ETO Questions

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Ques 1. The substances which have a large number of free electrons and offer a low
resistance are called
(a) insulators
(b) inductors
(c) semi-conductors
(d) conductors

Answer: d

Ques 2. The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is called


(a) resistance
(b) reluctance
(c) conductance
(d) inductance

Answer: c

Ques 3. Conductance is reciprocal of


(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) reluctance
(d) capacitance

Answer: a

Ques 4. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as


(a) length
(6) area of cross-section
(c) temperature
(d) resistivity

Answer: b

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Ques 5. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant

Answer: a

Ques 6. With rise in temperature the resistance of semi-conductors


(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant

Answer: a

Ques 7. An instrument which detects electric current is known as


(a) voltmeter
(b) rheostat
(c) wattmeter
(d) galvanometer

Answer: d

Ques 8. You have to replace 1500 Q resistor in radio. You have no 1500 Q resistor but
have several 1000 Q ones which you would connect
(a) two in parallel
(b) two in parallel and one in series
(c) three in parallel
(d) three in series

Answer: b

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Ques 9. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when
(a) same current passes in turn through both
(b) both carry the same value of current
(c) total current equals the sum of branch currents
(d) sum of IR drops equals the applied e.m.f.

Answer: a

Ques 10. Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a parallel D.C.
circuit?
(a) Elements have individual currents
(b) Currents are additive
(c) Voltages are additive
(d) Power are additive

Answer: d

Ques 11. Ohm’s law is not applicable to


(a) vacuum tubes
(b) carbon resistors
(c) high voltage circuits
(d) circuits with low current densities

Answer: a

Ques 12. Which is the best conductor of electricity ?


(a) Iron
(b) Silver
(c) Copper
(d) Carbon

Answer: a

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Ques 13. Varistors are
(a) insulators
(6) non-linear resistors
(c) carbon resistors
(d) resistors with zero temperature coefficient

Answer: b

Ques 14. Insulating materials have the function of


(a) preventing a short circuit between conducting wires
(b) preventing an open circuit between the voltage source and the load
(c) conducting very large currents
(d) storing very high currents

Answer: b

Ques 15. The rating of a fuse wire is always expressed in


(a) ampere-hours
(b) ampere-volts
(c) kWh
(d) amperes

Answer: d

Ques 16. The minimum charge on an ion is


(a) equal to the atomic number of the atom
(b) equal to the charge of an electron
(c) equal to the charge of the number of electrons in an atom (#) zero

Answer: b

Ques 17. In a series circuit with unequal resistances


(a) the highest resistance has the most of the current through it

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(b) the lowest resistance has the highest voltage drop
(c) the lowest resistance has the highest current
(d) the highest resistance has the highest voltage drop

Answer: d

Ques 18. Which of the following statement is true?


(a) A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(b) A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(c) A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter
(d) A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an ammeter

Answer: c

Ques 19. If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the current
(a) increases in the branch of the lowest resistance
(b) increases in each branch
(c) is zero in all branches
(d) is zero in the highest resistive branch

Answer: c

Ques 20. If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm resistance is doubled in length, its resistance
becomes
(a) 0.4 ohm
(b) 0.6 ohm
(c) 0.8 ohm
(d) 1.0 ohm

Answer: a

Ques 21. Three 60 W bulbs are in parallel across the 60 V power line. If one bulb
burns open

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(a) there will be heavy current in the main line
(b) rest of the two bulbs will not light
(c) all three bulbs will light
(d) the other two bulbs will light

Answer: d

Ques 22. The insulation on a current carrying conductor is provided


(a) to prevent leakage of current
(b) to prevent shock
(c) both of above factors
(d) none of above factors

Answer: c

Ques 23. A 40 W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 40 W bulb is
replaced by 100 W bulb, the heater output will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain same
(d) heater will burn out

Answer: d

Ques 24. In an electric kettle water boils in 10 m minutes. It is required to boil the
boiler in 15 minutes, using same supply mains
(a) length of heating element should be decreased
(b) length of heating element should be increased
(c) length of heating element has no effect on heating if water
(d) none of the above

Answer: a

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Ques 25. An electric filament bulb can be worked from
(a) D.C. supply only
(b) A.C. supply only
(c) Battery supply only
(d) All above

Answer: d

Ques 26. If the efficiency of a machine is to be high, what should be low ?


(a) Input power
(b) Losses
(c) True component of power
(d) kWh consumed
(e) Ratio of output to input

Answer: b

Ques 27. When electric current passes through a metallic conductor, its temperature
rises. This is due to
(a) collisions between conduction electrons and atoms
(b) the release of conduction electrons from parent atoms
(c) mutual collisions between metal atoms
(d) mutual collisions between conducting electrons

Answer: a

Ques 28. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W rated at 250 V will have resistance ratio as
(a) 4 : 25
(b) 25 : 4
(c) 2 : 5
(d) 5 : 2

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Answer: c

Ques 29. Whether circuit may be AC. or D.C. one, following is most effective in
reducing the magnitude of the current.
(a) Reactor
(b) Capacitor
(c) Inductor
(d) Resistor

Answer: d

Ques 30. Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in series across 230 V
(alternating).
Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) 100 W lamp will glow brighter
(b) 40 W lamp will glow brighter
(c) Both lamps will glow equally bright
(d) 40 W lamp will fuse

Answer: b

Ques 31. In the case of direct current


(a) magnitude and direction of current remains constant
(b) magnitude and direction of current changes with time
(c) magnitude of current changes with time
(d) magnitude of current remains constant

Answer: b

Ques 32. When electric current passes through a bucket full of water, lot of bubbling
is observed. This suggests that the type of supply is
(a) A.C.
(b) D.C.

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(c) any of above two
(d) none of the above

Answer: b

Ques 33. Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in


(a) parallel
(b) series
(c) series-parallel
(d) end-to-end

Answer: a

Ques 34. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high
(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) capacitance
(d) impedance

Answer: b

Ques 35. Copper wire of certain length and resistance is drawn out to three times its
length without change in volume, the new resistance of wire becomes
(a) 1/9 times
(b) 3 times
(e) 9 times
(d) unchanged

Answer: c

Ques 36. Three identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in series.
The resultant resistance of the first combination to the second will be
(a) 9 times

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(b) 1/9 times
(c) 1/3 times
(d) 3 times

Answer: b

Ques 37. Which method can be used for absolute measurement of resistances ?
(a) Lorentz method
(b) Releigh method
(c) Ohm’s law method
(d) Wheatstone bridge method

Answer: d

Ques 38. Ohm’s law is not applicable to


(a) semi-conductors
(b) D.C. circuits
(c) small resistors
(d) high currents

Answer: a

Ques 39. Two copper conductors have equal length. The cross-sectional area of one
conductor is four times that of the other. If the conductor having smaller
cross-sectional area has a resistance of 40 ohms the resistance of other
conductor will be
(a) 160 ohms
(b) 80 ohms
(c) 20 ohms
(d) 10 ohms

Answer: d

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Ques 40. When current flows through heater coil it glows but supply wiring does not
glow because
(a) current through supply line flows at slower speed
(b) supply wiring is covered with insulation layer
(c) resistance of heater coil is more than the supply wires
(d) supply wires are made of superior material

Answer: c

Ques 41. Which of the following statement is correct ?


(a) A semi-conductor is a material whose conductivity is same as between that
of a conductor and an insulator
(b) A semi-conductor is a material which has conductivity having average
value of conductivity of metal and insulator
(c) A semi-conductor is one which con¬ducts only half of the applied voltage
(d) A semi-conductor is a material made of alternate layers of conducting
material and insulator

Answer: a

Ques 42. A rheostat differs from potentiometer in the respect that it


(a) has lower wattage rating
(b) has higher wattage rating
(c) has large number of turns
(d) offers large number of tapping

Answer: b

Ques 43. A thermistor has


(a) positive temperature coefficient
(b) negative temperature coefficient
(c) zero temperature coefficient

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(d) variable temperature coefficient

Answer: c

Ques 44. Conductance : mho ::


(a) resistance : ohm
(b) capacitance : henry
(c) inductance : farad
(d) lumen : steradian

Answer: a

Ques 45. According to Kirchhoffs voltage law, the algebraic sum of all IR drops and
e.m.fs. in any closed loop of a network is always
(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) determined by battery e.m.fs.
(d) zero

Answer: d

Ques 46. The concept on which Superposition theorem is based is


(a) reciprocity
(b) duality
(c) non-linearity
(d) linearity

Answer: d

Ques 47. To determine the polarity of the voltage drop across a resistor, it is
necessary to know
(a) value of current through the resistor
(b) direction of current through the resistor

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(c) value of resistor
(d) e.m.fs. in the circuit

Answer: b

Ques 48. “Maximum power output is obtained from a network when the load
resistance is equal to the output resistance of the network as seen from the
terminals of the load”. The above statement is associated with
(a) Millman’s theorem
(b) Thevenin’s theorem
(c) Superposition theorem
(d) Maximum power transfer theorem

Answer: d

Ques 49. For maximum transfer of power, internal resistance of the source should be
(a) equal to load resistance
(b) less than the load resistance
(c) greater than the load resistance
(d) none of the above

Answer: a

Ques 50. The circuit has resistors, capacitors and semi-conductor diodes. The circuit
will be known as
(a) non-linear circuit
(b) linear circuit
(c) bilateral circuit
(d) none of the above

Answer: a

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Ques 51. Application of Norton’s theorem to a circuit yields
(a) equivalent current source and impedance in series
(6) equivalent current source and impedance in parallel
(c) equivalent impedance
(d) equivalent current source

Answer: a

Ques 52. A star circuit has element of resistance R/2. The equivalent delta elements
will be
(a) R/6
(b) fi?
(c) 2R
(d) 4R

Answer: b

Ques 53. Choose the incorrect statement.


(a) A branch formed by the parallel connection of any resistor R and open
circuit has the characteristic of an open circuit.
(b) A branch formed by the parallel connection of any resistor R and a short
circuit has the characteristic of a short circuit.
(c) A branch formed by the series connection of any resistor R and an open
circuit has the characteristic of an open circuit.
(d) A branch formed by the series connection of any resistor R and a short
circuit has the characteristic of resistor R.

Answer: a

Ques 54. The force between two charges is 120 N. If the distance between the
charges is doubled, the force will be
(a) 60 N
(b) 30 N

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(c) 40 N
(d) 15 N

Answer: b

Ques 55. The lines of force due to charged particles are


(a) always straight
(b) always curved
(c) sometimes curved
(d) none of the above

Answer: b

Ques 56. The direction of electric field due +0 positive charge is .


(a) away from the charge
(b) towards the charge
(c) both (a) and (6)
(d) none of the above

Answer: a

Ques 57. If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the plates of an air capacitor,
the capacitance will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remains unchanged
(d) become zero

Answer: b

Ques 58. For making a capacitor, it is better to select a dielectric having


(a) low permittivity
(b) high permittivity

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(c) permittivity same as that of air
(d) permittivity slightly more than that of air

Answer: b

Ques 59. If three 15 uF capacitors are connected in series, the net capacitance is
(a) 5 uF
(6) 30 uF
(c) 45 uF
(d) 50 uF

Answer: a

Ques 60. If three 10 uF capacitors are connected in parallel, the net capacitance is
(a) 20 uF
(b) 30 uE
(c) 40 uF
(d) 50 uF

Answer: b

Ques 61. An electrolytic capacitor can be used for


(a) D.C. only
(b) AC. only
(c) both D.C. as well as A.C.

Answer: a

Ques 62. If A.C. voltage is applied to capacitive circuit, the alternating current can
flow in the circuit because
(a) varying voltage produces the charging and dicharging currents
(b) of high peak value
(c) charging current can flow

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(d) discharge current can flow

Answer: a

Ques 63. Which of the following statements is correct ?


(a) Air capacitors have a black band to indicate the outside foil
(6) Electrolytic capacitor must be connected in the correct polarity
(c) Ceramic capacitors must be connected in the correct polarity
(d) Mica capacitors are available in capacitance value of 1 to 10 pF

Answer: b

Ques 64. “The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is
equal to the amount oflcharge enclosed”.
The above statement is associated with
(a) Coulomb’s square law
(b) Gauss’s law
(c) Maxwell’s first law
(d) Maxwell’s second law

Answer: b

Ques 65. Three capacitors each of the capacity C are given. The resultant capacity 2/3
C
can be obtained by using them
(a) all in series
(b) all in parallel
(c) two in parallel and third in series with this combination
(d) two in series and third in parallel across this combination

Answer: c

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Ques 66. Which of the following statement is true ?
(a) The current in the discharging capacitor grows linearly
(b) The current in the dicharging capacitor grows exponentially
(c) The current in the discharging capacitor decays exponentially
(d) The current in the discharging capacitor decreases constantly

Answer: b

Ques 67. In a capacitor the electric charge is stored in


(a) metal plates
(b) dielectric
(c) both (a) and (6)
(d) none of the above

Answer: b

Ques 68. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?


(a) The leakage resistance of ceramic capacitors is generally high
(b) The stored energy in a capacitor decreases with reduction in value of
capacitance
(c) The stored energy in a capacitor increases with applied voltage
(d) A wire cable has distributed capacitance between the conductors

Answer: b

Ques 69. The sparking between two electrical contacts can be reduced by inserting a
(a) capacitor in parallel with contacts
(6) capacitor in series with each contact
(c) resistance in line
(d) none of the above

Answer: a

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Ques 70. The power dissipated in a pure capacitor is
(a) zero
(6) proportional to applied voltage
(c) proportional to value of capacitance
(d) both (b) and (c) above

Answer: a

Ques 71. In a capacitive circuit


(a) a steady value of applied voltage causes discharge
(b) an increase in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
(c) decrease in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
(d) none of the above

Answer: b

Ques 72. Capacitance increases with


(a) increase in plate area and decrease in distance between the plates
(b) increase in plate area and distance between the plates
(c) decrease in plate area and value of applied voltage
(d) reduction in plate area and distance between the plates

Answer: a

Ques 73. A capacitor consists of


(a) two insulators separated by a conductor
(b) two conductors separated by an insulator
(c) two insulators only
(d) two conductors only

Answer: b

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Ques 74. A capacitor in a circuit became hot and ultimately exploded due to wrong
connections, which type of capacitor it could be ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(b) Ceramic capacitor
(c) Electrolytic capacitor
(d) Any-of the above

Answer: c

Ques 75. Energy stored in the electric field of a capacitor C when charged from a D.C
source of voltage V is equal to joules
(a) CV2
(b) C2V
(c) CV2
(d) CV

Answer: a

Ques 76. When 4 volts e.m.f. is applied across a 1 farad capacitor, it will store energy
of
(a) 2 joules
(b) 4 joules
(c) 6 joules
(d) 8 joules

Answer: d

Ques 77. The capacitor preferred for high frequency circuits is


(a) air capacitor
(b) mica capacitor
(c) electrolytic capacitor
(d) none of the above

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Answer: b

Ques 78. While testing a capacitor with ohm meter, if the capacitor shows charging,
but the final resistance reading is appreciably less than normal, it can be
concluded that the capacitor is
(a) short-circuited
(b) open circuited
(c) alright
(d) leaky

Answer: d

Ques 79. Which of the following capacitors will have the least value of breakdown
voltage ?
(a) Mica
(b) Paper
(c) Ceramic
(d) Electrolytic

Answer: d

Ques 80. The value of dielectric constant for vacuum is taken as


(a) zero
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 10

Answer: b

Ques 81. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?


(a) The thinner the dielectric, the more the capacitance and the lower the
voltage breakdown rating for a capacitor .
(b) A six dot mica capacitor colour coded white, green, black, red and yellow

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has the capacitance value of 500 pF
(c) Capacitors in series provide less capacitance but a higher voltage
breakdown rating for the combination
(d) A capacitor can store charge because it has a dielectric between two
conductors

Answer: b

Ques 82. Capacitors are mainly used for radio frequency tuning.
(a) Paper
(b) Air
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic

Answer: b

Ques 83. Capacitors are used in transistor circuits.


(a) Ceramic
(b) Paper
(c) Air
(d) Electrolytic

Answer: a

Ques 84. A single core cable used on 33000 V has conductor diameter 10 mm and the
internal diameter of sheath 25 mm. The maximum electrostatic stress in the
cable is
(a) 62 x 105 V/m
(b) 72 x 105 V/m
(c) 82 x 105 V/m
(d) 92 x 105 V/m

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Answer: b

Ques 85. The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting charged merely by the
nearness of a charged body is known as
(a) pholoelectric effect
(b) chemical effect
(c) magnetic effect
(d) induction

Answer: d

Ques 86. Dielectric strength ______ with increasing thickness


(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaltered
(d) none of the above

Answer: b

Ques 87. The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined as the time during which
capacitor charging voltage actually rises to ______ percent of its value.
(a) 37, initial
(b) 62, initial
(c) 62, final
(d) 37, final

Answer: c

Ques 88. What will happen to an insulating medium if voltage more than the
breakdown voltage is applied on it ?
(a) It will become magnetic
(b) It will melt
(c) It will get punctured or cracked

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(d) Its molecular structure will get changed

Answer: c

Ques 89. The bridge used for the measurement of the value of the capacitance is
(a) Wien’s bridge
(b) Wheatstone bridge
(c) Schering bridge
(d) Hay’s bridge

Answer: c

Ques 90. An uncharged conductor is placed near a charged conductor, then


(a) the uncharged conductor gets charged by conduction
(6) the uncharged conductor gets charged by induction and then attracted
towards the charging body
(c) the uncharged conductor is attracted first and then charged by induction
(d) it remains as such

Answer: b

Ques 91. During the charging of a lead-acid cell


(a) its voltage increases
(b) it gives out energy
(c) its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour
(d) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases

Answer: a

Ques 92. During charging the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same

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(d) becomes zero

Answer: a

Ques 93. The best indication about the state of charge on a lead-acid battery is given
by
(a) output voltage
(b) temperature of electrolyte
(c) specific gravity of electrolyte
(d) none of the above

Answer: c

Ques 94. The output voltage of a charger is


(a) less than the battery voltage
(b) higher than the battery voltage
(c) the same as the battery voltage
(d) none of the above

Answer: b

Ques 95. As compared to constant-current system, the constant-voltage system of


charging a lead acid cell has the advantage of
(a) reducing time of charging
(b) increasing cell capacity
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) avoiding excessive gassing

Answer: c

Ques 96. A dead storage battery can be revived by


(a) adding distilled water
(6) adding so-called battery restorer

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(c) a dose of H2SO4
(d) none of the above

Answer: d

Ques 97. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to


(a) maintain proper electrolyte level
(b) increase its reserve capacity
(c) prevent sulphation
(d) keep it fresh and fully charged

Answer: d

Ques 98. In a lead-acid cell dilute sulfuric acid (electrolyte) approximately comprises
the following
(a) one part H2O, three parts H2SO4
(b) two parts H2O, two parts H2SO4
(c) three parts H2O, one part H2SO4
(d) all H2S04

Answer: c

Ques 99. The ampere-hour efficiency of a leadacid cell is normally between


(a) 20 to 30%
(b) 40 to 50%
(c) 60 to 70%
(d) 90 to 95%

Answer: d

Ques 100. The average charging voltage for alkali cell is about
(a) 1 V
(b) 1.2 V

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(c) 1.7 V
(d) 2.1 V

Answer: c

Ques 101. Lead-acid cell has a life of nearly charges and discharges
(a) 500
(b) 700
(c) 1000
(d) 1250

Answer: d

Ques 102. The internal resistance of a lead-acid cell is that of Edison cell
(a) less than
(b) more than
(c) equal to
(d) none of the above

Answer: a

Ques 103. Electrolyte used in a lead-acid cell is


(a) NaOH
(b) onlyH2S04
(c) only water
(d) dilute H2SO4

Answer: d

Ques 104. The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by


(a) manometer

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(6) a mechanical gauge
(c) hydrometer
(d) psychrometer

Answer: c

Ques 105. When the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid cell is reduced to
1.1 to 1.15 the cell is in
(a) charged state
(b) discharged state
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) active state

Answer: b

Ques 106. Over charging


(a) produces excessive gassing
(b) loosens the active material
(e) increases the temperature resulting in buckling of plates
(d) all above

Answer: d

Ques 107. Undercharging


(a) reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte
(b) increases specific gravity of the electrolyte
(c) produces excessive gassing
(d) increases the temperature

Answer: a

Ques 108. Internal short circuits are caused by


(a) breakdown of one or more separators

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(b) excess accumulation of sediment at the bottom of the cell
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above

Answer: c

Ques 109. On overcharging a battery


(a) it will bring about chemical change in active materials
(b) it will increase the capacity of the battery
(c) it will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
(d) none of the above will occur

Answer: d

Ques 110. Each cell has a vent cap


(a) to allow gases out when the cell is on charge
(b) to add water to the cell if needed
(c) to check the level of electrolyte
(d) to do all above functions

Answer: d

Ques 111. Following will occur if level of electrolyte falls below plates
(a) capacity of the cell is reduced
(b) life of the cell is reduced
(c) open plates are converted to lead sulphate
(d) all above

Answer: d

Ques 112. 48 ampere-hour capacity would deliver a current of


(a) 48 amperes for 1 hour
(b) 24 amperes for 2 hours

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(c) 8 amperes for 6 hours
(d) 6 amperes for 8 hours

Answer: d

Ques 113. In constant-current charging method, the supply voltage from discharged to
fully charged condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
(d) none of the above

Answer: b

Ques 114. In constant voltage charging method, the charging current from discharged
to fully charged condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
(d) none of the above

Answer: a

Ques 115. Battery charging equipment is generally installed


(a) in well ventilated location
(b) in clean and dry place
(c) as near as practical to the battery being charged
(d) in location having all above features

Answer: d

Ques 116. Following will happen if the specific gravity of electrolyte becomes more
than 1.23.

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(a) Loss of capacity
(b) Loss of life
(c) Corrosion of the grids of the plate
(d) All above

Answer: d

Ques 117. Cell short circuit results in


(a) low sp. gravity electrolyte
(b) abnormal high temperature
(c) reduced gassing on charge
(d) all above

Answer: d

Ques 118. Internal resistance of a cell is reduced by


(a) using vent plug to permit gas formed during discharge
(b) increasing the plate area
(c) putting plates very close together
(d) all above methods

Answer: d

Ques 119. Capacity of dry cells is


(a) more when it is supplying current for intermittent periods
(b) more when it is supplying current for continuous periods
(c) unaffected by the type of discharge
(d) none of the above

Answer: a

Ques 120. In a lead-acid cell, if the specific gravity of sulphuric acid is 1.8, it will
require following ratio of acid to water to get mixture of specific gravity of 1.3

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(a) 6 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(b) 4 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(c) 4 parts of acid to 6 parts of water
(d) 4 parts of acid to 8 parts of water

Answer: c

Ques 121. Following will happen if battery charging rate is too high
(a) excessive gassing will occur
(b) temperature rise will occur
(c) bulging and buckling of plates will occur
(d) all above will occur

Answer: d

Ques 122. If a battery is wrongly connected on charge following will happen


(a) current delivered by the battery will be high
(b) current drawing will be nil
(c) current drawing will be very small
(d) current drawing will be very high

Answer: d

Ques 123. _____ of electrolyte indicates the state of charge of the battery
(a) colour
(b) mass
(c) viscosity
(d) specific gravity

Answer: d

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Ques 124. The following indicate that battery on charge has attained full charge
(a) colour of electrode
(b) gassing
(c) specific gravity
(d) all above

Answer: d

Ques 125. Capacity of a battery.is expressed in


(a) Ah
(b) Vh
(c) Wh
(d) kWh

Answer: a

Ques 126. A battery of 6 cells will show a drop of _____ volts from fully charged state
to fully discharged state.
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.4
(d) 2.9

Answer: c

Ques 127. Hydrogen evolved during charging produces explosive mixture when it is
more than
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 6%
(d) 8%

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Answer: d

Ques 128. While preparing electrolyte for a lead-acid battery


(a) water is poured into acid
(b) acid is poured into water
(c) anyone of the two can be added to other chemical

Answer: b

Ques 129. Which of the following is incorrect ?


(a) A storage cell has a reversible chemical reaction
(b) A lead-acid cell can be recharged
(c) A carbon-zinc cell has unlimited shelf life
(d) A primary cell has an irreversible chemical reaction

Answer: c

Ques 130. When two batteries are connected in parallel, it should be ensured that
(a) they have same e.m.f.
(b) they have same make
(c) they have same ampere-hour capacity
(d) they have identical internal resistance

Answer: a

Ques 131. Petroleum jelly is applied to the electrical connections to the lead-acid
battery
(a) prevent local heating
(b) prevent short-circuiting
(c) reduce path resistance
(d) prevent corrosion

Answer: d

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Ques 132. Which of the following factors adversely affects the capacity of the lead
acid battery ?
(a) Temperature of surroundings
(b) Specific gravity of electrolyte
(c) Rate of discharge
(d) All of the above

Answer: d

Ques 133. The reactance offered by a capacitor to alternating current of frequency 50


Hz is 20 Q. If frequency is increased to 100 Hz, reactance becomes_____ohms.
(a) 2.5
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 15

Answer: c

Ques 134. The form factor is the ratio of


(a) peak value to r.m.s. value
(6) r.m.s. value to average value
(c) average value to r.m.s. value
(d) none of the above

Answer: b

Ques 135. A heater is rated as 230 V, 10 kW, A.C. The value 230 V refers to
(a) average voltage
(b) r.m.s. voltage
(c) peak voltage
(d) none of the above

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Answer: b

Ques 136. The voltage of domestic supply is 220V. This figure represents
(a) mean value
(b) r.m.s. value
(c) peak value
(d) average value

Answer: a

Ques 137. The power consumed in a circuit element will be least when the phase
difference between the current and voltage is
(a) 180″
(b) 90°
(c) 60°
(d) 0°

Answer: b

Ques 138. The r.m.s. value and mean value is the same in the case of
(a) triangular wave
(6) sine wave
(c) square wave
(d) half wave rectified sine wave

Answer: c

Ques 139. For the same peak value which of the following wave will ‘have the highest
r.m.s. value ?
(a) square wave
(b) half wave rectified sine wave
(c) triangular wave

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(d) sine wave

Answer: a

Ques 140. Capacitive reactance is more when


(a) capacitance is less and frequency of supply is less
(b) capacitance is less and frequency of supply is more
(c) capacitance is more and frequency of supply is less
(d) capacitance is more and frequency of supply is more

Answer: a

Ques 141. The best place to install a capacitor is


(a) very near to inductive load
(b) across the terminals of the inductive load
(c) far away from the inductive load
(d) any where

Answer: b

Ques 142. Poor power factor


(a) reduces load handling capability of electrical system
(b) results in more power losses in the electrical system
(c) overloads alternators, transformers and distribution lines
(d) results in more voltage drop in the line
(e) results in all above

Answer: e

Ques 143. In series resonant circuit, increasing inductance to its twice value and
reducing capacitance to its half value
(a) will change the maximum value of current at resonance
(6) will change the resonance frequency

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(c) will change the impedance at resonance frequency
(d) will increase the selectivity of the circuit

Answer: d

Ques 144. Pure inductive circuit


(a) consumes some power on average
(b) does not take power at all from a line
(c) takes power from the line during some part of the cycle and then returns
back to it during other part of the cycle
(d) none of the above

Answer: c

Ques 145. Inductance of a coil Varies


(a) directly as the cross-sectional area of magnetic core
(b) directly as square of number of turns
(c) directly as the permeability of the core
(d) inversely as the length of the iron path
(e) as (a) to (d)

Answer: e

Ques 146. Power factor of an inductive circuit is usually improved by connecting


capacitor to it in
(a) parallel
(b) series
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above

Answer: a

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Ques 147. Power factor of the following circuit will be zero
(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) capacitance
(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer: d

Ques 148. Power factor of the following circuit will be unity


(a) inductance
(b) capacitance
(c) resistance
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer: c

Ques 149. Power factor of the system is kept high


(a) to reduce line losses
(b) to maximise the utilization of the capacities of generators, lines and
transformers
(c) to reduce voltage regulation of the line
(d) due to all above reasons

Answer: d

Ques 150. In a loss-free R-L-C circuit the transient current is


(a) oscillating
(b) square wave
(c) sinusoidal
(d) non-oscillating

Answer: c

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Ques 151. The double energy transient occur in the
(a) purely inductive circuit
(b) R-L circuit
(c) R-C circuit
(d) R-L-C circuit

Answer: d

Ques 152. The power factor at resonance in R-L- C parallel circuit is


(a) zero
(b) 0.08 lagging
(c) 0.8 leading
(d) unity

Answer: d

Ques 153. In a pure resistive circuit


(a) current lags behind the voltage by 90°
(b) current leads the voltage by 90°
(c) current can lead or lag the voltage by 90°
(d) current is in phase with the voltage

Answer: d

Ques 154. In a pure inductive circuit


(a) the current is in phase with the voltage
(b) the current lags behind the voltage by 90°
(c) the current leads the voltage by 90°
(d) the current can lead or lag by 90°

Answer: b

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Ques 155. In a circuit containing R, L and C, power loss can take place in
(a) C only
(b) L only
(c) R only
(d) all above

Answer: c

Ques 156. Inductance of coil


(a) is unaffected by the supply frequency
(b) decreases with the increase in supply frequency
(c) increases with the increase in supply frequency
(d) becomes zero with the increase in supply frequency

Answer: c

Ques 157. Time constant of an inductive circuit


(a) increases with increase of inductance and decrease of resistance
(b) increases with the increase of inductance and the increase of resistance
(c) increases with the decrease of inductance and decrease of resistance
(d) increases with decrease of inductance and increase of resistance

Answer: a

Ques 158. Time constant of a capacitive circuit


(a) increases with the decrease of capacitance and decrease of resistance
(b) increases with the decrease of capacitance and increase of resistance
(c) increases with the increase of capacitance and decrease of resistance
(d) increase with increase of capacitance and increase of resistance

Answer: d

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Ques 159. Magnitude of current at resonance in R-L-C circuit
(a) depends upon the magnitude of R
(b) depends upon the magnitude of L
(c) depends upon the magnitude of C
(d) depends upon the magnitude of R, Land C

Answer: a

Ques 160. In a R-L-C circuit


(a) power is consumed in resistance and is equal to I R
(b) exchange of power takes place between inductor and supply line
(c) exchange of power takes place between capacitor and supply line
(d) exchange of power does not take place between resistance and the supply
line
(e) all above are correct

Answer: e

Ques 161. Which of the following coil will have large resonant frequency ?
(a) A coil with large resistance
(b) A coil with low resistance
(c) A coil with large distributed capacitance
(d) A coil with low distributed capacitance

Answer: c

Ques 162. In an AC. circuit, a low value of kVAR compared with kW indicates
(a) low efficiency
(b) high power factor
(c) unity power factor
(d) maximum load current

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Answer: b

Ques 163. All definitions of power factor of a series R-L-C circuit are correct except
(a) ratio of net reactance and impedance
(b) ratio of kW and kVA
(c) ratio of J and Z
(d) ratio of W and VA

Answer: a

Ques 164. The apparent power drawn by an A.C. circuit is 10 kVA and active power is 8
kW. The reactive power in the circuit is
(a) 4 kVAR
(b) 6 kVAR
(c) 8 kVAR
(d) 16 kVAR

Answer: b

Ques 165. What will be the phase angle between two alternating waves of equal
frequency, when one wave attains maximum value the other is at zero value ?
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°

Answer: c

Ques 166. In an A.C. circuit power is dissipated in


(a) resistance only
(b) inductance only
(c) capacitance only

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(d) none of the above

Answer: a

Ques 167. In a parallel R-C circuit, the current always______the applied voltage
(a) lags
(b) leads
(c) remains in phase with
(d) none of the above

Answer: b

Ques 168. The power is measured in terms of decibles in case of


(a) electronic equipment
(b) transformers
(c) current transformers
(d) auto transformers

Answer: a

Ques 169. Capacitive susceptance is a measure of


(a) reactive power in a circuit
(b) the extent of neutralisation of reactive power in a circuit
(c) a purely capacitive circuit’s ability to pass current
(d) a purely capacitive circuit’s ability to resist the flow of current

Answer: c

Ques 170. A parallel AC. circuit in resonance will


(a) have a high voltage developed across each inductive and capacitive section
(b) have a high impedance
(c) act like a resistor of low value

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(d) have current in each section equal to the line current

Answer: b

Ques 171. The inductance of a coil can be increased by


(a) increasing core length
(b) decreasing the number of turns
(c) decreasing the diameter of the former
(d) choosing core material having high relative permeability

Answer: d

Ques 172. In a three-phase supply floating neutral is undesirable because it way give
rise to
(a) high voltage across the load
(b) low voltage across the load
(c) unequal line voltages across the load

Answer: c

Ques 173. The r.m.s. value of half wave rectified sine wave is 200 V. The r.m.s. value of
full wave rectified AC. will be
(a) 282.8 V
(b) 141.4 V
(c) 111 V
(d) 100 V

Answer: a

Ques 174. The frequency of an alternating current is


(a) the speed with which the alternator runs
(b) the number of cycles generated in one minute
(c) the number of waves passing through a point in one second

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(d) the number of electrons passing through a point in one second

Answer: c

Ques 175. An A.C. voltage is impressed across a pure resistance of 3.5 ohms in parallel
with a pure inductance of impedance of 3.5 ohms,
(a) the current through the resistance is more
(b) the current through the resistance is less
(c) both resistance and inductance carry equal currents
(d) none of the above

Answer: c

Ques 176. In a pure inductive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to 1/2, the
current will
(a) be reduced by half
(b) be doubled
(c) be four times as high
(d) be reduced to one fourth

Answer: b

Ques 177. In a pure capacitive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to 1/2, the
current will
(a) be reduced by half
(b) be doubled
(c) be four times at high
(d) be reduced to one fourth

Answer: a

Ques 178. In each of the three coils of a three phase generator, an alternating voltage
having an r.m.s. value of 220 V is induced. Which of the following values is

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indicated by the voltmeters ?
(a) 220 V
(b) 220V3V
(c) 220/V3 V
(d) none of the above

Answer: a

Ques 179. According to Fleming’s right-hand rule for finding the direction of induced
e.m.f., when middle finger points in the direction of induced e.m.f., forefinger
will point in the direction of
(a) motion of conductor
(b) lines of force
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above

Answer: b

Ques 180. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be
(a) severe sparking
(b) rough commutator surface
(c) imperfect contact
(d) any of the above

Answer: d

Ques 181. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of
armature conductors is fixed, then which winding will give the higher e.m.f. ?
(a) Lap winding
(b) Wave winding
(c) Either of (a) and (b) above
(d) Depends on other features of design

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Answer: b

Ques 182. In a four-pole D.C. machine


(a) all the four poles are north poles
(b) alternate poles are north and south
(c) all the four poles are south poles
(d) two north poles follow two south poles

Answer: b

Ques 183. In case of D.C. machines, mechanical losses are primary function of
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) speed
(d) none of above

Answer: c

Ques 184. In D.C. generators, current to the external circuit from armature is given
through
(a) commutator
(b) solid connection
(c) slip rings
(d) none of above

Answer: a

Ques 185. Brushes of D.C. machines are made of


(a) carbon
(b) soft copper
(c) hard copper
(d) all of above

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Answer: a

Ques 186. In case of a 4-pole D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap winding
with sixteen coils, the pole pitch will be
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32

Answer: b

Ques 187. D.C. generators are connected to the busbars or disconnected from them
only under the floating condition
(a) to avoid sudden loading of the primemover
(b) to avoid mechanicaljerk to the shaft
(c) to avoid burning of switch contacts
(d) all above

Answer: d

Ques 188. Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a D.C. machine due to
(a) oscillating magnetic field
(b) pulsating magnetic flux
(c) relative rotation between field and armature
(d) all above

Answer: c

Ques 189. The function of pole shoes in the case of D.C. machine is
(a) to reduce the reluctance of the mag¬netic path
(b) to spread out the flux to achieve uniform flux density
(c) to support the field coil

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(d) to discharge all the above functions

Answer: d

Ques 190. Which of the following statement about D.C. generators is false ?
(a) Compensating winding in a D.C. machine helps in commutation
(b) In a D. C. generator interpoles winding is connected in series with the
armature winding
(c) Back pitch and front pitch are both odd and approximately equal to the
pole pitch
(d) Equilizing bus bars are used with parallel running of D.C. shunt
gen¬erators

Answer: d

Ques 191. The demagnetising component of armature reaction in a D.C. generator


(a) reduces generator e.m.f.
(b) increases armature speed
(c) reduces interpoles flux density
(d) results in sparking trouble

Answer: a

Ques 192. Compensating windings are used in D.C. generators


(a) mainly to reduce the eddy currents by providing local short-circuits
(b) to provide path for the circulation of cooling air
(c) to neutralise the cross-magnetising effect of the armature reaction
(d) none of the above

Answer: c

Ques 193. In a D.C. generator the ripples in the direct e.m.f. generated are reduced by
(a) using conductor of annealed copper

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(b) using commutator with large number of segments
(c) using carbon brushes of superior quality
(d) using equiliser rings

Answer: c

Ques 194. The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator isE. Now while pole
flux remains constant, if the speed of the generator is doubled, the e.m.f.
generated will be
(a) E/2
(b) 2E
(c) slightly less than E
(d) E

Answer: b

Ques 195. For the parallel operation of two or more D.C. compound generators, we
should ensure that
(a) voltage of the incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(b) polarity of incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(c) all the series fields should be run in parallel by means of equilizer
connection
(d) series fields of all generators should be either on positive side or negative
side of the armature
(e) all conditions mentioned above should be satisfied

Answer: d

Ques 196. In a D.C. generator the number of mechanical degrees and electrical
degrees will be the same when
(a) r.p.m. is more than 300
(b) r.p.m. is less than 300
(c) number of poles is 4

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(d) number of poles is 2

Answer: d

Ques 197. The e.m.f. generated in a D.C. generator is directly proportional to


(a) flux/pole
(b) speed of armature
(c) number of poles
(d) all of the above

Answer: b

Ques 198. In a D.C. generator in order to reduce sparking at brushes, the self-induced
e.m.f. in the coil is neutralised by all of the following except
(a) interpoles
(b) dummy coils
(c) compensating winding
(d) shifting of axis of brushes

Answer: b

Ques 199. The following constitute short-circuit in the armature winding.


(a) Insulation failure between two commutator bars
(6) Insulation failure between two turns of a coil
(c) Two of more turns of the same coil getting grounded
(d) All of the above

Answer: d

Ques 200. If residual magnetism is present in a D.C. generator, the induced e.m.f. at
zero speed will be
(a) zero
(b) small

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(c) the same as rated voltage
(d) high

Answer: a

Ques 201. Armature reaction in a generator results in


(a) demagnetisation of leading pole tip and magnetisation of trailing pole tip
(b) demagnetisation of trailing pole tip and magnetisation of leading pole tip
(c) damagnetising the center of all poles
(d) magnetising the center of all poles

Answer: a

Ques 202. The critical resistance of the D.C. generator is the resistance of
(a) field
(b) brushes
(c) armature
(d) load

Answer: a

Ques 203. The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V when the load current is
5 A. If the load current is increased to 10 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 150 V
(b) less than 150 V
(c) greater than 150 V
(d) none of the above

Answer: c

Ques 204. The open circuit voltage of a compound generator is 250 V. At full load the
terminal voltage
(a) will be less than 250 V

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(b) will always be 250 V
(c) may be greater or less than 250 V
(d) none of the above

Answer: c

Ques 205. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance can be increased by


(a) increasing its field resistance
(b) decreasing its field resistance
(c) increasing its speed
(d) decreasing its speed

Answer: c

Ques 206. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor can be changed by
(a) interchanging supply terminals
(b) interchanging field terminals
(c) either of (a) and (b) above
(d) None of the above

Answer: b

Ques 207. Which D.C. motor will be preferred for machine tools ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differential compound motor

Answer: b

Ques 208. Starters are used with D.C. motors because


(a) these motors have high starting torque
(b) these motors are not self-starting

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(c) back e.m.f. of these motors is zero initially
(d) to restrict armature current as there is no back e.m.f. while starting

Answer: d

Ques 209. In D.C. shunt motors as load is reduced


(a) the speed will increase abruptly
(b) the speed will increase in proportion to reduction in load
(c) the speed will remain almost/constant
(d) the speed will reduce
Answer: c
Ques 210. If a D.C. motor is connected across the A.C. supply it will
(a) run at normal speed
(b) not run
(c) run at lower speed
(d) burn due to heat produced in the field winding by .eddy currents

Answer: d

Ques 211. What will happen if the back e.m.f. of a D.C. motor vanishes suddenly?
(a) The motor will stop
(b) The motor will continue to run
(c) The armature may burn
(d) The motor will run noisy

Answer: c

Ques 212. In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back e.m.f. only
because
(a) back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop
(b) armature drop is negligible
(c) flux is proportional to armature current

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(d) flux is practically constant in D:C. shunt motors

Answer: d

Ques 213. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily confirmed that a
particular motor is D.C. motor?
(a) Frame
(b) Shaft
(c) Commutator
(d) Stator

Answer: c

Ques 214. The starting resistance of a D.C. motor is generally


(a) low
(b) around 500 Q
(c) 1000 Q
(d) infinitely large

Answer: a

Ques 215. The speed of a D.C. series motor is


(a) proportional to the armature current
(b) proportional to the square of the armature current
(c) proportional to field current
(d) inversely proportional to the armature current

Answer: d

Ques 216. If the capacitor of a single-phase motor is short-circuited


(a) the motor will not start
(b) the motor will run
(c) the motor will run in reverse direction

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(d) the motor will run in the same direction at reduced r.p.m.

Answer: a

Ques 217. The running winding of a single phase motor on testing with meggar is
found to be ground. Most probable location of the ground will be
(a) at the end connections
(b) at the end terminals
(c) anywhere on the winding inside a slot
(d) at the slot edge where coil enters or comes out of the slot

Answer: d

Ques 218. Direction of rotation of a split phase motor can be reversed by reversing the
connection of
(a) running winding only
(b) starting winding only
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer: c

Ques 219. In squirrel cage induction motors, the rotor slots are usually given slight
skew in order to
(a) reduce windage losses
(b) reduce eddy currents
(c) reduce accumulation of dirt and dust
(d) reduce magnetic hum

Answer: d

Ques 220. In case the air gap in an induction motor is increased


(a) the magnetising current of the rotor will decrease

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(b) the power factor will decrease
(c) speed of motor will increase
(d) the windage losses will increase

Answer: b

Ques 221. Slip rings are usually made of


(a) copper
(b) carbon
(c) phospor bronze
(d) aluminium

Answer: c

Ques 222. A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4% slip. The frequency of rotor
e.m.f. will be
(a) 200 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 2 Hz
(d) 0.2 Hz

Answer: c

Ques 223. In Ns is the synchronous speed and s the slip, then actual running speed of
an induction motor will be
(a) Ns
(b) s.N,
(c) (l-s)Ns
(d) (Ns-l)s

Answer: c

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Ques 224. The starting torque of a squirrel-cage induction motor is
(a) low
(b) negligible
(c) same as full-load torque
(d) slightly more than full-load torque

Answer: a

Ques 225. Star-delta starting of motors is not possible in case of


(a) single phase motors
(b) variable speed motors
(c) low horse power motors
(d) high speed motors

Answer: a

Ques 226. An induction motor with 1000 r.p.m. speed will have
(a) 8 poles
(b) 6 poles
(c) 4 poles
(d) 2 poles

Answer: b

Ques 227. Which of the following methods is easily applicable to control the speed of
the squirrel-cage induction motor ?
(a) By changing the number of stator poles
(b) Rotor rheostat control
(c) By operating two motors in cascade
(d) By injecting e.m.f. in the rotor circuit

Answer: a

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Ques 228. It is advisable to avoid line-starting of induction motor and use starter
because
(a) motor takes five to seven times its full load current
(b) it will pick-up very high speed and may go out of step
(c) it will run in reverse direction
(d) starting torque is very high

Answer: a

Ques 229. In a three-phase induction motor, the number of poles in the rotor winding
is always
(a) zero
(b) more than the number of poles in stator
(c) less than number of poles in stator
(d) equal to number of poles in stator

Answer: d

Ques 230. DOL starting of induction motors is usually restricted to


(a) low horsepower motors
(b) variable speed motors
(c) high horsepower motors
(d) high speed motors

Answer: a

Ques 231. The speed of a squirrel-cage induction motor can be controlled by all of the
following except
(a) changing supply frequency
(b) changing number of poles
(c) changing winding resistance
(d) reducing supply voltage

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Answer: c

Ques 232. Slip of an induction motor is negative when


(a) magnetic field and rotor rotate in opposite direction
(b) rotor speed is less than the synchronous speed of the field and are in the
same direction
(c) rotor speed is more than the synchronous speed of the field and are in the
same direction
(d) none of the above

Answer: c

Ques 233. A 3-phase induction motor stator delta connected, is carrying full load and
one of its fuses blows out. Then the motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phases
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding

Answer: a

Ques 234. A 3-phase induction motor delta connected is carrying too heavy load and
one of its fuses blows out. Then the motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phase
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding

Answer: c

Ques 235. A change of 4% of supply voltage to an induction motor will produce a


change of appromimately
(a) 4% in the rotor torque

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(b) 8% in the rotor torque
(c) 12% in the rotor torque
(d) 16% in the rotor torque

Answer: d

Ques 236. An induction motor can run at synchronous speed when


(a) it is run on load
(b) it is run in reverse direction
(c) it is run on voltage higher than the rated voltage
(d) e.m.f. is injected in the rotor circuit

Answer: d

Ques 237. In an induction motor if air-gap is increased


(a) the power factor will be low
(b) windage losses will be more
(c) bearing friction will reduce
(d) copper loss will reduce In an induction motor

Answer: a

Ques 238. The torque of an induction motor is


(a) directly proportional to slip
(b) inversely proportional to slip
(c) proportional to the square of the slip
(d) none of the above

Answer: a

Ques 239. Synchronous motors are generally not self-starting because


(a) the direction of rotation is not fixed
(b) the direction of instantaneous torque reverses after half cycle

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(c) startes cannot be used on these machines
(d) starting winding is not provided on the machines

Answer: b

Ques 240. In case one phase of a three-phase synchronous motor is short-circuited


the motor will
(a) not start
(b) run at 2/3 of synchronous speed
(c) run with excessive vibrations
(d) take less than the rated load

Answer: a

Ques 241. A three-phase synchronous motor will have


(a) no slip-rings
(b) one slip-ring
(c) two slip-rings
(d) three slip-rings

Answer: c

Ques 242. Under which of the following conditions hunting of synchronous motor is
likely to occur ?
(a) Periodic variation of load
(b) Over-excitation
(c) Over-loading for long periods
(d) Small and constant load

Answer: a

Ques 243. The power developed by a synchronous motor will be maximum when the
load angle is

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(a) zero
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°

Answer: c

Ques 244. The synchronous motor is not inherently self-starting because


(a) the force required to accelerate the rotor to the synchronous speed in an
instant is absent
(b) the starting device to accelerate the rotor to near synchronous speed is
absent
(c) a rotating magnetic field does not have enough poles
(d) the rotating magnetic field is produced by only 50 Hz frequency currents

Answer: a

Ques 245. Synchronous motor always runs at


(a) the synchronous speed
(b) less than synchronous speed
(c) more than synchronous speed
(d) none of the above

Answer: a

Ques 246. The back e.m.f. of a synchronous motor depends on


(a) speed
(b) load
(c) load angle
(d) all of the above

Answer: c

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Ques 247. A synchronous motor has better power factor as compared to that of an
equivalent induction motor. This is mainly because
(a) synchronous motor has no slip
(b) stator supply is not required to produce magnetic field
(c) mechanical load on the rotor remains constant
(d) synchronous motor has large airgap

Answer: b

Ques 248. When the voltage applied to a synchronous motor is increased, which of
the following will reduce ?
(a) Stator flux
(b) Pull in torque
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer: d

Ques 249. A synchronous machine with large air gap has


(a) a higher value of stability limit
(6) a small value of inherent regulation
(c) a higher synchronizing power which makes the machine less sensitive to
load variations
(d) all of the above
Answer: d
Ques 250. The angle between the rotating stator flux and rotor poles is called _____
angle.
(a) torque
(b) obtuse
(c) synchronizing
(d) power factor

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Answer: a

Ques 251. Which of the following methods is used to start a synchronous motor ?
(a) Damper winding
(b) Star-delta starter
(c) Damper winding in conjunction with star-delta starter
(d) Resistance starter in the armature circuit

Answer: c

Ques 252. An important advantage of a synchronous motor over wound round


induction motor is that
(a) its power factor may be varied at will
(b) its speed is independent of supply frequency
(c) its speed may be controlled more easily
(d) none of the above

Answer: a

Ques 253. Power factor of a synchronous motor is unity when


(a) the armature current is maximum
(b) the armature current is minimum
(c) the armature current is zero
(d) none of the above

Answer: b

Ques 254. If one-phase of a 3-phase synchronous motor is short-circuited, motor


(a) will refuse to start
(b) will overheat in spots
(c) will not come upto speed
(d) will fail to pull into step

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Answer: a

Ques 255. The speed of a synchronous motor


(a) increases as the load increases
(b) decreases as the load decreases
(c) always remains constant
(d) none of the above

Answer: c

Ques 256. Which of the following methods may be used to convert A.C. system to D.C.
?
(a) Rectifiers
(b) Motor converters
(c) Motor-generator sets
(d) Rotary converters
(e) All of the above

Answer: e

Ques 257. The main function of a fuse is to


(a) protect the line
(b) open the circuit
(c) protect the appliance
(d) prevent excessive currents
(e) none of the above

Answer: d

Ques 258. The arcing contacts in a circuit breaker are made of


(a) copper tungsten alloy
(b) porcelain
(c) electrolytic copper

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(d) aluminium alloy

Answer: a

Ques 259. Which of the following medium is employed for extinction of arc in air
circuit breaker ?
(a) Water
(b) Oil
(c) Air
(d) SF6

Answer: c

Ques 260. Overload relays are of…… type.


(a) induction
(b) solid state
(c) thermal
(d) electromagnetic
(e) all above

Answer: e

Ques 261. Thermal overload relays are used to protect the motor against over current
due to
(a) short-circuits
(b) heavy loads
(c) grounds
(d) all of the above

Answer: b

Ques 262. Circuit breakers are essentially


(a) current carrying contacts called electrodes

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(b) arc extinguishers
(c) circuits to break the system
(d) transformers to isolate the two systems
(e) any of the above

Answer: a

Ques 263. The voltage appearing across the contacts after opening of the circuit
breaker is called______voltage.
(a) recovery
(b) surge
(c) operating
(d) arc
(e) none of the above

Answer: a

Ques 264. Which of the following is the least expensive protection for overcurrent is
low voltage system ?
(a) Rewireable fuse
(b) Isolator
(c) Oil circuit breaker
(d) Air break circuit breaker
(e) None of the above

Answer: a

Ques 265. Short-circuit currents are due to


(a) single phase to ground faults
(b) phase to phase faults
(c) two phase to ground faults
(d) three phase faults

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(e) any of these

Answer: e

Ques 266. The single phasing relays are used for the protection of
(a) single phase motors only
(b) two phase motors only
(c) two single phase motors running in parallel
(d) three phase motors

Answer: d

Ques 267. The material used for fuse must have


(a) low melting point and high specific resistance
(b) low melting point and -low specific resistance
(c) high melting point and low specific resistance
(d) low melting point and any specific resistance

Answer: a

Ques 268. A fuse is connected


(a) in series with circuit
(b) in parallel with circuit
(c) either in series or in parallel with circuit
(d) none of the above

Answer: a

Ques 269. To limit short-circuit current in a power system are used.


(a) earth wires
(b) isolators
(c) H.R.C. fuses

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(d) reactors

Answer: d

Ques 270. The insulating material for cables should


(a) be acid proof
(b) be non-inflammable
(c) be non-hygroscopic
(d) have all above properties

Answer: d

Ques 271. In a cable immediately above metallic sheath _____ is provided.


(a) earthing connection
(b) bedding
(c) armouring
(d) none of the above

Answer: b

Ques 272. The current carrying capacity of cables in D.C. is more thanthat in A.C.
mainly due to
(a) absence of harmonics
(b) non-existence of any stability limit
(c) smaller dielectric loss
(d) absence of ripples
(e) none of the above

Answer: c

Ques 273. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutral is
(a) blue
(b) black

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(c) brown
(d) none of the above

Answer: a

Ques 274. In the cables, the location of fault is usually found out by comparing
(a) the resistance of the conductor
(b) the inductance of conductors
(c) the capacitances of insulated conductors
(d) all above parameters

Answer: c

Ques 275. If the length of a cable is doubled, its capacitance


(a) becomes one-fourth
(b) becomes one-half
(c) becomes double
(d) remains unchanged

Answer: c

Ques 276. In the cables, sheaths are used to


(a) prevent the moisture from entering the cable
(b) provide enough strength
(e) provide proper insulation
(d) none of the above

Answer: a

Ques 277. The cable insulating material should have


(a) low permittivity
(b) high resistivity
(c) high dielectric strength

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(d) all of the above

Answer: d

Ques 278. The breakdown voltage of a cable depends on


(a) presence of moisture
(b) working temperature
(c) time of application of the voltage
(d) all of the above

Answer: d

Ques 279. A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be used as _____ by using


a low resistance shunt.
(a) ammeter
(b) voltmeter
(c) flux-meter
(d) ballistic galvanometer

Answer: a

Ques 280. A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be used as flux-meter


(a) by using a low resistance shunt
(b) by using a high series resistance
(c) by eliminating the control springs
(d) by making control springs of large moment of inertia

Answer: c

Ques 281. A potentiometer may be used for


(a) measurement of resistance
(b) measurement of current
(c) calibration of ammeter

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(d) calibration of voltmeter
(e) all of the above

Answer: e

Ques 282. The electrical power to a meggar is provided by


(a) battery
(b) permanent magnet D.C. generator
(c) AC. generator
(d) any of the above

Answer: b

Ques 283. The operating voltage of a meggar is about


(a) 6 V
(b) 12 V
(c) 40 V
(d) 100 V

Answer: d

Ques 284. Alternating current is measured by


(a) induction ammeter
(b) permanent magnet type ammeter
(c) electrostatic ammeter
(d) moving iron repulsion type voltmeter

Answer: a

Ques 285. A semiconductor is formed by ……… bonds.

A. Covalent
B. Electrovalent

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C. Co-ordinate
D. None of the above

Answer: a

Ques 286. A semiconductor has ………… temperature coefficient of resistance.

a. Positive
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. None of the above

Answer: c

Ques 287. The most commonly used semiconductor is ………..

a. Germanium
b. Silicon
c. Carbon
d. Sulphur

Answer: b

Ques 288. A semiconductor has generally ……………… valence electrons.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 6
d. 4

Answer: d

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Ques 289. When a pentavalent impurity is added to a pure semiconductor, it becomes
………

a. An insulator
b. An intrinsic semiconductor
c. p-type semiconductor
d. n-type semiconductor

Answer: d

Ques 290. An n-type semiconductor is ………

a. Positively charged
b. Negatively charged
c. Electrically neutral
d. None of the above

Answer: c

Ques 291. A trivalent impurity has ….. valence electrons

a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 3

Answer: d

Ques 292. Addition of trivalent impurity to a semiconductor creates many ……..

a. Holes
b. Free electrons
c. Valence electrons

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d. Bound electrons

Answer: a

Ques 293. A hole in a semiconductor is defined as …………….

a. A free electron
b. The incomplete part of an electron pair bond
c. A free proton
d. A free neutron

Answer: b

Ques 294. In a semiconductor, current conduction is due to ……..

a. Only holes
b. Only free electrons
c. Holes and free electrons
d. None of the above

Answer: c

Ques 295. The battery connections required to forward bias a pn junction are ……

a. +ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n


b. -ve terminal to p and +ve terminal to n
c. -ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n
d. None of the above

Answer: a

Ques 296. In the depletion region of a pn junction, there is a shortage of ……..

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a. Acceptor ions
b. Holes and electrons
c. Donor ions
d. None of the above

Answer: b

Ques 297. A reverse bias pn junction has …………

a. Very narrow depletion layer


b. Almost no current
c. Very low resistance
d. Large current flow

Answer: b

Ques 298. The leakage current across a pn junction is due to …………..


a. Minority carriers
b. Majority carriers
c. Junction capacitance
d. None of the above

Answer: b

Ques 299. With forward bias to a pn junction , the width of depletion layer ………

a. Decreases
b.Increases
c. Remains the same
d. None of the above

Answer: a

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Ques 300. A zener diode has ………..

a. one pn junction
b. two pn junctions
c. three pn junctions
d. none of the above

Answer: a

Ques 301. A zener diode is used as …………….

a. an amplifier
b. a voltage regulator
c. a rectifier
d. a multivibrator
Answer: b

Ques 302. A zener diode is always ………… connected.

a. reverse
b. forward
c. either reverse or forward
d. none of the above

Answer: a

Ques 303. A zener diode utilizes ……….. characteristics for its operation.

a. forward
b. reverse
c. both forward and reverse
d. none of the above

Answer: b

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Ques 304. In the breakdown region, a zener didoe behaves like a …………… source.

a. constant voltage
b. constant current
c. constant resistance
d. none of the above

Answer: a

Ques 305. There is a need of transformer for ………………..

a. half-wave rectifier
b. centre-tap full-wave rectifier
c. bridge full-wave rectifier
d. none of the above

Answer: b

Ques 306. The most widely used rectifier is ……………….

a. half-wave rectifier
b. centre-tap full-wave rectifier
c. bridge full-wave rectifier
d. none of the above

Answer: c

Ques 307. A transistor has …………………

a. one pn junction
b. two pn junctions
c. three pn junctions
d. four pn junctions

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Answer: b

Ques 308. The number of depletion layers in a transistor is …………

a. four
b. three
c. one
d. two

Answer: d

Ques 309. The element that has the biggest size in a transistor is ………………..
a. collector
b. base
c. emitter
d. collector-base-junction

Answer: a

Ques 310. In a pnp transistor, the current carriers are ………….

a. acceptor ions
b. donor ions
c. free electrons
d. holes

Answer: d

Ques 311. In a npn transistor, ……………. are the minority carriers

a. free electrons
b. holes
c. donor ions

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d. acceptor ions

Answer: b

Ques 312. In a transistor ………………..

a. IC = IE + IB

b. IB = IC + IE

c. IE = IC – IB

d. IE = IC + IB

Answer: d

Ques 313. The most commonly used transistor arrangement is …………… arrangement

a. common emitter
b. common base
c. common collector
d. none of the above

Answer: a

Ques 314. A transistor is connected in CB mode. If it is not connected in CE mode with


same bias voltages, the values of IE, IB and IC will …………..

a. remain the same


b. increase
c. decrease
d. none of the above

Answer: a

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Ques 315. The most commonly used semiconductor in the manufacture of a transistor
is ………….

a. germanium
b. silicon
c. carbon
d. none of the above

Answer: b

Ques 316. The collector-base junction in a transistor has ……………..

a. forward bias at all times


b. reverse bias at all times
c. low resistance
d. none of the above

Answer: b

Ques 317. For proper operation of the transistor, its collector should have …………

a. Proper forward bias


b. Proper reverse bias
c. Very small size
d. None of the above

Answer: b

Ques 318. If the value of collector current IC increases, then the value of VCE …………

a. Remains the same


b. Decreases
c. Increases

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d. None of the above

Answer: b

Ques 319. An ammeter is connected in …………….. with the circuit element whose
current we wish to measure

a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Series or parallel
d) None of the above

Answer: a
Ques 320. A galvanometer in series with a high resistance is called ……………
a) An ammeter
b) A voltmeter
c) A wattmeter
d) None of the above

Answer: b

Ques 321. An ammeter should have ………….. resistance

a) Infinite
b) Very large
c) Very low
d) None of the above

Answer: c

Ques 322. A voltmeter should have ………. Resistance

a) Zero
b) Very high
c) Very low
d) None of the above

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Answer: b

Ques 323. An SCR has …………….. pn junctions

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) None of the above

Answer: b

Ques 324. An SCR has ………….. semiconductor layers

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) None of the above

Answer: c

Ques 325. An SCR has three terminals viz ……………

a) Cathode, anode, gate


b) Anode, cathode, grid
c) Anode, cathode, drain
d) None of the above

Answer: a

Ques 326. An SCR behaves as a ……………. Switch

a) Unidirectional
b) Bidirectional
c) Mechanical
d) None of the above

Answer: a

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Ques 327. An SCR is sometimes called …………

a) Triac
b) Diac
c) Unijunction transistor
d) Thyristor

Answer: d

Ques 328. In the normal operation of an SCR, anode is …………… w.r.t. cathode

a) At zero potential
b) Negative
c) Positive
d) None of the above

Answer: c

Ques 329. In normal operation of an SCR, gate is ………..w.r.t. cathode


a) Positive
b) Negative
c) At zero potential
d) None of the above

Answer: a

Ques 330. The control element of an SCR is ………….

a) Cathode
b) Anode
c) Anode supply
d) Gate

Answer: d

Ques 331. An SCR is turned off by …………….

a) Reducing anode voltage to zero

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b) Reducing gate voltage to zero
c) Reverse biasing the gate
d) None of the above

Answer: a

Ques 332. An SCR is a ……………….. triggered device

a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Voltage as well as current
d) None of the above

Answer: b

Ques 333. An SCR is turned off when …………..

a) Anode current is reduced to zero


b) Gate voltage is reduced to zero
c) Gate is reverse biased
d) None of the above

Answer: a

Ques 334. If firing angle in an SCR circuit is increased, the output …………

a) Remains the same


b) Is increased
c) Is decreased
d) None of the above

Answer: c

Ques 335. If gate current is increased, then anode-cathode voltage at which SCR closes
…………….

a) Is decreased
b) Is increased

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c) Remains the same
d) None of the above

Answer: a

Ques 336. When SCR is OFF, the current in the circuit is …………….

a) Exactly zero
b) Small leakage current
c) Large leakage current
d) None of the above

Answer: b

Ques 337. An SCR can exercise control over ………. of a.c. supply

a) Positive half-cycles only


b) Negative half-cycles only
c) Both positive and negative half-cycles
d) Positive or negative half-cycles

Answer: d

Ques 338. When SCR starts conducting, then ……………. loses all control
a) Gate
b) Cathode
c) Anode
d) None of the above

Answer: a

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