Aim 2023
Aim 2023
TC-1007083
AERONAUTICAL
INFORMATION
MANUAL
Effective 0901Z, March 23, 2023 to 0901Z, October 5, 2023
TP 14371E
(2023-1)
1. Aeronautical Information Manual - AIM 2023-1
Effective 0901Z, March 23, 2023 to 0901Z, October 5, 2023
2. Next Edition:
AIM 2023-2 October 5, 2023
Printed in Canada
E-mail:.......................................................................services@tc.gc.ca
4. © His Majesty the King in Right of Canada, as represented by the Minister of Transport 2023
All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system,
or transmitted, in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording,
or otherwise, without prior written permission of the Department of Transport, Canada. Please
contact the Civil Aviation Communications Centre at 1-800-305-2059 (EST) for assistance.
The information in this publication is to be considered solely as a guide and should not be
quoted as or considered to be a legal authority. It may become obsolete in whole or in part at any
time without notice.
5. ISSN: 1715-7382
TP 14371E
(01/2023)
TC-1007083
TP 14371E
Transport Canada
Aeronautical Information Manual
(TC AIM)
NOTES: RAC
1. Editorial and format changes were made throughout the (1) RAC 4.4.9 Operations on Intersecting Runways
TC AIM where necessary and those that were deemed This entire section was removed and updated with
insignificant in nature were not included in the “Explanation new procedures regarding land and hold short
of Changes.” operations (LAHSO).
2. Effective March 31, 2016, licence differences with ICAO (2) RAC 4.5.3 Helicopter Operations
Annex 1 Standards and Recommended Practices, previously The text in this section was amended for clarity and
located in LRA 1.8 of the TC AIM, have been removed and ease of reading.
can now be found in AIP Canada GEN 1.7. (3) RAC 4.6 Helicopter Operations at Controlled and
3. The blue highlights in the manual represent the changes Uncontrolled Aerodromess
described in this section. New information was added and this subpart was
updated for clarity and ease of reading.
GEN AIR
(1) GEN 4.0 Index of Key Words (1) AIR 2.9 Helicopter Vortices
The link to “Fuel and Oil Weights” was corrected. The text in this subpart was amended for clarity and
COM ease of reading. The text was also updated to more
clearly explain wake turbulence and its effect on
(1) COM 5.2.1 Global Positioning System aircraft operations nearby.
This section contains new information and updated
locations. RPA
(2) COM 5.2.4 BeiDou Navigation Satellite System (1) RPA 3.2.10 Living Creatures
Information was added regarding the current A paragraph was added regarding the interpretation
operational status of the satellite system. of the word “creature.”
(3) COM 5.3.2 Satellite-Based Augmentation (2) RPA 3.4.4 Operations in Controlled Airspace
System (SBAS) Information was added to this section for clarity.
The text in this section was amended for clarity and (3) RPA 3.4.5 Operations at or in the Vicinity of an
ease of reading. Airport or Heliport—Established Procedure
(4) COM 5.5.3 Procedures on the Fringe of WAAS Information in this section was removed for clarity.
Coverage (4) RPA 3.4.6 Operations Near People
The title in this section was amended for clarity and Information was added to this section for clarity.
new information was added for clarity and ease of (5) RPA 3.4.7 Operations Over People
reading. Information was added to this section for clarity.
MET (6) RPA 3.6.2 Application for a Special Flight Operations
(1) MET 1.1.1 Meteorological Information Certificate (SFOC)—Remotely Piloted Aircraft System
The MANOBS revision date was updated. (RPAS)
Information was added to this section for clarity.
(2) MET 1.2.7 Weather Services in Support of Approach
Unicom (AU)
The text in this section was amended for clarity and
ease of reading.
(3) MET 8.2 National Variations
Acronyms were updated to reflect what is more
commonly used on weather charts and aviation
weather reporting services.
(4) MET 8.3.1 Criteria for Taking Aerodrome Special
Meteorological Reports (SPECI)
Text was removed from the list.
TC AIM March 23, 2023
TC AIM March 23, 2023
Table of Contents
GEN—GENERAL 1
1.0 GENERAL INFORMATION ..................................................................................................................................... 1
1.1 Aeronautical Information.................................................................................................................................................... 1
1.1.1 Aeronautical Authority ..........................................................................................................................................................1
1.1.2 Aeronautical Information Management (AIM) .................................................................................................................2
1.1.3 Transport Canada Aeronautical Information Manual (TC AIM) ..................................................................................2
1.1.4 Transport Canada Aeronautical Information Manual (TC AIM) Publication Information .....................................2
1.1.5 NOTAM ....................................................................................................................................................................................3
1.1.6 Aerodromes ..............................................................................................................................................................................3
1.2 Summary of National Regulations ...................................................................................................................................... 3
1.3 Differences with the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Standards, Recommended Practices and
Procedures.................................................................................................................................................................................... 3
1.3.1 International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)’s Procedures for Air Navigation Services—Aircraft
Operations (PANS OPS) .........................................................................................................................................................3
1.4 Units of Measurement .......................................................................................................................................................... 3
1.4.1 Other Units ...............................................................................................................................................................................3
1.4.2 Geographic Reference .............................................................................................................................................................4
1.5 Time System.......................................................................................................................................................................... 4
1.5.1 Date-Time Group.....................................................................................................................................................................4
1.5.2 Morning and Evening Twilight Charts................................................................................................................................4
1.5.3 Time Zone.................................................................................................................................................................................6
1.6 Nationality and Registration Marks ................................................................................................................................... 6
1.7 V–Speeds ............................................................................................................................................................................... 6
1.7.1 Conversion Tables ...................................................................................................................................................................7
1.7.2 RVR Comparative Scale–Feet to Metres..............................................................................................................................8
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AGA—AERODROMES 49
1.0 GENERAL INFORMATION .................................................................................................................................. 49
1.1 General................................................................................................................................................................................ 49
1.1.1 Aerodrome Authority .......................................................................................................................................................... 49
1.1.2 International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Documents .................................................................................. 49
1.1.3 Canadian Runway Friction Index (CRFI) ........................................................................................................................ 49
1.1.4 Contaminated Runway Operations ................................................................................................................................... 49
1.1.4.1 Canadian Civil Aerodromes ............................................................................................................................................... 49
1.1.4.2 Department of National Defence Aerodromes................................................................................................................ 49
1.1.5 Wildlife Hazard .................................................................................................................................................................... 49
1.2 International Airports ....................................................................................................................................................... 49
1.2.1 International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Definitions................................................................................... 50
1.3 Aerodrome Directory......................................................................................................................................................... 50
1.4 Aeronautical Ground Lights .............................................................................................................................................. 50
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5.4.2.3 Area Navigation (RNAV) Approaches with Vertical Guidance Based on Barometric Vertical
Navigation (Baro-VNAV) ................................................................................................................................................... 98
5.4.2.4 Area Navigation (RNAV) Approaches with Vertical Guidance Based on Wide Area Augmentation
System (WAAS) .................................................................................................................................................................... 98
5.5 Flight Planning................................................................................................................................................................... 99
5.5.1 Global Positioning System (GPS) NOTAM...................................................................................................................... 99
5.5.2 Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS) NOTAM .................................................................................................... 99
5.5.3 Procedures on the Fringe of Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS) Coverage ................................................. 99
5.5.4 Space Weather ....................................................................................................................................................................... 99
5.6 Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) Flight Plan Equipment Suffixes ................................................................................... 100
5.7 Avionics Databases ........................................................................................................................................................... 100
5.8 Use of Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) in Lieu of Ground-based Aids....................................................... 100
5.9 Area Navigation (RNAV) Approaches at Alternate Aerodromes .................................................................................. 100
5.9.1 Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) Approaches—Global Positioning System (GPS)
(TSO-C129/C129a) Avionics ............................................................................................................................................ 100
5.9.2 Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) Approaches—Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS)
Avionics .................................................................................................................................................................................101
5.10 Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) Vulnerability—Interference and Anomaly Reporting ............................101
5.11 Proper Use of Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) .............................................................................................101
5.12 VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR)/Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) (RHO-THETA) System .....................102
5.13 Distance Measuring Equipment (DME-DME [RHO-RHO]) System .............................................................................102
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8.3 Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) Operations in Other Low-Level Airspace .........................................................................111
8.4 Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Operations ............................................................................................................................111
8.5 Phraseology .......................................................................................................................................................................111
8.6 Emergencies ......................................................................................................................................................................112
8.7 Communication Failure ...................................................................................................................................................112
8.8 Unlawful Interference .......................................................................................................................................................112
MET—METEOROLOGY 119
1.0 GENERAL INFORMATION .................................................................................................................................119
1.1 General...............................................................................................................................................................................119
1.1.1 Meteorological Information ..............................................................................................................................................119
1.1.2 Meteorological Services Available ...................................................................................................................................119
1.1.3 Aviation Weather Services ................................................................................................................................................119
1.1.4 Weather Service Information ........................................................................................................................................... 120
1.1.5 Weather Information from Air Traffic Service (ATS) ................................................................................................. 120
1.1.6 Pilot Reports ........................................................................................................................................................................ 120
1.1.6.1 Pilot Weather Reports (PIREPs) ...................................................................................................................................... 120
1.1.7 Applicable International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) and World Meteorological
Organization (WMO) Documents .................................................................................................................................. 120
1.1.8 Differences From International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Annex 3 .......................................................121
1.1.9 Pilot Responsibility .............................................................................................................................................................121
1.2 Meteorological Observation and Reports .......................................................................................................................121
1.2.1 Type and Frequency of Observations ..............................................................................................................................121
1.2.2 Flight Weather Documentation .......................................................................................................................................121
1.2.3 Weather Services Definitions in Flight Publications ...................................................................................................121
1.2.4 Automated Weather Observation Systems (AWOS)..................................................................................................... 122
1.2.4.1 Overview .............................................................................................................................................................................. 122
1.2.4.2 Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Weather Stations ................................................................................................................. 122
1.2.5 Automatic Aerodrome Routine Meteorological Reports (METAR AUTO) and Limited Weather Information
System (LWIS) Reports...................................................................................................................................................... 122
1.2.5.1 Automatic Aerodrome Routine Meteorological Reports (METAR AUTO) ............................................................ 122
1.2.5.2 Limited Weather Information System (LWIS) Reports .............................................................................................. 123
1.2.6 Automatic (AUTO) Reports ............................................................................................................................................. 123
1.2.7 Weather Services in Support of Approach Unicom (AU)............................................................................................ 123
1.2.8 Runway Visibility Assessment ......................................................................................................................................... 123
1.3 Meteorological Forecasts and Charts .............................................................................................................................. 123
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1.3.1 Flight Information Centre (FIC) Hours of Service and Telephone Numbers .......................................................... 123
1.3.2 World Area Forecast System (WAFS) Charts ............................................................................................................... 123
1.3.3 Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFs) ........................................................................................................................................... 123
1.3.4 Aerodrome Advisory Forecasts ....................................................................................................................................... 124
1.3.5 Coastal Weather.................................................................................................................................................................. 124
1.3.6 Graphic Area Forecasts (GFAs) and AIRMET .............................................................................................................. 124
1.3.7 Upper Level Wind and Temperature Forecasts (FD) .................................................................................................. 124
1.3.8 Air Traffic Control (ATC) Weather Assistance ............................................................................................................ 124
1.3.9 Supplementary Information ............................................................................................................................................ 125
1.3.9.1 Weather Radar ................................................................................................................................................................... 125
1.3.9.2 ECCC/DND Weather Radar Network ............................................................................................................................ 125
1.4 In-Flight Meteorological Information (VOLMET) ........................................................................................................ 125
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11.6 Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic (escat) Plan ............................................................................................... 295
11.7 Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) ........................................................................................................... 296
11.7.1 Definitions .......................................................................................................................................................................... 296
11.7.2 Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) Airspace ....................................................................................... 296
11.7.3 Air Traffic Control (ATC) Procedures .......................................................................................................................... 296
11.7.4 In-Flight Procedures ......................................................................................................................................................... 296
11.7.5 Flight Planning Requirements ........................................................................................................................................ 297
11.7.6 Operation of Non-Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (Non-RVSM) Aircraft in RVSM Airspace ............. 297
11.7.7 Delivery Flights for Aircraft that are Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM)-Compliant
on Delivery ......................................................................................................................................................................... 297
11.7.8 Airworthiness and Operational Approval and Monitoring ....................................................................................... 297
11.7.9 Monitoring .......................................................................................................................................................................... 298
11.7.10 North American Approvals Registry and Monitoring Organization (NAARMO) ............................................... 298
11.7.11 Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) II/Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS) II
Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) Requirements ............................................................................... 298
11.7.12 Mountain Wave Activity (MWA) .................................................................................................................................... 298
11.7.13 Wake Turbulence ............................................................................................................................................................... 299
11.7.14 In-Flight Contingencies .................................................................................................................................................... 300
11.8 Minimum Safe Altitude Warning (MSAW) .....................................................................................................................301
11.8.1 General ................................................................................................................................................................................. 301
11.8.2 Procedures ........................................................................................................................................................................... 301
11.8.3 Pilot-Initiated Terrain Avoidance Procedure ................................................................................................................ 301
11.8.4 Air Traffic Control (ATC)-Initiated Terrain Avoidance Procedure .......................................................................... 301
11.8.5 Assistance to Aircraft in Distress .................................................................................................................................... 302
11.9 Formation Flights............................................................................................................................................................. 302
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AIR—AIRMANSHIP 383
1.0 GENERAL INFORMATION ................................................................................................................................. 383
1.1 General ............................................................................................................................................................................. 383
1.2 Pilot Vital Action Checklists .......................................................................................................................................... 383
1.3 Aviation Fuels .................................................................................................................................................................. 383
1.3.1 Fuel Grades ......................................................................................................................................................................... 383
1.3.2 Aviation Fuel Handling .................................................................................................................................................... 383
1.3.3 Fuel Anti-Icing Additives ................................................................................................................................................. 383
1.3.4 Refuelling—Fires and Explosions ................................................................................................................................... 384
1.3.4.1 Understanding Flashpoint, Static and Auto-ignition................................................................................................... 384
1.4 Aircraft Hand Fire Extinguishers .................................................................................................................................. 384
1.4.1 General ................................................................................................................................................................................ 384
1.4.2 Classification of Fires ........................................................................................................................................................ 384
1.4.3 Types of Extinguishers ..................................................................................................................................................... 384
1.5 Pressure Altimeter .......................................................................................................................................................... 385
1.5.1 General ................................................................................................................................................................................ 385
1.5.2 Calibration of the Pressure Altimeter ............................................................................................................................ 385
1.5.3 Incorrect Setting on the Subscale of the Altimeter ...................................................................................................... 385
1.5.4 Non-Standard Temperatures ........................................................................................................................................... 386
1.5.5 Standard Pressure Region ................................................................................................................................................ 386
1.5.6 Effect of Mountains ........................................................................................................................................................... 386
1.5.7 Downdraft and Turbulence ............................................................................................................................................. 387
1.5.8 Pressure Drop ..................................................................................................................................................................... 387
1.5.9 Abnormally High Altimeter Settings ............................................................................................................................. 387
1.6 Canadian Runway Friction Index (CRFI) ....................................................................................................................... 387
1.6.1 General ................................................................................................................................................................................ 387
1.6.2 Reduced Runway Coefficients of Friction and Aircraft Performance ..................................................................... 387
1.6.3 Description of Canadian Runway Friction Index (CRFI) and Method of Measurement ..................................... 387
1.6.4 Description of Canadian Runway Friction Index (CRFI) Reporting Method ......................................................... 387
1.6.5 Aircraft Movement Surface Condition Reports (AMSCR) ......................................................................................... 388
1.6.6 Wet Runways ....................................................................................................................................................................... 388
1.6.7 Canadian Runway Friction Index (CRFI) Application to Aircraft Performance ................................................... 389
1.7 Jet and Propeller Blast Danger ....................................................................................................................................... 393
1.8 Marshalling Signals ......................................................................................................................................................... 394
2.0 MICRO REMOTELY PILOTED AIRCRAFT (RPAs)—LESS THAN 250 g ........................................................ 429
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GEN
Transport Canada Civil Aviation
344 Edmonton Street
Winnipeg MB R3C 0P6
1.0 GENERAL INFORMATION
Tel: .....................................................................1-888-463-0521
Fax:...................................................................1-800-824-4442
1.1 AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION
Ontario Region
1.1.1 Aeronautical Authority Transport Canada Civil Aviation
Transport Canada is the responsible aeronautical authority 4900 Yonge Street, 4th Floor
in Canada. Toronto ON M2N 6A5
Tel: .....................................................................1-800-305-2059
Postal Address: Fax:.................................................................... 1-877-822-2129
Assistant Deputy Minister
Transport Canada, Safety and Security Quebec Region
330 Sparks Street Transport Canada Civil Aviation
Ottawa ON K1A 0N8 700 Leigh-Capreol Place
The Transport Canada, Aerodromes and Air Navigation Branch Dorval QC H4Y 1G7
is responsible for the establishment and administration of the Tel: .....................................................................1-800-305-2059
Regulations and Standards for the provision of AIS in Canada. Fax:....................................................................1-855-633-3697
Enquiries relating to regulations and standards for AIS should
be addressed to:
Atlantic Region
Transport Canada Civil Aviation
Postal Address: 95 Foundry Street
Flight Standards (AARTA) PO Box 42
Transport Canada Civil Aviation Moncton NB E1C 8K6
330 Sparks Street Tel: .....................................................................1-800-305-2059
Ottawa ON K1A 0N8 Fax:.................................................................... 1-855-726-7495
Tel.: ....................................................................1-800-305-2059
Fax:........................................................................613-952-3298 Figure 1.1—Transport Canada Regions
E-mail: ... [email protected]
Pacific Region
Transport Canada Civil Aviation
Suite 820
800 Burrard Street
Vancouver BC V6Z 2J8
Tel.: ....................................................................1-800-305-2059
Fax:....................................................................1-855-618-6288
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1.1.2 Aeronautical Information As much as possible, the rules of the air and ATC procedures
GEN
Management (AIM) have been incorporated into the TC AIM in plain language.
Where this was not possible, the CARs have been incorporated
NAV CANADA’s AIM group is responsible for the collection,
verbatim. Editorial liberties have been taken in the deletion of
evaluation and dissemination of aeronautical information
definitions not considered essential to the understanding of the
published in the state AIP and associated aeronautical charts.
intent of the CARs. This has been done to enhance comprehension
In addition, the AIM group assigns and controls Canadian
of the rules and procedures essential to the safety of flight. The
location indicators and aircraft operating agency designators.
inclusion of these rules and procedures in this format does not
(For information on the dissemination of aeronautical information
relieve persons concerned with aviation from their responsibilities
and aeronautical products, see the MAP chapter.)
to comply with the Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs), the
The AIM group postal address is: Aeronautics Act and other regulations made under the Act.
NAV CANADA Where the subject matter of the TC AIM makes reference to the
Aeronautical Information Management CARs, the relevant provisions are indicated.
1601 Tom Roberts Avenue Care has been taken to ensure that the information contained
PO BOX 9824 STN T CSC in the TC AIM is accurate and complete. Any correspondence
Ottawa ON K1G 9Z9 concerning the content of the TC AIM is to be referred to:
Tel. (Toll free, North America only): ...........1-866-577-0247 TC AIM Co-ordinator (AARTT)
Tel. (Outside North America): ......................1-613-248-4087 Transport Canada
Fax:....................................................................1-613-248-4093 330 Sparks Street
Email:..................................................aimdata@navcanada.ca Ottawa ON K1A 0N8
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Each new edition of the TC AIM includes an explanation of 1.3 DIFFERENCES WITH THE
GEN
changes section that highlights the most significant changes INTERNATIONAL CIVIL AVIATION
made to the TC AIM and may provide a reference to detailed ORGANIZATION (ICAO) STANDARDS,
information on the change. RECOMMENDED PRACTICES AND
PROCEDURES
Distribution
Differences with ICAO Annexes, which comprise international
To ensure uninterrupted service, rectify any distribution problems standards, recommended practices and procedures, are listed
or make a change of address, please contact the TC Publications in AIP Canada, GEN 1.7.
Order Desk using one of the methods listed below.
Transport Canada Publications Order Desk 1.3.1 International Civil Aviation
Operational Support Services (AAFBD) Organization (ICAO)’s Procedures for Air
2655 Lancaster Road Navigation Services—Aircraft Operations
Ottawa ON K1B 4L5 (PANS OPS)
Tel. (toll-free in North America): .................1-888-830-4911 (See AIP Canada GEN 1.7)
................................................................................613-991-4071
Fax: ........................................................................ 613-991-1653
1.4 UNITS OF MEASUREMENT
E-mail: ...................................................publications@tc.gc.ca
Web site: .......... https://tc.canada.ca/en/corporate-services/ The imperial system of units is used for all information contained
publications-how-order on aeronautical charts and publications.
Complete information for all Canadian aerodromes is published Tire pressure pounds per psi
square inch MPa
in the CFS. ICAO Type A Charts are available from NAV CANADA’s megapascals
AIM group (see MAP 4.2.1 and AIP Canada GEN 3.2).
Vertical speed feet per minute ft/min
Visibility statute miles SM
1.2 SUMMARY OF NATIONAL
REGULATIONS Weight pounds lb
kilograms kg
Civil aviation in Canada is regulated by the Aeronautics Act and kilonewtons kN
the CARs. (See MAP 4.1 to find out where to find the CARs). A Wind direction, except for degrees true °True
legislation index is located in GEN 5.3. landing and takeoff
Wind direction degrees °Mag
observations for landing magnetic
and takeoff
*Degrees true in the NDA
Wind speed knots kt
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Geographic coordinates are determined using the North In the morning, civil twilight begins when the centre of the sun’s
American Datum 1983 (NAD83). Canada has deemed NAD83 disc is 6° below the horizon and is ascending, and ends at sunrise,
coordinates to be equivalent to the World Geodetic System 1984 approximately 25 min later. In the evening, civil twilight begins
(WGS-84) for aeronautical purposes. at sunset, and ends when the centre of the sun’s disc is 6° below
the horizon and is descending, approximately 25 min later.
1.5 TIME SYSTEM
INSTRUCTIONS
Coordinated Universal Time, abbreviated UTC, Zulu (Z) or 1. Start at the top or bottom of the scale with the appropriate
spoken Universal, is used in Canadian aviation operations and date and move vertically, up or down to the curve of the
is given to the nearest minute. Time checks are given to the observer’s latitude.
nearest 15 seconds. The day begins at 0000 hours and ends at
2. From the intersection move horizontally and read the
2359 hours.
local time.
1.5.1 Date-Time Group 3. To find the exact zone or standard time, ADD 4 minutes
for each degree west of the standard meridian, or SUBTRACT
(See AIP Canada GEN 2.1) 4 minutes for each degree east of the standard meridian.
The standard meridians in Canada are: AST-60W; EST-75W;
CST-90W; MST-105W; PST-120W
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Vr Rotation speed
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GEN
Table 1.4—Conversion of Millibars to Inches of Mercury
hPa/mb 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
INCHES
940 27.76 27.79 27.82 27.85 27.88 27.91 27.94 27.96 27.99 28.02
950 28.05 28.08 28.11 28.14 28.17 28.20 28.23 28.26 28.29 28.32
960 28.35 28.38 28.41 28.44 28.47 28.50 28.53 28.56 28.58 28.61
970 28.64 28.67 28.70 28.73 28.76 28.79 28.82 28.85 28.88 28.91
980 28.94 28.97 29.00 29.03 29.06 29.09 29.12 29.15 29.18 29.20
990 29.23 29.26 29.29 29.32 29.35 29.38 29.41 29.44 29.47 29.50
1000 29.53 29.56 29.59 29.62 29.65 29.68 29.71 29.74 29.77 29.80
1010 29.83 29.85 29.88 29.91 29.94 29.97 30.00 30.03 30.06 30.09
1020 30.12 30.15 30.18 30.21 30.24 30.27 30.30 30.33 30.36 30.39
1030 30.42 30.45 30.47 30.50 30.53 30.56 30.59 30.62 30.65 30.68
1040 30.71 30.74 30.77 30.80 30.83 30.86 30.89 30.92 30.95 30.98
1050 31.01 31.04 31.07 31.09 31.12 31.15 31.18 31.21 31.24 31.27
NOTE:
1 millibar (mb) = 1 hectopascal (hPa)
°C °F °C °F °C °F °C °F °C °F °C °F °C °F °C °F
-45 -49.0 -33 -27.4 -21 -5.8 -9 15.8 3 37.4 15 59.0 27 80.6 39 102.2
-44 -47.2 -32 -25.6 -20 -4.0 -8 17.6 4 39.2 16 60.8 28 82.4 40 104.0
-43 -45.4 -31 -23.8 -19 -2.2 -7 19.4 5 41.0 17 62.6 29 84.2 41 105.8
-42 -43.6 -30 -22.0 -18 -0.4 -6 21.2 6 42.8 18 64.4 30 86.0 42 107.6
-41 -41.8 -29 -20.2 -17 1.4 -5 23.0 7 44.6 19 66.2 31 87.8 43 109.4
-40 -40.0 -28 -18.4 -16 3.2 -4 24.8 8 46.4 20 68.0 32 89.6 44 111.2
-39 -38.2 -27 -16.6 -15 5.0 -3 26.6 9 48.2 21 69.8 33 91.4 45 113.0
-38 -36.4 -26 -14.8 -14 6.8 -2 28.4 10 50.0 22 71.6 34 93.2 46 114.8
-37 -34.6 -25 -13.0 -13 8.6 -1 30.2 11 51.8 23 73.4 35 95.0 47 116.6
-36 -32.8 -24 -11.2 -12 10.4 0 32.0 12 53.6 24 75.2 36 96.8 48 118.4
-35 -31.0 -23 -9.4 -11 12.2 1 33.8 13 55.4 25 77.0 37 98.6 49 120.2
-34 -29.2 -22 -7.6 -10 14.0 2 35.6 14 57.2 26 78.8 38 100.4 50 122.0
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To CONVERT INTO MULTIPLY BY Table 1.7—RVR Comparative Scale: in Feet and Metres
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GEN
As outlined in subsection 128(1) of the Code, all employees have
a legal right to refuse dangerous work and to refuse to work in 2.2.1 General
a place if they have reasonable cause to believe that the use or The Aviation Safety Analysis Division in the Policy and Regulatory
operation of a machine or thing, the performance of an activity, Services Branch is responsible for monitoring and evaluating
or a condition existing in the workplace constitutes a danger to the level of safety within the National Civil Air Transportation
themselves or others. Pursuant to subsection 122(1) of the Code: System (NCATS) by:
“‘danger’ means any hazard, condition or activity that could
reasonably be expected to be an imminent or serious threat to the (a) monitoring and evaluating all facets of the system;
life or health of a person exposed to it before the hazard or condition (b) reviewing and analyzing accident and incident data, as well
can be corrected or the activity altered”. as other safety-related information;
Due to the health and safety risk towards others, pilots are not (c) assessing risk and providing risk management advice; and
permitted to refuse to work while in flight (see paragraph 128(2)
(d) preparing and coordinating emergency response to national
(a) of the Code). However, pilots are permitted to refuse to work
or international emergencies affecting aviation.
before or after the aircraft is in operation (e.g. at the gate or on
the apron). Flight attendants and other on board employees must
report any in-flight refusal to work to the pilot-in-command 2.2.2 Aviation Safety Research and Analysis
who will in turn decide if the refusal is permitted while in the One of the objectives of the Aviation Safety Research and Analysis
air. Regardless of whether the refusal is permitted in flight, it unit is to produce safety intelligence. This is information about
will be addressed as soon as the aircraft is on the ground at its hazards in the National Civil Air Transportation System (NCATS)
next destination. that allows managers in Civil Aviation to understand the hazards
Once an employee has indicated that they are refusing to work, and risks present in the elements of the system they oversee.
both they and their employer have specific roles and responsibilities Aviation safety hazards and trends are proactively identified,
that have been established to assist them in working together to analyzed, and evaluated in order to produce a mix of special
find a solution. Sections 128 and 129 of the Code identify these studies and routine standard products. This strategic analytical
employee and employer roles and responsibilities as well as the capability supports the development of mitigation and prevention
role and responsibility of the delegated labour program official, strategies necessary for managing risks. These strategies feed
should their intervention become necessary. into policy development, regulatory framework, and Civil
Aviation operational areas.
To protect employees’ rights, section 147 of the Code states that
no employer shall take, or threaten to take, any disciplinary
2.2.3 Minister’s Observer and Technical
action against an employee who has refused to work in a dangerous
Advisor Programs
situation. It should also be noted that subsection 147.1(1) states
that after all the investigations and appeals have been exhausted Key aspects of obtaining safety intelligence are the Minister’s
by the employee who exercised their right to refuse dangerous Observer and Technical Advisor Programs. While it is the TSB’s
work, the employer may take disciplinary action against that mandate to advance transportation safety by conducting
employee provided the employer can demonstrate that the investigations into occurrences, the Minister’s observer/technical
employee has willfully abused their rights. advisor plays an essential role by:
(a) obtaining timely, factual information from an on-going
2.1.3 Delegated Labour Program Officials investigation;
The Aviation Occupational Health and Safety Program (b) advising the Minister of significant regulatory factors;
Headquarters provides guidance and assistance to regional
(c) identifying deficiencies that require immediate coordination
delegated labour program officials who conduct inspections,
of corrective actions;
investigations, and promotional visits to ensure that air operators
are committed to the health and safety of their employees. (d) being TC’s support to an aviation occurrence investigation;
and
Delegated labour program officials may be reached during the
day at their workplace by using the “How to Reach Us” page on (e) providing safety intelligence to senior managers and the
the TC Aviation Occupational Health and Safety Web site: <www. Minister to help support their decision making.
tc.gc.ca/eng/civilaviation/standards/commerce-ohs-reach_ As a member of ICAO, Canada enjoys certain rights and accepts
us-menu-2116.htm>. certain responsibilities in relation to accidents either occurring
To ensure 24-hr service to the aviation community, in urgent in another State, or where another State has an interest in an
situations or after working hours, a delegated labour program accident that occurs in Canada.
official may be reached through the Aviation Operations These responsibilities are detailed in Article 26 of ICAO’s
Centre (AVOPS) at:<https://www.tc.gc.ca/eng/civilaviation/ Convention on International Civil Aviation, which imposes an
opssvs/emergencies-incidentreporting-menu.htm>. obligation on the State in which the aircraft accident occurs to
institute an inquiry in accordance with ICAO procedures; and
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Article 37, which provides for the standards and recommended 2.3 GENERAL AVIATION SAFETY
GEN
“Collision” means an impact, other than an impact associated 3.3.2 Mandatory Reportable Incidents
GEN
with normal operating circumstances, between aircraft or
In the case of an incident involving an aircraft having a maximum
between an aircraft and another object or terrain.
certificated take-off weight greater than 2 250 kg, or of an aircraft
“Dangerous goods” has the same meaning as in section 2 of the being operated under an air operator certificate issued under
Transportation of Dangerous Goods Act, 1992. Part VII of the Canadian Aviation Regulations:
“Operation” means the activities for which an aircraft is used (a) an engine fails or is shut down as a precautionary measure,
from the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention (b) a power train transmission gearbox malfunction occurs,
of flight until they disembark.
(c) smoke is detected or a fire occurs on board,
“Risk of collision” means a situation in which an aircraft comes
so close to being involved in a collision that a threat to the safety (d) difficulties in controlling the aircraft are encountered owing
of any person, property or the environment exists. to any aircraft system malfunction, weather phenomena,
wake turbulence, uncontrolled vibrations or operations
“Serious injury” means: outside the flight envelope,
(a) a fracture of any bone, except simple fractures of fingers, (e) the aircraft fails to remain within the intended landing or
toes or the nose; take-off area, lands with all or part of the landing gear
(b) lacerations that cause severe hemorrhage or nerve, muscle retracted or drags a wing tip, an engine pod or any other
or tendon damage; part of the aircraft,
(c) an injury to an internal organ; (f) a crew member whose duties are directly related to the safe
operation of the aircraft is unable to perform their duties
(d) second or third degree burns, or any burns affecting more
as a result of a physical incapacitation which poses a threat
than 5% of the body surface;
to the safety of persons, property or the environment,
(e) a verified exposure to infectious substances or injurious
(g) depressurization of the aircraft occurs that requires an
radiation; or
emergency descent,
(f) an injury that is likely to require hospitalization.
(h) a fuel shortage occurs that requires a diversion or requires
approach and landing priority at the destination of the
3.3 REPORTING AN AVIATION aircraft,
OCCURRENCE
(i) the aircraft is refuelled with the incorrect type of fuel or
The owner, operator, pilot-in-command, any crew member of contaminated fuel,
the aircraft and any person providing air traffic services that
have direct knowledge of an occurrence must report the following (j) a collision, a risk of collision or a loss of separation occurs,
aviation occurrences to the Board if they result directly from (k) a crew member declares an emergency or indicates an
the operation of an aircraft. emergency that requires priority handling by air traffic
3.3.1 Accidents services or the standing by of emergency response services,
(l) a slung load is released unintentionally or as a precautionary
In the case of an accident:
or emergency measure from the aircraft, or
(a) a person is killed or sustains a serious injury as a result of:
(m) any dangerous goods are released in or from the aircraft.
(i) being on board the aircraft,
(ii) coming into direct contact with any part of the 3.3.3 Information to Report
aircraft, including parts that have become detached
The report must contain the following information:
from the aircraft, or
(iii) being directly exposed to jet blast, rotor down wash (a) the type, model, nationality and registration marks of the
or propeller wash, aircraft;
(b) the aircraft sustains structural failure or damage that (b) the name of the owner, operator, pilot-in-command and, if
adversely affects the aircraft’s structural strength, applicable, hirer of the aircraft;
performance or flight characteristics and would normally (c) the last point of departure and the intended destination of
require major repair or replacement of any affected the aircraft, including the date and time of the departure;
component, except for: (d) the date and time of the occurrence;
(i) engine failure or damage, when the damage is limited (e) the name of the person providing air traffic services related
to the engine, its cowlings or accessories, or to the occurrence;
(ii) damage limited to propellers, wing tips, antennae, (f) the number of crew members, passengers and other persons
tires, brakes, fairings or small dents or puncture involved in the occurrence and the number of those who
holes in the aircraft’s skin, or were killed or sustained serious injuries as a result of the
(c) the aircraft is missing or inaccessible. occurrence;
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
(g) the location of the occurrence by reference to an easily to the extent possible in the circumstances and before taking
GEN
defined geographical point, or by latitude and longitude; those measures, record the evidence by the best means available
(h) a description of the occurrence and the extent of any resulting and advise the Board of their actions.
damage to the environment and to the aircraft and any
other property; 3.5 SECURITAS PROGRAM
(i) a list of any dangerous goods carried on board or released The SECURITAS program provides a means for individuals to
from the aircraft, including the shipping name or UN report incidents and potentially unsafe acts or conditions relating
number and consignor and consignee information; to the Canadian transportation system that would not normally
be reported through other channels. It should be noted that this
(j) if the aircraft is missing or inaccessible:
multi-modal, confidential safety reporting system replaces the
(i) the last known position of the aircraft by reference Confidential Aviation Safety Reporting Program (CASRP).
to an easily defined geographical point, or by latitude
Each report is assessed by SECURITAS analysts. When a reported
and longitude, including the date and time that the
concern is validated as a safety deficiency, the TSB normally
aircraft was at that position, and
forwards the information, often with suggested corrective action,
(ii) the actions taken or planned to locate or gain access to the appropriate regulatory authority, or in some cases, the
to the aircraft; transportation company, organization or agency. No information
(k) a description of any action taken or planned to protect will be released that could reasonably be expected to reveal the
persons, property and the environment; reporter’s identity without the reporter’s written consent.
(l) the name and title of the person making the report and the
3.5.1 How to Report to SECURITAS
phone number and address at which they can be reached;
and SECURITAS is primarily concerned with unsafe acts and
(m) any information specific to the occurrence that the Board conditions relating to commercial and public transportation
requires. systems. When contacting SECURITAS, ensure the following
is included in your message:
The person making the report must send to the Board as soon
as possible and by the quickest means available, all the information (a) your name, address and phone number
required that is available at the time of the occurrence; and the (b) your profession and experience
remainder of that information as soon as it becomes available
(c) your involvement in the unsafe situation being reported
within 30 days after the occurrence.
(d) where else you may have reported this unsafe situation or
3.3.4 Other Occurrences safety concern
(e) complete identification of the aircraft or related facility/
Any other incident indicative of a deficiency or discrepancy in
equipment
the Canadian air transportation system may be reported in
writing to the TSB. Sufficient details concerning the incident (f) the name of the owner/operator of the equipment
should be provided to enable the identification of action required Also, please describe the unsafe act or safety concern.
to remedy the deficiency or discrepancy.
For example:
3.3.5 Contacting the Transportation Safety Board (a) How was the unsafe act/condition discovered?
of Canada (TSB) (b) If you are describing an event, tell SECURITAS
Aviation occurrences are to be reported to a regional TSB office, (i) what happened;
using the telephone numbers listed in GEN 3.6.
(ii) where it happened;
For Canadian-registered aircraft operating outside of Canada,
in addition to the reporting required by the state of occurrence, (iii) when it happened (the date and the local time); and
a report shall be made to the TSB regional office nearest to the (iv) why you think it happened.
company’s headquarters or, for private aircraft, nearest to the
(c) What actions/inactions resulted, or could have resulted?
aircraft’s home base.
(d) How do you think the situation could be corrected?
3.4 KEEPING AND PRESERVATION OF
EVIDENCE 3.5.2 What to Report to SECURITAS
Every person having possession of or control over evidence These are some examples of the types of situations that could
relating to a transportation occurrence must keep and preserve affect air transportation safety and that your report might help
the evidence unless the Board provides otherwise. This is not correct.
to be construed as preventing any person from taking the Unsafe conditions:
necessary measures to ensure the safety of any person, property
or the environment. Any person who takes these measures must, (a) chronic lack of repair of aircraft, poor maintenance practices
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
GEN
(c) inadequate or poor air traffic services in a particular area TSB—Pacific
(d) poor reception of navigation signals, weak radio coverage, Regional Office Administration, TSB-AIR
inadequate weather services 4-3071 No 5 Road
(e) errors in aeronautical publications: unsafe procedures Richmond BC V6X 2T4
published in manuals of instructions for pilots, cabin crew, Toll-free (within Canada): ............................. 1-800-387-3557
ground crew, aircraft maintenance or air traffic services Toll: ...................................................................... 604-202-2400
Unsafe procedures and practices: E-mail: ................. [email protected]
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Aircraft Rescue and Fire Fighting (ARFF)............... AGA 8.0 Anti-icing Additives, Fuel ..........................................AIR 1.3.3
GEN
– Hours of Availability ........................................... AGA 8.2 Appeals – Transportation Appeal Tribunal
– Classification System........................................... AGA 8.3 of Canada (TATC).....................................................LRA 6.5
– ARFF Standby Request ....................................... AGA 8.4 Approach
AIREP (Meteorological Report) ...............................NAT 1.15 – Approach Lighting System - ALSF-2, LIAL, ODALS,
Airmanship ..................................................................... AIR 1.1 MALSF, MALS, MALSR, SSALR, SSALS
– Flight Operations ...................................................AIR 2.0 ....................................... AGA 7.5.1, 7.5.2, RAC 9.19.2.8
– Low Flying ..............................................................AIR 2.4 – Approach Lighting System with Sequenced Flashers -
AIRMET ..............................................................MET 1.3.6, 5.0 CAT II (ALSF - 2) .....................AGA 7.5.2, RAC 9.19.2.8
Arrival Procedures – IFR .............................................RAC 9.0 – Ban .....................................................................RAC 9.19.2
Airport – Contact ................................................................RAC 9.6.1
– ASDE (Surface Detection Equipment) .............COM 7.1 – From an Intermediate Fix ................................. RAC 9.16
– Airport Radio (APRT RDO) ............................RAC 1.2.2 – PAPI ................................................................... .AGA 7.6.3
– Airside Signs ......................................................... AGA 5.8 – PAR (Precision Radar) ....................COM 7.1, RAC 9.8.4
– Bird Hazard ........................................................AGA 1.1.5 – Position Reports – Controlled Airports............RAC 9.9
– Certificate ............................................................. AGA 2.4 – Simplified Short Approach Lighting System (SSALS)
– Certification .................................... AGA 2.3, 2.3.5, 2.3.6 ....................................................AGA 7.5.1, RAC 9.19.2.8
– Collaborative Decision Making (A-CDM) .... AGA 10.0 – Simplified Short Approch Lighting System
– Information Signs ............................................ .AGA 5.8.2 with Runway Alignment Indicator Lights (SSALR)
– Operations .............................................................RAC 4.0 ...................................................AGA 7.5.2, RAC 9.19.2.8
– Controlled Airports, – Straight-in ............................................................RAC 9.15
Departure Procedures ........................................ COM 3.8 – Visual ...................................................................RAC 9.6.2
– Snow Removal and Ice Control .......................AGA 1.1.4 – Approach Procedures
– Uncontrolled Aerodromes ..................................RAC 4.5 with Vertical Guidance (APV) ...................... COM 5.4.2
– Zoning Regulations ............................................. AGA 4.3 Apron Advisory Service ............................................RAC 1.2.4
– Airspace Classification ........................................RAC 2.8 ARCAL (Aircraft Radio Control of
Aerodrome Lighting)..............................................AGA 7.14
– Advisory ............................................................. RAC 2.8.6 Arctic Territories ........................................................RAC 1.1.3
– Canadian Domestic/Northern and Area Navigation (RNAV) ........................................... COM 5.0
Southern Domestic ................................RAC 2.2, Fig. 2.1
– Fixed RNAV Routes.........................................RAC 11.4.4
– Classification of.....................................................RAC 2.8
– Mandatory IFR Routes
– High- and Low-Level............................................RAC 2.3 (Including RNAV) ...........................................RAC 11.4.3
– High-Level Controlled .........................................RAC 2.6 Areas
– Joint Use ............................................................. RAC 2.8.6 – Gander Oceanic Control ............................ .NAT Fig. 1.1
– Low-Level Controlled...........................................RAC 2.7 – Mountainous ......................................RAC 2.12, Fig. 2.11
– NAT MNPSA (North Atlantic Minimum – RVSM Transition Area...............................RAC Fig. 12.3
Navigation Performance – Specifications) – Southern, Northern and Arctic
Between FL 285 and FL 420 ........................ RAC Fig.1.2, Control Areas ................................................ RAC Fig. 2.4
– Other Divisions .....................................................RAC 2.9 – Transition ............................................................RAC 2.7.5
– Requirements and Procedures ............................RAC 2.0 Arresting Systems, Military Aircraft .........................AGA 9.1
– Restricted ........................................................... RAC 2.8.6 Arrival
– Southern, Northern and Arctic Control – Procedures – Controlled Airports .................... RAC 4.4
Areas ............................................................... RAC Fig. 2.4 – Traffic Circuit Procedures
Airways, low-level – LF/MF, VHF/UHF ................ RAC 2.7.1
Airworthiness – Uncontrolled Aerodromes, VFR .................... RAC 4.5.2
– Report – Contents ............................................RAC 3.12.1
– Aircraft ................................................................... LRA 5.0 ASDA (Accelerate Stop Distance Available) ...........AGA 3.10
– ANNEX ..................................................................LRA 5.8 ATC (Air Traffic Control)
– Annual Airworthiness – Assignment of Altitudes ......................................RAC 8.6
Information Report ..............................................LRA 5.5 – Clearances, Instructions and Information .......RAC 1.6
– Flight Authority ....................................................LRA 5.3 – Flight Priority ........................................................RAC 1.7
Airworthiness Directives (ADs) ................................ .LRA 5.7 ATIS (Automatic Terminal
– Availability of .................................................... .LRA 5.7.2 Information Service) ................................ RAC 1.3, 4.2.1
– Schedule and Compliance Records ................. LRA 5.7.3 – Broadcasts ................................................RAC 1.3, 7.2, 9.1
AIS (Aeronautical Information Services) ...............GEN 1.1.2 – METAR AUTO/SPECI AUTO Reports .......... .MET 8.5
AIM (Aeronautical Information Management) ....GEN 1.1.2 Automatic Flight Control Guidance System...... COM 4.10.7
Alcohol ............................................................................. AIR 3.9 Automatic Landing (Autoland) Operations ...... COM 4.10.7
Alerting Devices and Circuit Breakers ..................... AIR 4.11 Aviation
ALR (Aircraft Load Rating) ......................................AGA 3.12 – Automated Reports – Other............................... MET 8.6
Alternate Aerodrome, Requirements for
IFR Flight ............................................................RAC 3.14 – Document Booklet................................................ LRA 1.2
Altimeter – Fuels .........................................................................AIR 1.3
Altitude – Language Proficiency ........................................... LRA 1.3
– And Direction of Flight ................................... RAC 8.7.2 – Medical Review Board .........................................LRA 2.4
– Area Minimum Altitude (AMA) ....................RAC 8.6.1 – METAR (Routine Weather Report) .................MET 5.14
– Correction Chart ......................................... .RAC Fig. 9.1 – Occurrence, Reporting an .................................. GEN 3.3
– IFR Minimum ............................................ RAC 8.5, 8.6.1 – Recreational ............................................... AIR 4.7 to 4.10
– Minimum Holding .............................................RAC 10.7 – Safety...................................................................... GEN 2.0
– Report ...................................................................NAT 1.16 – Weather Briefing Service (AWBS) ................. MET 1.1.3
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
– Weather Information Service (AWWS) ........ MET 1.1.3 – Publications – International Flights .................MAP 5.0
GEN
– Weather Reports/Charts ....................... MET 3.2.2, 3.2.3 – Procurement of Aeronautical .........................MAP 4.2.1
AWOS (Automated Weather – Updating of Canadian Aeronautical ................MAP 2.3
Observation Systems) ....................................MET 1.2.4, 8.5 – Upper Level – Actual, Forecast (PROG) ........ MET 11.0
– actual weather information/reports/charts .. MET 1.2.4 Checklists, Pilot Vital Action ....................................... AIR 1.2
– METAR SPECI/AUTO/LWIS Reports ..............MET 8.4, 8.5 Circling Minima and Procedures ................... RAC 9.23, 9.24
Circuit Breakers and Alerting Devices ..................... AIR 4.11
B Circuit
– Controlled Aerodromes .......................................RAC 4.3
Ballistic Parachute System ......................................RAC 3.16.9 – Uncontrolled Aerodromes ..................................RAC 4.5
Balloon Operations, Manned Free ..............................AIR 4.7 Circular, Aeronautical Information ..........................MAP 2.3
Bars Civil Aviation Complaint Filing Procedures ............GEN 7.0
– Stop.....................................................................AGA 7.10.3 Civil Aviation Contingency Operations (CACO) ... GEN 6.0
Beacons – Headquaters Operations ..................................... GEN 6.2
– Aerodrome .............................................................AGA 7.2 – Accident, Occurrence, or Incident Reporting .... GEN 6.3
Bearing Strength, Runway and Taxiway...................AGA 3.12 Civil Twilight, Morning and Evening .................... GEN 1.5.2
Beaufort Wind Scale ..................................... MET 2.6, Table 1 Class
Bird Hazard Control, Airport ..................................AGA 1.1.5 – A Airspace...........................................................RAC 2.8.1
Blood Donation ............................................................ AIR 3.14 – B Airspace .......................................................... RAC 2.8.2
BOTA ......................................................................... NAT 1.19.1 – C Airspace ................................................... RAC 2.8.3, 5.8
Brest Oceanic Transition Area (BOTA)................ NAT 1.19.1 – D Airspace ......................................................... RAC 2.8.4
Boundary Markers, Aerodromes ................................AGA 5.1 – E Airspace .......................................................... RAC 2.8.5
– F Airspace .......................................................... RAC 2.8.6
C – G Airspace..................................................RAC 2.8.7, 8.10
Clean Aircraft Concept ............................................AIR 2.12.2
Cable Span Markings, Suspended ............................ AGA 6.7
Canada Clear Air Turbulence (CAT),
Avoidance of ...................................... MET 2.2, AIR 2.10
– Flight Supplement .......................................... MAP 2.5.3 Clearance(s)
– Charts and Publications
– Individual Purchases ....................................MAP 4.2.1 – Delivery .............................................................. RAC 4.2.2
– Subscriptions ................................................. MAP 4.2.2 – “Hold/Hold Short”............................................ RAC 4.2.5
– Shipping Act, extract from ..............SAR 4.8, AIR 2.11.1 – IFR ........................................................................... RAC 7.4
Canadian Aviation Regulation Advisory – Landing .............................................................. RAC 4.4.3
Council (CARAC) .....................................................GEN 5.4 – Limit........................................................................RAC 8.9
RAC ANNEX 2.0, LRA ANNEX 5.8 – Leaving or Entering Controlled Airspace .........RAC 8.8
– Oceanic Clearance Delivery.............................NAT 1.9.3
– Legislative Index .................................................. GEN 5.3 – Resolution Advisory (TCAS/ACAS) ..................RAC 1.6
Canadian Domestic Airspace......................................RAC 2.2 – Tower Frequency, Release from ...................... RAC 4.2.9
Canadian Runway Friction Index (CRFI) ................. .AIR 1.6 Clearances Instructions and Information
– Coefficients .........................................................AIR 1.6.2 from the ATC.................................................RAC 1.6, 6.1
– Description and Method of Measurement ....AIR 1.6.3 Clearway, Definition.....................................................AGA 3.9
Canadian Type Certificate........................................LRA 5.2.2 Clock Position System (ATS Surveillance Traffic
Carbon Monoxide .......................................................AIR 3.2.3 Information)
Carburetor Icing .............................................................AIR 2.3 .............................................................................RAC 1.5.3
Cargo Restraint...............................................................AIR 4.4 Closed Markings – Runway, Taxiway, Heliports .......AGA 5.6
Categories Cloud Heights ................................................... MET 1.1.5, 3.13
– VASI ................................................................. AGA 7.6.4.2 Collision Avoidance
– EWH (Eye-to-Wheel Height)...........................AGA 7.6.4 – Right of Way, Regulations ...................................RAC 1.8
CAVOK, Use of Term ...................................................RAC 1.4 – Use of Landing Lights ...........................................AIR 4.5
Certificate Communications Air-Ground Service, International
– Airport ................................................................. .AGA 2.4 .................................................................................NAT 2.0
– Noise Compliance .............................................LRA 5.3.5 – Aviation Weather Information Service (AWIS)
Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) ............................................................................. MET 1.1.3
– Special ....................................................... LRA 5.3.2, 5.3.3 – Emergency Communications and Security
Certification ......................................................... COM 1.4.2, RAC 2.13
– Failure (VFR).......................................RAC 4.4.8, 6.3.2.2
– Of Airports ........................................................... AGA 2.3 – Frequency 5680 kHz, Use of ............................ COM 1.6
– Of Heliport............................................................ AGA 2.3 – General Information ..........................................COM 1.1
– Water Airport ....................................................... AGA 2.3 – Initial Contact ............................................RAC 4.4.1, 9.9
Channel Spacing, VHF Communication – Language ............................................................. COM 5.2
Frequencies ......................................................... COM 1.4 – Location Indicators............................................ COM 2.0
Charter Flight Airport Facilities Reservations – Navigation Equipment, Reporting
– En Route, Low Altitude/High Altitude Malfunction of ................................................. RAC 6.3.3
– Products .........................................................MAP 4.2.1 – Radiocommunication Regulations ................. COM 1.2
Charts – Radio Navigation Aids ...................................... COM 4.0
– Responsible Authority....................................... COM 1.2
– Aerodrome Obstacle – ICAO Type A ........... MAP 4.2.1 – Satellite Systems ................................................COM 1.10
– Aeronautical, for Visual Flight .......................MAP 4.2.1 – Satellite Voice.....................................................COM 1.10
– En Route, Low Altitude/High Altitude – SATVOICE ........................................................ COM 1.10
– Prices ...............................................................MAP 4.2.1 – Summary of Services ........................................RAC 1.2.3
– Index of Aerodrome Obstacle Charts – Use of MF and ATF ......................................... RAC 4.5.6
– ICAO Type A ..................................................MAP 4.2.1 – VFR Procedures at Uncontrolled Aerodromes
– Index to Canadian Aeronautical .......................MAP 2.2 with MF and ATF areas ...................................RAC 4.5.7
– Pavement Load Rating ................................... AGA 3.12.1 – VHF Coverage in the NAT Region ............... NAT 2.5.2
– Procurement Community Aerodrome Radio Stations
– Individual and Subscription ....................... MAP 4.2.2 (CARS) ................................................................RAC 1.2.2
– Publication Revision Cycles ............................MAP 4.2.1
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
GEN
– SECURITAS Program ........................................ GEN 3.5 Downed Aircraft Procedures .......................................SAR 4.7
Conservation ................................................................RAC 1.10 Downdraft and Turbulence .......................................AIR 1.5.7
Contact and Visual Approaches .................................RAC 9.6 Drugs .............................................................................. AIR 3.10
Contamination of Aircraft (Frost, Ice or Snow)
– In Flight ..............................................................AIR 2.12.3 E
– On Ground.........................................................AIR 2.12.2 ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitter).......................SAR 3.0
Continuous Descent Final Approach (CDFA) ......... AIR 2.17 – Accidental Transmissions ....................................SAR 3.7
Control Transfer – Categories................................................................SAR 3.2
– IFR Units to Towers ............................................ RAC 9.10 – Downed Aircraft Procedures ...............................SAR 4.7
Controlled Airports – Flight Planning
– Approach Position Reports .................................RAC 9.9 (Supplementary Information) ........................RAC 3.16.9
– Arrival Procedures ...............................................RAC 4.4 – Installation and Maintenance Requirements .............SAR 3.3
– Initial Clearance................................................ RAC 4.4.2 – Operating Instructions (Emergency Use)..........SAR 3.5
– Landing Clearance ........................................... RAC 4.4.3 – Operating Instructions (Normal Use)................SAR 3.4
– Operations on Intersecting Runways .............RAC 4.4.9 – Schedule of Requirements to Carry an ELT ...............SAR 3.9
– Private Advisory Stations .................................RAC 1.2.3 – Signal, Maximizing the.........................................SAR 3.6
– Sequential Operations .......................................RAC 4.4.9 – Testing Procedures ................................................SAR 3.8
– Simultaneous Operations .................................RAC 4.4.9 Emergency
– Traffic Circuits ......................................................RAC 4.3 – Action by the Pilot during Emergency
Controlled Airspace ......................................................RAC 2.5 Conditions ............................................................ .SAR 4.2
– Area Extensions .................................................RAC 2.7.2 – Assistance............................................................... SAR 4.0
– Clearances – Communications and Security ......... COM 1.4.2, RAC 2.13
– Leaving or Entering...........................................RAC 8.8 – Declaring an .......................................RAC 6.3.1, SAR 4.1
– Control Zones .................................................RAC 2.7.3 – Lighting, Aerodrome..........................................AGA 7.13
– High-Level ..........................................................RAC 2.6 – Locator Transmitter ..............................................SAR 3.0
– Low-Level............................................................RAC 2.7 – Monitoring of Emergency Frequency
– Low-Level Airways – LF/MF, VHF/UHF ......RAC 2.7.1 121.5 MHz ....................................................... COM 1.12.2
– Transition Areas .............................................RAC 2.7.5 – Procedures, Downed Aircraft..............................SAR 4.7
– Use of Controlled Airspace by – Procedures for Signaling Vessels ........................ SAR 2.4
VFR Flights ............................................................ RAC 2.5.1 – Radio Frequency Capability ............................... .SAR 4.5
– Transponder Alerting .......................................... SAR 4.3
Controlled Flight Into Terrain (CFIT)....................AIR 2.17.1 Emergency Equipment
Controlled VFR (CVFR) Procedures .........................RAC 5.6
Conversion Tables ......................................................GEN 1.7.2 – Flight Planning (Supplementary Information)
..........................................................................RAC 3.16.9
CRFI .............................................................AGA 1.1.3, AIR 1.6 – Operations Over Sparsely Settled Areas .......... AIR 2.14
Cross Country Instrument Training Flights .......... RAC 3.11 – Operations Over Water .................................... AIR 2.11.3
Crosswind Landing Limitations English, Use of in Communications ........................ COM 1.3
– Light Aircraft..........................................................AIR 2.2 En-Route Procedures – VFR .......................................RAC 5.0
Cruising Altitudes and Flight Levels ..................... RAC 2.3.1 Equipment
– COM/NAV ........................................................RAC 3.16.4
D – RNAV...................................................................RAC 9.2.2
Dangerous Goods – Surveillance (SSR) (Canadian and ICAO) ............RAC 3.16.4
– Transportation by Air ......................... RAC ANNEX 3.0 Evaluation, Aeronautical ............................................. AGA 6.3
Dangerous Situations Examinations, Use of Hand-held Calculators
– Refusal to Work................................................. GEN 2.1.2 or Computers for Written ........................................LRA 3.3
Date – Time Group ....................................................GEN 1.5.1 Exhaust Plumes ......................................................... AIR 4.16.1
Day Markings of Obstructions .................................. AGA 6.4 Experimental Test Flights, Conduct of .......................AIR 4.2
Declared Distances .....................................................AGA 3.10 Explosions and Fires ...................................................AIR 1.3.4
Decompression Sickness ...............................................AIR 3.5 Export of Aircraft..........................................................LRA 4.7
– Defence – ADIZ (Air Defence Eye Reference Point, Design ....................................... AIR 4.12
Identification Zone)....................................RAC 2.13, 3.9,
– Flight Plans ............................................................RAC 3.9 F
Departure(s) Fan Blade Ice Shedding Procedure ...................... AIR 2.12.1.1
– Approach and Alternate Minima..................... RAC 9.18 FANS 1/A ADS WPR .................................................COM 3.10
– Non-ATS Surveillance ......................................RAC 4.1.1 Fatigue ............................................................................ AIR 3.10
– Procedures – Controlled Airports ................... COM 3.8 FD (Upper Level Wind
– RONLY Aircraft .............................................. RAC 4.2.12 and Temperature Forecasts) ................................... MET 9.0
– Vectoring .............................................................RAC 4.1.1 Final Approach Fix (FAF) .......................................RAC 9.19.2
Design Eye Reference Point ........................................AIR 4.12 FIR (Flight Information Regions) ................RAC Fig. 2.3, 2.4
Designated Mountainous Regions Fire Extinguishers
in Canada .................................................... RAC Fig. 2.11 – For Use in Aircraft................................................. AIR 1.4
Dial-up RCO ...............................................................RAC 1.1.4 – Types of.................................................................AIR 1.4.3
Disorientation ................................................................. AIR 3.7 Fire Fighting, Aircraft Rescue and (ARFF) ............. AGA 8.0
Displaced – ARFF Hours of Availability .............................. .AGA 8.2
– Threshold Lighting .......................................... .AGA 7.8.3 – Classification System........................................... AGA 8.3
– Thresholds ........................................................... .AGA 3.5 – ARFF Standby Request ....................................... AGA 8.4
– Threshold Markings ........................................ .AGA 5.4.1 – Discreet Communication ................................... AGA 8.5
Ditching ...................................................................... AIR 2.11.2 Fires and Explosions ...................................................AIR 1.3.4
DME (Distance Measuring Equipment)................. .COM 4.7 Fires, Classification of ................................................AIR 1.4.2
– Intersections, Minimum En-Route First Aid Kits on Privately Owned
– Altitude.............................................................RAC 8.6.1.1 and Operated Aircraft ............................................. AIR 4.13
– Procedures (Holding Patterns) .........................RAC 10.8
17
TC AIM March 23, 2023
GEN
Helicopter Operations ...................................... .RAC 4.5.3, 4.6 Controlled Airspace .............................................RAC 8.8
– At Controlled Airports ........................................RAC 4.6 – Climb or Descent ..................................................RAC 8.4
– Takeoff, Landing and Safety Areas ..................AGA 3.12 – Contact and Visual Approaches .........................RAC 9.6
– Vortices ....................................................................AIR 2.9 – Corrections for Temperature ........... RAC 9.17.1, Fig. 9.1
Heliports ....................................................................... .AGA 5.5 – Cross Country Training Flight ......................... RAC 3.11
– Arrival and Departure Hover Area .........................AGA 3.13 – Departure,Approach and Alternate Minima. RAC 9.18
– Final Approach and Take-Off Area (FATO) – Departure Procedures .......................................... RAC 7.0
..........................................................................AGA 7.12.2 – Departure from Uncontrolled Aerodromes .............. RAC 7.9
Lighting ....................................................................AGA 7.12 – Descent Out of Controlled Airspace..................RAC 9.4
– Markers and Markings ...............AGA 5.5.1, 5.5.2, 5.5.3, – DME Holding Procedures .................................RAC 10.8
........................................................... .5.4, 5.5.5, 5.5.6, 5.6 – Emergencies and Equipment Failures ...............RAC 6.3
– Touchdown and Lift-Off Area (TLOF) ........AGA 7.12.1 – En Route Procedures ............................................RAC 8.0
High Altimeter Settings .............................................AIR 1.5.9 – En Route – Uncontrolled Aerodromes
High Altitude Flight in Aircraft with (Class–“G” Airspace) ..........................................RAC 8.10
Unpressurized Cabins ............................................... AIR 3.4 – Flight – Two-Way Communications Failure ......... RAC 6.3.2
High Intensity Approach Lighting (HIAL).......RAC 9.19.2.8 – Flight Plan ...........................................................RAC 3.7.2
High Intensity Runway Operations (HIRO) ........RAC 4.4.10 – Flight Plan – Completion of ..............................RAC 3.15
Hijack (Unlawful Interference) ................................RAC 1.8.8 – Flight, “1 000-Ft-on-Top” ....................................RAC 8.7
– Flights in VMC......................................................RAC 6.2
Holding – General ...................................................................RAC 6.0
– Clearance..............................................................RAC 10.2 – Holding Clearance ..............................................RAC 10.2
– DME Procedures................................................ RAC 10.8 – Holding Entry Procedures ................................RAC 10.5
– Pattern, Entry Procedures ................................ RAC 10.5 – Holding Pattern, Speed Limitations ................RAC 10.7
– Pattern, Non-Standard...................................... RAC 10.4 – Holding Pattern, Timing ...................................RAC 10.6
– Pattern, Speed Limitations, DME Procedures, – Holding Procedures............................................RAC 10.0
Shuttle Procedure .............................RAC 10.7, 10.8, 10.9 – ILS, Category II Minima ................................ RAC 9.18.1
– Pattern, Standard ................................................RAC 10.3 – Initial Contact at Uncontrolled Aerodromes........... RAC 9.11
– Pattern, Timing ...................................................RAC 10.6 – Initial Contact with Tower ........................... RAC 7.3, 9.9
– Patterns Depicted on En Route – Instrument Procedures, Development of..........RAC 6.6
and Terminal Charts ........................................RAC 10.10 – Landing Minima ..............................................RAC 9.19.3
– Positions, Taxi ................................................... RAC 4.2.6 – Mach Number ........................RAC 8.3.1, 12.1, NAT 1.13
– Procedures – Minimum Altitudes .............................................RAC 8.5
– IFR......................................................................RAC 10.0 – Missed Approach Procedures ...........................RAC 9.26
– VFR .................................................................. RAC 4.4.2 – Missed Approach Procedures – Visual ...........RAC 9.25
– Speed Limitations ...............................................RAC 10.7 – Noise Abatement Procedures – Departure....... RAC 7.6
Hover – Non-Standard Holding Pattern ........................RAC 10.4
– Approach and Take-Off Direction – Obstacle and Terrain Clearance ........................ .RAC 7.7
– Markings ............................................................ AGA 5.5.6 – Outbound Report................................................ RAC 9.14
– Taxi..........................................................................RAC 4.6 – PAR (Precision Radar Approaches)
– Hydroplaning ......................................................AIR 1.6.5 ..........................................................COM 7.1, RAC 9.8.4
– Position Reports ....................................................RAC 8.1
Hyperventilation .........................................................AIR 3.2.2 – Mandatory Routes ............................. .RAC 3.16.6, 11.4.3
Hypothermia and Hyperthermia ............................. .AIR 3.17 – Mandatory IFR Routes (Including RNAV) ..........RAC 11.4.3
Hypoxia.........................................................................AIR 3.2.1 – Procedure Altitudes............................................ RAC 9.17
– Procedures – Uncontrolled Aerodromes/Airspace
I ...................................................................RAC 4.5.2, 9.14
– Published Holding Patterns ............................RAC 10.10
ICAO
– Applicable ICAO and WMO Documents ..............MET 1.1.7 – Release from Tower Frequency ........................... RAC 7.8
– Remote Altimeter Setting ............................... RAC 9.17.2
ICAO Flight Plan Form, Sample ......................... RAC Fig. 3.2 – Reporting of Equipment Malfunction .......... RAC 6.3.3
ICAO Type A Charts ................................................MAP 4.2.1 – Reporting Procedures
Ice Control and Snow Removal ................................AGA 1.1.4 – Uncontrolled Aerodrome ..................................RAC 9.12
Ice – Required Visual Reference .............................RAC 9.19.3
– Aircraft Contamination on the Ground, – Runway Visual Range (RVR) ............................RAC 9.20
and in Flight ......................................... AIR 2.12.2, 2.12.3 – Separation ..............................................................RAC 6.4
– Accumulation ....................................................... MET 2.4 – Shuttle Procedure ...............................................RAC 10.9
– Types of Ice .....................................................AIR 2.12.3.1 – Simultaneous Approaches .................................RAC 9.27
– Aerodynamic Effects of Airborne Icing .............AIR 2.12.3.2 – Speed Adjustment – ATS Surveillance Controlled
– Roll Upset ........................................................AIR 2.12.3.3 Aircraft
IFR ............................................................................ RAC 9.7.3
– Advance Notice of Intent .....................................RAC 9.5 – Standard Holding Pattern .................................RAC 10.3
– Air Traffic Control Clearance ............................RAC 6.1 – Standard Instrument Departure (SID).............. RAC 7.5
– Aircraft Categories .............................................RAC 9.21 – Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) ........ RAC 9.2, 9.2.3
– Altitude Reports....................................................RAC 8.3 – Straight-in Approach..........................................RAC 9.15
– Application of Takeoff Minima ..................... RAC 9.19.1 – Straight-in Landing Minima.............................RAC 9.22
– Approach Ban ...................................................RAC 9.19.2 – True Airspeed (TAS) ........................................ RAC 8.2.2
– Approach Clearance .............................................RAC 9.3 – Uncontrolled Airspace .......................................RAC 9.13
– Approach Position Reports – Controlled Airports..... RAC 9.9 – Visual Approach ................................................RAC 9.6.2
– Arrivals ...................................................................RAC 9.7 ILS (Instrument Landing Systems) ........................ COM 4.10
– Arrival Procedures ...............................................RAC 9.0 – Automatic Landing (Autoland) Operations
– Uncontrolled Aerodromes/Airspace ..............RAC 9.12, 9.13 ........................................................................ COM 4.10.7
– ATC Assignment of Altitudes.............................RAC 8.6 – Categories........................................................ COM 4.10.5
– Circling .................................................................RAC 9.23 – Glide Path........................................................ COM 4.10.2
– Procedures ...........................................................RAC 9.24 – Glide Path Fluctuations ................................ COM 4.10.7
– Clearance with VFR Restrictions ....................RAC 6.2.1 – Localizer .......................................................... COM 4.10.1
– Clearances .............................................................. RAC 7.4 – Minima, Category II........................................ RAC 9.18.1
19
TC AIM March 23, 2023
–Displaced Threshold ........................................ AGA 5.4.1 –Differences with ICAO Annex-3 .................... MET 1.1.8
GEN
–Helicopter Safety Area Markers ..................... AGA 5.5.2 –GFA (Area Forecast) ........................MET 1.1.3, 1.3.6, 4.0
–Heliports................................................................ AGA 5.5 –Forecasts and Charts .......................................... .MET 1.3
–Heliport Identification ..................................... AGA 5.5.3 –Ice Accumulation ................................................. MET 2.4
–Heliport Takeoff and Landing Area Marking –Locations – Aerodrome Forecast .......................MET 7.1
........................................................................... AGA 5.5.1 –METAR (Aerodrome Routine Meteorological
– Holding............................................................... AGA 5.4.3 Report) ..................................................MET 1.2.1, 3.2, 8.0
– Hover Area ......................................................... AGA 5.5.4 – Observations and Reports ................................. MET 1.2
– Obstruction........................................................... AGA 6.0 – Pilot Report (PIREP)
– Power Line Crossings .......................................... AGA 6.7 .............................MET 1.1.3, 1.1.6, 2.0, 2.2.1, RAC1.1.3
– Preferred Approach and Departure Path...... AGA 5.5.6 – Report (AIREP) ...................................................NAT 1.15
– Runway .................................................................. AGA 5.4 – Reports, Forecasts and Charts .................... MET 3.1, 3.2
– Standards............................................................... AGA 6.2 – Responsibility .....................................................MET 1.1.1
– Taxiway Exit and Holding ............................... AGA 5.4.3 – Services Available ............................................. MET 1.1.2
– Unserviceable Area...............................................AGA 5.7 – SIGMET....................................................... MET 1.1.3, 6.0
Marshalling Signals ....................................................... AIR 1.8 – Space Weather ...............................MET 14.0, COM 5.5.4
Measurement, Units of .................................................GEN 1.4 – SPECI (Special Weather Reports)
Medical .............................................................MET 1.2.1, 8.4, 8.5
– Aeromedical Factors..............................................AIR 3.2 – Special VFR Weather Minima .................... RAC Fig. 2.8
– Assessment Process .............................................. LRA 2.1 – Surface Weather Maps ...................................... MET 10.0
– Aviation Medical Review Board .........................LRA 2.4 – Symbols
– Examination Requirements ................................LRA 2.2 – Significant Weather ........................................... MET 12.1
– Fitness for Permits and Licences ........................ LRA 1.9 – Surface Weather Maps ...................................... MET 10.0
– Periodic Medical Exam Categories 1, 2 3 – TAF (Aerodrome Forecast) .......................MET 1.1.3, 7.0
Medically Fit ..........................................................LRA 2.3 – Turbulence Reporting Criteria Table.............MET 2.2.2
– Unfit Assessment ..................................................LRA 2.5 – Upper Level Charts, analysed (ANAL) ...........MET 11.1
– Upper Level Wind and Temperature
Medical Information ..................................................... AIR 3.0 Forecasts .......................................................MET 1.3.7, 9.0
– Alcohol .................................................................... AIR 3.9 – VOLMET.............................................. NAT 2.2, MET 1.4
– Anesthetics ........................................................... AIR 3.13 – Weather Charts .................................................... MET 3.3
– Blood Donation .................................................... AIR 3.14 – Weather Observing Systems ..............MET 3.2, 3.3, 1.1.5
– Carbon Monoxide...............................................AIR 3.2.3 – Weather Radar .................................COM 7.1, MET 1.3.9
– Decompression Sickness .......................................AIR 3.5 – Wind Shear ...........................................................MET 2.3
– Disorientation ........................................................ AIR 3.7 Middle Ear and Sinus Discomfort or Pain ................. AIR 3.8
– Drugs ..................................................................... AIR 3.10
– Fatigue .................................................................. .AIR 3.10 Military
– follow-up procedures after an in-flight illumination – Arrester Cables ......................................................AGA 9.2
...........................................................................AIR 4.15.5 – Flight Advisory Unit (MFAU) .........................RAC 1.1.6
– Radar Assistance (Canadian Forces) ..............RAC 1.5.7
– General Health ....................................................... AIR 3.1 Minima
– High Altitude Flight in Aircraft with – Application of ......................................................RAC 9.19
Unpressurized Cabin ............................................ AIR 3.4 – Circling .................................................................RAC 9.23
– Hyperventilation.................................................AIR 3.2.2 – Departure, Approach and Alternate................ RAC 9.18
– Hypothermia and Hyperthermia...................... AIR 3.17 – Straight-in Landing ............................................RAC 9.22
– Hypoxia ................................................................AIR 3.2.1
– Mandatory Medical Reporting ......................... AIR 3.1.1 Minimum
– Middle Ear and Sinus Discomfort or Pain ........ AIR 3.8 – Altitudes – Overflying Aerodromes ..................RAC 5.5
– Portable Combustion Heaters, Potential – Altitudes – VFR ....................................................RAC 5.4
Hazard of.................................................................AIR 3.3 – En-Route Altitudes (MEA)...............................RAC 8.6.1
– Pregnancy ............................................................. AIR 3.15 – Fuel Advisory ..................................................... RAC 1.7.2
– Scuba Diving ..........................................................AIR 3.6 – Holding Altitude (MHA) ..................................RAC 10.7
– Vision ....................................................................... AIR 3.7 – IFR Altitudes .........................................................RAC 8.6
Meteorological / Meteorology – Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA)
– Abbreviations, Significant Weather................ MET 12.1 .................................................................... RAC 8.5, 8.6.1
– AIRMET..................................MET 1.1.3, 1.3.4, 1.3.6, 5.0 – Sector Altitude (MSA)........... ............................RAC 9.2.1
– Authority, Areas of Responsibility ..................MET 1.1.1 Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications
– Automated Reports (MNPS) .....................................................................NAT 1.11
– Other ...................................................................... MET 8.6 – Certification .......................................................NAT 1.7.5
– Reports from Other Non-aviation Autostations – High-Level Airspace (HLA)......... .. NAT 1.11, NAT 1.19
.............................................................................. MET 8.6 – Navigation Errors, Monitoring of Gross ......NAT 1.19.6
– Voice Generator Module (VGM)....................... MET 8.6 – North Atlantic (NAT) MNPS Operations .. COM 3.15.11
– Aviation Forecasts, Abbreviations .................. MET 15.0 Missed Approach
– Aviation Weather Briefing Service – From a Circling Procedure ................................RAC 9.25
(AWBS) ................................................................MET 1.1.3 – Procedures ...........................................................RAC 9.26
– Aviation Weather Information Service Monitoring Emergency Frequency 121.5 MHz ... COM 1.4.2
(AWWS) ............................................................. MET 1.1.3 Morning and Evening Civil Twilight Charts ........ GEN 1.5.2
– Aviation Weather Reports ...........................MET 3.2, 8.0
– Aviation Weather Services .............................. MET 1.1.3 Mountainous
– AWOS (Automated Weather Observation – Areas, Flight Operations in ................................ AIR 2.13
System)................................................................... MET 8.5 – Regions ................................................RAC 2.12, Fig. 2.12
– Canadian Forecast Winds and Temperatures
Aloft Network........................................................MET 9.1
– Canadian Meteorological Centre (CMC) ...... MET 12.1
N
NAR (North American Routes) ..................................NAT 1.3
– Canadian Weather Information ..............MET 1.3.5, 3.0 National Harbours Board Act ................................. AIR 2.11.1
– Charts and Forecasts ........................................... MET 1.3 Nationality and Registration Marks .........GEN 1.6, LRA 4.3
– Clear Air Turbulence (CAT), Avoidance of
............................................................ MET 2.2, AIR 2.10
– Coastal Weather ................................................ MET 1.3.5
21
TC AIM March 23, 2023
Propeller and Jet Blast Danger ..................................... AIR 1.7 – Basic Operations .................................................. RPA 3.3
GEN
Publications and Charts, Procurement – Fitness of Crew Members ................................ RPA 3.2.7
of Aeronautical ......................................................MAP 4.2.1 – General Information ............................................RPA 1.0
Push-back / Power-back Requests .......................... RAC 4.2.4 – General Operation and Flight Rules ................. RPA 3.2
– Maximum Altitude......................................... RPA 3.2.13
R –
–
Micro RPA - Less than 250g .............................. RPA 2.0
Minimum Weather Conditions ....................RPA 3.2.22
Radar / ATS Surveillance ............................................COM 7.0 – Night Flight ......................................................RPA 3.2.27
– Alerting Manoeuvres .......................................... SAR 4.4 – Operations at or in the Vicinity of an Aerodrome,
– Arrivals ................................................................. RAC 9.7 Airport or Heliport ...............................RPA 3.2.35, 3.4.5
– ASDE (Airport Surface Detection Equipment) – Pilot Requirements .................................RPA 3.3.2, 3.4.2
................................................................................COM 7.1 – Pre-flight Information ................................... RPA 3.2.12
– Canadian Forces Radar Assistance ................RAC 1.5.7 – Records .............................................................RPA 3.2.36
– Misuse of Vectors ..............................................RAC 1.5.6 – Registration............................................................RPA 3.1
– Navigation Assistance to VFR Flights ...........RAC 1.5.4 – Serviceability of the RPAS ............................. RPA 3.2.17
– Obstacle Clearance During Vectors ......................... RAC 1.5.5 – Small RPA- 250g to 25 kg ................................... RPA 3.0
– PAR (Precision Approach) ................................COM 7.1 Reports
– Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR) ..................COM 7.1 – Altitude ................................................................NAT 1.16
– Required .............................................................RAC 9.8.2 – ATS – Possible Contravention of the
– Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) ...............COM 7.2 Air Regulations .................................................RAC 1.1.4
– Service....................................................................RAC 1.5 – Automated Reports
– Procedures .........................................................RAC 1.5.2 – Other ..................................................................... MET 8.6
– Surveillance – VFR ..............................................RAC 5.7 – Limited Weather Information System (LWIS)
– Traffic Information (Clock System) .............. RAC 1.5.3 ................................................................................ MET 8.5
– Use of ATS Surveillance in the Provision of AAS by – Voice Generator Module (VGM)...................... MET 8.6
FSSs – AWOS – METAR AUTO or
..............................................................................RAC 1.5.8 SPECI AUTO .....................................................................MET 8.5
– Misuse of Vectors ..............................................RAC 1.5.6 – CRFI ....................................................AGA 1.1.3, AIR 1.6
– Vectors, Obstacle Clearance During..............RAC 1.5.5 – Pilot (PIREP) ....................................................... MET 2.0
– Weather Radar................................. COM 7.1 MET 1.3.9 – Pollution .......................................................... RAC 1.12.5
Radio Required Visual Reference......................................RAC 9.19.3
– Checks................................................................. RAC 4.2.3
– Navigation Aids, Ground Based ....................... COM 4.0 Resolution Advisories (TCAS/ACAS) ........................RAC 1.6
– Radio Telephony Network Operations – North Responsibilities
Atlantic Area (NAT)/Anchorage Arctic FIR............. NAT 2.2 – NAV CANADA .................................................GEN 1.1.2
Communications, Voice ............................................. COM 1.0 – Transport Canada ........................ GEN 1.1.1, AGA 2.3.3
– Arctic ..................................................................RAC 1.1.3 Restricted Airspace ................................................... RAC 2.8.6
– Channel Spacing ................................................ COM 1.4 Retroflective Markers .................................................AGA 7.15
– Radiocommunication Regulations ................. COM 1.2 Right of Way – Collision Avoidance Regulations................. RAC 1.9
– Regulations – Operator’s Certificates and RNAV (Area Navigation) Operations ...................... COM 5.0
Station Licences .................................................. COM 1.2 RONLY (Receiver Only)/NORDO (No Radio), Procedures
Rapid-Exit Taxiway Indicator Lights .........................AGA 7.9 ..................... RAC 4.2.10, 4.2.12, 4.4.5, 4.4.6, 4.5.7, 4.5.8
Rapid-Exit Taxiways ...................................................AGA 3.11 Routes, Canadian Domestic
Recency Requirements – Pilot Licence – Mandatory IFR Routes (including RNAV)
Privileges.........................................................................LRA 1.12 ................................................................RAC 3.16.6, 11.4.3
Recreational Aviation ....................................... AIR 4.7 to 4.10 RSC and CRFI Reporting ..........................................AIR 1.6.4
Reduced Lateral Separation, Arrangements for................ NAT 1.12 RTIL (Runway Threshold Identification Lights) .....AGA 7.7
Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) Runway(s)
– North Atlantic RVSM .......................................RAC 1.21 – Centre Line Lighting ........................................AGA 7.8.4
– NAT Height Monitoring .................. NAT 1.20.7, 1.20.8 – Characteristics..................................................... AGA 3.0
– In-flight Contingencies .................................... NAT 1.17 – CRFI ........................................................................ AIR 1.6
– Minimum Aircraft System Performance – Declared Distances ............................................AGA 3.10
Specification .......................................................NAT 1.12 – Dimensions ...........................................................AGA 3.1
Reduced Visibility Operations Plan (RVOP) ............RAC 1.6 – End Lights ..........................................................AGA 7.8.2
Refuelling – Friction Calibration Method........................AGA 1.1.4.1
– Fires and Explosions ..........................................AIR 1.3.4 – Guard Lights .......................................................AGA 7.11
Refuges, Reserves and Parks (National, Provincial – Heading .................................................................RAC 7.5
and Municipal) .....................................................RAC 1.10.3 – Holding Position Markings ............................ AGA 5.4.3
Region(s) – Intersecting, Operations on ............................RAC 4.4.9
– Altimeter Setting................................................RAC 2.11 – Lighting .................................................................AGA 7.8
– Mountainous ........................... RAC 2.12, RAC Fig. 2.13 – Markings .............................................................. AGA 5.4
– NAV CANADA .................................................GEN 1.1.2 – Non-Precision Approach ................................AGA 7.5.1
– Transport Canada .............................................GEN 1.1.1 – Sequential Operations ......................................RAC 4.4.9
– Simultaneous Operations ................................RAC 4.4.9
Registered Aerodrome ................................................. AGA 2.0 – Strip ....................................................................... AGA 3.2
Registration Marks and Nationality .........GEN 1.6, LRA 4.3 – Taxiway Bearing Strength ................................AGA 3.12
Regulations, Airport Zoning..................................... AGA 4.3 – Threshold Identification Lights (RTIL)............AGA 7.7
Reinstatement of Suspended Permit, Licence – Touchdown Zone Lighting ............................. AGA 7.8.5
or Rating .................................................................. LRA 1.11 – Wet ...................................................RAC 4.4.9, AIR 1.6.5
Remote Altimeter Setting ...................................... RAC 9.17.2 – Winter Condition NOTAM .............................AIR 1.6.4
Remote Communications Outlets (RCO) ............ COM 1.4.1 Runway turn pad .......................................................... AGA 3.6
– Dial-up RCOs .................................................. COM 1.4.1 Runway Visual Range (RVR) ....................................RAC 9.20
– Flight Information Service En Route (FISE) – Comparative Scale – Feet to Meters...............GEN 1.7.3
.....................................COM 1.4.1, RAC 1.1.3, 1.1.4, 4.5.1 – Operational use of RVR ................................ RAC 9.20.2
– Remote Aerodrome Advisory Service (RAAS)
.....................................COM 1.4.1, RAC 1.1.3, 1.1.4, 4.5.1
Remotely Piloted Aircraft (RPA).................................AIR 4.16
– Advanced Operations.......................................... RPA 3.4
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Technical Records, Aircraft ..................................... LRA 2.6.3 – Reporting Procedures (IFR) .............................RAC 9.12
Temperature Correction – Traffic Circuit Procedures.............................. RAC 4.5.2
for Altimeter ....................................RAC Fig. 9.1, AIR 1.5.2 Uncontrolled Airspace – Procedures (IFR) ............ RAC 9.13
Terminal Arrival Area (TAA) ..................................RAC 9.2.2 Underwater Diving ........................................................AIR 3.6
Terminal Control Areas ............................................RAC 2.7.6 UNICOM (Universal Communications) ...............RAC 1.2.1
Terminal Products ......................................... MAP 4.2.1, 4.2.2 – Approach UNICOM (AU).......... RAC 1.2.1, MET 1.2.7
Test Flights, Conduct of Experimental .......................AIR 4.2 Units of Measurement ..................................................GEN 1.4
Thresholds Unlawful Interference ............................ COM 8.8, RAC 1.8.8
– Arrows ............................................................... AGA 5.4.1 Unserviceable Area Markings .....................................AGA 5.7
– Displaced Threshold Lighting ....................... AGA 7.8.3 Upper Level
– Stopways ............................................................ AGA 5.4.2 – Charts (ANAL) ................................................... MET 9.0
Thunderstorms – Wind and Temperature Forecasts (FD) ...... MET 1.3.8, 11.1
– Flight Operations Near ........................................AIR 2.7
Time V
– System ....................................................................GEN 1.5 V Speeds..........................................................................GEN 1.7
– Zone, UTC/Local ............................................. GEN 1.5.3 VASI (Visual Approach Slope Indicator)
Traffic Circuit Procedures ......................................................AGA 7.6.2, AGA 7.6.4.2
– Controlled Aerodromes ......................................RAC 4.3 Vertical Path Control on Non-Precision
– NORDO/RONLY .......................................... RAC 4.5.8.2 Approaches ................................................................ AIR 2.17
– Uncontrolled Aerodromes.............................. RAC 4.5.2 Vertical Path Control Techniques .......................... AIR 2.17.3
Transborder Flights Vertigo.............................................................................. AIR 3.7
– Flight Plan Requirements (Between Canada VFR
and a Foreign State) ..........................................RAC 3.5.3 – Acknowledgement of Clearances ......................RAC 5.2
Transfer – IFR Units to Towers ............................... . RAC 9.10 – Aeronautical Information .................................MAP 2.5
Transoceanic Flight – General Aviation Aircraft..................NAT 1.2 – Altitudes and Flight Levels .................................RAC 5.3
Transition Areas .........................................................RAC 2.7.5 – Controlled Airspace, Use of by
Transponder VFR Flights ........................................................RAC 2.5.1
– Alerting ................................................................. SAR 4.3 – En Route Procedures ...........................................RAC 5.0
– Communication Failure ................................... COM 8.7 – Flight Plan and Flight Itineraries .. RAC 3.6, RAC 3.7.1
– Emergencies ........................................................ COM 8.6 – Holding Procedures......................................... RAC 4.4.2
– IFR Operations in Other Low-Level – Minimum Altitudes .................................... RAC 5.4, 5.5
Airspace ............................................................... COM 8.2 – Operations within Class “C” Airspace .............RAC 5.8
– Mode S, Approval and Unique Codes.........................COM 9.8 – Over-the-Top .....................................................RAC 2.7.4
– Operation ............................................................ COM 8.0 – Position Reporting ...............................................RAC 5.1
– Phraseology......................................................... COM 8.5 – VFR Release of an IFR Aircraft ..................... RAC 6.2.2
– Requirements...................................................... COM 8.2 – Weather Minima ................................ RAC 2.7.3, Fig. 2.7
– VFR Operations ................................................. COM 8.4 VGM (Voice Generated Module) .......... RAC 4.5.1, RAC 9.12
– Unlawful Interference (Hijack) ....................... COM 8.8 VHF
– Regions – Addresses, Facsimile and – Channel Spacing ................................................ COM 1.4
Telephone Numbers..........................................GEN 1.1.1 – In Lieu of International HF Air-Ground
– Responsibilities................................................. AGA 2.3.3 – Omnidirectional Range and Tactical
Transportation Appeal Tribunal of Canada (TATC) Air Navigation (VORTAC)............................... COM 4.9
.................................................................................LRA 6.0 – Omnidirectional Range (VOR) ....................... COM 4.5
– Refusal to issue or Amend a Canadian Visibility, Ground..................................................... RAC 9.19.1
Aviation Document .............................................LRA 6.2 Vision ............................................................................... AIR 3.7
– Suspension, Cancellation or Refusal Visual
to Renew ................................................................LRA 6.3 – Alignment Guidance System (VAGS)............AGA 7.7.2
– Monetary Penalties ..............................................LRA 6.4 – Approach Slope Indicator Systems (VASIS)
– Appeals ..................................................................LRA 6.5 .................................................................................AGA 7.6
Transportation Safety Board of Canada (TSB) .......................GEN 3.0 – Climb and Descent .......................................... RAC 8.4.2
– Addresses, Facsimile and Visual Climb Over the Airport .................................RAC 7.7.1
Telephone Numbers.............................................GEN 3.6 Visual Signals ..............................................................RAC 4.4.7
Tribunal – Transportation Appeal Tribunal of – Ground .............................................................RAC 4.3.11
Canada (TATC) ....................................................LRA 6.0 – Ground-to-Air ....................................................SAR 4.7.1
True Airspeed (TAS)..............................RAC 8.3.2, NAT 1.7.2 – Intercepting and Intercepted Aircraft .............. SAR 4.6
Turbulence ................................................................... MET 3.13 – Marshalling for Aircraft and Helicopters ......... AIR 1.8
– Clear Air (CAT) ................................................. .AIR 2.10 – Tower to Aircraft.............................................RAC 4.2.11
– Reporting Criteria Table .................................MET 2.2.2 Voice Generated Module (VGM)....................RAC 4.5.1, 9.12
– Pilot Waivers ......................................................RAC 4.1.1 ................................................................................ MET 8.6
– Wake .................................................. .RAC 4.1.1, AIR 2.9 Volcanic Ash ............................................. MET 2.5, 3.2.2, 13.0
Turbulence, Downdraft and ......................................AIR 1.5.7 – Flight Operations in .............................................AIR 2.6
Turn pad, Runway ........................................................ AGA 3.6 VOLMET ....................................................................... MET 1.4
Twilight Charts, Morning and Evening ................ GEN 1.5.2 VOR/DME (RHO-THETA) System ........................COM 5.13
VORTAC (VHF Omnidirectional Range
U and Tactical Air Navigation)............................ COM 4.9
Ultra-light Aeroplane .................................................. AIR 4.10 Vortex
Uncontrolled Aerodromes – Characteristics................................................... .AIR 2.9.1
– Aircraft Operations .............................................RAC 4.5 – Strength ..................................................................AIR 2.9
– Class “G” Airspace Vortices, Helicopter .......................................................AIR 2.9
– Recommended Operating Procedures VOR
– En-Route ......................................................... RAC 8.11 – Airborne VOR Check ..................................... COM 4.5.3
– Helicopter Operations..................................... RAC 4.5.3 – Check Point ......................................................COM 4.5.2
– Initial Contact with Air-Ground Facility ................ RAC 9.11 – Receiver Checks .............................................. COM 4.5.1
– Licensing, Registration and
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GEN
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Presence of substances, including frost, ice and snow, on the
5.1 GLOSSARY OF AERONAUTICAL TERMS critical surface of an aircraft that can have an adverse impact
on the performance of an aircraft.
“Acknowledge”
aircraft radio control of aerodrome lighting (ARCAL)
An expression used in radiocommunication meaning “Let me
know that you have received and understood this message.” A system used by pilots to control some or all of the aerodrome
lighting, aside from obstacle lights, via the aircraft VHF
acts of unlawful interference transmitter and the microphone on the appropriate frequency.
Acts or attempted acts such as to jeopardize the safety of civil air defence identification zone (ADIZ)
aviation and air transport, i.e.:
An airspace of defined dimensions extending upwards from the
(a) unlawful seizure of aircraft in flight; surface of the earth within which certain rules for the security
(b) unlawful seizure of aircraft on the ground; control of air traffic apply.
(c) hostage-taking on board aircraft or on aerodromes; airport (APRT)
(d) forcible intrusion on board an aircraft, at an airport or on An aerodrome for which an airport certificate is in force.
the premises of an aeronautical facility;
airspace classification (see RAC 2.8).
(e) introduction on board an aircraft or at an airport of a weapon
or hazardous device or material intended for criminal The division of the Canadian Domestic Airspace (CDA) into
purposes; seven classes, each identified by a single letter: A, B, C, D, E, F
or G. The application of any classification to an airspace structure
(f) communication of false information such as to jeopardize
determines the operating rules, the level of ATC service provided
the safety of an aircraft in flight or on the ground, of
within the structure and, in some instances, communications
passengers, crew, ground personnel or the general public,
and equipment requirements. The horizontal and vertical limits
at an airport or on the premises of a civil aviation facility.
of airspace are described in the Designated Airspace
aerodrome Handbook (DAH).
Any area of land, water (including the frozen surface thereof) air traffic
or other supporting surface used, designed, prepared, equipped
or set apart for use, either in whole or in part, for the arrival, All aircraft in flight or operating on the manoeuvring area of
departure, movement or servicing of aircraft. This includes any an aerodrome.
buildings, installations and equipment situated thereon or
air traffic control clearance
associated therewith.
An authorization issued by an ATC unit for an aircraft to proceed
aerodrome traffic frequency (ATF) within controlled airspace in accordance with the conditions
A very high frequency (VHF) designated to ensure that all radio- specified by that unit.
equipped aircraft operating at or in the vicinity of an aerodrome, • also called: air traffic clearance, ATC clearance and
or in a defined area where VFR traffic is high, are listening on clearance
a common frequency and following a common reporting
procedure. air traffic control instruction
A directive issued by an ATC unit for ATC purposes.
afterimage
A collection of light, dark, or coloured spots, perceived after air traffic control service
exposure to bright light,that may be distracting and disruptive A service provided for the purposes of
and may persist for several minutes.
(a) preventing collisions between
• see also: flash blindness, glare
(i) aircraft;
airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS) (ii) aircraft and obstacles; and
An aircraft system based on secondary surveillance radar (SSR) (iii) aircraft and vehicles on the manoeuvring area; and
transponder signals which operates independently of ground-
based equipment to provide advice to the pilot on potential (b) expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic.
conflicting aircraft that are equipped with SSR transponders. • also called: ATC service
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As the circumstances require, this may be A method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any
desired flight path within the coverage of ground- or space-based
(a) an area control centre (ACC) established to provide ATC
NAVAIDs or within the limits of the capability of self-contained
service to aircraft; or
aids, or a combination of these.
(b) an airport control tower unit established to provide ATC
service to airport traffic. automatic dependent surveillance-broadcast (ADS-B)
• also called: ATC unit A means by which aircraft, aerodrome vehicles and other objects
can automatically transmit and/or receive data such as
alternate aerodrome identification, position and additional data, as appropriate, in a
An aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes broadcast mode via a data link.
either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or land at the
aerodrome of intended landing. Alternate aerodromes include automatic landing operation (autoland operation)
the following: An operation during which an automatic landing system carries
out an aircraft’s approach and landing under the supervision of
(a) takeoff alternate aerodrome
the crew.
(b) en-route alternate aerodrome
(c) destination alternate aerodrome ballistic parachute system
An aircraft parachute system that extracts/propels the parachute
NOTE: via an ignitable propellant (e.g. rocket motor or explosive charge).
The aerodrome from which a flight departs may also be an
en-route or a destination alternate aerodrome for that flight. barometric vertical navigation (baro-VNAV)
A function of certain RNAV systems that presents to the pilot
apron computed vertical guidance referenced to a specified vertical
That part of an aerodrome, other than the manoeuvring area, path, based on barometric altitude information and typically
intended to accommodate the loading and unloading of passengers computed as a geometric path between two waypoints or an
and cargo; the refuelling, servicing, maintenance and parking angle based on a single waypoint.
of aircraft; and any movement of aircraft, vehicles and pedestrians • also called: lateral navigation/vertical navigation (LNAV/
engaged in services for such purposes. VNAV)
• also called: flight line, ramp and tarmac
broadcast (BCST)
arc A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is
The track over the ground of an aircraft flying at a constant not addressed to a specific station or stations.
distance from a NAVAID by reference to distance measuring
equipment (DME). Canadian Domestic Airspace (CDA)
As geographically delineated in the Designated Airspace
Arctic Control Area (ACA) (see RAC Figure 2.3) Handbook (DAH), all airspace over the Canadian land mass,
A controlled airspace within the Northern Domestic the Canadian Arctic and the Canadian archipelago, and over
Airspace (NDA) at FL 270 and above. areas of the high seas.
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The point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance. An occurrence in which an aircraft, under the control of the
crew, is flown into terrain, water or an obstacle with no prior
“Cleared for the option” awareness on the part of the crew of the impending disaster.
(a) For an arriving aircraft: An expression used to indicate
ATC authorization for an aircraft to make a touch-and-go, controlled VFR flight (CVFR)
low approach, missed approach (MA), stop-and-go, or full- A flight conducted under VFR within Class B airspace and in
stop landing, at the discretion of the pilot. accordance with an ATC clearance.
(b) For a departing aircraft: An expression used to indicate
control zone (CZ)
ATC authorization for an aircraft to execute manoeuvres
other than a normal takeoff (e.g. an aborted takeoff). After A controlled airspace of defined dimensions extending upwards
such a manoeuvre, the pilot is expected to exit the runway from the surface of the earth up to and including 3 000 ft AAE
by the most expeditious way rather than backtrack the unless otherwise specified.
runway.
critical surface
common frequency area (CFA) Any stabilizing surface of an aircraft, including the wings, control
An area that has a designated frequency published for use by surfaces, rotors, propellers, horizontal stabilizers, vertical
any aircraft. stabilizers and, in the case of an aircraft that has rear-mounted
engines, the upper surface of its fuselage.
NOTE:
A CFA is intended to be used for air-to-air communications to cruise climb
provide pilots with an awareness of traffic in their vicinity. It is A cruising technique resulting in a net increase in altitude as
not a class of airspace and the CFA frequency is not monitored the aircraft mass decreases. A clearance or instruction to carry
by ATC nor is it for use at uncontrolled aerodromes. out a cruise climb allows the pilot the option of climbing at any
given rate, as well as the option of levelling off at any intermediate
composite flight plan altitude.
A flight plan (FP) that specifies VFR operation for one portion
cruising altitude
of flight and IFR for another portion.
The altitude, as shown by a constant altimeter indication in
contact approach relation to a fixed and defined datum, maintained during a flight
An approach wherein an aircraft on an IFR flight plan (FP), or portion thereof.
having an ATC authorization and operating clear of clouds with
day
at least 1 mi. flight visibility and a reasonable expectation of
continuing to the destination airport in those conditions, may The time between the beginning of morning civil twilight and
deviate from the instrument approach procedure (IAP) and the end of evening civil twilight.
proceed to the destination airport by visual reference to the • also called: daylight
surface of the earth.
dead reckoning navigation (DR)
continuous descent final approach (CDFA)
The estimating or determining of position by advancing an
A technique, consistent with stabilized approach procedures, earlier known position by the application of direction, time and
for f lying the final approach segment of a non-precision speed data.
instrument approach procedure as a continuous descent, without
level-off, from an altitude/height at or above the FAF altitude/ decision altitude (DA)
height to a point approximately 15 m (50 ft) above the landing
A specified altitude in the precision approach or approach with
runway threshold or the point where the flare manoeuvre should
vertical guidance at which a missed approach must be initiated
begin for the type of aircraft flown.
if the required visual reference to continue the approach to land
• also called: constant descent final approach has not been established.
controlled airspace
An airspace of defined dimensions within which ATC service
is provided.
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A specified height in the precision approach or approach with The time at which it is expected that further clearance will be
vertical guidance at which a missed approach must be initiated issued to an aircraft.
if the required visual reference to continue the approach to land
has not been established. expedite (to)
An expression used by ATC when prompt compliance is required
NOTE: to avoid the development of an imminent situation.
Decision height (DH) is referenced to the threshold elevation
and decision altitude (DA) is referenced to mean sea level (MSL). final approach area
The area within which the final approach portion of an instrument
defence visual flight rules (DVFR)
approach procedure (IAP) is carried out.
Rules applicable to flights within an air defence identification
zone (ADIZ) conducted under VFR. final approach course fix (FACF)
A fix and/or waypoint located on the final approach course of
directed bright light source
an instrument approach procedure (IAP)
Any directed light source that may create a hazard to aviation
(a) prior to the point of glide path (GP) intercept on a precision
safety or cause damage to an aircraft or injury to persons on
approach procedure;
board.
(b) prior to the final approach fix (FAF) on a non-precision
NOTE: approach procedure that has a designated FAF;
Directed bright light sources include lasers, searchlights,
(c) prior to any stepdown fixes on a non-precision approach
spotlights, and image projectors.
procedure with designated fixes but no FAF; or
downwind termination waypoint (DTW) (d) at a point that would permit a normal landing approach on
a non-precision approach procedure with no FAF or
The waypoint located downwind to the landing runway abeam stepdown fixes.
the final approach course fix (FACF) where an open RNAV
STAR terminates. final approach fix (FAF)
engineered material arresting system (EMAS) The fix of a non-precision instrument approach procedure (IAP)
where the final approach segment commences.
A soft ground arrestor system, located beyond the end of the
runway and centred on the extended runway centreline, that final approach segment
deforms under the weight of an aircraft, bringing it to a safe stop
That part of an instrument approach procedure (IAP) from the
in the event of an overrun without structural damage to the
time that the aircraft
aircraft or injury to its occupants.
(a) completes the last procedure turn or base turn, where one
NOTE: is specified;
EMAS beds are made up of a grouping of blocks of crushable
(b) intercepts the last track specified for the procedure;
cellular concrete that will reliably deform under the weight of
an aircraft. (c) (for non-precision approaches) crosses the final approach
fix (FAF), final approach waypoint (FAWP) or final approach
evening civil twilight point (FAP); or
Relative to the standard meridians of the time zones, the period (d) (for precision approaches) crosses the point where the vertical
that begins at sunset and ends at the time specified by the Institute path or glide path intercepts the intermediate approach
of National Measurement Standards of the National Research segment altitude until the aircraft reaches the missed
Council of Canada. approach point (MAP).
• also called: final approach
NOTE:
Evening civil twilight ends in the evening when the centre of flash blindness
the sun’s disc is 6° below the horizon.
The temporary or permanent inability to see caused by bright
light entering the eye and persisting after the illumination has
expected approach time (EAT)
ceased.
The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following
• see also: afterimage, glare
a delay, will leave the holding fix to complete its approach for
landing. flight information centre (FIC)
A centralized ATS unit that provides services pertinent to pre-
flight and the en-route phase of flight.
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An airspace of defined dimensions extending upwards from the A temporary disruption in vision caused by a bright light within
surface of the earth within which flight information service (FIS) an individual’s field of vision and lasting only as long as the light
and alerting service are provided. is present within that field of vision.
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high-intensity runway operations (HIRO) be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a
GEN
Operations, used atsome airports, that consist of optimizing position at which holding or en route obstacle clearance criteria
separation of aircraft on final approach in order to minimize apply.
runway occupancy time (ROT) for both arriving and departing • also called: instrument approach
aircraft so as to increase runway capacity.
instrument meteorological conditions (IMC)
high-level air route Meteorological conditions less than the minima specified in
In high-level airspace (HLA), a prescribed track between specified Subpart 602 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs) for
fixes. visual meteorological conditions (VMC), expressed in terms of
visibility and distance from cloud.
NOTE:
On aeronautical charts, high-level air routes are indicated by intermediate approach segment
letters such as “T” or “NAT.” That part of an instrument approach procedure (IAP) between
the intermediate approach fix (IF) or waypoint and the final
high-level airspace (HLA) approach fix (FAF), waypoint or point, or between the end of a
All airspace within the Canadian Domestic Airspace (CDA) at track reversal, racetrack or dead-reckoning track procedure and
or above 18 000 ft ASL. the FAF, waypoint or point, as appropriate. It is in this part of
the procedure that aircraft configuration, speed and positioning
high-level airway adjustments are made for entry into the final approach segment.
In controlled high-level airspace (HLA), a prescribed track • also called: intermediate approach
between specified fixes.
intersection (INTXN)
NOTE:
As the circumstances require, this may be
On aeronautical charts, high-level airways are indicated by the
letter “J” (e.g. J500). (a) a point on the surface of the earth over which two or more
position lines intersect. The position lines may be true
ICAO three-letter designator (ICAO 3LD) bearings from non-directional beacons (NDB) (magnetic
bearings shown on chart for pilot usage); radials from VHF/
An exclusive designator that, when used together with a flight UHF NAVAIDs; centrelines of airways, fixed RNAV routes
number, becomes the aircraft call sign and provides distinct or air routes; localizers; or DME distances; or
aircraft identification to ATS.
(b) the point where two runways, a runway and a taxiway, or
NOTE: two taxiways cross or meet.
A telephony designator associated with an ICAO 3LD is used
for radio communication. Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)
Operations that include simultaneous takeoffs and landings
identification and/or simultaneous landings when a landing aircraft is able
The process of ascertaining that a particular target is the ATS and is instructed by the controller to hold short of the intersecting
surveillance observation from a specific aircraft. runway/taxiway or designated hold-short point.
“identified” NOTE:
This term replaces the term Simultaneous Intersecting Runway
An expression used by ATC to inform the pilot of an aircraft Operations (SIRO)
when identification is established.
laser (or light amplification by stimulated emission of
initial approach segment
radiation)
That part of an instrument approach procedure (IAP) between
A device that produces an intense, directional, coherent beam
the initial approach fix (IAF) or waypoint and the intermediate
of light.
approach fix (IF) or waypoint during which the aircraft departs
the en route phase of flight and manoeuvres to enter the low approach
intermediate segment.
An approach over an airport or runway following an instrument
• also called: initial approach approach procedure (IAP) or VFR approach, including the
overshoot manoeuvre, where the pilot intentionally does not
instrument approach procedure (IAP)
make contact with the runway.
A series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight
instruments with specified protection from obstacles from the
initial approach fix (IAF), or where applicable, from the beginning
of a defined arrival route to a point from which a landing can
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Within low-level uncontrolled airspace, a route extending A controlled airspace of defined dimensions normally established
upwards from the surface of the earth and for which ATC service in the vicinity of a military aerodrome and within which special
is not provided. procedures and exemptions exist for military aircraft. The
terminology (Class B, C, D or E equivalent) used for the
low-level airspace (LLA) designations of MTCAs describes the equivalent level of service
All airspace within the Canadian Domestic Airspace (CDA) and operating rules for civilian aircraft operating within the
below 18 000 ft ASL. MTCA and under military control.
NOTE: NOTE:
This term is used on flight plans (FP) and in radiotelephony This altitude is published on aeronautical charts.
communications if a pilot determines that a priority is required minimum reception altitude (MRA)
and is suffixed to the aircraft identification.
When applied to a specific VHF/UHF intersection, the lowest
military operations area (MOA) altitude above sea level (ASL) at which acceptable navigational
signal coverage is received to determine the intersection.
An airspace of defined dimensions established to segregate
certain military activities from IFR traffic and to identify, for minimum sector altitude (MSA)
VFR traffic, where these activities are conducted. The lowest altitude that will provide a minimum clearance of
1000 ft, under conditions of standard temperature and pressure
above all objects located in an area contained within a sector of
a circle with a 25 NM radius centred on a radio aid to navigation
or a specified point.
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The lowest altitude for vectoring aircraft by ATC that meets Any visual or electronic device, airborne or on the surface of
obstacle clearance and radio coverage requirements in the airspace the earth, that provides point-to-point guidance information or
specified. position data to aircraft in flight.
• also called: navigational aid
missed approach point (MAP)
The point on the final approach course that signifies the navigation system error (NSE)
termination of the final approach and the commencement of The difference between true and estimated position. The NSE
the missed approach segment. It may be is defined during navigation system certification.
(a) the intersection of an electronic glide path (GP) with a
decision height (DH); night
(b) a NAVAID located on the aerodrome; The time between the end of evening civil twilight and the
beginning of morning civil twilight.
(c) a suitable fix (e.g. distance measuring equipment [DME]);
or non-precision approach procedure
(d) a specified distance beyond the NAVAID or final approach An instrument approach procedure (IAP) in which only electronic
fix (FAF), not to exceed the distance from that NAVAID or azimuth information is provided. No electronic glide path (GP)
fix to the nearest boundary of the aerodrome. information is provided and obstacle assessment in the final
segment is based on minimum descent altitude (MDA).
missed approach segment
That part of an instrument approach procedure (IAP) between non-RVSM aircraft
the missed approach point (MAP), the missed approach An aircraft that does not meet reduced vertical separation
waypoint (MAWP), or the point of arrival at decision height (DH), minimum (RVSM) requirements for certification and/or for
and the specified missed approach NAVAID, intersection, fix operator approval.
or waypoint, as appropriate, at the minimum IFR altitude. It is
in this part of the approach procedure that the aircraft climbs Northern Control Area (NCA) (see RAC Figure 2.3)
and returns to the en route structure or is positioned for holding A controlled airspace within the Northern Domestic
or a subsequent approach. The route of flight and altitudes are Airspace (NDA) at FL 230 and above.
depicted on instrument approach charts.
• also called: missed approach Northern Domestic Airspace (NDA) (see RAC Figure 2.1)
As geographically delineated in the Designated Airspace
morning civil twilight Handbook (DAH), a subdivision of Canadian Domestic
Relative to the standard meridians of the time zones, the period Airspace (CDA) commencing at the North Pole and extending
that begins at the time specified by the Institute for National southward to the northern limit of the Southern Domestic
Measurement Standards of the National Research Council of Airspace (SDA).
Canada and ends at sunrise.
North Warning System (NWS)
NOTE:
Morning civil twilight begins in the morning when the centre A multiradar system that provides airspace surveillance and
of the sun’s disc is 6° below the horizon. command and control capability for air defence identification
over the northern approaches to North America.
mountainous region (see RAC Figure 2.10)
NOTAM
An area of defined lateral dimensions above which special rules
A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing
concerning minimum en route altitudes (MEA) apply.
information concerning the establishment, condition or change
movement area in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure or hazard, the
timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned
The part of an aerodrome that is intended to be used for the with flight operations.
surface movement of aircraft and that includes the manoeuvring
area and aprons. obstacle (OBST)
multiple-touch and-gos All fixed (whether temporary or permanent) and mobile objects,
or parts thereof, that are located on an area intended for the
A procedure in which an aircraft makes more than one touch- surface movement of aircraft or that extend above a defined
and-go during a single pass along a runway. surface intended to protect aircraft in flight.
• see also: touch-and-go • also called: obstruction
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The airspace above the inner approach surface, inner transitional One or more runways designated and published by the airport
surfaces, and balked landing surface and that portion of the operator whose selection directs aircraft away from noise-sensitive
strip bounded by these surfaces, which is not penetrated by any areas during the initial departure and final approach phases of
fixed obstacle other than a low-mass and frangibly mounted one flight. Designation of preferential runways may be governed by
required for air navigation purposes. time restrictions, weather, runway conditions, airport layout,
aircraft routings or capacity maximization.
obstruction
• also called: obstacle procedure turn (PT)
A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated
pavement classification number (PCN) track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the
Numbers expressing, in ICAO terminology, the bearing strength aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the
of a pavement for unrestricted operations in a similar fashion designated track.
to Transport Canada’s pavement load rating (PLR).
procedure turn inbound
path definition error (PDE) The point of a procedure turn manoeuvre where course reversal
The difference between desired and defined paths which reflects has been completed and an aircraft is established inbound on
errors in the navigation database, computational errors in the the intermediate approach or final approach course. A report
RNAV system and display errors. PDE is usually very small and of “procedure turn inbound” is normally used by ATC as a
often assumed to be negligible. position report for separation purposes.
NOTE: Q-routes
Performance requirements are expressed in navigation Q-routes are high-level fixed RNAV routes depicted on En Route
specifications in terms of accuracy, integrity, continuity, High Altitude charts using black dashed lines and require an
availability and functionality needed for the proposed operation. RNAV system with performance capabilities currently only met
by GNSS or distance measuring equipment/inertial reference
pilot briefing unit (DME/DME/IRU) systems. DME/DME/IRU navigation
The provision of, or consultation on, meteorological and may be limited in some parts of Canada owing to navigational
aeronautical information to assist pilots in pre-flight planning. facility coverage. In such cases, the routes will be annotated as
“GNSS only” on the chart.
• also called: pre-flight pilot briefing
radial (R)
precision approach radar (PAR)
A magnetic bearing from a VHF omnidirectional range (VOR),
A high-definition, short-range radar used as an approach aid. tactical air navigation aid (TACAN), or VORTAC facility, except
This system provides the controller with altitude, azimuth and for facilities in the Northern Domestic Airspace (NDA), which
range information of high accuracy for the purpose of assisting may be oriented on true or grid north.
the pilot in executing an approach and landing. This form of
navigation assistance is termed “precision radar approach”. reduced vertical separation minimum (RVSM)
pre-departure clearance (PDC) The application of 1 000-ft vertical separation at and above
FL 290 between aircraft approved to operate in reduced vertical
An initial IFR clearance delivered electronically via air-ground separation minimum airspace.
data link (AGDL) to airline companies with an on-site computer
capable of interfacing with ATC and the data link service provider. reduced-visibility operations plan (RVOP)
NOTE: A plan that calls for specific procedures established by the
Following initial delivery of the clearance to the air operator, aerodrome operator and/or ATC when aerodrome visibility is
the latter may subsequently relay the clearance by non-electronic below RVR 2 600 (½ SM) down to and including RVR 1 200 (¼ SM).
means to the flight crew if the aircraft is not suitably equipped.
remotely piloted aircraft (RPA)
A navigable airctaft, other than a balloon, rocket or kite, that is
operated by a pilot who is not on board.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
A set of configurable elements consisting of a remotely piloted Any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence
aircraft, its control station, the command and control links and of an aircraft, vehicle, or person on the protected area of a surface
any other system elements required during flight operation. designated for the landing and takeoff of aircraft.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Southern Domestic Airspace (SDA) (see RAC Figure 2.1) terminal control area (TCA)
GEN
As geographically delineated in the Designated Airspace A controlled airspace of defined dimensions that is normally
Handbook (DAH), all airspace within the Canadian Domestic established in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes and
Airspace (CDA) commencing at the Canada-United States border within which ATC service is provided based on the airspace
and extending northward to the southern limit of the Northern classification.
Domestic Airspace (NDA).
threshold
“Squawk ident” The beginning of the portion of the runway usable for landing.
A request for a pilot to activate the aircraft transponder
identification feature. threshold crossing height (TCH)
The height of the glide path (GP) above the runway threshold.
standard instrument departure (SID)
A preplanned IFR departure procedure requiring ATC clearance total system error (TSE)
and published for pilot/controller use to provide obstacle clearance The difference between true position and desired position. This
and a transition from an aerodrome to the appropriate en route error is equal to the sum of the vectors of the PDE, FTE, and
structure. NSE.
NOTE: touch-and-go
IDs are published in the Canada Air Pilot (CAP) for pilot and
A procedure in which an aircraft lands and then takes off without
controller use. SIDs may be either:
stopping.
(a) pilot navigation SIDs: SIDs where the pilot is required to
use the applicable SID chart as reference for navigation to touchdown zone (TDZ)
the en route phase; or The first 3 000 ft of the runway or the first third of the runway,
(b) vector SIDs: SIDs established where ATC will provide whichever is less, measured from the threshold in the direction
navigational guidance to a filed or assigned route, or to a of landing.
fix depicted on the applicable SID chart. Pilots are expected
touchdown zone elevation (TDZE)
to use the SID chart as a reference for navigation until the
vector is commenced. The highest centreline elevation in the touchdown zone.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
T-routes are low-level controlled fixed RNAV routes depicted A change in wind speed and/or wind direction in a short distance.
on En Route Low Altitude charts using black dashed lines and
require GNSS RNAV systems for use. The airspace associated NOTE:
with T-routes extends upward from 2 200 ft AGL, 10 NM either Wind shear can exist in a horizontal or vertical direction and
side of the centreline, and does not splay. The MOCA provides occasionally in both.
obstacle protection for only 6 NM either side of the track centreline
and does not splay.
vector
A heading given by a controller to a pilot on the basis of ATS
surveillance-derived information to provide navigational
guidance.
• also called: vectoring
visual approach
An approach wherein an aircraft on an IFR flight plan (FP),
operating in visual meteorological conditions (VMC) under the
control of ATC and having ATC authorization, may proceed to
the airport of destination.
visual separation
A means used by controllers to separate aircraft operating in
visual meteorological conditions (VMC).
(a) VFR—The controller, having determined that a potential
conflict exists, issues clearances, instructions and/or
information as necessary to aid aircraft in establishing
visual contact with each other or to assist aircraft in avoiding
other aircraft.
(b) IFR or CVFR—Following a pilot’s report that the traffic is
in sight, the controller issues the clearance and instructs
the pilot to provide his or her own separation by manoeuvring
the aircraft as necessary to avoid or follow the traffic.
waypoint (WP)
A specified geographical location, defined by longitude and
latitude, that is used in the definition of routes and terminal
segments and for progress-reporting purposes.
“When ready...”
Authorization for an aircraft to comply with a clearance or
instruction at some point in the future when convenient.
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GEN
APV .................................. approach procedure with vertical guidance
AAE ..................................................above aerodrome elevation ARCAL.............................. aircraft radio control of aerodrome lighting
AAIR ...................Annual Airworthiness Information Report ARFF ....................................Aircraft Rescue and Fire Fighting
AAS ................................................ aerodrome advisory service ARP .................................................. aerodrome reference point
ABAS ................................aircraft-based augmentation system ASDA .................................... accelerate-stop distance available
AC .................................................................Advisory Circular ASDE ............................... airport surface detection equipment
ACA ..............................................................Arctic Control Area ASL ........................................................................above sea level
ACARS ....................aircraft communications addressing and ATA ............................................................actual time of arrival
reporting system ATC ...................................................................air traffic control
ACAS ................................airborne collision avoidance system ATF ............................................... aerodrome traffic frequency
ACC ................................................................area control centre ATFM ............................................ air traffic flow management
A-CDM .....................Airport Collaborative Decision Making ATIS ........................... automatic terminal information service
ACSC ........................... aircraft critical surface contamination ATM ....................................................... air traffic management
AD ......................................................Airworthiness Directive ATN ...................... aeronautical telecommunications network
ADB ................................................aviation document booklet ATPL............................................ airline transport pilot licence
ADCUS ............................................................ “Advise customs” ATS ...................................................................air traffic service
ADF .................................................. automatic direction finder AU ..............................................................approach UNICOM
ADIZ ..........................................air defence identification zone AVASI ................. abbreviated visual approach slope indicator
ADS ...................................automatic dependence surveillance AVGAS .............................................................. aviation gasoline
ADS-B .............automatic dependent surveillance - broadcast AVOPS............................................Aviation Operations Centre
ADS-C ...............automatic dependent surveillance - contract AWOS ......................... automated weather observation system
ADS WPR ........................... automatic dependent surveillance AWWS............................................. Aviation Weather Web Site
............................................ waypoint position report(ing) baro-VNAV .............................. barometric vertical navigation
AFCGS ................... automatic flight control guidance system BCST .............................................................................. broadcast
AFCS ........................................automatic flight control system BOTA ............................................Brest oceanic transition area
AFM...........................................................aircraft flight manual BPL ............................................................. balloon pilot licence
AFN ........................... air traffic services facilities notification BVLOS .............................................beyond visual line-of-sight
AFS ....................................................aeronautical fixed service C .....................................................................................Celsius
AFTN ..... Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunications Network CADORS ..............................Civil Aviation Daily Occurrence
AGL ................................................................above ground level Reporting System
AGN......................................................... aircraft group number CAE ..........................................................control area extension
AIC ......................................aeronautical information circular CAME .................................. Civil Aviation Medical Examiner
AIM ...........................Aeronautical Information Management CAP ................................................................... Canada Air Pilot
(NAV CANADA) CARs ....................................... Canadian Aviation Regulations
AIP ..............................Aeronautical Information Publication CARAC .... Canadian Aviation Regulation Advisory Council
AIRAC...................Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control CARC ........................... Civil Aviation Regulatory Committee
AIREP ............................................................................ air report CARS .............................. community aerodrome radio station
AIS ....................................... aeronautical information service CASARA..................Civil Air Search and Rescue Association
ALR ................................................................aircraft load rating CAT ...............................................................clear air turbulence
ALSF-2 ............................... approach lighting with sequenced CAT I, II, III ..................................................... Category I, II, III
flashers–CAT II CAVOK ................................................ceiling and visibility OK
ALT ....................................................................................altitude CDA ............................................. Canadian Domestic Airspace
ALTRV ..........................................................altitude reservation CDA ......................... departure clearance readback (data link)
AM ......................................................... amplitude modulation CDFA .......................................constant descent final approach
AMA.......................................................area minimum altitude CDI ...................................................course deviation indicator
AME .......................................... aircraft maintenance engineer CFA ...................................................... common frequency area
AMIS .......................... aircraft movement information service CFB ...........................................................Canadian Forces base
AMSL ..........................................................above mean sea level CFS .................................................. Canada Flight Supplement
ANS ........................................................... air navigation system CFIT ..............................................controlled flight into terrain
ANSP .........................................air navigation service provider CG .................................................................... centre of gravity
AOC ......................................................... air operator certificate CLD ...........................departure clearance message (data link)
AOC ................................................Aviation Operations Centre CLDN .......................Canadian Lightning Detection Network
AOE ......................................................................airport of entry CMA ...............................................Central Monitoring Agency
AOM ................................................. airport operations manual CMAC ...................Canadian Meteorological Aviation Centre
APAPI............................abbreviated precision approach path indicator CMC ......................................Canadian Meteorological Centre
APREQ............................................................................... approval request CMNPS ............Canadian minimum navigationperformance
specifications
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
CMNPSA ........Canadian minimum navigation performance FANS ............................................future air navigation systems
GEN
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GEN
IAWP ..................................................initial approach waypoint MAWP .............................................missed approach waypoint
ICAO .....................International Civil Aviation Organization mb ...................................................................................millibar
IF .....................................................................intermediate fix MCDU ..........................multipurpose control and display unit
IFF ................................................. identification, friend or foe MCTOW .......................maximum certificated takeoff weight
IFR .........................................................instrument flight rules MDA .................................................minimum descent altitude
IFSS .....................................international flight service station MEA ................................................minimum en route altitude
IFT ........................................................... instrument flight test MEDEVAC ........................................medical evacuation flight
ILS ................................................. instrument landing system MEHT ............................. minimum eye height over threshold
IMC ..............................instrument meteorological conditions MEL .....................................................minimum equipment list
INF ............................................................inland navigation fix MEO ............................................................. medium earth orbit
INS ................................................... inertial navigation system METAR .................. aerodrome routine meteorological report
INTXN ....................................................................... intersection MF ...........................................................mandatory frequency
IRCC ........... Immigration, Refugees and Citizenship Canada MF ................................................................medium frequency
IRS ......................................................inertial reference system MFAU ......................................... Military Flight Advisory Unit
IRU ...........................................................inertial reference unit MHA ................................................minimum holding altitude
ISA ..................................International Standard Atmosphere MHz...............................................................................megahertz
ISED...........Innovation, Science and Economic Development MLAT ....................................................................multilateration
Canada MLS .................................................. microwave landing system
IWP ....................................... intermediate approach waypoint MM .......................................................................middle marker
J or JET ..............................................................high-level airway MNPS ................. minimum navigation performance specifications
JRCC ......................................joint rescue co-ordination centre MNPSA ............................. minimum navigation performance
kg .................................................................................kilogram specifications airspace
kHz ................................................................................. kilohertz MOA ..................................................... military operations area
KIAS .....................................................knots indicated airspeed MOC .............................................minimum obstacle clearance
kN .............................................................................kilonewton MOCA ........................... minimum obstacle clearance altitude
kt ......................................................................................... knot MPa .............................................................................megapascal
LAAS .......................................local-area augmentation system mph ....................................................................... miles per hour
LAHSO..................................Land and Hold Short Operations MRA ..............................................minimum reception altitude
LAWO ............................limited aviation weather observation MRB ................................................magnetic reference bearing
lb ......................................................................................pound MSA .....................................................minimum sector altitude
LDA ................................................... landing distance available MSL ......................................................................Mean Sea Level
LED ............................................................. light-emitting diode MTCA ........................................military terminal control area
LEO ....................................................................... low earth orbit MTOW ..............................................maximum take-off weight
LF ........................................................................ low frequency MTSAT................................multifunctional transport satellite
LIAL ......................................... low intensity approach lighting MU .............................................. management unit (data link)
LIDAR .............................................light detection and ranging MVA ..............................................minimum vectoring altitude
LLA .................................................................. low-level airspace MVFR..............................................marginal visual flight rules
LOC .................................................................................. localizer MWO.............................................. meteorological watch office
LNAV................................................................ lateral navigation N ....................................................................................... north
LP ........... localizer performance without vertical guidance NAARMO ..............North American Approvals Registry and
LPV ................. localizer performance with vertical guidance Monitoring Organization
LRNS ............................................long range navigation system NACp.........................navigation accuracy category—position
LVOP ............................................low visibility operations plan NADP ............................noise abatement departure procedure
LWIS .................................limited weather information system NAR ......................................................... North American route
MA ................................................................... missed approach NASA..........National Aeronautics and Space Administration
MALS .................medium intensity approach lighting system (USA)
MALSF ......medium intensity approach lighting system with NAT .......................................................................North Atlantic
sequenced flashing lights NAT HLA ...........................North Atlantic high-level airspace
MALSR ..medium intensity approach lighting system with runway NATO ...............................North Atlantic Treaty Organization
alignment indicator lights NAVAID.................................................................navigation aid
MANAB ....................................Manual of Word Abbreviations NCA ........................................................Northern Control Area
MANAIR . Manual of Standards and Procedures for Aviation NCATS .................. National Civil Air Transportation System
Weather Forecasts NDA..............................................Northern Domestic Airspace
MANOBS................ Manual of Surface Weather Observations NDB ........................................................non-directional beacon
MANOT ................................................. missing aircraft notice NIC ..............................................navigation integrity category
MAP ........................................................missed approach point NM .......................................................................... nautical mile
MASPS .......................minimum aircraft system performance NOHD .................................Nominal Ocular Hazard Distance
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
SSALR .......... simplified short approach lighting system with VASIS...........................visual approach slope indicator system
GEN
runway alignment indicator lights (generic term)
SSALS .................... simplified short approach lighting system VCOA ........................................... visual climb over the airport
SSB ......................................................................single sideband VCS ..........................................................vehicle control service
SSR ..............................................secondary surveillance radar VDF ...........................................................VHF direction finder
STAR ..................................................standard terminal arrival VDI .................................................vertical deviation indicator
STOL aircraft ......................short takeoff and landing aircraft VDL ....................................................................VHF digital link
SVFR................................................................special VFR flight VDR ..................................................................... VHF data radio
SVM .......................................................... service volume model VFR ..................................................................visual flight rules
SVN ....................................................... satellite vehicle number VGSS................................................ voice generator sub-system
T ..........................................................................................true VHF ..............................................................very high frequency
TA ......................................................................traffic advisory VLF ................................................................very low frequency
TAA .......... .................................................. terminal arrival area VLOS ..............................................................visual line-of-sight
TAC ...............................................................terminal area chart VMC ...................................... visual meteorological conditions
TACAN ..............................................tactical air navigation aid VNAP ................................vertical noise abatement procedure
TAF ...............................................................aerodrome forecast VNAV .............................................................vertical navigation
TAS ..........................................................................true airspeed VNC...........................................................VFR navigation chart
TATC .................. Transportation Appeal Tribunal of Canada VOLMET .......................in-flight meteorological information
TAWS ..........................terrain awareness and warning system VOR ............................................... VHF omnidirectional range
TC .................................................................Transport Canada VORTAC .............................combination of VOR and TACAN
TC AIM.............Transport Canada Aeronautical Information VPA ................................................................ vertical path angle
Manual VTA ......................................................VFR terminal area chart
TCCA ....................................Transport Canada Civil Aviation VTOL aircraft .................vertical takeoff and landing aircraft
TCA ........................................................... terminal control area W ......................................................................................... west
TCAS I/II ............ traffic alert and collision avoidance system WAAS ...................................... wide area augmentation system
TCH .................................................... threshold crossing height WAFC.................................................world area forecast centre
TCU ............................................................terminal control unit WAFS ............................................... world area forecast system
TDOA ..................................................time difference of arrival WMO .............................. World Meteorological Organization
TDZ ....................................................................touchdown zone WP .................................................................................waypoint
TDZE .................................................touchdown zone elevation WPR ........................................... waypoint position report(ing)
TDZL ...................................................touchdown zone lighting WS ..............................................................................wind shear
TIBA .........................traffic information broadcast by aircraft zulu (Z).........................................Coordinated Universal Time
TLOF .............................................. touchdown and lift-off area
TMI ............................................... track message identification NOTES:
TOD .........................................................................top of descent 1. The Supplements contain additional abbreviations applicable
TODA ................................................take-off distance available to aeronautical charts and publications.
TORA ........................................................take-off run available
2. Abbreviations typical of meteorology are contained in
TP ........................................... Transport Canada publication
MET 14.0.
TRA .................................................................... tower radar area
TRB ........................................................ true reference bearings
TRP ....................................................................tower radar plan
TSB ........................... Transportation Safety Board of Canada
TSE ..................................................................total system error
TSO ...................................................Technical Standard Order
TSR ................................................ terminal surveillance radar
TWR ........................................................................ control tower
UAS ..................................................unmanned aircraft system
UAV .......................................................... unmanned air vehicle
ULP ..........................................................ultralight pilot permit
UHF ..............................................................ultrahigh frequency
UNICOM.........................................universal communications
USB ......................................................................upper sideband
UTC ..............................................Coordinated Universal Time
VAA ........................................................... volcanic ash advisory
VAAC ............................................ volcanic ash advisory centre
VAGS ................................Visual Alignment Guidance System
VAS ....................................................... vehicle advisory service
VASI..........................................visual approach slope indicator
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
CARs TC AIM
CAR Name
Subpart No. Paragraph No.
421 Flight Crew Permits, Licences and Ratings LRA 1.1, 1.5, 1.6, 1.7, 1.12, 1.14.4
Part V Airworthiness
507 Flight Authority and Certificate of Noise Compliance LRA 5.1, 5.3.1, 5.3.3 , 5.3.4, 5.3.5
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
CARs TC AIM
GEN
CAR Name
Subpart No. Paragraph No.
603 Special Flight Operations RAC 1.9, 2.5.2, AIR 4.7.1, 4.8
Part VIII Air Navigation Services GEN 1.3.1, RAC 2.1, NAT 1.1.2
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
The CARAC Activity Reporting System, accessible at <http:// To report an aircraft accident, occurrence or incident, contact
GEN
wwwapps.tc.gc.ca/Saf-Sec-Sur/2/NPA-APM/crs.aspx>, provides the AOC 24 hours a day, seven days a week at:
supportive documentation on any given issue that aviation Tel. (toll-free): ..................................................1-877-992-6853
stakeholders were consulted on. These documents include Tel.: ....................................................................... 613-992-6853
preliminary issue and consultation assessments, notice of Fax (toll-free): ..................................................1-866-993-7768
proposed amendments, focus group reports, decision records Fax:........................................................................613-993-7768
and documents presented at the plenary.
<http://wwwapps.tc.gc.ca/saf-sec-sur/2/IR-RI/av_i_r.
aspx?lang=eng>.
5.4.7 Information
The information presented in this part is in the process of being
published in greater detail in a revised CARAC Management 7.0 CIVIL AVIATION ISSUES
Charter and Procedures. Those interested in becoming CARAC REPORTING SYSTEM (CAIRS)
members or wishing to obtain more information about CARAC
may contact the CARAC Secretariat by mail, telephone or e-mail As of March 31, 2016, the Civil Aviation Issues Reporting
at: System (CAIRS) is no longer in operation.
Transport Canada (AARBH) The aviation community and the public can report issues,
CARAC Secretariat concerns and hazards to the Civil Aviation Communications
330 Sparks Street Centre.
Ottawa ON K1A 0N8
In an effort to maintain confidentiality, steps have been taken
Tel.: .......................................................................613-990-1847 by the communications centre to handle confidential enquiries;
E-mail: .............................................................carrac@tc.gc.ca however, incoming submissions must be clearly marked, in title
and body, as confidential.
6.0 AVIATION OPERATIONS Please send all enquiries to the Civil Aviation Communications
Centre:
CENTRE (AOC) Civil Aviation Communications Centre (AARC)
Transport Canada
6.1 AVIATION OPERATIONS CENTRE Place de Ville, Tower C, 5th floor
(AOC)—CIVIL AVIATION ACCIDENT, 330 Sparks Street
OCCURRENCE AND INCIDENT Ottawa ON K1A 0N8
REPORTING
Tel.: ...................................................................1-800-305-2059
The Aviation Operations Centre (AOC) monitors the national Fax: .......................................................................613-957-4208
civil air transportation system (NCATS) 24 hours a day, seven E-mail: ........................................................... [email protected]
days a week and responds to NCATS emergencies that require
the attention or coordination of concerned functional branches,
including regional offices and other departments or agencies.
The AOC is the initial point of contact for all aviation-related
occurrences. It receives reports on accidents, occurrences and
any incidents that occur within the NCATS from various sources,
including NAV CANADA, airport authorities, Public Safety
Canada, law enforcement agencies, other government
departments, foreign governments, and the general public. These
reports are continuously monitored and then distributed to the
appropriate functional areas of Transport Canada Civil
Aviation (TCCA) for review, trend analysis, investigation (if
necessary), and final inclusion in the Civil Aviation Daily
Occurrence Reporting System (CADORS).
Reports requiring a regional, modal, multi-modal, inter-
departmental, or an outside agency’s attention are immediately
forwarded to that agency for further action. For more information
about the AOC, please see AIP Canada ENR 1.14 available on
the NAV CANADA Web site.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
GEN
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
1.0 GENERAL INFORMATION At Canadian aerodromes where snow removal and ice control
operations are conducted, assessment and mitigation procedures
are carried out to the extent that is practicable in order to provide
1.1 GENERAL movement surfaces that will permit safe operational use.
All flights into, from, or over the territory of Canada and all Pilots who are confronted with conditions produced by the
flights landing in such territory shall be carried out in accordance ever-changing Canadian climate must be familiar with and
AGA
with Canada’s civil aviation regulations. Aircraft arriving into anticipate the overall effect of contaminated runways on aircraft
or departing from the territory of Canada must first land at an handling characteristics in order to take any corrective actions
aerodrome at which customs control facilities have been provided. considered necessary for flight safety.
For information about which aerodromes provide customs
In general terms, whenever a contaminant, such as water, snow,
service, see the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) or the Canada
or ice, is present on the runway surface, the effective coefficient
Water Aerodrome Supplement (CWAS), Section B, “Aerodrome/
of friction between the aircraft tire and runway is reduced.
Facility Directory.” If the heading CUST (customs) appears in
However, the accelerate-stop distance, landing distance, and
the left-hand column of an aerodrome table, the aerodrome is
crosswind limitations contained in the AFM are demonstrated
an airport of entry (AOE) with customs service.
in accordance with specified performance criteria on dry runways
The privileges extended to aircraft are subject to proper during the aircraft certification flight test program and are thus
authorization of each flight and to whatever restrictions the valid only when the runway is dry.
Government of Canada may, from time to time, or in specific
As a result, the stop portion of the accelerate-stop distance will
cases, deem to be warranted.
increase, the landing distance will increase, and a crosswind
will present directional control difficulties.
1.1.1 Aerodrome Authority
It is therefore expected that pilots will take all necessary action,
Transport Canada is responsible for the surveillance of all certified including the application of any appropriate adjustment factor
civil aerodromes in Canada. Contact information for to calculate stopping distances for their aircraft as may be required
Transport Canada’s offices can be found in GEN 1.1.1. based on the RSC and CRFI information.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
1.2.1 International Civil Aviation airports. Aerodrome users are, however, reminded that the
Organization (ICAO) Definitions improvement of aerodrome physical characteristics, visual aids,
lighting, and markings beyond the basic regulatory requirements
International Scheduled Air Transport, Regular Use (RS): An
for aerodromes stated in CAR 301 is a matter of individual
aerodrome which may be listed in the flight plan as an aerodrome
aerodrome operators’ initiative. Such improvements do not
of intended landing.
require regulatory compliance, nor are those improvements
International Scheduled Air Transport, Alternate Use (AS): An inspected or certified in accordance with the standards and
aerodrome specified in the flight plan to which a flight may recommended practices applicable for the certification of
proceed when it becomes inadvisable to land at the aerodrome aerodromes as airports, heliports, or water airports.
of intended landing.
AGA
International General Aviation, Regular Use (RG): All aircraft 2.1.1 Registration
other than those operated on an international air service. Subsection 301 also regulates the “Registration” process, which
is used to publish and maintain information on an aerodrome
NOTE:
in the CFS or the CWAS. The regulation specifies that an
Any of the listed regular aerodromes may be used as a regular
aerodrome operator can expect:
or alternate aerodrome.
(a) to have their aerodrome registered in the appropriate
publication when they provide the necessary information
1.3 AERODROME DIRECTORY
with respect to location, markings, lighting, use, and
Complete general data on Canadian aerodromes is listed in the operation of the aerodrome;
Canada Flight Supplement (CFS). ICAO Type A Charts are
(b) to have their aerodrome denied registration in the appropriate
available from NAV CANADA’s Aeronautical Information
publication if they do not meet the aerodrome regulatory
Management (AIM) (see MAP 4.2.1 and <https://www.navcanada.
requirements for markers and markings, warning notices,
ca/en/aeronautical-information/instrument-flight-rules-ifr-
wind direction indicator, and lighting;
publications-.aspx>).
(c) to assume responsibility of immediately notifying the
1.4 AERONAUTICAL GROUND LIGHTS Minister of any changes in the aerodrome’s published
information regarding its location, markings, lighting, use,
Information on aeronautical ground lights can be found in the or operation; and
Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) under the LIGHTING entry
(d) to have their aerodrome classed as a registered aerodrome
in the table of the aerodrome they serve or on visual flight
when it is published in the CFS or CWAS.
rules (VFR) navigational charts.
NOTE:
2.0 AERODROMES AND AIRPORTS No aerodrome operator is obliged by these regulations to have
information published in the CFS or CWAS. The Minister may
choose not to publish information for a site that is considered
2.1 GENERAL to be hazardous to aviation safety.
An aerodrome is defined by the Aeronautics Act as:
In addition to the initial inspection during the application for
Any area of land, water (including the frozen surface thereof) registration, other inspections are done on an as-required basis,
or other supporting surface used, designed, prepared, equipped once the aerodromes are registered, to verify their compliance
or set apart for use either in whole or in part for the arrival, with CARs and the accuracy of their information as it is published
departure, movement or servicing of aircraft and includes in the CFS or the CWAS. Such information, however, is only
any buildings, installations and equipment situated thereon published for the convenience of the pilot and should be confirmed
or associated therewith. through contact with the aerodrome operator before the pilot
This has a very broad application for Canada where there are uses a site.
no general restrictions preventing landings or takeoffs. There
are defined exceptions, but, for the most part, all of Canada can 2.1.2 Certification
be an aerodrome. Besides “aerodrome” and “registered aerodrome,” other terms
Rules for operating an aerodrome are provided in Part III of the include “airport,” “heliport,” and “water airport.” These are
Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs) under Subpart 301. The aerodromes for which a certificate has been issued under
objective is to define the minimum safety standards that must Subpart 302 of the CARs or Subpart 305 for heliports. The
be offered as well as to make provision for inspection by the objective is to protect those, such as the fare-paying public and
Minister. Aerodrome operators are encouraged, in the interest residents in the vicinity of an airport, who do not have the
of aviation safety, efficiency, and convenience, to improve their knowledge or ability to protect themselves and who could thus
aerodromes beyond the basic regulatory requirements using, as be affected by unsafe operations. This is achieved by ensuring
guidelines, the standards and recommended practices applicable sites are inspected periodically for compliance with
for the certification of aerodromes as airports, heliports, or water Transport Canada standards for obstacle limitation surfaces,
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that it is in the public interest for that aerodrome to meet
An aerodrome, airport, or heliport listed in the Canada Flight the requirements necessary for the issuance of an airport
Supplement (CFS) or the Canada Water Aerodrome certificate because it would further the safe operation of
Supplement (CWAS) that does not require prior permission of the aerodrome.
the aerodrome or airport operator for aircraft operations is
Exemptions include:
called a public-use aerodrome, airport, or heliport.
(a) military aerodromes; and
An aerodrome, airport, or heliport that can be listed in the CFS
or CWAS but whose use can be limited is called a private-use (b) aerodromes for which the Minister has written an exemption
aerodrome. This can include: and an equivalent level of safety is defined.
(a) Prior Permission Required (PPR): The aerodrome operator’s
permission is required prior to use. All military aerodromes 2.3.3 Transport Canada’s Responsibilities
require PPR for Civilian aircraft. The responsibilities of Transport Canada include:
(b) Prior Notice Required (PN): The aerodrome operator owner (a) developing safety standards, policies, and criteria for
or operator is to be notified prior to use so that current elements such as, but not limited to:
information on the aerodrome may be provided.
(i) physical characteristics of the manoeuvring area,
NOTES: including separations,
1. Pilots and aerodrome operators are reminded that trespass (ii) marking and lighting, and
restrictions are not applicable to aircraft in distress. (iii) obstacle limitation surfaces in the vicinity of airports,
2. Pilots intending to use a non-certified aerodrome are advised heliports and water airports;
to obtain current information from the aerodrome operator (b) reviewing aeronautical studies where variances from airport
concerning operating conditions prior to using that certification safety standards are required;
aerodrome for aircraft operations.
(c) certifying and inspecting against the requirements and
conditions of the respective operations manuals (for airports,
2.3 AIRPORT/HELIPORT/WATER AIRPORT heliports, or water airports); and
CERTIFICATION
(d) verifying, amending, and relaying, as appropriate, pertinent
2.3.1 General airport/heliport/water airport information to be identified
in the appropriate AIS publications.
Transport Canada is responsible for the regulatory development
and compliance oversight in support of a safe national air 2.3.4 Operator’s Responsibilities
transportation system. Therefore, airports supporting commercial
operations involving the carrying of passengers must meet The responsibilities of the operator of an airport/heliport/water
accepted safety standards. The airport operator that holds an airport include, but are not limited to:
airport certificate testifies that the aerodrome meets such safety (a) complying with the applicable regulations and standards
standards. Where variances from airport certification safety in Part III of CARs;
standards are required, studies will be undertaken to devise
offsetting procedures, which will provide equivalent levels (b) completing and distributing an approved operations manual;
of safety. (c) maintaining the facility in accordance with the requirements
specified in the airport/heliport/water airport operations
manual; and
(d) advising Transport Canada and aircraft operators whenever
services or facilities fall below requirements prescribed in
the operations manual or differ from the information
published in the aeronautical publications for their
aerodrome.
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(a) the airport certificate, which certifies that the airport meets
(a) an approved variance from certification standards and a
required standards at the time of issuance; and
change in the conditions of certification are required;
(b) the operations manual, which details the airport
(b) there is a change in the use or operations of the airport; and
specifications, facilities, and services, and specifies the
responsibilities of the operator for the maintenance of airport (c) it is requested by the holder of the airport certificate.
certification standards. The operations manual is a reference
for airport operations and inspections, which ensures that 3.0 RUNWAY CHARACTERISTICS
variances from airport certification safety standards and
the resulting conditions of airport certification are approved.
3.1 RUNWAY LENGTH AND WIDTH
2.3.6 Regulatory References for Aerodrome Runways are generally dimensioned to accommodate an aircraft
Certification (Airport/Heliport/ considered to be the critical aircraft. Critical aircraft is defined
Water Airport) in the fifth edition of the Transport Canada publication titled
The regulatory authority for airport, heliport, and water Aerodrome Standards and Recommended Practices (TP 312) as
airport certification is Subpart 302 of the CARs. The regulatory “the aircraft identified as having the most demanding operational
authority for heliport certification can be found under Part III requirements with respect to the determination of movement
of the CARs, which includes reference to the respective compliance area dimensions, and other aerodrome physical characteristics
standards for aerodrome certification. Depending on the date at the aerodrome or part thereof”. To identify the critical aircraft,
on which the certificate was initially issued, some aerodrome flight manual performance data of a variety of aircraft is
operators may be complying with previous versions of the examined. Once the critical aircraft has been determined, the
certification standards. longest distance determined after analyzing both take-off and
landing performance is used as the basis for runway dimensions.
Generally, the runway width can be increased by a maximum
2.4 AIRPORT/HELIPORT/WATER AIRPORT
of 60 m as a function of length.
CERTIFICATE
3.2 RUNWAY STRIP
2.4.1 Issue
Each runway is bounded by a runway strip on its sides and ends
A certificate will be issued when an inspection confirms that
to protect aircraft that overfly the runway at very low altitudes
all requirements for airport certification have been met, including
during a balked approach for landing. This is achieved by
the following:
restricting the presence of objects to only those that must be in
(a) where variance from the certification standards exists, proximity of the runway as part of normal operations and by
measures have been implemented to provide for an equivalent prescribing frangibility requirements.
level of safety; and
(b) the operations manual has been approved by the Regional 3.3 RUNWAY SAFETY AREA
Director, Civil Aviation. Each runway is bounded by a prepared area on its sides and
ends, within the dimensions of the runway strip. It is graded to
prevent catastrophic damage to aircraft leaving the runway sides.
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distances. The displacements are also depicted on the aerodrome distances, which are defined in the fifth edition of the Aerodrome
or airport diagram in both the CAP and the Canada Flight Standards and Recommended Practices (TP 312) as follows:
Supplement (CFS). For other runways that do not have approaches
published in the CAP, the requisite data is given in the CFS. “The distances that the aerodrome operator declares available
Where a threshold is displaced, it is marked as shown in AGA 5.4.1, for aircraft take-off run, take-off distance, accelerate stop
Figure 5.5. distance, and landing distance requirements. The distances are
categorized as follows:
When the portion of the runway preceding the threshold is
marked with arrows (see AGA 5.4.1), it is permissible to use that (a) Take-off run available (TORA): The length of runway
portion of the runway for taxiing, takeoff, and landing roll-out declared available and suitable for the ground run of an
from the opposite direction. When taking off from the end aircraft taking off.
opposite the threshold, pilots should be aware of the fact that (b) Take-off distance available (TODA): The length of the takeoff
there are obstacles present that have penetrated above the run available plus the length of the clearway, if provided.
approach slope leading to the physical end of the runway and
(c) Accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA): The length of
have resulted in the threshold being displaced. In some cases,
the takeoff run available plus the length of the stopway, if
this may result in the publication of a specified climb and/or
provided.
visibility.
(d) Landing distance available (LDA): The length of the runway
3.6 RUNWAY TURN PAD available and suitable for the ground run of an aircraft
landing.”
Some runways have thresholds that are not served directly by
taxiways. In such cases, there may be a runway turn pad, a widened 3.11 RAPID-EXIT TAXIWAYS
area that can be used to facilitate turnaround. Pilots are cautioned
that these pads do not give sufficient clearance from the runway To reduce the aircraft runway occupancy time, some aerodromes
edge and thus cannot be used for holding while other aircraft or airports provide rapid-exit taxiways, which are connected to
are using the runway. the runway at an angle of approximately 30 degrees.
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heliport does not require a runway, but instead requires a final H2 heliports do have suitable and available emergency landing
approach and take-off area (FATO). The FATO is 1.5 times larger areas within 625 m of the FATO; however, they may only be used
than the longest helicopter for which the heliport is certified by multi-engine helicopters because the associated approach
and is surrounded by a safety area, which is to be kept free of slopes are higher due to high obstacles within the approach/
obstacles, other than visual aids. departure pathways.
Figure 3.1—FATO/Safety Area H3 heliports have suitable and available emergency landing areas
within 625 m of the FATO and no obstacles that penetrate the
OLSs; they may therefore be used by single- or multi-engine
helicopters. Heliport classifications are specified in the CFS.
4.1 GENERAL
The safe and efficient use of an aerodrome, airport, or heliport
can be seriously compromised by the presence of obstacles within
or close to the take-off or approach areas. The airspace in the
vicinity of take-off or approach areas, which is to be maintained
free from obstacles so as to facilitate the safe operation of aircraft,
FATO with TLOF
FATO
(NoTLOF)
is defined for the purpose of:
Safety Area
Ground
taxiway
Air taxiway
(a) regulating aircraft operations where obstacles exist;
Helicopter parking positions
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Figure 4.1—Example of OLSs
airport or an airport site from being used or developed in
a manner that is, in the opinion of the Minister, incompatible
transitional
(2nd segment)
with the operation of an airport;
transitional
(1st segment)
(b) preventing lands adjacent to or in the vicinity of an airport
approach
strip
slope change
surface or airport site from being used or developed in a manner
(Note 1)
that is, in the opinion of the Minister, incompatible with
PLAN VIEW
transitional
the safe operation of an airport or aircraft; and
runway
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Figure 5.1—Examples of Conical and Gable Markers 5.3 SEAPLANE DOCK MARKERS
gable markers
(alternate arrangement)
Seaplane docks are marked to facilitate their identification. The
stopway edge markers conical markers gable markers dock is marked with an equilateral triangle measuring 2.4 m on
each side. The dock to which this marker is affixed also has red
stopway unpaved runway
and white side markings.
90 cm
AGA
75 cm
white border
(refer text)
break point
top view side view 5 cm above ground
m
2.4
90 cm
approach side:
background colour fluorescent orange
75 cm
(refer text)
1m
min. 2.4 m min.
50 cm
75 cm max. break point
(refer text) 5 cm above ground
35 cm
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below.
1.8 m 30 m ≤ L1≥ L2 1.8 m
6m
AGA
NOTE: Formula to be used
1.8 m
15 m min
7.5 m ≤ a ≤ 15 m a a a
a = width of runway a a
2 2
including 2 400 m 35 cm
centres
THRESHOLD MARKINGS
PERMANENT TEMPORARY
Where touchdown zone (TDZ) markings are provided, they are
white and found in pairs in accordance with Table 5.2 and
Figure 5.4 below. The location of pairs of TDZ markings is based NOTE:
on a horizontal spacing of 150 m. However, aiming point markings When the threshold must be displaced for a relatively short
take precedence over TDZ markings; therefore, a pair of TDZ period of time, painting a temporary threshold bar is impractical.
markings is omitted if it would otherwise fall within 50 m of Instead, flags, cones, or wing bar lights are installed to indicate
the aiming point marking. the position of the displaced threshold. A NOTAM or voice
advisory warning of the temporary displacement will contain
Figure 5.4—Aiming Point and TDZ Markings a description of the markers and the expected duration of the
900 m displacement in addition to the length of the closed portion and
750 m
600 m
the remaining usable runway.
400 m
450 m
LDA: 1500 m up to but not including 2400 m
300 m
150 m
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LDA
Threshold bar
1.8 m also be established at other locations to protect the arrival and
departure flight paths to a runway.
1.8 m
The standard runway holding position marking consists of two
solid and two dashed lines as depicted in Figure 5.7.
Some airports may have multiple runway holding position
markings on a given taxiway. These additional markings are
TORA
D
45° 45°
15 - 30 m
PRE-THRESHOLD AREA
PRE-THRESHOLD AREA
(Eg. Stopway or Blast pad)
0.9 m 7.5 m
max
15 - 30 m
½D
1.5 m max
Note: For information on marking tolerances, refer to the respective standards.
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gable, conical, or other types of suitable markers or markings.
1.8 m
0.60 m
Approach / Take-off
HOSPITAL HELIPORTS HELIPORT MARKINGS path centre line
2m
1/2 L
5.5.4 Final Approach and Take-Off Area (FATO)
Markers
Where practicable, the boundary of the FATO will be indicated
L
by gable, conical, or other types of suitable markers. The markers
shall be frangible and shall not exceed a height of 25 cm. An
aiming point marking will be provided and located in the centre 5.6 CLOSED MARKINGS
of the FATO, where practicable. Where the direction of the The closed portion of the runway may be shown on the aerodrome
helicopter parking position is not obvious, an indicator will or airport diagram in the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) and
show its direction. the Canada Air Pilot (CAP) for identification purposes; however,
declared distances will only include runway length starting at
the new threshold position.
Runways, taxiways, helicopter final approach and take-off
areas (FATO), and other helicopter areas that are closed to
operations are marked by “Xs”, as shown in Figure 5.11. Snow-
covered areas may be marked by “Xs” using conspicuously
coloured dye.
“Xs” applied to runways are white in colour and placed within
a maximum spacing of 300 m of each other. For taxiways, the
“Xs” are yellow in colour and placed at each end of the
closed portion.
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For helicopter FATOs, the “X” is white in colour. For other 5.8 AIRSIDE SIGNS
helicopter areas such as helicopter parking positions, the “X” is
yellow in colour. 5.8.1 General
Figure 5.11—Closed Markings The primary purpose of airside signs is to ensure the safe and
expeditious movement of aircraft on the aprons, taxiways, and
runways by providing direction and information to pilots.
300 m
max.
The two main categories of airside signs are information signs
and mandatory instruction signs, differentiated by using black/
yellow and red/white colour combinations, respectively.
AGA
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Destination Signs: A destination sign has a black inscription on Signs installed at locations other than the runway ends shall
a yellow background and is used to provide general guidance to show the designator for both runways. A location sign is positioned
points on the airfield. These signs will always contain arrows. in the outboard position beside the runway designator.
The use of destination signs will be kept to a minimum. Airports
In the following examples, “A” shows that an aircraft is located
with a good direction sign layout will have little need for
on Taxiway “A” at the threshold of Runway 34. The second
destination signs.
example has the aircraft on Taxiway “C” at the intersection of
Other Information Signs: Other information signs have a black Runway 34/16. The threshold of Runway 34 is to the left and
inscription on a yellow background and include information Runway 16 to the right.
such as stand identification, parking areas and frequency.
Figure 5.14—Examples of Runway Designation Signs
AGA
Figure 5.13—Information Signs
DIRECTION AND LOCATION
Stand-alone location sign (note 2)
taxiway taxiway
side side
RUNWAY VACATED
ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign Category I, Category II, and Category III holding position signs:
CAT I, CAT II, and CAT III holding position signs are installed to
protect the ILS critical area during IFR precision operations. A sign
INTERSECTION TAKEOFF RUN AVAILABLE is installed on each side of the taxiway in line with the CAT I/II/III
hold position marking. The inscription will consist of the designator
of the runway and the inscription CAT I, CAT II, CAT III, or a
LEGEND Yellow Black Notes: combination, as appropriate.
(1) Colour display is for internally illuminated signs. Refer to Figure 5-59 for
colour display of pixel [fibre-optic] signs.
(2) Arrows are orientated in increments of 22.5 degrees.
NOTE:
5.8.3 Mandatory Instruction Signs Where only one holding position is necessary for all categories
of operation, a CAT I/II/III sign is not installed. In all cases, the
Mandatory instruction signs are used to identify runway last sign before entering a runway will be the runway designation
designations, holding positions, NO-ENTRY areas, and sign.
obstacle-free zones, where pilots must receive further ATC
clearance to proceed. At uncontrolled aerodromes, pilots are NO-ENTRY sign: A NO-ENTRY sign, as shown in Figure 5.16,
required to hold at points marked by these signs until they have will be located at the beginning and on both sides of the area to
ascertained that there is no air traffic conflict. Mandatory which entrance is prohibited.
instruction signs have white letters, numbers, or symbols against
APCH sign: Located at a runway holding position that has been
a red background and are installed on both sides of a taxiway
established for the protection of approach or departure paths.
or runway, unless it is physically impossible to do so and provided
The airport configuration may be such that these holding
that an equivalent painted sign marking is provided on the
positions are located on runways or taxiways.
taxiway or runway.
Runway Designation Sign: A runway designation sign is installed
at all taxiway/runway and runway/runway intersections at
certified aerodromes. A runway designation sign is used for
runways certified for VFR, IFR non-precision, and take-off
operations. The sign, when installed at the runway end, shows
the designator of the departure runway.
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Figure 5.16—Mandatory Instruction Signs For night operations the wind direction indicator will
Runway designation Indicates a runway-holding position at a runway extremity.
be illuminated.
of a runway Note: For single runway designators, the width of the sign is
extremity increased to make the red background more conspicuous.
NOTE:
Runway designation Indicates runway-holding position located at other than a At aerodromes certified as airports, a dry standard wind direction
of both extremities runway extremity. A runway holding position sign at a
of a runway runway/runway intersection does not include a location sign. indicator will react to wind speed as follows:
Indicates a runway holding position at
runway/runway/taxiway, or Table 5.3—Wind Indicator Angle Based on Wind Speed
runway/runway/runway intersection.
Category I hold
position
the threshold of a runway (e.g. rwy25). Wind Speed Wind Indicator Angle
15 kt or above Horizontal
ILS Indicates a Category II runway-holding position
Category II hold
position
at the threshold of a runway (e.g. rwy25). 10 kt 5˚ below horizontal
6 kt 30˚ below horizontal
ILS Indicates a Category III runway-holding
Category III hold position at the threshold of a runway
position (e.g. rwy25).
At aerodromes not certified as airports, non-standard wind
ILS Indicates a joint Category II and III indicator systems, which could react differently to wind speed,
Category II and III runway-holding position at the
hold position threshold of a runway (e.g. rwy25). may be in use.
NO ENTRY Indicates that entry to an area is prohibited.
6.1 GENERAL
5.8.4 Illumination of Airside Signs
Where an object, regardless of its height, has been assessed as
Airside signs are illuminated at airports that are used at night or
constituting an obstacle to air navigation as per subsection
in low visibility. Signs, which are illuminated internally, may be
601.23(1) of the Canadian Aviation Regulation (CARs), it requires
of two types. One type has a sign face constructed from material,
marking and/or lighting in accordance with the standards
such as plexiglass, which permits the entire sign face to be
specified in CAR Standard 621.
illuminated. The other type has a sign face that incorporates
imbedded fibre optic bundles that illuminate the individual letters,
numbers, and arrows, not the face of the sign. At night or in low 6.2 REGULATIONS
visibility, pilots approaching a fibre optic sign will see RED Sections 601.23– 601.27 of t he Canadian Aviation
illuminated characters on mandatory instruction signs, YELLOW Regulations (CARs) provide regulations regarding marking and
characters on a location sign, and WHITE characters on all other lighting of obstacles to air navigation. The following objects are
information signs. marked and/or lighted in accordance with the standards specified
in CAR Standard 621:
5.9 WIND DIRECTION INDICATORS (a) any object penetrating an airport obstacle limitation
At aerodromes that do not have prepared runways, the wind surface (OLS) as specified in Chapter 4 of Aerodrome
direction indicator is usually mounted on or near some Standards and Recommended Practices (TP 312);
conspicuous building or in the vicinity of the general aircraft (b) any object greater than 90 m above ground level (AGL)
parking area. within 6 km of the geographical centre of an aerodrome;
Runways greater than 1 200 m in length will have a wind direction (c) any object greater than 90 m AGL within 3.7 km of the
indicator for each end of the runway. It will be typically located imaginary centreline of a recognized visual flight rules (VFR)
adjacent to the touchdown zone, 60 m outward from the edge of route, including but not limited to a valley, a railroad, a
the runway, and clear of the obstacle-free zone. transmission line, a pipeline, a river, or a highway;
Runways 1 200 m in length and shorter will have a wind direction (d) any permanent catenary wire crossing where any portion
indicator located centrally on the aerodrome or near each end of the wires or supporting structures exceeds 90 m AGL;
of the runway, typically positioned in proximity to the aiming
point markings. (e) any object greater than 150 m AGL; and
(f) any other object, other than the above, deemed by the
Minister to represent a likely hazard to aviation safety, in
accordance with section 601.25 of the CARs.
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165 and 250 KIAS, the acquisition distance is 2.4 km.
results?Keywords=&FormNumber=26-0427&Transportation
Mode=&Format=&ResultView=Submit>. A variety of lighting systems are used on obstructions. Table 6.1
indicates the characteristics of light units according to their
6.4 MARKING name or designation. Although these designations are similar
to those of the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), the
Day marking of obstructions that are 150 m above ground level (AGL) photometric characteristics (intensity distribution) are not
in height or less, such as poles, chimneys, antennas, and cable necessarily the same.
tower support structures, may consist of alternate bands of
aviation orange and white paint. A checkerboard pattern may CL-810 lights are used primarily for night protection on smaller
be used for water tanks, as shown in Figure 6.1. Where a structure structures and for intermediate lighting on antennas of more
is provided with medium or high-intensity white flashing strobe than 45 m.
lighting systems that are operated during the day, paint marking CL-856 lights are used primarily for high structures and day
of the structure may be omitted. protection on towers where marking may be omitted.
Figure 6.1—Storage Tank Marking CL-857 lights are used for lighting catenary crossings where
marking can be omitted.
CL-864 lights are used for night protection of extensive obstacles,
such as wind farms and towers, of more than 45 m.
roof or a portion of may be
solid orange where the
For CL-865 lights, when operated 24hr/day on towers of less than 150m,
projection is equal or less
than 1.5 m paint marking may be omitted.
ANYTOWN.CA
CL-866 lights are used for white catenary lighting.
CL-885 lights are used for red catenary lighting.
1/2
to
2/3
6.5.1 Rotating Obstruction Light
The majority of flashing obstruction light units are of a strobe
(capacitor discharge) design. An exception is one type of CL-865
medium-intensity flashing light, which is of a rotating design,
i.e. the light display is produced by rotating lenses. Since this
particular light unit might otherwise be mistaken for an
aerodrome beacon, colour coding is used to produce a sequenced
display of white, white, red, white, white, and red.
The rotating type CL-865 also has the same 20 000 candela
intensity for nighttime as for daytime operation. The absence
of dimming is allowed for two reasons: (1) the specified intensities
are minimum requirements; and (2) the rotating characteristic
does not produce glare for the pilot.
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Appurtenance
more than 12 m
in height
AGA
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
at a point midway between the top and bottom levels with 180° 6.8 AIRCRAFT DETECTION SYSTEMS
coverage. The beams of the middle and lower lights are adjusted
A technology has been developed so that obstacle lighting is
so that the signal will be seen from the approach direction on
activated only when required to alert pilots who are on a flight
either side of the power line. The lights flash sequentially: middle
path that may lead to a collision with the obstacle. The system
lights followed by the top lights and then the bottom lights in
addresses public complaints regarding light pollution.
order to display a “fly up” signal to the pilot. The middle light
may be removed in the case of narrow power line sags; in this The system uses radar to detect and track aircraft. The potential
case the bottom lights will flash first then the top lights will for collision with an obstacle is determined by the aircraft’s
flash in order to display a “fly up” signal to the pilot. When speed and angle of approach. If there is a risk of collision, the
deemed appropriate by an aeronautical study, medium-intensity lighting turns on and an audio warning (if provided) is broadcast
AGA
white flashing omnidirectional lighting systems may be used on the very high frequency (VHF) radio. The lighting does not
on supporting structures of suspended cable spans lower than turn on until it is needed by the detected aircraft. Since the
150 m above ground level (AGL). system uses radar, its operation is independent of any equipment
on board the aircraft (e.g. a transponder).
Obstruction markings on aerial cables (i.e. marker balls) that
define aeronautical hazards are generally placed on the highest The obstacle lighting is turned on and the audio warning is
line for crossings where there is more than one cable. Obstruction emitted approximately 30 s before the aircraft reaches the obstacle.
markings can also be installed on crossings under the Navigation In the case of catenaries, the audio warning will state “POWER
Protection Act. In this case, the marker balls are placed on the LINE, POWER LINE”. For other types of obstructions, a different
lowest power line and are displayed to water craft as a warning message will be sent. In some cases, such as those involving wind
of low clearance between the water and an overhead cable. farms near aerodromes, an audio signal might not be provided,
in order to avoid confusing pilots making an approach to landing.
In accordance with the foregoing, pilots operating at low levels
may expect to find power line crossings marked as either an Any questions or comments may be directed to the
aeronautical hazard or a navigable water hazard. They may be Transport Canada Flight Standards office in Ottawa
unmarked if it has been determined by the applicable department (see GEN 1.1.1 for contact information).
or agency that they are neither an aeronautical nor a navigable
waters hazard. Pilots operating at low altitudes must be aware
of these hazards and exercise extreme caution.
7.0 AERODROME LIGHTING
Figure 6.4—Markers for Cable Span 7.1 GENERAL
The lighting facilities available at an aerodrome or airport are
described in the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS). Information
concerning an aerodrome or airport’s night lighting procedures
staggering of markers on highest wire
is included as part of the description of lighting facilities, where
routine night lighting procedures are in effect. Where night
lighting procedures are not published for an aerodrome or airport,
pilots should contact the aerodrome operator concerned and
request that the appropriate lights be turned on to facilitate their
intended night operations.
wire markers
orange and white 7.2 AERODROME BEACON
Many aerodromes are equipped with a flashing white beacon
pole marker
light to assist pilots in locating the aerodrome at night. The
orange and white aerodrome beacon may be of the rotating or flashing type. The
5 m diameter filled aviation orange circle
on a 6m square aviation white panel.
flash frequency of beacons at aerodromes or airports used by
aeroplanes is 22 to 26 evenly spaced flashes per minute (fpm)
for rotating beacons or 20 to 30 for flashing beacons.
The flash frequency of beacons at aerodromes and heliports
used only by helicopters is sequenced to transmit the Morse code
letter “H” (in groups of four quick flashes) at the rate of three to
four groups per minute.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
runway
at night shall have fixed (steady) white lights to mark the runway,
and fixed red lights to mark unserviceable (hazardous) areas. 90 m
flashing lights
Retroreflective markers may be substituted for lights to mark the
runway at aerodromes, provided alignment lights are installed
(see AGA 7.19). This alternative for night marking of runways, Medium Intensity Approach Lighting System (MALS) or
AGA
however, is not approved for certified sites. Medium Intensity Approach Lighting System with Sequenced
Flashing Lights (MALSF): This system consists of seven
7.4 UNSERVICEABLE AREA LIGHTING barrettes of variable-intensity lights spaced 60 m apart,
commencing 60 m from the threshold, over a distance of 420 m.
Unserviceable areas within the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome In a MALSF, the three barrettes farthest away from the threshold
being used at night are marked by steady burning red lights contain a sequenced flashing light unit. These lights flash
outlining the perimeter of the unserviceable area(s). Where it is sequentially towards the threshold, repeating at two cycles per
considered necessary in the interest of safety, one or more flashing second.
red lights may be used in addition to the steady red lights.
Figure 7.3—MALSF
7.5 APPROACH LIGHTING
MALSF
The approach lighting systems depicted in the Canada Flight 420 m
Supplement (CFS) include the following:
runway
7.5.1 Non-Precision Approach Runways flashing steady
60 m
lights burning lights threshold
Low Intensity Approach Lighting System (LIAL): This system
is provided on non-precision approach runways and consists of Medium Intensity Approach Lighting System with Runway
aviation yellow fixed-intensity twin light units spaced at 60-metre Alignment Indicator Lights (MALSR): This system consists
intervals commencing 60 m from the threshold and extending of variable-intensity approach lights spaced 60 m apart,
back for a total distance of 900 m (terrain permitting). commencing at 60 m from the threshold, and extending 720 m.
This system consists of the following:
Figure 7.1—LIAL
(a) seven barrettes of light over a distance of 420 m;
LIAL
(b) one side barrette of light on each side of the centreline barrette
900 m at 300 m from the runway threshold; and
runway
the threshold, then the two threshold lights flash in unison; the
cycle repeats once per second. 60 m
flashing lights
steady burning lights
threshold
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
7.5.2 Precision Approach Runways Pilots and/or air operators should ensure that the VASIS type
to be used is appropriate to the given aircraft type, based on the
Simplified Short Approach Lighting System with Runway
EWH group for that aircraft. If this information is not already
Alignment Indicator Lights (SSALR): This system is the same
available in the AFM or other authoritative aircraft manuals
as the MALSR but high intensity lights are used instead. See
(e.g. the flight crew operating manual), the aircraft manufacturer
Figure 7.4 for the layout.
should be contacted.
Approach Lighting System with Sequenced Flashers—
CAT II (ALSF-2): This system consists of rows of five white CAUTION:
variable-intensity light units placed at longitudinal intervals of Incompatibility between the EWH and the VASIS type could
30 m commencing 30 m from the threshold and extending for result in decreased terrain clearance margins and, in some cases,
AGA
a total distance of 720 m. In view of the very low decision height even premature contact with terrain (e.g. a CFIT accident).
associated with CAT II operations, the following additional
lights are provided: The current Canadian civil aviation standard for VASIS is the
PAPI. Some airports still have the older VASI systems. The VASI
(a) runway threshold (green) and PAPI light units have the same purpose of descent indication
(b) 150 m distance bar (white with red barrettes) with respect to an approach corridor but are arranged in a
different pattern, as shown below.
(c) side barrettes (red)
The VASI and PAPI have lights normally situated on the left side
Figure 7.5—ALSF-2 of the runway only. When available strip widths preclude the
use of a full system, an AVASI or APAPI, consisting of only two
light units, may be installed.
ALSF-2
720 m Where a PAPI or VASI signal has been harmonized with an
electronic vertical guidance signal, it will be for the critical
runway
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
DOWNWIND BAR
SLOPE PAPI/APAPI is first turned on. Since the mixture may be
BELOW interpreted as a fly-down signal, the pilot should be aware of
APPROACH other cues (e.g. the runway perspective) so as to avoid descent
SLOPE below the OPS. When the PAPI/APAPI provides a true signal,
it should display a crisp transition from white to red as the aircraft
descends through the sectors. If contamination is suspected,
7.6.3 Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) flight crews are advised to disregard the PAPI/APAPI display.
and Abbreviated PAPI (APAPI)
PAPI consists of four light units typically situated on the left 7.6.4 Categories According to Eye-To-Wheel
side of the runway in the form of a wing bar. When the pilot is: Height (EWH) in the Approach
(a) well above the approach slope, all four units show white. Configuration
(b) slightly above the approach slope, the one unit nearest the
runway edge shows red and the other three show white. 7.6.4.1 General
(c) on or close to the approach slope, the two units nearest the VASIS are categorized according to the EWH in the approach
runway edge show red and the two units farthest from the configuration, as shown in Tables 7.1 and 7.2 below. Where a
runway edge show white. VASIS is given for a published category, it is intended to be
useable by all aircraft within the stated EWH group unless
(d) slightly below the approach slope, the three units nearest otherwise stated.
the runway edge show red and the other shows white.
(e) well below the approach slope, all four units show red. NOTE:
The EWH is the vertical distance in-flight of the eye path to the
APAPI consists of two light units situated on the left side of the wheel path, as shown in Figure 7.8, and is determined by the
runway in the form of a wing bar. When the pilot is: approach slope angle and the pitch angle for the maximum
(a) above the approach slope, both units show white. certified landing weight at Vref. This should not be confused with
the horizontal and vertical dimensions as may be measured
(b) on or close to the approach slope, the unit nearer to the
when the aircraft is on the ground.
runway edge shows red and the unit farther from the runway
edge shows white.
7.6.4.2 Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI)
(c) below the approach slope, all units show red.
Categories
Figure 7.7—PAPI and APAPI Display The VASI installations are designed according to aircraft height
group categories AV, V1, and V2, as indicated in Table 7.1. The
PAPI (P1, P2, P3) APAPI (AP) greater the value of the EWH in the approach configuration,
the farther the VASI is installed upwind from the threshold to
TOO
HIGH provide the appropriate MEHT.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
7.6.4.3 Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) 7.6.6 Obstacle Protection Surface (OPS)
Categories
For certified aerodromes, the installation of a PAPI or an APAPI
PAPI and APAPI installations are designed for aircraft height requires the establishment of an obstacle protection surface (OPS).
group categories AP, P1, P2, and P3, as indicated in Table 7.2. The OPS provides a buffer below unit angle A, which, for PAPI,
The greater the value of the EWH in the approach configuration, is the transition from one white light and three red lights to four
the farther the PAPI is installed upwind from the threshold to red lights, and for APAPI, is the transition from one white light
provide the appropriate MEHT. and one red light to two red lights, as shown in Figure 7.9. Objects
do not penetrate the OPS. Where an object or terrain protrudes
Table 7.2—PAPI Categories above the OPS and beyond the length of the approach OLS, one
of a number of possible measures may be taken such as raising
AGA
Category System Aircraft height group EWH
in the approach configuration the approach slope, moving the PAPI further upwind of the
AP APAPI 0 ft (0 m) ≤ EWH < 10 ft (3 m) threshold, or reducing the operational length of the OPS and
marking/lighting the obstacle. At some aerodromes, particularly
P1 PAPI 0 ft (0 m) ≤ EWH < 10 ft (3 m)
in mountainous regions, a limitation is established as a PAPI
P2 PAPI 10 ft (3 m) ≤ EWH < 25 ft (7.5 m) useable distance from the threshold and is published in the CFS.
P3 PAPI 25 ft (7.5 m) ≤ EWH < 45 ft (14 m) The PAPI signal is not to be used until the aircraft is within that
The aircraft position with respect to the PAPI display is shown specified distance. For more information about OPS dimensions,
in Figure 7.8. The approach corridor is defined by the setting see Aerodromes Standards and Recommended Practices (TP 312).
angles of light units C and B. The MEHT is defined by the angle Figure 7.9—PAPI/APAPI OPS
M, which is 2 min of arc below the angle B. This accounts for
the pilot’s difficulty in discerning when the transition from
A
white to full red has occurred. The available MEHT is the sum OPS inner edge
Divergence
of the EWH in the approach configuration and the prescribed Obstacle protection surface (OPS)
26
wheel clearance. The distance D for the location of the PAPI D
C
from the threshold is calculated using the tangent of the angle M. B
A
In other words, D = MEHT/tan(M). For more information about PAPI
p
slo
Practices (TP 312). proac
h
ngle
Ap Aa
Unit
r B
rr ido
co
ch
A B C D
proa Threshold
ap
eye path
ON CORRECT
APPROACH PATH 7.7 RUNWAY IDENTIFICATION LIGHTING
wheel path
MEHT EWH
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
7.7.2 Visual Alignment Guidance System (VAGS) 7.8.2 Runway Threshold Lights and Runway End
Lights (RENL)
The VAGS consists of two lights similar to RTILs. However, by
means of light beam rotation, the pilot is presented with a Runway threshold/end indication is provided by green and red
sequenced display, as shown in Figure 7.10 below. The display light units respectively, in the form of a pair of bars along the
directs the pilot towards the runway/helipad axis, where he or threshold on each side of the runway centreline, where there is
she then sees the lights flash simultaneously. an ODALS or where no approach lighting is provided. Red shows
in the direction of takeoff and green shows in the approach
Figure 7.10—VAGS direction.
Where approach lighting other than ODALS is provided, an
AGA
AIRCRAFT
LEFT OF AXIS
approach threshold bar that extends across the full width of the
runway forms part of the approach lighting configuration.
Figure 7.11 shows the different configurations of such lights.
FLASH SEQUENCE
1 2 RENL are always provided. Runway threshold lights are
AIRCRAFT independent from approach threshold bar lights and are only
ON AXIS
lit if the approach threshold bar is not lit.
SIMULTANEOUS FLASHES
Where MALSR, MALSF or MALS is provided, the green threshold
1 1 lighting is physically separated from the approach threshold bar
AIRCRAFT
RIGHT OF AXIS due to difference in light intensities and circuitry.
Where SSALR or SSALS is provided, the runway threshold lights
FLASH SEQUENCE form part of the approach threshold bar configuration (opposite
2 1
the runway end lights).
7.8 RUNWAY LIGHTING Where an ALSF-2 is provided, the green threshold lighting is
A runway on an aerodrome that is used at night shall display extended farther as wing bars to each side of the runway.
two parallel lines of fixed white lights visible for at least 2 mi. to
mark take-off and landing areas. These lights are arranged so Figure 7.11—Runway Threshold and End Lights
that: RWY Edge Light
(White or Yellow)
(a) the lines of lights or markers are parallel and of equal length Runway
and the transverse distance between the lines is equal to
the runway width in use during the day; With ODALS or no approach lighting
(b) the distance between adjacent lights or markers in each line RWY THLD Lights
(Green)
RWY End Lights
(Red)
is the same and is not more than 60 m (200 ft); Runway
(c) each line of lights or markers is not less than 420 m (1 377 ft)
in length and contains no fewer than eight lights or markers; With MALSR, MALS, MALSF approach lighting
and
(d) each light or marker in a line of lights or markers is situated Approach THLD Bar Runway
opposite to a light or marker in the line of lights or markers (Green)
on the other side of the runway, so that a line connecting With SSALR, SALS approach lighting
them forms a right angle to the centreline of the runway. RWY End Lights
(Red)
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
AGA
runway edge lights - yellow/white
runway edge lights - white
runway > 1 200 m with displacement 600 m
600 m 300 m
alternating red/white centreline lights red centreline lights
900 m
imminence of runway end warning
RETIL
RETILs
2m 2 m lateral
2m spacing
2m
direction of light output
runway centerline
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
AGA
minimum of four yellow lights on each side, with a light at
CAUTION:
each corner.
Heliports using LED lighting systems may not be visible when
(b) Floodlighting: When provided, the floodlighting will certain NVIS equipment is employed. This is an operational
illuminate the TLOF such that the perimeter marking of limitation of the NVIS equipment, as the purpose of heliport
the TLOF is visible. Floodlight units will be located beyond lighting is to be viewed by the naked eye.
the perimeter of the FATO.
Candela values for heliport lighting systems are detailed in
NOTE: Figure 5-11 of ICAO Annex 14, Volume II.
Perimeter lighting or reflective tape may be used in addition to
floodlighting. Figure 7.17—FATO and Aiming Point Lighting
N N
Figure 7.16—Examples of TLOF Lighting
5m Circular TLOF 5m
maximum Inset lights minimum 8 lights maximum
5 cm max
25 cm max
Approach/Take-Off
direction lights
TLOF FATO length minimum
FATO
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
7.13 EMERGENCY LIGHTING The approved standard for retroreflective markers requires that
they be capable of reflecting the aircraft landing lights so that
Airports with Category (CAT) I, II, and III precision approaches
they are visible from a distance of 2 NM. Pilots are cautioned
in Canada are equipped with a secondary power system for
that the reflective capabilities of retroreflective markers are
visual aids lighting. This system is normally capable of assuming
greatly affected by the condition of the aircraft landing lights,
the electrical load within approximately 15 s for CAT I operations,
the prevailing visibility, and other obscuring weather phenomena.
and within 1 s for CAT II and III operations.
Therefore, as part of pre-flight planning to an aerodrome that
uses retroreflective markers, pilots should exercise extra caution
7.14 AIRCRAFT RADIO CONTROL OF in checking the serviceability of their aircraft landing lights and
AERODROME LIGHTING (ARCAL) making provision for an alternate airport with lighting in case
AGA
Aircraft radio control of aerodrome lighting (ARCAL) systems of an aircraft landing light failure.
are becoming more prevalent as a means of conserving energy,
especially at aerodromes not staffed on a continuous basis or at
which it is not practicable to install a land line to a nearby flight
8.0 AIRCRAFT RESCUE AND FIRE
service station (FSS). Aside from obstacle lights, some or all of FIGHTING (ARFF)
the aerodrome lighting may be radio-controlled.
Control of the lights should be possible when aircraft are within 8.1 GENERAL
15 NM of the aerodrome. The frequency range is 118 to 136 MHz. Aircraft rescue and firefighting (ARFF) service is provided at
The system is activated via the aircraft very high frequency (VHF) some airports in accordance with the criteria stated in Canadian
transmitter and by pressing the push-to-talk button on the Aviation Regulation (CAR) 303. The primary responsibility of
microphone a given number of times within a specified number an ARFF service is to provide a fire-free egress route for the
of seconds. Each activation will start a timer to illuminate the evacuation of passengers and crew following an aircraft accident.
lights for a period of approximately 15 min. The timing cycle may
be restarted at any time by repeating the specified keying sequence. 8.2 AIRCRAFT RESCUE AND FIRE
It should be noted that ARCAL Type K runway threshold FIGHTING (ARFF) HOURS OF
identification lights (RTIL) (code AS) can be turned off by keying AVAILABILITY
the microphone three times on the appropriate frequency. The
Aerodromes or airports that provide aircraft rescue and
code for the intensity and the lighting period varies for each
firefighting (ARFF) publish the hours during which an ARFF
installation. Consequently, the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS)
service is operated in the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) under
must be consulted for each installation.
the ARFF annotation. If there are no published hours next to
NOTE: the ARFF critical category number, this means 24-hour service
Pilots are advised to key the activating sequence when beginning is offered.
their approach, even if the aerodrome or airport lighting is on.
This will restart the timing cycle so that the full 15-min cycle 8.3 CLASSIFICATION SYSTEM
is available for their approach. Table 8.1 identifies the critical category for firefighting as it
relates to the aircraft size, the quantities of water and
7.15 RETROREFLECTIVE MARKERS complementary extinguishing agents, the minimum number of
aircraft rescue and firefighting (ARFF) vehicles, and the total
Some aerodromes may use retroreflective markers in place of discharge capacity. For ease of interpretation, the table is a
lights to mark the edges of runways or helipads. These combination of the two tables found under Canadian Aviation
retroreflective markers are approved for use on runways at Regulation (CAR) 303.
registered aerodromes only; however, they may be used as a
substitute for edge lighting on taxiways or apron areas at some
certified airports.
Retroreflective markers are to be positioned in the same manner
as runway lighting described earlier in this chapter. Therefore,
when the aircraft is lined up on final approach, retroreflective
markers will provide the pilot with the same visual representation
given by normal runway lighting. A fixed white light or strobe
light shall be installed at each end of the runway to assist pilots
in locating the aerodrome and aligning the aircraft with the
runway. Similarly, retroreflective markers at heliports are to be
positioned in the same pattern that is prescribed for helipad
edge lighting.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
AGA
3 3 1 200 135 1 900
less than 18 m
at least 18 m but
4 4 2 400 135 1 1 800
less than 24 m
at least 24 m but
5 4 5 400 180 1 3 000
less than 28 m
at least 28 m but
6 5 7 900 225 2 4 000
less than 39 m
at least 39 m but
7 5 12 100 225 2 5 300
less than 49 m
at least 49 m but
8 7 18 200 450 3 7 200
less than 61 m
at least 61 m but
9 7 24 300 450 3 9 000
less than 76 m
10 at least 76 m 8 32 300 450 3 11 200
8.4 AIRCRAFT RESCUE AND FIRE 8.5 AIRCRAFT RESCUE AND FIRE
FIGHTING (ARFF) STANDBY REQUEST FIGHTING (ARFF) DISCREET
Local standby means the level of response when an aircraft
COMMUNICATION
has, or is suspected to have, an operational defect. This defect The capability to communicate on a discreet frequency is normally
could compromise a safe landing. available at airports that provide aircraft rescue and
firefighting (ARFF) services.
Full emergency standby means the level of response when an
aircraft has, or is suspected to have, an operational defect that
affects normal flight operations to the extent that there is 9.0 AIRCRAFT ARRESTING
possibility of an accident.
SYSTEMS
When informed that an emergency has been declared by a pilot,
the airport aircraft rescue and firefighting (ARFF) unit will take
up emergency positions adjacent to the landing runway and 9.1 ENGINEERED MATERIAL ARRESTING
stand by to provide assistance. Once response to an emergency SYSTEMS (EMAS)
situation has been initiated, the ARFF unit will remain at the The engineered material arresting system (EMAS) is an arresting
increased state of alert until informed that the pilot-in-command system designed for transport category aeroplanes in the event
has terminated the emergency. After the landing, ARFF will of a runway overrun. An EMAS bed is designed to stop an
intervene as necessary and, unless the pilot-in-command overrunning aeroplane by exerting predictable deceleration
authorizes their release, escort the aircraft to the apron and forces on its landing gear as the EMAS material crushes.
remain in position until all engines are shut down.
For an adequate response on the part of the ARFF unit, a pilot 9.1.1 System Description
request to “stand by in the fire hall” is not appropriate. Pilots The strength of the arrester bed is designed to reduce the
are reminded, however, that the ARFF unit will terminate their aeroplane’s speed without leading to structural failure of the
state of alert when informed by the pilot that the emergency landing gear. The beds are made up of a grouping of crushable
situation no longer exists. cellular concrete blocks that will reliably and predictably be
crushed under the weight of an aeroplane.
To arrest an aeroplane overrunning a runway end, EMAS beds
are placed beyond the end of a runway and in alignment with
the extended runway centreline.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Figure 9.1—Photograph of an EMAS Installation If, during the take-off or landing phase, a pilot determines that
the aeroplane will overrun the runway end and enter the EMAS,
the following procedure should be followed:
(a) Continue to follow the rejected-takeoff procedures or, in
the case of landing, the maximum-braking procedures
outlined in the AFM, regardless of the aeroplane’s speed
upon overrunning the runway.
(b) Continue straight ahead—do not veer left or right. The
EMAS’s stopping capability is maximized when all of the
AGA
164 X 170 after an EMAS arrestment, since the EMAS bed will not
6.
SYSTEMS
31
9.2.1 Background
ELEV Some civil airports and military aerodromes are equipped with
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
AGA
in various parts of the world and its benefits have been
aerodromes, civil aeroplane operations may be permitted with
demonstrated.
the arrester cable deployed across the runway.
A-CDM requires the partners involved in the operation of the
9.2.4 Damage Hazards airport to exchange certain information that meets prescribed
levels of quality and timeliness. Furthermore, aircraft operations
Cables: Pilots are advised to avoid crossing the aircraft arrester will be subject to defined A-CDM procedures. Adherence to
cable at speeds in excess of 10 mph because a wave action may these procedures is usually mandatory for most aircraft operators,
develop in the cable, which could damage the aircraft. This is unless a specific exemption applies.
particularly important for nose-wheel aircraft with wheel fairings
or minimal propeller or undercarriage-door clearance. Tail-wheel 10.2 OPERATIONAL CONCEPT
aircraft may also sustain damage if the tail wheel engages the
cable. One of the objectives of Airport Collaborative Decision
Making (A-CDM) is to make aircraft turnaround more predictable
Runway edge sheaves: The runway edge sheaves are above grade and create an efficient outbound flow of traffic. This is achieved
and located next to the runway edge, on the runway shoulder. by requiring a reliable and accurate Target Off-Block Time (TOBT)
The two sides perpendicular to the runway are sloped, but the for each flight. This TOBT is then used to set up an optimal
other two sides, parallel to the runway, are vertical. The runway pushback and start-up sequence that considers all applicable
edge sheaves are not frangible and may cause damage to aeroplanes constraints, like de-icing and possible air traffic f low
that contact or roll over them. management restrictions.
Energy absorbers: The energy absorbers are normally located Operators and their designated representatives are responsible
beside the graded area of the runway strip (at a distance greater for keeping the TOBT up to date by providing updates as
than 61 m from the runway centreline). The energy absorbers necessary. The flight crew is responsible for operating the aircraft,
are not frangible and will cause damage to aeroplanes that come taking the Target Start-Up Approval Time (TSAT) into account.
into contact with them. Failure to comply with these responsibilities will usually result
in an operational penalty.
9.2.5 Information for Pilots
More details about a typical A-CDM operation can be found in
Pilots will normally be advised of the status of the arrester cable the A-CDM Operations Manual – YYZ Edition, available from
through ATIS or by ATC. The presence of an aircraft arresting the Greater Toronto Airports Authority at <http://torontopearson.
system should be included in the RWY DATA entry of the CFS com/acdm/>.
for the aerodromes. The location of an aircraft arresting system
should also be depicted on the aerodrome sketch.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
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10.5 AIRPORT COLLABORATIVE DECISION 10.5.1.5 Access to the Target Start-Up Approval
MAKING (A-CDM) PROCEDURES Time (TSAT)
Airport Collaborative Decision Making (A-CDM) procedures The TSAT will be shown in the A-CDM system via the A-CDM
generally fall into the following three categories: application and the A-CDM HMI as soon as stand and runway
information are both available in the A-CDM system.
(a) Commercial Air Transport Operations—Procedures for
Operators and Handling Agents
10.5.1.6 Target Start-Up Approval Time (TSAT)
(b) Commercial Air Transport Operations—Flight Crew Swapping
Procedures
(c) General and Business Aviation Operations—Air Operator An operator or handling agent (as applicable) may be able to
AGA
Procedures swap the TSATs between flights of its own operator family if a
given flight is delayed or if a reduction of the waiting time for a
10.5.1 Commercial Air Transport Operations — flight is desirable. Eligible flights are identified as such on the
Procedures for Operators and Handling A-CDM system HMI.
Agents
10.5.1.7 The Importance of Updating the Target Off-
10.5.1.1 Requirement for All Flights to Have a Current Block Time (TOBT)
Target Off-Block Time (TOBT)
Operators and ground handlers (as appropriate) are responsible
The TOBT is used to indicate when the aircraft will be ready to for updating the TOBT if there is a difference of +/- 5 minutes
push back and start its engines. The initial TOBT is usually compared to the initial or previously updated TOBT. Failing to
obtained by the A-CDM system from one of the following sources: update the TOBT will result in a TSAT that is no longer
(a) Estimated time of departure (ETD) provided by an operator operationally correct, and this, in turn, may cause the flight to
via the appropriate communications channel; be subject to unnecessary delay.
(b) EOBT from the flight plan; or 10.5.1.8 Target Off-Block Time (TOBT) Update
(c) SOBT from the airport coordinated schedule data held by Limitations
the GTAA. The TOBT can normally be updated as many times as necessary
until 10 minutes prior to the TOBT. Thereafter, only two more
10.5.1.2 Preferred Way of Providing the Target Off- updates are possible. Should a third update be necessary, the
Block Time (TOBT) operator or handling agent will likely need to contact the Manager
Operators are reminded that using the SOBT may result in an of Operations, Airport Flow, for further instructions.
inaccurate TOBT. It is therefore highly recommended that they
explore options for providing the ETD via the appropriate 10.5.1.9 Methods for Updating the Target Off-Block
communications channel. This can be normally be done by Time (TOBT)
contacting the Manager of Operations, Airport Flow, who
The TOBT may be updated via any of the available systems
typically serves as the single point of contact for all A-CDM-
providing access to it.
related matters.
10.5.2.2 Access to the Target Off-Block Time (TOBT) 10.5.2.7 Airport Collaborative Decision Making
(A-CDM)-Imposed Waiting Time and On-Time
The TOBT will be displayed for the flight crew on all channels Performance
as soon as it is set in the A-CDM system.
Traditionally, on-time performance (OTP) is measured by the
10.5.2.3 Access to the Target Start-Up Approval point in time when the aircraft releases the brakes and is ready
Time (TSAT) for movement associated with departure. If an aircraft waits at
the stand for its TSAT, the time between TOBT and TSAT might
The TSAT will be displayed for the flight crew on all channels be counted as a departure delay, adversely impacting the air
except the AVDGS as soon as it is set in the A-CDM system. It operator’s OTP. It is recommended that air operators implement
is expected that the TSAT will be displayed for the flight crew procedures whereby the time at which the flight crew makes the
AGA
on the AVDGS as follows: ready call is considered as the reference for OTP and any waiting
(a) 10 minutes before TOBT; or time after the TOBT is met can be successfully ignored.
(b) 20 minutes before TOBT if the TSAT is later than the TOBT
10.5.2.8 Pushback / Start-Up Approval
by 20 minutes or more (as may be the case due to TMIs).
Depending on the airport, flight crews might expect pushback
10.5.2.4 Information Related to Airport Collaborative instructions and start-up approval to be issued on the appropriate
Decision Making (A-CDM) on the Advanced radio frequency by the AMU at TSAT +/- 5 minutes without a
Visual Docking Guidance System (AVDGS) need for the flight crew to make an additional call.
The information displayed on the AVDGS depends on the
If the pushback and start-up process does not commence within
operating mode of the A-CDM system, such as:
2 minutes of the time the approval was issued, the flight crew
(a) Traditional Ramp Information Display (e.g. ETD) = A-CDM must call the AMU on the appropriate radio frequency, explain
is not running or A-CDM procedures have been suspended; the situation, and request guidance on how to proceed. If this
or call is omitted, it will be assumed that the TSAT is no longer
(b) TOBT + time or TOBT + time and TSAT + time = A-CDM valid, and it will be removed from the sequence. The operator
is running. or ground handler will need to provide a new TOBT for a new
TSAT to be generated. This may result in a substantial delay for
the flight concerned.
10.5.2.5 Call Ready Procedure
If the pushback and start-up process is interrupted for any reason
The flight crew usually must call the Apron Coordinator on the
after the aircraft has cleared the stand area or if the start-up
published radio frequency for the airport at TOBT +/- 5 minutes
process is expected to take longer than normal, the flight crew
to confirm that the flight is ready as defined for the TOBT and
must call the AMU on the appropriate radio frequency, explain
state the location “gate.” Thereafter, the crew will need to change
the situation, and request guidance on how to proceed.
to the appropriate radio frequency and monitor it for pushback
and start-up approval. Flight crews are reminded that the actual order of pushback and
start-up approval depends on the operational decisions of the
If the flight crew fails to call within the specified time window,
AMU and hence, a difference may exist between the system-
it will be assumed that the TOBT is no longer valid and the
generated sequence and the sequence as established by the AMU.
corresponding TSAT will be removed from the sequence. The
However, even after a manual intervention, any applicable
operator or ground handler will need to provide a new TOBT
constraints, like CTOT, would be met by the modified sequence.
for a new TSAT to be generated. This may result in a substantial
delay for the flight concerned.
10.5.2.9 Flight Crew Concerns About Meeting
Constraints
10.5.2.6 Procedures for Extended Times Between
Target Off-Block Time (TOBT) and Target All functions of an A-CDM system are designed to ensure that
Start-Up Approval Time (TSAT) applicable constraints, most importantly those resulting from
The time difference between the TOBT and the TSAT assigned TMIs, are always fully met. For example, the TSAT is calculated
to the flight may be substantial. Airports usually have a policy taking all applicable constraints into account, and if duly observed
for aircraft to stay at the gate until the assigned TSAT time. In by the flight crew, the runway slot (CTOT) allocated to the flight
cases where the gate is required for another flight, or on the will not be missed.
specific request of the operator or ground handler, the aircraft Nevertheless, if flight crew members estimate that a TSAT
concerned could be relocated to a waiting area. assigned to them and their applicable CTOT are not compatible,
they should contact their operator or ground handler to resolve
the issue via the Manager of Operations, Airport Flow.
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AGA
(b) If the flight crew determines, following clearance delivery, Block Time (TOBT)
that de-icing is required, they would contact the AMU on Operators or their designated representatives are obliged to
the applicable radio frequency and request de-icing. update the TOBT if there is a difference of +/- 5 minutes compared
to the initial or previously updated TOBT. Failing to update the
10.5.3 General and Business Aviation Operations TOBT will result in a TSAT that is no longer operationally correct.
— Air Operator Procedures This, in turn, may cause the flight to be subject to unnecessary
delay.
10.5.3.1 Prior Permission to Operate Required
(Reservation) 10.5.3.6 Target Off-Block Time (TOBT) Update
Operators or the designated representatives of general and Limitations
business aviation aircraft typically obtain prior permission to The TOBT may normally be updated as many times as necessary
operate (reservation) from the applicable airport authority using until 10 minutes prior to the TOBT. Thereafter, only two more
A-CDM procedures up to 72 hours before the EOBT, or a updates are usually possible. Should a third update be necessary,
minimum of 60 minutes before the EOBT of the planned the operator or its designated representative should contact the
operation. Some airports have special arrangements with GA/ Manager of Operations, Airport Flow, for further instructions.
BA Tenant Carriers allowing them to book up to 30 days prior
to the EOBT. 10.5.3.7 Method for Updating the Target Off-Block
Permission or reservation can normally be obtained by contacting Time (TOBT)
the airport authority. The TOBT must be updated either by updating the flight plan
EOBT or via the airports A-CDM web portal.
10.5.3.2 Requirement to Provide the Target Off-Block
Time (TOBT) 10.5.3.8 Target Off-Block Time (TOBT) and Target
Similar to Commercial Air Transport Operations, General and Start-Up Approval Time (TSAT) Delivery
Business Aviation flights must also have a TOBT. Operators can Channels
typically obtain their TOBT using the airport’s A-CDM Several channels are provided for the delivery of the TOBT and
web portal. TSAT to the flight crew, such as:
(a) The A-CDM web portal;.
10.5.3.3 Pre-Departure Sequencing — Target Start-Up
Approval Time (TSAT) Generation (b) Any specific means of communication that may exist
between the operator or its designated representative and
Based on the TOBT, a TSAT is generated by the A-CDM system
the flight crew; or
for every flight. The TSAT is used to indicate the sequence in
which aircraft can expect to receive start-up approval, ensuring (c) The AVGDS, where available.
an optimal flow of traffic to the assigned runways. An update
to the TOBT will always result in the recalculation of the TSAT; 10.5.3.9 Access to the Target Off-Block Time (TOBT)
however, this may not always result in a different position in the
The TOBT will be displayed for the flight crew on all channels
sequence for the flight concerned.
as soon as it is set in the A-CDM system.
Any applicable constraints, like the CTOT resulting from TMIs,
taxi times, and possible de-icing time are considered in the
calculation of the TSAT, ensuring that such constraints are
always met.
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10.5.3.10 Access to the Target Start-Up Approval by the flight crew, the runway slot (CTOT) allocated to the flight
Time (TSAT) would not be missed.
The TSAT will usually be displayed for the flight crew on all Nevertheless, if flight crew members estimate that a TSAT
channels as follows: assigned to them and their applicable CTOT are not compatible,
(a) 10 minutes before the TBOT; or they should contact their operator or ground handler to resolve
the issue via the Manager of Operations, Airport Flow.
(b) 20 minutes before the TOBT if the TSAT is later than the
TOBT by 20 minutes or more (as may be the case due to
10.5.3.14 De-icing Operations
TMIs).
The need for de-icing has a substantial impact on standard
AGA
10.5.3.11 Call Ready Procedure A-CDM procedures, especially the extended taxi times needed
to account for the duration of the de-icing operation. To ensure
The flight crew should expect to call the AMU Apron Coordinator that the de-icing needs of individual f lights are properly
at TOBT +/- 5 minutes to confirm that the flight is ready as considered, the following additional procedures are applicable
defined for the TOBT; they must state their location on the during de-icing operations:
airport. The Apron Coordinator will advise the TSAT and then
instruct the flight crew to change to the appropriate radio (a) A request for de-icing would normally be transmitted by
frequency. If the flight crew fails to call within the specified time the flight crew on the airport clearance delivery frequency.
window, it will be assumed that the TOBT is no longer valid and (b) If members of the flight crew determine after clearance
the corresponding TSAT will be removed from the sequence. delivery that de-icing is required, they must contact the
The operator or its designated representative will need to provide AMU and request de-icing.
a new TOBT for a new TSAT to be generated. This may result
in a substantial delay for the flight concerned. 10.6 CONTINGENCY OPERATIONS
10.5.3.12 Start-Up Procedures
If the Airport Collaborative Decision Making (A-CDM) system
fails or becomes unreliable, the A-CDM procedures will be
The start-up procedure typically commences at TSAT suspended. The suspension and eventual restarting of the
+/- 5 minutes without a need for the flight crew to make an procedures will be announced via the airport terminal information
additional call. service (ATIS) broadcast and a NOTAM. During suspension of
the A-CDM procedures, no target off-block time (TOBT) or
If the start-up process does not commence within 2 minutes of target start-up approval time (TSAT) will be provided.
the TSAT time that was issued, the flight crew must call the
AMU on the appropriate radio frequency, explain the situation,
and request guidance on how to proceed. If this call is omitted,
it will be assumed that the TSAT is no longer valid and it will
be removed from the sequence. The operator or its designated
representative needs to provide a new TOBT via the A-CDM
web portal or via the Manager of Operations, Airport Flow, for
a new TSAT to be generated. This may result in a substantial
delay for the flight concerned.
Flight crew are reminded that the actual order of start-up approval
depends on the operational decisions of the AMU. Hence, a
difference may exist between the system-generated sequence
and the sequence as established by the AMU. However, even
after such manual intervention, the applicable constraints, like
CTOT, would be met by the modified sequence.
NAVIGATION AND The use of English and French for aeronautical radio
communications in Canada is detailed in Canadian Aviation
SURVEILLANCE Regulations (CARs) sections 602.133, 602.134, and 602.135. For
definitions of terminology and phraseology used in aviation in
Canada, refer to the Glossary for Pilots and Air Traffic Services
Personnel (AC 100-001), which is available on TC’s Web site
1.0 VOICE COMMUNICATIONS <https://tc.canada.ca/en/aviation/reference-centre/advisory-
circulars/advisory-circular-ac-no-100-001>.
1.1 GENERAL
1.4 VERY HIGH FREQUENCY (VHF)
This subpart deals with mobile radio communications between COMMUNICATION FREQUENCIES—
aircraft and ground stations. Particular emphasis is placed on CHANNEL SPACING
radiotelephony procedures that are intended to promote
understanding of messages and reduce communication time. The standard very high frequency (VHF) air-ground channel
spacing in Canada is 25 kHz. A 760-channel transceiver is
The primary medium for aeronautical voice communications necessary for operation of 25-kHz channels. This channel spacing
in Canada is very high frequency–amplitude modulation (VHF-AM) means that some operators with 50-kHz capability will have
in the frequency range of 118 to 137 MHz. For increased range their access to certain Canadian airspace and airports restricted,
COM
in northern areas and the North Atlantic, high frequency–single as 25-kHz channels are implemented for air traffic control (ATC)
sideband (HF-SSB) is available in the frequency range of 2.8 to purposes. In some areas of Europe, channel spacing has been
22 MHz. reduced to 8.33 kHz, which means that the same restrictions
may apply.
1.2 REGULATIONS AND GUIDANCE
Because the frequency selectors on some 25-kHz transceivers
MATERIAL
do not display the third decimal place, misunderstanding may
Operator’s certificates—In accordance with section 33 of the exist in the selection of frequencies. With such transceivers, if
Radiocommunication Regulations, a person may operate radio the last digit displayed includes two and seven, then the equipment
apparatus in the aeronautical service…only where the person is capable of 25-kHz operations.
holds [a Restricted Operator Certificate with Aeronautical
Example:
Qualification, issued by Innovation, Science and Economic
Development Canada]. Toronto Centre: ............................132.475 (actual frequency)
Station licences—All radio equipment used in aeronautical ATC Assigned Frequency:...............132.47 (digit 5 omitted)
services is required to be licensed by Innovation, Science and
Aircraft Radio Display:...............................132.475 or 132.47
Economic Development Canada.
In either case, the aircraft radio is actually tuned to the
For complete information on the requirements for communication
proper frequency.
in Canada, please consult the Study Guide for the Restricted
Operator Certificate With Aeronautical Qualification (ROC-A)
(RIC-21). To obtain a copy of this study guide, search for 1.4.1 Remote Communications Outlets (RCOs)
“RIC-21” on the Innovation, Science and Economic and Dial-Up Remote Communications
Development Canada Web site <www.canada.ca/en/innovation- Outlets (DRCOs)
science-economic-development.html>, contact the nearest RCOs are VHF transmitters/receivers installed at designated
Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada district aerodromes to permit communications between aircraft and an
office, or call 1-877-604-7493. FSS or FIC for the provision of FISE or RAAS. An RCO may
NAV CANADA has published phraseology guides for visual also be installed at an off-aerodrome location to enhance en route
f light rules (VFR), instrument f light rules (IFR), area communication coverage for the provision of FISE by FICs.
navigation (RNAV), and ground traffic operations. These guides FISE RCOs use one of the following four frequencies: 123.275,
support standardized pilot-controller-specialist communications 123.375, 123.475, or 123.55 MHz. At most of these outlets,
and are intended as learning tools and reference guides to 126.7 MHz is not active or monitored by a FIC. At these sites,
phraseology for all pilots flying within Canadian airspace. These as required, the FIC activates and transmits on 126.7 MHz to
guides are available at <https://www.navcanada.ca/en/ provide aeronautical broadcast services (broadcast of SIGMET
aeronautical-information/operational-guides.aspx#d21312acae or urgent PIREP) and to conduct communication searches for
c74bbdbc5cf437abccb139>. overdue aircraft. Further details on the use of RCOs can be found
in the General section of the CFS.
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A DRCO is a standard RCO with a dial-up unit installed to 1.6 USE OF FREQUENCY 5 680 KHZ
connect the pilot with an ATS unit (e.g. FIC) via a commercial
See AIP Canada (GEN 3.4.
telephone line. The line is only opened after communication has
been initiated by the pilot or ATS. The radio range of the RCO
is unaffected by the conversion. 1.7 PHONE USE DURING A RADIO
COMMUNICATIONS FAILURE
Activation of the system by the pilot is accomplished via the
aircraft radio transmitter by keying the microphone button four In the event of an in-flight radio communications failure, and
times with a deliberate and constant action on the published only after normal communications failure procedures have been
DRCO frequency. Procedures for establishing the link can be followed, the pilot-in-command may attempt to contact the
found in the General section of the CFS. appropriate NAV CANADA air traffic service (ATS) unit by
means of a conventional cell or satellite phone. Before placing
See the CFS for more information. the call, transponder-equipped aircraft should squawk Code 7600.
Public switched telephone network (PSTN) numbers to be used
1.4.2 Emergency Frequency 121.5 MHz
in the event of a communication failure are published in the
Pilots should continuously monitor 121.5 MHz when operating Canada Flight Supplement (CFS).
within sparsely settled areas or when operating a Canadian
aircraft over water more than 50 NM from shore, unless essential 1.8 CANADIAN BASE OPERATORS (CBO)
cockpit duties or aircraft electronic equipment limitations do
See AIP Canada GEN 3.4.
COM
(a) When within radio reception of a control tower or FSS The aeronautical satellite voice communications (SATVOICE)
during the facility’s hours of operation, call ATS on the system uses the public switched telephone network (PSTN) and/
tower frequency/FSS MF or 121.5 MHz. It is recommended or dedicated networks to route calls between aircraft and the
that pilots use the normal frequency or the frequency in use appropriate ground party. Dedicated network access switches
at the time. locate the aircraft anywhere in the world, regardless of the satellite
and ground earth station (GES) to which the aircraft is connected.
(b) When within radio reception of a remote communications
facility (FISE RCO, RAAS RCO or PAL), call ATS on the For ground-to-air calls, the ground party initiates the call using
published frequency. a network access number. Once connected to the network access
switch, the ground party provides as a minimum the following
NOTE: information to the appropriate service provider in order to route
FISE RCOs and PALs operate 24 hr/day, while most RAAS RCOs the call to the aircraft:
operate part time. (a) user identification (ID) [Required by Iridium. Inmarsat
does not require a user ID, but does require that the telephone
(c) When out of range for VHF communications (for example
number be registered in their system as part of the validation
at low altitude, along a highway corridor), pilots may use a
process.];
cell phone if they have cell phone coverage.
(b) personal identification number (PIN);
(d) If beyond the radio reception of an ATS facility, or when
outside the facility’s hours of operation, broadcast on (c) priority level; and
121.5 MHz or 126.7 MHz, or both, for assistance from other (d) aircraft address in octal format.
pilots who may be monitoring the frequency.
In addition to registration, every aircraft is assigned an aircraft
1.5 VERY HIGH FREQUENCY (VHF) address. An aircraft address can be defined in one of three formats:
ALLOCATIONS 24-bit format (24 binary characters), hexadecimal format (6
alpha-numeric characters) or octal format (8 characters).
See AIP Canada GEN 3.4.
The user ID and/or PIN are given by the service provider when
access to the network is granted, and they are used to secure
the call.
The priority level may be used by dedicated networks (and the
aircraft systems) to end calls of a lower priority, if necessary, and
allow incoming calls of a higher priority, although some systems
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may establish a 3-way call, so that the higher priority call can 2.0 LOCATION INDICATORS
interrupt the ongoing conversation without ending it. In that
case, the pilot can hear both ground parties at the same time Responsibility for Canadian location indicators rests with the
and determine which is more important. Aeronautical Information Services Division of NAV CANADA.
Location indicators are listed in the Canada Flight
Table 1.1—Priority Levels for Satellite Supplement (CFS) a nd Canada Water Aerodrome
Voice Communications
Supplement (CWAS).
Priority level Use Examples
1/EMG/Q15 Distress and
urgency
Rapid descent 3.0 DATA LINK COMMUNICATION
Emergency Urgent weather
Safety of Flight deviation
2/HGH/Q12 Flight safety Altitude request 3.1 DATA LINK APPLICATIONS
Operational High The generic term “data link” encompasses different types of
Safety of Flight applications that can transfer data to and from an aircraft. In
3/LOW/Q10 Regularity Flight information Canada, data link applications used by air traffic service (ATS)
Operational Low of flight, service include data link automatic terminal information service (D-ATIS),
Safety of Flight meteorological, Dispatch pre-departure clearance (PDC) via the airline host, departure
administrative. Maintenance
Typically assigned clearance (DCL), oceanic clearance (OCL), automatic dependent
COM
to calls between surveillance waypoint position reporting (ADS WPR) and
aircraft operators controller-pilot data link communications (CPDLC). Operational
and their aircraft information regarding Canadian applications can be found in
4/PUB/Q9 Public Public phone calls AIP Canada GEN 3.4.
Non-operational correspondence
Non-safety 3.2 AIRCRAFT COMMUNICATIONS
Flight crews should only act on an air traffic control (ATC) ADDRESSING AND REPORTING
clearance or instruction from a SATVOICE call with priority SYSTEM (ACARS) AND FUTURE AIR
level 2. (Priority level 1/EMG/Q15 is reserved for outbound calls NAVIGATION SYSTEMS (FANS) 1/A
from aircraft.). Many aircraft data link applications transfer data using the
For air-to-ground calls, a telephone numbering plan has been aircraf t communications addressing and reporting
developed that assigns short codes, as well as PSTN numbers, system (ACARS). In the early 1990s, air traffic control (ATC)
specific to each flight information region (FIR). When a GES units in the United States began to use ACARS-based pre-
receives the unique short code from the aircraft via satellite, it departure clearance (PDC) applications to alleviate the problem
is converted and the call is routed to the appropriate air traffic of congestion on clearance delivery frequencies.
services (ATS) unit. Seeing the benefits of this early type of application, airlines
Prior to using SATVOICE equipment for priority level 1, 2 or 3 began to push for additional air traffic service (ATS) data link
calls, the aircraft operator should address flight crew training applications. Notwithstanding the reduced performance of
and qualification, maintenance, minimum equipment list (MEL), ACARS networks that existed at the time, using ACARS-based
user modifiable software and service agreements with the applications was a valuable step towards early introduction of
commercial service provider. Installations would normally be future air navigation systems (FANS). Based on this, various
approved by the state of registry or state of the operator, in ATS applications operating on the ACARS network were
accordance with Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) developed. The original Boeing version of these applications
Advisory Circular (AC) 20-150A (or equivalent). was known as FANS 1, whereas the Airbus version was termed
FANS A. Today, new FANS applications such as FANS 1/A+ and
When using SATVOICE, pilots should apply the radiotelephony
FANS B continue to be used in airspace not suited for traditional
conventions and phraseology used for VHF/HF communications.
surveillance coverage.
Operational procedures, along with SATVOICE short codes and
PSTN numbers for aeronautical stations, are published in
AIP Canada GEN 3.4, and on en route low altitude and en route
high altitude charts.
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3.3 AERONAUTICAL Satellite data links provide greater coverage, although except for
TELECOMMUNICATIONS Iridium they are limited in the polar regions since most of the
NETWORK (ATN) satellites are stationary over the equator. Satellite data links are
also slower than VHF in response time (12–25 s). Service providers
As reliance on data link increased, a new aeronautical
with near-global coverage include Inmarsat (geostationary earth
telecommunications network (ATN) was implemented to enable
orbit [GEO] satellites) and Iridium (low earth orbit [LEO] satellites
greater data link performance. Compared to the original aircraft
in polar orbits for worldwide coverage); others provide coverage
communications addressing and reporting system (ACARS)
in particular regions, such as the multifunctional transport
network, the new ATN uses well-defined protocols, specifically
satellite (MTSAT) over the Pacific Ocean.
designed to provide reliable communications service over
dissimilar networks. Aircraft equipped for both ATN and future HFDL provides near global coverage including over the polar
air navigation system (FANS) applications are said to be equipped regions, but message transit times (approximately 80 s) are much
with “dual-stack”. lengthier than other mediums.
These companies provide a variety of air-ground data links, management unit (MU) or communications management
operating in different frequency bands to ensure global coverage. unit (CMU). At the initiation of a flight, one of the first flight
crew actions is to perform the ACARS system initialization. This
3.5 DATA LINK NETWORKS INIT REQUEST establishes a link with the airline ground system,
and informs it that the aircraft is being prepared for departure.
Traditionally, analog very high frequency (VHF) was the most
commonly used medium to transmit aircraft communications
3.7 DATA LINK AUTOMATIC TERMINAL
addressing and reporting system (ACARS) messages. This
INFORMATION SERVICE (D-ATIS)
medium of ACARS transmission is known as plain old ACARS
(POA). The low-speed characteristics of a POA data link require Data link automatic terminal information service (D-ATIS)
a number of frequencies to fully service all users. For example, enables delivery to the cockpit of automatic terminal information
almost a dozen VHF frequencies are required in North America service (ATIS) information in text format via data link. This
in order to provide a reliable service. As the number of analog results in a reduction of flight crew workload, eliminating the
VHF data link transmissions continues to increase across busy need to listen to the ATIS broadcast and hand transcribe the
areas, available channels in the aeronautical VHF band are message during busy periods. Thanks to data link service provider
approaching saturation. coverage areas, D-ATIS can also be accessed well in advance of
descent and approach. Flight crew flying aircraft communications
New high speed digital data link systems transmitting in the
addressing and reporting system (ACARS) equipped aircraft
VHF range are known as VHF digital link (VDL). Different
can send ATIS requests and receive ATIS information using
forms of VDL (Mode 1 through 4) have been defined. This new
their multipurpose control and display unit (MCDU).
digital architecture is called ACARS Over AVLC (AOA), where
the term AVLC refers to aviation VHF link control, which is the D-ATIS implementation can vary in both avionics and ground
protocol used over the VHF link for the relatively common VDL systems. In Canada, D-ATIS is available on the Rockwell Collins
Mode 2 system. (formerly ARINC) air traffic service (ATS) server.
To access VDL service, aircraft must be fitted with a
communications management unit (CMU) that is equipped with 3.8 PRE-DEPARTURE CLEARANCE (PDC)
a digital connection to a VHF data radio (VDR) transceiver. The Pre-departure clearance (PDC) via the airline host is a system
CMU processes all the ACARS applications and can be upgraded that provides instrument f light rules (IFR) departure
to integrate both VDL and ATN functionality. The CMU clearances (DCL) via data link to subscribing airlines at selected
automatically switches between AOA and POA according to airports. The PDC message is sent from the tower to an airline’s
service availability. server. The airline then takes responsibility for delivery of the
While VDL may provide faster message response times (two to PDC via either the aircraft communications addressing and
eight seconds) than analog VHF, the system is still limited to reporting system (ACARS) data link or, for non-ACARS-equipped
line-of-sight coverage. When beyond line-of-sight of a VDL aircraft, through some other means such as a gate printer.
ground station, some aircraft may also have the capability for
HF data link (HFDL) and/or communications through satellite
data link (SATCOM).
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Instead of a verbal readback of the entire clearance, air traffic 3.10 AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT
control (ATC) primarily requires readback of the flight plan SURVEILLANCE CONTRACT (ADS-C)
unique identifier (FPUI). This is a four-character (three numeric
Position reporting is required in oceanic and remote airspace
and one alphabetic) code included in the PDC message. See
where there is no other means of surveillance. Automatic
AIP Canada GEN 3.4 for a list of airports offering PDC service
dependent surveillance - contract (ADS-C) waypoint position
along with registration instructions.
reporting (WPR) via data link can overcome issues with voice
reporting. Automatic dependent surveillance (ADS) is a
3.9 DEPARTURE CLEARANCE (DCL) surveillance technique for use by air traffic services (ATS) in
Another data link application similar to pre-departure which aircraft automatically provide, via data link, information
clearance (PDC) is called DCL, which stands for departure derived from on-board position-fixing and navigation systems.
clearance. The DCL message itself may contain the abbreviation ADS allows controllers to obtain position data from future air
PDC, however the delivery method is different for the DCL navigation system (FANS) equipped aircraft in a timely manner,
application. In DCL, the data link dialog is directly between the thereby facilitating route conformance monitoring in non-
flight crew and the controller. The flight crew initiates DCL by surveillance airspace.
sending a departure clearance request (RCD). That RCD is routed An ADS-C is initiated by the ATS facility and it identifies the
to the tower, where the controller can send the clearance to the types of information and the conditions under which reports
aircraft directly via data link. When sending a RCD, the flight are to be sent by the aircraft. Some types of information are
crew will immediately receive the following flight system included in every report, while other types are provided only if
COM
message (FSM): RCD RECEIVED – REQUEST BEING specified in the ADS-C request. There are three types of ADS-C:
PROCESSED – STANDBY.
(a) periodic (a time interval at which the aircraft system sends
If the RCD cannot be correlated to the flight plan or if the RCD an ADS-C report),
was sent too late, the flight crew may receive one of the following
FSMs: RCD REJECTED – FLIGHT PLAN NOT HELD – REVERT (b) demand (a single ADS-C periodic report), and
TO VOICE PROCEDURES or RCD REJECTED – ERROR IN (c) event (triggered by a particular event such as a waypoint
MESSAGE – REVERT TO VOICE PROCEDURES – RCD TOO change event).
LATE.
ADS-C are managed by ATS facilities based on their surveillance
When air traffic control (ATC) receives a valid RCD, it will requirements, and ADS reports are sent automatically without
respond by sending the departure clearance message (CLD) and, notification to, or action required by, the flight crew. In the event
in turn, the flight crew will respond with a departure clearance that an ADS report is not received, air traffic control (ATC)
readback (CDA). Upon successful reception of a matching CDA, would attempt to contact the flight crew to obtain the position
the flight crew will receive a FSM that states: CDA RECEIVED report via voice. In the event of ADS service interruptions, aircraft
– CLEARANCE CONFIRMED. equipment failures or loss of signal coverage, flight crews are
At any time during the clearance process, if the flight crew expected to resume voice reporting. Flight crews should be aware
receives a FSM stating to REVERT TO VOICE, the data link of the limitations associated with available aircraft equipment
clearance becomes void and the flight crew should contact ATC. and the signal coverage over the intended route.
Other examples of FSM error messages include: Operational procedures for automatic dependent surveillance
waypoint position reporting (ADS WPR) can be found in
(a) RCD REJECTED – REQUEST ALREADY RECEIVED – AIP Canada GEN 3.4.
STANDBY
(b) RCD REJECTED – ERROR IN MESSAGE – REVERT TO 3.11 CONTROLLER-PILOT DATA LINK
VOICE PROCEDURES COMMUNICATIONS (CPDLC)
(c) CDA REJECTED – CLEARANCE CANCELLED – REVERT Controller-pilot data link communications (CPDLC) is a data
TO VOICE PROCEDURES link application that supports the exchange of text-based messages
Unlike PDC, there is no registration requirement to use DCL; between a controller and the flight crew. Text messages provide
however, operators must be Rockwell Collins (formerly ARINC) greater clarity than spoken very high frequency (VHF) or high
or Société Internat iona le de Télécommu nicat ions frequency (HF) radio communications, so the risk of error is
Aéronautiques (SITA) data link subscribers. A list of airports significantly decreased. Other advantages associated with CPDLC
offering DCL service can be found in AIP Canada GEN 3.4. include:
(a) reducing voice channel congestion in busy airspace;
(b) providing direct controller-pilot communications (DCPC)
in airspace where it was not previously available on voice
channels;
(c) facilitating air traffic control (ATC) communications with
flight crews whose first language is not English;
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(d) reducing flight crew input errors, by allowing the loading (c) the aircraft registration and/or aircraft address (as entered
of information from specific uplink messages into other in Item 18, preceded by REG and/or CODE, of the ICAO
aircraft systems, such as the flight management system (FMS) flight plan); and
or aircraft radios; (d) the departure and destination aerodromes, when required
(e) allowing the flight crew to request complex route clearances, (as entered in Items 13 and 16 of the ICAO flight plan).
which the controller can respond to without having to Canadian ATS facility identif iers can be found in
manually enter a long string of coordinates; AIP Canada GEN 3.4.
(f) reducing flight crew workload by supporting automatically
transmitted reports when a specific event occurs, such as 3.13 CURRENT/NEXT DATA AUTHORITIES
reaching the new flight level on an altitude change clearance;
and Aircraf t can display two controller-pilot data link
communications (CPDLC) air traffic service (ATS) facility
(g) reducing controller workload by providing automatic flight connections at any time, but only one can be active. The ATS
plan updates when specific downlink messages (and facility with which an aircraft has an active connection is the
responses to some uplink messages) are received. current data authority, sometimes displayed to the flight crew
CPDLC messages consist of a set of message elements, most of as CURRENT ATC. The ATS facility with the inactive connection
which correspond to radiotelephone phraseology. CPDLC is referred to as the next data authority. Under normal
message elements that are sent to an aircraft are referred to as circumstances, the current data authority will initiate a transfer
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uplink messages, or UM, whereas message elements that are sent to an adjacent data link-capable ATS facility when the aircraft
by the aircraft are downlink messages, or DM. There are two approaches the appropriate boundary. These transfers are
types of CPDLC implementations: future air navigation normally automatic and no flight crew action is required.
systems (FANS) 1/A and aeronautical telecommunications
network (ATN) based CPDLC.
4.0 GROUND-BASED RADIO
Operational procedures for CPDLC can be found in NAVIGATION AIDS
AIP Canada GEN 3.4 and ENR 7.5.5 for use of CPDLC in the
ICAO NAT Region.
4.1 GENERAL
3.12 AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES FACILITIES Ground-based radio navigation systems available for use in
NOTIFICATION (AFN) Canada include: distance measuring equipment (DME),
The first step for automatic dependent surveillance (ADS) or instrument landing system (ILS), localizer (LOC), non-directional
controller-pilot data link communications (CPDLC) is the air beacon (NDB), precision approach radar (PAR), tactical air
traffic services facilities notification (AFN), sometimes known navigation aid (TACAN), VHF omnidirectional range (VOR),
as the air traffic control (ATC) logon process; it is typically and a combination of VOR and TACAN (VORTAC).
initiated by the flight crew. The purpose of the AFN is to provide
air traffic service (ATS) with the data link applications supported 4.2 ACCURACY, AVAILABILITY AND
by the aircraft system and the unique identification of the aircraft. INTEGRITY OF GROUND-BASED
This allows ATS to correlate the logon information with the NAVIGATION AIDS
flight plan on file, ensure that messages are sent to the correct Aviation navigation systems must meet stringent accuracy,
aircraft, and make certain that any subsequent reports and/or availability and integrity requirements as specified in the
messages update the correct flight plan. This exchange of data International Civil Aviation Organization’s (ICAO) Annex 10.
link context is needed prior to any CPDLC or ADS connection.
Measures to improve availability include:
An AFN is needed when the aircraft does not already have a
connection, such as when the aircraft is preparing for departure, (a) Electronic means—The provision of alternate or redundant
or when the aircraft is planning to enter an area where ADS and circuitry for the electronic elements of the navigation
CPDLC services are available after transiting an area where aid (NAVAID).
those services were not available. (b) Emergency back-up power—All instrument landing
To perform an initial logon request, the flight crew enters into system (ILS) and VHF omnidirectional range (VOR) facilities
the data link equipment: for which NAV CANADA has responsibility, as well as
distance measuring equipment (DME) and tactical air
(a) the four-character International Civil Aviation navigation aid (TACAN) associated with these facilities,
Organization (ICAO) facility identifier for the ATS unit are provided with emergency power. Additionally, many
that the logon request will be sent to; non-directional beacons (NDBs) are provided with
(b) the aircraft identification (as entered in Item 7 of the ICAO emergency power.
flight plan);
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Measures to maintain accuracy and integrity of the navigation the NAVAID when the observation was made and the time and
signals include: date of the observation.
(a) Executive monitoring—An electronic means in which the
system checks its critical parameters. In the event of an 4.4 INTERFERENCE WITH AIRCRAFT
out-of-tolerance condition, it either changes to an auxiliary NAVIGATIONAL EQUIPMENT
back-up equipment or shuts the system down if there is no Some portable electronic devices can interfere with aircraft
redundancy or if the redundant circuit has also failed. This communications and radio navigation systems. The radiation
monitoring is continuous. produced by frequency modulation (FM) radio receivers and
(b) Periodic maintenance—NAVAIDs are periodically tested television broadcast receivers falls within the instrument landing
by qualified technologists. system (ILS) localizer (LOC) and VHF omnidirectional
range (VOR) frequency band, while the radiation produced by
(c) Flight inspection—In-flight inspections of ILS, VOR and amplitude modulation (AM) radio receivers falls within the
DME are carried out by specially equipped aircraft on a frequency range of automatic direction finder (ADF) receivers.
regular basis to ensure that standards are met. This radiation could interfere with the correct operation of ILS,
During periods of routine or emergency maintenance, or when VOR and ADF equipment. Pilots are therefore cautioned against
a NAVAID is identified as not meeting the required performance permitting the operation of any portable electronic device on
standard, it is temporarily removed from service and a NOTAM board their aircraft during takeoff, approach and landing.
is issued to advise pilots of the deficiency. The removal of the
After extensive testing, Industry Canada has concluded that the
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transmitted NAVAID identification can also warns pilots that
switching on or use of handheld electronic calculators can cause
the facility may be unreliable even though it may still transmit
interference to airborne ADF equipment in the 200 to 450 kHz
a navigation signal. Under these circumstances the facility should
frequency range when the calculator is held or positioned within
not be used. Similarly, prior to commissioning, a new facility
5 ft of the loop or sense antenna, or lead-in cable installation of
(particularly VOR or ILS) may transmit with or without
the system. Pilots, especially of small aircraft and helicopters,
identification. In such cases, a NOTAM would identify that the
are therefore cautioned against allowing the operation of
facility is unavailable and not to be used for navigation.
calculators on board their aircraft while airborne.
The end result of these combined efforts is a safe and reliable
air navigation system which meets the established standards. 4.5 VHF OMNIDIRECTIONAL RANGE (VOR)
Nevertheless, prior to using any NAVAID, pilots should do the
following: The VHF omnidirectional range (VOR) is a ground-based,
short-distance navigation aid (NAVAID) which provides
(a) Check NOTAMs prior to flight for information on NAVAID continuous azimuth information in the form of 360 usable radials
outages. These may include scheduled outages for to or from a station. It is the basis for the very high frequency (VHF)
maintenance or calibration. For remote aerodromes, or airway structure. It is also used for VOR non-precision instrument
aerodromes w it h communit y aerodrome radio approaches.
station (CARS), it is recommended that pilots contact the
CARS observer-communicator (O/C) or the aerodrome Frequency band—VORs in Canada operate on assigned channels
operator prior to flight to determine the condition of the spaced at 0.05 MHz (50 kHz) increments within the frequency
aerodrome, availability of services and the status of range 112.0 to 117.95 MHz.
NAVAIDs. The implication for users is that, in airspace serviced solely by
(b) Ensure that on-board navigation receivers are properly VOR, aircraft equipped with older VOR receivers which cannot
tuned and that the NAVAID identifier is aurally confirmed. be tuned to two decimal places (e.g. 115.25 MHz) may not be
able to operate under instrument flight rules (IFR). Of course,
(c) Visually confirm that the appropriate indicator displays are area navigation (RNAV), where approved for use, may enable
presented. operation under IFR.
4.3 PILOT REPORTING OF ABNORMAL Receivers with integrated distance measuring equipment (DME)
OPERATION OF GROUND-BASED (i.e. VOR/DME receivers) normally select the associated DME
NAVIGATION AIDS (NAVAIDS) “Y” channel automatically, while stand-alone DME receivers
display the “X” and “Y” channels separately.
Pilots are responsible for reporting any navigation aid (NAVAID)
failure or abnormality to the appropriate air traffic service (ATS) Range—VOR reception is subject to line-of-sight restrictions
facility. If it is not practical to report while airborne, a report and range varies with aircraft altitude. Subject to shadow effect,
should be filed after landing. reception at an altitude of 1 500 ft above ground level (AGL) is
about 50 NM. Aircraft operating above 30 000 ft normally receive
Reports should contain the nature of the abnormal operation VOR at a distance of 150 NM or more.
detected by the pilot and the approximate magnitude and
direction of any course shift (if applicable). The magnitude may Identification—Identification is accomplished by means of a
be either in miles or degrees from the published bearing. Reports three-letter location indicator keyed in Morse code at regular
should also include the approximate distance of the aircraft from intervals.
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VOR courses—Theoretically, an infinite number of courses (c) Accuracy—NDB systems are flight checked to an accuracy
(radials) are radiated from a VOR station; however, in actual of at least ±5˚ for an approach and ±10˚ for en route. However,
practice, 360 radials are usable under optimum conditions. much larger errors are possible due to propagation
disturbances caused by sunrise or sunset, reflected signals
The accuracy of course alignment for published VOR radials is
from high terrain, refraction of signals crossing shorelines
±3˚. Unpublished radials are not required to meet a particular
at less than 30˚ and electrical storms.
standard of accuracy and may be affected by siting difficulties.
Any significant anomalies in published radials sent out from
VOR serving an aerodrome will be published in the Canada 4.7 DISTANCE MEASURING
Flight Supplement (CFS). EQUIPMENT (DME)
Distance measuring equipment (DME) functions by means of
4.5.1 VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR) Receiver two-way transmissions of signals between the aircraft and the
Checks DME site. Paired pulses at a specific spacing are sent out from
the aircraft and are received by the ground station. The ground
Where RNAV routes have not been published, VOR remains the
station then transmits paired pulses back to the aircraft on a
primary NAVAID for use in Canada. It is important that the
different frequency. The time required for this signal exchange
accuracy of the aircraft equipment be checked in accordance
is measured in the airborne DME unit and is translated into
with principles of good airmanship and aviation safety.
distance (nautical mile [NM]) from the aircraft to the ground
While standard avionics maintenance practices are used for station. Distance information received from DME is slant range
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checking aircraft VOR receivers, dual VOR equipment may be distance and not actual horizontal distance. Accuracy of the
checked by tuning both sets to the same VOR facility and noting DME system is within ±0.5 NM or three percent of the distance,
the indicated bearings sent to that station. A difference greater whichever is greater.
than 4˚ between the aircraft’s two VOR receivers indicates that
DME is collocated with most Canadian VHF omnidirectional
one of the aircraft’s receivers may be beyond acceptable tolerance.
range (VOR) installations (VOR/DME) and with many instrument
In such circumstances, the cause of the error should be investigated
landing system (ILS) and localizers (LOCs). In some cases, DME
and, if necessary, corrected before the equipment is used for an
are also collocated with non-directional beacons (NDBs) to
IFR flight.
provide improved navigation capability. For collocated sites, a
single keyer is used to key both the VOR/ILS/LOC and the DME
4.5.2 Airborne VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR) with the three-letter location indicator. The VOR/ILS/LOC
Check transmits three consecutive indicator codes in a medium pitch
Aircraft VOR equipment may also be checked while airborne of 1 020 Hz followed by a single DME indicator code transmitted
by flying over a landmark located on a published radial and on the DME frequency (ultrahigh frequency [UHF]) and
noting the indicated radial. Equipment which varies more than modulated at a slightly higher pitch of 1 350 Hz. In the event
±6˚ from the published radial should not be used for that synchronization from the VOR/ILS/LOC should fail, the
IFR navigation. DME identification will be transmitted independently.
The DME system is in the UHF band and therefore is limited
4.6 NON-DIRECTIONAL BEACON (NDB) to line-of-sight reception with a range similar to that of a VOR.
Most DME “X” and “Y” channels are paired with VOR and LOC
Non-directional beacons (NDBs) combine a transmitter with
frequencies. As a result, the receiving equipment in most aircraft
an antenna system providing a non-directional radiation pattern
provide automatic DME selection through a coupled VOR/ILS
within the low frequency (LF) and medium frequency (MF)
receiver. Otherwise, the DME interrogator must be selected to
bands of 190–415 kHz and 510–535 kHz. NDBs are the basis of
the paired VOR or LOC frequency. Distance information from
the LF/MF airway and air route system. In addition, they function
an independent tactical air navigation aid (TACAN) facility can
as marker beacons for instrument landing system (ILS) as well
be obtained by selecting the appropriate paired VOR frequency.
as non-precision approach (NPA) aids for NDB instrument
(In that case, only DME information is being received; any
approaches.
apparent radial information must be ignored.) The DME paired
(a) Identification—Identification consists of two or three letter frequency and channel number are published in the Canada
or number indicators keyed in Morse code at regular Flight Supplement (CFS) and on instrument flight rules (IFR)
i nter va ls. (Pr ivate N DBs consist of a let ter/ en route charts in the navigation data box for all TACAN and
number combination.) DME installations.
(b) Classification—NDBs are classified by high, medium or low
power output as follows:
(i) “H” power output is 2 000 W or more;
(ii) “M” power output is from 50 W to less than 2 000 W;
and
(iii) “L” power output is less than 50 W.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
By convention, those frequencies requiring only one decimal the approach. LOCs operate in the 108.1–111.9 MHz frequency
place (e.g. 110.3 MHz) are known as “X” channels and those range. The LOC may be offset up to 3° from the runway heading
associated with two decimal places are designated as “Y” channels and still publish as a straight-in procedure; however, the amount
(e.g. 112.45 MHz). of offset will be published as a note on the approach plate. LOC
alignment exceeding 3° of the runway heading will have an “X”
4.8 TACTICAL AIR NAVIGATION (TACAN) as the first letter of the indicator, whereas LOCs and back courses
with an alignment of 3° or less will have an “I” as the first letter.
Tactical air navigation aid (TACAN) is a navigation aid (NAVAID)
used primarily by the military for en route, non-precision The normal, reliable coverage of ILS LOCs is 18 NM within 10°
approaches (NPAs) and other military applications. It provides of either side of the course centreline and 10 NM within 35° of
azimuth in the form of radials and slant distance in nautical the course centreline.
miles (NM) from the ground station. The system operates in the LOC and glide path identification is transmitted on the LOC
ultrahigh frequency (UHF) range with the frequencies identified frequency in the form of a two-letter or letter-number indicator
by channel number. There are 126 channels. preceded by the letter “I” (e.g. IOW).
TACAN users may obtain distance information from a distance
measuring equipment (DME) installation by selecting the TACAN 4.10.2 Glide Path (GP)
channel that is paired with the VHF omnidirectional range (VOR)
The glide path transmitter operates within the frequency range
frequency. This TACAN paired channel number is published in
of 329.3 to 335 MHz. The frequency is paired with the associated
the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) for every VOR/DME facility.
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LOC frequency in accordance with ICAO standards. The glide
CAUTION: path is adjusted to a published approach angle (typically 3°) and
Only DME information is being received by the TACAN avionics. a beam width of 1.4°. The antenna array is located approximately
Any apparent radial information obtained through the TACAN 1 000 ft from the approach end of the runway and offset
avionics from a VOR/DME facility can only be false signals. approximately 400 ft from the runway centreline. As the glide
path is formed by reflecting the transmitted signal off the ground,
the beam-forming area in front of the glide path antenna can
4.9 VHF OMNIDIRECTIONAL RANGE be negatively affected by heavy snow buildup. Airports have
AND TACTICAL AIR NAVIGATION snow-clearing plans in effect for this area as the snow must
AID (VORTAC) remain below the allowable design depth for proper glide path
A number of tactical air navigation aids (TACANs), supplied by operation.
the Department of National Defence (DND), are collocated with At some of the larger airports, an ILS is installed at each end of
VHF omnidirectional ranges (VORs) to form facilities called a runway. Consequently, an approach may be designed to either
VORTACs. end of the runway. The two systems are interlocked so that only
This facility provides VOR azimuth, TACAN azimuth and slant one ILS can operate at any time.
distance from the site. Components of a VORTAC operate
Figure 4.1—Typical ILS Installation
simultaneously on paired frequencies so that aircraft distance
measuring equipment (DME) avionics, when tuned using the
paired VOR frequency, will obtain distance information from
the DME component of the TACAN. An aircraft must be equipped
with a VOR receiver to use VOR, appropriate equipment to use
DME, or TACAN equipment to use TACAN (azimuth and DME).
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
4.10.3 Non-directional Beacon (NDB) (c) RVR equipment—For CAT II operations, two RVRs: one
located adjacent to the runway threshold (touchdown or
Low-power NDB transmitters are sometimes located on the
RVR A), and one located adjacent to the runway mid-point
LOC, 3.5 to 6 mi. from the runway threshold. If it is not possible
(mid-point or RVR B). For CAT III operations, three RVRs:
to install an NDB, a DME fix or RNAV fix may be used instead
one located adjacent to the runway threshold (touchdown
to form the FAF. In some cases, an en route NDB is located on
or RVR A), one located adjacent to the runway mid-point
a LOC so that it may serve as a terminal as well as an en route
(mid-point or RVR B), and one located at the stop-end (rollout
facility. As a general rule, NDBs transmit a two- or three-letter
or RVR C) of the runway (ref. ICAO Annex 3, 4.6.3.4).
indicator. The FAF provides a fix to which the pilot can navigate
for the transition to the ILS. (d) Power source—Airport emergency power (primary electrical
source for all essential system elements), commercial power
4.10.4 Instrument Landing System (ILS)/Distance available within one second as backup.
Measuring Equipment (DME)
4.10.7 Caution Regarding Use of Instrument
At some locations, a DME paired with the ILS provides distance
Landing System (ILS)
information to define the IAF and MAP. At other locations,
VOR/DME, which are available either on the airport or aligned Low clearance indications—Course interference is negligible
with the appropriate runway, will be used to provide distance when aircraft are flown within 6° on either side of the course
information for the transition to the ILS. centreline. Actual anomalies are typically noted on the applicable
approach charts. However, failure of certain elements of some
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4.10.5 Instrument Landing System (ILS) multi-element LOC antenna array systems can cause false courses
Categories or low clearances* beyond 6° from the centreline that are not
detected by the LOC monitoring system. This could result in a
Operational CAT I—Operation down to a minima of 200 ft DH premature cockpit indication of approaching or intercepting an
and an RVR of 2 600 ft with a high probability of success. (When on-course centreline. For this reason, a coupled approach should
RVR is not available, 1/2 SM ground visibility is substituted.) not be initiated until the aircraft is established within 6° of the
Operational CAT II—Operation down to a minima below LOC centreline. It is also essential to confirm the LOC on-course
200 ft DH and an RVR of 2 600 ft, to as low as 100 ft DH and an indication by reference to the aircraft’s heading and other
RVR of 1 200 ft, with a high probability of success. NAVAIDs (such as an ADF bearing or RNAV track) before
commencing final descent. Any abnormal indications experienced
Operational CAT III—CAT III minima will be prescribed in the within 35° of the published centreline of an ILS LOC should be
carrier’s operating specifications, in the operator’s operations reported immediately to the appropriate ATS facility.
manual, or in the CAP.
*A low clearance occurs whenever there is less than full-scale
deflection of the omnibearing selector or CDI at a position where a
4.10.6 Category II/III Instrument Landing full-scale deflection should be displayed outside of 6° from the LOC
System (ILS) centreline.
CAT II/III ILS enable pilots to conduct instrument approaches LOC false course—False course captures may occur when the
to lower weather minima by using special equipment and pilot prematurely selects APPROACH MODE from either HDG
procedures in the aircraft and at the airport. or LNAV MODE. Some ILS receivers produce lower than expected
course deviation outputs in the presence of high modulation
The following airport systems must be fully serviceable to meet
levels of the LOC-radiated signal. This can occur even when
CAT II/III standards:
both the ground transmitter and the airborne receiver meet their
(a) Airport lighting—A lighting system which includes: respective performance requirements. The reduced course
(i) approach lights; deviation can, in turn, trigger a false course capture in the AFCS.
(ii) runway threshold lights; False course captures can occur at azimuths of anywhere from
(iii) touchdown zone lights; 6° to 35° but are most likely to occur in the vicinity of 6° to 10°
(iv) centreline lights; azimuth from the published LOC course. A false capture is
(v) runway edge lights; deemed to have occurred when the AFCGS allows the LOC to
(vi) runway end lights; switch from ARMED to CAPTURED even though the
omnibearing selector or CDI has not moved and is still at full-
(vii) all stop bars and lead-on lights;
scale deflection.
(viii) essential taxiway lights.
(b) ILS components—Including: In order to minimize the possibility of a false course capture
during an ILS approach, pilots should use raw data sources to
(i) LOC;
ensure that the aircraft is within 6° of the correct LOC course
(ii) glide path transmitter;
prior to initiating a coupled approach. The following cockpit
(iii) NDB, DME or RNAV fix.
procedures are recommended:
(a) APPROACH MODE should not be selected until the aircraft
is within 18 NM of the threshold and is positioned within
6° of the inbound ILS course.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
(b) In addition, pilots should: Some CAT I and II ILS facilities that have the signal
(i) ensure that the ADF bearing (associated with the characteristics to support AFCGS operations to CAT I and
appropriate NDB site) or RNAV track for the runway II minima, as applicable, may not have the requisite signal
is monitored for correct orientation; characteristics to support autoland operations.
NAV CANADA maintains a list indicating which facilities
(ii) be aware when the raw data indicates that the aircraft are suitable for autoland practice. The list is available here:
is approaching and established on the correct course; <https://www.navcanada.ca/en/flight-planning/
and communication-navigation-and-surveillance.aspx/#e4970
(iii) be aware that, should a false course capture occur, b9b30a240fd99eaa339c4316d66>.
it will be necessary to deselect and re-arm APPROACH Flight crews are reminded to exercise extreme caution
MODE in order to achieve a successful coupled whenever ILS signals are used beyond the minima specified
approach on the correct LOC course. in the approach procedure and when conducting autolands
EMI—The effect of EMI, particularly on ILS LOC system integrity, on any category of ILS when critical area protection is not
is becoming increasingly significant. In built-up areas, power assured by ATC. Pilots must be prepared to immediately
transformer stations, industrial activity, and broadcast disconnect the autopilot and take appropriate action should
transmitters have been known to generate interference that unsatisfactory AFCGS performance occur during these
affects LOC receivers. The effect is difficult to quantify as the operations.
interference may be transitory, and certain LOC receivers are Glide path fluctuations—While an aircraft is navigating on the
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more susceptible than others to EMI. If the LOC goes off the ILS, fluctuations may occur when other aircraft or vehicles are
air, the “off” flag may remain out of sight or the flag and CDI moving through the glide path critical area, causing interference
may give erratic or erroneous indications. It is even possible that with the signal. In some cases, the aircraft automation/autopilot
normal on-course cockpit indications may continue. Under may follow momentary fluctuations, causing the aircraft to pitch
normal circumstances, ATS will advise pilots conducting an or roll. ATS will protect the glidepath signal when:
approach if there is equipment failure.
(a) The ceiling is less than 1 000 ft or visibility is less than
Automatic landing (autoland) operations—The commissioning, 3 miles, or both; and
periodic flight inspection, and maintenance of the ILS facility
serving a CAT III runway include an analysis of the ILS LOC (b) The arriving aircraft is inside the FAF on an ILS approach.
signal throughout the rollout to confirm that the ILS facility The ILS critical areas are not protected when aircraft are outside
will support CAT III operations. The successful outcome of any the FAF. Futhermore, except for CAT II/III operations, localizer
ILS autoland depends on the performance of the aircraft’s AFCGS signal protection is not applied when a preceding aircraft passes
and the ILS LOC and glide path signals. The course structure over or through the critical area while taking off, landing, or
and the integrity of an ILS can be compromised when protection executing a missed approach on the same or another runway.
of the ILS critical areas is not assured. The LOC is particularly Pilots must be aware of ILS signal interference threats as well as
sensitive due to its larger signal volume in the aerodrome area. flight display indications and autopilot functionality during
Surface and airborne traffic as well as vehicles that are crossing manual or fully coupled ILS approaches.
or parked in these critical areas can create a deflection in or a
In situations where protection of the ILS signal is not required
disturbance to the ILS signal. An ILS CAT III signal is only
but a pilot wishes to conduct autoland or practise low-visibility
protected by ATC when low visibility procedures are in effect
procedures, the pilot must advise the controller of these intentions
at that aerodrome.
early enough so that the controller can either protect the ILS
It has been common practice for operators of appropriately critical area or advise the pilot that, due to traffic, ILS critical
equipped and certified aircraft to conduct AFCGS autoland area protection is not possible. If ILS critical area protection is
operations at CAT I, II, or III facilities when weather conditions not possible, the controller will use the phrase “ILS CRITICAL
are above the appropriate minima to satisfy maintenance, AREA NOT PROTECTED”. It then becomes the pilot’s
training, or reliability program requirements. A portion of these responsibility to continue the chosen approach mode.
autolands may also need to be conducted on CAT I ILS facilities,
Pilots should review Transport Canada’s Manual of All Weather
or on CAT II/III ILS facilities when low visibility procedures are
Operations for an understanding of ILS critical and sensitive
not in force. In the case of a CAT I ILS facility, for example, the
areas.
ILS should be of CAT II signal quality without necessarily meeting
the associated CAT II reliability and availability criteria for NOTE: At uncontrolled airports, aircraft manoeuvring on the
backup equipment and automatic changeover of facility ground may enter ILS critical areas during taxi, takeoff, or
performance. landing.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
(c) Glide path false course—The normal antenna pattern of chaired jointly by the departments of Defense and Transportation,
glide path installations produces a false glide path angle at that is comprised of representatives from several other departments
two and three times the set angle (e.g. at 6° and 9° for a to ensure that civil user requirements are considered in the
typical 3° published glide path angle). management of the system. Title 10 of the U.S. Code, Section 2281,
ATC procedures in terminal areas are designed to maintain assigns the Secretary of Defense statutory authority to sustain
aircraft at an altitude that provides a normal rate of descent and operate GPS for military and civil purposes. This statute
and a suitable position to capture the published glide path directs the Secretary of Defense to provide civil GPS service on
signal. Following the instrument procedures carefully will a continuous, worldwide basis, free of direct user fees. The system
ensure both an approach with a stable rate of descent and is operated and controlled by Space Delta 8, located at Schriever
the complete avoidance of a false glide path. Failure to adhere Space Force Base, Colo.
to instrument procedures (e.g. remaining at an altitude The design GPS constellation contains 24 GPS satellites, orbiting
higher than published) could result in positioning the aircraft the earth twice a day at an altitude of 10 900 NM (20 200 km).
in a false glide path created by the radiated lobe. They are arranged in six separate orbital planes, with four satellites
In order to minimize the possibility of false glide path capture in each; this gives complete global coverage. There are
during an ILS approach, pilots should verify the rate of approximately 32 operational satellites; however, at any given
descent and the altitude at the FAF to ensure that the aircraft time, one or more may be decommissioned or be out of service
is on the published glide path. temporarily for maintenance.
All GPS orbits cross the equator at a 55° angle, so it is not possible
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needs an augmentation system to correct the computed transit 5.3 AUGMENTATION SYSTEMS
time to compensate for this delay.
Augmentation of the global positioning system (GPS) constellation
Another key to GPS accuracy is the relative position of satellites or the global orbiting navigation satellite system (GLONASS)
in the sky, or satellite geometry. When satellites are widely spread, constellation is required to meet the accuracy, integrity, continuity
geometry and accuracy are better. If satellites are clustered in a and availability requirements for aviation. There are currently
small area of the sky, geometry and accuracy are worse. Currently, three types of augmentation:
GPS horizontal and vertical positions are accurate to 6 m and
(a) aircraft-based augmentation system (ABAS);
8 m, respectively, 95% of the time.
(b) satellite-based augmentation system (SBAS); and
The GPS satellite constellation is operated by the U.S. Air Force
from a control centre at Schriever Space Force Base in Colorado. (c) ground-based augmentation system (GBAS).
A global network of monitor and uplink stations relays information
about the satellites to the control centre and sends messages, 5.3.1 Aircraft-Based Augmentation
when required, to the satellites. System (ABAS)
If a problem is detected with a satellite, it is commanded to send RAIM and FDE functions in current IFR-certified avionics are
an “unhealthy” status indication, causing receivers to drop it considered ABAS. RAIM can provide the integrity for the
from the position solution. Since detection and resolution of a en route, terminal, and NPA phases of flight. FDE improves the
problem take time, and this delay is unacceptable in aviation continuity of operation in the event of a satellite failure and can
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operations, augmentation systems are used to provide the level support primary-means oceanic operations.
of integrity required by aviation.
RAIM uses extra satellites in view to compare solutions and
The GPS constellation status is available at <http://www.navcen. detect problems. It usually takes four satellites to compute a
uscg.gov/?Do=constellationStatus>. navigation solution, and a minimum of five for RAIM to function.
The availability of RAIM is a function of the number of visible
5.2.2 Global Orbiting Navigation Satellite satellites and their geometry. It is complicated by the movement
System (GLONASS) of satellites relative to a coverage area and temporary satellite
outages resulting from scheduled maintenance or failures.
GLONASS is a global satellite constellation, operated by the
Russian Aerospace Defence Forces, that provides real-time If the number of satellites in view and their geometry do not
position and velocity determination for military and civilian support the applicable alert limit (2 NM en route, 1 NM terminal
users. The satellites are located at an altitude of 19 100 km and and 0.3 NM NPA), RAIM is unable to guarantee the integrity
at an inclination of the orbital planes of 64.8° to the equator. of the position solution. (Note that this does not imply a satellite
malfunction.) In this case, the RAIM function in the avionics
The GLONASS constellation status is available at will alert the pilot, but will continue providing a navigation
<https://glonass-iac.ru/en/sostavOG/>. solution. Except in cases of emergency, pilots must discontinue
using GNSS for IFR navigation when such an alert occurs.
5.2.3 Galileo Navigation Satellite System
A second type of RAIM alert occurs when the avionics detects
Galileo is Europe’s GNSS constellation, which will provide a a satellite range error (typically caused by a satellite malfunction)
highly accurate, guaranteed global positioning service under that may cause an accuracy degradation that exceeds the alert
civilian control. The fully deployed Galileo system will consist limit for the current phase of flight. When this occurs, the avionics
of 24 operational satellites plus six in-orbit spares, positioned in alerts the pilot and denies navigation guidance by displaying
three circular medium Earth orbit (MEO) planes at an altitude red flags on the HSI or CDI. Continued flight using GNSS is
of 23 222 km, and at an inclination of the orbital planes of 56° then not possible until the satellite is flagged as unhealthy by
to the equator. the control centre, or normal satellite operation is restored.
The Galileo constellation status is available at <https://www. Some avionics go beyond basic RAIM by having an FDE feature
gsc-europa.eu/system-status/Constellation-Information>. that allows the avionics to detect which satellite is faulty, and
then to exclude it from the navigation solution. FDE requires a
5.2.4 BeiDou Navigation Satellite System minimum of six satellites with good geometry to function. It
has the advantage of allowing continued navigation in the
BeiDou is the Chinese navigation satellite system. It consists of presence of a satellite malfunction.
two separate satellite constellations: a limited test system that
has been operating since 2000 and a full-scale global navigation Most first generation avionics do not have FDE and were designed
system that is currently under construction. On June 23, 2020, when GPS had a feature called SA that deliberately degraded
the final BeiDou satellite was successfully launched. It was the accuracy. SA has since been discontinued, and new generation
55th satellite in the BeiDou family. The third iteration of the SBAS-capable receivers (TSO-C145a/C146a) account for SA
BeiDou navigation satellite system provides full global coverage being terminated. These receivers experience a higher RAIM
for timing and navigation. availability, even in the absence of SBAS messages, and also have
FDE capability.
The BeiDou constellation status is available at <www.csno-tarc.
cn/en/>.
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a constellation definition that takes into account scheduled on the equator. See the following Web site for their exact locations:
satellite outages. <https://www.nstb.tc.faa.gov/index.htm>.
Most TSO-C129a avionics also accept signals from an aircraft
altitude encoder. This is called baro-aiding, and it essentially 5.3.3 Ground-Based Augmentation
reduces the number of satellites required by one, thus further System (GBAS)
increasing the availability of RAIM and providing an additional GBAS, also known as LAAS, sends corrections directly to GBAS-
measure of tolerance to satellite failures. capable receivers from a ground station at an airport.
With proper integration, IRS and INS can augment/enhance GPS receivers with antennas at surveyed surface locations provide
GNSS navigation. This system allows “coasting” through periods measurements used to generate and broadcast pseudorange
of low availability. corrections. Aircraft receivers use the corrections for increased
accuracy, while a monitor function in the ground station assures
5.3.2 Satellite-Based Augmentation the integrity of the broadcast. GBAS provides service over a
System (SBAS) limited area, typically within 30 NM of the ground station.
SBAS uses a network of ground-based reference stations that GBAS is not yet available in Canada.
monitor navigation satellite signals and relay data to master
stations, which assess signal validity and compute error 5.4 DOMESTIC INSTRUMENT FLIGHT
corrections. The master stations generate two primary types of RULES (IFR) APPROVAL TO USE
messages: integrity, and range corrections. These are broadcast GLOBAL NAVIGATION SATELLITE
to SBAS-capable GNSS receivers via GEO satellites in fixed SYSTEM (GNSS) AND SATELLITE-
orbital positions over the equator. The SBAS GEO satellites also BASED AUGMENTATION
serve as additional sources of navigation ranging signals. SYSTEM (SBAS)
The integrity messages provide a direct validation of each The global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and satellite-based
navigation satellite’s signal. This function is similar to RAIM, augmentation system (SBAS) approved for instrument flight
except that the additional satellites required for RAIM are not rules (IFR) use in Canada are listed in AIP Canada ENR 4.3,
necessary when SBAS integrity messages are used. The integrity Table 4.3.
messages are available wherever a GEO satellite signal can
GNSS capability may be provided by a panel-mount receiver or
be received.
by a flight management system (FMS) that uses the appropriate
The range corrections contain estimates of the errors introduced sensor.
into the range measurements as a result of ionospheric delays,
Avionics are required to meet appropriate equipment standards
and satellite ephemeris (orbit) and clock errors. Ionospheric
and, equally important, the avionics installation must be approved
delay terms are critical for correction messages, and are also the
by Transport Canada (TC) to ensure proper avionics integration
most challenging to characterize. First, each reference station
and display.
measures the ionospheric delay for each visible satellite. These
observations are sent to the master station, where they are Handheld and other visual flight rules (VFR) receivers do not
combined, and used to generate a model of the ionosphere, which support integrity monitoring, nor do they comply with other
is then transmitted to the receivers via the GEO satellite. The certification requirements; therefore, they cannot be used for
accuracy of the model is dependent on the number and placement IFR operations.
of the reference stations providing observations of ionospheric
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Holders of air operator certificates (AOCs) issued under Part VII shall use the prefix “RNAV” in radio communications
of the Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs) and private operator (e.g. “CLEARED TO THE VANCOUVER AIRPORT RNAV
certificates issued under CAR 604 are required to be authorized RUNWAY ZERO FOUR APPROACH”).
to conduct GNSS instrument approach operations in instrument
GNSS-based RNAV approaches are designed to take full advantage
meteorological conditions (IMC).
of GNSS capabilities. A series of waypoints in a “T” or “Y” pattern
eliminates the need for a procedure turn. The accuracy of GNSS
5.4.1 Domestic En Route and Terminal may result in lower minima and increased capacity at the airport.
Operations Because GNSS is not dependent on the location of a ground-
In practice, pilots can use GNSS for guidance most of the time. based aid, straight-in approaches are possible for most runway
If an integrity alert occurs while en route, the pilot can then ends at an airport.
continue by using conventional aids, diverting if necessary from In Canada, RNAV (GNSS) approach charts may depict up to
the direct routing, notifying ATS of any changes to the flight five sets of minima:
and obtaining a new clearance, as required.
(a) LPV;
When using GNSS to maintain a track in terminal operations,
the avionics shall be in terminal mode and/or the CDI shall be (b) LP;
set to terminal sensitivity. (Most avionics set the mode and (c) LNAV/VNAV;
sensitivity automatically within 30 NM of the destination airport, (d) LNAV; and
or when an arrival procedure is loaded.)
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(e) CIRCLING.
When using GNSS to navigate along VHF/UHF or LF/MF
airways, ground-based NAVAID reception is not an issue. This The LP and LNAV minima indicate an NPA, while the LNAV/
means that pilots using GNSS for navigation can file or request VNAV and LPV minima refer to APV approaches (RNAV
an altitude below the MEA, but at or above the MOCA, to avoid approaches with vertical guidance). However, the actual terms
icing, optimize cruise altitude, or in an emergency. However, an “NPA” and “APV” do not appear on the charts because they are
ATS clearance to fly at a below-MEA altitude could be dependent approach categories not related to specific procedure design
on issues such as radiocommunication reception and the base criteria. In Canada, the depiction of the five sets of minima is
of controlled airspace. In the rare case of a RAIM alert while en similar to the way that an ILS approach may show landing minima
route below the MEA, and out of range of the NAVAID, pilots for ILS, LOC and CIRCLING.
should advise ATS and climb to continue the flight using alternate The approach chart may indicate a WAAS channel number. This
means of navigation. is used for certain types of avionics and permits the approach
GNSS avionics typically display the distance to the next to be loaded by entering the number shown.
waypoint. To ensure proper separation between aircraft, a All approaches must be retrieved from the avionics database,
controller may request the distance from a waypoint that is and that database must be current. While it is sometimes
not the currently active waypoint in the avionics; it may even acceptable to use pilot-generated waypoints en route, this is not
be behind the aircraft. Pilots must be able to obtain this permitted for approach procedures.
information quickly from the avionics. Techniques vary by
manufacturer, so pilots should ensure familiarity with this 5.4.2.1 Area Navigation (RNAV) Approaches with
function. Lateral Guidance Only
At times outside ATS surveillance coverage, pilots may be cleared Avionics for LNAV approaches do not define a vertical path
by ATS to a position defined by a latitude and longitude. As these through space; as such, each approach segment has a minimum
are usually outside the range of traditional NAVAIDs, there is altitude below which the pilot may not descend.
no means to cross check that the coordinates have been entered
accurately. Pilots must be particularly careful to verify that the GPS (TSO-C129/C129a Class A1, B1, B3, C1 or C3) and WAAS
coordinates are correct. (TSO-C145a/C146a, any class) avionics are both able to provide
the lateral guidance required for these approaches.
5.4.2 Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)- Without vertical guidance, pilots are required to remain at or
Based Area Navigation (RNAV) Approach above the MDA unless a visual transition to landing can be
Procedures accomplished, or to conduct a missed approach at the MAWP,
typically located over the runway threshold.
Prior to the advent of GNSS, only two types of approach and
landing operations were defined: precision approach and NPA. WAAS and some GPS TSO-C129/C129a avionics may provide
Definitions have now been added for APV to cover approaches advisory vertical guidance when flying approaches without
that use lateral and vertical guidance, but that do not meet the LNAV/VNAV or LPV minima. It is important to recognize that
requirements established for precision approaches. this guidance is advisory only and the pilot is responsible for
respecting the minimum altitude for each segment until a visual
GNSS-based approaches are charted as “RNAV (GNSS) RWY
transition to land is commenced.
XX.” The “(GNSS)” before the runway identification indicates
that GNSS must be used for guidance. Pilots and controllers
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Pilots using TSO-C129/C129a avionics should use the RAIM errors. For this reason, baro-VNAV is not authorized unless a
prediction feature (including known satellite outages obtained local field altimeter setting is available.
by NOTAM at KGPS) to ensure that approach-level RAIM will
Non-standard atmospheric conditions, particularly temperature,
be supported at the destination or alternate airport for the ETA
also induce errors in the baro-VNAV vertical path. A nominal
(±15 min). This should be done before takeoff, and again prior
3° glide path will be steeper at warmer temperatures and shallower
to commencing a GNSS-based approach. If approach-level RAIM
at lower temperatures. To compensate for these temperature
is not expected to be available, pilots should advise ATS as soon
effects, some avionics allow input of the temperature at the
as practicable and state their intentions (e.g. delay the approach,
airport and apply temperature compensation to the vertical path
fly another type of approach, proceed to alternate).
angle so that the baro-VNAV vertical path is not biased as a
function of temperature. Unfortunately, not all systems have
5.4.2.2 Vertical Guidance on Area Navigation (RNAV) similar capabilities to compensate for temperature effects, and
Approaches pilots need to understand their system’s capabilities.
LNAV/VNAV and LPV describe approaches with vertical When temperature compensation is not or cannot be applied
guidance. These deliver the safety benefits of a stabilized approach through the FMS, pilots shall refer to a temperature limit, referred
and, in many cases, improve airport accessibility. to as TLim, published on the approach chart. This limiting
Aircraft with TSO-C145a/C146a (WAAS Class 2 or 3) or temperature protects a baro-VNAV’s final segment vertical path
TSO-C115b (multi-sensor FMS) avionics, may fly RNAV (GNSS) only (it does not protect any of the published minimum IFR
approaches to LNAV/VNAV minima with vertical guidance in altitudes on the chart). Below this temperature, the uncompensated
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a similar manner to the way they fly an ILS approach: with both vertical path generated by the FMS will not provide the required
a lateral CDI and a VDI. The lateral guidance must be based on obstacle protection. Therefore, when the temperature is below
GPS or WAAS. The vertical guidance may be based on WAAS, the published TLim, an aircraft with an uncompensated baro-
or on barometric inputs (baro-VNAV), depending on the VNAV system shall not fly an RNAV approach to LNAV/VNAV
approach and the aircraft equipage. minima. TLim will be a function of the reduced obstacle clearance
resulting from flying an uncompensated VPA and will vary
Aircraft with WAAS Class 3 avionics may fly RNAV (GNSS)
from approach to approach. For avionics systems that have the
approaches to LPV minima in a similar manner. In this case,
capability to correctly adjust the VPA for temperature deviations,
both the lateral and vertical guidance are based on WAAS.
the published TLim does not apply if the pilot enables the
The nominal final approach course vertical flight path angle for temperature compensation.
LNAV/VNAV and LPV approaches is 3°, avoiding the step-down
In short, regardless of whether or not the FMS (or other automated
minimum altitudes associated with traditional NPAs.
means) provides temperature compensation of the vertical path,
The LNAV/VNAV and LPV minima depict a DA, which requires and whether or not the actual reported airport temperature is
the pilot to initiate a missed approach at the DA if the visual within the temperature limit for the procedure, pilots are
reference to continue the approach has not been established. responsible for correcting the temperature of all minimum
published IFR altitudes on the approach, including the DA.
5.4.2.3 Area Navigation (RNAV) Approaches with
Vertical Guidance Based on Barometric 5.4.2.4 Area Navigation (RNAV) Approaches with
Vertical Navigation (Baro-VNAV) Vertical Guidance Based on Wide Area
Augmentation System (WAAS)
Multi-sensor FMSs that meet TSO-C115b have been certified
since the late 1980s to provide guidance for a stabilized final RNAV (GNSS) approaches with vertical guidance based on
approach segment during NPAs. The vertical guidance for these WAAS require a Class 2 or 3 (for LNAV/VNAV minima) or
systems has been derived from a barometric altitude input; hence, Class 3 (for LPV minima) TSO-C145a WAAS receiver, or a
these approaches are known as baro-VNAV approaches. This TSO-C146a sensor interfaced to appropriate avionics.
equipment has typically only been installed on transport category
RNAV (GNSS) approaches with vertical guidance based on
aeroplanes. The information provided by these systems is advisory
WAAS are entirely dependent on the WAAS signal. WAAS meets
only, and pilots are required to respect all minimum altitudes,
essentially the same navigation performance requirements
including step-down altitudes, since NPAs are not specifically
(accuracy, integrity and continuity) as ILS, and pilots can expect
designed to take advantage of baro-VNAV capability.
guidance to be similar to that provided by an ILS, with some
With the publication in Canada of RNAV (GNSS) approaches improvement in signal stability over ILS.
with vertical guidance, suitably-equipped aircraft may fly
WAAS avionics continuously calculate horizontal and vertical
baro-VNAV approaches to the LNAV/VNAV minima published
protection levels during an approach and will provide a message
on these approach plates. The standard for equipage is a multi-
to the crew if alert limits for the procedure are exceeded, similar
sensor FMS that meets TSO-C115b and is certified in accordance
to the way in which ILS monitors shut down an ILS signal when
with FAA AC 20-138C or equivalent. The FMS must use GNSS
its accuracy does not meet the required tolerances.
sensor input, but does not require a WAAS-capable receiver to
fly to LNAV/VNAV minima. Pilots must note that the vertical Although the WAAS integrity monitor is very reliable, good
path defined by baro-VNAV is affected by altimeter setting airmanship nevertheless dictates that pilots verify the FAWP
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crossing altitude depicted on approach plates with LNAV/VNAV 5.5.2 Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS)
and LPV minima, in the same way that the glide path check NOTAM
altitude is used when flying an ILS approach. Large altitude
A NOTAM will be issued whenever the FAA advises
deviations could be an indication of a database error or otherwise
NAV CANADA that LPV, LP and WAAS-based LNAV/VNAV
undetectable incorrect signal.
service is unavailable for a period of more than 15 min. The
NOTAM is issued for the FIR and will read either:
5.5 FLIGHT PLANNING
(a) LPV, LP AND WAAS-BASED LNAV/VNAV APCH NOT
NOTAM on ground-based navigation aid (NAVAID) outages AVBL (and may include a description of the affected area,
are of direct use to pilots because if a NAVAID is not functioning, if WAAS messages issued by a particular WAAS satellite
the related service is not available. With the global positioning are not available); or
system (GPS) and wide area augmentation system (WAAS), the
knowledge of a satellite outage does not equate to a direct (b) WAAS UNMONITORED (indicating that WAAS messages
knowledge of service availability. The procedures for determining may not be available across the entire service area).
service availability are different for GPS (TSO-C129/C129a) and Pilots should flight plan based on the assumption that the services
WAAS (TSO-C145a/C146a) avionics, and are explained in the referred to in a NOTAM will not be available. However, once
next subsections. they arrive at the aerodrome, they may discover that a service
is in fact available, in which case they may use the approach
5.5.1 Global Positioning System (GPS) NOTAM safely if they so choose.
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NOTE: When LPV, LP and WAAS-based LNAV/VNAV are not available,
This section applies only to operators using TSO-C129/C129a pilots may fly the LNAV procedure to the published MDA, as
avionics. this will almost always be available to pilots using WAAS avionics.
Since LNAV procedures will be used when LPV and
Research has shown minor differences among avionics’
LNAV/VNAV are not available, pilots should ensure that they
computations of RAIM availability, making it impractical to
maintain their skills in flying these approaches.
develop a GPS RAIM NOTAM system that will work reliably
for all receivers. Because of this, and since IFR GPS approval NOTE:
requires aircraft to be equipped with traditional avionics to be WAAS NOTAM information is not applicable to users of
used when RAIM is unavailable, NOTAM information on GPS TSO-C129a avionics.
RAIM availability is not provided in Canada. Canadian FICs
can supply NOTAM on GPS satellite outages by querying the NOTAM examples can be found in the Canadian NOTAM
international NOTAM identifier KGPS. (This information is Operating Procedures, available here: <https://www.navcanada.
also available at <www.notams.faa.gov>.) The availability of ca/en/aeronautical-information/operational-guides.aspx>.
RAIM can then be computed from the satellite availability
information by entering the expected outages into PC-based 5.5.3 Procedures on the Fringe of Wide Area
RAIM prediction software provided by some avionics Augmentation System (WAAS) Coverage
manufacturers or through direct entry into the GNSS receiver
or FMS computers that support this function. When WAAS coverage for an aerodrome is expected to be
marginal or unavailable, WAAS-based approach procedures
GNSS avionics also contain such a model, and this allows pilots will normally not be designed. However, at aerodromes on the
to determine if approach-level RAIM will be supported (available) fringe of WAAS coverage areas, for which LPV-, LP- or WAAS-
upon arrival at destination or at an alternate. The calculation based LNAV/VNAV lines of minima have been published, pilots
typically uses current information, broadcast by the satellites, will be alerted that occasional outages may occur by a note on
identifying which satellites are in service at that time. However, the chart that states: “Procedure on the fringe of WAAS coverage.
unlike the software that is based on the NOTAM data, this Occasional outages may occur.”
prediction does not always take into account scheduled satellite
outages. Pilots should flight plan as though LPV-, LP- and WAAS-based
LNAV/VNAV will not be available at these aerodromes; however,
Operators using TSO-C129/C129a avionics who wish to take if the service is available, it may be used safely at the pilot’s
advantage of an RNAV (GNSS) approach when specifying a discretion.
destination or alternate airport must check KGPS NOTAM to
verify the status of the constellation.
5.5.4 Space Weather
The source of space weather is the sun, which releases streams
of charged particles made up of energized electrons and protons.
Two types of solar phenomena can have a major impact on GNSS:
coronal mass ejections (CMEs) and coronal holes. Coronal mass
ejections are gigantic amounts of electrified gas or plasma
launched into space that can have a major influence, typically
reaching the Earth within 1–3 days. Coronal holes are regions
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of open magnetic field lines where high-speed streams of plasma SBAS service area for several hours. During pre-flight planning,
can flow out from the sun. If conditions are right when these pilots can consult Canadian Space Weather Forecast Centre
particles reach the Earth, geomagnetic storms can occur. products to determine if APV service for their flight may be
affected. See: <www.spaceweather.gc.ca/index-en.php>.
At the Earth’s surface, geomagnetic storms are characterized by
a K-level index that ranges from 0–9. Storms having little effect
would range from 0–3, while those with moderate effects would 5.6 INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES (IFR)
be 4–7, and strong storms with a lot of impact would be > 7. The FLIGHT PLAN EQUIPMENT SUFFIXES
Canadian Space Weather Forecast Centre (CSWFC) monitors, On an instrument flight rules (IFR) flight plan, the letter “G”
analyzes and forecasts space weather. Based on solar observations, in Item 10 (equipment and capabilities) indicates that the aircraft
it can predict when the particles will reach the Earth, and forecast has IFR-approved global positioning system (GPS) or wide area
the expected geomagnetic activity that will result. More detailed augmentation system (WAAS) avionics, and can therefore be
measurements are made using space weather monitoring satellites, cleared by air traffic service (ATS) on direct routings while
which provide information approximately 30 min before the en route, in terminal areas, and for global navigation satellite
particles reach the Earth. system (GNSS) based approaches.
Canada has three zones of geomagnetic activity: the polar cap,
the auroral zone and the subauroral zone. The highest geomagnetic 5.7 AVIONICS DATABASES
activity and greatest disturbances are observed in the auroral Global navigation satellite system (GNSS) avionics used for
zone. Changes in electron density, due to space weather activity, instrument flight rules (IFR) flight require an electronic database
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can change the speed at which radio waves travel, introducing that can be updated, normally on 28- or 56-day cycles. The
a “propagation delay” in the GNSS signal through the ionosphere. updating service is usually purchased under subscription from
The propagation delay can vary from minute to minute, and avionics manufacturers or database suppliers.
these intervals of rapid change can sometimes last for several
hours, especially in the polar and auroral regions. Changing Database errors do occur, and should be reported to the avionics
propagation delays cause errors in the determination of the range. database supplier. It is good practice to verify that retrieved data
is correct, and it is mandatory to do so for approach data.
ABAS, SBAS and GBAS use different techniques to correct for Verification can be accomplished either by checking waypoint
ionospheric delays. ABAS uses simple models implemented in coordinates or by checking bearings and distances between
the receiver software that are adequate for en route navigation waypoints against charts.
through non-precision approach phases of flight, but are not
adequate for any type of approach during which vertical guidance
is provided. SBAS provides ionospheric delay corrections derived 5.8 USE OF GLOBAL NAVIGATION
from measurements at a set of reference stations distributed over SATELLITE SYSTEM (GNSS) IN LIEU OF
a wide area. GBAS provides corrections for the combined effects GROUND-BASED AIDS
of various sources of ranging errors, including ionospheric delays. See AIP Canada ENR 4.3.
The corrections provided by SBAS and GBAS are much more
accurate that those calculated by ABAS, because they are derived 5.9 AREA NAVIGATION (RNAV)
in real-time from actual measurements, and are therefore APPROACHES AT
adequate for approach procedures with vertical guidance. ALTERNATE AERODROMES
GNSS provides navigation either using unaugmented GNSS and Pilots may take credit for an area navigation (RNAV) approach
RAIM or FDE, or using SBAS corrections. The availability and at an alternate aerodrome as outlined in the Canada Air
continuity of GNSS en route and NPA services are very robust Pilot (CAP).
against ionospheric delays caused by geomagnetic storms. This
robustness is primarily due to the relatively wide alert limits Taking credit for RNAV approaches at an alternate aerodrome
associated with en route and non-precision approach operations. for instrument flight rules (IFR) flight plan filing purposes is
possible because the availability of receiver autonomous integrity
SBAS augmentation makes APV possible by ensuring real-time monitoring (RAIM) or wide area augmentation system (WAAS)
monitoring of core constellation satellites and ionospheric delays. integrity is normally very high. However, when satellites are out
APV operations require accurate ionospheric corrections, as of service, availability could decrease. Consequently, it is necessary
well as relatively narrow integrity bounds, and these bounds to determine satellite status to ensure that the necessary level of
may be widened during periods when the ionosphere is severely integrity will be available. The procedures for this are explained
disturbed, in order to account for the increased variability of in the next two sections.
ionospheric delays, while ensuring the integrity of the position
solutions for all users. APV service is very robust in mid- and
5.9.1 Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)
high-latitude regions, and losses of service due to ionospheric
Approaches—Global Positioning
effects are expected to occur less than 1% of the time. Interruptions
System (GPS) (TSO-C129/C129a) Avionics
of APV service may occur during severe geomagnetic storms
and affect portions of the service area for short periods of time. The status of the GPS constellation may be obtained through
In rare cases, extremely severe geomagnetic storms may even the FAA by contacting a NAV CANADA FIC and requesting
cause temporary loss of APV service over large portions of the the international NOTAM file KGPS.
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A procedure that meets the requirement to ensure that approach- Jamming, directed at non-aviation users, could affect aircraft
level RAIM will be available for TSO-C129/C129a avionics is as operations. Over the past few years, Innovation, Science and
follows. Economic Development Canada has encountered several cases
of illegal importation, manufacturing, distribution, offering for
(a) Determine the ETA at the proposed aerodrome.
sale, possession and use of radiocommunication jamming devices,
(b) Check the GPS NOTAM file (KGPS) for a period of 60 min all of which are prohibited under the Radiocommunication Act.
before and after the ETA. If not more than one satellite Many jamming devices are manufactured for the purpose of
outage is predicted during that period, then this procedure disrupting the functioning of GNSS receivers, cellular networks
is satisfied. If two or more satellites are anticipated to be and low-power communication devices, such as cordless
unserviceable during the ETA ±60-min period, then it is telephones and Wi-Fi networks. Of primary concern is the
necessary to determine if approach-level RAIM will be proliferation of radiocommunication jammers designed to defeat
available, taking into account the reduced availability vehicle tracking and fee-collecting systems. Depending on signal
resulting from the outages. This may be accomplished by strength, these jammers can also prevent communication related
using commercially-available dispatch RAIM prediction to 9-1-1 and emergency services, while inadvertently and
software, acquiring a current almanac, and manually unknowingly, in most cases, inhibiting aircraft in the vicinity
deselecting those satellites for the times described in the overhead from receiving GNSS signals.
NOTAM.
In the event of suspected interference or other problems with
The RAIM availability requirement is satisfied if the resulting GNSS, pilots should advise air traffic service (ATS), and, if
prediction indicates that RAIM will be unavailable for a total
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necessary, revert to using traditional aids for navigation. Pilots
of 15 min or less during the ETA ±60-min period. are also requested to complete a GNSS Anomaly Report Form,
It may be possible to change the alternate or adjust the departure available at <https://www.navcanada.ca/en/flight-planning/
time (and hence the ETA) and re-run the prediction to find a flight-planning-and-reporting.aspx/#b0c94be7e7554546ad8d8
time for which the required RAIM availability is achieved, or 5fa44fa7385>, or equivalent, in order to assist in the identification
simply to find a time when fewer than two satellite outages and elimination of sources of interference or degradation of the
are predicted. navigation signal.
5.9.2 Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) 5.11 PROPER USE OF GLOBAL NAVIGATION
Approaches—Wide Area Augmentation SATELLITE SYSTEM (GNSS)
System (WAAS) Avionics Global navigation satellite system (GNSS) offers a great
Operators using WAAS avionics (TSO-C145a/C146a) can verify opportunity to improve aviation safety and efficiency. Many
that an approach is expected to be available by: pilots are benefiting from the advantages of GNSS as a principal
navigation tool for instrument flight rules (IFR) flight or for
(a) checking NOTAM that apply to the FIR to ensure that no visual flight rules (VFR) operations. To ensure safety, pilots
widespread WAAS outages have occurred, and then must use GNSS properly. Here are some safety tips:
(b) checking the WAAS horizontal and vertical service status, (a) use only IFR-certified avionics for IFR flights because hand-
available at <https://www.nstb.tc.faa.gov/index.htm>, to held and panel-mount VFR do not provide the integrity
predict if the desired approach line of minima is available needed for IFR operations;
given the current ionospheric conditions.
(b) for IFR flight, use a valid database for approach—a new one
In the event of a widespread outage of WAAS, poor WAAS is required every 28 or 56 days;
horizontal or vertical performance due to current ionospheric
conditions, or an aerodrome outside the GEO coverage area, the (c) verify that all procedures that could be required are present
pilot may need to determine if approach-level RAIM, as computed in the database prior to flight to remote or small aerodromes—
by a WAAS receiver, will be available. In this case, the pilot may data storage limitations have resulted in some manufactures
use the procedure described in COM 5.9.1 for TSO-C129/C129a omitting certain data from the avionics database;
avionics. This will provide a safe, although conservative, (d) do not become an approach designer—approach designers
indication of the availability of LNAV. require special training and specific tools, and there are
many levels of validation before an approach is commissioned.
5.10 GLOBAL NAVIGATION SATELLITE Furthermore, the receiver autonomous integrity
SYSTEM (GNSS) VULNERABILITY— monitoring (R AIM) level and course deviation
INTERFERENCE AND indicator (CDI) sensitivity will not be appropriate if an
ANOMALY REPORTING approach is not retrieved from the avionics database;
Global navigation satellite systems (GNSS) are used in many (e) never fly below published minimum altitudes while in
applications: financial, security and tracking, transportation, instrument conditions. Accidents have resulted from pilots
agriculture, communications, weather prediction, scientific relying too much on the accuracy of GNSS;
research, etc. Because it is used for such a wide range of civilian (f) use VFR GNSS receivers only to supplement map reading
purposes, when somebody wishes to disable one GNSS-based in visual conditions, not as a replacement for current charts;
system, their actions can also disrupt other, unrelated systems.
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(g) position hand-held receivers and related cables carefully in aircraft operating along an air traffic service (ATS) route, on an
the cockpit to avoid the potential for electromagnetic instrument approach procedure (IAP) or within designated
interference (EMI), and to avoid interfering with aircraft airspace. Under the PBN concept, RNAV is defined as a method
controls. Handheld units with valid databases could be of navigation that permits aircraft operation on any desired
useful in an emergency if IFR unit failed; and flight path within the coverage of ground-based or space-based
(h) resist the urge to fly into marginal weather when navigating navigation aids (NAVAIDs) or within the limits of the capability
VFR. The risk of becoming lost is small when using GNSS, of self-contained aids (inertial navigation). Area navigation
but the risk of controlled flight into terrain (CFIT) increases systems can take two forms: RNAV, which is the basic definition
in low visibility. VFR charts must also be current and updated above, or required navigation performance (RNP), which has
from applicable NOTAMs, and should be the primary an additional functional requirement for on-board performance
reference for avoiding alert areas, etc. Some VFR receivers monitoring and alerting. The RNP system relies upon the
display these areas, but there is no guarantee that the capability of the on-board navigation system to monitor, in real
presentation is correct, because there is no standard for time, the achieved navigation performance and to alert the flight
such depictions. crew when the specified minimum performance appropriate to
a particular operation cannot be met. This additional functionality
provided by RNP allows the flight crew to intervene and take
5.12 VHF OMNIDIRECTIONAL appropriate mitigation actions if necessary. On-board performance
RANGE (VOR)/DISTANCE MEASURING monitoring and alerting allows RNP operations to provide an
EQUIPMENT (DME) (RHO-THETA) additional level of safety and capability over RNAV operations.
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SYSTEM
All future RNAV will identify performance requirements through
The capability of on-board area navigation (RNAV) computer
the use of navigation specifications rather than defining required
systems which utilize VHF omnidirectional range (VOR)/distance
equipage of specific navigation sensors (VHF omnidirectional
measuring equipment (DME) signals varies considerably. The
range [VOR], automatic direction finder [ADF], etc.). These
computer electronically offsets a VOR/DME station to any desired
navigation specifications are expressed in terms of accuracy,
location within reception range. The relocated position is known
integrity, availability, continuity, and functionality needed for
as a waypoint and is defined by its bearing and distance from
the proposed operation.
the station. Waypoints are used to define route segments and
the computer provides steering guidance to and from waypoints. Accuracy: In the context of PBN, accuracy is the capability of
the navigation system to maintain the computed position within
5.13 DISTANCE MEASURING a specified distance (lateral navigation accuracy) of the actual
EQUIPMENT (DME-DME [RHO-RHO]) position 95 percent of the time.
SYSTEM Integrity: Integrity is the level of confidence that can be placed
DME-DME is a system which combines distance measuring in the information received from the navigation system. Normally
equipment (DME) receivers with a microprocessor to provide defined as a percentage probability to satisfy the assurance
an area navigation (RNAV) capability. The system has the location condition (i.e. 10-5), it includes the ability of an RNP system to
of the DME facilities in its database. Measuring the distance provide timely and valid warnings to users when the system
from two or more of these stations can provide a positional fix. must not be used for the intended operation or phase of flight.
The system provides a means of entering waypoints for a random Availability: Availability is stated as a percentage of time the
route and displays navigation information such as bearing, navigation system can perform its function. It should provide
distance, cross-track error and time-to-go between two points. reliable navigation information and present it to the crew,
autopilot or other system managing flight of the aircraft.
6.0 PERFORMANCE-BASED Continuity: Continuity refers to the ability of a navigation system
NAVIGATION (PBN) to provide its service without interruption. It should do so with
the specified level of accuracy and integrity throughout the
intended period of operation, assuming that it was available at
6.1 GENERAL the start of the operation.
Performance-based navigation (PBN) is not a stand-alone concept. Functionality: A set of functions or capabilities associated with
Rather, along with communications, surveillance, and air traffic PBN operations. Examples could include course deviation scaling
management (ATM), it is one of the four strategic enablers that and radius to fix (RF) capability.
support an overall airspace concept. An airspace concept may
be described as a master plan or vision for a particular section 6.2 KEY ELEMENTS OF PERFORMANCE-
of airspace, which aims to improve safety, increase capacity and BASED NAVIGATION (PBN)
efficiency, and mitigate negative environmental impacts.
Performance-based navigation (PBN) consists of three main
PBN is intended to enable more repeatable, reliable and predictable elements: navigation aid (NAVAID) infrastructure, navigation
flight tracks as well as smaller route containment areas to increase specifications and navigation applications. These elements,
operational efficiency. In the simplest form, it is area described in detail further on, must be present to have a fully
navigation (RNAV) based on performance requirements for incorporated PBN concept.
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6.2.1 Navigation Aid (NAVAID) Infrastructure that what is needed to meet a navigation specification in one
State may vary from that of another.
The NAVAID infrastructure that contributes to an RNAV system
may consist of ground-based, space-based or on-board NAVAIDs The following chart depicts all of the navigation specifications
that support or provide positioning capabilities. System types and their intended operational domain as outlined in ICAO’s
are as follows: Performance-based Navigation (PBN) Manual (Doc 9613).
(a) Ground infrastructure, which includes commissioned VORs Table 6.1—Navigation Specification Designations
and DMEs. (NDBs do not provide the specific range and
RNAV Specifications RNP Specifications
azimuth information with accuracy necessary to be used
in an RNAV system). Oceanic En route and Oceanic En route and
and Remote Terminal and Remote Terminal
(b) Authorized GNSS space-based infrastructure (satellite Navigation Navigation Navigation Navigation
constellations) such as: GPS, the European Union’s Galileo, Applications Applications Applications Applications
the Russian GLONASS, etc. RNAV 10* RNAV 5 RNP 4 RNP 2
(c) SBASs that correct for variance in the GNSS satellite signals RNAV 2 RNP 2 RNP 1
RNAV 1 A-RNP
in order to provide greater accuracy and/or signal quality,
*Formerly RNP APCH
e.g. WAAS.
referred to as RNP AR
(d) GNSS GBASs that provide navigation and precision approach RNP 10 APCH
service in the vicinity of the host airport, e.g. LAAS, GBAS RNP 0.3
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landing system (GLS), etc.
(e) Certified INS or inertial reference units (IRU), which support 6.2.3 Navigation Application
on-board capability. Navigation application is the application of a navigation
specification and supporting NAVAID infrastructure to specific
6.2.2 Navigation Specifications routes, procedures and/or defined airspace volumes.
A navigation specification is used as the basis for airworthiness
and operational approval. It details the performance required 6.3 NAVIGATION SPECIFICATIONS
of an RNAV or RNP system in terms of accuracy, integrity, EXPANDED
availability, continuity, required navigation functionalities and
NAVAIDs, and any requirements placed on the flight crew. 6.3.1 Area Navigation (RNAV) 10
Having a published navigation specification on Canadian routes
and procedures will ensure compliance with common aircraft RNAV 10 was historically designated as RNP 10. It requires
equipage and training that will result in assurance of track aircraft be equipped with at least two independent long range
conformance. There are two main types of navigation navigation systems; any combination of INS/inertial reference
specifications: RNAV and RNP. unit (IRU) or GNSS meet the RNAV 10 requirements. During
operations in airspace or on routes designated as RNAV 10, the
An RNAV specification is based on an RNAV system and would lateral total system error must also be within ±10 NM for at least
be denoted by RNAV(X). An RNP navigation specification is 95 percent of the total flight time. For normal operations, cross-
based on an RNP system and is denoted by RNP(X). track error/deviation should be limited to plus or minus one-half
In the examples above, “(X)” indicates the lateral navigation of the navigation accuracy associated with the route (i.e. 5 NM).
accuracy, in nautical miles, to be maintained 95 percent of the Brief deviations from this standard (e.g. overshoots or undershoots)
flight time by the population of aircraft operating within the are allowable during and immediately after route turns, up to a
airspace, route or procedure. For RNP specifications, it is also maximum of one times the navigation (i.e. 10 NM).
possible to have advanced RNP (A-RNP) and approach navigation Canadian RNAV 10 operations requirements are defined in
specifications that cover all segments of an instrument approach. AC 700-006—Required Navigation Performance 4 (RNP 4) and
They are denoted as RNP APCH (RNP approach) or RNP AR Required Navigation Performance 10 (RNP 10) Airspace and the
APCH (RNP authorization required approach). associated Special Authorization RNP 10.
A navigation specification identifies not only a lateral accuracy
figure but also functional and aircrew requirements. Therefore,
certification for one type of navigation specification does not
imply automatic qualification for a less stringent specification,
and an RNP specification doesn’t necessarily enable an RNAV
specification.
ICAO has developed guidance on a range of navigation
specifications. It is the responsibility of each State to determine
which navigation specifications would be most applicable within
their airspace concept with regards to current regulations and
NAVAID infrastructure. For this reason it is important to note
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requirements already require performance that exceeds RNAV 5 in AC 700-38—Performance-based Navigation (PBN) — EnRoute
when conducting RNAV. and the associated Special Authorization RNP 2 (Continental).
RNP 2 (Oceanic/Remote) has additional requirements over those
Operational requirements are defined in AC 700-015—En Route
for RNP 2 Continental, but they have not yet been defined in a
Area Navigation Operations RNAV 5 (Formerly B-RNAV) and
Canadian AC. A separate AC will be published when RNP 2
the associated Special Authorization RNAV 5.
(Oceanic/Remote) operations are implemented in Canadian-
controlled airspace.
6.3.3 Area Navigation (RNAV) 1 and RNAV 2
RNAV 1 and RNAV 2 operations are based on the use of the 6.3.6 Required Navigation Performance (RNP) 1
same aircraft receivers as those required for RNAV 5. Additional
The RNP 1 navigation specification is intended to be applied on
aircraft functionality and NAVAID infrastructure requirements
SIDs and STARs within 30 NM of the aerodrome where the
are needed to meet the more demanding performance of RNAV 1
surveillance services are limited or do not exist and/or a ground-
and RNAV 2. This navigation specification is applicable to all
based RNAV infrastructure is not practical. The STARs provide
routes, inside or outside of controlled airspace, SIDs and STARs.
a means to connect the en route structure to a variety of approach
It also applies to IAP leg segments up to the FACF. RNAV 1 and
procedures, including RNP approach (RNP APCH), RNP
RNAV 2 routes are expected to be conducted in a surveillance
authorization required approach (RNP AR APCH) and ILS.
environment with DCPC. In Canada, RNAV 1 has some potential
Application of RNP 1 enables the use of RF leg segments in
for terminal RNAV use for SIDs and STARs in areas where
applications such as the STAR, transition to the approach or
multiple DME pairs are available.
approach initial segments.
Operational requirements are defined in AC 700-019—Terminal
Position integrity bounding for RNP 1 can currently only be
and En Route Area Navigation Operations (RNAV 1 and 2) and
met using certified GNSS receivers. The GNSS receivers may be
the associated Special Authorization RNAV 1 and RNAV 2.
a part of a stand-alone navigation system or one of the sensors
in a multi-sensor system. Where GNSS is an input as part of a
6.3.4 Required Navigation Performance (RNP) 4 multi-sensor system, the aircraft’s position source must use
RNP 4 is intended for oceanic or remote airspace where a robust GNSS positions exclusively during RNP 1 operations. During
ground-based navigation infrastructure is not available. Aircraft operations in airspace or on routes designated as RNP 1, the
must have at least two fully serviceable independent long range lateral total system error must be within ±1 NM for 95 percent
navigation systems (LRNS) listed in the flight manual; both of the total flight time. For normal operations, cross-track error/
must be operational at the point of entry into RNP 4 airspace. deviation should be limited to plus or minus one half of the
Position integrity bounding can currently only be met using navigation accuracy associated with the procedure. Brief
certified GNSS receivers. The GNSS receivers may be part of a deviations from this standard during and immediately after
stand-alone navigation system or one of the sensors in a multi- turns, up to a maximum of one times the navigation accuracy
sensor system. Where GNSS is an input as part of a multi-sensor are allowable.
system, the aircraft’s position source must use GNSS positions For RNP 1 routes, pilots must use a lateral deviation indicator,
exclusively during RNP 4 operations. flight director, or autopilot in lateral navigation mode. Pilots of
Canadian operational requirements are defined in AC 700- aircraft with a lateral deviation display must ensure that lateral
006—Required Navigation Performance 4 (RNP 4) and Required deviation scaling is suitable for the navigation accuracy associated
Navigation Performance 10 (RNP 10) Airspace and the associated with the route/procedure.
Special Authorization RNP 4.
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Canadian RNP 1 operational requirements are defined in AC 700- For further information on A-RNP, refer to ICAO’s Performance-
025—Required Navigation Performance 1 (RNP 1) and the based Navigation (PBN) Manual (Doc 9613), Volume II, Part C,
associated Special Authorization RNP 1. Chapter 4. Canadian operational approval of A-RNP is not
currently in place; therefore, no AC or Special Authorization
6.3.7 Required Navigation Performance (RNP) 0.3 has been issued.
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Canadian-specific RNP APCH requirements are published in
application of DME/DME-based navigation is not currently
AC 700-023—Required Navigation Performance
viable. Operators are required to have the means to predict the
Approach (RNP APCH) and the associated Special
availability of GNSS fault detection (e.g. RAIM) to support
Authorization RNP APCH.
RNP 0.3 operations. The on-board RNP system, GNSS avionics,
air navigation service provider (ANSP) or other entities may
provide a prediction capability. The AIP Canada will indicate 6.3.10 Required Navigation Performance
when a prediction capability is required and an acceptable means Authorization Required Approach (RNP
to satisfy that requirement. Owing to the high availability of AR APCH)
RNP 0.3 performance available to SBAS receivers, prediction RNP authorization required approach (RNP AR APCH)
will not be required where the navigation equipment can make procedures can be built with various levels of RNP lateral
use of SBAS augmentation and the planned operation will be containment values on the initial, intermediate, final and missed
contained within the service volume of the SBAS signal. approach segments. There are increasingly demanding aircraft
Operational requirements are currently defined in ICAO’s certifications and operational approvals required when RNP
Performance-based Navigation (PBN) Manual (Doc 9613), values lower than 0.3 NM are applied in any of the segments.
Volume II, Part C, Chapter 7, but have not yet been defined in These approaches will be published in pertinent publications as
a Canadian AC; therefore, no Special Authorization is available. “RNAV (RNP)”.
As with all the other RNP navigation specifications, RNP AR
6.3.8 Advanced Required Navigation APCH position integrity bounding can only be met by utilizing
Performance (A-RNP) certified GNSS receivers. There are numerous other aircraft
equipment and functional requirements needed to meet the
This is the only navigation specification that enables operations
more demanding performance requirements. They can be found
under other associated navigation specifications. When advanced
in AC 700-024—Required Navigation Performance Authorization
RNP (A-RNP) is certified, the following other navigation accuracy
Required Approach (RNP AR APCH) and Special Authorization
and functional requirements are met in navigation specifications:
RNP AR APCH.
RNAV 5, RNAV 2, RNAV 1, RNP 2, RNP 1, and RNP APCH.
Some other functional elements are optional, such as RNP
scalability, higher continuity, FRT, and baro-VNAV. However, 6.4 FIXED RADIUS PATHS
RF leg capabilities are a requirement. Typically, with conventional navigation, turns had a large range
A-RNP has a very broad operational application; for operation of dispersion (some aircraft turned tight, others had wider turns)
in oceanic or remote airspace, on the continental en route depending on aircraft speed, turn anticipation, bank angle and
structure, as well as on arrival and departure routes and roll rate. Fixed radius paths standardize turns and provide a
approaches. Operations would rely solely on the integrity of the predictable, repeatable and accurate ground track throughout
RNP system without a reversionary capability to conventional a turn. Using required navigation performance (RNP), aircraft
means of navigation since a conventional infrastructure may can have a smaller area of containment throughout a turn,
not be available. The advantage of utilizing a designation of allowing greater flexibility to design procedures that avoid terrain,
A-RNP for a flight operation is the combined performance and noise sensitive areas, restricted airspace or other arrival paths
functionality of a range of navigation specifications encompassing to nearby airports in a complex airspace structure. There are
all phases of flight. two types of fixed radius paths that may be used: radius to fix (RF)
path terminator and fixed radius transitions (FRT).
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While complex flight paths can now be designed and displayed 6.6 NAVIGATION ERROR COMPONENTS
as the active route, the aircraft must have the capability to
The inability to achieve the required lateral navigation accuracy
accurately follow the defined path. Pilots are familiar with flying
may be due to navigation errors related to aircraft tracking and
turns at a constant airspeed and angle of bank which enables a
positioning. These errors produce a path that is offset horizontally
circular flight path to be flown with reference to the air mass
from the desired path. The following are sources of error for
and are trained to manually compensate for the presence of wind
area navigation (RNAV) systems:
if necessary. Pilots now need to understand that the RNP system
will fly an exact circular flight path over the ground. Groundspeed Where:
and the angle of bank must be adjusted throughout the turn by (a) Desired path is the path over the ground that the aircraft
the automatic flight control system to maintain that circular is expected to fly.
flight path and in some cases these may be limiting factors for
maintaining the specified turn radius. (b) Defined path is the reference path computed by the flight
plan management function of the RNAV system.
6.4.1 Radius To Fix (RF) Path Terminator (c) Estimated position is provided by the navigation function
The RF path terminator, referred to as an RF leg, is a specific of the RNAV system.
fixed-radius curved path in a terminal or approach procedure. (d) True position is the aircraft’s actual position over the ground.
An RF leg is defined by a constant radius originating from the
centre fix, the arc starting fix, the arc ending fix, and the turn Path definition error (PDE): The difference between desired and
direction. Only RNP systems are capable of flying RF legs, by defined paths which reflects errors in the navigation database,
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providing precise and positive course guidance along a curved computational errors in the RNAV system and display errors.
track, with the same containment value that would be achieved PDE is usually very small and often assumed to be negligible.
in a straight leg segment. In addition, the distance travelled from Flight technical error (FTE): The difference between estimated
beginning to end of the turn will remain constant for every position and defined path. It relates to the ability of an air crew
aircraft. This allows longitudinal separation to be maintained or autopilot to fly along a defined path. Any display errors, such
throughout the turn for aircraft travelling at the same speed. as a course deviation indicator (CDI) centering error, may cause
Operational approval to use RF legs in conjunction with other FTE. FTE is usually the largest error component of the total
RNP navigation specifications can be found in AC 700-027— system error (TSE).
Radius to Fix (RF) Path Terminator and Special Authorization Navigation system error (NSE): The difference between true and
RF Leg. Additional authorization is not required for RNP AR estimated position. The NSE is defined during navigation system
APCH or A-RNP as RF capability is already mandatory in these certification.
two Special Authorizations.
TSE: The difference between true position and desired position.
6.4.2 Fixed Radius Transition (FRT) This error is equal to the sum of the vectors of the PDE, FTE
and NSE.
An FRT is used as an enabler to apply closer route spacing along
turns in the en route structure. An FRT is intended to define Any of the errors mentioned above would affect the ability of
the transition between airways where separation is required in the aircraft to meet the required lateral navigation accuracy. If
the turns. Having smaller containment areas in turns allows for the on-board performance monitoring system cannot guarantee,
higher traffic density with closer spaced routes. The RNP system with sufficient integrity, that the position meets the RNP defined
supporting FRT is capable of providing the same track-keeping in a navigation specification, an alert will be issued to the crew.
accuracy in the turn as in the straight line segment. An RNP
Figure 6.1—Lateral Navigation Errors
system seamlessly joins associated route segments.
Desired path
Operational approval is not currently available in Canada. For Path definition error (PDE)
f u r t he r i n for m at ion on F RTs , re fe r to IC AO’s Defined path
Total system error (TSE)
Performance-based Navigation (PBN) Manual (Doc 9613), Flight technical error (FTE)
Volume II, Part C, Appendix 2.
Estimated position
COMPLETION
Pilots should review the planned route of flight to determine
t hat a rea nav igat ion (R NAV)/requ ired nav igat ion
performance (RNP) requirements, the aircraft, and the operator
are approved for the desired route. Performance-based
navigation (PBN) compliant aircraft should enter the appropriate
equipment code in Item 10 of the International Civil Aviation
Organization (ICAO) flight plan. A corresponding indication
of RNAV and/or RNP capabilities must be entered in Item 18.
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Primary radar is used in the following applications: assignment established at the aerodrome.
(a) Terminal surveillance radar (TSR)—In general, a short-range
PSR (80 NM) operating on 1 250 to 1 350 MHz complements 7.3 AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT
secondary surveillance radar (SSR) for terminal operations. SURVEILLANCE - BROADCAST (ADS-B)
(b) Precision approach radar (PAR)—A high-definition, short- Automatic dependent surveillance - broadcast (ADS-B) is a
range PSR operating on 9 000 to 9 180 MHz and is used as surveillance technology that gives controllers the opportunity
an approach aid. PAR provides the controller with altitude, to provide radar-like services. It uses aircraft avionics, satellites
azimuth and range information of high accuracy to assist and/or ground infrastructure to relay a range of aircraft
pilots in executing approaches. While PAR is mainly a parameters to air traffic control (ATC). The system is automatic
military system, it is available at some civilian airports and since no external stimulus is required for operation, and dependent
may be used by civilian pilots. Civil aircraft approach limits because it relies on aircraft avionics to provide surveillance
are published in the Canada Air Pilot (CAP) and the services through broadcast messages.
Restricted Canada Air Pilot (RCAP). NAV CANADA’s ADS-B ground infrastructure consists of ground
(c) Airport surface detection equipment (ASDE)—Surveillance receiver stations, target processors and situation displays. The
of surface traffic is provided at airports where traffic warrants ground stations receive ADS-B signals and transfer the data via
it. ASDE is a high-definition PSR operating on 16 GHz. land line or satellite link to the target processors located within
Tower controllers use ASDE to monitor the position of an area control centre (ACC). Target processors build a track
aircraft and vehicles on the manoeuvring areas of the airport profile based on the aircraft’s unique International Civil Aviation
(runways and taxiways), particularly during conditions of Organization (ICAO) 24-bit identifier. This profile is presented
reduced visibility. to ATC on a situation display to enable surveillance separation
services.
(d) Weather radar—Weather radar is a PSR used by the
Meteorological Service of Canada to monitor for hazardous For a map of ADS-B coverage in Canada, see AIP Canada ENR 1.6,
weather conditions. Figure 1.6.3, Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast
Coverage.
For a map of PSR coverage in Canada, see AIP Canada ENR 1.6,
Figure 1.6.1, Primary Radar Coverage.
7.3.1 Aircraft Equipment
7.2 SECONDARY SURVEILLANCE On-board aircraft equipment is responsible for gathering a range
RADAR (SSR) of flight parameters and compiling them into the ADS-B message,
which is then transmitted through the Mode S transponder on
Secondary surveillance radar (SSR) determines aircraft range
a 1 090 MHz extended squitter (1 090ES). The full range of data
by measuring the interval between transmitting an interrogation
is transmitted once per second, allowing ATC to access real-time
to and receiving a reply from an airborne transponder.
aircraft position information.
SSR is a cooperative surveillance system and does not provide
At a minimum, the following aircraft parameters must be
a position for an aircraft without an operating transponder. SSR
broadcast:
offers significant operational advantages to air traffic
control (ATC), such as increased range, positive identification (a) Airborne position—Position data is generated by a GPS
and aircraft altitude, when the aircraft has an altitude-encoding receiver compliant with TSO-C129, TSO-C145 or TSO-C146.
transponder. A high degree of reliance is placed on the GPS data as it is
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the basis for reduced traffic separation. Therefore, it must (f) NACp—A position quality indicator used by surveillance
be capable of producing a HPL. services to determine if the reported horizontal position
(b) Pressure altitude—This is provided by the on-board encoding meets an acceptable level of accuracy for the intended
altimeter. operation.
(c) Aircraft identity—Each Mode S transponder has a unique If an updated NACp has not been received within the past
address assigned by the State of aircraft registry and known two seconds, the NACp value will be encoded as zero
as the ICAO 24-bit aircraft identifier. It is entered into the indicating “unknown accuracy” and will not be used for
transponder at the time of installation and cannot be surveillance services.
modified by pilots from the flight deck. This address is used (g) SIL—Indicates the probability of the reported horizontal
for aircraft identification and track processing. position exceeding the containment radius defined by the
(d) Flight identification (Flight ID)—A four- to seven-character NIC. Should NAV CANADA receive a SIL value below the
alphanumeric parameter usually entered by the pilot into pre-selected minima, the target will not be passed through
the transponder control panel (if present) or FMS. A flight to ATC as a valid surveillance target.
ID that is an exact replica of the aircraft identification entered (h) SPI—A feature used to positively identify an aircraft. It is
in Item 7 of the ICAO flight plan must be programmed into identical to the “Squawk Ident” feature on a basic transponder.
the transponder or FMS in order to receive ATS surveillance (i) Emergency status—Activation of an emergency transponder
services. It is important that the flight crew verify that the code (7500, 7600 or 7700) will result in a common emergency
flight ID is correct prior to departure as some avionics
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MODE CHARLIE NOT VALIDATED. PRESSURE ALTITUDE NOT VALIDATED.
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7.4 MULTILATERATION (MLAT) Pilots should adjust transponders to STANDBY while taxiing
for takeoff, to ON (or NORMAL) as late as practicable before
Multilateration (MLAT) increases air traffic service (ATS)
takeoff, and to STANDBY or OFF as soon as practicable after
situational awareness of aircraft and vehicles on the ground
landing. In practice, transponders should be turned on only
allowing them to safely manage ground movements, including
upon entering the active runway for departure and turned off
in low visibility operations, by providing full surveillance coverage
as soon as the aircraft exits the runway after landing. Some
of runways, taxiways and terminal apron areas. MLAT uses a
airports have implemented surface surveillance services using
system of strategically placed ground stations to send interrogations
multilateration (MLAT). MLAT relies on transponder returns;
and receive replies from Mode A, C or S transponders. It functions
therefore, pilots of transponder-equipped aircraft should leave
on a principle known as time difference of arrival (TDOA),
their transponders in the transmit mode at all times when on
where the system calculates the difference in transponder
the manoeuvring area. Pilots should ensure that the transponder
response time at multiple ground receivers and compares the
code issued by ATC is selected before switching the transponder
results to determine a position. Usually three receiving units are
out of STANDBY. In the event that no code has been issued by
required to obtain a horizontal position.
ATC, transponder Code 1000 should be selected.
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8.5 PHRASEOLOGY
Air traffic services (ATS) personnel will use the following
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phraseology when referring to transponder operation.
SQUAWK (code)—Operate transponder on designated code in
Mode A.
SQUAWK IDENT—Engage the indentification (IDENT) feature
of the transponder.
NOTE:
8.3 INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES (IFR) A pilot should operate the IDENT feature only when requested
OPERATIONS IN OTHER LOW-LEVEL by an ATS unit.
AIRSPACE
SQUAWK MODE CHARLIE—Activate Mode C with automatic
During instrument flight rules (IFR) flight in controlled low-
altitude reporting.
level airspace other than that described earlier, adjust the
transponder to reply on Mode A, Code 1000, and on Mode C (if STOP SQUAWK MODE CHARLIE—Turn off automatic altitude
available), unless otherwise instructed by air traffic control (ATC). reporting function.
If an IFR flight plan is cancelled or changed to a visual flight RESET TRANSPONDER—Reset the transponder and transmit
rules (VFR) flight plan, the transponder should be adjusted to the SQUAWK (code) currently assigned. This phraseology may
reply on the appropriate VFR code, as specified in the following be used if the target or identity tag data is not being displayed
paragraphs, unless otherwise instructed by ATC. as expected.
To enhance the safety of IFR flight in uncontrolled low-level REPORT YOUR ALTITUDE—This phraseology may be used
airspace, pilots are encouraged to adjust their transponders to when it is necessary to validate altitude readouts by comparing
reply on Mode A, Code 1000 and Mode C (if available), unless the readout value with the altitude reported by the aircraft. An
otherwise instructed by ATC. altitude readout is considered valid if the readout value does not
differ from the aircraft-reported altitude by more than 200 ft;
8.4 VISUAL FLIGHT RULES (VFR) it is considered invalid if the difference is 300 ft or more.
OPERATIONS
NOTE:
During visual flight rules (VFR) flight in low-level airspace, the
Readout values are displayed in 100-ft increments.
pilot should adjust the transponder to reply on the following
unless otherwise assigned by an air traffic services (ATS) unit: SQUAWK STANDBY – SQUAWK (code)—The present position
(a) Mode A, Code 1200 for operation at or below 12 500 ft above symbol (PPS) disappears or changes to a primary surveillance
sea level (ASL); or radar (PSR) symbol after the aircraft is instructed to change its
transponder to STANDBY; the PPS reappears or changes back
(b) Mode A, Code 1400 for operation above 12 500 ft ASL.
to a secondary surveillance radar (SSR) symbol after the aircraft
Upon leaving the confines of an airspace for which a special is requested to return the transponder to normal operation.
code assignment has been received, the pilot is responsible for
changing to the code shown in (a) or (b), unless they are assigned
a new code by an ATS unit.
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Canada, along with other nations, has adopted a special secondary TAs provide information on proximate traffic and indicate the
surveillance radar (SSR) transponder code (7500) for use by relative positions of intruding aircraft. TAs are intended to assist
pilots of aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful interference. flight crew in visual acquisition of conflicting traffic and to
Air traffic control (ATC) does not assign this code (7500) unless prepare pilots for the possibility of an RA.
the pilot informs ATC of an act of unlawful interference in
progress. RAs are divided into two categories: preventative advisories,
which instruct the pilot to maintain or avoid certain vertical
Selection of the code activates an alarm system and points out speeds; and corrective advisories, which instruct the pilot to
the aircraft on situation displays. If the controller doubts that deviate from the current flight path (e.g. “CLIMB” when the
an aircraft is the subject of an act of unlawful interference (as aircraft is in level flight).
could occur when a code change was requested and the act of
unlawful interference code appeared rather than the assigned There are two types of TCAS:
code), the controller will say, “CONFIRM SQUAWK SEVEN (a) TCAS I is a system, which includes a computer and pilot
FIVE ZERO ZERO”. If the pilot answers yes, the controller will display(s), that provides a warning of proximate traffic (TA)
alert the ATC system. If the pilot replies no, the controller will to assist the pilot in the visual acquisition of intruder aircraft
re-assign the proper code. If the pilot does not reply, the controller and in the avoidance of potential collisions (it does not
will take this as confirmation that the use of Code 7500 is provide RAs).
intentional. If, after using Code 7500, an aircraft changes to
(b) TCAS II is a system, which includes a computer, pilot
Code 7700 or transmits a message including the phrase
display(s), and a Mode S transponder, that provides both
“TRANSPONDER SEVEN SEVEN ZERO ZERO”, this indicates
TAs and vertical plane RAs. RAs include recommended
that the aircraft is threatened by grave and imminent danger
escape manoeuvres, only in the vertical dimension, to either
and requires immediate assistance.
increase or maintain existing vertical separation between
aircraft.
9.0 TRAFFIC ALERT AND
NOTE:
COLLISION AVOIDANCE There is currently no TCAS equipment capable of providing
SYSTEM (TCAS) AND RAs in the lateral direction.
AIRBORNE COLLISION The following paragraphs and table describe the TCAS levels of
AVOIDANCE SYSTEM (ACAS) protection versus aircraft equipage.
Intruder aircraft without transponders are invisible to TCAS-
9.1 GENERAL equipped aircraft and thus TAs or RAs are not provided.
The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) uses the Intruder aircraft equipped with only a Mode A transponder are
term airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS). The term not tracked or detected by TCAS II, because TCAS II does not
traffic alert and collision avoidance system (TCAS) refers to the use Mode A interrogations. Mode A transponder aircraft are
system developed in the United States by the Federal Aviation invisible to TCAS-equipped aircraft.
Administration (FAA). These terms are generally interchangeable. Intruder aircraft equipped with a Mode C transponder without
Care needs to be taken when comparing ICAO definitions of altitude input will be tracked as a non-altitude replying target.
ACAS II with the North American definition of TCAS II. Neither a data tag nor a trend arrow will be shown with the
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traffic symbol. These aircraft are deemed to be at the same (c) TSO-C119c (associated with software version 7.1)—Version 7.1
altitude as own aircraft. was released to address reversal logic issues and flight crew
misinterpretation of “ADJUST VERTICAL SPEED, ADJUST”
In an encounter between two TCAS II-equipped aircraft, their
aural annunciation. In International Civil Aviation
computers will communicate using the Mode S transponder
Organization (ICAO) terminology, this is also referred to
data link, which has the capability to provide complementary
as ACAS II.
RAs (e.g. one climbing and one descending).
NOTES:
Table 9.1—TCAS Levels of Protection
1. In Amendment 85 to ICAO Annex 10, Volume IV, Chapter 4,
Own Aircraft published in October 2010, ICAO has mandated that all
Equipment new ACAS installations after January 1, 2014 be compliant
TCAS I TCAS II with version 7.1 and that all ACAS units shall be compliant
with version 7.1 after January 2017. Transport Canada (TC)
Intruder Non-transponder- Not Not tracked
Aircraft equipped tracked and not has not initiated any rulemaking based on these ICAO
Equipment or Mode A and not displayed requirements.
transponder only displayed
2. Be advised that if you operate in ICAO member countries
Mode C TA TA and after the abovementioned dates you will have to be equipped
or Mode S vertical RA with software version 7.1.
transponder
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TCAS I TA TA and Within some member states of the European Union and within
vertical RA European Civil Aviation Conference (ECAC) airspace, equipage
with TCAS II software version 7.1 will be required earlier than
TCAS II TA TA and
coordinated the ICAO mandated dates.
vertical RA The TSO for Mode S transponders is TSO-C112 or CAN-
TSO-C112. The following table and associated notes summarize
9.2 TRANSPORT CANADA (TC) the TCAS/ACAS requirements for CAR Part VII air operators.
REGULATIONS ON TRAFFIC ALERT
AND COLLISION AVOIDANCE
SYSTEM (TCAS)/AIRBORNE COLLISION
AVOIDANCE SYSTEM (ACAS)
The Technical Standard Order (TSO) for TCAS I is TSO-C118
or CAN-TSO-C118.
The TSO for TCAS II/ACAS II is TSO-C119 or CAN-TSO-C119.
The original release of TSO-C119 was associated with software
version 6.0. Since then, the following updates to TSO-C119 have
been released:
(a) TSO-C119a (associated with software version 6.04a)—
Version 6.04a was released to address nuisance alerts which
were occurring at low altitudes and during low-level
manoeuvres, and to address a problem with the altitude
crossing logic.
NOTE:
This version is the minimum requirement for operations in
Canada when outside of reduced vertical separation
minimum (RVSM) airspace.
NOTE:
Software version 7.0 is the minimum required for all CARs 702,
703, 704 and 705 aeroplanes when operating inside of RVSM
airspace.
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It is strongly recommended that foreign operators comply with Canadian air operators planning operations in U.S. airspace are
TCAS equipage requirements as outlined above when operating also advised to review FAA Advisory Circular (AC) 120-55C—
within Canadian airspace. Air Carrier Operational Approval and Use of TCAS II (as amended).
There are currently no Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs) For Canadian air operators planning operations in Europe,
requiring private operators (CAR 604) to be equipped with details of European requirements are available at <https://www.
TCAS. However, private operators are advised that ICAO Annex 6, eurocontrol.int/system/acas>.
Part II, 3.6.9.2 requires that: “All turbine-engined aeroplanes of
a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 15 000 kg, 9.4 OPERATIONAL APPROVAL
or authorized to carry more than 30 passengers, for which the
individual airworthiness certificate is first issued after 1 January For Canadian air operators, traffic alert and collision avoidance
2007, shall be equipped with an airborne collision avoidance system (TCAS) operational approval is accomplished through
system (ACAS II).” This means that affected private operators Transport Canada (TC) approval of: pertinent training; checking
flying into ICAO member countries must be equipped with and currency programs; checklists; standard operating
ACAS II. procedure (SOP) operations or training manuals; maintenance
programs; minimum equipment lists (MELs); or other pertinent
documents.
9.3 USE OF THE TRAFFIC ALERT
AND COLLISION AVOIDANCE When planning to equip with TCAS, Canadian air operators
SYSTEM (TCAS) OUTSIDE OF CANADA should consult their TC principle operations inspector early in
their program to permit a timely response. Canadian air operators
Numerous countries have operational regulations which require
may address training, checking and currency individually or as
certain aircraft to be equipped with a traffic alert and collision
part of an integrated program. For example, TCAS/ACAS
avoidance system (TCAS). If you are planning on operating your
qualification may be based on a specific aircraft (e.g. during
aircraft in a foreign country, consult that country’s regulations
A320 transition); may be addressed in conjunction with general
to determine TCAS equipage requirements.
f light crew qualification (e.g. during initial new hire
Canadian air operators must meet the following TCAS indoctrination); or may be completed as dedicated TCAS/ACAS
requirements to operate in U.S. airspace (see Federal Aviation training and checking (e.g. completion of a standardized TCAS/
Administration [FAA] Federal Aviation Regulations [FAR] 129.18): ACAS curriculum in conjunction with a recurrent instrument
flight test [IFT]/pilot proficiency check [PPC]).
(a) TCAS I: Turbine-powered aeroplane with a passenger-seat
configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10–30 seats. Federa l Av iat ion Ad minist rat ion (FA A) Adv isor y
(b) TCAS II: Turbine-powered aeroplane of more than 33 000 lb Circular (AC) 120-55C—Air Carrier Operational Approval and
maximum certificated takeoff weight (MCTOW). Use of TCAS II (as amended) provides information with respect
to training, checking and currency in the use of TCAS. The
material therein can be used by operators to assist in defining
their implementation of TCAS.
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EUROCONTROL has produced and published TCAS training indicate that these components have failed or are compromised.
material and information that are available at <https://www.
Flight crews are reminded to follow the resolution advisories (RAs)
eurocontrol.int/system/acas>.
promptly and accurately, even though the RAs may change in
9.5 AIRCRAFT CERTIFICATION APPROVAL strength and/or reverse. RA commands do not require large
load factors when being followed. Any delay in responding to
An acceptable means of demonstrating compliance with the an RA could swiftly erode the ability to maintain or achieve
appropriate requirements in the Airworthiness Manual, adequate separation without resorting to strengthening RAs.
Chapter 525 and of obtaining airworthiness approval is to follow For TCAS to provide safe vertical separation, initial vertical
the method specified in the Federal Aviation Administration’s (FAA) speed response is required within five seconds of the RA.
Advisory Circular (AC) 20-131A—Airworthiness Approval of Deviation from commands or second-guessing the commands
Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance Systems (TCAS II) and should not occur. An RA prevails over any air traffic control (ATC)
Mode S Transponders (as amended) for installation of Technical instruction or clearance.
Standard Order TSO-C119a TCAS/ACAS. FAA AC 20-151B—
Airworthiness Approval of Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance Flight crews may have to inhibit the RA function under certain
Systems (TCAS II), Versions 7.0 & 7.1 and Associated Mode S circumstances per the AFM (e.g. during an engine failure).
Transponders should be followed for installations using TSO- The TCAS system may inhibit RAs during certain flight phases,
C119b or TSO-C119c equipment. such as at low altitudes. Flight crews need to be aware of when
TCAS will not provide a full range of RA commands.
9.6 OPERATIONAL CONSIDERATIONS
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Flight crews should not attempt to manoeuvre solely on the basis
Where required by regulations to be equipped with traffic alert of traffic advisory (TA) information. The TA should trigger a
and collision avoidance system (TCAS), flight crews must operate visual search for traffic and a request to ATC for help in
with their TCAS equipment on at all times, in so far as is consistent determining whether a flight path change is required. In the
with the aircraft flight manual (AFM) and standard operating case of a TCAS II TA, the flight crew should prepare for a possible
procedures (SOPs). This is true even when operating away from RA, following the TA.
major, high traffic density airports. Although TCAS will never
be a complete substitute for a good lookout, good situational TAs and RAs should be treated as genuine unless the intruder
awareness and proper radio procedures, it has proven to be a has been positively identified and assessed as constituting neither
valuable tool that provides information on potential collision a threat nor a hazard.
hazards. Hence, flight crews should not deprive themselves of Flight crews should be aware that, in accordance with the
this important asset, especially in areas of mixed instrument Canadian Transportation Accident Investigation and Safety Board
flight rules (IFR) and visual flight rules (VFR) traffic. Act, an incident where a risk of collision or a loss of separation
For a TCAS-equipped aircraft to provide a flight crew with occurs is considered a reportable aviation incident. Responding
collision avoidance information, the TCAS unit and the to an RA is considered a reportable aviation incident. For more
transponder must be turned on and the transponder cannot be information on this topic, visit the following links:
selected to STANDBY mode (i.e. powered but not transmitting (a) AC 700-004: Airborne Collision Avoidance System Advisory
data). If the transponder is not turned on and responding to Material; and
interrogations, the aircraft’s TCAS cannot display information
(b) <www.tc.gc.ca/en/services/aviation/operating-airports-
about potentially conflicting aircraft nearby nor can it provide
aerodromes/report-incident-airport-safety.html>
instructions to the crew to resolve impending collision threats.
Failure of the TCAS computer unit itself can also occur; however, If a TCAS RA manoeuvre is contrary to other critical cockpit
such a failure only affects the TCAS-equipped aircraft’s ability warnings, then those other warnings are respected per TCAS
to detect nearby aircraft. The aircraft containing the inoperative certification and training (i.e. responses to stall warning, wind
TCAS unit remains visible to other aircraft as long as its shear and terrain awareness and warning systems [TAWSs] take
transponder remains operative. The consequences of a TCAS precedence over a TCAS RA, especially when the aircraft is less
unit failure are magnified when the transponder is inoperative than 2 500 ft above ground level [AGL]).
because not only is TCAS information lost to the affected aircraft, Due to interference limiting algorithms, airborne collision
but the aircraft will not be visible to other airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS) II may not display all proximate
avoidance systems. Regardless of whether the transponder has transponder-equipped aircraft in areas of high density traffic.
failed or the TCAS has become inoperative, a flight crew’s ability Flight crews should not become complacent in their efforts to
to mitigate the risk of collision is significantly degraded if the search the sky for other aircraft.
collision avoidance system becomes inoperative and the failure
is not quickly and reliably brought to the crew’s attention. Air
operators are encouraged to inform pilots who use transponders 9.7 PILOT ACTION WHEN DEVIATING FROM
or transponder/TCAS units that there may not be a conspicuous CLEARANCES—REGULATIONS AND
warning to indicate loss of collision protection resulting from INFORMATION
a compromised transponder/TCAS unit. Air operators should Safety studies have confirmed that the significant safety benefit
require all pilots who use transponders or transponder/TCAS afforded by a traffic alert and collision avoidance system (TCAS)
units to be familiar with the current annunciations used to could be seriously degraded by a deficient response to resolution
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advisories (RAs). It has also been shown that the safety benefit 9.8 MODE S TRANSPONDER APPROVAL
of TCAS is eroded when pilots do not follow the flight path AND UNIQUE CODES
guidance provided during an RA.
Along with performing all the functions of Mode A and C
In view of this safety hazard and to optimize the safety benefits transponders, Mode S transponders also have a data link
of TCAS, the following regulatory provisions have been capability. Mode S transponders are an integral component of
established: all TCAS II/ACAS II installations.
CAR 602.31(3) states that: For aircraft that are not required to be equipped with TCAS/
“The pilot-in-command of an aircraft may deviate from an air ACAS, there is no requirement to replace existing Mode A or C
traffic control clearance or an air traffic control instruction to transponders with Mode S transponders until it becomes
the extent necessary to carry out a collision avoidance manoeuvre, impossible to maintain presently installed Mode A or C
if the manoeuvre is carried out transponders.
(a) in accordance with a resolution advisory generated by an Airworthiness approval must be obtained by Canadian aircraft
ACAS; or operators who install Mode S transponders. Federal Aviation
Administration (FAA) Advisory Circular (AC) 20-131A—
(b) in response to an alert from a TAWS or a Ground Proximity Airworthiness Approval of Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance
Warning System (GPWS).” Systems (TCAS II) and Mode S Transponders (as amended) should
CAR 602.31(4) states that: be used for guidance to obtain airworthiness approval. Canadian
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COM
initiated. clearance).
After the response to a
TCAS RA is completed
CLEAR OF
CONFLICT.
ROGER (or
alternative
11.0 EMERGENCY AUTOMATION
and the assigned ATC (assigned instruction) SYSTEMS
clearance or instruction has clearance)
been resumed. RESUMED.
After an ATC clearance or UNABLE, ROGER
11.1 AUTOMATED EMERGENCY DESCENT
instruction contradictory to TCAS RA MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS
the TCAS RA is received,
From small general aviation aircraft to large air transport category
the flight crew will follow the
RA and inform ATC directly. aircraft, several aircraft manufacturers offer automated
emergency descent management systems. While depressurization
events are extremely rare, these systems can activate when either
10.0 SATELLITE SYSTEMS the cabin pressure drops below predetermined limits or when
pilot-interaction monitors get triggered, and they can automate
certain functions when a rapid descent might be required. After
10.1 GENERAL attempting to alert the flight crew, who may be potentially non-
Satellite systems used for aviation are defined by different orbits: responsive and/or hypoxic, the systems are designed to
low earth orbit (LEO), medium earth orbit (MEO) and automatically engage and descend the aircraft to a safe altitude.
geosynchronous earth orbit (GEO). A special case of GEO is the Once the automated emergency descent management system
geostationary earth orbit (or geosynchronous equatorial orbit), has determined the appropriate minimum sector altitude (MSA)
which is a circular geosynchronous orbit at zero inclination (that or calculated an escape route for the aircraft based on underlying
is, directly above the equator). The altitude of the orbit determines terrain, the autopilot and autothrottle will engage and descend
the surface area of the Earth that can be illuminated by the the aircraft as appropriate. Depending on the configuration,
satellite signal: the higher the orbit, the larger the signal footprint. some aircraft automatically initiate a parallel offset when starting
Propagation losses from satellites at higher orbits are offset by the descent while others could turn to a new heading, such as
the increased complexity of the antenna systems, along with 90° from the current aircraft heading. If the aircraft happens to
higher transmitter power. A LEO satellite’s footprint is smaller, be traffic alert and collision avoidance system (TCAS)/airborne
which means that a higher number of satellites are required to collision avoidance system (ACAS) equipped, and if the onboard
provide seamless coverage, but the antennas are much simpler system can determine that another aircraft is in conflict, the
and have a reduced radio frequency power requirement on the automated emergency descent management system may have
user end. the additional capability of carrying out resolution advisories
during the emergency descent.
10.2 SATELLITE SERVICE PROVIDERS
When beginning the descent, some automated emergency descent
A number of providers offer telephone and data services to the management systems can adjust the transponder code to 7700,
aeronautical market via satellite. Iridium offers a low earth select Emergency/Priority status in the automatic dependent
orbit (LEO) satellite system, while Inmarsat and the Japan surveillance-broadcast (ADS-B) subfield, and may even be capable
Meteorological Agency operate geosynchronous earth orbit (GEO) of broadcasting messages to air traffic control (ATC) using a
satellite systems. These satellite systems use frequencies reserved digitized voice. These voice broadcasts are typically transmitted
for aeronautical safety services. on the very high frequency (VHF) radio frequency last used by
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the pilot and/or over the emergency frequency 121.5 MHz. Highly After an emergency automatic landing system has been activated,
automated systems may also be able to send controller-pilot data the transponder code will automatically be changed to 7700 and
link communications (CPDLC) messages to ATC through the Emergency/Priority status in the automatic dependent
datalink. surveillance-broadcast (ADS-B) subfield will be selected. Using
a digitized voice, the system may broadcast messages such as
11.2 EMERGENCY AUTOMATIC LANDING the following over the emergency frequency 121.5 MHz, over
SYSTEMS the selected aerodrome tower/mandatory frequency (MF)/
universal communications (UNICOM) frequency, and sometimes
Some light aircraft are equipped with an emergency automatic over the very high frequency (VHF) radio frequency last used
landing system that can perform a completely autonomous by the pilot:
landing in an emergency situation. These systems could be
triggered by automated emergency descent management systems, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, AIRCRAFT
envelope protection systems, or they can even be engaged <REGISTRATION> HAS ACTIVATED AN EMERGENCY
manually by a passenger if the pilot has become incapacitated. AUTOMATIC LANDING SYSTEM. STAND BY FOR
Upon activation, emergency automatic landing systems will INFORMATION.
determine the optimal route to a suitable aerodrome, fly the AIRCRAFT <REGISTRATION>, PILOT
aircraft to a selected runway, and perform a survivable landing. INCAPACITATION, <DISTANCE FROM DESTINATION
Regardless if the aircraft was being operated under visual flight AIRPORT> MILES <DIRECTION FROM DESTINATION
rules (VFR) or instrument flight rules (IFR), once a destination AIRPORT> OF <DESTINATION AIRPORT>,
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runway has been determined, the onboard system generates a EMERGENCY AUTOLAND IN <ESTIMATED TIME
path to the final approach fix which avoids terrain, obstacles REMAINING> ON <RUNWAY> AT <DESTINATION
and, depending on aircraft options, even severe weather along AIRPORT>.
the way.
Emergency automatic landing systems select the most suitable NOTE:
runway based on several factors, although these systems normally Not all remote communication facilities (peripheral station [PAL],
prefer airports with control towers since they offer better remote aerodrome advisory service [R AAS], remote
coordination with other traffic as well as emergency services on communications outlet [RCO] and flight information service
the ground. It should be noted that these systems can select en route [FISE] RCO) have 121.5 MHz capability. When an aircraft
suitable runways without consideration of international has activated an emergency automatic landing system, other
boundaries. aircraft operating in the vicinity who are able to hear transmissions
on 121.5 MHz should attempt to relay any emergency messages
Emergency automatic landing systems will normally maintain to an air traffic service (ATS) facility.
straight and level flight for a brief period, allowing air traffic
control (ATC) to identify the activation and begin clearing nearby The autopilot and autothrottle fly the aircraft to the runway and
traffic out of the way. In the event the aircraft is surrounded by can initiate a holding pattern if necessary at the final approach
terrain upon activation, these systems may initiate a straight-line fix to slow the aircraft and prepare for landing, while the
climb or a climb in a present-position holding pattern and then emergency automatic landing systems lower the flaps and landing
continue on to the selected runway once the aircraft is clear of gear at the appropriate time, perform the flare and touchdown,
the terrain. and apply the wheel brakes. Once the aircraft has come to a halt
on the runway, the aircraft should be met by emergency services.
NOTE:
Some emergency automatic landing systems may not automatically
shut down the engines of the aircraft.
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MET
to provide briefings, consultation and advice, and to interpret
that have light traffic, are private, and/or are used primarily in
meteorological information. (See RAC 3.2 for details).
support of private industry, such as mining or other
similar operations. Aviation weather web site (AWWS)—NAV CANADA’s aviation
weather web site (AWWS), available at <https://flightplanning.
The Department of National Defence (DND) arranges for the
navcanada.ca/>, and collaborative flight planning system,
provision of aviation weather services at military aerodromes.
available at <https://plan.navcanada.ca>, offer aviation weather
products, NOTAM and the ability to file flight plans. For more
1.1.1 Meteorological Information information, visit <www.navcanada.ca>. Pilots operating near
In accordance with Canadian Aviation Regulation (CAR) 804.01(1), the border should note that U.S. METAR, SPECI and TAF must
the majority of standards for aviation weather services are found be obtained through the Aviation Digital Data Service (ADDS),
in International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Annex 3, available at <www.aviationweather.gov/adds/>.
the Manual of Standards and Procedures for Aviation Weather Other pilot weather services—In accordance with an arrangement
Forecasts (MANAIR), and the Manual of Surface Weather with the U.S. National Weather Service, digital upper level wind
Observation Standards (MANOBS). The two manuals can be and temperature forecasts are available to operators in Canada
obtained from ECCC’s Web site at <https://www.canada.ca/en/ for planning international flights. Digital forecasts are also
environment-climate-change/services/weather-manuals- available to the Gander OAC for planning transatlantic flights.
documentation.html>, while Annex 3 can be obtained from Aviation weather flight documentation is provided, subject to
ICAO. Revisions to MANOBS took effect in February 2023. prior notification, as determined by the local weather service
Enquiries relating to the provision of aviation weather services outlet in consultation with the operator’s local representative.
should be addressed to: Operators are responsible for notifying NAV CANADA’s aviation
weather services of new requirements. (See MET 1.1.1 for the
NAV CANADA
address.) Where indicated in the CAP, altimeter settings in
Aviation Weather Services
weather reports from U.S. aerodromes may be used as a RASS.
151 Slater Street
Ottawa ON K1P 5H3
Tel. (toll-free in North America): ............... 1-800-876-4693
Fax: ...................................................................... 613-563-3426
Fax (toll-free in North America): ................1-877-663-6656
E-mail: .................................................service@navcanada.ca
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1.1.4 Weather Service Information conditions considered to be a hazard to aviation are broadcast
immediately to aircraft in the affected area and will be included
When planning a flight, pilots can obtain aviation weather and
in subsequent scheduled weather broadcasts. PIREPs are also
aeronautical information and file a flight plan through a
transmitted under the headings “UACN10” for normal PIREPs
NAV CANADA FIC. (See RAC 3.2 for details).
and “UACN01” or “UUA” for urgent PIREPs. A suggested format
Radio communication should be established with a FIC on a for PIREPs can be found on the back covers of the CFS and the
FISE frequency if in-flight information is required to assist in CWAS. More information on PIREPs can be found in MET 2.0.
making a decision or to terminate a flight, or to alter course
before adverse weather conditions are encountered. 1.1.7 Applicable International Civil Aviation
Pilot requests for initial pilot briefings while airborne are not Organization (ICAO) and World
encouraged because this practice leads to frequency congestion. Meteorological Organization (WMO)
Documents
1.1.5 Weather Information from Air Traffic Whereas ICAO determines the standards and recommended
Service (ATS) practices with respect to meteorological service for international
All aerodromes with operational ATS will provide, on initial air navigation, the WMO determines and reports the
contact or as soon as practicable, the current wind and altimeter internationally agreed upon code formats for the reports and
information unless it is known that the aircraft already has this forecasts. ICAO and WMO documents applicable to aviation
information. ATS procedures require that wind information be meteorology are as follows:
transmitted with landing and take-off clearance only when the (a) ICAO Annex 3—Meteorological Service for International
wind speed is 15 kt or greater. Wind velocity (direction and Air Navigation
speed) data is typically updated every five seconds using a running
(b) WMO Doc 306—Manual on Codes
2-min average. Variations to the wind speed (gusts) and/or wind
direction are based on wind data from the previous 10 min. Most WMO documents can be downloaded, without cost, from
the Internet. WMO documents may also be ordered directly
At aerodromes with an operational ATIS, the full details of the
from the WMO Secretariat in Geneva, Switzerland. ICAO
most recent METAR or SPECI will be included in the recorded
documents may be purchased from ICAO Headquarters in
message. In rare circumstances, such as during rapidly changing
Montréal. The two relevant addresses are listed below:
MET
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1.1.8 Differences From International Civil 1.2.3 Weather Services Definitions in Flight
Aviation Organization (ICAO) Annex 3 Publications
CAR 804.01(1)(a) incorporates by reference standards contained The terminology used in the CFS and the CAP to describe aviation
in ICAO Annex 3. The current version of Annex 3 is Amendment 80, weather services is as follows:
which became applicable on November 4, 2021. In accordance
(a) METAR—METAR and SPECI weather observations taken
with CAR 800.01(2), the incorporation by reference of Annex 3
by a qualified human observer.
as a standard “includes the differences notified to ICAO by the
Government of Canada in respect of the standards specified in (b) METAR AUTO—METAR and SPECI weather observations
that annex.” The full details of these State differences are included taken by a stand-alone AWOS with noted enhancements
in the AIP Canada, as published and disseminated by (see MET 8.5). AWOS located outside of the CLDN coverage
NAV CANADA. area do not receive lightning data and therefore are unable
to report thunderstorm or lightning activity.
1.1.9 Pilot Responsibility Examples of METAR AUTO stations are the NAV CANADA
AWOS and DND AWOS.
Pilots must be aware of the requirements of CAR 602.72: “The
pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall, before commencing a (c) LWIS—An automated weather system which produces an
flight, be familiar with the available weather information that hourly LWIS report containing wind speed and direction;
is appropriate to the intended flight.” temperature; dew point; and altimeter setting only.
(d) AUTO—An automated weather system that does not meet
1.2 METEOROLOGICAL OBSERVATION requirements to produce a METAR AUTO, SPECI AUTO
AND REPORTS or LWIS report. These systems can report a variety of
observed weather elements. Contact the aerodrome operator
1.2.1 Type and Frequency of Observations for further information on the specifics of the system. Some
of these systems may have associated VHF transmissions
METARs are coded weather observations that are taken every
of their reports as stated in the CAP or CFS.
hour on the hour at over 200 aerodromes and other locations in
Canada. In addition, SPECIs are issued whenever weather (e) WxCam—Indicates that a NAV CANADA aviation weather
conditions cross specified criteria. For details on how to camera is installed at the site. Still images are transmitted
MET
understand METARs, see MET 8.3. For details on SPECI criteria, to the NAV CANADA AWWS at 10-min intervals.
see MET 8.4. (f) Webcam—Indicates that one or more cameras not belonging
The location of sensors used to determine RVR is specified on to NAV CANADA have been installed at this location.
CAP aerodrome charts. Contact the aerodrome operator for further information
on the specifics of the camera system.
1.2.2 Flight Weather Documentation (g) ALTIMETER—Altimeter setting report observed from two
aircraft altimeters. The private altimeter setting report is a
Pilots must use the most recent weather information available
weather service provided in support of an AU. Contact the
when flight planning and be aware of scheduled weather
aerodrome operator for further information on the service.
information updates. Pilots must also remain vigilant for
pertinent unscheduled weather updates or amendments. (h) WIND—Human assessment of wind speed and direction.
The private wind speed and direction report is a weather
Flight weather documentation should include, as appropriate:
service provided in support of an AU. Contact the aerodrome
the relevant GFAs, AIRMETs, SIGMETs, TAFs, METARs, SPECIs,
operator for further information on the service.
PIREPs, and upper wind and temperature forecasts.
(i) LAWO—A visual observation of prevailing tower visibility
There are two distinct methods of reporting cloud bases. It is and tower ceiling made by airport controllers from inside
vital for the pilot to be able to distinguish and recognize which the tower cab in order to provide limited weather information
method of reporting is in use. Heights in METARs and TAFs to support local flight operations. These observations are
are always stated as height above ground level. On the other not intended for transmission, distribution, or use outside
hand, heights in GFAs and PIREPs are normally stated as height the control zone. This information is normally included in
above sea level, since terrain heights are variable over the larger the local ATIS recording and updated as required or passed
area covered. If heights are not ASL in GFAs, this is always verbally to aircraft arriving at, and departing from, the local
highlighted by statements such as “CIGS 2-4 AGL”. airport.
Observed weather information, observations, and forecasts
originating from any non-NAV CANADA weather service, other
than DND, are considered a private meteorological service.
Stand-alone METAR AUTO and LWIS reports are available
during published hours through normal meteorological
information systems. At some sites an automated voice broadcast
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
of the latest observation is available via VHF transmitter. In 1.2.4.2 Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Weather Stations
these cases, the frequency is displayed in the COMM entry of Some weather stations are intended exclusively for local use by
the CFS Aerodrome/Facility Directory (e.g. COMM AWOS 124.7, VFR operators. These stations do not meet the requirements of
COMM AUTO 122.025). a usable altimeter setting or of wind reports for IFR procedures.
The hours of coverage for METAR, METAR AUTO, and LWIS These stations are not permitted at aerodromes that have IAPs
reports are given (e.g. METAR 09-21Z). At sites where coverage and they are not published in the CFS. Pilots making use of these
is 24 hr/day, the coverage is listed as H24 (e.g. METAR H24, stations do so at their discretion for VFR. If the reports from
METAR AUTO H24, LWIS H24). such stations are being broadcast as an advisory, the frequency
will be mentioned in the COMM entry of the CFS Aerodrome/
Sites that provide unspecified limited hours of coverage will be
Facility Directory along with an annotation stating that the
listed as ltd hrs (e.g. ALTIMETER ltd hrs). Contact the aerodrome
reports cannot be used for IFR. Some private automated stations
operator for further information on the hours of operation.
may disseminate weather information via the Internet and this
Weather services that are not included in the flight publications information should be for VFR flight advisory use only. Pilots
exist. These are of an unknown performance and can be used should contact the aerodrome operator if they require additional
for VFR flights at the discretion of the pilot. However, unpublished information.
weather services cannot be used in support of instrument flight
procedures. 1.2.5 Automatic Aerodrome Routine
Meteorological Reports (METAR AUTO) and
1.2.4 Automated Weather Observation Limited Weather Information System (LWIS)
Systems (AWOS) Reports
of automated weather stations that are used to support instrument transmitter. In addition, weather cameras are installed at
flight procedures are required to document the characteristics NAV CANADA locations. METAR AUTO reports may be used
of their systems and to provide aircraft operators with suitable to support a TAF at the associated aerodrome.
descriptions, upon request.
METAR AUTO reports depend on either a NAV CANADA- or
AWOS and LWIS operated by NAV CANADA have common DND-developed system or on a commercial system that complies
performance characteristics across the country. A description with TC requirements for aviation use. The applicable standards
of the performance characteristics of these systems can be found are contained in MANOBS.
in MET 8.5.
Observations are distributed in the form of METAR AUTO
The subset of weather elements provided by AUTO may vary reports and must be properly coded and supplemented by
from only one element to almost a full METAR AUTO/ SPECI AUTO reports when SPECI thresholds are crossed. At a
SPECI AUTO. Any automated system that is not capable of minimum, the following are observed and reported:
reporting all the elements required to generate METAR AUTO/
(a) wind (direction, speed and gusts);
SPECI AUTO reports and support any associated TAF should
be referred to as AUTO or LWIS. Some local service providers (b) altimeter setting (these include multiple sensors as a fail-
may refer to their systems as AWOS, but if they do not support safe);
METAR AUTO/SPECI AUTO, then they will be listed as AUTO (c) air temperature;
in the CFS.
(d) dew point;
NOTE: (e) visibility;
The United States uses the term “automated surface observation
system” (ASOS) as the equivalent to Canadian AWOS that provide (f) cloud height;
METAR AUTO reports. Typically, usage of the term AWOS in (g) sky coverage (of detected cloud);
the United States is equivalent to the Canadian LWIS but with
(h) precipitation occurrence and type;
several defined levels of observation capabilities. Further details
regarding performance characteristics and reporting practices (i) fog, freezing fog, haze, blowing snow and mist;
can be found in the FAA’s Aeronautical Information Manual. (j) thunderstorm detection capability; and
(k) icing.
In addition, reports may include RVR when required.
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For more information on METAR AUTO reports, refer to AU service may include the use of two aircraft altimeters to
MET 8.5. observe and report the altimeter setting and the human estimation
of wind speed and direction for the selection of the most into-
1.2.5.2 Limited Weather Information System (LWIS) wind runway. The estimated wind direction and speed are
Reports considered current for a period not exceeding 10 min.
A LWIS comprises automated meteorological sensors, a data At a few AU locations, fully automated systems are used to
processing system, a communication system, and an optional measure atmospheric pressure. This data is used to determine
VGSS with a VHF transmitter. The LWIS collects limited the altimeter setting that is relayed to pilots. In these cases,
meteorological data, produces LWIS reports, and transmits data the reported altimeter setting must comply with the same
to ATS facilities on the hour. The LWIS also transmits data requirements applied to the altimeter component of
updated every minute to the affiliated VGSS and VHF METAR AUTO/SPECI AUTO.
transmitter units. Further details related to AU services are contained in Appendix 4
These systems were developed to meet a defined level of service of MANOBS.
requirement for NAV CANADA. Any weather information provided by a UNICOM, as opposed
Any LWIS used for civil aviation purposes must comply with to an AU, is not usable for instrument procedures; alternative
TC requirements, including siting, maintenance, and quality uses are entirely at the pilot’s discretion.
control, and be equipped with sensors to report, at a minimum,
the following: 1.2.8 Runway Visibility Assessment
(a) wind (direction, speed, and gusts); At aerodromes where RVR is not provided, qualified persons
(b) altimeter setting (these include multiple sensors as a fail- may, in accordance with the runway visibility assessment
safe); standards referenced in CAR 804, provide an assessment of
runway visibility. Instrument-rated pilots may also provide such
(c) air temperature; and assessments in accordance with CAR 602.131.
(d) dew point. A runway visibility assessment is valid for only 20 min after it
Wind direction is reported in degrees true except for the VGSS, has been established.
MET
which reports wind direction in degrees magnetic in SDA.
Except for the DND stations in the High Arctic that do not 1.3 METEOROLOGICAL FORECASTS AND
provide dew point information, any automated system that CHARTS
reports fewer elements than the standard four required for an
1.3.1 Flight Information Centre (FIC) Hours of
LWIS should be referred to as an AUTO. For more information
Service and Telephone Numbers
on LWIS, please refer to MET 8.5.
All FICs provide 24-hr service. FIC telephone numbers are
1.2.6 Automatic (AUTO) Reports provided in the CFS. Pilots dialing the common toll-free number
1-866-WXBRIEF (992-7433) will automatically be routed to the
The term AUTO is used to describe all other automated aviation FIC serving the area from which the call is being made.
weather reports that have demonstrated compliance with TC
requirements and are usable for IFR flight. However, they have
1.3.2 World Area Forecast System (WAFS)
a wide variety of performance characteristics and may be referred
Charts
to locally by different labels, most often as AWOS. Contact the
airport operator for more information on the characteristics of WAFS aviation weather charts are disseminated as required.
local systems. These include prognostic significant weather charts for the North
Pacific, the Caribbean and northern South America, the North
1.2.7 Weather Services in Support of Approach Atlantic, Canada and the United States.
Unicom (AU)
1.3.3 Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFs)
Weather information is not usable for instrument procedures
unless it complies with the requirements of CAR 804, including TAFs are prepared for approximately 200 aerodromes across
MANOBS as incorporated by reference. Canada. TAFs are limited to aerodromes for which METAR and
SPECI reports are available. The forecasts are generally prepared
An approach UNICOM (AU) is an air-ground communications
four times daily with periods of validity up to a maximum of
service that can provide approach and landing information to
30 hr. See MET 7.0 for more information on TAFs, including
IFR pilots. The service provider is required to ensure that
where and when they are issued, their periods of validity and
requirements detailed in Appendix 4 of MANOBS are met for:
decoding instructions.
(a) meteorological instruments and observational methods
TAFs are issued in TAF code, with amendments as required.
used; and
(b) personnel qualifications and training.
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1.3.4 Aerodrome Advisory Forecasts data can be used for several hours before or after the stated valid
time. This is indicated by the text “FOR USE” followed by the
Aerodrome advisories are forecasts that are issued in TAF format
time range. For example, “FOR USE 21 – 06” means that this
except that ADVISORY is added immediately after the period
particular forecast may be used for a 9-hr period from 21Z to 06Z.
of validity group. They are issued in place of a TAF in the following
circumstances: During flight planning, care must be exercised to ensure that
the correct FD forecast is selected and the associated “FOR USE”
(a) Offsite—the forecast is based on observations that have been
coverage is appropriate for the time of the proposed flight.
taken off site, more than 1.6 NM from the aerodrome centre,
and are not considered to be representative of weather Forecasts in digital form of the winds and temperatures aloft
conditions at the aerodrome; (FB), an improvement over FD forecasts, are now available over
(b) Observation incomplete—the forecast is based on observations the phone. FB forecasts are updated four times per day. Over the
which have regularly missing or incomplete data; or next couple of years, FB forecasts will gradually replace FD
forecasts for most flight planning purposes. Further information
(c) No specials—the forecast is based on observations from a is available in the MANAIR, which can be found on ECCC’s
station with a limited observing program that does not Web site. Forecasts of upper winds and temperatures are also
issue SPECIs. available in chart form.
In each case, after the period of validity group, the advisory
forecast will be labelled with the word ADVISORY and the 1.3.8 Air Traffic Control (ATC) Weather
appropriate qualifier (OFFSITE, OBS INCOMPLETE, or Assistance
NO SPECI).
ATC will issue information on significant weather and assist
pilots in avoiding weather areas when requested. However, for
1.3.5 Coastal Weather reasons of safety, an IFR flight must not deviate from an assigned
Float plane operators can also obtain coastal marine weather on course or altitude/flight level without a proper ATC clearance.
HF and VHF FM frequencies from some Canadian Coast Guard When weather conditions encountered are so severe that an
stations. Frequencies and time of broadcast are contained in two immediate deviation is determined to be necessary, and time
Canadian Coast Guard Publications: Radio Aids to Marine will not permit approval by ATC, the pilot’s emergency authority
Navigation (Pacific and Arctic) and Radio Aids to Marine may be exercised. However, when such action is taken, ATC
MET
Navigation (Atlantic, St. Lawrence, Great Lakes, Lake Winnipeg should be advised of the flight alteration as soon as practicable.
and Arctic). These two publications are published annually and When a pilot requests clearance for a route deviation or for an
are available on the Canadian Coast Guard Web site. ATC vector and ATC operational boundaries have to be
crossed,the controller must evaluate the air traffic situation in
1.3.6 Graphic Area Forecasts (GFAs) the affected area and coordinate with other controllers before
and AIRMET replying to the request.
GFAs are issued as a series of temporally adjusted weather charts It should be remembered that the controller’s primary function
for CDA and distributed on a routine or on-request basis. These is to provide safe separation between aircraft. Any additional
forecasts are prepared four times daily for seven regions across service, such as weather avoidance assistance, can only be
the country with a validity period of 12 hr and an IFR outlook provided to the extent that it does not detract from the primary
for a further 12 hr. See MET 4.0 for issue, periods of validity and function. Also note that the separation workload for the controller
decoding instructions. Once issued, a SIGMET or AIRMET generally increases when weather disrupts the usual flow of
message automatically amends the current and relevant GFA. traffic. ATC surveillance limitations and frequency congestion
A full description of AIRMET can be found in MET 5.0. are also a factor in limiting the controller’s capability to provide
additional services.
1.3.7 Upper Level Wind and It is important, therefore, that the request for a deviation or
Temperature Forecasts (FD) vector be forwarded to ATC as far in advance as possible. Delay
Alphanumeric upper level wind and temperature forecasts (FDs) in submitting it may delay or even preclude ATC approval or
are routinely prepared for 142 sites in Canada. FD forecasts are require that additional restrictions be placed on the clearance.
produced by a super-computer model of the atmosphere called Pilots should respond to a weather advisory by requesting: a
a NWP model, which is run twice per day at 00Z and 12Z after deviation off course and stating the estimated number of miles
collecting and analyzing weather observation data from around and the direction of the requested deviation; a new route to avoid
the world. the affected area; a change of altitude; or vectors around the
affected areas.
FD forecasts based on the 12Z NWP model run on the fifth day
of the month would include the following text in front of the The following information should be given to ATC as early as
forecast data: “FCST BASED ON 051200 DATA”. The text “DATA possible when requesting clearance to detour around
VALID 060000” in the FD forecast indicates that the temperature weather activity:
and wind velocity data is forecast to be most representative of (a) proposed route and extent of detour (direction and distance);
conditions at 00Z on the sixth day of the month. FD forecast
(b) flight conditions (IMC or VMC); and
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
(c) whether or not the aircraft is equipped with a functioning ECCC and DND operate a series of weather radars across Canada
cockpit weather radar. that provide frequent reports of precipitation echo tops and
The assistance that might be given by ATC will depend upon precipitation reflectivity. Radar images are updated approximately
the weather information available to controllers. Owing to the every 10 min for individual radars. A colour composite radar
often transitory nature of severe weather situations, the controller’s product, which depicts either echo tops or precipitation reflectivity,
weather information may be of only limited value if based on is also available on NAV CANADA’s Aviation Weather Web Site
weather observed on radar only. Frequent updates by pilots, (AWWS), from the Flight planning section at <www.navcanada.
giving specific information as to the area affected, altitudes, ca/EN/products-and-services/Pages/flight-planning.aspx>. Over
intensity and nature of the severe weather, are of considerable the next few years, the weather radar network will be improved
value. Such PIREPs receive immediate and widespread to offer better images and updates every 6 minutes. During the
dissemination to aircrew, dispatchers and aviation forecasters. upgrades, radars will be unavailable and information from
neighbouring radars will need to be used.
1.3.9 Supplementary Information Detailed and real time information from the CLDN is available
to the FICs and ACCs, which are both able to provide verbal
1.3.9.1 Weather Radar
descriptions to pilots.
MET
WWW
XPG
WHK WHN
WBI WMN
XFT
WSO WKR
Legend
the issuance of significant meteorological information (SIGMET). /TM 2120 Time of PIREP: 2120Z
For timely distribution, PIREPs should be filed with a flight /FL080 Altitude: 8 000 ft ASL. Altitude may also
information centre (FIC) via an en route frequency or a toll-free be reported as “DURD” (during descent),
call to a FIC after landing. PIREPs received by flight service “DURC” (during climb) or “UNKN”
personnel are immediately disseminated on meteorological (unknown).
communications circuits and provided to other air traffic /TP PA31 Aircraft Type: Piper Navajo (PA31).
service (ATS) units and the Canadian Meteorological Aviation
Centres (CMAC). /SK 020BKN Sky Cover: First layer of cloud based at
040 110OVC 2 000 ft with tops at 4 000 ft ASL. Second
Controllers, flight service specialists and community aerodrome layer of cloud based at 11 000 ft ASL.
radio station (CARS) observer/communicators (O/Cs) may
/TA -12 Air Temperature: -12ºC.
request reports from pilots regarding specific weather conditions
or weather conditions encountered during en route, climb-out /WV 030045 Wind Velocity: Wind direction 030°
or approach phases. true, wind speed 45 kt. Wind direction
The Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) contains the toll-free FIC reported by pilots in degrees magnetic will
subsequently be converted to degrees true
telephone numbers in the Flight Planning entry of each listed for inclusion in PIREP.
aerodrome. The recommended contents of a PIREP are listed
in the Planning section and on the exterior back cover of the /TB MDT Turbulence: Moderate turbulence below
BLO 040 4 000 ft ASL.
CFS (hard copy).
/IC LGT RIME Icing: Light rime icing (in cloud) between
020-040 2 000 ft ASL and 4 000 ft ASL.
/RM NIL Remarks: No turbulence encountered
TURB CYYZ- between Toronto and Hamilton.
CYHM
NOTE:
Supplementary information for any of the PIREP fields may be
included in the remarks (RM) section of the PIREP.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
2.2.1 General
CAT remains a problem for flight operations, particularly above
15 000 ft. The best information available on this phenomenon
is still obtained from PIREPs, since a CAT forecast is generalized
and covers large areas. All pilots encountering CAT conditions
are requested to urgently report the time, location, flight level
and intensity (light, moderate, severe, or extreme) of the
phenomena to the facility with which they are maintaining radio
contact. (See the Turbulence Reporting Criteria Table, MET 2.2.2)
A more complete description of CAT and recommended pilot
actions can be found in AIR 2.10.
MET
Turbulence that is similar to light turbulence but of greater
intensity. Changes in altitude and/or attitude occur but the
aircraft remains in positive control at all times. It usually causes Occupants feel definite strains
variations in indicated airspeed. Report as “moderate turbulence”. against seat belts or shoulder straps.
MODERATE
OR Unsecured objects are dislodged.
Turbulence that is similar to light chop but of greater intensity. Food service and walking are difficult.
It causes rapid bumps or jolts without appreciable changes in
aircraft altitude or attitude. Report as “moderate chop”.
Turbulence that causes large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or Occupants are forced violently
attitude. It usually causes large variations in indicated airspeed. against seat belts or shoulder straps.
SEVERE
Aircraft may be momentarily out of control. Unsecured objects are tossed about.
Report as “severe turbulence”. Food service and walking impossible.
The terms “occasional”, “intermittent” and “continuous” are High-level turbulence (normally above 15 000 ft ASL) not
used to describe reported turbulence. Turbulence is considered associated with cumuliform clouds, including thunderstorms,
occasional when it occurs less than 1/3 of the time, intermittent should be reported as CAT preceded by the appropriate intensity
when it occurs 1/3 to 2/3 of the time and continuous when it or chop type.
occurs more than 2/3 of the time.
Pilots should report location(s), time (UTC), intensity, whether 2.3 WIND SHEAR (WS)
in or near clouds, altitude, type of aircraft and, when applicable, Intense down drafts, typically associated with thunderstorms,
the duration of turbulence. Duration may be based on time produce strong vertical and horizontal wind shear (WS)
between two locations or over a single location. All locations components that are a hazard to aircraft in the approach, landing,
should be readily identifiable. or take-off phase of flight (see AIR 2.8). Since ground-based
Examples: instruments that measure WS have not been installed at Canadian
1. Over REGINA 1232Z, moderate turbulence, in cloud FL310, aerodromes, the presence of such conditions can normally be
B737. deduced only from pilot weather reports (PIREPs). Aircraft
equipped with Reactive Wind Shear Systems (RWSs) can provide
2. From 50 NM EAST of WINNIPEG to 30 NM WEST of pilots with guidance to conduct a WS escape manoeuvre. Aircraft
BRANDON 1210 to 1250Z occasional moderate chop, FL330, with Predictive Wind Shear Systems (PWSs) may allow pilots
AIRBUS 320. to avoid or minimize effects of WS (see RAC 6.1).
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Aircrews capable of reporting the wind and altitude, both above 2.5 VOLCANIC ASH
and below the shear layer, from flight management systems (FMSs)
Flight operations in volcanic ash are hazardous (see AIR 2.6).
are requested to do so. Pilots without this equipment should
Pilots may be the first line of volcanic eruption detection in
report WS by stating the loss or gain of airspeed and the altitude
more remote areas. Pilots may be able to provide valuable
at which it was encountered. Pilots unable to report WS in terms
information about the spread of volcanic ash from an eruption;
of this specific information should do so in terms of its general
ash can rapidly rise to altitudes above 60 000 ft and exist at
effect on the aircraft.
hazardous concentrations up to 1 000 NM from the source.
Volcanic ash is not detectable on radar. If an eruption or ash
2.4 AIRFRAME ICING cloud is detected, an urgent pilot weather report (PIREP) should
Report icing to air traffic service (ATS) and, if operating be filed with the nearest air traffic service (ATS) unit.
instrument flight rules (IFR), request a new routing or altitude A volcanic ash forecast chart is produced when required (see
if icing will be a hazard. Provide the aircraft identification, type, MET 13.0).
location, time (Coordinated Universal Time [UTC]), intensity
of icing, type, altitude or flight level, and indicated airspeed. See
2.6 PILOT ESTIMATION OF SURFACE WIND
the suggested format on the back cover of the Canada Flight
Supplement (CFS). Surface wind direction and speed is information critical to
effective pilot decision-making for takeoff and landing.
The following describes icing and how to report icing conditions:
Where neither wind measuring equipment nor a wind direction
Table 2.3—Icing Intensity indicator (see AGA 5.9) is available, the wind direction and speed
can be estimated by observing smoke, dust, flags or wind lines
INTENSITY ICE ACCUMULATION on bodies of water.
Trace Ice becomes perceptible. The rate of Pilots on the ground may estimate wind speed and direction by
accumulation is slightly greater than the using anything that is free to be moved by the influence of the
rate of sublimation. It is not hazardous, wind. The descriptions in the Beaufort Wind Scale found in
even though de-icing or anti-icing
equipment is not used, unless encountered Table 2.5 have been found to be particularly useful and are widely
for an extended period of time (over 1 hr). used.
MET
Light The rate of accumulation may create Wind direction can also be estimated accurately by simply facing
a problem if flight is prolonged in this the wind. Such estimates should only be provided to the nearest
environment (over 1 hr). eight points (i.e. north, northeast, east) of the compass. The best
Moderate The rate of accumulation is such that estimate is obtained by standing in an open area clear of
even short encounters become potentially obstructions. Should this not be possible, estimation errors may
hazardous, and use of de-icing or anti-icing be so significant that pilots using the information should exercise
equipment or diversion is necessary. caution. The direction and speed of low-lying clouds can be an
indicator of surface winds but should also be used with caution
Severe The rate of accumulation is such that
de-icing or anti-icing equipment fails to
because of the possibility of wind shear near the surface.
reduce or control the hazard. Immediate Pilots who relay reports of winds based on estimation should
diversion is necessary.
ensure that the intended user of the information is aware that it
is based on estimation so that appropriate precautions can be taken.
Table 2.4—Icing Types
Icing Types
Rime ice Rough, milky, opaque ice formed by
the instantaneous freezing of small
supercooled water droplets.
Clear ice Glossy, clear, or translucent ice formed
by the relatively slow freezing of large
supercooled water droplets.
Mixed ice Both rime and clear icing occurring at the
same time.
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Wind felt on face; leaves Small wavelets, still short but more pro-
Light
Breeze
2 4–6 5 rustle; ordinary vane moved nounced; crests have a glassy appearance
by wind. and do not break (0.2 to 0.3).
Leaves and small twigs Large wavelets; crests begin to break; foam of
Gentle
Breeze
3 7–10 9 in constant motion; wind glassy appearance; perhaps scattered white
extends light flag. horses (0.6 to 1).
Fresh Small trees in leaf begin to Moderate waves, taking a more pronounced
5 17–21 19 sway; crested wavelets form long form; many white horses are formed,
Breeze on inland waters. chance of some spray (2 to 2.5).
Whole trees in motion; Sea heaps up and white foam from breaking
Near Gale 7 28–33 31 inconvenience felt in walking waves begins to be blown in streaks along the
MET
against wind. direction of the wind (4 to 5.5).
Moderately high waves of greater length;
edges of crests begin to break into the
Breaks twigs off trees;
Gale 8 34–40 37 generally impedes progress.
spindrift; the foam is blown in well-marked
streaks along the direction of the wind (5.5 to
7.5).
High waves; dense streaks of foam along the
Slight structural damage
Strong direction of the wind; crests of waves begin to
Gale
9 41–47 44 occurs to roofing shingles,
topple, tumble and roll over; spray may affect
TV antennae, etc.
visibility (7 to 10).
Very high waves with long, overhanging
crests; the resulting foam, in great patches,
is blown in dense white streaks along
Seldom experienced inland;
the direction of the wind; on the whole,
Storm 10 48–55 52 trees uprooted; considerable
the surface of the sea takes on a white
structural damage.
appearance; the tumbling of the sea becomes
heavy and shock-like; visibility affected (9 to
12.5).
* Wave height is representative of conditions well away from shore and in deep water when winds of that strength have persisted for an extended period of time. The wave height
figure does not give the maximum wave height nor does it take into account the effects of swell, air temperature or currents.
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ITEM AND
APPLICABLE
TYPE TIME ISSUED VALIDITY PERIODS REMARKS
LEVEL
DESIGNATOR
GFA Approximately 0000Z, 0600Z, 1200Z, At or below Graphically depicts forecast weather
30 min before the 1800Z. Each new set 24 000 ft elements affecting flight at a specific time
beginning of the of GFA charts replaces over a particular area.
forecast period the preceding one.
TAF Approximately Forecasts are Surface The TAF is the forecaster’s best
20 min before the generally issued (includes judgment of the most probable weather
beginning of the every 6 hr with clouds at conditions expected to occur at an
validity period validity periods up to levels that can aerodrome, together with their most
a maximum of 30 hr. be seen from probable time of occurrence. It is
Issue and update the surface) designed to meet the pre-flight and in-
periods may vary— flight requirements of flight operations.
check the CFS. Next TAFs are intended to relate to weather
issue time is stated at conditions for flight operations within
the end of each TAF. 5 NM of the centre of the runway
complex, depending on local terrain.
Amended Forecasts will be amended when significant changes in ceiling or visibility occur, or when freezing
Forecast precipitation begins, or is expected to occur, although it was not previously predicted. Amendments are
also issued for significant changes in wind or present weather.
MET
SIGMET A message issued by a MWO to advise pilots of the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified
(WSCN, WCCN, weather phenomena, which may affect the safety of aircraft operations, and the development of those
WVCN) phenomena in time and space.
Upper Level 0330Z* 0500Z–0900Z 3 000 ft Predicts upper winds and temperatures
Wind and 0330Z* 0900Z–1800Z 6 000 ft in numerical form at standard levels for a
Temperature 0330Z* 1800Z–0500Z 9 000 ft given time period and location.
Forecast (FD) 1530Z** 1700Z–2100Z 12 000 ft
2100Z–0600Z 18 000 ft
1530Z**
0600Z–1700Z
1530Z**
0200Z 0500Z–0900Z 24 000 ft Upper level wind and temperature
0200Z 0900Z–1800Z 30 000 ft forecasts are issued by WAFCs.
0200Z 1800Z–0500Z 34 000 ft
1400Z 1700Z–2100Z 39 000 ft
2100Z–0600Z 45 000 ft
1400Z
0600Z–1700Z 53 000 ft
1400Z
Upper Level 12 hr before valid 0000Z FL 240 Depicts forecast wind and temperatures
Forecast Chart time 0600Z FL 340 for the chart level.
—PROG 1200Z FL 390
1800Z FL 450
Significant 12 hr before valid 0000Z FL 100– Charts are for a specific flight level
Weather time 0600Z FL 240 range. They indicate surface positions
Forecast Chart 1200Z FL 250– of lows and highs and any significant
—PROG 1800Z FL 630 weather, such as thunderstorms,
turbulence and mountain waves,
applicable to the chart.
* Based on upper atmosphere observations taken at 000Z.
** Based on upper atmosphere observations taken at 1200Z.
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MET
METAR Every hour on the Describes actual weather at a specific location and at a specific time
hour as observed from the ground.
SPECIs are issued when required. METARs are not available 24 hr
a day at all aerodromes; see CFS for observation program schedule.
PIREP/URGENT PIREP As reported Observations of actual conditions reported by pilots during flight.
(UA/UUA)
Volcanic Ash Report As required Describes in graphical format the current and expected ash cloud
(FV) dispersion and densities at various flight levels.
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Surface Weather Chart 0000Z 2 or 3 hr after Analysis of mean sea level pressure pattern, surface
0600Z observation location of fronts, surface precipitation and obstructions
1200Z to vision based on reports. Surface pressure patterns can
1800Z be considered as representative of the atmosphere up to
3 000 ft. Weather visible from the surface at any level is
included.
Upper Level Chart— 0000Z Over 3 hr after Charts prepared for following levels:
ANAL 1200Z observation 850 hPa (1 500 m / 5 000 ft)
700 hPa (3 000 m / 10 000 ft)
500 hPa (5 500 m / 18 000 ft)
250 hPa (10 400 m / 34 000 ft)
Charts show reported atmospheric conditions at the
pressure levels, such as wind speed and direction,
temperatures, and moisture content.
MET
4.0 GRAPHIC AREA When the GFA is used for times between the chart valid periods,
it is necessary to move the synoptic features and to interpolate
FORECASTS (GFA) their position for intermediate times. Use the estimated positions
to determine the future position of associated organized weather
4.1 GENERAL systems. Each 5 kt of motion indicates a change in position of
30 NM over six hours and the scale in the legend of the chart
The graphic area forecast (GFA) consists of a series of temporally can be used as a tool. Each panel is a snapshot of a specific future
adjusted weather charts, each depicting the most probable time and does not highlight temporal changes unless specifically
meteorological conditions expected to occur at or below 24 000 ft stated in the GFA. The existence of convective clouds or morning
over a given area at a specified time. The GFA is primarily fog and stratus, and other diurnal phenomenon, often depends
designed to meet general aviation and regional airline requirements on the time span. Always check for the latest nearby observations,
for pre-flight planning in Canada. which may indicate if features are moving faster or slower than
expected, and check for any special comments mentioned in the
4.2 ISSUE AND VALID TIMES GFA or for any valid AIRMET that may have amended the GFA.
Graphic area forecast (GFA) charts are issued four times daily, When in doubt, obtain a pre-flight weather briefing in order to
approximately 30 min before the beginning of the forecast period. use the GFA effectively.
The GFA is issued at approximately 2330, 0530, 1130 and 1730
UTC and is valid at 0000, 0600, 1200 and 1800 UTC respectively.
Each issue of the GFA consists of six charts: two charts valid at
the beginning of the forecast period; two charts valid six hours
into the forecast period; and the final two charts valid 12 hours
into the forecast period. Of the two charts valid at each of the
three forecast periods, one chart depicts clouds and weather
while the other chart depicts icing, turbulence and freezing level.
An instrument flight rules (IFR) outlook for an additional 12-hr
period is also included in the comments box of the final clouds
and weather chart.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Figure 4.1—GFA Coverage Areas In the following example, the title box indicates the GFA name
(GFACN33) and that it is issued by Canadian Meteorological
Centre Network Operations in Montréal (CWAO). The GFA
region for the sample chart is ONTARIO–QUÉBEC and the
type of chart is clouds and weather. The next section indicates
the date and time the GFA chart was issued, which was September
17, 2014, at 1130Z. The last section states the valid date and time
for the GFA chart which, in this example, was September 18,
2014, at 0000Z.
MET
4.8 LEGEND BOX
Speeds in the graphic area forecast (GFA) are expressed in knots
and heights in hundreds of feet. Horizontal visibility is measured The legend box includes weather symbols that may be used in
in statute miles and all times are stated in Coordinated Universal the weather information part of the graphic area forecast (GFA)
Time. A nautical mile scale bar is included to assist in determining chart. It also includes a nautical mile scale bar to facilitate the
approximate distances on the chart. All heights are measured determination of distances. Symbols used in the GFA are
ASL unless otherwise noted. consistent with those used in a significant weather prognostic
chart. In the following example, symbols for thunderstorm (TS),
ice pellets (PL), freezing rain (FZRA) and freezing drizzle (FZDZ)
4.5 ABBREVIATIONS AND SYMBOLS are indicated in the legend box. These symbols are depicted in
Only standard meteorological abbreviations are used in the red when shown in colour.
graphic area forecast (GFA). Symbols used in the GFA are
consistent with those found on similar meteorological products Figure 4.2—GFA Legend Box
described in this document such as significant weather prognostic
charts (MET 12.0).
4.6 LAYOUT
Each graphic area forecast (GFA) chart is divided into four parts:
title box; legend box; comments box; and weather
information section.
Title Box
Weather
Information Legend Box
Section
Comments Box
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
4.9 COMMENTS BOX For meteorological purposes, the IFR outlook is based on the
following.
The comments box provides information that the weather
forecaster considers important (e.g. formation or dissipation of Table 4.3—IFR Outlook Criteria
fog, increasing or decreasing visibility). It is also used to describe
elements that are difficult to render pictorially or, if added to CATEGORY CEILING VISIBILITY
the depiction, would cause the chart to become cluttered (e.g. light
IFR less than 1 000 ft AGL and/or less than 3 SM
icing). The standard phrases “HGTS ASL UNLESS NOTED”
and “CB TCU AND ACC IMPLY SIG TURBC AND ICG. CB between 1 000 ft and between
MVFR and/or
IMPLIES L LVL WS” are also included in the comments box. 3 000 ft AGL 3 and 5 SM
more than 3 000 ft more than
VFR and
Figure 4.3—GFA Comments Box AGL 5 SM
In the event that no organized IFR conditions are expected in
the outlook period, NIL SIG WX is written in the comment box.
Only IFR conditions are included in the IFR outlook of the GFA.
Marginal visual flight rules (MVFR) conditions are defined in
the table for reference only.
The comments box of the 12-hr clouds and weather graphic area
forecast (GFA) chart also includes an instrument flight rules (IFR)
outlook for an additional 12-hr period in the lower section of
the box. The IFR outlook is always general in nature, indicating
the main areas where IFR weather is expected, the cause for the
IFR weather and any associated weather hazards. In the example
given, IFR conditions caused by low ceilings (CIG), rain (RA)
and mist (BR) south of the St. Lawrence Valley are forecast. Also,
local IFR conditions are forecast because of an onshore (ONSHR)
and upslope (UPSLP) northwesterly flow of air from James Bay
(JAMSBA) and Hudson’s Bay (HSNBA).
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MET
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The graphic area forecast (GFA) clouds and weather chart provides Where organized areas of clouds are not forecast and visibility
a forecast of cloud layers and/or surface-based phenomena, is expected to be greater than 6 SM, a scalloped border is not
visibility, weather and obstructions to vision at the valid time used. In these areas, the sky condition is stated using the terms
indicated. Lines joining points of equal surface pressure (isobars) SKC, FEW or SCT. In the following example, unorganized
are depicted at 4-hPa intervals. In addition, relevant synoptic scattered clouds are forecast based at 3 000 ft ASL with tops at
features that are responsible for the portrayed weather are also 5 000 ft ASL:
depicted, with an indication of their speed and direction of
movement at the valid time. Figure 4.4(d)—Unorganized Area of
Clouds (no scalloped border)
Synoptic features—The motion of synoptic features when the
SCT 50
speed of movement is forecast to be 5 kt or more will be indicated
by an arrow and a speed value. For speeds less than 5 kt, the
letters STNR (stationary) are used. A low-pressure centre moving 30
eastward at 15 kt with an associated cold front moving southeast
When a forecasted cloud deck contains more than one significant
at 10 kt would be indicated as follows:
cloud layer, the cloud amount description depends on the space
Figure 4.4(b)—Synoptic Features between the layers. When the separation is less than 2 000 ft,
the descriptor represents the summation amount across all the
layers, and the term LYRS is included immediately after it. When
the separation is 2 000 ft or greater, each layer is stated, with its
own descriptor that applies only to that layer. The bases and tops
of each layer are indicated. For instance, a scattered layer of
cumulus cloud based at 3 000 ft ASL with tops at 5 000 ft ASL
and a higher overcast layer of cloud based at 10 000 ft ASL with
tops at 13 000 ft ASL would be indicated as follows:
Figure 4.4(c)—Organized Area of Clouds All heights are indicated in hundreds of feet above sea level (2
(scalloped border) means 200 ft, 45 means 4 500 ft, etc.) unless otherwise specified.
Above ground level heights are indicated by the abbreviations
CIG and AGL (e.g. CIGS 5–10 AGL). A note to this effect is
included in the comments box in the lower right hand corner of
the chart.
Surface-based layers—The vertical visibility into surface-based
layers is measured in hundreds of feet AGL. Local obscured
ceilings with a vertical visibility of between 300 and 500 ft AGL
would be indicated as follows:
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Visibility—The forecast visibility is measured in statute miles. Non-convective clouds and precipitation, low
When the visibility is expected to be greater than 6 SM, it is stratus ceilings, precipitation ceilings, icing,
indicated as P6SM. A forecast visibility that is expected to vary turbulence, and restrictions to visibility:
between 2 and 4 SM with light snow showers would be indicated
Table 4.5—Non-convective Clouds and Precipitation
as:
Abbreviation Description Spatial Coverage
2–4SM ‑SHSN
Weather and obstructions to vision—Forecast weather is always LCA Local 25% or less
included immediately after visibility. Obstructions to vision are PTCHY Patchy 26–50%
only mentioned when visibility is forecast to be 6 SM or less (e.g.
XTNSV Extensive Greater than 50%
2–4SM –RA BR). Only standard abbreviations are used to describe
weather and obstructions to vision. Areas of showery or Isobars—These lines joining points of equal mean sea level
intermittent precipitation are shown as hatched areas enclosed pressure are depicted on the GFA clouds and weather chart.
by a dashed green line when colour is used. Areas of continuous Isobars are drawn at 4-hPa intervals from a reference value of
precipitation are shown as stippled areas enclosed by a solid 1 000 hPa.
green line when colour is used. Areas of obstruction to vision
not associated with precipitation, where visibility is 6 SM or less, Figure 4.4(g)—Isobars
are enclosed by a dashed orange line when colour is used. Areas
of freezing precipitation are depicted in red and enclosed by a
solid red line when colour is used.
MET
Surface winds—The speed and direction of forecast surface winds
with a sustained speed of at least 20 kt are indicated by wind
barbs and an associated wind-speed value. When accompanied
by strong gusts, mean sustained winds of less than 20 kt may
also be included, at the forecaster’s discretion, if moderate
mechanical turbulence is expected to occur as a result of the
wind gusts. Wind gusts are indicated by the letter “G,” followed
by the peak gust speed in knots. In the following example, the
surface wind is forecast to be from the west (270˚ true) with a
speed of 25 kt and a peak gust speed of 35 kt.
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The graphic area forecast (GFA) icing, turbulence and freezing Icing—Depicted in blue when shown in colour and indicated
level chart depicts forecast areas of icing and turbulence as well whenever moderate or severe icing is forecast for the coverage
as the expected freezing level at a specific time. Included on the area. The bases and tops of each icing layer, measured in hundreds
chart are the type, intensity, bases and tops of each icing and of feet above mean sea level, as well as the type of icing (e.g.
turbulence area. Surface synoptic features such as fronts and “RIME,” “MX” [mixed], “CLR” [clear]) will be indicated. Areas
pressure centres are also shown. This chart is to be used in of light icing are described in the comments box. An area of
conjunction with the associated GFA clouds and weather chart moderate mixed icing based at 2 000 ft ASL with a top of 13 000 ft
issued for the same period of validity. ASL would be indicated as follows:
Figure 4.5(b)—Icing
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
If icing is expected to be present during only part of the forecast When separate areas of turbulence are occurring at different
period covered by the chart, the time of occurrence of the icing altitudes, the lower level is shown with hatching that slants
is indicated in the comments box. upward to the right, while the higher level is depicted with
hatching that slants downward to the right, as indicated below:
Areas of severe icing are indicated with a denser stippling. The
following is an example of an area of severe icing contained Figure 4.5(f)—Areas of Turbulence at
within an area of moderate icing: Different Altitudes
140
FZLVL 30 AGL
SFC
RIME MECH
160
FZLVL
RIME Freezing level—Freezing level contours are indicated on a GFA
by dashed lines. The height of the freezing level is indicated to
Turbulence—Depicted in red when shown in colour and indicated the nearest multiple of 2 500 ft using the standard heights in
whenever moderate or severe turbulence is forecast for the hundreds of feet above sea level (e.g. SFC, 25, 50, 75, 100, meaning
coverage area. The base and top of each turbulence layer are surface, 2 500, 5 000, 7 500, 10 000). When more than one freezing
measured in hundreds of feet above sea level except for surface- level is forecast, only the lowest level needs to be indicated, unless
based turbulence, which is measured in feet above ground level. meteorological conditions are expected to be relevant to aviation
An abbreviation indicating the cause of the turbulence will be safety (e.g. freezing precipitation aloft). An above freezing layer
included: mechanical turbulence, low-level wind shear, lee/ (AFL) is indicated by a closed area as shown below:
mountain waves, a significant low-level jet, or clear air turbulence
will be indicated as MECH, L LVL WS, LEE WV, L LVL JET or Figure 4.5(g)—Freezing Level
MET
CAT, respectively. The following example indicates an area of
moderate clear air turbulence (CAT) based at 18 000 ft ASL with 50
AFL
a top at 26 000 ft ASL. 30
SFC
Figure 4.5(d)—Turbulence
25
50
L LVL JET
30 AGL
SFC 60 KT
MECH
40 AGL
SFC
MECH
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
In general, LLJs are not included if they are above 6 000 ft ASL, When reissued, the correction code “CCA” is added to the first
except as required over higher terrain. The height of the jet is line of the title box to indicate the first correction, “CCB” for
not indicated. In many cases, there may be associated turbulence, the second, “CCC” for the third, etc.
as shown in the example below:
Table 4.6—Example of Corrected GFA
Figure 4.5(i)—LLJ and Turbulence
GFACN33 CWAO CCA
REGION
ONTARIO-QUÉBEC
CLOUDS AND WEATHER
L LVL JET NUAGES ET TEMPS
45 KT
ISSUED AT
ÉMIS A 17/09/2014 1211Z
40 AGL
SFC VLD 17/09/2014 1200Z
L LVL JET
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
(c) Thunderstorms and/or towering cumulus: There are two exceptions to this rule for the national AIRMET:
(i) Isolated thunderstorms (ISOL TS); (a) Any coordinate point located within Gander Oceanic flight
(ii) Occasional thunderstorms (OCNL TS); information region (FIR) will be described in latitude and
longitude only.
(iii) Isolated thunderstorm with hail (ISOL TSGR); (b) Any coordinate point north of N72°00’ will be described
(iv) Occasional thunderstorms with hail (OCNL TSGR); with respect to an aviation reference site only if it is within
a 90-NM radius of that site. Otherwise, the coordinate point
(v) Isolated towering cumulus (ISOL TCU);
will be represented in latitude and longitude only. This is
(vi) Occasional towering cumulus (OCNL TCU); due to the sparse number of aviation reference sites in
(vii) Frequent towering cumulus (FRQ TCU); northern Canada.
(viii) Occasional towering cumulus and isolated The usable reference points are a subset of aerodromes listed in
thunderstorms (OCNL TCU ISOL TS); the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS). A complete list is included
in the Manual of Standards and Procedures for Aviation Weather
(ix) Frequent towering cumu lus and isolated Forecasts (MANAIR).
thunderstorms (FRQ TCU ISOL TS);
(x) Occasional towering cumulus and isolated 5.4 RULES FOR THE USE OF LETTERS
thunderstorms with hail (OCNL TCU ISOL TS GR);
All eight flight information regions (FIRs) share 25 letters of the
(xi) Frequent towering cumu lus and isolated alphabet (T is used only for tests).
thunderstorms with hail (FRQ TCU ISOL TSGR).
The letter used cannot currently be in service in any other FIR
(d) Turbulence—moderate turbulence (except for turbulence and has to have been retired for a minimum of 24 hr. Otherwise
in convective clouds) (MOD TURB). the next letter is used. In addition, the same letter cannot be
(e) Icing—moderate icing (except for icing in convective clouds) used for widely separated occurrences of the same phenomenon,
(MOD ICE). even within a single FIR.
(f) Mountain wave—moderate mountain wave (MOD MTW). The letter Z will wrap back to A if necessary.
An AIRMET will be issued for only one of these criteria at any If all letters are unavailable, the letter that has had the longest
MET
time. If more than one criterion occurs, then more than one retirement will be re-used.
AIRMET will be issued. The letter attributed to a bulletin will not change during its
An isolated (ISOL) phenomenon consists of individual features lifespan (updates and cancellation).
which affect, or are forecast to affect, an area with a maximum AIRMET messages do not share the same alphabet with WS
spatial coverage of 25% or less of the area concerned (at a fixed (SIGMET). The letter A may be used simultaneously in both a
time or during the period of validity). WS (or WC or WV) and a WA.
An occasional (OCNL) phenomenon consists of well-separated
features which affect, or are forecast to affect, an area with a 5.5 RULES FOR THE USE OF NUMBERS
maximum spatial coverage of 26% to 50% of the area concerned
Numbering of an event (as defined by the unique use of a letter
(at a fixed time or during the period of validity).
in a flight information region (FIR) begins at 1 (i.e. B1).
Frequent (FRQ) coverage indicates an area of towering
The number is incremented by 1 when updating a message,
cumulus (TCU) within which there is little or no separation
including cancellation.
between adjacent clouds and with a maximum spatial coverage
greater than 50% of the area affected, or forecast to be affected, The sequence number shall correspond with the number of
by the phenomenon (at a fixed time or during the period of messages issued for an event within a FIR since 0000Z on the
validity). day concerned.
The numbering is thus reset at 0000Z (messages are not updated
5.3 COORDINATE POINTS at 0000Z for the sole purpose of resetting the number).
The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) AIRMET
message describes a coordinate point using only latitude and 5.6 VALIDITY
longitude. The period of validity of an AIRMET is 4 hr and it may be issued
The national AIRMET message describes a coordinate point up to 4 hr prior to the start of the validity period (i.e. expected
using latitude and longitude. In addition, an equivalent description time of occurrence of the phenomenon).
is given in terms of direction and distance from an aviation In the case of an AIRMET for an ongoing phenomenon, the
reference site. date/time group indicating the start of the AIRMET period will
be rounded back to 5 min from the filing time (date/time group
in the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) heading).
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National NOTE:
WI 45 NM OF /N4643 W07345/75 N CYUL The polygon must be closed. The last coordinate is a repeat of
the first one.
Plain language explanation of the national format: Within 45 NM
of a point, with specified latitude and longitude, that is 75 NM
north of Montréal/Pierre Elliott Trudeau International Airport. 5.8 FLIGHT LEVEL AND EXTENT
The location and extent of the phenomenon in the vertical is
5.7.2 Line given by one or more of the following:
Example: (a) Reporting a layer (FL<nnn/nnn>), where the lower level is
reported first; this is used particularly in reporting turbulence
ICAO and icing.
WI 45 NM OF LINE N4459 W07304 – N4855
(b) Reporting a layer with reference to one FL and the
W07253 – N5256 W06904
surface (SFC).
National (c) Reporting the level of the tops of the thunderstorm (TS)
WI 45 NM OF LINE /N4459 W07304/45 SE CYUL – / and/or towering cumulus (TCU) clouds using the abbreviation
N4855 W07253/30 NW CYRJ – /N5256 W06904/75 TOP.
W CYWK
5.9 MOVEMENT OR EXPECTED MOVEMENT
Plain language explanation of the national format: Within 45 NM
of a line from a point 45 NM southeast of Montréal/Pierre Elliott Direction of movement is given with reference to one of the
Trudeau International Airport to a point 30 NM northwest of 16 points of compass (radials). Speed is given in knots. The
Roberval Airport, followed by a point 75 NM west of Wabush abbreviation STNR (stationary) is used if no significant movement
Airport with the latitude and longitude of each point is expected.
being specified.
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(c) NC—no change. (b) the phenomenon for which the AIRMET had been issued
strengthens such that significant meteorological information
(SIGMET) is now required; or
5.11 REMARK
(c) the new issue of the graphic area forecast (GFA) has been
The remark (RMK) is found only in the national AIRMET transmitted and now includes the phenomenon.
message. It begins on a new line. The purpose is to allow additional
information of national interest to be conveyed in the AIRMET An AIRMET does not cancel itself automatically at the end of
message. Items listed in the remark line will be separated by a its validity period. A cancellation AIRMET with the abbreviation
forward slash (/).The remark always includes the graphic area CNL must be issued.
forecast (GFA) region(s) to which the AIRMET applies (see
Example 1 in MET 5.16). The remark may also include: 5.14 TEST AIRMET
(a) Cross-references to AIRMET messages when a phenomenon There may be occasions when test AIRMET messages are
straddles one or several flight information region (FIR) transmitted by the meteorological watch office (MWO). The
boundaries (see Example 1 in MET 5.16). test AIRMET messages will be identifiable by the letter T in the
(b) For a phenomenon that has moved out of a flight information alphanumeric sequence (see MET 5.4). Additionally, the statement
region (FIR), the cancelled AIRMET message will refer to “THIS IS A TEST” will be added at the beginning and end of
the continuing AIRMET message in neighbouring FIR(s) the message.
within Canada’s area of responsibility.
MET
An updated AIRMET, when issued, automatically replaces the
previous AIRMET in the same series (i.e. the previous AIRMET
with the same letter). An AIRMET must be updated every 4 hr
(from date/time group in the World Meteorological
Organization (WMO) heading).
However, a forecaster may update an AIRMET at any time if it
is considered necessary.
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CZEG EDMONTON FIR MOD TURB OBS AT 1305Z N5955 W09403 – N5845 W09404 – N5646 W08903
WI 45 NM OF LINE SFC/FL020 STNR NC=
N6228 W11427 – N6441 W10840 – N6453 W09605 National
FL190/340 MOV NE 10KT NC= WACN23 CWAO 250725
National CZWG AIRMET A1 VALID 250725/251125 CWEG-
WACN22 CWAO 251315
CZWG WINNIPEG FIR MOD ICE OBS AT 0700Z WI
CZEG AIRMET H1 VALID 251315/251715 CWEG- 45NM OF LINE
CZEG EDMONTON FIR MOD TURB OBS AT 1305Z /N5955 W09403/75 S CYEK – /N5845 W09404/
WI 45 NM OF LINE CYYQ – /N5646 W08903/60 NW CYER
/N6228 W11427/CYZF – /N6441 W10840/45 W SFC/FL020 STNR NC
CYOA – /N6453 W09605/30 W CYBK
RMK GFACN32=
FL190/340 MOV NE 10KT NC
RMK GFACN32=
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MET
Satellite pictures and surface observations indicate an area of
(vi) Squall line with hail (SQLN TSGR);
stratus and fog along the Quebec Lower North Shore was not
well represented in GFACN34 and required the issuance of (vii) Squall line with possible tornado/waterspout (SQLN
AIRMET messages. TSGR POSS +FC);
3. TS implies severe icing and turbulence; therefore separate If all letters are unavailable, the letter that has had the longest
SIGMET for these phenomenon are not issued in connection retirement will be re-used.
with convective clouds.
The letter attributed to a bulletin will not change during its
4. SIGMET will only be issued for one of these criteria at any lifespan (updates and cancellation).
time. If more than one criterion occurs then more than one
Significant meteorological information (SIGMET) messages do
SIGMET will be issued.
not share the alphabet with WA (AIRMET). The letter A may be
5. Frequent (FRQ) coverage indicates an area of thunderstorms used simultaneously in both a WS (or WC or WV) and a WA.
within which there is little or no separation between adjacent
thunderstorms and with a maximum spatial coverage greater 6.5 RULES FOR THE USE OF NUMBERS
than 50% of the area affected or forecast to be affected by
the phenomenon (at a fixed time or during the period of Numbering of an event (as defined by the unique use of a letter
validity). in a flight information region [FIR]) begins at 1 (i.e. B1).
6. For radioactive cloud SIGMET bulletins, only a circle shape Number incremented by 1 when updating a message, including
is to be used for element 5 “location.” A radius of up to cancellation.
15 NM from the source and a vertical extent from The sequence number shall correspond with the number of
surface (SFC) to the upper limit of the flight information messages issued for an event within a FIR since 0000Z on the
region (FIR) is to be applied. Only stationary (STNR) is to day concerned.
be used for expected movement.
The numbering is thus reset at 0000Z (messages are not updated
6.3 COORDINATE POINTS at 0000Z for the sole purpose of resetting the number).
146
TC AIM March 23, 2023
MET
boundaries (see Example 1a and 1b in MET 6.16).
W07331 – N5345 W06943 – N5256 (b) For a phenomenon that has moved out of a FIR, the cancelled
SIGMET message will refer to the continuing SIGMET
W06758 – N4848 W07149 – N4508
message in neighbouring FIR(s) within Canada’s area of
W07206 - N4502 W07345 responsibility (see Example 2 in MET 6.16).
6.13 CANCELLATION
If, during the validity period of a significant meteorological
information (SIGMET) message, the phenomenon for which the
SIGMET had been issued is no longer occurring or no longer
expected to occur, this SIGMET should be cancelled by the
issuing meteorological watch office (MWO). A cancellation
SIGMET will be issued and will include the abbreviation CNCL.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
MET
are issued. This event spans over Gander Domestic and Gander
RMK GFACN33= Oceanic FIRs as well as GFACN34.
Example 1b: ICAO
This SIGMET was updated after 000Z on the 17th, so the SIGMET CZQX WSCN07 CWAO 161220
number was reset while the letter remains the same.
CZQX SIGMET E1 VALID 161220/161620 CWUL-
ICAO CZQX GANDER DOMESTIC FIR SEV TURB OBS
WSCN03 CWAO 170205 AT 1155Z WI 45NM OF LINE
CZWG SIGMET A1 VALID 170205/170605 CWEG- N5319 W06025 – N5615 W05245 – N5930 W04715
FL280/350 MOV NE 20KT NC=
CZWG WINNIPEG FIR SQLN TS OBS WI 20NM OF
LINE N4915 W09332 – N5103
CZQX (Oceanic)
W09212 – N5144 W08943 TOP FL310 MOV E 15KT WSNT01 CWAO 161220
WKN=
CZQX SIGMET U1 VALID 161220/161620 CWUL-
National CZQX GANDER OCEANIC FIR SEV TURB OBS AT
WSCN23 CWAO 170205 1155Z WI 45NM OF LINE N5319
CZWG SIGMET A1 VALID 170205/170605 CWEG- W06025 – N5615 W05245 – N5930 W04715
FL280/350 MOV NE 20KT NC=
CZWG WINNIPEG FIR SQLN TS OBS WI 20NM OF
LINE /N4915 W09332/45 SE
CYQK – /N5103 W09212/60 E CYRL – /N5144
W08943/25 NE CYPL TOP FL310 MOV E 15KT
WKN
RMK GFACN33=
149
TC AIM March 23, 2023
National
CZQX WSCN27 CWAO 161220
CZQX SIGMET E1 VALID162225/170225 CWUL-
CZQX GANDER DOMESTIC FIR SEV TURB OBS
AT 1155Z WI 45NM OF LINE
/N5319 W06025/CYYR – /N5615 W05245/ – /N5930
W04715/ FL280/350 MOV NE 20KT NC
RMK GFACN34/CZQX GANDER OCEANIC FIR
SIGMET U1=
CZQX (Oceanic)
WSNT21 CWAO 162225
CZQX SIGMET U1 VALID 162225/170225 CWUL-
CZQX GANDER OCEANIC FIR SEV TURB OBS AT
1155Z WI 45NM OF LINE /N5319
W06025/CYYR – /N5615 W05245/ – /N5930
W04715/ FL280/350 MOV NE 20KT NC
RMK GFACN34/CZQX GANDER DOMESTIC FIR
SIGMET E1=
NOTE:
Since this event spans over two FIRs, the remark line includes
cross-references to the SIGMET messages. Note that only the
first coordinate point relates to an aviation reference site. The
MET
other two coordinate points are in Gander Oceanic FIR and are
defined only in latitudes and longitudes.
Example 4:
The centre of hurricane Maria is about to move across the Avalon
Peninsula. The tropical cyclone SIGMET (WCCN) is updated
and only covers the Gander Domestic FIR and GFACN34, since
the CB activity is confined within a radius of 150 NM from the
centre of the hurricane.
ICAO
WCCN07 CWAO 161220
CZQX SIGMET G3 VALID 1601800/170000 CWUL-
CZQX GANDER DOMESTIC FIR TC MARIA OBS
AT 1800Z N4720 W05430/ CB TOP
FL360 WI 150NM OF CENTRE MOV NE 40KT
WKNG FCST 0000Z TC CENTRE N5110 W05030 =
National
WCCN27 CWAO 161220
CZQX SIGMET G3 VALID 161800/170000 CWUL-
CZQX GANDER DOMESTIC FIR TC MARIA OBS
AT 1800Z N4720 W05430/75 SW
CYYT CB TOP FL360 WI 150NM OF CENTRE MOV
NE 40KT WKNG FCST 0000Z
TC CENTRE N5110 W05030/180 NE CYYT
RMK GFACN34=
150
TC AIM March 23, 2023
7.0 AERODROME
FORECASTS (TAFS)
7.1 AERODROME FORECAST (TAF) LOCATIONS
Figure 7.1—TAF Locations
AERODROME FORECAST
INDICATES ADVISORY
Arctic
Ocean INDICATES 24-HR FORECAST
INDICATES SEASONAL 24-HR FORECAST
INDICATES 30-HR FORECAST
Atlantic
Ocean
Hudson
MET
Bay
Provincial Boundary
International Boundary
24-hr forecast service is only mandatory
at international airports.
NOTE:
The above chart is incomplete and may be out of date. Pilots
should consult the current flight publications and NOTAM to
confirm TAF availability.
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Period of validity—The period of validity for the TAF is indicated Significant weather—Forecast significant weather may be decoded
by two four-digit date/time groups; the first four-digit group using the list of significant weather given in the WMO Code
indicates the start date and time of the TAF, and the second Table 4678 (Table 8.1) in MET 8.3. Intensity and proximity
four-digit group indicates the end date and time of the TAF. A qualifiers, descriptors, precipitation, obscuration and other
TAF is considered to be valid from the moment it is issued (e.g. phenomena are included as required. A maximum of three
a TAF with an indicated period of validity from 1100Z to 2300Z significant weather groups is allowed per forecast period. If more
that was issued at 1040Z is considered to be valid from 1040Z) than one group is used, they are considered one entity. When one
until it is amended; until the next scheduled TAF for the same of the significant weather groups is forecast to change, all the
aerodrome is issued; or until the period of validity ends and no significant weather groups that will apply after the change are
new TAF has been issued. The maximum period of validity for indicated following the change group. Details on the specific
a TAF is 30 hr; however, some TAFs have staggered issue times effects of change groups on significant weather will be addressed
and more frequent update cycles, which affects their periods of under the change group headings.
validity.
NOTE:
Wind—This group forecasts the 2-min mean wind direction The meaning of the proximity qualifier, vicinity (VC), in the TAF
and speed to the nearest 10° true, and speed to the nearest whole code differs slightly from that in the METAR. In the METAR
knot. “KT” is used to indicate the speed units. If the maximum code, “VC” means elements observed within 5 SM., but not at the
gust speed is forecast to exceed the mean speed by 10 kt or more, station. In the TAF code, “VC” means between 5 and 10 NM from
the letter G and the value of the gust speed, in knots, is added the centre of the runway complex.
between the mean wind and the unit indicator (KT). “VRB” is
normally coded for variable direction only if the wind speed is Sky condition—Sky condition is decoded as in a METAR. Possible
3 kt or less; however, it may also be coded with higher speeds codes for sky cover amounts are SKC, FEW, SCT, BKN, OVC
when it is impossible to forecast a single direction (e.g. when a and VV. In case of a significant change in a cloud layer, as forecast
thunderstorm passes). A north wind of 20 kt would be coded as using “BECMG” or “TEMPO”, the entire cloud group, including
36020KT, while calm wind is coded as 00000KT. those cloud layers that are not expected to change, shall be
Low-level wind shear—This group is used if the forecaster has repeated.
strong evidence to expect significant, non-convective wind shear CB layers are the only forecast layers to have cloud type identified,
that could adversely affect aircraft operation within 1 500 ft AGL e.g. “BKN040CB.”
MET
over the aerodrome. The height of the top of the shear layer (in
Change groups—For forecast purposes, all components of the
hundreds of feet above ground level) is given, followed by the
following elements are grouped together:
forecast wind speed and direction at that height.
(a) sky condition,
While the main effect of turbulence is related to erratic changes
in altitude or attitude of the aircraft, or both, the main effect of (b) visibility, present weather and obstruction to vision.
wind shear is the rapid gain or, more critical, loss of airspeed. Conditions listed after the change group represent new
Therefore, for forecasting purposes, any cases of strong, non- conditions.
convective low-level wind shear within 1 500 ft AGL will be
labelled as “WS.” In the following example, since wind is considered a group on
its own and is not mentioned in the section after the “BECMG”
To a great extent, wind shear is an element that, for the time change group, it is unchanged and will remain variable at 3 kt.
being, cannot be satisfactorily observed from the ground. As a However, changes have occurred to the sky condition and
result, aircraft observations and radiosonde reports represent visibility, present weather and obstruction to vision. For the sky
the only available evidence. condition, the broken layer at 300 ft will no longer exist after
However, the following guidelines are used to establish whether 1400Z.
significant non-convective wind shear hazardous to aircraft Example:
exists:
TAF CYVP 301213Z 3012/3024 VRB03KT 1/4SM
(a) vector magnitude exceeding 25 kt within 500 ft AGL; -RA FG BKN003 OVC007
(b) vector magnitude exceeding 40 kt within 1 000 ft AGL; BECMG 3012/3014 4SM -DZ BR OVC007
(c) vector magnitude exceeding 50 kt within 1 500 ft AGL;
Plain language explanation of the forecast: TAF for Kuujjuaq, Que.,
(d) a pilot report of loss or gain of IAS of 20 kt or more within issued on the 30th day of the month at 1213Z, valid from the
1 500 ft AGL. 30th day of the month at 1200Z until the 30th day of the month
Prevailing visibility—The horizontal prevailing visibility is indicated at 2359Z. Wind variable at 3 kt, visibility 1/4 SM with light rain
in statute miles and fractions up to 3 SM, then in whole miles up and fog; forecast cloud layers are broken at 300 ft and overcast
to 6 SM. Visibilities greater than 6 SM are indicated as P6SM. The at 700 ft. From 1200Z until 1400Z, conditions will become
letters “SM” are added, without a space, to each forecast visibility, visibility 4 SM with light drizzle and mist; overcast cloud layer
to identify the unit. at 700 ft.
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MET
time (UTC) the next regular TAF will be issued, which will of this data, the forecaster may have inferred actual weather
correspond to the beginning of its new period of validity. conditions that differ slightly from the METAR AUTO report.
This remark will normally mark the end of the TAF. On those few occasions when there are differences between a
(c) PARTIAL PROGRAM NOTICES—For aerodromes with a METAR AUTO report and a TAF, it may not imply that the TAF
partial observing program (e.g. no night-time observations is inaccurate, or that an amendment is required. In the event
are taken), a remark is included in the last regular TAF that an AWOS sensor is missing, inoperative, or functioning
issued for the day to indicate when forecast coverage will below standards, the forecaster will attempt to infer the value
resume, e.g. “NXT FCST WILL BE ISSUED AT 291045Z”. of the missing weather element from other available data and
For military aerodromes, remarks may also be used and may include a remark in the TAF. If the forecaster is unable to
will take the form of either, “NO FCST COVERAGE 2820– infer the weather conditions, a decision may be made to cancel
2911Z,” or “NO FCST ISSUED UNTIL FURTHER NOTICE”. the TAF, pending correction of the problem. The decision to
cancel will depend on the weather conditions prevailing at the
(d) POSSIBLE DISCREPANCIES—Forecasters will use remarks to
time, and how critical the missing information is to the issuance
explain possible discrepancies between an AWOS and a TAF if
of a credible TAF based on the automated data that is available.
the forecasters have reason to believe that the AWOS observations
are not representative of the actual weather at the aerodrome.
For example, the remarks could be “RMK AUTO OBS REPG 7.5 AMENDED AERODROME
NON-REPRESENTATIVE WND SPD” or “RMK AUTO OBS FORECAST (TAF)
REPG NON-REPRESENTATIVE VIS.” An aerodrome forecast (TAF) is amended when the forecast
conditions are no longer representative of the current or expected
conditions. An amendment is issued in response to a aerodrome
routine meteorological report (METAR), aerodrome special
meteorological report (SPECI) or pilot weather report (PIREP)
indicating a significant change in weather relative to the conditions
forecast in the TAF or whenever, in the forecaster’s judgment,
the TAF is not representative of existing or expected weather
conditions.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
The amendment criteria include thresholds defined by changes The large majority of METARs and SPECIs are provided by
in ceiling, visibility, present weather, wind speed and direction NAV CANADA; however, at Department of National
or the existence of low-level wind shear. TAF amendments are Defence (DND) aerodromes they are provided by DND. If
issued for weather that is better than previously forecast as well METARs and SPECIs are being provided by another source,
as for weather that is worse than previously forecast. they will be indicated as being “private” in the Canada Flight
Supplement (CFS). For these sites, the aerodrome operator is the
An amendment will also be issued to correct a TAF when
primary contact for further information.
typographical errors and/or forecast text omissions are such
that the information content of the TAF is unclear.
8.2 NATIONAL VARIATIONS
An amended forecast covers the remaining period of the original
forecast and is identified by TAF AMD in place of TAF prior to Despite the fact that an aerodrome routine meteorological
the aerodrome identifier in the first line of the forecast. In all report (METAR) is an international code, there are some national
cases, the issue time added to the body of the TAF will always variations. For example, wind speed may be reported in different
indicate which TAF is the latest. units; however, the units are always appended to the values to
avoid any misunderstanding. See MET 1.1.8 for more information
A TAF does not have to be amended for changes in ceiling on differences from the International Civil Aviation Organization
and/or visibility when both the forecast and observed values (ICAO) Annex 3.
are below the normal visual flight rules (VFR) minima or
the lowest published instrument landing minima for an Sample Message
aerodrome (whichever is lower).
METAR CYXE 292000Z CCA 09015G25KT 3/4SM
The VFR minima criteria for TAF amendment purposes are a R09/4000FT/D –RA BR BKN008 0VC040 21/19
ceiling of less than 1 000 ft and/or ground visibility of less than A2992 WS RWY 09 RMK SF5NS3 VIS NW 3/8
3 SM. SLP134 DENSITY ALTITUDE 2500FT
Decoding of example—Aerodrome routine meteorological report;
8.0 AERODROME ROUTINE Saskatoon, Sask., issued on the 29th day of the month at
METEOROLOGICAL REPORTS 2000 UTC; first correction to the original observation;
(METARS) wind 090° true, 15 kt with gusts to 25 kt; visibility 3/4 SM; RVR
MET
Report modifier—This field may contain two possible codes: RVR—The runway visual range (RVR) for the touchdown
“AUTO” or “CCA”. Both codes may appear simultaneously, i.e. zone of up to four available landing runways is reported as
“AUTO CCA”. “AUTO” is used when data for the primary report a 10-min average, based on the maximum runway light
is gathered by an automated weather observation system (AWOS). settings at the time of the report. It is included if the prevailing
See MET 8.5 for more information about AWOS reports. “CCA” visibility is 1 SM or less, and/or the RVR is 6 000 ft or less.
is used to indicate corrected reports. The first correction is “R”, the group indicator, is followed by the runway designator
indicated as CCA, the second as CCB, etc. (e.g. 06), to which may be appended the letters “L”, “C”, or
“R” (left, centre, or right) if there are two or more parallel
Wind—This group reports the 2-min mean wind direction and
runways. The RVR value is then reported in hundreds of
speed, along with gusts. Wind direction is always three digits,
feet, using three or four digits. FT indicates the units for
given in degrees (true) but rounded off to the nearest 10º (the
RVR are feet. “M” preceding the lowest measurable value (or
third digit is always a “0”). Wind speeds are two digits (or three
“P” preceding the highest) indicates the value is beyond the
digits, if required) and in knots. Calm is encoded as “00000KT”.
instrument range. The RVR trend is then indicated if there
In Canada, the unit for wind speed is knots (nautical miles per
is a distinct upward or downward trend from the first to the
hour) and is indicated by including “KT” at the end of the wind
second 5-min part-period such that the RVR changes by
group. Other countries may use kilometres per hour (KMH), or
300 ft or more (encoded “/U” or “/D” for upward or downward)
metres per second (MPS).
or if no distinct change is observed, the trend “/N” is encoded.
Wind gusts—Gust information will be included if gust speeds, If it is not possible to determine the trend, the field will be
averaged over a 5-second period, exceed the average wind speed left blank.
by 5 kt or more in the 10-min period preceding the observation
Variations in RVR—Two RVR values may be reported, the
and the peak gust reaches a maximum speed of 15 kt or more.
minimum and maximum 1-min mean RVR values during the
“G” indicates gusts and the peak gust is reported, using two or
10-min period preceding the observation, if they vary from the
three digits as required.
10-min mean by at least 20% (and by 150 ft).
Variations in wind direction—This group reports variations in
Example:
wind direction. It is only included if, during the 10-min period
“R06L/1000V2400FT/U” decodes as the minimum RVR for
preceding the observation, the direction varies by 60° or more
Runway 06 Left is 1 000 ft; the maximum RVR is 2 400 ft; and
and less than 180°, and the mean speed exceeds 3 kt. The two
the trend is upward.
MET
extreme directions are encoded in clockwise order. In the example
below, the wind is varying from 260° true to 340° true. Present weather—The present weather is coded in accordance
with the WMO Code Table 4678, which follows. As many groups
Example:
as necessary are included, with each group containing from two
METAR CYWG 172000Z 30015G25KT 260V340 to nine characters.
In the case of variable wind direction, wind direction in tens of Present weather is comprised of weather phenomena, which may
degrees (ddd) shall be coded as VRB when the wind speed is less be one or more forms of precipitation, obscuration, or other
than 3 kt. A variable wind at higher speeds shall be reported phenomena. Weather phenomena are preceded by one or two
only when the variation in wind direction is 180° or more or qualifiers; one of which describes either the intensity or proximity
when it is impossible to determine a single wind direction. to the station of the phenomena, the other of which describes
Example: the phenomena in some other manner.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
the appropriate sign. No sign is included if the more, blowing is used. If blowing snow (BLSN) and
intensity is moderate, or when intensity is not snow (SN) are occurring together, both are reported
relevant. If more than one type of precipitation is but in separate present weather groups, e.g.
reported together in a group, the predominant type “SN BLSN”.
is given first; however, the reported intensity SH (shower) is used only in combination with
represents the overall intensity of the combined types precipitation types RA (rain), SN (snow), GR (hail)
of precipitation. and GS (snow pellets) if occurring at the time of
(ii) Proximity: The proximity, qualifier “VC”, is used observation (e.g. “–SHRAGR”). SHGS refers to either
in conjunction with the following phenomena: snow pellet showers or small hail (less than 5 mm
SH (showers) in diameter). When it is used for small hail, the
FG (fog) diameter of the hail is included in remarks and CB
FC (funnel cloud) are usually present.
+FC (tornado or waterspout)
TS (thunderstorm) TS (thunderstorm) is either reported alone or in
BLSN (blowing snow) combination with one or more of the precipitation
BLDU (blowing dust) types. The end of a thunderstorm is the time at which
BLSA (blowing sand) the last thunder was heard, followed by a 15-min
PO (dust/sand whirls) period with no further thunder.
DS (dust storm)
TS and SH are not used together, since present
SS (sandstorm)
weather groups can have only one descriptor.
VC is used if these phenomena are observed within
5 SM, but not at the station. When VC is associated FZ (freezing) is used only in combination with the
with SH, the type and intensity of precipitation are weather types DZ (drizzle), RA (rain) and FG (fog).
not specified because they cannot be determined.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Weather phenomena—Different forms of precipitation are The automated weather observation system (AWOS) cannot
combined in one group, the predominant form being reported report cloud types. AWOS cloud layers are limited to four, and
first. The intensity qualifier selected represents the overall it will report clear (CLR) when no layers are detected below a
intensity of the entire group, not just one component of the base of 25 000 ft (some private AWOS are limited to cloud bases
group. The one exception is freezing precipitation (FZRA or of 10 000 ft).
FZDZ), which is always reported in a separate present weather
A ceiling is the lesser of the following: the height above ground
group. Obstructions to vision are generally reported if the
or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud covering more
prevailing visibility is 6 SM or less, with some exceptions. Any
than half of the sky, or the vertical visibility in a surface-based
obscuration occurring simultaneously with one or more forms
layer which completely obscures the whole sky. Therefore, a
of precipitation is reported in a separate present weather group.
ceiling exists at the height of the first layer for which a coverage
Other phenomena are also reported in separate groups, and,
symbol of BKN or OVC is reported. The existence of a vertical
when funnel clouds, tornados or waterspouts are observed, they
visibility constitutes an obscured ceiling.
will be coded in the present weather section, as well as being
written out in their entirety in remarks. Temperature and dew point—This group reports the air
temperature and the dew point temperature, rounded to the
Sky conditions—This group reports the sky condition for layers
nearest whole Celsius degree (e.g. +2.5˚C would be rounded to
aloft. A vertical visibility (VV) is reported in hundreds of feet
+3˚C). Negative values are preceded by the letter M, and values
when the sky is obscured. All cloud layers are reported based
with a tenths digit equal to precisely 5 are rounded to the warmer
on the summation of the layer amounts as observed from the
whole degree. For example, 2.5, –0.5, –1.5, and –12.5 would be
surface up, reported as a height above the station elevation in
reported as 03, M00, M01 and M12, respectively.
increments of 100 ft to a height of 10 000 ft, and thereafter in
increments of 1 000 ft. The layer amounts are reported in eighths Altimeter setting—This group reports the altimeter setting. A is
(oktas) of sky coverage as follows: the group indicator, followed by the altimeter setting indicated
by a group of four figures representing tens, units, tenths and
Table 8.2—Sky Conditions for METARs hundredths of inches of mercury. To decode, place a decimal
point after the second digit (e.g. A3006 becomes 30.06).
SKC “sky clear” no cloud present
Wind shear—This group contains reports of low-level wind shear
FEW “few” less than 1/8 to 2/8
(within 1 500 ft AGL) along the take-off or approach path of the
summation amount
MET
designated runway. The two-digit runway identifier is used, to
SCT “scattered” 3/8 to 4/8 summation amount which the letters “L,” “C,” or “R” may be appended. If the existence
BKN “broken” 5/8 to less than 8/8 of wind shear applies to all runways, “WS ALL RWY” is used.
summation amount
Remarks—Remarks will appear in reports from Canada, prefaced
OVC “overcast” 8/8 summation amount by RMK. Remarks will include, where observed, layer type and
CLR “clear” clear below 25 000 ft as cloud or obscuring phenomena (in eighths of sky covered or
interpreted by an AWOS oktas), general weather remarks, and sea level pressure, as
Significant convective clouds (cumulonimbus or towering required. The sea level pressure, prefixed by “SLP” and indicated
cumulus only), if observed, are identified by the abbreviations in hectopascals, will be the last mandatory field in the METAR.
CB (cumulonimbus) or TCU (towering cumulus), which are SLP does not directly relate to altimeter setting as the SLP is
appended to the cloud group without a space, e.g. “SCT025TCU”. based upon actual temperatures while the altimeter setting is
based upon the ICAO standard atmosphere. Density altitude
When observed, CB and TCU of any amount are always reported will be indicated after sea level pressure when the density altitude
in the remarks of the aerodrome routine meteorological is 200 ft or more than the aerodrome elevation. The remarks
report (METAR) or aerodrome special meteorological “PRESFR” and “PRESRR” indicate rapid changes in pressure
report (SPECI), even if they are only embedded or distant. and pilots should be extra vigilant to ensure that they have the
When either CB or TCU is the predominant cloud type in a layer most recent altimeter setting when these remarks are included.
reported in the cloud group of the METAR/SPECI, the applicable The equal sign (“=”) is often used as an end-of-message indicator
cloud type (CB or TCU) is included within the cloud group. and has no other meaning.
When an individual layer of cloud is composed of CB and TCU
with a common cloud base, the type shall be reported as CB
only.
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Special observations will be taken promptly to report changes (ii) increases in intensity to become “heavy”; or
that occur between scheduled transmission times whenever one (iii) ends (a SPECI shall be issued when 15 min have
or more of the following elements have changed in the amount elapsed without the occurrence of thunderstorm
specified. The amount of change is measured with reference to activity).
the preceding routine or special observation.
(f) Precipitation—When any of the following begins, ends or
(a) Ceiling—The ceiling decreases to less than the following changes intensity:
values, or it increases to equal to or greater than these values: (i) freezing rain
(i) 1 500 ft (ii) freezing drizzle
(ii) 1 000 ft (iii) ice pellets
MET
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
(i) Temperature—A SPECI shall be taken to report when the 8.3.2.2 Check Observations
temperature Check observations are taken between regular hourly observations
(i) increases by 5°C or more from the previous reported to ensure that significant changes in weather do not remain
value and the previous reported value was 20°C or unreported. If such an observation does not reveal a significant
higher; or change, it is designated as a “check observation.” If a significant
(ii) decreases to a reported value of 2°C or lower. change has occurred, the report is treated as a “special observation.”
The following airports have been identified for SPECI criteria A check observation shall be taken whenever a PIREP is received
for significant temperature changes between hourly reports: from an aircraft within 1 1/2 SM of the boundary of an airfield,
and the PIREP indicates that weather conditions, as observed
(i) Calgary Intl, Alta. by the pilot, differ significantly from those reported by the current
(ii) Edmonton Intl, Alta. observation (i.e. the PIREP indicated that a special report may
be required). This check observation should result in one of the
(iii) Gander Intl, N.L.
following:
(iv) Moncton/Greater Moncton Intl, N.B.
(a) transmission of a special observation over regular
(v) Montréal/Pierre Elliott Trudeau Intl, Que. communications channels; or
(vi) Montréal/Mirabel Intl, Que. (b) if no special observation is warranted, transmission of the
(vii) Ottawa/Macdonald-Cartier Intl, Ont. check observation, together with the PIREP, to local
airport agencies.
(viii) St. John’s Intl, N.L.
(ix) Toronto/Lester B. Pearson Intl, Ont. 8.4 AUTOMATIC AERODROME
(x) Vancouver Intl, B.C. ROUTINE METEOROLOGICAL
REPORTS (METAR AUTO) AND
(xi) Victoria Intl, B.C. LIMITED WEATHER INFORMATION
(xii) Halifax Intl, N.S. SYSTEM (LWIS) REPORTS
(xiii) London, Ont.
8.4.1 Automatic Aerodrome Routine
MET
(xiv) Québec/Jean Lesage Intl, Que. Meteorological Reports (METAR AUTO)
(xv) Whitehorse Intl, Y.T. Automated aviation weather observations are an integral
(xvi) Winnipeg Intl, Man. component of the aviation weather reporting system in Canada,
and there are currently more than 80 in operation in all regions
(xvii) Yellowknife, N.W.T.
of the country. They were developed to provide an alternative
(xviii) Charlottetown, P.E.I. method of collecting and disseminating weather observations
(xix) Fredericton, N.B. from sites where human observation programs could not be
supported. Automation provides accurate and reliable data, but
(xx) Prince George, B.C. it does have limitations and characteristics that are important
(xxi) Regina Intl, Sask. to understand when using the information.
(xxii) Saint John, N.B. NAV CANADA AWOS that produces METAR AUTO reports
(xxiii) Saskatoon/John G. Diefenbaker Intl, Sask. incorporates sensors capable of measuring cloud base height (up
to 25 000 ft AGL); sky cover; visibility; temperature; dew point;
(xxiv) Thunder Bay, Ont. wind velocity; altimeter setting; precipitation occurrence, type,
(j) Volcanic eruption—A SPECI shall be issued when a volcano amount and intensity; and the occurrence of icing. METARs
erupts. and SPECIs based on automated weather observations include
the word “AUTO”. METAR AUTO observations are reported
8.3.2 Local Criteria on the hour and SPECI AUTO observations are issued to report
significant changes in cloud ceiling, visibility and wind velocity,
Additional criteria may be established to meet local requirements. as well as the onset and cessation of thunderstorms, precipitation
or icing. AWOS operated by NAV CANADA and DND issue
8.3.2.1 Observer’s Initiative METAR AUTO reports and, when appropriate, SPECI AUTO
reports.
The criteria specified in the preceding paragraphs shall be
regarded as the minimum requirements for taking special AWOS is based on sensors that sample the atmosphere and
observations. In addition, any weather condition that, in the prepare a data message every minute. If the observed weather
opinion of the observer, is important for the safety and efficiency conditions have changed significantly enough to meet the SPECI
of aircraft operations, or otherwise significant, shall be reported criteria, subject to the various processing algorithms, a SPECI
by a special observation. AUTO will be issued. Human observers view the entire celestial
dome and horizon; this results in a naturally smoothed and more
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
representative value for ceiling and visibility. Because of the (c) Freezing drizzle and drizzle are not reported. When drizzle
precise measurement, continuous sampling and unidirectional is occurring, the AWOS will usually report either rain or
views of the sensors, NAV CANADA AWOS normally produces unknown precipitation. When freezing drizzle is occurring,
more SPECI observations than human observation sites (five to the AWOS will usually report either freezing rain or freezing
six percent of the time SPECI AUTO counts exceed six per hour). precipitation of an unknown type.
In cases where there are several reports issued over a short period (d) Density altitude reporting capability (AWOS and LWIS)—
of time, it is important to summarize the observations to gain Density altitude is the altitude in ISA at which the air density
an appreciation of the weather trend. One report in a series would be equal to the air density at field elevation at the
should not be expected to represent the prevailing condition. current temperature. This remark is only added when the
For more information about METAR AUTO reports, please refer density altitude, rounded to the nearest 100 ft, is 200 ft or
to MET 1.2.6.1. higher than the aerodrome elevation. A rough value of
density altitude can be approximated by adding 118.8 ft to
8.4.2 Limited Weather Information System (LWIS) the aerodrome pressure altitude for every degree Celsius
Reports the temperature is above ISA. Density altitude can also be
less than aerodrome elevation and can be estimated by
LWIS is an automated weather system which produces an hourly subtracting 118.8 ft from the aerodrome pressure altitude
report containing wind speed and direction; temperature; dew for every degree Celsius colder than ISA, but it is not reported.
point; and altimeter setting. LWIS is designed for use at
aerodromes where provision of METAR AUTO and SPECI (e) Visibility (AWOS)—Visibility will be reported in daytime
AUTO reports is not justified, but support for a CAP approach and at night in a manner similar to human assessment.
is required. For more information about LWIS reports, see (f) Ceilometer—AWOS is capable of reporting cloud bases up
MET 1.2.6.2. to 25 000 ft.
Example: (g) “Obstructions to vision” reporting capability—AWOS is
LWIS CYXP 221700Z AUTO 25010G15KT 03/M02 able to report haze (HZ); mist (BR); fog (FG); freezing fog
A3017= (FZFG); and blowing snow (BLSN).
(h) VGSS—Text-to-voice technology at many sites for local
8.4.3 Automated Weather Observation VHF transmission of weather report to pilots.
MET
System (AWOS) and Limited Weather (i) Icing—The occurrence of icing at the time of observation
Information System (LWIS) Performance or during the past hour will be noted in remarks.
Characteristics
(j) RVR reporting (AWOS) at sites where RVR sensors are
All AWOS and LWIS systems operated by NAV CANADA have installed.
the following performance characteristics. (k) Digital aviation weather cameras (WxCam) are installed at
(a) Thunderstorm reporting (AWOS) at sites within the domain stand-alone locations as well as at many AWOS and LWIS
of the CLDN. Thunderstorm activity, based on the proximity sites.
of the lightning strike(s) to the site, will be reported as: All regulated observations of wind speed, direction, and character,
(i) TS—Thunderstorm (at site), if lightning detected at as well as temperature, dew point, and altimeter setting must
6 SM or less; meet the same performance specifications regardless of the
means of assessment (either human or automated). Among these
(ii) VCTS—Thunderstorm in vicinity, if lightning
requirements is one that stipulates that all reports of altimeter
detected from > 6 to 10 SM;
setting must be based upon a fail-safe design that utilizes two
(iii) LTNG DIST (direction)—If lightning detected from or more independently operating pressure sensors that must
> 10 to 30 SM, lightning distant with octant compass agree within established tolerances before they can be included
cardinal direction shall be reported in remarks, e.g. in a report.
LTNG DIST NE, S, SW; and
(iv) LTNG DIST ALL QUADS—Lightning distant all
quadrants will be reported in remarks if lightning
is detected in four or more octants.
(b) Ice-resistant anemometer (AWOS and LWIS)—New ice-
resistant technology essentially eliminates anemometer
performance degradation due to freezing precipitation,
freezing fog or snow contamination.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
MET
e.g. 12015G25KT.
No difference.
Wind
Human observers shall provide an estimate NOTE: When a VGSS is installed, the wind direction will be
of wind speed and direction in the event of broadcast in degrees magnetic if the AWOS is located in
wind sensor failure. SDA; elsewhere, it will be broadcast in degrees true. If wind
information is missing, five forward slashes (/) are placed in
the wind field, e.g. /////.
Variable wind
Wind direction variation of 60˚ or greater. No difference.
group
Visibility is prevailing visibility, i.e. common Visibility is measured using fixed, unidirectional, forward
to at least half the horizon circle. scatter techniques.
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See the table WMO Code Table 4678 (Table AWOS will report weather phenomena using the following
8.1) in MET 8.3 for the symbols used for the symbols:
description of weather. RA—rain,
FZRA—freezing rain,
SN—snow,
UP—unknown precipitation type.
AWOS reports thunderstorms (TS) and includes remarks
on location of lightning. Drizzle (DZ) or freezing drizzle
(FZDZ) are not reported and will usually be reported as rain
(RA or FZRA) or unknown precipitation type (UP or FZUP).
“+” or “–” is used to indicate weather No difference. Squalls are not reported.
intensity. AWOS does not report “in the
vicinity” phenomena other than TS and lightning.
Cloud amount Observer views entire celestial dome and Laser ceilometer views one point directly over the station.
and sky determines cloud-base height, layer amounts It measures the cloud-base height and then uses time
conditions and opacity, and cumulative amount and integration to determine layer amounts.
opacity.
MET
SKC or height of cloud base plus FEW, SCT, Height of cloud base plus FEW, SCT, BKN, OVC. “CLR” is
BKN, OVC. reported if no cloud below 25 000 ft AGL is detected.
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Significant weather or variation not reported Currently, remarks are limited. When visibility is variable,
elsewhere in the report. the remark VIS VRB followed by the limits will appear, e.g.
VIS VRB 1-2. When icing is detected, ICG, ICG INTMT
or ICG PAST HR will appear. Remarks on precipitation
amount, rapid changes in pressure and the location of
lightning may also appear.
Example of METAR issued by human observation: In variable weather conditions, there may be significant differences
METAR CYEG 151200Z CCA 12012G23KT 3/4SM between broadcasts only a few minutes apart. It is very important
R12/4000FT/D –RA BR FEW008 SCT014 BKN022 during these conditions to obtain several broadcasts of the
OVC035 10/09 A2984 RMK SF1SC2SC4SC1 VIS minutely data for comparison to develop an accurate picture of
W2 SLP012= the actual conditions to be expected at the location.
Below is the typical format of an NAV CANADA AWOS voice
Example of METAR AUTO issued by NAV CANADA’s AWOS
message:
MET
system:
“(site name) AUTOMATED WEATHER
METAR CZVL 151200Z AUTO 12012G23KT 3/4SM –
OBSERVATION SYSTEM—OBSERVATION TAKEN
RA FEW008 SCT014 BKN022 OVC035 10/09 A2984
AT (time) — WIND (direction) (MAGNETIC/TRUE)
RMK SLP012=
AT (speed) KNOTS — VISIBILITY (visibility data) —
(present weather data) — (sky condition/cloud data)
NOTE:
— TEMPERATURE (temperature data)— DEW
If an AWOS sensor is malfunctioning or has shut down, that
POINT (dew point data)— ALTIMETER (altimeter
parameter will be missing from the report.
data)”
8.5 VOICE GENERATION SYSTEMS Below is an example of the LWIS voice message:
“(site name) LIMITED WEATHER INFORMATION
Where a voice generator sub-system (VGSS), very high
SYSTEM—CURRENT OBSERVATION TAKEN AT
frequency (VHF) radio and/or telephone are connected to the
(time) — WIND (direction) (MAGNETIC/TRUE)
automated weather observation system (AWOS) or limited
(speed) KNOTS — TEMPERATURE (temperature
weather information system (LWIS), the most recent data gathered
data) — DEW POINT (dew point data) —
once each minute will be broadcast to pilots on the VHF frequency
ALTIMETER (altimeter data)”
and/or via the telephone number published in the Canada Flight
Supplement (CFS). A pilot with a VHF receiver should be able
NOTE:
to receive the VGSS transmission at a range of 75 NM from the
Missing data or data that has been suppressed is transmitted as
site at an altitude of 10 000 ft AGL. Weather data will be broadcast
“MISSING”.
in the same sequence as that used for aerodrome routine
meteorological reports (METARs) and aerodrome special
meteorological reports (SPECIs).
A human observed METAR/SPECI or a METAR AUTO/SPECI
AUTO shall take priority over an automated voice generated
report (minutely reports). During the hours when a human
observation program is operating and there is no direct VHF
communication between the pilot and the weather observer, the
VGSS VHF transmitter will normally be off. This eliminates the
risk of a pilot possibly receiving two contradictory and confusing
weather reports.
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9.2 UPPER LEVEL WIND AND Table 9.3—Example of Code Used in FDs
TEMPERATURE FORECASTS (FDS)
Upper level wind and temperature forecasts (FDs) are upper EXAMPLE DECODED
level forecasts of wind velocity, expressed in knots and to the 9900 + 00 Wind light and variable, temperature 0˚C
nearest 10˚ true, and temperature, expressed in degrees Celsius.
Temperatures are not forecast for 3 000 ft; in addition, this level 2523 250˚ true at 23 kt
is omitted if the terrain elevation is greater than 1 500 ft. All
290˚ true (79 ‑ 50 = 29) at 111 kt
forecast temperatures for altitudes over 24 000 ft are negative. 791159
(11 + 100 = 111), temperature ‑ 59˚C
Data for the production of FD forecasts are derived from a variety
350˚ true (85 ‑ 50 = 35) at 199 kt
of atmospheric data sources, including upper air sounding 859950
or greater, temperature ‑50˚C
measurements of pressure, temperature, relative humidity and
wind velocity, taken at 32 sites twice daily (at 0000Z and 1200Z). Forecasts in digital form of the winds and the temperatures aloft
Following the computer run of a subsequent numeric weather (FB) are currently available over the phone. They have a similar
model, FD forecasts are available at the valid times indicated in format to FD forecasts but are updated four times a day and
MET 3.1. include other improvements. FD forecasts will continue to be
Table 9.1—FD Example 1
available but will gradually be replaced by FB forecasts.
FDCN01 CWAO 071530
FCST BASED ON 071200 DATA VALID 080000 FOR USE 10.0 SURFACE WEATHER MAPS
21-06
Airport / 3 000 6 000 9 000 12 000 18 000 Figure 10.1—Surface Weather Maps Legend
FT
YVR 9900 2415-07 2430-10 2434-10 2542-26
YYF 2523 2432-04 2338-08 2342-13 2448-24
YXC — 2431-02 2330-06 2344-11 2352-22
YYC — 2426-03 2435-06 2430-12 2342-22
YQL — 2527-01 2437-05 2442-10 2450-21
MET
Table 9.2—FD Example 2
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4. The winds at 2 000 ft AGL blow roughly parallel to the (c) Wind direction—Wind direction may be determined at any
isobars—in a clockwise direction around highs and point by using the height contours. The wind generally
counter-clockwise around lows. Wind speeds vary with the blows parallel to the contours and the direction is determined
distance between isobars. Where the lines are close together, by keeping the “wind at your back with low heights to the
moderate to strong winds can be expected; where they are left”. The plotted wind arrows also provide the actual wind
far apart, light variable winds are expected. direction at the stations.
5. The red and blue lines are called fronts. These lines indicate (d) Wind speed—Wind speed is inversely proportional to the
the zones of contact between large air masses with differing spacing of the height contours. If the contours are close
physical properties—cold vs. warm, dry vs. moist, etc. Blue together, the winds are strong; if far apart, the winds are
lines are for cold fronts—cold air advancing. Red lines are light. The plotted wind arrows also provide the wind speed.
for warm fronts—warm air advancing. Alternate red and
On the 250 hPa chart, wind speeds are analyzed using dashed
blue lines are for stationary fronts—neither warm air nor
lines for points with the same wind speed (isotachs). The
cold air advancing. Hook marks in red and blue are for
isotachs are analyzed by a computer and are drawn at 30-kt
trowals-troughs of warm air aloft. A purple line is called
intervals starting at 60 kt.
an occluded front—where a cold front has overtaken a warm
front. Solid coloured lines are fronts which produce air mass NOTE:
changes at the ground level as well as in the upper air. Dashed Computer analyzed charts have the analyzed parameters
coloured lines represent “upper air” fronts—they also are smoothed to some extent.
important. Along all active fronts, one usually encounters
clouds and precipitation.
11.2 UPPER LEVEL PROGNOSTIC CHARTS
6. When colours cannot be used to distinguish the various
kinds of fronts, monochromatic symbols are used. Upper level wind and temperature charts are issued by a world
area forecast centre (WAFC), through the U.S. National Oceanic
and Atmospheric Administration’s National Weather Service
11.0 UPPER LEVEL CHARTS in Washington, D.C. Winds are depicted for FL 240, FL 340,
FL 390 and FL 450 using arrow shafts with pennants (50 kt each),
Upper level charts depict two forms of data: actual and forecast.
full feathers (10 kt each) and half feathers (5 kt each). The
MET
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MET
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The Canadian Meteorological Aviation Centres (CMACs) issue 12.2 HIGH-LEVEL CHARTS
a series of significant weather prognostic charts for the
mid-levels from 700 to 400 hPa (FL 100 to FL 240). They use the Figure 12.2(a)—Example of a Significant Weather
same criteria as the significant weather prognostic high-level Prognostic High-Level Chart (SIGWX HI LVL)
charts plus the following:
(a) moderate to severe icing (light icing is not depicted);
(b) cloud layers of significance;
(c) marked mountain waves;
(d) freezing level line (0˚C) at 5 000-ft intervals, and labeled in
hundreds of feet; and/or
(e) surface positions and direction of motion (in knots) of highs,
lows, and other significant features (front, trough).
Symbols used on the Significant Weather Prognostic Charts by
the CMAC:
These charts, produced for the mid and high levels, show
occurring or forecast weather conditions considered to be of
concern to aircraft operations. A world area forecast
centre (WAFC), through the U.S. National Oceanic and
Atmospheric Administration’s National Weather Service, issues
Cloud types are represented by the
a chart depicting forecast weather conditions between FL 250
MET
Trough of
NOTE:
Warm front Occlusion warm air aloft
The definitions of the above terms, as used in the International
Quasistationary Upper trough
Cold front front
Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) charts, differ from those
1020 Mean sea level Isobars, 0˚C Isotherm height Trough line
pressure in millibars 50 in hundreds of feet used for national significant meteorological information
(SIGMET), AIRMET and graphic area forecast (GFA). The ICAO
definitions involve 25% greater coverage in all cases. Some charts
may include SCT which refers to 25–50% area coverage. In
addition, ISOL is used by ICAO while ISOLD is used in national
forecasts.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
FRQ embedded CB and FRQ CB. All other clouds are depicted (e) Turbulence—Areas of moderate or severe turbulence in
using OKTA amounts, followed by the cloud type. In certain cloud or clear air are depicted using heavy dashed lines,
cases the abbreviation LYR (layer or layered) is used to indicate height symbols, a for moderate turbulence and a
cloud structure. for severe. Wind shear and mountain wave turbulence are
included; convective turbulence is not. For example, an area
(b) Cloud heights—When cloud tops or bases exceed the upper
of moderate turbulence between FL 280 and FL 360 would
or lower limits of a significant weather prognostic chart, an
be shown as:
XXX symbol is used on the appropriate side of the dividing
line. Consider, for example, the significant weather prognostic Figure 12.2(e)—Turbulence
chart that extends from FL 250 to FL 630. If well-separated
embedded CBs based below FL 250 and topped at FL 450
were present, this would be depicted as follows:
MET
but rather, the following statement is included in the label
Figure 12.2(c)—Tropopause Heights on each chart:
SYMBOL CB IMPLIES HAIL, MODERATE OR
GREATER TURBULENCE AND ICING
(h) Widespread sandstorms or dust storms—Areas of these
conditions are shown using a scalloped line, height symbol
and a . For example:
(d) Jet streams—The height and speed of jet streams having a
core speed of 80 kt or more are shown oriented to true north Figure 12.2(g)—Widespread Sandstorms
using arrows with pennants and feathers for speed and or Dust Storms
spaced sufficiently close to give a good indication of speed
and height changes. A double-hatched line across the jet
stream core indicates a speed increase or decrease of 20 kt
or greater at a jet stream speed of 100 kt or higher. For
example, a 120 kt jet stream initially at FL 420 dropping to
80 kt at FL 370 would be depicted as
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Significant weather prognostic charts depicting the tropical de particules d’ordre n), are also available at <https://weather.
cyclone symbol will have a statement to the effect that the gc.ca/eer/vaac/index_e.html>. Forecasts of concentrations of
latest tropical cyclone advisory, rather than the tropical ash and the expected paths of volcanic clouds are generated
cyclone’s prognostic position on the chart, is to be given when volcanic ash threatens Canadian-controlled airspace.
public dissemination.
Such simulations are also performed for active volcanos whose
(j) Volcanic eruptions—Information on the location of volcanic eventual eruption could affect Canadian-controlled airspace.
eruptions that are producing ash clouds of significance to These MLDPn outputs are produced automatically using
aircraft operations is shown as follows: the volcanic eruption hypothetical eruption start times that are three hours apart.
symbol is shown at the location of the volcano; on the side Forecast ash concentrations are presented as prognostic charts
of the chart, a box is shown containing the volcano eruption composed of four panels. Figure 13.1 shows the average
symbol, the name and international number of the volcano concentration for three layers expressed in terms of flight levels
(if known), the latitude/longitude, and date and time of the (in hundreds of feet) as well as the ash mass loading for the whole
first eruption (if known). Check SIGMET and NOTAM or atmospheric column: surface to FL200 (upper left-hand panel),
ASHTAM for volcanic ash. The symbol is as follows, and FL200–FL350 (upper right-hand panel), FL350–FL600 (lower
may be depicted in red on colour charts: left-hand panel), and ash mass loading (lower right-hand panel).
Figure 12.2(i)—Volcanic Eruptions The time at which the run starts is indicated in the legend box
in the lower, left-hand portion of the image. The date and time
of forecast validity are indicated on the clock in the lower, right-
hand portion of the image. The results are based on the execution
of the last global numerical weather prediction (NWP) model
using either 0000 or 1200 UTC data.
(k) Radioactive material in the atmosphere—Information on The volcano of interest is at the centre of the image. The average
the location of a release of radioactive materials into the volcanic ash concentration in the atmospheric layer is depicted
atmosphere that is of significance to aircraft operations is as very low, low, moderate, or high. The isolines are for 1, 10,
shown as follows: the radioactivity symbol at the site of the 100 and 1 000 µg/m3 (micrograms per cubic metre). The areas
accident; on the side of the chart, in a box containing the between the isolines are enhanced as follows:
radioactivity symbol, latitude/longitude of the site of the
MET
accident, date and time of the release and a reminder to (a) 1–10 µg/m3 is indicated by blue stippling;
users to check NOTAM for the area concerned. The symbol, (b) 10–100 µg/m3 is indicated by green stippling;
in black on a yellow circular background when depicted in
(c) 100–1 000 µg/m3 is indicated by yellow stippling; and
colour, is as follows:
(d) > 1 000 µg/m3 is indicated by orange stippling.
Figure 12.2(j)—Radioactive Material in the Atmosphere
The total ash mass loading is also depicted as very low, low,
moderate, or high, with isolines for 0.01; 0.1; 1 and 10 g/ m2.
CAUTION:
Users are reminded to consult the latest significant meteorological
information (SIGMET) and official ICAO products for updates
on the position and vertical extent of the volcanic ash warning
area. Even light (LGT) concentrations constitute a potential
13.0 VOLCANIC ASH PRODUCTS danger to aviation. Turbine engine flameouts have been attributed
to light volcanic ash clouds located up to 1 000 NM from the
ICAO products—The Montréal volcanic ash advisory source (see AIR 2.6).
centre (VAAC), a unit of ECCC, is an International Civil Aviation
Organization (ICAO) designated centre responsible for issuing
specialized advisories when volcanic ash is present in Canadian-
controlled airspace. VAAC Montréal issues volcanic ash
advisories (VAA) on the horizontal and vertical extent of volcanic
clouds, their altitude, and expected movements. These advisories
are based on satellite observations, pilot reports, and weather
forecast and dispersion models. VAA are issued as both text and
graphic products and are available via the VAAC Montréal Web
site at <https://weather.gc.ca/eer/vaac/index_e.html>.
Model simulations of volcanic ash—In addition to the official
VAA described in the previous paragraph, results from simulations
of the volcanic ash dispersion model, known as MLDPn (an
abbreviation that stands for modèle langrangien de dispersion
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
MET
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EQS
high latitudes, where they produce polar cap absorption and
auroral absorption, which cause a loss of HF radio communications (e) Mid-latitudes southern hemisphere (S3000 – S6000): MSH
that can last for many hours and recur for several days. In addition, (f) High latitudes southern hemisphere (S6000 – S9000): HSH
ionospheric disturbances at mid-latitudes can reduce the
maximum useable frequency for HF radio communications. NOTE:
Some advisories may be for the whole daylight side of Earth
Ionospheric disturbances can also interfere with the radio signals
(daylight side).
used for global navigation satellite system (GNSS) positioning
and navigation. Increases in the total electron content (TEC) of Advisories will be issued as soon as an increase above the MOD
the ionosphere lead to an increase in the transit time of the GNSS or SEV thresholds are detected. Advisories are updated as often
signal, producing position errors in GNSS receivers. Scintillation as necessary, but at least every 6 hours, until such time as the
(rapid variations in amplitude or phase) of the radio signals can elevated space weather levels are no longer detected or no longer
cause GNSS receivers to “lose lock” on the radio signals and give expected. At that time, an advisory will be issued stating that
false information or no information at all. Satellite the event is finished, with the message that no elevated space
communications (SATCOM) signals also pass through the weather is expected (NO SWX EXP).
ionosphere and can be affected by scintillation.
Test or exercise advisories may be issued.
High-energy particles from the sun are guided by the earth’s
magnetic field and enter the atmosphere in polar regions. The Space weather advisory information relevant to the whole route
latitudes affected depend on the energy of the particles. Most should be supplied to operators and flight crew members as part
solar particles are absorbed by the atmosphere, but the high- of meteorological information.
energy particles that interact with atmospheric particles trigger
secondary ionising particle cascades, which increase radiation 14.4 RESPONSE TO ADVISORIES
aboard aircraft. The dose from these particles is greatest at the The ICAO service does not define the operational responses to
highest aviation altitudes and decreases with reduced altitude. space weather events. Such responses are the responsibility of
aircraft operators, who may choose to have operational procedures
14.3 THE ICAO SERVICE ADVISORIES in place to be ready in case of space weather events. Guidance
Space weather service providers will issue an advisory when on the use of space weather advisory information is provided in
conditions exceed thresholds for moderate (MOD) or severe (SEV) Chapter 4 of the ICAO Manual on Space Weather Information
events. The parameters and thresholds used to define MOD and in Support of International Air Navigation (Doc 10100, 2019).
SEV events are listed in the first edition (2019) of the ICAO
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
MET
(12) FCST SWX +18HR (as above)
20190502/0654Z=
(13) FCST SWX +24HR (as above)
Table 14.3—Advisories: Example #2
(14) RMK (NIL or free text)
(15) NXT ADVISORY (Year/month/date/time [in UTC] or FNXX01 EFKL
NO FURTHER ADVISORIES) 190300
SWX ADVISORY
DTG: 20190219/0300Z
SWXC: PECASUS
ADVISORY NR: 2019/20
SWX EFFECT: RADIATION MOD
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
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MET
LFTG lifting PD period
LGT light PL ice pellets
LINE line(s) POSS possible, possibly
LK lake PROB probability
L LVL JET low-level jet PROG prognosis, prognostic
L LVL WS low-level wind shear PRSTG persisting
LTL little PSN position(s)
LTNG lightning PTCH(S) patch(es)
LVL level(s) PTCHY patchy
LWR lower PTLY partly
LYR layer(s), layered RA rain
MNLY mainly RDG ridge
MOD moderate, moderated, moderating, REP report(s), reported, reporting
moderation
RGN region
MOV move, moving, movement
RMK remark(s)
MT mountain(s)
RPDLY rapidly
MTW mountian wave(s)
S south, southern latitude
MX mixed type of ice formation
(white and clear) SCT scattered, scatter
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
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RAC—RULES OF THE AIR (i) The ATC service has been established primarily for the
prevention of collisions and the expediting of traffic. The
AND AIR TRAFFIC provision of such service will take precedence over the
provision of flight information service, but every effort will
SERVICES be made to provide flight information and assistance.
Flight information will be made available, whenever practicable,
to any aircraft in communication with an ATC unit, prior to
1.0 GENERAL INFORMATION takeoff or when in flight, except where such service is provided
by the aircraft operator. Many factors (such as volume of traffic,
controller workload, communications frequency congestion and
1.1 AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES limitations of ATS surveillance equipment) may prevent a
The following is a list of control, advisory and information controller from providing this service.
services that are available to pilots. VFR flights will be provided with information concerning:
(a) severe weather conditions along the proposed route of flight;
1.1.1 Air Traffic Control (ATC) and Information
Services (b) changes in the serviceability of navigation aids;
The following air traffic control and information services are (c) conditions of airports and associated facilities;
provided by ACCs and TWRs. (d) other items considered pertinent to safety of flight.
(a) Airport control service is provided by airport TWRs to IFR flights will be provided with information concerning:
aircraft and vehicles on the manoeuvring area of an airport
(a) severe weather conditions;
and to aircraft operating in the vicinity of an airport.
(b) weather conditions reported or forecast at destination or
(b) Area control service is provided by ACCs to IFR and CVFR
alternate aerodromes;
flights operating within specified control areas.
(c) changes in the serviceability of navigation aids;
(c) Terminal control service is provided by ACCs to IFR and
CVFR flights operating within specified control areas. (d) condition of airports and associated facilities; and
(d) Terminal control service is an additional service provided by (e) other items considered pertinent to the safety of flight.
IFR units to VFR aircraft operating within Class C airspace. Flight information messages are intended as information only.
(e) Alerting service notifies appropriate organizations regarding If a specific action is suggested, the message will be prefixed by
aircraft in need of search and rescue services, or alerts crash the term “ATC SUGGESTS…” or “SUGGEST YOU…” and the
equipment, ambulances, doctors, and any other safety pilot will be informed of the purpose of the suggested action.
services. The pilot is responsible for making the final decision concerning
any suggestion.
(f) Altitude reservation service provides mission planning
support for altitude reservations (ALTRVs) and other ATS surveillance equipment is frequently used in the provision
RAC
military activities, airspace coordination for military or of information concerning hazards, such as chaff drops, bird
specialized operations in controlled airspace, coordination activity and possible traffic conflictions. Due to limitations
with user agencies and affected ATS units, and issuing inherent in all ATS surveillance systems, aircraft, chaff, etc.,
approvals and clearances for aircraft to operate within cannot be detected in all cases.
approved ALTRVs. Whenever practicable, ATC will provide flights with severe
(g) AMIS is provided by ACCs for the collection, processing weather information pertinent to the area concerned. Pilots may
and dissemination of aircraft movement information for assist ATC by providing pilot reports of severe weather conditions
use by air defence units relative to flights operating into or they encounter. ATC will endeavour to suggest alternate routes
within Canadian ADIZ. available in order to avoid areas experiencing severe weather.
(h) Flight information service is provided by ATC units to assist
pilots by supplying information concerning known
hazardous flight conditions. This information will include
data concerning unfavourable flight conditions and other
known hazards; which may not have been available to the
pilot prior to takeoff or which may have developed along
the route of flight.
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ATC will provide pilots intending to operate through chaff areas En-route aircraft may submit to a FIC: PIREPs, IFR and VFR
with all available information relating to proposed or actl chaff position reports (including arrival and departure times), revised
drops: flight plan or flight itinerary information and other reports,
such as vital intelligence sightings (CIRVIS) and pollution reports.
(a) location of chaff drop area;
Fuel dumping information may also be submitted for coordination
(b) time of drop; with the appropriate ACC and for aeronautical broadcast needs.
(c) estimated speed and direction of drift; Aeronautical broadcast service: the broadcast on the FISE
(d) altitudes likely to be affected; and frequency, and on 126.7 MHz, of SIGMET, urgent PIREP and
information concerning fuel dumping operations.
(e) relative intensity of chaff.
VFR flight plan alerting service: the notification of RCCs and
Information concerning bird activity, obtained through
provision of communications searches when an aircraft on a
controller’s observations or pilot reports, will be provided to
VFR flight plan or flight itinerary becomes overdue and needs
aircraft operating in the area concerned. In addition, pilots may
SAR aid.
be warned of possible bird hazards if ATS surveillance observation
indicates the possibility of bird activity. Information will be Flight regularity message service: the relay by FICs of messages
provided concerning: between an aircraft in flight and the aircraft operating agency,
and vice versa, when an agency with AFTN access subscribes
(a) size or species of bird, if known;
to the service for an annual cost. Agencies interested in subscribing
(b) location; to this service should contact the NAV CANADA Customer
(c) direction of flight; and Service Centre.
crew members and operations personnel, and provides (e) wake turbulence cautionary;
consultation and advice on special weather problems. Flight (f) aerodrome conditions;
service specialists accept flight plan information during a briefing.
(g) weather conditions;
FISE: the exchange on the FISE frequency of information pertinent
(h) additional information of interest for the safety of flight.
to the en-route phase of flight. Air traffic information is not
provided. Upon request from an aircraft, a FIC provides: The flight service specialist updates this information, when
appropriate, after the initial advisory. Pilots are encouraged to
(a) meteorological information: SIGMET, AIRMET, PIREP,
indicate in initial transmissions to the FSS that information has
aerodrome routine meteorological report (METAR), aviation
been obtained from the ATIS or from an AWOS (or LWIS)
selected special weather report (SPECI) , aerodrome forecast
broadcast, or use the phrase “HAVE NUMBERS” if runway,
(TAF), altimeter setting, weather radar, lightning information
wind and altimeter information from the previous aerodrome
and briefing update;
advisory have been received, so that the flight service specialist
(b) aeronautical information: NOTAM, RSC, CRFI, MANOT does not repeat the information.
and other information of interest for flight safety; and
Mandatory reports by aircraft on the MF are critical for the FSS
(c) relay of communications with ATC: IFR clearance and SVFR to be able to provide effective air traffic information. At certain
authorization. FSS locations, air traffic information may also be based on a
situation display. A pilot remains responsible for avoidance of
traffic in Class E airspace.
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Communications regarding TCAS events and displayed Alerting service: the notification of appropriate organizations
information should be limited to that required to inform the regarding aircraft in need of SAR services or alerts of crash
flight service specialist that the aircraft is responding to an RA. equipment, ambulances, doctors and any other safety services.
Discretion should be used in using the TCAS traffic display to Alerting of a responsible authority, if experiencing unlawful
ask questions regarding traffic in the vicinity of an aircraft. As interference, bomb threat or inability to communicate in the
would be expected, aircraft shown on a TCAS display may not clear, is also included in this service.
match the traffic information provided by the flight service
Emergency assistance service: the provision of aid to a pilot when
specialist.
in an emergency, or potential emergency situation, such as being
NOTAM, RSC and CRFI are included in advisories for a period lost, encountering adverse weather conditions or experiencing
of 12 hr for domestic traffic, and 24 hr for international traffic, aircraft-related emergencies or equipment failure. At some
after dissemination by means of telecommunication. Aerodrome locations, emergency navigational assistance is provided to a
conditions published prior to these time limits should have been pilot who is lost or experiencing IMC, by transferring the pilot
received in the pilot briefing or can be obtained on request. to ATC for ATS surveillance service.
Aerodrome lighting is operated by the FSS, unless otherwise NOTAM information service: the collection and dissemination
indicated in the CFS. The flight service specialist relays ATC of NOTAM, RSC, and CRFI information by the flight service
clearances, SVFR authorizations, and routinely informs the ACC specialist. A pilot may report to a FIC or to an FSS any hazards
of all IFR arrival times. The specialist also relays a VFR arrival to the air navigation system that may need NOTAM distribution.
report to a FIC upon request from an aircraft. The flight service specialist will distribute the information if it
meets the criteria established in the Canadian NOTAM Operating
Pilots should be aware that a flight service specialist will alert
Procedures (CNOP).
the appropriate agencies for any aircraft that has received a
landing advisory for an aerodrome that lies within an MF area Weather observation service: the observation, recording and
and within radio communication range, if it fails to arrive within dissemination of surface weather information for aviation
5 min of its latest ETA, and communication cannot be purposes.
re-established with the aircraft.
VCS: the provision, at locations where AAS is provided, of 1.1.2.4 International Flight Service Station (IFSS)
instructions to control the movements of vehicles, equipment An aeronautical station that provides a communications service
and pedestrians on manoeuvring areas of uncontrolled for international air operators. Gander is the only IFSS in Canada.
aerodromes. Flight service specialists will normally instruct
vehicle traffic to leave the intended runway at least 5 min prior
1.1.3 Arctic Territories
to the estimated time of landing or before a departing aircraft
enters the manoeuvring area. The specialist will coordinate with Arctic territories are serviced by the Edmonton (Alta.),
the pilot prior to authorizing traffic to operate on the intended Winnipeg (Man.), and Quebec (Que.) FICs, which provide FISE
runway within less than 5 min of the estimated time of landing and emergency communication to aircraft operating in the
or the time an aircraft is ready for takeoff. Northwest Territories and Nunavut and in the vicinity of the
ADIZ.
RAC
1.1.2.3 Flight Information Centres (FICs) and Flight
Service Stations (FSSs) 1.1.4 Military Flight Advisory Unit (MFAU)
RAAS: the provision, via RCO, of information pertinent to the DND operates Military Flight Advisory Unit (MFAU) which
arrival and departure phases of flight and for transit through provide flight information services that enhance flight safety
an MF area. and efficiency. These services are available by calling the
RAAS consists in the issuance of the same type of information appropriate station followed by “Advisory”, i.e. “Namao Advisory”.
as in AAS, except that it is provided from a remote location. It MFAU provide en route flight information, airport advisory,
is emphasized that the flight service specialist cannot observe ground control, field condition reports, flight planning, alerting
the runways, taxiways, airspace or weather conditions in the service, navigation assistance, NOTAM, PIREPs, and weather
vicinity of the aerodrome. Wind, altimeter and other weather reports. An MFAU may be used to accept and relay VFR and
information is usually extracted from the latest METAR or IFR position reports and ATC clearances.
SPECI, and may not always be as representative of actual
conditions as in AAS.
VAS: the provision, via RCO, of information and advisories
concerning the movements of vehicles, equipment and pedestrians
on manoeuvring areas at designated uncontrolled aerodromes.
VAS is provided at locations where RAAS is also provided. The
flight service specialist will request vehicle traffic to leave the
intended runway at least 5 min prior to the estimated time of
landing, but cannot ascertain visually if the traffic has actually
vacated the runway.
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1.2 SERVICES OTHER THAN AIR TRAFFIC including wind, altimeter, runway and aerodrome status
SERVICES (ATS) (including vehicle intentions and runway condition), current
weather conditions, PIREPs and known aircraft traffic.
1.2.1 Universal Communications (UNICOM) NOTES:
A UNICOM is an air-ground communications facility operated 1. O/Cs are authorized to provide an altimeter setting for an
by a private agency to provide PAS service at uncontrolled instrument approach.
aerodromes. At these locations the choice of frequencies are 2. O/Cs provide limited traffic information. APRT RDOs/
122.7, 122.8, 123.0, 123.3, 123.5, 122.35, 122.95, 123.35, 122.725, CARS are located at uncontrolled aerodromes within MF
122.775, and 122.825 MHz. areas. Pilots must communicate on the MF as per uncontrolled
The use of all information received from a UNICOM station is aerodrome procedures.
entirely at the discretion of the pilot. The frequencies are published 3. O/Cs do not provide ATC services. At aerodromes within
in aeronautical information publications as a service to pilots, controlled airspace served by APRT RDO/CARS, pilots
but TC takes no responsibility for the use made of a UNICOM must contact ATS via the RCO, PAL or telephone to obtain
frequency. special VFR authorization or IFR clearances.
An AU is an air-ground communications service that can provide (c) Weather Observation Service: The O/C will monitor,
approach and landing information to IFR pilots. The service observe, record and relay surface weather data for aviation
provider is required to ensure that: purposes (METARs or SPECIs) in accordance with CAR 804
(a) meteorological instruments used to provide the approach standards. The O/C may request PIREPs from pilots to confirm
and landing information meet the requirements stipulated weather conditions, such as height of cloud bases.
under CAR 804.01(1)(c) or the applicable exemption; and (d) Flight Plan/Flight Information Service: If necessary, at
(b) UNICOM operators meet the training requirements most APRT RDOs/CARS, O/Cs will accept flight plans/
stipulated under CAR 804.01(1)(c) or the applicable itineraries; however, pilots are encouraged to obtain a full
exemption. pre-flight briefing and then file their flight plan/itinerary
with a FIC.
Where the above standards are met, the AU operator may provide
a station altimeter setting for an instrument procedure. The NOTE:
wind speed and direction for a straight-in landing from an Pilots should be aware that O/Cs are only authorized to provide
instrument approach may or may not be provided. NOTAMs and weather information (METARs or SPECIs) for
Operators providing AU services may also advise pilots of runway their own aerodrome. Information for other areas/aerodromes
conditions and of vehicle or aircraft positions on the should be obtained from a FIC.
manoeuvring area.
At APRT RDO/CARS sites colocated with an RCO, pilots
An AU is indicated as “UNICOM (AU)” in the CAP and the CFS. should open and close flight plans/itineraries, pass position
reports and obtain FISE directly from the FIC via the RCO.
1.2.2 Airport Radio/Community Aerodrome At sites with no RCO, when requested by the pilot, the APRT
RAC
Radio Station RDO/CARS O/C will relay messages to open and close flight
plans/ itineraries and position reports (IFR, VFR, DVFR)
Airport radio (APRT RDO), in most cases, is provided by a to a FIC.
community aerodrome radio station (CARS) and has been
established to provide aviation weather and communication (e) Monitoring of Equipment/NAVAIDs: During the APRT
services to enhance aircraft access to certain aerodromes. RDO/CARS hours of operation, O/Cs will monitor the status
of equipment related to aerodrome lighting, weather,
APRT RDO/CARS service is provided by observer-communicators communications, etc. Malfunctions will be reported to the
(O/C) who are trained to conduct aviation weather observations designated NAV CANADA facility, and a NOTAM will be
and radio communications to facilitate aircraft arrivals and issued as required. For site-specific NAVAID monitoring
departures. by APRT RDO/CARS, refer to the CFS and Enroute Low
Hours of operation are listed in the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) Altitude and Enroute High Altitude charts.
Aerodrome/ Facility Directory under the subheadings COM/
APRT RDO. 1.2.3 Private Advisory Stations (PAS)—
Controlled Airports
Services provided by APRT RDO/CARS include the following:
Aeronautical operators may establish their own private facilities
(a) Emergency Service: The O/C will respond to all emergency
at controlled airports for use in connection with company
calls (distress, urgency and ELT signals), incidents or
business, such as servicing of aircraft, availability of fuel, and
accidents by alerting a designated NAV CANADA FIC and
lodging. The use of PAS at controlled aerodromes shall not
appropriate local authorities.
include information relative to ATC, weather reports, condition
(b) Communication Service: The O/C will provide pilots with of landing strips, or any other communication normally provided
information in support of aircraft arrivals and departures, by ATC units.
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1.2.4 Apron Advisory Service Each recording will be identified by a phonetic alphabet code
letter, beginning with ALFA. Succeeding letters will be used for
Apron advisory service at most controlled airports is provided
each subsequent message.
by ATS. However, some large airports are providing advisory
service on aprons through a separate apron management unit Example of an ATIS Message:
staffed by airport or terminal operator personnel. This service TORONTO INTERNATIONAL INFORMATION
normally includes gate assignment, push-back instructions, and BRAVO. WEATHER AT ONE FOUR ZERO ZERO
advisories on other aircraft and vehicles on the apron. Aircraft ZULU: WIND ZERO FIVE ZERO AT TWO ZERO,
entering the apron will normally be instructed by the ground VISIBILITY FIVE HAZE, CEILING THREE
controller to contact apron prior to or at the designated change- THOUSAND OVERCAST, TEMPERATURE ONE
over point. Aircraft leaving the apron shall contact ground on EIGHT, DEW POINT ONE SIX, ALTIMETER TWO
the appropriate frequency to obtain taxi clearance before exiting NINER FOUR SIX, PARALLEL ILS APPROACHES
the apron and before entering the manoeuvring area. ARE IN PROGRESS. IFR LANDING ZERO SIX
RIGHT, ZERO SIX LEFT. VFR LANDING ZERO SIX
1.3 AUTOMATIC TERMINAL INFORMATION LEFT. DEPARTURE ZERO SIX LEFT. NOTAM:
SERVICE (ATIS) GLIDE PATH ILS RUNWAY ONE FIVE OUT OF
ATIS is the continuous broadcasting of recorded information SERVICE. INFORM ATC YOU HAVE
for arriving and departing aircraft on a discrete VHF/UHF INFORMATION BRAVO.
frequency. Its purpose is to improve controller and flight service NOTE:
specialist effectiveness and to relieve frequency congestion by Current time and RVR measurements will not be included in
automating the repetitive transmission of essential but routine the ATIS message, but will be issued in accordance with current
information. practices. Temperature and dew point information is derived
ATIS messages are recorded in a standard format and contain only from the scheduled hourly weather observations.
such information as:
Pilots hearing the broadcast should inform the ATC/FSS unit
(a) airport name and message code letter; on initial contact that they have received the information, by
(b) weather information, including: repeating the code letter that identifies the message, thus
obviating the need for the controller/specialist to issue information.
(i) time,
Example:
(ii) surface wind, including gusts,
…WITH BRAVO.
(iii) visibility,
During periods of rapidly changing conditions that would create
(iv) weather and obstructions to vision,
difficulties in keeping the ATIS message current, the following
(v) ceiling, message will be recorded and broadcasted:
(vi) sky condition, BECAUSE OF RAPIDLY CHANGING WEATHER/
(vii) temperature, AIRPORT CONDITIONS, CONTACT ATC/FSS FOR
RAC
CURRENT INFORMATION.
(viii) dew point,
The success and effectiveness of ATIS is largely dependent upon
(ix) altimeter setting,
the co-operation and participation of airspace users; therefore,
(x) pertinent SIGMETs, AIRMETs and PIREPs, and pilots are strongly urged to take full advantage of this service.
(xi) other pertinent remarks;
1.4 USE OF TERM “CEILING AND
(c) type of instrument approach in use, including information VISIBILITY OK (CAVOK)”
on parallel or simultaneous converging runway operations;
The term “CAVOK” (KAV-OH-KAY) may be used in air-ground
(d) landing runway, both IFR and VFR, including information communications when transmitting meteorological information
on hold short operations and the stopping distance available; to arriving aircraft.
(e) departure runway, both IFR and VFR; CAVOK refers to the simultaneous occurrence of the following
(f) a NOTAM or an excerpt from a NOTAM, pertinent meteorological conditions at an airport:
information regarding the serviceability of a NAVAID, or (a) no cloud below 5 000 feet, or below the highest minimum
field conditions applicable to arriving or departing aircraft. sector altitude, whichever is higher, and no cumulonimbus;
These may be deleted from an ATIS message after a broadcast
period of 12 hr at domestic airports or 24 hr at international (b) a visibility of 6 SM or more;
airports; (c) no precipitation, thunderstorms, shallow fog, or low
(g) instruction that aircraft are to acknowledge receipt of the drifting snow.
ATIS broadcast on initial contact with ATC/FSS. This term, coupled with other elements of meteorological
information, such as wind direction and speed, altimeter setting
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
relieve them of the responsibility for collision avoidance or When issuing ATS surveillance information, ATS units will
terrain (obstacle) clearance. ATC will normally provide identified frequently define the relative location of the traffic, weather
IFR and CVFR flights with information on observed targets. At areas, etc., by referring to the clock position. In this system, the
locations where an SSR is used without collocated primary radar 12 o’clock position is based on the observed surveillance track
equipment, ATC cannot provide traffic information on aircraft rather than the actual nose of the aircraft. In conditions of strong
without a functioning transponder. crosswind, this can lead to a discrepancy between the position
ATC assumes responsibility for terrain (obstacle) clearance when as reported by the controller and the position as observed by
vectoring en route IFR and CVFR flights and for IFR aircraft the pilot.
being vectored for arrival until the aircraft resumes normal
navigation.
Vectors are used when necessary for separation purposes, when
required by noise abatement procedures, when requested by the
pilot, or whenever vectors will offer operational advantages to
the pilot or the controller. When vectors are initiated, the pilot
will be informed of the location to which the aircraft is
being vectored.
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The following diagram illustrates the clock positions. 1.5.4 ATS Surveillance Navigation Assistance to
Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Flights
Figure 1.1—Clock Positions Diagram
When requested by pilots, ATS surveillance-equipped ATC units
will provide assistance to navigation in the form of position
information, vectors or track, and ground speed checks. Flights
requesting this assistance must be operating within areas of ATS
surveillance and communication coverage, and be identified.
VFR flights may be provided with this service:
(a) at the request of a pilot, when traffic conditions permit;
(b) when the controller suggests and the pilot agrees; or
(c) in the interest of flight safety.
The pilot is responsible for avoiding other traffic and avoiding
weather below VFR minima while on a VFR flight on vectors.
If a vector will lead a VFR flight into IFR weather conditions,
Issue ATS surveillance traffic information to identified aircraft the pilot must inform the controller and take the following
as follows: action:
(a) Position of the traffic in relation to the aircraft’s (a) if practicable, obtain a vector which will allow the flight to
observed track. remain in VFR weather conditions; or
(b) Direction of flight. (b) if an alternative vector is not practicable, revert to navigation
(c) Type of aircraft, if known, or the relative speed and the without assistance; or
altitude, if known. (c) if the pilot has an IFR rating and the aircraft is equipped
for IFR flight, the pilot may file an IFR flight plan, and
NOTE:
request an IFR clearance.
Direction of flight may be expressed as OPPOSITE DIRECTION
or SAME DIRECTION, while the altitude may be expressed as Emergency ATS surveillance assistance will be given to VFR
a number of feet above or below the aircraft receiving the traffic flights which are able to maintain two-way radio communication
information. with the unit, are within coverage, and can be identified.
RAC
(b) Position of aircraft and weather conditions within which
aircraft as follows:
the flight is operating.
(a) Position of the traffic in relation to a fix.
(c) Type of aircraft, altitude, and whether equipped for
(b) Direction of flight. IFR flight.
(c) Type of aircraft, if known, or the relative speed and the (d) Whether pilot has an IFR Rating.
altitude, if known.
Pilots unable to contact ATS surveillance but in need of emergency
NOTE: assistance may alert ATS surveillance by flying a triangular
Direction of flight may be expressed as OPPOSITE DIRECTION pattern.
or SAME DIRECTION, while the altitude may be expressed as
a number of feet above or below the aircraft receiving the traffic 1.5.5 Obstacle Clearance During Vectors
information.
IFR Flights
Example: The pilot of an IFR flight is responsible for ensuring that the
TRAFFIC, SEVEN MILES SOUTH OF RESOLUTE aircraft is operated with adequate clearance from obstacles and
BAY VOR, NORTHBOUND, B737, FL300. terrain; however, when the flight is being vectored, ATC will
ensure that the appropriate obstacle clearance is provided.
Minimum vectoring altitudes (lowest altitude at which an aircraft
may be vectored and still meet obstacle clearance criteria), which
may be lower than minimum altitudes shown on navigation and
approach charts, have been established at a number of locations
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
to facilitate transitions to instrument approach aids. When an When assistance is required in ADIZ areas contact will have to be
IFR flight is cleared to descend to the lower altitude, ATC will made on the 121.5 MHz frequency or on the UHF frequencies 243.0
provide terrain and obstacle clearance until the aircraft is in a or 364.2 MHz. Initial contact should be made at the highest
position from which an approved instrument approach or a practicable altitude. If air defence commitments preclude the
visual approach can be commenced. granting of radar assistance, the ground station will transmit the
word “UNABLE” and no further explanation will be given.
If a communication failure occurs while a flight is being vectored
at an altitude below the minimum IFR altitudes shown in the
instrument approach chart, the pilot should climb immediately 1.5.8 The Use of ATS Surveillance in the
to the appropriate published minimum altitude, unless the flight Provision of Aerodrome Advisory
is able to continue in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC). Service (AAS) and Remote Aerodrome
Advisory Service (RAAS) by
VFR Flights Flight Service Stations (FSS)
The pilot of a VFR aircraft remains responsible for maintaining Certain FSSs are equipped with an ATS surveillance display to
adequate clearance from obstacles and terrain when the flight aid the flight service specialist in monitoring the aircraft traffic
is being vectored by ATC. situation and to enhance the accuracy of traffic information
If adequate obstacle or terrain clearance cannot be maintained provided in AAS or RAAS.
on a vector, the pilot must inform the controller and take the An FSS equipped with an ATS surveillance display:
following action:
(a) may instruct an aircraft to “SQUAWK IDENT” or assign
(a) if practicable, obtain a heading that will enable adequate a specific SSR code to the aircraft;
clearance to be maintained, or climb to a suitable altitude,
or (b) will acknowledge the squawk transmission or SSR code
change by stating the phrase “ROGER IDENT”;
(b) revert to navigation without ATS surveillance assistance.
(c) will issue the reminder “NO CONTROL SERVICE
1.5.6 Misuse of Vectors AVAILABLE, THIS IS AN ADVISORY SERVICE,” if deemed
appropriate;
Pilots have, on occasion, for practice purposes, followed ATS
surveillance instructions issued to other pilots without realizing (d) may issue observed ATS surveillance traffic information
the potential hazard that accompanies such action. with reference to the 12-hr clock position or geographical
locations.
ATC may require aircraft to make turns for identification;
however, when more than one aircraft target is observed making It is important for pilots to keep in mind that:
a turn, identification becomes difficult or impossible. Should (a) flight service specialists may stop monitoring the ATS
misidentification be the result of more than one aircraft following surveillance display at any time without prior notice to
the instructions issued by ATC, it could be hazardous to the aircraft;
aircraft involved.
(b) FSSs do not inform aircraft when identification is lost;
Any pilot wishing to obtain ATS surveillance practice, however,
(c) FSSs do not provide control services such as vectors and
RAC
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
“instruct” will seldom be included. Pilots shall comply with and There are two distinct phrases used when unable to issue ATC
acknowledge receipt of all ATC instructions directed to and clearances:
received by them, provided the safety of the aircraft is not
(a) AT YOUR DISCRETION—Used to approve aircraft
jeopardized (CAR 602.31).
movement on any surface not visible from the control tower
CAR 602.31 permits pilots to deviate from an ATC instruction due to a physical obstruction other than weather phenomena,
or clearance in order to follow TCAS or ACAS RAs. Pilots or on the non-manoeuvring area. Pilots are responsible for
responding to an RA shall advise the appropriate ATC unit of manoeuvring safely with respect to traffic or hazards
the deviation as soon as possible and shall expeditiously return encountered during the operation. ATC will provide
to the last ATC clearance received and accepted, or the last ATC information on known traffic or obstructions when possible.
instruction received and acknowledged prior to the RA (b) UNABLE TO ISSUE CLEARANCE—Used when controllers
manoeuvre. Aircraft manoeuvres conducted during an RA are not authorized to issue an ATC clearance. Pilots who
should be kept to the minimum necessary to satisfy the resolution continue without a clearance in these circumstances may
advisory. For more information on TCAS and ACAS, see the be subject to regulatory action by TC. ATC will provide
COM chapter. pertinent taxi, take-off or landing information and then
ATC is not responsible for the provision of IFR separation to an file an aviation occurrence report. Pilots are responsible for
IFR aircraft which carries out a TCAS or ACAS RA manoeuvre manoeuvring safely with respect to traffic or other hazards
until one of the following conditions exist: encountered during the operation.
(a) the aircraft has returned to the last ATC clearance received
1.6.1.1 Examples
and accepted, or last ATC instruction received and
acknowledged prior to the RA; or The following are scenarios in which ATC may not be able to
(b) an alternate ATC clearance or instruction has been issued. provide a clearance, followed by ensuing ATC actions, and
TCAS and ACAS do not alter or diminish the pilot-in-command’s examples of phraseology that will be used.
responsibility to ensure safe flight. Since TCAS and ACAS do ATIS message
not respond to aircraft which are not transponder-equipped or
ATC will include the following information in an ATIS message,
to aircraft with a transponder failure, TCAS and ACAS alone
as applicable, upon restriction or suspension of landings or
do not ensure safe operation in every case. The services provided
takeoffs. These restrictions or suspensions may be due to the
by ATC units are not predicated upon the availability of TCAS
implementation of RVOP or LVOP, direction from the airport
or ACAS equipment in an aircraft.
operator, obstructed runway protected area, or other reasons.
It should be remembered that air traffic control is predicated
on known air traffic only and, when complying with clearances NOTE:
or instructions, pilots are not relieved of the responsibility of When conditions are rapidly changing, this information may
practicing good airmanship. be issued by ATC, rather than via the ATIS.
NOTE: Examples:
A clearance or instruction is only valid while in controlled LOW VISIBILITY PROCEDURES IN EFFECT.
RAC
airspace. Pilots crossing between controlled and uncontrolled RUNWAY ZERO FOUR NOT AUTHORIZED FOR
airspace should pay close attention to the terrain and obstacle LANDING.
clearance requirements.
REDUCED VISIBILITY PROCEDURES IN EFFECT.
ATS personnel routinely inform pilots of conditions, observed RUNWAY TWO TWO NOT AVAILABLE.
by others or by themselves, which may affect flight safety and RUNWAY ONE THREE NOT AVAILABLE DUE TO
are beyond their control. Examples of such conditions are RUNWAY PROTECTED AREA OBSTRUCTION.
observed airframe icing and bird activity. These are meant solely
as assistance or reminders to pilots and are not intended in any Operations on a surface other than a runway
way to absolve the pilot of the responsibility for the safety of (a) If the pilot of a fixed-wing aircraft requests landing or takeoff
the flight. from a surface other than a runway or area approved and
designated for that purpose, ATC will provide traffic and
1.6.1 Inability to Issue Clearance obstruction information; control instructions, if necessary;
ATC clearances are based on known traffic conditions and and inform the pilot that landing or takeoff will be at the
aerodrome limitations which affect the safety of aircraft pilot’s discretion.
operations. This encompasses aircraft in flight and on the NOTE:
manoeuvring area, vehicles, and other potential obstructions. Examples of surfaces other than a runway may include areas at
ATC is not authorized to issue ATC clearances when traffic or adjacent to the airport, areas in the control zone but not at
conditions are unknown, when any part of the aerodrome is the airport, a water aerodrome, or a temporary landing area in
partially or fully closed, or when the aerodrome or runway the control zone.
operating minima are not met.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Example:
information.
FOXTROT BRAVO WHISKY DELTA, UNABLE TAXI
CLEARANCE ON TAXIWAY CHARLIE, LOW Example:
VISIBILITY PROCEDURES GOLF LIMA BRAVO JULIETT, ROGER.
IN EFFECT.
Denial of clearance—The following procedures will be used when
(b) If a pilot is taxiing for takeoff, ATC will inform the pilot ATC refuses a clearance request because the airport or part of
that clearance cannot be issued on the intended runway; the airport is closed by the operator; or ATC is directed to deny
provide the reason; determine if another runway is available taxi clearance by NAV CANADA or other authority.
for takeoff; inform the pilot of the alternate runway; and
request the pilot’s intentions. (a) If the pilot requests a landing, takeoff or other manoeuvre,
ATC will inform the pilot that a clearance cannot be issued;
Example: provide the reason; provide pertinent NOTAM(s) or airport
GOLF JULIETT ALFA LIMA, UNABLE condition directive(s); and request the pilot’s intentions.
CLEARANCE. REDUCED VISIBILITY
PROCEDURES IN EFFECT. RUNWAY THREE
TWO CLOSED.
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Example: Example:
WESTJET THREE SEVEN ONE, UNABLE GOLF ZULU YANKEY ZULU, UNABLE LANDING
CLEARANCE. RUNWAY ZERO SEVEN IS CLOSED CLEARANCE RUNWAY ONE FOUR, VEHICLE
FOR MAINTENANCE INSIDE THE RUNWAY PROTECTED AREA AT
ALFA. ADVISE INTENTIONS.
UNTIL ONE NINE ZERO ZERO ZULU AS PER
NOTAM. ADVISE INTENTIONS. (b) If the pilot chooses to land or take off anyway, and traffic
permits, ATC will acknowledge the pilot’s intentions; provide
(b) If the pilot chooses to land, take off or manoeuvre anyway,
landing or take-off information as well as any special
and traffic permits, ATC will acknowledge the pilot’s
information required; notify the airport operator; and
intentions; provide landing, take-off or manoeuvring
complete an aviation occurrence report.
information as well as any special information required;
notify the airport operator; and complete an aviation NOTE:
occurrence report. Special information may include traffic, hazards, obstructions,
runway exit, runway surface conditions or other pertinent
NOTE:
information.
Special information may include traffic, hazards, obstructions,
runway exit, runway surface conditions, or other pertinent Example:
information.
JAZZ SIX EIGHT EIGHT, ROGER.
Example:
(c) If a landing or take-off clearance has been issued and ATC
AIR CANADA THREE FIVE SIX, ROGER. is unable to determine that the runway or runway protected
area is or will be free of obstacles before an arrival crosses
Taxi authorization—If a pilot requests a push-back from a loading
the threshold, or a departure starts its take-off roll, ATC
position on the apron, ATC will inform the pilot that the push-
will cancel the clearance.
back is at pilot’s discretion and provide traffic information, if
possible. NOTE:
Example: Controllers will use their best judgement if cancelling the
clearance may result in a hazardous situation.
NOVEMBER ONE THREE SIX TWO ALFA, PUSH
BACK AT YOUR DISCRETION. Example:
Helicopters—If a helicopter pilot intends to land or take off from GOLF ALFA DELTA ALFA, TAKE-OFF
a non-manoeuvring area approved for that purpose, ATC will CLEARANCE CANCELLED, AIRCRAFT INSIDE
provide traffic and obstruction information; control instructions, THE RUNWAY PROTECTED AREA AT CHARLIE,
if necessary; and inform the pilot that landing or takeoff will be ADVISE INTENTIONS.
at the pilot’s discretion.
Example: 1.7 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL (ATC) SERVICE
PRIORITY
RAC
GOLF JULIETT ALFA DELTA, TRAFFIC
CHEROKEE DEPARTING RUNWAY THREE ONE,
WIND THREE ZERO ZERO AT TEN. TAKE OFF AT 1.7.1 Normal Conditions
YOUR DISCRETION FROM APRON FOUR. Normally, ATC provides control service on a first-come, first-
Taxiing aircraft and ground traffic—The following procedures served basis. However, controllers may adjust the arrival or
will be used when ATC is unable to determine that the runway departure sequence in order to facilitate the maximum number
or runway protected area is or will be free of obstacles before of aircraft movements with the least average delay. Altitude
either an arrival crosses the threshold or a departure starts its assignment may also be adjusted in order to accommodate the
take-off roll. maximum number of aircraft at their preferred altitudes, or to
comply with ATFM requirements.
NOTE:
Obstacles include taxiing aircraft and ground traffic. 1.7.2 Special Conditions
(a) If the pilot requests a landing or takeoff, ATC will inform Flight priority is provided to:
the pilot that a clearance cannot be issued; provide the (a) an aircraft that is known or believed to be in a state
reason; and request the pilot’s intentions. of emergency;
NOTE:
This category includes aircraft subjected to unlawful interference
or other distress or urgency conditions that may compel the
aircraft to land or require flight priority.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
(8) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft that is approaching an (d) below 2,000 ft AGL, except in accordance with a special
aerodrome for the purpose of landing shall give way to any f light operations certificate issued pursuant to
aircraft at a lower altitude that is also approaching the section 603.02 or 603.67;
aerodrome for the purpose of landing. (e) in any class of airspace that requires radio contact with
(9) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft at a lower altitude, as air traffic services unless the appropriate unit that
described in subsection (8), shall not overtake or cut in front provides air traffic services is advised that aerobatic
of an aircraft at a higher altitude that is in the final stages manoeuvres will be conducted; or
of an approach to land.
(f) in Class A, B or C airspace or Class D Control Zones
(10) No person shall conduct or attempt to conduct a takeoff or without prior co-ordination between the pilot-in-command
landing in an aircraft until there is no apparent risk of and the air traffic control unit that pro-vides air traffic
collision with any aircraft, person, vessel, vehicle or structure control service in that airspace.
in the takeoff or landing path.
Aerobatic Manoeuvres with Passengers
Right-of-Way – Aircraft Manoeuvring on Water
602.28
602.20
No person operating an aircraft with a passenger on board shall
(1) Where an aircraft on the water has another aircraft or a conduct aerobatic manoeuvres unless the pilot-in-command of
vessel on its right, the pilot-in-command of the first- the aircraft has engaged in
mentioned aircraft shall give way.
(a) at least 10 hours dual flight instruction in the conducting
(2) Where an aircraft on the water is approaching another aircraft of aerobatic manoeuvres or 20 hours conducting
or a vessel head-on, or approximately so, the pilot-in- aerobatic manoeuvres; and
command of the first-mentioned aircraft shall alter its
(b) at least one hour of conducting aerobatic manoeuvres
heading to the right.
in the preceding six months.
(3) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft that is overtaking
another aircraft or a vessel on the water shall alter its heading 1.10 CONSERVATION
to keep well clear of the other aircraft or the vessel.
RAC
aircraft except by pre-arrangement between. Fur farms may be marked with chrome yellow and black stripes
(a) the pilots-in-command of the aircraft; or painted on pylons or roofs. In addition, a red flag may be flown
during whelping season (February–May).
(b) where the flight is conducted within a control zone,
the pilots-in-command and the appropriate air traffic Pilots are therefore warned that any locations so marked should
control unit. be avoided, and special vigilance should be maintained during
the months of February, March, April and May.
1.9 AEROBATIC FLIGHT (CANADIAN
AVIATION REGULATIONS [CARS] 602.27 1.10.2 Protection of Wildlife
AND 602.28)
It is vital that all pilots understand the importance of wildlife
Aerobatic Manoeuvres – Prohibited Areas and conservation. They are urged to become familiar with the game
Flight conditions laws in force in the various provinces and territories, and
encouraged to co-operate with all game officers to ensure that
602.27
violations of game laws do not occur. The Migratory
No person operating an aircraft shall conduct aerobatic Birds Regulations prohibit the intentional killing of migratory
manoeuvres birds through the use of an aircraft.
(a) over a built-up area or an open-air assembly of persons; Pilots should be aware that flying low over herds of wild animals
(b) [Repealed, SOR/2019-119, s. 28] such as reindeer, caribou, moose or muskoxen may result in
reducing the animal population. Accidents resulting in broken
(c) when flight visibility is less than three miles; bones may increase. Exhausted and disorganized animals are
more susceptible to be attacked by wolves. Feeding is interrupted,
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
and normal herd movement and reproductive functions may be 2.0 AIRSPACE – REQUIREMENTS
seriously disrupted.
AND PROCEDURES
Serious damage can also be done to migratory birds by low-flying
aircraft. Geese in particular have a great fear of aircraft, and
their movements may be seriously disorganized by such 2.1 GENERAL
interference. As well, many bird species in Canada are in decline, Canadian airspace is divided into a number of categories, which
and it is felt that every effort should be made to protect them. in turn are subdivided into a number of areas and zones. The
In the interest of conserving wildlife, pilots must not fly at an various rules are simplified by the classification of all Canadian
altitude of less than 2 000 ft AGL when in the vicinity of herds airspace. This section describes all of the above in detail, as well
of wildlife animals or above wildlife refuges/bird sanctuaries, as the regulations and procedures specific to each. The official
depicted on affected aeronautical charts. designation of all airspace is published in the DAH. Canadian
airspace is managed by NAV CANADA in accordance with the
The landing or takeoff of aircraft in areas designated as bird terms established for the transfer of the air navigation system
sanctuaries may require a permit. Contact information for bird (ANS) from government operation to NAV CANADA, and with
sanctuaries can be found at Environment and Climate the rights granted to the corporation pursuant to the Civil Air
Change Canada’s Web site: <https://www.canada.ca/en/ Navigation Services Commercialization Act.
environment-climate-change/services/migratory-bird-
sanctuaries.html>.
2.2 CANADIAN DOMESTIC
Contact information for provincial and territorial game officers AIRSPACE (CDA)
and information concerning the preservation of wildlife within
Canadian Domestic Airspace (CDA) includes all airspace over
the various provinces and territories in Canada can be found in
the Canadian land mass, the Canadian Arctic, Canadian
the AIP Canada on the NAV CANADA Web site at: <https://
Archipelago and those areas of the high seas within the airspace
www.navcanada.ca/en/aeronautical-information/aip-canada.
boundaries. These boundaries are depicted on the Enroute Charts.
aspx>.
Information pertaining to the Migratory Birds Regulations may 2.2.1 Northern Domestic Airspace (NDA)
be obtained at <http://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/regulations/
C.R.C.,_c._1035/index.html> or by contacting: Canadian Domestic Airspace is geographically divided into the
Southern Domestic Airspace and the Northern Domestic
Assistant Deputy Minister Airspace as indicated in Figure 2.1. In the Southern Domestic
Canadian Wildlife Service Airspace, magnetic track is used to determine cruising altitude
Environment and Climate Change Canada for direction of flight.
Ottawa ON K1A 0H3
The Magnetic North Pole is located near the centre of the
Tel.: .................................................................. 1-800-668-6767 Northern Domestic Airspace, therefore magnetic compass
E-mail: ....................................... [email protected] indications may be erratic. Thus, in this airspace, runway heading
is given in true and true track is used to determine cruising
altitude for direction of flight in lieu of magnetic track.
RAC
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
RAC
(i) the magnetic track, in SDA; and
Gander Oceanic is an additional FIR allocated to Canada by
(ii) the true track, in NDA.
ICAO for the provision of flight information and alerting services
(b) When an aircraft is operated in level cruising flight: over the high seas.
(i) at more than 3 000 ft AGL, in accordance with VFR; Canadian Flight Information Regions are described in the
(ii) in accordance with IFR; or Designated Airspace Handbook (TP l820E), and are depicted on
(iii) during a CVFR flight; the Enroute Charts and illustrated in Figure 2.2.
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that the aircraft Agreements have been effected between Canada and the United
is operated at an altitude or flight level appropriate to the track, States to permit reciprocal air traffic control services outside of
unless he/she is assigned an altitude or flight level by an ATC the designate national FIR boundaries. An example is V300 and
unit or by written authority from the Minister. J500 between SSM and YQT. The control of aircraft in US airspace
(c) RVSM cruising flight levels appropriate to aircraft track are delegated to a Canadian ATC unit is effected by applying the
applicable in designated RVSM airspace. Canadian rules, procedures and separation minima with the
following exceptions:
(d) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating within
controlled airspace between 18 000 ft ASL and FL 600, (a) aircraft will not be cleared to maintain “1 000 feet on top”;
inclusive, shall ensure that the aircraft is operated in (b) ATC vertical separation will not be discontinued on the
accordance with IFR unless otherwise authorized in writing basis of visual reports from the aircraft; and
by the Minister. (CAR 602.34).
(c) Canadian protected airspace criteria for track separation
NOTE: will not be used.
As per the table in CAR 602.34(2), a vertical separation of 2 000 ft
is required from FL 290 to FL 410 inclusive.
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Exceptions
A person may operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed greater
than the airspeeds referred to in (a) and (b) above where the
aircraft is being operated in accordance with a special flight
operations certificate – special aviation event issued under
CAR 603.
If the minimum safe speed, given the aircraft configuration, is
greater than the speed referred to in (a) or (b) above, the aircraft
shall be operated at the minimum safe speed.
Notifying ATC
On departure, when intending to operate at speeds exceeding
2.5 CONTROLLED AIRSPACE 250 KIAS below 10 000 ft ASL, pilots must, on initial contact,
Controlled airspace is the airspace within which air traffic control notify the departure controller of the reason for this action.
service is provided and within which some or all aircraft may ATC requires this information for the following reasons:
be subject to air traffic control. Types of controlled airspace are:
(a) for operational considerations regarding other traffic,
(a) in the High-Level Airspace: particularly in potential overtake situations; and
– the Southern, Northern and Arctic Control Areas. (b) so that ATC will know that the request or notification of
intent to operate above the speed limit is for “minimum safe
NOTE:
speed” requirements and will therefore not file an Aviation
Encompassed within the above are high-level airways, the upper
Occurrence Report.
portions of some military terminal control areas and terminal
control areas. The phraseology of “minimum safe speed XXX kt” is encouraged
and ATC will acknowledge.
(b) in the Low-Level Airspace:
Example: Montreal Centre, ACA123, minimum safe speed 270 kt
– low-level airways, – control zones,
As ATC is not authorized to approve a speed greater than
RAC
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Figure 2.3—Southern, Northern and Arctic Control Areas Figure 2.5(a)—VHF/UHF Airway Dimensions
RAC
T-route airspace and protection areas do not splay.
2.7 LOW-LEVEL CONTROLLED AIRSPACE
Figure 2.7(a)—Fixed RNAV Route
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DISTANCE FROM
AIRSPACE FLIGHT VISIBILITY DISTANCE AGL
CLOUD
horizontally: 1 mi.
Control Zones not less than 3 mi.** vertically: 500 ft
vertically: 500 ft
horizontally: 1 mi.
Other Controlled Airspace not less than 3 mi. —
vertically: 500 ft
NOTES: NOTES:
1. Notwithstanding CAR 602.115, an aircraft other than an 1. All aircraft, including helicopters, must be equipped with
helicopter may be operated in visibilities less than 2 miles a radio capable of communicating with the ATC unit and
during the day, when authorized to do so in an air operator must comply with all conditions issued by the ATC unit as
certificate or in a private operator certificate. part of the SVFR authorization.
2. Notwithstanding CAR 602.115, a helicopter may be operated 2. Aircraft must operate clear of cloud and within sight of the
in visibilities less than 1 mile during the day, when authorized ground at all times.
to do so in an air operator certificate or in a flight training 3. Helicopters should operate at such reduced airspeeds so as
unit operator certificate helicopter. to give the pilot-in-command adequate opportunity to see
Special VFR weather minimum and requirements applicable other air traffic or obstructions in time to avoid a collision.
within control zones are found in CAR 602.117, and are 4. When the aircraft is not a helicopter and is being operated
summarized as follows: at night, ATC will only authorize special VFR where the
Where authorization is obtained from the appropriate ATC unit, authorization is for the purpose of allowing the aircraft to
a pilot-in-command may operate an aircraft within a control land at the destination aerodrome.
RAC
zone, in IFR weather conditions without compliance with the
IFR, where flight visibility and, when reported, ground visibility
are not less than:
(a) 1 mile for aircraft other than helicopters; and
(b) 1/2 mile for helicopters.
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Table 2.3—Special VFR Weather Transition areas are of defined dimensions, based at 700 ft AGL
Minima (control zones only) unless otherwise specified, and extend upwards to the base of
overlying controlled airspace. The area provided around an
Flight Visibility Distance
— aerodrome will normally be 15 NM radius of the aerodrome
(Ground when reported) from cloud
coordinates, but shall be of sufficient size to contain all of the
Aircraft
aerodrome published instrument approach procedures. Even if
other than 1 mile
Helicopter described with an ASL floor, the base of a transition area shall
Clear of cloud not extend lower than 700 ft AGL.
Helicopter 1/2 mile
2.7.6 Terminal Control Areas
Terminal control areas are established at high volume traffic
2.7.4 Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Over-the-Top
airports to provide an IFR control service to arriving, departing
A person may operate an aircraft VFR over-the-top (VFR OTT), and en route aircraft. Aircraft operating in the TCA are subject
provided certain conditions are met. Those conditions include to certain operating rules and equipment requirements. The
weather minima, aircraft equipment and pilot qualifications. TCA operating rules are established by the classification of the
Pilots should indicate that the flight is VFR OTT during airspace within the TCA. These rules will be based on the level
communications with ATS units. Deviations from the intended of ATC service that is appropriate for the number and type of
route of flight may be necessary when transiting CZs or TCAs. aircraft using the airspace as well as the nature of the operations
Pilots should take into consideration the additional fuel being conducted.
requirements this may cause.
A TCA is similar to a control area extension except that:
CAR 602.116 specifies the weather minima for VFR OTT. A
(a) a TCA may extend up into the high-level airspace;
summary of the minima follows:
(b) IFR traffic is normally controlled by a terminal control unit.
(a) VFR OTT is allowed during the day only, and during the
The ACC will control a TCA during periods when a TCU
cruise portion of the flight only.
is not in operation; and
(b) The aircraft must be operated at a vertical distance from
(c) TCA airspace will normally be designed in a circular
cloud of at least 1 000 ft.
configuration, centred on the geographic coordinates of
(c) Where the aircraft is operated between two cloud layers, the primary aerodrome. The outer limit of the TCA should
those layers must be at least 5 000 ft apart. be at 45 NM radius from the aerodrome geographic
(d) The flight visibility at the cruising altitude of the aircraft coordinates based at 9 500 ft AGL, with an intermediate
must be at least 5 mi. circle at 35 NM based at 2 200 ft AGL and an inner circle
at 12 NM radius based at 1 200 ft AGL. Where an operational
(e) The weather at the destination aerodrome must have a sky advantage may be gained, the area may be sectorized. For
condition of scattered cloud or clear, and a ground visibility publication purposes the altitudes may be rounded to the
of 5 mi. or more, with no forecast of precipitation, fog, nearest appropriate increment and published as heights
thunderstorms, or blowing snow, and these conditions must ASL. The floor of a TCA shall not extend lower than
RAC
CARs 605.14 and 605.15 outline the aircraft equipment 2.8 AIRSPACE CLASSIFICATION
requirements for VFR OTT. In part, the equipment requirements
are the same as for VFR flight, with extra requirements for Canadian Domestic Airspace (CDA) is divided into seven classes,
VFR OTT. each identified by a single letter—A, B, C, D, E, F or G. Flight
within each class is governed by specific rules applicable to that
Pilot qualifications for VFR OTT flight are specified in CARs class, and the rules are contained in Canadian Aviation Regulation
Part IV—Personnel Licensing and Training. (CAR) 601, which can be found at <https://lois-laws.justice.gc.ca/
eng/regulations/SOR-96-433/FullText.html#s-601.01>.
2.7.5 Transition Areas
The air traffic services available and the rules for operating
Transition areas are established when it is considered advantageous within a particular portion of airspace depend on the classification
or necessary to provide additional controlled airspace for the of that airspace and not on the name by which it is commonly
containment of IFR operations. known. Thus, the air traffic services available and the rules for
flight within a high-level airway, a terminal control area (TCA),
or a control zone (CZ) depend on the class of airspace within
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all or part of the defined area. Weather minima are specified 2.8.2 Class B Airspace
for controlled or uncontrolled airspace, not for each class of
Class B airspace is designated where an operational need exists
airspace. For more information on Canada’s airspace classification
to provide ATC service to IFR aircraft and to control VFR flights.
and structure, please see Figure 2.8. A printable copy of Figure 2.8
is available at <https://tc.canada.ca/sites/default/files/migrated/ Operations may be conducted under IFR or VFR. All aircraft
tc_6010_airspaceposter_e.pdf>. are subject to ATC clearances and instructions. ATC separation
is provided between all aircraft. VFR flights are conducted as
Figure 2.8—Canada’s Airspace (TP 6010) controlled VFR flights (see RAC 5.6).
Transport
Canada
Transports
Canada All low-level controlled airspace above 12 500 ft ASL or at and
above the MEA, whichever is higher, up to but not including
18 000 ft ASL, will be Class B airspace.
Control zones and associated terminal control areas may also
be classified as Class B airspace.
A B C D E F G NOTES:
I
1. No person shall operate an aircraft in Class B controlled
F airspace in VFR flight unless:
R
ATS provides
FL ight Information
and Alerting Service.
reporting equipment.
(b) a continuous listening watch is maintained by a flight
crew member on a radio frequency assigned by ATC;
(c) except as otherwise authorized by ATC, when the
aircraft is over a reporting point a position report is
transmitted to the appropriate unit or, when so directed
by ATC, to an FSS; and
(d) the aircraft is operated in VMC at all times.
RAC
F
Class A airspace will be designated from the base of all high-level 3. A person operating an aircraft in Class B controlled airspace
controlled airspace, or from 700 ft AGL, whichever is higher, up in VFR flight who is unable to comply with the requirements
to and including FL 600. of the preceding paragraphs shall ensure that:
(a) the aircraft is operated in VMC at all times;
(b) the aircraft leaves Class B controlled airspace:
(i) by the safest and shortest route, either exiting
horizontally or descending, or
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(ii) when that airspace is a control zone, by landing Airspace classified as Class D becomes Class E airspace when
at the aerodrome on which the control zone is the appropriate ATC unit is not in operation.
based; and
A terminal control area and associated control zone could be
(c) an ATC unit is informed as soon as possible of the classified as Class D airspace.
actions taken pursuant to paragraph (b).
A person operating an aircraft in VFR flight in Class D airspace
shall ensure that:
2.8.3 Class C Airspace
(a) the aircraft is equipped with:
Class C airspace is a controlled airspace within which both IFR
and VFR flights are permitted, but VFR flights require a clearance (i) radio communication equipment capable of two-way
from ATC to enter. ATC separation is provided between all communication with the appropriate ATC unit, and
aircraft operating under IFR. Conflict resolution is provided, (ii) where the Class D airspace is specified as transponder
when necessary, to resolve possible conflicts between VFR and airspace, a transponder and automatic pressure-
IFR aircraft. All aircraft will be provided with traffic information. altitude reporting equipment; and
Conflict resolution between VFR aircraft can be provided upon
(b) a continuous listening watch is maintained by a flight crew
request, after VFR aircraft are provided with traffic information.
member on a radio frequency assigned by ATC.
Runway separation is provided between all aircraft.
A person operating an aircraft in VFR flight that is not equipped
Traffic information is issued to advise pilots of known or observed
with the required radio communication equipment may, during
air traffic which may be in proximity to their aircraft’s position
daylight hours in VMC, enter Class D airspace, provided that
or intended route of flight warranting their attention. Conflict
permission to enter is obtained from the appropriate ATC unit
resolution is defined as the resolution of potential conflicts
prior to operating within the airspace.
between IFR and VFR aircraft and between VFR aircraft that
are identified and in communication with ATC.
2.8.5 Class E Airspace
Airspace classified as Class C becomes Class E airspace when
the appropriate ATC unit is not in operation. Class E airspace is designated where an operational need exists
for controlled airspace but does not meet the requirements for
Terminal control areas and associated control zones may be Class A, B, C, or D.
classified as Class C airspace.
Operations may be conducted under IFR or VFR. ATC separation
A person operating an aircraft in VFR flight in Class C airspace is provided only between aircraft operating under IFR. VFR
shall ensure that: aircraft do not do not require permission to enter Class E airspace
(a) the aircraft is equipped with: and, except for mandatory frequency areas (see RAC 4.5.4), are
not required to establish communication with an ATS unit prior
(i) radio communication equipment capable of two-way to entering. Workload and equipment permitting, traffic
communication with the appropriate ATC unit, and information may be provided, upon request, to VFR aircraft.
(ii) a transponder and automatic pressure-altitude When requesting traffic information from ATC, pilots should
reporting equipment, and be aware that air traffic controllers providing services in Class E
RAC
(b) a continuous listening watch is maintained by a flight crew airspace are responsible for larger volumes of airspace than those
member on a radio frequency assigned by ATC. providing services in Class C or D airspace. As a result, there is
a higher potential that workload and equipment limitations
A person wishing to operate an aircraft that is not equipped could affect the provision of traffic information, including
with functioning communication and transponder equipment potentially discontinuing this service without notification.
for VFR flight in Class C airspace may, during daylight hours A person operating an aircraft in VFR flight in Class E airspace
and in VMC, enter Class C airspace provided that permission remains responsible for maintaining a vigilant watch for, and
to enter and operate within the airspace is obtained from ATC avoiding, other traffic.
prior to the operation being conducted.
Aircraft are required to be equipped with a transponder and
automatic pressure-altitude equipment to operate in Class E
2.8.4 Class D Airspace airspace that is specified as transponder airspace.
Class D airspace is a controlled airspace within which both IFR Low-level airways, control area extensions, transition areas, or
and VFR flights are permitted, but VFR flights must establish control zones established without an operating control tower
two-way communication with the appropriate ATC unit prior may be classified as Class E airspace.
to entering the airspace. ATC separation is provided only between
IFR aircraft. Aircraft will be provided with traffic information.
Equipment and workload permitting, conflict resolution will
be provided between VFR and IFR aircraft, and upon request
between VFR aircraft. Runway separation is provided between
all aircraft.
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RAC
(ii) 201 to 299 – Alberta
participating in the activity taking place therein.
(iii) 301 to 399 – Saskatchewan
(iv) 401 to 499 – Manitoba 2.8.6.3 Advisory Airspace
(v) 501 to 599 – Ontario Airspace may be classified as Class F advisory airspace if it is
airspace within which an activity occurs that, for flight safety
(vi) 601 to 699 – Quebec
purposes, non-participating pilots should be aware of, such as
(vii) 701 to 799 – New Brunswick, Nova Scotia, Prince training, parachuting, hang gliding, and military operations.
Edward Island, Newfoundland and
Although not specifically restricted from operating therein, all
Labrador
aircraft are encouraged to avoid flight in advisory airspace unless
(viii) 801 to 899 – Yukon Territory participating in the activity taking place. If necessary, pilots of
(ix) 901 to 999 – Northwest Territories and Nunavut non-participating flights may enter advisory areas at their own
(including the Arctic Islands) discretion; however, extra vigilance is recommended. Pilots of
participating aircraft, as well as pilots flying through the area,
(d) Part (d) — in the case of advisory areas, the letter A, F, H, are equally responsible for collision avoidance. ATC will normally
M, P, S or T in parentheses after the three-digit ensure that IFR aircraft in controlled airspace remain clear of
number that indicates the type of activity within Class F advisory airspace. IFR aircraft shall be provided 500 ft
the area, as follows: vertical separation from an active Class F advisory airspace,
(i) A – acrobatic unless wake turbulence minima are applicable, in which case
1 000 ft vertical separation shall be applied.
(ii) F – aircraft test
(iii) H – hang gliding
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Pilots intending to fly in Class F advisory airspace are encouraged Class F restricted airspace should be available for use by non-
to monitor an appropriate frequency, to broadcast their intentions participating aircraft when all or part of the airspace is not
when entering and leaving the area, and to communicate, as required for its designated purpose.
necessary, with other users to ensure flight safety in the airspace.
To ensure maximum utilization of restricted airspace, user
In a Class F advisory uncontrolled airspace area, 126.7 MHz
agencies should be encouraged to make restricted airspace
would be an appropriate frequency.
available for the conduct of operations or training of other
NOTE: agencies or commands on a joint-use basis.
Military operations in Class F airspace may be UHF only. An ATS unit may be designated to provide air traffic control or
information service within the Class F airspace involved. A
2.8.6.4 Restricted Airspace
controlling agency will normally be assigned when there is joint
use of the airspace.
A restricted area is airspace of defined dimensions above the
land areas or territorial waters within which the flight of aircraft 2.8.6.6 NOTAM
is restricted in accordance with certain specified conditions. It is permissible to designate Class F restricted airspace by
Restricted airspace is designated for safety purposes when the NOTAM, if the following prerequisites are met:
level or type of aerial activity, the surface activity, or the protection
of a ground installation requires the application of restrictions (a) the area of restricted airspace is required for a specified
within that airspace. period of time of relative short duration (i.e. several hours
or days); and
No person may conduct aerial activities within active Class F
restricted airspace unless permission has been obtained from (b) the appropriate NOTAM is issued at least 24 hours in advance
the user agency. In some instances, the user agency may delegate of the area’s activation.
a controlling agency the authority to approve access. In most
cases, the controlling agency will be an ATC unit or an ANSP. 2.8.7 Class G Airspace
The user agency is the civil or military agency or organization Class G airspace is airspace that has not been designated Class
responsible for the activity for which the Class F airspace has A, B, C, D, E or F, and within which ATC has neither the authority
been provided. It has the jurisdiction to authorize access to the nor the responsibility to exercise control over air traffic.
airspace when it is classified restricted. The user agency must However, ATS units do provide flight information and alerting
be identified for Class F restricted airspace and, where possible, services. The alerting service will automatically alert SAR
it should be identified for Class F advisory airspace. authorities once an aircraft becomes overdue, which is normally
There are two additional methods of restricting airspace. determined from data contained in the flight plan or flight
itinerary.
(a) CAR 601.16 is designed to allow the Minister to issue a
NOTAM to restrict flight around and over forest fire areas In effect, Class G is all uncontrolled domestic airspace.
or areas where forest fire control operations are being Low-level air routes are contained within Class G airspace. They
conducted. The provisions of this section can be invoked are basically the same as a low-level airway, except that they
quickly via NOTAM by TC.
RAC
extend upwards from the surface of the earth and are not
(b) Section 5.1 of the Aeronautics Act allows the Minister to controlled, and ATC separation is not provided to IFR or VFR
restrict flight in any airspace, for any purpose, by NOTAM. aircraft. The lateral dimensions are identical to those of a low-
This authority is delegated by the Minister to cover specific level airway.
situations for a temporary period, such as well fires, disaster
areas, etc., for the purpose of ensuring safety of flight for 2.9 OTHER AIRSPACE DIVISIONS
air operations in support of the occurrence.
Additional airspace divisions have been designated in order to
It should be noted that airspace that is restricted by invoking increase safety or make allowances for the remote or mountainous
CAR 601.16 or section 5.1 of the Aeronautics Act is not Class F regions within Canada. These divisions (or regions) are: altimeter
restricted airspace; the airspace has not been classified in setting region, standard pressure region and designated
accordance with the airspace regulations. This distinction is mountainous region.
important to those who are charged with the responsibility
for restricting airspace, since their actions are governed by the 2.9.1 Altitude Reservation
provisions of the Statutory Instruments Act.
An altitude reservation is airspace of defined dimensions within
controlled airspace reserved for the use of a civil or military agency
2.8.6.5 Joint-Use Airspace during a specified period. An altitude reservation may be confined
Joint-use airspace is Class F airspace within which operations to a fixed area (stationary) or moving in relation to the aircraft
may be authorized by the controlling agency when it is not being that operates within it (moving). Information on the description
utilized by the user agency. of each altitude reservation is normally published by NOTAM.
Civil altitude reservations are normally for a single aircraft, while
those for military use are normally for more than one aircraft.
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Pilots should plan to avoid known altitude reservations. ATC participating aircraft may legally operate under IFR or VFR
will not clear an unauthorized flight into an active reservation. without an ATC clearance in these MOAs.
IFR and CVFR flights are provided with standard separation
MOAs will be included in the Designated Airspace Handbook
from altitude reservations.
and will be published on relevant aeronautical charts.
Pilots should also be aware that loitering in the vicinity of, or General – Except as otherwise indicated below, no person shall
circling, nuclear power plants should be avoided. Aircraft operate an aircraft within the standard pressure region unless
observed operating in this manner in the vicinity of nuclear the aircraft altimeter is set to standard pressure, which is
power plants could be intercepted by government or law- 29.92 inches of mercury or 1013.2 mbs. (See Note).
enforcement aircraft, and escorted away from the facility to the Departure – Prior to takeoff the pilot shall set the aircraft altimeter
nearest suitable aerodrome to be interviewed by police authorities. to the current altimeter setting of that aerodrome or, if the altimeter
RAC
setting is not available, to the elevation of that aerodrome.
2.9.4 Military Operations Areas Immediately prior to reaching the flight level at which flight is
to be conducted, the altimeter shall be set to standard pressure
Regular military training activity, such as basic or advanced (29.92 inches of mercury or 1013.2 mbs). If the planned cruising
flight training or routine operational training, is typically carried flight level is above FL 180, resetting the altimeter to 29.92 inches
out in Class F advisory airspace. More intensive operational of mercury or 1013.2 mbs at 18 000 ft ASL is acceptable and meets
training is normally reserved for Class F restricted airspace. the requirement of CAR 602.36.
Some non-hazardous military activity can still require increased
coordination with ATC, but these exercises may not require Arrival – Prior to commencing descent with the intention to
advisory or restricted airspace to be designated. land, the altimeter shall be set to the current altimeter setting
of the aerodrome of intended landing, if available. However, if
Military operations areas (MOA) consist of airspace of defined a holding procedure is conducted, the altimeter shall not be set
dimensions established to segregate certain military activities to the current aerodrome altimeter setting until immediately
from IFR traffic and to identify for VFR traffic where these prior to descending below the lowest flight level at which the
activities are conducted. ATC will not clear a non-participating holding procedure is conducted. Pilots of aircraft descending
IFR aircraft through an active MOA, unless appropriate IFR from cruising flight levels above FL 180 may reset altimeters to
separation can be provided. There is no need for VFR aircraft the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome of intended landing
to avoid flight into an MOA, but pilots should be alert for both when approaching FL 180 provided no holding or cruise level
large and small military aircraft that may be operating there at flight below FL 180 is to be made or anticipated.
various altitudes and speeds.
Transition – CAR 602.37 – Altimeter Setting and Operating
MOAs can be designated in Class G airspace. User agencies Procedures in Transition between Regions, specifies that except
and pilots operating in such MOAs should be aware that non- as otherwise authorized by ATC, aircraft progressing from one
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region to another shall make the change in the altimeter setting 2.12 MOUNTAINOUS REGIONS
while within the standard pressure region prior to entering, or
Designated mountainous regions are areas of defined lateral
after leaving, the altimeter setting region. If the transition is to
dimensions, specified in the Designated Airspace Handbook,
be made into the altimeter setting region while in level cruising
above which special rules concerning minimum IFR altitudes
flight, the pilot should obtain the current altimeter setting from
to ensure obstacle clearance (CAR 602.124) apply.
the nearest station along the route of flight as far as practical
before reaching the point at which the transition is to be made. An aircraft, when operated in accordance with IFR within
When climbing from the altimeter setting region into the designated mountainous regions, but outside of areas for which
standard pressure region, pilots shall set their altimeters to minimum altitudes for IFR operations have been established
standard pressure (29.92 inches of mercury or 1013.2 mbs) (including minimum vectoring altitudes, MOCAs, transition
immediately after entering the standard pressure region. When altitudes, 100NM safe altitudes, MSAs and AMAs), shall be
descending into the altimeter setting region, pilots shall set their flown at an altitude of at least 2000 feet above the highest obstacle
altimeters to the appropriate station altimeter setting immediately within 5NM of the aircraft in flight when in areas 1 and 5, and
prior to descending into the altimeter setting region. Normally, at least 1500 feet above the highest obstacle within 5NM when
the pilot will receive the appropriate altimeter setting as part of in areas 2, 3 and 4. (See Figure 2.10.)
the ATC clearance prior to descent. If it is not incorporated in As minimum en route IFR altitudes have been established for
the clearance, it should be requested by the pilot. designated airways and air routes, such minimum altitudes shall
NOTE: be applied when flying in accordance with IFR along airways
When an aircraft is operating in the standard pressure region or air routes within designated mountainous regions, except
with standard pressure set on the altimeter subscale, the term that aircraft should be operated at an altitude which is at least
“flight level” is used in lieu of “altitude” to express its height. 1000 feet higher than the minimum en route IFR altitude, when
Flight level is always expressed in hundreds of feet. For example there are large variations in temperature and/or pressure. (See
FL 250 represents an altimeter indication of 25 000 ft; FL 50, an RAC 8.6)
indication of 5 000 ft. Figure 2.10—Designated Mountainous
Regions in Canada
Figure 2.9—Altimeter Setting and
Standard Pressure Regions
RAC
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2.13 EMERGENCY COMMUNICATIONS A specific FIC may be contacted at the number shown in the
AND SECURITY CFS or CWAS, General section, Flight Planning (FLT PLN)
subsection. Collect calls from pilots are accepted at all FICs.
The rules for operating within the Air Defence Identification
Zone (ADIZ) are specified in CAR 602.145 – ADIZ, and are When requesting a briefing, identify yourself as a pilot; provide
repeated in RAC 3.8. the aircraft identification and the following:
(a) type Sof flight (VFR, IFR, CVFR, composite) planned;
Figure 2.11—Air Defence Identification Zone (ADIZ)
(b) type of aircraft;
(c) aerodrome of departure and estimated time of
departure (ETD);
(d) destination aerodrome and estimated elapsed time (EET);
(e) planned cruising level(s) or altitude(s);
(f) route to be flown and estimated times of arrival at, and
departure from, any intermediate aerodrome(s);
(g) alternate aerodrome, if appropriate;
(h) type of meteorological information requested, i.e. whether
a briefing or consultation; and
(i) information already on hand, if any.
The flight service specialist requires this information to tailor
the briefing to the planned flight and the needs of the pilot. The
flight service specialist may omit information normally provided
in a briefing if the pilot has indicated having the data on hand
or requested the briefing be limited to specific information. The
flight service specialist will terminate the briefing by soliciting
flight plan information not already obtained at the beginning
of the briefing and PIREP, if appropriate.
3.0 FLIGHT PLANNING
3.3 AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION
3.1 GENERAL
Aeronautical information (NOTAM, RSC, CRFI, flow control,
The flight planning requirements contained in this Section are etc.) is available at ATS units and at certain operations offices.
based, in part, on the CAR, Part VI, General Operating and Aeronautical information is routinely provided by FICs during
Flight Rules. a pilot briefing and upon request in FISE. Telephone numbers
and RCO frequencies for all FICs are listed in the CFS and
RAC
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall, before commencing
the CWAS.
a flight, be familiar with the available information that is
appropriate to the intended flight (CAR 602.71). Canadian domestic NOTAMs are disseminated via the
aeronautical fixed service (AFS) and stored electronically in
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall, before commencing
accordance with a NOTAM series concept. NOTAMs are further
a flight, be familiar with the available weather information that
divided as aerodrome NOTAM and f light information
is appropriate to the intended flight (CAR 602.72). Pilots should
region (FIR) NOTAM in accordance with the subject and impact.
refer to the MET Section for aviation weather information.
Before commencing a flight, pilots must ensure that each
pertinent NOTAM series and type has been reviewed, so that
3.2 PILOT BRIEFING SERVICE they are familiar with all appropriate NOTAMs for the intended
The pilot briefing service is provided by FICs to assist pilots at flight.
the pre-flight planning stage and for information updates while All Canadian NOTAMs, with the exception of RSC NOTAM,
en route. Pilot requests for initial briefings while airborne are are composed and disseminated in the International Civil
not encouraged because this practice leads to frequency Aviation Organization (ICAO) format. Canadian NOTAM series
congestion. have different distribution lists and dissemination categories.
The telephone numbers of NAV CANADA FICs are found in For more details on series, NOTAM regions, and dissemination
the General and Aerodrome/Facility Directory sections of the categories, refer to AIP Canada section GEN 3.1.3.
CFS or CWAS. Long distance phone calls can be made to a FIC
toll-free at 1-866-WXBRIEF (1-866-992-7433). A call to this
number is routed to the FIC that serves the area from which the
call originates. A call to 1-866-GOMÉTÉO (1-866-466-3836) is
routed to the Québec FIC for the provision of bilingual service.
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3.4 WEIGHT AND BALANCE CONTROL passenger seat or in the storage compartment. Otherwise,
the standard allowance is 5.9 kg (13 lb) of carry-on baggage
3.4.1 Definitions per passenger and this remains constant throughout the
year. Carry-on baggage weight shall be included in the
The following definitions and abbreviations are used in weight weight of the passenger for the purpose of weight and balance
and balance control: calculation.
(a) Actual weight is the weight, when referenced to passenger
NOTE:
weight, derived by the weighing of each passenger just prior
The only circumstance under which the weight of the carry-on
to flight boarding, and then adding the allowances for
baggage may not be added to the weight of each passenger is
personal clothing and carry-on baggage. Infants shall be
when no carry-on baggage is permitted on the flight.
weighed along with their accompanying adult. Where
weighing scales are not available or serviceable, or the (f) Checked baggage is baggage that is individually checked
passenger refuses to be weighed, the following weights may in, weighed and placed in the cargo compartment of the
be used in lieu of actual weight. aircraft. This includes baggage that is too large to be placed
(i) Volunteered weight is the weight obtained by asking in the cabin of the aircraft and baggage that must be carried
the passenger for their weighˆt, adding 4.5 kg (10 lb) in the cargo compartment by regulation, security program,
to the disclosed weight, and then adding the or company policy. For baggage checked plane-side, see the
allowances for personal clothing and carry-on definition for plane-side loaded bag.
baggage. (g) Empty weight is the total weight of the following parts or
(ii) Estimated weight is the reasonable estimate of the contents, which are part of, or carried on board, the aircraft:
passenger’s weight made by the operator, where actual (i) the airframe, including the rotor of a helicopter
weight is not available and volunteered weight is or gyroplane;
either not provided or is deemed to be understated,
to which allowances are then added for personal (ii) the power plant;
clothing and carry-on baggage. (iii) the fixed ballast;
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includes members of the flight crew and cabin crew, as well It is mandatory to calculate weight and balance accurately for
as anyone involved in the aircraft’s operation. every flight and ensure that they are within the aircraft’s
(n) Passenger is a person, other than a crew member, who is permissible limits in order to comply with the aircraft
carried on board an aircraft and who, for weight and balance airworthiness certificate and conform to the regulations. Before
control, is categorized as a(n): the aircraft takes off, it is important that the PIC of the aircraft
ensure that the load carried by the aircraft is of an appropriate
(i) Adult—a person, regardless of sex, who is aged weight; the weight must be distributed and secured so that it
12 years or older and who may be subcategorized as may be carried safely on the intended flight. If weight and CG
male or female; (balance) limitations are not observed, then the pilot has failed
(ii) Child—a person (male or female) who is between to comply with a legal condition for the operation of the aircraft
two to less than 12 years of age; or and the airworthiness certificate is nullified.
(iii) Infant—a baby who is less than two years of age. It must be recognized that with many four- and six-seat aircraft,
it is not possible to fill all the seats, use the maximum baggage
(o) Personal clothing allowance is the weight of personal
allowance, fill all the fuel tanks and still remain within the
clothing that a passenger carries on board the aircraft, which
approved weight and CG limitations.
is standardized as 3.6 kg (8 lb) for summer and 6.4 kg (14 lb)
for winter and must be added to the passenger’s weight for Estimating baggage weight can result in gross inaccuracies. If
the purpose of weight and balance calculation. it is possible that the aircraft is operating close to its MTOW,
the baggage must be weighed. Even a pocket-sized spring balance
(p) Plane-side loaded bag is any bag or item that is placed at
can be used as a handy standby if weighing scales are not available.
the door or steps of an aircraft because it cannot be
This reduces the risk involved in guesswork. Note that on some
accommodated as carry-on baggage and that is subsequently
aircraft, restrictions are placed on rear-seat occupancy if the
placed in the aircraft cargo compartment or cargo bin.
maximum baggage allowance is used. When the aircraft is
(q) Segmented weights are the statistically derived average carrying freight, check for discrepancies with the declared weight.
adult (male or female) passenger weights modified by Ensure that the weight per unit area limitation on the baggage
appropriate standard deviations so as to be representative compartment floor is not exceeded. It is critical to ensure that
of small passenger groups and provide a predetermined the baggage/freight is properly stowed, cannot move during
degree of confidence and accuracy (tolerance) that the actual flight, and does not obstruct exits or access to emergency
weight of the passenger group will not exceed the weight equipment. If the aircraft is suspected to be operating anywhere
calculated by using segmented weight values. The segmented close to its maximum weight, passengers must be weighed. The
weight table identifies weight values that are modified to risk of embarrassment is not a reason for risking safety or crossing
cater for variations in aircraft passenger seating capacity weight limits. It is important to remember that a passenger’s
and include personal clothing and carry-on baggage weight is not his or her stripped weight, but must include personal
allowances. In the Canadian context, segmented weights clothing and carry-on baggage allowances.
are applicable only for aeroplanes that are certificated for
Fuel is supplied in pounds, kilograms, litres or gallons. Pilots
passenger seating capacity of five or more and are being
should note which unit is being used and calculate the fuel weight
operated under Subpart 703 of the CARs.
accordingly. Incorrect conversion could be hazardous in terms
RAC
NOTE: of endurance and fuel weight estimation.
Segmented weights should be used where actual weights,
volunteered weights or estimated weights are not available or
3.4.3 Balance
cannot be used.
Balance refers to the location of the CG along the longitudinal
(r) Small aircraft is an aircraft with a maximum permissible axis of the aircraft. There are forward and aft limits established
take-off weight of 5 700 kg (12 566 lb) or less, or a helicopter during certification flight testing; they are the maximum CG
with a maximum permissible take-off weight of 2 730 kg positions at which the longitudinal stability requirements can
(6 018 lb) or less. be met. If an aircraft is being operated outside these limits, its
(s) Standard weights are the weights published by TCCA as handling is either unsatisfactory or has not been investigated.
standard average passenger weights, including personal The limits for each aircraft are contained in the pilot operating
clothing and carry-on baggage allowances, for use in weight handbook and the AFM. The aircraft must not be flown outside
and balance calculations that do not involve actual weighing. these limits.
In many aircraft, there is significant CG movement as fuel is
3.4.2 Weight Control being consumed; pilots should familiarize themselves with how
this affects their aircraft.
Pilots must recognize the effect of weight and balance on the
performance and handling of aircraft, particularly in combination
with performance-reducing factors, such as contaminated 3.4.4 Operational Requirements
runways, aircraft icing, degraded engine performance, severe It is the responsibility of the PIC of the aircraft to ensure that
or uncoordinated manoeuvres, turbulence, high ambient the weight and balance report of the flight accurately represents
temperatures and emergency situations. the actual load and that the actual load does not exceed the
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maximum allowable weight limits specified in the AFM for any was then added to the average adult (male/female) passenger
phase of the flight. weight and finally, two values were developed to account for
seasonal variations in personal clothing—3.6 kg (8 lb) for summer
The report may be prepared by the crew, another qualified person
clothing and 6.4 kg (14 lb) for winter clothing. See Table 3.2 for
authorized by the company or by the operator of the aircraft.
finalized weight values.
Companies and operators may establish specific procedures
with respect to preparing and retaining weight and balance 3.4.7 Computation of Passenger and Baggage
documentation in order to meet regulatory requirements. Weights
To compute passenger weight, the following methods are used:
3.4.5 Computerized Systems
actual weights, standard weights and segmented weights.
When a company or operator generates load data from a
computerized weight and balance system, the integrity of the NOTE:
output data must be checked at regular intervals (preferably not For aircraft with a passenger seating capacity of less than five,
greater than six months). The length of the intervals must be the use of actual weights provides the greatest accuracy in
specified in the company operations manual. calculating the weight and balance of the aircraft, therefore the
use of standard or segmented passenger weights is not
There must be a means in place to identify the person inputting
recommended.
the data for the preparation of every load manifest. Moreover,
the identity of that person must be verified and authenticated Using Actual Weights—In determining the actual weight, an air
by the system and retained as required. operator must weigh each passenger and must ensure that
personal clothing and carry-on baggage are also weighed. The
3.4.6 Segmented Weights total of the person’s weight, personal clothing and carry-on
baggage would then be treated as the passenger’s weight. Weighing
In practice, it was found that the use of standard passenger
should be conducted just before boarding (to minimize the
weights, regardless of aircraft size, increases the probability of
chances of the passenger acquiring additional load just before
overloading the aircraft when its passenger-carrying capacity
boarding the aircraft); alternatively, the allowances for personal
decreases and vice versa. For example, when the standard
clothing and carry-on baggage can be added to a passenger’s
passenger weight is used for an aircraft certificated for
weight and the result can be used as the passenger’s actual weight.
12 passengers, like the Twin Otter, the statistical probability of
overloading the aircraft is as high as 25%, whereas when it is When a passenger refuses to be weighed, the air operator should
used for large passenger aircraft, like the Boeing 747, this ask the passenger to volunteer their weight (volunteered weight).
probability diminishes to 0.0014%. If they refuse, the air operator should estimate the passenger’s
weight (estimated weight), ensuring in both cases that the
Furthermore, a single weight cannot account for the weight
allowances for personal clothing and carry-on baggage are included
differences between men and women or for variations in aircraft
in the passenger’s weight.
seating capacity. To minimize the probability of overloading the
aircraft, an alternative to standard passenger weights, called Personnel boarding passengers based on volunteered weights
segmented weights, was implemented. Segmented weights are should be able to assess the validity of the disclosed weight. If a
RAC
based on aircraft seating capacity and account for weight volunteered weight is deemed to be significantly inaccurate,
differences between men and women as well as for summer and personnel should use good judgment to make a reasonably
winter variations. accurate estimate. Similarly, estimating passenger weight must
be done with a reasonable degree of accuracy. Due diligence
Segmented weights are designed to guarantee a 95% confidence
should be exercised to ensure that passenger weights used to
level that the actual total weight of passengers will not exceed
calculate the passenger and baggage load accurately reflect the
the total weight of passengers obtained by using segmented
actual weight to be carried on any given flight.
weights by more than one percent. This is the benchmark of
segmented weights for accuracy and reliability. Using Standard Weights—The weight of each passenger is
calculated using standard weights published by TCCA or
3.4.6.1 Derivation of Segmented Weights established by the air operator. The standard weights include
the standardized allowances for personal clothing and carry-on
A specific methodology was used to calculate the precise values baggage. See Tables 3.1 and 3.3 for standard weights.
published in the segmented weight tables. TCCA’s segmented
weight tables are based on the Canadian Community Using Segmented Weights—Segmented weights should be used
Health Survey, Cycle 2.1 (2003), which obtained large-scale only when actual weights, volunteered weights, and estimated
weight data by interviewing some 130 000 Canadians. In addition, weights are not available or cannot be implemented. Air operators
standard deviations of 16.8 kg (37 lb) for males and 14.6 kg (32.2 lb) are prohibited from using standard weights for aeroplanes
for females were applied to obtain a revised average weight for operated under Subpart 703 of the CARs that also have a
each sex. These weights were further modified to account for certificated passenger seating capacity of five or more passengers.
specific aircraft seating capacity ranges so as to be representative Instead, it is recommended that they use either actual weights
of the highest average weight amongst all sample sizes for that or the segmented weights that are published by TCCA or
range. A constant value of 5.9 kg (13 lb) for carry-on baggage established by the air operator.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
When using the segmented weight table (Table 3.2), an air infant’s weight is over 10% of the adult passenger’s weight, the
operator must follow these steps: infant’s weight should be included separately at the rate of 13.6 kg
(30 lbs) per infant. Infants occupying separate seats should be
(a) Step 1: Under the column titled Maximum Certificated
treated as children for the purpose of weight and balance
Passenger Seating Capacity, select the row that represents
calculation, and their weight should be included at the standard
the certificated seating capacity of the intended aircraft.
rate per child. See Table 3.3 for standard weights of children and
(b) Step 2: Under the column that represents the season, select infants.
winter or summer.
Checked Baggage and Cargo—The air operator must use the
(c) Step 3: Depending on the aircraft capacity and seasons actual weight of checked baggage and cargo.
selected in steps 1 and 2, use the weight values identified in
the intersecting cells for the weights of males and females.
When changing the aircraft, steps 1 to 3 have to be repeated.
(d) Step 4: Multiply the individual male/female weight identified
in step 3 by the number of male/female passengers on board,
and the total of these weights will be the weight of the
passenger load for that particular flight.
NOTES:
1. Actual weights should be used on any flight identified as
carrying a significant number of passengers whose weight
or number of carry-on baggage is deemed to be in excess
of those specified in the segmented weights published by
TCCA or established by the air operator.
2. The only circumstance under which the weight of carry-on
baggage may not be added to the weight of each passenger
is when no carry-on baggage is permitted on the flight.
Weight of Children and Infants—Each child should be weighed,
or their weight should be included at the standard rate. Infants
should be weighed with the accompanying adult. When an
Summer — Winter
93.4 kg or 206 lb Males (12 years and up) 96.2 kg or 212 lb
RAC
78.1 kg or 172 lb Females (12 years and up) 80.7 kg or 178 lb
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Summer — Winter
Aviation Kerosene
CAN 2-3, 23-M81
(JET A, JET A-1, 1.93 8.80 7.32 1.90 8.65 7.19 1.87 8.50 7.09 1.85 8.39 7.00 1.83 8.27 6.91
JET A-2) and
Arctic Diesel
Aviation Gasoline
All Grades CAN
2-3, 25-M82
1.69 7.68 6.41 1.65 7.50 6.26 1.62 7.33 6.12 1.59 7.20 6.01 1.56 7.07 5.90
RAC
(AV GAS)
120 Grade 2.01 9.10 7.59 1.99 9.03 7.54 1.97 8.96 7.46 1.96 8.88 7.41 1.94 8.82 7.35
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3.5 FLIGHT PLANS AND FLIGHT The timely filing of IFR flight plans or flight itineraries is essential
ITINERARIES to allow ATC personnel time to extract and record the relevant
content, correlate these new data with available information on
3.5.1 When Required other traffic under control, coordinate as necessary, and determine
how the flight may best be integrated with the other traffic.
CAR 602.73 states that no pilot-in-command shall operate an
aircraft in VFR flight unless a VFR flight plan or a VFR flight Accordingly, in order to assist ATS in improving the service
itinerary has been filed, except where the flight is conducted provided and to allow sufficient time for input into the ATS data
within 25 NM of the departure aerodrome. processing system, pilots are encouraged to file IFR flight plans
or flight itineraries as early as practicable, preferably at least 30
No pilot-in-command shall operate an aircraft in IFR flight min prior to their proposed departure time. Pilots are expected
unless an IFR flight plan has been filed. A pilot-in-command to depart in accordance with the flight plan ETD. Some delay
may file an IFR flight itinerary instead of an IFR flight plan where: could be experienced if an IFR clearance is required less than
(a) the flight is conducted, in part or in whole, outside controlled 30 min after filing. It is also important that ATS be informed of
airspace; or the circumstances if commencement of an IFR flight is to be
delayed. IFR flight itineraries are limited to one departure from
(b) facilities are inadequate to permit the communication of and one entry into controlled airspace; multiple exits and entries
flight plan information to an ATC unit, an FSS or a CARS. into controlled airspace will not be accepted by ATS.
Notwithstanding any of the requirements mentioned above,
pilots are required to file a flight plan when operating between 3.5.3 Flight Plan Requirements—Flights
Canada and a foreign state. Between Canada and a Foreign State
A VFR or IFR flight plan must be filed prior to conducting any
3.5.2 Filing (Canadian Aviation
flight between Canada and a foreign state. If the flight is to any
Regulation [RAC] 602.75)
country other than the U.S., an ICAO flight plan must be filed.
602.75 ATS must not accept flight itineraries, composite flight plans,
or CVFR flight plans for flights between Canada and the U.S.
(1) A flight plan shall be filed with an air traffic control unit,
a flight service station or a community aerodrome radio ADCUS notification is no longer accepted on flight plans for
station. transborder flights departing from Canada to the U.S. or from
(2) A flight itinerary shall be filed with a responsible person, the U.S. to Canada. Pilots are required to file a flight plan to an
an air traffic control unit, a flight service station or a acceptable customs destination in the U.S. and are also required
community aerodrome radio station. to contact U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to make
customs arrangements prior to their flight. Failure to do so may
(3) A flight plan or flight itinerary, shall be filed by subject the pilot to a penalty.
(a) sending, delivering or otherwise communicating the
flight plan or flight itinerary or the information 3.5.4 Opening a Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Flight
contained therein; and Plan or Flight Itinerary
RAC
(b) receiving acknowledgement that the flight plan or flight A VFR flight plan or flight itinerary should normally be opened
itinerary or the information contained therein has been with a TWR, an FSS, a FIC or a CARS upon departure to activate
received. the alerting service. The pilot is responsible for extending or
A “responsible person” means an individual who has agreed cancelling the flight plan or flight itinerary if the flight is delayed
with the person who has filed a flight itinerary to ensure that, or cancelled. If an extension or cancellation is not received by
if the aircraft is overdue, the following are notified in the manner the proposed departure time, the responsible ATS unit will
prescribed in this Section: activate the flight plan or flight itinerary, using the ETD as the
actual time of departure (ATD).
(a) an ATC unit, an FSS or a CARS; or
(b) an RCC. 3.6 CHANGES TO THE INFORMATION IN A
FLIGHT PLAN OR FLIGHT ITINERARY
NOTES:
Since control and alerting services are based primarily on
1. The notification requires the flight itinerary information. information provided by the pilot, it is essential that modifications
2. The expression flight service station used in the regulation to flight plans and flight itineraries be communicated to an ATC
includes a FIC. Flight plan information should be filed with unit, a FIC, a CARS or, as applicable, a responsible person
a FIC, where complete briefing information is available. An concerned, as soon as practicable.
IFR flight plan should be submitted to the flight planning
section of an ACC.
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3.6.1 Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Flight Plan or 3.8 DEFENCE VISUAL FLIGHT RULES (VFR)
Flight Itinerary FLIGHT PLANS AND DEFENCE FLIGHT
CAR 602.76(3) and (4) specify that a pilot “shall notify as soon ITINERARIES (CANADIAN AVIATION
as practicable an air traffic control unit, a flight service station, REGULATION [CAR] 602.145)
a community aerodrome radio station or the responsible person,” CAR 602.145 outlines the requirements when operating into or
of any change to: within the Air Defence Identification Zone (ADIZ). In order to
(a) the route of flight, ensure that the Air Traffic System (ATS) is aware that VFR flights
will be operating into or within the ADIZ, ATS requires that
(b) the duration of the flight; or pilots file a Defence Flight Plan or Flight Itinerary.
(c) the destination aerodrome. CAR 602.145 ADIZ states:
602.145 ADIZ
3.6.2 Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) Flight Plan or
Flight Itinerary (1) This Section applies in respect of aircraft before entering
into and while operating within the ADIZ, the dimensions
CAR 602.76(1) and (2) specify that a pilot shall notify as soon
of which are specified in the Designated Airspace Handbook.
as practicable an air traffic control unit, a flight service station,
a community aerodrome radio station or a responsible person, (2) Every flight plan or flight itinerary required to be filed
as the case may be, of any change to: pursuant to this Section shall be filed with an air traffic
control unit, a flight service station or a community
(a) the cruising altitude or cruising flight level;
aerodrome radio station.
(b) the route of flight;
(3) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft whose point of departure
(c) the destination aerodrome; within the ADIZ or last point of departure before entering
(d) when in controlled airspace: the ADIZ has facilities for the transmission of flight plan
or flight itinerary information shall:
(i) the true airspeed at the cruising altitude or cruising
level where the change intended is 5% or more of (a) before takeoff, file a defence flight plan or defence
the TAS specified in the IFR flight plan; or flight itinerary;
(ii) the Mach number, where the change intended is 0.01 (b) in the case of a VFR aircraft where the point of departure
or more of the Mach number that has been included is outside the ADIZ,
in the ATC clearance. (i) indicate in the flight plan or flight itinerary the
Where the flight is being conducted in controlled airspace, the estimated time and point of ADIZ entry, and
pilot shall receive ATC clearance before making the (ii) as soon as possible after takeoff, communicate by
intended change. radio to an air traffic control unit, a flight service
station or a community aerodrome radio station a
position report of the aircraft’s location, altitude,
3.7 COMPOSITE FLIGHT PLAN OR
aerodrome of departure and estimated time and
FLIGHT ITINERARY—VISUAL FLIGHT
point of ADIZ entry; and
RAC
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(5) The pilot-in-command of a VFR aircraft shall revise the (c) the flight planning unit must be provided with at least the
estimated time and point of ADIZ entry and inform an air following items of information for each stage of the flight:
traffic control unit, a flight service station or a community
(i) point of departure,
aerodrome radio station, when the aircraft is not expected
(ii) altitude,
to arrive:
(iii) route,
(a) within plus or minus five minutes of the estimated (iv) destination,
time at: (v) proposed time of departure,
(i) a reporting point, (vi) estimated elapsed time,
(ii) the point of ADIZ entry, or (vii) alternate,
(iii) the point of destination within the ADIZ; or (viii) fuel on board, and, if required,
(b) within 20 nautical miles of: (A) TAS,
(i) the estimated point of ADIZ entry, or (B) number of persons on board, and
(ii) the centreline of the route of flight indicated in (C) where an arrival report will be filed.
the flight plan or flight itinerary.
3.10 CROSS-COUNTRY INSTRUMENT
3.9 INTERMEDIATE STOPS TRAINING FLIGHTS
Intermediate stops may not be included in a single instrument A cross-country instrument training flight is one in which there
flight rules (IFR) flight plan. A single visual flight rules (VFR) are no intermediate stops and one or more instrument approaches
flight plan or an IFR or VFR flight itinerary including one or are made en route. For example, an aircraft departs Airport A,
more intermediate stops en route may be filed provided that: completes a practice approach at Airport B, and either lands at
destination Airport C or returns to land at Airport A.
(a) for VFR flight plans, the stop will be of short duration (for
purposes such as boarding passengers, and refuelling); The following apply:
(b) for IFR flight itineraries, the stop will be in uncontrolled (a) A single flight plan is filed.
airspace; and (b) Those en route locations at which instrument approaches
(c) each intermediate stop is indicated by repeating the name and overshoots are requested shall be listed in the “Other
of the stopping point and its duration in the “Route” Information” portion of the flight plan form, together with
section of the flight plan or flight itinerary. Record the the estimated period of time to carry out each approach. In
duration of the stopover in hours and minutes with four addition, the total en route time should be included, including
consecutive digits. Example: CYXU 0045 CYXU. You may approaches and holds followed by the destination airport
include a phone number for the stopover in the “Other (e.g. REQ NDB RWY 32 AT B-15 MIN 0230A).
Information” section of the flight plan or flight itinerary, (c) The estimated elapsed time (EET) of the flight plan form
if available, as this may be useful in case of search and is NOT to include the estimated time to carry out approaches
rescue (SAR). and holds at the en route locations.
When intermediate stops are planned, the “Estimated Elapsed (d) ATC will normally clear the aircraft to final destination.
RAC
Time” must be calculated as the total time to the final destination,
including the duration of the intermediate stops. It should be (e) If it is not practicable to clear the aircraft to final destination
noted that SAR action would only be initiated at the specified or to assign an operationally suitable altitude with the initial
SAR time or, in the event that a SAR time is not indicated, clearance, a time or specific location for the aircraft to expect
60 minutes for a flight plan and 24 hours for a flight itinerary further clearance to the destination or to a higher altitude
after the estimated time of arrival (ETA) at the final destination. will be issued with the initial clearance.
Pilots who wish to have SAR action based on every leg of a flight (f) When an en route approach clearance is requested, a missed
should file one flight plan or flight itinerary for each stop. approach clearance will be issued to the aircraft prior to
the commencement of the approach.
3.9.1 Consecutive Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) (g) If traffic does not permit an approach, holding instructions
Flight Plans will be issued to the aircraft if requested by the pilot.
Consecutive IFR flight plans may be filed at the initial point of
departure providing the following points are adhered to: 3.11 CLOSING A FLIGHT PLAN
(a) initial point of departure and en route stops must be in In order to comply with CAR 602.77, an arrival report for a flight
Canada except that one flight plan will be accepted for a plan shall be submitted to an ATC unit, an FSS (or a FIC) or a
departure point within United States controlled airspace; CARS as soon as practicable after landing but not later than:
(b) the sequence of stops will fall within one 24-hour period; (a) the SAR time specified in the flight plan; or
(b) where no SAR time is specified in the flight plan, one hour
after the last reported ETA.
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A pilot who terminates a flight itinerary shall ensure that an results in ATC discontinuing the provision of IFR separation
arrival report is filed with an ATC unit, an FSS (or a FIC), a and also closes the flight plan or itinerary. Therefore, alerting
CARS or, where the flight itinerary was filed with a responsible service with regard to SAR notification is also terminated, unless
person, the responsible person as soon as practicable after landing the pilot files and activates a VFR flight plan.
but not later than:
(a) the SAR time specified in the flight itinerary; or 3.12 FUEL REQUIREMENTS
(b) where no SAR time was specified in the flight itinerary, 24 The fuel requirements contained in this Section do not apply to
hours after the last reported ETA. gliders, balloons or ultra-light aeroplanes. (CAR 602.88)
A pilot who terminates an IFR flight at an aerodrome where In addition to VFR and IFR fuel requirements, every aircraft
there is an operating ATC unit, FSS or where RAAS is provided, shall carry an amount of fuel that is sufficient to provide for
is not required to file an arrival report unless requested to do (a) taxiing and foreseeable delays prior to takeoff;
so by the appropriate ATC unit or FSS. (b) meteorological conditions;
When submitting an arrival report, the pilot should clearly (c) foreseeable air traffic routings and traffic delays;
indicate that he/she was operating on a flight plan or flight (d) landing at a suitable aerodrome in the event of loss of cabin
itinerary and wishes it to be closed. Failure to close a flight plan pressurization or, in the case of a multi-engined aircraft,
or flight itinerary will initiate SAR action. It should not be failure of any engine, at the most critical point during the
assumed that ATS personnel will automatically file arrival reports flight; and
for VFR flights at locations served by control towers and FSSs (e) any other foreseeable conditions that could delay the landing
or an RCO. Toll-free calls, as outlined in the CFS, may be made of the aircraft.
to an ATS facility for this purpose.
3.12.1 Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Flight
3.11.1 Arrival Report An aircraft operated in VFR flight shall carry an amount of fuel
CAR 602.78 specifies that the contents of an arrival report for that is sufficient to allow the aircraft
a flight plan or flight itinerary, which are listed in the CFS, shall (a) in the case of an aircraft other than a helicopter,
include:
(i) when operated during the day, to fly to the destination
(a) the aircraft registration mark, flight number or radio call sign; aerodrome and then to fly for 30 minutes at normal
(b) the type of flight plan or flight itinerary; cruising speed, or
(ii) when operated at night, to fly to the destination
(c) the departure aerodrome;
aerodrome and then to fly for 45 minutes at normal
(d) the arrival aerodrome, and cruising speed, or
(e) the date and time of arrival. (b) in the case of a helicopter, to fly to the destination aerodrome
and then to fly for 20 min. at normal cruising speed.
3.11.2 Closing of a Flight Plan or Flight Itinerary
Prior to Landing 3.12.2 Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) Flight
RAC
A pilot, who conducts a flight in respect of which a flight plan An aircraft operated in IFR flight shall carry an amount of fuel
or flight itinerary has been filed with an ATC unit, FIC, FSS, or that is sufficient to allow the aircraft
CARS, has the option of closing the flight plan or flight itinerary
(a) in the case of a propeller-driven aeroplane,
with any of these agencies prior to landing.
(i) where an alternate aerodrome is specified in the
The closing of a flight plan or flight itinerary prior to landing
flight plan or flight itinerary, to fly to and execute
is considered as filing an arrival report, and as such, it will result
an approach and a missed approach at the destination
in the termination of all alerting services with respect to SAR
aerodrome, to f ly to and land at the alternate
notification.
aerodrome, and then to fly for a period of 45 minutes,
When flying IFR in airspace under the jurisdiction of Canadian or
ATC, use of the phrase “Cancelling IFR” results in ATC (ii) where an alternate aerodrome is not specified in the
discontinuing the provision of IFR separation, but it does not flight plan or flight itinerary, to fly to and execute
automatically close the flight plan or itinerary. Therefore, alerting an approach and a missed approach at the destination
service with regard to SAR notification is still active and is based aerodrome and then to fly for a period of 45 minutes;
on the information submitted in the original flight plan or or
itinerary. Because the pilot is now flying in accordance with
(b) in the case of a turbojet powered aeroplane or a helicopter,
VFR, the flight plan or itinerary must either be closed prior to
landing, or an arrival report filed after landing, with an ATC (i) where an alternate aerodrome is specified in the
unit, a FIC, a FSS or a CARS. When flying IFR in the U.S.A. or flight plan or flight itinerary, to fly to and execute
landing at a Canadian airport that underlies airspace delegated an approach and a missed approach at the destination
to the control of the FAA, use of the phrase “Cancelling IFR” aerodrome, to f ly to and land at the alternate
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
RAC
(c) the forecast TEMPO condition shall not be below the CEILING VISIBILITY CEILING VISIBILITY
published alternate minima requirements for that 700 1 1/2
600 2
aerodrome; and 800 1
(d) the forecast PROB condition shall not be below the 900 1 1/2
800 2
appropriate landing minima for that aerodrome. 1000 1
NOTES:
3.13.1 Alternate Aerodrome Weather Minima
Requirements 1. These requirements are predicated upon the aerodrome
having a TAF available.
Authorized weather minima for alternate aerodromes are to be
determined using the information presented in the tables below. 2. Aerodromes served with an AERODROME ADVISORY
The “Alternate Weather Minima Requirements” table presented forecast may qualify as an alternate, provided the forecast
in the CAP GEN (reproduced below) applies to all approach charts, weather is no lower than 500 ft above the lowest usable
except where use as an alternate is not authorized on the chart. The HAT/HAA and the visibility is not less than 3 mi.
minima derived for an alternate aerodrome shall be consistent with 3. Aerodromes served with a GRAPHIC AREA FORECAST
aircraft performance, navigation-equipment limitations, functioning (GFA) may qualify as an alternate, provided the forecast
NAVAIDs, type of weather forecast and runway to be used. weather contains:
Pilots may take credit for RNAV approaches at alternate (a) no cloud lower than 1 000 ft above the lowest usable
aerodromes in accordance with the criteria outlined in the HAT/HAA;
“Alternate Aerodrome Weather Minima Requirements” section (b) no cumulonimbus; and
of the CAP GEN. (c) a visibility that is not less than 3 mi.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
(d) the operational applicability of terms BECMG, TEMPO (q) endurance (flight time in hours and minutes)
and PROB within the forecast; (r) total number of persons on board
(e) all heights mentioned within a GFA are ASL heights, unless (s) type of ELT*
otherwise indicated, and the terrain elevation must be
(t) survival equipment (type, jackets, dinghies)
applied in order to determine the lowest forecast ceiling at
a particular location; and (u) aircraft colour and markings
(f) alternate minima values determined from a previous flight (v) remarks (regarding other survival equipment)
operation may not be applicable to a subsequent flight (w) arrival report—where it will be filed*
operation.
(x) name and number or address of person or company to be
RAC
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
RAC
under IFR;
3.15 CONTENTS OF A FLIGHT PLAN AND V if it is intended that the entire flight will be operated
FLIGHT ITINERARY under VFR;
Y if the flight initially will be operated under IFR, followed
3.15.1 Item 7: Aircraft Identification (not by one or more subsequent changes of flight rules; or
exceeding seven alphanumeric characters
and without hyphens or symbols) Z if the flight initially will be operated under VFR, followed
by one or more subsequent changes of flight rules.
Canadian:
If “Y” or “Z” is filed, specify, in the Route section of the flight
Normally, this consists of the aircraft registration letters or the plan (Item 15), the point(s) where a change in flight rules is
company designator followed by the flight number. planned. Similarly, where there is more than one change in the
Examples: type of flight rules, the code to be used is to reflect the first rule,
i.e. use “Z” for VFR/IFR/VFR.
(a) Aircraft registration: N123B, CGABC, 4XGUC
(b) Operating agency and flight number: ACA123, KLM672
(c) Tactical call sign: BRUNO12, SWIFT45, RED1
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
3.15.2.2 Type of Flight (up to two characters, as 3.15.4 Item 10: Equipment (Canadian and
applicable) International Civil Aviation
INSERT up to two of the following letters to denote the type of Organization (ICAO))
flight when so required by the appropriate ATS authority: Capabilities comprise the following elements:
First character (Canadian only, as applicable): (a) presence of relevant serviceable equipment on board
C for controlled VFR; the aircraft;
D for defence flight plan; (b) equipment and capabilities commensurate with flight crew
qualifications; and
E for defence flight itinerary;
(c) where applicable, authorization from the appropriate
F for flight itinerary. authority.
Second character (ICAO, as applicable): The communication (COM), navigation (NAV), approach aid
S for scheduled air service; and SSR equipment on board and its serviceability must be
inserted by adding the appropriate suffixes. The first suffixes
N for non-scheduled air transport operation; will denote the COM, NAV and approach aid equipment, followed
G for general aviation; by an oblique stroke, and another suffix to denote the SSR
equipment.
M for military;
X for other than the preceding categories. 3.15.4.1 Radio Communication, Navigation and
Approach Aid Equipment and Capabilities
Specify the status of a flight following the indicator “STS” in
Item 18, or when necessary to denote other reasons for specific INSERT one letter as follows:
handling by ATS, indicate the reason following the indicator “N” if no COM, NAV or approach aid equipment for the route
“RMK/” in Item 18. to be flown is carried, or the equipment is unserviceable; OR
“S” if standard COM, NAV and approach aid equipment for the
3.15.3 Item 9: Number and Type of Aircraft and
route to be flown is carried and available (see NOTE 1)
Wake Turbulence Category
Information on navigation capability is provided to ATC for
3.15.3.1 Number of Aircraft (one or two characters) clearance and routing purposes.
INSERT the number of aircraft, if more than one. AND/OR INSERT one or more of the following letters to indicate
the serviceable COM, NAV and approach aid equipment and
3.15.3.2 Type of Aircraft (two to four characters) capabilities available.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
RAC
J7 CPDLC FANS 1/A Z Other equipment
SATCOM (Iridium) carried or other L Transponder—Mode S, including aircraft identification,
capabilities pressure-altitude, extended squitter (ADS-B) and enhanced
(see NOTE 5) surveillance capability;
Any alphanumeric characters not indicated above are reserved. P Transponder—Mode S, including pressure-altitude
transmission, but no aircraft identification capability;
NOTES:
S Transponder—Mode S, including both pressure-altitude
1. If the letter “S” is used, standard equipment is considered and aircraft identification capability;
to be VHF RTF, VOR and ILS, unless another combination
is prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority. X Transponder—Mode S with neither aircraft identification
nor pressure-altitude capability.
2. ICAO: If the letter “G” is used, the types of external GNSS
augmentation, if any, are specified in Item 18 following the NOTE:
indicator “NAV/” and separated by a space. Enhanced surveillance capability is the ability of the aircraft to
3. Canadian: When using the letter “G” on an IFR flight plan, down-link aircraft-derived data via a Mode S transponder.
the GNSS receiver must be approved in accordance with
the requirements specified in AIP Canada ENR 4.3. IFR- ADS-B
certified receivers are not mandatory for VFR flights. Pilots B1 ADS-B with dedicated 1090 MHz ADS-B “out” capability;
are encouraged to use the letter “G” on VFR flight plans
B2 ADS-B with dedicated 1090 MHz ADS-B “out” and
when using any type of GNSS to assist VFR navigation.
“in” capability;
U1 ADS-B “out” capability using UAT;
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U2 ADS-B “out” and “in” capability using UAT; operated at an altitude which is at least 1 000 ft higher than
the published MEA/MOCA.
V1 ADS-B “out” capability using VDL Mode 4;
2. Mandatory IFR routes, published in the CFS—Planning
V2 ADS-B “out” and “in” capability using VDL Mode 4.
section, have been established to aid in the efficient and
ADS-C orderly management of air traffic between selected
aerodromes. Pilots are required to file these routes.
D1 ADS-C with FANS 1/A capabilities;
G1 ADS-C with ATN capabilities. Canadian and ICAO:
Alphanumeric characters not indicated above are reserved. INSERT
INSERT the first point of the route or the marker radio beacon (iii) Altitude in hundreds of feet, expressed as “A” followed
preceded by “DEP/”, if the aircraft has not taken off from by three figures (e.g. A045, A100); OR
the aerodrome.
(iv) Altitude in tens of metres (ICAO only), expressed
3.15.5.2 Time (maximum four characters)
as “M” followed by four figures (e.g. M0840); OR
(v) For uncontrolled VFR flights, the letters “VFR”
Indicate the hour and minutes in UTC.
(ICAO only).
NOTE: (c) Route (including changes of speed, level and/or flight rules)
Pilots may file a flight plan or flight itinerary up to 24 hr in
advance of the departure time. 3.15.6.1 Flights Along Designated Air Traffic
Service (ATS) Routes:
3.15.6 Item 15: Cruising Speed, Altitude/Level INSERT if the departure aerodrome is located on, or connected
and Route to, the ATS route:
Canadian: (a) the designator of the first ATS route (e.g. if the departure
aerodrome is Carp: T614 TUKIR, etc.); OR
NOTES: (b) if the departure aerodrome is not located on, or connected
1. On designated airways and air routes, IFR flights may be to, the ATS route:
operated at the published MEA/MOCA, except that in winter,
(i) (ICAO only) the letters “DCT”, followed by the
when air temperatures may be much lower than those of
joining point of the first ATS route, followed by the
the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA), aircraft should be
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
designator of the ATS route (e.g. if the departure INSERT “DCT” between successive points unless both points
aerodrome is Ottawa: DCT IKLAX T634, etc.); are defined by geographical coordinates or by bearing
(ii) (Canadian only) the joining point of the first ATS route, and distance.
followed by the designator of the ATS route (e.g. if the Canadian:
departure aerodrome is Ottawa: YOW T616, etc.).
INSERT points at which a change of speed or level, a change of
INSERT each point at which a change of speed or level is planned track, or a change of flight rules is planned. Absence of “DCT”
to commence, or a change of ATS route, or a change of flight between points on a Canadian flight plan or itinerary indicates
rules is planned (e.g. AGLUK/N0200A170 IFR). direct flight; OR
NOTE: When required by appropriate ATS authority(ies),
When a transition is planned between a lower and an upper ATS
route and the routes are oriented in the same direction, the point Canadian and ICAO:
of transition need not be inserted. USE the conventions in (1) to (5), below, and SEPARATE each
sub-item by a space.
FOLLOWED IN EACH CASE BY
(a) ATS route (two to seven characters):
(a) the designator of the next ATS route segment, even if it is
the same as the previous one (e.g. if the departure aerodrome The coded designator assigned to the route or route segment
is Québec: DICEN T680 LETAK T616, etc.); OR including, where appropriate, the coded designator assigned
to the standard departure or arrival route (e.g. BCN1, B1,
(b) if the flight to the next point is outside a designated route: R14, UB10, KODAP2A).
(i) (ICAO only) the letters “DCT”, unless both points
are defined by geographical coordinates (e.g. if the NOTE:
departure aerodrome is Québec: DCT YQB DCT Provisions for the application of route designators are contained
FLEUR DCT YYY, etc.); in ICAO Annex 11, Appendix 1.
(ii) (Canadian only) the next point (e.g. if the departure (b) Significant point (two to eleven characters):
aerodrome is Québec: YQB FLEUR YYY etc.). The
The coded designator (two to five characters) assigned to
absence of “DCT” between points on a Canadian
the point (e.g. LN, MAY, HADDY), OR
flight plan or flight itinerary indicates direct flight.
If no coded designator has been assigned, one of the following
3.15.6.2 Flights Outside Designated Air Traffic ways:
Service (ATS) Routes: (i) Degrees only (seven characters): Two figures
describing latitude in degrees, followed by “N”
ICAO:
(North) or “S” (South), followed by three figures
INSERT points normally not more than 30 min flying time or describing longitude in degrees, followed by “E”
370 km (200 NM) apart, including each point at which a change (East) or “W” (West). Make up the correct number
of speed or level, a change of track, or a change of flight rules is of figures, where necessary, by insertion of zeros,
RAC
planned; OR e.g. 46N078W.
When required by appropriate ATS authority(ies), (ii) Degrees and minutes (11 characters): Four figures
describing latitude in degrees, and tens and units of
DEFINE the track of flights operating predominantly in an
minutes followed by “N” (North) or “S” (South),
east-west direction between 70°N and 70°S by reference to
followed by five figures describing longitude in
significant points formed by the intersections of half or whole
degrees and tens and units of minutes, followed by
degrees of latitude with meridians spaced at intervals of 10° of
“E” (East) or “W” (West). Make up the correct
longitude. For flights operating in areas outside those latitudes,
number of figures, where necessary, by insertion of
the tracks shall be defined by significant points formed by the
zeros, e.g. 4620N07805W.
intersection of parallels of latitude with meridians normally
spaced at 20° of longitude. The distance between significant (iii) Bearing and distance from a significant point: The
points shall, as far as possible, not exceed one hour’s flight time. identification of the significant point followed by
Additional significant points shall be established as deemed the bearing from the point in the form of three figures
necessary. giving degrees magnetic followed by the distance
from the point in the form of three figures expressing
For flights operating predominantly in a north-south direction,
nautical miles. In areas of high latitude where it is
define tracks by reference to significant points formed by the
determined by the appropriate authority that
intersection of whole degrees of longitude with specified parallels
reference to degrees magnetic is impractical, degrees
of latitude which are spaced at 5°.
true may be used. Make up the correct number of
figures, where necessary, by insertion of zeros, e.g.
a point 180° magnetic at a distance of 40 NM from
VOR “DUB” should be expressed as DUB180040.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
(c) Change of speed or level (maximum 21 characters): 3.15.7 Item 16: Destination Aerodrome, Total
The point at which a change of speed (5 percent TAS or Estimated Elapse Time (EET), Search And
0.01 Mach or more) or a change of level is planned to Rescue (SAR) Time (for flights in Canada
commence, expressed exactly as in (2), above, followed by only) and Destination Alternate
an oblique stroke and both the cruising speed and the Aerodrome(s)
cruising level, expressed exactly as in (a) and (b), above, 3.15.7.1 Destination Aerodrome and Total Estimated
without a space between them, even when only one of these Elapse Time (EET) (maximum 10 characters)
quantities will be changed.
ICAO:
Examples:
INSERT the ICAO four-letter location indicator of the destination
LN/N0284A045 aerodrome as specified in ICAO Doc 7910—Location Indicators;
MAY/N0305F180 OR
HADDY/N0420F330 Canadian:
4602N07805W/N0500F350 INSERT the four-character location indicator of the destination
aerodrome; OR
46N078W/M082F330
NOTE:
DUB180040/N0350M0840 In the case of a Canadian flight itinerary, as applicable, the EET
(d) Change of flight rules (maximum three characters): may also include the number of days. The total duration of the
flight itinerary shall not exceed 30 days.
The point at which the change of flight rules is planned,
expressed exactly as in (2) or (3), above, as appropriate, Canadian and ICAO:
followed by a space and one of the following:
If no location indicator has been assigned,
(i) VFR if from IFR to VFR
INSERT “ZZZZ” and specify in Item 18 the name and location
(ii) IFR if from VFR to IFR of the aerodrome, preceded by “DEST/”.
Examples: THEN, without a space, INSERT the total EET.
LN VFR
NOTE:
LN/N0284A050 IFR For a flight plan received from an aircraft in flight, the total
EET is the estimated time from the first point of the route to
(e) Cruise climb (maximum 28 characters): which the flight plan applies to the termination point of the
The letter “C” followed by an oblique stroke; THEN the flight plan.
point at which cruise climb is planned to start, expressed
exactly as in (2), above, followed by an oblique stroke; THEN INSERT SAR time (four digits) (maximum of 24 hr)
the speed to be maintained during cruise climb, expressed
3.15.7.2 Destination Alternate Aerodrome(s)
exactly as in (a), above, followed by the two levels defining
RAC
NOTES:
1. If departure alternate required insert ZZZZ for second
alternate aerodrome and SPECIFY in Item 18 the departure
alternate, i.e.: DEP ALTN/CYOW.
2. No alternate is required on a VFR flight plan or itinerary.
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MARSA: for a flight for which a military entity assumes O3 Basic RNP 1 DME/DME
responsibility for separation of military aircraft; O4 Basic RNP 1 DME/DME/IRU
MEDEVAC: for a life critical medical emergency evacuation; S1 RNP APCH
NONRVSM: for a non-RVSM capable flight intending to operate S2 RNP APCH with baro-VNAV
in RVSM airspace; T1 RNP AR APCH with RF (special authorization
required)
SAR: for a flight engaged in a search and rescue mission;
and T2 RNP AR APCH without RF (special
RAC
authorization required)
STATE: for a f light engaged in military, customs or Combinations of alphanumeric characters not indicated above are reserved.
police services.
Other reasons for special handling by ATS shall be denoted
under the designator “RMK/”.
PBN/ Indication of RNAV and/or RNP capabilities:
Include as many of the descriptors below as possible
that apply to the flight, up to a maximum of eight
entries, i.e. no more than 16 characters.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
ICAO has not yet allocated a two-digit alphanumeric character EET/ Significant points or FIR boundary designators and
to describe RNP 2 under the PBN/ indicator. For an RNP 2 accumulated EETs from takeoff to such points or
capable flight, enter a Z in item 10 and spell out “RNP2” after FIR boundaries, when so prescribed on the basis of
NAV/ in item 18: NAV/RNP2. regional air navigation agreements, or by the
appropriate ATS authority.
NAV/ Significant data related to navigation equipment
other than that specified in PBN/, as required by Examples:
the appropriate ATS authority. Indicate GNSS EET/CAP0745 XYZ0830/
augmentation under this indicator, with a space
between two or more methods of augmentation, EET/EINN0204
e.g. NAV/GBAS SBAS. SEL/ SELCAL Code, for aircraft so equipped.
COM/ Indicate communications applications or TYP/ Type(s) of aircraft, preceded if necessary without
capabilities not specified in Item 10(a). a space by number(s) of aircraft and separated by
DAT/ Indicate data applications or capabilities not one space, if “ZZZZ” is inserted in Item 9.
specified in 10(a). Example:
SUR/ Include surveillance applications or capabilities TYP/2F15 5F5 3B2
not specified in Item 10(b).
DLE/ En-route delay or holding, insert the significant
DEP/ Name and location of departure aerodrome, if
point(s) on the route where a delay is planned to
“ZZZZ” is inserted in Item 13, or the ATS unit
occur, followed by the length of delay using four-
from which supplementary flight plan data can
figure time in hours and minutes (hhmm).
be obtained, if “AFIL” (airfile) is inserted in Item
13. For aerodromes not listed in the relevant AIP, Example:
indicate location as follows: DLE/MDG0030
With four figures describing latitude in degrees and tens and OPR/ ICAO designator or name of the aircraft operating
units of minutes followed by “N” (North) or “S” (South), followed agency, if different from the aircraft identification
by five figures describing longitude in degrees and tens and in Item 7.
units of minutes, followed by “E” (East) or “W” (West). Make
up the correct number of figures, where necessary, by insertion ORGN/ The originator’s eight-letter AFTN address or other
of zeros, e.g. 4620N07805W (11 characters); OR appropriate contact details, in cases where the
originator of the flight plan may not be readily
Bearing and distance from the nearest significant point, as follows: identified, as required by the appropriate ATS
(a) The identification of the significant point followed by the authority.
bearing from the point in the form of three figures giving
degrees magnetic, followed by the distance from the point NOTE:
in the form of three figures expressing nautical miles. In In some areas, flight plan reception centres may insert the
areas of high latitude where it is determined by the appropriate “ORGN/” identifier and originator’s AFTN address automatically.
RAC
RAC
R/(RADIO) Canadian use only: Indicate the aircraft owner, person(s) or
CROSS OUT indicator “U” if UHF on frequency 243.0 MHz is company to be notified if SAR action is initiated.
not available. CROSS OUT indicator “V” if VHF on frequency C/(PILOT)
121.5 MHz is not available. CROSS OUT indicator “E” if an ELT
INSERT name of pilot-in-command.
is not available. Canadian use only: ELT categories should be
entered in the “ELT TYPE” box on the flight plan and flight Canadian use only: INSERT pilot’s licence number.
itinerary forms.
S/(SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT)
CROSS OUT all indicators if survival equipment is not carried.
CROSS OUT indicator “P” if polar survival equipment is not
carried. CROSS OUT indicator “D” if desert survival equipment
is not carried. CROSS OUT indicator “M” if maritime survival
equipment is not carried. CROSS OUT indicator “J” if jungle
survival equipment is not carried.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Item 16:
Destination aerodrome is Saskatoon.
EET from takeoff to landing at Saskatoon is 2 days and 6 hours
(this includes the flight time and the stopover time at Carlyle).
SAR time of 6 hours indicates the pilot’s desire to have SAR
action initiated at 6 hours after the total EET of the trip; in other
words, 2 days and 12 hours after takeoff from Saskatoon (if there
is no entry in this block the SAR activation time would be 24
hours after the EET).
Explanation of Figure 3.1—Composite IFR/VFR/IFR Alternate aerodrome is Prince Albert.
Flight Itinerary
Item 18:
Item 7: Although no other information is provided in this example, this
Aircraft identification section is for listing any other information as previously described.
“Y” indicates that the flight will be initially operated under the
(including crew).
IFR, followed by one or more subsequent changes of flight rules.
“X” over “U” indicates there is no UHF emergency radio.
“F” indicates that it is a flight itinerary.
Unaltered “V” indicates there is VHF emergency radio.
Item 9:
Unaltered “E” under ELT indicates there is an emergency locator
Aircraft is a Beechcraft 100.
transmitter.
Item 10: “AP” under ELT TYPE indicates an automatic portable ELT.
“S” indicates standard COM/NAV equipment of VHF, RTF, Unaltered “P” under POLAR indicates polar equipment is carried.
VOR and ILS.
Unaltered “J” and “L” indicates that life jackets with lights are
“D” indicates DME equipped. carried.
“/C” indicates transponder Mode A (four digits—4096 codes) “Xs” on “D” and “C” indicate there are no dinghies.
and Mode C.
Aircraft colour and markings are self explanatory.
Item 13: “X” on “N” indicates there are no additional remarks on survival
Departure aerodrome is Saskatoon at 0900 UTC. gear.
Example indicates closure with Saskatoon tower.
Contact name and number is self explanatory.
Pilot’s licence number assists SAR specialists in their search.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
FF
ADDRESSEE(S) / DESTINATAIRE(S)
4.1 GENERAL
Pilots must be particularly alert when operating in the vicinity
of an airport. Increased traffic congestion, aircraft in climb and
FILING TIME / HEURE DE D…P‘T ORIGINATOR / EXP…DITEUR
13 DEPARTURE AERODROME / A…RODROME DE D…PART TIME / HEURE only just meets VFR requirements.
15 CRUISING SPEED
Several operators have, for some time, been using their landing
VITESSE DE CROISI»RE ALTITUDE/ LEVEL / NIVEAU ROUTE / ROUTE
E P R U V E
SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT / …QUIPEMENT DE SURVIE JACKETS / GILETS DE SAUVETAGE
POLAR
POLAIRE
DESERT
D…SERT
MARITIME
MARITIME
JUNGLE
JUNGLE
LIGHT
LAMPES
FLUORES
FLUORES UHF VHF below 2 000 ft AGL within terminal areas and aerodrome traffic
S P D M J J L F U V
DINGHIES / CANOTS
NUMBER
NOMBRE
CAPACITY COVER
CAPACIT… COUVERTURE
COLOUR
COULEUR
patterns.
D C
AIRCRAFT COLOUR AND MARKINGS / COULEUR ET MARQUES DE L'A…RONEF
WHEELS SEAPLANE SKIS AMPHIBIAN
ROUES HYDRAVION AMPHIBIE ATC towers equipped with ATS surveillance have the capability
A
REMARKS / REMARQUES of providing an increased level of service to the aviation
N
AN ARRIVAL REPORT WILL BE FILED WITH - UN COMPTE RENDU D'ARRIV…E SERA NOTIFI… ¿: community. The class of airspace determines the controller’s
NAME AND PHONE NUMBER OR ADDRESS OF PERSON(S) OR COMPANY TO BE NOTIFIED IF SEARCH AND RESCURE ACTION INITIATED
NOM ET NUM…RO DE T…L…PHONE OU ADRESSE DE LA (DES) PERSONNE(S) OU COMPAGNIE ¿ AVISER SI DES R…CHERCHES SONT ENTREPRISES
responsibilities vis-à-vis separation between IFR and VFR
PILOT-IN-COMMAND / PILOTE COMMANDANT DE BORD PILOT'S LICENCE No./No DE LICENCE DU PILOTE aircraft, and between VFR and VFR aircraft. Control staff in
C . )
FILED BY/ D…POS… PAR SPACE RESERVED FOR ADDITIONAL REQUIREMENTS / ESPACE R…SERV… ¿ DES FINS SUPPL…MENTAIRES certain towers will be able to assist aircraft in establishing visual
separation through the provision of vectors, ATS surveillance
monitoring and altitude assignments. Use of the surveillance
Figure 3.3—VFR Flight Plan will also result in more efficient control of VFR aircraft.
While aircraft shall not be operated at speeds greater than
200 KIAS below 3 000 ft AGL and within 10 NM of a controlled
aerodrome (CAR 602.32), there is no mandatory speed restriction
when operating in the vicinity of an uncontrolled aerodrome.
As traffic levels at some of these aerodromes may be high from
RAC
time to time, the risk of a possible mid-air collision is somewhat
elevated during these periods. For this reason, it is recommended
that pilots reduce their aircraft speed to the maximum extent
possible when operating below 3 000 ft AGL and within 10 NM
of an uncontrolled aerodrome.
Incidents have occurred when aircraft are being operated VFR
within control zones, when the flight visibility is less than
three miles due to local smoke, haze, rain, snow, fog or other
condition. CAR 602.114 requires a minimum of three miles
ground visibility for VFR flight within a control zone. This
visibility is, of course, taken by a person on the ground and does
not preclude the possibility that the visibility aloft may be less.
Good airmanship requires that a pilot encountering less than
three miles flight visibility within a control zone will either:
(a) take action to avoid the area of reduced visibility; or
(b) remain clear of the area of reduced visibility and request a
special VFR clearance from ATC.
Pilots shall maintain a listening watch on the appropriate tower
frequency while under control of the tower. Whenever possible,
requests for radio checks and taxi instructions should be made
on the appropriate ground control frequency. After establishing
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Vectoring
Controllers apply the following wake turbulence ATS surveillance
separation minima between a preceding IFR/VFR aircraft and
an aircraft vectored directly behind it and at less than 1 000 ft
during any phase of flight.
Categories, weight limits, aircraft examples and separation criteria
are indicated in the table below.
SUPER HEAVY (S) This category currently A380-800 Super Heavy behind a Super Heavy
only applies to Airbus A380 -
aircraft with a maximum 4 mi.
takeoff mass of 560 000 kg.
HEAVY (H) Aircraft types weighing less B747/B777/B767 Heavy behind a Super Heavy -
than 560 000 kg but more A340A330/MD11 6 mi.
than 136 000 kg Heavy behind a Heavy -
4 mi.
LIGHT (L) Aircraft types weighing 7 000 C150/C152 C172/ Light behind a Super Heavy -
kg or less C182/PA38/PA2 8 mi.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Non-Surveillance Departures There may be departure situations, such as with a steady crosswind
Controllers will apply a two-minute separation interval to any component, where the full wake turbulence separation minima
aircraft that takes off into the wake of a known heavy aircraft if: is not required. The pilot is in the best position to make an
assessment of the need for wake turbulence separation. Although
(a) the aircraft concerned commences the takeoff from the controllers are not permitted to initiate waivers to wake turbulence
threshold of the same runway; or separation minima, they will issue takeoff clearance to pilots
(b) any following aircraft departs from the threshold of a parallel who have waived wake turbulence requirements on their own
runway that is located less than 2 500 ft away from the initiative, with the following exceptions:
runway used by the preceding heavy aircraft. (a) a light or medium aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft
and takeoff is started from an intersection or a point
NOTE:
significantly further along the runway, in the direction of
ATC does not apply this two-minute spacing interval between a
takeoff; or
light following a medium aircraft in the above circumstances, but
will issue wake turbulence advisories to light aircraft. Controllers (b) a light or medium aircraft departing after a heavy aircraft
will apply a three-minute separation interval to any aircraft that takes off or makes a low or missed approach in the opposite
takes off into the wake of a known heavy aircraft, or a light aircraft direction on the same runway; or
that takes off into the wake of a known medium aircraft if: (c) a light or medium aircraft departing after a heavy aircraft
makes a low or missed approach in the same direction on
(a) the following aircraft starts its takeoff roll from an
the same runway.
intersection or from a point further along the runway than
the preceding aircraft; or A pilot-initiated waiver for a VFR departure indicates to the
controller that the pilot accepts responsibility for wake turbulence
(b) the controller has reason to believe that the following aircraft
separation. The controller will still issue a wake turbulence
will require more runway length for takeoff than the
cautionary with the takeoff clearance. Controllers are responsible
preceding aircraft.
for ensuring wake turbulence minima are met for IFR departures.
ATC will also apply separation intervals of up to three minutes More information on wake turbulence can be found in the
when the projected flight paths of any following aircraft will AIR section of this manual.
cross that of a preceding heavy aircraft.
In spite of these measures, ATC cannot guarantee that wake 4.1.2 Noise Abatement
turbulence will not be encountered. Pilots and operators must conform to the applicable provisions
Pilot Waivers of CAR 602.105— Noise Operating Criteria, and CAR 602.106—
Noise Restricted Runways (see RAC Annex) and the applicable
ATC tower controllers are required to advise pilots whenever a noise abatement procedures published in the CAP.
requested take-off clearance is denied solely because of wake
turbulence requirements. The intention of this advisory is to Noise operating restrictions may be applied at any aerodrome
make pilots aware of the reason for the clearance denial so that where there is an identified requirement. When applied at an
they may consider waiving the wake turbulence requirement. aerodrome, the procedures and restrictions will be set out in the
RAC
To aid in the pilot’s decision, the tower controller will advise the CFS, and shall include procedures and requirements relating to:
type and position of the wake-creating aircraft. The following (a) preferential runways;
phraseologies will be used by the controller in response to a
(b) minimum noise routes;
request for take-off clearance when wake turbulence is a
consideration: (c) hours when aircraft operations are prohibited or restricted;
Tower: NEGATIVE, HOLD SHORT WAKE TURBULENCE. (d) arrival procedures;
HEAVY BOEING 747, ROTATING AT 6 000 FT; or (e) departure procedures;
Tower: LINE UP AND WAIT, WAKE TURBULENCE, HEAVY (f) duration of flights;
DC10 AIRBORNE AT 2 MI.
(g) the prohibition or restriction of training flights;
Pilots are reminded that there are some circumstances where
(h) VFR or visual approaches;
wake turbulence separation cannot be waived.
(i) simulated approach procedures; and
(j) the minimum altitude for the operation of aircraft in the
vicinity of the aerodrome.
Transport Canada recognizes the need for analysis and
consultation in the implementation of proposed new or amended
noise abatement procedures or restrictions at airports and
aerodromes. A process has been developed that includes
consultation with all concerned parties before new or amended
noise abatement procedures or restrictions can be published in
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
the CAP or the CFS. When the following checklist has been Although air traffic controllers may select a preferential runway
completed for the proposed noise abatement procedures or in accordance with the foregoing criteria, pilots are not obligated
restrictions, and the resulting analysis has been completed and to accept the runway for taking off or landing. It remains the
approved by Transport Canada, the noise abatement procedure pilot’s responsibility to decide if the assigned runway is
or restriction will be published in the appropriate aeronautical operationally acceptable.
publication.
(a) Description of the problem 4.1.4 Runway Protected Area
(b) Proposed solution (including possible exceptions) Runway protected area procedures aim to ensure the runway
protected area will be free of objects, which will provide a safe
(c) Alternatives (such as alternative procedures or land uses in
environment during aircraft operations in the event of a runway
the community)
excursion, arrival undershoot, or departure overrun by an
(d) Costs (such as revenue impact, direct and indirect costs to aircraft.
the community, airport operator and airport users)
ATC and FSS will hold vehicles and pedestrians and ATC will
(e) Noise impacts of the proposed solution hold taxiing aircraft at published holding positions or at least
(f) Effects on aircraft emissions 200 ft from the runway edge until an aircraft taking off or landing
has passed the holding traffic.
(g) Effect on current and future airport capacity
The airport operator may designate an alternate holding position
(h) Implications of not proceeding with the proposal at a distance from the runway edge that ensures no hazard is
(i) Implementation issues (e.g. aircraft technology, availability created for arriving or departing aircraft. The airport operator
of replacement aircraft, ground facilities) may also permit pedestrians to operate within the runway
protected area when an aircraft is taking off or landing.
(j) Impact on the aviation system
(k) Safety implications Controlled Airports
(l) Air traffic management ATC will not clear an aircraft to take off or land if a holding
position is transgressed. If a holding position is transgressed
(m) Fleet impact
after a takeoff or landing clearance has been issued, ATC will
A complete description of the process involved is available on cancel the clearance, unless doing so would create a hazardous
the Internet at: <https://tc.canada.ca/en/aviation/reference- situation for the aircraft.
centre/advisory-circulars/advisory-circular-ac-no-302-002>
Uncontrolled Airports
4.1.3 Preferential Runway Assignments FSS will inform pilots of aircraft taking off or landing of runway
protected area transgressions and seek the pilots’ intentions.
At controlled airports, when selecting preferential runways for
noise abatement or for other reasons, air traffic controllers 4.2 DEPARTURE PROCEDURES —
consider the runway condition, the effective crosswind component CONTROLLED AIRPORTS
and the effective tailwind component.
RAC
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
engine start. Where a clearance delivery frequency is not listed, towards the departure runway, the ground or airport controller
the IFR clearance will normally be given after taxi authorization will issue a specific instruction to cross or hold short. If a specific
has been received. At several major aerodromes, departing VFR authorization to cross was not received, pilots should hold short
aircraft are required to contact “clearance delivery” before taxiing. and request authorization to cross the runway. Pilots may be
These frequencies, where applicable, are found in the COMM instructed to monitor the tower frequency while taxiing or until
Section of the CFS, for the appropriate aerodrome. a specific point, or they may be advised to “contact tower holding
short.” The term “holding short,” when used during the
4.2.3 Radio Checks communications transfer, is considered as a location and does
not require a readback.
If required, radio checks should, wherever possible, be requested
on frequencies other than ATC frequencies. Normally, the To emphasize the protection of active runways and to enhance
establishment of two-way contact with an agency is sufficient the prevention of runway incursions, ATC is required to obtain
to confirm that the radios are functioning properly. a readback of runway “hold” instructions. As a good operating
practice, taxi authorizations that contain the instructions “hold”
or “hold short” should be acknowledged by the pilot by providing
4.2.4 Requests for Push-back or Power-back
a readback or repeating the hold point.
Since controllers may not be in a position to see all obstructions
Examples of “hold” instructions that should be read back:
an aircraft may encounter during push-back or power-back,
clearance for this manoeuvre will not be issued by the tower. HOLD or HOLD ON (runway number or taxiway);
Pilots are cautioned that it is their responsibility to ensure that HOLD (direction) OF (runway number); or
push-back or power-back can be accomplished safely prior to
initiating aircraft movement. HOLD SHORT OF (runway number, or taxiway).
Reminder: In order to reduce frequency congestion, readback
4.2.5 Taxi Information of ATC taxi instructions, other than those listed above, is not
Taxi authorization should be requested on the ground control required in accordance with CAR 602.31(1)(a); such instructions
frequency. At locations where a “Clearance Delivery” frequency are simply acknowledged. With the increased simultaneous use
is listed, pilots should obtain their IFR clearance or a VFR code of more than one runway, however, instructions to enter, cross,
where applicable on this frequency prior to contacting ground backtrack or line up on any runway should also, as a good
control. Where no “Clearance Delivery” frequency is listed, the operating practice, be acknowledged by a readback.
IFR clearance will normally be relayed by ground control before Example:
or after taxi authorization has been issued. If no flight plan has
An aircraft is authorized to backtrack a runway to the holding
been filed, the pilot should inform the tower “Clearance Delivery”,
bay and to report clear when in the holding bay.
where available, or ground control of the nature of the flight on
initial contact, such as “local VFR” or “proceeding VFR to Pilot: CHARLIE FOXTROT ALFA BACKTRACKING
(destination)”. RUNWAY TWO FIVE AND WILL REPORT IN
THE HOLDING BAY.
Pilot: WINNIPEG GROUND, AZTEC GOLF JULIETT
RAC
VICTOR HOTEL AT HANGAR NUMBER THREE, NOTE:
REQUEST TAXI–IFR EDMONTON EIGHT To avoid causing clutter on controllers’ situation displays, pilots
THOUSAND. should adjust their transponders to “STANDBY” while taxiing
and should not switch them to “ON” (or “NORMAL”) until
Ground control: AZTEC GOLF JULIETT VICTOR HOTEL,
immediately before takeoff.
W I N N I PEG GROU N D, RU N WAY
(number), WIND (in magnetic degrees The tower may instruct aircraft to “line up and wait.” Controllers
and knots), ALTIMETER (four-digit group will issue the name of the runway intersection or taxiway with
giving the altimeter in inches of mercury), the authorization if the line-up position is not at the threshold
TAXI VIA (runway or other specific point, of the departing runway. When more than one entry point for
route), (other information, such as traffic, the same runway is in use, ATC will also specify the runway
airport conditions), (CRFI, RSC, or RVR entry point with the instruction to line up at the threshold.
when applicable), CLEARANCE ON
REQUEST. 4.2.5.1 Oblique Angle Intersection Use
Pilot: GOLF JULIETT VICTOR HOTEL. To mitigate the risk of runway incursions, tower controllers will
Under no circumstances may a taxiing aircraft, whether not permit aircraft to use oblique angle intersections (including
proceeding to or from the active runway, taxi onto an active taxiways or intersecting runways) to access an active runway if
runway unless specifically authorized to do so. the departure threshold and final approach are not visible to the
flight crew, except under the following circumstances:
Upon receipt of a normal taxi authorization, a pilot is expected
to proceed to the taxi-holding position for the runway assigned (a) There are no other routes to access the runway without
for takeoff. If a pilot is required to cross any runway while taxiing having to taxi or backtrack onto an active runway; or
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(b) There is a non-routine situation that requires the use of 4.2.7.1 Glide Path Signal Protection Procedures
oblique angle intersections because no practical alternative The ILS signal will only be protected under the conditions
exists. This may include a MEDEVAC flight, a closed taxiway, described below.
a disabled aircraft, or disabled vehicles.
A controller will protect the glide path signal when:
4.2.5.2 Best Practices for Pilots (a) The ceiling is less than 1 000 ft or visibility is less than
A collaborative approach by the aviation industry will help three miles, or both; and
mitigate the risk of collisions from runway incursions. (b) The arriving aircraft is inside the FAF on an ILS approach.
At uncontrolled aerodromes, pilots are encouraged to avoid
NOTE:
using oblique angle intersections that limit their ability to see
At uncontrolled aerodromes, aircraft manoeuvring on the ground
the active runway threshold and final approach. At controlled
may enter ILS critical areas during taxi, takeoff or landing.
aerodromes, pilots are encouraged to avoid requesting to use
oblique angle intersections, except when such use can be permitted
by tower controllers. 4.2.8 Take-off Clearance
When ready for takeoff, the pilot shall request a take-off clearance
4.2.6 Taxi Holding Positions and should include the runway number. Upon receipt of the
Authorization must be obtained before leaving a taxi holding take-off clearance, the pilot shall acknowledge it and take off
position, or where a holding position marking is not visible or without delay, or inform ATC if unable to do so.
has not been established, before proceeding closer than 200 feet Example:
from the edge of the runway in use. At airports where it is not
possible to comply with this provision, taxiing aircraft are to Pilot: TOWER, JULIETT GOLF TANGO READY FOR
remain at a sufficient distance from the runway in use to ensure DEPARTURE, RUNWAY THREE SIX.
that a hazard is not created to arriving or departing aircraft. Tower: JULIETT GOLF TANGO, (any special information
such as hazards, obstructions, turn after takeoff,
4.2.7 Taxiway Holding Positions During wind information if required, etc.), CLEARED FOR
Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) Operations TAKEOFF RUNWAY THREE SIX (or JULIETT
GOLF TANGO, FROM GOLF, CLEARED FOR
It is imperative that aircraft do not proceed beyond taxiway TAKEOFF RUNWAY THREE SIX).
holding signs at controlled airports until cleared by ATC. Aircraft
proceeding beyond the taxiway holding position signs may enter Pilot: JULIETT GOLF TANGO.
electronically sensitive areas and cause dangerous interference Pilots may request to use the full length of the runway for takeoff
to the glide path or localizer signals. In Canada, holding position at any time. If the runway is to be entered at an intersection and
signs and holding position markings normally indicate the back tracking is required, pilots should indicate their intentions
boundaries of electronically sensitive areas, and provide safe and obtain a clearance for the manoeuvre before entering the
obstruction clearance distances from landing runways. runway.
RAC
When a controlled airport is operating under CAT II/III weather Pilots may request, or the controller may suggest, takeoff using
conditions, or its CAT II/III operations plan is in effect, pilots only part of a runway. The pilot’s request will be approved,
are to observe CAT II or III mandatory holding position signs. provided noise abatement procedures, traffic, and other
When a controlled airport is not operating under CAT II/III conditions permit. If suggested by the controller, the available
weather conditions, or its LVOP is not in effect, pilots need not length of the runway will be stated. It is the pilot’s responsibility
abide by the CAT II or III taxiway holding positions and are to ensure that the portion of the runway to be used will be adequate
expected to taxi to the normal taxiway holding position markings, for the take-off run.
unless advised otherwise by ATC.
To expedite movement of airport traffic and achieve spacing
At uncontrolled aerodromes, pilots awaiting takeoff should not between arriving and departing aircraft, take-off clearance may
proceed beyond the holding position signs or holding position include the word “immediate.” In such cases, “immediate” is
markings until there is no risk of collision with landing, taxiing used for the purpose of air traffic separation. On acceptance of
or departing aircraft. the clearance, the aircraft shall taxi onto the runway and take
off in one continuous movement. If, in the pilot’s opinion,
compliance would adversely affect their operations, the pilot
should refuse the clearance. Pilots planning a static takeoff (i.e.
a full stop after “lined up” on the runway), or a delay in takeoff,
should indicate this when requesting take-off clearance. ATC
will specify the name of the taxiway or intersection with the
clearance for takeoff from a taxiway or runway intersection.
When more than one entry point for the same runway is in use,
ATC will also specify the threshold as the point from which the
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take-off run will commence for those aircraft departing from 4.2.10 Departure Procedures - No Radio (NORDO)
the threshold. A controller may not issue a clearance that would Aircraft
result in a deviation from established noise abatement procedures
Before proceeding to any portion of the manoeuvring area of a
or wake turbulence separation minima.
controlled airport, it is the pilot’s responsibility to inform the
control tower of his/her intentions and make appropriate
4.2.8.1 Air Traffic Control (ATC) Phraseology When a arrangements for visual signals.
Runway Is Temporarily Shortened Due to
Construction NOTE:
Whenever the length of a runway has been temporarily shortened Before operating within a control zone with Class C airspace, a
due to construction, tower controllers will use the word clearance shall be obtained from the control tower.
“shortened” immediately following the runway number for all
A pilot should remain continuously alert for visual signals from
line-up and take-off clearances.
the control tower.
NOTE: An aircraft should remain at least 200 ft from the edge of any
These changes do not transfer pilot responsibility to the controller, runway where holding position markings or signs are not visible
but they do ensure that changes in runway length due to or have not been established unless a clearance for takeoff or to
construction are communicated as an additional layer of safety. cross the runway has been received.
Example: When stopped by a red light, a pilot must wait for a further
clearance before proceeding.
Tower Line up Clearance: GOLF JULIET ECHO TANGO
LINE UP RUNWAY ONE-SIX When ready for takeoff by day, the pilot may attract the attention
SHORTENED of the airport controller by turning the aircraft toward the tower.
Acknowledgement of Visual Signals – pilot shall, where practical,
4.2.8.2 Clearance for Aborting a Takeoff acknowledge all clearances and instructions received by visual
Aborting a takeoff is an emergency procedure used by a pilot signals by day, by full movement of rudder or ailerons, whichever
when continuing the takeoff would present a grave hazard to can be seen most easily (such movement should be repeated at
the aircraft. A controller-initiated aborted takeoff is an extreme least three times in succession), or by taxiing the aircraft to the
measure used only where no clear alternative exists. authorized position.
Example:
4.2.11 Visual Signals
Tower: ALPHA BRAVO CHARLIE, ABORT ABORT.
Visual signals used by the tower and their meanings are as follows:
ALPHA BRAVO CHARLIE, ABORT ABORT
(reason) Table 4.2—Visuals Signals to Aircraft on the Ground
RAC
Unless otherwise advised by ATC, pilots do not require permission
to change from tower frequency once clear of the control zone 2 STEADY GREEN LIGHT Cleared for takeoff.
and should not request release from this frequency or report
SERIES OF RED Taxi clear of landing area
clear of the zone when there is considerable frequency congestion. 3 FLASHES in use.
When practicable, it is recommended that a pilot of a departing
aircraft monitor tower frequency until 10 NM from the control 4 STEADY RED LIGHT Stop.
zone. Return to starting point
5 FLASHING WHITE LIGHT
on airport.
VFR flights will not normally be released from tower frequency
Advises vehicles and
while operating within the control zone. Once outside control BLINKING RUNWAY
6 LIGHTS
pedestrians to vacate
zones, or when departing from an uncontrolled aerodrome runways immediately.
where an MF has been assigned, beyond the range within which
MF procedures apply, pilots should monitor frequency 126.7 MHz.
4.2.12 Departure Procedures – Receiver
Only (RONLY) Aircraft
The procedures which apply to aircraft without radio also apply
to aircraft equipped with receiver only, except that an airport
controller may request the pilot to acknowledge a transmission
in a specific manner. After the initial acknowledgement, no
further acknowledgement, other than compliance with clearances
and instructions, is necessary, unless otherwise requested by
the controller.
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4.3 TRAFFIC CIRCUITS — tower. (See RAC 1.3 for ATIS information and refer to RAC 5.8
CONTROLLED AERODROMES for arrival procedures in Class C airspace, other than a
control zone.)
The following procedures apply to all aerodromes at which a
control tower is in operation.
4.4.1 Initial Contact
The traffic circuit consists of the crosswind leg, downwind leg,
base leg and final approach leg. Pilots must establish and maintain radio communications with
the appropriate control tower prior to operating within any
Figure 4.1—Standard Left-Hand Traffic Circuit control zone served by an operational control tower. Also, if the
control zone is Class B or C airspace, the appropriate clearance
must be received from the controlling agency prior to entry.
When practical, it is recommended that the pilot make initial
contact at least 5 minutes prior to requiring clearance or entering
the zone.
taking into account aircraft performance, wind and/or runway other portion of the circuit.
length. When an aircraft is cleared for a right-hand approach while a
Pilots of NORDO and RONLY aircraft, who have made specific left-hand circuit is in effect, it shall be flown so as to join the
arrangements to operate within the control zone (RAC 4.4.5 circuit on the right-hand downwind leg, or join directly into the
and RAC 4.4.6), should approach the circuit from the upwind right-hand base leg, as cleared by the airport controller.
side, join crosswind at circuit height and, taking due account of Pilot: KELOWNA TOWER, CESSNA FOXTROT ALFA
other traffic, join the circuit on the downwind leg. Pilots are BRAVO CHARLIE, ONE FIVE MILES NORTH,
cautioned to remain clear of the approach and/or departure path SIX THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET VFR,
of the active runway when joining the circuit (see Figure 4.1). REQUEST LANDING INSTRUCTIONS.
Flights which are not in communication with the tower shall,
at all times, be on the alert for visual signals. Pilots are reminded Tower: CESSNA FOXTROT ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE,
that below 3 000 ft AGL and within 10 NM of a controlled KELOWNA TOWER, RUNWAY (number), WIND
aerodrome, aircraft shall not be operated at speeds greater than (direction in degrees magnetic, speed in knots),
200 KIAS. However, where the minimum safe speed of the aircraft ALTIMETER (4-digit group in inches), (other
is greater than 200 KIAS, the aircraft may be operated at the pertinent instructions or information if deemed
minimum safe speed (CAR 602.32). necessary), CLEARED TO THE CIRCUIT or
CLEARED TO LEFT BASE LEG or CLEARED
4.4 ARRIVAL PROCEDURES — STRAIGHT-IN APPROACH.
CONTROLLED AIRPORTS Pilot: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE.
If ATIS is available, all arrivals shall monitor this frequency to
obtain the basic aerodrome information prior to contacting the
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When a pilot has received current landing information from 4.4.3 Landing Clearance
the tower or the ATIS broadcast, initial clearance may be requested
At controlled airports, a pilot must obtain landing clearance
as follows:
prior to landing. Normally, the airport controller will initiate
Pilot: VICTORIA TOWER, CESSNA FOXTROT ALFA landing clearance without having first received the request from
BRAVO CHARLIE (aircraft position), ALTITUDE, the aircraft; however, should this not occur, the onus remains
CHECK LANDING INFORMATION (or) WITH upon the pilot to request such clearance in sufficient time to
INFORMATION (ATIS code). REQUEST accommodate the operating characteristics of the aircraft being
CLEARANCE TO THE CIRCUIT (or other type of flown. NORDO and RONLY aircraft should be considered as
approach). intending to land when they join and conform to the traffic
circuit. Landing clearance will normally be given when an aircraft
Once established in the circuit as cleared, the pilot is to advise
is on final approach. If landing clearance is not received, the
the tower accordingly.
pilot should, except in case of emergency, pull up and make
Pilot: TOWER, ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE DOWNWIND. another circuit.
Tower: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE NUMBER (approach Pilot: TOWER, ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE LANDING
sequence number). If not Number 1, the tower will CLEARANCE RUNWAY TWO SIX.
give the type, position and colour if significant, of
Tower: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE, CLEARED TO LAND
aircraft to follow and other instructions or
RUNWAY TWO SIX.
information.
Pilot: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE.
Pilot: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE.
Controllers may, on occasion, authorize ground traffic to cross
Common ATC Phraseologies: the landing runway after a landing clearance has been issued.
FOLLOW (aircraft type) NOW ON BASE LEG. Any such authorization by ATC is given with the assurance that
the runway will be clear of conflicting traffic at the time the
EXTEND DOWNWIND.
arriving aircraft crosses the landing threshold. When it appears
WIDEN APPROACH. that the runway may not be clear for landing, the pilot will be
advised to “CONTINUE APPROACH, POSSIBLE PULL-UP.”
VFR Holding Procedures When a “pull-up” is necessary (before or after the landing
When it is required by traffic, VFR flights may be asked to clearance has been issued), the pilot shall abandon the approach
ORBIT visually over a geographic location, VFR checkpoint and make another circuit.
(when these are published in the CFS or VTA charts) until they Tower: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE, TRAFFIC STILL ON
can be cleared to the airport. If the request is not acceptable, RUNWAY, PULL UP AND GO AROUND.
pilots should inform ATC and state their intentions.
Common ATC Phraseologies:
Pilot: TORONTO TOWER, CESSNA FOXTROT ALFA
BRAVO CHARLIE, OVER PORT CREDIT AT CAUTION, POSSIBLE TURBULENCE FROM
THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET WITH LANDING (aircraft type and position).
RAC
INFORMATION ROMEO. MAKE LEFT/RIGHT THREE SIX ZERO.
Tower: CESSNA FOXTROT ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE, MAKE FULL-STOP LANDING.
TORONTO TOWER, ORBIT THE FOUR STACKS,
ANTICIPATE A FIVE MINUTE DELAY, TRAFFIC CONTACT TOWER/GROUND ON (frequency)
IS A CESSNA ONE SEVEN TWO OVER THE WHEN OFF RUNWAY/ NOW.
FOUR STACKS, LAST REPORTED AT TWO The “cleared for the option” procedure has been introduced to
THOUSAND FEET. give a pilot the option to make touch-and-gos, low approach,
The pilot is expected to proceed to the FOUR STACKS, orbit missed approach, stop-and-go, or a full stop landing. This
within visual contact of the checkpoint and be prepared to proceed procedure will normally be used during light traffic conditions.
to the airport immediately upon receipt of a further clearance. Pilot: TOWER, ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE, DOWNWIND
Left turns are recommended as terrain and collision avoidance RUNWAY TWO SEVEN, REQUEST THE OPTIOn.
are the pilot’s responsibilities.
Tower: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE, CLEARED FOR THE
Tower: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE, REPORT LEFT BASE OPTION RUNWAY TWO SEVEN.
FOR RUNWAY TWO FOUR LEFT. CLEARED TO
THE CIRCUIT.
Pilot: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE DEPARTING THE FOUR
STACKS AT THIS TIME, WILL REPORT LEFT
BASE TO RUNWAY TWO FOUR LEFT; or
Pilot: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE
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A clearance for multiple touch-and-gos permits the pilot to clearing landing runways onto taxiways or other runways, pilots
perform more than one touch-and-go during a single pass along should exercise good airmanship by continuing to taxi well clear
the runway without stopping. The procedure is intended for of the hold position while contacting ground control to obtain
student pilots training with an instructor and will only be taxi clearance. This is to prevent aircraft from blocking a runway
authorized during light traffic conditions. exit to following aircraft. If unable to establish contact with
ground control, pilots should stop and not cross any runway
Pilot: TOWER, ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE, DOWNWIND
without receiving ATC authorization.
RUNWAY TWO SEVEN, REQUEST MULTIPLE
TOUCH-AND-GOS. Tower: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE (instructions for leaving
runway), CONTACT GROUND (specific frequency).
Tower: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE, CLEARED MULTIPLE
TOUCH-AND-GOS, RUNWAY TWO SEVEN. Towers will normally provide the aircraft down time only when
requested by the pilot.
4.4.3.1 Air Traffic Control (ATC) Phraseology When a Normally, aircraft will not be changed to ground control until
Runway Is Temporarily Shortened Due to off the active runway or runways.
Construction
Tower: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE, TAXI TO (apron or parking
Whenever the length of a runway has been temporarily shortened
area)(any special instructions such as routing,
due to construction, tower controllers will use the word
traffic, cautionary or warning regarding construction
“shortened” immediately after the runway number on initial
or repair on the manoeuvring areas).
contact with arrivals and for all landing clearances.
4.4.5 Arrival Procedures – No Radio (NORDO)
NOTES:
Aircraft
1. These changes do not transfer pilot responsibility to the
Before operating into a controlled aerodrome, pilots shall contact
controller, but they do ensure that changes in runway length
the control tower, inform the tower of their intentions and make
due to construction are communicated as an additional
arrangements for clearance through visual signals.
layer of safety.
2. For repetitive operations (ex. circuits), ATC will use the NOTE:
term “shortened” only for the first arrival/departure Before operating within a control zone with Class C airspace, a
clearance. clearance shall be obtained from the control tower.
Example: Pilots should remain continuously alert for visual signals from
the control tower.
Tower landing clearance: GOLF JULIET ECHO TANGO
CLEARED TO LAND RUNWAY Traffic Circuit – The pilot should approach the traffic circuit
ONE-SIX SHORTENED from the upwind side of the runway, join crosswind at circuit
height abeam a point approximately midway between each end
4.4.4 Taxiing of the runway and join the circuit on the downwind leg. While
A pilot must obtain an ATC authorization to taxi on the within the circuit the pilot should conform to the speed and size
of the circuit, maintaining a separation from aircraft ahead so
RAC
4.4.6 Arrival Procedures – Receiver Should the communications failure occur while operating outside
Only (RONLY) Aircraft of Class B, C, or D airspace precluding the pilot from obtaining
the appropriate clearance to enter or establishing radio contact,
The procedures which apply to aircraft without radio also apply
and if no nearby suitable aerodrome is available, the pilot may
to aircraft equipped with receiver only, except that an airport
enter the Class B, C or D airspace, continue under VFR, and
controller may request the pilot to acknowledge a transmission
shall carry out the remaining procedures listed in (a).
in a specified manner. After initial acknowledgement, no further
acknowledgement other than compliance with clearances and Should the communications failure occur and there is a suitable
instructions is necessary, unless otherwise requested by the aerodrome nearby at which the pilot wishes to land, it is
controller. recommended that the pilot comply with the established NORDO
arrival procedure outlined in RAC 4.4.5.
4.4.7 Visual Signals Pilots operating VFR in either Class E or G airspace may follow
Visual signals used by the tower and their meanings are as follows: the procedures in (a) even though there is no intention to enter
Class B, C, or D airspace.
Table 4.3—Visuals Signals to Aircraft in Flight
4.4.9 Operations on Intersecting Runways
STEADY GREEN
1 LIGHT Cleared to land. ATC procedures allow for sequential and/or simultaneous
Give way to other aircraft
operations on intersecting runways. Their intent is to increase
2 STEADY RED LIGHT and continue circling. airport traffic capacity, thus reducing delays and saving fuel.
These operations differ only in the controllers’ application of
Return for landing. ATC procedures; ATC advisories will specify the type of
SERIES OF GREEN (This shall be followed at
3 FLASHES the proper time by a steady operation(s) in progress.
green light.) Sequential Operations: Sequential operations do not permit
SERIES OF RED controllers to allow either an arriving aircraft to cross the arrival
4 FLASHES Airport unsafe; do not land.
threshold or a departing aircraft to commence its takeoff roll
until certain conditions are met.
Whether by day or night and
THE FIRING OF A RED
notwithstanding previous For an arriving aircraft (Figure 4.2) the conditions are as follows:
5 PYROTECHNICAL instructions, means do not
LIGHT (see NOTE) (a) the preceding departing aircraft has:
land for the time being.
(i) passed the intersection, or
NOTE:
Military control towers only. (ii) is airborne and has turned to avoid any conflict;
(b) the preceding arriving aircraft has:
Acknowledgement of Visual Signals – A pilot shall, where
practicable, acknowledge all clearances and instructions received. (i) passed the intersection, or
Signals may be acknowledged as follows: (ii) completed its landing roll and will hold short of the
RAC
(a) distinct rocking of aircraft in flight; intersection (i.e. stopped or at taxi speed), or
(b) at night, by a single flash of a landing light. (iii) completed its landing roll and turned off the runway.
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For a departing aircraft (Figure 4.3) the sequential conditions Conditions for Conduct of LAHSO
are listed below: LAHSO will no be authorized:
(a) the preceding departing aircraft (a) if thunderstorms, turbulence, wind shear or other conditions
(i) has passed the intersection; or exist that would adversely affect the restricted aircraft’s
ability to hold short after landing;
(ii) is airborne and has turned to avoid any conflict.
(b) when an RSC NOTAM indicates that a runway is wet or
(b) the preceding arriving aircraft has
has contamination present;
(i) passed the intersection;
(c) when weather reports indicate that precipitation is occurring;
(ii) completed its landing roll and will hold short of the or
intersection (i.e. is stopped or at taxi speed); or
(d) any time precipitation is observed by ATS personnel or
(iii) completed its landing roll and turned off the runway. reported by an aircraft.
Figure 4.3—Departing Aircraft LAHSO may be carried out under the following conditions:
(a) the LDA, measured from the threshold or displaced threshold
to 200 ft short of the nearest edge of the runway being
intersected must be published in the CAP and in the CFS.
ATC shall also broadcast LAHSO advisories, including
LDAs, through an ATIS or voice advisory, well in advance
of the final approach descent;
(b) the weather minima of no less than:
(i) 1000-ft ceiling, and
(ii) 3 SM visibility.
(c) a maximum of:
(i) 25 kt crosswind, and
(ii) 5 kt tailwind.
(d) runway must be dry for LAHSO to be carried out.
Simultaneous Operations: Simultaneous operations differ
(e) When conducting LAHSO, pilots need to ensure that their
from sequential operations in the application of ATC procedures.
The procedures for simultaneous use of intersecting runways aircraft can be stopped prior to the hold line of the intersecting
are applied only between two arrivals or an arrival and a runway specified by ATC, as depicted in Figure 4.7. The
departure. Air traffic controllers will permit an arriving aircraft hold point for an intersecting runway is indicated by:
to cross the runway threshold or a departing aircraft to begin (i) hold lines, which are perpendicular to the landing
its takeoff roll provided one of the aircraft has accepted a clearance runway’s centreline, 200 ft prior to the nearest edge
RAC
to land and hold short of the intersecting runways (Figure 4.4). of the intersecting runway, as shown in Figure 4.8;
These operations are known as land and hold short operations (ii) red and white mandatory instruction signs, as shown
(LAHSO). in Figure 4.8; and
General (iii) where provided, flashing land and hold short lights,
LAHSO is an air traffic control procedure that requires pilot as shown in Figure 4.8.
participation. At an airport with a control tower, ATC may clear
Figure 4.7—Landing Distance Available
a pilot to land and hold short of an intersecting runway. A pilot and Hold Lines for LAHSO
may only accept a LAHSO clearance if they determine that the
aircraft can safely land and stop within the available landing
distance.
The PIC has complete authority to accept or decline a LAHSO LD
A
clearance. The PIC must decline a LAHSO clearance if they
believe it would compromise safety.
(a) runway must be dry (no wet conditions or contaminants LD
A
are visible from the tower or reported by a competent person) LDA
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Figure 4.8—LAHSO Visual Aid Configuration Figure 4.4—Aircraft with Hold-short Clearance
intersected runway
07-25 07-25
LAHSO lights
RAC
700-057—Global Reporting Format (GRF) for Runway Surface
Conditions: Guidance for Flight Operations, Appendix E.
Aircraft Stop Groups
NOTE:
(a) In order to facilitate ATC management of LAHSO, aircraft
LAHSO are not not authorized if thunderstorms, turbulence,
are categorized into groups according to their required
wind shear or other conditions exist that would adversely affect
stopping distances. ATC cannot clear an aircraft for LAHSO
the restricted aircraft’s ability to hold short after landing.
if the stopping distance required for the aircraft’s stop group
is greater than the landing distance available (LDA).
(b) The stopping distances for aircraft stop groups are indicated
in Table 4.4.
— Dry Runway
Group 1 1 650 ft
Group 2 3 000 ft
Group 3 4 500 ft
Group 4 6 000 ft
Group 5 8 000 ft
Group 6 8 400 ft
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(c) These stopping distances are based on ISA conditions for objective in HIRO is to optimize approach spacing. This can be
sea-level runways. For higher airport elevations, the distances best achieved when pilots reach and adhere to assigned speeds
are adjusted for pressure altitude. An aircraft’s grouping is as soon as practicable.
such that its normal stopping distance is approximately
Effective participation in HIRO is achieved by satisfying the
50% of the available stopping distance.
following key elements.
NOTE:
Key elements for arrivals:
Pilots remain responsible for ensuring that the LDA is sufficient
for the aircraft to safely come to a stop. For more information (a) The pilot’s objective should be to achieve minimum ROT,
on the calculation of operational landing distance, see AC 700- within the normally accepted landing and braking
057—Global Reporting Format for Runway Surface Conditions: performance of the aircraft, by targeting the earliest suitable
Guidance for Flight Operations, Appendix E. exit point and applying the right deceleration rate so that
the aircraft leaves the runway as expeditiously as possible
General Provisions at the nominated exit.
(a) All pilots will be advised that simultaneous LAHSO are in (b) The expected runway exit point to achieve minimum ROT
progress. should be nominated during approach briefing. It is better,
in terms of ROT, to select an exit you know you can make,
(b) Controllers will issue appropriate traffic information. rather than choose an earlier one, miss it, and then roll
(c) ATC must include specific directions to hold short of an slowly to the next available exit.
intersecting runway (e.g. “Cleared to land Runway 27, hold (c) Upon landing, pilots should exit the runway without delay.
short of Runway 36.”). Pilots, in accepting the clearance,
must read back “Cleared to land Runway 27, hold short of (d) High-speed exits have specific maximum design speeds.
Runway 36.” Having accepted the hold-short clearance, These speeds may be available through the appropriate
pilots are obligated to remain 200 ft short of the closest edge airport authority.
of the runway being intersected.
Key elements for departures:
(d) If, for any reason, a pilot is unsure of being able to comply
(a) On receipt of a line-up clearance, pilots should ensure that
with a hold-short clearance, the pilot must advise ATC
they are able to line up on the runway as soon as the preceding
immediately that they cannot accept the clearance; it is far
aircraft has commenced its takeoff roll.
better to be safe than sorry.
(b) ATC will expect aircraft to enter the runway at a suitable
(e) If a rejected landing becomes necessary after accepting a
angle to quickly line-up on the centreline and, when possible,
LAHSO clearance, the pilot must maintain safe separation
continue in to a rolling takeoff when cleared. Pilots should
from other aircraft and vehicles and notify ATC as soon as
ensure that they are able to commence the takeoff roll
possible.
immediately when a takeoff clearance is issued.
4.4.10 High Intensity Runway Operations (HIRO) (c) Aircraft that need to enter the runway at right angles, to
backtrack, or to use the full length of the runway will require
Several of Canada’s airports rank among North America’s busiest extra time on the runway. Therefore, pilots should notify ATC
RAC
in total aircraft movements. HIRO, as a concept, have evolved before arriving at the holding area so that the controller can
from procedures developed by high density terminals in North re-sequence departures to provide the extra time.
America and Europe. It is intended to increase operational
efficiency and maximize the capacity at those airports where it (d) Cockpit checks should be completed prior to line-up, and
is employed through the use of disciplined procedures applied any checks requiring completion on the runway should be
by both pilots and air traffic controllers. HIRO is intended to kept to a minimum. If extra time is required on the runway,
minimize the occurrence of overshoots that result from slow- ATC should be informed before the aircraft arrives at the
rolling and/or slow-clearing aircraft and offers the prospective holding area so that the controller can re-sequence departures
of reducing delays overall, both on the ground and in the air. In to provide the extra time.
its fullest application, HIRO enables ATC to apply minimum
spacing to aircraft on final approach to achieve maximum runway
utilization.
The tactical objective of HIRO is to minimize runway occupancy
times (ROT) for both arriving and departing aircraft, consistent
with both safety and passenger comfort. Effective participation
in HIRO results when the pilot of an arriving aircraft exits the
runway expeditiously, allowing the following arriving aircraft
to cross the threshold with a minimum time interval. In the case
of an arrival and a subsequent departure, the arriving pilot clears
the runway in a minimum ROT, permitting a departure before
the next arrival crosses the threshold. The air traffic controller’s
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4.5 AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS— although an AWOS (or LWIS) broadcast constitutes an additional
UNCONTROLLED AERODROMES source of accurate, up-to-the-minute weather information, it
does not constitute an official weather observation (METAR
4.5.1 General or SPECI).
An uncontrolled aerodrome is an aerodrome without a control The wind and altimeter data obtained from an AWOS (or LWIS)
tower, or one where the tower is not in operation. There is no via a VGM broadcast can be used to conduct an instrument
substitute for alertness while in the vicinity of an uncontrolled approach. Therefore, at aerodromes where RAAS is provided
aerodrome. It is essential that pilots be aware of, and look out and where AWOS (or LWIS) weather information is also available
for, other traffic, and exchange traffic information when via a VGM broadcast, the wind and altimeter data may be omitted
approaching or departing from an uncontrolled aerodrome, from the RAAS if the pilot indicates in the initial call to the FSS
particularly since some aircraft may not have communication that the weather information has already been obtained from
capability. To achieve the greatest degree of safety, it is essential the VGM broadcast. To avoid unnecessary frequency changes
that all radio-equipped aircraft monitor a common designated and to assist in reducing frequency congestion, it is desirable
frequency, such as the published MF or ATF, and follow the that pilots acquire this weather information prior to entering
reporting procedures specified for use in an MF area, while either the MF or ATF area and inform the flight service specialist
operating on the manoeuvring area or flying within an MF area that they have the wind and altimeter information. On start-up
surrounding an uncontrolled aerodrome. at such an aerodrome, it would be desirable to listen to the VGM
broadcast prior to taxiing.
MF area means an area in the vicinity of an uncontrolled
aerodrome for which an MF has been designated. The area The flight service specialist will advise pilots of below-minima
within which MF procedures apply at a particular aerodrome conditions reported in the current official METAR or SPECI.
is defined in the Aerodrome/Facility Directory Section of the This will ensure a common reference for pilots and ATS personnel
CFS, under the heading COMM. Normally, the MF area is a since IFR or SVFR authorization would then be required to
circle with a 5-NM radius capped at 3 000 ft AAE. operate within the control zone. Pilots will also be advised of
any other significant weather conditions reported in current
At uncontrolled aerodromes without a published MF or ATF, METAR, SPECI, SIGMET, AIRMET or PIREP, as appropriate,
the common frequency for the broadcast of aircraft position which may affect the safety of the flight. The flight service
and the intentions of pilots flying in the vicinity of that aerodrome specialist will provide, upon request, the complete current
is 123.2 MHz. METAR or SPECI for the location.
At aerodromes within an MF area, traffic information may be
exchanged by communicating with an FSS, CARS, UNICOM 4.5.2 Traffic Circuit Procedures —
operator, vehicle operator, or by a broadcast transmission. The Uncontrolled Aerodromes
VCS in conjunction with AAS is normally provided at aerodromes
The following procedures apply to all aircraft operating at
served by an FSS. Some uncontrolled aerodromes are indirectly
aerodromes where airport control service is not provided except
served by an FSS through an RCO and may provide RAAS. As
those aircraft following a standard instrument approach
flight service specialists may be located some distance from an
procedure. For procedures that apply to aircraft on a standard
aerodrome, it is essential that they be kept fully informed of
RAC
instrument approach, refer to RAC 9.0. Prior to joining a traffic
both aircraft and vehicle activity.
circuit, all pilots should announce their intentions (see RAC 4.5.6).
Other aerodromes are designated as having an ATF. At some All turns shall be to the left while operating in the circuit, unless
aerodromes with a control tower or FSS, an ATF is designated a right-hand circuit has been specified in the CFS.
for use when the air traffic facility is closed. If a radio-equipped
Pilots operating aircraft under IFR or VFR are expected to
vehicle is present at ATF aerodromes, pilots can contact the
approach and land on the active runway. The active runway is
vehicle operator directly on the ATF to ascertain that no vehicle-
a runway that other aircraft are using or are intending to use
aircraft conflict exists. Operators of such radio-equipped vehicles
for the purpose of landing or taking off. Should it be necessary
will also provide pilots with any other available information on
for aircraft to approach to, land on, or take off from a runway
runway status and presence of other aircraft or vehicles on the
other than the active runway, it is expected that the appropriate
runway.
communication between pilots and the ground station will take
There are some remote airports where a voice generator module place to ensure there is no conflict with other traffic. Some pilots
(VGM) connected to an AWOS (or LWIS) continuously broadcasts operating under VFR at many sites prefer to give commercial
weather information. An AWOS (or LWIS) broadcasts weather IFR and larger type of aircraft priority. This practice, however,
information that may differ from the aerodrome routine is a personal airmanship courtesy, and it should be noted that
meteorological report (METAR) or aviation selected special these aircraft do not establish any priority over other aircraft
weather report (SPECI) issued for the location. There may also operating VFR at that aerodrome.
be significant differences between broadcasts only a few minutes
apart. Transport Canada recognizes that for any given site at
any given time there can be only one official weather observation
(METAR or SPECI), whether from a human observer or an
automated station. As a result, it has been determined that
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Figure 4.6—Standard Left-Hand Circuit Pattern (g) For aerodromes within an MF area when airport advisory
information is not available: Aircraft should normally
approach the traffic circuit from the upwind side.
Alternatively, once the pilot has ascertained without any
doubt that there will be no conflict with other traffic entering
the circuit or established within it, the pilot may join the
circuit on the downwind leg (Figure 4.6), or as in subparagraph
(vi) above.
NOTE:
When an uncontrolled aerodrome lies within an MF area, the
pilot must follow the MF reporting procedures set out in
CAR 602.97 to 602.103, inclusive. (See RAC 4.5.4 and 4.5.7.)
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MF—UNICOM (AU) ltd hrs O/T tfc 122.75 5 NM When operating in accordance with VFR, or in accordance with
3100 ASL IFR but in VMC, pilots have sole responsibility for seeing and
avoiding other aircraft. Aural and visual alertness are required
to enhance safety of flight in the vicinity of uncontrolled
4.5.5 Aerodrome Traffic Frequency (ATF) aerodromes. At uncontrolled aerodromes for which an MF or
An Aerodrome Traffic Frequency (ATF) is normally designated ATF has been designated, certain reports shall be made by all
for active uncontrolled aerodromes that do not meet the criteria radio-equipped aircraft.
listed in RAC 4.5.4 for an MF. The ATF is established to ensure
that all radio-equipped aircraft operating on the ground or NOTE:
within the area are listening on a common frequency and Pilots operating VFR en route in uncontrolled airspace or VFR
following common reporting procedures. The ATF will normally on an airway should continuously monitor 126.7 MHz when
be the frequency of the UNICOM where one exists or 123.2 MHz not communicating on the MF or ATF.
where a UNICOM does not exist. Trained vehicle operators who Reports on either the MF or ATF have three formats:
possess a valid radiotelephone licence and authorized to do so,
can communicate with pilots using two-way communication (a) a directed transmission made to a ground station;
on the ATF and provide information such as: (b) a directed transmission made to a vehicle operator on the
(a) position of vehicles on the manoeuvring area; ATF; or
(b) position of other aircraft on the manoeuvring area; and (c) a broadcast transmission that is not directed to any particular
receiving station.
(c) runway condition, if known.
Whenever the CFS indicates that reports are to be made to a
The specific frequency, distance and altitude within which use ground station, the initial transmission should be made to the
of the ATF is required will be published in the CFS. station. To assist in reducing frequency congestion, pilots are
Example: encouraged to use the phrase “HAVE NUMBERS” on the initial
ATF – tfc 123.2 5 NM 5500 ASL call to a ground station (arrival or departure) to indicate that
they have received runway, wind and altimeter information from
Personnel providing Approach UNICOM service, can also advise the previous aerodrome advisory. When operating outside an
pilots on the ATF of the runway condition and position of vehicles MF area, and when frequency congestion prevents pilots from
or aircraft on the manoeuvring area. making their mandatory calls, it is their responsibility to remain
clear of the MF area until contact can be established with the
NOTE: FSS. If operating inside an MF area, the pilot should continue
Pilots may be able to communicate with either the UNICOM or as stated in previous radio transmissions.
the vehicle operator if radio-equipped, and coordinate their
arrival or departure while using normal vigilance to ensure safe Pilot: FREDERICTON RADIO, PIPER FOXTROT X-RAY
YANKEE ZULU. WE HAVE THE NUMBERS, SIX
RAC
operations. When communications cannot be established (no
reply or NORDO) or the status of the runway is unknown, it is MILES SOUTHWEST AT THREE THOUSAND
the pilot’s responsibility to visually ascertain the runway condition FIVE HUNDRED VFR. INBOUND FOR LANDING.
before landing or taking off. Should there be no acknowledgement of a directed transmission
to a ground station or a vehicle operator, reports shall be made in
The designation of an ATF is not limited to aerodromes only. the broadcast format unless the ground station or vehicle operator
An ATF may also be designated for use in certain areas—other subsequently establishes two-way contact, in which case pilots
than the area immediately surrounding an aerodrome—where shall resume communicating by directed transmission.
VFR traffic activity is high, and there is a safety benefit to ensuring
that all traffic monitor the same frequency. For example, an ATF Examples:
area could be established along a frequently flown corridor Directed: FREDERICTON RADIO, THIS IS PIPER
between two uncontrolled aerodromes. All aircraft operating FOXTROT X-RAY YANKEE ZULU BEACON
within the area, below a certain altitude, would be requested to INBOUND LANDING RUNWAY EIGHTEEN.
monitor and report intentions on one frequency. When such an or,
area is designated, it will be specified in an AIP Canada FREDERICTION VEHICLES, THIS IS PIPER
Supplement or in the CFS. FOXTROT X-RAY YANKEE ZULU…
Broadcast: FREDERICTON TRAFFIC, THIS IS PIPER
FOXTROT X-RAY YANKEE ZULU…
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4.5.7 Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Communication (f) Flying Through an MF Area (CAR 602.103)
Procedures at Uncontrolled Aerodromes (i) Report before entering the MF or ATF area and,
with Mandatory Frequency (MF) and where circumstances permit, shall do so at least
Aerodrome Traffic Frequency (ATF) Areas five minutes before entering the area, giving the
Radio-equipped Aircraft: The following reporting procedures aircraft’s position and altitude and the pilot-in-
shall be followed by the pilot-in-command of radio-equipped command’s intentions; and,
aircraft at uncontrolled aerodromes within an MF area and (ii) Report when clear of the MF or ATF area.
should also be followed by the pilot-in-command at aerodromes
with an ATF: NOTE:
(a) Listening Watch and Local Flying [CAR 602.97 (2)]Maintain In the interest of minimizing possible conflict with local traffic
a listening watch on the mandatory frequency specified for and minimizing radio congestion on the MF or ATF, pilots of
use in the MF area. This should apply to ATF areas as well. en-route VFR aircraft should avoid passing through MF or
ATF areas.
(b) Before Entering Manoeuvring Area [(CAR 602.99)] Report
the pilot-in-command’s intentions before entering the NORDO: NORDO aircraft will only be included as traffic to
manoeuvring area. other aircraft and ground traffic as follows:
(c) Departure (CAR 602.100) (a) Arrival: from five minutes before the ETA until ten minutes
(i) Before moving onto the take-off surface, report the after the ETA, and
pilot-in-command’s departure intentions on the MF (b) Departure: from just prior to the aircraft departing until
or ATF frequency. If a delay is encountered, broadcast ten minutes after the departure, or until the aircraft is
intentions and expected length of delay, then observed/reported clear of the MF area.
rebroadcast departure intentions prior to moving
onto the take-off surface; 4.5.8 Aircraft Without Two-Way Radio (No
(ii) Before takeoff, ascertain by radio on the MF or ATF Radio [NORDO]/ Receiver Only [RONLY])
frequency and by visual observation that there is no
likelihood of collision with another aircraft or a 4.5.8.1 Prior Arrangements
vehicle during takeoff; and,
Aircraft without a functioning two-way radio may operate on
(iii) After takeoff, report departing from the aerodrome the manoeuvring area or within the MF area associated with an
traffic circuit, and maintain a listening watch on uncontrolled aerodrome, provided:
the MF or ATF frequency until clear of the area.
(a) an FSS, a CARS, or an RCO through which RAAS is provided,
(d) Arrival (CAR 602.101) is located at the aerodrome and is operating at the time
(i) Report before entering the MF area and, where proposed for the operation; and
circumstances permit, shall do so at least five minutes (b) prior arrangements have been made, by telephone or in
before entering the area, giving the aircraft’s position, person, with the appropriate agency, FSS, CARS, or in the
altitude and estimated time of landing and the pilot-
RAC
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RAC
Hover taxi is the movement of a helicopter above the surface of Radio: CESSNA GOLF INDIA GOLF BRAVO, QUEBEC
an aerodrome, in ground effect, and at airspeeds less than RADIO, GO AHEAD.
approximately 20 knots of indicated airspeed (KIAS). The actual Pilot: QUEBEC RADIO, GOLF INDIA GOLF BRAVO, BY
height may vary; some helicopters require hover taxi above 25 ft OTTAWA AT FIVE EIGHT, FOUR THOUSAND FIVE
above ground level (AGL) to reduce ground effect turbulence or HUNDRED, VFR (or VFR OVER-THE-TOP),
up to approximately 125 ft AGL to provide clearance for cargo DESTINATION SUDBURY.
sling loads.
Air taxi is the movement of a helicopter above the surface of an NOTES:
aerodrome normally below 100 ft AGL. The pilot is solely 1. As shown in the example, it is important on initial contact
responsible for selecting an appropriate height and airspeed for that the pilot alerts the FIC to the fact that it is a VFR or
the operation being conducted and consistent with existing VFR-OTT position report and indicates the name of the
traffic and weather conditions. Pilots are cautioned of the location of the RCO followed by the letters R-C-O in a non-
possibility of the loss of visual references when conducting air phonetic form.
taxi operations. Because of the greater operating flexibility, an 2. The ETA destination or next reporting point may be
air taxi clearance at controlled aerodromes is to be expected included.
unless traffic conditions will not permit this mode of operation.
3. Under certain conditions position reports are required prior
When a helicopter is wheel-equipped and the pilot wishes to to entering the ADIZ when operating on a DVFR flight
taxi on the ground, air traffic control (ATC) should be informed plan or a defence flight itinerary.
when clearance is requested.
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Pilot Procedures
5.6 CONTROLLED VISUAL FLIGHT RULES
(CVFR) PROCEDURES (a) Obtain ATIS information (when available) prior to contacting
ATC.
Pilots intending to fly CVFR shall file a flight plan and obtain
an ATC clearance prior to entering Class B airspace. The ATC (b) Contact ATC on VFR advisory frequency (depicted on VTA
clearance will not normally be issued prior to takeoff unless the charts) prior to entry into Class C airspace and provide the
airspace within a control zone is Class B. The ATC clearance following information:
will normally be issued upon receipt of a position report filed (i) aircraft type and identification,
by the pilot upon reaching the last 1 000 feet altitude below the
(ii) position (preferably over a VFR checkpoint depicted
base of Class B or before entering laterally. This procedure is
on the VTA chart or a bearing and distance from it,
intended to ensure that the radio equipment is operating and to
otherwise another prominent reporting point or a
remind the pilots that, while outside of Class B airspace, ATC
RAC
VOR radial or VOR/DME fix),
separation is not provided and that they must maintain a vigilant
watch for other traffic. The ATC clearance will contain the (iii) altitude,
phrase “MAINTAIN (altitude) VFR”. (iv) destination and route, and
CVFR flights must be conducted in accordance with procedures (v) transponder code (if transponder equipped), and
designed for use by IFR flights, except when IFR weather ATIS (code) received.
conditions are encountered, the pilot of a CVFR flight must
avoid such weather conditions. This should be accomplished by: (c) Comply with ATC instructions received. Any ATC
instruction issued to VFR flights is based on the firm
(a) requesting an amended ATC clearance which will enable understanding that a pilot will advise ATC immediately if
the aircraft to remain in VFR weather conditions compliance with the instructions would result in not being
(b) requesting an IFR clearance if the pilot has a valid instrument able to maintain adequate terrain or obstacle clearance, or
rating and the aircraft is equipped for IFR flight. to maintain flight in accordance with VFR. If so advised,
ATC will issue alternate instructions.
(c) request special VFR if within a control zone.
ATC Procedures
If unable to comply with the preceding, ensure that the aircraft
is in VFR weather conditions at all times and leave Class B airspace (a) Identify the aircraft with ATS surveillance. (Pilots may be
horizontally or by descending. If the airspace is a control zone, required to report over additional fixes, or squawk ident on
land, at the aerodrome on which the control zone is based. In their transponder.) The provision of an effective ATS
both cases, inform ATC as soon as possible of the action taken. surveillance service is dependent upon communications
equipment capabilities and the adequacy of the surveillance-
displayed information. In the latter case, it may be difficult
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to maintain identification of aircraft which are not operating airborne collision avoidance system/traffic alert and collision
on specific tracks or routes (i.e. sightseeing, local training avoidance system (ACAS/TCAS) resolution advisory (RA), a
flights, etc.), and pilots will be advised when ATS surveillance warning from a ground proximity warning system (GPWS), or
service cannot be provided. a warning from an aircraft wind shear (WS) detection and
(b) Issue landing information on initial contact or shortly warning system (see MET 2.3). In these cases, the pilot shall
thereafter unless the pilot states that the appropriate ATIS inform ATC as soon as possible and obtain an amended clearance
information has been received. (as per CAR 602.31).
(c) Provide the aircraft with routing instructions or vectors 6.2 INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES (IFR)
whenever necessary. The pilot will be informed when FLIGHTS IN VISUAL METEOROLOGICAL
vectoring is discontinued except when transferred to a tower. CONDITIONS (VMC)
Occasionally, an aircraft may be held at established fixes
within Class C airspace to await a position in the landing A pilot may elect to conduct a flight in accordance with IFR in
sequence. VMC. Flights operating in accordance with IFR shall continue
in accordance with IFR, regardless of weather conditions. An
(d) Issue traffic information when two or more aircraft are held
IFR clearance provides separation between IFR aircraft in
at the same fix, or whenever in the controller’s judgement
controlled airspace only. Pilots operating IFR must be aware of
an ATS surveillance-observed target might constitute a
the need to provide their own visual separation from VFR aircraft
hazard to the aircraft concerned.
when operating in VMC and from any other aircraft when
(e) When required, conflict resolution will be provided between operating in uncontrolled airspace.
IFR and VFR aircraft, and upon request, between VFR
A pilot may cancel IFR, or close the IFR flight plan, provided
aircraft.
the aircraft is operating in VMC, is outside Class A or B airspace,
(f) Visual separation may be effected when the pilot reports and it is expected that the flight will not return to IMC. If the
sighting a preceding aircraft and is instructed to follow it. pilot closes the IFR flight plan or cancels IFR, ATC will discontinue
(g) Inform the pilot when ATS surveillance service is terminated, the provision of IFR control service.
except when the aircraft has been transferred to a tower. Refer to RAC Closing a Flight Plan, for information on the
requirement to submit an arrival report and on the provision of
6.0 INSTRUMENT FLIGHT alerting service upon closure or cancellation of IFR. Provided
the destination remains the same, a pilot may change an IFR
RULES (IFR) — GENERAL fight plan to a VFR fight plan without having to file a new flight
plan. ATS will, however, confirm the aircraft’s destination and
6.1 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL (ATC) ETA and obtain a search and rescue time from the pilot.
CLEARANCE
6.2.1 Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) Clearance
Air traffic control (ATC) clearance shall be obtained before
with Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Restrictions
takeoff from any point within controlled airspace or before
entering controlled airspace for flight under instrument flight ATC may issue an IFR clearance for an aircraft to depart, climb
RAC
rules (IFR) or during instrument meteorological conditions (IMC). or descend VFR until a specified time, altitude, or location
provided
According to Canadian Aviation Regulation (CAR) 602.31,
clearance received by a pilot must be read back to the controller, (a) the pilot requests it;
except in certain circumstances. When clearance is received on (b) the aircraft is outside Class A airspace;
the ground before departure from a controlled aerodrome and
a standard instrument departure (SID) is included in the (c) the aircraft is within Class B airspace at or below 12 500 ft
clearance, the pilot only needs to acknowledge receipt of the ASL or within Class C, D or E airspace; and
clearance by repeating the aircraft call sign and the transponder (d) the weather conditions permit.
code that was assigned. If there is an amendment to the altitude
Pilots are reminded that during such a VFR restriction they
contained in the SID, that altitude shall also be read back.
must provide their own separation, including wake turbulence
Whenever the controller requests a full readback, the pilot shall
separation, from other IFR aircraft as well as from the VFR
comply. Also, the pilot may, at any time, read back a clearance
traffic. Controllers normally issue traffic information concerning
in full to seek clarification.
other IFR aircraft, particularly in marginal weather conditions.
Whenever clearance is received and accepted by the pilot, the If compliance with the restriction is not possible, the pilot should
pilot shall comply with it. If the clearance cannot be accepted, immediately advise ATC and request an amended clearance.
the pilot shall immediately notify ATC because simple
acknowledgement of the clearance will be interpreted by the
controller as acceptance.
Pilots shall not deviate from a clearance except in an emergency
that necessitates immediate action, or in order to respond to an
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6.2.2 Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Release of an (b) maintain a listening watch on appropriate frequencies for
Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) Aircraft control messages or further clearances; acknowledge receipt
of any such messages by any means available, including the
When a delay is experienced in receiving an IFR departure
use of approved satellite voice equipment or the selective
clearance, a pilot may request approval to depart and maintain
use of the normal/standby functions of transponders;
VFR until an IFR clearance can be received. The conditions in
the subsection above also apply in this situation. If the request (c) attempt to contact any ATC facility or another aircraft,
for a VFR departure is approved, the pilot will be given a time, inform them of the difficulty, and request they relay the
altitude or location at which to contact ATC for an IFR clearance. information to the ATC facility with whom communications
Depending upon the reasons for the IFR departure clearance are intended;
delay, a VFR departure of an IFR flight may not be approved by (d) comply with the procedures specified by the Minister in
the IFR unit. In situations such as these, it may be desirable for the CAP and the CFS, except where specific instructions
the pilot to wait for the IFR departure clearance. to cover an anticipated communications failure have been
received from an ATC unit; and
6.3 EMERGENCIES AND EQUIPMENT
(e) attempt to contact the appropriate NAV CANADA ATS
FAILURES — INSTRUMENT FLIGHT
unit by means of a conventional cell or satellite phone, when
RULES (IFR)
all of the above attempts have failed.
RAC
his/her best judgment and is not required to land at an
6.3.2 Two-Way Communications Failure unauthorized airport, at an airport unsuitable for the type of
It is impossible to provide regulations and procedures applicable aircraft flown, or to land only minutes short of destination.
to all possible situations associated with a two-way communications
Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC): If the failure
failure. During a communications failure, when confronted by
occurs in IMC, or if the flight cannot be continued under VMC,
a situation not covered in the regulations, pilots are expected to
the pilot-in-command shall continue the flight according to the
exercise good judgment in whatever action they elect to take.
following:
The following procedures are the standard communications
failure procedures; however, they may be superseded by specific (a) Route
procedures that take precedence. For example, some missed (i) by the route assigned in the last ATC clearance
approach and SID procedures may have specific published received and acknowledged;
communications failure procedures.
(ii) if being vectored, by the direct route from the point
of communications failure to the fix, route, or airway
6.3.2.1 General
specified in the vector clearance;
Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, the pilot-in-command of
(iii) in the absence of an assigned route, by the route that
an aircraft that experiences a two-way communications failure
ATC has advised may be expected in a further
when operating in or cleared to enter controlled airspace under
clearance; or
IFR, or when operating in or cleared to enter Class B or C airspace
under VFR shall: (iv) in the absence of an assigned route or route that
ATC has advised may be expected in a further
(a) select the transponder to reply to Mode A/3 Code 7600
clearance, by the route filed in the flight plan.
interrogations, if the aircraft is transponder-equipped;
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(b) Altitude: At the highest of the following altitudes or FLs for depicted in the procedure, and intercepting the final
the route segment being flown: approach course for a straight-in approach; or
(i) the altitude(s) or FLs assigned in the last ATC (d) for an OPEN RNAV STAR, by flying the arrival as
clearance received and acknowledged; published, including any vertical and speed restraints
depicted in the procedure. The pilot is expected to
(ii) the minimum IFR altitude; or
delete the heading leg at the DTW, to initiate an auto-
(iii) the altitude or FL ATC has advised may be expected turn at the DTW and FACF and to intercept the final
in a further clearance. (The pilot shall commence approach course for a straight-in approach.
climb to this altitude/FL at the time or point specified
For f lights to the United States, communications failure
by ATC to expect further clearance/ altitude change.)
procedures are essentially the same, but it is the pilot’s
NOTES:
responsibility to consult the appropriate American publications.
1. The intent of this is that an aircraft that has experienced a Some instrument procedures do not include a procedure turn
communications failure will, during any segment of a flight, but include the statement “ATS SURVEILLANCE REQUIRED”
be flown at an altitude that provides the required obstacle as part of the procedure. The initial approach segment of these
clearance. instrument procedures is being provided by ATC vectors. Without
2. If the failure occurs while being vectored at a vectoring ATC vectoring, the instrument procedure may not have a
altitude that is lower than a published IFR altitude, the pilot published initial approach segment.
shall immediately climb to and maintain the appropriate Should an aircraft communications failure occur while the
minimum IFR altitude until arrival at the fix, route or airway aircraft is being vectored on one of these approaches, separately
specified in the clearance. or as part of a STAR, the pilot is expected to comply with the
(c) Descent for Approach: Maintain en route altitude to the communications failure procedure by selecting the transponder
navigation facility or the approach fix to be used for the to Mode A/3 Code 7600 immediately. Pilots should always be
IAP selected and commence an appropriate descent aware of the traffic situation. For example, ATC may have
procedure at whichever of the following times is the most indicated that your aircraft was second for an approach to
recent: Runway 06L; under these circumstances, the flight should be
continued along the route that normally would have been expected
(i) the ETA (ETA as calculated from take-off time plus
under vectoring. In some cases of communications failure, pilots
the estimated time en route filed or amended [with
may need to revert to dead reckoning navigation (DR) to the
ATC]);
final approach course. It is important to other aircraft and ATC
(ii) the ETA last notified to and acknowledged by ATC; for the aircraft experiencing a communications failure to continue
or the flight along a route that would permit the aircraft to conduct
(iii) the EAT last received and acknowledged. a straight-in approach and landing without unexpected
manoeuvring. Pilots are expected to exercise good judgment in
If failure occurs after you have received and acknowledged a these cases. Unexpected manoeuvres, such as turns away from
holding instruction, hold as directed and commence an the final approach course, may cause traffic disruptions and
instrument approach at the EAT or expected further clearance conflicts.
RAC
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RAC
as practicable. Pilots realizing that they are outside the airspace
The standard vertical separation minima is as follows:
protected for their approved track must notify the appropriate
FL 290 and below – 1 000 ft; ATC unit immediately.
above FL 290 – 2 000 ft.
6.4.6 Lateral Separation — Airways and Tracks
6.4.3 Vertical Separation Between Flight Levels In the low-level airspace, the airspace to be protected is the full
and Altitudes Above Sea Level (ASL) width of the airway as illustrated in RAC Low-Level Airways.
When the altimeter setting is less than 29.92 in. Hg, there will In the high-level airspace, all airspace is controlled within the
be less than 1 000 ft vertical separation between an aircraft flying Southern, Northern, and Arctic Control Areas. As a result, a
at 17 000 ft ASL with that altimeter setting and an aircraft flying high-level airway is “a prescribed track between specified radio
at FL 180, (with altimeter set at 29.92 in. Hg); therefore, the aids to navigation” and, thus, has no defined lateral dimensions.
lowest usable f light level will be assigned or approved in Therefore, the airspace to be protected for airways and/or tracks
accordance with the following table: in the high-level airspace is the same as that for low-level airways.
Altimeter Setting Lowest Usable Flight Level Along off-airway tracks the “airspace to be protected” is 45 NM
each side of that portion of the track which is beyond navigational
29.92 in. or higher FL 180
and signal coverage range.
29.91 in. to 28.92 in. FL 190
28.91 in. to 27.92 in. FL 200
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6.5.1 General
Visual separation is a means of separating IFR aircraft using
visual observation and is performed by an airport controller or
Additional airspace will be protected at and above FL 180 on by a pilot, when a pilot is assigned responsibility for separation.
the manoeuvring side of tracks that change direction by more Visual separation may be applied in a CZ or TCA at 12 500 ft
than 15˚ overhead navigation aids or intersections. It is expected ASL and below.
that pilots of aircraft operating below FL 180 will make turns
so as to remain within the normal width of airways or airspace
6.5.2 Speed Control Instructions on Departure
protected for off-airway tracks.
Visual departure separation procedures require airport controllers
Figure 6.2—Additional Airspace to consider aircraft performance, wake turbulence, closure rate,
to be Protected for Turns routes of flight and known weather conditions. Airport controllers
do not issue speed control instructions coincident with takeoff
clearances. In addition, there is no increase in the incidence of
speed control instructions issued by the departure controller.
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Example phraseology for pilot-applied visual departure 7.2 AUTOMATIC TERMINAL INFORMATION
separation: SERVICE (ATIS) BROADCASTS
Tower: AIRLINE ONE TWO THREE, TRAFFIC [position, If available, the basic aerodrome information should be obtained
type of aircraft, intentions, etc.] CONFIRM TRAFFIC from ATIS prior to requesting taxi clearance.
IN SIGHT?
Pilot: AIRLINE ONE TWO THREE, TRAFFIC IN SIGHT. 7.3 INITIAL CONTACT
Tower: AIRLINE ONE TWO THREE, MAINTAIN VISUAL On initial contact with ATC (clearance delivery or ground
SEPARATION [other information or instructions, as control), a pilot departing IFR should state the destination and
required] CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF. planned initial cruising altitude.
Pilot: AIRLINE ONE TWO THREE, MAINTAINING
VISUAL SEPARATION [read back additional
7.4 INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES (IFR)
instructions, as appropriate].
CLEARANCES
At locations where a “Clearance Delivery” frequency is listed,
Visual separation is discontinued when either aircraft is observed
pilots should obtain their IFR clearance on this frequency prior
on a diverging heading, unless otherwise advised by ATC.
to contacting ground control. Where no clearance delivery
Pilots must notify ATC as soon as possible if: frequency is listed, the IFR clearance will normally be relayed
(a) they anticipate losing sight of the other aircraft; by ground control after taxi authorization has been issued.
However, due to high fuel consumption during ground running
(b) course deviations are required to maintain visual separation time, some pilots of turbojet aircraft may wish to obtain their
with preceding traffic; or IFR clearance prior to starting engines. Pilots using this procedure
(c) they suspect they will be unable to maintain visual separation should call ATC, using a phrase such as READY TO START
for any reason. NOW or READY TO START AT (TIME). Normally this request
should be made within 5 minutes of the planned engine start time.
In these cases, another form of IFR separation will be applied
by ATC.
7.5 STANDARD INSTRUMENT
DEPARTURE (SID)
6.6 DEVELOPMENT OF INSTRUMENT
PROCEDURES At certain airports, an instrument flight rules (IFR) departure
clearance may include departure instructions known as a
Instrument procedure development worldwide follows one of
standard instrument departure (SID). A SID is a planned IFR
two existing standards: ICAO Procedures for Air Navigation
air traffic control (ATC) departure procedure, published in the
Services—Aircraft Operations, Volume II—Construction of Visual
Canada Air Pilot (CAP), for pilot and controller use in graphic
and Instrument Flight Procedures (Doc 8168); or the United States
and textual form. SIDs provide a transition from the terminal
Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS).
to the appropriate en route structure, and may be either:
Instrument procedures in CDA are developed in accordance
with a document entitled Criteria for the Development of (a) pilot navigation SIDs—established where the pilot is required
RAC
Instrument Procedures (TP 308). This document is a joint TC/ to use the chart as reference for navigation to the en route
DND publication and prescribes standardized methods for use phase; or
in designing both civil and military instrument flight procedures. (b) vector SIDs—established where ATC will provide navigational
In order to achieve ICAO regional commonality, the instrument guidance to a filed/assigned route or to a fix depicted on
procedure design standards and criteria contained in TP 308 the chart. Pilots are expected to use the SID chart as reference
are modeled after the standards and criteria contained in the for navigation until vectoring has commenced.
TERPS. SIDs incorporate obstacle and terrain clearance within the
Strict adherence by pilots to the published instrument procedures procedure. Pilots should note, however, that SIDs for military
will ensure an acceptable level of safety in flight operations. aerodromes that are only available in textual form do not
incorporate obstacle and terrain clearance. At these aerodromes,
it is the pilot’s responsibility to ensure appropriate obstacle and
7.0 INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES terrain clearance on departure.
– DEPARTURE PROCEDURES Pilots of aircraft operating at airports for which SIDs have been
published will normally be issued a SID clearance by ATC. No
7.1 AERODROME OPERATIONS pilot is required to accept a SID clearance. If any doubt exists
as to the meaning of such a clearance, the pilot should request
Pilots should read the subsections above, in conjunction with a detailed clearance.
the IFR departure procedures listed in this section.
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Routings contained in SIDs will normally be composed of In this case, if ATC had previously specified a SID termination
two segments: fix as the location for the aircraft to expect to climb to an
operationally suitable altitude or flight level, the controller shall
(a) an initial segment from the departure end of the runway
cancel the SID. If, with the change of clearance, it is not practicable
to the position where the aircraft will first turn from the
for the controller to assign an operationally suitable altitude or
initial departure heading; and
flight level, the controller will specify another location or time
(b) a second segment, either via vectors or by pilot navigation, to expect the higher altitude.
from the first turning point to the SID termination point.
Example:
When instructed to fly on the runway heading, or when flying
SID CANCELLED, VECTORS TO (fix or airway)
a SID for which no specific heading is published, pilots are
(heading). EXPECT FLIGHT LEVEL THREE FIVE
expected to fly or maintain the heading that corresponds with
ZERO AT FOUR FIVE D-M-E WEST OF
the extended centreline of the departure runway until otherwise
EDMONTON VORTAC.
instructed by ATC. Drift correction must not be applied, e.g.
Runway 04, if the actual magnetic heading of the runway It is impossible to precisely define “operationally suitable
centreline is 044°, then fly a heading of 044°M. altitudes” to meet requirements in all circumstances.
When flying a SID for which a specific heading is published, The following are considered operationally suitable altitudes or
the pilot is expected to steer the published SID heading until flight levels:
vectoring commences. This is because initial separation is based
(a) piston aircraft—flight planned altitude or lower; and
on divergence between assigned headings until ATS surveillance
separation is established. (b) other aircraft—flight planned altitude or altitude as near
as possible to the flight planned altitude, taking into
When assigning SIDs, ATC will include the following:
consideration the aircraft’s route of flight. As a guideline,
(a) the name of SID; an altitude not more than 4 000 ft below the flight planned
(b) the SID termination fix, if appropriate; flight level in the high-level structure will be considered as
(c) the transition, if necessary; and operationally suitable in most cases.
(d) the time or location for the aircraft to expect a climb to an If it is not practicable for the controller to assign the flight planned
operationally suitable altitude or flight level, if necessary. altitude and if the pilot has not been informed as to when they
(NOTE: An “expect further clearance” statement may be may expect a clearance to another altitude, it is the pilot’s
included in the SID chart.) responsibility to advise ATC if the currently assigned altitude
Example: is not satisfactory to permit the aircraft to proceed to the
destination airport, should a communications failure occur.
CLEARED TO THE CALGARY AIRPORT,
TORONTO ONE DEPARTURE, FLIGHT PLANNED The controller will then be required to issue an appropriate
ROUTE. “expect further clearance” statement or issue alternative
instructions.
NOTE:
A SID termination fix may be a NAVAID, intersection, or DME Controllers are required to issue a clearance to the altitude or
RAC
and is normally located on an established airway where the SID flight level the pilot was told to expect prior to the time or location
terminates and the en route phase of flight commences. The specified in an “expect further clearance” statement. The pilot
SID, as published, contains an altitude to climb to after departure; must ensure that further clearance is received because the
however, ATC may assign an altitude different from the altitude “altitude to be expected” included in the clearance is not
specified in the SID, provided the altitude is stated and a readback applicable:
is obtained from the pilot prior to departure. In addition, where (a) once the aircraft has proceeded beyond the fix specified in
vector SIDs are used, ATC may assign a different initial departure the “expect further clearance” statement; or
heading. However, an ATC revision to any item of a SID does
not cancel the SID. (b) once the time designated in the “expect further clearance”
statement has expired.
Example: SIDs may include specific communications failure procedures.
CLEARED TO THE CALGARY AIRPORT, These specific procedures supersede the standard communication
TORONTO ONE DEPARTURE, FLIGHT PLANNED failure procedures.
ROUTE, CLIMB TO AMENDED ALTITUDE, SEVEN SIDs, as published, will not contravene noise abatement
THOUSAND… procedures. ATC-assigned vectors will not normally contravene
If an aircraft is issued a vector SID, vectors will be used, as traffic noise abatement procedures; however, for flight safety reasons,
permits, to provide navigational guidance to the filed/assigned ATC may be required to issue a vector contrary to noise abatement
route and over the SID termination fix. However, if the controller requirements.
or the aircraft will gain an operational advantage, the aircraft ATC-assigned vectors shall be followed in a timely manner even
may be vectored on a route that will not take the aircraft over if they conflict with the published noise abatement procedures.
the SID termination fix.
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The initial call to departure control should contain at least: Noise abatement is not the determining factor in runway
designation under the following circumstances:
(a) the aircraft call sign;
(b) the departure runway; (a) if the runway is not clear and dry, i.e. it is adversely affected
by snow, slush, ice, water, mud, rubber, oil or other substances;
(c) the present vacating altitude (to the nearest 100-ft increment);
and (b) when the crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds
25 KIAS; and
(d) the assigned (SID) altitude.
(c) when the tail wind component, including gusts, exceeds 5 kt.
Example:
OTTAWA DEPARTURE, BEECH GOLF ALFA NOTE:
BRAVO TANGO, OFF RUNWAY 25, HEADING 250, Although ATS personnel may select a preferential runway in
LEAVING 1 900 FOR 4 000. accordance with the foregoing criteria, pilots are not obligated
to accept the runway for taking off or landing. It remains the
NOTE: pilot’s responsibility to decide if the assigned runway is
An altitude readout is valid if the readout value does not differ operationally acceptable.
from the aircraft reported altitude by more than 200 ft. Pilot
altitude reports should be made to the nearest 100-ft increment. 7.6.3 Noise Abatement Departure Procedure
(NADP)
7.6 NOISE ABATEMENT PROCEDURES NADPs are designed to minimize the environmental impact of
— DEPARTURE departing aircraft without compromising safety. Typically,
operators require two procedures: one to minimize close-in
7.6.1 General noise (NADP 1) and the other to minimize noise over a more
distant noise-sensitive area (NADP 2).
These aeroplane operating procedures for the takeoff and climb
have been developed so as to ensure that the necessary safety of Under the NADP concept, airport operators identify their noise
flight operations is maintained whilst minimizing exposure to and emission control needs and may identify specific noise-
noise on the ground. One of the two procedures listed in the sensitive areas. Aircraft operators choose the departure method
subsections below should be applied routinely for all takeoffs that safely meets the airport operator’s objectives.
where noise abatement procedures are in effect. When deciding on a noise abatement strategy, it is important
Nothing in these procedures shall prevent the pilot-in-command to keep in mind that each procedure minimizes noise in its target
from exercising authority for the safe operation of the aeroplane, area at the expense of relatively increased noise elsewhere.
except that when a climb gradient is published, it must be NADP 1 reduces noise immediately after takeoff but results in
maintained, or alternate procedures must be adopted. higher downrange noise than NADP 2, and vice versa. For each
aircraft type, powerplant and set of take-off conditions, there
The procedures herein describe the methods for noise abatement
is a distance at which the NADP 1 and NADP 2 noise contours
when a noise problem is evident. They can comprise any one or
cross over. The area from the take-off to the crossover point
more of the following:
RAC
defines the close-in zone of NADP 1, while the area beyond the
(a) use of noise preferential runways to direct the initial and crossover point is the effective range of NADP 2.
final flight paths of aeroplanes away from noise-sensitive
When developing a noise abatement strategy, airports and air
areas;
operators should consider the following:
(b) use of noise preferential routes to assist aeroplanes in
(a) All necessary obstacle data shall be made available to the
avoiding noise-sensitive areas on departure and arrival,
operator, and the procedure design gradient shall be
including the use of turns to direct aeroplanes away from
observed.
noise-sensitive areas located under or adjacent to the usual
takeoff and approach flight paths; and (b) The power or thrust settings specified in the aircraft
operating manual are to take account of the need for engine
(c) use of noise abatement takeoff or approach procedures,
anti-icing when applicable.
designed to minimize the overall exposure to noise on the
ground and, at the same time, maintain the required levels (c) Noise abatement procedures shall not be executed below
of flight safety. 800 ft AAE.
(d) The level of power or thrust for the flap/slat configuration,
7.6.2 Noise Preferential Runways after power/thrust reduction, shall not be less than:
Preferred runway directions for takeoff are designated for noise (i) for aeroplanes in which derated take-off thrust and
abatement purposes; the objective being to use, whenever possible, climb thrust are computed by the flight management
those runways that permit aeroplanes to avoid noise-sensitive system, the computed climb power/thrust; or
areas during the initial departure and final approach phases
(ii) for other aeroplanes, normal climb power/thrust.
of flight.
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(e) To minimize the impact on training while maintaining To illustrate the concept, two NADP-compliant procedures are
flexibility to address variations in the location of noise- described below. Each one describes one method, but not the
sensitive areas, the operator shall develop no more than two only method, of providing noise reduction for noise-sensitive
noise abatement procedures for each aeroplane type. One areas. Operators are free to design other procedures that fit
procedure should provide noise benefits for areas close to within the NADP envelopes.
the aerodrome, and the other for areas more distant from
the aerodrome. 7.6.3.1 NADP 1 (Criteria for a Close-in Noise-sensitive
(f) Any difference of power/thrust reduction initiation height Area) Description
for noise abatement purposes constitutes a new procedure. This procedure involves a power reduction at or above the
(g) Noise abatement departure shall not invalidate an prescribed minimum altitude (no less than 800 ft) AAE and
engine-out departure procedure (EODP). delaying flap/slat retraction until the prescribed maximum
altitude (3 000 ft) AAE is attained. At 3 000 ft AAE, accelerate
(h) Where possible, each aircraft type should base its standard and retract flaps/slats on schedule, while maintaining a positive
departure procedure on the noise abatement strategy that rate of climb, and complete the transition to normal en route
minimizes its overall noise impact. climb speed. The initial climbing speed to the noise abatement
(i) Operators serving certain noise-sensitive airports may need initiation point is no less than V2 + 10 KIAS.
to follow specific, non-standard departure procedures. Crew In summary:
training and departure information shall address identification
and procedural differences associated with alternate noise (a) Initial climb to at least 800 ft AAE:
abatement procedures. (i) power/thrust as set for takeoff;
(j) Where applicable, air traffic control agencies should be (ii) flaps/slats in take-off configuration; and
involved in the development of noise abatement procedures.
(iii) climb speed not less than V2 + 10 kt.
In addition to the above general requirements, the following
operational limitations apply: (b) At or above 800 ft AAE:
(a) The pilot-in-command has the authority to decide not to (i) initiate power/thrust reduction;
execute a noise abatement departure procedure if conditions (ii) maintain climb speed not less than V2 + 10 kt to
preclude the safe execution of the procedure. 20 kt; and
(b) NADPs requiring reduced take-off power/thrust settings (iii) maintain flaps/slats in take-off configuration.
may be flown only when reduced power/thrust is permitted (c) At 3 000 ft AAE:
by the aircraft flight manual or aircraft operating manual.
(i) maintain positive rate of climb;
(c) Initial power or thrust reductions shall not be executed
below a height of 800 ft AAE. (ii) accelerate to en route climb speed; and
(d) Aircraft limitations, including maximum body angle limits, (iii) retract flaps/slats on schedule.
shall always be respected.
RAC
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RAC
en route climb procedures. The initial climbing speed to the
(b) climb straight ahead to 400 ft above aerodrome
noise abatement initiation point is no less than V2 + 10 KIAS
elevation (AAE) before turning; and
and the noise abatement procedure is not to be initiated at less
than 800 ft AAE. (c) maintain a climb gradient of at least 200 ft/NM throughout
the climb to a minimum IFR altitude for en route operations.
In summary:
Climb gradients greater than 200 ft/NM may be published. In
(a) Initial climb to at least 800 ft AAE:
this case, the aircraft is expected to achieve and maintain the
(i) power/thrust as set for takeoff; published gradient to the specified altitude or fix, then continue
(ii) flaps/slats in take-off configuration; and climbing at a minimum of 200 ft/NM until reaching a minimum
(iii) climb speed not less than V2 + 10 kt. IFR altitude for en route operations.
(b) At or above 800 ft AAE, maintain a positive rate of climb For flight planning purposes, IFR departure procedures assume
and accelerate towards VZF, and: normal aircraft performance in all cases.
(i) retract flaps/slats on schedule; and ODPs in the take-off minima box are shown as either:
(ii) reduce power/thrust at a point along the acceleration
(a) 1/2—This indicates that IFR departures from the specified
segment that ensures satisfactory acceleration
runway(s) will be assured of obstacle and terrain clearance
performance.
in any direction, if the aircraft meets the previously stated
(c) Continue the climb to 3 000 ft AAE at a climb speed of not departure premise. Pilots may consider this procedure as
less than VZF. “takeoff, climb on course.” The minimum visibility (unless
(d) At 3 000 ft AAE, transition to normal en route climb speed. otherwise approved by the appropriate authority) for takeoff
in these circumstances is 1/2 SM. IFR takeoffs for rotorcraft
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are permitted when the take-off visibility is reduced to half VCOA differs from other instrument departure procedures in that the
the CAP value, but no less than 1/4 SM. pilot must maintain certain visual references with the ground and obstacles
(b) * (asterisk)—The asterisk (*) following all or specific until reaching a given altitude over the aerodrome.
runways refers the pilot to the applicable minimum take-off NOTE:
visibility (1/2 or SPEC VIS) and the corresponding procedures Even though the aircraft is being operated with visual references
which, if followed, will ensure obstacle and terrain clearance. to the ground, it is still departing on an IFR clearance.
Procedures may include specific climb gradients, routings,
visual climb requirements, locations of close-in obstacles The VCOA text includes a SPEC VIS and a climb-to altitude in
(see RAC 7.7.2), or combinations thereof. Where a visual feet above sea level. The SPEC VIS is the minimum visibility in
climb is stated in the departure procedure, pilots are expected statute miles that a pilot requires to manoeuvre the aircraft while
to comply with the specified takeoff minimum visibility climbing. The climb-to altitude is the minimum altitude above
(SPEC VIS) corresponding to the appropriate aircraft the aerodrome that the aircraft must reach before departing
category listed in the following table: en route.
It is the pilot’s responsibility to see and avoid obstacles while
Table 7.1—Aircraft Categories and
the Associated SPEC VIS climbing visually. The pilot should be familiar with the local
terrain and the obstacles that surround the aerodrome and plan
the climb appropriately. Taking local traffic and obstacles into
Aircraft Category A B C D consideration, it is advisable that the pilot keep the aerodrome
in sight while climbing. The visual climb segment ends when
SPEC VIS in SM 1 1 1/2 2 2 the aircraft crosses the aerodrome at or above the required
minimum altitude. From this point on, obstacles will be cleared
if the aircraft maintains a minimum climb gradient of 200 ft/
NOTE NM to the en-route structure.
No reductions in SPEC VIS are permitted for rotorcraft. For
The PIC should ensure that the reported ceiling is above the
further information on SPEC VIS, see RAC 7.7.1.
climb-to altitude and that the local prevailing visibility is equal
(c) NOT ASSESSED—IFR departures have not been assessed to or greater than that required in the procedure. Additionally,
for obstacles. Pilots-in-command (PICs) are responsible for before taxiing for departure, the PIC should inform ATC of the
determining minimum climb gradients and/or routings for intention to perform a VCOA so that the appropriate coordination
obstacle and terrain avoidance. can be ensured. If ATC services are not available, then intentions
should be broadcast on the ATF (see RAC 7.9).
In the absence of a published visibility for a particular runway,
a pilot may depart IFR only if take-off visibility will allow 7.7.2 Low, Close-in Obstacles
avoidance of obstacles and terrain on departure. In no case
should the take-off visibility be less than 1/2 SM (1/4 SM for Obstacles that penetrate the standard OCS require the publication
rotorcraft). of a climb gradient. However, certain close-in obstacles may be
exempt from this requirement. Instead, a note is published on
Where aircraft limitations or other factors preclude the pilot the departure procedure and/or on the aerodrome chart. The
RAC
from following the published procedure, it is the PIC’s note alerts the pilot to the nature of the close-in obstacle and
responsibility to determine alternative procedures that take into gives its height and location so that it may be avoided. An obstacle
account obstacle and terrain avoidance. is determined to be “close-in” if it is within 1 NM of the departure
Air traffic control (ATC) terms such as “on departure, right turn end of the runway, or within 1 NM from the end of the clearway,
climb on course” or “on departure, left turn on course” are not if a clearway exists. Either way, the charted distance to the obstacle
to be considered specific departure instructions. It remains the will be noted as being from the departure end of the runway.
pilot’s responsibility to ensure that terrain and obstacle clearance If the obstacle(s) cannot be visually acquired during departure,
has been achieved by conforming to the IFR departure procedures. pre-flight planning should take into account the turns or other
manoeuvres that may be necessary immediately after takeoff to
7.7.1 Visual Climb Over The Airport (VCOA) avoid the obstacle(s). These obstacles are especially critical to
aircraft that do not lift off until close to the departure end of
VCOA—sometimes referred to as “climb visual” or “visual climb”
the runway or that climb at the minimum rate.
in the CAP—was developed to provide an alternate IFR departure
procedure for aircraft that cannot meet the greater-than-standard
climb gradient specified in the primary instrument departure
procedure.
NOTE:
Occasionally, VCOA may be the only available departure
procedure developed for an aerodrome.
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7.8 RELEASE FROM TOWER FREQUENCY At an uncontrolled aerodrome, the initial IFR clearance may
contain a time or an event-based departure restriction or
If the departure airport is located within a terminal control area,
clearance cancellation.
the departing IFR flight will be cleared by the tower to contact
a specific control unit on a specified frequency once clear of Examples:
conflicting airport traffic. At certain locations, flights will be ATC CLEARS AIRLINE123 (IFR clearance) DO NOT
advised prior to takeoff to change to a specified departure DEPART UNTIL 1340; CLEARANCE CANCELLED
frequency. In this case, the change should be made as soon as IF NOT AIRBORNE BEFORE 1349.
practicable after takeoff.
or
If the departure airport is not located within a terminal control
area, the pilot, when requesting release from tower frequency, ATC CLEARS AIRLINE123 (IFR clearance) DO NOT
should advise the tower of the agency or frequency to which he/ DEPART UNTIL CESSNA ABC HAS LANDED;
she will change unless directions for the change were included CLEARANCE CANCELLED IF NOT AIRBORNE
in the ATC clearance. BEFORE 1349.
In the first example, the clearance is valid the moment the time
7.9 INSTRUMENT FLIGHT turns 1340, and in both examples, the clearance is cancelled the
RULES (IFR) DEPARTURES FROM moment the time turns 1349.
UNCONTROLLED AIRPORTS
Where a pilot-in-command intends to take off from an 7.10 ALERTING SERVICE INSTRUMENT
uncontrolled aerodrome, the pilot shall: FLIGHT RULES (IFR) DEPARTURES
FROM UNCONTROLLED AIRPORTS
(a) obtain an ATC clearance if in controlled airspace;
At locations where communication with ATS is difficult, pilots
(b) report their departure procedure and intentions on the
may elect to depart VFR and obtain their IFR clearance once
appropriate frequency before moving on to the runway or
airborne. In Canada, if IFR clearance is not received prior to
before aligning the aircraft on the take off path; and
departure, SAR alerting service is activated based on the ETD
(c) ascertain by radio on the appropriate frequency and by filed in the flight plan. However, if departing from a Canadian
visual observation that no other aircraft or vehicle is likely airport that underlies airspace delegated to FAA control, then
to come into conflict with the aircraft during takeoff. responsibility for SAR alerting service is transferred to the FAA
The pilot-in-command shall maintain a listening watch: and FAA procedures apply. In such cases, alerting service is not
activated until the aircraft contacts ATS for IFR clearance.
(a) during takeoff from an uncontrolled aerodrome; and Therefore, if the aircraft departs before obtaining its IFR
(b) after takeoff from an uncontrolled aerodrome for which a clearance, alerting service is not provided until contact is
MF has been designated, until the aircraft is beyond the established with ATS.
distance or above the altitude associated with that frequency.
As soon as possible after reaching the distance or altitude 8.0 INSTRUMENT FLIGHT
associated with the MF, the pilot-in-command shall communicate
RAC
with the appropriate ATC unit or a ground station on the
RULES (IFR) – EN ROUTE
appropriate en-route frequency. PROCEDURES
Where IFR departures are required to contact an IFR control
unit or ground station after takeoff, it is recommended that, if 8.1 POSITION REPORTS
the aircraft is equipped with two radios, the pilot should also Pilots of instrument flight rules (IFR) and controlled VFR (CVFR)
monitor the MF during the departure. flights are required to make position reports over compulsory
If the aerodrome is located in uncontrolled airspace, these reporting points specified on IFR charts, and over any other
procedures shall be followed except that an ATC clearance is reporting points specified by air traffic control (ATC).
not required. In addition to maintaining a listening watch, it is As specified in Canadian Aviation Regulation (CAR) 602.125,
recommended that the pilot-in-command communicate with the position report shall include the information in the sequence
the appropriate ATC unit, FIC, or other ground station on the set out on page C2 of the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS), that
appropriate en-route frequency. is:
NOTE: (a) the identification;
It is recommended that pilots inform ATC if a flight will not (b) the position;
commence within 60 min of the proposed departure time stipulated
in an IFR flight plan. Failure to do so will result in activating the (c) the time over the reporting point in coordinated universal
SAR process. time (UTC);
(d) the altitude or flight level;
(e) the type of flight plan or flight itinerary filed;
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
(f) the name of the next designated reporting point and be adhered to, ATC is to be so informed when the clearance is
estimated time of arrival (ETA) over that point in UTC; issued. Once accepted, the Mach number shall be adhered to
(g) the name only of the next reporting point along the route within .01 Mach, unless ATC approval is obtained to make a
of flight (see NOTE); and change. If an immediate temporary change in Mach number is
necessary (e.g. because of turbulence), ATC must be notified as
(h) any additional information requested by ATC or deemed soon as possible. When a Mach number is included in a clearance,
necessary by the pilot. the flight concerned should transmit its current Mach number
with each position report.
NOTE:
Reporting points are indicated by a symbol on the appropriate
charts. The “designated compulsory” reporting point is a solid 8.2.2 True Airspeed (TAS)
triangle and the “on request” reporting point symbol is an open ATC is to be notified as soon as practicable of an intended change
triangle. Position reports over an “on request” reporting point to the TAS at the cruising altitude or flight level, where the
are only necessary when requested by ATC. Therefore, no mention change intended is five percent or more of the TAS specified in
of an “on request” reporting point needs to be made in any the IFR flight plan or flight itinerary.
position report unless it has been requested by ATC.
En route IFR and CVFR flights should establish direct controller- 8.3 ALTITUDE REPORTS
pilot communications (DCPC) wherever possible. Peripheral Although the CARs do not specifically direct pilots to report
stations (PAL) have been established at a number of locations altitude information to ATC, pilots, if not operating in airspace
to extend the communications coverage. Some PAL locations (i.e. identified by ATC), should report reaching the altitude to
also employ a radio re-transmit unit (RRTU). The purpose of which the flight has been initially cleared. When climbing or
the RRTU is to transmit a pilot’s broadcast from one PAL location descending en route, pilots should report when leaving a
over another frequency at a different PAL location. This allows previously-assigned altitude and when reaching the assigned
the pilot to know when the controller is working communications altitude.
traffic on a different PAL frequency. Controllers at an area control
On initial contact with ATC, or when changing from one ATC
centre (ACC) can disable this equipment when necessary due
frequency to another, when operating in surveillance or non-
to the communications workload. However, it must be remembered
surveillance airspace, pilots of IFR and CVFR flights should
that, while DCPC provides direct contact with the IFR unit at
state the assigned cruising altitude and, when applicable, the
locations where there is no VFR control and aerodrome advisory
altitude through which the aircraft is climbing or descending.
service (AAS) or remote aerodrome advisory service (RAAS) is
provided, pilots must also communicate with the flight service In order for ATC to use Mode C altitude information for
station (FSS) or flight information centre (FIC) for local traffic separation purposes, the aircraft Mode C altitude readout must
information. Whenever DCPC cannot be established, or whenever be verified. The Mode C altitude is considered valid if the readout
ATC has instructed a pilot to contact a FIC, position reports value does not differ from the aircraft reported altitude by more
shall be made through the assigned FIC or the nearest than 200 ft. The readout is considered invalid if the difference
communications agency en route. is 300 ft or more. Therefore, it is expected that pilot altitude
reports, especially during climbs and descents, will be made to
RAC
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
optimum rate consistent with the operating characteristics provide their own separation, including wake turbulence
of the aircraft. If the above is not the case, or if it becomes separation, from all other aircraft. This application may be
necessary to stop the climb or descent, the pilot should exercised in both ATS surveillance and non-ATS surveillance
advise ATC of the interruption or the delay in vacating an environments.
altitude.
IFR separation is required for all altitude changes in Class A
(b) If the phrase “when ready” is used in conjunction with an and B airspace. Accordingly, visual climbs or descents will not
altitude clearance or instruction, the change of altitude may be approved for aircraft operating in these classes of airspace.
be initiated whenever the pilot wishes. The climb or descent
should be made at an optimum rate consistent with the 8.5 MINIMUM INSTRUMENT FLIGHT
operating characteristics of the aircraft. When not informed RULES (IFR) ALTITUDES
that the aircraft has been IDENTIFIED, pilots are expected
to advise ATC when the altitude change is initiated. Except when taking off or landing, aircraft in IFR flight shall
Compliance with assigned or published altitude crossing be operated at least 1 000 ft above the highest obstacle within a
restrictions and speeds is mandatory (CAR 602.31), unless horizontal radius of 5 NM of the aircraft (CAR 602.124).
specifically cancelled by ATC. (MEAs are not considered Exceptions to this are flights within designated mountainous
restrictions; however, pilots are expected to remain at or regions, but outside areas for which minimum altitudes for IFR
above MEAs.) operations have been established (see RAC 2.12 and
RAC Figure 2.10).
NOTE:
When an aircraft reports vacating an altitude, ATC may assign NOTE:
the altitude to another aircraft. Control will be based on the The established MOCA for IFR operations provides obstacle
pilot following these procedures and on the normal operating clearance above the highest obstacle within the following areas:
characteristics of the aircraft.
(a) 1 000 ft:
(c) If a descending aircraft must level off at 10 000 ft ASL to (i) airways and air routes outside of designated
comply with CAR 602.32 while cleared to a lower level, the mountainous areas;
pilot should advise ATC of the descent interruption.
(ii) certain airway and air route segments within
(d) ATC may authorize aircraft to employ cruise climb designated mountainous areas, which are used in
techniques either between two levels or above a specified the arrival or departure phase of flight;
level. A clearance or instruction to cruise climb authorizes
(iii) Safe Altitude 100 NM outside of designated
climb at any given rate as well as temporarily levelling at
mountainous areas;
intermediate altitudes. Pilots are expected to advise ATC
of the altitude they temporarily level off at to the nearest (iv) all MSA;
100 ft. Once the aircraft has vacated an altitude during a (v) instrument approach transitions (including DME
cruise climb, it may not return to that altitude. ATC will arcs);
use the following phraseology:
(vi) vectoring areas [except as in (c)(iii)]; and
RAC
CRUISE CLIMB TO (altitude)
(vii) AMA outside of designated mountainous areas as
or shown on the Enroute and Terminal Area Charts.
CLIMB TO (altitude) CRUISE CLIMB BETWEEN (b) 1 500 ft:
(levels) (or ABOVE [level])
(i) airways and air routes within designated mountainous
areas 2, 3, and 4; or
8.4.2 Visual Climb and Descent
(ii) Safe Altitude 100 NM within designated mountainous
areas 2, 3, and 4.
8.4.2.1 General
(c) 2 000 ft:
Application of visual climbs and descents in VMC, under certain
circumstances, provides both controllers and pilots with an (i) airways and air routes within designated mountainous
operational advantage in the conduct of safe and orderly flow areas 1 and 5 with the exception of those segments
of air traffic. described in (a)(ii);
(ii) Safe Altitude 100 NM within designated mountainous
8.4.2.2 Visual Separation from Other Aircraft areas 1 and 5;
ATC may authorize the pilot of an IFR aircraft to conduct a (iii) certain vectoring areas within designated
visual climb or descent while maintaining visual separation mountainous areas; and
with the appropriate traffic only if a pilot requests it. Controllers (iv) AMA within designated mountainous areas as shown
will not initiate or suggest a visual climb/descent in this on the Enroute and Terminal Area Charts.
application. During this altitude change in VMC, pilots must
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
MEAs have been established for all designated low-level airways 8.6 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL (ATC)
and air routes in Canada. An MEA is defined as the published ASSIGNMENT OF ALTITUDES
altitude ASL between specified fixes on airways or air routes,
which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage, and which 8.6.1 Minimum Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)
meets IFR obstacle clearance requirements. Altitude
The minimum flight plan altitude shall be the nearest altitude Within controlled airspace, ATC is not permitted to approve or
or flight level consistent with the direction of flight (CAR 602.34). assign any IFR altitude below the minimum IFR altitude. To
This altitude should be at or above the MEA. Unless the MEA ATC, the minimum IFR altitude is the lowest IFR altitude
is one which is consistent with the direction of flight, it is not established for use in specific airspace and, depending on the
to be used in the flight plan or flight itinerary. airspace concerned, this may be:
As different MEAs may be established for adjoining segments (a) a minimum en route altitude (MEA);
of airways or air routes, aircraft are, in all cases, to cross the
specified fix at which a change in the MEA takes place, at the (b) a minimum obstacle clearance altitude (MOCA);
higher MEA. (c) a minimum sector altitude (MSA);
To ensure adequate signal coverage, many of the MEAs on low- (d) a safe altitude within a radius of 100 NM;
level airways are established at altitudes which are higher than
(e) an area minimum altitude (AMA); or
those required for obstacle clearance. When this occurs, a MOCA
is also published to provide the pilot with the minimum IFR (f) a minimum vectoring altitude (MVA).
altitude for obstacle clearance. A MOCA is defined as the altitude When a direct route is given, ATC is responsible for obstacle
between radio fixes on low-level airways and air routes, which clearance. Provided that the altitude is at or above the minimum
meets the IFR Air routes clearance requirements for the route IFR altitude for the controlled airspace where the pilot intends
segment. Where the MOCA is lower than the MEA, the MOCA to operate, ATC may use “direct” in a route clearance. ATC may
is published in addition to the MEA on the Enroute Charts. clear aircraft that are traversing airways or air routes below the
Where the MEA and MOCA are the same, only the MEA is MEA, but not below the applicable minimum IFR altitude.
published.
Within ATS surveillance coverage, it is common for controllers
The MOCA, or the MEA when the MOCA is not published, is to issue the MVA when issuing direct routes. An MVA can be
the lowest altitude for the airway or air route segment at which lower than a published minimum IFR altitude (MSA, MOCA,
an IFR flight may be conducted under any circumstances. These MEA, or AMA).
altitudes are provided so that pilots will be readily aware of the
lowest safe altitude that may be used in an emergency, such as All ATC-assigned altitudes provide obstacle clearance.
a malfunctioning engine or icing conditions. Under ISA A controller is not permitted to clear an aircraft flying on an
conditions, they provide a minimum of 1 000 ft of clearance airway at an altitude below the MEA. However, flight below the
above all obstacles lying within the lateral limits of all airways MEA, but not below the MOCA, may be approved when
and air routes and 1500/2000 ft in designated mountainous specifically requested by the pilot in the interest of flight safety
regions. (e.g. icing/turbulence), to conduct a flight check, for MEDEVAC,
RAC
Pressure altimeters are calibrated to indicate true altitude under or when navigating using GNSS.
ISA conditions, and any deviation from ISA will result in an Navigational signal coverage is not guaranteed below the MEA;
erroneous altimeter reading. When temperatures are extremely when navigating using NAVAIDS, the pilot should ensure that
cold, true altitudes will be significantly lower than indicated the aircraft is within, and will remain within, the lateral limits
altitudes. Although pilots may fly IFR at the published MEA/ of the airway before requesting approval to fly below the MEA.
MOCA, in the winter, when air temperatures are much lower It should also be noted that flight below the MEA does not
than ISA, they should operate at altitudes of at least 1 000 ft guarantee the aircraft will remain in controlled airspace.
above the MEA/MOCA.
8.6.1.1 Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
NOTE:
Intersections on a Minimum En-Route
When flying at a flight level in an area of low pressure, the true Altitude (MEA)
altitude will always be lower than the corresponding flight level.
For example, this “pressure error,” in combination with a The purpose of these fixes is to develop an airway segment where
temperature error, can produce errors of up to 2 000 ft while lower MEAs may be applied, thus reducing the high descent
flying in the standard pressure region at FL 100. Further, mountain rates that otherwise are required when the aircraft is on initial
waves in combination with extremely low temperatures may approach to destination.
result in an altimeter over-reading by as much as 3 000 ft. For Pilots without DME normally will not be able to use these lower
further details, see AIR 1.5. MEAs and may conceivably experience delays in receiving
approach and departure clearances due to other traffic operating
below the conventional MEA (i.e. the MEA required for non-
DME-equipped aircraft). However, in an ATS surveillance
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RAC
NOTES: 8.8 CLEARANCES—LEAVING OR
1. In situation (a), the pilot, when able to accept an appropriate ENTERING CONTROLLED AIRSPACE
altitude, will be requested to advise ATC. In situation (c), ATC will use the phrase “while in controlled airspace” in
the aircraft will be re-cleared to an appropriate altitude as conjunction with the altitude if an aircraft will be entering or
soon as operationally feasible. Due to safety implications, leaving controlled airspace. In addition, ATC will specify the
use of altitudes inappropriate for the direction of flight must lateral point and altitude at which an aircraft is to leave or enter
be limited, and requests must not be made solely for fuel controlled airspace if the instruction is required for separation
efficiency reasons. Pilots should make requests only to avoid purposes (see Note).
a fuel situation that might cause an otherwise unnecessary
Example:
refuelling stop short of the flight-planned destination. ATC
will not ask the pilot to substantiate a request; if ATC is LEAVE/ENTER CONTROLLED AIRSPACE
unable to approve the request, the controller will state the (number) MILES (direction) OF (fix) AT (altitude).
reason and request the pilot’s intention. LEAVE/ENTER CONTROLLED AIRSPACE AT
2. In the application of (a) or (c) in high-level ATS surveillance- (altitude).
controlled airspace, aircraft at an altitude not appropriate
for the direction of flight will be issued vectors or offset NOTE:
tracks to establish the aircraft at least 5 NM from the The altitude assigned by ATC need only reflect the minimum
centreline of an airway or published track displayed on the safe IFR altitude within controlled airspace. A pilot should be
situation display. alert to the possibility of a higher minimum safe IFR altitude
outside of controlled airspace. If uncertain (or unable to
determine) when to enter or leave the area where the higher
minima is applied, a request for clearance to maintain an altitude
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that will accommodate the higher minimum IFR altitude should additional reports whenever the possibility of conflicting
be made. IFR traffic is suspected. An example would be reporting
prior to overflying a facility where cross traffic is probable
or where there is a published instrument approach procedure.
8.9 CLEARANCE LIMIT
The clearance limit, as specified in an ATC clearance, is the NOTE:
point to which an aircraft is cleared. Further clearance is delivered There is no frequency comparable to 126.7 MHz for use by
to a flight prior to arrival at the clearance limit. However, aircraft equipped only with UHF; however, pertinent UHF traffic
occasions may arise when this may not be possible. In the event information will be relayed on the MF by the flight service
that further clearance is not received, the pilot is to hold at the specialist.
clearance limit, maintain the last assigned altitude and request
further clearance. If communications cannot be established with
ATC, the pilot should then proceed in accordance with 9.0 INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES
communications failure procedures as described in RAC 6.3.2. (IFR)—ARRIVAL PROCEDURES
The responsibility rests with the pilot to determine whether or
not a received clearance can be complied with in the event of a 9.1 AUTOMATIC TERMINAL INFORMATION
communications failure. Under such circumstances, a clearance SERVICE (ATIS) BROADCASTS
may be refused, but such refusal should specify acceptable
alternatives. If ATIS is available, all pilots should use it to obtain the basic
arrival or departure and aerodrome information as soon as it is
practicable.
8.10 CLASS G AIRSPACE—RECOMMENDED
OPERATING PROCEDURES—
EN-ROUTE 9.2 STANDARD TERMINAL ARRIVAL
(STAR), MINIMUM SECTOR ALTITUDE
When aircraft are manoeuvring in the vicinity of uncontrolled (MSA) AND TERMINAL ARRIVAL AREA
aerodromes or cruising in Class G airspace, the lack of information (TAA)
on the movements of other aircraft operating in close proximity
may occasion a potential hazard to all concerned. To alleviate The objective of the standard terminal arrival (STAR), the
this situation, all pilots are advised that: minimum sector altitude (MSA) and the terminal arrival
area (TAA) depictions is to provide arriving aircraft with a
(a) when operating in Class G airspace, they should continuously seamless transition from the en route structure to the terminal
monitor frequency 126.7 MHz whenever practicable; environment.
(b) position reports should be made over all NAVAIDs along Unlike the MSAs and TAAs, the STARs are developed to simplify
the route of flight to the nearest station having air-ground clearance procedures at higher density airports and are
communications capability. These reports should be made individually depicted in the Canada Air Pilot (CAP). The MSA
on frequency 126.7 MHz whenever practicable. If it is and TAA depictions are also in the CAP, but are found in the
necessary to use another frequency to establish plan view of the associated approach chart.
RAC
(d) at aerodromes where an MF has been designated, arriving The MSA, as depicted on the approach chart (see the CAP),
pilots shall first broadcast their intentions on 126.7 MHz provides a minimum of 1 000 ft clearance above all obstacles
before changing to the MF. If conflicting IFR traffic becomes within a sector of a circle having a radius of at least 25 NM
evident, this change should be delayed until the conflict is centred on a radio aid to navigation or on a waypoint located
resolved. Pilots departing IFR should broadcast their near the aerodrome. Where required, the depiction may be
intentions on 126.7 MHz, in addition to the MF, prior to divided into several pie-shaped sectors of varying minimum
takeoff; and altitudes. Pilots can locate their sector by superimposing their
track to the selected NAVAID onto the MSA depiction.
(e) the preceding reporting requirements are considered as the
minimum necessary. Pilots are encouraged to make
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Unlike TAA depictions, MSA depictions do not allow the sectors Prior to arriving at the TAA boundary, the pilot should determine
to be further partitioned into step-down arcs of varying distances. which area of the TAA the aircraft will enter by selecting the
IWP to determine the magnetic bearing TO the waypoint. That
NOTE: bearing should then be compared with the published bearings
MSAs are not flight-inspected. Therefore, MSAs based on that define the lateral boundaries of the TAA areas.
conventional NAVAIDs may not necessarily assure acceptable
navigational signal coverage throughout the 25-NM radius area. CAUTION:
When taking such a bearing, using the left or right IAWP (instead
RNAV approaches may use either an MSA or a TAA depiction. of the IWP) may give a false indication of which area the aircraft
RNAV approaches that use the MSA shall depict the common will enter. This is critical when approaching the TAA near the
minimum altitude only. extended boundary between the left- and right-base areas,
especially where these areas contain different minimum altitude
9.2.2 Terminal Arrival Area (TAA) requirements.
TAAs are developed for aircraft equipped with an FMS and/or A standard racetrack holding pattern may be provided at the
a GNSS. center IWP/IAWP and, if present, may be necessary for course
When a TAA is published, it replaces the MSA depiction on the reversal and for altitude adjustment for entry into the procedure.
approach chart (see the CAP). In the latter case, the pattern provides an extended distance for
the descent required by the procedure.
The main advantage of the TAA over the MSA is that it can
allow step-down arcs, based on RNAV distances, within its
divided areas. This allows the aircraft to descend to lower 9.2.3 Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR)
minimum altitudes while still providing a minimum clearance A STAR is an ATC IFR arrival procedure published in the CAP
of 1 000 ft above all obstacles. for use by aircraft with the appropriate navigation capabilities
The standard TAA consists of three areas which are defined by and is coded in many GNSS and FMS databases.
the extension of the initial and intermediate approach segments. STARs provide the following benefits:
These are called the straight-in, left-base, and right-base areas.
(a) Predictability for flight crews: As opposed to vectors, STARs
(STRAIGHT-IN AREA)
Figure 9.1—Basic “T” Approach with TAA Depiction allow pilots to be aware in advance of arrival routings and
plan more optimum descent profiles.
D
BL
ON (b) Facilitation of clearances and radiotelephony exchanges:
TO
0 Published STARs reduce the need to communicate detailed
NM
30 B LO N D
9º
8 TO 21 descent, speed, and track instructions.
30
PEELS
M
12 N
00 (IAWP)
52
084º D EL
S
9º (c) Increased predictability for ATC: Controllers observe more
ON PE 21
PEEL S
00
60 BL consistent aircraft track-keeping and turn performance on
9 º 00 00
03 BLOND 52 9º
21 .0
52 STARs due to published speed and altitude restrictions.
TO
(IWP)
5
NM
RAC
30
30
9º
HEATR
9º
6
(IAWP)
LUMBR
and/or charted headings and traditionally ends with ATC
(FAWP)
providing vectors. Pilots who request a conventional STAR are
expected to have sufficient navigation equipment to fly the
procedure. Canadian conventional STARs are gradually being
R
AT replaced with PBN STARs.
12 .2
HE
9º
5
00
56
T JOGGS
R
15 N EA
30
9 º M T O H (MAWP)
03 (RIGHT-BASE AREA)
9º
83
0 0
9.2.3.2 Performance-based
30
NM TO HEAT
R
Navigation (PBN) Standard Terminal
Arrival (STAR)
CAP depiction may be different.
With the widespread deployment of PBN, even greater benefits
are now possible in STAR design. PBN STARs thus permit an
increase in flight safety as well as potential fuel savings. When
NOTE: used by qualified aircraft and operators, a PBN STAR can result
The standard “T” design of the approach courses may be modified in greater reliability, repeatability, and predictability of aircraft
by the procedure designer where required by terrain or for ATC flight paths.
considerations. For instance, the “T” design may appear more
like a regularly or irregularly shaped “Y”, or may even have one
or both outboard IAWP eliminated, resulting in an upside down
“L” or an “I” configuration.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
A PBN STAR is titled “STAR (RNAV)” and is a performance- identification and the en route transition identification.
based operation in which the performance requirements are
The primary procedure identification consists of the following
specified by the publication of a navigation specification (such
three elements:
as RNAV 1 or RNP 1) on the chart in the PBN requirements box.
Detailed explanations of navigation specifications can be found (a) Procedure type
in COM 6.0. (b) Plain-language designator
In cases where a navigation specification has not yet been assigned (c) Coded designator
to a PBN STAR, the following equipment would be required:
The procedure type is shown as one of the following:
(a) at least one RNAV system or FMS certified for terminal use
that meets either of the following standards: (a) STAR: identifies the procedure as a conventional STAR
(i) AC 20-130 (or later approved) Airworthiness Approval (b) STAR (RNAV): identifies the procedure as a PBN STAR
of Navigation or Flight Management Systems The plain-language designator is the spoken identification for
Integrating Multiple Navigation Sensors; or the STAR procedure. It consists of a basic indicator, a validity
(ii) AC 20-138 (or later approved) Airworthiness Approval number, and the term “ARR”. The validity number is a number
of Global Positioning System (GPS) Navigation between one and nine assigned sequentially after a qualifying
Equipment for use as a VFR and IFR Supplemental procedure amendment. Example: UDNOX ONE ARR. A
Navigation System, and qualifying procedure amendment is a change in a procedure
track or another significant change affecting the database coding
(iii) TSO C129a, Airborne Supplemental Navigation of the procedure.
Equipment Using the Global Positioning System GPS);
When a STAR procedure includes transitions from the en route
(b) at least one automatic radio-updated IRU, if the RNAV system airspace structure, the en route transitions are identified in
or FMS does not use a GPS sensor; similar fashion to the main STAR procedure. The en route
(c) a current database containing the waypoints, for the STAR transition identification includes a plain-language designator
to be flown, that can be automatically loaded into the RNAV and a coded designator. The plain-language designator is the
system or FMS active flight plan; spoken identification for the en route transition and, while not
always, it is usually derived from the name of the first point of
(d) a system capable of following the RNAV system or FMS lateral
the en route transition. The coded designator is the database/
flight path and limiting the cross-track error deviation to
flight planning identification for the en route transition and is
+/- ½ the navigation accuracy associated with the procedure
derived from both the en route transition plain-language
or route; and
designator and the primary procedure identification. For example,
(e) an electronic map display. the LETAK TRANSITION (LETAK.IMEBA3) on the IMEBA
THREE ARR into CYYZ is highlighted on the chart below.
9.2.3.3 Flight Planning
Figure 9.2—Example of an En route Transition
Authorized aircraft and air operators who meet the appropriate on the IMEBA THREE ARR into CYYZ
navigation specification (or the equipment list shown above for
RAC
NOTE:
Mandatory IFR Routes may include a STAR. See RAC 11.4.3.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
RAC
reach the end of closed STARs, but in very rare cases (such as a
In order to maintain safety and airspace capacity, ATC may have distress call in progress on the frequency, frequency congestion,
to issue tactical instructions such as interim altitudes, speed or high ATC workload), this may not always be possible. In order
control, vectors, or direct routes. Tactical instructions impact to assure obstacle clearance throughout the STAR and the
the TOD planning carried out by the FMS. For instance, delaying approach lateral tracks, if an aircraft were to reach the end of a
the planned descent, reducing the speed, or shortcutting closed STAR prior to the issuance of an approach clearance, the
STAR intermediate waypoints translate into a steeper descent pilot would be expected to safely intercept the final approach
angle, requiring the use of speed brakes and/or a longer flying course and fly inbound maintaining the last assigned altitude.
distance. A premature descent clearance will translate into a In the extremely remote case in which the aircraft reaches the
shallower descent angle, requiring the use of engine trust. To end of the final approach track and further clearance has still
help mitigate the impact of these tactical instructions, ATC will not been obtained, the pilot would be expected to track the lateral
endeavour to cancel or assign altitude and speed restrictions as position of the missed approach procedure for what would have
far in advance as possible to help the flight crew re-optimize the been the anticipated approach, and maintain the last assigned
descent. altitude or climb to the anticipated missed approach altitude if
In some terminal areas, the en route controller may issue initial the missed approach altitude is higher.
descent instructions at TOD, but it may be an arrival controller
who could ultimately be responsible for sequencing aircraft to 9.2.3.11 Open Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR)
the final approach course. Pilots should always state their Procedures
requested approach when making initial contact with the
Similar to a closed STAR, an open STAR procedure also provides
controller who will be responsible for sequencing the aircraft to
a continuous path from the en route structure but does not
the final approach course, even if the initial descent clearance
automatically join up with the final approach course. Open
was issued by another controller.
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STARs are charted with an expectation of vectors and essentially Figure 9.4 — CYHZ ILS RWY 23 with “GNSS REQUIRED”
place aircraft in a downwind to simplify approach sequencing. Left and Right IAWP to IF Transitions
A STAR can be linked to an approach once ATC has issued an
approach clearance. Unless ATC issues an approach clearance,
aircraft must continue on the STAR procedure while awaiting
ATC instructions. Once an approach clearance is issued, the
pilot is expected to comply with any remaining STAR charted
altitude and speed restrictions, intercept the final approach
course using the assigned transition (or the assigned vectors),
and conduct a straight-in approach. If an approach clearance is
not received prior to the transition that is expected by the pilot,
the aircraft will maintain the STAR as charted, and ATC will
provide vectors to a point from which the aircraft can fly the
straight-in approach.
NOTE:
While it may still exist at a few airports, the connection between
STAR DTW and FACF is gradually being phased out.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Figure 9.6 — CYHZ RNAV (RNP) Y RWY 23 with Left Figure 9.8 — Open STAR to RNP AR APPROACH
and Right “RF REQUIRED” IWP to FAWP Transitions
Open STAR before ATC Approach Clearance; therefore STAR not Linked to Approach
5800 210 kt
MILLS
APLEX SEBOG BASRA MILLS
BASRA
SEBOG 210/5800
NOTAV SEBOG
APLEX
VECTOR
STAR
NOT LINKED
RNP APPROACH
SEBOG 210/5800
NOTAV
BEXIM
BEXIM
Open STAR after ATC Approach Clearance; therefore STAR Linked to Approach
5800 210 kt
BASRA MILLS
RAC
since linking the STAR to the approach has not yet been permitted. STAR/approach interface waypoint, unless it is cleared for an
Linking the STAR to the approach without ATC clearance could approach, the pilot shall proceed direct to the STAR waypoint,
result in a loss of separation. and not to the approach waypoint, to re-intercept the STAR profile.
Figure 9.7 — Open STAR to RNP APPROACH 9.2.3.16 Direct Routings to an Initial Approach
Waypoint (IAWP)/Intermediate Waypoint (IWP)
Open STAR before ATC Approach Clearance; therefore STAR not Linked to Approach
DUDLI BEXIM
Open STAR after ATC Approach Clearance; therefore STAR Linked to Approach the wings level prior to the beginning of the RF leg. The straight
APLEX SEBOG BASRA MILLS segment prior to these RF legs provides adequate time for aircraft
MILLS
BASRA
to stabilize in this configuration. Direct routings to the beginning
of RF leg segments are not permitted. An RNP AR APCH must
SEBOG
STAR APLEX
RNP APPROACH DUDLI
DUDLI BEXIM
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
9.2.3.17 Cancelling Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) When an approach clearance is issued, the published name of
Procedures the approach is used to designate the type of approach if adherence
Accepting a visual approach clearance automatically cancels the to a particular procedure is required. If visual reference to the
STAR procedure. A STAR may also be cancelled by ATC if ground is established before completion of a specified approach,
required. If ATC cancels a STAR, the pilot should expect alternate the aircraft should continue with the entire procedure unless
instructions (either vectors to the final approach course, or a further clearance is obtained.
new route clearance). A STAR that has been cancelled may be Example:
reinstated by ATC.
CLEARED TO THE OTTAWA AIRPORT,
STRAIGHT-IN ILS RUNWAY ZERO SEVEN
9.2.3.18 Communication Failures on a Standard APPROACH.
Terminal Arrival (STAR) Procedure
CLEARED TO THE TORONTO AIRPORT, ILS
See the CFS, section F (Emergency), under Two-Way RUNWAY ZERO SIX LEFT APPROACH.
Communications Failure—IFR Flight Plan
The number of the runway on which the aircraft will land is
9.3 APPROACH CLEARANCE included in the approach clearance when a landing will be made
on a runway other than that aligned with the instrument approach
When using direct controller pilot communications, ATC aid being used.
normally advises pilots of the ceiling, visibility, wind, runway,
altimeter setting, approach aid in use, and pertinent aerodrome Example:
conditions (CRFI, RSC, etc.) immediately prior to or shortly CLEARED TO THE OTTAWA AIRPORT,
after descent clearance. Upon acknowledging receipt of the STRAIGHT-IN ILS RUNWAY ZERO SEVEN
current ATIS broadcast, the pilot is advised by ATC of the current APPROACH/CIRCLING PROCEDURE SOUTH
airport conditions only if they are changing rapidly. FOR RUNWAY THREE TWO.
Aircraft destined to airports which underlie controlled low- level
airspace and for which there is a published instrument approach NOTE:
procedure, will be cleared out of controlled airspace (vertically) If the pilot begins a missed approach during a circling procedure,
via the published instrument approach procedure. the published missed approach procedure as shown for the
instrument approach just completed shall be flown. The pilot
Example: does not use the procedure for the runway on which the landing
ATC CLEARS (aircraft identification) OUT OF was planned.
CONTROLLED AIRSPACE VIA (name, type)
APPROACH. At some locations during periods of light traffic, controllers may
issue clearances that do not specify the type of approach.
Aircraft destined to airports which underlie controlled low-level
Example:
airspace and for which there is not a published instrument
approach procedure will be cleared to descend out of controlled CLEARED TO THE LETHBRIDGE AIRPORT FOR
airspace and informed of the appropriate minimum IFR altitude. AN APPROACH.
RAC
Upon changing to the tower or FSS frequency, pilots should 9.5 ADVANCE NOTICE OF INTENT IN
advise the agency of the intended route and published instrument MINIMUM WEATHER CONDITIONS
approach procedure being carried out.
ATC can handle missed approaches more efficiently if the
The pilot should not deviate from the stated instrument approach controller knows the pilot’s intentions in advance. They can use
procedure or route without the concurrence of ATC because the extra time to plan for the possibility of a missed approach
such an act could cause dangerous conflict with another aircraft and thus provide better service in the event of an actual missed
or a vehicle on a runway. approach.
A clearance for an approach may not include any intermediate Pilots should adopt the following procedures as the occasion arises.
altitude restrictions. The pilot may receive this clearance while
On receipt of approach clearance, when the ceiling and visibility
the aircraft is still a considerable distance from the airport, in
reported at the destination airport is such that a missed approach
either an ATS surveillance or non-ATS surveillance environment.
is probable, the pilot should advise the controller as follows:
In these cases, the pilot may descend, at his/her convenience, to
whichever is the lowest of the following IFR altitudes applicable IN THE EVENT OF MISSED APPROACH REQUEST
to the position of the aircraft: (altitude or level) VIA (route) TO (airport).
(a) minimum en route altitude (MEA); Implementation of this procedure increases the amount of
communications, but the increase can be minimized if pilots
(b) published transition or feeder route altitude;
employ it only when there is a reasonable chance that a missed
(c) minimum sector altitude (MSA) specified on the appropriate approach may occur.
instrument approach chart;
(d) safe altitude 100 NM specified on the appropriate instrument 9.6 CONTACT AND VISUAL APPROACHES
approach chart; or
(e) when in airspace for which the Minister has not specified 9.6.1 Contact Approach
a higher minimum, an altitude of at least 1 000 ft above the A contact approach is an approach wherein an aircraft on an
highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 5 NM (1 500 ft IFR flight plan or flight itinerary having an ATC clearance,
or 2 000 ft within designated mountainous regions, operating clear of clouds with at least 1 NM flight visibility and
depending on the zone) from the established position of the a reasonable expectation of continuing to the destination airport
aircraft. in those conditions, may deviate from the IAP and proceed to
NOTE: the destination airport by visual reference to the surface of the
When a pilot receives and accepts an ATC clearance which earth. In accordance with CAR 602.124, the aircraft shall be
authorizes descent to MSA or a safe altitude 100 NM during flown at an altitude of at least 1 000 ft above the highest obstacle
normal IFR operations, descent below the MEA for the preceding located within a horizontal radius of 5 NM from the estimated
en route phase should not commence until the pilot can positively position of the aircraft in flight until the required visual reference
establish the aircraft’s position by means of a bearing, radial, is acquired in order to conduct a normal landing. Pilots are
DME, ATS surveillance or visual means. cautioned that conducting a contact approach in minimum
CAUTION: visibility conditions introduces hazards to flight not experienced
RAC
Pilots are cautioned that descents to MSA or Safe Altitude 100 NM when flying IFR procedures. Familiarity with the aerodrome
may, under certain conditions, exit controlled airspace. ATC environment, including local area obstacles, terrain, noise
provides IFR separation within controlled airspace only. sensitive areas, Class F airspace and aerodrome layout, is
paramount for a successful contact approach in minimum
9.4 DESCENT OUT OF CONTROLLED visibility conditions. Pilots are responsible for the adherence to
AIRSPACE published noise abatement procedures and compliance with any
restrictions that may apply to Class F airspace when conducting
ATC may not clear an aircraft to operate below the MEA of an
a contact approach.
airway, nor below the minimum IFR altitude in other controlled
low-level airspace. The pilot, however, may operate at the MOCA, NOTE:
and ATC will approve flight at the MOCA at the pilot’s request. This type of approach will only be authorized by ATC when:
If unable to cancel IFR at the MEA, the pilot may advise that
he/she intends to descend to the MOCA. By prior arrangement (a) the pilot requests it; and
with ATC, the MEA will be protected in the event that the pilot
(b) there is an approved functioning instrument approach or
does not encounter visual conditions at the MOCA. Under this
a published GNSS approach for the airport.
arrangement, the MEA will be protected:
An aircraft that requests a contact approach to an airport served
(a) until the pilot files an arrival report;
only by a GNSS approach is indicating to ATS that the pilot
(b) for 30 min; to allow descent to the MOCA and return to
understands that no ground-based approach is available and is
the MEA when communication is restored with ATC; or
confirming that it is able to conduct a GNSS approach.
(c) if ATC does not hear from the pilot under (a) or (b), until
the aircraft is estimated to have arrived at the filed alternate
plus 30 min.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
ATC will ensure IFR separation from other IFR flights and will ATC will issue a a visual approach clearance and, as required,
issue specific missed approach instructions if there is any doubt supplement it with additional instructions such as:
that a landing will be accomplished. Pilots are cautioned that
(a) Heading assignment:
when any missed approach is initiated while conducting a contact
approach, obstacle and terrain avoidance is the pilot’s responsibility (i) To ensure the aircraft stays separated from preceding
even though specific missed approach instructions may have or succeeding traffic. ATC will consider the aircraft’s
been issued by ATC. ATC only ensures appropriate IFR separation altitude and remaining distance to the airport when
from other IFR aircraft during contact approaches. using this method; and
(ii) To comply with parallel runway operation rules that
NOTE:
require a 30-degree intercept heading to final prior
ATC will not issue an IFR approach clearance that includes
to issuing the visual approach clearance.
clearance for a contact approach unless there is a published and
functioning IAP or a restricted instrument approach (b) Distance to intercept the final approach course and/or
procedure (RIAP) authorized by TC for the airport. Where a altitude to establish separation from traffic under the control
GNSS approach is the only available IAP or RIAP, this fulfills tower’s responsibility using references to:
the requirement for a “functioning instrument approach.” (i) published NAVAIDs, fixes, or waypoints;
(ii) the distance from the runway; and
9.6.2 Visual Approach
(iii) a prominent landmark on the final approach course.
A visual approach is an approach wherein an aircraft on an IFR ATC may anticipate that pilots will navigate to the final approach
flight plan, operating in VMC under the control of ATC and course using the following methods depending on the aircraft’s
having ATC authorization, may proceed to the destination altitude and distance from the airport:
airport. It permits aircraft to manage their lateral and vertical
flight profiles according to the runway. (a) Flying the shortest distance to the airport while complying
with ATC and noise abatement restrictions; or
To gain operational advantages in a surveillance environment,
the pilot may request a visual approach, or ATC may initiate (b) Using the on-board navigation guidance to follow a lateral
one, provided that: profile reflecting any remaining portion of the STAR and
the previously planned published instrument approach
(a) the reported ceiling at the destination airport is 500 ft or procedure. This provides the following benefits:
more above the minimum IFR altitude and the ground
visibility is 3 statute miles or more; (i) enhanced aircraft energy management;
(b) at a controlled or uncontrolled airport, the pilot reports (ii) predictability;
sighting the airport; and (iii) reduced flight deck workload;
(c) at a controlled airport, (iv) flexibility in meeting stabilized approach criteria;
(i) the pilot reports sighting the preceding aircraft and and
is instructed by ATC to follow that aircraft; or (v) adherence to altitude restrictions during nighttime
RAC
(ii) the pilot reports sighting the airport but not the conditions.
preceding aircraft, in which case ATC will ensure As both methods differ in terms of flying distance, it is good
separation from the preceding aircraft until: airmanship for pilots to advise ATC of the planned flight path,
(A) the preceding aircraft has landed; or especially if it is likely to be unexpected or unpredictable, such
(B) the pilot has sighted the preceding aircraft and as cases involving the widening of the base leg or the inability
has been instructed to follow or maintain visual to shorten the flying distance as anticipated by ATC.
separation from it.
ATC considers acceptance of a visual approach clearance as 9.6.2.1 Missed Approach
acknowledgement that the pilot should be responsible for: A visual approach is not an IAP, and except for published visual
(a) maintaining visual separation from the preceding aircraft approach procedures in the CAP, there are no procedures
that the pilot has been instructed to follow; associated with a missed visual approach; visual approaches
therefore have no missed approach segment. If a go-around is
(b) maintaining adequate wake turbulence separation from the
necessary for any reason, aircraft operating at controlled airports
preceding aircraft that the pilot has been instructed to follow;
will be issued an appropriate advisory/clearance/instruction by
(c) navigating to the final approach course; the tower to ensure that separation from other airport traffic is
(d) adhering to published noise abatement procedures and maintained.
avoiding Class F airspace; and
NOTE:
(e) at uncontrolled airports, maintaining appropriate separation It is understood that the execution of a missed approach
from VFR traffic that, in many cases, will not be known manoeuvre involves critical internal flight deck communications
to ATC. and high pilot workload. If these instructions are required for
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
planning, pilots may request them before the approach clearance 9.7.2 ATS Surveillance Required
or at any time prior to initiating the missed approach.
Traditionally, instrument approach procedures have been
ATC instructions will guide the pilot to: developed to include a procedure turn initial approach segment.
1. continue flying the issued IFR clearance; or Procedure turns permitted the pilot to “self navigate” the aircraft
within the procedure in order to place the aircraft in a position
2. integrate into the airport VFR circuit. to conduct a normal landing. Introducing DME and other feeder
Controlled Airports — At controlled airports, until missed routes or transitions permitted the pilot to conduct a straight-in
approach instructions are issued, ATC should anticipate that procedure without conducting the procedure turn. Most
pilots conducting a go-around from a visual approach will: instrument procedures today are accomplished without
conducting a procedure turn.
(a) initially fly the runway heading;
Instrument approaches at Canada’s major airports are conducted
(b) follow the published missed approach instructions for the
by vectors to the final approach course. While procedure turns
IAP requested by the pilots and acknowledged by ATC; or
are depicted on the instrument approach procedures at these
(c) follow the published missed approach instructions for the airports, procedure turns are never flown. ATC route and space
IAP advertised on the ATIS. all aircraft within the terminal area in order to provide a
Uncontrolled Airports — At uncontrolled airports, aircraft crews systematic flow of the air traffic. An aircraft conducting a
are required to remain clear of clouds and are expected to complete procedure turn manoeuvre at these major centres would cause
a landing as soon as possible. If a landing cannot be accomplished, serious traffic disruptions which may lead to losses of separation
the aircraft crew is required to: or possibly a mid-air collision.
(a) remain clear of clouds; and Instrument procedures are being introduced eliminating the
procedure turn as well as including a statement “ATS
(b) maintain separation from other airport traffic. SURVEILLANCE REQUIRED” as part of the procedure. The
The crew is also expected to contact ATC as soon as possible for initial approach segment of these instrument procedures is being
further clearance. provided by ATC vectors. Without ATC vectoring, the instrument
procedure may not have a published initial approach segment.
ATC separation from other IFR aircraft is only assured once
further ATC clearance has been received and acknowledged by Should an aircraft communication failure occur while being
the aircraft crew. vectored for one of these approaches, refer to the communications
failure procedures detailed in RAC Two-Way Communication
9.7 ARRIVALS Failure.
RAC
vectoring is carried out to establish the aircraft on an approach
which prescribes the following maximum speeds for all aircraft:
aid. The initial instruction is normally a turn to a heading for
vectors to a final approach to the runway in use. Should a 1. below 10 000 ft ASL, 250 KIAS; and
communications failure occur after this point, the pilot should 2. below 3 000 ft AGL and within 10 NM of controlled airports,
continue and carry out a straight-in approach if able, or carry 200 KIAS.
out a procedure turn and land as soon as possible. Aircraft are
To assist with vectoring, it is sometimes necessary to issue speed
vectored so as to intercept the final approach course approximately
adjustments. While ATC will take every precaution not to request
2 NM from the point at which final descent will begin.
speeds beyond the capability of the aircraft, it is the pilot’s
Example: responsibility to ensure that the aircraft is not operated at an
JULIETT WHISKEY CHARLIE, TURN LEFT unsafe speed. If ATC issues a speed reduction that is inconsistent
HEADING ONE SEVEN ZERO TO INTERCEPT with safe operation, the pilot must inform ATC when unable to
FINAL APPROACH COURSE. SEVEN MILES comply.
FROM AIRPORT. CLEARED FOR STRAIGHT-IN Speed adjustment will be expressed in units of 10 KIAS or
ILS RUNWAY ONE FIVE LEFT APPROACH. multiples of 10 KIAS. Pilots complying with a speed adjustment
CONTACT TORONTO TOWER ON ONE ONE are expected to maintain a speed within 10 KIAS of the
EIGHT DECIMAL SEVEN NOW. specified speed.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
plan, but rather indicates that the aircraft is now receiving airport
transferred to the PAR controller for the approach. control service. In such instances, IFR separation minima may
Example: not continue to be applied. The tower controller may use visual
separation procedures, or issue clearances and instructions as
JULIETT WHISKEY CHARLIE, EIGHT MILES necessary to maintain a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of
FROM AIRPORT, TURN LEFT HEADING TWO airport traffic. Occasionally the tower controller may issue
SEVEN ZERO FOR FINAL APPROACH. CLEARED instructions that supersede previous instructions and clearances
FOR PRECISION RADAR APPROACH that the pilot had received from the IFR unit. Acknowledgement
RUNWAY TWO FOUR. CONTACT TRENTON of these instructions indicates to the tower that the pilot shall
PRECISION ON ONE TWO EIGHT DECIMAL comply with them. A pilot must not assume that the control
SEVEN NOW. tower has ATS surveillance equipment or that ATS surveillance
In an emergency, where surveillance radar coverage permits it, service is being provided.
air traffic controllers will provide a surveillance radar approach
if no alternative method of approach is available and the pilot 9.11 INITIAL CONTACT WITH AIR-GROUND
declares an emergency and requests a radar approach. FACILITY AT UNCONTROLLED
AERODROMES
NOTE:
Pilots shall establish communications with the air-groundfacility
NAV CANADA are not flight-checked or commissioned for
(FSS, RCO, CARS or UNICOM) on the appropriate frequency
surveillance approaches, nor are NAV CANADA controllers
if in direct communication with an ACC or a TCU, when directed
specifically trained to provide them.
to do so by the ACC or TCU.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Notwithstanding this, in accordance with CAR 602.104, pilots Subsection 2 of CAR 602.104 states:
shall establish communication with the facility on the appropriate
The pilot-in-command of an IFR aircraft who intends to conduct
frequency no later than five minutes prior to the estimated time
an approach to or a landing at an uncontrolled aerodrome shall
of commencing the approach procedure. If the ATC approach
report
clearance has not already been received, it should be obtained
from the agency listed on CAP approach charts, unless otherwise (a) the pilot-in-command’s intentions regarding the operation
directed by ATC. of the aircraft
(i) five minutes before the estimated time of commencing
NOTES: the approach procedure, stating the estimated time
of landing,
1. If a pilot is instructed to remain on the ATC frequency
rather than being transferred to the appropriate frequency (ii) when commencing a circling manoeuvre, and
for the uncontrolled aerodrome, it remains the pilot’s (iii) as soon as practicable after initiating a missed
responsibility to notify the associated destination aerodrome approach procedure; and
ground station, or to broadcast where no ground station
exists, and report in accordance with the following (b) the aircraft’s position
subsection. This may be accomplished by taking one of the (i) when passing the fix outbound, where the pilot-in-
following actions: command intends to conduct a procedure turn or,
(a) if the aircraft is equipped with more than one two-way if no procedure turn is intended, when the aircraft
communication radio, the pilot is expected to make the first intercepts the final approach course,
report on the appropriate frequency with the secondary (ii) when passing the final approach fix or three minutes
radio, while monitoring the ATC frequency on the before the estimated time of landing where no final
primary radio; or approach fix exists, and
(b) if the aircraft is equipped with a single two-way (iii) on final approach.
communication radio, the pilot must first request and
In addition to these requirements, pilots operating aircraft under
receive permission to leave the ATC frequency in order
IFR into an uncontrolled aerodrome, when the weather conditions
to transmit this directed or broadcast report and then
at the aerodrome could permit VFR circuit operations, are
return to the ATC frequency; or, if this is not possible,
expected to approach and land on the active runway that may
the pilot should specifically request ATC to notify the
be established by the aircraft operating in the VFR circuit. Pilots
associated ground station of their approach intentions
operating aircraft under IFR at an uncontrolled aerodrome do
and estimated time of landing.
not establish any priority over aircraft operating under VFR at
2. At aerodromes where RAAS is provided via an RCO and that aerodrome. Should it be necessary for the IFR aircraft to
where AWOS (or LWIS) weather information is also broadcast approach and/or land on a runway contrary to the established
via a voice generator module (VGM), it is recommended VFR operation, it is expected that appropriate communications,
that pilots listen to the broadcast prior to contacting the between pilots or between pilots and the air-ground facility, will
air-ground facility, and upon contact, advise that they have be effected in order to ensure there is no traffic conflict.
RAC
the wind and altimeter information.
Because a VGM weather broadcast contains up-to-the-minute 9.13 INSTRUMENTS FLIGHT RULES (IFR)
weather, it will be more current and may differ slightly from the PROCEDURES AT AN UNCONTROLLED
most recently disseminated aerodrome routine meteorological AERODROME IN UNCONTROLLED
report (METAR) or aviation selected special weather report AIRSPACE
(SPECI). The latest METAR or SPECI for the remote aerodrome
Pilots operating under IFR in uncontrolled airspace should,
will be provided, upon request, from the ATS unit controlling
whenever practical, monitor 126.7 MHz and broadcast their
the RCO.
intentions on this frequency immediately prior to changing
altitude or commencing an approach. Therefore, when arriving
9.12 INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES (IFR) at an aerodrome where another frequency is designated as the
REPORTING PROCEDURES AT MF, descent and approach intentions should be broadcast on
UNCONTROLLED AERODROMES 126.7 MHz before changing to the MF. If conflicting IFR traffic
Subsection 1 of CAR 602.104—Reporting Procedures for IFR becomes evident, this change should be delayed until the conflict
Aircraft When Approaching or Landing at an Uncontrolled is resolved. Once established on the MF, the pilot shall make the
Aerodrome “applies to persons operating IFR aircraft when reports listed in the subsection above.
approaching or landing at an uncontrolled aerodrome, whether A straight-in landing from an IFR approach should not be used
or not the aerodrome lies within an MF area.” at an uncontrolled aerodrome where air-ground advisory is not
available to provide the wind direction and speed and runway
condition reports required to conduct a safe landing. The pilot
should determine the wind and verify that the runway is
unobstructed before landing. Where pilots lack any necessary
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
information, they are expected to ensure that a visual inspection Where more than one transition intersects the final approach
of the runway is completed prior to landing. In some cases, this track at different points, only the furthest intersection is
can only be accomplished by conducting a circling approach designated as the IF. Pilots may begin a straight-in approach
using the appropriate circling MDA. from any depicted transition that intersects the final approach
track inside the designated IF provided that ATC is aware of
Pilots operating aircraft under IFR into an uncontrolled
their intentions and subsequent manoeuvring is within the
aerodrome in uncontrolled airspace when the weather conditions
capabilities of the aircraft.
at the aerodrome could permit VFR circuit operations are
expected to approach and land on the active runway that may If the aircraft is badly positioned, laterally or vertically, after
be established by the aircraft operating in the VFR circuit. Pilots being cleared by ATC for the straight-in approach, pilots should
operating aircraft under IFR at an uncontrolled aerodrome in climb to the procedure turn altitude, or the minimum altitude
uncontrolled airspace do not establish any priority over aircraft at the facility if one is depicted, and proceed to the FAF requesting
operating under VFR at that aerodrome. Should it be necessary clearance for a procedure turn.
for the IFR aircraft to approach to, land, or take off on a runway
contrary to the established VFR operation, it is expected that NOTE:
appropriate communications between the pilots, or pilots and If the FAF is behind the aircraft, the pilot must conduct a missed
the air-ground facility, will be effected in order to ensure that approach and request further clearance from ATC.
there is no conflict of traffic.
The depiction of radials on a DME arc transition to an IF are
normally limited to the radial forming the IAF at the beginning
9.14 OUTBOUND REPORT of the arc, the lead radial (if required) to indicate where the turn
To apply the prescribed separation minima between aircraft to the final approach track should be commenced, and radials
intending to make a complete instrument approach procedure forming step-down fixes if descent to lower altitudes can be
and other aircraft, ATC must often establish the position and approved. However, the arc may be joined from any radial that
direction of arriving aircraft with respect to the approach facility. intercepts the depicted arc.
When reporting “outbound”, pilots should make these reports
only after they are over or abeam the approach facility and 9.17 PROCEDURE ALTITUDES AND
proceeding in a direction away from the airport. CURRENT ALTIMETER SETTING
All altitudes published in the CAP are minimum altitudes that
9.15 STRAIGHT-IN APPROACH meet obstacle clearance requirements when International
ATC uses the term “straight-in approach” to indicate an Standard Atmosphere (ISA) conditions exist and the aircraft
instrument approach conducted so as to position the aircraft on altimeter is set to the current altimeter setting for that aerodrome.
final approach without performing a procedure turn. The altimeter setting may be a local or a remote setting when
so authorized on the instrument approach chart. A current
9.16 STRAIGHT-IN APPROACHES FROM AN altimeter setting is one provided by approved direct reading or
INTERMEDIATE FIX remote equipment or by the most recent routine hourly weather
report. These readings are considered current up to 90 min from
Published transitions normally are designated from an en route
RAC
by the standard atmosphere. As a general rule this is considered altitudes accepted by a pilot should not be adjusted to
to be 0°C or, when MDAs/DAs are 1 000 ft HAA or higher, it compensate for cold temperatures, i.e. if a pilot accepts
begins at 10°C. “maintain 3 000”, an altitude correction should not be applied
to 3 000 ft.
NOTE:
(b) Vectoring altitudes assigned by ATC are temperature
Should the pilot feel that the above rules do not adequately adjust
corrected and require no temperature compensation by
the published minimum IFR altitudes in the procedures to
pilots.
compensate for low temperatures, it is at the pilot’s discretion
to apply temperature correction whenever the aerodrome (c) When altitude corrections are applied to a published
temperature is below the ISA. mandatory altitude or missed approach holding altitude,
pilots should advise ATC of the temperature-corrected
Corrections may be obtained from the “Altitude Correction altitude prior to crossing the associated waypoint.
Chart” in the CAP (which is reproduced as Table 9.1 in RAC).
This chart is calculated for an aerodrome at sea level. It is, The “Altitude Correction Chart” was calculated assuming a
therefore, conservative when applied to aerodromes at higher linear variation of temperature with height. It is based on the
altitudes. To calculate the corrections (reduced altitudes) for following equation, which may be used with the appropriate
specific aerodromes or altimeter setting sources above sea level, value of to, H, Lo and Hss to calculate temperature corrections
or for values not tabulated, refer to the following paragraphs. for specific conditions. This equation produces results that are
within five percent of the accurate correction for altimeter setting
With respect to altitude corrections, the following procedures sources up to 10 000 ft and with minimum heights up to 5 000 ft
apply: above that source. Unless otherwise specified, the destination
(a) IFR assigned altitudes may be either accepted or refused. aerodrome elevation is used as the elevation of the altimeter source.
Refusal in this case is based upon the pilot’s assessment of
temperature effect on obstacle clearance. IFR assigned
Aerodrome Height above the elevation of the altimeter setting sources (feet)
Temperature ˚C
200 300 400 500 600 700 800 900 1 000 1 500 2 000 3 000 4 000 5 000
+10 20 30 40 60 80 100
0 20 20 30 30 40 40 50 50 60 90 120 170 230 290
-10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 150 200 290 390 490
-20 30 50 60 70 90 100 120 130 140 210 280 430 570 710
-30 40 60 80 100 120 130 150 170 190 280 380 570 760 950
-40 50 80 100 120 150 170 190 220 240 360 480 720 970 1 210
-50 60 90 120 150 180 210 240 270 300 450 600 890 1 190 1 500
RAC
NOTES:
1. The corrections have been rounded up to the next 10-ft increment.
2. Values should be added to published minimum IFR altitudes.
3. Temperature values from the reporting station nearest to the position of the aircraft should be used. This is normally the aerodrome.
Table 9.2—Example of Corrections for an Aerodrome at an Elevation of 2 262 ft with a Temperature of -50˚C
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
( )
15 – t0 adequate visual reference in applying circling minima and the
Correction = H ×
273 + t0 – 0.5 × L0 × (H + Hss) aircraft is suitably positioned to land straight in.
Example:
where:
RASS: When using CYHU add 120’. Circling minima apply.
H = minimum height above the altimeter setting
source (When using St-Hubert altimeter, add 120 ft to the intermediate,
(setting source is normally the aerodrome final and missed approach segment minimum altitudes; circling
unless otherwise specified) minima apply.)
t0 = taerodrome + Lo * haerodrome aerodrome (or specified
temperature reporting point) temperature 9.18 DEPARTURE, APPROACH AND
adjusted to sea level ALTERNATE MINIMA
L0 = 0.0065˚C per metre or 0.00198˚C per foot The civil minima published in the CAP shall, unless otherwise
authorized, be observed by all pilots in accordance with their
Hss = altimeter setting source elevation instrument rating as outlined in RAC Figure 9.2. Authorization
taerodrome = aerodrome (or specified temperature reporting to operate to special limits may be obtained by air operators in
point) temperature accordance with Part VII of the CARs or by private operators
haerodrome = aerodrome (or specified temperature in accordance with subpart 604 of the CARs
reporting point) elevation
9.18.1 Category II Instrument Landing
The actual lapse rate may vary considerably from the assumed
System (ILS) Approach Minima
standard, depending on latitude and time of year. However, the
corrections derived from the linear approximation can be taken Category II operations are precision approaches in weather
as a satisfactory estimate for general application at levels up to minima as low as 100 ft DH and RVR 1 200 ft. These minima
10 000 ft. are restricted to aircraft and pilots specifically approved for such
operations by TC and to runways specially equipped for the
9.17.2 Remote Altimeter Setting category of operation. Details on Category II requirements are
contained in CAR 602.128, Landing Minima, and the Manual
Normally, approaches shall be flown using the current altimeter of All Weather Operations (Categories II and III) (TP 1490E).
setting only for the destination aerodrome. However, at certain
aerodromes where a local pressure setting is not available,
approaches may be flown using a current altimeter setting for
a nearby aerodrome. Such an altimeter setting is considered a
remote altimeter setting, and authorization for its use is published
in the RASS box, located at the bottom left-hand corner of the
approach chart, adjacent to the minima box, below the profile view.
RAC
AIRCRAFT ROTORCRAFT
TAKEOFF VISIBILITY CAP 1/2 CAP but not less than 1/4 SM.
LANDING DH or MDA CAP CAP
ALTERNATE WEATHER MINIMA REQUIREMENTS – CAP GEN
FACILITIES AVAILABLE
WEATHER REQUIREMENTS
AT SUITABLE ALTERNATE
TWO OR MORE USABLE
PRECISION APPROACHES 400 - 1 or 200 - 1/2 above the lowest
Each providing straight-in usable HAT and visibility, whichever is N/A
minima to separate suitable greater.
runways.
600 - 2* or 300-1 above the lowest
ONE USABLE PRECISION
usable HAT and visibility, whichever is N/A
APPROACH
greater.
800 - 2* or 300-1 above the lowest
NON-PRECISION ONLY
usable HAT/HAA and visibility, N/A
AVAILABLE
whichever is greater.
Forecast weather must be no lower than
NO IFR APPROACH
500 ft above a minimum IFR altitude that N/A
AVAILABLE
will permit a VFR approach and landing.
Ceiling 200 ft above the minima for
FOR ROTORCRAFT the approach to be flown, and visibility
Where instrument approach N/A at least 1 SM but never less than the
procedures are available. minimum visibility for the approach to
be flown.
RAC
(a) in the case of a foreign air operator, the foreign air operator (i) is reported to be less than the minimum take-off
is authorized to do so in its Canadian foreign air operator visibility specified in a document or the manual
certificate and complies with the Commercial Air Service referred to in subsection (1),
Standards; or
(ii) is reported to vary between distances less than and
(b) in the case of a person who operates a foreign state aircraft, greater than the minimum take-off visibility specified
the person is authorized to do so in a flight authorization in the Canada Air Pilot or a certificate referred to
and complies with the Commercial Air Service Standards. in subsection (1), or
Subsection (1) of CAR 602.126—Take-off Minima states that: (iii) is not reported; or
No pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall conduct a take-off if (c) the runway visibility as observed by the pilot-in-command,
the take-off visibility, as determined in accordance with if
subsection (2), is below the minimum take-off visibility specified
(i) the RVR is not reported, and
in:
(ii) the ground visibility of the aerodrome is not reported.
(a) the air operator certificate where the aircraft is operated in
accordance with Part VII; (iii) With respect to takeoff visibility, pilots will be
advised of the ground visibility by the appropriate
(b) a special authorization issued under subsection 604.05(2); ATS unit. In the following example, explanations
or are provided to illustrate whether takeoff is authorized
(c) the Canada Air Pilot in any case other than a case described in a variety of visibility conditions.
in paragraph (a) or (b).
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RAC
precision approach to an airport where low-visibility procedures 2 1 1/2, RVR or Rwy Vis > 6 000
are in effect. Low-visibility procedures are associated with CAT III 2 1/4 1 3/4, RVR or Rwy Vis > 6 000
operations. They are specified for an airport (for example, CYVR 2 1/2 2, RVR or Rwy Vis > 6 000
or CYYZ) in the CAP and restrict aircraft and vehicle operations 2 3/4 2 1/4, RVR or Rwy Vis > 6 000
on the movement area of the airport when the RVR is less than 3 2 1/4, RVR or Rwy Vis > 6 000
1 200 ft.
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MEASURED RVR HELICOPTERS CAR 700.11 specifies the CAT II and CAT III precision approach
ban that applies to commercial operators. No pilot shall continue
RVR “A” only 1 200 a CAT II or CAT III precision approach in an IFR aircraft beyond
RVR “A” and “B” 1 200/0 the FAF inbound, or where there is no FAF, the point where the
RVR “B” only 1 200 final approach course is intercepted, unless the RVR reported
is equal to or greater than the minimum RVR specified in the
An RVR report takes precedence over a runway visibility report CAP in respect of the runway or surface of intended approach
or a ground visibility report, and a runway visibility report takes for the IAP conducted.
precedence over a ground visibility report. Ground visibility
will only impose an approach ban at aerodromes south of 60ºN Table 9.8— Minimum RVR for Airplane and Helicopter
latitude. If no RVR, runway visibility, or ground visibility is CAT II Approaches (Commercial Operators)
reported, there are no criteria to impose an approach ban. (This
concept is similar to the present CAR 602 approach ban, where MEASURED AEROPLANES HELICOPTERS
if there is no RVR reported, there is no criterion to impose an RVR*
approach ban.) RVR “A” and “B” 1 200/600 1 200/0
The following exceptions to the above prohibitions apply to all
aircraft when: Table 9.9— Minimum RVR for Aircraft CAT III
Approaches (Commercial Operators)
(a) the visibility report is below the required value, and the
aircraft has passed the FAF inbound, or where there is no MEASURED CAT IIIA CAT IIIB CAT IIIC
RVR *
FAF, the point where the final approach course is intercepted;
(b) the pilot-in-command has informed the appropriate ATC RVR “A”, “B” Not Not
600/600/600
unit that the aircraft is on a training flight and that the and “C” Authorized Authorized
pilot-in-command intends to initiate a missed approach *RVR “A” located adjacent to the runway threshold.
procedure at or above the decision altitude (height) [DA(H)] RVR “B” located adjacent to the runway mid-point.
or the MDA, as appropriate; RVR “C” located adjacent to the runway end.
(c) the RVR is varying between distances less than and greater
than the minimum RVR; 9.19.2.5 Approach Ban—Commercial Operators—
Operations Specification—Non-Precision
(d) the ground visibility is varying between distances less than Approach (NPA), Approach Procedure with
and greater than the minimum visibility; Vertical Guidance (APV), or CAT I Precision
Approach
(e) a localized meteorological phenomenon is affecting the
ground visibility to the extent that the visibility on the CARs 703.41, 704.37, and 705.48 specify the NPA, APV and
approach to the runway of intended approach and along precision approach ban that applies to commercial operators
that runway, as observed by the pilot in flight and reported through an Operations Specification. CAR 703, 704 and 705
RAC
immediately to ATS, if available, is equal to or greater than operators authorized through Operations Specification 019, 303
the visibility specified in the CAP for the IAP conducted; or 503 and who meet all the conditions related to the approach
or procedure, are permitted to conduct an approach at a visibility
(f) the approach is conducted in accordance with an Operations value less than those specified in the CAR 700 approach ban.
Specification issued in accordance with CAR 703, 704 or With certain exceptions, pilots of commercial aircraft are
705. prohibited from completing an NPA, an APV, or a CAT I precision
approach past the FAF inbound, or where there is no FAF, the
No pilot shall commence an NPA, an APV, or a CAT I precision point where the final approach course is intercepted, if the
approach to an airport where low-visibility procedures are in visibility report is below the value corresponding to the CAP
effect. Low-visibility procedures are associated with CAT III advisory visibility for the approach conducted.
operations. They are specified for an airport (for example, CYVR
or CYYZ) in the CAP and restrict aircraft and vehicle operations
on the movement area of the airport when the RVR is less than
1 200 ft.
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Table 9.10— Minimum Visibility for Airplanes Runway visibility is assessed at or adjacent to the runway
(CARs 703/704/705 Operations) threshold, in the direction of the runway, based on runway lights
or landmarks that can be seen and recognized. The assessment
CAP ADVISORY VISIBILITY REPORT is made in feet based on a 200-ft runway edge light spacing, or
VISIBILITY (Grnd Vis SM, RVR “A” or using landmarks found on the applicable CAP aerodrome chart.
(SM, RVR x 100 ft) Rwy Vis ft)
A report of runway visibility should be reported immediately
1/4, RVR or Rwy Vis 1 200 to ATS in the following format:
3/8, RVR or Rwy Vis 2 000
1/2 RVR 26 “RUNWAY VISIBILITY, RUNWAY [runway number]
1/2, RVR or Rwy Vis 2 600
3/4 RVR 40 ASSESSED AS [distance assessed] FEET AT
5/8, RVR or Rwy Vis 3 400
1 RVR 50 [time] UTC,” to the nearest 100-ft increment.
3/4, RVR or Rwy Vis 4 000
1 1/4
1, RVR or Rwy Vis 5 000
1 1/2 A runway visibility report is valid for a period of 20 min after
1, RVR or Rwy Vis 5 000
1 3/4 it is assessed. If the runway visibility varies during the assessment,
1 1/4, RVR or Rwy Vis 6 000
2 the lowest value is reported. The lowest value that is reported is
1 1/4, RVR or Rwy Vis >
2 1/4 200 ft, with lower values reported as “… LESS THAN 200 FEET…”
6 000
2 1/2 The highest value that is reported is 6 000 ft, with higher values
1 1/2, RVR or Rwy Vis >
2 3/4
6 000 reported as “… GREATER THAN 6 000 FEET …”
3
1 1/2, RVR or Rwy Vis >
6 000 9.19.2.7 Localized Phenomenon
An RVR report takes precedence over a runway visibility report CAR 700.10 recognizes that certain localized meteorological
or a ground visibility report, and a runway visibility report takes conditions can reduce the reported ground visibility, thus
precedence over a ground visibility report. Ground visibility imposing an approach ban when the flight visibility appears to
will only impose an approach ban at aerodromes south of 60ºN be much greater. An example would be a localized fog bank that
latitude. If no RVR, runway visibility, or ground visibility is is covering the ground observer’s observation point, resulting
reported there are no criteria to impose an approach ban. (This in a reported ground visibility of one-quarter statute mile at an
concept is similar to the present CAR 602 approach ban, where aerodrome south of 60ºN latitude, while the flight visibility
if there is no RVR reported, there is no criterion to impose an along the approach to the runway and on the runway itself (as
approach ban.) observed by the pilot-in-command), is greater than 15 SM. In
this case, the pilot can declare a localized phenomenon, and
The following exceptions to the above prohibitions apply to override an approach ban imposed by a ground visibility report.
aeroplanes when: A pilot cannot use localized phenomena to override an RVR or
(a) the visibility report is below the required value and the a runway visibility report that imposes an approach ban. To
aircraft has passed the FAF inbound, or where there is no legally continue the approach past the FAF inbound, the flight
FAF, the point where the final approach course is intercepted; visibility on the approach path and along the runway must be
or equal to or greater than the advisory visibility published in the
CAP, for the procedure flown, and the pilot-in-command must
(b) the RVR is varying between distances less than and greater
RAC
immediately report the conditions observed to ATS.
than the minimum RVR.
CAUTION:
9.19.2.6 Runway Visibility Pilots are reminded of the insidious hazard that thin ground-
CAR 602.131 specifies the concept of runway visibility as defined based layers, such as shallow fog, ice fog, or blowing snow can
in CAR 101.01(1). The purpose of runway visibility is to determine present. Such conditions may allow a pilot-in-command to
and report a visibility at the TDZ of a runway that is not equipped override an approach ban based on what appears to be a localized
with or is not reporting an RVR. An instrument-rated pilot or phenomenon, when in fact extensive and very poor visibility
a qualified person (under CAR 804) can assess runway visibility will be encountered at low altitude during the later stages of the
when RVR sensor detection equipment is not available. In effect, approach, landing and roll-out. The pilot-in-command should
a person is permitted to assess runway visibility from take all possible information into account before overriding an
approximately the same position as an RVR “A” sensor installation. approach ban, based on what appears to be a localized
CAR Standard 622.131 (for pilots) and CAR Standard 824.25 phenomenon, in order to avoid conducting an approach during
(for qualified persons) describe how to assess and report runway these hazardous conditions.
visibility.
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Table 9.12—Advisory visibility corrections for a DH/HAT equal to or greater than 250 ft
DH/HAT (ft) Advisory Visibility when HIAL is Advisory Visibility when HIAL is
Operational (published) (SM) Inoperative (SM)
250 – 347 1 1
348 – 434 1 1¼
435 – 521 1 1½
522 – 608 1¼ 1¾
609 – 695 1½ 2
696 – 782 1¾ 2¼
783 – 869 2 2½
870 – 956 2¼ 2¾
957 and above 2½ 3
RAC
when compared against available visibility reports at the
NOTE: aerodrome to which an instrument approach is being carried
Certain published approaches that contain multiple lines of out.
minima may have step-down altitudes that are lower than a
published line of minima. Pilots should not descend to a step-
down altitude that is lower than the altitude on their selected
9.20 RUNWAY VISUAL RANGE (RVR)
line of minima.
9.20.1 Definitions
The visual references required by the pilot to continue the
Prevailing Visibility: The maximum visibility value common
approach to a safe landing should include at least one of the
to sectors comprising one-half or more of the horizontal circle.
following references for the intended runway, and should be
distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot by: NOTE:
(a) the runway or runway markings; Prevailing visibility is determined by human observations.
(b) the runway threshold or threshold markings; Runway Visual Range (RVR): in respect of a runway, means
(c) the touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings; the maximum horizontal distance, as measured by an automated
visual landing distance system and reported by an ATC unit or
(d) the approach lights;
an FSS for the direction of takeoff or landing, at which the runway,
(e) the approach slope indicator system; or the lights or markers delineating it, can be seen from a point
(f) the runway identification lights; above its centreline at a height corresponding to the average eye
level of pilots at touchdown.
(g) the threshold and runway end lights;
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To compute RVR, three factors must be known. The first is the NOTE:
transmissivity of the atmosphere as provided by a visibility At aerodromes equipped with ARCAL, the light settings may
sensor. The second is the brightness of the runway lights which not be known to ATS personnel.
is controlled on request by the ATC controller. The third factor
is whether it is day or night, since the eye can detect lights easier In daytime, even a high intensity setting can fade into background
at night than during the day. There is a period during twilight brightness. For example, the pilot may be provided with an RVR
where there is a problem similar to that with prevailing visibility of 4 000 ft while making an approach when shallow fog is
when neither day, nor night conditions prevail. occurring over a snow surface in bright sunlight. Because of the
glare, runway lights will be difficult to see; therefore, visibility
RVR is measured by a visibility sensor such as a RVR sensor will be much less than the reported RVR. In situations such as
located near the runway threshold. For CAT II landing systems, this, the use of prevailing visibility would be more appropriate.
a second sensor is provided about the mid-point of the runway.
The RVR sensor near the threshold is identified as “A” and the RVR may be used instead of prevailing visibility for landing and
second one as “B”. Their locations are important for the assessment take-off minima, but only for runways equipped with an RVR
of visibility, and so their positions are indicated on the aerodrome system. In such cases, the following table can be used.
diagrams in CAP.
Table 9.13—RVR to Be Used Instead of Prevailing
A light emitted from a source is attenuated in the atmosphere Visibility for Landing and
due to snow, fog, rain, and so forth. The amount of this attenuation, Take-Off Minima on Equipped Runways
or the transmissivity of the atmosphere, can be obtained by
measuring the amount of light reaching a detector after being GROUND VISIBILITY RVR
transmitted by a projector. The visibility sensor samples the 1 mile 5 000 feet
atmosphere at a height that best represents the slant transmittance 3/4 mile 4 000 feet
from the pilot’s eye at cockpit level to the runway.
1/2 mile 2 600 feet
1/4 mile 1 400 feet
9.20.2 Operational Use of Runway Visual
Range (RVR) See Note 2 under 1 200 feet
RVR information is available at the ATC IFR arrival control
position, the PAR position, the control tower and the FSS. NOTES:
When applicable, RVR information is given to the pilot as a 1. A comparative scale converting RVR-feet into RVR-metres
matter of routine and can be used in the determination or is shown in the GEN section.
application of visibility minima only if the active runway is 2. Ground visibility does not apply to operators with a takeoff
served by the visibility sensor. RVR information, found in the limit below 1 200 feet.
Remarks section of surface weather reports, is not to be used for
ATS phraseology applicable to the foregoing is as follows:
operational purposes and is superseded by any RVR information
from ATS personnel. (a) Runway (number) visual range/ RVR three thousand
five hundred feet.
RAC
NOTE:
(b) Runway (number) visual range/ RVR less than
RVR reports are intended to provide an indication of how far
three hundred feet.
the pilot can expect to see along the runway in the touchdown
zone; however, the actual visibility at other points along the (c) Runway (number) visual range/ RVR more than
runway may differ due to differing weather conditions. This six thousand feet.
should be taken into account when decisions must be made (d) Runway (number) visual range/ RVR (number) feet,
based on reported RVR. f luctuating (number) to (number) feet, visibility
(fraction) mile.
A pertinent phenomenon that occurs fairly often during periods
of low visibility is large fluctuations that occur over extremely (e) Runway (number) visual range/ RVR (number) feet, runway
short time intervals. As per ICAO recommendations, the RVR lights at setting four/five.
computer automatically averages the readings over the last minute. (f) Runway (number) visual range/ RVR ALFA (number) feet,
The controller will provide the RVR if it is less than 6 000 ft, or BRAVO (number) feet, CHARLIE (number) feet.
upon request. The RVR will be provided in 100-ft increments
from 300 ft to 1 199 ft, in 200-ft increments from 1 200 ft to
2 999 ft, and in 500-ft increments from 3 000 ft to 6 000 ft. The
RVR remains constant for runway light settings of 1, 2 and 3,
but it can increase for settings of 4 and 5. If the latter settings
are used, the pilot will be provided with both the RVR and the
light setting.
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165 KIAS
165 KIAS
140 KIAS
120 KIAS
SPEEDS
above
141 to
91 to
RAC
for the appropriate higher category must be used. This may be for landing;
due to operational circumstances such as emergency returns (c) a visual inspection;
requiring overweight landing or approaches made with
inoperative flaps or in icing conditions. Additionally, if it is (d) a NOTAM issued by the aerodrome operator; or
necessary to visually manoeuvre at speeds in excess of the upper (e) any other means available to the pilot, such as message relay
limit of a speed range for a category, the minima for the category from preceding aircraft at the destination.
for that higher speed must be used. For example, an aircraft
which falls in Category A, but is circling to land at a speed in
excess of 90 kt, must use the approach Category B minima when
circling to land.
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9.23 CIRCLING
Circling is the term used to describe an IFR procedure that is If it is necessary to manoeuvre an aircraft at a speed in excess
conducted by visually manoeuvring an aircraft, after completing of the upper limit of the speed range for its approach category,
an instrument approach, into position for landing on a runway the circling minima for the next higher category should be used
which is not suitably located for a straight-in landing (not usually in order to ensure appropriate protection from obstacles.
applicable to rotorcraft).
Circling restrictions are published at some locations to prevent
The visual manoeuvring area for a circling approach is determined circling manoeuvres in certain sectors or directions where higher
by drawing arcs centred on each runway threshold and joining terrain or prominent obstacles exist. This practice allows the
those arcs with tangent lines. The radius of the arcs is related to publication of lower minima than would otherwise be possible.
the aircraft category and may be based on either standard circling In such cases, the circling MDA DOES NOT PROVIDE
approach radii or expanded circling approach radii (see sections OBSTACLE CLEARANCE WITHIN THE RESTRICTED
9.23.1 and 9.23.2 below). The circling minimum descent altitude SECTOR.
(MDA) provides a minimum of 300 feet above all obstacles
within the visual manoeuvring area for each category. 9.23.1 Standard Circling Approach Radii
Figure 9.11—Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) Area Circling approach protected areas developed prior to 2020 used
the radius distances shown in the following table. Approaches
using standard circling approach areas can be identified by the
absence of the symbol on the circling line of minima.
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RAC
Figure 9.12—Typical Circling Manoeuvres
With the runway in sight at circling MDA, the pilot should
execute the missed approach if there is any doubt that the ceiling
and visibility are inadequate for manoeuvring safely to the point
of touchdown.
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(b) if there is a published missed approach track to the fix, hold issue control instructions only if an aircraft deviates or is expected
in a standard holding pattern inbound to the fix on this to deviate by 1 500 ft from the localizer centreline. Information
track; or instructions issued by the monitoring controller will be aimed
(c) if there is a published shuttle or holding pattern at the fix, at returning the aircraft to the localizer course. If the aircraft
hold in this pattern regardless of the missed approach track fails to take corrective action, the aircraft on the adjacent localizer
to the fix; or may be issued appropriate control instructions. Monitoring of
the approach is terminated without notification to the pilot when
(d) if there are published missed approach holding instructions, the aircraft is 1 NM from the runway threshold. If considered
hold in accordance with these. necessary, appropriate missed approach instructions will be
If a clearance to another destination has been received, the pilot issued.
shall, in the absence of other instructions, carry out the published THE APPROACH CLEARANCE WILL INCLUDE AN
missed approach instructions until at an altitude which will ALTITUDE THAT MUST BE MAINTAINED UNTIL
ensure adequate obstacle clearance before proceeding on course. INTERCEPTING THE GLIDE PATH. If the glide path is
If specific missed approach instructions have been received and inoperative, the pilot will be cleared to maintain an altitude to
acknowledged, the pilot is required to comply with the new a specified distance measuring equipment (DME) distance before
missed approach instructions before proceeding on course, e.g. commencing the descent.
“on missed approach, climb runway heading to 3 000 feet; right When informed by automatic terminal information service
turn, climb on course” or “on missed approach, climb straight (ATIS) or by the arrival controller that simultaneous precision
ahead to the BRAVO NDB before proceeding on course”. instrument approaches are in progress, pilots should advise the
Civil and military air traffic control procedures do not require arrival controller immediately of any avionics unserviceabilities
the air traffic controller to provide terrain and obstacle clearance having an impact on their capabilities to accept this procedure.
in their missed approach instructions. Terms such as “on missed
approach, right turn climb on course” or “on missed approach, 9.28 SIMULTANEOUS PRECISION
left turn on course” are not to be considered specific missed INSTRUMENT APPROACHES -
approach instructions. It remains the pilot’s responsibility to CONVERGING RUNWAYS
ensure terrain and obstacle avoidance and clearance.
ATC may clear pilots for precision instrument approaches
The terrain and obstacle environment in the missed approach simultaneously to converging runways at airports where this
segment may require a climb gradient greater than the standard procedure has been approved.
200 ft/NM (or 400 ft/NM for helicopter-only procedures). The
Aircraft will be informed through ATIS or by the arrival controller
pilot must plan in advance to ensure that the aircraft can meet
as soon as feasible after initial contact when simultaneous
the climb gradient required by the procedure in the event of a
precision instrument approaches to converging runways are in
missed approach and must also be aware that flying at a ground
progress. When simultaneous approaches are in progress, ATC
speed higher than anticipated will increase the climb rate
will vector arriving aircraft to the appropriate runway localizer
requirement (feet per minute). Where aircraft limitations or
for a straight-in final approach. Pilots should advise the arrival
other factors preclude the pilot from following the published
controller immediately of any malfunctioning or inoperative
climb gradient, it is the responsibility of the pilot-in-
RAC
The pilot will be instructed to change and report on the tower (g) Separate instrument approach charts denoting the
frequency prior to reaching the final approach fix (FAF) inbound. procedures.
If an aircraft is observed to overshoot the localizer during the (h) If runways intersect, tower controllers must be able to apply
final turn, the pilot will be instructed to return to the correct visual separation as well as intersecting runway separation
localizer course immediately. After an aircraft is established on criteria.
the localizer, the controller monitoring the final approach will
(i) Only straight-in approaches and landing are authorized.
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To emphasize the protection of active runways and to aid in If communication cannot be established with ATC, the pilot
preventing runway incursions, landing instructions which include should then proceed in accordance with communication failure
the words “HOLD SHORT” should be acknowledged by a procedures.
readback of the hold point by the pilot.
Examples
1. A westbound flight on R77, cleared to Greely NDB (YRR)
10.0 INSTRUMENT FLIGHT reaches Ottawa before obtaining further clearance. The
pilot is to hold at YRR on an inbound track of 287˚ and
RULES (IFR) — HOLDING request further clearance.
PROCEDURES 2. The published missed approach procedure for an ILS
RWY 23 approach at Halifax is the following:
10.1 GENERAL “CLIMB TO 2 200 ON TRACK OF 234˚ TO “ZHZ”
NDB.”
Pilots are expected to adhere to the aircraft entry and holding
manoeuvres, as described in RAC 10.5, since ATC provides A pilot missing an ILS approach to RWY 23 and not in receipt
lateral separation in the form of airspace to be protected in of further clearance is to proceed directly to the “ZHZ” NDB,
relation to the holding procedure. make a right turn and hold at the “ZHZ” beacon on an inbound
track of 234º and request further clearance.
10.2 HOLDING CLEARANCE If for any reason a pilot is unable to conform to these procedures,
A holding clearance issued by ATC includes at least ATC should be advised as early as possible.
NOTE:
In the absence of an outbound DME being issued by ATC, pilots
are expected to time the holding pattern in accordance with
subsections below.
RAC
(c) the time to leave the fix in the event of a communications failure.
Having entered the holding pattern, on the second and subsequent
NOTE: arrivals over the fix, the pilot executes a right turn to fly an
An expect-further-clearance time is usually followed by further outbound track that positions the aircraft most appropriately
en route clearance, which is followed by an expect-approach- for the turn onto the inbound track. When holding at a VOR,
clearance time when traffic conditions permit. the pilot should begin the turn to the outbound leg at the time
of station passage as indicated on the TO–FROM indicator.
During entry and holding, pilots manually flying the aircraft
are expected to make all turns to achieve an average bank angle Continue outbound for one minute if at or below 14 000 ft ASL,
of at least 25˚ or a rate of turn of 3˚ per second, whichever requires or one and a half minutes if above 14 000 ft ASL. (ATC specifies
the lesser bank. Unless the ATC clearance contains instructions distance, not time, where a DME fix is to be used for holding.)
to the contrary, or a non-standard holding pattern is published
Turn right to realign the aircraft on the inbound track.
at the holding fix, pilots are expected to make all turns to the
right after initial entry into the holding pattern.
10.4 NON-STANDARD HOLDING PATTERN
Occasionally, a pilot may reach a clearance limit before obtaining
further clearance from ATC. In this event, where a holding A non-standard holding pattern is one in which
pattern is published at the clearance limit, the pilot is to hold as (a) the fix end and outbound end turns are to the left; and/or
published. Where no holding pattern is published, the pilot is
(b) the planned time along the inbound track is other than the
to hold in a standard pattern on the inbound track to such
standard one-minute or one-and-a-half minute leg
clearance limit and request further clearance.
appropriate for the altitude flown.
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10.6 TIMING
The still air time for flying the outbound leg of a holding pattern
should not exceed 1 min if at or below 14 000 ft ASL, or 1 1/2
min if above 14 000 ft ASL; however, the pilot should make due
allowance in both heading and timing to compensate for wind
Sector 1 procedures (parallel entry) are: effect.
(a) Upon reaching the fix, turn onto the outbound heading of After the initial circuit of the pattern, timing should begin abeam
the holding pattern for the appropriate period of time. the fix or on attaining the outbound heading, whichever occurs
(b) Turn left to intercept the inbound track or to return directly later. The pilot should increase or decrease outbound times, in
to the fix. recognition of winds, to effect 1 or 1 1/2 min (appropriate to
altitude) inbound to the fix.
(c) On the second arrival over the fix, turn right and follow the
holding pattern. When the pilot receives ATC clearance specifying the time of
departure from the holding fix, adjustments should be made to
RAC
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NOTE: NOTE:
In areas where turbulence is known to exist, holding patterns All shuttle climb airspeeds are subject to CAR 602.32.
may be designed for speeds of 280 KIAS.
10.10 HOLDING PATTERNS PUBLISHED ON
10.8 DISTANCE MEASURING ENROUTE AND TERMINAL CHARTS
EQUIPMENT (DME) PROCEDURES At some high traffic density areas, holding patterns are depicted
DME holding is subject to the same entry and holding procedures on IFR Terminal Area and Enroute charts. When pilots are
previously described except that distances, in NM are used in cleared to hold at a fix where a holding pattern is published, or
lieu of time values. In describing the direction from the fix on if clearance beyond the fix has not yet been received, pilots are
which to hold and the limits of a DME holding pattern, an ATC to hold according to the depicted pattern using normal entry
clearance will specify the DME distance from the navigation procedures and timing in the hold as described above. ATC will
aid at which the inbound and outbound legs are to be terminated. use the following phraseology when clearing an aircraft holding
The end of each leg is determined by the DME indications. at a fix that has a published holding pattern;
CLEARED TO THE (fix), HOLD (direction) AS
Figure 10.4—DME Hold PUBLISHED EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE AT
(time)
NOTE:
The holding direction means the area in which the hold is to be
completed in relation to the holding fix, e.g. east, northwest, etc.
RAC
If a pattern is required that is different than that published,
detailed holding instructions will be issued by ATC.
(e.g. because of turbulence), ATC shall be notified as soon as possible, applicable to random route flight operations at and
possible that such a change has been made. above FL 290 within the conterminous U.S. and Canada.
If it is not possible to maintain the last assigned Mach number The NRP will be implemented through various phases with the
during en route climbs and descents because of aircraft end goal of allowing all international and domestic flight
performance, pilots shall advise ATC at the time of the climb/ operations to participate in the NRP throughout the conterminous
descent request. U.S. and Canada.
11.4.2.2 Eligibility
11.2 PARALLEL OFFSET PROCEDURES
Flights may participate in the NRP under specific guidelines
ATC may request that an aircraft fly a parallel offset from an and filing requirements:
assigned route. This manoeuvre and subsequent navigation is
the responsibility of the pilot. When requested to offset or regain (a) provided the f light originates and terminates within
the assigned route, the pilot should change heading by 30˚ to conterminous U.S. and Canada; or
45˚ and report when the offset or assigned route is attained. (b) for North Atlantic international flights, provided that they
In an ATS surveillance environment, ATC will provide ATS are operating within the North American Route (NAR)
surveillance monitoring and the required separation. System.
for one-way traffic, appropriate cruising flight levels will be Published fixed RNAV routes can be flight planned for use by
used. ATC will transition aircraft to the appropriate cruising aircraft with RNAV capability, subject to any limitations or
flight level for the direction of track before aircraft exit the requirements noted on the en route charts, in applicable advisory
defined areas or before termination of the indicated times. circulars, or by NOTAM.
(a) Q-routes are high-level fixed RNAV routes depicted on
11.4 CANADIAN DOMESTIC ROUTES En Route High Altitude charts using black dashed lines and
require an RNAV system with performance capabilities
11.4.1 General currently only met by GNSS or distance measuring
equipment/inertial reference unit (DME/DME/IRU)
Within North American Airspace, various route and track
systems. DME/DME/IRU navigation may be limited in
systems exist in order to provide effective management of airspace
some parts of Canada owing to navigational facility coverage.
and traffic. Under specified conditions, random routes may be
In such cases, the routes will be annotated as “GNSS only”
included in a flight plan or requested.
on the chart.
11.4.2 North American Route Program (NRP) (b) T-routes are low-level controlled fixed RNAV routes depicted
on En Route Low Altitude charts using black dashed lines
11.4.2.1 Introduction and require GNSS RNAV systems for use. The airspace
associated with T-routes extends upward from 2 200 ft AGL,
The North American Route Program (NRP) is a joint FAA and
10 NM either side of the centreline, and does not splay. The
NAV CANADA program that allows air operators to select
MOCA provides obstacle protection for only 6 NM either
operationally advantageous routings. The objective of the NRP
side of the track centreline and does not splay.
is to harmonize and adopt common procedures, to the extent
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(c) L-routes are low-level uncontrolled fixed RNAV routes on or after exiting the ACA shall report the point of exit;
depicted on En Route Low Altitude charts using green dashed (f) northbound or southbound flights which do not cross
lines and require GNSS RNAV systems for use. The MOCA significant reporting lines shall report at the entry and exit
provides obstacle protection for only 6 NM either side of points of the ACA; and
the track centreline and does not splay.
(g) as requested by ATS.
Magnetic reference bearing (MRB) is the published bearing
between two waypoints on a fixed RNAV route and will be
published within the SDA. The MRB is calculated by applying 11.4.7 Polar Routes
magnetic variation at the waypoint to the calculated true course
between two waypoints. Pilots should use this bearing as a 11.4.7.1 General
reference only, because RNAV systems will fly the true course With the advent of aircraft capable of long-range f light,
between the waypoints. True reference bearings (TRB) will be circumventing the globe via the North Pole has become routine.
published along fixed RNAV routes located in the NDA and Polar routes are flight paths to or from the Americas and Eurasia
shall be notated with the suffix “T.” via Russian polar airspace. Polar flights must file designated
polar fixes on the Anchorage/Russian border but are otherwise
11.4.5 Northern Control Area (NCA) Random random in Canadian airspace.
Routes
Within the Northern Control Area (NCA), flights operating on 11.4.7.2 Flight Planning and Position Reporting
random routes shall flight plan and make positions reports as Polar routes can be flight planned by aircraft with CMNPS
follows: certification. Flight plan routing should be filed with a fix every
(a) flights operating on predominately north or south tracks 5˚ of latitude. Random points should be expressed in whole
(315˚T clockwise through 045˚T or the reciprocals) shall degrees of latitude and either whole degrees or whole and half
report over reporting line points formed by the intersection degrees of longitude.
of parallels of latitude spaced at 5˚ intervals expressed in
latitude by whole degrees and meridians of longitude 11.4.7.3 Altitude Assignment
expressed in either whole degrees or whole and half degrees; Current cruising altitude for direction of flight requirements
(b) south of 75˚N latitude, flights operating on predominately are based on east-west traffic flows. A shift in flight track (from
east or west tracks (046˚T clockwise through 134˚T or the east to west or vice versa) requires the assignment of a new flight
reciprocals) shall report over reporting line points formed level. Flights on north-south routes may shift track, from easterly
by the intersection of either whole degrees or whole and to westerly or vice versa, depending on route segment. This
half degrees of latitude coincident with each 10˚ of longitude. shifting makes altitude assignment based on current regulations
For flights operating north of 75˚N latitude, where 20˚ of less than optimal.
longitude is traversed in less than 60 min, reporting line In order to accommodate polar route flights, aircraft operating
points are to be defined by parallels of latitude expressed on polar routes within the Edmonton, Winnipeg and Montréal
in degrees and minutes coincident with meridians of FIRs may be assigned altitudes inappropriate to the direction
RAC
longitude at 20˚ intervals; of flight. Altitude assignment is based on traffic management
(c) as requested by ATS. requirements for the movement of aircraft in a safe, orderly and
expeditious manner.
11.4.6 Arctic Control Area (ACA) Random Routes
11.5 NORTHERN AMERICAN ROUTE (NAR)
Within the Arctic Control Area (ACA), flights operating on
SYSTEM
random routes shall flight plan and make positions reports
as follows: The NAR System provides an interface between NAT oceanic
and domestic airspaces. Operating conditions and description
(a) at the reporting lines coincident with 141˚W, 115˚W and
of the NAR are contained in RAC 11.4 and the CFS, “Planning”
60˚W meridians. If the route of flight is north of 87˚N
section.
latitude, the 115˚W report is not required;
For a detailed description of the NAR System, refer to the CFS
(b) westbound flights which do not cross the 60˚W meridian
NORTH AMERICAN ROUTES (NARs) for NORTH ATLANTIC
on entry or prior to entry into the ACA shall report at the
TRAFFIC Section 7(a), which outlines the requirements to flight
point of entry into the ACA;
plan and operate using the NAR system.
(c) westbound flights which do not cross the 141˚W meridian
prior to exiting the ACA shall report at the point of exit 11.6 EMERGENCY SECURITY CONTROL OF
from the ACA; AIR TRAFFIC (ESCAT) PLAN
(d) eastbound flights which do not cross the 141˚W meridian
(see the Emergency section of the Canada Flight Supplement [CFS].)
on entry into the ACA shall report at the point of entry;
(e) eastbound flights which do not cross the 60˚W meridian
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11.7 REDUCED VERTICAL SEPARATION (b) will, within ATS surveillance airspace, vector aircraft to
MINIMUM (RVSM) establish ATS surveillance separation or establish 2 000 ft
separation if an aircraft reports greater-than-moderate
11.7.1 Definitions turbulence, or encountering mountain wave activity that
is of sufficient magnitude to significantly affect altitude-
RVSM: The application of 1000-ft vertical separation at and keeping, if 1 000 ft vertical separation exists between two
above FL 290 between aircraft approved to operate in reduced aircraft, and targets appear likely to merge;
vertical separation minimum airspace.
(c) may structure portions of the airspace for specific periods
Non-RVSM Aircraft: An aircraft that does not meet reduced of time for one-way traffic in which inappropriate flight
vertical separation minimum (RVSM) requirements for levels to the direction of flight may be assigned; and
certification and/or for operator approval.
(d) may, within non-ATS surveillance airspace, temporarily
RVSM Aircraft: An aircraft that meets reduced vertical separation suspend RVSM within selected areas and/or altitudes due
minimum (RVSM) requirements for certification and for to adverse weather conditions, e.g. pilot reports greater-
operator approval. than-moderate turbulence. When RVSM is suspended, the
vertical separation minimum between all aircraft will be
11.7.2 Reduced Vertical Separation 2 000 ft.
Minimum (RVSM) Airspace Pilots may be requested by ATC to confirm that they are approved
RVSM airspace is all airspace within CDA from FL 290 to FL 410 for RVSM operations. Pilots/operators unable to provide such
inclusive as defined in the DAH (TP 1820) and depicted in confirmation will be issued a clearance to operate outside RVSM
Figure 12.3. airspace:
PHRASEOLOGY:
Figure 11.1—RVSM Airspace and
RVSM Transition Airspace “Affirm RVSM” or “Negative RVSM (supplementary
information, e.g. monitoring flight).” See phraseology depicted
in Figure 12.4
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TRANSITION BETWEEN FLs: During cleared transition NON-RVSM AIRCRAFT IN RVSM AIRSPACE: Non-RVSM
between flight levels, the aircraft should not overshoot or aircraft may flight plan to operate within RVSM airspace,
undershoot the assigned level by more than 150 ft. provided the aircraft:
(a) is being delivered to the State of Registry or Operator;
11.7.5 Flight Planning Requirements
(b) was formerly RVSM-approved, but has experienced an
Unless an aircraft can be accommodated in RVSM airspace as equipment failure and is being flown to a maintenance
detailed in paragraph 12.17.6, RVSM approval is required for facility for repair in order to meet RVSM requirements and/
the aircraft to operate within RVSM airspace. The operator must or obtain approval;
determine that the aircraft has been approved by the appropriate
(c) is being utilized for mercy or humanitarian purposes;
State authority and will meet the RVSM requirements for the
filed route of flight and any planned alternate routes. The letter (d) is a photographic survey flight (CDA only). This approval
“W” shall be inserted in Item 10 (Equipment) of the flight plan is not applicable for that portion of flight transiting to and
to indicate that the aircraft is RVSM-compliant and the operator from the area(s) of surveying or mapping operations;
is RVSM-approved. The “W” designator is not to be used unless (e) is conducting flight checks of a NAVAID. This approval is
both conditions are met. If the aircraft registration is not used not applicable for that portion of flight transiting to and
in Item 7, the registration is to be entered in Item 18 (RAC 3.16.8 from the area(s) of flight check operations; or
“REG/”).
(f) is conducting a monitoring, certification or developmental
ATC will use the equipment block information to either issue flight.
or deny clearance into RVSM airspace and to apply either 1 000 ft
or 2 000 ft vertical separation minimum. PHRASEOLOGY: Pilots of non-RVSM flights should include
the phraseology “negative RVSM” in all initial calls on ATC
Non-RVSM aircraft requesting permission to operate in RVSM frequencies, requests for flight level changes, readbacks of flight
airspace shall include “STS/NONRVSM” in Item 18 of the flight level clearances within RVSM airspace and readbacks of climb
plan to indicate the reason for special handling by ATS. or descent clearances through RVSM airspace. See Figure 12.4.
11.7.6 Operation of Non-Reduced Vertical 11.7.7 Delivery Flights for Aircraft that are
Separation Minimum (Non-RVSM) Aircraft Reduced Vertical Separation
in RVSM Airspace Minimum (RVSM)-Compliant on Delivery
FLIGHT PRIORITY: RVSM aircraft will be given priority for An aircraft that is RVSM-compliant on delivery may operate in
level allocation over non-RVSM aircraft. Non-RVSM aircraft Canadian Domestic RVSM airspace provided that the crew is
may be accommodated on a traffic- and workload-permitting trained on RVSM policies and procedures applicable in the
basis. airspace and the responsible State issues the operator a letter of
VERTICAL SEPARATION: The vertical separation minimum authorization approving the operation.
between non-RVSM aircraft operating in RVSM airspace and State notification to the NAARMO should be in the form of a
all other aircraft is 2 000 ft. letter, e-mail or fax documenting the one-time flight indicating:
RAC
CONTINUOUS CLIMB OR DESCENT THROUGH RVSM (a) planned date of the flight;
AIRSPACE: Non-RVSM aircraft may be cleared to climb to and
operate above FL 410 or descend to and operate below FL 290, (b) flight identification;
provided the aircraft is capable of: (c) registration number; and
(a) a continuous climb or descent and does not need to level (d) aircraft type/series.
off at an intermediate altitude for any operational
considerations; and 11.7.8 Airworthiness and Operational Approval
(b) climb or descent at the normal rate for the aircraft. and Monitoring
STATE AIRCRAFT: For the purposes of RVSM operations, State Operators must obtain airworthiness and operational approval
aircraft are those aircraft used in military, customs and police from the State of Registry or State of the Operator, as appropriate,
services. to conduct RVSM operations. For the purposes of RVSM, the
following terminology has been adopted:
State aircraft are exempt from the requirement to be RVSM-
approved to operate in RVSM airspace. (a) RVSM Airworthiness Approval: The approval that is issued
by the appropriate State authority to indicate that an aircraft
has been modified in accordance with the relevant approval
documentation, e.g. service bulletin, supplemental type
certificate, and is therefore eligible for monitoring. The date
of issue of such an approval should coincide with the date
when the modification was certified by the operator as being
complete.
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(b) RVSM (Operational) Approval: The approval that is issued GPS monitoring unit (GMU) services to conduct a height-keeping
by the appropriate State authority once an operator has performance monitoring flight may be obtained from the following
achieved the following: agencies:
(i) RVSM airworthiness approval; and CSSI, Inc.
Washington, DC
(ii) State approval of Operations Manual (where
Tel: ........................................................................202-863-2175
applicable) and on-going maintenance procedures.
E-mail: ..................................................monitor@cssiinc.com
Operators of Canadian-registered aircraft intending to operate Web site: .. www.cssiinc.com/industries/aviation/reduced-
in RVSM airspace will be required to show that they meet all vertical-separation-minimum-rvsm/
the applicable standards in accordance with CARs Parts VI
and VII. Information on RVSM approval may be obtained from: ARINC
Annapolis, MD
Airworthiness Approvals: RVSM Operations Coordinator
Transport Canada Tel: ....................................................................... 410-266-4707
Safety and Security Director, E-mail: ....................................................rvsmops@arinc.com
Aircraft Certification (AARD) Web site: ....................................... www.rockwellcollins.com
Ottawa ON K2G 5X4
Tel: ....................................................................1-800-305-2059 11.7.10 North American Approvals Registry and
Fax: .......................................................................613-996-9178 Monitoring Organization (NAARMO)
The Regional Monitoring Agency for CDA is the NAARMO,
Operating Standards Commercial Air Carriers and
Private Operators: located in Atlantic City, NJ, and may be contacted as follows:
Transport Canada Safety and Security, William J. Hughes Technical Center NAS & International
Commercial and Business Aviation (AARTF) Airspace Analysis Branch (ACT-520)
Ottawa ON K1A 0N8 Atlantic City International Airport Atlantic City, NJ
Tel.: ................................................................... 1-800-305-2059 08405 USA
Fax:....................................................................... 613-954-1602 Fax: .......................................................................609-485-5117
RVSM Maintenance Programs: (AARTM) AFTN: .................................................................................. N/A
Transport Canada Safety and Security, Information on the responsibilities and procedures applicable to
Ottawa ON K1A 0N8 the NAARMO may be found on the Web site:
Tel.: ................................................................... 1-800-305-2059
Fax: .......................................................................613-952-3298 <www.faa.gov/air_traffic/separation_standards/
naarmo/>.
Ground-based height monitoring systems are located in the Significant MWA occurs both below and above FL 290, which
vicinity of Ottawa, Ont., and Lethbridge, Alta. Over-flight of is the floor of RVSM airspace. It often occurs in western Canada
ground-based height monitoring systems is transparent to the and western USA in the vicinity of mountain ranges. It may
pilot. Aircraft height-keeping performance monitoring flights occur when strong winds blow perpendicular to mountain ranges,
using ground-based monitoring systems should be flight planned resulting in up and down or wave motions in the atmosphere.
to route within a 30 NM radius of the Ottawa VORTAC, or a Wave action can produce altitude excursions and airspeed
30 NM radius of the Lethbridge VOR/DME. fluctuations accompanied by only light turbulence. With
sufficient amplitude, however, wave action can induce altitude
and airspeed fluctuations accompanied by severe turbulence.
MWA is difficult to forecast and can be highly localized and
short-lived
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Wave activity is not necessarily limited to the vicinity of mountain Table 11.1—Pilot/Controller Standard
ranges. Pilots experiencing wave activity anywhere that Phraseology for RVSM Operations
significantly affects altitude-keeping can follow the guidance
provided below. Message Phraseology
In-flight indications that the aircraft is being subjected to MWA For a controller to ascertain the RVSM (call sign) confirm
approval status of an aircraft RVSM approved
are:
(a) altitude excursions and airspeed fluctuations with or without Pilot indication that flight is Affirm RVSM
associated turbulence; RVSM-approved
(b) pitch and trim changes required to maintain altitude with Pilot will report lack of RVSM approval Negative RVSM
accompanying airspeed fluctuations; and (Non-RVSM status): (supplementary
a. On the initial call on any information,
(c) light to severe turbulence depending on the magnitude of frequency in the RVSM airspace; e.g. “monitoring
the MWA. and flight”)
b. In all requests for flight level
TCAS Sensitivity—For both MWA and greater-than-moderate changes pertaining to flight levels
turbulence encounters in RVSM airspace, an additional concern within the RVSM airspace; and
is the sensitivity of collision avoidance systems when one or both c. In all read-backs to flight level
aircraft operating in close proximity receive TCAS advisories clearances pertaining to flight
in response to disruptions in altitude hold capability. levels within the RVSM airspace;
and
Pre-flight tools—Sources of observed and forecast information d. In read-back of flight level
that can help the pilot ascertain the possibility of MWA or severe clearances involving climb and
turbulence are: Forecast Winds and Temperatures Aloft (FD), descent through RVSM airspace
(FL 290-410)
Area Forecast (FA), SIGMETS and PIREPS.
Pilot report of one of the following after Unable RVSM
entry into RVSM airspace: all primary Due Equipment
11.7.13 Wake Turbulence altimeters, automatic altitude control
systems or altitude alerters have failed
Pilots should be aware of the potential for wake turbulence
(This phrase is to be used to convey
encounters following Southern Domestic RVSM (SDRVSM) both the initial indication of RVSM
implementation. Experience gained since 1997, however, has aircraft system failure and on initial
shown that such encounters in RVSM airspace are generally contact on all frequencies in RVSM
moderate or less in magnitude. airspace until the problem ceases to
exist or the aircraft has exited RVSM
It is anticipated that, in SDRVSM airspace, wake turbulence airspace)
experience will mirror European RVSM experience gained since ATC denial of clearance into Unable issue
January 2002. European authorities have found that reports of RVSM airspace clearance into
wake turbulence encounters had not increased significantly RVSM airspace,
since RVSM implementation (eight versus seven reports in a maintain FL__.
RAC
ten-month period). In addition, they found that reported wake Pilot reporting inability to maintain Unable RVSM
turbulence was generally similar to moderate clear air turbulence. cleared flight level due to weather due (state
encounters. reason) (e.g.
Pilots should be alert for wake turbulence when operating:
turbulence,
(a) in the vicinity of aircraft climbing or descending through mountain wave)
their altitude; ATC requesting pilot to confirm that an Confirm able to
aircraft has regained RVSM-approved resume RVSM
(b) approximately 12–15 mi. after passing 1 000 ft below opposite status or a pilot is ready to resume
direction traffic; and RVSM
(c) approximately 12–15 mi. behind and 1 000 ft below same Pilot ready to resume RVSM after Ready to resume
direction traffic. aircraft system or weather contingency RVSM
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Table 11.2(a)—Contingency Pilot Actions: Initial Actions • If advised of • If pilot requests, vector
conflicting traffic at aircraft to achieve
Initial pilot actions when unable to maintain flight level adjacent flight levels horizontal separation,
or unsure of aircraft altitude–keeping capability and the aircraft is traffic-permitting
experiencing MWA • In ATS surveillance
• Notify ATC and request assistance as detailed below; that significantly airspace, where 1 000 ft
• Maintain cleared flight level, if possible, while affects altitude- vertical separation exists
evaluating the situation; keeping, request between two aircraft,
vector to acquire and targets appear likely
• Watch for conflicting traffic, both visually and horizontal separation to merge, vector one or
with reference to ACAS/TCAS, if equipped; and • If so desired, request both aircraft to establish
• Alert nearby aircraft by illuminating exterior lights, a flight level change ATS surveillance
broadcasting position, flight level and intentions or re-route separation until the pilot
on 121.5 MHz (or as back-up, the inter-pilot air-to- reports clear of MWA
air frequency, 123.45 MHz). • Issue flight level change
or re-route, traffic-
permitting
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RAC
Example:
ATC: EXPEDITE CLIMB TO SEVEN THOUSAND
11.8 MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDE
WARNING (MSAW) In the event that the aircraft is not GPWS/TAWS-equipped or
the pilot has not yet received a warning from his/her on-board
11.8.1 General system, the pilot should request vectors for terrain avoidance
assistance as required.
Minimum safe altitude warning (MSAW) is an ATS surveillance
display feature designed to alert controllers to the existence of Example:
aircraft operating or predicted to operate at altitudes where Pilot: REQUEST VECTORS FOR TERRAIN
separation from terrain cannot be assured. It is used to assist AVOIDANCE or REQUEST TERRAIN
controllers in detecting altitude deviations that could result in AVOIDANCE INSTRUCTION
controlled flight into terrain (CFIT).
Although the prime responsibility to initiate terrain avoidance
MSAW service is only available in the Vancouver FIR to IFR rests with the pilot, if, in the judgment of the controller, it becomes
and CVFR aircraft operating in en route controlled airspace apparent that the aircraft is in danger of colliding with terrain,
that receive ATS surveillance service and are in direct the controller may initiate terrain avoidance intervention.
communication with the controller. There is a service exclusion
zone within a 100-NM radius of CYVR. In addition, MSAW Example:
service is not available in control zones and approach/departure ATC: TURN [left/right] [number of] DEGREES
corridors. IMMEDIATELY or CLIMB [altitude]
IMMEDIATELY
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Once terrain avoidance has been initiated, the pilot will be 12.0 RAC ANNEX
provided with all additional terrain-related information available.
Example: 12.1 GENERAL
ATC: [higher/lower] TERRAIN AHEAD, TO YOUR
This annex contains those Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs)
[left/right]IMMEDIATE SAFE ALTITUDE NOW
that relate to the subject matter of this chapter, but may not have
[value]
been incorporated, in full or in part, in the chapter text.
If, at any time during the procedure, the pilot regains sight of
the terrain, visual terrain avoidance should resume and the 12.2 CANADIAN AVIATION
controller should be advised as soon as practicable. REGULATIONS (CARS)
Reckless or Negligent Operation of Aircraft
11.8.5 Assistance to Aircraft in Distress
602.01
The digitized terrain contour map component of the MSAW
system can be used by the controller independently of the warning No person shall operate an aircraft in such a reckless or negligent
function to provide navigational assistance to any aircraft in manner as to endanger or be likely to endanger the life or property
need. Such aircraft could include identified aircraft that are lost of any person.
or have encountered icing in mountainous terrain.
Fitness of Flight Crew Members
Vectoring for terrain avoidance can be provided to aircraft in
602.02
distress or experiencing an emergency, provided the pilot requests
it or the controller suggests it and the pilot concurs. An operator of an aircraft shall not require any person to act as
a flight crew member or to carry out a preflight duty, and a
11.9 FORMATION FLIGHTS person shall not act as a flight crew member or carry out that
duty, if the operator or the person has reason to believe that the
(See AIP Canada ENR paragraph 5.5.1.) person is not, or is not likely to be, fit for duty.
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impaired by alcohol or a drug to an extent that may present Carry-on Baggage, Equipment and Cargo
a hazard to the aircraft or to persons on board the aircraft. 602.86
(5) The operator of an aircraft may allow a person whose
(1) No person shall operate an aircraft with carry-on baggage,
faculties are impaired by a drug to board an aircraft, where
equipment or cargo on board, unless the carry-on baggage,
the drug was administered in accordance with a medical
equipment and cargo are
authorization and the person is under the supervision of
an attendant. (a) stowed in a bin, compartment, rack or other location
that is certified in accordance with the aircraft type
Compliance with Instructions certificate in respect of the stowage of carry-on baggage,
602.05 equipment or cargo; or
(1) Every passenger on board an aircraft shall comply with (b) restrained so as to prevent them from shifting during
instructions given by any crew member respecting the safety movement of the aircraft on the surface and during
of the aircraft or of persons on board the aircraft. takeoff, landing and in-flight turbulence.
(2) Every crew member on board an aircraft shall, during flight (2) No person shall operate an aircraft with carry-on baggage,
time, comply with the instructions of the pilot-in-command equipment or cargo on board unless
or of any person whom the pilot-in-command has authorized (a) the safety equipment, the normal and emergency exits
to act on behalf of the pilot-in-command. that are accessible to passengers and the aisles between
the flight deck and a passenger compartment are not
Smoking
wholly or partially blocked by carry-on baggage,
602.06 equipment or cargo;
(1) No person shall smoke on board an aircraft during takeoff (b) all of the equipment and cargo that are stowed in a
or landing or when directed not to smoke by the passenger compartment are packaged or covered to
pilot-in-command. avoid possible injury to persons on board;
(2) No person shall smoke in an aircraft lavatory. (c) where the aircraft is type-certificated to carry 10 or
(3) No person shall tamper with or disable a smoke detector more passengers and passengers are carried on board,
installed in an aircraft lavatory without permission from a (i) no passenger’s view of any “seat belt” sign, “no
crew member or the operator of the aircraft. smoking” sign or exit sign is obscured by carry-on
baggage, equipment or cargo except if an auxiliary
Aircraft Operating Limitations sign is visible to the passenger or another means
602.07 of notification of the passenger is available,
(ii) all of the passenger service carts and trolleys are
No person shall operate an aircraft unless it is operated in securely restrained during movement of the aircraft
accordance with the operating limitations on the surface, takeoff and landing, and during
(a) set out in the aircraft flight manual, where an aircraft in-flight turbulence where the pilot-in-command
flight manual is required by the applicable standards or in-charge flight attendant has directed that the
RAC
of airworthiness; cabin be secured pursuant to subsection 605.25(3)
or (4), and
(b) set out in a document other than the aircraft flight
(iii) all of the video monitors that are suspended from
manual, where use of that document is authorized
the ceiling of the aircraft and extend into an aisle
pursuant to Part VII;
are stowed and securely restrained during takeoff
(c) indicated by markings or placards required pursuant and landing; and
to Section 605.05; or
(d) all of the cargo that is stowed in a compartment to
(d) prescribed by the competent authority of the state of which crew members have access is stowed in such a
registry of the aircraft. manner as to allow a crew member to effectively reach
all parts of the compartment with a hand-held fire
Portable Electronic Devices extinguisher.
602.08
(1) No operator of an aircraft shall permit the use of a portable
electronic device on board an aircraft, where the device
may impair the functioning of the aircraft’s systems or
equipment.
(2) No person shall use a portable electronic device on board
an aircraft except with the permission of the operator of the
aircraft.
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(a) the location and means of operation of emergency and (f) duration of flights;
normal exits; (g) the prohibition or restriction of training flights;
(b) the location and means of operation of safety belts, (h) VFR or visual approaches;
shoulder harnesses and restraint devices;
(i) simulated approach procedures; and
(c) the positioning of seats and the securing of seat backs
(j) the minimum altitude for the operation of aircraft in
and chair tables;
the vicinity of the aerodrome.
(d) the stowage of carry-on baggage;
Noise-Restricted Runways
(e) where the aircraft is unpressurized and it is possible
that the flight will require the use of oxygen by the 602.106
passengers, the location and means of operation of (1) Subject to subsection (2), no person shall operate a subsonic
oxygen equipment; and turbo-jet aeroplane that has a maximum certificated take-
(f) any prohibition against smoking. off weight of more than 34 000 kg (74,956 pounds) on
take-off at a noise-restricted runway set out in column II
(2) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that all of
of an item of the table to this section at an aerodrome set
the passengers on board the aircraft are briefed
out in column I of that item, unless there is on board
(a) in the case of an over-water flight where the carriage
(a) a certificate of airworthiness indicating that the
of life preservers, individual flotation devices or
aeroplane meets the applicable noise emission standards;
personal flotation devices is required pursuant to
RAC
Section 602.62, before commencement of the over-water (b) a certificate of noise compliance issued in respect of
portion of the flight, with respect to the location and the aeroplane; or
use of those items; and (c) where the aeroplane is not a Canadian aircraft, a
(b) in the case of a pressurized aircraft that is to be operated document issued by the state of registry that specifies
at an altitude above FL 250, before the aircraft reaches that the aeroplane meets the applicable noise emission
FL 250, with respect to the location and means of requirements of that state.
operation of oxygen equipment. (2) Subsection (1) does not apply
(3) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall, before takeoff, (a) to the extent that it is inconsistent with any obligation
ensure that all of the passengers on board the aircraft are assumed by Canada in respect of a foreign state in a
provided with information respecting the location and use of treaty, convention or agreement;
(a) first aid kits and survival equipment; (b) where the pilot-in-command of an aircraft has declared
(b) where the aircraft is a helicopter or a small aircraft that an emergency; or
is an aeroplane, any ELT that is required to be carried (c) where an aircraft is operated on
on board pursuant to Section 605.38; and (i) an air evacuation operation,
(c) any life raft that is required to be carried on board (ii) any other emergency air operation, or
pursuant to Section 602.63. (iii) a departure from an aerodrome at which it was
required to land because of an emergency.
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RAC
(k) subject to subsections 601.08(2) and 601.09(2), a
radiocommunication system adequate to permit two-
way communication on the appropriate frequency when
the aircraft is operated within
(i) Class B, Class C or Class D airspace,
(ii) an MF area, unless the aircraft is operated pursuant
to subsection 602.97(3), or
(iii) the ADIZ;
(l) where the aircraft is operated under Subpart 4 of this
Part, or under Subpart 3, 4 or 5 of Part VII,
radiocommunication equipment adequate to permit
two-way communication on the appropriate frequency;
(m) where the aircraft is operated in Class B airspace, radio
navigation equipment that will enable it to be operated
in accordance with a flight plan; and
(n) where the aircraft is operated under Subpart 4 of this
Part or under Subpart 5 of Part VII, radio navigation
equipment that is adequate to receive radio signals
from a transmitting facility.
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Power-driven Aircraft – VFR OTT (h) where the aircraft is an airship operated within controlled
605.15 airspace, radar reflectors attached in such a manner as
to be capable of a 360-degree reflection;
(1) No person shall conduct a takeoff in a power-driven aircraft
(i) a means of illumination for all of the instruments used
for the purpose of VFR OTT flight unless it is equipped
to operate the aircraft;
with
(j) when carrying passengers, a landing light; and
(a) the equipment referred to in paragraphs 605.14(c) to (j);
(k) position and anti-collision lights that conform to the
(b) a sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure;
Aircraft Equipment and Maintenance Standards.
(c) a means of preventing malfunction caused by icing for
(2) Where the aircraft is equipped with a third attitude indicator
each airspeed indicating system;
that is usable through flight attitudes of 360° of pitch and
(d) a gyroscopic direction indicator or a stabilized magnetic roll for an aeroplane, or ± 80° of pitch and ± 120° of roll for
direction indicator; a helicopter, the aircraft may be equipped with a slip-skid
(e) an attitude indicator; indicator in lieu of a turn and slip indicator or turn coordinator.
(f) subject to subsection (2), a turn and slip indicator or (3) No person shall operate an aircraft that is equipped with
turn coordinator; any light that may be mistaken for, or downgrade the
conspicuity of, a light in the navigation light system, unless
(g) where the aircraft is to be operated within the Northern the aircraft is being operated for the purpose of aerial
Domestic Airspace, a means of establishing direction advertising.
that is not dependent on a magnetic source;
(4) In addition to the equipment requirements specified in
(h) radiocommunication equipment adequate to permit subsection (1), no person shall operate an aircraft in night
two-way communication on the appropriate frequency; VFR flight under Subpart 4 of this Part or Subparts 2 to 5
and of Part VII, unless the aircraft is equipped with
(i) radio navigation equipment adequate to permit the (a) an attitude indicator;
aircraft to be navigated safely.
(b) a vertical speed indicator;
(2) Where the aircraft is equipped with a third attitude indicator
that is usable through flight attitudes of 360° of pitch and (c) a means of preventing malfunction caused by icing for
roll for an aeroplane, or ± 80° of pitch and ± 120° of roll each airspeed indicating system; and
for a helicopter, the aircraft may be equipped with a slip- (d) an outside air temperature gauge.
skid indicator in lieu of a turn and slip indicator or turn
coordinator. Use of Position and Anti-collision Lights
605.17
Power-driven Aircraft – Night VFR
(1) Subject to subsection (2), no person shall operate an aircraft
605.16
in the air or on the ground at night, or on water between
(1) No person shall conduct a takeoff in a power-driven aircraft sunset and sunrise, unless the aircraft position lights and
RAC
for the purpose of night VFR flight, unless it is equipped anti-collision lights are turned on.
with
(2) Anti-collision lights may be turned off where the pilot-in-
(a) the equipment referred to in paragraphs 605.14(c) to (n); command determines that, because of operating conditions,
(b) a sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure; doing so would be in the interests of aviation safety.
(c) subject to subsection (2), a turn and slip indicator or Power-driven Aircraft – IFR
turn coordinator; 605.18
(d) an adequate source of electrical energy for all of the
No person shall conduct a takeoff in a power-driven aircraft for
electrical and radio equipment;
the purpose of IFR flight unless it is equipped with
(e) in respect of every set of fuses of a particular rating
(a) when it is operated by day, the equipment required
that is installed on the aircraft and accessible to the
pursuant to paragraphs 605.16(1)(a) to (h);
pilot-in-command during flight, a number of spare
fuses that is equal to at least 50 percent of the total (b) when it is operated by night, the equipment required
number of installed fuses of that rating; pursuant to paragraphs 605.16(1)(a) to (k);
(f) where the aircraft is operated so that an aerodrome is (c) an attitude indicator;
not visible from the aircraft, a stabilized magnetic (d) a vertical speed indicator;
direction indicator or a gyroscopic direction indicator;
(e) an outside air temperature gauge;
(g) where the aircraft is to be operated within the Northern
Domestic Airspace, a means of establishing direction (f) a means of preventing malfunction caused by icing for
that is not dependent on a magnetic source; each airspeed indicating system;
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(g) a power failure warning device or vacuum indicator Gliders – Day VFR
that shows the power available to gyroscopic instruments 605.21
from each power source;
No person shall operate a glider in day VFR flight unless it is
(h) an alternative source of static pressure for the altimeter,
equipped with
airspeed indicator and vertical speed indicator;
(a) an altimeter;
(i) sufficient radiocommunication equipment to permit
the pilot to conduct two-way communications on the (b) an airspeed indicator;
appropriate frequency; and (c) a magnetic compass or a magnetic direction indicator; and
(j) sufficient radio navigation equipment to permit the (d) subject to subsections 601.08(2) and 601.09(2), a
pilot, in the event of the failure at any stage of the flight radiocommunication system adequate to permit two-way
of any Item of that equipment, including any associated communication on the appropriate frequency when the
flight instrument display, glider is operated within
(i) to proceed to the destination aerodrome or proceed
to another aerodrome that is suitable for landing, (i) Class C or Class D airspace,
and (ii) an MF area, unless the aircraft is operated pursuant
(ii) where the aircraft is operated in IMC, to complete to subsection 602.97(3), or
an instrument approach and, if necessary, conduct (iii) the ADIZ.
a missed approach procedure. Seat and Safety Belt Requirements
Balloons – Day VFR 605.22
605.19 (1) Subject to subsection 605.23, no person shall operate an
No person shall conduct a takeoff in a balloon for the purpose aircraft other than a balloon unless it is equipped with a
of day VFR flight unless it is equipped with seat and safety belt for each person on board the aircraft
other than an infant.
(a) an altimeter;
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply to a person operating an aircraft
(b) a vertical speed indicator; that was type-certificated with a safety belt designed for
(c) in the case of a hot air balloon, two persons.
(i) a fuel quantity gauge, and (3) A safety belt referred to in subsection (1) shall include a
(ii) an envelope temperature indicator; latching device of the metal-to-metal type.
(d) in the case of a captive gas balloon, a magnetic direction Restraint System Requirements
indicator; and
605.23
(e) subject to subsections 601.08(2) and 601.09(2), a radio
communication system adequate to permit two-way An aircraft may be operated without being equipped in accordance
communication on the appropriate frequency when the with Section 605.22 in respect of the following persons if a
RAC
balloon is operated within restraint system that is secured to the primary structure of the
(i) Class C or Class D airspace, aircraft is provided for each person who is
(ii) an MF area, unless the aircraft is operated pursuant (a) carried on a stretcher or in an incubator or other similar
to subsection 602.97(3), or device;
(iii) the ADIZ.
(b) carried for the purpose of parachuting from the aircraft; or
Balloons – Night VFR (c) required to work in the vicinity of an opening in the aircraft
605.20 structure.
No person shall conduct a takeoff in a balloon for the purpose Shoulder Harness Requirements
of night VFR flight unless it is equipped with
605.24
(a) equipment required pursuant to Section 605.19;
(1) No person shall operate an aeroplane, other than a small
(b) position lights; aeroplane manufactured before July 18, 1978, unless each
(c) a means of illuminating all of the instruments used by front seat or, if the aeroplane has a flight deck, each seat
the flight crew, including a flashlight; and on the flight deck is equipped with a safety belt that includes
a shoulder harness.
(d) in the case of a hot air balloon, two independent fuel
systems. (2) Except as provided in Section 705.75, no person shall operate
a transport category aeroplane unless each flight attendant
seat is equipped with a safety belt that includes a shoulder
harness.
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(3) No person shall operate a small aeroplane manufactured seats and to fasten the safety belts provided and to do
after December 12, 1986, the initial type certificate of which so oneself.
provides for not more than nine passenger seats, excluding (5) Where the in-charge flight attendant has given directions
any pilot seats, unless each forward- or aft-facing seat is in accordance with subsection (4), the in-charge flight
equipped with a safety belt that includes a shoulder harness. attendant shall so inform the pilot-in-command.
(4) No person shall operate a helicopter manufactured after
September 16, 1992, the initial type certificate of which Use of Passenger Safety Belts and Restraint
specifies that the helicopter is certified as belonging to the Systems
normal or transport category, unless each seat is equipped 605.26
with a safety belt that includes a shoulder harness.
(1) Where the pilot-in-command or the in-charge flight attendant
(5) No person operating an aircraft shall conduct any of the directs that safety belts be fastened, every passenger who
following flight operations unless the aircraft is equipped is not an infant shall
with a seat and a safety belt that includes a shoulder harness
(a) ensure that the passenger’s safety belt or restraint system
for each person on board the aircraft:
is properly adjusted and securely fastened;
(a) aerobatic manoeuvres;
(b) if responsible for an infant for which no child restraint
(b) Class B, C or D external load operations conducted by system is provided, hold the infant securely in the
a helicopter; and passenger’s arms; and
(c) aerial application, or aerial inspection other than flight (c) if responsible for a person who is using a child restraint
inspection for the purpose of calibrating electronic system, ensure that the person is properly secured.
navigation aids, conducted at altitudes below 500 feet
(2) No passenger shall be responsible for more than one infant.
AGL.
Use of Crew Member Safety Belts
General Use of Safety Belts and Restraint Systems
605.27
605.25
(1) Subject to subsection (2), the crew members on an aircraft
(1) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall direct all of the
shall be seated at their stations with their safety belts fastened
persons on board the aircraft to fasten safety belts
(a) during takeoff and landing;
(a) during movement of the aircraft on the surface;
(b) at any time that the pilot-in-command directs; and
(b) during takeoff and landing; and
(c) in the case of crew members who are f light
(c) at any time during flight that the pilot-in-command
attendants, at any time that the in-charge f light
considers it necessary that safety belts be fastened.
attendant so directs pursuant to
(2) The directions referred to in subsection (1) also apply to paragraph 605.25(4)(b).
the use of the following restraint systems:
(2) Where the pilot-in-command directs that safety belts be
(a) a child restraint system; fastened by illuminating the safety belt sign, a crew member
RAC
(b) a restraint system used by a person who is engaged in is not required to comply with paragraph (1)(b)
parachute descents; and (a) during movement of the aircraft on the surface or during
(c) a restraint system used by a person when working in flight, if the crew member is performing duties relating
the vicinity of an opening in the aircraft structure. to the safety of the aircraft or of the passengers on
board;
(3) Where an aircraft crew includes flight attendants and the
pilot-in-command anticipates that the level of turbulence (b) where the aircraft is experiencing light turbulence, if
will exceed light turbulence, the pilot-in-command shall the crew member is a flight attendant and is performing
immediately direct each flight attendant to duties relating to the passengers on board; or
(a) discontinue duties relating to service; (c) if the crew member is occupying a crew rest facility
during cruise flight and the restraint system for that
(b) secure the cabin; and facility is properly adjusted and securely fastened.
(c) occupy a seat and fasten the safety belt provided. (3) The pilot-in-command shall ensure that at least one pilot
(4) Where an aircraft is experiencing turbulence and the is seated at the flight controls with safety belt fastened
in-charge flight attendant considers it necessary, the during flight time.
in-charge flight attendant shall
(a) direct all of the passengers to fasten their safety belts;
and
(b) direct all flight attendants to discontinue duties relating
to service, to secure the cabin, to occupy the assigned
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(c) the child restraint system bears a legible label indicating (b) current weather reports or pilot reports indicate that
the applicable design standards and date of manufacture; icing conditions no longer exist.
(d) the child restraint system is properly secured by the Oxygen Equipment and Supply
safety belt of a forward-facing seat that is not located 605.31
in an emergency exit row and does not block access to
an aisle; and (1) No person shall operate an unpressurized aircraft unless it
is equipped with sufficient oxygen dispensing units and
(e) the tether strap is used according to the manufacturer’s oxygen supply to comply with the requirements set out in
instructions or, where subsection (2) applies, secured the table to this subsection.
so as not to pose a hazard to the person using the child
restraint system or to any other person. Table 2 RAC Annex—Oxygen Requirements
for Unpressurized Aircraft
(2) Where a seat incorporates design features to reduce occupant
loads, such as the crushing or separation of certain
components, and the seat is in compliance with the applicable Column I Column II
design standards, no person shall use the tether strap on the
child restraint system to secure the system. Item Persons For Whom
Period Of Flight And
(3) Every passenger who is responsible for a person who is Oxygen Supply
Cabin-Pressure-Altitude
Must Be Available
using a child restraint system on board an aircraft shall be
(a) seated in a seat adjacent to the seat to which the child 1. All crew members Entire period of flight
restraint system is secured; and 10 percent of exceeding 30 minutes at
passengers and, in cabin-pressure-altitudes
(b) familiar with the manufacturer’s installation instructions any case, no less above 10 000 feet
for the child restraint system; and than one passenger ASL but not exceeding
13 000 feet ASL
(c) familiar with the method of securing the person in the
2. All persons on (a) Entire period of flight at
RAC
child restraint system and of releasing the person from it. board the aircraft cabin-pressure-altitudes
above 13 000 feet ASL
Flight Control Locks (b) For aircraft operated
605.29 in an air transport
service under the
No operator of an aircraft shall permit the use of a flight control conditions referred to in
lock in respect of the aircraft unless paragraph(a), a period
of flight of not less than
(a) the flight control lock is incapable of becoming engaged one hour.
when the aircraft is being operated; and
(2) No person shall operate a pressurized aircraft unless it is
(b) an unmistakable warning is provided to the person
equipped with sufficient oxygen dispensing units and oxygen
operating the aircraft whenever the flight control lock
supply to provide, in the event of cabin pressurization failure
is engaged.
at the most critical point during the flight, sufficient oxygen
to continue the flight to an aerodrome suitable for landing
while complying with the requirements of the table to this
subsection.
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NOTE:
Consultants may provide assistance in developing dangerous
goods procedures and training programs; however, generic
procedures and training programs must be amended to reflect
air operators’ activities.
RAC
tc.canada.ca/en/dangerous-goods/transportation-dangerous-
goods-canada>) or contact one of the following TDG regional
offices:
Atlantic
Tel.: . .................................................................. 1-866-814-1477
E-mail: . .................................... [email protected]
Quebec
Tel.: . ..................................................................1-514-633-3400
E-mail: . [email protected]
Ontario
Tel.: ................................................................... 1-416-973-1868
E-mail: ..................................... [email protected]
Prairie and Northern
Tel.: ...................................................................1-888-463-0521
E-mail: ........................................... [email protected]
Pacific
Tel.: .................................................................. 1-604-666-2955
E-mail: ....................... [email protected]
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RAC
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NAT
(i) the equipment referred to in section 605.18,
ATLANTIC (NAT) (ii) a high frequency radio capable of transmitting and
OPERATIONS receiving on a minimum of two appropriate
international air-ground general purpose frequencies,
and
NOTE:
(iii) hypothermia protection for each person on board;
Refer to AIP Canada Enroute (ENR) 7 for the most up-to-date
and
navigation information and procedures available at <https://
www.navcanada .ca/en/aeronautical-information/aip-canada. (c) the aircraft carries sufficient fuel to meet the requirements
aspx>. of section 602.88 and, in addition, carries contingency fuel
equal to at least 10 percent of the fuel required pursuant to
section 602.88 to complete the flight to the aerodrome
1.0 NORTH ATLANTIC (NAT) of destination.”
OPERATIONS
1.3 NORTH AMERICAN ROUTES (NAR)
1.1 REGULATION, REFERENCE The North American route (NAR) system interfaces with North
DOCUMENTS AND GUIDANCE Atlantic (NAT) oceanic, the oceanic transition area, and domestic
MATERIAL airspace and is used by air traffic transiting the NAT. NARs
consist of a series of pre-planned routes to and from established
1.1.1 Regulation oceanic entry/exit points (OEP) and major identified airports
throughout Canada and the United States.
CAR 602.38 requires pilots of Canadian aircraft, when flying
over the high seas, to comply with the applicable rules set out NARs and their associated procedures are published in the
in ICAO Annex 2, Rules of the Air, and with the applicable regional Planning section of the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) and in
supplementary procedures set out in ICAO Doc 7030. the Federal Aviation Administration’s (FAA) Airport Facility/
Directory—Northeast.
1.1.2 North Atlantic (NAT) Documentation
1.4 GANDER OCEANIC TRANSITION
The following documents are applicable to operations in the AREA (GOTA)
NAT region:
The implementation of additional surveillance and communication
(a) ICAO Annex 2—Rules of the Air; sites along the north-east coast of Canada allowed for the
(b) ICAO Annex 11—Air Traffic Services; provision of enhanced services and led to the creation of the
Gander oceanic transition area (GOTA).
(c) ICAO Doc 4444—Procedures for Air Navigation Services—
Air Traffic Management; The lower limit of the GOTA is FL 290; the upper limit is FL 600.
The GOTA is Class A controlled airspace.
(d) ICAO Doc 7030—Regional Supplementary Procedures;
(e) ICAO NAT Doc 001—NAT SPG Handbook; The GOTA consists of airspace FL 290 and above, from 6530N
060W, east to the Reykjavik area control centre (ACC) boundary,
(f) ICAO NAT Doc 006—Air Traffic Management Operational south to 6330N 055W, south along 055W to the Gander domestic
Contingency Plan—North Atlantic Region; boundary, north along the Gander/Montreal domestic boundaries,
(g) ICAO NAT Doc 007—North Atlantic Operations and north to the Edmonton boundary, and then back to the point
Airspace Manual; and of origin (see Figure 1.1).
(h) Gander Data Link Oceanic Clearance Delivery (OCD) Surveillance services are provided by Gander ACC. The automatic
Crew Procedures. dependence surveillance - contract/controller-pilot data link
communications (ADS-C/CPDLC) log on address for aircraft
1.2 GENERAL AVIATION AIRCRAFT in GOTA airspace is CDQX.
Over the high seas, the lower limit of all North Atlantic (NAT)
oceanic control areas (OCA) is FL 055; there is no upper limit.
Throughout the NAT region, airspace at and above FL 055 is
Class A controlled airspace, and below FL 055 is Class G
uncontrolled airspace.
At or above FL 060, flights shall be conducted under instrument
flight rules (IFR) even when aircraft are not operating in
instrument meteorological conditions (IMC).
Air traffic control (ATC) clearances to climb or descend while
maintaining one’s own separation and remaining in visual
meteorological conditions (VMC) shall not be issued to aircraft.
1.7.1 Routes
For eastbound and westbound traffic:
(a) South of 70°N, the planned tracks shall be defined by
significant points formed by the intersection of half or whole
1.5 NORTH ATLANTIC (NAT) ORGANIZED degrees of latitude at each 10° of longitude (060°W, 050°W,
TRACK SYSTEM (OTS) 040°W). For flights operating north of 70°N, significant
points are defined by the parallels of latitude expressed in
Organized tracks are formulated and published in a North degrees and minutes with longitudes at 20° intervals; the
Atlantic (NAT) track message via the Aeronautical Fixed distance between significant points shall, as far as possible,
Telecommunications Network (AFTN) and sent to all interested not exceed one hour of flight time. Additional significant
operators. The daytime structure is published by Shanwick area points should be established when required because of
control centre (ACC) and the night-time structure is published aircraft speed or the angle at which meridians are crossed.
by Gander ACC. When the flight time between successive significant points
Flight levels are allocated for use within the organized track is less than 30 min, one of the points may be omitted.
system (OTS), and in most cases, details of domestic entry and (b) Oceanic traffic transitioning through the GOTA from FL 290
exit routings associated with individual tracks are provided in to FL 600 shall flight plan an oceanic entry/exit point (OEP),
the NAT track message. a 050°W coordinate, and a 040°W coordinate.
To permit an orderly changeover between successive OTSs, a (c) The following OEPs are limited to flights conducted from
period of several hours is interposed between the termination FL 290 and above: AVPUT, CLAVY, EMBOK, KETLA,
of one system and the commencement of the next. During these LIBOR, MAXAR, NIFTY, PIDSO, RADUN, SAVRY, TOXIT,
periods, operators are expected to file random routes or use the URTAK, VESMI, AVUTI, BOKTO, CUDDY, DORYY, and
coordinates of a track in the system that is about to come into ENNSO.
effect.
(d) The following OEPs shall be flight planned by all aircraft
Eastbound traffic crossing 030˚W at 1030 UTC or later and entering or exiting Gander oceanic airspace, regardless of
westbound traffic crossing 030˚W at 0000 UTC or later should altitude: HOIST, IRLOK, JANJO, KODIK, LOMSI, MELDI,
plan to avoid the OTS at the published levels. NEEKO, PELTU, RIKAL, SAXAN, TUDEP, UMESI, ALLRY,
Further information on available flight level profiles can be BUDAR, ELSIR, IBERG, JOOPY, MUSAK, NICSO, OMSAT,
found in NAT 1.20.3. PORTI, RELIC, SUPRY, and RAFIN.
For northbound and southbound traffic, the planned tracks
shall be defined by significant points formed by the intersection
of whole degrees of longitude with parallels of latitude spaced
at 5° (65°N, 60°N, 55°N).
For aircraft planning to fly within the OTS from the oceanic
entry point to the oceanic exit point as detailed in the daily NAT
track message, the track shall be defined in Item 15 of the flight
plan by the abbreviation “NAT” followed by the code letter
assigned to the track. Refer to subsection 1.20.3.2 for more details
on the OTS.
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For eastbound NAT flights planning to operate on the OTS, the includes tracks that are at or south of SUPRY 46°N 050°W (or
NAT
second and third route options should be indicated at the end 46°N 050°W SUPRY), optimal flight levels and routes may not
of Item 18 of the flight plan. Those operators who do not have be available.
the capability to provide this information in Item 18 of the flight
To facilitate effective coordination for flights entering or exiting
plan should send the information by a separate AFTN message
the Gander domestic CTA and the New York OCA via 44°N
to Gander ACC (CYQXZQZX).
050°W or south thereof:
Examples:
(a) Eastbound flights exiting the Gander domestic CTA directly
RMKS/ … O2.X370 O3.V350 (Option 2 is Track X at FL 370; into the New York OCA are required to flight plan via LOMPI
option 3 is Track V at FL 350). direct JAROM direct TALGO direct 44°N 050°W or south
thereof.
RMKS/ … O2.RS390 O3.Z370 (Option 2 is random track south
at FL 390; option 3 is Track Z at FL 370). (b) Eastbound flights exiting the New York OCA directly into
the Gander domestic CTA are required to flight plan via
NOTE: BOBTU.
In the preceding examples, options 2 and 3 are indicated by the
(i) When the eastbound OTSs are anchored at RAFIN
letter “O” and not by the number zero.
and/or TALGO, BOBTU will be unavailable for
ATS requires flights entering or exiting the Gander OCA to eastbound NAT traffic flight planning between
flight plan in accordance with the published NAT OTS or, if FL 300 and FL 400, inclusive.
exiting by way of 58°N 050°W and south thereof, via the following (c) Westbound flights exiting the New York OCA directly into
OEPs (compulsory reporting points) and associated 050°W the Gander domestic CTA are required to flight plan via
coordinates (see Table 1.1). BOBTU direct JAROM direct LOMPI.
Table 1.1—OEPs and Associated Coordinates NOTE:
TALGO is not to be used for westbound flights.
OEP Coordinates OEP Coordinates
CUDDY or ATS system parameters require all westbound flights transiting
5800N 05000W UMESI 5130N 05000W
DORYY from the Gander OCA or the GOTA to the Montréal FIR/CTA
ENNSO 5730N 05000W ALLRY 5100N 05000W to flight plan via 060°W below FL 290 and via an oceanic entry
point if operating from FL 290 up to and including FL 600,
HOIST 5700N 05000W BUDAR 5030N 05000W followed by both a boundary reporting point and then one of
the following inland reporting points: LAKES, LOPVI, RODBO,
IRLOK 5630N 05000W ELSIR 5000N 05000W
JELCO, FEDDY, TEFFO, DUTUM, or BEZED. KENKI and
JANJO 5600N 05000W IBERG 4930N 05000W IRBIM are not to be used as boundary reporting points. Flights
operating from FL 290 and above may flight plan a NAR to or
KODIK 5530N 05000W JOOPY 4900N 05000W from an oceanic entry point.
LOMSI 5500N 05000W MUSAK 4830N 05000W
1.7.2 Airspeed
MELDI 5430N 05000W NICSO 4800N 05000W
The TAS or Mach number is to be entered in Item 15 of the flight
NEEKO 5400N 05000W OMSAT 4730N 05000W plan.
PELTU 5330N 05000W PORTI 4700N 05000W
1.7.3 Altitude
RIKAL 5300N 05000W RELIC 4630N 05000W
The planned cruising level(s) for the oceanic portion of the flight
SAXAN 5230N 05000W SUPRY 4600N 05000W should be included in Item 15 of the flight plan.
TUDEP 5200N 05000W RAFIN 4500N 05000W NOTE:
ATS requires flights entering or exiting the New York OCA through Pilots planning to conduct a flight wholly or partly outside the
CDA to flight plan over one of the following compulsory reporting OTS should indicate, in a flight plan, cruising level(s) appropriate
points: NOVOK, JEBBY, BOBTU, or TALGO; or via ELERI or to the direction of flight and in accordance with the flight levels
MUSPO, for flights arriving at or departing from Halifax as described in the NAT FLAS. Refer to section 1.20.3 for more
airport (CYHZ). Eastbound flights that exit the New York OCA details on FLAS.
via CDA and subsequently enter the Gander OCA are required to
Requests for a suitable alternative flight level may be indicated
flight plan in accordance with the published NAT OTS or over an
in Item 18 of the flight plan.
oceanic entry point and a 050°W coordinate.
Flights exiting the New York OCA via BOBTU should contact
Gander ACC five minutes prior to BOBTU on frequency
134.7 MHz. Operators should be aware that if the NAT OTS
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1.7.4 Estimated Times The following format is to be used for eastbound PRMs:
NAT
For NAT flights, the accumulated elapsed time only to the first [PRIORITY] [DEST ADDRESS] [DEST ADDRESS]
oceanic FIR boundary (Gander accepts elapsed time to OEPs) — [DATE TIME OF ORIGIN] [ORIGIN ADDRESS]
is to be entered in Item 18 of the flight plan. [MESSAGE TYPE]-[COMPANY]-[EB]-[YYMMDD AT
030°W]- [(DEP/DEST) (INLAND FIX) (OEP) (OCA
1.7.5 Aircraft Approval Status and Registration RPS) (LANDFALL) (LAST UK POINT) (NUMBER OF
FLT 01-99)]
For an aircraft certified as being in compliance with operations
within the NAT HLA, the approval status (MNPS) shall be Example:
indicated in Item 10 by entering the letter “X”. It is the pilot’s FF CZQXZQZX
responsibility to ensure that specific approval has been given
130502 KJFKSWRW
for the NAT HLA operations. Refer to subpart 1.11 for more
information on MNPS in the NAT HLA. PRM-SWR-E-200113
For an aircraft certified as being in compliance with RVSM CYUL/ LSZH JOOPY 49/50 49/40 49/30 49/20
MASPS, RVSM approval shall be indicated in Item 10 by entering BEDRA NASBA 02
the letter “W”. It is the pilot’s responsibility to ensure that specific
KJFK/ LSZH PORTI 47/50 48/40 49/30 50/20
approval has been given for RVSM operations. Refer to subpart
SOMAX ATSUR 03
1.12 for more information on RVSM MASPS.
If the aircraft registration is not included in Item 7, it shall be NOTES:
indicated in Item 18.
1. If there is no inland navigation fix (INF), the latitude crossing
080°W is to be used.
1.7.6 Height Monitoring Unit (HMU)
2. PRMs for eastbound flights are to be sent no later than 1000
An aircraft that requires HMU monitoring shall include in Coordinated Universal Time (UTC).
Item 18 of the flight plan the remarks “RMK/HMU FLT STU”.
1.9 CLEARANCES
1.7.7 Filing
NAT operators shall forward all flight plans for eastbound NAT 1.9.1 Oceanic Clearances
flights to the Canadian ACCs whose FIR or CTA the flights will Pilots intending to operate aircraft in the Gander OCA should
traverse. These flight plans shall include the EET for each CTA note the following:
boundary in Item 18 of the flight plan. The AFTN addresses for
Canadian ACCs are listed in Table 1.2. (a) Clearances for VFR climb or descent will not be granted.
(b) The Mach number to be maintained will be specified.
Table 1.2—AFTN Addresses for Canadian ACCs
(c) ATC will specify the full route details for aircraft cleared
AFTN Canadian AFTN Canadian on a route other than an organized track or f light
Addresses ACCs Addresses ACCs planned route. The pilot is to read back the full details of
the clearance including the cleared track or details of the
CZQXZQZX Gander CZWGZQZX Winnipeg
flight planned route.
CZQMZQZX Moncton CZEGZQZX Edmonton (d) ATC will issue an abbreviated oceanic clearance to aircraft
CZULZQZX Montréal CZVRZQZX Vancouver
that will be operated along one of the NAT organized tracks.
The abbreviated clearance will include the track letter, the
CZYZZQZX Toronto — — flight level, and the Mach number or speed in knots to be
maintained. The pilot is to read back the clearance including
Where possible, operators are to file eastbound NAT flight plans the TMI number. ATC will confirm the accuracy of the
at least four hours prior to the ETA at the oceanic entry point readback and the TMI number.
specified in the flight plan.
NOTE:
The OTS is identified by a TMI number, which is determined
1.8 PREFERRED ROUTE MESSAGE (PRM)
by using the Julian calendar for the day on which the tracks are
North Atlantic (NAT) operators shall send preferred route effective. (Refer to subsection 1.20.3.2 for more information on
messages (PRMs) for eastbound flights to the following Gander OTS.) The TMI number is contained in the Remarks section on
Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN) the NAT track message. Amendments to tracks that are already
addresses: published are indicated by appending a letter to the Julian date,
(a) CZQXZQZX (Gander ACC) e.g. TMI 320A. A revised TMI will be issued for changes to:
(b) CZULZQZX (Montreal ACC) (i) any track coordinate(s), including named points;
(ii) published track levels; or
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(iii) named points within European routes west. (d) Domestic reclearances by ATC may contain either the route
NAT
A TMI revision will not be issued for changes to other items specified in full detail or a NAR.
such as NARs. If an aircraft enters CDA via the Edmonton FIR, the onward
(e) Whether received via data link or voice, the oceanic clearance domestic routing will have been established in coordination
to enter the Gander OCA has the following meaning: between the Reykjavik and Edmonton ACCs, and additional
domestic clearance is not required. If there has been a change
(i) the clearance is valid only within oceanic airspace, in route from the filed flight plan, clarification of the onward
and details the route, altitude and speed at which routing may be obtained from Edmonton ACC on request.
the flight is to enter oceanic airspace;
(ii) the flight crew is not immediately authorized to Westbound aircraft that have proceeded across the NAT and
change the route, altitude or speed in order to comply have entered the GOTA or CDA shall maintain the last oceanic
with the oceanic clearance; Mach setting assigned by ATC:
(iii) the flight crew is required to obtain a subsequent (a) unless approval is obtained from ATC to make a change;
clearance in order to comply with the oceanic or
clearance; and
(b) until the pilot receives an initial descent clearance
(iv) if unable to obtain a subsequent clearance, the flight
approaching destination.
crew should revert to the procedures for radio
communications failure detailed in the CFS and in NOTE:
the NAT section of ICAO’s Regional Supplementary Pilots should request changes to their oceanic Mach setting once
Procedures (Doc 7030) in order to manoeuvre as communication has been established within the GOTA or CDA.
necessary to comply with the oceanic clearance.
(f) If the aircraft is designated to report meteorological 1.9.3 Oceanic Clearance Delivery
information, the pilot will be advised by the inclusion of Unless otherwise advised by ATC, the following oceanic clearance
the phrase “SEND MET REPORTS” in the clearance. delivery procedures are in effect daily between 2330 and 0730 UTC
(DST 2230 and 0630 UTC) for all eastbound oceanic flights that
1.9.2 Domestic Clearances—North transit the Gander domestic FIR/CTA:
Atlantic (NAT) Westbound Traffic
(a) Clearance delivery frequencies are published daily in the
Pilots proceeding westbound across the NAT and entering CDA Remarks section on the eastbound NAT track message.
within the Gander, Moncton and Montréal FIRs should comply During published clearance delivery hours, pilots are to
with the following procedures: contact Gander Clearance Delivery on the frequency
(a) Flights whose oceanic clearance contains their flight planned designated for their oceanic entry point. Pilots should contact
oceanic exit point will not be issued en route clearances upon Clearance Delivery when they are within 200 NM of the
entering the airspace and are to follow the flight planned specified clearance delivery frequency location. In the event
route as cleared. Domestic en route clearances will be issued: that contact cannot be established, pilots are to advise ATC
on the assigned control frequency. The following frequencies
(i) for flights that have been rerouted and exit oceanic and frequency locations will normally be used:
airspace at a point other than the flight planned exit
fix; or Table 1.3—Oceanic Clearance Delivery Frequencies
(ii) at a pilot’s request for another routing; or
(iii) if a flight plan has not been received by the ACC. Frequency Locations Frequencies
(b) Flights that have been rerouted from the flight planned
Natashquan (YNA)
route and enter CDA within 120 NM of the flight planned 135.45 MHz
(50˚11’N 061˚47’W)
oceanic exit point can anticipate a clearance to regain the
flight planned route by the INF unless the pilot requests a Allan’s Island
128.45 MHz
(46˚50’N 055˚47’W)
different routing. For flights entering CDA more than
120 NM from the flight planned oceanic exit point, a Churchill Falls (UM)
128.7 MHz
clearance will be issued following consultation with the (53˚35’N 064˚14’W)
pilot. Stephenville (YJT)
135.05 MHz
(c) ATC will use the latest flight plan received before a flight (48˚34’N 058˚40’W)
departs. Subsequent changes to the flight plan route, Sydney (YQY)
119.42 MHz
including any changes received by the pilot from flight (46˚09’N 060˚03’W)
operations or dispatch, must be requested directly by the Brevoort
132.025 MHz
pilot on initial contact with the appropriate domestic ACC. (63˚20’N 064˚08’W)
Direct requests from flight operations or dispatch to ATC Kuujjuaq (YVP)
to reclear aircraft will only be considered under exceptional 134.2 MHz
(58˚05’N 068˚25’W)
circumstances and are not an acceptable alternative to a
pilot-initiated request for a reclearance.
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(b) Operators who do not receive the NAT track message are air-to-air communications, including the relaying of position
NAT
Procedures and further information for flights intending to 1.11 MINIMUM NAVIGATION PERFORMANCE
receive oceanic clearances via data link are published in Gander SPECIFICATIONS (MNPS) FOR
Data Link Oceanic Clearance Delivery (OCD) Crew Procedures. OPERATIONS WITHIN THE NORTH
ATLANTIC HIGH-LEVEL AIRSPACE
1.10 POSITION REPORTS (NAT HLA)
1.10.1 Requirements
1.11.1 General
Unless otherwise requested by ATC, flights shall make position
reports at all points contained in their oceanic clearance. All operators are to ensure that aircraft used to conduct flights
within the NAT HLA have the minimum navigation equipment.
Position reports shall include the reported position, including For detailed requirements, refer to the following documents:
the time it is reached, the current flight level (or passing flight
level and final level if the aircraft is either climbing or descending), (a) ICAO Doc 7030—Regional Supplementary Procedures;
the next reporting point and estimated time, and the succeeding (b) ICAO NAT Doc 001—NAT SPG Handbook;
reporting point per the cleared route. If the estimated time over
(c) ICAO NAT Doc 007—North Atlantic Operations and
the next reporting point is found to be in error by three minutes
Airspace Manual; and
or more, a revised estimated time shall be transmitted as soon
as possible to the appropriate ATC unit. Revisions to forward (d) Parts VI and VII of the CARs.
estimates are not required for flights with established ADS-C Eastbound aircraft requesting an oceanic clearance from Gander
contracts. ACC to enter the NAT HLA may be asked by ATC to confirm
When making position reports, all times shall be expressed in that they are approved for MNPS operations. Pilots/operators
hours and minutes UTC. unable to provide such confirmation will be issued an oceanic
clearance to operate their aircraft outside the NAT HLA (below
If an aircraft in the Gander OCA is unable to communicate with FL 285 or above FL 420).
Gander oceanic, the pilot shall endeavour to relay position reports
through:
1.11.2 Aircraft Without Minimum Navigation
(a) another oceanic control centre with which communication Performance Specifications (MNPS) for the
has been established; North-Atlantic High-Level
(b) another aircraft in the NAT region (when out of range of Airspace (NAT HLA) Operations
VHF ground stations, aircraft may use 123.45 MHz for An aircraft that does not meet the NAT HLA requirements may
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be allowed to operate in the NAT HLA if the following conditions during en route climbs and descents because of aircraft
NAT
are satisfied: performance.
(a) The aircraft is being provided with ATS surveillance services; Fixed speed is no longer required for every flight crossing the
(b) Direct controller-pilot VHF communication is maintained; North Atlantic (NAT). NAT operations without an assigned
and fixed speed (OWAFS) are now possible. Refer to AIP Canada
(c) The aircraft has a certified installation of equipment ENR paragraph 7.1.11 for more details.
providing it with the ability to navigate along the cleared
track. 1.14 OPERATION OF TRANSPONDERS
NOTE: Transponders must be operated at all times on Mode A or Mode
Pilots operating aircraft in the NAT HLA under these provisions C on Code 2000 while the aircraft is operated in the North
should familiarize themselves with NAT HLA operations and Atlantic (NAT) region. However, the last air traffic control (ATC)
procedures. They should also have a current copy of the OTS assigned code must be retained for a period of 30 min after entry
message that is in effect for the time of their flight for situational into NAT airspace unless the pilot is otherwise directed by ATC.
awareness.
NOTE:
Aircraft that are not approved to operate in the NAT HLA and This procedure does not affect the use of the special purpose
do not meet the above provisions may be cleared to climb or codes 7500, 7600, and 7700.
descend through the NAT HLA, traffic permitting.
1.17.2 Contingency Procedures for Oceanic Traffic in the Event of an Evacuation of Gander Area Control
NAT
Centre (ACC)
(vi) Aircraft may request that their flight dispatch offices forward position reports, if these aircraft are sending position
reports to multiple ATS Units or if they are otherwise unable to forward position reports.
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NAT
(vii) Based on where they exit oceanic airspace, flights shall proceed in accordance with the following table until
communication is established with the next agency and this agency issues a reclearance.
For flights operating at FL 290 and above:
Flight is routed over: The flight shall proceed to: Next control agency and
frequency:
AVPUT NALDI DUTUM Montreal ACC 134.85
CLAVY KAGLY TEFFO Montreal ACC 134.85
EMBOK IKMAN FEDDY Montreal ACC 134.85
KETLA GRIBS JELCO Montreal ACC 134.80
LIBOR 6101N 06241W Montreal ACC 134.80
MAXAR MIBNO RODBO Montreal ACC 133.20
NIFTY MUSLO Montreal ACC 133.20
PIDSO PEPKI LOPVI Montreal ACC 135.80
RADUN SINGA Montreal ACC 135.80
SAVRY LAKES MCKEE Montreal ACC 132.45
TOXIT UDMAR Montreal ACC 132.45
URTAK TEALS VANSI Montreal ACC 119.40
VESMI ALSOP Montreal ACC 119.40
AVUTI YKL ROUND Montreal ACC 119.40
BOKTO VOKET DUVBI Montreal ACC 119.40
CUDDY YWK MT Montreal ACC 132.90 @ 63W
DORYY YBC ANCER Moncton ACC 132.95
HOIST YRI Moncton ACC 118.875
IRLOK 5031N 06500W Moncton ACC 118.875
JANJO CEFOU Moncton ACC 118.875
KODIK 4941N 06500W Moncton ACC 132.52
LOMSI QUBIS Moncton ACC 132.52
MELDI 4853N 06500W Moncton ACC 132.52
NEEKO TAFFY Moncton ACC 124.975
PELTU 4813N 06500W Moncton ACC 135.77
RIKAL MIILS Moncton ACC 135.77
SAXAN 4718N 06500W Moncton ACC 133.55
TUDEP TOPPS Moncton ACC 133.55
UMESI 4618N 06500W Moncton ACC 133.55
ALLRY EBONY Moncton ACC 132.8
BUDAR 4536N 06500W Moncton ACC 132.8
ELSIR ALLEX Moncton ACC 132.8
IBERG 4451N 06500W Moncton ACC 132.75
JOOPY TUSKY Moncton ACC 132.75
MUSAK 4409N 06500W Moncton ACC 132.75
NICSO BRADD Moncton ACC 132.75
OMSAT 4336N 06500W Moncton ACC 133.3
PORTI KANNI Moncton ACC 133.3
RELIC 4303N 06500W Moncton ACC 133.7
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Flight is routed over: The flight shall proceed to: Next control agency and
frequency:
SUPRY WHALE Moncton ACC 133.7
VODOR NANSO VITOL Moncton ACC 125.25
BOBTU JAROM GAYBL Moncton ACC 125.25
For flights operating at FL 280 and below:
NOTE:
Routes HOIST and south are the same as for flights operating at FL 290 and above.
Flight is routed over: The flight shall proceed to: Next control agency and
frequency:
NALDI DUTUM Montreal ACC 134.55
KAGLY TEFFO Montreal ACC 134.55
IKMAN FEDDY Montreal ACC 134.55
GRIBS JELCO Montreal ACC 128.25
MIBNO RODBO Montreal ACC 128.25
PEPKI LOPVI Montreal ACC 135.1
5900N 06000W LAKES MCKEE Montreal ACC 135.1
MOATT LOMTA TEALS VANSI Montreal ACC 132.9
PRAWN YDP YKL ROUND Montreal ACC 132.25 @ 65W
PORGY YWK MT Montreal ACC 132.25 @ 63W
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NAT
(iv) The Eastbound OTS will be extended to begin at fixes on or near the western boundary between the Gander FIR
and the Moncton and Montreal FIRs as follows:
INLAND CONTINGENCY FIX INTERMEDIATE FIX OCEANIC ENTRY POINT
KENKI AVPUT
MUSVA CLAVY
BERUS EMBOK
GRIBS KETLA
6101N 06241W LIBOR
MIBNO MAXAR
MUSLO NIFTY
PEPKI PIDSO
SINGA RADUN
LAKES 5900N 06000W SAVRY
UDMAR TOXIT
YKL LOMTA URTAK
ALSOP VESMI
YWK YDP AVUTI
DUVBI VOKET BOKTO
MUNBO CUDDY
BORUB DORYY
TEXUN ENNSO
TASTI YYR HOIST
5222N 06106W IRLOK
SERBO JANJO
KONCH KODIK
VERTU LOMSI
5111N 05929W MELDI
PIKNA NEEKO
5052N 05859W PELTU
NAPLO YAY RIKAL
4950N 05828W SAXAN
MIGLI TUDEP
4904N 05754W UMESI
LOPRO ALLRY
4818N 05730W BUDAR
VINSI YQX ELSIR
4734N 05712W IBERG
TAGRA JOOPY
4649N 05654W MUSAK
SUTKO YYT NICSO
4610N 05639W OMSAT
RUBDA PORTI
4521N 05621W RELIC
PEPRA SUPRY
NANSO RAFIN
LOMPI JAROM TALGO
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(v) Flights at or east of 50°W longitude should initially contact Shanwick Radio. Flights about to exit the Gander OCA
should contact New York Radio, Santa Maria Radio, Iceland Radio, or Nuuk Radio as appropriate. The following
information should be provided:
(A) call sign;
(B) current position;
(C) current flight level and cleared oceanic flight level (if different from the current level);
(D) assigned Mach or speed;
(E) next waypoint and estimate; and
(F) subsequent waypoint.
(vi) The following communications procedures have been developed in accordance with the traffic information
broadcast by aircraft (TIBA) procedures recommended by ICAO Annex 11, Attachment C. Unless otherwise
instructed by Moncton or Montreal Centre, aircraft should apply these procedures when completing an altitude
change to comply with the oceanic clearance.
At least 3 min prior to initiating a climb or descent, the flight should broadcast the following on the last assigned
frequency, 121.5, 243.0, or 123.45:
ALL STATIONS
(call sign)
(direction)
DIRECT FROM (landfall fix) TO (oceanic entry point)
LEAVING FLIGHT LEVEL (number) FOR FLIGHT LEVEL (number) AT
(distance)(direction) FROM (oceanic entry point) AT (time)
When the level change begins, the flight should make the following broadcast:
ALL STATIONS
(call sign)
(direction)
DIRECT FROM (landfall fix) TO (oceanic entry point)
LEAVING FLIGHT LEVEL (number) NOW FOR FLIGHT LEVEL (number)
ALL STATIONS
(call sign)
MAINTAINING FLIGHT LEVEL (number)
(vii) When ADS-equipped flights are notified of a Gander evacuation, they must revert to voice position reporting until
they are either clear of Gander OCA or notified otherwise. Pilots should note that they may be asked to log on to
EGGX when within the Gander OCA; they should not initiate this action until instructed to do so.
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1.18.3 Communications Failure Prior to Exiting Figure 1.2—NAT HLA Between FL 285 and FL 420
NAT
the North Atlantic (NAT) Oceanic Airspace
If the oceanic clearance includes the flight planned oceanic exit
point, the pilot should proceed in accordance with the last received
and acknowledged oceanic clearance, including flight level and
speed, to the last specified oceanic exit point. The pilot should
continue on the flight plan route and, after passing the last
specified oceanic exit point, conform to the relevant state
procedures and regulations.
If cleared on a route that contains an oceanic exit point other
than the one contained in the flight plan, the pilot should proceed
in accordance with the last received and acknowledged oceanic
clearance, including flight level and speed, to the last specified
oceanic route point. After passing this point, the pilot should
conform to the relevant state procedures and regulations,
rejoining the filed flight plan route by proceeding, via published
ATS routes where possible, to the next significant point west of
the last oceanic route point contained in the filed flight plan.
1.19.1 General
The MNPS shall be applicable in that volume of airspace between
FL 285 and FL 420 within the OCAs of Bodo Oceanic, Gander
Oceanic, New York Oceanic East, Reykjavik, Santa Maria, and 1.19.2 Time Keeping Procedures
Shanwick excluding the Brest Oceanic Transition Area (BOTA) Prior to entry into the NAT HLA, the time reference system(s)
and the Shannon Oceanic Transition Area (SOTA). to be used during the flight for calculation of waypoint ETAs
Operators of Canadian-registered aircraft intending to fly in and waypoint ATAs should be synchronized to UTC. All ETAs
the NAT HLA will be required to show that they meet all the and ATAs passed to ATC should be based on a time reference
applicable standards. Information on the measures necessary that has been synchronized to UTC or equivalent. Acceptable
to gain approval may be obtained from the following: sources of UTC include the following:
Equipment Installation Approval: (a) The United States National Institute of Standards and
Technology (NIST) HF radio station near Fort Collins, Colo.,
Transport Canada Civil Aviation (call sign WWV), which operates 24 hr a day on 2 500,
Regional Airworthiness Engineer 5 000, 10 000, 15 000, and 20 000 kHz (AM/SSB) and
(See GEN 1.0 for the appropriate regional office.) announces UTC time at the top of each minute.
Commercial Flight Standards: (b) Approved (TSO-C129) GPS equipment on board (corrected
Transport Canada Civil Aviation to UTC) that allows pilots to access UTC time 24 hr a day.
330 Sparks Street (c) The National Research Council of Canada HF radio station
Ottawa ON K1A 0N8 in Ottawa (call sign CHU), which is available 24 hr a day on
Tel.: ...................................................................1-800-305-2059 3 330, 7 850, and 14 670 kHz (SSB). In the final ten-second
Fax: ............................................................... ........ 613-990-6215 period of each minute, it makes a bilingual station
identification and time announcement in UTC.
(d) The British Broadcasting Corporation (BBC), which
transmits the Greenwich time signal once every hour on a
number of domestic and worldwide frequencies.
(e) Any other source shown to the state of registry or state of the
operator (as appropriate) to be an equivalent source of UTC.
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1.19.3 Provisions for Partial Loss of 1.19.4 Special Routes for Aircraft Fitted With a
NAT
(c) MAC – BEL – GOW – SHA – 5700N 01000W (GOMUP) (b) INS;
– 6000N 01500W – 6100N 01630W BREKI KFV; (c) GPS approved in accordance with the requirements specified
(d) KFV – SOPEN – DA – SF – YFB; in TSO C-129 (Class A1, A2, B1, B2, C1, or C2); or
(e) KFV – EPENI – 6300N 03000W – 6100N 04000W – OZN; (d) FMS or IRS.
(f) OZN – 5900N 05000W – AVUTI (FL 290-FL 600) – PRAWN The aforementioned routes are known as Blue Spruce routes
– YDP; and are as follows:
(g) OZN – 5900N 05000W – CUDDY (FL 290-FL 600) – PORGY; (a) STN or BEN – 60N 010W (ATSIX) – 61N 01234W – ALDAN
– KFV (HF required on this route);
(h) OZN – 5800N 05000W – HOIST – YYR;
(b) STN or BEN – 61N 010W (RATSU) – ALDAN – KFV (VHF
(i) SF – 6700N 06000W (DARUB) – YXP; and coverage exists and, subject to prior coordination with
(j) RE – 6930N 02240W – CP. Scottish Airways and Prestwick [Shanwick OAC], this route
may be used by non-HF equipped aircraft);
These routes are subject to the following conditions:
(c) MAC, BEL, GOW, SGA – 57N 010W (GOMUP) – 60N
(a) sufficient navigation capability remains to meet the MNPS, 015W – 61N 01630W – BREKI KFV (HF required on this
and the requirements in ICAO Annex 6, Part I, Section 7.3 route)
and ICAO Annex 6, Part II, Section 3.7.2 can be met by
relying on the use of short-range NAVAIDs; (d) Tango Nine (T9) – 483554N 0090000W (LASNO) – 45N
009W (BEGAS) –STG (HF required on this route);
(b) a revised flight plan is filed with the appropriate ATS unit;
and (e) Tango Sixteen (T16) – 485020N 0120000W (OMOKO) –
4500N 01600W (GONAN) – 4000N 01600W – NAVIX (HF
(c) an ATC clearance is obtained. required on this route);
NOTES: (f) Tango Two One Three (T213) – 484343N 0102950W
1. A revised oceanic clearance will be issued after coordination (TAMEL) – 4500N 01300W (BERUX) (HF required on this
between all oceanic ACCs concerned. route);
2. If the OTS extends to the northern part of the NAT region, (g) KFV – SOPEN – DA – SF – YFB;
the aircraft concerned may be required to accept a lower (h) KFV – EPENI – 6300N 03000W – 6100N 04000W – OZN;
than optimum flight level in the revised oceanic clearance,
(i) OZN – 5900N 05000W – AVUTI (FL 290-FL 600) – PRAWN
especially during peak traffic periods.
– YDP;
3. This guidance material does not relieve the pilot from the
(j) OZN – 5900N 05000W – CUDDY (FL 290-FL 600) – PORGY;
requirement to take the best possible course of action in
light of the prevailing circumstances. (k) OZN – 5800N 05000W – HOIST – YYR;
(l) SF – 6700N 06000W (DARUB) – YXP;
(m) RE – 6930N 02240W – CP;
(n) Funchal/Porto Santo – Santa Maria/Ponta Delgada; and
(o) Lisboa Porto Faro – Ponta Delgada/Santa Maria/Lajes.
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1.19.5 Aircraft Without Minimum Navigation 1.20.3 Flight Level Allocation Scheme (FLAS)
NAT
Performance
As with procedures in CDA, aircraft flight planning in oceanic
Specifications (MNPS) Capability
airspace should normally plan for a flight level appropriate to
An aircraft that does not meet the NAT HLA requirements may the direction of flight, particularly when they are operating
be allowed to operate in the NAT HLA if the following conditions outside of the OTS structure and valid times.
are satisfied:
In an effort to provide efficient and economic profiles,
(a) The aircraft is being provided with ATS surveillance services; NAT ANSPs, through consultation, have designed the FLAS.
(b) Direct controller-pilot VHF communication is maintained; The FLAS standardizes flight levels available for traffic routing
and on and outside of the OTS as well as during transition times
(c) The aircraft has a certified installation of equipment (times between valid OTS).
providing it with the ability to navigate along the cleared Aircraft operators are advised to flight plan using the flight
track. levels specified in this document, relative to their particular
flight(s).
NOTE:
Pilots operating aircraft in the NAT HLA under these provisions
1.20.3.1 Flight Level Allocation Scheme (FLAS)
should familiarize themselves with NAT HLA operations and
Procedures
procedures. They should also have a current copy of the OTS
message that is in effect for the time of their flight for situational FLAS procedures entail:
awareness. (a) the establishment of flight level profiles normally available
during OTS valid times;
Aircraft that are not approved to operate in the NAT HLA and
do not meet the above provisions may be cleared to climb or (b) the establishment of f light level profiles during OTS
descend through the NAT HLA, traffic permitting. changeover periods;
(c) the establishment of a night datum line, with the area south
1.19.6 Monitoring of Gross Navigation Errors of the line reserved principally for traffic originating in
In order to ensure that the required navigation standards are New York/Santa Maria; and
being observed within the NAT HLA, a continuous monitoring (d) the establishment of a north datum line, with the area on or
of the navigation accuracy of aircraft in this airspace takes place north of the line reserved for late-running westbound traffic
using surveillance systems in Canada, Ireland, France, Iceland, from Reykjavik to Gander.
and the United Kingdom. In cases of a gross navigation error,
the pilot will normally be notified by the ATC unit observing 1.20.3.2 Organized Track System (OTS)
the error. The subsequent investigation to determine the error
will involve the ATC unit, the operator, and the state of registry. (a) Westbound
(i) The westbound OTS message is designed and
If there is a serious increase in the number of large errors, it may
published by Shanwick daily.
become necessary to increase separation standards until remedial
action has been determined. Alternatively, if rapid corrective (ii) The most northerly track of a day OTS is designated
action cannot be achieved, it may be necessary for the state of as NAT Track Alpha; the adjacent track to the south,
registry or the state of the operator to temporarily exclude as NAT Track Bravo; and so on.
offending aircraft types or operators from the NAT HLA. (iii) The valid times are 1130 to 1900 UTC at 30°W.
(iv) The flight level profiles normally published are FL 310
1.20 NORTH ATLANTIC (NAT) REDUCED
to FL 390 inclusive
VERTICAL SEPARATION
MINIMUM (RVSM) (v) Tracks that landfall at or north of CUDDY FL 340
will not be published.
1.20.1 Geographic Boundaries (A) FL 340 is omitted from these tracks to allow
profiles for aircraft originating in the
In the NAT, RVSM airspace is airspace within the geographic Reykjavik OCA.
extent of the NAT region from FL 290 to FL 410 inclusive.
(b) Eastbound
1.20.2 Reduced Vertical Separation (i) The eastbound OTS message is designed and
Minimum (RVSM) Details and Procedures published by Gander daily.
For RVSM details and procedures applicable to both the NAT (ii) The most southerly track is designated as Track Zulu;
and CDA, see RAC 11.7. the adjacent track to the north, as Track Yankee;
and so on.
(iii) The valid times are 0100 to 0800 UTC at 30°W.
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(iv) The flight level profiles normally published are FL 310 (iv) At the end of westbound (daytime) OTS:
NAT
NOTE:
For this procedure “New York Tracks” are any eastbound OTS
Tracks that originate in the New York area and enter Gander or
Shanwick OCAs.
NAT
During the eastbound OTS hours of validity, a static datum line,
Table 1.4—OTS Changeover Periods
known as the night datum line, is established with the following
Level Time (UTC) Direction coordinates:
FL 430 24 hr Westbound.
May be flight planned as eastbound 45°N 030°W – 49°N 020°W – SOMAX – ATSUR
by non-RVSM aircraft. FL 340 and FL 380 are delegated to Gander for eastbound traffic
FL 410 24 hr Eastbound. on and to the north of the night datum line.
FL 400 0801–2229 Westbound.
FL 340 will not be used for Gander eastbound traffic to the south
2230–0059 Westbound (avoiding OTS).
Eastbound OTS (subject to of the night datum line.
0100–0800 westbounds). FL 380 will not be used for Gander eastbound traffic to the south
Westbound (avoiding OTS). of either the night datum line or the eastbound OTS, whichever
Eastbound (OTS).
is further south.
FL 390 1901–1029 Eastbound.
1030–1129 Eastbound (avoiding OTS). Figure 1.3—Night Datum Line
Westbound OTS (subject to
1130–1900 eastbounds).
Eastbound (avoiding OTS).
Westbound (OTS).
FL 380 0300–0700 Westbound (ODL, on and to the
North of the North datum line).
0801–2229 Westbound.
2230–0059 Eastbound (subject to westbounds).
0100–0800 Eastbound (OTS and ODL).
FL 370 1901–1029 Eastbound.
1030–1129 Eastbound (avoiding OTS).
Westbound OTS (subject to
1130–1900 eastbounds).
Eastbound (avoiding OTS).
Westbound (OTS).
FL 360 0801–2229 Westbound.
2230–0059 Westbound (avoiding OTS).
Eastbound OTS (subject to
0100–0800 westbounds). 1.20.3.5 North Datum Line
Westbound (avoiding OTS).
Eastbound (OTS).
Between 0300 and 0700 UTC, a static datum line, known as the
north datum line, is established with the following coordinates:
FL 350 1901–0959 Eastbound.
1000–1129 Eastbound (avoiding OTS). URTAK – 60°N 050°W – 62°N 040°W – 63°N 030°W
Westbound OTS (subject to
1130–2000 eastbounds). On and to the north of the north datum line, FL 380 is delegated
Eastbound (avoiding OTS). to Reykjavik for use by westbound traffic.
Westbound (OTS).
In the event of a high volume of north random flights or OTS
FL 340 0801–2229 Westbound. tracks, the north datum line may be suspended to accommodate
2230–0059 Eastbound (subject to wesbounds).
Eastbound OTS (subject to
the anticipated eastbound traffic.
0100–0800 westbounds).
Eastbound (OTS and ODL).
FL 330 1901–0959 Eastbound.
1000–1129 Westbound (subject to
1130–1900 eastbounds).
Westbound (OTS and ODL).
FL 320 0801–2229 Westbound.
2230–0059 Westbound (avoiding OTS).
Eastbound OTS (subject to
0100–0800 westbounds).
Westbound (avoiding OTS).
Eastbound (OTS).
FL 310 24 hr Westbound (ODL).
FL 300 24 hr Westbound.
FL 290 24 hr Eastbound.
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The Regional Monitoring Agency for the NAT is the CMA located
in Prestwick, UK, and it may be contacted at the following address:
North Atlantic Central Monitoring Agency
c/o National Air Traffic Services
Room G41
Scottish & Oceanic Area Control Centre
Sherwood Road
Prestwick, Ayrshire KA9 2NR
United Kingdom
Tel.: ..................................................................+44 1292 692412
Strumble HMU status
(recorded message) ...................................... +44 1292 692760
Fax: .................................................................+44 1292 692754
E-mail: .......................................................natcma@nats.co.uk
Information on the responsibilities of the CMA and the procedures
1.20.4 North Atlantic (NAT) Reduced Vertical applicable to it are contained in ICAO NAT Doc 001—NAT
Separation Mininum (RVSM) Aircraft SPG Handbook, available at the following address: <www.icao.
Approvals int/EURNAT/Pages/EUR-and-NAT-Document.aspx>.
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NAT
The HMU site is located at Strumble, UK, 15 NM east of the
Strumble VOR/DME (STU), beneath upper ATS UG1, at
coordinates 51˚56’00”N 004˚40’00”W (see Figure 1.6).
The coverage area for the Strumble HMU is a 13.8-NM radius
circle from FL 290 to FL 410, inclusive.
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1.20.8.2 In-flight Procedures SLOP conforms to direction in the International Civil Aviation
NAT
Prior to an overflight of the Strumble HMU, pilots are requested Organization’s (ICAO) Procedures for Air Navigation Services–
to transmit “for HMU flight” to London Control on initial Air Traffic Management (Doc 4444) and is subject to the following
contact and, if they are not RVSM approved, a request for a level guidelines:
between FL2 90 and FL 410 (inclusive) should be made. The (a) Aircraft without automatic offset programming capability
controller will endeavour to allow the aircraft to route through must fly the route centreline.
the HMU coverage area in straight and level flight, if operational
(b) Operators capable of programming automatic offsets may
requirements so permit.
fly the centreline or an offset up to a maximum of 2 NM
right of centreline.
1.20.8.3 Post-flight Procedures
(c) Offsets to the left of centreline are not permitted.
ATC is not aware of whether an aircraft has been successfully
monitored by the HMU. Operators wishing to ascertain this (d) An aircraft overtaking another aircraft should offset within
information may send a fax to the NAT CMA or complete and the confines of this procedure, if capable, so as to minimize
submit the HMU request form, which is available at <http:// the amount of wake turbulence for the aircraft being
natcma.com/height-monitoring-2/strumble-hmu/>. Please note overtaken. The pilot should take into account wind, estimated
that operators are encouraged to use the NAT CMA Web site. wake vortex drift, and time to descend. (Nominal descent
rates for wakes are 300-600 ft/min.)
Operator queries for specific overflights may be made to the
(e) Pilots should use whatever means are available (e.g. traffic
NAT CMA. Such queries should include the Mode S or A codes
alert and collision avoidance system [TCAS], communications,
and approximate time of overflight.
visual acquisition) to determine the best flight path to fly.
Pilots may contact other aircraft on frequency 123.45 MHz,
1.21 STRATEGIC LATERAL OFFSET as necessary, to coordinate the best wake turbulence offset
PROCEDURE (SLOP) option.
The strategic lateral offset procedure (SLOP) is now a standard (f) Pilots may apply an offset outbound after the oceanic entry
operating procedure (SOP) throughout the North Atlantic (NAT) point and must return to the centreline before the oceanic
region. This procedure mitigates collision risk and wake exit point. Position reports transmitted via voice should be
turbulence encounters. Pilots conducting oceanic flights within based on the waypoints of the current air traffic control (ATC)
the NAT region with automatic offset programming capability clearance and not on the offset positions.
are recommended to fly lateral offsets up to 2 NM right of
centreline. (g) There is no ATC clearance required for this procedure, and
it is not necessary that ATC be advised.
The introduction of very accurate aircraft navigation systems,
along with sophisticated flight management systems (FMS), has
drastically reduced the number of risk-bearing lateral 2.0 INTERNATIONAL AIR-GROUND
navigation (LNAV) errors reported in NAT airspace. SERVICE
Paradoxically, the capability of aircraft to navigate to such a high
Gander international flight service station (IFSS) is the only
level of accuracy has led to a situation in which aircraft on the
Canadian aeronautical station that provides international
same track, but at different levels, are increasingly likely to be
aeronautical telecommunication services.
in lateral overlap. This results in an increased risk of collision
if an aircraft departs from its cleared level for any reason.
2.1 HIGH FREQUENCY (HF) AEROMOBILE
SLOP reduces risk by distributing aircraft laterally. It is applicable OPERATIONS IN THE NORTH
within the New York oceanic, Gander oceanic, Shanwick oceanic, ATLANTIC (NAT)
Santa Maria oceanic, Nuuk, and Reykjavik flight information
regions (FIRs), and within the Bodø oceanic FIR when flights All North Atlantic (NAT) high frequencies (HF) are organized
are conducted more than 185 km (100 NM) seaward from the into groups, known as families. The families are identified as
shoreline. NAT family A, B, C, D, E, and F. Initial contact with Gander
international flight service station (IFSS) on HF radio should
be made on families B, C, D or F. When an aircraft fails to establish
contact with Gander IFSS on the designated frequency, it shall
attempt to establish contact on another frequency appropriate
to the route.
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Table 2.1—Families of NAT HF Frequencies broadcast in and adjacent to Canadian airspace, Gander Radio
NAT
Monitored by Gander IFSS can provide, on request, Anchorage and Fairbanks surface
observations and aerodrome forecasts to flight crews.
NAT Family Frequencies
A* 3 016 kHz 2.3 AVAILABILITY OF SINGLE
B 2 899 kHz SIDEBAND (SSB)
5 616 kHz All international high frequency (HF) equipment is operated
8 864 kHz on single sideband (SSB) J3E emission. In all cases, the upper
sideband (USB) is employed.
13 291 kHz
C 2 872 kHz
2.4 SELECTIVE CALLING
5 649 kHz SYSTEM (SELCAL)
8 879 kHz
The selective calling system (SELCAL) is installed on all
11 336 kHz international frequencies at Gander Radio. SELCAL provides
13 306 kHz an automatic and selective method of calling any aircraft. Voice
D 2 971 kHz calling is replaced by the transmission of code tones to the aircraft
over the international radiotelephone channels. A single selective
4 675 kHz
call consists of a combination of four pre-selected audio tones
8 891 kHz requiring approximately two seconds of transmission time. The
11 279 kHz tones are generated in the ground station coder and are received
13 291 kHz by a decoder connected to the audio output of the airborne
F receiver. Receipt of the assigned tone code (SELCAL code)
3 476 kHz
activates a light or chime signal in the cockpit of the aircraft.
6 622 kHz
It is the responsibility of the flight crew to ensure that Gander
8 831 kHz
Radio is informed of the SELCAL code available based on the
13 291 kHz airborne equipment, if they intend to communicate with Gander
*Note: The NAT Family A of frequencies is not routinely monitored by Gander IFSS;
Radio. This may be done in connection with the off-ground
however, they are available for use in unusual circumstances such as an adjacent ATS Unit report or when they are transferring in flight from one network
evacuation or loss communications. to another.
For information about hours of service, refer to the AIP GEN SELCAL standards and procedures are found in the International
section 3.4 Communication Services under 3.4.3 Types of Service: HF. Civil Aviation Organization’s (ICAO) Annex 10, Volume II. The
For further details regarding Gander Radio Station Information, worldwide administration of SELCAL code assignments has
refer to the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) NAT been delegated to Aviation Spectrum Resources, Inc. SELCAL
Doc 003, High Frequency Management Guidance Material for the code application forms may be obtained at: <www.asri.aero/
North Atlantic Region, Appendix B-2. selcal>.
In the event that the overloading of a family occurs or is
anticipated, aircraft of one or more operators may be offloaded 2.5 USE OF GENERAL PURPOSE
from that family to another appropriate family for the expected VERY HIGH FREQUENCY (VHF)
duration of the condition. The offloading may be requested by OR SATELLITE VOICE
any station, but Shannon and Gander will be responsible for COMMUNICATIONS (SATVOICE)
making a decision after coordination with all NAT stations IN LIEU OF INTERNATIONAL HIGH
concerned. FREQUENCY (HF) AIR-GROUND
FREQUENCIES
2.2 HIGH FREQUENCY (HF) OPERATIONS—
ANCHORAGE ARCTIC 2.5.1 North Atlantic (NAT) and Anchorage Arctic
Aircraft operating in the Anchorage Arctic control area (CTA)/ Regions—Satellite Voice
flight information region (FIR) beyond the line-of-sight range Communications (SATVOICE) Use
of remote control very high frequency (VHF) air-ground facilities SATVOICE may be used to contact Gander Radio for non-routine
operated from the Anchorage area control centre (ACC) shall flight safety calls or during periods of poor HF propagation.
maintain communications with Gander Radio and a listening Gander Radio may be contacted at 1-709-651-5298 or using
or selective calling system (SELCAL) watch on North Atlantic Inmarsat short code 431613.
Delta (NAT D) network high frequencies (HF) 2 971 kHz,
4 675 kHz, 8 891 kHz, and 11 279 kHz. Primary daytime frequency
is 11 279 kHz with a primary nighttime frequency of 8 891 kHz.
Additionally, and in view of reported marginal reception of
Honolulu Pacific in-flight meteorological information (VOLMET)
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2.5.2 North Atlantic (NAT) Region—Very High Figure 2.2—NAT VHF Coverage at 20 000 ft
NAT
VHF
COORDINATES/NAMED FIXES
FREQUENCIES É
NOTE:
SELCAL is used on all air-ground frequencies.
(c) the minimum altitude for continuous VHF coverage across Several attempts to establish communication may be necessary
the NAT is considered to be 30 000 ft (see the following upon entry into the fringe area of reception. Aircraft should
charts). maintain SELCAL watch on HF when in fringe areas of VHF
coverage. Upon exiting, communication should be re-established
Figure 2.1—NAT VHF Coverage at 10 000 ft
on HF channels, preferably before f lying beyond normal
VHF coverage. Because VHF coverage is limited, aircraft must
be equipped with an approved and serviceable HF radio capable
of two-way radio communication with ATS from any point along
É
the route of flight.
NOTE:
Because of VHF coverage, aircraft may proceed across the Atlantic
without HF radio subject to the following restrictions:
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NAT
DEGREE WAYPOINTS IN THE GANDER
OCEANIC CONTROL AREA (OCA)
The manual entry of latitude/longitude waypoints using short
codes derived from the ARINC Specification 424, paragraph 7.2.5
(“Reporting Positions Defined by Coordinates”) standard
(5050N = 50°N/50°W, N5050 =50°30’N/50°W) has been directly
identified as a causal factor in many of the occurrences of gross
navigation errors within the North Atlantic (NAT) region.
The use of the entire latitude/longitude coordinates to enter
waypoints, using procedures that provide for adequate mitigation
of display ambiguity, is strongly advocated to avoid flight
management computer (FMC) insertion errors.
If full latitude and longitude coordinates are not used to enter
waypoints:
(a) Aircraft navigation databases should NOT contain waypoints
in the Gander oceanic control area (OCA) in the format of
“Nxxxx”, according to ARINC-424 paragraph 7.2.5.
(b) If an aircraft operator or flight planning service has an
operational need to populate databases with half-degree
waypoints in the Gander OCA, they are advised to use an
alternate format, such as “Hxxxx”.
Flight crew procedures should require each pilot to independently
display and verify the DEGREES and MINUTES loaded into
the FMC for the latitude/longitude waypoints defining the route
contained in the NAT oceanic clearance.
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NAT
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SAR
Search and rescue (SAR) service in Canada was established in emergency supplies and survival support. The Civil Air Search
accordance with the provisions of the International Civil Aviation and Rescue Association (CASARA), a nationwide volunteer
Organization’s (ICAO) Annex 12. The Canadian Forces are organization, assists the Canadian Forces with aeronautical SAR
responsible for conducting SAR operations for aeronautical cases.
incidents in Canada. Workload permitting, joint rescue coordination centre (JRCC)
Aeronautical SAR service is provided through three joint rescue personnel are prepared to present briefings on SAR services and
coordination centres (JRCC), located at Victoria, B.C., techniques to the public and aviation groups on request. Visits
Trenton, Ont., and Halifax, N.S. The JRCCs control all rescue to JRCCs are encouraged, as long as prior notice is provided.
units in their region through an extensive civil/military Other major SAR providers in Canada include:
communications network. The addresses of the JRCCs are:
(a) The Canadian Coast Guard, which has primary responsibility
VICTORIA for marine incidents along Canada’s ocean coasts, in all
(serving British Columbia and the Yukon) waterways in the Arctic, and in the waters of the Great Lakes
St. Lawrence Seaway System;
Joint Rescue Coordination Centre Victoria
P.O. Box 17000 Station Forces (b) Provincial and territorial governments, which, through
Victoria BC V9A 7N2 their police service, respond to SAR incidents involving
persons on land, or on inland waterways;
Tel. (toll-free within region): ......................... 1-800-567-5111
Tel.: ....................................................................... 250-413-8933 (c) Parks Canada’s warden service, which is responsible for
Tel. (toll-free cellular): ....................................... #SAR or #727 ground or inland water SAR within National Parks;
TRENTON (d) Trained volunteers across Canada who also play a key role
in providing SAR services to the public.
(serving Alberta, Manitoba, Northwest Territories, western
Nunavut, Ontario, western Quebec, Saskatchewan) As mutual aid is one of the strengths of Canada’s SAR system,
the JRCCs may call upon any of these other providers, as well
Joint Rescue Coordination Centre Trenton as the private sector, to assist with an aeronautical SAR case.
P.O. Box 1000 Station Forces
Astra ON K0K 3W1 1.3 SEARCH AND RESCUE (SAR)
Tel. (toll-free): .................................................. 1-800-267-7270 AGREEMENTS
Tel.: ........................................................................613-965-3870 Two bilateral agreements relating to aeronautical search and
HALIFAX rescue (SAR) exist between Canada and the United States. The
first permits public aircraft of either country that are engaged
(serving New Brunswick, Newfoundland and Labrador, in aeronautical SAR operations to enter or leave the other country
Nova Scotia, eastern Nunavut, Prince Edward Island, without being subject to normal immigration or customs
eastern Quebec) formalities. The second agreement permits vessels and wrecking
Joint Rescue Coordination Centre Halifax appliances of either country to render aid and assistance on
P.O. Box 99000 Station Forces specified border waters and on the shores and in the waters of
Halifax NS B3K 5X5 the other country along the Atlantic and Pacific coasts within
a distance of 30 NM from the international boundary on
Tel. (toll-free): ..................................................1-800-565-1582
those coasts.
Tel.: ....................................................................... 902-427-8200
NOTE:
All JRCCs will accept collect telephone calls dealing with missing
or overdue aircraft.
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In situations not covered by the agreements above, requests from 2.3 MISSING AIRCRAFT NOTICE (MANOT)
the United States for aircraft of their own registry to participate
When an aircraft is reported missing, the appropriate joint rescue
in a SAR operation within Canada may be addressed to the
coordination centre (JRCC) will issue a missing aircraft
nearest joint rescue coordination centre (JRCC). The JRCC would
notice (MANOT) to the air traffic service (ATS) units that are
reply and issue appropriate instructions.
providing services in or near the search area. MANOTs will be
Figure 1.1—Search and Rescue Regions (SRR) communicated to pilots planning to overfly the search area by
notices posted on flight information boards, orally during the
filing of flight plans, or by radiocommunication.
Pilots receiving MANOTs are requested to maintain a thorough
SAR
2.1 GENERAL
In addition to signals from emergency locator transmitters (ELTs),
the flight plan and flight itinerary are the primary sources of
information for search and rescue (SAR) operations. Therefore,
proper flight planning procedures must be followed and the
filed routes adhered to in order to ensure early detection and
rescue.
In Canada, the area covered in a visual search will typically
extend to a maximum of 15 NM on either side of the flight-
planned route, starting from the aircraft’s last known position
and extending to its destination. In mountainous regions, search
areas will be defined to best suit the terrain and the planned
route of flight. It is therefore critical to the safety of pilots that
they maintain their route as planned, and advise air traffic
service (ATS) of any en route change or deviation as soon as
practicable.
Refer to RAC 3.0 for details relating to filing and closing various
plans or itineraries.
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MANOT number
– SAR operation
A. A. MANOT SIX SAR-FSOX Initial-JRCC Victoria
– JRCC responsible
Type of MANOT
SAR
C. Number of crew and/or passengers C. Pilot, plus 3
F. Last known position (LKP) date/time (local) F. Prince George 1 May—11:31 PST
NOTE:
See SAR 4.9 concerning the obligations of an aircraft to render
assistance to ships or vessels in distress.
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3.0 EMERGENCY LOCATOR (b) TYPE F or AF (fixed [not ejectable] or automatic fixed)—This
type is automatically set in operation by an inertia switch
TRANSMITTER (ELT) when the aircraft is subjected to crash deceleration forces
acting in the aircraft’s flight axis. The transmitter can be
3.1 GENERAL manually activated or deactivated, and in some cases, may
be remotely controlled from the cockpit. Provision may also
Emergency locator transmitters (ELTs) are required for most be made for recharging the batteries from the aircraft’s
general aviation aircraft (see CAR 605.38). They operate on a electrical supply. An additional antenna may be provided
primary frequency of 121.5, 243, or 406 MHz, and help search for portable use of the ELT. Most general aviation aircraft
crews locate downed aircraft to rescue survivors. use this ELT type, which must have the function switch
SAR
Pilots are strongly encouraged to switch from old analog placed to the “ARM” position for the unit to function
121.5 MHz ELTs to the newer 406 MHz digital ELTs since position automatically in a crash.
information from a 406 MHz ELT is calculated and relayed to (c) TYPE AP (automatic portable)—This type is similar to Type F
the appropriate joint rescue coordination centre (JRCC) for or AF, except that the antenna is integral to the unit for
action. The 406 MHz beacon is associated with a unique user; portable operation.
therefore, identification is rapid and resolution of a false alarm
may only require a few phone calls. In addition, activation of a (d) TYPE P (personal)—This type has no fixed mounting and
406 MHz ELT is detected by satellites, whereas, a 121.5 MHz does not transmit automatically. A manual switch is used
signal relies on the aircraft being within the range of an air to start or stop the transmitter.
traffic service (ATS) facility or on another aircraft passing by at (e) TYPE W or S (water-activated or survival)—This type
high altitude. Search and rescue (SAR) response could be delayed transmits automatically when immersed in water. It is
for several hours when a 121.5 MHz ELT is activated. Survivability waterproof, floats, and operates on the surface of the water.
decreases with time and, on numerous occasions, lives have been It has no fixed mounting. It should be tethered to survivors
saved as a result of the early detection possible with a 406 MHz or life rafts.
beacon. The 121.5 MHz signal common to all ELTs also produces
a distinctive siren-like tone that can be heard on a radio receiver 3.3 INSTALLATION AND MAINTENANCE
tuned to this frequency. This signal helps incoming SAR REQUIREMENTS
responders pinpoint an aircraft’s position. During routine
operations, hearing a 121.5 MHz signal may also alert pilots to Installation of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT), as required
the inadvertent activation of their ELT. Therefore, pilots should by CAR 605.38, must comply with Chapter 551 of the
briefly monitor the frequency after each flight to ensure their Airworthiness Manual.
ELT is not emitting a signal. For maintenance, inspection, and test procedures, refer to
Properly maintained ELTs with serviceable batteries should CAR 605 and CAR 571.
provide continuous operation for a minimum of 24 hr at a wide
range of temperatures. Batteries that remain in service beyond 3.4 EMERGENCY LOCATOR
their recommended life may not provide sufficient power to TRANSMITTER (ELT) OPERATING
produce a usable signal. ELTs that contain outdated batteries INSTRUCTIONS (NORMAL USE)
are not considered to be serviceable.
Pre-flight
All ELTs currently operating on 406 MHz can be detected by
(Where practicable):
COSPAS-SARSAT satellites. It is vital to note that effective
February 1, 2009, COSPAS-SARSAT satellites will only detect (a) inspect the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) to ensure
406 MHz ELT signals. A 406 MHz ELT is now required to ensure that it is secure, free of external corrosion, and that antenna
that the COSPAS-SARSAT system is automatically notified in connections are secure;
the event of an aircraft crash. However, 121.5 MHz signals are (b) ensure that the ELT function switch is in the “ARM” position;
still used for short-range location during SAR operations.
(c) ensure that ELT batteries have not reached their expiry date;
and
3.2 TYPES OF EMERGENCY LOCATOR
TRANSMITTER (ELT) (d) listen to 121.5 MHz to ensure the ELT is not transmitting.
There are five types of emergency locator transmitter (ELT): In-flight
(a) TYPE A or AD (automatic ejectable or automatically Monitor 121.5 MHz when practicable. If an ELT signal is heard,
deployable)—This type automatically ejects from the aircraft notify the nearest ATS unit of:
and is set in operation by inertia sensors when the aircraft (a) position, altitude and time when signal was first heard;
is subjected to a crash deceleration force acting through the
aircraft’s flight axis. This type is expensive and is seldom (b) ELT signal strength;
used in general aviation. (c) position, altitude and time when contact was lost; and
(d) whether the ELT signal ceased suddenly or faded.
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Pilots should not attempt a search and rescue (SAR) operation. To avoid an unnecessary search, notify the nearest ATS unit of
If unable to contact anyone, pilots should continue attempts to your changed flight plan or itinerary. If you cannot contact an
gain radio contact with an air traffic service (ATS) unit, or land ATS unit, attempt to contact another aircraft on one of the
at the nearest suitable aerodrome where a telephone is located. following frequencies in order to have that aircraft relay the
information to ATS:
NOTE:
If the signal remains constant, it may be your ELT. (a) 126.7 MHz;
(b) local visual flight rules (VFR) common frequency;
Post-flight
(c) local area control centre (ACC) instrument flight rules (IFR)
Listen to 121.5 MHz. If an ELT is detected, and your ELT has frequency listed in the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS);
SAR
not been switched to “OFF”, deactivate it. For those ELT models
(d) 121.5 MHz; or
that do not have an “OFF” switch, disconnect and re-set the unit
per the manufacturer’s instructions. Notify the nearest ATS unit (e) high frequency (HF) 5 680 kHz, if so equipped.
or joint rescue coordination centre (JRCC) of the time the signal If you cannot contact anyone, a search will begin at the times
was first heard, the actions you have taken and whether the mentioned above. At the appropriate time, switch your ELT to
signal has ceased or is on-going. If you still hear an ELT on “ON”, and leave it on until search crews locate you. Once located,
121.5 MHz after you have deactivated your ELT, it may not be use your aircraft radio on 121.5 MHz (turn the ELT off if there
yours. Notify the nearest ATS unit or JRCC. is interference) to advise the SAR crew of your condition and
intentions.
3.5 EMERGENCY LOCATOR
TRANSMITTER (ELT) OPERATING ELTs and the COSPAS-SARSAT system work together to speed
INSTRUCTIONS (EMERGENCY USE) rescue. The ELT “calls for help”; COSPAS-SARSAT hears that
call and promptly notifies SAR authorities, who then dispatch
Emergency locator transmitters (ELTs) in general aviation aircraft help.
contain a crash activation sensor, or G-switch, which is designed
to detect the deceleration characteristics of a crash and NOTE:
automatically activate the transmitter. However, it is always Delays in activating your ELT will delay your rescue.
safest to place the ELT function switch to “ON” as soon as possible
after the crash, if practicable.
3.6 MAXIMIZING THE SIGNAL
Geostationary satellites will detect an unobstructed 406 MHz
If the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) is a portable model
ELT within minutes of activation; there are no satellite-based
with its own auxiliary antenna, and can be safely removed from
means of detecting a 121.5 MHz signal. In addition to geostationary
the aircraft, it should be placed as high as possible on a level
satellites, polar orbiting low altitude satellites continually overfly
surface to reduce obstructions between it and the horizon. Raising
Canada and will also detect a 406 MHz beacon within 90 min
an ELT from ground level to 2.44 m (8 ft) may increase the range
of activation, producing a position report.
by 20 to 40 percent. The antenna should be vertical to ensure
Some military and commercial aircraft also monitor 121.5 or optimum radiation of the signal. Placing the transmitter on a
243 MHz and will notify air traffic service (ATS) or search and piece of metal, or even the wing of the aircraft, if it is level, will
rescue (SAR) agencies of any ELT transmissions they hear. provide the reflectivity to extend transmission range. Holding
the transmitter close to the body in cold weather will not
In case of emergency, do not delay ELT activation until flight-
significantly increase battery power output. In addition, as the
planned times expire, as such delays will only delay rescue. Do
body will absorb most of the signal energy, such action could
not cycle the ELT through “OFF” and “ON” positions to preserve
reduce the effective range of the transmission.
battery life, as irregular operation reduces localization accuracy
and will hamper homing efforts. Once your ELT has been switched If the ELT is permanently mounted in the aircraft, ensure that
to “ON”, do not switch it to “OFF” until you have been positively it has not been damaged and is still connected to the antenna.
located, and the SAR forces have directed you to turn it off. If it is safe to do so (i.e. no spilled fuel or fuel vapours), confirm
the ELT’s operation by selecting 121.5 MHz on the aircraft radio
If you have landed to wait out bad weather, or for some other
and listening for the audible siren-like tone.
non-emergency reason, and no emergency exists, do not activate
your ELT. However, your aircraft will be reported overdue, and NOTE:
a search will begin if the delay will extend beyond: Since aircraft are easier to see than people are, the search will
(a) 1 hr past the estimated time of arrival (ETA) filed on a flight be conducted to locate the aircraft first. If the aircraft lands in
plan; or an uninhabited area, stay with the aircraft and the ELT. If possible,
have smoke, flares or signal fires ready to attract the attention
(b) the SAR time specified, 24 hr after the duration of the flight,
of search crews who are homing to the ELT. Smoke, flares and
or the ETA specified on a flight itinerary.
signal fires should be sited with due regard for any spilled fuel
resulting from the crash.
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3.7 ACCIDENTAL EMERGENCY LOCATOR (a) Two-station 121.5/243 MHz ELT test:
TRANSMITTER (ELT) TRANSMISSIONS (i) position the aircraft about one-half kilometre from
To forestall unnecessary search and rescue (UNSAR) missions, the tower, FSS or other aircraft that will monitor
all accidental emergency locator transmitter (ELT) activations 121.5 MHz. Ensure the listening station is clearly
shall be reported to the nearest air traffic service (ATS) unit, or visible from the aircraft, as ELT transmissions are
the nearest joint rescue coordination centre (JRCC), giving the line-of-sight. Intervening obstacles, such as hills,
location of the transmitter, and the time and duration of the buildings, or other aircraft, may prevent the listening
accidental transmission and the ELT shall be switched off. ELT station from detecting the ELT transmission.
alarms trigger considerable activity within ATS and SAR units. (ii) using the aircraft radio or other pre-arranged signals,
SAR
Although some accidental ELT transmissions can be resolved establish contact with the listening station. When
without launching SAR or Civil Air Search and Rescue the listening station confirms that it is ready, switch
Association (CASARA) aircraft, such as a properly-registered the 121.5/243 MHz ELT function to “ON”. After no
406 MHz beacon, the JRCCs will adopt the safe course. Promptly more than 5 s, turn the ELT function switch to “OFF”.
notifying ATS or a JRCC of an accidental ELT transmission may The listening station should confirm that the ELT
prevent the unnecessary launch of a search aircraft. If promptly was heard.
reported, there is no charge or penalty associated with the
accidental triggering of an ELT. (iii) reset the ELT function switch to “ARM”.
(iv) tune the aircraft radios to 121.5 MHz to confirm
3.8 TESTING PROCEDURES that the ELT stopped transmitting.
When originally installed in an aircraft, and when parts of the (v) if the listening station did not hear the ELT, investigate
emergency locator transmitter (ELT) system are moved or further before flying the aircraft.
changed, an ELT will be tested in accordance with CAR 571. When conducting the two-station test at a busy airport, take
Every few months, or as recommended by the manufacturer, due regard of tower or FSS workload. Keep the voice radio
pilots should test their ELT. Testing procedures for ELTs will transmissions to a minimum. If the “listening” station does
vary depending upon the type. not hear the ELT transmission, it may be necessary to move
the aircraft to another location on the airfield to conduct
3.8.1 406 MHz Emergency Locator the test.
Transmitters (ELTs)
It will often be impractical to coordinate a 121.5/243 MHz ELT
Since the digital emergency signals from 406 MHz ELTs are test with a tower, FSS, or other aircraft. In such circumstances,
detected almost immediately by COSPAS-SARSAT satellites, pilots can use the following procedures to test their ELTs. Such
the transmitters should never be activated in their operational tests are to be conducted in the first 5 min of any UTC hour,
mode except in an emergency. and test transmissions must be limited to 5 s or less.
406 MHz ELTs should only be tested in accordance with the (b) Single-station ELT test:
manufacturer’s instructions. Most 406 MHz ELTs are equipped (i) tune the aircraft radio receiver to 121.5 MHz.
with an integral self-test function. The manufacturer’s instructions
describe how to carry out this self-test and interpret its results. (ii) switch the ELT to “ON” just long enough to hear the
The instructions should be followed closely to avoid false alerts. tone, and immediately return the function switch
Activation of the self-test will transmit a 406-MHz, digitally- to “ARM”.
altered test signal to the Canadian Beacon Registry. If the ELT
NOTES:
is appropriately registered, the test signal will cause an e-mail
to be sent to the address on file. This will confirm both a successful 1. It is best to have another person in the cockpit to ensure the
self-test as well as the status of the registration. The self-test minimum “on-air” test period.
function may also transmit a 121.5 MHz test signal. In this case, 2. Do not exceed the 5 s “on-air” time.
ensure that the test is conducted at the top of the hour (UTC)
within the first five minutes. (a) recheck 121.5 MHz on the aircraft receiver to ensure
that the ELT stopped transmitting.
3.8.2 121.5/243 MHz Emergency Locator When conducting a single-aircraft test, it is possible that the
Transmitters (ELTs) aircraft radios will hear the ELT output, even though the ELT
power transistor is defective, and will not be detected by a receiver
Any testing of an ELT that operates only on 121.5 MHz or 243 half a kilometre away. However, this test will uncover a totally
MHz shall only be conducted during the first 5 min of any unserviceable ELT, and is better than no test.
UTC hour, and restricted in duration to not more than 5 s.
Such tests can be done between two stations separated by at least NOTE:
half a kilometre, or by a single aircraft, using its own radio While all 406 MHz ELTs also transmit a 121.5 MHz homing
receiver. signal, testing of 406 MHz ELTs must follow the manufacturer’s
instructions provided with the unit.
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SAR
Table 3.1—ELT Requirements
(b) Urgency—A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft
Column I Column II Column III or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight,
which does not require immediate assistance.
Area of Minimum The radiotelephone distress signal, MAYDAY, and the
Aircraft
Operation Equipment
radiotelephone urgency signal, PAN PAN, must be used at the
1. All aircraft except Over land One ELT of beginning of the first distress or urgency communication,
those exempted. type AD, AF, respectively, and, if considered necessary, at the beginning of
AP, A, or F.
any subsequent communication.
2. Large multi-engine Over water at a Two ELTs of 4.2 ACTION BY THE PILOT DURING
turbo-jet aeroplanes distance from land type W or
engaged in an air that requires the S, or one of EMERGENCY CONDITIONS
transport service carriage of life each. Pilots should:
carrying passengers. raft pursuant to
CAR 602.63. (a) precede the distress or urgency message by the appropriate
radiotelephone signal, preferably spoken 3 times;
3. All aircraft that Over water at a One ELT of (b) transmit on the air-ground frequency in use at the time;
require an ELT other distance from land type W or S.
than those set out in that requires the (c) include in the distress or urgency message as many as possible
item 2. carriage of life of the following elements:
raft pursuant to
CAR 602.63. (i) the name of the station addressed (time and
circumstances permitting),
If an ELT becomes unserviceable, the aircraft may be operated (ii) the identification of the aircraft,
according to the operator’s approved minimum equipment (iii) the nature of the distress or urgency condition,
list (MEL). Where no MEL has been approved, the aircraft may
be operated for up to 30 days, provided: (iv) the intention of the person in command, and
(a) the ELT is removed at the first aerodrome at which repairs (v) the present position, altitude or flight level, and heading.
or removal can be accomplished;
NOTES:
(b) the ELT is promptly sent to a maintenance facility;
1. The above procedures do not preclude the possibility of the
(c) and a placard is displayed in the cockpit stating that the following courses of action:
ELT has been removed, and the date of removal (see (a) the pilot making use of any available frequency, or of
CAR 605.39). broadcasting the message;
Despite these exemptions, all pilots are reminded of the rugged, (b) the pilot using any means at his/her disposal to attract
inhospitable terrain that covers much of Canada. attention and make known his/her conditions;
CAUTION: (c) any person taking any means at his/her disposal to assist
Although some flights without ELTs may be legal, they are not the emergency aircraft.
advisable. 2. The station addressed will normally be that station
ELTs are designed to speed rescue to survivable crashes, and communicating with the aircraft.
they should function automatically. However, if you are aware 3. International emergency frequencies are 121.5 and
of their capabilities and limitations, you can improve the 243.0 MHz. In Canada, 126.7 MHz should, whenever
performance of your ELT, and thus assist search and rescue (SAR). practicable, be continuously monitored in uncontrolled
airspace. When aircraft are equipped with dual very high
frequency (VHF) equipment, it is strongly recommended
that frequency 121.5 MHz be monitored at all times.
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4. 121.5 MHz may also be used to establish communications Once radar contact is established, and if it is possible to do so,
when the aircraft is not equipped with the published a rescue aircraft will be dispatched to intercept. Upon successful
frequencies or when equipment failure precludes the use of interception, the interceptor and distressed aircraft should
normal channels. See COM 1.12 for information about attempt radio contact. If this is not possible, use the visual
communicating with air traffic service (ATS) on 121.5 MHz. interception signals (see SAR 4.7). If, in a particular case, it is
not possible for the Canadian Forces to send out an intercepting
4.3 TRANSPONDER ALERTING aircraft, flying the triangular pattern will serve to position the
distressed aircraft and thus narrow any search area.
If unable to establish communication immediately with an air
NOTE:
traffic control (ATC) unit, a pilot wishing to alert ATC to an
The opportunity for an aircraft to be detected by radar increases
SAR
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SAR
(b) notify, if possible, the appropriate air traffic services unit;
to subsection (2).
(c) attempt to establish radio communication with the
(2) The Minister may authorize a person to give an interception
intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control
signal or an instruction to land if such authorization is in
unit by making a general call on aeronautical emergency
the public interest and is not likely to affect aviation safety.
frequency 121.5 MHz and repeating this call on emergency
(3) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft who receives an frequency 243.0 MHz, if practicable giving the identity and
instruction to land from a person referred to in subsection (1) position of the aircraft and the nature of the flight; and
shall, subject to any direction received from an air traffic
(d) if equipped with a transponder, select Mode A Code 7700,
control unit, comply with the instruction.
unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic
(4) The pilot-in-command of an intercepting aircraft and the services unit.
pilot-in command of an intercepted aircraft shall comply
If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict
with the rules of interception set out in the Canada Flight
with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visual or radio
Supplement [and repeated in Schedules I and II].
signals, the intercepted aircraft shall request immediate
clarification while continuing to comply with the instructions
given by the intercepting aircraft.
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SCHEDULE II
SIGNALS FOR USE IN THE EVENT OF INTERCEPTION
Table 4.1(a)— Signals Initiated by Intercepting Aircraft and Response by Intercepted Aircraft
NOTES: HELICOPTERS:
1. Meteorological conditions or terrain may DAY or NIGHT—Rocking aircraft,
require the intercepting aircraft to take flashing navigational lights at
up a position in front and to the right of irregular intervals, and following.
the intercepted aircraft, and to make the
subsequent turn to the right.
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SAR
passing over landing runway at a height If it is decided to release the
exceeding 300 m (1 000 ft) but not intercepted aircraft, the intercepting
exceeding 600 m (2 000 ft) above the aircraft uses the Series 2 signals Understood, you
aerodrome level, and continuing to circle prescribed for intercepting aircraft. may proceed.
the aerodrome. If unable to flash landing
lights, flash any other lights available.
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will be defined to best suit the terrain and route of flight. 4. YES or AFFIRMATIVE Y
Some searches may last at least 24 hr before rescue is accomplished.
5. PROCEEDING IN THE DIRECTION
Make the accident site as conspicuous as possible. Searchers will
be looking for anything out of the ordinary, and their eyes will 6. ALL IS WELL LL
be drawn to any unnatural feature on the ground. The aircraft
has the best chance of being spotted if large portions of its wings 7. REQUIRE FOOD AND WATER F
and tail are painted in vivid colours. Keep the aircraft cleared
8. REQUIRE FUEL AND OIL L
of snow.
As soon as possible after landing, and with due concern for 9. NEED REPAIRS W
spilled fuel or vapours, build a campfire. Collect a large pile of
green material (e.g. tree boughs, fresh leaves, grasses) to quickly NOTES:
place on the fire, should an aircraft be seen or heard. Three 1. Use strips of fabric or parachutes, pieces of wood, stones or
signal fires forming a triangle is the standard distress signal, but any other available material to make the symbols.
even one large smoky fire should attract the attention of searchers. 2. Endeavour to provide as big a colour contrast as possible
One of the best high-visibility items now available on the market between the material used for the symbols and the
is a cloth panel of brilliant fluorescent colour, often referred to background against which the symbols are exposed.
as a “conspicuity panel.” It is staked to the ground during the 3. Symbols should be at least 8 ft in length or longer, if possible.
day and used as a highly effective ground signal. It can also be Care should be taken to lay out symbols exactly as depicted
used as a lean-to shelter and can supply some warmth as a blanket. to avoid confusion with other symbols.
Other means of attracting attention are reflecting sunlight using
signal mirrors or shiny pieces of metal during daylight; or using 4. A space of 10 ft should separate the elements of symbol 6.
flashlights, headlamps, strobes, or even camera flashes during
hours of darkness. 4.7.2 Survival
The following symbols are to be used to communicate with aircraft Ability to assist the search can depend on the success of survival
when an emergency exists. Symbols 1 to 5 are internationally efforts. The emergency equipment detailed in CARs 602.61,
accepted; 6 to 9 are for use in Canada only. 602.62 and 602.63 emphasizes being prepared for the geographical
location and anticipated seasonal climatic variations.
If the aircraft lands in an uninhabited area, stay near the aircraft;
the search is to locate the aircraft. Past experience has demonstrated
that persons with a knowledge of survival techniques have saved
their own and others’ lives. Similarly, survivors invariably
comment that a better knowledge of how to stay alive would
have been invaluable.
There are several good books on survival skills widely available
from bookstores and through the Internet.
The Emergency section of the CFS contains procedures to follow
when sighting a downed aircraft, a ship in distress or when
receiving an ELT signal.
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SAR
(2) On being informed that a person, a vessel or an one or more of any vessels that answer the distress call
aircraft is in distress or is missing in Canadian waters to render assistance. The master of a requisitioned vessel
or on the high seas off any of the coasts of Canada in Canadian waters and every qualified person who is
under circumstances that indicate that they may be in the master of a requisitioned vessel in any waters shall
distress, a rescue coordinator may continue to proceed with all speed to render assistance
to the vessel in distress.
(a) direct all vessels within an area that the rescue
coordinator specifies to report their positions; Release from obligation
(b) direct any vessel to take part in a search for that (4) The master of a vessel shall be released from the
person, vessel or aircraft or to otherwise render obligation imposed by subsection (1) when the master
assistance; learns that another vessel is complying with a requisition
(c) give any other directions that the rescue coordinator referred to in subsection (3).
considers necessary to carry out search and rescue Further release
operations for that person, vessel or aircraft; and
(5) The master of a vessel shall be released from an
(d) use any lands if it is necessary to do so for the obligation imposed by subsection (1) or (3) if the master
purpose of saving the life of a shipwrecked person. is informed by the persons in distress or by the master
Duty to comply of another vessel that has reached those persons that
assistance is no longer necessary.
(3) Every vessel or person on board a vessel in Canadian
waters and every vessel or person on board a vessel in Assistance
any waters that has a master who is a qualified person 132. The master of a vessel in Canadian waters and every
shall comply with a direction given to it or them under qualified person who is the master of a vessel in any
subsection (2). waters shall render assistance to every person who is
Answering distress signal found at sea and in danger of being lost.
131. (1) Subject to this section, the master of a vessel in Aircraft treated as if vessel
Canadian waters and every qualified person who is the 133. Sections 130 to 132 apply in respect of aircraft on or
master of a vessel in any waters, on receiving a signal over Canadian waters as they apply in respect of vessels
from any source that a person, a vessel or an aircraft is in Canadian waters, with any modifications that the
in distress, shall proceed with all speed to render circumstances require.
assistance and shall, if possible, inform the persons in
distress or the sender of the signal.
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SAR
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MAP—AERONAUTICAL the pre-flight and in-flight information necessary for the safe
and efficient movement of aircraft in Canadian airspace.
CHARTS AND Any correspondence concerning the content of the AIP Canada is
PUBLICATIONS to be referred to:
AIP Canada Co-ordinator
NAV CANADA
1601 Tom Roberts Avenue
1.0 GENERAL INFORMATION Ottawa ON K1V 1E5
The Minister of Transport is responsible for the development Tel.: ........................................................................613-248-4157
and regulation of aeronautics and the supervision of all matters Fax:....................................................................... 613-248-4093
connected with aeronautics. E-mail: .............................................. [email protected]
The responsibility for the collection, evaluation and dissemination
of aeronautical information published in the AIP Canada, the 2.2 AIP CANADA SUPPLEMENTS
Canada Flight Supplement (CFS), the Canada Water Aerodrome While permanent changes are published in the Transport Canada
Supplement (CWAS), the Canada Air Pilot (CAP) and in Aeronautical Information Manual (TC AIM) and AIP Canada,
aeronautical charts has been delegated by the Minister of temporary operational changes of long duration (three months
Transport to NAV CANADA. or longer), as well as information of short duration that contains
MAP
extensive text and/or graphics, are published in an
2.0 AERONAUTICAL AIP Canada Supplement in accordance with the International
Civil Aviation Organization’s (ICAO) Annex 15.
PUBLICATIONS
2.3 AIP CANADA AERONAUTICAL
2.1 AIP CANADA INFORMATION CIRCULARS
The AIP Canada is published and disseminated by NAV CANADA; Aeronautical information circulars (AICs) provide advance
it is an International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) notification of major changes to legislation, regulations,
compliant publication intended primarily to satisfy international procedures or purely administrative matters where the text is
requirements for the exchange of aeronautical information of a not part of the Transport Canada Aeronautical Information
lasting nature. It constitutes the basic information source for Manual (TC AIM) or AIP Canada.
permanent and long-duration temporary Canadian aeronautical
In accordance with the International Civil Aviation
information.
Organization’s (ICAO) Annex 15, an AIC shall be issued whenever
AIP Canada consists of Part 1—General (GEN), Part 2— it is desirable to promulgate:
En Route (ENR), and Part 3—Aerodromes (AD). Each part is
(a) a long-term forecast of any major change in legislation,
divided into sections, which are further divided into subsections;
regulations, procedures or facilities;
the publication contains information relevant to aircraft operation
in Canadian airspace. Amendments to AIP Canada are published (b) information of a purely explanatory or advisory nature liable
every 56 days. AIP Canada also consists of AIP Canada Supplements, to affect flight safety;
aeronautical information circulars and NOTAMs. (c) information or notification of an explanatory or advisory
Additional AIP Canada information is provided in the following nature concerning technical, legislative or purely
documents and charts: administrative matters.
(a) Canada Flight Supplement (CFS);
2.4 AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION
(b) Canada Water Aerodrome Supplement (CWAS); REGULATION AND CONTROL (AIRAC)
(c) Canada Air Pilot (CAP) [seven volumes]; CANADA
(d) en route low altitude charts (LO charts); The Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control (AIRAC)
Canada notice is issued weekly by NAV CANADA, Aeronautical
(e) en route high altitude charts (HI charts); Information Management, to provide advance notification to
(f) terminal area charts (TAC); chart makers and producers of aeronautical information
(g) ICAO Type A charts (aerodrome obstacles); concerning changes within Canadian domestic airspace (CDA).
This notice ensures that all users of Canadian airspace have the
(h) aeronautical charts for visual navigation (VNC and VTA); same information on the same date.
and
(i) Designated Airspace Handbook (DAH) [TP 1820].
These documents and charts are designated supplements and
form an integral part of the AIP Canada in that they provide
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
MAP
7. Upper vertical limit expressed in flight level
1. Aeronautical fixed service (AFS) message priority and 8. Latitude and longitude of subject in degrees and minutes
addressing (recipients) 9. Subject radius of area of influence in nautical miles
2. Date and time (DDHHMM) and addressing (originator)
3. NOTAM Series, number, and year of issuance 3.2.3 Items Description
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
D) AUG 11 2030-0300
change to aeronautical information. Human intervention
is required to remove the NOTAM. Therefore, the NOTAM AUG 12 2000-0200
must be revised (NOTAMR) or cancelled (NOTAMC) when AUG 13-16 2100-0430
the NOTAM is no longer needed. E) RWY 03/21 CLSD
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Example 13: this chapter). NOTAMs can also be found on the NAV CANADA
1. SR-SS* website.
2. SR MINUS25 MIN-SS Series are assigned in accordance with NOTAM regions,
3. SR MINUS25 MIN-1600 dissemination categories, and subject categories. There are 18
series letters used in Canada: C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, N,
4. 0800-SS O, P, Q, R, U, V.
5. 0800-SS PLUS25 MIN There are three NOTAM regions:
*SR means sunrise and SS means sunset. • The Western Region consists of the Vancouver and
Edmonton flight information regions (FIR).
3.2.3.6 Item E) NOTAM Text
• The Central Region consists of the Winnipeg and Toronto
Item E) is mandatory and contains the subject and condition of FIRs except for three locations where services are available
the subject, completed where necessary with ICAO-approved in English and French: CNC9-Perth (Great War Mem
abbreviations, indicators, identifiers, call signs, frequencies, Hosp) (Heli), CTA4-St-Bruno-de-Guigues, and CSR8-La
numbers, and plain language. Sarre.
• The Eastern Region consists of Montréal, Moncton, and
3.2.3.7 Items F) and G) Lower and Upper Vertical
Gander FIRs in addition to the three locations in the
Limits
Toronto FIR where services are available in English and
MAP
Items F) and G) are mandatory if the NOTAM is a navigation French: CNC9-Perth (Great War Mem Hosp) (Heli),
warning. Item F) lower vertical limit can be expressed as “SFC” CTA4-St-Bruno-de-Guigues, and CSR8-La Sarre.
(surface), in feet above ground level (AGL), in feet above mean
There are three dissemination categories, each containing six
sea level (AMSL), or as flight level (FL). Item G) upper vertical
series:
limit can be expressed as “UNL” (unlimited), in feet AGL, in feet
AMSL, or as flight level (FL). • International: disseminated to international stakeholders,
to the USA, and within Canada;
3.3 NOTAM TYPES • International – USA: disseminated to the USA and within
NOTAM can be issued as a new NOTAM (NOTAMN), a replacing Canada; and
NOTAM (NOTAMR), or a cancelling NOTAM (NOTAMC). • National: disseminated within Canada only.
Replacements and cancellations must occur within the same
NOTAM series: Details on NOTAM regions, dissemination categories, and series
can be found in AIP Canada paragraph GEN 3.1.3.
N0241/19 NOTAMN
A monthly numerical checklist of current Canadian NOTAMs
F0344/19 NOTAMR F0213/19 series is generated automatically on the first day of each month
H0007/19 NOTAMC H7004/18 and contains all the valid NOTAM numbers within a series, in
addition to the valid AIP Canada amendments, AIP supplements,
and AIC numbers.
3.4 NOTAM ISSUED UNDER A FLIGHT
INFORMATION REGION (FIR) OR AN
AERODROME
If a NOTAM subject affects an aerodrome directly or is 5 NM
or less from an aerodrome, item A) contains the location indicator
of an aerodrome or CXXX (see MAP 3.2.3.3). If a NOTAM
subject affects multiple aerodromes, if it is beyond 5 NM from
any aerodrome, if it affects airspace, or if it is a navigation
warning, item A) contains one or more flight information
regions (FIR) (up to 7). More details on the application of an
aerodrome or FIR in item A) can be found in the Canadian
NOTAM Operating Procedures (CNOP) and in the AIP Canada.
It is necessary that all airspace users review both pertinent
aerodrome and FIR NOTAMs.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
3.6 CRITERIA FOR ISSUING A NOTAM (j) major changes to search and rescue (SAR) facilities and
services available;
A NOTAM should be published with sufficient lead time for the
affected parties to take any required action, except in the cases (k) establishment, withdrawal, or return to operation of hazard
of unplanned unserviceability, volcanic activity, the release of beacons marking obstacles to air navigation;
radioactive material or toxic chemicals, and other events that (l) changes in regulations requiring immediate action; for
cannot be foreseen. The lead time is at the discretion of the example, Designated Airspace Handbook (DAH) (TP 1820)
originator but does not exceed 14 days. Whenever possible, at amendments;
least 24 hours’ advance notice is desirable, to permit timely
completion of the notification process and to facilitate airspace (m) presence of hazards that affect air navigation (including
utilization planning. For planned events, outages, and activities, obstacles, military exercises and operations, intentional and
MAP
no less than 6 hours’ lead time is provided. unintentional radio frequency interferences, rocket launches,
displays, fireworks, rocket debris, races, and major
A NOTAM shall be originated and issued promptly whenever parachuting events outside promulgated sites);
the information to be distributed is of a temporary nature and
of short duration, or when operationally significant permanent (n) conflict zones that affect air navigation (to include, if possible,
changes or temporary changes of long duration are made at short information that is as specific as possible regarding the
notice, except in the case of extensive text and/or graphics. nature and extent of threats of that conflict and the proposed
mitigation measure);
A NOTAM will be originated and issued in the following cases:
(o) planned laser emissions, laser displays, and search lights if
(a) establishment, closure, or significant changes in operation pilots’ night vision is likely to be impaired;
of aerodrome(s) or runways;
(p) erection or removal of or changes to obstacles to air navigation
(b) establishment, withdrawal, or significant changes in in the takeoff/climb, missed approach, and approach areas,
operation of aeronautical services (AGA, AIS, ATS, COM, and on the runway strips;
MET, SAR, etc.);
(q) establishment or discontinuance (including activation or
(c) establishment, withdrawal, or significant changes in deactivation), as applicable, or changes in the status of
operational capability of radio navigation and air/ground restricted, danger, or advisory areas;
communication services. This includes: an interruption or
return to operation, a change of frequencies, a change in (r) establishment or discontinuance of areas or routes or
notified hours of service, a change of identification, a change portions thereof where the possibility of interception exists
of orientation (directional aids), a change of monitoring and where the maintenance of guard on the emergency very
capability or location of any radio navigation and air/ground high frequency (VHF) 121.5 MHz is required;
communication services, or limitations of relay stations (s) allocation, cancellation, or change of location indicators;
including operational impact, affected service, frequency, (t) changes in the aerodrome/heliport rescue and fire fighting
and area; category provided;
(d) unavailability of back-up and secondary systems, having a (u) outbreaks of epidemics necessitating changes in notified
direct operational impact; requirements for inoculations and quarantine measures;
(e) establishment or withdrawal of or significant changes made (v) observations or forecasts of space weather phenomena, the
to visual aids; date and time of their occurrence, the flight levels where
(f) interruption of or return to operation of major components provided, and portions of the airspace that may be affected
of aerodrome lighting systems; by the phenomena;
(g) establishment or withdrawal of or significant changes made (w) an operationally significant change in volcanic activity; the
to procedures for air navigation services; location, date, and time of volcanic eruptions; and/or the
(h) occurrence or correction of major defects or impediments horizontal and vertical extent of volcanic ash cloud, including
in the manoeuvring area; direction of movement, flight levels, and routes or portions
of routes that could be affected;
(i) changes to and limitations on the availability of fuel, oil,
and oxygen;
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
(x) release into the atmosphere of radioactive materials or toxic Example of an RSC NOTAM reporting by average:
chemicals following a nuclear or chemical incident; the
(A1723/20 NOTAMN
location, date, and time of the incident; the flight levels and
routes or portions thereof which could be affected; and the Q) CZUL/QFAXX/IV/NBO/A/000/999/5604N07622W005
direction of movement; A) CXXX B) 2012161315 C) 2012162115
(y) establishment of operations of humanitarian relief missions, E) CAAA SUMSPOT/SUNNY SUMSPOT MUNI
such as those undertaken under the auspices of the United
Nations, together with procedures and/or limitations that RSC 07/25 50 PCT 1/8IN DRY SNOW AND 25 PCT COMPACTED
affect air navigation; SNOW.
(z) implementation of short-term contingency measures in 160FT WIDTH. REMAINING WIDTH COMPACTED SNOW.
cases of disruption, or partial disruption, of air traffic services VALID DEC 16 1300 – DEC 16 2100.
and related supporting services; ADDN NON-GRF/TALPA INFO:
(aa) unavailability of eteorological data; or CRFI 07/25 -3C .40 OBS AT 2012161245.
(ab) other operationally significant circumstances.
RMK: NEXT OBS AT DEC 16 1500.)
MAP
Canadian NOTAMs in all 18 series are available by automatic Q) CZUL/QFAXX/IV/NBO/A/000/999/5604N07622W005
query/response via the aeronautical fixed service (AFS) to
Canadian and international users. Foreign NOTAMs are not A) CXXX B) 2012161315 C) 2012162115
stored in the Canadian NOTAM database but are available by E) CAAA SUMSPOT/SUNNY SUMSPOT REGIONAL
automatic query/response via the AFS through the European
RSC 07 5/3/3 50 PCT 1/8IN DRY SNOW AND 25 PCT
AIS Database (EAD). Details for query/response messages can
COMPACTED SNOW, 50 PCT
be found in AIP Canada paragraph GEN 3.1.3.
COMPACTED SNOW AND 50 PCT 1/4IN DRY SNOW, 25 PCT
Example 1: COMPACTED SNOW AND 25 PCT 1/4IN
GG CYHQYNYX…………………Message priority and recipient DRY SNOW. 160FT WIDTH. 6IN SNOW DRIFTS 300FT FM
of the query THR 07. REMAINING WIDTH COMPACTED SNOW. VALID
160830 LFFAYNYX……………..Date and time of query DEC 16 1300 – DEC 16 2100.
(ddhhmm) and sender of query (France NOF) RSC 25 3/3/5 25 PCT COMPACTED SNOW AND 25 PCT 1/4IN
RQN CYHQ C0123/19………….Query designator, NOTAM DRY SNOW, 50 PCT
nationality, subject of query (number 0123 of year 2019 in NOTAM COMPACTED SNOW AND 50 PCT 1/4IN DRY SNOW, 50 PCT
Series C). 1/8IN DRY SNOW AND 25 PCT
Example 2: COMPACTED SNOW. 160FT WIDTH. 6IN SNOW DRIFT
300FT FM THR 07. REMAINING WIDTH COMPACTED
GG CYHQYNYX
SNOW. VALID DEC 16 1300 – DEC 16 2100.
281530 LFFAYNYX
ADDN NON-GRF/TALPA INFO:
RQN CYHQ C0400/19 C0410/19 C0421/19 C0470/19-C0499/19
CRFI 07 -3C .40/.32/.30 OBS AT 2012161245.
3.8 RUNWAY SURFACE CONDITION (RSC)/ CRFI 25 -3C .30/.32/.40 OBS AT 2012161245.
RSC NOTAM RMK: ALL TWY 1/8IN DRY SNOW.
NOTAMs concerning runway surface conditions (RSC) and the RMK: CLEARING/SWEEPING IN PROGRESS.)
Canadian Runway Friction Index (CRFI) are presented in the
RSC NOTAM format. In this format, RSC can be reported for
the full runway length or by runway thirds. CRFI can be reported
as an average for the full runway length or as averages by runway
thirds. It is possible for information to be reported by full runway
length and by runway thirds, for different runways within the
same RSC NOTAM. RSC NOTAMs are issued in the standard
International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) NOTAM
format (not SNOWTAM) with all the key information being
presented in Item E). They are issued only for aerodromes under
the NOTAM Series S, A or B and are disseminated according to
the dissemination category of that aerodrome.
357
TC AIM March 23, 2023
(c) The Designated Airspace Handbook (DAH) [TP 1820] is (d) En Route Low Altitude Charts (LO charts)
available on the NAV CANADA Web site at <https://www. (e) En Route High Altitude Charts (HI charts)
navcanada.ca/en/aeronautical-information/operational-
guides.aspx#093dcf9f312e43df922dec86e7f295d7>. (f) ICAO Type A Charts*
(d) The Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs) are available (g) Canada Air Pilot (CAP)*
on the Department of Justice (DOJ) Web site at <http:// (h) Restricted Canada Air Pilot (RCAP)*
laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/regulations/sor-96-433/>. (i) Canada Flight Supplement (CFS)
TC priced publications, CDs, DVDs and forms are available (j) Canada Water Aerodrome Supplement (CWAS)*
from the TC Publications Order Desk. Contact the Order Desk
for information about ordering; change of address; the TCCA *This publication is available in electronic form. See the
e-Bulletin service; and print-on-demand options and pricing. NAV CANADA online store for details.
Print-on-demand copies of the Transport Canada Aeronautical Individual aeronautical charts and publications can be obtained
Information Manual (TC AIM) [TP 14371] and Aviation Safety from authorized distributors or from NAV CANADA’s online
Letter (TP 185) are available for order. store. Authorized distributors can be found by clicking on
TC Publications Order Desk “Aeronautical Information Products” and then selecting “Purchase
Information” at <www.navcanada.ca> and in Section C of
Tel. (toll-free in North America): ................1-888-830-4911
the CFS. You can also call AEROPUBS at 1-866-731-PUBS (7827)
...............................................................................613-991-4071
for the distributor nearest you. Distributors may offer products
Chief, Operational Support Services at different prices.
Transport Canada (AAFBD)
2655 Lancaster Road 4.2.2 Subscriptions
Ottawa ON K1B 4L5
The following charts and publications are revised regularly in
Fax: ....................................................................... 613-991-1653
accordance with the AIRAC cycle. Please see the NAV CANADA
E-mail: .................................................. [email protected] online store for more details.
Web site: ....... www.tc.gc.ca/eng/civilaviation/publications/
menu.htm (a) En Route Low Altitude Charts (LO charts)
(b) En Route High Altitude Charts (HI charts)
(c) Terminal Area Charts (TAC)
(d) Canada Air Pilot (CAP)*
(e) Restricted Canada Air Pilot (RCAP)*
(f) Canada Flight Supplement (CFS)*
(g) AIP Canada*
*This publication is available in electronic form. See the
NAV CANADA online store for details.
358
TC AIM March 23, 2023
MAP
and Distribution Unit using one of the methods listed above.
All sales are final. For more information, see the FAQ page at
the NAV CANADA online store.
359
TC AIM March 23, 2023
MAP
360
TC AIM March 23, 2023
LRA—LICENSING, The 24-page ADB is divided into different sections and includes
the holder’s licensing information, as well as ADB-associated
REGISTRATION AND legal text and abbreviations. Three sections clearly show the
holder’s licence(s) and permit(s), competency records, and medical
AIRWORTHINESS certificate(s).
The ADB allows for multiple permits, licences, rating renewals
and medical certificates throughout its validity period.
1.0 FLIGHT CREW LICENSING Transport Canada (TC) has started issuing ADBs that are valid
for 10 years. Since licence holders with operational language
1.1 GENERAL proficiency must be retested every five years, they will continue
The Aeronautics Act and Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs) to be issued ADBs valid for up to five years. The Canadian
contain Canadian aeronautics legislation, regulations and Aviation Regulations (CARs) will be amended to reflect this
standards for flight crew licensing. change.
More information on the booklet can be found on the following
NOTES:
Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA) Web page: <https://
1. The information provided in this chapter is intended only as www.tc.gc.ca/en/services/aviation/licensing-pilots-personnel/
a guide. Contact a Transport Canada (TC) regional licensing applying-aviation-document-booklet.html>.
office for specific concerns.
2. In the event of a discrepancy between the information found 1.3 AVIATION LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY
in this chapter and the CARs, the CARs shall take precedence. All flight crew licences are required by the International Civil
The CARs or any bilateral flight crew licensing agreement with Aviation Organization (ICAO) to be annotated with a language
an International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) contracting proficiency rating.
state, contain(s) complete licensing requirements and specific ICAO language proficiency requirements apply to any language
details for individual permits, licences, ratings and medical used for radiotelephony communications in international
requirements. Flight crew licensing regulations and standards operations; therefore, pilots on international flights shall
are found in:
LRA
demonstrate an acceptable level of language proficiency in either
(a) CAR 401 and CAR Standard 421; English or the language used by the station on the ground.
(b) CAR 404 and CAR Standard 424; or Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA) annotates flight crew
(c) bilateral flight crew licensing agreements. licences to indicate English, French or both to show that the
holder has met the requirements for aviation language proficiency,
An aviation document booklet (ADB), designed to hold aviation- provided that the holder has been assessed at an expert or
related documents, is evidence that a flight crew member is operational level.
qualified for certain permits, licences, certificates and ratings.
The permits, licences and medical certificates are attached as (a) Expert level corresponds to ICAO level 6. The expert level
labels to the ADB. The ADB includes the holder’s photograph does not expire, and requires no further testing for the
and other security features for positive authentication. licence holder.
Licences in the ADB conform to the standards set forth in ICAO (b) Operational level corresponds to ICAO levels 4 and 5. The
Annex 1. All Canadian differences to ICAO standards are operational level is the minimum required proficiency level
published in AIP Canada GEN 1.7. Permits do not conform to for radiotelephony communication; a licence holder with
ICAO standards and are valid only in Canadian airspace, unless an operational level of language proficiency must be retested
authorized by the country in which the flight is conducted. every five years.
(c) Those persons assessed at below operational level (ICAO
Permit and licence holders must hold a Restricted Operator
levels 1-3) do not qualify for a Canadian flight crew licence.
Certificate with an Aeronautical Qualification in accordance
with the requirements of Industry Canada, if they are going to
operate radiotelephone equipment on board an aircraft. 1.4 PERMITS AND LICENCES ISSUED
BY TRANSPORT CANADA CIVIL
AVIATION (TCCA)
1.2 AVIATION DOCUMENT BOOKLET (ADB)
Canadian permit and licence holders must hold an aviation 1.4.1 Permits
document booklet (ADB).
(a) Student Pilot Permit
A first-time Canadian permit or licence applicant must also
apply for an ADB at the same time. A passport-style photograph (b) Gyroplane Pilot Permit
must be submitted with Form 26-0726, Application for an Aviation (c) Ultralight Aeroplane Pilot Permit
Document Booklet.
(d) Recreational—Aeroplane Pilot Permit
361
TC AIM March 23, 2023
1.4.2 Licences (c) Instrument flight time is any flight time in an aircraft
while piloting the aircraft by sole reference to the flight
(a) Glider Pilot Licence
instruments. This flight time can be accumulated while
(b) Balloon Licence operating under instrument flight rules (IFR) in instrument
(c) Private Pilot Licence—Aeroplane meteorological conditions (IMC), or in visual meteorological
conditions (VMC) during flight training by means which
(d) Private Pilot Licence—Helicopter limit a pilot’s ability to see outside the cockpit environment
(e) Commercial Pilot Licence—Aeroplane such as while under a hood or wearing limited vision goggles.
(f) Commercial Pilot Licence—Helicopter (d) Instrument ground time is instrument time in a flight
simulation training device (FSTD) approved by
(g) Airline Transport Pilot Licence—Aeroplane
Tranport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA) for flight training
(h) Airline Transport Pilot Licence—Helicopter purposes while controlling the simulator by sole reference
(i) Flight Engineer Licence to the flight instruments.
(e) Pilot-in-command (PIC) flight time is flight time in an
NOTE: aircraft as the pilot with responsibility and authority for
The qualifications relating to AMEs and air traffic controllers the operation and safety of the aircraft.
are outlined in:
(f) PIC under supervision flight time is flight time, other than
(a) CAR Subpart 402 and CAR Standard 422 for receiving flight instruction, acquired by a co-pilot under
(b) CAR Part V Airworthiness Manual Chapter 566 a TCCA approved pilot training program while acting as
PIC under supervision of a PIC. PIC under supervision
flight time can only be credited if it is obtained in accordance
1.5 DEFINITIONS OF FLIGHT EXPERIENCE
with CAR Standard 421.11, see <https://tc.canada.ca/en/
For the purposes of flight training or flight proficiency to meet corporate-services/acts-regulations/list-regulations/
the Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs) requirements, the canadian-aviation-regulations-sor-96-433/standards/
following definitions apply. standard-421-flight-crew-permits-licences-ratings-
(a) Dual instruction flight time is the flight time during which canadian-aviation-regulations-cars#421_11> .
LRA
a person is receiving flight instruction from a person (g) Co-pilot flight time is flight time as a co-pilot in an aircraft
qualified in accordance with the CARs. certified as requiring a co-pilot, as specified in the flight
(i) Pilot flying time is flight time during which a licensed manual or by the air operator certificate (AOC), or flight
pilot, for proficiency purposes, shows the required time in an aircraft that must be operated with a minimum
pilot-in-command (PIC) skills while carrying out of two crew (as certified by TCCA).
duties as if they were the PIC of the aircraft. NOTE:
(ii) Pilot monitoring/pilot-not-flying time is flight time Every holder of or applicant for a flight crew permit, licence or
during which a licensed pilot, for proficiency rating shall maintain a personal log in accordance with
purposes, shows the required co-pilot or second-in- CAR 401.08, see <http://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/regulations/
command skills while carrying out duties as if they SOR-96-433/FullText.html#s-401.08>.
were the co-pilot of the aircraft.
(b) Solo flight time is the flight time necessary to acquire a
flight permit, licence or rating.
(i) For a pilot, the flight time during which the pilot is
the sole flight crew member.
(ii) For a student pilot permit holder, the flight time
during which the permit holder is the sole occupant
of an aircraft while under the direction and
supervision of a qualified flight instructor for the
appropriate category of aircraft.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
NOTES:
1. SPP holders must hold a valid and appropriate medical
certificate to exercise the privileges of their permit.
2. Medical certificates associated with a permit have a validity
period per CAR 404.04. In order to continue exercising
permit privileges, a holder must renew the relevant medical
certificate(s) before the end of the validity period.
3. When the Category 4 Medical Declaration is used for the
Student Pilot Permit—Aeroplane, the declaration must be
signed by a physician licensed to practice in Canada.
KNOWLEDGE
MEDICAL
SPP CATEGORY AGE AND EXPERIENCE SKILL
CATEGORY
EXAMINATION
LRA
Gyroplane 14 1 or 3 PSTAR* 90% Per skill Certified for solo
Ultralight
14 1, 3 or 4 CAR 421.19(2)(d)(i) Per skill Certified for solo
Aeroplane
*PSTAR is the computer code for the Student Pilot Permit or Private Pilot Licence for Foreign and Military Applicants, Aviation Regulations written examination.
363
TC AIM March 23, 2023
NOTES:
1. Permit holders must hold a valid and appropriate medical
certificate to exercise the privileges of their permit.
2. Medical certificates associated with a permit have a validity
period per CAR 404.04. In order to continue exercising
permit privileges, a holder must renew the relevant medical
certificate(s) before the end of the validity period.
3. When the Category 4 Medical Declaration is used for the
Recreational Pilot Permit—Aeroplane, the declaration must
be signed by a physician licensed to practice in Canada.
KNOWLEDGE EXPERIENCE
PERMIT MEDICAL (Minimum
AGE AND SKILL
CATEGORY CATEGORY instruction flight
EXAMINATION time)
Total - 45 hr Flight
40 hr ground demonstration
Gyroplane including:
17 1 or 3 school and and
(GYP) Dual - 12 hr
GYROP* 60% letter from
Solo - 12 hr instructor
Flight
Total - 10 hr
Ultralight 20 hr ground demonstration
Aeroplane 16 1, 3 or 4 school and including:
and
(ULP-A) ULTRA* 60% Dual - 5 hr
letter from
LRA
Solo - 2 hr
instructor
Total - 25 hr
Recreational- RPPAE* or
Aeroplane 16 1, 3 or 4 including: Flight test
(RPP-A) PPAER* 60% Dual - 15 hr
Solo - 5 hr
*GYROP is the computer code for the Pilot Permit—Gyroplane written examination.
ULTRA is the computer code for the Pilot Permit—Ultralight Aeroplane written examination.
RPPAE is the computer code for the Pilot Permit—Recreational Aeroplane written examination.
PPAER is the computer code for the Private Pilot Licence—Aeroplane written examination.
364
TC AIM March 23, 2023
NOTES:
1. Licence holders must hold a valid and appropriate medical
certificate to exercise the privileges of their licence.
2. Medical certificates associated with a licence have a validity
period per CAR 404.04. In order to continue exercising
licence privileges, a holder must renew the relevant medical
certificate(s) before the end of the validity period.
KNOWLEDGE EXPERIENCE
LICENCE MEDICAL
AGE AND (Minimum instruction SKILL
CATEGORY CATEGORY
EXAMINATION flight time)
Flight
Total - 6 hr
15 hr demonstration
Glider including:
16 1, 3 or 4 ground school and and
(GPL) Dual - 1 hr
GLIDE* 60% letter from
Solo - 2 hr
instructor
LRA
Total - 16 hr including: Flight
10 hr Untethered - 11 hr demonstration
Balloon
17 1 or 3 ground school and including a minimum of: and
(BPL)
PIBAL* 60% Dual - 3 hr letter from
Solo - 1 hr instructor
KNOWLEDGE EXPERIENCE
LICENCE MEDICAL
AGE AND (Minimum instruction SKILL
CATEGORY CATEGORY
EXAMINATION flight time)
40 hr Total - 45 hr including:
Aeroplane
17 1 or 3 ground school and Dual - 17 hr Flight test
(PPL-A)
PPAER* 60% Solo - 12 hr
40 hr Total - 45 hr including
Helicopter 17 1 or 3 ground school and Dual - 17 hr Flight test
(PPL-H) PPHEL* 60% Solo - 12 hr
*PPAER is the computer code for the Private Pilot Licence—Aeroplane written examination.
PPHEL is the computer code for the Private Pilot Licence—Helicopter written examination.
365
TC AIM March 23, 2023
EXPERIENCE
LICENCE MEDICAL KNOWLEDGE AND
AGE (Minimum instruction SKILL
CATEGORY CATEGORY EXAMINATION
flight time)
Aeroplane (CPL-A)
A course completion A course completion
For graduates 18 1 certificate in lieu of these certificate in lieu of these Flight test
from an approved requirements requirements
integrated course.
EXPERIENCE
LICENCE MEDICAL KNOWLEDGE
AGE (Minimum instruction SKILL
CATEGORY CATEGORY AND EXAMINATION
flight time)
*SAMRA is the computer code for the Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Aeroplane)—Meteorology, Radio Aids to Navigation and Flight Planning written examination.
SARON is the computer code for the Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Aeroplane)—Air Law, Aeroplane Operation and Navigation General written examination.
INRAT is the computer code for the Instrument Rating.
HAMRA is the computer code for the Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Helicopter)—Meteorology, Radio Aids to Navigation and Flight Planning written examination.
HARON is the computer code for the Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Helicopter)— Air Law, Helicopter Operation and
Navigation General written examination.
366
TC AIM March 23, 2023
Flight demonstration
Flight Engineer
18 1 FLENG* 60% Total - 100 hr and
(FE)
letter from instructor
*FLENG is the computer code for the Flight Engineer Licence written examination.
1.8 DIFFERENCES BETWEEN THE Medical fitness for a Category 4 Medical Certificate is
NATIONAL REGULATIONS AND established by completing Form 26-0297, Medical Declaration
THE INTERNATIONAL CIVIL for Licences and Permits Requiring a Category 4 Medical
AVIATION ORGANIZATION’S (ICAO) Standard, available at <https://www.tc.gc.ca/wwwdocs/
ANNEX 1 STANDARDS AND Forms/26-0297_0712-06_BO.pdf>. It is recommended that
RECOMMENDED PRACTICES pilots applying for a Category 4 Medical Certificate do so by
e-mail to their appropriate regional service centre. E-mail
Licences conform to the standards set forth in the International
addresses can be found at <https://tc.canada.ca/en/aviation/
Civil Aviation Organization’s (ICAO) Annex 1. All Canadian
civil-aviation-contacts-offices#headquarters_and_regional>.
d i f ferences to ICAO Sta nda rds a re publ ished i n
Medical declarations should be sent to the regional service
AIP Canada GEN 1.7 (see <https://www.navcanada.ca/en/
centre and not Civil Aviation Medicine to avoid unnecessary
aeronautical-information/aip-canada.aspx>).
delays.
LRA
1.9 MEDICAL FITNESS FOR PERMITS The age of the applicant and the type of permit or licence applied
AND LICENCES for determine the frequency of the medical examinations needed
to meet the medical fitness requirements.
The medical standards for civil aviation flight crew licences have
been established in accordance with the International Civil The validity period of a medical certificate is calculated from
Aviation Organization’s (ICAO’s) standards and recommended the first day of the month following the date of the medical
pract ices a nd a re out lined in Canadian Aviation examination or declaration.
Regulations (CARs) Standard 424. A medical assessment is
required to allow permit or licence holders to exercise their
privileges.
NOTE:
A Category 4 Medical Certificate is issued for certain permits
and licences for use in Canadian airspace only.
*For the holder of a commercial pilot licence or an airline transport pilot licence, the validity period of a medical certificate is reduced to 6 months if the holder is: 40 years of age
or older and engaged in a single-pilot operation with passengers on board; or 60 years of age or older.
NOTE: the full validity period by placing a date and signature stamp
The holder of a commercial or airline transport pilot licence on the applicable page of the ADB.
may exercise the privileges of a private pilot licence until the end
If the medical examination is conducted by an Aviation Medical
of the validity period for private pilot licences as specified in the
Examiner designated by the licensing authority of an ICAO
table above.
contracting state, the completed medical examination report
Example: shall be forwarded to the following TCCA Medicine Branch
address for review and assessment:
A 39-year-old and a 40-year-old, who each hold a private pilot
Civil Aviation Medicine Branch
licence, both renewed their medical certificate on July 29, 2020.
Transport Canada
The 39-year-old’s medical certificate would be valid for 60 months
330 Sparks Street
and would need to be renewed before August 1, 2025. The 40-year-
Place de Ville, Tower C, Room 617
old’s medical certificate would be valid for 24 months and would
Ottawa ON K1A 0N8
need to be renewed before August 1, 2022.
If the holder is assessed medically fit for the permit or licence
1.9.2 Medical Fitness—Renewals of Category 1, by the TCCA Medicine Branch, a new medical certificate will
2 or 3 Medical Certificates (Assessed Fit) be issued. See LRA 2.3 for more information.
Category 1, 2 or 3 Medical Certificate renewals may be conducted
by a Canadian CAME or an Aviation Medical Examiner 1.9.3 Medical Fitness—Renewal of a Category 4
designated by the licensing authority of an ICAO contracting state. Medical Certificate
If the holder is assessed medically fit for that permit or licence A pilot wishing to maintain a Category 4 Medical Certificate
by a CAME, the examiner will renew the medical certificate for shall complete Form 26-0297, Medical Declaration for Licences
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
and Permits Requiring a Category 4 Medical Standard, at least Where the Minister decides to refuse to issue or amend a permit,
60 days before the expiry date of their medical certificate. licence, rating or medical certificate in accordance with the
This will allow TC licensing personnel enough time to issue a Aeronautics Act, the Minister will forward a Notice of Refusal
new Category 4 Medical Certificate before the original to Issue or Amend a Canadian Aviation Document Letter to the
medical certificate expires. It is recommended that pilots applicant. The letter states the grounds and specific reasons for
applying for a Category 4 Medical Certificate do so by e-mail the decision.
to their appropriate regional service centre. E-mail addresses
can be found at <https://tc.canada.ca/en/aviation/civil- 1.11 REINSTATEMENT OF A SUSPENDED
aviation-contacts-offices#headquarters_and_regional>. PERMIT, LICENCE OR RATING
Medical declarations should be sent to the regional service
centre and not Civil Aviation Medicine to avoid unnecessary To reinstate a flight crew permit, licence or rating that has been
delays. suspended under subsection 7.1(1) of the Aeronautics Act, the
applicant shall provide proof that they have satisfied the conditions
for reinstatement.
1.9.4 Medical Fitness—Assessed Unfit
The underlying goal of medical assessments is to allow permit 1.12 RECENCY REQUIREMENTS
or licence holders to exercise their privileges. Some medical
certificate applicants may be assessed as unfit and will not be In addition to a valid medical certificate, flight crew must meet the
issued a medical certificate. Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs) requirements for recency
in order to exercise the privileges of their permit, licence or rating
In an unfit assessment where the applicant is on the borderline in accordance with CAR 401.05 and CAR 421.05.
of a medical standard, the applicant’s medical information will
be reviewed by the Aviation Medical Review Board. The recency requirements address three time periods: five years,
two years, and six months. If a pilot wishes to act as
In this situation, flexibility may be applied to the medical standard pilot-in-command (PIC) or co-pilot of an aircraft, they must
to allow the applicant to exercise the privileges of their permit meet both the five-year and the two-year recency requirements.
or licence provided that aviation safety is not compromised. See If they wish to carry passengers, they must also meet the six-
LRA 2.4 and LRA 2.5 for more information. month requirement.
For five-year recency, the pilot must have either:
LRA
1.10 REFUSAL TO ISSUE A PERMIT,
LICENCE, RATING OR MEDICAL (a) flown as pilot-in-command (PIC) or co-pilot within the
CERTIFICATE previous five years; or
The Minister’s power to refuse to issue or amend a permit, licence, (b) completed a flight review with an instructor and written
rating or medical certificate is set out in the Aeronautics Act. and passed the Student Pilot Permit or Private Pilot Licence
for Foreign and Military Applicants, Aviation Regulation
Grounds for refusing to issue are as follows: Examination, commonly known as PSTAR, within the
(a) the applicant is incompetent per section 6.71 of the Act; previous 12 months.
(b) the applicant fails to meet the qualifications or fulfill the For the 24-month recurrent training program, the pilot must
conditions necessary for the issuance or amendment of the have successfully completed a recurrent training program within
document per section 6.71 of the Act; the previous 24 months, and therefore meet one of the following
seven conditions:
(c) public interest reasons per section 6.71 of the Act; and
(a) complete a flight review with an instructor;
(d) the applicant fails to pay monetary penalties per section 7.21
of the Act. (b) attend a safety seminar conducted by Transport Canada
Civil Aviation (TCCA);
Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA) takes care to determine
whether an application is merely incomplete or whether the (c) participate in a TCCA-approved recurrent training program;
applicant does not meet the requirements set out in the Canadian (d) complete a self-paced study program;
Aviation Regulations (CARs).
(e) complete a training program or pilot proficiency check (PPC)
(a) If an applicant has not submitted all of the required material, as required by CARs Part IV, VI or VII;
licensing personnel shall advise the applicant that the
application cannot be processed until the specified additional (f) complete the requirements for the issue or renewal of a
documentation or information is provided. licence, permit or rating; or
(b) When all options are exhausted and the information (g) complete the written exam for a licence, permit or rating.
provided by the applicant demonstrates that the applicant Flight crew must also meet specific recency requirements for
is not qualified for the requested document, licensing other aircraft categories, instrument ratings and passenger
personnel shall advise the applicant of the decision not to carrying operations. Refer to CAR 401.05 and CAR 421.05 for
issue the document. more information.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
1.13 FLIGHT CREW LICENSING TCCA applicants are required to fill out FAA Form AC 8060-71,
CONVERSION AGREEMENT BETWEEN Verification of Authenticity of Foreign License and
CANADA AND THE UNITED STATES Medical Certification, and comply with other eligibility
requirements listed in FAA Advisory Circular (AC) 61-135A:
In June 2000, the United States and Canada signed a bilateral
see <www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/advisory_circulars/index.
aviation safety agreement to coordinate various aspects of their
cfm/go/document.information/documentID/1027574>.
respective aviation safety oversight systems for the benefit of
users in both countries. In the agreement, the two countries
developed technical annexes called implementation procedures 1.14 FLIGHT CREW LICENSING
that address specific aviation safety activity areas. ADMINISTRATION
The technical annex addressing pilot licensing is called
1.14.1 Flight Crew Licensing Change of Address
Implementation Procedures for Licensing. It authorizes pilots
Request
holding certain licences or certificates from one country to
obtain a licence or certificate from the other country when TCCA shall be advised of any change of mailing address
certain requirements are met. within seven days following the change in accordance with
CAR 400.07. A completed Form 26-0760, Flight Crew
In order to facilitate the certificate or licence conversion, the
Licensing Change of Address Request, should be submitted to
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and Transport Canada
the closest TCCA regional licensing office. A PDF copy of this
Civil Aviation (TCCA) agreed to provide each other with a
form is available at
verification of pilot licence or certificate authenticity and the
<http://wwwapps.tc.gc.ca/Corp-Serv-Gen/5/forms-
associated medical certificate(s) prior to starting the conversion.
formulaires/download/26-0760_BO_PD>.
TCCA considers that a FAA Airman Certificate holder, who has
complied with the respective TCCA licence conditions for
conversion set forth in the Implementation Procedures for 1.14.2 Application for Re-Issue of Civil Aviation
Licensing, shall be eligible for a TCCA licence. Licensing Document
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
their permit or licence. This medical examination will normally Form 26-0297, Medical Declaration for Licences and Permits
be carried out by a designated CAME. The frequency of the Requiring a Category 4 Medical Standard, is composed of three
medical examinations depends on the age of the applicant and parts.
the type of permit or licence applied for. For some examinations,
Part A—All applicants must complete this part of the form.
supplementary tests, such as an audiogram or an electrocardiogram,
Part A requires the applicant to fill in their name, current address
may be required. The schedule for periodic examinations can
and other personal information.
be found in CAR 404.04(6) at <https://lois-laws.justice.gc.ca/
eng/regulations/SOR-96-433/FullText.html#s-404.04>. Part B—All ultralight and glider pilot applicants are required
to complete, sign and date Part B of the medical declaration and
There are approximately 700 physicians who are designated by
have it signed by a witness. Applicants for a Student Pilot Permit—
TC as CAMEs. They are strategically located across the country
Aeroplane and a Pilot Permit—Recreational are also required
and overseas.
to complete, sign, and date Part B of the medical declaration,
If the examination is performed in a contracting ICAO state, it but a witness signature is not required.
must be completed by a medical examiner designated by Canada
or by that state. The resulting medical examination must meet NOTE:
the Canadian physical and mental requirements. See If the applicant has ever suffered from any of the conditions
CAR Standard 424 at <https://tc.canada.ca/en/corporate-services/ listed in Part B, they must undergo a medical examination with
acts-regulations/list-regulations/canadian-aviation-regulations- a CAME. Failure to disclose a medical issue is a federal offence
sor-96-433/standards/ under the Aeronautics Act.
standard-424-medical-requirements-canadian-aviation-
Part C (applies only to Student Pilot Permit—Aeroplane or Pilot
regulations-cars>.
Permit—Recreational)—In addition to completing Part B, Student
Only designated Canadian CAMEs may validate a renewal Pilot Permit—Aeroplane and Pilot Permit—Recreational holders
examination with the official CAME stamp and by signing the need to have Part C of the medical declaration completed by a
medical certification section in the ADB. physician licensed in Canada or by a CAME. A witness signature
Local flying organizations usually have a list of examiners in is not required.
their immediate area. Examiner lists are also available from the All Pilot Permit—Recreational applicants need to undergo a
regional office of Civil Aviation Medicine or on the TCCA Web resting 12-lead electrocardiogram after the age of 40, as well as
LRA
site: <http://wwwapps.tc.gc.ca/saf-sec-sur/2/came-meac/l. on the first medical examination after the age of 50, and then
aspx?lang=eng>. every four years thereafter. The electrocardiogram tracing does
not need to be submitted with the medical declaration form, but
2.1.2 Category 4 Medical Declaration must be acknowledged as having been completed and read by
the signing physician.
When applying for the issuance or revalidation of any of the
Canadian aviation documents listed below, the applicant may When a Category 4 Medical Declaration is completed in full,
apply to obtain a Category 4 Medical Certificate by completing the candidate must submit the above-mentioned form to a TC
Form 26-0297, Medical Declaration for Licences and Permits regional licensing office, where a medical certificate will be issued.
Requiring a Category 4 Medical Standard, at <https://wwwapps. An applicant who has completed the Category 4 Medical
tc.gc.ca/Corp-Serv-Gen/5/forms-formulaires/ Declaration may not act as a flight crew member unless they
download/26-0297_BO_PD> can produce the appropriate, valid medical certificate. Please
(a) Student Pilot Permit—Aeroplane; refer to CAR 401.03 for more details.
(b) Pilot Permit—Recreational; A pilot renewing a Category 4 Medical Declaration should
complete the declaration form 60 days before the expiry date of
(c) Pilot Permit—Ultralight Aeroplane;
the medical certificate. This will allow TC licensing personnel
(d) Student Pilot Permit—Glider; and enough time to issue a new Category 4 Medical Certificate or
(e) Pilot Licence—Glider. label for the ADB before the original medical certificate expires.
This medical declaration may be used to determine the applicant’s An applicant holding a Category 4 Medical Certificate may
medical fitness to exercise the privileges of their permit or licence. exercise the privileges of the appropriate permit or licence while
The medical declaration may be completed unless the applicant flying in Canadian airspace only.
has ever suffered from any of the conditions listed in Part B of
the declaration form, in which case they must undergo a medical NOTE:
examination with a CAME. If an applicant wishes to obtain a private pilot licence or higher
or intends to pursue a career in aviation, it is advisable to forego
a Category 4 application and apply directly for a Category 3 or 1
Medical Certificate in order to save time and money.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Student Pilot 3 Under 40 Within five years of (If clinically Under 40 N.A.
issue or revalidation indicated)
Private Pilot
Over 40 Within two years of Over 40 At first examination
Gyroplane Pilot issue or revalidation and every four years
thereafter
Balloon Pilot
Ultralight Instructor 4 All Within five years of (If clinically Under 40 N.A.
issue or revalidation indicated)
Glider Instructor
Over 40 At first examination
and every five years
thereafter
Glider Pilot 4 All Medical Declaration (If clinically N.A.
(Full medical indicated)
Ultralight Pilot examination report
only if clinically
indicated)
Recreational Pilot 4 All Medical Declaration (If clinically Under 40 N.A.
or Form 26-0297 indicated)
Student Pilot counter-signed by a 40-50 At first examination
physician
Over 50 At first examination
and every four years
thereafter
372
TC AIM March 23, 2023
These requirements can be found in the table entitled “Physical information relevant to the assessment. As a general rule, the
and Mental Requirement” in CAR Standard 424 at applicant or permit/licence holder may see these documents in
<https://tc.canada.ca/en/corporate-services/acts-regulations/ the presence of the RAMO and ask questions concerning the
list-regulations/canadian-aviation-regulations-sor-96-433/ content of the documents relative to the medical standards. In
standards/standard-424-medical-requirements-canadian- the case of sensitive or complicated medical information, the
aviation-regulations-cars>. RAMO may elect to refer questions of a more clinical nature to
the applicant or permit/licence holder’s personal physician, who
2.3 PERIODIC MEDICAL EXAM can better explain the implications. In such cases, the applicant
CATEGORIES 1, 2 AND 3—MEDICALLY or permit/licence holder will be asked to sign a Consent to
FIT Release Form to designate a physician who will receive these
reports.
When the examination has been completed, the examiner will
make a recommendation of fitness and will forward the medical In addition, the applicant or licence/permit holder may invoke
examination report to the regional aviation medical t he prov isions out lined in t he Canadian Aviation
officer (RAMO) at the appropriate regional office for review. If Regulations (CARs) regarding reconsideration of assessment.
the person is already the holder of a Canadian pilot permit or CAR 404.12 states that:
licence or air traffic controller licence and is, in the opinion of
the examiner, medically fit, the examiner will extend the medical “(1) An applicant for the renewal of a medical certificate who
validity of the holder’s permit or licence for the full validity is assessed by the Minister as not meeting the requirements
period by signing and stamping the aviation document referred to in subsection 404.11(1) may, within 30 days
booklet (ADB) in the medical certification section. after the date that the applicant receives the notification
referred to in subsection 404.11(2),
The ADB is valid for five years.
(a) request the Minister to reconsider the assessment; and
2.4 AVIATION MEDICAL REVIEW BOARD (b) submit additional information to the Minister regarding
the medical fitness of the applicant in support of the
A small percentage of applicants will have medical issues that request.
place them outside the medical standard. In those cases, their
medical information may be reviewed by the Aviation Medical (2) Where the Minister is requested to reconsider an assessment
LRA
Review Board. The Review Board—a group of specialists in pursuant to subsection (1), the Minister shall
neurology, cardiology, psychiatry, ophthalmology, internal (a) take into consideration any additional information
medicine, otolaryngology and aviation medicine—meets regularly regarding the medical fitness of the applicant; and
in Ottawa to review complex cases and make recommendations
(b) immediately notify the applicant in writing of the result
to the regional aviation medical officer (RAMO).
of the reconsideration of the assessment.”
2.5 UNFIT ASSESSMENT
2.6 REVIEW BY THE TRANSPORTATION
Less than one percent of all applicants are assessed as unfit, a APPEAL TRIBUNAL OF CANADA (TATC)
decision that is not made lightly. The underlying goal of the
After the steps outlined above, if the applicant or permit/licence
medical assessment is to allow permit/licence holders to maintain
holder wishes for the Transportation Appeal Tribunal of
their privileges within the bounds of aviation safety. Flexibility
Canada (TATC) to review the medical certification decision,
may be applied to the medical standard if there is a counterbalancing
they must file a request by the date specified in the notice of
safety restriction and/or a change in periodicity of medical
suspension, cancellation or non-renewal. The TATC will
surveillance that could be applied to a holder’s permit or licence,
acknowledge their request for review and subsequently set a
which would compensate for the deviation from the standard.
hearing date. Any questions on hearing procedures should be
For example, a pilot with certain medical conditions may be
directed to the TATC, which is independent from
restricted to flying with or as an accompanying pilot.
Transport Canada (TC)
If an applicant is assessed as unfit, they will be informed by the
If the applicant or permit/licence holder has new or additional
regional aviation medical officer (RAMO) in writing, and by
medical information, it is strongly suggested that they share it
the Regional Technical Team Lead, Flight Operations at
with the regional aviation medical officer (RAMO) before the
Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA). If it is an initial
hearing; this information may be sufficient for the RAMO to
application, a medical certificate will not be issued. If the applicant
recommend reinstatement of the medical certificate and spare
holds a medical certificate, it will either be suspended or cancelled.
the applicant or permit/licence holder the inconvenience of a
If a medical certificate was previously held, a letter refusing to
hearing before the TATC. Whether the applicant or permit/
renew the document will be issued to the applicant.
licence holder elects to disclose this evidence or not, the right
If a medical certificate is refused, suspended, cancelled or not to a hearing before the TATC is not affected, but the Tribunal
renewed, the applicant or permit/licence holder may wish to will decline to make a determination of the case if the new
discuss and review their medical assessment with the RAMO. evidence has not been reviewed by Civil Aviation Medicine.
Via teleconference and/or at a meeting, the RAMO will review,
with the applicant or permit/licence holder, the medical
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
If the applicant or permit/licence holder does decide to proceed 3.0 FLIGHT CREW EXAMINATIONS
with a review by the TATC, the following are the procedural steps.
The review will normally be heard by a single medical professional, 3.1 EXAMINATION OFFICES
a member of the TATC. The TATC member considers the medical
evidence against the regulatory medical standards promulgated Flight crew written examinations for recreational-level pilot
by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), the licences can be written at certain flight training units. Most
Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs) and appropriate Civil Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA) regional offices and
Aviation Medicine guidelines. The member can either uphold centres offer a written examination service. Visit the following
the Minister’s decision or request that the Minister reconsider Tranport Canada (TC) Web page <https://www.tc.gc.ca/en/
their decision. The TATC does not have the power to require services/aviation/licensing-pilots-personnel/flight-crew-licenses-
the Minister to issue a valid medical certificate to the applicant permits-ratings/flight-crew-examinations/
or permit/licence holder. transport-canada-centres-authorized-examination-invigilators.
html> for contact information.
If the TATC member does not decide in the applicant or permit/
licence holder’s favour, this decision may be appealed to a three- There are no TC examination facilities outside of Canada.
member board of the TATC. This board can only review the
evidence that was presented at the review hearing. No new 3.2 CHEATING ON AN EXAM
evidence can be considered at the appeal level. If the three- CAR 400.02 states that:
member board of the TATC decides in the applicant or permit/
licence holder’s favour, the determination will be that the Minister “(1) Except as authorized by an invigilator, no person shall, or
reconsider their decision. If the three-member board does not shall attempt to, in respect of a written examination,
decide in the applicant or permit/licence holder’s favour, there (a) copy or remove from any place all or any portion of
is no further avenue of appeal to the TATC. the text of the examination;
If either the single-member TATC or the three-member TATC (b) give to or accept from any person a copy of all or any
decides that the Minister reconsider their decision, TC does not portion of the text of the examination;
have the right of appeal. The merits of the case, based only on
the evidence available at the time of the original review, will be (c) give help to or accept help from any person during the
examination;
LRA
374
TC AIM March 23, 2023
(c) Requests for hand-held electronic computer approval—along serial number. A photograph of the identification plate, clearly
with a functioning sample computer, all available software, reproducing the information it contains, is required when
and, if applicable, instructions on how to completely clear applying for a certificate of registration (C of R).
all memory without affecting any programming—should
be forwarded by the manufacturer to: 4.3 NATIONALITY AND REGISTRATION
Transport Canada MARKS
Commercial Flight Standards (AARTF) No person shall operate a registered aircraft in Canada unless
330 Sparks Street its nationality and registration marks are clean, visible and
Ottawa ON K1A 0N8 displayed in accordance with the Canadian Aviation
The memory bank clearing instructions and the process Regulations (CARs) or with the laws of the state of registry.
shall be simple enough to be completed with minimum Canadian nationality and registration marks for new or imported
distraction to invigilators. aircraf t are issued, on request, by the appropriate
Transport Canada (TC) regional office. Should an applicant
NOTES:
request a specific mark that is not the next available mark, it is
1. No computer capable of being used to type and store a deemed to be a special mark and may be obtained, if available,
significant quantity of language text will be approved. upon payment of a fee. Marks may be reserved for a one-year
2. No device capable of accessing other applications or networks period without being assigned to a specific aircraft, also upon
will be approved. payment of a fee.
(a) The Jeppesen/Sanderson PROSTAR and AVSTAR, the Aircraft registration marks are composed of a nationality mark
Jeppesen TECHSTAR and TECHSTAR PRO, the and a registration mark. The Canadian nationality marks are
ASA CX-la Pathfinder, the ASA CX-2 Pathfinder, the the capital letters “C” or “CF”. “CF” may only be issued for vintage
ASA CX-3, the Cessna Sky/Comp, the NAV-GEM, and (heritage) aircraft manufactured prior to January 1, 1957. If the
the Sporty’s E6B electronic flight computers have been nationality mark is “CF”, the registration mark is a combination
approved for use with all flight crew personnel licensing of three capital letters. If the nationality mark consists only of
written examinations requiring numerical computations. the capital letter “C”, the registration mark is a combination of
four capital letters beginning with “F” or “G” for regular aircraft
(b) An applicant may not use an instructional handbook or a
LRA
(including amateur-built aircraft). The nationality mark shall
user’s manual when writing a TC examination. precede the registration mark and be separated from it by a
(c) Upon completion of a written examination, all printout hyphen.
material shall be given to the invigilator.
In the case of basic and advanced ultralight aeroplanes, the
registration mark is a combination of four capital letters beginning
4.0 AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION, with “I”.
MARKING, REGISTRATION Aircraft manufactured before January 1, 1957, are considered
to be vintage aircraft and are eligible to display either the “C”
AND INSURANCE or “CF” nationality mark. Aircraft manufactured after
December 31, 1956, will be issued only “C” nationality marks.
4.1 GENERAL Aircraft manufactured after December 31, 1956, that now display
No civil aircraft, other than hang gliders or model aircraft, shall the “CF” nationality mark may continue to do so until such time
be flown in Canada unless they are registered in accordance as the aircraft is next painted, after which the aircraft shall
with Part II of the Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs), the display the “C” nationality mark (e.g. CF-XXX becomes C-FXXX).
laws of an International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) The TC regional office shall be notified, in writing, of any changes
member state, or a state that has a bilateral agreement with to the mark.
Canada concerning interstate flying The specifications for Canadian nationality and registration
To be eligible for registration in Canada, an aircraft must be of marks are contained in CAR 202.01 and are in accordance with
a type that has been approved in Canada for issuance of a CAR Standard 222. For details on the placement and size of
certificate of airworthiness (C of A), special C of A or a flight aircraft marks, see CAR 222.01.
permit (except ultralight aeroplanes), and the owner must be CAR 202.04(1) provides for marks to be changed after an aircraft
qualified to be the registered owner of a Canadian aircraft in has been registered. The aircraft may be removed from the register
accordance with the Part II of the CARs. if it is destroyed, permanently withdrawn from service or
exported. It is the responsibility of the owner to notify TC
4.2 AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION immediately if any of these events occur. The owner shall also
notify TC, in writing, within seven days of a change to the owner’s
Under CAR 201.01, Canadian-registered aircraft are required name or permanent address.
to have an aircraft identification plate attached to the aircraft.
The fireproof plate bears information relating to the aircraft
manufacturer, model designation, type certificate number and
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
4.4 CHANGE OF OWNERSHIP—CANADIAN- (d) return the certificate of registration (C of R) of the aircraft
REGISTERED AIRCRAFT to the Minister.
When the ownership of a Canadian-registered aircraft changes, Transport Canada (TC) will remove the aircraft from the
the registration is cancelled and the registered owner must notify Canadian Civil Aircraft Register and forward a Canadian
Transport Canada (TC) in writing no more than seven days registration cancellation notification to the national aviation
after the change. A pre-addressed postcard-type notice is provided authority of the country that is importing the aircraft upon
with the certificate of registration (C of R) for this purpose. The receipt of a request from the registered owner and only after the
C of R contains the forms and instructions necessary to apply foregoing conditions have been met.
for registration in the new owner’s name.
4.8 LIABILITY INSURANCE
4.5 INITIAL REGISTRATION Canadian and foreign aircraft operated in Canada or Canadian
To obtain an application for registration, the new owner should aircraft operated in a foreign country are required to have public
contact the applicable Transport Canada (TC) regional office. liability insurance. In the case of most air operators (those
The applicant can also access the forms (Form 26-0522 or operating under CAR 703, CAR 704 and CAR 705), the specific
Form 26-0521) online at <www.tc.gc.ca/eng/civilaviation/ requirement can be found in section 7 of the Air Transportation
standards/maintenance-regsdocs-form-2943.htm>. No person Regulations; for other air operators, the requirement is outlined
shall operate an aircraft in Canada unless it is registered. in CAR 606.02. Public liability insurance protects the owner
and operator of the aircraft if the aircraft causes damage to
4.6 IMPORTATION OF AIRCRAFT persons or property.
The International Civil Aviation Organization’s (ICAO) Similarly, passenger liability insurance is required in certain
Convention on International Civil Aviation (Doc 7300) and the circumstances, as indicated in section 7 of the Air Transportation
Canadian Avaition Regulations (CARs) state that an aircraft Regulations. Passenger liability insurance is required by operators
cannot be registered in more than one state at the same time. operating under the authority of an air operator certificate (AOC),
Therefore, persons proposing to import an aircraft into Canada a flight training unit operator certificate, or a special flight
and to have it registered should ascertain whether the aircraft operations certificate (SFOC) for balloons with fare-paying
is eligible for import and registration prior to making any passengers. Certain privately operated aircraft require both
LRA
commitments. Inquiries relating to importation and registration public and passenger liability insurance (see CAR 606.02(4) and
can be addressed to the nearest Transport Canada Civil CAR 606.02(8)). Passenger liability insurance protects the owner
Aviation (TCCA) regional office, TC Centre or Minister’s and operator of the aircraft if a passenger on board the aircraft
Delegate—Maintenance. suffers from injury or death.
Passenger liability insurance is not mandatory for aerial work
4.7 EXPORTATION OF AIRCRAFT operators certified under CAR 702 as they do not carry passengers.
When a Canadian-registered aircraft is sold or leased to a person Details on the specific amounts of public liability insurance
who is not qualified to be the owner of a Canadian aircraft and required and how to calculate passenger liability insurance can
the aircraft is not in Canada at the time of the sale or lease, or be found in CAR 606.02.
it is understood by the vendor or lessor that the aircraft is to be
exported, the vendor shall ensure that the requirements of
CAR 202.38 are satisfied. The vendor or lessor shall:
5.0 AIRCRAFT AIRWORTHINESS
(a) remove the Canadian marks from the aircraft and, if applicable,
the aircraft address from the Mode S transponder and from 5.1 GENERAL
the other avionics equipment of the aircraft; This subpart provides an explanation of the means by which
(b) notify the Minister in writing, within seven days after the Transport Canada (TC) exercises regulatory oversight to ensure
sale or lease, of the date of: the continuing airworthiness of Canadian-registered aircraft.
It focuses on the general intent of the regulatory process rather
(i) the sale or lease; than dealing with the applicable airworthiness requirements
(ii) the exportation, if applicable; and procedures in detail. Readers should consult the applicable
Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs) that are mentioned in
(iii) the removal of the Canadian marks; and
this section if a more detailed understanding of the current
(iv) the removal of the aircraft address from the Mode S airworthiness requirements and procedures is required.
transponder and from the other avionics equipment
It is the responsibility of the owner or pilot to ensure that
of the aircraft, if applicable;
Canadian-registered aircraft are fit and safe for flight prior to
(c) provide the Minister with a copy of all of the agreements being flown. The primary regulatory control for meeting this
that relate to the transfer of any part of the legal custody objective is achieved by making it unlawful for any person to
and control of the aircraft resulting from the sale or lease; fly or attempt to fly an aircraft, other than a hang glider or an
and ultralight aeroplane, unless flight authority in the form of a valid
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certificate of airworthiness (C of A), special C of A, or flight 5.3 FLIGHT AUTHORITY AND NOISE
permit—whichever is applicable—has been issued for that aircraft COMPLIANCE
(see CAR 507.02, CAR 507.03, and CAR 507.04).
5.3.1 General
5.2 AIRCRAFT DESIGN REQUIREMENTS
CAR 605.03 prescribes that:
ICAO’s Convention on International Civil Aviation (Doc 7300), (a) a flight authority is in effect in respect of the aircraft;
signed in Chicago in 1944, mandates that every aircraft of a (b) the aircraft is operated in accordance with the conditions
contracting state engaged in international aerial navigation be set out in the flight authority; and
provided with a C of A issued or rendered valid by the state in
(c) subject to subsections (2) and (3), the flight authority
which it is registered. This agreement has the following effects:
is carried on board the aircraft.
(a) to pro mote the idea of mutually acceptable aircraft design
(2) Where a specific-purpose flight permit has been issued
standards between contracting states;
pursuant to Section 507.04, an aircraft may be operated
(b) to provide all contracting states with the assurance that the without the flight authority carried on board where:
aircraft of any other contracting state flying over their
(a) the flight is conducted in Canadian airspace; and
territories is certificated to a common minimum acceptable
level of airworthiness; and (b) an entry is made into the journey log indicating:
(i) that the aircraft is operating under a specific-
(c) to achieve minimum acceptable standards in matters related
purpose flight permit, and
to the aircraft’s continuing airworthiness.
(ii) where applicable, any operational conditions that
The ultimate objective of this agreement is to protect other pertain to flight operations under the specific-
aircraft, third parties, and people on the ground from any hazards purpose flight permit.
associated with overflying aircraft.
(3) A balloon may be operated without the flight authority carried
on board where the flight authority is immediately available
5.2.2 Canadian Type Certificate to the pilot-in-command:
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CAR 521 establishes the rules that govern the application for (a) prior to commencing a flight; and
and the issuance of a design approval document. The regulation
also enables the use of the Airworthiness Manual chapters that (b) upon completion of that flight.”
establish the design standards for various categories of aircraft. A flight authority may be issued in the form of a C of A, a special
The standards may be defined as statements of the minimum C of A or a flight permit. The specific requirements and procedures
acceptable properties and characteristics of the configuration, for each are detailed in CAR 507 and its related standard.
material, performance and physical properties of an aircraft.
Applicants are issued a design approval document once they 5.3.2 Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A)
have demonstrated that the type design of the aeronautical The C of A is issued for aircraft that fully comply with all standards
product conforms to the applicable airworthiness and noise and of airworthiness for:
engine emission standards that are in force for the product. The
design approval document certifies that the type design of the (a) aeroplanes in the normal, utility, aerobatic, commuter and
product meets the applicable standards and includes the transport categories;
conditions and limitations prescribed by the airworthiness (b) rotorcraft in the normal and transport categories; and
authority as well as how the product meets the standards.
(c) gliders, powered gliders, airships, and manned free balloons.
NOTE: The C of A is transferable with the aircraft when sold or leased,
A design approval document is defined in CAR 521.01 as “a type provided the aircraft remains registered in Canada. The C of A
certificate, a supplemental type certificate, a repair design may provide an indication of the aircraft’s compliance status
approval, a part design approval or a Canadian Technical Standard with respect to the noise limitations specified in chapter 516 of
Order (CAN-TSO) design approval.” the Airworthiness Manual. When applying for a C of A, it is
advisable for the owner to have or obtain a copy of the applicable
All information concerning the approval of a type design or a
type certificate data sheets. A copy of the data sheets can be
change to the type design of an aeronautical product can be
obtained from the type certificate holder. The data sheets may
found in CAR 521 at <http://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/
also be found online at <http://wwwapps.tc.gc.ca/saf-sec-sur/2/
regulations/SOR-96-433/FullText.html#s-521.01>. Guidance
nico-celn/>.
material supporting this regulation can be found at <https://
www.tc.gc.ca/en/services/aviation/reference-centre/advisory- Nothing in the CARs or their associated standards relieves the
circulars.html#500-series>. operator of a Canadian aircraft from the requirement to comply
with local regulations when operating outside Canada. An aircraft
for which the Minister has issued a C of A is considered to be
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fully compliant with article 31 of ICAO’s Convention on (c) Demonstration, market survey or crew training flights;
International Civil Aviation (Doc 7300), thereby meeting the (d) Test purposes following repair, modification or maintenance;
code established by ICAO in Annex 8. Regarding airworthiness, or
aircraft meeting this code can be flown without further approval
in the airspace of any ICAO contracting state. (e) Other temporary purposes.”
CAR Standard 507, Appendix H lists aircraft types and models (ii) the noise compliance requirements are not applicable
that are eligible for a special C of A—owner-maintenance. This to the aircraft.”
special C of A allows owners to perform and certify maintenance
5.4 MAINTENANCE CERTIFICATION
on their aircraft, provided the relevant requirements of the CARs
and the associated standards are met. 5.4.1 General
Aircraft owners who apply for a C of A for an aircraft for which CAR 605.85 stipulates, in part, that “no person shall conduct a
the last permanent flight authority issued was a special C of A— take-off in an aircraft, or permit a take-off to be conducted in
owner-maintenance must meet the additional relevant an aircraft that is in the legal custody and control of the person,
requirements set out in CAR Standard 507.02(3). where that aircraft has undergone maintenance, unless the
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5.4.2 Certification of Maintenance Performed It is also the responsibility of owners or operators to ensure that
Outside Canada the person intending to take off in the aircraft has the information
required to establish whether or not the aircraft is airworthy for
In the case of maintenance performed outside Canada (except
the intended flight.
for the annual inspection portion of the maintenance schedule
outlined in CAR Standard 625, Appendix B, Part I or II), a It is the responsibility of the pilot to be familiar with the available
maintenance release may be signed by a person who is authorized information and to make an informed decision regarding the
under the laws of a state that is party to an agreement or a technical aircraft and the intended flight.
arrangement with Canada if the agreement or arrangement
CAR 605.94 requires the pilot-in-command to enter the
provides for such certification.
particulars of any abnormal occurrence to which the aircraft
In the case of certifying of the 100-hr inspection performed has been subjected, as well as the particulars of any defect in
annually on the basis of the maintenance schedule outlined in any part of the aircraft or its equipment that becomes apparent
CAR Standard 625, Appendix B, a maintenance release can only during flight, in the journey log as set out in CAR 605, Schedule I.
be signed by the holder of an appropriately-rated AME licence
In addition to the general rules in CAR 605, private operators
issued pursuant to CAR 403.
must respect the maintenance requirements in CAR 604 and its
associated standard. Commercial air operators must respect the
5.5 ANNUAL AIRWORTHINESS requirements in CAR 706 and flight training units must respect
INFORMATION REPORT (AAIR) those in CAR 406.
CAR 501.01 requires that the owner of a Canadian aircraft, other
than an ultralight aeroplane, submit an Annual Airworthiness 5.6.2 Maintenance Schedules
Information Report (AAIR). This report can be submitted online
CAR 605.86 prescribes, in part, that all Canadian aircraft except
through the Continuing Airworthiness Web Information
ultralight aeroplanes or hang gliders shall be maintained in
System (CAWIS) at <https://wwwapps.tc.gc.ca/saf-sec-sur/2/
accordance with a maintenance schedule that has been approved
cawis-swimn/i.aspx?lang=eng> or by filling out Form 24-0059,
by the Minister and that conforms to CAR Standard 625.
Annual Airworthiness Information Report, as specified in
Chapter 501 of the Airworthiness Manual. Appendices B, C and D to CAR Standard 625 are applicable to
the development of maintenance schedules.
An AAIR notice is sent to each registered aircraft owner several
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weeks before the due date. The aircraft owner shall complete Owners of non-commercially operated small aircraft and balloons
the annual report by entering all required data and signing to may choose to comply with Part I or II of Appendix B, as
certify that the information supplied is correct. applicable, and Appendix C to CAR Standard 625. They need
not submit any documents to the Minister for formal approval.
Failure to receive an AAIR notice does not relieve the owner
The maintenance schedule is considered to be approved for their
from the requirement to submit a report. The owner should
use by the Minister. Owners need only make an entry in the
therefore notify the appropriate Transport Canada (TC) regional
aircraft technical records indicating that the aircraft is maintained
office or TC Centre if the form, or its online equivalent, has not
pursuant to the maintenance schedule. Owners should periodically
been received two weeks before the anticipated due date.
review the maintenance schedule to ensure that it meets the
An alternate due date may be granted in accordance with requirements.
CAR 501.03.
Operators of large aircraft, turbine-powered pressurized
The owner of an aircraft that will be out of service for one or aeroplanes, airships, any aeroplane or helicopter operated by a
more reporting periods (calendar years) is not required to submit flight training unit, or any commercially operated aircraft must
an AAIR for those periods, provided the appropriate section of submit an application for approval of their maintenance schedule
Form 24-0059, or its online equivalent, is completed and indicates to the Minister through the TC regional office with jurisdiction
the date the aircraft is expected to return to service. over the area in which the applicant is located. The maintenance
schedule shall address the requirements of CAR Standard 625,
5.6 MAINTENANCE REQUIREMENTS Appendices C and D.
FOR CANADIAN-REGISTERED
AIRCRAFT 5.6.3 Maintenance Performance
CAR 571 is applicable to the performance of maintenance or
5.6.1 General elementary work. It addresses how work should be done, as
Under CAR 605, it is the responsibility of the owner or operator opposed to what work should be done.
(defined in CAR 101 as the person who has legal custody and
control of the aircraft) of aircraft other than ultralight aeroplanes
or hang gliders to ensure that their aircraft is properly equipped
for its intended uses and maintained in accordance with an
approved maintenance schedule; that the defects are recorded
and properly rectified or the repairs are deferred; and that any
applicable ADs have been addressed.
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5.6.4 Aircraft Technical Records When an AD is not complied with, the flight authority is not in
effect and the aircraft is not considered to be airworthy.
CAR 605 and its related standard prescribe and set out the
requirements and procedures for keeping aircraft technical Exemptions to AD compliance or the authorization of an
records. Pursuant to CAR 605.92(1), every owner of an aircraft alternative means of compliance may be requested by an owner
shall keep the following technical records regarding the aircraft: pursuant to CAR 605.84(4). General information about
exemptions and alternative means of compliance is given in
(a) a journey log;
Appendix H, subsection 3. Applications should be made to the
(b) a separate technical record for the airframe, each installed nearest TC regional office or TC Centre in accordance with the
engine and each variable-pitch propeller; and procedure detailed in CAR Standard 625, Appendix H,
(c) an empty weight and balance report that meets the applicable subsection 4.
standards set out in CAR Standard 571.
The technical records may consist of separate technical records 5.7.2 Availability of Airworthiness
for each component installed in the airframe, engine or propeller. Directives (ADs)
In the case of a balloon or a glider, or an aircraft operated under TC endeavours to notify owners of Canadian registered aircraft
a special C of A in the owner-maintenance or amateur-built of the issuance of any applicable AD or mandatory service bulletin
classification, all technical record entries, referred to above, may as outlined below. To this end, the owner must advise the nearest
be kept in the journey log. TCCA office of any change of address in accordance with
CAR 202.51. However, TC cannot guarantee that it will receive
5.6.5 Service Difficulty Reporting Program all foreign ADs. Aircraft owners are responsible for obtaining
the relevant continuing airworthiness information applicable
By means of the service difficulty reporting program, reported to the type and model of aircraft—including installed equipment,
service difficulties are collected, analyzed and used to identify engine, propeller(s) (if any)—that they own.
and rectify, as required, deficiencies of a design, manufacturing,
maintenance or operational nature, which might affect aircraft Aircraft owners who wish to ascertain which ADs, if any, apply
airworthiness. in Canada for a particular type of aircraft, engine, propeller or
other item of equipment may do so by checking this Web site:
TC utilizes a user-reporting system to collect service difficulty data. <https://wwwapps.tc.gc.ca/Saf-Sec-Sur/2/cawis-swimn/AD_h.
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The Tribunal process applies to five types of administrative 6.3 SUSPENSION, CANCELLATION OR
actions. One type of action is the refusal to issue or amend a REFUSAL TO RENEW A CANADIAN
Canadian aviation document. There are also three types of AVIATION DOCUMENT
actions that are related to the powers of suspension or cancellation
The powers to suspend, cancel or refuse to renew a Canadian
of a Canadian aviation document. The fifth type of action is the
aviation document are set out in the amended Aeronautics Act.
Minister’s power to assess monetary penalties for the contravention
The Minister has the power to:
of certain regulatory provisions. Decisions made by the Minister
of Transport to take any of these administrative actions may be (a) suspend or cancel a document for contravention of any
reviewed by a single member of the Tribunal and may be followed provision in Part I of the Act or the regulations made under
by an appeal to a three-member panel. the Act (e.g. the Canadian Aviation Regulations [CARs]);
The purpose of this scheme is to provide those affected by (b) suspend a document on the grounds that an immediate
administrative decisions with an opportunity for a fair hearing threat to aviation safety exists or is likely to occur;
before a n independent body. The TATC is not a (c) suspend, cancel or refuse to renew a document on the
Transport Canada (TC) agency. It is composed of individuals grounds of:
with experience in many different aspects of the transportation
industry. Its members, who have aviation industry experience, (i) incompetence,
will hear aviation cases as the need arises. (ii) ceasing to meet the qualifications or fulfill the
conditions under which the document was issued
6.2 REFUSAL TO ISSUE OR AMEND A (this includes medical grounds), or
CANADIAN AVIATION DOCUMENT (iii) public interest reasons; and
The Minister’s power to refuse to issue or amend a Canadian (d) suspend or refuse to renew a document for failure to pay
aviation document is set out in the amended Aeronautics Act. monetary penalties for which the Tribunal has issued a
The four distinct grounds for those powers are as follows: certificate of nonpayment.
(a) incompetence of the applicant for the document Where the Minister decides to suspend, cancel or refuse to renew
or amendment; a Canadian aviation document, they must notify the document
(b) failure to meet the qualifications or fulfill the conditions holder. The notice must include the decision, the grounds for
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necessary for the issuance or amendment of the document; the decision and the specific reasons for those grounds. The
document holder has the right to request a review of the Minister’s
(c) public interest reasons; and decision. The notice must also inform the applicant of the steps
(d) failure by the applicant to pay monetary penalties for which they must follow to obtain a review.
the Tribunal has issued a certificate.
The review process and the Tribunal’s authority are the same
Where the Minister decides to refuse to issue or amend a Canadian as what is outlined in LRA 6.2 regarding the refusal to issue or
aviation document, they must notify the applicant of the decision, amend a Canadian aviation document. The only difference is
the grounds for the decision and the specific reasons those that in the case of a suspension or cancellation of a Canadian
grounds apply. The applicant has the right to request a review aviation document on the grounds that the holder of the document
of the Minister’s decision. The Notice of Refusal to Issue or has contravened a provision of the Act or regulations, the Tribunal
Amend a Canadian Aviation Document Letter must inform the may confirm the Minister’s decision or may substitute its own
applicant of the steps they must follow to obtain a review. decision for that of the Minister.
At the review, the Tribunal will consider whether or not the
Minister’s decision is justified, based on the facts of the case. 6.4 MONETARY PENALTIES
Both the applicant and the Minister will be given full opportunity The power to assess a monetary penalty applies only to those
to present evidence and make representations with respect to regulations referred to as designated provisions. These offences,
the decision under review. The applicant may call their own generally of a regulatory nature, are designated and listed in
witnesses and cross-examine those called by the Minister. They CAR 103, Schedule II. Where a person contravenes a designated
may also be represented by counsel or have another person provision, the Minister may assess an appropriate fine to be paid
appear on their behalf. as a penalty for the contravention. A notice of assessment of
In making its determination at the review, the Tribunal may monetary penalty is then sent to inform the person that full
confirm the Minister’s decision or, if it finds the decision is payment of the penalty will end the matter. The notice must also
unjustified, it may refer the matter to the Minister for inform the person of the steps they must follow to obtain a
reconsideration. review.
In the event that full payment is not received within 30 days and
no request for a review is filed with the Tribunal, the person will
be deemed to have committed the contravention and must pay
the penalty assessed.
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6.5 APPEALS
If a party fails to appear or be represented at a review hearing
without sufficient reason to justify their absence, that party is
not entitled to request an appeal of the determination.
A person affected by the Tribunal’s review determination may
request an appeal of the determination. The Minister may also
request an appeal of the Tribunal’s review determination with
respect to a suspension or cancellation of a Canadian aviation
document on the grounds of contravention of a provision of the
Act; contravention of the regulations; or with respect to a
monetary penalty. In all cases, the request for an appeal must
be made within 30 days after the Tribunal’s review determination.
The appeal is based on the merits of the decision and the appeal
panel is limited to considering the record of the evidence
introduced at the review hearing, other evidence that was not
available at the review hearing and oral arguments by the parties.
The appeal panel may allow the appeal or dismiss it. If the Tribunal
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allows the appeal, it may send the matter back to the Minister
for reconsideration or, in the case of an alleged contravention
or monetary penalty, the Tribunal may substitute its own decision
for the review determination.
Further information regarding procedures before the
Transportation Appeal Tribunal of Canada (TATC) may be
obtained by consulting the Transportation Appeal Tribunal of
Canada Act, the Aeronautics Act (sections 6.6 to 7.21 and
sections 7.6 to 8.2), the Tribunal rules and CAR 103.
The TATC may be contacted at:
Transportation Appeal Tribunal of Canada
333 Laurier Avenue West
Room 1201
Ottawa ON K1A 0N5
Tel.: ......................................................................613-990-6906
Fax: .......................................................................613-990-9153
E-mail: ...............................................................info@tatc.gc.ca
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AIR
Table 1.1—Fuel Grades and Colours All aviation fuels absorb moisture from the air and contain water
in both suspended particles and liquid form. The amount of
FUEL COLOUR suspended particles varies with the temperature of the fuel.
AVGAS 80/87 red When the temperature of the fuel is decreased, some of the
AVGAS 100/130 green suspended particles are drawn out of the solution and slowly fall
100 LL blue to the bottom on the tank. When the temperature of the fuel
Aviation Turbine Fuels straw-coloured or
MOGAS P 87-90 (see NOTE 2) undyed increases, water particles from the atmosphere are absorbed to
MOGAS R 84-87 (see NOTE 2) green maintain a saturated solution.
undyed
As stated in AIR 1.3.2, water should be drained from aircraft
fuel systems before flight. However, even with this precaution
NOTES:
water particles in suspension will remain in the fuel. While this
1. Good airmanship ensures that positive identification of the is not normally a problem it becomes so when fuel cools to the
type and grade of aviation fuel is established before fuelling. freezing level of water and the water particles change to ice
2. Transport Canada now approves the use of automotive crystals. These may accumulate in fuel filters, bends in fuel lines,
gasoline for certain aircraft types under specific conditions. and in some fuel-selectors and eventually may block the fuel
For additional information, refer to TP 10737E – Use of line causing an engine stoppage. Fuel anti-icing additives will
Automotive Gasoline (MOGAS) for General Aviation Aircraft, inhibit ice crystal formation. Manufacturer approved additives,
available from your TC Airworthiness Regional office. (See such as ethylene-glycol-monomethyl-ether (EGME), used in the
GEN 1.1.2 for addresses.) prescribed manner have proven quite successful. The aircraft
manufacturer’s instructions for the use of anti-icing fuel additives
should therefore be consulted and carefully followed.
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Jet fuel, particularly Jet A-1, has low electrical conductivity and 1.4.2 Classification of Fires
requires time at rest to dissipate accumulated static charges.
Anti-static additives make jet fuel more conductive. The additives Table 1.2—Fire Classification
do not reduce the generation of static charges, but allow the Class A fires: Fires in ordinary combustible materials.
charges to be dissipated faster. Proper bonding/grounding does On these, water or solutions containing
not eliminate the static charges accumulated in jet fuel. large percentages of water are
most effective.
Jet A-1 also has a low auto-ignition temperature (220°C), which
is the lowest temperature at which it will spontaneously ignite Class B fires: Fires in flammable liquids, greases, etc.
in a normal atmosphere without an external source of ignition On these a blanketing effect is essential.
(such as a flame or spark). Jet A-1 fuel spills onto hot surfaces Class C fires: Fires in electrical equipment. On these
such as exhaust pipes or brakes can result in spontaneous ignition. the use of a nonconducting extinguishing
agent is of
NOTES: first importance.
1. Incidents of fuelling in enclosed spaces and/or with
inadequate bonding have resulted in death or injury. At low 1.4.3 Types of Extinguishers
temperature and humidity, a blower heater could cause
statically charged dust particles to build up and combine Carbon Dioxide Extinguishers: Carbon dioxide extinguishers
with fuel vapours leading to catastrophic results. are acceptable when the principal hazard is a Class B or Class C
fire. Carbon dioxide portable installations should not exceed
2. Plastic fuel containers cannot be properly bonded or five pounds of agent per unit to ensure extinguisher portability
grounded, which increases the chance of explosion and fire. and to minimize crew compartment CO2 concentrations.
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Water Extinguishers: Water extinguishers are acceptable when perhaps, when navigating by pressure pattern techniques. In
the principal hazard is a Class A fire and where a fire might instances of aircraft operating close to the ground or above the
smolder if attacked solely by such agents as carbon dioxide or highest obstacle en route, especially when on instruments,
dry chemical. If water extinguishers will be subject to temperatures knowledge of actual ground separation or of “error” in the
below freezing, the water extinguisher must be winterized by altimeter indication, is of prime importance if such separation
addition of a suitable anti-freeze. is less than what would be assumed from the indicated altitude.
Vaporizing Liquid Extinguishers: Vaporizing liquid type fire An aircraft altimeter which has the current altimeter setting
extinguishers are acceptable when the principal hazard is a applied to the subscale should not have an error of more than
Class B or Class C fire. ±50 feet when compared on the ground against a known
aerodrome or runway elevation. If the error is more than ±50 feet,
Dry Chemical Extinguishers: Dry chemical extinguishers
the altimeter should be checked by maintenance as referenced
using a bi-carbonate of sodium extinguishing agent or potassium
in AIR 1.5.2.
bi-carbonate powder are acceptable where the principal hazard
is a Class B or Class C fire.
1.5.2 Calibration of the Pressure Altimeter
Dry chemical extinguishers using a so-called All Purpose
Monoammonium Phosphate are acceptable where the hazard Pressure altimeters are calibrated to indicate the “true” altitude
includes a Class A fire as well as Class B and Class C. in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere. The maximum allowable
tolerance is ±20 feet at sea level for a calibrated altimeter. This
The size of the dry chemical extinguisher should not be less than tolerance increases with altitude.
two lb. Only an extinguisher with a nozzle that can be operated
either intermittently or totally by the operator should be installed. The ICAO Standard Atmosphere conditions are:
Some abrasion or corrosion of the insulation on electrical (a) air is a perfectly dry gas;
instruments, contacts or wiring may take place as a result of (b) mean sea level pressure of 29.92 inches of mercury;
using this extinguisher. Cleaning and inspection of components
should be carried out as soon as possible. (c) mean sea level temperature of 15°C; and
(d) rate of decrease of temperature with height is 1.98°C per
Care should be taken when using this extinguisher in crew
1 000 feet to the height at which the temperature becomes
compartments because the chemical can interfere with visibility
-56.5°C and then remains constant.
while it is being used and because the nonconductive powders
may be deposited on electrical contacts not involved in the fire.
This can cause equipment failure. 1.5.3 Incorrect Setting on the Subscale
of the Altimeter
Halon Extinguishers: Halon 1211 is a colourless liquefied gas
which evaporates rapidly, does not freeze or cause cold burn, Although altimeters are calibrated using the Standard Atmosphere
does not stain fabrics nor cause corrosive damage. It is equally sea level pressure of 29.92 inches of mercury, the actual sea level
effective on an A, B or C class fire and has proven to be the most pressure varies hour to hour, and place to place. To enable the
effective extinguishant on gasoline based upholstery fires. The “zero” reference to be correctly set for sea level at any pressure
size of a Halon 1211 extinguisher for a given cubic space should within a range of 28.0 to 31.0 inches of mercury, altimeters
AIR
not result in a concentration of more than 5%. Halon 1211 is at incorporate a controllable device and subscale. Whether a pilot
least twice as effective as CO2 and is heavier than air (so it “sinks”). inadvertently sets an incorrect pressure on the altimeter subscale
Decomposed Halon 1211 “stinks” so it is not likely to be breathed or sets the correct pressure for one area and then, without altering
unknowingly. the setting, flies to an area where the pressure differs, the result
is the same – the “zero” reference to the altimeter will not be
Halon 1301 is less toxic than Halon 1211 but it is also less effective where it should be but will be “displaced” by an amount
and is excellent for B or C class fires. A short-coming appears proportional to 1 000 feet indicated altitude per 1 inch of mercury
to be the lack of a visible “stream” on discharge; Halon 1301 that the subscale setting is in error. As pressure decreases with
turns into an invisible gas as it discharges. altitude, a subscale setting that is higher than it should be will
“start” the altimeter at a lower level, therefore, A TOO HIGH
1.5 PRESSURE ALTIMETER SUBSCALE SETTING MEANS A TOO HIGH ALTIMETER
READING, that is the aircraft would be at a level lower than the
1.5.1 General altimeter indicates; A TOO LOW SUBSCALE SETTING MEANS
A TOO LOW ALTIMETER READING, that is the aircraft would
The pressure altimeter used in aircraft is a relatively accurate be at a level higher than the altimeter indicates. As the first
instrument for measuring flight level pressure but the altitude instance is the more dangerous, an example follows:
information indicated by an altimeter, although technically
“correct” as a measure of pressure, may differ greatly from the A pilot at Airport A, 500 feet ASL, sets the altimeter to the airport’s
actual height of the aircraft above mean sea level or above ground. altimeter setting of 29.80 inches of mercury prior to departure
In instances of aircraft flying high above the earth’s surface, for Airport B, 1 000 feet ASL, some 400 NM away. A flight altitude
knowledge of the actual distance between the aircraft and the of 6 000 feet is selected for the westbound flight so as to clear a
earth’s surface is of little immediate value to the pilot except, 4 800-foot mountain ridge lying across track about 40 NM from B.
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The pilot does not change the altimeter subscale reading until temperature error will occur only between the 1 000-foot level
he makes radio contact with B when 25 NM out and receives an and the 5 400-foot level, i.e. 4 400 feet of airspace.
altimeter setting of 29.20 inches of mercury. Ignoring other
(a) Set pressure altitude, 6 120 feet, against OAT, -20°C, in the
possible errors (see below), when the aircraft crossed the mountain
appropriate computer window.
ridge the actual ground clearance was only 600 feet, not 1 200 feet
as expected by the pilot. This illustrates the importance of having (b) Opposite 4 400 feet (44) on the inner scale read 4 020 feet (40.2)
the altimeter setting of the nearest airport along the route set on the outer scale.
on the instrument. (c) Add the 1 000 feet previously deducted as being errorless
and find the “true” altitude of 4 020 feet + 1 000 feet =
1.5.4 Non-Standard Temperatures 5 020 feet ASL. The margin of safety is now just over 200 feet,
but this does not take into account variables which may
The only time that an altimeter will indicate the “true” altitude
prevail as outlined immediately above and due to mountain
of an aircraft at all levels is when ICAO Standard Atmosphere
effect as explained below.
conditions exist.
When the current altimeter setting of an airport is set on the 1.5.5 Standard Pressure Region
subscale of an altimeter, the only time a pilot can be certain that
the altimeter indicates the “true” altitude is when the aircraft is When flying within this region, the altimeter must be reset,
on the ground at that airport. momentarily, to the altimeter setting of the nearest airport along
the route to obtain indicated altitude, or indicated altitude
When 29.92 inches of mercury is set on the subscale of an altimeter calculated from the altimeter setting, and the steps given above
within the Standard Pressure Setting Region, the altimeter will followed, or, when over large expanses of water or barren lands
indicate “true” altitude if ICAO Standard Atmosphere conditions where there are no airports, the forecast mean sea level pressure
exist or if the aircraft is flying at that particular level for which for the time and place must be used to get indicated altitude. In
29.92 inches of mercury would be the altimeter setting. the other instance, “airport” level would be zero, therefore
In general, it can be assumed that the altitude indication of an subtraction and addition of airport elevation would not be done.
altimeter is always in error due to temperature when an aircraft The “true” altitude determined in such a case would be “true”
is in flight. only if the forecast pressure used approximates the actual
sea level pressure. (If sea level pressure is not known and pressure
The amount of error will be approximately 4% of the indicated altitude is used also as indicated altitude, the resultant “true”
altitude for every 11°C that the average temperature of the air altitude will be the “true” altitude above the 29.92 level, wherever
column between the aircraft and the “ground” differs from the it may be in relation to actual mean sea level).
average temperature of the Standard Atmosphere for the same
air column. In practice, the average temperature of the air column
is not known and “true” altitude is arrived at from knowledge 1.5.6 Effect of Mountains
of the outside air temperature (OAT) at flight level and use of a Winds which are deflected around large single mountain peaks
computer. The “true” altitude found by this method will be or through the valleys of mountain ranges tend to increase speed
reasonably accurate when the actual lapse rate is, or is near, that which results in a local decrease in pressure (Bernoulli’s Principle).
of the Standard Atmosphere, i.e. 2°C per 1 000 feet. During the
AIR
386
TC AIM March 23, 2023
AIR
ground separation on passing over the crest of the ridge may These numbers are referred to as the CRFI. It is evident that
well have been very small. small numbers represent low braking coefficients of friction
while numbers on the order of 0.8 and above indicate the braking
1.5.9 Abnormally High Altimeter Settings coefficients to be expected on dry runways.
Cold dry air masses can produce barometric pressures in excess The brakes are applied on the test vehicle at 300-m (1 000-ft)
of 31.00 in. of mercury. Because barometric readings of 31.00 in. intervals along the runway within a distance of 10 m (30 ft) from
of mercury or higher rarely occur, most standard altimeters do each side of the runway centreline at that distance from the
not permit setting of barometric pressures above that level and centreline where the majority of aircraft operations take place
are not calibrated to indicate accurate aircraft altitude above at each given site. The readings taken are averaged and reported
31.00 in. of mercury. As a result, most aircraft altimeters cannot as the CRFI number.
be set to provide accurate altitude readouts to the pilot in these
situations. 1.6.4 Description of Canadian Runway Friction
When aircraft operate in areas where the altimeter setting is in Index (CRFI) Reporting Method
excess of 31.00 in. of mercury and the aircraft altimeter cannot Where an airport receives aeroplane operations in an air transport
be set above 31.00 in. of mercury, the true altitude of the aircraft service under Subpart 5 of Part VII of the CARs, CRFI is reported
will be HIGHER than the indicated altitude. by runway thirds for runways greater than or equal to 1 829 m
Procedures for conducting flight operations in areas of abnormally (6 000 ft) in length.
high altimeter settings are detailed in AIP Canada ENR 1.7. CRFI may be reported by runway thirds for runways less than
1 829 m (6 000 ft) in length where the aerodrome is equipped to
do so; however, CRFI will be reported by full runway lengths as
a default.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
The aerodrome’s airport winter maintenance plan should be (e) any change in contaminant depth of ⅛ in. for standing water
consulted for the latest information on CRFI reporting and slush, ¼ in. for wet snow, and ¾ in. for dry snow; and
methodology for a given runway. (f) any other information that, according to assessment
techniques, is considered to be significant, for example
1.6.5 Aircraft Movement Surface Condition following the application or removal of sand or chemicals;
Reports (AMSCR) following snow removal or sweeping; or following changes
AMSCRs are issued to alert pilots of natural surface contaminants— in conditions caused by rapid increases or decreases in
such as snow, ice or slush—that could affect aircraft braking temperature.
performance. The RSC section of the report provides information The depth of deposit is expressed in inches or feet or both. When
about runway conditions in plain language, while the CRFI the depth is above 2 in., whole values are used. When the depth
section describes braking action quantitatively using the is less than 2 in., fractions are used. The accepted fraction values
numerical format described in AIR 1.6.3. are ⅛, ¼, ½, ¾ and 1 ½; however, caution has to be exercised as
Where runway information is reported in thirds, a runway these values could be confused with CRFI measurements. When
condition code (RWYCC) is reported for each third. RWYCCs the depth of deposit is below ⅛ in., the accepted depth is reported
are on a scale of 0 to 6, where 0 represents the most slippery as ⅛ in.
conditions and 6 represents dry runway performance. When clearing is not underway or expected to begin within the
AMSCRs are issued when contaminants are present on a next 30 minutes, a notation such as “Clearing expected to start
movement area as follows: at (time in UTC)” will be added to the RSC report. When the
meteorological conditions cause runway surface conditions to
(a) at the commencement of published AMSCR hours; change frequently, the RSC NOTAM will include the agency
(b) a minimum of once every eight hours thereafter; and telephone number to contact for the current runway
conditions.
(c) when a significant change in a runway surface condition
occurs; The full range of RSC/CRFI information will be available as a
voice advisory from the control tower at controlled aerodromes
(d) following every accident or incident in which winter
and from the FSS at uncontrolled aerodromes.
conditions may have been a factor; and
Each new RSC NOTAM (AMSCR report) issued supersedes the
(e) whenever the cleared width of the runway falls below full
previous report for that aerodrome. An RSC NOTAM is valid
width.
for 8 hours or 24 hours, based on the most recent observation
When available, a CRFI reading will be issued along with the of either the RSC or CRFI, after which time it is removed from
RSC in order to provide an overall descriptive picture of the the database. An RSC NOTAM may also be cancelled if the
runway condition and to quantify braking action. Due to reporting requirements are no longer met or the RSC NOTAM
mechanical and operational limitations, the runway friction was issued in error.
readings produced by decelerometers may be inaccurate under
certain surface conditions. As a result, runway friction readings NOTE:
will be taken and a CRFI will be provided to ATS or to pilots The absence of an RSC NOTAM in no way indicates that runway
AIR
only when any of the following conditions are present: conditions are acceptable for operations.
(a) ice; The CRFI portion of the report is titled ADDN NON-GRF/
(b) wet ice consisting of a thin film of water on ice; TALPA INFO: and is in the following format: title (CRFI), runway
number, temperature (in degrees Celsius), runway CRFI reading
(c) compacted snow;
by full runway length or by runway thirds, and the observation
(d) slush on ice; time of the report using the 10-digit date-time group format in
(e) dry snow not exceeding 2.5 cm (1 in.) in depth; UTC (YYMMDDHHMM).
(f) de-icing chemical solution or sand on ice; or An RSC NOTAM is issued based on reporting requirements
rather than on dissemination criteria. Therefore, conditions
(g) frost. such as “dry” or “wet” will be disseminated if reported.
An RSC report must be issued for each CRFI measurement Information on taxiways and aprons, although not mandatory,
provided. can be disseminated in an RSC NOTAM if deemed to have an
The following changes relating to runway conditions are impact on safe operations.
considered significant:
(a) any change in the RWYCC (if applicable); 1.6.6 Wet Runways
(b) a CRFI change of 0.05 or more; Runway friction values are currently not provided during the
summer and when it is raining. Consequently, some discussion
(c) any change in the contaminant type; of wet runways is in order to assist pilots in developing handling
(d) any change of 20% or more in the reportable contaminant procedures when these conditions are encountered.
coverage;
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
A packed-snow or ice condition at a fixed temperature presents performance under adverse runway conditions. The onus for
a relatively constant coefficient of friction with speed, but this the production of information, guidance or advice on the
is not the case for a liquid (water or slush) state. This is because operation of aircraft on a wet and/or contaminated runway rests
water cannot be completely squeezed out from between the tire with the aircraft manufacturer. The information published in
and the runway and, as a result, there is only partial tire-to- the TC AIM does not change, create any additional, authorize
runway contact. As the aircraft speed is increased, the time in changes in, or permit deviations from regulatory requirements.
contact is reduced further, thus braking friction coefficients on These Tables are intended to be used at the pilot’s discretion.
wet surfaces fall as the speed increases, i.e. the conditions in
Because of the many variables associated with computing
effect become relatively more slippery, but will improve again
accelerate-stop distances and balanced field lengths, it has not
as the aircraft slows down. The situation is further complicated
been possible to reduce the available data to the point where
by the susceptibility of aircraft tires to hydroplane on wet runways.
CRFI corrections can be provided, which would be applicable
Hydroplaning is a function of the water depth, tire pressure and to all types of operations. Consequently, only corrections for
speed. Moreover, the minimum speed at which a non-rotating landing distances and crosswinds are included pending further
tire will begin to hydroplane is lower than the speed at which a study of the take-off problem.
rotating tire will begin to hydroplane because a build up of water
It should be noted that in all cases the Tables are based on
under the non-rotating tire increases the hydroplaning effect.
corrections to aircraft flight manual (AFM) dry runway data
Pilots should therefore be aware of this since it will result in a
and that the certification criteria does not allow consideration
substantial difference between the take-off and landing roll
of the extra decelerating forces provided by reverse thrust or
aircraft performance under the same runway conditions. The
propeller reversing. On dry runways, thrust reversers provide
minimum speed, in knots, at which hydroplaning will commence
only a small portion of the total decelerating forces when
can be calculated by multiplying the square root of the tire
compared to wheel braking. However, as wheel braking becomes
pressure (PSI) by 7.7 for a non-rotating tire, or by 9 for a
less effective, the portion of the stopping distance attributable to
rotating tire.
thrust reversing becomes greater. For this reason, if reversing is
This equation gives an approximation of the minimum speed employed when a low CRFI is reported, a comparison of the
necessary to hydroplane on a smooth, wet surface with tires that actual stopping distance with that shown in Table 1.3 will make
are bald or have no tread. For example, the minimum hydroplaning the estimates appear overly conservative. Nevertheless, there
speeds for an aircraft with tires inflated to 49 PSI are calculated are circumstances—such as crosswind conditions, engine out
as: Non-rotating tire: 7.7 X √49 = 54 kt; or situations or reverser malfunctions—that may preclude their use.
Rotating tire: 9 X √49 = 63 kt Landing distances recommended in Table 1.3 are intended to
be used for aeroplanes with no discing and/or reverse thrust
When hydroplaning occurs, the aircraft’s tires are completely
capability and are based on statistical variation measured during
separated from the actual runway surface by a thin water film
actual flight tests.
and they will continue to hydroplane until a reduction in speed
permits the tires to regain contact with the runway. This speed Notwithstanding the above comments on the use of discing and/
will be considerably lower than the speed at which hydroplaning or reverse thrust, Table 1.4 may be used for aeroplanes with
commences. Under these conditions, the tire traction drops to discing and/or reverse thrust capability and is based on the
AIR
almost negligible values, and in some cases, the wheel will stop landing distances recommended in Table 1.3 with additional
rotating entirely. The tires will provide no braking capability calculations that give credit for discing and/or reverse thrust.
and will not contribute to the directional control of the aircraft. In calculating the distances in Table 1.4, the air distance from
The resultant increase in stopping distance is impossible to the screen height of 50 ft to touchdown and the delay distance
predict accurately, but it has been estimated to increase as much from touchdown to the application of full braking remain
as 700 percent. Further, it is known that a 10-kt crosswind will unchanged from Table 1.3. The effects of discing and/or reverse
drift an aircraft off the side of a 200-ft wide runway in thrust were used only to reduce the stopping distance from the
approximately 7 sec under hydroplaning conditions. application of full braking to a complete stop. The recommended
landing distances stated in Table 1.4 take into account the
Notwithstanding the fact that friction values cannot be given
reduction in landing distances obtained with the use of discing
for a wet runway and that hydroplaning can cause pilots serious
and/or reverse thrust capability for a turboprop-powered
difficulties, it has been found that, under light or moderate rain
aeroplane and with the use of reverse thrust for a turbojet-powered
conditions, well-drained runways seldom accumulate sufficient
aeroplane. Representative low values of discing and/or reverse
standing water for hydroplaning to occur.
thrust effect have been assumed and, therefore, the data may be
1.6.7 Canadian Runway Friction Index (CRFI) conservative for properly executed landings by some aeroplanes
Application to Aircraft Performance with highly effective discing and/or thrust reversing systems.
The information contained in Tables 1.3 and 1.4 has been compiled The crosswind limits for CRFI shown in Figure 1.1 contain a
and is considered to be the best data available at this time because slightly different display range of runway friction index values
it is based upon extensive field test performance data of aircraft from those listed in Tables 1.3 and 1.4. However, the CRFI values
braking on winter-contaminated surfaces. The information used for Figure 1.1 are exactly the same as those used for
should provide a useful guide to pilots when estimating aircraft Tables 1.3 and 1.4 and are appropriate for the index value
increments indicated.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Landing Landing
Landing Field Field
Distance 0.60 0.55 0.50 0.45 0.40 0.35 0.30 0.27 0.25 0.22 0.20 0.18 Length Length
(Feet) Dry (Feet) (Feet)
Dry Dry
60% 70%
Unfactored Recommended Landing Distances (no Discing/Reverse Thrust)
Factor Factor
1 800 3 120 3 200 3 300 3 410 3 540 3 700 3 900 4 040 4 150 4 330 4 470 4 620 3 000 2 571
2 000 3 480 3 580 3 690 3 830 3 980 4 170 4 410 4 570 4 700 4 910 5 070 5 250 3 333 2 857
2 200 3 720 3 830 3 960 4 110 4 280 4 500 4 750 4 940 5 080 5 310 5 490 5 700 3 667 3 143
2 400 4 100 4 230 4 370 4 540 4 740 4 980 5 260 5 470 5 620 5 880 6 080 6 300 4 000 3 429
2 600 4 450 4 590 4 750 4 940 5 160 5 420 5 740 5 960 6 130 6 410 6 630 6 870 4 333 3 714
2 800 4 760 4 910 5 090 5 290 5 530 5 810 6 150 6 390 6 570 6 880 7 110 7 360 4 667 4 000
3 000 5 070 5 240 5 430 5 650 5 910 6 220 6 590 6 860 7 060 7 390 7 640 7 920 5 000 4 286
3 200 5 450 5 630 5 840 6 090 6 370 6 720 7 130 7 420 7 640 8 010 8 290 8 600 5 333 4 571
3 400 5 740 5 940 6 170 6 430 6 740 7 110 7 550 7 870 8 100 8 500 8 800 9 130 5 667 4 857
3 600 6 050 6 260 6 500 6 780 7 120 7 510 7 990 8 330 8 580 9 000 9 320 9 680 6 000 5 143
3 800 6 340 6 570 6 830 7 130 7 480 7 900 8 410 8 770 9 040 9 490 9 840 10 220 6 333 5 429
4 000 6 550 6 780 7 050 7 370 7 730 8 170 8 700 9 080 9 360 9 830 10 180 10 580 6 667 5 714
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Landing Landing
Landing
Field Field
Distance 0.60 0.55 0.50 0.45 0.40 0.35 0.30 0.27 0.25 0.22 0.20 0.18 Length Length
(Feet) Dry
(Feet) Dry (Feet) Dry
60% 70%
Unfactored Recommended Landing Distances (Discing/Reverse Thrust)
Factor Factor
1 200 2 000 2 040 2 080 2 120 2 170 2 220 2 280 2 340 2 380 2 440 2 490 2 540 2 000 1 714
1 400 2 340 2 390 2 440 2 500 2 580 2 660 2 750 2 820 2 870 2 950 3 010 3 080 2 333 2 000
1 600 2 670 2 730 2 800 2 880 2 970 3 070 3 190 3 280 3 360 3 460 3 540 3 630 2 667 2 286
1 800 3 010 3 080 3 160 3 250 3 350 3 480 3 630 3 730 3 810 3 930 4 030 4 130 3 000 2 571
2 000 3 340 3 420 3 520 3 620 3 740 3 880 4 050 4 170 4 260 4 400 4 510 4 630 3 333 2 857
2 200 3 570 3 660 3 760 3 880 4 020 4 170 4 360 4 490 4 590 4 750 4 870 5 000 3 667 3 143
2 400 3 900 4 000 4 110 4 230 4 380 4 550 4 750 4 880 4 980 5 150 5 270 5 410 4 000 3 429
2 600 4 200 4 300 4 420 4 560 4 710 4 890 5 100 5 240 5 350 5 520 5 650 5 790 4 333 3 714
2 800 4 460 4 570 4 700 4 840 5 000 5 190 5 410 5 560 5 670 5 850 5 980 6 130 4 667 4 000
3 000 4 740 4 860 5 000 5 160 5 340 5 550 5 790 5 950 6 070 6 270 6 420 6 580 5 000 4 286
3 200 5 080 5 220 5 370 5 550 5 740 5 970 6 240 6 420 6 560 6 770 6 940 7 110 5 333 4 571
3 400 5 350 5 500 5 660 5 850 6 060 6 310 6 590 6 790 6 930 7 170 7 340 7 530 5 667 4 857
3 600 5 620 5 780 5 960 6 160 6 390 6 650 6 960 7 170 7 320 7 570 7 750 7 950 6 000 5 143
3 800 5 890 6 060 6 250 6 460 6 700 6 980 7 310 7 540 7 700 7 970 8 160 8 380 6 333 5 429
4 000 6 070 6 250 6 440 6 660 6 910 7 210 7 540 7 780 7 950 8 220 8 430 8 650 6 667 5 714
Application of the CRFI The recommended landing distances in CRFI Table 1.4 are based
The recommended landing distances in Table 1.4 are based on on standard pilot techniques for the minimum distance landings
a 95 percent level of confidence. A 95 percent level of confidence from 50 ft, including a stabilized approach at VRef using a glide
means that in more than 19 landings out of 20, the stated distance slope of 3° to 50 ft or lower, a firm touchdown, minimum delay
in Table 1.4 will be conservative for properly executed landings to nose lowering, minimum delay time to deployment of ground
with all systems serviceable on runway surfaces with the reported lift dump devices and application of brakes and discing and/or
AIR
CRFI. reverse thrust, and sustained maximum antiskid braking until
stopped. In Table 1.4, the air distance from the screen height of
The recommended landing distances in Table 1.4 take into 50 ft to touchdown and the delay distance from touchdown to
account the reduction in landing distances obtained with the the application of full braking remain unchanged from Table 1.3.
use of discing and/or reverse thrust capability for a turboprop- The effects of discing/reverse thrust were used only to reduce
powered aeroplane and with the use of reverse thrust for a the stopping distance from the application of full braking to a
turbojet-powered aeroplane. Table 1.4 is based on the landing complete stop.
distances recommended in Table 1.3 with additional calculations
that give credit for discing Landing field length is the landing distance divided by 0.6
and/or reverse thrust. Representative low values of discing and/ (turbojets) or 0.7 (turboprops). If the AFM expresses landing
or reverse thrust effect have been assumed, hence the data will performance in terms of landing distance, enter the Table from
be conservative for properly executed landings by some aeroplanes the left-hand column. However, if the AFM expresses landing
with highly effective discing and/or thrust reversing systems. performance in terms of landing field length, enter the Table from
one of the right-hand columns, after first verifying which factor
has been used in the AFM.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Figure 1.1—Crosswind Limits for CRFI The CRFI depends on the surface type, as shown in Table 1.5(a)
a. It should be noted that:
(a) the CRFI values given in Table 1.5(a) are applicable to all
temperatures. Extensive measurements have shown that
there is no correlation between the CRFI and the surface
temperature. The case where the surface temperature is just
at the melting point (i.e. about 0°C) may be an exception,
as a water film may form from surface melting, which could
induce slippery conditions with CRFIs less than those in
Table 1.5(a).
(b) the CRFI may span a range of values for various reasons,
such as variations in texture among surfaces within a given
surface class. The expected maximum and minimum CRFIs
for various surfaces are listed in Table 1.5(b). Note that these
values are based on a combination of analyses of extensive
measurements and sound engineering judgment.
(c) the largest range in CRFI is to be expected for a thin layer
(3 mm or less in thickness) of dry snow on pavement
(Table 1.5(a)). This variation may occur due to:
(i) non-uniform snow coverage; and/or
(ii) the tires breaking through the thin layer.
In either case, the surface presented to the aircraft may range
This chart provides information for calculating headwind and from snow to pavement.
crosswind components. The vertical lines indicate the
recommended ma ximum crosswind component for
reported CRFI.
Example:
CYOW CRFI 07/25 -4C .30 1201191200
Tower Wind 110° 20 kt.
The wind is 40° off the runway heading and produces a headwind
component of l5 kt and a crosswind component of l3 kt. The
recommended minimum CRFI for a l3-kt crosswind component
is .35. A takeoff or landing with a CRFI of .3 could result in
AIR
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
The range is the 95 percent confidence interval of a large set of measured data
snow depth greater than 3 mm to 25 mm
0.19 0.37 Dry snow on packed snow
snow depth 3 mm or less
on Various Substrates
0.12 0.31
snow depth greater than 3 mm to 25 mm
Dry Snow
0.12 0.25
snow depth 3 mm or less
Dry snow on ice
0.08 0.27
0.23 0.47
Bare ice
0.07 0.22
0 .1 .2 .3 .4 .5 .6 .7 .8 .9 1
Minimum braking CRFI Maximum braking
AIR
Dry Snow on Ice (depth 3 mm or less) No Limit 0.4
Dry Snow on Ice (depth 3 to 25 mm) No Limit 0.4
Dry Snow on Packed Snow (depth 3 mm or less) 0.1 0.4
Dry Snow on Packed Snow (depth 3 to 25 mm) 0.1 0.4
Dry Snow on Pavement (depth 3 mm or less) 0.1 Dry Pavement
Dry Snow on Pavement (depth 3 mm to 25 mm) 0.1 Dry Pavement
1.7 JET AND PROPELLER BLAST DANGER shown in Figure 1.1 may need to be increased significantly. Pilots
should exercise caution when operating near active runways and
Jet aircraft are classified into three categories according to engine
taxiways. With the use of intersecting runways, there is an increased
size. The danger areas are similar to those shown in Figure 1.1
possibility of jet blast or propeller wash affecting other aircraft at
and are used by ground control personnel and pilots. The danger
the aerodrome. This can occur while both aircraft are on the
areas have been determined for ground idle and take-off thrust
ground or about to take off or land. Pilots taxiing in close proximity
settings associated with each category.
to active runways should be careful when their jet blast or propeller
As newer aircraft are designed to handle more weight, larger wash is directed towards an active runway. Pilots operating behind
engines are being used. Executive jets may have thrusts of up to a large aircraft, whether on the ground or in the take-off or landing
15 000 lb; medium jets may have thrusts of up to 35 000 lb; and phase, should be aware of the possibility of encountering localized
some jumbo jets now have thrusts in excess of 100 000 lb. Therefore, high wind velocities.
caution should be used when interpreting the danger areas for
ground idle and take-off thrust settings, as some of the distances
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
200 ft
450 ft 1 200 ft
600 ft 1 600 ft
500 ft
250 ft 80 ft
150 ft
275 ft
Table 1.6—Expected Large Turbo-Prop Blast Speed (a) for fixed-wing aircraft, on the left side of the aircraft,
where best seen by the pilot; and
DISTANCE (b) for helicopters, where the marshaller can best be seen
LEAVING
BEHIND TAXIING TAKING OFF by the pilot.
PARKED AREA
PROPELLERS
2. The aircraft engines are numbered from left to right, with
ft kt kt kt
the No. 1 engine being the left outer engine. That is right
60 59 45 – to left for a marshaller facing the aircraft.
80 47 36 60–70 3. Signals marked with an asterisk (*) are designed for use
100 47 36 50–60 with hovering helicopters.
120 36 28 40–50
140 36 28 35–45
180 – – 20–30
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
2. Identify gate
Raise fully extended arms
straight above head with
wands pointing up.
6. b) Emergency stop
Abruptly extend arms and
wands to top of head,
crossing wands.
3. Proceed to next
marshaller as directed
by tower/ground control
Point both arms upward; 7. a) Set brakes
move and extend arms Raise hand just above
outward to sides of body and shoulder height with open
point with wands to direction palm. Ensuring eye contact
of next marshaller or taxi with flight crew, close hand
area. into a fist. Do not move
until receipt of “thumbs up”
AIR
acknowledgement from flight
crew.
4. Straight ahead
Bend extended arms at 7. b) Release brakes
elbows and move wands up Raise hand just above
and down from chest height shoulder height with hand
to head. closed in a fist. Ensuring
eye contact with flight crew,
open palm. Do not move
until receipt of “thumbs up”
acknowledgement from flight
crew.
8. a) Chocks inserted
5. a) Turn left (from pilot’s With arms and wands fully
point of view) extended above head, move
With right arm and wand wands inward in a “jabbing”
extended at a 90-degree motion until wands touch.
angle to body, make “come Ensure acknowledgement is
ahead” signal with left hand. received from flight crew.
The rate of signal motion
indicates to pilot the rate of
aircraft turn.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
12.
AIR
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
AIR
Establish
angle to sides. Hold position
until aircraft is clear for communication via
next manoeuvre. interphone (technical/
servicing
communication signal)
Extend both arms at 90
degrees from body and move
23. Dispatch aircraft hands to cup both ears.
Perform a standard salute
with right hand and/or wand 29.
to dispatch the aircraft. Open/close stairs
Maintain eye contact with (technical/servicing
flight crew until aircraft has communication signal)
begun to taxi. With right arm at side and left
arm raised above head at a
45-degree angle, move right
24. Do not touch controls arm in a sweeping motion
(technical/servicing towards top of left shoulder.
communication signal) NOTE:This signal is intended
Extend right arm fully above mainly for aircraft with the set
head and close fist or hold of integral stairs at the front.
wand in horizontal position;
left arm remains at side
by knee.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
to 0.2 (20%) of their stalling speed. 15° using crosswind component graph 40 kt
This information in conjunction with the known stalling speed
of a particular aircraft makes it possible to use the following 2.3 CARBURETOR ICING
crosswind component graph to derive a “general rule” for most Carburetor icing is a common cause of general aviation accidents.
light aircraft manufactured in the United States. The aircraft Fuel injected engines have very few induction system icing
owner’s manual may give higher or limiting crosswinds. Examples accidents, but otherwise no aeroplane and engine combination
follow. stands out. Most carburetor icing related engine failure happens
during normal cruise. Possibly, this is a result of decreased pilot
awareness that carburetor icing will occur at high power settings
as well as during descents with reduced power.
In most accidents involving carburetor icing, the pilot has not
fully understood the carburetor heat system of the aircraft and
what occurs when it is selected. Moreover, it is difficult to
understand the countermeasures unless the process of ice
formation in the carburetor is understood. Detailed descriptions
of this process are available in most good aviation reference
publications and any AME employed on type can readily explain
the carburetor heat system. The latter is especially important
because of differences in systems. The pilot must learn to accept
a rough-running engine for a minute or so as the heat melts and
loosens the ice which is then ingested into the engine.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
UD
Moderate icing—cruise power of damage that the bird may cause, and it is recommended that
C LO
Serious icing—descent power +10º
G/
FO aircraft do not travel at low altitudes when possible to decrease
Serious icing— this potential risk.
descent power 0º Dew point (°C)
Light icing—cruise Conversely, low flying can also pose a danger to wildlife and
or descent power
ty
-10º
farm animals. Refer to AIP Canada ENR paragraphs 5.6.5
idi
0% H
um
and 5.6.6.
10 ive
%
%
20
lat
%
60
40
-20º
80
Re
NOTE: Pilots need to be aware that RPA present a new hazard at low
This chart is not valid when operating on MOGAS. Due to its altitudes. RPA are difficult to see at distances necessary to avoid
higher volatility, MOGAS is more susceptible to the formation collision with other aircraft because they are relatively small
of carburetor icing. In severe cases, ice may form at OATs up to and for the most part present low contrast against the available
20°C higher than with AVGAS. background. Several collisions with other aircraft have occurred
despite the requirement for RPA pilots to give way to traditional
aircraft that are typically travelling at a much higher speed.
2.4 LOW FLYING
Because it is low flying, the RPA is exposed to the same hazards
Warning—Intentional low flying is hazardous. Transport identified herein and increasingly so with the introduction of
Canada advises pilots that low flying, especially for weather beyond visual line-of-sight (BVLOS) operations such as power
avoidance, is a high-risk activity. transmission line inspection and pipeline inspection. But RPA
have additional hazards in the form of objects (e.g. buildings)
Before conducting any low flying, the pilot should be clear about that can result in loss of visual contact or disruption of the radio
the purpose and legality of the exercise. Accordingly, all link. Refer to RPA 3.2.11.2.
preparations in terms of assessment of the terrain to be overflown,
obstacles along the flight path, weather conditions, aircraft 2.4.3 Flying Near High-Voltage Power Lines
performance, and selection of appropriate charts are important
for safe completion of the flight. Wire-strikes account for a significant number of low flying
accidents. A number of these accidents occur over level terrian,
Normally, 300 ft AGL high objects or more (or lower ones if
AIR
in good weather, and at very low altitudes.
deemed hazardous) are depicted on visual navigational charts.
However, because there is only limited knowledge over the The line of structures of high voltage powerlines are easy to see,
erection of man-made objects, there can be no guarantee that but when flying in their vicinity, pilots must take the time to
all such structures are known. Also, an object which is known look for what is really there and use safe procedures. The human
may not yet be included for the amendment cycle of the chart. eye has limitations, so if the background landscape does not
Thus, an additional risk is added to the already hazardous practice provide sufficient contrast, pilots will not see a wire or cable.
of low flying. Although hydro structures are big and generally quite visible, a
hidden danger exists in the wires between them.
Furthermore, even though structures assessed as potential
hazards to air navigation are required to be marked, including Figure 2.3—Flying Near Powerlines
special high-intensity strobe lighting for all structures 500 ft
AGL and higher, the majority of aircraft collisions with man-
made structures occur at levels below 300 ft AGL (see AGA 6.0).
Low flying can imply a constrained situation in which it may
be difficult to take the normal evasive action to widely avoid an
obstacle. In such an instance, guy wires that can be up to 45°
from a tower become of importance. There have been incidents
in which the tower itself was avoided, but a guy wire was struck
by the aircraft.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
The figure shown above emphasizes this point. The bundle of 2.4.5 Logging Operations
current-carrying phase conductors is made up of several heavy
Extensive use is made in logging operations of equipment
wires. These heavy, sagging phase conductors are about 2 in. in
potentially hazardous to aircraft operations. These include
diameter and are relatively visible, so they tend to distract pilots
highlead spars, grapple yarders and skyline cranes.
from seeing the upper shield or lightning protection wires, which
are of much smaller diameter and may not be visible. When highlead spars or grapple yarders are used, hauling and
guyline cables radiate from the top of the spar or boom. Cables
The shield wires do not sag the way the phase conductors do
may cross small valleys or be anchored on side hills behind the
and are difficult to pick out even in good visibility. The only way
spar. While spars generally do not exceed 130 ft AGL and are
to be safe is to avoid the span portion of the line and always
conspicuously painted, the cable system may be difficult to see.
cross at a tower, maintaining a safe altitude and as much clearance
This type of equipment operates from a series of logging roads.
as possible.
(a) When following power lines, remain on the right-hand side Figure 2.5—Highlead Spar
relative to the direction of the flight and watch for other
crossing powerlines and guy cables. Note that sometimes
only one side of the powerline is available to fly along safely
(due to trees, obstacles, rising terrain, etc.).
(b) Expect radio and electrical interference in the vicinity of
powerlines.
(c) For operational low flying, do an overflight and map
check first.
(d) Leave yourself an “out”—cross at 45° to the line.
(e) Reduce speed in lower visibilities.
By contrast, skyline cranes consist of a single skyline cable
2.4.4 Transmission Line Catenaries
anchored at the top and bottom of a long slope and supported
Transmission line catenaries pose a particular risk to low flying by one or several intermediate poles. This cable generally follows
aircraft. the slope contour about 100 ft AGL but may also cross draws
and gullies and may be at heights in excess of 100 ft AGL. Skyline
In contrast to distribution powerlines, which are usually of low
cables are virtually invisible from the air. Their presence is
voltage and tend to follow a roadway, transmission powerlines
indicated by active or recently completed logging and the absence
are typically high voltage (more than 69 kV) and extend across
of a defined series of logging roads, although a few roads may
the countryside from a generating source to a distant load centre.
be present.
In the process, they cross over major roadways, rivers, valleys,
or straits for which the wires may or may not be marked depending Pilots operating in areas where logging is prevalent must be
on height and local air traffic conditions. Pilots operating at low aware when operating below 300 ft AGL that these types of
altitudes must make themselves aware of these crossings and equipment exist and do not always carry standard obstacle
exercise extreme caution. paint markings.
AIR
Where markers are provided, they are usually placed on the 2.4.6 Hydrokinetic Energy System
highest line, which is the shield wire for lightning protection.
However, because of design issues, the markers may be located A situation similar to logging occurs for a hydrokinetic energy
on the lower phase conductors. The purpose of the markers is system for which energy is produced by a barge carried by
not to indicate the height of the catenary, but rather the presence incoming and outgoing tides. The cable runs through an
of an obstacle, as shown in Figure 2.4 below. underwater pulley base to a winch house located on the side of
the estuary. As the barge is pulled with the tide, the cable is
As in the case of flying near powerlines (2.4.1), the pilot should placed in tension and is exposed away from a cliff side, as shown
always fly above the height of the support structures. in Figure 2.6. Only the winch house may be marked. Pilots should
take care when flying in areas that may have such energy
Figure 2.4—Flying Over Catenaries
systems installed.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
2.4.7 Wind Farms with a Dimming System Pilots should remember this additional hazard when flying in
conditions of low visibility in rain and should maintain sufficient
Some wind farms may have a dimming system that changes the
altitude and take other precautions, as necessary, to allow for
intensity of the wind-turbine lighting according to measured
the presence of this error. Also, pilots should ensure proper
visibility. This is for the purpose of addressing residential
terrain clearance during en route flight and on final approach
complaints about the glare received from beacon lights on the
to landing.
nacelle. As visibility improves, lighting intensity is reduced. The
wind farm has numerous visibility sensors installed on selected
wind turbines so that the intensity reduction is not dependent 2.6 FLIGHT OPERATIONS IN
upon a single sensor. The determined intensity is that associated VOLCANIC ASH
with the worst reported visibility amongst the community of Flight operations in volcanic ash are hazardous. Experience has
visibility sensors. shown that damage can occur to aircraft surfaces, windshields
Pilots should note that there can be a rare situation when the and powerplants. Aircraft heat and vent systems, as well as
weather condition they are flying in has not yet reached a sensor hydraulic and electronic systems, can also be contaminated.
on the wind farm. In short, the windfarm might be sensing, at Powerplant failures are a common result of flight in volcanic
its location, a higher visibility than that of the pilot. In such a ash, with turbine engines being particularly susceptible.
situation, the reduced intensity of lights at the wind farm should Simultaneous power loss in all engines has occurred. In addition,
still be sufficient to provide adequate acquisition distance for volcanic ash is normally very heavy; accumulations of it within
avoidance when flying at the night minimum of 3 statute the wings and tail section have been encountered, with adverse
miles (SM). However, choosing to fly at significantly below effects on aircraft weight and balance.
minimum visibility can result in inadequate acquisition distance Aviation ATS surveillance is not effective in detecting volcanic
being available. Therefore, pilots should avoid flying in reduced ash clouds. There is no reliable information regarding volcanic
visibility in areas that may have a wind farm. ash concentrations which might be minimally acceptable for
flight. Recent data suggests that “old” volcanic ash still represents
2.4.8 Blasting Operations a considerable hazard to safety of flight. Pilots are cautioned
that ash from volcanic eruptions can rapidly reach heights in
Blasting operations such as those associated with the logging
excess of FL 600 and be blown downwind of the source for
industry, mining, and construction are also a concern when it
considerable distances. Encounters affecting aircraft performance
comes to low flying. The trajectory of debris from blasting varies
have occurred 2 400 NM from the ash source and up to 72 hours
with the type of explosive, the material being excavated, and any
after an eruption.
tree canopies, if any. These blasting activities may not be
advertised by a NOTAM. Therefore: if an ash cloud is visible to a pilot, entry into the cloud
must be avoided.
Figure 2.7—Blasting Operations
The risk of entering ash in IMC or night conditions is particularly
dangerous, owing to the absence of a clear visual warning.
Therefore: if PIREPs, SIGMETs (see MET 6.0), NOTAM (see
MAP 3.0), and analysis of satellite imagery and/or ash cloud
AIR
trajectory forecasts indicate that ash might be present within a
given airspace, that airspace must be avoided until it can be
determined to be safe for entry.
St. Elmo’s fire is usually a telltale sign of a night encounter,
although rapid onset of engine problems may be the first
2.5 FLIGHT OPERATIONS IN RAIN indication. Pilots should exit the cloud expeditiously while
following any engine handling instructions provided in the
An error in vision can occur when flying in rain. The presence
aircraft flight manuals for such circumstances.
of rain on the windscreen, in addition to causing poor visibility,
introduces a refraction error. This error is because of two things: Pilots should be aware that they may be the first line of volcanic
firstly, the reduced transparency of the rain-covered windscreen eruptions detection in more remote areas. In the initial phase
causes the eye to see a horizon below the true one (because of of any eruption there may be little or no information available
the eye response to the relative brightness of the upper bright to advise pilots of the new ash hazard. If an eruption or ash cloud
part and the lower dark part); and secondly, the shape and pattern is observed, an urgent PIREP (see MET 2.5 and 2.1.1) should be
of the ripples formed on the windscreen, particularly on sloping filed with the nearest ATS unit.
ones, which cause objects to appear lower. The error may be
present as a result of one or other of the two causes, or of both,
in which case it is cumulative and is of the order of about 5° in
angle. Therefore, a hilltop or peak 1/2 NM ahead of an aircraft
could appear to be approximately 260 ft lower, (230 ft lower at
1/2 SM) than it actually is.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
the terminal falling velocity of the falling raindrops, very high be rapid and may result in almost instantaneous power failure
concentrations of water may occur. It is possible that these or airspeed indication loss.
concentrations may exceed the quantity of water that a turbine
engine is capable of ingesting. Therefore, severe thunderstorms (e) Set the power settings for turbulence penetration airspeed
may contain areas of high water concentration which could recommended in your aircraft manual.
result in a flameout or structural failure of one or more engines. (f) Turn up cockpit lights to its highest intensity to minimize
Note that lightning can also cause compressor stalls or flameouts. temporary blindness from lightning.
PIREP (g) When using the auto-pilot, disengage the altitude hold mode
and the speed hold mode. The automatic altitude and speed
Remember, a timely PIREP will allow you and others to make
controls will increase manoeuvres of the aircraft, thus
the right decision earlier.
increasing structural stresses.
(h) Tilt the airborne radar antenna up and down occasionally.
This may detect hail or a growing thunderstorm cell.
If you enter a thunderstorm:
(a) Concentrate on your instruments; looking outside increases
the danger of temporary blindness from lightning.
(b) Don’t change power settings; maintain the settings for
turbulence penetration airspeed.
(c) Don’t attempt to keep a constant rigid altitude; let the aircraft
“ride the waves”. Manoeuvres in trying to maintain constant
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
altitude increases stress on the aircraft. If altitude cannot area are common and should be expected.
be maintained, inform ATC as soon as possible.
The best defence against wind shear is to avoid it altogether
(d) Don’t turn back once you have entered a thunderstorm. because it could be beyond your capabilities or those of your
Maintaining heading through the storm will get you out of aircraft. However, if you do recognize WS, prompt action is
the storm faster than a turn. In addition, turning manoeuvres required. In all aircraft, the recovery could require full power
increases stress on the aircraft and a pitch attitude consistent with the maximum angle of attack
for your aircraft. Aircraft equipped with wind shear detection
2.8 LOW-LEVEL WIND SHEAR (WS) and warning systems may be provided with guidance to escape
WS or, in the case of Predictive Wind Shear Systems (PWSs), to
Relatively recent meteorological studies have confirmed the
avoid it (see MET 2.3). For more information on WS, consult
existence of the “burst” phenomena. These are small-scale,
the Air Command Weather Manual (TP 9352E).
intense downdrafts which, on reaching the surface, spread
outward from the downflow centre. This causes the presence of If you experience WS, advise air traffic services (ATS) (see
both vertical and horizontal wind shear (WS) that can be RAC 6.1) and warn others, as soon as possible, by sending a
extremely hazardous to all types and categories of aircraft. PIREP to the ground facility.
Wind shear may create a severe hazard for aircraft within 1 000 ft
AGL, particularly during the approach to landing and in the
takeoff phases. On takeoff, this aircraft may encounter a headwind
(performance increasing) (1) followed by a downdraft (2), and
tailwind (3) (both performance decreasing).
AIR
Pilots should heed wind shear pilot weather reports (PIREPs)
as a previous pilot’s encounter with a wind shear may be the
only warning. Alternate actions should be considered when a
wind shear has been reported. Vortex Strength
Characteristics of microbursts include: The strength of these vortices is governed by the shape of the
Size - Approximately 1 NM in diameter at 2 000 ft AGL with a wings, and the weight and speed of the aircraft; the most
horizontal extent at the surface of approximately 2 to 2 1/2 NM. significant factor is weight. The greatest vortex strength occurs
under conditions of heavy weight, clean configuration, and slow
Intensity - Vertical winds as high as 6 000 ft/min. Horizontal speed. The strength of the vortex shows little dissipation at
winds giving as much as 45 kt at the surface (i.e. 90 kt shear). altitude within 2 min of the time of initial formation. Beyond
Types - microbursts are normally accompanied by heavy rain 2 min, varying degrees of dissipation occur along the vortex
in areas where the air is very humid. However, in drier areas, path; first in one vortex and then in the other. The break-up of
falling raindrops may have sufficient time and distance to vortices is affected by atmospheric turbulence; the greater the
evaporate before reaching the ground. This is known as VIRGA. turbulence, the more rapid the dissipation of the vortices.
Duration - The life-cycle of a microburst from the initial downburst Induced Roll
to dissipation will seldom be longer than 15 minutes with maximum
Aircraft flying directly into the core of a vortex will tend to roll
intensity winds lasting approximately 2 - 4 minutes. Sometimes
with the vortex. The capability of counteracting the roll depends
microbursts are concentrated into a line structure and under these
on the wing span and control responsiveness of the aircraft.
conditions, activity may continue for as long as an hour. Once
When the wing span and ailerons of a larger aircraft extend
microburst activity starts, multiple microbursts in the same general
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
beyond the vortex, counter-roll control is usually effective, and wind condition can move the vortices of the preceding landing
the effect of the induced roll can be minimized. Pilots of short aircraft forward into the touchdown zone.
wing span aircraft must be especially alert to vortex situations,
Since vortex cores can produce a roll rate of 80° per second or
even though their aircraft are of the high-performance type.
twice the capabilities of some light aircraft and a downdraft of
Helicopter Vortices 1 500 feet per minute which exceeds the rate of climb of many
aircraft, the following precautions are recommended.
In the case of a helicopter, similar vortices are created by the
rotor blades. However, the problems created are potentially Pilots should be particularly alert in calm or light wind conditions
greater than those caused by a fixed-wing aircraft because the where the vortices could:
helicopter’s lower operating speeds produce more concentrated (a) remain in the touchdown area;
wakes than fixed-wing aircraft.
(b) drift from aircraft operating on a nearby runway;
Helicopters produce a pair of high-velocity trailing vortices
(c) sink into takeoff or landing path from a crossing runway;
similar to wingtip vortices of large fixed-wing aircraft; the heavier
the helicopter, the more intense the wake turbulence. These (d) sink into the traffic pattern from other runway operations;
vortices not only affect the air behind a helicopter but can also (e) sink into the flight path of VFR flights at 500 feet AGL and
spread over a large area and drift with the wind. Pilots of small below.
aircraft should use caution and adjust their trajectory when
operating or crossing behind helicopters. Helicopter pilots must
2.9.2 Considerations
be aware that their wake turbulence can be fatal for lighter aircraft
nearby and slightly below the flight path. Helicopter pilots should On the ground
adapt their trajectory if their wake turbulence can reach another
aircraft. Before requesting clearance to cross a live runway, wait a few minutes
when a large aircraft has just taken off or landed.
Vortex Avoidance When holding near a runway, expect wake turbulence.
Avoid the area below and behind other aircraft, especially at low
altitude, where even a momentary wake turbulence encounter Takeoff
could be disastrous. When cleared to takeoff following the departure of a large aircraft,
plan to become airborne prior to the point of rotation of the
2.9.1 Vortex Characteristics preceding aircraft and stay above the departure path or request a
turn to avoid the departure path.
General
When cleared to takeoff following the landing of a large aircraft,
Trailing vortices have characteristics which, when known, will plan to become airborne after the point of touchdown of the
help a pilot visualize the wake location and thereby take avoidance landing aircraft
precautions. Vortex generation starts with rotation (lifting off
of the nosewheel) and will be severe in that airspace immediately En route VFR
following the point of rotation. Vortex generation ends when Avoid flight below and behind a large aircraft. If a large aircraft
AIR
the nosewheel of a landing aircraft touches down. is observed along the same track (meeting or overtaking), adjust
Because of ground effect and wind, a vortex produced within position laterally preferably upwind.
about 200 feet AGL tends to be subject to lateral drift movements
and may return to where it started. Below 100 feet AGL, the Landing
vortices tend to separate laterally and break up more rapidly When cleared to land behind a departing aircraft, plan to
than vortex systems at higher altitude. The vortex sink rate and touchdown prior to reaching the rotation point of the departing
levelling off process result in little operational effect between aircraft.
an aircraft in level flight and other aircraft separated by 1 000 feet
When behind a large aircraft landing on the same runway, stay
vertically. Pilots should fly at or above a heavy jet’s flight path,
at or above the preceding aircraft’s final approach flight path,
altering course as necessary to avoid the area behind and below
note the touchdown point and land beyond this point if it is safe
the generating aircraft. Vortices start to descend immediately
to do so.
after formation and descend at the rate of 400 to 500 feet per
minute for large heavy aircraft and at a lesser rate for smaller When cleared to land behind a large aircraft on a low approach
aircraft, but in all cases, descending less than l 000 feet in total or on a missed approach on the same runway, beware of vortices
in 2 minutes. that could exist between the other aircraft’s flight path and the
runway surface.
Vortices spread out at a speed of about 5 kt. Therefore, a crosswind
will decrease the lateral movement of the upwind vortex and When landing after a large aircraft on a parallel runway closer
increase the movement of the downwind vortex. Thus, a light than 2 500 feet, beware of possible drifting of the vortex on to
wind of 3 to 7 kt could result in the upwind vortex remaining your runway. Stay at or above the large aircraft’s final approach
in the touchdown zone for a period of time or hasten the drift flight path, note his touchdown point and land beyond if it is
of the downwind vortex toward another runway. Similarly, a tail safe to do so.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
When landing after a large aircraft has departed from a crossing CAT is also related to vertical shear. From the wind-aloft charts
runway, note the rotation point. If it is past the intersection, or reports, compute the vertical shear in knots-per-thousand
continue the approach and land before the intersection. If the feet. Turbulence is likely when the shear is greater than 5 kt per
large aircraft rotates prior to the intersection, avoid flight below thousand feet. Since vertical shear is related to horizontal
the large aircraft’s flight path. Abandon the approach unless a temperature gradient, the spacing of isotherms on an upper air
landing is assured well before reaching the intersection. chart is significant. If the 5°C isotherms are closer together than
2° of latitude (120 NM), there is usually sufficient vertical shear
ATC will use the words “CAUTION – WAKE TURBULENCE” to
for turbulence.
alert pilots to the possibility of wake turbulence. It is the pilots’
responsibility to adjust their operations and flight path to avoid Curving jet streams are more apt to have turbulent edges than
wake turbulence. straight ones, especially jet streams which curve around a deep
pressure trough.
Air traffic controllers apply separation minima between aircraft.
See RAC 4.1.1 for these procedures which are intended to Wind-shift areas associated with troughs are frequently turbulent.
minimize the hazards of wake turbulence. The sharpness of the wind-shift is the important factor. Also,
ridge lines may also have rough air.
An aircraft conducting an IFR final approach should remain on
glide path as the normally supplied separation should provide In an area where significant CAT has been reported or is forecast,
an adequate wake turbulence buffer. However, arriving VFR it is suggested that the pilot adjust the airspeed to the recommended
aircraft, while aiming to land beyond the touchdown point of a turbulent air penetration speed for the aircraft upon encountering
preceding heavy aircraft, should be careful to remain above its the first ripple, since the intensity of such turbulence may build
flight path. If extending flight path, so as to increase the distance up rapidly. In areas where moderate or severe CAT is expected,
behind an arriving aircraft, one should avoid the tendency to it is desirable to adjust the airspeed prior to encountering
develop a dragged-in final approach. Pilots should remember turbulence.
to apply whatever power is required to maintain altitude until
reaching a normal descent path. The largest number of dangerous Figure 2.10—Clear Air Turbulence
encounters have been reported in the last half mile of the final
approach.
Be alert to adjacent large aircraft operations particularly upwind
of your runway. If an intersection takeoff clearance is received,
or parallel and cross runway operations are in progress, avoid
subsequent heading which will result in your aircraft crossing
below and behind a large aircraft.
NOTES:
1. If any of the procedures are not possible and you are on the
ground, WAIT! (2 minutes are usually sufficient). If on an If jet stream turbulence is encountered with direct tailwinds or
approach, consider going around for an other approach. headwinds, a change of flight level or course should be initiated
AIR
since these turbulent areas are elongated with the wind but are
2. See AIR 1.7 for Jet and Propeller Blast Danger.
shallow and narrow. A turn to the south in the Northern
Hemisphere will place the aircraft in a more favourable area. If
2.10 CLEAR AIR TURBULENCE (CAT) a turn is not feasible because of airway restrictions, a climb or
These rules of thumb are given to assist pilots in avoiding clear descent to the next flight level will usually result in smoother
air turbulence (CAT). They apply to westerly jet streams. The air.
Air Command Weather Manual (TP 9352E) available from
When jet stream turbulence is encountered in a crosswind
Transport Canada discusses this subject more thoroughly.
situation, pilots wanting to cross the CAT area more quickly
Jet streams stronger than 110 kt (at the core) have areas of should, either climb or descend based on temperature change.
significant turbulence near them in the sloping tropopause above If temperature is rising – climb; if temperature is falling - descend.
the core, in the jet stream front below the core and on the low- This will prevent following the sloping tropopause or frontal
pressure side of the core. surface and staying in the turbulent area. If the temperature
remains constant, either climb or descend.
Wind shear and its accompanying CAT in jet streams is more
intense above and to the lee of mountain ranges. For this reason, If turbulence is encountered with an abrupt wind-shift associated
CAT should be anticipated whenever the flight path crosses a with a sharp pressure trough, a course should be established to
strong jet stream in the vicinity of a mountain range. cross the trough rather than to fly parallel to it. A change in
flight level is not as likely to reduce turbulence.
On charts for standard isobaric surfaces such as the 250 mbs
charts, 30 kt isotachs spaced closer than 90 NM indicate sufficient If turbulence is expected because of penetration of a sloping
horizontal shear for CAT. This area is normally on the north tropopause, pilots should refer to the temperature. The tropopause
(low-pressure) side of the jet stream axis, but in unusual cases is where the temperature stops decreasing. Turbulence will be
may occur on the south side. most pronounced in the temperature-change zone on the
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
2.11.4 Landing Seaplanes on Glassy Water If icing conditions exceed 30 min or if significant engine vibration
occurs, the engines may be accelerated for approximately 30 s
It is practically impossible to judge altitude when landing a
prior to higher thrust operations. This may occur just prior to
seaplane or skiplane under certain conditions of surface and
takeoff to check engine parameters and ensure normal engine
light. The following procedure should be adopted when such
operation.
conditions exist.
Power assisted approaches and landings should be used although Pilot Requirements
considerably more space will be required. The landing should It is imperative that aircrew inform ATS of the intent to perform
be made as close to the shoreline as possible, and parallel to it, this procedure, prior to entering an active runway.
the height of the aircraft above the surface being judged from
observation of the shoreline. Objects on the surface such as weeds Prior to approaching the active runway holding position, pilots
and weed beds can be used for judging height. The recommended should advise ATS that they will require extra time on the runway
practice is to make an approach down to 200 ft (300 ft to 400 ft threshold for ice shedding or any other potential delay.
where visual aids for judgement of height are not available) and This information is required to ensure a timely departure and
then place the aircraft in a slightly nose high attitude. Adjust to prevent an arriving flight from conducting an unplanned
power to maintain a minimum rate of descent, maintaining the missed approach.
recommended approach speed for the type until the aircraft is
in contact with the surface. Do not “feel for the surface”. At the 2.12.2 Aircraft Contamination on the Ground –
point of contact, the throttle should be eased off gently while Frost, Ice or Snow
maintaining back pressure on the control column to hold a nose
high attitude which will prevent the floats from digging in as General Information: Where frost, ice or snow may reasonably
the aircraft settles into the water. Care must be taken to trim be expected to adhere to the aircraft, the Canadian Aviation
the aircraft properly to ensure that there is no slip or skid at the Regulations require that an inspection or inspections be made
point of contact. before takeoff or attempted takeoff. The type and minimum
number of inspections is indicated by the regulations, and depends
This procedure should be practised to give the pilot full confidence. on whether or not the operator has an approved Operator’s
It is recommended that the same procedure be used for unbroken Ground Icing Operations Program using the Ground Icing
snow conditions. Operations Standard as specified in CAR 602.11 – Operating
and Flight Rules Standards.
2.12 FLIGHT OPERATIONS IN WINTER
The reasons for the regulations are straightforward. The
2.12.1 General degradation in aircraft performance and changes in flight
characteristics when frozen contaminants are present are wide
The continuing number of accidents involving all types and ranging and unpredictable. Contamination makes no distinction
classes of aircraft indicates that misconceptions exist regarding between large aircraft, small aircraft or helicopters, the
the effect on performance of frost, snow or ice accumulation on performance penalites and dangers are just as real.
aircraft.
The significance of these effects are such that takeoff should not
Most commercial transport aircraft, as well as some other aircraft
AIR
be attempted unless the pilot-in-command has determined, as
types, have demonstrated some capability to fly in icing conditions required by the CARs, that frost ice or snow contamination is
and have been so certified. This capacity is provided by installing not adhering to any aircraft critical surfaces.
de-icing or anti-icing equipment on or in critical areas of
equipment, such as the leading edges of the wings and empennage, Critical Surfaces: Critical surfaces of an aircraft mean the
engine cowls, compressor inlets, propellers, stall warning devices, wings, control surfaces, rotors, propellers, horizontal stabilizers,
windshields and pitots. However, this equipment does not provide vertical stabilizers or any other stabilizing surface of an aircraft
any means of de-icing or anti-icing the wings or empennage of which, in the case of an aircraft that has rear-mounted engines,
an aircraft that is on the ground. includes the upper surface of its fuselage.
Flight safety during ground operations in conditions conducive
2.12.1.1 Fan Blade Ice Shedding Procedure to frost, ice or snow contamination requires a knowledge of:
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
(c) holdover time, which is the estimated time that an application in a heated hanger, ensure it is completely dry when moved
of an approved de-icing/anti-icing fluid is effective in outside; otherwise, pooled water may refreeze in critical areas
preventing frost, ice, or snow from adhering to treated or on critical surfaces.
surfaces. Holdover time is calculated as beginning at the
A frost that forms overnight must be removed from the critical
start of the final application of an approved de-icing/anti-
surfaces before takeoff. Frost can be removed by placing the
icing fluid and as expiring when the fluid is no longer
aircraft in a heated hangar or by other normal de–icing procedures.
effective. The fluid is no longer effective when its ability to
absorb more precipitation has been exceeded. This produces The Cold-Soaking Phenomenon: Where fuel tanks are located
a visible surface build-up of contamination. Recognition in the wings of aircraft, the temperature of the fuel greatly affects
that final assurance of a safe takeoff rests in the pre-takeoff the temperature of the wing surface above and below these tanks.
inspection. After a flight, the temperature of an aircraft and the fuel carried
in the wing tanks may be considerably colder than the ambient
(d) The Clean Aircraft Concept: CARs prohibit takeoff when
temperature. An aircraft’s cold-soaked wings conduct heat away
frost, ice or snow is adhering to any critical surface of the
from precipitation so that, depending on a number of factors,
aircraft. This is referred to as “The Clean Aircraft Concept”.
clear ice may form on some aircraft, particularly on wing areas
It is imperative that takeoff not be attempted in any aircraft above the fuel tanks. Such ice is difficult to see and, in many
unless the pilot-in-command has determined that all critical instances, cannot be detected other than by touch with the bare
components of the aircraft are free of frost, ice or snow hand or by means of a special purpose ice detector.
contamination. This requirement may be met if the pilot-in-
Clear ice formations could break loose at rotation or during
command obtains verification from properly trained and
flight, causing engine damage on some aircraft types, primarily
qualified personnel that the aircraft is ready for flight.
those with rear-mounted engines. A layer of slush on the wing
Frozen Contaminants: Test data indicate that frost, ice or snow can also hide a dangerous sheet of ice beneath.
formations having a thickness and surface roughness similar to
The formation of ice on the wing is dependent on the type, depth
medium or coarse sandpaper, on the leading edge and upper
and liquid content of precipitation, ambient air temperature and
surface of a wing, can reduce wing lift by as much as 30% and
wing surface temperature. The following factors contribute to
increase drag by 40%. Even small amounts of contaminants have
the formation intensity and the final thickness of the clear ice
caused (and continue to cause) aircraft accidents which result
layer:
in substantial damage and loss of life. A significant part of the
loss of lift can be attributed to leading edge contamination. The (a) low temperature of the fuel uplifted by the aircraft during
changes in lift and drag significantly increase stall speed, reduce a ground stop and/or the long airborne time of the previous
controllability, and alter aircraft flight characteristics. Thicker flight, resulting in a situation that the remaining fuel in the
or rougher frozen contaminants can have increasing effects on wing tanks is subzero. Fuel temperature drops of up to 18°C
lift, drag, stall speed, stability and control. have been recorded after a flight of two hours;
More than 30 factors have been identified that can influence (b) an abnormally large amount of cold fuel remaining in the
whether frost, ice or snow will accumulate, cause surface wing tanks causing fuel to come in contact with the wing
roughness on an aircraft and affect the anti-icing properties of upper surface panels, especially in the wing root area;
AIR
freezing point depressant fluids. These factors include ambient (c) weather conditions at the ground stop, wet snow, drizzle or
temperature; aircraft surface temperature; the de-icing and rain with the ambient temperature around 0°C is very critical.
anti-icing fluid type, temperature and concentration; relative Heavy freezing has been reported during drizzle or rain
humidity; and wind speed and direction. Because many factors even in a temperature range between +8° to +14°C.
affect the accumulation of frozen contaminants on the aircraft
surface, holdover times for freezing point depressant fluids As well, cold-soaking can cause frost to form on the upper and
should be considered as guidelines only, unless the operator’s lower wing under conditions of high relative humidity. This is
ground icing operations program allows otherwise. one type of contamination that can occur in above-freezing
weather at airports where there is normally no need for de-icing
The type of frost, ice or snow that can accumulate on an aircraft equipment, or where the equipment is deactivated for the summer.
while on the ground is a key factor in determining the type of This contamination typically occurs where the fuel in the wing
de-icing/anti-icing procedures that should be used. tanks becomes cold-soaked to below-freezing temperatures
Where conditions are such that ice or snow may reasonably be because of low temperature fuel uplifted during the previous
expected to adhere to the aircraft, it must be removed before stop, or cruising at altitudes where low temperatures are
takeoff. Dry, powdery snow can be removed by blowing cold air encountered, or both, and a normal descent is made into a region
or compressed nitrogen gas across the aircraft surface. In some of high humidity.
circumstances, a shop broom could be employed to clean certain In such instances, frost will form on the under and upper sides
areas accessible from the ground. Heavy, wet snow or ice can be of the fuel tank region during the ground turn-around time,
removed by placing the aircraft in a heated hangar, by using and tends to re-form quickly even when removed.
solutions of heated freezing point depressant fluids and water,
by mechanical means (such as brooms or squeegees), or a Frost initially forms as individual grains about 0.004 of an inch
combination of all three methods. Should the aircraft be placed in diameter. Additional build-up comes through grain growth
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
from 0.010 to 0.015 of an inch in diameter, grain layering, and Type II fluids should be used on aircraft with rotation speeds (Vr)
the formation of frost needles. Available test data indicate that above 100 KIAS. Degradation could be significant on aeroplanes
this roughness on the wing lower surface will have no significant with rotation speeds below this figure.
effect on lift, but it may increase drag and thereby decrease climb
As with any de-icing or anti-icing fluid, SAE and ISO Type II
gradient capability which results in a second segment limiting
fluids should not be applied unless the aircraft manufacturer
weight penalty.
has approved their use, regardless of rotation speed. Aircraft
Skin temperature should be increased to preclude formation of manufacturers’ manuals may give further guidance on the
ice or frost prior to take-off. This is often possible by refuelling acceptability of SAE and ISO Type II fluids for specific aircraft.
with warm fuel or using hot freezing point depressant fluids, or
Some fluid residue may remain throughout the flight. The aircraft
both.
manufacturer should have determined that this residue would
In any case, ice or frost formations on upper or lower wing have little or no effect on aircraft performance or handling
surfaces must be removed prior to takeoff. The exception is that qualities in aerodynamically quiet areas; however, this residue
takeoff may be made with frost adhering to the underside of the should be cleaned periodically.
wings provided it is conducted in accordance with the aircraft
SAE and ISO Type II fluids contain no less than 50% glycol and
manufacturer’s instructions.
have a minimum freeze point of -32°C. They are considered
De-Icing and Anti-Icing Fluids: Frozen contaminants are most “thickened” because of added thickening agents that enable the
often removed in commercial operations by using freezing point fluid to be deposited in a thicker film and to remain on the
depressant fluids. There are a number of freezing point depressant aircraft surfaces until the time of takeoff. These fluids are used
fluids available for use on commercial aircraft and, to a lesser for de-icing (when heated) and anti-icing. Type II fluids provide
extent, on general aviation aircraft. De-icing and anti-icing fluids greater protection (holdover time) than do Type I fluids against
should not be used unless approved by the aircraft manufacturer. frost, ice or snow formation in conditions conducive to aircraft
icing on the ground.
Although freezing point depressant fluids are highly soluble in
water, they absorb or melt ice slowly. If frost, ice or snow is These fluids are effective anti-icers because of their high viscosity
adhering to an aircraft surface, the accumulation can be melted and pseudoplastic behaviour. They are designed to remain on
by repeated application of proper quantities of freezing point the wings of an aircraft during ground operations or short-term
depressant fluid. As the ice melts, the freezing point depressant storage, thereby providing some anti-icing protection and will
mixes with the water, thereby diluting the freezing point readily flow off the wings during takeoff. When these fluids are
depressant. As dilution occurs, the resulting mixture may begin subjected to shear stress (such as that experienced during a
to run off the aircraft. If all the ice is not melted, additional takeoff run), their viscosity decreases drastically, allowing the
application of freezing point depressant becomes necessary until fluids to flow off the wings and causing little adverse effect on
the fluid penetrates to the aircraft surface. When all the ice has the aircraft’s aerodynamic performance.
melted, the remaining liquid residue is a mixture of freezing
The pseudoplastic behaviour of SAE and ISO Type II fluids can
point depressant and water at an unknown concentration. The
be altered by improper de-icing/anti-icing equipment or handling.
resulting film could freeze (begin to crystallize) rapidly with
Therefore, some North American airlines have updated de-icing
only a slight temperature decrease. If the freezing point of the
and anti-icing equipment, fluid storage facilities, de-icing and
AIR
film is found to be insufficient, the de-icing procedure must be
anti-icing procedures, quality control procedures, and training
repeated until the freezing point of the remaining film is sufficient
programs to accommodate these distinct characteristics. Testing
to ensure safe operation.
indicates that SAE and ISO Type II fluids, if applied with improper
The de-icing process can be sped up considerably by using the equipment, may lose 20% to 60% of their anti-icing performance.
thermal energy of heated fluids and the physical energy of high-
All Type II fluids are not necessarily compatible with all Type I
pressure spray equipment, as is the common practice.
fluids; therefore, you should refer to the fluid manufacturer or
SAE and ISO Type I Fluids: These fluids in the concentrated supplier for further information. As well, the use of Type II fluid
form contain a minimum of 80% glycol and are considered over badly contaminated Type I fluid will reduce the effectiveness
“unthickened” because of their relatively low viscosity. These of the Type II fluid.
fluids are used for de-icing or anti-icing, but provide very limited
SAE and ISO Type II fluids were introduced in North America
anti-icing protection.
in 1985, with widespread use beginning to occur in 1990. Similar
SAE and ISO Type II Fluids: Fluids, such as those identified fluids, but with slight differences in characteristics, have been
as SAE Type II and ISO Type II, will last longer in conditions of developed, introduced, and used in Canada.
precipitation. They afford greater margins of safety if they are
Type III Fluids: Type III is a thickened freezing point depressant
used in accordance with aircraft manufacturers’ recommendations.
fluid which has properties that lie between Types I and II. Therefore,
Flight tests performed by manufacturers of transport category it provides a longer holdover time than Type I, but less than Type II.
aircraft have shown that most SAE and ISO Type II fluids flow Its shearing and flow-off characteristics are designed for aircraft
off lifting surfaces by rotation speeds (Vr), although some large that have a shorter time to the rotation point. This should make
aircraft do experience performance degradation and may require it acceptable for some aircraft that have a Vr of less than 100 KIAS.
weight or other takeoff compensation. Therefore, SAE and ISO
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
The SAE had approved a specification in AMS1428A for Type 2.12.3 Aircraft Contamination in Flight – In-flight
III anti-icing fluids that can be used on those aircraft with rotation Airframe Icing
speeds significantly lower than the large jet rotation speeds,
Airframe icing can be a serious weather hazard to fixed and
which are 100 KIAS or greater. No fluid has yet been identified
rotary wing aircraft in flight. Icing will result in a loss of
that can meet the entire Type III fluid specification. Pending
performance in the following areas:
publication of a Type III Holdover Time Table and availability
of suitable fluids, the Union Carbide Type IV fluid in 75/25 (a) ice accretion on lifting surfaces will change their aerodynamic
dilution may be used for anti-icing purposes on low rotation properties resulting in a reduction in lift, increase in drag
speed aircraft, but only in accordance with aircraft and fluid and weight with a resultant increase in stalling speed and
manufacturer’s instructions. a reduction in the stalling angle of attack. Therefore, an
aerodynamic stall can occur before the stall warning systems
Type IV Fluids: A significant advance is Type IV anti-icing
activate;
fluid. These fluids meet the same fluid specifications as the
Type II fluids and in addition have a significantly longer holdover (b) ice adhering to propellers will drastically affect their
time. In recognition of the above, Holdover Time Tables are efficiency and may cause an imbalance with resultant
available for Type IV. vibration;
The product is dyed green as it is believed that the green product (c) ice adhering to rotor blades will degrade their aerodynamic
will provide for application of a more consistent layer of fluid efficiency. This means that an increase in power will be
to the aircraft and will reduce the likelihood that fluid will be required to produce an equivalent amount of lift Therefore,
mistaken for ice. However, as these fluids do not flow as readily during an autorotation this increase can only come from a
as conventional Type II fluid, caution should be exercised to higher than normal rate of descent. In fact, it may not be
ensure that enough fluid is used to give uniform coverage. possible to maintain safe rotor RPM’s during the descent
and flare due to ice contamination;
Research indicates that the effectiveness of a Type IV fluid can
be seriously diminished if proper procedures are not followed (d) ice on the windshield or canopy will reduce or block vision
when applying it over Type I fluid. from the flight deck or cockpit;
All fluid users are advised to ensure that these fluids are applied (e) carburetor icing, see AIR 2.3; and
evenly and thoroughly and that an adequate thickness has been (f) airframe ice may detach and be ingested into jet engine
applied in accordance with the manufacturer’s recommendations. intakes causing compressor stalls, loss of thrust and
Particular attention should be paid to the leading edge area of flame out.
the wing and horizontal stabilizer.
Further information on aircraft critical surface contamination 2.12.3.1 Types of Ice
may be found in When in Doubt... Small and Large Aircraft— There are three types of ice which pilots must contend with in
Aircraft Critical Surface Contamination Training for Aircrew flight: Rime Ice, Clear Ice and Frost (see MET 2.4). For any ice
and Groundcrew (TP 10643), a TC publication available online to form the OAT must be at or below freezing with the presence
at <https://tc.canada.ca/en/aviation/publications/when- of visible moisture.
doubtsmall-large-aircraft-aircraft-critical-surface-
AIR
contamination-training-tp-10643>. A CD-ROM, with the same Rime ice commonly found in stratiform clouds is granular,
title and an accompanying workbook, is also available for order. opaque and pebbly and adheres to the leading edges of antennas
The priced CD-ROM and workbook may be ordered from the and windshields. Rime ice forms in low temperatures with a low
TC Publications Order Desk using one of the methods listed concentration of small super-cooled droplets. It has little tendency
below. to spread and can easily be removed by aircraft de-icing systems.
Transport Canada Publications Order Desk Clear ice commonly found in cumuliform clouds is glassy, smooth
Operational Support Services (AAFBD) and hard, and tends to spread back from the area of impingement.
2655 Lancaster Road Clear ice forms at temperatures at or just below 0°C with a high
Ottawa ON K1B 4L5 concentration of large super-cooled droplets. It is the most serious
form of icing because it adheres firmly and is difficult to remove.
Tel. (toll-free in North America): ................1-888-830-4911
..............................................................................613-991-4071 Frost may form on an aircraft in flight when descent is made
Fax: ....................................................................... 613-991-1653 from below-freezing conditions to a layer of warm, moist air. In
Email: ....................................................publications@tc.gc.ca these circumstances, vision may be restricted as frost forms on
Web site: ......... https://tc.canada.ca/en/corporate-services/ the windshield or canopy.
publications-how-order Additional references on icing include MET 2.4 and the Air
Command Weather Manual (TP 9352E).
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
2.12.3.2 Aerodynamic Effects of Airborne Icing (c) If flaps are extended, do not retract them unless it can be
Commercial pilots are familiar with the classic aerodynamic determined that the upper surface of the wing is clear of ice.
effects of ice accumulation on an aeroplane in flight. These can Retracting the flaps will increase the angle of attack at any
include: given airspeed, possibly leading to the onset of roll upset.
(d) Set appropriate power and monitor airspeed /angle of attack.
(a) reduced lift accompanied by significant increases in drag
and increases in weight; (e) Verify that wing ice protection is functioning symmetrically
by visual observation if possible. If not, follow the
(b) increases in stall speed and reduced stall angle of attack as
procedures in the aircraft flight manual.
ice alters the shape of an airfoil and disrupts airflow;
(c) reduced thrust due to ice disrupting the airflow to the engine 2.12.3.4 Tail Plane Stall
and/or degrading propeller efficiency. Ice ingested into a
jet engine may induce a compressor stall and/or a flame As the rate at which ice accumulates on an airfoil is related to
out; the shape of the airfoil, with thinner airfoils having a higher
collection efficiency than thicker ones, ice may accumulate on
(d) control restrictions due to water flowing back into control the horizontal stabilizer at a higher rate than on the wings. A
surfaces and freezing; tail plane stall occurs when its critical angle of attack is exceeded.
(e) ice adhering to rotor blades will degrade their aerodynamic Because the horizontal stabilizer produces a downward force to
efficiency. This means that an increase in power will be counter the nose-down tendency caused by the centre of lift on
required to produce an equivalent amount of lift. Therefore, the wing, stall of the tail plane will lead to a rapid pitch down.
during an autorotation this increase can only come from a Application of flaps, which may reduce or increase downwash
higher than normal rate of descent. In fact, it may not be on the tail plane depending on the configuration of the empennage
possible to maintain safe rotor RPM during the descent and (i.e. low set horizontal stabilizer, mid-set, or T-tail), can aggravate
flare due to ice contamination; or initiate the stall. Therefore, pilots should be very cautious in
lowering flaps if tail plane icing is suspected. Abrupt nose-down
(f) ice on the windshield or canopy will reduce or block vision
pitching movements should also be avoided, since these increase
from the flight deck or cockpit; and
the tail plane angle of attack and may cause a contaminated tail
(g) carburetor icing (see AIR 2.3). plane to stall.
A tail plane stall can occur at relatively high speeds, well above
2.12.3.3 Roll Upset
the normal 1G stallspeed. The pitch down may occur without
Roll upset describes an uncommanded and possibly uncontrollable warning and be uncontrollable. It is more likely to occur when
rolling moment caused by airflow separation in front of the the flaps are selected to the landing position, after a nose-down
ailerons, resulting in self-deflection of unpowered control pitching manoeuvre, during airspeed changes following flap
surfaces. It is associated with flight in icing conditions in which extension, or during flight through wind gusts.
water droplets flow back behind the protected surfaces before
Symptoms of incipient tail plane stall may include:
freezing and form ridges that cannot be removed by de-icing
equipment. Roll upset has recently been associated with icing (a) abnormal elevator control forces, pulsing, oscillation,
AIR
conditions involving large super-cooled droplets; however, it or vibration;
theoretically can also occur in conventional icing conditions (b) an abnormal nose-down trim change (may not be detected
when temperatures are just slightly below 0°C. if autopilot engaged);
(c) any other abnormal or unusual pitch anomalies (possibly
The roll upset can occur well before the normal symptoms of
leading to pilot induced oscillations);
ice accretion are evident to the pilot, and control forces may be
(d) reduction or loss of elevator effectiveness (may not be
physically beyond the pilot’s ability to overcome. Pilots may
detected if the autopilot is engaged);
receive a warning of incipient roll upset if abnormal or sloppy
(e) sudden change in elevator force (control would move down
aileron control forces are experienced after the autopilot is
if not restrained); and/or
disconnected when operating in icing conditions.
(f) a sudden, uncommanded nose-down pitch.
Corrective Actions
Corrective Actions
If severe icing conditions are inadvertently encountered, pilots
should consider the following actions to avoid a roll upset: If any of the above symptoms occur, the pilot should consider
the following actions unless the aircraft f light manual
(a) Disengage the autopilot. The autopilot may mask important dictates otherwise:
clues or may self disconnect when control forces exceed
limits, presenting the pilot with abrupt unusual attitudes (a) Plan approaches in icing conditions with minimum flap
and control forces. settings for the conditions. Fly the approach on speed for
the configuration.
(b) Reduce the angle of attack by increasing speed. If turning,
roll wings level. (b) If symptoms occur shortly after flap extension, immediately
retract the flaps to the previous setting. Increase airspeed
as appropriate to the reduced setting.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
(c) Apply sufficient power for the configuration and conditions. 2.12.3.6 Detecting Large Super-Cooled Droplets
Observe the manufacturer’s recommendations concerning Conditions in Flight
power settings. High power settings may aggravate tail plane Visible clues to flight crew that the aircraft is operating in large
stall in some designs. super-cooled droplets conditions will vary from type to type.
(d) Make any nose-down pitch changes slowly, even in gusting Manufacturers should be consulted to assist operators in
conditions, if circumstance allow. identifying the visible clues particular to the type operated.
There are, however, some general clues of which pilots should
(e) If equipped with a pneumatic de-icing system, operate several
be aware:
times to attempt to clear ice from the tail plane.
(a) ice visible on the upper or lower surface of the wing aft of
WARNINGS the area protected by de-icing equipment (irregular or jagged
lines of ice or pieces that are self-shedding);
(a) At any flap setting, airspeed in excess of the manufacturer’s
recommendations for the configuration and environmental (b) ice adhering to non-heated propeller spinners farther aft
conditions, accompanied by uncleared ice on the tail plane, than normal;
may result in a tail plane stall and an uncontrollable nose- (c) granular dispersed ice crystals or total translucent or opaque
down pitch. coverage of the unheated portions of front or side windows.
This may be accompanied by other ice patterns on the
(b) Improper identity of the event and application of the wrong
windows such as ridges. Such patterns may occur within a
recovery procedure will make an already critical situation
few seconds to one half minute after exposure to large super-
even worse. This information concerning roll upset and tail
cooled droplets;
plane stall is necessarily general in nature, and may not be
applicable to all aircraft configurations. Pilots must consult (d) unusually extensive coverage of ice, visible ice fingers or ice
their aircraft flight manual to determine type specific feathers on parts of the airframe on which ice does not
procedures for these phenomena. normally appear; and
(e) significant differences between airspeed or rate of climb
2.12.3.5 Freezing Rain, Freezing Drizzle, and Large expected and that attained at a given power setting.
Super-Cooled Droplets
Additional clues significant at temperatures near freezing:
The classical mechanism producing freezing rain and/or freezing
drizzle aloft involves a layer of warm air overlaying a layer of (a) visible rain consisting of very large droplets. In reduced
cold air. Snow falling through the warm layer melts, falls into visibility selection of landing or taxi lights “on” occasionally
the cold air, becomes supercooled, and freezes on contact with will aid detection. Rain may also be detected by the audible
an aircraft flying through the cold air. Freezing rain and freezing impact of droplets on the fuselage;
drizzle are therefore typically found near warm fronts and trowals, (b) droplets splashing or splattering on the windscreen. The
both of which cause warm air to overlay cold air. Freezing rain 40 to 50 micron droplets covered by Appendix C to
or freezing drizzle may also occur at cold fronts, but are less Chapter 525 of the Airworthiness Manual icing criteria
common and would have a lesser horizontal extent due to the (Appendix C lists the certification standard for all transport
steeper slope of the frontal surface. The presence of warm air category aeroplanes for flight in known icing), are so small
AIR
above has always provided a possible escape route to pilots who that they cannot usually be detected; however freezing drizzle
have encountered classical freezing precipitation aloft through droplets can reach sizes of 0.2 to 0.5 mm and can be seen
a climb into the warm air. when they hit the windscreen;
Recent research has revealed that there are other non-classical (c) water droplets or rivulets streaming on windows, either
mechanisms that produce freezing precipitation aloft. Flights heated or unheated. Streaming droplets or rivulets are
by research aircraft have encountered freezing drizzle at indicators of high liquid water content in any sized droplet;
temperatures down to -10° C at altitudes up to 15000 feet ASL. and/or
There was no temperature inversion—that is, no warm air aloft— (d) weather radar returns showing precipitation. Whenever the
present in either case. Pilots must be aware that severe icing may radar indicates precipitation in temperatures near freezing,
be encountered in conditions unrelated to warm air aloft. They pilots should be alert for other clues of large super-cooled
must also understand that, if non-classical freezing drizzle is droplets.
encountered in flight, the escape route of a climb into warmer
air may not be immediately available; however, climbing remains
2.12.3.7 Flight Planning or Reporting
the preferred escape route. It should allow the aircraft to reach
an altitude above the formation region, while a descent may keep Pilots should take advantage of all information available to avoid
the aircraft in freezing precipitation. It should be noted that, or, at the very least, to plan a safe flight through known icing
while ascending, the aircraft might get closer to the source region conditions. As well as FAs, TAFs, and METARs, pilots should
with smaller droplets, higher liquid water content and ask for pertinent SIGMETs and any PIREPs received along the
conventional icing. planned route of flight. Significant Weather Prognostic Charts
should be studied, if available. Weather information should be
analyzed to predict where icing is likely to be found, and to
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
determine possible safe exit procedures should severe icing be from the sky is about equal to that from the snow surface.
encountered. Pilots should routinely pass detailed PIREPs Blowing snow may be an additional cause.”
whenever icing conditions are encountered.
Light carries depth perception messages to the brain in the form
of colour, glare, shadows, and so on. These elements have one
2.12.4 Landing Wheel-Equipped Light Aircraft on thing in common, namely, they are all modified by the direction
Snow Covered Surfaces of the light and changes in light intensity. For example, when
During the course of each winter, a number of aircraft accidents shadows occur on one side of objects, we subconsciously become
have occurred due to pilots attempting to land wheel-equipped aware that the light is coming from the other. Thus, nature
aircraft on surfaces covered with deep snow. This has almost provides many visual clues to assist us in discerning objects and
invariably resulted in the aircraft nosing over. judging distances. What happens if these clues are removed?
Let’s suppose that these objects on the ground and the ground
Light aircraft should not be landed on surfaces covered with itself are all white. Add to that, a diffused light source through
snow unless it has previously been determined that the amount an overcast layer which is reflected back in all directions by the
of snow will not constitute a hazard. white surface so that shadows disappear. The terrain is now
virtually devoid of visual clues and the eye no longer discerns
2.12.5 Use of Seaplanes on Snow Surfaces the surface or terrain features.
The operation of float-equipped aircraft or flying boats from Since the light is so diffused, it is likely that the sky and terrain
snow covered surfaces will be permitted by Transport Canada will blend imperceptibly into each other, obliterating the horizon.
under the following conditions: The real hazard in whiteout is the pilot not suspecting the
(a) the pilot and operator will be held responsible for confining phenomenon because the pilot is in clear air. In numerous
all flights to those snow conditions found to be satisfactory whiteout accidents, pilots have flown into snow-covered surfaces
as a result of previous tests or experimental flights in that unaware that they have been descending and confident that they
type of aircraft; could “see” the ground.
(b) passengers should not be carried; and Consequently, whenever a pilot encounters the whiteout
conditions described above, or even a suspicion of them, the
(c) a thorough inspection of the float or hull bottom, all struts pilot should immediately climb if at low level, or level off and
and fittings, all wing fittings, bracing, wing tip floats and turn towards an area where sharp terrain features exist. The
fittings should be carried out after every flight to ensure flight should not proceed unless the pilot is prepared and
that the aircraft is airworthy. competent to traverse the whiteout area on instruments.
Seaplanes should not be landing on, or taking off from, snow In addition, the following phenomena are known to cause
surfaces except under conditions of deep firm snow, which should whiteout and should be avoided if at all possible:
not be drifted or heavily crusted.
(a) water-fog whiteout resulting from thin clouds of super-
Flights should not be attempted if there is any adhesion of ice cooled water droplets in contact with the cold snow surface.
or snow to the under surface of the float or hull. When landing Depending on the size and distribution of the water droplets,
or forced landing a ski or float equipped aeroplane on unbroken visibility may be minimal or nil in such conditions.
AIR
snow surfaces, the procedure in AIR 2.11.4 is recommended.
(b) blowing snow whiteout resulting from fine snow being
plucked from the surface by winds of 20 kt or more. Sunlight
2.12.6 Landing Seaplanes on
is reflected and diffused resulting in a nil visibility whiteout
Unbroken Snow Conditions
condition.
It has been found practically impossible to judge altitude when (c) precipitation whiteout resulting from small wind-driven
landing a skiplane or seaplane under certain conditions of surface snow crystals falling from low clouds above which the sun
and light. Under such conditions the procedures for landing is shining. Light reflection complicated by spectral reflection
seaplanes on glassy water should be used (see AIR 2.11.4). from the snow flakes and obscuration of land marks by
falling snow can reduce visibility and depth perception to
2.12.7 Whiteout nil in such conditions.
Whiteout (also called milky weather) is defined in the Glossary If at all possible, pilots should avoid such conditions unless they
of Meteorology (published by the American Meteorological have the suitable instruments in the aircraft and are sufficiently
Society) as: experienced to use a low-speed and minima rate of descent
“An atmospheric optical phenomenon of the polar regions technique to land the aircraft safely.
in which the observer appears to be engulfed in a uniformly
white glow. Neither shadows, horizon, nor clouds are 2.13 FLIGHT OPERATIONS IN
discernible; sense of depth and orientation is lost; only very MOUNTAINOUS AREAS
dark, nearby objects can be seen. Whiteout occurs over an The importance of proper training, procedures and pre-flight
unbroken snow cover and beneath a uniformly overcast planning when flying in mountainous regions is emphasized.
sky, when with the aid of the snowblink effect, the light
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
In the Pacific area, the combined effect of the great mountain When using the step-down technique, the aircraft flies a series
system and the adjacent Pacific Ocean lead to extremely of vertical descents during the final approach segment as it
changeable weather conditions and a variety of weather patterns. descends and levels off at the minimum IFR altitudes published
Some of the factors to be taken into consideration regarding the for each segment of the approach. The successive descents and
effect on aircraft performance when operating under these level-offs result in significant changes in power settings and
conditions include the following: pitch attitudes and for some aircraft, may prevent the landing
configuration from being established until landing is assured.
(a) elevation of the airport;
Using the step-down technique, the aircraft may have to be flown
(b) temperature and pressure; at minimum IFR altitudes for each segment of the approach and
(c) turbulence and wind effect; and consequently be exposed to reduced obstacle separation for
extended periods of time. A premature descent or a missed
(d) determination of safe takeoff procedures to ensure clearance level-off could render the aircraft vulnerable to a CFIT accident.
over obstacles and intervening high ground.
Many air operators require their flight crews to use a stabilized
In the western mountainous region VFR routes may be marked approach technique which is entirely different from that envisaged
by diamonds on visual navigation charts. The routes are marked in the original NPA procedure design. The stabilized approach
for convenience to assist pilots with pre-flight planning. The is calculated to achieve a constant rate of descent at an approximate
diamond marks do not imply any special level of facilities and 3° flight path angle with stable airspeed, power setting, and
services along the route. Pilots are cautioned that the use of the attitude, and also with the aircraft configured for landing. The
marked routes does not absolve them from proper pre-flight safety benefits derived from the stabilized final approach have
planning or the exercising of good airmanship practices during been recognized by many organizations including ICAO, the
the proposed flight. Alternative unmarked routes are always FAA and TCCA. Those air operators not already doing so are
available, the choice of a suitable route for the intended flight encouraged to incorporate stabilized approach procedures into
and conditions remains the sole responsibility of the pilot-in- their SOPs and training syllabi.
command.
CAUTION:
2.14 FLIGHT OPERATIONS IN SPARSELY Caution should be exercised when descending below the MDA
SETTLED AREAS OF CANADA while following an FMS-generated vertical path. Unlike vertically
guided approaches, which have their OCSs verified below the
(See AIP Canada GEN 1.5)
DA, OCSs on LNAV procedures below the MDA have NOT been
assessed. As a result, obstacles may penetrate the computer-
2.14.1 Single-Engine Aircraft Operations in generated flight path. Pilots are reminded to visually scan for
Northern Canada obstacles before descending below the MDA.
(See AIP Canada GEN 1.5)
VASI and PAPI are calibrated for a defined geometric vertical
path angle. In cold temperatures, a non-temperature compensated
2.15 FLIGHT OPERATIONS AT NIGHT barometric FMS-generated vertical path may be lower than that
There are many risks associated with operating aircraft in dark- of a calibrated VASI or PAPI. In high temperatures, a barometric
AIR
night conditions where maintaining orientation, navigation and FMS-generated vertical path will be higher than that of a
weather avoidance may become extremely difficult. Takeoff and calibrated VASI or PAPI. Pilots should be aware of this limitation
landing may be particularly dangerous for both VFR and IFR and operate accordingly.
pilots.
A variety of illusions may result at night because of a lack of 2.16.2 Stabilized Approach
outside visual cues. Your best defense, if you do not hold an An approach is considered stabilized when it satisfies the
instrument rating, is to receive some instrument training, and associated conditions, typically defined by an air operator in
to be aware of the illusions and their counter measures. their company operations manual (COM) or SOPs, as they may
relate to the:
2.16 VERTICAL PATH CONTROL ON NON- (a) range of speeds specific to the aircraft type;
PRECISION APPROACHES (NPAS)
(b) power setting(s) specific to the aircraft type;
2.16.1 Controlled Flight Into Terrain (CFIT) (c) range of attitudes specific to the aircraft type;
Controlled Flights Into Terrain (CFIT) continue to be a major (d) configuration(s) specific to the aircraft type;
threat to civil aviation safety in Canada. A stabilized final (e) crossing altitude deviation tolerances;
approach during an NPA has been recognized by the ICAO CFIT
Task Force as an aid to prevent CFIT. The step-down technique (f) sink rate; and
presumed by NPA procedure design may have been appropriate (g) completion of checklists and flight crew briefings.
for early piston transport aircraft, but it is less suited to larger
jet transport aircraft.
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Stabilized approach procedures should be defined for all Regardless of the type of vertical path control technique used
approaches and may include the following: on an NPA, the lateral “turning” portion of the missed approach
may not be executed prior to the MAP. However, the climb
(a) a flight profile should be stabilized at an altitude not lower
portion of a missed approach procedure may be commenced at
than 1 000 ft above the threshold when in IMC;
any point along the final approach. In addition, during cold
(b) a flight profile should be stabilized at an altitude not lower weather operations, a temperature correction must be applied
than 500 ft above the threshold; to all minimum altitudes, no matter what type of vertical control
(c) a flight profile should remain stabilized until landing; path technique is used.
(d) a go-around is required if a flight profile is not stabilized Except in the case of an air operator conducting operations in
in accordance with these requirements or if the flight profile accordance with an exemption to Paragraph 602.128(2)(b) of
subsequently becomes destabilized. the CARs, a flight crew member may not descend below the
MDA if the visual references required to land have not been
2.16.3 Vertical Path Control Techniques acquired. A correction to the MDA may be required to ensure
that the aircraft does not descend below the MDA during the
There are typically three vertical path control techniques available transition from a descent to the climb required by a missed
for an NPA: approach procedure.
(a) step-down; In 2013, NAV CANADA will begin the publication of approach
(b) constant descent angle; or charts which include constant descent angle information in a
tabular form and in the profile view. The inclusion of this
(c) stabilized constant descent angle (SCDA). information is intended to facilitate the use of the stabilized
approach techniques described in AC 700-028 and to reduce the
NOTE:
possibility of calculation errors.
Constant descent angle is equivalent to ICAO’s constant angle
descent, and SCDA is considered a form of ICAO’s continuous To facilitate the stabilized descent, some avionics, such as
descent final approach (CDFA). In the interest of respecting baro-VNAV-capable (barometric vertical navigation) and
terminology already in use in the Canadian civil aviation industry WAAS-capable (wide area augmentation system) systems,
and standardization with NAV CANADA charting, the above generate a calculated vertical profile and the guidance to follow
terminology has been adopted. this profile. When conducting an NPA, the vertical guidance
generated by the navigation system is advisory only. Flight crew
While NPA procedures themselves are not inherently unsafe, members must use the barometric altimeter as the primary
the use of the step-down descent technique to conduct an NPA altitude reference to ensure compliance with any and all altitude
is prone to error and is therefore discouraged where other methods restrictions. Special consideration is required when using advisory
are available. When using the step-down technique during the vertical guidance generated by WAAS-capable equipment. Flight
final approach segment, the flight crew member flies an unstable crew members should refer to the manufacturer’s operating
vertical profile by descending and levelling off at the minimum guides or limitations.
altitudes published for each segment of the approach and then,
if the required visual references have been acquired, descending Further information and descriptions of the techniques available
AIR
from the MDA to a landing. for conducting the vertical portion of an NPA are contained in
AC 700-028. <https://tc.canada.ca/en/aviation/reference-centre/
The risks associated with conducting an NPA can be mitigated advisory-circulars/advisory-circular-ac-no-700-028>
by using an angular vertical profile instead of the step-down
technique described above. The use of an angular vertical profile
increases the likelihood of the approach being conducted in a 3.0 MEDICAL INFORMATION
stabilized manner. When conducting an NPA using an angular
vertical profile, the vertical path may be intercepted prior to the 3.1 GENERAL HEALTH
FAF at a higher altitude.
A healthy pilot is as essential to a safe flight as a mechanically
Ideally, the angle to be used for an angular vertical path is obtained sound aircraft. There is no precise regulation that tells pilots
from the approach chart. If the approach chart does not contain whether they are fit to fly and there is no pre-flight inspection
a published constant descent angle, the angle may be calculated to ensure fitness. Therefore, individuals must base their decision
using an approved method provided to the flight crew in the air to fly on common sense, good judgement, and training prior to
operator’s SOPs or by using tables such as those found in Appendix each flight. While flying an aircraft, a pilot must not have any
1 of Advisory Circular (AC) 700-028. Flight crew members must condition that impairs alertness, reaction time or decision-
be aware of the risks associated with manually calculating the making ability. Persons with conditions that could result in
descent angle as a calculation error could lead to the use of the sudden or subtle incapacitation, such as epilepsy, heart disease,
wrong descent angle. It is strongly recommended that flight diabetes requiring insulin, or psychiatric illnesses, cannot be
crew members become proficient with manually calculating the medically certified until their case is reviewed by the Civil Aviation
descent angle before doing so under high workload conditions. Medicine Branch. Conditions such as anaemia, acute infections
and gastrointestinal illnesses are temporarily disqualifying.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
When there is any doubt about their health, pilots should consult Ischaemic hypoxia/stagnant hypoxia
their physician or Civil Aviation Medical Examiner (CAME). The term ischaemia refers to inadequate supply of blood, and
ischaemic hypoxia occurs when there is inadequate blood flow
3.1.1 Mandatory Medical Reporting to body tissues. This can occur with constriction of blood vessels
Pilots are reminded that section 6.5 of the Aeronautics Act requires (for example, this is often seen in fingers and toes exposed to
them to identify themselves as the holder of a pilot’s licence prior cold) as well as in situations of low blood pressure and cardiac
to the commencement of any examination by a physician or output such as fainting, or during exposure to high sustained
optometrist. Section 6.5 further requires that the attending accelerations (stagnant hypoxia). Oxygen therapy is not very
physician or optometrist notify the Minister of any finding that helpful in this form of hypoxia. The best remedy is to correct
may constitute a hazard to aviation safety. the underlying cause.
Section 6.5 also deems the pilot to have consented to the release Histotoxic hypoxia
of aviation-related findings by the physician or optometrist to Histotoxic hypoxia refers to an inability of the cells of the body
the Minister. to use the oxygen available. This type of hypoxia is rare in pilots,
but it can occur with certain conditions such as cyanide poisoning,
3.2 SPECIFIC AEROMEDICAL FACTORS chemical poisoning, and intoxication with certain drugs.
Histotoxic hypoxia can also be caused by high blood alcohol
3.2.1 Hypoxia levels.
The literal definition of hypoxia is “low oxygen”. Therefore,
hypoxia implies a lack of sufficient oxygen for the body to operate 3.2.2 Carbon Monoxide
normally. Its onset is insidious and may be accompanied by a Carbon monoxide is a colourless, odourless, tasteless gas that is
feeling of well being, known as euphoria. Even minor hypoxia a product of incomplete combustion. Haemoglobin, the oxygen-
impairs night vision and slows reaction time. More serious carrying chemical in the blood, picks up carbon monoxide over
hypoxia interferes with reasoning, gives rise to unusual fatigue 200 times more readily than it picks up oxygen. Thus, even
and, finally, results in a loss of consciousness. Hypoxia is classified minute quantities in the cockpit (often from improperly vented
into four different types; all are relevant to pilots and merit exhaust fumes) may result in pilot incapacitation.
consideration.
The symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning are insidious.
Hypoxic hypoxia Initially, there is an inability to concentrate, thinking becomes
blurred, and subsequently dizziness and headache develop. If
Hypoxic hypoxia is the result of low oxygen levels in the
any of these symptoms are noticed, pilots should turn off the
bloodstream. In pilots, this most often occurs with exposure to
heater, open the air ventilators and descend to a lower altitude
altitude (hypobaric hypoxia). At low altitudes, the partial pressure
if it is safe to do so. If oxygen is available, it should be used. If
of oxygen in the atmosphere is adequate to maintain brain
an exhaust leak is suspected, the pilot should land the aircraft
function at peak efficiency. Atmospheric pressure and the partial
as soon as possible.
pressure of oxygen both decline at higher altitudes. At 8 000 ft
ASL (2 440 m), some people may notice a slight increase in heart Smoking is a source of carbon monoxide. Smokers carry some
AIR
rate and speed of breathing (respiratory rate). By 10 000 ft ASL carbon monoxide in their blood all the time, and may have 5 to
(3 030 m), the partial pressure of oxygen is low enough that all 10 percent of their haemoglobin saturated with carbon monoxide.
pilots will experience mild hypoxia and some will become This reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and
symptomatic. Pilots operating at this altitude or higher should smokers may become hypoxic at altitudes below 10 000 ft
be alert for unusual difficulty completing routine calculations ASL (3 050 m).
and should take corrective action if difficulties are noted. To Catalytic heaters consume oxygen and can produce carbon
avoid hypoxia, do not fly above 10 000 ft ASL (3 050 m) without monoxide. For this reason they should not be used on an aircraft.
supplemental oxygen or cabin pressurization.
particularly the shortness of breath, are not unlike those of Many factors affect vision. Hypoxia, carbon monoxide poisoning,
hypoxia, so rather than trying to make the diagnosis, follow the alcohol, drugs, fatigue and smoking are only a few of these. After
procedure below: time spent in bright sunlight, the eye is slow to adapt to darkness
and this may reduce night vision. To improve dark adaption,
(a) Breathe oxygen, if available, at 100 percent. If hypoxia is the
pilots should use sunglasses during the day to avoid eye fatigue.
cause, the symptoms will improve markedly after three or
At night, cockpit lights should be kept low to maintain the dark
four breaths.
adaption needed to see clearly outside the cockpit.
(b) If the symptoms persist, consciously slow the rate of breathing
to 10–12 breaths per minute and do not breathe deeply. Despite modern electronics, pilots still fly in a “see-and-be seen”
Breathing slowly and deeply into a paper bag is helpful, world. For best results, good vision is only one of the requirements.
although obviously not always practical during flight. Keep In the cockpit, it must be reinforced with good visual scan
the respiratory rate slow until the symptoms disappear. If practices, especially at night. Such practices are an acquired, not
below 8 000 ft ASL (2 440 m), hypoxia is unlikely to be the an inherent, skill. In performing a visual scan, the eyes should
cause of the problem. be focused at a range that will ensure detection of traffic while
there is still time to take avoiding action. This requires that pilots
take an object on the horizon, focus on it and then scan all sectors
3.3 DECOMPRESSION SICKNESS of the sky, refocusing as needed to avoid “empty-field myopia”
At ground level, the body tissues are saturated with nitrogen, (empty-sky myopia), which can result from gazing at a featureless
the inert gas that makes up 80 percent of our atmosphere. During landscape or cloudscape. Conscientious scanning of all sections
a rapid ascent, the rapid lowering of the external barometric of the sky, interspersed with brief interludes of focusing on distant
pressure allows the nitrogen gas to form small bubbles (an example objects, will improve a pilot’s ability to detect distant aircraft.
of this phenomenon is the bubbles formed when a bottle of pop A clean canopy is also essential, particularly with bright sunlight.
is opened). The nitrogen bubbles form in and around blood Spots on the windshield easily lead to dazzle glare and can interfere
vessels, joints and muscles, causing pain and cramps (the bends). with long-range focus.
They can also form under the skin, causing itching and tingling
The same scan is required at night, with one difference: the part
(the creeps), or in the lung, causing chest pain and shortness of
of the eye that is best suited for night vision is not in the centre.
breath (the chokes). Severe cases may result in a loss of
An object detected in barely adequate light will disappear if
consciousness. The risks associated with decompression sickness
viewed directly, but will often reappear if one looks 10 to 15° to
increase with high rates of climb, age, obesity, physical activity
one side of the object.
and low temperatures. Flight operations above a cabin altitude
of 20 000 ft ASL (6 100 m) should not be attempted unless crew Technological changes and medical experience has brought
members and passengers have completed specialized high-altitude forward a proliferation in the availability and options in eye
indoctrination training. When decompression sickness is surgery directed at improving visual acuity. The Civil Aviation
encountered, an immediate descent to a lower altitude is required. Medicine Branch continues to monitor this progress and has
adapted the medical guidelines regarding certification for flight
3.4 SCUBA DIVING to reflect the growing body of knowledge and experience in this
important area. The most recent information and
Although normally decompression sickness does not occur below recommendations on eye surgery can be found on the following
AIR
20 000 ft ASL (6 100 m), people who fly after scuba diving may Civil Aviation Medicine Web site:
develop the symptoms at much lower altitudes. Atmospheric <https://tc.canada.ca/en/aviation/medical-fitness-aviation/
pressure beneath the water increases by one atmosphere for every assessing-medical-fitness-pilots-air-traffic-controllers/refractive-
33 ft (10 m) of descent. Divers who breathe pressurized air for eye-surgery>.
more than a few minutes supersaturate their tissues with nitrogen.
For this reason, as the aircraft ascends, nitrogen bubble formation
3.6 MIDDLE-EAR AND SINUS DISCOMFORT
may take place, causing the bends. After dives of less than 33 ft
OR PAIN
(1 atmosphere pressure), where decompression stops were not
required, flights up to altitudes of 8 000 ft ASL (2 440 m) should The middle ear is similar to a box: closed at one end by a flexible
be avoided for 12 hr. Where decompression stops have been cover (the ear drum) and drained at the other end by a thin,
required while returning to the surface, the interval should be straight tube (the Eustachian tube). As the aircraft climbs, air
24 hr. For flights above 8 000 ft ASL (2 440 m), the interval is in the body cavities expands as the barometric pressure decreases.
24 hr regardless of the type of dive, as even pressurized aircraft Normally, air will escape from the middle ear and the sinuses
may lose cabin pressurization. and pilots will only notice their ears “popping”. The outlet of
the Eustachian tubes, however, is narrow and, if the pilot has a
3.5 VISION head cold or a throat infection, local swelling may narrow it. On
ascent, air may still be able to escape, but on descent—particularly
The retina of the eye is more sensitive to hypoxia than any part at high rates—the outlet may close like a flap, preventing air
of the body; one of the first symptoms of hypoxia is a decrease from re-entering the middle-ear cavity. The increasing ambient
in night vision. For this reason, pilots flying at night are advised air pressure will then force the eardrum inward. This can lead
to use oxygen, if available, from the ground up. to severe pain and decreased hearing.
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
Pressure in the ears can be equalized by opening and closing 3.8 FATIGUE
the mouth, swallowing, yawning, chewing gum or by holding
Fatigue slows reaction time, reduces concentration and leads to
the nostrils shut while gently blowing the nose. If the pressure
errors of attention. The most common causes are insufficient
in the ears (or sinuses) cannot be relieved by these manoeuvres,
rest, lack of sleep, and overexertion. Fatigue can also be aggravated
it is best to climb back to the original altitude or to a higher level
by other stresses such as business pressures and financial or
(if this is necessary, ATC should of course be kept informed).
family problems as well as common illnesses, such as anaemia,
The ears should then be cleared and a gradual descent made,
sleep apnoea, influenza, and head colds. Pilots should be aware
clearing the ears frequently on the way down. Sometimes, the
of the subtle effects that acute or chronic fatigue can have on
pressure in the middle ear on descent is so low relative to the
motor skills and judgement, and avoid flying when either of
external pressure that the eardrum can bleed and even rupture.
these are present. Pilots should also practice good sleep hygiene
This is known as barotrauma. If barotrauma occurs, a physician
to prevent fatigue. Pilots who find that they are often troubled
familiar with aeromedical conditions should be seen for treatment
by fatigue or drowsiness, even while not flying, should see their
as soon as possible after landing.
health-care provider for a thorough medical evaluation.
The best advice to pilots or passengers who are suffering from
head colds, sore throats or allergies is to wait until the inflammation Boredom and fatigue aggravate each other. One method of
has subsided before flying. Nasal sprays can help provide relief, overcoming boredom is to keep busy by making frequent ground-
but this is only temporary. A cold lasts only a few days, but a speed and fuel-consumption checks, and staying mentally active.
blown eardrum may take weeks to recover! Planning for diversion to alternates or studying relevant airfield
charts are also helpful.
3.7 DISORIENTATION
3.9 ALCOHOL
Pilots sometimes refer to disorientation as “vertigo”, by which
Never fly while under the influence of alcohol. It is best to allow
they mean not knowing which way is up. On the ground, spatial
at least 24 hours between the last drink and take-off time. Alcohol
orientation is sensed by the combination of vision, muscle sense,
is selectively concentrated by the body into certain areas and
and specialized organs in the inner ear that sense accelerations
can remain in the fluid of the inner ear even after all traces of
and position. Vision is the strongest of the orienting senses.
alcohol in the blood have disappeared. This accounts for the
However, in a whiteout or when flying in cloud, it is sometimes
difficulty in balance that is experienced in a hangover. Even small
impossible to orient oneself by reference to the horizon.
amounts of alcohol (0.05 percent) have been shown in simulators
Under these conditions, the pilot is completely dependent upon
to reduce piloting skills. The body metabolizes alcohol at a fixed
the flight instruments and learned flying skills for control of
rate and no amount of coffee, medication or oxygen will alter
the aircraft. Under no circumstances should the pilot rely upon
this rate. ALCOHOL AND FLYING DO NOT MIX.
his senses alone for orientation.
If you find that you are drinking excessively or encountering
Although the organs of balance in the inner ear give useful problems related to alcohol, you must refrain from flying and
information on the ground, they can give rise to dangerously seek assistance. Transport Canada has a policy and pathway to
false information in the air. For example, once a turn has been return to flying with the appropriate treatment and monitoring.
entered and is being maintained at a steady rate, the sensation Early intervention and active engagement are best for long-term
AIR
of turning will disappear. Upon recovering from the turn, pilots success.
may feel as though they are turning in the opposite direction
and erroneously re-enter the turn, even causing the aircraft to 3.10 MEDICATIONS, NATURAL HEALTH
enter into a spin or a spiral. This has been responsible for many PRODUCTS, CANNABIS, AND OTHER
accidents. False impressions of position may also be encountered RECREATIONAL DRUGS
if pilots align the aircraft with a sloping cloudbank or when the
horizon is distorted or apparently bent by the Northern Lights. Taking medicine in any form immediately before or while flying
The rule of survival when disorientated is RELY ON YOUR can be hazardous. Over-the-counter medications, including
FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS! sedating antihistamines, herbal remedies (also known as natural
health products), cough medicines, sleeping pills, and appetite
In their training, all pilots should be exposed to disorientation suppressants may cause drowsiness, decrease mental alertness,
by their instructors and should have had experience in recovering and seriously impair the judgment and coordination needed by
from unusual attitudes. Such experience will help overcome the pilot. A condition for which medicine is required may impair
subsequent, unexpected instances of disorientation. Pilots without a pilot’s proficiency, even though the symptoms are masked by
instrument flight training must maintain a visual horizon at all medicine. Unless cleared by a Civil Aviation Medical
times and should never flight plan VFR into areas where bad Examiner (CAME), pilots should not fly under the influence of
weather or low visibility may be encountered. An instrument prescription or over-the-counter drugs or herbal remedies any
rating does not prevent disorientation, but the training required more than they should fly under the influence of alcohol.
to obtain the rating provides the pilot with the ability to Air traffic controllers may be particularly susceptible to sedative
overcome it. side effects due to the need to perform repetitive tasks over
prolonged periods, often in a low-light environment.. The same
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
restrictions applied to the pilot must be observed. Additionally, 3.12 BLOOD DONATION
since controllers are more likely to report for work while suffering
In a completely healthy individual, the fluid reduction caused
from a cold than pilots are, the effects of over-the-counter
by donating one unit of blood is replaced within several hours.
treatments must be stressed.
In some people, however, the loss of blood causes disturbances
It should go without saying that recreational drug use has no to the circulation that may last for several days. While the effects
place in aviation and illicit drug use may result in the refusal to at ground level are minimal, flying during this period may entail
issue, refusal to renew, or suspension of a medical certificate. a risk. Generally, active pilots should not donate blood, but if
Cannabis became legal, for both recreational and medical blood has been donated they should wait at least 48 hr before flying.
purposes, in Canada in October 2018 by virtue of the Cannabis
Act. On June 3, 2019, Transport Canada announced the Civil 3.13 IMMUNIZATIONS
Aviation Medicine Cannabis Policy (<https://tc.canada.ca/en/ After receiving routine immunizations, such as flu shots or
aviation/general-operating-flight-rules/better-pilot-decision- tetanus shots, pilots should remain at the clinic for the amount
making/cannabis-legalization>). of time recommended by their health-care provider. In general,
Transport Canada defines “cannabis use” as the use of any this ranges from 15 to 30 min after the immunization. If the
cannabis product, including cannabidiol (CBD), by any method pilot feels well and there is no evidence of an adverse reaction,
(including smoking, vaping, eating or applying to the skin) for they may resume flying immediately without restriction. If they
any purpose (including medical, recreational or other non- feel unwell or experience an adverse reaction, they should wait
medical reasons). for 24 hr and be assessed by a health-care provider prior to flying.
The Civil Aviation Medicine Branch will monitor any new
Whether it is used recreationally or medically, cannabis has the i m mu ni z at ion developments a nd g u idel i nes, a nd
potential to cause impairment and adversely affect aviation safety. recommendations will be provided as needed.
All pilots, flight engineers, and air traffic controllers must abstain
from cannabis use for at least 28 days before reporting for duty. 3.14 PREGNANCY
The 28-day cannabis prohibition policy provides an additional
Pilots may continue to fly up to 30 weeks into their pregnancy,
layer of safety to existing approaches which requires no
provided the pregnancy is normal and without complications.
impairment, no diagnosis of a substance use disorder, no patterns
However, there are certain physiological changes that may affect
of problematic substance use likely to affect aviation safety, and
flight safety, and the foetus may be exposed to potentially
no cannabis use in the last 28 days.
hazardous conditions. Pilots should be aware of the hazards so
This policy neither prevents Canadian air operators from that they can make informed decisions on whether they choose
implementing more stringent prohibitions for their employees to fly or not.
nor removes the responsibility from aviation industry employers
As soon as a pilot realizes that she is pregnant, she should seek
and employees to ensure that all personnel are fit for duty at
prenatal care from a qualified physician or midwife and she
every duty interval. Flight crew and controllers must continue
should ensure that her maternity-care provider is aware that she
to self-ground in the event that they might not be fit for duty.
is a pilot. Should problems develop with the pregnancy before
Pilots, flight engineers, and air traffic controllers are also
the 30th week, the Regional Aviation Medical Officer (RAMO)
AIR
responsible for complying with the applicable laws or regulations
must be notified.
of other countries where they might operate.
The cannabis policy is subject to change based on new research In the first trimester, nausea and vomiting are common and
and information on cannabis that may emerge. may be worsened by turbulence, engine fumes and G forces. In
the first and second trimester, there is an increased likelihood
NOTE: of fainting, but this is uncommon in a sitting position. However,
The regulation specific to the use of alcohol or drugs by crew G tolerance may be reduced. A relative anaemia may occur after
members is included in the RAC chapter, Annex 2.0, Canadian the second trimester and may affect the pilot’s susceptibility to
Aviation Regulations, 602.03 (<https://lois-laws.justice.gc.ca/ hypoxia. Hypoxia is not a problem for the foetus below 10 000 ft
eng/regulations/SOR-96-433/FullText.html#s-602.03>). ASL (3 050 m).
Cosmic radiation is of particular concern because of the unborn
3.11 ANAESTHETICS child’s susceptibility to ionizing radiation. Dose equivalent is
Questions are often asked about flying after anaesthetics. With the measure of the biological harmfulness of ionizing radiation,
spinal or general anaesthetics, or with serious operations, pilots and the present international unit of dose equivalent is the
should not fly until their doctor says it is safe to do so. It is sievert (Sv). One sievert is equal to 1 000 millisieverts (mSv).
difficult to generalize about local anaesthetics used in minor The current recommendation is that the foetus should be exposed
operations or dental work. Allergic reactions to these, if they to no more than 1 mSv during the entire pregnancy, and no more
occur, are early and by the time the anaesthetic has worn off the than 0.5 mSv in any given month of pregnancy. For comparative
risk of side effects has passed. However, after extensive procedures purposes, the recommended annual limit for occupational
(such as the removal of several wisdom teeth), common sense ionizing radiation exposure for an adult is 50 mSv, with a 5-year
suggests waiting at least 24 hr before flying. average of no more than 20 mSv per year.
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Cosmic radiation is greater at the poles than at the equator 3.15.2 The Effects of G
and increases with altitude. On transpolar f lights at
G tolerance varies greatly with the individual. Because the
41 000 ft ASL (12 505 m), the estimated exposure is about
symptoms are caused by the displacement of blood and tissues,
0.012 mSv/h, although in a solar flare this can increase by a
we would expect that a pilot with good muscle tone would have
factor of 10. The exposure at the equator is about one-half of
a better tolerance. This is correct. Tolerance is lowered by obesity,
this. A flight from Athens to New York at 41 000 ft ASL (12 505 m)
ill health, low blood pressure, pregnancy and many medications.
would expose a pilot to approximately 0.09 mSv. A pilot flying
It may vary from day to day in relation to fatigue, smoking,
500 hours per year at 35 000 ft ASL (10 675 m) between 60° and
hypoxia or hangovers.
90° latitude would be exposed to 1.73 mSv annually. Although the
radiation risk to the foetus is small, it does still exist. The decision In absolute figures, G tolerance is affected by the peak value, the
to expose the foetus to this minimal degree of radiation rests duration of the G force and the rate of onset. If the rate of onset
with the pilot. In general, flying shorter flights at lower latitudes is very high, positive G can result in unconsciousness, known
will decrease exposure to ionizing radiation. Further information as G-loss of consciousness (G-LOC), without any other symptoms.
can be obtained from the Regional Medical Office or from the The increased weight of limbs and organs interferes with
FAA Advisory Circular (AC) 120-61B, dated November 21, 2014: movement, and forces greater than +3G make it almost impossible
<https://www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/advisory_circulars/ to escape from an aircraft in uncontrolled flight. Fine movements
index.cfm/go/document.information/documentID/1026386>. are less affected. Heavy equipment such as a protective helmet
Pilots with a normal pregnancy are considered temporarily unfit can cause problems with increasing G. At about +6G a pilot’s
and should cease flying after the 30th week of pregnancy. The head would be flexed on the chest by the increased weight of a
pilot may resume her flying privileges six weeks after delivery crash helmet.
if there are no significant medical issues. A brief medical report
from her attending physician should be forwarded to the RAMO. Figure 3.1—The G Axes
Air traffic controllers may work until the onset of labour, and
may resume their duties six weeks after delivery. A medical
report of fitness should be forwarded to the regional office.
3.15.1 What is G?
G is the symbol for the rate of change of velocity and so represents
both a force and a direction. The most common example is the
AIR
AIR
limits of testing, normal and emergency procedures specific to
training—20–30 min daily—and running distances less than
the test, and expected aircraft handling characteristics are
5 km is helpful, but long-distance running decreases G tolerance
essential if risks are to be minimized. If companies or individuals
by slowing the resting heart rate, which increases the chance of
wish to conduct a flight test program, they should apply for a
sudden loss of consciousness (G-LOC). A well-trained, experienced
Flight Permit and consult with the aircraft manufacturer and
pilot can tolerate up to 9G for as long as 30 s, but there is a lot
TC, who can help them to assess the risks and their capability
of individual variation. Acrobatic pilots who regularly fly high
to conduct the tests safely.
G manoeuvres develop high tolerance, but quickly lose it if they
are no longer exposed. Careful planning, covering all foreseeable exigencies, is critical
to safe testing.
4.0 MISCELLANEOUS 4.3 PRACTICE SPINS
Intentional practice spins conducted at low altitudes have resulted
4.1 AIR TIME AND FLIGHT TIME
in fatal accidents. All practice spin recoveries should be completed
Air Time is the period of time commencing when the aircraft no less than 2 000 feet AGL, or at a height recommended by the
leaves the supporting surface and terminating when it touches manufacturer, whichever is the greater.
the supporting surface at the next point of landing.
Flight Time is the total time from the moment an aircraft first
moves under its own power for the purpose of taking off until
the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight. This should
be recorded in all Pilot Log Books.
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4.7.1 Balloon Operations with Fare-Paying (a) in or into controlled airspace or an air route; or
Passengers (b) over or into a built-up area or an open-air assembly
of persons.”
CAR 603.17 states, “No person shall operate a balloon under
this Division unless the person complies with the provisions of CAR 603.37 states, “… a pilot-in-command may permit and a
a special flight operations certificate - balloons issued by the person may conduct a parachute descent under this Division if
Minister pursuant to Section 603.18.” the person complies with the provisions of a special flight
operations certificate - parachuting issued by the Minister
To qualify for a special flight operations certificate to permit
pursuant to Section 603.38.”
the operation of balloons with fare-paying passengers,
operators must:
4.9 HANG GLIDER AND
(a) maintain balloons in accordance with the requirements PARAGLIDER OPERATIONS
of CAR 605;
Hang gliders and paragliders are not required to be registered
(b) ensure that the balloons are properly equipped for the area or to bear identification marks. There are no airworthiness
and type of operation; and standards or requirements imposed by the CARs. The CARs do
(c) employ flight crew members who meet the requirements of not impose any training requirements for hang glider or paraglider
CAR 623.21, namely, who: pilots, and the regulations do not require these pilots to hold
any pilot licence or permit to operate their aircraft. There is,
(i) are at least eighteen years of age,
however, a requirement to successfully complete a written
(ii) hold a Balloon Pilot Licence issued by examination before piloting hang gliders and paragliders in
Transport Canada, controlled airspace. Section 602.29 of the CARs outlines airspace
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requirements for hang gliders and paragliders. Hang glider Good operating practices suggest a popped circuit breaker can
operators may use an ultralight aeroplane to tow a hang glider. indicate that there is a potential problem being protected. The
Before doing so, these operators are required to notify practice of attempting one reset should only be considered if the
Transport Canada. equipment rendered unusable is considered essential for the
continued safety of the flight. Depending on the amperage of
The Hang Gliding and Paragliding Association of Canada (HPAC)
the circuit breaker and its location within the circuit being
has developed standards for pilot ratings, competitions, setting
protected, resetting a popped circuit breaker may create a more
records, safety procedures and reporting, as well as for solo and
adverse situation than simply leaving the circuit breaker out.
two-place pilot instruction. Information regarding HPAC
Indiscriminately resetting popped circuit breakers should
operations and procedures may be obtained from:
be avoided.
Margit Nance
Executive Director Crew members are cautioned against pulling circuit breakers
Hang Gliding and Paragliding Association of on board an aircraft in order to silence an alerting or warning
Canada (HPAC) device that may in fact be providing a valid warning or alarm.
308-1978 Vine Street Examples of such alarms include landing gear warning horn
Vancouver BC V6K 4S1 with certain flap/slat combinations, overspeed warnings, ground
proximity warning system alerts and washroom smoke detectors.
E-mail: ............................................................. [email protected] Deactivating the alerting or warning device by pulling circuit
Tel.: ........................................................................877-370-2078 breakers compromises or may compromise the safety of flight.
Exceptions would be acceptable for an obvious malfunction
4.10 ULTRA-LIGHT AEROPLANE resulting in continuous erroneous warnings. In these cases, a
defect entry in the aircraft journey log book must be made.
Pilots interested in flying ultralight aeroplanes or advanced
ultralight aeroplanes are encouraged to contact their Transport
Canada regional office for information on regulation and licence 4.12 DESIGN EYE REFERENCE POINT
requirements. See GEN 1.1.1 for addresses and telephone numbers. Some aircraft manufacturers provide reference points which the
Pending amendment of the CARs, the Ultra-light Aeroplane pilot uses while making the seat adjustments. These reference
Transition Strategy outlines requirements for the operation of points could be something as simple as two balls affixed to the
ultralight aeroplanes in Canada. This document can be obtained glare shield which the pilot must line up visually. In a two-pilot
from Transport Canada offices or viewed online at: <www.tc.gc. aircraft the reference points could be formed by three balls in a
ca/eng/civilaviation/standards/general-recavi-ultralight- triangle and each pilot would adjust the seat until the respective
menu-2457.htm>. reference balls line up. The intent, of course, is to have the pilot
adjust the seat in order for the eyes of the pilot to be at the
A copy of the Study and Reference Guide—Pilot Permit—Ultra- optimum location for visibility, inside and outside the cockpit,
light Aeroplane (TP 14453E) is available at: <www.tc.gc.ca/eng/ as well as the correct position for access to the cockpit switches
civilaviation/publications/menu.htm>. and knobs. The engineering that results in the manufacturer
placing these balls on the glare shield is called ERGONOMICS.
4.11 CIRCUIT BREAKERS AND ALERTING This optimum position for the pilot’s eyes is referred to as the
AIR
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4.13 FIRST AID KITS ON PRIVATELY OWNED Exhaust plumes are defined as visible or invisible emissions from
AND OPERATED AIRCRAFT power plants, industrial production facilities or other industrial
systems that release large amounts of vertically directed unstable
CAR 602.60 requires a first aid kit to be carried on board every
gases. High temperature exhaust plumes may cause significant
power-driven aircraft, other than an ultra-light aeroplane. For
air disturbances, such as turbulence and vertical shear. Other
a list of recommended items that should be carried in a first aid
identified potential hazards include, but are not necessarily
kit on board aircraft that are privately owned and operated, refer
limited to, reduced visibility, oxygen depletion, engine particulate
to Part 9—First Aid of the Aviation Occupational Health and
contamination, exposure to gaseous oxides, and/or icing.
Safety Regulations (SOR/2011-87). <https://laws-lois.justice.
gc.ca/eng/regulations/sor-2011-87/page-10.html#h-781458> When able, pilots should fly upwind of possible exhaust plumes.
Encountering a plume may result in airframe damage, aircraft
4.14 SURVIVAL ADVISORY INFORMATION upset, and/or engine damage/failure. These hazards are most
critical during low altitude flight in calm and cold air, especially
A basic survival manual should be carried, appropriate to the in and around approach and departure corridors or in airport
area of flight. traffic areas.
Private pilots should obtain some training in certain aspects of When a plume is visible via smoke or a condensation cloud,
survival if they have never spent time in the bush in winter or remain clear and realize that a plume may have both visible and
summer. Those planning to fly above the tree line should obtain invisible characteristics. Exhaust stacks without visible plumes
more specialized training. may still be in full operation, and airspace in the vicinity should
Locating and saving people in aeronautical emergencies has be treated with caution. As with mountain wave turbulence or
been greatly improved by the changes implemented by the CAT, an invisible plume may be encountered unexpectedly.
SARSAT/COSPAS members. Today the SARSAT/COSPAS system Whether plumes are visible or invisible, the total extent of their
provides global detection capability by satellite. The improvements turbulent effect is difficult to ascertain. Some studies predict
in reliability of ELTs in conjunction with the global application that the significant turbulent effects of a thermal plume can
SARSAT/COSPAS systems has greatly increased the chances of extend over 1 000 ft above the top of the stack or cooling tower.
early detection and location of crash survivors. The carriage of Any effects will be more pronounced where the plume is very
food is no longer a critical item in survival and is left as a personal hot and the surrounding air is calm, stable and cold. Fortunately,
choice of the individual operator. (See AIP Canada GEN 1.5) studies also predict that crosswinds help dissipate the effects.
However, the size of the tower or stack is not a good indicator
4.15 POTENTIAL FLIGHT HAZARDS FOR of the plume’s predicted effect. The effects are primarily related
AIRCRAFT to the heat or size of the plume eff luent, the ambient air
temperature, and the wind speed affecting the plume. Smaller
4.15.1 Avoid Flight in the Vicinity of Exhaust aircraft can expect to be affected at a higher altitude than heavier
Plumes aircraft.
Figure 4.1—Visible and Invisible Plumes Pilots are encouraged to reference the CFS for the location of
structure(s) emitting exhaust plumes, such as cooling towers,
Visible Plume Invisible Plume
AIR
power plant stacks, exhaust fans and other similar structures.
Pilots encountering hazardous plume conditions should report
time, location and intensity (light, moderate, severe or extreme)
to the facility with which they are maintaining radio contact.
4.15.2.1 General
Directed bright light sources projected near airports or into any
navigable airspace can cause potential flight control disruptions
and/or eye injury to pilots, crew members, and passengers. The
number of laser illuminations affecting aircraft has significantly
increased during the past few years. In particular, the number
of laser incidents reported involving law enforcement helicopters
has substantially increased.
Canada and the USA have both recorded numerous instances
of laser exposures that have been disruptive to flight operations.
Flight crews may be startled; they may be affected by glare, flash
blindness and/or afterimage due to laser occurrences.
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Directed bright light sources, particularly laser beams, projected (b) Turn on additional exterior lights to help ground laser safety
near airports or into any navigable airspace can cause two flight observers locate the aircraft, so they can respond by turning
safety concerns: off the laser beam.
(a) The primary concern is when non-injurious, bright, directed (c) Turn on thunderstorm lights to minimize cockpit
light unexpectedly enters the cockpit. Depending on the illumination effects.
brightness level, the light could startle (a) flight crew (d) Engage the autopilot.
member(s); cause glare, making it difficult to see out the
windscreen; or cause temporary vision impairment (flash (e) Have one flight crew member stay on the instruments to
blindness and/or afterimage). The illumination and glare minimize the effects of a possible illumination while in the
may be short—one or a few bright flashes—but the startle area of expected laser activity.
and afterimage effects could persist for many seconds or (f) Consider using notch filter eye spectacles that protect against
even minutes. 514- and 532-nanometre laser wavelengths, if flying a
(b) A secondary concern is a laser beam so powerful that it helicopter engaged in surveillance or medical evacuation.
causes temporary or permanent eye injury to pilots, crew
members, or passengers. Fortunately, this is only a remote 4.15.2.2.2 Incident Procedures
possibility because the laser power required to cause eye If a laser beam illuminates a pilot in flight, the pilot should:
injury greatly exceeds that of lasers in common use today.
(a) Immediately look away from the laser source or try to shield
Therefore, the most likely in-flight safety hazard is a bright their eyes with their hand or a hand-held object to avoid, if
non-injurious flash causing disruption in the cockpit workflow. possible, looking directly at the laser beam.
This disruption poses significant flight safety hazards when the
cockpit workload increases below 10 000 ft AGL, such as during (b) Immediately alert the other flight crew member(s) and
critical phases of flight (approach and landing); in dense traffic advise them of the illumination and its effect on their vision.
areas (terminal environment and en route areas); and in proximity (c) If vision is impaired, immediately transfer control of the
to airports. aircraft to the other flight crew member. If other flight crew
Even laser pointers can cause pilots to become distracted from members have been illuminated, engage the autopilot (if
their immediate tasks. Reports of pilots exposed to persons using equipped).
laser pointers have been increasing in number. Pilots flying law (d) Be very cautious of spatial disorientation effects (e.g. the
enforcement helicopters have been particularly targeted by lasers. leans). After regaining vision, they should check cockpit
instruments for proper flight status.
4.15.2.2 Procedures (e) Resist the urge to rub their eyes after a laser illumination,
The primary purpose of this subsection is to outline preventive as this action may cause further eye irritation or damage.
measures and incident procedures that pilots can follow to either (f) Contact ATC and advise of a “LASER ILLUMINATION”.
prevent potential illuminations or minimize cockpit disruption. Use this terminology for all laser incident/accident reports.
For simplicity, the following procedures refer to laser illumination If the situation dictates, declare an emergency.
incidents; however, the same procedures should be applied
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regardless of the source, whether it is a laser or any other directed (g) When time permits, provide ATC with an incident report
bright light, such as a searchlight. that includes the laser location, direction, and beam colour
as well as the length of exposure (flash or intentional
tracking) and the effect on the crew.
4.15.2.2.1 Preventive Procedures
During aircraft operations into navigable airspace where laser NOTE:
illuminations are anticipated, flight crews should: To ensure that TC has sufficient information to analyze and
investigate occurrences, please complete the “Directed Bright
(a) Consult NOTAMs for temporary laser activity. The NOTAM Light Illumination Incident Report/Questionnaire” at <http://
should include the location and time of the laser operations. wwwapps.tc.gc.ca/wwwdocs/Forms/26-0751E_1405-03_E_X.pdf>
Avoid known permanent laser displays (e.g. Disney World). and send the completed form to <[email protected]>.
In the USA, these sites are published in the Airport/Facility
Directory, a Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)
4.15.2.2.3 Medical Follow-up Procedures After an
publication available at <www.faa.gov/air_traffic/flight_ In-flight Illumination
info/aeronav/digital_products/dafd/>. Currently, there is
only one permanent laser display site in Canada, located at A crew member who has been subjected to a significant
the Shaw Millennium Park in Calgary, Alta., (510258N illumination and who experiences persistent symptoms, such
1140530W 5 NM SW AIRPORT) but it is only being used as pain or visual abnormalities (e.g. flash blindness and/or
for special events (e.g. Canada Day). A NOTAM is published afterimage), should seek immediate medical attention. In
on those specific days. addition, they should contact a RAMO or an aviation medical
officer at the earliest opportunity. The medical officer will provide
assistance in locating the nearest ophthalmologist or medical
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NOTE:
Because diagnosis can be difficult, especially for medical
personnel who rarely, if ever, see laser eye injuries, it should not
be automatically assumed that a particular symptom, abnormality
or injury was caused by a given laser exposure.
Quebec Ontario
Civil Aviation Medicine
AIR
Civil Aviation Medicine
Transport Canada Transport Canada
330 Sparks Street 4900 Yonge Street, 4th Floor
Place de Ville, Tower C, Room 617 North York ON M2N 6A5
Ottawa ON K1A 0N8
Tel.: 1-800-305-2059
Tel.: 1-800-305-2059 Fax: 416-952-0569
Fax: 613-990-6623
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RPA—REMOTELY PILOTED Be mindful of other laws that may apply to drone flying like the
RPA
Species at Risk Act, the Marine Mammal Regulations, and the
AIRCRAFT Migratory Birds Regulations.
For more information on RPAS:
(a) Visit the TC drone safety Web site: <https://tc.canada.ca/
1.0 GENERAL INFORMATION en/aviation/drone-safety>.
The following parts of this chapter provide detailed information (b) To report an incident or safety issue or concern where an
for the safe operation of a remotely piloted aircraft system (RPAS). RPAS was involved, see <https://tc.canada.ca/en/aviation/
This information is intended to be used in conjunction with drone-safety/report-drone-incident>.
regulations and associated standards found in Part IX of the (c) For information about an upcoming special flight operations
Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs). Part IX rules apply certificate (SFOC)—RPAS application or regarding a request
regardless of the purpose of the RPAS use (e.g. recreational, already made, e-mail <TC.RPASCentre-CentreSATP.TC@
commercial, work, research). tc.gc.ca>.
This chapter has been organized to follow the order in which (d) For questions related to an RPAS safety assurance declaration,
information is described in Part IX of the CARs with a e-mail <TC.RPASDeclaration-DeclarationSATP.TC@tc.
description of the regulation, ways to meet the regulation’s gc.ca>.
objective, and additional related information. Thoughout the
Transport Canada Aeronautical Information Manual (TC AIM),
the term “should” implies that TC encourages all pilots to comply 2.0 MICRO REMOTELY PILOTED
with the applicable procedure. The term “shall” implies that the AIRCRAFT (RPAs)—LESS
applicable procedure is mandatory because it is supported by
regulations.
THAN 250 g
While an RPA is refers to the aircraft itself, including related Remotely piloted aircraft (RPAs) weighing less than 250 g are
components such as batteries, payloads, and lights, an RPAS named micro RPAs. The weight of the control station is not
includes the RPA as well as the control station and command factored into the weight calculation when determining whether
and control (C2) link. an RPA is a micro RPA (less than 250 g) or a small RPA (250 g
to 25 kg). However, the weight of any payload carried by the
As an RPA is defined as a navigable aircraft under CAR 101.01, RPA, such as an optional camera, a lens filter, pegs, propeller
other sections of the CARs may also apply, such as CARs 601.04 guards, stickers, and lights, will be considered part of the total
and 601.15, and section 5.1 of the Aeronautics Act. These weight. The micro RPA could thus reach 250 g or more and fall
regulations restrict the use of airspace to all “aircraft.” For more into the category of small RPAs from 250 g to 25 kg and have to
information, refer to RAC 2.8.6 and 2.9.2. comply with Subpart 1 of Part IX of the Canadian Aviation
Please note that the imperial system of units is used in aviation Regulations (CARs), requiring, among other things, an RPA
and for all information contained on aeronautical charts and registration and marking, and an RPA pilot certification.
publications. Other units apply to specific situations and can be If a micro RPA is modified or has accessories added that bring
found in Table 1.1 of GEN 1.4.1. the weight up to or over 250 g (such as propeller guards), the
Part IX of the CARs is enforced by delegated peace officers such small RPA shall be registered under CARs Part IX and the RPA
as a member of the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) or pilot will have to comply with the general operating and flight
by TC inspectors and investigators. TC is also partnering with rules in Subpart 1 of Part IX. The registration is done in the
other provincial and municipal law enforcement agencies to Drone Management Portal (DMP) by selecting the option “The
obtain delegation to enforce Part IX. Refer to LRA 6.4 for more drone was built using either a kit, off-the-shelf or custom-built
information on monetary penalties and to CAR 103 Schedule II, parts.” Once registered, the small RPA may be used in the conduct
where they are designated and listed. of a flight review, taking into account that it will not have a
remotely piloted aircraft system (RPAS) safety assurance
In addition to Part IX and other regulations in the CARs, other
declaration to operate in controlled airspace or close to people.
regulations apply when an RPAS is operated. The provisions of
If the small RPA is demodified back to its original sub-250 g
the Criminal Code could apply if an individual is creating mischief,
version, then the small RPA registration certificate is not valid
feeling fatigued, flying under the influence of alcohol or drugs,
anymore and the RPA is again a micro RPA until it is back to
or endangering the safety of people or an aircraft. Other rules
250 g or over the small RPA weight category. There is no need
such as the Privacy Act, the Personal Information Protection and
to deregister the RPA from the DMP in this situation.
Electronic Documents Act, or provincial privacy legislation may
also apply. Be respectful of people’s privacy. It is a good practice Pilots of micro RPAs are not subject to Subpart 1 of Part IX of
to let people know you will be flying in the area and what you the CARs, so they are not required to register and mark their
are doing with your RPA; you should also obtain an individual’s RPAs or obtain a certificate to fly them. However, they must
consent if you are going to record private information. Privacy adhere to CAR 900.06 and ensure they do not operate their RPAs
guidelines can be found online at <https://tc.canada.ca/en/ in such a reckless or negligent manner as to endanger or be likely
aviation/drone-safety>. to endanger aviation safety or the safety of any person. While
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there are no prescriptive elements of the regulation that inform 3.0 SMALL REMOTELY PILOTED
RPA
RPA
3.1.1.1 Cancelling a Registration The CARs define VLOS as “unaided visual contact at all times
with the remotely piloted aircraft that is sufficient to be able to
An RPA registration is cancelled once any of the conditions maintain operational control of the aircraft, know its location,
detailed in CAR 901.07 are met. It is the responsibility of the and be able to scan the airspace in which it is operating to detect
registered owner to notify the Minister within 7 days if their and avoid other aircraft or objects.” (CAR 900.01). CAR 901.11(1)
registered RPA is destroyed, permanently out of service, missing requires that pilots operating RPASs maintain VLOS at all times
for more than 60 days, missing with a terminated aircraft search, during flight. Losing sight of the RPA behind buildings or trees
or transferred to a new owner. The registration is also cancelled or into clouds or fog is strictly prohibited even for a short period
if the owner of the aircraft dies, the entity that owns the aircraft of time.
ceases to exist, or the owner no longer meets the requirements
of CAR 901.04. Maintaining VLOS can be achieved by an individual pilot keeping
the RPA within sight for the duration of the flight or by using
Notification can be provided to the Minister through the Drone one or more trained visual observers. The RPA must remain in
Management Portal. VLOS with the pilot or at least one visual observer at all times.
It is important to note that the registration is cancelled immediately The pilot may take his or her eyes off the aircraft for brief moments
when any of the conditions above are met and not when the to operate the control station or perform other flight-critical
Minister is notified. tasks without being considered to have lost VLOS. If a task will
require extended loss of visual contact, the pilot should use a
If an RPA for which the registration has been cancelled and for visual observer or land the aircraft until the task is complete.
which the Minister has been notified has been found, fixed, or
otherwise brought back into service, an application for a new While the maximum range for VLOS is not prescribed by
registration must be completed. regulation, pilots are required to determine the maximum
distance the RPA can travel away from them before it becomes
Failure to notify the Minister in accordance with CAR 901.07 a hazard (CAR 901.28(c)). The factors to consider when
may result in individual penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate determining this range are discussed in paragraph 3.2.6.2(a)
penalties of up to $5,000. Limitations of the Eye in this chapter. However, the manufacturer’s
instructions or user manual takes precedence in this matter and
3.1.1.2 Change of Name or Address should be consulted prior to determining the maximum range.
Registered owners of RPAs are required to notify the Minister It is important to note that the regulations require VLOS be
within 7 days of a change of name or address. Notification can unaided. Pilots and visual observers may not use binoculars,
be provided to the Minister through the Drone Management Portal. telescopes, or zoom lenses to maintain VLOS, but unmagnified
Failure to notify the Minister in accordance with CAR 901.08 night-vision devices are permitted for night VLOS operations
may result in individual penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate provided they are able to detect all light within the visual spectrum
penalties of up to $5,000. (CAR 901.39(2)). Glasses, such as sunglasses or prescription
glasses, are not considered to be aids and are permitted.
3.2 GENERAL OPERATION AND FLIGHT Maintaining VLOS is a fundamental requirement for safe RPA
RULES operations as it is the primary, and often only, means of avoiding
other airborne traffic. Failure to maintain VLOS can result in
This subpart describes general rules for small remotely piloted
individual penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate penalties
aircraft (RPAs); these rules apply to both basic and advanced
of up to $5,000.
operations unless there are specific exclusions.
3.2.1.2 Radio line-of-sight (RLOS)
3.2.1 Line-of-sight
The signal used by most small RPAs is often transmitted in the
Visual line-of-sight (VLOS) RPAS operations rely on the LOS 2.4 GHz part of the electromagnetic spectrum, mainly because
concept to ensure safety and regulatory compliance. This concept of range performance and the fact that it is a part of the spectrum
assumes an imaginary line between the pilot, through the control that does not require a licence to transmit. This frequency band
station, and the RPA, unimpeded by any obstacles or excessive is crowded by many users, and an RPA pilot can experience
distance. Line-of-sight can be broken into two distinct categories: electromagnetic interference from these other devices. In
1. Visual line-of-sight by way of the pilot keeping a visual addition, signals in this band are susceptible to interruption by
reference with the RPA unaided throughout the flight. physical interference from buildings and trees. It is critical,
2. Radio line-of-sight (RLOS), which is a function of the C2 therefore, to ensure that there is uninterrupted RLOS between
data link between the control station and the RPA for the the control station and the RPA, regardless of the distance between
purposes of managing the flight. Both the VLOS and the the two. A control station that is powerful enough to transmit
RLOS share the same foundational idea but can have different a signal a few kilometres away may nevertheless be unable to
applications in RPA operations. control an RPA a few metres away if there is an obstacle or
interference in RLOS.
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In cases where a public authority has established a security RPA pilots wishing to operate in Class A airspace require specific
perimeter around an emergency area (e.g. fire, police incident, authorization from both TC and NAV CANADA. See section
earthquake, or flood) RPA pilots are required to stay outside of 3.6.1 of this chapter for information about SFOC—RPAS.
the perimeter unless they are acting in the service of the public Class A airspace is generally defined as high-level airspace starting
authority that created the perimeter, acting to save a human life, at FL 180 or approximately 18 000 ft in Southern Domestic
or working with first responders such as police or fire authorities Airspace, FL 230 in Northern Domestic Airspace, and FL 270
(CAR 901.12). in Arctic Domestic Airspace. This type of airspace is not denoted
Security perimeters can generally be identified as places where on aeronautical charts. Given the high-level nature of Class A
public officials limit or restrict access, where caution or police airspace, it is rarely a concern for small RPA pilots. More
perimeter tape has been erected, or where first responders are information on Class A airspace can be found in the TC AIM
on the scene. It is critical that RPA pilots and their aircraft do RAC 2.8.1.
not enter or fly over these areas as they may conflict with or
prevent lifesaving activities. Class B Airspace
Failure to respect these perimeters can result in individual RPA pilots wishing to operate in Class B airspace require specific
penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate penalties of up to authorization from both Transport Canada and the ANSP. See
$5,000. section 3.6.1 of this chapter for information about SFOC—RPAS.
Class B airspace is generally defined as low-level controlled
3.2.3 Airspace airspace and exists between 12 500 ft and the floor of Class A
airspace but it may include some control zones and control areas
that are lower. The specific dimensions of Class B airspace in
3.2.3.1 Canadian Domestic Airspace
Canada can be found in the DAH.
Canadian RPA pilots are required to keep their RPA within CDA
as detailed in RAC subpart 2.2 of the TC AIM and the Designated Class C Airspace
Airspace Handbook (DAH) (CAR 901.13). Class C airspace is considered an advanced operating environment.
Failure to remain within CDA can result in individual penalties See section 3.4.3 of this chapter for more information.
of up to $1,000 and/or corporate penalties of up to $5,000. Class C airspace is controlled airspace, generally exists around
large airports, and extends from the surface to an altitude of
3.2.3.2 Controlled Airspace 3 000 ft AGL, but the exact size and shape of the space is dependent
on local airspace management needs. Class C airspace is depicted
RPA pilots are required to keep their RPA clear of controlled
on all VFR Navigation Charts (VNC) and VFR Terminal Area
airspace unless:
Charts (VTA) as well as in the DAH, using NAV CANADA’s
(a) the pilot holds a pilot certificate—RPA (VLOS)—advanced drone flight planning tool and the National Research Council
operations as described in section 3.4.1 of this chapter; Canada Drone Site Selection Tool.
(b) the RPAS manufacturer has declared that the unit meets Class D Airspace
the appropriate safety assurance profile as described in
section 3.4.3 of this chapter; and Class D airspace is considered an advanced operating environment.
See section 3.4.3 of this chapter for more information.
(c) the RPA pilot has received an authorization from the
appropriate air navigation service provider (ANSP) as Class D airspace is controlled airspace and generally exists around
described in section 3.4.4 of this chapter. medium-sized airports and extends from the surface to an altitude
of 3 000 ft AGL, but the exact size and shape of the space is
All three conditions must be met to gain access to controlled
dependent on local airspace management needs. Class D airspace
airspace and each will be discussed in an individual section of
is depicted on all VNCs and VTAs as well as in the DAH, using
this chapter.
NAV CANADA’s drone flight planning tool and the National
For the purposes of RPAS operations, controlled airspace includes Research Council Canada Drone Site Selection Tool.
Class A, B, C, D, and E. Class F airspace can be controlled airspace,
uncontrolled airspace, or a combination of both. Class E Airspace
Class E airspace is considered an advanced environment. See
A basic description of controlled airspace can be found below.
section 3.4.3 of this chapter for more information.
Additional information can be found in the Designated Airspace
Handbook (DAH) (TP 1820) and in subpart RAC 2.8 of the Class E airspace is controlled airspace for aircraft operating
TC AIM. Flight within each class is governed by specific rules under IFR and can exist around an airport as a control zone or
applicable to that class and are contained in CAR 601.01, away from an airport where an operational need exists to control
Division I — Airspace Structure, Classification and Use. CAR 601 IFR aircraft. Class E control zones usually extend from the
can be found at <https://lois-laws.justice.gc.ca/eng/regulations/ surface to an altitude of 3 000 ft AGL. It can also often exist
SOR-96-433/FullText.html#s-601.01>. from 2 200 ft AGL and up in a control area extension surrounding
a control zone. When this type of airspace is not associated with
an airport it usually begins at 700 ft AGL and extends to
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12 500 ft ASL, but the exact size and shape of the space is The tool is powered by a Google Earth engine that uses colour
RPA
dependent on local airspace management needs. Class E airspace to identify areas that require additional caution or where RPA
is depicted on all VNCs and VTAs as well as in the DAH, using flights are prohibited according to a basic or advanced RPA
NAV CANADA’s drone flight planning tool and the National operation category. Users should start by selecting the appropriate
Research Council Canada Drone Site Selection Tool. category of drone operations (i.e. basic or advanced). Areas filled
with red are prohibited. Areas filled with yellow require additional
Class F Airspace caution due to other air traffic. Areas filled with orange require
Class F airspace is special-use airspace and can be either restricted permission from NAV CANADA, Parks Canada, National Defence,
or advisory. Class F can be controlled airspace, uncontrolled or an airport operator.
airspace, or a combination of both, depending on the classification When a user clicks on the control zones, information is displayed
of the airspace surrounding it. Class F airspace is identified on regarding the emergency contact information, airspace class,
all VNCs and VTAs as well as in the DAH, using NAV Drone flight permission requirements, and more. It is important that
Viewer and the NRC Drone Site Selection Tool. The DAH is the user verify the information before initiating the RPAS
updated every 56 days and is available on the NAV CANADA operation; it is the pilot’s responsibility to contact the responsible
Web site at <https://www.navcanada.ca/en/aeronautical- authorities if he or she wishes to enter restricted airspace.
information/operational-guides.aspx/#093dcf9f312e43df922d
ec86e7f295d7>. Data regarding airports and heliports comes from the Canada
Flight Supplement (CFS), a NAV CANADA publication, and is
Class F Restricted Airspace updated every 56 days. The airspace data comes from the
Class F restricted airspace is denoted as CYR followed by three Designated Airspace Handbook (DAH) of NAV CANADA.
numbers (e.g. CYR123) and should be avoided by all aircraft, The national park data was extracted from the Canada Lands
including all RPAs, except by those approved by the user agency Surveys Web services. A limited amount of data has been
identified in the DAH. The letter D for danger area will be used added manually to extend and improve upon the tool.
if the restricted area is established over international waters.
CYRs can be found over prisons and some military training 3.2.3.4 Inadvertent Entry Into Controlled Airspace
areas, for example. Additional information about restricted RPA pilots must be aware of not only the airspace in which they
airspace can be found in RAC 2.8.6 and 2.9.2. To gain access to are operating but also the surrounding airspace, specifically
Class F restricted airspace, RPA pilots should contact the user their proximity to controlled airspace and restricted airspace,
agency as listed for the specific block of airspace in the DAH. both laterally and vertically. If the RPAS operation is taking
place at a location from which the RPA might enter controlled
Class F Advisory Airspace
or special use airspace in the event of a fly-away, the RPA pilot
Class F advisory airspace is denoted as CYA followed by three should have the contact information for the appropriate ANSP
numbers (e.g. CYA123). CYA denotes airspace reserved for a or user agency immediately available. In the event that the RPA
specific application such as hang gliding, flight training, or enters or is about to enter controlled airspace or special use
helicopter operations. RPA pilots are not restricted from operating airspace, the pilot must immediately notify the appropriate air
in advisory airspace and no special permission is required, but traffic control (ATC) unit, flight service station (FSS), or user
pilots should be aware of the reason the airspace has the advisory agency (CAR 901.15). Failure to notify the appropriate agency
and take steps to identify any additional risks and mitigate them. or agencies when unauthorized entry into controlled or restricted
Many activities in a CYA often bring directly piloted (manned) airspace may occur could result in individual penalties of $1,000
aircraft into airspace below 400 ft AGL and are therefore a greater or corporate penalties of $5,000.
risk to RPA operations. Additional information can be found
in RAC 2.8.6.
3.2.4 Flight Safety
Class G Airspace RPA pilots are legitimate airspace users but are new entrants
Class G airspace exists in any space that is not Class A, B, C, D, into a complex environment. It is the responsibility of the RPA
E, or F. Class G airspace is uncontrolled and is considered the pilots to take their role in the aviation environment seriously
basic operating environment for RPAS, assuming the conditions and ensure all necessary steps are taken to mitigate any possible
regarding proximity to people, airports, and heliport are met. risks. RPA pilots must keep in mind that the risk of injuring a
These will be discussed in RAC 3.2.14 and 3.2.35. person is greater than colliding with another aircraft, and a good
safety margin should be kept according to the situation, especially
3.2.3.3 Drone Site Selection Tool
for advanced operations within 30 m of the public. It is the RPA
pilot’s responsibility to manage the flight to ensure a safe outcome.
This online interactive tool provides information regarding He or she is to use all resources available to make appropriate,
airspace restrictions around airports, heliports, and aerodromes safe decisions to continue with the RPA flight or to end or
to facilitate flight planning and ensure compliance with the re-schedule operations if needed.
regulations. It was designed to help RPA pilots determine areas
where drone flight is prohibited, restricted, or potentially If, during an operation, the pilot becomes aware of any situation
hazardous. The Drone Site Selection Tool can be found at <https:// that endangers aviation safety or the safety of persons on the
cnrc.canada.ca/en/drone-tool/>. ground he or she must immediately cease the operation until it
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is safe to continue (CAR 901.16). Failure to do so may result in Vision is influenced by atmospheric conditions, glare, lighting,
RPA
individual penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate penalties temperature, aircraft design, and so forth. On a sunny day, for
of up to $5,000. example, glare is worse. Glare makes it hard to see what is at a
distance as well as making the scanning process uncomfortable.
3.2.5 Right of Way Vision can be affected by different levels of illumination:
RPA pilots must give way to all other aircraft, including balloons, (a) Bright illumination: reflected off of clouds, water, snow,
gliders, airships, and hang gliders (heavier-than-air aircraft) and desert terrain; produces glare resulting in eye strain.
(CAR 901.17). It is critical that this rule is respected and that
RPA pilots take their role in ensuring collision avoidance seriously, (b) Dark Adaptation: Eyes must have at least 20 to 30 minutes
as pilots of other aircraft may not be able to see the RPA as well to adjust to reduced light conditions.
as the RPA pilot can see and hear other aircraft. RPA pilots must (i) Red light helps night vision; however, it distorts
not operate so close to another aircraft as to create the risk of colour and makes details hard to perceive;
collision (CAR 901.18). If the RPA pilot sees a traditional aircraft (ii) Light adaptation can be destroyed in seconds, though
approaching the area of RPAS operation, they shall take immediate closing one eye may preserve some.
action to avoid any risk of conflict. If a conflict with another
aircraft becomes likely, RPA pilots must take immediate action Additionally, vision is impaired by exposure to altitudes above
to exit the area by the quickest means possible. This often means 5 000 ft ASL, carbon monoxide inhaled from smoking and
rapidly reducing altitude. exhaust fumes, a deficiency of Vitamin A in one’s diet, and
prolonged exposure to bright sunlight.
Failure to give way to other aircraft or to remain far enough
away from other aircraft to avoid a conflict or the risk of collision One significant limitation of the eye is the time required for
may result in individual penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate accommodation, or refocusing of objects both near and far. It
penalties of up to $5,000 and could constitute endangering an takes 1 to 2 seconds for the eyes to adjust during refocusing.
aircraft under the Criminal Code. Considering that you may need up 10 seconds to spot aircraft
traffic, identify it, and take action to avoid a mid-air collision,
each second is critical. Looking at an empty area of the sky causes
3.2.6 Detecting and Avoiding Traffic
empty field myopia and will impair your ability to focus. You
should look at a cloud patch or tree line to allow your eyes to
3.2.6.1 General
focus.
When flying an RPA within VLOS, pilots practise “detect-and- Another eye limitation is the narrow field of vision. While the
avoid” (DAA) as a primary method of minimizing the risk of eyes can observe an approximate 200-degree arc of the horizon
collision with other aircraft. DAA requires the pilot to look away at one glance, only a very small centre area called the fovea, in
from the control station and become aware of his/her aircraft the rear of the eye, has the ability to send clear, sharply focused
and the surrounding environment. If the pilot can acquire skills messages to the brain. All other visual information that is not
to compensate for the limitations of the human eye, the DAA processed directly through the fovea will be less detailed. More
practice can be greatly improved and effective in facilitating a information is available in subpart AIR 3.5 Vision.
safer flight environment altogether. More information on how
pilots can improve their visual skills is available in 3.2.6.2(b) Visual Scanning Technique
Visual Scanning Technique.
Avoiding collisions requires effective scanning from before
In addition, the RPA pilot has other tools to detect traffic, such takeoff until the aircraft comes to a stop at the end of a flight.
as hearing an approaching aircraft, monitoring a local ATC The best way to avoid collisions is by learning how to use your
frequency, and using transponder or ADS-B monitoring devices, eyes for efficient scanning, as well as understanding the visual
which are becoming more common. limitations described above and not overestimating your visual
abilities.
3.2.6.2 Seeing Traffic Before takeoff, visually scan the airspace around your intended
Limitations of the Eye take-off location. Assess traffic audibly as well, listening for
engine sounds and, if possible, radio transmissions. After takeoff,
The eye is the primary means of identifying what is happening keep scanning throughout the flight to ensure that no other
around us, as 80% of our information intake is conducted through traffic will be a hazard to your aircraft.
the eyes. During flight we depend on our eyes to provide basic
input necessary for flying, such as proximity to other air traffic, Scanning your eyes over a large area of sky at once without
direction, speed, and altitude of the RPA. A basic understanding stopping to focus on anything is ineffective. Because the eyes
of the eyes’ limitations in target detection is important for can focus only on a narrow viewing area, effective scanning is
avoiding collisions. achieved through short, regularly spaced eye movements that
bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field.
Movement can be detected more effectively through peripheral
vision, so this pause in a visual scan allows for easier detection
of threats such as aircraft and birds. An effective scan is a
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continuous process used by the pilot and observer to cover all While monitoring the radio, a pilot can build up a mental picture
RPA
areas of the sky visible from the control station. of the other traffic in the local area and, depending on the level
of the pilot’s knowledge of aviation, he or she can use the radio
Although horizontal back-and-forth eye movements seem to be
calls from other aircraft to determine potential hazards to the
preferred by most pilots, every pilot should develop a scanning
RPA operation.
pattern that is most comfortable for them and then adhere to it
to assure optimum scanning. Pilots should realize that their In accordance with section 33 of the Radiocommunication
eyes may require several seconds to refocus when switching Regulations, a person may operate radio apparatus in the
views between items in or on the control station and distant aeronautical service [...] only where the person holds [a Restricted
objects. The eyes will also tire more quickly when forced to adjust Operator Certificate with Aeronautical Qualification (ROC-A),
to distances immediately after close-up focus, as required for issued by Innovation, Science and Economic Development
scanning the control station. While there is no “one size fits all” Canada]. Also, all radio equipment used in aeronautical services
technique for an optimum scan, many pilots use some form of must be licensed by Industry Canada.
the “block” system scan. This scan involves dividing the sky
For more information on the standard radio phraseology used
into blocks, each spanning approximately 10 to 15 degrees of
in aviation, see Innovation, Science and Economic Development’s
the horizon and 10 to 15 degrees above it. Imagine a point in
study guide RIC-21 for the ROC-A, COM 1.0 in the TC AIM,
space at the centre of each block. Focus on each point to allow
or NAV CANADA’s VFR Phraseology Guide.
the eye to detect a conflict within the foveal field, as well as
objects in the peripheral area around the centre of each scanning
3.2.6.4 Avoiding a Collision
block.
Good scanning requires constant attention-sharing with other Once an aircraft is detected and it is determined to be a conflict,
piloting tasks, and pilots should remember that good scanning the RPA pilot is responsible for avoiding a mid-air collision. The
is easily degraded by conditions such as boredom, illness, fatigue, best way to fulfill this obligation will vary depending on the
preoccupation with other tasks or ideas, and anxiety. scenario, and RPA pilots should plan how they are going to react
to a potential collision prior to taking off or launching to ensure
their strategy best fits the operation. The fastest method of
3.2.6.3 Hearing Traffic
resolving a potential conflict is likely reducing altitude.
One advantage an RPA pilot has over a pilot of a manned aircraft
The RPA pilot must always give way to other airspace users
is the ability to hear approaching traffic. The first indication an
(CAR 901.17), and RPA pilots should recognize that the pilot of
RPA pilot will have of approaching traffic will often be the noise
the other aircraft likely will not see the RPA with sufficient time
from the engines and/or rotors, both of which can be useful cues
to react. The responsibility of avoiding a collision lies with the
to direct the pilot’s attention to traffic detection. Even though
RPA pilot, and it is a responsibility that should be taken very
these noise cues can be distorted by terrain, buildings, or wind,
seriously as the lives of the people in the other aircraft may
they are still a credible means for the RPA pilot to focus on
depend on it.
identifying approaching aircraft until they can be visually
acquired.
3.2.7 Fitness of Crew Members
Monitoring Air Traffic Frequencies All members of the crew including the visual observers, pilots,
It is possible that an RPA pilot will have access to a radio for and others involved in the operation of the RPAS must not be
monitoring ATC frequencies. This radio may be part of a pilot’s under the influence of any drugs or alcohol or fatigued when
risk-mitigation efforts in the event of a non-standard operation. conducting an operation with an RPAS (CAR 901.19). Additional
In any event, this radio can be an extremely valuable source of information can be found in the TC AIM AIR – Airmanship,
traffic information, provided the RPA pilot is aware of the correct Part 3.0 Medical Information.
frequency to monitor. Aviation frequencies can be found on
It is strictly prohibited under CAR 901.19 to act as a pilot or crew
aviation maps as well as in the CFS.
member of an RPAS within 12 hours after consuming an alcoholic
Table 3.1—Air Traffic Frequencies beverage, while under the influence of alcohol, or while using
any drug that impairs a person’s faculties. It is also strictly
prohibited under PART VIII.1 section 320.14(1) of the Criminal
Frequency (MHz) Usage Code for a person to act as a pilot or crew member of an RPA
while the person’s ability to operate is impaired, to any degree,
by alcohol, drugs, or a combination of both. All aircraft pilots
and crew members must remain fit to fly.
126.7 Uncontrolled airspace
If an RPA pilot takes prescription drugs, it is his or her duty to
ensure they do not alter his or her ability to safely engage in RPA
Uncontrolled, unassigned operations. It is each individual’s responsibility to consult with
123.2
aerodromes a physician in a case of doubt and to advise other members of
the team of the situation if deemed necessary.
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Cannabis became legal, for both recreational and medical Table 3.2—IM SAFE Checklist
RPA
purposes, in Canada in October 2018 by virtue of the Cannabis
Act. Whether it is used recreationally or medically, cannabis has Illness
the potential to cause impairment and adversely affect aviation I Are you suffering from any illnesses that could
impair your ability to complete your duties?
safety. All aircraft pilots and flight crew members (including
RPA pilots and visual observers) must abstain from cannabis Medication
use for at least 28 days when conducting operations with an Are you under the influence of any drugs (over-
M
the-counter, prescription, or recreational) that will
RPAS. impair your ability to complete your duties?
Fatigue is as dangerous as drugs or alcohol when it comes to Stress
impairment and is oftentimes harder to detect. Fatigue will Are personal or professional matters causing
S
influence judgment, motor response, and mental capability. Its stress to the point that you are distracted or
effects can be present without the person realizing it, making it otherwise impaired?
particularly dangerous. It is important to consider that sleep Alcohol
itself is not the only factor influencing the degree of a person’s A Have you consumed any alcohol within the
fatigue. Lack of sleep, work-related stress, family issues, emotional previous 12 hours?
state, and general health are all factors that contribute to the Fatigue
fatigue level of a particular individual. A comprehensive guide Are you feeling tired? (You should have had
F
to manage fatigue, the Fatigue Risk Management System (FRMS) sufficient rest in the previous 24 hours and
Toolbox for Canadian Aviation, is available on Transport Canada’s should feel alert.)
Web site: <www.tc.gc.ca/en/services/aviation/commercial-air- Eating and drinking
services/fatigue-risk-management/frms-toolbox.htm>. It is a E Are you feeling hungry or thirsty? (You should be
great tool to help understand, manage, and mitigate the risks adequately nourished and hydrated.)
associated with fatigue in an aeronautical context. Failure to abstain from acting as a crew member of an RPAS
It is not just fatigue, alcohol, or drugs that can leave a crew while unfit may result in individual penalties of up to $1,000
member unfit for duties. Illness and many other conditions may and/or corporate penalties of up to $5,000. Acting as a crew
diminish crew members’ ability to perform their functions and member within 12 hours of consuming alcohol or while under
might render them unfit for the operation. It is the responsibility the influence of drugs or alcohol may result in individual fines
of individual crew members to conduct a self-assessment to of $5,000 and/or corporate penalties of $15,000.
ensure they are fit before accepting any duties related to the
operation. 3.2.8 Visual Observers
Reviewing a checklist prior to flight can help a crew member In some cases, a visual observer is needed to assist the pilot in
determine if they are fit to fly. A simple IM SAFE checklist can maintaining a constant VLOS with the RPA to comply with the
be found below but several other examples can be found online. CARs. In complex operating environments like urban areas, the
If the answer to any of the questions below is “Yes”, you are likely RPA pilot and the visual observer have to maintain communication
not fit to act as a crew member. for updates to any impending conflict between the RPA and
terrain, obstacles, aviation traffic, weather, etc. Visual observers
shall be trained to perform any duties as assigned to them by
the pilot. This includes visual scanning techniques, aircraft
identification, communications, and any other knowledge that
may be required to successfully perform their duties. The pilot
and visual observer(s) shall remain in constant and immediate
communication throughout the RPAS operation, as stated in
CAR 901.20.
Before beginning an operation, the crew should agree upon
consistent communication language specific to the mission at
hand. Important information sought by the pilot could be the
RPA’s relative distance, altitude, and flight path in relation to
manned aircraft but also other hazards like terrain, weather,
and structures. The visual observer must be able to determine
the RPA’s proximity to all aviation activities and sufficiently
inform the pilot of its relative distance, altitude, flight path, and
other hazards (e.g. terrain, weather, structures) to prevent it
from creating a collision hazard.
The visual observer will also help the RPA pilot to keep the
operational environment sterile (that is, free of irrelevant
conversation) during the flight and minimize the disturbances
to the RPA pilot and crew.
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Visual observers are not required to possess an RPA pilot digital format. Caution should be exercised if the procedures
RPA
certificate when they are crew members of a small RPA (VLOS) are on the same mobile device that is being used to pilot the
carrying out basic or advanced operations. RPAS. Following all emergencies, the PIC should log the events
and follow-up actions in accordance with CAR 901.49.
3.2.9 Compliance With Instructions
Control Station Failure
In any type of safety-critical operation there is a requirement Whether the RPAS is controlled via a laptop, RC, or another
for one person to have the final word on how and when various device, its crew should have troubleshooting items committed
tasks will be performed. In aviation this person is called the to memory for immediate action. Pilots should know and be
pilot-in-command or pilot. For RPAS operations all crew members prepared for how their aircraft will respond to a crashed app,
are required to follow the instructions of the pilot. powered down transmitter, or low battery scenario.
Failure to follow the instructions of the pilot can result in unsafe
situations and may be punishable by individual penalties of up Equipment Failure
to $1,000 and/or corporate penalties of up to $5,000. While some equipment will not be flight-critical, crews should
know which items require aircraft grounding and which are safe
3.2.10 Living Creatures to fly without. Establishing a manufacturer-advised minimum
equipment list is a good practice.
RPA pilots are prohibited from operating an RPA with a living
creature on board (CAR 901.22). As with the entirety of Subpart I RPA Failure
of Part IX, this regulation applies only to small RPAs. In order
Crews should be aware of items that will cause a critical failure
to operate large RPAs for the purpose of carrying persons, an
of the RPA and what flight condition these failures will create.
SFOC—RPAS issued in accordance with CAR 903.03 is required
While fixed wings may glide, most multirotors will descend
(see subpart 3.6 of this chapter).
with varying levels of control. Immediate actions should involve
The Aeronautics Act and CARs do not explicitly define what a establishing a safe area and preparing for injury or incident
living creature constitutes. However, TCCA’s interpretation is response.
that the word “creature” refers to and is synonymous with
Kingdom Animalia (insects, mammals, birds, etc.), as per the Lost Link
biological definition. Bacteria are not animals; therefore, it is Immediate action items should include troubleshooting (which,
our interpretation that they do not qualify as living creatures depending on the system used, may involve reorienting antennas),
under CAR 901.22. confirming or exchanging the cable connection, or selecting a
The operation of a small RPA with a living creature on board flight termination system. The crew should monitor the aircraft
may result in individual penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate and the airspace until connection can be regained or the aircraft
penalties of up to $5,000. lands safely; otherwise, flyaway procedures should be initiated.
Flyaway
3.2.11 Procedures
A flyaway indicates an unresponsive aircraft and should warrant
immediate action by the crew to mitigate associated risks both
3.2.11.1 Normal Operating Procedures
in airspace and on the ground. After initial troubleshooting,
RPA pilots are required to establish procedures for the pre-flight, action should be taken to alert the ANSP of a deviation from
take-off, launch, approach, landing, and recovery phases of the planned flight path and any potential conflict that may exist.
flight. The procedures established must allow the aircraft to be This is why it is critical that pilots understand the airspace
operated within any limitations prescribed by the manufacturer surrounding their operating environment both laterally and
and should be reviewed by the pilot on a regular basis to ensure vertically.
they contain the most up-to-date information and be available
to the pilot at the crew station during all phases of flight in either Flight Termination
a written or digital format. Caution should be exercised if the Flight termination can take many forms and may be as simple
procedures are on the same mobile device that is being used to as a normal landing or as complex as a fragmentation system or
pilot the RPAS. This practice is not recommended. parachute. Another common flight termination system is return-
to-home, or RTH. Crews should know when and how to activate
3.2.11.2 Emergency Procedures RTH and how to cancel or override, if possible.
RPA pilots are required to establish emergency procedures for
control station failures, equipment failures, RPA failures, lost
links, f lyaways, and f light terminations. The procedures
established must allow the aircraft to be operated within any
limitations prescribed the by manufacturer and should be
reviewed by the pilot on a regular basis to ensure they contain
the most up-to-date information and be available to the pilot at
the crew station during all phases of flight in either a written or
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
3.2.12 Pre-flight Information (e.g. quality of the fuel or battery), and mechanical factors (e.g.
RPA
RPA
Station height is the altitude measured at a weather reporting RPA pilots are required to remain 100 ft or 30 m from people
station, often an aerodrome, relative to sea level. not associated with the operation. The distance from people
must be maintained regardless of the altitude at which the RPAS
Above Ground Level (AGL) is operating.
AGL involves an altitude of zero feet (or metres) measured when It is the RPA pilot’s responsibility to plan the route of flight in
the RPA is sitting on the ground and, as the aircraft flies, altitude a manner that ensures the RPA does not fly within 30 m of any
changes are measured in reference to the ground below the RPA, person, except for crew members and other people involved in
or the initial ground position. In an RPA, this altitude is often the operation. (CAR 901.26) Examples of people involved in the
calculated by a GPS position or a downward-pointing laser operation are: construction site or mine workers, film crews, or
rangefinder. wedding guests and others involved in a wedding (facility staff,
It is important to note that many RPAs reference their altitude caterers, etc.). These people are considered part of the operation
AGL from the point of launch. This means that the aircraft’s if they have been briefed on the RPA hazard and have the
altitude AGL may have to be inferred as the aircraft travels over opportunity to leave the RPA operation site if they are
uneven ground. For operations with large ground level height uncomfortable with it. People inside vehicles or inside buildings
changes where the aircraft is operated near the operational limit are not factored into the 30-metre horizontal distance rule
of 400 ft, a buffer may need to be included to prevent exceeding (CAR 901.26). Even if an RPA can fly within 30 m of vehicles,
the allowable maximum altitude. buildings, crew members, or other people involved in the
operation, this needs to be done safely (CAR 900.06). The RPA
Above Sea Level (ASL) pilot should have contingency plans in place in the event that a
ASL requires a pressure measurement from a local weather person not associated with the operation comes within 30 m of
station, which is then input into a pressure altimeter on the the RPA and should be prepared to take immediate action to
aircraft. This will then provide an altitude read-out which is restore the safety buffer. Some examples of contingency plans
relative to sea level. Traditional aircraft and some larger RPAs may be rerouting the RPA, returning to land, or holding over a
will be equipped with pressure altimeters and use ASL altitude secure area until the minimum distance can be restored. Whatever
measurements. action is taken to maintain the safety distance, the pilot must
ensure the RPA does not fly within 30 m of one person while
3.2.13.2 Measuring Altitude trying to remain 30 m away from another person. Pre-planning
and site preparation during the site survey have proven to be
Pressure Altimeters effective at reducing the risks associated with maintaining the
required 30-metre safety buffer.
The pressure altimeter used in aircraft is a relatively accurate
instrument for measuring flight level pressure but the altitude Operations between 30 m and 5 m from another person are
information indicated by an altimeter, although technically considered “near people” and are an advanced operation.
“correct” as a measure of pressure, may differ greatly from the
To operate an RPA “near people”, the RPA pilot needs to:
actual height of the aircraft above mean sea level or above ground.
As well, the actual height of the aircraft above ground will vary (a) possess a pilot certificate—advanced operations; and
as the aircraft flies between areas of different pressure. (b) use the right RPAS in accordance with CAR 901.76 and
For more information on pressure altimeters and their uses and CAR Standard 922 Remotely Piloted Aircraft Systems Safety
errors, see subpart 1.5 Pressure Altimeter in the AIR—Airmanship Assurance. This eligibility is written on the RPAS certificate
chapter of the TC AIM. of registration.
Different Systems for Measuring Distance - km/SM/NM
Global Positioning System (GPS) Altimeters
km: The kilometre is a standard metric measurement that is the
The GPS receiver in an RPA typically needs to clearly see a
most commonly used in the world; 1 km equals 1 000 m. Most
minimum of four satellites to get an accurate position over the
maps and software will use the metric system.
earth. GPS is a helpful aid to aviation, but it is important to
recognize that there are errors that may affect the accuracy of SM: The statute mile comes from the imperial system and refers
the position and altitude calculated and displayed by your RPA. more commonly to the U.S survey mile, which is equal to 5 280
In altitude, errors resulting from poor satellite geometry, reception ft or 1 609.347 metres. It is most commonly used in the U.S.A.
masking by obstacles, or atmospheric interference can result in and the United Kingdom and is still commonly used in aviation.
errors of up to 75 ft (approx. 23 m).
NM: A nautical mile represents one latitudinal minute of the
For more information on GPS and other GNSSs, see subpart earth spheroid. The most commonly used spheroid for calculating
5.1 Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) in the COM— the nautical mile is the WGS84 geoid, which equates 1 nautical
Communication chapter of the TC AIM. mile to 6 076.1 ft, 1 852 metres, or 1.15 statute mile. It is the main
distance unit used in aviation and marine applications.
Two methods can be used to measure distances at the field site
without being directly on the ground. Using the scale on your
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maps or chart, calculate the distance using a metric or imperial aerodromes and certified airports in Canada. For information
RPA
ruler and translate the distance calculated on the map. For regarding water aerodromes, refer to the Canada Water Aerodrome
example, if the map scale is 1:20 000, then 1 linear centimetre Supplement (CWAS).
calculated on the map represents 20 000 centimetres on the
To identify the different symbols presented on the maps and
ground. The second method would consist of using an online
charts, you should refer to the legend presented in the first pages
Geographic Information System platform (e.g. Google Earth
of the charts and the CFS. Information with regard to date of
and ArcGIS Earth) that has spatial calculation tools that provide
publication, author, projection, scale, and more would also be
instant measurements of the terrain surface.
found there.
RPA
Following the “walk around” or RPAS visual inspection, a fully Inspect the following:
charged battery can then be installed for the next flight. For a (a) Cowling or motor casing as applicable;
larger RPAS, a normal engine ground run can be carried out on
the ground for a check of the flight controls and avionics systems. (b) Power plant for security of engine mounts;
Just after takeoff, a short test flight and/or a ground run should (c) The presence of any cracks;
be completed to make sure all controls and switches are (d) All lines, ensuring there are no fluid leaks (fuel, oil, or
functioning and correct. hydraulic);
3.2.17.1 Airframe (All Types) (e) All wiring and connectors, ensuring there are no cracks,
loose connections, or chaffing;
Depending on the weight of the aircraft (25kg or less), pick up
the RPAS or walk around it and inspect the entire aircraft. Pay (f) The oil level, ensuring it is within limits, if applicable.
attention to the following:
3.2.17.4 Propellers
(a) Check all antennas, ensuring they are secure and in good
condition; Inspect the following:
(b) Check the battery emplacement and secure attachment, and (a) Spinner(s), if installed, ensuring that they are secure and
ensure that there are no cracks; there is freedom of movement;
(c) Check that all lights are operating normally; (b) The propeller, ensuring it is secure;
(d) Check the pitot tube (if applicable) and make sure it is secure (c) The propeller blades, checking for nicks, chips, or cracks,
and clear of any obstructions; especially on the plastic blades on RPASs weighing 25kg or
(e) Check that the GPS is receiving satellites and providing a less. Chips, nicks, or cracks on a plastic blade mean it is
navigation solution (if applicable). time to replace the propeller. For metal blades refer to the
manufacturer’s instructions to see what the limits are to
For fixed wings, check:
file the nicks or chips before replacing the propeller.
(a) Wings, ensuring that they are securely attached to fuselage;
(b) Wing leading edge surfaces; 3.2.17.5 Battery—Lithium Polymer
(c) Top and bottom of wing surfaces; Inspect the battery for overall condition. There should be no
(d) Wing tip surfaces; signs of swelling, external leaking, or other defects.
(e) Rear of wing and all flight control surfaces for freedom of Ensure the battery wiring and connectors from the battery and
movement, security, and any skin damage (composite/metal). the aircraft are connected securely.
For rotary aircraft: The battery and spare batteries necessary to complete the
operation should be adequately charged before flight to complete
(a) Inspect the top and bottom of the airframe arms for cracks, the mission.
loose parts, or signs of damage;
Be careful not to pinch the wires when installing the battery,
(b) Check that the levels of all fluids (oil/hydraulic fluid) are
attaching the connectors, and closing the battery door.
within limits and ensure there are no leaks.
3.2.17.6 RPAS Control Station/Receiver/Transmitters
3.2.17.2 Landing Gear
The battery and spare batteries (if applicable) necessary to
Check that the landing gear is secure, as applicable.
complete the operation should be adequately charged before
Larger RPASs may have retractable or fixed landing gear and flight to complete the mission.
may have wheel brakes. Check for leaks on oleos and leaks in
Check that all flight interface is functioning normally.
the brake system as appropriate. Check brake wear indicators if
applicable.
3.2.18 Availability of RPAS Operating Manuals
For servicing and scheduled maintenance items, always refer to
the manufacturer’s maintenance manual. If in doubt, contact In order to ensure the RPAS can be operated within the limitations
the manufacturer directly for technical support. specified by the manufacturer, it is important that the pilot and
crew members have access to the most current system operating
Inspect skids or wheels as applicable depending on type, especially manuals. These manuals can be available either in digital format
the attachment points, which should be secure with no cracks. or in print; the key is that they are immediately available for the
In addition, check for cracks in welds. pilot and crew members (CAR 901.30).
Failure to have manuals immediately available could result in
individual penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate penalties
of up to $5,000.
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RPASs are complex systems that have both system and The weather is a primary concern for pilots of all types and
environmental limitations that allow them to operate in a should be something of which they have a thorough understanding.
predictable manner. To ensure the maximum reliability of the The minimum weather requirements for small RPA pilots are
RPAS it is required that the RPAS be operated in accordance different from those of more traditional aircraft pilots and even
with the manufacturer’s operating instructions (CAR 901.31). large RPAs. For small RPAs, the weather need only be sufficient
to ensure the aircraft can be operated in accordance with the
Failure to operate the RPAS in accordance with the manufacturer’s
manufacturer’s instructions (i.e. temperature, wind, precipitation,
instructions could result in individual penalties of up to $1,000
etc.) and to allow the pilot or visual observer to keep the RPA
and/or corporate penalties of up to $5,000.
within VLOS at all times.
3.2.20 Control of RPAS
3.2.22.1 Sources of Weather Information
RPA pilots are not permitted to operate autonomous RPAs for
which they are unable to take immediate control of the aircraft. Climate data, weather forecasts, and real-time weather conditions
(CAR 901.32). are a central pillar of every aeronautical operation. Aircraft are
particularly vulnerable to the elements due to the medium in
Automation (i.e. “automated” or “automatic”) refers to a
which they operate, as the atmosphere does not provide any
deterministic system that behaves in a predictable manner using
shielding from the weather. Various sources of information are
pre-set rules. This type of system will always produce the same
available for monitoring weather and ensuring the safe conduct
output given the same set of inputs, user error notwithstanding.
of the RPAS operations. Depending on the time scale at which
An example of this in an RPAS context would be a user plotting
the weather or climate needs to be determined, different sources
a route on the control station and the aircraft following that
of weather information might be required.
route on autopilot while the pilot monitors the flight.
For climatic and long-term predictions of a few months or more
In contrast, an autonomous system is goal-based and not
Environment and Climate Change Canada’s (ECCC) Canadian
deterministic. The path to the desired outcome may not be easily
Climate Normals is available on the ECCC Web site: <http://
predicted and the system may model behaviours that result in
climate.weather.gc.ca/climate_normals/>. This tool is more
unique outcomes in each instance of operation. An autonomous
suitable for evaluating whether operations at a given time/location
RPA is one that operates without pilot intervention in the
would be possible given the historical climatic patterns. This
management of the flight, and in fact, there may be no mechanism
should be used as a means of evaluation for long-term operation
for pilot intervention by design. An autonomous RPA may react
planning and/or in Canadian regions where pilots are not familiar
to changing environmental conditions or system degradations
with the weather patterns at a given time. The portal gives pilots
in a manner that it determines on its own.
access to a large array of data and graphs giving punctual
Pilots found to be operating autonomous RPAs for which they measurements of weather conditions along the Canadian weather
are unable to take immediate control are subject to individual stations system. Data is freely available to download in .csv
penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate penalties of up format. Thirty-year averages (1981-2010/ 1971-2000/ 1961-1990)
to $5,000. are also available for analysis. For example, this would help a
pilot to establish when the ground is snow-free and the air
3.2.21 Takeoffs, Launches, Approaches, temperature is above 5°C according to the last 30 years, permitting
Landings, and Recovery the planning mission in advance.
Prior to conducting an RPAS operation the pilot must ensure For medium- to short-term predictions of the weather, multiple
that there is no likelihood of a collision with another aircraft, a online and broadcast versions exist. ECCC offers daily weather
person, or an obstacle and that the site chosen is suitable for the forecasts and forecasts up to two weeks in advance on its Web site,
operation (CAR 901.33). <https://weather.gc.ca/canada_e.html>. Weather radar data is
When choosing a site for an RPA’s takeoff, launch, landing, or available for up to 3 hours and satellite imagery is offered at
recovery, the pilot should ensure that he or she has the land varying time intervals for the present day. This source of weather
owner’s permission to use the site and that the site is free of information can be used for mission planning and/or the
obstacles that could interfere with the operation of the RPA. same day.
Obstacles include physical obstacles like trees, buildings, or open For same-day weather information one of the most detailed
water as well as non-physical obstacles like electronic or magnetic sources of information is the online tool provided by
interference. It is also important that the site selected be secured NAV CANADA called the Aviation Weather Web Site (AWWS):
to ensure bystanders do not venture too close to or enter the <https://flightplanning.navcanada.ca/>. This Web site is one of
take-off or landing area. Securing a site can be done by erecting the main sources of weather forecasts, reports, and charts used
physical barriers to ensure the public does not access the area for flight planning by aviation professionals. For more information
during the operation or by having crew members perform a regarding the AWWS, how to interpret different charts and
crowd control function. It is important that the RPA pilot reports, and the general procedures associated with the Web
understand and follow any municipal, provincial, and federal site, see the MET—Meteorology chapter of the TC AIM.
laws and regulations when securing a site. In some situations,
restricting public access to a site may not be allowed. Additionally, there are a variety of weather apps available that
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pull weather data from a variety of sources. Check to ensure you one of the most important weather phenomena for pilots of all
RPA
are using NAV CANADA official data whenever possible. types of aircraft. Wind speeds are expressed in kilometres per
hour (km/h) or knots (kt) and the direction will represent where
Finally, no matter what tool is used, which preparations have
winds originated.
been made, and what the given predictions are for the day of
operation, it is essential to evaluate the weather at the site before RPA pilots will most likely be subject to surface wind, which
launching the operation. Weather is a complex science and can generally extends a couple thousand feet AGL. Surface winds
be subject to unpredicted fluctuations, especially on a small vary depending on surface roughness, temperature, waterbodies,
geographic scale. Never operate an RPAS if the weather on site and obstacles (see the paragraph on micro climate above), and
is outside your manufacturer’s recommended operating limits, they can therefore be very different from one geographical
or if you judge based on your experience that local weather could location to the next. Wind speed in aviation weather forecasts
adversely affect your flight, even if the weather forecasts say is usually expressed in knots and is classified according to the
otherwise. Beaufort Wind Scale (see AIM MET 2.6 Pilot Estimation of
Surface Wind), which is a scale ranging from breeze to hurricane.
3.2.22.2 Micro vs. Macro Climate Environments Upper-level winds will not influence the vast majority of RPA
pilots as the altitude is much higher than standard flight altitude.
Micro Climate
However, BVLOS flights with a large RPAS and a specially trained
Micro climate is defined as climatic variations localized in a crew might be conducted within this environment.
small or restricted area that differs from the surrounding region.
It is important to consider small climatic variations when 3.2.22.4 Visibility
planning RPAS flights. The altitude, nearby water bodies,
topography, ground surface, and obstacles are all factors that For an RPAS flight conducted in VLOS, visibility should be at
can and will influence the conditions experienced at a specific a minimum equal to or greater than the extent of the desired
site. Those variations might manifest themselves in the form of operation. While there is no minimum visibility prescribed in
variable wind strength and/or directions, convecting/advecting Part IX of the CARs, the visibility must be sufficient to keep the
air movements, variable temperatures, localized precipitation, RPA in VLOS at all times.
variable visibility levels, and more. These must be considered Visibility is dynamic, can change rapidly, and might require the
carefully; weather forecasts for the region might be good, but pilot to adjust or end an ongoing operation if conditions change.
localized variations might compromise flight operation safety. Local factors such as waterbodies and topography might create
Due to the nature of most RPAS VLOS flights, which are flown heterogeneous visibility levels on a large or small scale. Flight
at low altitudes and over short distances, it is most likely that planning should take those variables into consideration.
the pilot will experience some impact from the micro climate
at the site. Recognizing factors that might influence weather 3.2.22.5 Clouds
patterns at the site prior to takeoff will help mitigate possible RPA pilots are prohibited from entering clouds as the RPA would
accidents or annoyances during the operations. Due to the high no longer be within VLOS.
variability of micro climate it is hard to establish the site-specific
conditions on a given day, before being physically there. Clouds are a great source of meteorological information for
pilots since they are a direct manifestation of the atmospheric
Macro Climate conditions at a given moment. Clouds are classified as low, middle,
A macro climate will describe the overall climate of a large area or high altitude clouds and vertical development clouds. The
and represents the normal climatic patterns. This is what the cloud ceiling is important information for RPAS flight and is
pilot needs to consider as the general pattern for the operation, established based on the lowest layer of clouds on that day. Cloud
and it serves as a first step when considering weather information conditions and types will be influenced by the presence of weather
in flight planning. As mentioned above, the low flight altitude fronts, atmospheric pressure, winds, and topography. Information
of most RPASs makes it more likely they will be subject to micro regarding cloud conditions for a given day can be found on the
climatic variations. Macro climate will be more significant for AWWS Cloud and Weather chart. For more information on this
beyond visual line-of-sight (BVLOS) flight over a large area, as matter, please see MET–Meteorology 4.11 Clouds and Weather
a simpler means to evaluate weather due to the altitude and Chart of the TC AIM.
distance covered by the RPAS.
3.2.22.6 Precipitation
3.2.22.3 Wind In the absence of manufacturer guidelines for f lights in
RPA pilots should refer to the manufacturer’s RPAS operating/ precipitation, it is recommended that pilots avoid flying in
flight manual with regards to the aircraft’s wind speed tolerance. precipitation as it might compromise the airworthiness of the
If no such recommendation is made, the pilot should exercise aircraft and create hazards.
common sense and avoid conducting an RPAS flight in winds Precipitation is atmospheric water vapour produced from
that might compromise safety. condensation that falls under gravitational force toward the
Wind is the movement of air across the earth’s surface and is ground. Precipitation will manifest itself in liquid (drizzle and
rain) or solid forms (hail, snow pellets, snow ice prisms, and ice
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pellets) and will have significant impact on RPAS operations. itself. You must operate the RPAS within the operational limits
RPA
Exposure to precipitation can impact an RPAS’ ability to perform set by the manufacturer of the RPA, as each aircraft will have a
as expected. RPASs have varying levels of tolerance with respect different range of temperature tolerance. Operating an RPA
to precipitation. Refer to the RPAS manufacturer’s operating/ outside of those suggested ranges will compromise the
flight manual to verify the aircraft capability in precipitation. airworthiness and safety of the aircraft, and your operation. It is
also important to consider that RPASs are multi-component
3.2.22.7 Fog systems. Although the aircraft might be approved for a certain
temperature range, other parts of the system might not be—
Do not operate an RPAS in fog if visibility is too poor to maintain particularly if you have made any modifications to the payload
proper VLOS with the RPA, even if it is equipped with lights. or aircraft. Consider all components when assessing flight
Fog represents condensed water droplets found at the ground suitability in the field.
level, or in other words, a low-level cloud. It usually brings RPASs are operated within the airspace and are therefore subject
precipitation in the form of drizzle and will cause low visibility to atmospheric temperature changes, due to the adiabatic lapse
conditions at ground level. This is of high concern for RPAS rate. Under normal conditions, atmospheric air temperature
operations in VLOS, as direct visual contact will be greatly will decrease with an increase in altitude due to lower atmospheric
reduced in fog. Fog is dynamic, thus conditions at takeoff might pressure. This phenomenon is called the adiabatic lapse rate.
change during the operation and cause a threat to the RPA, Water vapour content within the air column will decrease the
manned aircraft, and the public. lapse rate experienced, as more latent energy is required for an
equal change in temperate change in moist air. The adiabatic
3.2.22.8 Temperature lapse rate of unsaturated air is 3°C/1 000 ft and1.5°C/1 000 ft
Air temperature is also an important concept for RPA pilots. for saturated air. Those values are set as standard but will be
Since the human body is accustomed to a narrow temperature variable in real-world scenarios as the water content will dictate
range, cold temperature can physically impair the efficiency of the precise lapse rate value. RPA pilots need to take the lapse
pilots and ground crews if they are not dressed properly. A pilot’s rate into consideration if operating in high-altitude BVLOS
dexterity can decrease significantly and cold temperature stress flight or within a high-altitude environment as the weather
can add to other stress, such as that caused by fatigue. Cold forecast and the conditions experienced by the aircraft might
temperature will directly affect all other components of the differ greatly.
weather system and thus have a great impact on the aircraft
SSPEED
D
DIRECTION
S
SHEAR
T
TURBULENCE
V
VORTICITY
1.5 x U10 = U122 intensity vortex shedding
flapping
speed side-to-side
U10 weather station gradient
hourly wind speed
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TC would like to remind you of the potential environmental MET—Meteorology subpart 2.4 of the TC AIM.
RPA
challenges of flying an RPA in urban areas. Provided you are
authorized to fly an RPA in urban areas, exercise caution when 3.2.24 Formation Flight
flying due to unforeseen changes in wind characteristics caused
by tall buildings and structures. These changes can include Formation flights between two or more RPAs or between an
increased wind gusts exceeding the RPA limits, as well as shifts RPA and another aircraft are permitted. If a formation flight is
in direction which can blow the RPA off course. to be undertaken, it must be pre-arranged; impromptu formations
are not permitted (CAR 901.36). Formation flights of more than
TC worked with National Research Council Canada (NRC) on 5 RPAs that are controlled by a single pilot from the same control
a video to help you understand some of the impacts: <https:// station are only authorized under an SFOC—RPAS (CAR 903.01 e).
tc.canada.ca/en/aviation/drone-safety/tips-best-practices-drone-
pilots/urban-airflow-what-drone-pilots-need-know>. The purpose of the pre-arrangement requirement is to ensure
that all the pilots associated with the operation are aware of how
the aircraft are to be flown to eliminate the risk of collision
3.2.22.10 Sun
(CAR 901.18 prohibits the operation of an RPA in such proximity
Sun will influence the conditions encountered by the RPAS in to another aircraft as to create a risk of collision) and to identify
direct and indirect ways. The pilot and visual observers need to and mitigate any risks associated with the flight.
be aware of the sun glare that might prevent them from
maintaining proper visual line-of-sight with the RPA. Crew 3.2.25 Operation of Moving Vehicles, Vessels, and
members should take care to reduce the amount of time facing Manned Aircraft
into the sun and looking at the sky. In the event that the RPA is
flying in line with the sun, the crew should stare to the side of Pilots are prohibited from operating an RPA while at the same
the aircraft and the sun. Polarized sunglasses can cause visibility time operating a moving vehicle (CAR 901.37). If it necessary
issues on tablet displays, so they may not be a viable option for to operate an RPA from a moving vehicle, there must be a
all crew members. dedicated person operating the vehicle while the pilot operates
the RPAS. If a visual observer is used in the operation, they are
Solar activities can also create geomagnetic interferences that also prohibited from operating the vehicle while performing
have been shown to impact the navigation system (e.g. GPS, their duties as a visual observer (CAR 901.20(4)).
GLONASS) and electronic components of the RPAS, specifically
the C2 link. For more information about the solar activity forecast When launching from a vehicle (e.g. a boat) that is in motion or
in Canada, refer to the Space Weather Canada forecast Web site: that will be in a different location when the RPA is recovered,
consider that the return to home (RTH) automatic function may
<www.spaceweather.gc.ca/index-en.php> register the initial position at takeoff. Some RPASs give you the
<https://www.spaceweather.gc.ca/forecast-prevision/index-en. option of using the launch point or alternatively, going to the
php> location of the transmitter. Plan ahead for manual landing, or
It is recommended that pilots refer to the Energetic Electron other landing procedures, in a specifically designated location
Fluence forecast and use caution in periods of moderate or higher and adjust the contingency plans to avoid having the RPAS
radiation. The greater the electron fluence, the lesser the range return to a dangerous location.
and quality of the C2 link, and the greater the possibility of Failure to abide by these prohibitions may result in individual
lost link. penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate penalties of up to
$5,000.
3.2.23 Icing
Icing refers to atmospheric water droplets that are often defined 3.2.26 First-person View (FPV) Devices
as supercooled (< 0 °C), which freeze upon contact with a surface. FPV offers an immersive RPA piloting experience but cuts the
Icing intensity is classified from trace to severe and icing types pilot off from his or her surroundings and greatly affects detect
are rime, clear, and mixed ice. Icing is common on all types of and avoid capability (i.e. the pilot’s ability to scan for other
aircraft and RPAs are no exception. Icing can occur before and aircraft). If you are using an FPV system that reduces the field
during the flight, greatly compromising the ability of the aircraft of view of the pilot, visual observers must be used. The number
to operate properly. Formation of ice on the propeller and frame of visual observers needed will depend on the complexity and
of the aircraft will increase take-off weight, change the aircraft’s area of the operation. The area surrounding the pilot should
aerodynamic properties, and prevent components from operating also be safe and free of hazards, as the FPV will also prevent the
properly. Critical surfaces such as wings, control surfaces, rotors, pilot from being aware of his or her own surroundings.
propellers, and horizontal and vertical stabilizers should all be
confirmed clear of contamination prior to takeoff and must
3.2.27 Night Flight
remain so, or the flight be terminated. Refer to the RPAS
operating/flight manual provided by the manufacturer to verify There are risks associated with night flight that result from
the aircraft’s tolerance of icing. In the absence of an RPAS Safety operating in an environment of reduced visibility. From the RPA
Assurance, it is recommended that you avoid flying in icing pilot’s perspective, the greatest concern is maintaining VLOS
conditions unless a method exists to de-ice and provide anti-ice with the RPA and detecting and avoiding unlit objects on or
capabilities in flights. For more details about icing, please see near the ground like trees and power lines.
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Night is legally defined in aviation as the period of time that 3.2.27.2 Aircraft Lighting
RPA
starts at the end of evening civil twilight and ends at the start Traditional aircraft are equipped with special lights to aid in
of morning civil twilight. In the evening, civil twilight ends their detection and orientation. Traditional aircraft are required
when the centre of the sun’s disc is 6° below the horizon and is to have position lights, which include a red light on the port side
descending, approximately 25-35 min after sunset. In the (left side when sitting in the pilot’s seat), a green light on the
morning, civil twilight begins when the centre of the sun’s disc starboard side (right side when sitting in the pilot’s seat), and a
is 6° below the horizon and is ascending, approximately 25-35 white light on the tail. An observer can determine which way
min before the sunrise. The evening civil twilight is relative to an aircraft is travelling by identifying the lights they can see.
the standard meridians of the time zones, the period of time For example, if the observer can see a red and white light, the
that begins at sunset and ends at the time specified by the Institute aircraft is travelling across their field of view from right to left
for National Measurement Standards of the Standards Council and moving away from them. If the observer can see only a green
of Canada and available at: <https://www.nrc-cnrc.gc.ca/eng/ light the aircraft is moving across their field of view from left
services/sunrise/index.html>. to right and may be moving towards them. If the observer can
Night, in practice, is when you cannot effectively see the hazards see both a green light and a red light, the aircraft is coming at
that would be visible during the day. In these situations, a day them.
site survey is advisable to ensure separation between the RPAS Aircraft are also equipped with anti-collision lighting, typically
flight path and any dangers that are not visible. an omnidirectional rotating or flashing red beacon. This light
Night operations are permitted in both the basic and advanced can be affixed to either the top or bottom of the aircraft. Some
operating environments provided that the RPA is equipped with aircraft are equipped with strobe lights, landing lights, or
position lights sufficient to allow the aircraft to be visible to the recognition lights. Strobe lights are generally white and attached
pilot and any visual observer. to the wing tips or the sides of the aircraft. They flash in a repeating
pattern and make an aircraft very visible, especially at night.
3.2.27.1 Detecting Aircraft During Night Operations Landing lights are generally white and affixed to the inboard
sections of the wing, the front of the fuselage, or the landing
Scanning Technique gear. Landing lights will be brightest when an aircraft is coming
The approach to scanning the sky for aircraft at night is much towards the observer. Not all aircraft will have landing lights
the same as scanning the sky during the day; however, limitations on when flying at night so they should not be relied upon to
of equipment and human physiology should be taken into account. detect aircraft. Recognition lights are generally white and affixed
With sufficient lighting on the aircraft, it is very often easier to to the sides of the aircraft. Unlike strobe lights, they do not flash
track your aircraft and other aircraft than doing so during the day. and generally point in the direction of flight much like a
landing light.
Aircraft are easier to identify at night, but it is more difficult to
determine the range of these aircraft. It is therefore possible the Not all aircraft are required to have lights when operating at
RPAS could be within VLOS, but much farther away than what night. Some aircraft such as those used by law enforcement
would be by day operations. pilots, military, and first responders may have mission
requirements that necessitate operations without lights. RPA
Manned aircraft will also be easier to detect but may be at a pilots and visual observers should be particularly alert for an
greater distance and appear much closer than they actually are. aircraft that may only be identifiable by sound.
Depth perception at night is difficult, which affects the assessment
of relative position. Although it may be easier to spot aircraft 3.2.27.3 Use of Lights
lights at night, judging the distance to an aircraft is challenging. Pilots operating RPASs at night shall ensure their RPA is lighted
Noise sufficiently to ensure the pilot and the visual observer (if used)
can maintain VLOS with the RPA. It’s the pilot’s responsibility
In some cases sound may be the only way to detect other aircraft to ensure the lights are functioning prior to takeoff or launch.
when operating at night. For this reason it is important that the
crew enforce a sterile environment around the control station
3.2.27.4 Night Vision Goggles
and anywhere visual observers are stationed. Any unnecessary
talking or noise should be avoided to ensure the best chance of Night vision goggles can be used to supplement the RPAS crew’s
detecting other aircraft. Sound is also useful to monitor your view of the RPA but caution should be exercised as night vision
own aircraft’s performance when visual cues are limited. Rapidly may inhibit the pilot’s ability to detect and avoid other aircraft.
changing motor sounds on a multirotor may indicate wind at Many aircraft are equipped with LEDs instead of the traditional
altitude, for example. incandescent lights. These LED lights may emit light that is
outside the combined visible and near infrared spectrum of
Vision night vision goggles and, as a result, may not visible. For this
Vision can be affected at night, and there are several illusions reason it is required that all RPA crews have a method of detecting
that can affect the pilot or observer’s ability to detect aircraft. all light within the visible spectrum. The simplest way to meet
Additional information on vision can be found in AIR 3.5 Vision this requirement is to employ a visual observer using unaided
of the TC AIM. vision as part of the detect and avoid system.
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RPA
Pilots may operate up to five RPAs from one control station Laser-based systems, including LIDAR, are becoming increasingly
provided the system is designed for such an operation popular payloads on RPASs for a number of operations. Class 1
(CAR 901.40). Special care must be taken when operating more lasers, as designated by Health Canada, are considered to be
than one RPA from a single control station as there is a significant incapable of causing harm and will not create a hazard to manned
risk the pilot can become distracted and lose track of one or aircraft provided that they are operated as per the manufacturer’s
more of the RPAs. specifications. If the laser equipment that the operator intends
to use is classified as Class 1 or Class 1M, has an average output
The risks associated with this type of operation can be mitigated
power of less than 1 mW, and utilizes a non-visible beam, no
by careful pre- planning and site surveys. Pilots should take
further assessment or notification is required. The operator is
extra care to ensure that sufficient visual observers are employed
still responsible for safe operation within the bounds of the
to ensure that each aircraft is kept within VLOS and monitored.
manufacturer’s specifications and operating instructions.
Piloting more than five RPAs from one control station requires
Operators who want to operate an RPAS fitted with laser
an SFOC—RPAS (see subpart 3.6).
equipment other than the types noted in the previous paragraph
in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions must notify
3.2.29 Special Events TC that they intend to operate a laser in airspace shared with
manned aircraft (CAR 601.21). RPAS operators shall complete
3.2.29.1 Special Aviation Events a Notice of Proposal to Conduct Outdoor Laser Operation(s)
An SFOC—RPAS for a special aviation event is needed when a and submit it to their TC regional office. An aeronautical
pilot is operating an RPA as a performer in this event (referred assessment is then conducted and the NOHD calculated by the
to as an “airshow”). See CARs 901.41 and 903.01(f). operator is validated. The normal processing time is at least 30
days to review the notification and determine if a laser
If the RPAS operation is not a performance that is part of the authorization can be issued.
special aviation event (i.e. the operation is conducted for taking
videos or photos of the event, or for surveillance or security For more information and further guidance on the regulation
purposes), the SFOC—RPAS application is to be processed as it of lasers, refer to sections 601.20, 601.21, 601.22, and 901.43 of
would be for an advertised event. the CARs.
In addition, if the RPA pilot intends to carry or deliver payloads
3.2.29.2 Advertised Events with an RPA, the pilot must also comply with the Transportation
of Dangerous Goods Regulations (TDG Regulations) and the
An SFOC—RPAS for an advertised event is needed when a pilot
Canadian Transportation Agency’s (CTA’s) Air Transportation
is operating an RPAS less than 100 ft away from the boundaries
Regulations (ATR), as applicable.
of an advertised event (CAR 901.41 and 903.01(f)). For reference,
see also the following sections and subpart in this chapter: 3.4.6— More information on the TDG Regulations can be found in RAC
Operations Near People, 3.4.7—Operations Over People, and Annex 12.3 and at <https://tc.canada.ca/en/dangerous-goods/
3.6—Special Flight Operations – RPAS. transportation-dangerous-goods-canada>.
The boundaries of an advertised event (outdoor event including More information on the CTA’s ATR can be found at <https://
a concert, performance, festival, market, amusement park, or www.canada.ca/en/transportation-agency.html> and <https://
sporting event) are limited by perimeter fences and the gates laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/regulations/SOR-88-58/index.html>.
where people are restricted by the event personnel, volunteers, RPA are considered aircraft according to the CARs. The
and security or peace officers. Transportation of Dangerous Goods Act (TDG Act) (by air) and
Where no such perimeter is defined for outdoor advertised the CTA detail various requirements for when products or people
events like marathons, triathlons, cycling, swimming, skiing, are transported by aircraft. As the Act and the Agency do not
fishing derbies, sailing, cruise ships, fireworks, and so on, it is separate RPA and simply use the term “aircraft,” this also includes
expected that the boundaries of the advertised event be at least remotely piloted aircraft.
100 ft from people participating in the advertised event and 100 Before transporting items of any kind from one location to the
ft from the track of the sporting event for all categories of RPA next, the CTA’s ATR must be considered. This is outside of the
pilot certificates and models of RPAs. scope of Part IX of the CARs but is applicable if you are operating
an RPA under Subpart 1 of Part IX of the CARs (901.xx), or with
3.2.30 Handovers an SFOC—RPAS issued under section 903.03. There are exceptions
If an RPAS command handover is to be conducted during the within the CTA’s ATR that may be applicable in some cases,
operation, a handover plan agreed upon by all responsible parties which is why the CTA’s ATR need to be considered for all
has to be established before takeoff (CAR 901.42). The plan must operations.
lay out the procedures to follow for the handover, the plan to Before transporting goods that may be considered dangerous,
mitigate the loss of control during the handover, and the plan the TDG Act must be consulted. If the goods are in fact dangerous,
for how the see and avoid measures are to be continued during the TDG Act explains what is required. CAR 901.43 explains
the exchange. when an SFOC—RPAS is needed to transport payloads that are
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also considered dangerous. This includes explosive, corrosive, and, as a result, they pose a challenge from an air traffic
RPA
flammable, or biohazardous material, and weapons, ammunition, surveillance perspective due to their small size, low operating
or other equipment designed for use in war. An effort was made altitude and lack of a common altitude reference system. For
to link the TDG Act with section 901.43, but this has not been that reason, ANSPs cannot offer these aircraft the same,
finalized. In other words, there may be situations that require traditional air traffic services (i.e. aircraft separation or conflict
an SFOC—RPAS under CAR 903.01(g) but are outside of the resolution) that they provide to VFR or IFR aircraft.
TDG Act for some reason. There may be other situations that
In order to ensure the safe operation of all aircraft in controlled
do not require an SFOC—RPAS under CAR 901.43 but do require
airspace, RPAs need to obtain authorization from the ANSP (either
operation under the TDG Act.
NAV CANADA for civil-controlled airspace or the Department
It is the responsibility of the RPA pilot to ensure compliance of National Defence in the case of military-controlled airspace)
with all regulations before an RPAS operation. before operating in controlled or transponder airspace.
A pilot may operate an RPAS when the aircraft is transporting
a payload referred to in CAR 901.43(1) if the operation is 3.2.34.1 Transponder-required Airspace
conducted in accordance with an SFOC—RPAS. For more Transponders are required in all Class A, B, and C airspace as
information, see section 3.6.1 of this chapter. well as some Class D and Class E airspace. The requirement for
a transponder in Class D and E airspace can be found in the
3.2.32 Flight Termination Systems DAH (CAR 601.03). Additional information can be found in
COM subpart 8.2 of the TC AIM.
A Flight Termination System is a system that, upon initiation,
terminates the flight of an RPA in a manner so as not to cause
significant damage to property or severe injury to persons on 3.2.34.2 Transponder Requirements
the ground. In order to avoid flyaway situations and safeguard ANSPs may allow an RPAS to enter transponder-required airspace
other airspace users, RPASs that lack redundancies may need without a transponder if the pilot requests permission prior to
to have an independent flight termination system that can be entering the area and aviation safety is not likely to be affected
activated by the RPA pilot. The process and procedures for (CAR 901.46(2)). Except when permitted by the ANSP, all aircraft
initiating and activating a flight termination system vary flying in transponder-required airspace including RPAs are
significantly depending the manufacturer and operating required to have transponders (CAR 901.46(1)).
procedures for each system. Initiation of a flight termination
The decision as to whether aviation safety is likely to be affected
system may only be done if it does not endanger aviation safety
depends on a variety of factors that may not be readily apparent
or the safety of any person (CAR 901.44). Attachment of a flight
to the RPA pilot. These factors may include the volume of air
termination system to an RPAS which is not standard equipment
traffic in the area, a potential emergency or priority situation,
for the RPAS is a modification and must meet the requirements
system capability, equipment failures, and a myriad of other
of CAR 901.70.
factors. RPA pilots should understand that ANSPs may not be
able to grant all requests to enter transponder airspace without
3.2.33 Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELT) a transponder. Flexibility and patience on the part of the pilot
RPAs are prohibited from being equipped with ELTs (CAR 901.45). will be required.
RPAs are permitted to have other types of tracking devices that Entering transponder airspace without a transponder or without
would allow pilots to locate them without notifying first permission from the ANSP puts other aircraft in the area at risk
responders. and may result in individual penalties of up to $1,000 and/or
corporate penalties of up to $5,000.
ELTs provide an emergency signal to SAR in the event of a missing
aircraft. In order to ensure valuable resources are not dispatched
to find missing aircraft where no life is at stake, RPAs are not 3.2.35 Operations at or in the Vicinity of an
permitted to have ELTs on board. More information on ELTs Aerodrome, Airport, or Heliport
can be found in SAR part 3.0 Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) Operations in the vicinity of or at aerodromes, water aerodromes,
of the TC AIM. airports, and heliports are higher risk. Operations inside a 3 NM
Pilots operating RPAs equipped with ELTs are subject to (5.6 km) radius from the centre of airports or a 1 NM (1.8 km)
individual penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate penalties radius from the centre of heliports are prohibited to RPA pilots
of up to $5,000. holding a basic certificate (CAR 901.47) and are reserved for
RPA pilots holding an advanced certificate.
3.2.34 Transponders and Automatic Pressure- RPA pilots shall always keep the RPA in VLOS, shall give way
Altitude Reporting Equipment at all times to traditional aircraft, and shall not interfere with
an aircraft operating in the established traffic pattern
Transponders augment the capabilities of ATS surveillance, (CARs 901.11, 901.17, 901.18, and 901.47).
allowing ANSPs to determine an aircraft’s position and, when
a transponder is capable of pressure-altitude reporting, its When operating an RPA at or in the vicinity of an aerodrome,
altitude. Small RPAs are not typically equipped with transponders water aerodrome, airport, or heliport, the RPA pilot should
contact the aerodrome operator to inform them of the RPAS
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operation, regardless of whether the RPA is operated in controlled from the Department of National Defence aerodrome
RPA
or uncontrolled airspace. authorities. If the military aerodrome is in controlled
airspace, the pilot needs an advanced small RPA (VLOS) pilot
Although aerodrome operators can prohibit someone from using
certificate and requires a manufacturer declaration stating
their premises, they cannot forbid the use of the airspace
that the RPA meets the appropriate safety assurance profile as
surrounding an aerodrome, airport, or heliport. Airspace access
described in section 3.4.3 of this chapter. See section 3.6.1 for
is regulated through the CARs, and any aircraft or pilot meeting
information about SFOC—RPAS.
the requirements therein could use the airspace.
Please note that aerodrome, water aerodrome, airport, and 3.2.36 Records
heliport operators don’t have access to NAV Drone RPA flight
authorization information. If you choose to operate your RPA Every owner of an RPAS shall keep a record containing the
in one of these areas and see traditional aircraft operating, it is names of the pilots and other crew members who are involved
recommended to land the RPA and reassess the situation. If you in each flight and, in respect of the system, the time of each
notice regular aircraft activities at a location, it is recommended flight or series of flights. This record shall be available to the
to contact the aerodrome operator to better understand the local Minister on request and is retained for a period of 12 months
traffic circuit procedures and to coordinate your RPA operations. after the day on which it is created (CAR 901.48 1)(a)).
The RPA pilot should also maintain a listening watch of the Every owner of an RPAS shall keep a record containing the
applicable aerodrome traffic frequency found in the CFS or on particulars of any mandatory action and any other maintenance
VNCs. Any person operating a VHF radio must hold a Restricted action, modification, or repair performed on the system, including
Operator Certificate with Aeronautical Qualification (ROC-A). the names of the persons who performed them and the dates
TC AIM COM 1.0, NAV CANADA’s VFR Phraseology Guide, they were undertaken. In the case of a modification, the
and ISED’s study guide RIC-21 for the ROC-A provide additional manufacturer and model, as well as a description of the part or
information on radiotelephony procedures. equipment installed to modify the system and, if applicable, any
instructions provided to complete the work are required. This
If an aerodrome, water aerodrome, airport, or heliport is located record shall be available to the Minister on request and is retained
inside controlled airspace, the RPA pilot needs an advanced for a period of 24 months after the day on which it is created
small RPA (VLOS) pilot certificate being in an advanced (CAR 901.48(1)(b)).
environment and shall receive an authorization from the
appropriate ANSP. This is described in section 3.4.4 of this Every owner of an RPAS who transfers ownership of the system
chapter and requires a manufacturer declaration that the RPAS to another person shall also deliver to that person at the time of
meets the appropriate safety assurance profile for controlled transfer all of the records containing the particulars of any
airspace as described in section 3.4.3 of this chapter. See mandatory action and any other maintenance action, modification,
subsection 3.2.3.2 and section 3.4.4 for information about RPA or repair performed on the system (CAR 901.48(3)).
operation in controlled airspace. See also section 3.4.5 of this
3.2.37 Incidents and Accidents
chapter for information on how to conduct an RPAS operation
in accordance with the established procedure when at or in the A pilot who operates an RPA shall immediately cease operations
vicinity of an airport or heliport (as per CAR 901.73). if any of the listed incidents or accidents (CAR 901.49(1)) occur,
until such time as an analysis is undertaken as to the cause of
An aerodrome means any area of land, water (including the
the occurrence and corrective actions have been taken to mitigate
frozen surface thereof) or other supporting surface used,
the risk of recurrence:
designed, prepared, equipped, or set apart for use either in whole
or in part for the arrival, departure, movement, or servicing of (a) injuries to any person requiring medical attention;
aircraft and includes any buildings, installations, and equipment
(b) unintended contact between the aircraft and persons;
situated thereon or associated therewith. All registered and
certified aerodromes are listed in the CFS or the CWAS. (c) unanticipated damage incurred to the airframe, control
station, payload, or command and control links that adversely
An airport means an aerodrome in respect of which an airport affects the performance or flight characteristics of the
certificate issued under Subpart 302 of the CARs is in force. In aircraft;
practice, you can tell if an aerodrome has a certificate by looking
in the CFS for the word “Cert” in the Operator (OPR) section. (d) any time the aircraft is not kept within horizontal boundaries
or altitude limits;
A heliport means an aerodrome in respect of which a heliport
certificate issued under Subpart 305 of the CARs is in force. (e) any collision with or risk of collision with another aircraft;
An operation within 3 NM (5.6 km) of an aerodrome (f) any time the aircraft becomes uncontrollable, experiences
conducted under the authority of the Minister of National a flyaway, or is missing; and
Defence is possible if the operation is conducted in (g) any incident not referred to in paragraphs (a) to (f) for which
accordance with an SFOC—RPAS. To be issued an SFOC for a police report has been filed or for which a CADORS report
the operation of an RPA within 3 NM of an aerodrome has resulted.
operated under the authority of the Minister of National
The RPA pilot shall keep a record of the incident or accident
Defence (CAR 903.01(h)), the pilot must receive authorization
analyses for a period of 12 months after the day on which the
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(CAR 901.49(2)).
(a) An RPA tethered to the ground by a power cable hovering
If any incident or accident occurs while an RPA is being operated at a specific location without pilot input while it serves to
under an SFOC—RPAS, it shall be reported to TC using the boost a communication signal does not meet the definition
RPAS Aviation Occurrence Reporting Form sent with the issuance of an RPA.
of the SFOC—RPAS. (b) An RPA attached to a line while it is being manoeuvred or
In addition to the criteria listed in CAR 901.49, certain types of navigated by a pilot does meet the definition of an RPA,
RPAS occurrences need to be reported to the TSB, including when: and CARs Part IX provisions governing small RPAs apply.
(a) an RPA weighing more than 25 kg is involved in an accident, (c) A tether should not be used for the sole purpose of exclusion
as defined by paragraph 2(1)(a) of the TSB Regulations; or from the safety requirements of Part IX. Tethered RPAs
should comply with the requirements of Part IX that are
(b) a person is killed or sustains a serious injury as a result of
applicable to the type of operation being performed.
coming into direct contact with any part of a small RPA
(an aircraft with a maximum take-off weight of at least The addition of a tether to an RPA is considered a modification
250 g [0.55 lb] but not more than 25 kg [55 lb]), including to an RPAS. Therefore, if an RPAS safety assurance declaration
parts that have become detached from the small RPA; or has been made under CAR section 901.76 for advanced operations,
the installation of a tether on the RPA will invalidate this RPAS
(c) a collision occurs between an RPA of any size or weight and
safety assurance declaration unless:
a manned aircraft.
(a) the modification was performed according to the instructions
The purpose of an aviation safety investigation into an aircraft
from the manufacturer of the part or equipment used to
accident or incident is to prevent a reoccurrence; it is not to
modify the system (CAR 901.70(b)); and
determine or assign blame or liability. The TSB, established
under the CTAISB Act, is responsible for investigating all aviation (b) the pilot installing the tether on the RPA is able to demonstrate
occurrences in Canada involving civil aircraft registered both that the system continues to meet the technical requirements
in Canada and abroad. A team of investigators is on 24-hr standby. set out in Standard 922—RPAS Safety Assurance that are
applicable to the operations referred to in subsection 901.69(1)
TC AIM GEN 3.0 provides additional information on aircraft
for which the declaration was made (CAR 901.70(a)).
accident reporting to the TSB, including time limits and what
information to report. An RPA is defined as an aircraft in Best practices dictate that tethered RPA operations should not
the CARs. be conducted closer to people than the length of the tether
restraining the RPA plus at least 5 m. For example, if the length
3.2.38 Tethered Remotely Piloted Aircraft (RPA) of the tether is 120 m, a safety margin of more than 125 m from
people extending laterally from the point the tether is attached
CAR 101.01(1) defines a remotely piloted aircraft (RPA) as “a to the ground should be maintained. Moreover, to mitigate
navigable aircraft, other than a balloon, rocket, or kite that is significant risk of injuries or damages, sufficient space is to be
operated by a pilot who is not on board.” allocated to allow for post-crash RPA flying debris (e.g. spinning
Therefore, when an RPA that is not designed to be navigable is rotor components can be flung a great distance). This is to be
tethered to the ground in a way that prevents it from being taken into account at the planning stage and confirmed during
steered, manoeuvred, or piloted, it no longer meets the definition the site survey.
of an RPA and the regulatory requirements contained in Part IX
of the CARs no longer apply; instead, operators of tethered 3.3 BASIC OPERATIONS
objects must meet the obstruction requirements of CAR
Standard 621 Chapter 11. 3.3.1 General
This interpretation recognizes that RPAs that are prevented Basic operations require small RPA pilots to have the necessary
from being navigated along a path pose a different set of hazards qualifications and skills.
from RPAs that are free-flying. If the RPA is being manoeuvred
or the navigation is controlled while the RPA is on the tether, it Basic operations are for those intending to operate an RPA:
is navigable and it once again meets the definition of an RPA, (a) in uncontrolled airspace (CAR 901.14);
and Part IX of the CARs will apply. Control-line flying models
(b) at a distance of 100 ft (30 m) or more from another person
are not designed to be navigated and do not meet the definition
except from a crew member or other person involved in the
of an RPA.
operation (CAR 901.26);
A tether can be used to extend the flight time of the RPA by
(c) at a distance of three nautical miles (5.6 km) or more from
supplying power from the ground. A tether can also be used as
the centre of an airport or an aerodrome operated under
a means to mitigate the risk of the flyaway by physically restricting
the authority of the Minister of National Defence or one
the RPA from reaching certain locations. A tether should not
nautical mile (1.8 km) or more from the centre of a heliport
be used as a means to circumvent or exempt an operation from
(CAR 901.47).
the safety requirements of Part IX.
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For more information, refer to 3.2.35 Operations at or in the 3.3.2.3 Access to Certificate and Proof of Currency
RPA
Vicinity of an Aerodrome, Airport, or Heliport. When operating an RPAS, the pilot must be able to easily access
Pilots carrying out basic RPA operations without a pilot both their basic or advanced RPA pilot certificate (CAR 901.55
certificate—small remotely piloted aircraft (for basic or advanced and 901.64) and documentation demonstrating recency
operations) may be subject to individual penalties of up to $1,000 (CAR 901.56).
and/or corporate penalties of up to $5,000. RPA pilots failing to demonstrate recency may receive individual
penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate penalties of up
3.3.2 Pilot Requirements to $5,000.
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3.4.2 Pilot Requirements RPA pilots failing to demonstrate recency may be subject to
RPA
The pilot must then comply with all instructions given by the (b) Ensure that you have a pilot certificate—RPA (VLOS)—
RPA
ANSP (901.72). advanced operations.
An RPA flight authorization can be completed and obtained (c) Adhere to the CARs and respect the limits of the privileges
using NAV Drone, NAV CANADA’s drone flight planning tool. granted by the TC advanced RPA pilot certificate with
More information is available at <https://www.navcanada.ca/ regards to Part IX.
en/flight-planning/drone-flight-planning.aspx>. (d) Prior to an advanced RPAS operation and as part of the site
The following information is required: survey required by CAR 901.27, consult the CFS, CWAS,
VFR charts, Drone Site Selection Tool or NAV Drone Viewer
(a) the date, time, and duration of the operation;
to research the airport, heliport or water airport where
(b) the category, registration number, and physical characteristics operations are to be conducted so that you understand the
of the aircraft; relevant information.
(c) the vertical and horizontal boundaries of the area of (e) When operating an RPA at or in the vicinity of an aerodrome,
operation; water aerodrome, airport, or heliport, the RPA pilot should
(d) the route of the flight to access the area of operation; contact the aerodrome operator to inform them of the RPAS
(e) the proximity of the area of operation to manned aircraft operation, regardless of whether the RPA is operated in
approaches and departures and to patterns of traffic formed controlled or uncontrolled airspace. Please note that
by manned aircraft; aerodrome, water aerodrome, airport, and heliport operators
(f) the means by which two-way communications with the don’t have access to NAV Drone RPA flight authorization
appropriate ATC unit will be maintained; information.
(g) the name, contact information, and pilot certificate number (f) The RPA pilot should maintain a listening watch of the
of any pilot of the aircraft; applicable aerodrome traffic frequency found in the CFS
(h) the procedures and flight profiles to be followed in the case or on VNCs. Any person operating a VHF radio must hold
of a lost command and control link; an ROC-A. TC AIM COM 1.0, NAV CANADA’s VFR
Phraseology Guide, and ISED’s study guide RIC-21 for the
(i) the procedures to be followed in emergency situations; ROC-A provide additional information on radiotelephony
(j) the process and the time required to terminate the operation; procedures.
and
Please note that aerodrome, water aerodrome, airport, and
(k) any other information required by the ANSP that is necessary heliport operators don’t have access to NAV Drone RPA flight
for the provision of air traffic management. authorization information. If you choose to operate your RPA
in one of these areas and see traditional aircraft operating, it is
3.4.5 Operations at or in the Vicinity of an Airport recommended to land the RPA and reassess the situation. If you
or Heliport—Established Procedure notice regular aircraft activities at a location, it is recommended
This section is for advanced RPA pilots operating in advanced to contact the airport operator to better understand the local
environments, when the RPA is within 3 NM from the centre traffic circuit procedures and to coordinate your RPA operations.
of an airport or water airport and within 1 NM from the centre Although aerodrome operators can prohibit someone from using
of a heliport, regardless of whether the RPA is in controlled or their premises, they cannot forbid the use of the airspace
uncontrolled airspace. Advanced RPA pilots in this situation surrounding an aerodrome, airport, or heliport. Airspace access
are required by CAR 901.73 to conduct their RPAS operations is regulated through the CARs, and any aircraft and pilot meeting
in accordance with the established procedure. Please refer to the the requirements therein could use the airspace.
NRC Drone Site Selection Tool, the NAV Drone Viewer, the CFS,
the CWAS, or VNCs for more information and the location of NOTE:
an airport, heliport, or water airport at or in the vicinity of an Under section 5.1 of the Aeronautics Act, only the Minister or
RPAS operation. If a procedure is established for an airport, delegate can restrict access to airspace: <https://laws.justice.
heliport, or water aerodrome, it is published in the PRO section gc.ca/eng/acts/A-2/page-7.html>.
of the current CFS for airports or heliports, or in the current
CWAS for water airports. Procedures may also be provided in
3.4.6 Operations Near People
an ANSP RPA flight authorization notice for controlled airspace.
Operations near people (section 922.05 of CAR Standard 922)
Below is the TC generic established procedure that should be
are those less than 100 ft (30 m) but more than 16.4 ft (5 m)
followed if there is none published or provided and when the
horizontally from another person, except for the crew or people
RPA pilot is operating in an advanced environment at or in the
involved in the RPAS operation. For these operations, the pilot
vicinity of an airport, heliport, or water airport.
must have an advanced RPA pilot certificate (CAR 901.64) and
(a) Always give way to traditional aircraft and keep the RPA must use an RPAS that has been declared for the relevant operation
within VLOS (CARs 901.11, 901.17, and 901.18). See (CAR 901.69).
subsection 3.2.1.1 of this chapter for information about
This CAR Standard 922.05 eligibility is written on the RPA
visual line-of-site (VLOS) and section 3.2.5 about right of
certificate of registration. RPAS operated outside of the
way.
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manufacturer’s operational limitations (including but not limited declared capabilities of that RPAS and that the RPAS remains
RPA
to wind, temperature or other operational limits and minimums) within the published specifications from the manufacturer. The
are not considered to be within the declared capabilities of the evaluation on the impact the modifications may have should
RPAS and are not safe for flight (CAR 901.31). ensure that the modification or add-on equipment can be
integrated safely with existing systems and does not introduce
3.4.7 Operations Over People new failure conditions not accounted for in the original design
by the manufacturer. If the modification can affect the declared
Operations that pose the highest risks when it comes to the capabilities of the original RPAS, or the party making the
system reliability of the RPAS are those over people at less than modification does not possess the technical information on the
16.4 ft (5 m) (measured horizontally and at any altitude) from original design to properly conduct the evaluation, the RPAS
another person who is not included in the crew and is not involved manufacturer declaration is invalidated and the RPAS is limited
in the operation. For these operations, pilots must have an to operations in basic environments only, unless the RPAS
advanced RPA pilot certificate (CAR 901.64) and the pilot must modifier makes a new safety assurance declaration. A modifier
use an RPAS that has been declared for the relevant operation that makes a declaration for a modified RPAS takes on the same
(CAR 901.69) required by CAR 901.76 and Standard 922.06, regulatory responsibilities as a declared RPAS manufacturer
confirming that no single failure of the RPAS may result in (CAR 901.76). AC 922-001—RPAS Safety Assurance serves as
severe injury to a person on the ground and that any combination guidance to the considerations that should be made for parties
of failures of the RPAS which may result in severe injury to a making safety assurance declarations.
person on the ground must be shown to be remote. This CAR
Standard 922.06 eligibility is written on the RPA certificate of The addition of a parachute system may constitute a modification
registration. if its integration affects the ability of the RPAS to continue to
meet its declared capabilities, or it serves to add additional
RPA pilots equipped with parachute systems declared for operating capabilities, such as operations over people. The
operations over people are responsible for ensuring they have inclusion of a parachute on its own does not allow the RPA to
properly registered their RPA to reflect the operating environments operate over people; rather, a safety assurance declaration for
afforded by the parachute, and that the RPA is operated within operations over people is required (CAR Standard 922.06).
the published limitations from the manufacturer (including but
not limited to altitude, wind, temperature, or other operational
3.5 FLIGHT REVIEWERS
limits and minimums). For example, if the parachute manufacturer
has identified a minimum deployment altitude for their parachute
to function, it is the RPA pilot’s responsibility to ensure that 3.5.1 General
they abide by this operational limitation and fly above the The flight review is an in-person, holistic operational assessment
manufacturer’s stated altitude minimum. RPAs operated outside of an RPA pilot’s skills. Flight reviews are conducted by qualified
of the manufacturer’s operational limitations are not considered flight reviewers who have undergone additional Transport Canada
to be within the declared capabilities of the RPAS and are not testing and are monitored closely by both the self-declared RPAS
safe for flight (CAR 901.31). training organization with which they associate as well as
Transport Canada. In addition to confirming that advanced
3.4.8 RPA Modification category applicants have the CARs-required documentation—
pre-f light information (CAR 901.24), normal checklists,
Modifications to an RPAS that has a safety assurance declaration,
emergency checklists, and site survey (CAR 901.27)—they are
including the addition of add-on equipment, should be made in
also acting to validate the identity and knowledge of the candidate
accordance with the manufacturer’s recommendations
as well as their operational and flight skills.
(CAR 901.70). The integration of third-party add-on equipment,
changes to an RPAS structure or electrical systems (hardware
and software), or any other changes that are not within the 3.5.2 Pilot Requirements
manufacturer’s specifications may constitute a modification to
an RPAS. Modifications that do not impact the original RPAS 3.5.2.1 Flight Reviewer Rating
Safety Assurance declaration and thus do not alter the declared Flight reviewers must meet and maintain several requirements
capabilities of the RPAS do not require notification to the before they are able to qualify as flight reviewers. Flight reviewers
Minister. An RPAS must still be operated within the operating must be over 18, have a good record with respect to aviation,
limits as defined by the RPAS manufacturer (CAR 901.31) who and have no enforcement action against them, past or pending.
made the RPAS Safety Assurance declaration. Modifications They are expected to read, understand, and comply with the
that can affect the declared capabilities of the original RPAS, Flight Reviewer’s Guide for Pilots of Remotely Piloted Aircraft
add additional advanced operating capabilities, or have an adverse Systems 250 grams (g) up to and including 25 kilograms (kg),
effect on the safety or “airworthiness” of the original RPAS Operating within Visual Line-of-Sight (VLOS) (TP 15395) and
require a new RPAS Safety Assurance declaration to the Minister meet the knowledge requirements outlined in Knowledge
as a modified RPAS by the party making the modification. Requirements for Pilots of Remotely Piloted Aircraft Systems 250 g
It is the responsibility of the party making the modification or up to and including 25 kg, Operating within Visual Line-of-
adding equipment to evaluate whether there is an effect on the Sight (VLOS) (TP 15263). They must successfully pass the flight
reviewer exam. Additionally, they must hold an advanced RPA
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TC AIM March 23, 2023
pilot certificate for at least six months before they are eligible to 3.6 SPECIAL FLIGHT OPERATIONS—RPAS
RPA
receive the endorsement and must remain affiliated with a
TP 15263 self-declared RPAS training provider to exercise the 3.6.1 General
privileges of their endorsement.
Not every operational consideration can be addressed through
3.5.2.2 Examination
regulation. This is particularly true in industries where technology
is rapidly evolving, such as the RPAS industry.
The flight reviewer exam is available in the Drone Management
Portal to advanced certificate holders with more than six months Subpart 3 of CARs Part IX allows the Minister to issue an SFOC—
of experience. The examination contains 30 questions, requires RPAS to allow certain operations that are not covered by the
a mark of 80% to pass, and focuses on both advanced category Part IX regulation. These operations include:
operations and flight review requirements. Once successful, (a) RPAS with a maximum take-off weight greater than 25 kg;
applicants pay a fee to have the flight reviewer endorsement (b) BVLOS operations;
added to their pilot certificate. To exercise the privileges of a (c) foreign operators;
flight reviewer, the reviewer must remain associated to at least (d) operation at altitudes greater than 400 ft AGL;
one TP 15263 self-declared RPAS training provider, though
(e) operation of more than 5 RPAs from a single control station;
multiple associations are also permitted.
(f) operation at a special aviation event or an advertised event;
(g) operations with restricted payloads;
3.5.3 Conduct of Flight Reviews
(h) operations within 3 NM of an aerodrome operated under
Flight reviews are conducted in-person at a site of the candidate’s the authority of the Minister of National Defence;
choosing. They can be conducted in controlled or uncontrolled (i) any other operation determined by the Minister to require
airspace, though the flight review itself is not exempt from an SFOC.
complying with Part IX of the CARs. The applicant must be able
to meet the requirements to operate the RPA within that airspace
3.6.2 Application for a Special Flight Operations
with the exception of having the advanced RPA pilot certificate.
Certificate (SFOC)—Remotely Piloted
Prior to the flight review, the flight reviewer may assign the Aircraft System (RPAS)
candidate a realistic advanced RPA operational type of mission
Guidance to complete the application form for the issuance of
(for planning purposes). This will be used during the ground
an SFOC—RPAS (Form 26-0835E) <https://wwwapps.tc.gc.
portion of the flight review to validate the candidate’s ability to
ca/Corp-Serv-Gen/5/forms-formulaires/download/26-0835_
plan and execute an advanced RPA operation.
BO_PX> is available on TC’s drone safety Web site (<https://
Only a small RPA (250 g to 25 kg) may be used to conduct a tc.canada.ca/en/aviation/drone-safety>), as well as in
flight review. Standard 921.06(1)(c)(i) states the RPA used for AC 903-002—Application Guidelines for a Special Flight
the flight review must be registered under CAR 901.02: <https:// Operations Certificate for a Remotely Piloted Aircraft
tc.canada.ca/en/corporate-services/acts-regulations/list- System (SFOC—RPAS).
regulations/canadian-aviation-regulations-sor-96-433/standards/
For reference:
standard-921-small-remotely-piloted-aircraft-visual-line-sight-
vlos-canadian-aviation-regulations-cars>. (a) Legal name—For an individual: your full name. For a
registered business, the business name or number;
The flight review consists of both ground-based and flight
assessment items. If any of the eight assessed items are determined (b) Trade name—What your business is known as. Enter your
to not meet the requirements or if the candidate displays unsafe own name if you do not have a trade name;
flying or behaviour, does not complete an appropriate site survey, (c) Address—Address of the individual or the headquarters of
lacks training or competency, or does not use effective scanning the registered business;
techniques, the flight review is marked a failure. Candidates
(d) Principal place of business—Province information only;
who have failed flight reviews may reattempt after 24 hours have
elapsed. (e) Telephone—Phone number of the individual or the
headquarters of the registered business;
Following a successful flight review, the flight reviewer shall
enter the required information into the Drone Management (f) Is this the applicant’s first SFOC request under CAR Part IX?—
Portal within 24 hours. The successful candidate will then be If not, the previous SFOC—RPAS number will be a six-digit
automatically notified via e-mail and routed to the Drone number starting with “9”;
Management Portal to pay for the issuance of the advanced RPA (g) Purpose of the operation—Provide detailed descriptions of
pilot certificate. the operation in the supporting documentation: for example,
the concept of operations (CONOPS) or site survey or the
Specific Operational Risk Assessment (SORA). Where an
RPAS will be used for multiple purposes, these purposes
and the associated risk assessments (as applicable) must all
be detailed in the SFOC—RPAS supporting documentation;
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(h) Proposed period of operations—Start and end dates; Additionally, BVLOS applications shall include an acceptable
RPA
(i) Location of the proposed operations—For applications under means to detect and avoid (DAA) other traditional aircrafts,
CAR 903.01: based on performance objectives specified in AC 903-001—RPAS
ORA. SFOC—RPAS applications for CAR 903.01(b) BVLOS
(i) For CAR 903.01(c) foreign operators and (h) MND without an acceptable means of DAA will not be accepted.
aerodrome, write in this field: the region(s) of
operation(s). All the above-mentioned documents and requested information
shall be provided at the time the application is submitted for
(ii) For CAR 903.01(e) more than 5 RPAs at one time and review. The application will only be deemed accepted once all
(f) special aviation/advertised events, the SFOC— the information has been received by the TCCA RPAS Centre
RPAS will be site-specific: enter city address or of Expertise (RCE) office. Once a complete SFOC—RPAS
latitude/longitude. application is accepted, the applicant will be informed by a TCCA
(iii) For CAR 903.01(a) above 25 kg, (b) BVLOS, (d) above RCE office e-mail. SFOC—RPAS applications with an end date
400 ft, and (g) dangerous payload, enter either the of less than 30 working days in the future will not be accepted.
city address or latitude/longitude, or the region(s)
of operation(s).
(iv) More complex SFOC—RPAS issued for a wider region
are more complicated to process than site-specific
ones, will have additional requirements and longer
reviewing times, and are not generally supported
for initial applications;
(j) Person responsible for the RPAS operation—Who is
responsible? This may be a different person than the one
who is applying or the company. Effective contact information
is required for when the RPA is in operation.
NOTE:
The SFOC—RPAS application is signed by the individual
applicant or a representative from the company. For a company,
this may or may not be the responsible person. All simple SFOC—
RPAS applicants will be required to complete a “simple” risk
assessment.
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