Mock CAT – 03 2018

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VARC

LRDI

QA

Sec 1
Directions for questions (1to 6): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.

I was living at the time in a rented upper at in Muswell Hill. The only thing I had to occupy me during the
long days was considering the tree, springlike in the back garden, writing an occasional review when the
New Statesman asked me to, and doing what I was not yet able to consider as work on my new book. I had
a belief that if I wrote on in my dogged way some magic would ensue, the pencilled or inked words on my
foolscap paper would take on the authority of real writing and I would be swept on to the end. This was a
little bit like a belief in magic because I hadn’t arrived at any book in this way before, but I was supported
by this idea. And, miraculously, it happened just as I had foreseen. The day came when the writing caught
re, so to speak, and I knew that I had a real piece of work in my hands. In my excitement I wrote the date
of this illumination on the manuscript, to remind me later of how much I had worked for that moment. Alas
for attempting to give this kind of authority to the literary moment: the manuscript many years later was
sent for safe-keeping to a warehouse and there it was duly destroyed, in error of course, with all the papers
of my early writing career and all the books that went with that career.

The idea for the book was simple. A dying man considers the few physical objects which he has
accumulated during his life, and by which he is now surrounded, perhaps mockingly, perhaps comfortingly.
He re ects on the history of each object and so his life at the end is reduced to these few physical objects
rather than a network of relationships.

Just as the words caught re at a certain stage, so the material I was composing appeared at a certain
stage to lift me out of myself. This was a very precious feeling; and its virtue so far as this book was
concerned was that it did away with the too schematic structure with which I had begun. Other things
broke down and altered as well – my too-careful use of language, for example, which had been the support
of my early writing. A new freedom came to me, which I relished. I felt I had grown up; I felt I could do
anything I wished as a writer; and, indeed, for week after week everything I touched became good.

I was often asked later whether what I had written was autobiographical. The answer was: not as much as
it might appear. The novelist Richard Hughes, a senior literary gure at the time, became a friend of the
book. He liked it all but the end. And the reason he gave was interesting to me. He thought that at the end I
had relied too much on memory and real events; he preferred the simpler fabrication of what had gone
before. It was a aw – destructive of the unity of the work, as I recognised, but one which I had no means
of correcting: memory was too close to the writer. As I have said elsewhere, I don’t wish to claim that the
book was created out of nothing: the fabrication that came easily rested on the profound knowledge of the
social structure I had grown up with.

The schematic idea I had begun with damaged the book in a certain way. The schematic idea took me back
to the far past, which I could deal with only as a form of pastoral, which put some people off. I was born in
1932, and the pastoral with which the book begins was very far away to me. I used all kinds of hints from
the past to dramatise this period; I could not do anything else. So I can say that the book, though
autobiographical in one way, is, in the profoundest way, a work of the imagination, as Richard Hughes had
seen.

  Q.1
What is the main point of the author in the passage?

1  To highlight the importance of past memories in creating a work of import

2 To elaborate the process behind the creation of a certain work of ction

3 To point out the aws of being over-reliant on autobiographical elements in writing a work of ction

4 To lament the lack of unity in the novel which ultimately led to its disastrous reception by critics

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 2
GENRE: Autobiography / Memoir
 Answer key/Solution
(This is an excerpt from the preface to “A House for Mr. Biswas” written by the
novel’s author Sir V.S. Naipaul. Try reading this book. It’s a classic.)

It’s an easy to answer question if one remembers the fundamental rule of locating the main idea of the
passage. The main idea can’t be too broad or too narrow. The passage discusses the author’s method of
writing the novel under discussion. It states how it was started, what the theme of the novel was, and what
criticism it had faced. He mentions that the inspiration behind the novel was autobiographical elements
aided by plain old fabrication.
1 – Too generic. The passage doesn’t talk about the roles of memoirs in general.
2 – Correct option. “A certain work of ction” makes it logically correct.
3 – Too narrow. It is only mentioned in the last part of the passage.
4 – Is out of scope.
FeedBack
Directions for questions (1to 6): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.

I was living at the time in a rented upper at in Muswell Hill. The only thing I had to occupy me during the
long days was considering the tree, springlike in the back garden, writing an occasional review when the
New Statesman asked me to, and doing what I was not yet able to consider as work on my new book. I had
a belief that if I wrote on in my dogged way some magic would ensue, the pencilled or inked words on my
foolscap paper would take on the authority of real writing and I would be swept on to the end. This was a
little bit like a belief in magic because I hadn’t arrived at any book in this way before, but I was supported
by this idea. And, miraculously, it happened just as I had foreseen. The day came when the writing caught
re, so to speak, and I knew that I had a real piece of work in my hands. In my excitement I wrote the date
of this illumination on the manuscript, to remind me later of how much I had worked for that moment. Alas
for attempting to give this kind of authority to the literary moment: the manuscript many years later was
sent for safe-keeping to a warehouse and there it was duly destroyed, in error of course, with all the papers
of my early writing career and all the books that went with that career.

The idea for the book was simple. A dying man considers the few physical objects which he has
accumulated during his life, and by which he is now surrounded, perhaps mockingly, perhaps comfortingly.
He re ects on the history of each object and so his life at the end is reduced to these few physical objects
rather than a network of relationships.

Just as the words caught re at a certain stage, so the material I was composing appeared at a certain
stage to lift me out of myself. This was a very precious feeling; and its virtue so far as this book was
concerned was that it did away with the too schematic structure with which I had begun. Other things
broke down and altered as well – my too-careful use of language, for example, which had been the support
of my early writing. A new freedom came to me, which I relished. I felt I had grown up; I felt I could do
anything I wished as a writer; and, indeed, for week after week everything I touched became good.

I was often asked later whether what I had written was autobiographical. The answer was: not as much as
it might appear. The novelist Richard Hughes, a senior literary gure at the time, became a friend of the
book. He liked it all but the end. And the reason he gave was interesting to me. He thought that at the end I
had relied too much on memory and real events; he preferred the simpler fabrication of what had gone
before. It was a aw – destructive of the unity of the work, as I recognised, but one which I had no means
of correcting: memory was too close to the writer. As I have said elsewhere, I don’t wish to claim that the
book was created out of nothing: the fabrication that came easily rested on the profound knowledge of the
social structure I had grown up with.

The schematic idea I had begun with damaged the book in a certain way. The schematic idea took me back
to the far past, which I could deal with only as a form of pastoral, which put some people off. I was born in
1932, and the pastoral with which the book begins was very far away to me. I used all kinds of hints from
the past to dramatise this period; I could not do anything else. So I can say that the book, though
autobiographical in one way, is, in the profoundest way, a work of the imagination, as Richard Hughes had
seen.

  Q.2
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

1  Imagination is the key behind a successful novel.

2 Pastoral writing is looked down upon by people.

3 The author had been cautious about his use of language.

4 Unity in the plot is essential to writing a successful novel.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 3
It’s another easy question. The options are easy to eliminate. A logical
 Answer key/Solution
inference has to be backed by facts mentioned in the passage.
1 and 4 – Too generic. “Imagination is the key” has not been supported by the
author via evidence or premises in the passage. “Unity is essential” is
similarly out of scope.
2 – Incorrect. It is out of scope. “Looked down upon” is too extreme a stance.
3 – Correct. Refer to the lines ‘my too-careful use of language, for example, which had been the support of
my early writing’.
FeedBack
Directions for questions (1to 6): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.

I was living at the time in a rented upper at in Muswell Hill. The only thing I had to occupy me during the
long days was considering the tree, springlike in the back garden, writing an occasional review when the
New Statesman asked me to, and doing what I was not yet able to consider as work on my new book. I had
a belief that if I wrote on in my dogged way some magic would ensue, the pencilled or inked words on my
foolscap paper would take on the authority of real writing and I would be swept on to the end. This was a
little bit like a belief in magic because I hadn’t arrived at any book in this way before, but I was supported
by this idea. And, miraculously, it happened just as I had foreseen. The day came when the writing caught
re, so to speak, and I knew that I had a real piece of work in my hands. In my excitement I wrote the date
of this illumination on the manuscript, to remind me later of how much I had worked for that moment. Alas
for attempting to give this kind of authority to the literary moment: the manuscript many years later was
sent for safe-keeping to a warehouse and there it was duly destroyed, in error of course, with all the papers
of my early writing career and all the books that went with that career.

The idea for the book was simple. A dying man considers the few physical objects which he has
accumulated during his life, and by which he is now surrounded, perhaps mockingly, perhaps comfortingly.
He re ects on the history of each object and so his life at the end is reduced to these few physical objects
rather than a network of relationships.

Just as the words caught re at a certain stage, so the material I was composing appeared at a certain
stage to lift me out of myself. This was a very precious feeling; and its virtue so far as this book was
concerned was that it did away with the too schematic structure with which I had begun. Other things
broke down and altered as well – my too-careful use of language, for example, which had been the support
of my early writing. A new freedom came to me, which I relished. I felt I had grown up; I felt I could do
anything I wished as a writer; and, indeed, for week after week everything I touched became good.

I was often asked later whether what I had written was autobiographical. The answer was: not as much as
it might appear. The novelist Richard Hughes, a senior literary gure at the time, became a friend of the
book. He liked it all but the end. And the reason he gave was interesting to me. He thought that at the end I
had relied too much on memory and real events; he preferred the simpler fabrication of what had gone
before. It was a aw – destructive of the unity of the work, as I recognised, but one which I had no means
of correcting: memory was too close to the writer. As I have said elsewhere, I don’t wish to claim that the
book was created out of nothing: the fabrication that came easily rested on the profound knowledge of the
social structure I had grown up with.

The schematic idea I had begun with damaged the book in a certain way. The schematic idea took me back
to the far past, which I could deal with only as a form of pastoral, which put some people off. I was born in
1932, and the pastoral with which the book begins was very far away to me. I used all kinds of hints from
the past to dramatise this period; I could not do anything else. So I can say that the book, though
autobiographical in one way, is, in the profoundest way, a work of the imagination, as Richard Hughes had
seen.

  Q.3
The author cites Richard Hughes in the passage in order to:

1  show how the novel had divided opinions.

2 mention the reception that the novel had received.

3 show how people misread literary works.

4 specify the factors that shaped the novel.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 4
This is a tricky question. In case of example based questions, one has to keep
 Answer key/Solution
in mind the main aim of the author in the passage.
The last two paragraphs where Hughes has been mentioned shows the
ingredients that went in the making of the novel. The last line also states that,
‘So I can say that the book, though autobiographical in one way, is, in the profoundest way, a work of the
imagination, as Richard Hughes had seen.’ Hence, 4 is the correct choice.
1 and 3 – Talk about a negative outcome which is not mentioned in the passage.
2 – Is not the main aim of the author as he is not trying to focus on the success of the book. Rather, he is
focused on explaining how the book came into existence.
FeedBack
Directions for questions (1to 6): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.

I was living at the time in a rented upper at in Muswell Hill. The only thing I had to occupy me during the
long days was considering the tree, springlike in the back garden, writing an occasional review when the
New Statesman asked me to, and doing what I was not yet able to consider as work on my new book. I had
a belief that if I wrote on in my dogged way some magic would ensue, the pencilled or inked words on my
foolscap paper would take on the authority of real writing and I would be swept on to the end. This was a
little bit like a belief in magic because I hadn’t arrived at any book in this way before, but I was supported
by this idea. And, miraculously, it happened just as I had foreseen. The day came when the writing caught
re, so to speak, and I knew that I had a real piece of work in my hands. In my excitement I wrote the date
of this illumination on the manuscript, to remind me later of how much I had worked for that moment. Alas
for attempting to give this kind of authority to the literary moment: the manuscript many years later was
sent for safe-keeping to a warehouse and there it was duly destroyed, in error of course, with all the papers
of my early writing career and all the books that went with that career.

The idea for the book was simple. A dying man considers the few physical objects which he has
accumulated during his life, and by which he is now surrounded, perhaps mockingly, perhaps comfortingly.
He re ects on the history of each object and so his life at the end is reduced to these few physical objects
rather than a network of relationships.

Just as the words caught re at a certain stage, so the material I was composing appeared at a certain
stage to lift me out of myself. This was a very precious feeling; and its virtue so far as this book was
concerned was that it did away with the too schematic structure with which I had begun. Other things
broke down and altered as well – my too-careful use of language, for example, which had been the support
of my early writing. A new freedom came to me, which I relished. I felt I had grown up; I felt I could do
anything I wished as a writer; and, indeed, for week after week everything I touched became good.

I was often asked later whether what I had written was autobiographical. The answer was: not as much as
it might appear. The novelist Richard Hughes, a senior literary gure at the time, became a friend of the
book. He liked it all but the end. And the reason he gave was interesting to me. He thought that at the end I
had relied too much on memory and real events; he preferred the simpler fabrication of what had gone
before. It was a aw – destructive of the unity of the work, as I recognised, but one which I had no means
of correcting: memory was too close to the writer. As I have said elsewhere, I don’t wish to claim that the
book was created out of nothing: the fabrication that came easily rested on the profound knowledge of the
social structure I had grown up with.

The schematic idea I had begun with damaged the book in a certain way. The schematic idea took me back
to the far past, which I could deal with only as a form of pastoral, which put some people off. I was born in
1932, and the pastoral with which the book begins was very far away to me. I used all kinds of hints from
the past to dramatise this period; I could not do anything else. So I can say that the book, though
autobiographical in one way, is, in the profoundest way, a work of the imagination, as Richard Hughes had
seen.

  Q.4
With which of the following would the author of the passage not agree?

1  The author had expected to spontaneously start writing at some point.

2 The novel has elements of rusticity in it.

3 The author at an early stage was restrictive in his writing method.

4 The novel is a product of imaginary conceptions.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 4
It is a moderate level question. The logic is that of inferential questions.
 Answer key/Solution
1 – Can be backed by the lines “I had a belief that if I wrote on in my dogged
way some magic would ensue, the pencilled or inked words on my foolscap
paper would take on the authority of real writing and I would be swept on to
the end.”
2 – The author mentions the pastoral origin of the book. So, 2 is also something the author would surely
support.
3 – Can be backed by “This was a very precious feeling; and its virtue so far as this book was concerned
was that it did away with the too schematic structure with which I had begun.”
4 – Incorrect inference. Hence, it is the answer. The author speci es that the book is both autobiographical
and a work of profound fabrication. Even the ‘fabrication that came easily rested on the profound
knowledge of the social structure I had grown up with.’
FeedBack
Directions for questions (1to 6): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.

I was living at the time in a rented upper at in Muswell Hill. The only thing I had to occupy me during the
long days was considering the tree, springlike in the back garden, writing an occasional review when the
New Statesman asked me to, and doing what I was not yet able to consider as work on my new book. I had
a belief that if I wrote on in my dogged way some magic would ensue, the pencilled or inked words on my
foolscap paper would take on the authority of real writing and I would be swept on to the end. This was a
little bit like a belief in magic because I hadn’t arrived at any book in this way before, but I was supported
by this idea. And, miraculously, it happened just as I had foreseen. The day came when the writing caught
re, so to speak, and I knew that I had a real piece of work in my hands. In my excitement I wrote the date
of this illumination on the manuscript, to remind me later of how much I had worked for that moment. Alas
for attempting to give this kind of authority to the literary moment: the manuscript many years later was
sent for safe-keeping to a warehouse and there it was duly destroyed, in error of course, with all the papers
of my early writing career and all the books that went with that career.

The idea for the book was simple. A dying man considers the few physical objects which he has
accumulated during his life, and by which he is now surrounded, perhaps mockingly, perhaps comfortingly.
He re ects on the history of each object and so his life at the end is reduced to these few physical objects
rather than a network of relationships.

Just as the words caught re at a certain stage, so the material I was composing appeared at a certain
stage to lift me out of myself. This was a very precious feeling; and its virtue so far as this book was
concerned was that it did away with the too schematic structure with which I had begun. Other things
broke down and altered as well – my too-careful use of language, for example, which had been the support
of my early writing. A new freedom came to me, which I relished. I felt I had grown up; I felt I could do
anything I wished as a writer; and, indeed, for week after week everything I touched became good.

I was often asked later whether what I had written was autobiographical. The answer was: not as much as
it might appear. The novelist Richard Hughes, a senior literary gure at the time, became a friend of the
book. He liked it all but the end. And the reason he gave was interesting to me. He thought that at the end I
had relied too much on memory and real events; he preferred the simpler fabrication of what had gone
before. It was a aw – destructive of the unity of the work, as I recognised, but one which I had no means
of correcting: memory was too close to the writer. As I have said elsewhere, I don’t wish to claim that the
book was created out of nothing: the fabrication that came easily rested on the profound knowledge of the
social structure I had grown up with.

The schematic idea I had begun with damaged the book in a certain way. The schematic idea took me back
to the far past, which I could deal with only as a form of pastoral, which put some people off. I was born in
1932, and the pastoral with which the book begins was very far away to me. I used all kinds of hints from
the past to dramatise this period; I could not do anything else. So I can say that the book, though
autobiographical in one way, is, in the profoundest way, a work of the imagination, as Richard Hughes had
seen.

  Q.5
Which of the following is true with respect to the story of the novel the author discusses in the passage?

1  The story is about a man who is re ecting upon his past.

2 The story is about a man who is re ecting upon the signi cance of relationships.
3 The story is about a man who is re ecting upon the comforting presence of his acquired objects.

4 The story is about a man who is validating his success via the network of his relationships.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 1
It is a moderately di cult question. This question can be answered by a
 Answer key/Solution
careful reading of the second paragraph and by following the process of
elimination. This paragraph deals with the story of the novel.
1 – Correct. The author mentions in the novel that the man ‘at the end is
reduced to these few physical objects rather than a network of relationships.’ This shows that the
protagonist is in the process of “looking back at his life”.
2 and 4 – Exactly the opposite is mentioned. So, these are factually incorrect.
3 – Doesn’t match the tone of the author. The key is “comforting presence”. It can’t be justi ed by the
narration.
FeedBack
Directions for questions (1 to 6): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.

I was living at the time in a rented upper at in Muswell Hill. The only thing I had to occupy me during the
long days was considering the tree, springlike in the back garden, writing an occasional review when the
New Statesman asked me to, and doing what I was not yet able to consider as work on my new book. I had
a belief that if I wrote on in my dogged way some magic would ensue, the pencilled or inked words on my
foolscap paper would take on the authority of real writing and I would be swept on to the end. This was a
little bit like a belief in magic because I hadn’t arrived at any book in this way before, but I was supported
by this idea. And, miraculously, it happened just as I had foreseen. The day came when the writing caught
re, so to speak, and I knew that I had a real piece of work in my hands. In my excitement I wrote the date
of this illumination on the manuscript, to remind me later of how much I had worked for that moment. Alas
for attempting to give this kind of authority to the literary moment: the manuscript many years later was
sent for safe-keeping to a warehouse and there it was duly destroyed, in error of course, with all the papers
of my early writing career and all the books that went with that career.

The idea for the book was simple. A dying man considers the few physical objects which he has
accumulated during his life, and by which he is now surrounded, perhaps mockingly, perhaps comfortingly.
He re ects on the history of each object and so his life at the end is reduced to these few physical objects
rather than a network of relationships.

Just as the words caught re at a certain stage, so the material I was composing appeared at a certain
stage to lift me out of myself. This was a very precious feeling; and its virtue so far as this book was
concerned was that it did away with the too schematic structure with which I had begun. Other things
broke down and altered as well – my too-careful use of language, for example, which had been the support
of my early writing. A new freedom came to me, which I relished. I felt I had grown up; I felt I could do
anything I wished as a writer; and, indeed, for week after week everything I touched became good.

I was often asked later whether what I had written was autobiographical. The answer was: not as much as
it might appear. The novelist Richard Hughes, a senior literary gure at the time, became a friend of the
book. He liked it all but the end. And the reason he gave was interesting to me. He thought that at the end I
had relied too much on memory and real events; he preferred the simpler fabrication of what had gone
before. It was a aw – destructive of the unity of the work, as I recognised, but one which I had no means
of correcting: memory was too close to the writer. As I have said elsewhere, I don’t wish to claim that the
book was created out of nothing: the fabrication that came easily rested on the profound knowledge of the
social structure I had grown up with.

The schematic idea I had begun with damaged the book in a certain way. The schematic idea took me back
to the far past, which I could deal with only as a form of pastoral, which put some people off. I was born in
1932, and the pastoral with which the book begins was very far away to me. I used all kinds of hints from
the past to dramatise this period; I could not do anything else. So I can say that the book, though
autobiographical in one way, is, in the profoundest way, a work of the imagination, as Richard Hughes had
seen.

  Q.6
Which of the following would best be in line with the author’s belief in magic?

1  The way an atheist views his/her faith in times of trouble

2 The way a pragmatist views his winning of a lottery

3 The way a child gasps with wonder at the rainbow during Summers

4 The way a mother prays for the recovery of her sick child

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 2
This is a tough question. These kinds of questions test your ability to discard
 Answer key/Solution
ambiguous questions. It can be answered but it might take time. So, the key is
to leave these questions if you fail to get the logic behind the question stem
within 30 seconds or so. It is an analogy question which is based on the line -
“This was a little bit like a belief in magic because I hadn’t arrived at any book in this way before, but I was
supported by this idea. And, miraculously, it happened just as I had foreseen.” So, the logic is that the
author didn’t have any reason to believe in magic, but he did anyway. It doesn’t state whether the author
believed or disbelieved in magic in general.
1 – An atheist doesn’t have faith. We can’t assume that he/she will develop faith during times of trouble.
So, this is not a correct analogy.
3 and 4 – There are solid reasons for the child or mother in question to react the way they did. So, these
options don’t follow the logic required by the question.
2 – A pragmatist is a practical person who may or may not believe in luck. Winning a lottery is a matter of
luck. Irrespective of his prior belief, he/she will accept that luck played a role in his/her winning the lottery.
So, this is the closest to the author’s belief in magic.
FeedBack
Directions for questions (7 to 12): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

At rst glance, the Cornish mallow (Lavatera cretica) is little more than an unprepossessing weed. It has
pinkish owers and broad, at leaves that track sunlight throughout the day. However, it’s what the mallow
does at night that has propelled this humble plant into the scienti c spotlight. Hours before the dawn, it
springs into action, turning its leaves to face the anticipated direction of the sunrise. The mallow seems to
remember where and when the Sun has come up on previous days, and acts to make sure it can gather as
much light energy as possible each morning. When scientists try to confuse mallows in their laboratories
by swapping the location of the light source, the plants simply learn the new orientation.

What does it even mean to say that a mallow can learn and remember the location of the sunrise? The idea
that plants can behave intelligently, let alone learn or form memories, was a fringe notion until quite
recently. Memories are thought to be so fundamentally cognitive that some theorists argue that they’re a
necessary and su cient marker of whether an organism can do the most basic kinds of thinking. Surely
memory requires a brain, and plants lack even the rudimentary nervous systems of bugs and worms.

However, over the past decade or so this view has been forcefully challenged. The mallow isn’t an
anomaly. Plants are not simply organic, passive automata. We now know that they can sense and integrate
information about dozens of different environmental variables, and that they use this knowledge to guide
exible, adaptive behaviour.

For example, plants can recognise whether nearby plants are kin or unrelated, and adjust their foraging
strategies accordingly. The ower Impatiens pallida, also known as pale jewelweed, is one of several
species that tends to devote a greater share of resources to growing leaves rather than roots when put
with strangers – a tactic apparently geared towards competing for sunlight, an imperative that is
diminished when you are growing next to your siblings. Plants also mount complex, targeted defences in
response to recognising speci c predators. The small, owering Arabidopsis thaliana, also known as thale
or mouse-ear cress, can detect the vibrations caused by caterpillars munching on it and so release oils
and chemicals to repel the insects. Perhaps it’s not really so surprising, then, that plants learn and use
memories for prediction and decision-making.

‘The plants remember,’ said the behavioural ecologist Monica Gagliano , ‘they know exactly what’s going
on.’. She reasons that if plants can produce the results that lead us to believe other organisms can learn
and remember, we should similarly conclude that plants share these cognitive capacities. One form of
learning that’s been studied extensively is habituation, in which creatures exposed to an unexpected but
harmless stimulus (a noise, a ash of light) will have a cautionary response that slowly diminishes over
time. Think of entering a room with a humming refrigerator: it’s initially annoying, but usually you’ll get
used to it and perhaps not even notice after a while. True habituation is stimulus-speci c, so with the
introduction of a different and potentially dangerous stimulus, the animal will be re-triggered. Even in a
humming room, you will probably startle at the sound of a loud bang. This is called dishabituation, and
distinguishes genuine learning from other kinds of change, such as fatigue.

Of course, it’s a stretch of the imagination to try to think about what thinking might even mean for these
organisms, lacking as they do the brain(mind)/body(motor) divide. However, by pushing ourselves, we
might end up expanding the concepts – such as ‘memory’, ‘learning’ and ‘thought’ – that initially motivated
our enquiry. Having done so, we see that in many cases, talk of plant learning and memory is not just
metaphorical, but also matter-of-fact. Next time you stumble upon a kerbside mallow bobbing in the
sunlight, take a moment to look at it with new eyes, and to appreciate the window this little weed provides
into the extraordinary cognitive capacities of plants.
  Q.7
Why does the author give the example of the Cornish mallow in the rst paragraph?

1  To show that plants can learn new orientations easily

2 To show that mallows have good memory

3 To show that mallows can remember or predict the location of sunrise

4 To show that plants can use information to have a exible and adaptive behaviour

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 4
GENRE: Science / Biology/ Botany (Very similar to the passage on 'Subvinium'
 Answer key/Solution
which appeared in CAT 2017, Slot 2.)
It is an easy question. Follow the rule that an author gives an example to
support his main idea.
1, 2, and 3 - Factually correct according to the passage. But they don’t mention the main idea of the author
behind writing the passage.
4 - Explains the primary purpose of writing the rst paragraph. Hence, it is the answer.
FeedBack
Directions for questions (7 to 12): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

At rst glance, the Cornish mallow (Lavatera cretica) is little more than an unprepossessing weed. It has
pinkish owers and broad, at leaves that track sunlight throughout the day. However, it’s what the mallow
does at night that has propelled this humble plant into the scienti c spotlight. Hours before the dawn, it
springs into action, turning its leaves to face the anticipated direction of the sunrise. The mallow seems to
remember where and when the Sun has come up on previous days, and acts to make sure it can gather as
much light energy as possible each morning. When scientists try to confuse mallows in their laboratories
by swapping the location of the light source, the plants simply learn the new orientation.

What does it even mean to say that a mallow can learn and remember the location of the sunrise? The idea
that plants can behave intelligently, let alone learn or form memories, was a fringe notion until quite
recently. Memories are thought to be so fundamentally cognitive that some theorists argue that they’re a
necessary and su cient marker of whether an organism can do the most basic kinds of thinking. Surely
memory requires a brain, and plants lack even the rudimentary nervous systems of bugs and worms.

However, over the past decade or so this view has been forcefully challenged. The mallow isn’t an
anomaly. Plants are not simply organic, passive automata. We now know that they can sense and integrate
information about dozens of different environmental variables, and that they use this knowledge to guide
exible, adaptive behaviour.

For example, plants can recognise whether nearby plants are kin or unrelated, and adjust their foraging
strategies accordingly. The ower Impatiens pallida, also known as pale jewelweed, is one of several
species that tends to devote a greater share of resources to growing leaves rather than roots when put
with strangers – a tactic apparently geared towards competing for sunlight, an imperative that is
diminished when you are growing next to your siblings. Plants also mount complex, targeted defences in
response to recognising speci c predators. The small, owering Arabidopsis thaliana, also known as thale
or mouse-ear cress, can detect the vibrations caused by caterpillars munching on it and so release oils
and chemicals to repel the insects. Perhaps it’s not really so surprising, then, that plants learn and use
memories for prediction and decision-making.

‘The plants remember,’ said the behavioural ecologist Monica Gagliano , ‘they know exactly what’s going
on.’. She reasons that if plants can produce the results that lead us to believe other organisms can learn
and remember, we should similarly conclude that plants share these cognitive capacities. One form of
learning that’s been studied extensively is habituation, in which creatures exposed to an unexpected but
harmless stimulus (a noise, a ash of light) will have a cautionary response that slowly diminishes over
time. Think of entering a room with a humming refrigerator: it’s initially annoying, but usually you’ll get
used to it and perhaps not even notice after a while. True habituation is stimulus-speci c, so with the
introduction of a different and potentially dangerous stimulus, the animal will be re-triggered. Even in a
humming room, you will probably startle at the sound of a loud bang. This is called dishabituation, and
distinguishes genuine learning from other kinds of change, such as fatigue.

Of course, it’s a stretch of the imagination to try to think about what thinking might even mean for these
organisms, lacking as they do the brain(mind)/body(motor) divide. However, by pushing ourselves, we
might end up expanding the concepts – such as ‘memory’, ‘learning’ and ‘thought’ – that initially motivated
our enquiry. Having done so, we see that in many cases, talk of plant learning and memory is not just
metaphorical, but also matter-of-fact. Next time you stumble upon a kerbside mallow bobbing in the
sunlight, take a moment to look at it with new eyes, and to appreciate the window this little weed provides
into the extraordinary cognitive capacities of plants.
  Q.8
All of the following help to prove that plants exhibit a exible and adaptive behaviour except:

1  The mouse-ear cress launches a targeted response when it recognises a speci c predator.

2 Leaves of the touch- me- not plant curl up in response to human touch.

3 Hibiscus plant owers in spring.

4 The Pale jewel weed plant diverts greater resources to growing leaves of the plant in certain
situations.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 3
Analogy based questions are normally di cult. However, this one asks us to
 Answer key/Solution
nd the option which is not logically close. Because of the question stem, this
is a moderate level question.
The logic here is to nd elements of “ exibility and adaptability” in the
options.
1, 2, and 4 - Refer to a exible and adaptive approach.
3 - Hibiscus plant owering in spring might be a regular phenomenon. It does not necessarily signify any
adaptive approach or exibility. Hence, this is the answer.
FeedBack
Directions for questions (7 to 12): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

At rst glance, the Cornish mallow (Lavatera cretica) is little more than an unprepossessing weed. It has
pinkish owers and broad, at leaves that track sunlight throughout the day. However, it’s what the mallow
does at night that has propelled this humble plant into the scienti c spotlight. Hours before the dawn, it
springs into action, turning its leaves to face the anticipated direction of the sunrise. The mallow seems to
remember where and when the Sun has come up on previous days, and acts to make sure it can gather as
much light energy as possible each morning. When scientists try to confuse mallows in their laboratories
by swapping the location of the light source, the plants simply learn the new orientation.

What does it even mean to say that a mallow can learn and remember the location of the sunrise? The idea
that plants can behave intelligently, let alone learn or form memories, was a fringe notion until quite
recently. Memories are thought to be so fundamentally cognitive that some theorists argue that they’re a
necessary and su cient marker of whether an organism can do the most basic kinds of thinking. Surely
memory requires a brain, and plants lack even the rudimentary nervous systems of bugs and worms.

However, over the past decade or so this view has been forcefully challenged. The mallow isn’t an
anomaly. Plants are not simply organic, passive automata. We now know that they can sense and integrate
information about dozens of different environmental variables, and that they use this knowledge to guide
exible, adaptive behaviour.

For example, plants can recognise whether nearby plants are kin or unrelated, and adjust their foraging
strategies accordingly. The ower Impatiens pallida, also known as pale jewelweed, is one of several
species that tends to devote a greater share of resources to growing leaves rather than roots when put
with strangers – a tactic apparently geared towards competing for sunlight, an imperative that is
diminished when you are growing next to your siblings. Plants also mount complex, targeted defences in
response to recognising speci c predators. The small, owering Arabidopsis thaliana, also known as thale
or mouse-ear cress, can detect the vibrations caused by caterpillars munching on it and so release oils
and chemicals to repel the insects. Perhaps it’s not really so surprising, then, that plants learn and use
memories for prediction and decision-making.

‘The plants remember,’ said the behavioural ecologist Monica Gagliano , ‘they know exactly what’s going
on.’. She reasons that if plants can produce the results that lead us to believe other organisms can learn
and remember, we should similarly conclude that plants share these cognitive capacities. One form of
learning that’s been studied extensively is habituation, in which creatures exposed to an unexpected but
harmless stimulus (a noise, a ash of light) will have a cautionary response that slowly diminishes over
time. Think of entering a room with a humming refrigerator: it’s initially annoying, but usually you’ll get
used to it and perhaps not even notice after a while. True habituation is stimulus-speci c, so with the
introduction of a different and potentially dangerous stimulus, the animal will be re-triggered. Even in a
humming room, you will probably startle at the sound of a loud bang. This is called dishabituation, and
distinguishes genuine learning from other kinds of change, such as fatigue.

Of course, it’s a stretch of the imagination to try to think about what thinking might even mean for these
organisms, lacking as they do the brain(mind)/body(motor) divide. However, by pushing ourselves, we
might end up expanding the concepts – such as ‘memory’, ‘learning’ and ‘thought’ – that initially motivated
our enquiry. Having done so, we see that in many cases, talk of plant learning and memory is not just
metaphorical, but also matter-of-fact. Next time you stumble upon a kerbside mallow bobbing in the
sunlight, take a moment to look at it with new eyes, and to appreciate the window this little weed provides
into the extraordinary cognitive capacities of plants.
  Q.9
According to the passage, all of the following may lead to habituation except:

1  a smelly room.

2 street dogs barking in the night.

3 a creaking fan.

4 utensils suddenly dropped in the kitchen.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 4
It is an easy question. The logic is very simple and straightforward. As per the
 Answer key/Solution
passage, habit formation happens as a result of behavioural adjustment. It
happens for things which happen suddenly and continue for a period of time.
A suddenly dropped utensil in the kitchen is not an action that is likely to
continue for a prolonged period of time. It will not require any behavioural adjustment and, hence, it is not
likely to lead to ‘habituation’. The other options require behavioural adjustment. Hence, 4 is the correct
answer.
FeedBack
Directions for questions (7 to 12): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

At rst glance, the Cornish mallow (Lavatera cretica) is little more than an unprepossessing weed. It has
pinkish owers and broad, at leaves that track sunlight throughout the day. However, it’s what the mallow
does at night that has propelled this humble plant into the scienti c spotlight. Hours before the dawn, it
springs into action, turning its leaves to face the anticipated direction of the sunrise. The mallow seems to
remember where and when the Sun has come up on previous days, and acts to make sure it can gather as
much light energy as possible each morning. When scientists try to confuse mallows in their laboratories
by swapping the location of the light source, the plants simply learn the new orientation.

What does it even mean to say that a mallow can learn and remember the location of the sunrise? The idea
that plants can behave intelligently, let alone learn or form memories, was a fringe notion until quite
recently. Memories are thought to be so fundamentally cognitive that some theorists argue that they’re a
necessary and su cient marker of whether an organism can do the most basic kinds of thinking. Surely
memory requires a brain, and plants lack even the rudimentary nervous systems of bugs and worms.

However, over the past decade or so this view has been forcefully challenged. The mallow isn’t an
anomaly. Plants are not simply organic, passive automata. We now know that they can sense and integrate
information about dozens of different environmental variables, and that they use this knowledge to guide
exible, adaptive behaviour.

For example, plants can recognise whether nearby plants are kin or unrelated, and adjust their foraging
strategies accordingly. The ower Impatiens pallida, also known as pale jewelweed, is one of several
species that tends to devote a greater share of resources to growing leaves rather than roots when put
with strangers – a tactic apparently geared towards competing for sunlight, an imperative that is
diminished when you are growing next to your siblings. Plants also mount complex, targeted defences in
response to recognising speci c predators. The small, owering Arabidopsis thaliana, also known as thale
or mouse-ear cress, can detect the vibrations caused by caterpillars munching on it and so release oils
and chemicals to repel the insects. Perhaps it’s not really so surprising, then, that plants learn and use
memories for prediction and decision-making.

‘The plants remember,’ said the behavioural ecologist Monica Gagliano , ‘they know exactly what’s going
on.’. She reasons that if plants can produce the results that lead us to believe other organisms can learn
and remember, we should similarly conclude that plants share these cognitive capacities. One form of
learning that’s been studied extensively is habituation, in which creatures exposed to an unexpected but
harmless stimulus (a noise, a ash of light) will have a cautionary response that slowly diminishes over
time. Think of entering a room with a humming refrigerator: it’s initially annoying, but usually you’ll get
used to it and perhaps not even notice after a while. True habituation is stimulus-speci c, so with the
introduction of a different and potentially dangerous stimulus, the animal will be re-triggered. Even in a
humming room, you will probably startle at the sound of a loud bang. This is called dishabituation, and
distinguishes genuine learning from other kinds of change, such as fatigue.

Of course, it’s a stretch of the imagination to try to think about what thinking might even mean for these
organisms, lacking as they do the brain(mind)/body(motor) divide. However, by pushing ourselves, we
might end up expanding the concepts – such as ‘memory’, ‘learning’ and ‘thought’ – that initially motivated
our enquiry. Having done so, we see that in many cases, talk of plant learning and memory is not just
metaphorical, but also matter-of-fact. Next time you stumble upon a kerbside mallow bobbing in the
sunlight, take a moment to look at it with new eyes, and to appreciate the window this little weed provides
into the extraordinary cognitive capacities of plants.
  Q.10
The author intends to prove all of the following in the passage except:

1  that plants can learn and store memory as other animals do.

2 that Plants do not have a division of body and mind.

3 that Plants have cognitive capacities.

4 that plants have a exible and adaptive approach.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 2
This is an easy main idea question. The main idea of the author in the passage
 Answer key/Solution
is that plants probably have some elements of memory. They change their
behaviour by learning from past experiences. The author uses an academic
style of writing and doesn’t indulge in speculation. So, the author’s focus is on
the “cognitive or mental ability of plants” and how they adapt to different challenges. So, options 1, 3, and
4 are part of this discussion.
“Plants do not have a body and mind divide” is not part of the author’s main point. Hence, 2 is the correct
answer.
FeedBack
Directions for questions (7 to 12): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

At rst glance, the Cornish mallow (Lavatera cretica) is little more than an unprepossessing weed. It has
pinkish owers and broad, at leaves that track sunlight throughout the day. However, it’s what the mallow
does at night that has propelled this humble plant into the scienti c spotlight. Hours before the dawn, it
springs into action, turning its leaves to face the anticipated direction of the sunrise. The mallow seems to
remember where and when the Sun has come up on previous days, and acts to make sure it can gather as
much light energy as possible each morning. When scientists try to confuse mallows in their laboratories
by swapping the location of the light source, the plants simply learn the new orientation.

What does it even mean to say that a mallow can learn and remember the location of the sunrise? The idea
that plants can behave intelligently, let alone learn or form memories, was a fringe notion until quite
recently. Memories are thought to be so fundamentally cognitive that some theorists argue that they’re a
necessary and su cient marker of whether an organism can do the most basic kinds of thinking. Surely
memory requires a brain, and plants lack even the rudimentary nervous systems of bugs and worms.

However, over the past decade or so this view has been forcefully challenged. The mallow isn’t an
anomaly. Plants are not simply organic, passive automata. We now know that they can sense and integrate
information about dozens of different environmental variables, and that they use this knowledge to guide
exible, adaptive behaviour.

For example, plants can recognise whether nearby plants are kin or unrelated, and adjust their foraging
strategies accordingly. The ower Impatiens pallida, also known as pale jewelweed, is one of several
species that tends to devote a greater share of resources to growing leaves rather than roots when put
with strangers – a tactic apparently geared towards competing for sunlight, an imperative that is
diminished when you are growing next to your siblings. Plants also mount complex, targeted defences in
response to recognising speci c predators. The small, owering Arabidopsis thaliana, also known as thale
or mouse-ear cress, can detect the vibrations caused by caterpillars munching on it and so release oils
and chemicals to repel the insects. Perhaps it’s not really so surprising, then, that plants learn and use
memories for prediction and decision-making.

‘The plants remember,’ said the behavioural ecologist Monica Gagliano , ‘they know exactly what’s going
on.’. She reasons that if plants can produce the results that lead us to believe other organisms can learn
and remember, we should similarly conclude that plants share these cognitive capacities. One form of
learning that’s been studied extensively is habituation, in which creatures exposed to an unexpected but
harmless stimulus (a noise, a ash of light) will have a cautionary response that slowly diminishes over
time. Think of entering a room with a humming refrigerator: it’s initially annoying, but usually you’ll get
used to it and perhaps not even notice after a while. True habituation is stimulus-speci c, so with the
introduction of a different and potentially dangerous stimulus, the animal will be re-triggered. Even in a
humming room, you will probably startle at the sound of a loud bang. This is called dishabituation, and
distinguishes genuine learning from other kinds of change, such as fatigue.

Of course, it’s a stretch of the imagination to try to think about what thinking might even mean for these
organisms, lacking as they do the brain(mind)/body(motor) divide. However, by pushing ourselves, we
might end up expanding the concepts – such as ‘memory’, ‘learning’ and ‘thought’ – that initially motivated
our enquiry. Having done so, we see that in many cases, talk of plant learning and memory is not just
metaphorical, but also matter-of-fact. Next time you stumble upon a kerbside mallow bobbing in the
sunlight, take a moment to look at it with new eyes, and to appreciate the window this little weed provides
into the extraordinary cognitive capacities of plants.
  Q.11
Which of the following can’t be inferred from the above passage?

1  Plants have well-developed defence mechanism to ward off speci c predators.

2 Plants can divert their resources when put up with strangers.

3 Plants have cognitive skills.

4 Plants can assimilate and integrate information.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 1
Inference based questions are normally di cult. However, the concise options
 Answer key/Solution
make this a moderate level question.
2 – “Can divert” is the clue word and it is backed by the line “Plants also
mount complex, targeted defences in response to recognising speci c
predators.”
3 – It is the main idea of the passage.
4 – Again, ‘can’ makes this option logically correct. It is part of the central narrative of the passage.
1 – The main logical aw of this option is the phrase ‘well-developed’. Plants have a defence mechanism.
It is evident from the example of the mouse ear cress plant. Whether it is well developed or not hasn’t been
supported by facts. So, it is the answer because of data inadequacy.
FeedBack
Directions for questions (7 to 12): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

At rst glance, the Cornish mallow (Lavatera cretica) is little more than an unprepossessing weed. It has
pinkish owers and broad, at leaves that track sunlight throughout the day. However, it’s what the mallow
does at night that has propelled this humble plant into the scienti c spotlight. Hours before the dawn, it
springs into action, turning its leaves to face the anticipated direction of the sunrise. The mallow seems to
remember where and when the Sun has come up on previous days, and acts to make sure it can gather as
much light energy as possible each morning. When scientists try to confuse mallows in their laboratories
by swapping the location of the light source, the plants simply learn the new orientation.

What does it even mean to say that a mallow can learn and remember the location of the sunrise? The idea
that plants can behave intelligently, let alone learn or form memories, was a fringe notion until quite
recently. Memories are thought to be so fundamentally cognitive that some theorists argue that they’re a
necessary and su cient marker of whether an organism can do the most basic kinds of thinking. Surely
memory requires a brain, and plants lack even the rudimentary nervous systems of bugs and worms.

However, over the past decade or so this view has been forcefully challenged. The mallow isn’t an
anomaly. Plants are not simply organic, passive automata. We now know that they can sense and integrate
information about dozens of different environmental variables, and that they use this knowledge to guide
exible, adaptive behaviour.

For example, plants can recognise whether nearby plants are kin or unrelated, and adjust their foraging
strategies accordingly. The ower Impatiens pallida, also known as pale jewelweed, is one of several
species that tends to devote a greater share of resources to growing leaves rather than roots when put
with strangers – a tactic apparently geared towards competing for sunlight, an imperative that is
diminished when you are growing next to your siblings. Plants also mount complex, targeted defences in
response to recognising speci c predators. The small, owering Arabidopsis thaliana, also known as thale
or mouse-ear cress, can detect the vibrations caused by caterpillars munching on it and so release oils
and chemicals to repel the insects. Perhaps it’s not really so surprising, then, that plants learn and use
memories for prediction and decision-making.

‘The plants remember,’ said the behavioural ecologist Monica Gagliano , ‘they know exactly what’s going
on.’. She reasons that if plants can produce the results that lead us to believe other organisms can learn
and remember, we should similarly conclude that plants share these cognitive capacities. One form of
learning that’s been studied extensively is habituation, in which creatures exposed to an unexpected but
harmless stimulus (a noise, a ash of light) will have a cautionary response that slowly diminishes over
time. Think of entering a room with a humming refrigerator: it’s initially annoying, but usually you’ll get
used to it and perhaps not even notice after a while. True habituation is stimulus-speci c, so with the
introduction of a different and potentially dangerous stimulus, the animal will be re-triggered. Even in a
humming room, you will probably startle at the sound of a loud bang. This is called dishabituation, and
distinguishes genuine learning from other kinds of change, such as fatigue.

Of course, it’s a stretch of the imagination to try to think about what thinking might even mean for these
organisms, lacking as they do the brain(mind)/body(motor) divide. However, by pushing ourselves, we
might end up expanding the concepts – such as ‘memory’, ‘learning’ and ‘thought’ – that initially motivated
our enquiry. Having done so, we see that in many cases, talk of plant learning and memory is not just
metaphorical, but also matter-of-fact. Next time you stumble upon a kerbside mallow bobbing in the
sunlight, take a moment to look at it with new eyes, and to appreciate the window this little weed provides
into the extraordinary cognitive capacities of plants.
  Q.12
Which of the following is the essence of the last paragraph of the passage?

1  The notion that plants have thinking capacities was unimaginable a few years ago.

2 We need to rede ne memory and learning to fully understand the intelligence of plants.

3 Plants do not t our set notions of memory and learning.

4 Plant memory and learning is a fact and not a mere metaphor.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 2
It is a moderately di cult question. It can be answered by eliminating the
 Answer key/Solution
incorrect options.
1 – It is a fact. It is not the main idea or aim of the author.
2 – Correct. Refer to these lines of the last paragraph “However, by pushing
ourselves, we might end up expanding the concepts – such as ‘memory’, ‘learning’ and ‘thought’ – that
initially motivated our enquiry. Having done so, we see that in many cases, talk of plant learning and
memory is not just metaphorical, but also matter-of-fact.”
3 – Out of scope
4 - Looks correct. But it is not what the author has tried to prove. He hasn’t stated that it is now an
established fact. He says that research indicates so. Hence, it can be eliminated.
FeedBack
Directions for questions (13 to 18): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

In 1996, New York State governor George Pataki announced a plan to reduce the cost of care in the state's
hospitals. The plan is in response to the state's perceived explosion in health care spending. The plan's
savings come largely in the form of deregulating hospital's rates and reducing subsidies for hospitals'
medical training. Under the plan, rate regulation for private insurance will be phased out, and will
eventually be replaced by competitive bidding. Thus, insurance companies will be able to negotiate bulk
rate discounts with individual hospitals. In addition, Medicaid subsidies for medical training at state
hospitals will be reduced. This plan can be expected to save some money, particularly for New York State
itself, through the reduction in Medicaid subsidies. It will probably save more than the current regulatory
system, in which total New York State medical spending has outpaced national spending by 22% from
1980 to 1991. Unfortunately, it probably won't achieve a truly dramatic savings (aside from the Medicaid
savings from the subsidy cut). In 1980-1991, New York's growth in hospital costs has only slightly
exceeded that of most other states, which operate on a competitive system.

The major concern is that this plan will shift rather than reduce medical costs, which creates winners and
losers. Among the winners will be, predictably, the state itself, which will reduce the amount it pays for
hospital's training subsidies through Medicaid (the nationwide program which subsidizes medical care for
low-income residents, particularly through emergency hospital care). Insurance carriers are also expected
to bene t; by exploiting the state's high concentration of hospitals, insurers will probably be able to
negotiate discounts for the insureds' hospital care, thus cutting costs and increasing their pro t margins.
Those who have insured themselves may also share in the savings, depending on what percentage of the
discounts will be passed along to consumers. On net, it is anticipated that most will probably enjoy
somewhat lower premiums.

Much of the "savings" will fall on the shoulders of New York City, which will have to scramble to subsidize
costs for the poor and uninsured, who will be turned away from hospitals. Hospitals may opt not to turn
away any and, in fact, will be prohibited from turning away certain extremely low income patients, whose
right to certain emergency care is protected by the state's Hill-Burton law. Of course, should hospitals
continue to offer access to the uninsured, they will effectively be subsidizing the poor, and will be
rewarded with lower pro t margins. Some may be forced to close.

Undoubtedly, the greatest impact will be felt by the uninsured - often the poor and elderly. Since they do
not enjoy the negotiated rates set by insurance companies, costs to the uninsured may rise to cover
hospitals' reduced pro ts on insured patients. Simple economics dictates that uncompensated care will be
reduced as a result of lower pro t margins.

However, the plan does not take into account the historical fact that, of the increase in the cost of medical
care over the past 17 years, the portion attributable to rising salaries among doctors and other hospital
staff amounts to only 18.5% and that attributable to insurance costs and insurance abuse only 12.2%. Over
55% of the increase is directly related to the staggering cost of new medical technologies. The
unavoidable fact remains that, if Americans insist on receiving state-of-the-art treatments, the money will
have to come from somewhere.

  Q.13
Which one of the following best describes the main idea of the passage?

1   Deregulating hospital's rates and reducing subsidies for hospitals' medical training will reduce the
healthcare cost for most parties involved.
2 The plan to reduce the cost of care in the state's hospitals is ne but there has been increase in
healthcare cost and that additional money has to be paid by someone.

3 Deregulating hospital's rates and reducing subsidies for hospitals' medical training are making
healthcare expensive for the uninsured.

4 The recent plan to reduce the cost of care in the New York’s hospitals will provide much improved and
signi cantly cheaper healthcare to its citizens.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 2
GENRE: Healthcare / Social Issues / Public Administration It is a di cult
 Answer key/Solution
question as the options are lengthy. However, if one has a good reading speed
and has the right approach of eliminating options, this question can be
answered.
1 – It states something which is factually correct but it excludes the information from the last paragraph.
2 - Right answer as it mentions the main gist of the passage.
3 – Too narrow. It states a fact from the passage but it is not the main idea.
4 – Alien to the passage as it is not mentioned anywhere.
FeedBack
Directions for questions (13 to 18): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

In 1996, New York State governor George Pataki announced a plan to reduce the cost of care in the state's
hospitals. The plan is in response to the state's perceived explosion in health care spending. The plan's
savings come largely in the form of deregulating hospital's rates and reducing subsidies for hospitals'
medical training. Under the plan, rate regulation for private insurance will be phased out, and will
eventually be replaced by competitive bidding. Thus, insurance companies will be able to negotiate bulk
rate discounts with individual hospitals. In addition, Medicaid subsidies for medical training at state
hospitals will be reduced. This plan can be expected to save some money, particularly for New York State
itself, through the reduction in Medicaid subsidies. It will probably save more than the current regulatory
system, in which total New York State medical spending has outpaced national spending by 22% from
1980 to 1991. Unfortunately, it probably won't achieve a truly dramatic savings (aside from the Medicaid
savings from the subsidy cut). In 1980-1991, New York's growth in hospital costs has only slightly
exceeded that of most other states, which operate on a competitive system.

The major concern is that this plan will shift rather than reduce medical costs, which creates winners and
losers. Among the winners will be, predictably, the state itself, which will reduce the amount it pays for
hospital's training subsidies through Medicaid (the nationwide program which subsidizes medical care for
low-income residents, particularly through emergency hospital care). Insurance carriers are also expected
to bene t; by exploiting the state's high concentration of hospitals, insurers will probably be able to
negotiate discounts for the insureds' hospital care, thus cutting costs and increasing their pro t margins.
Those who have insured themselves may also share in the savings, depending on what percentage of the
discounts will be passed along to consumers. On net, it is anticipated that most will probably enjoy
somewhat lower premiums.

Much of the "savings" will fall on the shoulders of New York City, which will have to scramble to subsidize
costs for the poor and uninsured, who will be turned away from hospitals. Hospitals may opt not to turn
away any and, in fact, will be prohibited from turning away certain extremely low income patients, whose
right to certain emergency care is protected by the state's Hill-Burton law. Of course, should hospitals
continue to offer access to the uninsured, they will effectively be subsidizing the poor, and will be
rewarded with lower pro t margins. Some may be forced to close.

Undoubtedly, the greatest impact will be felt by the uninsured - often the poor and elderly. Since they do
not enjoy the negotiated rates set by insurance companies, costs to the uninsured may rise to cover
hospitals' reduced pro ts on insured patients. Simple economics dictates that uncompensated care will be
reduced as a result of lower pro t margins.

However, the plan does not take into account the historical fact that, of the increase in the cost of medical
care over the past 17 years, the portion attributable to rising salaries among doctors and other hospital
staff amounts to only 18.5% and that attributable to insurance costs and insurance abuse only 12.2%. Over
55% of the increase is directly related to the staggering cost of new medical technologies. The
unavoidable fact remains that, if Americans insist on receiving state-of-the-art treatments, the money will
have to come from somewhere.

  Q.14
All of the following have led to an increase in the cost of healthcare EXCEPT:

1  Rising salaries of the healthcare professionals.

2 Increase in the insurance premium where false insurance claims are also a factor.
3 Hospitals charging exorbitant amounts to recover the cost of their huge investments.

4 Money spent on bringing in new medical technologies.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 3
It is an easy question. Options 1, 2, and 4 can be found in the last paragraph of
 Answer key/Solution
the passage. Option 3 is not mentioned anywhere.
FeedBack
Directions for questions (13 to 18): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

In 1996, New York State governor George Pataki announced a plan to reduce the cost of care in the state's
hospitals. The plan is in response to the state's perceived explosion in health care spending. The plan's
savings come largely in the form of deregulating hospital's rates and reducing subsidies for hospitals'
medical training. Under the plan, rate regulation for private insurance will be phased out, and will
eventually be replaced by competitive bidding. Thus, insurance companies will be able to negotiate bulk
rate discounts with individual hospitals. In addition, Medicaid subsidies for medical training at state
hospitals will be reduced. This plan can be expected to save some money, particularly for New York State
itself, through the reduction in Medicaid subsidies. It will probably save more than the current regulatory
system, in which total New York State medical spending has outpaced national spending by 22% from
1980 to 1991. Unfortunately, it probably won't achieve a truly dramatic savings (aside from the Medicaid
savings from the subsidy cut). In 1980-1991, New York's growth in hospital costs has only slightly
exceeded that of most other states, which operate on a competitive system.

The major concern is that this plan will shift rather than reduce medical costs, which creates winners and
losers. Among the winners will be, predictably, the state itself, which will reduce the amount it pays for
hospital's training subsidies through Medicaid (the nationwide program which subsidizes medical care for
low-income residents, particularly through emergency hospital care). Insurance carriers are also expected
to bene t; by exploiting the state's high concentration of hospitals, insurers will probably be able to
negotiate discounts for the insureds' hospital care, thus cutting costs and increasing their pro t margins.
Those who have insured themselves may also share in the savings, depending on what percentage of the
discounts will be passed along to consumers. On net, it is anticipated that most will probably enjoy
somewhat lower premiums.

Much of the "savings" will fall on the shoulders of New York City, which will have to scramble to subsidize
costs for the poor and uninsured, who will be turned away from hospitals. Hospitals may opt not to turn
away any and, in fact, will be prohibited from turning away certain extremely low income patients, whose
right to certain emergency care is protected by the state's Hill-Burton law. Of course, should hospitals
continue to offer access to the uninsured, they will effectively be subsidizing the poor, and will be
rewarded with lower pro t margins. Some may be forced to close.

Undoubtedly, the greatest impact will be felt by the uninsured - often the poor and elderly. Since they do
not enjoy the negotiated rates set by insurance companies, costs to the uninsured may rise to cover
hospitals' reduced pro ts on insured patients. Simple economics dictates that uncompensated care will be
reduced as a result of lower pro t margins.

However, the plan does not take into account the historical fact that, of the increase in the cost of medical
care over the past 17 years, the portion attributable to rising salaries among doctors and other hospital
staff amounts to only 18.5% and that attributable to insurance costs and insurance abuse only 12.2%. Over
55% of the increase is directly related to the staggering cost of new medical technologies. The
unavoidable fact remains that, if Americans insist on receiving state-of-the-art treatments, the money will
have to come from somewhere.

  Q.15
According to the passage, the greatest adverse effect of the plan to reduce healthcare costs will fall upon
the uninsured because:

1  they will be forced to buy insurance.

2 hospitals will charge more for them to compensate for their lower pro ts.

3 they are the only category from whom a higher charge can be levied.

4 they may have to go without treatment leading to their missing out on work and corresponding
income.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 2
It is an easy question. However, one needs to regress and cross check.
 Answer key/Solution
1 and 4 – Incorrect. 1 is not mentioned in the passage. 4 is not supported by
the passage.
2 and 3 are close options. Option 2 is given in the penultimate paragraph.
Option 3 can be ruled out for two reasons – they may not be the ‘only’ such category and higher charge will
be levied by the hospitals and not everyone.
FeedBack
Directions for questions (13 to 18): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

In 1996, New York State governor George Pataki announced a plan to reduce the cost of care in the state's
hospitals. The plan is in response to the state's perceived explosion in health care spending. The plan's
savings come largely in the form of deregulating hospital's rates and reducing subsidies for hospitals'
medical training. Under the plan, rate regulation for private insurance will be phased out, and will
eventually be replaced by competitive bidding. Thus, insurance companies will be able to negotiate bulk
rate discounts with individual hospitals. In addition, Medicaid subsidies for medical training at state
hospitals will be reduced. This plan can be expected to save some money, particularly for New York State
itself, through the reduction in Medicaid subsidies. It will probably save more than the current regulatory
system, in which total New York State medical spending has outpaced national spending by 22% from
1980 to 1991. Unfortunately, it probably won't achieve a truly dramatic savings (aside from the Medicaid
savings from the subsidy cut). In 1980-1991, New York's growth in hospital costs has only slightly
exceeded that of most other states, which operate on a competitive system.

The major concern is that this plan will shift rather than reduce medical costs, which creates winners and
losers. Among the winners will be, predictably, the state itself, which will reduce the amount it pays for
hospital's training subsidies through Medicaid (the nationwide program which subsidizes medical care for
low-income residents, particularly through emergency hospital care). Insurance carriers are also expected
to bene t; by exploiting the state's high concentration of hospitals, insurers will probably be able to
negotiate discounts for the insureds' hospital care, thus cutting costs and increasing their pro t margins.
Those who have insured themselves may also share in the savings, depending on what percentage of the
discounts will be passed along to consumers. On net, it is anticipated that most will probably enjoy
somewhat lower premiums.

Much of the "savings" will fall on the shoulders of New York City, which will have to scramble to subsidize
costs for the poor and uninsured, who will be turned away from hospitals. Hospitals may opt not to turn
away any and, in fact, will be prohibited from turning away certain extremely low income patients, whose
right to certain emergency care is protected by the state's Hill-Burton law. Of course, should hospitals
continue to offer access to the uninsured, they will effectively be subsidizing the poor, and will be
rewarded with lower pro t margins. Some may be forced to close.

Undoubtedly, the greatest impact will be felt by the uninsured - often the poor and elderly. Since they do
not enjoy the negotiated rates set by insurance companies, costs to the uninsured may rise to cover
hospitals' reduced pro ts on insured patients. Simple economics dictates that uncompensated care will be
reduced as a result of lower pro t margins.

However, the plan does not take into account the historical fact that, of the increase in the cost of medical
care over the past 17 years, the portion attributable to rising salaries among doctors and other hospital
staff amounts to only 18.5% and that attributable to insurance costs and insurance abuse only 12.2%. Over
55% of the increase is directly related to the staggering cost of new medical technologies. The
unavoidable fact remains that, if Americans insist on receiving state-of-the-art treatments, the money will
have to come from somewhere.

  Q.16
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

1  The new plan will reduce Medicaid subsidies signi cantly and bene t the New York City.
2 The research involved in the development of new medical technologies is the major reason behind an
increase in the cost of healthcare.

3 The new plan is likely to increase the pro t margins of the insurance service providers.

4 The new plan will bene t the poor and the elderly by reducing the healthcare costs for these
vulnerable sections.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 3
It is a moderately di cult question. One needs to be very careful in
 Answer key/Solution
eliminating the logically incorrect options.
1- can be ruled out because the subsidies will be reduced but we cannot say
that they will reduce signi cantly.
2- the new medical technologies are the reason behind the increase and it may or may not be caused by
research.
3- can be inferred from the 3rd paragraph.
4- contradicts what is mentioned in the 5th paragraph of the passage.
FeedBack
Directions for questions (13 to 18): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

In 1996, New York State governor George Pataki announced a plan to reduce the cost of care in the state's
hospitals. The plan is in response to the state's perceived explosion in health care spending. The plan's
savings come largely in the form of deregulating hospital's rates and reducing subsidies for hospitals'
medical training. Under the plan, rate regulation for private insurance will be phased out, and will
eventually be replaced by competitive bidding. Thus, insurance companies will be able to negotiate bulk
rate discounts with individual hospitals. In addition, Medicaid subsidies for medical training at state
hospitals will be reduced. This plan can be expected to save some money, particularly for New York State
itself, through the reduction in Medicaid subsidies. It will probably save more than the current regulatory
system, in which total New York State medical spending has outpaced national spending by 22% from
1980 to 1991. Unfortunately, it probably won't achieve a truly dramatic savings (aside from the Medicaid
savings from the subsidy cut). In 1980-1991, New York's growth in hospital costs has only slightly
exceeded that of most other states, which operate on a competitive system.

The major concern is that this plan will shift rather than reduce medical costs, which creates winners and
losers. Among the winners will be, predictably, the state itself, which will reduce the amount it pays for
hospital's training subsidies through Medicaid (the nationwide program which subsidizes medical care for
low-income residents, particularly through emergency hospital care). Insurance carriers are also expected
to bene t; by exploiting the state's high concentration of hospitals, insurers will probably be able to
negotiate discounts for the insureds' hospital care, thus cutting costs and increasing their pro t margins.
Those who have insured themselves may also share in the savings, depending on what percentage of the
discounts will be passed along to consumers. On net, it is anticipated that most will probably enjoy
somewhat lower premiums.

Much of the "savings" will fall on the shoulders of New York City, which will have to scramble to subsidize
costs for the poor and uninsured, who will be turned away from hospitals. Hospitals may opt not to turn
away any and, in fact, will be prohibited from turning away certain extremely low income patients, whose
right to certain emergency care is protected by the state's Hill-Burton law. Of course, should hospitals
continue to offer access to the uninsured, they will effectively be subsidizing the poor, and will be
rewarded with lower pro t margins. Some may be forced to close.

Undoubtedly, the greatest impact will be felt by the uninsured - often the poor and elderly. Since they do
not enjoy the negotiated rates set by insurance companies, costs to the uninsured may rise to cover
hospitals' reduced pro ts on insured patients. Simple economics dictates that uncompensated care will be
reduced as a result of lower pro t margins.

However, the plan does not take into account the historical fact that, of the increase in the cost of medical
care over the past 17 years, the portion attributable to rising salaries among doctors and other hospital
staff amounts to only 18.5% and that attributable to insurance costs and insurance abuse only 12.2%. Over
55% of the increase is directly related to the staggering cost of new medical technologies. The
unavoidable fact remains that, if Americans insist on receiving state-of-the-art treatments, the money will
have to come from somewhere.

  Q.17
Which of the following has been assumed by the proponents of the new plan in New York?

1  Competitive bidding leads to lower insurance premium.

2 Reducing the cost of healthcare is imperative for the state.

3 The bene t of the reduced cost will not be transferred to the patient.

4 The uninsured may be denied treatment by the hospitals.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 1
It is a di cult question. One needs to strictly follow the logic behind the
 Answer key/Solution
concept of assumption in CR to be able to answer this question. Options 1 and
4 are very close.
1- is an assumption involved in the argument presented in the 1st paragraph
of the passage.
2- can be ruled out as ‘imperative’ is not required in the argument by proponents.
3- It, in fact, disproves the argument of the proponents and therefore cannot be an assumption.
4- 4 could be an assumption of the author of the passage and not of the proponents of the new plan. So,
this is the trap option in this question.
FeedBack
Directions for questions (13 to 18): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

In 1996, New York State governor George Pataki announced a plan to reduce the cost of care in the state's
hospitals. The plan is in response to the state's perceived explosion in health care spending. The plan's
savings come largely in the form of deregulating hospital's rates and reducing subsidies for hospitals'
medical training. Under the plan, rate regulation for private insurance will be phased out, and will
eventually be replaced by competitive bidding. Thus, insurance companies will be able to negotiate bulk
rate discounts with individual hospitals. In addition, Medicaid subsidies for medical training at state
hospitals will be reduced. This plan can be expected to save some money, particularly for New York State
itself, through the reduction in Medicaid subsidies. It will probably save more than the current regulatory
system, in which total New York State medical spending has outpaced national spending by 22% from
1980 to 1991. Unfortunately, it probably won't achieve a truly dramatic savings (aside from the Medicaid
savings from the subsidy cut). In 1980-1991, New York's growth in hospital costs has only slightly
exceeded that of most other states, which operate on a competitive system.

The major concern is that this plan will shift rather than reduce medical costs, which creates winners and
losers. Among the winners will be, predictably, the state itself, which will reduce the amount it pays for
hospital's training subsidies through Medicaid (the nationwide program which subsidizes medical care for
low-income residents, particularly through emergency hospital care). Insurance carriers are also expected
to bene t; by exploiting the state's high concentration of hospitals, insurers will probably be able to
negotiate discounts for the insureds' hospital care, thus cutting costs and increasing their pro t margins.
Those who have insured themselves may also share in the savings, depending on what percentage of the
discounts will be passed along to consumers. On net, it is anticipated that most will probably enjoy
somewhat lower premiums.

Much of the "savings" will fall on the shoulders of New York City, which will have to scramble to subsidize
costs for the poor and uninsured, who will be turned away from hospitals. Hospitals may opt not to turn
away any and, in fact, will be prohibited from turning away certain extremely low income patients, whose
right to certain emergency care is protected by the state's Hill-Burton law. Of course, should hospitals
continue to offer access to the uninsured, they will effectively be subsidizing the poor, and will be
rewarded with lower pro t margins. Some may be forced to close.

Undoubtedly, the greatest impact will be felt by the uninsured - often the poor and elderly. Since they do
not enjoy the negotiated rates set by insurance companies, costs to the uninsured may rise to cover
hospitals' reduced pro ts on insured patients. Simple economics dictates that uncompensated care will be
reduced as a result of lower pro t margins.

However, the plan does not take into account the historical fact that, of the increase in the cost of medical
care over the past 17 years, the portion attributable to rising salaries among doctors and other hospital
staff amounts to only 18.5% and that attributable to insurance costs and insurance abuse only 12.2%. Over
55% of the increase is directly related to the staggering cost of new medical technologies. The
unavoidable fact remains that, if Americans insist on receiving state-of-the-art treatments, the money will
have to come from somewhere.

  Q.18
What does the last paragraph of the passage do in the context of the passage?

1  It disproves the effectiveness of the plan proposed by Pataki.

2 It suggests that the costs have risen quite a bit and therefore the plan will merely shift the burden
from the state to some other entity.

3 It provides additional data to support the plan proposed by Pataki.

4 It mentions various factors that have contributed to an increase in the cost involved with healthcare.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 2
It is an easy to answer question if one adheres to the logic of main idea
 Answer key/Solution
questions. The paragraph mentions various factors that have contributed to
an increase in the cost involved with the healthcare to prove that the overall
costs will not come down and the enhanced cost has to be borne by someone.
Option 2 is the closest to this idea.
FeedBack
Directions for questions (19 to 21): The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions.
Choose the best answer to each question.

Despite a mostly solid run of job growth, 2017 ends pretty much where it began — with a two-speed
economy where wage growth is funneling to one end while the other lags behind. Friday's nonfarm payrolls
report brought with it news all too familiar to the post-crisis economy. The 228,000 jobs created formed a
solid foundation, but the pedestrian 2.5 percent average hourly earnings growth left many scratching their
heads wondering how a 4.1 percent unemployment rate, the lowest in 17 years, still wasn't producing fatter
paychecks.

"The lack of wage growth at the aggregate level despite the declines in the unemployment rate and strong
job gains remains a mystery," Joseph Song, U.S. economist at Bank of America Merrill Lynch, said in a note
to clients." One possible explanation is that structural factors such as unfavorable demographics and
industry-speci c dynamics are playing a bigger role than the cyclical factors," he added. "However, we
continue to believe that a falling unemployment rate will ultimately underpin wages."

The latter part of that statement represents the hopes and frustrations of economists everywhere from
academia to Wall Street to the halls of the Federal Reserve in Washington, D.C. With another month of
strong job gains and ho-hum wage growth under its belt, 2017 is now yielding toward predictions — again
— that the year ahead will nally be the one where income catches up.

"Due to a lack of available workers and sustained improvement in aggregate demand we expect wage
pressures to be the primary economic narrative during the year," said Joe Brusuelas, chief economist at
RSM. "Our forecast implies that wage growth during nal three months of next year should be at or near 4
percent." No less than Gary Cohn, director of the White House's National Economic Council, was banging
the same drum Friday morning after the jobs report hit. "As the economy continues to grow and we bring
more businesses back to America, we'll create more competition for labor so we'll continue to see more
wage growth over the next cycle," Cohn said on CNBC's "Squawk on the Street."

It might not be that simple.

The Trump administration sees one of the answers to the wage puzzle as simply providing more supply of
business demand against a shrinking pool of workers. But American business is faced with a unique
challenge in that employers are having a hard time nding the right workers for the positions they have
open. That issue has been re ected in the periodic summaries the Fed releases of economic conditions
across its districts, and is on the minds of those on the front lines trying to match skilled workers with
open jobs.

"From a wage standpoint, skills are the new currency," said Chris Layden, vice president of Manpower North
America, a workforce solution business that helps companies nd suitable workers. "We're seeing the
emergence of a skills revolution. Technology is transforming how work is getting done. "Those skills are
seeing rising pay. Those that [don't have skills] are getting left behind." Training and internships have been
stressed in recent years as a way to bridge the gap. But even those kinds of programs are falling short.

Layden said that until all sides synchronize in the ght against wage stagnation, the picture of the last
several years likely will remain unchanged. "Where we see programs most effective are really where they
are bringing all stakeholders to the table," he said. "Employers are leading this and are being very clear on
the jobs they need. Training for training's sake doesn't work. We need training for a job."

  Q.19
What is the main idea of the passage?
1   To comment on the fact that Trump administration has been unable to put wage growth rate back on
track despite a strong growth in jobs

2 To understand the mystery behind the slow growth of wages

3 To discuss solutions which can be used to tackle the problem of lagging wage growth rate in the
coming year

4 To analyze the views of various experts regarding the reasons behind stagnated wage growth and how
this situation can be improved in future

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 4
GENRE: Economics / International Affairs
 Answer key/Solution
It is an easy main idea question. Just keep in mind the concept of broad and
narrow options.
In the passage, he author is not just discussing the solutions; he is also trying
to understand the reasons behind it. So, 4 is the correct option.
2 and 3 are only partially correct as compared to answer choice 4.
1 cannot be the answer as the focus is not on the Trump administration’s role in all this.
FeedBack
Directions for questions (19 to 21): The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions.
Choose the best answer to each question.

Despite a mostly solid run of job growth, 2017 ends pretty much where it began — with a two-speed
economy where wage growth is funneling to one end while the other lags behind. Friday's nonfarm payrolls
report brought with it news all too familiar to the post-crisis economy. The 228,000 jobs created formed a
solid foundation, but the pedestrian 2.5 percent average hourly earnings growth left many scratching their
heads wondering how a 4.1 percent unemployment rate, the lowest in 17 years, still wasn't producing fatter
paychecks.

"The lack of wage growth at the aggregate level despite the declines in the unemployment rate and strong
job gains remains a mystery," Joseph Song, U.S. economist at Bank of America Merrill Lynch, said in a note
to clients." One possible explanation is that structural factors such as unfavorable demographics and
industry-speci c dynamics are playing a bigger role than the cyclical factors," he added. "However, we
continue to believe that a falling unemployment rate will ultimately underpin wages."

The latter part of that statement represents the hopes and frustrations of economists everywhere from
academia to Wall Street to the halls of the Federal Reserve in Washington, D.C. With another month of
strong job gains and ho-hum wage growth under its belt, 2017 is now yielding toward predictions — again
— that the year ahead will nally be the one where income catches up.

"Due to a lack of available workers and sustained improvement in aggregate demand we expect wage
pressures to be the primary economic narrative during the year," said Joe Brusuelas, chief economist at
RSM. "Our forecast implies that wage growth during nal three months of next year should be at or near 4
percent." No less than Gary Cohn, director of the White House's National Economic Council, was banging
the same drum Friday morning after the jobs report hit. "As the economy continues to grow and we bring
more businesses back to America, we'll create more competition for labor so we'll continue to see more
wage growth over the next cycle," Cohn said on CNBC's "Squawk on the Street."

It might not be that simple.

The Trump administration sees one of the answers to the wage puzzle as simply providing more supply of
business demand against a shrinking pool of workers. But American business is faced with a unique
challenge in that employers are having a hard time nding the right workers for the positions they have
open. That issue has been re ected in the periodic summaries the Fed releases of economic conditions
across its districts, and is on the minds of those on the front lines trying to match skilled workers with
open jobs.

"From a wage standpoint, skills are the new currency," said Chris Layden, vice president of Manpower North
America, a workforce solution business that helps companies nd suitable workers. "We're seeing the
emergence of a skills revolution. Technology is transforming how work is getting done. "Those skills are
seeing rising pay. Those that [don't have skills] are getting left behind." Training and internships have been
stressed in recent years as a way to bridge the gap. But even those kinds of programs are falling short.

Layden said that until all sides synchronize in the ght against wage stagnation, the picture of the last
several years likely will remain unchanged. "Where we see programs most effective are really where they
are bringing all stakeholders to the table," he said. "Employers are leading this and are being very clear on
the jobs they need. Training for training's sake doesn't work. We need training for a job."
  Q.20
According to the passage, which of the following are the possible reasons behind the slow wage growth
rate in the US?

A. More supply of business demand against a shrinking pool of workers

B. Unfavourable demographics and industry-speci c dynamics
C. Falling unemployment rate which translates into more supply of workers is one of the reason due to
which wage growth rate is slow.

1  A&B

2 A&C

3 Only B

4 B&C

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 3
It is a factual question which requires an in-depth reading of the passage and
 Answer key/Solution
the ability to eliminate incorrect options. So, it is a moderate level question.
A is clearly wrong. Trump administration has given this as a solution to the
problem of slow wage growth. More supply of business demand against a
shrinking pool of workers will lead to increase in wages. C is also wrong. "However, we continue to believe
that a falling unemployment rate will ultimately underpin wages." This statement means that falling
unemployment rate will support wages and push them upwards in future. Only B is correct. Refer to the
line: One possible explanation is that structural factors such as unfavourable demographics and industry-
speci c dynamics are playing a bigger role than the cyclical factors," he added. Hence answer is 3.
FeedBack
Directions for questions (19 to 21): The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions.
Choose the best answer to each question.

Despite a mostly solid run of job growth, 2017 ends pretty much where it began — with a two-speed
economy where wage growth is funneling to one end while the other lags behind. Friday's nonfarm payrolls
report brought with it news all too familiar to the post-crisis economy. The 228,000 jobs created formed a
solid foundation, but the pedestrian 2.5 percent average hourly earnings growth left many scratching their
heads wondering how a 4.1 percent unemployment rate, the lowest in 17 years, still wasn't producing fatter
paychecks.

"The lack of wage growth at the aggregate level despite the declines in the unemployment rate and strong
job gains remains a mystery," Joseph Song, U.S. economist at Bank of America Merrill Lynch, said in a note
to clients." One possible explanation is that structural factors such as unfavorable demographics and
industry-speci c dynamics are playing a bigger role than the cyclical factors," he added. "However, we
continue to believe that a falling unemployment rate will ultimately underpin wages."

The latter part of that statement represents the hopes and frustrations of economists everywhere from
academia to Wall Street to the halls of the Federal Reserve in Washington, D.C. With another month of
strong job gains and ho-hum wage growth under its belt, 2017 is now yielding toward predictions — again
— that the year ahead will nally be the one where income catches up.

"Due to a lack of available workers and sustained improvement in aggregate demand we expect wage
pressures to be the primary economic narrative during the year," said Joe Brusuelas, chief economist at
RSM. "Our forecast implies that wage growth during nal three months of next year should be at or near 4
percent." No less than Gary Cohn, director of the White House's National Economic Council, was banging
the same drum Friday morning after the jobs report hit. "As the economy continues to grow and we bring
more businesses back to America, we'll create more competition for labor so we'll continue to see more
wage growth over the next cycle," Cohn said on CNBC's "Squawk on the Street."

It might not be that simple.

The Trump administration sees one of the answers to the wage puzzle as simply providing more supply of
business demand against a shrinking pool of workers. But American business is faced with a unique
challenge in that employers are having a hard time nding the right workers for the positions they have
open. That issue has been re ected in the periodic summaries the Fed releases of economic conditions
across its districts, and is on the minds of those on the front lines trying to match skilled workers with
open jobs.

"From a wage standpoint, skills are the new currency," said Chris Layden, vice president of Manpower North
America, a workforce solution business that helps companies nd suitable workers. "We're seeing the
emergence of a skills revolution. Technology is transforming how work is getting done. "Those skills are
seeing rising pay. Those that [don't have skills] are getting left behind." Training and internships have been
stressed in recent years as a way to bridge the gap. But even those kinds of programs are falling short.

Layden said that until all sides synchronize in the ght against wage stagnation, the picture of the last
several years likely will remain unchanged. "Where we see programs most effective are really where they
are bringing all stakeholders to the table," he said. "Employers are leading this and are being very clear on
the jobs they need. Training for training's sake doesn't work. We need training for a job."

  Q.21
Which of the following is a key assumption made by the author?
1  Strong job gains will always be accompanied with sharp wage growth.

2 Wage growth stagnation can end only if employees are trained and skilled to match the requirement of
jobs.

3 Simply bringing more businesses to America and creating more competition among businesses for
labour will not help to increase the wage growth.

4 Usually, there is a strong negative correlation between unemployment rate and wage growth rate.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 4
It is a tough question as the assumption is based on the entire passage. Focus
 Answer key/Solution
on the main idea of the passage.
Throughout the passage, it has been assumed that decline in unemployment
rate should ideally result in higher wages or wage growth rate. However, it is
not so in case of the US for the given year. The author is looking for the possible reasons why this usual
relationship does not hold true i.e. why wages have not grown despite the decrease in unemployment rate.
Hence 4 is the correct answer choice. Option 3 has been stated clearly by the author. It is not a key
assumption relevant for the entire passage. Option 2 also states a fact in a distorted manner. Usage of the
words ‘only if’ makes it a wrong statement. Option 1 is a close option. Usage of the word ‘always’ makes it
less logically compelling as compared to option 4 which uses ‘usually’.
FeedBack
Directions for questions (22 to 24): The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions.
Choose the best answer to each question.

Humour is the tendency to look at things from the mirthful or incongruous side. It is the quality that makes
something laughable or amusing. Humour is the ability to perceive, enjoy, or express what is amusing or
comical. It is the source of laughter and the catalyst of smiles. Humour is the spark that lights our eyes as
well as the cause of tears that never grows old. Humour is a state of mind. 

Most of us have a tendency to regard a clever sense of humour as the distinction of a person who is good
hearted and friendly, someone people feel at ease with. They are "life of the party" we always invite and the
co-worker who always has a joke. Everyone has the jocular family member that they always look forward
to seeing. We remember the kid in school that always made the class break into laughter. Humour is never
forgotten when we reminisce and it is just as amusing as it was the rst time. 

Humour can be used like a sniper's gun, picking people off when they least expect it. When we use humour
to hurt, we abuse the fundamental essence of this wonderful gift. We must teach our children the
difference between what is funny and what is cruel. A joke is never humorous if it is at the expense of
another. 

Some people use humour to hide from their real emotions. Using humour to help get through the di cult
times is a lot different than using humour to hide from them. 

Hiding behind humour can be a serious problem; it cannot be the only way of expressing our emotions.
Some of the greatest comedians have been secretly depressed. Using humour as a defence
mechanism can be a serious mental health issue. 

Those who use humour to its best advantage teach others by example. Instead of getting angry when
something goes wrong, we should try to look for the humour in the situation. It eases tensions and keeps
things in perspective. Humour can energize us when a task has become tedious. Humour can make even
the worst of situations tolerable.

  Q.22
Which of the following de nes humour appropriately?

1   It is a quality by which we can entertain others but often fail to change a grievous atmosphere into a
jovial one.

2 Humour is that state of mind that can only be used to perceive and spread happiness and laughter.

3 Humour being a state of mind helps us to perceive situations with incongruousness and joviality.

4 Humour helps us to hide our real emotions; hence it acts as a shield against people who are
insensitive to grave situations.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 3
GENRE: Psychology / Lifestyle Blogs
 Answer key/Solution
This passage is easy and straightforward in its explanation. So, the questions
are also quite manageable. This is an easy question.
Refer to the opening and the concluding sentence of the 1st paragraph. 1
contradicts the tone of the given passage.
Option 2 is extreme because of 'only'.
Option 4 is a farfetched statement that may or may not be true.
Option 3 brings out the exact essence of the given passage.
FeedBack

Directions for questions (22 to 24): The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions.
Choose the best answer to each question.

Humour is the tendency to look at things from the mirthful or incongruous side. It is the quality that makes
something laughable or amusing. Humour is the ability to perceive, enjoy, or express what is amusing or
comical. It is the source of laughter and the catalyst of smiles. Humour is the spark that lights our eyes as
well as the cause of tears that never grows old. Humour is a state of mind.

Most of us have a tendency to regard a clever sense of humour as the distinction of a person who is good
hearted and friendly, someone people feel at ease with. They are "life of the party" we always invite and the
co-worker who always has a joke. Everyone has the jocular family member that they always look forward
to seeing. We remember the kid in school that always made the class break into laughter. Humour is never
forgotten when we reminisce and it is just as amusing as it was the rst time.

Humour can be used like a sniper's gun, picking people off when they least expect it. When we use humour
to hurt, we abuse the fundamental essence of this wonderful gift. We must teach our children the
difference between what is funny and what is cruel. A joke is never humorous if it is at the expense of
another.

Some people use humour to hide from their real emotions. Using humour to help get through the di cult
times is a lot different than using humour to hide from them.

Hiding behind humour can be a serious problem; it cannot be the only way of expressing our emotions.
Some of the greatest comedians have been secretly depressed. Using humour as a defence mechanism
can be a serious mental health issue.

Those who use humour to its best advantage teach others by example. Instead of getting angry when
something goes wrong, we should try to look for the humour in the situation. It eases tensions and keeps
things in perspective. Humour can energize us when a task has become tedious. Humour can make even
the worst of situations tolerable.

  Q.23
All of the statements given below are false, except:

1   Many often fail to inspire people to see things in a humorous way which might lighten grievous
situations.
2 Di cult work load at work places can be dealt with ease with proper use of humour.

3 Situations may lose their seriousness because of applied humour in grave situations.

4 Humour can be used as an escape device by which one can transcend reality and become nonchalant.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 2
A very easy factual question. The options can be eliminated easily.
 Answer key/Solution
1 is out of the given context. Similarly, 3 is also incorrect.
Option 4 is also a farfetched statement that cannot be justi ed. "Humour can
energize us when a task has become tedious. Humour can make even the
worst of situations tolerable." This makes option 2 the correct answer.
FeedBack

Directions for questions (22 to 24): The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions.
Choose the best answer to each question.

Humour is the tendency to look at things from the mirthful or incongruous side. It is the quality that makes
something laughable or amusing. Humour is the ability to perceive, enjoy, or express what is amusing or
comical. It is the source of laughter and the catalyst of smiles. Humour is the spark that lights our eyes as
well as the cause of tears that never grows old. Humour is a state of mind.

Most of us have a tendency to regard a clever sense of humour as the distinction of a person who is good
hearted and friendly, someone people feel at ease with. They are "life of the party" we always invite and the
co-worker who always has a joke. Everyone has the jocular family member that they always look forward
to seeing. We remember the kid in school that always made the class break into laughter. Humour is never
forgotten when we reminisce and it is just as amusing as it was the rst time.

Humour can be used like a sniper's gun, picking people off when they least expect it. When we use humour
to hurt, we abuse the fundamental essence of this wonderful gift. We must teach our children the
difference between what is funny and what is cruel. A joke is never humorous if it is at the expense of
another.

Some people use humour to hide from their real emotions. Using humour to help get through the di cult
times is a lot different than using humour to hide from them.

Hiding behind humour can be a serious problem; it cannot be the only way of expressing our emotions.
Some of the greatest comedians have been secretly depressed. Using humour as a defence mechanism
can be a serious mental health issue.

Those who use humour to its best advantage teach others by example. Instead of getting angry when
something goes wrong, we should try to look for the humour in the situation. It eases tensions and keeps
things in perspective. Humour can energize us when a task has become tedious. Humour can make even
the worst of situations tolerable.

  Q.24
Which of the following cannot be inferred from the given passage?
1  Humour can make a di cult situation bearable.

2 Healthy dose of humour in everyday life make a person less grumpy and more jovial especially in a
corporate.

3 Most people feel at ease when accompanied with a humorous person.

4 Application of humour often reduces chances of mental illness and can used to treat introverts.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 4
It is a moderate level question.
 Answer key/Solution
Except 4, all other options can be inferred from the given passage. Option 4 is
a farfetched assumption which may or may not be correct. It cannot be
justi ed with facts given in the passage.
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  Q.25
Directions for question 25: The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option
that best captures the author’s position.

In 1915, a team of American archaeologists excavating the ancient Egyptian necropolis of Deir el-Bersha
blasted into a hidden tomb. Inside the cramped limestone chamber, they were greeted by a gruesome
sight: a mummy’s severed head perched on a cedar co n.The archaeologists went on to recover painted
co ns and wooden gurines that survived the raid and sent them to the Museum of Fine Arts, Boston in
1921. Most of the collection stayed in storage until 2009 when the museum exhibited them. Though the
torso remained in Egypt, the decapitated head became the star of the showcase. With its painted-on
eyebrows, somber expression and wavy brown hair peeking through its tattered bandages, the mummy’s
noggin brought viewers face-to-face with a mystery.

1. In an Egyptian tomb, a mummy's head, along with some co ns and wooden articles were discovered in
1915 by a team of archaeologists, which are now present at the Museum of Fine Arts in Boston.
2. A mummy’s severed head, along with co ns and wooden gurines were found in 1915 by a team of
American archaeologists from an Egyptian tomb, that were sent to Boston’s Fine Arts Museum a few years
later, and the mystery began.
3. In a tomb of an Egyptian necropolis Deir el-Bersha, a mummy's severed head along with co ns and
wooden gurines were found in 1915, and till date there is a mystery that surrounds them which even the
Museum of Fine Arts in Boston could not resolve.
4. The discovery of a mummy's severed head along with co ns and wooden gurines from the Egyptian
tomb has been a matter of mystery from 1915 till the present date.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 2
The paragraph has a few important points- the date of discovery; who
 Answer key/Solution
discovered them; where; their shifting in 1921 to Boston; and now the mystery
surrounding them. Only option 2 captures the essence of the entire paragraph.
All other options are either distorted or lack some signi cant information.
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  Q.26
Directions for question 26: The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option
that best captures the author’s position.

The cost of a coronary calcium scan (CCS), though still not covered by insurance, has come down
signi cantly — to about $100, in some cases — and could be of great value for millions of aging Americans
at risk of life-threatening heart disease. It is one of the two currently popular noninvasive X-ray techniques
to assess cardiac risk and help determine who could bene t from treatments to ward off a crippling or
fatal heart attack.

1. Now available at a lesser price, a CCS is widely used to assess American patients considered to be at
risk of heart disease. 2. Now available at a lesser price, a CCS is widely used as the information obtained
can help evaluate whether aging Americans are at a risk for heart attack.
3. Now available at a lesser price, a CCSis useful in imaging modality for cardiovascular risk assessment
in moderate risk aging American patients.
4. Now available at a lesser price, aCCS is believed to have a superior role in predicting future cardiac
events in American patients.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 2
The two main arguments that the paragraph is making are- reduced cost of
 Answer key/Solution
CCS and its usefulness for aging Americans as it predicts the risk of heart
disease. Moreover it is a 'popular' technique. Option 1 is incorrect as it
mentions only 'Americans'. Option 3 is incorrect as- it does not mention the
popularity of this technique; it uses 'imaging modality' and 'moderate risk'- which are not a part of the
above paragraph. Option 4 compare CCS with something and calls CCS as superior, which again is not a
part of the above argument. Option 2 alone is speci c to the above paragraph.
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  Q.27
Directions for question 27: The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option
that best captures the author’s position.

Language comprehension blooms when it’s paired with speci c events or activities. Diapering, bathing,
feeding, dressing, and play time are daily routines that give parents and caregivers abundant opportunities
to expose children to meaningful language. Through varied experiences geared to children’s development
and repeated rituals — like bedtime reading — children rapidly acquire language. Only 24 months on the
planet and most kids grasp language. It’s a gift you’ll never be sorry you gave them.

1. Understanding of language spurs when coupled with meaningful experiences.

2. Children develop language skills through experience.
3. Experiences during the rst 2 years of life lay a foundation for language growth.
4. A child begins to decipher language during the rst 2 year of his life.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 3
The two main arguments that the paragraph is making are- occurrence of
 Answer key/Solution
different experience and language acquisition during the rst 2 years. Both
these aspects are mentioned only in option 3, making it the correct answer.
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  Q.28
Directions for question 28: The ve sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper
order for the sentences and key in this sequence of ve numbers as your answer.

1. "There, the females that keep the cubs the extra year have the greatest advantage."
2. Mr. Swenson said: "A single female in Sweden is four times more likely to be shot as one with a cub."
3. While it would not normally be a good strategy from an evolutionary perspective, the female bears'
increased survival chances largely counteracted the reduced birth rate.
4. The researchers found the unusual behavior was spreading through Swedish bear populations.
5. "This is especially true in areas of high hunting pressure," continued Mr. Swenson.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 24351
Statement 2 opens the paragraph as no other sentence can act as the opening
 Answer key/Solution
sentence. 2 and 4 create a mandatory pair as "unusual behavior" in 4 is a
reference to the quotation in 2. 3 follows next as it presents a contradiction
and "it" used in 3 is a reference to "unusual behaviour". 4 and 5 are also a
mandatory pair "there" in 1 is a reference to "areas of high hunting pressure" in 5.
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  Q.29
Directions for question 29: The ve sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper
order for the sentences and key in this sequence of ve numbers as your answer.

1. The ndings add to a growing body of evidence that people travelled along a coastal route to move from
Asia to North America at the time.
2. Measurements and enhanced photographs helped them identify the footprints of three different people,
thought to be of two adults and a child, walking barefoot.
3. Footprints of people who lived 13,000 years ago have been discovered off the west coast of Canada,
which scientists say could belong to the rst North American settlers.
4. There at the end of the last ice age the sea level was two to three meters lower than it is today.
5. Researchers from the Hakai Institute and the University of Victoria in Canada excavated sites along the
shoreline of Calvert Island in British Columbia.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 35421
Statement 3 opens the paragraph as it introduces the topic- nding of
 Answer key/Solution
footprints of people who lived 13000 years ago. 5 follows 3 as 5 provides
more details about the nding, that is where exactly where the footprints were
found. 5 and 4 form a mandatory pair as 4 states "there" and "sea level", which
is a reference to "Calvert Island in British Columbia". 2 follows 4 as 2 tells what happened post the
excavation. 1 is the concluding sentence as it leaves no space for other sentences to appear after it.
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  Q.30
Directions for question 30: The ve sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper
order for the sentences and key in this sequence of ve numbers as your answer.

1. Since we started engineering polymers to make plastic on a mass scale in the 1950s, this byproduct of
the petrochemical industry, which uses about 6% of all the oil we extract a year, has spread to myriad
manufacturing processes.
2. When exposed to sunlight, oxygen or the action of waves, it doesn’t biodegrade but simply fragments
into smaller and smaller bits, until microscopic or nano-sized particles enter the food chain, the air, the soil
and the water we drink.
3. We sleep on it, wear it, watch it, and are in direct bodily contact with it in one form or other all day and
night.
4. Plastic is now ubiquitous, insidious and impossible to avoid.
5. It may have profound societal bene ts, but this most successful of all manmade materials sticks around
for centuries.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 14352
1 introduces the topic of the paragraph- the coming up of plastic and its
 Answer key/Solution
spread. 4 follows next as the relationship of then and now is established in 1
and 4. 3 elaborates our present activities with respect to plastic. 5 and 2
create a mandatory. 5 presents a negative aspect of plastic and 2 justi es
that.
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  Q.31
Directions for question 31: The ve sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper
order for the sentences and key in this sequence of ve numbers as your answer.

1. Three of them dealt with the prince’s decision to pretend to be mad in order to conceal his plans for
revenge.
2. John Casson was looking through the British Library’s copy of François de
Belleforest’sHistoiresTragiques, a 1576 French text thought to have been one of the sources for
Shakespeare’s tragedy.
3. Annotations in the margins of a 16th-century text that is believed to have been one of the sources for
Hamlet could have been made by Shakespeare himself, according to an independent researcher.
4. Casson noticed that faded ink symbols had been made in the margins next to six passages.
5. It features the story of how a Danish prince, Amleth, avenges his father’s murder by his uncle, the latter
going on to marry his mother, Geruthe.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 32541
3 provides the topic of the paragraph- "source for Shakespeare's tragedy". 3
 Answer key/Solution
and 2 create a mandatory pair as John Casson is the name of "an independent
researcher", written in 3. 5 follows next as it provides some details about the
text and refers to it the text as "it". 4 and 1 create a mandatory pair as "three of
them" used in 1 is a reference for "six passages" in 4.
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  Q.32
Directions for question 32: Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put
together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out.

1. Working in the Brazilian state of MatoGrosso, a team led by archaeologists at the University of Exeter
unearthed hundreds of villages hidden in the depths of the rainforest.
2. The discovery supports the theory that millions of people lived in the Amazon prior to the arrival of
Europeans.
3. These excavations included evidence of forti cations and mysterious earthworks called geoglyphs.
4. Researchers have traditionally assumed ancient Amazonian communities stuck close to the region’s
river systems.
5. They eradicated much of the indigenous population through a combination of disease and warfare.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 4
The correct sequence is 1325. 1 introduces the topic of the paragraph-
 Answer key/Solution
unearthing hundreds of hidden villages. "These excavations" in 3 is a
reference to the unearthing that took place. 2 is an extension of 3. "They" in 5
refers to "Europeans" mentioned in 2. 4 may be a part of the same passage,
but here it cannot be related to any of the given sentences.
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  Q.33
Directions for question 33: Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put
together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out.

1. People’s data has been collected to try and understand more about them and change how they vote.
2. Facebook has been engulfed in a growing scandal over the way it harvests data.
3. The problems began when it emerged that Cambridge Analytica, a political data company, had been
using Facebook to gather information.
4. Amid the confusion, various claims have come from the companies involved and the activists and users
who oppose them.
5. But it is quickly broadening out – casting a light on the way data is gathered on Facebook more
generally, and how it is used to sway people not only to buy things but to change how they vote and who
runs the world.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 1
The correct sequence is 2354. 2 introduces the topic of the paragraph-
 Answer key/Solution
facebook involved in a scandal. 3 follows next as it provides a background to
the scandal. 5 follows 3 as it explains how the scandal is broadening. 4
provides a conclusion to the preceding three sentences. 1 is not a part of the
above paragraph as it merely repeats what is said in 5. 5 is added in the paragraph and not 1 because 5
mentions "facebook", whereas 1 does not", and hence it could be talking about some other thing.
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  Q.34
Directions for question 34: Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put
together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out.

1. He issued a statement on social media en route, admitting such behaviour was a “stain on the game”.
2. Having been handed a 12-month ban and been sent home from South Africa by Cricket Australia, a
devastated Smith touched down in Sydney on Thursday night and faced the music shortly afterwards in a
highly-charged airport press conference room.
3. Steve Smith, struggling to contain his emotions and at one point breaking down completely, faced the
cameras for the rst time since being stripped of the Australian cricket captaincy to issue a heartfelt
apology for his role in the ball tampering affair that has rocked the sport.
4. He repeatedly stated how “deeply sorry” he was for his actions, a sentiment Cameron Bancroft had
expressed earlier in the evening when he landed in Perth and fronted the media.
5. The scandal has hit the team in the pocket, with naming rights sponsor Magellan pulling out of a major
deal as naming rights sponsor on Thursday.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 5
The correct sequence is 3241. 3 opens the paragraph by introducing Steve
 Answer key/Solution
Smith. 2 follows next and provides details about Smith. Either 1 or 4 could
follow next. 5 may be a part of the same passage, but here it cannot be related
to any of the given sentences.
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Sec 2
Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Five countries –United States (US), United Kingdom (UK), Japan, Italy and Germany – had participated in
an environment meet. There were four conferences organised in the meet, one on each of the four issues
–Carbon Emission, Bio Hazards, Oil Spill and Radioactive. Each of the ve countries has sent at least ten
delegates to the meet. Also not more than ve delegates from one country participated in one conference.
Further it is known that:

(i) The total number of delegates from the countries Japan, Italy and UK were different and in an
Arithmetic Progression.
(ii) In all the conferences except the one on Bio Hazards, number of delegates from US was more than that
of any other country. But in conference on Bio Hazards, number of delegates from US was less than that of
all other countries.
(iii) In conference on Oil Spill, the number of delegates from Italy was the least while in conference on
Carbon Emission, the number of delegates from UK was the least.
(iv) Germany and Japan, each have sent 11 delegates and they didn’t have the highest or the lowest
delegates at any conference.
(v) From Germany equal number of delegates participated only in Carbon Emission and Oil Spill, while from
Japan the same number of delegates participated only in Radioactive and Bio Hazards.
(vi) In the conference on Oil Spill and on Radioactive, the number of delegates participated from UK was
equal.
(vii) From Italy, distinct number of delegates participated in the conference on Bio Hazards and Carbon
Emission.
(viii) No delegate attends more than one conferences and no two countries had the same number of
delegates at any conference.

  Q.35
Which country has the highest number of delegates in the conference on Bio Hazards?

1  US

2 UK

3 Germany

4 Italy
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 4
• Using (viii) and the statement that not more than ve delegates from a
 Answer key/Solution
country can participate in a conference, it can be observed that every
conference has a total of 15 delegates with numbers from each country be 1,
2, 3, 4 and 5.
• Using (ii) and (iii), we can say the number of delegates sent by US in Bio hazards conference are 1, and 5
each in all other three conferences.
• Using (iii), (iv) and (v), we can calculate the number of delegates in some of the conferences and can
form the following table representing the same:

• Using (i), it can be calculated that the only possible number of delegates from Italy and UK are 10 and 12
respectively.
• Solving further, using all other statements, the nal table is as follows

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Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Five countries –United States (US), United Kingdom (UK), Japan, Italy and Germany – had participated in
an environment meet. There were four conferences organised in the meet, one on each of the four issues
–Carbon Emission, Bio Hazards, Oil Spill and Radioactive. Each of the ve countries has sent at least ten
delegates to the meet. Also not more than ve delegates from one country participated in one conference.
Further it is known that:

(i) The total number of delegates from the countries Japan, Italy and UK were different and in an
Arithmetic Progression.
(ii) In all the conferences except the one on Bio Hazards, number of delegates from US was more than that
of any other country. But in conference on Bio Hazards, number of delegates from US was less than that of
all other countries.
(iii) In conference on Oil Spill, the number of delegates from Italy was the least while in conference on
Carbon Emission, the number of delegates from UK was the least.
(iv) Germany and Japan, each have sent 11 delegates and they didn’t have the highest or the lowest
delegates at any conference.
(v) From Germany equal number of delegates participated only in Carbon Emission and Oil Spill, while from
Japan the same number of delegates participated only in Radioactive and Bio Hazards.
(vi) In the conference on Oil Spill and on Radioactive, the number of delegates participated from UK was
equal.
(vii) From Italy, distinct number of delegates participated in the conference on Bio Hazards and Carbon
Emission.
(viii) No delegate attends more than one conferences and no two countries had the same number of
delegates at any conference.

  Q.36
Which country has the least number of delegates at the meet?

1  US

2 UK

3 Germany

4 Italy
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 4
• Using (viii) and the statement that not more than ve delegates from a
 Answer key/Solution
country can participate in a conference, it can be observed that every
conference has a total of 15 delegates with numbers from each country be 1,
2, 3, 4 and 5.
• Using (ii) and (iii), we can say the number of delegates sent by US in Bio hazards conference are 1, and 5
each in all other three conferences.
• Using (iii), (iv) and (v), we can calculate the number of delegates in some of the conferences and can
form the following table representing the same:

• Using (i), it can be calculated that the only possible number of delegates from Italy and UK are 10 and 12
respectively.
• Solving further, using all other statements, the nal table is as follows

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Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Five countries –United States (US), United Kingdom (UK), Japan, Italy and Germany – had participated in
an environment meet. There were four conferences organised in the meet, one on each of the four issues
–Carbon Emission, Bio Hazards, Oil Spill and Radioactive. Each of the ve countries has sent at least ten
delegates to the meet. Also not more than ve delegates from one country participated in one conference.
Further it is known that:

(i) The total number of delegates from the countries Japan, Italy and UK were different and in an
Arithmetic Progression.
(ii) In all the conferences except the one on Bio Hazards, number of delegates from US was more than that
of any other country. But in conference on Bio Hazards, number of delegates from US was less than that of
all other countries.
(iii) In conference on Oil Spill, the number of delegates from Italy was the least while in conference on
Carbon Emission, the number of delegates from UK was the least.
(iv) Germany and Japan, each have sent 11 delegates and they didn’t have the highest or the lowest
delegates at any conference.
(v) From Germany equal number of delegates participated only in Carbon Emission and Oil Spill, while from
Japan the same number of delegates participated only in Radioactive and Bio Hazards.
(vi) In the conference on Oil Spill and on Radioactive, the number of delegates participated from UK was
equal.
(vii) From Italy, distinct number of delegates participated in the conference on Bio Hazards and Carbon
Emission.
(viii) No delegate attends more than one conferences and no two countries had the same number of
delegates at any conference.

  Q.37
Which country has the 3rd highest number of delegates for Radioactive conference?

1  US

2 UK

3 Germany

4 Japan
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 3
• Using (viii) and the statement that not more than ve delegates from a
 Answer key/Solution
country can participate in a conference, it can be observed that every
conference has a total of 15 delegates with numbers from each country be 1,
2, 3, 4 and 5.
• Using (ii) and (iii), we can say the number of delegates sent by US in Bio hazards conference are 1, and 5
each in all other three conferences.
• Using (iii), (iv) and (v), we can calculate the number of delegates in some of the conferences and can
form the following table representing the same:

• Using (i), it can be calculated that the only possible number of delegates from Italy and UK are 10 and 12
respectively.
• Solving further, using all other statements, the nal table is as follows

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Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Five countries –United States (US), United Kingdom (UK), Japan, Italy and Germany – had participated in
an environment meet. There were four conferences organised in the meet, one on each of the four issues
–Carbon Emission, Bio Hazards, Oil Spill and Radioactive. Each of the ve countries has sent at least ten
delegates to the meet. Also not more than ve delegates from one country participated in one conference.
Further it is known that:

(i) The total number of delegates from the countries Japan, Italy and UK were different and in an
Arithmetic Progression.
(ii) In all the conferences except the one on Bio Hazards, number of delegates from US was more than that
of any other country. But in conference on Bio Hazards, number of delegates from US was less than that of
all other countries.
(iii) In conference on Oil Spill, the number of delegates from Italy was the least while in conference on
Carbon Emission, the number of delegates from UK was the least.
(iv) Germany and Japan, each have sent 11 delegates and they didn’t have the highest or the lowest
delegates at any conference.
(v) From Germany equal number of delegates participated only in Carbon Emission and Oil Spill, while from
Japan the same number of delegates participated only in Radioactive and Bio Hazards.
(vi) In the conference on Oil Spill and on Radioactive, the number of delegates participated from UK was
equal.
(vii) From Italy, distinct number of delegates participated in the conference on Bio Hazards and Carbon
Emission.
(viii) No delegate attends more than one conferences and no two countries had the same number of
delegates at any conference.

  Q.38
If Germany and Japan decided to join hands with each other, and hence be represented by the same
delegates whose numbers are equivalent to the lower gure among their number of delegates sent to each
conference, then how many total delegates would be there for the meet?
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 46
• Using (viii) and the statement that not more than ve delegates from a
 Answer key/Solution
country can participate in a conference, it can be observed that every
conference has a total of 15 delegates with numbers from each country be 1,
2, 3, 4 and 5.
• Using (ii) and (iii), we can say the number of delegates sent by US in Bio hazards conference are 1, and 5
each in all other three conferences.
• Using (iii), (iv) and (v), we can calculate the number of delegates in some of the conferences and can
form the following table representing the same:

• Using (i), it can be calculated that the only possible number of delegates from Italy and UK are 10 and 12
respectively.
• Solving further, using all other statements, the nal table is as follows

All the conferences would be represented by 2 delegates for both the countries together. Hence the total
number of delegates would be 46.
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Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

A confectionary store namely ‘Railway Confectionary’ at platform number 3 of New Delhi railway station
sells ten types of appetizers –Juice, Water bottle, Snacks, Coffee, Milk Shake, Soda, Soft Drink, Burger,
Patty and Cake. Store remains open from 8.00 a.m. to 8.00 p.m. everyday. The information about the cost
price, selling price and the range of number of units that can be sold in a day is given below. Some cells of
the table are left blank intentionally .

Some other information is as follows:

(i) Selling price of any appetizer is not less than Rs. 8 but not more than Rs. 20. Also selling price of any
appetizer is not less than its cost price.
(ii) The store purchases all its items in the starting of the month.
(iii) All transactions are in cash only.
(iv) A person buys milk shake only when he buys Snacks; a person buys soft drink only when he buys milk
shake. Each person buy exactly one unit of any appetizer.
(v) A person purchasing any appetizer out of snacks, milk shake and soft drink is called good customer,
and a customer purchasing all the three items is called as star customer.

  Q.39
What could be the maximum pro t (in Rs.) made by the store in a day from good customers, who are not
star customers?

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 1250

 Answer key/Solution

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Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

A confectionary store namely ‘Railway Confectionary’ at platform number 3 of New Delhi railway station
sells ten types of appetizers –Juice, Water bottle, Snacks, Coffee, Milk Shake, Soda, Soft Drink, Burger,
Patty and Cake. Store remains open from 8.00 a.m. to 8.00 p.m. everyday. The information about the cost
price, selling price and the range of number of units that can be sold in a day is given below. Some cells of
the table are left blank intentionally .

Some other information is as follows:

(i) Selling price of any appetizer is not less than Rs. 8 but not more than Rs. 20. Also selling price of any
appetizer is not less than its cost price.
(ii) The store purchases all its items in the starting of the month.
(iii) All transactions are in cash only.
(iv) A person buys milk shake only when he buys Snacks; a person buys soft drink only when he buys milk
shake. Each person buy exactly one unit of any appetizer.
(v) A person purchasing any appetizer out of snacks, milk shake and soft drink is called good customer,
and a customer purchasing all the three items is called as star customer.

  Q.40
What could be the minimum percentage pro t of the store for a day?

1  0.375

2 0.405

3 1.27

4 0
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 1

 Answer key/Solution

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Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

A confectionary store namely ‘Railway Confectionary’ at platform number 3 of New Delhi railway station
sells ten types of appetizers –Juice, Water bottle, Snacks, Coffee, Milk Shake, Soda, Soft Drink, Burger,
Patty and Cake. Store remains open from 8.00 a.m. to 8.00 p.m. everyday. The information about the cost
price, selling price and the range of number of units that can be sold in a day is given below. Some cells of
the table are left blank intentionally .

Some other information is as follows:

(i) Selling price of any appetizer is not less than Rs. 8 but not more than Rs. 20. Also selling price of any
appetizer is not less than its cost price.
(ii) The store purchases all its items in the starting of the month.
(iii) All transactions are in cash only.
(iv) A person buys milk shake only when he buys Snacks; a person buys soft drink only when he buys milk
shake. Each person buy exactly one unit of any appetizer.
(v) A person purchasing any appetizer out of snacks, milk shake and soft drink is called good customer,
and a customer purchasing all the three items is called as star customer.

  Q.41
If the selling price of every appetizer is same, what will be the approximate maximum percentage pro t for
a day?
1  50

2 64

3 42

4 60

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 2

 Answer key/Solution

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Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

A confectionary store namely ‘Railway Confectionary’ at platform number 3 of New Delhi railway station
sells ten types of appetizers –Juice, Water bottle, Snacks, Coffee, Milk Shake, Soda, Soft Drink, Burger,
Patty and Cake. Store remains open from 8.00 a.m. to 8.00 p.m. everyday. The information about the cost
price, selling price and the range of number of units that can be sold in a day is given below. Some cells of
the table are left blank intentionally .

Some other information is as follows:

(i) Selling price of any appetizer is not less than Rs. 8 but not more than Rs. 20. Also selling price of any
appetizer is not less than its cost price.
(ii) The store purchases all its items in the starting of the month.
(iii) All transactions are in cash only.
(iv) A person buys milk shake only when he buys Snacks; a person buys soft drink only when he buys milk
shake. Each person buy exactly one unit of any appetizer.
(v) A person purchasing any appetizer out of snacks, milk shake and soft drink is called good customer,
and a customer purchasing all the three items is called as star customer.

  Q.42
Which of the following could be the total sales value for a day?

1  Rs. 1600 

2 Rs. 12800

3 Rs. 12900  

4 Rs. 2650

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 4
The range of total sales value of a day for the shop is from Rs.2550 to
 Answer key/Solution
Rs.12760. Hence only 2650, out of all the options, lies in that interval.
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Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

A leading magazine conducted a survey of 4 B-Schools – S1, S2, S3 and S4 – based on the four different
parameters – P1, P2, P3 and P4. In the survey, they awarded some points to the B-Schools on the different
parameters. Sum of the points distributed to all the B-Schools in a parameter is equal for all the
parameters. In every parameter, points got by the four B-Schools are in the form of four different
Arithmetic Progressions . In any one of the four parameters, B-School getting highest point is ranked 1
and the one getting lowest point is ranked 4. It is also known that:

(i) In any parameter, all the B-Schools were awarded distinct points.
(ii) S3 was awarded 20 points in P1, and its rank is 3 in this parameter.
(iii) Points awarded to any B-School in any of the four parameters is non-negative integers.

  Q.43
What could be the minimum total number of points got by a B–School?

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 18
As a college is getting 20 marks in P1 and has rank 3 in this parameter, the
 Answer key/Solution
maximum possible sum of marks distributed = 0 + 20 + 40 + 60 = 120.
Table given below represents 4 ways of distributing 120 marks so that every
time college with rank 4 is getting minimum possible marks and college with
rank 1 getting maximum possible marks.

Minimum sum = 0 + 3 + 6 + 9 = 18
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Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

A leading magazine conducted a survey of 4 B-Schools – S1, S2, S3 and S4 – based on the four different
parameters – P1, P2, P3 and P4. In the survey, they awarded some points to the B-Schools on the different
parameters. Sum of the points distributed to all the B-Schools in a parameter is equal for all the
parameters. In every parameter, points got by the four B-Schools are in the form of four different
Arithmetic Progressions . In any one of the four parameters, B-School getting highest point is ranked 1
and the one getting lowest point is ranked 4. It is also known that:

(i) In any parameter, all the B-Schools were awarded distinct points.
(ii) S3 was awarded 20 points in P1, and its rank is 3 in this parameter.
(iii) Points awarded to any B-School in any of the four parameters is non-negative integers.

  Q.44
What could be the maximum total number of points got by a B–School?
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 222
As a college is getting 20 marks in P1 and has rank 3 in this parameter, the
 Answer key/Solution
maximum possible sum of marks distributed = 0 + 20 + 40 + 60 = 120.
Table given below represents 4 ways of distributing 120 marks so that every
time college with rank 4 is getting minimum possible marks and college with
rank 1 getting maximum possible marks.

Maximum sum = 51 + 54 + 57 + 60 = 222.

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Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

A leading magazine conducted a survey of 4 B-Schools – S1, S2, S3 and S4 – based on the four different
parameters – P1, P2, P3 and P4. In the survey, they awarded some points to the B-Schools on the different
parameters. Sum of the points distributed to all the B-Schools in a parameter is equal for all the
parameters. In every parameter, points got by the four B-Schools are in the form of four different
Arithmetic Progressions . In any one of the four parameters, B-School getting highest point is ranked 1
and the one getting lowest point is ranked 4. It is also known that:

(i) In any parameter, all the B-Schools were awarded distinct points.
(ii) S3 was awarded 20 points in P1, and its rank is 3 in this parameter.
(iii) Points awarded to any B-School in any of the four parameters is non-negative integers.

  Q.45
If S4 got rank 4 in all the four parameters, then the total points awarded to S4 in all the four parameters put
together cannot be more than

1  18

2 58

3 72

4 82
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 3
As a college is getting 20 marks in P1 and has rank 3 in this parameter, the
 Answer key/Solution
maximum possible sum of marks distributed = 0 + 20 + 40 + 60 = 120.
Table given below represents 4 ways of distributing 120 marks so that every
time college with rank 4 is getting minimum possible marks and college with
rank 1 getting maximum possible marks.

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Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

A leading magazine conducted a survey of 4 B-Schools – S1, S2, S3 and S4 – based on the four different
parameters – P1, P2, P3 and P4. In the survey, they awarded some points to the B-Schools on the different
parameters. Sum of the points distributed to all the B-Schools in a parameter is equal for all the
parameters. In every parameter, points got by the four B-Schools are in the form of four different
Arithmetic Progressions . In any one of the four parameters, B-School getting highest point is ranked 1
and the one getting lowest point is ranked 4. It is also known that:

(i) In any parameter, all the B-Schools were awarded distinct points.
(ii) S3 was awarded 20 points in P1, and its rank is 3 in this parameter.
(iii) Points awarded to any B-School in any of the four parameters is non-negative integers.

  Q.46
If sum of the points distributed to all the B–Schools in a parameter is minimum possible, then total points
got by a B–school in all parameters is ‘a’. What could be the maximum value of ‘a’?

1  120

2 88

3 106
4 133

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 4
As a college is getting 20 marks in P1 and has rank 3 in this parameter, the
 Answer key/Solution
maximum possible sum of marks distributed = 0 + 20 + 40 + 60 = 120.
Table given below represents 4 ways of distributing 120 marks so that every
time college with rank 4 is getting minimum possible marks and college with
rank 1 getting maximum possible marks.

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Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Five friends – A, B, C, D and E – were given certain number of packets of toffees by their parents. Each of
them got different number of packets and each packet contains ten toffees. They all met under a tree and
decided to exchange the toffees among themselves. Firstly A, B and D exchanged their packets amongst
themselves so that no one of the three had their original number of toffees with them. Thereafter B, C and
D exchanged their packets in the same manner (i.e. no one had their original number of toffees with them),
and in the last C, D and E exchanged their packets in the same manner. Some additional information is
given about the exchange.

1. Initially, E has the maximum number of toffees, which was not more than 60, but after all the exchange,
E left with the minimum number of toffees, which was not less than 10.
2. Number of toffees with each of the friends after all exchanges was different from what they initially had.
3. Number of toffees with B and C after second exchange was 40 and 20 respectively.
4. After each exchange, no two friends have the same number of toffees.
5. Number of toffees with A, B and D after rst exchange was 30, 10 and 20 respectively.
6. None of the friends has opened any packet before the nal exchange.
  Q.47
If number of toffees with B initially, after rst exchange, after second exchange and after third exchange
was a, b, c and d respectively, then which of the following can be the value of (a + b + c + d)?

1  120

2 100

3 150

4 130

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 1

 Answer key/Solution

Value of b, c and d is 10, 40 and 40 respectively and value a can be 20 or 30. Therefore possible sum can
be either 110 or 120.
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Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Five friends – A, B, C, D and E – were given certain number of packets of toffees by their parents. Each of
them got different number of packets and each packet contains ten toffees. They all met under a tree and
decided to exchange the toffees among themselves. Firstly A, B and D exchanged their packets amongst
themselves so that no one of the three had their original number of toffees with them. Thereafter B, C and
D exchanged their packets in the same manner (i.e. no one had their original number of toffees with them),
and in the last C, D and E exchanged their packets in the same manner. Some additional information is
given about the exchange.

1. Initially, E has the maximum number of toffees, which was not more than 60, but after all the exchange,
E left with the minimum number of toffees, which was not less than 10.
2. Number of toffees with each of the friends after all exchanges was different from what they initially had.
3. Number of toffees with B and C after second exchange was 40 and 20 respectively.
4. After each exchange, no two friends have the same number of toffees.
5. Number of toffees with A, B and D after rst exchange was 30, 10 and 20 respectively.
6. None of the friends has opened any packet before the nal exchange.
  Q.48
For how many persons, number of toffees with them after third exchange can be determined uniquely?

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 4

 Answer key/Solution

Clearly toffees with four of the ve friends can be determined uniquely, as the exact number of toffees that
E initially had cannot be determined.
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Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Five friends – A, B, C, D and E – were given certain number of packets of toffees by their parents. Each of
them got different number of packets and each packet contains ten toffees. They all met under a tree and
decided to exchange the toffees among themselves. Firstly A, B and D exchanged their packets amongst
themselves so that no one of the three had their original number of toffees with them. Thereafter B, C and
D exchanged their packets in the same manner (i.e. no one had their original number of toffees with them),
and in the last C, D and E exchanged their packets in the same manner. Some additional information is
given about the exchange.

1. Initially, E has the maximum number of toffees, which was not more than 60, but after all the exchange,
E left with the minimum number of toffees, which was not less than 10.
2. Number of toffees with each of the friends after all exchanges was different from what they initially had.
3. Number of toffees with B and C after second exchange was 40 and 20 respectively.
4. After each exchange, no two friends have the same number of toffees.
5. Number of toffees with A, B and D after rst exchange was 30, 10 and 20 respectively.
6. None of the friends has opened any packet before the nal exchange.

  Q.49
Which of the following is the number of toffees E initially had?

1  50

2 60

3 40
4 either (1) or (2)

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 4

 Answer key/Solution

E can have either 50 or 60 toffees with him initially.

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Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Five friends – A, B, C, D and E – were given certain number of packets of toffees by their parents. Each of
them got different number of packets and each packet contains ten toffees. They all met under a tree and
decided to exchange the toffees among themselves. Firstly A, B and D exchanged their packets amongst
themselves so that no one of the three had their original number of toffees with them. Thereafter B, C and
D exchanged their packets in the same manner (i.e. no one had their original number of toffees with them),
and in the last C, D and E exchanged their packets in the same manner. Some additional information is
given about the exchange.

1. Initially, E has the maximum number of toffees, which was not more than 60, but after all the exchange,
E left with the minimum number of toffees, which was not less than 10.
2. Number of toffees with each of the friends after all exchanges was different from what they initially had.
3. Number of toffees with B and C after second exchange was 40 and 20 respectively.
4. After each exchange, no two friends have the same number of toffees.
5. Number of toffees with A, B and D after rst exchange was 30, 10 and 20 respectively.
6. None of the friends has opened any packet before the nal exchange.

  Q.50
Which of the following statements is su cient to nd out the number of toffees with each of the ve
friends initially, after rst exchange, after second exchange and after third exchange?

1  C initially had 40 toffees.

2 Initially difference between number of toffees with A and E was 40.

3 Initially difference between number of toffees with A and C was 30.

4 None of these

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 4

 Answer key/Solution

None of the given options provide information about number of toffees that E initially had. Hence answer
will become option (4).
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Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

There are ve athletes - Raman, Tara, Harjinder, Karan and Vishal - who participated in a unique type of
race of length 3km. In the race, they covered the distance in three ways i.e., by running, walking and
jumping. They covered the distance by using all the three ways. Some additional information about the
race is as follows:
1. Each of the ve athletes took different time (in minutes) to cover the total distance.
2. Each of the ve athletes spent equal time on each of the three ways to cover the distance.
For example, If an athlete A spent x minutes on running, then the time spent by him on walking and
jumping each is also x minutes.
3. Total time (in minutes) spent by each of the ve athletes was an integral multiple of 3.
4. Race is nished when all the athletes covered the total distance of 3km.
5. Average speed (in meter per minute) for each of the ve athletes was a positive integer.
6. Total time taken (in minutes) by each of the ve athletes is a three digit number.

The following table provides us with the relative speed of the ve athletes, where rank 1 being the fastest
athlete and rank 5 being the slowest athlete.

  Q.51
Which of the following cannot be the value of sum of average speed of all the ve athletes?
1  72

2 68

3 52

4 47

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 1
As time taken to cover the distance by each of the ve athletes must be a
 Answer key/Solution
three digit number and must be a multiple of three, possible values for total
time, say '3t', lie between 102 and 999 which are also multiple of 3.
But as the average speed was also given as a positive integer, total time has to
be factor of 3000 also.
So, possible values for '3t' with all the required conditions are equivalent to possible values of 't' lying
between 34 and 333, also being factors of 1000 , i.e. 23×53.

From the table given above, maximum sum of average speed of the ve athletes = 25 + 20 + 10 + 8 + 5 =
68, so 72 cannot be the sum of average speeds.
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Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

There are ve athletes - Raman, Tara, Harjinder, Karan and Vishal - who participated in a unique type of
race of length 3km. In the race, they covered the distance in three ways i.e., by running, walking and
jumping. They covered the distance by using all the three ways. Some additional information about the
race is as follows:
1. Each of the ve athletes took different time (in minutes) to cover the total distance.
2. Each of the ve athletes spent equal time on each of the three ways to cover the distance.
For example, If an athlete A spent x minutes on running, then the time spent by him on walking and
jumping each is also x minutes.
3. Total time (in minutes) spent by each of the ve athletes was an integral multiple of 3.
4. Race is nished when all the athletes covered the total distance of 3km.
5. Average speed (in meter per minute) for each of the ve athletes was a positive integer.
6. Total time taken (in minutes) by each of the ve athletes is a three digit number.

The following table provides us with the relative speed of the ve athletes, where rank 1 being the fastest
athlete and rank 5 being the slowest athlete.
  Q.52
What can be the maximum time (in minutes) to nish the race?

1  375

2 150

3 300

4 None of these

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 4
As time taken to cover the distance by each of the ve athletes must be a
 Answer key/Solution
three digit number and must be a multiple of three, possible values for total
time, say '3t', lie between 102 and 999 which are also multiple of 3.
But as the average speed was also given as a positive integer, total time has to
be factor of 3000 also.
So, possible values for '3t' with all the required conditions are equivalent to possible values of 't' lying
between 34 and 333, also being factors of 1000 , i.e. 23×53.

As race will be nished when all the ve athletes cover the distance of 3km, maximum time to nish the
race is 750 minutes.
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Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

There are ve athletes - Raman, Tara, Harjinder, Karan and Vishal - who participated in a unique type of
race of length 3km. In the race, they covered the distance in three ways i.e., by running, walking and
jumping. They covered the distance by using all the three ways. Some additional information about the
race is as follows:
1. Each of the ve athletes took different time (in minutes) to cover the total distance.
2. Each of the ve athletes spent equal time on each of the three ways to cover the distance.
For example, If an athlete A spent x minutes on running, then the time spent by him on walking and
jumping each is also x minutes.
3. Total time (in minutes) spent by each of the ve athletes was an integral multiple of 3.
4. Race is nished when all the athletes covered the total distance of 3km.
5. Average speed (in meter per minute) for each of the ve athletes was a positive integer.
6. Total time taken (in minutes) by each of the ve athletes is a three digit number.

The following table provides us with the relative speed of the ve athletes, where rank 1 being the fastest
athlete and rank 5 being the slowest athlete.

  Q.53
If the time taken to nish the race is maximum possible, and the speed of all the ve athletes was integer
(in meter per minute) during all the three ways, nd the maximum speed (in meter per minute), when
running, of the player who nished last?

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 10
As time taken to cover the distance by each of the ve athletes must be a
 Answer key/Solution
three digit number and must be a multiple of three, possible values for total
time, say '3t', lie between 102 and 999 which are also multiple of 3.
But as the average speed was also given as a positive integer, total time has to
be factor of 3000 also.
So, possible values for '3t' with all the required conditions are equivalent to possible values of 't' lying
between 34 and 333, also being factors of 1000 , i.e. 23×53.

Maximum possible time taken to nish the race = 750 minutes.

So, average speed of the player who nished last = 3000/750 = 4m per minute.
For maximum speed while running, speed while walking and jumping must be minimum possible.
And minimum possible speed when walking and jumping can be 1m/minute.
Therefore maximum distance covered when running = 3000 – (250 × 1) - (250 × 1) = 3000 – 500 = 2500.
And hence maximum speed while running = 2500/250 = 10 m/minute.
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Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

There are ve athletes - Raman, Tara, Harjinder, Karan and Vishal - who participated in a unique type of
race of length 3km. In the race, they covered the distance in three ways i.e., by running, walking and
jumping. They covered the distance by using all the three ways. Some additional information about the
race is as follows:
1. Each of the ve athletes took different time (in minutes) to cover the total distance.
2. Each of the ve athletes spent equal time on each of the three ways to cover the distance.
For example, If an athlete A spent x minutes on running, then the time spent by him on walking and
jumping each is also x minutes.
3. Total time (in minutes) spent by each of the ve athletes was an integral multiple of 3.
4. Race is nished when all the athletes covered the total distance of 3km.
5. Average speed (in meter per minute) for each of the ve athletes was a positive integer.
6. Total time taken (in minutes) by each of the ve athletes is a three digit number.

The following table provides us with the relative speed of the ve athletes, where rank 1 being the fastest
athlete and rank 5 being the slowest athlete.

  Q.54
The minimum time (in minutes) taken by the athlete who nished third is

1  375

2 300

3 120

4 150
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2
As time taken to cover the distance by each of the ve athletes must be a
 Answer key/Solution
three digit number and must be a multiple of three, possible values for total
time, say '3t', lie between 102 and 999 which are also multiple of 3.
But as the average speed was also given as a positive integer, total time has to
be factor of 3000 also.
So, possible values for '3t' with all the required conditions are equivalent to possible values of 't' lying
between 34 and 333, also being factors of 1000 , i.e. 23×53.

Minimum possible time taken to nish the race = 120 minutes

In this way, time taken by the ve athletes are 600, 375, 300, 150 and 120 minutes.
Therefore time taken by the one who nished third = 300 minutes.
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Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

ABC school takes in a total of 200 students every year for admissions in class 3rd to 10th. Out of which,
60% are girls and rest are boys. Out of the 200 seats available in the school, 45% are reserved for the
under privileged students, and 15% reserved for the children of defence families. From a family maximum
2 children can get admission in that school. If the applications are more than the intake, lottery will be
done keeping in mind the above mentioned constraints. The following table provides the details of the
applications submitted for the April’ 2018 session:

Even after knowing that maximum of only 2 children per family could get admission in the school, 20
families, who had 3 children, still submitted the application for all of them.

  Q.55
What can be the minimum number of families with only a girl child who also got selected?

1  46

2 36

3 26

4 12
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 1

 Answer key/Solution

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Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

ABC school takes in a total of 200 students every year for admissions in class 3rd to 10th. Out of which,
60% are girls and rest are boys. Out of the 200 seats available in the school, 45% are reserved for the
under privileged students, and 15% reserved for the children of defence families. From a family maximum
2 children can get admission in that school. If the applications are more than the intake, lottery will be
done keeping in mind the above mentioned constraints. The following table provides the details of the
applications submitted for the April’ 2018 session:

Even after knowing that maximum of only 2 children per family could get admission in the school, 20
families, who had 3 children, still submitted the application for all of them.

  Q.56
What can be the maximum number of under privileged families with 2 children and both selected?

1  10

2 13

3 16
4 5

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3

 Answer key/Solution

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Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

ABC school takes in a total of 200 students every year for admissions in class 3rd to 10th. Out of which,
60% are girls and rest are boys. Out of the 200 seats available in the school, 45% are reserved for the
under privileged students, and 15% reserved for the children of defence families. From a family maximum
2 children can get admission in that school. If the applications are more than the intake, lottery will be
done keeping in mind the above mentioned constraints. The following table provides the details of the
applications submitted for the April’ 2018 session:

Even after knowing that maximum of only 2 children per family could get admission in the school, 20
families, who had 3 children, still submitted the application for all of them.

  Q.57
What is the maximum number of families with two children in ‘others’ category, out of which only 1 child
was selected?

1  7

2 11

3 13

4 5
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 3

 Answer key/Solution

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Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

ABC school takes in a total of 200 students every year for admissions in class 3rd to 10th. Out of which,
60% are girls and rest are boys. Out of the 200 seats available in the school, 45% are reserved for the
under privileged students, and 15% reserved for the children of defence families. From a family maximum
2 children can get admission in that school. If the applications are more than the intake, lottery will be
done keeping in mind the above mentioned constraints. The following table provides the details of the
applications submitted for the April’ 2018 session:

Even after knowing that maximum of only 2 children per family could get admission in the school, 20
families, who had 3 children, still submitted the application for all of them.
  Q.58
What is the maximum possible number of male child selected from defence family?

1  10

2 12

3 8

4 6

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4

 Answer key/Solution

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Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The head of Swachh Bharat Mission, B. Chandraleka, set up a mission to make India a dumping yard free
society. She picked up ve scientists of various domains and origins to frame a master plan.

The scientists chosen by her were Rama, Bupa, Peter, Maku and Sayeed with their specialization in
leachate reduction, afforestation, debugging, water science, and environment sustainability, not
necessarily in the same order.
They purchased their experimental equipments from Denmark, California, Libya, Nigeria and Kenya of
different colors from Black, Red, Yellow, White and Grey, in any order.
Some of them worked for NAMO and the remaining for RAGA.

Some additional information about them is also known.

(i) The one who specialised in environment sustainability purchased his equipment from Denmark.
(ii) Both, the afforestation scientist and the one whose equipments are white in color, worked for RAGA.
(iii) Peter is neither an afforestation scientist nor he purchased his equipments from Libya.
(iv) Maku, a leachate reduction scientist, worked for RAGA
(v) Bupa worked for NAMO.
(vi) All three persons - the one whose equipments are grey, the one who purchased his equipments from
Libya and the one who purchased his equipments from Nigeria, worked for NAMO.
(vii) The afforestation scientist has yellow color equipments.
(viii) Rama’s equipments are neither yellow nor grey.
(ix) Neither Bupa nor Rama is a water scientist.
(x) Sayeed’s equipments are not from California.
(xi) The one whose specialization is in debugging don’t have red equipments.

  Q.59
Which of the following scientists worked for RAGA?

1  Peter and Rama

2 Sayeed and Rama

3 Sayeed and Maku

4 Maku and Peter

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3

 Answer key/Solution

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Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The head of Swachh Bharat Mission, B. Chandraleka, set up a mission to make India a dumping yard free
society. She picked up ve scientists of various domains and origins to frame a master plan.

The scientists chosen by her were Rama, Bupa, Peter, Maku and Sayeed with their specialization in
leachate reduction, afforestation, debugging, water science, and environment sustainability, not
necessarily in the same order.
They purchased their experimental equipments from Denmark, California, Libya, Nigeria and Kenya of
different colors from Black, Red, Yellow, White and Grey, in any order.
Some of them worked for NAMO and the remaining for RAGA.

Some additional information about them is also known.

(i) The one who specialised in environment sustainability purchased his equipment from Denmark.
(ii) Both, the afforestation scientist and the one whose equipments are white in color, worked for RAGA.
(iii) Peter is neither an afforestation scientist nor he purchased his equipments from Libya.
(iv) Maku, a leachate reduction scientist, worked for RAGA
(v) Bupa worked for NAMO.
(vi) All three persons - the one whose equipments are grey, the one who purchased his equipments from
Libya and the one who purchased his equipments from Nigeria, worked for NAMO.
(vii) The afforestation scientist has yellow color equipments.
(viii) Rama’s equipments are neither yellow nor grey.
(ix) Neither Bupa nor Rama is a water scientist.
(x) Sayeed’s equipments are not from California.
(xi) The one whose specialization is in debugging don’t have red equipments.

  Q.60
Who specialised in environment sustainability?
1  Bupa

2 Rama

3 Peter

4 Cannot be determined

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 1

 Answer key/Solution

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Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The head of Swachh Bharat Mission, B. Chandraleka, set up a mission to make India a dumping yard free
society. She picked up ve scientists of various domains and origins to frame a master plan.

The scientists chosen by her were Rama, Bupa, Peter, Maku and Sayeed with their specialization in
leachate reduction, afforestation, debugging, water science, and environment sustainability, not
necessarily in the same order.
They purchased their experimental equipments from Denmark, California, Libya, Nigeria and Kenya of
different colors from Black, Red, Yellow, White and Grey, in any order.
Some of them worked for NAMO and the remaining for RAGA.

Some additional information about them is also known.

(i) The one who specialised in environment sustainability purchased his equipment from Denmark.
(ii) Both, the afforestation scientist and the one whose equipments are white in color, worked for RAGA.
(iii) Peter is neither an afforestation scientist nor he purchased his equipments from Libya.
(iv) Maku, a leachate reduction scientist, worked for RAGA
(v) Bupa worked for NAMO.
(vi) All three persons - the one whose equipments are grey, the one who purchased his equipments from
Libya and the one who purchased his equipments from Nigeria, worked for NAMO.
(vii) The afforestation scientist has yellow color equipments.
(viii) Rama’s equipments are neither yellow nor grey.
(ix) Neither Bupa nor Rama is a water scientist.
(x) Sayeed’s equipments are not from California.
(xi) The one whose specialization is in debugging don’t have red equipments.

  Q.61
Which of the following combinations is correct?

1  Bupa – Water – California

2 Bupa – Afforestation – Denmark

3 Peter – RAGA – Nigeria

4 Peter – NAMO – Nigeria

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4

 Answer key/Solution

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Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The head of Swachh Bharat Mission, B. Chandraleka, set up a mission to make India a dumping yard free
society. She picked up ve scientists of various domains and origins to frame a master plan.

The scientists chosen by her were Rama, Bupa, Peter, Maku and Sayeed with their specialization in
leachate reduction, afforestation, debugging, water science, and environment sustainability, not
necessarily in the same order.
They purchased their experimental equipments from Denmark, California, Libya, Nigeria and Kenya of
different colors from Black, Red, Yellow, White and Grey, in any order.
Some of them worked for NAMO and the remaining for RAGA.

Some additional information about them is also known.

(i) The one who specialised in environment sustainability purchased his equipment from Denmark.
(ii) Both, the afforestation scientist and the one whose equipments are white in color, worked for RAGA.
(iii) Peter is neither an afforestation scientist nor he purchased his equipments from Libya.
(iv) Maku, a leachate reduction scientist, worked for RAGA
(v) Bupa worked for NAMO.
(vi) All three persons - the one whose equipments are grey, the one who purchased his equipments from
Libya and the one who purchased his equipments from Nigeria, worked for NAMO.
(vii) The afforestation scientist has yellow color equipments.
(viii) Rama’s equipments are neither yellow nor grey.
(ix) Neither Bupa nor Rama is a water scientist.
(x) Sayeed’s equipments are not from California.
(xi) The one whose specialization is in debugging don’t have red equipments.

  Q.62
The scientists who worked for NAMO have equipments of which color?
1  Red, Black, Yellow

2 Grey, Red, Yellow

3 Grey, Black, Red

4 Yellow, White, Grey

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3

 Answer key/Solution

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Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a group of 300 people, 170 drink alcohol, 140 smoke, and 100 people chew tobacco. Everyone belongs
to at least one of the 3 aforementioned categories. All those people who drink alcohol, also play Poker. All
those people who smoke, also play Black Jack. All those people who chew tobacco, also play Roulette. Out
of those group of 300 people, 210 play Poker, 170 play Black Jack and 220 play Roulette. No one play all
the 3 games, and everyone plays at least one of the 3 games.

  Q.63
What can be the maximum number of persons who drink alcohol and also play both Poker and Black Jack?
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 80

 Answer key/Solution

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Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a group of 300 people, 170 drink alcohol, 140 smoke, and 100 people chew tobacco. Everyone belongs
to at least one of the 3 aforementioned categories. All those people who drink alcohol, also play Poker. All
those people who smoke, also play Black Jack. All those people who chew tobacco, also play Roulette. Out
of those group of 300 people, 210 play Poker, 170 play Black Jack and 220 play Roulette. No one play all
the 3 games, and everyone plays at least one of the 3 games.

  Q.64
What can be the maximum number of persons who smoke and also play Poker?

1  170

2 140

3 210
4 80

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4

 Answer key/Solution

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Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a group of 300 people, 170 drink alcohol, 140 smoke, and 100 people chew tobacco. Everyone belongs
to at least one of the 3 aforementioned categories. All those people who drink alcohol, also play Poker. All
those people who smoke, also play Black Jack. All those people who chew tobacco, also play Roulette. Out
of those group of 300 people, 210 play Poker, 170 play Black Jack and 220 play Roulette. No one play all
the 3 games, and everyone plays at least one of the 3 games.

  Q.65
What can be the maximum number of persons who drink as well as smoke, and also play Roulette?
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 0

 Answer key/Solution

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Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a group of 300 people, 170 drink alcohol, 140 smoke, and 100 people chew tobacco. Everyone belongs
to at least one of the 3 aforementioned categories. All those people who drink alcohol, also play Poker. All
those people who smoke, also play Black Jack. All those people who chew tobacco, also play Roulette. Out
of those group of 300 people, 210 play Poker, 170 play Black Jack and 220 play Roulette. No one play all
the 3 games, and everyone plays at least one of the 3 games.

  Q.66
What can be the minimum number of persons who smoke but do not play Roulette?

1  90

2 50

3 140
4 80

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2

 Answer key/Solution

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Sec 3

  Q.67
In how many ways can 575 be written as sum of ve terms of an Arithmetic Progression (AP), such that all
the ve terms of the AP are positive integers?

1  57

2 77

3 58
4 Cannot be determined

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.68
45 students of a class took French, 35 took Spanish and 20 took German language. 5 students took all
three languages. 15 took both French and Spanish, 10 took both French and German, and 5 took both
German and Spanish. Find the total number of students in the class, if each student of the class took at
least one of the languages.

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 75

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.69
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 1298

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.70
If two vertices of a rhombus are (3,0) and (4,5), and the third vertex lies on the point of intersection of x + y
= 3 and x – 5y = –21, then nd the fourth vertex.

1  (–1, 3)

2 (–2, –4)

3 (–1, –3)

4 (–2, –1)

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.71

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 16

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.72
In a deck of 52 cards, Ace is considered as the highest valued card. Two players play a game in which each
player picks a card, and the player with the higher value card wins. If both the players have the same value
card it will be considered as a tie. If the rst player picks a 10, then what is the probability that the other
player will not lose the game?

1  4/13

2 16/51

3 19/52

4 19/51

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.73

1  1

2 4

3 9

4 36

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.74
There is a city named as Pearl City. It is mainly divided into fty sectors numbered from 1 to 50 for which
bus services having bus numbered from 1 to 50 are available for the public transport. Route of a bus is
dependent upon the number of the bus, as a bus visits all the sectors whose number is the factor of bus
number. For example, Bus number 30 visits sectors numbered 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15 and 30. Minimum how
many buses are required for providing transportation to all the sectors?

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 25
All buses numbered from 26 to 50 have to make available for providing
 Answer key/Solution
services, as bus numbered from 26 to 50 will provide services to the
remaining 25 sectors also.
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  Q.75
In the gure given below, O is the centre of the circle. If ∠OCD = 25° and ∠OAD is 30°, then nd the value of
∠ABC (in degrees).

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 125

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.76
The longest diagonal of a cube is approx what percentage of the diagonal of any of its face?

1  81

2 131

3 122.5

4 114
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.77
Ashok, Kiran and Vignesh are set out to do some work. Ashok can do the work in as much time as Kiran
and Vignesh can do while working together. Kiran can do the work alone in 12 days more than the days in
which Ashok would do the work alone, while Vignesh can work twice as fast as Kiran. If Shirin joins the
work on the second day and the work is nished on that day itself, nd out how many days would Shirin
take to complete the whole work by herself?

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.78
Which of the following statements is false?

[Note: Here inscribed means all the vertices of the inscribed gure lie on the sides of the other gure.]

1  A triangle can be inscribed in any rectangle

2 A square can be inscribed in any trapezium

3 An octagon can be inscribed in any triangle

4 A pentagon can be inscribed in any hexagon

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3
Any polygon can be inscribed in another polygon having more sides than the
 Answer key/Solution
former polygon.
This polygon can be simply formed by coinciding the vertices and by joining
the sides so formed by the smaller sides polygon so as to eliminate the extra
number of sides.
For eg. In a rectangle if we place three vertices of the triangle on any three vertices of the rectangle, then
the triangle is formed with 2 common sides of the rectangle and the third side formed by the line joining
the opposite ends of the other two sides.
Note in the problem they haven't mentioned that each vertex of the polygon must lie on a different side
hence a square can be inscribed in a trapezium with two vertices each on opposite parallel sides of the
trapezium.
The only instance when a polygon can't be inscribed in another polygon is when the number of vertices is
greater than twice the number of vertices the polygon is being inscribed in. Hence an octagon can't be
inscribed in any triangle.
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  Q.79
Abhijit bought 100 HCC’s shares at Rs. 157 each, 10 Reliance’ shares at Rs.1000 each, 20 State Bank of
India’s shares at Rs. 1560 each, and 5 Jindal Steel’s shares at Rs. 3350 each. If he sold all these shares for
Rs.161, Rs.957, Rs.1559 and Rs.3800 per share respectively, then his approximate percentage of pro t or
loss is

1  3% Loss

2 5% Pro t

3 3% Pro t

4 5% Loss
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.80
(0.55555……..)a + (0.55555………..)b = (0.44444…………)c, where a, b, c are natural numbers, and also c is an
even multiple of 125. Find the possible number of ordered triplets (a, b, c), when value of ‘c’ is minimum.

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 199

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.81
The sum of the digits of a 3-digit number is 14. These three digits are in Geometric Progression. Also
when you subtract the original number from the number obtained by reversing the digits of the original
number, you get 594. Find the original number.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 248

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.82
How many real solutions will the following system of equations have:
(X – 3)2 + (Y – 4)2 = 16;
X+Y+2=0

1  1

2 2

3 More than 2 solutions

4 No solutions

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.83

1  1/7

2 2/7

3 3/7

4 4/7

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.84
A cylindrical tank gets lled at 88 cubic cm per hour. The level of water in the tank rises at the rate of 7 cm
per hour. Find the radius (in cm) of the tank.

1  1.414

2 2
3 4

4 8

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.85
A retail outlet owner plans to offer an 'End of Season Sale' on articles of same cost price. To fool the
consumers, he marked the prices of all the garments as 25% above their cost price and then offers a
discount of 10%. If 10% of his articles get destroyed, nd out how much percentage pro t or loss did he
make during the sale.

1  2.5% loss

2 1.25% loss

3 2.5% pro t

4 1.25% pro t

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.86
Find the sum of the three largest prime factors of (512 – 412).
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 139

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.87
A "prime time" is de ned as a digital display which indicates time only when both hours and minutes are a
prime number, on a twelve hour clock. Which of the following is the number of minutes in a day on which
the "prime time" has shown the time?

1  85

2 144

3 170

4 25

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3
The prime hours are 2, 3, 5, 7, and 11 which is equal to 10 numbers (counted
 Answer key/Solution
for both morning and evening in a day). The prime minutes are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11,
13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53 and 59. There are 17 such minute
values. The total duration of 17 minutes in each of 10 hours gives us 170
minutes. So, for 170 minutes in a day the clock has shown the correct time.
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  Q.88
P, Q and R are the roots of the equation x3 + bx2 + cx + d = 0, and are positive integers. If P2 + Q2 = 221 and
Q2 + R2 = 125, then which of the following can be the value of ‘c’?

1  -152

2 215

3 550

4 -26
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.89
Find the percentage increase in the number of factors of A = ab, when A is multiplied by cd and ef, where a,
c and e are prime numbers.

1  (d + 1)(f + 1) × 100

2 [(d + 1)(f + 1) - 1] × 100

3 (d + f) × 100

4 (d + f – 1) × 100

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.90
If log5(x2 + 2x + 10) = 2, then the values of x are

1  –2, 5

2 3, –5

3 –2, –3

4 –3, 5
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.91
A wooden sphere and an iron cone are put on the two sides of a weighing balance machine. The wooden
sphere has a radius of 21 cm whereas the iron cone has its radius and height as 28 cm and 30 cm
respectively. Density of iron is 1.7 g/cm3 while that of wood is 1.1 g/cm3. If the weighing balance pointer
tilts 1 degree towards the heavier side for every 50 grams difference , then nd to what extent and towards
which side will the weighing balance pointer tilt.

1  14 degree towards iron

2 16 degree towards iron

3 14 degree towards wood

4 16 degree towards wood

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.92
N is a natural number such that N/7 is a perfect square and N/11 is a perfect cube. Which of the following
can be the number of factors of N?
1  66

2 120

3 140

4 80

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.93
A circle is inscribed in a regular hexagon and further a square of side 'a' is inscribed inside that circle as
shown in the gure below. Find the area of the shaded region.

1 

3
4

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.94
There are two equations, x2 + bx + c = 0 and x2 + cx + b = 0, where b ≠ 0 and c ≠ 0. If both the equations
have real roots, then what can be said about the value of 'c'?

1  Minimum possible value of 'c' is 2.

2 There is only one value of 'c' at which it is equal to 'b'.

3 'c' can only be an integer.

4 None of these

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2

 Answer key/Solution

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  Q.95
Aroop leaves from Mumbai towards Goa, having a distance of 600 km, by his car. He travels at a speed of
50 km/hr for the rst 6 hours and completes the remaining journey at a speed of 100 km/ hr. If he returns
from Goa to Mumbai at an average speed of 80 km/hr, then time taken by him during the return journey is
how much more/less than that of his journey from Mumbai to Goa?

1  1 hr more

2 1.5 hr more

3 1.5 hr less

4 1 hr less

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3
Journey from Mumbai to Goa takes 9 hours.
 Answer key/Solution
As during rst 6 hr at 50km/hr he covers 300km, and so the remaining 300 km
at 100 km/hr in 3hrs.
Hence total time taken = 9 hours.
The return journey at average speed of 80 km/hr takes 7.5 hours.

Hence, the return journey takes 1.5 hr less.

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  Q.96
A football stadium pitch, which is rectangular in shape having its dimensions as 120 × 40 square yards, is
being converted into a circular cricket pitch using its soil only. The football pitch is 2 yards deep but due to
the relatively less wear and tear of cricket pitches, the cricket pitch needs to be just 1 yard deep. Also
about 40 × 10 square yards section of the football pitch is considered as un t for the transformation and is
discarded completely along with the soil below it. Find the maximum possible radius (in yards) of the
cricket pitch.

1  11

2 20√7

3 13√2

4 27
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2

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  Q.97
Mihir has decided to launch a monthly music magazine titled as “The BIG M”. To reduce the costs, he has
loaned a printing press for Rs. 5000. The printing ink and the labour, cost him Rs. 14 per magazine. The
article writers and distributors add another Rs. 10000 to his costs. If he prints and sells 5000 magazines at
Rs. 10 per magazine, and wants to make a total pro t of 20%, then what amount (in Rs.) should he earn
from advertisements?

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 52000
Fixed costs = 5000 + 10000
 Answer key/Solution
Variable costs = 5000 × 14 = 70000
So, total cost = 70000 + 15000 = 85000
As he wants to make a pro t of 20% on the total cost, his revenue generated
should be = 85000 × 1.2 = 102000
But revenue through sale = 5000 × 10 = 50000
So, the remaining 102000 – 50000 = 52000 he should earn through advertisements.
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  Q.98
What is the remainder when 384 + 363 + 342 + 321 + 1 is divided by 320 + 1?

1  3

2 1

3 63

4 61
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4

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  Q.99
Lee cooper gives two successive discounts of 40% and 30% on List Price (LP) of a shirt and earns a pro t
of 5%. At what price should he sell the shirt to earn a pro t of 50%?

1  sell at LP

2 sell at 40% discount on LP

3 sell at 20% discount on LP

4 sell at 30% discount on LP

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2

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  Q.100
Mohan’s present salary is 120% of Sushant’s salary. If next year Sushant’s salary will be appraised by 120%
and Mohan’s salary will be appraised by 20%, then Sushant’s salary will be what percent of Mohan’s salary
after appraisal?

1  152.78%

2 140%

3 247%

4 366.08%
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 1

 Answer key/Solution

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