Test Booklet Series Written Test for the Post of Test Booklet No.

A Assistant Registrar, 2022

Application ID ................................................................. Answer Sheet No. ....................................

Name of Applicant ........................................................... Signature of Applicant : ............................

Date of Examination: 06/03/2022 Signature of the Invigilator

..................................................

Duration : 2 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
(i) The question paper is in the form of Test-Booklet containing 100 (hundred) questions. On receipt of the Test-
Booklet, the applicant must immediately check and ensure that it contains all the questions. Discrepancy, if
any, should be reported to the invigilator immediately after receiving the Test-Booklet. A separate answer
sheet is also provided along with the test booklet.
(ii) Out of 100 questions, 50 are MCQs. Each MCQ carries four answers marked (a), (b), (c) and (d), out of which
only one is correct. For answering these MCQs i.e., Q 1 to 50, an applicant has to use Part 1 of the Answer-
Sheet, having 50 rows containing four circles each. To mark the answer, an applicant must darken the
appropriate circle in the row of each question with Blue or Black pen. Please note that for each question only
one circle should be darkened as a mark of the answer chosen by the applicant. If more than one circle for the
question is found darkened or if any other circle carries any other mark, the question will be treated as
cancelled.
(iii) Another 50 questions, i.e. Q 51 to 100, are either fill in the blank type or very short answer type questions. For
answering these questions, an applicant has to use Part 2 of the Answer-Sheet. Please note that the answers
of these questions must be limited to be written on the answer sheet in the provided space only. The
applicant MUST NOT write the answers anywhere else.
(iv) The candidate should write his/her details at the places provided on the cover page of the Test-Booklet/
Question Paper and on the Answer-Sheet and NOWHERE ELSE.
(v) No second Test-Booklet or Answer-Sheet will be provided. The applicants are advised to be careful in handling
it and marking the answer on the Answer-Sheet.
(vi) For every correct answer of the question One (1) mark will be awarded. For every un-attempted question,
Zero (0) mark shall be awarded. There is no Negative Marking.
(vii) Marking shall be done on the basis of answers responded only on the provided space of the Answer-Sheet.
(viii) The candidates should not remove any paper from the Test-Booklet. Attempting to remove any paper shall be
liable to be punished for use of unfair means.
(ix) Rough work may be done on the blank space provided in the Test-Booklet only and nowhere else.
(x) Mobile phones (even in Switch-off mode) and such other communication/programmable devices are not allowed
inside the examination hall.
(xi) No candidate shall be permitted to leave the examination hall before the expiry of the time.

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO.

AR 1 [P.T.O.
101 / 1
AR 2
Directions (Q. 1-2) : In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the
sixth sentence are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been
removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper
sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet

1. S1 : Universities are peculiar institutions.

S6 : It is the most important institution in the complex process of knowledge creation and
distribution.
P: Traditionally elite institutions, the modern university has provided social mobility to previously
disfranchised groups.
Q : The contemporary university stands at the centre of its society.
R : They have common historical roots yet are deeply embedded in their societies.
S: Established in the medieval period to transmit established knowledge and provide training
for a few key professions, universities have become a primary creator of new knowledge
through basic research.
The proper sequence should be
(a) P S Q R (b) S Q R P
(c) S P R Q (d) R P S Q

2. S1 : Don't you think that the housefly is a nuisance?

S6 : When you see a fly rubbing its legs together, it is just cleaning itself, and scraping off some
of the material that has gathered there.
P: For ages that's what man considered the fly to be - just a nuisance.
Q : It was discovered that these flies carried disease germs that cause the death of millions of
people every year.
R : But now we know that the innocent looking housefly is one of man's worst enemies.
S: It makes an irritating buzzing sound; it annoys you when it crawls on your skin; and
so on.
The proper sequence should be
(a) R Q P S (b) P Q S R
(c) Q P R S (d) S P R Q

AR 3 [P.T.O.
101 / 2
Directions (Q. 3-4) : Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given
three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the
underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b)
or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the
Answer Sheet.

3. I would rather have a noble enemy than a mean friend.

(a) would more have (b) would have
(c) will have (d) No improvement

4. No sooner had he completed his first novel than he fell seriously ill.
(a) he had completed (b) could he completed
(c) he completed (d) No improvement

Directions (Q. 5-7) : Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the contents of
the passage and opinion of the author only.
Passage : Most of the people who appear most often and most gloriously in the history books are great
conquerors and generals and soldiers, whereas the people who really helped civilization forward are
often never mentioned at all. We do not know who first set a broken leg, or launched a seaworthy
boat, or calculated the length of the year, or manoeuvred a field; but we know all about the killers and
destroyers. People think a great deal of them, so much so that on all the highest pillars in the great
cities of the world you will find the figure of a conqueror or a general or a solider. And I think most
people believed that the greatest countries are those that have beaten in battle the greatest number of
other countries and ruled over them as conquerors.

5. People who are glorified often in history books are those

(a) who contributed to the public health.
(b) who contributed to the technical knowledge of man.
(c) who made calendars.
(d) who fought and won wars.

6. The words "the people who really helped civilization forward" suggest that conquerors, generals,
and soldiers
(a) contributed a great deal to civilization.
(b) contributed only towards civilization.
(c) were least interested in the progress of civilization.
(d) contributed little to civilization.

7. We will find the figure of a conqueror or a general or a soldier on all the highest pillars in great
cities because
(a) they sacrificed their lives for the benefit of humanity.
(b) people have exaggerated notions about their achievements.
(c) they had a deep concern for the welfare of humanity.
(d) they built most cities.

AR 4
Directions (Q. 8-9) : Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words are given
below it. select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and
indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

8. Most of the students have forgotten to bring their certificates; they will be _______ by the
Principal for this reason.
(a) reproached (b) abused
(c) accused (d) reprimanded

9. He _______________ the role of the organization in creating environmental awareness among

the people.
(a) collaborated (b) commanded
(c) contrasted (d) commended

Directions (Q. 10-11) : Each statement consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed
by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark
your response on your Answer Sheet accordingly.

10. It was a mystery as to where the young girl had acquired such a naive belief.
(a) credulous (b) childlike
(c) wise' (d) innocent

11. Terrorists profess fanatical ideology.

(a) bigoted (b) militant
(c) moderate (d) fervid

Directions (Q. 12-13) : Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings
to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d). which is the most appropriate expression

12. At the drop of a hat.

(a) Without any hesitation
(b) When attempt fails and it's time to start all over
(c) To further a loss with mockery
(d) Judging other's intentions too much

13. The Holy Grail.

(a) The pious place of worship (b) An important object or goal
(c) A very important place (d) Someone's destination of life

AR 5 [P.T.O.
14. Which one of the following decimal numbers is a rational number with denominator 37?
(a) 0-459459459 ..... (b) 0-459459459
(c) 0-0459459459 ..... (d) 0-00459459 .....

15. The age of a woman is a two-digit integer. On reversing this integer, the new integer is the age
of her husband who is elder to her. The difference between their ages is one-eleventh of their
sum. What is the difference between their ages?
(a) 8 years (b) 9 years
(c) 10 years (d) 11 years

16. All odd prime numbers upto 110 are multiplied together. What is the unit digit in this product?
(a) 0 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) None of these

17. An alloy A contains two elements, copper and tin in the ratio of 2 : 3, whereas an alloy B
contains the same elements in the ratio of 3 : 4. If 20 kg of alloy A, 28 kg of alloy B and some
more pure copper are mixed to form a third alloy C which now contains copper and tin in the
ratio of 6 : 7, then what is the quantity of pure copper mixed in the alloy C?
(a) 3 kg (b) 4 kg
(c) 5 kg (d) 7 kg

18. A man can row at a speed of x km/hr in still water. If in a stream which is flowing at a speed
of y km/hr it takes him z hours to row to a place and back, then what is the distance between
the two places?
z( x 2  y 2 ) z( x 2  y 2 )
(a) (b)
2y 2x
2 2
z( x  y ) z( x  y 2 )
2
(c) (d)
2 zx x

19. A water tank has been fitted with two taps P and Q and a drain pipe R. Taps P and Q fill at
the rate of 12 litres per minute and 10 litres per minute respectively.
Consider the following statements S1, S2 and S3.
S1 : Pipe R drains out at the rate of 6 litres per minute.
S2 : If both the taps and the drain pipe are opened simultaneously, then the tank is filled in
5 hours 45 minutes.
S3 : Pipe R drains out (fully) the filled tank in 15 hours 20 minutes.
To know what is the capacity of the tank, which one of the following is correct?
(a) S2 is only sufficient
(b) S1, S2 and S3 are necessary
(c) Any two out of S1, S2 and S3 are sufficient
(d) None of the above.

AR 6
20. A, B, C, D and E start a partnership firm. Capital contributed by A is three times that contributed
by D. E contributes half of A's contribution, B contributes one-third of E's contribution and C
contributes two-third of A's contribution. If the difference between the combined shares of A, D
and E and the combined shares of B and C in the total profit of the firm is ` 13,500, what is
the combined share of B, C and E? (the shares are supposed to be proportional to the contributions)
(a) ` 13,500 (b) ` 18,000
(c) ` 19,750 (d) ` 20,250

21. Arrange the following words in a meaningful sequence -

1. Frog
2. Grass
3. Grasshopper
4. Eagle
5. Snake
(a) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 (b) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
(c) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5 (d) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2

22. Hypsiphobia : Height : : Hylophobia : ?

(a) Forests (b) Animals
(c) Water (d) All of the above

23. Ten new television shows appeared during the month of September. Five of the shows were
sitcoms, three were hour-long dramas, and two were news-magazine shows. By January, only
seven of these new shows were still on the air. Five of the shows that remained were sitcoms.
(a) Only one of the news-magazine shows remained on the air.
(b) Only one of the hour-long dramas remained on the air.
(c) At least one of the shows that was cancelled was an hour-long drama.
(d) Television viewers prefer sitcoms over hour-long dramas.

24. Direction : Two statements I and II are given. These statements may be either independent causes
or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statement may be the
effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer
choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer :
I. The meteorological Department has issued a statement mentioning deficient rainfall during
monsoon in many parts of the country.
II. The Government has lowered the revised estimated GDP growth from the level of earlier
estimates.
(a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(c) Both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(d) Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

AR 7 [P.T.O.
25. If STRONG is written as ROTNSG, then how would NAGPUR be written in the same code?
(a) GPAUNR (b) PGUARN
(c) PGAURN (d) GPUANR

26. Reptile is to lizard as flower is to

(a) petal (b) stem
(c) daisy (d) alligator

27. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

migenlasan means cupboard
lasanpoen means boardwalk
cuopdansa means pullman
Which word could mean "walkway"?
(a) poenmigen (b) cuopeisel
(c) lasandansa (d) poenforc

28. India's territorial limit extends towards the sea up to

(a) 10 nautical miles (b) 12 nautical miles
(c) 14 nautical miles (d) 15 nautical miles

29. In 1911, who among the following introduced a bill in the imperial Legislative Council for
introduction of compulsory and free primary education in India?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Sir Harcourt Butler (d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

30. The situation in an economy which is growing slowly along with rapid inflation (rising price
level) is called
(a) Stagnation (b) Deflation
(c) Stagflation (d) Recession

31. Equality before the law or equal protection of the laws within the territory of India is guaranteed
under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 15
(c) Article 16 (d) Article 22

AR 8
32. Which among the following fundamental rights is/are available to non-citizens?
1. Freedom of speech
2. Protection against self-incrimination
3. Freedom of conscience
4. Non-discrimination in employment
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 only

33. Which one of the following water bodies separates the Andaman and the Nicobar Islands?
(a) Gulf of Mannar (b) Ten Degree Channel
(c) Eleven Degree Channel (d) Palk Strait

34. Which one among the following is a free-living animal?

(a) Liver Fluke (b) Wuchereria
(c) Plasmodium (d) Planaria

35. An antibiotic is not useful against of virus whereas a vaccine is. Which one of the following is
the most appropriate reason for this?
(a) An antibiotic can break RNA only, whereas a virus has DNA.
(b) An antibiotic is a carbohydrate in its chemical nature, whereas a vaccine is a protein that
works well to kill a virus.
(c) Only a vaccine can break the genetic material of a virus.
(d) A virus does not use biochemical pathways that can be blocked by an antibiotic. But a
vaccine can boost an immune system to fight the virus.

36. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Real GDP is calculated by valuing outputs of different years at common prices.
(b) Potential GDP is the real GDP that the economy would produce if its resources were fully
employed.
(c) Nominal GDP is calculated by valuing outputs of different years at constant prices.
(d) Real GDP per capita is the ratio of real GDP divided by population.

AR 9 [P.T.O.
37. The direction of acceleration in uniform circular motion is along the
(a) direction of motion
(b) tangent to the circle at the point of observation
(c) direction of velocity
(d) direction perpendicular to velocity

38. Which one of the following British firms was taken over by Soorajmull-Nagarmull group?
(a) McLeod (b) Octavius Steel
(c) Davenport (d) Andrew Yule

39. The situation where the equilibrium level of real GDP falls short of potential GDP is known as
(a) Recessionary gap (b) Inflationary gap
(c) Demand-side inflation (d) Supply-side inflation

40. Ozone layer, which absorbs the ultra-violet radiation, is found in which one of the following
layers of the atmosphere?
(a) Ionosphere (b) Troposphere
(c) Mesosphere (d) Stratosphere

41. If the Executive Council of Sri Vishwakarma Skill University does not agree with the draft
Ordinance proposed by the Skill Council for approval, the Executive Council may
1. amend the draft
2. reject the proposal
3. return the draft for reconsideration
4. refer to the Chancellor by recording the reasons
Choose the correct option:
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) Only 4

AR 10
42. The following has the effect of interruption in service:
1. Unauthorized absence not regularised by any kind of leave
2. Suspension followed by reinstatement after imposing the major penalty
3. Delay in joining time while on transfer
4. Period of absence not treated as 'dies-non'
(a) 1&2 (b) 2 & 3
(c) 3&4 (d) 4 & 1

43. Books of Accounts of the Universities in Haryana funded by the State Govt. should be
maintained on
(a) Cash basis, (b) Accrual basis,
(c) Partially on cash basis, (d) None of these

44. An officer with half a day's CL at his credit was allowed to avail the same during the second
half of a working day. He could not report for duty for the next 4 days due to his sudden illness
and therefore had applied for grant of EL for 4 days. In such a situation, how would the request
of the officer be processed?
(a) Since CL cannot be combined with earned leave, his request cannot be agreed to.
(b) He may be allowed special casual leave to regularize the absence.
(c) May be sanctioned extraordinary leave to regularize the absence.
(d) His request for earned leave in continuation of the half day CL may be agreed to in the
circumstances stated.

45. Arrange the following in logical sequence:

1. Regulations
2. Statutes
3. Ordinances
4. Act
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 3, 4, 1, 2
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1

46. Few students of a Programme could not be redistricted with the University, due to want of
essential documents, even on the date of declaration of the result of first semester examinations
in which they were allowed to appear provisionally. The Controller of Examinations should:
(a) provisionally declare the result subject to successful registration of such students
(b) keep their result awaited (RLA)
(c) supply their confidential result to Academic Branch to promote them to next semester, if
otherwise eligible, to avoid their academic loss
(d) recommend the Registration Branch to cancel their admission

AR 11 [P.T.O.
47. After having declared L-1 during a process of e-tendering for purchase of Research equipment
for the University, the bidder withdraws himself out of process. As Assistant Registrar (Store &
Purchase), you have to:
(a) cancel the process & re-tender the same to purchase the equipment
(b) negotiate with the bidder L-2 for supply of equipment at the rates quoted by L-1 so as to
avoid the time loss
(c) negotiate with any of the bidders for supply of equipment at the rates quoted by L-1 so as
to avoid the time loss
(d) purchase the equipment on the basis of quotations to be collected by the local purchase
committee to avoid the time loss

48. After a process of e-tendering for providing outsourcing services to the University is over (but
the contract has not yet awarded), another Contractor offers to provide the services at the rates
below than the rates quoted by the lowest bidder L-1. To save the cost, it is recommended to:
(a) cancel the process, retender it and ask this contractor to bid in tendering
(b) cancel the process and award the contract to the this Contractor
(c) re-negotiate with the bidder L-1 to reduce the rates
(d) award the contract to the bidder L-1 and forget the cost saving

49. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled
as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : Central Universities are considered elite higher education institutions in India
Reason (R) : Despite their elitist image, these institutions do not find place in top order of
international rankings.
Based on above, choose the correct answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true and R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

50. The deputation of a government servant can be cancelled immediately in case

(a) the employee makes such request
(b) the borrowing Department so deemed it appropriate
(c) the parent Department so deemed it appropriate
(d) Any of above

AR 12
Directions (Q,. 51 to 72) : Each of the following sentence has a balank space. You have to fill this
blank space with the appropriate word(s) so as to indicate your response on the Part 2 of the answer
sheet provided separately. Please be very very brief and avoide to use irrevelent word(s).

51. IMPRINT is the first of its kind MHRD supported Pan- IIT + IISc joint initiative to address the
major science and engineering challenges. Full form of IMPRINT is ………………………….

52. The ……………………………. is a nationally integrated education and competency-based

framework that enables persons to acquire desired competency levels and organizes qualifications
according to a series of levels of knowledge, skills and aptitude.

53. As per assessment of courses under Community College Scheme, the credits regarding skill
component will be awarded in terms of NSQF level certification which will have 60% weight-
age of total credits of the course in following manner.

 Certificate courses: NSQF level 4 certificate - XX credits

 Diploma courses: NSQF level 5 certificate - XX credits

 Advanced Diploma courses: NSQF level 6 certificate - …. credits

54. The National Education Policy 2020 recommends the creation of an apex advisory body
……………………………………….. for elementary to University education in India duly
replacing the Central Advisory Board of Education (CABE).

55. As provided in NEP 2020, the Board of Governor (BoG) of each Higher Education Institution
shall be responsible and accountable for the outcomes of the HEI to the stakeholders through
transparent disclosures of relevant records. It will be responsible for meeting all regulatory
guidelines mandated by the ………………………………………………..

56. If 'Si' is the SGPA of the ith semester and 'Ci' is the total number of credits in that semester, then
the formula for Cumulative Grade Point Average is CGPA = ……………….

57. Institutions opting for Subsequent Cycles (Cycle 2, 3, 4….) of NAAC accreditation can submit
……………………, during the last six months of the validity period subject to the fulfillment
of other conditions specified by NAAC from time to time for the purpose.

58. The NAAC assessment process has three stages, comprising of three main components, viz., Self
Study Report (SSR), Student Satisfaction Survey and ………………………….

59. As per uniform grading system defined in the Choice Based Credit System by the UGC, the
corresponding Grade Point for letter Grade B+ (Good) is .................

AR 13 [P.T.O.
60. As per UGC regulations 2020, any Higher Educational Institution may apply for offering
programmes through the Open and Distance Learning mode, which is accredited by the National
Assessment and Accreditation Council with minimum score of ............... on a 4-point scale.

61. As per UGC regulations 2019, any technical institution applying to be declared as an Institution
Deemed to be University should have minimum ………….. of the eligible technical programmes
accredited by the National Board of Accreditation (NBA).

62. National Board of Accreditation operates on a two-Tier system only for ……………………..
Programs while for all other Programs the operation is uniform for all Institutions.

63. The aim of National Education Policy 2020 is to increase the Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher
education including vocational education from 26.3% (2018) to ............... % by 2035.

64. SAMVAY is a credit framework for skill based vocation courses notified by Ministry of Education
in 2018. Full form of SAMVAY is ……………………

65. ………………. the digital repository of Indian Electronic Thesis and Dissertations set up by
INFLIBNET Centre.

66. The First Appellate Authority should decide on first appeal within 30 days from the date of its
receipt and within 45 days from the date of its receipt if ............

67. The timeline for PIO to reply under RTI Act is 30 days but within 40 days if ..................

68. The Quantum of reservation in the State of Haryana for Backward class BC-B category persons
is ...... in class I & II posts in direct recruitment.

69. The Quantum of reservation in the State of Haryana for ex-servicemen is ...... horizontal reservation
in class III & IV posts in direct recruitment.

70. Registrar is the ex-officio ............... of the Executive Council of Sri Vishwakarma Skill University.

71. A special meeting of the Court of Sri Vishwakarma Skill University may be convened on a
written request by ........... of its members.

72. As defined in the University Act, the Selection Committee for the post of Vice Chancellor of
Sri Vishwakarma Skill University comprising of .....................

AR 14
Directions (Q. 73 to 100) : Please answer the following questions on Part 2 of the answer sheet
provided separately. Please be very very brief and avoide to use irrevelent word(s). Your answer must
be limited to the space provided to answer the respective questions in the answer sheet.

73. In which year the UGC became a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament?

74. At present how may public Institute of Eminence are their in India, as declared by Ministry of
Education?

75. Name the scheme launched by Mr. Narender Modi, Prime Minister of India with a target to train
400 million citizens by 2022 to make them Industry oriented.

76. Who is the ex-officio president of General Council (GC) of National Assessment and Accreditation
Council (NAAC)?

77. Which body was set up by the Central Govt. vide Gazette Notification in Dec 2018 subsuming
the existing National Council for Vocational Training (NCVT) and National Skill Development
Agency (NSDA)?

78. With which University the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship has signed a
Memorandum of Understanding for further strengthening the vocational and technical training
framework in Jan 2022 with an objective to link vocational education and training with higher
education, thereby making India's youth employable?

79. The Choice Based Credit System is being implemented in the Universities subject to the condition
that all the stakeholders agree to common minimum syllabi of the core papers and at least follow
common minimum curriculum as fixed by the UGC. What is the maximum deviation (in terms
of percentage) allowed from the syllabi?

80. What is the major disadvantage mentioned in the Choice Based Credit System (prescribed by
UGC) being implemented in the Universities?

81. Where is the Information and Library Network (INFLIBNET), an Autonomous Inter-University
Centre (IUC) of University Grant Commission located?

82. Which is the Inter University Centre set up by the UGC with the goal of addressing the needs
of Higher Education through the use of powerful medium of Television along with the appropriate
use of emerging ICT?

83. In which year the Haryana State Higher Education Council was established?

84. From which date the PhD degree shall be an essential qualification for appointment of Assistant
Professor in the Universities per UGC amended regulations 2021?

AR 15 [P.T.O.
85. The objective of National Employability Enhancement Mission (NEEM) is to offer on the job
practical training to enhance employability of a person either pursuing his or her Post Graduation/
graduation/diploma in any technical or non-technical stream or has discontinued studies after
Class 10th to enhance his/her employability. The NEEM facilitator has to be registered with the
AICTE. For how long this registration remains valid from the date of registration?
86. What is the weight-age (in terms of %) of Combined Metric for Publications under Research and
Professional Practice Parameter out of 100 under Overall Category for NIRF 2021?
87. Which Indian State has the highest number of "deemed to be Universities"?
88. Under Section 6(3) of RTI Act, 2005 the CPIO has to transfer the application concerning another
public authority within how many days of its receipt?
89. What time limit is specified in the 'RTI Act, 2005' for the Central / State Information Commissions
to decide on complaints?
90. Who is responsible for conduct of audit of all receipt & payment transactions in the State Govt
Universities in Haryana?
91. Who is responsible for due diligence w.r.t applicable provisions of Income Tax Act in the State
Govt. Universities in Haryana?
92. What portion of applicable GST is deducted at source at the time of making payment for
outsourcing services in State Govt. Universities in Haryana?
93. Which authority of the Sri Vishwakarma Skill University is competent to fix the limit of expenditures
to be incurred in the financial year?
94. Who leads the Academic Procession entering the Convocation hall during convocation of a
University?
95. Which authority of Sri Vishwakarma Skill University is competent to amend or repeal any of the
Statutes of the University?
96. Which statutory body of Sri Vishwakarma Skill University has student's representative as its
members?
97. Suppose a matter is not covered within the rules of a State Govt. University. Which rules are to
be referred and made applicable by the Registrar of the University?
98. Write the maximum continuous period for which leave of any kind may be normally granted to
a government servant?
99. Is there any age limit for an unmarried daughter who is dependent on government servant for
reimbursement of medical bills? If yes what is it?
100. Which authority of the Sri Vishwakarma Skill University has the power to constitute a new
teaching Department as per the University Act?

AR 16
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AR 17 [P.T.O.
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AR 18
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AR 19 [P.T.O.
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AR 20