Nig Cars Part 1 General Policies Procedures and Definitions

NIGERIA CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY
REGULATIONS
2023
NIGERIA CIVIL AVIATION
REGULATIONS
NIGERIA CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS
APPROVAL PAGE
The Nigeria Civil Aviation Regulations (NCAR) was first promulgated in 2006 to
provide national requirements for civil aviation in accordance with the provisions of the
Civil Aviation Act, 2006 (now The Civil Aviation Act 2022) and for standardized
operational procedures, equipment and infrastructure including safety management and
training system in conformity with Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPs)
contained in the Annexes to the Convention on International Civil Aviation (Chicago
Convention).
The NCAR was presented in 18 Parts. In 2009, Parts 1 to 11 were amended to bring
the regulations into conformity with ICAO Model Regulations and issued as Nigeria
Civil Aviation Regulations (Nig.CARs 2009), while Parts 12 to 18 and the Schedule of
Fees of the NCAR remained in force.
Parts 12 to 18 were subsequently repealed by the Nigeria Civil Aviation Regulations,
Volume II, 2012 while the Schedule of Fees continued in force. A ir T r a ns por t
Economic and Consumer Protection Regulations were also promulgated for the first
time in Nigeria as part of the 2012 Regulations.
The Nigeria Civil Aviation Regulations 2012 was amended in 2015 to incorporate the
ICAO amendments to the SARPs and contained a Part 20 to conform to the
provisions of Annex 19 on Safety Management.
The Nigeria Civil Aviation Regulations 2023 (Nig.CARs 2023) now being
promulgated includes a Part 21: Remotely Piloted Aircraft System. Part 16
Environmental Protection provide regulations solely on Carbon Offsetting and
Reduction Scheme for International Aviation (CORSIA) in accordance with Annex
16 Volume iv and the regulations on noise and engine emission certificates
are moved to Part 5 for effective implementation. The Schedule of Fees
and Charges is revised to incorporate the policy on cost recovery and
renamed NCAA Schedule of Fees and Charges.
Part 14 deals with all aspects of Air Navigation Services (ANS) incorporating
Annexes 2, 3 .4, 10, 11 12 & 15. The Air Traffic Management (ATM) and
Aeronautical Information Services (AIS) Manual of Standards are also incorporated
into Part 14 and reissued in eight Sub-Parts to address specific functional areas to
wit:
14.0--- General
14.1--- Air Traffic Management (ATM)
14.2----Procedures for Air Navigation- Operations (PANS OPS)
14.3----Search and Rescue (SAR)
14.4----Aeronautical Information Services (AIS)
14.5----Aeronautical Charts (AEROCHARTS)
14.6----Aeronautical Meteorology (AEROMET)
14.7---- Aeronautical Telecommunication (CNS)
ii
REGULATIONS
Aerodrome Manual of Standards is also incorporated into Part 12 and reissued in 2

volumes; Volumes I (Aerodrome) and Volume II (Heliport).
The Nigeria Civil Aviation Regulations (Nig.CARs 2023) comprises of 20 Parts to wit:
Part 1 – General Policies, Procedures and Definitions;

Part 2 – Personnel Licensing;
Part 3 – Approved Training Organization;
Part 4 – Aircraft Registration and Marking;
Part 5 – Airworthiness;
Part 6 – Approved Maintenance Organization;
Part 7 – Instrument and Equipment;
Part 8 – Operations;
Part 9 – Air Operator Certification and Administration;
Part 10 – Commercial Air Transport by Foreign Air Operators within Nigeria;
Part 11 – Aerial Works;
Part 12 – Aerodrome Volume I & II;
Part 14 – Air Navigation Services Sub-part 14.0 to 14.7;
Part 15 – The Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by
Part 16 – Environmental Protection- Carbon Offsetting and Reduction Scheme for
International Aviation (CORSIA);
Part 17 – Aviation Security;
Part 18 – Air Transport Economics:
Part 19 – Consumer Protection;
Part 20 – Safety Management; and
Part 21- Remotely Piloted Aircraft System; and
NCAA Schedule of Fees and Charges.
Each Part of this Regulation contains Implementing Standards which provide detailed
requirements that support the intent of a regulation in the Part and when specifically
referenced from the main body of the regulation have the legal force and effect of the
referring regulation.
Part 1 of Nig.CARs 2023 contains general policies; rules of construction of the

regulations; abbreviations; general administrative rules governing testing, licenses,
certificates; investigative and enforcement procedures; exemptions and the definitions
used in this part shall be of general application to all the parts of this Regulation.
This Regulation constitutes the fourth amendment to the Nigeria Civil Aviation
Regulations since its initial promulgation in November 2006. All subsequent amendments
to these regulations will be approved by the DGCA on the record of amendments as per the
control of amendment procedure on the next page. For ease of access and proper control,
this Regulation will be published on the Authority's website:
The Nig.CARs 2023 shall become effective on 1st July 2023. The Authority will
issue further guidelines to the aviation industry for the smooth transition from
Nig.CARs 2015 to Nig.CARs 2023.
Captain Musa Shuaibu Nuhu

Director General of Civil Aviation
iii
REGULATIONS
CONTROL OF AMENDMENTS
1. Any amendment to any Part of this regulation shall be recorded on the Record of
amendments;
2. Each amendment shall be approved by the Director General of Civil Aviation on the
record of amendments
3. The latest Part(s) amended will carry the same amendment number as the latest
amendment number on the record of amendments
4. Any Part or Volume of a Part of this regulations amended will be re-issued as a whole.
5. The reason for each amendment will be recorded both on the general record of
amendments in Part 1 and also on the record of amendment of the amended Part.
6. The latest version of this regulations shall be the version posted on the NCAA website.
iv
REGULATIONS
Record of Amendments
Date of
amendment
Nigeria Civil Aviation Regulations Parts Amendment Remarks
Status (MM/YYYY)
Part 1 – General Policies, Procedures and Definitions 4 April ,2023 Approval page introduced
4 April ,2023 Updated to latest

amendment of applicable
Part 2 – Personnel Licensing ICAO annexes

Part 3 – Approved Training Organization ICAO annexes

Part 4 – Aircraft Registration and Marking; ICAO annexes

Part 5 – Airworthiness ICAO annexes

Part 6 – Approved Maintenance Organization ICAO annexes

Part 7 – Instrument and Equipment ICAO annexes

Part 8 – Operations ICAO annexes

Part 9 – Air Operator Certification and Administration ICAO annexes

Part 10 – Commercial Air Transport by Foreign Air ICAO annexes
Operators within Nigeria

Part 11 – Aerial Works; ICAO annexes
Part 12 – Volume I (Aerodrome); 4 April ,2023 Updated to latest

v
REGULATIONS
ICAO annexes

Part 12 – Volume II (Heliport) ; ICAO annexes

Part 14 – Air Navigation Services Volumes I to VII ICAO annexes

Part 15 – The Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by ICAO annexes
4 April ,2023 Applicable provisions of

ICAO Annex 16 Vol.I-III
Part 16 – Environmental Protection- Carbon Offsetting moved to
and Reduction Scheme for
Part 5

Part 17 – Aviation Security ICAO annexes

Part 18 – Air Transport Economics ICAO annexes

Part 19 – Consumer Protection; ICAO annexes

Part 20 – Safety Management ICAO annexes
4 April ,2023 NEW. Provisions of RPAS

in Nig.CARs 2015 deleted
Part 21- Remotely Piloted Aircraft System from Part 8
4 April ,2023 NEW. Supersedes

Nig.CARs 2009 Schedule
NCAA Schedule of Fees and Charges

vi
REGULATIONS
STATUS OF COMPLIANCE WITH ICAO SARPS

ANNEX
AMENDMENT
Annex ICAO ANNEX TITLE
Number STATUS
1 PERSONNEL LICENSING 178
2 RULES OF THE AIR 47
3 METEOROLOGICAL SERVICE FOR INTERNATIONAL AIR 80

NAVIGATION, PART I - CORE SARPS
4 AERONAUTICAL CHARTS 61
5 UNITS OF MEASUREMENT TO BE USED IN AIR AND GROUND 17

OPERATIONS
6 OPERATION OF AIRCRAFT, PART I INTERNATIONAL 48

COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT - AEROPLANES
6 OPERATION OF AIRCRAFT, PART II INTERNATIONAL 40
GENERAL AVIATION - AEROPLANES
6 OPERATION OF AIRCRAFT, PART III INTERNATIONAL 24

OPERATIONS - HELICOPTERS
7 AIRCRAFT NATIONALITY AND REGISTRATION MARKS 7
8 AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT 109
9 FACILITATION 29
10 AERONAUTICAL TELECOMMUNICATIONS, VOLUME I RADIO 92

NAVIGATION AIDS
10 AERONAUTICAL TELECOMMUNICATIONS, VOLUME II - 92

COMMUNICATION PROCEDURES INCLUDING THOSE WITH
PANS STATUS
10 AERONAUTICAL TELECOMMUNICATIONS, VOLUME III PART I 91
- DIGITAL DATA COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS; PART II - VOICE
COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
10 AERONAUTICAL TELECOMMUNICATIONS, VOLUME IV - 91
SURVEILLANCE RADAR AND COLLISION AVOIDANCE
SYSTEMS
10 AERONAUTICAL TELECOMMUNICATIONS, VOLUME V - 90
AERONAUTICAL RADIO FREQUENCY SPECTRUM
UTILIZATION
vii
REGULATIONS
AERONAUTICAL TELECOMMUNICATIONS,
10 First Edition
VOLUME VI - COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS AND PROCEDURES
Applicable:26
RELATING TO REMOTELY PILOTED AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS C2
November
LINK
2026
11 AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES, 52
12 SEARCH AND RESCUE 18
14 AERODROMES, VOLUME I AERODROME DESIGN AND 17

OPERATIONS
14 AERODROMES, VOLUME II HELIPORTS 9
15 AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION SERVICES 42
16 ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION, VOLUME I AIRCRAFT NOISE 13
16 ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION, VOLUME II AIRCRAFT 10

ENGINE EMISSIONS
16 ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION, VOLUME III - AIRCRAFT CO2 1

EMISSIONS
16 ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION, VOLUME IV CARBON 1
OFFSETTING AND REDUCTION SCHEME FOR
INTERNATIONAL AVIATION (CORSIA)
17 SECURITY 18
18 THE SAFE TRANSPORT OF DANGEROUS GOODS BY AIR 12
19 SAFETY MANAGEMENT 1
viii
TABLE OF
CONTENTS
PART
01
GENERAL POLICIES
PROCEDURES AND
DEFINITION
PART
02
PERSONNEL LICENSING
PART
03 APPROVED TRAINING
ORGANIZATIONS
PART
04
AIRCRAFT REGISTRATION
AND MARKING
PART
05 AIRWORTHINESS
PART
06
APPROVED MAINTENANCE
ORGANIZATION
PART
07
INSTRUMENTS
AND EQUIPMENT
PART
08 OPERATIONS
PART
09 AIR OPERATOR
CERTIFICATION AND
ADMINISTRATION
PART
10
COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT
BY FOREIGN AIR OPERATORS
WITHIN NIGERIA
PART
11 AERIAL WORK
PART
12
VOLUME 1
AERODROME
REGULATIONS
PART
12
VOLUME 2
HELIPORT REGULATIONS
SUB-PART
14.0 GENERAL
SUB-PART
14.1
AIR TRAFFIC
MANAGEMENT
SUB-PART
14.2
PROCEDURE FOR
AIR NAVIGATION
SUB-PART
14.3 SEARCH
AND RESCUE
SUB-PART AERONAUTICAL
14.4 INFORMATION
SERVICES
SUB-PART
14.5
AERONAUTICAL
CHARTS
SUB-PART
14.6 AERONAUTICAL
METEROLOGY
SUB-PART
14.7 AERONAUTICAL
TELECOMMUNICATION
PART
15
SAFE TRANSPORT OF
DANGEROUS GOODS
BY AIR
PART
16 ENVIRONMENTAL
PROTECTION
PART
17 AVIATION SECURITY
PART
18
AIR TRANSPORT
ECONOMIC
REGULATIONS
PART
19 CONSUMER
PROTECTION
PART
20
SAFETY
MANAGEMENT
PART REMOTELY PILOTED
21 AIRCRAFT
SYSTEMS (RPAS)
NCAA SCHEDULE OF
FEES AND CHARGES
REGULATIONS
PART 1
GENERAL POLICIES, PROCEDURES AND DEFINITIONS
2023
REGULATIONS

REGULATIONS
PART 1
GENERAL POLICIES, PROCEDURES AND DEFINITIONS
APRIL 2023
ii
REGULATIONS Part 1 – General Policies, Procedures and Definitions
Record of Amendment
Amendment Number Date of Amendment Affected Description

sections
Updated to latest
4 April,2023 All amendment of applicable
ICAO annexes as per the
status stated in Part 1 of
this regulations and the
introduction to this Part
iii
CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS
PART 1 – GENERAL POLICIES, PROCEDURES AND DEFINITIONS
APRIL 2023
iv
INTRODUCTION
Part 1 of Nigeria Civil Aviation Regulations (Nig.CARs) sets forth the basic rules of
construction and application of the regulations; general administrative rules governing
testing, licensing, and certifications; investigative and enforcement procedures;
exemptions; and the definitions used in the Nig.CARs.
In addition, this Part of the Nig.CARs presents the definitions contained in International
Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Annex 19, Safety Management, Amendment 1; the
definitions from Annex 1, Personnel Licensing, Amendment 178; Annex 2, Rules of the
Air, Amendment 46; Annex 6, Part I, International Commercial Air Transport –
Aeroplanes, Amendment 45; Annex 6, Part II, International General Aviation –
Aeroplanes, Amendment 38; Annex 6, Part III, International Operations – Helicopters,
Amendment 23; Annex 7, Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks, Amendment 6;
Annex 17, Aviation Security, Amendment 18; and the continuing airworthiness
definitions from Annex 8, Airworthiness of Aircraft, Amendment 107; and Annex 18, The
Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air, Amendment 12.
v
CONTENTS
APPROVAL PAGE……………………………………………………………………………………………………….II
CONTROL OF AMENDMENT………………………………….......................................................... ……….…...iv
RECORD OF AMENDMENT………………………………………………………………………..….………….…....v
STATUS OF COMPLIANCE………………………………………………………………………………..…….…….viii
TABLE OF CONTENTS ALL PARTS…………………………………………………………….…………………...ix
PART 1—GENERAL POLICIES, PROCEDURES AND DEFINITIONS……………………………….…………xii
INTRODUCTION ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. v
1.1 RULES OF CONSTRUCTION .............................................. …………………………………………1- 1
1.1.1.1 Promulgation and Rules of Construction………………………………………………………..……… 1-1
1.1.1.2. Applicability ...................................................................................................................................... 1-1
1.1.1.3. Organisation of Regulations. ........................................................................................................... 1-2
1.1.1.4 Abbreviations……………………………………………………… ………………………….…………..1-3
1.2. GENERAL ADMINISTRATIVE RULES GOVERNING TESTING, LICENCES, AND CERTIFICATES

1.2.1.1. Display and Inspection of Licences and Certificates……………….…………………………………..1-7
1.2.1.2 Change of Name……………………………………………………….…………………………………..1-8
1.2.1.3. Change of Address…………………………………………………….…………………………………..1-8
1.2.1.4. Replacement of a Lost or Destroyed Airman Licence or Medical Certificate or Knowledge Test Report.
………………………………………………………………….…………………………………..………..1-8
1.2.1.5 Falsification, Reproduction, or Alteration of Applications, Licences, Certificates, Logbooks, Reports,
or Records…………………………………………………………….……………………… ……………1-9
1.2.1.6. Voluntary Surrender or Exchange of Licence …………………….……………………… ……………1-9
1.2.1.7. Prohibition on Performance During Medical Deficiency. ………………………….…… ……………1-10
1.2.1.8. Psychoactive Substance Testing and Reporting………………..………………….…… ……………1-10
1.3. INVESTIGATIVE AND ENFORCEMENT PROCEDURES…..……………………… ……………...1-11
1.3.1. Investigative Procedures…………………………………………….……………………… …………..1-11
1.3.1.1. Reports of Violations ………………………………………….……………………… ………………...1-11
1.3.1.2. Investigations- General. ……………………………………….……………………… ………………..1-11
1.3.1.3. Formal Complaints. ……………………………………….……………………… ……………………..1-11
1.3.2. ADMINISTRATIVE ACTIONS…………………………….……………………… …………...………..1-12
1.3.2.1. Administrative Actions. …………………………………….………………..…… ……………………..1-12
1.3.3. LEGAL ENFORCEMENT ACTIONS….………………….………………..…… ……………………..1-12
1.3.3.1. Civil Penalties ….………………….………………..…… ……………………………………………....1-12
1.3.3.2. Criminal Penalties. ….………………….………………..…… ……………………….………...……....1-13
1.3.3.3 Certificate Action. ….………………….………………..…… ………………………….………….…....1-13
1.3.3.4. Detention of Aircraft .………………….………………..…… …………………………………….…....1-14
1.3.3.5 Appeals .…………………….………….………………..…… …………………………………….…....1-14
1.4. EXEMPTIONS….. ………….………….………………..…… …………………………………….…....1-14
1.4.1. Applicability ….. ………….………….………………..…… …………………………….……………....1-14
1.4.2. General......... ….. ………….………….………………..…… ………………………….………….…....1-14
1.4.3. Applications for Application ………….………………..…… ………………………….………….…....1-15
1.4.3.1 General. ………….………………..…… …………………………………….………….…………….....1-15
1.4.3.2 Substance of the Request for Exemption. ………….……...…………………………………….…....1-15
1.4.4. REVIEW, PUBLICATION, AND ISSUE OR DENIAL OF THE EXEMPTION……………….…......1-16
1.4.4.1. Initial Review by the Authority. ……………………...…………………………………………………..1-16
1.4.4.2 Evaluation of the Request. ………………………………..…………………………….……………….1-16
1.4.4.3. Notification of Determination. …………………………………………………………………………...1-17
1.4.4.4. Extension of the Exemption to Other Interested Parties. …………………………………………….1-17
1.5 DEFINITIONS ……………………………………………………………………………………………..1-18
1.6 LANGUAGE OF THESE REGULATIONS…………………………………………….……………….1-99
1.7 PROCEDURES FOR MAKING AND AMENDING REGULATIONS……………….……………….1-99
1.8 CITATION AND REVOCATION …………………………………………………………………… …1-100
vi
1.9. SI UNIT OF MEASUREMENT………………………………………………………….………………1-100

1.10 APPEAL PROCEDURE………………………………………………………………………………...1-101
PART 1 IMPLEMENTING STANDARDS …………………………………………………………………..1-102

IS 1.2.1.8 LIST OF PSYCHOACTIVE SUBSTANCES. ……………………………………………………..1-103
IS 1.3.3 LEGAL ENFORCEMENT ACTIONS. ……………………………………………………………..1-103
TABLE 1. TABLE OF CIVIL PENALTIES …………………………………………………………………….1-104
TABLE 2. RECOMMENDED SANCTIONS………………………………………………………………...….1-104
IS 1.9. S I UNIT OF MEASUREMENT…………………………………………………………………..…..1-151
vii
PART 1—GENERAL POLICIES, PROCEDURES AND DEFINITIONS
1.1 RULES OF CONSTRUCTION
1.1.1.1 Promulgation and Rules of Construction.
(a) Pursuant to Section 31(2) of the Civil Aviation Act, 2022, the Nigerian Civil
Aviation Authority (hereinafter referred to as “The Authority”) hereby
makes the following Regulations.
Throughout these Regulations the following word usage

applies:
(1) Shall indicates a mandatory requirement.

(2) The words “no person may...” or “a person may not...”—mean that
no person is required, authorised, or permitted to do an act
described in a Regulation.
(3) May—indicates that discretion can be used when performing an act
described in a Regulation.
(4) Will indicates an action incumbent upon the Authority.
(5) Includes means “includes but is not limited to.”
(6) Approved means the Authority has reviewed the method,
procedure, or policy in question and issued a formal written
approval.
(7) Acceptable means the Authority has reviewed the method,
procedure, or policy and has neither objected to nor approved its
proposed use or implementation.
(8) Prescribed means the Authority has issued written policy or
methodology which imposes either a mandatory requirement, if the
written policy or methodology states “shall,” or a discretionary
requirement if the written policy or methodology states “may.”
1.1.1.2. APPLICABILITY
(a) These Regulations shall apply to all persons operating or maintaining

the following: —
(1) Nigerian registered aircraft;
(2) Aircraft registered in another Contracting State that are operated

by a person licensed by Nigeria, and must be maintained in
accordance with the standards of the aircraft State of Registry,
wherever that maintenance is performed; or
(3) Aircraft of other Contracting States operating in Nigeria.
April 2023, Amendment 4 1-1

(b) Regulations addressing persons certificated under any Part of these

Regulations apply also, to any person who engages in an operation
governed by any Part of these Regulations without the appropriate
certificate, and associated operations specifications, licence, operations
specification, or similar document required as part of the certification.
(c) Regulations addressing general matters establish minimum standards for

all aircraft operated in Nigeria. Specific standards applicable to the
holder of a certificate shall apply if they conflict with a more general
regulation.
(d) Foreign air operators who conduct commercial air transport into, from, or
within Nigeria, shall be governed by the special limitation and specific
approvals of the Operations Specification issued by the Authority, and by
those requirements in Parts 7, 8, and 10 of these regulations that
specifically address commercial air transport. Regulations that address
AOC holders apply only to operators certificated by Nigeria.
(e) Every person performing duties in civil aviation shall observe and comply
with the requirements of these regulations, rules, orders and directives
issued thereunder.
(f) Every person performing duties in civil aviation who violates these
regulations, rules, orders and directives issued thereunder is subject to
the penalties provided in the Table of Sanctions under this part.
(g) Any person other than a person performing duties in civil aviation who
violates these regulations, rules, orders, directives issued thereunder is
subject to such penalties as may be imposed by the Authority.
(h) Every person performing duties in civil aviation shall observe and comply
with the requirements of the Schedule of Fees and Charges prescribed
by the Authority from time to time.
1.1.1.3. Organisation of Regulations.
(a) These Regulations are subdivided into five hierarchical categories:
(1) Part refers to the primary subject area.

(2) Subpart refers to any subdivision of a Part.
(3) Section refers to any subdivision of a Subpart.
(4) Subsection refers to the title of a Regulation and can be a
subdivision of a Subpart or Section.
(5) Paragraph refers to the text describing the Regulations. All
paragraphs are outlined alphanumerically in the following
hierarchical order: (a), (1), (i), (A), 1
(b) Abbreviations used within each Part are defined at the beginning of
those Parts.

(c) Notes appear in Subsections to provide exceptions, explanations, and

examples to individual requirements.
(d) Regulations may refer to Implementing Standards IS, which provide

additional detailed requirements that support the purpose of the
subsection, and unless otherwise indicated, have the legal force and
effect of the referring Regulation. The rules of construction specified in
1.1.1.1 of this Part shall apply to each Implementing Standards.
1.1.1.4 ABBREVIATIONS
(a) The following abbreviations are used in this part:
(1) 2D – two-dimensional
(2) 3D – three-dimensional
(3) AAT – airworthiness approval tag
(4) AD – Airworthiness Directive
(5) ADS – automatic dependent surveillance
(6) ADS-B – automatic dependent surveillance – broadcast
(7) ADS-C – automatic dependent surveillance – contract
(8) AIP – Aeronautical Information Publication
(9) AMM – Aircraft Maintenance Manual
(10) AMO – approved maintenance organisation
(11) AME – aviation maintenance engineer
(12) AOC – air operator certificate
(13) AOM – Aircraft Operating Manual
(14) APV – approach procedure with vertical guidance
(15) ATC – air traffic control
(16) ATO – approved training organisation
(17) ATS – air traffic service
(18) C2 – command and control
(19) CAT I – Category I
(20) CAT II – Category II

(21) CAT III – Category III
(22) CDFA – continuous descent final approach
(23) CFIT – controlled flight into terrain
(24) CP – co-pilot
(25) CPL – commercial pilot licence
(26) DA – decision altitude
(27) DA/H – decision altitude/height
(28) DCA – Director of Civil Aviation
(29) DH – decision height
(30) EDTO – extended diversion time operations
(31) EFB – electronic flight bag
(32) ELT – emergency locator transmitter
(33) EVS – enhanced vision system
(34) FAS – final approach segment
(35) FATO – final approach and take-off area
(36) FSTD – flight simulation training device
(37) GLS – global landing system
(38) IAP – instrument approach procedure
(39) ICAO – International Civil Aviation Organisation
(40) IFR – instrument flight rules
(41) ILS – instrument landing system
(42) IMC – instrument meteorological conditions
(43) IS – Implementing Standards
(44) LDP – landing decision point
(45) MCM – Maintenance Control Manual
(46) MDA – minimum descent altitude

(47) MDA/H – minimum descent altitude/height
(48) MDH – minimum descent height
(49) MEL – minimum equipment list
(50) MLS – microwave landing system
(51) MMEL – master minimum equipment list
(52) MSL – mean sea level
(53) NM – nautical mile
(54) NPA – non-precision approach
(55) OCA – obstacle clearance altitude
(56) OCH – obstacle clearance height
(57) OM – Operations Manual
(58) PA – precision approach
(59) PBC – performance-based communication
(60) PBN – performance-based navigation
(61) PBS – performance-based surveillance
(62) PF – pilot flying
(63) PIC – pilot-in-command
(64) PM – pilot monitoring
(65) PPL(A) – private pilot licence – aeroplane
(66) PSR – primary surveillance radar
(67) RCP – required communication performance
(68) RNAV – area navigation
(69) RNP – required navigation performance
(70) RPA – remotely piloted aircraft
(71) RPAS – remotely piloted aircraft system
(72) RPS – remote pilot station

(73) RSP – required surveillance performance
(74) RVR – runway visual range
(75) SARPs – Standards and Recommended Practices
(76) SBAS – satellite-based augmentation system
(77) SMM – Safety Management Manual
(78) SMS – safety management system
(79) SSP – State safety programme
(80) SSR – secondary surveillance radar
(81) SVS – synthetic vision system
(82) TC – type certificate
(83) TDP – take-off decision point
(84) TEM – threat and error management
(85) TSO – technical standard order
(86) UA – unmanned aircraft
(87) UAS – unmanned aircraft system
(88) ULD – unit load device
(89) UN – United Nations
(90) UPU – Universal Postal Union
(91) USD – U.S. dollars
(92) UTC – coordinated universal time
(93) VFR – visual flight rules
(94) VMC – visual meteorological conditions

(95) VNAV – vertical navigation

1.2. GENERAL ADMINISTRATIVE RULES GOVERNING TESTING, LICENCES,

AND CERTIFICATES
1.2.1.1. Display and Inspection of Licences and Certificates.

(a) Pilot licence:
(1) To act as a pilot of a civil aircraft of Nigerian registry, a pilot shall

have in his or her physical possession or readily accessible in the
aircraft a valid pilot licence or special purpose authorisation issued
under these Regulations.
(2) To act as a pilot of a civil aircraft of foreign registry within Nigeria, a

pilot shall be the holder of a valid pilot licence, and have the pilot
licence in his or her physical possession or readily accessible in the
aircraft.
(b) Flight instructor licence: A person who holds a flight instructor licence
shall have that licence, or other documentation acceptable to the
Authority, in that person’s physical possession or readily accessible in
the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that licence.
(c) Other airman licence: A person required by any part of these Regulations
to have an airman’s licence shall have it in their physical possession or
readily accessible in the aircraft or at the work site when exercising the
privileges of that licence.
(d) Medical certificate: A person required by any part of these Regulations to

have a current medical certificate shall have it in their physical
possession or readily accessible in the aircraft or at the work site when
exercising the privileges of that certificate.
(e) Approved Training Organisation (ATO) certificate: Each holder of a

certificate shall display that certificate in a place in the school that is
normally accessible to the public and that is not obscured.
(f) Aircraft Certificate of Registration: Each owner or operator of an aircraft

shall carry the aircraft certificate of registration on the aircraft and have it
available for inspection.
(g) Aircraft Certificate of Airworthiness: Each owner or operator of an aircraft

shall display that certificate in the cabin of the aircraft or at the entrance to
the aircraft flight deck.
(h) Approved Maintenance Organisation (AMO) Certificate: Each holder of

an AMO certificate shall prominently display that certificate in a place
accessible to the public in the principal business office of the AMO.

(i) Aerial work certificate: Each owner or operator of an aircraft engaged in

aerial work shall carry that certificate or a copy of that certificate on the
aircraft and have it available for inspection.
(j) Air operator certificate: Each owner or operator of an aircraft engaged

in commercial air transport shall carry the air operator certificate or a
certified true copy of that certificate on the aircraft and a copy of the
operations specifications applicable to that aircraft type, and have them
available for inspection.
(k) Inspection of licence: Each person who holds an airman or crewmember

licence, medical certificate, or authorisation required by these Regulations
shall present it for inspection upon a request from—
(1) The Authority; or

(2) Any national or local law enforcement officer.
1.2.1.2 Change of Name
(a) A holder of a licence or certificate issued under these Regulations may

apply to change the name on a licence or certificate. The holder shall
include with any such request—
(1) The current licence or certificate; and

(2) A copy of the marriage licence, court order, or another document
verifying the name change.
(b) The Authority will return to the airman the documents specified in
paragraph (a) of this subsection.
1.2.1.3. Change of Address
(a) The holder of an airman licence or certificate, or approved training

organisation certificate who has made a change in permanent mailing
address may not, after 30 days from that date, exercise the privileges of
the licence or certificate unless the holder has notified the Authority in
writing of the new permanent mailing address, or current residential
address if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box
number.
1.2.1.4. Replacement of a Lost or Destroyed Airman Licence or Medical Certificate or Knowledge

Test Report.
(a) An applicant who has lost or destroyed one of the following documents
issued under these Regulations shall request a replacement in writing
from the office designated by the Authority:
(1) An airman licence.

(2) A medical certificate.
(3) A knowledge test report

(b) The airman or applicant shall state in the request letter—
(1) The name of the airman or applicant;

(2) The permanent mailing address, or if the permanent mailing
address includes a post office box number, the person’s current
residential address;
(3) The social security number or equivalent national identification
number;
(4) The date and place of birth of the airman or applicant ; and
(5) Any available information regarding the—
(i) Grade, number, and date of issuance of the licence,

and the ratings, if applicable;
(ii) Date of the medical examination, if applicable ; and
(iii) Date the knowledge test was taken, if applicable.
(c) After receiving a letter or an email or facsimile from the Authority

confirming that the lost or destroyed document was issued, an airman
may carry the letter or facsimile in lieu of the lost or destroyed document
for up to 60 days pending the airman’s receipt of a duplicate document.
1.2.1.5 Falsification, Reproduction, or Alteration of Applications, Licences, Certificates,

Logbooks, Reports, or Records.
(a) No person may make or cause to be made concerning any licence,

certificate, rating, qualification, or authorisation, application for or
duplicate thereof, issued under these Regulations :
(1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement;

(2) Any fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, record,
or report that these Regulations require, or used to show
compliance with any requirement of these Regulations;
(3) Any reproduction for fraudulent purpose; or
(4) Any alteration.
(b) Any person who commits any act prohibited under paragraph (a) of this
section may have his or her airman licence, rating, certificate,
qualification, or authorisation revoked or suspended.
1.2.1.6. Voluntary Surrender or Exchange of Licence
(a) The holder of a licence or certificate issued under these Regulations may
voluntarily surrender it for :
(1) Cancellation ;
(2) Issuance of a lower grade licence ; or
(3) Another licence with specific ratings deleted.

(b) An applicant requesting voluntary surrender of a licence shall include

the following signed statement or its equivalent: ‘This request is made for
my own reasons, with full knowledge that my (insert name of licence or
rating, as appropriate) may not be reissued to me unless I again pass the
tests prescribed for its issuance.’
1.2.1.7. Prohibition on Performance During Medical Deficiency.
(a) A person who holds a current medical certificate issued under these
Regulations shall not act in a capacity for which that medical certificate is
required while that person:
(1) Knows or has reason to know of any medical condition that would
make the person unable to meet the requirements for the required
medical certificate; or
(2) Is taking medication or receiving other treatment for a medical

condition that results in the person being unable to meet the
requirements for the required medical certificate.
1.2.1.8. Psychoactive Substance Testing and Reporting
(a) Any person who performs any function requiring a licence, rating,
qualification, or authorisation prescribed by these Regulations directly or
by contract for a certificate holder under the provisions of these
Regulations may be tested for usage of psychoactive substances.
(b) Chemicals considered psychoactive substances are listed in IS 1.2.1.8.
(c) Any person subject to these Regulations who refuses to submit to a test
to indicate the percentage by weight of alcohol in the blood, when
requested by a law enforcement officer or the Authority, or refuses to
furnish or to authorise the release of the test results requested by the
Authority may—
(1) be denied any licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or

authorisation issued under these Regulations for a period of up to
1 year after the date of that refusal ; or
(2) have his or her licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or
authorisation issued under these Regulations suspended or
revoked.
(d) Any person subject to these Regulations who refuses to submit to a test
to indicate the presence of narcotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant or
stimulant drugs or substances in the body, when requested by a law
enforcement officer or the Authority, or refuses to furnish or to authorise
the release of the test results requested by the Authority may—

authorisation issued under these Regulations for a period of up to

1 year after the date of that refusal; or
(2) have his or her licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or

revoked.
(e) Any person subject to these Regulations who is convicted for the violation
of any local or national statute relating to the growing, processing,
manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or importation
of narcotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or
substances, may—

authorisation issued under these Regulations for a period of
up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or
(2) Have his or her licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or

revoked.
1.3. INVESTIGATIVE AND ENFORCEMENT PROCEDURES
1.3.1. INVESTIGATIVE PROCEDURES
1.3.1.1. Reports of Violations
(a) Any person who knows of a violation of the Civil Aviation Act or these
Regulations or orders thereunder should report it to the Authority as
soon as is reasonably practicable.
(b) Each report made under this section together with any other information
the Authority may have that is relevant to the matter reported will be
reviewed by the Authority to determine the nature and type of any
additional investigation or enforcement action the Authority will take.
1.3.1.2. Investigations- General.
(a) Under the Civil Aviation Act, and other enabling laws, the Director General
may conduct investigations, hold hearings, issue subpoenas, require the
production of relevant document, records, and property, and take evidence
and depositions.
1.3.1.3. Formal Complaints.
(a) Complaints submitted to the Authority under section 1.3.1.1(a) shall be

in a form and manner prescribed by the Authority.

1.3.2. ADMINISTRATIVE ACTIONS
1.3.2.1. Administrative Actions.
(a) If it is determined that a violation or an alleged violation of the Civil Aviation

Act, or an order or Regulation issued under it, is appropriate for
administrative action, the Authority may take administrative action by one
of the following:
(1) A “Warning Notice” that shall recite available facts and

information about the incident or condition and indicate that it
may have been a violation; or
(2) A “Letter of Correction” which confirms the Authority’s decision

in the matter and states the necessary corrective action the
alleged violator has taken or agreed to take. If the agreed
corrective action is not fully completed, formal certificate action
may be taken in accordance with 1.3.3.3.
(b) An administrative action under this section does not constitute a formal
adjudication of the matter.
1.3.3. LEGAL ENFORCEMENT ACTIONS
1.3.3.1. Civil Penalties
(a) Any person, other than a person conducting an operation in

commercial air transport or international commercial air transport, who
violates any provision of the Civil Aviation Act, these Regulations, or any
order issued thereunder, is subject to a civil penalty imposed by the
Authority in accordance with the provisions of the Civil Aviation Act and
these Regulations.
(b) Any person conducting an operation in commercial air transport or

international commercial air transport, who violates any provision of the
Civil Aviation Act, these Regulations, or any order issued thereunder, is
subject to a civil penalty imposed by the Authority in accordance with the
provisions of the Civil Aviation Act and these Regulations.
(c) Civil penalties may be assessed instead of or in addition to any licence

or certificate action described in 1.3.3.3.
(d) Guidelines for civil penalties and certificate actions are listed in IS 1.3.3.

1.3.3.2. Criminal Penalties.
(a) The Civil Aviation Act establishes criminal penalties for any person who
knowingly and willfully violates specified provisions of the Act, or any
Regulation or order issued thereunder.
(b) If the Authority becomes aware of a possible violation of any criminal

provision of the Civil Aviation Act that is under the jurisdiction of
another Nigerian Government Agency, the Authority shall immediately
report it to the appropriate Agency in a manner prescribed by both
government agencies.
(c) Guidelines for criminal penalties and certificate actions are listed in
IS. 1.3.3
1.3.3.3 Certificate Action.
(a) Suspension or revocation of a licence or certificate for violation of the

Regulations.
(1) The holder of any licence or certificate issued under these

Regulations who violates any provision of the Civil Aviation Act,
any amendment thereto, or any Regulation or order issued
thereunder, is subject to suspension or revocation of the licence
or certificate, in accordance with the provisions of the Civil
Aviation Act and these Regulations.
(2) Any licence or certificate issued under these Regulations ceases to
be effective, if it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked.
(3) The holder of any licence or certificate issued under these
Regulations that has been suspended or revoked shall return
that licence to the Authority when requested to do so by the
Authority.
(b) Re-examination or re-inspection of a certificate or licence for lack of

qualification.
(1) Under the Civil Aviation Act and these Regulations, the Authority
may re- inspect any civil aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller,
appliance, air operator, school, or approved maintenance
organisation, or any civil airman holding a certificate or licence
issued by the Authority.
(2) If, as a result of that re-inspection or re-examination, or any other
investigation made by the Authority, the Authority determines that a
lack of qualification exists, and that safety in air transport and the
public interest requires it, the Authority may issue an order to
amend, modify, suspend, or revoke the licence or certificate in
whole or in part.

(3) Procedures for the re-examination of personnel licences, ratings,

authorisations, or certificates are set forth in Part 2 of these
Regulations.
(b) Notice and opportunity to be heard.

Unless safety in air transport requires immediate action, prior to a final
determination under this section 1.3.3, the Authority shall provide the
person with an opportunity to be heard as to why such certificate or
licence should not be amended, modified, suspended, or revoked.
(c) Re-application after revocation.

Unless otherwise authorised by the Authority, a person whose licence,
certificate, rating, or authorisation has been revoked may not apply for any
licence, certificate, rating, or authorisation for 1 year after the date of
revocation.
(d) Re-application after suspension.

Unless otherwise authorised by the Authority, a person whose licence,
certificate, rating, or authorisation has been suspended may not apply for
any licence, certificate, rating, or authorisation during the period of
suspension.
1.3.3.4. Detention of Aircraft
(a) As provided by the Civil Aviation Act 2006, an aircraft that is involved in
a violation for which a civil penalty has been imposed or may be imposed
on its owner or operator may be subject to detention by the Authority in
accordance with enforcement procedures set forth by the Authority.
1.3.3.5 Appeals
Any person who disagrees with the administrative or legal enforcement actions
imposed by the Authority under the provisions of these Regulations may appeal
for a review within seven (7) days from the date of the imposition of the
sanction and shall follow the procedure in 1.10
1.4. EXEMPTIONS
1.4.1. Applicability
(a) This subpart prescribes procedures for the application, review, and denial
or issuance of exemptions from the Civil Aviation Act, as amended, or
any regulation or order issued thereunder.
1.4.2. General.
(a) Any interested person may apply to the Authority for an exemption from
these regulations.
(b) Only the Authority may issue exemptions, and no person may take or
cause to be taken any action not in compliance with these Regulations

unless the Authority has issued an applicable exemption to that

person.
(c) Exemptions will only be granted by the Authority only in extraordinary

circumstances.
1.4.3. Application for Exemption.
1.4.3.1 General.
(a) Application for an exemption shall be submitted at least 60 days in

advance of the proposed effective date or as may be provided in any other
approved document of the Authority, to obtain timely review.
(b) The application shall contain the applicant’s:
(1) Name
(2) Street address and mailing address, if different
(3) Telephone number
(4) Fax number if available
(5) Email address if available: and
(6) Agent for all purposes related to the application
(c) If the applicant is not a citizen or legal resident of Nigeria, the

application must specify a Nigerian agent for service.
1.4.3.2 Substance of the Application for Exemption.
(a) In addition to paragraph 1.4.3.1(b) of this sub section, the application

shall contain the following:
(1) A citation of the specific requirement from which the

applicant seeks relief;
(2) Description of the type of operations to be conducted under the

proposed exemption;
(3) The proposed duration of the exemption;
(4) An explanation of how the exemption would be in the public

interest, that is, how it would benefit the public as a whole.
(5) A detailed description of the alternative means by which the

applicant will ensure a level of safety equivalent to that
established by the Regulation in question.
(6) Risk assessment report and any other supporting document.
(7) If the applicant seeks to operate under the proposed exemption

outside Nigeria airspace, an indication of whether the exemption

would contravene any provision of the Standards and
Recommended Practices of the International Civil Aviation
Organisation (ICAO SARPs).
(b) Notwithstanding 1.4.3.1, an applicant may seek emergency processing

of an exemption request.
(1) If the applicant seeks emergency processing, the application

shall contain supporting facts and reasons why the application was
not timely filed, and the reason(s) it is an emergency.
(2) The Authority may deny an application if the Authority finds that the
applicant has not justified the failure to apply in a timely manner.
1.4.4. REVIEW, PUBLICATION ,N O T I F I C A T I O N AND EXTENSION OF THE

EXEMPTION
1.4.4.1. Initial Review by the Authority.
(a) The Authority will review the application for accuracy and compliance
with the requirements of 1.4.3 of this Part
(b) If the application appears on its face to satisfy the requirement of 1.4.3 of
this part and the Authority determines that a review of its merits is
justified, the Authority will publish a detailed summary of the application
for comments and will specify the date by which comments shall be
received by the Authority for consideration.
(c) If the filing requirements of 1.4.3 of this part have not been met, the
Authority will notify the applicant and take no further action until the
applicant complies with the requirements of 1.4.3.
1.4.4.2 Evaluation of the Request.
(a) After initial review, if the filing requirements have been satisfied, the
Authority will conduct an evaluation of the request to include:
(1) A determination of whether an exemption would be in the public

interest;
(2) A determination, after a technical evaluation, of whether the

applicant’s proposal would provide a level of safety equivalent to
that established by the Regulation;

(i) If it appears to the Authority that a technical evaluation of

the request would impose a significant burden on the
Authority’s technical resources, the Authority may deny
the exemption on that basis.
(3) A determination, if the applicant seeks to operate under the

exemption outside of Nigeria airspace, of whether a grant of the
exemption would contravene the applicable ICAO Standards and
Recommended Practices ( SARPs.)
(4) An evaluation of comments received from interested parties

concerning the proposed exemption.
(5) A recommendation, based on the preceding elements, of whether

the request may be granted or denied, and of any conditions or
limitations that shall be part of the exemption.
1.4.4.3. Notification of Determination.
(a) The Authority will notify the applicant by letter and publish a detailed
summary of its technical evaluation and decision to grant or deny the
request for exemption. The summary shall specify the duration of the
exemption and any conditions or limitations to the exemption.
(b) If the request is for emergency relief, the Authority will publish the
application and/or the Authority’s decision as soon as possible after
processing the application.
(c) If the exemption affects a significant population of the aviation

community of Nigeria the Authority will also publish the summary in its
Aeronautical Information Publications (AIP)
1.4.4.4. Extension of the Exemption to Other Interested Parties.
(a) if the Authority determines that an exemption may be granted, other

persons or organizations may apply to the Authority to be included in
the relief granted.
(b) Such applications shall be in accordance with the requirements of 1.4.3

of this part
(c) If the Authority determines that the request merits extension of the
exemption to the applicant, it will notify the applicant by letter,
specifying the duration of the exemption, and listing any additional
conditions that may pertain to the applicant that are not addressed in
the underlying exemption.

1.5 DEFINITIONS
Note: All definitions used in these regulations have been moved to this subpart
for ease of reference. Definitions that are predominantly used in specific parts of
these regulations may also be included in those parts. In some instances,
definitions in the Civil Aviation Act, as amended, may be different from the
definitions used in these regulations. This is because the laws tend to be written
more broadly and may apply to different government agencies within Nigeria.
These agencies must define terms according to their specific needs. This part
uses ICAO definitions, where available.
(a) For the purpose of these regulations, the following definitions shall apply:
Accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA). The length of the take-off
run available plus the length of stopway, if provided.
Acceptable. A rule of construction in paragraph 1.1.1.1 (a)(7) of this

part that means the Authority has reviewed the method, procedure, or
policy and has neither objected to nor approved its proposed use or
implementation.
Acceptance checklist. As relating to safe transport of dangerous

goods, a document used to assist in carrying out a check on the external
appearance of packages of dangerous goods and their associated
documents to determine that all appropriate requirements have been
met.
Accepting unit. Air traffic control unit next to take control of an aircraft.
Accident. In a safety management context., an occurrence associated

with the operation of an aircraft that, in the case of a manned aircraft,
takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the
intention of flight until such time as all such persons have disembarked,
or in the case of a UAV, takes place between the time the aircraft is
ready to move with the purpose of flight until such time as it comes to
rest at the end of the flight and the primary propulsion system is shut
down and in which:
(i) a person is fatally or seriously injured as a result of: being in the

aircraft; having direct contact with any part of the aircraft,
including parts that have become detached from the aircraft, or
having direct exposure to jet blast, except when the injuries are
from natural causes, self-inflicted or inflicted by other persons, or
when the injuries are to stowaways hiding outside the areas
normally available to the passengers and crew; or

(ii) the aircraft sustains damage or structural failure that adversely

affects the structural strength, performance or flight
characteristics of the aircraft, and would normally require major
repair or replacement of the affected component, except for
engine failure or damage, when the damage is limited to a single
engine, (including its cowlings or accessories); propellers, wing
tips, antennas, probes, vanes, tires, brakes, wheels, fairings,
panels, landing gear doors, windscreens or the aircraft skin (such
as small dents or puncture holes), or for minor damages to main
rotor blades, tail rotor blades or landing gear and damage
resulting from hail or bird strike (including holes in the radome);
or
(iii) the aircraft is missing or is completely inaccessible.

Note 1: For statistical uniformity only, an injury resulting in death
within thirty days of the date of the accident is classified, by
ICAO, as a fatal injury Note 2: An aircraft is considered to be
missing when the official search has been terminated and the
wreckage has not been located.
Note 3: The type of unmanned aircraft system to be investigated

is addressed ICAO Annex 13: 5.1.
Note 4: Guidance for the determining aircraft damage can be

found in of Annex 13 Attachment E
Accountable manager. The person acceptable to the Authority who

has corporate authority for ensuring that all operations and maintenance
activities can be financed and carried out to the standard required by the
Authority, and any additional requirements defined by the operator. The
accountable manager may delegate in writing to another person within
the organisation, the day to day management but not the overall
approval management responsibility.
Accredited medical conclusion. The conclusion reached by one or

more medical experts acceptable to the Licensing Authority for the
purposes of the case concerned, in consultation with flight operations or
other experts as necessary.
Accredited representative. As relating to an aircraft accident, a person

designated by a State, on the basis of his or her qualifications, for the
purpose of participating in an investigation conducted by another party.
Acrobatic flight. Manoeuvres intentionally performed by an aircraft

involving an abrupt change in its attitude, an abnormal attitude, or an
abnormal variation in speed.
Acts of unlawful interference. These are acts or attempted acts such

as to jeopardise the safety of civil aviation and air transport including :

(i) Unlawful seizure of aircraft
(ii) Destruction of an aircraft in service
(iii) Hostage-taking on board an aircraft or on aerodromes,
(iv) Forcible intrusion on board an aircraft, at an aerodrome or

on the premises of an aeronautical facility,
(v) Introduction on board an aircraft or at an aerodrome of a

weapon or hazardous device or material intended for
criminal purposes,
(vi) Use of an aircraft in service for the purpose of causing

death, serious bodily injury, or serious damage to
property or the environment; and
(vii) Communication of false information such as to jeopardize

the safety of an aircraft in flight or on the ground or of
passengers, crew, ground personnel or the general
public, at an aerodrome or on the premises of a civil
aviation facility.
Adapted Competency Model. A group of competencies with their

associated descriptions and performance criteria adapted from an ICAO
competency framework that an organization uses to develop
competency–based training and assessment for a given role.
ADS-C agreement. A reporting plan which establishes the conditions

of ADC-C data reporting (i.e., data required by the air traffic services
unit and frequency of ADC-C reports which have to be agreed to prior
to using ADC-C in the provision of air traffic services).
Note: The terms of the agreement will be exchanged between the

ground system and the aircraft by means of a contract, or a series of
contracts
ADS contract. A means by which the terms of an ADS agreement will

be exchanged between the ground system and the aircraft, specifying
under what conditions ADS reports would be initiated, and what data
would be contained in the reports.
Note: The term “ADS contract” is a generic term meaning variously,
ADS event contract, ADS demand contract, ADS periodic contract or an
emergency mode. Ground forwarding of ADS reports may be
implemented between ground systems.
Advanced aircraft. An aircraft with equipment in addition to that

required for a basic aircraft for a given take-off, approach or landing
operation.

Advisor. As relating to an aircraft accident, a person appointed by a

State on the basis of his or her qualifications, for the purpose of assisting
its accredited representative in an investigation.
Advisory airspace. An airspace of defined dimensions, or a designated

route, within which air traffic advisory service is available.
Advisory route. A designated route along which air traffic advisory

service is available.
Aerial work. An aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for

specialised services such as agriculture, construction, photography,
surveying, observation and patrol, search and rescue, aerial
advertisement, etc.
Aerodrome. A defined area on land or water (including any buildings,

installations and equipment) intended to be used either wholly or in part
for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft.
Aerodrome Beacon. Aeronautical beacon used to indicate the location

of an aerodrome from the air.
Aerodrome Certificate. The certificate to operate an aerodrome issued

by the Authority subsequent to the approval of the aerodrome operator’s
manual
Aerodrome control service. Air Traffic Control service for aerodrome

traffic.
Aerodrome control tower. A unit established to provide air ATC

service to aerodrome traffic.
Aerodrome Elevation. The elevation of the highest point of the landing

area.
Aerodrome Facilities and Equipment—Facilities and equipment, inside

or around the boundaries of an aerodrome, that are constructed or
installed and maintained for the arrival, departure, and surface
movement of aircraft.
Aerodrome flight information service (AFIS). A directed traffic

information and operational information service provided within an
aerodrome flight information zone to all radio equipped aircraft, to assist
in the safe and efficient conduct of flight
Aerodrome Operator. The owner or provider of an aerodrome that is

certified for operations by the Authority
Aerodrome Operator’s Manual. The operations manual that forms part

of the application for an aerodrome certificate pursuant to these
regulations, including any amendments thereto accepted and approved
by the Authority

Aerodrome operating minima. The limits of usability of an aerodrome

for:
(i) Takeoff, expressed in terms of RVR and/or visibility and, if

necessary, cloud conditions;
(ii) Landing in 2D instrument approach operations, expressed in

terms of visibility and/or RVR, MDA/H, and if necessary, cloud
conditions; and;
(iii) Landing in 3D instrument approach operations, expressed in

terms of visibility and/or RVR and DA/H, as appropriate to the
type and/or category of operation.
Aerodrome Reference Point—The designated geographic allocation of

an aerodrome
Aerodrome Traffic- All traffic on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome

and all aircraft flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome
Note: An aircraft is in the vicinity of an aerodrome when it is in, entering,

or leaving an aerodrome traffic circuit
Aerodrome traffic zone (ATZ). An airspace of defined dimensions

established around an aerodrome for the protection of aerodrome traffic.
Aeronautical experience. Pilot time obtained in an aircraft, approved

FSTD for meeting the training and flight time requirements of these
regulations
Aeronautical fixed service (AFS). A telecommunication service

between specified fixed points provided primarily for the safety of air
navigation and for the regular, efficient and economical operation of air
services
Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP). A publication issued by or

with the authority of a State and containing aeronautical information of a
lasting character essential to air navigation.
Aeronautical mobile service. A mobile service between aeronautical

stations and aircraft stations, or between aircraft stations, in which
survival craft stations may participate emergency position-indicating radio
beacon stations may also participate in this service on designated
distress and emergency frequencies
Aeronautical product. Any aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or a part

to be installed thereon.
Aeronautical station. A land station in the aeronautical mobile service. In

certain instances, an aeronautical station may be located, for example,
on board ship or on a platform at sea.

Aeronautical Study. A study of an aeronautical problem to identify

possible solutions and select a solution that is acceptable without
degrading safety
Aeronautical telecommunication station. A station in the aeronautical

telecommunication service.
Aeroplane. A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in

flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces that remain fixed
under given conditions of flight.
Aeroplane flight manual. A manual, associated with the certificate of

airworthiness, containing limitations within which the aeroplane is to be
considered airworthy, and instructions and information necessary to the
flight crew members of the safe operation of the aeroplane.
Aeroplane Reference Field Length. The minimum field length required

for takeoff at maximum certified take-off mass, sea level, standard
atmospheric conditions, still air, and zero runway slope, as shown in the
appropriate aeroplane flight manual prescribed by the certifying
authority or equivalent data from the aeroplane manufacturer.
Aeroplane system. Includes all elements of equipment necessary for

the control and performance of a particular major function. It includes
both the equipment specifically provided for the function in question and
other basic related aeroplane equipment, such as that required to supply
power for the equipment operation. The engine is not considered to be
an aeroplane system.
Afterburning. A mode of engine operation wherein a combustion system

fed (in whole or part) by vitiated air is used.
Agreement summary. When an aircraft is operating under an Article 83

bis agreement between the State of Registry and another State, the
agreement summary is a document transmitted with the Article 83 bis
agreement registered with the ICAO Council that identifies succinctly and
clearly which functions and duties are transferred by the State of
Registry to that other State.
Note: The other State in the above definition refers to either the State of
the Operator for commercial air transport operations or, for general
aviation operations, to the State of the principal location of a general
aviation operator
Agricultural aircraft operation. The operation of an aircraft for the

purpose of—
(i) Dispensing any economic poison;
(ii) Dispensing any other substance intended for plant nourishment,

soil treatment, propagation of plant life, or pest control; or

(iii) Engaging in dispensing activities directly affecting agriculture,

horticulture, or forest preservation, but not including the
dispensing of live insects.
Aided night flight. For a flight in which a pilot uses night vision
goggles, the portion of the flight in which the pilot uses night vision
goggles to maintain visual surface reference
Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS). An aircraft system

based on secondary surveillance radar (SSR) transponder signals
which operates independently of ground-based equipment to provide
advice to the pilot on potential conflicting aircraft that are equipped with
SSR transponders
Airborne image recorder (AIR). A device that uses a combination of

cameras to collect and record information that reflects the status of
various parts of the aircraft (internal and external).
Aircraft. Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from
the reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the
earth’s surface.
Note: When the term aircraft is used, it includes the remotely piloted
aircraft.
Aircraft accident. An occurrence associated with the operation of an

aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the
aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as all such persons
have disembarked, in which:
(i) A person is fatally or seriously injured as a result of—
(A) Being in the aircraft;
(B) Direct contact with any part of the aircraft, including parts
which have become detached from the aircraft; or
(C) Direct exposure to jet blast, except when the injuries are
from natural causes, self-inflicted or inflicted by other
persons, or when the injuries are to stowaways hiding
outside the areas normally available to the passengers
and crew.
(ii) The aircraft sustains damage or structural failure which adversely

affects the structural strength, performance or flight
characteristics of the aircraft, and would normally require major
repair or replacement of the affected component, except for
engine failure or damage, when the damage is limited to the
engine, its cowlings or accessories; or for damage limited to
propellers, wing tips, antennas, tires, brakes, fairings, small dents
or puncture holes in the aircraft skin; or the aircraft is missing or
is completely inaccessible.

Note 1 – For statistical uniformity only, an injury resulting in death

within thirty days of the date of the date of the accident is
classified as a fatal injury by ICAO.
Note 2 – An aircraft is considered to be missing when the official

search has been terminated and the wreckage has not been
located.
Aircraft avionics. A term designating any electronic device, including

its electrical part for use in an aircraft, including radio, automatic flight
control and instrument systems.
Aircraft category. Classification of aircraft according to specified basic

characteristics, e.g. aeroplane, helicopter, glider, free balloon, airship,
powered-lift.
Aircraft certificated for multi-pilot operation. A type of aircraft that

the State of Registry has determined, during the certification process,
can be operated safely with a minimum crew of two pilots.
Aircraft certificated for single-pilot operation. A type of aircraft that

the State of Registry has determined, during the certification process,
can be operated safely with a minimum crew of one pilot.
Aircraft component. Any component part of an aircraft up to and

including a complete power plant and/or any operational/emergency
equipment.
Aircraft data recording system. A device or devices that use a

combination of data providers to collect and record parameters that
reflect the state and performance of an aircraft.
Aircraft engine. Any engine used, or intended to be used, for

propulsion of aircraft and includes all parts, appurtenances, and
accessories thereof other than propellers.
Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM). A manual, associated with the certificate

of airworthiness, containing the limitations within which the aeroplane is
to be considered airworthy and the instructions and information
necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the
aeroplane.
Aircraft operating manual (AOM). A manual, acceptable to the State

of the Operator, containing normal, abnormal and emergency
procedures, checklists, limitations, performance information, details of
the aircraft systems, and other material relevant to the operation of the
aircraft
Note: The aircraft operating manual (AOM) is part of the operations
manual (OM)

Aircraft piracy. Any actual or attempted seizure or exercise of control,

by force or violence, or by any other form of intimidation, with wrongful
intent, of an aircraft within the jurisdiction of Nigeria
Aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot (CP). A type of

aircraft that is required to be operated with a co-pilot as specified in the
flight manual or by the air operator certificate (AOC).
Aircraft security check. An inspection of the interior of an aircraft to

which passengers may have had access and an inspection of the hold
for the purpose of discovering suspicious objects, weapons, explosives,
or other dangerous devices, articles, or substances.
Aircraft security search. A thorough inspection of the interior and

exterior of an aircraft for the purpose of discovering suspicious objects,
weapons, explosives, or other dangerous devices, articles, or
substances.
Aircraft stand. A designated area on an apron intended to be used for

parking an aircraft
Aircraft technical log. A document that is carried on an aircraft and

contains information to meet ICAO Standards; it contains two
independent sections: a journey records section and an aircraft
maintenance records section.
Aircraft tracking. A process established by the operator that maintains

and updates, at standardized intervals, a ground-based record of the
four-dimensional position of individual aircraft in flight
Aircraft-type of. All aircraft of the same basic design including all
modifications thereto except those modifications which result in a
change in handling or flight characteristics.
Airframe. The fuselage, booms, nacelles, cowlings, fairings, aerofoil

surfaces (including rotors but excluding propellers and rotating aerofoils
of a powerplant), and landing gear of an aircraft and their accessories
and controls
Air-ground communication—Two-way communication between aircraft

and stations or locations on the surface of the earth.
Air-ground control radio station. An aeronautical telecommunication

station having primary responsibility for handling communications
pertaining to the operation and control of aircraft in a given area
Airman. This term refers to-
(i) Any individual who engages, as the person in command or as

pilot, aircraft maintenance engineer, or member of the crew, or
who navigates an aircraft while the aircraft is underway;

(ii) Any individual in charge of the inspection, maintenance,

overhauling, or repair of aircraft, , aircraft engines, propellers, or
appliances; or
(iii) Any individual who serves in the capacity of flight operations

officer.
Airmanship. The consistent use of good judgement and well-developed

knowledge, skills and attitudes to accomplish flight objectives
Air navigation facility. Any facility used in, available for use in, or
designed for use in aid of air navigation, including aerodromes, landing
areas, lights, any apparatus or equipment for disseminating weather
information, for signaling, for radio directional finding, or for radio or
other electrical communication, and any other structure or mechanism
having a similar purpose for guiding or controlling flight in the air or the
landing and takeoff of aircraft.
Air operator. Any organisation which undertakes to engage in domestic

commercial air transport or international commercial air transport,
whether directly or indirectly or by a lease or any other arrangement.
(Law)
Air operator certificate (AOC). A certificate authorising an operator to

carry out specified commercial air transport operations.
Air operator security programme. Each Contracting State shall

establish and implement a written national civil aviation security
programme to safeguard civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful
interference, through regulations, practices, and procedures that take
into account the safety, regularity, and efficiency of flights.
Airship. A power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft.
Airside. The movement area of an aerodrome and adjacent terrain and

buildings, or portions thereof, access to which is controlled.
Air-taxiing. Movement of a helicopter/vertical take-off and landing above

the surface of an aerodrome, normally in ground effect and at a ground
speed normally less than 37 km/h (20 kt).
Note: The actual height may vary, and some helicopters may require air-
taxiing 8 m (25 ft) above ground level to reduce ground-effect turbulence
or provide clearance for cargo slingloads
Air traffic. All aircraft in flight or operating on the maneuvering area of

an aerodrome.
Air traffic advisory service. A service provided within advisory airspace

to ensure separation, insofar as practical, between aircraft that are
operating on IFR flight plans.

Air traffic control clearance. (ATC) Authorisation for an aircraft to

proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit.
Note: For convenience, the term “air traffic control clearance” is
frequently abbreviated to “clearance” when used in appropriate context.
Note 2: The abbreviated term “clearance” may be prefixed by the words:

taxi, takeoff, departure, en route, approach or landing, to indicate the
particular portion of flight to which the air traffic control clearance relates.
Air traffic control (ATC) facility. A building holding the persons and
equipment responsible for providing ATC services (e.g., airport tower,
approach control, centre). May also be called ATC unit.
Air traffic control service. A service provided within advisory airspace

that promotes the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow and separation of
air traffic at aerodromes and during the approach, departure, and en
route environments including aircraft that are operating on IFR flight
plans. May also can be called air traffic advisory service or air traffic
service (ATS).
Air traffic service (ATS). A generic term meaning variously flight

information service, alerting service, air traffic advisory service, air traffic
control service (area control service, approach control service,
aerodrome control service.
Air traffic services (ATS) airspace. Airspaces of defined dimensions

alphabetically designated, within which specific types of flights may
operate and for which ATS and rules of operation are specified.
Note: ATS airspaces are classified as Class A to G.
Air traffic service (ATS) or air traffic control (ATC) route. A specified
route designed for channelling the flow of air traffic as necessary for the
provision of ATSs, defined by route specifications that include an ATS or
ATC route designator, the track to or from significant points (way points),
the distance between significant points, the reporting requirements, and
as determined by the appropriate ATS or ATC authority, the lowest safe
altitude.
Note: ATS or ATC route is used to mean variously: airway, advisory
route, controlled or uncontrolled route, or arrival or departure route.
Air traffic service (ATS) reporting office. A unit established for the
purpose of receiving reports concerning ATS and flight plans submitted
before departure.
Note: An ATS reporting office may be established as a separate unit or
combined with an existing unit, such as another ATS unit, or a unit of the
aeronautical information service.
Air traffic service (ATS) surveillance service. Indicates a service

provided directly by means of an ATS surveillance system.

Air traffic service (ATS) surveillance system. A generic term meaning

variously, ADS-B, PSR, SSR, or any comparable ground-based system
that enables the identification of aircraft.
Note: A comparable ground-based system is one that has been
demonstrated, by comparative assessment or other methodology, to have
a level of safety and performance equal to or better than monopulse SSR.
Air traffic services unit—A generic term meaning variously, air traffic
control unit, flight information centre or air traffic services reporting office
Airway. A control area or portion thereof established in the form of a

corridor.
Airworthiness approval tag (AAT). A tag that SHALL be attached to a

part. The tag shall include the part number, serial number, and current
life status of the part. Each time the part is removed from a type
certificated product, a new tag shall be created or the existing tag shall
be updated with the current life status. AAT has two distinct purposes –
(1) as an approval of return to service of an aeronautical product or
assembly after maintenance, overhaul or modification, repair or
inspection; and (2) for shipping of a newly manufactured part.
Airworthiness data. Any information necessary to ensure that an

aircraft or aircraft component can be maintained in a condition such that
airworthiness of the aircraft, or serviceability of operational and
emergency equipment, as appropriate, is assured.
Airworthiness directive (AD). Continuing airworthiness information

that applies to the following products: aircraft, aircraft engines,
propellers, and appliances. An AD is mandatory if issued by the State of
Design.
Airworthiness release. The air operator's aircraft are released for

service following maintenance by a person specifically authorised by the
air operator rather than by an individual or maintenance organisation on
air operator’s behalf.
Note: Regarding the airworthiness release, in effect, the person signing
the release acts in the capacity of an authorised agent for the operator
and is certifying that the maintenance covered by the release was
accomplished according to the air operator’s continuing airworthiness
maintenance programme. Normally, a release is required following
inspections prescribed by the air operator’s operations specifications,
maintenance activities involving inspections, and any other significant
maintenance. A copy of the airworthiness release must be given to the
PIC before the aircraft commences operations. The air operator is
obligated to designate, by name or occupational title, each licensed AMT
or maintenance organisation authorised to execute the airworthiness
release. In addition, the air operator shall designate when an
airworthiness release is required.

Airworthy. The status of an aircraft, remote pilot station, engine,

propeller or part when it conforms to its approved design and is in a
condition for safe operation.
ALERFA. The code word used to designate an alert phase
Alteration. The alteration of an aircraft/aeronautical product in

conformity with an approved standard.
Alerting service. A service provided to notify appropriate organisations

regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such
organisations as required.
Alternate aerodrome. An aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed

when it becomes either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or land
at the aerodrome of intended landing and where the necessary services
and facilities are available, where aircraft performance requirements can
be met, and which is operational at the expected time of use. Alternate
aerodromes include the following:
(i) Takeoff alternate. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft

would be able to land should this become necessary shortly after
take-off and if it is not possible to use the aerodrome of departure
En-route alternate. An aerodrome at which an aircraft would be
able to land after experiencing an abnormal or emergency
condition en route.
(ii) en-route alternate. En route alternate. An alternate aerodrome

at which an aircraft would be able to land in the event that a
diversion becomes necessary while en route
(iii) Destination alternate Destination alternate. An alternate

aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should it
become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome
of intended landing
Note: The aerodrome from which a flight departs may also be an

en-route or a destination alternate aerodrome for that flight.
Alternate means of compliance. An approved alternative to prescribed

approaches, which has been demonstrated to consistently achieve or
exceed the desired outcomes as intended through regulation
Note: An example of alternate means of compliance would be the CAA’s

approval of reduced flight time from 40 hours to 35 hours for a PPL (A)
when training is conducted in an ATO.
Altimetry system error (ASE). The difference between the altitude

indicted by the altimeter display, assuming a correct altimeter barometric
setting, and the pressure altitude corresponding to the undisturbed
ambient pressure.

Altitude. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered

as a point, measured from mean sea level (MSL).
Ampere (A)—The ampere is that constant electric current which, if

maintained in two straight parallel conductors of infinite length, of
negligible circular cross- section, and placed 1 metre apart in vacuum,
would produce between these conductors a force equal to 2 x 1 Om-7
newton per metre of length
Annexes to the Chicago Convention. The documents issued by the

International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) containing the Standards
and Recommended Practices applicable to civil aviation.
Anticipated operating conditions. Those conditions that are

envisaged to occur during the operational life of the aircraft and remote
pilot station, taking into account the operations for which the aircraft or
remote pilot station is made eligible, the conditions so considered being
relative to the meteorological state of the atmosphere, to the
configuration of terrain, the functioning of the aircraft or remote pilot
station, to the efficiency of personnel and to all the factors affecting
safety in flight.
Anticipated operating conditions do not include:
(a) those extremes that can be effectively avoided by means of

operating procedures; and
(b) those extremes that occur so infrequently that to require the

Standards to be met in such extremes would give a higher level
of airworthiness than experience has shown to be necessary and
practical.
Appliances. Instruments, equipment, apparatus, parts, appurtenances,

or accessories, of whatever description, that are used, or are capable of
being or intended to be used, in the navigation, operation, or control of
aircraft in flight (including parachutes, communication equipment, any
other mechanism or mechanisms installed in or attached to aircraft
during flight), and that are not part or parts of aircraft, aircraft engines, or
propellers.
Approach phase. The operating phase defined by the time during which
the engine is operated in the approach operating mode.
Approach and landing phase – helicopters. That part of the flight from
300 m (1 000 ft) above the elevation of the FATO, if the flight is planned
to exceed this height, or from the commencement of the descent in the
other cases, to landing or to the balked landing point.

Approach and landing operations using instrument approach

procedures. Instrument approach and landing operations are classified
as follows:
(i) Non-precision approach and landing operations. An instrument

approach and landing which utilised lateral guidance but does not
utilise vertical guidance.
(ii) Approach and landing operations with vertical guidance. An

instrument approach and landing which uses lateral and vertical
guidance but does not meet the requirements established for
precision approach and landing operations.
(iii) Precision approach and landing operations. An instrument

approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical
guidance with minima as determined by the category of
operation.
Note: Lateral and vertical guidance refers to the guidance
provided either by: a ground-b\based navigation aid: or
(A) computer generated navigation data.
(iv) Category I (CAT I) operation. A precision instrument approach

and landing with:
(A) a decision height not lower than 60 m (200 feet; and

(B) with either a visibility not less than 800 m or a runway
visual range not less than 550 m.
(v) Category II (CAT II) operation. A precision instrument approach

and landing with:
(A) a decision height lower than 60 m (200 feet), but not

lower than 30 m (100 feet); and
(B) a runway visual range not less than 300 m.
(vi) Category IIIA (CAT IIIA) operation. A precision instrument

approach and landing with:
(A) a decision height lower than 30 m (100 feet) or no

decision height; and
(B) a runway visual range not less than 175 m.
(vii) Category IIIB (CAT IIIB) operation. A precision instrument

approach and landing with:
(A) a decision height lower than 15 m (50 feet) or no decision
height; and
(B) a runway visual range less than 175 m but not less than
50 m.

(viii) Category IIIC (CAT IIIC) operation. A precision instrument

approach and landing with no decision height and no runway
visual range limitations.
Note: Where decision height (DH) and runway visual range
(RVR) fall into different categories of operation, the instrument
approach and landing operation would be conducted in
accordance with the requirements of the most demanding
category (e.g. an operation with a DH in the range of CAT IIIA but
with an RVR in the range of CAT IIIB would be considered a CAT
IIIB operation or an operation with a DH in the range of CAT II
but with an RVR in the range of CAT I would be considered a
CAT II operation).
Approach control service. Air traffic control service for arriving or

departing controlled flights.
Approach control unit. A unit established to provide air traffic control

service to controlled flights arriving at, or departing from, one or more
aerodromes.
Approach procedure with vertical guidance (APV). A PBN IAP

designed for 3D instrument approach operations Type A.
Appropriate ATS or ATC authority. The relevant authority designated

by Nigeria responsible for providing air traffic services in the airspace
concerned.
Appropriate airworthiness requirements. The comprehensive and

detailed airworthiness codes established, adopted or accepted by a
Contracting State for the class of aircraft, remote pilot station, engine or
propeller under consideration.
Appropriate authority.
(i) Regarding flight over the high seas: The relevant authority of the
State of Registry.
(ii) Regarding flight other than over the high seas: The relevant
authority of the State having sovereignty over the territory being
overflown.
Approval. As relating to dangerous goods in Parts 8 and 9 of these

regulations, a provision in ICAO Annex 18 states that an approval is an
authorisation granted by an appropriate national authority for:
(i) The transport of dangerous goods forbidden on passenger and/or

cargo aircraft where the Technical Instructions state that such
goods may be carried with an approval; or
(ii) Other purposes as provided for in the Technical Instructions.

Note 1: In the absence of a specific reference in the Technical

Instructions allowing the granting of an approval, an exemption may be
sought.
Note 2: See definition below for Technical Instructions
Approval for return to service. A document that contains a certification

confirming that the maintenance work to which it relates has been
completed in a satisfactory manner, either in accordance with the
approved data and the procedures described in the AMO Procedures
Manual or Maintenance Control Manual of AOC holder with maintenance
authorization issued by the Authority.
Approved. A rule of construction in Part 1.1.1.1 (a)(6) that means the

Authority has reviewed the method, procedure, or policy in question and
issued a formal written approval.
Approved by the Authority. Approved by the Authority directly or in

accordance with a procedure approved by the Authority.
Approved continuous maintenance programme. A maintenance

programme approved by the State of Registry.
Approved curriculum. A set of special training courses in an area of

specialization offered by an ATO and approved by the Authority.
Approved data. Technical information approved by the Authority.
Approved maintenance organisation (AMO). An organisation

approved by the Authority, in accordance with Part 6 of these
regulations, to perform specific aircraft maintenance activities by the
Authority. These activities may include the inspection, overhaul,
maintenance, repair and/or modification and release to service of aircraft
or aeronautical products.
Note: Nothing in this definition is intended to preclude that the

organisation and its supervision be approved by more than one State
Approved standard. A manufacturing, design, maintenance, or quality

standard approved by the Authority.
Approved training. Training carried out under special curricula and

supervision approved by the Authority.
Approved training organisation (ATO). An organisation approved by

the Authority, in accordance with Part 3 of these regulations, to perform
flight crew training, mechanic training and other training approved by the
Authority.
Approved Training Organisation (ATO) Procedures Manual. A

manual containing procedures, instructions, and guidance for use by
personnel of an ATO in the execution of their duties in meeting the
requirements of the certificate. It may be a combined manual or may be

separated into a Training Manual and a Procedures Manual.
i. Training manual A manual containing the training goals,

objectives, standards syllabi, and curriculum for each phase of
the approved training course.
ii. Procedures manual. A manual containing procedures,

instructions, and guidance for use by personnel of the ATO in the
execution of their duties in meeting the requirements of the
certificate.
Apron. A defined area, on a land aerodrome, intended to accommodate

aircraft for purposes of loading or unloading passengers, mail or cargo,
fueling, parking or maintenance.
Area control centre. A unit established to provide ATC service to

controlled flights in control areas under its jurisdiction.
Area control service. Air traffic control service for controlled flights in
control areas.
Area navigation (RNAV). A method of navigation that permits aircraft

operations on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground- or
space-based navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-
contained aids, or a combination of these.
Note: Area navigation includes performance-based navigation as well
as other operations that do not meet the definitions of performance-
based navigation.
Article. Any item, including but not limited to, an aircraft, airframe,
aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, accessory, assembly, subassembly,
system, subsystem, component, unit, product, or part.
Authorised instructor. A person who—
(i) Holds a valid ground instructor certificate issued under Part 2 of

these regulations when conducting ground training;
(ii) Holds a current flight instructor certificate issued under Part 2 of

these regulations when conducting ground training or flight
training; or
(iii) Is authorised by the Authority to provide ground training or flight

training under Part 2 and Part 3 of these regulations
Authority. Nigeria Civil Aviation Authority.
Automatic dependent surveillance (ADS). A surveillance technique in

which aircraft automatically provide, via a data link, data derived from on-
board navigation and position-fixing systems, including aircraft
identification, four-dimensional position, and additional data as

appropriate.
Automatic dependent surveillance (ADS) agreement. An ADS

reporting plan that establishes the conditions of ADS data reporting (i.e.,
data required by the ATS or control unit and frequency of ADS reports
that shall be agreed to prior to the provision of the ADS services).
Automatic dependent surveillance – broadcast (ADS-B). A means by

which aircraft, aerodrome vehicles, and other objects can automatically
transmit and/or receive data such as identification, position, and
additional data, as appropriate, in a broadcast mode via a data link.
Automatic dependent surveillance – contract (ADS-C). A means by

which the terms of an ADS-C agreement will be exchanged between the
ground system and the aircraft, via a data link, specifying under what
conditions ADS-C reports would be initiated, and what data would be
contained in the reports.
Note. The abbreviated term “ADS contract” is commonly used to refer to
ADS event contract, ADS demand contract ADS periodic contract or an
emergency mode.
Automatic dependent surveillance – contract (ADS-C) agreement. A

reporting plan that establishes the conditions of ADS-C data reporting
(i.e. data required by the ATS unit and frequency of ADS-C reports that
shall be agreed to prior to using ADS-C in the provision of ATS).
Note: The terms of the agreement will be exchanged between the

ground system and the aircraft by means of a contract or a series of
contracts.
Automatic deployable flight recorder (ADFR). A combination flight

recorder that is installed on the aircraft and is capable of automatically
deploying from the aircraft.
Note: This could include the cockpit voice recorder or flight data recorder
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS)—The automatic

provision of current routine information to arriving and departing aircraft
throughout 24 hours of a specified portion thereof.
Autonomous aircraft. An unmanned aircraft that does not allow pilot

intervention in the management of the flight.
Aviation medical assessor. A physician, appointed by the Licensing

Authority, who is qualified and experienced in the practice of aviation
medicine and competent in evaluating and assessing medical conditions
of flight safety significance

Aviation Medical examiner. A physician with training in aviation

medicine and practical knowledge and experience of the aviation
environment, who is designated by the Authority to conduct medical
examinations of fitness of applicants for licences or ratings for which
medical requirements are prescribed
Aviation Security. Safeguarding civil aviation against acts of unlawful

interference. This objective is achieved by a combination of measures
and human and material resources
Background Check. A check of a person’s identity and previous

experience, including criminal history and any other security related
information relevant for assessing the person’s suitability, in accordance
with national legislation
Balloon. A non-power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft.
Banner. An advertising medium supported by a temporary framework

attached externally to the aircraft and towed behind the aircraft.
Basic aircraft. An aircraft which has the minimum equipment required to

perform the intended take-off, approach or landing operation
Base turn. A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach
between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the
intermediate or final approach track. The tracks are not reciprocal
Becquerel (Bq). The activity of a radionuclide having one spontaneous

nuclear transition per second
Behaviour detection. Within an aviation security environment, the

application of techniques involving the recognition of behavioural
characteristics, including physiological or gestural signs indicative of
anomalous Behaviour, to identify persons who may pose a threat to civil
aviation
Cabin crew member. A crew member who performs, in the interest of

safety of passengers, duties assigned by the operator or the pilot-in-
command of the aircraft, but who shall not act as a flight crew member.
Calendar day. The period of elapsed time, using coordinated Universal

Time or local time that begins at midnight and ends 24 hours later in the
next midnight.
Calendar month. A period of a month beginning and ending with the

dates that are conventionally accepted as marking the beginning and
end of a numbered month (as January 1 through January 31 in the
Gregorian calendar).
Calendar year. A period of a year beginning and ending with the dates
that are conventionally accepted as marking the beginning and end of a
numbered year (as January 1 through December 31 in the Gregorian
calendar).

Calibration. A set of operations, performed in accordance with a

definite documented procedure that compares the measurement
performed by a measurement device or working standard with a
recognised bureau of standards for the purpose of detecting and
reporting or eliminating adjustment errors in the measurement device,
working standard, or aeronautical product tested.
Cargo. Any property carried on an aircraft other than mail, stores, and
accompanied or mishandled baggage
Cargo aircraft. Any aircraft carrying goods or property but not

passengers. In this context the following are not considered to be
passengers:
(i) A crewmember.
(ii) An operator's employee permitted by, and carried in accordance

with, the instructions contained in the OM.
(iii) An authorised representative of an Authority.
(iv) A person with duties in respect of a particular shipment on

board
Candela (cd). The luminous intensity, in the perpendicular direction, of a

surface of 1/600 000 square metre of black body at the temperature of
freezing platinum under a pressure of 101 325 newtons per square
metre
Category A. With respect to helicopters, means a multi-engine

helicopter designed with engine and system isolation features specified
in Part IVB and capable of operations using take-off and landing data
scheduled under a critical engine failure concept which assures
adequate designated surface area and adequate performance capability
for continued safe flight or safe rejected take-off.
Category B. With respect to helicopters, means a single-engine or

multi-engine helicopter which does not meet Category A standards.
Category B helicopters have no guaranteed capability to continue safe
flight in the event of an engine failure, and a forced landing is assumed.
Category one operation (CAT I). A precision instrument approach and

landing with a decision height not lower than 60 m (200 ft) and with
either a visibility not less than 800 m or a runway visual range not less
than 550 m.
Category two operation (CAT II). A precision instrument approach and

landing with a decision height lower than 60 m (200ft) but no lower than
30 m (100 ft) and a visual range not less 300 m.
Category three A (CAT IIIA) operation. A precision approach and

landing with: a decision height lower than 30 m (100ft) or no decision
height; and a runway visual range not less than 175 m.

Category three B (CAT IIIB) operation. A precision approach and

landing with: a decision height lower than 15 m (50 ft) or no decision
height; and a runway visual range less than 175 m but not less than 50
m.
Category three C (CAT IIIC) operation. A precision instrument

approach and landing with no decision height and no runway visual
range limitations.
Causes. As relating to an aircraft accident or incident, the actions,

omissions, events, or conditions, or a combination thereof that led to the
accident or incident.
Ceiling. The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest
layer of cloud below 6,000 metres (20,000 feet) covering more than half
the sky.
Celsius temperature (t×C)—The Celsius temperature is equal to the

difference t×c = T - Tu between two thermodynamic temperatures T and
To where To equals 273.15 kelvin.
Certificate of Airworthiness. A certificate, issued by the State of

Registry, when an aircraft has been deemed fit and safe for flight and in
conformity with the type design approved by the State of Design and
maintained in accordance with the continuing airworthiness requirements
of the State of Registry.
Certify as airworthy. The act of completing an approval for return to

service by a properly authorised person after the maintenance,
modification, overhaul, repair or inspection of an aircraft or aeronautical
product by which the aircraft or aeronautical part is cleared for use in
flight as meeting the requirements of the airworthiness certificate of
Nigeria
Certifying staff. Those personnel who are authorised by the AMO in

accordance with a procedure acceptable to the Authority to approve
aircraft or aeronautical product for return to service.
Changeover-point. The point at which an aircraft navigating on an ATC

or ATS route segment defined by reference to very high frequency
omnidirectional radio ranges is expected to transfer its primary
navigational reference from the facility behind the aircraft to the next
facility ahead of the aircraft.
Note: Change-over-points are established to provide the optimum
balance with respect of signal strength and quality between facilities at
all levels to be used and to ensure a common source of azimuth
guidance for all aircraft operating along the same portion of a route
segment.

Check person. A qualified person who is authorised by the Authority to

conduct an evaluation of either an AOC holders flight crew (pilots, flight
engineers, or flight navigators), cabin crew, or flight operations officer.
Terms that may be used to describe this person, depending upon
responsibilities, are: check pilot, check flight engineer, check flight
navigator, check cabin crewmember, and check flight operations officer.
Check persons for flight crew may be further authorised to perform
checks in either an aircraft or simulator as defined below.
(i) Check person (aircraft). A person who is qualified, and

authorised by the Authority, to conduct a flight crew evaluation in
an aircraft or in a flight simulation training device for a particular
type aircraft, for a particular AOC holder.
(ii) Check person (simulator). A person who is qualified, and

authorised by the Authority, to conduct a flight crew evaluation,
but only in a flight simulation training device for a particular type
aircraft, for a particular AOC holder.
Chicago Convention. (“Convention”) The Convention on International

Civil Aviation concluded in Chicago, U.S.A. in 1944, in effect, 1947. The
Articles of the Chicago Convention govern the actions of the contracting
States in matters of international civil aviation safety directly and through
the Annexes to the Convention, which set forth ICAO Standards and
Recommended Practices.
Citizen of Nigeria. This term refers to one of the following:
(i) An individual who is a citizen of Nigeria
(ii) A partnership of which each member is a citizen of Nigeria or
(iii) A corporation or association created or organised and authorised

under the laws of Nigeria
Civil aircraft. Any aircraft other than a state or public aircraft.
Civil aviation. The operation of any civil aircraft for the purpose of
general aviation operations, aerial work or commercial air transport
operations.
Clearance limit. The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic

control clearance.
Climb phase. The operating phase defined by the time during which the
engine is operated in the climb operating mode

Cockpit audio recording system(CARS). A device that uses a

combination of microphones and other audio and digital inputs to collect
and record the aural environment of the cockpit and communications to,
from and between the pilots.
Cockpit crew zone. The part of the cabin that is exclusively designated
for flight crew use.
COMBINED VISION SYSTEM (CVS). A System to display images from

a combination of enhanced vision system (EVS) and a synthetic vision
system (SVS).
Command and control C2 (link). The data link between the RPA and
RPAS for the purposes of managing the flight.
Commercial air transport operation. An aircraft operation involving

the transport of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or hire.
Commercial air transport. An aircraft operation involving the public

transport of passengers, cargo, or mail for remuneration or hire.
Common mark. A mark assigned by the ICAO to the common mark

registering authority registering aircraft of an international operating
agency on other than a national basis.
Note: All aircraft of an international operating agency that are registered

on other than a national basis will bear the same common mark.
Common mark registering authority. The authority maintaining the

non-national register or, where appropriate, the part thereof, in which
aircraft of an international operating agency are registered.
Company materials (COMAT). Operator material carried on an

operators aircraft for the operators own purpose.
Competency. A dimension of human performance that is used to

reliably predict successful performance on the job. A competency is
manifested and observed through behaviours that mobilise the relevant
knowledge, skills, and attitudes to carry out activities or tasks under
specified conditions.
Competency based training and assessment. Training and

assessment that are characterised by a performance orientation,
emphasis on standards of performance and their measurement, and the
development of training to the specified performance standards.
Note: This training process is derived from a job and task analysis and
is focuses on the achievement of well-defined, benchmarked standards
of performance as opposed to training programmes that simply focus on
the acquisition of prescribed levels of experience.
Competency element. An action that constitutes a task that has a

triggering event and a terminating event that clearly defines its limits as
well as an observable outcome.

Competency standard. A level of performance that is defined as

acceptable when assessing whether or not competency has been
achieved
Competency unit. A discrete function consisting of a number of

competency elements.
Complex aeroplane. An aeroplane that has retractable landing gear,

flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller; or in the case of a seaplane,
flaps and a controllable pitch propeller.
Composite. Structural materials made of substances, including, wood,

metal, ceramic, plastic, fiber-reinforced materials, graphite, boron, or
epoxy, with built-in strengthening agents that may be in the form of
filaments, foils, powders, or flakes, of a different material
Computer system. Any electronic or automated system capable of

receiving, storing, and processing external data, and transmitting and
presenting such data in a usable form for the accomplishment of a
specific function.
Conditions. Anything that may qualify a specific environment in which

performance will be demonstrated.
Configuration (as applied to the aeroplane). A particular combination of

the positions of the moveable elements, such as wing flaps and landing
gear, etc., that affect the aerodynamic characteristics of the aeroplane.
Configuration deviation list (CDL). A list established by the

organisation responsible for the type design with the approval of the
State of Design that identifies any external parts of an aircraft type that
may be missing at the commencement of a flight, and that contains,
where necessary, any information on associated operating limitations
and performance correction.
Continuous descent final approach (CDFA). A technique, consistent

with stabilized approach procedures, for flying the final approach
segment of a non-precision instrument approach procedures as a
continuous descent, without level-off, from an altitude/height at or above
the final approach fix altitude/height to a point approximately 15 m (50 ft)
above the landing runway threshold or the point where the flare
manoeuvre should begin for the type of aircraft flown.
Congested area. A city, town or settlement, or an open-air assembly of

people.
Congested hostile environment. A hostile environment within a

congested area.

Consignment. One or more packages of dangerous goods accepted by

an operator from one shipper at one time and at one address, receipted
for in one lot and moving to one consignee at one destination address.
Contaminated runway.1 A runway is contaminated when a significant

portion of the runway surface area (whether in isolated areas or not)
within the length and width being used is covered by one or more of the
substances listed in the runway surface condition descriptors
Continuing airworthiness. The set of processes by which an aircraft,

remote pilot station, an aeronautical product complies with the applicable
airworthiness requirements and remains in a condition for safe operation
throughout its operating life.
Continuing airworthiness maintenance programme. A maintenance

programme approved by the State of Registry
Continuing airworthiness records. Records that are related to the

continuing airworthiness status of an aircraft or aeronautical product
Continuous descent final approach (CDFA). A technique, consistent

with stabilised approach procedures, for flying the FAS of an instrument
NPA procedure as a continuous descent, without level-off, from an
altitude/height at or above the final approach fix altitude/height to a point
approximately 15 m (50 ft) above the landing runway threshold or the
point where the flare manoeuvre begins for the type of aircraft flown; for
the FAS of an NPA procedure followed by a circling approach, the CDFA
technique applies until circling approach minima (circling OCA/H) or
visual flight manoeuvre altitude/height are reached
Contracting States. All States that are signatories to the Convention on

International Civil Aviation (Chicago Convention)
Control area. A controlled airspace extending upward from a specified

limit above the earth.
Control zone. A controlled airspace extending upward from the surface

of the earth to a specified upper limit
Controlled aerodrome. An aerodrome at which ATC service is

provided to aerodrome traffic.
Controlled airspace. An airspace of defined dimensions within which

ATC service is provided in accordance with the airspace classification.

Note: Controlled airspace is a generic term that covers ATC or ATS

airspace Classes A, B, C, D, and E as described in ICAO Annex 11: 2.6.
Controlled flight. Any flight which is subject to an ATC clearance.
Controlled flight into terrain (CFIT) Occurs when an airworthy aircraft

is flown, under the control of a qualified pilot, into terrain, water or
obstacles with inadequate awareness on the part of the pilot of the
impending collision.
Controller-pilot data link communications (CPDLC). A means of

communication between controller and pilot, using data link for ATC
communications.
Conversion. Conversion is the action taken by the Authority in issuing

its own licence on the basis of a licence issued by another Contracting
State for use on aircraft registered in Nigeria
Co-pilot. A licensed pilot serving in any piloting capacity other than as

pilot-in-command but excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the
sole purpose of receiving flight instruction.
Note: Co-pilot as here defined is synonymous with the term "second-in-
command" or "SIC."
Corporate aviation operation. The non-commercial operation or use of

aircraft by a company for the carriage of passengers or goods as an aid
to the conduct of company business, flown by (a) professional pilot(s)
employed to fly the aircraft.
Coulomb (C). The quantity of electricity transported in 1 second by a

current of 1 ampere
Course. A programme of instruction to teach knowledge, skills and/or

competencies in a particular area or subject, or to maintain existing
qualifications
Courseware. Instructional material developed for each course or

curriculum, including lesson plans and other aides such as: computer
software programmes, audio-visual programmes, workbooks, and
handouts.
Credit. Recognition of alternative means or prior qualifications.
Crew member. A person assigned by an operator to duty on an aircraft

during a flight duty period.
Crew resource management. A programme designed to improve the

safety of flight operations by optimising the safe, efficient, and effective
use of human resources, hardware, and information through improved
crew communication and co-ordination.

Critical engine(s). Any engine whose failure gives the most adverse
effect on the aircraft characteristics relative to the case under
consideration.
Note. On some aircraft there may be more than one equally critical
engine. In this case, the expression “the critical engine” means one of
those critical engines.
Critical phases of flight. Those portions of operations involving taxiing,

takeoff and landing, and all flight operations below 3050 m (10,000 feet),
except cruise flight.
Critical power-unit(s). A power-unit(s) the failure of which has the most

adverse effect on the aircraft characteristics relative to the case under
consideration.
Note: On some aircraft there may be more than one equally critical
power-unit. In this case, the expression “the critical power-unit” means
one of those critical power-units.
Cross country. A flight between a point of departure and a point of

arrival following a pre-planned route using standard navigation
procedures.
Cross-country time. That time a pilot spends in flight in an aircraft

which includes a landing at a point other than the point of departure and,
for the purpose of meeting the cross-country time requirements for a
private pilot licence (except with a rotorcraft rating), commercial pilot
licence, or an instrument rating, includes a landing at an aerodrome
which must be a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles
from the original point of departure.
Cruise climb. An aeroplane cruising technique resulting in a net

increase in altitude as the aeroplane mass decreases.
Cruise relief pilot. A flight crew member who is assigned to perform

pilot tasks during cruise flight to allow the PIC or co-pilot to obtain
planned rest.
Cruising level. A level maintained during a significant portion of a flight.
Current flight plan. The flight plan, including changes, if any, brought
about by subsequent clearances.
Curriculum. A set of courses in an area of specialization offered as part

of a training programme. Check TRAINAIR Plus training manual.
C2 Link. The data link between the remotely piloted aircraft and the
remote pilot station for the purposes of managing the flight.

C2 Link interruption. Any temporary situation where the C2 Link is

unavailable, discontinuous, introduces too much delay, or has
inadequate integrity; but the lost C2 Link decision time has not been
exceeded.
C2 Link specification. The minimum performance to be achieve by the

C2 Link equipment in conformity with the applicable airworthiness
system design requirements.
Danger area. An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities

dangerous to the flight of the aircraft may exist at specified times.
Dangerous goods. Articles or substances that are capable of posing a

risk to health, safety, property or the environment are shown in the
Technical Instructions (see definition below) or as classified according to
those Instructions.
Dangerous goods accident. An occurrence associated with and

related to the transport of dangerous goods by air that results in fatal or
serious injury to a person or major property or environmental damage.
Dangerous goods incident. An occurrence, other than a dangerous

goods accident, associated with and related to the transport of
dangerous goods by air, not necessarily occurring on board an aircraft,
that results in injury to a person, property or environmental damage, fire,
breakage, spillage, leakage of fluid or radiation or other evidence that
the integrity of the packaging has not been maintained. Any occurrence
relating to the transport of dangerous goods which seriously jeopardises
an aircraft or its occupants is deemed to constitute a dangerous goods
incident.
Dangerous goods transport document. A document specified by

Technical Instructions for the Safe Transportation of Dangerous Goods
by Air. It is completed by the person who offers dangerous goods for air
transport and contains information about those dangerous goods. The
document bears a signed declaration indicating that the dangerous
goods are fully and accurately described by their proper shipping names
and UN numbers (if assigned) and that they are correctly classified,
packed, marked, labelled and in a proper condition for transport.
Note: See definition below for Technical Instructions.
Data link communications. A form of communication intended for the

exchange of messages via a data link.
Data link recording system. A device controlled directly or indirectly,

that records the messages through which the flight path of an aircraft is
authorized and relays those messages over a digital data-link rather than
by voice communication.

Date of Manufacture. The date of issue of the document attesting the

individual aircraft or engine appropriate conforms to the requirements of
the type or date of an analogous document.
Deadhead transportation. Time spent in transportation on aircraft (at

the insistence of the AOC holder) to or from a crew member’s home
station.
Decision altitude (DA) or decision height (DH). A specified altitude or

height in a 3D instrument approach operation at which a missed
approach shall be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the
approach has not been established.
Note 1: Decision altitude (DA) is referenced to mean sea level and
decision height (DH) is referenced to the threshold elevation.
Note 2: The required visual reference means that section of the visual
aids or of the approach area which should have been in view for
sufficient time for the pilot to have made an assessment of the aircraft
position and rate of change of position, in relation to the desired flight
path. In Category III operations with a decision height that required
visual reference is that specified for the particular procedure and
operation.
Note 3: For convenience where both expressions are used they may be
written in the form “decision altitude/height” and abbreviated “DA/H”.
Defined point after takeoff (DPATO). The point, within the takeoff and
initial climb phase, before which the Class 2 helicopter's ability to
continue the flight safely, with one engine inoperative, is not assured and
a forced landing may be required.
Defined point before landing (DPBL). The point, within the approach
and landing phase, after which the Class 2 helicopter's ability to continue
the flight safely, with one engine inoperative, is not assured and a forced
landing may be required.
Degree Celsius (0C). The special name for the unit kelvin for use in
stating values of Celsius temperature.
Derivative Version. An aircraft gas turbine engine of the same generic

family as an originally type-certificated engine and having features which
retain the basic core engine and combustor design of the original model
and for which other factors, as judged by the certificating authority, have
not changed.
Derived version of a C02- certified aeroplane. An aeroplane which

incorporates a change in the type design that either increases its
maximum takeoff mass, or that increase its CO2 emissions evaluation
metric value by more than:

a. 1.35 percent at a maximum takeoff mass of 5,700kg, decreasing

linearly to;
b. 0.75 percent at a maximum takeoff mass of 60,000kg decreasing

linearly to;
c. 0.70 percent at a maximum takeoff mass of 600,000kg; and
d. A constant 0.70 percent at a maximum takeoff masses greater

than 600,000kg
Note. In some state, where the certificating authority find that

the proposed change in design, configuration. Power or mass is
so extensive that a substantially complete investigation of
compliance with the applicable airworthiness regulation is
required, the aeroplane requires a Type Certificate.
Derived Version of a non –CO2 certified aeroplane. An individual

aeroplane that conforms to an existing Type Certificate, but which is not
certified to Annex 16 Volume III, and to which a change in the type
design prior to the issuance of the aeroplane’s first Certificate of
Airworthiness that increases its CO2 emissions evaluation metric value
by more than 1.5 percent or is considered to be a significant CO2
change.
Derived version of an aeroplane. An aeroplane which, from the point

of view of airworthiness, is similar to the noise certificated prototype but
incorporates changes in type design which may affect its noise
characteristics adversely.
Derived version of a helicopter. A helicopter which, from the point of

view of airworthiness, is similar to the noise certificated prototype but
incorporates changes in type design which may affect its noise
characteristic adversely.
Design landing mass. The maximum mass of the aircraft at which, for
structural design purposes, it is assumed that it will be planned to land.
Design take-off mass. The maximum mass at which the aircraft, for
structural design purposes, is assumed to be planned to be at the start
of the take-off run.
Design taxiing mass. The maximum mass of the aircraft at which

structural provision is made for load liable to occur during use of the
aircraft on the ground prior to the start of take-off.
Designated Examiner. Any person designated by the Authority to act as

a representative of the Authority in examining, inspecting, and testing
persons for the purposes of issuing licences, ratings, or certificates

Designated Postal Operator. Any governmental or non-governmental

entity officially designated by a Universal Postal Union (UPU) member
country to operate postal services and to fulfill the related obligations
arising from the Acts of the UPU convention on its territory.
Detect and avoid. The capability to see, sense or detect conflicting

traffic or other hazards and take the appropriate action.
DETRESFA—The code word used to designate a distress phase
Directly in charge. As relating to an Approved Maintenance

Organisation in Part 6 of these regulation - Means an appropriately
licensed person(s) having the responsibility for the work of an approved
maintenance organisation that performs maintenance, overhaul,
modification, repair, inspection or other functions affecting aircraft
airworthiness. A person directly in charge does not need to physically
observe and direct each worker constantly but must be available for
consultation on matters requiring instruction or decision from a higher
authority.
Director General. The Director General of Nigeria Civil Aviation

Authority (DGCA) appointed under Section 11 of the Civil Aviation Act.
Discrete source damage. Structural damage of the aeroplane that is

likely to result from: impact with a bird, uncontained fan blade failure,
uncontained engine failure, uncontained high-energy rotating machinery
failure or similar causes.
Disruptive passenger. A passenger who fails to respect the rules of

conduct at an aerodrome or on board an aircraft or to follow the
instructions of aerodrome personnel or crew members and thereby
disturbs the good order and discipline at the aerodrome or on board the
aircraft.
Dry lease. The lease of an aircraft without the crew.
Dry runway. A runway is considered dry if its surface is free of visible

moisture and not contaminated within the area intended to be used
Dual instruction time. Flight time during which a person is receiving

flight instruction from a properly authorised pilot on board the aircraft or
from a properly authorized remote pilot using the RPS during and an
RPA flight
Duty. Any task that flight or cabin crew members are required by the
operator to perform, including for example, flight duty, administrative
work, training, positioning and standby when it is likely to induce fatigue.
Duty period. As related to an air operator, a period which starts when

flight or cabin crew personnel are required by an operator to report for or
to commence a duty and ends when that person is free from all duties.

Duty time. The total time from the moment a person identified in these
regulations begins, immediately after a rest period, any work on behalf of
the operator until that person is free from all restraint associated with
that work.
Economic poison. Any substance or mixture of substances intended

for:
(i) Preventing, destroying, repelling, or mitigating any insects,

rodents, nematodes, fungi, weeds, and other forms of plant or
animal life or viruses, except viruses on or in living human beings
or other animals, that Nigeria may declare to be a pest; or
(ii) Use as a plant regulator, defoliant or desiccant.
Effective length of the runway. The distance for landing from the point
at which the obstruction clearance plane associated with the approach
end of the runway intersects the centre line of the runway to the far end.
Electronic Flight Bag (EFB). An electronic information system

consisting of equipment and applications for flight crew, which allows for
the storing, updating, displaying and processing of EFB functions to
support flight operations or duties.
Elevated heliport. A heliport located on a raised structure on land.
Emergency locator transmitter (ELT). A generic term describing

equipment that broadcast distinctive signals on designated frequencies
and, depending on application, may be automatically activated by impact
or be manually activated. An ELT may be any of the following:
(i) Automatic fixed (ELT(AFI)). An automatically activated ELT that

is permanently attached to an aircraft.
(ii) Automatic portable (ELT(API)). An automatically activated ELT

that is rigidly attached to an aircraft but readily removable from
the aircraft.
(iii) Automatic deployable ELT (ELT(AD)). An ELT that is rigidly

attached to an aircraft and automatically deployed and activated
by impact, and in some cases, also be hydro static sensors.
Manual deployment is also provided.
(iv) Survival (ELT(S)). An ELT that is removable from an

aircraft stowed to facilitate its ready use in an emergency,
and manually activated by survivors

Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) battery useful life. The length

of time after its date of manufacture or recharge that the battery or
battery pack may be stored under normal environmental conditions
without losing its ability to allow the ELT to meet the applicable
performance standards.
Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) battery expiration date. The

date of battery manufacture or recharge plus one half of its useful life. .
Engine. A unit used or intended to be used for aircraft propulsion. It

consists of at least those components and equipment necessary for
functioning and control, but excludes the propeller/rotors (if applicable).
Enhanced ground proximity warning system (EGPWS). A forward

looking warning system that uses the terrain data base for terrain
avoidance
Enhanced vision system (EVS). A system to display electronic real-

time images of the external scene achieved through the use of image
sensors.
Note: EVS does not include night vision imaging systems
En-route phase. That part of the flight from the end of the take-off and
initial climb phase to the commencement of the approach and landing
phase.
Note: Where adequate obstacle clearance cannot be guaranteed

visually, flights must be planned to ensure that obstacles can be cleared
by an appropriate margin. In the event of failure of the critical engine,
operators may need to adopt alternative procedures
Error. As relates to the flight crew, an action or inaction by the flight

crew that leads to deviations from organisational or flight crew intentions
or expectations.
Error management. The process of detecting errors and responding to

them with countermeasures that reduce or eliminate the consequences
of errors and mitigate the probability of further errors or undesired states.
Note: See Chapter 6 of Part II, Section I, of ICAO Doc 9868,

Procedures for Air Navigation Services – Training (PANS-TRG);
and ICAO Circular 314, Threat and Error Management (TEM) in
Air Traffic Control, for a description of undesired states.

Estimated off-block time. The estimated time at which the aircraft will
commence movement associated with departure.
Estimated time of arrival. For IFR flights, the time at which it is

estimated that the aircraft will arrive over that designated point, defined
by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended that IAP will be
commenced, or if no navigation aid is associated with the aerodrome,
the time at which the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome. For VFR
flights, the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over
the aerodrome.
Evaluator. A person employed by a certified Approved Training

Organisation who performs tests for licensing, added ratings,
authorisations, and proficiency checks that are authorised by the
certificate holder’s training specification, and who is authorised by the
Authority to administer such checks and tests
Examiner. Any person designated by the Authority to act as a

representative of the Authority in examining, inspecting, and testing
persons and aircraft for the purpose of issuing licences, ratings, and
certificates
Exception. As relating to dangerous goods in Part 9 of these

regulations, a provision in ICAO Annex 18 that excludes a specific item
of dangerous goods from the Standards normally applicable to that item.
Exhaust Nozzle. In the exhaust emissions sampling of gas turbine

engines where the jet effluxes are not mixed ( as in some turbo fan
engines, for example) the nozzle considered is that for the gas
generator( core) flow only. Where, however, the jet efflux is mixed, the
nozzle considered is the total exit nozzle.
Expected approach time. The time at which ATC expects that an

arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete
its approach for a landing.
Note: The actual time of leaving the holding point will depend upon the
approach clearance.
Extended diversion time operations (EDTO). Any operation by an

aeroplane with two or more turbine engines where the diversion time to
an en-route alternate aerodrome is greater than the threshold time
established by the State of the Operator.

Extended diversion time operations (EDTO critical fuel. The fuel

quantity necessary to fly to an en-route alternate aerodrome considering
at the most critical point on the route, the most limiting system failure.
Extended diversion time operations (EDTO) significant system. An

aeroplane system whose failure or degradation could adversely affect
the safety particular to an EDTO flight, or whose continued functioning is
specifically important to the safe flight and landing of an aeroplane
during an extended diversion time operations diversion.
Extended flight over water. A flight operated over water at a distance

of more than 93km (50 NM), or 30 minutes at normal cruising speed,
whichever is the lesser, away from land suitable for making an
emergency landing.
Extended overwater operation. With respect to aircraft other than

helicopters, an operation over water at a horizontal distance of more
than 50 nm from the nearest shoreline; and to helicopters, an operation
over water at a horizontal distance of more than 50 nm from the nearest
shoreline and more than 50 nm from an offshore heliport structure.
Facility. A physical plant, including land, buildings, and equipment, that

provides a means for the conduct of the activities approved by the
Authority for an approved or certificated entity.
Factor of safety. A design factor used to provide for the possibility of

loads greater than those assumed, and for uncertainties in design and
fabrication.
Farad (F). The capacitance of a capacitor between the plates of which

there appears a difference of potential of 1 volt when it is charged by a
quantity of electricity equal to 1 coulomb
Fatal injury. As relates to an aircraft accident, any injury that results in

death within 30 days of the accident.
Fatigue. A physiological state of reduced mental or physical

performance capability resulting from sleep loss, extended
wakefulness, Circadian phase, and or workload (mental and/or physical
activity) that can impair a person’s alertness and ability to perform safety
related operational duties.
Fatigue risk management system (FRMS). A data-driven means of

continuously monitoring and managing fatigue-related safety risks,
based upon scientific principles and knowledge as well as operational
experience that aims to ensure relevant personnel are performing at
adequate levels of alertness.
Filed flight plan. A flight plan as filed with an ATS unit by the pilot or a
designated representative, without any subsequent changes.

Final approach. That part of an instrument approach procedure which

commences at the specified final approach fix or point, or where such a
fix or point is not specified, at the end of the last procedure turn, base
turn or inbound turn of a racetrack procedure, if specified; or at the
point of interception of the last track specified in the approach
procedure; and ends at a point in the vicinity of an aerodrome from
which:
(i) a landing can be made; or
(ii) a missed approach procedure is initiated
Final approach and take-off area (FATO). A defined area over which
the final phase of the approach manoeuvre to hover or landing is
completed and from which the take-off manoeuvre is commenced.
Where the FATO is to be used by performance Class 1 helicopters, the
defined area includes the rejected take-off area available.
Final approach segment (FAS). The segment of an IAP in which

alignment and descent for landing are accomplished.
Finding. Conclusion by audit personnel that demonstrates non-

conformity with a specific standard.
Fireproof. The capability to withstand the application of heat by a flame

for a period of 15 minutes.
Note: The characteristics of an acceptable flame can be found in
ISO 2685 Aircraft – Environmental test procedure for airborne
equipment – Resistance to fire in designated fire zones.
Fireproof material. A material capable of withstanding heat as well as

or better than steel when the dimensions in both cases are appropriate
for the specific purpose.
Fire resistant. The capability to withstand the application of heat by a

flame for a period of 5 minutes.
Note: The characteristics of an acceptable flame can be found in
ISO 2685 Aircraft – Environmental test procedure for airborne
equipment – Resistance to fire in designated fire zones.
Flight(s). The period from takeoff to landing.
Flight crew member. A licensed crew member charged with duties

essential to the operation of an aircraft during flight duty period.
Flight data analysis. A process of analysing recorded flight data in

order to improve the safety of flight operations.

Flight duty period. A period that commences when a flight or cabin

crew member is required to report for duty that includes a flight or a
series of flights and that finishes when the aircraft finally comes to rest
and the engines are shut down at the end of the last flight on which
he/she is a crew member.
Flight information centre. A unit established to provide flight

information service and alerting service.
Flight information region. An airspace of defined dimensions within

which flight information service and alerting service are provided.
Flight information service. A service provided for the purpose of

giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of
flights.
Flight level. A surface of constant atmospheric pressure that is related

to a specific pressure datum, 1,013.2 hectopascals (hPa), and is
separated from other such surfaces by specific pressure intervals.
Flight manual. A manual, associated with the certificate of

airworthiness, that contains limitations within which the aircraft is to be
considered airworthy, and instructions information necessary to the flight
crew members for the safe operation of the aircraft.
Flight operations officer/flight dispatcher. A person designated by the

operator to engage in the control and supervision of flight operations,
whether licensed or not, who is suitably qualified in accordance with
ICAO Annex 1 and who supports, briefs and/or assists the PIC in the
safe conduct of the flight.
Flight plan. Specified information provided to ATS units, relative to an

intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft.
Flight recorder. Any type of recorder installed in the aircraft for the
purpose of complementing accident/incident investigation. Note: This
could include the cockpit voice recorder (CVR) or flight data recorder
(FDR).
Flight Release—A flight preparation identifying the type of operation

with the permitting weight limitations, fuel requirement, weather
conditions at departure, en-route destination and alternate airports for
safe operation
Flight safety document system. A set of inter-related documentation

established by the operator, compiling and organising information
necessary for flight and ground operations, and comprising, as a
minimum, OM and the operator’s MCM.

Flight simulation training device (FSTD).2 Any one of the following

three types of apparatus in which flight conditions are simulated on the
ground:
(i) Flight simulator. Provides an accurate representation of the

flight deck of a particular aircraft type or an accurate
representation of the RPAS to the extent that the mechanical,
electrical, electronic, etc., aircraft systems control functions; the
normal environment of flight crew members; and the performance
and flight characteristics of that type of aircraft are realistically
simulated.
(ii) Flight procedures trainer. Provides a realistic flight deck

environment or realistic RPAS environment and simulates
instrument responses; simple control functions of mechanical,
electrical, electronic, etc., aircraft systems; and the performance
and flight characteristics of aircraft of a particular class.
(iii) Basic instrument flight trainer. Is equipped with appropriate

instruments and simulates the flight deck environment of an
aircraft in flight or the RPAS environment in instrument flight
conditions Flight status. An indication of whether a given aircraft
requires special handling by air traffic services units or not.
Flight simulator. See flight simulation training device (FSTD)
Flight status. An indication of whether or not a given aircraft requires

special handling by ATS units
Flight time. The period of time that the aircraft moves under its own
power for the purpose of flight and ends when the aircraft comes to rest
after it is parked, with engine(s) shut down if applicable.
Note: Flight time as here defined is synonymous with the term "block-to-
block" time or "chock-to-chock" time in general usage, which is
measured from the time an aircraft moves from the loading point until it
stops at the unloading point.
Flight time— aeroplane. The total time from the moment an aeroplane
first moves for the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes
to rest at the end of the flight.
Flight time—glider. The total time occupied in flight, whether being

towed or not, from the moment the glider first moves for the purpose of
taking off until the moment it come to rest at the end of the flight
Flight time—helicopter. The total time from the moment a helicopter’s

rotor blades start turning until the moment the helicopter finally comes to
rest at the end of the flight, and the rotor blades are stopped.

Flight time – remotely piloted aircraft (RPA) systems. The total time
from the moment a C2 link is established between the RPS and the RPA
for the purpose of taking off or from the moment the remote pilot receives
control following a handover until the moment the remote pilot completes
a handover or the C2 link between the RPS and the RPA is terminated at
the end of the flight
Flight training. Training, other than ground training, received from an

authorised instructor in flight in an aircraft.
Flight visibility. The visibility forward from the flight deck of an aircraft
in flight.
Foot (ft)—The length equal to 0.304 8 metre exactly
Forecast—A statement of expected meteorological conditions for a

specified time or period, and for a specified area or portion of airspace
Foreign air operator. Any air operator, order than a Nigerian air
operator, that undertakes, whether directly or indirectly or by lease or
any other arrangement, to engage in commercial air transport operations
within the borders or airspace of Nigeria, whether on a scheduled or
charter basis.
Foreign Authority. The civil aviation authority that issues and oversees
the AOC of the foreign operator.
Frangible Object—An object of low mass designed to break, distort, or

yield on impact so as to present the minimum hazard to aircraft
Freight container. See unit load device. ULD
Freight container in the case of radioactive material transport. An

article of transport equipment designed to facilitate the transport of
packaged goods, by one or more modes of transport without
intermediate reloading. It shall be of a permanent enclosed character,
rigid and strong enough for repeated use, and shall be fitted with devices
facilitating its handling, particularly in transfer between aircraft and from
one mode of transport to another. A small freight container is one that
has either an overall outer dimension less than 1.5 m, or an internal
volume of not more than 3m³. Any other freight container is considered
to be a large freight container.
General aviation operation. An aircraft operation other than a

commercial air transport operation or an aerial work operation.
Glider. A non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in

flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces, that remain, fixed
under given conditions of flight.

Global Navigation Satellite System. A worldwide position and time

determination system, which includes one or more satellite
constellations, aircraft receivers and system integrity monitoring,
augmented as necessary to support the required navigation
performance for the actual phase of operation.
Gray (Gy). The energy imparted by ionizing radiation to a mass of matter

corresponding to 1 joule per kilogram
Ground handling. Services necessary for an aircraft’s arrival at, and

departure from, an airport, other than ATS
Ground proximity warning system (GPWS). A warning system that

uses radar altimeters to alert the pilots of hazardous flight conditions.
Ground visibility. The visibility at an aerodrome, as reported by an

accredited observer or my automatic systems.
Gyroplane. A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight by the

reactions of the air on one or more rotors that rotate freely on
substantially vertical axes.
Handling agent. An agency that performs on behalf of the operator

some or all of the latter's functions including receiving, loading,
unloading, transferring or other processing of passengers or cargo.
Handover. The act of passing piloting control from one RPS to another
Hazard. A condition or an object with the potential to cause injuries to

personnel, damage to equipment or structures, loss of material, or
reduction of ability to perform a prescribed function.
Heading. The direction in which the longitudinal axis of an aircraft is

pointed, usually expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic,
compass or grid.
Head-up display (HUD). A display system that presents flight

information into the pilot’s forward external field of view.
Heavier-than-air aircraft. Any aircraft deriving its lift in flight chiefly

from aerodynamic forces.
Height. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered

a point, measured from a specified datum.
Helicopter. A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the

reactions of the air on one or more power-driven rotors on substantially
vertical axis.

(i) Categories:
(A) Category A. A multi-engined helicopter designed with

engine and system isolation features specified in ICAO
Annex 8, Part IVB, and capable of operations using take-
off and landing data scheduled under a critical engine
failure concept that assures adequate designated surface
area and adequate performance capability for continued
safe flight or safe rejected take-off.
(B) Category B. A single engine or multi-engined helicopter

that does not meet Category A standards. Category B
helicopters have no guaranteed capability to continue
safe flight in the event an engine failure, and a forced
landing is assumed.
(ii) Performance classes:
(A) Class 1 helicopter. A helicopter with performance such

that, in case of critical engine failure, it is able to land
within the rejected takeoff area or safely continue the
flight to an appropriate landing area, depending on when
the failure occurs.
(B) Class 2 helicopter. A helicopter with performance such

that, in case of critical engine failure, it is able to safely
continue the flight, except when the failure occurs prior to
a defined point after takeoff or after a defined point before
landing, in which case a forced landing may be required.
(C) Class 3 helicopter. A helicopter with performance such

that, in case of engine failure at any point in the flight
profile, a forced landing must be performed.
Note 1: See also definitions for operations in performance Class
1, Class 2 and Class 3, below.
Note 2: Helicopters operating as Class 1 or 2 will be certified as

Category A. Helicopters operating as Class 3 will be certified as
either Category A or B (or equivalent).
Helicopter Load Combinations. Configurations for external loads

carried by helicopter—
(i) Class A. External load fixed to the helicopter, cannot be jettisoned,

and does not extend below the landing gear, used to transport
cargo.
(ii) Class B. External load suspended from the helicopter, which

can be jettisoned, and is transported free of land or water during
rotorcraft operations.

(iii) Class C. External load suspended from the helicopter, which

can be jettisoned, but remains in contact with land or water
during rotorcraft operation.
(iv) Class D. External load suspended from the helicopter for the
carriage of persons
Henry (H)—The inductance of a closed circuit in which an electromotive

force of 1 volt is produced when the electric current in the circuit varies
uniformly at a rate of 1 ampere per second
Hertz (Hz)—The frequency of a periodic phenomenon of which the period

is 1 second
Helideck. A heliport located on a floating or fixed offshore structure.
Heliport. An aerodrome or defined area on a structure intended to be

used wholly or in part for the arrival, departure, and surface movement of
helicopters.
Heliport operating minima. The limits of usability of a heliport for:
(i) Take-off, expressed in terms of RVR and/or visibility and, if

necessary, cloud conditions;
(ii) Landing in 2D instrument approach operations, expressed in

terms of visibility and/or RVR,(MDA/H) and, if necessary, cloud
conditions; and
(iii) Landing in 3D instrument approach operations, expressed in

terms of visibility and/or RVR and (DA/H) appropriate to the type
and/or category of the operation.
High-Performance Aeroplane. An aeroplane with an engine of more

than 200 horsepower
High-risk cargo or mail. High-risk cargo or mail. Cargo or mail which

is deemed to pose a threat to civil aviation as a result of specific
intelligence; or shows anomalies or signs of tampering which give rise to
suspicion
High speed aural warning. A speed warning that is required for

turbine-engined airplanes and airplanes with a Vmo/Mmo greater than
0.80 Vdf/Mdf or Vd/Md.
Holdover time. The estimated time de-icing or anti-icing fluid will

prevent the formation of frost or ice and the accumulation of snow on the
protected surfaces of an aircraft. Holdover time begins when the final
application of de-icing or anti-icing fluid commences and expires when
the de-icing or anti-icing fluid applied to the aircraft loses its
effectiveness.

Hostile environment. An environment in which:
(i) A safe forced landing cannot be accomplished because the

surface and surrounding environment are inadequate; or
(ii) The helicopter occupants cannot be adequately protected from

the elements; or
(iii) Search and rescue response/capability is not provided consistent

with anticipated exposure; or
(iv) There is an unacceptable risk of endangering persons or property

on the ground.
Housing. As relating to AMO in Part 6 of these regulation, buildings,

hangers, and other structures to accommodate the necessary equipment
and materials of a maintenance organization and to:
(i) Provide working space for the performance of maintenance,

overhaul, modification, repair and inspection for which the
maintenance organisation is approved and rated; and
(ii) Provide structures for the proper protection of aircraft and

aeronautical products during disassembly, cleaning, inspection,
repair, modification, assembly, and testing; and
(iii) Provide for the proper storage, segregation, and protection of

materials, parts, and supplies.
Human factors principles. Principles that apply to aeronautical design,

certification, training, operations and maintenance and which seek safe
interface between the human and other system components by proper
consideration to human performance.
Human performance. Human capabilities and limitations that have an

impact on the safety and efficiency of aeronautical operations
ICAO. International Civil Aviation Organisation.
ICAO competency framework. Developed by ICAO, it is a selected

group of competencies for a given aviation discipline. Each competency
has an associated description and observable behaviors
IFR. The symbol used to designate the instrument flight rules.
IFR flight. A flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight

rules.
IMC. The symbol used to designate instrument meteorological

conditions.

INCERFA—The code word used to designate an uncertainty phase
Incident. An occurrence other than an accident, associated with the

operation of an aircraft that affects or could affect the safety of
operations.
Includes. A rule of construction defined in Part 1.1.1.1(a)(5) of this part

as “includes but is not limited to.”
Incompatible. Describing dangerous goods, which if mixed, would be

liable to cause a dangerous evolution of heat or gas or produce a
corrosive substance.
Industry codes of practice. Guidance material developed by an

industry body, for a particular sector of the aviation industry to comply
with the requirements of the ICAO SARPs, other aviation safety
requirements and the best practices deemed appropriate.
Note: Some States accept and reference industry codes of practice in
the development of regulation to meet the requirements of Annex 6, Part
II and ICAO Annex 19 and make available, for the industry codes of
practice, their sources and how they may be obtained.
Inspection. The examination of an aircraft or aeronautical product to

establish conformity with a standard approved by the Authority.
Instructions for continuing airworthiness. A set of descriptive data,

maintenance planning and accomplishment instructions, developed by a
design approval holder in accordance with the certification basis for the
product, providing operators with the necessary information for the
development of their own maintenance programme and accomplishment
instructions.
Instrument approach categories.
(i) Category I (CAT I) operation. A precision instrument approach

and landing with a DH not lower than 60 m (200 ft) and with
either a visibility not less than 800 m or an (RVR) not less than
550 m.
(ii) Category II (CAT II) operation. A precision instrument

approach and landing with a DH lower than 60 m (200ft) but no
lower than 30 m (100 ft) and a RVR not less 300 m.
(iii) Category III (CAT III) operation. A DH lower than 30 m

(100 ft) or no DH and an RVR less than 300 m or no RVR
limitations.
Note: Definitions taken from text in ICAO Annex 6, Part 1: 4.2.8.3 and
ICAO Annex 6, Part III, Section II: 2.2.8.

Instrument approach operations. An approach and landing using

instruments for navigation guidance based on an IAP. There are two
methods for executing instrument approach operations:
(i) A 2D instrument approach operation, using lateral

navigation guidance only; and
(ii) A 3D instrument approach operation, using both lateral

and vertical navigation guidance.
Note: Lateral and vertical navigation guidance refers to the
guidance provided either by: (a) a ground-based radio
navigation aid; or (b) computer-generated navigation data
from ground-based, space-based, self-contained
navigation aids or a combination of these.
Instrument approach procedure (IAP). A series of predetermined

manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with specified protection
from obstacles from the initial approach fix, or where applicable, from the
beginning of a defined arrival route to a point from which a landing can
be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a position
at which holding or en-route obstacle clearance criteria apply. IAPs are
classified as follows:
(i) Non-precision approach (NPA) procedure. An IAP designed

for 2D instrument approach operations Type A.
Note: NPA procedures may be flown using a CDFA technique.
CDFAs with advisory VNAV guidance calculated by on-board
equipment are considered 3D instrument approach operations.
CDFA with manual calculation of the required rate of descent are
considered 2D instrument approach operations. For more
information, see ICAO Doc, 8168, PANS-OPS, Vol. I, Part II,
Section 5.
(ii) Approach procedure with vertical guidance (APV). A PBN

IAP designed for 3D instrument approach operations Type A.
(iii) Precision approach (PA) procedure. An IAP based on

navigation systems (ILS, MLS, GLS and SBAS CAT I) designed
for 3D instrument approach operations Type A or B.
Note: Refer to ICAO Annex 6 for instrument approach operation

types
Instrument flight rules (IFR). The rules that allow properly equipped
aircraft to be flown under IMC.
Note: IFR are detailed in ICAO Annex 2, Chapter 5.

Instrument flight time. Time during which a pilot is piloting an aircraft

or a remote pilot is piloting an RPA solely by reference to instruments
and without external reference points.
Instrument ground time. Time during which a pilot is practising, on the

ground, simulated instrument flight in an FSTD approved by the
Authority.
Instrument landing system (ILS). A precision runway approach aid

based on two radio beams which together provide pilots with both
vertical and horizontal guidance during an approach to land
Instrument meteorological conditions (IMC). Meteorological

conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and
ceiling, less than the minima specified for visual meteorological
conditions.
Instrument time. Time in which flight deck instruments are used as the
sole means for navigation and control, which may be instrument flight
time or instrument ground time.
Instrument training. Training that is received from an authorised

instructor under actual or simulated IMC.
Integrated survival suit. A survival suit that meets the combined

requirement of the survival suit and life jacket.
Interchange agreement. A leasing agreement that permits an air

carrier to dry lease and take or relinquish operational control of an
aircraft at an airport.
International commercial air transport. The carriage by aircraft of

persons or property for remuneration or hire or the carriage of mail
between any two or more countries.
International operating agency. An agency of the kind contemplated

in Article 77 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation (Chicago
Convention).
Investigation. As relates to an aircraft accident or incident, a process

conducted for the purpose of accident prevention that includes the
gathering and analysis of information, the drawing of conclusions,
including the determination of causes and, when appropriate, the making
of safety recommendations.
Investigator-in-charge. As relates to an aircraft accident or indent, a

person charged, on the basis of his or her qualifications, with the
responsibility for the organisation, conduct and control of an
investigation.

Isolated aerodrome. A destination aerodrome for which there is no

destination alternate aerodrome suitable for a given aeroplane type.
Joule (J)—The work done when the point of application of a force of 1

newton is displaced a distance of 1 metre in the direction of the force
Journey log. A form signed by the PIC of each flight that records the
aeroplane's registration, crew member names and duty assignments, the
type of flight, and the date, place, and time of arrival and departure.
Kelvin (K)—A unit of thermodynamic temperature which is the fraction l/

273.16 of the thermodynamic temperature of the triple point of water
Kilogram (kg)—The unit of mass equal to the mass of the international

prototype of the kilogram
Knot (kt)—The speed equal to 1 nautical mile per hour
Knowledge test. A test on the aeronautical knowledge areas required

for an airman licence or rating that can be administered in written form or
by a computer.
Landing area. That part of a movement area intended for the landing or
takeoff of an aircraft.
Land distance available (LDA). The lengthy of runway that is declared

available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane landing.
Landing decision point (LDP). The point used in determining the

Class 1 helicopter’s landing performance from which, an engine failure
having been recognized at this point, the landing may be safely
continued or a balked landing initiated.
Landing surface. That part of the surface of an aerodrome that the

aerodrome authority has declared available for the normal ground or
water run of aircraft landing in a particular direction.
Large aeroplane. An aeroplane having a maximum certified takeoff

mass of 5,700 kg. (12,500 lbs.).
Level. A generic term relating to the vertical position of an aircraft in

flight and meaning variously, height, altitude or flight level.
Licensing Authority. The authority designated by a Contracting State

as responsible for the licensing of personnel.
. Note. In these regulations, the Licensing Authority is deemed to have
been given the following responsibilities by the Contracting State:

(i) Assessment of an applicant’s qualifications to hold a licence or

rating;
(ii) Issue and endorsement of licences and ratings;
(iii) Designation and authorisation of approved persons;
(iv) Approval of training courses;
(v) Approval of the use of FSTD and authorisation for their use in
gaining the experience or demonstrating the skill required for the
issue of a licence or rating; and
(vi) Validation of licences issued by other Contracting States.
Life-limited part. Any part for which a mandatory replacement limit is

specified in the type design, the Instructions for Continuing
Airworthiness, or the AMM.
Lighter-than-air aircraft. Any aircraft supported chiefly by its buoyancy

in the air
Lighting System Reliability. The probability that the complete lighting

installation operates within the specified tolerances and that the
system is operationally usable.
Likely. In the context of the medical requirements in for licensing in Part

2 of these regulations likely means with a probability of occurring that is
unacceptable to the medical assessor.
Limit loads. The maximum loads assumed to occur in the anticipated

operating conditions
Line check. A check given to a pilot by a check pilot to evaluate the

pilot’s operational competency during line operating flight time in an
aircraft type he/she is qualified to fly, over a route and area in which the
AOC holder is authorised to operate
Line maintenance. Any unscheduled maintenance resulting from

unforeseen events, or scheduled checks containing servicing and/or
inspections that do not require specialised training, equipment or
facilities.
Line operating flight time. Flight time recorded by the PIC or CP while
in revenue service for an AOC holder.
Line Oriented Flight Training (LOFT). Training in a simulator with a

complete crew using representative flight segments which contain normal,
abnormal and emergency procedures that may be expected in line
operations
Line-Oriented Simulation. Simulation conducted using operational-

oriented flight scenarios that accurately replicate interaction among flight
crew members and between flight crew members and dispatch facilities,
other crewmembers, air traffic control and ground operations

Litre (L). A unit of volume restricted to the measurement of liquids and

gases which is equal to 1 cubic decimetre
Load factor. The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft,
the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia
forces or ground reactions.
Long range overwater flights. Routes on which an aeroplane may be

over water and at more than a distance corresponding to 120 minutes at
cruising speed or 740 km (400 NM), whichever is the lesser, away from
land suitable for making an emergency landing.
Low altitude wind shear warning and guidance system. A system

that will issue a warning of low altitude wind shear and in some cases
provide the pilot with guidance information of the escaper manoeuvre.
Low-visibility operations (LVO). Approach operations in RVRs less

than 550 m and/or with a DH less than 60 m (200 ft) or take-off
operations in RVRs less than 400 m.
Lost C2 Link decision time. The maximum length of time permitted

before declaring a lost C2 Link state during which the C2 Link
performance is not sufficient to allow the remote pilot to actively manage
the flight in a safe and timely manner appropriate to the airspace and
operational conditions
Lost C2 Link state. The state of the RPAS in which the C2 Link
performance has degraded, as a result of a C2 Link interruption that is
longer than the lost C2 Link decision time, to a point where it is not
sufficient to allow the remote pilot to actively manage the flight in a safe
and timely manner
Lumen (Lm). The luminous flux emitted in a solid angle of 1 steradian

by a point source having a uniform intensity of 1 candela
Lux (Lr). The luminance produced by a luminous flux of 1 lumen

uniformly distributed over a surface of 1 square metre.
Mach number indicator. An indicator that shows airspeed as a

function of the Mach number.
Maintenance The performance of tasks on an aircraft, remote pilot

station, engine, propeller or associated part required to ensure the
continuing airworthiness of an aircraft, remote pilot station, engine,
propeller or associated part including any one or combination of
overhaul, inspection, replacement, defect rectification, and the
embodiment of a modification or repair
Maintenance Authorization. An authorization issued by the Authority to

AOC holder to enable the AOC holder carry out certain level of maintenance
on the AOC's holder's aircraft and also issue approval for return to service
for the maintenance carried out instead of using an (AMO) Approved
Maintenance Organization.

Maintenance control manual. A document that describes the

operator’s procedures necessary to ensure that all scheduled and
unscheduled maintenance is performed on the operator’s aircraft on time
and in a controlled and satisfactory manner.
Maintenance organisation’s procedures manual. A document

endorsed by the head of the maintenance organisation which details the
maintenance organisation’s structure and management responsibilities,
scope of work, description of facilities, maintenance procedures and
quality assurance or inspection systems.
Maintenance programme. A document that describes the specific

scheduled maintenance tasks and their frequency of completion and
related procedures, such as a reliability programme, necessary for the
safe operation of those aircraft to which it applies.
Maintenance records. Records that set out the details of the

maintenance carried out on an aircraft, engine, propeller or associated
part.
Maintenance release. A document which contains a certification

confirming that the maintenance work to which it relates has been
completed in a satisfactory manner in accordance with appropriate
airworthiness requirements.
Note. The responsibility for each step of the accomplished maintenance

is borne by the person signing that step and the maintenance release
certifies the entire maintenance work package. This arrangement in no
way reduces the responsibility of licensed aircraft maintenance
Engineer (AME) or maintenance organisations for maintenance
functions or tasks they perform. The air operator is obligated to
designate, by name or occupational title, each licensed AME or
maintenance organisation authorised to execute the airworthiness
release
Major modification. With respect of an aeronautical product for which a

TC has been issued, a change in the Type Design that has an
appreciable effect, or other than a negligible effect, on the mass and
balance limits, structural strength, powerplant operation, flight
characteristics, reliability, operational characteristics, or other
characteristics or qualities affecting the airworthiness or environmental
characteristics of an aeronautical product.
Major repair. A repair that (1) that if improperly done might appreciably
affect mass, balance, structural strength, performance, powerplant,
operations, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting
airworthiness; or (2) that is not done according to accepted practices or
cannot be done by elementary operations.
Manoeuvering area. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the

takeoff, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding ramps.

Marker. An object displayed above ground level in order to indicate an

obstacle or delineate a boundary
Marking. A symbol or group of symbols displayed on the surface of the

movement area in order to convey aeronautical information
Master minimum equipment list (MMEL). A list established for a
particular aircraft type by the organisation responsible for the type design
with the approval of the State of Design containing items, , one or more
of which is permitted to be unserviceable at the commencement of a
flight. The MMEL may be associated with special operating conditions,
limitations or procedures. The MMEL provides the basis for
development, review, and approval by the Authority of an individual
operator's MEL.
Materially modified aircraft. Aircraft having powerplants installed other

than those for which it is certified or modifications to the aircraft or its
components that materially affect flight characteristics.
Maximum certificated take-off-mass. The maximum permissible take-

off mass of the aircraft according to the certificate of airworthiness, the
flight manual, or other official document.
Maximum diversion time. Maximum allowable range, expressed in

time, from a point on a route to an en-route alternate aerodrome
Maximum passenger seating capacity. The maximum certificated

number of passengers for the aeroplane type design.
Maximum takeoff mass. The highest of all takeoff masses for the type
design.
May. A rule of construction in paragraph 1.1.1.1(a)(3) of this part that
indicates that discretion can be used when performing an act described
in a regulation.
Medical Assessment. The evidence issued by a contracting state that

the licence holder meets specific requirements of medical fitness
Medical assessor. A physician, appointed by the Licensing Authority,

qualified and experienced in the practice of aviation medicine and
competent in evaluating and assessing medical conditions of flight safety
significance.
Medical certificate. A document issued by the Authority as acceptable

evidence of physical fitness as required for certain personnel licence
holders.
Medical examiner. A physician with training in aviation medicine and

practical knowledge and experience of the aviation environment, who is
designated by the Licensing Authority to conduct medical examinations
of fitness of applicants for licences or ratings for which medical
requirements are prescribed. Called Aviation Medical examiners (AME)
in this Part when non-CAA physicians are designated to perform medical
examinations.

Meteorological information. Meteorological report, analysis, forecast,

and any other statement relating to existing or expected meteorological
conditions.
Meteorological office—An office designated to provide meteorological

service for international air navigation
Metre (m)—The distance travelled by light in a vacuum during II299 792

458 of a second
Minimum descent altitude (MDA) or minimum descent height

(MDH). A specified altitude or height in a 2D instrument approach
operation or circling approach operation below which descent must not
be made without the required visual reference.
Note 1: MDA is referenced to MSL and MDH is referenced to the
aerodrome elevation or to the threshold elevation if that is more than 2 m
(7 ft) below the aerodrome elevation. An MDH for a circling approach is
referenced to the aerodrome elevation.
Note 2: The required visual reference means that section of the visual
aids or of the approach area that should have been in view for sufficient
time for the pilot to have made an assessment of the aircraft position and
rate of change of position, in relation to the desired flight path. In the
case of a circling approach the required visual reference is the runway
environment.
Note 3: For convenience when both expressions are used they may be
written in the form “minimum descent altitude/height” and abbreviated
“MDA/H”.
Minimum equipment list (MEL). A list approved by the Authority that

provides for the operation of aircraft, subject to specified conditions, with
particular equipment inoperative, prepared by an operator in conformity
with, or more restrictive than, the MMEL established for the aircraft type.
Minister. This term means the Minister responsible for civil aviation
Minor repair. A minor repair means a repair other than a major repair.
Minor modification. A modification other than a major modification
Modification. The alteration of an aircraft/aeronautical product in

conformity with an approved standard.
Mole (mol)—The amount of substance of a system which contains as

many elementary entities as there are atoms in 0.012 kilogram of
carbon-12
Monitoring. A cognitive process to compare an actual to an expected

state.

Note: Monitoring is embedded in the competencies for a given role within

an aviation discipline, which serve as countermeasures in the threat and
error management model. It requires knowledge, skills, and attitudes to
create a mental model and to take appropriate action when deviations
are recognise
Movement area. That part of an aerodrome to be used for takeoff,

landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuevring area and
the ramp(s).
Navigable airspace. The airspace above the minimum altitudes of flight

prescribed in Part 8 of these regulations and includes airspace needed
to insure safety in the takeoff and landing of aircraft.
Navigational Aids in Nigeria—Systems/Facilities (ground or space

based) which have the capability of radiating and receiving radio
frequency waves or signals in the airspace for aircraft in flight to utilise
for monitoring flight progress, approach and landing
Nautical mile (NM)—The length equal to 1 852 metres exactly
Navigation of aircraft. A function that includes the piloting of aircraft
Navigation specification. A set of aircraft and flight crew requirements

needed to support PBN operations within a defined airspace. There are
two kinds of navigation specifications:
(i) Required navigation performance (RNP) specification. A

navigation specification based on area navigation that includes
the requirement for performance monitoring and alerting,
designated by the prefix RNP, e.g. RNP 4, RNP APCH.
(ii) Area navigational (RNAV) specification. A navigation

specification based on area navigation that does not include the
requirement for performance monitoring and alerting, designated
by the prefix RNAV, e.g. RNAV 5, RNAV 1.
Note 1: ICAO Doc 9613, Performance-based Navigation (PBN) Manual,
Volume II, contains detailed guidance on navigation specifications
Note 2 - The term RNP, previously defined as “a statement of the

navigation performance necessary for operation within a defined
airspace,” has been removed from these Regulations, as the concept of
RNP has been overtaken by the concept of PBN. The term RNP is now
solely used in the context of navigation specifications that require
performance monitoring and alerting; for example, RNP 4 refers to the
aircraft and operating requirements, including a 4 NM lateral
performance with on-board performance monitoring and alerting, that are
detailed in ICAO Doc 9613.
Newton (N)—The force which when applied to a body having a mass of 1

kilogram gives it an acceleration of 1 metre per second squared

Night. The hours between the end of evening civil twilight and the
beginning of morning civil twilight or such other period between sunset
and sunrise, as may be prescribed by the authority.
Note: Civil twilight ends in the evening when the centre of the sun’s disc
is 6 degrees below the horizon and begins in the morning when the
centre of the sun’s disc is 6 degrees below the horizon
Nominal C2 Link state. The state of the RPAS when the C2 Link
performance is sufficient to allow the remote pilot to actively manage the
flight of the RPA in a safe and timely manner appropriate to the airspace
and operational conditions
Non -congested hostile environment. A hostile environment outside a

congested area.
Non - Hostile environment. An environment in which:
(i) A safe forced landing can be accomplished because the surface

and surrounding environment are adequate; or
(ii) Occupants can be adequately protected from the elements; or
(iii) Search and rescue response/capability is provided consistent

with anticipated exposure; and
(iv) The assessed risk of endangering persons or property on the

ground is acceptable.
Note. Those parts of a congested area satisfying the above

requirements are considered non-hostile.
Non-precision approach (NPA) procedure. An IAP designed for 2D

instrument approach operations Type A.
Note: NPA procedures may be flown using a CDFA. CDFA with advisory
VNAV guidance calculated by on-board equipment (see ICAO Doc 8168,
Procedures for Air Navigation Services – Aircraft Operations (PANS-
OPS), Volume I, Flight Procedures, Part I, Section 4, Chapter 1,
paragraph 1.8.1) are considered 3D instrument approach operations.
CDFA with manual calculation of the required rate of descent are
considered 2D instrument approach operations
Non-volatile particulate matter. (nvPM). Emitted particles that exists at

a gas turbine engine exhaust nozzle exit plane that do not volatilized
when heated to a temperature of 3500C.
Observable Behaviour (OB). A single role-related behaviour that can be

observed and may or may not be measurable.
Obstacle—All fixed (whether temporary or permanent) and mobile

objects, or parts thereof, that are located on an area intended for the
surface movement of aircraft or that extended above a defined surface
intended to protect aircraft in flight

Obstacle clearance altitude (OCA) or obstacle clearance height

(OCH). The lowest altitude or the lowest height above the elevation of
the relevant runway threshold or the aerodrome elevation as applicable,
using in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance
criteria.
Note 1: OCA is referenced to MSL and OCH is referenced to the

threshold elevation or, in the case of NPA procedures, to the aerodrome
elevation or the threshold elevation if that is more than 2 m (7 ft) below
the aerodrome elevation. An OCH for a circling approach procedure is
referenced to the aerodrome elevation.
Note 2: For convenience when both expressions are used they may be
written in the form “obstacle clearance altitude/height” and abbreviated
“OCA/H.”
Obstruction clearance plane. A plane sloping upward from the runway

at a slope of 1:20 to the horizontal, and tangent to or clearing all
obstructions within a specified area surrounding the runway as shown in
a profile view of that area. In the plane view, the centreline of the
specified area coincides with the centreline of the runway, beginning at
the point where the obstruction clearance plane intersects the centreline
of the runway and proceeding to a point at least 450 m (1,500) feet from
the beginning point. Thereafter, the centreline coincides with the takeoff
path over the ground for the runway (in the case of takeoffs) or with the
instrument approach counterpart (for landings), or where the applicable
one of these paths has not been established, it proceeds consistent with
turns of at least a 1.2 km (4,000 foot) radius until a point is reached
beyond which the obstruction clearance plane clears all obstructions.
This area extends laterally 60 m (200 feet) on each side of the centreline
at the point where the obstruction clearance plane intersects the runway
and continues at this width to the end of the runway; then it increases
uniformly to150 m (500 feet) on each side of the centreline at a point 450
m (1,500 feet) from the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane
with the runway; thereafter, it extends laterally 150 m (500 feet) on each
side of the centreline.
Obstacle Free Zone (OFZ). The airspace above the inner approach
surface, inner transitional surfaces and balked landing surface and that
portion of the strip bounded by these surfaces, which is not penetrated by
any fixed obstacle other than a low-mass and frangibly mounted one
required for air navigation purposes
Obstacle Limitation Surfaces. Series of surfaces that define the

volume of airspace at and around an aerodrome to be kept free of
obstacle in order to permit the intended aircraft operations to be
conducted safely and to prevent the aerodrome from becoming unusable
by the growth of obstacles around the aerodrome
Offshore Operations. Operations that routinely have a substantial

proportion of the flight conducted over sea areas to or from offshore
locations. Such operations include, support of offshore oil, gas and
mineral exploitation and sea-pilot transfer.

Ohm (Ω). The electric resistance between two points of a conductor

when a constant difference of potential of 1 volt, applied between these
two points, produces in this conductor a current of 1 ampere, this
conductor not being the source of any electromotive force
Operating base. The location from which operational control is

exercised.
Note: An operating base is normally the location where personnel

involved in the operation of the aeroplane work and where the records
associated with the operation are located. An operating base has a
degree of permanency beyond that of a regular point of call.
Operating Position. An air traffic control function performed within or

directly
Operation. An activity or group of activities which are subject to the

same or similar hazards and require a set of equipment to be specified,
or the achievement and maintenance of a set of pilot competencies, to
eliminate or mitigate the risk of such hazards.
Note 1: Such activities could include offshore operations, heli-hoist

operations, or emergency medical service
Operational control. The exercise of authority over the initiation,

continuation, diversion or termination of a flight in the interest of the
safety of the aircraft and the regularity and efficiency of the flight.
Operational credit. A credit authorized for operations with an advanced

aircraft enabling a lower aerodrome operating minimum than would
normally be authorized for a basic aircraft, based upon the performance
of advanced aircraft systems utilizing the available external infrastructure
Operational flight plan. The operator's plan for the safe conduct of the
flight based on considerations of aircraft performance, other operating
limitations, and relevant expected conditions on the route to be followed
and at the aerodromes or heliports concerned.
Operational personnel. Personnel involved in aviation activities who

are in a position to report safety information.
Note .- Such personnel include, but are not limited to flight crews; air
traffic controllers; aeronautical station operators; maintenance
technicians; personnel of aircraft design and manufacturing
organizations ;cabin crews; flight dispatchers, ramp personnel and
ground handling personnel
Operations in performance Class 1. Helicopter operations with

performance such that, in the event of critical engine failure,
performance is available to enable the helicopter to safety continue the
flight to an appropriate landing area, unless the failure occurs prior to
reaching the take-off decision point (TDP) or after passing the LDP, in
which cases the helicopter must be able to land within the rejected take-
off or landing area.


performance such that, in the event of critical engine failure,
performance is available to enable the helicopter to safety continue the
flight to an appropriate landing area, except when the failure occurs early
during the take-off manoeuver or late in the landing manoeuver, in which
cases a forced landing may be required.

performance such that, in the event of an engine failure at any time
during the flight, a forced landing will be required.
Operations manual (OM). A manual containing procedures,

instructions and guidance for use by operational personnel in the
execution of their duties
Operations specifications (AOC). Operations specifications (AOC).

The authorisations including specific approvals, conditions, and
limitations associated with the AOC and subject to the conditions in the
OM
Operations specifications (AMO). A part of the AMO certificate used

to administer safety standards and define the terms, conditions, and
limitations within which the AMO shall conduct business operations.
Note: Operations specifications are issued by the Authority and are

considered a legal, contractual agreement between the Authority and the
AMO
Operator. The person, organisation or enterprise engaged in or offering

to engage in an aircraft operation (ICAO). The person who causes or
authorises the operation of an aircraft, such as the owner, lessee, or
bailee of an aircraft, or/or the PIC
Note: In the context of RPA, an aircraft operation includes the RPAS.
Operator’s maintenance control manual (MCM) A document that
describes the operator’s procedures necessary to ensure that all
scheduled and unscheduled maintenance is performed on the operator’s
aircraft on time and in a controlled and satisfactory manner.
Optimum conditions. The combinations of altitude and air speed within

the approved operating envelop defined in the aeroplane flight manual
that provides the highest specific air range value at each reference
aeroplane mass.
Organisation responsible for the type design. The organisation that

holds the TC, or an equivalent document, for an aircraft, remote pilot
station, engine, or propeller type, issued by a Contracting State
Ornithopter. A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the

reactions of the air on planes to which a flapping motion is imparted.

Overhaul. The restoration of an aircraft/aeronautical product using

methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Authority,
including disassembly, cleaning, and inspection as permitted, repair as
necessary, and reassembly; and tested in accordance with approved
standards and technical data, or in accordance with current standards
and technical data acceptable to the Authority, which have been
developed and documented by the State of Design, holder of the type
certificate, supplemental type certificate, or a material, part, process, or
appliance approval under Parts Manufacturing Authorisation (PMA) or
Technical Standard Order (TSO).
Overpack. An enclosure used by a single shipper to contain one or

more packages and to form one handling unit for convenience of
handling and stowage.
Oxide of nitrogen. The sum of the amounts of the nitric oxide and
nitrogen dioxide contained in a gas sample calculated as if the nitric
oxide were in the form of nitrogen dioxide
Package. The complete product of the packing operation consisting of

the packaging and its contents prepared for transport.
Packaging. Receptacles and any other components or materials

necessary for the receptacle to perform its containment function.
Pascal (Pa)—The pressure or stress of 1 newton per square meter
Passenger aircraft. An aircraft that carries any person other than a

crew member, an operator’s employee in an official capacity, an
authorized representative of an appropriate national authority or a
person accompanying a consignment or other cargo.
Passenger exit seats. Those seats having direct access to an exit, and
those seats in a row of seats through which passengers would have to
pass to gain access to an exit, from the first seat inboard of the exit to
the first aisle inboard of the exit. A passenger seat having "direct
access" means a seat from which a passenger can proceed directly to
the exit without entering an aisle or passing around an obstruction.
Performance-based aerodrome operating minimum (PBAOM). A

lower aerodrome operating minimum, for a given take-off, approach or
landing operation, than is available when using a basic aircraft
Note. PBAOM may be based on operational credits.
Note 2, PBAOM are not limited to PBN operations.
Performance-based communication (PBC). Communication based on

performance specifications applied to the provision of ATS.

Note: An RCP specification includes communication performance

requirements that are allocated to system components in terms of the
communication to be provided and the associated transaction time,
continuity, availability, integrity, safety, and functionality needed for the
proposed operation in the context of a particular airspace concept
Performance-based navigation (PBN). Area navigation based on

performance requirements for aircraft operating along an ATS route, on
an IAP or in a designated airspace.
Note: Performance requirements are expressed in navigation
specifications (RNAV specification, RNP specification) in terms of
accuracy, integrity, continuity, availability and functionality needed for the
proposed operation in the context of a particular airspace concept.
Performance-based surveillance (PBS). Surveillance based on

performance specifications applied to the provision of ATS.
Note: An RSP specification includes surveillance performance

requirements that are allocated to system components in terms of the
surveillance to be provided and the associated data delivery time,
continuity, availability, integrity, accuracy of the surveillance data, safety,
and functionality needed for the proposed operation in the context of a
particular airspace concept
Performance class 1 helicopter. A helicopter with performance such

that, in case of engine failure it is able to land on the rejected take-off
area or safely continue the flight to an appropriate landing area.

that, in case of engine failure, it is able to safely continue the flight,
except when the failure occurs prior to a defined point after take-off or
after a defined point before landing, in which case a forced landing may
be required.

that, in case of engine failure at any point in the flight profile, a forced
landing must be performed.
Performance criteria. Statements used to assess whether the required

levels of performance have been achieved for a competency. A
performance criterion consists of an observable behaviour, condition(s),
and a competency standard.
Performance model. An analytical tool or method validated from

corrected flight test data that can be used to determine the SAR values
for calculating the CO2 emissions evaluation metric value at the
reference conditions.

Person. Any individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company,

association, joint stock association, or body politic, including any trustee,
receiver, assignee, or other similar representative of these entities.
Pilot flying (PF). The pilot whose primary task is to control and manage
the flight path. The secondary tasks of the PF are to perform non-flight-
path-related actions (radio communications, aircraft systems, other
operational activities, etc.) and to monitor other crew members
Pilot in command (PIC). The pilot responsible for the operation and
safety of the aircraft during flight time. The pilot designated by the
operator, or in the case of general aviation, the owner, as being in
command and charged with the safe conduct of the flight.
Pilot in command (PIC) under supervision. A CP performing under

the supervision of the PIC, the duties and functions of a PIC, in
accordance with a method of supervision acceptable to the Licensing
Authority.
Pilot monitoring (PM). The pilot whose primary task is to monitor the
flight path and its management by the PF. The secondary tasks of the
PM are to perform non-flight-path-related actions (radio communications,
aircraft systems, other operational activities, etc.) and to monitor other
crew members.
Pilot time. That time a person—
(i) Serves as a required pilot;
(ii) Receives training from an authorised instructor in an aircraft, or

an approved FSTD; or
(iii) provides training as an authorised instructor in an aircraft, or an

approved FSTD.
Pilot (to). To manipulate the flight controls of an aircraft during flight

time.
Point of no return. The last possible geographic point at which an

aeroplane can proceed to the destination aerodrome as well as to an
available en route alternate aerodrome for a given flight.
Policy. A document containing a position or stance regarding a specific

issue.
Procedure. A step-by-step logical progression of actions and decisions

to achieve an objective.
Process. A set of interrelated or interacted activities that transforms

inputs into outputs

Powered-lift. A heavier-than-air aircraft capable of vertical takeoff,

vertical landing, and low speed flight that depends principally on engine-
driven lift devices or engine thrust for lift during these flight regimes and
on nonrotating aerofoil(s) for lift during horizontal flight.
Powerplant. The system consisting of all the engines, drive system

components (if applicable), and propellers (if installed), their
accessories, ancillary parts, and fuel and oil systems installed on an
aircraft but excluding the rotors for a helicopter.
Power-unit. A system of one or more engines and ancillary parts that

are together necessary to provide thrust, independently of the continued
operation of any other power unit(s), but not including short period
thrust-producing devices.
Practical test. See Skill test.
Precision approach (PA) procedure. An IAP based on navigation

systems (ILS, MLS, GLS, and SBAS CAT I) designed for 3D instrument
approach operations Type A or B.
Note: Refer to ICAO Annex 6, Part I: 4.2.8.3, for instrument approach

operation types
Pre-flight inspection. The inspection carried out before flight to insure

that the aircraft is fit for the intended flight.
Prescribed. A rule of construction in paragraph 1.1.1.1. (a)(8) of this

part that means the Authority has issued written policy or methodology
that imposes either a mandatory requirement, if the written policy or
methodology states “shall,” or a discretionary requirement if the written
policy or methodology states “may.”
Pressure altitude. An atmospheric pressure expressed in terms of

altitude which corresponds to that pressure in the Standard Atmosphere
Pressurised aircraft. For airman-licensing purposes, means an aircraft

that has a service ceiling or maximum operating altitude, whichever is
lower, above 25,000 ft MSL
Preventive maintenance. Simple or minor preservation operations and

the replacement of small standard parts not involving complex assembly
operations
Primary standard. A standard defined and maintained by a State

Authority and used to calibrate secondary standards.
Printed communications—Communications which automatically

provide a permanent printed record at each terminal of a circuit of all
messages which pass over such circuit

Problematic use of substances. The use of one or more psychoactive

substances by aviation personnel in a way that:
(i) Constitutes a direct hazard to the user or endangers the lives,

health or welfare of others; and/or
(ii) Causes or worsens an occupational, social, mental or physical

problem or disorder.
Proficiency check. A competency test by a licence holder on the areas

of operation contained in the skill test for a particular licence, certificate,
rating, or authorisation that is conducted by an authorised representative
of the Authority.
Prohibited area. An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land

areas or territorial waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is
prohibited.
Propeller. A device for propelling an aircraft that has blades on a

powerplant driven shaft and when rotated, produces by its action on the
air, a thrust approximately perpendicular to its plane of rotation. It
includes control components normally supplied by its manufacturer, but
does not include main and auxiliary rotors or rotating aerofoils of
powerplants.
Proper shipping name. The name to be used to describe a particular

article or substance in all shipping documents and notifications and,
where appropriate, on packaging.
Psychoactive substances. Alcohol, opiods, canabinoids, sedatives

and hypnotics, cocaine, other psychostimulants, hallucinogens, and
volatile solvents excluding coffee and tobacco.
Psychosis—A mental disorder in which the individual has manifested

delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganised behaviour, or
other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition; or the individual
may reasonably be expected to manifest delusions, hallucinations,
grossly bizarre or disorganised behaviour, or other commonly accepted
symptoms of this condition
Public aircraft. An aircraft used exclusively in the service of any

government or of any political jurisdiction thereof, including the
Government of Nigeria but not including any government owned aircraft
engaged in operations that meet the definition of commercial air
transport operations.
Qualification based training. Training designed to ensure that

graduates demonstrate the necessary minimum skill, knowledge and
experience levels to meet the qualification requirements of the licence,
rating or privilege.

Quality. The totality of features and characteristics of a product or

service that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs.
Quality assurance. As distinguished from quality control, involves

activities in the business, systems, and technical audit areas. A set of
predetermined, systematic actions that are required to provide adequate
confidence that a product or service satisfies quality requirements.
Quality assurance (as related to ATO). All the planned and systematic
actions necessary to provide adequate confidence that all training
activities satisfy given standards and requirements, including the ones
specified by the approved training organisation in relevant manuals.
Quality audit. A systematic and independent examination to determine

whether quality activities and related results comply with planned
arrangements and whether these arrangements are implemented
effectively and are suitable to achieve objectives.
Quality control. The regulatory inspection process through which

actual performance is compared with standards, such as the
maintenance of standards of manufactured aeronautical products, and
any difference is acted upon.
Quality inspection. That part of quality management involving quality

control. In other words, inspections accomplished to observe
events/actions/documents, etc., in order to verify whether established
operational procedures and requirements are fulfilled during the
accomplishment of the event or action, and whether the required
standard is achieved. Student stage checks and skill tests are quality
inspections, and they are also quality control functions.
Quality management. A management approach focused on the means

to achieve product or service quality objectives through the use of its
four key components: quality planning; quality control; quality assurance;
and quality improvement.
Quality manager. The manager responsible for the monitoring function
and for requesting remedial action. In an ATO, the Quality Manager is
responsible directly to the Head of Training.
Quality manual. The document containing the relevant information
pertaining to the approved training organisation’s quality system.
Quality of training. The outcome of the training that meets stated or

implied needs within the framework of set standards.
Quality of service delivered (QoSD). A statement of the QoS achieved

or delivered to the RPAS operator by the C2CSP
Quality of service required (QoSR). A statement of the QoS

requirements of the RPAS operator to the C2CSP.
Note. QoSR may be expressed in descriptive terms (criteria) listed in the
order of priority, with preferred performance value for each criterion.

The C2CSP then translates these into parameters and metrics pertinent
to the service
Quality system. The set of policies, processes and procedures
required for the planning and execution of safe and efficient air
operations. The system integrates the various internal processes and
enables the organisation to identify, measure, control and improve the
effectiveness and safety of its activities
Radian (rad)—The plane angle between two radii of a circle which cut off
on the circumference an arc equal in length to the radius
Radiotelephony. A form of radiocommunication primarily intended for

the exchange of information in the form of speech.
Ramp. A defined area, on a land aerodrome, intended to accommodate

aircraft for purposes of loading or unloading passengers, mail, or cargo;
fuelling; parking; or maintenance
Rated air traffic controller. An air traffic controller holding a licence

and valid ratings appropriate to the privileges to be exercised.
Rated thrust. For engine emissions purposes, the maximum takeoff
thrust approved by the certificating authority for use under normal
operating conditions at ISA sea level static conditions, and without the
use of water injection. Thrust us expressed in kilonewtons.
Rating. An authorisation entered on or associated with a licence or

certificate and forming part thereof, stating special conditions, privileges
or limitations pertaining to such licence or certificate.
Rebuild. The restoration of an aircraft/aeronautical product by using

methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Authority, when it
has been disassembled, cleaned, inspected as permitted, repaired as
necessary, reassembled, and tested to the same tolerances and limits
as a new item, using either new parts or used parts that conform to new
part tolerances and limits.
Reference geometric factor. An adjustment factor based on the

measurement of an aeroplane fuselage size derived from a two-
dimensional projection of the fuselage.
Reference pressure ratio. The ratio of the mean total pressure at the
last compressor discharge plane of the compressor to the mean total
pressure at the compressor entry plane when the engine is developing
take–off thrust rating in ISA sea level static conditions.
Note. Methods of measuring reference pressure ratio are given in
Appendix 1
Reference standard. A standard that is used to maintain working

standards.

Register. Means the register of Nigeria Civil Aircraft referred to in part 4

of these regulations
Re-issue of a licence, rating, authorisation or certificate. The

administrative action taken after a licence, rating, authorisation or
certificate has lapsed that re-issues the privileges of the licence, rating,
authorisation or certificate for a further specified period contingent upon
the fulfilment of specified requirements.
Remote co-pilot (CP). A licensed remote pilot serving in any piloting

capacity other than as remote PIC but excluding a remote pilot who is in
the RPS for the sole purpose of receiving flight instruction.
Remote flight crew member. A licensed flight crew member charged
with duties essential to the operation of an RPAS during a flight duty
period
Remotely piloted aircraft (RPA). An unmanned aircraft which is piloted
from a remote pilot station
Remotely piloted aircraft system (RPAS). A remotely piloted aircraft,
its associated remote pilot station(s), the required command and control
links and any other components as specified in the type design
Remote pilot. A person charged by the operator with duties essential to
the operation of an RPA and who manipulates the flight controls, as
appropriate, during flight time.
Remote pilot-in-command (PIC). The remote pilot designated by the

operator as being in command and charged with the safe conduct of a
flight.
Remote pilot station (RPS). The component of the RPAS containing
the equipment used to pilot the RPA.
Rendering (a certificate of airworthiness) valid. The action taken by

a Contracting State, as an alternative to issuing its own Certificate of
Airworthiness, in accepting a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by any
other Contracting State as the equivalent of its own Certificate of
Airworthiness.
Rendering (a licence) valid. The action taken by a Contracting State,

as an alternative to issuing its own licence, in accepting a licence issued
by any other Contracting State as the equivalent of its own licence. Also
referred to as validation.
Renewal of licence, rating, authorisation or certificate. The
administrative action taken within the period of validity of a licence,
rating, authorisation or certificate that allows the holder to continue to
exercise the privileges of a licence, rating, authorisation or certificate for
a further specified period contingent upon the fulfilment of specified
requirements.
Repair. The restoration of an aircraft, engine, propeller, or associated
part to an airworthy condition in accordance with the appropriate
airworthiness requirements, after it has been damaged or subjected to
wear

Repetitive flight plan (RPL). A flight plan related to a series of

frequently recurring, regularly operated individual flights with identical
basic features, submitted by an operator for retention and repetitive use
by ATC or ATS units.
Reporting point. A specified geographical location in relation to which
the position of the aircraft can be reported.
Required communication performance (RCP) specification. A set of
requirements for ATS provision and associated ground equipment,
aircraft capability, and operations needed to support PBC
Required inspection. As used in Part 5 of these regulations,
maintenance items and/or modifications that shall be inspected by a
person other than the person performing the work and shall include at
least those that could result in a failure, malfunction, or defect
endangering the safe operation of the aircraft, if not properly performed
or if improper parts or materials are used.
Required surveillance performance (RSP) specification. A set of

requirements for ATS provision and associated ground equipment,
aircraft capability, and operations needed to support PBS
Required navigation performance (RNP). A statement of the
navigation performance necessary for operations with a defined
airspace.
Rescue coordination centre—A unit responsible for promoting efficient
organization of search and rescue services and for coordinating the
conduct of search and rescue operations within a search and rescue
region
Rest period. A continuous and defined period of time, subsequent to

and/or prior to duty, during which flight or cabin crew members are free
of all duties.
Restricted area. An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land

areas or territorial waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is
restricted in accordance with certain specified conditions.
Risk mitigation. The process of incorporating defences or preventive

controls to lower the severity and/or likelihood of a hazard’s projected
consequence
RNP type—A containment value expressed as a distance in nautical
miles from the intended position within which flights would be for at least
95 per cent of the total flying time;
Example—RNP 4 represents a navigation accuracy of plus or minus

7.4 km (4NM) on a 95 per cent containment basis
Rotorcraft. A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight
by the reactions of the air on one or more rotors.

Rotorcraft flight manual (RFM) A manual, associated with the

certificate of airworthiness, containing limitations within which the
rotorcraft is to be considered airworthy, and instructions and information
necessary to the flight crew members of the safe operation of the
rotorcraft.
Rotorcraft load combinations. Configurations for external loads

carried by rotorcraft—
(i) Class A—external load fixed to the rotorcraft, cannot be

jettisoned, and does not extend below the landing gear, used to
transport cargo.
(ii) Class B—external load suspended from the rotorcraft, which can
be jettisoned, and is transported free of land or water during
rotorcraft operations.
(iii) Class C—external load suspended from the rotorcraft, which can
be jettisoned, but remains in contact with land or water during
rotorcraft operation.
(iv) Class D—external load suspended from the rotorcraft for the
carriage of persons.
Route sector. A flight comprising take off, departure, cruise of not less
than 15 minutes, arrival, approach and landing phases.
RPA observer. A trained and competent person designed by the

operator who, by visual observation of the RPA assists the remote pilot
in the safe conduct of the flight.
Runway. A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for

the landing and takeoff of aircraft.
Runway-holding position. A designated position intended to protect a

runway, an obstacle limitation surface, or an ILS/MLS critical/sensitive
area at which taxiing aircraft and vehicles shall stop and hold, unless
otherwise authorised by the aerodrome control tower.
Runway Strip—A defined area including the runway and stopway, if
provided, intended:
(i) to reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway; and
(ii) to protect aircraft flying over it during take-off or landing
operations
Runway visual range (RVR). The range over which the pilot of an
aircraft on the centre line of a runway can see the runway surface
markings or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centre line.
Safe forced landing. Unavoidable landing or ditching with a reasonable

expectancy of no injuries to persons in the aircraft or on the surface.

Safety. The State in which risks associated with aviation activities,

related to, or in direct support of the operation of aircraft, are reduced
and controlled to an acceptable level.
Safety data. A defined set of facts or set of safety values collected from
various aviation-related sources, which when analysed is used to
maintain or improve safety.
Note: Such safety data is collected from proactive or reactive safety-
related activities, including:
I. Accident or incident investigations;
II. Safety reporting;
III. Continuing airworthiness reporting
IV. Operational performance monitoring;
V. Inspections, audits, and surveys; or
VI. Safety studies and reviews.
Safety information. Safety data processed, organised, or presented in
a given context so as to make it useful for the purpose of sharing,
exchanging, or retaining for safety management
Safety management system (SMS). A systematic approach to

managing safety, including the necessary organisational structures,
accountabilities, policies and procedures
Safety oversight. A function, performed by a State, that ensures that

aviation licence, certificate, authorisation, or approval holders comply
with safety-related standards, regulations, and associated procedures
and includes the assessment of the service providers’ SMS where
necessary.
Safety performance. A state or a service provider’s safety achievement

as defined by its safety performance targets and safety performance
indicators
Safety performance indicator. A data-based parameter used for

monitoring and assessing safety performance.
Safety performance target. . A State or service provider’s planned or

intended target for a safety performance indicator over a given period
that aligns with the safety objectives.
Safety programme. An integrated set of regulations and activities

aimed at improving safety.
Safety recommendation. A proposal of the accident investigation

authority of the State conducting the investigation, based on information
derived from the investigation made with the intention of preventing
accidents or incidents.
Safety risk. The Predicted probability and severity of the consequences

or outcomes of a hazard.

Safety-sensitive personnel. Persons who might endanger aviation

safety if they perform their duties and functions improperly including
crew members, aircraft maintenance personnel and air traffic controllers
Satellite approved training organization (ATO). An ATO at a location

other than ATO’s principal place of business.
Satisfactory evidence. A set of documents or activities that a

Contracting State accepts as sufficient to show compliance with an
airworthiness requirement.
Screening. The application of technical or other means that are intended

to identify and/or detect weapons, explosives, or other dangerous
devices, articles, or substances that may be used to commit an act of
unlawful interference.
Note 1: Certain dangerous articles or substances are classified as
dangerous goods by ICAO Annex 18 and the Technical Instructions, and
must be transported in accordance with those instructions. In addition,
ICAO Doc 8973, Restricted – Aviation Security Manual, provides a list of
prohibited items that shall never be carried in the cabin of an aircraft.
Second (s). The duration of 9 192 63 1 770 periods of the radiation

corresponding to the transition between the two hyperfine levels of the
ground state of the caesium-133 atom
Secondary standards. A standard maintained by comparison with a

primary standard.
Security audit. An in-depth compliance examination of all aspects of the

implementation of the national civil aviation security programme
Security control. A means by which the introduction of weapons,

explosives, or other dangerous devices, articles, or substances that may
be used to commit an act of unlawful interference can be prevented
Security Culture. A set of security-related norms, values, attitudes and

assumptions that are inherent in the daily operation of an organization
and are reflected by the actions and behaviors of all entities and
personnel within the organization
Security inspection. An announced or unannounced examination of the

effectiveness of the implementation of specific security measures.
Security restricted area. Those areas of the airside of an airport which

are identified as priority risk areas where in addition to access control,
other security controls are applied;
Security test. A covert or overt trial of an aviation security measure that

simulates an attempt to commit an unlawful act
Series of flights. Consecutive flights that:
(I) Begin and end within a period of 24 hours; and

(iii) Are all conducted by the same PIC.
Serious incident. An incident involving circumstances indicated that an

accident nearly occurred.
Serious injury. An injury that is sustained by a person in an accident

that:
(i) Requires hospitalisation for more than 48 hours, commencing

within seven days from the date the injury was received;
(ii) Results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of

fingers, toes or nose); or
(iii) Involves lacerations that causes severe haemorrhage, nerve,

muscle or tendon damage; or
(iv) Involves injury to any internal organ; or
(v) Involves second or third-degree burns, or any burns affecting

more than 5% of the body surface; or
(vi) Involves verified exposure to infectious substances or injurious

radiation.
Shall. A rule of construction in paragraph 1.1.1.1(a)(1) of this part as

indicating a mandatory requirement.
Shoulder. An area adjacent to the edge of a pavement so prepared as

to provide a transition between the pavement and the adjacent surface
Siemens (S). The electric conductance of a conductor in which a current

of 1 ampere is produced by an electric potential difference of 1 volt
Sievert (Sv). The unit of radiation dose equivalent corresponding to 1

joule per kilogram
SIGMET information. Information issued by a meteorological watch

office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-
route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of aircraft
operations
Signal area. An area on an aerodrome used for the display of ground

signals.
Sign an approval for return to service (to). To certify that maintenance

work has been completed satisfactorily in accordance with appropriate
airworthiness requirements by issuing the approval for return to service
referred to in Parts 6 and 9 of these regulations.
Signature. An individual’s unique identification used as a means of

authenticating a record entry or record. A signature may be hand-
written, electronic, or any other form acceptable to the Authority.

Signed maintenance release. To certify that maintenance work has

been completed satisfactorily in accordance with the applicable
Standards of airworthiness, by issuing the maintenance release referred
to in Part 5 of these regulations.
Significant. In the context of the medical provisions in subpart 2.11 of

these regulations, significant means to a degree or of a nature that is
likely to jeopardise flight safety.
Significant point. A specified geographical location used in defining an

ATS route or the flight path of an aircraft and for other navigation and ATS
purposes
Skill test. A competency test on the areas of operations for a licence,

certificate, rating, or authorisation that is conducted by having the
applicant respond to questions and demonstrate manoeuvres in flight, or
in an approved FSTD, or in a combination of these.
Small aeroplane. An aeroplane having a maximum certified takeoff

mass of 5,700 kg. (12,500 lbs.) or less.
Smoke. The carbonaceous materials in exhaust emissions which

obscure the transmission of light.
Smoke Number. The dimensionless term quantifying smoke emissions
Solo flight. Flight time during which a student pilot is the sole occupant
of the aircraft, or that flight time during which the student acts as a PIC of
a gas balloon or an airship requiring more than one flight crewmember.
Solo flight time. Flight time during which a student pilot is the sole
occupant of an aircraft.
Solo flight time – remotely piloted aircraft (RPA) systems. Flight time
during which a student remote pilot is controlling the RPAS, acting solo
Spare parts. Any parts, appurtenances, and accessories of aircraft

(other than aircraft engines and propellers), of aircraft engines (other
than propellers), of propellers, and of appliances, that are maintained for
installation or use in an aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance,
but which at the time are not installed therein or attached thereto.
Special aircraft jurisdiction of Nigeria This includes:
(i) Civil aircraft of Nigeria and

(ii) Any other aircraft within the jurisdiction of Nigeria, while the
aircraft is in flight, which is from the moment when all external
doors are closed following embarkation until the moment when
one such door is opened for disembarkation or, in the case of a
forced landing, until the competent authorities take over the
responsibility of the aircraft and the persons and property aboard.

Special Curricula. A closely supervised, systematic and continuous

course of training, conforming to a planned syllabus or curriculum, and
conducted in an ATO.
Specialised maintenance. Any maintenance not normally performed

by an AMO (e.g., tire retreating, plating, etc.)
Special VFR flight. A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a

control zone in meteorological conditions below VMC.
Specific air range. The distance an airplane travels in the cruise flight
phase per unit of fuel consumed
Specific approval. An approval that is documented in the operations

specifications for commercial air transport operations or in the list of
specific approvals for non-commercial operations.
Specific operating provisions. The Specific Operating Provisions

describe the ratings (Class and/or Limited) in detail and will contain or
reference material and process specifications used in performing repair
work, along with any limitations applied to the maintenance organisation.
The accountable manager and the Authority sign this document.
Standard. An object, artifact, tool, test equipment, system, or

experiment that stores, embodies, or otherwise provides a physical
quantity, which serves as the basis for measurement of the quantity. It
also includes a document describing the operations and process that
must be performed in order for a particular end to be achieved.
Standard Atmosphere. An atmosphere defined as follows
(a) the air is a perfect dry gas;
(b) the physical constants are:
Sea level mean molar mass:

M0 = 28.964 420 × 10–3 kg mol–1
— Sea level atmospheric pressure:
P0 = 1 013.250 hPa
— Sea level temperature:
t0 = 15°C
T0 = 288.15 K
— Sea level atmospheric density:
ρ0 = 1.225 0 kg m–3
— Temperature of the ice point:
Ti = 273.15 K
— Universal gas constant:
R* = 8.314 32 JK–1mol–1

c) the temperature gradients are:
Temperature gradient
Geopotential altitude (Kelvin per standard
(km) geopotential kilometre)
From To
–5.0 11.0 –6.5
11.0 20.0 0.0
20.0 32.0 +1.0
32.0 47.0 +2.8
47.0 51.0 0.0
51.0 71.0 –2.8
71.0 80.0 –2.0
Note 1.The standard geopotential metre has the value 9.80665 m2 s–2.
Note 2. See Doc 7488 Manual of the ICAO Standard Atmosphere(

extended to 80 kilometers (262500feet)), for the relationship between the
variables and for tables giving the corresponding values of temperature,
pressure, density and geopotential.
Note 3. .Doc 7488 also gives the specific weight, dynamic viscosity,
kinematic viscosity and speed of sound at various altitudes.
State of design. The State having jurisdiction over the organisation

responsible for the type design.
State of design of modification. The state having jurisdiction over the

individual or organization responsible for the design of the modification
or repair of an aircraft, engine or propeller.
State of destination. The State in the territory of which the consignment

is finally to be unloaded from an aircraft.
State of manufacture. The State having jurisdiction over the

organization responsible for the final assembly of the aircraft, remote
pilot station, engine or propeller.
State of occurrence. The State in the territory of which an accident or

incident occurs.
State of origin. The State in the territory of which the consignment is

first to be loaded on an aircraft.
State of registry. The State on whose register an aircraft is entered.

Note: In the case of the registration of aircraft of an international
operating agency on other than a national basis, the States constituting
the agency are jointly and severally bound to assume the obligations
which, under the Chicago Convention, attached to a State of Registry.

See, in this regard the Council Resolution of 14 December 1967 on

Nationality and Registration of Aircraft Operated by International
Operating Agencies which can be found in Policy and Guidance Material
on the Economic Regulation of International Air Transport (Doc 9587).
State of the Aerodrome. The State in whose territory the aerodrome is

situated.
State of the operator. The State in which the operator’s principal place
of business is located, or, if there is no such place of business, the
operator’s permanent residence,
State of the principal location of a general aviation operator. The

State in which the operator of a general aviation aircraft has its principal place
of business or, if there is no such place of business, its permanent
residence.
Note: Guidance concerning the options for the principal location of a
general aviation operator is contained in ICAO Doc 10059, Manual on the
Implementation of Article 83 bis of the Convention on International Civil
Aviation.
State safety programme. An integrated set of regulations and activities

aimed at improving safety.
Station declination. An alignment variation between the zero degree

radial of a VOR and true north, determined at the time the VOR station is
calibrated
Steradian (sr). The solid angle which, having its vertex in the centre of a
sphere, cuts off an area of the surface of the sphere equal to that of a
square with sides of length equal to the radius of the sphere
Stores (supplies). Stores (supplies) (a) for consumption and (b) to be

taken away.
Subsonic aeroplane. An aeroplane incapable of sustaining level flight

at speeds exceeding a Mach number 1.
Substantial damage. Damage or failure which adversely affects the

structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft,
and which would normally require major repair or replacement of the
affected component. Engine failure or damage limited to an engine if
only one engine fails or is damaged, bent fairings or cowling, dented
skin, small punctured holes in the skin or fabric, ground damage to rotor
or propeller blades, and damage to landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps,
engine accessories, brakes, or wingtips are not considered "substantial
damage" for the purpose of this substantial damage relating to an aircraft
accident.

Surveillance. The State activities through which the State proactively

verifies through inspections and audits that aviation licence, certificate,
authorisation, or approval holders continue to meet the established
requirements and function at the level of competency and safety
required by the State
Switchover. The act of transferring the active datalink path between the
RPS and the RPA from one of the links or networks that constitutes the
C2 Link to another link or network that constitutes the C2 Link
Syllabus (training). The detailed summary or outline describing the

main points of a course.
Synthetic flight trainer. See Flight simulation training device.
Synthetic Vision System. A system to display data-derived synthetic

images of the external scene from the perspective of the flight deck.
Take-off and initial climb phase. That part of the flight from the start of
take-off to 300m (1000ft) above the elevation of the FATO, if the flight is
planned to exceed this height, or to the end of the climb in the other
cases
Take-off decision point. The point used in determining takeoff

performance from which a power unit occurring at this point either a
rejected takeoff may be made or a takeoff may be safely continued. TDP
applies to performance Class 1 helicopters.
Take-off phase. The operating phase defined by the time during which
the engine is operated at the rated thrust.
Take-off safety speed for Category A rotorcraft (VTOSS). As it

pertains to rotary-wing aircraft, the minimum speed at which climb shall
be achieved with the critical engine inoperative, the remaining engines
operating within approved operating limits.
Note: The speed referred to above may be measured by instrument
indications or achieved by a procedure specified in the flight manual.
Take-off surface. The part of the surface of an aerodrome that the

aerodrome authority has declared available for the Norman ground or
water run of aircraft taking off in a particular direction.
Target level of safety (TLS). A generic term representing the level of

risk that is considered acceptable in particular circumstances.
Taxi/ground idle. The operating phases involving taxi and idle between
the initial starting of the propulsion engine(s) and the initiation of the
take-off roll and between the time of runway turn-off and final shut down
of all propulsion engine(s)
Note1. In some contracting States, a documents equivalent with Type

Certificate may be issued for an engine or propeller type.

Note 2. In some contracting States, the Type Certificate may also certify
that the design meets the appropriate aircraft engine emissions
requirements of that State
Taxiing. Movement of an aircraft on the surface of an aerodrome under

its own power, excluding takeoff and landing.
Taxiway. A defined path on a land aerodrome established for the

taxiing of aircraft and intended to provide a link between one part of the
aerodrome and another, including:
(i) Aircraft stand taxilane. A portion of an ramp designated as a

taxiway and intended to provide access to aircraft stands only.
(ii) Ramp taxiway. A portion of a taxiway system located on a ramp

and intended to provide a through taxi route across the ramp.
(iii) Rapid exit taxiway. A taxiway connected to a runway at an acute

angle and designed to allow landing aeroplanes to turn off at
higher speeds than are achieved on other exit taxiways thereby
minimising runway occupancy times.
Technical log. A document carried on an aircraft that contains

information to meet ICAO requirements; a technical log contains two
independent sections: a journey record section and an aircraft
maintenance record section.
Technical Instructions. ICAO Doc 9284, Technical Instructions for the

Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air, including the supplement
and any addendum approved and issued periodically by the ICAO
Council.
Note: The term “Technical Instructions” is used in these regulations.
Terminal control area. A control area normally established at the

confluence of ATC routes in the vicinity of one or more major
aerodromes.
Terrain awareness warning system. A system that provides the flight

crew with sufficient information and alert to detect a potentially
hazardous terrain situation and so the flight crew may take effective
action to prevent a (CFIT) event.
Tesla (T). The magnetic flux density given by a magnetic flux of 1 weber
per square metre
Threat. As relating to flight, events or errors that occur beyond the

influence of the flight crew, increase operational complexity and shall be
managed to maintain the margin of safety.
Threat management. The process of detecting threats and responding

to them with countermeasures that reduce or eliminate the
consequences of threats, and mitigate the probability of errors or
undesired states.

Threshold time. The range, expressed in time, established by the State

of the Operator, to an en-route alternate aerodrome, where any time
beyond requires a specific approval for EDTO from the State of the
Operator.
Tonne (t). The mass equal to 1 000 kilograms
Total estimated elapsed time. For IFR flights, the estimated time
required from takeoff to arrive over that designated point, defined by
reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended that an IAP will be
commenced, or, if no navigation aid is associated with the destination
aerodrome, to arrive over the destination aerodrome. For VFR flights,
the estimated time required from takeoff to arrive over the destination
aerodrome.
Total vertical error (TVE). The vertical geometric difference between

the actual pressure altitude flown by an aircraft and its assigned
pressure altitude (flight level).
Traceability. A characteristic of a calibration, analogous to a pedigree.

A traceable calibration is achieved when each measurement device and
working standard, in a hierarchy stretching back to the national standard,
was itself properly calibrated, and the results properly documented. The
documentation provides the information needed to show that all
calibrations in the chain of calibrations were properly performed.
Track. The projection on the earth’s surface of the path of an aircraft,

the direction of which path at any point is usually expressed in degrees
from North (true, magnetic or grid).
Traffic avoidance advice. Advice provided by an ATS unit specifying

manoeuvres to assist a pilot to avoid a collision.
Traffic information. Information issued by an ATS unit to alert a pilot to

other known or observed air traffic that may be in proximity to the
position or intended route of flight and to help the pilot avoid a collision.
Training and procedures manual. A manual containing procedures,

instructions and guidance for use by personnel of an Approved Training
Organisation in the execution of their duties in meeting the requirements
of the certificate. It may be a combined manual or separated into a
Training Manual and a Procedures Manual.
(i) Training manual. A manual containing the training goals,

objectives, standards, syllabi, and curriculum for each phase of
the approved training course.
(i) Procedures manual. A manual containing procedures,

instructions and guidance for use by personnel of the ATO in the
execution of their duties in meeting the requirements of the
certificate.

Training programme. Programme that consists of courses,

courseware, facilities, flight training equipment, and personnel necessary
to accomplish a specific training objective. It may include a core
curriculum and a specialty curriculum
Training specifications. A document issued to an ATO certificate

holder by the Authority that specifies training programme requirements
and authorises the conduct of training, checking, and testing with any
limitations thereof.
Training time. The time spent receiving flight training, ground training,
or simulated flight training in an approved FSTD from an authorised
instructor.
Training to proficiency. The process of the check airman

administering each prescribed manoeuvre and procedure to a pilot as
necessary until it is performed successfully during the training period.
Transfer cargo and mail. Cargo and mail departing on an aircraft other
than that on which it arrived
Transfer of control point. A defined point located along the flight path
of an aircraft, at which the responsibility for providing air traffic control
service to the aircraft is transferred from one control unit or control
position to the next
Transfer standard. Any standard that is used to compare a

measurement process, system, or device at one location or level with a
measurement process, system or device at another location or level.
Transition altitude. The altitude at or below which the vertical position

of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes.
Type certificate (TC). A document issued by a Contracting State to

define the design of an aircraft, remote pilot station, engine or propeller
type and to certify that this design meets the appropriate airworthiness
requirements of that State.
Note. In some Contracting States a document equivalent to a Type

Certificate may be issued for a remote pilot station, engine or
propeller type
Type design. The set of data and information necessary to define an

aircraft remote pilot station, engine, or propeller type for the purpose of
airworthiness determination
Ultimate load. The limit load multiplied by the appropriate factor of

safety.
Unaided night flight. For a flight in which a pilot uses night vision
goggles, the portion of the flight in which the pilot does not use night
vision goggles to maintain visual surface reference.

Unburned hydrocarbon. The total of hydrocarbon compounds of all

classes and molecular weight contained in a gas sample calculated as if
they were in the form of Methane
Uncertainty phase. A situation wherein uncertainty exists as to the safety

of an aircraft and its occupants
Undesired aircraft state. Occurs when the flight crew places the
aircraft in a situation of unnecessary risk. (ICAO Annex 1).
Unidentified baggage. Baggage at an aerodrome, with or without a

baggage tag, that is not picked up by or identified with a passenger
UN number. The four-digit number assigned by the United Nations

Committee of Experts on the Transport of Dangerous Goods and on the
Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of
Chemicals to identify an article or substance or a particular group of
articles or substances.
Unit load device(ULD). Any type of freight container, aircraft container,

aircraft pallet with a net, or aircraft pallet with a net over an igloo.
Unmanned aircraft (UA). Any aircraft intended to be flown without a

pilot on board. It can be remotely and fully controlled from another place
(ground, another aircraft, space) or pre-programmed to conduct its flight
without intervention.
Unmanned aircraft system (UAS). An aircraft and its associated

elements that are operated with no pilot on board
Unmanned free balloon. A non-power-driven, unmanned, lighter-than-

air aircraft in free flight.
Unpredictability. The implementation of security measures in order to

increase their deterrent effect and their efficiency by applying them at
irregular frequencies, in different locations, and/or with varying means, in
accordance with a defined framework
Unserviceable Area. A part of the movement area that is unfit and

unavailable for use by aircraft
Validation. The action taken by Authority as an alternative to issuing its

own licence, in accepting a licence issued by another Contracting State
as the equivalent of its own licence for use on aircraft registered in
Nigeria. Also may be referred to as rendering a licence valid.
Validation of a Certificate of Airworthiness—The action taken by the

Authority, as an alternative to issuing its own Certificate of Airworthiness,
in accepting a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by any other
Contracting State as the equivalent of its own Certificate of
Airworthiness.

Visibility. Visibility for aeronautical purposes is the greater of:
(i) The greatest distance at which a black object of suitable

dimensions, situated near the ground, can be seen and
recognised when observed against a bright background;
(ii) The greatest distance at which lights in the vicinity of 1,000

candelas can be seen and identified against an unlit background.
Visual Flight Rules (VFR). The symbol used to designate the visual
flight rules
Visual line-of-sight (VLOS) operation. An operation in which the

remote pilot or RPA observer maintains direct unaided visual contact
with the RPA.
Visual meteorological conditions (VMC). Meteorological conditions

expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, equal to
or better than specified minima.
Note: The specified minima are contained in Part 8 of these regulations
Volt (V) The unit of electric potential difference and electromotive force
which is the difference of electric potential between two points of a
conductor carrying a constant current of 1 ampere, when the power
dissipated between these points is equal to 1 watt.
VTOSS. The minimum speed at which climb shall be achieved with the
critical engine inoperative, the remaining engines operating within
approved operating limits.
Watt (W)—The power which gives rise to the production of energy at the
rate of 1 joule per second
Waypoint. A specified geographical location used to define an area

navigation
Weber (Wb). The magnetic flux which, linking a circuit of one turn,
produces in it an electromotive force of 1 volt as it is reduced to zero at
a uniform rate in 1 second.
Wet lease. The lease of an aircraft with crew and other back-up.
Wet runway. A runway is considered wet if its surface is covered by any

visible dampness or water up to and including 3mm deep within the
intended area of use
Will. A rule of construction in paragraph 1.1.1.1(a)(4) of this part that

indicates an action incumbent upon the Authority.

1.6 LANGUAGE OF THESE REGULATIONS
(a) The English Language shall be the Language of these Regulations.
(b) Manuals, Certificates or Licences being submitted to the Authority must

be in English language.
(c) If the Original Manual is in a Language other than English, a Certified

English Translation must be submitted.
(d) When a Certificate or Licence is issued in a Language other than English,

it shall include a certified English translation.
1.7 PROCEDURES FOR MAKING AND AMENDING REGULATIONS
(a) There shall be established by the Director General of the Authority a

Regulations Committee (hereinafter referred to as “The Committee”).
(b) The Committee shall be a Standing Committee within the Authority.
(c) The Committee shall be responsible for:

(1) Monitoring amendments to the Standards and Recommended
Practices contained in the Annexes to the Convention on
International Civil Aviation;
(2) Incorporating the amendments into these Regulations;
(3) Consideration of proposals for amendment to these Regulations
made by stakeholders and other members of the Public;
(4) Proposing on its motion, amendments to the Regulations;
(5) Notification of and filing with ICAO of differences and Compliance
with the SARP’s.
(e) (1) The Committee shall send Notice of Proposed Amendments

(NPA) to operators and other stakeholders and request their
comments thereto within a period of 30 days.
(2) Upon receipt of comments, the Committee may consider and

Incorporate same into the Regulations.
(3) The Committee shall keep a record of such comments and its
deliberations thereon.
(f) Submission of Proposal.

(1) Any interested person may submit to the Regulations
Committee, a proposal on the introduction, amendment or
withdrawal of a regulation or technical standard;
(2) The proposal shall be in writing and shall:

(i) state the name and address of the proposer;
(ii) state the contents of the regulation, technical standard

or amendment proposed or specify the regulation or

technical standard which the proposer wishes to be
withdrawn;
(iii) explain the interests of the proposer; and
(iv) contain any information, views or arguments supporting
the proposal.
(g) All amendments to these Regulations shall be signed and Published by

the Director General of the Authority.
1.8 CITATION AND REVOCATION
These Regulations shall be cited as Nigeria Civil Aviation Regulations 2023

(Nig. CARs 2023)
The Regulations cited as Nigeria Civil Aviation Regulations 2015 (Nig. CARs.
2015) and the Schedule of Fees promulgated in NCAR 2006 and saved in
Nigeria Civil Aviation Regulation 2015 are hereby revoked and cease to have a
force of law.
The Civil Aviation Orders numbered as NCAA/2021/001, NCAA/2022/001,

NCAA/2022/002 and NCAA/2022/003 are hereby revoked and cease to have a
force of law.
1.9. SI UNIT OF MEASUREMENT
(1) The International System of Units developed and maintained by the

General Conference of Weight and Measures (CGPM) shall, subject to
the provision of subsection (a) & (b) below, be used as the standard
system of units of measurement for all aspects of civil aviation air and
ground operations in Nigeria.
(a) The prefixes and symbols of listed in table 2.1 of IS 1.9 to these
Regulations shall be used to form names and symbols of the
decimal multiples and sub-multiples of SI units.
(b) The non-SI units listed in table 2.2 of IS 1.9 to these Regulations
shall be used either in lieu of, or in addition to SI units as primary
units of measurement but only as specified in table 2.3.
(c) The non-SI units listed in table 2.3 of IS 1.9 to these Regulations
shall be permitted for temporary use as alternative units of
measurement but only for those specific quantities listed in table
2.4 of IS 1.9 to these Regulations.
(d) The application of units of measurement for certain quantities
used in civil aviation air and ground operations shall be in
accordance with table 2.4.
(e) All persons involved in civil aviation air and grounds operations
shall ensure that means and provisions for design, procedures
and training are established for operations in environment
involving the use of standard and non-SI alternatives of specific
units of measurements, or the transition between environments

using different units, with due consideration to human

performance.
(f) The use in International Civil Aviation Operations of the
alternative non-SI units listed in table 2.3 shall be terminated on
the dates to be specified by ICAO.
1.10 APPEAL PROCEDURE
1.10.1 Any person who disagrees with the administrative or legal enforcement
actions or decisions of the Authority under the provisions of these
Regulations may appeal for a review within seven (7) days from the date
of the imposition of the sanction.
1.10.2 The appeal shall be in writing and addressed to the Director-General of

the Authority.
1.10.3. Upon receipt of the appeal, the Director-General may constitute an

Appeal Panel made up of five (5) members comprising of two (2)
persons from the Nigerian Civil Aviation Authority and three (3) aviation
industry stakeholders.
1.10.4. Any sanction and /or decision imposed by the Authority shall subsist
until set aside or varied by the Director-General upon recommendation
of the Appeal Panel.

NIGERIA CIVIL AVIATION IMPLEMENTING STANDARDS
NIGERIA CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS
PART 1 — IMPLEMENTING STANDARDS
APRIL 2023

PART 1—IMPLEMENTING STANDARDS
IS 1.2.1.8 List of Psychoactive Substances.
(a) The following are deemed to be psychoactive substances:
(1) Alcohol.
(2) Opioids.
(3) Cannabinoids.
(4) Sedatives and hypnotics.
(5) Cocaine and other stimulants (except caffeine).
(6) Hallucinogens.
(7) Volatile solvents.
IS 1.3.3 Legal Enforcement Actions.
(a) These sanction guidance tables provide a recommended

approach to assessment of sanctions for violations of these
Regulations.
(b) These tables describe civil penalties as minimum, moderate, or

maximum for a single violation of a particular regulation, in
accordance with section 78 of the Civil Aviation Act and these
regulations. These terms are defined in the following tables.
(c) These tables describe criminal penalties of a single violation of a

particular regulation treated as criminal referrals in accordance
with the Civil Aviation Act, these regulations and extant laws.
(d) Every repetition of a contravention of the provision of these

regulations may be treated as a fresh offence with penalties to
apply consecutively in each case.
(e) Sanctions for violations not provided for in the Table of Sanctions
in IS.1.3.3 will be determined under a similar violation of a
comparable gravity as recommended in the Table.

Table 1. Table of Civil Penalties

Party Committing Violation Amount of Civil Penalty
Maximum: N10.000.000.00
Air Carriers Moderate: N5,000,000.00
Minimum: N1,000.000.00
Maximum: N20,000,000.00
Aerodrome Operators/ Air Navigation
Moderate: N10,000,000.00
Service Providers
Minimum: N5,000,000.00
Maximum: N500,000.00
Air Carrier Personnel Moderate: N250,000.00
Minimum: N100,000.00
General Aviation Owners, Operators, Maximum: N2,000,000.00
Aircraft Maintenance Engineers, other Moderate: N1,000,000.00
licensed and non-licensed persons Minimum: N500,000.00
Approved Maintenance Maximum: N5,000,000.00
Organisations/ Approved Training Moderate: N2,500,000.00
Organisations. Minimum: N1,000,000.00
Maximum: N1,000,000.00
Allied Service Providers Moderate:N500,000,00
Minimum:N200,000.00
Maximum: N500,000.00
Persons(s) other than Aviation
Moderate: N200,000.00
Personnel/Organisation
Minimum:N100,000,00
Table 2. Recommended Sanctions

Violation Recommended License/Certifica
Sanction per te Action
Violation
I. AIR OPERATORS AND
AERODROME OPERATORS
1. APPROVED MAINTENANCE
MANUAL (AMM)
(a) Failure to maintain current Minimum civil penalty Up to 7 day
manual suspension
(b) Failure to provide adequate Moderate to maximum
instructions & procedures in civil penalty
manual
(c) Failure to distribute manual to Minimum to moderate
appropriate personnel civil penalty
(d) Release of aircraft without Moderate to maximum Up to 7 day
required equipment civil penalty suspension
2. Failure to comply with Moderate to maximum
airworthiness directives (Ads) civil penalty


Violation
3. Operations specifications
(a) Failure to comply with inspection Moderate civil penalty Up to 7 day
and overhaul time limitations suspension
(b) Operations contrary to operations Minimum civil penalty
specifications – technical
noncompliance
(c) Operations contrary to operations Moderate to maximum
specifications – likely potential or civil penalty
actual adverse effect on safe
operations
4. Failure to provide adequately for Maximum civil penalty Indefinite
proper servicing, maintenance, suspension until
repair, and inspection of facilities proper servicing
and equipment maintenance,
repair, and
inspection of
facilities and
equipment is
provided to
revocation.
5. Failure to provide or maintain a Maximum civil penalty Indefinite
maintenance & inspection suspension until
organization appropriate
maintenance and
inspection of the
organisation is
provided to
revocation.
6. Training programme
(a) Failure to have or maintain an Maximum civil penalty Indefinite
effective training programme suspension until
compliance is
demonstrated to
revocation
(b) Failure to maintain training Moderate to maximum
programme civil penalty
(c) Failure to train personnel Moderate to maximum
adequately civil penalty
7. Maintenance of Aircraft Paperwork
(a) Incomplete or unsigned release Minimum to maximum
civil penalty
(b) Failure to revise aircraft data after Moderate to maximum
repair civil penalty
8. Performance of maintenance


Violation
(a) By unauthorised person Maximum civil penalty
(b) Failure to perform or improper Moderate to maximum
maintenance civil penalty
9. Failure to revise aircraft data after Moderate to maximum
repair civil penalty
10. Records and reports
(a) Failure to make accurate Moderate to maximum
mechanical interruption summary civil penalty
report
(b) Failure to make available reports Moderate to maximum Indefinite
of major alterations or repairs civil penalty suspension to
revocation
(c) Failure to make accurate Moderate to maximum
mechanical reliability reports civil penalty
(d) Failure to keep maintenance Maximum civil penalty 7-day suspension
records and thereafter
until aircraft is in
airworthy
conditions
(e) Failure to make required entry in Moderate to maximum
aircraft log civil penalty
(f) Failure to make available pilot Moderate to maximum Indefinite
records civil penalty suspension to
revocation
(g) Failure to make available load Moderate to maximum Indefinite
manifests civil penalty suspension to
revocation
(h) Failure to monitor and record Moderate to maximum
enroute radio communications civil penalty
(i) Deliberate violation - intentional Revocation
false or fraudulent entry;
reproduction, or alteration in
record or report
(j) Delay or failure in the Minimum Civil Penalty
submission of document for each day the
requested by the Authority. violation continues
(k) Deliberate violation – other 180 day
suspension to
revocation
11. Operation of an unairworthy
aircraft
(a) Technical non-conformity to type Minimum civil penalty
certificate, but no likely effect
(potential or actual) on safe


Violation
operation
(b) Non-conformity which may have, Moderate to maximum
or has, an adverse effect on civil penalty
safety of operation
(c) Release of aircraft without Moderate to maximum Up to 7 day
required equipment civil penalty suspension
12. Provisions specific to passenger-
carrying
(a) Boarding or serving alcoholic Maximum civil penalty
beverages to a person who
appears to be intoxicated
(b) Failure to brief passengers Moderate to maximum
civil penalty
(c) Failure to ensure seat and belt for Maximum civil penalty
each passenger
(d) Operation without operable public Maximum civil penalty
address system
(e) Failure to store baggage properly Moderate civil penalty
13. Failure to make available a seat on Maximum civil penalty
the flight deck for Authority
inspectors conducting an en route
inspection
14. Provisions specific to flight deck
crew
(a) Using an unqualified Maximum civil penalty
crewmember
(b) Using a crewmember with an Minimum to moderate
expired medical certificate civil penalty
(c) Flight and duty time violations Moderate civil penalty
15. Violation of flight dispatch and Moderate to maximum
release civil penalty
16. Other provisions
(a) Improperly returning an aircraft to Maximum civil penalty
service
(b) Illegal carriage of controlled Revocation
substance with knowledge of
carrier, i.e., knowledge of
management personnel
(c) Use of unqualified personnel Maximum civil penalty
other than flight deck
crewmember
17. Security violations


Violation
(a) Failure to properly screen Maximum civil penalty
baggage or each passenger
(b) Unauthorised access to Maximum civil penalty
aerodrome operations area`
(c) Failure to comply with air carrier Maximum civil penalty
security programme, including
failure to detect weapons,
incendiary and other dangerous
devices
(d) Coercing, condoning or Revocation
encouraging falsification of
records/reports by Management
Personnel.
(e) Deliberate failure to maintain Maximum civil penalty
employee records
(f) Failure to challenge Moderate civil penalty
(g) Failure to test screeners or test Moderate civil penalty
equipment
(h) Failure to properly train Moderate civil penalty
(i) Failure to maintain screener test Minimum to Moderate
records civil penalty
(j) Improper use of dosimeters Minimum civil penalty
(k) Failure to display identification Minimum to moderate
civil penalty
(l) Failure to manage/control Maximum civil penalty
identification system
(m) Failure to conduct background Minimum to moderate
check civil penalty
(n) Failure to detect test objects Maximum civil penalty
(o) Failure to comply with approved Maximum civil penalty
or current security programme
(p) Failure of the law enforcement Maximum civil penalty
officer to respond in a timely
manner
II. PERSONNEL OF AIR CARRIERS

1. Maintenance, including inspections
(a) Performing maintenance without Maximum civil penalty
a licence, rating or authorisation
(b) Performing maintenance that 30 to 45 day
exceeds limitations suspension


Violation
(c) Failure to perform maintenance 30 to 120 day
properly suspension
2. Inspection personnel
(a) Failure to make required 30 to 60 day
inspection suspension
(b) Making improper inspection 30 to 120 day
suspension
(c) Improperly releasing an aircraft to 30 to 60 day
service suspension
(d) Releasing aircraft for service 30 to 60 day
without required equipment suspension
3. Records and reports
(a) Failure to make entries in aircraft 15 to 60 day
log suspension
(b) Failure to make entries in 15 to 30 day
worksheets suspension
(c) Failure to make entries in other 15 to 30 day
maintenance record suspension
(d) Failure to sign off work or 15 to 30 day
inspection performed suspension
(e) Failure to complete and sign an 15 to 30 day
approval for return to service suspension
(f) Intentional falsification of records Revocation
or reports
4. Pre-flight
(a) Failure to use pre-flight cockpit 30 to 60 day
checklist suspension
(b) Failure to check aircraft logs, 30 to 90 day
flight manifests, weather, etc. suspension
(c) Failure to make the required 30 to 60 day
inspection suspension
(d) Failure to inspect, or improper 15 to 30 day
inspection of, aircraft suspension
(e) Failure to ensure seat and belt 30 to 60 day
available for each passenger suspension
5. Taxiing
(a) Failure to adhere to taxi 30 to 60 day
clearance or instruction suspension
(b) Collision while taxiing 30 to 180 day
suspension
(c) Jet blast 30 to 120 day


Violation
suspension
(d) Taxiing with passenger standing 30 to 60 day
suspension
(e) Taxiing off runway, taxiway or 30 to 90 day
ramp suspension
6. Takeoff
(a) Takeoff against instruction or 60 to 120 day
clearance suspension
(b) Takeoff below weather minima 60 to 120 day
suspension
(c) Takeoff in overloaded aircraft (in 60 to 120 day
excess of maximum certificated suspension
takeoff mass)
7. Enroute
(a) Deviation from clearance or 30 to 90 day
instruction suspension
(b) Operating VFR within clouds 90 day
suspension to
revocation
(c) Operation of unairworthy aircraft 30 to 180 day
suspension
(d) Unauthorised departure from 15 to 30 day
flight deck suspension
(e) Operating within restricted or 30 to 90 day
prohibited area, or within positive suspension
control area with clearance
(f) Operating without required 15 to 120 day
equipment suspension
(g) Fuel mismanagement/exhaustion 30 to 150 day
suspension
(h) Operating contrary to NOTAM 30 to 90 day
suspension
(i) Unauthorised manipulation of 30 to 90 day
controls suspension
8. Approach to landing
(a) Deviation from clearance or 30 to 90 day
instruction in terminal area suspension
(b) Approach below weather minima 60 to 120 day
suspension
(c) Exceeding speed limitation in 30 to 60 day
airport traffic areas suspension
9. Landing


Violation
(a) Landing at wrong aerodrome 90 to 180 day
suspension
(b) Deviation from instrument 30 to 90 day
approach procedure suspension
(c) Overweight landing 30 to 90 day
suspension
(d) Hard landing 15 to 60 day
suspension
(e) Short or long landing 30 to 180 day
suspension
(f) Wheels up landing 15 to 90 day
suspension
(g) Failure to comply with preferential 15 day
runway system suspension
(h) Deviating from clearance or 30 to 90 day
instruction suspension
10. Unauthorised admission to flight 30 to 90 day
deck suspension
11. Failure to close and lock cockpit Maximum civil penalty 30 day
door suspension
12. Acting, or attempting to act, as Emergency
flight crewmember while under the revocation
influence of liquor or other
psychoactive substances, or
alcoholic beverage consumption
within 8 hours
13. Denial of authorised entry to flight 30 to 60 day
deck of authorized inspector suspension
14. Flight and duty time limitations 15 to 90 day
suspension
15. Operation without required licence,
certificate or rating
(a) Medical certificate 30 to 90 day
suspension
(b) Lack of type rating 180 day
suspension to
revocation
(c) Missed proficiency check or line 30 to 90 day
check suspension
(d) Lack of current experience, initial 30 to 90 day
or recurrent training suspension
(e) Failure to have current medical Minimum to moderate
certificate or licence or civil penalty


Violation
authorisation in possession
(f) Operation with known Revocation
disqualifying physical disability
(g) Operation without valid medical Revocation
certificate when not medically
qualified or application for
medical certificate deferred
16. Failure to keep manual current Minimum civil penalty 30 to 90 day
suspension
III. INDIVIDUALS AND GENERAL AVIATION—OWNERS,

PILOTS, MAINTENANCE PERSONNEL, APPROVED
MAINTENANCE ORGANISATIONS, APPROVED TRAINING
ORGANISATIONS
1. Owners and operators other than
required crewmembers
(a) Failure to comply with Moderate to maximum
airworthiness directives civil penalty
(b) Failure to perform or improper Moderate to maximum
performance of maintenance, civil penalty
including required maintenance
(c) Failure to make proper entries in Minimum to moderate
aircraft logs civil penalty
(d) Operation of aircraft beyond Minimum to moderate
annual, 100-hour, or progressive civil penalty
inspection
(e) Operation of unairworthy aircraft Moderate to
Maximum civil penalty
(f) Intentional falsification of any Suspension for 30
entry, reproduction, or alternation to 180 day up to
in any record or report Revocation
(g) Delay or failure in the Minimum Civil Penalty
2. Aviation Maintenance
Organisations
(a) Failure to provide adequately for Moderate to maximum Indefinite
proper servicing, maintenance civil penalty suspension until
repairs, and inspection compliance to
revocation
(b) Failure to provide adequate Maximum civil penalty Indefinite
personnel who can perform, suspension until
supervise, and inspect work for adequate


Violation
which the maintenance personnel are
organization is rated provided to
Revocation
(c) Failure to have enough qualified Maximum civil penalty to 7-day
personnel to keep up with the suspension and
volume of work thereafter until
certificate holder
has enough
qualified
personnel
(d) Failure to maintain records of Moderate to maximum
supervisory and inspection civil penalty
personnel
(e) Failure to maintain performance Moderate to maximum
records and reports civil penalty
(f) Failure to ensure correct Minimum to maximum
calibration of all inspection and civil penalty
test equipment is accomplished
at prescribed intervals
(g) Failure to set forth adequate Minimum to maximum
description of work performed civil penalty
(h) Failure of mechanic to make log Moderate to maximum
entries, records, or reports civil penalty
(i) Failure to sign or complete Minimum to moderate
maintenance release civil penalty
(j) Inspection of work performed and Maximum civil penalty Up to 30 day
approval for return to service by suspension
other than a qualified inspector
(k) Failure to have an adequate Moderate civil penalty Up to 30 day
inspection system that produces suspension and
satisfactory quality control thereafter until an
adequate
inspection system
is attained.
(l) Maintaining or modifying an Maximum civil penalty Up to 30 day
aeronautical product for which it suspension
is rated, without using required
technical data, equipment, or
facilities
(m) Failure to perform or properly Moderate to maximum Up to 30 day
perform maintenance, repairs, civil penalty suspension
modification, or required
inspections
(n) Maintaining or modifying an Maximum civil penalty Suspension or
airframe, powerplant, propeller, revocation


Violation
instrument, radio, or accessory
for which it is not rated.
(o) Failure to report defects or Moderate to maximum
unairworthy conditions to the civil penalty
Authority in a timely manner.
(p) Failure to satisfy housing and Moderate civil penalty Suspension until
facility requirements housing and
facility
requirements are
satisfied
(q) Change of location, housing, or Moderate civil penalty Suspension until
facilities without advance written approval is given
approval
(r) Operating as a certificated Maximum civil penalty
maintenance organisation without
an AMO certificate
(s) Failure to permit Authority to Maximum civil penalty Indefinite
inspect suspension until
Authority is
permitted to
inspect.
3. Aviation Maintenance
Organization: Maintenance
Engineers.
(a) Improper performance of Moderate to maximum
maintenance civil penalty
(d) Carrying out maintenance Moderate to maximum

without current manuals civil penalty
(e) Failure to maintain recency Moderate to maximum
of experience. civil penalty
(f) Conducting maintenance Moderate to maximum
without appropriate ratings civil penalty
(g) Unauthorized maintenance Moderate to maximum
civil penalty
4. General aviation maintenance
personnel
(a) Failure to revise aircraft data after Moderate to maximum 30 to 60 day
major repairs or modifications civil penalty suspension
(b) Failure to perform or improper Moderate to maximum 30 to 120 day
performance of maintenance civil penalty suspension
(c) Failure of mechanic to properly Moderate to maximum 30 to 60 day
accomplish inspection civil penalty suspension
(d) Failure of mechanic to record Moderate to maximum 15 to 30 day


Violation
inspection civil penalty suspension
(e) Failure of Inspection Moderate to maximum 60 suspension to
Authorisation holder to properly civil penalty revocation
accomplish inspection
(f) Failure of Inspection Moderate to maximum 15 to 30 day
Authorisation holder to record civil penalty suspension
inspection
(g) Maintenance performed by Moderate to maximum
person without a certificate civil penalty
(h) Maintenance performed by Moderate to maximum 15 to 60 day
person who exceeded certificate civil penalty suspension
limitations
(i) Improper approval for return to Moderate to maximum 30 to 120 day
service civil penalty suspension
(j) Failure to make maintenance Moderate to maximum 30 to 60 day
record entries civil penalty suspension
(k) Failure to set forth adequate Moderate to maximum 15 to 30 day
description of work performed civil penalty suspension
(l) Falsification of maintenance Moderate to maximum Revocation
records civil penalty
(j) Delay or failure in the Minimum Civil Penalty
5. Student operations
(a) Carrying passengers Revocation
(b) Solo flight without endorsement 45 to 90 day
suspension
(c) Operation on international flight 60 to 90 day
suspension
(d) Use of aircraft in business 30 to 120 day
suspension
(e) Operation for compensation or Revocation
hire
6. Instructors for licences, ratings,

authorisations and endorsement
(a) False endorsement of a student Revocation
licence, rating, authorisation, or
record
(b) Exceeding flight time limitations 30 to 90 day
or other training time limitations suspension
(c) Instruction in aircraft, and/or 60 to 180 day


Violation
course for which the person is not suspension
rated
7. Operational violations
(a) Operation without valid 30 to 90 day
airworthiness or registration suspension
certificate
(b) Failure to close flight plan or file Minimum civil penalty
arrival notice
(c) Operation without valid pilot Maximum civil penalty
licence (no licence issued)
(d) Operation while pilot licence is Emergency
suspended revocation
(e) Operation without pilot or medical Minimum civil penalty
certificate in personal possession
(f) Operation without valid medical Revocation
certificate (no medical certificate
issued)
(g) Operation for compensation or 90 day
hire without commercial pilot suspension to
certificate revocation
(h) Operation without type or class 60 to 120 day
rating suspension
(i) Failure to comply with special 90 day
conditions of medical certificate suspension to
revocation
(j) Operation with known physical 90 day
deficiency suspension to
revocation
(k) Failure to obtain preflight 30 to 90 day
information suspension
(l) Deviation from ATC instruction or 30 to 90 day
clearance suspension
(m) Taxiing, takeoff, or landing 30 to 90 day
without a clearance where ATC suspension
tower is in open
(n) Failure to maintain radio 30 to 60 day
communications in airport traffic suspension
area
(o) Failure to comply with airport 30 to 60 day
traffic pattern suspension
(p) Operation in terminal control area 60 to 90 day
without or contrary to a clearance suspension


Violation
(q) Failure to maintain altitude in 30 to 60 day
airport traffic area suspension
(r) Exceeding speed limitations in 30 to 60 day
traffic area suspension
(s) Operation of unairworthy aircraft 30 to 180 day
suspension
(t) Failure to comply with 30 to 180 day
Airworthiness directives suspension
(u) Operation without required 30 to 90 day
instruments and/or equipment suspension
(v) Exceeding operating limitations 30 to 90 day
suspension
(w) Operation within prohibited or 30 to 90 day
restricted area, or within positive suspension
control area
(x) Failure to adhere to right of way 30 to 90 day
rules suspension
(y) Failure to comply with VFR 30 to 90 day
cruising altitudes suspension
(z) Failure to maintain required
minimum altitudes over
structures, persons, or vehicles
over:
i. Congested area 60 to 180 day
suspension
ii. Sparsely populated area 30 to 120 day
suspension
(aa) Failure to maintain radio watch 30 to 60 day
while under IFR suspension
(bb) Failure to report compulsory 30 to 60 day
reporting points under IFR suspension
(cc) Failure to display position lights 30 to 60 day
suspension
(dd) Failure to maintain proper 30 to 60 day
altimeter settings suspension
(ee) Weather operations:
i. Failure to comply with 60 to 180 day
visibility minimums in suspension
controlled airspace
ii. Failure to comply with 30 to 120 day
visibility minimums outside suspension
controlled airspace
iii. Failure to comply with 60 to 180 day


Violation
distance from clouds suspension
requirements in controlled
airspace
iv. Failure to comply with 30 to 120 day
distance from clouds suspension
requirements outside of
controlled airspace
(ff) Failure to comply with IFR 45 to 180 day
landing minimums suspension
(gg) Failure to comply with instrument 45 to 180 day
approach procedures suspension
(hh) Careless or reckless operations:
i. Fuel 30 to 150 day
mismanagement/exhaustion suspension
ii. Wheels up landing 30 to 60 day
suspension
iii. Short or long landing 30 to 90 day
suspension
iv. Landing on or taking off from 30 to 60 day
closed runway suspension
v. Landing on or taking off from 30 to 120 day
ramps or other improper suspension
areas
vi. Taxiing collision 30 to 90 day
suspension
vii. Leaving aircraft unattended 30 to 90 day
with motor running suspension
viii. Propping aircraft without a 30 to 90 day
qualified person at controls suspension
ix. Unauthorised dropping of 30 to 60 day
object from aircraft suspension
x. Unauthorised towing 30 to 60 day
suspension
xi. Acrobatic flight on airway, 90 to 180 day
over congested area, below suspension
minimum altitude, etc.
xii. Taking off with insufficient 30 to 150 day
fuel suspension
xiii. Operating so as to cause a 60 to 180 day
collision hazard suspension
xiv. Taxiing aircraft off runway, 30 to 90 day
taxiway, or ramp suspension


Violation
(ii) Passenger operations
i. Operation without approved 30 to 60 day
seat or berth and approved suspension
safety belt for each person on
board the aircraft required to
have them during takeoff, en
route flight, and landing.
ii. Carrying passengers who are 60 to 120 day
under the influence of drugs suspension
or alcohol
iii. Performing acrobatics when 60 to 90 day
all passengers are not suspension
equipped with approved
parachutes
iv. Use of unapproved 30 to 60 day
parachute suspension
v. Permitting unauthorized 30 to 90 day
parachute jumping suspension
vi. Carrying passenger(s) without 30 to 120 day
required recent flight suspension
experience
.
8. ID plate violations
(a) Improper removal, changing or
placing of identification
information on a product
i. Inadvertent Minimum civil penalty
ii. Intentional misrepresenting Maximum civil penalty Revocation
identity of product
(b) Improper removal or installation
of identification place
i. Inadvertent Minimum civil penalty
ii. Intentional misrepresenting Maximum civil penalty Revocation
identity of product
9. Approved Training Organizations

(a) Knowingly permitting school Revocation
aircraft to be used for unlawful
carriage of controlled substances
or other illegal activities
(b) Refusal to permit inspection of Maximum civil Indefinite
facilities, equipment, personnel, suspension until
records, or certificate by the Authority is


Violation
Authority permitted to
inspect, up to
revocation.
(c) False advertising Maximum civil penalty
(d) Improper crediting to or
graduation of student
i. Inadvertent Moderate to maximum
civil penalty
ii. Intentional Revocation
(e) Refusal to permit CAA test, check Maximum civil penalty Indefinite
or examination of student suspension until
Authority is
permitted to test,
check or
examine, up to
revocation.
(f) Unqualified or unauthorised Moderate to maximum
instruction civil penalty
(g) Failure to establish or maintain Moderate to maximum
training record civil penalty
(h) Failure to make proper entries in Minimum to moderate
the aircraft logs civil penalty
(I) Failure to report defects, Moderate to Maximum
occurrences or incidents or other Civil Penalty
air worthy conditions in a timely
manner
(j) Failure to carry checklist or Minimum civil penalty
operator’s handbook
IV. SECURITY AND SAFETY

VIOLATIONS BY INDIVIDUALS
1. Checked baggage
(a) Failure to declare unloaded Minimum civil penalty
firearm
(b) Loaded firearm Moderate to Maximum
Civil Penalty
(c) Incendiary/explosive Up to Maximum Civil
Penalty and/or
criminal referral
2. Non-passengers: No intent to
board
(a) Possession of firearm (unloaded,
unloaded with ammunition


Violation
accessible, or loaded) or other
dangerous or deadly weapon
(including stun guns):
i. At screening point with no Minimum Civil
aggravating circumstances Penalty and/or
criminal referral
ii. At screening point with Moderate to Maximum
aggravating circumstances Civil Penalty and
criminal referral
iii. In sterile area with no Minimum to Moderate
aggravating circumstances Civil Penalty and
iv. In sterile area with Moderate to Maximum
aggravating circumstance Civil Penalty
(b) Possession of Moderate to Maximum
incendiary/explosive at screening Civil Penalty and/or
point or in sterile area with no criminal referral
intent to board a flight.
(c) Artful concealment of firearm Maximum Civil
(loaded or unloaded), other Penalty and /or
dangerous or deadly weapon criminal referral
(including stun guns), or
incendiary/explosive at screening
point or in sterile area.
3. Passengers: Intent to board
(a) Possession of dangerous or
deadly weapon (including stun
guns, mace, etc., but excluding
firearms and
incendiary/explosives)that would
be accessible in flight in air
transportation:
i. At screening point with no Minimum civil penalty
aggravating circumstances
ii. At screening pint with Moderate to maximum
aggravating circumstances civil penalty
iii. In sterile area or aboard Minimum to moderate
aircraft with no aggravating civil penalty
circumstances
iv. In sterile area or aboard Moderate to maximum
aircraft with aggravating civil penalty
circumstances
(b) Possession of firearm that would
transportation with firearm
unloaded, without accessible


Violation
ammunition:
i. At screening point with no Minimum to moderate
ii. At screening pint with Maximum civil penalty
iii. In sterile area or aboard Moderate civil penalty
aircraft with no aggravating
circumstances
iv. In sterile area or aboard Maximum civil penalty
aircraft with aggravating
circumstances
(c) Possession of firearm that would
transportation with firearm
loaded, or with accessible
ammunition:
i. At screening point with no Moderate to maximum
ii. At screening pint with Maximum civil penalty
iii. In sterile area or aboard Moderate to maximum
aircraft with no aggravating civil penalty
circumstances
iv. In sterile area or aboard Maximum civil penalty
aircraft with aggravating
circumstances
(d) Artful concealment of dangerous Maximum civil penalty
or deadly weapon (including stun and/or criminal referral
guns, but excluding firearms and
incendiary/explosives) at screen
point, in sterile area, or aboard
aircraft.
(e) Possession of Maximum civil penalty
incendiary/explosive at screening and/or criminal referral
point, in sterile area, or aboard
aircraft that would be accessible
in flight in air transportation.
(f) Artful concealment of firearm or Maximum civil penalty
incendiary/ explosive at and/or criminal referral
screening point, in sterile area, or
aboard aircraft.
4. Other acts
(a) Entering sterile area after failing Minimum civil penalty
to submit to screening – non-


Violation
aggravated
(b) Entering sterile area after failing Moderate to maximum
to submit to screening – civil penalty
aggravated
(c) Imparting or conveying false Maximum civil penalty
information concerning an
attempt to do an act that would
be a crime prohibited by The Civil
Aviation Act.
(d) Threatening overt act or other Maximum civil penalty
intent to use or dangerously and/or criminal referral
display firearm,
incendiary/explosive, or other
deadly or dangerous weapon
(including stun guns)
(e) Hijacking and unlawful Criminal referral
interference
5. Unruly passengers
(a) Interference with crewmember Maximum civil penalty
(b) Physical assault or threat to Minimum to maximum
physically assault a flight or cabin civil penalty and/or
crewmember criminal referral
(c) Physical assault or threat to Minimum to maximum
physically assault an individual civil penalty and/or
other than a crewmember criminal referral
(d) Acts in a manner that poses Minimum to maximum
imminent threat to safety of civil penalty and/or
aircraft or other individuals on criminal referral
aircraft
(e) Smoking while “No Smoking’ sign Maximum civil penalty
is lighted
(f) Smoking in aircraft lavatory Maximum civil penalty
(g) Tampering with smoke detector Minimum to maximum
civil penalty and/or
criminal referral
(h) Refusal to fasten seat belt while Minimum to moderate
seat belt sign is lighted civil penalty
(i) Refusal to occupy an approved Minimum to moderate
seat or berth with a safety belt, civil penalty
and, if installed, shoulder harness
properly secured during
movement on the surface takeoff,
or landing
(j) Operating a portable electronic Maximum civil penalty


Violation
device in violation of crew
directives.
(k) Drinking alcoholic beverages not Maximum civil penalty
served by operator
6. Special Emphasis Enforcement –
Individuals Aiming Laser Beam at
Aircraft
(a) Single, first-time, inadvertent or Moderate civil penalty
non-deliberate violation by ($2,200–4,399 USD);
individual higher if individual
holds airman
certificate and should
appreciate potential
for danger associated
with act
(b) Deliberate violation by an Civil penalty of up to
individual not holding an airman the statutory
certificate maximum
($11,000 USD per
violation)
(c) Deliberate violation by an airman Maximum civil penalty Revocation (in
certificate holder, regardless of addition to civil
whether airman was exercising penalty)
the privileges of his or her
certificate at the time of the
violation.
7. Falsification
(a) Intentional false or fraudulent Revocation of
entry, reproduction, or alteration authorised
on an application or a licence or certificates
certificate or rating or approval
8. Miscellaneous
(a) Carriage of illegal substances on Revocation
aircraft
(b) Conducting operation without 60 to 120 day
required operating certificate suspension
(c) Misuse of an aerodrome- Minimum to moderate
approved identification medium civil penalty
i. Making an incorrect Indefinite
statement on an application suspension
for a personnel licence or (pending
medical certificate correction of
application and
determination of
qualification) or


Violation
revocation of
personnel licence
or medical
certificate
ii. Refusal to produce personal 30 day
licence and/or associated suspension, and
medical certificate until produced to
revocation
VII. AVIATION SECURITY

VIOLATIONS
1) Failure to provide aviation security

Moderate to Maximum
officer and aviation screening
civil penalty
officers in sufficient number.
2) Consumption or evidence of
consumption of alcoholic Moderate to Max civil
beverages or other prohibited penalty
substances while on duty.
3) Failure to wear uniform and

display a badge or other Minimum to Moderate
authorized means of identification civil penalty
while on duty.
4) Carrying out aviation security

duties without the minimum Maximum civil penalty
required training.
5) Failure to provide initial and

recurrent training on aviation
Moderate to Maximum
security to aviation security officer
civil penalty
and aviation security screening
officer.
6) Failure to carry out initial and

periodic background checks on
aviation security officer and
aviation security screening officer.
7) Failure to keep accurate record of

the background check and training
Minimum civil penalty
of an aviation security officer and
aviation security screening officer.
8) Circumventing screening or
assisting circumvention of Maximum civil penalty
screening of persons, goods or
things in their possession or a


Violation
vehicle under their care or control.
9) False declaration of prohibited

items that could be used to
& possible criminal
jeopardize the security of civil
referral
aviation.
10) Falsification or alteration of any Maximum civil penalty

record or report to show & possible criminal
compliance. referral
11) Implementing amended security

programme without approval. Maximum civil penalty
12) Access to restricted areas without

appropriate permit (persons and Maximum civil penalty
vehicles).
13) Failure of an aerodrome operator

to notify facility operator or tenant Moderate to Maximum
restricted area operator of any civil penalty
threat against his facility.
14) Failure of a screening officer to

Moderate to Maximum
notify aerodrome operator of any
civil penalty
threat against the aerodrome.
15) Failure to notify the Authority on

the discovery of a weapon,
explosive substance, an Minimum civil penalty
incendiary device or bomb
explosion at the aerodrome.
16) Failure to notify the Authority of a

specific threat against the Minimum civil penalty
aerodrome.
17) Failure to maintain a copy of

AOSP or the pertinent portions of Minimum civil penalty
the AOSP at each aerodrome.
18) Failure to assign qualified and

trained person as a Ground Maximum civil penalty
Security Coordinator.
19) Carriage of weapons on an aircraft

by unauthorized person Maximum civil penalty


Violation
20) Failure to declare authorized Maximum civil penalty
firearms
21) Carriage of declared firearms in an

unlocked checked Moderate civil penalty
baggage/container
22) Failure to comply with X-ray Minimum to Moderate

operator duty time requirement. civil penalty
23) Failure to notify the Authority of an

act or suspected act of unlawful Maximum civil
interference committed within an penalty
aerodrome
24) Failure of an aircraft operator to

notify aerodrome operator, tenant
restricted area operator or Maximum civil penalty
appropriate police of any threat
against his facility.

notify aircraft operator, aerodrome
operator, the Nigeria Police and Maximum civil penalty
the Authority of any prohibited
items detected at a restricted area.

notify aircraft operator, aerodrome
operator, the Nigeria Police and
Moderate to Maximum
the Authority when a loaded
civil penalty
firearm, explosive substance or
incendiary device is detected in
checked baggage.
27) Unavailability of restraining

devices on board an aircraft Moderate civil penalty
28) Use of a person as security

Maximum civil
coordinator without the minimum
penalty
required security training
29) Use of a person as crew member

on any domestic or international
flight without the minimum
required security training
30) Use of persons not qualified to Maximum civil penalty


Violation
perform screening functions.
31) Acceptance of consignments of

cargo, courier and express parcels
or mail for carriage on flights Maximum civil penalty
without being subjected to security
controls
32) Acceptance of catering supplies

and stores without proper
Minimum to Moderate
documentation and seal, and
civil penalty
catering supplies that have been
tempered with.
33) Acceptance of catering supplies

and stores from unapproved flight Maximum civil penalty
catering operator.
34) Failure to respond to Corrective

Action Plans (CAPs) within Minimum civil penalty
specified time frame.
35) Failure to implement Corrective

Action Plans (CAPs) within Maximum civil penalty
36) Failure to comply with the security

directives issued by the Authority.
37) Unlawful carriage of a prohibited

item at an airport, security
restricted area, on board an Maximum civil penalty
aircraft or airport navigation
installation.
38) False declaration of the

possession of a prohibited item
that could be used to jeopardize
the security of civil aviation.
39) Aiding and abetting unauthorized

access to aerodrome restricted Maximum civil penalty
area.
40) Failure to carry out security

screening of persons other than
and possible criminal
passengers, passengers,
referral
baggage, mail or cargo


Violation
41) Failure to implement approved
security programme Moderate to Maximum
civil penalty
42) Failure to submit to security

screening and forceful intrusion. Maximum civil penalty
43) Communication of false

Criminal referral/
information with intent to
N10,000,000 and life
jeopardize the security and safety
imprisonment
of civil aviation.
44) Failure to make available relevant

Minimum to Moderate
documents for inspection upon
civil penalty
request by an authorized person.
45) Disclosure of sensitive security

Moderate to Maximum
information to unauthorized
civil penalty
person(s)
46) Obstruction of AVSEC personnel

from carrying out lawful duties. Maximum civil penalty
47) Delay or failure in submission of

Minimum to moderate
documents requested by the
civil penalty
Authority.
Criminal
referral/imprisonment
48) Unruly passenger behaviour
of not less than two
(2) months or both
49) Operating without an approved

security programme Maximum civil penalty
50) Security company operating

without necessary certificates,
license, permit and approval Moderate civil penalty
51) Failure to have or maintain an Maximum civil penalty

effective training programme to suspension until
compliance is
demonstrated


Violation
52) Failure to manage and control
identification system Maximum civil penalty

change in modifications to Minimum civil penalty
operational particulars.
54) Failure to keep at the aerodrome a

current scale map of the
aerodrome identifying the
restricted areas.
55) Usage of unapproved screening

equipment.
56) Attempted or unlawful seizure of

aircraft Criminal Referral
57) Conspiracy to attempt unlawful

seizure of aircraft Criminal Referral
58) Attempted or unlawful violence

against a person, airport, airport Criminal Referral
facilities or an aircraft
59) Release of Biological, Chemical or
Nuclear (BCN) weapons or
Criminal Referral
explosives, radioactive or similar
substance in an aircraft
60) Illegal transportation of BCN
weapons or explosives,
Criminal Referral
radioactive or similar substance in
an aircraft
61) Use of aircraft to cause death,
damage to property or Criminal Referral
environment
62) Conspiracy to commit a violation
of any of the aviation security Criminal Referral
regulations
63) Use of a device, substance or
weapons to perform an act of Criminal Referral
violence on an aerodrome
64)
Threat to commit an unlawful act Criminal Referral
of violence on an aerodrome
65) Breach of any AVSEC regulations Criminal Referral

or directives


Violation
V. AIRCRAFT
OWNER/OPERATOR
REGISTRATION VIOLATIONS
(a) Operation of an 30 to 90 day
unregistered aircraft suspension of
pilot licence
(b) Operation of an aircraft Minimum to maximum 30-90 day
without a Certificate of Aircraft civil penalty only if suspension of
Registration on board operator is different pilot certificate
from pilot
(c) Failure to return an Minimum Civil Penalty Revoke
ineffective Certificate of Aircraft Certificate of
Registration Aircraft
Registration
(d) Use of registered aircraft to Mandatory
carry out or facilitate unlawful revocation of
activities Certificate of
Aircraft
Registration and
of all other
Certificates of
Aircraft
Registration
issued to its
owner, and
revocation of all
personnel
licences and
medical certificate
VI. ALL INDIVIDUALS AND ENTITIES

(a) Failure to surrender suspended Individual: Moderate
or revoked licence, authorisation civil penalty per day
or other approval, or medical Entity: Moderate civil
certificate penalty per day.
VII. CONSUMER PROTECTION

1) Failure to Minimum to moderate
provide civil penalty plus
assistance in payment of value of
case of denied compensation
boarding prescribed in the
regulation.


Violation
2) Failure to submit Boarding priority Minimum Civil Penalty
Rules to the Authority.
3) Failure to comply with boarding Minimum to moderate

priority rules when denying Civil Penalty plus
boarding. compensation
prescribed in the
Regulation.
4) Failure to give priority to persons Minimum to moderate

with reduced mobility during Civil Penalty
boarding.
5) Failure to render assistance in Moderate to maximum

case of flight cancellation Civil Penalty
6) Failure to provide care for Moderate to maximum

persons with reduced mobility, Civil Penalty plus
persons accompanying them, monetary value of the
unaccompanied minors, in case of prescribed care to be
denied boarding, flight cancellation given to complainant
and delays
7) Failure to display at check in Minimum Civil Penalty

counter passenger rights
statement.
8) Failure to provide to passengers Minimum to moderate

on request, passenger rights Civil Penalty.
leaflet.
9) Misleading Advertising Moderate to maximum

Civil Penalty plus
seizure of all
inappropriate excess
gains/profit from the
advert or promotional
scheme. Possible
criminal referrals.
10) Failure to process ticket refund Refund of full value of

beyond stipulated time. ticket and an
additional 5% of the
ticket value.
11) Failure by any service provider to Moderate Civil Penalty

investigate complaint of
passengers in respect of
compensation and failure to
respond to Authority’s letter in


Violation
respect of same
12) Failure or refusal to compensate Minimum Civil Penalty

passengers who are denied and compliance with
boarding involuntarily as a result the regulation.
of over booking.
13) Negligence in handling passenger Moderate Civil Penalty

baggage resulting in delay, and replacement of
damage or loss of baggage damaged baggage
14) Over charging, discrimination in Maximum Civil

applying charges Penalty for each day
the violation continues
15) Failure to respond to consumer Minimum Civil

letter of complaint duly issued by Penalty.
the Authority.
16) Placing Advertisement without the Minimum Civil Penalty

Authority’s written approval.
17) Failure to maintain orderliness at Minimum Civil Penalty

check – in counters or boarding
gates
(18) Minimum to Moderate

Failure to provide appropriate Civil Penalty
alternative means of notification for
Persons with reduced mobility
(blind/Visually impaired)
(19) Failure to provide a designated Minimum to Moderate
officer to assist with complaints Civil Penalty
(20) Failure to provide the Authority Minimum civil penalty
contact details of the designated
complaint officer in written form
(21) Failure to reimburse downgraded Minimum to Moderate
passengers within the period Civil Penalty
specified Reimbursement of
affected passenger
(22) Failure to submit contingency plans Moderate civil penalty
for lengthy Tarmac delays
(23) Failure to provide care in case of Moderate to maximum
delays. Civil Penalty plus
monetary value of the
prescribed care to be
given to complainant.


Violation
(24) Failure or refusal by any Air
Carrier or Service Provider to
implement directives issued by Moderate Civil Penalty
the Authority on the protection of
consumer interests.
Minimum to moderate Failure to pay
(25) Failure to pay compensation for civil penalty plus compensation for
delayed or cancelled flight, payment of value of delayed or
delayed, lost or missing baggage compensation cancelled flight,
prescribed in the delayed, lost or
regulation. missing baggage
Minimum to moderate Failure to provide

(26) Failure to provide assistance to civil penalty plus assistance to
Persons with reduced Mobility as payment Persons with
requested during booking of value of reduced Mobility
compensation as requested
prescribed in the during booking
regulation.
Failure to provide
(27) Failure to provide information, information,
reimbursement or re-routing for reimbursement or
significant change to a flight as Minimum Civil Penalty re-routing for
prescribed in the regulation. plus compensation significant change
to a flight as
prescribed in the
regulation.
VIII AIR TRANSPORT ECONOMIC
1) Operation of sales outlet Minimum Civil Penalty

by foreign airlines other
than those approved by the
Authority.
2) False declaration of Maximum Civil

information on airline Penalty and possible
operation for 5% TSC criminal referral.
computation
3) Failure or refusal to Maximum Civil

maintain adequate Penalty and possible
insurance cover, failure to criminal referrals of
make quarterly returns on principal officers
the adequacy of insurance
cover.
4) Violation of any condition Moderate Civil Penalty

of a license or approval by for initial violation and


Violation
any company or allied for each day the
aviation service provider violation continues
5) Failure or refusal to file Moderate Civil

fares, tariff, charges or give Penalty for initial
information thereof. violation and minimum
Civil Penalty for each
day the violation
continues
6) Failure to comply with the Minimum to moderate

conditions of approved Civil Penalty
flight clearance for non-
scheduled international air
service.
7) Failure to obtain necessary Maximum Civil

Approvals. Permits or Penalty
Clearances
8) Delay in remittance of Attracts a daily

5%TSC surcharge of 1%
compound interest on
the outstanding
balance on the
amount unremitted.
9) Engaging in Anti-Competitive Cease and Desist Possible

Restrictive and concerted Order and Restitution withdrawal of
business practices under 18.15.2 operating
and 18.15.3 authorization or
certificate action.
10) Failure to comply with the Moderate to Maximum Possible
terms and conditions of an Civil Penalty certificate action
approved mode of operation.
11. operating as an allied aviation Minimum to maximum

service provider with registration civil penalty.
IX OTHER REGULATIONS
VIOLATIONS
1) Failure to obtain Aviation Height Moderate Civil Penalty

Clearance.
2) Failure to maintain adequate fire Moderate Civil Penalty Revocation of

and rescue services as approved and. certificate if the
by the Authority in Aerodrome violation
continues


Violation
3) Failure to conform with approved Minimum to moderate
Environmental protection Civil Penalty
programme
4) Failure to remove disabled aircraft N10,000.00 for each

day of the violation
continues after
demand is made.
5) Failure to install an approved wind Minimum to moderate

direction and speed indicator(s) Civil Penalty
6) Failure to provide adequate Maximum Civil

weather information or Penalty with possible
meteorological services according criminal referral of
to Authority’s approved standards. principal officers.
7) Failure to comply with approved Moderate Civil Penalty

emergency procedure/plan. with possible criminal
referral of principal
officers.
8) Release of Biological, chemical or Criminal Referral

Nuclear (BCN) weapon or
explosives, radioactive or similar
substance in an aircraft
9) Illegal transportation of BNC Criminal Referral

weapon or explosives, radioactive
or similar substance in an aircraft
10) Communication of false Criminal Referral

information with intent to endanger
the safety of aircraft in flight
11) Transport of Dangerous Goods by Maximum Civil

Air without Approval Penalty and or
Criminal Referral
12) Denial of Access to NCAA Moderate to Maximum

Inspectors to premises, Civil Penalty
documents, entries, aircraft,
equipment or any other facilities
where access is required
X AERODROME VIOLATIONS
1) Commencing development of Maximum Civil
aerodrome, Penalty and
airstrip/heliport(onshore) without suspension of work
the Authority's approval until approval granted
2) Failure to inform the Authority of a Maximum civil penalty


Violation
developed heliport(onshore) and payment of
construction fee
3) Failure of an operator to obtain Maximum civil penalty
approval for documents and cease and desist
enumerated in Nig.CARs Part order
12.1.4.1(b) before commencement
of aerodrome development.
4) Failure of an operator to submit Maximum Civil
aeronautical studies to the Penalty
Authority for non-compliance with
regulations
5) Failure of an operator to notify the Maximum Civil
Authority of any rehabilitation or Penalty
upgrade of an/a
aerodrome/heliport
6) Allowing aircraft operations into a Minimum Civil Penalty
heliport with expired heliport
certificate.
7) Failure of an operator to submit Minimum Civil Penalty
correct aeronautical data for
publication into the AIP.
8) Operating an aircraft into Maximum Civil
unapproved airstrip/heliport Penalty
9) Failure of an operator to renew a Maximum Civil revocation of

heliport certificate Penalty certificate
10) Failure of an aerodrome operator /Minimum Civil
to restrict vehicle speed limit Penalty
operating on the airside
11) Failure of Ground handling Minimum Civil Penalty
companies to comply with parking
of GSE within the restricted areas
allotted
12) Failure of an aerodrome/airstrip/helipo
Minimum to maximum suspension
operator to implement
Civil Penalty
approved training/retraining programme for
13) operational and maintenance personnel
14) Failure to provide adequate Minimum Civil Penalty
training programme for operational
and maintenance personnel for
Authority's approval
15) Failure to establish and retain Minimum Civil Penalty
personnel training records.
16) Failure of an/a Minimum Civil
aerodrome/airstrip/heliport Penalty
operator to send mandatory
report of an incident/ accident to
the Authority


Violation
17) Failure of an Maximum Civil Suspension
operator to maintain or keep
maintenance records for the
Aerodrome/airstrip/heliport
18) Failure of an Moderate to maximum
aerodrome/airstrip/heliport Civil Penalty
operator to comply with approved
birds/wildlife Management
programme.
19) Operating an Moderate Civil Penalty
aerodrome/airstrip/heliport without
an approved operations manual
20) Failure of an Minimum to moderate
operator to developed and submit
work safety plan before
construction/ major maintenance
of facilities
21) Failure to obtain Aviation height Moderate Civil
clearance. Penalty
22) Failure of an Minimum to moderate

operator to renew aviation height
clearance at the expiration of 12
calendar months.
23) Provision of false information to Maximum Civil
the Authority in support of Penalty
application for license, certificate and possible criminal
or approval. referrals.
24) Failure or refusal of an Maximum Civil

aerodrome/airstrip/heliport to Penalty
maintain adequate insurance and possible criminal
cover. referral
25) Establishing an unauthorized Moderate Civil Penalty Closure of the
aerodrome. aerodrome
26) Unauthorized use of Maximum Civil Suspension
27) Failure to obtain written approval Moderate to Maximum

of the authority Civil Penalty
28) to amend , upgrade, alter, transfer,
sale or lease or
alienate ownership of an existing
aerodrome
29) Failure to maintain adequate Moderate Civil Penalty Revocation of


Violation
rescue and fire fighting services aerodrome
as approved by the authority certificate If the
violation
continues after
demand is made.
30) Failure to remove disabled aircraft. N10,000 for each day
the violation continues
after demand is made.
31) Failure to install an approved wind minimum to moderate
direction and speed indicator(s). Civil Penalty.
32) Failure to comply with approved moderate Civil Penalty
emergency procedure/plan. and possible Criminal
referrals of principal
Officers
33) Failure to develop and/or Moderate Civil
implement an approved safety Penalty .
management system .
34) Failure to calibrate any Minimum to moderate
navigational and Civil Penalty
landing aids in accordance with
approved standard.
35) Failure to provide blast fences to Minimum to moderate
protect personnel and vehicles Civil Penalty
from jet blast and propeller
slipstreams
36) Failure to maintain standards on Minimum to moderate
handling, storage and dispensing Civil Penalty
aviation fuel.
37) Failure of an aerodrome operator Minimum to moderate
to sweep, clean and/or de-grease Civil Penalty
apron regularly and when
necessary
38) Failure to operate and maintain Moderate to maximum
the aerodrome in accordance with Civil Penalty
approved procedures in the
Aerodrome Operations Manual.
39) Failure to amend the Minimum to moderate
documents for maintenance of
accuracy of information.
40) Failure to NOTAM any obstruction, Moderate to maximum
level of service or any safety Civil Penalty
concern conditions at an
aerodrome
41) Failure to test the aerodrome Minimum to maximum
emergency plan within the Civil Penalty
specified intervals.
42) Failure to arrange and carryout Minimum to moderate
internal audits of the safety Civil Penalty
management system within the


Violation
43) Allowing night flights from, or at Moderate to maximum
any aerodrome at which adequate Civil Penalty
facilities for night flights are
lacking.
44) Failure to provide adequate Moderate to maximum
number of qualified and skilled Civil Penalty
personnel to perform all critical
activities for aerodrome operation
and maintenance.
45) Failure to allow authorized Moderate to maximum
person(s) access to any part of the Civil Penalty
aerodrome or any aerodrome
facility, equipment, records,
documents and operational
personnel.
46) Failure to implement a system of Minimum to Moderate
preventive maintenance and Civil Penalty
checking of the aerodrome
facilities.
47) Failure to compile and retain Minimum to Moderate
monthly statistics in respect of the Civil Penalty
number of passengers and aircraft
movements in determining fire
category.
48) Failure to limit access to Minimum to Moderate
movement and safety areas only Civil Penalty
to ground vehicles and
pedestrians necessary for
Aerodrome and aircraft operations.
49) Failure to prepare and implement Minimum to Moderate
inspection programme Civil Penalty
50) Failure to implement a quality Minimum to Moderate
control programme. Civil Penalty
51) Failure of an aerodrome operator Maximum Civil
to provide standby fire cover Penalty
during fuelling of aircraft
52) Failure of airline operator to make Minimum Civil Penalty
request for and obtain fire cover
during fuelling operations
53) Failure of an aerodrome operator
to ensure compliance with Maximum Civil
procedures including Penalty
communication by a fuel vendor
supplying fuel to aircraft at a place
and in a manner approved by the
aerodrome operator.
54) Failure of an aerodrome operator Maximum Civil
to carry out the internal audit of Penalty
fuel farms


Violation
55) Failure of an operator to submit
and implement Corrective Action
Plan (CAP) within agreed time Minimum Civil Penalty
frame for the
Aerodrome/Airstrip/Heliport
Downgrade of
56) Failure to comply with the Minimum to maximum operation
Aerodrome Operations Manual Civil Penalty category or
Suspension of up
to 180 days.
XI AIR TRAFFIC VIOLATIONS
1) Failure to carry out Air Traffic Moderate to Maximum

Management (ATM) duties as Civil Penalty and
assigned. possible criminal
referral
2) Failure to obtain written approval
of the Authority on the revised
ATM procedures before carrying Moderate to Maximum
out any renovation, expansion or Civil Penalty
construction works at any ATM
Facility.
3) Failure to establish an Aerodrome
Security Committee that meets the Minimum to Moderate
requirement of the Aerodrome Civil Penalty
Security Programme.
4) Failure to provide qualified and
Moderate to Maximum
competent Air Traffic Control
Civil Penalty
Officers and in sufficient numbers.
5) Consumption and evidence of
alcoholic beverages or other Maximum Civil
prohibited substances while on Penalty
duty.
6) Failure of an Air Traffic Control
Officer to carry on his/her person a Minimum to Moderate
valid Air Traffic Control License Civil Penalty
while on duty.
7) Carrying out Air Traffic Control
Maximum Civil
functions without the minimum
Penalty
required training.
8) Failure to provide initial and
recurrent training on Air Traffic
Moderate Civil Penalty
Control to Air Traffic Control
Officers.
9) Failure to carry out initial and
periodic assessments on Air
Traffic Control Officers in order to Moderate Civil Penalty
maintain competence at the
relevant ATM unit.
10) Failure to keep accurate record of
initial and periodic assessments Moderate Civil Penalty
on Air Traffic Control Officers.

Violation
11) Obstruction of Moderate to maximum
investigations/failure to provide Civil Penalty and
information possible criminal
referral
12) Failure to adhere to the provisions Moderate Civil Penalty
of an approved contingency and possible Criminal
plan/programme. referral of Principal
Officers
13) Falsification or alteration of any Maximum Civil
record or report to show Penalty and possible
compliance. criminal referral
14) Implementing new ATM
Maximum Civil
procedures without approval.
Penalty
15) Operating as an ANSP without an
approved ATM Operations Moderate Civil Penalty
Manual.
16) Failure to develop and submit a
Work Plan during Minimum to moderate
construction/maintenance of Civil Penalty
facilities at the aerodrome
17) Failure of a duty Air Traffic Control
Officer to notify his/her ANSP of Moderate to Maximum
any threat to civil aviation, ATM Civil Penalty
facility or the aerodrome.
18) Failure to render to an authorized Minimum Civil Penalty
officer required documents and for each day the
forms for statistical verification. violation continues
19) Failure of an ANSP to notify the
Authority of a specific threat Minimum Civil Penalty
against any aerodrome.
20) Failure to maintain a copy of
ANSP certificate or the pertinent
Minimum Civil Penalty
portions of the ANSP certificate at
its Headquarters.
21) Failure to assign a qualified and
Maximum Civil
Penalty
Officer as a Watch Supervisor.
22) Failure to assign qualified and
Officers as Quality Assurance Maximum Civil
Manager (QAM) and Air Traffic Penalty
Operations Manager (ATOM) at
each ATM facility.
23) Other violations of these
Minimum to maximum
regulations not specifically listed
Civil Penalty
above.
24) Obstruction and prevention of the Moderate to maximum
Authority or any of its designated Civil Penalty


Violation
officers from carrying out lawful
duties.
25) Failure to provide information Minimum to moderate
upon request by the Authority Civil Penalty
26) Provision of false information to
Maximum Civil
the Authority in support of
Penalty and criminal
application for License, Certificate
referral
or Approval.
27)
28) Failure to respond to Corrective
Action Plans (CAPs) within Minimum Civil Penalty
29) Failure to implement Corrective
Maximum Civil
Action Plans (CAPs) within
Penalty
30) Failure to comply with the ATM Maximum Civil
directives issued by the Authority. Penalty
31) Failure to make available relevant
Minimum to Moderate
documents for inspection upon
Civil Penalty
request.
32) Disclosure of sensitive information Moderate to Maximum
to unauthorized person(s) Civil Penalty
33) Obstruction of ATM Inspectors
Maximum Civil
from carrying out lawful duties.
Penalty
34) Delay or failure in submission of Minimum Civil Penalty
documents requested by the for each day the
Authority. violation continues
35) Operating without adherence to
the approved Manuals of
Standards for Air Traffic
Maximum Civil
Management (ATM), PANS-OPS
Penalty
and Aeronautical Search and
Rescue (SAR).
36) Failure to have or maintain an Suspension until

effective training programme. Maximum civil penalty compliance is
demonstrated
change in modifications to Minimum Civil Penalty
operational procedures.
38) Failure to adhere to the provisions Maximum Civil
of an approved SMS programme. Penalty
39) False declaration of information on Maximum penalty and
airline operations for 5% TSC possible criminal
computation. referral
40) False declaration of document Maximum Civil Suspension of
relating to statistical verification. Penalty and possible operating


Violation
criminal referral authorization
41) Delay in the submission of Minimum Civil Penalty
document requested by the for each day the
Authority. violation continues
42) Violation of any condition of a Moderate Civil Penalty
License or Approval by any for initial violation and
Company or allied Aviation each day the violation
Service Provider. continues
43) Failure to comply with the
conditions of an approved flight Minimum to moderate
clearance for non-scheduled or Civil Penalty
international air service.
44) Failure to renew ANSP License Minimum to moderate
within the stipulated time. Civil Penalty
45) Unauthorized use of ANSP facility. Maximum Civil Suspension
Penalty
46) Failure to obtain written approval
of the Authority to amend,
Moderate to maximum
upgrade, alter, transfer, sale or
Civil Penalty
lease or alienate ownership of an
existing ANSP facility.
47) Reduction or extension of
published level of service without Minimum Civil Penalty
approval.
48) Failure to comply with safety Maximum Civil
directives issued by the Authority. Penalty
49) Failure to conform with approved
Minimum to moderate
Environmental Protection
Civil Penalty
Programme.
50) Failure to install an approved wind Minimum to moderate
direction and speed indicator(s). Civil Penalty
51) Failure to provide adequate Maximum Civil
weather information or Penalty and possible
Meteorological Services according criminal referral of
to Authority’s approved standards. Principal Officers
emergency procedures/plan. and possible criminal
referral of Principal
Officers
53) Failure to carry out maintenance
of Aeronautical facilities as Moderate Civil Penalty
approved by the Authority.
54) Failure to disseminate
Minimum Civil Penalty
Aeronautical Information Services
and criminal referral of
in accordance with approved
Officer-in-Charge
procedures.
55) Operation of aircraft into an
Maximum Civil
aerodrome when weather is below
Penalty
the State Weather Minima.


Violation
56) Failure to report the operation of
aircraft into an aerodrome when Maximum Civil
weather is below the State Penalty
Weather Minima.
57) Failure to provide an approved
Moderate Civil Penalty
standard of any type of Air Traffic
and criminal referral
Services.
58) Failure to calibrate any
Navigational and Landing Aids in Minimum to moderate
accordance with approved Civil Penalty
standards
59) Destruction or damage of Air

Criminal Referral
Navigation Facilities.
XII AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION
SERVICES VIOLATIONS
1) Obstruction of investigation/ failure Moderate to maximum
to provide information. Civil Penalty and
possible criminal
referral.
2) Operating an Aerodrome without Moderate Civil Penalty
an approved Aerodrome .
Operations Manual.
3) Failure to develop and submit Minimum to moderate
work plan during construction/ Civil Penalty.
maintenance of facilities at the
Airport.
4) Obstruction and prevention of the Moderate to maximum
Authority or any of designated Civil Penalty
officers from carrying out lawful
duties.
5) Failure to provide information Minimum to moderate
upon request by the Authority. Civil Penalty
6) Provision of false information to Maximum Civil
the Authority in support of Penalty and possible
application for licence, certificate criminal referrals.
or approval.
7) Failure to render to an authorized Minimum Civil Penalty
officer required documents, forms each day the violation
for statistical verification. continues.
8) False declaration of documents Maximum Civil Suspension of
relating to statistical verification. Penalty and possible operating
criminal referral authorization
9) Delay in submission of documents Minimum Civil Penalty
requested by the Authority. for each day the
violation continues.
10) Establishing an unauthorized Moderate Civil Penalty
aerodrome. and closure of the


Violation
aerodrome.
11) Unauthorized provision of allied moderate to Maximum
aviation services. Civil Penalty
12) Failure to comply with the Minimum to moderate
conditions of approved flight Civil Penalty
clearance for non-scheduled
international air services.
13) Failure to renew aerodrome Minimum to moderate
licence within the stipulated time. Civil Penalty.
14) Reduction of published level of Minimum Civil Penalty
service without approval.
15) Failure to comply with safety Maximum Civil
directive issued by the Authority. Penalty
emergency procedure/plan. and possible criminal
referral of principal
officers.
17) Failure to develop or implement an Moderate Civil Penalty
approved Safety Management
System.
18) Failure to disseminate Minimum Civil Penalty
Aeronautical Information Services and criminal referral of
in accordance with approved officer in charge.
procedure.
19) Disclosure of unauthorized Minimum Civil Penalty
information. and criminal referral.
20) False information in order to Moderate Civil Penalty
obtain license, permit or any and criminal referral.
authorization.
21) Failure to put in place Quality Medium Civil Penalty
Management System in
accordance with stipulated
standards.
22) Failure to provide in timely Maximum Civil
manner, the personnel, facilities Penalty .
and financial resources need to
implement and improve the
processes of QMS and address
customer on all AIS and charts
related services.
23) Failure to put in place a security Moderate Civil Penalty
plan to protect facility, personnel
and services.
24) Failure to put in place contingency Moderate Civil Penalty
plan in the invent of total or partial
system failure.
25) Failure to develop local operating Moderate Civil Penalty
procedure for the collection and
dissemination of relevant data/


Violation
information in AIS Aerodrome
units.
26) Failure to carry out airport facilities Moderate Civil Penalty
and obstructions survey in WGS-
84 datum which shall include
geoidal undulations.
27) Failure to depict on an Moderate Civil Penalty
aeronautical chart the values of
magnetic variations at airport(s)
nearest to the date of publication
that is divisible by 5.
28) Failure to produce Moderate Civil Penalty
aeronautical charts in accordance
with required regulations
29) Failure to provide requisite Moderate Civil Penalty
aeronautical chart including grid
maps prior to aircraft operations at
each aerodrome
XIII COMMUNICATIONS NAVIGATION

AND SURVEILLANCE VIOLATIONS
1) Failure to officially involve NCAA Maximum Civil
(Air Navigation Services Penalty
Inspectors) in the deployment of
CNS facilities from Site
validation/Factory Acceptance
Test (FAT) to Installation stages.
2) Assignment of Frequencies of Maximum Civil

Operation of Aeronautical Penalty
Facilities without NCAA’s
Approval.
3) Operation of Navigation and Maximum Civil

Landing facilities at the expiration Penalty
of periodicity.
4) Non-qualified ATSEP personnel Maximum Civil

rostered to man a watch without Penalty
supervision.
5) An ATSEP carrying out Moderate Civil Penalty

maintenance on facilities he or she
is not rated for.
6) Operation of a safety-critical Maximum Civil

service which does not ensure the Penalty
required standards (availability,
continuity, efficiency etc.)


Violation
7) Failure to inform NCAA prior to the Moderate Civil Penalty
procurement of any Aeronautical
telecommunication equipment
8) before deployment to the

aerodrome.
9) Failure to install or provide Moderate Civil

approved minimum air navigation Penalty
facilities in the Aerodrome
according to NCAA approved
standards.
10) Unlawful shutdown, downgrade or Maximum Civil

sudden termination of aeronautical Penalty
Telecommunication equipment
radiating signal in space to
endanger or cause communication
failure.
11) Obstruction of an investigation or Maximum Civil

failure to provide information on Penalty
sudden or willful shutdown of air
navigation facilities that may
have resulted in diversion or
termination of flight.
12) Failure to develop and submit Moderate Civil Penalty

work plan, progress reports during
installation/major maintenance or
overhaul of aeronautical
telecommunication facility in the
aerodrome.
13) Obstruction and prevention of the Maximum Civil

authority or the Air Navigation Penalty
Safety Inspector from carrying out
lawful duties.
14) Radiation of false signals due to Maximum Civil

negligence or Penalty
failure to calibrate air navigation
facilities in accordance with
approved NCAA standards or for
an intent to endanger safety of
aircraft in flight.
15) Establishing/alteration of radiated Moderate Civil Penalty

signal in space consequent upon and decommissioning


Violation
unauthorized usage or change of of facility
assigned frequency or parameter
contrary to established standards
by the authority.
16) Failure to obtain a written approval Moderate Civil Penalty

of the authority to install/deploy,
amend, upgrade or alter either by
re-installation/decommissioning of
any aeronautical
telecommunication facility in the
aerodrome.
17) Failure to carry out maintenance Moderate Civil Penalty

or calibration of any navigation
and landing aids in accordance
with
18) approved standards by the

authority.
19) Destruction or damage of Repairing/replacemen

aeronautical telecommunication t cost is negotiable
facilities for air navigation. with ANSP.
20) Failure to forward daily, weekly Minimum Civil Penalty

and monthly defect reports to the
Authority.
21) Failure to make appropriate Moderate Civil Penalty

entries into maintenance logbook
in accordance with NCAA
standards for documentation and
entries.
22) Failure to provide contingency Moderate Civil Penalty

plans to forestall any sudden
disruption of radiation of signal or
shutdown of aeronautical
telecommunication facility.
23) Failure to submit/implement Moderate Civil Penalty

Corrective Action Plan (CAP)
within agreed time frame or
remedy noncompliance after
notification in writing by the
Authority.
24) Failure to renew an aeronautical Moderate Civil

Telecommunication service Penalty
Provider certificate and continuous


Violation
operation without
certificate/permit.
XIV.SAFE TRANSPORT OF
DANGEROUS GOODS BY AIR
1. Failure to comply with the N500,000 for each

terms and conditions of regulations, part of the ICAO
directives, orders made or given for Technical Instruction
the safe transport of dangerous by For the Safe
air in accordance with Sec 78(4) of Transport of
Civil Aviation Act. Dangerous Goods by
Air
XV. OTHERS IN THE CIVIL

AVIATION ACT
1. Actions in trespass, nuisance and Criminal Referral

damage by and from aircraft.
2. Forgery or counterfeiting of Criminal Referral

documents
3 Dangerous flying Criminal Referral
4 Damage to air navigation and Criminal Referral

other facilities
5. Hijacking and unlawful Criminal Referral

interference
6 Endangering the safety, Criminal Referral

destroying or damaging of an
aircraft
7. Interference with crew members Criminal Referral

IS 1.9. S I UNIT OF MEASUREMENT
SI Unit 1. Table 2.1. SI Unit Prefix

of
Measure Multiplication factor Prefix Symbol
ment.
1 000 000 000 000 000 000 = 1018 exa
E
1000 000 000 000 000 = 1015 peta
P
1000 000 000 000 = 1012 tera T
1000 000 000 = 109 giga G
1000 000 = 106 mega M
1 000 = 103 kilo k
100 = 102 hecto H
10 = 101 deca a
0.1 = 10-1 deci d
0.01 = 10-2 centi c
0.001 = 10-3 milli m
0.000 001 = 10-6 micro
0.000 000 001 = 10-9 nano n
0.000 000 000 001 = 10-12 pico p
0.000 000 000 000 001 = 10-
15 femto f
0.000 000 000 000 000 001 = 10-18 atto
a

2. Table 2.2 NON-SI Units for use with the SI
Specific quantities
In Table 3-4 Definition
Related to Unit Symbol (in terms of SI units
Mass tonne t 1 t = 103 kg

plane angle degree o 1o =
(0/180) rad
minute ‘ 1’ = (1/60)0 = (0/10
800) rad second “ 1”= (1/60)” = (0/648
000)rad
temperature degree Celsius oC 1 unit oC = 1 unit Ka)
time minute min 1 min = 60s
hour h 1 h = 60 min = 3
600 s day d 1 d = 24 h = 86
400 s week, month, year -
Volume Litre L 1 L = 1 dm3 = 10-3m3
(a) See Table 2.5 for conversion.

3. TABLE 2.3 Non-SI Alternative Unit

In Table 3-4 Definition
Related to Unit Symbol (in terms of SI
units
Distance (long) nautical NM 1 NM = 1852 m
Distance mile foot ft 1 ft = 0.3048m
(vertical)a) knot k 1 kt = 0.514 444
Speed t
a) altitude, elevation, height, vertical speed
4. TABLE 2.4 Standard application of specific units of measurement
Non-SI
Ref. No Primary unit Alternative units Quantity (Symbol)
(symbol)
1. Direction/Space/Time
1.1 altitude m ft
1.2 area m 2
1.3 distance (long)a) km NM
1.4 distance (short) m
1.5 elevation m ft
1.6 endurance h and min
1.7 height m ft
1.8 latitude ot”
1.9 length m
1.10 longitude o ‘“
1.11 plane angle o (when required, decimal
subdivisions of the degree
shall be used)
1.12 runway length m
1.13 runway visual range m
1.14 tank capacities (aircraft)b) T
1.15 time s min h
d week month year
1.16 visibilityc) km
1.17 volume m3
1.18 wind direction (wind o
directions other than for a landing and take-off shall be expressed in
degrees true;
for landing and take-off wind directions shall be expressed in degrees
magnetic)

2. Mass-related
2.1 air density kg/m3

2.2 area density kg/m2
2.3 cargo capacity kg
2.4 cargo density kg/m3
2.5 density (mass density) kg/m3
2.6 fuel capacity (gravimetric) kg
2.7 gas density kg/m3
2.8 gross mass or payload kg
2.9 hoisting provisions kg
2.10 linear density Wm
2.11 liquid density kg/m3
2.12 mass kg
2.13 moment of inertia kg*m2
2.14 moment of momentum kg.m2/s
2.15 momentum kg.m/s
3. force-related
3.1 air pressure (general) kPa
3.2 altimeter setting hPa
3.3 atmospheric pressure hPa
3.4 bending moment kN*m
3.5 force N
3.6 fuel supply pressure kPa
3.7 hydraulic pressure kPa
3.8 modulus of elasticity MPa
3.9 pressure kPa
3.10 stress MPa
3.11 surface tension mN/m
3.12 thrust kN
3.13 torque N*m
3.14 vacuum Pa
4. Mechanics
4.1 airspeedd) km/h
4.2 angular acceleration rad/s2
4.3 angular velocity rad/s2
4.4 energy or work J
4.5 equivalent shaft power kW
4.6 frequency HZ
4.7 ground speed Km/h
4.8 impact J/mo
4.9 kinetic energy absorbed
by brakes MJ

4. TABLE 2.4 Standard application of specific units of

measurement-contd.
Non-
SI
Ref. No Primary unit Alternative units Quantity
(Symbol)
(symbo
l)
4.10 linear acceleration m/s2

4.11 power kW
4.12 rate of trim o/S
4.13 shaft power kW
4.14 velocity m/s
4.15 vertical speed m/s Ft/min
4.16 wind speed km/h kt
5. Flow
5.1 engine airflow
5.2 engine waterflow kg/s
5.3 fuel consumption (specific) kg/h
piston engines
kg/(kWo
h) turbo-shaft engines
kg/(kWo
h) jet engines
kg/(kNo
h)
5.4 fuel flow kg/h
5.5 fuel tank filling rate
(gravimetric)
kg/mi
n
5.6 gas flow kg/s
5.7 liquid flow (gravimetric) g/s
5.8 liquid flow (volumetric) L/s
5.9 mass flow Kg/s
5.10 oil consumption
gas turbine Kg/h
piston engines (specific)
g/(kW o
h)
5.11 oil flow g/S
5.12 pump capacity L/min
5.13 ventilation airflow m3/min
5.14 viscosity (dynamic) Pa + s
5.15 viscosity (kinematic) m2/s

6. Thermodynamics
6.1 coefficient of heat transfer W/(m2 . K)
6.2 heat flow per unit area J/m2
6.3 heat flow rate W
6.4 humidity (absolute) g/kg
6.5 coefficient of linear expansion oC-1
6.6 quantity of heat J
6.7 temperature oC
7. Electricity and
7.1 capacitance F
7.2 conductance S
7.3 conductivity S/m
7.4 current density A/m
7.5 electric current A
7.6 electric field strength C/m
7.7 electric potential Part
V 1–
7.8 electromotive force V
7.9 magnetic field A/m
7.10 magnetic flux Wb
7.11 magnetic flux density T
7.12 power W
7.13 quantity of electricity C
7.14 Resistance []

REGULATIONS General Policies, Procedures and Definitions
8. Light and related electromagnetic
8.1 Illuminance lx
8.2 luminance cd/m2
8.3 luminous exitance Mm2 radiations
8.4 luminous flux lm
8.5 luminous intensity cd
8.6 quantity of light Im- s
8.7 radiant energy 1
8.8 wavelength m
9. Acoustics
9.1 frequency Hz
9.2 mass density kg/m3
9.3 noise level dBe)
9.4 period, periodic time S
9.5 sound intensity W/m2
9.6 sound power W
9.7 sound pressure Pa
9.8 sound level D Be)
9.9 static pressure (instantaneous) Pa
9.10 velocity of sound m/S
9.11 volume velocity
(instantaneous) m3/s
9.12 wavelength m
10. Nuclear physics and ionizing radiation

10.1 absorbed dose Gy
10.2 absorbed dose fate Gyls
10.3 activity of radionuclides Bq
10.4 dose equivalent Sv
10.5 radiation exposure C&z
10.6 exposure rate C/kg* s

(a) As used in navigation, generally in excess of 4 000 m.

(b) Such as aircraft fuel, hydraulic fluids, water, oil and high pressure oxygen vessels.
(c) Visibility of less than 5 km may be given in m.
(d) Airspeed is sometimes reported in flight operations in terms of the ratio MACH
number.
(e) The decibel (dB) is a ratio which may be used as a unit for expressing sound
pressure level and sound power level. When used, the reference level must be
specified.
Table 2.5 Temperature Conversion formulae
To convert from to Use formula
Celsius temperature (toc) Kelvin temperature (t )k t k = toc + 273.15
Fahrenheit temperature (to ) Celsius temperature (to ) to = (to - 32)/1.8

F c c F
Fahrenheit temperature (to ) Kelvin temperature (tk) tk = (to +459.67)/1.8
F F
Kelvin temperature (tK) Celsius temperature (to ) to = t - 273.15
C C K
Rankine temperature (toR ) Kelvin temperature (tK) t K = toR /1

INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK

Nig Cars Part 1 General Policies Procedures and Definitions

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Nig Cars Part 1 General Policies Procedures and Definitions

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Nig Cars Part 1 General Policies Procedures and Definitions

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

NIGERIA CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY

NIGERIA CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS

Aerodrome Manual of Standards is also incorporated into Part 12 and reissued in 2

Part 1 – General Policies, Procedures and Definitions;

Part 1 of Nig.CARs 2023 contains general policies; rules of construction of the

Captain Musa Shuaibu Nuhu

4 April ,2023 Updated to latest

4 April ,2023 Updated to latest

4 April ,2023 Updated to latest

4 April ,2023 Updated to latest

4 April ,2023 Updated to latest

4 April ,2023 Updated to latest

4 April ,2023 Updated to latest

4 April ,2023 Updated to latest

4 April ,2023 Updated to latest

4 April ,2023 Updated to latest

Part 12 – Volume I (Aerodrome); 4 April ,2023 Updated to latest

4 April ,2023 Updated to latest

4 April ,2023 Updated to latest

4 April ,2023 Updated to latest

4 April ,2023 Applicable provisions of

4 April ,2023 Updated to latest

4 April ,2023 Updated to latest

4 April ,2023 Updated to latest

4 April ,2023 Updated to latest

4 April ,2023 NEW. Provisions of RPAS

4 April ,2023 NEW. Supersedes

Captain Musa Shuaibu Nuhu

STATUS OF COMPLIANCE WITH ICAO SARPS

1 PERSONNEL LICENSING 178

2 RULES OF THE AIR 47

3 METEOROLOGICAL SERVICE FOR INTERNATIONAL AIR 80

5 UNITS OF MEASUREMENT TO BE USED IN AIR AND GROUND 17

6 OPERATION OF AIRCRAFT, PART I INTERNATIONAL 48

6 OPERATION OF AIRCRAFT, PART III INTERNATIONAL 24

7 AIRCRAFT NATIONALITY AND REGISTRATION MARKS 7

8 AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT 109

10 AERONAUTICAL TELECOMMUNICATIONS, VOLUME I RADIO 92

10 AERONAUTICAL TELECOMMUNICATIONS, VOLUME II - 92

11 AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES, 52

12 SEARCH AND RESCUE 18

14 AERODROMES, VOLUME I AERODROME DESIGN AND 17

14 AERODROMES, VOLUME II HELIPORTS 9

15 AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION SERVICES 42

16 ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION, VOLUME I AIRCRAFT NOISE 13

16 ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION, VOLUME II AIRCRAFT 10

16 ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION, VOLUME III - AIRCRAFT CO2 1

PART REMOTELY PILOTED

NIGERIA CIVIL AVIATION

Amendment Number Date of Amendment Affected Description

Captain Musa Shuaibu Nuhu

Director General of Civil Aviation

NIGERIA CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY

CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS

PART 1 – GENERAL POLICIES, PROCEDURES AND DEFINITIONS

1.2. GENERAL ADMINISTRATIVE RULES GOVERNING TESTING, LICENCES, AND CERTIFICATES

1.9. SI UNIT OF MEASUREMENT………………………………………………………….………………1-100

PART 1 IMPLEMENTING STANDARDS …………………………………………………………………..1-102

PART 1—GENERAL POLICIES, PROCEDURES AND DEFINITIONS

1.1 RULES OF CONSTRUCTION