MD (HOM.

) PREPARATORY CAMP: 2019 – 2020

MOCK TEST 3
FULL MARKS: 100 TIME: 1.30 HRS.
1. All of the following are branches of c) Middle
external carotid artery supplying nasal d) Ring
septum except –
a) Anterior ethmoidal 7. Spasmodic torticollis is due to central
b) Sphenopalatine irritation of –
c) Greater palatine a) Facial nerve
d) Superior labial b) Glossopharyngeal nerve
c) Vagus nerve
2. Which of the following muscle is not d) Cranial accessory nerve
supplied by the occulomotor nerve –
a) Superior rectus 8. Which is intracapsular origin –
b) Superior oblique a) Long head of biceps
c) Medial rectus b) Long head of triceps
d) LPS c) Short head of biceps
d) Coracobrachialis
3. Find out the wrong statement about levator
ani muscle function & support – 9. Left gastric artery is the branch of –
a) Supports pelvic viscera a) Common hepatic
b) Converge downwards & medially b) Splenic
c) Parts ileococcygeus & pubococcygeus c) Celiac trunk
d) Attached to pelvic brim d) Gastroduodenal

4. Correct sequence of structure in 10. Apocrine gland is found in all except –

spermatogenesis event: a) Palm
1. Spermatozoa b) Areola
2. Spermatogonia c) Groin
3. Spermatocytes d) Axilla
4. Spermatid
11. In the anterior abdominal wall, deep
a) 3, 2, 4, 1 inguinal ring comes in close relation to –
b) 2, 3, 4, 1 a) Superior epigastric artery
c) 2, 3, 1, 4 b) Inferior epigastric artery
d) 2, 4, 3, 1 c) Deep circumflex iliac artery
d) Superior circumflex iliac artery
5. Structure that divides liver anatomically
based on Couinaud’s classification system 12. Which of the following represents
– mesonephric duct in female –
a) Portal vein a) Urachus & tip of bladder
b) Hepatic artery b) Ureter
c) Bile duct c) DCT
d) Cystic duct d) Duct of vestibular gland

6. Which of the following finger is having 13. Brachial artery lies –

two dorsal interossei muscles – a) Lateral to biceps
a) Index b) Medial to biceps
b) Little c) Medial to ulnar nerve
 d) Medial to radial nerve a) Ureteric bud
b) Pronephros
14. Which nerve lies B/w brachialis & c) Metanephros
brachio radilais – d) Mesonephros
a) Radial
b) Median cutaneous 21. Blood supply of Meckel’s diverticulm is
c) Musculocutaneous from branch of –
d) Radial a) Ileocolic
b) Superior mesenteric
15. All coincide with transpyloric plane c) Inferior mesenteric
except – d) Celiac trunk
a) Fundus of gallbladder
b) Celiac trunk 22. Veins do not drain into IVC –
c) End of spinal cord a) Right renal vein
d) Superior mesenteric artery b) Left renal vein
c) Right supra renal vein
16. A 35 yrs old patient presents with head d) Left supra renal vein
injury & CT reveals fracture of Sphenoid,
decreased salivation, which nerve is 23. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy seen in –
injured? a) Fracture medial epicondyle
a) Chorda tympani b) Fracture intercondylar
b) Glossopharyngeal c) Fracture lateral condyle
c) Vagus d) Supracondylar fracture humerus
d) Sympathetic trunk
24. Length of oesophagus –
17. Function of iliopsoas all of the following a) 40 cm
except – b) 20 cm
a) External rotation of hip c) 25 cm
b) Internal rotation of hip d) 30 cm
c) Flexion of hip
d) Extension of hip 25. The part of the growing bone concerned
primarily with the growth in length is –
18. True regarding pudendal canal – a) Metaphysis
a) Continuous with obturator canal b) Epiphyseal plate
b) Contains obturator artery c) Epiphysis
c) Terminate in superficial perineal d) Diaphysis
pouch
d) Formed by obturator fascia 26. All of the following are seen gestational
DM; except –
19. Internal spermatic fascia contains all a) Malformation
except – b) Polyhydramnios
a) Genitofemoral nerve c) Obesity
b) Nerve to testes d) Previous h/o macrosomia
c) Deferential artery
d) Testicular artery 27. A fetus was found to have congenital
heart block, what should be evaluated in
20. Collecting ducts of kidney are developed the mother?
from – a) Apla syndrome
 b) CHD 33. Which of the trophoblast does not invade
c) SLE spiral arterioles –
d) Haemolytic anemia a) Extravillous
b) Endovascular
28. Regarding PCOS all are true except – c) Tertiary villus
a) LH to FSH ratio elevated (3: 1) d) Interstitial
b) Testosterone level is decrease
c) Sex hormone binding globulin 34. Risk factor of shoulder dystocia –
(SHBG) decreased a) Obesity
d) Acanthosis nigricans may be seen b) Maternal DM
c) Postdates pregnancy
29. Hormone therapy is not indicated in – d) All
a) Hot flashes
b) CVD 35. Physiological change in respiratory
c) Osteoporosis system in pregnancy –
d) Vaginal dryness a) Minute volume decreases by 50%
b) RV increased
30. A 37 yr female, multigravida presenting c) FRC increased
with post coital bleeding, O/E vagina- d) TLC increases by 5% by term
normal, cervix – hypertrophied, next line
of management – 36. Investigation of choice for vesico-vaginal
a) Pap smear fistula –
b) Cone biopsy a) IVP
c) Cryotherapy b) Cytoscopy
d) Targeted biopsy / 4 quadrant biopsy/ c) 3 swab test
punch d) X-ray

31. Sequential arrangement of fetal scans 37. Relatively safe & reliable contraceptive in
done in pregnancy – nulliparous woman is –
1. Triple markers a) Barrier contraceptive
2. Nuchal translucency scan b) OCP
3. Growth scan c) IUCD
4. Anomalous scan d) Progesterone preparations

a) 1,2,3,4 38. Mc cause of oligomenorrhoea in a 14-year

b) 2,1,4,3 old –
c) 3,1,2,4 a) TB endometritis
d) 2,3,4,1 b) PCOD
c) Hypothyroidism
32. A pregnant lady who is having chicken d) Hyperprolactinemia
pox; adverse reaction of this will
maximum seen in the foetus – 39. Mc cause of VVF in India –
a) 8-13 week a) Obstructed labour
b) 13-21 week b) Forceps delivery
c) 28-37 week c) Caesarean section
d) 37-40 week d) CA cervix

40. Position of caput in LOT lie is at –

 a) Right parietal lobe c) Intrapartum
b) Occipital lobe d) Postpartum
c) Left parietal lobe
d) Frontal lobe 48. Malignant ovarian tumour most
commonly arises from –
41. True about Monilial vaginitis – a) Germ cell
a) Candida albicans infection b) Surface epithelial cell
b) Diagnosis made by culture in c) Sex cord
Nickerson’s media d) Lipoid cell tumour
c) Diagnosis made by hanging drop
preparation 49. Ideal time for cephalic version –
d) All a) 32 weeks
b) 34 weeks
42. Acute appendicitis in a 15 weeks pregnant c) 37 weeks
woman is best managed by – d) Early labour
a) Immediate Appendicectomy
b) Surgery at the end of delivery 50. Frank breech position of fetus –
c) Appendicectomy followed by MTP a) Hip flexed, knee extended
d) Observation b) Hip flexed, knee flexed
c) One leg hip flexed, knee flexed
43. Breast milk produced on the 4th day – d) Partial extension at hip & knee
a) 50 ml
b) 250 ml 51. PR examination done in all except –
c) 500 ml a) Ovarian CA staging
d) 1 L b) Cervical CA staging
c) Vaginal atresia
44. Ovarian tumor most commonly associated d) Rectocele
with menorrhagia –
a) Theca cell 52. A lady presents after delivery of a baby
b) Arrhenoblastoma with hard uterus & painless vaginal
c) Gynandroblastoma bleeding; diagnosis –
d) Dysgerminoma a) Succenturiate lobe of placenta
b) Atonic uterus
45. Best method to diagnose tubal patency – c) Genital tract injury
a) Tubal insufflations d) Anemia
b) HSG
c) CT 53. Best indicator of fetal maturity by USG –
d) X-ray abdomen a) Length of radius
b) BPD
46. In RIA beta HCG is positive on – c) Abdominal circumference
a) 8-9th day of post ovulation period d) CRL
b) 14- 16th day of post ovulation period
c) 22-24th day of post ovulation period 54. A patient complaining of dribbling of
d) 16-18th day of post ovulation period urine through vagina during micturition.
Diagnosis is –
47. Eclampsia is maximum in – a) Ureterovaginal fistula
a) Late antepartum b) VVF
b) Early antepartum c) Urethrovaginal fistula
 d) Vesicouterine fistula a) Use of allopathic medicines
b) Use of alcohol
55. In which of the following AFP is not c) Prescribing placebo
raised – d) Polypharmacy
a) Hepatitis in pregnant mother
b) Neural tube defect 62. Secondary action is the action of
c) Trisomy 18, 21 a) Vital force
d) Cirrhosis of liver b) Medicine
c) Both
56. In which edition of Organon, the content d) Causative organism
table was introduced?
a) 1st 63. “Tolle causam is easier said than done”
b) 2nd was said by
c) 3rd a) Hahnemann
d) 4th b) Galen
c) William Boericke
57. Hahnemann described alternating action of d) James Krauss
medicines under ______ in Materia
medica pura 64. Similarity between antipathically chosen
a) Ignatia medicine with that of homoeopathically
b) Bryonia chosen
c) Rhus tox a) Both used in small dose
d) Belladonna b) Touch precisely the same diseased
point
58. “Highest, the sole aim of the physician” is c) Both are called symptomatic treatment
given in d) None of the above
a) § 1
b) § 3 65. Who said that, “the true ‘totality’ is more
c) § 17 than the mere numerical totality or whole
d) § 18 number of the symptoms”?
a) Hahnemann
59. “Every stool must have at least three legs, b) Close
if it is to stand alone” is said by c) Roberts
a) Hahnemann d) Boenninghausen
b) Hippocrates
c) Hering 66. All are the examples of non-recurring
d) Boenninghausen miasms, EXCEPT
a) Mumps
60. Which of the following chronic miasms is b) Scarlet fever
more easily curable, when not c) Yellow fever
complicated? d) Measles
a) Psora
b) Sycosis 67. Antidote for metallic poisons as mentioned
c) Syphilis in footnote of § 67
d) Latent Psora a) Coffee
b) Camphor
61. “O tempora! O mores!” has been quoted c) Hepar sulph
by Hahnemann in relation to d) All of the above
 c) Enantiopathy
68. ‘Homoeopathy the science of therapeutics’ d) Palliative mode of treatment
is written by
a) Hahnemann 75. Who first conducted drug proving?
b) Dunham a) Albrecht von Haller
c) Lilienthal b) Hahnemann
d) Johnson c) Galen
d) Paracelsus
69. Who saw cow-pox run its regular course
along with measles and along with 76. For proving all are true EXCEPT
purpura? a) Daily 4 – 6 globules
a) Jenner b) In empty stomach
b) Zencker c) 30th potency
c) Leroy d) Moistened with little alcohol
d) Dezoteux
77. Advantage of commencing drug proving
70. Slow recovery of all complaints is found with sufficiently strong dose
in which miasm? a) Learning order of succession of
a) Psora symptoms
b) Sycosis b) Symptoms come distinctly
c) Syphilis c) Symptoms come in general manner
d) Latent Psora d) All of the above

71. Preface to the 3rd edition of Organon was 78. All of the following temperaments require
written in higher potencies, EXCEPT
a) Leipzig a) Sanguine
b) Kothen b) Choleric
c) Paris c) Phlegmatic
d) Torgau d) Nervous

72. ‘ Double complex disease’ mentioned in 79. ‘Masked venereal disease’ is discussed in
a) § 41 a) § 40
b) § 44 b) § 41
c) § 46 c) § 44
d) § 40 d) § 46

73. All are written by Hahnemann in 1805, 80. Shape of face is like inverted pyramid is
EXCEPT the feature of
a) Fragmenta a) Psora
b) Medicine of experience b) Sycosis
c) Aesculapius in balance c) Syphilis
d) Effect of coffee d) Tubercular

74. Medicine touches precisely the same point 81. First homeopathic pharmacopeia published
in the organism as Homoeopathic by?
medicine in all EXCEPT a) Edward Hamilton
a) Allopathy b) C M Caspari
b) Antipathy c) C W Caspari
 d) Neo Hamilton a) Asafoetida
b) Guaicum
82. Third volume of HPI contains number of c) Thuja
monograph? d) Aloe soc
a) 115
b) 105 91. Ethyl alcohol?
c) 100 a) Dihydric alcohol
d) 180 b) Monohydric
c) Trihydric
83. Phamacopedic means? d) Tetrahydric
a) Repetition of doses
b) Route of administration of drug 92. Carcinocin is a?
c) Treatise on the description of drug a) Nosode
d) Teaching of pharmacy b) Sarcode
c) Imponderbilia
84. Resins are collected in which season? d) Schussler’s Tissue Remedy
a) Early in spring
b) Early in Autumn 93. What is the common name of caladium?
c) Late in Autumn a) Wild Hope
d) Time of development of leaf and b) Black Spruce
blossom c) Bene Hope
d) American Arum
85. Helmet Flower is the common name of?
a) Erigeron 94. Specific Gravity of Dispensing alcohol is?
b) Aconite a) 0.8294
c) Belladonna b) 0.840
d) Thuja c) 0.830
d) 0.850
86. Liniments preparation made by mixing
olive oil with mother tincture acc to HPI? 95. Refractive Index of glycerine at 20 degree
a) 1:4 Celsius?
b) 4:1 a) 1.345-1.420
c) 1:9 b) 1.459-1.470
d) 1:10 c) 1.472-1.476
d) 1.481-1.495
87. Which medicine is prepared from
flowering tops? 96. Cerra Flava is?
a) Cina a) Yellow soft Paraffin
b) Cinamonum b) Cetaceum
c) Mezerium c) White Soft Paraffin
d) Bryonia d) None

88. Digitalis prepared in class? 97. Red ink plant is the common name of?
a) Class 1 a) Aconite
b) Class 2 b) Cinchona
c) Class 3 c) Phytolocca
d) Class 4 d) Piric Acid

89. Crotalus Horridus proved by? 98. Rhus tox is prepared under class?
a) Hering a) 1
b) Hahnemann b) 2
c) Burt c) 3
d) Staph d) 4

90. Insipissated juice is used to prepare?

99. Form of License to sell Homeopathy drugs 100. Preservation of dry medicinal
is under? substance is written in?
a) Rule 67-C a) Apho 268
b) Rule 67-D b) Apho 268 FN
c) Rule 85-C c) Apho 267
d) Rule 85-D d) Apho 270
 ANSWERS MOCK TEST 3
1. A 26. A 51. A 76. D
2. B 27. C 52. C 77. A
3. D 28. B 53. B 78. C
4. B 29. B 54. C 79. B
5. A 30. D 55. C 80. A
6. C 31. B 56. B 81. C
7. D 32. B 57. A 82. B
8. A 33. D 58. C 83. D
9. C 34. D 59. C 84. D
10. A 35. C 60. C 85. B
11. B 36. C 61. B 86. B
12. B 37. B 62. A 87. A
13. B 38. B 63. D 88. A
14. C 39. A 64. B 89. A
15. B 40. A 65. B 90. D
16. B 41. D 66. C 91. B
17. D 42. A 67. C 92. A
18. D 43. B 68. B 93. D
19. B 44. A 69. B 94. B
20. A 45. B 70. B 95. C
21. B 46. A 71. B 96. D
22. D 47. A 72. B 97. C
23. C 48. B 73. D 98. C
24. C 49. C 74. A 99. A
25. C 50. A 75. B 100. B