MULTIPLE CHOICE TYPE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE (BP503T)

Highlighted options are the correct Answers

1. What is the primary function of the heart?

a) Filtration of blood

b) Oxygenation of blood

c) Digestion of nutrients

d) Production of hormones

2. Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body?

a) Right atrium

b) Left atrium

c) Right ventricle

d) Left ventricle

3. What term describes the pressure exerted by the blood on the walls of the arteries during contraction of
the heart?

a) Diastolic pressure

b) Systolic pressure

c) Pulse pressure

d) Mean arterial pressure

4. Which of the following is a key component of the cardiac conduction system responsible for initiating the
heartbeat?

a) Atrioventricular node (AV node)

b) Bundle of His

c) Sinoatrial node (SA node)

d) Purkinje fibers

5. What term is used to describe the volume of blood pumped by the heart in one minute?

a) Stroke volume

b) Cardiac output

c) Ejection fraction

d) Preload

6. Which class of drugs is commonly prescribed to reduce fluid retention in congestive heart failure (CHF)
patients?

a) Beta-blockers

b) Diuretics

c) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

d) Calcium channel blockers

7. What is the primary mechanism of action of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors in the
treatment of congestive heart failure?

a) Inhibition of sympathetic nervous system

b) Vasodilation and reduction of preload

c) Inhibition of angiotensin II formation

d) Positive inotropic effects

8. Which drug class is known for its positive inotropic effects, making it useful in the management of
systolic heart failure?

a) Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)

b) Beta-blockers

c) Inotropic agents (e.g., digoxin)

d) Diuretics

9. What is the main therapeutic goal of beta-blockers in congestive heart failure management?

a) Vasodilation

b) Positive inotropy

c) Negative chronotropy

d) Increased preload

10. Which medication class is commonly used to reduce afterload in patients with heart failure and is
particularly beneficial in those with left ventricular dysfunction?

a) Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)

b) Diuretics

c) Nitrates

d) Hydralazine

11. What is the primary mechanism of action of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors in treating
hypertension?

a) Inhibition of sympathetic nervous system

b) Vasodilation and reduction of preload

c) Inhibition of angiotensin II formation

d) Positive inotropic effects

12. Which class of anti-hypertensive drugs is known for its vasodilatory effects by blocking calcium entry
into smooth muscle cells?

a) Beta-blockers

b) Diuretics

c) Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)

d) Calcium channel blockers

13. What is the primary function of beta-blockers in the treatment of hypertension?

a) Vasodilation

b) Positive inotropy

c) Negative chronotropy

d) Increased preload

14. Which anti-hypertensive medication class is particularly effective in patients of African descent and is
often recommended as an initial therapy?

a) Thiazide diuretics

b) Alpha-blockers

c) Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)

d) Calcium channel blockers

15. What is the primary mechanism of action of beta-blockers in hypertension management?

a) Inhibition of sympathetic nervous system

b) Vasodilation and reduction of preload

c) Inhibition of angiotensin II formation

d) Positive inotropic effects

16. What is the primary goal of anti-anginal drugs in the management of angina pectoris?

a) Lowering blood pressure

b) Increasing heart rate

c) Improving coronary blood flow

d) Reducing cholesterol levels

17. Which class of anti-anginal drugs primarily works by dilating coronary arteries and improving blood
flow to the heart muscle?

a) Beta-blockers

b) Calcium channel blockers

c) Nitrates

d) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

18. What is the primary mechanism of action of beta-blockers in the treatment of angina?

a) Vasodilation of coronary arteries

b) Positive inotropic effects

c) Reducing heart rate and contractility

d) Increasing preload

19. Which anti-anginal medication class is particularly effective in reducing myocardial oxygen demand by
decreasing heart rate and contractility?
a) Calcium channel blockers

b) Nitrates

c) Beta-blockers

d) Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)

20. What is the main therapeutic effect of calcium channel blockers in the treatment of angina?

a) Positive inotropic effects

b) Vasodilation of coronary arteries

c) Increased heart rate

d) Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system

21. What is the primary goal of anti-arrhythmic drugs in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias?

a) Increasing heart rate

b) Inducing arrhythmias

c) Suppressing or preventing abnormal heart rhythms

d) Improving blood clotting

22. Which class of anti-arrhythmic drugs primarily works by blocking sodium channels and stabilizing cell
membranes to reduce excitability of cardiac cells?

a) Class I

b) Class II

c) Class III

d) Class IV

23. What is the primary mechanism of action of beta-blockers in the treatment of arrhythmias?

a) Blocking sodium channels

b) Inhibiting sympathetic nervous system activity

c) Prolonging action potential duration

d) Activating potassium channels

24. Which class of anti-arrhythmic drugs is known for its ability to prolong the repolarization phase of the
cardiac action potential by blocking potassium channels?

a) Class I

b) Class II

c) Class III

d) Class IV

25. What is the primary therapeutic effect of calcium channel blockers in the treatment of certain
arrhythmias?

a) Blocking sodium channels

b) Inhibiting sympathetic nervous system activity

c) Prolonging action potential duration

d) Blocking calcium channels

26. What is the primary goal of anti-hyperlipidemic drugs in the management of dyslipidemia?

a) Lowering blood pressure

b) Reducing blood glucose levels

c) Lowering cholesterol and triglyceride levels

d) Increasing insulin sensitivity

27. Which class of anti-hyperlipidemic drugs primarily works by inhibiting the enzyme responsible for
cholesterol synthesis in the liver?

a) Statins

b) Fibric acid derivatives

c) Bile acid sequestrants

d) Omega-3 fatty acids

28. What is the primary mechanism of action of bile acid sequestrants in the treatment of hyperlipidemia?

a) Inhibition of cholesterol absorption

b) Promotion of bile acid excretion

c) Inhibition of cholesterol synthesis

d) Stimulation of lipoprotein lipase

29. Which anti-hyperlipidemic drug class is known for its ability to reduce triglyceride levels and increase
high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol levels?

a) Statins

b) Fibric acid derivatives

c) Bile acid sequestrants

d) PCSK9 inhibitors

30. What is the primary mechanism of action of omega-3 fatty acids in the management of hyperlipidemia?

a) Inhibiting cholesterol absorption

b) Increasing insulin sensitivity

c) Reducing LDL receptor degradation

d) Modulating triglyceride synthesis

31. What is the primary goal of drug therapy in the management of shock?

a) Increasing heart rate

b) Reducing blood clotting

c) Improving tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery

d) Enhancing inflammatory response

32. Which class of drugs is commonly used as a first-line therapy in the treatment of septic shock by
modulating the immune response and vasodilation?

a) Beta-blockers

b) Vasopressors

c) Inotropes

d) Corticosteroids

33. What is the primary mechanism of action of vasopressors in the management of shock?

a) Increasing heart rate

b) Reducing blood clotting

c) Constricting blood vessels to raise blood pressure

d) Improving cardiac contractility

34. Which medication class is used to improve cardiac contractility and is often employed in the treatment
of cardiogenic shock?

a) Diuretics

b) Inotropes

c) Anticoagulants

d) Antiarrhythmics

35. What is the primary goal of administering fluid resuscitation drugs in the initial management of shock?

a) Reducing blood viscosity

b) Enhancing blood clotting

c) Restoring intravascular volume and cardiac output

d) Suppressing the immune response

36. What is the primary purpose of hematinics in medical practice?

a) Lowering blood pressure

b) Treating anemia and improving hemoglobin levels

c) Inhibiting blood clotting

d) Enhancing immune response

37. Which vitamin is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors and is commonly prescribed as an
anticoagulant antidote?

a) Vitamin A

b) Vitamin C

c) Vitamin D

d) Vitamin K

38. What is the primary mechanism of action of heparin, a commonly used anticoagulant?

a) Inhibition of vitamin K synthesis

b) Activation of clotting factors

c) Inhibition of thrombin and factor Xa

d) Promotion of platelet aggregation

39. Which drug class is commonly used to prevent and treat iron-deficiency anemia by promoting the
synthesis of hemoglobin and red blood cells?

a) Anticoagulants

b) Coagulants

c) Hematinics (iron supplements)

d) Platelet inhibitors

40. What is the primary therapeutic effect of warfarin, an oral anticoagulant?

a) Inhibition of platelet aggregation

b) Inhibition of thrombin and factor Xa

c) Promotion of vitamin K synthesis

d) Enhancement of fibrinolysis

41. What is the primary goal of fibrinolytic drugs in the context of cardiovascular health?

a) Inhibiting platelet aggregation

b) Dissolving existing blood clots

c) Promoting vitamin K synthesis

d) Enhancing cardiac contractility

42. Which enzyme do fibrinolytic drugs primarily activate to break down fibrin clots in the blood vessels?

a) Thrombin

b) Plasmin

c) Factor Xa

d) von Willebrand factor

43. What is the primary mechanism of action of aspirin, a commonly used anti-platelet drug?

a) Inhibition of thrombin

b) Activation of plasmin

c) Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX)

d) Enhancement of fibrinolysis

44. Which anti-platelet drug class is known for its irreversible inhibition of platelet aggregation and is
commonly used in preventing recurrent myocardial infarctions and strokes?

a) Aspirin

b) Clopidogrel

c) Heparin
d) Warfarin

45. What is the primary therapeutic effect of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors, a class of anti-platelet drugs?

a) Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX)

b) Inhibition of thrombin

c) Irreversible inhibition of platelet aggregation

d) Enhancement of fibrinolysis

46. What is the primary purpose of plasma volume expanders in medical practice?

a) Lowering blood pressure

b) Expanding blood volume and improving tissue perfusion

c) Inhibiting blood clotting

d) Enhancing immune response

47. Which of the following is a commonly used colloid-type plasma volume expander?

a) Normal saline

b) Lactated Ringer's solution

c) Albumin

d) Dextrose solution

48. What is the primary advantage of using colloid solutions over crystalloid solutions as plasma volume
expanders?

a) Lower cost

b) Faster onset of action

c) Longer duration of action

d) Lower risk of allergic reactions

49. Which synthetic colloid plasma volume expander is known for its use in critical care settings and
surgical procedures due to its ability to stay in the bloodstream for an extended period?

a) Hydroxyethyl starch (HES)

b) Albumin

c) Dextran

d) Hetastarch

50. What is the primary mechanism of action of crystalloid solutions used as plasma volume expanders?

a) Increasing oncotic pressure

b) Expanding blood volume through osmosis

c) Enhancing coagulation factors

d) Inhibiting sodium reabsorption

51. What is the primary therapeutic goal of diuretic medications?

a) Lowering blood pressure

b) Reducing inflammation

c) Increasing blood viscosity

d) Promoting fluid excretion from the body

52. Which part of the nephron is the primary target for thiazide diuretics?

a) Proximal convoluted tubule

b) Loop of Henle

c) Distal convoluted tubule

d) Collecting duct

53. What is the primary mechanism of action of loop diuretics such as furosemide?

a) Inhibition of sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule

b) Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase

c) Inhibition of sodium-potassium-chloride co-transport in the ascending loop of Henle

d) Stimulation of aldosterone

54. Which diuretic class is commonly prescribed for patients with heart failure to reduce edema and fluid
overload?

a) Thiazide diuretics

b) Loop diuretics

c) Potassium-sparing diuretics

d) Osmotic diuretics

55. What is the primary concern when administering potassium-sparing diuretics, such as spironolactone?

a) Hypokalemia (low potassium levels)

b) Hyperkalemia (high potassium levels)

c) Hypocalcemia (low calcium levels)

d) Hypercalcemia (high calcium levels)

56. . Which type of receptors are primarily responsible for mediating the effects of histamine in the body?

a) Alpha receptors

b) Beta receptors

c) H1 and H2 receptors

d) Serotonin receptors

57. What is the primary effect of histamine binding to H1 receptors?

a) Bronchoconstriction and vasodilation

b) Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

c) Increased heart rate and contractility

d) Inhibition of gastric acid secretion

58. Which neurotransmitter is also known as serotonin, and is involved in the regulation of mood, appetite,
and sleep?

a) Histamine

b) Dopamine

c) Norepinephrine

d) 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT)

59. Which class of drugs is commonly used as H1 receptor antagonists, providing relief from allergic
reactions such as hay fever and urticaria?

a) Beta-blockers

b) Proton pump inhibitors

c) Antihistamines

d) Corticosteroids

60. What is the primary therapeutic use of serotonin receptor antagonists, such as ondansetron?

a) Allergy relief

b) Prevention of nausea and vomiting

c) Treatment of acid reflux

d) Reduction of inflammatory response

61. What is the primary function of prostaglandins in the body?

a) Inducing platelet aggregation

b) Promoting inflammation and pain

c) Inhibiting blood clotting

d) Enhancing insulin sensitivity

62. Which enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandins from arachidonic acid?

a) Cyclooxygenase (COX)

b) Lipoxygenase (LOX)

c) Thromboxane synthase

d) Nitric oxide synthase

63. What is the primary function of thromboxanes in the body?

a) Inducing vasodilation

b) Inhibiting platelet aggregation

c) Promoting bronchoconstriction
d) Enhancing immune response

64. Which class of drugs inhibits the action of cyclooxygenase and is commonly used to reduce
inflammation, pain, and fever?

a) Antihistamines

b) Corticosteroids

c) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

d) Anticoagulants

65. Leukotrienes are derived from the metabolism of which essential fatty acid?

a) Linoleic acid

b) Arachidonic acid

c) Alpha-linolenic acid

d) Oleic acid

66. What is the primary mechanism of action of NSAIDs?

a) Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis

b) Enhancement of leukotriene production

c) Stimulation of histamine release

d) Inhibition of nitric oxide production

67. Which enzyme do NSAIDs primarily target to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis?

a) Cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1)

b) Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2)

c) Lipoxygenase (LOX)

d) Nitric oxide synthase

68. What is the main therapeutic effect of NSAIDs in addition to their anti-inflammatory action?

a) Antipyresis (fever reduction)

b) Immunosuppression

c) Bronchodilation

d) Vasodilation

69. Which side effect is commonly associated with the use of NSAIDs and is related to their impact on the
gastrointestinal system?

a) Hypertension

b) Renal impairment

c) Peptic ulcer formation

d) Hyperglycemia

70. Which of the following is an example of a selective COX-2 inhibitor, a type of NSAID?
a) Aspirin

b) Ibuprofen

c) Celecoxib

d) Acetaminophen

71. What is the primary function of thyroid hormones in the body?

a) Regulation of blood sugar levels

b) Control of bone density

c) Regulation of metabolism and energy production

d) Maintenance of electrolyte balance

72. Which thyroid hormone analogue is commonly used in the treatment of hypothyroidism?

a) Levothyroxine

b) Methimazole

c) Liothyronine

d) Propylthiouracil

73. What is the primary mechanism of action of thionamide drugs, such as methimazole and
propylthiouracil?

a) Inhibition of thyroid hormone synthesis

b) Stimulation of thyroid hormone release

c) Inhibition of thyroid hormone binding to receptors

d) Promotion of thyroid hormone degradation

74. Which class of drugs inhibits the conversion of thyroxine (T4) to triiodothyronine (T3) and is used in the
treatment of hyperthyroidism?

a) Thionamides

b) Thyroid hormone analogues

c) Beta-blockers

d) Thyroid receptor antagonists

75. What is the primary therapeutic effect of beta-blockers in the management of hyperthyroidism?

a) Inhibition of thyroid hormone synthesis

b) Stimulation of thyroid hormone release

c) Blockade of sympathetic symptoms (e.g., tachycardia)

d) Promotion of thyroid hormone degradation

76. What is the primary function of insulin in the body?

a) Increase blood glucose levels

b) Enhance glycogenolysis
c) Lower blood glucose levels

d) Promote gluconeogenesis

77. Which class of oral hypoglycemic agents enhances insulin sensitivity and is commonly used in the
management of type 2 diabetes?

a) Sulfonylureas

b) Biguanides

c) Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

d) Thiazolidinedones

78. What is the primary mechanism of action of sulfonylureas in the treatment of diabetes?

a) Stimulating insulin release from pancreatic beta cells

b) Increasing insulin sensitivity

c) Inhibiting glucose absorption in the intestine

d) Enhancing gluconeogenesis

79. Which oral hypoglycemic agent is known for its inhibition of glucose absorption in the intestine,
leading to delayed carbohydrate digestion and absorption?

a) Sulfonylureas

b) Biguanides

c) Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

d) Thiazolidinediones

80. In the context of insulin therapy, which type of insulin has a rapid onset, typically reaching peak levels
within 30 minutes to 3 hours?

a) Long-acting insulin

b) Intermediate-acting insulin

c) Short-acting insulin

d) Rapid-acting insulin

81. What is the primary function of estrogen in the female reproductive system?

a) Inhibition of ovulation

b) Stimulation of uterine contractions

c) Maintenance of the uterine lining

d) Promotion of sperm production

82. Which hormone is responsible for inhibiting the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and
luteinizing hormone (LH) during the menstrual cycle?

a) Estrogen

b) Progesterone

c) Testosterone
d) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

83. What is the primary mechanism of action of combined oral contraceptives (COCs), which contain both
estrogen and progesterone?

a) Stimulation of ovulation

b) Inhibition of fertilization

c) Promotion of sperm production

d) Prevention of implantation

84. Which side effect is commonly associated with the use of estrogen-containing contraceptives?

a) Weight gain

b) Increased risk of blood clots

c) Decreased libido

d) Hypertension

85. Which progestin-only contraceptive method is implanted under the skin and provides long-term
contraception for up to three years?

a) Progestin-only pills

b) Injectable progestins

c) Subdermal implants (e.g., Nexplanon)

d) Intrauterine devices (IUDs)

86. The cardiac muscarinic receptors:

(a) Are of the M1 subtype
(b) Are of the M2 subtype
(c) Are selectively blocked by pirenzepine
(d) Function through the PIP2 → IP3/DAG pathway
87.Cholinergic muscarinic receptor stimulation produces the following effects except:
(a) Sweating
(b) Rise in blood pressure
(c) Bradycardia
(d) Urination
88. The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is:
(a) Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilatation
(b) Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation
(c) Bronchoconstriction
(d) Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla
89.The following action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine is mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor:
(a) Vasoconstriction
(b) Bradycardia
(c) EDRF release
(d) Platelet aggregation
90. The typical response to intravenous injection of 5-HT in an anaesthetised animal is:
(a) Rise in BP
(b) Fall in BP
(c) Rise followed by brief fall in BP
(d) Transient fall, followed by brief rise, followed by prolonged fall in BP
91.The following 5-HT receptor is not a G protein coupled receptor:
(a) 5-HT1
(b) 5-HT2
(c) 5-HT3
(d) 5-HT4
92. 5-HT appears to play a role in the following except:
(a) Regulation of normal BP
(b) Regulation of intestinal peristalsis
(c) Haemostasis
(d) Causation of migraine
93.The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug induced vomiting is:
(a) Histamine H1 receptor
(b) Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor
(c) Dopamine D2 receptor
(d) Opioid μ receptor
94.The following is a selective 5-HT4 agonist:
(a) Buspirone
(b) Sumatriptan
(c) Cisapride
(d) Clozapine
95.Methysergide has lost popularity as a prophylactic drug for migraine because of its:
(a) Poor efficacy
(b) Potential to cause visceral fibrosis
(c) Oxytocic action
(d) Potential to aggravate ischaemic heart disease
96. Which of the following is a ACE inhibitor
(a) Verapamil
(b) Diltiazem
(c) Nifedipine
(d) Captopril
97. Which of the following is a Angiotensin inhibitor
(a) Losartan
(b) Metprolol
(c) Aliskiren
(d) Captopril
98.Which of the following is a High ceiling diuretic
(a) Chlorthiazide
(b) Hydrochlorothiazide
(c) Furosemide
(d) Mannitol
99.Which of the following is a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
(a) Nicotinic Acid
(b) Atorvastatin
(c) Benzafibrate
(d) Colestipol
100.Which of the following is NOT classified as an autacoid?
(a) Histamine
(b) Serotonin (5-HT)
(c) Prostaglandin E2
(d) Aspirin
101.Which of the following is a receptor antagonist for histamine?
(a) Cimetidine
(b) Morphine
(c) Diazepam
(d) Penicillin
102. Leukotrienes are derived from which essential fatty acid?
(a) Linoleic acid
(b) Linolenic acid
(c) Arachidonic acid
(d) Oleic acid
103. Which autacoid is a potent vasoconstrictor and plays a key role in regulating blood pressure?
(a) Angiotensin II
(b) Histamine
(c) Prostaglandin E2
(d) Serotonin (5-HT)
104.Allopurinol is used for the treatment of which condition?
(a) Hypertension
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Gout
(d) Allergic reactions
105.Which of the following is a specific antagonist for bradykinin receptors?
(a) Losartan
(b) Captopril
(c) Icatibant
(d) Omeprazole
106. Which category of drugs primarily targets the Anterior Pituitary hormones and their analogues?
(a) Thyroid hormones
(b) Glucocorticoids
(c) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists
(d) Growth hormone secretagogues
107. What is the primary function of calcitonin in the body?
(a) Regulation of blood glucose levels
(b) Regulation of plasma calcium levels
(c) Promotion of bone resorption
(d) Regulation of blood pressure
108.Which hormone plays a crucial role in regulating plasma calcium levels and is produced by the
parathyroid glands?
(a) Calcitonin
(b) Parathormone
(c) Insulin
(d) Thyroxine

109. Which of the following is NOT an oral hypoglycemic agent?

(a) Metformin
(b) Glipizide
(c) Insulin
(d) Pioglitazone
110. Which hormone is responsible for regulating sodium and potassium levels in the body, as well as water
balance?
(a) Cortisol
(b) Aldosterone
(c) ACTH
(d) Epinephrine
111. Which category of drugs is associated with the treatment of conditions like hypothyroidism and goiter?
(a) Androgens
(b) Estrogens
(c) Progesterone
(d) Thyroid hormone analogues
112. What is the primary function of anabolic steroids?
(a) Stimulating ovulation
(b) Promoting muscle growth and tissue repair
(c) Regulating menstrual cycles
(d) Enhancing cognitive function
113. Which class of drugs primarily affects the uterus and is used in conditions like dysmenorrhea and
menorrhagia?
(a) Oxytocics
(b) Tocolytics
(c) Uterine relaxants
(d) Uterine stimulants
114. Bioassay is a method used for:
(a) Determining the potency of a drug by comparing its effects with a standard preparation
(b) Measuring the concentration of a drug in the blood
(c) Assessing the pharmacokinetics of a drug
(d) Evaluating the safety profile of a drug

115. Which of the following is an example of a drug that can be assessed using bioassay?
(a) Aspirin
(b) Penicillin
(c) Insulin
(d) Paracetamol
116.Blockade of both dopamine D2 and serotonin 5-HT2A/2C receptors is a distinctive feature of:
(a) Pimozide
(b) Haloperidol
(c) Ketanserin
(d) Clozapine
117. The calcium channel blocker used for prophylaxis of migraine but not for angina pectoris is:
(a) Verapamil
(b) Diltiazem
(c) Flunarizine
(d) Amlodipine
118. The following eicosanoid is generated through the lipoxygenase pathway:
(a) Prostaglandin E2
(b) Thromboxane A2
(c) Leukotriene C4
(d) Prostacyclin
119. There are no preformed stores of the following autacoid/autacoids:
(a) Prostaglandins
(b) Leukotrienes
(c) Angiotensin II
(d) All of the above
120. The cyclooxygenase isoenzymes COX-1 and COX-2 differ from each other in that:
(a) They catalyse different pathways in prostanoid biosynthesis
(b) COX-1 is inhibited by aspirin but not COX-2
(c) COX-2 is inhibited by ibuprofen but not COX-1
(d) COX-1 is constitutive while COX-2 is largely inducible

121. Which of the following is an irreversible inhibitor of cyclooxygenase:

(a) Aspirin
(b) Phenylbutazone
(c) Indomethacin
(d) Piroxicam
122. Aspirin produces analgesia by:
(a) Preventing sensitization of peripheral pain receptors
(b) Affecting gating of pain impulses at spinal level
(c) Raising pain threshold at subcortical level
(d) Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
123. Select the drug which inhibits cyclooxygenase irreversibly:
(a) Aspirin
(b) Mephenamic acid
(c) Naproxen
(d) Diclofenac
124. Inhibitors of prostaglandin synthesis share the following features except:
(a) Prolongation of bleeding time
(b) Prolongation of prothrombin time
(c) Prolongation of labour
(d) Gastric mucosal damage
125. Selective COX-2 inhibitors differ from nonselective COX-1/COX-2 inhibitors in that they:
(a) Are antiinflammatory but not analgesic
(b) Do not bring down fever
(c) Have no renal effects
(d) Do not inhibit platelet aggregation
126. Which category of drugs primarily targets the Anterior Pituitary hormones and their analogues?
(a) Thyroid hormones
(b) Glucocorticoids
(c) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists
(d) Growth hormone secretagogues

127. What is the primary function of calcitonin in the body?

(a) Regulation of blood glucose levels
(b) Regulation of plasma calcium levels
(c) Promotion of bone resorption
(d) Regulation of blood pressure
128. Which hormone plays a crucial role in regulating plasma calcium levels and is produced by the
parathyroid glands?
(a) Calcitonin
(b) Parathormone
(c) Insulin
(d) Thyroxine
129. Which of the following is NOT an oral hypoglycemic agent?
(a) Metformin
(b) Glipizide
(c) Insulin
(d) Pioglitazone
130. Which hormone is responsible for regulating sodium and potassium levels in the body, as well as water
balance?
(a) Cortisol
(b) Aldosterone
(c) ACTH
(d) Epinephrine
131. Which category of drugs is associated with the treatment of conditions like hypothyroidism and goiter?
(a) Androgens
(b) Estrogens
(c) Progesterone
(d) Thyroid hormone analogues
132. What is the primary function of anabolic steroids?
(a) Stimulating ovulation
(b) Promoting muscle growth and tissue repair
(c) Regulating menstrual cycles
(d) Enhancing cognitive function

133.Which class of drugs primarily affects the uterus and is used in conditions like dysmenorrhea and
menorrhagia?
(a) Oxytocics
(b) Tocolytics
(c) Uterine relaxants
(d) Uterine stimulants
134. Bioassay is a method used for:
(a) Determining the potency of a drug by comparing its effects with a standard preparation
(b) Measuring the concentration of a drug in the blood
(c) Assessing the pharmacokinetics of a drug
(d) Evaluating the safety profile of a drug
135.Which of the following is an example of a drug that can be assessed using bioassay?
(a) Aspirin
(b) Penicillin
(c) Insulin
(d) Paracetamol
136.Blockade of both dopamine D2 and serotonin 5-HT2A/2C receptors is a distinctive feature of:
(a) Pimozide
(b) Haloperidol
(c) Ketanserin
(d) Clozapine
137.The calcium channel blocker used for prophylaxis of migraine but not for angina pectoris is:
(a) Verapamil
(b) Diltiazem
(c) Flunarizine
(d) Amlodipine
138. The following eicosanoid is generated through the lipoxygenase pathway:
(a) Prostaglandin E2
(b) Thromboxane A2
(c) Leukotriene C4
(d) Prostacyclin
139.There are no preformed stores of the following autacoid/autacoids:
(a) Prostaglandins
(b) Leukotrienes
(c) Angiotensin II
(d) All of the above
140. The cyclooxygenase isoenzymes COX-1 and COX-2 differ from each other in that:
(a) They catalyse different pathways in prostanoid biosynthesis
(b) COX-1 is inhibited by aspirin but not COX-2
(c) COX-2 is inhibited by ibuprofen but not COX-1
(d) COX-1 is constitutive while COX-2 is largely inducible
141. Which of the following is an irreversible inhibitor of cyclooxygenase:
(a) Aspirin
(b) Phenyl butazone
(c) Indomethacin
(d) Piroxicam
142. Aspirin produces analgesia by:
(a) Preventing sensitization of peripheral pain receptors
(b) Affecting gating of pain impulses at spinal level
(c) Raising pain threshold at subcortical level
(d) Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
143.Select the drug which inhibits cyclooxygenase irreversibly:
(a) Aspirin
(b) Mephenamic acid
(c) Naproxen
(d) Diclofenac
144. Inhibitors of prostaglandin synthesis share the following features except:
(a) Prolongation of bleeding time
(b) Prolongation of prothrombin time
(c) Prolongation of labour
(d) Gastric mucosal damage
145. Selective COX-2 inhibitors differ from nonselective COX-1/COX-2 inhibitors in that they:
(a) Are anti-inflammatory but not analgesic
(b) Do not bring down fever
(c) Have no renal effects
(d) Do not inhibit platelet aggregation