1700 Questions Not in PLABABLE

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1700 files explained by Dr. Khalid Saifullah (Question 1 to question 1707)
August 10, 2018 version.

1700 Questions not in PLABABLE
___ = present in PLABABLE but wrong key, ___ = suspicious key
40. A young male whose sclera was noted to be yellow by his colleagues has a hx of taking OTC
drugs for some pain. Tests showed raised bilirubin, ALT and AST normal. The provocation test with
IV nicotinic acid is positive and produces further rise in the serum bilirubin levels. What is the most
likely dx?
a. Acute hepatitis
b. Drug hypersensitivity
c. Gilberts syndrome
d. Acute pancreatitis
Ans. The key is C. Gilbert’s syndrome. [Only bilirubin is increased but not the liver enzymes. Also
positive nicotinic acid provocation test is in its favour].
46. A woman comes with an ulcerated lesion 3 cm in the labia majorum. What is the lymphatic
drainage of this area?
a. External iliac
b. Superficial inguinal LN
c. Para-aortic
d. Iliac
e. Aortic
Ans. Key is B. Superficial inguinal LN.
59. A 62yo woman complains of unsteadiness when walking. On examination she has pyramidal
weakness of her left lower limb and reduced pain and temp sensation on right leg and right side
of trunk up to the umbilicus. Joint position sense is impaired at her left great toe but is normal
elsewhere. She has a definite left extensor plantar response and the right plantar response is
equivocal. Where is the lesion?

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a. Left cervical cord
b. Midline mid-thoracic cord
c. Right mid-thoracic cord
d. Left mid-thoracic cord
e. Left lumbo-sacral plexus
Q. 1. What is the key?
Q. 2. What is the name of this condition?
Ans. 1. The key is d. Left mid-thoracic cord.
Ans. 2. Brown-sequard syndrome. [In brown-sequard syndrome paralysis and loss of proprioception
on the same (or ipsilateral) side as the injury or lesion, and loss of pain and temperature sensation
on the opposite (or contralateral) side as the lesion].
67. A 30yo man presents with a 5cm neck mass anterior to the sternocleido-mastoid muscle on the
left side in its upper third. He states that the swelling has been treated with antibiotics for
infection in the past. What’s the most likely cause?
a. Branchial cyst
b. Parotitis
c. Pharyngeal pouch
d. Thyroglossal cyst
e. Thyroid swelling
Q. 2. Justify your answer.
Ans. 1. The key is A. Branchial cyst.
Ans. 2. i) Branchial cyst is anterior triangular lump. [parotid is also anterior triangular lump but
parotitis regresses with appropriate treatment i.e. becomes normal in size]. ii) pharyngeal pouch is
posterior triangular lump. iii) Thyroglossal is midline lump. iv) thyroid swelling moves with
swallowing].
71. A 75yo alcoholic presents with a mass up to umbilicus, urinary dribbling, incontinence, and
clothes smelling of ammonia. What is the next step in management?

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a. Urethral catheter
b. Suprapubic catheter
c. Antibiotics
d. Condom catheter
e. Nephrostomy
Q. 2. What is the cause of this retention?
Ans. 1. The key is A. Urethral catheter.
Ans. 2. Alcohol consumption [Alcoholism can cause urinary retention but it is a less common cause
of retention].
79. A woman who returned from abroad after 3 weeks of holiday complains of severe diarrhea of 3
weeks. She also developed IDA and folic acid def. What condition best describes her situation?
a. Jejunal villous atrophy
b. Chronic diarrhea secretions
c. Malabsorption
d. Increased catabolism
e. Increased secretions of acid
Q. What is the key?
Ans. The key is C. Malabsorption.
85. A man presented with cellulitis and swelling. He was started on flucloxacillin. What other
medication do you want to add?
a. Vancomycin
b. Penicillin
c. Metronidazole
d. Ceftriaxone
e. Amoxicillin
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Q. 2. Please mention why?

Ans. 1. The key is B. Penicillin.
Ans. 2. cellulitis is usually caused by staphylococcus and
streptococcus. To cover both Flucloxacillin (for staphylococcus) and
Penicillin (to cover streptococci) should be prescribed.
99. A 30yo woman had a gradual decrease of visual acuity since the last 3 years. Now she has a
disability due to very low vision. What’s the dx?
a. Glaucoma
b. Cataract
c. Macular degeneration
d. Retinitis pigmentosa
e. Keratitis
Q. 2. Why it is not the other given D/D s?
Ans. 1. The key is D. Retinitis pigmentosa.
Ans. 2. i) It is not angle closure glaucoma as angle closure glaucoma occurs usually after the age of
50; In open angle glaucoma visual loss is not evenly gradual rather occurs a bit suddenly at its later
part. It is not cataract as cataract occurs usually in elderly. In macular degeneration near blindness
does not occur rather causes inability to identify face or cannot read small prints; otherwise
peripheral vision is not that depressed. In keratitis will be pain, redness, photophobia and vision is
ok.
106. A 45yo lady has 10m hx of SOB. She is found to have irregularly irregular pulse and loud P2 with
fixed splitting and ejection systolic murmur in left 2nd ICS. What is the probable dx?
a. TOF
b. ASD
c. VSD
d. PDA
e. CoA

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Q. 2. What is the diagnosis?
Ans. 1. The key is B. Atrial septal defect.
Ans. 2. Diagnosis is ASD with atrial fibrillation. [i) atrial fibrillation = irregularly irregular pulse. ii) ASD
= SOB, fixed splitting with loud P2, ESM in pulmonary area]. This picture is typical. One should not
misdiagnose SOB, ESM in pulmonary area and loud P2 as pulmonary hypertension (though in elderly
this can develop with ASD).
126. A woman 5 days post-op for bilateral salphingo-oopherectomy and abdominal hysterectomy
has developed abdominal pain and vomiting a/w abdominal distension and can’t pass gas. No bowel
sounds heard, although well hydrated. What is the most appropriate next step?
a. XR abdomen
b. Exploratory laparoscopy
c. CT
d. USG
e. Barium enema
Q. 3. What are the causes of it?
Q. 4. What is the management?
Ans. 1. The key is A. X-ray abdomen.
Ans. 2. The diagnosis is paralytic ileas.
Ans. 3. Causes of paralytic ileus: i) electrolyte imbalance ii) gastroenteritis iii) appendicitis iv)
pancreatitis v) surgical complications and vi) certain drugs.
Ans. 4. Management of paralytic ileus: i) nil by mouth ii) nasogastric suction to alleviate the
distension and remove the obstruction.
133. A 25yo woman presented to her GP on a routine check up. Upon vaginal exam, she was fine
except for finding of cervical ectropion which was painless but mild contact bleeding on touch.
What is the next management?
a. Endometrial ablation
b. Cervical smear (2nd line)
c. Colposcopy
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d. Antibiotics (1st line)
e. Vaginal US
f. Pack with gauze and leave to dry
Q. 2. Points in favour correct of key.
Ans. The key is D. Antibiotics. This is a wrong key. The correct key is B. Cervical smear. In UK 25 yr is
the age when 1st smear is offered. [Before antibiotics we have to take swab. As there is no option of
swab and age is 25 yrs we shall go for smear].
Ans. 2. Cervical smear is a screaning service which follows its own schedule and can not be done
unless it is due or overdue. As the Lady is of 25 years and has ectropion and contact bleeding smear
is the best option here as in UK 1st smear is offered at 25 yrs.
134. A 32yo had a normal vaginal delivery 10 days ago. Her uterus has involuted normally. Choose
the single most likely predisposing factor for PPH?
a. Retained product
b. DIC
c. Uterine infection
d. Von Willebrand disease
e. Primary PPH
Q. 2. What type of PPH it would be?
Ans. 1. The key is C. uterine infection.
Ans. 2. Secondary PPH
148. A 41yo woman who has completed her family, has suffered from extremely heavy periods for
many years. No medical tx has worked. She admits that she would rather avoid open surgery.
After discussion, you collectively decide on a procedure that wouldn’t require open surgery or
GA. Select the most appropriate management for this case.
b. Hysterectomy
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c. Fibroid resection
d. Myomectomy
e. Uterine artery embolization
Ans. The key is E. Uterine artery embolization. [Done by interventional radiologist expert in arterial
embolization technique. Particles are placed in uterine artery to block circulation to uterine body.
No operation or GA is required].
152. A 23yo man has been stabbed in the back and has SOB. The trachea is not deviated, he has
engorged neck veins and absent breath sounds on the right. What is the most appropriate dx?
a. Tension pneumothorax
b. Cardiac tamponade
c. Simple pneumothorax
d. Hemothorax
e. Pleural effusion
Q. 2. What are the point in favour of your answer?
Ans. 1. The key is A. Tension pneumothorax.
Ans. 2. Points in favour: i) Stab wound in the back ii) SOB iii) Engorged neck vein iv) Absent breath
sound.
These features are common for both hemothorax and tension pneumothorax and tracheal deviation
is common to both! This is probability of bad recall!!
157. A 60yo smoker presents with cramp-like pain in the calves relived by rest and non-healing
ulcers.
Exam: cold extremities with lack of hair around the ankles, absent distal pulses. What is the
most probable dx?
a. Intermittent claudication
b. Chronic ischemia of the limbs
c. Buerger’s disease
d. DVT
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e. DM
Q. 2. Points that support your diagnosis.
Ans. 1. The key is B. Chronic ischaemia of the limb.
Ans. 2. Intermittent claudication is a symptom not diagnosis. It is not buerger’s disease as buerger
occur in more younger heavy smoker (before the age of 50yrs), It is not DVT as dvt pain or
tenderness is not of an intermittent claudication pattern. Again in DM there is no intermittent
claudication.
166. A 75yo lady who had mitral valve replacement 13 yrs ago has developed recurrent
breathlessness. Her husband has noticed prominent pulsation in her neck. She complains of
abdominal pain and ankle swelling. What is the most probable dx?
a. Aortic regurgitation
b. Mitral regurgitation
c. Mitral stenosis
d. Tricuspid regurgitation
e. Pulmonary stenosis
Ans. The key is D. Tricuspid regurgitation. [Points in favour: i) recurrent breathlessness – if the cause
is LV dysfunction, ii) prominent pulsation in the neck – giant v waves, iii) abdominal pain – pain in
liver on exertion, ankle swelling; These are features of tricuspid regurgitation. Reference:- OHCM,
9th edition, page- 142].
167. A 45yo T1DM had an annual check up. Ophthalmoscopy showed dot and blot hemorrhage +
hard exudate and multiple cotton wool spots. What is the next step in management?
a. Reassurance and annual screening only
b. Urgent referral to ophthalmologist
c. Laser therapy
d. Non-urgent referral to ophthalmologist
e. Nothing can be done
Ans. The key is D. Non-urgent referral to ophthalmologist. [It is pre-proliferative retinopathy so non-
urgent referral; If proliferative (with neovascularization) urgent referral].
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168. A 2m baby who has ambiguous genitalia presents to the ED with vomiting. Labs:
Na+=125mmol/L, K+=6mmol/L. What is the most likely dx?
a. Fragile X syndrome
b. Turners syndrome
c. Noonan syndrome
d. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Q. 2. What are the points in favour?
Ans. 1. The key is D. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Ans. 2. Points in favour: i) ambiguous genitalia ii) salt wasting manifested as hyponatremia and
hyperkalemia (In mild forms of salt-wasting adrenal hyperplasia, salt wasting may not become
apparent until an illness stresses the child). [here hyperkalaemia inspite of vomiting is indicating the
disease].
172. A 44yo pt has sudden onset of breathlessness and stridor few minutes after extubation for
thyroidectomy. The pat had longstanding goiter for which he had the surgery. What is the most
likely dx?
a. Thyroid storm
b. Hematoma
c. Unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury
d. External laryngeal nerve injury
e. Tracheomalacia
Ans. The key is tracheomalacia. [Prolonged pressure over trachea by goiter is a cause of
tracheomalacia following thryroidectomy].
175. A 25yo woman with T1DM has delivered a baby weighing 4.5kg. Her uterus is well contracted.
Choose the single most likely predisposing factor for PPH from the options.
a. Atonic uterus
b. Cervical/vaginal trauma
c. Retained POC
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d. Large placental site
e. Rupture uterus
Q. 2. Reason for your answer.
Ans. 1. The key is B. Cervical/vaginal trauma
Ans. 2. The baby is a big baby. If patient’s uterus was not well contracted we would fear of atonic
uterus! But as uterus is well contracted it is not atonic uterus. Rather most likely cause is trauma
dring delivery of this big baby.
179. A 35yo woman had an uneventful lap chole 18h ago. She has a pulse=108bpm, temp 37.8C.
There are signs of reduced air entry at the right base but the CXR doesn’t show an obvious
abnormality. What is the most appropriate management strategy?
a. Cefuroxime PO
b. Ceftriaxone IV
c. Chlorpheniramine PO
d. Chest physiotherapy
e. Reassure
Ans. 1. The key is D. Chest physiotherapy.
Ans. 2. Atelactasis. [Atelectasis can be seen in chest x-ray but sometimes it becomes undetectable in
chest x-ray as we are suspecting in this case].
180. A 20yo pop star singer complains of inability to raise the pitch of her voice. She attributes this
to
the thyroid surgery she underwent a few months back. What is the most likely dx?
a. Thyroid storm
b. Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury
c. Unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury
d. External laryngeal nerve injury
e. Thyroid cyst
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Ans. The key is D. External laryngeal nerve injury. [External laryngeal nerve functions to tense the
vocal cords by activating the cricothyroid muscle, increasing pitch].
181. A 28yo woman at 39wk gestation is in labor. She develops abdominal pain and HR=125bpm,
BP=100/42mmHg, temp=37.2C and saturation=99%. Exam: lower abdomen is exquisitely tender.
CTG=prv normal, now showing reduced variability and late deceleration develops with slow
recovery. She has had 1 prv LSCS for a breech baby. Choose the most appropriate CS
complication for this lady?
a. Endometritis
b. UTI
c. Urinary tract injury
d. Pleurisy
e. Uterine rupture
Ans. The key is E. Uterine rupture. [Features of shock, exquisitely tender lower abdomen with
abdominal pain, previously normal CTG now becoming non-reassuring and previous history of LSCS
makes the diagnosis of uterine rupture].
185. A 32yo previously healthy woman has developed pain and swelling of both knees and ankles
with nodular rash over her shins. As part of the inv a CXR has been performed. What is the single
most likely CXR appearance?
a. Apical granuloma
b. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
c. Lobar consolidation
d. Pleural effusion
e. Reticular shadowing in the bases
Q. 2. What is the name of this condition? What are the points in favour?
Ans. 1. The key is B. bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy.
Ans. 2. The name is Lofgren’s syndrome. It is the triad of i) erythema nodosum ii) bilateral hilar
lymphadenopathy and iii) arthralgia.
209. A 79 yo lady who is otherwise well recently started abdominal pain. She is afebrile and
complains that she passed air bubbles during urination. A urethral catheter showed fecal
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leakage in the urinary bag. What is the likely pathology?
a. Diuretics
b. CD
c. Rectosigmoid tumor
d. Large bowel perforation
e. UC
Ans. The key is B. CD. [debate came that Crohn’s disease cannot occur in 79 yrs but this is not the
case! “Crohn’s disease can occur at any age, but is most frequently diagnosed in people ages 15 - 35.
About 10% of patients are children under age 18”.
[http://www.nytimes.com/health/guides/disease/crohns-disease/risk-factors.html]. So I think it can
occur in this age also and the feature like fistula is a common association of CD].
210. A 2 month child with diarrhea and vomiting for 6 days is brought in looking lethargic. What is
the
appropriate initial inv?
a. BUE
b. Random blood sugar
c. CBC
d. CXR
e. AXR
Ans. The key is A. BUE. [Electrolyte imbalance should be checked in this baby presenting with
diarrhea and vomiting for considerable time].
211. A 72 yo man fell while shopping and hurt his knee. His vitals are fine. He speaks in a low voice
and is very slow to give answers. What is the most probable dx?
a. Alzheimers
b. Vascular demetia
c. TIA
d. Pseudo-dementia
e. Picks dementia
Ans. The key is A. Alzheimers

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220. A footballer has been struck in the groin by a kick and a presents with severe pain and mild
swelling in the scrotum. What is the most appropriate next step?
a. USG
b. Doppler
c. Exploratory surgery
d. IV fluids
e. Antibiotics
Ans. The key is C. Exploratory surgery. [To exclude torsion].
230. A lady comes in severe liver disease and hematemesis. Her INR is >10. What should she be
given?
a. FFP
b. Steroids
c. Whole blood
d. IV fluids
e. Vit K
Ans. The key is A. FFP.
232. A 63 yo female is noted to have left pupil irresponsive to light and is dilated. What is the most
.probably dx?
a. Pontine hemorrhage
b. Subdural hemorrhage
c. Cerebellar hemorrhage
d. Extradural hemorrhage
e. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Ans. The key is D. Extradural hemorrhage. This is a wrong key! Correct key is B. Subdural
hemorrhage.
254. An obese mother suffers from OSAS. Which of the following inv is best for her?
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a. ABG
b. Overnight pulse-oximetry
c. Polysomnography
d. EEG
Ans. The key is B. Overnight pulse-oxymetry. [It is already a diagnosed case of OSAS. So no need for
reconfirmation with polysomnography. If like to know the current status or monitor overnight pulse
oxymetry is good].
257. A 29yo woman who was dx to have migraine presents with severe onset of occipital headache.
She lost her consciousness. CT=normal. Neurological exam=normal. What is the most
appropriate management?
a. Repeat CT
b. MRI
c. LP
d. XR
e. No inv required
Q. 3. What are the points in favour?
Ans. 1. The key is E. No investigation required.
Ans. 2. The diagnosis is basilar migraine.
Ans. 3. Points in favour i) history of migraine ii) severe occipital headache iii) LOC iv) CT normal v)
neurological examination is normal.
259. A 35yo female attempts suicide 10x. There is no hx of psychiatric problems and all neurological
exams are normal. What is the best tx?
a. Problem focused tx
b. CBT
c. Antipsychotic
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d. Antidepressant
e. ECT
Ans. The key is A. Problem focused tx. [patient is not psychotic and with normal neurology! So she
may getting some problem in family life, finance, job or somewhere like this which she is not able to
cope with and that is leading to her suicidal thoughts].
262. A 6yo girl who has previously been well presented with a hx of tonic-clonic seizures lasting
4mins. Her mother brought her to the hospital and she appeared well. She is afebrile and didn’t
lose consciousness during the episode of seizure. She has no neurologic deficit. What is the most
appropriate inv for her?
a. ABG
b. Serum electrolytes
c. ECG
d. Blood glucose
Ans. The key is B. Serum electrolyte. This is wrong key. The correct key is D. Blood glucose. [The
routine work is to do blood sugar 1st in any seizure though there is other D/D].
264. A 34yo woman presents 3 weeks after childbirth. She has had very low mood and has been
suffering from lack of sleep. She also has thought of harming her little baby. What is the most
appropriate management for this pt?
a. ECT
b. CBT
c. IV haloperidol
d. Paroxetine
e. Amitryptiline
Ans. The key is A. ECT. This is wrong key! Correct key is C. IV haloperidol. [Dx is postpartum
psychosis. Patient.info, Wikipedia says antipsychotic and if needed additional mood stabilizer may
be used as 1st line. NHS says antidepressant, antipsychotic and mood stabilizer (any one or in
combination) as 1st line treatment. As antipsychotic has given priority likely correct answer is C. IV
haloperidol. 2nd line is CBT, and last resort is ECT].
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267. A 45yo woman comes with red, swollen and exudating ulcer on the nipple and areola of right
breast with palpable lump under the ulcer. What do you think is causing this skin condition?
a. Inflammatory cells releasing cytokines
b. Infiltration of the lymphatics by the carcinomatous cells
c. Infiltration of the malignant skin cells to the breast tissue
Ans. The key is B. Infiltration of the lymphatics by the carcinomatous cells.
271. A 44yo woman complains of heavy bleeding per vagina. Transvaginal US was done and normal.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate inv for her?
a. Hysterectomy
b. Endometrial biopsy
c. CBC
d. High vaginal swab
e. Coagulation profile
Ans. The key is E. Coagulation profile. [Transvaginal US is normal i.e. no endometrial hyperplasia, no
fibroid or obvious cause for heavy bleeding was found. So now most appropriate investigation
should be coagfulation profile].
274. A 38yo woman, 10d postpartum presents to the GP with hx of passing blood clots per vagina
since yesterday. Exam: BP=90/40mmhg, pulse=110bpm, temp=38C, uterus tender on palpation
and fundus 2cm above umbilicus, blood clots +++. Choose the single most likely dx/
a. Abruption of placenta 2nd to pre-eclampsia
b. Concealed hemorrhage
c. Primary PPH
d. Secondary PPH
e. Retained placenta
f. Scabies
Q. 2. How the condition is defined?
Ans. 1. The key is D. Secondary PPH.

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Ans. 2. Secondary PPH: Secondary PPH is defined as abnormal or excessive bleeding from the birth
canal between 24 hours and 12 weeks postnatally. [www.rcog.org.uk/en/guidelines-research-
services/guidelines/gtg52/].
285. A 57yo woman presents with dysuria, frequency and urinary incontinence. She complains of
dyspareunia. Urine culture has been done and is sterile. What is the most appropriate step?
a. Oral antibiotics
b. Topical antibiotics
c. Topical estrogen
d. Oral estrogen
e. Oral antibiotics and topical estrogen
Ans. The key is C. Topical estrogen. [There may be UTI like symptoms and dyspareunia in atrophic
vaginitis for which topical oestrogen can be used].
292. A 27yo 34wk pregnant lady presents with headache, epigastric pain and vomiting. Exam:
pulse=115, BP=145/95mmHg, proteinuria ++. She complains of visual disturbance. What is the
best medication for the tx of the BP?
a. 4g MgSO4 in 100ml 0.9%NS in 5mins
b. 2g MgSO4 IV bolus
c. 5mg hydralazine IV
d. Methyldopa 500mg/8h PO
e. No tx
Ans. The given key is A. 4g MgSO4 in 100ml 0.9%NS in 5mins. It is a wrong key. Correct key is E. No
tx. [Here, question specifically asked for tx of BP. In case of BP of 145/95 mmHg no treatment for BP
is needed. Ref: NICE guideline].
295. A 34yo male presents with hx of headache presents with ataxia, nystagmus and vertigo. Where
is the site of the lesion?
a. Auditory canal
b. 8th CN
c. Cerebellum
d. Cerebral hemisphere
e. Brain stem
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Ans. The key is C. Cerebellum. [Features described are consistent with cerebellar lesion].
296. A 24yo girl comes to the woman sexual clinic and seeks advice for contraception. She is on
sodium valproate.
a. She can’t use COCP
b. She can use COCP with extra precaution
c. She can use COCP if anticonvulsant is changed to carbamezapin.
d. She can use COCP with estrogen 50ug and progesterone higher dose
e. She can use COCP
Ans. The key is E. She can use COCP. [sodium valproate has no effect on COCP].
304. Which of the following is NOT a physiological change during pregnancy?
a. Tidal volume 500ml
b. RBC vol 1.64L
c. Cardiac output 6.5L/min
d. Uterus weight 1.1kg
e. ESR up by 4x
Ans. The key is A. Tidal volume 500 ml.
309. A pt presents with complete anuria following prolonged hypotension and shock in a pt who
bled
profusely from a placental abruption. What is the most probable dx?
a. Post viral infection
b. Acute papillary necrosis
c. Acute cortical necrosis
d. HUS
e. Renal vein thrombosis
Q. 2. What is the reason for this?
Ans. 1. The key is C. Acute cortical necrosis.
Ans. 2. There are 2 reasons for this acute cortical necrosis. i) significant diminished arterial perfusion
of the kidneys due to spasm of the feeding artery secondary to profuse bleeding from placental
abruption ii) DIC secondary to placental abruption.
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310. An alcoholic 56yo man had ascetic fluid analysis done which was found to be yellow color.
What
is the most appropriate cause?
a. Alcoholic hepatitis
b. Decompensated cirrhosis
c. TB peritonitis
d. Pyogenic peritonitis
e. Neoplasm
Q. 2. How this diagnosis is made?
Ans. 1. The key is B. Decompansated cirrhosis.
Ans. 2. If the patient experiences serious problems described below his disease has progressed from
compensated cirrhosis to decompensated cirrhosis:
i) Bleeding varices (internal bleeding)
ii) Ascites (fluid in the belly)
iii) Encephalopathy (confusion)
iv) Jaundice (yellowing of eyes and skin).
317. A 44yo man presents with periorbital and pedal edema. 24h urine shows 8g of protein/d and
serum cholesterol=7mmol/L. Renal biopsy results are awaited. What would be the most likely dx?
a. Minimal change disease
b. Glomerulonephropathy
c. Membranous glomerulonephropathy
d. FSGS
e. IgA nephropathy
f. Mesangiocapillary
Ans. The given key is C. Membranous glomerulonephritis. This is wrong key. Correct key is D. FSGS.
[FSGS is most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults].
328. A 6yo fell on outstretched hand while playing. He feels tender at the elbow but otherwise well.
What is the most likely dx?
a. Spiral fx
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b. Green stick fx
c. Compound fx
d. Supracondylar fx
e. Pulled elbow
Ans. The key is B. Green stick fracture.
331. An old lady 72yo staying at a nursing home for a few years, a known HTN on reg tx presented
with sudden dysphagia while eating with drooling of saliva and req urgent inv. What would be
your next step?
a. Ba swallow
b. Chest CT
c. Endoscopy
d. Laryngoscopy
e. CXR
f. Endoscopy with biopsy
Ans. The key is C. Endoscopy. [Probable impacted food bolus (usually

meat)which can be visualized and removed with the aid of endoscopy].
334. A 12yo girl presented with tics, LOC, no residual sign and no post-ictal phase. EEG abnormality
in
temporal lobe. The girl had a rapid recovery. What is the most probably dx?
a. Generalized tonic-clonic
b. Myoclonic
d. Atonic seizure
e. Febrile convulsion
Ans. The key is C. Partial –> generalized seizure
338. A 40yo male with pre-existing glumerulonephritis having proteinuria and hematuria suddenly
deteriorates and presents with oliguria and serum K+=7.8mmol/L, urea=13mmol/L,
creat=342mmol/L, GFR=19mL/h. The best management would be?

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a. Calcium supplement
b. Calcium resonate enema 30g
c. 10units insulin with 50% dextrose
d. Nebulized salbutamol
e. 10ml of 10% calcium gluconate
f. Hemodialysis urgent
Q. 2. Justify the key.
Ans. 1. The key is E. 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate.
Ans. 2. To prevent cardiac arrhythmia. [Actually calcium gluconate neither

shifts K+ to cells nor reduces serum K+ level that much. It just
prevents cardiac arrest or life threatening cardiac arrhythmia and
buys time till definitive measures are taken].
348. A 56yo woman with MS presents with drooping of the left side of her lips. She also has loss of
sensation over her face, hearing impairment and some in-coordination of her movements. What
is the most likely anatomical site affected?
a. Cerebellum
b. Cerebrum
c. Spinal cord
d. Brain stem
e. Optic nerve
Ans. The key is D. Brain stem. Features of 5, 7, 8th cranial nerve and cerebellum involvement
suggestive of brainstem lesion.
356. A 1m boy has been brought to the ED, conscious but with cool peripheries and has
HR=222bpm.
He has been irritable and feeding poorly for 24h. CXR=borderline enlarged heart with clear lung
fields. ECG=regular narrow complex tachycardia, with difficulty identifying p wave. What is the
22
single most appropriate immediate tx?
a. Administer fluid bolus
b. Administer oxygen
c. Oral beta-blockers
d. Synchronized DC cardio-version
e. Unilateral carotid sinus massage
Q. 2. Justify the key.
Ans. 1. The key is D. Synchrnized DC cardioversion.
Ans. As the patient is in probable hemodynamic instability (suggested by cool peripheries due to low
BP or inadequate CO) so we should go for DC cardioversion.
Ans. 3. Probable diagnosis is SVT.
376. Pt with widespread ovarian carcinoma has bowel obstruction and severe colic for 2h and was
normal in between severe pain for a few hours. What is the most appropriate management?
a. PCA (morphine)
b. Spasmolytics
c. Palliative colostomy
d. Oral morphine
e. Laxatives
Q. 2. Why we should go for this option?
Ans. 1. The key is C. Palliative colostomy.
Ans. 2. Cancer or chemotherapy induced obstructions are unlikely to respond to conservative

management [NBM, IV fluid, nasogastric suction] and hence only analgesia will not relieve it. So in
such cases we have to go for palliative colostomy.
383. A 29yo woman presents to her GP with a hx of weight loss, heat intolerance, poor conc and
palpitations. Which of the following is most likely to be a/w dx of thyroiditis a/w viral infection?
a. Bilateral exophthalmos
b. Diffuse, smooth goiter

23
c. Reduced uptake on thyroid isotope scan
d. Positive thyroid peroxidase antibodies
e. Pretibial myxedema
Q. 3. Whats are the points in favour?
Ans. 1. The key is C. Reduced uptake on thyroid isotope scan.
Ans. 2. The diagnosis is De Quervain’s or subacute thyroiditis.
Ans. 3. Viral or subacute thyroiditis: diagnostic criteria: i) Features of hyperthyroidism present. ii)
Pain thyroid, not mentioned. iii) Investigations: high esr (60-100) not mentioned, Reduced uptake of
radioactive iodine by the gland.
402. A 61yo man has been referred to the OPD with frequent episodes of breathlessness and chest
pain a/w palpitations. He has a regular pulse rate=60bpm. ECG=sinus rhythm. What is the most
appropriate inv to be done?
a. Cardiac enzymes
b. CXR
c. ECG
d. Echo
e. 24h ECG
Ans. The key is E. 24h ECG.
Indications of 24 h ambulatory holter monitoring:
 To evaluate chest pain not reproduced with exercise testing
 To evaluate other signs and symptoms that may be heart-related, such as fatigue, shortness
of breath, dizziness, or fainting
 To identify arrhythmias or palpitations
 To assess risk for future heart-related events in certain conditions, such as idiopathic
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, post-heart attack with weakness of the left side of the heart,
or Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
24
 To assess the function of an implanted pacemaker
 To determine the effectiveness of therapy for complex arrhythmias
405. A 31yo man has epistaxis 10 days following polypectomy. What is the most likely dx?
a. Nasal infection
b. Coagulation disorder
c. Carcinoma
Ans. The key is A. Nasal infection. [Infection is one of the most important cause of secondary
hemorrhage].
419. A 54yo myopic develops flashes of light and then sudden loss of vision. That is the single most
appropriate tx?
a. Pan retinal photo coagulation
b. Peripheral iridectomy
c. Scleral buckling
d. Spectacles
e. Surgical extraction of lens
Ans. The key is C. Scleral buckling. [It is a case of retinal detachment with treatment option of scleral
buckling].
426. A 64yo man presents with a hx of left sided hemiparesis and slurred speech. He was absolutely
fine 6h after the episode. What is the most appropriate prophylactic regimen?
a. Aspirin 300mg for 2 weeks followed by aspirin 75mg
b. Aspirin 300mg for 2 weeks followed by aspirin 75mg and dipyridamole 200mg
c. Clopidogrel 75mg
d. Dipyridamole 200mg
e. Aspirin 300mg for 2 weeks
Ans. The key is B. Aspirin 300mg for 2 weeks followed by aspirin 75mg and dipyridamole 200mg. It is
wrong key! Current recommended secondary prophylaxis is C. Clopidogrel 75mg.
440. A 65yo man with difficulty in swallowing presents with an aspiration pneumonia. He has a
bovine cough and fasciculating tongue. Sometimes as he swallows food it comes back through
his nose. Choose the single most likely cause of dysphagia from the given option?
a. Bulbar palsy
25
b. Esophageal carcinoma
c. Pharyngeal pouch
d. Pseudobulbar palsy
e. Systemic sclerosis
Ans. The key is A. Bulbar palsy. [Dysphagia, nasal regurgitation, fasciculating tongue these are
features of bulbar palsi due to lower motor neuronal lesion of IX-XII nerves].
441. A 16yo teenager was brought to the ED after being stabbed on the upper right side of his back.
Erect CXR revealed homogenous opacity on the lower right lung, trachea was centrally placed.
What is the most probable explanation for the XR findings?
a. Pneumothorax
b. Hemothorax
c. Pneumonia
d. Tension pneumothorax
e. Empyema
Ans. The key is B. Hemothorax. [In blunt trauma there may be hemo-pneumothorax but in sharp
wound like stabbing there may occur only hemothorax].
443. A 38yo female presents with sudden loss of vision but fundoscopy is normal. She had a similar
episode about 1 y ago which resolved completely within 3m. Exam: mild weakness of right
upper limb and exaggerated reflexes. What is the single most appropriate tx?
a. Pan retinal photo coagulation
b. Pilocarpine eye drops
c. Corticosteroids
d. Peripheral iridectomy
e. Surgical extraction of lens
Ans. The key is C. Corticosteroid. [Sudden loss of vision, remission and relapse of optic neuritis and
focal neurological symptoms and exaggerated reflexes all points towards multiple sclerosis.
Treatment option is corticosteroids].
451. A 65yo woman says she died 3m ago and is very distressed that nobody has buried her. When
she is outdoors, she hears people say that she is evil and needs to be punished. What is the
26
most likely explanation for her symptoms?
a. Schizophrenia
b. Mania
c. Psychotic depression
d. Hysteria
e. Toxic confusional state
Ans. The key is C. Psychotic depression. [Psychotic depression, also known as depressive psychosis,
is a major depressive episode that is accompanied by psychotic symptoms (hallucinations,
delusions). In this patient nihilistic delusion favours the diagnosis of psychotic depression. It can
occur in the context of bipolar disorder or majordepressive disorder].
452. A 50yo woman presents following a fall. She reports pain and weakness in her hands for several
months, stiff legs, swallowing difficulties, and has bilateral wasting of the small muscles of her
hands. Reflexes in the upper limbs are absent. Tongue fasciculations are present and both legs
show increased tone, pyramidal weakness and hyper-reflexia with extensor plantars. Pain and
temp sensation are impaired in the upper limbs. What is the most likely dx?
a. MS
b. MND
c. Syringobulbia
d. Syringomyelia
e. Myasthenia gravis
Ans. The key is C. Syringobulbia. [In MS there are characteristic relapse and remission which is
absent here; In MND there is no sensory deficit; Syringomyelia doesn’t cause cranial nerve lesion
and in myasthenia there is muscular weakness without atrophy. Here the features described well fits
with syringobulbia].
455. A 48yo farmer presented with fever, malaise, cough and SOB. Exam: tachypnea, coarse
endinspiratory crackles and wheeze throughout, cyanosis. Also complaint severe weight loss. His
CXR shows fluffy nodular shadowing and there is PMN leukocytosis. What is the single most
appropriate dx?
a. Ankylosing spondylitis
b. Churg-strauss syndrome
27
c. Cryptogenic organizing
d. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
e. Progressive massive fibrosis
Ans. The key is D. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis.
459. A 56yo man has symptoms of sleep apnea and daytime headaches and somnolence. Spirometry
shows a decreased tidal volume and vital capacity. What is the single most appropriate dx?
a. Ankylosing spondylitis
b. Churg-strauss syndrome
c. Good pasture syndrome
d. Motor neuron disease
e. Progressive massive fibrosis
f. Spinal cord compression
Ans. The key is D. Motor neuron disease. [involvement of respiratory muscles in MND is associated
with poor respiration causing sleep apnoea].
461. A 55yo woman was found collapsed at home, paramedics revived her but in the ambulance she
had a cardiac arrest and couldn’t be saved. The paramedic’s report tells that the woman was
immobile lately due to hip pain and that they found ulcers on the medial side of ankle. She had
DM and was on anti-diabetics. What is the cause of her death?
a. Acute MI
b. DKA
c. Pulmonary embolism
d. Acute pericarditis
e. Cardiac tamponade
Ans. The key is C. Pulmonary embolism. [Immobilization due to hip pain may resulted in DVT and
later pulmonary embolism. Please note ulcer in medial side indicate undiagnosed DVT and its
presence favour the presence of DVT and followed by pulmonary embolism].
475. A 32yo woman presents to the ED with headache and vomiting. She was decorating her ceiling
that morning when the headache began, felt mainly occipital with neck pain. Some 2hs later she
28
felt nauseated, vomited and was unable to walk. She also noticed that her voice had altered. She
takes no reg meds and has no significant PMH. Exam: acuity, field and fundi are normal. She has
upbeat nystagmus in all directions of gaze with normal facial muscles and tongue movements.
Her uvulas deviated to the right and her speech is slurred. Limb exam: left arm past-pointing and
dysdiadochokinesis with reduced pin prick sensation in her right arm and leg. Although power is
normal, she can’t walk as she feels too unsteady. Where is the most likely site of lesion?
a. Right medial medulla
b. Left medial pons
c. Left cerebellar hemisphere
d. Right lateral medulla
e. Left lateral medulla
Ans. The key is Left lateral medulla. [ There is a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the
contralateral (opposite) side of the body and ipsilateral (same) side of the face. There is associated
cerebellar symptoms and other cranial nerve involvement. The condition is known as Lateral
Medullary Syndrome].
477. A 55yo man has a chronic cough and sputum, night sweats and weight loss. What is the single
most likely causative organism?
a. Coagulase +ve cocci in sputum
b. Gram -ve diplococci in sputum
c. Gram +ve diplococci in sputum
d. Pneumocystis carinii in sputum
e. Sputum staining for mycobacterium tuberculosis
Ans. The key is E. Sputum staining for mycobacterium tuberculosis. [Chronic cough and sputum,
night sweats and weight loss are classic features of tuberculosis].
484. A 45yo man underwent an emergency splenectomy following a fall from his bicycle. He smokes
5 cigarettes/day. Post-op, despite mobile, he develops swinging pyrexia and a swollen painful
left calf. His CXR shows lung atelectasis and abdominal US demonstrates a small sub-phrenic
collection. What is the single most likely risk factor for DVT in this pt?
a. Immobility
b. Intraperitoneal hemorrhage
29
c. Smoking
d. Splenectomy
e. Sub-phrenic collection
Ans. The key is D. Splenectomy. [Splenectomized patients have an increased risk of developing deep
vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism].
486. A 24yo primigravida who is 30wk pregnant presents to the labor ward with a hx of constant
abdominal pain for the last few hours. She also gives a hx of having lost a cupful of fresh blood
per vagina before the pain started. Abdominal exam: irritable uterus, CTG=reactive. Choose the
single most likely dx?
a. Abruption of placenta 2nd to pre-eclampsia
b. Antepartum hemorrhage
c. Placenta previa
d. Vasa previa
e. Revealed hemorrhage
Ans. The key is B. Antepartum hemorrhage. [Though presentation indicates abruption placenta but
abrutio placenta 2nd to pre-eclumpsia can’t be the option as no features are suggestive of pre-
eclumpsia here. So better option is B. Antepartum hemorrhage which also includes abruption
placenta. Only bleeding cannot indicate whether it is concealed, mixed or revealed].
499. A pt presents with purple papular lesions on his face and upper trunk measuring 1-2 cm across.
They aren’t painful or itchy. What is the single most likely dx?
a. Kaposi’s sarcoma
b. Hairy leukoplakia
c. Cryptosporidium
d. CMV infection
e. Cryptococcal infection
Ans. The key is A. Kaposis sarcoma. [It is a spindle-cell tumour derived from capillary endothelial
cells or from fibrous tissue, caused by human herpes virus. It presents as purple papules (½ to 1 cm)
or plaques on skin and mucosa (any organ). It metastasizes to nodes. OHCM 9th edition, page 716].
500. A 6yo boy is clinically obese, his BMI >95th centile. He has no other medical prbs, examination
is
30
unremarkable. His mother says that she has tried everything to help him lose weight. What is
the most probable dx?
a. Cushing’s syndrome
b. Congenital hypothyroidism
c. Down’s syndrome
d. Lawrence moon biedel syndrome
e. Primary obesity
Ans. The key is E. Primary obesity.
503. A 26yo woman has become aware of increasing right sided hearing deficiency since her recent
pregnancy. Her eardrums are normal. Her hearing tests show: BC-normal. Weber test lateralizes
to the right ear. What is the single most likely dx?
a. Encephalopathy
b. Functional hearing loss
c. Tympano-sclerosis
d. Otosclerosis
e. Sensorineural deafness
Ans. The key is D. Otosclerosis. [There are no features of encephalopathy. As Weber test is
lateralized it is unlikely to be functional hearing loss. In tympanosclerosis ear drum becomes chalky
white. So as the ear drum is normal it is not tympanosclerosis. Weber test is lateralized to right and
deafness is also on the right. So it not sensorineural deafness but conductive deafness which makes
otosclerosis as the most likely diagnosis].
518. A 70yo woman presents with recurrent episodes of parotid swelling. She complains of difficulty
in talking and speaking and her eyes feel gritty on waking in the morning. What is the single
most likely dx?
a. C1 esterase deficiency
b. Crohns disease
c. Mumps
d. Sarcoidosis
e. Sjogrens syndrome
31
Ans. The key is E. Sjogrens syndrome. [parotid swelling, difficulty talking and speaking (due to
dryness or less salive), eyes feeling gritty on waking in the morning due to dryness of eye are
suggestive of Sjogrens syndrome].
529. A 45yo chronic smoker attends the OPD with complaints of persistent cough and copious
amount of purulent sputum. He had hx of measles in the past. Exam: finger clubbing and
inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. What is the single most likely dx/
a. Interstitial lung disease
b. Bronchiectasis
c. Asthma
d. COPD
e. Sarcoidosis
Ans. The key is B. Bronchiectasis. [Persistent cough with copious purulent sputum and finger
clubbing points towards the diagnosis of bronchiectasis. Severe lung infections such as tuberculosis
(TB), whooping cough, pneumonia or measles can damage the airways at the time of infection.
Bronchiectasis may then develop].
538. A 63yo man presents after having a seizure. Exam: alert, orientated, inattention on the left side
and hyperreflexia of the arm. What is the most probable dx?
a. Cerebral tumor
b. Pituitary adenoma
c. Cerebellar abscess
d. Huntingtons chorea
e. Parkinsonism
Ans. The key is A. Cerebral tumour.
539. A 40yo man with a 25y hx of smoking presents with progressive hoarseness of voice, difficulty
swallowing and episodes of hemoptysis. He mentioned that he used to be a regular cannabis
user. What is the single most likely dx?
a. Nasopharyngeal cancer
b. Pharyngeal carcinoma
c. Sinus squamous cell carcinoma
d. Squamous cell laryngeal cancer

32
e. Hypopharyngeal tumor
Ans. The key is D. Squamous cell laryngeal cancer.
 Chronic hoarseness is the most common early symptom.
 Other symptoms of laryngeal cancer include pain, dysphagia, a lump in the neck, sore
throat, earache or a persistent cough.
 Patients may also describe breathlessness, aspiration, haemoptysis, fatigue and weakness,
or weight loss.
(Patient.co.uk)
552. A 38yo female G4 at 32wks of pregnancy presented with thick white marks on the inside of her
mouth for 3wks. Her mouth including her tongue appeared inflamed on examination. She
smokes 20 cigarettes/day despite advice to quit. She attends her ANC regularly. What is the
most probable dx?
a. Lichen planus
b. Aphthous ulcer
c. Smoking
d. Candidiasis
e. Leukoplakia
Ans. The key is D. Candidiasis. [lichen planus may have lace like appearance and not thick white
mark. Aphthous ulcer has yellowish floor and surrounded by erythematous halo. Smoking may cause
tongue coating but not like thick white mark on the inside of mouth. Leukoplakia is with raised
edges/Bright white patches and sharply defined and cannot be rubbed out like candida patch; here
also inflamed tongue points towards infection. So candidiasis is the most probable option].
554. A 72yo man brought to the ED with onset of paraplegia following a trivial fall. He was treated
for
prostatic malignancy in the past. What is the single most probable dx?
a. Paget’s disease
b. Osteoporotic fx of vertebre
c. Secondary
d. Multiple myeloma
e. Spondylosis
33
Ans. The key is C. Secondary. [In male osteoporotic fracture is less common. As patient had prostatic
malignancy pathological fracture from secondary metastasis to bone (here vertebra leading to
paraplegia) is more common].
558. A 27yo woman had pre-eclampsia and was delivered by C-section. She is now complaining of
RUQ pain different from wound pain. What inv will you do immediately?
a. Coagulation profile
b. LFT
c. Liver US
d. MRCP
e. None
Ans. The key is B. LFT. [In a post ceasarian patient having pre-eclampsia RUQ pain different from
wound pain points towards the diagnosis of HELLP syndrome. So immediate investigation to be
done is LFT]. [OHCS, 9th edition, page 26].
560. A thin 18yo girl has bilateral parotid swelling with thickened calluses on the dorsum of her
hand.
What is the single most likely dx?
a. Bulimia nervosa
b. C1 esterase deficiency
c. Crohn’s disease
d. Mumps
e. Sarcoidosis
Ans. The key is A. Bulimia nervosa. [18 year thin girl, bilateral parotid swelling and thickened calluses
on the knuckles from self induced vomiting are suggestive of Bulimia nervosa. Bulimia often is
associated with bilaterak parotid swelling (parotid hypertrophy)].
561. A 48yo presents with severe chest pain since the last 40mins. In the ED he is given oxygen, GTN,
morphine. ECG=ST elevation. Bloods=increased troponin levels. What is the next step of
management?
a. Beta blockers
34
b. Percutaneous angiography
c. Anticoagulant & heparin
d. Clopidogrel
e. Aspirin
Ans. The key is B. Percutaneous angiography. This is a wrong key! Correct key is E. Aspirin. [In any
case of IHD, most important initial management is aspirin].
566. A 6yo came with full thickness burn. He is crying continuously. What is the next step of
management?
a. Refer to burn unit
b. IV fluid stat
c. Antibiotic
d. Analgesia
e. Dressing
Ans. The key is analgesia. This is a wrong key. Correct key should be B. IV fluid stat. [Here already
mentioned full thickness burn which is painless. Child often cry from anxiety for hypoxaemia and
hypovolaemia rather than pain. The patient then responds better to oxygen or increased fluid
administration rather than to narcotic analgesics. Ref: patient.info].
572. A pt presents with fever, dry cough and breathlessness. He is tachypneic but chest is clear.
Oxygen saturation is normal at rest but drops on exercise. What is the single most likely dx?
a. CMV infection
b. Candida infection
c. Pneumocystis carinii infection
d. Cryptococcal infection
e. Toxoplasma abscess
Ans. The key is C. Pneumocystis carinii infection. [Fever, dry cough, breathlessness, tachypnoea with
clear chest is seen in pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. Normal oxygen saturation which drops on
exercise is characteristic of pneumocystis carinii pneumonia].
35
588. A 75yo man has left-sided earache and discomfort when he swallows. There is ulceration at the
back of his tongue and he has a palpable non-tender cervical mass. What is the single most likely
dx?
a. Acute mastoiditis
b. Dental abscess
c. Herpes zoster infection
d. Oropharyngeal malignancy
e. Tonsillitis
Ans. The key is D. Oropharyngeal malignancy. [Pain ear and discomfort during swallowing, ulceration
at the back of the tongue and palpable non tender cervical lymphnode is suggestive of
oropharyngeal malignancy. Acute mastoiditis and tonsillitis will not cause tongue ulcer. Similarly
dental abscess will not cause tongue ulcer. In herpes zoster pain and vesicle will be in the affected
nerve distribution].
591. A 58yo pt presents with altered bowel habits and bleeding per rectum. Exam and
sigmoidoscopy showed an ulcer. What is the single most likely dx?
a. Colorectal carcinoma
b. Celiac disease
c. Crohns disease
d. UC
e. IBS
Ans. The key is A. Colorectal carcinoma. [Age, altered bowel habits, bleeding per rectum and
isolated ulcer on sigmoidoscopy suggest colorectal cancer].
595. A 9m child is brought to the ED with an irreducible firm swelling which descended into the left
groin when the child has been crying. Exam: both testicles are palpable in the scrotum. What is
the most appropriate management strategy?
a. Reassurance
b. Emergency herniotomy
c. Elective herniotomy
d. Emergency herniotomy + orchidopexy

36
e. Elective herniotomy + orchidopexy
Ans. The key is C. Elective herniotmy. [If there was features of strangulation we would go for
emergency herniotomy. But as only irreducible we shall proceed to elective herniotomy].
602. A pt presents with progressive visual deterioration. Exam: large, multiple cotton wool spots in
both eyes. What is the single most likely dx?
a. Kaposi’s sarcoma
b. Cryptosporidium
c. CMV infection
d. Pneumocystis carinii infection
e. Cryptococcal infection
Ans. The key is C. CMV infection. [Large multiple cotton wool spots are seen in early stage of CMV
retinitis].
604. A 12yo boy with a hx of fall on an outstretched hand was brought to the ED with swelling and
pain around the elbow. His radial nerve was affected. What is the type of fx?
a. Angulated fx
b. Epiphyseal fx
c. Compound fx
d. Spiral fx
Ans. The key is D. Spiral fracture. It is wrong key. The correct option should be A. Angulated
(supracondylar fracture). [Around 50% interosseous nerve lesions occur in supracondylar fracture
whereas 25% shows radial nerve damage. If the fracture is spiral fracture of lower third of humerus
it causes nerve damage in 18% almost all of which are radial nerve lesion. However as the fracture is
around the elbow (not above) it is supracondylar fracture].
617. A 14yo girl is clinically obese. She has not started her periods yet and has severe acne. Among
her inv, a high insulin level is found. What is the most probable dx?
a. Cushing’s syndrome
b. Grave’s disease
c. Acquired hypothyroidism
37
d. PCOS
e. Addison’s disease
Ans. The key is D. PCOS. [It is not cushing’s as insulin levels in cushing’s are not usually raised! Here
obesity, primary amenorrhea , acne and particularly high level of insulin makes the likely diagnosis
to PCOS].
630. A 43yo lady is admitted with pyrexia, arthropathy, breathlessness and syncope. She was
recently
dx with pulmonary emboli. There is an early diastolic sound and a mid-diastolic rumble. Her JVP
is elevated with prominent a-waves. What is the most likely cause?
a. Mitral regurgitation
b. Ventricular ectopics
c. Pulmonary regurgitation
d. Atrial myxoma
e. Complete heart block
Ans. The key is D. Atrial myxoma. [Pyrexia, arthropathy, breathlessness, syncope and early diastolic
sound and a mid diastolic rumble are known features of atrial myxoma].
643. A 50yo man presents with low mood, poor concentration, anhedonia and insomnia. He has had
2 episodes of increased activity, promiscuity and aggressive behavior in the past. He was arrest
8m ago for trying to rob a bank claiming it as his own. Which drug is most likely to benefit him?
a. Haloperidol
b. Citalopram
c. Desipramine
d. Carbamazepine
e. Ethosuximide
Ans. The key is D. Carbamazepine. [It is a case of bipolar disorder. Mainstay of treatment is mood
stabilizers such as i) Lithium carbonate ii) Anticonvulsant medicines iii) Antipsychotic medicines. So
from the given options Carbamazepine is the most appropriate drug].
38
648. A 6wk child with profuse projectile vomiting. What is the first thing you will do?
a. US
b. Check serum K+ level
c. ABG
d. NG tube
e. IV fluids
Ans. The key is B. Check serum K+ level. This is a wrong key! Correct key is E. IV fluid.
654. A 48yo woman presents with left-sided severe headache. She also has a red, watering eye and
complains of seeing colored haloes in her vision. What is the most appropriate next step?
a. Measure IOP
b. Relieve pain with aspirin
c. 100% oxygen
d. CT
e. Relieve pain with sumatriptan
Ans. The key is A. Measure IOP. [Probable case of angle closure glaucoma requiring measurement of
IOP to establish the diagnosis].
655. A 31yo woman presents with 7-10days following childbirth, with loss of feeling for the child,
loss of appetite, sleep disturbance and intrusive and unpleasant thoughts of harming the baby.
What
is the best tx for this pt?
a. Fluoxetine
b. Haloperidol
c. CBT
d. Reassurance
e. ECT
Ans. The key is A. Fluoxetine. This is wrong key! Correct key should be B. Haloperidol. [Dx is
postpartum psychosis. Patient.info, Wikipedia says antipsychotic and if needed additional mood
39
stabilizer may be used as 1st line. NHS says antidepressant, antipsychotic and mood stabilizer (any
one or in combination) as 1st line treatment. As antipsychotic has given priority likely correct answer
is C. IV haloperidol. 2nd line is CBT, and last resort is ECT].
664. A 35yo IVDA (Intra Venous Drug Abuser) on penicillin and flucloxacillin for cellulitis now
presents with jaundice, pale stools
and dark urine. What is the single most likely dx?
a. Hep A
b. Cholestatic jaundice
c. Chronic active hepatitis
d. Primary biliary cirrhosis
e. Hep B
Ans. The key is B. Cholestatic jaundice. [Flucloxacillin can cause cholestatic jaundice].
668. A 39yo man presents to the ED with persistent cough, sputum and dyspnea. He gave a hx of
smoking 20 cigarettes/d for the last 10 years. Pt was given oxygen in ambulance but he is not
improving. What is the next step?
a. Prednisolone
b. Salbutamol
c. Check ABG
d. CXR
e. ECG
Ans. The key is C. Check ABG. [The patient has COPD and as no improvement with oxygen, next step
is to check ABG to give guidance for next treatment plan].
676. A lady underwent debulking surgery for ovarian carcinoma. Soon after the surgery she presents
with signs of intestinal obstruction. What is the single most appropriate inv?
a. Pelvic CT
b. CA 125
c. Laparotomy
d. Laparoscopy
40
e. Abdominal US
Ans. The key is C. Laparotomy. [In cancer patient obstruction does not respond to medical treatment
and hence diagnostic and therapeutic laparotomy is the option of choice].
680. A 35yo man has a temp=39C, cough with purulent sputum and right sided chest pain on
inspiration. He has herpes labialis. What is the single most likely causative organism?
a. Coagulase +ve cocci in sputum
b. Gram -ve diplococci in sputum
c. Gram +ve diplococci in sputum
d. Pneumocystis carinii in sputum
e. Serology for legionella
Ans. The key is C. Gram +ve diplococcic in sputum. [High temperature, cough with purulent sputum,
pleuritic chest pain and herpes labialis are recognized feature of pneumococcal pneumonia
(pneumococcus=Gram +ve diplococci].
683. A child admitted with progressive muscle weakness and frequent falls. What is the most
probable dx?
a. Duchenne’s MD
b. Becker’s MD
c. Polymyositis
d. Dermatomyositis
e. Polymyalgia rheumatic
Ans. The key is A. Duchenne’s MD.
687. A 5yo boy has cough and swelling at the knee after falling on the ground with rashes on the
buttocks which are non-blanching. PT=13, APTT=71, Hgb=11, WBC=8, Plt=200. Choose the most
likely dx?
a. NAI
b. Hemophilia
c. HSP
41
d. Osler weber reindu syndrome
e. Von-Willebrand disease
Ans. The key is B. Hemophilia. This is a controversial key! Correct key should be E. Von-Willebrand
disease. [Likely D/D may be B or C! in von willebrands disease usually there is no hemarthrosis
(except in type 3) and in hemophilia no nonblanching rash (there may be bruising). isolated rise in
APTT is highly suggestive of hemophilia (given case). This is an ill defined question and only likely
diagnosis may be type 3 von willebrands disease (in HPS- APTT is not raised and there may be
thrombocytosis, so this is not a case of HSP].
689. A 10yo boy presents with generalized swelling. This has been present for 4days and included
swollen ankles and puffiness of the face. It started a few days after he had a mild cold with
runny nose. His only PMH was eczema. Urine analysis: hematuria, proteinuria 10g/24h, creat
60umol/l and albumin=15g/l. What is the single most likely dx?
a. IgA nephropathy
b. HSP
c. Minimal change nephropathy
d. Wilson’s disease
e. Cardiac failure
Ans. The key is A. IgA nephropathy. [10 yr old boy, history of URTI and hematuria points towards the
diagnosis of IgA nephropathy. It may be present with proteinuria and generalized swelling. The
important differentiating point from rapidly progressive GN is duration. IgA nephropathy <1o days
(usually 4/5 days history of infection but in rapidly progressive GN history of infection for >10 days].
691. A 16yo girl has been unwell for 5days with malaise, headache and dry cough. She has a few
crackles in her chest. Her CXR shows patchy consolidation in the lower lobes. What is the single
most likely causative organism?
a. Cold agglutinins
b. Gram –ve diplococci in sputum
c. Gram +ve diplococcic in sputum
d. Serology for legionella
e. Sputum staining for mycobacterium TB

42
Ans. The key is A. Cold agglutinins. [Mycoplasma pneumonia, a form of atypical

bacterial pneumonia related to cold agglutinin disease].
710. A 6yo boy has completed an induction course of chemo for ALL. He has an enlarged left
scrotum.
What is the most appropriate next step?
a. Herniotomy
b. CT abdomen
c. Biopsy
d. Immediate surgery
e. Reassurance
Ans. The key is B. CT abdomen. This is wrong key. Correct key is C. Biopsy. [Relapse may directly
involve testis and excisional biopsy is done to confirm recurrence of leukemia].
Ref: Link: http://ascopubs.org/doi/full/10.1200/jco.2009.23.8014
734. A 40yo teetotaler woman is recovering from a hysterectomy 2days ago. At night she
becomes
agitated and complains of seeing animals and children walking around the ward. What is the
most likely dx?
a. Delirium tremens
b. Toxic confusional state
c. Hysteria
d. Mania
e. Drug induced personality disorder
Ans. The key is B. Toxic confusional state. [This is not delirium

tremens as the womean is teetotaler].
744. A woman presents with a hx of poisoning 10x with different substances. There are no
obvious
signs of depression or suicidal behavior. What is the best preventive step?
a. Open access to ED
b. 24h help line

43
c. CBT
d. Anti-depressants
e. Insight into problem
Ans. The key is E. Insight into problem. [Patient is not depressed

and there is no suicidal behaviour. Despite repeated poisoning may
indicate she is facing some stress and so insight into her problem
should be sought for].
748. The body of a 65yo man who was treated for TB and bronchitis was seen at autopsy. His legs
were swollen and his liver showed signs of a transudate fluid. What was the cause of the
transudate?
a. Liver cirrhosis
b. Alcoholic liver disease
c. Cardiac failure
d. Budd-chiari syndrome
e. TB
Ans. The key is C. Cardiac failure.
761. A lady with depression has a bag full of meds. She now presents with coarse tremors. Which
drug caused her symptoms?
a. Lithium
b. Thyroxine
c. Amitriptyline
d. Sodium valproate
e. Tetrabenazine
Ans. The key is A. Lithium. It is a wrong key! Right key is D. Sodium valproate. [Side effect of lithium
in therapeutic range is fine tremor. Sodium valproate (a well known mood stabilizer) can cause
coarse tremor in therapeutic range].
764. You are a FY doctor in the ED when a mother brings her 2yo son to you with a 1h hx of noisy
44
breathing. She state that although he had mild coryza over the last week, he was improving and
so they had gone to a children’s picnic with nursery friends. Another parent had found him
coughing and spluttering, and ever since his breathing has remained noisy. Though he appears
well in the ED, his current observations demonstrate a raised RR and sat=91% on air. What is the
most likely dx?
a. Anaplyaxis
b. Croup
c. Foreign body aspiration
d. Epiglottitis
Ans. The key is C. Foreign body aspiration.
772. A 1yo child is brought to ED. He woke up in the middle of the night crying severely. What initial
measure should be taken for this child?
a. Refer to surgeon
b. Discharge with advice
c. Analgesia
d. Antibiotic
Ans. The key is C. Analgesia.
779. A 56yo man complains of increased vol of sputum with specks of blood and chest pain. He has a
hx of DVT. Exam: clubbing. What is the cause of blood in his sputum?
a. Pulmonary thrombosis
b. Bronchial carcinoma
c. Bronchiectasis
d. Pulmonary TB
Ans. The key is C. Bronhiectasis. [Increased volume of blood streaked sputum and clubbing points
towards bronchiectasis].
781. A 2yo male pt was brought by his mother with a swelling in the right side of his neck extending
45
from the angle of the mouth to the middle 1/3 of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The swelling
was on the anterolateral side of the sternocleidomastoid and was brilliantly transilluminant.
What is the likely dx?
a. Lymphangioma
b. Branchial cyst
c. Thyroglossal cyst
d. Ranula
e. Thyroid swelling
Ans. The key is B. Branchial cyst. It is a wrong key. Correct key is A. Lymphangioma. [Both
lymphangioma and brancheal cyst are lateral neck mass. 90% of lymphangioma occur in children
less than 2 yrs. Brancheal cyst usually does not transilluminate whereas lymphangioma usually
transilluminate brilliantly].
785. A 44yo woman with breast cancer had an extensive removal and LN clearance. She needs an
adjunctive tx. Her mother had cancer when she was 65. Which of the following factors will be
against the tx?
a. Fam hx
b. Tumor grading
c. LN involvement
d. Her age
Ans. The key is D. Her age. Probably wrong key. Correct key should be B. Tumour grading. [What
ever the age oestrogen receptor positive patient will take tamoxifen as adjuvant therapy. But
tumour grading in some instance may influence the need of adjuvant therapy. Though the given key
is D it is probably a wrong key and correct key should be B. Tumour grading].
46
788. A 77yo woman suffered diarrhea 4d ago. What would be her blood gas result?
a. pH =7.2, PaCO2 =8
b. pH =7.4, PaCO2 =1.5
c. pH =7.4, PaCO2 =2.6
d. pH =7.4, PaCO2 =2.8
Ans. The key is B. pH = 7.4, PaCO2 = 1.5 [Diarrhoea causes metabolic acidosis and in response there
occurs respiratory compensation [hyperventilation] leading to respiratory alkalosis and low PaCO2
(due to CO2 washout)].
794. A young boy presented with bilateral periorbital edema, ankle swelling and increase in body
weight. What is the most likely dx?
a. Chronic heart failure
b. Nephrotic syndrome
c. Renal failure
d. Acute heart failure
e. Glomerulonephritis
Ans. The key is B. Nephrotic syndrome.

47
805. A 75yo man on digoxin develops weakness in the right upper and lower limbs which resolves
within a few hours. What is the most definitive inv for this condition?
a. Carotid Doppler
b. Angiography
c. CT head
d. Digoxin level
Ans. The key is B. Angiography. Probably wrong key! Correct key is C. CT head.
[Patient on digoxin means he is being yreated for atrial fibrillation with heart failure and the cause of
tia is cardiac in origine! So carotid dopplar or carotid angiography is not the answer. Again for tia
investigation of choice is MRI (if not available CT) NICE guideline. So for this question definitove
investigation is CT scan.].
808. A 55yo lady with swelling on the abdomen below the umbilicus on the right side. What is the
single most appropriate lymph node?
a. External iliac LN
b. Pre-aortic LN
c. Aortic LN
d. Inguinal LN
e. Iliac LN
f. Submental LN
g. Submandibular LN
h. Deep cervical LN
Ans. The key is D. Inguinal LN.
810. A 45yo lady complains of expressable galactorrhea, decreased libido and amenorrhea, weight
gain and easy fatigue. Her serum prolactin levels are 1100um/l. what is the likely cause of
hyperprolactinemia?
a. Hypothyroidism
b. Stress
c. Pregnancy
d. Prolactin secreting pituitary tumor
e. PCOS
48
Ans. The key is D. Wrong key. Correct key should be A. Hypothyroidism. [ It is likely to be
hypothyroidism because prolactin level in hypothyroidism may be 30-200ng/ml which means 630-
4200 mIU/L. Though weight gain can occur but fatigue is not a feature of prolactinoma unless it is a
macroadenoma causing suppression of other pituitary hormone! given prolactin level of 1100 IU/L is
definitely from a microadenoma (in macroadenoma prolactin level is > 10,000 MU/L) which does not
cause fatigue. So the case most likely seems to be hypothyroidism].
813. A child born at 36wks developed difficulty in breathing with intercoastal recession and nasal
flaring. His temp is normal but his mother had PROM 48h ago. What is the most likely inv that
will lead to tx?
a. Blood culture
b. CXR
c. Stool culture
d. Sputum culture
Ans. B. CXR. This is wrong key! Correct key is A. Blood culture. [In neonates investigations of
pneumonia is for sepsis as pneumonia at this age is always secondary to sepsis or a part of sepsis.
Probable diagnosis is Neonatal Pneumonia as there is respiratory signs and history of PROM. In
extremes of age pneumonia or sepsis may be with normal temperature or even there may be
hypothermia. Here pneumonia is a part of sepsis and investigation is not CXR but blood culture!].
821. A 29yo man presents with hx of cough, weight loss and night sweats. Exam: pansystolic
murmur.
What is the most appropriate dx of underlying cause?
a. Malaria
b. HSP
c. HIV
d. Dengue fever
Ans. The key is C. HIV. [Though not mentioned IV drug abusers may have tricuspid regurgitation
causing pansystolic murmur and HIV also very common in this group].
825. A 67yo man being managed for a malignancy develops neutropenic fever. He has been
commenced on Ticarcillin, Tazobactam and Gentamicin. He has also recently commenced on
Meropenem but on the 3rd day his temp still remains >39C. 2 blood tests and urine cultures
show no organism. Inv: Hgb=104g/dl, WBC=<0.5, Plt=15. What will you do next?
a. Continue IV antibiotics and add oral antifungals
b. Continue antibiotics and add IV antifungals

49
c. Stop antibiotics
d. Continue only present antibiotics
Ans. The key is B. Continue antibiotics and add IV antifungals. [If judicial antibiotic fail to control
fever next step is to add antifungal agents].
828. A child is not breathing and intubation failed. At what anatomical site should the incision be
made?
a. External iliac muscle
b. Cricoid cartilage
c. Linea alba
d. Rectus sheath muscle
e. Duramater
f. 1st tracheal cartilage
g. Conjoined tendon
h. Intercostal muscles
Ans. The key is B. Cricoid cartilage. [Incision for tracheostomy is done which goes down from cricoids
cartilage].
829. A 10yo child who presented with fx of the radius which was treated with a plaster cast,
complains of pain. Exam: limb is swollen but warm and well perfused, pulses are present. What
should you do next?
a. Send for repeat XR
b. Remove cast
c. Replace cast with more padding
d. Give analgesic
Ans. Key is D. Give analgesic.
830. A 32yo man has been to Thailand and returned with cervical lymphadenopathy and fever. What
is he most likely suffering from?
a. HIV
50
b. EBV
c. Typhoid
d. Measles
Ans. The key is B. EBV. [Cervical lymphadenopathy mentioned in question which occurs in EBV
infection. In ARS (acute retroviral syndrome) or primary HIV infection there is generalized
lymphadenopathy].
833. A 44yo man went on holiday to Sudan 5wks ago. He now presents with red urine and fever.
Exam: hepatomegaly. What is the most likely dx?
a. Malaria
b. Brucellosis
c. Leptospirosis
d. Schistosomiasis
Ans. The key is D. Schistosomiasis. [Holyday in Sudan, hematuria, fever and hepatomegaly suggest
Schistosomiasis].
849. A 28yo man is inv for recurrent lower back pain. A dx of AS is suspected. Which of the following
inv is most useful?
a. ESR
b. XR sacro-iliac joints
c. HLA B27
d. XR thoracic spine
e. CT lumbar spine
Ans. The key is B. XR sacro-iliac joints. [x-ray sacroiliac joint shows fusion of both SI joints and thin,
symmetrical syndesmophytes bridging the intervertebral disc spaces].
860. A 6yo child fell on his nose 2d ago. His parents have now brought him with difficulty in
breathing.
Exam: fever, nasal bones are straight. What is the single most likely dx?
a. Nasal polyp
b. Septal hematoma
c. Septal abscess
51
d. Deviated nasal septum
e. Fx nose
Ans. The key is C. Septal abscess. This is wrong key! Correct key is B. septal hematoma. [Septal
abscess takes a bit more time and a considerable portion of case of septal hematoma is associated
with fever].
862. A 3yo child brought by his mother. Exam: bruises on the buttocks. Mother also gives hx of
runny
nose 2wks ago. What is the single most appropriate next action?
a. Check child protection register
b. Coag profile
c. Skeletal survey
d. Continue regular child care
e. Inform police
Ans. The key is B. Coagulation profile. [Henoch schonlein purpura occurs mostly in the winter
months. About 50-90% of patients have a preceding upper respiratory tract infection (URTI). There is
a symmetrical, erythematous macular rash, especially on the back of the legs, buttocks and ulnar
side of the arms. Within 24 hours, the macules evolve into purpuric lesions, which may coalesce and
resemble bruises. Plasma D-dimer - May be substantially increased. PT and aPTT - May be reduced
(eg, hypoprothrombinemia)].
864. A pt with terminal cancer is being treated with chemo develops tingling and numbness of the
fingertips of both arms. What is the single most likely cause of the symptoms?
a. Bone mets to cervical vertebrae
b. Post-chemo neuropathy
c. Hyponatremia
d. Hypocalcemia
Ans. The key is B. Post-chemo neuropathy.
874. A middle aged man who has had a hx of chronic sinusitis, nasal obstruction and blood stained
nasal discharge. He now presents with cheek swelling, epiphora, ptosis, diplopia, maxillary pain.
52
What is the single most likely dx?
a. Nasopharyngeal ca
b. Pharyngeal ca
c. Sinus squamous cell ca
d. Squamous cell laryngeal ca
e. Hypopharyngeal tumor
Ans. The key is C. Sinus squamous cell ca.
879. A 60yo man brought to the ED with fx hip, he is deaf and has bilateral pedal edema. What is the
single most probable dx?
a. Paget’s disease
b. Osteoporotic fx vertebra
c. Secondary
d. Multiple myeloma
e. Spondylosis
Ans. The key is A. Paget’s disease. [H/O deafness and evidence of heartfailure like pedal edema
favours the diagnosis of Paget’s disease].
880. An 80yo lady presents with pain on left 6th rib for a week. It is non-tender on examination.
What
is your most likely dx?
a. Herpes zoster
b. Costochondritis
c. Bone degeneration
d. Thoracic vertebra compression
Ans. The key is C. Bone degeneration.
891. An elderly woman is found anemia. As part of her exam, she had a barium enema which reveals
a mass lesion in the ascending colon. What is the single most appropriate dx?
a. Sigmoid volvulus
b. Anal fissure
c. Sigmoid carcinoma
53
d. Cecal carcinoma
e. Diverticular disease
Ans. The key is D. Cecal carcinoma. [Mass in assending colon and anaemia makes cecal carcinoma
the likely diagnosis from the given options].
893. A 26yo male has been operated for abdominal trauma and splenectomy was done. On the 3rd
post-op day the pt developed acute abdominal pain and distention in the upper abdominal area
with hypotension. On insertion of ryles tubes, 2L of coffee ground fluid was aspirated. What is
the most probable dx?
a. Acute gastric dilatation
b. Reactionary hemorrhage
c. Subphrenic abscess
d. DVT
e. Left lower lobe atelectasis
Ans. The key is A. Acute gastric dilatation. [Acute gastric dilatation may be caused by:
Hyperglycaemia, childbirth, abdominal injury, application of a spinal cast, rarely, after abdominal
surgery when the stomach is in ileus and drink has been taken too soon. The abdomen is distended
and tender. The patient complains of epigastric fullness, nausea, heaviness and heartburn. There is a
succussion splash. The accumulation of fluid in the stomach may induce hypovolaemic shock. Reflux
of gastric contents may cause an aspiration pneumonia].
898. A 67yo man presents to the ED with pain in his left groin. He suddenly collapses and he is not
able to move or lift his leg. He is on alendronate. What is the dx?
a. Fx of neck of femur
b. Post hip dislocation
c. Fx of shaft of femur
d. Pelvic base fx
e. Peripheral vascular disease
Ans. The key is A. Fx neck of femur. [Use of alendronate indicates osteoporosis where fracture neck
of femur is more common].
54
904. A 62yo man presents with cough, breathlessness and wheeze. 24% O2, salbutamol and
hydrocortisone were given. The symptoms haven’t improved and so nebulized bronchodilator
was repeated and IV aminophylline was given. ABG: pH=7.31, RR=32. What is the next
appropriate management?
a. Nasal IPPV
b. Intubation and ventilation
c. LABA
d. Toxapram
e. Amoxicillin PO
Ans. The key is A. Nasal IPPV. [Here given case is COPD has following indications of Nasal IPPV i)
Tachypnea (>24 breaths/min) and ii) Hypercapnic respiratory acidosis (pH range 7.10-7.35)].
905. A young girl returns from holidays in Spain. She complains of discharge from her ear and
complains of tragal tenderness. Exam: tympanic membance normal. Aural toilet has been done.
What is the next appropriate med?
a. Antibiotic PO
b. Antibiotic IV
c. Steroid PO
d. Steroid drop
e. Antibiotic drop with steroid
Ans. The key is E. Antibiotic drop with steroid. [Discharge from ear and tragal tenderness are
features of otitis externa. Key treatment is aural toileting. Drop advised is Sofradex (Framycetin +
dexamethasone) OHCS, 9th edition, page 542].
910. Pt with a long hx of smoking is now suffering from bronchial ca. histology reveals there are
sheets of large polygonal or giant MNC. What is the most likely dx?
a. Squamous cell ca
b. Small cell ca
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Large cell ca
e. Oat cell ca
55
Ans. No key is given!! Correct answer is D. Large cell ca. [Large cell carcinoma is, by definition, a
poorly differentiated malignant epithelial tumor. It consists of sheets or nests of large polygonal or
giant multinuclear cells and probably represents SCC ."]
911. A 27yo man presents with chest pain and respiratory distress. Exam: tachycardia, hypotension
and neck vein distension. Trachea is deviated to the left side, breathing sounds on right side are
absent and diminished on left side. What is the next appropriate management?
a. CXR
b. Right side aspiration (16G)
c. Left side aspiration (16G)
d. Right side drain with a small tube (12F)
e. Left side drain with a small tube (12F)
Ans. The key is B. Right side aspiration (16G).
921. A 19yo boy comes to the ED with pain, swelling and tenderness 2cm distal to Lister’s tubercle of
radius. Exam: proximal pressure on the extended thumb and index finger is painful. XR: no fx.
What is the next appropriate management for the pt?
a. Immobilization with cast
b. Repeat XR
c. MRI
d. Surgery
e. None
Ans. The key is A. Immobilization with cast. This is wrong key! Correct key is C. MRI. [Imaging:
Request a dedicated ‘scaphoid’ series. If –ve, and fracture is suspected MRI has been shown to be
sensitive and cost-eff ective. CT is an alternative. If neither is available, cast and re-x-ray in 2 weeks.
Ref: OHCS, 9th edition, page-744].
928. A HTN pt on bendroflumethiazide 2.5mg/d has come for his routine checkup. Exam:
BP=145/85mmHg. Lab: K+=5.9, Na+=137. What is the most appropriate management for this pt?
a. Stop meds
b. Continue same dose
c. Increase the dose

56
d. Decrease the dose
e. Repeat the blood test
Ans. The key is E. Repeat the blood test. [Bendroflumethiazide causes hyponatremia and
hypokalemia. But the findings are opposite which is probably error of test. Hence blood test should
be repeated to confirm the level of potassium and sodium].
938. A 33yo female complains of diplopia on upright gaze. Exam: ptosis can be seen. There are no
other complains or any significant PMH. What is the most appropriate inv for him?
a. Ophthalmoscopy
b. Visual field test
c. TFT
d. CT
e. Checking red reflex
Ans. The key is E. Checking red reflex. This is a wrong key. Right key should be D. CT. [A case of 3rd
nerve palsy. So to delineate the cause CT should be done].
939. A tall rugby player was hit in the chest by a player of the opponent team. He developed
breathlessness and his face went blue and purple. You have been called to look at him, how will
you manage him?
a. Insert a needle in the 2nd ICS in the mid-clavicular line
b. Insert a needle in the 5th ICS in the mid-axillary line
c. Intubate the pt
d. Start CPR
e. Give oxygen
Ans. The key is E. give oxygen. [1. The patient went blue and purple!! It is due to catch up of breath
and it is not cyanosis of pneumothorax as cyanosis of pneumothorax takes time to develop and
considered as a late feature. Immediate feature is chest pain, tachycardia, tachypnea etc.
There are no immediate feature mentioned according to which we can say pneumothorax is the
diagnosis.
57
Collapse in sport’s trauma treatment is ABC.

Even if pneumothorax as treatment modality 1st comes oxygen.
First oxygen mask is put and it takes few seconds!! Why oxygen? It helps absorb air from pleural
space (nitrogen) and speeds up the absorption of air 4 times as room air. Then make the diagnosis
on clinical ground and proceed for needle aspiration.
942. 2h after an appendectomy, a pt complains of a rapid HR and fever. He says there is also
abdominal pain and pain in the shoulder area. What is happening to this pt?
a. Intra-abdominal bleeding
b. Anastomotic leak
c. Sepsis
d. Intestinal obstruction
Ans. The key is A. Intra-abdominal bleeding.
947. An 80yo DM lady presents with redness and swelling over her right foot. It is tender to touch,
warm and glossy. What are the complications this pt might develop?
a. Meningitis
b. Sepsis
c. Ulcer
58
d. Gangrene
Ans. The key is D. Gangrene. [This is cellulitis which may progress to gangrene in a diabetic].
949. 2h after an appendectomy, a pt complains of a rapid HR and fever. He says there is also
abdominal pain and pain in the shoulder area. What is the first step in the management?
a. Maintain IV access and give IV fluids
b. Start IV antibiotics
c. Insert NGT for intestinal decompression
d. Cross match blood
e. Emergency exploratory laparotomy
Ans. The key is A. Maintain IV access and give IV fluids.
960. Post gastric ulcer got perforated leading to bleeding involving the gastro-duodenal artery.
Where would fluid accumulate in the cavity?
a. Left paracolic gutter
b. Pelvic cavity
c. First part of duodenum
d. Under the diaphragm
e. Retroperitoneal
Ans. The key is D. Under the diaphragm.
962. A 53yo lady presents with hot flash and night sweats. Her LMP was last year. She had MI
recently. What is the most appropriate management for her?
a. Raloxifene
b. Estrogen
c. COCP
d. Evening primrose
e. Clonidine
59
Ans. The key is C. COCP. This is wrong key! Correct key is E. Clonidine. [COCP is absolutely
contraindicated in recent MI patients].
971. A 45yo male complains of tremors in hands. Exam: tremors are absent at rest but present when
arms are held outstretched and persist on movement. What is the most probable dx?
a. Parkinsonism
b. Benign essential tremor
c. Cerebellar disease
d. Liver failure
e. Stroke
Ans. The key is B. Benign essential tremor. [Tremors absent at rest and present on outstretched
hand and persist on movement are benign essential tremor].
973. A young man has been found in the park, drunk and brought to the ED by ambulance. He
recently lost his job and got divorced. He thinks nurses are plotting against him. What is the
most likely dx?
a. Schizoid personality
b. Borderline personality
c. Schizophrenia
d. Psychotic depression
e. Paranoid
Ans. The key is E. Paranoid personality disorder. [Patients disease (Paranoid personality disorder) is
responsible for his divorce and loss of job. Suspiciousness to wife is reason for divorce].
60
978. A 2yo boy presented with gradual swelling of feet and poor feeding. He has gained weight and
has dark urine. What is the single most appropriate inv?
a. Serum albumin (2nd)
b. 24h urinary protein (1st)
c. Serum calcium
d. BUE
e. Serum glucose
Ans. The key is B. 24 hr urinary protein. [A case of nephritic syndrome. So the single most
appropriate investigation from the given options is 24 hour urinary protein].
980. A 39wk pregnanct woman came to labor suite 3d after an obstructed labour presents with pain
and swelling of one leg. Exam: leg has blue mottling and is cold. What is the dx?
a. DVT
b. Post phlebitis syndrome

61
c. Embolus
d. Varicose vein
e. Herpes gladiatorum
Ans. The key is C. Embolus.
984. An 8wk pregnant woman presents with persistent vomiting and weight loss. Exam:
HR=110bpm.
Dehydration was corrected with NS infusion and K+. The condition didn’t improve so IM cyclizine
was given. She is still vomiting. What is the next appropriate management?
a. IV fluids
b. IV antiemetics
c. IV steroids
d. Terminate pregnancy
e. Thiamine
Ans. The key is C. IV Steroid. [Steroids may be used in patient's of hyperemesis gravidarum
refractory to standard therapy].
985. A 28yo lady presents with dyspareunia and dysmenorrhea. She is very obese. She now wants
reversible contraceptive method. Which of the following will be most suitable for her?
a. Mirena
b. COCP
c. POP
d. Copper T
e. Barrier method
Ans. The key is A. Mirena. This is wrong answer. POP is recommended though mirena can be used.
987. A 14yo girl presents with primary amenorrhea and a short stature. What is the most likely dx?
a. Down’s syndrome
b. Klinefeltner’s syndrome
62
c. Turner’s syndrome
d. Fragile X syndrome
e. Normal finding
Ans. The key is C. Turner’s syndrome. [Down’s syndrome and Fragile x syndrome don’t have primary
amenorrhea. Klienfelters syndrome patients are tall males. So the likely diagnosis is Turner’s
syndrome].
988. A 32yo woman wants reversible form of contraception. She has one child delivered by
emergency C-section. She also suffers from migraine and heavy periods. What is the most
suitable form of contraception for this lady?
a. COCP
b. Mini pill
c. IUCD
d. Barrier method
e. Abstinence
Ans. The key is C. IUCD. It is wrong key! Correct key is b. Mini pill.
989. A 45yo known hypertensive man presents with hematuria, proteinuria and edema. What is the
definitive dx test for him?
a. Urine protein
b. Renal biopsy
c. Renal function test
d. Urine microscopy
e. Serum protein
Ans. The key is B. Renal biopsy. [In nephritic syndrome glomerulus is affected. So renal biopsy is the
definitive diagnostic test].
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990. A 47yo man presents with proteinuria+, BP=160/95mmHg, small kidneys that have smooth
renal
pelvis. What is the most probable dx?
a. GN
b. Chronic pyelonephritis
c. Unilateral renal artery stenosis
d. Multiple myeloma
e. ARF
Ans. The key is A. GN. [In chr. Pyelonephritis US will demonstrate renal scarring and urinalysis will
demonstrate pyuria which are absent here. In renal artery stenosis there will be considerable
difference in kidney size from one another which is not found here. Here likely diagnosis is GN].
1003. A 30yo woman presents with acute headache. She complains of seeing halos especially at
night.
What is the single most likely defect?
a. Paracentral scotoma
b. Mono-ocular field loss
c. Tunnel vision
d. Central scotoma
e. Cortical blindness
Ans. The key is C. Tunnel vision. [The diagnosis is glaucoma (headache and haloes especially at
night). In glaucoma there occurs tunnel vision].
1010. A 50yo man complains of visual prbs and dull pain in the left eye. Fundoscopy reveals
papilloedema. He was dx with MS 2yrs ago. There is no consensual light reflex of the right eye.
What is the single most likely defect?
b. Mono-ocular field loss
c. Homonymous upper quadrantanopia
d. Central scotoma
e. Homonymous lower quadrantanopia

64
Ans. The key is B. Mono-ocular field loss.
1014. A 25yo woman who is 11wks pregnant had central abdominal pain for 36h. The pain is now
colicky. There is no vaginal bleeding. She has vomited once and has had an episode of loose
motion. She looks ill, temp=37.8C and there is rebound tenderness in the RIF. What is the most
probable dx?
a. Salpingitis
b. PID
c. Appendicitis
d. Ovarian torsion
e. Uterine fibroid
Ans. The key is C. Appendicitis. [No vaginal bleeding and pain above pelvis makes pregnancy
complication less likely. Loose motion, low grade temperature and positive Mc Burney’s sign makes
the diagnosis of appendicitis more probable].
1016. A 24yo woman has severe depression 3m after the birth of her first child. She is breastfeeding
but is otherwise unable to look after the baby and is convinced that her family is likely to kill her.
She has no interest in anything and keeps crying. What is the most appropriate tx?
a. Fluoxetine
b. Citalopram
c. CBT
d. ECT
e. Haloperidol
Ans. The key is D. ECT. This is wrong key. Correct key is E. Haloperidol. [Diagnosis is given in question
as severe depression and as features of psychosis present the better diagnosis would be psychotic
depression. As onset is beyond 4 weeks it is no more post partum psychosis. So the 1st line
treatment for psychotic depression is combination of antipsychotic + antidepressant. As the
combination is not given as options first choice goes for antipsychotic that is E. Haloperidol].
1021. An asymptomatic 56yo man who has never consumed alcohol came for a routine checkup.
Exam:
increased skin pigmentation, spider angioma, cardiomegaly, S3 gallop, liver firm with 8cm span,
no ascites. He is in the risk of which condition?

65
a. Cerebellar degeneration
b. Werniecke’s encephalopathy
c. Renal failure
d. Hepatoma
e. Hepatic vein thrombosis
Ans. The key is D. Hepatoma. [Increased skin pigmentation, features of chronic liver disease (spider
angioma), Cardiomyopathy (cardiomegaly, S3 gallop), Enlarged liver these are suggestive of
Haemochromatosis. (OHCM: Slate-grey skin pigmentation; signs of chronic liver disease;
hepatomegaly; cirrhosis; dilated cardiomyopathy; osteoporosis; also endocrinopathies are features
of haemochromatosis). If cirrhosis, 22–30% get hepatocellular cancer].
1023. A 75yo man has been attending the clinic for lower urinary tract symptoms. His mood is very
low
and he says he feels unhappy, anxious and unable to sleep. He has been dx with moderate
depression. What tx would be most effective for this pt?
a. Amitriptyline
b. Citalopram
c. CBT
d. Dosulepin
e. Diazepam
Ans. The key is B. Citalopram. [Mild depression = CBT, Moderate depression = Antidepressant,
Severe depression & Psychotic depression = ECT, Amitryptiline and Dosulepine causes urinary
retention (which is comperatively less in citalopram) so not suitable in a patient with lower urinary
symptoms. Hence Citalopram is the preferred option].
1027. A 80yo man with prostatic cancer has confusion, thirst, abdominal pain and an abnormal
ECG.
What is the most appropriate inv?
a. MRI spine
b. Radionuclide bone scan
c. DEXA scan
66
d. Serum ALP concentration
e. Serum calcium concentration
Ans. The key is E. Serum calcium concentration. [Confusion, thirst, abdominal pain and ECG changes
(marked shortening of QT interval) are features of hypercalcemia. So E. Serum calcium
concentration is the likely option].
1028. A 27yo lady after C-section developed epigastric pain after 8h. What is the appropriate inv?
a. ABG
b. Coag profile
c. Liver enzyme
d. Liver biopsy
Ans. The key is C. Liver enzyme. [Epigastric pain is a warning sign of HELLP syndrome. So to rule out
HELLP syndrome Liver enzymes should be done].
1035. A 40yo woman presents with dysphagia. Exam: febrile with erythema and middle neck
swelling.
What is the best management strategy?
a. IV antibiotics and drainage
b. Antipyretics
c. XR neck
d. Endoscopic diverticulectomy
e. I&D
Ans. The key is A. IV antibiotics and drainage. [Neck abscess. Treated with IV antibiotics and
drainage].
1040. A 6wk baby with vomiting, irritability and palpable mass in the abdomen on feeding.
Choose the single most likely inv?
a. Upper GI endoscopy
b. Barium meal
c. US
d. CT abdomen
e. Barium enema
67
Ans. The key is C. US. [Palpable mass in the abdomen “ON FEEDING” (just after feeding the mass
becomes more prominent and can be palpated more easily) is suggestive of pyloric stenosis. US is
used to diagnose this].
1063. A pt was complaining of pain within 6h after his appendectomy for gangrenous appendix.
What
med is the best option for his pain relief?
a. IV morphine
b. Diclofenac per rectal
c. PCA
d. Tramadol
Ans. The key is D. Tramadol.
1065. A 24yo schizophrenic has been under antipsychotic tx for the last 1 yr and now complains
of ED Erectyl Dysfunction). Which drug is most likely to have caused this?
a. Fluoxetine
b. Citalopram
c. Clozapine
d. Haloperidol
e. Risperidone
Ans. The key is D. Haloperidol. This is a wrong key. Correct key is E. Risperidone. [Haloperidol, raises
serum prolactin levels to 20~40 ng/ml in therapeutic doses but risperidone causes around 171
ng/ml].
1086. A 63yo man presented with sudden onset of severe dyspnea, orthopnea, raised JVP and
bilateral basal crackles 3d after an episode of MI. A dx of acute congestive cardiac failure was made
and
IV furosemide was started for this pt. What electrolyte abnormality is expected?
a. High Na+, Low K+
b. Low Na+, High K+
c. Low Na+, Low K+
d. High Na+, High K+
e. Low Na+, Normal K+

68
Ans. The key is C. Low Na+, Low K+. [Frusemide causes hyponatremia, hypochloremic alkalosis,
hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia and hypocalcemia].
1092. A 9yo child presented with a rash on his skin which didn’t respond to antibacterial
ointment.
What med should be added next?
a. Corticosteroid
b. Antifungal
c. Emollient
d. Permethrin
e. Coal tar
Ans. The key is B. Antifungal. [If a lesion is suspected to be infected should be given antibiotic. but if
no response next step is to add an antifungal].
1108. An African lady presents with heavy but regular periods. Her uterine size correlates to 14wks
pregnancy. What is the most appropriate dx?
a. Blood dyscrasia
b. Hematoma
c. Fibroids
d. Adenomyosis
e. Incomplete abortion
Ans. The key is C. Fibroids. [Regular heavy menstruation in a uterus of 14 wk size is highly suggestive
of fibroid].
1111. A pregnant woman of G2, GA 11wks presents with heavy vomiting, headache and reduced
urine
output. Urine analysis shows ketonuria. Choose the next best step?
a. US
b. Oral fluid replacement
c. Serum BHCG
d. Parental anti-emetics
69
e. IV fluids
Ans. The key is E. IV fluids. [Hyperemesis gravidarum with oliguria and ketonuria. IV fluid should be
started to prevent renal failure].
1126. A 28wk pregnant woman presents with uterine bleeding after sexual intercourse. What is the
most appropriate cause?
a. Preeclampsia
b. DIC
c. Placental abruption
d. Placental previa
e. Ectopic pregnancy
f. Missed abortion
g. Ectropion
Ans. The key is G. Ectropion. [Post coital bleeding can be either placenta previa or cervical ectropion.
But as ectropion is commoner in pregnancy so it is the option here].
1127. A 6wk pregnant woman presents with abdominal pain. She has prv hx of PID. What is the most
likely dx?
a. Preeclampsia
b. DIC
c. Placental abruption
d. Placental previa
e. Ectopic pregnancy
f. Missed abortion
g. Ectropion
Ans. The key is E. Ectopic pregnancy. [H/O PID is a recognized cause of ectopic pregnancy. Also pain
without bleeding at 6th week support the diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy].
1131. A 6yo child presents with hx of recurrent jaundice. Between the episodes he is totally fine.
Mother gives hx of jaundice being brought about by ongoing infections. What is the most likely
dx?
70
a. Hereditary spherocytosis
b. G6PD deficiency
c. Thalassemia
d. Sickle cell disease
e. Congenital storage disorder
Ans. The key is B. G6PD deficiency. [There are some precipitating factors of hemolysis causing
jaundice in patients with G6PD deficiency among which infection is a recognized one].
1149. A 65yo man had a bowel resection 5d ago. He is anuric and breathless. His BP=150/110mmHg.
He has crackles at both lung bases and sacral edema. Bloods: K+=6.8mmol/l, urea=58mmol/l,
creatinine=600umol/l. What is the single most appropriate immediate management?
a. Bolus of 20U insulin
b. Calcium resonium enema
c. Dextrose-saline infusion
d. 5% dextrose infusion
e. 10U insulin, 50ml of 50% dextrose infusion
Ans. The key is E. 10U insulin, 50ml of 50% dextrose infusion. [There is renal failure with
hyperkalemia. First we have to save heart from arrest or life threatening arrhythmia by shifting K+
into cell. 10U insulin in 50 ml 50% dextrose will help doing this].
1152. A pt comes with 6m hx of painless bilateral swelling of the face which has been progressively
increasing in size. On routine CXR, he is found to have perihilar lymphadenopathy. What is the
most probable dx?
a. Chronic sialadenitis
b. Thyroid adenoma
c. Carcinoma of salivary gland
d. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
e. Mikulicz’s disease
Ans. The key is E. Mikulicz’s disease. [Mikulicz’s disease (MD) is a well-known disorder characterized
by enlarged lacrimal and parotid glands caused by infiltration with lymphocytes. When no specific
cause is found it is called Mikulicz’s disease; and if secondary to disease like sarcoidosis it is termed
as Mikulicz’s syndrome].
71
1157. A 15m baby girl presented to the ED with difficulty in breathing. Exam: she has intercostal
recessions and a wheeze. Temp=normal. What is the most likely dx?
a. URTI
b. Pneumonia
c. Bronchiolitis
d. RDS
e. Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
Ans. The key is C. Bronchiolitis. [Asthma and bronchiolitis has similar sign symptoms. The difference
is in pathology. In asthma there is bronchoconstriction but in bronchiolitis there is oedema of the
airway wall. In infants and younger children bronchiolitis is commoner than asthma and it is seen
that many of the children with bronhiolitis usually followed by asthma].
1170. A 68yo woman has been admitted with poor appetite, weight loss, poor concentration and
self
neglect for 3wks. She has not been eating or drinking adequately and has rarely left her bed. She
is expressive suicidal ideas and is convinced that people are out to kill her. She has been on
antidepressant therapy for the past 3m with no improvement. What is the most appropriate tx?
a. Anti depressants
b. CBT
c. Interpersonal therapy
d. ECT
e. Antipsychotics
Ans. The key is D. ECT. This is wrong key! Correct key is E. Antipsychotics. [For psychotic depression
with suicidal ideation, try antidepressants and if needed augment by adding antipsychotics and if
failed then ECT].
1174. A 64yo man who was exposed to asbestos for 40yrs presents with weight loss and chest pain.
The dx of mesothelioma has been made. He develops SOB and XR=pleural effusion. What is the
most appropriate management?
a. Thoracocenthesis
72
b. Chest drain
c. Radiation therapy
d. Pneumonectomy
e. Chemotherapy
Ans. The key is E. Chemotherapy. It is probably a wrong key! Correct key should be B. Chest drain.
[As mesothelioma poorly responds to chemo and radiotherapy and recurrent effusion causes
distressing symptoms chest drain is the most appropriate measure. As there occurs repeated
effusion so thoracocentasis is not appropriate but chest drain].
1175. A 72yo presents with polyuria and polydipsia. The fasting blood sugar is 8 and 10mmol/l.
BP=130/80mmHg and the level of cholesterol=5.7mmol/l. There is microalbuminuria. What is
the single most appropriate next management?
a. ACEi and sulfonylurea
b. Statin and biguanide
c. Statin and glitazone
d. Insulin and ACEi
e. Statin and ACEi
Ans. The key is E. Statin and ACEI. This is wrong key. Here both A. ACEi and sulfonylurea and D.
Insulin and ACEi are correct answer. [Please note IF SYMPTOMATIC (polyuria, polydipsia) we should
give antidiabetic (preferably insulin or a secratogogue as sulfonylurea) and if not symptomatic first
we shall give lifestyle modification].
1194. A 7yo girl with allergy became acutely unwell while visiting a friend’s house and has been
brought immediately to the ED. She is fully conscious but has got stridor, wheeze and
erythematous rash. She is receiving oxygen. What is the single immediate management?
a. Check airway patency and prepare intubation
b. Give 0.25ml in 1000U epinephrine IM
c. Give 10mg chlorphearamine IM
d. Give 50ml hydrocortisone IM
e. Obtain secure IV access

73
Ans. The key is B. Give 0.25ml in 1000U epinephrine IM. [Stridor is one of the indication of IM
epinephrine in anaphylaxis].
1195. A terminally ill pt with metastatic carcinoma presents with dysphagia and difficulty in
swallowing. What is the best possible tx?
a. Nystatin suspension
b. Amphotericin B IV
c. PO fluconazole
d. Cotrimazole
e. Analgesic
Ans. The key is C. PO fluconazole. [Treatment of carcinoma can predispose to development of

oesophageal candidiasis which is treated as follows: Oral fluconazole (200 – 400mg) daily for 14 to
21 days (if needed IV fluconazole can also be given].
1222. A 45yo man has had impaired vision and pain on eye movement in his left eye over the last
5d.
He also notes loss of color vision in the same eye. In the left eye, the visual acuity is up to
counting fingers. When the pupil is stimulated with light, it dilates. His fundus is normal. What is
the single most appropriate clinical dx?
a. Acute dacryocystitis
b. Acute iritis
c. Papillitis
d. Retrobulbar neuritis
e. Scleritis
Ans. The key is D. Retrobulbar neuritis. [Presentation can be described by either optic neuritis or
retrobulbar neuritis. In optic neuritis there is disc pallor. As in this case disc is normal it is a case of
retrobulbar neuritis].
1223. A 56yo pt has been dx with MS. She presents with a positive Romberg’s test. She also has
weakness and loss of sensations in all her 4 limbs. Which site is most likely to be affected?
a. Cerebral cortex
74
b. Cerebellum
c. Cervical spinal cord
d. Thoracic spinal cord
e. Brain stem
Ans. The key is C. Cervical spinal cord. [Quadriplegia is the feature of cervical cord lesion].
1231. A pt is on cancer tx with dexamethasone. According to her biochemical results her K+=normal
and her Na+=low. What is the dx?
a. Addisons
b. Dexamethasone side effect
c. Dilutional hyponatremia
Ans. The key is C. Dilutional hyponatremia.
1232. A diabetic has been prescribed a long acting hypoglycemic in the morning and short acting in
the
evening. He takes a regular lunch, but has been having hypoglycemic attacks at around 4pm
each day. What is the most appropriate intervention?
a. Recommend a heavier lunch
b. Review morning drug
c. Review evening drug
d. Review both drug
e. Reassure
Ans. The key is B. Review morning drug. [As there is hypoglycemic attacks at evening morning dose
needs to be adjusted].
1239. The artery that supplies the ant right ventricular wall. What is the single most appropriate
75
option?
a. Acute marginal branch
b. Left ant descending artery
c. Coronary sinus
d. Circumflex artery
e. Right coronary artery
Ans. The key is A. Acute marginal branch.
1240. A 55yo male presents to the ED after an RTA with breathlessness, engorged neck veins and a
dull percussion note on the right side of his chest. Exam: pulse=140bpm, BP=80/50mmHg. What
is the most likely dx?
a. Hemothorax
b. Hemopneumothorax
c. Tension pneumothorax
d. Simple pneumothorax
Ans. The key is B. Hemopneumothorax.
1241. A 32yo woman presents with complaints of having low back pain. She is taking analgesics for
it. All inv are normal. What will you advice her?
a. Bed rest
b. Physiotherapy
c. Advice to be more active
d. Admit
Ans. C. Advice to be more active.
1248. A young man returns to his hostel and gets headache and lethargy. Now presents with fever.
76
There are crepitations on the auscultation of lung. What is the most likely organism which would
have caused his symptoms?
a. Legionella pneumonia
b. Mycoplasma
c. Staphylococcus
d. Streptococcus
Ans. The key is A. Legionella pneumonia. [Legionella is common in hostel, hotel, hospital, nursing
home where it spread through their water system, aircondition etc.].
1262. A 30yo primigravida who is 30wks GA presents to the L&D with absent fetal movements. She
also complains of severe headache, heartburn and seeing floaters before her eyes for the last
few days. Exam: BP=170/110mmHg, urine protein=++++, rock hard uterus, no visible signs of
fetal movements. Choose the single most likely dx?
a. Abruption of placenta 2nd pre-eclampsia
b. Antepartum hemorrhage
c. Placenta previa
d. Primary PPH
e. IUFD
f. Abruption of placenta due to trauma
Ans. 2 keys A. Abruption of placenta 2nd pre-eclampsia. E. IUFD. Both are correct!
1266. A 32yo lady G1, 28wks GA came to her ANC with a concern about pain relief during labour.
She
has no medical illnesses and her pregnancy so far has been uncomplicated. She wishes to feel
her baby being born but at the same time she wants something to work throughout her labour.
What method of pain relief best matches this lady’s request?
a. C-section
b. Pudendal block
77
c. Entonox
d. TENS
e. Pethidine
Ans. The key is C. Entonox. [This is a mixture of oxygen and nitrous oxide gas. Gas and air won't
remove all the pain, but it can help to reduce it and make it more bearable].
1268. A 36yo pregnant woman comes for evaluation with her husband. Her husband has been
complaining of morning sickness, easy fatiguability and even intermittent abdominal pain. What
is the husband suffering from?
a. Ganser syndrome
b. Couvade syndrome
c. Pseudo-psychosis
d. Stockholm syndrome
e. Paris syndrome
Ans. The key is B. Couvade syndrome. [Cauvade syndrome, also called sympathetic pregnancy, is a
proposed condition in which a partner experiences some of the same symptoms and behavior of an
expectant mother].
1269. A woman comes to the ED complaining of pain in the right side of the abdomen, she has 7wks
amenorrhea. Her pregnancy test is +ve and US scan shows an empty uterus. What is the next
step?
a. Laparoscopy
b. HCG measurements
c. US
d. Laparotomy
e. Culdo-centhesis
78
Ans. B. HCG measurements. This is a wrong key! Correct key is A. Laparoscopy. [Surgery
should be offered to those women who cannot return for follow-up after methotrexate or to
those who have any of the following:
 Significant pain.
 Adnexal mass ≥35 mm.
 Fetal heartbeat visible on scan.
 Serum hCG level ≥5000 IU/L.
A laparoscopic approach is preferable. A salpingectomy should be performed, unless the

woman has other risk factors for infertility, in which case a salpingotomy should be
undertaken].
[If HCG >6000IU/L and an intrauterine gestational sac is not seen on trans-abdominal US, ectopic
pregnancy is very likely, as is the case if HCG 1000–1500IU/L and no sac is seen on transvaginal
Ultrasound].
1270. A 23yo woman who has had several recent partners has experienced post-coital bleeding on
gentle contact. What is the single most likely cause of her vaginal discharge?
a. Cervical ca
b. Cervical ectropion
c. CIN
d. Chlamydial cervicitis
e. Gonococcal cervicitis
Ans. D. Chlamydia cervicitis.
1272. A 28yo woman 8wks GA had PID treated prvly and now comes with vaginal bleeding, rigid
abdomen, BP=80/50mmHg, pulse=140bpm. What is the most probable dx?
a. Threatened abortion
b. Miscarriage
c. Missed abortion
79
d. Tubal pregnancy
e. Inevitable abortion
Ans. The key is D. Tubal pregnancy. [Previous PUD is a risk factor for tubal pregnancy].
1275. A pt is at term and in labor, the membranes have ruptured, the liquor contains meconium but
the CTG is normal. The cervix is 3cm dilated. What is the single most appropriate action?
a. BP monitoring
b. CTG
c. C-section
d. Fetal scalp blood sample
e. Internal rotation
Ans. The key is D. Fetal scalp blood sample. This is wrong key. Correct key is CTG. [Till CTG is normal
we should not switch to other option but continuing CTG. If CTG shows fetal distress then we have
to do fetal scalp blood sampling to take decision about probable cesarean section. (Only abnormal
CTG is not enough to take decision of cesarean section)].
1279. A woman who is 7wks pregnant presents with excessive and severe vomiting and put on IV
fluids and anti-emetic (ondansteron). She is complaining of severe headache and can’t take oral
fluids. What is the most appropriate management?
a. Termination of pregnancy
b. TPN
c. Feeds via NGT
d. P6 acupressure
e. IV hydrocortisone
Ans. The key is A. Termination of pregnancy. This is wrong key. Correct key is E. IV hydrocortisone.
[Termination is the last resort! Before it IV hydrocortisone is tried. 1st oral antiemetics if fail
perenteral antiemetics if fail iv hydrocortisone. Last resort is termination].
1291. At birth, a baby boy at 38wks GA weighs 1.8kgs. He has hepato-splenomegaly and a rash.
Blood test show raised level of bilirubin and liver enzymes. What is the most likely dx?
80
a. Galactosemia
b. Biliary atresia
c. G6PD deficiency
d. Rh incompatibility
e. Congenital viral infection
Ans. The key is E. Congenital viral infection. [Congenital infections affect the unborn fetus or
newborn infant. They are generally caused by viruses that may be picked up by the baby at any time
during the pregnancy up through the time of delivery. The more common viruses linked to
congenital infections include the Cytomegalovirus (CMV), Herpes, Rubella (German measles),
Parvovirus, Varicella (chickenpox), and Enteroviruses].
1294. An 84yo woman with drusen and yellow spots in the center of retina. What is the single most
likely dx?
a. Macular degeneration
b. HTN retinopathy
c. MS
d. DM background
e. Proliferative DM retinopathy
Ans. The key is A. Macular degeneration. [In early disease, the macula shows yellowish-colored
subretinal deposits called “drusen”].
299. A 16yo boy presents with acute pain in the right ear and little bleeding from the same ear. He
had been in a boxing match and had sustained a blow to the ear. There is little amount of blood
in the auditory canal and a small perforation of the eardrum. What is the most appropriate
management?
a. Admission for parental
antibiotics
b. Nasal decongestant
c. Oral amoxicillin
81
d. OPD review
e. Packing of ear
f. Surgical intervention
g. Syringing ENT
Ans. The key is C. Oral amoxicillin. [Small perforations are usually heal by themselves within 6-8
weeks and doctors often prescribe antibiotics to prevent infections during this healing period].
1307. A 46yo man with tachycardia has the following ECG. What is the most likely dx?
a. SVT
b. VT
c. Mobitz I heart block
d. Atrial fibrillation
82
e. WPW syndrome
Ans. The key is E. WPW syndrome. [Short PR interval and slurred delta wave indicates WPW
syndrome].
1320. A 22yo man presents with a red, hot, swollen, metatarsal phalangeal joint, sarcoilitis and
onycholysis. What is the single most likely cause of his condition?
a. Gout
b. RA
c. Reiter’s syndrome
d. Psoriatic arthropathy
Ans. The key is D. Psoriatic arthropathy. [Psoriatic arthritis initially can affects the toes very similar
to gout. There can be sacroilitis and onycholysis. Ref: patient.info].
1321. Which of the following conditions requires operative management?
a. Cellulitis
b. Dyshidrosi
c. Erysipelas
d. Fournier’s gangrene
e. Lymphangitis
Ans. The key is D. Fournier’s gangrene. [Fournier's gangrene: A horrendous infection of the genitalia
that causes severe pain in the genital area (in the penis and scrotum or perineum) and progresses
from erythema (redness) to necrosis (death) of tissue. Gangrene can occur within hours].
1336. A mother got infected with Hep B during pregnancy. Her child is born and she is worried about
the risk of infection to the baby with Hep B. What would you give to the baby?
a. Hep B Ig only
b. Hep B full vaccine and Ig
c. Hep B vaccine only once
d. Nothing until immune status is checked

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e. Hep B vaccine once and Ig
Ans. The key is B. Hepatitis B full vaccine and Ig.
1337. A man suffers from Herpes Zoster affecting his face. Which of the following mucos membrane
is to be affected?
a. Cheek
b. Cornea
c. Conjunctiva
d. Oropharynx
e. Palate
Ans. The key is C. Conjunctiva.
1340. A 63 yo man with vague but persistent pain. On endoscopy: columnar epithelium was found
to be pouched into muscularis. What is the dx?
a. Adenocarcinoma
b. Adenoma
c. Peptic ulcer
d. H. pylori infection
Ans. The key is A. Adenocarcinoma.
1341. A 24yo man after a head injury presents with difficulty dressing himself, difficulty in writing
and inability to differentiate the fingers of his hand. Which part of the brain is most likely to be
affected?
a. Frontal lobe
b. Parietal lobe
c. Temporal lobe
d. Occipital lobe
84
e. Brainstem
Ans. The key is B. Parietal lobe. [Dressing apraxia, agraphia and finger agnosia are features of
parietal lobe lesions].
1343. A 10yo boy is brought to the ED 10h after injury to the foot. It was punctured with a metal
spike that passed through his shoe. What is the next best step?
a. Ig
b. Ig and vaccine
c. Vaccine only
d. Clean the wound
e. Antibiotics
Ans. The key is D. Clean the wond. [“NEXT” best step is clean the wound].
1344. A 56yo male presents with persistent watery diarrhea. What is the most likely dx?
a. Treponema pallidum
b. Nesseria meningitides
c. Cryptosporidium
d. Staph aureus
e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Ans. The key is C. Cryptosporidium.
1352. A 46yo male presents with confusion and drowsiness. What is the most likely dx?
a. Cryptococcus neoformans
b. Toxoplasma gondii
c. HSV
d. CMV
85
e. Candida albicans
Ans. The key is A. Cryptococcus neoformans. [This type of question can be regarded as cns infection
in AIDS and some may argue there is no mention of AIDS. If you consider with immubnocompetent
patient likely answer may be HSV and if you consider immunodeficiency likely answer is
controversial! as some say toxoplasmosis as the most common and some say Cryptococcus is most
common].
1357. A 26yo man is referred for gastroscopy because of a hx of several months of dyspepsia. He has
routine bloods checked and is found to have a serum calcium level=3.2mmol/l with a venous
bicarbonate level of 33mmol/l. Renal and LFT are both ormal. CXR is normal. What is the most likely
cause of his hypercalcemia?
a. Melanoma
b. Metastatic malignancy
c. Milk alkali syndrome
d. Primary hyperparathyroidism
e. Sarcoidosis
Ans. The key is C. Milk alkali syndrome. [In medicine, milk-alkali syndrome is characterized by high
blood calcium caused by taking in too much calcium and absorbable alkali; common sources of
calcium and alkali are dietary supplements taken to prevent osteoporosis and antacids. If untreated,
milk-alkali syndrome may lead to kidney failure or death].
1358. A 3yo boy presents with difficulty in walking and skin lesions. What is the most likely causative
agent?
a. Strep pyogenes
b. Rubella virus
c. Parvovirus
d. Papovirus
e. Paramyxovirus
Ans. The key is C. Parvovirus. [Sometimes there may occur arthropathy for which children gets
difficulty to walk. There occurs macular morbiliform rash in parvovirus infection following
disappearance of rash of the cheeks].
86
1361. A 55yo man is having slow growing ascites. When we tap the peritoneal fluid the protein is
<25 and it is clear and yellow. What could be the origin for ascites?
a. Budd-Chiari
b. Gastrinoma
c. Hepatoma
d. TB
e. Pancreatitis
Ans. The key is A. Budd-Chiari syndrome. [In gastrinoma there is no ascites! In hepatoma there will
be exudative ascites as in TB and pancreatitis. Budd-Chiary syndrome causes transudative ascites
and the likely option here].
1363. In lyme disease, which complication is most likely to lead to collapse?
a. Dilated CM
b. AV block
c. Mild encephalitis
d. Meningitis
e. Myocarditis
Ans. The key is B. AV block.
1380. A pt admitted due to repeated attacks of pancreatitis presents with dementia and loss of
proprioception in the legs. What is the most appropriate tx?
a. Thiamine
b. Pyridoxine
c. Cobolamin
d. Lipase
e. Antibiotics
87
Ans. The key is C. Cobalamin. [Pancreatic insufficiency can lead to malabsorption and B12
(cobalamin) deficiency. Dementia and diminished vibratory sensation and proprioception in the
lower extremities were the most common objective findings of cobalamin deficiency].
1388. A 65yo man has incurable bronchial cancer. He is unable to cough up his secretions. This is
leading to a distressing cough. Which of the following drugs is most likely to help him?
a. Scopolamine
b. Xanomeline
c. Aceclidine
d. Pilocarpine
e. Cevimiline
Ans. The key is A. Scopolamine. [Any secretory condition of lung is reduced and improved with
scopolamine].
1395. A 64yo alcoholic who has been dx with liver cirrhosis presents with a massive ascites. What is
the mechanism of fluid accumulation in a pt with liver disease?
a. Cirrhosis
b. Portal HTN
c. Hypoalbuminemia
d. Liver failure
e. Hepatic encephalopathy
Ans. The key is C. Hypoalbuminemia. [Mechanism of fluid accumulation (in general, not only ascites)
is hypoalbuminaemia].
1397. A 68yo man who is a known case of liver cirrhosis has developed ascites. What is the
mechanism for the development of ascites?
a. Portal HTN
b. Hypoalbuminemia
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Liver failure
88
Ans. The key is A. Portal hypertension. [In liver cirrhosis ascites (not generalized oedema which is
caused by hypoalbuminemia and other mechanisms) is caused by portal hypertension (portal
hypertension is invariable in cirrhosis) along with other factors].
1417. A 76yo man is in the CCU 2d after an acute MI. He tells you that he had an episode of rapid
pounding in the chest lasting for about 2mins. He remains conscious throughout. What is the most
likely rhythm?
a. SVT
b. VF
c. VT
d. V-ectopics
e. A-fib
Ans. The key is C. VT. This is wrong key. Correct key is D. V-ectopics. [Why not VT? Non sustained VT
lasts less than 30 seconds. So it is not non sustained VT. Again sustained VT causes syncope, but
patient was conscious. So it is not sustained VT as well. There may be runs of V-ectopics. So the
answer is D. V-ectopics].
1420. A 25yo who is 38wks pregnant presents to the labour ward with a hx of fewer fetal
movements than usual during the evening. She also says that abdominal contractions are coming
every few minutes and she is having a blood stained show per vagina for the last few minutes. Exam:
cervix is fully affaced, 9cm dilated, cephalic presentation and station is +1. Choose the single most
likely dx?
a. APH
b. Concealed hemorrhage
c. Labour
d. IUFD
e. IUGR
Ans. The key is C. Labour. [Abdominal contractions coming every few minutes, having blood stained
show per vagina, fully effaced cervix with dilatation of 9 cm, cephalic presentation and station +1
suggests that the patient is in labour].
1434. A 22yo man reports a 2d hx of hoarseness of voice. He denies any weight loss but he has been
smoking for 4yrs. What is the single most appropriate inv?
a. None
b. Laryngoscopy
89
c. Bronchoscopy
d. BAL
e. CXR
Ans. The key is B. Laryngoscopy. It is a wrong key! Correct key is A. None. [If horseness is of >3
weeks in man >50 yrs and smoker and heavy drinker to rule out cancer do CXR and\or laryngoscopy-
NICE guideline].
1436. A 25yo pt came to the OPD with complaint of fever, malaise, breathlessness, cough and
anorexia. His gf has got similar symptoms. He had hx of sore throat and ear discharge a month ago.
What is the single most likely causative organism?
a. Legionella
b. Mycoplasma
c. Chlamydia pneumonia
d. PCP
e. Chlamydia psitacci
Ans. The key is C. Chlamydia pneumonia.
1438. A 50yo DM pt came to the OPD with complaint of fever, muscle ache, dry cough and anorexia.
Inv: CXR=upper lobe cavitation. What is the single most likely causative organism?
a. Legionella
b. Mycoplasma
c. Staphylococcus
d. Klebsiella
e. Streptococcus
Ans. The key is D. Klebsiella. [Upper lobe cavitation favours Klebsiella pneumonia. Also it is well
known that staphylococcal and klebsiella pneumonia are more common in DM than normal person].
90
1443. A 45yo woman presents with pruritis. Exam: skin pigmentation. Inv: raised ALP and presence
of anti-mitochondrial antibodies. What is the single most likely dx?
a. Psoriasis
b. Scabies
c. Atopic eczema
d. Dermatitis herpetiformis
e. Hyperthyroidism
f. Primary biliary cirrhosis
Ans. The key is F. Primary biliary cirrhosis. [Pruritus, skin pigmentation (increased amounts of
melanin, widely dispersed throughout both epidermis and dermis), raised ALP, and presence of AMA
are diagnostic of primary biliary cirrhosis].
1449. Which virus is transmitted by the fecal-oral route?
a. Hep C
b. Coxsackie virus
c. Dengue
d. None of the above
Ans. The key is B. Coxsackie virus.
1461. A 25yo male had an injury to the knee while playing football. XR=condylar fx of tibia. What is
the single most probable deformity?
a. Dinner fork deformity
b. Gibbus
c. Cubitus valgus
d. Garden spade deformity
e. Genu valgus
Ans. The key is E. Genu valgus.

91
1463. A man presented with carcinoma of the bladder and has been working in factories. He wants
to know what dye has caused it. What is the single most likely cause?
a. Aniline
b. Asbestos
c. Latex
d. Silica
Ans. The key is A. Aniline. [Aniline dye is a well known cause of bladder cancer].
1477. An 83yo elderly woman presented in the ED with cough, fever and sneezing. Tx was given but
she became confused and again presented with above said symptoms. What is the cause of her
condition?
a. Aspiration due to confusion
b. Alveolar damage due to drugs
c. Drug toxicity
d. Pneumothorax
Ans. The key is A. Aspiration due to confusion.
1479. A young lady with cervical ectropion bleeds on touch. What is the most appropriate next inv?
a. Transvaginal US
b. Cervical smear
c. Punch biopsy
d. Serum estradiol
e. Colposcopy
Ans. B. Cervical smear. Wrong key! Correct key is E. colposcopy.[Screening test cervical smear is only
done in scheduled time and not in on demand basis. So if it is scheduled now then it can be the
option otherwise Colposcopy should be the key!! This is definitely an incomplete question].
1486. An 18yo woman says that she can’t walk around as she is very big for that room. What is the
most likely hallucination?
a. Extracampine visual hallucinations

92
b. Liliputian visual hallucinations
c. Alice in wonderland syndrome
d. Hypnagogic hallucinations
Ans. The key is B. Lilliputian visual hallucination. [B. Liliputian visual hallucinations and C. Alice in
wonderland syndrome are same].
1487. A middle aged lady presented with fever, altered sensorium, bleeding gums and jaundice.
Labs: deranged renal function tests, normal PT/APTT, fragmented RBCs and low plts. What’s the
most likely dx?
a. Cholesterol emboli
b. HUS
c. TTP
d. Hepatorenal syndrome
e. Sepsis
Ans. The key is C. TTP. [Fever and altered sensorium suggest the diagnosis of TTP].
1489. A 73yo woman with skeletal and brain mets from breast ca has worsening low back pain and
blurring of vision. She has weakness of her legs, minimal knee and absent ankle tendon reflexes, a
palpable bladder, a power of 2/5 at the hip, 3/5 at the knee and ankle, and tenderness over the 2nd
lumbar vertebra. There is reduced sensation in the perineum. She has been started on
dexamethasone 16mg daily.What is the single most likely cause of her weakness?
a. Paraneoplastic neuropathy
b. Progression of brain tumor
c. PID at L2/L3
d. Spinal cord compression
e. Steroid induced myopathy
Ans. No key is given! The likely correct option is D. Spinal cord compression. [Brain metastasis
induced cerebral oedema can explain blurring of vision secondary to raised intracranial pressure.
Rest of the features including weakness can well explain spinal cord compression].
93
1505. A pt came to the hosp with a complaint of severe chest pain lasting for >1h. Following ECG
test, pt revealed to have ST depression. He was already on aspirin. What is the most specific tx for
this pt?
a. GTN
b. Simvastatin
c. Clopidogrel
d. BB
e. LMWH
Ans. The key is B. Simvastatin. It is a wrong key. Correct key should be LMWH. [Specific treatment
means treatment particularly adapted to the special disease being treated. LMWH is vital to prevent
further events or deterioration and seems to be the most specific drug in the given scenario].
1506. A 69yo woman presents with a sudden onset of weakness of her right arm and leg. She is
known to be hypertensive. There has been no headache, LOC, visual, speech or sensory symptoms.
Exam: BP=180/90mmHg, pulse=100 and regular heart sounds, no carotid bruit. Higher mental
function tests are normal. No apraxia or neglect. Speech, swallowing and sensation are normal.
There are no visual field defects. There is a mild facial weakness sparing the forehead. The right arm
and leg are flaccid and weak. Reflexes and tone are normal. There is a right extensor plantar
response. What is the most likely cause of this pt’s symptoms?
a. Cardioembolic stroke
b. Lacunar stroke
c. Right internal carotid artery atheroembolic stroke
d. Right internal carotid artery dissection
e. Right vertebral artery atheroembolic stroke
Ans. The key is B. Lacunar stroke. [Weakness of right arm and leg. So lesion is on left side. Hence C,D
and E can not be the option. Also no AF or carotid artery disease and features are very much
consistent with lacunar infarct].
1507. A 34yo man has an intermittent epigastric pain for 3wks. It is worse by food but helped by
some tablets he obtained from the pharmacy. He had a similar episode 3yrs ago and his doctor gave
him a course of 3 types of tablets at the time. What is the most appropriate next inv?
a. Abdomen US
b. Barium meal
94
c. Serum H.Pylori antibodies
d. C13 urea breath test
e. Upper GI endoscopy
Ans. The key is D. C13 urea breath test. [Patient was allright for 3yrs after eradication therapy. Now
symptoms again may indicate recurrence of H. Pylori infection which can be demonstrated by C13
urea breath test. Serum antibody persist (IgG) for long and not reliable for recheck].
1510. A 74yo man has been admitted unconscious with no hx. He has a GCS=6 and a dilated left puil
which becomes insensitive to light. What is the single most likely dx?
a. Extradural hematoma
b. Meningitis
c. Opioid OD
d. Pontine hemorrhage
e. SAH
Ans. The key is E. SAH. [Extradural hematoma is very rare in elderly and there occurs lucid interval;
Fteatures are not consistent with meningitis. Opioid and pontine hemorrhage causes myosis. So
likely dx here is SAH].
1511. A 27yo man presents to the ED with 2d hx of severe headache and pyrexia (38.9C). CT:
petechial hemorrhage in the temporal and inf frontal lobes. What is the most likely dx?
a. Brain abscess
b. Meningococcal meningitis
c. Cerebral malaria
d. Herpes simplex encephalitis
e. New variant CID
Ans. The key is D. Herpes simplex encephalitis. [Petechial hemorrhage in the temporal and inferior
frontal lobes are characteristic of Herpes simplex encephalitis].
1516. A 38yo woman with hemophilia who received several blood transfusions a few years ago
presents with irritability and increasing memory deficit. She is unable to speak properly. He is on
anti-TB tx. What is the single most likely dx?
a. Creutzfeldt Jacob disease

95
b. Drug toxicity
c. Vascular dementia
d. HIV associated dementia
e. Space occupying lesion
Ans. The key is D. HIV associated dementia. [Blood transfision is the clue for HIV transmission.
Immunodeiciency is also responsible for TB].
1518. A pt of tuberculous abscess with the hx of prv abscess drainage presented with fever and
tenderness between L2/L3 vertebra. Which is the best inv for this pt?
a. XR
b. CT
c. US
d. MRI
e. Blood culture
Ans. The key is D. MRI.
1522. A newborn that is electively intubated at birth and is due for surgery 48h after birth. The
condition was suspected on antenatal US on CXR. What is the most likely dx?
a. CF
b. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
c. Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation
d. RDS
e. Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
Ans. The key is B. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia.
1524. A 25yo man attended in urological OPD has single testis. He was inv and other testis was
located in the abdomen. What is the best management plan for this pt?
a. Short trial of HCG
b. Orchidectomy
c. Orchidopexy
96
d. Reassurance
e. IV testosterone
Ans. The key is C. Orchidectomy. [Ectopic testis is prone to develop testicular cancer and therefore it
should be surgically removed].
1532. A 48yo man has intermittent left sided lower abdominal pain and feels generally unwell. He
has lost his appetite and has lost weight. Temp=38.3C and he has BP=190/100mmHg. What is the
single inv most likely to lead to dx”?
a. Colonoscopy
b. Endomysial antibodies
c. Fasting serum glucose conc
d. TFT
e. US abdomen
Ans. The key is E. US abdomen. [Probable diagnosis is diverticulitis and preferred investigation from
given list is US abdomen].
1534. A 60yo DM pt presented with easy fatigability, weakness and numbness of hands and swollen
feet. Exam: pedal edema, sensory neuropathy and palpable liver and spleen. Urine: proteinuria. US
abdomen: enlarged kidney. Renal biopsy: amorphous homogenous substance that stained red with
congo-red. What is the dx?
a. DM retinopathy
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Wilms tumor
d. Amyloidosis
e. Glycogen storage disease
Ans. The key is D. Amyloidosis [Amyloidosis is a common cause of organomegaly. Also in diabetic
nephropathy kidneys may be enlarged].
1539. A pt was admitted with increased frequency of passing urine, increased thirst, weakness and
muscle cramps. What is the most probable dx?
a. Conn’s syndrome
b. Cushing’s syndrome
97
c. Pheochromocytoma
d. Hyperthyroidism
e. Hypoparathyroidism
Ans. The key is A. Conn’s syndrome. [There is hypokalemia in Conn’s syndrome. Increased frequency
of passing urine and increased thirst are from nephrogenic DI resulted from hypokalemia and
hypokalemia also causes weakness and muscle cramps].
1540. A 69yo male presented with sudden onset of dysphagia. He is neither able to swallow liquid
nor solid, he recently had a denture fitting. What is the most probable dx?
a. Foreign body
b. Plummer vinson syndrome
c. Achalasia cardia
d. Esophageal rupture
e. Esophageal ca 1
Ans. The key is A. Foreign body. [Sudden onset of dysphagia to both liquid and solid and recent
history of fitting denture suggests foreign body (denture) in oesophagus].
1547. A 70yo man presents with a punched out ulcer between his toes. He is a heavy drinker and
smoker. Exam: ulcer is yellow and the foot turns red when dangling off the bed. What is the single
most likely dx?
a. Arterial ischemia ulcer
b. Malignancy
c. Neuropathic ulcer
d. Pressure ulcer
e. Venous stasis ulcer
Ans. The key is A. Arterial ischemic ulcer.

98
1548. A 65yo woman complains of a painful discharging ulcer above her ankle on the inner side of
her left lower leg. Exam: the base of the ulcer is red and covered by a yellow fibrous tissue. The
border is irregular. The skin is tight. What is the single most likely dx?
a. Arterial ischemia ulcer
b. Malignancy
c. Neuropathic ulcer
d. Pressure ulcer
e. Venous stasis ulcer
Ans. The key is E. Venous stasis ulcer. [Some people with venous insufficiency develop stasis
dermatitis. Blood pools in the veins of the lower leg. Fluid and blood cells leak out of the veins into
the skin. It is usually seen above ankle and inner side of leg].
1552. A 26yo man with hx of hereditary hemorrhagic telengectasia is planning to start a family.
What is the mode of inheritance?
a. AD with incomplete penetrance
b. Autosomal co-dominant
c. AR with incomplete penetrance
d. AD
e. AR
Ans. The key is D. AD [Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is of autosomal dominant mode of

inheritance].
1553. A 50yo man with a known hx of stroke is unable to get out of his house because he can’t find
where the door is. He refuses help from his wife and says he is not blind. What is the single most
likely defect?
b. Tunnel vision
c. Total blindness
d. Central scotoma
e. Cortical blindness
99
Ans. The key is E. Cortical blindness. [Cortical blindness is the total or partial loss of vision in a
normal-appearing eye caused by damage to the brain's occipital cortex. Rarely, a patient with
acquired cortical blindness may have little or no insight that they have lost vision, a phenomenon
known as Anton–Babinski syndrome].
1556. A 43yo woman has suffered with heavy periods for many years and has tried many medical tx
without success. She is constantly flooding and at times can’t leave her house due to heavy
bleeding. She has completed her family of 5 children and her last blood test showed Hgb=8.9g/dl.
She feels that she can’t cope with the bleeding anymore and her husband is asking for a tx that can
guarantee success. What is the most appropriate management to improve menorrhagia in this pt?
b. Hysterectomy
c. Hysteroscopic/Laser resection of fibroids
d. Myomectomy
e. UAE
Ans. The key is B. Hysterectomy. [As family is complete hysterectomy is the best option to stop
bleeding and it also helps not to get endometrial carcinoma].
1557. A man on antipsychotic meds develops features of retinitis pigmentosa. Which drug is most
likely to cause these symptoms?
a. Thioridazine
b. Haloperidol
c. Chlorpromazine
d. Risperidone
Ans. The key is A. Thioridazine. [Thioridazine and other antipsychotics (neuroleptics, dopaminergic
antagonists) can cause degenerative retinopathies with histological, electrophysiological and
symptomatological features similar to those of primary retinitis pigmentosa].
1560. A pt who works in a pet shop has temp=37.5C, dyspnea, chest pain and cough. CXR: patchy
consolidation. What is the most suitable tx?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Tetracyclin
100
c. Erythromycin
d. Clarithromycin
e. Penicillin
Ans. The key is A. Amoxicillin. This is a wrong key! Correct key is D. Clarithromycin. [OHCM, 9th
edition].
1562. A 48yo nulliparous woman feels tired all the time. Her periods are regular but have always
lasted for at least 10d. Choose the single most appropriate intial inv?
a. High vaginal swab
b. Serum Hgb conc
c. TFT
d. None
e. Abdominal US
Ans. The key is B. Serum Hb conc. [Feeling tired all the time and prolonged period suggest anemia.
So serum Hb should be done initially].
1564. A 39yo woman presents with symptoms recurring annually characterized by depressed mood,
being socially withdrawn hypersomnia, lack of enjoyment in life, last for several months. What is the
most likely dx?
a. Seasonal Affective Disorder
b. Mod depression
c. Dysthymia
d. GAD
e. Bipolar disorder
Ans. The key is A. Seasonal Affective Disorder. [Depression associated with late autumn and winter
and thought to be caused by a lack of light].
1572. A 52yo woman has had a swelling in the neck, hoarseness and stridor-both inspiratory and
expiratory for 2m. What is the most probable dx?
a. Ca larynx
b. Ca thyroid
c. Vocal chord nodules

101
d. Ca bronchus
e. Thyrotoxicosis
Ans. The key is B. Ca thyroid. [There is no features of hyperthyroidism. So it is not thyrotoxicosis but
Ca thyroid].
1573. A woman became acutely SOB in the recovery bay and is coughing after GA. Auscultation:
reduced air entry at the right lung base and diffuse wheeze. Observation: HR=88bpm,
BP=112/76mmHg, temp=37.8C and sat=91% in air. Choose among the options which C-section
complication has she developed?
a. Aspiration pneumonitis
b. Spontaneous pneumothorax
c. Endometritis
d. Pulmonary embolism
e. Tension pneumothorax
Ans. The key is A. Aspiration pneumonitis. [Diffuse wheeze, reduced air entry at lung base and raised
temperature favours the diagnosis of aspiration pneumonitis].
1577. A lady presents with a swelling below the groin crease that can be reduced. There is no med
hx of note. What is the most probable dx?
a. Inguinal hernia
b. Strangulated hernia
c. Testicular tumor
d. Epidydimal cyst
e. Femoral hernia
Ans. The key is E. Femoral hernia.
1578. A 32yo woman of 38wks GA attends the antenatal day unit with pain in the suprapubic area
that radiates to the upper thighs and perineum. It is worse on walking. Her urine dipstick showed a
trace of protein but no white cells, nitrates or blood. What’s the most likely dx?
a. Braxton hicks contractions

102
b. Round ligament stretching
c. Symphasis pubis dysfunction
d. Labor
e. Complicated femoral hernia
Ans. The key is C. Symphysis pubis dysfunction.
[Symptoms can include:
pain over the pubic bone at the front in the centre
pain across one or both sides of lower back
pain in the area between vagina and anus (perineum)
Pain can also radiate to thighs.
Cause: stiffness of pelvic joints or the joints moving unevenly at either the back or front of pelvis
during pregnancy. Physiotherapy is helpful]. [Ref: NHS]
1581. A 35yo woman presents with a swelling in the neck. The swelling has increased in size
gradually over the last two years and the patient feels she has difficulty with breathing. Exam: mass
measures 8cm by 10 cm, soft and not warm to touch. It moves with deglutition. Which is the most
appropriate management of this mass?
a. Partial thyroidectomy
b. Oral thyroxine
c. Oral propylthiouracil
d. Excision biopsy
Ans. The key is A. Partial thyroidectomy. [Gradually increased swelling in the neck which moves with
deglutition is thyroid enlargement and as it is causing pressure symptom like difficulty in breathing a
partial thyroidectomy should be performed].
1584. A 46yo woman presents with sudden episode of abdominal pain which started about 2h ago.
The pain is located in the epigastrium and radiates to her back. She has vomited twice since the
onset of attack. The pain is made worse by lying flat on her back and she is more comfortable sitting
up and bending forwards. She was informed of the presence of gallstones in her gall bladder four
weeks earlier when she reported pain in the right hypochondrium. The oral temp=39C,
BP=120/80mmHg and the radial pulse=118/min. There is no jaundice but there is marked
tenderness in the epigastrium both on deep and superficial palpations. Which is the most
appropriate inv for the cause of the patient’s pain?
103
a. Plain abdominal X-ray
b. Serum Amylase
c. Serum bilirubin
d. Barium Swallow
Ans. The key is B. Serum amylase. [Epigastric pain radiating to back, worse on lying flat and comfort
on bending forward are classic presentation of acute pancreatitis in which serum amylase is
increased].
1587. A 42yo woman reports to the surgeon that she is worried about a lump that she feels the right
breast. The surgeon observes a 2 cm by 3 cm mass in the right lower quadrant of the breast. There
are no associated skin changes and the mass has limited mobility. There is no discharge from the
nipple. There is no axillary lymph node enlargement. Examination of the left breast and axilla was
completely normal. A mammogram report suggests the presence of microcalcifications. Which is the
most appropriate next step in the management of this pt?
a. Observation for one year and repeat the mammography
b. A needle-guided biopsy of the breast
c. Excision biopsy of the breast
d. Partial mastectomy
Ans. The key is B. A needle-guided biopsy of the breast.
1588. A 45yo man presents with a mass on the right side of the face. The mass was first observed
three months ago but has recently become visibly larger. He feels pain over the mass and is unable
to blow a whistle. Clinical examination shows that the mass is likely to be the parotid gland. An oral
examination shows a foul smelling discharge from the duct of the gland and gentle probing shows
that it is stenosed at the meatus. Which of the following features suggests that the mass might be
malignant?
a. Presence of pain
b. Recent enlargement
c. Facial nerve palsy
d. Stenosed duct meatus
Ans. The key is C. Facial nerve palsy. [Due to malignant infiltration].

104
1593. A 3d term, breast-fed infant is brought by the mother who reports that the child has not been
active and not feeding well. She also notices jaundice, which was not present at birth and is
increasing. Exam: the temp=35.4°C, and the liver is palpable 2 cm below the costal margin. Which is
the most likely dx?
a. Rhesus isoimmunisation
b. Inadequate breast milk
c. Congenital biliary tract obstruction.
d. Sepsis
Ans. The key is D. Sepsis. [Not active, not feeding well, increasing new onset jaundice and
hypothermia are suggestive of neonatal sepsis].
1995. A 78yo pt is diagnosed with metastatic lung cancer; there is no cure for his condition. His son
tells the physician that in the case of a diagnosis of cancer, the physician must not tell his father. He
wishes that his father does not suffer any psychological distress caused by the knowledge of a
terminal diagnosis. Which one of the following ethical principles supports the son’s request?
a. Patient autonomy
b. Beneficence
c. Justice
d. Non-maleficence
Ans. The key is D. Non-maleficence. [Nonmaleficence means non-harming or inflicting the least
harm possible to reach a beneficial outcome].
1599. A 46yo woman comes for a routine gynaecological visit. On pelvic examination, a 1-cm red,
granular lesion is noted on the posterior cervical lip, which is firm and bleeds on contact. Which is
the next best step for establishing a dx?
a. Cervical cytological smear
b. Punch biopsy
c. Transvaginal ultrasound
d. Colposcopy
Ans. The key is B. Punch biopsy.

105
1602. A 40yo man has fallen off a roof. He is shocked and has chest pain. There is a delay between
the radial and femoral pulse. His CXR=widening of the mediastinum. What is the single most likely
dx?
a. Cardiac tamponade
b. Diaphragmatic rupture
c. Fx ribs
d. Tension pneumothorax
e. Traumatic rupture of aorta
Ans. The key is E. Traumatic rupture of the aorta. [A traumatic aortic disruption is caused by a rapid
acceleration (or deceleration) causing a tear in the aorta. Normally this is immediately fatal, but
those who survive may show a widened mediastinum on CXR. This can be confirmed with CT scan or
angiography of the aorta and requires prompt surgical correction. Stable the haemodynamics and
surgical correction. Note: pts with diaphragmatic rupture usually presents days after trauma with
vague symptoms, history is vital].
1603. A 36yo woman presents with swelling in the groin. Exam: swelling is diffuse and soft and lies
below the inguinal ligament. It empties with minimal pressure and refills with release. There is a
cough impulse and it disappears on lying down. On the calf of the same leg there are varicosities on
the medial aspect. What is the most likely dx?
a. Varicose vein
b. Varicocele
c. Saphena varix
d. Femoral hernia
e. Inguinal hernia
Ans. The key is C. Saphena Varix. [Below inguinal ligament, empties with minimal pressure and refills
with release, presence of cough impulse and disappearance on lying down are suggestive of
caphena varix supported by presence of varicosity in same leg].
1604. A man presents with a swelling above the groin crease in the abdomen. He has not had any
med problems of note. What is the most probable dx?
a. Inguinal hernia
b. Spigelian hernia
106
c. Testicular tumor
d. Epidydimal cyst
e. Irreducible hernia
Ans. B. Spigelian Hernia. [A Spigelian hernia (or lateral ventral hernia) is a hernia through the
spigelian fascia, which is the aponeurotic layer between the rectus abdominis muscle medially, and
the semilunar line laterally].
1607. A 65yo woman complaining of symptoms suggestive of Raynaud’s phenomenon and difficulty
in swallowing. Exam: painful lesions on her finger tips and facial telangiectasis. What is the single
most likely positive antibody?
a. Anti Jo1
b. Anti Scl 70
c. Anti Ro
d. Anti ds DNA
e. Anti centromere
Key: Anti-Centromere (E)
Reason: Anti-centromere antibody would be present in CREST syndrome which is also called Limited
scleroderma. Features of given case are consistent with CREST syndrome and hence the answer is E.
Anti centromere antibody].
1612. A 75yo man with declining vision, cornea and pupils are normal, fundus shows obscured
margins. What is the single most likely dx?
a. Macular degeneration
b. HTN retinopathy
c. MS
d. DM background
e. Proliferative DM retinopathy
Ans. The key is A. Macular degeneration. [In a 75yrs old man with normal cornea and pupils and
papilloedema suggests macular degeneration].
1619. A 6wk child has hx of frequent vomiting which became worse during the last weeks. He has no
fever, recently he has passed stool only once every 2-3d. What inv will you do to confirm the dx?
a. Abdominal US
b. Barium meal
107
c. Erect XR abdomen
d. Feed test
e. Reassure
Ans. The key is A. Abdominal US. [The age and symptoms points towards pyloric stenosis].
1635. A 32yo woman has had a febrile illness and swelling of the small joints of her hands, feet,
wrists and knees for two days. She has a maculopapular rash and a few palpable, small cervical
lymph nodes. She was previously well. There is no history of relevant travel outside the UK. She has
two young children. What is the SINGLE most likely dx?
a. Psoriasis
b. Reactive arthritis
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Sarcoidosis
e. SLE
Ans. The key is B. Reactive arthritis. [This is GMC sample question and given key is B. Reactive
arthritis].
1637. A 60yo man has had increasing pain in both buttocks, thighs and calves on walking for three
months. He has also recently developed impotence. Femoral and distal pulses are absent in both
limbs. What is the SINGLE most likely site of arterial obstruction?
a. Aorto iliac
b. External iliac
c. Femoropopliteal
d. Internal iliac
e. Tibial
Ans. The key is A. Aorto iliac. [saddle embolus; surgical intervention].
Page 718 OHCM 9th edition.
Patient is suufering from leriche’s syndrome.
Classic triad of:
• Pain and claudication of buttock and thighs (pale cold leg)
• Erectile dysfunction from aorto iliac occlusive disease

108
• Absent femoral and distal pulse.
1638. A 78yo man has collapsed. He has had a severe headache for 12 hours and had an URTI 3d
ago. He has a temp=39.2C, pulse=122bpm, BP=84/60mmHg and RR=34bpm but his chest is clear. He
has a GCS=10 and some neck stiffness. He has been started on high-flow oxygen. What is the SINGLE
most appropriate immediate management?
a. IV antibiotic; CT brain scan
b. IV antibiotic; LP
c. IV fluids; CT brain scan
d. IV fluids; IV antibiotic
e. IV fluids; LP
Ans. The key is D. IV Fluids; IV antibiotic [This is GMC sample question. GMC given key is D. IV fluids;
IV antibiotic].
1641. A 72yo man being investigated for anaemia is booked for a colonoscopy in 24 hours. What is
the SINGLE most appropriate management the night before the procedure?
a. Bisacodyl tablets
b. Glycerine suppository
c. Lactulose syrup
d. Magnesium citrate (orally)
e. Senna tablets
Ans. The key is D. Magnesium Citrate (Orally)
1642. A 19yo woman has had progressive bilateral iliac fossa pain and dyspareunia for 3days. She
has an offensive vaginal discharge and feels unwell and feverish. Her temp=39C. An initial
antimicrobial regimen is commenced. What SINGLE set of organisms are the most appropriate
for the antimicrobial regimen to cover?
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Candida albicans

109
b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Candida albicans and Gardnerellavaginalia
c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis and Candida albicans
e. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis and Gardnerellavaginalis
Ans. The key is C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis [GMC sample question].
1647. A 38yo man with longstanding alcohol dependence has vertigo and a tremor every morning.
What is the SINGLE most likely dx?
a. Anxiety
b. Benign positional vertigo
c. Cerebellar degeneration
d. Optic neuritis
e. Temporal lobe epilepsy
Ans. The key is C. Cerebellar degeneration. [chronic alcohol abuse that leads to temporary or
permanent cerebellar damage].
1648. An 84yo woman with Alzheimer's dementia has recently become incontinent and more
confused than usual. What is the SINGLE most likely dx?
a. Detrusor overactivity
b. Neuropathic bladder
c. Nocturnal enuresis
d. UTI
e. Uterine prolapse
Ans. The key is D. UTI. [In UTI there may be incontinence of urine and confusion].
1652. A 35yo pt has been dx with schizophrenia. He mimics the doctors and attendants – doing the
same physical actions as them. What symptom does this pt have?
a. Echopraxia
b. Echolalia
110
c. Perseveration
d. Apraxia
e. Anosognosia
Ans. The key is A. Echopraxia. [Echopraxia is the involuntary repetition or imitation of another
person's actions. Similar to echolalia, which is the involuntary repetition of sounds and language.
Echopraxia has long been recognized as a core feature of Tourette syndrome, and is considered a
complex tic, but it also occurs in autism spectrum disorders, schizophrenia and catatonia].
1653. A pt has loss of sensation on the tip of her tongue and the inner aspect of the lip. Which nerve
is
most likely to be involved?
a. Vagus nerve
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve
c. Lingual nerve
d. Buccal nerve
e. Facial nerve
Ans. The key is C. Lingual Nerve.
1654. A 51yo woman complains of difficulty swallowing and also reddish dots on her skin. A pic of
her hand is seen. What is the most appropriate term for the condition you would expect to see?
a. Sclerodactyly
b. RA
c. Swan neck deformity

111
d. Polydactyly
e. Ulnar deformity
Ans. The key is A. sclerodactyly. [Patient is suffering from crest syndrome, sclerodactyly is one of the
features].
1656. A 65yo pt who had MI 1yr ago now comes to the ED complaining that his neighbor is
conspiring
against him. When his son is asked, he denies it and also narrates that sometimes his father says
that everybody in his office is always talking about him, which is not the case. What is the most
appropriate med?
a. TCA
b. Clozapine
c. Olanzapine
d. Lorazepam
Ans. The key is C. Olanzapine. [Schizophrenia treated with olanzapine].
1658. Which finding, on clinical examination of the pulse, suggests a diagnosis of hypertrophic
obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)?
a. Irregularly irregular pulse suggesting A-fib
b. Pulsusalternans
c. Pulsusbigeminus
d. Pulsusbisferiens
e. Pulsusparadoxus
Ans. The key is D. Pulsusbisferiens. [Pulsusbisferiens, is a sign where, on palpation of the pulse, a
double peak per cardiac cycle can be appreciated. Bisferious means striking twice. Classically, it is
detected when aortic insufficiency exists in association with aortic stenosis,[1] but may also be
found in hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy].
1660. A 17-year-old boy is diagnosed with scabies. Which of the following statements regarding
scabies is correct?
a. Is best treated by salicylate emulsion
b. It can be spread by a droplet infection
c. It causes itchiness in the skin even where there is no obvious lesion to be seen
112
d. It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus
e. Typically affects the face
Ans. The key is C. It causes itchiness in the skin even where there is no obvious lesion to be seen.
1662. An association with HPV is a most characteristic feature of?
a. Torus
b. Exostosis
c. Pleomorphic adenoma
d. Verruca vulgaris
e. Fibroma
f. Epulis fissuratum
g. Mucocele
h. Pyogenic granuloma
i. Parulis
j. Ranula
Ans. The key is D. Verruca vulgaris. [It is most commonly associated with warts or verruca vulgaris].
1663. For the following type of surgery what is the most likely agent that may cause post-operative
infection -- aorto-iliofemoral reconstruction with a Dacron vascular prosthesis?
a. Proteus
b. E.coli
c. Bacteroides fragilis
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Staphylococcus epidermis
f. C.perfringens
g. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
h. Streptococcus fecalis
i. Streptococcus pneumonia
j. Brucella melitensis
113
Ans. The key is E. Staphylococcus epidermidis. [Staphylococcus epidermidis is most common cause
of infections in prosthesis].
1664. A primigravida in the 17th week of her symptomless gestation is found, on US, to have
evidence
of placental tissue covering the cervical os. By the end of her pregnancy she is likely to develop?
a. Placental migration
b. Uterine myoma
c. Uterine rupture
d. Choriocarcinoma
e. Chorangioma
f. Vasa previa
g. Subplacental abruption
placenta
h. Subchorionic abruption
placenta
i. Placenta accrete
j. Placenta previa
Ans. The key is A. Placental migration. [In 90% of pregnancies, an initial low lying placenta will be
pulled upwards by the growing uterus and assume a normal position in the upper segment. This
phenomenon is referred to as Migration].
1665. An elderly lady with COPD has chronic SOB. She is listed for cataract extraction. What is the
anaesthetic of choice?
a. Facial nerve block
b. Bupivacaine infiltration of the
peri-orbital skin
c. IV midazolam
114
d. Peribulbar acupuncture
e. Peribulbar lignocaine
infiltration
f. Topical xylocaine
g. IV alfentanil
h. Epidural anesthesia
i. General anesthesia
j. Retrobulbar xylocaine Inj
Ans. The key is E. Peribulbar lignocaine. [The most used mode of anaesthesia in ophthalmic feild is
peribulbar lignocaine].
1666. A 55yo chronic alcoholic with known hepatic cirrhosis has been on a heavy bout of alcohol the
night before and was brought home by friends after falling several times in the pub. While being
taken up the stairs to his bedroom he falls down the flight of 5 steps but sustains no obvious
injuiry. His wife calls the ED the next day because she could not rouse him in the morning. He is
brought in in a comatose state and both pupils appear dilated. Skull vault XR appears normal.
a. Hepatic encephalopathy
b. Intracerebral hematoma
c. Brain stem injury
d. Extradural hematoma
e. Chronic subdural hemorrhage
f. Despressed skull fx
g. Vertibrobasilar ischemia
h. Acute subdural hematoma
i. SAH
j. Severe migraine attack

115
Ans. The key is H. Acute subdural hematoma. [Acute subdural hemotoma, typical history of alcholics,
falls and usually debilliated or elderly, hepatic cirrhosis increases coagulopathy and chances for
bleed].
1669. A pt has fine nail pitting, small yellow-brown areas of discoloration in the nailbed involving the
nails on both hands. These findings a
re commonly associated with?
a. Yellow nail syndrome
b. Leukonychia
c. Onychomycosis
d. Lichen planus
e. Pellagra
f. Thallium toxicity
g. Contact dermatitis
h. Zinc deficiency
i. Hypoalbuminemia
j. Psoriasis
Ans. The key is J. Psoriasis. [Characteristic nail changes include pitting, discolouration, subungual
hyperkeratosis, crumbling of the nail plate, and onycholysis].
1670. A young man develops nonfluent, effortful speech with dysarthria. He is able to undertsand
speech. He fails to repeat the sentence. What would you do next?
a. XR skull
b. Non-contrast CT brain
c. Contrast CT brain
d. Contrast MRI optic nerves
e. 4-vessel cerebral angiogram
f. Single vessel cerebral
angiogram
g. Cerebral angiography
116
h. MRI frontal lobe
i. MRI pituitary gland
j. MRI temporal lobe
Ans. The key is H. MRI Frontal lobe. (Brocas area). [Production (Broca's) dysphasia/aphasia - lesions
are located in the left pre-central areas. This is a non-fluent or expressive aphasia since there are
deficits in speech production, prosody and syntactic comprehension. Patients will typically exhibit
slow and halting speech but with good semantic content. Comprehension is usually good. Unlike
Wernicke's aphasia, Broca's patients are aware of their language difficulties. Prosody is the study of
the meter of verse. Here it means the rhythm of speech.
Sensory (Wernicke's) dysphasia/aphasia - lesions are located in the left posterior perisylvian region
and primary symptoms are general comprehension deficits, word retrieval deficits and semantic
paraphasias. Lesions in this area damage the semantic content of language while leaving the
language production function intact. The consequence is a fluent or receptive aphasia in which
speech is fluent but lacking in content. Patients lack awareness of their speech difficulties. Semantics
is the meaning of words. Semantic paraphrasia is the substitution of a semantically related but
incorrect word].
1671. A pt being sedated with fentanyl develops severe respiratory depression. This is best reversed
using?
a. Ethanol
b. Naloxone
c. Phyostigmine
d. Atropine
e. Methylene blue
f. Diphenhydramine
g. Calcium disodium ethylene
diamine tetra-acetic acid
h. Deferoxamine mesylate
i. Flumazenil
j. Folic acid
117
Ans. The key is B. Naloxone. [Opioid Antagonist, reverses the effects of fentanyl, though it has to be
administeres for a longer period of time due long half life of fentanyl].
1673. A 20yo prv healthy woman presents with general malaise, severe cough and breathlessness
which has not improved with a seven day course of amoxycillin. There is nothing significant to
find on examination. The x-ray shows patchy shadowing throughout the lung fields. The blood
film shows clumping of red cells with suggestion of cold agglutinins.
a. Mycobacterium avium complex
b. Coxiella burnetii
c. Escherichia coli (Gram -ve)
d. Haemophilus influenza
e. Legionella pneumophila
f. Strep pneumococcus
g. TB
h. Mycoplasma pneumonia
i. PCP
j. Staph aureus
Ans. The key is H. Mycoplasma pneumonia. [Inability to respond to a seven day course of amoxicillin
suggests atypical pneumonia, patchy shadows throughout lung fields and cold agglutination points
towards mycoplasma].
1674. An 18yo male works in a company where lunches are often catered. One day, the water at the
company facility is not working, but they manage to have the lunch anyway. 2wks later, he becomes
sick. He develops anorexia, nausea, malaise and jaundice. During the course of the next 4wks, 7
people who shared in the lunch become ill with similar symptoms. After a few wks, each of the 7
people completely recovers and they replace their caterer. What is a likely dx?
a. Pancreatic ca
b. Hemochromatosis
c. Laennec’s cirrhosis
d. Hep A
e. HCC
118
f. Rotor’s syndrome
g. Primary biliary cirrhosis
h. Gilbert’s syndrome
i. Hep B
j. Hemolysis
Ans. The key is D. Hepatitis A. [Symptoms of Hepatitis A range from mild nauseas to liver failure
(very rare).Spread is normally by the faecal-oral route although there are occasional outbreaks
through food sources.Hand washing and good hygiene around food and drink prevent spread of
infection.Increasing age is a direct determinant of disease severity].
1676. An infant is being examined as part of a routine examination. The child can hold its head up
and
lifts its chest off a table. He has a palmer and rooting reflex as well as a social smile. He is not
afraid of strangers. What is the most likely age of this child?
a. neonate
b. 2 months
c. 6 months
d. one year
e. one and a half years
f. two years
g. four years
h. seven years
i. ten years
j. fourteen year
Ans. The key is C. 6 months.
1678. A 2m girl has an ante-natal diagnosis of right hydronephrosis. Postnatal serial US exams
revealed
119
increasing dilatation of the right pelvicalyceal system. No reflux was demonstrated on a MUCG.
Appropriate management should include?
a. Surgical repair
b. Intermittent catheterization
c. Diuresis renography
d. Anticholinergic agents
e. Phenylpropanolamine
f. Gellhorn pessary
g. Biofeedback-assisted behavioral
treatment
h. Oral Estrogen therapy
i. Vaginal Estrogen therapy
j. Ring pessary
Ans. The key is C. Diuresis renography. [Antenatal hydronephrosis and increasing postnatal
hydronephrosis on US should go for Diuresis renography for evaluation of possible pyeloplasty].
1679. Jean is a 72yo woman with recurrent bowel cancer following a hemi-colectomy 2y ago. She is
known to have both local recurrence and liver mets and her pain has been under control on MST
90mg bd. She has had quite severe pain in the RUQ for the past hour despite having taken her
normal dose of MST. You find that she has an enlarged liver which is hard and irregular. There is
marked localised tenderness over the right lobe of her liver. Her abdomen is otherwise soft and
non-tender and the bowel sounds are normal. She is apyrexial. The tx of choice would be?
a. Oral NSAIDs
b. TENS
c. radio therapy to the liver
d. IM diamorphine
e. Paracetamol
f. Prednisolone
120
g. Physiotherapy
h. epidural anaesthetic
i. Pitocin
j. Aspirin
Ans. The key is D. IM diamorphine.
1680. Titubation is a feature of disease involving the?
a. Cerebellum
b. Basal ganglia
c. Corpus callosum
d. Pons
e. Temporal lobe
f. Occipital lobe
g. Optic chiasma
h. 3rd ventricle
i. Hypothalamus
j. Pituitary gland
Ans. The key is A. Cerebellum [Titubations (head/body nodding) mostly occur due to cerebellar
lesions].
1681. A 50yo farmer complains of pain in his left arm. Exam: he appears to have a neuropathy
affecting isolated nerves in multiple, random areas of his left arm. He also has a palpable
purpura and tender nodules on both of his upper and lower limbs. A likely diagnosis is?
a. Carpal tunnel syndrome
b. Polyarteritis nodosa
c. Angina Pectoris
d. Gout
121
e. Cellulitis
f. Rheumatoid arthritis
g. Erysipelas
h. Fascitis
i. Reiter's Syndrome
j. Polymyalgia Rheumatica
Ans. B. Polyarteritis nodosa. [Presentaion:Peripheral nerves and skin are the most frequently
affected tissues. PURPURA, LIVEDOID, SUBCUTANEOUS NODULES and NECROTIC ULCERS.
Neurologically, MONONEURITIS MULTIPLEX>...involvemnet of CNS, GIT, kidneys and heart means
higher mortality. RENAL INVOLVEMENT: hypertension, Renal failure, GIT:necrosis, perforation.
Myalgia].
1682. A patient with chronic neutropenia develops a chronic cough. A CXR reveals a cavitating
intrapulmonary lesion containing a movable rounded ball lesion. A likely dx is?
a. Tuberculosis
b. Bronchiectasis
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Pulmonary hemosiderosis
e. Mitral stenosis
f. Aspergillosis
g. Wegener’s granulomatosis
h. Goodpasture’s syndrome
i. Pulmonary embolism
j. Non-SCLC
Ans. The key is F. Aspergillosis. [Mostly affects people with reduced immunity, reduced neutrophil
count is also predilection for aspergillosis].
1683. A mother brings her 1yo infant to her pediatrician. She describes that following a common
cold
122
her child's voice has become hoarse and has developed a cough that sounds harsh and brassy
and was worse at night. Exam: the child was noted to have trouble drawing air into its lungs
between coughs and had trouble drawing air into its lungs. There was visible stridor on
inhalation. The cause is most likely to be?
a. EBV
b. Rhinovirus
c. Parainfluenza
d. Flavivirus
e. HIV
f. Rotavirus
g. CMV
h. Kemerovo
i. Creutzfeld-Jacob
j. Rubella
Ans: Parainfuenza. [Parainfluenza virus causes croup. A rough barking cough with hoarsness and
wheezing, labored breathing, runny nose, fever, cough, decreased appetitie are common features].
Investigation: Viral culture of secretions.
Treatment: Symptoatic supportive treatment
Antibiotics incase of secondary infection.
1684. INR:Normal, APTT:Elevated, Thrombin time:Elevated, Plt count:Normal, Bleeding time:

Normal.
A likely aetiology is?
a. Waldenström's
macroglobulinaemia
b. Heparin
c. Sézary cell leukaemia

123
d. Pelger-Hüet anomaly
e. von Willebrand's disease
f. Haemophilia
g. HIV infection
h. DIC
i. Acanthocytosis
j. Vit K deficiency
Ans: Heparin
1685. An infant has diarrhea for 3d with weight loss from 10 kg to 9 kg. Exam: he is noted to have
dry
mucous membranes, poor skin turgor, markedly decreased urine output, and tachycardia. His
BP=normal and compression-release of the nail beds shows satisfactory refilling. Appropriate
treatment would include?
a. Plasmapheresis and plasma
infusion
b. 0.5% Normal Saline
c. Lactated Ringer's injection
d. Packed cells
e. Whole blood
f. Platelets
g. FFP
h. double strength Normal Saline
i. 5% dextrose in 0.5N saline
solution
j. IV heparin
Ans. The key is C. Lactated Ringer's injection.

124
1686. A 4yo boy has the sudden onset of bone pain. He begins experiencing bleeding of his
gums and frequent bloody noses. His mother takes him to his pediatrician. Exam: he is pale and has
numerous petechiae over his body, with lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. He has
WBC=100,000mm and numerous circulating blast cells. He is admitted to the hospital. A bone
marrow biopsy=35% blast cells. Which of the following is most likely?
a. Mantle cell lymphoma
b. Infectious lymphocytosis
c. Waldenstrom’s
macroglobulinemia
d. CML
e. CLL
f. Burkitt lymphoma
g. ALL
h. Mycosis fungoides
i. Hairy cell leukemia
j. AML
Ans. The key is ALL. This is wrong key! Correct key is AML. [s/s are suggestive of AML short Hx, wbc
100000, petechiae, with lymphadenopathy, very high blast cell count, nose bleeds and
hepatosplenomegaly. Clinically it is very difficult to differentiate between AML and ALL. Lymphocytic
means it develops from early (immature) forms of lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell. This is
different from acute myeloid leukemia (AML), which develops in other blood cell types found in the
bone marrow].
1687. A 63yo male has anal canal carcinoma with no evidence of spread to the pelvic wall, pelvic
muscles or lymph nodes. This is typically managed by?
a. Resection of the sigmoid colon
b. Right hemicolectomy
c. Left hemicolectomy
d. Transverse colectomy
e. Internal sphincterotomy
125
f. CT guided drainage
g. Diverticulectomy
h. Transverse colostomy
i. Chemotherapy and radiatherapy
j. Abdominal perineal resection
Ans. The key is I. Chemotherapy and radiotherapy. [This is T1 N0 M0 that is stage 1 cancer.
(http://www.cancer.gov/types/anal/hp/anal-treatment-pdq#section/_45).
BUT we don’t have tumor size here and sphincter information. However surgery can be avoided To
preserve sphincter. Chemo radiation is preferred ohcm 633; 9th ed].
1688. A 2m baby develops a life-threatening anemia. Blood tests show a normal serum iron, ferritin
and TIBC. Hemoglobin electrophoresis reveals a markedly decreased Hemoglobin A content and an
increased hemoglobin F content. This baby's anemia is likely to be secondary to?
a. Failure of alpha chain production
b. Failure of beta chain production
c. Deficiency d. Lead poisoning of
B12
e. IDA
f. Presence of hemoglobin S
g. Presence of hemoglobin M
h. Deficiency of folate
i. Bone marrow failure
j. Inability to manufacture heme
Ans. The key is B. Failure of beta chain production.
1689. A 30yo caucasian man presented with a 2wk hx of gradually worsening vision in his left eye.
The patient had been seen once by a neurologist 2yrs prv for flashes. At that time a head CT was
normal. The patient was lost to follow up with the neurologist, but the flashes had continued for the
126
2yr period. The patient did not experience visual changes with activity or movement. The patient
reported continued decreasing vision. Goldmann visual fields were done and showed a central
scotoma. A MRI was done at this time and showed inflammation of the left optic nerve. A likely
diagnosis is?
a. Pseudotumor
b. Orbital teratoma
c. Optic neuritis
d. Sarcoidosis
e. Optic glioma
f. Lymphangioma
g. Rhabdomyosarcoma
h. Retinal vascular shunts
i. Retinoblastoma
j. Mucormycosis
Ans. The key is C. Optic neuritis [Possible diagnosis is MS. Scotoma, 2yr Hx, age race are suggestive
except more in females than males].
1690. A pregnant woman in an early stage of labour expresses the wish to have pain relief during
labour. The anesthetist describes that if the patient wishes he can use medication as a local
anesthetic to block the pain sensations of labour. Into which space should the local anaesthetic
be normally injected?
a. Anterior pararenal space
b. Aryepiglottic space
c. Vestibule space
d. Epidural space
e. Sub-arachnoid space
f. Space of Disse
g. Middle ear
h. Posterior pararenal space

127
i. Supraglottic space j. Lesser sac
Ans. The key is D. Epidural space.
1691. A 29yo Afro-Caribbean man presents with a non-productive cough mild aches in the ankles.
The symptoms have been present for 2m. His ESR is elevated. Ca: 2.69 mmol/l; PO4 -: 1.20 mmol/l;
ALP: 80 iu/L. Serum 25(OH) D: 180 nmol/l
Normal values for Calcium: 2.12-2.65mmol/l; Phosphate: 0.8-1.45mmol/l; ALP 30-300iu/L; Serum
25(OH) D: 20-105nmol/l; Urea: 2.5-6.7mmol/l; Creatinine: 70-120μmol/l
a. Osteoporosis
b. Thiazide diuretics
c. Skeletal metastases
d. Primary hyperparathyroidism
e. Hypoparathyroidism
f. Osteomalacia
g. Multiple myeloma
h. Paget's disease of bone
i. Sarcoidosis
j. Hyperthyroidism
Ans. The key is I. Sarcoidosis.
1692. A 22yo has had recent chickenpox. He now presents with confusion. He is noted to have low
urine output and large petechiae all over his body. CXR: a large patch of consolidation is seen. The
management of choice should be :
a. Ventilatory support
b. Open surgical debridement
c. Resection of superficial
128
petechiae with wide margin
d. Booster vaccine
e. TENS
f. Lontophoresis
g. Nephrostomy
h. Oral Corticosteroids
i. Brivudin
j. IV acyclovir
Ans. The key is J. IV acyclovir.
1693. A young girl with a psychiatric hx on med tx is brought to the dermatologist by her mother
because of recurrent patchy hair loss. Exam: the hair shafts revealed twisting and fractures. This
suggests the following pathology:
a. Infection with Trichophyton tonsurans
b. Infection with Microsporum canis
c. Alopecia areata
d. Telogen Effluvium
e. Androgenetic Alopecia
f. Lichen planus
g. Traction Alopecia
h. Alopecia totalis
i. Trichorrhexis nodosa
j. Trichotillomania
Ans. The key is J. Trichotillomania.
1695. A middle aged woman has severe collapse of the right femoral head requiring replacement.
The
removed femoral head is sent for pathology and is found to contain enlarged fat cells. The
pathologist explains that this is the likely cause of the patient's femoral head collapse. A likely
129
aetiology is
a. Septic emboli
b. Impaired venous drainage
c. Hgb SS disease
d. Steroid use
e. Alcoholism
f. Gaucher's disease
g. missed fracture
h. Cushing's disease
i. Radiation
j. Vasculitis
Ans. The key is F. Gaucher’s disease. [Couldn’t get much reliable info about this question!]
1696. A 7yo boy with frequent episodic asthma is on tx with sodium cromoglycate. His physician
wants
to add a non-steroid preventer. The mother of the boy, a teacher, has just read about a nonsteroidal
medication which acts on the mast cells, stopping them from releasing harmful
chemicals. Her physician agrees to add this medication to the boy's drug regimen. Which
medication is the physician most likely to add to the boy's treatment?
a. Inhaled short acting
bronchodilator
b. SC adrenaline
c. Nedocromil Sodium
d. Inhaled long acting
bronchodilator
e. Inhaled sodium cromoglycate
f. Inhaled steroids
130
g. Inhaled SABA
h. Oral steroids
i. Nebulised bronchodilators
j. Oral theophylline
Ans. The key is C. Nedochromil Sodium.
1700. A 68yo man presents with bruising and hx of falls. He is found to have a mask-like face,
pillrolling tremor and shuffling gait. EEG=normal. Which of the following conditions is he most likely
being treated for?
a. HTN
b. DM
c. Psychosis
d. TIA
e. Complex partial seizure
Ans. The key is C. Psychosis. [Antipsychotics can lead to parkinsonism].
1702. A 23yo male presents to his GP 2wks after a RTA concerned about increasing anxiety lethargy
and headache. At the time he had a CT brain after banging his head on the steering wheel, which
revealed no abnormality. 6m following this episode his symptoms have resolved. What did his
original symptoms likely represent?
a. Conversion disorder
b. PTSD
c. Somatization disorder
d. GAD
e. Post-concussion syndrome
Ans. The key is E. Post concussion syndrome. [Post concussion syndrome is a set of symptoms that
may continue for weeks, months, or a year or more after a concussion – a minor form of traumatic
brain injury].
1706. A 35yo man skidded on a wet road while riding his motorbike at a speed of 70mph. He has a
large hematoma on temporal scalp, some bruises on chest wall and abdomen and a deformed thigh.
GCS 11/15. High flow oxygen via mask given. Most immediate radiological inv required during initial
resuscitation phase?
131
a. CXR
b. CT brain
c. CT abdomen
d. XR femur
Ans. The key is A. CXR. [CXR may reveal possible chest structure trauma requiring urgent attention
which may be life saving while brain lesion need time consuming CT and tx and fracture femur may
be managed taking more time].

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1700 files explained by Dr. Khalid Saifullah (Question 1 to question 1707)

August 10, 2018 version.

drainage of this area?

Ans. Key is B. Superficial inguinal LN.

equivocal. Where is the lesion?

a. Left cervical cord

b. Midline mid-thoracic cord

c. Right mid-thoracic cord

d. Left mid-thoracic cord

e. Left lumbo-sacral plexus

Q. 1. What is the key?

Q. 2. What is the name of this condition?

Ans. 1. The key is d. Left mid-thoracic cord.

infection in the past. What’s the most likely cause?

Q. 1. What is the key?

Q. 2. Justify your answer.

Ans. 1. The key is A. Branchial cyst.

clothes smelling of ammonia. What is the next step in management?

Q. 1. What is the key?

Q. 2. What is the cause of this retention?

Ans. 1. The key is A. Urethral catheter.

a. Jejunal villous atrophy

b. Chronic diarrhea secretions

e. Increased secretions of acid

Q. What is the key?

Ans. The key is C. Malabsorption.

medication do you want to add?

Q. 2. Please mention why?

disability due to very low vision. What’s the dx?

Q. 1. What is the key?

Q. 2. Why it is not the other given D/D s?

Ans. 1. The key is D. Retinitis pigmentosa.

Q. 1. What is the key?

Q. 2. What is the diagnosis?

Ans. 1. The key is B. Atrial septal defect.

Q. 1. What is the key?

Q. 2. What is the diagnosis?

Q. 3. What are the causes of it?

Q. 4. What is the management?

Ans. 1. The key is A. X-ray abdomen.

Ans. 2. The diagnosis is paralytic ileas.

What is the next management?

b. Cervical smear (2nd line)

d. Antibiotics (1st line)

f. Pack with gauze and leave to dry

Q. 1. What is the key?

Q. 2. Points in favour correct of key.

the single most likely predisposing factor for PPH?

d. Von Willebrand disease

Q. 1. What is the key?

Q. 2. What type of PPH it would be?

Ans. 1. The key is C. uterine infection.

Ans. 2. Secondary PPH

GA. Select the most appropriate management for this case.

e. Uterine artery embolization

Q. 1. What is the key?

Q. 2. What are the point in favour of your answer?

Ans. 1. The key is A. Tension pneumothorax.

most probable dx?