28 June 2022 Shift 1 Memory Based Questions

JEE Main Exam 2022 - Session 1
28 June 2022 - Shift 1 (Memory-Based Questions)
Section A: Physics
Q.1. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of constant radius r such that its centripetal acceleration ac is varying with
time t as ac = k2rt2 , where k is a constant. The power delivered to the particle by the force acting on it is -
A) 2πmk2r2
B) mk2r2t
C) (mk4r2t5)
3
D) Zero
Answer: mk2r2t
Solution: ac = k2rt2
2
Or vr = k2rt2 Or v = krt
dv
Therefore, tangential acceleration, at = dt = kr
Therefore, tangential force, Ft = mat = mkr

Only tangential force does work.
Power = Ftv = (mkr) (krt) ⇒Power = mk2r2t
Q.2. For the following gate the output Y is given by
A) A+B
B) A+B
C) A⋅B
D) A⋅B
Answer: A⋅B
Solution:
This gate is a NAND Gate. It is the combination of two basic logic gates, the AND gate and the NOT gate connected in
series. The logic NAND function is given by the Boolean expression Y = ¯A ¯¯¯⋅¯¯B
¯¯¯.
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Q.3. In the diagram shown, if tension in string is x5 M g . Find the value of x.
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9
Answer: 6
Solution:
Equation for 4M : 2M g − T = 4M a . . . (1)
Equation for M : T − M g = M a . . . (2)
Adding both equation we get,

g
M g = 5M a ⇒ a = 5
6Mg
Now, tension T = M g + M a =
5
Therefore, x = 6
Solving both above two equation we get:

g 6Mg
a = 5 ,T = 5
x=6
Q.4. The work function of metal surface is 6. 63 × 10−19 J. Find the maximum wavelength which can eject photoelectron from this
surface.
A) 300 nm
B) 350 nm
C) 400 nm
D) 450 nm
Answer: 300 nm

Solution: Here, Work function ϕ = 6. 63 × 10−19 J.
hc 6.63×10−34×3×108
Now, threshold wavelength, λ0 = ϕ =
6.63×10−19
⇒ λ0 = 300 nm
Q.5. o
Resolving power of a telescope for the aperture 24.4 cm for the wavelength λ = 2440A is
A) 2. 5 × 10−5
B) 8. 2 × 105
C) 5. 0 × 10−4
D) 7. 5 × 106
Answer: 8. 2 × 105
Solution: Given,
The diameter of the objective lens, D = 24.4 cm

∘
The wavelength of the light, λ = 2440 A
The resolving power of a telescope is given by,
24.4×10−2
R. P = D
1.22λ
⇒ R. P = = 8.2 × 105
1.22×2440×10−10
Hence, the resolving power of a telescope is 8.2 × 105.
Q.6. Charges are arranged on the corners of a square of side length a as shown below. Find the electric field at corner B.
( √2 + 1) a2
A) kq
( √2 + 2) a2
B) kq
( √2 + 1) 2a2
C) kq
D) None of these
( √2 + 1) 2a2
Answer: kq

Solution:
k( ) k( )
q q
kq kq k(q) kq
EA = 2
= 2a2
, EC = 2
= 2a2
and ED = = 2a2
(√2a)
a2 a2 2
As we can see from diagram, EC & EA are perpendicular.

Therefore, net electric field will be,
2 2
+ √( 2a2 ) + ( 2a2 ) =
kq kq kq kq kq
= 2a2 2a2
+
√2a2
= ( √2 + 1) ( 2a2 )
kq
Q.7. Water drop 2 cm diameter gets divided into 64 equal droplets, the surface tension of the water is 0.075 N m−1. Find gain in
surface energy
A) 1. 9 × 10−3 J
B) 2. 8 × 10−4 J
C) 3. 23 × 10−3 J
D) 1. 51 × 10−4 J
Answer: 2. 8 × 10−4 J
By conserving the total volume 4 πR3 = 64 × ( 4 πr3) ⇒ R = 4r

Solution:
3 3
Change in surface energy is
ΔU = T × ΔA, = T [64 × 4πr2 − 4πR2]
= 4πTR2 [64 × 16
1
− 1]
= 12 × 3. 14 × 0. 075 × 10−4
≈ 2. 8 × 10−4 J
Q.8. x & y co-ordinate of a particle is given below as a function of time. Find the shape of the path covered.
x = 4 sin ( π2 − ωt)
y = 4 sin (ωt)
A) Circle
B) Helix
C) Parabola

D) Ellipse
Answer: Circle
x = 4 sin ( π2 − ωt) = 4 cos (ωt)

Solution:
y = 4 sin (ωt)
Clearly,
x2 + y2 = (4 cos (ωt))2 + (4 sin (ωt))2
⇒ x2 + y2 = 16
Hence, the path covered by particle is a circle.
Q.9. A man of 60 kg is running towards the stationary trolley of 120 kg. The man jumps up on the trolley. The velocity of the trolley
becomes 2 m s−1. What was the original velocity of man?
A) 4 m s−1
B) 5 m s−1
C) 6 m s−1
D) 8 m s−1
Answer: 6 m s−1
Solution: Applying conservation of the momentum,
mm u = (mm + mt)v ⇒ 60u = (60 + 120) × 2 ⇒ u = 6 m s−1
Q.10. Match The following:
Column I Column II
A. TV signal I. 6 MHz
B. Radio signal II. 2 MHz
C. Human voice III. 3 kHz
D. Music voice IV. 20 kHz
A) A − I, B − II, C − III, D − IV
B) A − II, B − I, C − III, D − IV
C) A − I, B − II, C − IV , D − III
D) A − II, B − III, C − I, D − IV
Answer: A − I, B − II, C − III, D − IV
Solution: TV signal → 6 MHz
Radio signal → 2 MHz
Human voice → 3 kHz
Music voice → 20 kHz

Q.11. For what value of R the current in 10 Ω resistor will be zero?
A) 10 Ω
B) 2Ω
C) 3Ω
D) 4Ω
Answer: 2Ω
Solution: This is a Wheatstone circuit. For the current to be zero the Wheatstone circuit should be balanced. Therefore,
R 4
3
= 6
⇒R=2Ω
Q.12. Assertion: Product of pressure and time has the same dimensions as coefficient of viscosity.
Force
Reason: Coefficient of viscosity is expressed as η = Velocity gradient
.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
C) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
D) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Answer: Assertion is true but Reason is false.
Viscous force is given by F = ηA ( d t ) , here, A is area and d t is velocity gradient.

Solution: dv dv
F
Thus, η = .
)
dv
A(
dt
Now, Pt = A t = η ( d t )t
F dv
Then, [Pt] = M L−1T −1 = [η]
Thus, assertion is true but reason is false.
Q.13. Statement 1: n‐ p‐ n transistor conducts more current than p‐ n‐ p transistor
Statement 2: In n‐ p‐ n transistor, electrons have more mobility than holes.
A) Both statements are true
B) S1 is true and S2 is false

C) S1 is false and S2 is true
D) Both statements are false
Answer: Both statements are true
Solution: A n‐ p‐ n transistor has more electrons than holes, and p‐ n‐ p transistor has more holes than electrons. When a voltage is
applied, then the movement of electrons is greater than holes. Therefore, conduction current in n‐ p‐ n transistor is more than
that in p‐ n‐ p transistor.
Both statements are true.
Q.14. If a positive charged particle is moved against an electric field then its
A) Potential energy will increase
B) Potential energy will decrease
C) Potential energy will remain same
D) Behaviour of potential energy is unpredictable
Answer: Potential energy will increase
Solution: If a positive charge is moved against the Coulomb force of an electric field, then the negative work is done by the electric field.
Energy is used from some outside source which provides positive work. The change in the potential energy is defined as the
negative of the work done by the electrostatic force.
ΔU = − (−WE) = WE. Hence, the potential energy of the charged particle will increase.
Q.15. Two planets revolve around Sun such that their time periods of revolution TA and TB are related by TA = 2TB. If their radii of
revolution are rA and rB, then:
A) 4r3A = r3B
B) r3A = 4r3B
C) 4r2A = r2B
D) r2A = 4r2B
Answer: r3A = 4r3B
Solution: From Kepler's law of periods,
T 2 ∝ R3
Therefore,
2 3
⇒ ( TB ) = ( rAB )
TA r
r3A
⇒ 22 = , ⇒ r3A = 4r3B
r3B
The angle of minimum deviation for a prism having refractive index μ = cot ( 2 ) , where A is the angle of prism, is
Q.16. A
A) 180° − 2A
B) 180° − 3A

C) 90° − A
D) 180° − 4A
Answer: 180° − 2A
Solution: sin
(δ m+A)
As we know, angle of minimum deviation is given by, ⇒ μ = 2

A
sin
2
(δ m+A)
sin
⇒ cot ( A2 ) = 2
A
sin
2
cos( )
A (δ m+A)
sin
⇒ 2
= 2
sin( )
A A
sin
2 2
⇒ sin (90° − A2 ) = sin ( )

δm+A
2
δm+A
Therefore, 90° − A = ⇒ δm = 180° − 2A
2 2
Q.17. The internal energy of 2 mol of ideal monatomic gas at 300 K is

A) 8314 J
B) 12450 J
C) 7470 J
D) 0J
Answer: 7470 J
Solution: The internal energy of an ideal gas is a state function and is given by, U = nCvT .
3
For monatomic gas, Cv = 2 R.
3
Therefore, U = 2 × × 8. 3 × 300 = 7470 J
2
Q.18. If λp and λ are wavelengths of a proton & a photon respectively, having same energy E. Then the ratio of wavelength will be:
(Given mass of proton = m)
c √ 2m
A) 1 E
√ 2m
B) E
√ 2m
C) 1 E
2c
√ 2m
D) 1 E
3c
c √ 2m
Answer: 1 E

Solution: h
As we know, λp = mv ⇒ λp = . . . (1) h
√2mE
hc
Also for photon, λ = . . . (2)
E
h
= 1c √ 2m
λp √2mE E
Therefore,
λ
= hc
E
Q.19. Two waves having wavelengths 4. 08 m and 4. 16 m produce 40 beats in 12 s find velocity of sound in the medium
A) 707 m s−1
B) 330 m s−1
C) 505 m s−1
D) 1028 m s−1
Answer: 707 m s−1
v v
Solution: If the velocity of the sound in the medium is v then, f1 = 4.08 and f2 = 4.16
Now beat frequency,

40 10
fb = Δf = |f1 − f2| = 12
= 3
Hz
⇒ v [ 4.08
1 1
− 4.16 ]= 10
3
Hz ⇒ 707. 2 m s−1
Q.20. A pendulum of length 250 cm is released from rest when string makes angle of 60° with vertical. Find its maximum velocity.
A) 5 m s−1
B) 6 m s−1
C) 7 m s−1
D) 8 m s−1
Answer: 5 m s−1
Solution:
Velocity will be maximum at the bottom point when potential energy of the pendulum will be zero(considering bottom point as
reference for potential energy).
1
2
mv2 = mg (l − l cos 60°)
v = √gl = √10 × 2. 5 = 5 m s−1

→
The position vector and velocity vector of a particle of mass m = 1 kg is given by r = (3 î + ĵ ) m and
Q.21.
→ ∣→∣
v = (3 ĵ − k̂) m s−1. Find x when angular momentum is ∣ L ∣ = √x N m s−1.
∣ ∣
A) 19
B) 81
C) 89
D) 71
Answer: 19
Solution: → → → →
Angular momentum is given by L = r × p , where, p is linear momentum.
→ → →
Then, L = m ( r × v )
= 1 (3 ı̂ + ĵ ) × (3 ĵ − k̂)
= −3k̂ + 3 ĵ − 1 î
∣→∣
∣ L ∣ = √19 N m s−1
∣ ∣

Section B: Chemistry
3+
Q.1. The charge required for reduction of 1 mole of Cr2O2−
7 ions to Cr is
A) 96500 C
B) 6 × 96500 C
C) 3 × 96500 C
D) 2 × 96500 C
Answer: 6 × 96500 C
Solution: 1 faraday of charge is the magnitude of charge of one mole of electrons.

According to the given reaction:
− 3+
Cr2O2−
7 + 6e ⟶ 2Cr
3+
Reduction of 1 mol of Cr2O2−
7 to Cr requires 6 moles of electrons. Hence, charge required = 6 × 96500 C
Q.2. H2
CuO → (P) Product P is:
A) Cu (OH)2
B) Cu (s)
C) Cu2 O
D) All of these
Answer: Cu (s)
Solution: H2
CuO → Cu + H2O
Copper oxide undergoes reduction to form elemental copper and water. This is a redox reaction. Since oxygen is removed
from the CuO it is undergoing reduction. And hydrogen is getting oxidised.
Q.3. Which of the following will show minimum synergic bonding?
A) [Mn (CO)5]
B) [Mn 2 (CO)10]
C) [Cr (CO)6]
D) [Fe (CO)5]
Answer: [Cr (CO)6]

Solution: Synergic bonding involves transference of electrons from ligands to metal. The transference of electrons takes place from
filled metal orbitals to anti-bonding orbitals of ligands. It is a bond between a carbonyl group acting as a ligand and a metal.
Synergic bonding means self strengthening bond. More the number of d electrons on the central metal ion more the synergic
bonding. In metal carbonyls' oxidation state of the metal is zero.
In the complex [Mn (CO)5], the electronic configuration of Mn is 3d54s2. As carbon monoxide is a strong field, pairing of
electrons occurs. Hence, the new electronic configuration of Mn is 3d7.
In the case of [Mn 2 (CO)10] also electronic configuration after pairing of electrons is 3d7.
In the complex [Cr (CO)6] , the electronic configuration of Cr is 3d54s1 . As carbon monoxide is a strong field, pairing of
electrons occurs. Hence, the new electronic configuration of Cr is 3d6
In the case of [Fe (CO)5], the electronic configuration of iron after pairing of electrons is 3d8.
Q.4. Which is not a copolymer?
A) Neoprene
B) Buna-N
C) Buna-S
D) Nylon-6, 6
Answer: Neoprene
Solution: A copolymer is a polymer formed when two (or more) different types of monomers are linked in the same polymer chain, as
opposed to a homopolymer where only one monomer is used.
Q.5. 20 L of an ideal gas is allowed to expand isothermally against vacuum until the total volume becomes 40 L. The amount of
heat absorbed in this expansion (in L atm) is:
A) 0
B) 100
C) 10
D) 1
Answer: 0

Solution: In case of expansion, work is done by system.
Now, as we know that,
W = −Pext. Δ V
As the gas is expanding into vacuums which has no pressure, i.e.,
Pext. = 0
∴ W=0
Hence, no work is done.
From first law of thermodynamics,
ΔU = q + W
As the system is working at constant temperature, i.e., isothermally.
∴ ΔU = 0
Hence q = −W = 0
Q.6. The hybridization of PF5 is spx dy. The value of y is:
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Answer: 1
Solution: The hybridization is sp3 d hybridization and phosphorous atom forms five sp3 d hybrid orbitals. Five hybrid orbitals will be used
to form bonds with five fluorine atoms. There are 5 sigma bonds in this compound.
Q.7.
Product P is:
A)

B)
C)
D)
Answer:

Solution:
Q.8. Which of the following are aromatic?
A) A,B
B) A, C
C) A, D
D) B, D
Answer: A, C

Solution: Species which obey Huckel's rule are considered to be aromatic in nature
Q.9. Which of the following is not a pesticide?
A) DDT
B) Dieldrin
C) Organophosphate
D) Sodium Arsenite
Answer: Sodium Arsenite
Solution: Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT) is an insecticide used in agriculture. Dieldrin a decades-old chlorocarbon insecticide
that has long been banned from use in most of the world. It was introduced in 1948 by the now-defunct J. Organophosphates
are a group of human-made chemicals that poison insects and mammals. Organophosphates are the most widely used
insecticides today. They are used in agriculture, the home, gardens, and veterinary practice.
These days, the pesticide industry has shifted its attention to herbicides such as sodium chlorate (NaClO3), sodium arsenite
(Na3 AsO3 ) and many others.
Q.10. th
An element E belongs to group 16 and 4 period of the periodic table. Find out the valence shell electronic configuration of
the element which is just above 'E'.
A) 2s22p4
B) 5s25p4
C) 3s23p4
D) 4s24p4
Answer: 3s23p4

Solution: General outer electronic configuration of 16th group elements is ns2 np4
16th group element belonging to 4th period is Se and its outer electronic configuration is 4s24p4. The element present above
selenium is sulphur and the outer electronic configuration of sulphur is 3s23p4.
Q.11. The major product in the below reaction is:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer:

Solution: Electrophilic addition reaction will occur according to Markovnikov addition rule.
Benzyllic position, carbocation is formed as an intermediate which is stable due to resonance.
Q.12.
Product P is?
A)
B)
C)

D)
Answer:
Solution:
Q.13. Decomposition of which of the following compounds gives N2:

A) NaNO2
B) NaNO3
C) Ba (N3)2
D) Ba (NO3)2
Answer: Ba (N3)2

Solution: Δ
NaNO3 → NaNO2 + 12 O2
(Thermally stable and does not undergo decomposition further)

Δ
Ba (N3)2 → Ba + 3N2
Δ
2 Ba (NO3)2 → 2BaO + 4 NO2 + O2
Q.14. The zeta potential is a property of colloidal particles for

A) Colour
B) Brownian movement
C) Charge on surface of colloidal particle
D) Tyndall effect
Answer: Charge on surface of colloidal particle
Solution: The combination of the two layers of opposite charges around the colloidal particle is called Helmholtz electrical double layer.
According to modern views, the first layer of ions is firmly held and is termed fixed layer while the second layer is mobile which
is termed diffused layer. Since separation of charge is a seat of potential, the charges of opposite signs on the fixed and
diffused parts of the double layer results in a difference in potential between these layers in the same manner as potential
difference is developed in a capacitor. This potential difference between the fixed layer and the diffused layer of opposite
charges is called the electrokinetic potential or zeta potential.
Q.15. Most stable lanthanoid in divalent form:

A) Eu+2
B) Sm+2
C) Yb+2
D) Ce+2
Answer: Yb+2
Solution: Ce+2 : (xe)4f 2
Eu+2 : (xe)4f 7
Sm+2 : (xe)4f 6
Yb+2 : (xe)4f 14
+2
As Yb has completely filled 4f orbital, so it would be the most stable.
Q.16. Following sequence of reaction is provided.
HNO2(aq) 283°C
−−−−−→ −−−→
Primary amine 273°C A H 2O B
What is B ?
A) Alcohol
B) Amine
C) Nitro compound

D) Alkyl nitride
Answer: Alcohol
Solution: HNO2(aq) 283°C

−−−−−→ −−−→
R − NH2 273°C RN2+ H 2O R − OH + N2
Q.17. Which defect will not affect density?
A) Frenkel defect
B) Schottky defect
C) Interstitial defect
D) Vacancy defect
Answer: Frenkel defect
Solution: Frenkel Defect: This defect is shown by ionic solids. The smaller ion (usually cation) is dislocated from its normal site to an
interstitial site. It creates a vacancy defect at its original site and an interstitial defect at its new location. Frenkel defect is also
called dislocation defect. It does not change the density of the solid. In all other defects there is a change in the density.
Q.18. 2−
Statement I: [Ni (CN)4] and [Ni (CO)4] are paramagnetic,
2−
Statement II: [Ni (CN)4] and [Ni (CO)4] are having same geometry and same structure.
The correct statements are:

A) Both I and II
B) Only I
C) Only II
D) Neither I nor II
Answer: Neither I nor II

Solution: Electronic configuration of Ni atom in Ni (CO)4
Q.19. An organic sample of 0. 5 g contains Br , it yields 0.4 g of AgBr in a certain reaction. What is % weight of Br in the sample
approximately?
−1
(Atomic weight of Ag = 108 g mol ; Br = 80 g mol−1)
A) 34
B) 45
C) 54
D) 26
Answer: 34

Solution: The estimation of halogens in organic compounds is usually done by carius method.
Atomic mass of Br Mass of AgBr×100

Percentage of Bromine = ×
Molecular mass of AgBr Mass of the organic compound
80×0.4×100
= 188×0.5
= 34%
Q.20. Assertion (A): Purple colour obtained on treatment of Lassaigne's extract with a reagent is a test of sulphur.
4−
Reason (R): Sodium nitroprusside is the reagent that gives purple coloured complex [Fe(CN)5 NOS]
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) Is true but (R) is false.
D) (A) Is false but (R) is true.
Answer: Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Solution: Na2 S Na4 [Fe(CN)5 NOS]

Lassaigne 's extract + Na2 [Fe(CN)5 NO] → Purple colour
On treating sodium fusion extract with sodium nitroprusside, appearance of a violet colour further indicates the presence of
sulphur.
Q.21. Statement I: E2O5 is less acidic than E2O3.
Statement II: In group 15, acidic nature of E2O3 decreases down the group.
The correct statements are:
A) Both I and II
B) Only I
C) Only II
D) Neither I nor II
Answer: Only II
Solution: Reactivity towards oxygen: All these elements from two types of oxides: E2O3 and E2O5. The oxide in the higher oxidation
state of the element is more acidic than that of lower oxidation state. Their acidic character decreases down the group. The
oxides of the type E2O3 of nitrogen and phosphorus are purely acidic, that of arsenic and antimony are amphoteric and those
of bismuth predominantly basic.
Q.22. The stability of α−helix structure of proteins is due to
A) Hydrogen bonding
B) Vanderwaal forces
C) Disulphide linkages
D) Ion-dipole forces
Answer: Hydrogen bonding

Solution: The secondary structure of protein refers to the shape in which a long polypeptide chain can exist. They are found to exist in
two different types of structures viz. α-helix and β-pleated sheet structure. These structures arise due to the regular folding of
the backbone of the polypeptide chain due to hydrogen bonding between
and −NH− groups of the peptide bond.

α-helix Is one of the most common ways in which a polypeptide chain forms all possible hydrogen bonds by twisting into a
right handed screw (helix).
Q.23. Two liquids A and B follow Raoult's law over entire range of concentration. If a solution of A and B has mole fraction of A as
x
0. 3. Then yA = 17 . The value of x is:
(Given: P°A = 50 torr and P°B = 100 torr)
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Answer: 3
Solution: Since,
p °A×xA
yA = p °A×xA+p °B ×xB
and xA = 0. 3 and xB = 0. 7
50×0.3
yA = 50
×0.3+100×0.7
15
yA = 85
15 x
85
= 17
; x = 3.
Q.24. For first order reaction, t67% = x × t50%, the value

of x will be
A) 3. 2
B) 1. 6
C) 0. 56
D) 1. 13
Answer: 1. 6

log [ A ]
Solution: 2.303 A0
For first order reaction, t =
k t
Now, t67% = 2.303 log [ A ]

k 0.33A
⇒ t67% = ( 2.303
k
) × 0. 48 … (1)
& t50 =
2.303
k
log [ A ]
0.5A
⇒ t50% = ( 2.303
k
)0. 30 … (2)
t 67% 0.48
Dividing (1) by (2) : = = 1. 6
t 50% 0.30
Q.25. Statement I: Mg reduces Al2 O3 below 1350o C and Al reduces MgO after 1350o C
Statement II: Boiling point and melting point of Mg is lower than that of Al
The correct statement(s) is/are:
A) Statement I only
B) Both statement I and statement II
C) Statement II only
D) Neither statement I nor statement II
Answer: Both statement I and statement II
Solution:
Mg Al
Melting point 924 K 933 K
Boiling point 1363 K 2740 K
it is true that magnesium (Mg) can reduce aluminium oxide (Al2 O3) and aluminium can also reduce magnesium oxide.
According to the Elingham diagram, we find that below 1350o C , Mg can reduce aluminium oxide and when the temperature is
above 1350o C , Al can reduce magnesium oxide.

Q.26. The work function of a given metal is 6. 63 × 10−19 J. Find the wavelength (in nm) of incident light, if kinetic energy of the
ejected electron is zero.
Take h = 6. 63 × 10−34 Js
A) 350
B) 450
C) 300
D) 400
Answer: 300
Solution: Eincident = W0 + K. E.
As K.E is zero
Eincident = W0
hc 6.63×10−34×3×108
6. 63 × 10−19 = λ
= λ
λ = 3 × 10−7 m = 300 nm.

Section C: Mathematics
Suppose a matrix A of order 3 × 3 and |A| = 2 is given, then ∣∣|A|(adj (adj A)) ∣∣ is equal to
Q.1. 3
A) 213
B) 214
C) 215
D) 212
Answer: 215
Solution: Given |A| = 2
Now ∣∣|A|(adj (adj A)) ∣∣ = ∣∣2(adj (adj A)) ∣∣

3 3
3
= 23 ⋅ ∣∣(adj (adj A)) ∣∣ = 23(|A| )
3 22
= 23 ⋅ 212 = 215
Q.2. The number of real solution(s) of equation 4x7 + 3x3 + 5x + 1 = 0 are
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Answer: 1
Solution: Let f (x) = 4x7 + 3x3 + 5x + 1
⇒ f ′ (x) = 28x6 + 9x2 + 5 > 0
⇒ f (x) is increasing function in R
And range of f (x) is (−∞, ∞) as f (x) is odd degree function.
⇒ Number of real solution(s) is 1
Q.3. Area of region S : y2 ≤ 8x, y ≥ √2, x ≤ 1.
A) 7
3√ 2

B) 3
2√ 2
C) 6
√2
D) 5
6√ 2
Answer: 5
6√ 2
Solution: Plotting the region for the given inequalities y2 ≤ 8x, y ≥ √2, x ≤ 1, we get
1
Required area = ∫ 1 (√8x − √2)dx = [ ] − [ √2x] 1 =
3
1
(1 − 18 ) − √2 (1 − 14 )
1 2√2x 2 4√ 2 7 3 5
3 3
= − =
4 2 1 4
3√ 2 2√ 2 6√ 2
4
Q.4. What is the probability of selecting a three digit number with at least two odd digits in the number ?
A) 19
36
B) 16
36
C) 19
33
D) 16
30
Answer: 19
36
Solution: Total No of 3-digit Number = 900
Case -1 When there are 2 odd digit and 1 even digit
(i) Even odd odd = 4 × 5 × 5 = 100
{As 0 cannot come at 1st place}
(ii) Odd even odd = 5 × 5 × 5 = 125
(iii) Odd odd even = 5 × 5 × 5 = 125
Case-2
All 3 odd digit = 5 × 5 × 5 = 125
So total number of selecting 3-digit number having atleast 2 odd digit will be addition of both cases which is
= 100 + 125 + 125 + 125 = 475
475 19
So probability = =
900 36

Q.5. From the set of numbers {1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7}, how many 5 digit numbers which are multiple of 6 can be formed without repetition?
A) 72
B) 48
C) 24
D) 144
Answer: 72
Solution: Given set {1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7}
Here sum is 1 + 2 + 3 + 5 + 6 + 7 = 24
So there will be two cases
Case (i) When numbers are {1, 2, 5, 6, 7}
Arrangement will be _ _ _ _ 2 & _ _ _ _ 6
In unit place 2 & 6 can take place because for multiple of 6 number should be even & sum of digits should be multiple of 3.
So total way in which remaining number can be taken will be 4! × 2 = 48 ways
Case (ii) When numbers are {1, 2, 3, 5, 7}
Arrangement will be _ _ _ _ 2
So total way in which remaining number can be taken will be 4! = 24 ways
Adding case (i) & case (ii), we get
required 5-digit numbers = 24 + 48 = 72
Q.6. Consider 15 observations whose mean is 8 and standard deviation is 3. But an incorrect observation of 5 was taken. If the
correct observation is 20, then the new variance will be
A) 17
B) 12
C) 19
D) 21
Answer: 17
Solution: x1+x2+...x14+5
Old mean = = 8 (given)
15
⇒ x1 + x2+. . . x14 = 115

x1+x2+...x14+20
Correct mean= = x̄new ⇒ x̄new = 9
15
x12+x22+...x142+52
Given, old variance= 9 ⇒
15
− 82 = 9 ⇒ x12 + x22+.. .x142 = 1070
x12+x22+...x142+202 1070+400
Now varnew = 15
− 92 = 15
− 81 = 17

Q.7. Two poles AB, PQ are 160 m apart such that PQ = 2AB and C is the mid-point of BQ on the ground, then tan θ is equal to
2 ( √2 + 1)
A)
2 ( √2 − 1)
B)
4 (3 + 2√2)
C)
4 (3 − 2√2)
D)
2 ( √2 − 1)
Answer:
Solution:
Let AB = h then PQ = 2h.
Now tan θ = 2h and tan π = h

80 8 80
tanθ
∴ =2
tan π8
∴ tan θ = 2 ( √2 − 1)
Q.8. x2 y2 √5 √3
A hyperbola −
= 1 whose eccentricity is 2
and length of latusrectum is
2
. If the equation of tangent to hyperbola is
a2 b2
y = 2x + c, then the value of c is
A) 3√ 5
± 2
B) 5√ 3
± 2
C) 3√ 2
± 5

D) 5√ 2
± 3
Answer: 3√ 5
± 2
Solution: √5
Given, e =
2
2 √3
Length of latusrectum 2ba = … (1)
2
Now replacing b2 with a2 (e2 − 1) we get,
2a2(e 2−1) √3
a = 2
⇒ 2a ( 54 − 1) =
√3
2
⇒ a = √3
3
⇒ b2 = 4
[From (1)]
Equation of tangent to hyperbola is given by y = mx ± √a2m2 − b2
⇒ y = 2x ± √3 × 4 − 34
3√ 5
⇒ c = ±√12 − 34 = ± 2
31 30
Q.9. The value of ∑k=1 31Ck31Ck−1 − ∑k=1 30Ck30Ck−1 is equal to
A) 62C − 59C
32 31
B) 62C − 60C
32 31
C) 62C − 1
31
D) 62C
32
Answer: 62C − 60C

32 31
31
Solution: (1 + x) = 31C0x0 + 31C1x + 31C2x2 + ⋯ ⋯ + 31C31x31
(x + 1)31 = 31C0x31 + 31C1x30 + 31C2x29 + ⋯ + 31C31x0
Multiplying the above two expansions and comparing the coefficients of x32, we get
62C
32 = ∑31 31 31
k=1 Ck Ck−1
Similarly
30
(1 + x) = 30C0 + 30C1x + 30C2x2 + ⋯
30
(x + 1) = 30C0x30 + 30C1x29 + 30C2x28 + ⋯
60C
31 = ∑30 30 30
k=1 Ck Ck−1
∴ ∑31 31 31 30 30 30 62 60
k=1 Ck Ck−1 − ∑k=1 Ck Ck−1 = C32 − C31
Q.10. dy
If a differential equation is x (1 − x2) dx − (3x2y − y − 4x3) = 0 and y (1) = −2, then the value of y (3) will be
A) 53
24

B) 52
20
C) 50
22
D) 52
18
Answer: 53
24
Solution: dy
Given, x (1 − x2) − (3x2y − y − 4x3) = 0
dx
dy (3x2−1)y −4x3
⇒ − =
dx x(1−x2) x(1−x2)
−(3x 2−1)
∫ dx
x(1−x 2)
⇒ I.F. = e
Now let x (1 − x2) = t or x − x3 = t ⇒ (1 − 3x2)dx = dt
dt
So I.F. = e∫ t = elog|t| = t ⇒ x − x3
Now solution
−4x3
y × I. F = ∫ × I. F
x(1−x2)
−4x3
y × (x − x3) = ∫ × x (1 − x2)
x(1−x2)
y × (x − x3) = ∫ −4x3 ⇒ y (x − x3) = −x4 + c
Now given y (2) = −2 putting the value we get,
−2 (2 − 23) = −24 + c ⇒ c = 28
28−x4 28−34 53
So, y = and y (3) = = 24
x(1−x2) 3(1−32)
The equation of circle is given as x2 + y2 − 2x − 4y = 0, if O represents origin, co-ordinate of point P is (1 + √5,2) and R
Q.11.
is the point of intersection of the tangent drawn at P and O, then the area of ΔOPR is
A) 2
(1 + √5)
√5
2
B) 2
(2 + √5)
√5
4
C) 2
(4 + √5)
√5
8
D) 2
(3 + √5)
√5
12
Answer: 2
(1 + √5)
√5
2

Solution: Plotting the diagram we get,
Slope of CO = 2
−1
So slope of OR =
2
Now R & P will share same x-co-ordinate as they lie on same line so abscissa of R is 1 + √5
−x
And equation of OR ⇒ y =
2
(1+√5)
So y = −
2
Now R ≡ (1 + √5, )
−(1+√5)
2
Now Area of ΔOPR
∣ 0 0 1∣
∣ ∣
1 + √5 2 1∣
= 12 ∣∣ ∣
∣ −(1+√5) ∣
∣ 1 + √5 2
1∣
∣0 0 1∣
∣ ∣
1 2 1∣
= 12 (1 + √5) ∣∣ ∣
∣ −(1+√5) ∣
∣1 2
1∣
(√5+5)
= 12 (1 + √5) ( (1 + √5)
1+√5 1
2
+ 2) ⇒ 2 2
2 2
(1 + √5) = 2 (1 + √5)
1×√5 √5
= 2
Q.12. → → →
Given that the three vectors a = 2 î + ĵ + 3k̂, b = 3 î + 3ĵ + k̂ & c = c1 î + c2ĵ + c3k̂ are coplanar. Also
→ → → →
a ⋅ c = 5 & b is perpendicular to c . Then the value of 122 (c1 + c2 + c3) is
A) 150
B) 210
C) 180
D) 270
Answer: 150

Solution: ∣2 1 3∣
∣
As the given vectors are coplanar, so 3 3 1 = 0
∣
∣ ∣
∣ c1 c2 c3 ∣
⇒ 8c1 − 7c2 − 3c3 = 0 . . . (i)

→ →
Also, a ⋅ c = 5 ⇒ 2c1 + c2 + 3c3 = 5 . .. (ii)
→ →
and b ⋅ c = 0 ⇒ 3c1 + 3c2 + c3 = 0 . . .(iii)
Solving the above three equations using Cramer's rule, we get,
∣ 8 −7 −3 ∣
Δ = ∣2 1 3 ∣ = −122
∣ ∣
∣3 3 1 ∣
∣ 0 −7 −3 ∣
Δ1 = ∣ 5 1 3 ∣ = −10
∣ ∣
∣0 3 1 ∣
∣ 8 0 −3 ∣
Δ2 = ∣ 2 5 3 ∣ = 85
∣ ∣
∣3 0 1 ∣
∣ 8 −7 0 ∣
Δ3 = ∣∣ 2 1 5 ∣∣ = −225
∣3 3 0∣
Hence, 122 (c1 + c2 + c3) = 122 ( ) = 150

10 85
122
− 122 + 225
122
Q.13.
For a given differential equation x ( + e x ) dx = y ( + e x ) + x, let y = y (x) be the solution and such that
x y dy x y
√x2−y2 √x2−y2
y (1) = 0. If y (2α) = α, then value of α will be
π
A) e 6 +√e−1
π
B) e 6 +√e
C) e√e−1
π
D) e 6 −1
π
Answer: e 6 +√e−1

Solution:
Given x ( + e x ) dx = y ( + ex) + x
x y dy x y
√x2−y2 √x2−y2
Taking x common & cancelling them we get,
⎛ y⎞ y⎛ y⎞
×⎜ + ex⎟ = x ⎜ + ex⎟ + 1
dy 1 1
⎝ √1−( yx ) ⎠ ⎝ √1−( yx ) ⎠
dx 2 2
dy dv
Let y = vx⇒ dx = v + x dx
(v + x dx
dv
)( 1
+ ev) = v ( 1
+ ev) + 1
√1−v2 √1−v2
1
v + x dV
dx
=v+
( 1
+e v)
√1−v2
dv
x dx = 1
⇒( 1
+ ev)dv = dx
x
√1−v2
( 1
+e v)
√1−v2
Integrating both side we get,
⇒∫( 1
+ ev)dv = ∫ dx
x
√1−v2
⇒ sin−1 v + ev = ln x + c ⇒ sin−1 ( x ) + e x = ln x + c
y y
Now y (1) = 0
⇒ sin−1 ( 01 ) + e0 = ln 1 + c
⇒c=1
⇒ sin−1 ( x ) + e x = ln x + 1 ........(i)
y y
Now y (2α) = α putting in equation (i) we get,
⇒ sin−1 ( 2α ) + e 2α = ln α + 1
α
α
1 π
⇒ π
6
+ e 2 = ln α + 1 ⇒ α = e 6 +√e−1
Q.14. Which of the following is correct?
S1 : p → (r ∨ q)
S2 : (~p ∨ q) ∨ (~p ∨ r)
A) If S1 is true, then S2 is true.
B) If S1 is false, then S2 is true.
C) If S1 is true, then S2 is false.
D) None of these
Answer: If S1 is true, then S2 is true.

Solution: Simplifying both the expression we get
S1 : p → (r ∨ q) ≡ ~p ∨ (r ∨ q)
≡ (~p ∨ r) ∨ (~p ∨ q) = S2
So, S1 and S2 are equivalent.
∴ If S1 is true, then S2 is true.
Q.15. 1 7
If an be n th term of G. P such that a1 × a3 × a5 × a7 = and a2 + a4 = , then the value of a6 + a8 + a10 is
1296 36
A) 43
B) 86
C) 68
D) 48
Answer: 43
Solution: Given
1
a1a3a5a7 = 1296
Expanding using an = a1rn−1 formula we get,

1
⇒ (a1) (a1r2) (a1r4) (a1r6) = 1296
1 1
⇒ a41r12 = 1296
⇒ a1r3 = 6
. . . (i)
Also given ,
7 7
a2 + a4 = 36
⇒ a1r + a1r3 = 36
⇒ a1r + 16 = 7
36
1
⇒ a1r = 36
. . . (ii)
Dividing equation (i) from equation (ii) we get, r2 = 6
Now a6 + a8 + a10 = a1r5 + a1r7 + a1r9
= a1r3 [r2 + r4 + r6] = 16 [6 + 36 + 216] = 43
Q.16.
⎧
⎪
2n if n = 2,4,6 ⋯
Let f : N → N be defined as f (n) = ⎨ n − 1 if n = 3, 7,11, ⋯
⎪
⎩
then f is
n+1
2
if n = 1, 5,9 ⋯
A) One-one and onto
B) One-one but not onto
C) Onto but not one-one
D) Neither one-one nor onto
Answer: One-one and onto

Solution: For one value of n we will get only one corresponding value of f (n), so f (n) is one-one
Now, for n = 2, 4, 6 ⋯ ; f (n) = 4, 8, 12. . .
for n = 3, 7, 11 ⋯ ; f (n) = 2, 6, 10. . .
for n = 1, 5, 9 ⋯ ; f (n) = 1, 3, 5, 7. . .
So range of f (n) is N
Hence f (n) is onto
Q.17. 12
If the term independent of x in (2x3 + )
3
is of the form 28 × l, where l is an odd natural number, then the number of
xk
values of k is
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer: 2
Solution: 12
For (2x3 + )
3
xk
r
⋅ ( 3k ) = 12Cr ⋅ 212−r ⋅ 3r ⋅ x36−3r−kr
12−r
Tr+1 = 12Cr(2x3)
x
For the term to be independent of x,

36
36 − 3r − kr = 0 ⇒ r =
k+3
Here k can be 0, 1, 3, 6, 9 for r to be a whole number.
But for 12Cr ⋅ 212−r ⋅ 3r to be in the form of 28 ⋅ l
Only k = 3, 6 satisfies the above relation.

28 June 2022 Shift 1 Memory Based Questions

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JEE Main Exam 2022 - Session 1

28 June 2022 - Shift 1 (Memory-Based Questions)

Therefore, tangential force, Ft = mat = mkr

Power = Ftv = (mkr) (krt) ⇒Power = mk2r2t

Q.2. For the following gate the output Y is given by

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Equation for 4M : 2M g − T = 4M a . . . (1)

Equation for M : T − M g = M a . . . (2)

Adding both equation we get,

Solving both above two equation we get:

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The diameter of the objective lens, D = 24.4 cm

Hence, the resolving power of a telescope is 8.2 × 105.

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As we can see from diagram, EC & EA are perpendicular.

By conserving the total volume 4 πR3 = 64 × ( 4 πr3) ⇒ R = 4r

Change in surface energy is

ΔU = T × ΔA, = T [64 × 4πr2 − 4πR2]

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x = 4 sin ( π2 − ωt) = 4 cos (ωt)

Solution: Applying conservation of the momentum,

mm u = (mm + mt)v ⇒ 60u = (60 + 120) × 2 ⇒ u = 6 m s−1

Q.10. Match The following:

Answer: A − I, B − II, C − III, D − IV

Solution: TV signal → 6 MHz

Radio signal → 2 MHz

Human voice → 3 kHz

Music voice → 20 kHz

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C) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Answer: Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Viscous force is given by F = ηA ( d t ) , here, A is area and d t is velocity gradient.

Then, [Pt] = M L−1T −1 = [η]

Thus, assertion is true but reason is false.

Q.13. Statement 1: n‐ p‐ n transistor conducts more current than p‐ n‐ p transistor

Statement 2: In n‐ p‐ n transistor, electrons have more mobility than holes.

A) Both statements are true

B) S1 is true and S2 is false

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D) Both statements are false

Answer: Both statements are true

Both statements are true.

A) Potential energy will increase

B) Potential energy will decrease

C) Potential energy will remain same

D) Behaviour of potential energy is unpredictable

Answer: Potential energy will increase

Answer: r3A = 4r3B

Solution: From Kepler's law of periods,

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As we know, angle of minimum deviation is given by, ⇒ μ = 2

⇒ sin (90° − A2 ) = sin ( )

Q.17. The internal energy of 2 mol of ideal monatomic gas at 300 K is

(Given mass of proton = m)

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Answer: 707 m s−1

Now beat frequency,