Optometrist GR II QP
Optometrist GR II QP
Optometrist GR II QP
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Total Number of Questions : 100 Time : 75 Minutes
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. The Question Paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four
versions of Question Booklets with Question Booklet Alpha Code viz. A, B, C & D.
2. The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet
of the Question Booklet.
3. The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in your seating position in
the Examination Hall.
4. If you get a Question Booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha
code in the seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator IMMEDIATELY.
5. The Question Booklet Serial Number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your
Question Booklet is un-numbered, please get it replaced by new Question Booklet with same
alpha code.
6. The Question Booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should
not open the Question Booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.
7. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the candidate should check that
the Question Booklet supplied to him/her contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The
Question Booklet does not have unprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should
bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha
code. This is most important.
8. A blank sheet of paper is attached to the Question Booklet. This may be used for rough
work.
9. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before
marking your answers.
10. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer.
Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number
using Blue or Black Ball Point Pen in the OMR Answer Sheet.
11. Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be
deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.
12. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and
without handing over his/her Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure
that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and
that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.
13. Strict compliance of instructions is essential. Any malpractice or attempt to commit any
kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the disqualification of the candidate.
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A -2-
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A -3-
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12. The posterior end of which muscle insertion almost overlies the macula ?
A) Superior oblique muscle B) Inferior oblique muscle
C) Superior rectus muscle D) Lateral rectus muscle
13. Lateral part of superior orbital fissure transmits the following structures except
A) Oculomotor N B) Lacrimal N
C) Frontal N D) Trochlear N
16. All of the following muscles have two arteries to supply except
A) Medial rectus B) Lateral rectus
C) Superior rectus D) Inferior rectus
A -4-
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18. Extended wear contact lens wearers are prone for corneal infection caused by
A) Nocardia B) Aspergillus
C) Acanthamoeba D) Haemophilus
A -5-
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26. The maximum limit of difference in image size between the two eyes which can be
tolerated is
A) 1% B) 5% C) 8% D) 10%
28. Cycloplegics
A) stimulate accommodation B) inhibit accommodation
C) blur distant vision D) produce miosis
29. The angle of incidence for which the angle of refraction is 90º is called
A) The angle of refraction B) Critical angle
C) Axial ray D) Critical ray
31. For every 1 mm change in the radius of curvature of cornea, the refraction
changes by
A) 4 dioptre B) 5 dioptre
C) 6 dioptre D) 8 dioptre
A -6-
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32. Image formation at different distances in the two principal meridians is called
A) Presbyopia B) Emmetropia
C) Astigmatism D) Myopia
A -7-
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45. The bending of light rays around the aperture of a pinhole is due to
A) Refraction B) Dispersion
C) Diffraction D) Reflection
A -8-
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49. If the object is at infinity in front of a convex lens an image is formed at the
A) Infinity
B) Centre of curvature
C) Focal point
D) Between centre of curvature and focal point
50. In a Sturmsconoid with vertical meridian more curved than the horizontal meridian
the image formed at point B is
A) Oval ellipse B) Horizontal line
C) Vertical line D) Circle
A -9-
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70. Prostaglandin analogue used for treatment of primary open angle glaucoma
A) Brimonidine B) Latanoprost C) Dorzolamide D) Brinzolamide
A -12-
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79. All of the following are age related acquired cataract except
A) Cortical cataract B) Posterior subcapsular cataract
C) Lamellar cataract D) Nuclear cataract
80. All of the following are associated with acute anterior uveitis except
A) Cells B) Flare
C) Keratic precipitates D) Choroiditis
82. Which among the following are grade of Binocular single vision ?
A) Simultaneous perception B) Fusion
C) Stereopsis D) All of the above
A -13-
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88. The type of retinal detachment which occurs following retinal tears or holes is
A) Rhegmatogenous B) Exudative
C) Tractional D) All of the above
89. Laser photocoagulation is done for which of the following stage of Diabetic
retinopathy ?
A) Mild non proliferative B) Moderate non proliferative
C) High risk proliferative D) Tractional detachment
92. Vision 2020 aims to bring down blindness to how much percentage by the year
2020 ?
A) 1% B) 0.3% C) 0.75% D) 2.2%
A -14-
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93. Post mortem enucleation for corneal transplantation should be ideally done within
how many hours of death ?
A) 8 – 12 hours B) 4 – 6 hours
C) 10 – 12 hours D) 24 hours
95. Blindness in premature and low birth weight infants can occur due to
A) Retinoblastoma B) Retinopathy of prematurity
C) Retinitis D) Choroiditis
A -15-
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A -16-