Workbk 10

TOPIC – CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS (LEVEL 1)
WORKSHEET NO – 01 DATE: ______
1. A student has dropped metal pieces into a colourless liquid kept in

a conical flask. He immediately notices bubble formation around
the metal and the flask becoming warm to touch. Based on the
given information, choose the correct option to label A, B, C and
the name of the process occurring in the conical flask.
a) A-Sulphuric acid, B-Calcium Chloride, C- Neutralisation,
Chloride gas
b) A-Water, B- Zinc, C- Oxygen gas, D- Displacement
Reaction
c) A- Zinc, B- Hydrochloric acid, C- Hydrogen gas,
Displacement Reaction
d) A- iodine, B – Hydrochloric acid, C- Hydrogen, neutralisation reaction
2. In single displacement reaction between Zinc and aqueous copper nitrate. Red coloured copper
collects at the bottom whereas the blue coloured solution turns colourless. While performing the
activity if Zinc is not available, which of the following can be used in place of Zinc to produce the
same result.
a) Aluminium b) Silver
c) Iron d) Bromine
3. Which among the following statement(s) is (are) true?
Exposure of silver chloride to sunlight for a long duration turns grey due to:
(i) The formation of silver by decomposition of silver chloride
(ii) Sublimation of silver chloride
(iii) Decomposition of chlorine gas from silver chloride
(iv) Oxidation of silver chloride
4. One of the following does not happen during a chemical reaction. This is:
a) Breaking of old chemical bonds and formation of new chemical bonds.
b) Formation of new substances with entirely different properties.
c) Atoms of one element change into those of another element to form new products.
d) A rearrangement of atoms takes place to form new products
5. Chemically rust is
a) Hydrated ferrous oxide b) Hydrated ferric oxide
c) Only ferric oxide d) None of these
6. Which of the following gases can be used for storage of a fresh sample of an oil for a long time?
a) Carbon dioxide or oxygen c) Nitrogen or oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide or helium d) Helium or nitrogen
7. Match the column I with column II with the type of reaction and mark the appropriate choice.
a)
b)
c)
d)
d)
8. The abbreviation used for a substance dissolved in water is:
a) au b) as c) aq d) ao
9. The following reaction is used for the preparation of oxygen gas in the laboratory.
Which of the following statement is correct about the reaction?

a) It is a decomposition reaction and endothermic in nature
b) It is a combination reaction
c) It is a decomposition reaction and accompanied by release of heat
d) It is a photochemical decomposition reaction and exothermic in nature
10. In the given equation, what does 'X' stand for?
(2) Al + (X)H2SO4 → Al2(SO4)3 + (3)H2
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 5
11. Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct c) A is true but R is
explanation of A. false.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct d) A is false but R is
explanation of A. true.
Assertion: During electrolytic decomposition of water the gas produced at cathode is double that of
at anode.
Reason: Reduction happens at cathode and oxidation happens at anode.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
12. Assertion: An example of endothermic change is dilution of quick lime.
Reason: The dilution of quick lime causes release of energy.
d) A is false but R is true.
13. Assertion: Reaction between lead nitrate and potassium iodide is an example of precipitation
reaction.
Reason: Potassium nitrate is formed as a result of the reaction.
14. Assertion: Formation of glucose in plants is an endothermic reaction
Reason: Photosynthesis takes place in presence of sunlight.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
15. Assertion: Reaction between Aluminium and aqueous copper sulphate is an example of
displacement reaction.
Reason: Colour of Aqueous solution changes to green after reaction.
c) A is true but R is false.
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS
16. Zinc liberates hydrogen gas when reacted with dilute hydrochloric acid, whereas copper does not.
Explain why?
Copper is less reactive and lies below hydrogen in the reactivity series. So it does not displaces
hydrogen from dilute hydrochloric acid. Hence, there won't be any reaction taking place between
copper and dilute hydrochloric acid.
17. Identify the type of each of the following reactions. Also write balanced chemical equation for each.
i) The reaction mixture becomes warm. – Exothermic reaction
ii) An insoluble substance is formed – Precipitation reaction
iii) A reaction in which a single product is formed from two or more reactants – combination
reaction
iv) External surface of the container in which reaction takes place becomes cold. - endothermic
reaction
18. Hydrogen being a highly inflammable gas and oxygen being a supporter of combustion, yet water, a
compound made up of hydrogen and oxygen is used to extinguish fire. Why?
During a chemical combination the product formed has totally different chemical properties and
thus it fails to retain its original properties and same is the case of water as it has different
properties from its constituents and thus it extinguishes fire.
19. How will you prepare slaked lime with quick lime? Give the reaction
By adding water to quick lime
The addition of limited quantity of water breaks the lumps of lime. This process is called as
slaking of lime.
CaO+H2O→Ca (OH)2
20. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions.
a) Zinc + Silver nitrate → Zinc nitrate + Silver.
Zn + 2AgNO3 → Zn (NO3)2
b) Aluminium + copper chloride → Aluminium chloride + Copper.
2Al + 3CuCl2 → 2AlCl3
c) Hydrogen + Chlorine. → Hydrogen chloride.
H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl
d) Ammonium nitrate → Nitrogen + Carbon dioxide +water.
NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
21. A metal is treated with dilute sulphuric acid. The gas evolved is collected by the method shown in the
figure. Answer the following:
(a) Name the gas.

Hydrogen gas will evolve.
(b) Name the method of collection of the gas.
The method of collection of the gas shown in the figure is known as "downward displacement of
water".
(c) Is the gas soluble or insoluble in water?
Hydrogen gas is insoluble in water.
(d) Is the gas lighter or heavier than air?
Hydrogen gas is lighter than air.
(e) Write one industrial use of the gas evolved.
About 55% of the hydrogen around the world goes to ammonia production; 25% is used in
refining and about 10% is used to produce methanol.
WORKSHEET NO - 02 DATE: ____________
1. The displacement reaction between iron (III) oxide and a metal X is used for welding the rail
tracks. Here X is:
a) Copper granules b) Magnesium ribbon c) Sodium pellets d) Aluminium dust
2. . In the chemical equation- 2H2S + x O2 --→y H2O + 2SO2, x and y are respectively
a) 2,2 b) 2,3 c) 1,1 d) 3,2
3. Lime stone on being heated to very high temperature will produce the following gas
a) Nitrogen dioxide b) Hydrogen gas
c) Carbon dioxide d) Sulphur dioxide
4. The substance that is reduced and is the reducing agent in the following reaction –
MnO2 + 4HCl -→ MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
a) MnO2 is reduced & HCl is the reducing agent
b) HCl is reduced and MnO2 is the reducing agent
c) H2O is reduced and Cl2 is the reducing agent
d) d. Cl2 is reduced and H2O is the reducing agent
5. P, Q and R three metals that undergo chemical reactions as follows
P2O3 + 2Q --→ Q2O3 + 2P
2P + 3RO --→ P2O3 + 3R
3RSO4 + 2Q--→ Q2(SO4)3 +3 R
Arrange them in increasing order of their reactivity.
a) R, P, Q b) Q, P, R c) P, Q, R d) Q, R, P
6. A dilute ferrous sulphate solution was gradually added to the beaker containing acidified
permanganate solution. The light purple colour of the solution fades and finally disappears.
Which of the following is the correct explanation for the observation?
a) KMnO4 is an oxidising agent, it oxidises FeSO4.
b) FeSO4 acts as an oxidising agent and oxidises KMnO4.
c) The colour disappears due to dilution; no reaction is involved.
d) KMnO4 is an unstable compound and decomposes in presence of FeSO4 to a colourless
compound.
7. In which of the following chemical equation, the abbreviation represents the correct state of the
reactants and products involved at reaction temperature.
a) AgNO3 (aq) + NaCl (aq)-→ AgCl (s) + NaNO3 (s)
b) AgNO3 (s) + NaCl (s) -→ AgCl (aq) + NaNO3 (aq)
c) AgNO3 (s) + NaCl (aq) -→ AgCl (aq) + NaNO3 (s)
d) AgNO3 (aq) + NaCl (aq)-→ AgCl (s) + NaNO3 (aq)
a) (i) only b) (i) and (iii)

c) (ii) and (iii) d) (iv) only
8. PbS reacts with ozone (O3) and forms PbSO4. As per the balanced equation, molecules of
ozone required for every one molecule of PbS is/are
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
9. Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. The balanced equation
which represents the above reaction is
a) Na(s) + 2H20(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + 2H2(g)
b) 2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) +H2(g)
c) 2Na(s) + 2H20(l) → NaOH(aq) + 2H2(g)
d) 2Na(s) + H20(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + 2H2(g)
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct c) A is true but R is
explanation of A. false.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct d) A is false but R is
explanation of A. true.
Assertion: Respiration is an endothermic process
Reason: The glucose combines with oxygen in the cells of our body and provide energy
11. Assertion: Following reaction of iron is a redox reaction.
4Fe+3O2→4Fe3+ + 6O2−
Reason: The metallic iron is oxidised to Fe3+and oxygen is reduced to oxide ion
12. Assertion: In the reaction  Zn(s) + 2H+(aq)  Zn2+(aq) + H2(g), zinc acts as a reducing agent
and H+ acts as an oxidising agent.
Reason: An oxidising agent loses electrons while a reducing agent accepts electrons.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
13. Assertion: In the reaction: MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
HCl is getting oxidized while MnO2 is getting reduced.
Reason: The process in which oxygen is added to a substance is called oxidation. whereas the
process in which oxygen is removed from a substance is called reduction.
14. Assertion: Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen.
Reason: Nitrogen acts as an antioxidant and it prevents them from being oxidized.
15. Assertion: when HCl is added to zinc granules a chemical reaction occurs.
Reason: Evolution of gas and change in colour indicate that the chemical reaction is taking
place.

16. a) Define a balanced chemical equation. Why should an equation be balanced?
A balanced chemical equation is an equation where the number of atoms of each type in the
reaction is the same on both reactants and product sides. The mass, as well as the change, are
equal in a balanced chemical equation.
The law of conservation of mass is the governing law for balancing a chemical equation.
The law states that ‘mass can neither be created nor be destroyed in a chemical reaction’.
Due to this reason, chemical equations must be properly balanced.
b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the following reaction:
(i) Phosphorus burns in presence of chlorine to form phosphorus penta chloride.
P4 + 10Cl2 ----------> 4PCl5
(ii) Burning of natural gas.
CH4 + 2O2 →CO2 + 2H2O + Energy
(iii) The process of respiration
C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
17. Describe an activity to observe what happens when quick lime is added to water taken in a
beaker. State two important observations and name the type of reaction taking place.
i. Take small quantity of quick lime (CaO) in a beaker.
ii. Slowly add water to the quick lime (CaO) taken in the beaker.
iii. Touch the beaker with fingers and make a note of the change in temperature.
Observations:
i. Quick lime reacts vigorously with water producing hissing sound.
ii. Beaker becomes hot.
Inferences:
Quick lime (calcium oxide) reacts with water vigorously to form calcium hydroxide and
releases large amount of heat. It is an example of a combination reaction as well as an
exothermic reaction.
18. 2g of hydrated Ferrous sulphate crystals are heated in a boiling tube.
a) State the colour of ferrous sulphate crystals both before heating and after heating.
Green colour of FeSO4 disappears and reddish-brown solid is formed and a gas is generated
during this process.
b) Name the gases produced during heating.
Ferrous sulphate decomposes into Sulphur dioxide and Sulphur trioxide
c) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction.
2FeSO4(s)+Heat(Δ)⟶Fe2O3(s)+SO2(g)+SO3(g)
19. A substance X, which is an oxide of a group 2 element, is used intensively in the cement
industry. This element is present in bones also. On treatment with water, it forms a solution
which turns red litmus blue. Identify X and also write the chemical reactions involved
Substance X is calcium oxide (CaO), also known as quicklime. It is an important ingredient in
the processing of cement. Calcium oxide reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide
Ca(OH)2 which is a base and therefore, turns red litmus blue.
20. A zinc plate was put into a solution of copper sulphate kept in a glass container. It was found that
blue colour of the solution gets fader and fader with the passing time. After few days when zinc
plate was taken out of the solution, a number of holes were observed on it.
(i) State the reason for changes observed on the zinc plate.
Zinc is more reactive than copper and hence, it displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.
As a result, a number of holes were observed on the zinc plate.
(ii) Write the chemical equation for the reaction involved.

21. chemical reaction, a process in which one or more substances, the reactants, are converted to
one or more different substances, the products. Substances are either chemical
elements or compounds. A chemical reaction rearranges the constituent atoms of the reactants
to create different substances as products. Chemical reactions must be distinguished from
physical changes. Physical changes include changes of state, such as ice melting to water and
water evaporating to vapour. If a physical change occurs, the physical properties of a substance
will change, but its chemical identity will remain the same.
a) State one basic difference between a physical change and a chemical change
In a physical change, no new substance is formed. A chemical change is always accompanied
by one or more new substance(s).
Physical change is easily reversible i.e original substance can be recovered. Chemical changes
are irreversible i.e. original substance cannot be recovered.
b) How do we come to know that a chemical reaction has taken place?
1. Colour Change, 2. Temperature Change, 3. Precipitate Formation, 4. Gas Production, 5.
Light Emission
c) Define different types of chemical reaction and give examples for each.
(i) Combination reactions: The reaction in which two or more than two substance combine together to
form a single compound.
e.g. 2Mg+O2→2MgO
(ii) Decomposition reaction: The reaction in which a compound decomposes to form two or more
substance is called decomposition reaction.
e.g. CaCO3----- Δ - CaO+CO2
(iii) Displacement reaction: The reaction in which more reactive metal displaces the less reactive metal
is called displacement reaction.
e.g. Fe+CuSO4→FeSO4+Cu
(iv) Double displacement reaction: The reaction in which two different atoms or groups of (substance)
atoms exchange for each other is called double displacement reaction.
e.g. Na2SO4(aq)+BaCl2(aq)→BaSO4(s)+2NaCl(aq)
(v) Oxidation reaction: The reaction in which oxygen is added/ hydrogen is removed is called
oxidation reaction
(vi) Reduction reaction: The reaction in which hydrogen is added/ oxygen in removed is called
reduction reaction.
d) Why decomposition reactions are called the opposite of combination reactions? Write
equations for these reactions.
Combination reaction
 It is a type of reaction in which one or more reactants react together to produce new
products.
 The general description of a combination reaction is as follows: -
X+Y→XY
Example of combination reaction
CaO(S) + H2O (l)→Ca(OH)2 (aq)
Decomposition reaction
 A reaction in which a compound breaks into two or simpler
 The general description of a decomposition reaction is as follows: -
 XY→X+Y
Example of decomposition reaction
2 H2O(l) ------ 2H2(g) + O2(g)
e) Consider the below mentioned two chemical equations with two different kinds of arrows
(↑and ↓) along with product. What do these two different arrows indicate?
(i) AgN03 (aq) + NaCl(aq)——————– > AgCl(s)↓ + NaN03(aq)

⬇THE DOWN ARROW
It indicates the forming of precipitate that is a solid product., In the above chemical equation
given, AgCl is the product that forms and settle down.
(ii) FeS + H2S04————- > FeS04 + H2S↑
⬆THE ABOVE ARROW
It indicates a gas that mixes with atmosphere as a product during the reaction.
In the above equation given, H2S is the product that mixes with atmosphere.
WORKSHEET NO - 03 DATE:
1.
1. A reddish-brown vessel developed a green coloured solid X when left open for a long time. When
reacted with dil H2SO4 (sulphuric acid) it forms a blue coloured solution along with brisk
effervescence due to colourless and odourless gas Z. X decomposes to form a black coloured
oxide Y of a reddish-brown metal along with gas Z Identify X, Y and Z.
The vessel of copper has a reddish-brown colour when left in the open air and combines
with carbon dioxide and moisture present in the air to form a green-coloured coating
called copper carbonate which is basic in nature. Hence, X is copper carbonate CuCO3.
When this green-coloured copper carbonate reacts with concentrated sulfuric acid it forms
a blue-coloured solution of copper sulphate (CuSO4) and a colourless and odourless gas
carbon dioxide (CO2) also evolved.
CuCO3+H2SO4⟶CuSO4+CO2+H2O
When copper carbonate undergoes decomposition, it forms a black-coloured oxide

known as copper oxide which further decomposes to give carbon dioxide.
CuCO3⟶CuO+CO2
Hence, Y is copper oxide and Z is carbon dioxide gas. The chemical equation for the
reaction is following:
2Cu+2H2O⟶2CuO+2H2
2. Giving an example list two information which make a chemical equation more useful (informative).
Chemical equations can be made more informative by the following characteristics:
Physical state
There are three different states which are solid, liquid and gaseous.
If the substance exists in solid state, it is represented by (s).
If the substance exists in aqueous state, it is represented by (aq).
If the substance exists in gaseous state, it is represented by (g).
For example:
CaCO3(s) ------- CaO(s) + CO2(g)
Evolution of gas
If the gas is liberated in a reaction, it is indicated by an arrow upward and its physical state is
shown by (g).
For example:
Zn(s)+H2SO4(aq)→ZnSO4(aq)+H2(g)↑
3. Consider the following reaction
X + Barium chloride gives us Y + sodium chloride.
a) Identify X and Y
When a reactant X reacts with “Barium chloride” to give a product Y and sodium chloride
a double displacement or precipitation reaction takes place. In order to form sodium
chloride, sodium compound should be a reactant. So, the reactant X is sodium sulphate
and product Y is barium sulphate.
b) Name the type of reaction. - double displacement or precipitation reaction

c) Write the balanced chemical equation.
BaCl2 + Na2SO4  2NaCl(aq) + BaSO4(s)
4. a) Describe an activity to demonstrate decomposition reaction of lead nitrate.
Activity to demonstrate the decomposition reaction of lead nitrate Pb (NO3)2
A small amount of lead nitrate is taken in a dry test tube and heated over the flame (first
gently, then strongly). The colour of the gas evolved is observed which is reddish brown,
and then a moist blue litmus paper is brought near it which turns red, thus confirming the
acidic nature of the gas.
Also, a glowing splint is brought near the mouth of the test tube which is rekindled by the
gas evolved, hence oxygen gas is produced. At the bottom of the test tube remains a
yellow solid residue, which is lead oxide.
b) Draw a labelled diagram of experimental set up and list two main observations.
Two main observations:
1. The emission of brown fumes of NO2 after thermal decomposition of Pb (NO3)2

2. The colourless compound Pb(NO3)2 forms a yellow compound PbO and brown fumes
of NO2 gas.
c) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction stating the physical states of
reactants and products.
2Pb(NO3)2(s) ----------> 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g)+ O2(g)
5. a) Define rancidity
The oxidation of oils and fats results in an unpleasant odour or flavour is called rancidity.
It is a kind of incomplete oxidation of fats and oils.
b) Explain two ways by which food industries prevent rancidity

 Adding antioxidants to foods containing fats and oils.
 Refrigeration of left food items.
 Use airtight containers.
 By storing food away from light.
c) Discuss the importance of decomposition reaction in metal industries with three

points
 Importance of decomposition reaction in metal industries are :-
 (i) Molten NaCl is electrolytically decomposed to form sodium metal.
 (ii) Aluminium metal is obtained by electric decomposition of bauxite ore mixed with
cryolite.
 (iii) Carbonate ores are thermally decomposed to give metal oxide which on reduction
give metal.
TOPIC: ACID, BASE AND SALT (LEVEL 1)
WORKSHEET NO: 4 DATE:

____________
1. Which one of the following salts does not contain water of crystallisation?
a) Blue vitriol
b) Baking soda
c) Washing soda
d) Gypsum
2. Sodium carbonate is a basic salt because it is a salt of a
a) strong acid and strong base
b) weak acid and weak base
c) strong acid and weak base
d) weak acid and strong base
3. Which of the following statements are correct about an aqueous solution of an acid and of a
base?
(i) Higher the pH, stronger the acid
(ii) Higher the pH, weaker the acid
(iii) Lower the pH, stronger the base
(iv) Lower the pH, weaker the base
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
4. Na2CO3 . 10H2O is
a) washing soda
b) baking soda
c) bleaching powder
d) tartaric acid
5. A glass rod dipped in ammonia when brought closer to the mouth of the test tube containing
hydrochloric acid, it forms dense white fumes of ammonium chloride . It is a
a) combination reaction , acidic salt is formed
b) combination reaction , basic salt is formed
c) combination reaction , neutral salt is formed
d) neutralization reaction, acidic salt is formed.
6. Which of the following is true about dilution of an acid
a) The strength of the acid does not change on dilution
b) The concentration of hydronium ions increases per unit volume
c) Water is added to the acid by stirring continuously
d) The concentration of hydroxide ions increases per unit volume
7. Match column I with column II with the type of reaction and mark the appropriate choice.
a) A-ii) B i) C iv D - iii)
b) A -iii) B ii) C iv D - i)
c) A - iii) B iv) C -i) D - ii)
d) A - ii) B - iv) C -i) D - iii)
8. The abbreviation used for a substance dissolved in water is:
a) au b) as c) aq d) ao
9. The following reaction is used for the preparation of oxygen gas in the laboratory.
Which of the following statement is correct about the reaction?
a) It is a decomposition reaction and endothermic in nature

b) It is a combination reaction
c) It is a decomposition reaction and accompanied by release of heat
d) It is a photochemical decomposition reaction and exothermic in nature
10. What happens when a solution of acid is mixed with a solution of a base in a test tube?
1) the temperature of the solution increases.
2) the temperature of the solution decreases.
3) The temperature of the solution remains the same.
4) Salt formation takes place
a) 1) only
b) 1) and 3)
c) 2 ) and 3)
d) 1 ) and 4)
11. Q. no 11 to 15 are Assertion - Reasoning based questions. These consist of two statements –
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given
below:
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is False but R is true
Assertion: When an acid reacts with a metal carbonate or metal hydrogen-carbonate,
it gives the corresponding salt, carbon dioxide gas and water.
Reason: Acidic and basic solutions in water conduct electricity because they produce
hydrogen and hydroxide ions respectively.
Ans: B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
12. Assertion: To dilute concentrated sulphuric acid water is added to the acid slowly.
Reason: A lot of heat energy will be given out in the dilution of concentrated
sulphuric acid.
Ans: D) A is false but R is true.
13. Assertion: Sodium hydroxide reacts with zinc to produce hydrogen gas.
Reason: Acids (except HNO3) reacts with active metals to produce hydrogen gas.
Ans. B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
14. Assertion: Pale green coloured ferrous sulphate crystals turn white on heating.
Reason: The compound is undergoing thermal decomposition reaction.
15. Assertion: The strength of acids and bases depends on the no. of H+ ions and OHions produced,
respectively. If we take hydrochloric acid and acetic acid of the same concentration, then these
produce different amounts of hydrogen ions.
Reason: Acids that give rise to more H+ ions are said to be strong acids and acids that give less
H+ ions are said to be weak acids.
Ans: A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
16. What is an acid?
An acid is a hydrogen-containing chemical compound which, when dissolved in water, gives
hydrogen ion (H+) or hydrated hydrogen ion (H2O. H+) or hydronium ion (H3O+).
17. Define pH.
pH of a given solution is the negative logarithm to the base 10 of the hydrogen ion concentration,
[H+] expressed in g ions/lit or moles/lit. Thus
pH=- log1- [H+].
18. What is an universal indicator?
Universal indicator is a solution, which undergoes several colour, changes over a wide range of
pH. The colour is used to ‘indicate’ pH directly. Universal indicators are usually mixtures of
several indicators
19. How will you test for the gas which is liberated when hydrochloric acid reacts with an active
metal?
Hydrogen gas is produced when an active metal reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid, when a
burning candle is brought near to hydrogen gas, a pop sound is heard due to the combustion of
hydrogen gas to form water.
20. Name one natural source of each of the following acids:
(a) Citric acid
(b) Oxalic acid
(c) Lactic acid
(d) Tartaric acid
One natural source of each of the following acids are:
(a) Citric acid - Lemon
(b) Oxalic acid - Tomatoes
(c) Lactic acid - Sour milk or curd
(d) Tartaric acid - Tamarind
20 Salt - A commonly used in bakery products on heating gets converted into another salt B which
itself is used for removal of hardness of water and a gas C is evolved. The gas C when passed
through lime water, turns it milky. Identify A, B and C.
Baking soda which is a salt is used as bakery products which give sodium carbonate and carbon
dioxide gas on heating. Sodium carbonate is used to remove the hardness of water. Carbon
dioxide turns lime water milky.
NaHCO3 (Sodium bicarbonate) → Na2CO3 (Sodium carbonate) + CO2 (carbon dioxide) + H2O
Therefore,
• Salt A, which is sodium bicarbonate and used as baking soda.
• Salt B is sodium carbonate, which is used to remove the hardness of water.
C is carbon dioxide gas which turns lime water milky.
21 A sulphate salt of Group 2 element of the Periodic Table is a white, soft substance, which can be
moulded into different shapes by making its dough. When this compound is left in open for some
time, it becomes a solid mass and cannot be used for moulding purposes. Identify the sulphate salt
and why does it show such behaviour? Give the reaction involved.
1. Calcium is a group 2 element and its sulfate is known as Calcium sulfate or commonly
known as plaster of Paris with the chemical formulaCaSO4.12H2O.
2. Plaster of Paris can be molded into any shape after making its dough.
3. When it is exposed to the air for a while and absorbs moisture from it, due to the presence
of a half-water molecule acting as the water of crystallization in plaster of Paris it becomes
hard material known as gypsum.
4. Gypsum further cannot be molded into any shape.
5. The reaction involved is CaSO4.12H2O(s)Plaster Of
Paris+112H2O(l)→CaSO4.2H2OGypsum(s)
Therefore, the sulfate salt formed is Calcium sulfate
22 Crystals of a substance changed their colour on heating in a closed test tube but regained it after
some time when they were allowed to cool down. Name the substance and write its formula
.Explain the phenomenon.
The Substance Is Hydrated Salt. Like copper sulphate pentahydrate (CuSO4.5H2O). The hydrated
form of this compound is blue in color but the anhydrous form is grey-white.
● PHENOMENON :- the crystals of hydrated salts are heated, they lose their water of
crystallisation which is responsible for its color. When it is left to cool down, it absorbs moisture
from air and again gains its water of crystallisation and thus, also its color.
23 You are provided with the following chemicals:
Ammonium hydroxide, chlorine, copper oxide, iron, lead nitrate and dilute
sulphuric acid; using only chemicals of the given list, write equation for the
following salt preparations:
a) A salt by direct combination
b) A soluble salt by neutralization of an alkali.
c) A soluble salt from an insoluble base
d) A salt by double decomposition (precipitation)
e) A soluble salt from a metal

21. A metal is treated with dilute sulphuric acid. The gas evolved is collected by the method
shown in the figure. Answer the following:
(a) Name the gas.

(b) Name the method of collection of the gas.
(c) Is the gas soluble or insoluble in water?
(d) Is the gas lighter or heavier than air?
(e) Write one industrial use of the gas evolved.
Answer
When a metal(M) is treated with dilute sulphuric acid, metal will displace hydrogen and form
metal sulphate, along with colourless and odourless hydrogen gas. Hydrogen gas produced in the
reaction will evolve with bubbles.
M+H2SO4→MSO4+H2
(a) Hydrogen gas will evolve.
(b) The method of collection of the gas shown in the figure is known as "downward displacement
of water".
(c) Hydrogen gas is insoluble in water.
(d) Hydrogen gas is lighter than air.

____________
Multiple-choice question.
1. The image shows the pH values of four solutions on a pH scale.
Which solutions are alkaline in nature?

a) A and B b) B and C
c) C and D d) A and D
2. What is the pH range of our body?

a) 7.0 – 7.8
b) 7.2 – 8.0
c) 7.0 – 8.4
d) 7.2 – 8.4
3. An aqueous solution ‘A’ turns phenolphthalein solution pink. On addition of an
aqueous solution ‘B’ to ‘A’, the pink colour disappears. The following statement is
true for solution ‘A’ and ‘B’,
a) A is strongly basic and B is a weak base.
b) A is strongly acidic and B is a weak acid.
c) A has pH greater than 7 and B has pH less than7.
d) A has pH less than 7 and B has pH greater than7.
4. A yellow stain of curry on a white cloth turns reddish-brown when soap is scrubbed
on it. It happens:
a) Due to the presence of red chilli in the curry
b) Due to the presence of turmeric in the curry
c) Due to the presence of impurities in the water
d)Due to the bonding of particles
5. Sodium hydrogen carbonate when added to acetic acid
evolves a gas. Which of the following statements are true
about the gas evolved?
(i) It turns lime water milky.
(ii) It extinguishes a burning splinter.
(iii) It dissolves in a solution of sodium hydroxide.
(iv) It has a pungent odour.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
6. If a few drops of a concentrated acid accidentally spill over the hand of a student,
what should be done?
a) Wash the hand with saline solution
b) Wash the hand immediately with plenty of water and apply a paste of sodium
hydrogen carbonate
c) After washing with plenty of water apply solution of sodium
hydroxide on the hand
d) Neutralise the acid with a strong alkali

7. The diagram given below represents
a.Solvay ammonia process
b. Chlor alkali process

c. Preparation of baking soda
d. Preparation of washing soda.

8. What happens when the solution of an acid is mixed with the solution of a base in a test tube?
(I) The temperature of the solution increases
(II) The temperature of the solution decreases
(III) The temperature of the solution remains the same
(IV) Salt formation takes place
(a) Only (I)
(b) (I) and (III)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (I) and (IV)

9. Observe the given diagram and label X, Y and Z
a. Sulphur, NaOH, Hydrogen gas
b. Zn granules, Dilute sulphuric acid, hydrogen gas
c. Zn granules, Dilute sulphuric acid, CO2 gas
d. Sulphur, Dilute sulphuric acid, Hydrogen gas
10. NaCl + X + NH3 → Y + NH4Cl
X and Y respectively are
a. Chlorine gas and sodium bi carbonate
b. Chlorine gas and sodium carbonate

c. Carbon di oxide and sodium bi carbonate
d. Carbon di oxide and sodium carbonate
11. Assertion: Sodium hydroxide is a strong base.

Reason: It undergoes complete dissociation in water.
a
12. Assertion: Dry HCl gas converts blue litmus paper to red.
Reason: Acids show their behaviour only in presence of water.
d
13. Assertion: Aluminium is an amphoteric metal.
Reason: Aluminium reacts with acid to give salt and hydrogen gas.
b
14. Assertion: Formula of plaster of Paris is CaSO4.1/2H2O
Reason: One formula unit of plaster of Paris contains half molecule of water.
a
15. Assertion: Tooth decay starts at acidic pH.
Reason: Toothpaste are made basic in nature.
a
16. A compound X is bitter in taste. It is a component of washing powder and

reacts with dil. HCl to produce brisk effervescence due to clourless, odourless
gas ‘Y’ which turns lime water milky due to formation of ‘Z’. When excess of
CO2 is passed , milkiness disappears due to formation of ‘P’. Identify X,Y,Z
and P.
Na2CO3(s) + ZHCl(aq)→ 2NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)
Na2CO3(s)-(X)
2NaCl(aq) - (Y)
Ca(OH)2(aq) + CO2(g)→ CaCO3(s) + H2O(l)
Ca(OH)2(aq)-(Lime water)
CaCO3(s) + H2O(l)-(White precipitate) (Z)
CaCO3(s) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)→ Ca(HCO3)2(aq)
Ca(HCO3)2(aq)-(Soluble in water) (P)
X→ Na2CO3(s)
Y→ NaCl(aq)
Z→ CaCO3(s)
P→ Ca(HCO3)2(aq)
17. Complete and balance the following chemical equations-
a) NaOH(aq) + Zn(s)
b) CaCO3 (s) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)

c) HCl(aq) + H2O(l)
Ans: a)NaOH(aq) + Zn(s)------------- Na2ZnO2 (sodium zincate) + H2 (g)
b) CaCO3 (s) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)-------------------- Ca(HCO3)2 (aq)
c) HCl(aq) + H2O(l)-------------- H3O+(aq)+ Cl-(aq)
18. During electrolysis of brine, a gas ‘G’ is liberated at anode. When this gas ‘G’ is passed
through slaked lime, a compound ‘C’ is formed, which is used for disinfecting drinking
water.
a) Write formula of ‘G’ and ‘C’.
b) State the chemical equation involved.
c) What is common name of compound ‘C’? Give its chemical name.
Ans:( a)The formula of 'G' is Cl2 and the formula of 'C' is CaOCl2.
(b) The chemical equations involved are:
Electrolysis of brine: 2 NaCl + 2 H2O → 2 NaOH + Cl2 + H2
When G passes through slaked lime: Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O
(c) The common name of compound C is Bleaching powder.
Its chemical name is Calcium Oxychloride.
19. Why does 1 M HC1 solution have a higher concentration of H+ions than 1 M CH3COOH
solution?
HCl is a stronger acid than CH3COOH. When added to water, HCl dissociates almost completely
to give H+ ions. In contrast, in the case of CH3COOH, only partial ionisation occurs. This is why
1 M HCl solution has a higher concentration of H+ ions than 1 M CH3COOH solution.
20. An ore of Zinc on treatment with dilute hydrochloric acid produces brisk effervescence to form a
substance A and a colourless gas B.
i) Name the substances A and B.
ii) Give the balanced chemical equation and what type of reaction is it?
A - Zinc Carbonate
B - Carbon dioxide
ZnCO3(s)→ZnO(s)+CO2(g)
Dry pellets of base ‘X’ when kept in open absorb moisture and turn sticky. The compound is also
formed by the chlor-alkali process. Write chemical name and formula of X. Describe chlor-alkali
process with a balanced chemical equation. Name the type of reaction that occurs when X is
treated with dilute hydrochloric acid. Write the chemical equation. While diluting an acid, why is
it recommended that the acid should be added to water and not water to the acid ?
Answer:
The base ‘X’ is NaOH. It is of deliquescent nature and absorbs moisture from air and becomes
wet. It is manufactured by the chlor-alkali process. The reaction of NaOH with dilute HCl is
known as neutralisation reaction.Pure HCl is highly concentrated. In case, it is to be diluted, the
acid should be added drop-by-drop to water taken in a glass beaker with constant stirring.
Actually, the acid has a strong affinity for water and the process of dissolution is highly
exothermic. If water is added to acid so much heat is evolved that the glass beaker is likely to
crack and the acid will spill
A compound ‘X’ of sodium is used as an antacid and it decomposes on strong heating.

a) Name the compound ‘X’ and give its chemical formula.
b) Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the decomposition of ‘X’.
c) Give one use of compound ‘X’ besides an antacid.
Ans: a) The compound X is baking soda and it’s chemical formula is NaHCO3.
(b) 2NaHCO3 ---------- heat--→ Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
(c) It is used as antacids to remove acidity of the stomach. Being alkaline it neutralises excess
acid in the stomach and provide relief. / It is also used in soda-acid fire extinguishers.
You are provided with 90mL of distilled water and 10 mL of concentrated sulphuric
acid to prepare dilute sulphuric acid.’
a) What is the correct way of preparing dilute sulphuric acid? Give a reason.
b) How will concentration of H3O+ ions change on dilution?
Ans: a) The 10ml concentrated H2SO4(Sulphuric acid) should be added drop wise to 90ml of
water not the other way around.
b) The conc. of H3 0+ ions decreases on dilution.
Explanation:
1) The H2SO4 reacts aggressively with H2O and is highly exothermic. If one drop of water
falls into the acid solution then the solution will splash and can burn your skin.
Therefore, acid should be added to water in a drop wise manner.
2) The H30+ ions are just H+ ions. The Concentration = Mole/Volume. Here the no. of mole of
H+ doesn't the change rather you have added water and the Volume has increased. Therefore
conc. of H30+/H+ions decrease.
Write the name of white powder generally added to gram flour to make soft and crisp
pakoras. List two ingredients of this powder and write function of each. Also give the
equation for the chemical reaction that takes place when this powder is heated.
Ans: Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda or sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3) with a
solid, edible acid such as tartaric acid (or citric acid).
Baking powder : NaHCO3 + H+
On acid base reaction, baking soda releases CO2 as follows:
NaHCO3 + H+ → Na+ + CO2 + H2O
21. CASE STUDY

The acidic or basic nature of a liquid is important in determining the uses of the liquid. The
enzymes
in stomach liquids, which are acidic, aid in digestion. The strong acidic or basic nature of toilet
bowl
cleaners promotes effective cleaning. The acidity of automobile battery fluids makes the
production
of electrical energy possible. Sometimes there is too much of one or the other and problems arise
as
a result. For example, if our stomachs are too acidic we get a stomach ache. Whether a liquid is
acidic, basic, or neutral is measured by a quantity called pH. pH is an important quantity that
reflects
the chemical conditions of a solution. The pH can control the availability of nutrients, biological
functions, microbial activity, and the behaviour of chemicals.
Given below are the pH values of some common substances:
S.NO. Substance pH values
1. Battery acid 1.0
2. Vinegar 2.2
3. Pickles 3.5 to 3.9
4. Tomatoes 4.5
5. Black Coffee 5.0
6. Cheddar Cheese 5.9
7. Milk 6.6
8. Human Blood 7.4
9. Baking Soda 8.3
10. Milk of magnesia 10.5
11. QuickLime 12.4
(A) The pH value of a neutral solution is:
a) Less than 7
b) Equal to 7
c) Greater than 7
d) Between 0 to 14
(B) The increase in pH value from 7 to 14 indicates:
a) Increase in concentration of OH ions
b) Increase in concentration of H+ ions
c) Decrease in concentration of OH ions
d) No change in concentration of OHions
(C) Select the incorrect statement: When hydrochloric acid or acetic acid of same concentration
are
taken,
I. pH of hydrochloric acid = pH of acetic acid
II. pH of hydrochloric acid > pH of acetic acid
III. pH of hydrochloric acid < pH of acetic acid
IV. pH is not related to concentration of acid
a) only III
b) Both I and IV
c) Both II and IV
d) I, II and IV
(D) The table below shows the following in increasing order of their pH values – Saliva (before
meal),
Lemon juice, Milk of magnesia, Tap water.
Select the row which has the substances arranged in correct order:
a) Saliva (before meal) < Lemon juice < Milk of magnesia < Tap water
b) Lemon juice < Saliva (before meal) < Tap water < Milk of magnesia
c) Saliva (before meal) < Tap water < Lemon juice < Milk of magnesia
d) Lemon juice < Tap water < Saliva (before meal) < Milk of magnesia
(E) Out of battery acid, tomatoes, human blood and quicklime, the substance having least
concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) is:
a) Battery acid
b) Tomatoes
c) Human blood
d) Quicklime

____________
Answer the following questions

1. Blue litmus solution is added to two test tubes A and B solution containing dilute HCl and NaOH
solution respectively. In which test tube a colour change will be observed. State the colour
change and give its reason.
Ans: Acid changes blue litmus red while base changes red litmus blue.Since blue litmus
solution is added in both test tube, so the colour change is observed intest tube in which acid is
present and colour changes from blue to red.
Test tube A: Acid present (Colour change from blue to red)
Test tube B: Base present (Colour doesn’t change, blue remains blue)
2. What is observed when 2mL of dilute hydrochloric is added to 1g of sodium carbonate taken in a
clean and dry test tube? Write chemical equation for the reaction involved.
When 2 ml of dilute HCL is added to sodium carbonate ,salt of sodium and carbon dioxide will
form
HCl (aq)+ Na2CO3(s)--------->2NaCl(aq) + CO2 (g)+H2O(l)
3. How would you distinguish between baking soda and washing soda by heating?
Ans: On heating NaHCO3 (baking soda), CO2 (carbon dioxide) gas is given out that turns
limewater milky. While on heating Na2CO3.10H2O (washing soda) only water of crystallization
is given out and the salt becomes anhydrous, it will not produce any such gas.
4. C2H5O- is the incomplete formula to which an atom of hydrogen can be

(i) Added to obtain compound ‘A’.
(ii) Removed to obtain compound ‘B’
a) Write the structural formula for the compound ‘A’ and ‘B’
b) Write the IUPAC names for the compound ‘A’ and ‘B’
c) Identify the functional groups of compound ‘A’ and ‘B’
d) With conditions write the equation for the oxidation of compound ‘A’ in the presence of an
oxidizing agent.
e) Give two uses of compound ‘A’.
ii)A is ethanol and B is ethanal

iii) A is alcohol and B is aldehyde
iv)
v) (i) antifreeze agent (ii) used in cough syrups (any relevent use can be written)
5. a) For the preparation of cakes, baking powder is used. If at home your mother uses baking soda
instead of baking powder, how will it affect the taste of the cake and why?
b) How will you convert baking soda into baking powder?
c) What makes the cake soft and spongy?
Ans: (a) The cake will have a bitter taste because of the formation of Na2CO3/ sodium
carbonate while baking/heating.
(b) By adding tartaric acid.
(c) The liberated CO2 gas.
6. Identify the compound of calcium, which can be used for plastering of fractured bones. With the
help of chemical equation, show how is it prepared and what special precautions should be taken
during the preparation of this compound.
Ans: Plaster of paris CaSO4.1/2H2O
Calcium sulphate Hemihydrate
Preparation: At 373K
Precaution:
Gypsum shouldn’t be heated above 373 K otherwise it will form anhydrous CaSO4(dead
burnt plaster).
7. X and Y are the second members of homologous series of alcohol and carboxylic acid
respectively.
a ) Draw the structural formula of ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
b) ‘X’ and ‘Y’ react in the presence of conc. sulphuric acid to form a pleasant smelling
compound.
(i) Write the balanced chemical equation for it.
(ii) What is the role of concentrated sulphuric acid in the above reaction ?
(iii)Write the IUPAC name of the compound formed.
c) What important precaution must be taken while carrying out the above experiment? Why?
d) Write one use of ‘Y’ .
TOPIC: METALS AND NONMETALS (LEVEL 1)

____________
1. Which of the following is not a property of non-metals?

a) They are neither malleable nor ductile
b) They are brittle
c) They are sonorous
d) They are poor conductor of heat and electricity (except graphite)
2. Aluminium does not oxidise readily in air because-

a) it is high in the electrochemical series
b) it is low in the electrochemical series
c) the metal does not combine with oxygen
d) the metal is covered with a layer of oxide which does not rub off
3. When a metal is added to dilute HCl solution, there is no evolution of gas. Metal is-
a) K b) Na c) Ag d) Zn
4. The only metal that is liquid at room temperature is-

a) Mercury b) Sodium c) Zinc d) Tungsten
5. What is anode mud?

a) Fan of anode
b) Metal of anode
c) Impurities collected at anode in electrolysis during purification of metals
d) Impurities of cathode
6. Aqua regia, also known as ‘royal water,’ is a freshly prepared mixture of

a) Dil.HCl : Conc. HNO3 :: 3 : 1 b) Conc. HCl : Dil. HNO3 :: 3 :
1
c) Conc. HCl : Conc. HNO3 :: 3 : 1 d) Dil.HCl : Dil. HNO3 :: 3 : 1
7. During the anodising process, which metal article is used as an anode?
a) Lead b) Zinc c) Aluminium d) Copper
8. The metals of low reactivity are extracted from their ores through
a) Heating b) Calcination c) Electrolysis d) Galvanization
9. The reducing agent used in the reduction of metal oxides is

a) Carbon b) Copper c) Lead d) Sodium
10. Which of the following metals cannot displace copper from the aqueous solution of
copper sulphate
a) Zn b) Fe c) Au d) Mg
11. Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct c) A is true

explanation of A. but R is false.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct d) A is false
explanation of A. but R is true.
Assertion- Sodium and potassium are stored in kerosene.

Reason- Sodium does not react with organic solvents like kerosene.
12. Assertion- Metals are sonorous.
Reason- They are brittle and can be broken down into pieces when hammered.
13. Assertion- Zinc oxide is an amorphous oxide.
Reason- It reacts with an acid as well as a base to give salt and water.
14. Assertion - Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with nitric acid.
Reason - Nitric acid is a strong oxidising agent.

15. Assertion- Gold occurs in native states.
Reason- Gold is a reactive metal.

16. List three differences between metals and nonmetals.
METALS NONMETALS
Metals generally possess the Non-metals do not possess the

property of hardness property of hardness.
They are ductile and malleable. They are non-ductile and

malleable.
Metals are good conductors of Non-metals are bad conductors of

heat and electricity. heat and electricity except
graphite.
17. Why do ionic compounds possess high melting and boiling points?
The electrostatic forces of attraction between oppositely charged ions are strong,
their melting and boiling points are high.
18. Compound X and aluminium is used to join the railway tracks.
(i) Identify the compound X

(ii) Name the reaction and write the equation for it.
i) Compound X is iron oxide- Fe2O3
ii) It is thermite reaction, Fe₂O₃ (s) + Al (s) →Al₂O₃ + 2 Fe(l) + Heat
19. What is a cinnabar? Explain briefly how metals are extracted from cinnabar.
Cinnabar HgS is an ore of Mercury. The metals being less reactive can be obtained
by reducing their oxides to metals by heating alone. So when Cinnabar is heated in
air it first changes into its oxide and then into mercury metal.
20. Give reasons for the following:

(a) Platinum, gold, and silver are used to make jewellery.
Platinum, gold, and silver are used to make jewellery because they are very
lustrous. Also, they do not react
with air or oxygen and do not corrode easily.
(b) Sodium, potassium, and lithium are stored under oil.

Sodium, potassium, and lithium are very reactive metals and react vigorously
with air as well as water.
Therefore, they are kept immersed in kerosene oil in order to prevent their
contact with air and moisture.
(c) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process
of extraction.
Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process
of extraction because
metals can be easily extracted by the reduction of their oxides rather than from
their carbonates and sulphides.
(d) Zinc metal decolorizes the blue copper sulphate solution.

On adding zinc to copper sulphate solution, zinc displaces copper from copper
sulphate and forms zincsulphate
solution. It will undergo a displacement reaction.
21. Explain briefly the process of electrolytic refining.

Electrolytic refining is the method of using electricity to refine impure metals. In
this process, the anode is made of impure metal, and the cathode is made of a strip
of pure metal. A solution is made with a soluble salt of the same substance as the
electrolyte. When an electric current is transmitted, metal ions from the electrolyte
are deposited as a pure metal in the cathode, and the impure metal from the anode
dissolves in the form of ions into the electrolyte. Below the anode, the impurities
metals are collected. It is called mud anode. In the electrolytic refining of copper,
the electrolyte is a solution of acidified copper sulphate. The anode is impure
copper, whereas the cathode is a strip of pure copper on passing electric current,
pure copper is deposited on the cathode.
22. Write the constituent metals of the following alloys

(i) Brass- Copper and zinc
(ii) Bronze- Copper and tin
(iii) Solder – Lead and tin
23. (a) Write the electron dot structures for potassium and chlorine.
(b) Show the formation of KCl by the transfer of electrons.
(c) Name the ions present in the compound KCl.

K + and Cl-
CASE STUDY
24. The arrangement of metals in a vertical column in the decreasing order of their
relativities is called the reactivity series or activity series of metals. The most
reactive metal is at the top position of the reactivity series. The least reactive metal
is at the bottom of the reactivity series.
Hydrogen, though a non-metal, has been included in the activity series of metals
only for comparison. Apart from it, the hydrogen atom also has a tendency to lose
its valence electron and form cation which behaves like metal.
H→H+ + e−
i) Which metal can be displaced by copper from its salt solution?
(a) Zinc (b) Silver (c) Iron (d) Lead
(ii) An element 'X' after reacting with acids liberates hydrogen gas and can displace lead and
mercury from them
salt solutions. The metal 'X’ is
(a) Copper (b) Gold (c) Calcium (d) Hydrogen.
(iii) The most reactive metal is

(a) Potassium (b) Barium (c) Zinc (d) Calcium
(iv) The metal which does not liberate hydrogen gas after reacting with acid is
(a) Zinc (b) Lead (c) Iron (d) Gold
(v) Which of the following metals does not react with water at all?
(I) Sodium (II) Copper (III) Aluminium (IV) Lead
(a) III and IV only (b) IV only (c) II and IV only (d) I, II, III and IV

____________
1. Non-metals form covalent chlorides because
a) they are capable of donating electrons to chlorine
b) they are capable of sharing electrons with chlorine
c) they are capable of donating electrons to chlorine atoms to form chloride ions
d) they are incapable of sharing electron with chlorine atoms
2. Ionic compounds are soluble in

a) Kerosene b) Petrol c) Alcohol d) Water
3. Which of the following metals would form a stable octet after losing an electron from its
M shell?
a) Ca b) K c) Na d) Al
4. A cable manufacturing unit tested few elements on the basis of their physical properties
PROPERTIES W X Y Z
Malleable Yes No No Yes
Ductile Yes No No Yes
Electrical conductivity Yes Yes Yes No
Melting point High Low High Hig
h
Which of the above elements were discarded for usage by the company?
a) W,X,Y b) X, Y, Z c) W, X, Z d) W, Y, Z
5. Which of the following only contain non-metals?

a) Carbohydrates b) Proteins (c) Alloys (d) Both (a) and (b)
6. A metal M has electronic configuration 2, 8, 3 and occurs in earth’s crust and its oxide
M2O3 . It is more reactive than zinc.
Which of the following options (s) is/are correct?
(a) The metal M is iron
(b) The metal M is lead
(c) The ore from which metal M is extracted in haematite.
(d) The ore from which metal M is extracted is bauxite.
7. In each test tube A, B, C and D, 2mL of solution of Al2(SO4)3 in water was filled. Clean
pieces of zinc were placed in test tube A, clean iron nail was put in test tube B , silver
(Ag) was placed in test tube C and a clean copper wire was placed in test tube D.
Which of the following option (s) is/are correct about the above experiment?
(a) Zinc is more reactive than aluminium.
(b) Copper is more reactive than aluminium.
(c) Zinc is more reactive than copper.
(d) Zinc, iron, silver and copper are less reactive than aluminium.
8. Siona found a sulphide ore of copper. How can she extract copper from the ore?
(a) Heating the ore in the presence of oxygen.
(b) Heating the ore in the absence of oxygen.
(c) Heating the ore with carbon.
(d) Carrying electrolysis.
9. Which of the following oxides is alkaline in nature?

(a) SO2 (b) CO2 (c) K2O (d) Cl2O
10. P and Q are two metals. Identify P and Q.

Metals Reacts with Results
P HCl Releases hydrogen
P NaOH Releases hydrogen
Q HCl Releases hydrogen
Q NaOH No release of hydrogen
(a) P- Magnesium, Q- Aluminium

(b) P- Zinc , Q- Aluminium
(c) P- Magnesium, Q- Potassium
(d) P- Zinc, Q- Magnesium
11. Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. c) A is true but R is
false.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of d) A is false but R is
A. true.
Assertion- Magnesium chloride is an ionic compound.

Reason- Metals and non-metals react with mutual transfer of
electrons.
12. Assertion- Calcium displaces copper from a solution of copper sulphate.

Reason- Copper is more reactive than copper.
13. Assertion- Metals lose electrons from their valence shells to form cations.
Reason- Metals are electronegative.
14. Assertion- Zinc becomes dull in moist air.
Reason- Zinc is coated by a thin film of its basic carbonate in moist air.
15. Assertion- MgO exists in liquid state.

Reason- The electrostatic forces of attraction between Mg2+ and 02- ions constitute ionic
bond.
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING
16. Using only water as reactant, how will you identify three metals sodium, copper and
magnesium?
Sodium, magnesium and copper can be arranged based on their reactivity with water.
Sodium reacts violently in reaction with water. Magnesium reacts slowly with cold water
and rapidly with boiling water and copper does not react with water. The most reactive is
sodium and least reactive is copper.
17. Complete and balance the following reaction

(a) Al2O3 + HCl � AlCl3+H2O
(b) Al2O3 + NaOH � NaAlO2 + H2O
(c) Fe (s) + H2O (g) � Fe3O4(s) + H2(g)
(d) Au + H2O � no reaction
(e) Pb + H2O � Pb(OH)2 + H2
18. (a) What do you mean by the reactivity series of metals?
The series which arranges metals in the decreasing order of reactivity is known as the
reactivity series. Thus, the least reactive metal is placed at the bottom while the most
reactive metal is placed at the top of the series.
(b) Hydrogen is not a metal, but it has been assigned a place in the reactivity series. Give
reason(s).
Hydrogen is not a metal yet it has been assigned a place in the reactivity series of metals
because it has a tendency to lose electron and forms a positive ion H+. The metals which
lose electrons less readily than hydrogen are placed below it and the metals which lose
electrons more readily than hydrogen are placed above it in the reactivity series of metals.
(c) Name one metal that cannot displace silver from silver nitrate solution.
Gold.
19. Explain the following

(a) Reactivity of Al decreases if it is dipped in HNO3.
When aluminium is dipped in nitric acid a layer of aluminium oxide is formed on the
metal. This happens because nitric acid is a strong oxidizing agent. The layer of
aluminium oxide prevents further reaction of aluminium. Due to this, the reactivity of
aluminium decreases.
(b) Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of Na or Al.
Sodium and magnesium are most reactive metals (placed at the top in the reactivity
series). They are very stable and cannot be reduced by carbon. They have more attraction
to oxygen than carbon
(c) Metals like Na, K, Ca and Mg are never found in their free state in nature.
Due to their high reactivity, reactive metals always exist in combined form in nature
(forming compounds with sulphur, oxygen etc), and thus do not occur in nature in free
state.
20. Name the chemical compounds formed on the surface of silver, copper and iron metals
when exposed for some time in the atmosphere.
Black colour of silver articles is due to silver sulphide, green colour of copper articles is
due to copper hydroxide and copper carbonate and reddish brown coloured layer formed
on iron is due to ferric oxide layer.
21. A group of students looked at different metals and metal sulphate solutions given in a
tabular form. From the data answer the following
Metal Metal sulphide solution Colour

Chromium Chromium sulphate Green
Cobalt Cobalt sulphate Pink
Copper Copper sulphate Blue
Magnesium Magnesium sulphate Colourless
(i) Which metal reacted with all other metal sulphate solutions?
Magnesium
(ii) Which metal did not react with any other metal sulphate solution?
Copper
(iii) Put the metals in decreasing order of reactivity.
Mg> Cr > Co > Cu
(iv) Iron is slightly more reactive than cobalt. With which other metal sulphate solution
will it react?
Iron will react only with copper sulphate solution.
22. (a) Write the electron dot structures for chlorine and calcium. Show the formation of
calcium chloride
by transfer of electrons.
(b) Identify the nature of the compound and explain three physical properties of such
compound.
It is ionic compound.
Physical properties - .It is hard and solid, It has high melting and boiling point, It soluble
in water.
23. (a) The reaction of metal (X) with ferric oxide is highly exothermic. Metal (X) is obtained
from its
oxides by electrolytic reduction. Identify (X) and write its reaction with ferric oxide.
‘X’ is ‘Al’
2Al + Fe2O3→ Al2O3 + 2Fe
(b) Give reason to justify that aluminium oxide is an amphoteric oxide. Also, give another
example of
amphoteric oxide.
AI2O3 reacts with acid as well as base therefore it is amphoteric oxide.
AI2O3 + 2NaOH → 2NaAlO2 +H2
Al2O3 + 6HCl → 2AlCl3 +3H2
Zinc oxide is also an amphoteric oxide.
A metal X has to be extracted from its enriched carbonate ore. If the metal X is in the
24. middle of the reactivity series, describe the steps to extract this metal.
Metals such as iron, zinc, lead, copper, etc., are in the middle of the reactivity series.
These are moderately reactive metals and are usually present as sulphides or carbonates. A
metal is obtained from its ore by the processes of reduction or by electrolysis. In the
reduction process, it is the oxide ore that is reduced.
It is easier to reduce an oxide ore as compared to its sulphides and carbonates. If the ore is
not an oxide ore, it is first converted to the oxide by the process of calcination or by
roasting.
CASE STUDY
25. Metals in nature occur as free elements or in the form of their compounds. The table
below lists the chemical properties of five metals. The metals are identified as I, II, III,
IV,V.
Metal Reacts with Reacts with React with Appearance

cold water? dil. Acids? oxygen?
I Yes Yes Yes Silver grey
II No No No Yellow
III Yes Yes Yes Silver white

(vigorously) (vigorously)
IV No No Yes Shiny
brown
V Yes Yes Yes Grey
1) Which of the metals is copper

(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV
2) Which of the metals is gold?

(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV
3) Which metal will displace metal II from a compound?

(a) I, III, V (b) II, IV, V (c) I, III, IV, V (d) IV, V
4) Identify metal III based on the chemical properties mentioned in the table.
(a) Na (b) Mn (c) Al (d) Fe

____________
1. The Statue of Liberty was shiny brown which later changed to green. Explain.
The Statue of Liberty's exterior is made of copper, and it turned that shade of green because of
oxidation. Copper is a noble metal, which means that it does not react readily with other substances.
The Statue's copper is only three-thirty-seconds of an inch thick and unusually pure.
2. Ashish treated a lustrous, divalent element M with sodium hydroxide. He observed the formation of
bubbles in the reaction mixture. He made the same observations when this element was treated with
hydrochloric acid. Suggest how he can identify the produced gas. Write chemical equations for both
reactions.
The lustrous divalent element M can be an amphoteric metal like Zn, Sn or Pb etc. When zinc is
treated with sodium hydroxide it forms sodium zincate and hydrogen gas. When zinc is treated with
hydrochloric acid it forms zinc chloride and hydrogen gas, and that is why ashish made the same
observation.
The reactions can be shown by following equations:
2NaOH+Zn → Na2ZnO2 + H2
2HCl+Zn → ZnCl2 + H2
3. A non-metal A which is the largest constituent of air, when heated with H2 in 1: 3 ratio in the
presence of catalyst (Fe) gives a gas B. On heating with O2, it gives an oxide C. If this oxide is
passed into water in the presence of air, it gives and acid D which act as a strong oxidising agent.
(a) Identify A, B, C and D
A- Non-metal A is Nitrogen (N) because Nitrogen gas (N2) comprises 78 % of the air and is the
largest constituent of air.
B- Gas B is Ammonia (NH3). It is formed when Nitrogen reacts with Hydrogen (H) in the ratio 1:3
in the presence of a catalyst called Iron (Fe)
C is Nitrogen dioxide (NO2)
D is Nitric acid (HNO3) which acts as an oxidizing agent.
(b) To which group of periodic table does this non-metal belong?
Nitrogen belongs to group 15, p block element.
The Atomic number of Nitrogen= 7
4. You are given a hammer, a battery, a bulb, a switch and wires.

(i) How would you use them to distinguish between samples of metals and non-metals?
If the substance can be hammered and made into sheets then it is metal. If it is broken into tiny
pieces when hit by the hammer then it is non-metal since non-metals are brittle. If the bulb starts
glowing then the substance is a Metal, because metals are good conductors of electricity. Otherwise
we can say that it is non-metal.
(ii) Assess the usefulness of these tests to differentiate between metals and non-metals.
The above methods can be used to identify metals and non-metals generally. But there are
exceptions in using these methods. For example Sodium and potassium are metals but they are not
malleable and are quite brittle. Graphite is an allotrope of carbon and thus is a non-metal, but it is a
good conductor of electricity.
5. (a) A substance X, an oxide of a metal, is used extensively in the cement industry. This element is
found in our bones also. On treatment with water, it forms a solution which turns red litmus blue.
Identify X and also write the chemical reaction involved.
X is calcium oxide.
The reaction involved is: CaO (s)+H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2 (aq)
(b) Choose a metal from the following metals which reacts only with hot water:
Sodium, magnesium, iron
Mention the products formed during the reaction.
Magnesium does not react with cold water, but it reacts with hot water.
Magnesium reacts with boiling water to give Magnesium oxide (MgO) and Hydrogen gas.
TOPIC: CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS (LEVEL 1)

____________
1. The functional group present in ethanol is __________.

(a) Alcoholic group (b) Ester group (c) Aldehydic group (d)
Carboxyl group
2. Which end of the soap dissolves in water?
(a) Non-polar end (b) Ionic end (c) Polar end (d) Both ionic and
polar end
3. The substance not responsible for hardness of water is

(a) Sodium nitrate (b) Calcium hydrogen carbonate
(c) Calcium carbonate (d) Magnesium carbonate
4. The portion left on dropping a hydrogen atom from an alkane is called

(a) Functional group (b) Alkenyl group (c) Alkyl group (d)
Phenyl group
5. Vinegar is a solution of
(a) 50% – 60% acetic acid in alcohol (b) 5% – 8% acetic acid in
alcohol
(c) 5% – 8% acetic acid in water (d) 50% – 60% acetic acid in
water
6. Which pollutant gas can be produced because of incomplete combustion of octane (C8H18)?
(a) Carbon (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Carbon monoxide (d)

Methane
7. When acetic acid reacts with ethyl alcohol, we add conc. H2SO4. It acts as _________ and the
process is called ___________.
(a) Oxidising agent, Saponification. (b) Acid, Esterification
(c) Reducing agent, Esterification. (d) Dehydrating agent,
Esterification.
8. How many double bonds are there in a saturated hydrocarbon?

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Zero
9. The property of self-combination of the atoms of the same element to form long chains is
known as
(a) Protonation (b) Carbonation
(c) Coronation (d) Catenation
10.
a) A is propanone and B is propanal b) A is propanal and B is

propanone
c) A is acetone and B is propanol d) A is propanol and B is
propanal
11. In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason
(R). Mark the correct choice as:
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true but R is false.
D) A is false but R is true.
Assertion (A): If the first member of a homologous series is methanal, its third member will
be
propanal.
Reason (R): All the members of a homologous series show similar chemical properties.
12. Assertion(A): Covalent compounds are generally poor conductor of electricity.

Reason (R): They consist of molecules and not ions which can transfer charge.
13. Assertion(A): Diamond is the hardest natural known substance.

Reason (R): Diamond is used for cutting marble, granite, Wand glass.
14. Assertion(A): Both aldehydes and ketones contain carbonyl group.

Reason (R): In aldehydes, the functional group is attached to at least one hydrogen atom.
15. Assertion (A) : Alkanes give addition reaction.
Reason (R) : Addition reactions are a characteristic property of unsaturated hydrocarbons.
16. What is a homologous series of carbon compounds? Give an example and list its three
characteristics.
A group of carbon compounds having the same general formula and same functional group is
called homologous series. The members of homologous series are called homologues.
For example: Alkane:
CH4 –methane,
C2H6 – ethane,
C3H8–propane.
Characteristics of homologous series-
● They have the same general formula for all compounds. They have same functional group.
● They have the same chemical but different physical properties.
● They have difference of –CH2 between two successive members
17. (a) Define hydrocarbons and give an example.
(b) Give the structural differences between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons.
Compounds of carbon and hydrogen are called hydrocarbons. Example methane, ethane etc.
Saturated hydrocarbon Unsaturated hydrocarbon
The simplest hydrocarbons in which The hydrocarbons in which Carbon-Carbon

carbon-carbon atoms and carbon-hydrogen atoms and Carbon-Hydrogen atoms are
atoms are held together by single bonds are held together by the double or triple bond
known as saturated hydrocarbon are known as unsaturated Hydrocarbons.
They are having a general formula CnH2n+2 The double-bonded compounds are called
alkenes and the general formula for alkenes
is CnH2n
The triple bonded compounds are called

alkynes and the general formula for alkynes
is CnH2n-2
18. Write the molecular formula of the following compounds and draw their electron-dot
structures:
(i) Methane (ii) Carbon dioxide (iii) Ammonia (iv) Water
Methane – CH4 Carbon dioxide – Ammonia – NH3 Water – H2O
CO2
19. Why are carbon and its compounds used as fuels for most applications?
Carbon and its compounds are used as fuels due to following reasons-
1.They give large amount of heat on combustion due to high percentage of carbon and
hydrogen.
2.Carbon compounds used as fuel have optimum ignition temperature with high calorific
values and are easy to handle.
3.Their combustion can be controlled. Therefore, carbon and its compounds are used as
fuels.
20. What is a functional group? Identify and name the respective functional groups present in the
following compounds: CH3COOH, CH3COCH3, CH3CHO, CH3CH2OH.
A Functional Group represents an atom/ group of atoms, bonded to a carbon chain and it
defines the chemical property of the organic compound.
CH3COOH- COOH Carboxylic acid

CH3COCH3 – C=O Ketone,
CH3CHO- CHO- Aldehyde
CH3CH2OH- OH – Alcohol
21. Give reason for the following observations:

(a) The element carbon forms a very large number of compounds.
(b) Air holes of a gas burner must be adjusted when the heated vessels get blackened by the
flame.
(c) Use of synthetic detergents causes pollution of water.
a) The element, carbon, forms many carbon compounds because of its property of self-
combination (catenation). The ability of one carbon atom to combine with the many other
carbon atoms to form long chains produces many carbon compounds.
b) If the fuel fails to burn completely, a sooty flame is produced (due to the incomplete
combustion) which blackens the bottom of the vessel. Therefore, the air holes in the gas
burner need to be adjusted so that the burner gets enough oxygen to burn the fuel completely.
c) Synthetic detergents are generally non-biodegradable, that is, they are not decomposed by
microorganisms like bacteria. Hence, the use of synthetic detergents causes water pollution
in lakes and rivers.
22. What is ethanol? What happens when it is heated with excess conc.H2SO4 at 443K? Write
the role of conc. H2SO4 in this reaction.
Ethanol is an important industrial chemical; it is used as a solvent, in the synthesis of other

organic chemicals.
When ethanol is heated at 443 K in presence of excess conc. sulphuric acid then alkene is
obtained.
CH3CH2OH + Conc.H2SO4 → CH2= CH2+H2O
In the above reaction, water is removed by using a dehydrating agent which is sulphuric acid.
23. Explain the nature of the covalent bond using the bond formation in CH3Cl.
Valence electrons in carbon = 4

Valence electrons in chlorine =7
In order to complete the octet of carbon, it shares its electrons, one with each of the three
hydrogen atoms and one with one chlorine atom. Since, bonds are formed because of sharing
of electrons. Carbon forms 3 covalent bonds with hydrogen and 1 covalent bond with
chlorine.
24. (a) What is the atomic number of carbon. Write its electronic configuration.
(b) What type of chemical bonds are formed by carbon? Why?
(c) Name the three allotropic forms of carbon.
a) Atomic no. of carbon – 6 E.C- 2,4

b) Carbon forms four covalent bonds by sharing its four valence electrons with univalent
atoms, e.g., hydrogen. This is because it is tetravalent and attains an inert gas configuration
of 8 electrons in its outermost shell by sharing electrons.
c) Diamond, graphite and Fullerene.
CASE STUDY
25. Study the table related to three hydrocarbons A, B, C and answer the questions that follow.
(i) A, Band C are classified as hydrocarbons because

(a) they contain hydrogen (b) they contain carbon
(c) they contain both carbon and hydrogen (d) none of these.
(ii) Which of these organic compounds is an alkyne?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) All of these
(iii) C5H10 belongs to

(a) CnH2n+2 series (b) CnH2n series
(c) CnH2n-2 series (d) None of these.
(iv) Identify the incorrect statement about these three hydrocarbons.

(a) All have different general formulae.
(b) A and B differ by -CH2 unit.
(c) C is an alkyne.
(d) B is an alkene.
(v) General formula for alkane is __________

(a) CnH2n (b) CnH2n+2 (c)CnH2n-2 (d) CnHn

____________
1. The member of the homologous series of alkenes _________

(a) C4H10 (b) C4H8 (c) C2H2 (d) C2H6
2. Which of the following does not have a structural isomer?

(a) C4H10 (b) C6H14 (c) C3H8 (d) C5H12
3. Which gas is produced when compound X reacts with washing soda?

(a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen (c) Methane (d) Carbon dioxide
4. The heats of combustion of CH4, C2H4, C2H6 are -890, -1411 and -1560 KJ/mol
respectively. Which has the lowest fuel value in KJ/g?
(a) CH4 (b) C2H4 (c) C2H6 (d) All the above
5. Graphite is a soft lubricant, extremely difficult to melt. The reason for this anomalous
behaviour is that graphite
a) Has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bound carbon atoms
with weak inter-plate bonds.
b) Is a non-crystalline substance.
c) Is an allotrope form of carbon.
d) Has only a single bond between carbon atoms.
6. The foul-smelling substance added to detect leakage of LPG is:

(a) Ethyl mercaptan (b) Propane (c) Ethane (d) Butane
7. Diamond is an insulator because of

(a) It is tough
(b) It has no free electrons to conduct electric current
(c) It is not soluble in water
(d) Its structure is very consolidated.
8. The compound ‘A’ when treated with alkaline potassium gives ‘B’, and with conc.
Sulphuric acid gives ‘C’ and ‘D’. The compounds A, B, C, and D are respectively:
(a) C2H4,CH3COONa, C2H5OH, H2O (b) CH3COOH, C2H4,CH3OH, H2O
(c) C2H5OH, CH3COOH, C2H4, H2O (d) CH3OH, HCOOH, H2O, CH4
9. How many grams of oxygen gas will be needed for complete combustion of 2 moles of
the 3rd member of the alkyne series?
(a) 186g (b) 256g (c) 352g (d) 372g
10. A five carbon chain with a double bond would be named as —------
a) Pentane b) Pentene c) Pentyne d) Cyclopentene
11. In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
Assertion : Graphite is slippery to touch.

Reason : The various layers of carbon atoms in graphite are held together by weak van
der Waals forces.
12. Assertion : Cyclopropane is a heterocyclic compound.
Reason : Cyclopropane comes into the category of those compounds in which a

complete ring is formed by carbon atoms only.
13. Assertion : Propene reacts with HBr to give isopropyl bromide.

Reason : Addition of Br2 to alkene places faster in presence of ionising substance.
14. Assertion : Acetic acid is less acidic than alcohol.

Reason : The ion formed after the removal of proton from acetic acid is less stable.
15. Assertion: In a candle, wax vapours burn in sufficient supply of oxygen, which leads to
blue flame.
Reason: When the oxygen supply is sufficient, then fuels burn completely producing a
blue flame.
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING
16. (a) How is vinegar made?

(b) What is glacial acetic acid and why is it called so? What is its melting point?
a) Vinegar is an aqueous solution of acetic acid, it typically contains 5–8% acetic acid by
volume.
b) Acetic acid that contains a very low amount of water (less than 1%) is called as
glacial acetic acid.
The reason it's called glacial is because it solidifies into solid acetic acid crystals just
cooler than room temperature at 16.6 °C, which is ice.
Its melting point is 16.6 °C.
17. In a tabular form, differentiate between ethanol and ethanoic acid under the following
heads:
(i) Physical state

(ii) Taste
(iii) NaHCO3 test
(iv) Ester test
18. What are detergents chemically? List two merits and two demerits of using detergents
for cleansing. State the reason for the suitability of detergents for washing even in case
of water having calcium and magnesium ions.
Detergents are long chain sodium salts of sulphonic acids.
Merits:
● (i) They work well with hard water.
● (ii) They are more effective than soaps.
Demerits:
● (i) They are expensive.
● (ii) Some of them having branching are non-biodegradable, therefore create water
pollution.
Detergents are a group of compounds that are like soap that does not form an insoluble
precipitate with calcium and magnesium ions like soaps making it suitable for washing,
even in the case of hard water.
19. C2H5O- is the incomplete formula to which an atom of hydrogen can be

(a) Added to obtain compound ‘A’ (b) Removed to obtain compound ‘B’
i) Write the structural formula for the compound ‘A’ and ‘B’
ii) Write the IUPAC names for the compound ‘A’ and ‘B’
iii) Identify the functional groups of compound ‘A’ and ‘B’
iv) With conditions write the equation for the oxidation of compound ‘A’ in the
presence of an oxidizing
agent.
v) Give two uses of compound ‘A’.
20. An aldehyde as well as a ketone can be represented by the same molecular formula, say
C3H6O. Write their structures and name them. State the relation between the two in the
language of science.
The aldehyde and ketone having the same molecular formula C3H6O are propanal and
propanone (also called acetone), respectively.
These two compounds have the same molecular formula but different functional groups.
Propanal has an aldehyde functional group. An aldehyde group has one hydrogen (H)
and one alkyl group (R) attached to carbonyl carbon.
Propanone has a ketone functional group. In ketone, carbonyl carbon is attached to two
same or different alkyl groups.
- Propanal -
Propanone
21. You are given balls and a stick model of six carbon atoms and fourteen hydrogen atoms
and enough sticks. In how many ways one can join the models of six carbon atoms and
fourteen hydrogen atoms to form different molecules of C6H14.
The given organic compound is hexane.
22. Name the functional group of organic compounds that can be hydrogenated. With the
help of suitable examples, explain the process of hydrogenation mentioning the
conditions of the reaction and any one change in physical property with the formation of
the product. Name any one natural source of organic compounds that are hydrogenated.
The functional group of organic compounds that can be hydrogenated is double bonds in
alkenes and triple bonds in alkynes.
Hydrogenation is the process of the addition of hydrogen to an unsaturated hydrocarbon,
in the presence of a catalyst, to convert it into a saturated hydrocarbon.
For eg -Alkene (double bond) can be converted to an alkane (single bond) by adding
hydrogen in the presence of a catalyst like Ni or Pd.
Vegetable oil is the natural source of organic compounds.
23. A to F are the structural formulae of some organic compounds :

(i) Give the letters which represent the same family.
(ii) Give the letters which do not represent hydrocarbons.
(iii) Can ‘C’ be converted into A ?
i) B and D
ii) E and F
iii) Yes, by hydrogenation.
24. (a) A test tube contains a brown liquid in it. The colour of the liquid remains the same
when methane is passed through it but it disappears when ethene is passed. Suggest the
name of the liquid which is brown in colour.
(b) The formula of an ester is C3H7COOC2H5. Write the formulae of the acid and alcohol
from which the ester is prepared.
a) As Ethene decolourises the colour of liquid, whereas Methane couldn't. Hence, the
element present in the liquid is bromine because it is the specific test for categorizing
Saturated and Unsaturated Hydrocarbons.
b) Alcohol – C2H5OH
Acid – C3H7COOH
CASE STUDY
25. As neutral atom carbon has electronic configuration K L. To gain inert gas configuration
carbon can either 2, 4 donate 4 valence electrons (helium gas configuration) or gain 4
electrons (neon gas configuration), but it cannot do so. To acquire inert gas
configuration carbon can only share its 4 valence electrons with other atoms forming
covalent bonds. A covalent bond can be defined as a chemical bond formed between two
atoms by mutual sharing of valence electrons so that each atom acquires the stable
electronic configuration of the nearest noble gas. The concept of covalent bonds was
given by Langmuir and Lewis to explain bonding in non-ionic compounds. The covalent
bonds are of three types. If each atom contributes one electron, the covalent bond formed
is called a single covalent bond and is represented by a single line (-) and if each atom
contributes two electrons, the covalent bond formed is called a double bond and is
represented by a double line (=) and if each atom contributes three electrons, the
covalent bond formed is called a triple bond and is represented by a triple line (≡).
(i) Which of the following do not contain a double bond?

(I) SO2 (II) NH3 (III) HCl (IV) O2
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) III and IV only (d) I and IV only
(ii) Which of the following contains a triple bond?

(a) N2 (b) O2 (c) CO2 (d) H2
(iii) The shared pair of electrons is said to constitute a _______ bond between two
hydrogen atoms.
(a) single (b) double (c) triple (d) ionic
(iv) Which of the following molecules has all its atoms joined together by double
covalent bonds?
(a) Methane (b) Water (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Nitrogen trichloride
(v) Chlorine forms a diatomic molecule, Cl2 . Draw the electron dot structure for this
molecule.

____________
1. Take about 20 mL of castor oil in a beaker. Add 30 mL of 20% sodium hydroxide

solution. Heat the mixture with continuous stirring for a few minutes till the mixture
thickens. Add 5-10 g of common salt to this. Stir the mixture well, allow it to cool,
soaps are obtained.
(a) Why do we use common salt to make soap?

(b) What will happen if you add the above made soap solutions to the following test
tubes A, B, and C.
(c) Can we use potassium hydroxide instead of sodium hydroxide?
(a) Salt: NaCl is added while making soap, because it will help the reaction to occur
faster and adds sodium ion to increase the reaction rate.
(b) In test tube A: Soap + Oil ⎯→ Lather/foam is formed. Carboxylic chain dissolves
in oil.
In test tube B: Soap + Hard water ⎯→ Insoluble compound called scum is formed.
In test tube C: Soap + soft water ⎯→ Froth is formed.
(c) Yes, we can use potassium hydroxide to prepare soap.
2. A compound 'X' has molecular formula C2H6O is saturated hydrocarbons and is a very
good solvent. How can you convert it into unsaturated hydrocarbons? Identify X and
show its conversion with the help of an equation.
‘X’ is CH3CH2OH ethanol. It can be made unsaturated by heating it with conc. H2SO4
which is a dehydrating agent removes water from it, thereby forming ethene.
3. A piece of black electrode used in dry cells on strong heating in air gives a colourless
gas which turns lime -water milky. What was the material of the electrode?
The piece of black electrode used in the dry cell is made of graphite (which is an
allotrope of carbon element). This is confirmed by the fact that the piece of electrode,
on strong heating in air, gave a colourless gas carbon dioxide which turned limewater
milky. Thus, the material of the electrode is graphite.
4. State what you will observe when sugar crystals are treated with conc. Sulphuric acid.
Sugar reacts immediately with concentrated sulphuric acid to give a black spongy
mass of carbon which rises. Steam is given off and the whole mass gets heated due to
an exothermic reaction. They are said to get charred.
5. Answer as directed
a. You have been given three unlabelled test tubes containing ethanol , ethanoic acid
and soap solution . how would you identify the solutions in each of the test tubes using
litmus paper and sodium metal tests.
b. Give the reason for formation of scum when soaps are used in hard water.
a) The solution in the test tube which turns red litmus to blue is a soap solution
because soap solution is basic in nature.
The solution in the test tube which turns blue litmus to red is ethanoic acid since it is
acidic in nature.
Now to confirm the presence of ethanol in the test tube, sodium metal is added , if it
evolves H2 gas then it confirms ethanol.
b) A soap is a sodium or potassium salt of long chain fatty acids. Hard water contains
salts of calcium and magnesium. When soap is added to hard water, calcium and
magnesium ions present in water displace sodium or potassium ions from the soap
molecules forming an insoluble substance called scum. A lot of soap is wasted in the
process.
TOPIC: LIFE PROCESSES (LEVEL 1)

____________
I Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following is NOT a digestive enzyme contained in the pancreatic juice?
i. Lipase
ii. Hydrochloric acid
iii. Mucus
iv. Trypsin
a) (i) and (ii) b) (i) and (iv)
c) (ii) and (iii) d) (i) and (iii)
2. Raw materials required in the autotrophic mode of nutrition are:

i. Carbon dioxide and water
ii. Chlorophyll
iii. Nitrogen
iv. Sunlight
a) (i), (ii) and (iii) b) Only (i)
c) (i), (ii) and (iv) d) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
3. Identify the function of nephrons in a healthy person.

a) Produces nitrogenous waste b) Eliminates all salts
c) Reabsorbs all water d) Reabsorbs all amino acids
4. The respiratory pigment in human beings is

a) Insulin b) Enzymes
c) Haemoglobin d) None of these
5. Carbohydrates in the plants are stored in the form of

a) Glycogen b) Starch
c) Glucose d) Maltose
6. Which of the following is most appropriate for aerobic respiration?
Ans. d
7. The diagrams show four different stages in one heart beat. What is the correct order for the stages
after stage P?
a) Q → R → S
b) R → Q → S
c) R → S → Q
d) S → R → Q
8. When a doctor is recording your pulse, he is pressing on your wrist exactly on a
a) Vein b) Artery
c) Capillary d) Arteriole
9. Excretion primarily involves:

a) Removal of all byproducts during digestion
b) Removal of all byproducts during synthesis of glycogen
c) Removal of nitrogenous wastes
d) Throwing out excess water
10. Which one of the following in the real sense is NOT an excretory activity:
a) Giving out carbon dioxide b) Passing out fecal matter
c) Sweating d) Removal of urea
II. Read the following statements and select the correct option.
A. Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion
B. .Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
C. Assertion (A) is true but reason(R) is false.
D. Assertion (A) is false but reason(R) is true
1. Assertion - Veins have thin walls to collect blood from different organs.
Reason: - Blood in veins are not under pressure.
2. Assertion: aerobic respiration requires less energy as compared to anaerobic respiration.

Reason: mitochondria is the powerhouse of the cell.
B. .Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion
3 Assertion: When the body size of animals is large, the diffusion pressure alone cannot take care of
oxygen delivery to all parts of the body.
Reason: In human beings hemoglobin pigments take up oxygen from the air in the lungs to carry it to
tissues, which are deficient in oxygen
4. Assertion (A): Nephrons are the primary filtration units of the kidney.
Reason (R): Glomerulus present in the nephron is responsible for ultrafiltration.
Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is the correct explanation for assertion.
5. Assertion (A): Plants have low energy needs.
Reason(R): Plant bodies have large proportion of dead cells.
A and R are true, but R is the correct explanation of the assertion.

1. Write the balanced chemical equation for the process of photosynthesis.
Ans:
2. a) State two functions of stomata.

b) How do guard cells regulate opening and closing of stomatal pores?
Ans: a) The two main functions of stomata are – a) Exchange the gases by closing and opening the pores
in the leaves. b) Monitoring the movement of water via transpiration.
a) The opening and closing of stomata are controlled by the guard cells. When water flows into
the guard cells, they swell up and the curved surface causes the stomata to open. When the guard
cells lose water, they shrink and become flaccid and straight thus closing the stomata.
3. Complete the given table
Digesti Digesti Enzyme Substrate/acts Product

ve ve on
gland Juice
1 Salivar Saliva Salivary A)_______ Maltose

. y gland amylase
2 Liver Bile B)_______ Fats Emulsified fats

. juice __
3 Pancre Pancre C)_______ Emulsified D)________

. as atic __ fats
juice
A) B) no enzyme C) lipase D) Fatty acids and

Starch glycerol
4. Name the following

a) The chamber of the heart that pumps out deoxygenated blood - Right ventricle
b) The blood vessel that carries away oxygenated blood from the heart - Aorta
c) The blood vessel that receives deoxygenated blood from the lower part of our body - inferior vena
cava
d) Structure that prevents the backward flow of blood - valves
e) The blood vessel that brings oxygenated blood to the human heart - pulmonary veins
f) Chamber of the human heart receives oxygenated blood - left atrium
g) The category of organisms that make their own food from basic raw materials - autotrophs
h) The kind of plastids found in the mesophyll cells of the leaf - chloroplast
i) The molecule made from the energy released during the process of respiration.-.- ATP
j) the number of times the heart beats in one minute – Pulse/ Heart rate
k) The constituent of food which turns blue-black after adding iodine solution to it- Starch.
l) The form in which the human beings store carbohydrate and the place it is stored- The glycogen
is stored in liver and muscles.
5. What is the role of sphincter muscles in the human alimentary canal?

Sphincters are circular muscles that serve as valves to open and close certain parts of the body. For eg
a) Pyloric sphincter - It is located at the connection between stomach and small intestine. It allows only
small quantities of food into duodenum at one time.
b) Anal sphincter - It is located at the anus and partly control the release of waste out of the body.
6. Define- peristalsis, enzymes, translocation, transpiration, excretion, respiration, photosynthesis,

emulsification
Peristalsis - Peristalsis is a series of wave-like muscle contractions that move food through the digestive
tract.
Enzymes - enzyme, a substance that acts as a catalyst in living organisms, regulating the rate at
which chemical reactions proceed without itself being altered in the process.
Translocation - Translocation is the process of transfer of water and other soluble nutrients from one part
of the plant to another through the xylem and phloem, which occurs in all plants.
Transpiration - Transpiration is defined as the physiological loss of water in the form of water vapor,
mainly from the stomata in leaves.
Excretion- Excretion is a general term referring to the separation and throwing off of waste materials or
toxic substances from the cells and tissues of a plant or animal.
Respiration- Respiration is defined as a metabolic process wherein, the living cells of an organism
obtains energy (in the form of ATP) by taking in oxygen and liberating carbon dioxide from the
oxidation of complex organic substances.
Emulsification - Emulsification is the process of breaking down the fat into smaller blood cells which
makes it easy for enzymes to function and digest food
7. Answer the following as “TRUE” or as “FALSE”:
a) Chloroplasts and chlorophyll are the same thing - FALSE
b) Photosynthesis can occur even in artificial light such as that of a 100-watt bulb - TRUE
c) All the starch produced in the leaves remains stored in it for 2-3 weeks before it is used by other plant
organs - FALSE
d) Every green plant produces glucose and proteins - TRUE
e) Plants require several minerals such as Mg, Fe, S etc for survival – TRUE
8. List the advantages of having a four chambered heart.
1. It makes sure complete segregation of deoxygenated and oxygenated blood within the heart.
2. It permits a highly effective supply of oxygenated blood to all the body parts.
9. Given below is the figure of certain organs and associated parts in the human body. Study the same
and answer the following questions:
a) Name all the organ systems shown.

1- Kidney, 2 – aorta, 3 – ureters, 4 – urinary bladder, 5 – urethra.
b) Name the two main organic constituents of the fluid that flows down the part
labelled ‘3’.
Uric acid and ammonia
c) Write down the function of the following parts of the urinary system:
i. Kidney- Remove nitrogenous wastes from body and Osmoregulation
ii. Ureter - The tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder.
iii. Urethra - The tube through which urine leaves the body. It empties urine from the bladder.
10. The diagram shows the human heart in one phase of its activity. Study the same and answer the
questions that follow:
a) Name the phase. – ventricular systole
b) Which part of the heart is contracting in this phase?
Give a reason to support your answer.
Right and left ventricles are contracting.
The atrio-ventricular valves are closed in this phase.
c) Name the parts labelled 1 to 6.
1 – pulmonary artery, 2 – aorta, 3 – pulmonary veins,
4 – left auricle, 5 – left ventricle, 6 – right ventricle
d) The walls of the right ventricle are thicker than that of the
right auricle. Why?
The function of the auricles is to receive blood while that of ventricles is to pump blood to different parts
of the body.
e) Why do people have a common belief that the heart if located on the left side of the chest cavity?
The narrow end of the roughly triangular heart is pointed to the left and during contraction at this
powerful end makes it feel that the heart is on the left side of the chest cavity.
f) When are the ‘LUBB’ and ‘DUP’ sounds of the heart produced respectively during the heartbeat?
‘LUBB’ - produced during closure of the atrioventricular valves( tricuspid and bicuspid valves), ‘DUP’
during the closure of the semilunar valves( aortic and pulmonary valves).
11. Observe the given diagram and answer the questions-

a) Identify ‘A’. How does its structure help in its function?
b) How does ‘B’ help in the formation of lymph?
c) What is the advantage of this type of circulation?
a. Lung capillaries Walls are one cell thick for easy diffusion of gases/ efficient exchange of gases
b. Plasma, proteins and blood cells escape through the pores of ‘B’ into the intercellular spaces in tissues
to form lymph/ tissue fluid.
c. Prevents mixing of oxygenated and de-oxygenated blood
12. a) Identify ‘A’. What is the composition of the fluid that B enters into ‘A’?
b) Why is the above structure coiled?
c) Identify ‘B’. What is its function?
a. Glomerulus Blood cells, plasma containing glucose, amino acids, salts and nitrogenous waste
b. To increase surface area for selective reabsorption.
c. Collecting duct Collects the urine formed and allows its entry into ureter

____________
1. The statements which are true about respiration are

(i) During inhalation, ribs move inward and diaphragm is raised
(ii) In the alveoli, exchange of gases takes place, i.e., oxygen form alveolar air diffuses into blood and
carbon dioxide from blood into alveolar air
(iii) Haemoglobin has greater affinity for carbon dioxide than oxygen
(iv) Alveoli increases surface area for exchange of gases
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
2. Which one of the following is NOT an excretory activity:

a) Giving out carbon dioxide b) Passing out faecal matter
c) Sweating d) Removal of urea
3. Which row describes anaerobic respiration?

Ans: D
4. Dental caries gradually result in the softening of the enamel and dentine. Choose the option which
correctly identifies the process of formation of dental caries.
i. Saliva is unable to neutralise the acid produced by bacteria.
ii. Food particles and bacteria stick to the teeth forming plaque.
iii. Infection of the pulp can occur if left untreated.
iv. Bacteria release acids which soften the enamel.
a) i → ii → iii → iv b) ii → iv → i → iii
c) iii → iv → i → ii d) iv → i → ii → iii
5. The graph shows the effect of pH on the activity of three different enzymes. The table shows the pH
of different parts of the alimentary canal.
Which enzymes in the graph are likely to be protease enzymes?

a) X, Y and Z b) X and Z only c) Y and Z only d) Z only
6. Which of the methods mentioned below is NOT a method used by plants to excrete?
a) Excess water is lost through transpiration.
b) Vacuoles store some excretory products.
c) Oxygen is used by plants for respiration.
d) Some plants shed their leaves to remove waste products.
7. The diagram shows a cross-section through a leaf.

What is the cell labelled X?
A epidermis B guard cell C palisade mesophyll D spongy mesophyll
8. Four test-tubes are set up as shown. Which test-tube contains the most carbon dioxide after one hour?
Ans:A
9. How is food transported from the phloem to the tissues according to plant needs?
a) Food is transported along with the water in the plant’s body.
b) Food is transported in only one direction, like water in the plant body through the xylem
c) Food is transported from a region with a low concentration to a higher concentration.
d) Food is transported only from the region where it is produced to other parts of the plants
10. A longitudinal section of the kidney and some associated structures have been labelled. Which
labelling is correct?
Ans: A
II . Read the following statements and select the correct option.

B. .Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion.
D. Assertion (A) is false but reason(R) is true
1. Assertion: Plants can survive without separate respiratory organs.

Reason: Each plant part takes care of its own gas exchange needs.
Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
2. Assertion: there is no mixing of oxygenated and de-oxygenated blood in the heart.

Reason: Valves are present in the heart which prevent the bi-directional flow of blood.
A. Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is the correct explanation for assertion.
3. Assertion: cardiovascular system in humans consists of heart, and blood vessels.

Reason: it is an open circulatory system.
4 Assertion: Haemodialysis can save the life of patients with kidney failure.
Reason: Waste products like urea can be removed from the blood by haemodialysis.
a) A and R are true, but R is the correct explanation of the assertion.
5. Assertion: urinary bladder stores urine temporarily

Reason: ureters carry urine to the urinary bladder.
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:

1. The photograph shows an organism called lichen growing on the surface of a tree. Lichens are unusual
because they consist of a fungus and an algae living together. The fungus grows hyphae that help it feed
by saprotrophic nutrition. Explain what is meant by the term saprotrophic nutrition.
The nutrition mode in which organisms consume their daily food in the form of dead and decomposed
matter. Example – Bread mold or Rhizopus, Agaricus (mushroom), and yeast.
2. What is the significance of emulsification of fats?
Ans: Emulsification is the process of breaking down the fat into smaller globules making it easy for the
enzymes to act and digest the food .
3. Give reasons
a) The walls of trachea not collapse when there is less air inside them.
In trachea, there are C shaped rings of cartilage which helps to hold trachea even when the air is less in it
. Hence they do not collapse.
b) Herbivores have longer small intestines than carnivores.

The small intestine is longer in herbivores than in carnivores because herbivores consume plant and
grass-based food which is high in cellulose and the digestion of cellulose takes a long time.
c) Absorption of digested food occur mainly in the small intestine?

Ans: The small intestine is the most important part of the digestive system. Maximum absorption occurs
in the small intestine because of the following reasons;
(a) Digestion is completed in the small intestine.
(b) The inner lining of the small intestine is provided with villi which increase the surface area for
absorption of digested food.
(c) Wall of the intestine is richly supplied with blood vessels which assimilate the absorbed food to the
other parts of the body.
d) The plants growing in deserts take up carbon dioxide at night and utilize it during the day in the
synthesis of
carbohydrates
Ans: In deserts the climate is very hot and amount of rainfall is very low. If the plants will take CO2
during day, lots of water will be loss, so to prevent loss of water they take CO2 during night.
4. What will happen if :

a) The diaphragm of a person ruptures in an accident –
If the diaphragm gets damaged, the person cannot breathe as diaphragm plays a major role in mechanism
and due to lack of oxygen the person will die.
b) the bile duct gets blocked –

When the bile ducts become blocked, bile builds up in the liver, and jaundice (yellow color of the skin)
develops due to the increasing level of bilirubin in the blood.
c) If mucus is not secreted by the gastric glands –

Gastric glands in stomach release hydrochloric acid, enzyme pepsin and mucus. The mucus protects the
inner lining of the stomach from the action of hydrochloric acid and enzyme pepsin. If mucus is not
released, it will lead to erosion of inner lining of stomach, which may cause acidity and ulcer.
5. Starch is digested in the small intestine. The small intestine contains many
structures that absorb glucose. The diagram shows one of these structures.
(i) Name this structure.
(ii) Explain how this structure is adapted to absorb glucose.
(iii) How is required pH maintained in the stomach and small intestine?
Ans: (i) Villi
(ii) ) it increases the surface area for absorption of digested food in intestine.
(c) Wall of the intestine is richly supplied with blood vessels which assimilate the absorbed food to the
other parts of the body.
(iii) HCl is secreted by inner wall of stomach. It helps to make chyme (or food) acidic for pepsin to
act. The bile produced by the liver and stored by the gall bladder is alkaline.
6. List three characteristics of lungs which make it an efficient respiratory surface.

Ans: The characteristics of a respiratory surface are thin walls, a moist inner surface, a huge
combined surface area, a rich blood supply each alveolus is sounded by capillaries.
7. In the setup given below, a healthy potted plant was kept in a dark room for three days and then the
two leaves were covered with bell jars with KOH in one of the jars and kept in the sunlight. Later a leaf
from each plant is plucked and tested for the presence of starch.
a) Do both the leaves show the presence of the same amount of starch?
b) What can you conclude from the experiment?
Ans:
a) No.
b) CO2 is important for carrying out photosynthesis.
8. If one holds breathe after expiration for about 30 sec, would there still be occurring any exchange of
respiratory gases in the lungs during this period? Explain.
Ans: When one expires there remains an amount of residual oxygen left in our lungs in order to maintain
the pressure difference in our respiratory system. So when one holds his breath for some time, exchange
of gases takes place with the residual gas.
9. Write differences between
a ) Respiration and breathing
b) Arteries and veins .

Veins Arteries
Carry blood towards the heart Carry blood away from the heart
Collects blood from body organs Distributes blood to the body
organs
Carry deoxygenated blood , except Carry oxygenated blood except
pulmonary veins pulmonary artery
Blood pressure in veins is low Blood pressure is high in arteries
Valves are present Valves are absent
Veins have thin non elastic less Arteries have thick elastic
muscular walls. muscular walls.
c) Photosynthesis and respiration.
LEVEL-3
10. The following diagram represents a mammalian kidney tubule and its blood supply.
a) Name the parts indicated by the guidelines 1 to 6.
1- Afferent arteriole, 2 – efferent arteriole, 3 – glomerulus,
4 – bowman’s capsule, 5 – PCT, 6 – DCT, 7 – Collecting duct,
8 – loop of Henle
b) ) Write down the function of the following parts of the urinary system:
(i) Glomerulus – ultrafiltration
(ii) Collecting duct – receives the content of many nephrons
and pours it into the ureters.
c) Which structure contains the lowest concentration of urea?
Ans: 6
d) Which structure contains the highest concentration of urea? Ans: 1
e) Where is most of the water reabsorbed? Ans: 3
f) Fill in the blanks:

In a nephron, the blood flows through the glomerulus under great pressure. The reason for this great
pressure is that the efferent (outgoing) arteriole is narrower that the afferent (incoming) arteriole. This
high pressure causes the liquid part of the blood to filter out from the blood into the Bowman’s capsule.

____________
1. Refer to the figure given below. Where can such an arrangement be found in the human body? Name
any two regions as examples.
Such arrangements can be found across the body.
Some examples are – alveoli, nephrons, heart.
2. The diagram shown below shows a part of the capillary bed in an organ of the human body. Some of
the blood arriving at the capillaries at point labelled ‘A’ moves out into the spaces between the tissue
cells. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow:
a) When the liquid from the blood surrounds the cells, what is it called?
Tissue fluid or interstitial fluid
b) Name any one important component of blood which remains inside t
he capillaries and fails to move out into the spaces.
RBCs
c) Some of the liquid surrounding the cells does not pass directly into
the blood but eventually reaches it by another route through vessel ‘X’.
Name the fluid present in the vessel ‘X’.
X – lymph vessel. Lymph
d) State two important functions performed in our body by the fluid
present in the vessel ‘X’.
Supplies nutrition and oxygen to parts where blood cannot reach
Drains away excess tissue fluid and returns proteins to blood Absorbs fats from the lacteals located in
the small intestine Provides defense to the body as it contains WBCs.
3. Given below is a diagram of a smear of human blood. Study the same and answer the questions that
follow:
a) Name the parts mentioned 1,2,3, and 4 as indicated by the guidelines.
1 – RBC, 2 – WBC, 3 – Platelets, 4 - Plasma
b) What happens if the part labelled ‘3’ is present in low numbers in humans?
Blood clotting won’t take place properly in case of an injury to the blood vessels.
c) What is the life span of part labelled ‘1’?
120 days
d) Why a mature mammalian erythrocyte lacks nucleus and mitochondria?
Loss of nucleus makes them biconcave and increases their surface area making them more efficient in
carrying oxygen to all cells and loss of mitochondria means that they won’t use oxygen for their own
growth.
4. Given below is a schematic diagram of the human blood circulatory system.

a) Which part represents the heart?
Give a reason to support your answer.
Part 3 represents the heart as the arrow 1 and 4 represent
the pulmonary artery and vein respectively.
b) Which numbers represent the following respectively:
i. Aorta - 5
ii. Renal vein - 8
iii. Pulmonary artery - 1
iv. Superior vena cava - 9
5. The figures given below show the diagrammatic cross sections of the three kinds of blood vessels in
the human body.
a) Identify the blood vessels A, B and C.
A – artery, B – vein, C - capillary
b) Name the kind of blood that usually flows through ‘A’ and ‘B’.
A – oxygenated, B – deoxygenated
c) ) In which one of the vessels does the exchange of gases actually
take place.
C
TOPIC: CONTROL AND COORDINATION ( LEVEL 1)

____________
I MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Electrical impulse travels in a neuron from
a) Dendrite → axon → axonal end → cell body
b) Cell body → dendrite → axon → axonal end
c) Dendrite → cell body → axon → axonal end
d) Axonal end → axon → cell body → dendrite
2. Which statement is NOT TRUE about thyroxin?

a) Iron is essential for the synthesis of thyroxine
b) It regulates carbohydrates, protein and fat metabolism in the body
c) Thyroid gland requires iodine to synthesise thyroxin
d) Thyroxin is also called thyroid hormone
3. Dwarfism results due to

a) Excess secretion of thyroxin b) Less secretion of growth hormone
c) Less secretion of adrenaline d) Excess secretion of growth hormone
4. A human hormone reducing blood flow to the digestive system and skin during stress is
a) Thyroxin b) Adrenaline c) Growth hormone d) Insulin
5. Which are effectors?

a) A brain and spinal cord b) muscles and glands
c) Receptors d) sensory neurons and motor neurons
6. In a hypersensitive patient, the systolic pressure increased to 150 mm of Hg. Which part of
the brain would be involved in the regulation of blood pressure?
a) Medulla b) Cerebrum c) Cerebellum d) Hypothalamus
7. Which is the correct sequence of the components of a reflex arc?

a) Receptors→ Muscles→ Sensory neuron→ Motor neuron→ Spinal cord
b) Receptors→ Motor neuron → Spinal cord → Sensory neuron → Muscle
c) Receptors → Spinal cord → Sensory neuron → Motor neuron → Muscle
d) Receptors → Sensory neuron → Spinal cord → Motor neuron → Muscle
8. When a person is suffering from severe cold, he or she cannot

a) Differentiate the taste of an apple from that of an ice cream
b) Differentiate the smell of a perfume from that of an agarbatti
c) Differentiate red light from green light
d) Differentiate a hot object from a cold object
9. Which of the following is NOT an involuntary action?

a) Vomiting b) Salivation c) Heart beat d) Chewing
10. The diagram shows a reflex arc. What is X?
a) a relay neuron
b) a synapse
c) the effector
d) the receptor
II For question numbers 11, 12, 13, 14 and 15, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and
the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from theoptions given below:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of the assertion.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true
1. Assertion (A): Cyton region of nerve fibre collects information for the brain.
Reason (R): Nerve fibres can either have or lack myelin sheath.
Ans: d
2. Assertion (A) : The brain and spinal cord constitute the central nervous system.
Reason (R) : Central nervous system controls and regulates the voluntary actions.
Ans: c
3. Assertion (A) : The spinal nerves are part of peripheral nervous system.
Reason (R) : Spinal nerves only have sensory neurons in them
Ans: c
4. Assertion (A) : Olfactory receptors detect taste.
Reason (R) : Olfactory receptors are present in nose
Ans: d
5. Assertion (A) : A person has lost most of his intelligence memory and judgement
Reason (R) : He has been operated a tumour located in the cerebrum.
Ans: a
III Answer the following Questions

1. What is a tropic movement? Explain with an example.
When a plant shows some growth movement in response to a stimulus then it is known at tropic
movement. Movement can be either direction that is it can be towards the stimulus or away from the
stimulus.
Example roots show positive geotropic movement that is they grow towards the direction of gravity.
Whereas shoot system shows negative geotropic movement . They exhibit positive phototropic
movement.
{ additional information}
They are mainly of five types:
1. Phototropism - It is the movement of a plant in response to light, they will grow towards the direction of
the light. It may be positive (if towards the light) or negative phototropic (if away from the light).
2. Geotropism - The movement of the plant in response to the gravity, they will move in the direction of
gravity. The roots will grow downwards and show positive geotropism while shoot will grow upwards
and thus show negative geotropism.
3. Chemotropism - In seed plants, the movement of pollen grains to the female gamete is due to the
secretion of chemicals. This shows positive chemotropism.
4. Hydrotropism - It is the movement of plants in response to water, the roots of the plant will grow
towards the area where water is present.
5. Thigmotropism - It is the movement or action of a plants in response to the touch. It is commonly
observed in the climbers.
2. Name the plant hormones responsible for the following

a) Elongation of cells- Auxin b) Growth of stem- Gibberellin
c) Promotion of cell division- cytokinins d) Falling of senescent leaves- Abscisic acid
3. In Figure 7.4 (a), (b) and (c), which appears more accurate and why?
Ans: a- because root grow toward gravity and shoot towards light.
4. a) Label the parts of a neuron in the Figure.
(a) Dendrite, (b) cyton, (c) node of ranvier, Axon ending
b) Identify the parts of a neuron
(i) where information is acquired- dendrite
(ii) through which information travels as an electrical impulse- axon
(iii) where this impulse must be converted into a chemical signal for
onward transmission. – axon endings
5. a) State the function and location of:

(i) gustatory receptors (ii) olfactory receptors(iii) Photoreceptors (iv) Auditory receptors
Ans: a) (i) Gustatory receptors- at tongue– these are sensitive to taste

(ii) Olfactory receptors- in nose– these are sensitive to smell.
(ii) Photo receptors – in eyes– these are sensitive to light.
(iv) Auditory receptors- in ears- to detect sound
6. What are the major parts of the brain? Mention the functions of different parts.
Ans: Brain has three major parts or regions, namely the forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain.
1. Fore-brain - The fore-brain is the main thinking part of the brain.
It has two main parts- the cerebrum and the diencephalon.
a) The cerebrum - It is the center of consciousness, thoughts, memory and analytical thinking. It also
controls voluntary actions.
c) hypothalamus- It controls thirst, hunger, temperature, sleep, etc.
2. Mid-brain - It acts as a coordinating unit between forebrain and hindbrain. It also controls some
involuntary actions.
3. Hind-brain - It has three main centers - Cerebellum, Pons and Medulla oblongata.
a) Cerebellum- It is responsible for precision of voluntary actions and maintaining the posture and
balance of the body.
b) Pons - It is the center through which nerve impulses travels to and from the cerebellum, spinal cord
and other parts of the brain. It also helps in respiration.
c) Medulla oblongata - It is the lowermost part of the brain. It contains vital centres for controlling blood
pressure, respiration, swallowing, sneezing, coughing, salivation and vomiting.
7. What constitutes the central and peripheral nervous systems?

Ans: CNS- The brain and spinal cord constitute the central nervous system. They receive information
from all parts of the body and integrate it.
PNS - The communication between the central nervous system and the other parts of the body is
facilitated by the peripheral nervous system consisting of cranial nerves arising from the brain and spinal
nerves arising from the spinal cord. The brain thus allows us to think and take actions based on that
thinking
8. Name the two components of central nervous system. How are they protected?
Ans: Brain and spinal cord are the two components of central nervous system. Brain –inside bony cage
called cranium or skull. Spinal cord—vertebral column. Both these structures are enclosed by three
protective layers called the meninges which filled with cerebrospinal fluid.
9. Mention the name of the endocrine glands which produce the following hormones. State one function
of each.
Hormone Endocrine function

glands
a) Adrenaline Adrenal Deals with stress by regulating blood pressure,
glands glucose metabolism, and the body's salt and water
balance.
b) GH Pituitary Regulates growth and development of the body
gland
c) Testosterone testes Develop and maintain male sexual characteristics
and maturation
d) estrogen Ovaries Affects development of female sexual
characteristics and reproductive development
e) Thymosine Thymus Producing and maturing lymphocytes, or immune
gland cells.
10. Diabetes, also known as diabetes mellitus, is a group of metabolic disorders characterized by a high
blood sugar level (hyperglycemia) over a prolonged period of time. Symptoms often include frequent
urination, increased thirst and increased appetite. If left untreated, diabetes can cause many health
complications. Acute complications can include diabetic ketoacidosis, hyperosmolar hyperglycemic
state, or death. Serious long-term complications include cardiovascular disease, stroke, chronic kidney
disease, foot ulcers, damage to the nerves, damage to the eyes, and cognitive impairment.
a) A gland secretes a particular hormone. The deficiency of this hormone in the body causes a
particular disease in which the blood sugar level rises. Name the gland and the hormone secreted by it.-
Pancreas, Insulin
b) Mention the role played by this hormone. -The function of insulin hormone is to lower the blood
sugar level.
c) Name the disease caused due to the deficiency of this hormone.- diabetes
d) What regulates the timing and amount of release of hormones?
Ans : This is regulated by feedback mechanisms
for example, glucose level in the blood is maintained constant by the feedback mechanisms
a) High glucose level in the blood induces the pancreatic cells to produce more insulin which converts
glucose to glycogen.
b) Less glucose level in the blood does not induce the pancreatic cells to produce insulin so that less
conversion of glucose to glycogen may occur.
TOPIC: CONTROL AND COORDINATION (LEVEL 2)

____________
1. The diagram shows a neurone.
Which structures could be found at X and Y?
Ans: C
2. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
(i) Sudden action in response to something in the environment is called reflex action
(ii) Sensory neurons carry signals from spinal cord to muscles
(iii) Motor neurons carry signals from receptors to spinal cord
(iv) The path through which signals are transmitted from a receptor to a muscle or a gland is called
reflex arc
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (i) , (ii) and (iii)
3. Choose the INCORRECT statement about insulin
a) It is produced from pancreas
b) It regulates growth and development of the body
c) It regulates blood sugar level
d) Insufficient secretion of insulin will cause diabetes
4. Which of the following statements are TRUE about the brain?

(i) The main thinking part of brain is hind brain
(ii) Centres of hearing, smell, memory, sight etc are located in fore brain.
(iii) Involuntary actions like salivation, vomiting, blood pressure are controlled by the medulla in the
hind brain
(iv) Cerebellum does not control posture and balance of the body
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (iii) and (iv)
5. Plants bent toward light

a) in response to the warmth
b) because auxin collected in cells on the dark side
c) because of gravity
d) because auxin collected in cells on the light side
6. The growth of tendril in pea plants is due to
a) Effect of light
b) Effect of gravity
c) Rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells that are away from the support
d) Rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells in contact with the support
7. Observe the given diagram and identify the mismatched combination/s
a) i and iii
b) iii and iv
c) ii and iii
d) i and iv
8. The growth of pollen tubes towards ovules is due to

a) Hydrotropism
b) Chemotropism
c) Geotropism
d) Phototropism
9. The main function of abscisic acid in plants is to

a) Increase the length of cells
b) Promote cell division
c) Inhibit growth
d) Promote growth of stem
10. What is the correct direction of flow of electrical impulses?
Ans: a)
II For question numbers 11, 12, 13, 14 and 15, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and
the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from theoptions given below:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of the assertion.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true
1. Assertion (A) : Nerve conduction is the one-way conduction.

Reason ( R) : Nerve impulse is transmitted from dendrite terminals to axon terminals.
Ans: a
2. Assertion(A): The effect of auxin hormone on the growth of root is exactly opposite to that on a stem.
Reason (R) : Auxin hormone increases the rate of growth in root and decreases the rate of growth in
stem.
Ans: c
3. Assertion (A): A receptor is a specialized group of cells in a sense organ that perceive a particular type
of stimulus.
Reason (R) : Different sense organs have different receptors for detecting stimuli.
Ans: b
4. Assertion (A) : Cytokinins are present in higher concentration in fruits and seeds.
Reason (R) : Cytokinns are responsible for promoting cell division
Ans: a
5. Assertion (A): During physical exercise, the demand of oxygen is increased, which compels the lungs
and heart to increase the rate of respiration and to increase the blood flow for proper supply of oxygen
respectively.
Reason (R ) : Coordination is the process through which two or more organs interact and complement
the functions of each other.
Ans: a
III Answer the following Questions
1. a) Plants respond to their surroundings. The diagram shows young cereal shoots which are placed in
different light conditions. Complete the diagrams to suggest how each of the shoots would appear after
two days.
b) Plant roots also respond to external stimuli. Describe the response of roots to gravity and explain how
this response benefits the plant.
Plant roots always grow down ward because specialized cells in root caps detect and respond to gravity.
This is an example of a tropism. A tropism is a turning toward or away from a stimulus in the
environment. Growing toward gravity is called geotropism.
Gravity plays a particularly important role during the early stages of seedling growth by stimulating a
negative gravitropic response in the primary shoot that orientates it towards the source of light, and a
positive gravitropic response in the primary root that causes it to grow down into the soil, providing
support .
2. Ram has met with an accident and after that he lost the capacity to :
a) walk in a straight line - Cerebellum
b) smell anything – Olfactory lobe
c) feel full after eating- Hypothalmus
d) involuntary actions like salivation- Medulla
Which part of the brain is damaged in each case?
3. What is geotropism? Describe an experiment to demonstrate positive and negative geotropism.

Geotropism is the movement of a plant in response to gravity
Soak some seeds of gram (or moong ) in water for one day.
2. Pierce slightly big holes (2 mm diameter) at the bottom of the cup.
3. Fill it with 1cm thick layer of garden soil.
4. Sprinkle soaked seeds (moon./gram) over the soil. Water the seeds.
5. Put the cup on 2 pieces wooden or stone slabs so that there is a little gap between the top of the table
and bottom of the cup.
6. Cover the lower part of the set-up with black paper.
7. Water the seeds regularly with little water
8. You will observe that tire roots come out from the holes and grow towards the Earth showing positive
geotropism.
4. a) label the part marked in the given figure. Mention functions of each.
b) How does forebrain carry out voluntary actions?
Name of the part of the functions

brain
a
b
c
d
Ans :
Name of the part functions
of the brain
a. Spinal cord Connect brain to PNS
b. Medulla Controls blood pressure, respiration, swallowing, sneezing,
coughing, salivation and vomiting.
c. Cerebellum Controls balance and equilibrium of the boby
d. Cerebrum Control muscle functions and also control speech, thought,
emotions, reading, writing, and learning.
5. What is meant by the term hormone. What are the characteristics of animal hormones?
Hormones are chemical substances that act like messenger molecules in the body. After being made in
one part of the body, they travel to other parts of the body where they help control how cells and organs
do their work. For example, insulin is a hormone that's made by the beta cells in the pancreas
Characteristics of animal hormones are
a. They are secreted by endocrine glands directly into the blood.
b. they act away from their site of production. .
c. They are required in small quantity.
d. deficiency or over secretions of hormones have negative effects in the body.
e. hormones are specific in their action
6. a) Why should we use iodised salt in our diet?

b) Name the deficiency disease and its symptoms if iodine is insufficient in one`s diet.
Ans: a) The thyroid gland requires iodine in order to produce the hormone thyroxine. This hormone
controls our body's fat, protein, and carbohydrate metabolism.
b) If the amount of iodine in your diet is insufficient, your thyroid gland will expand, causing your neck
to bulge. This condition is called goiter.
7. (i). Label the parts (a), (b), (c) and (d) and show the direction of flow of electrical signals in Figure
(ii) What does the figure depict? What are reflex actions? Give two examples.
Ans: (i) (a) sensory neuron (b) spinal cord (c) motor neuron (d) effector(muscle).
Reflex arc - On application of stimulus ---> receptor receives the msg ---> sensory neuron transmit msg
to CNS ----> spinal cord- takes the action--> motor neuron ----> effector(muscle and glands).
(iii) It is a rapid automatic, unconscious and involuntary response of the body to a stimulus without
involving the brain. Example-salivation of mouth at thought of good food, constriction of pupil in bright
light, sneezing, removing hand on touching hot plate.
8. Differentiate between
a) Sensory neurons and motor neurons
b) Receptors and effectors
c) The way in which muscle cells and cells of a sensitive plant change their shape
Ans: a) Sensory neuorons take information from receptors and transmit the impulses towards central
nervous system. Motor neurons carry message from control nervous system to the muscle, gland or an
organ to enable it to respond.
b) Receptors are cells, tissues or organs which receive the information in form of stimulus. For example,
photoreception, gustatory receptors, etc. Effectors are muscles, glands tissues or cells which respond
according to the information received through motor neuron from the central nervous system.
c)
9. What are the limitations to the use of electrical impulse?

Ans: The limitations to electrical impulse are
1. Only those cells used that are connected by nervous tissue, while other tissues do not receive the
information directly.
2. It takes some times to reset the mechanism of generation of new electrical impulse once an electrical
impulse had been generated.
10. The main difference between tropic and nastic movements is that tropic movement is a directional
movement of a plant part but nastic movement is not a directional movement of the plant part with
respect to the stimulus. Observe the experiment sets[A] and sets[B].
a) Describe the responses of shoot and root that are observed in sets [B]
b) Suggest an advantage for the roots growing downwards.
Ans:
a) Root is showing geotropism
Shoot shows phototropism
b) Roots can absorb water from the soil and anchor plants to the ground
c) The diagram shows a plant responding to light from one direction. Describe the changes that occur in
the shoot of a plant in response to light from one direction.
When plant receives light from one direction, the Auxins in the stem
start moving towards the area which is away from light. Thus,
the auxin concentration in this region increases due to which growth
takes place. Whereas the area of low auxin concentration exhibits no growth. This results in the bending
of the stem towards sunlight.
d) Why the touch –me-not (Mimosa pudica) plant leaves droop when touched?
Touch-me-not plant cells are filed with water.on being touched at the base of leaf,these cells loose water
and become flaccid so they droop .this type of movement is growth independent.
TOPIC: CONTROL AND COORDINATION (LEVEL 3)

____________
1. “Nervous and hormonal systems together perform the function of control and coordination in human
beings.” Justify the statement.
In humans, the nervous system is the most important, rather essential system for regulation, control and
coordination of body functions. It makes possible a range of adaptive responses to changes in the
environment. This system helps the individual to respond in a coordinated manner to environmental
changes, to control various movements and to prolong the life by protecting the body against harmful
stimuli. Coordination in humans is brought about by the secretions of endocrine glands. Endocrine
glands are the ductless glands, which secrete the chemical substances called hormones directly into the
blood. Any chemical substance, which is formed in the tissues of endocrine glands and are carried by the
blood to other parts of the body for its specific actions is termed as a hormone. An organ, which
responds to such a hormone, is known as the target organ. Hence, hormones and nervous system together
perform the function of control and coordination in the human beings.
2. While most of our actions are coordinated by the brain, still some of our actions need to be
coordinated by the spinal cord. Why?
Ans:Brain is the thinking part which coordinates the various activities and processes in human beings.
But, some actions which need to be quick, automatic and involuntary, do not involve any thinking
processes.
So, such immediate responses are coordinated by the spinal cord and are called reflex actions.
3. Why is the flow of signals in a synapse from axonal end of one neuron to dendritic end of another
neuron but not the reverse?
A nerve impulse travels in a form of electrical impulse from a neuronal axon end to the synapse. Here,
the electrical impulse is converted to the chemical impulse in the synaptic cleft. Further this nerve
impulse flows from synaptic cleft to dendritic tips, which converts the chemical impulse to electrical
impulse. The neurotransmitters required is synthesised only by axon terminals and the receptors required
to detect these chemical transmitters are only present on the dendritic ends. Thus, the impulse always
flows from one axonal end of a neuron to another dendron head of a neuron.
4. Explain how a squirrel responds a dangerous situation with help of its hormonal system.
Ans: When a squirrel perceives a dangerous situation, adrenaline hormone is released in its blood which
increases its heart beat and blood supply to tissues. This provides energy to its cells and tissues at a faster
rate and enables it to run away from emergency situation.
5. The level of hormones should be well balanced in human beings in order to maintain the normal
functioning of the human body. Explain this statement with two examples.
Ans: The level of hormones should be balanced in human beings because a deficiency or excess
secretion of some hormones can have adverse effects on the human body. For example,
A deficiency in the secretion of insulin from the pancreas increases the blood sugar level and causes
diabetes.
A deficiency in the secretion of growth hormone causes dwarfism whereas it excess secretion causes
gigantism.
TOPIC: HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE? (LEVEL 1)
WORKSHEET NO: 22
DATE: ____________

1. _______________is useful for the survival of species over time.
a) Variation b) Reproduction
c) Stability d) None of the above
2. In which of the following organisms, multiple fission takes place.

a) Amoeba b) Leishmania
c) Plasmodium d) All of the above
3. The flower is bisexual when it contains

a) only stamens b) only pistil
c) both stamens and pistil d) neither stamens nor pistil
4. The ovary releases at least ______egg every month.

a) one b) two
c) three d) four
5. During favourable conditions, Amoeba reproduces by

a) multiple fission b) binary fission
c) budding d) fragmentation
6. A feature of reproduction that is common to Amoeba, Yeast and Spirogyra is that

a) they reproduce asexually b) they are all unicellular
c) they reproduce only sexually d) they are all multicellular
7. The period during adolescence when the reproductive tissues begin to mature is called
a) Erection b) Germination
c) Puberty d) Propagation
9. The embryo in humans gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called
a) Placenta b) Villi
c) Uterus d) Womb
10. Which of the following is a sexually transmitted disease?

a) Diabetes b) AIDS
c) Cholera d) Scurvy
II Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
1. Assertion(A) : Asexual reproduction is a primitive type of reproduction.

Reason (R) : Asexual reproduction involves only mitotic cell division.
Ans - A
2. Assertion(A) : Spores are unicellular bodies.

Reason (R) : The parent body simply breaks up into smaller pieces on maturation to give rise to young
one in spirogyra .
Ans - B
3. Assertion(A): Pollen grains from the carpel stick to the stigma of stamen.
Reason (R) : The fertilised egg cells grow inside the ovules and become embryo.
Ans – D
4. Assertion(A) : The offspring produced by sexual reproduction is likely to adjust better in environmental
fluctuation.
Reason (R) : During the fusion of gametes there is mixing of genetic material from two parents.
Ans - A
5. Assertion(A): Testes lie in scrotum outside the body.

Reason (R) : Sperms require temperature lower than the body temperature for development.
Ans - A
III Answer the following questions
1. Define (i) fertilisation (ii) Pollination (iii) Variation ( iv) zygote (v) germination
Fertilization – Process of fusion of male and female gamete.

Pollination – Transfer of pollen grains from Anther to the stigma of a flower.
Zygote – Single cell resulting from the fusion of male and female gamete.
Germination – Process via which seeds develop into new plants.
2. Identify the asexual mode of reproduction in the following organisms:

a) Malarial parasite – Multiple fission b) Rhizopus – Spore c) Planaria – Regeneration
d) Hydra - budding
e) Spirogyra - Fragmentation f) Yeast- Budding g) Paramecium- Fission
h) Leishmania – Longitudinal binary fission

i) Amoeba – Binary fission
j) Sugarcane – Vegetative propagation
k) Jasmine- Vegetative propagation
l) Money plant – Vegetative propagation
3. Write three advantages of vegetative reproduction.

 Quicker and more certain.
 Produces identical quality as the parent.
 Plants that do not have viable seed, can be reproduced.
 Flowers produced are of superior quality.
 Desirable character of fruit can be maintained.
4. Label the marked parts of the flower.
5. How is a unisexual flower different from bisexual? Give one example of each type.
Unisexual Bisexual
Contain either male or female part. Contain both male and female parts.
Eg - Pumpkin Eg – Sunflower
6. Write the steps involved in Tissue Culture and mention its two advantages.
1. Initiation Phase: The tissue is initiated in the culture at this time. The tissue of interest is acquired,
introduced, and sterilized to avoid contamination.
2. Multiplication Phase: The sterile explant is placed in a medium containing growth regulator and required
nutrients. They are responsible for cell division and multiplication to produce an undifferentiated mass
of cells known as a callus.
3. Root Formation: At this stage, to start the root development process, hormones are given. The roots
begin to grow, and plantlets are formed.
4. Shoot Formation: Plant hormones are administered to promote the formation of shoots, and growth is
monitored for a week.
5. Acclimatization: When plants begin to grow, they are moved to a greenhouse where they can grow in a
controlled environment. Finally, they are delivered to the nurseries.
Advantages -The new plantlets can be grown in a short amount of time. Only a small amount of initial
plant tissue is required. The new plantlets and plants are more likely to be free of viruses and diseases.
7. Below is a diagram of a germinating seed. Identify and label the

(i) Part that gives rise to the shoot system – Plumule - A
(ii) Part that gives rise to root system – Radicle - B
(iii) Part that contains stored food – Cotyledon - D
8. Label the Marked parts in the male reproductive system.
9. Identify the parts of the human female reproductive system and state the parts where the following
occur –
(i) release of egg – B – Ovary
(ii) fertilization – a – Fallopian tube
(ii) implantation – c - uterus
10. CASE STUDY
A newly married couple does not want to have children for a few years. They consulted a doctor who
advised them on the barrier method and chemical method of birth control. Yet another couple who already
have two children and are middle aged also consulted a doctor for some permanent solution to avoid
unwanted pregnancy. Doctor advised them to use a surgical method of birth control.
i. What are the barrier methods of birth control? What is the advantage of using such a method?
Barrier methods of birth control act as barriers to keep sperm from reaching the egg. Some barrier
methods also protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). A few barrier methods (spermicide,
condom, and sponge) can be bought in most drugstores. Others (diaphragm and cervical cap) must be
prescribed by a health care professional.
ii. Distinguish between barrier and chemical method of birth control?
While barrier methods keep eggs and sperm physically separated, hormonal contraception works by
preventing ovulation so you can’t get pregnant.
iii. How is the surgical method of contraception different in males and females?
Males – Vas defernces is cut
Females – Fallopian tubes are cut and tied
iv. In case the first couple does get pregnant accidentally what option is available to them to prevent having
a child?
MTP or Abortion
WORKSHEET NO: 23
DATE: ____________
1.The hormone responsible for male sexual characters is also known as

a) Testosterone b) Progesterone
c) Estrogen d) Growth Hormone
2. The process of release of eggs from the ovary is called

a) menstruation b) reproduction
c) insemination d) ovulation
3. Choose the correct sequence showing the route a sperm takes when it gets deposited in the vagina.
4. The flower of the Hibiscus plant is

a) bisexual b) unisexual
c) neuter d) very small
5. Along the path of the vas-deferens the secretions of which gland provide nutrition to the sperms?
a) Prostate glands b) Scrotum
c) Urinary bladder d) Seminal vesicles
6. In human males, the testes lie in the scrotum, because it helps in the
a) process of mating b) easy transfer of gametes
c) formation of sperms d) secretion of oestrogen.
7. The duct coming from the urinary bladder which carries both sperm and urine is.
a) Ureter b) Oesophagus
c) Urethra d) Fallopian tube
8. The term used to refer to the commencement of menstruation at puberty is

a) Menopause b) Fertilization
c) Menarche d) Ovulation.
9. Ability to reproduce in a female is lost after__________.

a) Menopause b) Menstruation
c) Old age d) Ovulation.
10. At the point of entering into the ovule the pollen tube has.
a) One male germ cell b) Two male germ cells.
c) Four male germ cells d) One female germ cell
1. Assertion(A) : In a bisexual flower in spite of the young stamens being removed artificially, the
flower produces fruit.
Reason (R) : Pistil is intact and cross pollination can result in fertilization.
Ans - a
2. Assertion(A) : Placenta is responsible for transfer of nutrients to the foetus.

Reason (R) : When the placenta gets damaged it may reduce the amount of blood circulating between the
foetus and the mother, resulting in fewer nutrient supply to the baby.
Ans - a
3. Assertion(A): Hilary is not getting her menstrual cycle since last month.
Reason (R) : Her tubectomy may be the reason for the same.
Ans - b
4. Assertion(A) : Prenatal sex determination is banned in India.

Reason (R) : Widespread female foeticide has skewed the gender ratio.
Ans - a
5. Assertion(A): Irfan got a vasectomy as he did not want any more children.
Reason (R) : He will no longer eject semen.
Ans - c
III Answer the following questions
1. With reference to the male reproductive system answer the following questions.
i. What would be the likely consequence of a damaged seminal vesicles and prostate gland?
Pain while ejaculation due to less secretions of these glands which aid in smooth transfer of sperms.
ii. Draw the flowchart detailing the path taken by sperms from testis to outside the male reproductive
system.
Testis – Vas deferens – Urethra - Penis
2. What happens in the following cases?

i) Planaria is accidentally cut into many pieces – each piece will regenerate
ii) Bryopyllum leaf falls on wet soil – the plantlets in leaf margins will form new plants
iii) On maturation sporangia of Rhizopus bursts – The spores will give rise to new individuals provided
conditions are favourable
3. Why do you think complex organisms do not give rise to new individuals via regeneration?
Tissues in complex organisms are highly specialised to perform different functions and are specialized.
4. Regeneration is not considered an actual mode of reproduction. Justify

Reproduction makes a whole new organism from a gamete while in regeneration lost body part is
developed from existing body part.
5. Differentiate between self and cross pollination giving suitable examples of each.
Self-pollination occurs when the pollen from the anther is deposited on the stigma of the same flower, or
another flower on the same plant. Cross-pollination is the transfer of pollen from the anther of one
flower to the stigma of another flower on a different individual of the same species.
6. With reference to the female reproductive system answer the following questions.
I. Describe the structure and function of placenta.
Placenta is a disc like organ embedded in the uterine wall of the females. It has villi on the embryo's side
and on the mother are blood capillaries which surround the villi.
It provides a very large surface area for the exchange of glucose and oxygen. It provides nourishment to
the embryo.It helps in the excretion and provides immunity to the foetus.
ii. What happens to the zygote after implantation.
The fertilized egg (zygote) divides repeatedly as it moves down the fallopian tube to the uterus. First,
the zygote becomes a solid ball of cells. Then it becomes a hollow ball of cells called a blastocyst. Inside
the uterus, the blastocyst implants in the wall of the uterus, where it develops into an embryo attached to
a placenta and surrounded by fluid-filled membranes.
7. What changes occur in the uterus in the following cases?

i)If Fertilization occurs – The wall becomes thick and richly supplied with blood vessels.
ii) If fertilization does not occur – The thick lining comes out in the form of blood and mucus,
menstruation (Also mention the name)
8. Identify the method of reproduction given below in the picture
a) Give an example of an organism which reproduces by this method - Rhizopus

b) What is X? Give the importance of it -Sporangia, protects the spores from unfavourable conditions.
c) How will an organism be benefited, if it reproduces by this method?
The sporangia due to its hard exterior protects the spores from unfavourable conditions.
d) Name the tubular thread-like structures bearing sporangia at their tips.
Rhizoids
9. Observe the picture given below and answer the following questions
Label the marked part- a, b, c, d, e, f.
What is the future of (f) and (e) in the picture after fertilization?
E becomes fruit and F becomes seed.
10. X, Y and Z are three sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). X and Z are caused by bacteria whereas Y is
caused by virus P. Virus P lowers the immunity of a person and leads to an incurable disease. X starts as
painless sores on the genitals, rectum or mouth. Z causes painful urination and abnormal discharge from
genitals.
I. Select the option that correctly identifies disease X, Y and Z?
Ans - b
ii.Identify virus P from the given paragraph.

Ans - HIV
iii. Select the incorrect statement regarding diseases X and Y.
a) Both X and Y can spread from infected mother to unborn baby during pregnancy.
b) Both X and Y can spread from infected partner to healthy partner by unprotected sex.
c) Y can also spread through use of contaminated needles and blood transfusion.
d) X is incurable.

____________
1. Menstrual cycle is the cycle of events taking place in female reproductive organs, under the control of
sex hormones, in every 28 days. At an interval of 28 days, a single egg is released from either of two
ovaries. Rupa’s regular menstrual cycle stopped abruptly. She got herself tested and was happy to
discover that she is pregnant with her first baby.
(i) Why does menstruation stop in a pregnant female?

The uterus lining is needed for the embryo development and so it does not come out as blood or mucus.
(ii) Select the correct sequence of acts that leads to pregnancy in a female.
A. Fertilisation of egg
B. Ovulation
C. Formation of zygote
D. Implantation
Ans - b
(iii) How is a zygote different from an embryo?

Zygote is single celled while embryo is multicell.
(iv) Define gestation period.

It is the fetal developmental period from conception till birth
2. X, Y and Z are sexually reproducing organisms. Fertilization occurs either in an external medium
(water) or inside the body of an organism. Thus, two types of gametic fusion are external fertilization
and internal fertilization. X undergoes external fertilization whereas Y and Z undergo internal
fertilization. X and Y both release their eggs outside their body.
(i) Select the option that correctly identifies organisms X, Y and Z.
Ans - b
(ii) Select the correct statement regarding organisms X and Y.

(a) Y produces a large number of eggs where X produces a single egg at a time.
(b) Fertilisation in case of X occurs in water but fertilisation occurs inside the body of Y.
(c) X could be a reptile whereas Y could be fish or amphibian.
(d) Eggs of X are covered by a hard calcareous shell whereas eggs of Y are covered in
jelly.
(iii) Select the incorrect statement regarding organisms Y and Z.

(a) Y is oviparous whereas Z is viviparous.
(b) Zygote develops to complete the baby in the bodies of organisms Y and Z.
(c) Y could be a bird or reptile whereas Z could be a mammal.
(d) Both Y and Z copulate with their female counterparts to transfer sperm in their bodies.
(iv) Select the correct match.

(a) Eggs with calcareous shells - Parrot, King Cobra, Salmon
(b) Eggs with jelly covering - Toad, Eagle, Lizard
(c) Eggs without shell - Cat, Dog, Human
(d) Eggs produced in large numbers at a time - Rohu, Human, Python
(v) Why are eggs of animal X covered in jelly?

(a) To keep the eggs moist and offer some protection from predators
(b) To prevent the egg from breaking
(c) To prevent fertilization of eggs
(d) All of these
3. A woman used a device X made of common metal for preventing pregnancy. This device was put into
her uterus by some trained medical professional. Unfortunately, she got pregnant after two months of
insertion of the device. She was in shock to learn that her birth control device had failed.
(i) What is the name of the birth control device used by the woman? IUD
(ii) Which metal is commonly used for making device X? Copper
(iii) How does device X prevent pregnancy? Copper acts as a spermicide
(iv) Why do you think the woman got pregnant even after using device X? Dislocation of
IUD, it may slip from the uterus and get lodged into the cervix.
4. Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below:
1. Assertion(A) : Meiosis takes place in gametes.

Reason (R) : To restore the total number of chromosomes in an offspring.
Ans - a
2. Assertion(A) : Lumen of fallopian tube is lined by ciliated columnar epithelium.
Reason (R) : Ciliated epithelium helps in moving the zygote towards the uterus for implantation.
Ans - a
5. The diagram shows the arrangement of blood vessels in the uterus wall and placenta of a pregnant woman.
Which of the following will increase in concentration in the blood as it flows from 1 and 2?
a)Amino acids b)Carbon Dioxide c)Glucose
d)Oxygen
Placenta functions as a carrier of nutrients from mother to baby. Thus all of amino acids, glucose, and
oxygen will decrease in the concentration at 2 since all of them are transferred to the baby at 1 because it
has a low concentration of all. However, due to metabolic processes and lack of excretory mechanism
baby’s blood has a high concentration of carbon dioxide, which will be transferred to mother’s blood
because her blood has low CO2 concentration. Thus at 2 blood is coming at high CO2 concentration.
TOPIC: HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION (LEVEL 1)

____________
I. Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is totally impossible outcome of Mendel’s Experiment?
a) 3 tall 1 short plant b) 24 tall and 8 short plants
c) 8 tall and 0 short plants d) 4 tall plants and 1 medium height
plant.
2. Which of the following is not a direct conclusion that can be drawn from Mendel’s Experiment?
a) Only one parental trait is expressed
b) Two copies of each trait are inherited in sexually reproducing organism
c) For recessive trait to be expressed, both copies should be identical
d) Natural selection can alter frequency of an inherited trait.
3. Which section of DNA provides information for one protein?

a) Nucleus b) Chromosomes
c) Trait d) Gene
4. If a normal cell of human body contains 46 pairs of chromosomes, then the numbers of chromosomes
in a sex cell of a human being is most likely to be:
a) 60 b) 23
c) 22 d) 40
5. What is the probability that the male progeny will be a boy?

a) 50% b) 56%
c) 47.43% d) It varies
6. Homologous organ has

a) Same structure, same function b) Different structure, different function
c) Same structure, different function d) different structure, same function
7. The following results were obtained by a scientist who crossed the F1 generation of pure-breeding
parents for round and wrinkled seeds.
Dominants Recessive No. of
trait trait F2 offspring
Wrinkled
Round seeds 7524
seeds
From these results, it can be concluded that the actual number of round seeds he obtained was:
a) 1881 b) 22572
c) 2508 d) 5643
8. Which is the one characteristic of the parents that can be inherited by their children?
a) Deep scar on chin b) Snub nose
c) Technique of swimming d) Cut nose
9. What could be the reason for the fossil of an organism to be found in the deeper layers of the earth?
a) The extinction of organism has occurred few years back
b) The extinction of organism has occurred thousands of years ago
c) The position of fossil in the layers of earth is not related to its time of extinction
d) Time of extinction cannot be determined.
10. Evolution of wild cabbage is an example of:

a) Artificial selection b) Natural selection
c) Mutation d) Genetic drift
II. Assertion Reasoning questions

DIRECTION: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a corresponding
statement of Reason is given just below it. Of the statements, given below, mark the correct answer as:
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
1. Assertion: When pure breed tall plants are crossed with pure breed short plants, all the plants in
F1 progeny are tall. When the tall plants of F1 progeny are crossed, short plants re-appear in F2 progeny.
Reason: Traits are independently inherited.
Answer: a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
2. Assertion: Variation is high in sexually reproducing organisms compared to asexually reproducing
organisms.
Reason: Inaccuracies during DN A copying give rise to variation.
Answer: b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
3. Assertion: Acquired trait cannot be passed on from one generation to next generation.
Reason: Inaccuracy during DNA copying of acquired trait is minimum.
Answer: c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
4. Assertion: Human, frog and bird have a common ancestor.

Reason: Limbs of human, bird and frog are homologous.
Answer: a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is A
5. Assertion: Speciation is the reproductive isolation amongst once interbreeding population.

Reason: Genetic drift, Natural selection and Severe DNA change can cause speciation.
Answer: a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
III. Answer the following questions
1. Match the following:
Column I Column II
a) Variation (A) Reproductive isolation among once inter-breeding population.
b) Heredity (B) Difference in individuals of a species.
c) Evolution (C) Gradual changes to give rise to new species.
d) Speciation (D) Transmission of traits from parents to offspring.
Ans:
a) (B)
1. (D)
2. (C)
3. (A)
2. Give reasons:
a) No two individuals are absolutely alike in a population.
b) Variations are more in human beings.
Ans:
a) It is because of the variations which take place during DNA copying.
b) Because human being reproduce sexually and variation are more in sexually reproducing organ.
3. Given below are some characters in garden pea plant. Write any two traits of the given characters.
Write genotype for the purebred (homozygous) dominant trait, purebred (homozygous) recessive trait
and hybrid (heterozygous) organisms.
4. Mendel crossed a purebred tall plant having round seeds with a short plant having wrinkled seeds.
Various genotypes were found in the F2 generation. Write the phenotype of the given below
genotypes.
Genotype Phenotype
TTRR
TrRr
TTRr
ttRR
ttRr
5. How does the creation of variations in a species promote survival?
Ans: Sometimes for a species, the environmental conditions change so drastically that their survival
becomes difficult. For example, if the temperature of water increases suddenly, most of the bacteria
living in that water would die. Only few variants resistant to heat would be able to survive. If these
variants were not there, then the entire species of
bacteria would have been destroyed. Thus, these variants help in the survival of the species. However,
not all variations are useful. Therefore, these are not necessarily beneficial for the individual
organisms.
6.
a) Why is the progeny always tall when a tall pea plant is crossed with a short pea plant?
b) A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding pea plants bearing violet flowers with pea plants
bearing white flowers. What will be the result in F1 progeny?
Ans:
1. Some genes are dominant and others are recessive. Tallness is a dominant trait and hence the
progeny is always tall when crossed with a short plant.
2.
All plants in Fj generation will bear violet flowers.
7. The gene type of green stemmed tomato plant is denoted as GG and that of purple stemmed tomato
plant as gg.
Answer the following with the observation when these two plants are crossed.
a) What colour of stem would you expect in F1 progeny?
b) Give the percentage of purple stemmed plants, if F1 offspring are self-pollinated?
c) In what ratio would you find the gene types GG and Gg in F2 progeny?
d) What do you mean by F1 and F2 progeny?
e) Is it a monohybrid or dihybrid cross? Write the suitable cross for the above.
Ans: a) Colour of F1 progeny – Green.
b) Percentage of purple stemmed plants in the F2 generation is ¼ or 25 %.

c) Ratio of genotypes GG and Gg - 1: 2.
d) The F1 generation is the first generation of offspring produced by a set of parents. The 'F' in F1
stands for 'filial.' So, in short, F1 means 'first filial generation'. The F2 generation is the second filial
generation obtained by self-crossing the F1 generation.
e) Yes, it is a monohybrid cross.
8.
a) What factors could lead to the rise of a new species?
b) Explain the term analogous organs and homologous organs with examples.
Ans:
a) Genetic drift.
Natural selection.
Genetic mutation.
Geographical isolation.
Reproductive isolation.
Environmental factors on the isolated populations.
d) Homologous Organs: (Morphological and anatomical evidences. These are the organs that have
same basic structural plan and origin but different functions.
Homologous organs provide evidence for evolution by telling us that they are derived from the same
ancestor.
Example
Forelimb of Horse (Running)
Same basic structural plan, but
Winds of bat (flying)
different functions perform.
Paw of a cat (walk/scratch/attack)
Analogous Organs: These are the organs that have different origin and structural plan but same
function.
Analogous organs provide mechanism for evolution.
Example
Wings of bat Elongated fingers with skin folds Different basic structure, but
perform similar function i.e.,
Wings of bird Feathery covering along the arm flight.
9. Define the terms
Speciation, Evolution, Phenotype, Genotype, Homozygous, Heterozygous, Genes, Alleles
Ans:
Speciation - Speciation refers to the process of how a new kind of animal or plant species is formed. It
is an evolutionary process that leads to the formation of a new and distinct species that is reproductively
isolated from another species.
Evolution - Evolution is a process witnessed in living entities wherein gradual changes are observed in
the characteristics of species over generations attributed to the process of natural selection.Evolution is
a process that results in changes in the genetic material of a population over time. Evolution reflects the
adaptations of organisms to their changing environments and can result in altered genes, novel traits,
and new species.
Phenotype – It is the description of the actual physical characteristics of an organism, the way the
genotype is expressed.
Genotype – It is the complete heritable genetic identity of an organism. It is the actual set of alleles that
are carried by the organism. This includes even the alleles that are not expressed, which means even the
alleles that do not influence a specific trait that they code for.
Homozygous – Each organism has two alleles for every gene. (Each chromosome has one each) If both
the alleles are same then it is called homozygous. If tallness is the trait, then it is expressed as “TT”
Heterozygous – If the two alleles are different from each other, then they are heterozygous in nature. If
tallness is the trait, then it is expressed as “Tt”.
Gene – It is the basic unit of inheritance. It consists of a sequence of DNA, which is the genetic material.
A point to be noted here is that genes can mutate and can take two or more alternative forms.
Alleles – The alternative forms of genes which arise as a result of mutation. They are found in the same
place on the chromosome and effect the same characteristic or trait but in alternative forms.
10. Case Study-
Mendel was educated in a monastery and went on to study science and mathematics at the University
of Vienna. Failure in the examinations for a teaching certificate did not suppress his zeal for scientific
quest. He went back to his monastery and started growing peas. Many others had studied the
inheritance of traits in peas and other organisms earlier. Mendel blended his knowledge of science and
mathematics and was the first one to keep count of individuals exhibiting a particular trait in each
generation. This helped him to arrive at the laws of inheritance.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions.
a) Why did Mendel select a pea plant for his experiments?
b) The given picture represents the alleles for flower colour in pea plants.
Flower “Y” has same colour as that of flower “X”. Why?
c) Study the picture below that represents traits studied by Mendel in garden pea.
Identify the dominant trait in pod colour.

d) When a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (tt),what will be the ratio of pure tall plants
to short plants in F2 ? Justify your answer.
e) Identify the recessive train in cotyledon colour and stem size.
f) When a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a heterozygous tall plant (Tt),what will be the ratio of
pure tall plants to short plants in F2 generation?
Ans:
a) The pea plant can be easily grown and has several contrasting characters. Many generations can
be studied within short period of time.
b) Flowers X and Y have same colour because their genotype consists of a dominant allele. The
dominant allele expresses itself even in the presence of recessive allele. X and Y both have same
colour because they both have dominant allele B.
c) Yellow pod colour.
d) The ratio would be 1:1
e) Green cotyledon colour and short stem.

f) The ratio would be 1:1

____________
1. The process of evolution of a species whereby characteristics which help individual organisms to
survive and reproduce are passed on to their offspring and those characteristics which do not help are
not passed on is called
a) Artificial selection b) Speciation

c) Hybridization d) Natural selection
2. Pure-bred pea plant A is crossed with pure-bred pea plant B. It is found that the plants which look like
A do not appear in F1 generation but re-emerge in F2 generation. Which of the plants A and B are tall
and dwarf?
a) A are tall and B are dwarf. b) A are tall and B are also tall.
c) A are dwarf and B are also dwarf d) A are dwarf and B are tall
3. Which of the following is an example of genetic variation?

a) One person has a scar, but his friend does not.
b) One person is older than another.
c) Rita eats meat, but her sister Geeta is a vegetarian.
d) Two children have different eye colours.
4. The more characteristics two species have in common:

a) More closely they are related and more recently they had a common ancestor.
b) More distantly they are related and more recently they have common ancestors.
c) More closely they are related and more distantly they have common ancestors.
d) More distantly they are related and more distantly they have common ancestors.
5. What is the difference between genetic drift and change due to natural selection?
a) Genetic drift does not require the presence of variation.
b) Genetic drift never occurs in nature, natural selection does.
c) Genetic drift does not involve competition between members of a species.
d) There is no difference.
6. Which of the following characters can be acquired but not inherited?
a) Colour of skin b) Size of body

c) Colour of eyes d) Texture of hair
7. Some dinosaurs had feathers although they could not fly but birds have feathers that help them to fly.
In the context of evolution this means that
a) reptiles have evolved from birds
b) there is no evolutionary connection between reptiles and birds
c) feathers are homologous structures in both the organisms
d) birds have evolved from reptiles.
8. What will be the number of chromosomes present in each gamete produced by the plants if the palisade
cells of a species of plant contain 28 chromosomes in all?
a) 56 b) 28
c) 14 d) 4
9. A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a
a) Boy b) girl
c) X- chromosome does not d) either boy or girl
determine the sex of a child
10. A basket of vegetables contains carrot, potato, radish and tomato. Which of them represent the correct
homologous structures?
a) Carrot and potato b) Carrot and tomato

c) Radish and carrot d) Radish and potato
II. Assertion Reasoning questions

DIRECTION: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a corresponding
statement of Reason is given just below it. Of the statements, given below, mark the correct answer as:
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b)Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
1. Assertion: Mutation is sudden change in the genetic material.

Reason: Variation is useful for the survival of species over time.
Answer: b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion.
2. Assertion: The sex of a child is determined by the mother.
Reason: Humans have two types of sex chromosomes: XX and XY.
Answer: d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
3. Assertion: Geographical isolation cannot be a major factor in speciation of an asexually reproducing
organism.
Reason: Asexually reproducing organisms do not require any other organism for reproduction.
Answer: a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is A
4. Assertion: A geneticist crossed two plants and got 50% tall and 50% dwarf progenies.
Reason: This cross follows Mendelian law as one of the parent plants might be heterozygous.
the Assertion.
5. Assertion: Genes present in every cell of an organism control the traits of the organisms.
Reason: Gene is specific segment of DNA occupying specific position on a chromosome.
the Assertion.
6. Assertion: Men have either ‘X’ or ‘Y’ chromosome as the sex chromosome.
Reason: Men have a mismatched pair of sex chromosome.
Answer: d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
III. Answer the following questions

1. Write difference between acquired and inherited characters?
Ans: Inherited traits are the characters which are inherited by the offspring from the parents. These
traits are present in the form of genetic material, DNA. These traits are expressed in the offspring and
later carried on to next generation. Such traits which are carried from one generation to another
generation are called as inherited traits.
Acquired traits as the name says are acquired by the individual during its life time. Acquired traits
are due to changes in the life style, injury, loss of body parts, disuse of some body parts. These are the
traits which occur in the somatic cells. Changes in the somatic cells are not passed on to the offspring
belonging to next generation.
2. What is natural selection and genetic drift?
Ans: Natural selection is the process whereby organisms better adapted to their environment tend to
survive and produce more offspring, whereas other less favourable traits tend to become eliminated.
Genetic drift refers to the random changes or alterations in gene frequencies that usually occurs in a
small population and results from chance processes alone. It can result in genetic traits being lost from
a population
3. Is the consistency of DNA coping important during reproduction?
Ans: a) Yes . To maintain body design.
4. In an experiment, Mendel obtained 1014 plants, out of which 787 were having round seeds and 227
had wrinkled seeds in F2 generation:
a) What was the approximate ratio obtained in F2 generation?
b) Under which law do you find this ratio?
c) Why is this law so called?
Ans: a) 3:1
b) law of dominance
c) It is the phenomenon of expression of only one allele out of the alleles present in a heterozygous
or hybrid individual. The allele which expresses its effect in the hybrid is called dominant factor or
allele. The other allele which is unable to show its effect in the hybrid is known as recessive factor
or allele.
5. In rabbits, grey hair is dominant over white hair and black eyes are dominant over red eyes. A male
pure-bred rabbit having grey hair and red eyes is crossed with a female pure-bred rabbit having white.
a) What will be the genotype and phenotype of the offsprings obtained from the above cross?
b) What are the phenotypes of the rabbits that have the following genotype?
(i) Ggbb (ii) ggBB
c) Write all possible genotypic expressions for

(i) Grey hairs and white hairs in rabbits. (ii) Black eyes and red eyes in rabbit.
d) List out all possible gametes produced by a hybrid male rabbit having grey hair and black eyes.
Ans:
a) Genotype- GgBb and phenotype- grey hair and black eyes
b) (i) Ggbb- Grey hairs and red eyes (ii) ggBB- White hairs and black eyes
c) (i)Grey hair- GG/Gg White hair- gg (ii) Black eyes- BB/Bb Red eyes- bb
d) GB, Gb, gB, gb
6. A blue colour flower plant denoted by BB is crossbred with that of white colour flower plant denoted
by bb.
a) State the colour of flower you would expect in their F1 generation plants.
b) What must be the percentage of white flower plants in F2 generation if flowers of F1 plants are
self-pollinated?
c) State the expected ratio of the genotypes BB and Bb in the F2 progeny.
d) Support your answer with the help of a suitable cross.
Ans: a) Blue b) 25% c) BB:Bb= 1:2 d)
7. Both birds and bat have wings. What name is given to this relationship? What do you conclude from
this?
Ans: Analogous organs. The wings of the bird are made up of feathers that extend all along the arm.
However, the wings of bats consist of flaps of skin that stretch between the bones of the fingers but
the wings of both organisms perform the similar function of flying. In both cases, the wings are used
for flying. These animals would have to adapt to the same ecological niche as other organisms. Hence,
they may have evolved similar organs.
8. Why do mice whose tails were surgically removed just after birth for generations, continue to produce
mice with tails?
Ans: Because cutting of tail is an acquired trait and is not inherited.
9. List three factors that provide evidences in favour of evolution in organisms.
Ans:
 Homologous organs
 Analogous organs
 Fossils
10. Case Study
(i) Ashima saw a female being blamed by the family members for producing a girl child. She
approached them and told that the genetic basis of sex determination of human beings clearly
indicates that only the female should not be blamed for producing a girl child. The family members
agreed to her argument and felt sorry for their act.
a) A couple has four daughters. What is the possibility of their having a girl next time? Justify your
answer.
b) What is the basis of sex determination in human beings?
c) What values were shown by Ashima in dealing with the situation?
d) Pratima feels sad because her husband Rajan taunts her for having only daughters and no son.
As a science student how will you convince Rajan that his wife has no role in giving birth to girls
only?
e) Name two organisms in which sex determination is regulated by environmental factors.
Ans:
a) The possibility of having a girl or boy child is equal i.e.,50% as 50 % male gametes are Y type
and 50% are X type. Fusion of egg with X type sperm will produce a girl child.
b) Sex in human beings is genetically determined by the sperm of the father.
c) Care for Others, Knowledge, Intelligent, Responsibility, scientific temperament.
d) By telling Rajan that sex of the child is determined at the time of conception. Women are
homogametic, i.e., they produce only one type of ova (22 + X). Males are heterogametic. They
produce two types of sperms, (22+ Y) and (22 + X). The two types of sperms are formed in
equal proportion. It is chance factor that (22 + X) fuses with the ovum (22 + X and 22 + X)
resulting in the female child. The same chance is possible for the second and even the third
time. In any case, for the sex of the child, only the father is responsible.
e) Turtle, Lizard.
(ii)
a) Identify the mode of reproduction represented in the above figure. Name an organism that
reproduces by the above method.
b) Write one advantage and one disadvantage of the above mode of reproduction.
c) Organisms in 2nd and 3rd row are similar but subtly different from each other. Give reason.
d) Are these differences beneficial for the species? Justify your answer.
Ans:
a) Asexual reproduction/binary fission
Bacteria/paramecium/ euglena / amoeba / leishmania
b) Advantage- results in large number of offspring at a rapid rate
Disadvantage- minimal variation
c) Due to errors in DNA copying
d) Beneficial: gives survival advantage
organisms adapt to changing ecological niche
(iii) Anthocyanin is a pigment responsible for the purple color in flowers of pea plants. They found that
a gene ‘A’ encodes for a protein that controls the synthesis of anthocyanin and hence produces
purple flowers. An allele ‘a’ codes for a non-efficient protein which interrupts anthocyanin
production. Hence produces white flowers.
a) Where are genes located in a pea plant?
b) Identify the dominant and recessive trait and justify based on the above information.
c) If a plant having genotype ‘Aa’ is crossed with a plant having genotype ‘aa’. What will be the
phenotypic ratio of the progeny?
d) If a plant having genotype ‘AA’ is crossed with a plant having genotype ‘Aa’. What will be the
phenotype/s and genotype/s of the progeny?
Ans:
a) Chromosome/chromatin network/DNA found in the nucleus
b) Dominant trait- purple flower
Recessive trait- white flower
Reason – allele ‘a’ codes for non-efficient protein that interrupts anthocyanin production
producing white flowers
c) 1:1
Purple: white
d) Phenotype: all flowers are purple
Genotype: AA, Aa
WORKSHEET NO: 27
DATE: ____________

1. The four o’clock plant, Mirabilis jalapa, can have flowers of three different colours as shown in the
following figure.
Student crossed some crimson-flowered plants with some yellow-flowered plants (cross 1). She
collected the seeds and grew them. All of the plants that grew from these seeds had orange-red flowers.
Complete the genetic diagram to explain the result of cross 1.
a)
b) The student then carried out three further crosses as shown in following Table. Complete the given
Table by writing the genotypes of the offspring of crosses 2, 3 and 4 (using the same symbols as
in the previous genetic diagram).
Ans:
a) Ac, AY
Offspring genotype- ACAY
Offspring phenotype- orange-red
b)
2. Some species of plants are self-pollinated. Discuss the long-term effects of self-pollination on the
evolution of these plants.
Ans:
limited / little, variation.
offspring become homozygous (over time)
variation is due to mutation
low chance that mutations will be expressed
offspring will be well adapted to conditions, locally / near parent if environment does not
change
 limited / no, opportunity for evolution, if environment changes
3. Haemoglobin is a large protein molecule. The structure of each haemoglobin molecule is
controlled by a gene that has two alleles:
 HbA codes for the normal form of haemoglobin,
 HbS codes for an abnormal form of haemoglobin.
Red blood cells containing only the abnormal form of haemoglobin become a stiff, sickle shape in
conditions of low oxygen concentration. This gives rise to sickle cell anaemia. People who are
heterozygous for the gene for haemoglobin produce both the normal and abnormal forms of
haemoglobin. These people show no symptoms or have very mild symptoms known as sickle cell trait.
a) Describe the harmful effects on the body of having red blood cells which become sickle-shaped.
b) What is the chance of a child born to this couple having sickle cell anaemia?
c) Discuss whether sickle cell trait is an example of codominance.
Ans:
a)
 fewer red blood cells
 less elastic / less flexible, red blood cells
 less haemoglobin
 haemoglobin / blood, less efficient at transporting
 oxygen
 less respiration
 less energy / fatigue / exhaustion / less active / feeling faint / breathlessness
 capillaries are blocked
 increased chance of thrombosis
 death of tissues linked to oxygen supply
 slow / poor, growth
 reduced life span
b) 25%
c)
 both alleles / HbA and HbS, are expressed
 both alleles make two different forms of haemoglobin
 if dominant / recessive, then only one form of haemoglobin in heterozygous people
 three phenotypes (not two) / sickle cell trait is a different phenotype from normal and sickle cell
anaemia
4. Snapdragon plants have flowers with three colours: red, pink and white. Some students investigated
the inheritance of flower colour in snapdragons. In cross 1 they cross-pollinated plants that were
homozygous for red flowers with plants that were homozygous for white flowers. They collected and
planted the seeds from cross 1. All of the resulting plants had pink flowers.
In cross 2 they self-pollinated all the pink-flowered plants and found that in the next
generation there were red-flowered plants, white-flowered plants and pink-flowered plants.
Complete the genetic diagrams to show how flower colour is inherited in snapdragon
plants. Use the symbol IR for the allele for red flowers and IW for the allele for white flowers.
Ans:
5. Snapdragon plants have flowers with three colours: red, pink and white. Explain the advantages of
sexual reproduction to a species of flowering plant, such as the snapdragon.
Ans:
 Mutation can occur in meiosis /(gives) variation / diversity
 Allows mutations to be, expressed
 Allows adaptation to, new conditions / changed environment
 (New species) can evolve / allows natural selection to occur
 Seeds are dispersed and can colonise new areas; less competition (with parent plant / among
offspring)
TOPIC: LIGHT – REFLECTION AND REFRACTION (LEVEL 1)

____________
WORKSHEET NO: 29
DATE: ____________
WORKSHEET NO: 30 DATE: ______
LEVEL: 1
Multiple choice questions:
1. A concave mirror gives real, inverted and point size image if the object is placed
a) At F b) At infinity c) At C d) Beyond C
2. Rahul conducts an experiment using an object of height 10 cm and a concave lens with
focal length 20 cm. The object is placed at a distance of 25 cm from the lens. Can the image
be formed on a screen?
a) yes, as the image formed will be real b) yes, as the image formed will be erect
c) no, as the image formed will be virtual d) no, as the image formed will be inverted
3. A student conducts an activity using a flask of height 15 cm and a concave mirror. He finds that
the image formed is 45 cm in height. What is the magnification of the image?
a) -3 b) -1/ 3
c) 1/ 3 d) 3
4. In torches, search lights and headlights of vehicles the bulb is placed

a) between the pole and the focus of the reflector
b) at the focus of the reflector
c) between the focus and centre of curvature of the reflector
d) at the centre of curvature of the reflector
5. Which of the following statement is true?

a) A convex lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
b) A convex lens has -4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
c) A concave lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
d) A concave lens has -4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m.
6. A student conducts an experiment using a convex lens. He places the object at a distance of 60 cm
in front of the lens and observes that the image is formed at a distance of 30 cm behind the lens.
What is the power of the lens?
a) 0.005 dioptre b) 0.05 dioptre
c) 5 dioptre d) 50 dioptre
7. Magnification produced by a concave lens

a) is less than one b) is more than one
c) is equal to one d) can be more than or less than one
8.The focal length of a mirror is 15 cm. The radius of curvature is

a) 20cm b 30cm
c) 7.5cm d) 45cm
9. The image formed by a convex lens can be

a) virtual and magnified b) virtual and diminished
c) virtual and of same size d) virtual image is not formed
10. Which of the following can make a parallel beam of light when light from a point source is
incident on it?
a) Concave mirror as well as convex lens b) Convex mirror as well as concave lens
c) Two plane mirrors placed at 90° d) Concave mirror as well as concave lens
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion(A): Concave mirrors are used as make-up mirrors.
Reason (R): When the face is held within the focus of a concave mirror, then a diminished
image of the face is seen in the concave mirror.
2. Assertion(A): The height of an object is always considered positive.

Reason (R): An object is always placed above the principal axis in the upward direction.
3. Assertion A) : Unit of power of lens is m-1.

Reason (R) : Power of a lens is reciprocal of its focal length in m.
4. Assertion (A). 1.33 is the absolute refractive index of water.

Reason (R). Air is optically denser than water.
5. Assertion (A): Refractive index has no units.

Reason (R): The refractive index is a ratio of two similar quantities.
Answer the following:

1. An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm. List four
characteristics of the image formed by the mirror.
Answer:
Radius of curvature (R) = 30 cm, object distance is 12 cm in front of the mirror. Thus, we can say that object is
placed between focus and pole. Four characteristics of the image formed by die given concave mirror when
object is placed between pole and focus are:
(i) Virtual
(ii) Erect
(iii) Enlarged
(iv) Image is formed behind the mirror
2. a) Define the following terms in the context of spherical mirrors:

i) Pole
ii) Centre of curvature
iii) Principal axis
iv) Principal focus
b) Draw ray diagrams to show the principal focus of a
i) Concave mirror ii) Convex mirror
Answer:
(a) (i) Pole: The centre of the reflecting surface of a spherical mirror is a point called the pole.
It lies on the surface of the mirror and it is represented by the letter P.
(ii) Centre of curvature: The reflecting surface of a spherical mirror is a part of a sphere which
has a centre. This point is called the centre of curvature of
spherical mirror and is represented by the letter C.
(iii) Principal axis: An imaginary line passing through the pole and the centre of curvature of
a spherical mirror.
(iv) Principal focus: Incident rays parallel to principal axis, after reflection either converge to or
appear to diverge from a fixed point on the principal axis known as
principal focus of the spherical mirror.
3. Mention the types of mirrors used as (i) rear view mirrors, (ii) shaving mirrors. List two reasons to justify your
answer in each case.
Answer:
(i) Convex mirror is used as rear-view mirror because
(a) it gives an erect image.
(b) it gives a diminished image thus providing a wider view of traffic behind the vehicle.
(ii) Concave mirror is used as shaving mirror because
(a) it gives an erect image when the mirror is close to the face.
(b) it gives an enlarged image of the face so that a person can shave safely.
4. a) What is meant by the power of a lens? What is its S.I. unit?
b) Name the type of lens whose power is positive.
Answer:
a) Power of a lens is its ability to converge or diverge the rays of light falling on it. Power of a
lens is equal to reciprocal of the focal length of the lens.SI unit of power is dioptre (D).
b) Convex
5. The image of an object formed by a lens is real, inverted and of the same size as the object. If the image is at a
distance of 40 cm from the lens, what is the nature and power of the lens?
Answer:
Given: The image is real, inverted and of the same size. Thus, the object will be at
2f1 and the image will be formed at 2f2.
u=−40cm v=+40cm
Using the formula:
1/f=1/v−1/u
1/f=1/40+1/40
∴f=20cm=0.2m
Thus, the power will be:
P=1/f=1/0.2=5D
The nature of the lens is converging in nature thus, we get a real and inverted image.
Case based question

The spherical mirror forms different types of images when the object is placed at different locations. When the image is
formed on screen, the image is real and when the image does not form on screen, the image is virtual. When the two
reflected rays meet actually, the image is real and when they appear to meet, the image is virtual.
A concave mirror always forms a real and inverted image for different positions of the object. But if the object is placed
between the focus and pole, the image formed is virtual and erect.
A convex mirror always forms a virtual, erect and diminished image. A concave mirror is used as a doctor's head mirror
to focus light on body parts like eyes, ears, nose etc., to be examined because it can form an erect and magnified image
of the object. The convex mirror is used as a rear view mirror in automobiles because it can form a small and erect image
of an object.
i) When an object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror, the image formed is
(a) larger than the object
(b) smaller than the object
(c) same size as that of the object
(d) highly enlarged
ii) ii) No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror is likely to be
(a) plane
(b) concave
(c) convex
(d) either plane or convex.
iii) (iii) A child is standing in front of a magic mirror. She finds the image of her head bigger, the middle
portion of her body of the same size and that of the legs smaller. The following is the order of
combinations for the magic mirror from the top.
(a) Plane, convex and concave
(b) Convex, concave and plane
(c) Concave, plane and convex
(d) Convex, plane and concave
iv) (iv) To get an image larger than the object, one can use
(a) convex mirror but not a concave mirror
(b) a concave mirror but not a convex mirror
(c) either a convex mirror or a concave mirror
(d) a plane mirror.
v) ii) When the object is placed at the focus of concave mirror, the image formed is
(a) real and highly enlarged
(b) virtual and inverted
(c) virtual and smaller
(d) real and erect
LEVEL: 2
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1. Rays from the Sun converge at a point 15 cm in front of a concave mirror. Where should an object be
placed so that the size of its image is equal to the size of the object?
a) between 15 cm and 30 cm in front of the mirror b) 30 cm in front of the mirror
c) more than 30 cm in front of the mirror d) 15 cm in front of the mirror
2. The focal length of a concave mirror is 50 cm. To obtain an inverted image two times
the size of the object, the object should be placed at:
a) 50 cm b) -60 cm c) -72 cm d) - 75 cm
3. Magnification produced by a rear-view mirror fitted in vehicles

a) is less than one b) is more than one
c) is equal to one d) both b and c
4. In order to obtain a magnification of -0.6 with a concave mirror, the object must be placed:
a) At the focus b) Between pole and focus
c) Between focus and centre of curvature d) Beyond the centre of curvature
5. A light ray enters from medium A to medium B as shown in figure. The refractive index of medium
B relative to A will be
a) greater than unity b) less than unity

c) equal to unity d) zero
6. A student used a device (X) to obtain/focus the image of a well illuminated distant building on a screen
(S) as shown alongside in the diagram. Select the correct statement about the device (X).
a) This device is a concave lens of focal length 8 cm.
b) This device is a convex mirror of focal length 8 cm.
c) This device is a convex lens of focal length 4 cm.
d) This device is a convex lens of focal length 8 cm.
7. A student performs the experiment on tracing the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular
glass slab for different angles of incidence. He measures the angle of incidence ∠i, angle of refraction ∠r
and angle of emergence ∠e for all his observations. He would find that in all cases
(a) ∠i is more than ∠r but (nearly) equal to ∠e
(b) ∠i is less than ∠r but (nearly) equal to ∠e
(c) ∠i is more than ∠e but (nearly) equal to ∠r
(d) ∠i is less than ∠e but (nearly) equal to ∠r
8. The diagrams showing the correct path of the ray after refraction is :
a) II and III only b) I and II only

c) I, II and III d) I, II and IV
9. A beam of light is incident through the holes on side A and emerges out of the holes on the other face of
the box as shown in the figure. Which of the following could be inside the box?
10.
a) A rectangular glass slab b) A convex lens

c) A concave lens d) A prism
11. A student does the experiment on tracing the path of a ray of light through a rectangular glass slab for
different angles of incidence. He can get a correct measure of the angle of incidence and the angle of
emergence by following the labelling indicated in figure:
a) A b) B c) C d) D
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
1. Assertion (A): The emergent ray is perpendicular to the direction of the incident ray in a rectangular
glass slab.
Reason (R): The extent of bending of the ray of light at the opposite parallel faces.
(air- glass interface and glass-air interface) of the rectangular glass slab is equal and
opposite.
2. Assertion(A): Lateral displacement is the perpendicular distance between incident ray and
the emergent ray.
Reason(R): The wider the glass slab, the larger the lateral displacement.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. Assertion (A): A ray of light travelling from a rarer medium to a denser medium slows down
and bends towards the normal. When it travels from a denser medium to a
rarer medium, it speeds and bends away from the normal.
Reason (R): The speed of light is higher in a rarer medium than a denser medium.
4. Assertion (A): Mirror formula can be applied to a plane mirror.
Reason (R): A plane mirror is a spherical mirror of infinite focal length.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
5. Assertion (A) : Concave mirrors are used as make-up mirrors.
Reason (R): When the face is held within the focus of a concave mirror, then a diminished image
of the face is seen in the concave mirror.
Answer the following questions:

1. An object is placed at the following distances from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm.
a) 10 cm b) 20 cm c) 30 cm d) 40 cm
Which position of the object will produce
i. Virtual image
ii. A diminished real image
iii. An enlarged real image
iv. An image of the same size.
Answer:
i. Concave mirror forms a virtual image if an object is placed between the focus and pole of the mirror.
Therefore, for the position of the object at 10 cm, the mirror forms the required image.
ii. A real and diminished image is formed when an object lies beyond C i.e. beyond 2F. So, for the
position of the object at 40 cm, the mirror forms the required image.
iii. An enlarged real image is formed when the object lies between F and 2 F. So, for the position of the
object at 20 cm, the mirror forms the required image.
iv. An image of the same size of the object is formed when the object lies at C or 2F. So, for the position
of the object at 30 cm, the mirror forms the required image.
2. A ray of light AM is incident on a spherical mirror as shown in the diagram. Redraw the diagram
and show the reflected ray. Also indicate and mark the angle of incidence and angle of reflection
in the diagram.
Incident ray AM is parallel to the principal axis of a concave mirror. Hence, it will pass through the
principal focus (F) of the mirror after reflection as shown in figure.
3. A spherical mirror produces an image of magnification -1.0 on a screen placed at a

distance of 30 cm from the pole of the mirror.
(i) Write the type of mirror in this case.
(ii) What is the focal length of the mirror?
(iii) What is the nature of the image formed?
(iv) Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
Answer:
(i) Concave mirror
(iii) Image is real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object.
(iv)
4. An object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a concave lens of focal length 30 cm.

(i) Use lens formula to find the distance of the image from the lens
(ii) List four characteristics of the image (nature, position, size, erect/inverted) formed by the lens in this
case
(iii) Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer of pair (ii) .
Answer:
(i) Given, f = -30 cm, u = -60 cm, v = ?
Using lens formula,
(ii) (a) The image is virtual in nature.
(b) The image is formed at a distance of 20 cm on the left from the concave lens.
(c) Magnification, m = v/u
Here, v = – 20 cm; u = – 60 cm
So, m = 20/60 = 1/3 = + 0.3
Since the value of magnification is less than 1, therefore, the image is diminished.
(d) The plus sign for the magnification shows that the image is erect.
5. The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of 30 cm from a spherical lens is formed on a screen
placed on the other side of the lens at a distance of 60 cm from the optical centre of the lens. Identify the
type of lens and calculate its focal length. If the height of the flame is 3 cm, find the height of its image.
Answer:
Given that u = -30 cm, v = 60 cm, h = 3 cm
Lens Formula:
1/v – 1/u = 1/f ∴ 1/60 – 1/(−30) = 1/f
⇒ (1+2)/60=1/f=3/60=1/20 or f = 20 cm
As focal length is positive, hence the lens is convex.
Magnification, m = v/u = h′/h
∴ 60/−30 = h′/3 or h’ = −60×3/30 = -6 cm
⇒ The height of the image is 6 cm and the negative sign shows that the image is real and inverted.
Case based question:

When the rays of light travel from one transparent medium to another, the path of light is deviated. This
phenomenon is called refraction of light. The bending of light depends on the optical density of the medium
through which the light passes.
The speed of light varies from medium to medium. A medium in which the speed of light is more is
optically rarer whereas in which the speed of light is less is optically denser medium. Whenever light
goes from one medium to another, the frequency of light does not change; however, speed and
wavelength change. It concluded that change in speed of light is the basic cause of refraction.
(i) When light travels from water to diamond, the ray of light bends
a) towards the normal b) away from normal
c) anywhere d) none of these
(ii) A ray of light passes from a medium A to another medium B. No bending of light occurs if the ray of
light hits
the boundary of medium B at an angle of
a) 0° b) 45°
c) 90 d) 120°
(iii) When light passes from one medium to another, the frequency of light
a) increases b) decreases
c) remains same d) none of these
(iv) When light passes from glass to water, the speed of light
a) increases b) decreases
c) remains same d) first increases then decrease
(v) The bottom of pool filled with water appears to be ______ due to refraction of light
a) shallower b) deeper
c) at same depth d) empty
LEVEL: 3
Answer the following:
1. Analyse the following observation table showing variation of image-distance (v) with
object-distance (u)
in case of a convex lens and answer the questions that follow without doing any calculations.
Object Distance Image Distance

S. No.
U(cm) v(cm)
1 -100 +25
2 -60 +30
3 -40 +40
4 -30 +60
5 -25 +100
6 -15 +120
a) What is the focal length of the convex lens? Give reason to justify your answer.
b) Write the serial number of the observation which is not correct. On what basis have you arrived at this
conclusion?
c) Select an appropriate scale and draw a ray diagram for the observation at S. No. 2. Also find the
approximate value of magnification.
Answer:
a) When an object is placed at 2F from the convex lens, then its image is formed on the other side of the
lens at the same distance from the lens. Thus, from S.No. (3), we can say that
∴ f = v/2 = 40/2 = 20 cm
b) In this case, S. No. (6) is incorrect as the object distance is between focus and optical centre. For such
cases, the image formed is virtual and image distance is negative.
The approximate value of magnification for object distance -60 cm and image distance +30 cm is -1/2.
2. The absolute refractive indices of glass and water are 1.5 and 1.33 respectively. In which medium does
light travel faster? Calculate the ratio of speeds of light in the two media.
For glass ng = c/vg ……… (i)
For water nw = c/vw ……… (ii)
Since velocity of light in medium is inversely proportional to its refractive index, the light will travel
faster in optically rarer medium i.e., water.
Dividing (i) by (ii),
So, the ratio of vg and vw is 1.33 : 1.5.

3. The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of 40 cm from a spherical lens is formed on a screen.
The screen is placed on the other side of the lens at a distance of 40 cm from the lens. Identify the type
of lens and write its focal length. What will be the nature of the image formed if the candle flame is
shifted 25 cm towards the lens? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer.
Answer:
Given : u = -40 cm, v = 40 cm
1/f=1/40+1/40=2/40 ⇒ f = 20 cm
Type of lens : Convex lens
Focal length = 20 cm
Nature of the image will be virtual and erect if the candle flame is shifted 25 cm towards the lens.
4. The refractive index of a medium 'x’ with respect to a medium ‘y’ is 2/3 and the refractive index of
medium ‘y’ with respect to medium ‘z’ is 4/3. Find the refractive index of medium ‘z with respect to
medium x. If the speed of light in medium ‘x’ is 3 × 108 m s-1, calculate the speed of light in medium ‘y’.
Answer:
Given, refractive index of medium x with respect to y,
y
µx = 2/3
Refractive index of medium y with respect to z,
z
µy = 4/3
∴ Refractive index of medium x with respect to z,
z
µx = yµx . zµy = 2/3 × 4/3 = 8/9
∴ Refractive index of medium z with respect to x,
x
µz = 1/zµx = 9/8
Now speed of light in x = 3 × 108 m/s
Speed of light in y, vy = ?
5. One half of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm is covered with a black paper. Can such a
lens produces an image of a complete object placed at a distance of 30 cm from the lens? Draw a
ray diagram to justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes, the lens will produce an image of a complete object.
HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL WORLD (LEVEL -1)
WORKSHEET NO: 31 DATE: ____
HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL WORLD

LEVEL 1
Multiple Choice Question

1) The splitting of white light into different colours on passing through a prism is called
(a) reflection (b) refraction
(c) dispersion (d) deviation
2) What happens to the frequency when light passes from one medium to another?
(a) It increases. (b) It decreases.
(c) Remains constant. (d) It may increase or decrease.
3) A person gets out in the sunlight from a dark room. How does his pupil regulate and control the light
entering in the eye?
(a) the size of the pupil will decrease, and less light will enter the eye.
(b) the size of the pupil will decrease, and more light will enter the eye.
(c) the size of the pupil will remain the same, but more light will enter the eye.
(d) the size of the pupil will remain the same, but less light will enter the eye.
Q4) In which part of the human eye is the image of an object formed?
(a) iris (b) pupil
(c) retina (d) cornea
Q5) Why do stars appear to twinkle at night?

(a) because the light of stars travels in different medium
(b) because the distance of star varies when earth rotates
(c) because the star changes its position relative to earth
(d) because the atmosphere reflects the light at different angles
Q6) Type of lens used in correction of myopia

(a) convex lens (b) concave lens
(c) reflecting lens (d) bifocal lens
Q7) Least distance of distinct vision for normal eye is

(a) 25 cm (b) 50 cm
(c) 75 cm (d) infinity
Q8) Crystalline lens of people at old age becomes milky and cloudy. This condition is called
(a) myopia (b) lever
(c) cataract (d) presbyopia
Q9) When a person is myopic, he/ she can clearly see

(a) both nearby and far off objects ( b) Only nearby objects
(c) only far off objects (d) Neither near nor far off objects
Q10) While performing the experiment to trace the path of a ray of light passing through a glass prism, four
students marked the incident ray and the emergent ray in their diagrams in the manner shown below.
The correct path of the rays has been shown by:

(a) I (b) II
(c) III (d) IV
Q11)Assertion (A) : Blue colour of sky appears due to scattering of blue colour.
Reason (R) : Blue light has a longer wavelength.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
Q12) Assertion(A) : Danger signals are made of red colour.

Reason (R) : Velocity of red light in air is maximum, so signals are visible even in dark.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
Q13) Assertion (A) : Myopia is the defect of the eye in which only nearer objects are seen by the eye.
Reason (R) : The eyeball is elongated.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Q14) Assertion (A) : Speed of light outside the prism is different from inside the prism..
Reason (R) : A beam of white light gives a spectrum on passing through a glass prism.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Q15)Assertion (A) : The sequence of rainbow colour is represented by VIBGYOR.

Reason (R) : The formation of VIBGYOR sequence is due to dispersion of white light..
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Q16) The sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut. State its reason.
Answer: The sky appears dark to the astronaut as scattering does not take place at very high altitude due to
the absence of atmosphere.
Q17) What is the Tyndall effect? Give an example of a phenomenon where the Tyndall effect can be observed.
Answer: The phenomenon of scattering of light by the colloidal particles is called the Tyndall effect.When a
fine beam of sunlight enters a room containing suspended particles of dust, the path of the beam of light is
visible. It is due to the scattering of light (Tyndall effect).
Q18) State two properties of the image formed by the eye lens on the retina.
1. Image on the retina is real and inverted.
2. Diminished in size.
Q19) What is meant by the term ‘power of accommodation’ of the human eye?
Answer: The ability of an eye lens to adjust its focal length to form the sharp image of the object at varying
distances on the retina is called its power of accommodation. When we see the nearby object, the ciliary
muscles contract, increasing the thickness of the eye lens. The eye lens then becomes thicker. As a result, the
focal length of the eye lens decreases in such a way that the clear sharp image of nearby objects is formed on
the retina. Thus, the object is seen clearly to us.
Q20) Answer: The ability of an eye lens to adjust its focal length to form the sharp image of the object at
varying distances on the retina is called its power of accommodation. When we see the nearby object, the
ciliary muscles contract, increasing the thickness of the eye lens. The eye lens then becomes thicker. As a
result, the focal length of the eye lens decreases in such a way that the clear sharp image of nearby objects is
formed on the retina. Thus, the object is seen clearly to us.
Answer: Myopia or short-sightedness. Concave lenses should be used to correct his vision.
Q21) The sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut. State its reason.
Answer: The sky appears dark to the astronaut as scattering does not take place at very high altitude due to
the absence of atmosphere.
Q22) A person needs a lens of power – 4.5 D for correction of his/her vision. Calculate the focal length of
the corrective lens used by him.
1 100
f = 𝑝 = 4.5
= 22.2 cm
Q23) Ankit’s grandma is facing a problem of clouded, blurred and dim vision. Ankit took her to the doctor.
From which defect of vision Ankit’s grandma may be suffering from? Give proper correction.
Answer: Cataract. It is possible to restore vision through cataract surgery.
Q24) Label the parts marked A,B,C and D in the diagram given below.
Retina
Crystalline lens cornea
Optic nerve Ciliary muscle
Q25) Name the type of particles which acts as a prism in the formation of a rainbow in the sky.
Answer: Water droplets present in the atmosphere.
Q26) Case study based question

Atmospheric refraction is the phenomenon of bending of light on passing through earth’s atmosphere. As we
move above the surface of earth, density of air goes on decreasing. Local conditions like temperature etc. also
affect the optical density of earth’s atmosphere..
a) Give a reason why planets do not twinkle.
Answer: Planets are much closer as compared to stars they are huge.Planets are made up of a large
number of point sources. Due to atmospheric refraction each pont source will appear to twinkle, the
total effect will be nullified.
b) A star appears slightly higher (above) than its actual position in the sky. Illustrate it with the help of a
labelled diagram.
c)
Answer: The gradual change in the refractive index of different layers of the atmosphere due to the
varying conditions of it causes atmospheric refraction. When starlight enters the atmosphere, it gets
refracted continuously. The higher level of air acts as a rarer medium while the dense air near the
surface of earth acts as a denser medium. So, the atmosphere bends the starlight towards the normal.
As a result, the apparent position of star is slightly different from its actual position. Thus, star appears
slightly higher (above) than its actual position in the sky.

____________
Multiple Choice Question
1) Bi-focal lens are required to correct

(a) astigmatism (b) cataract
(c) myopia (d) presbyopia
2) The deflection of light by minute particles and molecules of the atmosphere in all directions is called
____________ of light.
(a) dispersion (b) scattering
(c) interference (d) tyndall effect
3) One cannot see through the fog, because----------

(a) refractive index of the fog is very high
(b) light suffers total reflection at droplets
(c) fog absorbs light
(d) light is scattered by the droplets in fog
Q4) At a particular minimum value of angle of deviation, the refracted ray becomes :
(a)Parallel to base of prism (b) Perpendicular to base of prism
(c) Inclined at 45° w.r.t base of prism (d) Inclined at 30 ° w.r.t base of prism
Q5) In the following diagram, the path of a ray of light passing through a glass prism is shown:
In this diagram the angle of incidence, the angle of emergence and the angle of deviation respectively
are (select the correct option):
(a) X, R and T (b) Y, Q and T
(c) X, Q and P (d) Y, Q and P
Q6) At noon the sun appears white as

(a) light is least scattered (b) blue colour is scattered the most
(c) all the colours of the white light are scattered away (d) red colour is scattered the most
Q7) The ability of eye lens to adjust its focal length to form a sharp image of the object at varying distances
on the retina is called
(a) Power of observation of the eye (b) Power of adjustment of the eye
(c) Power of accommodation of the eye (d) Power of enabling of the eye
Q8) After tracing the path of a ray of light through a glass prism a student marked the angle of incidence
(∠i), angle of refraction (∠r), angle of emergence (∠e) and the angle of deviation (∠D) as shown in the
diagram. The correctly marked angles are:
(a) ∠i and ∠r (b) ∠i and ∠e

(c) ∠i, ∠e and ∠D (d) ∠i, ∠r and ∠e
Q9) A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by using lens of
power
(a) -0.2 D (b) +0.2 D
(c) +0.5 D (d) -0.5 D
Q10) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation of light of different colours
of
white light in the air?
a) Red light moves the fastest.
b) Blue light moves faster than green light.
c) All the colours of the white light move with the same speed.
d) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of the red and the violet light.
Q11) Assertion: A rainbow is sometimes seen in the sky in rainy season only when observer’s back is
towards the sun.
Reason: Internal reflection in the water droplets cause dispersion and the final rays are in backward
direction.
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion.
Q12) Assertion: Sunlight reaches us without dispersion in the form of white light and not as its
components.
Reason: Dispersion takes place due to variation of refractive index for different wavelengths but in vacuum
the speed of light is independent of wavelength and hence is a non-dispersive medium.
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion
Q13)Assertion: Blind spot is a small area of the retina which is insensitive to light where the optic nerve
leaves the eye.
Reason: There are no rods or cones present at the junction of optic nerve and retina in the eye.
Q14) Assertion(A): The sky looks dark and black instead of blue in outer space.
Reason (R) : No atmosphere containing air in the outer space to scatter sunlight.
Q15) Assertion(A): Scattering of light is the reflection of light from an object in all directions.
Reason (R) : The colour of scattered light depends on the size of scattering particles and wavelength of
light.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Q16) A person needs a lens of power, −5.5 D for correcting his distant vision. For correcting his near
vision, he needs a lens of power, + 1.5 D. What is the focal length of the lens required for correcting:
(a) distant vision?
(b) near vision?
What type of lens is being used for correcting (i) distant vision, and (ii) near vision?
Q17) Mention the role of the optic nerve in the human eye.
Ans. It transmits the visual information in the form of electrical signals generated at the retina to the brain.
Q18) A student finds the writing on the black board as blurred and unclear when sitting on the last desk in
a classroom. He however, sees it clearly when sitting on the front desk at an approximate distance of 2m
from the black board.
a) Draw the ray diagram to illustrate the formation of an image of the black board when he is seated at the
last desk.
b) Name the lean required to correct the eyesight problem and draw the image of the corrected eye.
Ans. The student is suffering from the Near-sightedness or Myopia. That's why he is able to see blackboard
writing when he is nearby the blackboard, but he is unable to see the blackboard writing clearly when he
is sitting far at the last desk.
(i) When he is sitting at the last desk, the image of the blackboard writing is forming in front of the retina
due to myopia effect. That's why he is seeing a blurred and unclear image. The following ray diagram
explains the defect of the student.
Q19) The near point of a hypermetropic eye is 1m. What is the power of the lens required to correct this
defect? Assume that the near point of the normal eye is 25 cm.
Q20) If we increase the distance of an object from the eye, how will the distance of the image formed in
the eye change?
Ans. Does not change.
Q21) Is the position of a star as seen by us its true position? Justify your answer.
Ans. No, the position of a star as seen by us is not the true position. Because we know there are several
layers in the atmosphere, light from stars undergoes multiple refractions in a medium with a gradually
changing refractive index, and we perceive the apparent position of the star.
Q22)If the near point is 50 cm. What is the nature and power of the lens required to enable a person to
read a book placed at 25cm from the eye?
Q24) Label the parts marked a,b,c, d and e in the diagram given below.
WORKSHEET NO: 33
DATE: ____________
Q1) Why do we observe random wavering or flicking of objects near a fire or on a very hot day?
Ans.We observe random wavering or flicking of the objects near a fire or on a very hot day because of
atmospheric refraction. The area above the fire is hot and is lighter than the cool air above it due to which
its refractive index is low and density also does not remain the same. Therefore, the apparent position of
the object flickers.
Q2) No rainbow could be observed from the surface of the moon by the astronauts. What could be the
possible reason?
Ans.The rainbow is formed only if the atmosphere contains a large number of tiny droplets of water
suspended in the air. As the moon has neither atmosphere nor water therefore no rainbow is formed.
Q3) If the earth has no atmosphere, what change would be observed in the length of day?Give a reason.
Ans.If there were no atmosphere, the duration of the day on the earth would decrease. Reason Due to the
refraction in the atmosphere, the sun appears to rise earlier and sets later.
Q4) If the near point of a hypermetropic person is 75 cm and he uses spectacles of power +1.0 D, what is
the nearest distance of distinct vision for him?
Ans. ∵ Near point = 75 cm and Power of lens = + 1 D
∴ P = 100 / f ( in cm )
f = 100 / P = 100 / 1 = 100 cm
The distance of distinct vision v can be found as below.
Using lens formula here ,
1/f = 1/v - 1/u
⇒ 1/v = 1/f + 1/u
= 1 / 100 + 1 / - 75 = 3 - 4 / 300 = - 1 / 300
v = ₋ 300 cm
= - 3m ( in meters)
Q5) Explain why?
a) A myopic person prefers to remove his spectacles while reading a book.
b) A hypermetropic person prefers to remove his spectacles while looking at the sky.
Ans. a) Myopic person does not need spectacles while reading a book as he has the near point at 25 cm. If
such a person reads the book with corrective lens (concave) he will have to keep the book at a distance
greater than 25 cm so that the image of the book will be formed by the concave lens at 25 cm and moreover
the size of the book that appears to him is also smaller.
Therefore, the person prefers to remove his spectacles while reading a book.
b) A hypermetropic person cannot see nearby objects clearly while he can see distant objects clearly as his
near point is more than 25 cm. Therefore, his far point will be infinity(here, sky) , so his eye can easily
focus the image of the sky on the retina. So, there is no need to wear spectacles at that time.
________ TOPIC – ELECTRICITY (LEVEL -1)

WORKSHEET NO: 34 DATE: ____
1. An electrical appliance has a resistance of 25 Ω. When this electrical appliance is connected to a

230 V supply line, the current passing through it will be:
(a) 0.92 A b) 2.9 A c) 9.2 A d) 92 A
2. When a 4 Ω resistor is connected across the terminals of a 2 V battery, the amount of charge
passing through the resistor per second is:
a) 0.5 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4
3. Keeping the potential difference constant, the resistance of the circuit is halved. The current will
become:
(a) One-fourth b) Four times c) Half d) Double
4. V1, V2 and V3 are the potential differences across the 1Ω, 2Ω and 3Ω resistors in the following
diagram, and the current is 5A.
Which of the following shows the correct

values of V1, V2 and V3 measured in
volts?
a) V1 =1, V2 = 2 and V3 = 3 b) V1 =5, V2 = 10 and V3 = 15

c) V1 =5, V2 = 2.5 and V3 = 1.6 d) V1 =4, V2 = 3 and V3 = 2
5. When a current 'I' flows through a resistance 'R' for time 't' the electrical energy spent is given by
a) IRt b) I2Rt c) IR2t d) I2R/t

6. Two electric bulbs have resistances in the ratio 1:2. If they are joined in series, the energy
consumed in them is in the ratio.
a) 2:1 b) 1:2 c) 4:1 d) 1:1s
7. If the current flowing through a fixed resistor is halved, the heat produced in it will become:
a) One-fourth b) One-half c) Double d) Four times
8. The current flowing through the 10 Ω resistor in the

following circuit is:
a) 1.2 A b) 0.6 A
c) 0.2 A d) 2.0 A
9. A cylindrical conductor of length L and uniform area of cross-section A has resistance R. Another
conductor of length 2L and resistance R of the same material has an area of cross-section:
𝐴 3𝐴
a) b) c) 2A d) 3A
2 2
10. In the given figure, the resistors
a) 6 Ω, 3 Ω and 9 Ω are in series

b) 9 Ω and 6 Ω are in parallel and the combination is in series
with 3 Ω
c) 3 Ω, 6 Ω and 9 Ω are in parallel
d) 3 Ω and 6 Ω are in parallel and the combination is in series
with 9 Ω
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation c) A is true but R is false.
of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct d) A is false but R is true.
explanation of A.
Assertion: The value of current in ammeter is same independent of its position in the series
electric circuit.
Reason: In a series combination of resistors current is same in every part of the circuit.
12. Assertion: In a simple battery circuit the point of lowest potential is positive terminal of the
battery.
Reason: The current flows towards the lower potential that is from positive to negative.
13. Assertion: Wire A is thin in comparison to wire B of same material and same length, then
resistance of
wire A is greater than resistance of wire B.
Reason: Resistivity of wire A is greater than resistivity of wire B.
14. Assertion: 200 W bulb glows with more brightness than 100 W bulb.
Reason: 100 W bulb has more resistance than 200 W bulb.
15. Assertion: Tungsten metal is used for making filaments of incandescent lamps.
Reason: The melting point of tungsten is very low.
16. Write symbols of the following circuit elements. Also state the role of these elements in an
electric circuit
a) Battery b) Ammeter c) Voltmeter.
17. The table given below shows the resistivity of three Material X, Y and Z?
Samples X Y Z
Resistivity 3 X 10-9 11.1 X 0-6 18X10-17
a) Arrange the samples in increasing order of conductivity. Y < X < Z

b) Which of these is best conductor?
Z is the best conductor as it has least resistivity
18. What are the advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel with the battery instead of
connecting them in series?
a) As the current in parallel circuit are not same, each device can draw its own amount of
current
according to its requirement from the supply. Hence the device can function normally.
b) In case if one device stops working, other devices will function properly as they are
connected in different paths of the electric circuit.
19. There are ‘m’ resistor each of resistance R. First, they all are connected in series and equivalent
resistance
is X. Then they are connected in parallel and equivalent resistance is Y. What is the ratio of X
and Y?
In series combination,
X=R+R+R+......m times = m R
In parallel combination,
1/Y=1R+1R+1R+...= m / R i.e. Y = R / m
So, X/Y = m R / R/m = m R x m / R = m2 / 1
X: Y=m2: 1
20. Resistivity is a fundamental property
of a material and it demonstrates how
strongly the material resists or
conducts electric current. A low
resistivity is a clear indication of a material which readily allows electric current. The common
representation of resistivity is by the Greek letter  . Also, the SI unit of electrical resistivity is
ohm-meter(Ω-m). Experts use resistivity for comparing different materials on the basis of their
ability to conduct electric currents.
Two wires A and B are of equal lengths, different cross-sectional areas and made of same
metal.
1) Name the property which is same for both the wires and the property which is different
for both the wires.
Same -Resistivity. This is due to the reason that the resistivity is the property of the material
of which the wire is made. As both the wires are made of the same metal, their resistivity is
the same.
Different - Resistance. As both the wires are of different cross-sectional area, their resistances
are different ( r ∝ 1 / A ) (r∝1/A If the resistance of wire A is four times the resistance of wire
B, calculate the ratio of cross-sectional areas of the wire.
2) The resistivity of a few materials is given below. Which of these materials can be used for
making elements of a heating device? Justify your answer.
1 2 3 4
Material Silver Copper Aluminium Tungsten
Resistivity in Ωm 1.6 × 10-8 1.62 × 10-8 2.6 × 10-8 5.2 × 10-8
Tungsten - A material having high resistivity can be used for making elements of a heating
device
3) Aluminium wire of resistance R is pulled so that its length is doubled (temperature

remains constant). Find the new resistance of the wire in terms of its original resistance.
According to Ohm's law, current in the circuit is proportional to the voltage.
R = ρl/A, where ρ is considered resistivity of the material.
Let R1 = ρL/A and R2 = ρ.2L/(A/2) =4ρL/A = 4R1.
Therefore, the new resistance of the conductor is four times the original resistance.
4) Why are coil of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a pure
metal?
Coils of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a pure metal because the
resistivity of an alloy is higher than the pure metal. Also at high temperatures, the alloys do not melt
easily.
TOPIC – ELECTRICITY (LEVEL -2)
WORKSHEET NO: 35 DATE: _

___________
1. If in the given arrangement, the three resistors are to be replaced by a single resistor. What will be
the value of this resistor?
a) 4Ω b) 6Ω
c) 9Ω d) 18Ω
2. The potential difference across the 3 Ω resistor in the following diagram is:
a) 1/9 V b) 1/2 V
c) 2V d) 1V
3. Two appliances of rating 200 watt-250 volts and 100 watt-250 volts are joined in series to a 250
volts supply. Total power consumed in the circuit is:
a) 46-watt b) 67-watt c) 10-watt d) 30 watts
4. At a given time, a house is supplied with 100 A at 220 V. How many 110 W, 220 V light bulbs
could be switched on in the house at the same time (if they are all connected in parallel)?
a) 200 b) 193 c) 293 d) 393
5. A boy records that 4000 J of work is required to transfer 10 C of charge between two points of a
resistor
of 50 Ω. The current passing through it is:
a) 2 A b) 4 A c) 8 A d) 16 A
6. To get 2 Ω resistance, the number of 6 Ω resistor required is

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
7. A cooler of 1500 W, 200 volt and a fan of 500 W, 200 volts are to be used from a household
supply.
The rating of fuse to be used is
a) 2.5 A (b) 5.0 A (c) 7.5 A (d) 10 A
8. The effective resistance between A and B is

a) 4Ω c) 6Ω
b) May be 10 Ω d) Must be 10 Ω
9. A student carries out an experiment and plots the I-V graph of three samples of nichrome wire with
resistances R1 R2 and R3 respectively. Which of the following is true?
a) R1 = R2 = R3 b) R1 > R2 > R3 c) R3 > R2 > R1 d) R2 >

R3 > R1
10. Two metallic wires A and B of same material are connected in parallel. Wire A has length l and
radius r and
wire B has length 2l and radius 2r. Compute the ratio of total resistance of the parallel combination
and
the resistance of wire A.
a) 1/3 b) 3/1 c) 2/1 d)1
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation c) A is true but R is false.
of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct d) A is false but R is true.
explanation of A.
Assertion (A): If a graph is plotted between the potential difference and the current flowing,
the graph is a straight line passing through the origin.
Reason (R): The current is directly proportional to the potential difference.
12. Assertion (A): When the resistances are connected between the same two points, they are said
to be connected in parallel.
Reason (R): In case the total resistance is to be decreased, then the individual resistances are
connected in parallel.
13. Assertion (A): The wires supplying current to an electric heater are not heated appreciably.
Reason (R): Resistance of connecting wires is very small and H<< R.
14. Assertion (A): The fuse is placed in series with the device.
Reason (R): Fuse consists of a piece of wire made of a metal or an alloy of appropriate melting
point
15. Assertion (A): The coil of a heater is cut into two equal halves and only one of them is used into
heater. The heater will now require half the time to produce the same amount of heat.
Reason (R): The heat produced is directly proportional to square of current.
16. Define the following:
a) Electric current b) 1Ampere c) Electric potential d) 1Volt
e) Resistance f) 1Ohm g) Specific resistance h) Power
i) 1Watt j) 1KWh
a) Electric current is rate of flow of electric charges i.e. the amount of charge flowing through a
particular area in unit time.
b) One Ampere represents a flow of one coulomb of electrical charge per second
c) The electric potential at a point in an electric field is the amount of work done in moving a
unit positive charge from infinity to that point in the electric field.
d) One volt is the potential difference between two points in a current carrying conductor when
one joule of work is done to move a charge of one coulomb from point to the other.
e) Resistance is a measure of the opposition to current flow in an electrical circuit.
f) 1 Ohm is defined as the resistance of a conductor when a potential difference of 1 volt is
applied across its ends and a current of one ampere flows through it. Ohms is the SI
unit of electrical resistance.
g) The Specific resistance or resistivity represents the resistance of the material of the
conductor when its length is one metre and area of cross section one square metre. The
SI unit of resistivity is ohm metre.
h) Electric Power: The rate of doing work in an electrical circuit is called an electric power.
i) 1 watt is the power of an appliances which consumes 1J of energy per second.
j) 1 Kwh can be defined as the amount of electrical energy consumed when a 1000-watt
electrical appliance is used for an hour.
17. A household uses the following electric appliances:
(i) Refrigerator of rating 400 W for ten hours each day.
(ii) Two electric fans of rating 80 W each for twelve hours each day.
(iii) Six electric tubes of rating 18 W each for 6 hours each day.
Calculate the electricity bill of the household for the month of June if the cost per unit of electric
energy is
₹ 3.00.
Energy consumed by refrigerator of rating 400 W for ten hours each day
= P × t = 400 W × 10 h = 400/1000 kW × 10 h = 4.0 kWh
Energy consumed by two electric fans of rating 80 W each for twelve hours each day
= 2 × P × t = 2 × 80W × 12h = 160/1000 kW × 12 h = 1.92 kWh
Energy consumed by six electric tubes of rating 18 W each for 6 hours each day
= 6 × P × t = 6 × 18W × 6h = 108/1000 W × 6 h = 0.648 kWh
Total energy consumed in the month of June (30 days)
= (4.0 + 1.92 + 0.648) × 30 = 6.568 × 30 = 197.04 kWh
Electricity bill for the month of June
= ₹ 197.04 × 3 = ₹ 591.12 = ₹ 591 (approx.)
18. The resistance of a wire of 0.01 cm radius is 10 Ω. If the resistivity of the material of the wire is
50 ×10-8 Ω - m, find the length of the wire.
R = 10 Ω, r = 0.01 ×10-2 m and ρ = 50 ×10-8 Ω - m,
ρ = (R×A)/L = (R x πr2 )/L
50 ×10-8 = 10 x 22/7 x 0.01 ×10-2 x 0.01 ×10-2 /L
L = 0.628 m = 62.8cm
19. Two bulbs A and B are rated as 90 W -120V and 60 W -120 V respectively. They are connected
in parallel across a 120 V source. Find the current in each bulb. Which bulb will consume more
energy?
power of bulb 1st = p1 = 90 w
power of bulb 2nd = p2 = 60 w
potential difference = v = 120 v
current =?
1) p1 = v×I , p1/v = I , 90/120 = I, I1 = 0.75 ampere
2) p2 = v×I2, p2/v = I2, 60/120 = I2, I2 = 0.6 ampere
current in 90 w bulb is = I1 = 0.75 ampere

current in 60 w bulb is = I2 = 0.6 ampere
So, 90 w bulb consume more energy.
20. Most basic components of electricity are voltage, current, and resistance. The relationship between
these three quantities was discovered by German scientist Georg Simon Ohm. Ohm’s law is one of
the most basic laws of electricity. It helps to calculate the power, efficiency, current, voltage, and
resistance of an element of an electrical circuit. Ohm’s law helps us in determining either voltage,
current or resistance of a linear electric circuit when the other two quantities are known to us. It
also makes power calculation simpler.
1) State Ohm’s law. Write the necessary conditions for its validity.
Ohm’s law : When the physical conditions such as temperature etc. remain same, the current
flowing through the conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference applied across
the ends of the conductor, i.e.,
I∝V or V∝I ⇒ IV = constant ⇒ V=IR
where R is constant of proportionality and is called resistance of the wire.
Necessary condition for validity of Ohm's Law is that physical condition such as temperature of
the conductor remains same.
2) How is this law verified experimentally?
3) What will be the nature of graph between potential difference and current for a conductor?
V-I graph is a straight line passing through the origin of the graph .
Straight line nature of graph shows that the current is proportional to the potential difference.
Hence, Ohm’s law verified.
4) Name and define the physical quantity that can be obtained from this graph.
The slope of V-I graph gives the value of resistance of the conductor at the given temperature.
5) Consider the following circuit diagram. If R1 = R2 = R3 = R4 = R5 = 3Ω. Find the
equivalent resistance of the circuit.
In the given circuit, R₂ and R₃ are attached in series. So their net resistance R₂₃ = 3Ω + 3Ω = 6Ω.
Now, R₂₃ is in parallel with R₄. The equivalent resistance R₂₃₄ =

=6X3/6+3=2Ω
R₂₃₄ is in series with R₁ and R₅
So the equivalent resistance of the circuit = R₂₃₄ + R₁ + R₅
= 2 + 3 + 3 = 8Ω
Hence, the equivalent resistance of the circuit is 8Ω.
TOPIC – ELECTRICITY (LEVEL -3)

____________
1. What is electrical resistivity? Derive its SI unit. In a series of an electrical circuit comprising a
resistor made up of a metallic wire, the ammeter reads 100 mA. If the length of the wire is
doubled, how will the current in the circuit change? Justify your answer.
Electrical Resistivity (or resistivity) of the material of a conductor is the resistance offered by
the conductor of unit length with the unit cross-sectional area. It is material constant.
where R is resistance, A is the area of cross-section, l is the length of wire

and is the resistivity
Unit of
SI unit of resistivity is
We know that
If the length of the wire is doubled then the resistance of the conductor also doubles. So, the
current is reduced to half
Ammeter reading
2. (a) Write two points of difference between electric energy and electric power
Electrical energy Electric power

i) The work done or energy supplied by the (i) The time rate at which electric energy is
source in maintaining the flow of electric consumed or dissipated by an electrical
current is called electrical energy. It appears device is called electric power and is given
in the form of heat given by H = Vlt = V2t/R by
= l2RT p = Vl = V2/R = l2
ii) It is equal to the product of power and (ii) It is equal to the rate of doing work by an
time i.e. E = P × t energy source i.e P =W/T
iii) Its SI unit is joule (J) 1 J = 1 W × 1s (iii) Its SI unit is watt (W) 1 W = 1 J s-1
iv) Energy is required for all kinds of work iv) Power is common in mechanical, heat and
including walking, running etc electrical applications
v) Energy can be converted from one form to v) Power cannot be converted.
another.
vi) Energy can be stored easily vi)Storing power is impossible.
(b) Out of 60 w and 40 w lamps which one has higher electrical resistance when in use?
40W lamp. Less the power of electrical device, higher is its electrical resistance.
(c) What is the commercial unit of electric energy? Convert it into joules.
Kilowatt hour – Commercial unit of electrical energy
1 kWh = 1000 Wh = 1000 J/S x 3600 sec = 3600000 J = 3.6 x106 J
3. When a high resistance voltmeter is connected directly across a resistor, its reading is 2v. An
electric cell is sending the current of 0.4A in the electric circuit in which a rheostat is also
connected to vary the current.
(i) Find the resistance of the resistor.
Since the voltmeter reading shows 2V. Thus V = 2. Also, Current send by electric cell =
0.4A
Thus I = 0.4A
By Ohm’s law V = IR ⇒ 2 = 0.4 × R ⇒ R = 2 /0.4 = 5Ω
The resistance of the resistor is 5Ω.
(ii) draw labelled circuit for the given data.
(iii) A graph is drawn between a set of values of potential difference (v) across the resister
and current (I) flowing through it. Show the nature of graph thus obtained. Name and state
the law applicable in the given case.
The law applicable is ohm's law. Ohm's law is defined as,
“The current flowing through the conductor is directly proportional to the voltage
difference”.
In mathematically term
, Where, V = potential difference, R = resistance, I = current
voltage -current graph is a straight line.
4. Two devices of rating 44W, 220V and 11W, 220V are connected in series. The combination is
connected across a 440V main. The fuse of which of the two devices is likely to burn when the switch
is ON? Justify your answer.
According to the ohm's law, V=IR, Power, P=

Given:
For device one, P1= 44W, V1= 220V
For device two, P2= 11W, V2= 220V
Supply Voltage =440V
Resistance of device 1, R1 =
R1 = = 1100 ohm
Resistance of device 2, R2=
R2 = = 4400 ohm
Since both are connected in series, R= R1+R2
R= 1100+4400= 5500 ohm
By using ohm's law,
I = V/R= 400/5500= 0.08 A
Voltage across the device 1= IR1
= 0.08 x 1100 = 88 volt
Voltage across the device 2= IR2
= 0.08 x 4400 = 352 volt
If voltage across any device greater than the rating voltage, the fuse of that device would
burn. So, second device where rating voltage is 220 V and voltage across this device is 352
V.
So second device will burn when switch is ON.
5. In an experiment to study the relation between the potential difference across a resistor and the
current through it, a student recorded the following observations:
Potential difference, 1.0 2.2 3.0 4.0 6.4
V(volts)
Current, l(amperes) 0.1 0.2 0.6 0.4 0.6
On examine the above observations, the teacher asked the student to reject one set of readings
as the values were out of agreement with the rest. Which one of the above sets of readings can
be rejected? Calculate the mean value of resistance of the resistor based on the remaining four
sets of readings.
If all physical parameters and temperature stay constant, Ohm's law asserts that the voltage
across a conductor is precisely proportional to the current flowing through it. Resistance is
the constant of proportionality in the equation, with units of ohms and the sign Ω.
According to Ohm's law, the current flowing through a conductor between two places is
proportional to the voltage across the conductor.
Mathematically, Ohms Law can be stated as V = I.R
Readings 1 2 3 4 5
Potential difference, 1.0 2.2 3.0 4.0 6.4
V(volt)
Current, l(ampere) 0.1 0.2 0.6 0.4 0.6
R (in ohm) 10 11 5 10 10.67
Reading number 3 can be rejected as the Voltage difference across the resistor and the
current are not proportional to each other.
Thus,
10+11+10+10.67
Mean Value of remaining 4 resistors = 4
∴ Mean Value of remaining 4 resistors = 10.4 Ω.

6. A steady current flow in a metallic conductor having non- uniform cross section. Explain
which of these quantities is constant along the conductor: current, electric field and drift speed?
When a steady current flows through a non-uniform cross-sectional metallic conductor, the
current flowing through the conductor is constant. Since the current is independent of the
conductor area, it remains constant whereas electric field, and drift speed are all inversely
proportional to cross-sectional area. These quantities are not constant along the length of the
conductor.
7. a) Why is tungsten metal used in bulbs but not in fuse wires?
b) A high tension (HT) supply of say 6 KV must have a very large resistance. Why?
a) Tungsten metal cannot be used in fuse wires but is only used in bulbs because fuse wires
have one purpose and that is to melt when current goes over the limit, but due to tungsten
being an alloy it has a high melting point and resistivity, which makes it difficult to melt and
hence it won’t serve the purpose of being a circuit breaker and can hence lead to damaging of
the appliances connected to the system.
b) If the circuit containing the H.T supply gets short-circuited accidently, the current in the
circuit will not exceed the safe limit, in case the internal resistance of the H.T supply is very
large.
8. A current is passed through a steel wire heated to red. Then half of the wire is immersed in
cold water. Which half of the wire will heat up more and why?
When half the portion of the wire is cooled, its resistance decreases due to decrease in
temperature. As a result of this total resistance of circuit decrease, so current through each
portion of wire increases. That is, rest of the half portion becomes hotter.
9. How does the resistivity of a conductor and a semiconductor vary with temperature? Give
reason for each case.
The resistivity of conductors increases with rise in temperature. As the temperature of the
conductor increases, the average speed of the electrons acting as the current carriers increases.
This in result increases the number of collisions and the average time of collisions decreases
with temperature. Since the resistivity is inversely proportional to the average time , therefore
resistivity increases.
In semiconductors, resistivity decreases with rise in temperature. As the temperature increased,
the numbers of free charge carriers are increased due to breaking of more and more covalent
bonds. Hence, its conductivity increases and resistivity decreases with rise in temperature.
10. When the length of the wire is stretched ‘n’ times its length, its resistance becomes n 2 times
the original resistance. Prove it.
Volume of the wire remains same before and after stretching.
Vi = Vf = V
Resistance of the wire -
Initial resistance: R=ρl /A where A=V/l ⇒ R=ρl2 /V .... (1)
Final resistance: R′=ρ l′ /V2
.... (2)
Dividing equation (2) by (1)
⇒ R′/R =l′2/ l2
Given l′=nl
⇒R′ = (nl)2R/l2 = n2R
Hence proved.
TOPIC – MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT (LEVEL -1)

____________
CHAPTER – MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT
LEVEL 1
1. Which of the following is not attracted by a magnet?

a) steel b) cobalt c) brass d) nickel
2. Electric motor is a device which converts

a) mechanical energy to electrical energy
b) electrical energy to mechanical energy
c) chemical energy to mechanical energy
d) mechanical energy to light energy.
3. Magnetic field lines around a straight conductor forms a pattern of

a) concentric circles b) concentric ellipse
c) straight line d) square shape.
4. Overloading happens due to

a) short circuits b) Increase in power supply
c) Decrease in power supply d) Both a & b
5. The most suitable material for making the core of an electromagnet is
a) Iron b) Aluminium
c) Soft Iron d) Steel
6. The most important safety method used for protecting all home appliances from short circuiting or
overloading is by
a) earthing b) use of fuse
c) use of stabilizers d) use of electric meter
7. The direction of induced current is given by

a) Fleming’s right hand rule b) Fleming’s left hand rule
c) Right hand thumb rule d) Left hand thumb rule.
8. In India the potential difference between live wire and neutral wire is
a) 240 V b) 250 V
c) 280 V d) 220 V
9. The insulation color of earth wire is

a) blue b) red
c) green d) white
10. Select the incorrect statement

а) Magnetic field lines are closed curves
b) No two field lines can cross each other
c) Field lines can cross each other
d) The relative strength of the magnetic field is shown by degree of closeness of the field lines
II. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation for assertion.
b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion.
c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
1. Assertion: The strength of the magnetic field produced at the centre of a current carrying circular coil
increases on increasing the current flowing through the coil.
Reason: Magnetic field strength is inversely proportional to the current flowing in the coil.
Ans: c
2. Assertion: A current carrying wire deflects a magnetic needle placed near it.
Reason: A magnetic field exists around a current carrying wire.
Ans: a
3. Assertion: Alternating Current is used in household supply.

Reason: AC electric power can be transmitted over long distances without much loss of energy.
Ans: b
4. Assertion: Strength of an electromagnet can be increased by increasing the number of turns per unit
length in solenoid coil.
Reason: Strength of an electromagnet can be increased by increasing the current flowing through the
solenoid.
Ans: b
5. Assertion: A compass needle is placed near a current carrying wire. The deflection of the compass
needle decreases when the compass needle is displaced away from the wire.
Reason: Strength of a magnetic field decreases as one moves away from a current carrying conductor.
Ans: a
III. Answer the following question.
1. State the observations made by Oersted on the basis of his experiments with current carrying
conductor.
Ans: Oersted observed that a magnetic compass needle deflected violently when brought close to a
current carrying wire. This effect led him to conclude that moving charges in the form of a current
possesses certain magnetic field, so a wire can act as a magnet.
2. The three diagrams in the following figure shows the lines of force (field lines) between the poles of
two magnets. Identify the poles A, B, C, D, E and F.
Ans: A - North Pole (As field lines are going away)

B - North Pole (As field lines are going away)
C - South Pole (As field lines are coming towards)
D - South Pole (As field lines are coming towards)
E - North Pole (As field lines are going away)
F - South Pole (As field lines are coming towards)
3. You are required to make an electromagnet from a soft iron bar by using a cell, an insulated coil of
copper wire and a switch. Draw a circuit diagram to represent the process.
Ans:
4. What does the divergence of magnetic field lines near the ends of a current carrying straight solenoid
indicate?
Ans: The divergence of magnetic field lines near the ends of a current-carrying solenoid indicates a
decrease in the strength of the magnetic field near the ends (and beyond).
5. Complete the diagram with commutator, etc. for the flow of current in the coil.
Ans:
6. Raman's air-conditioner consumes 2160 W of power when a current of 9.0 A passes through it. What
would happen if Raman tried connecting his air-conditioner to a 120 V line?
Ans: Since the resistance of the air conditioner is constant when it is connected to a supply line of 120V,
the current decreases by half. i.e., I=4.5A, as voltage is getting reduced by half 2402=120V. And
according to Ohm's law, V=IR i.e., voltage is directly is proportional to current. Hence AC will not
operate.
7. Why is a series arrangement not used for connecting domestic electrical appliances in a circuit? What
is the usual current rating of the fuse wire in the line to feed Lights and fans?
Ans: Series arrangement is not used in home circuits because if one component fails, the entire
arrangement fails.
Usual current rating of the fuse wire in the line to feed Lights and fans is 5A.
8. State two ways in which

a) the current induced in the coil of generator could be increased
b) the speed of rotation of an electric motor can be increased.
Ans: a) The strength of the induced current can be increased in the following way
1. By increasing the rate of change of magnetic flux associated with the coil.
2. By increasing the number of turns of the coil.
3. The strength of the induced current can also be increased by altering the speed of relative motion
between the coil and the magnetic field.
b) The speed of rotation of an electric motor can be increased by:

1. Increasing the strength of current.
2. Increasing the number of turns in the coil.

9. Compare the forces experienced by a current carrying conductor when placed
a) parallel to the magnetic field
b) perpendicular to the magnetic field
Ans: a) The force experienced by a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field is minimum when the
wire is placed parallel to the magnetic field.
b) When the direction of the electric current and the external magnetic field are perpendicular to each
other, the strength of the force on the conductor is maximum or largest.
10. CASE STUDY:

The electric energy is produced in thermal and hydroelectric power stations and from there it is delivered
to the farms, factories and houses through underground cable or overhead wires.The electricity supplied
to our homes is A.C. of 220 volts having frequency 50 Hz. The supply line is called the main line or
mains. From the mains entering our homes, the supply is divided into two circuits.
The figure shows two bulbs with switches and fuse connected to mains through a socket.
a) Label each component

b) Name and state the colour of insulation of each wire 1,2 and 3.
c) How are the two bulbs joined? In series or in parallel?
Ans: a)
b)
Wire no. Wire name Colour

1 Neutral wire Black
2 Earth wire Green
3 Live wire Red
c) Parallel

____________
1. Choose the incorrect statements from the following regarding magnetic lines of field.
a) the direction of magnetic field at a point is taken to be the direction in which the north pole of a
magnetic compass needle points
b) magnetic field lines are closed curves
c) if magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero field strength
d) relative strength of magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field lines.
2. If the key in the arrangement figure given below is taken out (the circuit is made open) and magnetic
field lines are drawn over the horizontal plane ABCD, the lines are
a) concentric circles
b) elliptical in shape
c) straight lines parallel to each other (Due to earth’s magnetic field)
d) concentric circles near the point O but of elliptical shapes as we go away from it.
3. If two circular coils can be arranged in any of the three situations as shown in the diagrams below,
then their mutual induction will be:
a) Maximum in situation a b) Maximum in situation c

c) Maximum in situation b d) The same in all situations
4. The force exerted on a current carrying wire placed in a magnetic field is zero when the angle between
wire and the direction of magnetic field is:
a) 45o b) 60o c) 90o d) 180o
5. In the arrangement shown in the figure there are two coils wound on a non-conducting cylindrical rod.
Initially the key is not inserted. Then the key is inserted and later removed. Then
a) the deflection in the galvanometer remains zero throughout.

b) there is a momentary deflection in the galvanometer but it dies out shortly and there is no effect
when the keys is removed.
c) there are momentary galvanometer deflections that die out shortly; the deflections are in the same
direction.
d) there are momentary galvanometer deflections that die out shortly; the deflections are in opposite
directions.
6. The direction of current in a motor is changed with the help of which of the following options?
a) Half-circular ring b) Brushes
c) Axle d) Switch key
7. A current through a horizontal power line flows in the east to west direction. The direction of the
magnetic field at a point directly below it is from
a) from West to East b) from North to South

c) from South to North d) from East to West
8. In the household electric circuits, the insulated copper wire coloured red is termed as
a) Earthing wire b) Fuse wire
c) Live wire d) Neutral wire
9. A beam of alpha particles that enters a chamber moving along the magnetic field. The force acting on
them is
a) Vertical and Maximum to the magnetic field
b) Maximum and along the magnetic field
c) Vertical (perpendicular) and minimum to the magnetic field
d) Zero
10. Two parallel wires carrying current in the same direction attract each other because of the
a) potential difference between them b) magnetic force between them
c) electric force between them d) mechanical force between them
II. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation for assertion.
b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion.
c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
1. Assertion: On freely suspending a current-carrying solenoid, it comes to rest in N-S direction just like
a bar magnet.
Reason: One end of current carrying straight solenoid behaves as a North pole and the other end as a
South pole.
Ans: a
2. Assertion: The strength of the magnetic field produced at the center of a current carrying circular coil
increases on increasing the radius of the circular coil.
Reason: Magnetic field strength is inversely proportional to the radius of the circular coil.
Ans: d
3. Assertion: Electric magnet is a temporary magnet.
Reason: A current carrying solenoid acts as a magnet.
Ans: b
4. Assertion: Safety fuses are made of materials having low melting point.
Reason: Safety fuses should be resistant to electric current.
Ans: c
5. Assertion: The magnitude of the magnetic field at a point on the axis of a current carrying solenoid is
inversely proportional to the current flowing through the solenoid.
Reason: The magnitude of the magnetic field at a point on the axis of a current carrying solenoid is
directly proportional to the number of turns per unit length of a solenoid.
Ans: d
III. Answer the following question.
1. It is established that an electric current through a metallic conductor produces a magnetic field around
it. Is there a similar magnetic field produced around a thin beam of moving (i) positively charged alpha
particles, (ii) neutrons? Justify your answer by giving suitable arguments.
Ans: (i) Alpha particles being positively charged constitute a current in the direction of motion, therefore
magnetic field will be produced around a thin beam of moving alpha particles.
(ii) The neutrons being electrically neutral constitute no current, so no magnetic field will be produced
around a thin beam of moving neutrons.
2. A rectangular coil ABCD having a battery connected between its ends A and D is placed in between
the pole pieces of a horseshoe magnet as shown in Fig
(i) What is the direction of current in the coil?
(ii) What is the direction of force on each arm?
(iii) What is the effect of the forces on the coil?
(iv) How does the effect of forces on the coil change if the connections at the terminals of the battery are
interchanged?
Ans: (i)
(ii) In Fig. the current in coil is in direction DCBA. By Fleming’s left hand rule, on the arm AB, the force is
outward at right angles to the plane of coil. On the arm BC no force acts. On the arm CD, the force is
inwards perpendicular to the plane of coil. On the arm DA, no force acts.
(iii) The force on the arms AB and CD are equal in magnitude, but opposite in direction. They form a
clockwise couple. So the coil will rotate clockwise with the arm AB coming out and the arm CD going in.
(iv) On interchanging the terminals of battery, the direction of current in coil is reversed so the coil will
rotate anticlockwise.
3. Current-time graphs from two different sources are shown in the following diagrams.
i) Name the type of current shown by graph A and B

ii) Name any one source for the current shown by graph A and graph B
iii) What is the frequency of current shown by graph B
Ans: i) A – DC current
B – AC current
ii) A – battery
B – AC generator
iii) 50 Hz
4. A particle moving towards south in a vertically downward magnetic field is deflected toward the
east. What is the sign of the charge on the particle?
Ans: The sign of the charged particle will be positive. Since, By the Flemings left-hand rule, here the direction of
the force is in eastwards the direction of its velocity is into southward and the magnetic field is into downward
with the plane.
5. A domestic electric circuit has a fuse of 5A. What is the maximum number of 100W(220V) bulbs that
can be safely used in the circuit?
Ans: Power (P)= voltage(v)×current(i)=100W
i=220 / 100 =0.45A
Number of bulbs that can be safely operated through a 5A fuse =0.45 / 5 =11
6. Suggest a method to detect a current carrying wire concealed in a wall. Also state the underlying
principle.
Ans . The presence of these conductors cannot be determined by naked eyes. As this current-carrying
conductor
produces a magnetic field, its presence inside the wall can be determined by a field detecting instrument.
A plotting compass instrument can detect the presence of a magnetic field by showing deflection.
When this instrument is taken near the wall, it shows deflection if there is any concealed current-
carrying conductor.
Underlying principle: The current-carrying conductor produces a magnetic field around it
7. The diagram shows a bar magnet surrounded by four plotting compasses.

a) Copy the diagram and mark in the direction of the compass needle for each of the cases A, B, C
and D.
b) Which is the north pole, X or Y?
Ans: (a)
(b) north pole - X

8. When a bar magnet is pushed towards (or away) from the coil connected to a galvanometer, the
pointer in the galvanometer deflects. Identify the phenomenon causing this deflection and write the
factors on which the amount and direction of the deflection depends.
Ans: The phenomenon involved is electromagnetic induction (EMI).The process by which a changing
magnetic field in a conductor induces a current in another conductor is called electromagnetic
induction.The strength of the induced current depends on
1. Rate of change of magnetic field linked with a coil
2. Number of the turns in the coil
3. Relative speed between the coil and the magnet
4. Directions of motion of coil and magnetic field (Induced current is maximum when they are
perpendicular to each other)
Direction of induced current depends on the direction of magnetic field and direction of motion of
conductor.
9. What is the advantage of using AC over DC? Also give the frequency of direct current.
We all know that we got ac supply in our homes and we got this supply by transmitting ac over long
distances. AC can be transmitted using step up transformers but direct current or dc can not be
transmitted by this method.
1. The ac is easy to generate than dc.

2. It is cheaper to generate ac than dc.
3. The ac generators have higher efficiency than dc.
4. The loss of energy during transmission is negligible for ac.
5. The ac can be easily converted into dc.
6. The variation of ac can easily be done using transformers either step up or step down.
7. The value or magnitude of ac can be decreased easily without loss of excess of energy. This can be
done by using choke coil.
Frequency of DC = 0
10. Case study
Andre Marie Ampere suggested that a magnet must exert an equal and opposite force on a current
carrying conductor, which was experimentally found to be true. But we know that current is due to
charges in motion. Thus, it is clear that a charge moving in a magnetic field experience a force, except
when it is moving in a direction parallel to it. If the direction of motion is perpendicular to the direction
of magnetic field, the magnitude of force experienced depends on the charge, velocity (v), strength of
magnetic field (B), and sine of the angle between v and B. Direction of magnetic force is given by
Fleming's left hand rule.
(I) If an electron is travelling horizontally towards east. A magnetic field in vertically downward
direction exerts a force on the electron along.
a) east b) west
c) north d) south
(ii) If a charged particle is moving along a magnetic field line. The magnetic force on the particle is
a) along its velocity b) opposite to its velocity
c) perpendicular to its velocity d) zero
(iii) A magnetic field exerts no force on
a) a stationary electric charge
b) a magnet
c) an electric charge moving perpendicular to its direction
d) an unmagnetized iron bar

WORKSHEET NO: 39
DATE: ____________
1. i) The image shows the current flowing in the coil of wire wound around the soft iron horseshoe core.
State the polarities developed at the ends A and B.
ii) Why does a current carrying conductor kept in a magnetic field experience force? List the factors
on which direction of this force depends.
Ans: i) When current is passed through the windings, the end A of the arm becomes south pole (current
at this face is clockwise) and the end B becomes north pole (current at this face is in anticlockwise
direction).
ii) The drifting of free electrons of a conductor in a definite direction causes the current to flow through
it. When such conductor is placed in a uniform magnetic field, each drifted electron of a conductor
experience a magnetic force. This force is collectively experience by a conductor as a whole. Hence a
current carrying conductor kept in a magnetic field experience a force. The direction of magnetic force
depends on (i) direction of current through the conductor, and (ii) direction of magnetic field.
2. In a three-pin plug, earth pin is thicker and longer than the live pin and neutral pin. Why? What
happens when fuse is connected to the neutral wire?
Ans: Among these three pins (live, neutral and earth), the earth pin is made longer and thicker than
the other two pins, so that when we insert the plug into the socket, the earth pin comes into contact with
the power supply before the other two pins, this is because if any unwanted charges are there then they
will be removed (grounded) before the other two pins will go inside the terminals.
This will ensure that if we connect the earth first then that will increase our safety and the device's safety
if any fault occurs.
Also, the earth pin is made thicker so that even by mistake also it cannot be inserted into the holes for the
live or neutral connection of the socket.
So, this increases the efficiency.

3. A current of 5 A is flowing through a straight wire AB. Will the current be induced in the circular
wire of radius 1m?
Ans: No, because circular coil is placed in a constant magnetic field produced by a steady current of 5A.
4. If the circular coil has n turns, the field produced is n times as large as that produced by a single turn.
Justify the statement.
Ans: This is because the current in each circular turn has the same direction, and the field due to each
turn then just adds up along the axis of the coil.
5. A current carrying wire is placed in the plane of the paper in a magnetic field as shown below. In
which direction does the wire move? State the rule used to determine the direction of movement of the
wire.
Ans: Wire moves out of the plane of paper. Rule used is Fleming’s left-hand rule.
TOPIC – OUR ENVIRONMENT (LEVEL -1)

____________
Multiple Choice questions:
1. Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem?
a.Pond b.Lake c.Crop field d.Forest.
2. In a food chain, the third trophic level is always occupied by_________.
a.Carnivores b. Herbivores c. Decomposers d. Producers.
3. In the given food chain, suppose the amount of energy at the fourth trophic level is 5 kJ, what will
be the energy available at the producer level?
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk
a. 5 kJ b. 50 kJ c. 500 kJ d. 5000 kJ.
4. Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the food chain in increasing amount at each higher
trophic level is known as _____________.
a. Eutrophication b. Urbanization c. Biomagnification d.Accumulation
5. Organisms which synthesize carbohydrates from inorganic compounds using radiant energy are
called _________________.
a.Producers b. Decomposers c. Herbivores d. Carnivores
6. Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always ________.
a.Unidirectional b. Multidirectional c. No specific direction d. Bidirectional
7. Excessive exposure of humans to UV-rays results in ______________.
a.Weak bones b. Damage to lungs c.Skin cancer d. Peptic ulcers
8. Which of the following limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain?
a. Decrease in energy at higher trophic levels
b. Deficient food supply
c. Polluted air
d. Water
9. In the biosphere which is the ultimate source of energy?

a. Sun b. Carbon c. Water d. Nitrogen.
10. The percentage of solar radiation absorbed by all the green plants for the process of photosynthesis is
about ____________.
a. 10 % b. 1% c. 5% d. 0.1%
1. Assertion(A) : Ozone layer is getting depleted at upper atmosphere which is a cause of concern.
Reason (R) : Ozone layer acts as a protective shield by preventing harmful UV radiations from entering the
Earth's surface.
Ans - a
2. Assertion(A) : Autotrophs can produce food on its own.

Reason (R) : Green plants can absorb 1% energy of sunlight that falls on the leaves.
Ans -b
3. Assertion(A): Accumulation of harmful chemicals is maximum in case of organisms at higher trophic

level.
Reason (R) : Food chain normally do not go beyond 3 or 4 trophic level.
Ans -b
4. Assertion(A) : Abiotic component of an ecosystem involves cycling of material and flow of energy.
Reason (R) : This is essential to keep biotic factors alive
Ans -a
5. Assertion(A): “Energy flow in food chains is always unidirectional.”

Reason (R) : There is always a decrease in the flow of energy and content with rise in trophic level.
Ans-a
III. Answer the following questions:
1. What is an ecosystem? Give an example of a natural and artificial ecosystem.
Ecosystems are functional units, which consist of biotic and abiotic components, and they interact with
each other for sustenance.
A natural ecosystem is an interaction between the environment and the organisms living in the
environment. It occurs naturally in nature and requires no human activity for its functioning. Examples of
natural ecosystems include ponds, rivers, forests, etc.
Artificial ecosystems are human-made structures where biotic and abiotic components are made to interact
with each other for survival. It is not self-sustaining and can perish without human help. Examples of
artificial ecosystems include aquariums, agriculture fields, zoos, etc.
2. Write a common food chain in a pond.
Algae → Small Fish/shrimp → Medium Fish → Large fish/crane/duck
3. What is sewage? How is it different from Garbage?
Sewage is liquid waste, where refuse will tend to be solids such as household waste, leaves, or even dead
animals. Sewage, of course, involves liquid waste from toilets, kitchen waste, or water that is left over
after laundry. Household waste or rubbish is called garbage.
4. Plastic cups were used to serve tea in train in the early days-these could be returned to the vendors,
cleaned and reused. Later, Kulhads were used instead of plastic cups. Now, paper cups are used for serving
tea. What are the reasons for the shift from plastic to Kulhads and then finally to paper cups?
Plastic cups are non-biodegradable and harm the environment. They were thus replaced by Kulhads. Making
Kulhad made of clay on a large scale resulted in the loss of top fertile soil.Now, disposable paper cups are
used because - the paper can be recycled, it is biodegradable and is eco-friendly material which does not
cause environmental pollution
5. Study the given diagram carefully and answer the following questions.
a) Identify
I. Producer / Ist Trophic Level (T1) -____Leaf__(PRODUCER)_____
II. Primary consumer / 2nd Trophic Level (T2) -__Caterpillar (PRIMARY CONSUMER) __________
III. Secondary Consumers / 3rd Trophic Level (T3) -_______Small bird______
IV. Tertiary Consumer / 4th Trophic Level (T4) -_____Eagle__________
6. a) What will be the amount of energy available to the organisms of the 2nd trophic level of a food
chain, if the energy available at the first trophic level is 50,000 joules?
Ten percent of 50k that is 5000J
b) State the law associated with the above concept. Justify your answer.
Ten percent law ( give definition too )
7. A geographical area contains organisms like snake, grasshopper, peacock, grass and frog. If pesticides
were used in this area to kill insects, which among the organisms will have the maximum amount of
pesticide? Name and define the phenomenon involved.
Phenomenon is Biomagnification. Maximum will be in peacock.
8. a) What is an ozone hole? How is it formed?

It refers to the depletion of the ozone layer in the stratosphere. This leads to an increase in temperature as the
solar radiation reaches the surface of the Earth unhindered and unfiltered. Ozone hole depletion is caused by
the chemical released by refrigerators, and air conditioners called CFC (Chlorofluorocarbons).
b) Where are these ozone depleting substances used?

Refrigerator and ACs
9. The existence of decomposers is essential in the biosphere. Give reasons to justify the statement.
Decomposers are very important to the biosphere as they decompose the complex organic compounds
into simple inorganic compounds which can be easily used up by the plants. If decomposers will not be
present then there will be no decomposition and hence there will be no available space for new beings
10. There was an article in the newspaper that some brands of fruit juices contain certain levels of
pesticides in them. On reading the article your mother got worried as pesticide is injurious to health.
a) How would you explain to your mother about fruit juices getting contaminated with pesticides?
I would explain to her about biomagnification.
b) It is said that when these harmful pesticides enter our body as well as in bodies of other
organisms, they get accumulated and beyond a limit cause harm and damage to our organs. name the
phenomena and define it in detail.
Biomagnification, also known as bio amplification or biological magnification, is the increasing
concentration of a substance, such as a toxic chemical, in the tissues of organisms at successively higher
levels in a food chain. This increase can occur as a result of: Persistence – where the substance cannot be
broken down by environmental processes Food chain energetics – where the substance's concentration
increases progressively as it moves up a food chain. Low or non-existent rate of internal degradation or
excretion of the substance – often due to water-insolubility
Biological magnification often refers to the process whereby certain substances such as pesticides or heavy
metals work their way into lakes, rivers and the ocean, and then move up the food chain in progressively
greater concentrations as they are incorporated into the diet of aquatic organisms such as zooplankton, which
in turn are eaten perhaps by fish, which then may be eaten by bigger fish, large birds, animals, or humans.
The substances become increasingly concentrated in tissues or internal organs as they move up the chain.
Bioaccumulates are substances that increase in concentration in living organisms as they take
in contaminated air, water, or food because the substances are very slowly metabolized or excreted.
c) State in brief 2 ways in which non-biodegradable substances would affect the environment.
(i) The non-biodegradable substances get accumulated and doesnï¿½ï¿½t get decomposed hence it
remains in the ecosystem and causes pollution, chokes the system of many animals and kill them.
(ii) These substances due to accumulation cause water and soil pollution e.g., pesticides, detergents,
polythene.
d) Suggest some methods to reduce the use of non-biodegradable substances.
Shop eco-friendly with reusable bags , Say no to disposable water bottles and coffee cups

____________
Multiple Choice questions:
1. Four pupils were asked to state what they knew about decomposers. Their answers are shown in the
given
Who is correct?
a) Only Esha and Jane
b) Only Abhi and Esha
c) Only Esha and John
d) Only Abhi, Jane and John
2. Figure below shows the position of layer P in the Earth's atmosphere that protects the Earth from
over-exposure to harmful ultraviolet radiation.
Which of the following chemicals cause the thinning of layer P?

a) Carbon monoxide
b) Sulphur dioxide
c) Chlorofluorocarbons
d) Both (1) and (3)
3. Which of the statements is incorrect?

a) All green plants and blue-green algae are producers
b) Green plants get their food from organic compounds
c) Producers prepare their own food from inorganic compounds
d) Plants convert solar energy into chemical energy
4. The following diagram shows the organisms in a habitat.
Which one indicates the feeding relation between them ?
Ans – d
The butterfly feeds on the fly and the plants. However after the butterfly dies the dead and decaying
organisms is fed upon by the decomposers.The decomposers are a very important part of the food
chain because they help in the new recycling of the nutrition.
5. Durga took 3 different types of solid waste P,Q and R and buried them under the soil in a pot to
study their rate of decomposition. Her findings are shown in the graph below.
Also select the option that correctly identifies P, Q and R.

P Q R
(a) Polythene bag Leather bag Fruit peel
(b) Used syringes Broken glass Leather purse
(c) Cardboard Cow dung Rubber mat
(d) Human excreta Paper cup Cow dung
6. The environmental changes caused by human results in:

a) an increase in acid rain
b) an increase in the loss of species from the ecosystem
c) higher concentrations of greenhouse gases
d) all of the above
7. The diagram shows the flow of energy through an ecosystem
The smallest amount of energy transferred between organisms and the largest amount of energy lost
to the ecosystem is represented by which arrow ?
Smallest Energy Transfer Largest Energy Loss
(a) 4 3
(b) 2 1
(c) 2 3
(d) 1 4
8. Recycling of paper is a good practice but recycled paper should not be used as food packaging.
a) recycled papers take lots of space

b) recycled papers can’t cover food properly
c) recycled papers can cause infection
d) recycled papers are costly
9. Which group of organisms will not constitute a food chain?
i. Grass, lion, rabbit, wolf

ii. Plankton, man, fish, grasshopper
iii. Wolf, grass, snake, tiger
iv. Frog, snake, eagle, grass, grasshopper
1. Assertion: Polythene bags and plastic containers are non-biodegradable substances.

Reason: They can be broken down by microorganisms in natural simple harmless
substances.
Ans - C
2. Assertion: The burning of substances at a higher temperature is called incineration.

Reason: Incineration reduces the volume of wastes.
Ans - b
3. Assertion: Supersonic jets thin out the ozone layer.

Reason: Depletion of ozone causes greenhouse effect.
Ans - a
III. Answer the following questions:
1. Refer to the given food web.

a. What will be the effect on the food web if the population of water fleas gets eliminated?
If the water flees are eliminated then there will be no one to eat and consume insect larvae and
their number will increase many folds.
Water beetles will be eliminated soon because they feed on water flees.
The population of both small fish will decrease as water beetles decrease so, small fish feeding
capacity also decreases.
There is no effect on the frog population because they can feed on insect larvae in absence of
water beetles.
b. In the given food web, which organism operates at both primary and tertiary consumer level?
Small fish
2. The number of malarial patients in a village increased tremendously when large numbers of frogs
were exported from the village. What could be the cause for this?
The number of malaria patients in a village increased tremendously when a large number of frogs
were exported from the village because frogs eat the insects that cause the disease malaria.
3. DDT was sprayed in a lake to regulate breeding of mosquitoes. How would it affect the trophic levels in
the food chain associated with a lake? Justify your answer.
DDT being a non- biodegradable pesticide will enter the food chain from the first trophic level i.e.
Plankton. Non – biodegradable pesticides accumulate progressively at each trophic level.
4. a. Why can’t decomposers be allocated a particular trophic level?

The correct option is B. They act at all trophic levels of food chains.
Decomposers feed on organisms of all trophic levels as they feed on their dead and decaying matter.
This is why mostly decomposers do not occupy a specific level in the food chain as their source of
energy can be an organism at only one specific trophic level. This makes it hard to assign them to a
single trophic level in the food chain. As a result, decomposers aren't included in the food chain.
Decomposers play a major role in decaying the organic matter of dead organisms and they have a huge
population which makes them relevant at all trophic levels. They can decompose the dead organisms
with which they interact directly.
b. Refer to the given table.

According to the given data. Write the correct order of organisms in the food chain.
C<E<A<D<B
5. We do not clean ponds or lakes but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Explain.
Ponds and lakes are natural ecosystems and they contain decomposers. Decomposers act as
cleansing agents here, whereas an aquarium is an artificial ecosystem, it does not contain
decomposers that cleanse it. Hence, an aquarium needs to be cleaned periodically.
6. The stratosphere is composed primarily of nitrogen and oxygen. It also consists of a layer known as
the ozone layer, a blanket of ozone that absorbs harmful ultraviolet (UV) rays from the sun. Ozone
is a chemical compound consisting of three oxygen atoms.It is a type of gaseous compound. It is
made from the combination of three oxygen atoms. Therefore, the chemical formula of this compound
is O3. The formation of O3 is a two-step reaction. In the first step, the oxygen molecule is broken
down into oxygen atoms with the help of sunlight. In the second step, the collision of oxygen atoms
with another oxygen atom leads to the formation of ozone.
The temperature of the stratosphere is a key factor governing ozone depletion over Antarctica. In
winter, the icy particles that form in polar stratospheric clouds release chlorine, which destroys ozone.
The accumulation of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the lower atmosphere, known as
the troposphere, traps near the earth's surface heat that would otherwise be radiated. This robs the
upper atmosphere, or stratosphere, of warmth.
a) How is ozone formed in the outer atmosphere?

Ozone is a chemical compound consisting of three oxygen atoms.It is a type of gaseous
compound. It is made from the combination of three oxygen atoms. Therefore, the chemical
formula of this compound is O3. The formation of O3 is a two-step reaction. In the first step, the
oxygen molecule is broken down into oxygen atoms with the help of sunlight. In the second step,
the collision of oxygen atoms with another oxygen atom leads to the formation of ozone.
b) What are the possible effects of ozone depletion on human health?

Skin cancer and plays a major role in malignant melanoma development
c) Based on the above paragraph, what do you think might be a potential positive effect of global
warming on ozone layer depletion?
The temperature of the stratosphere is a key factor governing ozone depletion over Antarctica. In
winter, the icy particles that form in polar stratospheric clouds release chlorine, which destroys
ozone.
The accumulation of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the lower atmosphere,
known as the troposphere, traps near the earth's surface heat that would otherwise be radiated.
This robs the upper atmosphere, or stratosphere, of warmth

____________
1. The diagram shows part of a river into which sewage is being pumped. Some of the effects of adding
sewage to the river are shown in the graph. At which point in the river (among Point A, B, C and D) are
decomposers most active?
At point B as oxygen level is the lowest there.
2. The diagram represents the flow of substances within a balanced ecosystem. The boxes are various
trophic levels. Which one of the following represents the producers?
A) box represents the primary trophic level which is producer in an ecosystem. Because of two
reasons: 1) They are highest in number. 2) They provide energy for the beginning of a food chain.
3. In KunjPura village, located in Karnal district, Haryana, Aditya Aggarwal and his older brother
Amit Aggarwal run Tee Cee Industries, a steel plant set up by their ancestors in 1984. Along with
this, they also run a gaushala that houses 1,200 cows that can no longer produce milk. The cow
shelter was manageable but running the steel plant was turning out to be expensive because they
spent a whopping Rs 5 lakh every month on electricity. The brothers struck upon an idea. Why not
run the factory with the biogas produced from cow dung from the shelter and other gaushalas, along
with bio and agri wastes, this led Aditya and Amit to start Amrit Fertilizers, a biogas project, in
2014, without any government support.
a. Raw material used in bio gas plant is:

(a) Animal dung
(b) crop residue
(c) Food waste
(d) All of the above
b. Biogas is a better fuel than animal dung cake because
(i) Biogas has lower calorific value.
(ii) Animal dung cake has a higher calorific value.
(iii) Biogas has a high heating capacity.
(iv) Biogas burns without smoke.
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) only (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii)
4. a. A non-biodegradable insecticide known as DDT was sprayed onto the pine trees. In which of the
following organisms shown in the given food web would most of the DDT eventually accumulate ?
DDT would accumulate the most in organism X.
b. With reference to the given food web, which of the following statements is true ?’
i) There is only one organism that makes organic compounds from inorganic substances.
ii) There is no such one organism that converts organic compounds into inorganic substances.
iii) The inability of the oak tree to produce acorns would affect the red tailed hawk more than the
snake.
iv) Removal of X would cause an increase in the population of all the organisms.

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TOPIC – CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS (LEVEL 1)

WORKSHEET NO – 01 DATE: ______

1. A student has dropped metal pieces into a colourless liquid kept in

Which of the following statement is correct about the reaction?

(a) Name the gas.

TOPIC – CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS (LEVEL 2)

WORKSHEET NO - 02 DATE: ____________

a) (i) only b) (i) and (iii)

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

(i) AgN03 (aq) + NaCl(aq)——————– > AgCl(s)↓ + NaN03(aq)

TOPIC – CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS (LEVEL 3)

When copper carbonate undergoes decomposition, it forms a black-coloured oxide

b) Name the type of reaction. - double displacement or precipitation reaction

Two main observations:

1. The emission of brown fumes of NO2 after thermal decomposition of Pb (NO3)2

b) Explain two ways by which food industries prevent rancidity

c) Discuss the importance of decomposition reaction in metal industries with three

TOPIC: ACID, BASE AND SALT (LEVEL 1)

WORKSHEET NO: 4 DATE:

hydrochloric acid, it forms dense white fumes of ammonium chloride . It is a

a) combination reaction , acidic salt is formed

b) combination reaction , basic salt is formed

c) combination reaction , neutral salt is formed

d) neutralization reaction, acidic salt is formed.

6. Which of the following is true about dilution of an acid

a) The strength of the acid does not change on dilution

b) The concentration of hydronium ions increases per unit volume

c) Water is added to the acid by stirring continuously

d) The concentration of hydroxide ions increases per unit volume

Which of the following statement is correct about the reaction?

a) It is a decomposition reaction and endothermic in nature

Therefore, the sulfate salt formed is Calcium sulfate

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

(a) Name the gas.

WORKSHEET NO: 5 DATE:

1. The image shows the pH values of four solutions on a pH scale.

Which solutions are alkaline in nature?

2. What is the pH range of our body?

what should be done?

a) Wash the hand with saline solution

c) After washing with plenty of water apply solution of sodium

hydroxide on the hand

d) Neutralise the acid with a strong alkali

a.Solvay ammonia process

b. Chlor alkali process

d. Preparation of washing soda.

(I) The temperature of the solution increases

(II) The temperature of the solution decreases

(III) The temperature of the solution remains the same

(IV) Salt formation takes place

(a) Only (I)

(b) (I) and (III)

(c) (I) and (III)

(d) (I) and (IV)

a. Sulphur, NaOH, Hydrogen gas

b. Zn granules, Dilute sulphuric acid, hydrogen gas

c. Zn granules, Dilute sulphuric acid, CO2 gas

d. Sulphur, Dilute sulphuric acid, Hydrogen gas