TOEFL PREPARATION GUIDE FOR READING COMPREHENSION (Learner)

Maizarah, M.
Pd
TOEFL
Preparation Guide for
Reading Comprehension
i
PREFACE
TOEFL Preparation Guide for Reading Comprehension is aimed

at students whose native language is not English and who are studying
education at academic institutions. It is designed for use as a
handbook, within the framework of a course. The objective of this book
is to introduce students to the TOEFL of reading comprehension, to
explain them what is general strategy and the specific strategy in
TOEFL of reading comprehension.
In addition, it is important that the reader be made aware of the
type questions which often occur in reading TOEFL test. They need to
understand all the types of question in order to get the best score in
their reading TOEFL test. In this handbook there are five types of
question will be focused on:
• Main Idea and Topic Question.
• Stated and Unstated Detail Question.
• Vocabulary Question
• Reference Question.
• Inferences Question.
Almost of the TOEFL questions in this handbook have been

adapted from 1) Deborah Philips (2001) Longman Complete Course for
the TOEFL Test, 2) Michael A. Pyle and Mary Ellen Munoz Page
(2005) CLIFFS TOEFL Preparation Guide Test of English as A Foreign
Language.
Tembilahan, January 2020
Maizarah, M.Pd
i
TABLE OF CONTENT
Preface ............................................................................................................. i
Table of Content .............................................................................................. ii
About the TOEFL Test..................................................................................... 1

TOEFL for Reading Comprehension ............................................................. 7
Skill 1: Answer the Questions about Main Idea and Topic Questions
Correctly .............................................................................................. 10
Skill 2: Answer Stated and Unstated detail Questions Correctly .................... 20
Skill 3: Answer Vocabulary Questions Correctly ........................................... 29
Skill 4: Answer Reference Questions Correctly ............................................. 38
Skill 5: Answer Inference Questions Correctly .............................................. 46
References ....................................................................................................... 54
ii
ABOUT TOEFL TEST
TOEFL (Test of English as a Foreign Language) is used to measure

the students or ones’ English skill. Many educational institution gives
the requirement that who want to start or finish in their institution
must pass the TOEFL Test. This becomes a benchmark for someone
regarding their English skill, the higher value of TOEFL means the
better Englih skill which they have.
Moreover, in this globalization era TOEFL is already being used in the

world of work. Many workplaces have used TOEFL as one of the
mechanisms for recruitment or promotion. This is a way to deal with
the job competition or to establish cooperation, more advanced one’s
business allows the wider cooperation to other coutries, then English is
used as the connecting language.
Generally, the TOEFL test has some formats, Paper Based TOEFL
(PBT), Computer Based TOEFL (CBT), and Internet Based TOEFL
(IBT). In the present, the countries that have not implemented the
TOEFL of CBT and IBT will continue to use the PBT. In Indonesia
PBT is still very often used. It is a type of TOEFL which is very
popular in educational institutions, English course, and specialized
language institutions.
Sharpe (2009:23) explains that the PBT is a pencil and paper test that
is offered for two purposes. One purpose of the PBT is for placement
and progress evaluations. Colleges or other institutions use the PBT to
test their students. The scores are not valid outside of the place where
they are administered, but the college or institution accepts the PBT
that they administer as an official score. This PBT is also called an
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Institutional TOEFL. The other purpose of the PBT is to suplement the
official Computer-Based TOEFL in areas where computer-based
testing is not possible. The scores are usually valid outside of the place
where they are administered. This PBT is also called a suplemental
TOEFL.
There are four tested parts in the TOEFL Test; 1)Listening

Comperension, 2)Structure and Written Expression, 3)Reading
Comprehension, 4)Test of English Written (TWE). TWE is usually done
before the listening test, but TWE sometimes appears on the TOEFL
PBT and always appears on the computer TOEFL .
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Listening is one of skills in English, it is commonly known as a

receiptive skill which you do not need to produce language to do this,
you only hear the recorded conversation by the native speaker. The
more hear brings you to have the better listening comprehension, the
sounds in English will be quickly recognized. Listening skill is being
crucial in the world of education, this is one part of TOEFL.
Learning Express (2004:23) mentions that the listening Section of the

TOEFL test measures your ability to understand the spoken English.
It uses conversational language including idiomatic expressions, rather
than formal, writtten English. The section has 30-50 questions and is
40-60 minutes in length. On the test, you will hear three types of
recordings:
Dialogues: a brief conversation between two peole. In some,

each person speaks only once. In others, one or both people
speak more than once. Each dialogue is followed by one
question.
2
Short Conversations and class discussions: a seven- or
eight- line conversation between two or more peole about a
specific topic, followed by several questions.
Mini-lectures: a one- or two- minute talk by single speaker,

followed by several questions.
In listening comprehension of TOEFL test there are a number of things

you should pay attention to; the ability to understand pressure and
tone, understand sound differences, understand idioms, understand
conversation expressions, understand verbs and phrases, find implied
information, and understand the meaning or content of a conversation.
If you master all of those things, it allows you to get the high score in
listening comprehenion of TOEFL test.
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
This section typically gives the time about 25 minutes and contains
approximately 40 questions. Generally, it includes two question types,
Part A, Structure contains 15 questions, and Part B, Written
Expression contains 25 questions.
Both are used to know your grammatical abilities and your ability to
recognise formal written English. Many expressions that are
acceptable in spoken English are not acceptable in formal written
English. It is clear that you need to master the English grammar that
will lead you to eliminate the errors in formal written English.
Learning Express (2004:50) there are two basic kinds of questions on

the structure and written expression section of paper-based exams:
Sentence completion. This question type presents a sentence

with a blank. From four possible answer choices, you will
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select the one word or phrase that correctly completes the
sentence.
Recognizing grammatical mistakes. In this question type,

sentences will have four underlined words or phrases. You
will choose the underlined word or phrase that is incorrect.
In structure and written expression if you want to get the good score
you must understand the structure of the sentence, how is the sentence
formed, and how are sentences developed.You must understand that
the sentence in a paragraph or text is not always simple sentence, but
it is often complicated. Your job is learning about the grammatical
issue deeply.
READING COMPREHENSION
Reading is similar to listening skill, is commonly known as a receiptive

skill. Comprehension means that the act of understanding what you
read, so reading comprehension is the ability to process the text,
understand its meaning and integrate with what the reader is already
known.
The reading comprehesion of the TOEFL test will measure your ability
to read and understand the written passsages. The passages will have
a style and subject matter similar to that of college-level academic text.
This section typically lasts 55 minutes and contains approximately 50
questions.
The reading comprehension questions on the TOEFL fall into some

categories:
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Main Idea and Topic Question. This question type asks you
to locate the main idea of a passage or paragraph and
determine the topic of a passage.
Stated and Unstated Detail Question. For this kind of

question, you will identify a specific fact or detail described
in the passage. And you will find an answer that is not
stated or not mentioned or not true in the passage.
Vocabulary Question. There are 3 kinds of vocabulary

questions: one asks you to find definition from structural
clues, then asks you to determine meanings from word parts,
and using context clues to determine meanings
Reference Question. These questions require you to determine

what a specific word (often a pronoun) or phrase refers to in
the passage.
Inferences Question. For this question type, you will draw a

logical conclusion based on the information in the passage.
Many questions of reading comprehension in TOEFL test provide you

five question types that are stated above, but you must understand
that there are other questions occasionally occur, question about
purpose of the writer, the tone of the text, and about transition
questions. If you cannot understand all of the question types, at least
you have to understand the five question types, it leads you to get high
reading comprehension score in TOEFL test.
WRITING
Writing is commonly known as a productive skill, because people doing
this need to produce language. It is also called as an active skill.
Through writing everybody is not only able to express feelings and
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ideas, but also to communicate with others and have remembering
facts and ideas.
Writing also appears in the TOEFL test. It is used to know your

ability in creating an English written text. In this test, you are given a
specific topic, and you are asked to write an answer to the question.
You have 30 minutes to write the answer of the question. On the paper
test, the writing section is called the Test of English Written (TWE).
Writing only appears on some of the paper TOEFL test. On the paper
TOEFL test writing is given at the beginning, before the listening
section.
Learning Express (2004:115) TWE exam use the type of writing

prompt- a general topic and a question about the topic. Most prompts
present a statement, situation, or scenario and ask you to take a
position and explain it.
Each writing topic need your response exactly, to make a good writing
you must understand the topic carefully, then you can organize the
ideas, you determine the ideas that are important to express. The word
choice is very important.
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TOEFL FOR READING COMPREHENSION
Reading TOEFL at least provides 5 passages. The themes of the

passage in reading comprehension are varied, but generally is related
to topic and style where found in North American universities and
colleges. For example, literature, art, history, architecture, geology,
biology, health, astronomy, geography, and so on. Each passage is
followed by a number of questions about the material.
There is only one type of question in the reading comprehension of the

paper TOEFL test, it is a multiple-choice. A multiple-choice is a form
of an objective assessment in Paper based TOEFL and an option circle
form in Computer based TOEFL in which you are asked to select only
the correct answer from the choices. The question on the test may ask
about the main ideas, supporting details, exceptions, location of
information, vocabulary, inferences, reference.
The problem which is found for the TOEFL participant in reading

comprehension is the limited time which given. Many of them have not
finished all questions while the time is over. The time is given about 55
minutes and contains approximately 50 questions. So, you need to
prepare your self before you decide to take a TOEFL test. You must
learn about the strategy and skill builder to get high TOEFL score of
reading comprehension.
Phillips (2001:359) explains about the general strategies for reading as

follow:
1. Be familiar with the Directions. The directions on every paper

TOEFL test are tha same, so it is necessary to spend time reading
the directions carefully when you take the test. You should be
completely familiar with the directions before the day of the test.
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2. Do not spend too much time reading the passages. You do not
have time to read each passage in depth, and it is quite possible to
answer the questions correctly without first reading the passages in
depth.
3. Do not worry if a reading passage is on a topic you are
unfamiliar with. All of the information that you need to answer
the questions is included in the passages. You do not need any
background knowledge to answer the questions.
4. Do not spend too much time on a question you are unsure of.
If you do not know the answer to a question, simply guess and go on.
You can return to this question later in the section if you have time.
5. Guess to complete the section before time is up. There is no
penalty for guessing, so it can only increase your score to guess the
answers to questions that you do not have time to complete.
In addition Learning Express (2004:86) states becoming an active

reader takes practice. To improve your comprehension skills, try the
following techniques while you read:
1. Skim ahead. Scan the text before you read. Note how the text is
broken into sections, what the main topics are in each section, and
the order in which the topics are covered. Look for highlighted key
words and ideas.
2. Jump back. Review the text after you read. Go over summaries,
headings, and highlighted information. This process will help you
remember information and make connections between ideas.
3. Look up new words. Keep a dictionary on hand as you read and
look up any unfamiliar words. List new vocabulary words and their
definitions in a notebook so you can review them later.
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4. Highlight important information. Highlight or underline key
terms, main ideas, and new concepts as you read. (If you don’t own
the book, use a notebook to jot down information.
5. Take notes. Record your questions, observations, and opinions
about what you read. What is the main idea of the passage? Do you
agree with the author?
6. Connect what you read with your own experience or with another
topic you have studied. For example, if you are reading about the
1989 student protest in Tiananmen Square, you may note how it
was similar to or different from student protests in the United
States in the 1960s.
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SKILL 1: ANSWER THE QUESTIONS ABOUT MAIN IDEA
AND TOPIC QUESTIONS CORRECTLY
On the reading TOEFL test is very common that finding the questions
about the overall ideas in the passage. The most common type of
questions asks about the main idea, topic, title, or subject. There, may
also be questions about how the information in the passage is
organized or about which type of information is included in a particular
paragraph.
Main idea is the most important or central thought of the paragraph. It

is important information that tells more about the paragraph or
section of the text. Finding the main idea of the paragragh or passage
is one of the most important aspects of good reading comprehension.
The main ideas maybe stated or implied. When the main idea of a
paragraph is stated, it is most often generally in the first sentence of
paragraph. However, the main idea may be found in any sentence of
the paragraph.
Learning Express (2004:91) tells that to determine the main idea of a

passage, think about a general statement that brings together all of
the ideas in a paragraph or passage. Do not confuse the main idea of a
passage with its main topic. The topic is the subject-what a passage is
about. The main idea is what the author wants to express about the
subject. To present a main idea, many textbook writers follow the basic
format of general idea→specific support. First, they state their
main idea and then provide support for it with specific facts and
details. A first sentence may contain a main idea. However, sometimes
an author builds up to her point, in which case you may find the main
idea in the last sentence of the introductory paragraph or even the last
sentence of the entire passage.
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The TOEL test of reading comprehension will have a multiple-choice
question about the main idea and the topic of a passage. The questions
maybe stated in a variety ways, you may be asked to identify the
subject, tittle, topic or main idea. To find the answer of the questions
most probably found at the beginning of each paragraph.
In this section you need to understand about the primary information

related the questions about the main idea and the topic. It will be your
direction to answer about those questions. Phillips (2001:370) divides 3
sections of the key information about the main idea and topic
questions, as follow:
1. How to identify the question.

▪ What is the topic of the subject?
▪ What is the subject of the passage?
▪ What is the main idea of the passage?
▪ What is the author’s main point int the passage?
▪ With what is the author primarily concerned?
▪ Which of the following would be the best title?
2. Where to find the answer. The answer to this type of question can
generally be determined by looking at the first sentence of each
paragraph.
3. How to answer the question.
▪ Read the first line of each paragraph.
▪ Look for a common theme or idea in the first lines.
▪ Pass your eyes quickly over the rest of the passage to check that you
have really found the topic sentences
▪ Eliminate any definitely wrong answers and choose the best
answer from the remaining choices.
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PRACTICE
If a passage consists of only one paragraph, you should study the

beginning of that paragraph to determine the main idea and the topic.
Look at the example from the paper TOEFL test that asks about the
main idea of a passage with one paragraph.
The Passage:
Chances are you’ve never seen a California condor, and
you probably never will. These giant birds are becoming extinct.
They are disappearing because of people. As people use more
and more of the land for farms, roads and buildings, land was
taken away from wildlife. The forests where the condors lived
have been used up. Some of the birds died from poisons that
farmers used to try to kill other animals. Fewer baby condors
are born each year. Though they are now protected, many
people fear that by the year 2000 all the condors will be gone.
The Question:
Which of the following options is the main idea?
(A) People have caused the extinction of many animals.
(B) People used up the forests in which the California condor
lived.
(C) The California condor is protected.
(D) The California condor is becoming extinct.
The phrase “many animals” in option A makes this statement too

broad. The only animal mentioned in the passage is the condor. The
statement in option B and C tells us nothing about the danger of
extinction. So it’s too narrow. Option D is the main idea of the passage
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because it is the most important point made about the condor. All the
facts and details support this idea.
If a passage consists of more than one paragraph, you should study the
beginning each paragraph to determine the main idea and the topic.
Look at the example from the TOEFL test that asks about the title of a
passage with more than one paragraph.
The Passage:
Nitrogen fixation is a process by which nitrogen is
continuosly fed into biological circulation. In this process,
certain algae and bacteria convert nitrogen into ammonia
(NH3). This newhy-created ammonia is then for the most part
absorbed plants.
The opposites process of denitrification returns nitrogen to
the air. During the process of denitrification, bacteria cause
some of the nitrates from the soil to convert into gaseous
nitrogen or nitrous oxide (N2 O). In this gaseous form, the
nitrogen returns to the atmosphere.
The Question:
Which of the following would be the best title for this passage!
(A) The process of Nitrogen fixation.
(B) Two Nitrogen processes.
(C) The return of Nitrogen to the Air.
(D) The Effect of Nitrogen on Plant Life.
This question ask you about the title for the passage. Because the
passage consists of more than one paragrapah, so you should read the
first sentence of each paragraph to determine subject, topic, title, or
main idea.
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In option A the statement is discussed only in the first paragraph, in
getting the best title for the passage the statement must be discussed
also in the second paragraph. The opposite, the statement in option C
is only discussed in the second paragraph, nothing in the first
paragraph, so it is not the best title for the passage . In option D the
statement is not discussed in both paragraph, so automatically it is
incorrect answer. The correct answer is option B, the two nitrogen
processes are nitrogen fixation, which is discussed in the first
paragraph, and denitrification, which is discussed in the second
paragraph.
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TOEFL EXERCISE 1
In this exercise, each passage is followed by several main idea and

topic questions. Study each of the passages and choose the best
answers to the questions that follow. Use the strategy that you have
learned!.
PASSAGE ONE (Question 1)
In the philosophy of John Dewey, a sharp distinction is made

between intelligence and reasoning. According to Dewey, is the only
absolute way to achieve a balance between realism and idealism,
between practicality and and wisdom of life. Intelligence involves
“interacting with other things and knowing them,” while reasoning is
merely the act of an observer, “...a mind that beholds or grasps outside
the world of things...” With reasoning, a level of mental certainty can
be achieved, but it is through intelligence that control is taken of
events that shape one’e life.
1. What is the topic of the Passage?

(A) The intelligence of John Dewey
(B) Distinction made by John Dewey
(C) Dewey’s ideas on the ability to reason
(D) How intelligence differs from reasoning in Dewey’s works
PASSAGE ONE (Questions 2-3)
Fort Knox, Kentucky, is the site of a U.S. army post, but it is even
more renowned for the Fort Knox Bullion Depository, the massive
vault that contains the bulk of the U.S. government's gold deposits.
Completed in 1936, the vault is housed in a two-story building
constructed of granite, steel, and concrete; the vault itself is made of
steel and concrete and has a door that weighs more than twenty tons.
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Naturally, the most up-to-date security devices available are in place
at Fort Knox, and the army post nearby provides further protection.
2. Which of the following best describes the topic of the passage?

(A) The city of Fort Knox, Kentucky
(B) The federal gold depository
(C) The U.S. army post at Fort Knox
(D) Gold bullion
3. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) The Massive Concrete Vault
(B) Fort Knox Security
(C) Where the United States Keeps Its Gold
(D) A Visit to Kentucky
PASSAGE TWO (Questions 4-5)
One identifying characteristic of minerals is their relative

hardness, which can be determined by scratching one mineral with
another. In this type of test, a harder mineral can scratch a softer one,
but a softer mineral is unable to scratch the harder one. The Mohs'
hardness scale is used to rank minerals according to hardness. Ten
minerals are listed in this scale, ranging from talc with a hardness of 1
to diamond with a hardness of 10. On this scale, quartz (number 7) is
harder than feldspar (number 6) and is therefore able to scratch it;
however, feldspar is unable to make a mark on quartz.
4. Which of the following best states the subject of this passage?

(A) The harness of diamonds
(B) Identifying minerals by means of a scratch test
(C) Feldspar on the Mohs' scale
(D) Recognizing minerals in their natural state
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5. The main idea of this passage is that
(A) The hardness of a mineral can be determined by its ability to
make a mark on other minerals
(B) Diamonds, with a hardness of 10 on the Mohs' scale, can
scratch all other minerals
(C) A softer mineral cannot be scratched by a harder mineral
(D) Talc is the first mineral listed on the Mohs' scale
PASSAGE THREE (Questions 6-7)
Hurricanes generally occur in the North Atlantic from May

through November, with the peak of the hurricane season in
September; only rarely will they occur from December through April in
that part of the ocean. The main reason for the occurrence of
hurricanes during this period is that the temperature on the water's
surface is at its warmest and the humidity of the air is at its highest.
Of the tropical storms that occur each year in the North Atlantic,
only about five, on the average, are powerful enough to be called
hurricanes. To be classified as a hurricane, a tropical storm must have
winds reaching speeds of at least 117 kilometers per hour, but the
winds are often much stronger than that; the winds of intense
hurricanes can easily surpass 240 kilometers per hour.
6. The passage mainly discusses

(A) How many hurricanes occur each year
(B) The strength of hurricanes
(C) The weather in the North Atlantic
(D) Hurricanes in one part of the world
7. The best title for this passage would be
(A) The North Atlantic Ocean
(B) Storms of the Northern Atlantic
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(C) Hurricanes: The Damage and Destruction
(D) What Happens from May through November
PASSAGE FOUR (Questions 8-10)
Henry Wadsworth Longfellow (1807-1882) was perhaps the best-

known American poet of the nineteenth century. His clear writing style
and emphasis on the prevalent values of the period made him popular
with the general public if not always with the critics. He was
particularly recognized for his longer narrative poems Evangeline, The
Song ofHiawatha, and The Courtship of Miles Standish, in which he
told stories from American history in terms of the values of the time.
Evangeline was set during the French and Indian War (1754-
1763), when the British forced French settlers from Nova Scotia; two
lovers, Gabriel and Evangeline, were separated by the British, and
Evangeline devoted her lifetime to the search for Gabriel. With its
emphasis on sentimental, undying love, Evangeline was immensely
popular with the public.
In The Song of Hiawatha, Longfellow depicted the noble life of the

American Indian through the story of the brave Lfiawatha and his
beloved wife Minehaha. The tear-inspiring poem follows Hiawatha
through the tragedies and triumphs of life, ending with the death of
Minehaha and Hiawatha's departure into the sunset in his canoe.
The Courtship of Miles Standish takes place during the early

period of the settlement of New England, a period which was viewed as
a time of honor and romance. In this poem centered around a love
triangle, Miles Standish asks his friendJohn Alden to propose to
Priscilla Mullins for him; John Alden ends up marrying Priscilla
Mullins himself, and it takes time for his friendship with Miles
Standish to recover. As with Longfellow's other narrative poems, the
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emphasis on high ideals and romance made the poem extremely
popular.
8. Which of the following best describes the main idea of the

passage?
(A) American history is often depicted in poetry.
(B) Longfellow described American history even though people
really did not enjoy it.
(C) The popularity of Longfellow's poems results from his stress
on the values of the people.
(D) Longfellow wrote long narrative poems that were not always
popular with the critics.
9. The best title of the passage is
(A) Longfellow's Popular Appeal
(B) Historical Narrative Poems
(C) The Lyric, Dramatic, and Narrative Poems of Longfellow
(D) Longfellow and the Critics
10. The subject of the fourth paragraph is
(A) Nobility and honor in the poems of Longfellow
(B) The love triangle involving Miles Standish
(C) The popular appeal of The Courtship of Miles Standish
(D) The period of the early settlement of New England
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SKILL 2: ANSWER STATED AND UNSTATED DETAIL
QUESTIONS CORRECTLY
Many questions in the reading of the TOEFL test will ask about stated
detail and unstated detail in a passage. You should be able to find
answer to this type question without having to draw a conclusion.
STATED DETAIL QUESTIONS
Phillips (2001:379) explains that a stated detail question asks about

one piece of information in the passage rather than the passage as a
whole. The answers to these questions are generally given in order in
the passage, and the correct answer is often a restatement of what is
given in the passage. This means that the correct answer often
expresses the same idea as what is written in the passage, but the
words are not exactly the same.
A stated detail questions often occur in the Reading TOELF test. The
questions are about the information that written in the text, to answer
this questions you need to find the keyword of each questions, then you
find the word or paragraph of the text.
To help you answer the questions Phillips (2001:382) writes the key
information about stated detail questions:

▪ According to the passage….
▪ It is stated in the passage ……..
▪ The passage indicates that ………
▪ Which of the following is true ……..
2. Where to find the answer. The answer to these questions are
found in order in the passage.
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▪ Choose a key word in the question.
▪ Skim in the appropriate part of the passage for the key word or
idea.
▪ Read the sentence that contains the key word or idea carefully.
▪ Eliminate any definitely wrong answers and choose the best
answer from the remaining choices.
PRACTICE
Look at the example from the TOEFL test that asks about stated detail
from the passage.
The Passage:
Flutes have been around for quite some time, in all sorts of
shapes and sizes and made from a variety of materials. The
oldest known flutes are about 20,000 years old; they were made
from hollowed-out bones with holes cut in them. In addition to
bone, older flutes were often constructed from bamboo or
hollowed-out wood. Today’s flutes are generally made of metal,
and in addition to the holes they have a complicated system of
keys, levers, and pads. The instrument belonging to well known
flautist James Galway is not just made of any metal; it is made
of gold.
The Question:
According to the passage, the oldest flutes .........
(A) had holes cut in them
(B) were made of metal
(C) were made 200,000 years ago
(D) had a complicated set of levers and pads
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To answer the question, you should see that this question is answered
in the second sentence. The passage states that the oldest flutes were
bones with holes cut in them, so the best answer is answer (A).
Answers (B) and (D) are true about today’s flutes, but not the oldest
flutes, so they are incorrect. Answer (C) is an incorrect number; the
oldest flutes are 20,000 years old, not 200,000 years old.
UNSTATED DETAIL QUESTIONS
Sometimes you will be asked in the Reading Comprehension section of

the TOEFL test to find an answer that is not stated or not mentioned
or not true in the passage. It is called unstated detail question. This
type of questions really means that three of the answers are stated,
mentioned, or true in the passage, while one answer is not. Your actual
job is to find the three correct answers and then choose the letter of the
one remaining answer.
You should note that there are two kinds of answers to this type of
question: (1) there are three true answers and one answer that is not
discussed in the passage, or (2) there are three true answers and one
that is false according to the passage.
To answer this section you may learn the key information about
unstated detail questions that is written by Phillips (2001:386):

▪ Which of the following is not stated….?
▪ Which of the following is not mentioned ....?
▪ Which of the following is not discussed……..:
▪ Which of the following are true except……..
found in order in the passage.
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▪ Scan the appropriate part of the passage for the key word or
related idea.
▪ Read the sentence that contains the key word or idea carefully.
▪ Look for answers that are definitely true according to the passage.
Eliminate those answers.
▪ Choose the answer that is not true or not discussed in the passage.
PRACTICE
Look at the example from the TOEFL test that asks about unstated
detail from the passage.
The Passage:
In English, there are many different kinds of expressions
that people use to give a name to anything whose name is
unknown or momentarily forgotten. The word gadget is one
such word. It was first used by British sailors in the 1850s and
probably came from the French word gachette, which was a
small hook. In everyday use, the word has a more general
meaning. Other words are also used to give a name to
something unnamed or unknown, and these words tend to be
somewhat imaginative. Some of the more commonly used
expressions are a what-d’ye-call-it, a whatsis, a thingamabob, a
thingamajig, a doodad, or a doohickey.
The Question:
Which of the following is NOT true about the word gadget?
(A) It is used to name something when the name is not
known.
23
(B) It was used at the beginning of the nineteenth century.
(C) It most likele came from a word in the French language.
(D) Its first known use was by British sailors.
This questions asks for the one answer that is not true about the word
“gadget”, so three of the answers are true and one answer is not. You
should look for the word gadget in the passage and find information
that is untrue. Answer (A), (C), and (D) are all true according to the
passage, so these answer not correct. Answer (B) is the one answer
that is not true; the passage states that the word “gadget”..... was first
used by British sailors in the 1850s, which is in the middle of the
nineteenth century, so answer (B) is the best answer to this question.
24
TOEFL EXERCISE 2
In this exercise, each passage is followed by several stated and

unstated questions. Study each of the passages and choose the best
answers to the questions that follow. Use the strategy that you have
learned!.
PASSAGE ONE (Question 1-3)
The United States does not ahve a national university, but the
idea has been arround for quite some time. George Washington first
recommended the idea to Congress; he even selected an actual site in
Washington, D.C., and then left an endowment for the proposed
national university in his will. During the century following the
Revolution, the idea of a national university continued to receive the
support of varioous U.S. presidents, and philantropist Andrew
Carnegie pursued the cause at the beginning of the present century.
Although the original idea has not yet been acted upon, it continues to
be proposed in bills before Congress.
1. According to the passage, the national university of the United

States
(A) has been around for a while
(B) does not exist
(C) is a very recent idea
(D) is an idea that developed during the present century
2. The passage indicates that George Washington did NOT do
which of the following?
(A) He suggested the concept for a national university to
Congress.
(B) He chose a location for the national university.
25
(C) He left money in his will for 1a national university.
(D) He succeeded in establishing a national university.
3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage about
Andrew Carnegie
(A) He was interested in doing charity work and good deeds for
the public.
(B) He was a member of Congress.
(C) He was interested in the idea of a national university.
(D) He was active in the early twentieth century.
The La Brea tarpits, located in Hancock Park in the Los

Angeles area, have proven to be an extremely fertile source of Ice Age
Fossils. Apparently, during the period of the Ice Age, the tarpits were
covered by shallow pools of water; when animals came there to drink,
they got caught in the sticky tar and perished. The tar not only trapped
the animals, leading to their death, but it also served as a remarkably
effective preservant, allowing near-perfect skeletons to remain hidden
until the present era.
In 1906, the remains of a huge prehistoric bear discovered in

the tarpits alerted archeologists to the potential treasure lying within
the tar. Since then thousands and thousands of well-preserved
skeletons have been uncovered, including the skeletons of camels,
horses, wolves, tigers, sloths, and dinosaurs.
4. Which of the following is NOT true about the La Brea tarpits?

(A) They contain fossils that are quite old.
(B) They are found in Hancock Park.
(C) They have existed since the ice Age.
(D) They are located under a swimming pool.
26
5. When did archaeologists become aware of the possible value of
the contents of the tarpits?
(A) During the Ice Age
(B) Thousands and thousands of years ago
(C) Early in the twentieth century
(D) Within the past decade
6. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an example of a
skeleton found in the tarpits?
(A) A bear
(B) A sloth
(C) A horse
(D) A snake

When the president of the United States wants to get away from
the hectic pace in Washington, D.C., Camp David is the place to go.
Camp David, in a wooded mountain area about 70 miles from
Washington, D.C., is where the president goes to find solitude. It
consists of living space for the president, the first family, and the
presidential staff as well as sporting and recreational facilities.
Camp David was established by President Franklin Delano
Roosevelt in 1942. He found the site particularly appealing in that its
mountain air provided relief from the summer heat of Washington and
its remote location offered a more relaxing environment than could be
achieved in the capital city.
When Roosevelt first established the retreat, he called it Shangri-
La, which evoked the blissful mountain kingdom in James Hilton’s
novel Lost Horizon. Later, President Dwight David Eisenhower
renamed the location Camp David after his grandson David
Eisenhower.
27
Camp David has been used for a number of significant meetings.
In 1943 during World War II, President Roosevelt met there with
Great Britain’s Prime Minister Winston Churchill. In 1959 at the
height of the Cold War, President Eisenhower met there with Soviet
Premier Nikita Khrushchev; in 1978 President Jimmy Carter
sponsored peace talks between Israel’s Prime Minister Menachem
Begin and Egypt’s President Anwar el-Sadat at the retreat at Camp
David.
7. Which of the following is NOT discussed about Camp David?

(A) Its location
(B) Its cost
(C) Its facilities
(D) Its uses
8. According to the passage, who founded Camp David?
(A) George Washington
(B) The first family
(C) Franklin Delano Roosevelt
(D) Dwight David Eisenhower
9. Which of the following is NOT true about President Eisenhower
(A) He had a grandson named David.
(B) He attended a conference with Nikita Khrushchev.
(C) He named the presidential retreat Shangri-La.
(D) Camp David
10. Khrushchev was at Camp David in
(A) 1942
(B) 1943
(C) 1959
(D) 1978
28
SKILL 3: ANSWER VOCABULARY QUESTIONS CORRECTLY
Vocabulary is all about words, it is central to English because without

sufficient vocabulary we cannot understand others or express our own
ideas. In the reading section of the TOEFL test, there will be a number
of vocabulary questions. The questions will always be multiple-choice
questions. In this section, you may be asked about synonim, antonym,
the meaning of the text based on context.
In this section you need to learn about various forms (verb, adjective,
adverb, noun) of words. Sometimes you will meet the word that has
many meanings, the meaning is considered by the context, like word
bank, you may write he fishes in the river bank or you may write he
saves the money in the bank. You also will meet the word that is
constructed by the other term, the word endanger is constructed by a
prefix en and a word danger, it means to put in danger. The word
correction is constructed by a word correct and a suffix ion, it means
the action or process of correcting something. It is concluded that
vocabulary is complicated one.
To help you answer the vocabulary questions you should know the form
of these questions that are occured in the TOEFL Test, the following
forms as follow:
▪ What is the meaning of “X” in Line Y??

▪ The Word “X” in line Y is closest in meaning to.....
▪ The Word “X” in line Y could best be replaced by....
In addition, to help you to answer the vocabulary questions you should

have tips that lead you to find the correct answer, Learning Express
(2004:95) gives some tips for vocabulary questions, as follow:
29
1. Look at context—the words and sentences surrounding the
word—for clues about meaning. For example, you can determine
what the word gullible means from this context: Fred is so gullible.
He will believe anything that Oliver tells him. The phrase “he will
believe anything” restates the meaning of the word gullible and
suggests its meaning of being easily duped or cheated.
2. Is the word negative or positive? Using the context of the
passage, determine whether the unfamiliar term is a negative or
positive one. In the preceding example, you can conclude that
gullible is not positive in that context. Thus, you can eliminate any
answer choices that are positive terms.
3. Replace the vocabulary word with the remaining answers, one
at a time. Does the answer choice make sense when you read the
sentence? If not, eliminate that answer choice.
Beside those tips, you may also use the general one of the tips about
vocabulary questions, is read the sentence that contains the word and
connect it to the sentence before of after, it will help you to estimate
the meaning of word.
PRACTICE
Look at a multiple-choice example from the TOEFL test about
vocabulary question.
The Passage:
One of the leading schools of psychological thought in the
twentieth century is behaviorism-the belief that the role of the
psychologist is to study behavior, which is observable, rather
than conscious or unconscious thought, which is not probably
the best-known proponent of behaviorism is B.F. Skinner, who
30
is famous for his research on how positive and negative
reinforcement influence behavior. He came to believe that
positive reinforcement such a praise, food, or money were more
effective in promoting good behavior than negative
reinforcement, or punishment.
The Question:
In “behaviorism” in line 2, a psychologist is concerned with
(A) conscious thought patterns

(B) unconscious thought pattern
(C) observable actions
(D) unobservable actions
This question asks about the meaning of the word behaviorism . To

answer this question, you should look at the part of the passage
following the word behaviorism. The dash punctuation (-) indicates
that a definition or further information about behaviorism is going to
follow. In the information following the dash, you should see that the
behaviorist is interested in behavior, which is observable, so the best
answer to this questios is answer (C).
31
TOEFL EXERCISE 3
Study each of the passages and choose the best answers to the
questions that follow. Use the strategy that you have learned!.
Cardamom is not as widely used as a spice in the United States

as it is in other parts of the world. This fruit of the ginger plant
provides oil that basically has been used solely as a stimulant in
American and English medicines. Other cultures have recognized the
multipurpose benefits of this aromatic fruit. In Asia it is used to
season sauces such as curry; in Middle Eastern countries it is seeped
to prepare a flavorful golden-colored tea; in parts of Northern Europe it
is used as a spice in various types of pastry.
1. The word “solely” in line 3 could best be replaced by

(A) initially
(B) only
(C) reportedly
(D) healthfully
2. The word “multipurpose” in line 5 is closest in meaning to
(A) health
(B) singular
(C) recognized
(D) varied
3. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “season”
in line 6?
(A) Divide
(B) Forecast
(C) Spice
(D) Put a time limit
32
4. “Curry” in line 6 is
(A) the fruit of the ginger plant
(B) a spicy type of sauce
(C) a culture in the area of the Middle East
(D) a type of golden-colored tea
5. The word “seeped” in line 6 is closest in meaning to
(A) steamed
(B) dried
(C) stored
(D) grown
The life-span of an elephant that dies from natural causes is

about sixty-five years. Of course, an elephant can perish from a
number of “unnatural causes”, e.g. it can be killed by hunters, most
probably for the valuable ivory in its tusks; it can die from diseases
that spread throughout an elephant herd; or it can die from drought
or from the lack of food that almost certainly accompanies the
inadequate supply of water.
If, however, an elephant survives these disasters, it falls prey
to old age in its mid-sixties. Around this age, the cause of death is
attributed to the loss of the final set of molars. When this last set of
teeth is gone, the elephant dies from malnutrition because it is
unable to obtain adequate nourishment. In old age, elephants tend to
search out a final home were there is shade for comfort from the sun
and soft vegetation for cushioning; the bones of many old elephants
have been found in such places.
33
6. The word “perish” in line 2 means
(A) fall ill
(B) shoot
(C) die
(D) get rich
7. The word “unnatural” in line 3 is closest in meaning to
(A) wild
(B) violent
(C) domesticated
(D) abnormal l
8. The word “drought” in line 5 means
(A) a drowning
(B) a lack of food
(C) an inadequate supply of water
(D) an overabundance of animals
9. Which of the following could be used to replace the word
“survives” in line 8?
(A) Rises to
(B) Succumbs to
(C) Denies
(D) Lives through
10. “Molars” in line 10 are
(A) germs
(B) old-age characteristics
(C) types of food
(D) teeth
11. In line 11, “malnutrition” is used to describe someone who
(A) is in good health
(B) has an illness
34
(C) suffers from poor eating
(D) experiences dental problems
12. The expression “a final home” in line 13 is closest in meaning to
(A) a place to die
(B) a comfortable house
(C) a place for sale
(D) the only remaining place to live
13. The word “shade” in line 13 is closest in meaning to
(A) color
(B) heat
(C) diminished light
(D) a front porch
The American flag is the end product of a long evolution. Each

of its component parts has its own history.
The very first American flag was hoisted in the skies over
Boston on January 1, 1776, by the American forces there. This first flag
consisted of thirteen red and white stripes representing the number of
American colonies. It also included the British Cross of St. George and
Cross of St. Andrew. It could be considered rather ironic that these
symbols of British rule were included on the American flag in that the
American colonists were fighting for independence from the British.
The origin of the stars on the current flag is obscure; that is,
the stars could possibly have been taken from the flag of Rhode Island,
or they could have been taken from the coat-of-arms of the Washington
family. According to legend, this first flag with stars was sewn by
Betsy Ross, a Philadelphia seamstress who was famous forher clever
needlework. This version of the flag contained thirteen stars and
35
thirteen stripes, one for each of the thirteen colonies battling for
independence.
The original idea was to add one star and one stripe for each
state that joined the new, young country. However, by 1818, the
number of states had grown to twenty, and it did not work well to
keep adding stripes to the flag. As a result, Congress made the decision
to revert to the original thirteenstripes representing the thirteen
original colonies and adding a star each time a new state was
admitted. This has been the policy ever since.
14. The word “product” in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) goods
(B) merchandise
(C) banner
(D) result
15. Something that is “hoisted” (line 3) is
(A) created
(B) found
(C) raised
(D) made
16. The word “ironic” in line 7 could most easily be replaced by
(A) steellike
(B) normal
(C) unexpected
(D) nationalistic
17. Which of the following is closest in meaning to “obscure” in line
10?
(A) Unclear
(B) Original
36
(C) Modern
(D) Known
18. In line 14, the word “seamstress” is used to describe somehow
who
(A) works at home
(B) sews
(C) is a part of high society
(D) practices medicin
19. The word “work” in line 20 could best be replaced by
(A) get a job
(B) function
(C) accomplish
(D) make an effort
20. The expression “revert to” in line 22 means
(A) return to
(B) add to
(C) rejoice over
(D) forget about
37
SKILL 4: ANSWER REFERENCE QUESTIONS CORRECTLY
Louis (2010:33) states that you may understand all of the words in a
sentence and still not understand what the writer wants to say. This
might be because you did not pay attention to words which connect the
ideas. We will call these reference words because they refer us to
other parts of the text.
For this question type in TOEFL test, the questions require you to
determine what a specific word (often a pronoun) or phrase refers to in
the passage. Sometimes, in a text there are several pronoun used by
the writer, you must be able to refer the pronoun into the passage. In
this section you need to know that pronoun is varied, two of them are
personal pronoun, for example: I, you, we, they, she, he, it. And
demonstrative pronoun; this, that, these, those. It is necessary to
understand because if you do not understand it, you may wrong to
refer these pronouns into the passage.
To help you to answer the reference questions you should have the way
that lead you to find the correct answer, Phillips (2001:390) gives some
ways for reference questions, as follow:
1. Locate the pronoun in the passage.

2. Look before the pronoun for nouns that agree with the pronoun.
3. Try each of the nouns in the context in place of the pronoun.
4. Eliminate any definitely wrong anwers and choos the best answer
from the remaining choices.
38
PRACTICE
Look at the example from the TOEFL test that asks about pronoun
from the passage.
The Passage:
Carnivorous plants, such as the sundew and the Venus-
flytrap, are generally found in humid areas where there is an
inadequate supply of nitrogen in the soli. In ordeer to survive,
these plants have developed mechanisms to trap insects within
their foliage. They have digestive fluids to obtain the necessary
nitrogen from the insects. These plants trap insects in a variety
of ways. The sundew has sticky hairs on its leaves: when am
insect lands on these leaves, it gets caught up in the sticky
hairs, and the leaf wraps itself around the insect. The leaves of
the Venus-flytrap function more like a trap, snapping suddenly
and forcefully shut around an insect.
The Question:
The pronoun They in line 5 refers to

(A) humid areas
(B) these plants
(C) insects
(D) digestive fluids
This questions about the referent for the pronoun they. To answer
this question, you should look before the pronoun they for plural
nouns that the pronoun could refer to. Humid areas, insects, and the
plants come before the prnoun, so they possible answers; digestive
fluids comes after pronoun, so it is probably not the corrrect answer.
39
Then you should try three possible answers in the sentence in place
of the pronoun. You should understand from the context that these
plants have digestive fluids to obtain the necessary nitrogen from
the insects, so the best answer to this question is anwer (B).
40
TOEFL EXERCISE 4
In this exercise, each passage is followed by several reference

questions. Study each of the passages and choose the best answers to
the questions that follow. Use the strategy that you have learned!.
PASSAGE ONE (Question 1-2)
The full moon that occurs nearest the equinox of the Sun has
become known as the Harvest Moon. It is a bright moon which allows
farmers to work late into the night for several nights; they can work
when the moon is at its brightest to bring in the fall harvest. The
Harvest Moon of course occurs at different times of the year in the
Northern and Southern Hemispheres. In the Northern Hemisphere,
the Harvest Moon occurs in September at the time of the autumnal
equinox. In the Southern Hemisphere, the Harvest Moon occurs in
March at the time of the vernal equinox.
1. The pronoun "It" in line 2 refers to

(A) the equinox
(B) the Sun
(C) the Harvest Moon
(D) the night
2. The pronoun "they" in line 3 refers to
(A) farmers
(B) nights
(C) times of the year
(D) Northern and Southern Hemispheres
41
Mardi Gras, which means "Fat Tuesday" in French, was

introduced to America by French colonists in the early eighteenth
century. From that time it has grown in popularity, particularly in
New Orleans, and today it is actually a legal holiday in several
southern states. The Mardi Gras celebration in New Orleans begins
well before the actual Mardi Gras Day. Parades, parties, balls, and
numerous festivities take place throughout the week before Mardi Gras
Day; tourists from various countries throughout the world flock to New
Orleans for the celebration, where they take part in a week of nonstop
activities before returning home for some much-needed rest.
3. The pronoun "it" in line 3 refers to

(A) Mardi Gras
(B) French
(C) that time
(D) New Orleans
4. The pronoun "they" in line 9 refers to
(A) numerous festivities
(B) tourists
(C) various countries
(D) nonstop activities
PASSAGE THREE (Question 5-6)
The financial firm Dow Jones and Company computes business

statistics every hour on the hour of each of the business days of the
year, and these statistics are known as the Dow Jones averages. They
are based on a select group of stocks and bonds that are traded on the
New York Stock Exchange. The Dow Jones averages are composed of
four different types of averages: the average price of the common stock
42
of thirty industrial firms, the average price of the common stock prices
of twenty transportation companies, the average price of the common
stock prices of fifteen utility companies, and an overall average of all
the sixty-five stocks used to compute the first three averages. Probably
the average that is the most commonly used is the industrial average;
it is often used by an investor interested in checking the state of the
stock market before making an investment in an industrial stock.
5. The pronoun "They" in line 3 refers to

(A) the business days
(B) these statistics
(C) stocks and bonds
(D) four different types
6. The pronoun "it" in line 12 refers to
(A) the industrial Average
(B) an investor
(C) the state of the stock market
(D) an investment
PASSAGE FOUR (Question 7-10)

Many types of animals combine the advantages of family
association with those conferred by membership in still larger groups.
Bees congregate in hives; some fish move in schools; ants gather in
mounds; wolves live in packs; deer associate in herds. The main
advantage of membership in a mass community is the safety that it
provides. A large group of prey may be easier for a predator to find at
any given point than is a small one, and a predator may think twice
before taking on such a group: if a predator does decide to challenge a
large group, it may merely encounter a confusing mass of moving
bodies and possibly may not succeed in its primary goal.
43
7. The word those in the passage refers to
(A) types
(B) animals
(C) advantages
(D) groups
8. The word it in line 5 refers to
(A) advantage
(B) membership
(C) community
(D) safety
9. The word one in the passage refers to
(A) group
(B) prey
(C) predator
(D) point
10. The word it in line 9 refers to
(A) predator
(B) group
(C) mass
(D) goal
PASSAGE FIVE (Question 11-15)
Most chromium compounds have brightly colored hues, and as a

result they are widely used as coloring agents, or pigments, in paints.
In addition to having a pleasing color a paint must protect the surface
to which it is applied and be easy to apply in a thin, uniform coat.
All paints consist of two parts. One is a powder of solid particles
that is the source of the color and the opaqueness and is known as the
pigment. The other, called the binder, is the liquid into which the
44
pigment is blended. The binder used in some paints is made from oily
solvents such as those derived from petroleum resources. When
applied, these solvents evaporate, leaving deposits of pigment on the
surface.
11. The word they in line 2 refers to

(A) chromium compounds
(B) brightly colored hues
(C) coloring agents
(D) pigments
12. The word it in paragraph in line refers to
(A) a pleasing color
(B) a paint
(C) the surface
(D) a thin, uniform coat
13. The word that in paragraph 2 refers to
(A) a powder
(B) solid particles
(C) the source
(D) the color
14. The word which in paragraph 2 refers to
(A) powder
(B) paint
(C) liquid
(D) pigment
15. The word those in paragraph 2 refers to
(A) Some paints
(B) oily solvents
(C) petroleum resources
(D) deposits of pigment
45
SKILL 5: ANSWER INFERENCE QUESTIONS CORRECTLY
Louis (201038) tells that sometimes the author of a text does not state
an idea directly, but you, the reader, can understand that the idea
follows logically from what the writer does say. The inference is
suggested from the facts.
The term inference refers to the process of using observation and a

background knowledge as well as other known premises to determine a
conclusion that makes sense. It is deriving conclusions from indication.
Inference is understanding implicit information. It is fundamental to
understanding most written texts. It requires the reader to unravel the
implied meaning of words.
Learning Express (2004:94) explains inference questions on the

TOEFL test ask you to draw logical conclusions about what you read.
Sometimes a writer does not explicitly state his or her main idea or
offer a conclusion. You must infer the writer’s meaning. To do this you
must carefully read the details and facts of a passage and look for
context clues that reveal a writer’s attitude.
To help you answer the questions Phillips (2001:399) writes the key
information about inference questions:

▪ It can be inferred from the passage that.....
▪ It is implied in the passage that.....
▪ It is most likely that.....
generally found in order in the passage
46
▪ Scan the passage for the key word (or a related idea).
▪ Carefully read the sentence that contains the key word.
▪ Look for an answer that could be true, according to that sentence.
PRACTICE
Look at a multiple-choice example of an inference question from the

TOEFL test.
The Passage:
The Hawaiian language is a melodious language in which
all words are derived from an alphabet of only twelve letters,
the five vowels a, e, i, o, u, and the seven consonants h, k, l, m,
n, p, w. Each syllable in the language ends in a vowel, and two
consonants never appear together, so vowels have a much
higher frequency in the Hawaiian language than they do in
English.
This musical-sounding language can be heard regularly by
visitors to the islands. Most Hawaiians speak English, but it is
quite common to hear English that is liberally spiced with
words and expressions from the traditional language of the
culture. A visitor may be greeted with the expression aloha and
may be referred to as a malihini because he is a newcomer to
the island. This visitor may attend an outside luau where
everyone eats too much and may be invited afterwards to dance
the hula.
47
The Question:
It is implied in the passage that a luau is
(A) a dance
(B) a feast
(C) a concert
(D) a language
This questions ask what is implied in the passage about a luau. To

answer this question, you should refer to the part of the passage
where it mentions a luau where everyone eats too much. From this,
you can draw the conclusion that a luau is a feast, which is a very
large meal. The second answer is therefore the best answer to this
question.
48
TOEFL EXERCISE 5
Study each of the passages and choose the best answers to the
questions that follow. Use the strategy that you have learned!.
Eskimos need efficient and adequate means to travel across water

since the areas where they live are surrounded by oceans, bays, and
inlets and dotted with lakes and seas. Two different types of boats have
been developed by the Eskimos, each constructed to meet specific
needs.
The kayak is something like a canoe that has been covered by a
deck. A kayak is generally constructed with one opening in the deck for
one rider; however some kayaks are made for two. Because the deck of
a kayak is covered over except for the hole (or holes) for its rider (or
riders), a kayak can tip over in the water and roll back up without
filling with water and sinking. One of the primary uses of the kayak is
for hunting.
The umiak is not closed over, as is the kayak. Instead, it is an
open boat that is built to hold ten to twelve passengers. Eskimos have
numerous uses for the umiak which reflect the size of the boat: e.g. the
umiak is used to haul belongings from campsite to campsite, and it is
used for hunting larger animals that are too big to be hunted in a
kayak.
1. It is implied in the passage that if a kayak has two holes,

then .....
(A) it accommodates two riders
(B) it is less stable than a kayak with one hole
(C) it is as large as an umiak
(D) it cannot be used on the ocean
49
2. It can be inferred from the passage that an example of the
animal mentioned in the third paragraph might be .........
(A) a kangaroo
(B) a snake
(C) a whale
(D) a salmon
Two types of trees from the same family of trees share honors in
certain respects as the most impressive of trees. Both evergreen
conifers, the California redwood (Sequoia sempervirens) and the giant
sequoia (Sequoiandendron giganteum) are found growing natively only
in the state of California. The California redwood is found along the
northern coast of the state, while the giant sequoia is found inland and
at higher elevations, along the western slopes of the Sierra Nevadas.
The California redwood is the tallest living tree and is in fact the
tallest living thing on the face of the Earth; the height of the tallest
redwood on record is 385 feet (120 meters). Though not quite as tall as
the California redwood, with a height of 320 feet (100 meters), the
giant sequoia is nonetheless the largest and most massive of living
things; giant sequoias have been measured at more than 100 feet (30
meters) around the base, with weights of more than 6,000 tons.
3. It is implied in the passage that

(A) the leaves of only the California redwood turn brown in the
autumn
(B) the leaves of only the giant sequoia turn brown in the winter
50
(C) the leaves of both types of trees in the passage turn brown in
the winter
(D) the leaves of neither type of tree in the passage turn brown
in the winter
4. It can be inferred from the passage that the Sierra Nevada are
(A) a type of giant redwood
(B) a coastal community
(C) a group of lakes
(D) a mountain range
5. Which of the following is implied in the passage?
(A) The giant sequoia is taller than the California redwood.
(B) The California redwood is not as big around as the giant
sequoia.
(C) The California redwood weighs more than the giant sequoia.
(D) Other living things are larger than the giant sequoia.
Probably the most recognized boardgame around the world is the

game of Monopoly. In this game, players vie for wealth by buying,
selling, and renting properties; the key to success in the game, in
addition to a bit of luck, is for a player to acquire mo nopolies on
clusters of properties in order to force opponents to pay exorbitant
rents and fees.
Although the game is now published in countless languages and
versions, with foreign locations and place names appropriate to the
target language adorning its board, the beginnings of the game were
considerably more humble. The game was invented in 1933 by Charles
Darrow, during the height of the Great Depression. Darrow, who lived
in Germantown, Pennsylvania, was himself unemployed during those
51
difficult finan cial times. He set the original game not as might be
expected in his hometown of Germantown, but in Atlantic City, New
Jersey, the site of numerous pre - Depression vacations; where he
walked along the Boardwalk and visited at Park Place. Darrow made
the first games by hand and sold them locally until Parker Brothers
purchased the rights to Monopoly in 1935 and took the first steps
toward the mass production of today.
6. The French version of Monopoly might possibly include a piece

of property entitled
(A) Atlantic City, New Jersey
(B) Germantown, Pennsylvania
(C) Boardwalk
(D) the Eiffel Tower
7. It is implied that Darrow selected Atlantic City as the setting for
Monopoly because
(A) it brought back good memories
(B) his family came from Atlantic City
(C) the people of Germantown might have been angered if he had
used Germantown
(D) Atlantic City was larger than Germantown
8. Parker Brothers is probably
(A) a real estate company
(B) a game manufacturing company
(C) a group of Charles Darrow's friends
(D) a toy design company
52
PASSAGE FIVE (Questions 9-10)
Until 1996, the Sears Tower was the tallest building in the world,
with more than a hundred stories. It is located in Chicago, whose
nickname is the Windy City. The combination of a very tall building in
a city with such weather conditions leads to a lot of swaying in the
breeze. On a windy day, the top of the building can move back and
forth as much as three feet every few seconds. The inside doors at the
top of the building open and close, and water in sinks sloshes back and
forth.
9. The Sears Tower is probably
(A) As tall as the Empire State Building
(B) No longer the tallest building in the world
(C) Taller than any other building
(D) Still the highest building in the world
10. It can be inferred from the passage that Chicago
(A) Has moderate weather
(B) Is generally warm
(C) Has humid weather
(D) Usually has a lot of wind
53
COMPLETE TEST
TOEFL FOR READING COMPREHENSION
READING COMPREHENSION
Time - 55 minutes
(including the reading of the directions)
Now set your clock for 55 minutes.
This section is designed to measure the ability to read and understand

short passages similar in topic and style to those found in North
American universities and colleges.
Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is
followed by a number of questions about it. You are to choose the one
best answer, A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer
sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of

what is stated or implied in that passage.
Read the following passage:
John Quincy Adams, who served as the sixth president of the

United States from 1825 to 1829, is today recognized for his masterful
statesmanship and diplomacy. He dedicated his life to public service,
both in the presidency and in the various other political offices that he
held. Throughout his political career he demonstrated his unswerving
belief in freedom of speech, the antislavery cause, and the right of
Americans to be free from European and Asian domination.
54
Example I
To what did John Quincy Adams devote his life?
(A) Improving his personal life
(B) Serving the public
(C) Increasing his fortune
(D) Working on his private business
According to the passage, John Quincy Adams "dedicated his
life to public service." Therefore, you should c hoose (B).
Example II
In line 4, the word "unswerving" is closest in meaning to
(A) movable
(B) insignificant
(C) unchanging
(D) diplomatic
The passage states that John Quincy Adams demonstrated his
unswerving belief "throughout his career." This implies that the
belief did not change. Therefore, you should choose (C).
55
Questions 1-10
Elizabeth Blackwell was born in England in 1821 and

immigrated to New York City when she was ten years old.
One day she decided that she wanted to become a doctor.
That was nearly impossible for a woman in many letters
(5) seeking admission to medical schools; she was finally
accepted by a doctor in Philadelphia. So determined was
she that she taught school and gave music lessons to earn
money for her tuition.
In 1849, after graduation from medical school, she
(10) decided to further her education in Paris. She wanted to be
a surgeon, but a serious eye infection forced her to
abandon the idea.
Upon returning to the United States, she found it
difficult to start her own practice because she was a
(15) woman. By 1857, Elizabeth and her sister, also a doctor,
along with another female doctor, manage to open a new
hospital, the first for women and children. Besides being
the first female physician in the United States and
founding her own hospital, she also established the firs
(20) medical school for women.
1. Why couldn’t Elizabeth Blackwell realize her dream of becoming

a surgeon
(A) She couldn’t get admitted to medical school
(B) She decided to further her education in Paris
(C) A serious eye infection halted her quest
(D) It was difficult for her to start a practice in the United States
56
2. What main obstacle almost destroyed Elizabeth’s chances for
becoming a doctor?
(A) She was woman
(B) She wrote too many letters
(C) She couldn’t graduate from medical school
(D) She couldn’t establish her hospital
3. How many years elapsed between her graduation from medical
school and the opening of her hospital?
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 19
(D) 36
4. All of the following are “firsts” in the life of Elizabeth Blackwell
EXCEPT?
(A) She became the first female physician in the United States
(B) She was the first woman surgeon in the United States
(C) She and several other women founded the first hospital for
women and children
(D) She established the first medical school for women
5. How old was Elizabeth Blackwell when she graduated from
medical school?
(A) 10
(B) 21
(C) 28
(D) 36
6. The word “abandon” in line 12 is closest in meaning to
(A) Undertake
(B) Give up
(C) Continue
(D) Look into
57
7. What is the main idea of this passage?
(A) Elizabeth Blackwell overcome serious obstacles to become
the first woman doctor in the United States
(B) Elizabeth Blackwell had to abandon her plans to become a
doctor because of an eye infection
(C) Elizabeth Blackwell even taught music to pay for her
medical studies.
(D) Elizabeth Blackwell founded the first medical school for
women.
8. The word “founding” in line 19 mean most nearly the same as
(A) locating
(B) looking for
(C) establishing
(D) buying
9. Why was it nearly impossible for Elizabeth Blackwell to get into
medical school?
(A) She had a serious eye infection
(B) She had little or no money to pay tuition
(C) She wanted to be part of a profession that no woman had
ever entered before.
(D) Her family didn’t want her to be a doctor.
10. The reason Elizabeth Blackwell could not become a surgeon is
explained in lines
(A) 4 – 5
(B) 6 – 7
(C) 10 – 12
(D) 14 – 15
58
Questions 11-21
Glands manufacture and secrete necessary
substances. Exocrine glands secrete their products
through ducts, but endocrine glands or ductless glands,
release their products directly onto the bloodstream.
(5) One important endocrine gland is the thyroid
gland. It is in the neck and has two lobes, one on each
side of the windpipe. The thyroid gland collects iodine
from the blood and produces thyroxin, an important
hormone, which it stores in an inactive form. When
(10) thyroxin is needed by the body, the thyroid gland
secretes is directly into the blood-stream. Thyroxin is
combined in the body cells with other chemicals and
effects many functions of the body.
The thyroid gland may be under active or
(15) overactive, resulting in problems. An under active
thyroid causes hypothyroidism, while an over active one
causes hyperthyroidism. The former problem, called
myxedema in adults and cretinism in children, causes
the growth process to slow down. A cretin’s body and
(20) mind do not grow to their full potential.
Hyperthyroidism, on the other hand, results in extreme
nervousness, an increase in heart action, and other
problems.
Either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism may
(25) result in goiter, or an enlarged thyroid gland. A goiter
will appear when the body is not getting enough iodine.
Goiter is less common today, since most people use
iodized salt.
59
11. the thyroid gland is called an endocrine gland because it
(A) Has ducts
(B) Has lobes
(C) Secretes directly into the bloodstream
(D) Is located in the neck
12. the word “it” in line 6 refers to
(A) Thyroxin
(B) Blood
(C) Iodine
(D) Thyroid gland
13. A cretin is
(A) A child with hyperthyroidism
(B) An adult with an underperforming thyroid gland
(C) A young person with hypothyroidism
(D) An extremely irritable child
14. Which of the following is the probable result of the myxedema?
(A) Sluggishness
(B) Hyperactivity
(C) Overproduction of thyroxin
(D) perspiration
15. The word “former” in line 17 refers to
(A) Hypothyroidism
(B) Overactive thyroid
(C) Hyperthyroidism
(D) Secretion
16. A goiter is
(A) person with myxedema
(B) A swollen thyroid gland
(C) An underactive thyroid gland
(D) A chemical
60
17. Exocrine and endocrine glands are distinguished from each
other by whether they
(A) secrete through ducts or without ducts
(B) cause hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism
(C) cause myxedema or cretinism
(D) result in an enlarged or shrunken goiter
18. In line 1 the word “secrete” is closest in meaning to
(A) Indiscernible
(B) Emit
(C) Display
(D) Absorb
19. If thyroid is not working enough, the illness is known as
(A) hyperthyroidism
(B) Hyperactivity
(C) Excretion
(D) Hypothyroidism
20. the main idea of the passage is
(A) Hoe glands work
(B) The function and illness of the thyroid gland
(C) Secretion with and without glands
(D) The illness of an overactive thyroid gland
21. The function of the thyroid gland is described in lines
(A) 2 – 4
(B) 7 – 9
(C) 13 – 15
(D) 22 – 25
61
Questions 22-30
A recent investigation by scientists at the U.S.

Geological Survey shows that strange animal
behavior might help predict earthquakes.
Investigators found such occurrences within a ten-
(5) kilometer radius of the epicenter of a fairly recent
quake. Some birds screeched and flew about wildly;
dogs yelped and ran around uncontrollably.
Scientists believe that animal cal perceive
environmental change several hours or even days
(10) before the mishap. Animals were noted as being
restless for several weeks before a Tashkent,
Uzbekistan earthquake. An hour before the disaster,
domestic animals refused to go indoors, and dogs
howled and barked furiously. In 1960, an earthquake
(15) struck Agadir in Morocco. Survivors recalls that stray
animals, including dogs, were seen streaming out of
town before the earthquake. In a safari zoo near San
Francisco, Llamas would not eat the evening before a
1979 quake, and they ran around wildly all night.
(20) Unusual animal behavior preceding earthquake
has been noted for centuries. British Admiral Robert
Fitzory reported huge flocks of screaming seabirds
over Conception, Chile, in 1835. An hour and a half
later, dogs were fleeing, and ten minutes later the
(25) town was destroyed. Similar stories of chickens
running around in apparent states of panic, horses
trembling, and dogs barking incessantly were
recorded throughout the eighteenth and nineteenth
62
centuries by survivors of earthquake destruction in
(30) India, Yugoslavia, Peru, Mexico, and United States.
In 1976, after monitoring bizarre animal
behavior, the Chinese predicted a devastating
earthquake. Although hundreds of thousands of
people were killed, the government was able to
(35) evacuate million of other people and thus keep the
death toll at a lower level.
22. What prediction may be made by observing animal behavior?

(A) An impending earthquake
(B) The number of people who will die
(C) The ten-kilometer radius from the epicenter
(D) The fact that an earthquake has occurred
23. The author implies that animal are aware of an impending
earthquake because
(A) Of their superior intelligence
(B) They have certain instinctive abilities to perceive that
humans do not posses.
(C) They are generally closer to the epicenter than the human
observers
(D) They react to other animal behavior
24. The word “evacuate” in line 35 is closest in meaning to
(A) Remove
(B) Exile
(C) Destroy
(D) Emaciate
63
25. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT some animals
may be able to sense an approaching earthquake
(A) Some animals nay be able to sense an approaching
earthquake
(B) By observing animal behavior scientist perhaps can predict
earthquakes
(C) The Chinese have successfully predicted an earthquake and
saved many lives
(D) Only dogs and horses seem to possess the special perception
that allows them to predict earthquake
26. In line 5, the word “epicenter” is nearest in meaning to
(A) Stratosphere
(B) Contour
(C) Periphery
(D) Core
27. The passage implies that if scientists can accurately predict
earthquakes, there will be
(A) Fewer animals going crazy
(B) A lower death rate
(C) Fewer people evacuated
(D) Fewer environment changes
28. In line 32, “devastating” means most nearly the same as
(A) Destructive
(B) Voracious
(C) Intense
(D) Forthcoming
29. The main idea of this passage is that
(A) Earthquake can be prevented by observing animal behavior
(B) Scientists can interpret animal behavior
64
(C) Observing animal behavior can help people prepare for
earthquakes
(D) People need to prepare animals for earthquakes.
30. Where in the reading is it explained that the phenomena of
animals reacting to earthquakes has been reported for hundreds
of years?
(A) Lines 3-5
(B) Lines 12-16
(C) Lines 22-26
(D) lines 33-36
Questions 31-39
As far back as 700 BC., people have talked

about children being cared for by wolves. Romulus
and Remus, the legendary twin founders of Rome,
were purported to have been care for by wolves.
(5) According to legend, Mars fathered the two boys.
As result, a relative of their mother imprisoned her
and ordered that the boys be drowned in the Tiber
River. However, a she-wolf savged them form this
horrible fate and. took them back to her lair to care
(10) for them legend has it that when a she-wolf loses
her litter, she seeks a human child to take its
place.
This seemingly preposterous idea did not
become credible until the late nineteenth century
(15) when a French doctor actually found a naked ten-
year old boy wandering in the woods. He did not
walk erect, could not speaks intelligibly, nor could
he relate to people. He only growled and stared at
65
them. Finally, the doctor won the boy’s confidence
(20) and began to work with him. After many long years
of devoted and patient instruction, the doctor was
able to get the boy to clothe and feed himself,
reconignize and utter a number of words, and
write letters and form words.
31. The French doctor found the boy

(A) Wandering in the woods
(B) At his doorstep
(C) Growling at him
(D) Speaking intelligibly
32. In line 11, the word “litter” mean most nearly the same as
(A) Garbage
(B) Master
(C) Offspring
(D) Hair
33. The doctor was able to work with the boy because
(A) The boy was highly intelligent
(B) The boy trusted him
(C) The boy liked to dress up
(D) The boy was dedicated and patient
34. The word “utter” in line 23 is nearest in meaning to:
(A) Absolute
(B) Speak
(C) Scream
(D) Read
66
35. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT
(A) She-wolves have been said to substitute human children
their lost litters
(B) Examples of wolves caring for human children can be found
only in the nineteenth century
(C) The French doctor suceeded in domesticating the boy
somewhat
(D) The young boy never was able to speak perfectly
36. The word “preposterous” in line 13 is closest in meaning to
(A) Dedicated
(B) Scientific
(C) Wonderful
(D) Absurd
37. The main idea of this passage is that according to legend
(A) Children who are raised by wolves can be rehabilitated
(B) She-wolves replace their dead offspring with human children
(C) Romulus and Remus were cared for by a she-wolf
(D) A French doctor saved Romulus and Remus from drowning
38. According to the legend, Romulus and Remus were
(A) Found abandoned in Rome
(B) The founders of Rome
(C) Discovered by a French doctor
(D) Drowned in the Tiber river in 700 BC
39. Where in the passage is it states that, according to legend,
Romulus and Remus founded Rome.
(A) Line 2 – 3
(B) Line 5 – 7
(C) Line 9 – 10
(D) Line 11 – 13
67
Question 40-50
40. Which of the following locations would be most likely to have a
high concentration od V. Parahamolyticus?
(A) A bay
(B) A seal
(C) The middle of the ocean
(D) Sediment
41. The word, “inshore” in line 8 is closest in meaning to
(A) Near the coast
(B) Deep
(C) Active
(D) Cold
42. The word “it” in line 17 refers to:
(A) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
(B) Sea water
(C) Sodium chloride content
(D) Water temperature
43. The safest time for eating seafood in the north Pasific is
probably
(A) August
(B) November
(C) July
(D) September
44. The most common symptom of V. Parahaemolyticus poisoning is
(A) Nausea
(B) Diarrhea
(C) Vomiting
(D) Headache and fever
68
45. The word “ this” in line 24 refers to
(A) Contaminated foods
(B) Symptoms
(C) A person
(D) Diarrhea
46. The incubation period for this illness is
(A) 2 to 3 days
(B) 3 to 4 hours
(C) 4 to 5 days
(D) Several months
47. In line 22, “contaminated” is closest in meaning to
(A) Ocean
(B) Tainted
(C) Salty
(D) cooked
48. Nishio’s study showed that
(A) The presence of V. parahaemolyticus was dependent on
neither the salt content nor the water temperature
(B) The presence of V. Parahaemolyticus was dependent only on
the salt content
(C) The presence of V. Parahaemolyticus was independent of
both the water temperature and the salt content
(D) The presence of V. Parahaemolyticus was dependent on the
water temperature
49. The word “cramps” in line 25 means most nearly the same as
(A) Noises
(B) Toxicity
(C) Severe pain
(D) High temperature
69
50. The word “isolation” in line 14 is closest in meaning to:
(A) Conjunction (C) Separation
(B) Impurity (D) Discover
70
REFERENCES
Learning Express, 2004, TOEFL Exam Essentials (United States:

Learning Express.
Louis, Rubena St., 2010, Focus on Reading, Venezuela: Departemento
de Idiomas.
Michael A. Pyle and Mary Ellen Munoz Page, 2005, CLIFFS TOEFL
Preparation Guide Test of English as A Foreign Language, India:
Willey Dreantech.
Philips, Deborah, 2001, Longman Complete Course for the TOEFL Test,
A Pearson Education Company.
Sharpe, Pamela J., 2009, Baron’s: The Leader in Test Preparation,
Practice Exercises for the TOEFL, The Ohio State University.
71

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Maizarah, M.

TOEFL Preparation Guide for Reading Comprehension is aimed

Almost of the TOEFL questions in this handbook have been

Tembilahan, January 2020

About the TOEFL Test..................................................................................... 1

TOEFL (Test of English as a Foreign Language) is used to measure

Moreover, in this globalization era TOEFL is already being used in the

There are four tested parts in the TOEFL Test; 1)Listening

Listening is one of skills in English, it is commonly known as a

Learning Express (2004:23) mentions that the listening Section of the

Dialogues: a brief conversation between two peole. In some,

Mini-lectures: a one- or two- minute talk by single speaker,

In listening comprehension of TOEFL test there are a number of things

STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION

Learning Express (2004:50) there are two basic kinds of questions on

Sentence completion. This question type presents a sentence

Recognizing grammatical mistakes. In this question type,

Reading is similar to listening skill, is commonly known as a receiptive

The reading comprehension questions on the TOEFL fall into some

Stated and Unstated Detail Question. For this kind of

Vocabulary Question. There are 3 kinds of vocabulary

Reference Question. These questions require you to determine

Inferences Question. For this question type, you will draw a

Many questions of reading comprehension in TOEFL test provide you

Writing also appears in the TOEFL test. It is used to know your

Learning Express (2004:115) TWE exam use the type of writing

Reading TOEFL at least provides 5 passages. The themes of the

There is only one type of question in the reading comprehension of the

The problem which is found for the TOEFL participant in reading

Phillips (2001:359) explains about the general strategies for reading as

1. Be familiar with the Directions. The directions on every paper

In addition Learning Express (2004:86) states becoming an active

Main idea is the most important or central thought of the paragraph. It

Learning Express (2004:91) tells that to determine the main idea of a

In this section you need to understand about the primary information

1. How to identify the question.

If a passage consists of only one paragraph, you should study the

The phrase “many animals” in option A makes this statement too

In this exercise, each passage is followed by several main idea and

PASSAGE ONE (Question 1)

In the philosophy of John Dewey, a sharp distinction is made

1. What is the topic of the Passage?

PASSAGE ONE (Questions 2-3)

2. Which of the following best describes the topic of the passage?

PASSAGE TWO (Questions 4-5)

One identifying characteristic of minerals is their relative

4. Which of the following best states the subject of this passage?

PASSAGE THREE (Questions 6-7)

Hurricanes generally occur in the North Atlantic from May

6. The passage mainly discusses

PASSAGE FOUR (Questions 8-10)

Henry Wadsworth Longfellow (1807-1882) was perhaps the best-

In The Song of Hiawatha, Longfellow depicted the noble life of the

The Courtship of Miles Standish takes place during the early

8. Which of the following best describes the main idea of the

STATED DETAIL QUESTIONS

Phillips (2001:379) explains that a stated detail question asks about

1. How to identify the question.

UNSTATED DETAIL QUESTIONS

Sometimes you will be asked in the Reading Comprehension section of