ETO Questions
ETO Questions
ETO Questions
Ques 1. The substances which have a large number of free electrons and offer a low
resistance are called
(a) insulators
(b) inductors
(c) semi-conductors
(d) conductors
Answer: d
Answer: c
Answer: a
Answer: b
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Ques 5. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant
Answer: a
Answer: a
Answer: d
Ques 8. You have to replace 1500 Q resistor in radio. You have no 1500 Q resistor but
have several 1000 Q ones which you would connect
(a) two in parallel
(b) two in parallel and one in series
(c) three in parallel
(d) three in series
Answer: b
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Ques 9. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when
(a) same current passes in turn through both
(b) both carry the same value of current
(c) total current equals the sum of branch currents
(d) sum of IR drops equals the applied e.m.f.
Answer: a
Ques 10. Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a parallel D.C.
circuit?
(a) Elements have individual currents
(b) Currents are additive
(c) Voltages are additive
(d) Power are additive
Answer: d
Answer: a
Answer: a
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Ques 13. Varistors are
(a) insulators
(6) non-linear resistors
(c) carbon resistors
(d) resistors with zero temperature coefficient
Answer: b
Answer: b
Answer: d
Answer: b
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(b) the lowest resistance has the highest voltage drop
(c) the lowest resistance has the highest current
(d) the highest resistance has the highest voltage drop
Answer: d
Answer: c
Ques 19. If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the current
(a) increases in the branch of the lowest resistance
(b) increases in each branch
(c) is zero in all branches
(d) is zero in the highest resistive branch
Answer: c
Ques 20. If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm resistance is doubled in length, its resistance
becomes
(a) 0.4 ohm
(b) 0.6 ohm
(c) 0.8 ohm
(d) 1.0 ohm
Answer: a
Ques 21. Three 60 W bulbs are in parallel across the 60 V power line. If one bulb
burns open
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(a) there will be heavy current in the main line
(b) rest of the two bulbs will not light
(c) all three bulbs will light
(d) the other two bulbs will light
Answer: d
Answer: c
Ques 23. A 40 W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 40 W bulb is
replaced by 100 W bulb, the heater output will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain same
(d) heater will burn out
Answer: d
Ques 24. In an electric kettle water boils in 10 m minutes. It is required to boil the
boiler in 15 minutes, using same supply mains
(a) length of heating element should be decreased
(b) length of heating element should be increased
(c) length of heating element has no effect on heating if water
(d) none of the above
Answer: a
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Ques 25. An electric filament bulb can be worked from
(a) D.C. supply only
(b) A.C. supply only
(c) Battery supply only
(d) All above
Answer: d
Answer: b
Ques 27. When electric current passes through a metallic conductor, its temperature
rises. This is due to
(a) collisions between conduction electrons and atoms
(b) the release of conduction electrons from parent atoms
(c) mutual collisions between metal atoms
(d) mutual collisions between conducting electrons
Answer: a
Ques 28. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W rated at 250 V will have resistance ratio as
(a) 4 : 25
(b) 25 : 4
(c) 2 : 5
(d) 5 : 2
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Answer: c
Ques 29. Whether circuit may be AC. or D.C. one, following is most effective in
reducing the magnitude of the current.
(a) Reactor
(b) Capacitor
(c) Inductor
(d) Resistor
Answer: d
Ques 30. Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in series across 230 V
(alternating).
Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) 100 W lamp will glow brighter
(b) 40 W lamp will glow brighter
(c) Both lamps will glow equally bright
(d) 40 W lamp will fuse
Answer: b
Answer: b
Ques 32. When electric current passes through a bucket full of water, lot of bubbling
is observed. This suggests that the type of supply is
(a) A.C.
(b) D.C.
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(c) any of above two
(d) none of the above
Answer: b
Answer: a
Ques 34. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high
(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) capacitance
(d) impedance
Answer: b
Ques 35. Copper wire of certain length and resistance is drawn out to three times its
length without change in volume, the new resistance of wire becomes
(a) 1/9 times
(b) 3 times
(e) 9 times
(d) unchanged
Answer: c
Ques 36. Three identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in series.
The resultant resistance of the first combination to the second will be
(a) 9 times
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(b) 1/9 times
(c) 1/3 times
(d) 3 times
Answer: b
Ques 37. Which method can be used for absolute measurement of resistances ?
(a) Lorentz method
(b) Releigh method
(c) Ohm’s law method
(d) Wheatstone bridge method
Answer: d
Answer: a
Ques 39. Two copper conductors have equal length. The cross-sectional area of one
conductor is four times that of the other. If the conductor having smaller
cross-sectional area has a resistance of 40 ohms the resistance of other
conductor will be
(a) 160 ohms
(b) 80 ohms
(c) 20 ohms
(d) 10 ohms
Answer: d
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Ques 40. When current flows through heater coil it glows but supply wiring does not
glow because
(a) current through supply line flows at slower speed
(b) supply wiring is covered with insulation layer
(c) resistance of heater coil is more than the supply wires
(d) supply wires are made of superior material
Answer: c
Answer: a
Answer: b
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(d) variable temperature coefficient
Answer: c
Answer: a
Ques 45. According to Kirchhoffs voltage law, the algebraic sum of all IR drops and
e.m.fs. in any closed loop of a network is always
(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) determined by battery e.m.fs.
(d) zero
Answer: d
Answer: d
Ques 47. To determine the polarity of the voltage drop across a resistor, it is
necessary to know
(a) value of current through the resistor
(b) direction of current through the resistor
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(c) value of resistor
(d) e.m.fs. in the circuit
Answer: b
Ques 48. “Maximum power output is obtained from a network when the load
resistance is equal to the output resistance of the network as seen from the
terminals of the load”. The above statement is associated with
(a) Millman’s theorem
(b) Thevenin’s theorem
(c) Superposition theorem
(d) Maximum power transfer theorem
Answer: d
Ques 49. For maximum transfer of power, internal resistance of the source should be
(a) equal to load resistance
(b) less than the load resistance
(c) greater than the load resistance
(d) none of the above
Answer: a
Ques 50. The circuit has resistors, capacitors and semi-conductor diodes. The circuit
will be known as
(a) non-linear circuit
(b) linear circuit
(c) bilateral circuit
(d) none of the above
Answer: a
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Ques 51. Application of Norton’s theorem to a circuit yields
(a) equivalent current source and impedance in series
(6) equivalent current source and impedance in parallel
(c) equivalent impedance
(d) equivalent current source
Answer: a
Ques 52. A star circuit has element of resistance R/2. The equivalent delta elements
will be
(a) R/6
(b) fi?
(c) 2R
(d) 4R
Answer: b
Answer: a
Ques 54. The force between two charges is 120 N. If the distance between the
charges is doubled, the force will be
(a) 60 N
(b) 30 N
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(c) 40 N
(d) 15 N
Answer: b
Answer: b
Answer: a
Ques 57. If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the plates of an air capacitor,
the capacitance will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remains unchanged
(d) become zero
Answer: b
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(c) permittivity same as that of air
(d) permittivity slightly more than that of air
Answer: b
Ques 59. If three 15 uF capacitors are connected in series, the net capacitance is
(a) 5 uF
(6) 30 uF
(c) 45 uF
(d) 50 uF
Answer: a
Ques 60. If three 10 uF capacitors are connected in parallel, the net capacitance is
(a) 20 uF
(b) 30 uE
(c) 40 uF
(d) 50 uF
Answer: b
Answer: a
Ques 62. If A.C. voltage is applied to capacitive circuit, the alternating current can
flow in the circuit because
(a) varying voltage produces the charging and dicharging currents
(b) of high peak value
(c) charging current can flow
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(d) discharge current can flow
Answer: a
Answer: b
Ques 64. “The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is
equal to the amount oflcharge enclosed”.
The above statement is associated with
(a) Coulomb’s square law
(b) Gauss’s law
(c) Maxwell’s first law
(d) Maxwell’s second law
Answer: b
Ques 65. Three capacitors each of the capacity C are given. The resultant capacity 2/3
C
can be obtained by using them
(a) all in series
(b) all in parallel
(c) two in parallel and third in series with this combination
(d) two in series and third in parallel across this combination
Answer: c
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Ques 66. Which of the following statement is true ?
(a) The current in the discharging capacitor grows linearly
(b) The current in the dicharging capacitor grows exponentially
(c) The current in the discharging capacitor decays exponentially
(d) The current in the discharging capacitor decreases constantly
Answer: b
Answer: b
Answer: b
Ques 69. The sparking between two electrical contacts can be reduced by inserting a
(a) capacitor in parallel with contacts
(6) capacitor in series with each contact
(c) resistance in line
(d) none of the above
Answer: a
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Ques 70. The power dissipated in a pure capacitor is
(a) zero
(6) proportional to applied voltage
(c) proportional to value of capacitance
(d) both (b) and (c) above
Answer: a
Answer: b
Answer: a
Answer: b
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Ques 74. A capacitor in a circuit became hot and ultimately exploded due to wrong
connections, which type of capacitor it could be ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(b) Ceramic capacitor
(c) Electrolytic capacitor
(d) Any-of the above
Answer: c
Ques 75. Energy stored in the electric field of a capacitor C when charged from a D.C
source of voltage V is equal to joules
(a) CV2
(b) C2V
(c) CV2
(d) CV
Answer: a
Ques 76. When 4 volts e.m.f. is applied across a 1 farad capacitor, it will store energy
of
(a) 2 joules
(b) 4 joules
(c) 6 joules
(d) 8 joules
Answer: d
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Answer: b
Ques 78. While testing a capacitor with ohm meter, if the capacitor shows charging,
but the final resistance reading is appreciably less than normal, it can be
concluded that the capacitor is
(a) short-circuited
(b) open circuited
(c) alright
(d) leaky
Answer: d
Ques 79. Which of the following capacitors will have the least value of breakdown
voltage ?
(a) Mica
(b) Paper
(c) Ceramic
(d) Electrolytic
Answer: d
Answer: b
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has the capacitance value of 500 pF
(c) Capacitors in series provide less capacitance but a higher voltage
breakdown rating for the combination
(d) A capacitor can store charge because it has a dielectric between two
conductors
Answer: b
Ques 82. Capacitors are mainly used for radio frequency tuning.
(a) Paper
(b) Air
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Answer: b
Answer: a
Ques 84. A single core cable used on 33000 V has conductor diameter 10 mm and the
internal diameter of sheath 25 mm. The maximum electrostatic stress in the
cable is
(a) 62 x 105 V/m
(b) 72 x 105 V/m
(c) 82 x 105 V/m
(d) 92 x 105 V/m
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Answer: b
Ques 85. The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting charged merely by the
nearness of a charged body is known as
(a) pholoelectric effect
(b) chemical effect
(c) magnetic effect
(d) induction
Answer: d
Answer: b
Ques 87. The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined as the time during which
capacitor charging voltage actually rises to ______ percent of its value.
(a) 37, initial
(b) 62, initial
(c) 62, final
(d) 37, final
Answer: c
Ques 88. What will happen to an insulating medium if voltage more than the
breakdown voltage is applied on it ?
(a) It will become magnetic
(b) It will melt
(c) It will get punctured or cracked
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(d) Its molecular structure will get changed
Answer: c
Ques 89. The bridge used for the measurement of the value of the capacitance is
(a) Wien’s bridge
(b) Wheatstone bridge
(c) Schering bridge
(d) Hay’s bridge
Answer: c
Answer: b
Answer: a
Ques 92. During charging the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
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(d) becomes zero
Answer: a
Ques 93. The best indication about the state of charge on a lead-acid battery is given
by
(a) output voltage
(b) temperature of electrolyte
(c) specific gravity of electrolyte
(d) none of the above
Answer: c
Answer: b
Answer: c
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(c) a dose of H2SO4
(d) none of the above
Answer: d
Answer: d
Ques 98. In a lead-acid cell dilute sulfuric acid (electrolyte) approximately comprises
the following
(a) one part H2O, three parts H2SO4
(b) two parts H2O, two parts H2SO4
(c) three parts H2O, one part H2SO4
(d) all H2S04
Answer: c
Answer: d
Ques 100. The average charging voltage for alkali cell is about
(a) 1 V
(b) 1.2 V
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(c) 1.7 V
(d) 2.1 V
Answer: c
Ques 101. Lead-acid cell has a life of nearly charges and discharges
(a) 500
(b) 700
(c) 1000
(d) 1250
Answer: d
Ques 102. The internal resistance of a lead-acid cell is that of Edison cell
(a) less than
(b) more than
(c) equal to
(d) none of the above
Answer: a
Answer: d
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(6) a mechanical gauge
(c) hydrometer
(d) psychrometer
Answer: c
Ques 105. When the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid cell is reduced to
1.1 to 1.15 the cell is in
(a) charged state
(b) discharged state
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) active state
Answer: b
Answer: d
Answer: a
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(b) excess accumulation of sediment at the bottom of the cell
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Answer: c
Answer: d
Answer: d
Ques 111. Following will occur if level of electrolyte falls below plates
(a) capacity of the cell is reduced
(b) life of the cell is reduced
(c) open plates are converted to lead sulphate
(d) all above
Answer: d
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(c) 8 amperes for 6 hours
(d) 6 amperes for 8 hours
Answer: d
Ques 113. In constant-current charging method, the supply voltage from discharged to
fully charged condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
(d) none of the above
Answer: b
Ques 114. In constant voltage charging method, the charging current from discharged
to fully charged condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
(d) none of the above
Answer: a
Answer: d
Ques 116. Following will happen if the specific gravity of electrolyte becomes more
than 1.23.
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(a) Loss of capacity
(b) Loss of life
(c) Corrosion of the grids of the plate
(d) All above
Answer: d
Answer: d
Answer: d
Answer: a
Ques 120. In a lead-acid cell, if the specific gravity of sulphuric acid is 1.8, it will
require following ratio of acid to water to get mixture of specific gravity of 1.3
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(a) 6 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(b) 4 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(c) 4 parts of acid to 6 parts of water
(d) 4 parts of acid to 8 parts of water
Answer: c
Ques 121. Following will happen if battery charging rate is too high
(a) excessive gassing will occur
(b) temperature rise will occur
(c) bulging and buckling of plates will occur
(d) all above will occur
Answer: d
Answer: d
Ques 123. _____ of electrolyte indicates the state of charge of the battery
(a) colour
(b) mass
(c) viscosity
(d) specific gravity
Answer: d
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Ques 124. The following indicate that battery on charge has attained full charge
(a) colour of electrode
(b) gassing
(c) specific gravity
(d) all above
Answer: d
Answer: a
Ques 126. A battery of 6 cells will show a drop of _____ volts from fully charged state
to fully discharged state.
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.4
(d) 2.9
Answer: c
Ques 127. Hydrogen evolved during charging produces explosive mixture when it is
more than
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 6%
(d) 8%
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Answer: d
Answer: b
Answer: c
Ques 130. When two batteries are connected in parallel, it should be ensured that
(a) they have same e.m.f.
(b) they have same make
(c) they have same ampere-hour capacity
(d) they have identical internal resistance
Answer: a
Ques 131. Petroleum jelly is applied to the electrical connections to the lead-acid
battery
(a) prevent local heating
(b) prevent short-circuiting
(c) reduce path resistance
(d) prevent corrosion
Answer: d
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Ques 132. Which of the following factors adversely affects the capacity of the lead
acid battery ?
(a) Temperature of surroundings
(b) Specific gravity of electrolyte
(c) Rate of discharge
(d) All of the above
Answer: d
Answer: c
Answer: b
Ques 135. A heater is rated as 230 V, 10 kW, A.C. The value 230 V refers to
(a) average voltage
(b) r.m.s. voltage
(c) peak voltage
(d) none of the above
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Answer: b
Ques 136. The voltage of domestic supply is 220V. This figure represents
(a) mean value
(b) r.m.s. value
(c) peak value
(d) average value
Answer: a
Ques 137. The power consumed in a circuit element will be least when the phase
difference between the current and voltage is
(a) 180″
(b) 90°
(c) 60°
(d) 0°
Answer: b
Ques 138. The r.m.s. value and mean value is the same in the case of
(a) triangular wave
(6) sine wave
(c) square wave
(d) half wave rectified sine wave
Answer: c
Ques 139. For the same peak value which of the following wave will ‘have the highest
r.m.s. value ?
(a) square wave
(b) half wave rectified sine wave
(c) triangular wave
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(d) sine wave
Answer: a
Answer: a
Answer: b
Answer: e
Ques 143. In series resonant circuit, increasing inductance to its twice value and
reducing capacitance to its half value
(a) will change the maximum value of current at resonance
(6) will change the resonance frequency
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(c) will change the impedance at resonance frequency
(d) will increase the selectivity of the circuit
Answer: d
Answer: c
Answer: e
Answer: a
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Ques 147. Power factor of the following circuit will be zero
(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) capacitance
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer: d
Answer: c
Answer: d
Answer: c
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Ques 151. The double energy transient occur in the
(a) purely inductive circuit
(b) R-L circuit
(c) R-C circuit
(d) R-L-C circuit
Answer: d
Answer: d
Answer: d
Answer: b
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Ques 155. In a circuit containing R, L and C, power loss can take place in
(a) C only
(b) L only
(c) R only
(d) all above
Answer: c
Answer: c
Answer: a
Answer: d
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Ques 159. Magnitude of current at resonance in R-L-C circuit
(a) depends upon the magnitude of R
(b) depends upon the magnitude of L
(c) depends upon the magnitude of C
(d) depends upon the magnitude of R, Land C
Answer: a
Answer: e
Ques 161. Which of the following coil will have large resonant frequency ?
(a) A coil with large resistance
(b) A coil with low resistance
(c) A coil with large distributed capacitance
(d) A coil with low distributed capacitance
Answer: c
Ques 162. In an AC. circuit, a low value of kVAR compared with kW indicates
(a) low efficiency
(b) high power factor
(c) unity power factor
(d) maximum load current
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Answer: b
Ques 163. All definitions of power factor of a series R-L-C circuit are correct except
(a) ratio of net reactance and impedance
(b) ratio of kW and kVA
(c) ratio of J and Z
(d) ratio of W and VA
Answer: a
Ques 164. The apparent power drawn by an A.C. circuit is 10 kVA and active power is 8
kW. The reactive power in the circuit is
(a) 4 kVAR
(b) 6 kVAR
(c) 8 kVAR
(d) 16 kVAR
Answer: b
Ques 165. What will be the phase angle between two alternating waves of equal
frequency, when one wave attains maximum value the other is at zero value ?
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°
Answer: c
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(d) none of the above
Answer: a
Ques 167. In a parallel R-C circuit, the current always______the applied voltage
(a) lags
(b) leads
(c) remains in phase with
(d) none of the above
Answer: b
Answer: a
Answer: c
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(d) have current in each section equal to the line current
Answer: b
Answer: d
Ques 172. In a three-phase supply floating neutral is undesirable because it way give
rise to
(a) high voltage across the load
(b) low voltage across the load
(c) unequal line voltages across the load
Answer: c
Ques 173. The r.m.s. value of half wave rectified sine wave is 200 V. The r.m.s. value of
full wave rectified AC. will be
(a) 282.8 V
(b) 141.4 V
(c) 111 V
(d) 100 V
Answer: a
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(d) the number of electrons passing through a point in one second
Answer: c
Ques 175. An A.C. voltage is impressed across a pure resistance of 3.5 ohms in parallel
with a pure inductance of impedance of 3.5 ohms,
(a) the current through the resistance is more
(b) the current through the resistance is less
(c) both resistance and inductance carry equal currents
(d) none of the above
Answer: c
Ques 176. In a pure inductive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to 1/2, the
current will
(a) be reduced by half
(b) be doubled
(c) be four times as high
(d) be reduced to one fourth
Answer: b
Ques 177. In a pure capacitive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to 1/2, the
current will
(a) be reduced by half
(b) be doubled
(c) be four times at high
(d) be reduced to one fourth
Answer: a
Ques 178. In each of the three coils of a three phase generator, an alternating voltage
having an r.m.s. value of 220 V is induced. Which of the following values is
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indicated by the voltmeters ?
(a) 220 V
(b) 220V3V
(c) 220/V3 V
(d) none of the above
Answer: a
Ques 179. According to Fleming’s right-hand rule for finding the direction of induced
e.m.f., when middle finger points in the direction of induced e.m.f., forefinger
will point in the direction of
(a) motion of conductor
(b) lines of force
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Answer: b
Ques 180. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be
(a) severe sparking
(b) rough commutator surface
(c) imperfect contact
(d) any of the above
Answer: d
Ques 181. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of
armature conductors is fixed, then which winding will give the higher e.m.f. ?
(a) Lap winding
(b) Wave winding
(c) Either of (a) and (b) above
(d) Depends on other features of design
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Answer: b
Answer: b
Ques 183. In case of D.C. machines, mechanical losses are primary function of
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) speed
(d) none of above
Answer: c
Ques 184. In D.C. generators, current to the external circuit from armature is given
through
(a) commutator
(b) solid connection
(c) slip rings
(d) none of above
Answer: a
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Answer: a
Ques 186. In case of a 4-pole D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap winding
with sixteen coils, the pole pitch will be
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Answer: b
Ques 187. D.C. generators are connected to the busbars or disconnected from them
only under the floating condition
(a) to avoid sudden loading of the primemover
(b) to avoid mechanicaljerk to the shaft
(c) to avoid burning of switch contacts
(d) all above
Answer: d
Ques 188. Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a D.C. machine due to
(a) oscillating magnetic field
(b) pulsating magnetic flux
(c) relative rotation between field and armature
(d) all above
Answer: c
Ques 189. The function of pole shoes in the case of D.C. machine is
(a) to reduce the reluctance of the mag¬netic path
(b) to spread out the flux to achieve uniform flux density
(c) to support the field coil
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(d) to discharge all the above functions
Answer: d
Ques 190. Which of the following statement about D.C. generators is false ?
(a) Compensating winding in a D.C. machine helps in commutation
(b) In a D. C. generator interpoles winding is connected in series with the
armature winding
(c) Back pitch and front pitch are both odd and approximately equal to the
pole pitch
(d) Equilizing bus bars are used with parallel running of D.C. shunt
gen¬erators
Answer: d
Answer: a
Answer: c
Ques 193. In a D.C. generator the ripples in the direct e.m.f. generated are reduced by
(a) using conductor of annealed copper
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(b) using commutator with large number of segments
(c) using carbon brushes of superior quality
(d) using equiliser rings
Answer: c
Ques 194. The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator isE. Now while pole
flux remains constant, if the speed of the generator is doubled, the e.m.f.
generated will be
(a) E/2
(b) 2E
(c) slightly less than E
(d) E
Answer: b
Ques 195. For the parallel operation of two or more D.C. compound generators, we
should ensure that
(a) voltage of the incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(b) polarity of incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(c) all the series fields should be run in parallel by means of equilizer
connection
(d) series fields of all generators should be either on positive side or negative
side of the armature
(e) all conditions mentioned above should be satisfied
Answer: d
Ques 196. In a D.C. generator the number of mechanical degrees and electrical
degrees will be the same when
(a) r.p.m. is more than 300
(b) r.p.m. is less than 300
(c) number of poles is 4
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(d) number of poles is 2
Answer: d
Answer: b
Ques 198. In a D.C. generator in order to reduce sparking at brushes, the self-induced
e.m.f. in the coil is neutralised by all of the following except
(a) interpoles
(b) dummy coils
(c) compensating winding
(d) shifting of axis of brushes
Answer: b
Answer: d
Ques 200. If residual magnetism is present in a D.C. generator, the induced e.m.f. at
zero speed will be
(a) zero
(b) small
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(c) the same as rated voltage
(d) high
Answer: a
Answer: a
Ques 202. The critical resistance of the D.C. generator is the resistance of
(a) field
(b) brushes
(c) armature
(d) load
Answer: a
Ques 203. The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V when the load current is
5 A. If the load current is increased to 10 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 150 V
(b) less than 150 V
(c) greater than 150 V
(d) none of the above
Answer: c
Ques 204. The open circuit voltage of a compound generator is 250 V. At full load the
terminal voltage
(a) will be less than 250 V
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(b) will always be 250 V
(c) may be greater or less than 250 V
(d) none of the above
Answer: c
Answer: c
Ques 206. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor can be changed by
(a) interchanging supply terminals
(b) interchanging field terminals
(c) either of (a) and (b) above
(d) None of the above
Answer: b
Ques 207. Which D.C. motor will be preferred for machine tools ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differential compound motor
Answer: b
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(c) back e.m.f. of these motors is zero initially
(d) to restrict armature current as there is no back e.m.f. while starting
Answer: d
Answer: d
Ques 211. What will happen if the back e.m.f. of a D.C. motor vanishes suddenly?
(a) The motor will stop
(b) The motor will continue to run
(c) The armature may burn
(d) The motor will run noisy
Answer: c
Ques 212. In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back e.m.f. only
because
(a) back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop
(b) armature drop is negligible
(c) flux is proportional to armature current
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(d) flux is practically constant in D:C. shunt motors
Answer: d
Ques 213. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily confirmed that a
particular motor is D.C. motor?
(a) Frame
(b) Shaft
(c) Commutator
(d) Stator
Answer: c
Answer: a
Answer: d
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(d) the motor will run in the same direction at reduced r.p.m.
Answer: a
Ques 217. The running winding of a single phase motor on testing with meggar is
found to be ground. Most probable location of the ground will be
(a) at the end connections
(b) at the end terminals
(c) anywhere on the winding inside a slot
(d) at the slot edge where coil enters or comes out of the slot
Answer: d
Ques 218. Direction of rotation of a split phase motor can be reversed by reversing the
connection of
(a) running winding only
(b) starting winding only
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer: c
Ques 219. In squirrel cage induction motors, the rotor slots are usually given slight
skew in order to
(a) reduce windage losses
(b) reduce eddy currents
(c) reduce accumulation of dirt and dust
(d) reduce magnetic hum
Answer: d
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(b) the power factor will decrease
(c) speed of motor will increase
(d) the windage losses will increase
Answer: b
Answer: c
Ques 222. A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4% slip. The frequency of rotor
e.m.f. will be
(a) 200 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 2 Hz
(d) 0.2 Hz
Answer: c
Ques 223. In Ns is the synchronous speed and s the slip, then actual running speed of
an induction motor will be
(a) Ns
(b) s.N,
(c) (l-s)Ns
(d) (Ns-l)s
Answer: c
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Ques 224. The starting torque of a squirrel-cage induction motor is
(a) low
(b) negligible
(c) same as full-load torque
(d) slightly more than full-load torque
Answer: a
Answer: a
Ques 226. An induction motor with 1000 r.p.m. speed will have
(a) 8 poles
(b) 6 poles
(c) 4 poles
(d) 2 poles
Answer: b
Ques 227. Which of the following methods is easily applicable to control the speed of
the squirrel-cage induction motor ?
(a) By changing the number of stator poles
(b) Rotor rheostat control
(c) By operating two motors in cascade
(d) By injecting e.m.f. in the rotor circuit
Answer: a
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Ques 228. It is advisable to avoid line-starting of induction motor and use starter
because
(a) motor takes five to seven times its full load current
(b) it will pick-up very high speed and may go out of step
(c) it will run in reverse direction
(d) starting torque is very high
Answer: a
Ques 229. In a three-phase induction motor, the number of poles in the rotor winding
is always
(a) zero
(b) more than the number of poles in stator
(c) less than number of poles in stator
(d) equal to number of poles in stator
Answer: d
Answer: a
Ques 231. The speed of a squirrel-cage induction motor can be controlled by all of the
following except
(a) changing supply frequency
(b) changing number of poles
(c) changing winding resistance
(d) reducing supply voltage
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Answer: c
Answer: c
Ques 233. A 3-phase induction motor stator delta connected, is carrying full load and
one of its fuses blows out. Then the motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phases
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Answer: a
Ques 234. A 3-phase induction motor delta connected is carrying too heavy load and
one of its fuses blows out. Then the motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phase
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Answer: c
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(b) 8% in the rotor torque
(c) 12% in the rotor torque
(d) 16% in the rotor torque
Answer: d
Answer: d
Answer: a
Answer: a
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(c) startes cannot be used on these machines
(d) starting winding is not provided on the machines
Answer: b
Answer: a
Answer: c
Ques 242. Under which of the following conditions hunting of synchronous motor is
likely to occur ?
(a) Periodic variation of load
(b) Over-excitation
(c) Over-loading for long periods
(d) Small and constant load
Answer: a
Ques 243. The power developed by a synchronous motor will be maximum when the
load angle is
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(a) zero
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°
Answer: c
Answer: a
Answer: a
Answer: c
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Ques 247. A synchronous motor has better power factor as compared to that of an
equivalent induction motor. This is mainly because
(a) synchronous motor has no slip
(b) stator supply is not required to produce magnetic field
(c) mechanical load on the rotor remains constant
(d) synchronous motor has large airgap
Answer: b
Ques 248. When the voltage applied to a synchronous motor is increased, which of
the following will reduce ?
(a) Stator flux
(b) Pull in torque
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer: d
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Answer: a
Ques 251. Which of the following methods is used to start a synchronous motor ?
(a) Damper winding
(b) Star-delta starter
(c) Damper winding in conjunction with star-delta starter
(d) Resistance starter in the armature circuit
Answer: c
Answer: a
Answer: b
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Answer: a
Answer: c
Ques 256. Which of the following methods may be used to convert A.C. system to D.C.
?
(a) Rectifiers
(b) Motor converters
(c) Motor-generator sets
(d) Rotary converters
(e) All of the above
Answer: e
Answer: d
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(d) aluminium alloy
Answer: a
Ques 259. Which of the following medium is employed for extinction of arc in air
circuit breaker ?
(a) Water
(b) Oil
(c) Air
(d) SF6
Answer: c
Answer: e
Ques 261. Thermal overload relays are used to protect the motor against over current
due to
(a) short-circuits
(b) heavy loads
(c) grounds
(d) all of the above
Answer: b
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(b) arc extinguishers
(c) circuits to break the system
(d) transformers to isolate the two systems
(e) any of the above
Answer: a
Ques 263. The voltage appearing across the contacts after opening of the circuit
breaker is called______voltage.
(a) recovery
(b) surge
(c) operating
(d) arc
(e) none of the above
Answer: a
Ques 264. Which of the following is the least expensive protection for overcurrent is
low voltage system ?
(a) Rewireable fuse
(b) Isolator
(c) Oil circuit breaker
(d) Air break circuit breaker
(e) None of the above
Answer: a
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(e) any of these
Answer: e
Ques 266. The single phasing relays are used for the protection of
(a) single phase motors only
(b) two phase motors only
(c) two single phase motors running in parallel
(d) three phase motors
Answer: d
Answer: a
Answer: a
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(d) reactors
Answer: d
Answer: d
Answer: b
Ques 272. The current carrying capacity of cables in D.C. is more thanthat in A.C.
mainly due to
(a) absence of harmonics
(b) non-existence of any stability limit
(c) smaller dielectric loss
(d) absence of ripples
(e) none of the above
Answer: c
Ques 273. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutral is
(a) blue
(b) black
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(c) brown
(d) none of the above
Answer: a
Ques 274. In the cables, the location of fault is usually found out by comparing
(a) the resistance of the conductor
(b) the inductance of conductors
(c) the capacitances of insulated conductors
(d) all above parameters
Answer: c
Answer: c
Answer: a
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(d) all of the above
Answer: d
Answer: d
Answer: a
Answer: c
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(d) calibration of voltmeter
(e) all of the above
Answer: e
Answer: b
Answer: d
Answer: a
A. Covalent
B. Electrovalent
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C. Co-ordinate
D. None of the above
Answer: a
a. Positive
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. None of the above
Answer: c
a. Germanium
b. Silicon
c. Carbon
d. Sulphur
Answer: b
a. 2
b. 3
c. 6
d. 4
Answer: d
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Ques 289. When a pentavalent impurity is added to a pure semiconductor, it becomes
………
a. An insulator
b. An intrinsic semiconductor
c. p-type semiconductor
d. n-type semiconductor
Answer: d
a. Positively charged
b. Negatively charged
c. Electrically neutral
d. None of the above
Answer: c
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 3
Answer: d
a. Holes
b. Free electrons
c. Valence electrons
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d. Bound electrons
Answer: a
a. A free electron
b. The incomplete part of an electron pair bond
c. A free proton
d. A free neutron
Answer: b
a. Only holes
b. Only free electrons
c. Holes and free electrons
d. None of the above
Answer: c
Ques 295. The battery connections required to forward bias a pn junction are ……
Answer: a
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a. Acceptor ions
b. Holes and electrons
c. Donor ions
d. None of the above
Answer: b
Answer: b
Answer: b
Ques 299. With forward bias to a pn junction , the width of depletion layer ………
a. Decreases
b.Increases
c. Remains the same
d. None of the above
Answer: a
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Ques 300. A zener diode has ………..
a. one pn junction
b. two pn junctions
c. three pn junctions
d. none of the above
Answer: a
a. an amplifier
b. a voltage regulator
c. a rectifier
d. a multivibrator
Answer: b
a. reverse
b. forward
c. either reverse or forward
d. none of the above
Answer: a
Ques 303. A zener diode utilizes ……….. characteristics for its operation.
a. forward
b. reverse
c. both forward and reverse
d. none of the above
Answer: b
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Ques 304. In the breakdown region, a zener didoe behaves like a …………… source.
a. constant voltage
b. constant current
c. constant resistance
d. none of the above
Answer: a
a. half-wave rectifier
b. centre-tap full-wave rectifier
c. bridge full-wave rectifier
d. none of the above
Answer: b
a. half-wave rectifier
b. centre-tap full-wave rectifier
c. bridge full-wave rectifier
d. none of the above
Answer: c
a. one pn junction
b. two pn junctions
c. three pn junctions
d. four pn junctions
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Answer: b
a. four
b. three
c. one
d. two
Answer: d
Ques 309. The element that has the biggest size in a transistor is ………………..
a. collector
b. base
c. emitter
d. collector-base-junction
Answer: a
a. acceptor ions
b. donor ions
c. free electrons
d. holes
Answer: d
a. free electrons
b. holes
c. donor ions
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d. acceptor ions
Answer: b
a. IC = IE + IB
b. IB = IC + IE
c. IE = IC – IB
d. IE = IC + IB
Answer: d
Ques 313. The most commonly used transistor arrangement is …………… arrangement
a. common emitter
b. common base
c. common collector
d. none of the above
Answer: a
Answer: a
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Ques 315. The most commonly used semiconductor in the manufacture of a transistor
is ………….
a. germanium
b. silicon
c. carbon
d. none of the above
Answer: b
Answer: b
Ques 317. For proper operation of the transistor, its collector should have …………
Answer: b
Ques 318. If the value of collector current IC increases, then the value of VCE …………
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d. None of the above
Answer: b
Ques 319. An ammeter is connected in …………….. with the circuit element whose
current we wish to measure
a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Series or parallel
d) None of the above
Answer: a
Ques 320. A galvanometer in series with a high resistance is called ……………
a) An ammeter
b) A voltmeter
c) A wattmeter
d) None of the above
Answer: b
a) Infinite
b) Very large
c) Very low
d) None of the above
Answer: c
a) Zero
b) Very high
c) Very low
d) None of the above
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Answer: b
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) None of the above
Answer: b
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) None of the above
Answer: c
Answer: a
a) Unidirectional
b) Bidirectional
c) Mechanical
d) None of the above
Answer: a
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Ques 327. An SCR is sometimes called …………
a) Triac
b) Diac
c) Unijunction transistor
d) Thyristor
Answer: d
Ques 328. In the normal operation of an SCR, anode is …………… w.r.t. cathode
a) At zero potential
b) Negative
c) Positive
d) None of the above
Answer: c
Answer: a
a) Cathode
b) Anode
c) Anode supply
d) Gate
Answer: d
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b) Reducing gate voltage to zero
c) Reverse biasing the gate
d) None of the above
Answer: a
a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Voltage as well as current
d) None of the above
Answer: b
Answer: a
Ques 334. If firing angle in an SCR circuit is increased, the output …………
Answer: c
Ques 335. If gate current is increased, then anode-cathode voltage at which SCR closes
…………….
a) Is decreased
b) Is increased
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c) Remains the same
d) None of the above
Answer: a
Ques 336. When SCR is OFF, the current in the circuit is …………….
a) Exactly zero
b) Small leakage current
c) Large leakage current
d) None of the above
Answer: b
Ques 337. An SCR can exercise control over ………. of a.c. supply
Answer: d
Ques 338. When SCR starts conducting, then ……………. loses all control
a) Gate
b) Cathode
c) Anode
d) None of the above
Answer: a
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