pump?
42. 1
1. Timing gear
2. Spur gear
conditions?
1. type of pump
43. 1
4. all of the above
44. Spring reinforced oil seals are generally installed with the tail or lip of the seal facing __________ .
1

2. toward the bearing preload washer
Which number represents the "Plunger" in the illustration given below?
45. 1
1. IV
2. I
3. II
4. III
What does “V” indicate in the illustration given below?
46. 1
1. Suction (Inlet)
3. Discharge (Outlet)
47. What is “IV” showing in the figure given below? 1
3. Suction (Inlet)
What is “IV” showing in the figure given below?
48. 1
1. Piston Packing
2. Liquid Cylinder
3. Labyainth Packing
4. Rubber Packing
49. Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or highly flammable 1

The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump,can be changed only by __________ .
1. changing the angle of the tilting plate

50. 2. changing the speed of the pump 1
3. moving the slide block and rotor
4. moving the shaft trunnion block
Answer Key
1. Liquid Cylinder
2. Centrifugal
3. use a packing hook
5. Piston
6. piston in the steam cylinder
7. Pilot valve and operating rod
8. square
10. Piston Rod Packing
11. changing the setting of,the tappet collars on,the pilot valve,operating rod
Self-priming
Output is directly proportional to speed
Output is marginally reduced at increased pressure
13. Develops a discharge pressure equal to the resistance
Capable of handling high suction lifts
Handles large amounts of vapour or entrained gases

A relief valve releases the excess pressure at the discharge side to the suction side, when the
16.
pressure increases above the set limit. This prevents the failure of pump casing.
17. III
Accumulators reduce the pulsations in the discharge. Accumulators store pressure energy during the
19. high pressure stroke and release this energy to the system during the low pressure part of the stroke.
Accumulator is a container with air or an air bag or spring loaded device.
20. adjust the valve gear,to manufacturer's,specified,measurements
21. A gear pump that has pumping action in both directions
22. Scoring may result.
25. H
26. B and D
27. pump to operate sluggishly
28. misalignment of the crosshead guide
29. Protects shaft from corrosion.
30. Diffuser
33. desuperheated steam,line via a reducing,station
35. reciprocating pumps
36. Piston rod
37. place the steam pistons in the mid stroke position

38. Motion
40. Movement of the main,piston through the,steam cylinder
42. Spur gear
43. all of the above
45. II
47. Suction (Inlet)
48. Piston Packing
50. changing the speed of the pump
The difference between the discharges of a centrifugal pump and a reciprocating pump is that the
discharge of a centrifugal pump is _________ and discharge of reciprocating pump is _______:
1. 1. Turbulent, and Laminar 1

2. Intermittent, and continuous
3. Continuous, and pulsating.
4. Pulsating, and continuous
Answer Key
1. Continuous, and pulsating.
What are the two types of rotodynamic pumps?
2. 1
1. Rotary and reciprocating pumps

1. total head
4. suction head
below the pump
5. 1
What is the other name for axial flow pumps?
6. 1
1. Propeller pumps
2. Centrifugal pumps
If the existing vapor pressure is subtracted from the indicated pressure at the pump suction, the
remainder is the
1. pump head
7. 1
3. discharge head
suction lift?

8. 1
9. Which of the listed types of pumps is NOT likely to be,installed in a main drainage or evacuation 1
system?
2. Centrifugal pump
4. Eductor pump
low pressures?
1. propeller type
10. 1
3. gear type
4. screw type
1. Centrifugal
3. Gear
4. Rotary

Answer Key

4. discharge head
5.
the pump
6. Propeller pumps
10. propeller type
11. Centrifugal
A high-pressure differential in a main engine fuel oil filter onboard can be best reduced by:
1. Adjusting the pressure relief valve.

1. 1
2. Stopping the main engine to change the fuel pump.
3. Changing over to stand by filter if provided.
4. Stopping the fuel oil purifier.
Answer Key
1. Changing over to stand by filter if provided.
How is the Auto clean filter operated to clean?
1. By compressed air.
1. 1
2. Opening the drain plug.
3. Rotating the central spindle.
4. Venting the filter.
Answer Key
1. Rotating the central spindle.
A sea chest filter has to be cleaned. Which one of the following best practice is followed prior opening
the filter?
1. Close inlet & outlet valves of the standby filter.

1. 2
2. Put both filters into use.
3. Put the other sea chest filter into use, isolate the filter to be cleaned by closing inlet and outlet
valves and depressurize the filter.
4. Start standby sea water pump.
Answer Key
Put the other sea chest filter into use, isolate the filter to be cleaned by closing inlet and outlet valves
1.
and depressurize the filter.
Safety in Ballasting Procedures: which of the below statement is not the reason for the damaged
cargo?
1. The ballasting operation resulted in the unexpected flooding of a cargo hold causing extensive
damage to the cargo.
1. 2
2. On arrival port, it was observed that one of her holds had significant water inside and
considerable damage to cargo stowed at the bottom of the hold.
3. After the incident it was noted that the high-level bilge alarms in the hold were not
functioning and that was the primary cause of the damage.
4. The vessel had opened up several manhole covers for routine inspection of her ballast tanks.
2. Ballasting system: Automatic remote-control operation of the ship's ballast system: 2
Select the correct Column:
X Y Z N
C Control
Console Power
Unit Control
Console Actuator
D Power
Unit Control
Console Power
Unit Control
Console
E Actuator Solenoid
V/V Solenoid
V/V Power
Unit
cabinet cabinet
F Solenoid
V/V Actuator Actuator Solenoid
V/V cabinet
cabinet
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. N
Ballasting procedures: An effective Ballast Water Management Plan will minimize the risk of
transferring harmful aquatic organisms and pathogens from the ships' ballast water and associated
sediments, while maintaining ship safety. The IMO guidelines state that the record book should:
Identify one statement that is incorrect.
1. be paper, electronic; stand-alone or incorporated into another record book or system

2. record all ballast operations in the working language of the ship (or English, French or
3. 2
Spanish if this not the working language)
3. record all circumstances and reasons for any accidental discharge or exceptional discharge of
water
4. have each entry signed by the Officer in charge of the operation and each page. signed by the
Master
5. be readily available for inspection at all times
6. be maintained on board for four years.
Safety in Ballasting Procedures: Pick the most important 3 of the following recommendations by
their ranking from most important to less important from the following:
A. Careful investigation reveals poorly secured manhole covers are still a frequent cause of water
ingress into holds,
B. Many, but not all, arising after drydocking where shore staff have not secured covers properly.
C. If double bottom manhole covers are removed for whatever purpose, it is recommended a note
be made of where and when, this not only acts as an aide memoire (memory aid), but also helps in
defending claims should water ingress occur.
D. Good maintenance should also be in place, the manhole covers/gasket arrangement and like
4. should be routinely checked 2
E. Hold high-level bilge alarms should be tested on a regular basis, logged and defects, if any,
rectified immediately.
1. C, E and D
2. C, D and E
3. A, C and D
4. B, D and E
An effective Ballast Water Management Plan requires the records for the following,
A. Uptake of ballast water
B. Circulation of treatment of ballast water
C. Discharge of ballast water into sea
D. Discharge of ballast water to a reception facility
E. Accidental or other exceptional uptake or discharges
F. Non-accidental or other non-exceptional uptake or discharge
5. 2
1. A, B, D, E, F
2. A, C, B, D, E
3. B, C, D, E, F
4. A, C, D, E, F
X Y Z N
A PLC PLC Workstation PLC
B Power
Unit Workstation PLC Workstation
C Workstation Power
Unit Control
Console Control
Console
D Control Control
Console Power
Unit Power
Unit
Console
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. N
Ballasting system: find an error statement
7. 1. As an engine rating you should know the ballast system and the location of all the valves. 1
2. You should be able to carry out all the ballast operations.
3. During deballasting you should make sure that the pump runs dry when the tank gets empty.
4. Stripping is the process of emptying the ballast tank completely.
8. Ballasting system: find the statement that captures the purpose of ballasting succinctly 2
1. The amount of ballast water discharge/uptake in a port depends on type of vessel, amount of
cargo loaded/unloaded and ship loading plan.
2. The need to counterbalance the detrimental effects of weight distribution during and after
loading/unloading must be addressed in ports via ballasting.
3. The cargo distribution should be considered as having an impact on the quantity of ballast
4. The cargo distribution should be considered as having an impact on the ability to optimize the
trim without jeopardizing the ship’s strength and stability.
Ballasting system: find the statement that may not apply to a non-tank vessel for the purpose of
ballasting
9. 2
3. The port and ship responsible persons must develop plans and procedures to optimize the
ballast water intake through the establishment of the cargo loading/unloading process and
the final cargo plan.
4. In addition to the anticipated ballast plan, the dynamics of the voyage should be taken into
account especially when ballast water exchange has to be carried out when not operating in
international waters.
During ballasting operations there are things that you have to look out for and keep a strong vigil.
If you have to pick the most important One, which one will that be?
1. Stability and Free Surface Effect

2. Slack Tanks
10. 2
3. Shear Force and Bending Moment
4. Torsion Loads
5. Draft and Trim of the Vessel
6. Pumping Limitations. Ballasting must always be carried out at a safe rate, determined by the
vessels design.
X Y Z N
A Control
Valve Pump
Motor Pump
Motor Pump
Motor
B Pump
Motor Level
Sensor Control
Valve Control
Valve
C Level
Sensor Control
Valve Level
Sensor Level
Sensor
D Sea
Chest Sea
Chest Overboard Sea
Chest
E Overboard Overboard Sea

Chest Overboard
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. N
12. During ballasting operations there are things that you have to look out for and keep a strong vigil. 2
If you have to pick the most important Three, which ones will that be?
A. Stability and Free Surface Effect
B. Slack Tanks
C. Shear Force and Bending Moment
D. Torsion Loads
E. Draft and Trim of the Vessel
F. Pumping Limitations. Ballasting must always be carried out at a safe rate, determined by the
vessels design.
1. A, B and C
2. A, C and E
3. D, E and F
4. A, D and E

13. 1
2. Some ships are provided with eductor for stripping the ballast tanks.
3. The eductor is driven by ballast water under pressure
4. The eductor can run without any problem, even after tanks are emptied.
For the Ballast Water Management Plan to be effective the Master and Chief officer must ensure
that it is:
A. BWM plan is available to guide crew in safe operation of the BWM system
B. BWM plan is realistic, practical, and easy to use
C. BWM plan is understood by everybody engaged in ballast water management, on board and not
for personnel ashore
D. BWM plan is evaluated, reviewed, and updated as necessary
E. BWM plan is consistent with the operational ballasting requirements of the ship
F. BWM plan written in the working language of the ship
G. BWM plan is approved by a recognized Classification Society.
14. Find a statement from A, B, C, D, E, F and G that is not correct 1
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
6. F
7. G
Ballasting system: find the statement that is not usually be the case, as read from the following
statement
1. Ballast water and trim optimization and adjustments while in passage should be pre-planned
relative to the port operations that normally do give an even-keel with no trim before sailing.
15. 2. Sediment uptake and removal should be controlled as part of voyage planning to ensure the 2
minimal level of sediments.
3. As part of voyage and daily activity planning, the case for these two should be included and
discussed.
4. The voyage should be planned to take into account when ballast water exchange or
adjustments need not be carried out.
16. For Discharge of ballast water into sea the BWM system requires records for, 2
A. Date and time
B. Location port or facility of uptake (port or lat/long)
C. Estimated volume discharged in or, ft3
D. Estimated remaining volume in or, ft3
E. Whether conducted in accordance with the Ballast Water Management Plan
F. Signature of the Master
1. A, B, D, E, F
2. A, C, B, D, E
3. B, C, D, E, F
4. A, C, D, E, F
1. Stripping is the process of filling the ballast tank completely.

17. 2
3. The eductor is driven by sea water under pressure.
4. The eductor can run without any problem, even after tanks are emptied.
Ballasting procedures: which one of the steps you would mark as the most important of all?
1. If tank entry is required for taking of samples, carrying out a ballast tank inspection, or for
manually removing solid sediments, the Enclosed Space Entry Permit is essential.
18. 2
2. Planning and recording what happens, when it happens and who is involved is mandatory for
Ballast Water Management.
3. The BWM Convention requires all ships to carry a Ballast Water Record Book.
4. The Ballast Water Management Officer, is responsible for maintaining the record book.
During ballasting operations there are things that you have to look out for and keep a strong vigil.
If you have to pick the most important Two, which ones will that be?
A. Stability and Free Surface Effect
B. Slack Tanks
C. Shear Force and Bending Moment
D. Torsion Loads
E. Draft and Trim of the Vessel
F. Pumping Limitations. Ballasting must always be carried out at a safe rate, determined by the
19. 1
vessels design.
1. A and B
2. A and C
3. C and F
4. E and F
Safety in Ballasting Procedures: which of the below statement is most unlikely?
1. In a cargo damage case, a vessel pressed up its ballast tanks in order to optimize trim and to
satisfy mandatory stability criteria.
2. The operation resulted in the unexpected flooding of a cargo hold causing extensive damage
20. 1
to the cargo.
3. The bulk carrier was carrying out ballast exchange operations mid voyage and pressed up one
set of double bottom ballast tanks.
4. On arrival it was observed that one of her holds had significant water inside and considerable
damage to cargo stowed at the uppermost position.

21. 1
3. The eductor is driven by sea water under pressure.
4. The eductor cannot run dry without any problem, once the tank is emptied.
22. Ballasting system: find the statement that is not usually be the case, as read from the following 2
statement
3. Ballast water and trim optimization and adjustments while in passage should be pre-planned
relative to the port operations that normally do not give an even-keel with no trim before
sailing.
4. Sediment uptake and removal should be controlled as part of voyage planning to ensure the
minimal level of sediments.
For the Ballast Water Management Plan to be effective the Master and Chief officer must ensure
that it is:
A. BWM plan is available to guide crew in safe operation of the BWM system
B. BWM plan is realistic, practical, and easy to use
C. BWM plan is evaluated, reviewed, and updated as necessary
D. BWM plan is consistent with the operational ballasting requirements of the ship
E. BWM plan written in English language
F. BWM plan is approved by a recognized Classification Society.
23. Find a statement from A, B, C, D, E, F that is not correct 1
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
6. F
Answer Key
After the incident it was noted that the high-level bilge alarms in the hold were not functioning and
1.
that was the primary cause of the damage.
2. Z
3. be maintained on board for four years.
4. C, E and D
5. A, C, B, D, E
6. N
7. During deballasting you should make sure that the pump runs dry when the tank gets empty.
The need to counterbalance the detrimental effects of weight distribution during and after
8.
In addition to the anticipated ballast plan, the dynamics of the voyage should be taken into account
9. especially when ballast water exchange has to be carried out when not operating in international
waters.
10. Shear Force and Bending Moment
11. N
12. A, C and E
13. The eductor is driven by ballast water under pressure
14. C
The voyage should be planned to take into account when ballast water exchange or adjustments need
15.
not be carried out.
16. A, C, B, D, E
17. Stripping is the process of filling the ballast tank completely.
If tank entry is required for taking of samples, carrying out a ballast tank inspection, or for manually
18.
removing solid sediments, the Enclosed Space Entry Permit is essential.
19. A and C
On arrival it was observed that one of her holds had significant water inside and considerable damage
20.
to cargo stowed at the uppermost position.
21. The eductor cannot run dry without any problem, once the tank is emptied.
Ballast water and trim optimization and adjustments while in passage should be pre-planned relative
22.
to the port operations that normally do not give an even-keel with no trim before sailing.
23. E
Which type of pump, when coupled to constant speed motor, will not change the discharge quantity:
1. Heleshaw
1. 2
2. Steering gear swash plate type
3. Gear pump
4. Propeller pump
Answer Key
1. Gear pump


conditions?
1. type of pump
3. 1
4. all of the above

4. 2. grease cups 1

One of the main differences between a propeller pump and,a centrifugal pump is the absence of a
__________ .
1. volute in the centrifugal type pump

6. 1
2. volute in the propeller type pump
3. velocity nozzle in the centrifugal type pump
4. reciprocating piston in the centrifugal type pump

8. Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or highly flammable 1

What are the two main parts of a propeller pump?
9. 1
1. Volute casing and impeller
2. Closed ducting and impeller
Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will,most likely use a propeller type pump?
1. Fluid power,transmission system

10. 2. Main circulating system 1
3. Steering gear system
4. Fuel oil service booster system
11. 1
Answer Key

3. all of the above
6. volute in the propeller type pump
9. Closed ducting and impeller
10. Main circulating system
What is the purpose of volute casing in a pump?
1. Reduces turbulence.
1. 2
2. Convert kinematic head to pressure head.
3. Converts rotation energy to pressure energy.
4. Reduces corrosion.
The impeller in a centrifugal pump: -
1. Produces velocity.
2. 1
2. Creates head to move a liquid in all installations.
3. Imparts energy to a fluid to move it.
4. Is to develop a pressure differential.
Answer Key
1. Converts rotation energy to pressure energy.

2. Imparts energy to a fluid to move it.
A centrifugal pump attempting to develop flow against a,closed discharge valve has a/an __________
.
1. capacity of 0%
1. 1
2. efficiency of 100%
3. internal slippage of 0%
4. shut off horsepower rating of 100%
Centrifugal pumps, used to handle hot liquids, must have a minimum flow through them under all
operating conditions. This flow serves to __________ .
1. prevent overheating and vapor bound conditions

2. 1
2. maintain the net positive suction head of the pump
3. maintain hydraulic differential in the pump impeller passages
4. keep the shaft glands cool
1. Centrifugal
3. Gear
4. Rotary
Which of the listed types of pumps is NOT likely to be,installed in a main drainage or evacuation
system?
4. 1
2. Centrifugal pump
4. Eductor pump
Assume identical impeller diameter, width and speed.,Which of the following impellers will produce
the greatest,liquid velocity?
1. A single stage straight,vane impeller

5. 1
2. A single stage curved vane impeller
3. A dual integral impeller,unit operating at 10%,lower speed
4. A dual impeller with,multiple stepped curved,vanes
The purpose of wearing rings as found in large centrifugal pumps is to __________ .
1. prevent an internal explosion in the pump when it is overheated

2. enable a visual inspection of the pump while it is running
6. 1
3. insure the proper alignment of the pump coupling to the driver
4. permit internal components that are subjected to high erosion conditions, to be replaceable
thereby extending the service life of the pump
Which of the listed statements is true concerning the startup of a main propulsion boiler centrifugal
feed pump?
1. The pump should always be started with the discharge valve closed.
7. 1
2. The pump should always be started with the suction valve closed.
3. A priming pump is always required to flood the impeller suction.
4. The pump should always be started with the sealing line valves closed.
8. The discharge head of a centrifugal pump will vary directly,with the __________ .
1
1. change in impeller diameter

2. square of the impeller,diameter
3. cube of the impeller,diameter
4. impeller efficiency for,large changes in the,size of the impeller
If a centrifugal bilge pump were continually operated with,the discharge valve closed the __________
.
1. motor overload would open

9. 1
2. relief valve would open
3. pump would overheat
4. motor would overheat

Which of the listed conditions can lead to cavitations in a,centrifugal pump?
1. Vapor pockets formed,in the suction flow,stream.

11. 2. Rough casing volute surfaces. 1
3. Worn wearing rings.
4. Partial restriction in the discharge valve.
The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to
1. directly increase the,pressure of the liquid,being pumped

12. 2. directly increase the,velocity of the liquid,being pumped 1
3. convert the potential,energy of the liquid to,kinetic energy
4. separate air from the,liquid being pumped
When running two centrifugal pumps in parallel, the flow rate "Q" is increased.
1. No changes
13. 2
2. False
3. True
4. Cannot operate in parallel.
Pump driven clutch type attached vacuum pumps are commonly used for priming ballast pumps and
emergency fire pumps. What is the factor which clutches the vacuum pump clutch to the pump
clutch during start of the pump?
14. 2
1. Low suction pressure acting against the spring loaded clutching piston.
2. High suction pressure acting against the spring loaded clutching piston
3. Low discharge pressure acting against the spring loaded clutching piston.
4. High discharge pressure acting against the spring loaded clutching piston.
15. A centrifugal pump produces flow with a resulting discharge,head by energy conversion. It is typical 1
for the energy,conversion to follow the order of__________ .
1. mechanical energy to,kinetic energy to,potential energy

2. mechanical energy to,potential energy to,kinetic energy
3. potential energy to,mechanical energy to,kinetic energy
4. kinetic energy to,mechanical energy to,potential energy
suction lift?

16. 1
1. total head
4. suction head
Cavitation erosion occurs due to:
1. Chemical action
18. 1
2. Galvanic action.
3. Physical action
4. Combination of chemical and physical action.
Vacuum priming pumps which work on the principle of fixed vane pumps require __________ for
_______ clearance between vane tips and casing.
19. 1. Lube oil, lubricating 1

2. Lube oil, sealing
3. Water, sealing
4. Gland packing, sealing

How is the radial thrust reduced in centrifugal pump?
1. By Wear rings.
21. 2
2. By thrust bearing.
3. By Double volute casing or diffuser.
4. By mechanical seal.
Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?
1. They are particularly well suited for pumping high viscosity fluids.
22. 2. They operate best under negative suction pressure conditions. 1
3. A flow is developed by imparting kinetic energy to the fluid by the rotation of an impeller.
4. They operate more efficiently when mounted in a horizontal position.
23. Double entry impellers have a distinct advantage over single entry impeller. What is the special 2
advantage?
1. Cheaper and easier to manufacture.

2. It gives a higher pumping efficiency.
3. Less vulnerable to the wear and tear caused by axial thrust.
4. The need of installing line bearing onto the pump shaft is eliminated.
low pressures?
1. propeller type
24. 1
3. gear type
4. screw type
below the pump
25. 1
One of the main functions of wearing rings, as used in a centrifugal pumps, is to __________ .
1. maintain radial alignment between the pump impeller and casing

2. absorb all impeller shaft end thrust
26. 1
3. prevent water leakage to the atmosphere
4. allow for economical replacement of worn internal pump components during regular overhaul
maintenance
Fixed vane type vacuum pump fitted for priming on emergency fire pump: Fire pump is not taking
suction, even after the vacuum pump is engaging, but not developing vacuum in the suction side.
What is the probable cause?
28. 2
1. Suction filter of the pump clogged.
2. Suction filter cover gasket leaks.
3. Sealing water tank is empty.
4. Vacuum pump disengaging.
Theoretically, a double suction impeller is in hydraulic axial,balance. In actuality this balance is rarely
achieved due to
1. an unbalanced force,exerted from the,direction of the impeller,nearest the driving,motor

29. 1
2. unequal or nonuniform,flow to the suction,eyes of the impeller,housing
3. excessive sealing water,flow to the stuffing box
4. flexible shaft design,which causes rapid wear,of the outboard shaft,bearing
30. What is a function of the wearing rings used in most centrifugal pumps? 2
1. Absorb erosion of high velocity discharge stream

2. Seal pump shaft against entry of air
3. Reduce internal recirculation from pump discharge to pump suction or between stages.
4. Dampen the turbulent discharge flow.
The brake horsepower of a centrifugal pump will vary directly,as the __________ .
1. diameter of the impeller

31. 2. square of the diameter,of the impeller 1
3. cube of the diameter of,the impeller
4. impeller efficiency for,large changes in the,size of the impeller
What are the materials used for volute casing and impeller in centrifugal pumps applicable to
seawater systems onboard?
32. 1
1. Bronze for casing and aluminium for impeller
2. Both the components are made of stainless steel
Centrifugal pumps cannot handle air and require priming. Which two properties of air are
responsible because of which the centrifugal pumps cannot handle air:-
1. Fluidity only
33. 2
2. Density only
3. Both fluidity and density.

4. Compressibility.
What causes cavitation in centrifugal pump?
1. High suction pressure.

34. 2
2. Low barometric pressure.
4. High suction velocity.
A liquid is being transferred by a centrifugal pump. As the,liquid passes through the volute, its
velocity decreases and
1. its pressure increases

35. 1
2. its pressure decreases
3. the potential energy decreases
4. the kinetic energy increases
Increasing the speed of a centrifugal pump will result in an,increase in the pump capacity. Another
means of increasing,the total head pressure of a centrifugal pump is to increase,The __________ .
1. diameter of the,discharge piping, with all,other factors remaining,the same

36. 1
2. diameter of the suction,piping, with all other,factors remaining the,same
3. width of the impeller
37. The primary function of a centrifugal pump volute is to

1
1. develop a high velocity liquid

2. convert velocity to pressure
3. limit hydraulic end thrust
4. initiate flow
If the existing vapor pressure is subtracted from the indicated pressure at the pump suction, the
remainder is the
1. pump head
38. 1
3. discharge head
The centrifugal pump component responsible for converting,the mechanical energy of the liquid being
pumped, to that of,kinetic energy is the __________ .
1. electric motor
39. 1
2. volute
3. impeller
4. diffusion nozzle
The total static head of a system resisting the operation of a centrifugal pump is the difference in
elevation between the
1. discharge liquid level and the suction liquid level

40. 1
2. discharge liquid level and the pump centerline
3. suction liquid level and the pump centerline
4. suction submergence level and the pump discharge
The discharge rate or capacity of a centrifugal pump will vary,directly as the __________ .
1. change in the impeller diameter

41. 2. square of the impeller radius 1
3. cube of the impeller diameter
4. impeller efficiency for large changes in its size
A centrifugal pump operating against a closed discharge valve has a/an __________ .
1. capacity of 100%
42. 2. efficiency of 0% 1
3. internal slippage of 0%
4. shut off horsepower rating of 100%
Increasing the speed of a centrifugal pump will result in an,increase in its capacity. Another means of
increasing the,capacity of a centrifugal pump is to increase the
1. diameter of the,discharge piping, with all,other factors remaining,the same

43. 1
2. diameter of the suction piping, with all other factors remaining the same
3. width of the impeller only
What is priming of a pump?
1. to drive out air from the suction line

44. 2. to allow the pump run efficiently 1
3. priming increases life of the pump
4. priming helps the pump to run continuously
45. The static suction head of a horizontal centrifugal pump, is,the difference in elevation between 1
the__________ .
1. discharge liquid level,and the suction liquid,level

2. discharge liquid level,and the pump centerline
3. suction liquid level and,the pump centerline
4. suction submergence,level and the pump,discharge
To maintain design discharge pressure from a centrifugal pump, the design clearance must be
maintained between the ____________.
1. shaft and impeller

46. 1
2. motor and pump shaft
3. casing and impeller wearing rings
4. lantern ring and impeller
The capacity of a centrifugal pump can be increased by the,installation of a larger diameter impeller.
Another means of,increasing the pump capacity is to__________ .
1. increase speed
47. 1
2. increase the size of the cardent assembly
3. reduce wearing ring clearances
4. change the pump to a 'close coupled' arrangement
Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a centrifugal pump?
1. Suction head
48. 2. Pump head 1
3. Discharge head
4. Total head
Answer Key
1. capacity of 0%
2. prevent overheating and vapor bound conditions
3. Centrifugal
5. A single stage curved vane impeller
permit internal components that are subjected to high erosion conditions, to be replaceable thereby
6.
extending the service life of the pump
7. The pump should always be started with the discharge valve closed.
8. square of the impeller,diameter
9. pump would overheat
11. Vapor pockets formed,in the suction flow,stream.
12. directly increase the,velocity of the liquid,being pumped
13. True
14. Low discharge pressure acting against the spring loaded clutching piston.
15. mechanical energy to,kinetic energy to,potential energy
17. discharge head
18. Physical action
19. Water, sealing
21. By Double volute casing or diffuser.
22. A flow is developed by imparting kinetic energy to the fluid by the rotation of an impeller.
23. Less vulnerable to the wear and tear caused by axial thrust.
24. propeller type
25.
the pump
allow for economical replacement of worn internal pump components during regular overhaul
26.
maintenance
28. Sealing water tank is empty.
29. unequal or nonuniform,flow to the suction,eyes of the impeller,housing
30. Reduce internal recirculation from pump discharge to pump suction or between stages.
31. cube of the diameter of,the impeller
32. Bronze for casing and aluminium for impeller
33. Both fluidity and density.
35. its pressure increases
37. convert velocity to pressure
39. impeller
40. discharge liquid level and the suction liquid level
41. change in the impeller diameter
42. efficiency of 0%

44. to drive out air from the suction line
45. suction liquid level and,the pump centerline
46. casing and impeller wearing rings
47. increase speed
48. Suction head
As sometimes utilized with centrifugal pumps operating with,a high suction lift, foot valves are
primarily designed to
1. give the pump motor, or,driver, positive,protection when,operating in a shutoff,condition

1. 1
2. provide a means of,supplying sealing fluid,for the impeller shaft,stuffing box
3. enable the pump and,its suction line to,remain primed prior to,starting the pump
4. afford the pumping,system protection,against water hammer,and surging
Heavy wear in a particular area of the inner circumference,of a packing ring may be caused by
__________ .
1. a high suction head

2. 1
2. rotating rings
3. badly worn bearings
4. a loose stuffing box gland
The mechanical efficiency of a particular centrifugal bilge,pump is 92.5%. What is the smallest
horsepower motor,that can effectively operate this pump at a capacity of 500,Lietrs /Min with a
discharge head of 5 mts?
3. 1. 1/4 HP 1
2. 1/2 HP
3. 3/4 HP
4. 1.0 HP
What is one of the factors that determine the service life of packing in a pump?
1. Type of vessel.
4. 2
2. Condition of the pump.
3. Length of time in use.
4. Revolutions.
Sealing lines provide sealing liquid flow to the stuffing box of a centrifugal pump __________ .
1. to prevent seawater from passing out the stuffing box when a high suction head is present
5. 2. to cool the shaft 1
3. in place of mechanical seals
4. in place of lantern rings
When a horizontal type centrifugal pump is used for,dewatering the engine room bilges, you would,
I. use a rotary, liquid piston type pump to obtain a prime,
II. partially open the sea suction valve, then gradually switch,over to the required engine room bilge
suction valve _______.
6. 1
1. I only
2. II only
3. Either I or II
4. Neither I nor II
7. How is water traveling along the shaft of a centrifugal pump,prevented from entering the shaft 1
bearing?
1. Shaft seal
2. Water flinger
3. Drain hole
4. Lantern ring
If a centrifugal pump were continually operated with the,discharge valve closed, the __________ .
1. motor controller overload would open

8. 2. pump would eventually overheat 1
3. relief valve would continuously cycle open
4. motor would overheat
The proper design of a centrifugal pump must include a seal cage and sealing line when the pump
__________ .
1. takes suction from a low temperature pressurized tank

9. 1
2. takes suction from a hot well
3. is handling a liquid at less than 65°C
4. has a high positive suction head
The function of a centrifugal pump double volute casing is,to ____________.
1. reduce radial thrust on the impeller

10. 2. double the liquid velocity,through the pump when,compared to a single,volute 1
3. reduce hydraulic end thrust
4. provide the effect of multi-staging
The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the,centrifugal pump stuffing boxes, is to
__________ .
1. cool the shaft

11. 1
2. lubricate the packing
3. seal air from entering
4. distribute the sealing stuffing box
priming?
1. Reciprocating
12. 1
2. Centrifugal
3. Rotary
4. Gear
A centrifugal pump with a double volute casing operated at,greater than design capacity, will
__________ .
1. be less susceptible to,shaft deflection than a,similar pump with a,single volute casing,operated
under the,same conditions
13. 1
2. be more susceptible to,shaft deflection than a,similar pump with a,single volute casing,operated
under the,same conditions
3. develop excessive radial,thrust and resultant shaft,deflection
4. develop excessive radial,thrust and resultant,impeller deflection
conditions?
1. type of pump
14. 1
4. all of the above
15. Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical seals installed on 2
most centrifugal pumps used in water service?
1. Copper.
2. Copper and carbon.
3. Carbon.
4. Bronze.
Excessive wear on a centrifugal pump shaft sleeve will
1. cause severe vibration when the pump is operating

16. 2. cause excessive leakage past the packing gland 1
3. cause damage in the stuffing box
4. allow interstage leakage in the pump casing glands
Why mechanical seal is fitted instead of gland sealing in the centrifugal pump?
1. protect shaft from damage

17. 2. easy to fit 1
3. expensive
4. maintenance free & lasts long
While on watch, you notice that a significant amount of,water is flowing out of the packing box from a
centrifugal salt,water pump which had been recently overhauled. You,tighten the packing gland evenly
by nearly a half inch, yet,the amount of water output from the packing box does not,diminish. You
should __________.
18. 1. make no further,adjustments and,continue to make a,round of the engine,room 1

2. take up evenly on the,packing gland nuts,another 2 or 3 full turns
3. back off on the nuts by,the same amount to,prevent scoring of the,shaft sleeve and notify,the
next watch of the,condition
4. shut off the sealing line,valves to diminish the,outflow of water from the,packing box
What do understand between single stage and multistage centrifugal pump?
1. Single stage pump has single impellor and multi stage has few impellors installed to improve the
discharge head
19. 1
2. single stage is more efficient than multistage
3. multistage is more powerful than single stage
4. single stage pump takes more power than multistage
Give three methods of air handling in case of centrifugal pump.
20. 1. Using hose connection, filling the strainer casing with the liquid to be pumped, shutting the 1
discharge
2. Liquid ring primer,rotary air extraction pump, central priming system
Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at,the suction of a centrifugal pump is a result
of____________.
1. cavitation
21. 1
2. water hammer
3. fluid friction
4. steam knock
22. What would probably occur if excessive misalignment,existed between a centrifugal pump and its 1
power source?
1. pump cavitation will increase

2. power consumption will be reduced
3. flashing may occur at the impeller eye
4. shaft bearings will overheat
Lantern rings are provided on centrifugal pumps to
1. allow illuminated,inspection of shaft and,packing

23. 2. provide a passage for the stuffing box sealing liquid 1
3. adjust leakage at the shaft gland
4. allow for distortion of the wearing rings
Most pump manufacturers recommended that the discharge,piping for centrifugal pumps be
__________ .
1. one size larger than the pump discharge nozzle

24. 1
2. the same size as the pump discharge nozzle
3. one size smaller than,the pump discharge,nozzle
4. installed with a short,radius elbow at the,pump
A ballast pump with a capacity of 757 lpm is used to fill a ballast tank with seawater. If the pump
discharges seawater into the tank for one hour, how many tons of saltwater ballast have been taken
onboard?
25. 1. 46.5 t metric 1

2. 49.32 t metric
3. 52.43 t metric
4. 55.3 t metric
The shaft sleeves have recently been replaced on a,centrifugal salt water service pump. The packing
gland is,now drawn tightly up against the casing. Despite the use of,standard procedures to tighten the
packing gland, water,continues to pour out along the shaft. The probable cause,for this situation is that
__________.
26. 1
1. the shaft sleeve "O",ring seals were not,installed
2. suction head pressure,has become excessive
3. the sealing water flow to,the stuffing box is,blocked
4. only two sections of the,lantern ring were,installed
To thoroughly pump out the bilges using a horizontally,mounted centrifugal pump, the __________ .
1. pump must be continuously primed

27. 2. volute must impart a radial and rotary motion of the water 1
3. suction side connection,must guide the liquid to,the lantern rings
4. stuffing box should not,be allowed any water,leakage
Which of the listed pumps, is fitted with a relief valve on its discharge side?
1. Bilge pump
28. 2. Ballast pump 1
4. All of the above
29. Excessive wear on the packing rings nearest the pump packing gland, while the rings nearest the 1
impeller remain in good condition, is caused by __________ .
1. failure to insert and individually seat the rings, one ring at a time
2. insufficient tightening of the packing gland
3. failure to tighten the packing gland in a single adjustment
4. cutting the rings nearest the gland too short
30. 1
The result of mounting an impeller of a double suction,centrifugal pump impeller with the vanes
facing the wrong,direction, would cause the pumps __________ .
1. head capacity to improve

31. 1
2. discharge to be reversed
3. efficiency to decrease
4. slippage to decrease
A recirculating, or bleed off line is installed on a centrifugal,pump in order to __________ .
1. establish a back,pressure at the labyrinth,seal to eliminate leakage

32. 2. equalize pressure on,both sides of the suction,valve disc 1
3. prevent the pump from,overheating when,operating at shutoff,head
4. decrease the net positive suction head

What is wear ring in the centrifugal pump and where is it fitted?
1. this ring deflects the water from the impeller neck

34. 2. this ring helps the pump to run smoothly and fitted before the impeller 1
3. this ring reduces the power intake of the pump and fitted outside the pump
4. it takes the wear and tear of the pump impeller and is fitted at the neck of the impeller
If the flow of water from a centrifugal pump is allowed to be,stopped by closing the discharge valve
while the pump,continues to run for an extended period, which of the,following will occur?
1. The wearing rings will,become excessively,worn.

35. 1
2. The water pressure will,decrease to shut off,head
3. The water pressure will,rise above shut off head
4. liquid in the pump will,overheat
Most pump manufacturers recommend that the discharge,piping for centrifugal pumps be one size
larger than the,pump discharge nozzle to__________ .
1. reduce the pump discharge pressure

36. 1
2. reduce the frictional,losses due to fluid,flow
3. increase the pump discharge pressure
4. allow rapid venting of entrained air
37. Which of the following statements is correct with regards to,the operation of a centrifugal cargo 1
pump?
1. Oil is discharged from,the center of the impeller,through the outlet.

2. Gravity causes the oil to,flow toward the,discharge.
3. The self-priming feature,of the centrifugal pump,enables it to draw its,own suction as it starts.
4. The discharge capacity,varies directly with the,speed of the impeller.
What is the function of volute casing?
38. 1
1. Steam pipes in which steam flows down
2. Volute casing provides positive suction to the pump
Radial thrust developed in high pressure centrifugal pumps,can be eliminated by the use of
__________ .
1. single volutes
39. 1
2. a single diffusion nozzle
3. a diffusion ring
4. a modified Kingsbury thrust bearing
Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a centrifugal pump is prevented by
__________ .
1. a compressed packing gland

40. 1
2. lantern rings between the packing rings
3. a liquid seal
4. the stuffing box gland

If two centrifugal pumps, driven by two independent electric,motors, operating at unequal speeds are
discharging an,inflammable liquid through a common discharge line, the,higher speed pump may
cause the slower pump to
42. 1. stop 1
2. turn backward
3. overheat
4. over speed the driving end
Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal,pump would be indicated by which of the
following,operational problems?
1. The pump delivers full,capacity when started,,but gradually slackens,off to an abnormally,low

43. flow. 1
2. The pump packing gland,overheats after short,operating periods.
3. The motor over current,protective device,continually shuts the,pump down.
4. Pounding noises can be,heard at the pump,suction chest.
44. Which features of a centrifugal pump reduce the need for renewing worn impellers and pump casings?
1
1. Close radial clearance between impeller hub and casing

2. Low rotational speed of impeller

3. Removable end plate
4. Replaceable impeller and casing wearing rings
If the shaft packing for a centrifugal pump requires,replacement more frequently than normal, a
possible cause,may be __________ .
1. worn bearings
45. 1
2. worn mechanical seals
3. a flooded pump suction
4. wrong direction of pump rotation
On modern tankers with separate pump rooms, which of the,following is used to minimize cargo pump
shaft leakage?
1. Slinger rings
46. 1
2. Mechanical seals
3. Shaft sleeves
4. Stuffing box glands
The seal piping obtains liquid from the discharge side of the pump and directs the liquid to the
__________ .
1. packing gland
47. 1
2. wearing ring
3. stuffing
4. lantern ring
You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on,your ship, and begin to slowly close the
discharge valve.,Your suspicion is confirmed when the__________ .
1. discharge valve is,closed off and there is,no change in the,discharge pressure
48. 1
2. discharge valve is 80%,closed and the relief,valve lifts
3. suction valve is closed,off, and the discharge,pressure begins to,decrease
4. suction valve is closed,off, yet the relief valve,does not lift
a. State, with reasons, the areas in which emergency fi re pumps are commonly installed.
b. State how it can be ensured that the fi re pump is kept in a good working condition.
49. 2
c. State the precautions that must be taken in sub zero temperatures.
When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is,important to__________ .
1. make the final spring,collar adjustments with,the pump running

50. 2. ensure that correct,spring pressure is,applied to the seating,faces 1
3. polish the seating faces,with emery cloth prior to,assembly
4. run the pump "dry" for,initial break-in of the,shaft seal
Answer Key
1. enable the pump and,its suction line to,remain primed prior to,starting the pump
2. badly worn bearings
3. 1/2 HP
4. Length of time in use.
5. to cool the shaft
6. Either I or II
7. Water flinger
8. pump would eventually overheat
9. takes suction from a hot well
10. reduce radial thrust on the impeller
11. distribute the sealing stuffing box
12. Centrifugal
be less susceptible to,shaft deflection than a,similar pump with a,single volute casing,operated under
13.
the,same conditions
15. Carbon.
16. cause excessive leakage past the packing gland
17. maintenance free & lasts long
back off on the nuts by,the same amount to,prevent scoring of the,shaft sleeve and notify,the next watch
18.
of the,condition
Single stage pump has single impellor and multi stage has few impellors installed to improve the
19.
discharge head
20. Liquid ring primer,rotary air extraction pump, central priming system
21. cavitation
22. shaft bearings will overheat
23. provide a passage for the stuffing box sealing liquid
24. one size larger than the pump discharge nozzle
25. 46.5 t metric
26. the shaft sleeve "O",ring seals were not,installed
27. pump must be continuously primed
29. failure to insert and individually seat the rings, one ring at a time
31. efficiency to decrease
32. prevent the pump from,overheating when,operating at shutoff,head
34. it takes the wear and tear of the pump impeller and is fitted at the neck of the impeller
35. liquid in the pump will,overheat
36. reduce the frictional,losses due to fluid,flow
37. The discharge capacity,varies directly with the,speed of the impeller.
38. Steam pipes in which steam flows down
39. a diffusion ring
40. a liquid seal
42. overheat
43. The pump delivers full,capacity when started,,but gradually slackens,off to an abnormally,low flow.
44. Replaceable impeller and casing wearing rings
45. worn bearings
46. Mechanical seals
47. lantern ring
48. discharge valve is,closed off and there is,no change in the,discharge pressure
a.
State, with reasons, the areas in which emergency fire pumps are
commonly installed.
Most of the ships have their emergency fire pump located away from main machinery space
such that
machinery space fire will not obstruct the availability of emergency fire pump.
Also they are usually located in such a place, where there is no suction loss even in
lightest draught.
Usual places are:
Aft of steering gear flat

Inside the forecastle
Tunnel space
49.
b.
State how it can be ensured that the fire pump is kept in a good working
condition.
Follow the manufacturer’s instruction and maintenance routine as per company’s
PMS program.
c.
State the precautions that must be taken in sub zero temperatures.
When operating in sub zero temperatures, remaining water in the pipeline will freeze. This
will result
in cracking of pipelines. To prevent this, the drains of pipelines should be kept
open.
50. ensure that correct,spring pressure is,applied to the seating,faces
1. 1
1. Casing
2. shaft
3. Vane
2. What does “VIII” indicate in the below diagram? 1
1. Impeller
2. Discharge Nozzle
3. Eye of Impeller
What is represented by the figure “VI” in the illustration?
3. 1
1. Eye of impeller
2. Shaft
3. Impeller
4. Casing
A pump Starts but the motor gets overloaded or Trip on overload. Possible reason is:-
4. 1. Only wrong alignment. 1

2. Only overtightened gland packing.
3. Only damaged bearing
4. All of above.
5. What does item “VII” refer to the below illustration? 1
1. Stuffing Box
2. Casing wear ring
3. Shaft Sleeve
4. Vane
6. The part “IX” indicates _____. 1
1. Stuffing Box
2. Shaft Sleeve
3. Packing
4. Casing
What does “X” indicate in the below diagram?
7. 1
1. Shaft Sleeve
2. Casing
3. Shaft
After your overhaul a centrifugal pump the pump is not rotating be cause:-
1. Only due to uneven tightening of casing bolts.

8. 2
2. Only due to use of very thin cover gasket.
3. Both a and b as above.
4. More wear ring clearance.
9. What does “I” indicate in the below diagram? 1
1. Shaft Sleeve
2. Casing
3. Impeller
4. Vane
The gland packing of centrifugal pump should have:-
1. Not allow any breakage under the suction pressure.

10. 1
2. Should allow considerable leakage.
3. Should only allow drop by drop continuous leakage under positive suction pressure.
4. Should not allow any leakage.
Correct method of greasing a centrifugal pump bearing is:
1. To pump the grease until you feel high back pressure on the Grease pump.
2. To pump the grease for 3-4 pumping strokes of grease pump for each bearing.
3. To pump the grease when the pump is running and drain the old grease at the same time by
11. 2
opening the drain plug. Continue pumping till new grease starts coming out from the drain.
Replace the plug on completion.
4. To pump the grease when the pump is stopped and drain any old grease at the same time by
opening the drain plug, giving only 3-4 pumping strokes on Grease pump for each bearing.
the drain plug should then be replaced.
12. From the below illustration, identify the name of the marking “III”. 1
1. Shaft sleeve
2. Vane
3. Packing
4. Casing
13. What does “IV” indicate in the below illustration? 1
1. Shaft
2. Stuffing box
3. Casing
4. Packing
What does figure “V” represent?
14. 1
1. Vane
2. Eye of impeller
3. Discharge nozzle
Water leaking from a pump packing gland is kept away from the bearing housing by the use of
______________.
15. 1. Shaft sleeves 1

2. Lantern rings
3. Water defector
4. Water seals
Answer Key
1. Vane
2. Eye of Impeller
3. Impeller
4. All of above.
5. Casing wear ring
6. Packing
7. Shaft
8. Both a and b as above.
9. Casing
10. Should only allow drop by drop continuous leakage under positive suction pressure.
To pump the grease when the pump is running and drain the old grease at the same time by opening
11. the drain plug. Continue pumping till new grease starts coming out from the drain. Replace the plug
on completion.
12. Shaft sleeve
13. Stuffing box
14. Discharge nozzle
15. Water defector
With ref to centrifugal p/p characteristics curves what is to be checked before p/p is started:--
1. Close suction valve.

1. 2
2. Throttle suction valve.
3. Close Discharge valve.
4. Check filter.
Pumps impart energy to a fluid but the energy required to bring the fluid to the pump may be
provided by ___________.
2. 1. Friction Head. 2
2. Atmospheric condenser.
3. Another pump.
4. Compressed air.
The total head of a centrifugal pump will vary directly with the:---
1. Cube of the impeller diameter.

3. 2
2. Square of the impeller diameter.
3. Impeller diameter.
4. Shaft diameter.
Answer Key
1. Close Discharge valve.

2. Another pump.
3. Impeller diameter.
Centrifugal pump will typically give you a low flow rate at a lower pressure, where a piston pump will
give you more pressure and higher flow rate. Is the statement correct?
1. 1. True 1
2. False
3. First Sentence is right. Second one is wrong.
4. I don’t know
Answer Key
1. False
What action will you take when you see that your main sea water cooling pump gland is leaking badly?
1. tighten the gland

2. the pump shall be changed over to the stand by one and shut the inlet and outlet valve of the
1. 1
leaky pump and inform seniors
3. stop the pump and change the gland packing
4. throttle the discharge valve
Answer Key
the pump shall be changed over to the stand by one and shut the inlet and outlet valve of the leaky pump
1.
and inform seniors
A letter of protest is issued to the bunker barge in the following cases:
1. Failure of the bunker barge personnel to provide signed copies of a sampling request form
1. 2. Bunker barge hoses not pressure tested 1
3. The BDN and sample label do not conform to the requirements of Annex VI
4. Disputes in the quantity of bunkers received
5. All of above
A contingency plan should be in place onboard the ship to cater to any emergency situation during
bunkering. This plan should be as per the guidelines laid out in the ……………. manual.
1. SOPEP manual
2. 1
2. SMS manual
3. Manufactures Manual
4. As per port regulations
Marpol oil samples must be retained for a period of ………….
1. 12 months
3. 1
2. Until the fuel is consumed
3. 12 months or until the fuel is consumed, whichever is longer
4. 36 months
BDN stands for
4. 2
1. Bunker Discharge Note
2. Bunker Delivery Note
The transfer procedures for oil products are required to be posted __________.
1. In the pilothouse
5. 1
2. In the officer's lounge.
3. where they can be easily seen or readily available.
4. In the upper pumproom flat.
6. During the final topping up, the pumping rate has to be reduced and sounding /ullage has to be 1
monitored frequently.
1. True
2. False
Steps required to be completed before the vessel go for bunkering……
1. Risk assessment
7. 2. Bunker plan 2
3. Meeting & briefing duties
4. Ullaging & high level alarm test
5. All of above
As a precaution against oil spills when topping off fuel tanks, you should __________.
1. Close the deck filling valve to reduce the pumping rate.

8. 2
2. Close all tank vents to prevent overflow.
3. Notify the shore pumping station to reduce the pumping rate as tanks near full capacity.
4. Fill the tank to the bottom of the expansion trunk.
Bunkering is considered as critical operation, because……….
1. It is one of the difficult job onboard involving too many people

9. 2
2. Carelessness and improper procedures can lead to pollution to environment
3. Marine fuels are very costly
4. All of above
Prebunker meeting should be conducted
10. 1. 12 hrs before bunkering 2
2. 24hrs before bunkering
3. 48 hrs before bunkering
11. 1
Who is responsible for bunkering operation ?
1. Master
2. Chief Engineer

3. Chief officer
4. Second Engineer
Prior bunkering scrupper plugs on deck should be
12. 1
1. Plugged
2. Not Plugged
Checklists required to be followed for bunkering……….
1. Checklists before, during and after bunkering

13. 2
2. Checklists during bunkering
3. Checklists after bunkering
4. Both b & c
Why do we need to have proper bunkering procedures and strictly follow it ?
1. To avoid pollution to environment

14. 2
2. To receive correct quantity of fuel
3. To meet with the requirements of company SMS
4. All of above
Prebunker meeting is conducted by
15. 1. 2nd engineer 1
2. Chief officer
3. Chief engineer
Answer Key
1. All of above
2. SOPEP manual
3. 12 months or until the fuel is consumed, whichever is longer
4. Bunker Delivery Note
5. where they can be easily seen or readily available.
6. True
7. All of above
8. Notify the shore pumping station to reduce the pumping rate as tanks near full capacity.
9. Carelessness and improper procedures can lead to pollution to environment
10. 24hrs before bunkering
Chief Engineer
11.

12. Plugged
13. Checklists before, during and after bunkering
14. To avoid pollution to environment
15. Chief engineer
The bunker delivery note along with the marpol sample must be retained onboard The ship for a period
of
1. 2
1. 2 years
2. 1 year
3. 3 years
Bunker delivery note contain information of
2. 2
1. Carbon content , call sign off the receiving ship
2. Sulphur content , density, name & IMO number of the receiving ship
A Declaration signed and certified by the fuel Suppliers representative that the fuel oil supplied is in
conformity with the14(1) or (4)(a) and regulation 18(1) of MARPOL Annex VI
3. 1
1. Must be mentioned in the Bunker delivery note.
2. need not be mentioned in the Bunker delivery note.
Marpol sample will be drawn by the
4. 1. Ship staff 1
2. Bunker supplier at the ship’s bunker manifold
The bunker supplier must provide
5. 1
1. Marpol sample taken at the bunker manifold of the receiving ship duly signed by him.
2. Need not provide a marpol sample.
Answer Key
1. 1 year
2. Sulphur content , density, name & IMO number of the receiving ship
Must be mentioned in the Bunker delivery note.

3.

4. Bunker supplier at the ship’s bunker manifold
5. Marpol sample taken at the bunker manifold of the receiving ship duly signed by him.
Any fuel oil storage location, including settling tanks and clean oil, daily-use tanks containing residual
fuel or a residual-distillate fuel blend,
1. 1
1. Requires no steam heating coils
2. Requires steam heating coils
Pipelines passing through fuel tanks
2. 1
1. Must have arrangements for expansion and contraction
2. Doesnot require any arrangement for expansion and contraction
A fuel oil tank pneumercator will give an inaccurate reading if the __________.
1. operating cock is placed in the 'vent' position when the system is not in use.
3. 2
2. Pneumercator is recharged with the air supply open.
3. Pneumercator balance chamber bleed orifice is blocked by the oil being measured.
4. Pressure in the system is allowed to equalize.
F.O. transfer pump was working efficiently, but it stopped taking suction suddenly. There is a
sounding of 6.0 m in the F.O. deep tank. The suction pressure gauge was renewed recently and is
showing a positive pressure when pump is running, but Pump is not transferring any F.O. What is the
most probable cause?
4. 2
1. Pump is damaged and needs overhaul.
2. Suction filter cover gasket might leaking.
3. Pump relief valve might be leaking.
4. The pump suction pipeline is blocked.
Fuel from bunker tanks are transferred to
5. 1. F.O Service tank 1
2. F.O Settling tank
Answer Key
1. Requires steam heating coils
2. Must have arrangements for expansion and contraction
3. Pneumercator balance chamber bleed orifice is blocked by the oil being measured.
4. Pump relief valve might be leaking.
5. F.O Settling tank
Few properties of fuel oil are…………
1. 1. Alkalinity, Tbn and acidity 1
2. Density,viscosity,calorific value & Flash point
3. Both a & b
Water present in fuel can cause …………….
1. Loss of energy content in the fuel

2. 2
2. Acidic corrosion when react with sulphur presents in fuel.
3. Vapour lock when fuel temperature is raised
4. All of above
Acidic corrosion is ………………
3. 1. Corrosion caused by acid contents in fuel oil 1
2. Corrosion caused by Sulphur in the fuel which forms sulphur dioxide
3. Corrosion caused by presence of water in the fuel
Contaminants in heavy fuel oil are …………….
4. 1. Vanadium and sodium 2
2. Aluminium and silicon
3. carbon and sulphur
Meaning of fuel oil flash point is ………….
5. 1. It is the temperature at which fuel oil can be ignited

2
2. It is the temperature at which fuel oil can catch fire
3. It is the temperature at which fuel oil can atomize
6. 1
The significance of carbon residue value is ………………..
1. a)The carbon residue value gives an indication of the combustibility and tendency to form
deposits of the fuel.
2. b) It gives an indication of quantity of carbon residue presents in fuel
3. Both a & b
Answer Key
1. Density,viscosity,calorific value & Flash point
2. All of above
3. Corrosion caused by Sulphur in the fuel which forms sulphur dioxide
4. Vanadium and sodium
5. It is the temperature at which fuel oil can catch fire
a)The carbon residue value gives an indication of the combustibility and tendency to form deposits of the
6.
fuel.
Mixing of fuels leads to
1. 1
1. Stable conditions of fuel
2. Unstable condition due to incompatability of fuel
What is the function of fuel oil mixing column?
1. Deaerating the system

2. 2
2. Removing water and sediments from the system
3. Checking oil level via the gauge glass

4. Mainatin fuel temperature
Viscosity of the fuel increases
3. 1. With decrease in temperature of the fuel 1
2. With increase in temperature of the fuel
Steam heating coils in fuel tanks are located
4. 1. At the top of the tank 1
2. At the bottom of the tank
What is the safety device fitted in tanks when the level reaches high
1. Temperature Sensor
5. 1
2. Pressure gauge
3. Float switch
4. Viscotherm
6. 2
What is the function of a homogeniser?
1. It seperates water from fuel oil
2. It creates stable uniform composition from a mixture
3. It separates solid contaminants from fuel

4. It blends lighter and heavier fuel
Fuel on board is stored in storage tanks
7. 1. Without heating coils 1
2. With heating coils
Answer Key
1. Unstable condition due to incompatability of fuel
2. Deaerating the system
With decrease in temperature of the fuel

3.

4. At the bottom of the tank
5. Float switch
6. It creates stable uniform composition from a mixture
7. With heating coils
With ref to the illustration, what type of filtration is shown ?
1. 1
1. Surface filtration
2. Notch wire filtration
3. Deep bed filtration
4. Duplex filtration
With ref to the illustration, what type of filtration is shown ?
2. 1

2. Notch wire filtration
3. Duplex filtration
Answer Key

Bridge has complained that the hold bilges are not going what action will you take?
1. check the hold bilge well

1. 2. check the hold bilge pipeline condition 1
3. check pump speed
4. check the condition of the pump filter
With ref to the illustration, identify the type of filter shown?
2. 1
1. Duplex filter
2. Single stage filter
3. Candle filter
4. Notch wire filter
Bridge has complained that the hold bilges are not going what action will you take?
1. check the hold bilge well

3. 2. check the hold bilge pipeline condition 1
3. check pump speed
Answer Key

2. Duplex filter
What is the effect on motor current of the pump while pumping crude oil or crude oil and ballast
water of same specific gravity at the same discharge pressure?
1. 1. More 2
2. Less
3. Same
4. Does not depend upon,
Increasing the rotational speed of a cargo pump the pump, the flow rate will:
1. Decrease in direct proportion to the increase in speed.

2. 2. Flow rate doesn’t depend upon speed. 2
3. Increase in direct proportion to the increase in speed.
4. Flow rate is doubled as the speed is brought up to the maximum operating speed.
Which number represents the "Discharge line" in the illustration given below?
3. 1
1. III
2. I
3. II
4. IV
1. Suction pipe
2. Pressure gauge pipe
3. Throat
1. Throat
2. Impeller
3. Suction pipe
4. Discharge line
6. Which number represents the "Suction pipe" in the illustration given below? 1
1. IV
2. VII
3. V
4. VI
7. What does “II” stand for in the image given below? 1
1. Boiler
2. Air preheater
3. Motor
4. Windbox
1. Suction pipe
2. Nozzle
4. Throat
9. Which number represents the "Well casing" in the illustration given below? 1
1. V
2. IV
3. VI
4. VII
10. What does item “VIII” refer to the illustration given below? 1
1. Relief valve spindle

2. Valve body
3. Foot valve and screen
Answer Key
1. Same
Increase in direct proportion to the increase in speed.
2.
3. I
4. Throat
5. Impeller
6. VII
7. Motor
8. Nozzle
9. VI
10. Foot valve and screen
In order to operate vessel's crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed must be
__________.
1. 1. Opened to the atmosphere for ventilation 1

2. Gas free
3. Inerted with IG system in operation.
4. Full of cargo.
Inert Gas System should be capable of delivering Inert Gas at the rate of at least
________________
2. 1. 110% of the maximum rate of cargo discharge capacity of the ship 2

2. 133.33% of the maximum rate of cargo discharge capacity of the ship
3. 125% of the maximum rate of cargo discharge capacity of the ship
4. 90% of the maximum rate of cargo discharge capacity of the ship.
The combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas system is related to the __________.
1. Shoreside loading rate.

3. 2
2. Size of the largest cargo tank.
3. Maximum rate of cargo discharge.
4. Boiler forced draft fan rate.
Answer Key
1. Inerted with IG system in operation.

2. 125% of the maximum rate of cargo discharge capacity of the ship
3. Maximum rate of cargo discharge.
When the inert gas system is temporarily unable to maintain a positive pressure, or an oxygen
content less than 8%, cargo operations should _________.
1. 1. Continue at a slower rate until these requirements are met. 2

2. Continue only under "Emergency Procedures".
3. Be shut down immediately.
4. Monitored more frequently.
Each inert gas system gas main must have an automatic shutdown valve at the outlet of the gas
production plant. This valve must close automatically upon __________.
2. 1. Cargo pump failure. 2

2. Low inert gas temperature.
3. Blower failure
4. Deck seal low water level.
Each inert gas system must be designed to supply the cargo tanks with a gas, or mixture of gases,
that has an oxygen content by volume of __________.
3. 1. 20% or less. 1
2. 15% or less.
3. 5% or less.
4. 10% or less.
Answer Key
1. Be shut down immediately.

2. Blower failure
3. 5% or less.
Types of Ballast Pumps; find an incorrect statement
1. Ballast tanks are located throughout the ship. They are named according to their location such
as fore peak tank, aft peak tank, double bottom tanks on deck and wing ballast tanks.
1. 1
2. Large capacity centrifugal pumps are used for ballasting and deballasting operations.
3. Certain ballasting and deballasting operations can be carried out by gravity.
4. Tanks below the waterline can be drained and tanks above the water line can be filled by
gravity.
Types of Ballast Pumps: find an incorrect assumption
1. Container ships need correct ballasting for safe passage. With containers stacked perhaps six
high they cannot leave port until the ballasting is correct.
2. That ballast pumps have to move enormous amounts of seawater in a short time.
2. 2
3. If the operator says the ballast tanks have to be filled or emptied in a certain time, it is
possible to look at this and divide their volume by the time to calculate the rate.
4. As the tank empties, the head will increase and so will the effective flow rate.
5. A reduced head means the safety margin built in by the pump manufacturer is reduced, and
friction losses in the pipework can take the flow out of specification.
Ballasting process- find an incorrect statement
1. The Ship’s ballast system, along with the pumps, is located at the lower most regions of the
engine room and below the sea-water line, to provide the necessary suction head to the ballast
pumps.
2. Various factors such as ship’s external and interior layout, loading capacity, ballast tanks
3. 2
capacity, time taken for ballasting and de-ballasting etc are taken into account before starting
the ballasting process.
3. Ballasting and de-ballasting cannot be undertaken while the ship is in transit, especially during
rough sea, change in wind conditions etc.
4. The ballasting and de-ballasting process takes place simultaneously with the cargo loading or
unloading process.
Ballasting process- identify an emergency procedure using the ballast system
1. Various factors such as ship’s external and interior layout, loading capacity, ballast tanks
capacity, time taken for ballasting and de-ballasting etc. are taken into account before starting
the ballasting process.
4. 2. Ballasting and de-ballasting can be undertaken while the ship is in transit, especially during 2
rough sea, change in wind conditions etc.
3. The ballasting and de-ballasting process takes place simultaneously with the cargo loading or
unloading process.
4. Bilge and ballast systems are interconnected so that each can perform the other's function for
example, a ballast pump could be used to pump out a flooded engine room.
5. Types of Ballast Pumps; find an incorrect statement 1
1. A priming system with an adequate air-handling capacity is an important need.

2. The pump/priming system not only has to contend with the depth of the tanks in the double
bottom but also with the height of the pump above the tank top.
3. Air ejectors have limited capacity, so for the larger pumps separate motor driven pumps are
required.
4. The various pumps and lines are not interconnected so that each pump can act as an
alternative or standby for another.
5. A centrifugal pump with a priming device is usually used, driven by an electric motor housed in
an air bell.
Types of Ballast Pumps: find an incorrect assumption
1. Ballast pumps - Electric-driven pumps, usually vertically mounted and fitted with separate
motor-driven priming systems.
2. With owners expecting to shorten port turn round times; the need to get the ballast in or out
6. of the tanks can take on a sense of urgency. 2
3. A priming system with an adequate air-handling capacity is another important need.
4. The pump/priming system not only has to contend with the depth of the tanks in the double
bottom but also with the height of the pump above the tank top.
5. Air ejectors have unlimited capacity, so for the larger pumps separate motor driven pumps are
required.
Answer Key
1. Tanks below the waterline can be drained and tanks above the water line can be filled by gravity.
2. As the tank empties, the head will increase and so will the effective flow rate.
Ballasting and de-ballasting cannot be undertaken while the ship is in transit, especially during rough
3.
sea, change in wind conditions etc.
Bilge and ballast systems are interconnected so that each can perform the other's function for
4.
example, a ballast pump could be used to pump out a flooded engine room.
The various pumps and lines are not interconnected so that each pump can act as an alternative or
5.
standby for another.
Air ejectors have unlimited capacity, so for the larger pumps separate motor driven pumps are
6.
required.
A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the _______.
1. Discharge end being smaller than the suction end

1. 1
2. Smaller in size, compared to impeller.
3. Lack of moving parts
4. Ease at which the wearing rings may be changed.
Ballasting system piping: Using the Ballast pump 2, you need to transfer ballast from 4S tank to 1P
tank to correct the list. Identify the correct line valves to open, while the pump suction and discharge
valves are open.
2. 1
1. 4S, D, F, and 1P
2. 3S, D, E, and 2P
3. 4S, D, C and A
4. 4S, D, E, and 1P
3. Ballasting system piping: you need to pump out ballast during loading from Forward ballast tanks 1S 1
and 4P using ballast pump 2 whose suction and discharge valves are open; Identify the correct line
valves to open, while the pump suction and discharge valves are open.
1. 1S and 4P and D, F and G

2. 1S and D, E and G
3. 4P and D, E and G
4. 1S and 4P and D, E and G
4. Ballasting system piping: you need to transfer ballast in port to the 1S tank and 4P tank from sea to 2
1S tank at the double bottom at below sea level by gravity. Identify the correct line valves to open,
while the pump suction and discharge valves are kept closed.
1. A, C D, 1S and 4P
2. B, C, D, 1S and 4P
3. A, C, D, and 1S
4. B, C, D, and 4P
Answer Key
1. Lack of moving parts

2. 4S, D, F, and 1P
3. 1S and 4P and D, E and G
4. B, C, D, 1S and 4P
Shipside valves: Identify a statement that is not correct
1. Testing of shipside overboard valves: It is possible to prove that a valve provides a water-
tight seal without removing the valve.
2. Testing of shipside valves: It is possible to prove that a valve provides a water-tight seal
1. without removing the valve. 2
3. To demonstrate that the valve provides an adequate seal, the valve should be closed and the
downstream side of the valve vented to prove that the leakage past the valve is at an
acceptable value.
4. Ideally the valve should have zero leakage; however, in practice, a certain amount of leakage
past the valve may be acceptable.
Shipside valves: Identify the main purpose of the shipside valve from the following statements
1. The ship side valve integrity can be considered at two distinct areas, the hull aperture and
connection to the ship side and the ship’s side valve itself.
2. If the ship’s side valve and its connection to the hull are well maintained, closing the valve will
2. prevent water ingress into the hull-interior. 1
3. The integrity of the connection between the hull and the ship side valve can be confirmed
using non-destructive testing.
4. The integrity of the bolting connections should also be confirmed. The inspection regime
should ensure that hull and pipe work inspections in the vicinity of ship side valves are done
at suitable intervals.
Sudden closing and opening of valve in sea water pipeline leads to:
1. Cavitation
3. 2
2. Steam hammering
3. Water hammering
4. There is no problem
Ballast line valves including shipside valves: When the spindle is rotated, the valve body rotates by
90 degrees and stops the flow of fluid.; identify the type of valve
4. 1. Globe Valve 2
2. Storm Valve
3. Gate Valve
4. Butterfly valve
The seating materials for perfectly sealing type Ball valves is usually made up of
1. Rubber
5. 1
2. Cast iron
3. TMF, Viton, TFE
4. Aluminum.
6. Shipside valves: Identify a statement that is incorrect 2
1. A visual inspection of the valve internals is required to ensure it is not suffering from
conditions likely to cause failure such as damage or internal corrosion.
2. Inspection in place and in water of larger valves is possible by using a ROV (Remotely
Operated under-water Vehicle).
3. In essence it involves swimming the ROV down the pipeline to inspect the valve internals.
4. To facilitate this, modification to the pipe-work and suction strainer lids is not required.
5. For smaller valves it may be possible to inspect the valve internals by endoscope; however, it
may be more practical and cost effective to remove these valves for inspection.
Ballast line valves including shipside valves: The valve body is wedge shaped; when the handle is
rotated, the valve body descends because of the threads cut into the stem and the valve plate stops
the flow of fluid; identify the type of valve
7. 2
1. Globe Valve
2. Storm Valve
3. Gate Valve
4. Butterfly valve
Ballast line valves including shipside valves: The stem ascends or descends when the handle is
rotated. When the valve disc at the end of the stem descends and comes in contact with the metal
latch in the disc shaped valve seat, the suction/discharge stops. identify the type of valve
8. 1
1. Angular Globe Valve
2. Storm Valve
3. Gate Valve
4. Butterfly valve
Shipside valves: Identify a statement that is incorrect
1. When a valve has passed the leak-rate test, it proves that it provides an adequate watertight
seal.
9. 2. It does not however prove that the valve is in good internal condition. 1
3. A visual inspection of the valve internals is required to ensure it is not suffering from
conditions likely to cause failure such as damage or internal corrosion.
4. Inspection in place and in water of larger valves is not possible by using a ROV (Remotely
Operated under-water Vehicle).
Which of the following valve is liable to open or close under pressure of fluid, if it is not locked in
position?
1. Gate valve
10. 1
2. Globe valve
3. Butterfly valve.
4. Plug valve
Which of the following statements represents the proper relative direction of flow through a globe
valve?
11. 1. Direction of flow through the valve is unimportant. 1

2. Direction of flow through the valve depends upon the type of seat design used in the valve.
3. Direction of flow should be from below the seat.
4. Direction of flow should be from above the seat.
12. Ballast line valves including shipside valves: the valve plate automatically opens with the weight of 1
such sludges and discharges them. After discharging, the counterweight fitted to one side of the
valve plate closes the valve and prevents the sea water from outside to come into the hull. identify
the type of valve
1. Globe Valve
2. Storm Valve
3. Gate Valve
4. Butterfly valve
Ballast System Valves: Most classification societies have the following recommendation for the
valves, fittings and devices on the underwater shell of a ship: find an error statement
1. Sea and overboard discharge valves, sea connections, cocks and their fastenings to the hull
or sea chests are to be examined at each bottom survey.
13. 2. Valves and cocks need not to be opened up more than thrice in a period of five years unless 2
considered necessary by the Surveyor.
3. Inspecting, dismantling and overhauling of all sea valves and sea connections constitutes an
important docking survey program.
4. Most of discharge and inlet pipes are installed below the load water line directly to shell plate
through a distance-piece or on the sea chest
Corrosion and cracks of valves: find an incorrect statement
1. Bolts or studs used for securing the valve to the sea-chest do not have any problems when
they are made of mild steel
2. In angle valves and globe valves, corrosion in valve body, valve stem and valve seat to be
14. carefully examined. The casing is to be carefully checked for cracks. 1
3. In gate valves, the grooved disk-guide is provided on both sides of the casing. It prevents the
horizontal movement of the valve disk.
4. When this guide is heavily corroded or there are relatively hard, foreign-deposits on the
grooved disk-guide, the valve disk either does not move smoothly or even its movement may
be obstructed.
Corrosion and cracks of valves: find an incorrect statement
1. Openings or cracks in the valve-body may appear suddenly because of corrosion, causing
flooding of the vessel.
15. 2
2. The thickness/soundness of the body of the valve can be assessed by hammering.
3. If it feels thinned-out, open the valve completely and inspect the internals thoroughly.
4. If a rubber lining has been provided, corrosion is expected to be minimal. And even if the
rubber lining has partly damaged, corrosion or pitting shall not occur.
Wheel operated butterfly valves are operated through a reduction gearbox. The Gear arrangement
inside the gear box is of __________ type.
16. 1. Bevel Gear 2

2. Rack & Pinion Gear
3. Worm and worm wheel type.
4. Planetary type.
17. Fabric type packing, such as flax or hemp, is best suited for __________. 1
1. Use for critical alignment.

2. High temperature use
3. Use for low temperature applications.
4. Packing valves with badly grooved stems.
In case of failure of control air supply, some valves continue locked in the position they were at the
time of failure . They are said to be-
18. 1. Fail-set 2
2. Fail -proof
3. Fail-safe.
4. Fail -blocked
Excessive leakage and premature failure of valve packing can be due to:-
1. Opening a valve too quickly

19. 1
2. Jamming a valve in the closed position
3. A scored valve stem.
4. Low pressure fluid flow.
Shipside valves: Identify a statement that makes it possible to test an overboard discharge valve
without removing the valve
acceptable value.
20. 2
2. With other connections, such as overboard discharges; this cannot be easily achieved, as
there is normally no arrangement in place to achieve this.
3. Testing in place can be carried out by fitting a drain/vent-line in-board of the ship side valve
and a further isolating valve in the line.
4. With this arrangement, both valves are closed and the drain-line opened to assess the
leakage rate.
Shipside valves: Identify a statement that is not correct
1. It has to be ensured that the shipside valve provides an adequate seal and is in good repair.
This can be done by a combination of close visual inspection and in-situ testing.
2. The inspection allows the internals of the valve to be inspected, as well as the sealing-face of
the valve. The valve can then be pressure tested to prove it provides a water-tight seal.
21. 3. Testing of shipside valves: It is not possible to prove that a valve provides a water-tight seal 2
without removing the valve.
acceptable value.
5. Ideally the valve should have zero leakage; however, in practice, a certain amount of leakage
past the valve may be acceptable.
22. Shipside valves: Identify a statement that allows repairs to the shipside valve at sea 2
1. The purpose of the ship side valve is to be able to provide a watertight seal, to prevent water
ingress.
2. It has to be ensured that the shipside valve provides an adequate seal and is in good repair.
This can be done by a combination of close visual inspection and in-situ testing.
3. To allow for visual inspection, the valve will have to be removed and inspected.
4. The valve can be removed in the dock. It can be removed at sea by employing divers to block
the sea opening with blanks.
Ballast System Valves: find an error statement
1. Shipside valves cannot ensure the watertight integrity of the hull and internal pipework from
the sea.
23. 2. Operation of the valves allows maintenance on pipe work and equipment. They are used to 1
stop water ingress into compartments after a pipe or equipment failure.
3. The shipside valves are required to provide a watertight barrier when shut.
4. It is a requirement that the ship side valves are suitable, maintained in an efficient state, are
in efficient working order and in a state of good repair.
A ball valve is found leaking in service and needs to be overhauled. What type of repairs can be
carried out?
24. 1. The ball and seat can be lapped together 2

2. The ball can be machined while the seat can be replaced
3. Normally both the non-metallic seats get worn out and have to be replaced.
4. Normally ball gets damaged and has to be replaced.
Answer Key
Testing of shipside overboard valves: It is possible to prove that a valve provides a water-tight seal
1.
without removing the valve.
If the ship’s side valve and its connection to the hull are well maintained, closing the valve will
2.
prevent water ingress into the hull-interior.
3. Water hammering
4. Butterfly valve
5. TMF, Viton, TFE
6. To facilitate this, modification to the pipe-work and suction strainer lids is not required.
7. Gate Valve
8. Angular Globe Valve
Inspection in place and in water of larger valves is not possible by using a ROV (Remotely Operated
9.
under-water Vehicle).
10. Butterfly valve.
11. Direction of flow should be from below the seat.
12. Storm Valve
Valves and cocks need not to be opened up more than thrice in a period of five years unless
13.
considered necessary by the Surveyor.
Bolts or studs used for securing the valve to the sea-chest do not have any problems when they are
14.
made of mild steel
If a rubber lining has been provided, corrosion is expected to be minimal. And even if the rubber
15.
lining has partly damaged, corrosion or pitting shall not occur.
16. Worm and worm wheel type.
17. Use for low temperature applications.
18. Fail-safe.
19. A scored valve stem.
Testing in place can be carried out by fitting a drain/vent-line in-board of the ship side valve and a
20.
further isolating valve in the line.
Testing of shipside valves: It is not possible to prove that a valve provides a water-tight seal without
21.
removing the valve.
The valve can be removed in the dock. It can be removed at sea by employing divers to block the sea
22.
opening with blanks.
23. Shipside valves cannot ensure the watertight integrity of the hull and internal pipework from the sea.
24. Normally both the non-metallic seats get worn out and have to be replaced.
Ballast Tank’s Venting System; find One of the most damaging effect from the following,
A. Vent screens must not be painted as this can seriously reduce their volumetric capacity
B. Improperly set ballast vents can result in severe structural damage to the vessel.
C. Great care is to be taken in conditions where icing is occurring.
D. In certain circumstances screens on ballast tank vents can become blocked by icing. During ballast
operations in such conditions, the responsible officer is to ensure that all precautions are adopted to
ensure the free venting of ballast tanks, and that regular checks are made to ensure continuous free
1. venting throughout the operation. 2
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
2. Air Vents: identify the parts 2
Parts X Y Z N
A Float
Support Float
Support Screen
Ring Protective
mesh
B Float Float Protective

mesh Screen
Ring
C Gooseneck Gooseneck Float

Support Float
Support
D Protective
mesh Screen
Ring Float Float
E Screen
Ring Protective
mesh Gooseneck Gooseneck
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. N
Ballast Tank protection: identify the best way to avoid ballast tank mishaps:
1. Uncoated clean ballast tanks have a sacrificial zinc anode system fitted to protect the entire
tank structure.
2. If loading ballast into tanks fitted with cathodic protection in a freshwater river or estuary, it is
important to change the ballast at sea as soon as is practical, in order to achieve the full effect
3. 2
of the cathodic protection system.
3. Ballast tanks must be inspected on a twelve-monthly basis and a report on the condition of the
tank sent to the Management Office.
4. If it has been necessary to weld securing arrangements, such as pad eyes, onto the side
plating of a cargo hold for the lashing of cargo, then the area behind the plating within the tank
must be inspected and touched up with a suitable coating.
When removing the cap from a sounding tube on a MODU, the sound of air escaping indicates.
1. The tank is full

4. 2
2. The tank level has dropped.
3. The tank may be partially flooded.
4. The tank is completely flooded.
Ballast Tank’s Venting System; find the incorrect statement
1. It is of paramount importance that all segregated and permanent ballast tank vents are
properly set up and in good condition prior to any ballast operation.
5. 2. The vents are to be further checked soon after starting the operation to confirm that the tanks 1
are venting freely.
3. Vent screens must be painted as this can seriously reduce their volumetric capacity and
identifications.
4. Improperly set ballast vents can result in severe structural damage to the vessel.
6. Ballast Tanks; find an error statement 1
1. Larger the ship, more the number of ballast tanks.

2. A typical large vessel will have several ballast tanks, along with the double bottom tanks, wing
tanks, and fore and aft peak tanks.
3. If more of cargo is loaded on the starboard side than the port side of the ship, then the
starboard side ballast tanks will be more filled with ballast water to balance the cargo weight
and gain overall stability of the ship.

4. The filling of ballast tanks also depends on various other factors such as the draft required by
vessel, depth at ports, capacity of ballast tanks etc.
Ballast Tank Soundings: Identify the incorrect statement
1. Air pipes allow an enclosed space to 'breathe'.

2. They prevent over-or under-pressure by letting air in or out of the space when liquid is pumped
7. 2
in or out, or when temperature changes cause air or fluids to expand or contract.
3. Cargo holds are ventilated by air pipes passing through the weather deck and these are fitted
with self-closing watertight covers (headers).
4. This is however, not a Load Line requirement.
Ballast Tanks; find an error statement
1. Ballast tanks are provided in the ship’s upper-most region to hold the ballast water.
8. 2. The number of ballast tanks in a ship depends on the ship’s size, design, and requirement. 2
3. Larger the ship, more the number of ballast tanks.
4. A typical large vessel will have several ballast tanks, along with the double bottom tanks, wing
tanks, and fore and aft peak tanks.
Ballast Tank Soundings: Identify the most likely cause of foundering of a small vessel due to bad
weather due to one of the following
1. Sounding pipes are a potentially dangerous source of progressive flooding.

9. 2
2. An engine room can be flooded through an open sounding pipe if a ship's bottom is holed.
3. A cargo hold can be flooded through an open deck sounding pipe when water is washed on
deck in heavy weather.
4. Holes in weather deck air pipes also cause hold flooding during heavy weather.
Ballast Tank protection: identify the safest method of ballasting to avoid tank top pressures:
1. proper, diligent, and recorded ballast tank inspections must be carried out and form a part of
the ship’s planned maintenance system
2. advice and training should be given that pumping ballast can cause extreme pressures on the
10. tank structures and fittings such as manhole lids, even when tanks are fitted with class 2
approved air vents.
3. Consider only gravitating water ballast so as to reduce pressure on the tanks and manhole lids
4. ship’s procedures should always include rigorous checks on the ship’s watertight integrity,
including daily tank and bilge soundings, bilge alarm tests, checks on sounding pipe caps and
inspections of spaces not often visited, including cofferdams and void spaces
11. Ballast Tank Soundings: Find the correct answer, 1

A. Sounding pipes are small-bore mild steel pipes used to measure the quantity of fluid in a tank or a
hold bilge.
B. The pipe allows a tape or sounding rod to pass through to the bottom of a tank or hold.
C. Deck sounding pipes pass through the weather deck and are fitted with screw-down caps.
D. Sounding pipes for engine room double-bottom tanks are fitted with self-closing cocks. It is
imperative that sounding pipe caps or cocks be kept shut.
1. A, B and C
2. C, A and B
3. B, C and A
4. A, B, C and D
Answer Key
1. B
2. N
Ballast tanks must be inspected on a twelve-monthly basis and a report on the condition of the tank
3.
sent to the Management Office.
4. The tank may be partially flooded.
Vent screens must be painted as this can seriously reduce their volumetric capacity and
5.
identifications.
If more of cargo is loaded on the starboard side than the port side of the ship, then the starboard side
6. ballast tanks will be more filled with ballast water to balance the cargo weight and gain overall
stability of the ship.
7. This is however, not a Load Line requirement.
8. Ballast tanks are provided in the ship’s upper-most region to hold the ballast water.
A cargo hold can be flooded through an open deck sounding pipe when water is washed on deck in
9.
heavy weather.
10. Consider only gravitating water ballast so as to reduce pressure on the tanks and manhole lids
11. A, B, C and D
The emergency fire pump should be:
1. In the machinery space.

1. 2
2. Gear type of pump.
3. Power should be outside machinery space.
4. Pneumatically operated.
Answer Key
1. Power should be outside machinery space.
Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam,reciprocating pump from delivering its rated
capacity?

1. 1
2. Air trapped in the,discharge expansion,chamber
3. A leaking snifter valve,allowing air to enter the,suction side of the pump
4. All of the above
The oil from oily bilge separator transferred to ___________.
1. Direct over board

2. 2
2. Incinerator waste oil tank
3. Sludge tank
4. Bilge holding tank
Bilge system pump must be,

A. Self-priming
B. Output is directly proportional to speed
C. Output is marginally reduced at increased pressure
D. Develops a discharge pressure equal to the resistance
E. Capable of handling high suction lifts
F. Handles large amounts of vapor or entrained gases
3. Pick the Three most important properties, among others, that are vital in its operation. 2
1. B, C and F
2. B, C and D
3. A, B and F
4. A, E and F
5. A, B and C
Important features of a reciprocating Bilge pump are,
1. A. Self-priming
2. B. Develops a discharge pressure equal to the resistance
4. 2
3. C. Not Capable of handling high suction lifts
4. A and B
5. B and C
Identify one incorrect statement about the Important features of a Bilge Pump ,
1. A. Capable of handling high suction lifts

5. 2. B. Output is marginally reduced at increased pressure 2
3. C. Develops a discharge pressure equal to the resistance
4. D. Output is not directly proportional to speed
Important features of a Bilge pump is,
1. A. Handles large amounts of vapor or entrained gases

2. B. Output is marginally reduced at increased pressure
6. 2
3. C. Output is not directly proportional to speed
4. A and B
5. B and C
7. which letter represents the suction valve of the illustration below? 2

1. A and B
2. B and D
3. E and F
4. D and F
An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most,often caused by__________ .
1. defective intake valves

8. 2. clogged suction strainers 2
3. scarred cylinder walls
4. clogged drain valves
9. which letter represent the “ Air vessel” in the illustration below? 2
1. E
2. F
3. G
4. H
The oil from sludge tank transferred to ___________
1. Direct over board

10. 1
2. Incinerator waste oil tank and incinerated
3. Oily bilge separator and pump overboard
4. Bilge holding tank
What does “I” indicate in the diagram given below?
11. 2
1. Suction Pipe
3. Connection For Drain Pipe
4. Oil Pipe
12. which letter represents the closed discharge outlet valve ? 1
1. D
2. E
3. F
4. G
13. 2
1. Suction (Inlet)
14. An acceptable method of dealing with accumulated oil found in the pump room bilges is to 2
____________.
1. Transfer the oil to the sea chest

2. Discharge the oil over the side on an outgoing tide.

3. Transferred to the slop tank.
4. Pump the oil into a clean ballast tank.
A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam,reciprocating general service pump could be
caused by
1. lower than normal,supply steam,temperature

15. 1
2. lower than normal supply steam pressure
3. improper adjustment of steam cushion valves
4. loss of air charge in the pump discharge plenum chamber
16. 1
3. Suction (Inlet)
Important features of a Reciprocating pumps include, that they are,
1. Self-priming
2. Output is directly proportional to speed
3. Output is marginally reduced at increased pressure
5. Capable of handling high suction lifts
6. Handles large amounts of vapor or entrained gases
Which One of the above features is the most important characteristic for it being chosen as a ship's
17. bilge pump? 2
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
18. Regulations require the emergency bilge system to 2
1. Be independent of the main bilge system

2. Be a part of the independent bilge system
3. Have an independent priming pump
4. Have a cross connection to the ballast system
19. 1
1. Safety valve
4. Valve plate
20. What is the purpose of relief valve in a positive displacement pump?

2
21. Why do you need accumulators in a reciprocating pump?
2
When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the packing is cut square,
installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the butted ends __________ .
1. 45° apart
22. 2
2. 90° apart
3. 120° apart
4. 180° apart
What is the purpose of relief valve in a positive displacement pump?
1. It relieves excess pressure

23. 2. It indicates excess pressure 2
3. It stops pump in case of excess pressure
4. It maintains discharge pressure
24. Which of the following valve arrangements permits the,reciprocating pump liquid piston to take 1
suction from the,suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the,discharge chamber during
the up and down strokes?
1. Two sets of suction and,discharge valves in the,liquid cylinder.

3. One set of valves in the,water chest and another,set in the liquid cylinder.
4. Two relief valves, one on,each of the liquid,cylinder.
Why do you need Accumulators in the reciprocating bilge pump system?
1. A. reduce the pulsations in the discharge

25. 2. B. Accumulators store pressure energy during the high pressure stroke and release this 2
energy to the system during the low pressure part of the stroke.
3. C. Accumulator is a container with air or an air bag or spring loaded device.
4. A and B
5. B and C
26. What are the important operating features of positive displacement pumps?
2
Bilge Pumps have the following properties:
A. Self-priming
B. Develops a discharge pressure equal to the resistance
C. Handles large amounts of vapor or entrained gases

D. High capacity output with a small bore piston
27. Identify One property that is listed above being incorrect, 2
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
Which number represents the "Plunger" in the illustration given below?
28. 2
1. IV
2. I
3. II
4. III

3. Valve plate
4. Safety valve
Why are the engine room bilges pumped out through the oily water separator?
30. 1
1. To separate the oil for recycling
2. To keep the sea free of oil pollution
Answer Key

2. Sludge tank
3. A, E and F
4. A and B
5. D. Output is not directly proportional to speed
6. A. Handles large amounts of vapor or entrained gases
7. B and D
8. clogged suction strainers
9. H
10. Incinerator waste oil tank and incinerated
12. E
14. Transferred to the slop tank.
15. improper adjustment of steam cushion valves
16. Suction (Inlet)
17. 1
18. Be independent of the main bilge system
A relief valve releases the excess pressure at the discharge side to the suction side, when the
20.
pressure increases above the set limit. This prevents the failure of pump casing.
Accumulators reduce the pulsations in the discharge. Accumulators store pressure energy during the
21. high pressure stroke and release this energy to the system during the low pressure part of the stroke.
Accumulator is a container with air or an air bag or spring loaded device.
22. 90° apart
23. It relieves excess pressure
25. A. reduce the pulsations in the discharge
Self-priming
Output is directly proportional to speed
Output is marginally reduced at increased pressure
Capable of handling high suction lifts
Handles large amounts of vapour or entrained gases
27. D
28. II
30. To keep the sea free of oil pollution
You are responsible for daily transfers of engine room bilges. You follow the sequences aft – fwd (P)-
fwd(s) bilge well and you have never experienced a problem but 5/E started the transfer and first
transferred forward (s) bilge well, without any problem and you join him later to find that bilge pump
is not taking suction from fwd(p) then you have checked everything is normal. What is the cause?
1. 1
1. Wrong sequence of operation.
2. Fwd (s) Bilge well suction valve is leaking
3. Fwd(P) Bilge pump suction filter cover gasket is leaking.
4. Bilge pump overdue for overhaul.
It has been reported that Engine room bilge pump was unable to take suction from Fwd. (P) bilge
well while it taking suction efficiently from Fwd.(S) & aft bilge wells. What could be the most
probable cause?
2. 1. There is leakage in the bilge suction pipeline somewhere between the bilge wells and bilge 2
pump.
2. The Fwd. (P) bilge well suction valve might be leaking.
3. The Fwd (P) bilge well suction filter cover gasket might be leaking.
4. The pump needs to be overhauled.
It is given that engine room bilge pump has suction manifold on which 3 valves are located. One
valve for the 3 engine room bilge wells suction, another one for Bilge tank suction and the third one
is for sea water suction. It is found that the Bilge pump is unable to take suction from any of the
bilge wells, but is able to take suction efficiently from Bilge tank. What is the most probable cause?
3. 2
1. Pump suction filter cover gasket leaking.
2. Suction filter cover gasket of one of the Bilge wells is leaking.
3. Bilge well suction pipeline leaking between individual bilge well valves and suction manifold
valve.
4. Bilge pump suction pipeline leaking between the manifold and the pump.
Answer Key
1. Fwd(P) Bilge pump suction filter cover gasket is leaking.

2. The Fwd (P) bilge well suction filter cover gasket might be leaking.
3. Bilge well suction pipeline leaking between individual bilge well valves and suction manifold valve.
In case of flooding in E/R:--
1. Pump out through OWS to overboard.

1. 1
2. Pump out through emergency bilge pump
3. Pump out through emergency bilge suction valve.
4. Use general service pump
When there is excessive ingress of water in the engine room onboard causing dangerous levels of
bilge water,
2. 1. Start oily water separator and pump overboard. 1

2. Start General service pumps and pump bilges overboard.
3. Use bilge injection valve and pump bilges overboard.
4. Inform bridge to stop the vessel.
Answer Key
1. Pump out through emergency bilge suction valve.

2. Use bilge injection valve and pump bilges overboard.
What is oil discharge monitoring system in oil tanker?
1. It is the measurement of oil content discharge of 60Ltrs/K.M/Hr in ballast water or slop

1. 1
2. It is the measurement of oil content discharge of 80Ltrs/K.M/Hr in ballast or slop
3. This is an instrument which measures if there is any leakages of oil from the tank
4. It is an instrument which measures any leakages of oil from one tank to other
The oil content meter fitted with OWS, which maintains an electronic record of equipment status
every 15 seconds. How many months are these records kept stored?
2. 1. 12 months 2
2. 36 months.
3. 18 months
4. 24 months
Monitoring and control system is provided for OWS in machinery space. What is the maximum limit
for audio/visual alarm fitted in OWS?
3. 1. 50 ppm 1
2. 25 ppm
3. 15 ppm
4. 100 ppm
What is the measuring range of oil content meter fitted with OWS?
1. 10 to 30 ppm
4. 2
2. 0 to 50 ppm
3. 0 to 30 ppm
4. 0 to 100 ppm
A sample of water leaving the OWS is drawn off automatically and passed through a detector cell
for measuring the oil content. Where is this sample water drained off ?
5. 1. To overboard discharge. 2
2. To oily waste tank.
3. To bilge holding tank
4. To Bilge main.
Machinery space oily water must be processed through approved oil filtering equipment to limit
water oil content to _____:
6. 1. 10 parts per million 2

2. 15 parts per million
7. What is the maximum permissible quantity of oil that can be pumped overboard through an oil 1
filtering equipment?
1. 100 ppm
2. 10 ppm
3. 15 ppm
4. 20 ppm
What devise is used for real time sampling and measuring of the oil content in a moving stream of
water?
8. 1. Tank Sensors 2
2. Oil Water Activator
3. Digital Radar Tech
4. Oil Content Monitor
An automatic 3 way valve is fitted in overboard discharge pipe for OWS. What is the purpose of this
3 way valve?
9. 1. To prevent overboard discharge if oil content exceeds 50 ppm. 2

2. To recirculate the oily mixture to bilges if oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
3. To prevent overboard discharge if oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
4. To divert the discharge of oily mixture to sludge tank if oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
TD-107 is a type of oil content meter fitted with some OWS. What is the principle of working applied
in this instrument?
10. 1. UV ray technology. 1

2. Electrical conductivity.
3. Fluorescence detection technology.
4. Infra red ray
Answer Key

2. 18 months
3. 15 ppm
4. 0 to 30 ppm
7. 15 ppm
When oily ballast has been pumped overboard ,an entry must be made in the ____________
1. Oil Record Book

1. 1
2. Official Log book
3. Deck rough log
4. Engine rough log.
The 2 parts of the Oil Record Book consists of _____?
1. Machinery space operations/container operations on tankers

2. 1
2. Machinery space operations/cargo and ballast operations on tankers
3. Cargo Operations/ Container loading on container vessels
4. Oil Bunkering / Tank to Tank Oil transfer in ER
Which code is used in ORB part-1 for making entry about the condition of OWS?
1. C
3. 1
2. H
3. I
4. D
After each operation involving the transfer of oil or oily mixture, an entry shall be recorded in the
Oil Record Book ______.
4. 1. Without delay 1
2. Within 1 hour of completion of the inspection
3. Within 6 hours of completion of the operation
4. As the operation permits
What is ORB Part-II used for ?
1. Fuel bunker operations on ships.

5. 1
2. Sewage discharge to reception facility.
3. Ballasting and cargo operations on tankers.
4. Discharge of machinery space sludge to reception facility.
Dates are recorded for each operation in ORB part-1. State the format for date used in ORB:
1. 28-02-'09
6. 1
2. 02/28/2009
3. 28/Feb/2009
4. 28-02-2009
7. Discharge of tank washings must be through approved oil discharge monitoring and control 1
equipment for tankers. What is the maximum oil concentration permitted for discharge during such
operation?
1. 40 liters per Nm
2. 50 liters per Nm
3. 30 liters per Nm;
4. 100 liters per Nm
Discharge of tank washings must be through approved oil discharge monitoring and control
equipment for tankers. What is the required minimum distance from land during such operation?
8. 1. 40 Nm 1
2. 100 Nm
3. 50 Nm
4. 20 Nm
Who should counter sign each completed page of the oil record book?
1. Chief Engineer
9. 1
2. Captain
3. Chief Mate
4. Officer of the port
Which code is used in ORB part-1 for Bunkering of fuel or bulk of LO?
1. D
10. 1
2. I
3. H
4. C
For how many years the ORB is retained onboard ?for 3 years after date of last entry.
1. 5 years
11. 1
2. 2.5 years
3. 3 years after the last entry.
4. 1 year
The oil Record Book on a vessel NOT engaged on a foreign voyage shall be maintained on board for
not less than ________.
12. 1. 12 months 1
2. 24 months
3. 36 months
4. 48 months
The oil record book is Not required to be carried aboard ___________.
1. Tankers.
13. 2. Passenger vessels 1
3. Cargo vessels
4. A barge or a fixed or floating drilling rig not equipped to discharge any oil or oily mixture
overboard
14. After the bunkering is over what entry will you make in the oil record book? 1
1. Date/BDN number/Chief engineer’s name/Line pressure

2. Date/Barge name/Barge Masters name/sampling quantity
3. Date/Tanks bunkered/Position/Sulpher content

4. Date/Time/Start/Stop/Port name/Quantity
Collection of oil residues are recorded in ORB part-i. What is the frequency of this entry?
1. Bi-Weekly
15. 1
2. Every day
3. Every week
4. Every month
What is oil record book and what section (I) of the book signifies?
1. It is a record book where all the oil consumptions are recorded and section(I) to record
specific fuel oil consumption
16.
2. It is a record book for all types of waste oil operation and section (I) to record anything 1
pertains to e/r
3. It is a record book for lubricating oil storage and sec(I) to record total lub oil consumption
4. It is a record book for all the overflow oil taken place and sec(I) to make record of average oil
overflow
Oil Pollution Regulations require any transfer, or discharge of oil, or oily mixtures be recorded in the
_________.
17. 1. Pollution Control Record 1

2. Bridge log
3. Oil Record book
4. Masters log
ORB Part I is for Machinery space operations. Name any operation which is recorded in this record
book:
18. 1. Transfer of fuel to FO service tank. 1

2. Draining of air bottles.
3. Collection and disposal of oil residues(sludge);
4. Transfer of cylinder oil to daily tank.
On a Passenger Vessel over 400 gross tons,routine entries for the Oil Record Book are recorded in
_______.
19. 1. Oil Record Book is not required 1

2. Part 1(Machinery space Operations)
3. Part II (Cargo Oil /Ballast Operations)
4. Part III(Emergency Discharge/Spillage)
Who signs the ORB-Part-1 after an entry is made for an operation?
1. Duty engineer and Master

20. 1
2. Chief officer and Master.
3. Officer carrying the operation and the officer in charge of the operation.
4. Chief engineer and Master.
21. Under normal operating conditions aboard a ship, who has the overall responsibility in maintaining 1
the Oil Record Book ?
1. Chief Engineer
2. First Assistant Engineer
3. Master
4. Chief Mate
The oil record book is a requirement as per regulation 17 and regulation 36 of ________
1. Annex III of MARPOL 73/78

22. 1
2. Annex I of MARPOL 73/78
3. Annex II of MARPOL 73/78
4. Annex IV of MARPOL 73/78
Water ballast placed in a tank that has been crude oil washed, but not water rinsed, shall be
regarded as __________.
23. 1. Clean ballast. 1

2. Crude oil.
3. Dirty ballast
4. Segregated ballast.
Which of the following is not an acceptable unit of measure to be used consistently throughout an
Oil Record Book?
24. 1. Cubic meters 1

2. Gallons
3. tons
4. Barrels
Who should sign the oil record book after completing an entry?
1. Officer of the port

25. 1
2. Ballast Officer
3. Deck officer
4. Officer in charge
Answer Key
1. Oil Record Book

2. Machinery space operations/cargo and ballast operations on tankers
3. I
4. Without delay
5. Ballasting and cargo operations on tankers.
6. 28/Feb/2009
7. 30 liters per Nm;
8. 50 Nm
9. Captain
10. H
11. 3 years after the last entry.
12. 36 months
13. A barge or a fixed or floating drilling rig not equipped to discharge any oil or oily mixture overboard
14. Date/Time/Start/Stop/Port name/Quantity
15. Every week
It is a record book for all types of waste oil operation and section (I) to record anything pertains to
16.
e/r
17. Oil Record book
18. Collection and disposal of oil residues(sludge);
19. Part 1(Machinery space Operations)
20. Officer carrying the operation and the officer in charge of the operation.
21. Master
22. Annex I of MARPOL 73/78
23. Dirty ballast
24. tons
25. Officer in charge
If a bilge pump is able to develop vacuum, but is unable to sufficiently pump out the bilges, you
would check for ________.
1. 1. The circuit breaker, 1

2. For leaks in the suction piping
3. The suction strainer or filter.
4. Relief valve malfunction.
Answer Key
1. The suction strainer or filter.
State any condition for a vessel while pumping out oily water mixture to sea through OWS:
1. Ship is fully loaded.

1. 1
2. Ship is fitted with SBT.
3. Ship shall be enroute.
4. Ship is 10 miles off special area.
Which system in machinery spaces is prohibited to have interconnection with sludge system for
vessels to comply with Marpol regulations?
2. 1. HT Cooling water system. 1

2. Starting air system for auxiliary engines.
3. Bilge systems.
4. LT cooling water system.
What is the limit for oil content when oily waste is pumped to sea through approved oil filtering
equipment?
3. 1. 100 ppm 1
2. 50 ppm
3. 15 ppm
4. 25 ppm
Name the item on tankers with which the oily mixtures of machinery spaces can not be mixed:
1. Ballast water in SBT.

4. 1
2. Bunker fuel.
3. Cargo residues.
4. Contents of slop tank
What is the restriction in Piping to and from oil residue (sludge) tanks?
1. All piping shall be of minimum 50 mm OD.

5. 1
2. No interconnection to sewage system.
3. Have no direct connection overboard.
4. Have no bends in drain system.
Which machinery in engine room provides constant filling to sludge tanks?
1. Air compressors.
6. 1
2. Fuel oil transfer pump.
3. Purifiers.
4. Bilge pump
7. Sludge needs to be heated for ease in transfer. What is provided in sludge tank for this purpose? 1
1. Straight pipe connection to sludge pump.

2. Thermal oil heating.
3. Heating coil.
4. Self closing drain.
What is the requirement for Sludge Tank capacity of a vessel?:
1. Minimum 10 cubic meters.

8. 1
2. 5 times the maximum pumping rate of sludge pump.
3. 1% of used HFO for 30 days
4. 2.5 % of used HFO for 30 days
What is the requirement for drain valves fitted in Sludge tanks?
1. Non return valve.

9. 1
2. Ball valve.
3. Manually operated self-closing valves
4. Remote operated quick closing valve
Which statutory certificate of a vessel includes tanks associated with bilge and sludge systems?
1. IAPP certificate.
10. 1
2. Tonnage certificate.
3. IOPP certificate
4. MLC certificate.
Answer Key
1. Ship shall be enroute.

2. Bilge systems.
3. 15 ppm
4. Cargo residues.
5. Have no direct connection overboard.
6. Purifiers.
7. Heating coil.
8. 1% of used HFO for 30 days
9. Manually operated self-closing valves
10. IOPP certificate
The rate of expansion of heated fuel oil varies with the _______
1. Conductivity
1. 1
2. Viscosity
3. Volume
4. Specific gravity
"w" is the inward distance of oil fuel tanks from the side shell plating? What is the minimum value for
"w" for ships having an aggregate oil fuel capacity of > 5000 m3 ?
2. 1. 2.0 meter 1
2. 1.2 meter
3. 1.0 meter
4. 0.76 meter
You may improve a vessel's stability by _________
1. Keeping double-bottom fuel tanks topped off

3. 1
2. Increasing the free surface effect of liquid storage tanks
3. Keeping fuel tanks at least half full
4. Keeping at least one fuel tank empty for slops
Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a corrosion resistant wire mesh screen to ________.
1. Prevent dirt from entering the tank

4. 1
2. Dissipate fumes leaving the vent
3. Prevent flames from entering the tank
4. Prevent accidental overflow
What is the maximum capacity of individual fuel tank as per Marpol annex-!?.
1. 500 m3
5. 1
2. 4500 m3
3. 2500 m3
4. 1500 m3
A flame screen ________
1. Permits the passage of vapor but not of flame

6. 1
2. Prevents the passage of flammable vapors
3. Prevents inert gas from leaving a tank
4. Permits vapors to exit but not enter a tank
7. What is the specification for distance "h" from the molded line of the bottom shell plating for oil fuel 1
tanks?
1. 1.5 meters
2. 2.5 meters
3. Nowhere less than the distance “h” , which is either B/20(m) ,or, 2.0 (m), whichever is lesser.
Her, B= maximum breadth of the ship in metres.
4. > 2.0 meters.
What is location for ships (except self-elevating drilling units), having an aggregate oil fuel capacity
of 600 m3 and above?
8. 1. Aft of accommodation. 1
2. Forward of accommodation.
3. Above the molded line of the bottom shell plating.
4. Accessible to machinery spaces.
"w" is the inward distance of oil fuel tanks from the side shell plating? What is the minimum value for
"w" for ships having an aggregate oil fuel capacity of >600 m3 but < 5000 m3 ?
9. 1. 2.5 m 1
2. 1.2 m
3. 0.76 m
4. 1.5 m
Answer Key
1. Specific gravity
2. 1.0 meter
3. Keeping double-bottom fuel tanks topped off
4. Prevent flames from entering the tank
5. 2500 m3
6. Permits the passage of vapor but not of flame
Nowhere less than the distance “h” , which is either B/20(m) ,or, 2.0 (m), whichever is lesser. Her, B=
7.
maximum breadth of the ship in metres.
8. Above the molded line of the bottom shell plating.
9. 0.76 m
Standard flange connections are provided on vessel to transfer oil residues and bilges to shore
reception facility. What is the allowed service pressure of this flange?
1. 1. 500 kPa 1
2. 900 kPa
3. 600 kPa
4. 400 kPa
reception facility. How many holes are provided in this flange?
2. 1. 8 1
2. 12
3. 6
4. 4
reception facility. What is the thickness of this flange?
3. 1. 15 mm 1
2. 24 mm
3. 20 mm
4. 30 mm
reception facility. What is the bolt circle diameter of this flange?
4. 1. 145 mm 1
2. 100 mm
3. 183 mm
4. 120 mm
reception facility. What is the outer diameter of this flange?
5. 1. 125 mm 1
2. 200 mm
3. 215 mm
4. 350 mm
Answer Key
1. 600 kPa
2. 6
3. 20 mm
4. 183 mm
5. 215 mm
TD-107 is a type of oil content meter fitted with some OWS. What is the principle of working applied
in this instrument?
1. 1. UV ray technology. 1
2. Electrical conductivity.
4. Infra red ray
What devise is used for real time sampling and measuring of the oil content in a moving stream of
water?
2. 1. Tank Sensors 1
2. Oil Water Activator
3. Digital Radar Tech
A sample of water leaving the OWS is drawn off automatically and passed through a detector cell
for measuring the oil content. Where is this sample water drained off ?
3. 1. To overboard discharge. 1
2. To oily waste tank.
4. To Bilge main.
Monitoring and control system is provided for OWS in machinery space. What is the maximum limit
for audio/visual alarm fitted in OWS?
4. 1. 50 ppm 1
2. 25 ppm
3. 15 ppm
4. 100 ppm
What is the maximum permissible quantity of oil that can be pumped overboard through an oil
filtering equipment?
5. 1. 100 ppm 1
2. 10 ppm
3. 15 ppm
4. 20 ppm
An automatic 3 way valve is fitted in overboard discharge pipe for OWS. What is the purpose of this
3 way valve?
6. 1. To prevent overboard discharge if oil content exceeds 50 ppm. 1

2. To recirculate the oily mixture to bilges if oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
4. To divert the discharge of oily mixture to sludge tank if oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
7. What is the measuring range of oil content meter fitted with OWS? 1
1. 10 to 30 ppm
2. 0 to 50 ppm
3. 0 to 30 ppm
4. 0 to 100 ppm
What is oil discharge monitoring system in oil tanker?

8. 1
2. It is the measurement of oil content discharge of 80Ltrs/K.M/Hr in ballast or slop
3. This is an instrument which measures if there is any leakages of oil from the tank
4. It is an instrument which measures any leakages of oil from one tank to other
Machinery space oily water must be processed through approved oil filtering equipment to limit
water oil content to _____:
9. 1. 10 parts per million 1

The oil content meter fitted with OWS, which maintains an electronic record of equipment status
every 15 seconds. How many months are these records kept stored?
10. 1. 12 months 1
2. 36 months.
3. 18 months
4. 24 months
Answer Key

4. 15 ppm
5. 15 ppm
7. 0 to 30 ppm
10. 18 months
Under what circumstances you will start the oily water separator?
1. When the engine room bilges are full

1. 1
2. When the bilge holding tank is almost full
3. When there is a serious leakages
4. When there is an oil spill into the bilges
In the two stage OWS, oil is separated by gravity in the first stage. What method is used in the
second stage?
2. 1. Centrifugal action. 1
2. Chemical flocculation.
3. Coalescing filters.
4. Ceramic filters.
You as a fourth engineer and have taken over watch from third engineer. He said OWS is running at
0 ppm. But after taking over watch you observed that fresh water flushing valve is crack open. After
closing it, suddenly the oil content has exceeded 15ppm. What is the required action?
3. 2
1. Raise engineer alarm..
2. Shut the OWS but no need to inform anyone.
3. Shut the OWS & inform CEO.
4. Just check that there is no visible color/oil traces in sea water so don't have to inform anyone.
What is the mandatory spares for the oily water separator?
1. At least one three way overboard valve

4. 1
2. At least one 15ppm alarm unit
3. At least one filter element
4. At least one relief valve
Relief valves are fitted in both stages of the two stage OWS. Where are the contents so relieved led
to?
5. 1. Bilges. 1
2. incinerator service tank.
3. Suction side of supply pump.
4. Discharge side of supply pump.
what controls the discharge of oil overboard when bilges are being pumped out from the engine
room, as required by Annex I?
6. 1. Bilge Tanks/Sensor Activator 1

2. Pumping activator and Sensor Antenna
3. Bilge oil separators
4. Conductive circuitry/Slop Tank
7. Approval standard for OWS is found in IMO Resolution MEPC.107(49). Where is this approval found 1
for US waters?
1. OPA-90
2. Canadian coast guard regulations.
3. US Coast Guard Regulations 46 CFR
4. Indian coast guard regulations.
What type of probe is fitted in the first stage of two stage OWS for sensing oil content?
1. Thermal probe.
8. 1
2. Conductivity probe.
3. Capacitance probe.
4. Resistance probe.
Oil control valves are fitted in both stages of the two stage OWS. What type of valve is fitted for this
oil control?
9. 1. Ball valve 1
2. Double check valve.
3. Diaphragm controlled piston valve.
4. Manual flap valve.
The usual working pressure of the OWS is about 2.0 bar. What is the set pressure for relief valves
fitted in both stages?
10. 1. 2.1 bar 1

2. 3.0 bar
3. 2.5 bar
4. 4.0 bar
Answer Key
1. When the bilge holding tank is almost full

2. Coalescing filters.
3. Shut the OWS & inform CEO.
4. At least one filter element
5. Suction side of supply pump.
6. Bilge oil separators
7. US Coast Guard Regulations 46 CFR
8. Capacitance probe.
9. Diaphragm controlled piston valve.
10. 2.5 bar
Which of the following valves cannot prevent backflow of liquid in a pipeline?
1. Globe Check Valve

1. 1
2. Swing Check Valve.
3. Gate valve.
4. Angle check valve.
Which type of vessels use deep well cargo pump?
1. General cargo vessel.

2. 1
2. Ro-Ro vessels.
3. LNG Vessels.
4. Towing vessels.
Which type of valve is not rotating type:
3. 1. Plug valve. 1
2. Butterfly valve.
3. Gate Valve.
4. Ball valve.
Answer Key
1. Gate valve.
2. LNG Vessels.
3. Gate Valve.
An indication of high salinity in the distillate discharged from a low-pressure distilling plant can be
the result of __________.
1. 1. Maintaining the proper distilling plant heat balance. 2

2. Carrying the brine level below normal.
3. Leaks in the demister baffles.
4. Venting of the saltwater heater drain pump.
Scale Formation in FWG evaporator side Causes:–
1. Decrease in shell temp

2. 2
2. Impaired water transfer.
3. Production is affected.
4. Overloading of distillate pump.
High salinity of distilled water produced from freshwater generator is due to:
1. High evaporation temperature.

3. 2
2. High sea water temperature
3. Leaking condenser tube.
4. High scaling on tube surface.
Which of the listed problems is occurring if a coil type high pressure evaporator constantly requires
an increase in the coil steam pressure in order to maintain capacity?
4. 1. The water density is very low. 2

2. Heat transfer surfaces are corroded.
3. Impure distillate is being produced.
4. Fluctuations in pressure.
Answer Key
1. Leaks in the demister baffles.

2. Production is affected.
3. Leaking condenser tube.
4. Impure distillate is being produced.
Which of the following is the common type of sterilization method?
1. 1. Passivation 1
2. Chlorination
3. Filtration
What is Ultra Violet sterilization of water?
2. 1. Destroying viruses and bacterias using ultra violet light rays 1

2. Removal of dissolved solids using ultra violet light rays
3. Enhancing the taste of water by ultra violet rays
Which corrosion inhibitor should not be added in main engine jacket cooling water when it is used as
the heating medium for Fresh water generator?
3. 1
1. Nitrates
2. Phosphates
3. Chromates
Name the method used apart from chlorination for sterilizing the water?
4. 1. Ultra Violet sterilization 1

2. Sedimentation
3. Filtration
Where the fresh water generator should not be used for producing drinking water?
5. 1. In special areas 1
2. In ports and within 20 miles off the coastline
3. In high seas
Answer Key
1. Chlorination
2. Destroying viruses and bacterias using ultra violet light rays
3. Chromates
4. Ultra Violet sterilization
Portable cartridges for drinking water can handle about 5000 to 50000 liters. What is the least size of
pathogens they can remove?
1. 1. 0.5 to 0.9 micrometre 1

2. 1.0 micrometre
3. 0.2 to 0.3 micrometre
4. 2 to 5 micrometres
In UV treatment of drinking water, what is the effect of UV light on microorganisms?
1. Kills them
2. 1
2. Filters them.
3. Attacks the genetic code, thus eliminating their ability to function and reproduce.
4. Prevents their growth.
UV treatment for drinking water uses germicidal lamps. These lamps have frequency of :
1. 100 micrometers.
3. 1
2. 50 nano-meters.
3. 254 nano-meters.
4. 1000 nano-meters.
Which vapour is used in germicidal lamp fitted in UV treatment of drinking water?
1. Alcohol vapour.
4. 1
2. Sulfur vapour.
3. Mercury vapour.
4. Halogen
WHO recommends testing of drinking water for bacteria, PH, free chlorine, metals,etc. Which
bacteria is of the main concern?
5. 1. Typhoid 1
2. Malaria
3. E-Coli
4. Tuberculosis
What is the recommended range of PH value in drinking water by WHO?
1. 6 to 9
6. 1
2. 5.5 to 8.6
3. 6.5 to 9.5
4. 7 to 9
7. What is the power rating of germicidal lamp used in UV treatment of drinking water? 1
1. 100 watts.
2. 200 watts.
3. 9 watts
4. 1 KW
Most drinking water filters used on board remove bacteria and viruses larger than 0.3 micrometer.
What further action is required to remove viruses less than 0.3 micrometer?
8. 1. Adding common salt. 1

2. Iodine treatment.
3. Disinfection by chemicals or Ultra violet treatment.
4. Heating.
The drinking water does not come into contact with germicidal lamp used in UV treatment. The
germicidal lamp is housed in a :
9. 1. Paper cartridge 1
2. Metal cartridge
3. Quartz glass sleeve
4. Ceramic container.
Answer Key

3. 254 nano-meters.
4. Mercury vapour.
5. E-Coli
6. 6.5 to 9.5
7. 9 watts
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding LNG carriers?
1. Shipboard generation of inert gas for cargo tanks is a requirement.

1. 2
2. Inert gas generators are fitted on LNG carriers.
3. LNG carriers use ship's main boilers for generation of inert gas.
4. Gaseous nitrogen is produced on board in many gas carriers’
Hydride formation in gas carrier vessel can lead to a:
1. Contamination of cargo.
2. 2
2. Exothermic reaction.
3. Seizure of pump.
4. Increase in cargo temperature.
A portion of the cargo of an LNG carrier boils off during each voyage. How is the boil-off gas
handled?
3. 1. Compressed, condensed, and returned to the slop tanks. 2

2. Vented to the atmosphere.
3. Burned in the boilers.
4. Burnt off in a controlled manner through a chimney smoke stack from within the funnel.
Answer Key
1. LNG carriers use ship's main boilers for generation of inert gas.
2. Seizure of pump.
3. Burned in the boilers.
Sewage plant efficiency is gauged by:
1. Floating solids.
1. 1
2. Bacteria count.
3. BOD.
4. Number of operations per day.
Answer Key
1. BOD.
with ref to the Sewage Treatment plant illustration, identify the part marked as letter “A“?
1. 1
1. Chlorination tank
2. Blowers
3. High level float
4. Low level float
Which of the following sewage treatment plant system is currently used in on board ships
1. Membrane type treatment plant

2. 2. All the above 2
3. Aerobic treatment plant
4. Chemical treatment plant
Annex IV of MARPOL 73/78.Contains regulations for the prevention of
1. pollution by water
3. 2. None of these 2
3. pollution by sewage
4. pollution by air
4. With ref to the Sewage Treatment plant illustration, identify the part marked as letter “B“? 1
2. High level float
3. Low level float
4. Blowers
In aerobic treatment plant the amount of oxygen taken up by the sample in milligrams per litre or
p.p.m., is termed the
5. 1. None of these 1
2. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (B.O.D)
3. Chemical Oxygen demand
6. with ref to the Sewage Treatment plant illustration, identify the part marked as letter “D“? 1
2. Low level float.
3. Blowers.
4. High level float
7. with ref to the Sewage Treatment plant illustration, identify the part marked as letter “C“? 1
1. Low level float

2. High level float
3. Chlorination tank.
4. Blowers
Answer Key
1. High level float

2. All the above
3. pollution by sewage
4. Low level float
5. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (B.O.D)
6. Blowers.
7. Chlorination tank.
With respect to Vessel Sewage Discharge and the US Regulations , find an incorrect statement,
1. “Sewage” is defined under the CWA as “human body wastes and the wastes from toilets and
other receptacles intended to receive or retain body wastes,”
1. 2
2. Sewage includes graywater discharges from commercial vessels operating on the Great Lakes.
3. According to Annex IV MARPOL 73/78, the sewage is only defined as drainage and other
wastes from any form of toilets, urinals, and WC scuppers (floor drains).
4. Sewage Control in US Waters is under section 312 of the Clean Water Act
Related Laws and Treaties for CWA; find an incorrect assumption:
1. Sewage discharges from certain vessels may be subject to regulation under other Federal
statutes and/or international requirements.
2. Example of CWA violation regulations will not include Title XIV, which applies to certain cruise
2. 1
ships operating in Alaska
3. Example of CWA violation regulations include MARPOL Annex IV, which applies if the vessel's
flag State is a party to Annex IV.
4. Graywater and sewage that have been mixed into one effluent stream are regulated under
the NPDES VGP, issued by the EPA under the CWA.
U.S.-Flag Vessel Survey and SOVC; find an inaccurate statement:
1. A U.S.-flag vessel is subject to an initial survey before the vessel is first put into service or
before the SOVC is issued for the first time.
3. 1
2. A renewal survey is required every five years.
3. Vessels that make repairs or modifications to their sewage systems during the five-year
period will also be subject to reexamination.
4. An SOVC is valid for ten years, with a renewal inspection every 5 years
The regulations allow various methods of securing a Type I and II marine sanitation device (MSD)
while in an NDZ; identify one such method that is not correct.
1. Closing the seacock and removing the handle;

4. 2
2. Padlocking the seacock in the closed position;
3. Using a non-releasable wire-tie to hold the seacock in the closed position;
4. Locking the door to the space enclosing the toilets with a padlock or door handle key lock.
5. Closing valves leading to overboard discharge and removing the handle
MARPOL Annex IV and the US; find an inaccurate statement:
1. The principal international instrument regulating sewage discharges from vessels is "MARPOL
Annex IV".
2. The United States is not a party to MARPOL Annex IV, and thus is not bound by the Annex's
5. 1
provisions.
3. Ocean-going vessels operating in U.S. navigable waters which are registered in foreign
countries may be subject to the MAPROL Annex IV requirements.
4. US flagged ocean-going vessels visiting foreign ports may be subject to MARPOL inspections
and even with a SOVC certification, the US vessels can be impounded.
6. In establishing NDZs and enforcement by the various US states, identify an inaccurate assumption: 2
1. The provisions of section 312 are enforced by the US Coast Guard and cannot be enforced by
the states as well.
2. States may request that the EPA establish no-discharge zones for vessel sewage (areas in
which both treated and untreated sewage discharges from vessels are prohibited).
3. States may establish such zones themselves after required findings are made by the EPA.
4. States may not adopt or enforce any statute or regulation with respect to the design,
manufacture, installation or use of any MSD on any vessel subject to the requirements of
section 312 under CWA
With respect to Vessel Sewage Discharge and the US Regulations, find an incorrect statement,
1. Under the CWA, sewage discharges from vessels are controlled in part by regulating the
equipment that treats or holds the sewage: marine sanitation devices (MSDs).
2. MSD is "any equipment for installation on board a vessel which is designed to receive, retain,
7. 2
treat, or discharge sewage, and any process to treat such sewage."
3. CWA requires the use of operable, USCG-certified MSDs on board vessels equipped with
installed toilets
4. CWA requires the use of operable, EPA-certified MSDs on board vessels operating on U.S.
navigable waters (which include the three-mile territorial seas).
1. Vessel discharges have the potential to impair water quality, adversely affect aquatic
environments and increase risks to human health.
8. 2. Section 312 of the Clean Water Act (CWA) sets out the principal framework for domestically 2
regulating sewage discharges from vessels
3. The CWA is implemented jointly by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and the
U.S. Coast Guard.
4. Sewage does not include graywater discharges from vessels operating on the Great Lakes.
NDZ for vessel sewage defines the prohibition; find an inappropriate statement:
1. An NDZ is an area in which both treated and untreated sewage discharges from vessels are
prohibited.
2. Within NDZ boundaries, vessel operators are required to retain their sewage discharges
9. 2
onboard
3. Within NDZ boundaries, vessel operators can only discharge sewage at sea- a minimum of 12
miles away from shore
4. Within NDZ boundaries, vessel operators are required to discharge sewage onshore at a
pump-out facility.
1. Under section 312 of the Clean Water Act, provides the principal framework for domestically
10. 2
2. The EPA regulates the equipment that treats or holds the sewage (marine sanitation devices)
3. The EPA establishes areas in which the discharge of sewage from vessels is not allowed (no-
discharge zones).
4. The USCG issues the EIAPP certification for the diesel engines fitted on board
11. "Title XIV" (33 U.S.C. 1901 Note); find an inaccurate assumption 1
1. On December 21, 2000, US Congress enacted an omnibus appropriation bill that included new
statutory requirements for certain cruise ships discharging graywater and sewage in Alaska
2. Title XIV did not supersede regulation of sewage discharges from cruise ships under CWA
section 312.
3. Title XIV establishes separate requirements for the discharge of treated sewage and
graywater from cruise ships with capacity for 500 or more passengers and operating in
certain waters in Alaska.
4. Like the CWA section 312 program, Title XIV is implemented by the U.S. Coast Guard.
1. MSD is "any equipment for installation on board a vessel which is designed to receive and
retain, but not treat, or discharge sewage, which is part of another process”.
2. The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and the U.S. Coast Guard jointly regulate
12. 2
MSDs under CWA section 312.
3. The EPA has issued regulations setting performance standards for MSDs (40 CFR 140), which
address fecal coliform and total suspended solids.
4. The Coast Guard has issued regulations (33 CFR 159) governing the design, construction,
certification, installation and operation of MSDs, consistent with the EPA's standards.
Vessel Discharge Permit Program (Vessel General Permit); identify an incorrect statement:
1. The Vessel Incidental Discharge Act (VIDA) legislation, enacted on December 4, 2018, repeals
the Small Vessel General Permit (sVGP) issued on September 10, 2014
2. The sVGP is for the control of incidental discharges for vessels less than 79 feet in length (i.e.,
13. 1
small vessels).
3. The sVGP permit, once issued, remains valid and in effect.
4. The VIDA legislation specifies, except for ballast water, discharges incidental to the normal
operation of small vessels and commercial fishing vessels no longer require NPDES permit
coverage.
1. According to Annex IV MARPOL 73/78, the sewage control is not a part of an US obligation.
2. Section 312 of the Clean Water Act (CWA) sets out the principal framework for domestically
14. 2
3. The EPA and USCG regulates the equipment that treats or holds the sewage (marine
sanitation devices)
4. Vessel sewage is generally controlled in two ways.
Implementing CWA Regulations; identify an incorrect assumption
1. The EPA regulations implementing CWA section 312 (standards for marine sanitation devices
(MSDs)): 40 CFR 140
2. U.S. Coast Guard regulations implementing CWA section 312 (regulations governing the
15. design, construction, certification, installation and operation of MSDs). 33 CFR 159 Subparts 1
A-D
3. MSD Type I, Type II and Type III , all types can be used on commercial cargo vessels that
visits US and other foreign ports
4. The United States Coast Guard has the authority to impound any vessel for CWA violation
within US waters
16. For Area designated as an NDZ under the CWA, find a statement that is not strictly true: 2
1. The state determines that the water body requires greater environmental protection, and EPA
finds that adequate pump-out facilities are available.
2. The EPA, upon application by the state, determines that the protection and enhancement of
the water body requires establishment of an NDZ.
3. If the EPA determines, upon application by a state, the protection and enhancement of
specified waters requires sewage discharges to be prohibited, the EPA will prohibit, by
regulation, sewage discharge from a vessel.
4. A state cannot, under any circumstances, completely prohibit sewage discharge from vessels,
whether the sewage is treated or not, into its waters
1. Section 312 of the Clean Water Act (CWA) sets out the principal framework for domestically
17. 2
2. EPA conducts onboard inspections for issuing IAPP certification
3. The EPA regulates the equipment that treats or holds the sewage (marine sanitation devices)
4. EPA establishes areas in which the discharge of sewage from vessels is not allowed (no-
discharge zones)
With respect to Vessel Sewage Discharge and the US Regulations, find the correct answer,
Identify which type of MSD must produce an effluent with:
- No visible floating solids
- A fecal coliform bacterial count not greater than 1000 per 100 milliliters
Select your answer from below:
18. 2
1. Type I MSD
2. Type II MSD
3. Type III MSD
19. 2
3. The MSD requirements do apply to vessels that do not have installed toilets (e.g., vessels
with "porta-potties").
installed toilets
20. 2
3. CWA requires the use of operable, EPA-certified MSDs on board vessels equipped with
installed toilets
4. CWA requires the use of operable, USCG-certified MSDs on board vessels operating on U.S.
navigable waters (which include the three-mile territorial seas).
21. Revised Annex IV Applicability; find an inaccurate statement: 1
1. The revisions to Annex IV will be applicable to vessels engaged on international voyages that
have their keel laid on or after January 1, 2008
2. The revisions to Annex IV will be applicable to vessels engaged on international voyages that
have a sewage treatment plant installed or delivered after Jan 1, 2010.
3. U.S.-flag vessels with a keel date prior to January 1, 2010, may continue to use equipment
certified to either the 1976 international effluent standard or the current U.S. standards found
in 33 C.F.R. Part 159.
4. U.S.-flag vessels with a sewage plant installation or delivery prior to Jan 1, 2010, may
continue to use equipment certified to either the 1976 international effluent standard or the
current U.S. standards found in 33 C.F.R. Part 159.
The regulations allow various methods of securing a Type III marine sanitation device (MSD) while
in an NDZ; identify one such method that is not correct.
22. 1. Closing the seacock and removing the handle 2

2. Closing valves leading to overboard discharge and removing the handle;
3. Padlocking any valves leading to overboard discharge in the closed position;
4. Holding overboard discharge valves closed using a non-releasable wire-tie.
For the Clean water Act in the USA, find a statement that contains an error:
1. The CWA defines "discharge of a pollutant" as any addition of any pollutant to navigable
waters of the USA from any point source
2. The CWA defines "discharge of a pollutant" as any addition of any pollutant to the US waters
23. of the contiguous zone or the ocean from any point source other than a vessel or other 1
floating craft.
3. A "point source" is not a "discernible, confined and discrete conveyance" and includes a
"vessel or other floating craft."
4. A person or point source may discharge a pollutant without violating the prohibition by
obtaining a National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit under the CWA.
Find an incorrect answer for enforcement by USCG in NDZs
1. The U.S. Coast Guard and the state in which the NDZ has been designated may enforce the
NDZ requirements.
24. 2. The regulations allow for four methods of securing a Type I marine sanitation device (MSD) 2
while in an NDZ
3. The regulations allow for three methods of securing a Type II marine sanitation device (MSD)
while in an NDZ
4. The regulations allow for three methods of securing a Type III device while in an NDZ
1. Type II type MSDs can be fitted on vessels of any length

25. 2
2. Type III type MSDs can be fitted on vessels of any length
3. Type I MSDs are fitted on vessels of a maximum length of 65 feet
4. Type III MSDs are fitted on vessels of a maximum length of 65 feet
26. With respect to Vessel Sewage Discharge and the US Regulations, find an incorrect statement, 2
installed toilets
MARPOL Annex IV revisions, was effective January 2010, Find an inaccurate assumption on that:
1. Vessels flagged by States that are a party to Annex IV carry an International Sewage
Pollution Prevention Certificate (“ISPPC”) to demonstrate that the vessel complies with Annex
IV requirements.
2. Since the United States is not a party to Annex IV, U.S.-flag vessels now carry a Certificate of
27. 1
Equivalency issued by the U.S. Coast Guard.
3. Once the revised standards go into effect, the equivalency that existed between Type I and
Type II marine sanitation devices will be eliminated, thus creating the potential for adverse
port state control action against U.S.-flag vessels.
4. U.S.-flag vessels will be eligible to obtain a Statement of Voluntary Compliance (“SOVC”) from
the EPA to evidence that the vessel meets the updated Annex IV requirements.
Find a statement that is not strictly true. :For Area designated as an NDZ under the CWA
“A state may completely prohibit sewage discharge from vessels, whether the sewage is treated or
not, into some or all of its waters if:
1. State has no river or lake-based inland ports or recreational facilities

28. 2
2. The state determines that the protection and enhancement of the quality of the waterbody
requires greater environmental protection than the current federal standards allow; and
3. EPA determines that adequate facilities for the safe and sanitary removal and treatment of
sewage from vessels are reasonably available.
4. State has no navigable waters
Must produce an effluent with No performance standard
29. 2
1. Type I MSD
2. Type II MSD
3. Type III MSD
1. Vessel discharges have the potential to impair water quality, adversely affect aquatic
environments and increase risks to human health.
30. 2. Section 312 of the Clean Water Act (CWA) sets out the principal framework for domestically 2
3. The CWA is implemented under the sole authority of the U.S. Environmental Protection
Agency (EPA) and the U.S. Coast Guard.
4. Sewage includes graywater discharges from vessels operating on the Great Lakes.
31. Under the CWA, vessels are prohibited from discharging any sewage, whether treated by an MSD or 2
not, into the following types of water bodies; find an inaccurate assumption::
1. A water body that has been designated as a no-discharge zone (NDZ) by EPA.
2. Vessels equipped with Type I and II MSDs are not allowed entry in any NDZs since they have
no facility to retain sewage on board
3. Freshwater lakes, reservoirs, or other impoundments whose entrance point(s) and exit
point(s) are too shallow to allow vessels with installed toilets to enter and leave as identified
by EPA.
4. Rivers that do not support interstate traffic by vessels subject to section 312.
Related Laws and Treaties for CWA; find an incorrect assumption:
1. Graywater and sewage that have been mixed into one effluent stream are not regulated
under the NPDES VGP, issued by the EPA under the CWA.
2. Sewage discharges from certain vessels may be subject to regulation under other Federal
32. 1
statutes and/or international requirements.
3. Example of CWA violation regulations include Title XIV, which applies to certain cruise ships
operating in Alaska
4. Example of CWA violation regulations include MARPOL Annex IV, which applies if the vessel's
flag State is a party to Annex IV.
For the Clean water Act in the USA, find a statement that contains an error:
1. CWA provide the statutory framework under which the EPA and the U.S. Coast Guard regulate
sewage discharges from vessels.
2. The CWA defines "discharge of a pollutant" as any addition of any pollutant to navigable
waters of the USA from any point source
33. 3. The CWA defines "discharge of a pollutant" as any addition of any pollutant to the US waters 2
of the contiguous zone or the ocean from any point source other than a vessel or other
floating craft.
4. A "point source" is a "discernible, confined and discrete conveyance" and includes a "vessel or
other floating craft."
5. A person or point source will not discharge a pollutant violating the prohibition even after
obtaining a National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit under the CWA.
U.S.-Flag Vessel Survey and SOVC; find an inaccurate statement:
1. An SOVC may be obtained from the local Officer in Charge of Marine Inspections or an
authorized classification society after a successful onboard survey.
2. A foreign flag vessel that holds a valid SOVC issued by its flag administration will be accepted
34. 2
by the Coast Guard as following U.S. standards
3. A U.S.-flag vessel is subject to an initial survey before the vessel is first put into service or
before the SOVC is issued for the first time.
4. Vessels that make repairs or modifications to their sewage systems during the five-year
period will also be subject to reexamination.
35. With respect to Vessel Sewage Discharge and the US Regulations, find an incorrect statement, 2
1. The Coast Guard categorizes the MSDs and the most common for recreational boats are of
type I class category
2. Type I- Flow-through treatment devices that commonly use maceration and disinfection for
the treatment of sewage
3. Type II- may employ biological treatment and disinfection (some Type II MSDs may use
maceration and disinfection)
4. Type III- Typically a holding tank where sewage is stored until it can be discharged shore-side
or at sea (beyond three miles from shore)
With respect to Vessel Sewage Discharge under MARPOL and the US law, find an incorrect
statement,
1. According to Annex IV MARPOL 73/78, the sewage is defined as drainage and other wastes
from any form of toilets, urinals, and WC scuppers (floor drains).
36. 2. According to Annex IV MARPOL 73/78, the sewage control is part of an US obligation. 2
3. According to Annex IV MARPOL 73/78, the sewage is defined as drainage from medical
premises (dispensary, sick bay, etc.) via wash basins, wash tubs and scuppers located in such
premises.
4. According to Annex IV MARPOL 73/78, the sewage is defined as drainage from spaces
containing living animals.
1. The Coast Guard categorizes the MSDs and the most common for recreational boats are of
type III class category
37. 2. Typically Type I Class MSDs will be used by cargo vessels 2
3. Type I- Flow-through treatment devices that commonly use maceration and disinfection for
the treatment of sewage
4. Type II- may employ biological treatment and disinfection (some Type II MSDs may use
maceration and disinfection)
38. 2
installed toilets
Must produce an effluent with:
- A fecal coliform bacterial count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
- No more than 150 milligrams of total suspended solids per liter
39. 2
1. Type I MSD
2. Type II MSD
3. Type III MSD
Answer Key
According to Annex IV MARPOL 73/78, the sewage is only defined as drainage and other wastes from
1.
any form of toilets, urinals, and WC scuppers (floor drains).
Example of CWA violation regulations will not include Title XIV, which applies to certain cruise ships
2.
operating in Alaska
3. An SOVC is valid for ten years, with a renewal inspection every 5 years
4. Closing valves leading to overboard discharge and removing the handle
US flagged ocean-going vessels visiting foreign ports may be subject to MARPOL inspections and even
5.
with a SOVC certification, the US vessels can be impounded.
States may request that the EPA establish no-discharge zones for vessel sewage (areas in which both
6.
treated and untreated sewage discharges from vessels are prohibited).
CWA requires the use of operable, EPA-certified MSDs on board vessels operating on U.S. navigable
7.
waters (which include the three-mile territorial seas).
8. Sewage does not include graywater discharges from vessels operating on the Great Lakes.
Within NDZ boundaries, vessel operators can only discharge sewage at sea- a minimum of 12 miles
9.
away from shore
10. The USCG issues the EIAPP certification for the diesel engines fitted on board
11. Like the CWA section 312 program, Title XIV is implemented by the U.S. Coast Guard.
MSD is "any equipment for installation on board a vessel which is designed to receive and retain, but
12.
not treat, or discharge sewage, which is part of another process”.
13. The sVGP permit, once issued, remains valid and in effect.
The EPA and USCG regulates the equipment that treats or holds the sewage (marine sanitation
14.
devices)
MSD Type I, Type II and Type III , all types can be used on commercial cargo vessels that visits US
15.
and other foreign ports
A state cannot, under any circumstances, completely prohibit sewage discharge from vessels,
16.
whether the sewage is treated or not, into its waters
17. EPA conducts onboard inspections for issuing IAPP certification
18. Type I MSD
The MSD requirements do apply to vessels that do not have installed toilets (e.g., vessels with "porta-
19.
potties").
20. CWA requires the use of operable, EPA-certified MSDs on board vessels equipped with installed toilets
The revisions to Annex IV will be applicable to vessels engaged on international voyages that have
21.
their keel laid on or after January 1, 2008
22. Closing the seacock and removing the handle
A "point source" is not a "discernible, confined and discrete conveyance" and includes a "vessel or
23.
other floating craft."
The regulations allow for three methods of securing a Type II marine sanitation device (MSD) while in
24.
an NDZ
25. Type III MSDs are fitted on vessels of a maximum length of 65 feet
The MSD requirements do apply to vessels that do not have installed toilets (e.g., vessels with "porta-
26.
potties").
U.S.-flag vessels will be eligible to obtain a Statement of Voluntary Compliance (“SOVC”) from the
27.
EPA to evidence that the vessel meets the updated Annex IV requirements.
28. State has no river or lake-based inland ports or recreational facilities
29. Type III MSD
The CWA is implemented under the sole authority of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
30.
and the U.S. Coast Guard.
31. Vessels equipped with Type I and II MSDs are not allowed entry in any NDZs since they have no
facility to retain sewage on board

Graywater and sewage that have been mixed into one effluent stream are not regulated under the
32.
NPDES VGP, issued by the EPA under the CWA.
A person or point source will not discharge a pollutant violating the prohibition even after obtaining a
33.
National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit under the CWA.
A foreign flag vessel that holds a valid SOVC issued by its flag administration will be accepted by the
34.
Coast Guard as following U.S. standards
The Coast Guard categorizes the MSDs and the most common for recreational boats are of type I
35.
class category
36. According to Annex IV MARPOL 73/78, the sewage control is part of an US obligation.
37. Typically Type I Class MSDs will be used by cargo vessels
CWA requires the use of operable, USCG-certified MSDs on board vessels equipped with installed
38.
toilets
39. Type II MSD
What are the main spares for E-Vac 900 to be stocked up as critical spares?
1. Vacuum pump
1. 1
2. Hose clips
3. Water valve, control mechanism, mini check valve and discharge valve.
4. Non return valves
What is the range of vacuum maintained in E-Vac system?
1. -10 kPa to -20 kPa.

2. 1
2. -30 kPa to -10 kPa.
3. -50 kPa to -35 kPa.
4. -20 kPa to -15 kPa.
What is the quantity of water used for one flush in vacuum toilets?
1. 5 liters
3. 1
2. 3 liters
3. Approximately one liter.
4. 2 liters.
Where is the grease separator fitted in E-Vac toilet system?
1. In the overboard discharge piping.

4. 1
2. In the pipes from urinals.
3. In the galley and kitchen piping.
4. In the pipes from bath tubs.
State all the main components of a ship's E-vac black water system:
1. Grey water holding tank

5. 1
2. Grey water collecting unit.
3. Vacuum toilets, collecting unit and sewage treatment plant.
4. Sewage holding tank.
In E-vac system. a foreign object in bowl or discharge valve causes toilet to discharge continuously.
What is the remedy?
6. 1. Open water valve 1

2. Close water valve
3. Remove foreign object or renew discharge valve.
4. Clean filter.
7. Sanitary fixtures like, urinals, wash basins, shower trays and bath tubs are operated with gravity 1
principle. They are connected to vacuum system through:
1. Non return valve

2. Flow check valve
3. Vacuum interface valve
4. Automatic drain valve
How are the vacuum pumps controlled in the E-Vac toilet system?
1. Temperature switch
8. 1
2. Level switch
3. Pressure switch.
4. Flow switch.
What is the main and significant advantage of E-vac toilet system?
1. Low initial installation cost.

9. 1
2. Saving in spares for maintenance.
3. Water saving.
4. Less hazardous.
What is the main defining characteristic of E-vac 2000 system?
1. Ejector
10. 1
2. Air filter
3. Odour filter
4. Air regulator.
Answer Key
1. Water valve, control mechanism, mini check valve and discharge valve.
2. -50 kPa to -35 kPa.
3. Approximately one liter.
4. In the galley and kitchen piping.
5. Vacuum toilets, collecting unit and sewage treatment plant.
6. Remove foreign object or renew discharge valve.
7. Vacuum interface valve
8. Pressure switch.
9. Water saving.
10. Odour filter
In general , the hydrophore system used onboard is for ________________.
1. 1. Domestic Fresh water system 1

2. Sanitary water system
3. Both (i) & (ii)
What checks are to be made in the fresh water hydrophore system to make sure un interrupted supply.
1. air valve, drain valve

2. 2. tank pressure, storage tank level 1
3. fresh water level, compressed air pressure
4. pressure regulator, pump
When securing a centrifugal type distillate pump, which of,the listed steps should be carried out first?
1. Close the pressure gage,isolation valves.

3. 2
2. Secure the casing vapor vent line.
3. Secure the stuffing box sealing water line.
4. Trip the three way dump valve.
Ultra violet light system fitted along with hydrophore unit helps to reduce _______________ in the
water
4. 1. Salt 1
2. Bacteria
3. Chlorine
4. All of above
What is the reason for frequent cut in and out of hydrophore pump?
1. Pressure is less.
5. 1
2. Water is more.
3. Close setting of differential in pressure switch.
4. Pump has low design capacity.
A hydrophore unit consists of ____________________.
1. Pressure vessel
6. 1
2. Self priming centrifugal pump
3. Pressure controller
4. All of above
Hydrophore unit is a pressure vessel used to _____________.
1. Maintain system pressure and delivery capacity at all times

7. 2. Boost up the system pressure 2
3. Keep the water free from Bacteria
4. All of above
8. The advantages of hydrophore systems are _____________.

2
1. Simple to operate
2. Simple maintenance
3. Highly reliable
4. All of above
Whenever the pressure of air falls inside the hydrophore tank, it is reinstated by adding more water or
air. State True or False ____________.
9. 1
1. True
2. False
Answer Key
1. Both (i) & (ii)

2. fresh water level, compressed air pressure
3. Trip the three way dump valve.
4. Bacteria
5. Close setting of differential in pressure switch.
6. All of above
7. Maintain system pressure and delivery capacity at all times
8. All of above
9. True
How the vacuum is generated in the FWG and why?
1. by ejector pump vacuum is created to reduce the boiling temperature of water

1. 2. by venturi to raise the boiling temperature of water 1
3. by centrifugal pump to generate more water
4. by air extraction pump to boil the water easely
What is the role of the brine eductor?
1. this pump takes out fresh water and deliver to the tank
2. 2. this pump helps to work the evaporator efficiently 1
3. this pump generates fresh water
4. To remove the brine and air from the evaporator
Answer Key
1. by ejector pump vacuum is created to reduce the boiling temperature of water

2. To remove the brine and air from the evaporator
Which of the following statements is correct relative to distillation plant operation?
1. Distillate is the product resulting from the evaporation of freshwater vapor.

1. 2. Brine is the result of condensed sea water vapor 2
3. Distillation is the process of boiling seawater to produce vapor which is condensed into fresh
water.
4. Evaporation is the second part of the distillation process where brine is removed.
What is the average TDS (total dissolved solids) content in seawater?
1. Greater than 20 ppm

2. 1
4. Less than 4 ppm
What is the important advantage in evaporating seawater at sub atmospheric pressures?
3. 1. Utilization of waste heat 1

2. Higher rate of fresh water production
3. Lesser power consumption
Construction, operation and characterstistic

How much is the amount of suspended solids in good quality boiler feed water?
4. 1. Less than 2.5 mg/liter 1

2. Above 10 mg/liter
What is the salinity of fresh water produced from the thermal process in terms of ppm of chloride?

5. 1
4. Less than 4 ppm
Give two methods of fresh water production used onboard ships?
1. Osmosis and condensation

6. 1
2. Distillation and reverse osmosis
3. Osmosis and evaporation
4. Evacuation and Condensation
Answer Key
1. Distillation is the process of boiling seawater to produce vapor which is condensed into fresh water.
3. Utilization of waste heat
4. Less than 2.5 mg/liter
5. Less than 4 ppm
1. Sketch and describe a double effect shell evaporator utilising low grade heat to produce distillate.
2
What is the function of the item marked A in the diagram below ?
2. 1
1. To break the vacuum and bring the FWG to atmospheric pressure once the FWG production is
stopped
2. To cool the FWG
3. To release excess pressure in the FWG
3. What are the materials used in the construction of an evaporator?

2
What is the important advantage in evaporating seawater at sub atmospheric pressures?
4. 1. Utilization of waste heat 1

2. Higher rate of fresh water production
3. Lesser power consumption
What are the reasons for loss in vacuum, high shell temperature and high salinity. Explain the
5. 3
causes, consequence and actions taken to prevent them.
6. Which letter represents the distillate pump in the image below? 1
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
Describe the construction and operation of double effect type shell evaporator and name the
7. 3
material used for components inside the evaporator.
8. a. How is seawater evaporated in a shell and tube evaporator?

2
A high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop seal between two stages of a fl ash type
evaporator would indicate,
a. Chill shocking is necessary to remove scale.
b. Leakage at the second-stage condenser.
9. 4
c. Faulty operation of the brine overboard pump.
d. Carry-over in the first stage. Justify your answer stating why the other options were not
considered.
When securing a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of time, you should _______.
1. Fill the unit with saltwater

10. 1
2. Fill the unit with descaling compound
3. Completely drain the unit
4. Tightly seal the unit to exclude air.
When securing a fl ash type evaporator for an extended period of time, you should
a. fill the unit with salt water
b. fill the unit with descaling compound
11. 3
c. completely drain the unit
d. tightly seal the unit to exclude air Briefly justify your answer.
12. What is the type of Evaporator in the image below? 1

1. Low flash evaporator

2. Two stage flash evaporator
3. Flash evaporator
13. How is scale formation in the evaporator tube prevented?

2
b. How is vacuum maintained in the shell?
14. 2
15. Sketch and explain low pressure vacuum evaporator.
3
Which of the following represents the motivating power fluid used in conjunction with the ejector
pumps on evaporators?
16. 1. The ejectors do not require a motive power. 1

2. The motive power is the feed water supply.
3. The motive power is the brine pump output, prior to being discharged overboard.
4. The motive power is the jacket water flowing through the ejectors.
17. What is the function of the item marked C in the diagram below ? 1
1. Feed inlet orifice, to control the feed water to the Evaporator

2. To allow brine to drain from the system
3. Feed orifice, to allow cooling water to the condensor
Answer Key
Double effect shell evaporator Diagram
1.
2. To break the vacuum and bring the FWG to atmospheric pressure once the FWG production is stopped
The shell is made of mild steel lined with rubber. The evaporator and condenser tubes are made of
3. Aluminium brass and the tube plate is made of muntz metal. The demister is made of knitted wires of
monel metal.
5.
Fault Causes Consequences Remedies
Loss
in Too low Too
low ejector Check the pump
vacuum ejector pump pump pressure not and piping system
pressure only results in
reduced Suction strainer
Foreign flow in the condenser blocked or choked
bodies in nozzle tubes, but also the Suction or
Non return combined air and discharge valves
valve stuck brine
ejector’s drive shut or partially
Clogged water is of low open
extraction pipe pressure.This causes Leakage from
loss in vaccum. suction pipe
Foreign bodies in Pump impeller
nozzle will choke the or seal
ring is
nozzle resulting
in defective
vacuum loss and Inspect the
clogged extraction nozzle;
pipe causes improper measurement of
removal of air. clearances should
match the Maker’s
specification; if
not, replace the
nozzle.
Check the non-
return valve and
extraction pipe for
blockage; clear the
blockage.
· ·
Check
High
shell Insufficient the pump and
temperature cooling piping system

water flow
in to the
condenser
tubes
owing to:
·
Low
ejector
pump
pressure.
·
Foreign
bodies
clogging
the
extraction
pipe or
overboard
pipe
·
Condenser
choked and
hence
needs
thorough
cleaning.
6. D
Constructional features of a shell type fresh water generator (Alfa-Laval)
The evaporator is made of cupro nickel or mild steel lined with a protective coating. The
heating
element tubes are made of aluminium brass, expanded top and bottom into RNB tube
plates or monel
metal, welded into similar tube plates. The distiller tubes are made of
aluminium brass and expanded
into RNB tube plates.
Operation of a shell type fresh water generator (Alfa-Laval)
The separator vessel separates the produced vapour from the brine. The evaporator section
(heating
section) consists of a plate heat exchanger and is enclosed in the lower part of the
separator vessel.
7. The condenser section (cooling section) also consists of a plate heat
exchanger placed in the upper
part of the separator vessel.
The combined brine / air ejector extracts air and brine from the separator vessel. The ejector
pump is
a combined ejector / cooling water pump. The pump supplies sea water for the
condenser, jet water
for the combined brine / air ejector and feed water for evaporation.
The freshwater pump extracts the produced water from the condenser and transfers it to the
freshwater tank. The salinometer continuously checks the salinity of the produced water. The
alarm
set point is adjustable. The control panel contains starters for the electric motors and
terminals for
the salinometer.
The shell is maintained at vacuum, so that the boiling point of water is below 40° C. The main engine
8. jacket cooling water at 80° C is used to heat the seawater.
9. a.
A high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop seal between two stages
of a fl ash
type evaporator would indicate, “Chill shocking is necessary to
remove scale”. Justify your
answer.
Cause: (1) Too low ejector pump pressure and or (2) foreign bodies in nozzle and or (3)
non return
valve stuck and or (4) clogged extraction pipe.
Consequence: (1) too low ejector pump pressure not only results in low fl ow in the
condenser
tubes, but also the combined air and brine ejector’s drive water is of low
pressure. This causes loss in
vacuum.
Foreign bodies in nozzle will choke the nozzle resulting in vacuum loss and clogged
extraction pipe
causes improper removal of air.
Remedy:
Check the pump and piping system
suction strainer blocked or choked

suction or discharge valves shut or partially open
leakage from suction pipe
pump impeller or seal ring defective
Inspect the nozzle; measurement of clearances should match the Maker’s specification. If
not, replace
the nozzle.
Check the non return valve and extraction pipe for blockage; clear the blockage.
b.
of a fl ash
type evaporator would indicate, “Leakage at the second stage
condenser”. Justify your
answer.
Causes: Insufficient cooling water fl ow in to the condenser tubes owing to the following
reasons:
Low ejector pump pressure

Foreign bodies clogging the extraction pipe or overboard pipe
Condenser choked and hence, needs through cleaning
Remedy: Check the pump and piping system
Suction strainer blocked or choked: Inspect and clean the same.

Suction or discharge valves shut or partially open: Check the pipeline and the fl ow;
After
sorting out, partially shut or fully shut valves.
Leakage from suction pipe: Identify the leakage and attend the same
Impeller or seal ring is defective: inspect the same and replace the defective parts
with Maker’s
spares.
Cause: Air in the condenser, which can result in high shell temperature.
Remedy: Vent the condenser.
Cause: Too high back pressure at the downstream of the ejector.
Remedy: Check the overboard pipe and valve for blockage.
Cause: Foreign bodies in the ejector nozzles are blocking the flow
Remedy: Inspect and remove the same
c.
of a flash
type evaporator would indicate, “Faulty operation of the brine
overboard pump”. Justify
your answer.
Cause: Remedy:
1.
Salinometer out of
adjustment Recalibrate the salinometer

Reduce the supply of engine jacket cooling
2. Capacity too high water by setting the
bypass valve in a more
open position.

3.
Evaporation temperature Open the vacuum breaker valve slightly, or if
too low high vacuum, reduce the
supply of seawater
to the condenser by opening the seawater
bypass valve, or
open more steam to
evaporator stack by increasing the steam inlet
pressure.
Check the ejector unit. Check

the feed water
system.

4.
High level of seawater in
the separator

Roll, replace, or plug the tube.

5.
Leaking condenser tube
d.
of a fl ash
type evaporator would indicate, “Carry over in the first stage”.
Justify your answer.
Yes. As the question suggests that carry over from first stage, due to improper of
insufficient
brine extraction or inefficient operation of demister or choked or clogged,
demister will result in
distillate getting impure.
This is because the distillate, which is produced flows from the first stage to the
second stage
through an orifice and then it is extracted by the distillate pump.
Therefore, carry over in first stage will affect the purity of the distillate.
10. Completely drain the unit

a.
When securing a flash type evaporator for an extended period of time,you
should. fill the
unit with salt water
Unit is filled with salt water
Flash type evaporator, should never be filled with sea water and should not be left
unattended for
extended periods of time. Sea water is acidic and corrosive. Therefore,
filling the unit with sea water
will damage the inside coating of shell and other parts
inside the fl ash evaporator.
b.
should. fill the
unit with descaling compound
Unit is filled with descaling compound
Flash type evaporator, should never be filled with de scaling compound, and should never
be left for
extended periods of time. As such descaling compounds is extremely acidic (such
as saf acid or
descaleit). Filling with descaling compound will damage the inside coating of
the shell and such action
will cause irreversible damage to shell and its components.
11. c.
should.
completely drain the unit
Unit is completely drained
If the unit is completely drained and left over, still it is quite unhealthy as it might pollute
inside of the
shell with engine room atmosphere (usually oily) and sea conditions (usually
salty and corrosive).
Engine room atmosphere is usually oily and sea conditions are usually
corrosive. Even though the unit
is completely drained and left, still corrosion will start.
d.
should. tightly
seal the unit to exclude air
Unit is sealed tightly
Therefore, the best solution is (d), because by tightly sealing the unit, after excluding air
the
aforementioned difficulties will not arise.
12. Flash evaporator

13. The feed water is treated with chemical, so that the salts deposited during evaporation become soft
and easily removable. The tubes are periodically cleaned.

14. An ejector driven by seawater is used to evacuate the shell and maintain the vacuum.
The principle of the double effect evaporator is shown in the figure below.
The first stage or the first effect takes place in an evaporator described before the submerged
coil
type. The vapour from the first stage is then taken to the second stage, where it is used
to heat the
incoming feed. In the process of heating the feed, this vapour condenses and
is collected at the
bottom of the second evaporator. The vapour from the second stage is
condensed in a condenser and
the distillate obtained together with that obtained in the second
stage is sent to the distilled water
tank.
15.
Operation of double effect type shell
The combined brine and air ejector driven by the ejector pump creates a vacuum in the
system, in
order to lower the evaporation temperature of the feed water. The feed
water is introduced into the
evaporator section through an orifice and distributes itself into
every second plate channel
(evaporation channels). The hot water distributes itself
into the remaining channels, thus transferring
its heat to the feed water in the
evaporation channels.
Having reached boiling temperature, which is lower than atmospheric pressure, the feed water
undergoes a partial evaporation and the mixture of generated vapour and brine enters the
separator
vessel, where the brine is separated from the vapour and extracted by the combined
brine and air
ejector.
Having passed a demister, the vapour enters every second plate channel in the condenser
section.
The sea water supplied by the ejector pump distributes itself into the remaining
channels, thus
absorbing the heat being transferred from the condensing vapour. The produced
freshwater is
extracted by the freshwater pump and led to the freshwater tank.
On the delivery side of the freshwater pump, an electrode unit is fitted. Together with the
salinometer,
this unit continuously checks the salt content of the produced freshwater. In case
of too high salinity,
the produced water is dumped to the bilge.
16. The motive power is the feed water supply.

17. Feed inlet orifice, to control the feed water to the Evaporator
Give two methods of fresh water production used onboard ships?
1. Osmosis and condensation

1. 1
3. Osmosis and evaporation
4. Evacuation and condensation
What is the salinity of fresh water produced from the thermal process in terms of ppm of chloride?
1. Greater than 20ppm

2. 1
4. Less than 4 ppm
How much is the amount of suspended solids in good quality boiler feedwater?

3. 1
What is the average TDS(Total dissolved solids)content in seawater?

4. 1
4. Less than 4 ppm
Answer Key

2. Less than 4 ppm
Why are the condenser tubes cleaned periodically?
1. 1. According to Marpol regulation 1

2. According to OPA act requirement
3. To remove barnacles, algae and other deposits
Which component checks the salinity of the fresh water produced in a fresh water generator?
1. Clinometer
2. 1
2. Salinometer
3. Viscotherm
4. Peak pressure indicator
Name the process of removing scales from evaporator tubes.
1. Decooling
3. 1
2. Deheating
3. Descaling
4. Decondensing
What is the effect of scaling in evaporator tubes?
4. 1. Reduces heat transfer 1

2. Lowers ejector pump pressure
3. Causes filter choke
Which of the following will result in insufficient brine extraction?
1. Defective impeller and seal ring of the ejector pump

5. 1
2. Air pockets in steam arrangement
3. Demister incorrectly fitted
4. Leaky evaporator tubes
Which of the following will result in high salinity of fresh water produced?
6. 1. Leakage in evaporator tubes 1

2. Incorrect adjustment of steam pressure
3. Leakage in condenser tubes
What happens when the salinity of fresh water exceeds the set value of 10 ppm?
7. 1. An alarm is sounded and water is diverted back to the evaporator shell 1

2. Fresh water generator stops and water is diverted to the bilges
3. Ejector pump stops and water is diverted back to the evaporator
8. Which of the following will result in low ejector pump pressure? 1

Answer Key
1. To remove barnacles, algae and other deposits

2. Salinometer
3. Descaling
4. Reduces heat transfer
7. An alarm is sounded and water is diverted back to the evaporator shell
What is the material used for the demister in FWG?
1. copper
1. 2. monel metal 1
3. titanium
4. silver
Sketch a low pressure evaporator used for generating fresh water on board. Mention the
2. 2
temperatures and pressures at various points in the sketch.
Explain the distillation principle of fresh water production and describe the boiling and flash process
3. of distillation methods. Sketch and Describe the constructional features of a shell type fresh water 10
generator. State some of its disadvantages when compared to a plate type FWG
Distilled water from an evaporator may be discharged into a potable water tank:-
1. Through a detachable hose connection.

4. 1
2. After passing through an activated charcoal filter.
3. Through a solenoid operated three-way valve
4. After chemical analysis shows it is fit for consumption
Answer Key
1. monel metal
Low pressure evaporator
2.
3.
4. Through a solenoid operated three-way valve
Name the process of removing scales from evaporator tubes.
1. Decooling
1. 1
2. Deheating
3. Desacling
4. Decondensing
Which component checks the salinity of the fresh water produced in a fresh water generator?
1. Clinometers
2. 1
2. Salinometer
3. Viscotherm
4. Peak pressure indicator
A fluctuating and unsteady vacuum in an evaporator may be caused by

a. wet steam entering the air ejector nozzle
b. pinhole leaks in the evaporator tube nests
3. 3
c. rapid scaling on the evaporator tube nests
d. high water levels in the last effect Briefly justify your answer.
What checks are made before starting the fresh water generator production?
1. priming cock, JCW valves

4. 2. 95% vacuum, temperature of M/E jacket cooling water, condenser cooling water valves 1
3. feed valve, brine pump
4. drain valve, educator pump
Which of the listed problems is occurring, if a coil type high pressure evaporator constantly requires
an increase in the coil steam pressure, in order to maintain capacity?
a. The brine density is improper.
5. b. Heat transfer surfaces are being layered with scale. 4
c. Impure distillate is being produced.
d. Shell vapour pressure is constantly decreasing. Briefly justify your answer.
The salt content in the fresh water produced by a fresh water generator could be too high owing to
the following causes:
a. Salinometer not calibrated.
b. Capacity too high.
6. 3
c. Evaporation temperature too low.
d. Leaking condenser tube elaborate.
Explain each cause with proper reasoning.
Which of the following will result in high salinity of fresh water produced?
7. 1. Leakage in evaporator tubes 1

2. Incorrect adjustment of steam pressure
8. Normally what is the salinity maintained in FWG? 1
1. between 1 to 5ppm
2. between 10 to 15ppm
3. between 5-10ppm
4. 50 to 100ppm
At what position of the ship you will start and stop the FWG?
1. Ship must be enroute and beyond 12Knm from the shore line
9. 2. 5 NM from shore 1
3. 25 NM from shore
4. 50 NM from shore
One of the factors affecting the salinity of distilled water produced is:-
1. Amount of salt water.

10. 1
2. Temp of sea water inlet.
3. Amount of feed setting
4. Type of evaporator.
When any low pressure distilling plant is operated at less than the designed vacuum (higher absolute
pressure), what, happens?
1. the corresponding,saturation temperature,drops

11. 2
2. the distillate production capacity increases
3. the rate of scale formation increases
4. the distillate purity increases
Which of the following will result in insufficient brine extraction?

12. 1
4. Leaky evaporator tubes
Excessive scale formation in a distilling plant may result From __________ .
1. poor distillate quality

13. 2. reduced evaporator capacity 1
3. low brine concentration
4. improper vacuum regulation
State two reasons for reduction of production of FW in FWG?
1. brine extraction is very high and sea water temperature is very low
14. 2. shell vacuum is very low and JCW temperature is very high 1
3. high sea water temperature and inefficient heat exchanger
4. feed is very low and shell vacuum is very high
Why are the condenser tubes cleaned periodically?
15. 1. According to Marpol regulation 1

2. According to OPA act requirement
3. To remove bamacles, algae and other deposits
16. In a flash evaporator, scale formation, as a result of higher than normal temperatures is most likely to 2
occur in the __________ .
1. second stage feed heater

2. saltwater feed heater

3. distillate cooler
4. second stage vapor separator
What happens when the salinity of fresh water exceeds the set value of 10 ppm?
17. 1. An alarm is sounded and water is diverted back to the evaporator shell 1
2. Fresh water generator stops and water is diverted to the bilges
3. Ejector pump stops and water is diverted back to the evaporator
18. How is contamination of fresh water by seawater avoided?

2
What is the effect of scaling in evaporator tubes?
19. 1. Reduces heat transfer 1

2. Lowers ejector pump pressure
3. Causes filter choke
Which of the following will result in low ejector pump pressure?
20. 1. Defective impeller and seal ring of the ejector pump. 1

On which of the following heated surfaces of a flash type evaporator would you be more likely to find
soft scale formation?
1. Feed water heater internal tube surfaces.

21. 2
2. Internal distillate cooler tubes.
3. Flash chamber vertical surfaces.
4. Distilling condenser tubes.
Submit a report to the Chief Engineer stating, how the fresh water generator output on board your
22. ship was increased to near optimal values. The report should specifically mention the adjustments, 3
corrections and improvements executed.
Answer Key
1. Desacling
2. Salinometer
a.
A fluctuating and unsteady vacuum in an evaporator may be caused by wet
steam
entering the air ejector nozzle
Fluctuating and unsteady vacuum is caused by wet steam entering the air ejector
nozzle
If wet steam is entering the air ejector nozzle as a driving agent, then wet steam as such
will not be
having same enthalpy energy as that of dry steam. Therefore, the amount of
air which is removed
from the shell, through air ejector nozzle decreases. Since air removal
by the air ejector is hindered,
the vacuum starts fluctuating. The vacuum in the shell, now
becomes unsteady.
b.
pinhole leaks in
the evaporator tube nests
Fluctuating and unsteady vacuum is caused by pinhole leaks in the evaporator
tube nests
If pinhole leaks are present in evaporator coils, then there is loss of ME jacket cooling water.
The
jacket water, which is at a higher temperature usually about 75O°C to 80O°C starts
increasing the
shell temperature. Remember that condensation results in cooling and
decrease in pressure. Leaky
evaporator tube nests, due to pinhole leaks, increases the
shell temperature, resulting in loss of
vacuum.
3.
c.
rapid scaling on
the evaporator tube nests
Fluctuating and unsteady vacuum is caused by rapid scaling on the evaporator
tube nest
Remember scale is a heat impeder and scale formation in evaporator stack results in poor
heat
transfer. Therefore the production of fresh water generator is affected owing to lower
boiling point
temperature. Temperature is related to pressure or here in this case vacuum,
therefore the vacuum
starts fluctuating.
d.
high water levels
in the last effect
Fluctuating and unsteady vacuum is caused by high water levels in the last effect
The common causes are ejector pump pressure too low, foreign bodies in ejector nozzle, too
high
back pressure at downstream of the ejector, wrong dimension of feed water orifice or
non-return
valve in brine suction pipe defective.
Any one of the aforementioned causes results in improper removal of air from the shell.
Hence,
vacuum starts dropping or vacuum starts fluctuating.
4. 95% vacuum, temperature of M/E jacket cooling water, condenser cooling water valves
5. a.
If a coil type high pressure evaporator constantly requires an increase in
the coil steam
pressure in order to maintain capacity, does the problem,
“The brine density is improper”
occur. Briefly justify your answer.
If the brine density is improper then it is insufficient brine extraction.
The common causes are:
ejector pp pressure too low

foreign bodies in ejector nozzle
too high back pressure at downstream of the ejector
Wrong dimension of feed water orifice
Non return valve in brine suction pipe defective
Consequences of the aforementioned common causes will result in:
high boiling temperature

salinity higher than 10 ppm
loss in vacuum
fluctuating vacuum
Therefore adjusting the steam inlet pressure is no way going to help this problem.
b.
If a coil type high pressure evaporator constantly requires an increase in the
coil steam
pressure in order to maintain capacity, does the problem, “Heat
transfer surfaces are being
layered with scale” occur. Briefly justify your
answer.
Heat transfer surfaces are being layered with scale. Remember scale is a heat impeder and
scale
formation in evaporator stack results in poor heat transfer. Naturally, the production
of FWG is
affected owing to lower boiling point temperature. Temperature is related to
pressure or here in this
case vacuum, therefore the vacuum is now unsteady.
Now to get more amount of heat transfer, steam pressure at the inlet is increased as a
temporary
measure, but the permanent solution will be to keep the evaporator stack clean
by proper chemical
dosing and by mechanical cleaning.
c.
coil steam
pressure in order to maintain capacity, does the problem, “Impure
distillate is being
produced” occur. Briefly justify your answer.
Impure distillate is because of too high salinity may be because of following cases.
d.
coil steam
pressure in order to maintain capacity, does the problem, “Shell
vapour pressure is
constantly decreasing ” occur. Briefly justify your answer.
If the vacuum is dropping steadily, the causes could be the following.
Cause Remedy
Evaporation
temperature is too low Open
the vaccum breaker valve slightly.
If
vaccum is high, reduce the supply of the
seawater to the condenser by opening
the
seawater bypass valve.
Open
more steam to evaporator stack by
increasing
the steam inlet pressure.
Too low ejector pump pressure

Foreign bodies in the nozzle
Non-return valve in the extraction pipe getting stuck.
Therefore increasing the steam pressure is no way going to help in rectification of the problem.
Out of
the listed problems case (b), case (c) and case (d) requires increase of steam pressure.
6. a. Reasons why the salt content in the fresh water produced by a fresh water generator
could be too high owing to salinometer not calibrated.
Pure distilled water may be considered as non conductor of electricity. Impurities, if added (say for
example salts) increases the conductivity of distilled water. A conductivity meter is used to monitor
salinity, because the conductivity of the water, at low concentrations, is related to impurity content.
A salinometer is an instrument, which is calibrated in units of salinity. If the salinity of the distillate is
high, which is normally 10 ppm as upper limit; the salinometer will raise an alarm and bypass the
fresh water pumped in to fresh water tank. The bypassed distillate will be dumped to bilges.
If, the salinometer is not calibrated, and if salt content is high, then the salinometer will not sense the
increase in salt concentration. Therefore salinometer will not raise an alarm and it will not come in to
action. This will permit salt content to enter in to fresh water. Therefore calibration of salinometer has
to be carried out at the earliest opportunity.
If the salt content in fresh water is high, then salinometer activates the alarm. The alarm must not be
put off or reposed, as this will de-energize the solenoid valve. De-energised solenoid valve results in
salty water being pumped in to fresh water tank.
b. Reasons why the salt content in the fresh water produced by a fresh water generator
could be too high owing to capacity too high.
If the capacity is too high, then the jacket water which is fed in to the evaporator is fed at a higher
rate than required. This leads to higher rate of evaporation than required.
Then in that case there will be carrying over of seawater droplets or more precisely “priming “or
‘prime over” or “carry over effect”.
We know that seawater has roughly about 32000 ppm of chloride, therefore carry over of seawater
droplets contaminates the fresh water, and therefore fresh water gets salty, which is carried over to
fresh water tanks.
c. Reasons why the salt content in the fresh water produced by a fresh water generator
could be too high owing to evaporation temperature too low.
According to continuity equation suggested by Euler, whatever flows in to the system, should fl ow
out of the system, to maintain a balance.
Now let us assume that 50 meter cube of seawater is fl owing in to the feed inlet of fresh water
generator, out of which 15 meter cube is fl ashing off in to vapor and remaining is removed as brine.
Now, if the evaporator temperature is low, then the amount of seawater which is vaporizing is greatly
reduced and brine quantity is now increased. If the brine level is not maintained then it will lead to
carry over of brine. Carry over of brine results in salinity of fresh water going high.
d. Reasons why the salt content in the fresh water produced by a fresh water generator
could be too high owing to Leaking condenser tube.
Leaky condenser tube will cause seawater to mix with fresh water thereby causing the ppm of
freshwater to increase or in other words, salt content of the fresh water produced will go high. Leaky
condenser tubes should be identified at the earliest possible opportunity and defect rectified.

8. between 5-10ppm
9. Ship must be enroute and beyond 12Knm from the shore line
10. Amount of feed setting
11. the rate of scale formation increases
13. improper vacuum regulation
14. high sea water temperature and inefficient heat exchanger
15. To remove bamacles, algae and other deposits
16. saltwater feed heater
17. An alarm is sounded and water is diverted back to the evaporator shell
In case of brine carry over or condenser tube leaks, the salinity of the fresh water produced will
18. increase. A salinometer is fitted to raise an alarm and divert the fresh water produced back to the
evaporator shell, if the salinity increases above the set limit.
19. Reduces heat transfer
20. Defective impeller and seal ring of the ejector pump.
21. Feed water heater internal tube surfaces.
22.
15-05-2008
To
The Chief engineer,
MT Progress.
Drop in fresh water generator performance on 15th May, 2008 at sea (Rotterdam to Antwerp).
Dear Sir,
Further to our conversation on 15th May 2008, I wish to confirm that fresh water generator was
not
performing to its optimum potential and there was a marked drop in its production. This
drop in
production had started by yesterday noon. It was observed for the past four watches
that fresh water
production had started dropping at much faster rate. This prompted me to

change over to main
engine fresh water cooler No. 2 and the fresh water generator was
isolated from service.
After change over, it was ensured that main engine parameters were stable and normal.
It was observed that during the last four watches the boiling temperature was lower than the
normal.
Moreover, the shell vacuum was lower than the normal value.
This was confirmed by veriying with the Maker’s manual.
Evaporator stack was opened and thoroughly inspected. There was a heavy scale formation,
Feed
water inlet examined and found choked in feed water orifice.
Low vacuum in shell could be caused by,
Low ejector pump pressure, which was verified with Maker’s manual and found normal.
Nozzle was checked and found devoid of any blockage, non-return valve in air extraction pipe
was
checked and found it had got stuck. The same was removed from place and replaced with
spare.
The fresh water generator system was started and put in operation. It was found that drop
across
evaporator stack had improved. Vacuum had improved appreciably and it is as per
Maker’s value.
Now, fresh water generator performance had improved and production is now as per to
Maker’s
recommendation.
I would like to record excellent behavior of Engine machinist, during the whole incident and his
swift
action, which brought the fresh water generator back to operation.
Yours truly,
Fourth engineer
When securing a centrifugal distillate pump, which of the listed steps should be carried out FIRST?
1. Stop the pump.

1. 1
2. Close the pressure gage valves.
3. Trip the three-way solenoid valve.
4. Close the sealing line valves to the pump.
Answer Key
1. Trip the three-way solenoid valve.
What material the semi-permeable membrane is usually made of?
1. Polyamide or poly sulphate

1. 1
2. Cast iron
3. Mild steel
4. Compressed carbon filter
Which chemical is dosed with the feedwater in reverse osmosis plant?
1. Potassium dichromate
2. 1
2. Sodium hexa meta phosphate
3. Sodium hypochlorite
4. Calcium hydroxide
What is the approximate seawater pressure before the membrane in a reverse osmosis plant?
1. 30 bar
3. 1
2. 20 bar
3. 60 bar
4. 10 bar
What is the important advantage of having a reverse osmosis plant?
1. Improves the thermal efficiency of the main engine plant

4. 1
3. Occupies less space
4. Lesser maintenance
Where is the permeate carrying tube situated in a membrane cartridge?
5. 1. At the outlet side of the membrane 1

2. At the central axis of the membrane
3. At the inlet side of the membrane
Answer Key

3. 60 bar
What is the important advantage of having a reverse osmosis plant?
1. Improves the thermal efficiency of the main engine plant

1. 1
3. Occupies less space
Which chemical is dosed with the feedwater in reverse osmosis plant?
1. Potassium dichromate
2. 1
3. Sodium hypochlorite
4. Calcium hydroxide
a. Describe the pre-treatment and post treatment used with reverse osmosis equipment. State the
advantages of post treatment compared with a low pressure evaporator.
3. 5
b. Describe with the aid of simple diagrams, osmosis and reverse osmosis.
4. What chemical is used for treating the seawater in a reverse` osmosis plant?
1
Answer Key
3. a.
Describe the pre-treatment and post treatment used with reverse osmosis
equipment.
State the advantages of post treatment compared with a low
pressure evaporator.
Pre-treatment
Pre-treatment of the incoming feed water is required for all reverse osmosis plants in
order to
remove suspended matter and avoid fouling of the membrane.
Suspended Matter in seawater would consist of colloidal materials, metal hydroxides
and
biological fouling.
In order to prolong the membrane life by reducing fouling and precipitation, feed water
is dosed
with 5 mg per liter of sodium hexametaphosphate.
A 10 micron cartridge filter is used to remove suspended solids in the membrane.
Post treatment
Sterilization by chlorination and excess chlorine is reduced by passing through
compressed carbon
filter, while solids are removed by other filters.Ultra violet sterilization
or Silver ion steriliszation is used
after chlorination.
Advantages
small and light weight

not affected by rough sea conditions
simple and reliable
low maintenance costs
low energy requirement per unit of the product
b.
Describe with the aid of simple diagrams, osmosis and reverse osmosis.
Osmosis is a term used to describe the passage of pure water passing through a
semi permeable
membrane into a salt solution with the net result that the salt solution is
diluted and the water remains
pure. It is by this process that the roots of plants absorb
water from the soil.
Osmosis
When fluids of different concentrations in a vessel are separated by a membrane, the dilute
solution
will fl ow through the membrane into the concentrated solution, or when a chemical
solution is
separated from pure water by a semi permeable membrane (which allows
passage of water but not
salt), then pure water flows through SM, until the hydrostatic head
(this pressure known as osmotic
pressure)of the salt solution arrests the process.
Osmotic pressure
The level of the dilute solution drops and the level of the concentrated solution rise until
an equilibrium
is reached. The pressure difference between the two levels is the “osmotic
pressure”. Osmotic pressure
of seawater is 28 bar.
Reverse osmosis
It relies on a semi permeable membrane and pressure to remove salts dissolved in water.
When
pressure is applied to the concentrated solution more than osmotic pressure, then the
fresh water is
squeezed out through the membrane, from concentrated side to the dilute.
Explain two advantages
and two disadvantages of producing fresh water by reverse
osmosis.
Advantages:
small and light weight

not affected by rough sea conditions
simple and reliable
single pass can produce less than 50 ppm (potable water)
low maintenance costs
low energy requirement per unit of the product
Disadvantages:
careful pre-treatment required

expensive membranes
output depends on membrane condition
high quality water (less than 2 ppm) requires multi pass system
4. Sodium hexametaphosphate.
Where is the permeate carrying tube situated in a membrane cartridge?
1. 1. At the outlet side of the membrane 1

3. At the inlet side of the membrane
a. What is reverse osmosis process?

2. b. What material is the semi-permeable membrane made of? 2
What is the approximate seawater pressure before the membrane in a reverse osmosis plant?
1. 30 bar
3. 1
2. 20bar
3. 60 bar
4. 10bar
What material the semi-permeable membrane is usually made of?

4. 1
2. Cast iron
3. Mild steel
4. Compressed carbon filter
Answer Key

a.Reverse osmosis is a process in which sea water is forced through a semi-permeable membrane at a
high pressure of 60 bar. The salts and other dissolved solids are filtered by the membrane and fresh
2. water is obtained.
b.It is made of polyamide or polysulphate membranes, which are spirally wound to form a cartridge.
3. 60 bar
Prior to major overhaul of main engine onboard, the engine room crane is tested by:-
1. Operating the crane on no load.

1. 2
2. Testing of the crane with two sample abnormal conditions.
3. Inspection of the crane hook and other safety arrangements.
4. Stress testing of crane wire with peak loads.
Answer Key
1. Inspection of the crane hook and other safety arrangements.
If personnel are required to enter a cargo tank that has not been certified as "gas free",
__________.
1. Entry without a breathing apparatus may be made at the top of the tank, since petroleum
vapours are heavier than air.
1. 2
2. A person may work safely without breathing apparatus in cold weather, since the vapours are
less volatile.
3. Self-contained breathing apparatus should always be used.
4. Breathing apparatus would not be necessary, if expected to be in the tank for only a short
period of time.
One of the duties of standby person at the entrance of the enclosed compartment during enclosed
space entry is:
2. 1. To keep the master informed of all activities. 2

2. To provide fresh air to injured person.
3. To assist for the work carried out in the enclosed compartment.
4. To inform the actions to harbor master.
Answer Key
1. Self-contained breathing apparatus should always be used.

2. To assist for the work carried out in the enclosed compartment.
Fuses are rated by:-
1. Frequency drop they will safely withstand after interrupting a circuit.

1. 1
2. Blowing method.
3. Maximum current.
4. Size of cartridge.
Answer Key
1. Maximum current.
Which one can you qualify as the use of ‘potable water’ ? select from the options,
1. Water used for food preparation without carrying the risk of health problems.
1. 1
2. Water that may not have been adequately treated or filtered, but clean
3. Pure form of distilled water created by ship’s Freshwater Generators at deep sea
4. Water may contain harmful bacteria and contaminants but clean
What should not the term ‘potable water’ be? select from the options,
A. Potable water is water that is safe to drink
B. Can be used for food preparation without carrying the risk of health problems.
C. Water that may not have been adequately treated or filtered, but clean
D. Pure form of distilled water created by ship’s Freshwater Generators at deep sea
2. 1
1. A and B
2. A
3. C and D
4. B and D
Statements on how ships obtain potable water; identify a statement that is not true
1. Freshwater may be obtained from shore mains supply or water barge.

2. Majority of ships employ an evaporator or Fresh Water Generator systems
3. 1
3. Ship system uses distillation, or a pressurized filtering system that uses reverse osmosis to
convert seawater into potable water.
4. Ship systems leave some organic compounds such as benzene and trichloroethylene in the
water but those are not harmful to humans for consumption.
Which of the listed actions should be carried out on potable water tanks, if a ship is to be laid up
for indefinite period of time?
4. 1. Potable water tanks to be coated. 1

2. All tanks should be cleaned & painted.
3. Potable water tanks and system to be drained and sterilized prior to lay-up.
4. Tanks to be filled complete with distilled water.
Statements on how ships obtain potable water; identify the incorrect option,
A. Freshwater may be obtained from shore mains supply or water barge.
B. Majority of ships employ an evaporator or Fresh Water Generator systems
C. In Reverse Osmosis, seawater is heated and turned to steam, before the freshwater condensate
is collected.
D. Evaporator system forces seawater though progressively finer filtering to produce fresh water.
5. 2
1. A and B
2. C and D
3. Only A
4. Only B
6. Statements on how ships obtain potable water; identify the incorrect option 2
1. Freshwater may be obtained from shore mains supply or water barge.

2. Majority of ships employ an evaporator or Fresh Water Generator systems
3. All Shipboard systems for freshwater production leave some organic compounds such as
benzene and trichloroethylene in the water and those can be harmful to humans for
consumption.
4. The freshwater supplied from shore need not be treated or tested
Statements on how ships obtain potable water; identify the correct options
A. Freshwater may be obtained from shore mains supply or water barge.
B. Majority of ships employ an evaporator or Fresh Water Generator systems
C. In Reverse Osmosis, seawater is heated and turned to steam, before the freshwater condensate
is collected.
D. Evaporator system forces seawater though progressively finer filtering to produce fresh water.
7. 2
1. A and B
2. B, C and D
3. C and D
4. A, B and C
Why do you need to test potable water on vessels?

A. Access to fresh water is vital to ensure the health of those working at sea
B. A regular program of potable water testing ensures that ships’ supply of fresh water for drinking,
cooking and washing on board is safe to use.
C. Fresh water may contain harmful bacteria and contaminants but looks clean
D. Only pure form of distilled water created by ship’s Freshwater Generators at deep sea shall not
have any bacteria
8. 1
1. A, B and C
2. A, C and D
3. B, C and D
4. A, B and D
Pathogens and toxins responsible for waterborne diseases; Which one of the pathogens have
affected the greatest number of crew and passengers?
1. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli

9. 2. Noroviruses 2
3. Salmonella typhi, and spp
4. Shigella spp
5. Cryptosporidium spp
6. Giadia lamblia
What does the term ‘potable water’ mean?

A. Potable water is water that is safe to drink
B. Can be used for food preparation without carrying the risk of health problems.
C. Water that may not have been adequately treated, cleaned or filtered
D. Pure form of distilled water created by ship’s Freshwater Generators at deep sea
10. 1
1. A and B
2. A and C
3. B and C
4. B and D
Answer Key
1. Water used for food preparation without carrying the risk of health problems.
2. C and D
Ship systems leave some organic compounds such as benzene and trichloroethylene in the water but
3.
those are not harmful to humans for consumption.
4. Potable water tanks and system to be drained and sterilized prior to lay-up.
5. C and D
6. The freshwater supplied from shore need not be treated or tested
7. A and B
8. A, B and C
9. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
10. A and B
Bunkering stations
To mitigate risks during bunkering of potable water, multiple barrier protection should be established.
This starts with the use of appropriate hoses and fixtures, backflow preventers and filters at the
bunker station and chlorination before water enters the storage tank. Find an incorrect answer
1. To help protect the quality of water passing through filling hoses, they should be durable, with
a smooth, impervious lining, and equipped with fittings that are designed to permit connection
1. to the shore water supply system. 2
2. Interior surfaces of potable water hoses should be made of material suitable for being
disinfected and should not support the growth of biofilm.
3. Hoses that are designed to be used for firefighting are appropriate for use as potable water
hoses.
4. Potable water hoses should be clearly identifiable with words such as “POTABLE WATER”. Hoses
used exclusively for the delivery of potable water should be kept on each ship. The ends should
be capped when not in use.
Prevention of backflow
When potable water is delivered to non-potable systems and supplied under pressure, the system
must be protected against backflow . Find an incorrect statement
1. To prevent contamination, it is advisable to ensure that the potable water system is not
connected to any non-potable water system.
2. 2
2. To achieve this, overflows, vents and drains from tanks, and drains from the distribution
system must not be connected directly to sewage drains.
3. Air gaps and receiving funnels must be installed in these lines when they do not discharge to a
closed tank of a non-potable water, to a deck drain or to a sanitary drain.
4. Potable water piping must not pass under or through sewage tanks, or pipes or tanks holding
non-potable liquids.
Bunkering stations
To mitigate risks during bunkering of potable water, multiple barrier protection should be established.
This starts with the use of appropriate hoses and fixtures, backflow preventers and filters at the
bunker station and chlorination before water enters the storage tank. Find an incorrect answer
1. Hoses that are designed to be used for firefighting are not appropriate for use as potable water
3. hoses. 2
2. Potable water hoses should be clearly identifiable with words such as “POTABLE WATER”.
3. Hoses used exclusively for the delivery of potable water should be kept on each ship. The ends
should be capped when not in use.
4. The filling hoses should be stowed, with the ends uncapped, in special lockers designated and
marked “POTABLE WATER HOSE ONLY”.
5. Lockers must be closed, self-draining and fixed above the deck.
Answer Key
1. Hoses that are designed to be used for firefighting are appropriate for use as potable water hoses.
Air gaps and receiving funnels must be installed in these lines when they do not discharge to a closed
2. tank of a non-potable water, to a deck drain or to a sanitary drain.
The filling hoses should be stowed, with the ends uncapped, in special lockers designated and marked
3.
“POTABLE WATER HOSE ONLY”.
What is the power rating of germicidal lamp used in UV treatment of drinking water?
1. 100 watts.
1. 1
2. 200 watts.
3. 9 watts
4. 1 KW
2. 1. Passivation 1
2. Chlorination
3. Filtration
1. Kills them
3. 1
2. Filters them.

1. 6 to 9
5. 1
2. 5.5 to 8.6
3. 6.5 to 9.5
4. 7 to 9
3. In high seas

2. Sedimentation
3. Filtration
8. Physical and aesthetic parameters; find an error statement 2
1. Electrical conductivity of the water should be measured whenever water is produced on

board. A very high electrical conductivity gives information about a malfunction in the
remineralization process.
2. Turbidity in the potable water on the ship could indicate a gross contamination with biological
material or that dirt has entered the system during delivery.
3. No undesirable tastes, colors or odors should be present in the drinking-water.
4. Aesthetic parameters such as undesirable taste, color or odor that appear after water
treatment may indicate corrosion or cross-connections, contamination by foreign substances
during transfer to the ship or inadequate plumbing conditions on board.
2. Metal cartridge
10. 1. Passivation 1
2. Chlorination
3. Filtration
UV treatment for drinking water uses germicidal lamps. These lamps have frequency of :
1. 100 micrometers.
11. 1
2. 50 nano-meters.
3. 254 nano-meters.
Disinfection
When treatment, purification or disinfection is necessary, the method selected should be
recommended by the competent authority under the IHR 2005 and should be easily operated and
maintained by the ship’s officers and crew. Find an error statement
1. Disinfection is most efficient when substances exerting a disinfectant demand or capable of

protecting pathogens from disinfection have been removed.
12. 2
2. Disinfection is most efficient when the water has not already been treated to remove
turbidity
3. Disinfection does not always eliminate all infectious agents. For example, cross-contamination
can easily affect water with a low residual disinfection.
4. Parasites such as Cryptosporidium produce oocysts that are very resistant to chlorine or
chloramine disinfection and need to be removed by filtration or inactivated by an alternative
method, such as UV irradiation etc.

2. Sedimentation
3. Filtration
14. Which corrosion inhibitor should not be added in main engine jacket cooling water when it is used 1
as the heating medium for Fresh water generator?
1. Nitrates
2. Phosphates
3. Chromates
15. 1. Typhoid 1
2. Malaria
3. E-Coli
4. Tuberculosis

4. Heating.
1. Alcohol vapour.
18. 1
2. Sulfur vapour.
3. Mercury vapour.
4. Halogen
Which corrosion inhibitor should not be added in main engine jacket cooling water when it is used
as the heating medium for Fresh water generator?
19. 1
1. Nitrates
2. Phosphates
3. Chromates
20. Hazards in shipboard production and maintenance 2

The production of water on ships can be associated with its own potential health problems. Ships
can produce their own water by several different processes, such as reverse osmosis or evaporation
of seawater. Find an incorrect statement
1. Desalination and demineralizes seawater, which can make it more corrosive, shortening the
life of containers and conduits.
2. Desalinated water may cause health impacts associated with insufficient minerals in seafarers’
diets or the consumption of dissolved metals (e.g. lead, nickel, iron, cadmium or copper) from
corrosion products.
3. In the evaporator, the seawater that is heated by the engine cooling water typically starts
boiling at low temperatures (>80 °C), due to low pressure within these systems. When these
low process temperatures are used, there is no guarantee of producing water free from
pathogens.
4. According to International Organization for Standardization (ISO) standards, water that has
been produced below 80 °C needs to be disinfected before it can be defined as potable water.
Portable cartridges for drinking water can handle about 5000 to 50000 liters. What is the least size
of pathogens they can remove?

2. 1.0 micrometre

3. In high seas
Hazards in shipboard production and maintenance

The production of water on ships can be associated with its own potential health problems. Ships
can produce their own water by several different processes, such as reverse osmosis or evaporation
of seawater.
Find the most likely cause of contamination statement when using a reverse osmosis system.
1. Reverse osmosis involves pretreatment and transport of water across membranes under
pressure so that salts are excluded.
2. Partial desalination or breaches in membranes may have potential health implications due to
23. 2
trace elements and organic compounds, including oil and refined petroleum products,
occurring within the source seawater.
3. seawater sources may contain hazards not encountered in freshwater systems. These include
diverse harmful algae and cyanobacteria, certain free-living bacteria (including Vibrio species
such as V. parahaemolyticus and V. cholerae) and some chemicals, such as boron and
bromide, which are more abundant in seawater.
4. Repair work on a treatment and distribution system can offer several opportunities for
widespread contamination of water supplies. Ship operators should take special precautions
when carrying out repairs to storage tanks.
Answer Key
1. 9 watts
2. Chlorination
5. 6.5 to 9.5
Electrical conductivity of the water should be measured whenever water is produced on board. A very
8.
high electrical conductivity gives information about a malfunction in the remineralization process.
10. Chlorination
12. Disinfection is most efficient when the water has not already been treated to remove turbidity
14. Chromates
15. E-Coli
18. Mercury vapour.
19. Chromates
In the evaporator, the seawater that is heated by the engine cooling water typically starts boiling at
20. low temperatures (>80 °C), due to low pressure within these systems. When these low process
temperatures are used, there is no guarantee of producing water free from pathogens.
Partial desalination or breaches in membranes may have potential health implications due to trace
23. elements and organic compounds, including oil and refined petroleum products, occurring within the
source seawater.
Portable cartridges for drinking water can handle about 5000 to 50000 liters. What is the least size of
pathogens they can remove?

2. 1.0 micrometre
1. 6 to 9
2. 1
2. 5.5 to 8.6
3. 6.5 to 9.5
4. 7 to 9
3. 1. Typhoid 1
2. Malaria
3. E-Coli
4. Tuberculosis
1. Alcohol vapour.
4. 1
2. Sulfur vapour.
3. Mercury vapour.
4. Halogen

4. Heating.
2. Metal cartridge
7. UV treatment for drinking water uses germicidal lamps. These lamps have frequency of : 1
1. 100 micrometers.
2. 50 nano-meters.
3. 254 nano-meters.
1. Kills them
8. 1
2. Filters them.
What is the power rating of germicidal lamp used in UV treatment of drinking water?
1. 100 watts.
9. 1
2. 200 watts.
3. 9 watts
4. 1 KW
Answer Key

2. 6.5 to 9.5
3. E-Coli
4. Mercury vapour.
7. 254 nano-meters.
9. 9 watts
What is the abnormal indication if the engine cylinder relief valve lifts during operation?
1. High fuel temperature

1. 1
2. Fluctuation in revolution.
3. Abnormal fuel injection
4. Exhaust back pressure.
Surging of main engine turbocharger indicates _____________.
1. Low scavenge pressure.

2. 2
2. High exhaust temperature.
3. Fault in fuel system.
4. Passage in shallow waters.
Answer Key
1. Abnormal fuel injection

2. Fault in fuel system.
Some of the common problems found in Auxiliary diesel generator engines can be due to, (i) Power
Imbalance, (ii) Degradation of Lubricating Oil, (iii) Over-Speeding, and , (iv) Unusual Knocking
1. 10
Sound. State how to identify these problems during engine operations, and the action steps that
you shall take as an watchkeeper.
A possible drop in compression pressure in one cylinder of a diesel engine can be caused by:
1. Only fuel injection

2. 1
2. Late fuel injection.
3. Burnt valves.
4. Low fuel penetration
Some diesel engines are fitted with a thermometer in the cooling water outlet of each cylinder. If
the cooling temperature from an individual cylinder begins to rise, what should you suspect?
3. 1. Leaking safety valve. 2

2. That there is an overloading of the adjacent cylinder.
3. Defective fuel valve or inappropriate fuel timing.
4. That there is incomplete lubrication in that cylinder.
A generator has been exposed to water and is being checked for its safe operation. Therefore, it is
necessary to ___________.
4. 1. Check for shorted coils with a explosimeter. 2

2. Take moisture readings with a hydrometer
3. Test insulation values with a megger.
4. Ground the commutator, or slip rings and run it at half load.
Bearing damage in a diesel engine onboard is indicated by ________.
1. White metal in the cooler.

5. 2
2. White metal in the exhaust trunking.
3. Knocking sound from the engine crankcase.
4. White smoke from funnel.
Answer Key
1.
2. Burnt valves.
3. Defective fuel valve or inappropriate fuel timing.
4. Test insulation values with a megger.
5. Knocking sound from the engine crankcase.
1. Rapid scaling in evaporator.

1. 2
2. pinhole leaks in the evaporator tube nests
3. Wet steam entering the air ejector nozzle.
4. High water levels in the last effect.
For the Freshwater Generator, (i) building-up and maintaining the vacuum, and (ii) maintaining the
salinity limits of the distillate are the two major issues encountered by all watchkeepers. Describe
how such problems may arise, and the way to avoid and overcome such situations with correct
2. watchkeeping procedures.
10
Answer Key
1. Wet steam entering the air ejector nozzle.
2.
If you were the Marine Superintendent of the vessel, how would you have prevented such incidents
from occurring?

1. 1
Answer Key
1.
How can you improve the situation?
1. Ensure that critical equipment gives adequate input signal for ship staff to respond.
2. Provide training to the ship's crew to increase the likelihood that signals are identified and
1. 1
understood.
3. Reduce workload during critical operations by providing.
4. Employ experienced manpower with appropriate skills required to carry out the shipboard
operations in an efficient manner.
As the vessel's superintendent, what would you have done to prevent such incident from occurring?
Explore the following options.
2. 1
1. Implement an unannounced alcohol testing system.
3. Ensure that the able seaman are used as look out during darkness.
Answer Key
Ensure that critical equipment gives adequate input signal for ship staff to respond.
Provide training to the ship's crew to increase the likelihood that signals are identified and understood.
1.
Reduce workload during critical operations by providing.
Employ experienced manpower with appropriate skills required to carry out the shipboard operations in
an efficient manner.
Implement an unannounced alcohol testing system.
Ensure that the able seaman are used as look out during darkness.
What is to be checked in case of over speed trip of generator—
1. Camshaft
1. 1
2. Fuel oil system.
3. Governor.
4. Turning bar.
Answer Key
1. Governor.
Thermocouple working principle is:
1. Thomson effect.
1. 2
2. Joule’s effect.
3. See back effect.
4. Anti skid effect.
Answer Key
1. See back effect.
What are the precautions taken for bad weather to prevent main engine stoppage?
1. Ensure lubricating oil pump is running.

1. 2
2. Ensure over speed trip override switch set up to normal setting.
3. Ensure reduced speed setting to prevent overload.
4. Navigation bridge is manned sufficiently.
Purpose of preferential trip is to prevent:
1. Low frequency.
2. 2
2. To avoid low voltage.
3. Blackout condition.
When overhauling engines in bad weather onboard:
1. Use additional welding equipment.

3. 2
2. Use heaving line to ease up moving of item.
3. Use chain block if required to restrain moving of parts.
4. Use of deck crane if provided.
When main engine is running in emergency condition which of the alarm cannot be bypassed.
1. LO. Low viscosity

4. 2
2. JCW low temp.
3. Piston cooling water high temp.
4. Aft bilge-high level.
Answer Key
1. Ensure reduced speed setting to prevent overload.

2. Blackout condition.
3. Use chain block if required to restrain moving of parts.
4. Piston cooling water high temp.
Key shipboard operations are ______.
1. Company specific
1. 1
2. Ship specific
3. Maintenance work
4. Cargo operation
The prepare for emergencies, the Company should ______.
1. Establish programmers for drills and exercises to prepare for emergency actions
2. 2. Be able to respond to hazards, accidents and emergency situations involving its ships 1
3. Establish procedures to identify, describe and respond to potential emergency shipboard
situations
4. All the above
Where will you find correct procedure to carry out shipboard operations?
1. ISM code
3. 1
2. Ships plans
3. QMS manuals
4. SOLS
Plans for key shipboard operations should include _______.
1. Survival craft drills

4. 1
2. Fire drills
3. Piracy and terrorist drills
4. Cargo operation
Where will you find your duties and responsibilities for emergency response?
1. Muster list
5. 2. Appointment letter 1
5. QMS manuals
Answer Key
1. Cargo operation
2. All the above
3. QMS manuals
4. Cargo operation
5. Muster list
If double bottom fuel tank levels are found to have increased after a ships grounding, you should
suspect __________.
1. 1. A damaged pneumercator line. 2

2. contamination of the contaminated steam supply system
3. A puncture, crack, or hole in the skin of the vessel
4. Improper record keeping of fuel transfer activities.
Beaching a vessel requires consideration of the nature of the coastline on which the ship would be
beached. State True or False __________
2. 2
1. True
2. False
When going for beaching, it is preferred to beach the vessel at _______________
1. a gently shelving beach of mud, sand or gravel

3. 2. any place where repairing facilities are available 2
3. a place close to a dry-dock
4. a place close nearer to a harbor
Beaching is done when _______________
1. the vessel has been holed or some compartment is taking in water and the next port is far
enough for the vessel to continue on her voyage.
4. 2
2. The vessel going for scrap
3. When sinking is inevitable & to save lives onboard.
4. All of above
Answer Key
1. A puncture, crack, or hole in the skin of the vessel

2. True
3. a gently shelving beach of mud, sand or gravel
4. All of above
IMO requires that a minimum of ____________ copies of Emergency Towing Booklet should be kept
on board.
1. Two
1. 2
2. Four
3. Three
4. Five
ETA procedure must be prepared by the ship builder, not the ship owner or operator. State True or
False ____________
2. 2
1. True
2. False
To evaluate the ability of the ship to be towed from bow and stern, the items to be reviewed are
______________
1. Line handling procedures

3. 2
2. Safe working load
3. Structural adequacy
4. All of above
ETA regulations applies to all cargo ships constructed on or after 1st January _______________
1. 2010
4. 2. 2011 2
3. 2008
4. 2012
As per ETA regulations , emergency towing arrangements at both ends should be of adequate
strength taking into account the size and deadweight of the ship, and the expected forces during bad
weather conditions. State True or False _____________
5. 2
1. True
2. False
Purpose of emergency towing arrangements onboard is to
1. use it for mooring & towing during an emergency.

6. 2. use it for towing the vessel in the absence of main propulsion power 2
3. use it during salvage operations
4. use it during dry docking
Answer Key
1. Three
2. False
3. All of above
4. 2010
5. True
6. use it for towing the vessel in the absence of main propulsion power
What is the least you must do before entering a cofferdam in the engine room?
1. 1. Open up the manhole and enter the cofferdam 1

2. Enter the cofferdam and simultaneously start ventilation
3. Complete an enclosed space checklist
2. What is the least you must do before entering a cofferdam in the engine room?
2
Safety of Gas cylinders used for cutting and welding is enhanced by one of the below:
1. Removal of flash back arrestor.

3. 2
2. Using color codes for electrodes.
3. Using trolleys when transferring cylinders.
4. Inform terminal before operation.
4. What is the first task to complete before commencing hot work? 2

What is the first task to complete before commencing hot work?
5. 1. To complete a hot work permit 1

2. To inform the Chief Engineer
3. Work can be started without the need to carry out any other task
Answer Key
1. Complete an enclosed space checklist

2. Complete an enclosed space checklists
3. Using trolleys when transferring cylinders.
4. Complete the electrical isolation checklist
5. To complete a hot work permit
1. What is the least a person should do before entering machinery spaces?

2
Which of the following components in an Inert Gas system ensures that vapors are vented well clear
of the working deck?
2. 1. Non return valve on IG main line. 2

2. Deck seal unit.
3. High velocity vents and mast riser.
4. P/V breaker.
What precautions must be taken in the vicinity of the engine room bilges?
3. 1. Should be covered with muck and debris 1

2. Should be clear of rubbish
3. Should be allowed to corrode
How should steam pipes be protected in machinery spaces?
4. 1. They should be painted in different colours 1

2. They should be lagged
3. They should have placards to wam personnel
What is one of the requirements before carrying out major work in a tank:---–
1. Fire blanket.
5. 1
2. Compressed air supply.
3. Entry/exit time of personnel.
4. Safe anchorage.
Answer Key
1. Wear appropriate personal protective equipment

2. High velocity vents and mast riser.
3. Should be clear of rubbish
4. They should be lagged
5. Entry/exit time of personnel.
Which of the fluids listed is suitable for use as a secondary refrigerant?
1. Cuprous chloride
1. 1
2. Brine
3. Methyl alcohol
4. Carbon dioxide
Answer Key
1. Brine
with reference to the illustration below, identify the part marked as letter “C“?
1. 1
1. Heating coil
2. Cooling coil.
3. Humidifier.
4. Fresh air
2. With reference to the illustration below, What is air conditioning system? 1
1. System which maintains the vacuum in the space shuttle

2. System which conditions the air for cooling the meat and fish in the reefer room
3. The system which conditions the temperature and the humidity of the area
4. The system which allows the air to the accomodation
with reference to the illustration below, identify the part marked as letter “B“?
3. 1
1. Fresh air
2. Humidifier
3. Heating coil
4. Cooling coil.
4. with reference to the illustration below, identify the part marked as letter “A“? 1
1. Humidifier
2. Heating coil
3. Cooling coil
4. Fresh air
Answer Key
1. Humidifier.
2. The system which conditions the temperature and the humidity of the area
3. Heating coil
4. Cooling coil
In the air conditioning of a ship a “Comfort Zone” constitutes _____________.
1. Low humidity, low room temperature

1. 2
2. Low humidity, high temperature
3. Low humidity, moderate temperature
4. Very low temperature, moderate humidity
Answer Key
1. Low humidity, moderate temperature
What is the wet bulb temperature of air if the dry bulb temperature of the air is 90 F/32 C and the relative
humidity is 65%?
1. 2
1. 52 F / 11 C
2. 63 F/16 C
3. 77 F/ 25 C
4. 85 F/ 29 C
The process of removing moisture from air is known as ________.
1. Humidification.
2. 1
2. Dehumidification.
3. Vaporization.
4. Evaporation.
In reference to air conditioning, when air attains the maximum amount of moisture it can hold at a
specific temperature, it is said to be _________.
3. 1. Superheated 1
2. Condensed.
3. Saturated.
4. Convected
4. If outside air at 80 F/27 C and 70 percent relative humidity is conditioned, what will be the resulting dew 2
point temperature of the air just before it comes into contact with the cooling coil?
1. 64 F /17.8 C
2. 67 F/ 19.4 C
3. 70 F/21.1 C
4. 73 F/ 22.8 C
When the dew point is reached the wet bulb temperature :-
5. 1. Remains constant. 1
2. Reduces below the dry bulb temperature.
3. Equal to the dry bulb temperature.
4. Same as room temperature.
The temperature at which water vapor in the atmosphere begins to condense is called the ____.
1. Dew point temperature.

6. 2
2. Condensation temperature.
3. Psychometric temperature.
4. Absolute humidity temperature.
7. A reheater in an air conditioning system performs what function? 1

1. restores the conditioned air temperature to a comfortable level

2. controls the inlet air volume
3. controls the inlet air temperature
4. maintains the relative humidity at 15%
In an air conditioning system, moisture is removed from the air by _______.
1. Filters.
8. 2
2. Separators.
3. Ducted traps.
4. Dehumidifiers.
When air is at its dew point it is at its ________.
1. Lowest absolute humidity.

9. 1
2. Lowest relative humidity.
3. Highest absolute humidity.
4. Highest relative humidity.
The dew point of air is reached when the wet bulb temperature is ______.
1. Twice the dry bulb temperature.

10. 1
2. 10°F above the dry bulb temperature.
3. 5°F above the dry bulb temperature.
As the amount of moisture in the air increases, the difference between the dry bulb and wet bulb
temperatures will_____.
11. 1
1. Remain the same.
2. Increase.
3. Decrease.
4. Room temperature id doubled.
In an atmosphere of 100% relative humidity, the wet bulb thermometer would register a temperature
______.
12. 1. Above the dry bulb temperature. 1

2. Below the dry bulb temperature.
3. The same as the dry bulb temperature.
4. Above the dry bulb temperature, but below the saturation temperature.
Increasing the moisture content of conditioned air is known as _______.
1. Moisturizing.
13. 1
3. Dampening.
4. Humidification.
14. When air at a given temperature, contains the maximum amount of moisture for that temperature, the air 2
is said to be ____.
1. Superheated.
2. Saturated.
3. Condensing.
4. Evaporating.
The ambient heat in an engine room, which is identified by only a change in temperature is known as:
1. Total heat
15. 2
2. Latent heat
3. Sensible heat
4. Residual heat.
Answer Key
1. 63 F/16 C
3. Saturated.
4. 70 F/21.1 C
6. Dew point temperature.
8. Dehumidifiers.
9. Highest relative humidity.
11. Decrease.
12. The same as the dry bulb temperature.
13. Humidification.
14. Saturated.
15. Sensible heat
Unloading also takes place at regular preset time to discharge condensed moisture
1. 2
1. True
2. False
Compressor is started on unloaded condition
2. 2
1. To improve compressor efficiency
2. To reduce power demand from the electric motor
Unloader is a mechanism to vent only high pressure chambers of air compressor to the atmosphere
3. 2
1. True
2. False
In loaded condition of air compressor, air passes through the discharge pipe directly to the reservoir and
unlaoder has no action
4. 2
1. True
2. False
During unloading, pilot air form the solenoid valve acts on ball valve top of unloader to vent discharge
air to atmosphere
5. 2
1. True
2. False
Answer Key
1. True
2. To reduce power demand from the electric motor
3. False
4. True
5. True
One function of the air receiver in a compressed air system is to __________.
1. Dry the air discharged from the intercooler

1. 2
2. Minimize air volume
3. Reduces pressure fluctuations arising from changes in load and from compressor.
4. Remove all traces of oil from the air
Answer Key
1. Reduces pressure fluctuations arising from changes in load and from compressor.
Which of the routine maintenance procedures listed is required for starting air receivers?
1. Frequent draining of accumulated moisture.

1. 1
2. Frequent testing of relief valves.
3. A close watch on temperature to prevent fluctuations in pressure.
4. Frequent cleaning to remove oil and foreign matter.
Answer Key
1. Frequent draining of accumulated moisture.
Which of the following problems can occur if accumulating condensate is not drained off from a
starting air receiver?
1. 1. Internal corrosion and eventual failure of the tank. 1

2. Gumming of the tank relief valves.
3. Decreased compressor discharge pressure.
4. Boiling of the water oil mixture as pressure is reduced.
Answer Key
1. Internal corrosion and eventual failure of the tank.
Identify an incorrect statement, with respect to shipboard ventilation systems
1. Mechanical ventilation cannot limit temperature rise or create rapidity of air movement in a
1. particular compartment 1
2. Mechanical ventilation is provided by centrifugal or axial flow type fans.
3. A single stage axial fan can be used for cargo and machinery spaces
4. A more efficient higher pressure 2 stage axial fan can be used for the accommodation.
1. The holds of most dry cargo ships are ventilated by a mechanical supply and natural exhaust
system
2. 2. The tanks of all large tankships carrying oil are ventilated by a mechanical supply and 1
natural exhaust system
3. The objective of air treatment in cargo spaces is to prevent damage, due to condensation of
moisture, on the ship’s structure or on the surface of the cargo.
4. Ventilation is the provision of a supply of fresh untreated air through a space.
1. Natural ventilation occurs when changes in temperature or air density causes circulation in
the space.
3. 2. Natural ventilation is impractical for working areas where machinery is present or a number 1
of people are employed.
3. Mechanical or forced ventilation uses fans for a positive movement of large quantities of air.
4. Axial flow fans can produce smaller quantity of air flow but at higher pressures than the
centrifugal fans
1. Ventilation systems include a supply, or makeup air system and an exhaust system.
2. Supply ventilation system provide replenishment air to air conditioning recirculation
4. 2
systems.
3. Supply and exhaust airflow quantities are never to be in balance or in equilibrium.
4. Exhaust system removes buildup of dirt that obstructs airflow through ventilation system
odors, heated air, and airborne contaminants
1. Mechanical ventilation can limit temperature rise and create rapidity of air movement in a
5. particular compartment 1
2. Mechanical ventilation is provided by centrifugal or axial flow type fans.
3. Centrifugal fans are more common for machinery space ventilation
4. Sometimes, the supply fans are also reversible, supplying or exhausting as wanted.
6. Identify an incorrect statement, with respect to shipboard ventilation systems 2
1. A ship can be divided into 3 basic sections e.g., Living, working and storing spaces.
2. In most ships a combination of natural and mechanical ventilation is provided in all three
above sections.
3. Old practices of complete dependence on only natural ventilation which in turn were based
on ship and wind movement is now obsolete.
4. Mechanical ventilation is provided only by centrifugal flow type fans.
Identify an incorrect statement; …Shipboard ventilation systems
1. Supply and remove air to/from spaces throughout the ship

7. 2. Control quality of breathing air and protect personnel and sensitive equipment 1
3. Ability to protect personnel from hazards is important aboard ships, which are like floating
cities fitted into an extremely limited space.
4. Need no maintenance and create comfortable shipboard work environment.
State the different needs of ventilation for spaces on board ships and describe the ventilation
8. systems used on board explaining the difference between natural and mechanical ventilation. 10
State the type of fans and blowers suitable for use on ships for ventilation
1. Ventilation systems include a supply, or makeup air system and an exhaust system.
2. Supply systems replace contaminated air exhausted from a workspace with uncontaminated
9. outside air. 1
3. Supply ventilation systems also provide replenishment air to air conditioning
recirculation systems.
4. Exhaust system does not remove buildup of dirt that obstructs airflow through ventilation
system odors, heated air, and airborne contaminants from the workspace.
1. Natural ventilation shall not occur when changes in temperature or air density causes
circulation in the space.
10. 2. The holds of most dry cargo ships are ventilated by a mechanical supply and natural exhaust 1
system
4. There are two types of ventilation, namely: Natural; and Mechanical or forced
1. A ship can be divided into 3 basic sections e.g., Living, working and storing spaces.
2. Living spaces comprise cabins, passageways, dining and messrooms, lavatory, bath etc.
11. 1
3. Working spaces include machinery space, galley, pump room, pantry and engineers’
messroom
4. Storing spaces refer to compartments for carriage of cargo, provisions and gears required
for use on board.
12. Identify an incorrect statement, with respect to shipboard ventilation systems 1
1. The ventilation cannot control Air purity of space (bacterial, dust, odors)
2. All components of ventilation systems such as fans, motors, ducts, dampers, air intakes and
outlets, filters, and access panels, must work properly for the systems to operate safely and
efficiently.
3. Ventilation is a process for controlling certain physical and chemical properties of air in a
space to provide comfort and sanitation for the occupants
4. Ventilation prevents accumulation of dangerous gases and maintain conditions necessary for
proper operation of equipment.
1. The holds of most dry cargo ships are Not ventilated by a mechanical supply and natural
exhaust system
13. 2
3. Ventilation is the provision of a supply of fresh untreated air through a space.
4. There are two types of ventilation, namely: Natural; and Mechanical or forced
particular compartment
14. 2. With mechanical ventilation, cooling below atmospheric temperature is possible. 1
3. With a mechanical supply system, a natural exhaust may be permitted in some
compartments
4. Where fumes, dust, toxic or substances with foul odors are present, a mechanical exhaust is
required
particular compartment
15. 1
2. With mechanical ventilation, cooling below atmospheric temperature is not possible.
3. The mechanical supply is normally done through light sheet steel trunking
4. Trunking with louvers are never to be placed outside the E.R. to reduce noise level in the
E.R.
Identify a statement that is most important for a tank entry: that the ventilation system can
control
16. 1. Temperature rises of space 2

2. Air distribution and air velocity in space
3. Humidity of space containing source of moisture
4. Accumulation of dangerous gases
Answer Key
Mechanical ventilation cannot limit temperature rise or create rapidity of air movement in a particular
1.
compartment
The tanks of all large tankships carrying oil are ventilated by a mechanical supply and natural exhaust
2.
system
Axial flow fans can produce smaller quantity of air flow but at higher pressures than the centrifugal
3.
fans
4. Supply and exhaust airflow quantities are never to be in balance or in equilibrium.
5. Centrifugal fans are more common for machinery space ventilation
6. Mechanical ventilation is provided only by centrifugal flow type fans.
7. Need no maintenance and create comfortable shipboard work environment.
8.
Exhaust system does not remove buildup of dirt that obstructs airflow through ventilation system
9.
odors, heated air, and airborne contaminants from the workspace.
Natural ventilation shall not occur when changes in temperature or air density causes circulation in
10.
the space.
11. Working spaces include machinery space, galley, pump room, pantry and engineers’ messroom
12. The ventilation cannot control Air purity of space (bacterial, dust, odors)
The holds of most dry cargo ships are Not ventilated by a mechanical supply and natural exhaust
13.
system
14. With mechanical ventilation, cooling below atmospheric temperature is possible.
15. Trunking with louvers are never to be placed outside the E.R. to reduce noise level in the E.R.
16. Accumulation of dangerous gases
1. Hazardous Material Storerooms and Workshops: Inadequate ventilation can result in build-up
of potentially hazardous levels of contaminants such as paint solvents.
2. In extreme cases, in Storerooms and Workshops, control below fire-safety levels may be
1. 1
jeopardized, particularly after a hazardous material spill
3. Double bottom and Deep tanks: are fitted with air pipes placed at opposite end to the tank
filling pipes and are normally at the highest point of the tank.
4. Double bottom and Deep tank air pipes are not led to the weather or superstructure decks but
the open end must be a minimum of 76 cm / 30 inches above the freeboard deck
Identify an incorrect statement, with respect to shipboard ventilation and tank emission for oil tank
ships
1. Tankship cargo tank ventilation is required when loading or unloading and also during the
voyage when pressure changes occur due to oil expansion or contraction caused by
temperature variation.
2. 2. Most common method is the provision of vapor lines led from the tanks through 2
pressure/vacuum valves to a main gas line which goes to the masthead where venting takes
place through a flame trap.
3. Standpipes are fitted with a variable aperture nozzle which opens at a pre-set pressure when
loading and eject gas at high velocity to a safe distance above the deck.
4. In a modern tankship, the tank emission standpipe is kept open to atmosphere while
unloading.
1. Double bottom and Deep tanks: are fitted with air pipes placed at opposite end to the tank
filling pipes and are normally at the highest point of the tank.
3. 2. Double bottom and Deep tank air pipes are led to the weather or superstructure decks but the 2
open end must be a minimum of 76 cm / 30 inches above the freeboard deck
3. Double bottom and Deep tank air pipes are provided with means of closing to prevent ingress
of air in heavy weather.
4. Open ends of air pipes from oil fuel tanks are fitted with a wire gauge acting as a flame screen.
Which of the actions listed should be taken FIRST to control an oil fire in a fuel oil tank?
1. Commence draining that tank as quickly as possible.

4. 2
2. Shut off the steam heating coils.
3. Seal off all vents to that tank.
4. Activate the CO2 system to that tank.
Which of the devices listed is designed to prevent flames from entering a fuel tank through tank
vents?
5. 1. Ball check. 2
2. Flame inhibitor.
3. Flame screen.
4. Spark arrester.
6. Identify an incorrect statement, with respect to shipboard ventilation and tank emission for oil tank 2
ships
1. Oil tanker pump room ventilation- air flow rate giving 50 changes per hour is required.
2. Oil tanker pump rooms are fitted with ventilation port and starboard at deck level
3. Oil tanker pump rooms are fitted with reversible axial flow fans – the motors are positioned
outside the pump room
4. Oil Tanker Pump room axial fan motor is fitted on the after end of E.R. bulkhead with an
extended drive shaft is most common.
1. Laundries and Galleys: The most widespread ventilation problem aboard ship is controlling
heat and humidity produced by the cleaning and cooking processes in laundries and galleys.
2. Ventilation problem associated with shipboard laundries and galleys is that airborne materials
7. 2
can collect in ducts unless a good pre-filtration system is available and effectively maintained.
3. Large volumes of lint generated in galleys can partially obstruct airflow and serve as potential
combustion sources.
4. Grease and other cooking residues generated in galleys that collect in ducts can also become
combustible. Ventilation duct fires are extremely difficult to extinguish.
1. Crew Accommodation Ventilation: the crew accommodation to be fitted with an approved

system of heating and ventilation and most vessels now incorporate a fully air-conditioned
system.
8. 1
2. Laundries and Galleys: The most widespread ventilation problem aboard ship is controlling
heat and humidity produced by the cleaning and cooking processes in laundries and galleys.
3. The build-up of dirt, grease, and oil in the ducts serving Laundries and Galleys spaces will
restrict airflow and reduce exhaust and supply air flow capabilities.
4. Restricted air exhaust and supply will result in reduced temperatures in Laundries and Galleys.
1. Double bottom and Deep tank air pipes are provided with means of closing to prevent ingress
of water in heavy weather.
9. 1
2. Open ends of air pipes from oil fuel tanks are fitted with a wire gauge acting as a flame screen.
3. Apart from the natural ventilation provided, the air pipes give protection against excess air
pressure when filling, and partial vacuum when emptying.
4. Air pipes cannot act as an overflow and cannot be used to fill up a tank from deck
Answer Key
Double bottom and Deep tank air pipes are not led to the weather or superstructure decks but the
1.
open end must be a minimum of 76 cm / 30 inches above the freeboard deck
2. In a modern tankship, the tank emission standpipe is kept open to atmosphere while unloading.
Double bottom and Deep tank air pipes are provided with means of closing to prevent ingress of air in
3.
heavy weather.
4. Seal off all vents to that tank.
5. Flame screen.
6. Oil tanker pump room ventilation- air flow rate giving 50 changes per hour is required.
Large volumes of lint generated in galleys can partially obstruct airflow and serve as potential
7.
combustion sources.
8. Restricted air exhaust and supply will result in reduced temperatures in Laundries and Galleys.
9. Air pipes cannot act as an overflow and cannot be used to fill up a tank from deck
Ventilation rules: Find an incorrect statement for Cargo space ventilation
1. Ship's sweat: is the condensation of water vapor on the ship's inner hull structure.
2. Cargo sweat can arise when passing from cold to warmer climatic conditions since the cause
1. 2
is from the warmer moisture laden air condensing on the cargo.
3. Cargo sweat prevention is making sure Not to seal off the ventilating facilities
4. Extraction fans may be necessary to offset any moisture effects emanating from the cargo
itself, or its dunnaging materials.
With regard to the cooling and heating coils and humidification and regeneration chambers of a
liquid cargo-hold dehumidification system, what statement is true?
1. The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the cooling coil and is known as the
regeneration chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the heating coil
and is known as the humidification chamber.
2. The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the heating coil and is known as the
2. humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil 1
and is known as the regeneration chamber.
3. The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the cooling coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the heating coil
and is known as the regeneration chamber.
4. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the heating
coil and is known as the regeneration chamber.
1. Ship's sweat: is the condensation of water vapor on the ship's outside hull structure.
2. Ship sweat takes place when the 'dew point' in a cargo space exceeds the temperature of the
3. 1
structural parts of the ship.
3. It is minimized, or eradicated, by passing adequate volumes of outside air over the cargo,
more particularly necessary in a vessel passing from warm to colder atmospheric conditions.
4. Cargo sweat: is the condensation of water vapor directly on to the cargo.
Cargo ventilation on ships is important for both hygroscopic and non-hygroscopic cargoes. Find an
incorrect answer:
1. Hygroscopic cargo has natural water/moisture content.

2. Hygroscopic cargo is mainly plant products, which absorb, retain, and release water within
4. 1
the cargo.
3. Hygroscopic cargo water leads to significant heating and spreading of moisture in the cargo
and result in caking or spoiling or cargo.
4. Non-hygroscopic cargo has no water content; however, and they cannot get spoilt in moist
environment.
5. To prevent damage to dry cargoes, the cargo hold ventilation and dehumidification systems play a 1
key role. In terms of the maintained dew point, what statement is true?
1. The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained at the surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
2. The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained 10°F above the surface
3. The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained 10°F/ -12°C below the
surface temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
4. The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained at a constant
temperature regardless of the surface temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
What common feature is found on both liquid-desiccant and solid-desiccant cargo- hold
dehumidification systems?
1. Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to drive the moisture out of the
6. desiccant. 1
2. Both systems require a continuous source of heat to drive the moisture out of the desiccant.
3. Both systems require a continuous source of heat to absorb moisture into the desiccant.
4. Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to absorb moisture into the
desiccant.
Cargo ventilation system helps in the following: find an incorrect statement
1. Prevent cargo and ship sweat

7. 2. Non-Supply fresh air to the cargo 1
3. Prevent building up of poisonous gases
4. Removing smell of previous cargo
5. Getting rid of heat/moisture given off by some cargo types
To determine the average cargo hold dew point temperature, at what location would the dew point
be measured?
8. 1. The dew point is taken at the ventilation exhaust trunk. 1

2. The dew point is taken at the ventilation supply trunk.
3. The dew point is taken near a central location of the cargo hold.
4. The dew point is taken near the bottom of the cargo hold.
1. Damage to cargo can happen because of several reasons such as accident, flooding,
rainwater, etc.
9. 2. Of all the reasons, moisture is Not one of the most common causes of cargo damage but, a 2
source of significant cargo claims.
3. In order to prevent damage of cargo because of moisture, ships are fitted with natural or
forced ventilation systems.
4. Moisture responsible for cargo damage is also called “sweat” on ships.
10. Ventilation rules: Find an incorrect statement for Cargo space ventilation 2
1. Cargo sweat refers to the condensation that occurs on the exposed surface of the cargo as a
result of warm, moist air introduced into holds containing substantially cooler cargo.
2. In addition to minimizing the onset and degree of sweat, ventilation may also serve to
remove taint and disperse any gases which some cargoes may emit.
3. Sweat is condensation which forms on all surfaces and on all goods in a compartment or hold
due to the inability of cooled air to hold in suspension as much water vapor as warm air.
4. The ship’s officer can collect only limited evidence of hold atmospheric conditions through the
use of wet and dry bulb temperature readings in a few locations in the holds and on the open
deck.
5. Just by comparing the dew points of the hold air and the outside air, it is not possible for
decisions to be taken as to whether or not to continue ventilating
Identify correct labelling selection:
11. 1
1. A- Hygroscopic; B-Non-hygroscopic; C- Cargo Sweat; D- Cargo damage by sweat

2. A - Non-hygroscopic; B- Hygroscopic; C- Cargo Sweat; D- Cargo damage by sweat
3. A- Cargo Sweat; B-Non-hygroscopic; C -Cargo damage by sweat ; D- Hygroscopic
4. A- Hygroscopic; B-Non-hygroscopic; C -Cargo damage by sweat; D- Cargo Sweat
1. Of all the reasons, moisture is one of the most common causes of cargo damage and a source
of significant cargo claims.
2. Moisture responsible for cargo damage is also called “sweat” on ships.
12. 1
3. Sweat is mainly of two types: Cargo sweat and Vessel sweat
4. Cargo sweat refers to the condensation that occurs on the exposed surface of the cargo as a
result of warm, moist air introduced into holds containing substantially warm cargo.
5. Cargo sweat generally occurs when the vessel is travelling from a colder to a warmer place
and the outside air has a dew point above the temperature of the cargo.
Concerning cargo-hold dehumidification, what statement is true?
1. Cargo hold moisture content is increased by supplying relatively humid air from the outside
and exhausting relatively dry air to the outside
2. Cargo hold moisture content is reduced by supplying relatively humid air from the outside and
13. 1
exhausting relatively dry air to the outside
3. Cargo hold moisture content is increased by supplying relatively dry air from the outside and
exhausting relatively humid air to the outside.
4. Cargo hold moisture content is reduced by supplying relatively dry air from the outside and
14. Cargo ventilation system is guided by the following: find an incorrect statement 2
1. The dew point of the air, both inside and outside the cargo hold plays an important role in
determining the quality of cargo. Here, the “Dewpoint Rule” is taken into consideration to
provide ventilation and keep the temperature within the favorable range.
2. According to the Dewpoint Rule, ventilation must be provided if the dewpoint of the air inside
the hold is higher than the dewpoint of the air outside the hold.
3. Ventilation must be provided if the dewpoint of the air inside the hold is lower than the
dewpoint of the air outside the hold.
4. If it is impractical to measure the dewpoint temperature of the cargo hold, ventilation is
provided by comparing average cargo temperature at the time of loading with the outside air
temperature.
What statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification system?
1. Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and driven out of the desiccant by means
of a heating coil located in the regeneration chamber.
2. Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and driven out of the desiccant by means
15. of a cooling coil located in the regeneration chamber
1
3. Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is condensed and absorbed into the desiccant by
means of a cooling coil located in the regeneration chamber
4. Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is condensed and absorbed in to the desiccant by
means of a heating coil located in the regeneration chamber.
What statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification system?
1. Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is condensed and absorbed into the
liquid desiccant by means of a heating coil located in the humidification chamber
2. Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is evaporated and driven out of the liquid
16. 1
desiccant by means of a cooling coil located in the humidification chamber.
3. Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is condensed and absorbed into the
liquid desiccant by means of a cooling coil located in the humidification chamber.
4. Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is evaporated and driven out of the liquid
desiccant by means of a heating coil located in the humidification chamber.
Answer Key
1. Cargo sweat prevention is making sure Not to seal off the ventilating facilities
The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the heating coil and is known as the
2. humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil and is
known as the regeneration chamber.
3. Ship's sweat: is the condensation of water vapor on the ship's outside hull structure.
Non-hygroscopic cargo has no water content; however, and they cannot get spoilt in moist
4.
environment.
The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained 10°F/ -12°C below the surface
5.
6. Both systems require a continuous source of heat to drive the moisture out of the desiccant.
7. Non-Supply fresh air to the cargo
8. The dew point is taken at the ventilation exhaust trunk.
Of all the reasons, moisture is Not one of the most common causes of cargo damage but, a source of
9.
significant cargo claims.
Just by comparing the dew points of the hold air and the outside air, it is not possible for decisions to
10.
be taken as to whether or not to continue ventilating
11. A- Hygroscopic; B-Non-hygroscopic; C- Cargo Sweat; D- Cargo damage by sweat
Cargo sweat refers to the condensation that occurs on the exposed surface of the cargo as a result of
12.
warm, moist air introduced into holds containing substantially warm cargo.
Cargo hold moisture content is reduced by supplying relatively dry air from the outside and
13.
Ventilation must be provided if the dewpoint of the air inside the hold is lower than the dewpoint of
14.
the air outside the hold.
Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and driven out of the desiccant by means of a
15.
heating coil located in the regeneration chamber.
Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is condensed and absorbed into the liquid
16. desiccant by means of a cooling coil located in the humidification chamber.
Statements on Cargo tank venting System for tank ships; find the incorrect one
1. The use of high-velocity vent valves also helps for venting the tank atmosphere.
2. The principle of operation: the pressure in the tank’s vapor space pushes against the pallet
assembly, in opposition to the closing force.
1. 2
3. When the tank pressure reaches the vent set point, the pallet assembly lifts and vapors can
escape from the tank through the vent. The pressure and/or vacuum in the tank’s vapor
space is maintained within a safe range.
4. A minimum exit velocity of 30 mph is achieved when the valves open, ensuring that the
vapors reach a considerable height above the vessel.
1. The older method of cargo tank venting was through a tank top or hatch on deck.
2. During loading and ballasting operations, tank atmospheres were Not vented through ullage
2. 1
openings in the hatch.
3. Industry studies revealed that exiting cargo vapors tended to settle and accumulate around
the vessel in concentrations, enough to pose fire and health risks.
4. Vapor plume can emanate during a typical loading operation.
1. Vapor plume can emanate during a typical loading operation.

2. The uncontrolled release of hydrocarbon vapors from tank vessels produce volatile organic
compounds (VOCs) in the atmosphere, a precursor of ozone pollution.
3. 1
3. The problem prompted implementation of rules limiting emissions during such operations as
loading, ballasting, purging, and gas-freeing of cargo tanks.
4. At present, these rules apply to vessels handling crude oil, gasoline, gasoline blends, and
benzene cargoes.
5. The list of “regulated” cargoes, as they are known, cannot vary from state to state.
An inert gas system on a tanker should be used to __________.
1. Prevent the generation of flammable or combustible gas in tanks

4. 2
2. Blow out cargo lines to prevent gas concentrations
3. Dilute tank atmospheres to keep gas concentrations below the lower explosive limit.
4. Prevent fires in the pump room by continually displacing flammable vapours.
The explosive range of petroleum vapours when mixed with air is __________.
1. 0% to 1% by volume.
5. 2
3. 1% to 6% by volume
6. Hydrocarbon vapours are usually detected by the use of the __________. 1
1. Flame safety lamp.

2. oxygen indicator.
3. Combustible gas indicator.
4. Gas meter.
Statements on Cargo tank venting System using a flame trap; Identify a statement that
underscores the principle involved in arresting the flame propagation
1. These mast vents are equipped with flame arresters designed to prevent the passage of flame
into the vent piping and cargo tanks of the vessel.
7. 2. A flame arrester is typically constructed of a bundle of thin metal ribbons or corrugated metal 2
elements
3. Flame arresters aid in breaking up the pressure wave associated with the movement of a
flame through a piping system.
4. As the flame attempts to pass through the element, Heat is transferred to the element until
combustion cannot be maintained. The flame front is thus extinguished.
Statements on Cargo heating and venting System for ships; find the incorrect one
1. Steam is used to heat the oil in a ship's tank. It is piped from the boilers along the length of
the vessel's deck.
2. At intervals, manifolds are arranged from which the steam for the individual cargo tanks is
8. 1
drawn.
3. Each tank has its own steam and exhaust valves, which enables the steam to be shut off or
reduced on any of the tanks at will.
4. Generally, the main steam lines are not well lagged, but the individual tank lines leading from
the manifold to the cargo tanks are lagged.
1. The design, construction, and operation of vapor control systems on tank vessels operating in
U.S waters.
2. Controlled venting systems are done in two ways; mast riser venting and high-velocity
venting.
9. 1
3. The deck distribution piping (the IG main and branch lines), used to supply inert gas to the
cargo tanks also serve as the vent system during cargo loading.
4. Using the shipboard vent piping, cargo tank atmosphere is exchanged and exits upwards into
the atmosphere.
5. The prevailing winds at the berth cannot dilute and disperse the exiting vapors, thereby
reducing the risks to the vessel and personnel.
What is the purpose of an explosimeter?
1. To identify inert gases.

10. 2
2. To check % of oxygen in deck.
3. To detect combustible gases.
4. To indicate the absence of oxygen.
Hydrogen sulphide is the constituent giving sour crude oil the characteristic odour of rotten eggs.
One of the hazards associated with hydrogen sulphide is __________.
11. 1. Chemical burning of the skin. 2

2. Irritation of the intestinal tract.
3. Its high toxicity resulting in death.
4. Dependency addiction to the highly toxic fumes.
12. What is the regulation requirement for number of IG System non return valve/device? 2
1. 3
2. 2
3. At least one if deck seal is provided.
4. No deck seal is required.
The "flammable limits" of an atmosphere are the __________.
1. Two temperatures between which an atmosphere will self- ignite.

13. 2. two temperatures between which an atmosphere will burn if an ignition source is present. 2
3. Upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an atmosphere which will burn if an
ignition source is present
4. Upper and lower pressures between which an atmosphere will not burn.
Statements on Cargo heating and venting System for ships; find the incorrect one
1. The object of any steam coil is to have steam enter the coil as steam and exit as condensate.
2. Under real world conditions, condensate usually begins to form inside the tubes almost
immediately. Especially when dealing with low-pressure systems, you have to find a way to
14. 1
evacuate the condensate from the steam coil.
3. Traps are Not required on steam coil systems. Without this, the condensate just sits in the
system without any place to go.
4. Vacuum Breakers are often installed in coil systems to remove any excess condensate that
may remain within the coil.
1. Mast or king-post vents physically direct the exiting cargo vapors well above the deck via
hard piping before releasing it to the atmosphere.
15. 2
2. The use of a tall vent stack is a common sight on tank ships.
3. Controlled venting of the cargo tanks in this manner is Not very effective.
4. With certain weather conditions (e.g., low wind and high humidity), vapor accumulation on
deck and around the ship is still possible.
A fuel/air mixture below the lower explosive limit is too __________.
1. Rich to burn.
16. 1
2. Dense to burn.
3. Lean to burn.
4. Cool to burn.
Answer Key
A minimum exit velocity of 30 mph is achieved when the valves open, ensuring that the vapors reach
1.
a considerable height above the vessel.
During loading and ballasting operations, tank atmospheres were Not vented through ullage openings
2.
in the hatch.
3. The list of “regulated” cargoes, as they are known, cannot vary from state to state.
4. Dilute tank atmospheres to keep gas concentrations below the lower explosive limit.
5. 1% to 6% by volume
6. Combustible gas indicator.
As the flame attempts to pass through the element, Heat is transferred to the element until
7.
combustion cannot be maintained. The flame front is thus extinguished.
Generally, the main steam lines are not well lagged, but the individual tank lines leading from the
8.
manifold to the cargo tanks are lagged.
The prevailing winds at the berth cannot dilute and disperse the exiting vapors, thereby reducing the
9.
risks to the vessel and personnel.
10. To detect combustible gases.
11. Its high toxicity resulting in death.
12. At least one if deck seal is provided.
Upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an atmosphere which will burn if an ignition
13.
source is present
Traps are Not required on steam coil systems. Without this, the condensate just sits in the system
14.
without any place to go.
15. Controlled venting of the cargo tanks in this manner is Not very effective.
16. Lean to burn.
Engine room ventilation systems: find an incorrect statement
1. Salty mist in air becomes steam in the 300 - to 400-degree air inside turbochargers
1. 2. Salty mist can instantly vaporize and form crystallizing salt. 2
3. Crystalline salt deposit causes minerals to be deposited on turbo blades and intake air coolers
get clogged.
4. Mist eliminators cannot prevent the entry of salty mist into turbochargers.
1. Engine room ventilation systems consist of intake fans, which insert combustion air and
cooling air
2. 1
2. Engine room ventilation systems consist of exhaust fans, which pull out cooling air returns.
3. In case the temperature in the engine room rises, the exhaust fans start to pull out cooling
air. The resulting depression in the engine room ramps up the intake fans
4. A marine engine room ventilation system is never to be fitted with mist eliminators.
1. A marine engine room ventilation system is fitted with mist eliminators.

3. 2. Mist eliminators are designed to mix up mist and seawater in the intake air. 1
3. Mist eliminators are the grills you typically see at, or inside, the engine vents.
4. Mist eliminators play a major role in keeping water out of the engine room by reducing the
amount and size of the water droplets in the air coming into the space.
Engine room ventilation system is guided by the following: find an incorrect statement
1. Modern ships need the control equipment console to be housed in a centrally located place in
the E.R. This type of control room is separated from the rest of the E.R. by a glass partition
and is air conditioned
4. 2. Engine room heat only affects the engines, but it does not damages generators, cooling, and 2
electrical systems.
3. Engine room ventilation is important to engine life. In many vessels, there is enough air for
engines to burn their fuel, but not enough to cool the engine room as well.
4. Since warm air does not hold as much oxygen, engines end up with less power, and thus less
efficient
1. Natural ventilation to admit fresh air is not enough for comfortable conditions
2. A natural supply may provide air requirements for combustion and the rest is met by artificial
5. 1
supply.
3. The means of exhaust is via the engine room sky light or the funnel to atmosphere.
4. In general, a margin of about 100% above the combustion requirement is satisfactory for the
amount of air to be supplied.
6. Engine room ventilation system is guided by the following: find an incorrect statement 2
1. In general, a margin of about 50% above the combustion requirement is satisfactory for the
amount of air to be supplied.
2. The air distribution outlets should be arranged to give an air stream directed onto normal
working spaces so that optimum cooling is obtained before the air picks up space heat.
3. Engine room ventilation is important to engine life. In many vessels, there is enough air for
engines to burn their fuel, but not enough to cool the engine room as well.
4. Since warm air doesn't hold as much oxygen, engines end up with less power, but run more
efficient
1. Ventilation of diesel engine propelled engine room presents less difficulty in comparison to the
tremendous sensible and latent heat dissipation problem in a steam turbine ship.
7. 2. The diesel engine itself acts as an air pump or extraction fan and induces large quantities of 2
fresh air drawn in from the atmosphere.
3. Natural ventilation to admit fresh air is enough for comfortable conditions
4. Modern constructions incorporate additional mechanical forced draft fans to supply near
generators, switchboards, workshop and stores etc.
What is the type of fan used for engine room ventilation?
1. Radial.
8. 1
2. Tangential.
3. Axial-flow.
4. Free flow.
1. The greater need for proper ventilation cannot be attributed to the advancement in
turbocharged diesels
2. With more air needed to allow the engines to achieve a proper combustion, the design of the
9. 2
properly sized fans and vents are increasingly more critical.
3. This is especially true on refits when a new set of higher-horsepower engines is going into a
tight space.
4. The engines will most likely choke if you wait until after the installation to consider the air
requirements of the new power.
1. Fire dampers are also a great addition to any engine room's air-handling system.
2. Dampers are multi-blade metal louvers that will snap shut and cut off the intake air when the
10. 1
vessel’s fire detection system indicates such a need.
3. Most fire dampers are automatic and equipped with a motorized valve and cannot be
operated manually.
4. Cutting off a fire's air is one of the fastest ways to kill or contain a machinery space fire.
Answer Key
1. Mist eliminators cannot prevent the entry of salty mist into turbochargers.
2. A marine engine room ventilation system is never to be fitted with mist eliminators.
3. Mist eliminators are designed to mix up mist and seawater in the intake air.
Engine room heat only affects the engines, but it does not damages generators, cooling, and
4.
electrical systems.
In general, a margin of about 100% above the combustion requirement is satisfactory for the amount
5.
of air to be supplied.
6. Since warm air doesn't hold as much oxygen, engines end up with less power, but run more efficient
7. Natural ventilation to admit fresh air is enough for comfortable conditions
8. Axial-flow.
The greater need for proper ventilation cannot be attributed to the advancement in turbocharged
9.
diesels
Most fire dampers are automatic and equipped with a motorized valve and cannot be operated
10.
manually.
Ventilation - Fans and Blowers: find an incorrect statement
1. For a given volume of air, the fan in a system with larger ducts and a minimum number of long
radius turns will be easier and thus more efficient.
1. 2. The system resistance increases substantially as the volume of air flowing through the system 1
increases: square of air flow.
3. Conversely, the system resistance decreases as flow increases.
4. To determine what volume the fan will produce, it is necessary to know the system resistance
characteristics.
1. The term “system resistance” is used when referring to the static pressure.
2. The system resistance is the sum of static pressure losses in the system.
2. 2
3. The system resistance varies inversely with the square of the volume of air flowing through the
system.
4. The system resistance is a function of the configuration of ducts, pickups, elbows and the
pressure drop across equipment
1. Fans are similar in many respects to pumps.

3. 1
2. Both are turbomachines that transfer energy to a flowing fluid.
3. It is not easy to distinguish between fans and pumps
4. Pumps handle liquids: fans handle gasses.
1. The function of a fan is not limited to propel, displace, or move air or gas.
2. Fans, blowers and compressors are differentiated by the method used to move the air, and by
4. 2
the system pressure they must operate against
3. Fans and blowers provide air for ventilation and industrial process requirements.
4. Fans generate a pressure to move air (or gases) against a resistance caused by ducts,
dampers, or other components in a fan system.
1. The system resistance varies directly with the square of the volume of air flowing through the
system.
2. For a given volume of air, the fan in a system with narrow ducts and multiple short radius
5. 1
elbows is going to have to work harder to overcome a greater system resistance
3. For a given volume of air, the fan in a system with larger ducts and a minimum number of long
radius turns will be easier and thus more efficient.
4. The system resistance decreases substantially as the volume of air flowing through the system
6. Ventilation - Fans and Blowers: find an incorrect statement 2
1. Fans, blowers and compressors are differentiated by the method used to move the air, and by
the system pressure they must operate against.
2. The American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME) uses the specific ratio, which is the ratio
of the discharge pressure over the suction pressure, to define fans, blowers and compressors.
3. The ASME classifies Fans and Blowers with a pressure ratio of 1.11 to 1.20 respectively
4. The ASME classifies compressors to have a pressure ratio above 1.5
7. 2
1. The system resistance increases substantially with pressure drop across equipment
2. The system static pressure losses increase with higher airflow rate or fan speed
3. The system pressure loss increases with narrow ducts and bends
4. The system pressure loss increases with large ducts and fewer bends
Ventilation systems: Fans and Blowers: find an incorrect statement
1. Any device that produces a current of air by the movement of broad surfaces can be called a
8. fan. 2
2. Fans fall under a general category of turbomachinery
3. Fans have a rotating impeller at least partially encased in a stationary housing.
4. Fans are not similar in any respects to pumps.
Answer Key
1. Conversely, the system resistance decreases as flow increases.

The system resistance varies inversely with the square of the volume of air flowing through the
2.
system.
3. It is not easy to distinguish between fans and pumps
4. The function of a fan is not limited to propel, displace, or move air or gas.
The system resistance decreases substantially as the volume of air flowing through the system
5.
6. The ASME classifies compressors to have a pressure ratio above 1.5
7. The system pressure loss increases with large ducts and fewer bends
8. Fans are not similar in any respects to pumps.
Ventilation - The limitations of radial-blade fans shall not include
1. Radial blade fans: Handle corrosive or abrasive materials

1. 1
2. Radial blade fans: Lowest efficiency in the centrifugal-fan group.
3. Radial blade fans: Highest sound level in centrifugal-fan group.
4. Radial blade fans: BHP increases as fan approaches maximum volume.
Ventilation Fans: Find the correct labelling
2. 2
1. A -Vane Axial Fan; B- Tube Axial Fan; C-Propeller Fan

2. A- Propeller Fan; B-Vane Axial Fan; C- Tube Axial Fan
3. A-Tube Axial Fan; B- Propeller Fan; C- Vane Axial Fan
4. A-Tube Axial Fan; B-Vane Axial Fan; C-Propeller Fan
Statements on system characteristics and fan curves: identify an incorrect one, Given,
3. 2
1. Varying RPM by 10% decreases or increases air delivery by 10%

2. Reducing RPM by 10% increases the static pressure by 19%
3. Increasing RPM by 10% increases the static pressure by 21%
4. Reducing RPM by 10% decreases the power requirement by 27%
1. Centrifugal fans are categorized by their blade shapes

4. 2. The blade shape varies from flat to various bent configurations to increase efficiency or to suit particular applications. 2
3. The advantages of fans include severe duty, especially when fitted with flat radial blades.
4. Radial blade fans cannot handle corrosive or abrasive materials.
5. Radial blade fans are appropriate for high-temperature service.
5. Ventilation Fans and Blowers: Find an incorrect statement 2
1. The term "blowers" normally refers to that equipment which are used for a compression of air from inlet to outlet resulting in
an increase of density of up to seven percent.
2. Centrifugal blowers are classified as single-inlet (where the air enters the impeller from one end of the casing) and double-inlet
(where the air enters at both ends of the casing).
3. Axial-flow blowers are usually of the multi-stage type (generally two or three stages) consisting of alternate rows of stationary
and rotating blades having an airfoil shape.
4. Axial-flow blowers casing and rotor are arranged for multiple inlet and through-flow in the axial direction.
5. Axial flow blowers rotative speeds are relatively high, making them adaptable to direct-coupled high-speed prime movers.
Statements on system characteristics and fan curves: identify an incorrect one
1. The fans operate under a predictable set of laws concerning speed, power and pressure.
2. A change in speed (revolutions per minute or RPM) of any fan will change the pressure rise and power necessary to operate it
6. 1
at the new RPM.
3. If a blower has a wheel made up of eight segments, each with a volume V, and the wheel is rotating at N rpm, the theoretical
flow rating of the blower will be 4 V N
4. Each fan wheel segment fills with air and empties itself once each revolution.
System characteristics and fan curves: Given,
In any fan system, the resistance to air flow (pressure) increases when the flow of air is increased.
The pressure required by a system over a range of flows can be determined and a "system performance curve" can be
developed .
The fan performance chart shows performance curves for a series of fan speeds.

7. 2
For reducing the air flow from Q1 to Q2, the following statements apply; Select the incorrect assumption
1. Close damper and increase system resistance

2. Keep damper open and reduce fan speed
3. Open damper and increase fan speed
4. Fan curves will be similar within a specified speed range
Ventilation - Forward-Curved Blades: Find an incorrect statement
1. Forward-Curved Blades: Excellent for any volume at low to moderate static pressure using clean
8. 2. Forward-Curved Blades: Occupies approximately same space as backward-curved blade fan 2
3. Forward-Curved Blades: More efficient and much quieter during operation than propeller fans for air static pressures above
approximately 1 in. of water (gauge).
4. Forward-Curved Blades: More efficient than backward-curved blade fans.
9. Ventilation Fans: Find an incorrect statement 2
1. Tube-axial fans have a wheel inside a cylindrical housing, with close clearance between blade and housing to improve airflow
efficiency.
2. In Tube-axial fans the wheel turn faster than propeller fans, enabling operation under high-pressures 250 – 400 mm WC. The
efficiency is up to 65%.
3. Vane axial fans are similar to tube-axials, but with addition of guide vanes that improve efficiency by directing and
straightening the flow.
4. Vane axial fans have a higher static pressure with less dependence on the duct static pressure. Such fans are used generally
for pressures up to 500 mmWC.
5. Vane axials are typically the least energy-efficient fans available and should be used whenever possible.
1. If a blower has a wheel made up of eight segments, each with a volume V, and the wheel is rotating at N rpm, the theoretical
flow rating of the blower will be 8 V N
10. 2
2. The actual volume delivered is strictly a function of the carrying capacity of the wheel and its speed.
3. If the density of air is reduced by temperature, pressure, or both, the blower will deliver a higher weight flow of air, even
though the measured volume hasn’t changed.
4. Air density also affects the pressure developed by the blower and its power consumption.
1. The mathematical relationships of fan laws can be useful when applied to fans operating in a fixed system or to geometrically
11. similar fans. 1
2. Volume in cubic feet per minute (cfm) varies directly with the rotating speed
3. Static pressure varies with the inverse of the rotating speed squared (rpm2).
4. Brake horsepower (BHP) varies with the speed cubed (rpm3).
1. If the density of air is reduced by temperature, pressure, or both, the blower will deliver a lower weight flow of air, even
12. though the measured volume has not changed. 2
2. Air density also affects the pressure developed by the blower and its power consumption.
3. Air density is related to temperature, pressure, and Not the altitude (barometric pressure)
4. It is possible to relate blower performance with a set of relationship known as fan laws.
Which of the following fans are suitable for severe duty and dusty environment?
1. Forward curved.
13. 2
2. Backward curved.
3. Radial-blade fans.
4. Propeller fan.
A fan is drawing 16 kW at 800 RPM. If the speed is reduced to 600 RPM, then the power drawn by the fan would be:
1. 32 kW
14. 2
2. 21.3 kW
3. 6.75 kw
4. 14 kw.
1. Forward-Curved Blades: has a relatively high operational speed.

15. 1
2. Forward-Curved Blades: This design is commonly referred to as a squirrel-cage fun.
3. Forward-Curved Blades: has a wheel with a large number of wide, shallow blades;
4. Forward-Curved Blades: has a very large intake area relative to the wheel diameter;
16. Statements on system characteristics and fan curves: identify an incorrect one, Given 2
1. Reducing RPM by 10% decreases the static pressure by 19%

2. Increasing RPM by 10% decreases the static pressure by 21%
3. Reducing RPM by 10% decreases the power requirement by 27%
4. Increasing RPM by 10% increases the power requirement by 33%
Ventilation Fans and Blowers: Find an incorrect statement
1. Blowers can achieve much higher pressures than fans, as high as 1.20 kg/cm2.
17. 2. The centrifugal blower and the positive displacement blower are two main types of blowers 1
3. Forced-draft blowers are of two types, centrifugal and axial-flow.
4. Forced draft blowers (sometimes referred to as "fans") are used to develop a relatively high pressure, as contrasted with
compressors.
Ventilation - The limitations of backward-curved blades shall include
1. Backward-Curved Blades: Static pressure range up to approximately 30 in. of water (gauge).

18. 2
2. Bacckward-Curved Blades: Highest efficiency of any type of fan.
3. Backward-curved blades: Lowest noise level of any fan for the same pressure and volumetric requirements.
4. Backward-curved blades: Weigh more and occupy considerably more space than other designs.
1. There exist two main fan types.

19. 1
2. Centrifugal fans use a rotating impeller to move the air stream.
3. Axial fans move the air stream along the axis of the fan.
4. Fans are low-pressure machines, not designed to overcome friction and either suction or discharge-system pressure.
1. Forward-Curved Blades: Less efficient than backward-curved blade fans.

2. Forward-Curved Blades: Should be used in dusty environments or handle sticky or stringy materials that could not adhere to
20. 2
the blade surface.
3. Forward-Curved Blades: BHP increases as this fan approaches maximum volume as opposed to backward-curved blade
centrifugal fans
4. Forward-Curved Blades: Experience a decrease in BHP as they approach maximum volume.
21. System Characteristics and Fan Laws- Identify correct labelling, 2
The fan curve is a performance curve for the particular fan under a specific set of conditions.
Some fan curves will include an efficiency curve so that a system designer will know where on that curve the fan will be
operating under the chosen conditions.
The intersection of the system curve and the static pressure curve defines the operating point.
When the system resistance changes, the operating point also changes.
Once the operating point is fixed, the power required can be determined by following a vertical line that passes through the
operating point to an intersection with the power (BHP) curve.
Select your answer:
1. A- Operating Point; B -Performance Curve; C-System Resistance Curve; D- Brake Horsepower Curve
2. A-Performance Curve; B-Operating Point; C- Brake Horsepower Curve; D- System Resistance Curve
3. A- System Resistance Curve; B-Operating Point; C- Performance Curve ; D- Brake Horsepower Curve
4. A-Performance Curve; B-Operating Point; C-System Resistance Curve; D- Brake Horsepower Curve
Ventilation – Centrifugal Fans: Find the correct labelling
22. 1
1. (a) Forward Curved Fan; (b) Radial Fan; (c) Backward Curved Fan
2. (a) Radial Fan; (b) Backward Curved Fan; (c) Forward Curved Fan
3. (a) Backward Curved Fan; (b) Forward Curved Fan; (c) Radial Fan
4. (a) Radial Fan; (b) Forward Curved Fan; (c) Backward Curved Fan
1. The rotating element is mounted on a rotating shaft that must provide the energy required to overcome inertia, friction, and
other factors that restrict or resist air or gas flow
23. 2
2. Centrifugal fans increase the speed of an air stream with a rotating impeller.
3. In centrifugal fans, the speed increases as air reaches the ends of the blades and is then converted to pressure.
4. The centrifugal fans are able to produce relatively lower pressures, than the axial fans which makes them suitable for harsh
operating conditions, such as systems with high temperatures, moist or dirty air streams.
Ventilation – Axial Fans: Find an incorrect statement
1. Axial fans move an air stream radially from the axis of the fan.
24. 2. The way these fans work can be compared to a propeller: 1
3. The fan blades generate an aerodynamic lift that pressurizes the air.
4. They are popular because they are inexpensive, compact and light.
5. The main types of axial flow fans are, propeller, tube-axial and vane-axial
Answer Key
1. Radial blade fans: Handle corrosive or abrasive materials

2. A-Tube Axial Fan; B-Vane Axial Fan; C-Propeller Fan
3. Reducing RPM by 10% increases the static pressure by 19%
4. Radial blade fans cannot handle corrosive or abrasive materials.
5. Axial-flow blowers casing and rotor are arranged for multiple inlet and through-flow in the axial direction.
If a blower has a wheel made up of eight segments, each with a volume V, and the wheel is rotating at N rpm, the theoretical flow
6.
rating of the blower will be 4 V N
7. Open damper and increase fan speed
8. Forward-Curved Blades: More efficient than backward-curved blade fans.
9. Vane axials are typically the least energy-efficient fans available and should be used whenever possible.
If the density of air is reduced by temperature, pressure, or both, the blower will deliver a higher weight flow of air, even though the
10.
measured volume hasn’t changed.
11. Static pressure varies with the inverse of the rotating speed squared (rpm2).
12. Air density is related to temperature, pressure, and Not the altitude (barometric pressure)
13. Radial-blade fans.
14. 6.75 kw
15. Forward-Curved Blades: has a relatively high operational speed.
16. Increasing RPM by 10% decreases the static pressure by 21%
Forced draft blowers (sometimes referred to as "fans") are used to develop a relatively high pressure, as contrasted with
17.
compressors.
18. Backward-curved blades: Weigh more and occupy considerably more space than other designs.
19. Fans are low-pressure machines, not designed to overcome friction and either suction or discharge-system pressure.
Forward-Curved Blades: Should be used in dusty environments or handle sticky or stringy materials that could not adhere to the
20.
blade surface.
21. A-Performance Curve; B-Operating Point; C-System Resistance Curve; D- Brake Horsepower Curve
22. (a) Radial Fan; (b) Forward Curved Fan; (c) Backward Curved Fan
The centrifugal fans are able to produce relatively lower pressures, than the axial fans which makes them suitable for harsh operating
23.
conditions, such as systems with high temperatures, moist or dirty air streams.
24. Axial fans move an air stream radially from the axis of the fan.
Statements on Ventilation System for ships; find the incorrect one
1. Engine rooms generate so much heat that it is neither practical nor feasible to attempt to
reduce temperatures within the entire space.
2. Only a very few of the larger ships have built in machinery control room in the propulsion
spaces which use air conditioning units to re-circulate air and provide comfort for personnel on
1. 1
watch.
3. Spot cooling is a method of providing cooling to personnel in specific locations within a larger
very hot area. The ship's fire-room and engine room are examples of very hot areas that can
use spot cooling to provide comfort for crews working in those spaces.
4. Effectively placed spot cooling is an extremely efficient means of cooling people, because it
directs a high velocity blast of weather air exactly where it is needed.
1. The combination of moisture separators, corrosion resistant materials, and new coatings at the
air intakes reduces the space cleaning and duct repair burden by limiting corrosion problems.
2. A high efficiency grease interceptor hood is installed on every ship galley and over each
2. 2
grease-generating piece of equipment such as ovens, griddles, and fryers.
3. The grease interceptor hood removes combustion gases, heat, grease, dust, lint, and odours
generated from galley cooking operations.
4. Grease, dust, and lint are centrifugally extracted from the air stream within the hood,
eliminating fire hazards and maintenance problems due to these accumulating in the ductwork.
3. Identify correct labelling, for the shipboard system: 1
1. A-Outside Air Duct; B-Barometric Bypass Damper; C-Cooling Coil; D-Supply air grill
2. A- Barometric Bypass Damper; B- Outside Air Duct; C-Cooling Coil; D-Supply air grill
3. A- Outside Air Duct; B-Barometric Bypass Damper; C-Supply air grill; D- Cooling Coil
4. A- Barometric Bypass Damper; B- Outside Air Duct; C- Supply air grill; D- Cooling Coil
1. The ship grease interceptor hoods can also be equipped with Ultra-Violet (UV) technology to
overcome potential problems caused by deposits of greasy matter inside the exhaust ducts.
2. Grease, dust, and lint are centrifugally extracted from the air stream within the hood,
4. eliminating fire hazards and maintenance problems due to these accumulating in the ductwork. 2
3. The use of UV light starts a chemical reaction in which ozone generated by the lamp reacts
with grease and grease vapors, breaking down grease molecules into larger harmful
compounds.
4. The resulting substance will not stick to the ductwork or the fans, which helps to eliminate the
risk of serious fires. This process also reduces maintenance costs.
Identify correct labelling, for a shipboard system
5. 1
1. A - Return Air Grill ; B- Outside Air Duct; C- Filter; D- Heating Coil

2. A- Outside Air Duct; B-Return Air Grill; C- Heating Coil; D- Filter
3. A- Outside Air Duct; B- Heating Coil; C- Filter; D- Return Air Grill
4. A- Outside Air Duct; B-Return Air Grill; C- Filter; D- Heating Coil
6. Statements on maintenance of fans; identify a statement that is Not true 2
1. Ventilation components aboard ship suffer from the entry of salt-water spray
2. Re-entry of exhaust soot into supply air intakes resulting in internal corrosion to ductwork, and
deterioration of air handling equipment.
3. Most ventilation components are located in constrained spaces, making maintenance and
repairs difficult.
4. Maintenance costs are Not high where the maintenance strategy is based exclusively on either
periodic efforts or component failures.
Statements on Ventilation System Noise; find the incorrect one
1. Ventilation systems are often a significant source of shipboard noise.

2. Because of space constraints, air ducts used aboard ships are often small and have sharp
7. curves and bends. 2
3. Air has to move through the ventilation ducts at very high velocities due to the duct design.
4. Air moving at high velocities does not cause noise, but vibration in the ventilation system.
5. Fans can project noise throughout the ventilation system if they are poorly mounted, not
properly isolated from air ducts, and/or are the wrong size.
Answer Key
Only a very few of the larger ships have built in machinery control room in the propulsion spaces which
1.
use air conditioning units to re-circulate air and provide comfort for personnel on watch.
A high efficiency grease interceptor hood is installed on every ship galley and over each grease-
2.
generating piece of equipment such as ovens, griddles, and fryers.
3. A-Outside Air Duct; B-Barometric Bypass Damper; C-Cooling Coil; D-Supply air grill
The use of UV light starts a chemical reaction in which ozone generated by the lamp reacts with grease
4.
and grease vapors, breaking down grease molecules into larger harmful compounds.
5. A- Outside Air Duct; B-Return Air Grill; C- Filter; D- Heating Coil
Maintenance costs are Not high where the maintenance strategy is based exclusively on either periodic
6.
efforts or component failures.
7. Air moving at high velocities does not cause noise, but vibration in the ventilation system.
When a substance changes from a solid to a liquid without a temperature change, the change is
caused by ______.
1. 1. Heat of vaporization. 1
2. Latent heat of fusion.
3. Heat of evaporization.
4. Latent heat of condensation.
For subzero applications the secondary coolant normally used is:
1. Chilled water
2. 1
2. lithium bromide.
3. Brine.
4. Ammonia.
What tonnage is a 36,000 BTU per hour or 37982 KJ / hr heat extraction rate equivalent to?
1. 1/2.
3. 1
2. One.
3. Two.
4. Three.
One refrigeration ton is equal to ________.
1. 180 BTU/hr or 190 KJ/hr

4. 1
2. 2,000 BTU/hr or 2110KJ/hr
3. 12,000 BTU/hr or 12660KJ/hr
4. 2,800,000 BTU/day or 2,954,564/day
The heat required to change a substance from a solid to a liquid without any change in temperature,
is known as the latent heat of ________.
5. 1. Condensation. 2
2. Vaporization
3. Fusion
4. Sublimation.
A refrigeration system with a 1 ton capacity has a BTU extraction rate ________.
1. 200 BTU per minute or 211KJ/min

6. 1
2. 225 BTU per minute or 237 KJ/min
7. Latent heat can be defined as the heat which must be added to a substance in order to change it 1
from:---
1. Liquid to solid.
2. Liquid to vapor.
3. Solid to vapor.
4. Vapor to solid.
If a refrigeration system extracted 48,000 BTU per hour or 50642 KJ/ hr, the equivalent tonnage of
the unit would be _______.
8. 1. 2 tons. 1
2. 4 tons.
3. 6 tons.
4. 8 tons.
Which choice correctly describes a refrigeration or cooling machine with a rated capacity of five tons?
1. It can produce five tons of ice per day.

9. 1
2. It extracts the heat equivalent of five tons of melting ice in 24 hours.
3. It has a motor rated at five horsepower per hour.
4. It can make five tons of ice per hour.
Answer Key

2. Brine.
3. Three.
4. 12,000 BTU/hr or 12660KJ/hr
5. Fusion
6. 200 BTU per minute or 211KJ/min
7. Solid to vapor.
8. 4 tons.
9. It extracts the heat equivalent of five tons of melting ice in 24 hours.
1. The correct term for a coil using a TX valve, capillary tubes, or restrictor is ____.
1
Answer Key
1. direct expansion
What is the physical state and pressure condition of refrigerant as it enters the condenser of a typical refrigeration system?
1. low-pressure vapor
1. 1
2. low-pressure liquid
3. high-pressure vapor
4. high-pressure liquid
Which of the following statements is true?
2. 2
1. Valve "14" is the king solenoid, valve "28" is the chill box solenoid, and valve "36" is the freeze box solenoid.
2. Valve "14" is the king solenoid, valves "28" and "36" are both freeze box solenoids.
4. Valve "14" is the king solenoid, valves "28" and "36" are both chill box solenoids .
Refrigeration systems using forced air circulation evaporators have a tendency to cause rapid dehydration of produce in chill boxes.
Which of the following will minimize this dehydration?
3. 1. the air is circulated slowly over a large evaporator with a maximum temperature differential 2
2. the air is circulated slowly over a large evaporator with a minimum temperature differential
3. the air is circulated rapidly over a small evaporator with a maximum temperature differential
4. the air is circulated rapidly over a small evaporator with a minimum temperature differential
A small obstruction at the thermostatic expansion valve inlet will result in which of the following conditions?
1. Higher than normal discharge pressure.

4. 1
2. Expansion valves are designed to pass small foreign particles so no adverse condition will occur.
3. Ice is the sole cause of this and will soon melt due to superheat; no adverse condition will occur.
4. Lower than normal suction pressure.
An excessive charge of refrigerant in a thermostatically controlled, air-cooled, refrigeration system using a TXV as an expansion device
can cause which of the following?
5. 1. the compressor to run continuously 1

2. oil foaming in the compressor
3. higher than normal discharge pressure
4. lower than normal box temperature
6. In a refrigeration system that is not protected by a water failure switch, if the cooling water to the condenser fails, what will be the 2
result for protective purposes?
1. the king valve will open

2. the box temperature solenoid valve will close initiating a pumpdown
3. the compressor will shut down by the action of the high pressure cutoutswitch
4. the expansion valve will close due to high superheat
Minor repairs may be performed on low-pressure refrigerant systems without recovering the refrigerant charge if the pressure in the
system is raised to atmospheric. How may this be accomplished?
7. 1. pressurize the system with nitrogen 2

2. open the system vent to the atmosphere and allow the pressure to equalize
3. charge the system until it is completely filled with liquid refrigerant
4. heat the refrigerant
An excessive charge of refrigerant in a thermostatically controlled, air-cooled, refrigeration system using a TXV as an expansion device
can cause which of the following?
8. 1. higher than normal discharge pressure 1

2. the compressor to run continuously
3. lower than normal box temperature
4. oil foaming in the compressor
The pressure in a low pressure refrigeration system about to be opened for repair should be ______.
1. 10 to 12 psig or 0.69 to 0.83 bar

9. 2
2. 4 to 7 psig or 0.27 to 0.48 bar
3. 0 to 1 psig or 0 to 0.068 bar
4. 25 inches of hg vacuum or -0.846 bar
Hot gas bypass is one of the methods used to ______.
1. Relieve excessive compressor head pressure.

10. 2
2. Produce flash gas at the expansion valve.
3. Reduce flooding of the receiver at low loads.
4. Defrost the evaporator coils.
Moisture in a refrigeration system can cause which of the following conditions?
1. refrigerant slugs in the receiver

11. 1
2. low suction pressure
3. High Cooling Water temperature
4. freezing the expansion valve closed
Mention the principle of the compressor along with its safety and control devices.
12. 3
Regulations require a method for the relieving pressure of an over pressurized refrigeration system. Which of the following statements
complies with these Regulations?
13. 1. The rupture disk shall burst at a pressure not higher than 10% above the relief valve setting. 1
2. A rupture disk may be fitted in series with the relief valve.
3. The relief valve settings shall be 1 1/4 times the maximum allowable working pressure.
4. The relief valve from the receiver must relieve to the condenser first.
14. Which of the following electrically operated refrigeration system valves would be most appropriate for use as a 2 position diverting hot 2
gas bypass solenoid valve?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
In an operating, water-cooled, multi-box refrigeration system, both low discharge and high suction pressures are being simultaneously
experienced. The probable cause for this condition is which of the following?
15. 1. fouled shell-and-tube condenser 1

2. improper superheat adjustment on the low side
3. discharge relief valve leaking back to the suction side
4. overcharge of refrigerant in the system
Which one of the two processes is true for an eveporator?
16. 1
1. The refrigerant enters at a temperature lower than the secondary coolant, receives latent heat and evaporates
2. The refrigerant flows from high pressure side to low pressure side
17. The thermostat controlling the operation of the solenoid valve to a refrigerated box evaporator senses what temperature? 1
1. the refrigerated box temperature

2. compressor discharge temperature
3. evaporator coil outlet temperature
4. evaporator coil inlet temperature
In a refrigeration system, what component is installed directly downstream of the thermal expansion valve?
1. evaporator coil
18. 2
2. receiver
3. compressor
4. box solenoid valve
If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant, besides an elevated box temperature, what would be an observable symptom?
1. short-cycling of the compressor on the water failure switch

19. 1
2. high suction pressure
3. continuous running of the compressor
4. high discharge pressure
The term 'oil foaming' in refrigeration practice, is used to describe what event?
1. release of miscible refrigerant from the lubricant in the crankcase

20. 2
2. release of dissolved lubricant from the refrigerant in the crankcase
3. sudden evaporation of entrapped moisture from the crankcase lubricant
4. sudden evaporation of entrapped air from the refrigerant liquid
What is the physical state and pressure condition of refrigerant as it leaves a receiver in a typical refrigeration system?
21. 2
3. low-pressure vapor
4. low-pressure liquid
Which of the listed operations will cause an automatically controlled refrigeration compressor to restart if the system features a pump
down cycle?
22. 1. Closing of the expansion valve 1

2. Decreasing the suction pressure
3. An increase in the suction pressure
4. Closing of the solenoid valve
23. If a liquid line strainer, such as the one shown in the illustration, becomes clogged to the extent that it should be cleaned, this will be 2
indicated by ________.
1. Slightly warm strainer body.

2. Clicking in the solenoid valve.
3. Loss of refrigeration effect in the space being cooled.
4. High suction pressure at the condenser.
In a refrigeration system that is not protected by a water failure switch, if the cooling water to the condenser fails, what will be the
result for protective purposes?
24. 1. the king valve will open 2

2. the expansion valve will close due to high superheat
3. the compressor will shut down by the action of the high-pressure cutout switch
4. the box temperature solenoid valve will close initiating a pump down
How does a refrigeration solenoid valve differ from a modulating valve?
1. Both valves operate inexactly the same manner, only the manufacturer's terminology is the differentiating factor.
2. A liquid line solenoid valve is either completely opened or closed, whereas a modulation valve is infinitely positioned according to
25. 1
the strength of the applied electrical signal.
3. Solenoid valves are only used in low voltage refrigeration control systems, while modulation valves are used in high voltage
applications.
4. A solenoid valve can only be installed in liquid lines.
If you find the pressure of a refrigeration system containing a Class I or Class II refrigerant to be opened for the accomplishment of
repairs is 0 psig, what must be done?
26. 1. recover liquid and vapor refrigerant and have it reclaimed 1

2. only recover the liquid refrigerant in the system
3. do not attempt to recover any refrigerant and repair the leak before pulling a vacuum on the system
4. only recover the vapor refrigerant
27. If a refrigeration system, equipped with a reciprocating compressor, has a liquid-line solenoid valve that is leaking during the 'off cycle, 2
what would this cause?
1. high superheat in the outlet coil

2. refrigerant slugs in the receiver
3. noisy compressor operation upon starting
4. low suction pressure
The purpose of running a refrigeration compressor motor in short intermittent spurts when starting the system after a prolonged
shutdown is to ______.
28. 1. Allow refrigerant vapor cycling time. 2

2. Insure proper operation of the compressor.
3. Let the refrigerated compartment cool gradually.
4. Determine actual compressor oil level.

29. 1
With reference to refrigeration system:

a. State three functions of the compressor.
b. Mention briefly about the safety mechanism in the cylinder head and state its functions.
30. c. Explain about unloading mechanism. 5
d. Give the function of the condenser.
e. Give the primary function of the expansion valve.
During tests to discover why a refrigeration compressor is running continuously, it is determined that the refrigerated space
temperature is slightly above normal without ever reaching the desired minimum temperature. Suction and discharge pressures are
normal for the corresponding box temperature. In this situation, what should you suspect?
31. 1
1. high cooling water temperature
2. a shortage of refrigerant
3. leaking door gaskets
4. air in the system
If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant, besides an elevated box temperature, what would be an observable symptom?
1. short cycling of the compressor on the water failure switch

32. 2
2. high suction pressure
4. high discharge pressure
Which of the conditions listed could cause excessively low refrigerant pressure at the compressor suction of a TXV controlled
33. 1. The high pressure cutout switch is inoperative. 1

2. The system is low on refrigerant.
3. The box solenoid valve 'stuck' in the open position.
4. Insufficient flow of condenser cooling water.
Which of the following is carried out as a daily check in the direct system?
34. 1
1. Inspecting and overhauling the system components in its entirety
2. Checking of condensing pressure, evaporating pressure, oil pressure drop, discharge and suction temperature
If a refrigeration compressor had developed a slightly high suction pressure accompanied with an abnormally low suction temperature,
the problem could be a result of which of the following?
35. 1. a clogged sub cooler 1

2. liquid refrigerant flooding back from the cooling coil
3. a minor accumulation of air or non-condensable gases in the system
4. a leaking king valve
36. An evaporator coil of a single evaporator, air cooled refrigerator is accumulating excessive frost due to a failure of the defrost 1
mechanism. If the refrigerator features a thermostatically controlled box solenoid and a low pressure cutout controlled compressor, as
well as a high pressure cutout, in terms of the compressor, what would be the most likely operating symptom?
1. run continuously
2. fail to start
3. short cycle on low pressure cutout
4. short cycle on high pressure cutout
Moisture entering a typical refrigeration system will most likely produce what effect?
1. cause sweating and frost on the evaporator coils

37. 1
2. boil in the condenser
3. freeze in the expansion valve
4. be removed by the liquid line strainers
When the relief valve opens on a refrigeration compressor discharge line, it discharges high- pressure refrigerant vapor to what
location?
38. 1. refrigerant inlet of the condenser 1

2. liquid strainer
3. inlet side of the evaporator
4. suction side of the compressor
Some 'hot gas' defrost systems reheat the refrigerant just prior to its returning to the compressor for what purpose?
1. to prevent chill shocking the compressor suction valves

39. 2
2. to improve the efficiency of the expansion valve
3. to prevent the damaging effects of liquid slugging
4. to increase the circulation of liquid refrigerant
Low compressor head pressure in a refrigeration system can be caused by which of the following?
1. air in the refrigeration system

40. 1
2. excessive condenser cooling water flow
3. excessive refrigerant in the system
4. insufficient condenser cooling water flow
An obstructed expansion valve may be indicated by an incompletely cooled evaporator and what other symptom?
1. frosting at the evaporator inlet

41. 1
2. a higher than normal discharge pressure
3. a decrease in the amount of frosting across the drier
4. frosting at the suction side of the compressor
42. In the multi-evaporator refrigeration system shown in the illustration, what is the proper name for the valve labeled "29"? 2
1. chill box solenoid valve
2. chill box thermostatic expansion valve
3. freeze box thermostatic expansion valve
4. chill box evaporator pressure regulating valve
Which of the following is called short cycling?
43. 1
1. Compressor cuts in and out frequently
2. Compressor runs continuously
What is the pressure and condition of the refrigerant entering the receiver of a refrigeration system?
1. superheated low-pressure vapor

44. 1
2. superheated high-pressure vapor
3. sub cooled low-pressure liquid
4. sub cooled high-pressure liquid
In a dry-type direct expansion refrigeration evaporator, what is true concerning the evaporator coils?
1. the coils are surrounded on the outside by refrigerant

45. 1
2. the coils are surrounded on the outside by air
3. the coils are coated on the inside with insulation
4. the coils are covered on the outside with insulation
46. 1. overcharge of refrigerant in the system 2

2. fouled shell-and-tube condenser
4. improper superheat adjustment on the low side
Concerning the operation of refrigeration systems, frosting or sweating of a liquid line is usually indicative of what condition?
1. high relative humidity surrounding the liquid line

47. 1
2. a liquid line restriction
3. the refrigerant contaminated with moisture
4. proper cooling taking place
48. 1. improper superheat adjustment on the low side 1

2. fouled shell-and-tube condenser
3. overcharge of refrigerant in the system
With reference to refrigeration system:

a. Sketch the system.
49. b. Explain the function of compressor, condenser, expansion valve and evaporator. 3
c. State why the refrigerant temperature changes from one side of the thermostatic expansion valve to the other.
If a refrigeration compressor using a thermostat as a primary controller is running continuously without significantly lowering the
temperature in the refrigerated space, which of the following is most likely the trouble?
50. 1. excessive condenser cooling water 1

2. warm food in the refrigerator
3. a shortage of compressor oil
Answer Key
6. the compressor will shut down by the action of the high pressure cutoutswitch
7. heat the refrigerant
9. 25 inches of hg vacuum or -0.846 bar
10. Defrost the evaporator coils.
11. freezing the expansion valve closed
Compressor
In the refrigeration system it is quite common to have single stage, reciprocating type compressor. Larger systems have multiple
cylinders with an unloader system using the suction pressure as its signal. The degree of compression depends upon temperature of the
cooling water in to the condenser and volume of refrigerant in the system. The rise in the temperature of cooling water raises the
minimum temperature of the refrigerant liquid and the corresponding saturation temperature.
Compressor safety devices

The compressor is protected by three safety switches:
The OP or Oil Differential Pressure switch compares the measured lubricating oil pressure to the suction or crankcase pressure. If
the differential pressure falls below a pre set minimum, about 1.2 bar. Then the compressor will trip and require a manual reset to
restart. A time delay is built into the circuit to allow sufficient time for the lubricating oil pressure to build up when starting before
arming the circuit. The HP or High Pressure switch is fitted at the outlet of the compressor before the isolating valve. Excessive
12. pressure depending on the refrigerant, up to about 24 bar for R22, the switch will trip the compressor and a manual reset is required
before restart. The activation of LP or Low Pressure switch, at about 1 bar for R22, will trip the
compressor and require a manual reset before the compressor can be restarted.
Compressor control devices

This normally takes the form of LP cut out switch with automatic reset on pressure rise. The cut out set point is just above the LP trip
point. An adjustable differential is set to about 1.4 bar to give a cut in pressure of around 2.8 bar. The electrical circuit is so arranged
that even when the switch is reset, if no room solenoid valves are open the compressor will not start. This is to prevent the compressor
short cycling due to a
leakage in solenoid valve.
In addition to this, additional LP switches may be fitted which operate between the extremes of the LP cut in and cut out to operate
compressor unloaders.
13. A rupture disk may be fitted in series with the relief valve.
14. B
16. The refrigerant enters at a temperature lower than the secondary coolant, receives latent heat and evaporates
18. evaporator coil
20. release of miscible refrigerant from the lubricant in the crankcase
23. Loss of refrigeration effect in the space being cooled.
24. the compressor will shut down by the action of the high-pressure cutout switch
A liquid line solenoid valve is either completely opened or closed, whereas a modulation valve is infinitely positioned according to the
25.
strength of the applied electrical signal.
26. do not attempt to recover any refrigerant and repair the leak before pulling a vacuum on the system
27. noisy compressor operation upon starting
28. Insure proper operation of the compressor.
30. a. With reference to refrigeration system, state three functions of the compressor.
Functions of compressor
Raises the pressure of the refrigerant

Increases saturated temperature by raising the pressure of refrigerants.
Circulates the refrigerant in the system.
b. With reference to refrigeration system, mention briefly about the safety mechanism in the cylinder head and state its
functions.
The delivery valve is held in place by a safety spring. It is fitted to allow the complete valve to lift in the event of liquid carry over to the
compressor.
The delivery valve is an annular plate with its inside edge seated on the mushroom section. The outside edge of the delivery valve is on
suction valve housing. The suction valve passes the gas from the suction space around the cylinder.
For unloading, a collar yoke mechanism holds the suction valve in an open position, so that gas flows in and out through the valve, so
that there is no compression.
c. With reference to refrigeration system, explain about unloading mechanism.

Large refrigeration compressors are provided with an unloading system, which enables the compressor to start easily with no vapour
pressure load on the cylinder. This permits the use of electric motors with low starting torques.
Unloading is effected by holding the suction valve open position. The unloading may be achieved by hydraulic or mechanical means.
The unloader system may be used for capacity control by successively cutting in or cutting
out cylinders.
d. With reference to refrigeration system, give the function of the condenser.

In the condenser the refrigerant is liquefied by circulating sea water or fresh water. The latent heat removed from the evaporator is
transferred to the cooling medium. The liquid refrigerant is in the same pressure produced by the compressor. Refrigerant is liquefied
and sub cooled below the saturation temperature.
e. With reference to refrigeration system, give the primary function of the expansion valve.
Expansion valve is a regulator through which the refrigerant flows from high pressure side to low pressure side. The pressure drop
causes the saturation temperature to drop. This causes the liquid refrigerant to boil at low temperature. As a result it takes up the
latent heat from the remaining liquid refrigerant causing a drop in its temperature.
31. leaking door gaskets
34. Checking of condensing pressure, evaporating pressure, oil pressure drop, discharge and suction temperature
36. short cycle on low pressure cutout
37. freeze in the expansion valve
38. suction side of the compressor
39. to prevent the damaging effects of liquid slugging
43. Compressor cuts in and out frequently
49. a. With reference to refrigeration system, sketch the system.
b. With reference to refrigeration system, explain the function of compressor, condenser, expansion valve and
evaporator.
Functions of components
Components Function
Compressor The compressor is used for raising

the pressure
of the vaporised refrigerant. Compressor

circulates the
refrigerant by pumping it through
the system
Condenser In the condenser, the refrigerant is

liquefied by
circulating seawater or fresh water. The latent
heat removed
from the evaporator is transferred
to the cooling medium. The liquid
refrigerant is in
the same pressure produced by the compressor.
Sub cooling is
done to reduce flash off to increase
efficiency.
Expansion valve Expansion valve is a regulator

through which the
refrigerant flows from high pressure side to low
pressure
side. The pressure drop causes the
saturation temperature to drop. This causes
the
liquid refrigerant to boil at low temperature. As a
result it takes up
the latent heat from the
remaining liquid refrigerant causing a drop in its
temperature.
Evaporator The refrigerant entering the

evaporator which is
at a temperature lower than the secondary
coolant, e.g.
air or brine, receives latent heat and
evaporates. This latent heat is given
up in the
condenser. From the evaporator the vaporised
refrigerant flows into
the compressor to get
compressed again. Super heating is done to
ensure that
no liquid refrigerant flows back to
compressor.
c. With reference to refrigeration system, state why the refrigerant temperature changes from one side of the
thermostatic expansion valve to the other.
Joule - Kelvin effect
Imagine a refrigerant liquid, which has a low boiling temperature, passes through an orifice. When the refrigerant liquid flows from high
pressure to low pressure side there is a pressure drop. This causes the saturation temperature of the refrigerant to fall below its actual
temperature. The result is that some of the liquid boils off at the orifice taking latent heat from the remaining liquid causing a drop in
temperature. Phase change occurs from liquid to gaseous phase.
which one of the following is true for indirect system?
1. 1
1. The primary refrigerants are working fluids.The refrigerant vapour works in closed cycle
2. Refrigeration plants use secondary refrigerants
a. If the suction line of the refrigeration compressor is frosted, what can be the cause?
2. 2
On which side of the refrigeration system, is the charging of a refrigerant usually carried out?
3. 2
b. What can be the other indication?
4. 2
Answer Key
1. Refrigeration plants use secondary refrigerants

2. TEV is stuck open, thereby causing the liquid refrigerant to return.
3. Charging of refrigerant is carried out on the high pressure side.
4. Crankcase sweating
If the valve labeled "D" in the illustration is a suction service valve, what will the port labeled "7" be
connected to?
1. 2
1. to the line connected to the evaporator inlet

2. to the line connected to the evaporator outlet
3. to the inlet of the compressor
4. to the outlet of the compressor
2. Which of the lettered components shown in the illustration indicates the high pressure cutout? 2
1. W
2. X
3. Y
4.
Z
Hard drawn copper tubing is commonly used in larger refrigeration systems. What statement
concerning its use is true?
1. Hard drawn copper tubing is not easily flared, bent, or swaged, so brazed fittings are commonly
3. used. 1
2. Hard drawn copper tubing is easily swaged, so reducing fittings are rarely used in changing line
size.
3. Hard drawn copper tubing is easily bent, so elbow fittings are rarely used in changing direction.
4. Hard drawn copper tubing is easily flared, so flare fittings are commonly used.
Copper tubing is used in refrigerant system because:
1. It has less internal resistance

4. 1
2. It is cheaper compared to other materials.
3. It is easier to check leaks in copper based system
5. When the relief valve opens on a refrigeration compressor discharge line, it discharges high pressure 1
refrigerant vapor to the _______.
1. Liquid strainer.
2. Refrigerant inlet of the condenser.
3. Inlet side of the evaporator.
4. Suction side of the compressor.
If a refrigeration compressor were short cycling on the low pressure cutout switch, what is the most
probable cause?
6. 1. the high pressure switch was improperly adjusted 1

2. the system was overcharged with refrigerant
3. the expansion valve strainers were fouled
4. the suction valves were leaking slightly
Tubing connections for refrigeration systems may be made by _____.
1. Flaring.
7. 1
2. Soldering.
3. Silver brazing.
Answer Key
1. to the line connected to the evaporator outlet

2. X
3. Hard drawn copper tubing is not easily flared, bent, or swaged, so brazed fittings are commonly used.
5. Suction side of the compressor.
Sketch and explain thermostatic expansion valve

1. 3
a. Sketch a cross section through one cylinder and cylinder cover of a large in line reciprocating
compressor showing the valve assembly.
2. b. With reference to the sketch, explain the reasons for fitting the delivery valve with a safety spring 3
and also explain its operation. Explain unloading mechanism.
What would be an indication that the vegetable box back pressure regulator is set too low?
1. Vegetable refrigeration box is holding the correct temperature but the vegetables are
dehydrated and frost is observed on the vegetable box evaporator coil back to the back
3. pressure regulator 1
2. High discharge pressure on the compressor.
3. Vegetable box does not pull down to correct temperature and the compressor suction pressure
is low.
4. The vegetable box is at the correct temperature and the compressor experiences short-cycling.
In the illustrated refrigeration system, what is the proper name for the component labeled "A"?
4. 2
1. accumulator
2. compressor
3. filter drier
4. condenser
5. The receiver used in a refrigeration system performs what essential function? 1
1. holds the entire refrigerant charge after system pump down

2. collects air and noncondensable gases
3. prevents liquid refrigerant from flooding back to the compressor

4. allows the refrigerant to be superheated
Explain with a simple sketch oil rectifier and oil separator.

6. 3
Sketch and describe a high pressure cut out in a refrigeration system.
7. 3
In the multi-evaporator refrigeration system shown in the illustration, what is the proper name for the
valve labeled ''29''?
8. 2
1. chill box solenoid valve

2. chill box evaporator pressure regulating valve
4. freeze box thermostatic epansion valve
Sketch and briefly explain rotary compressor.

9. 2
An arrow stamped on the valve body of a water regulating valve indicates which of the following?
1. closed position
10. 1
2. direction of the plunger slide
3. direction of the flow
4. open position
Answer Key
1.
The purpose of this valve is to ensure efficient drop in pressure of the refrigerant.
Pressure drop is
achieved by passing the liquid through a variable orifice giving a constant
enthalpy pressure drop. The
refrigerant at lower pressure has a corresponding lower boiling
point. Under cooling in the condenser
increases the efficiency of the plant by allowing more
heat to be absorbed during the vaporisation
process. In addition it also reduces the internal
heat absorption process that occurs during the
expansion stage due to a small degree
of fl ash off. The latent heat of vaporisation is absorbed from
surrounding liquid to reduce the
temperature of the bulk liquid to its corresponding saturation
temperature.
By this process of boiling and latent heat absorption i.e. change of state, the
refrigerant removes heat
from the cold rooms.
The expansion process is controlled by the action of the bellows and push pins acting on the
orifi ce
valve plate. The bellows is controlled by a bulb which measures the temperature of
the gas at outlet
from the evaporator. To ensure no liquid passes through to the compressor,
the expansion valve is set
so that the gas at outlet from the evaporator has 2° to 3° of
superheat.
For larger systems where there is a signifi cant pressure drop in the evaporator it is
necessary to fi t a
balance line. This is a small bore tube which feeds the outlet pressure
back to the thermostatic valve
motor element. Therefore the measured temperature is
directly related to the superheat temperature
at outlet pressure.
Some systems are designed so that 5% liquid is available through the evaporator to coat the
internal
surfaces of the tubes which would increase the heat transfer effi ciency
2. a.
Sketch a cross section through one cylinder and cylinder cover of a
large in line
reciprocating compressor showing the valve assembly?
2.
2. b.
With reference to the sketch, explain the reasons for fi tting the delivery
valve with a
safety spring and also explain its operation. Explain unloading
mechanism.
The delivery valve is held in place by a safety spring. It is fitted to allow the complete
valve to lift in
the event of liquid carry over to the compressor. The delivery valve is an
annular plate with its inside
edge seated on the mushroom section. The outside edge
of the delivery valve is on suction valve
housing. The suction valve passes the gas from
the suction space around the cylinder. For unloading, a
collar yoke mechanism holds
the suction valve open to enable the gas to flows in and out through the
valve, so that
there is no compression.
Unloading mechanism
Large refrigeration compressors are provided with an unloading system, which enables the
compressor to start easily with no vapour pressure load on the cylinder. This permits the
use of
electric motors with low starting torques.Unloading is effected by holding the
suction valve in an open
position. The unloading may be achieved by hydraulic or
mechanical means.
The unloaded system may be used for capacity control by successively cutting in or
cutting out
cylinders
Vegetable refrigeration box is holding the correct temperature but the vegetables are dehydrated and
3. frost is observed on the vegetable box evaporator coil back to the back pressure regulator
4. compressor
6.
The purpose of the oil separator, located on the compressor discharge line, is to return oil
entrained in
the gas, back to the compressor sump.
The oil return is controlled by a fl oat valve as shown, the electric solenoid controlled by a
timer, or
uncontrolled with a small bore capillary tube allowing continuous return.
With all of these methods a shut off valve is fitted between the separator and compressor to
allow
maintenance of separator.
The mixture of oil and gas enters the separator where it changes the direction. The heavier
oil
droplets settles down at the bottom.
In some installations, the oil tends to collect in the evaporator under certain conditions, such
as low
load when the speed of movement and agitation of the evaporating refrigerant are
insufficient to keep
the oil moving. An oil rectifi er is fitted to prevent loss of oil from the
sump to the system. The oil is
automatically bled from the evaporator to a heat exchanger in
which liquid refrigerant mixed with the
oil evaporates. The heat for vaporising the refrigerant
is obtained by passing warm liquid freon from
the condenser through the heat exchanger.
Vapour and oil are passed to the compressor where oil
returns to the sump while the
freon passes to the compressor suction. The regulator is a
thermostatically controlled
valve which operates in the same way as the expansion valve on the main
system. This
automatically results in an oil bleed from the evaporator so that the gas leaves
the heat
exchanger in a superheated condition.
7.
High pressure cut out

When the compressor is running, the liquid refrigerant is pumped around the circuit.
In the event of
excessive pressure on the condenser side of the compressor, the high
pressure (HP) cut out will cause
the compressor to shut down.
The bellows are connected by a small bore pipe between the compressor discharge and
the condenser.
In the case of the HP cut out, the bellows tend to expand by the pressure
and this movement is
opposed by the spring. The adjustment screw is used to set the spring
pressure.
During normal operation, the switch arm is held by the switch arm catch and holds
the electrical
contact in place. Excessive pressure expands the bellows and moves the
switch arm catch, around its
pivot. The upper end slips and releases the switch arm.
The electrical circuit is interrupted causing the
compressor to cut out.

9.
Such compressors are used mainly in house hold applications but modern practice sees their
use in
cargo conditioning.
A variation on this is the multi blade type where the rotor has slots cut in it, fitted to which
are spring
loaded blades. Alternately the blades may rely on centrifugal force.
With both these types, when the compressor is stopped the sealing pressure and oil film
are broken
and therefore the suction and discharge becomes equal. This reduces starting
load but requires a
suction non return valve to be fitted.
Where these are fitted to large refrigeration systems it is possible to use variable speed
thyristor
controlled electric motors. Thereby the compressor can run at optimal revolution to
maintain plant
efficiency.
10. direction of the flow
Why is a purge recovery unit typically fitted on low-pressure centrifugal chillers?
1. evacuation of the air from a low-pressure chiller prior to charging with refrigerant is not possible
1. 2. low-pressure chillers use extremely low boiling point refrigerants 1
3. such a chiller can operate at a pressure below atmospheric pressure on the low side thus
drawing in air through any low side leaks
4. low-pressure chillers are routinely opened for maintenance thus introducing air at each opening
In a refrigeration system, what component is installed directly downstream of the thermal expansion
valve?
2. 1. box solenoid valve 1

2. receiver
3. evaporator coil
4. compressor
In a refrigeration system, from what location would air and non-condensable gases be removed?
1. the top of the condenser purge connection

3. 1
2. expansion valve equalizer connection
3. the bottom of the receiver drain connection
4. compressor oil fill connection
For most multi-box refrigeration systems, the refrigerant sight glass would be located where in the
system?
4. 1. after the condenser in the drain line to the receiver 1

2. In the receiver in the liquid line
3. before the compressor in the suction line
4. after the compressor in the discharge line
Excessive moisture being collected in the purge unit of a low-pressure refrigeration system could
indicate which probable condition?
5. 1. low efficiency purge unit 2

2. leaking condenser or chiller tubes
3. improper charging of refrigerant
4. dryer core needs replacement
Zinc rods are installed in the refrigeration system _____.
1. Liquid line strainer.

6. 1
2. Liquid line receiver.
3. Saltwater condenser heat exchanger heads.
4. Evaporator tail coil.
7. The storage tank for liquid refrigerant in a refrigeration cycle is called a ______. 2
1. Dehydrator.
2. Purge tank.
3. Charging tank.
4. Receiver.
A water regulating valve controls the refrigeration condenser cooling water flow in response to
condenser ______.
8. 1. Cooling water outlet temperature. 2

2. Liquid refrigerant outlet temperature.
3. Liquid refrigerant outlet pressure.
4. Refrigerant vapor inlet pressure.
If the evaporator coil of a single box, air cooled refrigerator accumulates frost, the compressor will
most likely ______.
9. 1. Run continuously. 1
2. Short cycle on low pressure cutout.
3. Short cycle on high pressure cutout.
4. Fail to start.
Zinc plates commonly found in refrigeration systems and used as sacrificial anodes are located where?
1. refrigerant side of the condenser

10. 2
2. cooling water suction strainer
3. saltwater side of the condenser
4. evaporator coils
The back pressure regulating valve used in a refrigeration system serves to ______.
1. Maintain a constant pressure in the suction line heat exchanger.

11. 1
2. Limit the minimum pressure in the evaporator.
3. Limit the maximum pressure in the suction line heat exchanger.
4. Maintain a minimum discharge head on the compressor.
What is true concerning frost build-up on the evaporator coils of a multi-box direct expansion
1. the frost can be removed by passing hot gas through the coils or energizing defrost heaters with
12. the evaporator fan shut down 1
2. the frost can be removed by passing hot gas through the coils or energizing defrost heaters with
the evaporator fan still running
3. the frost will increase the refrigeration effect
4. the frost can be quickly removed by simply shutting down the compressor
In a dry-type direct expansion refrigeration evaporator, what is true concerning the evaporator coils?
1. the coils are covered on the outside with insulation

13. 1
2. the coils are coated on the inside with insulation
3. the coils are surrounded on the outside by refrigerant
14. Refrigeration systems using forced air circulation evaporators have a tendency to cause rapid 2
dehydration of produce in chill boxes. Which of the following will minimize this dehydration?
1. the air is circulated rapidly over a small evaporator with a maximum temperature differential
2. the air is circulated rapidly over a small evaporator with a minimum temperature differential
4. the air is circulated slowly over a large evaporator with a maximum temperature differential
What is true concerning the accumulation of air and other non-condensable gases in a refrigeration
system?
15. 1. cause a loss of the liquid seal 1

2. cause foaming of the oil in the crankcase
3. collect in the condenser
4. create a vapor lock in the liquid receiver
When the quantity of refrigerant flow to an evaporator is reduced, the amount of superheat in the
vapor leaving the coil will ________.
16. 1
The coolant used for a finned condenser is _______.
1. Oil.
17. 2
2. Freon.
3. Water.
4. Air.
The heat removed from the refrigerant in the condenser of a refrigeration plant is the ____________.

18. 2
2. Sensible heat of condensation.
3. Heat of compression.
4. Heat of evaporation.
If increasing the cooling water flow to a refrigeration condenser fails to lower the condenser pressure,
the probable cause may be due to what condition?
19. 1. partially blocked thermal expansion valve 2

2. excessive amount of non-condensable gases trapped in the condenser
3. an evaporator coil in need of defrosting

4. a low level of Freon in the receiver
In a large refrigeration system having more than one evaporator, a king solenoid valve should be
installed in what location?
20. 1. before the condenser 2

2. just after the receiver
3. before the back pressure regulating valve
4. between the condenser and receiver
21. The compressor in an air-cooled condensing refrigeration system is short cycling on the high pressure 2
cutout switch. A probable reason for this is the ______.
1. System is overcharged with refrigerant.

2. System is low on refrigerant.
3. Discharge valves are leaking excessively.

4. Discharge valves are leaking slightly.
A sight glass is installed in the liquid line to indicate the condition of the refrigerant charge and may
also indicate the ______.
22. 1. Condition of the expansion valve. 1

2. Moisture in the system.
3. Condition of the compressor suction valves.
4. Condenser temperature.
After the freon leaves the condenser, what is its next stop as it continues the refrigeration cycle?
1. The evaporator coils.

23. 1
2. The expansion valve.
3. The compressor.
4. The receiver.
A liquid indicator sight glass is useful for determining whether or not a refrigeration system is
sufficiently charged. Where is it generally located in the system?
24. 1. low-pressure liquid line 2

2. high-pressure liquid line
3. low-pressure vapor line
4. high-pressure vapor line
25. In a refrigeration system, the valve shown in the illustration is used for what purpose? 2
1. suction pressure regulating valve

2. thermostatic expansion valve
3. head pressure regulating valve
4. evaporator pressure regulating valve
26. As shown in the illustrated refrigeration system piping schematic diagram with the various accessories 2
and controls and equipped with an air-cooled condenser with high side pressure controls, what
statement is true concerning the fan cycling control pressure switch?
1. With a condenser fitted with multiple electric-motor driven fans, the number of fans in use would
increase under low ambient temperature conditions.
2. With a condenser fitted with a single fan driven by a multi-speed electric motor, the fan speed
would decrease under high ambient temperature conditions.
3. With a condenser fitted with a single fan driven by a multi-speed electric motor, the fan speed
would decrease under low ambient temperature conditions.
4. With a condenser fitted with a single fan driven by a single-speed electric motor, the fan would
cycle off under high ambient temperature conditions.
A quick method used to test a water-cooled condenser for refrigerant leaks is to test the _____.
1. Cooling water for proper pH.

27. 1
2. Receiver for water content.
3. Air vents on the condenser heads with a halide torch.
4. Condenser tubes hydrostatically.
When checking zinc plates, or pencils in the refrigerating system condenser, you should _____.
1. Paint and insulate the plates to prevent corrosion.

28. 2
2. Renew the plates at each inspection.
3. Replace the zincs if deteriorated by 50%.
4. File the plates to change the negative value.
29. The receiver used in a refrigeration system performs what essential function? 1
1. prevents liquid refrigerant from flooding back to the compressor

2. allows the refrigerant to be superheated

4. collects air and non-condensable gases
In a low-pressure centrifugal chiller , what is meant by the term 'high efficiency purge unit?'
1. Those purge units which need the least amount of on-going maintenance.
30. 2. Those purge units which draw very little electrical power. 1
3. Those purge units which discharge the highest percentage of refrigerant with the air being
removed.
4. Those purge units which discharge very little refrigerant with the air being removed.
Which lettered component, shown in the illustration, indicates the location of the receiver?
31. 2
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. F
In a refrigeration system, the bulb for the thermal expansion valve is always located where?
1. in the middle of the evaporator coils

32. 1
2. at the evaporator coil inlet
3. at the evaporator coil outlet
4. at the beginning of the bottom row of the evaporator coils
33. Which of the conditions listed represents the greatest effect of excess frost accumulation on evaporator 2
coils in a refrigeration system?
1. Keeps the refrigerated space cooler.

2. Reduces the efficiency of the plant.
3. Increases the load on the compressor.
4. Has no affect on the system.
When checking zinc plates or pencil zincs in the refrigerating system condenser, what should you do?
1. replace the zincs if deteriorated by 50%

34. 2
2. renew the plates at each inspection
3. file the plates to change the negative value
4. paint and insulate the plates to prevent corrosion
The only means of removing the latent heat of condensation from a refrigerant in the normal
refrigeration cycle is by ____.
1. Passing it through the expansion valve

35. 2
2. Passing the gaseous refrigerant through the heat interchanger on the suction side of the
compressor.
3. Condensing refrigerant in the system condenser.
4. Maintaining a high pressure on the system's receiver.
In a refrigeration plant, what is one vital purpose of the receiver?
1. condense the refrigerant

36. 2
2. cool the refrigerant gas
3. store the refrigerant charge
4. superheat the refrigerant liquid
Purpose of evaporator in domestic refrigeration system is to:
1. To transmit latent heat of evaporation

37. 2
2. To absorb latent heat of fusion
3. To absorb latent heat of evaporation
4. To transmit latent heat of fusion.
During normal operation, traditionally, how has most of the refrigerant released to the atmosphere from
low-pressure systems?
38. 1. through water-side system leaks 2

2. through the purge unit vent
3. through the compressor shaft seal
4. through a leaking rupture disk
In a refrigeration system the purpose of an evaporator is to _______.
1. Absorb the latent heat of fusion.

39. 1
2. Transmit the latent heat of fusion.
3. Absorb the latent heat of vaporization.
4. Transmit the latent heat of vaporization.
40. If a liquid sight flow indicator in a refrigeration system shows gas bubbles in motion passing inside of 2
the glass, there is ______.
1. Too much refrigerant in the system.

2. Oil entrained in the refrigerant.
3. Less than a full charge of refrigerant in the system.
4. Ice crystals forming in the refrigerant.

41. 1
Loss of refrigerant during the process of purging of air and non-condensable gases can be kept to a
minimum by what action?
42. 1. purging through a dehydrator 2

2. purging through the top of the receiver rather than the top of the condenser
3. cracking the purge valve briefly and allowing the refrigerant to re-settle between purges
4. purging through the discharge service valve rather than the top of the condenser
The accumulation of air and other non-condensable gases in a refrigeration system will _________.
1. Cause a loss of the liquid seal.

43. 1
2. Create a vapor lock in the liquid receiver.
3. Collect in the condenser.
4. Cause foaming of the oil in the crankcase.
If increasing the cooling water flow to a refrigeration condenser fails to lower the condenser pressure,
the probable cause may be due to what condition?
44. 1. a low level of Freon in the receiver 2

3. an evaporator coil in need of defrosting
4. partially blocked thermal expansion valve
What is the pressure and condition of the refrigerant entering the receiver of a refrigeration system?
1. superheated low-pressure vapor

45. 2
2. superheated high-pressure vapor
3. sub cooled low-pressure liquid
Answer Key
such a chiller can operate at a pressure below atmospheric pressure on the low side thus drawing in air
1.
through any low side leaks
2. evaporator coil
3. the top of the condenser purge connection
4. In the receiver in the liquid line
5. leaking condenser or chiller tubes
6. Saltwater condenser heat exchanger heads.
7. Receiver.
8. Refrigerant vapor inlet pressure.
9. Short cycle on low pressure cutout.
10. saltwater side of the condenser
11. Limit the minimum pressure in the evaporator.
the frost can be removed by passing hot gas through the coils or energizing defrost heaters with the
12.
evaporator fan shut down
15. collect in the condenser
16. rise
17. Air.
18. Heat of compression.
20. just after the receiver
21. System is overcharged with refrigerant.
22. Moisture in the system.
23. The receiver.
24. high-pressure liquid line
25. head pressure regulating valve
With a condenser fitted with a single fan driven by a multi-speed electric motor, the fan speed would
26. decrease under low ambient temperature conditions.
27. Air vents on the condenser heads with a halide torch.
28. Replace the zincs if deteriorated by 50%.
30. Those purge units which discharge very little refrigerant with the air being removed.
31. C
33. Reduces the efficiency of the plant.
34. replace the zincs if deteriorated by 50%
35. Condensing refrigerant in the system condenser.
36. store the refrigerant charge
37. To absorb latent heat of evaporation
38. through the purge unit vent
39. Absorb the latent heat of vaporization.
40. Less than a full charge of refrigerant in the system.
42. cracking the purge valve briefly and allowing the refrigerant to re-settle between purges
43. Collect in the condenser.

Which of the devices listed will indicate whether or not a refrigeration system's dehydrator continues to be
capable of removing moisture from the circulating refrigerant?
1. 1. Particulate test 1
2. McLeod gage
3. Dryer sensing bulb
4. Liquid line moisture indicating sight glass
The device shown in the illustration which is used for removing moisture from the liquid refrigerant in the
system is labeled with what letter?
2. 2
1. E
2. B
3. C
4. D
Why are dehydrators usually located in the liquid line of refrigeration systems?
1. reduce compressor discharge line sweating

3. 2
2. prevent icing of the expansion valve
3. prevent liquid slugging in the suction line
4. remove oil from the refrigerant
The device used to limit the passage of moisture through a refrigeration system is the _____.
1. Humidifier.
4. 1
2. Aerator.
3. Dehydrator.
4. Trap.
5. Standard filter/driers used in many commercial type refrigeration units may contain what type of substance? 1
1. activated alumina or silica gel desiccant beads

2. activated charcoal
3. alcohol based liquid drying agents
4. all of the above may be used
In a refrigeration system, silica gel is used in the ________.
1. Condenser.
6. 2
2. Dehydrator.
3. Liquid strainer.
4. Hygrometer.
The dehydrator on a freon 12 system is cut in ______.

7. 2
2. During normal operation.
3. When the unit is put into storage.
Moisture is removed from a refrigeration system by what action?
1. cutting in the dehydrator

8. 2
2. Condensing the water in the heat exchanger
3. draining refrigerant from the bottom of the condenser
4. opening a drain petcock on the oil separator
In a refrigeration system, silica gel is found in what component?
1. dehydrator or combination filter/drier

9. 2
2. condenser/receiver
3. moisture indicating liquid line sight glass
4. compressor suction scale trap
10. Which of the following dehydrators or combination filter/driers features a core that can be replaced when the 2
desiccant becomes saturated with moisture?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
In addition to moisture, a refrigerant charged with silica gel is designed to absorb ________.
1. Refrigerant.
11. 1
2. Acids.
3. Non-condensable gases.
4. Refrigerant oil.
Answer Key
1. Liquid line moisture indicating sight glass

2. E
3. prevent icing of the expansion valve
4. Dehydrator.
5. activated alumina or silica gel desiccant beads
6. Dehydrator.
8. cutting in the dehydrator
9. dehydrator or combination filter/drier
10. A
11. Acids.
A typical shipboard domestic multi-box refrigeration system operates with one compressor and condenser.
What is the purpose of the sensing line connected to the thermal bulb at the evaporator coil outlet?
1. To direct evaporator outlet pressure to the lower part of the solenoid bellows.
1. 2
2. To transmit the bulb pressure (proportional to the coil temperature) to the thermal expansion valve
diaphragm.
3. To open or close the solenoid valve when the box temperature increases or decreases.
4. To open the back pressure regulating valve when evaporator coil pressure increases.
Balanced port TX valves are used to _______________.
1. feed refrigerant at a normal rate with low condenser entering air temperatures
2. 1
2. feed refrigerant at a normal rate with high condenser entering air temperatures
3. stop refrigerant flow with high condenser entering air temperatures
4. stop refrigerant flow with low condenser entering air temperatures
When the load on the evaporator increases, the TX valve _______________.
1. increases the flow of refrigerant

3. 1
2. decreases the flow of refrigerant
3. maintains constant head pressure
4. decreases the pressure drop across the evaporator
An AX valve works best when the evaporator load is constant.
4. True 1
False
The thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system further opens when the diaphragm flexes
downward. With all other conditions being the same, what single condition causes this?
5. 1. an increase in the evaporator pressure 1

2. a decrease in sensing bulb temperature
3. an increase in sensing bulb temperature
4. increasing the superheat setting of the valve
The two pressures that push to close a thermostatic expansion valve are the ____________ pressure and the
6. 1
_______ pressure.
Constant superheat is maintained at the evaporator coil outlet of a refrigeration system or unit by the action of
what device?
7. 1. king valve 1
2. low-pressure cutout switch
3. thermal expansion valve
4. solenoid valve
The thermo-bulb for the expansion valve should be attached directly to the evaporator coil without a gap
because ______.
8. 1. It provides for better functioning of expansion valve. 2

2. It allows better pressure discharge.
3. Vibration could cause a short circuit.
4. Answers A & C.
9. If the superheat value of the thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted too high, what would be the result? 1
1. the heat removal capacity of the evaporator will increase

2. the suction line of the compressor will be abnormally warm
3. the evaporator will be overfed with liquid refrigerant
4. the suction line of the compressor will be abnormally cold
When a refrigeration compressor is in the 'off cycle, the thermal expansion valve will react in what way?
1. it will always completely close regardless of whether or not the system employs a pump down cycle
10. 1
2. it will always open wide regardless of whether or not the system employs a pump down cycle
3. it will always remain in the same position just prior to the cycling off of the compressor
4. it will continue to function as a result of the net balance of forces acting on the diaphragm
In a vapor compression type refrigeration cycle, the refrigerant temperature decreases the most when passing
through which system component?
11. 1. evaporator 1
2. compressor
3. expansion valve
4. condenser receiver
The thermal bulb of an expansion valve that is attached to the evaporator tail coil should be ________.
1. Installed on the bottom of the suction line.

12. 2
2. Installed between the suction strainer and compressor.
3. Painted to prevent corrosion.
4. Insulated after installation.
A refrigeration system is operating with a vapor charged thermostatic expansion valve. The thermal bulb is
sensing a suction line temperature that is higher than the temperature that allows liquid to be present in the
bulb. Any additional increases in the evaporator load will _______________.
13. 1
1. increase the bulb pressure and cause the thermostatic expansion valve to open
2. increase the evaporator pressure and cause the thermostatic expansion valve to close
3. decrease the spring pressure and cause the thermostatic expansion valve to open
4. have no effect on the position of the needle (pin) in the seat
Which of the installation steps listed is necessary for the proper operation of the thermostatic expansion
valve?
1. Remove excess lengths of the sensing bulb capillary tube from the device to increase sensitivity.
14. 2
2. Attach the thermal bulb to the suction line using plasticties.
3. Clean off oxidation from the surface of the suction line and sensing bulb with fine abrasive cloth or steel
wool.
4. Heat shrink insulating material around the device once the bulb has been properly secured.
When a thermostatic expansion valve is installed in a refrigerated container unit, the sensing bulb almost
always requires insulation. Why is this so?
15. 1. the insulation prevents air stream temperatures from influencing the bulb temperature 1
2. the insulation protects the clamp and screws from corrosion
3. the insulation prevents the bulb from vibrating loose
4. the insulation prevents oil entrained in the suction gas from influencing the bulb temperature
16. Which of the problems listed represents the major difficulty encountered with thermal expansion valve 2
operation?
1. Lube oil passing through the system.

2. Moisture or foreign matter collecting at the valve seat and orifice.
3. Variable spring tension caused by the changing temperature.
4. Frost on the liquid line.
If the evaporator coil horizontal return line of a container refrigeration system is less than 0.875" (2.21 cm) in
diameter (considered small); the thermostatic expansion valve sensing bulb should be attached where on the
return line?
17. 2
1. as close as possible to the expansion valve
2. on the upper surface of the line
3. on the bottom of the line to enable the bulb to absorb the maximum amount of heat
4. directly below the point of maximum heat transfer
Which of the following statements describes the accepted method for testing a thermostatic expansion valve?
1. Chill the bulb in ice water while observing the compressor for an increase in suction pressure
2. Remove the power head from the unit, heat the bulb with a torch while using a scale to measure the
18. 1
distance the diaphragm has moved
3. Heat the bulb by using a halide torch or similar device and observe the valve stem movement
4. Place the sensing bulb in ice water and then warm by hand. Observe flood-through and temperature
change at the suction line.
Pressure in the control tubing of a thermostatic expansion valve depends upon a direct relationship with the
______.
19. 1. Temperature in the box. 1

2. Amount of superheat at the outlet of the evaporator.
3. Compressor suction pressure.
4. Heat transferred from the saturated liquid in the evaporator.
The thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system further opens when the diaphragm flexes
downward. With all other conditions being the same, what single condition causes this?
20. 1. an increase in sensing bulb temperature 1

2. an increase in the evaporator pressure
3. a decrease in sensing bulb temperature
4. increasing the superheat setting of the valve
A small obstruction at the thermostatic expansion valve inlet will result in which of the following conditions?
1. Higher than normal discharge pressure.

21. 1
2. Expansion valves are designed to pass small foreign particles so no adverse condition will occur.
4. Ice is the sole cause of this and will soon melt due to superheat; no adverse condition will occur.
22. If the needle and seat assembly is excessively eroded, the valve cage assembly can be replaced. In replacing 2
the original valve cage assembly rated at 0.508 t, what would be the result if the replacement valve cage was
oversized at 5.08 t?
1. The evaporator would be starved producing consistently excessive superheat.

2. The expansion valve would function normally, with the presentation of no problems.
3. The expansion valve would hunt excessively, alternately starving and overfeeding the evaporator coil.
4. The evaporator would be overfed producing consistently insufficient superheat.
A thermostatic expansion valve controls refrigerant flow to the evaporator based on _______________.
1. rate of liquid vaporization

23. 1
2. evaporator suction line superheat
3. external equalizer pressure
4. evaporator discharge line superheat
24. The automatic expansion valve maintains a constant ________.

1
25. High suction pressure accompanied by low suction temperature to a refrigeration system compressor is caused 1
by which of the following?
1. a clogged liquid-line strainer

2. the expansion valve is insufficiently opened
3. the expansion valve being open too wide
4. the king valve is insufficiently open
Vapor bubbles present in the liquid upon arrival to the thermal expansion valve in a refrigeration system may
cause erosion of the expansion valve's needle and seat. This, in turn, could cause what condition?
26. 1. TXV freezing open 1

2. TXV overheating
3. TXV freezing shut
4. TXV hunting
In a refrigeration system, the pressure within the power element of a thermostatic expansion valve depends
directly upon what factor?
27. 1. compressor suction pressure 1

2. temperature in the box
3. temperature of the evaporator coil outlet
4. heat transferred from the saturated liquid in the evaporator
An obstructed expansion valve may be indicated by an incompletely cooled evaporator and what other
symptom?
28. 1. frosting at the evaporator inlet 1

2. frosting at the suction side of the compressor
3. a higher than normal discharge pressure
4. a decrease in the amount of frosting across the drier
Rather than design an infinite variety of thermostatic expansion valve sizes to accommodate different
capacities for heat removal, some manufacturers use a few standard valve body sizes in conjunction with what
other feature?
29. 1
1. a flexible diaphragm to accommodate different heat removal capacities
2. an externally adjustable superheat to accommodate different heat removal capacities
3. internal equalizers to accommodate different heat removal capacities
4. internal needle valve orifices of various sizes to accommodate different heat removal capacities
The TXV sensing bulb is mounted _______________.
1. on the liquid line between the condenser and the TX valve

30. 2
2. at the inlet to the condenser
3. on the suction line between the evaporator and the compressor
4. on the compressor discharge line
If the running suction pressure at the refrigeration compressor of a TXV controlled air- cooled refrigeration
system is below normal, which of the following can be a cause?
31. 1. overfeeding by the expansion valve 1

2. a dirty condenser
3. refrigerant overcharge
4. a restricted liquid-line strainer
32. Concerning the proper installation of the sensing bulb of a thermal expansion valve that is attached to the 1
evaporator tail coil on a horizontal run, which statement is true?
1. the bulb should be attached so that the pinched off tubing should be oriented down and the capillary
tube running to the valve diaphragm should be oriented up
2. the bulb should be attached so that the pinched off tubing should be oriented to one side and
the capillary tube running to the valve diaphragm should be oriented to the opposite side
3. the bulb should be attached with no regard to the orientation of the pinched off tubing or the capillary
tube running to the valve diaphragm
4. the bulb should be attached so that the pinched off tubing should be oriented up and the capillary tube
running to the valve diaphragm should be oriented down
If the power element of a TX valve loses its charge, the _______________.
1. coil will flood enough to feed liquid refrigerant out of the coil
33. 1
2. valve will get cold enough to create frost on the body of the valve
3. refrigerant flow through the various circuits of the coil will become unbalanced
4. refrigerant flow to the coil will stop
Refrigeration system isolation valves are specially designed with a back-seat, as well as a front-seat. For what
purpose are these valves designed in this way?
34. 1. allow for operation as a suction or discharge valve 1

2. allow for removal and replacement of the valve without shutting down
3. permit repacking the valve stem under pressure without shutting down
4. allow for operation as a liquid or vapor valve
What is one function of the thermal expansion valve used in a refrigeration system?
1. turn the compressor off and on

35. 1
2. regulate the amount of refrigerant flow to the evaporator coil
3. act as a pilot controlling the box solenoid valve
4. regulate the water flow to the water-cooled condenser
In a refrigeration system, the amount of superheat absorbed by the refrigerant is adjusted at the _______.
1. Compressor.
36. 1
2. Condenser.
3. Evaporator coil.
4. Expansion valve.
37. Which of the following illustrated expansion valves is designed to maintain a constant evaporator pressure 2
rather than a constant evaporator superheat?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
Refrigerant flow through a thermostatic expansion valve is greatest under what conditions?
1. when the low side and high side pressures are equal
38. 1
2. when the evaporator has just begun feeding at relatively high box temperature
3. when the low side pressure and the bulb pressure are equal
4. just before the evaporator stops feeding at relatively low box temperature
39. Which of the listed statements describes the method used to determine the amount of superheat present in 2
the suction gas leaving the evaporator coil?
1. Note the low side pressure, determine the corresponding saturation temperature, and add it to the
temperature measured with a thermometer at the thermostatic expansion valve sensing bulb.
2. Note the low side pressure, determine the corresponding saturation temperature, and subtract it from
the temperature measured with a thermometer at the thermostatic expansion valve sensing bulb.
3. Note the low side pressure, determine the corresponding saturation temperature, and subtract it from
the temperature measured with a thermometer at the compressor suction inlet.
4. Subtract the temperature measured at the thermostatic expansion valve sensing bulb from the
saturation temperature corresponding to the low side pressure.
The primary purpose of the thermostatic expansion valve as used in most refrigeration plants is to _____.
1. Regulate refrigerant passage through the solenoid valve.

40. 1
2. Ensure that liquid refrigerant returning to the compressor has the proper superheat.
3. Maintain a constant degree of superheat at the evaporator coil outlet.
4. Maintain constant evaporator coil pressure independent of suction pressure variations.
Which statement about calibrating a newly installed thermostatic expansion valve is correct?
1. This procedure is done at the factory with tools not available to a mariner.
41. 1
2. No special tools are required as long as the solid state circuit control panels are functioning properly.
3. The procedure requires a refrigeration wrench and a digital thermometer to measure box temperature.
4. An accurate thermometer and suction pressure gauge are essential to this process.
As the evaporator load increases, an automatic expansion valve will _____ to reduce the evaporator pressure
42. 1
while a thermostatic expansion valve will______to reduce the evaporator superheat.
43. The TX valve maintains a constant _____. 1

44. If the superheat setting of a thermostatic expansion valve is set too low, what would be the result, 1
assuming.that the system has a single evaporator?
1. the receiver level will be abnormally high due to a reduced amount of refrigerant returning back to the
compressor
2. the box temperature will be pulled way down below the normal temperature range
3. the suction line will be abnormally cold and liquid may flood back to the compressor
4. the suction line will be abnormally warm due to a reduced amount of refrigerant returning back to the
compressor
Which of the statements listed is applicable to the thermostatic expansion valve shown in the illustration?
45. 2
1. It regulates the amount of superheat at the solenoid valve.

2. It regulates the temperature of the refrigerated space.
3. The control bulb is located on the evaporator coil outlet.
4. The external equalizing pipe is connected to the liquid receiver.
The purpose of an externally equalized thermostatic expansion valve is to _______________.
1. compensate for excessive evaporator pressure drop

46. 1
2. allow system to equalize faster
3. prevent the expansion valve from frosting up
4. allow refrigerant to expand in the compressor
When replacing a thermostatic expansion valve power element, what is true concerning the thermal bulb?
1. apply a heavy coating of grease to function as a heat sink

47. 2
2. with steel wool or an abrasive cloth remove oxidation on the bulb and suction line
3. apply a light film of oil to increase heat transfer
4. carefully coat the device with silicone sealant to reduce the effects of convective cooling
48. Which of the following statements describes the accepted method for testing a thermostatic expansion valve? 2
1. Remove the power head from the unit, heat the bulb with a torch while using a scale to measure the
distance the diaphragm has moved.
2. Place the sensing bulb in ice water and then warm by hand. Observe flood-through and temperature
change at the suction line.
3. Heat the bulb by using a halide torch or similar device and observe the valve stem movement.
4. Chill the bulb in ice water while observing the compressor for an increase in suction pressure.
A thermostatic expansion valve is properly controlling evaporator superheat. Adjusting this valve to lower the
evaporator superheat setting will result in which of the following?
49. 1. the evaporator pressure will decrease 1

2. the expansion valve will further close
3. the evaporator feed will increase
4. the expansion valve diaphragm will rupture
If the superheat setting of a thermostatic expansion valve is set too low, what would be the result, assuming
that the system has a single evaporator?
1. the box temperature will be pulled way down below the normal temperature range
50. 2. the receiver level will be abnormally high due to a reduced amount of refrigerant returning back to the 1
compressor
3. the suction line will be abnormally warm due to a reduced amount of refrigerant returning back to the
compressor
Answer Key
1. To transmit the bulb pressure (proportional to the coil temperature) to the thermal expansion valve diaphragm.
2. feed refrigerant at a normal rate with low condenser entering air temperatures
3. increases the flow of refrigerant
4. TRUE
evaporator
6.
spring
7. thermal expansion valve
8. It provides for better functioning of expansion valve.
10. it will continue to function as a result of the net balance of forces acting on the diaphragm
11. expansion valve
12. Insulated after installation.
13. have no effect on the position of the needle (pin) in the seat
14. Clean off oxidation from the surface of the suction line and sensing bulb with fine abrasive cloth or steel wool.
15. the insulation prevents air stream temperatures from influencing the bulb temperature
16. Moisture or foreign matter collecting at the valve seat and orifice.
17. on the upper surface of the line
Place the sensing bulb in ice water and then warm by hand. Observe flood-through and temperature change at
18.
the suction line.
19. Amount of superheat at the outlet of the evaporator.
22. The expansion valve would hunt excessively, alternately starving and overfeeding the evaporator coil.
23. evaporator suction line superheat
24. pressure

26. TXV hunting
27. temperature of the evaporator coil outlet
29. internal needle valve orifices of various sizes to accommodate different heat removal capacities
30. on the suction line between the evaporator and the compressor
31. a restricted liquid-line strainer
the bulb should be attached so that the pinched off tubing should be oriented down and the capillary tube
32.
running to the valve diaphragm should be oriented up
33. refrigerant flow to the coil will stop
34. permit repacking the valve stem under pressure without shutting down
35. regulate the amount of refrigerant flow to the evaporator coil
36. Expansion valve.
37. C
38. when the evaporator has just begun feeding at relatively high box temperature
Note the low side pressure, determine the corresponding saturation temperature, and subtract it from the
39.
temperature measured with a thermometer at the thermostatic expansion valve sensing bulb.
40. Maintain a constant degree of superheat at the evaporator coil outlet.
41. An accurate thermometer and suction pressure gauge are essential to this process.
Close
42.
Open
43. superheat or temperature
45. The control bulb is located on the evaporator coil outlet.
46. compensate for excessive evaporator pressure drop

47. with steel wool or an abrasive cloth remove oxidation on the bulb and suction line
Place the sensing bulb in ice water and then warm by hand. Observe flood-through and temperature change at
48. the suction line.
49. the evaporator feed will increase
To prevent motor overload during start-up of a hermetically sealed centrifugal refrigeration system, what is true concerning the compressor suction
gas variable inlet guide vanes?
1. 1. closed until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and current drawn is below full load current 1
2. opened until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and current drawn is up to full load current
3. closed until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and current drawn is up to full load current
4. opened until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and current drawn is below full load current
A device used to hold open the refrigeration compressor suction valve during starting to reduce the compression load is called what?
1. cylinder unloader
2. 1
2. relief valve
3. suction line bypass
4. discharge line bypass
Capacity control of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor can be accomplished by what means?
1. varying the position of the hot gas bypass valve

3. 2
2. varying the speed of the compressor
3. varying the position of the suction inlet damper vanes
4. all of the above
A refrigeration compressor used in a multi-box refrigeration system is designed with six of its eight cylinders able to be controlled for variable load
conditions. If all of the reefer boxes are currently feeding , what percentage of the total number of compressor cylinders will be loaded after start up?
4. 1. 100% 1
2. 50%
3. 25%
4. 0%
During operating periods of a multi-box refrigeration system using a capacity controlled compressor, when all of the evaporators of a four box plant
are actively being fed with liquid refrigerant, the control oil pressure acting on the hydraulic relay piston will be at what value?
5. 1. the lowest 1
2. at its mid-range
3. the highest
4. of no consequence as the lube oil is not used in the operation of the unloader
6. The fluid used as a source of actuating power against the underside of the unloader power element piston of the refrigeration compressor capacity 2
control mechanism illustrated is obtained from where?
1. discharge of the compressor lube oil pump
2. gas discharge from the compressor
3. high side liquid receiver
4. discharge of a secondary hydraulic pump specifically installed for this operation
Capacity control of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor can be accomplished by what means?
1. varying the position of the hot gas bypass valve

7. 2
2. varying the position of the suction inlet dampervanes
3. varying the speed of the compressor
4. all of the above
A refrigeration compressor used in a multi-box refrigeration system is designed with six of its eight cylinders able to be controlled for variable load
conditions. If all of the reefer boxes are currently feeding, what percentage of the total number of compressor cylinders will be loaded after start up?
8. 1. 100% 2
2. 50%
3. 25%
4. 0%
During operating periods of a multi-box refrigeration system using a capacity controlled compressor, when all of the evaporators of a four box plant
are actively being fed with liquid refrigerant, the control oil pressure acting on the hydraulic relay piston will be at what value?
9. 1. the lowest 2
2. at its mid-range
3. the highest
4. of no consequence as the lube oil is not used in the operation of the unloader
A device used to hold open the refrigeration compressor suction valve during starting to reduce the compression load is called what?
1. relief valve
10. 2
2. discharge line bypass
4. suction line bypass
Two compressors should not be run in parallel because ___________.
1. It is not efficient to run two compressors.

11. 2
2. It will give over capacity in the system.
3. Oil return can be a problem with compressors operating in parallel.
4. Overloading of main engine.
On a modern refrigerated container unit employing suction modulation for the purposes of capacity control and capacity limitation, what happens
when the applied voltage and current draw associated with the normally open (NO) suction modulation valve located in the suction line both
increase?
12. 1
1. the valve will further open, lowering evaporator pressure and raising suction pressure
2. the valve will further open, raising evaporator pressure and lowering suction pressure
3. the valve will further close, raising evaporator pressure and lowering suction pressure
4. the valve will further close, lowering evaporator pressure and raising suction pressure
The fluid used as a source of actuating power against the underside of the unloader power element piston of the refrigeration compressor capacity
control mechanism is obtained from where?
13. 1. high side liquid receiver 2

2. gas discharge from the compressor
4. "discharge of a secondary hydraulic pump specifically installed for this operation"
Answer Key
1. closed until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and current drawn is below full load current
3. all of the above
4. 100%
5. the highest
7. all of the above
8. 100%
9. the highest
11. Oil return can be a problem with compressors operating in parallel.
12. the valve will further close, raising evaporator pressure and lowering suction pressure
Which of the following statements is true concerning the gauge labeled "A" of the illustrated gauge manifold set?
1. 2
1. The gauge labeled "A" is a compound gauge and is usually color-coded blue.
2. The gauge labeled "A" is a compound gauge and is usually color-coded red.
3. The gauge labeled "A" is a standard pressure gauge and is usually color-coded blue.
4. The gauge labeled "A" is a standard pressure gauge and is usually color-coded red.
In addition to pressure, most compound and standard pressure gauges used for refrigeration service are also provided with a scale
indicating what parameter?
2. 1. absolute pressure 1
2. sub cooled refrigerant temperature
3. superheated refrigerant temperature
4. saturated refrigerant temperature
3. Which of the following statements is true concerning the illustrated gauge manifold set? 2
1. The valves labeled "G" and "C" must both be open to read system pressures on the respective gauges labeled "A" and "B".
2. Closing the valve labeled "G" isolates the hose labeled "H" from the gauge labeled "A".
3. Opening fully and back seating the valve labeled "G" isolates the gauge labeled "A" from the hose labeled "H".
4. Closing the valve labeled "G" isolates the hose labeled "H" from the hose labeled "J".

Answer Key
1. The gauge labeled "A" is a compound gauge and is usually color-coded blue.
2. saturated refrigerant temperature
3. Closing the valve labeled "G" isolates the hose labeled "H" from the hose labeled "J".
What is the purpose of the pressure transducer as shown in the illustration?
1. 2
1. it senses compressor suction pressure and controls the quench valve

2. it senses compressor suction pressure and controls the suction modulation valves
3. it senses compressor discharge pressure and controls the suction modulation valves
4. it senses compressor discharge pressure and controls the quench valve
The sensing line for the low pressure cutout switch for a refrigeration system is typically connected at what location?
1. at the outlet side of the receiver

2. 1
2. at the discharge side of the compressor
3. at the inlet side of the receiver
4. at the suction side of the compressor
3. In a direct expansion type multi-box refrigeration system, the compressor is set up to cycle on and off by the _______. 2
1. Pressure stat.
2. High pressure cutout.
3. Solenoid valve.
4. Low pressure cutout switch.
High pressure cut out of a refrigerant system can activate due to :-
1. Dirty oil in compressor.

4. 2
2. Undercharged system.
3. Air in the system.
4. High pressure in cooling water.
What is the purpose of the low pressure cut-out switch as used as a primary controller for a refrigeration system or unit?
1. maintain a preset low-side pressure for the system

5. 1
2. control the capacity of the compressor
3. start and stop the compressor as needed
4. maintain a preset suction pressure to the compressor
What causes a refrigeration compressor to run continuously?
1. The high pressure switch is open.

6. 2
2. The low pressure switch is jammed.
3. A defective thermal bulb.
4. The strainer is clogged.
Which of the listed operations will cause an automatically controlled refrigeration compressor to restart if the system
features a pump-down cycle?
7. 1. Decreasing the suction pressure 2

2. Closing of the expansion valve
The purpose of the low pressure cutout switch is to ________.
1. Maintain liquid refrigerant at the suction of the compressor.

8. 1
2. Maintain a preset suction pressure to the compressor.
3. Start and stop the compressor at preset operating pressures.
4. Operate at minimum efficiency.
The low pressure cutout switch used on a refrigeration system compressor is set to cut in at approximately 5 psig and
cutout at ________.
9. 1. 0.5 psig / 0.034 bar 1

2. 5 psig /0.34 bar
3. 15 psig/ 1 bar
4. 20 psig /1.38 bar
Which of the listed operations will cause an automatically controlled refrigeration compressor to restart if the system
features a pump-down cycle?
10. 1. Decreasing the suction pressure 2

2. Closing of the expansion valve
Answer Key
1. it senses compressor suction pressure and controls the quench valve

2. at the suction side of the compressor
3. Low pressure cutout switch.
4. Air in the system.
5. start and stop the compressor as needed
6. The low pressure switch is jammed.
8. Start and stop the compressor at preset operating pressures.
9. 0.5 psig / 0.034 bar
The thermostat controlling the operation of the solenoid valve to a refrigerated box evaporator
senses what temperature?
1. 1. evaporator coil outlet temperature 1

2. compressor discharge temperature
3. evaporator coil inlet temperature
Concerning the proper installation of the sensing bulb of a thermal expansion valve that is attached
to the evaporator tail coil on a horizontal run, what statement is true?
1. the bulb should be attached so that the pinched off tubing should be oriented down and the
capillary tube running to the valve diaphragm should be oriented up
2. 2. the bulb should be attached with no regard to the orientation of the pinched off tubing or the 2
capillary tube running to the valve diaphragm
3. the bulb should be attached so that the pinched off tubing should be oriented up and the
capillary tube running to the valve diaphragm should be oriented down
4. the bulb should be attached so that the pinched off tubing should be oriented to one side and
the capillary tube running to the valve diaphragm should be oriented to the opposite side
3. Which of the following illustrated thermal expansion valves would be appropriate to use on an 2
evaporator coil with a 13.8 kpa pressure drop, where externally adjustable superheat and a
replaceable power element are both desired?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
In a refrigeration system featuring low side pump down prior to the automatic shut down of the
compressor, the temperature of the refrigerated space is controlled by the action of a thermostat
wired to what device?
4. 2
1. suction line solenoid
2. liquid line box solenoid
3. low-pressure cutout switch
4. thermostatic expansion valve
In a refrigeration system, the bulb for the thermal expansion valve is always located where?

5. 1
2. in the middle of the evaporator coils
3. at the evaporator coil inlet
4. at the beginning of the bottom row of the evaporator coils
In general, the thermal bulb for a thermal expansion valve used in a reciprocating air conditioning
system is usually charged with what substance?
6. 1. mercuric sulfate 1
2. beeswax
3. distilled water
4. the same refrigerant as the system
Answer Key

the bulb should be attached so that the pinched off tubing should be oriented down and the capillary
2.
tube running to the valve diaphragm should be oriented up
3. B
4. liquid line box solenoid
6. the same refrigerant as the system
Referring to the following psychrometric chart, if the dry bulb temperature is 70°F and the relative
humidity is 40%, what is the absolute humidity?
1. 2
1. 38 grains of moisture per pound of dry air

2. If outside air at 30 degrees C and 60 percent relative humidity is conditioned, what will be the resulting 2
dew point temperature of the air just before it comes into contact with the cooling coil?
1. 17.78 degrees C
2. 19.4 degrees C
3. 21 degrees C
4. 22.8 degrees C
What temperature associated with the psychrometric properties of air is measured by an ordinary
thermometer?
3. 1. The dry bulb temperature 1

2. The wet bulb temperature
3. The dew point temperature
4. The saturation temperature
4. The introduction of outside air to the air conditioning system is 32°C with a relative humidity of 60%. The 2
air has been conditioned to 21.1°C with a relative humidity of 80%. Using the psychrometric chart, shown
in the illustration, determine the quantity of moisture removed from one kg of the conditioned air.
1. 1.3 grams
2. 1.94 grams
3. 2.6 grams
4. 3.24 grams
Under what conditions are the dry bulb, wet bulb, and dew point temperatures for air all equal in value?
1. When the relative humidity is 0%.

5. 1
2. It is impossible for the dry bulb, wet bulb, and dew point temperatures to be the same value.
3. When the air is completely saturated with moisture and the relative humidity is 100%.
4. When the grains of moisture per pound of dry air is zero.
6. Referring to the following psychrometric chart, suppose during the cooling season that air passes over a 2
cooling coil with a mean surface temperature above the dew point temperature, and this results in
sensible heat loss with no change in moisture content. What statement represents the direction of the air
conditioning process line?
1. The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the right of the coil inlet.
2. The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the left of the coil inlet.
3. The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet below the coil inlet.
4. The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet above the coil inlet.
7. Referring to the following psychrometric chart, suppose air at a dry-bulb temperature of 60°F and a 2
relative humidity of 52% passes over a heating coil, resulting in sensible heat gain, and the off-coil
temperature is now 80°F. What is off-coil relative humidity?
1. 19%
2. 27%
3. 55%
4. 70%
8. What is the wet bulb temperature of air if the dry bulb temperature of the air is 30 degrees C and the 2
relative humidity is 60%?
1. 16.7 degrees C
2. 17.2 degrees C
3. 22 degrees C
4. 26.7 degrees C
Answer Key

2. 21 degrees C
3. The dry bulb temperature
4. 2.6 grams
5. When the air is completely saturated with moisture and the relative humidity is 100%.
6. The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the left of the coil inlet.
7. 27%
8. 22 degrees C
Which of the processes listed would be the most satisfactory method to use to lower the humidity of
the air being circulated by an air conditioning system?
1. 1. Heating the air and then cooling it to a point below dew point. 1
2. Cooling the air to a point below dew point, and then reheating it.
3. Cooling the air to a temperature just above dew point.
4. Heating the air to a point at which moisture will boil off, then recooling it.
To prevent the unnecessary loading of an air conditioning system while maintaining the designed dry
bulb temperature and relative humidity in an air conditioning system, what should be done?
2. 1. reduce the air reheating system load 1

2. lower the compressor head pressure
3. operate the purge recovery unit continuously
4. admit only enough fresh outside air to provide proper ventilation
A room humidist at initiates the lowering of the humidity of the conditioned supply air to a space,
while the actual process is accomplished by what means?
3. 1. lowering the cooling coil temperature and raising the reheater temperature 1
2. raising both the cooling coil temperature and the reheater temperature
3. lowering both the cooling coil temperature and the reheater temperature
4. raising the cooling coil temperature and lowering the reheater temperature
Answer Key
1. Heating the air and then cooling it to a point below dew point.
3. lowering the cooling coil temperature and raising the reheater temperature
Which of the following factors will have the greatest effect on the heating load within air-conditioned
space?
1. 1. Solar gain 2
2. Occupants inside.
3. Infiltration and ventilation air.
4. Entertainment equipment within the space.
Answer Key
1. Infiltration and ventilation air.
What are the two types of air conditioning system?
1. 1
1. Indirect and direct system
2. Individual unit system and central system
When pumping down an air conditioning system to test the low-pressure cutout switch, assuming
that the compressor is running, what should be done to initiate the test?
2. 1. stop the compressor 1

2. secure the condenser
3. close the "king" valve
4. stop the circulating pump
Corrosion has wasted away large sections of the fins attached to an air conditioning cooling coil. In
assessing the effects on the system you would assume which of the following to be accurate?
3. 1. The coil now has a lower efficiency and a higher bypass factor. 1
2. The efficiency of the coil is unaffected.
3. The coil now has a lower efficiency and a lower bypass factor.
4. The coil now has a higher efficiency and a higher bypass factor.
a. Sketch an air conditioning system including means of humidifying, dehumidifying

and refrigerated cooling.
4. b. Give the conditions that can lead to legionella bacterial growth in air conditioning systems. 3
Suggest remedies.
What is humidifier in the air-conditioning system?
1. It sprays steam into the system to maintain the temperature

5. 2. It sprinkles water vapour in the system to maintain the humidity to 70% 1
3. It controls the humidity of the air
4. It maintains the temperature of the cabins
What type of valves are provided in an air compressor?
1. the suction and delivery valves are plate type

6. 2. they are cylindrical type 1
3. they are flap type
4. they are floating valve type
What is the function of the evaporator and where it is located?
1. its location is in the handling room and its function is to dissipate the heat
7. 2. its location is outside the cold room and it dissipate heat to the room 1
3. it is located inside the cold room and its function is to absorb heat from the cold room
4. its function is to evaporate the air from the system
What is the function of drier and what material used for the same?
1. it protects any dirt to enter into the system and the material inside is gypsum salt
8. 2. it dries the refrigerant and material inside is cobble stone 1
3. it is to absorb any moisture in the system and the material used is silica gel
4. it is a kind of filter and the material is wire mesh
9. Sketch and describe a wet and dry bulb hygrometer and state how it can be used to obtain a 3
measure of relative humidity of air.
In an air conditioning system, what is the name of the chamber where the duct-work originates?
1. plenum chamber
10. 1
2. exhaust chamber
3. vapor chamber
4. intake chamber
The compressor used in a water-cooled air conditioning system is short-cycling. A service check
determines that the suction pressure remains above the normal cut-in point during cycling and that
the discharge pressure rapidly builds up to the cut-out point while running and gradually falls to the
cut-in point during the off cycle. What is likely the cause?
11. 1
1. front seated liquid line service valve
2. back seated discharge service valve
3. loosely fitted compressor drive belt
4. reduction in condenser water flow (scaled condenser)
Answer Key
1. Individual unit system and central system

2. close the "king" valve
3. The coil now has a lower efficiency and a higher bypass factor.
a.
Sketch an air conditioning system including means of humidifying,
dehumidifying and
refrigerated cooling.
b.
Give the conditions that can lead to legionella bacterial growth in air
conditioning
4. systems. Suggest remedies.
Air conditioning systems contaminated by Legionnella bacteria
Legionnaires disease is caused by bacteria which thrives in stagnant water or sludge. It
can also be
found in wet matrix filters installed in the filtration system for the air
conditioning plant.
Main danger areas
Air inlet arrangements- This may be direct or indirect from the air conditioning room via
jalousies,
which, when incorrectly designed may direct rain water onto the filters. It
may also be allowed to
accumulate in the space where drainage is not efficient.
Filters- These filters made of 25mm thick synthetic material can trap water as well as
insects and
soot There by, and leads to a rapid growth of bacteria.
Dehumidifier- Ineffective drainage can allow water to stagnate in the catchment sumps.
Also, where
air velocities are high over the block, air can be entrained and carry moisture
into the air stream. An
efficient moisture eliminator is required.
Humidifier- The enclosed tank and matrix elements of the water spray type of adiabatic
humidifier
breeds bacteria. This gets carried into the air stream when sprayed.
Plenum Insulation- Considerable levels of water may be present in the PVC GRP cover
of the rock
wool insulation.
Remedies
Filters- The filters should be washed in 50 ppm hypochlorite solution on a regular basis.
Coolers- Inspection of drainage arrangements, and super chlorinating the
condensate sump every 3
months.
Plenum insulation- The insulation has to be examined and refitted. The damaged areas
should be
sealed.
5. It sprinkles water vapour in the system to maintain the humidity to 70%

6. the suction and delivery valves are plate type
7. it is located inside the cold room and its function is to absorb heat from the cold room
8. it is to absorb any moisture in the system and the material used is silica gel
Description

9.
The relative humidity in an air conditioned space can be measured accurately using wet
and dry
bulb hygrometer.
This instrument is also called sling psychrometer.
When sling psychrometer is whirled around, the air movement causes evaporation of
water
from moist wick. This temperature is compared with the dry bulb temperature.
In saturated air, both the readings remains the same.
The drier the air the greater will be the decrease in wet bulb temperature.
The difference in wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures will give an insight into the
relative
humidity of the space.
To obtain the relative humidity from a pair of WBT and DBT, the point of intersection of
lines of
constant WBT DBT are marked on the chart.
The line of relative humidity passing through this point is the required relative
humidity.
10. plenum chamber

11. reduction in condenser water flow (scaled condenser)
Which of the following is true concerning the class "D" air conditioning system shown in the following illustration?
1. 2
1. The heat load will increase by increasing the amount of recircutated air.
2. The room thermostat controls the wet bulb temperature of the air conditioned space.
3. System cooling is the direct result of the vapor compression refrigerant circuit of a direct type air conditioning unit.
4. The duct thermostat determines the amount of water flow circulating through the cooling coil.
For the proper control of the air temperature in an air conditioning system using chilled water circulation, which of the listed
conditions should remain constant regardless of load changes?
2. 1. Chilled water system supply temperature 1

2. Chilled water system return temperature
3. Compressor discharge temperature
4. Compressor suction pressure
If the superheat value of the thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted too high, what would be the result?

3. 1
2. the heat removal capacity of the evaporator will increase
3. the suction line of the compressor will be abnormally cold
4. the evaporator will be overfed with liquid refrigerant
4. With regard to air conditioning onboard: 3

a. State how it assists in maintaining health and efficiency of the crew.
b. Sketch and explain psychrometric chart.
c. State what would be regarded as a reasonably effective inside temperature and relative humidity in accommodation space.
d. State the causes and remedies for drying of the air causing discomfort and an unusually large amount of condensation
forming on the inside of the bulkheads.
The pressure exerted by a mixture of gases or vapours, is the sum of the pressure which each would exert if occupied if it
occupied the same space alone. This is called Dalton's law of partial pressure?
5. 1
True
False
To add small amounts of refrigerant to the low side of an air conditioning system, the refrigerant should be introduced through
a particular valve and in a particular state. What valve and state combination is correct?
6. 1. suction service valve as a vapor 1

2. discharge service valve as a liquid
3. discharge service valve as a vapor
Which of the processes listed would be the most satisfactory method to use to lower the humidity of the air being circulated by
an air conditioning system?
7. 1. Cooling the air to a temperature just above dew point. 2

2. Heating the air and then cooling it to a point below dew point.
3. Cooling the air to a point below dew point, then reheating it.
4. Heating the air to a point at which moisture will boil off, then recooling it.
When pumping down an air conditioning system to test the low-pressure cutout switch, assuming that the compressor is
running, what should be done to initiate the test?
8. 1. secure the condenser 2

2. stop the compressor
3. close the 'king' valve
4. stop the circulating pump
Which of the following methods is normally used to control the circulated air temperature of an air conditioning system using
chilled water circulation?
9. 1. A regulating valve changes the inlet temperature of the water in the cooling coils. 1
2. A fan speed controller regulates the amount of air flowing across the coils.
3. A regulating valve controls the quantity of chilled water flowing in the cooling coils.
4. Control dampers varying the number of passes the air makes across the cooling coils.
What is the function of the unloader in the Air condition compressor?
1. it unloads the refrigeration system

10. 2. it reduces the compressor load by cutting off the unit when load on refrigeration system reduces 2
3. it unloads the motor when problem arises
4. it disables the compressor
Routine maintenance on a hermetically sealed air conditioning unit should include ______.
1. Changing the air filter.

11. 2
2. Recharging the system.
3. Changing compressor lubricant.
4. Renewing container vacuum.
Prevention of Legionella bacteria require regular inspection and use of 50 ppm super chlorinated solution at possible locations?
12. True 1
False
13. In an air conditioning system, low discharge head pressure associated with a reciprocating compressor can be the result of 2
what condition?
1. leaky suction valves

2. insufficient cooling water to the condenser
3. air in the condenser
4. air in the evaporator coils
A room humidist at initiates the lowering of the humidity of the conditioned supply air to a space, while the actual process is
accomplished by what means?
14. 1. raising the cooling coil temperature and lowering the reheater temperature 1
2. raising both the cooling coil temperature and the reheater temperature
4. lowering both the cooling coil temperature and the reheater temperature
To add refrigerant to the high side of an air conditioning system, you should close the king valve and introduce the refrigerant
through what valve in what state?
15. 1. condenser purge valve as a vapor 2

3. discharge service valve as a vapor
While securing the air conditioning compressor you close the suction valve and the compressor stops after a short period of
time. Subsequent attempts to start it produce no result. What control component would you suspect is preventing the
compressor from starting?
16. 1
1. The low pressure cut out switch
2. The high pressure cut out switch
3. The lube oil differential pressure switch
4. The water regulating valve
To prevent the unnecessary loading of an air conditioning system while maintaining the designed dry bulb temperature and
relative humidity in an air conditioning system, what should be done?
17. 1. operate the purge recovery unit continuously 1

2. reduce the air reheating system load
3. lower the compressor head pressure
The air temperature associated with a direct reciprocating air conditioning plant is found to be too warm, and the compressor
is not operating. A service check determines the compressor suction pressure to be above the normal cut-in point, with a
normal head pressure, and high evaporator superheat. Which of the following could be the cause of this problem?
18. 1
1. Cooling water flow to the condenser is excessive
2. A liquid line solenoid valve is stuck open
3. A liquid line solenoid valve has failed closed.
4. The low pressure control contacts are stuck open.
19. Which of the following is true concerning the class "A" air conditioning system shown in the illustration as used to condition the 2
air of large public spaces?
1. The dry bulb room temperature is controlled by a steam heated reheater and its associated pneumatic control valve.
2. The reheater is not used when in the cooling mode.
3. The preheater steam flow is controlled by the space thermostat.
4. It is not possible for both the cooling coil and the steam heated reheater to be used simultaneously.
Which of the following methods is normally used to control the circulated air temperature of an air conditioning system using
chilled water circulation?
20. 1. A fan speed controller regulates the amount of air flowing across the coils. 1
3. A regulating valve changes the inlet temperature of the water in the cooling coils.
4. Control dampers varying the number of passes the air makes across the cooling coils.
In an air conditioning system, moisture is removed from the air by what means?
1. separators
21. 2
2. cooling coils
3. ducted traps
4. filters
22. Concerning the operation of refrigeration systems, frosting or sweating of a liquid line is usually indicative of what condition? 1
1. proper cooling taking place

2. high relative humidity surrounding the liquid line
3. the refrigerant contaminated with moisture
After repairing a freon-12 compressor, you must ______.
1. Test it for leaks.

23. 1
2. Fill the system with high-pressure freon.
3. Fill the system with low-pressure freon.
4. Purge the system.
What you mean by air compressor efficiency?
1. it is the ratio between actual mass to the ideal mass per cycle.
24. 2. it is the ration of the power input to power output. 1
3. it is the ratio of the actual delivered mass to the ideal mass flow per compression cycle.
4. it is the ratio between suction air and discharge air.
In an air conditioning system, moisture is removed from the air by what means?
1. separators
25. 2
2. ducted traps
3. filters
4. Dehumidifier
Answer Key
2. Chilled water system supply temperature
a.
With regard to air conditioning onboard: State how it assists in
maintaining health and efficiency of the crew.
After a hard days work, the crew returns to the accommodation area. An efficient air
conditioning system will enable the crew
to take adequate rest and return to work the
next day with new zeal and enthusiasm.
b.
With regard to air conditioning onboard, state how it assists in
maintaining health and efficiency of the crew.
4.
Explanation
The psychrometric chart is used to define air conditions, and is used to convert the
readings of wet bulb and dry bulb
temperatures (WBT and DBT) into corresponding
relative humidity.
A psychrometric chart is shown above. The vertical lines represent dry bulb temperatures
(DBT) and dotted lines represent
relative humidity.
To obtain the relative humidity from a pair of WBT and DBT, the point of intersection of
lines of constant WBT DBT are marked
on the chart.
The line of relative humidity passing through this point is the required relative humidity.
The area indicated is called comfort zone. The extent of comfort zone emphasizes the
importance of relative humidity.
For example 29°C with RH of 40% result not warm.
22°C will feel too cold unless RH is above 40%.
c.
With regard to air conditioning onboard, state what would be regarded
as a reasonably effective inside
temperature and relative humidity in
accommodation space.
20°C to 24°C with 40% to 70% of RH.
d.
State the causes and remedies for drying of the air causing discomfort and
an unusually large amount of
condensation forming on the inside of the
bulkheads.
Heating has always been necessary for colder areas of the world. This is done by heating
coils. With extreme low temperature,
these primitive methods of heating increased the
capacity of circulated air to absorb moisture, thereby causing drying of nasal
passages
and crew discomfort. Therefore heating should be accompanied with humidification.
If cooling is not assisted with
dehumidification then it will result in large amount of
condensation or sweating on bulkheads.
5. TRUE
7. Cooling the air to a point below dew point, then reheating it.
8. close the 'king' valve
10. it reduces the compressor load by cutting off the unit when load on refrigeration system reduces
11. Changing the air filter.
12. FALSE
16. The low pressure cut out switch
18. The low pressure control contacts are stuck open.
21. cooling coils
23. Purge the system.
24. it is the ratio of the actual delivered mass to the ideal mass flow per compression cycle.
25. Dehumidifier
What type of pump is invariably used as a circulator in a hydronic heating system?
1. 1
2. Centrifugal pump
3. Rotary pump
4. Diaphragm pump
Which of the following is true concerning the class "A" air conditioning system shown in the illustration as used to condition the
air of large public spaces?
2. 2
1. The preheater steam flow is controlled by the space thermostat.

2. The reheater is not used when in the cooling mode.
3. It is not possible for both the cooling coil and the steam heated reheater to be used simultaneously.
3. Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system may be of the open or closed type. With 2
reference to the central-station hookup for a hot water heating system drawing shown below, what would be the normal
temperature range of the water?
1. 180°F to 200°F (82 to 93°C)

2. 220°F to 240°F (104 to 114°C)
3. 260°F to 280°F (125 to 136°C)
4. 320°F to 360°F (158 to 180°C)
4. Which of the following is true concerning the class "D" air conditioning system shown in the following illustration? 2
1. System cooling is the direct result of the Freon circuit of a direct type air conditioning unit.
2. The room thermostat controls the wet bulb temperature of the air conditioned spaces.
4. The heat load will increase by increasing the amount of recirculated air.
What type of HVAC system is characterized by a having a split supply air stream, with one for cold air and the other for hot
air?
5. 1. A variable air volume system 1

2. A dual duct system
3. A terminal reheat system
4. A single zone system
A reheater in an air conditioning system performs what function?

6. 1
2. controls the inlet air volume
3. maintains the relative humidity at 15%
4. controls the inlet air temperature
7. Referring to the following diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown? 2

3. A variable air volume system
What type of HVAC system is characterized by poor air distribution and ventilation and low system heat loads?

8. 1
What type of HVAC system is characterized by having control dampers in locations other than the outside air supply, outside
air exhaust, arid recirculation damper applications?
9. 1. A terminal reheat system 1

Answer Key
1. Centrifugal pump
3. 180°F to 200°F (82 to 93°C)
In the following terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the functioning of the summer outside air
duct thermostat?
1. 2
1. During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the outside air temperature and opens the exhaust and
outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly higher than typical indoor air temperatures.
2. During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the inside air temperature and opens the exhaust and outside
air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly higher than typical indoor air temperatures.
3. During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the outside air temperature and closes the exhaust and
outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly higher than typical indoor air temperatures.
4. During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the inside air temperature and closes the exhaust and outside
air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly higher than typical indoor air temperatures.
In an air conditioning system, what is the name of the chamber where the duct-work originates?
1. plenum chamber
2. 1
2. vapor chamber
3. exhaust chamber
4. intake chamber
3. In the single zone HVAC system, what statement represents the relationship between the exhaust, outside air and recirculation 1
dampers?
1. The more the exhaust and recirculation dampers are open, the more the outside air damper is closed, and vice versa.
2. The more the outside air and recirculation dampers are open, the more the exhaust damper is closed, and vice versa.
3. The more the exhaust and outside air dampers are open, the more the recirculation damper is closed, and vice versa.
4. The exhaust, outside air, and recirculation dampers are all open or closed to the same degree for all operating
conditions.
In the following single zone HVAC system, what prevents the simultaneous flow of steam through the preheat coil and flow of
chilled water through the cooling coil?
4. 2
1. The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set several degrees lower than the design off- coil
temperature associated with the cooling coil.
2. The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set equal to the design off-coil temperature associated with
the cooling coil
3. Simultaneous steam flow through the preheater and chilled water flow through the cooling coil is permitted for the
purposes of space humidity control
4. The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set several degrees higher than the design off-coil
temperature associated with the cooling coil.
Air conditioning system air handling units must have their air filters cleaned at regular intervals in order to prevent
_____________.
5. 1. Decay of microorganisms and bacteria harmful to human beings 2

2. Restricts air flow and hence enhanced efficiency of the plant
3. Growth of mites and other allergens
4. To maintain humidity control
6. Referring to following diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown. 2

What statement is true concerning a one-pipe hydronic heating system?
1. Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as the hot water inlet temperature to each heating coil progressively
rises as the water passes through each successive series-connected coil.
2. Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as the hot water inlet temperature to each heating coil progressively
7. 1
drops as the water passes through each successive series-connected coil.
3. Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as the hot water inlet temperature to each heating coil progressively
drops as the water passes through each successive series-connected coil.
4. Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as the hot water inlet temperature to each heating coil progressively
rises as the water passes through each successive series-connected coil.
It is absolutely essential that hydronic heating system hot water piping be kept free of air. Assuming that a system is initially
properly filled with water, what is the primary source of air contamination?
8. 1. The introduction of air via the makeup water. 1

2. The introduction of air via the expansion tank vent.
3. The introduction of air with the convector steam supply
4. The introduction of air via the atmospheric drains tank vent.
Referring to the illustrated single zone HVAC system diagram, what statement is true concerning the damper controls?
9. 2
1. The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally open and the recirculation damper is normally closed and all three
dampers are controlled by a single pilot air signal.
2. The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally closed and the recirculation damper is normally open and all three
dampers are controlled by a single pilot air signal.
3. The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally closed and the recirculation damper is normally open and each
damper is controlled by its own pilot air signal.
4. The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally open and the recirculation damper is normally closed and each
damper is controlled by its own pilot air signal.
Answer Key
During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the outside air temperature and closes the exhaust and outside air
1.
dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly higher than typical indoor air temperatures.
2. plenum chamber
3. The more the exhaust and outside air dampers are open, the more the recirculation damper is closed, and vice versa.
The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set several degrees lower than the design off- coil temperature
4. associated with the cooling coil.
5. Growth of mites and other allergens
Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as the hot water inlet temperature to each heating coil progressively drops as
7.
the water passes through each successive series-connected coil.
8. The introduction of air via the makeup water.
The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally closed and the recirculation damper is normally open and all three dampers
9.
are controlled by a single pilot air signal.
Short cycling of a fridge compressor in a water-cooled refrigeration system occurs in the following
case:
1. 1. Air ingress into the system 2

2. A leaking suction valve
3. Improper adjustment of HP cutout switch.
4. Excessive refrigerant charge.
What is the purpose of running a refrigeration compressor in short intermittent spurts or throttling
the suction isolation valve when starting the system after a prolonged shutdown?
2. 1. let the refrigerated compartment cool gradually 1

2. prevent liquid slugging or overloading the compressor
3. allow refrigerant vapor cycling time
4. determine actual compressor oil level
A shortage of refrigerant in the refrigeration system is indicated by ------------.
1. The compressor is not starting

3. 2
2. High head pressure
3. Excessive noise caused by vapor bubbles in the liquid line.
4. High suction pressure.
Short cycling of a refrigeration compressor refers to ______.
1. Frequently cutting out on over load.

4. 2
2. Running continuous.
3. Frequently starting and stopping.
4. Running too slow.
The compressor on the ships service refrigeration system starts up but stops after a brief period of
running. Subsequent attempts to start it produce no result. What control component would you
suspect?
5. 2
1. The water regulating valve
2. The high pressure cut out
4. The back pressure regulator
If the discharge reed valves used in a refrigeration compressor are leaking badly, what statement is
true?
6. 1. the reed valves should be reground and relapped 1

2. the low side pressure will indicate below normal
3. the high-pressure cutout setting should be lowered
4. the reed valves should be replaced
7. A reciprocating multi-cylinder air conditioning or refrigeration compressor starts cycling on/off. What 1
would one do to prevent cycling?
1. Adjust system thermostatic control valve(s) to reduce system refrigerant demand

2. Stop compressor and wait until the system stabilizes and restart compressor
3. Adjust cylinder unloader to increase system operating refrigerant pressure
4. Adjust compressor's unloader to reduce operating cylinders
The carbon seal ring of a refrigeration compressor crankshaft mechanical seal is held in position
against the stationary ring face by using what device?
8. 1. snap ring 2
2. woodruff key
3. spring
4. thrust washer
When one belt of a multiple V-belt drive requires replacing, what will be required?
1. season the new belt prior to installation

9. 1
2. ensure the proper belt dressing is applied
3. replace the entire belt set
4. ensure the seasoned belts are reinstalled in their proper sequence
If the crankcase and the suction line of a refrigeration compressor are warm, this indicates ____.
1. Too much refrigerant.

10. 1
2. Not enough cooling water.
3. Lack of refrigerant.
If a refrigeration compressor were short-cycling on the low pressure cutout switch, what is the most
probable cause?
11. 1. the expansion valve strainers were fouled 1

2. the suction valves were leaking slightly
3. the system was overcharged with refrigerant
4. the high pressure switch was improperly adjusted
Excessively tight drive belts installed between a motor and a refrigeration compressor pulley may
cause what condition?
1. premature wear of both the pulley end motor shaft bearing and the pulley end compressor
crankshaft main bearing due to overloading
12. 2. premature wear of both motor shaft bearings and both compressor crankshaft main bearings 1
due to belt slippage
3. premature wear of the pulley end motor shaft bearing, but normal wear of the pulley end
compressor crankshaft main bearing
4. normal wear of the pulley end motor shaft bearing, but premature wear of the pulley end
compressor crankshaft main bearing
13. Which of the listed statements describes the reason why oil foaming occurs when starting a 1
1. This phenomenon is inherent only in hermetically sealed units and is always provisional
2. This will occur only if crankcase heaters are used.
3. This condition is the result of the sudden low-pressure created in the crankcase at start up
causing the release of refrigerant absorbed within the oil.
4. If the oil level is not initially high, this condition is the result of agitation created by the
movement of the mechanical components.
When a refrigeration compressor motor fails to start, the FIRST thing that should be checked for is
what?
14. 1. blown fuse or tripped circuit breaker in the motor circuit 2

2. loose expansion valve control bulb
3. faulty suction pressure regulator
4. low differential setting on the H.P. cutout
What is the reason for continuous running of refrigeration compressor?
1. Low capacity
15. 2
2. Overcharged system
3. Jammed low pressure switch
4. Low cooling water pressure
When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a refrigeration compressor, extreme care must be taken
to prevent what from happening?
1. dirt and foreign particles from coming in contact with the highly polished sealing surfaces
16. 2. any lubricant from contacting the carbon surface that would cause the expulsion of the 2
saturated Teflon film
3. any lubricant from contacting the stationary seal face that would cause etching of the face
surface
4. the spring from being damaged by the corrosive effects of excessive handling
Too high of pressure entering the compressor will cause the density of suction gases entering the
compressor to increase.
17. 1
True
False
When a refrigeration compressor motor fails to start, the FIRST thing that should be checked for is
what?
18. 1. blown fuse or tripped circuit breaker in the motor circuit 1

2. loose expansion valve control bulb
3. faulty suction pressure regulator
4. low differential setting on the H.P. cutout
In addition to the drive belt itself, a V-belt that is tensioned too tight will cause excessive wear to
what other drive component?
19. 1. the prime mover drive pulley 2

2. the shaft of the prime mover
3. the compressor drive pulley
4. motor shaft and compressor main bearings
20. The safety heads of most large reciprocating compressors used in refrigeration systems are held in 1
place by what means?
1. heavy coil springs

2. large Teflon gaskets
3. tack welding on the sides
4. discharge pressure in the relief valve return line
Check the oil level in a refrigeration compressor ______.
1. Just before starting the compressor.

21. 2
2. While running.
3. After an extended lay up period.
4. Immediately after the compressor shuts down after a long period of operation.
If the refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating or frosting and is operating with an unusual
noise, what is most likely the cause?
22. 1. the compressor short cycling on the high pressure cutout 2

2. the compressor running continuously
4. liquid refrigerant returning to the compressor
When starting a reciprocating refrigeration compressor that has been shut down for a period of
time, you should manually throttle which valve?
23. 1. suction valve 2

2. sea water valve
3. king valve
4. expansion valve
Answer Key
1. Improper adjustment of HP cutout switch.

3. Excessive noise caused by vapor bubbles in the liquid line.
4. Frequently starting and stopping.
6. the reed valves should be replaced
7. Adjust compressor's unloader to reduce operating cylinders
8. snap ring
9. replace the entire belt set
10. Lack of refrigerant.
premature wear of both the pulley end motor shaft bearing and the pulley end compressor crankshaft
12.
main bearing due to overloading
This condition is the result of the sudden low-pressure created in the crankcase at start up causing
13. the release of refrigerant absorbed within the oil.
14. blown fuse or tripped circuit breaker in the motor circuit
15. Jammed low pressure switch
16. dirt and foreign particles from coming in contact with the highly polished sealing surfaces
17. TRUE
18. blown fuse or tripped circuit breaker in the motor circuit
19. motor shaft and compressor main bearings
20. heavy coil springs
21. Immediately after the compressor shuts down after a long period of operation.
22. liquid refrigerant returning to the compressor
23. suction valve
If a refrigeration compressor had developed a slightly high suction pressure accompanied with an
abnormally low suction temperature, the problem could be a result of which of the following?
1. 1. a clogged sub cooler 2

2. a leaking king valve
4. a minor accumulation of air or non-condensable gases in the system
When a refrigeration compressor has developed a high head pressure as a result of a refrigerant
overcharge, what should be done to compensate for or to correct this situation?
2. 1. raise the high-pressure cut-out opening pressure 2

2. increase the amount of cooling water to the condenser
3. decrease the amount of cooling water to the condenser
4. remove some refrigerant from the system
What is the purpose of running a refrigeration compressor in short intermittent spurts or throttling
the suction isolation valve when starting the system after a prolonged shutdown?
3. 1. prevent liquid slugging or overloading the compressor 1

2. allow refrigerant vapor cycling time
3. let the refrigerated compartment cool gradually
4. determine actual compressor oil level
In an air conditioning system, low discharge head pressure associated with a reciprocating
compressor can be the result of what condition?
4. 1. insufficient cooling water to the condenser 1

2. air in the evaporator coils
4. air in the condenser
If you overcharge a refrigeration system with refrigerant, one result will be _______.

5. 1
3. Increased system operating efficiency.
4. Short cycling on the low pressure cutout.
High suction pressure to a refrigeration system compressor is caused by ________.
1. The expansion valve is insufficiently opened.

6. 2
2. The expansion valve being open too wide.
3. The king valve is insufficiently open.
4. A dirty dehydrator.
7. During the initial cooling down of a box temperature in a refrigeration system, which of the devices 2
listed is used to prevent excessive gas pressure at the compressor suction for the purpose of
prevention of overloading of the compressor driver?
1. Low-pressure cutout
2. Solenoid valve
3. Crankcase pressure regulator
4. High-pressure cutout
The refrigeration compressor in a water-cooled refrigeration system is short cycling on the high
pressure cutout switch. One reason for this could be the _______.
8. 1. System is low on refrigerant. 2

2. High pressure cutout switch is improperly adjusted.
3. Discharge valves are leaking slightly.
4. Discharge valves are leaking excessively.
When starting a reciprocating refrigeration compressor that has been shut down for a period of
time, you should manually throttle which valve?
9. 1. king valve 2
2. suction valve
3. expansion valve
4. sea water valve
Which of the conditions listed could cause excessively low refrigerant pressure at the compressor
suction of a TXV controlled refrigeration system?
10. 1. The high-pressure cutout switch is inoperative. 1

2. Insufficient flow of condenser cooling water.
4. The box solenoid valve 'stuck' in the open position.
Leaking suction valves in a refrigeration compressor are indicated by which of the following?
1. noticeable increase in compressor noise

11. 1
2. higher than normal suction pressure
3. lower than normal suction pressure
4. lower than normal evaporator temperature
High suction pressure accompanied by low suction temperature to a refrigeration system

compressor is caused by which of the following?
12. 1. the expansion valve is insufficiently opened 2

2. the king valve is insufficiently open
3. a clogged liquid-line strainer
If the suction pressure at the refrigeration compressor is below normal, the cause can be _____.
1. Refrigerant overcharge.
13. 1
2. Overfeeding by the expansion valve.
3. A restricted suction strainer.
4. Due to short cycling of the compressor.
14. Which of the listed statements describes the reason why oil foaming occurs when starting a 1
1. This phenomenon is inherent only in hermetically sealed units and is always provisional.
2. This condition is the result of the sudden low-pressure created in the crankcase at start up
causing the release of refrigerant absorbed within the oil.
3. If the oil level is not initially high, this condition is the result of agitation created by the
movement of the mechanical components.
4. This will occur only if crankcase heaters are used.
If a refrigeration system compressor crankcase is sweating, you should _______.
1. Add refrigerant to the system.

15. 2
2. Adjust the thermal expansion valve to the proper setting.
3. Adjust the float valve to the proper holding pressure.
4. Open the hand expansion valve.
One cause of high head pressure occurring in a refrigeration system can be ___.
1. Insufficient cooling water flow to the condenser.

16. 2
2. A low refrigerant charge in the system.
3. The liquid valve is open too much.
4. High evaporator superheat.
Unusual noise coming from a refrigeration compressor can be caused by which of the following
conditions?
17. 1. Worn bearings and piston pins 2

2. too much oil in circulation
3. slugging due to flooding back
4. all of the above
If the discharge valves on a refrigeration compressor are leaking slightly, the compressor will
_____.
18. 1. Run continuously. 1

2. Not start.
3. Short cycle on the water low pressure switch.
4. Short cycle on the high pressure switch.

19. 1
Answer Key

2. remove some refrigerant from the system
6. The expansion valve being open too wide.
7. Crankcase pressure regulator
8. High pressure cutout switch is improperly adjusted.
9. suction valve
11. higher than normal suction pressure
13. A restricted suction strainer.
This condition is the result of the sudden low-pressure created in the crankcase at start up causing
14.
the release of refrigerant absorbed within the oil.
15. Adjust the thermal expansion valve to the proper setting.
16. Insufficient cooling water flow to the condenser.
18. Run continuously.
Sludge may form in the crankcase of an air conditioning compressor as a result of what condition?
1. reducing the cloud or floe point of the oil

1. 1
2. overheating and carbonization of the oil in the crankcase
3. excessive foaming of the oil in the crankcase
4. lowered compressor operating temperatures
An important consideration in selecting a lubricating oil for use in a refrigeration compressor is for
the oil to____.
2. 1. Have a high viscosity index 2

2. Mix readily with refrigerant
3. Have a low pour point.
4. Have a high freezing point
Answer Key
1. overheating and carbonization of the oil in the crankcase

2. Have a low pour point.
The rupture disc on a low-pressure centrifugal refrigeration unit is used as an overpressure

protection device and is set to relieve at 15 psig/1 bar and is most likely to lift when the compressor
is idle. Where is the rupture disc located?
1. 1
1. on top of the condenser shell
2. at the discharge of the compressor
3. at the top of the upper chamber of the economizer
4. on top of chiller evaporator shell
To prevent motor overload during start-up of a hermetically sealed centrifugal refrigeration system,
what is true concerning the compressor suction gas variable inlet guide vanes?
1. opened until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and current drawn is up to
full load current
2. 2. opened until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and current drawn is below 1
full load current
3. closed until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and current drawn is up to
full load current
4. closed until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and current drawn is below
full load current
In a two stage centrifugal air conditioning system, the liquid refrigerant passes through the
condenser directly to what component?
3. 1. chiller 1
2. evaporator
3. economizer
4. expansion valve
In LP centrifugal chiller pressure maintenance system, what is its functional purpose?
1. prevent surging
4. 1
2. maintain a relatively low compression ratio under low heat load conditions
3. prevent the entrance of air into the chiller under low heat load conditions
4. prevent the entrance of air into the chiller when the chiller is idle
The surging that occurs in a centrifugal air conditioning compressor is a result of what conditions?
1. low-pressure in the evaporator at low load

5. 2
2. low-pressure in the condenser at low load
3. low-pressure in the condenser at high load
4. low-pressure in the evaporator at high load
Traditionally, which of the listed refrigerants has been more suitable than the others for use in a
centrifugal refrigeration compressor?
6. 1. R-11 1
2. R-12
3. Ammonia
4. Carbon dioxide
7. Why is a purge recovery unit typically fitted on low-pressure centrifugal chillers? 2
1. evacuation of the air from a low-pressure chiller prior to charging with refrigerant is not
possible
2. low-pressure chillers use extremely low boiling point refrigerants
3. such a chiller can operate at a pressure below atmospheric pressure on the low side thus
drawing in air through any low side leaks
4. low-pressure chillers are routinely opened for maintenance thus introducing air at each
opening
In a two stage centrifugal air conditioning system, the liquid refrigerant passes through the
condenser directly to what component?
8. 1. expansion valve 2
2. economizer
3. chiller
4. evaporator
In a low pressure refrigeration system, excessive running of the purge recovery unit generally
indicates which probable condition?
9. 1. overcharged system 2
2. system leaks on the low side
3. faulty purge system vent valve
4. system leaks on the high side
The surging that occurs in a centrifugal air conditioning compressor is a result of what conditions?
1. low pressure in the evaporator at high load

10. 2
2. low pressure in the evaporator at low load
3. low pressure in the condenser at high load
4. low pressure in the condenser at low load
In a low-pressure refrigeration system, excessive running of the purge recovery unit generally
indicates which probable condition?
11. 1. faulty purge system vent valve 1

3. system leaks on the high side
4. overcharged system
Why is a purge recovery unit typically fitted on low pressure centrifugal chillers?
1. low pressure chillers are routinely opened for maintenance thus introducing air at each
opening
12. 2. such a chiller can operate at a pressure below atmospheric pressure on the low side thus 2
drawing in air through any low-side leaks
3. low pressure chillers use extremely low boiling point refrigerants
4. evacuation of the air from a low pressure chiller prior to charging with refrigerant is not
possible
Answer Key
1. on top of chiller evaporator shell

closed until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and current drawn is below full load
2.
current
3. economizer
4. prevent surging
5. low-pressure in the evaporator at low load
6. R-11
such a chiller can operate at a pressure below atmospheric pressure on the low side thus drawing in
7.
air through any low side leaks
8. economizer
10. low pressure in the evaporator at low load
such a chiller can operate at a pressure below atmospheric pressure on the low side thus drawing in
12.
air through any low-side leaks
What is the required change in size of gravity disc if the density of oil is more?
1. Inner diameter of gravity disc will reduce.

1. 2
2. Not required to change gravity disc.
3. Inner diameter of gravity disc will increase.
4. Decrease outer diameter of disc.
In a purifier the position of interface is adjusted by:
1. Back pressure
2. 2
2. Increasing the feed.
3. Changing gravity disc.
4. Reducing the feed.
Which factor determines the size of the ring dam for a fuel oil centrifugal purifier?
1. The viscosity of the fuel.

3. 1
2. The quantity of water to be removed from the fuel.
3. The specific gravity of the fuel.
4. The quantity of dirt to be removed from the fuel.
The bowl of a disk type centrifuge is dynamically balanced. To maintain the balance of the bowl after
it has been disassembled and cleaned, which of the following statements represent the normal
practice of re-assembling?
1. The disk stack can be reassembled in any sequence.

4. 2. The disks in the stack must be restacked from the highest numbered disk at the bottom, to the 1
lowest numbered disk at the top.
3. The disks in the disk stack must be restacked from the lowest numbered disk at the bottom to
the highest numbered disk at the top.
4. If the reassembly of the disk stack does not allow the proper seating of the bowl top, disks
from the mid-portion of the stack must be removed.
Answer Key
1. Inner diameter of gravity disc will increase.

2. Changing gravity disc.
3. The specific gravity of the fuel.
The disks in the disk stack must be restacked from the lowest numbered disk at the bottom to the
4.
highest numbered disk at the top.
In case of failure of the control system of a centrifuge, the correct sequence for manually desludging
a purifier would be-
1. Stop feed-give sealing water-open desludging water.

1. 2
2. Stop feed- shut operating water- close desludging water quickly
3. Stop feed-close operating water-supply bowl opening water for few seconds-sludge is
discharged. Start the cycle again for opening feed.
4. Shut operating water- stop feed- open and close desludging water quickly.
Answer Key
Stop feed-close operating water-supply bowl opening water for few seconds-sludge is discharged. Start
1.
the cycle again for opening feed.
What temperature will you maintain in the lub-oil purifier while running?
1. 50 degrees C
1. 2. 70 degrees C 1
3. 80-85 degrees C
4. 100 degrees C
Answer Key
1. 80-85 degrees C
Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur if oil containing moisture is continuously fed
to a purifier operating as a clarifier?
1. 1. The purifier must be operated at a higher temperature. 1

2. The purifier must be operated at a higher speed.
3. The purifier will gradually change operation to separation.
4. The bowl will eventually fill with water.
Answer Key
1. The bowl will eventually fill with water.
What is the location of service and settling tanks in the engine room and why?
1. the tanks are situated in the top platform of the engine room to give some head pressure
1. 2. they are in the bottom platform to keep it cool 1
3. they are in economiser platform to give greater height
4. they are at poop deck to keep it warm
Answer Key
1. the tanks are situated in the top platform of the engine room to give some head pressure
1. 1
1. Connection for drain pipe

2. Hydraulic pump
3. Centripetal pump
4. Regulating tube
2. What does “IV” indicate in the illustration given below? 1
1. Solids holding space

2. Steam port
3. Drain
4. Spindle
1. Heavy liquid discharge

2. Sludge discharge
3. Light liquid discharge
4. Operating water discharge
In the Alcap principle of centrifugal separation ___________
1. Water is only discharged when desludging is activated by the control unit

4. 2. The valve at the water outlet is opened periodically based on timer action 2
3. The transducer in the oil outlet detects the presence of water and opens the water drain valve
in order to drain the accumulated water.
4. The centrifuge works as a clarifier with no water outlet.
5. Which number represents the "Separating disk" in the illustration given below? 1
1. III
2. II
3. I
4. IV
1. Intermediate disc
2. Bottom disc
3. Disk stack
4. Separating disk
What is full form of “ALCAP” in purifier?
1. Automatic Level Clarification And Purification.

7. 2
2. Alfa Level Clarifier And Purifier.
3. Alfa Laval Clarifier And Purifier.
4. Automatic Laval Clarification And Purification.
8. Which number represents the "Product Feed" in the illustration given below? 1
1. VI
2. VIII
3. VII
4. V
9. What does “VIII” indicate in this figure? 1

3. Sludge discharge
10. In the diagram given below, “VI” represents __________. 1

2. Sludge discharge
11. What does figure “V” represent? 1
1. Sludge discharge
Answer Key
1. Centripetal pump
The transducer in the oil outlet detects the presence of water and opens the water drain valve in
4.
order to drain the accumulated water.
5. II
6. Disk stack
7. Alfa Laval Clarifier And Purifier.
8. VII
10. Sludge discharge
What are the two classifications of all electric steering gear?
1. 1
1. Ward Leonard system and contactor operated single motor systems
2. Ram type and rotary type
What is the principle used in driving the rudder in Ward Leonard system?
2. 1
1. Wilson Pirrie principle
2. Crosshead tiller arrangement
What is the source of power supply for all electric steering gear?
3. 1
1. D.C supply
2. A.C supply
Answer Key
1. Ward Leonard system and contactor operated single motor systems

2. Wilson Pirrie principle
3. D.C supply
In heat exchangers, seawater pressure should be maintained lower than freshwater pressure to
__________ .
1. eliminate scaling,problems on the,saltwater side

1. 1
2. reduce erosion of heat,exchanger surfaces
3. ease the load on the,saltwater service pump
4. prevent contamination,should leaks develop
Which of the following statements is true concerning a radiator type heat exchanger?
1. Raw water is the cooling medium

2. 2. Water cooled exhaust elbows remove the heat 1
3. The surge tank must be,located a minimum of 4,feet above the highest,finned tube
4. Air flow provided by a,fan is used as the,cooling medium
In a heat exchanger, excessive fluid velocity should be avoided to prevent __________ .
1. erosive tube failure

3. 2. waterside deposit buildup 1
3. tube sheet bowing
4. water hammer damage
The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to__________ .
1. eliminate hot air from the condenser

4. 2. maintain steady pressure in a system 1
3. heat, or cool one fluid by means of another fluid
4. reduce the engine room temperature in tropical climates
In a shell-and-tube type heat exchanger, the most common cause of decreased performance is
__________ .
1. loose tube bundle baffle plates

5. 1
2. failure of the baffle plate
3. rupture of the tube bundle
4. fouling on the seawater side
The temperature differential occurring between the inlet,temperature of the fluid to be cooled and the
outlet,temperature of the cooling medium in a shell-and-tube heat,exchanger is greatest in which of the
flow designs listed?
6. 1. Cross 1
2. Counter
3. Parallel
4. Circular
Tube scaling in heat exchangers causes the heat transfer rate to decrease because the __________ .
1. surface area of the tube decreases

7. 2. cooling fluid outlet temperature decreases 1
3. thermal conductivity of the scale is very low
4. flow through the heat exchanger becomes more turbulent
8. When a heat exchanger is used as a cooler, excessive cooling water flow should be avoided to prevent
1

2. waterside deposit buildup
3. tube sheet bowing

4. water hammer damage
Assuming oil and water flow rates remain the same, what,would be the effect of scale formation
occurring on the,inside of the cooling water tubes of a lube oil heat,exchanger?
1. Water temperature,outlet temperature will,decrease and the lube,oil temperature will,decrease

9. 1
2. Water temperature,outlet temperature will,decrease and the lube,oil temperature will,increase
3. Water temperature,outlet temperature will,increase and the lube oil,temperature will,decrease
4. Water temperature,outlet temperature will,increase and the lube oil,temperature will,increase
Erosive tube failure in a heat exchanger can result from
1. high temperature
10. 2. waterside fouling 1
3. excessive cooling water velocity
4. poor heat transfer
The rate of heat transfer between the hot and cold fluids passing through a shell-and-tube type heat
exchanger will
1. remain constant along the tube's length

11. 1
2. vary according to the fluid pressures
3. remain constant throughout the heat exchanger
4. vary from section to,section throughout the,heat exchanger
The presence of scale and dirt on the saltwater side of a lube oil cooler is usually indicated by
__________ .
1. clogged lube oil strainers

12. 1
2. seawater leaking into the lube oil system
3. increasing lube oil pressure
4. gradually increasing lube oil temperature
Answer Key
1. prevent contamination,should leaks develop

2. Air flow provided by a,fan is used as the,cooling medium
4. heat, or cool one fluid by means of another fluid
5. fouling on the seawater side
6. Parallel
7. thermal conductivity of the scale is very low
9. Water temperature,outlet temperature will,decrease and the lube,oil temperature will,increase
10. excessive cooling water velocity
11. vary from section to,section throughout the,heat exchanger
12. gradually increasing lube oil temperature
In an operating diesel engine, which of the following is true concerning a tube and shell type jacket
water heat exchanger?
1. 1. fresh water circulates through the tubes and sea water around the outside of the tubes. 1
2. jacket fresh water pressure should always be greater than the sea water pressure.
3. zinc anodes installed in the heads should always be painted.
4. all of the above
State two differences between plate type and shell and tube type heat exchanger?
1. shell type weight is more than plate type and coolant resistance is less in plate type than shell
type.
2. 2. plate type easy to maintain and expensive than other type. 1
3. plate type is time consuming for maintenance than shell type and not efficient while rolling.
4. plate type occupies less space than shell and tube type and cooling efficiency is higher in plate
type than shell and tube type.
The cylinders and intercoolers of most low-pressure air compressors are cooled by ____.
1. Water
3. 1
2. Oil
3. Air
4. CO2
What type of tubes used in Air compressor inter-cooler?
1. Spring type
4. 1
2. floating
3. U type
4. fixed type
Answer Key
1. jacket fresh water pressure should always be greater than the sea water pressure.
plate type occupies less space than shell and tube type and cooling efficiency is higher in plate type than
2.
shell and tube type.
3. Air
4. U type
What is the value of water velocity for efficient heat transfer?
1. 1. Lesser than 1 m/sec 1

2. Greater than 4m/sec
3. Between 1 to 4 m/sec
Why are the heat exchanger tubes periodically cleaned?
2. 1
1. To promote radial flow
2. To maintain optimum heat transfer
Which type of flow is preferred in shell and tube heat exchanger?
3. 1
1. Counter flow
2. Parallel flow
Which is the component used for inspection of tube surface?
4. 1
1. Inspection covers
2. Water boxes
How is the shell side of the tubular heat exchanger cleaned?
5. 1
1. By circulation cleaning and by immersing tube stack in chemical bath
2. By special brush
Which material is used in the manufacture of the shell in a tubular heat exchanger?
1. Close grained cast iron

6. 1
2. Stress relieved aluminium brass
3. Naval brass
4. Brass
What is the provision for leakage detection in a multi tubular heat exchanger?
7. 1
1. By providing tell tale hole
2. By providing inspection covers
Why should air and non condensable gases by purged out of the system?
8. 1
1. To improve rate of heat transfer
2. To increase the circulation outside the shell
What is the purpose of contact strip in shell and tube heat exchanger?
9. 1
1. To promote heat transfer
2. To establish electrical continuity
10. How will you infer that tubes are chocked or fouled? 1
1. From inlet and outlet temperatures of the cooling medium

2. From the running hours
How is air and non condensable gases purged out of the shell side of the heat exchanger?
11. 1
1. By drain cock
2. By air purge cock
What is the prime purpose of baffles in a multi tubular heat exchanger?
1. Control the fluid flow ensuring optimum contact between the heat transfer surface and the
12. 1
fluid
2. To prevent corrosion
3. To promote maximum turbulence
Answer Key
1. Between 1 to 4 m/sec
2. To maintain optimum heat transfer
3. Counter flow
4. Inspection covers
5. By circulation cleaning and by immersing tube stack in chemical bath
6. Close grained cast iron
7. By providing tell tale hole
8. To improve rate of heat transfer
9. To establish electrical continuity
10. From inlet and outlet temperatures of the cooling medium
11. By air purge cock
12. Control the fluid flow ensuring optimum contact between the heat transfer surface and the fluid
Shell and plate type coolers, due to improper flow design or partial blockage of tubes may lead to
high turbulence locally. This condition may lead to:
1. 1. Bimetallic corrosion. 2
2. Selective phase corrosion.
3. Impingement corrosion.
4. Erosion.
The interior of some diesel engine saltwater heat exchangers are protected from electrolytic
corrosion by the use of ______________.
2. 1. aluminum plates 1
2. lead cathodes
3. copper baffle plates
4. zinc plates
Zinc anodes are installed in a marine sea water heat exchanger cooling system to __________ .
1. inhibit oxidation
3. 2. control electrolysis 1
3. prevent scaling
4. eliminate corrosion
Which of the following material is used for manufacturing tube plates of a shell and tube type heat
exchanger?
4. 1. Cupro-nickel 1
2. Aluminium Brass
3. Naval Brass
4. Gunmetal.
Heat exchanger tubes can be protected against erosion and,abrasion by the use of __________ .
1. metallic packing on the inlet end

5. 2. fiber bushings in the ferrules 1
3. zinc pencils on the waterside
4. plastic tube end protectors
Which non-ferrous alloy is most commonly used for heat,exchanger tubes and possesses a high
resistance to,corrosion?
1. Red brass
6. 1
2. Nautical bronze
3. Aircraft aluminum
4. Copper nickel
Expansion of the tube bundle in a shell-and-tube type cooler may be provided for by the__________ .
1. packing and lantern rings

7. 2. floating end tube sheet 1
3. shell foundation bolts
4. directional transverse baffles
8. Which of the copper alloys listed is commonly used in heat exchangers and possesses a high resistance 1
to corrosion?
1. Red brass
2. Manganese bronze
3. Copper beryllium
4. Cupro-nickel
Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of diesel engine heat exchangers to
______________ .
9. 1. reduce electrolytic action on heat exchanger metals 1

2. keep heat transfer surfaces shiny and clean
3. prevent rapid accumulation of marine growth
4. provide a protective coating on heat exchanger surfaces
Answer Key
1. Impingement corrosion.
2. zinc plates
3. control electrolysis
4. Naval Brass
5. plastic tube end protectors
6. Copper nickel
7. floating end tube sheet
8. Cupro-nickel
9. reduce electrolytic action on heat exchanger metals
Air cooler performance is measured by the difference in:
1. Inlet and outlet temp of air

1. 1
2. Inlet and outlet temp of sea water
3. Both a and b above.
4. Sea water temp decrease.
In a shell-and-tube type hydraulic fluid cooler, the amount of heat transferred from the hydraulic fluid
to the cooling water depends upon:
2. 1. The temperature of the hydraulic fluid 2

2. The flow rate of both the cooling water and the hydraulic fluid
3. The temperature of the cooling water
The presence of scale and dirt on the saltwater side of lube oil cooler is usually indicated by____.
1. Clogged lube oil strainers

3. 2
2. Seawater leaking into the lube oil system
3. Gradual increase in temperature of lubricating oil.
4. Drop in lubricating oil pressure.
Answer Key
1. Both a and b above.

2. The temperature of the cooling water
3. Gradual increase in temperature of lubricating oil.
When checking zincs in a saltwater cooled heat exchanger, you should ___________ .
1. paint the zincs to stop corrosion

1. 1
2. insulate the zincs to alter the temperature
3. replace the zincs if they are approximately 50% consumed
4. file the zincs to change the shape
Scale and dirt accumulation in the waterside of a lube oil cooler will be indicated by a gradual
increase in the lube oil
2. 1. TBN number 1
2. viscosity
3. temperature
4. foaming
Answer Key
1. replace the zincs if they are approximately 50% consumed

2. temperature
Name the material used in the manufacture of end plates in a plate type heat exchanger?
1. Fabricated cast steel

1. 1
2. Titanium
3. Nitrile rubber
4. Fabricated mild steel
What is back flushing?
2. 1. Reversing the flow of coolant to prevent clogging and debris 1

2. It involves circulating the maker’s recommended chemicals in desired concentration in the
fluid spaces
Which method of cleaning is adopted in plate type heat exchanger that saves time and manual
labour?
3. 1
1. Back flushing
2. Circulation cleaning
Why should operating conditions specified on the identification name plate like pressure or
temperature not be exceeded?
4. 1
1. Will lead to failure of gaskets or packing materials
2. Will promote more turbulence and hence better heat transfer
Which type of heat exchanger occupies less space for same heat transfer capacity?
5. 1
1. Multi tubular heat exchanger
2. Plate type heat exchanger
What is the main cause for premature failure of gasket?
6. 1
1. Sacrificial anodes
2. Thermal shock
Which operation has to be carried out after allowing the fluids into heat exchangers?
7. 1
1. Draining
2. Purging
Which circuit valves should be opened first while using a plate type heat exchanger?
8. 1
1. Cold circuit
2. Hot circuit
9. Which is the most efficient method of cleaning in plate type heat exchanger? 1
1. Mechanical cleaning of plates

2. Circulation cleaning
3. Back flushing
Corrugations in tube plates promote efficient heat transfer.
10. True 1
False
Answer Key
1. Fabricated cast steel

2. Reversing the flow of coolant to prevent clogging and debris
3. Back flushing
4. Will lead to failure of gaskets or packing materials
5. Plate type heat exchanger
6. Thermal shock
7. Purging
8. Cold circuit
9. Mechanical cleaning of plates
10. TRUE
What is the material of the plate in the plate type heat exchanger?
1. stainless steel
1. 2. cupro-nickel 1
3. titanium
4. gunmetal
How are the plates sealed together in the plate type of heat exchanger?
1. neoprene rubber
2. 2. rubber sealing gasket 1
3. nylon rubber
4. harden rubber
Answer Key
1. titanium
2. rubber sealing gasket
Under what principal the plate type heat exchanger works?
1. Heat transfer through convection and conduction

1. 2. through radiation. 1
3. through conduction.
4. through mixing.
Answer Key
1. Heat transfer through convection and conduction
You notice that there is a leakage in the plate heat exchanger. What could be the possible reasons for
this fault?
1. 1. Deposits on the plate surface 1

2. Damaged packing
3. Cracked cooler plates
4. Improper assembly of the plates
What coule be the possible reasons for reduced performance of plate heat exchanger?
1. Cracked cooler plates

2. 1
2. Damaged packing
3. Fouled plate surfaces
4. Improper assembly of the plates
Answer Key
Damaged packing
1.
Cracked cooler plates
Fouled plate surfaces

2.
Improper assembly of the plates
Plate type heat exchanger is preferred for following advantages:
1. High heat transfer.

1. 1
2. Easy to clean
3. Increased time between clean
4. All of above.
Answer Key
1. All of above.
What is the brake pad material of the purifier?
1. asbestos
1. 2. Semi metallic brake lining 1
3. synthetic material
4. bronze
From the illustration below, what does part “R” represent?
2. 1
1. Sludge space
2. O-ring
3. Operating slide
4. Oil inlet
What is the material used for manufacture of gravity disc in purifier?
1. Rubber
3. 1
2. Mild steel
3. Stainless steel.
4. Bronze
4. with ref to the purifier diagram below, Identify the Oil paring disc? 1
1. B
2. L
3. M
4. J
What type of bearings are fitted in the purifier?
1. plain roller bearing

5. 2. Radial thrust bearing 1
3. self-alignment bearing
4. All the above
6. From the illustration below, identify the part name which represents Operating water? 1
1. E
2. F
3. Q
4. C
7. From the illustration below, what does part “P” represent? 1
1. Sludge space
2. O-ring
3. Oil outlet
4. Oil inlet
Answer Key
1. Semi metallic brake lining

2. Operating slide
3. Stainless steel.
4. L
5. All the above
6. F
7. Sludge space
Which centrifuge can purify fuels of density up to 100 ?
1. 1. ALCAP Seperator 1
2. Purifier
3. Clarifier
What is purification?
2. 1. It is the separation of two immiscible liquids and slid impurities 1

2. It is the separation of two miscible liquids
3. It is the separation of two liquids and solid impurities
Why are the tanks lagged and by what material?
1. they are lagged with synthetic material to prevent it from non-flow

3. 2. they are lagged by asbestos to prevent it to become cake 1
3. the tanks are lagged with fiberglass material to prevent it from losing the heat
4. they are lagged with aluminium cloth to prevent from solidifying
What is the common principle behind gravitation in setting tank and centrifugal speration?
4. 1. Density difference 1
2. Water addition
3. Water removal
What is the appropriate method of fuel treatment?
1. Gravitation, heating and darning

5. 1
2. Purification, desludging and clarification
3. Filtration, sedimentation and evaporation
4. Gravitational separation, purification and filtration
What is clarification?
6. 1
1. It is the removal of solid particles from the liquid
2. It is the separation of two liquids
Which of the following is the main aim of purification process?
1. Removal of sludge alone

7. 1
2. Removal of water alone
3. Removal of abrasive components
4. All the above
Which of the following machinery requires water seal and gravity disc?
8. 1. Clarifer 1
2. ALCAP separator
3. Purifer
Answer Key
1. ALCAP Seperator
2. It is the separation of two immiscible liquids and slid impurities
3. the tanks are lagged with fiberglass material to prevent it from losing the heat
4. Density difference
5. Gravitational separation, purification and filtration
6. It is the removal of solid particles from the liquid
7. All the above
8. ALCAP separator
With reference to the illustration below, What is a Safety device fitted on the inlet line of the
purifier?
1. 1
1. Low level alarm

2. High temp. alarm
3. Vibration sensor
4. Low back pressure alarm
What are the temperature maintained in the service and settling tanks and why?
1. they are maintained at 120 degrees to prevent from gassing

2. both the tanks are maintained 80–90 degrees centigrade to prevent it from caking and to assist in
2. 1
settling down
3. they are maintained at 60 degrees to prevent from solidifying
4. they are maintained at 40 degrees to prevent from coagulation
3. With reference to the illustration below, what is the Safety device fitted on the purifier? 1
1. High temp. alarm

2. Vibration sensor
4. High back pressure alarm
On board supply vessels, a centrifuge is normally used to purify ________.
4. 1. fuel oil 1
2. sea water
3. diesel intake air
Name two important fittings in each fuel tank.
1. drain cock, remote gauge cock

5. 2. oil inlet valve, vent cock 1
3. oil outlet valve, manhole door
4. quick closing valve, level gauge
6. With reference to the illustration below, what is the Safety device fitted on the operating water tank? 1
1. Low level alarm

2. High temp. alarm
3. Vibration sensor
Which of the substances listed is satisfactorily removed from the fuel by a centrifugal oil purifier?
1. Carbon particles
7. 1
2. Lube oil
3. Gasoline
4. Diesel fuel
Which of the listed contaminants will be satisfactorily removed from fuel oil by centrifuging?
1. Sludge
8. 1
2. Diesel fuel
3. Lube oil
4. Gasoline
When will you start the heavy oil purifier?
1. as soon as vessel leaves port

9. 2. It can be started anytime to maintain the purified oil level in the service tank 1
3. before the ship leaves the port
4. when fuel service tank becomes half
10. With reference to the illustration below, What is a Safety device fitted on the outlet /discharge line 1
of Purifier?
1. Low level alarm

2. High temp. alarm
3. Vibration sensor
4. Low back pressure alarm & High back pressure alarm
Which of the listed substances can be satisfactorily removed from diesel fuel by centrifuging?
1. Sludge
11. 1
2. Gasoline
3. Fuel oil
4. Lube oil
Answer Key
1. High temp. alarm

both the tanks are maintained 80–90 degrees centigrade to prevent it from caking and to assist in settling
2.
down
3. Vibration sensor
4. fuel oil
5. quick closing valve, level gauge
6. Low level alarm
7. Carbon particles
8. Sludge
9. It can be started anytime to maintain the purified oil level in the service tank
10. Low back pressure alarm & High back pressure alarm
11. Sludge
What is desludging of the purifier and when it is carried out?
1. to remove the sludge accumulation as required depending on the fuel condition

1. 2. sludge accumulation every six hour 1
3. oil removal every two hour
4. water removal every four hour
Why the sealing water is given to the purifier?
1. for better purification

2. 2. it provides interface between the process liquid, prevents oil from overflow 1
3. to assists separation of sludge
4. water sealing helps better purification
The most effective method in removing water from diesel fuel oil is by ____________.
1. centrifuging the fuel

3. 1
2. using it in the engine
3. heating the fuel tanks
4. straining the fuel
Why so many discs are provided in the purifier?
1. More number of disc are fitted to improve the purification efficiency.

4. 2. more number of disc separates the water from fuel 1
3. more number of disc increases the speed of the purifier
4. more discs increase the centrifugal force
When reassembling the bowl of a disk-type centrifuge, the bowl or locking ring is rotated
____________ .
5. 1. clockwise, due to the bowl rotating clockwise 1

2. clockwise, due to the bowl rotating counterclockwise
3. counterclockwise, due to the bowl rotating clockwise
4. counterclockwise, due to the bowl rotating counterclockwise
What is the function of the paring disc in the purifier?
1. It converts the rotating energy into pressure head

6. 2. this disc assists the separation 1
3. this disc converts kinetic energy to potential energy
4. it helps to increases the rotational speed
In order to maximize the performance of a centrifuge, you can adjust the ____________ .
I. Number of disks in the stack
II. Frequency of shooting the bowl
7. 1
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Answer Key
1. to remove the sludge accumulation as required depending on the fuel condition

2. it provides interface between the process liquid, prevents oil from overflow
3. centrifuging the fuel
4. More number of disc are fitted to improve the purification efficiency.
5. counterclockwise, due to the bowl rotating clockwise
6. It converts the rotating energy into pressure head
7. II only
Why purifier overflows?
1. power failure: breakdown of sealing water

1. 2. oil quality is bad; oil density is high 1
3. due to incorrect purifier gravity disc, low fuel oil temperature
4. purifier vibrates: bearing failure
When centrifuging heavy fuel oil, an important factor to consider is the ________ .
I. flow rate
II. viscosity of the fuel oil
2. 1
1. I only is correct
2. II only is correct
3. both I and II are correct
4. neither I or II are correct
The characteristic of a lubricating oil, adversely affecting the results of centrifuging is:
1. High TBN value

3. 1
2. Low oil floc point
3. Low oil demulsibility
4. Low oil neutralization number
The ability of an oil to separate cleanly from an oil and water mixture is referred to as its
__________.
4. 1. Precipitation number. 1
2. Neutralization number.
3. Demulsibility.
4. Pour point.
Answer Key
1. due to incorrect purifier gravity disc, low fuel oil temperature

2. both I and II are correct
3. Low oil demulsibility
4. Demulsibility.
If fuel oil were being discharged from the waste water outlet of a fuel oil disk type centrifuge,
operated as a separator, you should ___________ .
1. 1. remove the discharge ring 1

2. reprime the purifier with sealing water
3. slow the centrifuge to its proper speed
4. install an additional discharge ring
If the bowl of a disk type centrifugal purifier when operated as a separator is not primed, the
_____________ .
2. 1. oil has a tendency to emulsify in the bowl 1

2. purifier will act as a clarifier at the discharge ring
3. oil will be lost through the water discharge ports
4. oil solids will be deposited only at the intermediate top disk
If diesel fuel was discharging from the waste water outlet of a disk type centrifugal purifier operating
as a separator you should __________ .
3. 1. reprime the purifier 1

2. remove the discharge ring
3. slow the purifier to its proper speed
4. put in an additional discharge ring
Answer Key
1. reprime the purifier with sealing water

2. oil will be lost through the water discharge ports
3. reprime the purifier
Compared to ram type gear the rotary vane type gear occupies less space.
1. True 1
False
What will happen if there is a sudden power failure in case of single failure criterion system?
2. 1
1. It will turn to an angle of 35 degrees
2. It will remain locked in its last position.
Rotary vane steering gear does not require rudder carrier bearing.
3. True 1
False
With respect to rotary vane steering gear state:

a. The advantages and disadvantages when compared to ram steering gear.
b. The purpose of telemotor limit stops and the angle from mid position that the limit should be set.
4. c. What acts as rudder stops, their purpose and the angles from mid position that the rudder stops 3
should be set?
d. The features in the design that allow the rudder stops to be separated when they made contact.
Answer Key
1. TRUE
3. TRUE
1. a.
With respect to rotary vane steering gear, state the advantages and
disadvantages
when compared to ram steering gear.
Advantages
Rotary vane steering gear can be fitted without a rudder carrier.

The gear applies a pure torque to the stock, eliminating any transverse loading on the
rudder
bearings.
They are compact, hence are useful with twin rudder applications.
It saves weight.
Initial cost is less.
Disadvantages
Efficient seal is difficult to achieve especially at higher pressures of 90 bar and above.
Mechanical advantage is one, when compared with rapson slide which is 1.53.
It has a leakage path from high to low pressure side at higher pressures.
It is limited to ships requiring low rudder torque.
4. 1. b.
With respect to rotary vane steering gear, state the purpose of telemotor
limit stops
and the angle from mid position that the limit should be set.
The purpose of the telemotor stop is to limit the rudder movement. The limitation angle
is 35°. The
telemotor stops are fi tted to the telemotor receiver, which does not
permit further stroking of the
steering gear pump beyond 35° helm. This is true
even when the telemotor transmitter is set for a
higher value inadvertently.
1. c.
With respect to rotary vane steering gear, state what acts as rudder stops,
their
purpose and the angles from mid position that the rudder stops
should be set?
Vanes themselves act as rudder stops. Rotation is prevented by anchor brackets and
dowel pins.
1. d.
With respect to rotary vane steering gear, state the features in the design
that allow
the rudder stops to be separated when they made contact.
Steel sealing strips backed by synthetic rubber are fitted into grooves along the working
faces of rotor
and stator vanes.
The vanes are manufactured from spheroidal graphite cast iron and secured to the cast
steel rotor and
cast steel stator by high tensile steel bolts and dowels. Additionally,
rotary vanes are keyed. Fixed
vanes act as stoppers. Hence, securing of moving and fixed
vanes is critical.
header tanks for stern tube lub oil system is
1. 1
1. provided below the water line
2. provided 2 to 3 meters above water line.
Lips seals are made up of
2. 1
1. Natural rubber.
2. Nitrile rubber.
The lip seals dissipate heat by method of
3. 1. Conduction 1
2. Convection
3. Radiation.
Sealing arrangement for stern tube bearings are provided to prevent
4. 1. Water ingress into the system. 1

2. Lubricating oil escaping into the sea.
3. All of the above
Which of the following statements describes the purpose of the split inflatable seal installed aft of the
primary seal assembly for the propeller shaft?
5. 1. To serve as a seal when adding packing to the stuffing box. 2

2. To eliminate leakage via the propeller shaft when the shaft is not rotating.
3. To allow repair or replacement of the primary seal elements when the ship is waterborne.
4. To provide a ready means for the entry of cooling water.
Answer Key
1. provided 2 to 3 meters above water line.

2. Nitrile rubber.
3. Convection
4. All of the above
5. To allow repair or replacement of the primary seal elements when the ship is waterborne.
New split seals are joined together by ____________.
1. Vulcanizing
1. 1
2. Press fit
3. By sealing chemical agent
The split seals are joined using ____________.
1. Press fit
2. 1
2. Special tool
3. By sealing chemical agent
Stern tube seals are replaced by ___________.
1. Removal of tail shaft only.

3. 1
2. Without removal of tail shaft
3. With or without removal of tail shaft
In order to join the seal the vulcanising machine should have __________.
1. Electrical supply
4. 1
2. Heater
3. Sealing agent
4. All of the above
Answer Key
1. Vulcanizing
2. Special tool
3. With or without removal of tail shaft
4. All of the above
Oil lubricated stern tube system depends upon
1. 1. Hydrodynamic lubrication. 2
2. Hydrostatic lubrication.
Two important features of oil lubricated stern tube
2. 1. Quantity of oil and lub oil pressure. 2

2. Oil retention and sea water exclusion.
Circulation of the oil in the inboard end of a oil lubricated stern tube is achieved
3. 1
1. By forced convection
2. By natural convection.
Weardown of the white metal of the liner should not exceed
4. 1. 2 mm 2
2. 10 mm
The limitations of a bearing are
5. 1. The load it can withstand without metal cracking or squeezing out. 1

2. The temperature it can withstand without melting
Shaft liners are fitted onto the
6. 1
1. Stern tube
2. Propeller boss.
Shaft liners are fitted in
7. 1
1. Oil lubricated bearings
2. Water lubricated bearings.
Answer Key
1. Hydrostatic lubrication.
2. Oil retention and sea water exclusion.
3. By natural convection.
4. 2 mm
6. Propeller boss.
7. Oil lubricated bearings
1. 1
1. Inboard gland
2. Lignum vitae staves
3. Propeller
4. Shaft
The area indicated by the number “VII” is known as the _______________.
2. 1
1. Propeller shaft
2. Tail shaft
3. Turbine shaft
4. Thrust shaft
1. Liner
2. Inboard gland
sea water entering the aft end of the tail shaft
4. 1. supports galvanic corrosion 2

2. protects galvanic corrosion.
1. Propeller
2. Stern frame
3. Liner
The bronze liner fitted
6. 1
1. Increases the wastage of steel shaft.
2. Reduces the wastage of steel shaft.
Which number represents the "Shaft" in the illustration given below?
7. 1
1. II
2. I
3. IV
4. III
Sea water lubricated stern tube is
8. 1. Cast steel construction. 2

2. Cast iron construction.
In a sea water lubricated stern tube water
9. 1. Enters the stern tube and lubricates the shaft 1

2. Enters the stern tube and cools the shaft
3. All of the above
1. Stern frame
2. Liner
4. Inboard gland
The extended length stern boss is provided in the stern frame
11. 1
1. To provide good support.
2. To carry lengthy tail shaft.
1. Inboard gland
3. Liner
4. Shaft
Which of the following actions, pertaining to saltwater lubricated stern tube stuffing boxes, is
usually observed when the ship is expected to be in port for an extended period?
13. 1. The stuffing box is continually flushed. 2

2. The drain connection is left opened.
3. The stuffing box gland is tightened.
4. The packing is adjusted for greater cooling or replaced.
From the illustration given below, identify the name of the marking “III”.
14. 1
1. Lock nut
2. Propeller nut
3. Stud nut
4. Cap nut
Answer Key
1. Propeller
2. Tail shaft
3. Inboard gland
4. supports galvanic corrosion
5. Stern frame
6. Reduces the wastage of steel shaft.
7. IV
8. Cast iron construction.
9. All of the above
11. To provide good support.
12. Liner
13. The stuffing box gland is tightened.
14. Propeller nut
The stern tube is normally constructed of
1. 1. Stainless steel 1
2. Aluminium
3. Cast Iron.
The aft end of the stern tube is supplied with a bearing
2. 1
1. Made of bronze
2. Made of lignum vitae.
Modern VLCC’S ship use
3. 1
1. Conventional oil lubricate stern tube
2. Modern water tolerant oil lubricated stern tube.
Answer Key
1. Cast Iron.
2. Made of lignum vitae.
3. Modern water tolerant oil lubricated stern tube.
Pitch of the propeller can be altered in a
1. 1. Controllable pitch propeller. 2

2. Fixed pitch propeller.
Identify the type of propeller from the illustration below
2. 1
1. Ducted Propeller
2. Controllable Pitch Propeller
3. Left handed Propeller
4. Three-Bladed Solid Propeller
A controllable pitch propeller on a diesel driven vessel eliminates the need for __________.
1. Friction clutches
3. 2
2. Disconnect clutches
3. Reversing engines.
4. Reduction gears.
Low speed handling and performance is better in
4. 1. Four blade propeller 1

2. Three blade propeller
3. Five blade propeller
5. Identify the type of propeller from the illustration below 1
1. Rolls Royce Propeller

4. Ducted Propeller
Better fuel economy is achieved with
6. 1. Five blade propeller 1

2. Four blade propeller
3. Three blade propeller.
Propeller is connected to the
7. 1. Intermediate shaft 2
2. Propeller shaft.
8. Identify the type of propeller from the illustration below 1

4. Ducted Propeller
Manufacturing cost is higher for
9. 1. 3 blade propeller 1
10. Identify the type of propeller marked "D" from the illustration below 1

3. Ducted Propeller
Answer Key
1. Controllable pitch propeller.

2. Left handed Propeller
3. Reversing engines.
7. Propeller shaft.
10. Ducted Propeller
Which letter represents the "Nitrile tyre" in the illustration given below?
1. 1
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. D
Which letter represents the "Stud" in the illustration given below?
2. 1
1. C
2. E
3. D
4. F
3. The part “I” indicates _________. 1
1. Thrust block
2. Wooden block
3. Clutch block
What does figure “F” represent?
4. 1
1. Locking ring
2. Discharge ring
3. Loading ring
4. Seal ring
5. How is the propeller fitted onto the tailshaft referring to the illustration below? 1
1. Propellor is fitted to the tail shaft with a key and taper of propeller
2. Propellor is fitted by wet method by injecting oil between shaft taper and the propeller shaft
3. Propellor is fitted to the shaft by screw thread
How is the propellor fitted onto the tailshaft referring to the illustration below?
6. 1
1. Propellor is fitted to the tail shaft with a key and taper of propeller
3. Propellor is fitted to the shaft by friction method
7. Which letter represents the "Propeller boss" in the illustration given below? 1
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. D
Friction increases between the propeller boss and the shaft in
8. 1
1. In dry push method
2. In wet push method.
What does “B” stand for in the image given below?
9. 1
1. Hexagon nuts
2. Propeller boss
3. Socket plug
4. Stud
10. Identify the part marked as “B” in the illustration below? 1
1. Pressure gauge
2. Propeller hub
3. Oil reservoir
4. Propeller shaft
The area indicated by the letter “G” is known as the _______________.
11. 1
1. Sprayer plate
2. Withdrawal plate
3. Base plate
4. Cover plate
The material used as sleeve in a sleeve fitting is
12. 1
1. Aluminium
2. Cast iron
13. What does item “H” refer to the illustration given below? 1
1. Thrust shaft
2. Intermediate shaft
3. Tailshaft
4. Turbine shaft
Propellers are fitted to the tailshaft with a
14. 1. Key 1
2. Taper of propeller
3. All of the above
In the wet method oil is injected between
15. 1. Propeller hub and the bore of the propeller 2

2. Shaft taper and bore of the propeller.
In dry method
16. 1. Conventional propeller nut is used for mounting and removal of propeller. 2
2. Pilgrim nut is used for mounting and removal of propeller.
The methods of fitting propeller are
1. Wet method
17. 1
2. Dry method
3. Combination of dry and wet method
4. All of the above
18. What does “E” indicate in the illustration given below? 1
1. Stud nut
2. Hexagon nuts
3. Cap nut
4. Lock nut
Answer Key
1. C
2. D
3. Wooden block
4. Loading ring
7. A
8. In dry push method
9. Socket plug
10. Propeller hub
11. Withdrawal plate
12. Cast iron
13. Tailshaft
15. Shaft taper and bore of the propeller.
16. Pilgrim nut is used for mounting and removal of propeller.
18. Hexagon nuts
The thruster unit is controlled
1. From the engine control room

1. 2
2. From the bridge
3. from the steering gear room.
The thruster unit is located
1. Above the water line

2. 2
2. One half above the water line and the other half below the waterline.
3. Below the water line.
Thruster unit is built in the
1. Aft of the ship

3. 2. Midship 2
3. Bow of the ship
The bow thruster unit is more effective
4. 1. When the ship is stationary 2

2. When the ship is moving.
Emergernce of the thruster above the water line
5. 1. Will not affect the propeller and the hull structure 2

2. Will create adverse effects on the propeller and the hull structure around it.
The propellers in the thrust unit
1. Create thrust in the port direction.

6. 2. Create thrust in the forward and aft direction 2
3. Create thrust in the starboard direction.
4. Create thrust in both port and starboard direction.
Answer Key
1. From the bridge

2. Below the water line.
3. Bow of the ship
4. When the ship is stationary
5. Will create adverse effects on the propeller and the hull structure around it.
6. Create thrust in both port and starboard direction.
In which of the three steering modes, is there no feedback from hunting gear?
1. 1
1. Auto pilot
2. Follow up
Why is the rudder angle limited to 35 degrees?
2. 1
1. Above 35 degrees the lift force drops and drag force increases to a great extent.
2. Above 35 degrees the ship capsizes
Which of the following component is a hydro foil section?
3. 1
1. Rudder
2. Piston
Which component prevents the rudder from exceeding the maximum angle of 35 degrees?
4. 1
1. The telemotor stops
2. Physical stops attached to the post
5. With regards to the illustrated rudder, the pivot point and connection to the vessel is provided by __________. 2
1. Rudder stock
2. Stern post
3. Gudgeon pin and pintle.
4. Clevis post.
What are the two components of the normal rudder force?
6. 1
1. Lift force and drag force
2. Horizontal and vertical
The illustrated rudder shown is commonly referred to as a ________.
7. 1
1. Spade rudder
2. Unbalanced rudder
3. Semi-balanced rudder
4. Full balanced rudder
Name the angle subtended between the rudder and the water flow.
8. 1
1. Angle of incidence
2. Mach angle
9. Name the component which is directly attached to the rudder and is used for turning it. 1
1. Connecting rod
2. Rudder stock
The rudder shown in the illustration is correctly termed a/an __________.
10. 1
1. Balanced rudder
2. Semi balanced rudder.
4. Contra-guide rudder.
Which type of rudder is used for best manoeuvrability?
1. Balanced
11. 1
2. Unbalanced.
3. Semi balanced
4. Spaded.
Answer Key
1. Auto pilot
3. Rudder
5. Gudgeon pin and pintle.
6. Lift force and drag force
7. Semi-balanced rudder
8. Angle of incidence
9. Rudder stock
11. Semi balanced
In which of the three steering modes, is there no feedback from hunting gear?
1. 1
1. Auto pilot
2. Follow up
Why is the rudder angle limited to 35 degrees?
2. 1
2. Above 35 degrees the ship capsizes.
What is the effect on steering gear on a ship equipped with an electro-hydraulic steering gear, when
the helm is turned on the navigation bridge?
3. 1. The pumps go to full stroke. 2

2. The six-way valve aligns itself with the running pump.
3. The synchronous receiver turns, duplicating the helm motion.
4. Both port and starboard cables are energized.
Under normal operating conditions, the rudder is hydraulically locked unless __________.
1. The manual trick wheel is engaged for steering

4. 2
2. The variable stroke pump is off stroke
3. A rudder order is given by the control system,
4. An electric power system failure occurs at the steering gear.
Which component prevents the rudder from exceeding the maximum angle of 35 degrees?
5. 1
2. Physical stops attached to the post
Answer Key
1. Auto pilot
3. The synchronous receiver turns, duplicating the helm motion.
4. A rudder order is given by the control system,
Which is more suitable between the “rotary vane” and” four rams” system of steering gear?
1. rotary vane is simple in operation and efficient

1. 2. four rams are more sturdy and complex 1
3. rotary vane takes less space than four rams
4. four rams is expensive than rotary vane
What is the difference between two and four ram steering system?
1. four rams are stronger than two rams

2. four rams are expensive than two rams
2. 1
3. Two ram steering has two ram for operation and Four ram steering has Four rams. Four ram is
safer than two ram and more efficient
4. four rams consume less oil than two rams
Answer Key
1. rotary vane is simple in operation and efficient

Two ram steering has two ram for operation and Four ram steering has Four rams. Four ram is safer than
2.
two ram and more efficient
What is redundancy requirement in % for steering gear units in passenger ships?
1. 50
1. 2
2. 75
3. 100
4. 25.
Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the __________.
1. Rapson slide indicator.

2. 2
2. Telemotor position.
3. Rudder angle indicator
4. Follow-up gear.
Steering gear: What is the maximum time limit set for alternative power supply to be provided
automatically in seconds, either from the emergency source of electrical power, or, from an
independent source of power located in the steering gear compartment
3. 1
1. 60.
2. 120
3. 45
4. 90
The purpose of safety valve in steering gear is to:
1. Prevent breaking of rams and vanes.

4. 2
2. To prevent increase in oil temperature.
3. To relieve excess pressure.
4. To maintain oil viscosity.
Electric and electro-hydraulic steering gear motors are required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR)
to be ____________.
5. 1. Protected by a circuit breaker set at 125% and a thermal overload device 2

2. Provided with a running motor overcurrent protection device.
3. Served by two feeder circuits.
4. Served by a single two conductor cable.
An electric motor failure in an electro-hydraulic steering gear system would cause the rudder to
__________.
6. 1. Swing to 35° port or starboard. 2

2. Swing up against the rudder emergency stops.
3. Remain locked in its last position.
4. Move to the midship position automatically.
Answer Key
1. 100
2. Rudder angle indicator
3. 45
4. To relieve excess pressure.
5. Served by two feeder circuits.
6. Remain locked in its last position.
What is the material used in pump casing of variable delivery pumps?
1. 1
1. Cast iron
2. Stainless steel
Which pump is more suited for operation at higher pressure?
2. 1
1. Axial pump
2. Radial pump
What are the two types of variable delivery pumps?
3. 1
1. Centrifugal and centripetal pumps
2. Radial and axial pumps
What are the two types of pumps used in steering gear system?
4. 1
1. Variable delivery, reversible pumps and fixed delivery non reversible pumps
When is the variable displacement pump in an electro-hydraulic steering gear system put on stroke?
1. When the helm is at any angle other than amidships.

5. 2
2. When the six-way valve is opened.
3. When the rudder angle is different from the position of the helm.
4. When the ram relief valves lift.
What is the material used in slipper and guide of variable delivery pumps?
6. 1
1. High tensile machinery chrome steel
2. Aluminium alloy
How is the direction of flow reversed in a radial piston pump?
7. 1
1. By tilting the swash plate forward or backward
2. By moving the floating ring to left or right
Answer Key
1. Cast iron
2. Axial pump
5. When the rudder angle is different from the position of the helm.
If a radial piston hydraulic pump fails to deliver rated fluid volume, the cause can be:
1. Contaminated fluid
1. 1
2. Pitted thrust rings
3. Obstructed suction passage.
4. Damaged pintle bearings.
How is the direction of flow reversed in a radial piston pump?
2. 1
1. By tilting the swash plate forward or backward
Answer Key
1. Obstructed suction passage.

A casing drain is provided for axial piston and bent axis variable stroke pumps to ________.
1. Vent off any accumulated air from the system

2. Drain off any accumulated water from the pump casing prior to its being started
1. 2
3. Allows for lubrication of pistons and slipper pads prevents moving over of swash plate from
center.
4. Prevent damage due to agitation and overheating of oil accumulated in the casing as a result
of minor internal leakage
What are the two types of variable delivery pumps?
2. 1
An axial piston pump differs from a radial piston pump, as the pistons of an axial piston pump are
positioned ____________.
3. 1. Radially from the shaft 1

2. Parallel to each other but at right angles to the shaft.
3. Parallel to each other and to the shaft.
4. At an angle to each other and to the shaft.
The usual number of single-acting pistons used in a variable stroke axial-piston pump used for
steering gears is _________.
4. 1. 2 or 4 1
2. 6 or 8
3. Odd.
4. 10 or 12.
What is the material used in slipper and guide of variable delivery pumps?
5. 1
2. Aluminium alloy
What are the two types of pumps used in steering gear system?
6. 1
a. Make a simple sketch of a constant speed Hele-Shaw pump or axial piston pump suitable for
hydraulic steering gear.
7. b. Describe the pump and its principle. 5
c. What are the characteristics of the pump that make it suitable for use in steering gear system?
8. In steering hydraulic machinery systems the Swash plate hydraulic pump and motor is in common 5
use. Regarding the Swash plate pump:
a. State its advantages compared to the Hele-Shaw pump.
b. Sketch a simple diagram of a Swash plate pump.
c. Describe its operation.
d. Why are hydraulic pumps provided with an odd number of cylinders?
What is the material used in pump casing of variable delivery pumps?
9. 1
1. Cast iron
2. Stainless steel
Which pump is more suited for operation at higher pressure?
10. 1
1. Axial pump
2. Radial pump
Answer Key
1. Allows for lubrication of pistons and slipper pads prevents moving over of swash plate from center.
3. Parallel to each other and to the shaft.
4. Odd.
7. 2. a.
Make a simple sketch of a constant speed Hele-Shaw pump or axial
piston pump
suitable for hydraulic steering gear.
2. b.
Describe the pump and its principle.
The pump is described as follows:
Pump is normally driven by a constant speed electric motor.

The pistons are fitted in a row of radial cylinders.
Through the outer end of each piston is a gudgeon pin that attaches the slippers to the
piston.
The slippers are free to oscillate on their gudgeon pins.
Gudgeon pins fit into circular grooves in the circular floating ring. This ring is free to
rotate for
being mounted on ball bearings.
Ball bearings are housed in guide blocks. The guide blocks bear on tracks are controlled
by the
actuating spindles, which pass through the pump casing.
The movement of the floating ring by the actuating control spindle from the central
position
causes pistons to reciprocate in the radial cylinders so that a pumping action
takes place.
The direction of the pumping depends upon whether the movement is to the left or
right of the
central or neutral position.
The eccentricity between the rotor and stator not only decides the quantity of the oil
discharged
but also the direction of fl ow. Direction of fl ow is dependant on which side
the circulating
floating ring happens to move.
2. c.
What are the characteristics of the pump that make it suitable for use in
steering gear
system?
Hele-Shaw pump is a radial piston variable delivery pump, which is capable of maintaining
fl ow in
either direction for a given set of pipelines, despite running in same direction.
Since such a reversal of flow is required in the steering system, this pump fulfils the
demand
completely just by shifting of floating lever.
This design is capable of developing greater pressures in the range of 180 bar with
adequate
volumetric displacement.
8. 1. a.
In steering hydraulic machinery systems the Swash plate hydraulic pump
and motor is
in common use. Regarding the Swash plate pump, state its
advantages compared to the
Hele-Shaw pump.
The axial piston pump (variable stroke gear pump) pump has some advantages over the
Hele-
Shaw.The centre of gravity of the Hele-Shaw plungers is at a relatively larger
distance from the
centre of rotation and this leads to relatively large centrifugal forces.
The axial piston pump plungers have a centre of gravity close to the centre of rotation
creating
relatively small centrifugal forces. This means lesser inertia such that the axial
piston pump system
can be run at much higher speeds and occupies less space whilst
doing the same work as the Hele-
Shaw.
Due to lesser centrifugal forces, the wear on the axial piston pump pistons can be
lesser than that for
the radial type pistons. Thus for the same amount of pressures swash
plate pump can be operated at
much higher speeds and they occupy lesser space than
Hele-Shaw pumps.
1. b.
and motor
is in common use. Regarding the Swash plate pump, sketch a
simple diagram of a Swash
plate pump.
1. c.
and motor is
in common use. Regarding the Swash plate pump, describe
its operation.
This pump is a variable delivery pump and islocated/immersed vertically inside an oil
fi lled
replenishing tank so that all parts of the pump are submerged in a bath of oil. It
is driven by a
constant speed electric motor the volume and direction of the oil fl ow being
controlled by means of a
stroke control lever.
This pump utilises a similar principle to that of radial piston pump or Hele-Shaw but has
an axial
piston drive from a tilting swash plate. The swash plate is stationary. The slipper
disc assembly
rotates along with the cylinder block. Slipper pads bear against the swash
plate face and the plungers
are driven in and out axially for each revolution of the rotor.
One direction of tilt becomes suction on one side of the horizontal centre line and the
other becomes
discharge on the other side of this centre line.
For the opposite direction of the tilt, the direction of the fl ow is reversed. The quantity
of discharge
depends on the angle of tilt. In mid position, no relative movement exists
between the piston and the
end plate, hence no pumping action takes place.
1. d.
and motor
is in common use. Regarding the Swash plate pump, describe
its operation.
Axial piston pump and Hele-Shaw pumps have an odd number of cylinders because this
gives better
hydrodynamic balancing, better starting torque and even hydraulic fl ow.
In short there is no
intermittent fl ow or pulsation in pressures.
9. Cast iron
10. Axial pump
What is the ram casing material?
1. manganese steel
1. 2. cast iron 1
3. Cast Steel
4. bronze
What is the material used for the cylinders in ram steering gear?
2. 1
1. Forged steel with ground finish
2. Mild nickel chrome steel
What is the alternative type of carrier bearing?

3. 2
a. Sketch a two ram type hydraulic steering gear with a single electro hydraulic pumping unit. Show
the hunting gear arrangement and indicate the position of valves.
4. 3
b. Describe the working of two ram steering gear.
Overall length of pairs of rams is reduced in the following tiller design of steering gear
arrangement:--
5. 1. Conventional tiller design 2

2. Round arm tiller design
3. Forked tiller design.
4. Rotary tiller design.
What type of grease is used for lubricating the thrust face?

6. 2
With respect to hydraulic steering gear explain each of the following:
a. i. Factors that may contribute to the failure of a pipe coupling
ii. Why is it of utmost importance that in the event of a pipe coupling failure immediately centring
or locking of the rudder or isolating of the affected
7. area is achieved? 3
iii. The problems associated with locking a rudder in an emergency at sea.
iv. Why hydraulic locking is usually preferred to mechanical methods
b. State the required characteristics for a steering gear hydraulic fluid.
What is the use of cylinders and ram in a ram type steering gear?
8. 1. Cylinder houses the rams and converts the hydraulic pressure to linear motion of the ram. 2
2. Cylinders and ram are used as feedback device.
a. Suggest four reasons why the temperature of the oil in the steering gear system may become
excessive.
b. With reference to steering gears, explain how the ship may be steered in each of the following
circumstances.
9. 3
i. Destruction by fire of a primary power supply.
ii. Destruction by fire of the telemotor.
iii. Bearing failure in the running pump.
10. a. State why each of the following is fitted to the steering system: 3
i. Shock / buffer relief valves.
ii. Steering gear stops and limits.
iii. Rudder stops
b. State why there is a difference in helm angles from hard over to hard over.
What is its advantage?

11. 2
What is the material used for the cylinders in ram steering gear?
12. 1. Forged steel – ground finish. 2

Where is the pressure relief system fitted in the steering system?
1. they are fitted on each ram cylinder casing

13. 2. they are fitted in the hydraulic line 1
3. they are fitted on the oil tank
4. they are fitted in the pumps
What is the maximum angle on either side the steering system works?
1. 25 degree
14. 2. 45-degree 1
3. 30-degree
4. maximum 37.5 degree on either side
Answer Key
1. Cast Steel
3. The alternative type of rudder carrier bearing is the one with conical seat.
1. a.
Sketch a two ram type hydraulic steering gear with a single electro hydraulic
pumping
unit. Show the hunting gear arrangement and indicate the position
of valves.
4.
1. b.
Describe the working of two ram steering gear.
Two ram hydraulic steering gear is described as follows:
The pump unit delivers high pressure hydraulic oil to rams. Rams are directly coupled
to the
rudder stock by the tiller arm fork type or cross head, forming the actuator
mechanism. Refer
to the sketch above.
Consider a movement of steering wheel to starboard. The ship should head to
starboard. The
rudder movement will be to starboard. The rams will move from
starboard to port, that is from
right to left.
The steering telemotor moves from right to left. Since rams are mounted on the joist
bracket
through 180°, the movement on the sketch shown will be from left to right
The telemotor receiver motion is transmitted to a lever, whose fulcrum is fixed at the
centre.
The other end of the lever x moves from right to left.
The movement of the lever end x from right to left actuates the control lever or pump
stroking
lever.
The pump is put on stroke and pump delivers oil to the starboard ram and draws from
the port
ram.
The rams start moving from right to left along the guide joist, as pressurised oil pushes
the
starboard ram.
5. Forked tiller design.

6. It should be water resistant and calcium soap based with graphite.
7. 4. a. i.
With respect to hydraulic steering gear explain each factors that may
contribute to
the failure of a pipe coupling
Factors that contribute to the failure of a pipe coupling are:
Screwed unions are not permitted and pipelines should be sufficiently strong with
flanged
connections.
Material failure of the pipelines.
Steering gear compartment is usually subjected to juddering or vibrations, and if the
pipelines
are not secured properly by proper clamping it may lead to failure due to
vibrations.
Fretting damage, due to relative movements of pipeline because of loosely fitted
clamps.
Corrosion damage to pipelines.
All stud fastening should be of same materials, correct size spring washers and lock
plates.
Tensioning of the studs should be uniform and even.
4. a. ii.
Why is it of utmost importance that in the event of a pipe coupling failure
immediately centring or locking of the rudder or isolating of the affected
area is achieved?
In the event of sudden loss of hydraulic fluid from the working system, the inherent
hydraulic lock is
lost and if buffeted by heavy seas the rudder may start swinging wildly.
This will cause sudden
change in the direction of the ship, which may prove dangerous in
navigable waters.
4. a. iii.
The problems associated with locking a rudder in an emergency at sea.
Hydraulic locking and pressure tightness are inherent to the system using an
incompressible hydraulic
fluid. Provisions such as buffer relief valves are provided to
override and give the rudder, relief from
buffering forces imposed on the rudder by
heavy seas.
If the system is damaged to such an extent, that hydraulic locking of rudder is possible
with no relief
provided then chances of rudder stock suffering damage is imminent.
4. a. iv.
Why hydraulic locking is usually preferred to mechanical methods?
Hydraulic locking whenever possible is superior to mechanical locking because of the
quickness of the
action, in operating isolation valves.
Shock loading can seriously damage the mechanical braking arrangements.
4. b.
Why hydraulic locking is usually preferred to mechanical methods?
Properties of good hydraulic oil are as follows:
Low pour point

Non sludge forming
Non corrosive
Good lubricating properties
High fl ash point
Low viscosity
Typical values are: density 880 kg/m3 at 15.5°C, viscosity of 12°C St at 50°C,
closed fl
ash point of 150°C, pour point at 30°C.
8. Cylinder houses the rams and converts the hydraulic pressure to linear motion of the ram.
9. 3. a.
Suggest four reasons why the temperature of the oil in the steering gear
system may
become excessive
Four reasons for the rise in temperature of the oil are:
Excessive working of the steering may cause heating of hydraulic oil.

Fouling of cooling arrangements, for example the fi nned and radiating surfaces in the
tanks.
Insufficient oil in the system due to excessive leakage can cause a rise in temperature.
Air in the hydraulic system or air pockets in the cooling water system.
Wrong choice of unsuitable oil would lead to rise in temperature of oil in the steering
gear
system
3. b.
With reference to steering gears, explain how the ship may be steered in
each of the
following circumstances?
The main power supply cables to the prime mover motors of the steering gear pumps are
routed such
that they can be fed through conduit line laid both in port and starboard side
of the ship. Therefore
there are chances of an unavailability of power due to destruction of
electric cables.
3. b. i.
With reference to steering gears, explain how the ship may be steered
in each
destruction by fire of a primary power supply.
In case a primary cable is destroyed, power can still be fed through the emergency line,
which is
mandatory for at least one electric motor.
3. b. ii.
in each of by
fi re of the telemotor.
Telemotor failure normally renders the system ineffective except that a special provision
in the form
of an emergency steering control is available. Emergency steering control
is made available by
engaging a detent pin to the pump stroking mechanism after
disconnecting the telemotor controls.
3. b. iii.
in each of
bearing failure in the running pump.
A bearing failure in the running pump will necessitate the shut down of that unit and
start up of the
standby electric motor.
10. 4. a. i.
State why each of the following is fitted to the steering system:
Shock / buffer relief
valves
Hydraulic shock relief valves or buffer valves are explained as follows:
The rudder is attached to the rudder stock and moved by a tiller. Excessive pressure
may be
built up in the system, by wave force on the rudder. This force will be
transmitted to the ram
through the tiller.
If the rudder is subjected to heavy buffeting forces arising from rough sea, the rudder
might
fail structurally.
This is avoided by having hydraulic shock buffer valves incorporated in the system such
that the
rudder is permitted to yield,v when it is hit by heavy seas.
Hydraulic shock relief valves or buffer valves are set at high pressure such that it
releases the
excessive pressure build up in the system due to buffeting forces.
The inherent hydraulic lock of the system is overcome temporarily to avoid serious
damage to
the rudder and hydraulic pipelines
4. a. ii.
State why each of the following is fi tted to the steering system:
Steering gear
stops and limits
Steering gear stops and limits are as follows,
The telemotor stops are fi tted to the receiving telemotor, which do not permit further
stroking
of the steering gear pump beyond 35° helm. This is true even when the
transmitted telemotor
is set for a higher value inadvertently.
Another limit is in the form of ball valve incorporated within the ram cylinder. When
the ram
moves over the protruding spring loaded ball, a relieving passage is opened,
thereby relieving
the oil pressure, thus limiting the ram travel.
4. a. iii.
State why each of the following is fi tted to the steering system:
Rudder stops
It is a physical stop in the form of a material obstruction. It is built in the stern post
carrying the
rudder, with which the rudder comes into hard contact and be prevented
from further swing. This is
necessary in the case of total steering failure.
Rudder stops are arranged as follows:
Angle from
Position of stop Position of stop
centreline
35°C On telemotor system Normal limit
Prevents rudder striking external

37°C On steering gear
stops
External, on stern
39°C Emergency stop to protect propeller
frame
These limits refer to rudders of traditional design and are governed by the physical
layout of the
rudder, actuator and the stall angles of the rudder. i.e. the angle at which
lift force or turning moment
is reduced or lost with increasing angle of attack.
4. b.
State why there is a difference in helm angles from hard over to hard over.
In the
regulations for the steering gear ability, it is stated that 35° on one
side and 30° on the
other side.
The small difference in the degree of movement is to allow for difficulty in judging, when
the final
position has reached, due to feedback from the hunting gear. As the rudder
approaches the desired
angular position, the feedback from the hunting gear shortens the
pump stroke.
11. The advantage is that the seat and the side wall will locate the rudder stock.
13. they are fitted on each ram cylinder casing
14. maximum 37.5 degree on either side
How is the weight of rudder taken up?

1. 2
What is the use of cylinders and ram in a ram type steering gear?
2. 1
1. Cylinder houses the rams and converts the hydraulic pressure to linear motion of the ram
2. cylinders and ram are used as feedback device
State and explain the purpose of:

a. Hydraulic shock buffer valves.
3. b. Oil reservoir. 3
c. Hunting gear.
Which valve is operated during emergency steering?
1. Relief valve.
4. 1
2. Directional v/v.
3. Bypass valve.
4. All control valves.
Emergency steering testing is carried out :
1. Weekly
5. 1
2. Monthly
3. At least once in 3 months
4. Before arrival and departure.
State the general requirements for steering gears, based on regulations.

b. State the rules for steering gear testing and emergency steering.
6. c. State the regulations relating to the main and auxiliary steering gear with reference to rudder 3
angle and time of operation.
The shock received by the system due to the wave impact on the rudder is taken care by
________________.
7. 2
1. Shock Buffer valves (Relief valves)
2. Isolating valves
In case of control failure from the bridge, from where do you operate the emergency steering post?
8. 1
1. Engine control room
2. Steering gear compartment
When the automatic isolation system in a steering gear will get actuated?
9. 1
1. During heavy weather, when the ship is not able to maintain the course
2. When there is a failure in the hydraulic system resulting in loss of oil
10. With reference to ram type steering gear explain: 5

a. The function of Rapson slide.
b. Why should the minimum number of rams be two?
c. How are the oil leakages from the system compensated?
d. How a four ram steering gear can be operated by two rams only?
e. Explain hunting gear with some simple sketches.
What do you mean by single failure criteria?

11. 2
With reference to electro hydraulic steering gear,
a. Discuss the possible reason for and effects of the following:
i. Excessive hunting.
12. 5
ii. Sluggish operation.
b. Explain the reasons for the special properties required for the hydraulic oil in the steering gear.
Which components protects the rudder from the wave impact on the rudder?
13. 1
1. Relief valves
2. Isolating valves
What will be the result when one pump fails in a dual electro hydraulic steering units?
14. 1
1. The Standby unit will operate the steering gear.
2. The steering will fail.
The automatic isolation system, in a steering gear is actuated _____________.
15. 1. When there is a failure in the hydraulic system resulting in loss of oil 2
2. During heavy weather, when the ship is not able to maintain the course.
In case of control failure from the bridge, the ship can be steered from the emergency steering post
located at________________.
16. 2
1. Engine control room
What will happen if a leakage develops in the electro hydraulic steering gear?
17. 1
1. Hydraulic pump will get damaged
2. Automatic isolation of the leaking system
Answer Key
1. Rudder weight is taken by thrust face rudder carrier bearing.

2. Cylinder houses the rams and converts the hydraulic pressure to linear motion of the ram
2. a.
State and explain the purpose of hydraulic shock relief valves or buffer
valves.
Hydraulic shock relief valves or buffer valves are explained as follows:
The rudder is attached to the rudder stock and moved by a tiller. Excessive pressure
may be built
up in the system, by wave force on the rudder. This force will be
transmitted to the ram through
the tiller.
If the rudder is subjected to heavy buffeting forces arising from rough sea, the rudder
might fail
structurally.
This is avoided by having hydraulic shock buffer valves incorporated in the system such
that the
rudder is permitted to yield,v when it is hit by heavy seas.
Hydraulic shock relief valves or buffer valves are set at high pressure such that it
releases the
excessive pressure build up in the system due to buffeting forces.
The inherent hydraulic lock of the system is overcome temporarily to avoid serious
damage to the
rudder and hydraulic pipelines
2. b.
State and explain the purpose of oil reservoir.
Depending upon the particular system, the functions of the reservoir include the
following:
Providing a safe working level and continuously available source oil for the pump
suction on open
loop systems.
To act as a make up supply and as a receiver for excess fluid due to expansion in closed
systems.
3.
For purging out intruded air. For this purpose it should have an excess capacity of 25%
above its
normal working level, so as to present a free surface to clean atmospheric air.
Dissipating the heat generated in the pumps and systems not fitted with coolers.
Providing a long residential time for the settling of contaminants.
Housing alarm and control arrangements for coping with leakages from the system.
2. c.
State and explain the purpose of Hunting gear.
The hunting gear serves the following purposes:
The hunting gear in a steering gear system is essentially an error feedback device,
trying to
correct the error, and bring the existing angular position of the rudder in
conformity with the
desired helm angle set at the bridge.
It is a simple mechanical device which uses a floating lever. Floating lever has a
movable fulcrum.
One end of the hunting gear is connected to the tiller through the
buffer spring; the other end is
connected to the receiving telemotor. The fulcrum point
is connected to the pump stroking lever.
As the tiller moves, the cut-off linkage counter acts the movement and brings the
steering gear to
rest by restoring the pump to no stroke position.
In addition to its role as a follow up mechanism, the hunting gear also helps in bringing
the
rudder back to its normal helm, after it has yielded and moved under the impact of
heavy seas.
4. Bypass valve.
5. At least once in 3 months
6. 1. a.
State the general requirements for steering gears, based on regulations.
General requirements for steering gears are as follows:
Ships must have a main and an auxiliary steering gear, arranged so that failure of one
does not
render the other inoperative. An auxiliary steering gear need not be fitted,
if the main steering
gear has two or more identical power units. It is so arranged that
even after a single failure in its
piping system or one of its power units, the steering
capability can still be maintained.
The main steering gear must be able to steer the ship at maximum ahead service speed
and be
capable of putting the rudder from 35° on one side to 30° on the other side in
not more than 28
seconds, at the ship’s deepest draught.

The auxiliary steering gear must be capable of being brought speedily into operation
and be able
to put the rudder over from 15 on one side to 15° on the other side in
more than 60 seconds with
the ship at its deepest service draught and running ahead
greater than of one half of the
maximum service speed or 7 knots.
It must be possible to bring into operation the main and auxiliary steering power
units from the
navigating bridge. A power failure to anyone of the power units of the
steering gear or to its
control system must result in an audible and visual alarm on the
navigating bridge and the power
units must restart automatically when the power is
restored.
Steering gear control must be provided both on the bridge and in the steering gear
room for the
main steering. The main steering gear comprises of two or more identical
power units. The bridge
must have two independent control systems.
Auxiliary steering gear control must be provided in the steering gear room, where the
auxiliary
gear is power operated. The bridge must also have a control and should be
independent of the
main steering control system.
Hydraulic power systems must be provided with arrangements to maintain the
cleanliness of the
hydraulic fluid. A low level alarm must be fitted on each hydraulic
fluid to give an early audible
and visual indication in the bridge and in the engine room
of any hydraulic leakage.
Power operated steering gears require a storage tank arranged so that the
hydraulic systems can
be readily recharged from a position within the steering gear
compartment. The tank must have
sufficient capacity to recharge at least one power
actuating system.
Where the rudder stock is above 230 mm, there is an alternative power supply capable
of
providing power to operate the rudder automatically within 45 seconds.
1. b.
State the rules for steering gear testing and emergency steering.
Rules for emergency steering are as follows:
Except in the case of ships regularly engaged on short voyages, the steering gear
should be
thoroughly checked and tested within 12 h before departure. These tests
should include testing of
power unit, control system failure alarms, the emergency
power supply, automatic isolating
arrangements.
For ships regularly engaged on short voyages the aforesaid tests should be carried out
once in a
week.
Every three months an emergency steering drill should be held and should include
direct control
from within the steering compartment.
Use of communications procedure with the navigating bridge should be practised.
1. c.
State the regulations relating to the main and auxiliary steering gear with
reference to
rudder angle and time of operation.
Regulations relating to the main and auxiliary steering gear are as follows:
The main steering gear must be able to steer the ship at maximum ahead service speed
and be
capable of putting the rudder from 35° on one side to 30° on the other side in
not more than 28
seconds, at the ships deepest draught.
The auxiliary steering gear must be capable of being brought speedily into operation
and be able
to put the rudder over from 15° on one side to 15° on the other side in
more than 60 seconds
with the ship at its deepest service draught and running ahead
at a greater of one half of the
maximum service speed or 7 knots.
7. Shock Buffer valves (Relief valves)

10. 3. a.
With reference to ram type steering gear, explain the function of Rapson
slide.
Rapson slide converts the linear motion of the rams to the rotary motion of the rudder.
The torque
reaction from the rudder is taken by the tiller. The Rapson slide gear has the
highest mechanical
advantage. The mechanical advantage increases with the increase

in helm angle. At the rudder
angle, 35°, the mechanical advantage is 1.53.
In a ram and link arrangement, it can be shown that, when the rudder is hard over, the
effective
cross head arm or the torque arm is very nearly equal to the cross head radius
multiplied by
cosine of the hard over angle. Torque arm = Cross head radius X cos (θ).
Large forces are required for driving the rudder in a ram link arrangement.
In case of Rapson slide, an increasing mechanical advantage is obtained at large rudder
angles.
Torque developed by a single Rapson slide arrangement is Q = F X r / cos2 θ.
3. b.
With reference to ram type steering gear, explain why should the minimum
number of
rams be two?
The minimum number of rams is two because,
If single acting arrangement is selected, then minimum number of rams is two. In a

double acting
arrangement, a single ram may be used, but will give rise to the problem
of differential areas on
either side of the piston and piston rod.
Since the rudder response should be rapid and smooth in either direction, the above
arrangement
of double acting may not be satisfactory.
3. c.
With reference to ram type steering gear explain how a four ram steering
gear can be
operated by two rams only?
In a four ram steering gear, there is a built in redundancy and this can be put to use
when one ram
cylinder fails. The following sketch shows a well known Hastie Brown type
of four ram gear with valve
arrangement. Three combinations are possible in this case.
All four rams in operation i.e valves B,C,D,E is open and by-pass valves A and F shut.
With cylinders 1 and 2 in operation and operating at 50% torque (existing ships), then
valves D, E
& A are kept closed and valves B, C & F are kept open.
With cylinders 3 and 4 in operation and operating at 50% torque (existing ships), then
valves B, C
& F will be closed and valves D, E & A are closed.
3. d.
With reference to ram type steering gear explain, how are the oil leakages
from the
system compensated?
Oil leakages are compensated by providing an oil reservoir, which acts as a make up
supply and also as
a receiver for excess fl uid due to expansion in closed systems.
3. e.
With reference to rotary steering gear, how shock loading and misalignment
is
accomodated?
The steering gear system consists of the telemotor which receives a signal from
the bridge wheel. This
signal is transferred to the hunting gear.
The hunting gear moves displacing a control rod, this rod acts on the pump
displacement control gear to
alter the delivery from the pump. The delivery from
the pump moves the ram and rotates the rudder
stock. The other end of the hunting
gear is mounted on the rudder stock.
The rotation of the rudder stock moves the hunting gear returning the operating rod for
the pump to the
neutral position once the rudder has reached the correct angle.
11. Any single failure on a steering gear system should not make the system inoperative.
With reference to electro hydraulic steering gear, discuss the possible reason for and effects
of excessive hunting.
As with any closed loop systems, instability may be either due to some inherent faults in the system or
due to imposed conditions from outside, reflected in excessive hunting.
Inherent faults in the system are:
z The buffer spring employed in the hunting gear which is meant for the damping function might be
faulty.
z Slackness in the linkages due to worn pins and bushings will show a backlash and the end result will
be excessive hunting.
With reference to electro hydraulic steering gear, discuss the possible reason for and effects
of Sluggish operation
Hydraulic system should be free of leakage. Excessive and persistent leakages that show poor response
is termed as sluggish operation. Air in any hydraulic system should be avoided. Air being compressible,
12. gives,
z Incorrect balance between units
z Time lags or sluggishness
z Irregular operation or jerky operation
z Jumping of pressure gauges
Explain the reasons for the special properties required for the hydraulic oil in the steering
gear.
Properties of good hydraulic oil are as follows:
z Low pour point
z Non sludge forming
z Non corrosive
z Good lubricating properties
z High flash point
z Low viscosity
13. Relief valves
14. The Standby unit will operate the steering gear.
17. Automatic isolation of the leaking system
In which type of steering gear system, rudderstock is subjected to transverse thrust?
1. 1
1. Rotary vane type
2. Ram type
Name two types of arrangement in which the rudder and the tiller arm are connected?
2. 2
1. Crosshead and rapson slide
2. Cross head and connecting rod
What are the two major components in a rotary vane steering gear?
3. 2
1. Ram and cylinder
2. Stator and rotor
How is sealing achieved in case of rotary vane steering gear?
4. 2
1. Steel sealing strips
2. By seals between ram and cylinders
With respect to rotary vane steering gears state:

a. Why are they not normally fitted in very large ships?
b. The purpose of telemotor limit stops, their purpose and the angle from mid position that the limit
should be set.
5. c. What acts as rudder stops, their purpose and the angle from mid position that the rudder stops 3
should be set?
d. The features in the design that allow the rudder stops to be separated when they have made
contact.
Answer Key
1. Ram type
3. Stator and rotor

2. a.
With respect to rotary vane steering gears, state why are they not
normally fitted in
very large ships?
The torque requirement is high in bigger ship. Torque is dependent on pressure, area,
and effective
leverage. The ram design is more adaptable to increase in pressure whereas
in case of rotary vane
steering we have sealing difficulties at higher pressure.
2. b.
With respect to rotary vane steering gears, state the purpose of telemotor
limit stops,
their purpose and the angle from mid position that the limit
should be set.
The purpose of the telemotor stop is to limit the rudder movement. The limitation angle
is 35°. The
telemotor stops are fitted to the telemotor receiver, which does not
permit further stroking of the
steering gear pump beyond 35° helm. This is true
even when the telemotor transmitter is set for a
higher value inadvertently.
5.
2. c.
With respect to rotary vane steering gears, state what acts as rudder
stops, their
purpose and the angle from mid position that the rudder stops
should be set?
Vanes themselves act as rudder stops. Rotation is prevented by anchor brackets and
dowel pins.
2. d.
With respect to rotary vane steering gears, state the features in the design
that allow
the rudder stops to be separated when they have made contact.
Steel sealing strips backed by synthetic rubber are fitted into grooves along the working
faces of rotor
and stator vanes.
The vanes are manufactured from spheroidal graphite cast iron and secured to the cast
steel rotor and
cast steel stator by high tensile steel bolts and dowels. Additionally,
rotary vanes are keyed. Fixed
vanes act as stoppers. Hence, securing of moving and fixed
vanes is critical.
Name two types of arrangement in which the rudder and the tiller arm are connected.
1. 1
2. Crosshead and connecting rod
How is sealing achieved in case of rotary vane steering gear?
2. 1
2. Seals between ram and cylinders
What will happen if there is a sudden power failure in the hydraulic system of a compact type
steering gear?
3. 2
2. It will turn to an angle of 35 degree.
Which type of steering gear transmits torque to the rudderstock?
4. 1
1. Roatry vane
2. Ram
Rotary vane steering gear transmits the torque directly to the rudder stock eliminating side thrust.
5. 1
True
False
In which type of steering gear system, rudder stock is subjected to transverse thrust?
6. 1. Ram type 2
2. Rotary vane type
How is redundancy achieved in rotary steering gear?
7. 1
1. By providing duplicate rotary vane and systems
2. By providing alarms to warn the failure
Answer Key

4. Roatry vane
5. TRUE
6. Ram type
7. By providing duplicate rotary vane and systems
What is the material of oil cooled stern tube bearing?
1. lignum vita
1. 2. copper lined 1
3. aluminium alloy
4. White metal lined
In a oil lubricated stern tube the storage tank for oil is

2. 1
1. The header tank
2. The drain tank.
Ballast condition header tank is
3. 1
1. At a higher level than the full loaded condition header tank .
2. At a lower level than the full loaded condition header tank.
The drain tank is a double tank located in the

4. 1
1. Aft of the engine room.

2. Forward of the engine room
5. Which letter represents the Air vent line in the illustration below ? 1
1. F
2. G
3. H
Which letter represents the stern tube L.O. Line in the illustration below ?
6. 1
1. E
2. F
3. G
7. Which letter represents the Lubricating pump in the illustration below ? 1
1. E
2. P
3. G
The stern tube oil pump takes suction from
8. 1
1. Header tank
2. Drain tank.
9. In the illustration below, what does the letter A represent ? 1
1. Forward seal
2. Aft seal
3. Lubricating Oil Tank
4. Drain Line
Answer Key
1. White metal lined

2. The drain tank.
3. At a lower level than the full loaded condition header tank.
Aft of the engine room.
4.

5. G
6. E
7. P
8. Drain tank.
9. Aft seal
Name the control system used in steering gear system.
1. 1. Speed control system 1

2. Position control system
Answer Key
1. Position control system
1. How is viscosity of oil controlled automatically?

3
With reference to main propulsion system, sketch a block diagram and explain in detail the starting
2. 5
and manoeuvring system
Name the device used to measure the rotational speed of an alternator.
3. 1. Tacho generator 1
2. Electrohydraulic converter
Answer Key
1.
A viscometer consists of a gear pump driven by a constant speed electric motor through
reduction
gear. A small quantity of fuel oil is passed through fi ne capillary tube. Flow
through the capillary tube
is linear. The differential pressure across the capillary tube is
directly proportional to viscosity of oil.
The differential pressure (DP) from the viscometer is
led to a differential transmitter cell. DP from the
viscometer is applied to diaphragm of the
DP transmitter.
Increase in viscosity causes increase in differential pressure which moves the diaphragm and
balance
beam towards left.
The air inlet nozzle gets closed because of balance beam moving to left. As a result air
pressure builds
up in feedback bellows. The feedback bellow pressure is the control output
signal. This output signal is
fed to a control valve which allows more steam to pass through
fuel oil heater. Therefore increase in
steam fl ow heats the fuel oil and viscosity starts
decreasing.
2.
Bridge control for direct reversing IC engine is shown in sketch.

Minimum alarm indications in the control console are:
Main air reservoir pressure

z Low start air pressure
Lubricating oil discharge pressure and temperature
Jacket cooling water discharge pressure and temperature
Selector switch
The selector switch may be turned to either bridge control to engine room control. When
one control is
selected the other is inoperative.
Interlocks
Essential interlocks to prevent catastrophic damage to main propulsion engine are:
Turning gear interlock

Running direction interlock
Telegraph matching interlock
Camshaft end position interlock
Main lubricating oil pressure low interlock
Camshaft lubricating oil pressure low interlock
Description
The following description is a combination of electronic and pneumatic bridge control system
for a
directly coupled two stroke engine.
Telegraph movement actuates a variable transformer which sends signals to engine

room
electronic controller. The engine room electronic controller transmits signals to
solenoid valves.
One set of solenoid valves controls start air to the engine and the second set regulates
the fuel
supply via manual fuel admission lever.
The lever is coupled to a pneumatic cylinder which is coupled to a hydraulic cylinder.
This
hydraulic cylinder sends a reset signal only when telegraph lever matching takes
place.
Let the order given be half ahead. The electronic controller operates in the following
sequence:
Ensures fuel at zero

Checks direction and confirms if it is correct
Admits start air in correct direction
Gives a time delay for engine to pick up till firing speed
Admits fuel
After a time delay cuts off the start air
Directs the governor to adjust the speed when the engine picks up speed
3. Tacho generator
Restrictions occurring in the small orifices of pneumatic control system components are caused by:
1. Pressure surging in the compressed air receiver

1. 2
2. Excessive dryness in the compressed air supply.
3. Moisture in the compressed air supply
4. Insufficient lubrication of the system components.
How is the sensitivity reduced in a flapper nozzle transmitter?
2. 1. By providing a negative feedback bellow from the nozzle output to the flapper 1
2. By providing a positive feedback bellow from the nozzle output to the flapper
Suggest with reasons the effect of following faults in a pneumatic control system.
a. A punctured diaphragm in the nozzle relay valve.
b. Grit on the seat of the nozzle relay valve.
3. c. Leaking proportional bellows in valve controller.
3
d. Leaking measurement bellows in valve controller.
How is the integral action time controlled in a pneumatic controller?
4. 1. By placing a variable restrictor before the intergral action bellow 1

2. By placing a variable restrictor before the proportional action bellow
Answer Key
1. Moisture in the compressed air supply

2. By providing a negative feedback bellow from the nozzle output to the flapper
Suggest with reasons the effect of punctured diaphragm in nozzle relay valve in a
pneumatic control system.
A punctured diaphragm will result in insufficient closure of the valve.
Suggest with reasons the effect of grit on the seat of nozzle relay valve in a pneumatic
control system.
Grit on the valve seat causes continuous leakage of air into the atmosphere. The control valve will be
partially shut.
3.
Suggest with reasons the effect of leaking proportional bellows in a valve controller.
Leaky proportional bellows in valve controller will reduce the ability of the bellows to introduce a
negative feed back. The gain of the controller is increased. Therefore, the control valve will move to
extreme positions making the controller unstable.
Suggest with reasons the effect of leaking measurement bellows in a valve controller.
Leaking measurement bellows in valve controller will hinder the fl appear from moving towards the
nozzle. Hence the control valve will shift from its equilibrium position causing the system to hunt.
4. By placing a variable restrictor before the intergral action bellow
1. Explain in detail data logger system with a detailed sketch.

3
a. Sketch and describe a valve positioner and briefl y explain the fail safe concept.
2. b. Under what circumstances the positioner would be used? 5
What is the function of an output multiplexer in a data logger system?
3. 1. It stores the various analog signals received 1

2. It receives the analog signal and sends it to the appropriate regulating unit.
a. What are the different types of control system based on the media used for automation?
4. b. Why automation is preferred? Give the advantages of different types of control systems. 3
5. Sketch a nozzle relay valve.

2
Answer Key
1.
The term data logger is nothing but a broad range of electronic systems that automatically
collects and
processes the data. Some data loggers control and supervise the plant.
The function of various elements in this system is as follows:
Sensors are the detecting elements which measure the pressure, temperature, flow
level and
convert the received signal into proportional voltage signals.
Scanner receives the dc output from sensors which are analogous in nature.
Analog to digital converter converts the received signal into digital signal.
The analog transducers of pressure and temperature sensors produce a voltage signal
proportional to the measured parameters.
Multiplexer receives the transducer signals and linearises them.
Analog to digital converter converts this linearised signal into digital signal.
A computer then compares this digital signal with the reference signal.
2. a.
Sketch and describe a valve positioner and briefly explain the fail safe
concept.
The valve positioner has three parts. They are motor, valve and positioner.

Motor element:
Air pressure acts on top of synthetic rubber diaphragm and is opposed by upward spring
force, oil fl ow
is from right to left. Hand regulation is also possible. The pressure stroke
characteristic is based on
linear relationship. Diaphragm has a large constant area.
Diaphragm and spring have a linear force
deflection characteristic.
Valve:
Valve is a correcting element. It can be single seated reverse action or double seated.
Double seated
valves are preferred due to balanced valve forces and less operating energy. Materials for all
components depend on the medium being controlled.
Mitre valves with wings are best suited to on–off
operation.
Vee port high lift valves are more suited for proportional control. Valve positioners are
used for
controlling valves where accurate and rapid control is required without error or
hysteresis. They can cope with large variations in forces acting on the plug. Valve
positioners also
remove sticking and friction effects of gland. They are
preferred were the distance between the
controller and valve is large.
Construction
A valve positioner consists of a:
High gain amplifier - It may be pneumatic, electro pneumatic etc.

Feed back link - It detects the actual position of the valve.
The flapper is fastened to the valve stem via a feedback cam linkage. The output air
pressure from the
nozzle acts on top of diaphragm. The control air signal acts in between
the two extremities of fl apper,
via bellows and spring. A set value of pressure Ps is
established in the bellow. The measured value Pm
is the spring setting. When the pressure
to the bellows decreases, the bellow moves down. This results
in flapper moving away
from the nozzle. The pressure at the orifice falls. This results in drop in output
pressure which is exerted on the top of the diaphragm. Since the pressure acting on top
of diaphragm
decreases, the valve begins to close. The movement of the valve causes the
valve stem to move and
rotates the cam clockwise. This raises the flapper against the
spring. The flapper moves closer to the
nozzle. This increases the output pressure until
equilibrium is reached.
The changeover cock allows the signal from the controller to be placed directly on the
diaphragm.
Fail safe
On failure of air supply control to valve, the valve may be adjusted to a position that
allows the plant
to continue to operate safely, either in fully open or shut position. This
phenomenon is known as fail
safe.
b.
Under what circumstances the positioner would be used?
A positioner would be used if:
the valve is remote from the controller

there is a high pressure difference across the valve
the medium under control is viscous
the pressure on the gland is high
3. It receives the analog signal and sends it to the appropriate regulating unit.
a.
What are the different types of control system based on the media used for
automation?
Different
types of control system based on the media used are:
Pneumatic
Electronic
Hydraulic
b.
Why automation is preferred? Give the advantages of different types of control
systems.
Automation
is preferred for the following reasons:
Accurate
monitoring and operation
Human operator
is relieved of repetitive and tiring task
Automatic
control gives consistent result
Saves fuel and
maintenance cost
Complex
machinery operations are easily coordinated
Advantages
of pneumatic system
4. Less expensive
than electronic and hydraulic systems
Leakages are not
dangerous
No heat
generation, hence no ventilation is required
Not very
susceptible to variations in power supply in ships
Simple and safe

Advantages
of electronic system
Fewer moving
parts and hence less lubrication and wear
Power
consumption is low
Adaptable
Quick response
Advantages
of hydraulic system
Gives instant
response as fluid is virtually incompressible
Can provide
reciprocating and rotary motion
Position control
is accurate
Amplification
factor is high
5.
What is the range of rpm of a medium speed diesel engine?
1. 300 to 1000 rpm
1. 1
2. 150 to 225 rpm
3. 225 to 300 rpm
4. 1000 to 2000 rpm
Name the component that absorbs the power developed by the engine and converts to axial thrust?
1. Crankshaft
2. 1
2. Propeller-shaft
3. Hull
4. Propeller
How is the astern movement achieved on ships fitted with a controllable pitch propeller?
1. By clutch system
3. 1
2. By gear-box
3. By separate propeller
4. By changing the angle of the blades of propeller
What prevents seawater from entering the oil lubricated stern tube?
1. Propeller hub
4. 1
2. Stern tube bearing
3. Aft seal
4. Forward seal
What is the range of rpm of a slow speed diesel engine?
1. 225 to 300 rpm
5. 1
2. 150 to 225 rpm
3. Up to 150 rpm
4. 300 to 1000 rpm
What do you call the machinery that provides the power to drive the propeller?
1. Auxiliary machinery
6. 1
2. Main machinery
3. Propulsion machinery
4. Auxiliary engines
What is the range of rpm of a medium speed diesel engine?
1. 300 to 1000 rpm

7. 1
2. 150 to 225 rpm
3. 225 to 300 rpm
4. 1000 to 2000 rpm
8. What is the range of rpm of a slow speed diesel engine? 1

1. 225 to 300 rpm

2. 150 to 225 rpm
3. Up to 150 rpm
4. 300 to 1000 rpm
How does the propeller blade create thrust?
1. By generating high pressure on the face and low pressure on the back
9. 1
2. By generating low pressure on the face and high pressure on the back
3. By generating same pressure on the face and same pressure on the back
4. By generating pressure on the face
How is the astern movement achieved on ships fitted with a controllable pitch propeller?
1. By clutch system
10. 1
2. By gear-box
3. By separate propeller
How is the ahead/astern movement achieved on ships fitted with steam turbines?
1. By gear-box
11. 1
2. By separate turbines
3. By hydraulic system
4. By altering the pitch of the propeller
What prevents seawater from entering the oil lubricated stern tube?
1. Propeller hub
12. 1
2. Stem tube bearing
3. Aft seal
4. Forward seal
How is the ahead / astern movement achieved on ships fitted with steam turbines?
1. By gear-box
13. 1
3. By hydraulic system
4. By altering the pitch of the properller
How does the propeller blade creates thrust?
14. 1
2. By generating low pressure on the face and high pressure on the back
3. By generating same pressure on the face and same pressure on the back
4. By generating pressure on the face
15. Name the component that absorbs the power developed by the engine and converts to axial thrust? 1
1. Crankshaft
2. Propeller-shaft
3. Hull
4. Propeller
What is the range of rpm of a high speed diesel engine?
1. 151 to 225 rpm
16. 1
2. Above 1000 rpm
3. 226 to 300 rpm
4. 300 to 1000 rpm
What is the range of rpm of a high speed diesel engine?
1. 151 to 255 rpm

17. 1
2. Above to 1000 rpm
3. 226 to 300 rpm
4. 300 to 1000 rpm
Name the component that transmits the propeller thrust to the hull?
1. Thrust block
18. 1
2. Thrust pad
3. Thrust shaft
4. Thrust collar
Name the component that transmits the propeller thrust to the hull?
1. Thrust block
19. 1
2. Thrust pad
3. Thrust shaft
4. Thrust collar
What do you call the machinery that provides the power to drive the propeller?
1. Auxiliary machinery
20. 1
2. Main machinery
4. Auxiliary engines
Answer Key
1. 300 to 1000 rpm
2. Propeller
4. Aft seal
5. Up to 150 rpm
7. 150 to 225 rpm
8. Up to 150 rpm

12. Aft seal
15. Propeller
16. Above 1000 rpm
17. 226 to 300 rpm

18. Thrust block
19. Thrust block
Which number represents the "Main engine" in the illustration given below?
1. 1
1. IX
2. X
3. XI
4. VIII
In the diagram given below, “X” represents __________.
2. 1

2. Intermediate shaft bearings
3. Propeller shaft
4. Thrust shaft
3. The part “IX” indicates _________. 1
1. Turbine shaft
3. Drive shaft
4. Output shaft
Which number represents the "Flywheel" in the illustration given below?
4. 1
1. I
2. III
3. IV
4. II

3. Step bearing
6. 1

3. Step bearing
4. Ball bearing
2. Turbine shaft
3. Thrust shaft
4. Drive shaft
What is a power transmission system? Describe the shaft components using a schematic of the line
8. shaft arrangement; explain the purpose and working of the main thrust block using appropriate 10
diagrams.
Which number represents the "Propeller" in the illustration given below?
9. 1
1. V
2. III
3. VI
4. IV
1. Clutch block
2. Stern frame
3. Thrust block
11. 1
1. Stiffener
2. Outboard seal
12. Which letter represents pitch in the diagram below ? 1
1. A
2. B
13. 1
1. Clutch block
2. Thrust block
14. Which letter represents slip in the diagram below ? 1
1. A
2. B
Answer Key
1. XI
2. Propeller shaft
4. III
7. Thrust shaft
8.
9. VI
10. Stern frame
11. Outboard seal
12. A
13. Thrust block
14. B
The four stroke medium speed engine is transmitting the drive to propeller____________.
1. Directly
1. 2. Indirectly through gear box. 1
3. Direct and indirectly
What does the letter "J" in the illustration below represent ?
2. 1
1. Tip
2. Pitch
3. Stern tube
4. Plumber Block Bearing
What are all the two turbines in steam propulsion turbine machinery?
1. Low and medium pressure turbine.

3. 2. High and medium pressure turbine. 1
3. Low and high pressure turbine
4. Which letter represents the Propeller boss in the illustration below ? 1
1. D
2. E
3. F
The propeller drive is from propulsion machinery of ____________.
1. Two stroke engine

5. 2. Four stroke medium speed engine 1
3. Steam turbine
6. What does the letter "I" in the illustration below represent ? 1
1. Tip
2. Pitch
3. Stern tube
4. Thrust bearing
Medium speed engine is ________________.
1. Irreversible engine
7. 2. Reversible engine 1
3. Reversible and irreversible
8. Which letter represents the TAILSHAFT in the illustration below ? 1
1. D
2. I
3. F
Answer Key
1. Indirectly through gear box.

2. Plumber Block Bearing
3. Low and high pressure turbine
4. F
6. Stern tube
7. Irreversible engine
8. I
Thrust block located near to ______________.
1. Propeller
1. 1
2. Stern frame
3. Main Engine
4. All of the above
The main thrust block _________or ________ thrust to the hull.
1. Forward or aft
2. 2. Ahead or Astern 1
3. Fwd and reverse
4. All of the above
______________ limit the axial moment of propeller shaft.
1. Propeller
3. 2. Stern tube frame 1
3. Shaft coupling
4. Thrust block.
Shaft coupling bolts in propeller shaft arrangement are tightened by.
1. Mechanically
4. 2. Hydraulically 1
3. Mechanically or hydraulically.
Answer Key
1. Main Engine
2. Ahead or Astern
3. Thrust block.
4. Mechanically or hydraulically.
How is the propellor fitted onto the tailshaft refering to the illustration below?
1. 1
1. Propellor is fitted to the tail shaft with a key and taper of propellor
2. Propellor is fitted by wet method by injecting oil between shaft taper and the propellor shaft
How is the propellor fitted onto the tailshaft refering to the illustration below?
2. 1
1. Propellor is fitted to the tail shaft with a key and taper of propellor and the nut tightened
anticlockwise
2. Propellor is fitted with push fit by a hydraulic jack
3. How is the propellor fitted onto the tailshaft refering to the illustration below? 1
1. Propellor is fitted to the tail shaft with a key and taper of propellor
Identify the part marked as “ B“ in the illustration below?
4. 1
1. Pressure gauge
2. Propeller hub
3. Oil reservoir
4. Propeller shaft
Answer Key

2. Propellor is fitted to the tail shaft with a key and taper of propellor and the nut tightened anticlockwise
4. Propeller hub
One advantage of electromagnetic slip couplings is __________.
1. excitation and induction power losses appear as a change in torque instead of rotational speed
1. between the primary and secondary elements. 2
2. the coupling rapidly responds to sudden changes of load.
3. Torsional vibrations are reduced.
4. Torque increases with a decrease in excitation current.
Gear-type flexible couplings are often used in diesel engine drive trains because they __________.
1. Require no lubrication under normal operating conditions.

2. 2
2. Compensate for gross misalignment in the drive train.
3. Are able to transmit high torque, even where slight misalignment exists.
4. Will rapidly disconnect the engine from the line shaft.
The power loss associated with slip in a fluid coupling appears as __________.
1. Chattering in the driving member.

3. 2
2. leakage around the ring valve.
3. Heat in the hydraulic fluid
4. Vibration in the driving member.
A gear type flexible coupling is precision built for __________.
1. educed torsional vibration and resonance.

4. 2
2. Increased slip and manoeuvring capability.
3. High torque transmittal under limited misalignment conditions.
4. Low axial thrust transmission under minimal alignment irregularities.
The magnetic lock between the armature and field in an electromagnetic coupling is established by
__________.
5. 1. Controlled engine speed. 2

2. Rotating the primary rotor.
3. Energizing the field coils.
4. Brush contact with the armature.
Which of the couplings listed is normally not repairable, and is usually replaced if completely
damaged?
6. 1. Flexible disk-ring coupling. 1

2. Block and jaw coupling
3. Gear-type coupling
4. Grid spring coupling
7. Effective hydraulic coupling operation depends upon a certain amount of __________. 2
1. Torsional vibration
2. Fluid overheating
3. Slip
4. Mechanical friction.
Which of the couplings listed will prevent shock loads from being transmitted to an engine?
1. Grid.
8. 2
2. Friction.
3. Hydraulic.
4. Dog type.
Answer Key
1. Torsional vibrations are reduced.

2. Are able to transmit high torque, even where slight misalignment exists.
3. Heat in the hydraulic fluid
4. High torque transmittal under limited misalignment conditions.
5. Energizing the field coils.
6. Gear-type coupling
7. Slip
8. Hydraulic.
Bending of intermediate shat impose severe stress on ___________.
1. 2. Propeller Shaft 1
3. Bearing
4. Coupling bolts
The shaft alignment is affected due to distortion by __________.
1. Cargo distribution
2. 2. Ballast 1
3. Fuel
4. All of the above
During installation ___________method used for best shaft alignment.
1. Level gauge
3. 2. Parallel rule 1
3. Optical
4. Piano wire
The improper installation of shaft bearing will lead ___________.
1. Shaft alignment
4. 2. Shaft misalignment 1
3. Shaft torque decrease
Answer Key
1. Coupling bolts
2. All of the above
3. Optical
4. Shaft misalignment
During installation ___________method used for best shaft alignment.
1. Level gauge
1. 2. Parallel rule 1
3. Optical
4. Piano wire
The optical telescope is used for ________in shaft alignment
1. To find centre point

2. 2. To find datum 1
3. To find engine center
4. All of the above
what is the two reference datum required for optical alignment of shaft?
1. Length of the shaft above the keel at the aft stern frame and crankshaft centre above the keel
2. Height of the shaft above the keel at the aft stern frame and crankshaft centre above the keel
3. 3. Height of the shaft above the tank top at the aft stern frame and crankshaft centre above the 1
tank top
4. Length of the shaft above the tank top at the aft stern frame and crankshaft centre above the
tank top
Answer Key
1. Optical
2. To find centre point
3. Height of the shaft above the keel at the aft stern frame and crankshaft centre above the keel
The survey requirement for inspection of propeller, stern tube bearing and tail shafting is
1. Tail shaft is fitted with continuous liners

1. 2. Approved oil sealing glands 1
3. Made of corrosion-resistant material,
A modified survey of the tail shaft is accepted for tail shafts described in complete survey
requirement provided that
1. They are fitted with oil lubricated bearings and approved oil sealing glands
2. 1
2. The shaft and its fittings are exposed to corrosion
3. The clearances of the intermediate bearing are found to be in order
4. Lubricating oil analyses are carried out regularly at intervals not exceeding six year.
The survey interval may be increased to 5 years in which of the following categories.
1. The propeller is fitted keyless to the shaft taper, the shaft is protected from sea water,the
design details are approved.
2. The propeller is fitted to a keyed shaft taper the design details of which comply with the
3. 1
applicable requirements.
3. The propeller is fitted to a solid flange coupling at the aft end of the shaft, the shaft and its
fittings are not exposed to corrosion, the design details are approved.
4. All of the above
The survey requirement for other categories for the interval of inspection for propeller shaft opened
up surveys is
1. 2 Years
4. 1
2. 2.5 Years
3. 5 Years
4. 10 Years
Answer Key

2. They are fitted with oil lubricated bearings and approved oil sealing glands
3. All of the above
4. 2.5 Years
If any abnormal conditions are found with instruments, oil analysis and consumption you should
report the matter to _______________.
1. 1. Company 1
2. Classification society
3. Company and classification society.
Oil has to be analyzed once in every __________.
1. 3 Months
2. 1
2. 6 Months
3. 9 months
4. Any of the above
Oil has to be tested in shore lab ____ method.
1. ICP method
3. 1
2. Ferro-graphy method
3. JR oxidation
4. All of the above
Things to note down while taking oil sample for stern tube lubricating oil for analysis
1. Sampling date.
4. 1
2. Bearing temperature.
3. Service hours of the lubricating oil.
Answer Key
1. Company and classification society.

2. 6 Months
3. All of the above
Name the component that transfers propeller thrust to ship’s hull
1. 1
1. Thrust block
2. Intermediate shaft bearing
What are the two types of thrust block?
2. 1
1. Integral thrust block and independent thrust block
2. Ahead thrust block and astern thrust block
What types of bearings a thrust block has?
3. 1
1. Plain bearing type
2. Tilting pad type
Answer Key
1. Thrust block
2. Integral thrust block and independent thrust block
3. Tilting pad type
The thrust is transmitted to the hull of the ship by
1. The thrust collar

1. 1
2. The thrust pads
3. The thrust block foundation bolts
4. All of the above
Thrust is generated and transmitted to the thrust block by the
2. 1
1. The propeller shaft.
2. The propeller.
Higher velocity of the water flow leads to
3. 1
1. Higher pressure at the back of the blade
2. Lower pressue at the back of the blade.
The aerofoil shape of the blade
4. 1
1. Increases the velocity of the water at the top of the blade
2. Reduces the velocity of the wate at the top of the blade.
Answer Key
1. All of the above

2. The propeller.
3. Lower pressue at the back of the blade.
4. Increases the velocity of the water at the top of the blade
The two types of thrust block are
1. 1
1. Ahead thrust block and astern thrust block
2. Integral thrust block and independent thrust block.
Name the component that the propeller thrust to ship’s hull
2. 1
1. Thrust block
2. Intermediate shaft bearing.
The type of bearing thrust block has
3. 1
1. Tilted pad type.
2. Plain bearing type.
Thrust block works on
1. Hydrostatic lubrication
4. 1
2. Hydrodynamic lubrication.

Answer Key
1. Integral thrust block and independent thrust block.

2. Thrust block
3. Tilted pad type.
Hydrodynamic lubrication.
4.

The trust segments are fitted on ___________ of side of collar.
1. One side
1. 1
2. Both side
3. Half of segments in each side of collar.
4. All of the above
The thrust bearing metal consist of ______________.
1. Trimetal bearing in both half of circular shaft

2. 1
2. Babbitt face segmental shoes
3. bronze bush bearing
4. Sleeve bearing
The thrust beraing to be overhauled if feeler gauge of _____________ not able to enter wear groove.
1. 0.01mm
3. 1
2. 0.1mm
3. 1mm
4. 1.1mm
The oil film is dragged by ____________.
1. Collar
4. 1
2. Segment
4. All of the above
Answer Key
1. Both side
2. Babbitt face segmental shoes
3. 0.1mm
4. Collar
Which of the processes listed below, consumes the greatest amount of power while producing the
greatest amount of heat?
1. 1. Overcoming fluid friction 2

2. Overcoming rolling friction
3. Overcoming sliding friction
4. Overcoming oil wedge friction.
Answer Key
1. Overcoming sliding friction
a.What is controlled condition?

1. b. What is deviation? 2
Answer Key
Controlled condition is a variable or level such as temperature or pressure, which is maintained at the
1. desired value. The difference between the set value of a parameter and the actual measured value in a
controlled process is called deviation.
1. What is the difference between the set value and the desired value?
2
2. What is integral action?
2
Name the control system used to regulate combustion in a boiler.
3. 1. Cascade control system 1

2. Ratio control system
Answer Key
The desired value and the set value are the same. In proportional control, the controlled condition
1. remains at a lesser value than the set value. In order to achieve the desired value, the value of the
parameter is set at a higher level in the controller.
The problem of instability and offset inherent in the proportional control is overcome by using the
2. integral action. The output of the controller changes at a rate, proportional to the deviation between
the set value and the measured value.
3. Cascade control system
Why single element control is not used for boiler water control?
1. 1. It leads to fluctuations in water level 1

2. It is costly
Name the control system used when time lag between deviation and restoration of equilibrium is
large.
2. 1
1. Cascade control system
2. On/off control system
3. What is derivative action?

2
4. What is proportional control?
2
With reference to automation and control systems explain the meaning of following terms with
examples.
a. Two step control action
5. 3
b. Proportional plus integral control
c. Ratio control
6. What do you understand by feedback in a control system?

2
Answer Key
1. It leads to fluctuations in water level

2. On/off control system
Derivative action stabilises the control system. The output of the controller is directly proportional to
3.
the rate of change of deviation between the measured and desired value.
The output of the controller is directly proportional to the deviation between the measured value and
4.
the desired value.
a.
With reference to automation and control system explain two step control
action with an
example.
Two step control action is the simplest form of control in which the control action occupies
one of the
two preset positions. On / Off control is a two step control since there is a large
deviation in output
from the desired value.
Example: Pressure switch controlling start and stop of main air compressor
b.
With reference to automation and control system explain proportional plus
integral
control with an example.
5. In a proportional plus integral control, the proportional element acts on the deviation
between the
output and the desired value. However the action results due to the
difference between the desired
value and offset (new desired value). The integral element
removes this offset.
Example: A boiler water level control system employs P+I control to maintain the water
level at the
desired value by removing offset and instability.
c.
With reference to automation and control system explain ratio control with
an example.
A ratio control system maintains the relationship between two variables to control a third
variable.
Example: A boiler combustion control system is where the ratio between the air and fuel
must be
controlled to ensure good combustion. The air fl ow is adjusted by dampers to
match the fuel fl ow.
Feedback is the transmission of a signal representing the controlled condition, for comparison with a
6.
set value.
What effect does salt have on the rate of corrosion?
1. 1. No effect 1
2. Speeds up corrosion
3. Slows down corrosion
What metal is used to protect the iron as a sacrificial anode?
1. Aluminium
2. 1
2. Copper
3. Nickel
4. Zinc
What is pH value?
3. 1. A measure of acidity or alkalinity of a solution that has dissolved substances 1

2. A measure of acidity or alkalinity of a solution that has dissolved solids
3. A measure of acidity or alkalinity of a solution that has dissolved liquids
What type of protection is provided by galvanizing anodes?
1. Physical protection
4. 1
2. Sacrificial protection
3. Physical and sacrificial protection
Among the various elements that causes corrosion in boilers, the most dangerous will be,
5. 1. Ingress of dissolved oxygen 1

2. Ingress of oil
3. Ingress of dust
The ingress of oxygen cannot be dealt with by,
6. 1. Deaeration 1
2. Heating
3. Dozing of Chemicals
pH value is a number from
7. 1. 1 to 14 1
2. 1 to 7
3. 7 to 14
8. How to prevent corrosion of the hull?

1
1. using noble metal

2. by coating with chemicals
3. by applying anti corrosion treatment
4. by using sacrificial anodes, using impressed current, using anodization
Rusting is a term, given to the corrosion of,
1. Zinc
9. 1
2. Copper
3. Nickel
4. Iron
In order to avoid corrosion we should maintain boiler water at a pH value of at least,
1. 7
10. 1
2. 7.5
3. 6.5
4. 9
Which of the following is example of physical protection?
1. Greasing
11. 1
2. Painting
3. Electroplating
4. All of the above
pH stands for,
1. Power of Hydrogen ion concentration

12. 1
2. Potential of Hydrogen ion concentration
3. P-indicator of a H-solution
4. log of reciprocal of hydrogen ion concentration
pH values below 7 indicate progressive
13. 1. acidity 1
2. alkalinity
3. neutrality
What conditions are required for rusting to take place?
1. Water only
14. 1
2. Oxygen only
3. Water and oxygen
4. Water and carbon dioxide
pH above 7 indicate progressive
15. 1. acidity 1
2. alkalinity
3. neutrality
16. Corrosion is destruction of a material by the environment and the process does not involve, 1
1. Chemical reaction
2. Electrochemical reaction
3. Metallurgical Interaction
4. Evolution of heat
Answer Key
1. Speeds up corrosion
2. Zinc
3. A measure of acidity or alkalinity of a solution that has dissolved substances
4. Sacrificial protection
5. Ingress of dissolved oxygen
6. Heating
7. 1 to 14
8. by using sacrificial anodes, using impressed current, using anodization
9. Iron
10. 9
12. log of reciprocal of hydrogen ion concentration
13. acidity
14. Water and oxygen
15. alkalinity
16. Evolution of heat
The primary advantage of a central cooling system is __________.
1. A more complicated cooling circuit.

1. 1
2. Most part of the cooling system being fresh water based, heat loss is minimized.
3. It allows better control of temperatures by using fewer controllers.
4. Minimizes power loss.
In an impressed current cathodic protection system, (identify correct statement)
2. 1. The hull becomes a cathode 1

2. The hull becomes an anode
3. The hull becomes neutral
Protective coating is a barrier between the surface to be protected and the environment. They can
be,
3. 1. Metallic coatings 1
2. Inorganic coatings
3. Organic coatings
4. Metallic sheath
Paints are a combination of few components, (identify incorrect statement)
1. Oil and Pigment

4. 2. Pigment provides the color and opacity 1
3. Paints may have thinner and hardener
4. All paints will have additives
5. Some paints are water based
Which anode is used in ICCP
1. Zinc
5. 2
2. Silicon
3. Platinized titanium
4. Lead.
Metal coatings that are anodic to steel are, (identify incorrect statement)
6. 1. Zinc 1
2. Aluminium
3. Copper
Protection of zinc protective coating is good at:-
1. 75°C.
7. 1
2. 95°C.
3. 65°C.
4. 105°C.
8. Cladding is the process used for :- 2

1. Protection of metal surfaces against cavitation erosion.

2. Protection of metal surfaces against erosion
3. Protection of metal surfaces against corrosion.
4. Protection of metal surfaces impingement corrosion.
Metal coatings that are cathodic to steel are, (identify incorrect statement)
1. Copper
9. 1
2. Nickel
3. Chromium
4. Zinc
Different corrosion control techniques are: (identify incorrect statement)
1. Protective coating
2. Cathodic protection
10. 1
3. Alloying
4. Heat treatment
5. Inhibitors
6. Measuring wear rate
Which of the following is an important requirement for proper functioning of sacrificial anode
system?
11. 1. Good Insulation between anodes and ship’s hull 2

2. Protection of anodes during painting.
3. Good electrical continuity between anodes and ship’s hull
4. Presence of an insulating material between anode and the cathode.
Metal coating is classified as anodic and cathodic coating. (identify incorrect statement)
1. Anodic coating is anodic to the base metal

12. 1
2. Cathodic coating is cathodic to metals, higher in galvanic series
3. Anodic coating is cathodic to the base metal
4. Cathodic coating is coating of chromium, as an example
How does corrosion occur in cooling freshwater system of marine diesel engine if untreated water is
used?
13. 1. Stress corrosion 2

2. Hot corrosion
3. Absorbs carbon dioxide from the air and then becomes corrosive.
4. Selective phase corrosion.
14. Cadmium coatings provide corrosion protection. Cadmium coatings are commercially carried out by 2
:
1. Metal Spraying
2. Hot-dipping
3. Electro-plating
4. Metal diffusion.
Zinc anodes are used because, (identify incorrect statement)
1. Zinc corrodes as a sacrificial metal to protect the hull

15. 1
2. Zinc anodes need be fixed to the hull at all times
3. Zinc anodes provide protection to heat exchanger tubes
4. Zinc is a base metal on the galvanic table
Paints are used as, (identify incorrect statement)
16. 1. Inorganic coating 1

2. Organic coating
3. Barrier to water, salts, and gases
Which of the following can be done to reduce the cold corrosion of Main Engine cylinder liners:-
1. Increasing cylinder oil.

17. 2
2. Using low TBN cylinder oil
3. Raising the temperature of cooling water.
4. Decreasing cylinder oil feed rate.
The metallic coating is applied by, (identify incorrect statement)
1. hot dipping
18. 1
2. cold pressing
3. metal spraying
4. electroplating
Base end of a galvanic series materials is used as, (identify correct statement)
19. 1. Protective Cathodes 2

2. Sacrificial Anodes
3. Alloying compounds for reduction of corrosion
Answer Key
1. It allows better control of temperatures by using fewer controllers.

2. The hull becomes a cathode
3. Metallic sheath
4. All paints will have additives
5. Platinized titanium
6. Copper
7. 65°C.
8. Protection of metal surfaces against corrosion.
9. Zinc
10. Measuring wear rate
11. Good electrical continuity between anodes and ship’s hull
12. Anodic coating is cathodic to the base metal
13. Absorbs carbon dioxide from the air and then becomes corrosive.
14. Electro-plating
15. Zinc anodes need be fixed to the hull at all times
16. Inorganic coating
17. Raising the temperature of cooling water.
18. cold pressing
What is the main function of aluminium anode in MGPS?
1. Improve sea water circulation.

1. 1
2. Enhances filteration of sea water.
3. Eliminates corrosion in pipe lines.
4. Improve the efficiency of machinery.
After cleaning the sea chest filter you have placed the filter in the body and tightened the cover.
Which one of the following is the next best step to be followed?
1. You can open the filter inlet and outlet valves & directly start using the filter.
2. If you do not want to use the sea chest in question, you need not worry and you can open the
2. 2
valves when required.
3. The sea water inlet valve should be crack opened to purge the filter housing and check for
any leakages. Thereafter the filter can be isolated or put into use if required.
4. You will close the other side sea chest valves first and then open this side sea chest filter inlet
and outlet valves.
What action is required on MGPS, when vessel is trading in rivers and lakes(fresh water) for more
than a few days?
3. 1. Reduce the current setting. 1

2. Increase the current setting.
3. Switch off system.
4. Remove the anodes from strainer.
The current setting for anodes in MGPS can be set manually. What is the normal current setting for
anodes?
4. 1. 0.5 amps. 1
2. 1.5 amps
3. 0 to 0.2 amps.
4. 5.0 amps
Where are the anodes of MGPS fitted on most ships?
1. Before the main fresh water cooler.

5. 1
2. On the common sea water pipe before main sea water pumps.
3. In the strainers of sea water system located after the high and low sea chests.
4. On the ballast pump suction piping.
What causes marine growth in ship's sea water system?
1. The salts in sea water.

6. 1
2. Fish in sea water.
3. Macro and micro organisms in sea water.
4. The coatings on sea water systems.
7. What action is required when the anode current value reduces to low level? 1
1. Clean strainer.
2. Clean anode.
3. Renew anode.
4. Increase current setting to anode.
Which metals are used for making anodes of MGPS?
1. Lead and Zinc

8. 1
2. Alloys of Brass and Bronze.
3. Copper and Aluminium.
4. Gold and Platinum.
Which factors support marine growth in ship's sea water systems?
1. Continuous flow of sea water

9. 1
2. Rough internal surfaces of pipes and heat exchangers.
3. Temperature, PH and nutrients.
4. Constant pressure of sea water in systems.
What is the main function of copper anode in MGPS?
1. Washes away marine life.

10. 1
2. Kills and destroys marine life.
3. Prevents marine life from settling.
4. Dissolves marine life by electrolysis.
What are the main detrimental consequences of marine growth on ship's sea water system?
1. Increased back pressure on pumps.

11. 1
2. Reduction in flow of sea water.
3. Impairing heat transfer and increased rate of corrosion.
4. Choking of tubes in heat exchangers.
Answer Key
1. Eliminates corrosion in pipe lines.

The sea water inlet valve should be crack opened to purge the filter housing and check for any
2.
leakages. Thereafter the filter can be isolated or put into use if required.
3. Switch off system.
4. 0 to 0.2 amps.
5. In the strainers of sea water system located after the high and low sea chests.
6. Macro and micro organisms in sea water.
7. Renew anode.
8. Copper and Aluminium.
9. Temperature, PH and nutrients.
10. Prevents marine life from settling.
11. Impairing heat transfer and increased rate of corrosion.
Surface preparation of steel surfaces, prior carrying out painting is important because (choose the
best alternative):
1. 1. Any rust and contaminant inclusions may cause fouling. 2

2. Less paint will be consumed if surface preparation is not carried out
3. A clean surface ensures better paint adhesion to the surface.
4. Surface preparation deposits a chemical onto steel surface.
Answer Key
1. A clean surface ensures better paint adhesion to the surface.
C-type Bourdon tube gauge is used for measuring which parameter?
1. Pressure
1. 1
2. Temperature
3. Level
4. Flow
What do you call the device that converts pressure to current?
1. P to C converter
2. 1
2. P to E converter
3. P to A converter
4. P to I converter
What is the abbreviation for the code of procedure for Marine Instrumentation and control
equipment?
3. 1. BSR 1
2. IMO
3. STCW 95
4. MICE
Which control system does not have feedback?
1. Feed forward control

4. 1
2. Feed back control
3. Open loop control
4. Closed loop system
Which device converts output from the controller to physical action?
1. Control unit
5. 1
2. Comparator unit
3. Output unit
4. Measuring unit
What do you call the actual value of the controlled condition?
1. Set value
6. 1
2. Measured value
3. Set point
4. Desired value
What do you call the element which responds directly to the value of the controlled condition?
1. Controlled element
7. 1
2. Final element
3. Measuring element
4. Detecting element
8. What do you call the final controlling element in a process control system? 1
1. Motor element
2. Process element
3. Correcting element
4. Comparing element
How many principle strategies are there in control system?
1. 3
9. 1
2. 2
3. 4
4. 1
Bubble type gauge is used for measuring which parameter?
1. Level
10. 1
2. Flow
3. Pressure
4. Temperature
Answer Key
1. Pressure
2. P to I converter
3. BSR
4. Open loop control
5. Output unit
6. Measured value
7. Detecting element
8. Correcting element
9. 3
10. Level
Under pressurization method, the enclosure must be maintained at an over pressure of ___ m bar
1. 0.5
1. 2
2. 1.0
3. 1.5
The ___ in the path of the hot gases must be checked and tightened properly.
1. Coupling
2. 1
2. valves
3. bolts
____ reduces the voltage flow in the circuit.
1. Zener diode
3. 2
2. capacitor
3. fuse
The hot gases are trapped in the gap between the flanged joints.
4. True 1
False
Under pressurization method, the enclosure is made ____ free.
5. 1. Air 2
2. pressure
3. carbon
Intrinsically safe equipment promotes the ignition of explosive mixture.
6. True 1
False
Resistors can reduce the current flow in the circuit.
7. True 1
False
During the ignition of a flammable mixture, high pressure is developed.
8. True 1
False
Intrinsically safe systems have a very ___ energy level.
1. Low
9. 2
2. high
3. unstable
10. In a flameproof enclosure, the products of explosion are cooled below the ____ temperature. 2
1. Fuel
2. ignition
3. atmospheric
Purging gas can be either air or ____.
1. CO2
11. 2
2. O2
3. inert gas
Answer Key
1. 0.5
2. bolts
3. Zener diode
4. FALSE
5. Air
6. FALSE
7. TRUE
8. TRUE
9. Low
10. ignition
11. inert gas
Differential pressure gauge works based on the differential pressure between the vapour and____.
1. Inert gas
1. 2
2. liquid
3. air
The float gauge is provided with a ____ valve.
2. 1. Ball 2
2. gate
3. pressure
Radar gauge is a type of tank gauging equipment.
3. True 1
False
Radar gauges work in a very low frequency.
4. True 1
False
Sensors can be fixed horizontally at the required levels for enabling a high level alarm.
5. 1. Horizontally 2
2. vertically
3. axially
If the density of the LNG in the tank is known, the pressure reading can be obtained directly.
6. True 1
False
In capacitance gauges, the probes are placed in an_______
7. 1. Open protective tube 2

2. tank
3. enclosed cage
____ gauges can be used in ships only if the tank is above the deck.
8. 1. Differential pressure 2
2. Float
3. Capacitance
Capacitance gauge is not an intrinsically safe device.
9. True 1
False
10. Continuous exposure of the float to the fluctuation in sea level can damage the ___. 2
1. Tape tensioning device

2. diaphragm
3. sensors
Restricted devices can be kept open when not in use.
11. True 1
False
Float gauges can only record liquid level greater than ___ inches.
12. 1. Four 2
2. five
3. ten
In a float gauge, the float is connected to an indicating device by a ____.
13. 1. Tape 2
2. rope
3. tube
Float gauge is a commonly used device in most of the tankers.
14. True 1
False
Capacitance gauge consists of two probes.
15. True 1
False
LNG liquid pressure is the function of liquid density and liquid level.
16. True 1
False
Every LNG tank must be fitted with a liquid level gauge.
17. True 1
False
Float should be taken out from the liquid level when not in use.
18. True 1
False
____ is passed through the signal lines of the differential pressure gauge.
19. 1. Inert gas 2

2. air
3. liquid
20. The liquid content at all levels throughout the depth of the tank can be determined by the 1
capacitance gauge.
True
False
Which one of the following devices does not have contact with the LNG tank?
1. Float gauge
21. 2
2. bubble gauge
3. ultrasonic source
Devices that release small amount of liquid or vapor while in use are known as ______ devices.
1. Restricted
22. 2
2. detection
3. hydraulic
Answer Key
1. liquid
2. gate
3. TRUE
4. FALSE
5. Horizontally
6. TRUE
7. Open protective tube
8. Differential pressure
9. FALSE
10. Tape tensioning device
11. FALSE
12. Four
13. Tape
14. TRUE
15. TRUE
16. TRUE
17. TRUE
18. TRUE
19. Inert gas
20. TRUE
21. ultrasonic source
22. Restricted
In the case of ____ tanks carrying LNG below -55°C, the position of the temperature gauge is either
within the insulation or on the hull structure.
1. 1. Type A 2
2. type B
3. type C
If the valve stopping the LNG flow shuts quickly, there is a chance of high rise in the_____.
1. Temperature
2. 1
2. pressure
3. vibration
The sensor should have the ability to give an_____ alarm.
1. Audible and visual

3. 2
2. audible
3. visual
At least two sets of portable gas detection equipment should always be readily available in the
ships, along with ____ measuring equipment.
4. 1. Nitrogen 2
2. oxygen
3. ammonia
An independent high level sensor must be compulsorily fitted in every LNG tank except _____
tanks.
5. 1. Type-A 2
2. type-B
3. type-C
The gas detection heads should be subjected to regular testing and analysis.
6. True 1
False
The position of the temperature gauge at the top of the tank should be below the highest allowable
liquid level.
7. 1
True
False
A normally functioning detector head activates the alarm when the vapour concentration reaches
____ LFL.
8. 1. 10% 2
2. 30%
3. 50%
The temperature gauge should be marked with the allowable highest temperature level of the tank
steel.
9. 1
True
False
10. Sampling for each detector heads should be done within an interval of an hour.
1
True
False
One of the important codes of the IMO is to have gas detection system fixed in all ships.
11. True 1
False
Pressure must be monitored continuously in various components of the LNG system.
12. True 1
False
Gas detection systems are used in all types of LNG tanks except ____ LNG tanks.
1. Type C
13. 2
2. Type A
3. Type B
____ fixed to various components act as alarm or shutdown units.
1. Pressure switches
14. 2
2. float gauge
3. vibration sensor
Answer Key
1. Type A
2. pressure
3. Audible and visual
4. oxygen
5. type-C
6. TRUE
7. TRUE
8. 30%
9. FALSE
10. FALSE
11. TRUE
12. TRUE
13. Type C
14. Pressure switches
The scale reading in the toxic gas detector is marked in terms of _____.
1. Parts per million

1. 2
2. parts per billion
3. parts per trillion
Toxic gas detectors determine the presence of oxygen in the sample.
2. True 1
False
Toxic gas detector consists of a ____detector tube.
1. Open
3. 2
2. sealed
3. small
The detector tube must be used within the specific shelf life period.
4. True 1
False
Answer Key
1. Parts per million

2. FALSE
3. sealed
4. TRUE
In the oxygen analyser the oxygen diffuses through a __________ layer
1. Teflone
1. 2
2. Tetrafluroethylene
3. None of these
Polarographic oxygen analyser is an example of oxygen analyser that _______ a battery to operate.
1. Doesn't need
2. 2
2. Need
3. None of these
The ammeter needle indicates the presence _______ in the atmosphere.
1. Water
3. 2
2. Oxygen
Polarographic cells have a lifetime of _________ when operated consistently.
4. 1. 1 year 2
2. 2 year
3. Six Months
Batteries can also be changed in the gas dangerous zone.
5. True 1
False
The electrochemical reaction taking place at the permeable membrane _______ the current.
1. Has no effect on
6. 2
2. Controls
Answer Key
1. Teflone
2. Doesn't need
3. Oxygen
4. Six Months
5. FALSE
6. Controls
The momentary deflection caused in the combustible gas indicators can also be an indication that the
gas being sampled is ______ the lower flammable limit.
1. 1. Above 1
2. Below
3. None of these
The raise in temperature of the filament in the combustible gas indicators ________ the electrical
resistance.
2. 1. Increases 2
2. Decreases
3. None of these
When the sample is detected by the meter it might show a momentary strong deflection but after
that it comes down to steady low or zero.
3. 1
True
False
Combustible gas indicators are used to detect flammable gases, or vapours present in a tank. This is
accomplished by an intricate instrument incorporating a/an __________.
4. 1. Inflatable bag. 2
2. Vapor detecting carbon compound.
3. Heated filament.
4. Sensitive liquid chemical.
In the combustible gas indicators if the gas has a lower flammable limit the gas won't burn on the
filament surface.
5. 1
True
False
The imbalance caused by the increase in electrical resistance indicates the amount of __________
content in air.
6. 1. Hydrocarbon 2
2. Carbon
3. Oxygen
Combustible gas indicators indicate the ________.
1. Flammability
7. 1
2. Carbon monoxide content
3. Carbon dioxide content
Answer Key
1. Above
2. Increases
3. TRUE
4. Heated filament.
5. FALSE
6. Hydrocarbon
7. Flammability
For testing LNG tanks, enclosed spaces and void spaces ___________ gas indicators are used.
1. Catalytic
1. 1
2. Analytic
3. None of these
At the spaces that are inerted frequently with _______ the catalytic type doesn't function.
1. Nitrogen
2. 1
2. Oxygen
3. None of these
Catalytic instruments are ____________ instruments that are used while performing gas freeing
operations.
3. 1. Portable 2
2. Unhandy
3. None of these
Catalytic instruments are used in __________ form at spaces including compressor rooms,
machinery spaces, LNG holds and motor rooms that are air- filled or air- ventilate.
4. 1. Multi-point 1
2. Point- Slope
3. None of these
An infrared analyser is a __________ instrument.
1. Multi- point
5. 2
2. Point -slope
3. None of these
Answer Key
1. Catalytic
2. Nitrogen
3. Portable
4. Multi-point
5. Multi- point
Coriolis acceleration force is __________ to the direction of fluid flow and the direction of mechanical
rotation.
1. 1. Parallel 2
2. Opposite
3. perpendicular
When there is no flow in coriolis mass flow meter, mechanical vibration produced by the driver is not
identical at two sensing points.
2. 1
True
False
Coriolis acceleration force is opposite to the direction of fluid flow.
3. True 1
False
Coriolis flow meter is an instrument used to find _________ of the fluid.
1. mass flow rate

4. 2
2. Volumetric flow rate
3. pressure
The coriolis acceleration force produced in the fluid depends on ________ of the fluid.
5. 1. Volumetric flow rate 2

2. mass flow rate
3. density
Sensor in the coriolis mass flow meter consists of a coil connected to bracket A and one magnet
connected to bracket B.
6. 1
True
False
Driver is used to give mechanical vibration to the tubes, in coriolis flow meter.
7. True 1
False
Answer Key
1. perpendicular
2. FALSE
3. FALSE
4. mass flow rate
5. mass flow rate
6. FALSE
7. TRUE
State a possible reason and remedy for unusual noise from pump in hydraulic valve remote control
system?
1. 1. Reason : Dirty oil. Remedy : change complete system oil 1

2. Reason : Defective control valve. Remedy: Replace control valve
3. Reason : damaged pump part. Remedy : start standby pump and overhaul damaged pump.
4. Reason : Low voltage. Remedy: Check and adjust voltage.
Two pumps are provided in the HPU of hydraulic valve remote control system . What is the
capacity of each pump in the 250 litre model?
2. 1. 20 Ltr / Min 1
2. 40 Ltr / Min
3. 14 Ltr / Min
4. 50 Ltr / Min
Directional control v/v used in hydraulic system is controlled:--
1. Automatically.
3. 2
2. Semi automatically.
3. Electrically.
4. By air pressure.
What is the maximum working pressure of hydraulic oil in hydraulic valve remote control system?
1. 100 bar
4. 1
2. 200 bar
3. 170 bar
4. 250 bar
State a possible reason and remedy for clogged circuit in hydraulic valve remote control system?
1. Reason: low oil level. Remedy : Replenish oil.

5. 1
2. Reason: High temperature of oil. Remedy: Check and adjust the heater.
3. Reason: Insufficient flushing. Remedy: Flush the whole installation.
4. Reason: damaged pump part. Remedy : Overhaul damaged pump.
What is the bladder capacity of accumulator fitted in HPU unit of hydraulic valve remote control
system(250 l model)?
6. 1. 20 liters 1
2. 60 liters
3. 50 liters
4. 150 liters
7. 10
Sketch the schematic layout of a Hydraulic Valve Remote Control System showing
the Pumps, Accumulator, Solenoid valve, Actuators etc. ; provide some benefit points for the
hydraulic system of remote valve controls; State the possible reasons for a slower valve
movement than normal operation.
The actuators in hydraulic valve remote control system convert hydraulic energy into mechanical
rotating movement using :
8. 1. Bevel gears. 1
2. Cyclic gears.
3. Rack and pinion.
4. Rotary gears
Double pilot block fitted on actuators of hydraulic valve remote control system contain throttle
valve. What is the purpose of throttle valve?
9. 1. To reduce the flow of oil to actuator. 1

2. For connecting to emergency hand pump.
3. To adjust the speed of opening / closing of hydraulic valves.
4. To control the return oil from actuator.
What is the working pressure of HPU unit in hydraulic valve remote control system?
1. 150 bar.
10. 1
2. 110 bar.
3. 135 Bar
4. 200 bar.
State a possible reason and remedy for"valve not moving" in hydraulic valve remote control
system?
11. 1. Reason: Insufficient flushing. Remedy: Flush the whole installation. 1

2. Reason: Faulty accumulator. Remedy: Overhaul accumulator.
3. Reason: No / Low voltage. Remedy: Check voltage on control circuit.
4. Reason: Air in the system. Remedy: Carry out purging.
The main components of hydraulic valve remote control system are :
1. Solenoid valves.
12. 2. Hydraulic pumps. 1
3. Hydraulic actuator, Power unit, solenoid valve cabinet and control station with operating
system.
4. Power unit with accumulator.
Answer Key
1. Reason : damaged pump part. Remedy : start standby pump and overhaul damaged pump.
2. 14 Ltr / Min
3. Electrically.
4. 170 bar
5. Reason: Insufficient flushing. Remedy: Flush the whole installation.
6. 50 liters
7.
8. Rack and pinion.
9. To adjust the speed of opening / closing of hydraulic valves.
10. 135 Bar
11. Reason: No / Low voltage. Remedy: Check voltage on control circuit.
12. Hydraulic actuator, Power unit, solenoid valve cabinet and control station with operating system.
A control system manipulates the inputs to a system to obtain the desired output.
1. True 1
False
Explain the strategies used in designing the control systems involving an Open loop control and a
Closed loop control using block diagrams explaining the functions of the various elements in your
2. control circuits
10
Answer Key
1. TRUE
2.
Name the control system used in modern day ships.
1. 1. Feed forward control system 1

2. Feedback control system
Name the control system used to control conditions in a system.
2. 1. Process control system 1

2. Kinetic control system
Answer Key
1. Feedback control system

2. Process control system
In the process of electrochemical corrosion, (identify inaccurate statement)
1. Water has both hydrogen and hydroxyl ions

1. 1
2. Metal ion combines with the hydroxyl ions to form metallic hydroxide
3. Metallic hydroxide dissolves as a form of corrosion
4. The corrosion could be very aggressive
Types of corrosion could be many, identify which is not:
1. Direct corrosion
2. 1
2. Electrochemical corrosion
3. Galvanic corrosion
4. Metal erosion
1. Water has both hydrogen and hydroxyl ions

3. 2
2. Metal ion combines with the hydroxyl ions to form metallic hydroxide
3. Metallic hydroxide dissolves as a form of corrosion
For electrochemical corrosion, you need (identify correct statement)
1. Anode and Cathode

4. 1
2. Electrolyte
3. Anode, cathode and electrolyte
4. Anode, cathode, electrolyte and oxygen
Which of the following statements is false about corrosion due to galvanic action?
1. Metals close to the anodic end of galvanic series corrode in preference to the ones close to
5. the cathodic end. 2
2. Zinc is anodic to steel and is often used as a protective coating.
3. When any single metal exists in a system, it cannot corrode due to galvanic action.
4. Corrosion rate is affected by temperature.
Electrochemical corrosion occurs when iron is in contact with water, which contains ions of, (identify
inaccurate statement)
6. 1. hydrogen 1
2. hydroxyl
3. hydrogen and hydroxyl
4. hydrogen, hydroxyl and water molecule
Direct corrosion happens when the metal is reacted by, (identify correct statement)
7. 1. a corrosive solution 2
2. a neutral solution
3. an alkaline solution
8. Electrochemical corrosion occurs when iron is in contact with water, which contains ions of, (identify 2
inaccurate statement)
1. hydrogen
2. hydroxyl
4. hydrogen, hydroxyl and water molecule
Direct corrosion happens when the metal is reacted by, (identify correct statement)
9. 1. a corrosive solution 1
2. a neutral solution
3. an alkaline solution
In direct general corrosion, (identify incorrect statement)
10. 1. rate of corrosion is generally slow 2

2. rate of corrosion is affected by metal alloy
3. rate of corrosion is high
1. hydrogen ions in contact with metal surface forms hydrogen atom

11. 2
2. hydrogen ion takes an electron from the metal
3. There will be resultant metal ion
4. Metal ion reacts with hydrogen for corrosion
Fretting corrosion needs,(identify inaccurate statement)
12. 1. Movement between metallic connections 1

2. Can progress without any relative movements
3. Helped by low pH
In direct corrosion,(identify incorrect statement)
13. 1. rate of corrosion is generally slow 1

2. rate of corrosion is affected by metal alloy
3. rate of corrosion is high
1. hydrogen ions in contact with metal surface forms hydrogen atom

14. 1
2. hydrogen ion takes an electron from the metal
3. There will be resultant metal ion
15. Upon general wastage, the Ferrous hydroxide forms a layer on metal that, (identify inaccurate 2
statement)
1. Forms stable oxide film on metal

2. Once the above is formed, no corrosion can take place

3. Oxygen can cut through the film and cause localized pits
4. A higher pH will help to maintain the film
5. Carbon-di-oxide can cut the protective layer
Types of corrosion could be many, identify which is not:
1. Direct corrosion
16. 2
2. Electrochemical corrosion
3. Galvanic corrosion
4. Metal erosion
Base end of a galvanic series materials is used as, (identify correct statement)
17. 1. Protective Cathodes 1

3. Alloying compounds for reduction of corrosion
For electrochemical corrosion, you need (identify correct statement)
1. Anode and Cathode

18. 2
2. Electrolyte
4. Anode, cathode, electrolyte and oxygen
Upon general wastage, the Ferrous hydroxide forms a layer on metal that, (identify inaccurate
statement)
1. Forms stable oxide film on metal

19. 1
2. Once the above is formed, no corrosion can take place
3. Oxygen can cut through the film and cause localized pits
4. A higher pH will help to maintain the film
Galvanic action- which of the following is false:
1. Only one metal does not initiate corrosion

20. 2
2. The noble of metal will act as a cathode.
3. Two metals with electrolyte will not initiate corrosion
4. The anode corrodes and protects the cathode.
Answer Key

2. Metal erosion
5. When any single metal exists in a system, it cannot corrode due to galvanic action.
7. a corrosive solution
9. a corrosive solution
10. rate of corrosion is generally slow
12. Can progress without any relative movements
13. rate of corrosion is generally slow
16. Metal erosion
20. Two metals with electrolyte will not initiate corrosion
With reference to a vessel's structural integrity, the most significant characteristic of a cryogenic
liquid is its _______.
1. 1. Toxicity at atmospheric pressure 2

2. Highly corrosive action on mild steel
3. Capability of causing brittle fractures
4. Vapor cloud which reacts violently with saltwater.
The type of the tank fitted in LNG gas carrier is:
1. Type C
2. 1
2. Type B
3. Type A
4. Epicoated.
Answer Key
1. Capability of causing brittle fractures

2. Type A
Select the appropriate answer: The USCG Final Rule requires additional compliance for Ballast water
discharge:
1. To be equipped with a USCG type-approved ballast water treatment system by the date of
1. 1
their first IOPP survey after 8 September 2017.
2. To be equipped with at least ASM type-approved ballast water treatment system by the date
of their first IOPP survey after 8 September 2017.
3. Needs a Vessel General Permit (VGP).
Select the correct answer: The invasive species with deballasting can cause damage by,
1. Sexual characteristics of healthy native species

2. 1
2. Damage the human and animal food chain
3. Affect long-term survival of humans
4. All the above
Select the correct answer: Ballast Water Exchange requires,
1. At least 90% of volumetric exchange of ballast water

3. 1
Select the incorrect answer: USCG requires all vessels,going into US waters, regardless of
construction year and ballast water capacity
1. To be equipped with a USCG type-approved ballast water treatment system by the date of
4. their first IOPP survey after 8 September 2017. 1
2. To be equipped with a IMO type-approved ballast water treatment system by 8 September
2017
3. To be equipped with at least ASM type-approved ballast water treatment system by the date
of their first IOPP survey after 8 September 2017.
Select the incorrect answer: The USCG Final Rule provides additional compliance alternatives:
5. 1. Exclusive use of ballast water from a public water system in the United States 1
2. Discharge of all ballast water into an onshore facility or another vessel for treatment purposes
3. Deballast 100 nautical miles away from any US ports
Select the most important statement from below to protect the undersea ecology
1. The imported micro-organisms from deballasting may not survive in their new habitat
6. 1
2. The imported micro-organisms from deballasting may thrive in the new habitat
3. The imported micro-organisms from deballasting may attack the host organisms
4. All the above
7. Identify the incorrect statement: All vessels with a gross tonnage of 400 or greater are subject to 2
regular surveys and inspections. All ships must have on board:
1. An approved, ship-specific Ballast Water and Sediments Management Plan

2. A Ballast Water Record Book

3. A valid international Ballast Water Management Certificate
4. Port State Control does not provide recommendations for inspections and sampling to verify
compliance with the BWM Convention.
Select the correct answer: The USCG Final Rule requires, existing ships with ballast capacity of
1500 - 5000 and with date of construction on or after ______ to be equipped with approved
BWT Systems.
8. 1
1. 1 Dec 2013
2. 1 Jan 2014
3. 1 Jan 2015
Select the correct answers: The International Maritime Organization (IMO) lists the ten most
unwanted species; and among which identify those that are dominant in Asia?
1. Cholera Vibrio cholerae (various strains)

2. Cladoceran Water Flea Cercopagispengoi
3. Mitten Crab Eriocheirsinensis
9. 4. Toxic algae (red/brown/green tides) (various species) 1
5. Round Goby Neogobiusmelanostomus
6. North American Comb Jelly Mnemiopsisleidyi
7. North Pacific SeastarAsteriasamurensis
8. Zebra Mussel Dreissenapolymorpha
9. Asian Kelp Undariapinnatifida
10. European Green Crab Carcinusmaenas
Identify the correct statement: Ships conducting ballast water management must have Performance
Standard to limit Indicator microbes of <10 m to protect human health will be,
10. 1. Toxicogenic Vibrio cholera 1

2. E coli
3. Intestinal Enterococci
4. All the above
Select the correct answer: BWM Convention requires all vessels, regardless of construction year and
ballast water capacity
1. To be equipped with a type-approved ballast water treatment system by the date of their first
11. 1
IOPP survey after 8 September 2017.
2. To be equipped with a type-approved ballast water treatment system by 8 September 2017
3. To be equipped with at least ASM type-approved ballast water treatment system by 8
September 2017
Select the correct answer: Ballast Water Exchange requires,

12. 1
13. Select the most appropriate answer: 1
1. Ballasting creates invasion of micro-organism at sea

2. Deballastingcreates invasion of micro-organism at sea
3. Ship motion creates invasion of micro-organisms at sea
4. All the above
Identify the incorrect statement: Ships conducting ballast water management must have
Performance Standard to limit Indicator microbes of <10 mto protect human health as:
1. Toxicogenic Vibrio cholera (O1 and O139) with less than 1 colony-forming unit (cfu) per 100
14. 1
millilitres or less than 1 cfu per 1 gram (wet weight) zooplankton samples
2. E coli less than 250 cfu per 100 millilitres
4. Intestinal Enterococci less than 100 cfu per 100 millilitres
Select the correct answer:
1. As of 8 September 2017, vessels must perform BWE unless using a type-approved treatment
system.
15. 1
2. As of 8 September 2017, vessels must apply for exemption in restricted waters if not fitted
with type-approved treatment system.
3. As of 8 September 2017, vessels must perform BWEeven when equipped with a type-
approved treatment system.
Identify the incorrect statement: ballast water reporting and record keeping in US is done by,
1. The Ballast Water Management Report (BWMR) form

2. The Equivalent Reporting Program.
16. 1
3. A BWMR form must be submitted at least 48 hours before arrival for vessels travelling into
the Great Lakes or the Hudson River from outside the U.S. Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ).
4. A BWMR form must be submitted at least 24 hours before arrival for vessels travelling into
the Great Lakes or the Hudson River from outside the U.S. Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ).
Select the correct answer: Water borne micro-organisms from deballasting could introduce
1. Bacteria
2. Microbes
17. 1
3. Cysts
4. Eggs
5. Larvae
6. All the above
Select the inappropriate answer: The USCG Final Rule with VGP legislation requires,
1. System functionality monitoring to verify operation according to the manufacturer’s

specifications
2. Biological organism monitoring for 3 organisms: total heterotrophic bacteria, E. coli and
18. 1
enterococci
3. Residual biocide and derivative monitoring for active ingredients used in the treatment
system
4. Maintain the VGP certification, when the ship is deemed to be abiding by the USCG rules for
ballast water discharge
19. Identify the incorrect statement: Ships conducting ballast water management must have 1
Performance Standard to limit biological constituent by IMO as follows:
1. If > = 50 m in size with discharge limitation at 10 “viable” organisms/ of ballast water
2. “viable” organisms are those that can “successfully generate new individuals in order to
reproduce the species.”, as per IMO.
3. The USCG defines organisms as “living or dead”, irrespective of their ability to reproduce.
4. The USCG, however would accept the IMO definition as upholding the USCG standard.
What is Ballast water management and how it is managed on ship?
1. to ascertain that the ballast water has discharged completely

2. to ascertain that the ballast water of other region is not pumped out at the loading port directly to
20. 1
save the planktons
3. to make sure ballast water is discharged correctly
4. to make sure ballast water is tested before discharge
Identify the incorrect statement: All vessels with a gross tonnage of 400 or greater are subject to
regular surveys and inspections. All ships must have on board:
1. An approved, ship-specific Ballast Water and Sediments Management Plan

21. 1
2. A Ballast Water Record Book
3. A valid international Ballast Water Management Certificate
4. Port State Control does not provide recommendations for inspections and sampling to verify
Identify the incorrect statement: All vessels with a gross tonnage of 400 or greater are subject to
regular BWMS surveys and inspections. All ships must,
22. 1. Enter any accidental noncompliant discharge into the Ballast Water Record Book. 1
2. This information should be signed by the officer in charge
3. Immediately reported to the concerned Port State Authority.
4. Immediately report to the Flag State Authority.
Identify the incorrect statement: Ships conducting ballast water management must have
Performance Standard to limit biological constituent by IMO as follows:
23. 1. If > = 50 m in size with discharge limitation at 10 “viable” organisms/ of ballast water 1
2. If < = 50 m in size with discharge limitation at 10 “viable” organisms/ of ballast water
3. If < 50 m and > = 10 min size with discharge limit of 10 “viable”
organisms/milliliter of ballast water
Select the correct answer: As of 8 September 2017, vessels must perform BWE as follows:
24. 1. At least 200 nautical miles from the nearest land and in waters, and 200 meters in depth 1
2. At least 12 nautical miles from the nearest land and in waters, and 100 meters in depth
25. Select the correct answer to fill the gap: The USCG Final Rule requires, ships carrying ballast and 1
with date of construction on or after _____ to be equipped with approved BWT Systems.
1. 1 Dec 2013
2. 1 Jan 2014
3. 1 Jan 2015
Select the correct answer: The USCG Final Rule requires, ships carrying ballast and with date of
construction on or after 1 Dec 2013 to be equipped with approved BWT Systems.
26. 1
1. Upon Delivery
2. 1st schedule drydocking after 1 Jan 2016
3. 1st schedule drydocking after 1 Jan 2015
Select the incorrect answer: The international discharge standards for ballast water treatment are
defined in Regulation D-2 of the BWM Convention.
27. 1
1. They establish limits for discharged organisms in two different size classes
2. Set limits for three specific indicator microbes
3. Set limits for nine specific indicator microbes
Select the correct answer: To avoid damage to the environment, one idea is to,
1. Disallow ballasting of seawater from a different source

28. 1
2. Allow deballasting only at deep sea
3. Have segregated ballast tanks
4. Impose international and local regulations for ship movements
Answer Key
1. Needs a Vessel General Permit (VGP).

2. All the above
4. To be equipped with a IMO type-approved ballast water treatment system by 8 September 2017
5. Deballast 100 nautical miles away from any US ports
6. The imported micro-organisms from deballasting may attack the host organisms
Port State Control does not provide recommendations for inspections and sampling to verify
7.
8. 1 Dec 2013
Cholera Vibrio cholerae (various strains)
Cladoceran Water Flea Cercopagispengoi
Toxic algae (red/brown/green tides) (various species)

9.
Zebra Mussel Dreissenapolymorpha
Asian Kelp Undariapinnatifida
10. All the above

To be equipped with a type-approved ballast water treatment system by the date of their first IOPP
11.
survey after 8 September 2017.
13. Deballastingcreates invasion of micro-organism at sea
15. As of 8 September 2017, vessels must perform BWE unless using a type-approved treatment system.
A BWMR form must be submitted at least 48 hours before arrival for vessels travelling into the Great
16.
Lakes or the Hudson River from outside the U.S. Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ).
17. All the above
Maintain the VGP certification, when the ship is deemed to be abiding by the USCG rules for ballast
18.
water discharge
19. The USCG, however would accept the IMO definition as upholding the USCG standard.
to ascertain that the ballast water of other region is not pumped out at the loading port directly to save
20.
the planktons
Port State Control does not provide recommendations for inspections and sampling to verify
21.
23. If < = 50 m in size with discharge limitation at 10 “viable” organisms/ of ballast water
25. 1 Dec 2013
26. Upon Delivery
27. Set limits for nine specific indicator microbes
28. Impose international and local regulations for ship movements
Identify the incorrect statement: All vessels with a gross tonnage of 400 or greater and subject to
regular BWMS surveys and inspections with any non compliance discharge must,
1. 1. Enter any accidental noncompliant discharge into the Ballast Water Record Book. 2
2. This information should be signed by the officer in charge
3. Immediately reported to the concerned Port State Authority.
Answer Key
An organic solid lubricant, such as graphite, is suitable as an oil additive when used in __________.
1. Line shaft bearings.

1. 2
2. bearings subject to fluctuating loads.
3. Machinery bearings subjected to high temperatures
4. Antifriction bearings on general service pumps.
Your vessel is taking on bunkers from a shore side facility. If oil begins flowing from one tank vent,
which of the following actions should be taken FIRST?
2. 1. Open the intake valve to an adjacent tank. 2

2. Set out drip pans and sawdust and begin to mop up the spill.
3. Signal the shore control point to shut down.
4. Close the valve on the tank vent line.
The function of lubricating oil is to __________.
1. Maintain even distribution of bearing wear

3. 2
2. Maintain a constant oil temperature
3. Maintain a pressurized fluid film between moving surfaces.
4. Remove entrained water.
The depth of fuel oil in a tank is normally measured through the __________.
1. Vent line
4. 1
2. Overflow line
3. Sounding pipe.
4. Feed valve.
For optimum results, centrifugal purification of heavy fuel oil should be accomplished with the fuel at
the lowest practicable _________.
5. 1. TBN number. 2
2. Cetane number.
3. Throughput.
4. Additive percent.
What effect will transferring fuel oil from #1P double bottom to #3P double bottom have on the trim
of a vessel?
6. 1. The mean draft will increase. 1

2. The mean draft will decrease.
3. The forward draft will decrease.
4. The after draft will decrease.
7. The graphite in a bearing lubricant compound of graphite grease, acts as a __________. 2
1. Low temperature sealer

2. Moisture barrier
3. Filler to smoothen surface irregularities
4. Coolant to carry away heat.
Your vessel is taking on fuel oil when a small leak develops in the hose and you have ordered the
pumping stopped. Before resuming pumping you should __________.
8. 1. Notify the terminal superintendent 2

2. Place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers.
3. Replace the hose.
4. Repair the hose with a patch.
Answer Key
1. Machinery bearings subjected to high temperatures

2. Signal the shore control point to shut down.
3. Maintain a pressurized fluid film between moving surfaces.
4. Sounding pipe.
5. Throughput.
6. The forward draft will decrease.
7. Filler to smoothen surface irregularities
8. Replace the hose.
Which of the following types of steam traps uses the pressure energy of the steam to close the
outlet?
1. 1. Thermostatic trap 2
2. Mechanical trap.
3. Thermodynamic trap.
4. Vacuum trap.
Which of the following statement is true if the oil temperature is allowed to become excessively high
in the heaters/tanks?
2. 1. Excessive temperature will increase oil viscosity that results to poor combustion 2
2. Excessive temperature will cause the oil to crystallize resulting in pulsating fires.
3. Accelerated formation of solid particles and fuel loses its heating value.
4. Increased water content in fuel.
Answer Key
1. Thermodynamic trap.
2. Accelerated formation of solid particles and fuel loses its heating value.
The percentage of impurities in a specific fuel oil sample is determined by __________.
1. settling in a fuel tank

1. 1
2. testing in a laboratory centrifuge
3. burning in a calorimeter
4. testing in a closed cup
Small amounts of moisture are necessary to trigger the growth of microbiological organisms found
in some marine fuels. Some sources of water contamination are __________.
2. 1. Tank surface evaporation. 2

2. Inadequate tank cleaning.
3. Improper tank washing procedures
4. Mixing of fuels of various grades.
What happens when the fuel oil temperature to the engine is too low?
3. 1
1. Poor atomisation.
2. Exhaust temperature decreases.
The volatility of a liquid is the tendency of a liquid to __________.
1. Percolate.
4. 1
2. Explode.
3. vaporize.
4. Asphyxiate.
The ash content of a fuel oil is significant to the operating engineer because it __________.
1. Reflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service system.
5. 2
2. Is useful for determining proper atomization temperatures.
3. Is an indication of the amount of non-combustible material present in the oil.
4. Indicates the quantity of energy released by burning a unit amount of the fuel.
A liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) having a flash point at or above 37.78°C
is called a/an __________.
6. 1. Explosive liquid. 1
2. viscous liquid.
3. Combustible liquid
4. Flammable liquid.
What is meant by the viscosity of fuel oil? Discuss the influence of temperature on viscosity. What
modification of the fuel injection and atomising arrangement may be found necessary when oil
7. having a high viscosity, such as boiler oil, is used for fuel? 5
8. Define the following terms: 5

a. Viscosity
b. Viscosity index
c. Cloud point
d. Pour point
What is the function of clarifier?
9. 1. It separates solids from fuel. 1

2. It separates water and solids from fuel.
What is the harmful effect of sulfur in a fuel?
1. It causes excessive smoking and soot at low firing rates.

10. 1
2. It doesn't readily burn when combined with oxygen.
3. It clogs fuel oil strainers more often.
4. It forms a corrosive acid when mixed with water or water vapor.
Answer Key
1. testing in a laboratory centrifuge

2. Improper tank washing procedures
3. Poor atomisation.
4. vaporize.
5. Is an indication of the amount of non-combustible material present in the oil.
6. Combustible liquid
7. Viscosity of fuel oil
Viscosity of fluids is a measure of its internal resistance to fl ow. It is important in diesel engine
fuel
oils. Fuel injector atomises the fuel oil i.e. breaks it into minute particles for proper
combustion of the
oil in a diesel engine.
To ensure proper atomisation, the viscosity of fuel should be within a range of 10 to 20
centistokes.
See question 2.1 for more
Influence of temperature on viscosity

Heating of fuel oil reduces its viscosity. Higher the initial viscosity of the fuel, the greater must
be the
temperature to which it has to be heated in order to attain the required viscosity for
injecting into the
engine cylinder.
Modifi cation of the fuel injection and atomising arrangements required for using a
high
viscosity fuel in diesel
A distillate fuel such as diesel oil has low viscosity and has no problem with its atomisation
by the fuel
injection equipment. However, a high viscosity residual fuel oil will not inject
and atomise properly
and therefore, will not burn readily. Moreover there will be very high
resistance to fl ow of oil through
the fuel pump and injector. This will create high pressures
and cause damage to the injection
equipment. Heating system for the fuel before injection is
installed to make the engine suitable for
burning high viscosity residual fuel.
There may also be pumping difficulties for high viscosity fuel in cold climates while transferring
fuel
from double bottom and other storage tanks. Some heating is required for fuel storage
tanks .
Modifications are also necessary in the fuel injection equipment and engine components.
The following are the major modifications required:
1. Availability of adequate capacity boiler to provide steam for heating the fuel oil. If the
existing
boiler capacity is insuffi cient then replace the boiler with a larger capacity.
2. Separate double bottom or cross bunkers spaces to be earmarked for the carriage of high
viscosity fuel. Earmark separate double bottom or cross bunkers spaces for the carriage of
high
viscosity fuel.
3. Provide new fuel oil settling and service tanks, pipe line connections, mixing tanks, fuel
return
lines, change over arrangements for diesel of high viscosity fuel and vice versa. All
these should
be as per the recommendations of the engine builder.
4. Install heating steam coils in the fuel oil double bottom tanks, storage tanks, settling and
service tanks.
5. Install a fuel oil end heater viscosity measurement and viscosity control equipment.
6. Provide new fuel oil transfer pump, booster pumps suitable for handling high viscosity oil.
7. Replace fuel oil purifi ers, fi lters if they are not suitable for handling high viscosity fuel oil.
8. Provide laggings over the heated fuel oil lines
9. Provide laggings for fuel oil settling and service tanks
10. The following additional modifications are recommended by Daihatsu Diesels:
Exhaust valve rotator

Special materials for exhaust valve
Modified fuel injection pump and injector (with larger clearances)
Higher wear resistant material for cylinder liner
Strengthening of piston ring grooves
Provide in service turbocharger cleaning arrangement
8. 1.a. Define viscosity.

A Viscosity of a fluid is its internal resistance to flow. The speed of fluid inside a pipe is not uniform. It
is minimum in the layer close to the pipe wall. It increases gradually and is maximum at the centre.
Compared to low viscosity oil, high viscosity oil will fl ow at slower rate owing to greater internal
resistance between the oil layers. This is illustrated graphically in the sketch in which length of each
layer represents the fl ow rate.
Viscosity is an important criteria in determining the choice of lubricating oils. It is also of utmost
importance in diesel engine burning residual fuels. The high viscosity fuel is heated on board the ship
to reduce the viscosity to acceptable level for injection into the combustion space.
There are several ways of expressing the viscosity. Absolute unit of viscosity is Poise and the
generally used engineering term Stoke refers to kinematic viscosity which is the ratio of absolute
viscosity to density. Since the values of kinematic viscosity in stoke are large, it is more common to
express them in centistokes (1 stoke = 100 centistokes)
Other methods of expressing viscosity include Redwood No. 1, Saybolt and Engler. For lubricating oils
the use of Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE) units is common.
Typical viscosities of lubricating oils are:
SAE 30 for crosshead type engine bearings (equivalent to 9.3 to 12.5 centistokes at 100°C)
SAE 40 for trunk piston type bearings (12.5 to 16.3 centistokes)
SAE 50 for cylinder lubrication (16.3 to 21.9 centistokes)
In marine terminology, viscosity of fuel oil is expressed in centistokes at 50°C. Fuel oils are generally
supplied at viscosities 180, 380 and sometimes 700 centistokes. Onboard heating reduces the
viscosity to 10 to 20 centistokes at the point of injection.
1.b. Define viscosity index.

Viscosity index of an oil indicated the change of viscosity that occurs with the change of temperature.
An oil with high viscosity index will have a small change in viscosity over a high change in
temperature. Additives are used to improve the viscosity index of the lubricating oil. Viscosity index is
dimensionless.
1.c. Define Cloud point

Cloud point is the temperature at which dissolved solids like wax crystals begin to form and separate,
giving a cloudy appearance to the oil. This point is above the pour point. Some oils like naphthenic
oils do not exhibit cloud point as they contain less waxy components than paraffinic oils.
1.d. Define Pour point

Oil thickens and increases in viscosity at lower temperatures. At one point of time the wax products in
the oil begin to form crystals. The lowest temperature at which the oil can still be poured from a
container by gravity is called the pour point
Pour point is determined by taking a sample of oil in a jacketed glass test jar. The mouth of the jar is
sealed with a cork carrying a thermometer.
The oil is cooled and temperature is measured with every 5°C reduction in temperature. The jar is
tilted and kept in this position for 3 seconds.
If the oil still flows the experiment is continued. The pour point is determined as 5°C above the point
at which the oil stopped flowing.
9. It separates solids from fuel.

10. It forms a corrosive acid when mixed with water or water vapor.
What is specific fuel consumption of a diesel engine? Why is it necessary to specify it and how will
1. you check this for the large diesel engine of your vessel? 3
The Maximum limit set for CCAI by ISO 8217:2010 for a fuel of a RMG and RMK grade is:---
1. 890
2. 1
2. 840
3. 880
4. 850.
What is the maximum sulfur content for fuel grades 180 cst and above as per ISO 8217 2010?
1. O,9 % by mass.
3. 1
2. O,8 % by mass.
3. O,5 % by mass.
4. O,6 % by mass.
What is the temperature at which kinematic viscosity is referred to according to ISO 8217:2010?
1. 10 °C.
4. 1
2. 30 °C.
3. 40 °C.
4. 50 °C.
Write brief notes on the adverse effects that may be caused due to a fuel containing high values of:
a. Viscosity
b. Density
c. Sulphur
d. Conradson carbon residue
5. 5
e. Asphaltenes
f. Vanadium and sodium
g. Ash
h. Water
Max. density of F.O at 15 Deg C which can be used for marine residual fuel-RMH 700 is:
1. 941 Kg/M3
6. 1
2. 981 Kg/M3
3. 991 Kg/M3
4. 961 Kg/M3
Answer Key
Specific Fuel Consumption or SFC is the amount of fuel consumed per horsepower hour or per
kilowatt-
hour. It is expressed in grams.
Typical value of SFC in a modern large slow speed two stroke engine is around 120 grams per
bhp hour
or 160 grams per kW hour. For the purpose of comparison, SFC is calculated on the
basis of fuel of
standard lower calorific value (LCV) 10,200 kcal per kg.
SFC is a measure of thermodynamic efficiency of the engine. Lower the SFC, the higher will
be the
thermodynamic efficiency and lower will be the fuel consumption for the same engine
power and speed
of the ship.
For the sake of fuel economy, the SFC should be as low as possible. In a shipbuilding contract,
the
engine SFC is specified and guaranteed. The actual SFC is measured during shop test. If it
exceeds the
1. contracted SFC by more than 3 per cent, the shipyard or the engine maker has to
compensate the ship
owner.
Onboard a ship, to calculate the SFC, it is necessary at first to determine the brake power.
This can be
done by ascertaining the indicated power (IHP) after taking indicator cards and
multiplying the
indicated power by the mechanical efficiency of the engine (usually taken as
0.95).
At the same time, the fuel consumption rate in kilograms per hour is obtained by observing
the fuel
consumption over a period. It can be observed for 2 or 3 hours around the time of
taking cards.
The SFC is finally arrived at by dividing the fuel consumption per hour by brake power. For
comparison
with shop test figures, the SFC calculated as above should be divided by the
LCV of the fuel used in
shop test (this data is usually available onboard the ship). It is then
multiplied with the LCV of the
actual fuel used.
2. 880
3. O,5 % by mass.
4. 40 °C.
5. 2.a. Write brief notes on the adverse effects that may be caused due to a fuel
containing
high values of viscosity.
High viscosity of fuel oil does not have any adverse effect on combustion in a diesel
engine if it is
equipped to deal with it. There should be adequate heating arrangement
to reduce the viscosity of oil
by 10 ~ 20 centistokes at the point of injection. The fuel
injection system should be designed to burn
high viscosity oil and should have a dual
pressure fuel system. Modern large slow speed two stroke
marine diesel engines are
equipped to deal with fuel oils up to 580 centistokes viscosity at 50°C.
However, most
engines use fuel oils of viscosity 380 centistokes or lower.
If heating cannot reduce high viscosity to an acceptable level onboard, the fuel will not
atomize and
lead to several problems. It results in improper combustion, after burning, high
exhaust temperature,
carbon deposits, blocking of scavenge ports and fouling of exhaust
side.
These may cause overheating, blow by or seizure, deposits in the under piston space and
scavenge fi
re. Excessive build up of pressure at the fuel pump and injector can also cause
problems.
2.b. Write brief notes on the adverse effects that may be caused due to a fuel
containing
high values of density.
Normal range of density of fuel oils supplied to ships is within 910 to 980 kg/m3 at 15°C.
ISO
8216:2005 specifies upper limits of density within 991 kg/m3 to 1010 kg/m3 at 15°C for
different
grades.
Sufficient difference in densities of water and fuel is required to separate them in a
centrifugal
separator. When oil is heated before purification, the reduction in density of oil is
more than that of
water which helps separation. However, if the fuel density is over
991 kg/m3 it is difficult to get rid of
the water in the fuel in a traditional gravity disc type
separator.
A different type of separator without
gravity disc can deal with water separation from fuel
oil up to 1010 kg/m3 density. In these separators
any water in oil is retained within the
bowl. When the water space is full, excess water begins to
escape with purified oil.
A Water transducer on the discharge outlet of the clean oil detects the water
content every
6 seconds and feeds the signal to the electronic processor unit. Any abnormality in water
content will initiate a trigger program with two options:
To open the master drain valve to eject the excess water.
Initiate a sludge discharge program depending on time elapsed between sludge

discharge
intervals.
If density of fuel is higher than the capacity of the separator then excess water in the
settling tank is
drained out.
2.c. Write brief notes on the adverse effects that may be caused due to a fuel
containing
high values of sulphur.
Sulphur in fuel burns to form sulphur oxides. If there is no dew formation in the cylinder
and exhaust
gas passages, the sulphur oxides will not cause any damage.
Sometimes dew formation takes place due to low jacket cooling temperature. In such
cases water
vapour condensed on cylinder wall combines with sulphur oxides to form acids.
This leads to corrosion
of the cylinder liner and other parts of the engine. These problems
aggravate further if the sulphur
content increases.
Cylinder oil contains alkaline additives to neutralise any acids formed. The normal TBN is 70
which is
sufficient to neutralise acids up to 3.5 percent sulphur in fuel. In case of excessive
sulphur, the TBN of
the cylinder oil may be insufficient to prevent acid formation. Increase
the cylinder oil feed rate
prevents acid formation. In the MAN B&W Alpha Adaptive Cylinder
oil Control system it is possible to
adjust the cylinder oil feed rate according to the sulphur
value in the fuel .
2.d. Write brief notes on the adverse effects that may be caused due to a fuel
containing
high values of conradson carbon residue
Conradson carbon residue and micro carbon residue has the same meaning and has the
same
numerical value. ISO 8217:1987 specified upper limits of carbon residue as
Ramsbottom or Conradson
while in ISO 8217:2005 both have been replaced with the term
micro carbon residue
During distillation of crude oil the lighter fractions that are separated contain small amounts
of carbon.
As more and more distillates are extracted from the crude oil, it becomes richer
in carbon. A high
Conradson or micro carbon residue number indicates the presence of large
amount of carbon in fuel.
ISO 8217:2005 specifies an upper limit of micro carbon residue
between 15 to 22 percent for different
grades.
Fuel oils containing large traction of carbon take longer time to burn in cylinder and often
remain
unburnt. This results in black smoke and carbonaceous deposits on piston crown
and sides, cylinder
cover, turbocharger and exhaust gas passages. Carbonaceous deposits
between the liner and piston
rings or between the exhaust valve and seats result in
increased wear of these parts.
This can also promote blow by, deposits in the under piston space and scavenge fire.
2.e. Write brief notes on the adverse effects that may be caused due to a fuel
containing
high values of asphaltenes.
Asphaltenes are complex compounds in fuel with high carbon/hydrogen ratio and are
aromatic in ring
structure. Under normal circumstances in a stable fuel oil, asphaltene
remains in a dispersed or
colloidally suspended condition. This condition is called maltene.
The heavy oil consists of high carbon/hydrogen ratio nucleus called micelle and successive
layers of
carbon/hydrogen ratios of reducing order. These successive layers are called
maltenes. When mixing
with incompatible fuel the outer layers are disturbed and the
nucleus will precipitate as sludge.
A high level of asphaltene means a high carbon residue with additional problems.
2.f. Write brief notes on the adverse effects that may be caused due to a fuel
containing
high values of vanadium and sodium.
These are components of ash. An excess of these create problems. At high temperatures,
sodium and
vanadium combine in certain proportion to form a highly corrosive, viscous and
sticky compounds with
low melting point. These compounds adhere to surfaces as exhaust
valves and seats and turbocharger
blades.
ISO 8217:2005 specifies an upper limit for vanadium of 200 to 600 ppm, but does not
specify sodium,
though some engine builders have specified a limit of 100 ppm for sodium.
Cooling the valve seat and burning high viscosity residual fuels reduce corrosive effects of
vanadium
and sodium in exhaust valves.
2.g. Write brief notes on the adverse effects that may be caused due to a fuel
containing
high values of ash.
Ashes are metallic and non metallic elements in fuel that do not burn. Ash may occur
naturally and
depending on the source of crude oil may consist of aluminium, calcium, iron,
nickel, silicon, sodium
and vanadium. Ash may also come from external sources such as
sodium from seawater, iron from
rust, aluminium and silicon from dust or catalyst fines.
ISO 8217:2005 specifies an ash limit of 0.1 to 0.15 percent. A high ash in fuel may lead to
deposits,
excessive wear, and corrosion.
2.h. Write brief notes on the adverse effects that may be caused due to a fuel
containing
high values of water.
Sodium in seawater is harmful but presence of small amounts of water does not cause
any problem
ISO 8217:2005 limits water to 0.5 per cent.
Water in any quantity is however not desirable as it represents a loss of energy and may
lead to
combustion related problems. Bacterial attack takes place for contaminated water
carrying bacteria.
Settling and draining out in a settling tank and centrifuging removes
excess water in fuel oil.
6. 991 Kg/M3
If your ship burns 2.9 tons of fuel per hour at 20 knots, how,many tons per hour will it burn at 15
knots?
1. 4.3 tons
1. 1
2. 2.2 tons
3. 1.6 tons
4. 1.2 tons
If your vessel burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 22
knots?
1. 11.7 tons
2. 1
2. 17.2 tons
3. 14.2 tons
4. 25.2 tons
a.Explain why it is necessary to heat heavy oil before burning it in the cylinder of an
internal combustion engine. Describe a system whereby the oil temperature can be
automatically maintained at the correct figure.
3. 3
b. Show the means employed for manually controlling the temperature in the event of failure of the
automatic controls.
If your ship burns 4 tons of fuel per hour at 21 knots, how,many tons per hour will it burn at 16
knots?
1. 2.3 tons
4. 1
2. 1.8 tons
3. 1.3 tons
4. 1.1 tons
knots?
1. 11.7 tons
5. 1
2. 14.2 tons
3. 17.2 tons
4. 25.2 tons
knots?
6. 1. 13.82 tons 1
2. 15.61 tons
3. 16.00 tons
4. 16.37 tons
knots?
1. 11.7 tons
7. 1
2. 10.7 tons
3. 19.0 tons
4. 14.2 tons
8. What are the two main combustion elements of fuel? 1
1. Sodium and vanadium.

2. Carbon and hydrogen.
knots?
1. 10.1 tons
9. 1
2. 12.8 tons
3. 16.3 tons
4. 19.1 tons
Your ship has steamed 1856 miles at 18 knots using 545,tons of fuel oil. The distance remaining to
your next port is,1978 miles. If you increase speed to 22 knots, how much,fuel will be used to
reach that port?
10. 1. 690 tons 1

2. 710 tons
3. 772 tons
4. 868 tons
reach that port?
11. 1. 640 tons 1

2. 722 tons
3. 983 tons
4. 1060 tons
knots?
1. 20.3 tons
12. 1
2. 22.0 tons
3. 26.1 tons
4. 29.4 tons
knots?
1. 13.8 tons
13. 1
2. 11.5 tons
3. 10.7 tons
4. 9.5 tons
knots?
1. 1.9 tons
14. 1
2. 2.4 tons
3. 3.1 tons
4. 3.3 tons
15. If your vessel burns 2.9 tons of fuel per hour operating at a speed of 20 knots, how many tons per 1
hour will it burn at a speed of 15 knots?
1. 1.2 tons
2. 1.6 tons
3. 2.0 tons
4. 2.4 tons
your next port is,1645 miles. If you decrease speed to 19 knots, how much,fuel will be used to
reach that port?
16. 1. 425 tons 1

2. 537 tons
3. 625 tons
4. 712 tons
knots?
1. 19.0 tons
17. 1
2. 21.7 tons
3. 22.4 tons
4. 27.0 tons
knots?
18. 1. 12.8 tons 1

2. 16.3 tons
3. 10.6 tons
4. 10.1 tons
knots?
1. 1.4 tons
19. 1
2. 1.7 tons
3. 2.2 tons
4. 2.8 tons
Define each of the following terms and explain their relevance to combustion:
a. Cetane number
b. After burning
20. 3
c. Ignition delay
d. Detonation
knots?
1. 3.0 tons
21. 1
2. 5.3 tons
3. 2.3 tons
4. 1.8 tons
Name the fuel used in modern propulsion engines
22. 1
1. LPG
2. HFO
23. If your ship burns 3 tons of fuel per hour at 19 knots, how,many tons per hour will it burn at 15 1
knots?
1. 1.5 tons
2. 1.9 tons
3. 2.4 tons
4. 5.3 tons
reach that port?
24. 1. 569 tons 1

2. 664 tons
3. 797 tons
4. 956 tons
knots?
1. 5.3 tons
25. 1
2. 2.4 tons
3. 1.9 tons
4. 1.5 tons
reach that port?
26. 1. 652 tons 1

2. 767 tons
3. 858 tons
4. 902 tons
reach that port?
27. 1. 332 tons 1

2. 435 tons
3. 522 tons
4. 1216 tons
reach that port?
28. 1. 327 tons 1

2. 488 tons
3. 399 tons
4. 1220 tons
29. Your ship has steamed 1940 miles at 21 knots using 635,tons of fuel oil. The distance remaining to 1
reach that port?
1. 714 tons
2. 850 tons
3. 1012 tons
4. 1214 tons
knots?
1. 4.6 tons
30. 1
2. 3.9 tons
3. 2.8 tons
4. 1.7 tons
Answer Key
1. 1.2 tons
2. 25.2 tons
3. 4.a. Explain why it is necessary to heat heavy oil before burning it in the
cylinder of an
internal combustion engine. Describe a system whereby the oil
temperature can be
automatically maintained at the correct figure.
It is necessary to heat residual fuels to reduce the viscosity at the point of injection to
10 to 20
centistokes for proper fuel injection. If the viscosity at the injection point is higher
than
recommended, fuel will not be atomized and mixed with air properly. The combustion
will not be
proper leading to smoking, carbon deposits in cylinders, turbine and exhaust
system. It will also
result in rapid wear of liner and piston rings, blow by overheating,
seizure, scavenge fire and other
consequent problems.
Automatic maintenance of oil temperature
Fuel system in ships has heating arrangement that adjusts the fuel oil temperature
automatically to
maintain the correct viscosity.
The sketch shows one type of viscosity controller which has small gear pump inside the
fuel delivery
line after the heater. It draws fuel oil from the passing stream and discharges
upstream through an
internal tube of small bore. The tube has a capillary or restrictor and
a pressure drop across this tube
depends on the viscosity of oil.
The pressure difference
is fed to a differential pressure transmitter. This transmitter sends an air
pressure signal
proportional to the viscosity to the controller and display unit. The pressure gauge in
the
controller is calibrated directly to indicate viscosity of the fuel oil.
Automatic viscosity control is
achieved by comparing the pressure difference with a preset
value corresponding to the required
viscosity. If the actual pressure difference is higher
or lower, the controller will transmit more or less
air to the pneumatically operated heater
steam inlet valve.
Fuel oil is normally heated in a steam heater placed between the fuel oil booster pump
and the main
engine. Heating temperature depends on the viscosity of the fuel. A fuel
having viscosity of 180
centistokes at 50°C requires to be heated to 108 to 118°C and 380
centistokes at 50°C to 120 to
130°C. This reduces the viscosity to 10 to 20 centistokes

range. Sulzer recommends heating to 20°C
higher to allow for a drop in temperature. Fuel
should not be heated above 150°C else, cracking and
carbon deposit may occur in the
heater.
4.b. Show the means employed for manually controlling the temperature in the
event of
failure of the automatic controls.
Manual temperature control in the event of failure of automatic controls
The steam supply valve to the fuel oil heater is automatically regulated to admit the right
amount of
steam and provide the right amount of heating. This maintains the desired
viscosity of oil.
In case of failure of the viscosity controller, the steam supply valve is manually opened or
closed as
necessary. The bunker supplier provides the information about the viscosity of the
fuel oil which is
usually at 50°C. Charts are available onboard, often supplied in the main
engine manual. They
indicate the temperature range at which the oil is heated to attain the
correct viscosity. The steam
valve on the heater need to be adjusted manually to maintain
the required fuel temperature.
4. 1.8 tons
5. 25.2 tons
6. 13.82 tons
7. 19.0 tons
8. Carbon and hydrogen.
9. 16.3 tons
10. 868 tons
11. 983 tons
12. 22.0 tons
13. 13.8 tons
14. 2.4 tons
15. 1.2 tons
16. 425 tons
17. 19.0 tons
18. 16.3 tons
19. 2.8 tons
20. 3.a. Define the term cetane number and explain its relevance to combustion.
Cetane number is indicative of the ignition quality of the fuel. Higher the cetane number the
better is
the ignition quality i.e. less delay in ignition.
ASTM 613 describes the test method to determine cetane number. For the purpose, two
fuels are
chosen
1. n hezadecane (cetane) which has a very good ignition characteristic and is assigned a
cetane
number 100
2. alpha methylnaphthalene which has a poor ignition characteristic and is assigned a
Cetane
number 0
Cetane number of a particular fuel is the percentage by volume of cetane in a mixture of

cetane and
alpha methylnaphthalene. It will have the same delay in ignition as the sample
fuel in a test engine.
Recommended cetane numbers of fuel are, for high speed engines 47 to 55, medium speed
40 to 50
and for slow speed engines 35 to 45.
Cetane number applies to distillate fuels only such as diesel oil and is not suitable for
expressing the
ignition quality of residual fuel oils.
3.b. Define the term after burning and explain its relevance to combustion.
All the fuel injected into the diesel engine should burn in the cylinder and generate power
during
expansion stroke of the engine. A well maintained engine, that runs
properly should achieve this.
Sometimes incomplete combustion results due to poor quality of fuel and injection, poor
maintenance
or improper operation of engines. In such cases the exhaust gases may still
contain some carbon
which will continue to burn after leaving the engine. This is known as
after burning. After burning not
only means reduction of the thermal efficiency and loss of

power, but also fouling from carbon deposit
and overheating in the exhaust gas system.
3.c. Define the term ignition delay and explain its relevance to combustion.
Fuel is injected into the cylinder when or just before the piston reaches top dead centre,
but does not
ignite immediately. The time lapsed between commencement of injection and
the actual ignition is
called ignition delay. Two factors determine the ignition delay, the
quality of fuel and the compression
temperature.
Ignition delay at low loads, when the engine is started for the first time from cold is quite
common. It
takes longer for the compression temperature to rise sufficiently to cause
ignition. When ignition
takes place the fuel that has accumulated ignites all of a sudden
causing a rapid rise in pressure. It is
accompanied by a knock.
As the engine warms up, ignition delay is reduced and the knock disappears.
Apart from the compression temperature, ignition delay also depends on the quality of fuel.
The ignition quality of a distillate fuel is expressed in terms of its cetane number and
ignition quality
for a residual fuel is indicated by its Calculated Carbon Aromaticity Index
(CCAI). Both these values
indirectly relate to chemical composition of the fuel.
Ignition delay is undesirable in a diesel engine as it results in a rapid and uncontrolled use
in the
pressure and stresses.
3.d. Define the term detonation and explain its relevance to combustion.

In a compression ignition diesel engine, ignition delay resulting in fuel knock is some times
referred
to as ‘detonation’. It is different in case of a spark ignition type engine. In a spark
ignition engine, a
timed spark ignites the mixture of air and petrol vapour. Under certain
conditions, particularly with
excessive pressure and heat, auto ignition takes place
producing multiple flames and pressure waves.
This is called detonation.
Detonation causes severe stresses to engine components. It is harmful and should be
avoided.
Detonation in a petrol engine occurs for several reasons. These include fuel
quality (its octane
number), too lean a mixture, advanced spark ignition timing and high
compression ratio. Using a
higher octane fuel prevents detonation in most cases.
21. 1.8 tons
22. HFO
23. 1.5 tons
24. 797 tons
25. 1.5 tons
26. 767 tons
27. 332 tons
28. 399 tons
29. 850 tons
30. 2.8 tons
What is viscometer or viscosity controller?
1. to check the condition of oil

1. 2. it ascertains and maintains the viscosity of oil 1
3. to check the quality of injection
4. to check the consumption of oil
Which of the following statement describes the unchecked growth of microbiological organisms within
a fuel system?
a. The dying bacteria will cause a coating to be formed on the sides of the tank thereby decreasing
corrosion
2. b. The fuel in the tank will lose fluidity, solidify, and be the cause of an expensive removal process 3
c. Corrosion of various metal components will occur due to the formation of hydrogen sulphide gas
d. All of the above are correct
Briefly justify your answer.
Write a letter to the company Technical Manager stating with reasons why the fuel bunkered in the
3. last port is of very poor quality. 3
Isolation of filters onboard prior to cleaning is done by ____________.
1. Closing of all system valves.

4. 2
2. Switching off power to pump.
3. Opening of drains and vent valves.
4. Reducing system pressure.
For optimum results, centrifugal purification of heavy fuel oil should be accomplished with the fuel at
the lowest practicable ___________ .
5. 1. throughput 1
2. additive percent
3. cetane number
4. TBN number
Answer Key
1. it ascertains and maintains the viscosity of oil

Dying bacteria forming a protective coating
There is no evidence of any protection derived on account of this.
Loss of fluidity and solidification

There are certain types of aerobic microbiological organisms such as algae that grow into
colonies. If
allowed to grow unchecked they from mats or long strings of seaweed like
structures. It leads to loss
of fluidity of oil and virtual solidification.
Corrosion of various metal components

2.
Another type of bacteria which are anaerobic and known as sulphate reducing bacteria (SRB)
combine
with moisture to produce sulfurous acid. It leads to corrosion in the fuel oil tanks and
system. These
are often referred to as metal eating bacteria.
Microbes grow in water. All fuel oils contain some water and therefore, microbes in varying
quantities.
These bugs fl ourish at the oil/water interface, using the oil as their food .
Temperature of engine room
is ideal for breeding . Most affected are light oils like marine
diesel oil, some lubricants and generally
any oil with a low boiling point. Heavier fuel grades
are sometimes affected but fuel heating resolves
the problem.
From the above it may be seen that (b) and (c) are correct.
Write a letter based on the following imaginary situation.
Bunkers were taken into a port and a starboard double bottom tank. The contents of previous
tank
were transferred to other tanks and the two tanks were drained out before receiving the
fresh bunkers.
This was done to avoid mixing of new oil with the old one.
The ship still had some quantity of the old stock of fuel and this was used upon sailing.
Five days later fuel was drawn for the first time from the newly bunkered port side tank.
When purifier
was started with the new oil, an excess amount of sludge was found to emanate
from the sludge and
water discharge line. It was also noted that the clean fuel had a darker
appearance than normal.
When
the engine was switched to the new oil there was an immediate and noticeable drop in
engine speed
by about 5 rpm. The exhaust temperature rose by an average of about 20°C
and a black smoke was
observed in the funnel. There was a small rise in the piston and jacket
cooling return temperature.
New bunkers continued to be drawn alternately from port and starboard tanks to maintain the
ship’s
list and results were the same.
Four days later there was a scavenge fire in the way of one of the units. The engine was
slowed down
and cylinder lubrication increased. After about 15 minutes the scavenge fire died
down, but it was
3. decided nevertheless to stop the engine and inspect the scavenge space.
All the under piston spaces were found very dirty with sludge and there was considerable
amount of
carbonaceous deposit in the scavenge ports. All these spaces and the scavenge
trunk were thoroughly
cleaned out and the engine restarted.
Two day after the scavenge fire the working of the engine improved. The rpm was higher, the
average
exhaust temperature dropped by about 5°C and there was less smoke. The purifier
sludge discharge
reduced and the oil appearance was normal. The condition showed steady
improvement until arrival of
next port.
It was suspected that the bunker supplied at the last port was of poor quality. When highly
paraffinic
oil with low carbon/hydrogen ratio blends with an aromatic fuel containing large
proportion of
asphaltene, the asphaltene settle and forms a precipitate. Asphaltenes have
poor combustion
characteristics and tend to from deposits in the cylinder, scavenge ports and
under piston spaces. This
explains the problems faced above. The situation showed immediate
improvement when the bottom
layers of fuel containing heavy asphaltenes were consumed.
It is mandatory to send a sample of the fuel taken during bunkering for laboratory analysis in
order to
confirm the above suspicion or to ascertain any other reason for the problems faced
4. Opening of drains and vent valves.
5. throughput
What is the function of lubricating oil?
1. 1
1. It reduces friction between moving surfaces.
2. It maintains a constant oil temperature.
Why is lubricating oil preheated before centrifuging?
2. 1
1. To prevent corrosion
2. To improve purification
3. What is the function of a lubricant?

2
Although lubricating oils used in the main lubricating service systems should have a relatively high
flash point to avoid ignition, they can create smoke and fire hazards when they __________.
4. 1. Are exposed to a vacuum. 2

2. Become extremely agitated or aerated.
3. Come in contact with extremely hot surfaces.
4. Are reduced in temperature to just above the pour point.
Name a few properties of lubricants.

5. 2
Answer Key
1. It reduces friction between moving surfaces.

2. To improve purification
A lubricant reduces friction and wear between running metal surfaces. It forms a thin film between the
3. surfaces and prevents the contact of surfaces. It reduces the heat generated in the bearings or running
surfaces and keeps them clean. It removes the deposits and keeps metal surfaces clean.
4. Come in contact with extremely hot surfaces.
5. Density, viscosity, viscosity index, flash point, pour point and cloud point.
The primary products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil, are
generally:____.
1. 1. Removed by Contaminants cellulose type filters. 2

2. Neutralized by oil additives
3. Peroxides, dienes and free fatty acids
4. Harmless and have no effect on system components.
Microbial degradation of system lubricating oil leads to :
1. Caustic fire.
2. 1
2. Stable emission.
3. Corrosion.
4. Acidity.
Which of the following is an indication that diesel oil contamination is present in the main engine
lubricating oil system.
3. 1. Increase in lubricating oil pump discharge pressure. 1

2. Cetane number has decreased.
3. Lubricating oil viscosity has decreased.
4. Octane number is increased.
The pour point of lubricating oils is affected the most by:
1. Extensive centrifuging.
4. 1
2. Acid content.
3. Wax content
4. Water content.
5. List four types of contaminants in a luboil system.

2
Answer Key
1. Peroxides, dienes and free fatty acids

2. Corrosion.
3. Lubricating oil viscosity has decreased.
4. Wax content
Insoluble products of combustion due to prolonged blowby
Gummy deposits due to oxidation and thermal breakdown of oil
5.
Metal wear products from engine parts
Fuel oil contamination
A 'Blotter test' is a test performed on the lube oil of a diesel engine which can determine ______ .
1. the specific gravity of the oil

1. 1
2. the flash point of the oil
3. a change in the oils viscosity
4. the TBN number of the oil
Which of the following is a correct point for sampling of system lubricating oil for on board or shore
analysis?
2. 1
1. Standpipes
2. Purifier outlets
3. Main supply line to the engine.
4. Tank drains.
Answer Key

2. Main supply line to the engine.
A large, low-speed, crosshead, main propulsion diesel engine using residual fuel oils must have a
cylinder oil having a ____________.
1. 1. low TBN value 1

2. high alkaline reserve
3. low flash point
4. high pour point
Answer Key
1. high alkaline reserve
At which of the following locations would a differential pressure gauge is most likely to be located?
1. Fuel oil service pump discharge flange

1. 2
2. Fuel oil discharge
3. Lubricating oil duplex filter.
4. Fuel oil flow meter.
Answer Key
1. Lubricating oil duplex filter.
Which of the following conditions should be used to support the need to change the lube oil when
there has been an increase in the neutralization number?
1. 1. A decrease in the viscosity of the oil 2

2. A Change in cloud point.
3. An increase in viscosity of oil.
4. A change in the floc point.
Answer Key
1. An increase in viscosity of oil.
Define pour point of lubricating oil
1. 1
1. It is the lowest temperature at which lubricating oil ceases to flow.
2. It is the temperature at which formation of wax crystals starts.
2. What is cloud point?

2
Define hydrodynamic lubrication.
3. 2
What can cause fluid film breakdown?
4. 2
5. What is viscosity?
2
6. What is viscosity index?
2
7. What is pour point?
2
8. b. What are the indications of microbial degradation?
2
How will you prevent breakdown of oil film?
9. 2
Describe the following terms and state their importance as related to lubrication of main bearings.
a. Viscosity
b. Demulsifi cation
10. c. Oxidation stability 3
d. Total Acid Number (TAN)
Mention briefly how they are ascertained.
The pressure produced within the oil wedge of a rotating journal is_____.
1. The same as the pressure in the lubricating system

11. 2
2. Less than the pressure in the lubricating system
3. Greater than the pressure in the lubricating system.
4. Highest at the oil groove location.
a. What is meant by microbial degradation of lubricating oil?

12. 2
13. Name a few shipboard tests with respect to lubricating oil.
2
Answer Key
1. It is the lowest temperature at which lubricating oil ceases to flow.

2. Cloud point is the temperature at which dissolved solids in oil, such as wax crystals begins to form.
When an unbroken film of a lubricant separates two metal surfaces or moving surfaces, then it is
3.
known as hydrodynamic lubrication.
Drop in viscosity, decrease in relative speed, increase in bearing load and bearing clearance lead to
4.
the breakdown of fluid film.
5. Viscosity is the resistance of a fluid to its own flow.
Viscosity index of a lubricating oil indicates the change of viscosity with respect to change in
6.
temperature.
7. Pour point is the temperature at which the oil ceases to flow.
Rotten egg smell, lubricating oil colour changes to dark, repeated clogging of filters and peeling of
8.
crankcase paint are all indications of microbial degradation.
The breakdown of oil film is prevented by maintaining viscosity and constant speed operation. The
9.
bearing should not be overloaded and adequate bearing clearance should be maintained.
10. Viscosity
Viscosity of a fluid is the internal resistance to its own flow. Higher the viscosity, greater will
be the
internal resistance to flow.
The principal function of lubricating oil is to reduce friction and wear between the metallic
surfaces.
For reducing friction and wear, a fluid film separates the two running surfaces to
avoid metal to metal
contact. Under ideal conditions, the hydrodynamic action of the shaft
or journal rotating inside the
bearing separates the surfaces.
Lubricating oil of correct viscosity is chosen for different applications. If the value of
viscosity is too
low it is impossible to maintain sufficient hydrodynamic fluid film thickness
to avoid metal to metal
contact.
Too high viscosity results in increased resistance to fl ow between oil layers, lowering of
transmission
efficiency and more generation of heat. Viscosity is determined as the time
taken for a calculated
quantity of oil at a fixed temperature to pass through an orifice of
standard dimension. This is
converted and expressed in kinematic unit which is centistokes
or ‘cSt’.
In commercial marine applications, viscosity of lubricating oil is specified in SAE (Society of
Automotive Engineers) units. For lubricating oils the use of Society of Automotive Engineers
(SAE)
units is common.
Typical viscosities of lubricating oils are:
SAE 30 for crosshead type engine bearings (equivalent to 9.3 to 12.5 centistokes at
100°C)
SAE 40 for trunk piston type bearings (12.5 to 16.3 centistokes)
SAE 50 for cylinder lubrication (16.3 to 21.9 centistokes)
Demulsification
Demulsification is the process by which water separates from oil. The more the
demulsibility, the
more easily water separates from the oil.
For certain functions emulsibility is a desirable quality. But, in majority applications,
including for
bearing lubrication, emulsification of oil by water is not desirable. It is better
to have demulsification
property, because in case of contamination, settling or centrifugal
separation onboard separates the
water.
A refined straight mineral oil has an inbuilt demulsifying property. Some oils emulsify with
water when
strongly agitated in the presence of certain impurities or additives.
ASTM standards D 1401 and 2711 describe the tests to determine the demulsibility of water
in oil.
Both the methods are similar and consist of mixing known quantities of pure oil and distilled
water
mixed in given proportion. The mixture is heated to specified temperatures, stirred
for specified
duration and allowed to settle for a fixed period. Thereafter, the water is
separated by gravity. The
amount of water separated is less than the water added to the oil.
The difference indicates
demulsibility. If the amount of water separated is higher, then the
demulsibility of oil is greater.
Oxidation stability
Oxidation is a regular form of contamination of lubricating oils in service. Oxidation takes

place at
high temperature in presence of air and other contaminants like rust, sludge, and
metal wear
particles combined together. These contaminants act as catalysts. In presence
of water, the oxidation
products combine to form organic acids, which do not attack ferrous
parts. However, they corrode and
damage copper and lead in bearings.
Oxidation results in sludge formation. Increased oxidation causes blockage of fi lters,
purifiers, and
lubricating system pipes resulting in total failure of lubrication. Therefore, the
early signs of oxidation
should be recognised. These include:
Acrid smell of oil

Blisters in paint
Brown coating on machined surfaces due to lacquer formation
Increased sludge formation in filter, purifi r and inside the crankcase
Oxidation stability is the property of oil that resists oxidation. To ensure oxidation stability,
good base
stock oil with apt additives should be used. Following operational measures will
help avoid/minimize
oxidation:
Keep crankcase breather pipes clear.

Avoid air ingress through crankcase doors, telescopic pipes and pump glands
Do not exceed recommended oil temperatures for efficient maintenance of cooler (every
10°C
rise in temperature doubles the rate of oxidation)
Run lubricating oil pumps for at least 30 minutes after stopping engine
Maintain sufficient oil level in sump to avoid excessive foaming of oil
Keep filters, purifiers in good condition, run purifiers in port
Total Acid Number (TAN)

Total acid number of lubricating oils is the amount of potassium hydroxide (KOH) in
milligrams
required to neutralize the acid present in one gram of oil. Total acid is a
combination of strong and
weak acids. Strong acids are sulphuric and hydrochloric acids.
They are highly corrosive and cause
damage to bearings. Weak acids are organic acids.
They do not harm ferrous materials but can
corrode copper and lead in metal bearings.
Strong acids may be formed due to contamination by seawater, or by sulphuric acids formed
in the
combustion space. These acidulous combustion products find their way into the
crankcase. Weak
acids are formed as oxidation products in the crankcase oil mix with water.
Alkaline additives present in the oil neutralise strong acids immediately when they are
formed. The
total acid number in crankcase oil should not exceed two.
11. Greater than the pressure in the lubricating system.

It is a process where micro organism invasion takes place in lubricating oil system. Microbes multiply
12.
and contaminates the lubricating oil. It renders the oil unfit.
Viscosity test - By flow stick method
Water content test to measure formation of acetylene gas
13.
Drop test to identify contamination due to combustion products
Alkalinity test to find alkalinity of lubricating oil
A diesel engine using lube oil with too high a viscosity will exhibit __________ .
1. increased starting difficulty in cold weather

1. 1
2. increased oil consumption
3. thickening at higher operating temperatures
4. minimal friction losses
High pressure differential of a M/E LO filter can be reduced by :-
1. Cleaning the standby filter

2. 1
2. Change M/E.
3. Back flushing filter.
4. Adjusting the pressure regulator
Which of the following component of RT-Flex main engine is made redundant?
1. Starting air distributor

3. 1
2. Starting air v/v
3. Fuel pump
4. Auxiliary blower
A 'detergent-type' lube oil, used in a diesel engine, should be replaced when _________ .
1. fuel oil dilution is 5%

4. 1
2. it begins to turn black
3. the exhaust shows traces of blue smoke
4. all of the above
Answer Key
1. increased starting difficulty in cold weather

2. Back flushing filter.
3. Fuel pump
4. fuel oil dilution is 5%
If the pH value fluctuates - decrease and increase, the corrosion rate may go up for,
1. Mild steel
1. 1
2. Copper
3. Bronze
4. Zinc
If the pH value decreases, the corrosion rate may not increase for,
1. Steel
2. 1
2. Copper
3. Bronze
4. Silver
What similarities exist between Silver and Gold as a shipbuilding material?
3. 1. They are used for jewelry and costly 1

2. They are referred to as noble materials
3. They are used in electrical switchboards
The corrosion rate increases approximately two times for every _______ rise in temperature.
4. 1. 10 deg C 1
2. 12 deg C
3. 20 deg C
Corrosion of metals can be reduced in an open system MS tank by,
1. Heating the fluid

5. 1
2. Cooling the fluid
3. Circulating the fluid
4. By keeping a constant fluid level
In a closed system, the dissolved oxygen will corrode the steel material until,
6. 1. They are removed 1

2. They are consumed
3. Metal gets oxidized
Corrosion rate is _________ in a closed system than in an open system
7. 1. Higher 1
2. Lower
3. Neither
8. Corrosion rate is affected by an increase of temperature, but not by its, 1
1. Presence of Oxygen
2. Alloying Components
3. Surface Temperature
4. Permeability
What similarities exist between Aluminium and Zinc?
9. 1. They have similar colors 1

2. They are both amorphous material
3. They can be used for manufacture of shipside valves
Answer Key
1. Zinc
2. Silver
3. They are referred to as noble materials
4. 10 deg C
5. Heating the fluid
6. They are consumed
7. Neither
8. Permeability
9. They are both amorphous material
As the vessel's superintendent, how would you have prevented such incident from occurring? Explore
the following options.
1. 1. Create an awareness among the ship staff. 1

2. Provide the vessel with efficient oily water separator equipment and sufficient holding tanks.
3. Arrange for shore disposal facilities.
4. Instruct the vessel to comply with the requirements somehow.
Answer Key
Create an awareness among the ship staff.
Provide the vessel with efficient oily water separator equipment and sufficient holding tanks.
1.
Arrange for shore disposal facilities.
Injecting water into the combustion chamber of marine engines is a primary method of reduction of
below air pollutants:
1. 1. SOx 2
2. Particulate matters
3. NOx and CO.
4. Unburnt Hydrocarbons
Answer Key
1. NOx and CO.
You are pumping out sludge to a shore facility using your sludge pump. You find that the discharge
rate of pump is very slow and suction filter is getting clogged frequently. What is the best alternative
to counteract the problem?
1. Remove the pump suction filter and pump out the tank.
1. 2
2. As soon as the as the shore facility tells you that they are not receiving any sludge, you stop
the pump and clean the filter.
3. Increase the tank temperature and keep an eye on the pump suction pressure and clean the
filter as soon as it drops.
4. Fabricate a bigger mesh size suction filter and use in place of normal filter so that frequency of
filter blockage is reduced and you can get a better discharge rate.
Small amounts of moisture are necessary to trigger the growth of microbiological organisms found in
some marine fuels. Some sources of water contamination are
2. 1. tank surface leakage 1

2. humidity and condensation
3. improper tank washing procedures
4. All of the above
The growth rate of microbiological organisms as found in some fuel supplies will ___________.
1. increase in direct proportion to an increase in temperature

3. 1
2. decrease if bleaches are added to the fuel on a regular basis
3. remain unchanged provided complete consumption of the fuel occurs monthly
4. All of the above
The sludge tank installed in the diesel engine room is used to collect __________ .
I. sludge from the fuel oil centrifuge,
II. water that has been collected in the settling tank.
4. 1
1. I only
2. II only
3. both I and II
4. neither I or II
Presence of catalytic fines in fuel oil is significant to engineers on board because ___________
1. Catalytic fines tend to impair proper operation of purifiers.

5. 2
2. Catalytic fines necessitate increase in storage temperature.
3. Catalytic fines lead to abrasive wear in liners, piston rings and fuel injection equipment
4. Catalytic fines necessitate increase in injection temperature
Most type(s) of microbiological growths in fuel are
1. bacteria
6. 1
2. fungi
3. yeasts
4. All of the above
7. Microbiological growths in marine fuel are a common occurrence that can be __________ . 1
1. extremely detrimental to equipment and operating processes

2. prevented by maintaining higher storage temperatures
3. removed from emulsified fuel oil during the centrifuging processes
4. All of the above are correct
Proper housekeeping to prevent the formation of microbiological growths within a fuel system
includes the prevention of water accumulations and the use of _________
8. 1. steam coils 1
2. fuel oil centrifuges
3. fuel oil discharge filters
4. chemical additives called biocides
In order for microbiological growths to thrive in a fuel tank it is necessary for ____________ .
1. vanadium to be present
9. 1
2. low temperatures to exist
3. moisture or water to be present
4. electrolysis to be occurring
Answer Key
Increase the tank temperature and keep an eye on the pump suction pressure and clean the filter as
1.
soon as it drops.
2. All of the above
3. increase in direct proportion to an increase in temperature
4. both I and II
5. Catalytic fines lead to abrasive wear in liners, piston rings and fuel injection equipment
6. All of the above
7. extremely detrimental to equipment and operating processes
8. chemical additives called biocides
9. moisture or water to be present
What is the safety provided with the loading door of incinerator?
1. A mechanical interlock to prevent opening during incinerator firing.

1. 1
2. A magnetic lock to prevent opening during incinerator firing.
3. An interlock to trip burner if loading door is open.
4. Double insulated handles for loading door.
In the vertical cyclone type incinerator, the burner is mounted at :
1. The side
2. 1
2. Above the slag door
3. The top
4. Below flue gas damper.
During incinerator operation, flame failure alarm may activate due to :
1. Blocked air cooling inlet

3. 1
2. Defective pressure control.
3. Dirty burner/blocked diesel nozzle/dirty or defective flame sensor
4. Faulty inverter and transmitter.
The below material is not allowed to be incinerated:
1. Oily rags.
4. 1
2. Cardboard.
3. Poly chlorinated biphenyls ( PCB's)
4. Paper.
For efficient burning in incinerator, the temperature of flue gases should not be less than :
1. 250°C
5. 1
2. 650°C
3. 850°C
4. 550°C
After stopping the incinerator, the main power should not be switched off till the chamber
temperature is down below :
6. 1. 250°C 1
2. 350°C
3. 170°C
4. 500°C
All operations of incinerator must be recorded in :
1. Deck log book

7. 1
2. Planned maintenance system.
3. Oil record book for machinery space.
4. Chief engineer's log book.
8. During incinerator operation, leakage may appear at the shaft end of diesel oil pump. What is the 1
main reason for this leakage?
1. Dirty fuel filter

2. Overheated diesel oil.
3. The return line for diesel oil is blocked.
4. Diesel pump run dry for long period.
Incinerator is used for safe disposal of ship generated waste. Which annex of Marpol deals with
guidelines for ship's waste disposal.
9. 1. Annex I 1
2. Annex II
3. Annex VI
4. Annex IV
In which of the following types of refractory failure, softening of the refractory bricks takes place
due to presence of sodium/vanadium in fuel?
10. 1. Spalling 2
2. Cracking.
3. Slagging.
4. Shrinkage.
During incinerator operation, draft failure alarm may activate due to :
1. Machinery vibration.
11. 1
2. Water in waste oil/sludge
3. Faulty pressure sensor/damaged door gasket/Leaky sensor tube.
4. Clogged fuel filter
Answer Key
1. An interlock to trip burner if loading door is open.

2. The top
3. Dirty burner/blocked diesel nozzle/dirty or defective flame sensor
4. Poly chlorinated biphenyls ( PCB's)
5. 850°C
6. 170°C
7. Oil record book for machinery space.
8. The return line for diesel oil is blocked.
Annex I
Annex II
9.
Annex VI
Annex IV
10. Slagging.
11. Faulty pressure sensor/damaged door gasket/Leaky sensor tube.
Which of the following types of coatings used in tanks of a chemical carrier provides a comprehensive
protection against most solvents?
1. 1. Urethanecoatings 2
2. Polypropylene coatings
3. Zinc silicate
4. Phenolic resins.
Answer Key
1. Zinc silicate
Select the correct answers: The International Maritime Organization (IMO) lists the ten most
unwanted species; and among which identify those that are dominant in Asia?
1. Cholera Vibrio cholerae (various strains)

2. Cladoceran Water Flea Cercopagispengoi
3. Mitten Crab Eriocheirsinensis
1. 4. Toxic algae (red/brown/green tides) (various species) 1
5. Round Goby Neogobiusmelanostomus
6. North American Comb Jelly Mnemiopsisleidyi
7. North Pacific SeastarAsteriasamurensis
8. Zebra Mussel Dreissenapolymorpha
9. Asian Kelp Undariapinnatifida
10. European Green Crab Carcinusmaenas
Answer Key
Cholera Vibrio cholerae (various strains)
Cladoceran Water Flea Cercopagispengoi
1. Toxic algae (red/brown/green tides) (various species)
Zebra Mussel Dreissenapolymorpha
Asian Kelp Undariapinnatifida
What will indicate a material’s resistance to erosion or wear?
1. Ductility
1. 2
2. Brittleness
3. Softness
4. Hardness
What do you call the property of a material in which none of the strain disappears upon removal of
stress?
2. 1. Plastic 1
2. Elastic
3. Brittle
4. Tensile
What strength in material is the ability to resist twisting forces?
1. Compressive strength
3. 2
2. Torsional strength
3. Shear strength
4. Tensile strength
The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its _____
1. Ductility
4. 1
2. Elasticity
3. Malleability
4. Fusibility
What do you call the property of a material in which, if all the strain when it is under stress,
disappears upon removal of the stress?
5. 1. Plastic 1
2. Elastic
3. Brittle
4. Tensile
What do you call the ability of a material to withstand the shock of an impact without cracking or
other ill effect?
6. 1. Hardness 2
2. Brittleness
3. Toughness
4. Strength
7. What do you call the property of a material that can be easily beaten or rolled into plate form? 1
1. Plastic
2. Malleable
3. Tensile
4. Compressive
Answer Key
1. Hardness
2. Plastic
4. Malleability
5. Elastic
6. Toughness
7. Malleable
What is the material used for the engine room pump coupling flange?
1. High carbon steel

1. 1
2. Forged steel
3. Mild steel
4. Cast iron
Steel is an alloy of iron carbon and alloying components. what is the carbon content?
1. Less than 4 %
2. 1
2. Less than 3%.
3. 0 to 2 %.
4. 2.4 %
Answer Key
1. Cast iron
2. 0 to 2 %.
Steel and aluminium welding is done by :
1. TIG
1. 1
2. MIG
3. Explosion welding
4. Arc welding.
Which of these is called mild steel?
1. Low carbon steel

2. 1
2. Medium carbon steel
4. Mild iron
Which of these non-metals are used as seals in place of bronze wear rings in seawater pumps?
1. Nitrile
3. 1
2. Ebonite
3. Epoxy-Resin
4. Silicon Nitride
Weldability steel depends on carbon equivalent-CE and weldability is very good when CE is :
1. CE between 0.30 and 0.35.
4. 2
2. CE between 0.26 and 0.30
Which process is not carried out on mild steel?
1. Hot plating
5. 1
2. Electrolysis
3. Explosion bonding
4. Metal spraying.
The process of producing wrought iron from pig iron is :-
1. Impression die forging.

6. 1
2. Beseemer process.
3. Puddling.
4. Cupola conversion.
Answer Key
1. Explosion welding
2. Low carbon steel
3. Silicon Nitride
5. Explosion bonding
6. Impression die forging.
What is the purpose of adding carbon to iron?
1. To increase ductility
1. 1
2. To increase brittleness
3. To increase strength
4. To increase malleability
At normal temperature Hypoeutectoid steel consists of :-
1. pearlite and Leduburite

2. 2
2. Cementite and iron carbide
3. Ferrite and pearlite
4. Cementite and Leduburite.
What is the percentage of carbon in low carbon steel?
1. 0.3 to 0.5
3. 1
2. 0.5 to 1.8
3. 0.05 to 0.3
4. 1.8 to 4.0
0.83% carbon in iron indicates :
1. Ferrite
4. 1
2. Cementite
3. Pearlite
4. Austenite
More than 1 crystalline structure is :
1. Isotropic
5. 1
2. Isentropic
3. Allotropic
4. None of above
Answer Key
1. To increase strength
2. Ferrite and pearlite
3. 0.05 to 0.3
4. Pearlite
5. Allotropic
Annealing makes the material :
1. Harder
1. 1
2. Smoother
3. Softer
4. Tougher
What is the case hardening process used for low carbon steel?
2. 1. Nitriding 1
2. Induction hardening.
3. Cyaniding.
4. Annealing.
What are these processes such as Carburizing, Nitriding, Cyaniding used for: ________
1. Corrosion protection of steel.

3. 2
2. Softening of copper.
3. Heat treatment of carbon steel.
4. Post weld treatment.
Answer Key
1. Softer
2. Cyaniding.
3. Heat treatment of carbon steel.
Which material is used for structural members that are subjected to higher stresses?
1. Low carbon steel

1. 1
2. High tensile steel
3. Medium carbon steel
Which of these alloy is used to manufacture plate for a plate-type heat exchanger?
1. Titanium
2. 1
2. Tin
3. Chromium
4. Molybdenum
When steel components, electroplated with chromium are used in corrosive environment:
1. Zinc plating is used on top of chrome plating for corrosion protection

3. 2
2. Protection to the steel will be preferentially corroded
3. Chrome plating prevents corrosion.
4. Thickness of chrome plating to increases.
Chromium is a nobler metal when compared to that of steel. In some marine applications Chromium
is electroplated to the steel surfaces. Why?
1. Chromium is a more noble metal so it will not get corroded and thus steel surfaces will remain
protected
4. 2
2. Chromium plating is required for providing high glossiness and high hardness for better wear
resistance and reduced friction to the steel surfaces and not for corrosion protection
3. Chromium plating provides corrosion protection as well as high glossiness and high hardness
for better wear resistance and reduced friction to the steel surfaces
4. Chromium reacts with steel to form an alloy during electroplating which is corrosion resistant.
Answer Key
1. High tensile steel

2. Titanium
3. Chrome plating prevents corrosion.
Chromium plating provides corrosion protection as well as high glossiness and high hardness for better
4. wear resistance and reduced friction to the steel surfaces
Which of the following are alloyed to form brass?
1. Copper and Lead

1. 1
2. Copper and Zinc
3. Copper and Tin
4. Nickel an Zinc
Answer Key
1. Copper and Zinc
The designation "schedule 80 extra-strong" refers to _______.
1. Weight of steel plate

1. 1
2. Tensile strength of bolts
3. Piping wall thickness
4. Tube bursting strength
Answer Key
1. Piping wall thickness
Dezincification of brasses may be prevented by introducing which of the following additives during
manufacturing brass?
1. 1. 0.04% Nickel 1
2. 0.04% Cobalt
3. 0.02 to 0.15 % Arsenic.
4. 0.04% Tungsten.
Dezincification of brass can be prevented by introduction of additives like:
1. Nickel.
2. 1
2. Cobalt
3. Arsenic.
4. Tungsten.
Answer Key
1. 0.02 to 0.15 % Arsenic.

2. Arsenic.
What strength in material is resistant to pulling or stretching forces?
1. 2
2. Shear strength
3. Tensile strength
What do you call the property of a material that enables it to be easily drawn into
wire form?
2. 1. Ductility 1
2. Malleability
3. Tensile
4. Elastic
What do you call the material which break without bending or deforming first, when a load is
applied?
3. 1. Ductile 1
2. Tensile
3. Brittle
4. Elastic
What do you call the property of a material, which is dependent on the amount of load that it can
carry?
4. 1. Strength 2
2. Hardness
3. Brittleness
4. Ductility
What strength in material is the ability to support weight, or resistance to squeezing forces?
5. 2
2. Shear strength
3. Tensile strength
What strength in material is resistance to being broken into two or more pieces by opposing forces?
1. Shear strength
6. 2
2. Tensile strength
Answer Key
1. Tensile strength
2. Ductility
3. Brittle
4. Strength
6. Shear strength
Porosity in welding is caused due to:
1. Dirty electrode.
1. 2
2. High gas pressure.
3. Absorption of nitrogen, oxygen and hydrogen in the molten weld pool.
4. Humid electrodes.
What does “IV” indicate in the diagram given below?
2. 1
1. Loading Lever
2. Universal Coupling
3. Fulcrum
4. Capstan
3. Which number represents the "Weight loaded" in the illustration given below? 1
1. VIII
2. VII
3. X
4. IX
4. Which number represents the "Capstan" in the illustration given below? 1
1. III
2. I
3. IV
4. II
1. Lock Nut
3. Coupling Nut
4. Stud Nut
The common term used for failure of metal and alloys in a corrosive environment , when subject to
high stresses is known as :
6. 1. Fatigue failure 1
2. Corrosion fatigue
3. Stress corrosion cracking
4. Fretting Corrosion.
7. Identify “XIII” in the figure given below. 1
1. Furnace
2. Specimen
3. Support Columns
4. Loading Lever
1. Loading Lever
2. Support Columns
3. Fulcrum
4. Furnace
1. Furnace
2. Specimen
3. Support Columns
4. Fulcrum
1. Cover Plate
2. Top Plate
3. Cover Top
4. Capstan
11. In the below diagram the part “XI” indicates ____________. 1
1. Cover Plate
2. Base Plate
3. Capstan
1. Capstan
2. Loading Lever
3. Fulcrum
13. Which number represents the "Knife edges" in the illustration given below? 1
1. VI
2. V
3. VIII
4. VII
1. Main Lo Pump
2. Lube Oil Pump
3. Lower Pull Rod
4. Centripetal Pump
15. What does “XII” indicate in this figure? 1
1. Main Lo Pump
2. Centripetal Pump
3. Upper Pull Rod
4. Lube Oil Pump
Answer Key
1. Absorption of nitrogen, oxygen and hydrogen in the molten weld pool.

2. Fulcrum
3. X
4. I
6. Stress corrosion cracking
7. Specimen
8. Support Columns
9. Furnace
10. Top Plate
11. Base Plate
12. Loading Lever
13. VIII
14. Lower Pull Rod
15. Upper Pull Rod
Vibration damper provided at the front of main engine is called transverse vibration damper.
1. 1
True
False
State three causes of vibration.
2. 1
1. Out of balance, misalignment, worm out bearings
2. Temperature, Ph and environment
Answer Key
1. FALSE
2. Out of balance, misalignment, worm out bearings
From the stress strain Diagram, what does letter “B” represent?
1. 1
1. Ultimate Strength
2. Fracture
3. Yield point
4. Elastic limit
From the stress strain Diagram, what does letter “A” represent?
2. 1
2. Fracture
3. Yield point
4. Elastic limit
3. Which of the below is non destructive test: 1
1. Impact test
2. Tensile test
3. Ultraviolet test
4. Hardness test.
Answer Key
1. Fracture
3. Ultraviolet test
Magnesium sacrificial anodes should not be used on cargo / ballast tanks of

tankers, as it will release a dangerous gas – Which gas is this?
1. 1. Carbondioxide 1
2. Hydrogen
3. Carbonmonoxide
4. Methane
What is applied as a protective shield around the anodes in an impressed current

system?
2. 1. Red lead based 1

2. Zinc Chromate based
3. Epoxy resin
4. Enamel
Which type of coating provides a barrier between the surface of the material and
seawater or atmosphere?
3. 1. Cathodic protection 1
2. Painting
3. Impressed current system
4. Sacrificial anode system
What is used as inorganic barriers to protect metal surfaces from chemical or

electrochemical reactions?
4. 1. Chemical coating 1
2. Metallic coating
3. Impressed current system
4. Sacrificial anode system
What is known as the destruction of material by chemical, electrochemical or

metallurgical interaction between the environment and material?
5. 1. Erosion 1
2. Corrosion
3. Wear
4. Tear
6. What is the phenomenon called when pressure differences occur in a flow, 1

perhaps caused by a propeller blade?
1. Bubbling
2. Pressure-loss
3. Slip
4. Cavitation
What is mixed with paint to retain stability?
1. Thinner
7. 1
2. Base Compound
3. Resinous compounds
4. Hardner compounds
What do you call the process of cleaning a structural steel surface by passing an
intensely hot acetylene-oxygen flame?
8. 1. Flame cleaning 1
2. Pickling
3. Blast cleaning
4. Power cleaning
Which metal based paints are not allowed on aluminium superstructures?
1. Tin based
9. 1
2. Zinc based
3. Titanium based
4. Lead based
What do you call the gradual destruction of metal, due to the turbulent flow of
pressurized water?
10. 1. Erosion 1
2. Corrosion
3. Wear
4. Tear
Answer Key
1. Hydrogen
2. Epoxy resin
3. Painting
4. Chemical coating
5. Corrosion
6. Cavitation
7. Resinous compounds
8. Flame cleaning
9. Lead based
10. Erosion
For occasional heavy loads, two cranes are made to work together and this can be done with a single
operator using a master and slave control system. What is necessary for this arrangement?
1. 1. A raised platform. 2
2. An adjustable platform.
3. A common revolving platform.
4. Wireless communication.
The up and down movement of the hook from the jib is limited with hoisting limit switch. What is the
main purpose of hoisting limit switch?
2. 1. Prevents load slipping off the hook. 2

2. Limits the swaying of load when the switch is activated.
3. Avoid the damage to the base plate fitted on the cargo hold.
4. The load on the hook is lowered to safe level.
Double gearing is a feature of most designs of deck cranes. What is the significant advantage of this
design?
3. 1. Maintains constant speed during operation. 2

2. Noiseless operation.
3. A higher speed at lighter loads.
4. Prevents reverse rotation.
The movement of the jib is limited by luffing limit switch. What happens when this limit switch is
activated?
4. 1. Motor overload is activated. 2

2. The drum brake is activated.
3. Stops the motor and luffing drum.
4. The boom goes to parking position.
A general duty crane uses a hook. What are the grabbing cranes used for?
1. Liquid cargo.
5. 1
2. Heavy cargoes.
3. Bulk cargoes.
4. Light cargo.
Jib cranes are positioned between the holds on platforms. What is the possible angle of rotation in
these cranes?
6. 1. 270 degrees, 1
2. 180 degrees,
3. 360 degrees,
4. 120 degrees,
7. Deck cranes are provided for immediate operation. How many persons required to operate these 1
cranes?
1. 2
2. 4
3. 1
4. 3
Answer Key
1. A common revolving platform.

2. Avoid the damage to the base plate fitted on the cargo hold.
3. A higher speed at lighter loads.
5. Bulk cargoes.
6. 360 degrees,
7. 1
Which of the following is a safety device in a purifier?
1. 1
1. Starter switch
What can be the cause if the bowl opens unintentionally during operation?
1. No electric power
2. 1
2. Brake is on
3. Solenoid valve for desludging water not closig properly, resulting in repeated discharges
4. All the above
Which component holds the bowl body and bowl hood?
3. 1. Large lock ring 1

2. Foundation bolts
3. Worm wheel
How is the separated sludge which gets collected at the sludge space, discharged periodically?
4. 1. Through sludge ports 1

2. Through nozzle
3. Through the sliding bowl
What is the approximate rotational speed of a purifier bowl?
5. 1
1. Wrong selection of paring disc
2. All the above
What will you do when the purifier has to be stopped immediately?
6. 1. Apply brake 1
2. Switch off power supply
3. Switch off power supply and apply the brake
What is the purpose of top paring disc?
1. Discharge the sludge through sludge ports

7. 1
2. Discharge the oil under pressure
3. Close the bowl
4. Open the bowl
When are the bowl assembly parts dismantled, cleaned and inspected?
8. 1. Every week 1
2. Every 2000 hours
3. Once in a life time
9. Which of the following is most likely to cause failure of water seal in a purifier? 1
1. High oil temperature

2. Unsatisfactory accumulation of sludge
Heavy vibration in a purifier is likely due to
10. 1
2. Damaged seal ring
What could be the reasons for oil leaking to the sludge side?
1. Strainer in operating water side is clogged

11. 1
2. Bottom paring disc or control paring disc clogged
3. Seal ring in sliding bowl defective
4. All the above
When is the “emergency stop” switch used in a purifier?
1. For normal stopping.

12. 1
2. For minor leak in suction filter.
3. During heavy vibration.
4. For carrying out maintenance.
What checks will you carry out in a gear case inspection?
13. 1
1. Inspection of worm wheel, worm gear, and horizontal shaft
2. Inspection of friction drum and pads
What are the common causes for unsatisfactory separation of water and fuel oil?
1. Wrong separating temperature

14. 1
2. Throughput too high
3. Bowl speed too low
4. All the above
What could be the reasons for the bowl not opening during desludging?
1. Solenoid valve for desludging water not opening

15. 1
2. O rings in water control paring disc defective
3. Dosing ring overtightened
4. All the above
Which is the most common cause for oil overflowing to water side?
1. Gravity disc opening too large

16. 1
2. Gravity disc too small
4. Throughput too low
17. Which of the following is most likely to cause low oil flow in a purifier? 1
1. Low oil temperature

2. Choked filter in the oil feed line
New bunkers is put to use and you find oil in water outlet, what will be your action?
18. 1
2. Check for correct selection of gravity disc
What is reason for centrifuge not attaining the rated speed in time?
19. 1. Worn friction pads 1

2. Gear case oil level high
3. Incorrect fitting of pipes
Which of the following purifier component is mounted on top of the vertical spindle?
1. Bowl
20. 1
2. Frame hood
3. Friction clutch
4. Brake
Which of the following separator component connects the horizontal shaft and drive motor?
21. 1. Centrifugal clutch 1

2. Top paring disc
3. Control paring disc
Answer Key

2. Solenoid valve for desludging water not closig properly, resulting in repeated discharges
3. Large lock ring
4. Through sludge ports
6. Switch off power supply and apply the brake
7. Discharge the oil under pressure
8. Every 2000 hours
9. High oil temperature
11. All the above
12. During heavy vibration.
13. Inspection of worm wheel, worm gear, and horizontal shaft
14. All the above
15. All the above
16. Gravity disc opening too large
18. Check for correct selection of gravity disc
19. Worn friction pads
20. Bowl
21. Centrifugal clutch
You find that the desuldging operation does not take place. What could be the possible reasons for
this fault?
1. Faulty operation of solenoid valve for desludging

1. 1
2. High oil inlet temperature
3. Choked water line filter
4. Chocked paring disc
5. Constriction in the purifier outlet piping
Purifier is running with high back pressure. What is the possible reason?
1. Low throughput.
2. 2
2. High density
3. High throughput.
4. Low rpm
You find that the purifier is showing excessive vibrations. What could be the possible reasons for this
fault?
1. Worn out operating slide O rings

3. 1
2. Accumulation of sludge
3. Bowl imbalance
4. Clogged oil feed line
5. Improper selection of the gravity discs
You observe that there is a rise in the back pressure. What could be the possible reasons for this
fault?

4. 1
2. High throughput
3. Low inlet temperature
4. High viscosity
5. Choked operating water line filter.
You find the water is flowing through the oil side. What could be the possible reasons for this fault?

5. 2. Choked paring disc 1
4. Clogged oil feed line
5. Improper selection of gravity disc
You observe that the oil throughput is less. What could be the possible reasons for this fault?

6. 2. Malfunctioning of the feed pump’s relief valve 1
4. Clogged oil inlet pipe line
7. You observe that the oil leaks through the sludge side. What could be the possible reasons for this 1
fault?
1. Clogged operating water line filter

2. Improper selection of the gravity discs
3. Low desludging water pressure
4. Choked paring disc
5. Worn out nozzle O rings
You notice that the oil overflows from the water side. What could be the possible reasons for this
fault?

8. 1
2. Low desludging water pressure
3. Accumulation of sludge
4. Improper selection of gravity discs
5. Low operating water pressure
Purifier is not rotating with desired rpm. a possible reason is :-
1. Frequency low
9. 1
2. Bus bar voltage low
3. Friction pads worn out.
4. Overload of motor.
Answer Key
Faulty operation of solenoid valve for desludging
Choked water line filter

1.
Chocked paring disc
2. High throughput.
Accumulation of sludge
3.
Bowl imbalance
Constriction in the purifier outlet piping
High throughput
4. Low inlet temperature
High viscosity
5. Improper selection of gravity disc

Malfunctioning of the feed pump’s relief valve
Choked filter in the oil feed line

6.
Clogged oil inlet pipe line
Clogged operating water line filter
7. Choked paring disc
Worn out nozzle O rings
High oil inlet temperature
Accumulation of sludge
8.
Improper selection of gravity discs
9. Friction pads worn out.
1. 1
1. Crosshead and guides lubrication

2. Lube oil cooler
3. Engine lube oil sump
4. Lube oil centrifuge
The area indicated by the number “VII” is known as the _______________.
2. 1

2. Lube oil to crankshaft and main bearing
3. Crankpin bearing
4. Step bearing
1. Centripetal pump
2. Serve controlled pump
3. Lube oil circ Pump
4. 1
1. Lube oil cooler

2. Lube oil filters
1. Lube oil cooler

3. Lube oil filters
6. 1
1. Lube oil filters

3. Lube oil cooler
1. Cylinder Lubrication
2. Lube Oil Cooler
3. Crosshead and Guides Lubrication
4. Lube Oil Filters
8. 1
1. Engine Lube Oil Sump

3. Lube Oil Cooler
Answer Key
1. Engine lube oil sump

2. Lube oil to crankshaft and main bearing
3. Lube oil circ Pump
4. Lube oil filters
6. Lube oil cooler
1. 1
1. Water
2. Drain
3. Purified Oil
4. Dirty Oil
1. Coupling Ring
2. Discharge Ring
3. Large Bowl Ring
4. Small Dowl Ring
1. Regulating tube
2. Lub oil pump
3. Centripetal pump
4. Hydraulic pump
4. In the diagram given below, “X” represents __________. 1
1. Dirty oil
2. Purified oil
3. Water
4. Drain
1. Upper paring disc

2. Oil paring disc
3. Top discs
4. Intermediate disc
1. Bowl Spindle
2. Bowl Shell
3. Bowl Top
7. Which number represents the "Overflow" in the illustration given below? 1
1. V
2. III
3. IV
4. II
1. Purified oil
2. Water
3. Dirty oil
4. Drain
1. Tubular shaft
2. Thrust shaft
3. Drive Shaft
1. Distributing Plug
2. Thrust Shaft
4. Tubular shaft
11. What is “VII” showing in the figure given below? 1
1. Purified Oil
2. Bowl Shell
3. Dirty Oil
4. Water
1. Dirty oil
2. Purified oil
3. Water
4. Drain
13. Which number represents the "Discs" in the illustration given below? 1
1. VIII
2. XI
3. IX
4. X
Answer Key
1. Drain
2. Discharge Ring
3. Regulating tube
4. Water
5. Top discs
6. Bowl Top
7. IV
8. Dirty oil
9. Tubular shaft
10. Distributing Plug
11. Bowl Shell
12. Purified oil
13. XI
A decrease in the flash point of the diesel engine lube oil indicates the lube oil is ___________ .
1. diluted with fuel oil

1. 1
2. diluted with water
3. contaminated with carbon
4. contaminated with sludge
Answer Key
1. diluted with fuel oil
A 'Blotter test' is a test performed on the lube oil of a diesel engine which can determine ______ .
1. the specific gravity of the oil

1. 1
2. the flash point of the oil
4. the TBN number of the oil
Answer Key
With reference to the illustration below, What does the Deck winch brake test kit consist of?
1. 1
1. Hydraulic jack with flexible hose, a hand pump with pressure gauge and the connectio bracket
including bolts for mounting o drum flange.
2. Hawse drum, drum brackets , hydraulic lifting tool with pressure gauge
3. Brackets, piston, cylinder and cylinder fork
4. Piston, liner and the jacks
Identify the part marked as B,C and D from the illustration below?
2. 1
1. Hand pump
2. Hydraulic jack with cylinder fork
3. Hydraulic operating lever
4. Drum Rotating lever
3. With reference to the Illustration below, identify the part marked as “A“ 1
1. Bracket
2. Iron pate
3. Foundation plate
4. Drum Flange
Answer Key
Hydraulic jack with flexible hose, a hand pump with pressure gauge and the connectio bracket
1.
including bolts for mounting o drum flange.
2. Hydraulic jack with cylinder fork
3. Bracket
The cost of hydraulic windlass is less compared to electrical windlass due to :
1. Lesser space requirement.

1. 1
2. Reduced maintenance.
3. Reduction in number of components.
4. Reduced cost of operating medium.
The cable lifter guides the anchor by raising or lowering the cable through spurling pipe. Where is
the spurling pipe located?
2. 1. Below the cable locker. 1

2. Below the windlass machinery
3. At the top and center of the chain locker.
4. Midway between port and starboard anchors.
What grows on the links when the anchor chain is stored in a dark and closed room?
1. Sea weed.
3. 1
2. Fungus
3. Microorganisms.
4. Bacteria
Where is the windlass mounted on a vessel?
1. Midship.
4. 1
2. Aft end of the vessel.
3. The windlass is mounted on a doubler plate welded to the forecastle deck.
4. Behind the navigation bridge.
Electrically operated windlass has two speed. The lower speed provides:
1. Constant torque for dropping anchor.

5. 1
2. Less torque required for heaving anchor.
3. High torque required for initial breaking of anchor from ground.
4. Constant torque required to heave up anchor.
Electrically operated windlass have some limitations and hence are used only on :
1. Oil Carriers.
6. 1
2. Container vessels.
3. Small vessels.
4. Chemical tankers.
Larger vessels adopt powered option for dropping anchor. State the reason:
1. To avoid injury to operating personnel.

7. 1
2. Easy to drop the anchor at the desired location.
3. A heavy anchor dropping suddenly does not exert a large force on the hull.
4. To avoid entrapment of anchor in the mud.
8. Hydraulic windlass is operated with hydraulic motors. Which parts of hydraulic motor are 1
recommended for renewal during the lay up period?
1. Control block
2. Central shaft.
3. Vanes, roller bearings, oil seal and springs.
4. Complete motor
The anchor chain wheel have grooves cut in. What is the purpose of these grooves?
1. For easier cleaning of the accumulated mud.

9. 1
2. For reducing the weight of chain drum.
3. The grooves allow rode links to be properly gripped.
4. Helps in easier heaving up of anchor.
The cable lifter of driving gear in windlass is connected by :
1. Spur gear arrangement.

10. 1
2. Reduction gear arrangement.
3. Clutch arrangement.
4. Pneumatic operated clutch.
While starting a hydraulic anchor windlass, you observe that hydraulic pressure does not develop in
spite of the proper operation of the electric drive motor. Which of the following actions should you
take FIRST to restore pressure?
11. 2
1. Check the electric motor for an open overload relay contact.
2. Inspect the disc brake on the electric motor for proper operation.
3. Make certain that the hydraulic reservoir is filled to the proper level.
4. Check for full voltage supply to the electric motor.
Answer Key
1. Reduction in number of components.

2. At the top and center of the chain locker.
3. Microorganisms.
4. The windlass is mounted on a doubler plate welded to the forecastle deck.
5. High torque required for initial breaking of anchor from ground.
6. Small vessels.
7. A heavy anchor dropping suddenly does not exert a large force on the hull.
8. Vanes, roller bearings, oil seal and springs.
9. The grooves allow rode links to be properly gripped.
10. Clutch arrangement.
11. Make certain that the hydraulic reservoir is filled to the proper level.
What is the probable reason that the windlass cannot lift the anchor up after extended anchorage?
1. Low lube oil tank level

1. 1
2. Defective bypass valve in Windlass
3. Anchor drag sunken object
4. Too cold hydraulic oil.
Answer Key
1. Anchor drag sunken object
When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is placed in the neutral or off position, the
spring set brake on the fluid motor drive shaft is ________.
1. 2
1. engaged by spring action and only released by hydraulic pressure
2. released by spring action and hydraulically locks the winch when the drum ceases rotating
You must have worked with mooring winch and windlass hydraulic systems. The cooling of hydraulic
oil for the above system on large merchant ships is provided by:
2. 1. There is no cooling arrangement as the system does not require cooling. 1

2. Air cooled hydraulic reservoir.
3. Water cooled plate or shell type heat exchangers.
4. Radiator and fan arrangement.
If is an abnormal noise in the hydraulic system, describe the possible causes?

3. 2
(a) With reference to hydraulic systems used for powering deck machinery, state the pump
4. classification? 3
If the movement of the windlass and mooring winch drum is sluggish, what could be the possible
5. reasons for this fault? 2
In the hydraulic system, the hydraulic motor show signs of rotating with difficulty and is rising in
temperature. The probable cause is the _______.
6. 2
1. hydraulic pump is producing a higher than designed flow rate
2. drain line from the hydraulic motor casing has become blocked
The principal purpose of an anchor windlass chain stopper is to ________.
7. 1. absorb the brake thrust of the anchor windlass 2
2. hold the anchor chain while riding at anchor
What are the requirements the anchor windlass should fulfill during operation?
8. 2
9. What are the reasons for winch hydraulic oil system high oil temperature?
2
3. Why are hydraulic filters important in hydraulic system? Name different types of filters with their
functions.
10. 3
What is the use of pressure relief valve used in hydraulic oil system?
11. 2
If you are given the job of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring winch, and are not certain as to
the type of fluid
12. 2
1. Check the winch manufacturers instruction book
2. Add any oil that has the same viscosity as the hydraulic fluid
What is the purpose of baffle plate used in the reservoir of a hydraulic oil system?
13. 2
Winch hydraulic system oil pressure is low, give reasons.

14. 2
With reference to anchor handling windlass
15. 3
Answer Key
1. engaged by spring action and only released by hydraulic pressure

2. Water cooled plate or shell type heat exchangers.
System has air. Filter is clogged. Damage to rotary group. Coupling drive is defective. Water in oil and
3. milky. Tank breather choked. Pump suction line valve is shut. Low oil level. Incorrect direction of
rotation.
(a) With reference to hydraulic systems used for powering deck machinery, state the pump
classification?
he pumps are classified into two groups.
fixed delivery when running at a given speed – Their constant output can be bypassed via
control valves until output can be matched to the requirements.
variable delivery pump run at a given constant speed, uni-directional and the output can be
controlled to give a flow in any direction (reversal of flow). The quantity of discharge (flow rate)
can be varied from zero to maximum or vice versa.
(b) What are the causes for the deterioration of the hydraulic oil?
Hydraulic oils will degenerate slowly over a period of time due to oxidation.
The factors which accelerates the process of oxidation are
heating
agitation of oil in presence of air and metals like copper
Oxidation products increase oil viscosity and sludge formation. Oxidation increases emulsion
formation with any water from leakage or condensation.
4.
(c) State the reasons for oil contamination?
condensation on the cold surfaces of exposed reservoir tanks, causes water intrusion

rust which can form due to water intrusion can dislodge and choke the valves / piping circuit /
heat exchangers.
sea water can enter through shaft seals or through system coolers
metal wear due to friction, corrosion particles together with sand grit
(d) State the care required to maintain system in a clean condition?
tanks should not be constructed such that Cold hull plating forms one wall
clean the filters as per schedule and by observing the filter differential pressure
refurbish the entire oil charge with a fresh charge as per maker's recommendation and through
Condition Monitoring.
care is necessary with hoses, funnels and oil containers used for filling and topping up the tanks
minimum number of joints and pipes to reduce the leakage
selection of materials, such that least quantity of contaminating particles are generated
Keep environment clean, maintain utmost hygiene, when components are opened up for over-
haul.
5. System has air. Filter is clogged. Pump unit is defective.

6. drain line from the hydraulic motor casing has become blocked
7. hold the anchor chain while riding at anchor
8.
Average cable speeds vary between 5 to 7 meters per second during let go anchor and brakes
must be able to control the speed of running anchor and cable.
The windlass must be able to heave a certain weight of cable at a specified speed. This full load
duty of windlass varies as high as 70 tonnes.
The speed of haul is at least 9 to 15metre per min
Braking effort obtained at the cable lifter must be equal to 40% of breaking strength of the
cable.
9. Cooler is fouled. Insufficient oil flow rate. Incorrect viscosity. Cooling medium is interrupted.
Hydraulic filters provide inbuilt protection and minimize hydraulic system breakdowns that are quite
often caused by contamination.
Efficient filtration helps prevent system failure and makes a significant contribution to low cost of
ownership. These are fitted for both low and high pressure hydraulic applications. The filter used in
hydraulic system should be subjected to periodic and routine cleaning and maintenance. The life of a
filter in a hydraulic system depends primarily on the system pressures, level of contamination and
nature of contaminants.
10. (a) return line filter- It may reduce the amount of dirt ingested through the cylinder and seals from
reaching the tank.
(b) intake filter- The are fitted before the pump so that they can prevent random entry of large and
other contaminants like large chips into the pump and thus prevent damage to it.
(c) Pressure filter- A pressure filter is used sometimes at the pump outlet to prevent entry of
contaminants generated in the pump, into other components like valves, etc. and thus help in
avoiding the spread of such undesirable elements into the whole system. This will thus protect
valves,cylinders etc.
To relieve any excessive pressure developed in the supply line due to actuator sluggishness or due to
11.
any other external factor.
12. Check the winch manufacturers instruction book
Reduce fluid turbulence at the pump suction. Minimize the amount of contamination deposited from
13.
return lines entering the system. Minimize the entrance of entrained air through the pump inlet line.
Low oil level. High leakage losses. Air leak in the suction line. Damage to rotary group. Coupling drive
14.
is defective. Incorrect direction of rotation. Defective gauges or measuring devices.
15. (a) State the points which anchor windlass should fulfill?
the windlass cable lifter brakes must be able to control the running anchor and cable, when the
cable lifter is disconnected from gearing when letting go
average cable speeds vary between 5 to 7 meter per second during the above said operation.
the windlass must be able to heave a certain weight of cable at a specified speed. This full load
duty of windlass varies as high as 70 tonnes
the speed of haul is at least 9m/min to 15 m/min
braking effort obtained at the cable lifter must be equal to 40% of “breaking” strength of the
cable.
(b) How speed reduction and control of windlass is achieved?

Due to low speed of rotation required at the cable lifter, a high gear reduction is needed, when the
windlass is driven by a high speed electric motor or by hydraulic motor. This is generally followed by a
single step of spur gears between the warp-end shaft.
Control from local position is achieved by movement of joy stick and judicious use of cable-lifter brake
(c) What preventive maintenance is carried out?
inspect the sliding and moving parts for sufficient lubrication.

check for sufficient quantity of grease and for proper functioning of greasing mechanism.
inspect all connecting linkages
grease all points on winches, blocks, cranes, hooks, shackles
carry out an inspection on brake liner, chains, rings, hooks, swivels,blocks,bearings, bushings
and gears
gear case inspection and oil replenishment
Windlass foundation / fasteners - well secured protection from corrosion - because of frequently
be awash with sea - water.
Exposed gears protected - proper application of heavy duty paint coats - tar based Bituminous
coats.
(d) How will you carry out brake testing?

On board the ship, brake testing of windlasses are carried out once in 6 months or as per PMS
schedule
The test procedure is follows
tighten the brake band to maximum permissible value.

place a responsible person near the hydraulic power pack.
communication should be established with a “walkie-talkie”
give movement by joystick.
note the amperage, hydraulic pressure indicated by gauges. Also there should not be any leaks
in hydraulic lines.
the brake should hold tight.
slipping of handle or drum should not take place.
repeat the procedure one more time.
carry out for the other drum.
With reference to the illustration below, Hatch Cover With Side and Cross Joints – What is the
function of Hatch cover?
1. 1
1. To allow more cargo to load on top

2. To prevent any penetration of ingress of water into a vessels cargo hold
3. To prevent any penetration of ingress of air into a vessels cargo hold
4. To decorate the hatch cover
2. As per the illustration Quick acting cleat shown below, Identify the part marked as “F“? 1
1. Quick release lever for cleat

2. Hatch cover
3. Snug
4. Battening Bolt
As per the illustration Quick acting cleat shown below, Identify the part marked as “C“?
3. 1
1. Cleat
2. Seal retaining bar
3. Rubber packing (Seal)
4. Crutch(Socket)
4. With reference to the illustration below, What is the use of compression bar? 1
1. To compress the cargo and prevent leakage

2. To act as a drain channel for the water drainage
3. Compression bar compress against the Rubber packing to provide water tight integrity
4. To compress the packing to insert properly in the retaining bar
From the illustration below, Identify the part marked as “ E“
5. 1

2. Stell to steel contact
3. Hatch rest bar
4. Compression bar
From the illustration below, Identify the part marked as “D“
6. 1
1. Hatch cover
3. Horizontal stiffner
4. Hatch rest bar
7. As per the illustration Quick acting cleat shown below, Identify the part marked as “ H “? 1
1. Crutch (socket)
2. Holding bracket
3. Snug
4. Packing
8. As per the illustration Quick acting cleat shown below, Identify the part marked as “ D “? 1
1. Holding bracket
2. Cleat
3. Crutch (socket)
4. Packing
As per the illustration Quick acting cleat shown below, Identify the part marked as “ I “?
9. 1
1. Snug
2. Battening Blot
3. Hatch coaming
4. Rubber washer
10. What is the importance of Hatch cover packing maintenance, With reference to the illustration 1
below?
1. Lack of proper mainteance causes a steady deterioration in performance

2. Possibility of costly delays in port due to non operational hatch cover
3. Lead to other costs due to cargo claims

4. All of the above
With reference to the illustration below, Hatch Cover With Side and Cross Joints – How often the
Hatch covers are renewed?
11. 1
1. Every five years

2. Every one year
3. Every two or three years
4. Till the packing is completely worn
12. From the illustration below, Identify the part marked as “B“ 1
1. Hatch cover
3. Hatch coaming
4. Hatch rest bar
Answer Key
1. To prevent any penetration of ingress of water into a vessels cargo hold

3. Rubber packing (Seal)
4. Compression bar compress against the Rubber packing to provide water tight integrity
5. Compression bar
6. Horizontal stiffner
7. Snug
8. Crutch (socket)
9. Battening Blot
11. Every five years
If there is an abnormal noise in the hatch cover hydraulic system. What could be the possible reasons?
1. 2
As per the illustration Quick acting cleat shown below, Identify the part marked as “I”?
2. 1
1. Snug
2. Battening bolt
3. Hatch coaming
4. Rubber washer
As per the illustration Quick acting cleat shown below, identify the part marked as “D”?
3. 1
1. Holding bracket
2. Cleat
3. Crutch (socket)
4. Packing
4. What is the normal life of rubber seals used in hatch cover and maximum compression allowed before renewal? 2
What is the minimum length required for renewal?
What does figure “VI” represent?
5. 1
1. Hatch Coaming
2. Hatch Cover
3. Stiffener
Which number represents the "Gasket" in the illustration given below?
6. 1
1. II
2. IV
3. III
4. I
7. Which number represents the "Bolt" in the illustration given below? 1
1. IX
2. VIII
3. X
4. VII
How a hatch cover seal tightness test is usually carried out?

8. 2
Which number represents the "Pin" in the illustration given below?
9. 1
1. VIII
2. VII
3. V
4. VI
1. Stiffener
2. Hatch Coaming
3. Inner Edge Stiffener
4. Hatch Cover
As per the illustration Quick acting cleat shown below, Identify the part marked as “F”?
11. 1

2. Hatch cover
3. Snug
4. Battening bolt
1. Hatch Cover
2. Hatch Coaming
3. Stiffener
As per the illustration Quick acting cleat shown below, Identify the part marked as “H”?
13. 1
1. Crutch (socket)
2. Holding bracket
3. Snug
4. Packing
14. As per the illustration Quick acting cleat shown below, identify the part marked as “C”? 1
1. Cleat
3. Rubber packing (seal)
4. Crutch (socket)
15. 1
1. Blade Support
2. Hatch Coaming
3. Stiffener
1. Lock Nut
2. Butterfly Nut
3. Stud Nut
4. Cap Nut
The part “IX” indicates _________.
17. 1
1. Hatch coaming
2. Bearing pad welded on the bracket of a toggle bolt for metal to the metal contact
3. Stiffener
What is the purpose of Restrictor valve used in hydraulic hatch cover system?
18. 2
With reference to a wire single pull-folding hatch cover arrangement:

19. 3
(a) Sketch & describe a hydraulically operated hatch cover.
20. 3
21. Which number represents the "Center of pin" in the illustration given below? 1
1. V
2. VI
3. VIII
4. VII
Answer Key
Abnormal noise may be due to oil quantity may be less. Filter may be clogged. Hydraulic pump shaft seal could be
1.
worn out. Coupling drive may be worn out. Bearing shall be defective.
2. Battening bolt
3. Crutch (socket)
Rubber seals are normally expected to last for 4 to 5 years.
4. Rubber gasket is replaced when it becomes 80% or more of regular compression.
Minimum length of rubber insert required is to be 500 millimeter.
5. Hatch Cover
6. IV
7. X
Seal tightness test is carried out by hose test and applying water under pressure onto the seal arrangement to
8.
confirm that there is no leakage of water on the other side of the cover inside the cargo hold.
9. VII
10. Inner Edge Stiffener
12. Hatch Coaming
13. Snug
14. Rubber packing (seal)
15. Stiffener
16. Butterfly Nut
17. Bearing pad welded on the bracket of a toggle bolt for metal to the metal contact
18. It will control the speed of the hatch cover movement while closing.
19. (a) Sketch and describe the construction and operation of the arrangement
The single pull hatch cover consists of a number of transverse panels which span the
hatchway and are linked
together by chains as shown in the figure. In the closed position, the panel sides sit firmly on a horizontal steel bar
attached to the top of the hatch coaming
Rollers are arranged on the sides of the covers to facilitate opening and closing. To
open a single pull cover the
securing cleats are first freed and each panel is raised off its compression bars by hydraulic jacks. The cover wheels,
which are arranged on eccentrics, are rotated through 180° and locked into position. The jacks
are then removed
and the cover can be pulled backwards or forwards as required.
The rail arrangement on both sides at the end of the
hatch coaming, is designed to
turn the panels so that they are left stacked upright in the space provided. An
alternative arrangement uses a fixed chain drive on the periphery of the hatch, complete with its own electric or
hydraulic motor.
Eccentric wheels lowered to track by manual levers or

hydraulics.
Stowage bay wheels with interconnecting chain.
Raising and lowering of the eccentric wheels by use

portable hand operated jacks or hand levers.
(b) State how these hatches are secured and made watertight
Just inside the side plates is a rubber gasket housed in a channel on the under
side of the hatch cover and which
rests on hatch coaming steel compression bar
to form a weathertight seal. When closed, the covers are held on to
the seals by series of peripheral cleats on the side. Cross joints between covers use wedges for
tightening to form
weathertight seal in between the covers.
There are arrangements made for athwarthships channel sealing between panels,
in the form of a ' ' channel for
holding the rubber insertion and a cross bar
( Compression bar).

20.
Hydraulic power is used extensively for the operation of hatch covers. The three essential components for a hydraulic
circuit are the hydraulic fluid held in a reservoir tank, a pump to force the liquid through the system and cylinder
actuator
to convert the energy of the moving liquid into a working linear mechanical force.
Hatch covers of the folding type are hinged together and arranged to be operated by
hydraulic pressure. The
hydraulic system for the hatch covers may be based on a fixed displacement pump the output from which is
bypassed until required for cylinder operation. When pump out put is channeled to cylinders, system pressure
and
pump motor load rise. Protection is provided by system relief valve and motor
protective devices
(b) Describe maintenance required on Hatch cover hydraulic system.

The maintenance of the hatch cover comprises of hydraulic system and the
structural members , maintaining the
water tight integrity and the opening / closing
mechanism.
Hydraulic system is to be maintained to keep the oil free from contamination by
regular filteratrion.
The structural members are to be maintained to prevent from corrosion and seizure
and as follows
drive boxes and electrical enclosures should be checked regularly for water- tightness
drive chains, trolleys and adjusting devices such as peripheral and cross-joint
cleats should be cleaned and
greased regularly. Wheels should be regularly greased
seals, compression bars and coamings should be inspected and cleaned at each
port
drain channels should be cleared regularly
on the subject of seals and cleats it is important not to over tighten cleats
the seal should be compressed but not beyond the elastic limit of the gasket
material
standard rubber gaskets can be expected to last from four to five years of normal service
in freezing conditions special grease or commercial glycerine should be spread
over the surface of all gaskets
to prevent them from sticking to their
compression bars. Ensure seals are free of any paint and, when painting
hatch
covers, protect seal surfaces from paint adhesion
quick-acting cleats are fitted with thick neoprene washers arranged to exert the
correct degree of
compression.
after a time these lose their elasticity and the cleat must be adjusted or
replaced.
Maintain correct temperatures to avoid oxidation; use correct grade of oil
Keep trackways clear and clean.
Hydraulic Rams - Dust trap seals is in good condition and rams not exposed
to external dust / dirt
21. VIII
The purpose of a restrictor valve, as it is used in a hydraulic hatch cover system, is to
1. 2
1. Control the speed of the hatch cover movement while closing
2. Restrict the oil supply to the hatch cover not in use
Answer Key
1. Control the speed of the hatch cover movement while closing
Life boat will have oil storage capacity for propulsion to last for_______.
1. 2
1. 24 hours
2. 12 hours
With reference to the Hand brake assembly for life boat davit winch, Identify the part marked as “B“?
2. 1
1. Weighted lever
2. Brake shoe
3. Brake lining
4. Restraining spring
How a life boat operational test is carried out?

3. 2
4. Which letter represents the "Roller ratchet" in the illustration given below? 1
1. F
2. I
3. H
4. G
With reference to the Hand brake assembly for life boat davit winch, Identify the part marked as “C“?
5. 1
1. Weighted lever
2. Brake shoe
3. Brake lining
6. With reference to the Life boat davit winch assembly, Identify the part marked as “D“? 1
1. Hand brake
2. Friction pad
3. Gypsy wheel
4. Centrifugal brake
(a) What are the routines carried out on a life boat winch
(b) What maintenance do the hand brake and Centrifugal brakes require’
7. (c) With reference to lifeboat brakes and winches, state the tests carried out on main parts of the system? 3

8. How the lowering speed of life boat is controlled while hand brake is released?
2
What does figure “F” represent?
9. 1
1. Brake shaft pinion

2. Intermediate pinion
10. What does “E” indicate in the illustration given below? 1
1. Handbrake wheel
2. Intermediate spur wheel
3. Main spur wheel
11. The area indicated by the letter “G” is known as the _______________. 1
1. Main spur wheel


3. Handbrake wheel
What ahead speed, will the life boat have to maintain in smooth water with fully loaded complement?
12. 2
1. 10 knots
2. 6 knots
With reference to lifeboats, state with the aid of sketches:

(a) The handbrake used for lowering and state how it may be tested;
(b) The centrifugal brake and state the method of testing;
13. 3
(c) (i) A roller ratchet and state the method of testing;
(ii)Explain why the ratchet is incorporated into the system.
From the illustration given below, identify the name of the marking “C”.
14. 1
1. Handbrake lever
2. Handbrake
15. Identify the part marked as “D“ from the illustration below? 1
2. Weighted lever
3. Brake shoe
4. Brake lining
With reference to the Life boat davit winch assembly, Identify the part marked as “E“?
16. 1
1. Main spur wheel

2. Intermedate wheel
3. Bevel gear
17. What does “B” stand for in the image given below? 1
1. Main spur wheel

3. Handbrake wheel
18. What does “A” indicate in the diagram given below? 1
2. Handbrake lever
3. Loading lever
With reference to the Life boat davit winch assembly, identify the part marked as „“C“?
19. 1
1. Hand brake
2. Gypsy wheel
3. Rachet and lever arrangement
4. Friction pad
20. What is “D” showing in the figure given below? 1
1. Handbrake
21. What does item “H” refer to the illustration given below? 1

Answer Key
1. 24 hours
2. Brake lining
The five years operational test should be done by lowering the boat loaded to a proof load equal to 1.1
times the weight of the survival craft or rescue boat and its full complement of persons and equipment, or
3.
equivalent load. When the boat has reached its maximum lowering speed and before the boat enters the
water, the brake should be abruptly applied.
4. I
5. Brake shoe
6. Friction pad
(a) What are the routines carried out on a life boat winch
inspect the sliding and moving parts for sufficient lubrication.

check for sufficient quantity of grease and for proper functioning of greasing
mechanism.
inspect all connecting linkages
grease all points on winches, blocks, cranes, hooks, shackles
carry out an inspection on brake liner, chains, rings, hooks, swivels,blocks,
bearings, bushings and
gears
gear case inspection and oil replenishment
(b) What maintenance do the hand brake and Centrifugal brakes require’
The brake linings are “ Ferado” lined. The brakes require regular inspection for wear
and after replacement
of brake shoes must be properly tested.
7. (c) With reference to lifeboat brakes and winches, state the tests carried out on
main parts of
the system?
The Davit structure : This is subjected to a static test of 2.2 times the maximum
working load.
Winch hand brake: They are subjected to a static load of 1.5 times the maximum
working load and a
dynamic load test of 1.1 times the maximum working load.
The function of dead mans handle should be
checked and found satisfactory, .i.e. if
the operator releases the pressure on the brake, then the brake
should halt the fall
of the boat.
Winch centrifugal brake: This limits the speed of boat descent to 36m/min. The
minimum speed is given by
the formula.
V = 0.4 + 0.02 H,
where V is the minimum speed in m/sec and H is the height from the davit head to
lightest sea going
draught.
Hoisting mechanism -for a rescue boat, must be capable of achieving 0.3m/s, with a
loaded boat.
Roller ratchet’s function should be checked.In case of sudden failure of power or
electric motor of winch the
boat should not drop back.
Centrifugal brake controls the rate of descent of a boat, when the handbrake is not engaged. Brake shoes
8.
of calculated weight act on the liner surface of a stationary drum.
10. Main spur wheel
12. 6 knots
13.
Hand brake
When lowering a lifeboat, no mechanical assistance apart from gravity is applied.
The only manual function
required by the operator is to release the winch
handbrake, and hold it at the off position during the
lowering sequence. If the
operator loses control of the brake lever, the attached weight will provide positive
means of application and boat will be held in an intermediate position. This condition
applies throughout
the outboard travel.
Testing is carried out by manually lifting the handle and observe the descent of the
boat. The brake should
hold the boat to arrest the down ward movement.
Centrifugal brake
There is a centrifugal brake which is provided and this brake controls the rate of descent of the boat, when
the handbrake is not engaged. Shoes of calculated weight act on the liner surface of a stationery drum,
being thrown out by centrifugal effect against restraining springs.
Testing is carried out by manually lifting the handle and observe the descent of the
boat, such that The
lowering speed of the boat is restricted to not more than 36m /
min.
Drum rotation does not get reversed

When the boat is hoisted and in the event of a power failure, aSDZOratchet
DUUDQJHPHQWensures that
the drums will not reverse and boat drop back towards
ZDWHUTesting is carried out in the following
manner. Hoist the boat by electric motor
RUpneumatic motor. Interrupt the supply in between the boat
travel. The boat should
not drop back towards water.
14. Handbrake
16. Main spur wheel
17. Handbrake wheel
18. Handbrake lever
19. Hand brake
There are many safety arrangements provided on ship's crane. Which one is considered most
critical?
1. 1. Low oil level. 1

2. Safety limit stops.
3. Brakes.
4. Emergency stop.
There are various cranes fitted on ships. What is hose-handling crane used for?
1. Used for bulk cargo.

2. 1
2. Used for provisions handling on ships.
3. Used for handling cargo hoses on tankers.
4. Used for opening/closing hatch covers on ships.
What is the main advantage of hydraulic crane on ships?
1. Less installation cost.

3. 1
2. Pollution free.
3. Compact and easy to use. Less maintenance due less moving parts.
4. Reduced maintenance cost
What is the maximum allowed temperature for safe working of hose handling cranes?
1. +65°C
4. 1
2. +75°C
3. +45°C
4. +35°C
The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength, is the _________.
1. Inner tube
5. 2
2. Outer cover
3. Braided inner layer.
4. Outer armor
Which spare is considered most important to be kept in stock for hydraulic cranes?
1. Control block.
6. 1
2. Slew bearing.
3. One set of hoses.
4. Seals for hydraulic ram.
What is the purpose of carrying out "rocking test" on deck cranes?
1. To check the operation of overload trip.

7. 1
2. To check cut out operation on various limit switches.
3. To measure the wear down of sleeve bearing.
4. To check maximum outreach of crane jib.
8. Which section of the deck crane carries the load? 1
1. Base structure of crane.

2. Fixed pedestal of crane.
3. Jib arm.
4. Winch drum.
What action is required if wear of sleeve bearing has exceeded the limit on deck crane?
1. Use different grade of grease.

9. 1
2. Reduce safe working load to 50% of maximum.
3. Renew sleeve bearing,(Unsafe to use crane till renewal)
4. Increase frequency of greasing.
Hose handling cranes on tankers are designed for safe working in :
1. Forecastle on deck.
10. 1
2. Poop deck.
3. Hazardous area.
4. Aft of accomodation area.
What is the maximum lifting speed as per technical specifications of ship's provision crane?
1. 60 m/min.
11. 1
2. 20 m/min
3. 15 m/min.
4. 10 m/min
The most common failure related to ship's crane is the failure of :
1. Flexible hoses.
12. 1
2. control block.
3. Wire rope.
4. Ram seals.
Answer Key
1. Brakes.
2. Used for handling cargo hoses on tankers.
3. Compact and easy to use. Less maintenance due less moving parts.
4. +45°C
5. Braided inner layer.
6. One set of hoses.
7. To measure the wear down of sleeve bearing.
8. Jib arm.
9. Renew sleeve bearing,(Unsafe to use crane till renewal)
10. Hazardous area.
11. 15 m/min.
12. Wire rope.
State any one of the safety precautions taken before leaving the crane unattended between work
periods:
1. 1. Power supply switched to emergency mode. 2

2. Clutch to be engaged.
3. Crane secured against accidental travel.
4. Boom is kept free to move.
What is the basis on which ship's cranes are classified?
1. Purpose of use.
2. 1
2. Maximum outreach.
3. Method of working
4. Maximum lifting capacity.
What is the arrangement provided on crane hooks to prevent accidental load disengagement?
1. Weight of the load shared by another crane.

3. 2
2. Locking arrangement to keep the hook in vertical position.
3. Latched or otherwise secured.
4. Safety net kept below the load.
The International Labour Organisation (ILO) Convention 152 requires that a register of lifting
appliance and loose gear be kept on vessels. What is this record book referred as?
4. 1. Crane record. 1
2. Loose gear record.
3. Cargo gear record book
4. Lifting gear record.
As per the required standards for cranes, each independent hoisting unit shall be equipped with at
least one holding brake. What is the crane component to which this brake applies directly?
5. 1. Slewing gear. 1
2. Hydraulic system for crane.
3. Motor shaft or gear train.
4. Hoist drum.
If the rated load for crane varies with the boom radius , the crane requires to be fitted with a boom
angle indicator. This indicator should be visible to :--------------
6. 1. Duty officer. 1
2. Person receiving the load ashore.
3. Crane operator.
4. The person signalling for hoisting.
7. Ship's cranes are required to be thoroughly examined annually. What is the interval for retesting and 1
thorough examination?
1. Every four years

2. Every two years

3. Every five years
4. Every ten years
Answer Key
1. Crane secured against accidental travel.

2. Method of working
3. Latched or otherwise secured.
4. Cargo gear record book
5. Motor shaft or gear train.
6. Crane operator.
7. Every five years
Most makes of crane incorporate a rope system to effect luffing and this is commonly rove to give a
level luff. What is the meaning of 'level luff"?
1. 1. Load is slightly lowered by the action of luffing. 2

2. load is prevented from swaying.
3. The load is not lifted or lowered by the action of luffing the jib
4. Load is slightly hoisted by the action of luffing.
What is the set pressure of relief valve as per the hydraulic circuit diagram - 125021?
1. 310 Kgf/Sq.cm
2. 1
2. 180 Kgf/Sq.cm
3. 210 Kgf/Sq.cm
4. 140 Kgf/Sq.cm
A general cargo crane has principal movements such as hoisting, luffing and slewing, having an
independent drive for each movement. What is the function of slewing motor?
3. 1. Raising or lowering the jib 1

2. Lowering the load.
3. Rotating the crane.
4. Raising the load.
What is the rating of luffing motor as the cable geometry of cranes is such that the load is not lifted
nor lowered by the action of luffing the jib?
4. 1. Rated to lift the load. 2

2. Rated to lift the jib and the load.
3. Rated to lift the jib only.
4. Rated for jib weight and 90 % of maximum designed load.
All cranes should be able to perform certain basic functions. What is the provision on power of crane
when it is overloaded?
5. 1. Shut off the power. 2

2. Lower the power.
3. Allow more power.
4. Switch over to emergency power.
A general cargo crane has principal movements such as hoisting, luffing and slewing, having an
independent drive for each movement. What is the function of luffing motor?
6. 1. Lifting the load. 1

2. Lowering the load.
3. Raising or lowering the jib
7. State any one of the basic functions which are required to be performed by cranes: 2
1. Lift the load at constant speed.

2. Hold the load from falling down.

3. Take up the slack on the slugs without induced stress.
4. Hold the load under control.
Answer Key
1. The load is not lifted or lowered by the action of luffing the jib
2. 210 Kgf/Sq.cm
4. Rated to lift the jib only.
5. Allow more power.
6. Raising or lowering the jib
What is the setting for high oil temperature of hydraulic oil in deck cranes?
1. 60 deg C
1. 1
2. 70 deg C
3. 80 deg C
4. 90 deg C
What is the safety device fitted to detect high temperature of hydraulic oil in deck cranes?
1. Level switch.
2. 1
2. Pressure switch.
3. Thermostat.
4. Flow switch.
What is the safety device fitted to detect oil level in head tank of deck cranes operated hydraulically?
1. Pressure switch.
3. 1
2. Thermostat.
3. Level switch.
4. Flow switch.
State any one of the basic safety functions which are required to be included in the cranes:
1. Lift the load at constant speed.

4. 2
2. Hold the load from falling down.
4. Hold the load under control.
What is the safety feature added in electrically operated cranes with regard to speed of lowering
load?
5. 1. Fitted speed governor. 2

2. Bypass overload protection.
3. Prevent damage the motor armature.
4. Activate overload trip.
Various limit switches are provided for safe operation of deck cranes. What does the limit switch "LS
HH' represent?
6. 1. Minimum radius limit for luffing 1

2. Lower limit of jib for luffing
3. Upper limit for hoisting
4. Slack over limit for hoisting wire.
7. When any limit switch acts under operation of the deck crane the electric motor stops. Then "LIMIT" 2
lamp is "ON" and the buzzer alarms. What is the subsequent action taken to put back the crane to
use?
1. Reset overload trip and restart motor.

2. Supplement hydraulic oil to reservoir and start motor.
3. Start the electric motor again and operate the handle to reverse position.
4. Bypass thermostat and restart electric motor.
Answer Key
1. 80 deg C
2. Thermostat.
3. Level switch.
5. Prevent damage the motor armature.
6. Upper limit for hoisting
7. Start the electric motor again and operate the handle to reverse position.
Slewing limit switches are fitted to the aft most crane near to the accommodation. What is the angle
through which this crane can be rotated?
1. 1
1. 90 degrees.
2. 120 degrees.
3. 180 degrees.
4. 270 degrees.
What is the main purpose of hoisting limit switch in deck crane?
1. Prevents high speed of luffing operation in crane.

2. 2
2. Prevents damage to cargo on the hook.
3. To prevent damage to the base plate fitted on the cargo hold where the hook lands.
4. Restricts the lowering speed of crane.
What is the purpose of safety cut outs fitted at the ends of the gantry arms in gantry cranes?
1. To prevent load falling off the hook to port jetty.

3. 2
2. To restrict the hoisting speed at extreme ends of gantry carne.
3. To stop the cab and hoisting gear from going off the end of the arm.
4. To prevent dangerous swaying of load on the hook.
What is the main purpose of slack wire limit switch fitted in cranes?
1. To restrict the speed of hoisting.

4. 2. To prevent damage to the base plate fitted on the cargo hold 2
3. To avoid winding of the wire irregularly in the drum while heaving and causing damage to the
drum and supporting brackets.
4. Prevents high speed of luffing operation in crane.
Manual safety stop buttons are provided and situated at the base of each leg of the crane and also
on the top platform and in the driver’s cab. How is the crane reset for use after the safe stop buttons
have been operated?
5. 2
1. Reset from the emergency switch board.
2. By replacing the fuses in crane circuit breaker.
3. Reset by ship’s staff in the main power house of the crane.
4. By switching off the crane circuit breaker and switching on again.
Which limit switch is activated when the crane operator pays more wire rope, while lowering and the
wire gets slack?
6. 1. Minimum radius limit switch for luffing. 2

2. Maximum radius limit switch for luffing.
3. Slack wire limit switch
4. Lower limit switch of jib for luffing.
7. Jib of a deck crane is limited to certain angle of inclination. The movement of the jib above this limit 2
is prevented by luffing limit switch. What happens when this limit switch is activated?
1. The load on the hook is released.

2. Crane boom reverts to parking position.
4. Cuts of the power for slewing.
Answer Key
1. 180 degrees.
2. To prevent damage to the base plate fitted on the cargo hold where the hook lands.
3. To stop the cab and hoisting gear from going off the end of the arm.
To avoid winding of the wire irregularly in the drum while heaving and causing damage to the drum
4.
and supporting brackets.
5. Reset by ship’s staff in the main power house of the crane.
6. Slack wire limit switch
Which number represents the "Hub" in the illustration given below?
1. 1
1. VI
2. VIII
3. VII
4. V
2. Which number represents the "Set Screws" in the illustration given below? 1
1. XIII
2. XIV
3. XII
4. XI
3. What is the function of the item marked “XV” in the diagram given below? 1
1. Discharge outlet
2. Direction of air flow
3. Blades
1. Back plate
2. Removable access plate
3. Valve plate
4. Sprayer plate
5. Which number represents the "Welded Angle Iron Mounting Frame" in the illustration given below? 1
1. VII
2. VIII
3. VI
1. Inlet cone
2. Discharge outlet
3. Suction inlet
1. Suction inlet
2. Inlet Cone
3. Discharge outlet
8. Identify the part “XVII”. 1
1. Spacer ring
2. Discharge ring
3. House reinforcing ring
9. Which number represents the "Motor Shaft" in the illustration given below? 1
1. II
2. I
3. IV
4. III
Functions of air registers are,
10. 1. To guide and divide the air supply into primary and secondary 1
2. To adjust quantity of supply air through air check
3. Both (i) & (ii)
The word register is given to the assembly of vanes, air swirler plates etc.
11. 1
1. True
2. False

1. Suction pipe
13. Which number represents the "Direction of Air Flow" in the illustration given below? 1
1. II
2. IV
3. III
4. I
14. What is “XVIII” showing in the figure given below? 1
1. Direction of air flow

2. Fan
3. Blades
1. Blades
2. Gasket
16. Which number represents the "Housing" in the illustration given below? 1
1. VIII
2. VII
3. IX
4. VI
Secondary air supports secondary flame
17. 1
1. Away from the air register
2. Near to the air register
1. Base plate
3. Valve plate
4. Cover plate
Air register allows the primary flame to retain,
19. 1
1. Away from the quarl
2. Within the quarl
20. Which number represents the "Blade Support" in the illustration given below? 1
1. XII
2. X
3. XI
4. XIII
21. Which number represents the "Direction of Rotation" in the illustration given below? 1
1. XVII
2. XVI
3. XIV
4. XV
1. Inlet cone
2. Suction inlet
3. Discharge outlet
Answer Key
1. VII
2. XIV
3. Blades
4. Back plate
5. VIII
6. Suction inlet
7. Inlet Cone
8. House reinforcing ring
9. I
10. Both (i) & (ii)
11. True
13. IV
14. Fan
15. Gasket
16. IX
17. Away from the air register
19. Within the quarl
20. XI
21. XVI
22. Discharge outlet
What does “XIII” indicate in this figure given below?
1. 1
1. Atomizer outer barrel assembly

2. Atomizer body
3. Atomizer inner barrel assembly
4. Atomizer tailpiece
2. Which number represents the "Atomizer handle" in the illustration given below? 1
1. II
2. V
3. III
4. IV
What does “XIV” indicate in the diagram given below?
3. 1
2. Safety shut-off valve body and seat
3. Atomizer body
1. Rudder Locking Valves

2. Fuel Flow Control Valves
3. Automatic Change-Over Valves
1. Atomizer body
In the diagram given below, “II” represents __________.
6. 1
1. Top plate
2. Sprayer plate
3. Wobble plate
4. Back plate
1. Regulating tube
2. Water hopper
3. Boiler casing
4. Oil filler cap
8. 1
1. Lock nut
2. Stud nut
3. Cap nut
4. Clamp nut
9. The part “IX” indicates __________. 1

2. Spindle
3. Drain
10. 1
1. Electric Motor Driving Rotary Cup Via Belt

2. Fuel Distribution Manifold
3. Fan
4. Rotary Cup

1. Thrust ring
2. Coupling ring
3. Locking ring
4. Level ring
1. Base plate
2. Swirl plate
3. Orifice plate
4. Locking plate
Which number represents the "Burner Barrel" in the illustration given below?
13. 1
1. I
2. III
3. II
4. IV
1. Orifice plate
2. Swirl plate
3. Tube plate
4. Locking plate
What does “X” indicate in the diagram given below?
15. 1
1. Cap nut
2. Adjusting nut
3. Coupling nut
4. Locking guard
16. How the air for combustion is supplied to the boiler? 1
1. Forced draft fan supplies the air for combustion to the boiler
2. Air for combustion flows due to the natural draft of the boiler
The part “IX” indicates _____.
17. 1
1. Distance piece
3. Atomizer body
1. Cap nut
2. Coupling nut
3. Adjusting nut
4. Atomizer body
In the diagram given below, “VII” represents __________.
19. 1
1. Parallel port
2. Display port
3. Ports
20. Which number represents the "Handwheel and spindle" in the illustration given below? 1
1. XV
2. XVI
3. XIII
4. XIV
21. 1
1. Clamp screw
2. Locking screw handle
3. Stop screw
4. Lock nut
1. Oil paring chamber

2. Vortex chamber
3. Combustion chamber
4. Upper paring chamber
23. What does item “VII” refer to the illustration given below? 1
1. Thrust ring
2. ‘O’ rings
3. Coupling ring
4. Locking ring
24. 1

2. Primary Air Control Flap

2. Rotary Cup
1. Fan
2. Rotary Cup

How atomisation is achieved in a pressure jet burner?

27. 2
Why rotary cup burner does not require high pressure fuel supply for atomisation?
28. 1
1. The rotary cup rotates at a high speed
2. The nozzle rotates at a high speed
From the illustration given below, identify the name of the marking “VI”.
29. 1
2. Atomizer body
30. What does “VIII” indicate in the diagram given below? 1
1. Coupling nut
2. Cap nut
3. Adjusting nut
Which number represents the "Adjusting nut cover" in the illustration given below?
31. 1
1. IX
2. XII
3. XI
4. X
Why are roof fired boilers more advantageous than rotary type burners?
32. 2
1. Water supply
2. Oil supply
3. Boiler casing
4. Burner barrel
Which number represents the "Coil spring" in the illustration given below?
34. 1
1. III
2. II
3. V
4. IV
1. Drain
2. Oil supply
3. Steam
36. Which number represents the "Coupling yoke" in the illustration given below? 1
1. I
2. III
3. IV
4. II
Which number represents the "Locking guard" in the illustration given below?
37. 1
1. II
2. III
3. I
4. IV
1. Boiler casing
2. Burner carrier
3. Vortex chamber
Heavy soot accumulations in an auxiliary boiler could be caused by ______________.
1. Water in the fuel oil

39. 1
2. Excessive cycling
3. Improper burner maintenance.
4. High fuel oil temperature.
Which number represents the "Covering door" in the illustration given below?
40. 1
1. VII
2. VI
3. VIII
4. V
The amount of fuel oil atomized by a return flow oil burner is directly controlled by the
_____________.
41. 1. Header supply valve. 2

2. Burner root valve.
3. Fuel oil back pressure.
4. Oil micrometer valve.
What types of burner are used in a boiler?
1. Swirl oil
42. 2. Rotary cup 1
3. Pressure jet burners
4. All the above
43. What does “XII” indicate in the illustration given below? 1
1. Coil spring
2. Flanged bellows
3. Snap spring
4. Arm spring
44. What does “X” indicate in the diagram given below? 1
45. 1
1. Sprayer plate
2. Cover plate
3. Base plate
4. Port plate
46. Which number represents the "Cap nut" in the illustration given below? 1
1. V
2. VII
3. VI
4. VIII
In the diagram given below, “XV” represents __________.
47. 1
1. Steel bar
2. Pump
3. Atomizer body
4. Steam
48. Which number represents the "Steam" in the illustration given below? 1
1. X
2. XII
3. XI
4. XIII
Which number represents the "Oil" in the illustration given below?
49. 1
1. X
2. XII
3. XI
4. XIII

Answer Key

2. V
3. Safety shut-off valve body and seat
6. Sprayer plate
7. Boiler casing
8. Cap nut
9. Spindle
10. Fan
11. Locking ring
12. Orifice plate
13. III
14. Swirl plate
15. Adjusting nut
16. Forced draft fan supplies the air for combustion to the boiler
17. Distance piece
18. Coupling nut
19. Ports
20. XVI
21. Locking screw handle
22. Vortex chamber
23. ‘O’ rings
26. Rotary Cup
Atomisation of the fuel is achieved by forcing the fuel under pressure through an orifice at the end of
27. the burner. The pressure energy in the fuel is converted to velocity. Spin is given to the fuel prior to
the orifice by the swirler plate.
28. The rotary cup rotates at a high speed
29. Atomizer body
30. Cap nut
31. XI
Increased heat transfer due to increased flame length and provides more time for complete
combustion
32.
Equal length flames
Uniform gas flow

33. Oil supply
34. V
35. Oil supply
36. III
37. I
38. Burner carrier
39. Improper burner maintenance.
40. VIII
41. Fuel oil back pressure.
42. All the above

43. Flanged bellows
45. Sprayer plate
46. VI
47. Atomizer body
48. XII
49. XI
What is the approximate increase in loading of hose handling crane with respect to static load when
the swell period matches the natural roll period of the ship?
1. 1. 1.2 to 1.3 times the static load. 2

2. 1.7 to 1.9 times the static load.
State any one of the important crane criteria required in hose handling cranes:
1. Variable speed control

2. 2
2. Provision for emergency power supply.
3. Explosion-proof.
4. Pressure switches for luffing, slewing and hoisting.
The hose-handling crane, working in hazardous areas is driven by an explosion-proof electric motor.
Where is the starter located for this motor?
3. 1. In ECR. 1
2. In CCR.
3. Safe area
4. Navigation bridge
The hose-handling crane is designed for working in hazardous areas. What is the required type of
electric motor for this crane?
4. 1. Separately excited DC shunt motor. 1

2. Three phase induction motor.
3. Explosion-proof electric motor.
4. Single phase synchronous motor.
Hose-handling cranes are designed to fulfil OCIMF recommendations. What is the range of operating
temperature for this cranes?
5. 1. From +45°C to +5°C 1

2. From +45°C to -15°C
3. From +45°C to the lowest ambient working temperature for worldwide trading
4. From +45°C to -25°C
Answer Key

2. Explosion-proof.
3. Safe area
4. Explosion-proof electric motor.
5. From +45°C to the lowest ambient working temperature for worldwide trading
With reference to the Steam generation plant, Identify what is the type of energy conversion takes
place in the Turbine ?
1. 1
1. Conversion of chemical energy in fuel to thermal energy takes place in the firebox of the boiler
2. Conversion of thermal energy of steam to mechanical energy takes place in turbines
3. conversion of potential energy to kinetic energy
4. Fluid energy to light and heat energy
2. Identify the part marked as “ E“ in the illustration below? 1
1. Cooling tank
2. Deaerating feed tank
3. Pressure vessel
4. Hydrophore tank
3. With reference to the Steam generation plant, What is the type of energy conversion takes place in 1
the fire box?
3. conversion of potential energy to kinetic energy
4. Fluid energy to light and heat energy
Answer Key

2. Deaerating feed tank
Which one is more efficient between water tube and smoke tube boiler?
1. smoke tube boiler is bulky and requires more floor area

1. 2. water tube is more efficient in load fluctuation, requires less space for given output 1
3. less skilled worker required to handle smoke tube boiler than water tube
4. smoke tube is simple in design easy to erect and less maintenance
In general, diesel engine waste heat boiler construction is usually of the _________.
1. Cyclone furnace boiler type

2. 2
2. Dry back boiler type
3. Water-tube type
4. Critical circulation boiler type.
With reference to the illustration, what is a smoke tube boiler?
3. 1
1. Flue gases pass from left to right.

2. Flue gases flow over the tubes and water flows through the tubes
3. Flue gases flow through the tubes and water flows over the tubes
4. Flue gases pass from the right to left
4. With reference to the illustration below, Identify the smoke tube boiler? 1
A) B)

1. A
2. A and B
3. B
5. With reference to the illustration below, Identify the water tube boiler? 1
A) B)

1. A and B
2. B
3. A
The rate of heat transfer in a water-tube auxiliary boiler can be increased by __________.
1. Operating the boiler at less than normal water level.

6. 2
2. treating the boiler water with chemical oxygen scavengers.
3. Installing fins on the firesides of water-tubes.
4. Increasing the amount of excess air to the burners.
7. In dual evaporation boiler the secondary drum pressure is: 1

1. Equal to primary drum pressure.

2. More than primary drum pressure.
3. Less than primary drum pressure.
4. Half of the primary drum pressure.
What is the hydro test pressure for low pressure boiler?
1. 10 bar.
8. 2
2. 20 bar.
3. 1.5 x MAWP (Maximum allowable working pressure).
4. 30 bar.
In a water tube boiler ,
9. 1
2. Flue gases pass from left to right.
4. Flue gases pass from the right to left
Answer Key
1. water tube is more efficient in load fluctuation, requires less space for given output
2. Water-tube type
4. B
5. A
6. Installing fins on the firesides of water-tubes.
7. Less than primary drum pressure.
8. 1.5 x MAWP (Maximum allowable working pressure).
What is the type of boiler as per the illustration below:
1. 1
1. Cochron boiler
2. Composite boiler
3. Water tube boiler
4. Smoke tube boiler
2. From the illustration below, Identify the marking of Part - Soot blower? 1
1. B
2. N
3. L
4. C
Which part of the boiler allows for the boiler expansion and movement at the platform?
3. 1
1. Header
2. Double casing
3. Sliding feet
4. Side water wall
4. How is the header tube “G” constructed? 1
1. Headers are shrink fit steel tubes

2. Headers are casted steel
3. The headers are solid forged steel with welded ends
4. Headers are solid drawn tube
How is the water circulated between water and steam drums in a water tube D-type boiler?
1. By the boiler feed water pump.

5. 2
2. By a circulating pump outside the boiler.
3. Due to difference in densities of water and steam.
4. Pressure difference.
Which of the following statements about the design of D- type boilers, is false?
1. The heavier water in top drum flows back to the bottom drum through the downcomers
6. outside the furnace 2
2. Risers are placed in the main flow of hot flue gases.
3. The safety valve is fitted in the water drum.
4. The upper drum is the steam/water drum and the lower one is the water drum
What are down comer tubes with reference to the illustration below?
7. 2
1. Consists of numerous small diameter tubes placed in the main flow of hot gases to form a
large heat exchange surface
2. Form the furnace boundry collecting heat from furnace
3. Downcomer tubes are a large diameter unheated tubes placed outside the gas stream. Water
from the steam drum runs down to the water drum and headers, through these tubes
4. Consists of small diameter tubes placed in the main gas stream
8. What is super-heated steam ? 1
1. When the steam is produced from the boiler uptake is called superheated steam
2. When the water is heated above boiling point
3. When saturated steam is heated above boiling point, dry steam is created, void of any
moisture
4. When the steam is passed through attemperator, we get superheated steam
From the below illustration, Identify the marking of Part - Economizer section?
9. 1
1. L
2. B
3. A
4. M
10. What are generating tubes with reference to the illustration below? 2
2. Consists of small diameter tubes placed in the main gas stream
11. What is the other function of the air cooled attemperator? 1
1. To cool the saturated steam to produce condensate
2. To cool the furnace to maintain the steam generation

3. To heat the forced air supply and the Heated combustion air passes through the air registers
into the furnace where combustion takes place.
4. To increase the super heat temperature
From the below illustration, Identify and name the part marked as letter “G“ ?
12. 1
1. Sliding feet
2. Side water wall
3. Header
4. Double casing.
Steam drum is used for :-
1. Collecting steam
13. 1
2. Collecting water
3. As a phase separator for mixed steam/water.
4. Collecting of precipitated salts of water.
Refractory damage in boiler furnace onboard is caused due to:
1. Presence of fuel in the boiler before startup.

14. 2. Fluctuating temperatures inside boiler furnace. 2
3. The material selected does not match the fuel being burned (i.e., the amount of alkali, sulfur,
hydrocarbons, vanadium, or moisture present in the fuel)
4. Improper boiler water treatment.
15. What are screen tubes with reference to the illustration below? 2
3. These are placed adjacent to the furnace and receive heat from the flames together with the
heat from the hot gases
16. From the illustration below, Identify and name the part marked as letter “J“ ? 1
1. Water tube
2. Water drum
3. Top Header for rear water wall.
4. Hand hole
From the below illustration, Identify the marking of Part - Superheater section?
17. 1
1. A
2. L
3. B
4. M
In a D- type water tube boiler, the saturated steam is heated to superheated temperature in the
________
18. 1. Primary steam drum. 1

2. Risers.
3. Super heater
4. Secondary steam drum.
19. With ref to the illustration below, what is the function of the super heater (Part “B”) ? 1
1. to cool the steam produced

2. to cool the Attemperator
3. to superheat the saturated steam by absorbing heat from the boiler uptake.
4. to Increase the exhaust temperature
20. From the illustration below, identify the equipment used to control the superheated 1
steam Temperature?
1. Economiser tubes
2. Super heater steam tubes
3. Air cooled Attemperator

4. Furnace tubes
Economisers are built up with:
1. Copper tubes
21. 2
2. Plain steel tubes
3. Carbon steel tubes.
4. Steel tubes fitted with shrunk on C.I. grills.
Answer Key

2. L
3. Sliding feet
4. The headers are solid forged steel with welded ends
5. Due to difference in densities of water and steam.
6. The safety valve is fitted in the water drum.
Downcomer tubes are a large diameter unheated tubes placed outside the gas stream. Water from
7.
the steam drum runs down to the water drum and headers, through these tubes
8. When saturated steam is heated above boiling point, dry steam is created, void of any moisture
9. A
Consists of numerous small diameter tubes placed in the main flow of hot gases to form a large heat
10.
exchange surface
To heat the forced air supply and the Heated combustion air passes through the air registers into the
11.
furnace where combustion takes place.
12. Header
13. As a phase separator for mixed steam/water.
The material selected does not match the fuel being burned (i.e., the amount of alkali, sulfur,
14.
hydrocarbons, vanadium, or moisture present in the fuel)
These are placed adjacent to the furnace and receive heat from the flames together with the heat
15.
from the hot gases
16. Top Header for rear water wall.
17. B
18. Super heater
19. to superheat the saturated steam by absorbing heat from the boiler uptake.
20. Air cooled Attemperator
21. Carbon steel tubes.
Which of the listed problems will happen when the water level of a fire-tube type auxiliary boiler
approaches the crown sheet?
1. 1. Excess steam will be generated. 2

2. The furnace will explode.
3. The fusible plug will melt.
4. The furnace will overheat.
The fusible plugs used in fire-tube auxiliary boilers are installed in the __________.
1. Furnace
2. 1
2. Corbell header
3. Crown sheet.
4. Stay tube.
With reference to the illustration below, What is a shell plate?
3. 1
1. is an outer plating of the boiler

2. provide support to the front and back plating of the boiler
3. is used to provide additional strength, higher endurance and longitudinal flexibility
4. are fitted at both end of the tubes to hold the tubes in position and are exposed to the boiler
pressure
When will you carry out the economiser soot blowing?
1. As per makers recommendation

4. 2. once every watch 1
3. once every 48hrs
4. once a week
5. A distorted furnace in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler may be the result of __________. 2
1. Firing for extended periods in the low fire mode.

2. carrying excessive alkalinity in the boiler water.
3. Overheating, due to waterside deposits.
4. Varying the water level above the crown sheet.
With reference to the illustration below, What is a furnace?
6. 1
1. is a outer plating of the boiler

2. enclosed space provided for fuel combustion
3. is used to provide additional strength, higher endurance and longitudinal flexibility
4. are fitted to hold the tubes in position
7. With reference to the illustration below, identify the part marked as "B"? 1
1. Tube plates
2. Fire tubes
3. Combustion chamber stay
4. Shell plate
What is the type of the boiler with reference to the illustration below?
8. 1
1. Fire tube boiler

2. Exhaust gas boiler
3. Composite boiler
Which of the following statements concerning fire-tube boilers is correct?
1. Water flows through the tubes.

9. 2
2. Combustion occurs in the tubes.
3. Combustion(flue) gases flow through the tubes.
4. Flames impinge on the tubes.
10. With reference to the illustration below, identify the part marked as “A”? 1
1. Steam space stay

2. Tubes
3. Rod fitted with nut
4. Tube supporter
Answer Key
1. The fusible plug will melt.

2. Crown sheet.
3. is an outer plating of the boiler
4. As per makers recommendation
5. Overheating, due to waterside deposits.
6. enclosed space provided for fuel combustion
7. Tube plates
8. Fire tube boiler
9. Combustion(flue) gases flow through the tubes.
10. Steam space stay
Which number represents the "Valve seat" in the illustration given below?
1. 1
1. VII
2. VI
3. V
4. VIII
What is accumulation test?
2. 1
1. It is carried out to test the strength of the steam drum
2. It is carried out to test the capacity of the safety valve
3. Which number represents the "Drain" in the illustration given below? 1
1. III
2. II
3. V
4. I
With reference to safety valve in an auxiliary boiler and exhaust gas economiser explain the
following:
a. The reasons for special design features of safety valve.
4. b. How safety valves are machined without altering their characteristics? 5
c. What governs the maximum pressure at which a safety valve should lift?
d. The importance of working clearances.
What is the function of a blowdown ring in a safety valve?
5. 1
1. It determines the pressure drop after the release of excess pressure
2. It allows the safety valve to be lifted when required
a. Sketch an auxiliary boiler blowdown system.

b. Describe the sequence of blowdown procedure.
6. 5
c. Explain how it differs from its ship side counterpart.
7. Which number represents the "Spring" in the illustration given below? 1
1. V
2. VIII
3. VII
4. VI
1. Steam to exhaust
2. Steam port
3. Steam from boiler
What is the part marked as” A” from the illustration below?
9. 1
1. Compression lever
2. Spring holder lift stopper
3. Easing lever.
4. Compression lever
1. Bottom/Lower spring carrier (Waste steam piston)

2. Steam port
3. Loose ring (Waste steam cylinder)
4. Valve lid
It is desirable for an auxiliary boiler safety valve to pop open and reseat quickly to:-
1. Give warning that excessive boiler pressure has been reached

11. 2
2. Prevent valve pounding
3. Prevent wire drawing of the disc and seat
4. Provide sufficient blow down.
12. Which number represents the "Valve lid" in the illustration given below? 1
1. III
2. II
3. V
4. IV
Sketch and describe an auxiliary boiler safety valve.

13. 5
14. What does “X” indicate in the diagram given below? 1
1. Steam to exhaust
2. Steam port

2. Spindle
3. Steam to exhaust
4. Steam port
a. Why are safety valves provided?

16. b. What do you mean by set limit? 2
What is the name of the boiler mounting as shown in the illustration below?
17. 1
1. Water gauge glass

2. Spring loaded relief valve.
3. Boiler safety valve
4. Spring operated valve
18. What does item “VII” refer to the illustration given below? 1
1. Spindle
2. Valve lid
19. What is the part marked as “D“ of the safety valve in the illustration below ? 1
1. Valve disc and holder

2. Lift stopper
3. Valve seat
4. Valve lifter
20. What is the function of the part “A”? 1
1. To avoid air (oxygen) entering into the boiler

2. To hold the pressure of the boiler to increase steam pressure
3. To release the boiler excess pressure by manual easing up
4. To avoid water entering into the boiler
A safety valve with a 5 cms diameter disk has a compressed spring applying 1090 Kgs of force to
the top of the valve disk in opposition to system pressure. Which one of the following is the
approximate system pressure at which the safety valve will open?
21. 1. 6.6 bar 1

2. 13.2 bar
3. 26.3 bar
4. 52.6 bar
1. Steam drain
2. Steam port
3. Spindle
23. What is the part marked as “C“ of the safety valve in the illustration below? 1
1. Valve spindle
2. Valve lifter
3. Valve disc and holder.
4. Valve seat
24. What is the function of the safety valve ? 1
1. To open the steam from the boiler to the manifold

2. To open the water to the atmosphere
3. To release excess pressure in the boiler to atmosphere
Answer Key
1. VI
2. It is carried out to test the capacity of the safety valve
3. III
4. a.
With reference to safety valve in an auxiliary boiler and exhaust gas
economiser, explain
the reasons for special design features of safety valve.
Safety valves are designed to relieve excess boiler pressure. Since boiler is a fired pressure
vessel,
the excess steam should be released in shortest possible time. The design features
that are important
are as follows:
The safety valve should achieve a lift equal to design lift of the valve.
A safety valve should be capable of sufficient lift, so that the escape area around the
valve disc
equals the safety valve bore area.
Thus, escape area = ∏d x lift = bore area = ∏d2 /4

Hence, lift should equal d/4, where d is the diameter of the bore.
This should be the lift of the valve to ensure that the boiler is fully relieved.
The valve should allow swift blow of waste steam without jamming and without
interfering in
valve action.
After blowdown is completed, the safety valve should reseat snugly.
Springs of the valve should withstand sufficient heat and steam pressure without
distortion.
The valve should be able to lift off its seat by an easing gear in case of emergency.
Unnecessary tampering with the set value should be prevented.
b.
economiser, explain
how safety valves are machined without altering their
characteristics.
Important Clearances
After grinding in or machining, remove the ridge formed on either the valve or seat
face.
Dimensions A and B should be maintained.
Faces naturally broaden with grinding. After grinding a cut will probably have to be
taken of C
to ensure that the opening is the required amount.
If the faces have broadened, a cut will have to be taken off surfaces D and E.
Winged valves should have a minimum clearance of 0.8 mm (DOT)
c.
economiser, explain
what governs the maximum pressure at which a safety
valve should lift.
Safety valves should operate (set pressure) at a set pressure not exceeding 3% above the
maximum
design pressure of the boiler. If the boiler is derated then safety valves are set
to operate at not more
than 3% of new derated design working pressure.
d.
economiser, explain
the importance of working clearances.
Working clearances in a safety valve is important for correct functioning of the safety valve.
If
adequate clearances are not maintained, then it will lead to failure of valve. It is
imperative that the
makers’ specified lip clearances and seating widths are maintained.
Apart from maintaining the makers’ specified clearances, all working parts should be in
alignment and
freely operable. A bent valve spindles are frequent cause for safety valves
being sluggish in
operation.
If the compression nuts are hard down when the valves are at blow off pressure the
circumstances
should be investigated. The renewals, either of springs or valves and seats,
are necessary to make
the compression nuts operative again.
5. It determines the pressure drop after the release of excess pressure
6. a.
Sketch an auxiliary boiler blowdown system.
Blowdown valves and blowing down operation:

The bottom blowdown valve is connected to the lowest part of the boiler. It is used during
periodic fl
ash blowdown operation for removing accumulated deposits from the boiler
drums. As a result, the
density, alkalinity and chloride level of boiler water are kept under
control. This valve should be fluid
tight at all pressures and parallel slide valve is so
designed to ensure it. The parallel slide blowdown
valve is is fitted with two parallel discs,
so that they slide between parallel seat faces. A light spring
holds the discs against the
seats when the valve is not under pressure.
When the valve is closed and is under pressure, the disc at the outlet side is held in contact
with its
seat by the pressure. On opening the discs, they slide over the seat faces until they
are completely
clear of the bore of the seat. This gives an unobstructed passage through
the valve causing a
minimum drop in pressure. The sliding action, in opening and closing,
removes any grit or sediment
from the seat faces, which might otherwise build up and
cause leakage past the seat faces.
The surface blow off valve, located at the top of the boiler is used to blow light weight
impurities from
the water line. The valve is connected to a scum pan or a slotted pipe,
which is fitted inside the boiler
shell or drums and placed at the normal water level. The
surface blow valve should be used wherever
foam or oil is noted in the gauge glass. These
valves should never be left unattended when they are
in use. They should not be blown
down more than one half of a gauge glass to the desired half-glass
level.
Blowdown Arrangement
A blowdown piping system will have a ship side blowdown cock or valve, which would
discharge the
boiler effluent overboard. This blowdown cock is connected to the bottom
blowdown valve via a
nonreturn valve. The nonreturn valve prevents any back fl ow either
from other discharging boilers or
from the sea (in case of vacuum formation in the boiler
and skin cock left open).
b.
Describe the sequence of blowdown procedure.
Blowing Down Procedure (for 10 bar working pressure)
The procedure for blowing down boiler are:
Take the boiler out of service.

Allow pressure to fall to 4 bar.
Open ship side cock.
Open scum valve and scum boiler before blowing down and then close scum valve.
Open blowdown valve and continue to blowdown.
Stop blowdown when noise level falls, pressure is low and the pipe next to the
blowdown cock
is cold. Close the bottom blowdown valve.
Close the ship side cock.
Wait until the boiler pressure is near atmospheric pressure and open the air vent to
prevent
vacuum formation inside the boiler.
To avoid undue rise in pressure on the blowdown line, which is very liable to corrosion, open
ship side
cock first and close it last.
Blowing down to reduce density and sludge is carried out regularly. These lasts only for a
few seconds
and can be carried out when the boiler is running on load.
It is important to note the water level. Always reduce the boiler load as much as possible
and
increase the water level in the gauge glass before carrying out a short blowdown.
The ship side valve has a special guard fitted so that its operating spanner cannot be
removed when
the cock is in operation and the spanner can only be removed when the cock
is fully shut. This
arrangement prohibits the possibility of the cock remaining open after
the blowing down operation is
over. The spanner is kept fixed to a hook on the adjacent
bulkhead frame next to the cock ready for
use. If the vessel is in port, check that ship
side is clear in way of the outlet from the blowdown line.
Inform the deck department that
blowing is to be carried out.
c.
Explain how it differs from its ship side counterpart.
7. VIII
8. Steam from boiler
9. Easing lever.
11. Prevent wire drawing of the disc and seat
12. V
13. The function of a safety valve is to prevent excessive pressure from building up in a steam
boiler. It
prevents boiler pressure from rising above a certain predetermined pressure
by opening to allow
excess steam to escape into the atmosphere when that point is reached,
thus guarding the boiler
against possible explosion.
Cockburn’s high lift and improved high lift valves are commonly used today
In the case of the ‘Cockburn’ high-lift and improved high lift valves, a further additional lift is
obtained
through the pressure in the waste steam space acting on a piston connected to the
valve spindle.
Thus the waste steam energy is utilised to assist the valve lift.
The waste-steam pressure acts on area ‘A’ of the piston member, moving vertically in a loose
or
floating ring held by the pressure on the annular area D.
A split compression ring is fitted to fill the gap between the collar of the adjusting nut and
top of the
cover push This prevents any alteration of setting and to further safeguard the
adjustment, a cap is
fitted over the spindle. Through slots in the cap and spindle a cotter is
pad-locked in place. Adequate
clearances must be maintained at the cotter, above the top of
the valve lid and t the top of the
spindle so that the valve can open freely.
The spindle itself is adequately guided by a potted guide-plate fitted in a recess at the top of
valve
chest. This recess and the valve-seating holes are machined on the same centre line.
The guide plate
is ported to allow the passage of waste steam to the underside of the piston
member on the valve
spindle.
All direct spring-loaded valves make use of a lip on the periphery of the valve lid for the
purpose of
giving them additional uplift once they are raised from their seats by steam
pressure. This additional
uplift helps to counteract the increase in spring load as spring is
compressed by the valve lifting.
The valve lid will lift off its seat when the upward force (P x A) overcomes the spring force.
The lift of
valve is further increased as the steam acts on the shaped lips on the seat and valve
lid.
Shape and size of the valve lid or disc causes:

The shape of the valve disc provides a reaction against the escaping steam-fl ow, which
opposes the
spring-force.
Once the valve lifts there is an increased valve area exposed to the steam pressure and flow.
This
also opposes the spring force
Valve seats are fitted in the casing with interference fit. They are held down by square headed
set
bolts and the bolts are secured intact by wire.
Floating Piston
The pressure of the waste steam acting against the floating piston (called the bottom
spring carrier in
the sketch) provides an additional force opposing the spring force as only
atmospheric pressure exists
above this piston.
The easing gear associated with this type of valve is also compulsory. This helps in lifting
the valve by
hand, when in emergency, from either a remote or local position. The forks on
the easing gear shaft fi
t under a collar on the cap. Turning the shaft lifts the cap until the
cotter lifts the valve spindle and
the valve against the spring compression to relieve the boiler
pressure.


14. Steam to exhaust
15. Spindle
Safety valves are provided to release the pressure in the steam drum if it increases above the set
limit.
16.
The safety valve is set at a pressure not exceeding 3% of the approved boiler working pressure. If the
boiler steam pressure increases above this pressure, it will lift and release the excess pressure.
17. Boiler safety valve
19. Valve seat
20. To release the boiler excess pressure by manual easing up
21. 52.6 bar
22. Steam port
23. Valve disc and holder.
24. To release excess pressure in the boiler to atmosphere
What does figure “VI” represent?
1. 1
1. Blowdown Dip Pipe

2. Pressure Gauge Pipe
3. Liquid CO2 through syphon tube
2. Which number represents the "Valve" in the illustration given below? 1
1. VII
2. VI
3. VIII
4. V
Identify “VII” in the figure given below.
3. 1
1. Safety Valve
2. Scum Blowdown Valve
3. Main Feed Valve
4. Air Purge Valve

2. Air Purge Valve
3. Main Feed Valve
What does item “IV” refer to the illustration given below?
5. 1
1. Main Feed Valve

2. Safety Valve
3. Air Purge Valve
4. Stop Valve
a. List various mountings normally found on an auxiliary boiler generating low pressure steam.
6. Briefly explain their location and purpose. b. What do you understand by boiler mountings? 3
Bottom blow valves are provided on auxiliary water-tube boilers to __________.
1. Remove floating impurities from the oiler water surface.

7. 2
2. Prevent hardened scale deposits in the water drum.
3. Remove suspended and precipitated solids from the boiler water
4. Completely drain the boiler in an emergency situation.

9. In the below diagram, “X” represents __________. 1
1. Safety Valve
2. Stop Valve
3. Bottom Blowdown Valve
4. Main Feed Valve
10. 1
1. Pressure Gauge
2. Water Level Gauges
Name three important boiler mountings.
1. feed check valve, pressure gauge, drain valve

11. 2. manhole door, gauge glass, check valve 1
3. safety valves, vent valve, main steam stop valve
4. sampling valve, cock for remote controller, chemical feed valve
1. Main Feed valve

3. Air Purge Valve
4. Safety Valve

3. Safety Valve
4. Air Purge Valve
Answer Key

2. VIII
3. Safety Valve
4. Main Feed Valve
5. Air Purge Valve
a.
List various mountings normally found on an auxiliary boiler generating low
pressure
steam. Briefly explain their location and purpose.
Scotch boiler is a low pressure auxiliary boiler. Its mountings are explained as follows:
Water level gauge:
The water cock orifice for water gauge glass fitting is at least 5 inches above the top of
combustion
chambers. Two gauge glasses are fitted to determine the water level.
Feed check valve:

The feed check valve is a gunmetal, right angle nonreturn globe valve, the chest spigotted
into the
boiler end plate. It prevents the water flowing back from the steam drum. It
isolates the feed water
system from the boiler when required.
Blowdown valve:
The blowdown valve at the bottom of the boiler is used for emptying the boiler and
removing
sediments at the bottom of the boiler. This valve is either a nonreturn valve or a
cock. When the
boiler is blown down at sea, the nonreturn valve prevents back flow of cold
water into the boiler.
Scum valve:
This valve (cock) with the pipe is provided to remove any scum floating on the water level.
Stop
valve:
Main steam outlet is usually fitted with a dry pipe to reduce moisture carry over in the main
steam supply.
6.
Whistle steam valve:
Steam from this valve goes directly to the whistle from the boiler. If steam steering gear is
fitted in
the ship, then one steam line has to be provided from boiler directly to the steering
gear.
Safety valve:
It is used to relieve excess boiler pressure. It is improved high lift type and fitted with
easing gear,
which is used in emergency. Drain lines are provided without any cock or valve
to drain all condensed
water, or accumulated water in the safety valve chest.Ensure that the
drain is always clear.
Manhole and door:

Manhole is provided for access into the boiler for cleaning and inspection. One manhole
is provided in
the shell near the top of boiler and two manholes in the front end near the
bottom between and
below the furnace.
b.
What do you understand by boiler mountings?
Various valves and fi ttings are required for safe and proper working of a boiler. Those valves
and fi
ttings, which are attached directly to the pressure parts of a boiler are referred to as
‘boiler
mountings’.
These mountings should be carefully designed to perform their function correctlyproperly
positioned
to be accessible for operation and maintenance
7. Remove suspended and precipitated solids from the boiler water
9. Stop Valve
10. Water Level Gauges
11. safety valves, vent valve, main steam stop valve

What are the materials used in manufacturing main steam stop valve?
1. 1
1. The valve body is made of cast steel; valve and valve seat are made of monel metal
2. The valve body is made of cast iron; valve and valve body are made of brass
Steam stop valve is eased of its seat during boiler start up from cold:
1. To prevent thermal expansion of parts.

2. 2
2. To prevent steam flow during start up.
3. To prevent water hammer.
4. To minimize excess consumption of water.
Answer Key
1. The valve body is made of cast steel; valve and valve seat are made of monel metal
2. To prevent water hammer.
Why are two feed water valves fitted in some boilers?

1. 2
Answer Key
One valve is a shut off valve and the other valve is a non return valve.The feed water valves are
1. normally kept open. The non return valve prevents water from the boiler returning back to the feed
system when the pressure is less.
When the water level gauge glass is blowndown?
1. 1
1. Once in a month
2. Every day
Which number represents the "Guard" in the illustration given below?
2. 1
1. II
2. III
3. I
4. IV
What will you do if you find that the water levels in the gauge glasses are different?
3. 2
1. Steam Cock
2. Drain Cock
3. Water Cock
a. With reference to an auxiliary boiler gauge glass, explain the regulations concerning water level
indicators.
b. With reference to an auxiliary boiler gauge glass, describe with the aid of a sketch a conventional
gauge glass.
c.What is the safety arrangement provided in the event of a gauge glass failure?
5. 5
d. Why drain pipe of a gauge glass never be connected to a common drain?
e. What are the difficulties in ascertaining correct water level?
f. With reference to an auxiliary boiler gauge glass, describe with the aid of a sketch a conventional
gauge glass.
1. Locking ring
2. Packing ring
3. Discharge ring
4. Level ring
1. Steam Cock
2. Water Cock
3. Drain Cock
In which boiler, the water level gauges are fitted with glass tubes?
8. 1
1. Low pressuer boiler
2. High pressure boiler
1. Regulating tube
2. Fire tubes
3. Glass tube
4. Distance tube
Describe the step by step procedure carried out whilst inspection of a boiler.
10. 4
What is accumulation test in a boiler?
11. 2
1. Safety Valve
2. Water Shut Off Ball Valve
3. Stop Valve
4. Valve Lid
1. Lock nut
2. Plugs
3. Stud nut
4. Cap nut
Why a ball valve is provided at the water side of the gauge glass?
14. 2
1. Drain Cock
2. Water Cock
3. Steam Cock
Answer Key
1. Every day
2. III
Blowdown the gauge glasses to clear the steam and water passages. Then, I will check the water
3.
level.
4. Water Cock
5. a.
With reference to an auxiliary boiler gauge glass, what are the regulations
concerning
water level indicators?
Regulations concerning water level indicators:
Boiler should be fitted with at least two water level indicators; one is glass gauge, while
the
other can be an additional glass gauge or an approved equivalent device. A set of
at least two
test cocks is accepted as the approved equivalent device for boilers with
design pressure less
than 8 bar or an internal diameter less than 1.83m.
Steam and water drum exceeding 4m in length is fitted arthwardships,two gauge
glasses are to
be fitted in suitable position one near each end of the drum.
The water level gauges should be readily accessible and placed so that the water level
is clearly
visible.
The lowest visible part of the water level gauge and lowest test cock (if fitted), are to
be
positioned at the lowest safe working water level.
The cocks of all gauges are to be accessible from positions free from danger if the glass
breaks.
Fired boiler should be fitted with a system of water level detection. This should be
independent
from other mountings. It should be able to operate audible and visible
alarms and shut off
automatically the oil supply to the burners when the water level
falls to a predetermined low
level.
Water tube boilers should be fi tted with two system of water level detection. It should
be
independent from other mountings on the boiler. Both systems should be able to
operate
audible and visible alarms and automatic shut off device
b.
With reference to an auxiliary boiler gauge glass, with the aid of a sketches,
describe
aconventional gauge glass.
Tubular water level indicator:
There are two of them fitted on each side of the boiler shell to indicate the correct water
level inside
the boiler. The top gun metal body has the steam end cock secured to the
shell just above the normal
water level. The bottom gun metal body is fitted just below
the normal water level and contains the
water end cock. A drain cock assembly is fitted
underneath the lower gun metal housing. A
toughened gauge glass is fitted between the
upper and lower housing. It indicates the water level
when steam and water cocks are
open and the drain cock is shut. The glass is held in place and
sealed at each end by gland
nuts tightened on soft, tapered packing rings. The drain cock enables
blowing through the
glass for testing purposes. This type of water level indicator is used in boilers
with working
pressure max. of 17.5 bar
c.
What is the safety arrangement provided in the event of a gauge glass
failure?
A ball valve at the lower end of gauge is provided to shut off the water in case the glass
breaks. If
water were allowed to escape, in the event of a glass fracture, the reduction
in pressure would cause
large volume of steam to fl ash off leaking water with possible harm
to the personnel. Steam
escaping from other end is not associated with the increase in
volume and so the amount of steam
blowing out would be limited.
d.
Why drain pipe of a gauge glass never be connected to a common drain?
The drain pipe from the gauge glass should never be connected to a common drain system,
as this
makes the sound of blowing through the cock inaudible. The drain pipe is lead
directly down and
terminates just below the boiler room floor. The blowdown is issued out
from the open end by lifting a
small inspection cover on the boiler room floor.
Plate glass rectangular section guards are fitted to prevent injury in case the glass tube
breaks.
e.
What are the difficulties in ascertaining correct water level?
In case the accuracy of readings of the water level gauge is a question, blowing through the
steam
should test the gauge and water cocks in a proper sequence.
A strong blow from steam and water cocks, in turn, will clear passages and establish correct
level in
the glass.
If one gauge glass shows normal level and the other shows an abnormally lower level, the
glass
which is showing a lower level must immediately be blown through and the correct
condition should
be ascertained. If both glasses show lower level, firstly secure the fire and
then blowing through the
gauge glass should be carried out.
Generally, it is difficult to identify whether the tubular glass is full or empty. This can be
made easier
by using the principles of refraction. Place a board painted with alternate black
and white diagonal
stripes bent to the opposite angle. In the absence of such indicator, a
pencil or similar object, held at
an angle behind the glass tube wall gives the same effect.
f.
With reference to an auxiliary boiler gauge glass, state possible reasons for
wrong
indications in water level.
Choked cocks and passages due to sediment or packing

Over a period of time, it will be found that water level in a long glass would have fallen,
due to,
cooling of water in the downstream pipe, thereby increase in density
reduction in condensation of steam due to accumulation of air in upstream pipe
Partially closed cocks due to twisted cock handles or misaligned cock handles
A dirty glass that prevents visibility of water level, even if the gauge is well lighted
Choked steam cock that leads to a vacuum , as the entrapped steam condenses in the
upper
part and water level rises in the glass.
Choked water cock that leads to increase in the water level

6. Packing ring
7. Drain Cock
8. High pressure boiler
9. Glass tube
10. Inspection of water tube boiler
Entry into boiler:
The boiler needs to be emptied, and depressurised before entry. It should not be
depressurised by
lifting the safety valves and then fi lling with cold water, because the stress
induced by too rapid
cooling will damage. The following method should be adopted:
Shut off the boiler and allow it to cool (below 100oC).

Empty the boiler and close all valves. If the boiler is connected to a second boiler, check
that
the valves between them are closed.
Issue the work permit.
Isolate and check all fires by shutting off burner fuel inlets. Close feed inlets.
Let the boiler cool down until the steam pressure is in the range of 3-4 bar.
Open the blowdown line to empty the boiler drum.
When the boiler drum pressure is 2 bar, open the air vent and leave it open.Loosen nuts
and
break seal, when the steam drum pressure has reduced to atmospheric pressure.
Open the manhole doors by removing the top doors first and then the bottom doors,
after
ensuring that the contents are drained.
Ventilate thoroughly and allow the unit to cool. Do not enter the boiler, furnace or flue
until the
unit has cooled sufficiently.
Ensure all connections to drum are either blanked off, removed or valves locked in
closed
position with posted notices.
All personnel working on boiler require personal protetive equipment.
Treat the boiler as an enclosed space, ventilate and test atmosphere for oxygen
content.
Inspection of Fire
Side
Before inspection, check for scale formation at tube ends. The fireside areas that should be
examined are:
Refractory – Check for loss of refractory.

Burner and the back wall – Check the condition of the refractory around the burner and
the
back wall, as these areas suffer from high temperature cracking.
Furnace and tube plates – Check for any distortion to metal surfaces.
Furnace floor – Check the condition of the furnace floor and look for signs of oil
contamination.
Burner assembly – Check for signs of overheating at the burner assembly.
Tube ends – Check for signs of leakage and creep cracking.
Inspection of Furnace
Inspect the furnace once every 6 months. The inspection of furnace should be carried out as
follows:
Check if cracks are present in the refractory lining.

Check if soot deposits are formed on the furnace walls.
Examine the area opposite to the burner carefully. Too much soot deposits indicate that
the
burner should be adjusted.
Check whether the pin tube elements are intact and soot deposits are within normal
limits.
Inspection of Water Side

Carefully inspect the interior of boiler water side once every 6 months. Water side inspection is
important, because it has a direct effect on the longevity of boiler.
During the inspection, hard deposits, corrosion and circulation disturbances are detected at an
early
stage.
While inspecting the interior of boiler, examine all parts carefully with special attention to
deposits,
corrosion and cracks.
The problems associated with the waterside of a boiler are due to the condition of the boiler
water.
Corrosion of the interior due to low alkalinity levels, overheating of the tubes due to
oil / scale
formation and the presence of oxygen in the water can cause problems. Areas of the
waterside of
boiler that should be examined are:
Internal spaces
Bottom blowdown pipe and other internal fittings for integrity
Boiler bottom plate (furnace topfire tube boiler)Furnace walls for steam bubble pitting
Boiler plates at internal supports for mechanical grooving
Shell at the water line for oxygen pitting
Tubes for thinning or necking
Boiler tubes for pitting
Feed and scum pipes for integrity
Steam spaces for oxygen pitting
Manhole opening, joint faces, welds, corrosion for their condition
Steam space stay condition
Scale deposits
Condition of welds
Pipes for blockages
Check the welding in the boiler. A careful examination should be carried out for corrosion or
crack
formation. Special care should be taken of the water line area in the pressure vessel,
where oxygen
pitting may occur.
If deposits are found in boiler tubes, the boiler should be chemically cleaned.
Accumulation tests are carried out on safety valves during installation of a boiler. This is a
classification society requirement to test the capacity of the safety valve. The tests are carried out
11.
with steam stop valves shut and the boiler firing fully. The safety valve should be able to maintain the
accumulation of pressure within 10% of the working pressure.
12. Water Shut Off Ball Valve
13. Plugs
The lower end of the gauge glass has a ball valve. In case the gauge glass fractures, this ball shuts
off the water. When high pressure boiling water leaks, due to reduction in pressure, it will flash off
14. into large volumes of steam and injure the personnel. The steam leaking from the top will not
increase in volume. However, the steam side of some gauge glasses have restricting orifices to reduce
the quantity of steam blowing out in the event of a failure.
15. Steam Cock
Why is the boiler water gauge glass blow-down carried out?
1. to test the gauge glass water

1. 2. to clear all the dirt from the gauge glass 1
3. to replace the water from the gauge glass
4. to ascertain the correct water level of the boiler
Boiler water level control: controlling swell and shrink of boiler water is necessary for:
1. Feed water level in cascade tank.

2. 2
2. Water drum.
3. Steam drum.
4. Furnace.
Water carryover from boiler through the steam causes: ____________
1. Erosion of the steam plant machinery.

3. 2
2. Low water level inside the boiler.
3. Corrosion and water hammer.
4. Overheating of tubes.
Answer Key
1. to ascertain the correct water level of the boiler

2. Steam drum.
3. Corrosion and water hammer.
Why the steam traps are provided in the steam return line?
1. provided to allow only the condensed water through the return line
1. 2. to trap any air in the steam 1
3. to make sure the return steam quality is good
4. to make sure the return steam flow is good
Answer Key
1. provided to allow only the condensed water through the return line
a. With reference to auxiliary boiler water impurity define the effects of the different types of salts.
b. How the quantity of each is determined and controlled.
1. c.How the oxygen content of feed water may be minimised by means other than chemical feed 4
water treatment.
With reference to an auxiliary boiler feed system and chemical treatment, describe with the aid of a
2. sketch a feed system. 3
Condensate return piping should take care of:
1. Slow draining arrangement.

3. 2
2. Long lateral length.
3. Should cover less head space.
4. Reducing required power for pump.
____________ boiler feed pumps are used in modern ships: --
4. 1
2. Heleshaw pump
3. Multistage centrifugal pump
4. Single stage centrifugal pump.
What will you do when you see some traces of oil in the hot well?
1. chemical test for boiler water

2. stop the boiler
5. 1
3. stop the boiler and Check the source of oil leakage from the bunker heating coils and the heat
Exchanger
4. stop the feed pump
Why condenser is provided in the feed water circuit?
6. 1
1. To condense the return steam
2. To reduce the temperature of feed water.
a. Why should dissolved oxygen in feed water be removed?

7. b. How is the dissolved oxygen in boiler feed water system removed? 2
a. What is formation of scales?

b. What are the consequences of scale formation?
8. 2
c. How scale formations are controlled?
The purpose of observation tank in feed water system is:
1. To check water level

9. 2
2. To check water temperature
3. To check oil contamination.
4. To maintain feed water temperature.
10. What is the material chosen for boiler feed water pump casing? 1
1. Aluminum bronze
2. Improved grade cast iron.
3. Low-alloyed ductile forged steel.
4. Cast steel.
What is the function of hot well in the feed water system?
11. 1
1. It is used for deaerating the feed water.
2. It is used for storing the condensed feed water.
A major controlling factor in the location of the condensate return piping from a heating system
is/are:
12. 1. The requirement for a pump. 2

2. The requirement for short bends in piping.
3. The requirement to minimize conflict with headroom and other services.
4. Quality of pipe selected for system.
Answer Key
1. a.
With reference to auxiliary boiler water impurity define the effects of the
different types
of salts.
Classification of dissolved salts found in water
These are the carbonates of calcium, magnesium and sodium. Their presence in water
increases the
alkalinity or pH value of water.
Temporary hardness salts
These are the bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium. Hardness is the inability of water to
form
lather easily in the case of temporary hardness. The hardness is removed on heating
the water as the
bicarbonates get converted to carbonates with the liberation of
carbon dioxide.
Ca (HCO3)2 on heating --------> CaCO3 + H2O + CO2
Mg (HCO3)2 on heating --------> MgCO3 + H2O + CO2
Acidic and permanent hardness salts
These are the chlorides of calcium and magnesium and the nitrates of magnesium. The
chlorides of
magnesium and calcium when deposited split into magnesia and calcium
hydroxide and hydrochloric
acid which are corrosive. This reaction is accelerated by high
temperatures:
MgCl2 + 2H2O --------> Mg (OH)2 + 2HCl
CaCl2 + 2H2O --------> Ca (OH)2 + 2HCl
Scale forming and permanent hardness salts

These are the sulphate of calcium and magnesium. These salts deposit as hard scale and
are the
cause of overheating of the surfaces through which heat transfer takes place. This
results in
subsequent failure of the surface.
Harmless salts
These are the sulphates, chlorides and nitrates of sodium. Sodium chloride deposits at high
temperatures and at high concentration levels. Common salt is normally deposited when the
density
reaches 1225 or 225000 ppm and is chemically stable.
Sodium sulphate does not form hard scale and deposits as a soft sludge and can be kept
in
suspension by the use of coagulants. Hence these salts are harmless and can remain in
suspension in
the boiler water within reasonable limits.
Acidic corrosion due to Chlorides

Fresh water contains very small quantities of sodium chloride. Normally under boiler
temperature and
pressure conditions, this small quantity of sodium chloride is safe as it
remains in solution, does not
deposit and is chemically stable.
The problem occurs when large quantities of sodium chloride along with other salts
enter the boiler
feed through leaky condensers and priming evaporators or fresh water
generators.
Sodium chloride reacts with the magnesium sulphate (which comes along with the sodium
chloride as
part of the sea water) to form sulphate and magnesium chloride. This reaction is
accelerated at
higher temperatures.
Alkaline hardness salts

Alkaline hardness salts are the hydroxide,carbonates and bicarbonates of calcium and
magnesium.
b.
How the quantity of each is determined and controlled.
By periodic tests on boiler water, the quantity of chemical addition and salt contamination is
determined. They are controlled by frequent blow downs.
Regular blow down from boilers is essential
to:
reduce the level of dissolved solids

reduce the levels of sludge formed by the chemical treatments reacting with the
contaminants
remove any iron & copper oxides entering the boiler from the feed and condensate
systems
(These oxides are not easily detected and the procedure for testing them is
complicated and is
not suitable as a routine check)
c.
How the oxygen content of feed water may be minimised by means other
than chemical
feed water treatment.
By means of de-aerator air ingress can be removed. Therefore oxygen content from the
feed system
will be minimised.
2.
In medium-pressure water tube installations using economisers and steel feed piping, it is very
important that dissolved oxygen and carbon-dioxide is eliminated from the feed-water system,
since
these gases are corrosive when in contact with wet steel.
The condensate from the system fl ows directly from the atmospheric condenser by gravity or
an
extraction pump. The condensate is collected in the hot well.
The condensate is de-aerated and is then progressively raised in temperature by steam
heating coils.
Condensate absorbs heat . Two set of feed pumps are provided in the system.
They are main feed
Pump and auxiliary feed pump. These two feed pumps feed the boiler.
Exhaust gas economiser
circulating pumps draws feed water from boiler and supplies it to the
economiser. Main engine
exhaust gas heats the feed water and steam is generated. Steam is
fed back to the boiler via
economisers. Here auxiliary boiler acts as a steam receiver.
3. Should cover less head space.
4. Multistage centrifugal pump
5. stop the boiler and Check the source of oil leakage from the bunker heating coils and the heat Exchanger
6. To condense the return steam
Presence of oxygen in the feed water will adversely affect the metals in the system. It can give rise to
feed line corrosion with formation of corrosion products of copper and iron. It can simultaneously
7. reduce metal thickness.
The feed water is heated in the hot well for deaeration.
When feed water containing dissolved and suspended solids is evaporated in a boiler, the solids
concentrate and form scales. The scale formation depends on the constituents and the conditions of
the feed water.
8. Scale formation impedes heat transfer, restricts water flow, overheats boiler and results in failure of
boiler.
Scale formation is controlled by correct feed water treatment and regular 'blowing down' of boiler.
9. To check oil contamination.
10. Low-alloyed ductile forged steel.
11. It is used for deaerating the feed water.
12. The requirement to minimize conflict with headroom and other services.
a. With reference to an auxiliary boiler explain the four main aims of water treatment.
b. Describe tests used to ensure that chemicals are being correctly dosed
1. c. Describe other tests to ascertain the condition of the boiler water 5
d. State why regular blow down and freshening of boiler contents are important.
What is the difference between temporary hardness and permanent hardness causing salts?
2. 2
What are the dangers associated with formation of oxides of copper and iron?
3. 2
a. State why the presence of oil in boiler water is considered serious and Suggest likely sources of
oil contamination.
4. b. What will be immediate action which you will adopt? 4
c. How will you investigate the cause?
How the water level in the boiler is regulated?
5. 1
1. The regulator controls the boiler water level
2. The feed valve is opened and closed automatically.
Why are boiler water tests carried out and what tests are done?
1. phosphate, nitrate test is carried out to keep the steam quality intact.
6. 2. the alkalinity, chloride and PH tests are carried out to protect the boiler from corrosion. 1
3. the chemical test is carried out to see that the steam generation is good.
4. the chemical test is carried out for the upkeep of the boiler.
Your boiler is contaminated with oil ingress. What will be your remedial action. Describe how the
7. whole steam plant is restored to oil free conditions. 3
a. What are the tests carried out on boiler feed water?

8. b. Why should boiler water be tested? 2
High chloride of boiler water is caused by:
1. U tubes of exhaust steam condenser

9. 2
2. Excessive steam leaks in safety valve
3. Poor quality of boiler makeup water.
4. Frequent blow down operations
What is scum blow of the boiler?
1. To provide some air blow to the boiler water

10. 2. To remove the dirt from the water 1
3. To remove any floating deposits, impurities and dissolved solids from the surface of the water
4. To drain the water partially
Describe the action of the chemicals in detail which are added to the water
11. 4
12. Why do you test the boiler water and the engine cooling water? 1
1. to ascertain the condition of the boiler

2. to check the colouring of water
3. to check the quality of water in use
4. to check the steam quality
Why boiler water is treated?
13. 1
1. To prevent scale formation and corrosion in feed water system.
2. To reduce the water consumption
What is boiler blowing down?
1. To drain the water from bottom

14. 2. To blow the water with air. 1
3. To drain the water completely and replenish with fresh water
4. To add chemical in the water
At what intervals boiler water chemicals are added?
15. 1
1. Tests are carried out regularly and depending on the test results chemicals are added.
2. Periodically as prescribed by the manufacturer.
Answer Key
1. a.
With reference to an auxiliary boiler explain the four main aims of water
treatment.
Prevention of scale formation in feed and boiler systems.

Prevention of corrosion in the feed and boiler systems.
Avoidance of carry over of salts with the boiler steam.
Control of the sludge formation and the total dissolved solids in the boiler.
b.
Describe tests used to ensure that chemicals are being correctly dosed
Alkalinity test
Partial alkalinity
Test for alkalinity to phenolphthalein: Take 100 ml of boiler water. Add 10 drops of
phenolphthalein –
result: a pink colouration.
Titrate with (N/50) sulphuric acid (H2SO4) so as to clear the sample
Calculation: ml of N/50 acid used X 10 = ppm of CaCO3 equivalent
Total Alkalinity
Continue with the same sample used initially for alkalinity to phenolphthalein. Add 10 drops
of methyl
orange result: yellow colouration.
Titrate with N/50 sulphuric acid (H2SO4) until the colour becomes pink.
Calculation: ml of N/50 acid used for both test x 10 = ppm of CaCO3 equivalent for total
alkalinity.
For all practical purposes the alkalinity to phenolphthalein can be considered as caustic
alkalinity and
the residual alkalinity, i.e. total alkalinity minus alkalinity to phenolphthalein
as alkalinity to
carbonates.
Caustic alkalinity
Take 100 ml of boiler water sample and add 10 ml of Barium chloride. Add 10 drops of
phenolphthalein. Result - pink colouration.
Titrate with N/50 sulphuric acid to clear the sample.

Calculation: ml of N/50 acid used x 10 = PPM of CaCo3
Chloride Test
Continue with the same sample, add 2 ml of sulphuric acid, add 20 drops of potassium
chromate
indicator. Result – Yellow colouration.
Titrate with N/35.5 silver nitrated solution until a brown colouration results.

Calculation: ml of M/35.5 solution used x 10 = ppm of CaCO3 equivalent for chlorides.
Phosphate Test:
Take 25 ml of fi ltered sample of boiler water. Add 25 ml of Vana-do-molybdate
reagent.
Fill the comparator tube with this solution and place in the right hand compartment of the
comparator.
In the left hand compartment place a standard reference by mixing equal volumes of
Vana-do-
molybdate reagent and de-ionised water.
Allow the colour to develop for at least three minutes and compare with the disc.
Calculation: Phosphate reserve in PPM from the disc reading.
Sulphite test (reserve)

This is also a test to determine the sulphite reserve in the boiler to tackle the small
quantities of
dissolved oxygen.
Take 100 ml of boiler water sample, add 2 ml of sulphuric acid, add 1 ml of starch solution,
and
titrate with potassium iodide-iodate solution until the sample is blue in colour.
Calculation: ml of iodide-iodate solution used X 12.5 = ppm of Na2SO3 in sample.
pH value
Boiler water’s pH value can be obtained by three basic methods
Litmus papers
Colourimetrically
Electrolytically
Litmus papers
These are used to ascertain the degree of acidity or alkalinity of the water. If a litmus paper
when
inserted into a sample of boiler water it changes its colour to blue if the water is
alkaline or red if the
water is acidic
c.
Describe other tests to ascertain the condition of the boiler water
The important tests which are required to be carried out daily to monitor the condition of
the boiler
water are as follows:
For total dissolved solids
This is an important test and it indicates the density of the boiler water which is actually
the quantity
of total discovered solids per unit volume or mass of the water. The effect of
keeping high densities
results in precipitation and scale formation and hence the need to
maintain as low as density of the
boiler water as is practically possible.
Conductivity meter
A portable electrical conductivity meter is used in this test. Collect the boiler water sample
and cool it
to around 15 to 20 degrees. Add 2 drops of phenolphthalein indicator and
remove the pink
colouration with acid. The conductivity cell is washed and fi lled with treated
boiler water sample. The
fi lled cell is plugged to the meter. A central control is operated
until “null” balance of the electrical
bridge circuit is achieved. Position of the central control
indicates the total dissolved solids in micro
mhos.
For conversion in PPM, Total dissolved solids=conductivity in micro mhos x 0.7.
Hardness test
Take 100 ml of boiler water sample. Add 2 ml of ammonia buffer solution. Add 0.2 grams
of mordant
black-11 indicator and stir well. If hardness salts are present, the solution turns
wine red. Titrate with
EDTA solution until colour changes to purple and then blue.
PPM of CaCo3 = ml of EDTA solution used x10.
d.
State why regular blow down and freshening of boiler contents are
important.
Blowing down is carried out to reduce density and sludge. These lasts only for a few
seconds and can
be carried out when the boiler is running on load.
Boiler and feed water should be chemically treated
in order to avoid corrosion and
Scale formation in the boiler. By regular scum and bottom blow down the boiler is removed
of total
dissolved solids and traces of oil.
Regular blow down from boilers is essential to:
reduce the level of dissolved solids

reduce the levels of sludge formed by the chemical treatments reacting with the
contaminants
remove any iron & copper oxides entering the boiler from the feed and condensate
systems .
These oxides are not easily detected and the procedure for testing them is
complicated and is
not suitable as a routine check.
Temporary hardness causing salts are bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium and permanent
2.
hardness salts are chlorides of calcium and magnesium and nitrates of magnesium.
These deposits impede heat transfer and lead to high tube metal temperatures. In extreme cases,
3.
this may lead to failure of tubes.
4. a.
State why the presence of oil in boiler water is considered serious and
Suggest likely
sources of oil contamination.
Oil Contamination of Boiler
The most dangerous water contamination is heavy fuel oil entering the steam or condensate
from
leaking tank coils or heat exchangers.
Lubricating oils may contaminate the feed system and find their way into the system. This
could be
caused due to over lubrication of steam machinery and inefficient filtering of the
feed.
Oils such as animal and vegetable oils can decompose in the boiler liberating their fatty
acids, these
acids can cause corrosion. Hence it is advisable to use pure mineral oil for
lubrication of machine
parts where contamination of feed can result.
If the problem is not observed in time, the boiler could be completely destroyed due to
overheating of
the furnace because of reduced water fl ow and minimised heat transfer/
cooling of the boiler tubes.
It can also cause priming due to excessive ebullition.
The insulating effect of oil deposits reduces heat transfer much more than scale layer of
equal
thickness.
Oil enters the boiler via feed water, from tank or oil heating. This should be spotted at
the observation
tank, and all oil should be removed from there. Weirs and filters in the
observation tank prevent most
oil contamination reaching the boiler, but it may appear in
the gauge glass if boiler load suddenly
increases without reason.
b.
What will be immediate action which you will adopt?
First damage control action
The first action to be taken when oil leakage is suspected is to take a look in the cascade or
hot-well
tanks. If oil is found in the last compartment just before the water enters the
feed-water piping, it is
recommended to check whether a dark oily film contaminates the
boiler water level glasses inside.
If the oil is contaminated then:
Change feed to an uncontaminated supply.

Do not blow down the boiler from the bottom; just surface blow (scum) several times. If
you
bottom blow the boiler, tubes will become totally covered in oil.
The boiler should be shut down and released from pressure and the venting valve
opened.
Drain the boiler slowly until water stops flowing from the loosened, upper manhole door
before
opening up the manhole for inspection. The oil will now only cover the boiler in
the normal
water level range and can be manually removed.
Hot or cold water high-pressure jet equipment together with oil dispersive additives
would be
efficient for removal of the oil.
In case the boiler is contaminated fully with oil inside, the cleaning work should be
handed over
to a cleaning company specialised in such work. A full alkaline wash of the
inside and complete
structural inspection would be required.
c.
How will you investigate the cause?
Feed system contamination
The following checks can determime the cause:
A careful examination and hydro test of all suspected heating coils, heaters or whatever
is
leaking in the steam/condensate system. Even when one leakage is found, there
could be
several more remaining.
When it is assured that no more leakages can be found, the piping system, coils and
heaters
have to be cleaned of all the remaining oil.
The oil-fired boiler must not be started up again until an oil-free feed-water supply is
guaranteed.
Open the heating steam return line drain and put a white oil absorbing pad under the
steam
drain, if oil is there it will show on the pad.
If the boiler cannot be shutdown immediately, then:
Reduce boiler load, as oil film reduces heat transfer and overheats the surfaces.
Scum boiler frequently
All oil heating steam returns are led to the observation tank. The tank contains a series of
weirs to
prevent carry over of oil. Modern systems may be fitted with an interface detector
similar to the OWS.
The interface detector sounds an alarm and automatically changes a
3-way valve to divert the
observation tank outflow away from the feed filter tank.
5. The regulator controls the boiler water level

6. the alkalinity, chloride and PH tests are carried out to protect the boiler from corrosion.
7. Boiling-out
Boiling-out is a procedure of removing impurities such as oil from tubes and drums.
The boiling out is carried out in the following way:
The boiler is to be filled up with a solution consisting of 4 to 5 kg trinatriumphosphate

(Na3PO4) per 1000 kg of water. It is preferable to add the chemicals through the
manhole.
Then water is filled in, until the solution is visible in the water gauge.
The boiler is slowly brought on working pressure and kept at this pressure for about 6
to 8
hours with the main stop valve closed, after which fat and other impurities should
get boiled
from the interior surfaces of the boiler.
Then it is to be skimmed off (through the scum valve), however it must be seen that
before the
water level is 20 to 30 mm over the scum funnel. If the boiler is equipped
with automatic water
level control, it may be necessary to close for this unit during the
skimming.
After the boiling out the burner is switched off, and after about one quarter the bottom
blow-off
valve and the air valve at the boiler top is opened, and all the water is blown
out of the boiler.
Then the boiler is washed and brushed inside. The bottom blow-off
valve, is examined in such a
way that possible oxide scales and welding pearls which
gets collected t can be removed. (If
necessary, the bottom blow-off valve is to be
dismounted). The hand-holes in the ring header
(if provided) at the bottom of the boiler
is opened and the ring header cleaned.
When the bottom valve and hand-holes have been closed, treated, softened feed water
to be
added to a little below normal water level.
If the boiler shows a tendency to priming, it is recommended to carry out an extra
boiling out.
Besides, it is recommended to carry out another boiling out after operating
for 2 or 3 months
with subsequent inside cleaning and inspection.
Blow down
Regular blow down from boilers is essential to:
Reduce the level of dissolved solids

Reduce the levels of sludge formed by the chemical treatments reacting with the
contaminants
Remove any iron & copper oxides entering the boiler from the feed and condensate
systems
(These oxides are not easily detected and the procedure for testing for them is
complicated and
is not suitable as a routine check)
Pre-commissioning of Boilers and Feed systems
Boilers and their associated feed systems should be chemically cleaned before putting a
new plant
into service.
The process is essential to remove oil, grease and surface rust that may form during
erection, also
any mill scale from the manufacturing process and siliceous materials from
erection.
If these deposits are not removed they can cause boiler tube failures or lead to carry over
of silica &
oxide particles which may deposit on the turbine blades with a consequent loss of
efficiency.
The sequence of cleaning is as follows:-
Initial degreasing – In the boiler this consists of an alkali; boil out to remove traces
of oil,
grease & dirt. In the feed system an alkali solution is circulated through the feed
pipe work.
Acid wash – Ammoniated citric acid 3%-5% solution at about 80°C is circulated
through the
boiler for several hours to remove mill scale and surface rust. (Citric acid
is used because
although more expensive than other acids it is less aggressive than
other acids. Hence, it
reduces the chance of an aggressive attack on the metal surfaces
during cleaning).
Flushing – Carried out several times to remove traces of acid and un-dissolved solids.
Passivation – Carried out with ammoniated citric acid with a pH value of 8 to 9 with an
added
oxidising agent being circulated throughout the boiler and feed system. This is
followed by
boiling hydrazine solution.
Inspection – Includes the manual removal of any un-dissolved deposits and debris and
a
washout with a hose where there are doubts about poor circulation.
The procedures for cleaning boilers and feed systems are the same except in the case
of the
feed system where the alkali boil out is not carried out.
The boiler water is tested for alkalinity, chlorides, hardness, phosphate reserve and total dissolved
solids.
8.
The boiler water is tested to maintain the specified standard by treatment with chemicals. Feed water
treatment will prevent corrosion and formation of scales.
9. Poor quality of boiler makeup water.
10. To remove any floating deposits, impurities and dissolved solids from the surface of the water
11. Methods of treatment
Boiler water treatment is carried out by treating the boiler water with standard chemicals.
By using
these chemicals the temporary and permanent hardness salts are removed as non-
adherent sludge.
Primitive methods
Two methods that were previously adopted are soda-lime treatment and caustic soda
treatment. To
overcome the ill effects of the above treatments, phosphates when used for
conditioning boiler water
gives a balanced and straight conversion of all salts to phosphates
which can then be conditioned as
non adherent sludge.
Phosphate treatment
Phosphates will combine with the calcium in the boiler water forming tri-calcium phosphate
Ca3
(PO4)2 which will precipitate, as its solubility is low, in the form of sludge and can be
kept in
suspension by the use of coagulants. Phosphates also combine with the Magnesium
compounds to
form tri-magnesium phosphate Mg3(PO4)2 which also precipitates into sludge
and can be conditioned
by the use of coagulants.
By using phosphates instead of sodium carbonate for conditioning, high concentration of
sodium
hydroxide is avoided. This is because of the fact that in the conversion of CaCO3
present in the boiler
water, the sodium carbonate is evolved as the by-product and is used to
give the requisite alkalinity.
3CaCO3 + 2Na3PO4 --------> Ca3(PO4)2 + 3Na2CO3
3CaSO4 + 2Na3PO4 --------> Ca3(PO4)2 + 3Na2SO4
3CaCl2 + 2Na3PO4 --------> Ca3(PO4)2 + 6NaCl

3MgSO4 + 2Na3PO4 --------> Mg3(PO4)2 + 3Na2SO4
3MgCl2 + 2Na3PO4 --------> Mg3(PO4)2 + 6NaCl
3MgCO3 + 2Na3PO4 --------> Mg3(PO4)2 + 3Na2CO3
3Mg(NO3)3 + 2Na3PO4 --------> Mg3(PO4)2 + 3Na2NO3
If the case requisite alkalinity is not achieved, some quantity of NAOH is added to the boiler
water to
give the minimum required alkalinity
Treatment for dissolved oxygen
For small quantities of dissolved oxygen, the treatment adopted is the use of sodium sulphite.
Sodium
sulphite combines with the oxygen to form sodium sulphate which is a harmless salt
and remains as
sludge. It can be conditioned or kept in suspension by the use of coagulants.
However, when large
quantities of oxygen are discovered, the source of leakage of air should
be found out and the defect
rectifi ed. It would be wrong to treat large quantities of oxygen by
sodium sulphite as that would lead
to high density levels which is not desirable.
In high pressure water tube boilers working at over 60 bar hydrazine is used for the removal
of
oxygen. The reaction is as follows:
N2H4 + O2 --------> N2 +2H2O
Nitrogen being a gas does not form any salt on reaction.
12. to check the quality of water in use

13. To prevent scale formation and corrosion in feed water system.
14. To drain the water from bottom
15. Tests are carried out regularly and depending on the test results chemicals are added.
What does PH=6 of water indicate?
1. Neutral.
1. 1
2. Alkaline.
3. Acidic.
4. Fit for human consumption.
Which of the following is used in boiler treatment for oxygen scavenging:-
1. Polymer.
2. 2
2. Neutralizing amine.
3. Sodium sulphite.
4. Filming amine
Adding trisodium phosphate in boiler water will:
1. Decrease salinity
3. 2
2. Increase salinity.
3. Establish moderately alkaline conditions in the boiler to minimize corrosion and reduce scaling.
4. Produce high quality steam.
The most important control measure to prevent boiler tube failure is:
1. Use of proper refractory material.

4. 2
2. Proper maintenance of fuel burning equipment.
3. Proper maintenance of boiler water condition.
Which chemical is used to remove scales from boiler?
1. Sodium chloride.
5. 1
2. Hydrazine.
3. Tri sodium phosphate.
4. Calcium phosphate.
Excessive alkalinity of the water in an auxiliary boiler can cause __________.
1. Etching of the heat exchange surfaces.

6. 2
2. Hard scale deposits on the boiler tubes.
3. Caustic embrittlement of the boiler metal.
4. Acidic corrosion of the boiler metal.
Which chemical is added to remove oxygen from boiler water?
1. Sodium Chloride.
7. 1
3. Sodium sulphite.
4. Calcium chloride.
Answer Key
1. Acidic.
2. Sodium sulphite.
3. Establish moderately alkaline conditions in the boiler to minimize corrosion and reduce scaling.
4. Proper maintenance of boiler water condition.
6. Caustic embrittlement of the boiler metal.
7. Sodium sulphite.
Which of the following conditions would cause 'panting' in a steaming auxiliary boiler?
1. Faulty flame scanner.

1. 2
2. Flame failure.
3. Insufficient combustion air.
4. Low water level.
Which is the only gas product, allowed by gas codes, can be burnt in ship's boilers?
1. LPG
2. 1
2. Ethylene
3. LNG
4. Butane
What is the difference between service tank and settling tank?
1. Purified oil is stored in service tank whereas impure oil is stored in settling tank
3. 1
2. Service tank is larger then settling tank
3. Service tank is free from sludge but settling tank is not free from sludge
4. Engine runs with oil from service tank and not from settling tank
A diffuser is provided at the end of a mechanical atomizer in boiler onboard ______________.
1. To prevent blow back of the flame.

4. 2
2. To prevent blow out of flame.
3. To mix air and fuel properly.
4. To eject the excess fumes from the atomizer.
A smoking burner with a pulsating flame in an auxiliary boiler, is an indication that the __________.
1. Fuel oil supply temperature is normal

5. 2
2. Burner electrode is incorrectly positioned
3. Fuel/Air ratio is incorrect.
4. Ignition current is too low.
Answer Key
1. Insufficient combustion air.

2. LNG
3. Purified oil is stored in service tank whereas impure oil is stored in settling tank
4. To mix air and fuel properly.
5. Fuel/Air ratio is incorrect.
1. 1
1. Boiler
2. Windbox
3. Air preheater
4. Flue gas
Which number represents the "Stack" in the illustration given below?
2. 1
1. III
2. I
3. II
4. IV
1. Air preheater
2. Boiler
3. Windbox
4. Fuel gas
Which number represents the "Inlet vane control" in the illustration given below?
4. 1
1. IV
2. II
3. III
4. I
1. Induced draft fan

2. Forced draft fan
3. Air preheater
4. Boiler
What does “VII” stand for in the image given below?
6. 1
1. Forced draft fan

3. Air preheater
4. Inlet vane control
7. 1
1. Air
2. Boiler
3. Flue gas
4. Stack
1. Boiler
2. Windbox
3. Air preheater
4. Flue gas
9. 1
1. Air preheater
2. Boiler
3. Fuel
4. Flue gas
1. Boiler
2. Flue gas
3. Air
4. Stack
Answer Key
1. Windbox
2. I
3. Boiler
4. II
5. Forced draft fan
7. Flue gas
8. Air preheater
9. Fuel
10. Air
With reference to auxiliary boiler combustion system what are the cause of
poor combustion and
1. 5
explain the same in detail.
With reference to the automatic combustion system for an auxiliary boiler sketch and describe the
2. same using a block diagram 3
What is boiler purging?
1. to purge any toxic gas from the furnace

3. 2. it is to drive out all the ashes from the furnace 1
3. to purge if any steam is inside the furnace
4. it is to drive out flammable vapour from the furnace before firing the boiler
Excessive vibration of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler can be caused by __________.
1. Air or water in the furnace.

4. 2
2. flame failure.
3. Combustion pulses
4. Fuel oil pump failure.
How is the air fuel ratio decided for the boiler, during firing?
1. the air and fuel ratio depends upon load on the boiler
5. 2. it depends upon the steam pressure 1
3. it depends upon the quantity of water in the boiler
4. it depends upon the steam temperature
a. Define turn down ratio.

b. Explain different types of burners with particular reference to automatic combustion control and
6. combustion efficiency 5
c.What are the advantages of rotary cup burner?
With reference to auxiliary boiler combustion system what are the cause of poor combustion and
7. explain the same in detail? 2
Answer Key
1. Poor combustion will show one or a combination of the following symptoms. They are:
Smoky Flame
Fire fles or sparkler effect in the furnace
Long, lazy or uncontrollable flame pattern
Instability
Coke formation (carbon build up)
Oil spillage into the furnace
Different types of smoke:
Black smoke - not enough air

Light brown haze - ‘economic haze’ most effi cient operating condition
No smoke at all - what is normally required
White smoke - too much excess air
Using an O2 or CO2 indicator is a useful guide to adjust the air supply in the right quantities
Smoke may result from the following causes:
A burner tip has a higher capacity than the rest of the burners. This type of problem
makes it
almost impossible to adjust the common air to prevent smoke. All tips should
be marked; only
tips which are in good condition and of the same size should be used in
the same furnace.
Oil spray impinging on the diffuser throat will form carbon and produce smoke. This
condition is
usually caused by a dirty atomiser, improper position of atomiser, a
damaged diffuser, or worn
tips.
Improper position of oil tip/stabiliser in the burner throat. Too far in, causes incomplete
mixing of
the fuel and air and the flame flutters. Too far out, causes carbon formation.
Improper air mass fl ow gives rise to smoke. Too little air gives a long smoky flame that
tends to
fi ll the entire furnace and continues on into the heat absorbing furnace. Too
much air results in
a ragged flame without definite shape (tends to cool the oil droplets)
Another reason can be fluctuating air supply caused by hunting fan controls. Air fl ow
must
match fuel supply and follow the combustion curve.
Fluctuating oil pressure will lead to improper combustion.
Viscosity too high, oil is too cold or the fuel grade has changed.
Either the air register, the burner throat, or burner and swirl plate assembly are not
centred;
eccentricity by as little as 3mm can cause problems.
Inconsistent fuel, fuel that varies in constituents such as water slugs, heavy ends, light
ends can
all cause smoke, i.e. a consistent mass fl ow and fuel fl ow may not provide a
consistent heat
input. O2 trimming system can compensate and automatically correct
for small variations of 5%
in the heating value of the fuel.
Uneven air fl ow, faulty wind box distribution on a multiple burner installation will
cause some
burners to fi re fuel lean and some burners to fi re fuel rich. Even with a
single burner, if the
flame is not symmetrical or favours one side, then poor air fl ow
distribution could be the
problem. Air fl ow is 90% of the mass fl ow through a burner
with only 10% being fuel flow.
A clean tip positioned correctly will provide even fuel fl ow distribution

Fireflies / sparklers
This is where fireflies or sparklers appear in the furnace similar in appearance to the sparks
that come
off a grinding wheel when grinding steel.
These are caused by:
Wet atomisation steam (moisture in the steam)

Poor atomisation and large droplets of oil, will cause this phenomenon. If the oil
droplets are too
large, there is not enough time for complete vaporisation before
the droplet escapes from the
flame and burning continues outside of the flame. This

problem results in deposits of coke on the
furnace wall tubes.
Very high excess air which cools the oil droplets and quenches the oil droplets before
they can
vaporise and burn.
Solid particulate in the oil such as catalytic fines or ash which will not burn, glow and fall back to
the furnace floor.
Cold fuel oil.
Atomising Steam
Atomisation should always be maintained at the correct pressure and is dry or dry saturated.
Very wet
steam will cause poor atomisation and when combined with incorrect pressure will
affect the
throughput of the burner.
The above symptoms appear as streaks in the flame, with fallout of burning oil droplets
extending
beyond the main flame and show up as ‘sparklers’ consisting of unburnt fuel falling
back on the
furnace floor or adhering to the wall tubes.
If the atomising steam is too hot, the high steam temperature can crack the oil and deposit
carbon
residue at the tip causing plugging of the tip. Burner design consisting of dual parallel
tubes solves this
problem.
Low atomising pressure

Each oil burner capacity curve should indicate both the oil type to be used and the suggested
atomising steam pressure for design sizing.
Lower viscosity oils generally require lower atomising pressures than high viscosity oils. If
the grade of
fuel has changed through operating temperature or design then a revision of the
atomising steam may
be required.
Burners which use an internal mixing chamber are subject to variations in oil flow at any
pressure. A
small variation in the atomising medium pressure can significantly change the
internal pressure of the
mixing chamber.
Therefore low atomising pressure will increase net oil fl ow, increasing the BTU input, thereby
causing
the burner to be ‘over fired’ at a pressure that normally would have sufficient air. As a
result smoky
flames, ‘sparklers’ a lazy flame and carbon build up occur.
Blocked atomising steam ports

It may be caused by pipe scale, dirt, and/or oil born particles, which will cause a reduction in
atomizing
steam flow. They effectively reduce the back pressure of mixing chamber, resulting
in the same effect
as low atomizing steam pressure.
Wet steam
Since water is lower in energy than steam, atomisation with wet steam is not as effective as
with dry
steam.
This lower energy atomisation results in larger oil droplets and some oil coated water droplets
being
dispersed in the combustion zone. These droplets burn slowly and can be seen in
the furnace as
‘sparklers’ and are a major source for soot and ash build up on radiant and
convective tubes.
A second effect from wet steam that results in slower burning is the possible accumulation of
slugs of
water. It is incombustible and severely reduces stability of the burner.
High atomising steam pressure

This increases the back pressure of the mixing chamber and thereby reduces the oil flow. This
can, in
many cases cause severe stability problems. Excessively high steam atomising pressure
will tend to
uncouple the flame from the tip and cause ‘lift off’ of the flame causing instability.
Tip/Atomiser failure
The machined orifices, channels and seals of oil burners are subject to high velocity abrasive
flows and
corrosive action (depending on the type of fuel being fired).
Burner tips are subject to normal wear which is aggravated by contaminants such as carbon
particles,
catalytic fines, silica particles, all of which have a highly erosive action on metal
parts when subjected
to high pressure, high velocity metering.
Sulphur, chloride compounds and in some cases anhydrous acids will severely corrode the
atomizer
and burner tip.
The use of case hardened tip and atomiser material’s for erosive oils and stainless steel for
corrosive
oils is suggested. Occasionally tungsten is used.
Typical effects of tip and / or atomiser deterioration
are as follows:
Enlargement of the oil orifi ce – high oil flow, low atomising medium ratio, poor
atomisation and
burner over firing.
Enlargement of atomiser orifi ces – high atomising medium flow, low oil flow, reduction
in burner
capacity, reduction in low fire stability.
Enlargement of atomiser exit – lowered mixing chamber pressure, reduced atomisation
quality,
burner over firing.
z Deterioration of atomiser seal – steam by-passing atomisation chamber,
poor
atomisation, instability, unsymmetrical flame patterns, ‘sparklers’ ,etc.
Deterioration of dispersion chamber - reduction of the exit ports (nozzles) L/D,
deterioration of
the dispersion pattern (flame pattern), carbon build up, oil spills.
Enlargement of the exit ports – reduction of exit port L/D, an increase in oil fl ow for the
same
pressure
2.
Fuel Oil System for Boilers:

The figure shows the diagrammatic lay out of a semi automatic fuel oil system. It makes use
of wide
range burners operating on a variable oil supply pressure. The basic layout consists
of a ring main
supplying the individual burners by a series of dead legs. Oil is pumped into
the settling tanks, and if
any water is present it is allowed to settle down. This can then be
drained off by means of spring
loaded drain cocks.
When required for use, the high suction valve on the settling tank is opened and oil is allowed
to pass
to the cold filters fitted on the suction side of the fuel oil service pump.
Due to the high viscosity of the unheated residual oil only a coarse filter, just sufficient to prevent
damage to the pump, can be used at this stage. This consists of a positive
displacement pump
operating at a constant delivery pressure. A spring loaded relief valve
fitted on the discharge side of
the pump allows any excess oil to spill back to the suction side
of the pump in the event of over
pressure.
After leaving the pump, the oil temperature is raised in a fuel oil heater. This is done to
lower the
viscosity of the oil, making it easier to filter and finally to atomise. The correct oil
temperature is
maintained by means of a thermostat placed in the outlet of the fuel oil heater,
which controls the
supply of steam to the heater.
The hot filters fitted in the heaters are normally of an autoclean type; in some cases they are
constantly rotated by electric motors. These filters provide a fine filtration. This prevents wear
and
choking of the fine passages in the atomising tip of the fuel oil burners. The heated and
filtered oil now
passes through an automatic pneumatically operated control valve. The valve
varies the oil supply
pressure to the burners in response to the variations in the main steam
pressure transmitted to a
master pressure controller.
The combustion air controller also varies to maintain the correct ratio between the amounts of
fuel and
air supplied to the furnace.
Two emergency valves are fitted. The first is a manually operated quick shut off valve, which
enables
fuel oil to be shut off in case of emergency.
The second is a shut off valve with a steam actuator, which operates to shut off the fuel oil in
the event
of loss of water in the boiler. The oil is now ready to enter the individual dead legs
supplying oil to the
burners. An isolating valve and a safety cock, or similar device, is fitted
to each leg. To enable the oil
temperature in the system to be brought quickly up to and then
maintained at the desired operating
value, a recirculating valve is fitted, which enables oil
to be circulated through the ring main back to
the pump suction. This valve is closed as the
burners are brought into operation.
3. it is to drive out flammable vapour from the furnace before firing the boiler
4. Combustion pulses
5. the air and fuel ratio depends upon load on the boiler
6. Define turn down ratio.
Turn down ratio is the ratio of minimum to maximum flow (roughly the square root of the ratio of
maximum to minimum pressure.
Explain different types of burners with particular reference to automatic combustion control

and combustion efficiency
Six main types of burner in common use:
Pressure jet
Spill type pressure jet
Variable orifi ce pressure jet
Spinning cup
Steam assisted
Ultrasonic
Pressure jet
This is the simplest and oldest design of a burner. Atomisation of fuel is achieved by forcing the fuel
under pressure through an orifice at the end of the burner. The pressure energy of the fuel is
converted to velocity.
The advantage is that it does not require any assistance other than supplying the fuel at the
correct
pressure. For this reason it is is used as a fi rst start or emergency burner in larger
plants.
The disadvantage of this burner is its low ‘Turn Down’ ratio (in the region of 3.5). Another
disadvantage is the lack of cooling from steam or air. The burner must be removed when
not in use
from lit boilers to prevent carbonising of the tube
Spill type pressure jet

The method of atomisation is the same as for simple pressure jet type. The difference is
that a
proportion of the supplied fuel may be spilled off. This allows for increased turn down
ratio
Variable orifice pressure jet
Fuel Pressure entering the burner acts against a spring loaded piston arrangement. Increase
in
pressure causes the piston to pull a spindle away from the tip. This has the effect of
enlarging a closed
swirl chamber and uncovering ports. In this way atomisation efficiency is
maintained over a greater
fuel supply at greater pressure range
Steam assisted
Steam assisted atomisers. This can refer to both external and internal mixing of steam/fuel
although
conventionally they refer to external mix. In these no mixing of steam and fuel
occurs within the
burner itself.
Fuel is supplied to a standard pressure tip atomiser. Steam passes around the fuel passage
and leaves
through an open annulus given an angle of swirl to match the fuel spray. At low
fuel pressure the
steam, supplied at constant pressure throughout turn down, provides for
good atomisation. At higher
fuel pressure the pressure tip provides for the atomisation.
For first start arrangements compressed air may be used.
Steam atomisation
The two main types of internal mixing (the most common) are the ‘Y’ jet and the Skew jet.
Y- Jet
Here the steam and fuel are mixed into an emulsion and expanded in the holes before
emission
creating good atomisation. This design is tolerant of viscosity changes frugal on
steam consumption
and requires reduced fuel pump pressure.
Skew Jet
The main advantage of this design over the ‘Y’ jet is the reduced ‘bluff’ zone that is narrow cone of
fuel spray, due the reduced pitch diameter of the exit holes.
Spinning Cup
Fuel is introduced into the inner running surface of a highly polished fast spinning cup
(3 to 7000 rpm).
Under centrifugal force this fuel forms a thin film.
Due to the conical shape of the cup the fuel flows to
the outer edge spilling into the primary
atomising air stream. The fuel is broken into small droplets and
mixed with the primary air
supplied by a fan mounted on the shaft.
Secondary air is supplied by an external fan for larger units.
Packaged units of this design have the air fl ow valve controlled depending on the fuel
supply pressure
at the distribution manifold.
c.
What are the advantages of rotary cup burner?
The spinning cup offers the following advantages:
Wider turn down ratio with lower excess air

Low O2 levels
No requirement for atomising air or steam
Low fuel pressure requirements to an extent that gravity fl ow is sufficient
Stable flames achievable with very low fuel flows although maximum fl ow limited by size of cup.
This makes the design more suitable for smaller installations.
7. Poor combustion will show one or a combination of the following symptoms. They are:
Smoky Flame
Fire fl ies or sparkler effect in the furnace
Long, lazy or uncontrollable fl ame pattern
Instability
Coke formation (carbon build up)
Oil spillage into the furnace
Different types of smoke:
Black smoke - not enough air

Light brown haze - ‘economic haze’ most effi cient operating condition
No smoke at all - what is normally required
White smoke - too much excess air
If an air compressor is used to supply air primarily to the combustion control system and other
pneumatic controllers, the entire system is known as :--
1. 1. Ships service air system 2

2. Forced draft air system
3. Control air system
4. supply air system.
If control air system is supplied from starting air receivers, the capacity of the receivers should be
sufficient :--
2. 1. To provide for intermittent starting procedures. 2

2. to enable six consecutive starts of a reversible engine.
3. For continued operation of these systems after capacity for the required number of consecutive
starts of main engine has been used.
4. To provide a non-reversible engine a minimum of twelve consecutive starts.
______ type of air compressors are used for main air system
3. 2
1. Screw
2. Reciprocating
Air bottles are drained periodically to remove the condensed water and oil mixture
4. 2
1. True
2. False
One cause of leaky valves in a low pressure air compressor may be attributed to:
1. Running with an air filter element different from that required by the original manufacturer's
5. specifications. 1
2. Compressor running too fast.
3. Excessive operating hours without carrying out preventive maintenance.
4. Excessive discharge pressure.
Control air pressure supplies air to control air reservoir at ______ pressure
6. 1. 30 bar 2
2. 7 to 8 bar
3. 15 bar
7. 2
An air drier is provided in the control air system to remove the moisture completely
1. True
2. False
An emergency air compressor cannot be operated independent of ship’s main power system
8. 2
1. True
2. False
Main air compressor supplies air to main air reservoir at ______ pressure
9. 1. 15 bar 2
2. 7 bar
3. 25 to 30 bar
Answer Key
1. Control air system

For continued operation of these systems after capacity for the required number of consecutive starts
2.
of main engine has been used.
3. Reciprocating
4. True
5. Excessive operating hours without carrying out preventive maintenance.
6. 7 to 8 bar
7. True
8. False
9. 25 to 30 bar
The compressor in figure 4, if permitted to operate as illustrated will __________.
1. 2
1. Damage the bearings of the compressor

2. Increased oil consumption.
3. Damage the bearings of the driving motor.
4. Result in a constant enlargement of the clearance expansion volume.
Intercoolers installed on starting air compressors, reduce the __________.
1. Dust entering the first stage

2. 2
2. Overheating the final stage
3. Temperature of air from the LP stage
4. Interstage vapor lock.
3. Which of the following statements describes the function of an air compressor intake filter? 2
1. Protects against suction valve float.
2. Provides a positive pressure on the air inlet valves.
3. Protects against the damaging effects of airborne solid particles.
4. Prevents lubricating oil contamination of the compressed air supply.
An important point of consideration when replacing a dry type intake filter on an air compressor is to __________.
1. Use the same wetting oil on the element as is used in the compressor lubrication system
4. 2
2. install a smaller size filter to allow for expansion of the element
3. Select the proper size filter so that air flow is not restricted.
4. Install only a filter consisting of a treated paper element.
Answer Key
1. Damage the bearings of the driving motor.

2. Temperature of air from the LP stage
3. Protects against the damaging effects of airborne solid particles.
4. Select the proper size filter so that air flow is not restricted.
What will happen, if the compressor is started with the air bottle filling valve shut?
1. Delivery air temperature will increase

1. 2. Compressor will not start
2
3. Second stage relief valve will lift
4. Low lub oil pressure cut out will trip the compressor
What does higher running current of compressor motor indicate?
1. Defective ammeter
2. 2. Ineffective cooling of compressor leading to overload
2
3. Compressor is not efficient and running continuously for long time
4. Load on the compressor motor is higher than the normal.
Intercoolers installed on starting air compressors, reduce the possibility of ___________ .
1. dust entering the first stage

3. 1
2. lube oil carbonization
3. discharge pulsations
4. interstage vapor lock
What will be the consequences, if compressor is run when lub oil level high in the crankcase?
1. Improper lubrication
4. 2. Oil carry over
2
3. High delivery air temperature
4. High cooling water temperature
How insufficient cooling water flow will affect the compressor?
1. Reduced efficiency
5. 2. Improper lubrication 2
3. Low lub oil pressure
4. High delivery air pressure
If the intercooler relief valve lifts while an air compressor is operating under load, you should check
for ____________.
6. 1. A defective pressure switch or pilot valve 1

2. A leak in the intercooler piping
3. Leaking high pressure discharge valve.
4. Unloader control diaphragm.
A leaking suction valve in the second stage of a two stage, high pressure, air compressor can cause
excessively high .
7. 1. Second stage discharge pressure 2

2. Pressure in aftercooler.
3. First stage discharge pressure.
4. Compressor final discharge temperature.
8. Intercoolers installed on starting air compressors, reduce the possibility of ___________ 1
1. dust entering the first stage

2. overheating the first stage
3. overheating the second stage
4. interstage vapor lock
Lubricating oil carry over from air compressor leads to _____.
1. Decompression
9. 2
2. Detonation
3. Rapid heat build up in the compressor that often builds up in operational failure.
4. Excessive running hours
Why should a person performing maintenance on an air compressor wire and tag the system valves
closed?
10. 1. To prevent stopping. 2

2. To protect environment.
3. To protect the operator performing the maintenance.
4. To complete the operation swiftly.
Answer Key
1. Second stage relief valve will lift
2. Load on the compressor motor is higher than the normal.

3. lube oil carbonization
4. Oil carry over
5. Reduced efficiency
6. Leaking high pressure discharge valve.
7. First stage discharge pressure.
8. overheating the second stage
9. Rapid heat build up in the compressor that often builds up in operational failure.
10. To protect the operator performing the maintenance.
_________ is fitted in the cooling water side of intercooler to release excess air pressure by bursting in
the event of pressurized air leaking in to the cooling water spaces
1. 1. Relief valve 2
2. Bursting disc
3. Fusible plug
4. High air temperature cut out
Which of the following statement is true?
1. Air compressor is started in unloaded condition

2. 2
2. Air compressor is loaded during operation
3. The compressor is unloaded before stopping
4. All of the above
________ releases air in the event of a fire break out in the vicinity of air receiver

3. 2
2. Fusible plug
3. Bursting disc
4. Relief valve
_______ trips the compressor, when the delivery air temperature rises above the set limit
1. Fusible plug
4. 2
2. Relief valve
3. Bursting disc
5. 2
Stop the air compressor, if u hear any abnormal noise during its operation
1. True
2. False
Answer Key
1. Bursting disc
2. All of the above
3. Fusible plug
5. True
To which controller first low signal selector passes the master signal on low steam demand?
1. 1
1. Fuel controller
2. Air controller
A burner producing black smoke in an automatic auxiliary boiler, would be caused by a/an
__________.
2. 1. Incorrect electrode setting. 2

2. Defective solenoid valve.
3. Incorrect primary air setting.
4. Grounded high tension lead.
By which adjustment does the air flow controller regulates the air flow?
3. 1
1. Forced draft fan speed
2. Damper movement
Master signal is generated by computing relay based on requirement of
4. 1. Fuel 1
2. Air
3. Steam
Control of the fuel oil metering valve in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler is accomplished by:
__________.
5. 1. Pressure magnifying device in the steam coil outlet. 2

2. Signal from the feedwater electrode.
3. Steam pressure sensing device with linkage to the damper air vanes.
4. Metering device in the air supply line.
Which of the listed fuel oil ignition methods are commonly found on automatically fired auxiliary
boilers aboard merchant vessels?
6. 1. incandescent glow plug. 2

2. Gas pilot light
3. High energy electric spark.
4. Manually operated friction igniter.
The flame safeguard controls of a large automatically fired auxiliary boiler, may consist of a
__________.
7. 1. Stack switch. 2
2. Pyrostat.
3. Photoelectric cell.
4. Thermistor.
8. To which controller first high signal selector passes the master signal on high steam demand? 1
1. Fuel controller
2. Air controller
Answer Key
1. Fuel controller
2. Incorrect primary air setting.
3. Damper movement
4. Steam
5. Steam pressure sensing device with linkage to the damper air vanes.
6. High energy electric spark.
7. Photoelectric cell.
8. Air controller
Why should combustion blowers be left running for a while after stopping the firing of a boiler?
1. To cool the furnace internal.

1. 2
2. To cool tubes.
3. To remove the gases from furnace.
Casing drains may be required on a waste heat boiler gas passage side to __________.
1. Prevent an accumulation of boiler water entering gas passages as a result of a pinhole tube
2. leak 2
2. As a means to sample stack gases for testing
3. Drain off condensation.
4. Release excess pressure.
Downcomers installed on auxiliary package boilers are protected from direct contact with hot gases
by __________.
3. 1. Steel baffles. 2
2. Several rows of screen tubes
3. Refractory and insulation.
4. Water wall tubes.
The purpose of the programmed purge cycle on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler is to
______________.
4. 1. Cool the furnace to prevent pre-ignition 2

2. Evaporate unburnt fuel.
3. Remove explosive vapors from furnace.
4. Provide sufficient air in the furnace to allow ignition of the fuel.
The principal purpose of refractory and insulation installed in the firebox of an auxiliary boiler is to
__________.
1. Prevent flame impingement on the generating tube bank

5. 2
2. Direct the force draft into the space between the inner and outer casings, to maintain a
pressure seal
3. Protect the inner casing and reduce heat loss
4. Prevent slag accumulation on the corbels.
An exhaust gas bypass is installed on a waste heat boiler in order to __________.
1. Bypass exhaust gas at high loads to prevent excessive back pressure.

6. 2
2. Bypass a portion of the exhaust gas at peak loads for better efficiency.
3. Reduce corrosion in gas passages at low loads.
4. Recycle exhaust gas to the turbocharger.
7. Function of a de-superheater is to:- 2
1. Protect superheater from overheat.

2. Control superheater steam outlet temperature.

3. Reduce steam temperature for auxiliary uses after steam superheater.
4. Increase the efficiency of the boiler.
In case of an exhaust gas boiler fire, which of the following action is a suitable control measure?
1. Start frequent soot blowing.

8. 2. Increase main engine speed to blow away the soot particles on fire. 2
3. Inform bridge and C/E before stopping the engine. Use fitted firefighting equipment and
boundary cooling.
4. Reduce fuel oil temperature.
Soot blowing of boilers onboard can be carried out during:-
1. Port operations
9. 1
2. After indications of uptake fire.
3. During sailing after confirmation with navigation bridge.
4. Inerting operations in oil tankers.
To maximize the effectiveness of soot blowing of boiler onboard :---
1. Ensure boiler is firing at minimum load.

10. 1
2. Ensure boiler is firing on marine diesel oil.
3. Ensure combustion parameters are maintained normal.
4. Main engine is stopped.
An economizer uptake fire in the engine room is extinguished by:
1. Boundary cooling of the uptake.

11. 2
2. Injecting water from uptake.
3. Use fitted firefighting equipment.
4. Inert gas system.
Before any work is to be carried out on a burner in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, you
should always ______________.
12. 1. Block all control system relays closed. 1

2. Allow the boiler to cool completely.
3. Close all manually operated fuel valves.
4. Lock all safety interlock switches closed.
Answer Key
1. To remove the gases from furnace.

2. Drain off condensation.
3. Refractory and insulation.
4. Remove explosive vapors from furnace.
5. Protect the inner casing and reduce heat loss
6. Reduce corrosion in gas passages at low loads.
7. Reduce steam temperature for auxiliary uses after steam superheater.
Inform bridge and C/E before stopping the engine. Use fitted firefighting equipment and boundary
8.
cooling.
9. During sailing after confirmation with navigation bridge.
10. Ensure combustion parameters are maintained normal.
11. Use fitted firefighting equipment.
12. Close all manually operated fuel valves.
When there is a flame failure in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, the __________.
1. Air supply is shut off.

1. 2
2. safety valve lifts.
3. Fuel supply is shut off.
4. Water supply is shut off.
To test the operation of the flame failure switch of an operating automatically fired auxiliary boiler,
you should __________.
2. 1. De-energize the high voltage ignition system 2

2. Move the igniter away from the normal firing position
3. Close the manual fuel valve with the burner firing
4. Shift the controls to low fire.
Answer Key
1. Fuel supply is shut off.

2. Close the manual fuel valve with the burner firing
If the watch keeping engineer encounters a Main Engine Slow down alarm he should
_____________.
1. Immediately cancel the slowdown in the control panel.

2. He need not take any action and wait for the alarm to resolve on its own and then cancel the
1. 2
slow down.
3. If navigation circumstances permit, after consulting chief engineer he should tell bridge to
stop engine, investigate the fault , rectify it in consultation with senior engineers and then
prepare for restarting the engine.
4. He should raise engineer's alarm and wait for all engineers to reach the engine room.
Answer Key
If navigation circumstances permit, after consulting chief engineer he should tell bridge to stop
1. engine, investigate the fault , rectify it in consultation with senior engineers and then prepare for
restarting the engine.
In four ram type steering the rams are connected to rudder stock by
1. Ward Leonard System

1. 2. Rapson Slide Fork Type Tiller 2
3. Combination of both
The four ram provides ______________
1. Lesser torque
2. 2. Greater Speed 2
3. Greater Torque
4. Lesser speed
In four ram steering, on normal working condition the steering of each pump is connected to
___________________.
1. Opposite cylinder
3. 2
2. Diagonally opposite cylinder
3. Either port or stbd side pumps
In four ram steering in the event of any emergency either pump can use
1. All four cylinder

4. 2. Either two port cylinder 2
3. Either two stbd cylinder
4. All of the above
Answer Key
1. Rapson Slide Fork Type Tiller

2. Greater Torque
3. Diagonally opposite cylinder
4. All of the above
Who take over the controls in the Engine Room?
1. Third Officer
1. 2. Third Engineer 2
3. Second officer
4. Second Engineer
What is the full form of the term UMS ship

2. 2. Unmanned Machienery Space ship 2
3. Unnamed Machienery Spaces ship
4. Unmaned Machienery Spaces ship
During a routine voyage, _______ must be tested
1. engine
3. 2. equipment 1
3. boat
4. all of the above
Watchkeeping in engine room is required only to handle minor incidents.
4. 1
True
False
To test the emergency fire pump yu will have to
1. Set a new generator

5. 2. Use the same generator 2
Who rectifies the defect in the alarm?
1. Third officer
3. Second Engineer
4. Third Engineer
Answer Key
1. Third Engineer
3. equipment
4. FALSE
6. Third Engineer
UMS operation- Watchkeeping; find an incorrect assumption
1. Where the machinery space is unattended, a duty engineer will be responsible for supervision.
2. He will normally be one of three senior watchkeeping engineers and will work on 24 hours on,
1. 48 hours off rotation. 1
3. During his watch-period, he will make tours of inspection in the engine room about every four
hours beginning at 0700 or 0800 hours.
4. The tour of inspection will Not be similar to that of a conventional watch, with due
consideration being given to the unattended mode of machinery operation.
1. The duty engineer tour of inspection will be similar to that of a conventional watch, with due
2. Between tours of inspection, the Duty Engineer will be on call and should be ready to
investigate any alarms relayed to his cabin or the various public rooms.
2. 2
3. The Duty Engineer should not be out of range of these alarms without appointing a relief
and/or informing the bridge.
4. The main logbook readings will be taken as required while on a tour of inspection.
5. The various other regular jobs, such as fuel transfer, pumping of bilges, and so on, should be
carried out during the day work period, when it remains the responsibility of the senior
engineer on day shift.
1. The duty engineer tour of inspection will be similar to that of a conventional watch, with due
3. 2. Between tours of inspection, the Duty Engineer will Not be on call and should be ready to 2
investigate any alarms relayed to his cabin or the various public rooms.
3. Trends in parameter readings must be observed, and any instability in operating conditions
must be rectified.
4. A set list or mini log of readings may have to be taken during the various tours.
Answer Key
The tour of inspection will Not be similar to that of a conventional watch, with due consideration being
1.
given to the unattended mode of machinery operation.
The various other regular jobs, such as fuel transfer, pumping of bilges, and so on, should be carried
2.
out during the day work period, when it remains the responsibility of the senior engineer on day shift.
Between tours of inspection, the Duty Engineer will Not be on call and should be ready to investigate
3.
any alarms relayed to his cabin or the various public rooms.
In auto mode, we can't test the steering system by moving the knob little bit (i.e., few degrees) to
starboard or port.
1. 1
True
False
In the manual mode, first bring the wheel to 15 degrees and check the wheel indicator.
2. True 1
False
Take the wheel to midship and the indicator must display midship and ship must really slow down its
port turn.
3. 1
True
False
Answer Key
1. FALSE
2. TRUE
3. TRUE
What are the indications for soot fire in the boiler uptake from the funnel?
1. White smoke.
1. 2
3. Heavy smoke and sparks will emit from the funnel.
4. Engine rpm fluctuations.
Answer Key
1. Heavy smoke and sparks will emit from the funnel.
Old machinery space logbooks are kept for a period of at least:
1. 1 years
1. 1
2. 2 years
3. 3 years.
4. 6 months.
Answer Key
1. 3 years.
A ship is required to carry an Oil Record Book and must maintain the book as per rules on board for
__________.
1. 1. One year 1
2. Two years.
3. Three years.
4. Five years
Answer Key
1. Three years.
In addition to the main starting air compressor, another air compressor, driven by a separate power
source, is installed to __________.
1. 1. Provide air for engine scavenging. 2

2. Provide air for engine supercharging
3. Supply a backup source of starting air
4. Supply the independent source of reversing air.
Answer Key
1. Supply a backup source of starting air
What is compression?
1. 1
1. Pressure is increased by decreasing the volume using positive displacement
2. Velocity is increased by increasing the volume without positive displacement
What is the value of polytropic index in case of an air compressor?
2. 1
1. Between 1.25 to 1.35
2. Equal to 1.4
Does the compressor follow isochoric process?
3. True 1
False
With respect to thermodynamic work, define a compressor?
4. 1
1. Compressor is a work absorbing machine
2. Compressor is a work supplying machine
Does the compressor follow isothermal process?
5. True 1
False
Does an air compressor obey the corollary of first law of thermodynamics?
6. True 1
False
In an actual or practical air compressor cycle, after compression, heat energy is stored in the
medium and not dissipated.
7. 1
True
False
Does the compressor follow isobaric process?
8. True 1
False
Describe the principle of operation of a reciprocating air compressor with the compression cycle;
why is multistaging and intercooling necessary? Answer with a cycle diagram to justify your
9. answer.
10
In an actual or practical air compressor cycle, after compressor heat energy is removed partially
and not completely.
10. 1
True
False
11. With respect to compressor, what is the thermodynamic medium used? 1
1. Liquid
2. Gas or air
Answer Key
1. Pressure is increased by decreasing the volume using positive displacement

2. Between 1.25 to 1.35
3. FALSE
4. Compressor is a work absorbing machine
5. FALSE
6. TRUE
7. FALSE
8. FALSE
9.
10. TRUE
11. Gas or air
The clearance volume for a single stage compressor is defined as the space created between the
__________.
1. Top of the piston and bottom side of head, with the piston at BDC
1. 2. Bottom of the piston and bottom side of the head at TDC, regardless of upper ring location and 2
valve placement
3. Piston and head, including the space around the piston to the top of the upper ring and under
the valves, with the piston at TDC
4. Top of the piston and bottom side of the head at TDC as compared to that which exists
between the top of the piston and bottom side of head at BDC.
Answer Key
Piston and head, including the space around the piston to the top of the upper ring and under the
1. valves, with the piston at TDC
The purpose of an intercooler installed on a high pressure starting air compressor is to _______ .
1. reduce the inlet air suction pressure drop

1. 1
2. absorb the heat of compression in the air charge formed in the first stage
3. assist in cooling the first stage cylinder walls
4. prevent interstage vapor lock
Answer Key
1. absorb the heat of compression in the air charge formed in the first stage
The cylinders and intercoolers of most low-pressure air compressors are cooled by __________.
1. Oil
1. 1
2. CO2
3. Air
4. Water.
What is the reason for the loss of volumetric efficiency in a low-pressure air compressor?
1. adiabatic compression in the intercooler

2. 2
2. Inaccurate valve timing.
3. Heating of the air leaving the cylinders.
4. Constant enlargement of the clearance expansion volume.
Which type of compressor is most suited for continuous operation?
1. Lobe compressor
3. 1
2. Reciprocating compressor.
3. Screw compressor.
4. Multistage compressor.
The starting air supply for a diesel engine is generally provided by a/an __________.
1. Exhaust powered turbocharger

4. 1
2. Roots-type blower air pump
3. Multistage reciprocating air compressor.
4. Centrifugal air compressor.
Which of the following is most suited to act as a deck air compressor?
1. Lobe type
5. 1
2. Reciprocating type
3. Screw type
4. Centrifugal
Answer Key
1. Air
2. Heating of the air leaving the cylinders.
3. Screw compressor.
4. Multistage reciprocating air compressor.
5. Screw type

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31/05/2022, 18:38 Directorate General of Shipping

Why is it necessary to prepare a comprehensive repair specification?

Information needed to prepare specification of repairs is collected from

1. Vessel repair specifications

How does the top management use a repair completion report?

Information needed to prepare repair completion report is collected from

1. Vessel repair specifications

Why does a superintendent prepare a repair completion report?

Face to face communication is an _____________ form of communication.

Face to face communication is the best form of communication.

Misinterpretation of message occurs in __________.

Misinterpretation of message occurs in face to face communication.

Culture plays a main role in face to face communication.

Use of emotions and timeliness __________ to all cultures.

There is no possibility for immediate feedback or response in face to face communication.

1. bonus and promotion to deserving persons

The carrier is scheduled for drydocking

1. before completion of discharging cargo

Who is the direct incharge of the crew?

1. bonus and promotion to deserving persons

Who will board the vessel for inspections and formalities?

1. Port control & dock safety officials

_________ arrive on the ship for inward clearance

The crew needs to communicate with external parties on a _________ basis

Listening helps you to:

1. All the above

Effective writers are good listeners

1. an involuntary psychological process by which you process sound

The main difference between listening and hearing is:

1. Listening is conscious and hearing is mechanical

Listening involves processing of information

Which of the following require listening?

You use a tape recorder to

1. a deliberate psychological process by which you receive, understand & retain

1. All the above

You learn a lot through informative listening.

3. 1. Dan did not understand the directions properly

3. Dan lacked the sense of direction

4. None of the above

1. All the above

Which of the following is not an example of critical listening?

1. Listening to an advertisement on radio

3. Listening to a debate on television

4. All the above

Listening to your colleague can be critical listening.

He argued really well. What does tour comment imply?

1. Judgement about the person

3. Quality of the person

You always engage in critical listening whenever you listen to a politician.

1. Listening to an advertisement on radio

Speaker's organisation of material is important for note making.

Note making is itself is enough for recall.

What is note making?

1. It is a skill that requires practice.

3. It is a method that requires practice.

4. It is a skill that requires patience.

Note making is difficult because:

1. Written language is different from spoken language

3. Written language is easier from spoken language