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ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST 2024
MOCK CLAT #29
ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE word has not been meant in relation to the Christian
faith despite it being one of the accepted meanings
1. (d) Option D is the correct answer because the passage of the word apart from the passage.
states that there is depiction in textbooks about the 3. (d) Option D is the correct answer because the author is
oppressive and superstitious system prevailing in the showing disdainful or contemptuous tones with
Vedic civilization prior to the invasion whose respect to the writing of history by previous authors
ending was taken as a relief by the invasion. If the of Indian history textbooks and patronizing an
period is depicted as a pinnacle or high in the society individual who has fought against this grave offence
then there would be statements about the past glory of reporting history of Hindus in a one-sided
of the Vedic and other civilisations which is not negative undertone and discontinuity. Option A is
present; the invasion is taken as an ending to an incorrect because the passage is not expressing
oppressive system. Option A is incorrect because the sadness or sorrow over anything or any event.
passage mentions that Vedic and Harappan Option B is incorrect because the passage is not
civilisations are depicted as isolated. Option B is showing extreme anger or bitterness but is
incorrect because the passage mentions that condescending of the way history has been written
hierarchy later developed in the Vedic religion. and patronizing an individual who has tried
Option C is incorrect because the passage states that correcting the imbalance in writing. Option C is
Jainism and Buddhism were a result of protest incorrect because sarcasm denotes mocking or
against priest supremacy. sardonic undertones whereas the author is directly
2. (d) Option D is the correct answer because the passage critical or contemptuous of the way history has been
states about the ancient and very old nature of the written.
Hindus and their history which has not been 4. (c) Option C is the correct answer because the passage
depicted with continuity and wholesomeness in the in the first paragraph states that there has only been
Indian history textbooks. Option A is incorrect Mr. Mazumdar who has written history of Hindus
because it indicates a negative connotation as without a tinge of aversion or dislike to it; rest all the
regards being regressive in nature while the word is textbooks written have been done in a lopsided or
used in a positive sense in the passage to mean one-sided manner with presenting other religions
ancient or very old nature of the people and the like Jainism and Buddhism in a comparative attitude
civilization. Option B is incorrect because this word pitting them to be superior to the Vedic or
has not been used in the sense of chemical solutions Brahmanical tradition (anti-Vedic used in the
or making some principles less valid but to denote passage signifies this). Option A is incorrect
ancient nature. Option C is incorrect because the because the first paragraph mentions one historian
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who has written balanced history named Mazumdar. passage for consideration but the socio-political
Option B is incorrect because the first passage states aspects are also a major point in discussion.
that other religions and events have been pitted 8. (d) Option D is the correct answer because the passage
against Hindu civilization and traditions; its ancient is about discriminatory or racial attitudes of
nature is not disputed. Option D is incorrect because policemen or cops in France which resulted in unrest
the use of these religions has been done in a after a killing. Option A is incorrect because this
marginal sense to depict comparative nature of trait of French policemen has been mentioned to
history writing with praise for these religions not for demonstrate their use of guns frequently but the
their deep philosophy but particularly for their anti- comparison with Europe is only marginal, not the
Vedic stance/ origin. main point of the passage. Option B is incorrect
5. (c) Option C is the correct answer because the because the whole society is not affected by
underlined words state that French policemen use discriminatory attitude but the passage mentions the
the gun (trigger friendly) with much ease than other cops to have such an attitude. Option C is incorrect
policemen in European countries but it is still less as because the problem is not genuine but a form of
compared to United States with numbers in discrimination as mentioned in the passage.
hundreds as compared to French number of 44. 9. (d) Option D is the correct answer because the passage
Option A is incorrect because the United States has states that the most likely explanation of the
fatalities form cop violence in hundreds which is background is that many pairs of supermassive
much higher than 44 (the French number). Option B black holes are orbiting each other in distant
is incorrect because the passage does not mean these galaxies. It is the restatement of the same
triggers to be pulled in cases of death sentences. explanation or reason given by the passage. Option
Option D is incorrect because it is partially A is incorrect because the pairs are not single or
mentioning the gist of the underlined sentence; there solitary but there are many pairs mentioned in the
have to be mention of European countries too. passage. Option B is incorrect because the black
6. (d) Option D is the correct answer because the passage holes are not trifling or small but supermassive in
states about the implications of a shootout by a size and they are also not “nigh” or in near galaxies
policeman in France which has led to unrest there but in distant galaxies. Option C is incorrect because
and it also compares the powers of weapon used by the passage does not mention it to be in the Milky
other counterparts in countries and the policy of Way galaxy which is where Earth is situated but in
nations to allow such gun use by policemen with less distant galaxies.
training. Option A is incorrect because a social essay 10. (c) Option C is the correct answer because the word
will be fully focussed on the social aspects whereas swarming is supposed to mean where there are many
here it is about social, political as well as other particles or participants present which is depicted by
reasons involved. Option B is incorrect because the the word “crowded” or congested. In the event of a
passage does not contain any mention of legal merger there will be crowding or congestion of
provisions or law sections to classify it within particles which has been depicted by the word
academic legal writing. Option C is incorrect “swarming”. Option A is incorrect because the word
because geopolitics focuses on the political is not used in the context of water or to indicate an
implications due to the geography of the nations like activity of navigating through a space but in context
a strategic partnership in an organization, defence of being extremely packed. Option B is incorrect
treaties, trade deals etc. which influence or get because the word is used in the context of black
influenced by the geography as well. Here, there is holes and activity in space which cannot be stated to
no influence of geography on the politics. It is involve use of weapons. Option D is incorrect
comparing statistics of killings and policy and because chunter or murmuring indicates slow or
training of policemen in countries along with social almost inaudible speech for complaining which is
issues of discrimination and racism prevalent in not fitting the context of the passage.
France. 11. (d) Option D is the correct answer because the passage
7. (d) Option D is the correct answer because the passage states that most black holes will be confined to a
states that there are social issues with French cops distance of 1 parsec after orbiting each other; but
(racism and discrimination) and its comparison with there has to be a distance less than 1 parsec to be
European counterparts in policy and training. able to detect gravitational waves between them.
Option A is incorrect because the passage does not Therefore, this option cannot be inferred from the
mention about legal powers of the cops but about passage because the distance has to be less than 1
policies of their recruitment and training. Option B parsec, not more than it. Option A is incorrect
is incorrect because the passage is not about United because the passage mentions two named
States being compared with France; it is just observatories: LIGO in America and Virgo in
mentioned marginally in the passage. Option C is Europe. Option B is incorrect because the passage
incorrect because France being an anomaly in mentions that momentum of the black holes can be
Europe is mentioned as one of the points in the transferred to stars during mergers. Option C is
incorrect because the passage mentions that for a restatement of the statement from the passage.
PTA signal (or detection of gravitational waves) Option A is incorrect because Sibley fully negates
there has to be distance of less than 1 parsec. rules and conditions from governance of aesthetics.
12. (c) Option C is the correct answer because a simile is a Option B is incorrect because the observance is
direct comparison of two like or unlike things. A through taste or judgment, not normative character.
simile helps your reader or listener visualise, Option C is incorrect because puny sense indicates
understand and have a better conception of the weak sense while the passage mentions it to be
quality of the nouns being compared. It uses the heightened or increased sense of perception.
words “like” etc. to compare things. Here, the 16. (b) Option B is the correct answer because the passage
statement is comparing the waves with sloshing of states that the eighteenth century seemed or
pond surface water from rain. Option A is incorrect appeared serene or calm but the classicism present
because a metaphor is a figure of speech that is used in the time period was departed by wildness in
to make a comparison, but in a way different from a romanticism and revolution in politics which
simile. It is an implied comparison without use of indicates that the peacefulness was a false calm
words “like” etc. Option B is incorrect because before a storm or tempest. Option A is incorrect
hyperbole is a rhetorical device that is mainly used because the passage states that the peacefulness was
to make something look and sound a lot better than a false calm but there was wilderness and revolution
it actually is or exaggerates certain claims; here, departing from classicism. Option C is incorrect
there is no such exaggeration of claims. Option D is because the false calm or lull is stated to be before a
incorrect because it is a figure of speech in which a storm, not after it. Option D is incorrect because the
concept is referred to by the name of something lull is calm which cannot be indicating to wildness
closely associated with that thing or concept e.g. or revolution.
crown for king etc. 17. (a) Option A is the correct answer because the passage
13. (c) Option C is the correct answer because the passage states that it was only the complainant who stated
mentions the philosophical origins of the concept of about the statement defaming him, the Court’s
aesthetics, their full development in the eighteenth conclusion about it being derogatory to a larger
century and then utility of the concept and its number of persons was not based on other parties or
defence in the contemporary period. Option A is persons alleging such denigrating nature of the
incorrect because the passage is not confined to the statement. Option B is incorrect because the Court
concept of utility of the concept of aesthetics in used complaints made Savarkar’s grandson against
modern age but also states about its origin in the Mr. Gandhi as a consideration in a legal case; it was
eighteenth century through Burke etc. Option B is a political remark. Option C is incorrect because the
incorrect because the passage mentions the defence passage states that the Court stated that the
of the utility of the concept of aesthetics in modern graveness of the offence is made visible by the old
times as well. Option D is incorrect because the nature of the political party of the convicted person.
concept is mentioned to be in passing to be related Option D is incorrect because the passage states that
to emotions of human beings but the whole passage it is the third Court in Gujarat to have upheld the
is about the philosophical origins of the concept and conviction of defamation.
its utility in the modern age. 18. (c) Option C is the correct answer because depravity
14. (b) Option B is the correct answer because the passage denotes wickedness or dishonor which is stated in
mentions the word to be used to indicate that one is the passage to mean that the offence is of such a
sequestered or shielded or protected from any real nature that it is extremely wicked. Option A is
danger because the work is fictional. It is used to incorrect because probity or virtue indicates quality
indicate a positive connotation to indicate protection while the passage is stating it to be referring to a
from danger. Option A is incorrect because dishonourable moral act. Option B is incorrect
windswept or exposed would be the antonym of because cachet or honour is opposite in meaning to
cloistered because it indicates insulation or the word turpitude which indicates a very low or
protection. Option C is incorrect because making depraved behaviour. Option D is incorrect because
something discernible or visible would be exposing the word does not indicate inherited characteristics
it to outside forces making its protection difficult. of the evil or vice but general evil or depravity in
Option D is incorrect because Exiguous indicates nature.
very small in size or amount which is not meant by 19. (a) Option A is the correct answer because the passage
cloistered or protected. states that granting of conviction would have
15. (d) Option D is the correct answer because the passage resulted in overcoming of the disqualification in the
mentions that “He mainly said that they were not Lok Sabha. Option B is incorrect because the Court
rule- or condition-governed denying normative stated that almost 13 crore people with such
character, but required a heightened form of surnames were aggrieved by the statement of the
perception”. Here, perception has been replaced convicted person. Option C is incorrect because the
with observation and governed by directed and a Court termed the offence to be moral turpitude
which is moral depravity or evil. Option D is 23. (b) Option B is the correct answer because the word is
incorrect because the passage mentions that the suiting the context of the passage since the gypsies
High Court became the second appellate court to were found to be bringing their own or others’
have confirmed the conviction on defamation. contrivances or inventions to the vicinity of the
20. (c) Option C is the correct answer because the passage village.
is stating about the arguments given by the author in Option A is incorrect because it indicates novelty
analysing the judgments and reasoning by the Court which is already been stated by the word “latest” in
about how it had made the offence to be of such the statement.
serious nature to be of moral turpitude. Option A is Option C is incorrect because penury or deprivation
incorrect because political remarks are an additional indicates loss or lack of something which is not
point made by the author about the Court’s use of fitting the context of the passage. They have brought
such extra-legal considerations; it is not the main a new thing.
idea of the passage. Option B is incorrect because Option D is incorrect because decrepitude or ruin
this is an argument used by the author to critique the indicates damage or destruction which is not fitting
Court’s judgment but the whole passage is about the the context of the passage.
Court’s reasoning being faulty. Option D is incorrect 24. (c) Option C is the correct answer because the passage
because the author does not mention that there was states that the wife of the villager wept because the
a grave mistake committed by the Court but that the mule and goats were sold off by him and their labour
Court’s reasoning is unreasonable and bordering on (strength) and products were used by them to
imaginary. increase their household income.
21. (d) Option D is the correct answer because the passage Option A is incorrect because their use of “labour”
talks about how a villager makes use of his and “products” was the main purpose for increasing
imagination to use a seemingly useless invention by household income; their cutting and selling would
the gypsies to search for gold. The gypsy warns him be one time use which will not be a continuous or
about it not working for that purpose but he does not consistent increase in income.
listen to him. Option B is incorrect because the animals were
Option A is incorrect because the invention by the responsible for increased income not “whole” of the
gypsy might have been useless but it was not told so income.
by the gypsy: they told the villager that it will not Option D is incorrect because the family is
work for the purpose of extracting gold. Quack described as “poor” in their household income and
indicates pretention which is not the case here. “rich” cannot be used to describe them.
Option B is incorrect because the passage states that
the villager is imagining to use the magnet for gold SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING
extraction but there is no claim that the magnet GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
converts anything into gold.
Option C is incorrect because the passage mentions 25. (b) The 'triple burden' is defined in the UNICEF "Triple
the life of that villager and in combination mentions Threat" report released in March 2023. This report
the gypsies as well. The title misses the villager focuses on water, sanitation, and hygiene (WASH)
portion of the passage focusing merely on gypsies. hazards faced by children. According to the report,
22. (c) Option C is the correct answer because the passage the 'triple burden' encompasses three criteria:
mentions that things were so new that people had to • Less than 50% access to at least basic water
point to refer to an object and there were lack of or sanitation services.
names. The passage states: The world was so • Ranking within the top 20 countries with the
recent that many things lacked names, and in highest burden of deaths among children under 5
order to indicate them it was necessary to point. due to unsafe WASH conditions.
Option A is incorrect because the gypsies warned • Ranking within the top 25% of countries
the villager about it not work for his imagination of facing the highest risk of climate and environmental
finding gold: Melquíades, who was an honest hazards according to UNICEF's Children's Climate
man, warned him: ‘It won’t work for that.’ But Risk Index (CCRI).
José Arcadio Buendía at that time did not believe 26. (b) Globally, the inadequacy of safely managed
in the honesty of gypsies; drinking water affects 600 million children, while
Option B is incorrect because the gypsy warms him 1.1 billion lack access to safely managed sanitation,
that it will not work on gold but he does not listen to and 689 million lack basic hygiene services.
him. Tragically, unsafe water, sanitation, and hygiene
Option D is incorrect because the villager mentions (WASH) conditions continue to claim the lives of
that discovery of gold by the gypsies’ invention will approximately 1,000 children under the age of 5
lead to enough to “pave the floor of the house”. The each day.
villagers do have houses; the gypsies do not. Among the ten countries that bear the triple burden,
all of which are located in sub-Saharan Africa, about
2 out of 5 deaths resulting from unsafe WASH are are exclusively dispatched to voting members of
concentrated within their borders. NARAS.
27. (b) In the "Triple Threat" report, UNICEF provides 35. (c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) decided to keep the
several key recommendations to address the policy rates unchanged at 6.5% for the second
challenges of water, sanitation, and hygiene consecutive meeting. The main reason behind this
(WASH) hazards. UNICEF is calling on decision is the emphasis on bringing the retail
governments and partners to: inflation closer to the target of 4%. Given the
• Scale up investment in the sector, including prevailing volatile global economic scenario and the
global climate financing. persistent risks to domestic inflation, the RBI has
• Strengthen resilience in the WASH sector opted for a cautious approach, adopting a wait-and-
and communities. watch strategy.
• Prioritize leaving no one behind. 36. (d) The Reserve Bank will persist to be agile in liquidity
• Increase effective and accountable management. The RBI will ensure the orderly
coordination and capacities to provide water and completion of the government's market borrowing
sanitation services. program within the stipulated timeframe. The RBI
• Implement the UN-Water SDG 6 Global has also permitted banks to issue Rupay prepaid
Acceleration Framework and invest in the key forex cards. Along with this, the RBI announced an
accelerators. expansion of the scope of the e-rupee voucher. To
28. (d) The ten countries that confront the triple burden, are facilitate this, non-bank entities would be able to
all situated in sub-Saharan Africa. These countries issue such instruments independently.
face challenges related to water, sanitation, and 37. (a) When the RBI raises the repo rate, it makes it more
hygiene (WASH), which pose a substantial burden expensive for commercial banks to borrow money
on their populations. from the RBI. This, in turn, makes it more expensive
29. (c) The Swachh Swasth Sarvatra Initiative, launched for commercial banks to lend money to businesses
by the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation, and consumers. This can help to slow down the
aims to improve sanitation facilities in healthcare growth of the economy and control inflation. The
institutions and raise awareness about the money supply in the economy decreases when the
connection between sanitation and health. repo rate is raised. Home buyers are typically
30. (b) To elaborate, the Grammy Awards, as an evolution borrowers, and so they would be less happy if the
of the Hollywood Walk of Fame project, found its cost of borrowing money goes up.
inception in the 1950s. Its maiden ceremony was 38. (c) During the RBI's bi-monthly monetary policy
concurrently hosted in two distinct locations on the meeting, Governor Shaktikanta Das appealed to
4th May, 1959. Subsequent years have seen an citizens not to wait for the September 30th deadline
expansion and occasional fluctuation in the quantity for exchanging/ depositing ₹2,000 currency notes
of awards bestowed upon the deserving recipients. and added not to panic either. "Please avoid the last-
31. (b) Ricky Kej won his third Grammy Award in 2023 for minute rush in exchanging or depositing ₹2,000
the album Divine Tides, which he co-produced with notes. There is no shortfall in currency, we have
Stewart Copeland. The album is a fusion of Indian ample notes for exchange.
classical music and electronica, and it is inspired by 39. (b) Until the early 1990s, India’s space industry and
the beauty of the natural world. space economy were defined by ISRO, with private
Earth Song is a song by Michael Jackson, Celestial sector involvement limited to building to ISRO
Waves is a song by Enya, and Ocean Melodies is a designs and specifications. The first Satellite
song by The Moody Blues. Communication Policy was introduced in 1997,
32. (d) The "General Field" encompasses four awards that with guidelines for foreign direct investment (FDI)
aren't tethered to any particular musical genre: in the satellite industry.
Album of the Year, Record of the Year, Song of the 40. (b) Until the early 1990s, India’s space industry and
Year, and Best New Artist. space economy were defined by ISRO, with private
33. (a) The origins of the Grammy Awards can be traced sector involvement limited to building to ISRO
back to the Hollywood Walk of Fame endeavor designs and specifications.
during the 1950s. In a novel approach, the inaugural The first Satellite Communication Policy was
award ceremony was conducted simultaneously at introduced in 1997, with guidelines for foreign
two separate venues on May 4, 1959. Subsequently, direct investment (FDI) in the satellite industry.
the quantity of bestowed awards has experienced A Remote Sensing Data Policy was introduced in
expansion and fluctuations over the course of 2001, which was amended in 2011 and replaced by
subsequent years. a National Geospatial Policy in 2016, further
34. (c) The responsibility of nominating recordings for liberalised in 2022.
consideration rests with the esteemed members of A draft Space Activities Bill was brought out in
the National Academy of Recording Arts and 2017, which lapsed in 2019 with the outgoing Lok
Sciences (NARAS), while the final voting ballots Sabha.
41. (d) The policy creates four distinct entities to facilitate term purposes depending on the borrower's needs.
greater private sector participation: Department of Option (c) is incorrect because collateral
Space, ISRO, the Indian National Space Promotion requirements can vary for both credit lines and
and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe), and the New traditional loans and are not a defining difference
Space India Limited (NSIL). between the two. Option (d) is incorrect because
ISRO will transition out of the existing practice of both credit lines and traditional loans can have either
being present in the manufacturing of operational variable or fixed interest rates, depending on the
space systems and focus on R&D in advanced terms agreed upon with the lender.
technology. 46. (c) The provincial councils established under the 13th
NSIL will be responsible for commercialising space Amendment faced several limitations. While they
technologies and platforms created through public were given devolved powers in certain areas like
expenditure. agriculture, education, health, housing, police, and
IN-SPACe will be a single window clearance and land, the central government retained control over
authorisation agency for space launches, critical areas such as defense, foreign affairs, and
establishing launch pads, buying and selling finance. The provincial councils also faced
satellites, and disseminating high-resolution data restrictions on their financial powers, which
among other things. curtailed their autonomy. Moreover, the overriding
42. (b) The policy sets out an ambitious role for IN-SPACe powers enjoyed by the executive president resulted
but provides no time frame for the necessary steps in limitations on the free functioning of the
ahead. provincial councils, limiting their ability to exercise
The policy framework envisaged will need clear self-governance effectively.
rules and regulations pertaining to FDI and 47. (c) The World Happiness Report 2023, published by the
licensing, government procurement to sustain the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network,
new space start-ups, liability in case of violations ranks countries based on happiness, which is further
and an appellate framework for dispute settlement. based on three preceding years' data of their average
IN-SPACe is a regulatory body but doesn’t have life evaluations.
legislative authority. 48. (b) The report uses six key factors to measure
43. (c) The 1987 India-Sri Lanka Accord, also known as the happiness: social support, income, health, freedom,
Rajiv-Jayewardene Accord, was a significant generosity, and absence of corruption. The report is
agreement signed between India and Sri Lanka to released on the International Day of Happiness,
address the Sri Lankan civil war and the ethnic observed on March 20.
conflict between the Sinhalese majority and the 49. (c) For the sixth year in a row, Finland has been
Tamil minority in Sri Lanka. crowned as the happiest nation.
44. (a) The Indian government has launched its inaugural Denmark is at number two, followed by Iceland at
international cruise venture, known as MV Empress, number three.
which commenced its journey from Chennai to Sri Many of the same Nordic countries appear in the top
Lanka. Carrying 750 passengers, this 5-day spots, with a new entrant this year — Lithuania (at
maritime excursion will traverse three ports within the 20th spot).
Sri Lanka. The central objective of this initiative is India ranks at 126th position out of 136 countries,
to nurture Chennai as a thriving hub for cruise making it one of the least happy countries in the
tourism, thereby accentuating its significance in the world. It even lags behind its neighbouring nations
industry. like Nepal, China, Bangladesh, and Sri Lanka.
45. (a) A credit line establishes a predetermined maximum Afghanistan is at the very bottom of the list.
credit limit that a borrower can access and borrow 50. (a) • The authors of the report noted that Nordic
from on an as-needed basis. The borrower can countries merit special attention in light of their
withdraw funds up to the credit limit and is only generally high levels of both personal and
charged interest on the borrowed amount. It institutional trust.
provides flexibility as the borrower can access funds • They also had COVID-19 death rates only
whenever necessary, repay the borrowed amount, one-third as high as elsewhere in Western Europe
and borrow again within the credit limit. during 2020 and 2021.
In contrast, a traditional loan typically involves • The report also looks at the state of the world
receiving a lump sum upfront from the lender. The in 2023 and finds that various forms of everyday
borrower is expected to repay the loan amount, kindness, such as helping a stranger, donating to
along with interest, in fixed installments over a charity, and volunteering, are above pre-pandemic
specific period. Unlike a credit line, the borrower levels.
does not have the flexibility to borrow additional 51. (c) is the correct answer.
funds once the loan is repaid. 52. (c) According to a study by ResumeBuilder, 91% of
Option (b) is incorrect because both a credit line and companies with job vacancies want to hire
a traditional loan can be used for short-term or long- professionals with ChatGPT expertise. However,
despite its capabilities, one of the limitations of follow one's religion privately and publicly, but it
ChatGPT is that it occasionally produces does not cover the aspect of propagating religion.
inaccurate information. This is because while 56. (b) The correct answer is B because, in accordance with
ChatGPT is trained on a diverse range of internet the passage, the then Chief Justice of India, A.N.
text, it doesn't know specifics about which Ray, presided over a five-judge Bench and dissected
documents were in its training set or have access to Article 25 to hold that the Article does not grant the
any proprietary databases, confidential information, right to convert others to one's own religion but
or classified material. Therefore, it can sometimes rather to transmit or spread one's religion by
generate responses that seem knowledgeable but are outlining its tenets. There can consequently be no
incorrect or nonsensical. such thing as a fundamental right to force anyone to
53. (a) AI encompasses the broader concept of developing adopt one's own faith because what is freedom for
computer systems that can perform tasks requiring one is freedom for the other in equal proportion. As
human-like intelligence, such as learning, a result, we rule out options A and C. Since D's logic
reasoning, problem-solving, and decision-making. conflicts with the facts provided in the question, it is
Machine learning, on the other hand, is a subset of not the right answer.
AI that focuses on algorithms and techniques 57. (a) The correct answer is A since the passage states that
enabling machines to learn from data, make the then Chief Justice of India, A.N. Ray, who
predictions, and improve their performance without presided over a five-judge bench, dissected Article
explicit programming. Machine learning is a 25 to hold that the Article does not grant the right to
fundamental component of AI, as it enables the convert others to one's own religion but rather the
training and adaptation of AI systems based on data right to transmit or spread one's religion by laying
analysis and pattern recognition. out its tenets. There can be no such thing as a
Option (b) is incorrect because both AI and machine fundamental right to convert someone to one's own
learning extend beyond the limited scope of religion because what is freedom for one is freedom
robotics, with AI encompassing a wider range of for the other in equal proportion. We rule out options
applications. Option (c) is incorrect because AI has B and C because F simply attempted to preach his
numerous real-world applications and is not purely religion and raise awareness of it. Option D becomes
theoretical. Option (d) is incorrect because while AI unnecessary because option A already provided the
can involve the study of human-like consciousness, proper justification.
machine learning specifically refers to the process of 58. (c) The correct answer is C because, according to the
enabling machines to learn from data, rather than passage, what is freedom for one is freedom for the
focusing on natural language understanding. other in equal measure, and there can, therefore, be
54. (b) Roles such as Senior Machine Learning Engineer no such thing as a fundamental right to convert any
and Remote Machine Engineer require familiarity person to one's own religion, the court had
with AI tools and platforms like ChatGPT. A new interpreted, upholding the validity of two regional
profession, Prompt Engineering, is gaining anti-conversion laws of the 1960s — the Madhya
popularity. This role involves working with AI tools Pradesh Dharma Swatantraya Adhiniyam (1968)
like ChatGPT. A San Francisco-based AI startup and the Orissa Freedom of Religion Act (1967). As
named Anthropic made headlines for looking to hire a result, we eliminate options A and B. D is not the
a Prompt Engineer and a Librarian with a salary of correct answer because that option presents absurd
up to USD 335,000 per year. reasoning.
59. (d) The correct answer is D because, according to the
SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING passage, Justice Nariman reminded the petitioner of
the fundamental right to freely profess, practice, and
55. (c) The correct answer is option C. In the Rev. spread religion, subject to public order, morality,
Stainislaus vs. State of Madhya Pradesh case, the and health. G cannot be claimed to have thought for
Supreme Court interpreted Article 25(1) of the public health because he forced people to consume
Constitution and held that the term "propagate" does cow flesh. As a result, we eliminate options B and
not grant the right to convert others to one's own C. A is not the right answer since it does not present
religion. Instead, it allows for the transmission or any logical reasoning that is consistent with the facts
spreading of one's religion by an exposition of its supplied in the passage.
tenets. The Court emphasized that religious freedom 60. (d) Option D is the correct answer because as per the
includes the right to freely profess, practice, and passage, deficiency means any fault, imperfection,
propagate religion, but it does not encompass the shortcoming or inadequacy in the quality, nature and
right to convert others forcefully. Option A and B manner of performance which is required to be
are incorrect as they suggest that the Article grants maintained by or under any law for the time being
the right to convert others, which is not the in force or has been undertaken to be performed by
interpretation provided in the passage. Option D is a person in pursuance of a contract or otherwise in
incorrect as it only mentions the right to practice and relation to any service and must include any act of
negligence or omission or commission by such succeeded because she suffered loss in her health.
person which causes loss or injury to the consumer Option A is incorrect because there was no loss
or deliberate withholding of relevant information by which resulted from her not being able to use her
such person to the consumer. In this factual laptop. Option B is incorrect because injury can be
situation, there was inadequacy in the quality of monetary or psychological but she did not suffer any
performance of service under a contract along with injury or loss due to her inability to use the laptop.
negligence in redressal but there was no loss or Option C is incorrect because all requirements under
injury caused to the consumer because he had section 2 (11) are not satisfied as there was no loss
requested for extension of his work deadline which or injury suffered by her for non-charging of laptop.
was granted. Therefore, there was no deficiency in 63. (c) Option C is the correct answer because as per the
service. Option A is incorrect because it does not passage, deficiency means any fault, imperfection,
include the criteria of loss or injury to consumer. shortcoming or inadequacy in the quality, nature and
Option B is incorrect because there was manner of performance which is required to be
imperfection in the performance of the service as the maintained by or under any law for the time being
promised speed was not given. Option C is incorrect in force or has been undertaken to be performed by
because the requirement of loss or injury to the a person in pursuance of a contract or otherwise in
consumer is not met. relation to any service and must include any act of
61. (c) Option C is the correct answer because as per the negligence or omission or commission by such
passage, deficiency means any fault, imperfection, person which causes loss or injury to the consumer
shortcoming or inadequacy in the quality, nature and or deliberate withholding of relevant information by
manner of performance which is required to be such person to the consumer. In this factual
maintained by or under any law for the time being situation, Rajesh did suffer due to the neglect and
in force or has been undertaken to be performed by inadequacy of the quality of service of air
a person in pursuance of a contract or otherwise in conditioning requiring hospitalization which
relation to any service and must include any act of resulted in loss in monetary terms and health.
negligence or omission or commission by such Therefore, he will succeed partially for
person which causes loss or injury to the consumer hospitalization; but not for luggage as the passage
or deliberate withholding of relevant information by mentions that loss of luggage is not a deficiency in
such person to the consumer. In this factual service. Option A is incorrect because loss of
situation, the Vermas were given imperfect quality luggage is not a deficiency in service as per the
in nature of the performance of the service and there passage. Option B is incorrect because Rajesh
was negligence causing psychological injury to Mrs. suffered loss due to hospitalization. Option D is
Verma as she had to eat non-vegetarian item in her incorrect because there can be psychological or
meal while her clear preference was a vegetarian monetary injury suffered; here, monetary injury was
meal. Option A is incorrect because they did not suffered for hospital expenses.
suffer any loss but there was psychological injury to 64. (c) Option C is the correct answer because as per the
Mrs. Verma. Option B is incorrect because there was passage, deficiency means any fault, imperfection,
psychological injury suffered by the couple shortcoming or inadequacy in the quality, nature and
especially Mrs. Verma. Option D is incorrect manner of performance which is required to be
because an imperfection or negligence in service maintained by or under any law for the time being
with loss or injury can be claimed by the consumer in force or has been undertaken to be performed by
under the Act. a person in pursuance of a contract or otherwise in
62. (d) Option D is the correct answer because as per the relation to any service and must include any act of
passage, deficiency means any fault, imperfection, negligence or omission or commission by such
shortcoming or inadequacy in the quality, nature and person which causes loss or injury to the consumer
manner of performance which is required to be or deliberate withholding of relevant information by
maintained by or under any law for the time being such person to the consumer. In this factual
in force or has been undertaken to be performed by situation, Neha suffered shortcoming and
a person in pursuance of a contract or otherwise in inadequacy in quality and nature of performance of
relation to any service and must include any act of service which was a neglect resulting in loss or
negligence or omission or commission by such injury to her. Therefore, there will be successful
person which causes loss or injury to the consumer claim for deficiency in service. Option A is incorrect
or deliberate withholding of relevant information by because there was monetary injury from her salary;
such person to the consumer. In this factual no psychological injury. Option B is incorrect
situation, Priya’s inability to charge her laptop only because all the essential requirements of section 2
resulted in her not being able to be (11) are met. Option D is incorrect because she
entertained(recreational activity) There was no loss suffered loss or reduction in her salary due to the
or injury suffered by her. If she had sued for imperfection in the service provided by the
negligence in hygiene etc. then she would have Railways.
65. (d) Option D is correct. Option (a) is incorrect as it is 69. (a) Option A is correct. Option (b) is incorrect as the
clear from the facts that the village she resides in is Magistrate is required when the “accused” resides
under the jurisdiction of City A, (b) is incorrect as beyond the his/her jurisdiction, (c) is incorrect as it
she is criminally liable under section 138 for failing cannot be inferred from the passage, (d) is incorrect
to make payment via cheque, (c) is incorrect as even as it is a reason for the Magistrate to restrict an
though she has committed a crime under the section inquiry. Hence (a) is the only correct option as per
138, as she lies beyond the territorial jurisdiction of the passage which states “if the accused in a section
the magistrate it is required that an inquiry must be 138 case resides beyond the territorial jurisdiction
made before proceedings begin. Hence option (d) is of the magistrate, an inquiry must be conducted
the correct option as per the passage which states before proceeding against the accused as prescribed
that if the accuse under section 138 resides beyond under section 202 of Cr.P.C;”
the jurisdiction of the Magistrate, an inquiry must be 70. (a) The correct answer is A because as per the passage,
conducted before the proceeding against the accused Section 14 of the Act deals with punishment for
as per section 202 of Cr. P. C. false or malicious complaint and false evidence. It
66. (a) Option A is correct. Option (b) is incorrect as it states that the ICC "may recommend" to the
cannot be inferred and also an inquiry is needed employer to take action against the woman or the
when the “accused” resides beyond the territorial person who has made the complaint in accordance
jurisdiction of the Magistrate, (c) is incorrect as the with the provisions of the service rules. This implies
inquiry is not up to Magistrate’s desire, it depend on that the ICC has the authority to recommend legal
whether the accused resides within or beyond the action against the person responsible for the false or
territorial jurisdiction of the Magistrate, (d) is malicious complaint. Option B is incorrect because
incorrect as an inquiry is only required when the it suggests that the ICC can issue a warning and
‘accused’ under section 138 resides beyond the provide a chance to rectify actions, which is not
territorial jurisdiction of the Magistrate. Hence (a) is mentioned in the passage. Option C is incorrect
the correct option as Mana is the resident of City A, because it implies that the ICC reports the complaint
she resides within the territorial jurisdiction of the to the employer, leaving the employer solely
Magistrate and therefore as per section 202 of responsible for deciding on disciplinary measures,
Cr.P.C. an inquiry for her case is not required for which is not specified in the passage. Option D is
proceeding. incorrect because it suggests that the ICC provides
67. (b) Option B is correct. Option (a) is partially correct as counseling and support to the person who made the
it is a violation of section 202 in a way as prescribed false or malicious complaint, which is not
that during inquiry witness statements should be mentioned in the passage.
permitted on affidavit, (c) is incorrect as Kala is not 71. (b) The correct answer is B because, according to the
a criminal but an accused and during her inquiry the passage, every employer is required to form an
Magistrate is to allow witness statements on Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) at each office
affidavit as evidence, (d) is incorrect as permitting or branch with 10 or more employees. Under the
evidence of witness statements on affidavit is Act, an aggrieved victim might be a woman of any
prescribed under section 202 and it not up to age, whether or not she is employed [at the
Magistrate’s discretion. Option (b) is correct as per workplace], who claims to have been subjected to
the passage and Kala can raise an objection because sexual harassment. These terms imply that the
during inquiry the Magistrate permit witness gender of the employees is unimportant when it
statements on affidavit as evidence. comes to the formation of the ICC. As a result, we
68. (d) Option D is correct. Option (a) is incorrect as per the rule out options A and C. Option D is incorrect since
passage the appellant court should have encouraged passage talks about forming a committee if the
out of court settlement between the parties as that company has 10 or more employees.
would have allowed the partied to reach an amicable 72. (b) The correct answer is B since, according to the
decision and the case would no longer be pending, passage, the complaint must be filed within three
(b) is incorrect as it contradicts the passage, as per months of the date of the incident. P made the
which in appeal cases against pending complaint correct decision because the incident of sexual
cases under section 138 the appellant court must harassment occurred on July 17th and was timely
encourage to the parties to settle the matter through reported by the end of July. As a result, we rule out
mediation, (c) is partially correct as the parties were options A and C. D is not the proper answer because
ready for out of court settlement the court must it lacks legal argumentation. Being a crime alone is
encourage it. Hence (d) is correct as per the passage insufficient to answer the question.
which states “the appellate court before which 73. (d) The correct answer is D, because the passage says
appeals against the judgments in complaint under that the ICC may either pass on the victim's
section 138 of the N.I. Act are pending are directed complaint to the police or initiate an investigation
to make an effort to settle the dispute through that must be concluded within 90 days. The ICC has
mediation.” the same powers as a civil court in terms of
summoning and questioning someone under oath, as 80. (a) Option A is correct. Even if X was under an
well as ordering the discovery and production of undercover mission, killing Y was not at all required
documents. Because the Act grants the ICC such for him to take his bike. Even if Y denied, there were
authority, we rule out options A and C. B is not the other means available with which X could have
correct answer since it gives the ICC absolute chased those two men. Since X had committed an
power, which is not the case here. illegal act under the guise of exercise of lawful
74. (c) The correct answer is C because, according to the discharge of his official duties, he will not get
passage, Section 14 of the Act deals with penalty for protection under section 197. Which eliminates
false or malicious complaints and false evidence. In option B & D and leaves us with A & C. between A
such a circumstance, the ICC may suggest to the & C, A is the correct answer due to precise
employer that action be taken against the female explanation.
employee or the person who filed the complaint in 81. (d) Option D is correct. even if X did not kill Y, X has
accordance with the provisions of the service committed an illegal act in the furtherance of his
regulations. However, the Act makes it clear that discharge of official duties. Shooting Y anywhere
action cannot be taken simply because the allegation was not necessary, he still had other means to chase
could not be substantiated. As a result, we rule out those men. Since our answer from the previous
options A and D. Option B is inaccurate since it does question is not changing, the options with ‘yes’ are
not answer the question. straightaway eliminated leaving us with only B & D;
75. (b) B is the correct answer with respect to the question between them D holds true due to correct
asked because as per the passage, Vicarious explanation.
Liability deals with cases where one person is liable 82. (d) Option D is correct. As per the passage, Section 197
for the acts of others which also means that in a case of CrPC is applicable only for police officers. In the
of vicarious liability both the person at whose behest given fact scenario, Rajesh is clearly not covered
the act is done as well as the person who does the act under this section. Although he was helping a police
are liable, which is contrary to what has been stated officer, this section will not be applicable on Rajesh.
in option B, hence it becomes the apt choice. The This makes Option D correct. Option A, B, and C
rest of the options are true and can be directly are negated prima facie.
concluded from the passage itself. 83. (d) Explanation: Option D is correct. Even if Rajesh did
76. (a) The correct answer is A because, according to the not hit the member brutally, he will still not be
passage, the wrong must be committed during the covered under Section 197 of CrPC. This section
course of employment in order for a person to be only deals with the police officers who act in course
held liable under vicarious liability. Options B and of their duties. This makes Option D correct. Option
Option C are both eliminated for the same reason. D A, B, and C are again negated, since the section is
is the incorrect answer because it offers an not at all applicable.
unreasonable alternative. 84. (d) Option D is correct. As per Section 197 of CrPC, the
77. (b) The correct answer is B because, according to the act done by a police officer shall be in the course of
passage, the wrong must be done while on the job. his duty, and it shall not be illegal as well. Option A
Because F's child pushed Y's child while playing, will not attract the section, as shooting multiple
resulting in an injury, the act does not fall within the bullets is not the best course of action to stop a thief.
scope of employment. In the first place, there was Option C is an illegal act, which won’t be covered
no employment. Option A and C are also eliminated under Section 197. Option B will not be covered
for the same reason. D is incorrect because it under this section, as it only deals with police
provides irrelevant reasoning. officers. Option D is correct, as the act is justified
78. (c) The correct answer is C because, according to the under the police officer’s duties.
passage, the Union of India may sue or be sued
under the name of the Union of India, and a State SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING
may sue or be sued under the name of the State.
Options A and B are also eliminated for the same 85. (c) Option C captures the central idea of the passage,
reason. D is not the correct answer because which is to explore the need to evolve the traditional
voluntarily purchasing the tickets with a meal does definition of marriage and recognise the rights and
not absolve the government of liability. dignity of same-sex couples in India. It also
79. (d) The correct answer is D because it makes no summarises the main theme that runs throughout the
difference where the papers were corrected as long passage.
as that work was within the scope of employment. A Additional points:
is also not the correct answer for the same reason. B ● Option A partially agrees with the central idea
is not the correct answer because the University of the passage, but only to a limited extent. It
cannot be held responsible for all acts of K. C is not focuses on the historical and legal background
the correct answer because such excuses are not of Section 377, which is only one aspect of the
acceptable. passage. It also ignores the main issue of
marriage equality, which is the core of the information given in the passage, which mainly
passage. focuses on India’s legal and social scenario
o This option supports some of the information regarding marriage equality.
given in the passage, such as the introduction of o This option does not address any of the
Section 377 by the British, its decriminalisation arguments or counterarguments made by either
in India and the UK, and its impact on the side in the marriage equality case, or their
LGBTQIA+ community. constitutional basis.
o This option addresses the arguments and o This option could be seen as an appeal to
counterarguments of the petitioners and emotion, which is a logical fallacy.
respondents in the marriage equality case, or 86. (d) Option A can be inferred from the passage, as the
their constitutional basis only as a subset. author shows a positive tone and supportive stance
o This option could be seen as a red herring, towards recent and contemporary liberal
which is a logical fallacy. interpretations of marriage and gender roles that
● Option B partially agrees with the central idea encompass same-sex people. The author also
of the passage, but only to a limited extent. It challenges the traditional definition of marriage as
focuses on the arguments and counterarguments the legal union of a man and a woman, which is at
of the petitioners and respondents in the the centre of public debate.
marriage equality case, which is only one aspect Additional points:
of the passage. It also ignores the broader ● Option A can be inferred from the passage, as
context and implications of the issue, which are the author shows a positive tone and supportive
important for understanding its significance. stance towards recent and contemporary liberal
o This option supports some of the information interpretations of marriage and gender roles that
given in the passage, such as the petitions being encompass same-sex people. The author also
heard at the Supreme Court, the arguments challenges the traditional definition of marriage
made by both sides, and their legal references. as the legal union of a man and a woman, which
o This option does not address the historical and is at the centre of public debate.
legal background of Section 377, or its impact o This option supports the information given in
on the LGBTQIA+ community. the passage, such as the need to evolve the
o This option could be seen as an appeal to traditional definition of marriage and recognise
authority, which is a logical fallacy. the rights and dignity of same-sex couples.
● Option C captures the central idea of the o This option addresses the main issue of
passage, which is to explore the need to evolve marriage equality, which is the core of the
the traditional definition of marriage and passage.
recognise the rights and dignity of same-sex o This option reflects the author’s opinion and
couples in India. It also summarises the main perspective on the issue, which are clearly in
theme that runs throughout the passage. favor of marriage equality and the petitioners’
o This option supports all of the information arguments.
given in the passage, such as the petitions being Refer to the lines, ‘This churn in society signals
heard at the Supreme Court, the arguments that there is a need to evolve. Marriage has
made by both sides, their constitutional basis, generally been understood as the legal union of
their impact on LGBTQIA+ community, and a man and a woman. But recent and
their relation to recent and contemporary liberal contemporary liberal interpretations of
interpretations of marriage and gender roles. marriage and gender roles encompass marital
o This option addresses both aspects of marriage relations between same-sex people.’
equality: legal and social. It also acknowledges ● Option B can be inferred from the passage, as
that it is a public debate that requires evolution. the author shows a positive tone and supportive
o This option reflects both facts and opinions stance towards the petitioners’ arguments that
given in or implied by the passage. It also shows same-sex couples deserve and require legal
an understanding of its significance and sanction. The author also quotes Senior
implications. Advocate Menaka Guruswamy, who said that
● Option D contradicts the central idea of the marriage is not only a question of dignity, but
passage, which is not to compare and contrast also a bouquet of rights that the LGBTQIA+
different interpretations of marriage and gender people are being denied.
roles in India and the UK. It also introduces o This option supports the information given in
irrelevant information that is not given or the passage, such as the petitions being heard at
implied in the passage, such as how marriage the Supreme Court, the arguments made by
and gender roles are understood or recognised both sides, and their constitutional basis.
in different cultures or countries. o This option addresses the main issue of
o This option does not support or challenge any marriage equality, which is the core of the
passage. “wife” becoming redundant from some laws like
o This option reflects the author’s opinion and Hindu Marriage Act 1955 if marriage equality is
perspective on the issue, which are clearly in recognised.
favor of marriage equality and the petitioners’ 88. (d) Option D is not similar to the author’s arguments in
arguments. the given passage, as it argues for a subjective
● Option C can be inferred from the passage, as opinion that is based on personal taste and
the author cites the counterarguments of the preference, and criticises those who disagree or
respondents’ arguments that marriage is a differ from that opinion. Option D focuses on a
sacramental union between a biological man movie review, while the passage focuses on
and a biological woman. marriage equality, which are different and unrelated
o This option supports the information given in issues.
the passage, such as the petitions being heard at Additional points:
the Supreme Court, the arguments made by ● Option A is somewhat similar to the author’s
both sides, and their legal references. arguments in the given passage, as both argue
o This option addresses the main issue of for equal rights and dignity for a marginalised
marriage equality, which is the core of the group, and criticise the dominant norms and
passage. structures that alienate or harm that group.
● Option D cannot be inferred from the passage, However, option A focuses on gender equality,
as the author does not compare or contrast the while the passage focuses on marriage equality,
legal and social scenario of marriage equality in which are different but related issues.
India and the UK. The author only mentions the o This option supports some of the information
historical origin of Section 377 and its given in the passage, such as the recent and
decriminalisation in both countries, but does not contemporary liberal interpretations of
elaborate on how marriage and gender roles are marriage and gender roles that encompass
understood or recognised in different cultures same-sex people.
or countries. o This option does not address the specific legal
o This option does not support or challenge any and social challenges faced by same-sex
information given in the passage, which mainly couples, or their demand for legal sanction for
focuses on India’s legal and social scenario their relationships.
regarding marriage equality. o This option could be seen as an analogy, which
o This option does not address any of the is a rhetorical device.
arguments or counterarguments made by either ● Option B is somewhat similar to the author’s
side in the marriage equality case, or their arguments in the given passage, as both argue
constitutional basis. for a cause that is based on scientific evidence
o This option introduces irrelevant information and moral responsibility, and criticise those
that is not given or implied in the passage, such who deny or ignore the facts and the need for
as how marriage and gender roles are change. However, option B focuses on climate
understood or recognised in different cultures change, while the passage focuses on marriage
or countries. equality, which are different but related issues.
o This option could be seen as an appeal to o This option supports some of the information
emotion, which is a logical fallacy. given in the passage, such as the need to evolve
87. (d) Option D is the correct answer as it can be inferred the traditional definition of marriage and
from the passage that sexual minorities who have recognise the rights and dignity of same-sex
demanded equal marriage status have been alienated couples.
by the conventional binary. It can be inferred that o This option does not address the specific legal
there was no assimilation of such sexual minorities and social challenges faced by same-sex
in the societal construct of conventional two person couples, or their demand for legal sanction for
relationship recognized by law between a male and their relationships.
a female. o This option could be seen as an analogy, which
Option A is incorrect because there is discussion in is a rhetorical device.
the passage about marriage being a bundle of rights ● Option C is similar to the author’s arguments in
which makes it being a singular right with no the given passage, as both argue for a right that
connection untenable as per the passage. is based on the constitutional promise of
Option B is incorrect because there is discussion in dignity, equality and fraternity, and criticise
the passage about marriage equality flowing from those who oppose or undermine that right. Both
some parts of the Constitution. Therefore, this also address a legal and social issue that is at the
cannot be inferred from the passage. centre of public debate.
Option C is incorrect because there is discussion in o This option supports all of the information
the passage about some specific terminology like given in the passage, such as the petitions being
heard at the Supreme Court, the arguments marriage equality flows from the Constitution’s
made by both sides, their constitutional basis, promise of dignity, equality and fraternity of the
and their impact on the LGBTQIA+ LGBTQIA+. Option D is far-fetched, for the author
community. does not make any arguments in the passage for
o This option addresses the main issue of which option D forms the basis.
marriage equality, which is the core of the 91. (a) The correct answer can be derived from the given
passage. part of the passage, "By suspending the Bills, Mr.
o This option reflects the author’s opinion and Netanyahu has only delayed, and not resolved, the
perspective on the issue, which are clearly in impact of the crisis. He has promised to return the
favor of marriage equality and against the Bills to the Knesset after a month through
respondents’ arguments. consensus. But it remains unclear how there will be
● Option D is not similar to the author’s nationwide consensus on such a polarising issue that
arguments in the given passage, as it argues for has seen even diplomats on strike. He should rather
a subjective opinion that is based on personal convince his allies of the crisis their government is
taste and preference, and criticises those who in, abandon the plan to weaken the judiciary
disagree or differ from that opinion. Option D altogether, and focus on the more pressing
focuses on a movie review, while the passage challenges Israel faces." B) This option is incorrect
focuses on marriage equality, which are because the author clearly suggests that Mr.
different and unrelated issues. Netanyahu should abandon the plan to weaken the
o This option does not support or challenge any judiciary, not continue to push for it, which has
information given in the passage, which mainly triggered widespread resistance. C) This option is
focuses on India’s legal and social scenario incorrect because the author suggests that it is
regarding marriage equality. unclear how there will be nationwide consensus on
o This option does not address any of the such a polarising issue and that Mr. Netanyahu
arguments or counterarguments made by either should abandon the plan altogether. D) This option
side in the marriage equality case, or their is incorrect because the author does not suggest that
constitutional basis. Mr. Netanyahu should step down as Prime Minister.
o This option could be seen as an appeal to Instead, the author suggests that he should abandon
emotion, which is a logical fallacy. the plan to weaken the judiciary and focus on the
89. (c) Option C is the correct answer as reading down is a more pressing challenges Israel faces.
legal interpretative tool which is used by Courts to 92. (c) The passage states that the current crisis is arguably
interpret the law in a manner which is narrow so as the toughest for Benjamin Netanyahu, and it goes on
to make it in harmony with other laws like to mention the rebellion by the Defence Minister
Constitutional articles. This was done in the case of Yoav Gallant against passing the judicial overhaul
section 377 of the IPC. Bills as evidence of the crisis that had grown out of
Option A is incorrect because the phrase “reading Mr. Netanyahu's hands. The other options are
down” is not literally interpreted to mean reading the incorrect because option A talks about a survey that
provisions in a descending order but it means has not been mentioned in the passage, option B
interpretation of the section or provision is mentions the suspension of the Bills but does not
narrowed. provide evidence of the crisis being Netanyahu's
Option B is incorrect because making the toughest, and option D mentions a warning by the
inoperative would mean that there is no applicability National Security Minister, but it is not evidence of
of the law while reading down just confines the the current crisis being Netanyahu's toughest.
applicability to some specific portion while making 93. (a) The answer strengthens the author's argument by
the remaining portion to be applicable in its confined providing external evidence of the negative impact
form. of the judicial overhaul Bills on human rights in
Option D is incorrect because reading down does not Israel, supporting the widespread resistance against
indicate amendment but is an interpretative tool by them. Option B is incorrect because it only provides
the Court which confines the section or the provision the stance of one political party and not a broader
in a manner so as to confine it. picture of public opinion. Option C is incorrect
90. (c) Option A is a correct inference, but not an because it contradicts the widespread protests and
assumption of the overall arguments of the passage. general strike mentioned in the passage. Option D is
It is one of the points that the author would agree incorrect because it does not address the specific
with. Option B is, again, true, in the given context, issue of the judicial overhaul Bills and instead
but is too narrow to be the assumption for the entire focuses on Jewish identity. The passage does not
passage. Option C is the correct assumption, for it mention any religious leader praising Prime
forms the basis of the author’s main idea that in the Minister Netanyahu for his efforts. The paragraph
contemporary world, a traditional approach to the that justifies the correct answer is the third one,
concept of marriage marginalises the right to which states that "the extreme right has long argued
that the judicial checks and balances are preventing will not alter the reality that Arunachal Pradesh is
the country from realizing its true Jewish identity." an integral part of India, mirrors what India had
The report by Amnesty International would provide said in 2021 when China “renamed” 15 places; in
evidence to support the idea that the judicial 2017, there were six names. IT WOULD BE A
overhaul Bills are undermining human rights in MISTAKE, GIVEN THE TIMING, to ASSUME
Israel. that the CHINESE DECISION IS A
94. (c) It will further shift Israel's polity towards the REPETITION OF ITS PREVIOUS ATTEMPTS.
extreme right. The passage states that the judicial The MOVE in 2017 was seen as RETALIATION
overhaul Bills would give Parliament control over after the Dalai Lama’s visit to Tawang. In 2021,
judicial appointments and the powers to override the MOVE FOLLOWED CHINA’S new “Land
Supreme Court rulings, which is a push by the and State Border Law”, THAT VIRTUALLY
extreme right to realise Israel's true Jewish identity. AUTHORISED THE GOVERNMENT to
Mr. RECLAIM territories claimed by China, and was
Netanyahu's government, which comprises right- seen as a way to reassert its claim over the State as
wing, religious, and far-right parties, has overseen a a whole.” Option (a) is out of the context as there is
dramatic shift in Israel's polity towards the extreme no mention of the India China border dispute raised
right. Therefore, passing the Bills would further to UN. Hence, it is wrong. Option (b) talks about
shift Israel's polity towards the extreme right. India and China have been engaged in scuffles and
Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they are dialogue to exacerbate the border tension which is
not supported by any evidence in the passage. not correct in the eye of the passage. Option (d) is
95. (d) The author argues that the political crisis in Israel is false as the CAPITALISED part in the explanation
caused by the government's attempt to pass judicial justifies that it is a retaliation and not any other
overhaul Bills, which would give Parliament control motive.
over judicial appointments and the powers to 98. (a) The correct answer is A. Option A would weaken
override Supreme Court rulings. The author the author's argument because if the China Ministry
suggests that Mr. Netanyahu should abandon the of Civil affairs has not made any official territorial
plan to weaken the judiciary, focus on the more claims on Arunachal Pradesh, it could be argued that
pressing challenges Israel faces, and convince his the Chinese Ministry of Civil Affairs' attempt to
allies of the crisis their government is in. Therefore, rename areas in the region is not a deliberate affront
option D is the correct answer. Option A is incorrect to India's territorial sovereignty becomes false.
as the passage mentions that Mr. Netanyahu has Option (b) is wrong because it strengthens the claim.
overseen a dramatic shift towards the extreme right, Option (c) is wrong because it strengthens the
not that he is the first Prime Minister to do so. argument. Option (d) is also weakens the argument
Option B is incorrect as the passage mentions that but it suggests in relation to other countries also.
the Bills were suspended, not passed. Option C is Where as the discussion in the passage is around
incorrect as the passage mentions that Mr. India and China border dispute. Hence, option (d) is
Netanyahu suspended the Bills, not that he should incorrect.
continue to push for them even if it triggers a civil 99. (d) The correct answer is D. The passage states that
war. China's attempt to claim areas of Arunachal Pradesh
96. (c) The correct answer is evident from the concluding could be seen as a deliberate affront to India's
paragraph of the passage. The author suggests that territorial sovereignty, and reflects the nadir in ties
Mr. Netanyahu should abandon the plan to weaken and the lack of meaningful dialogue between the two
the judiciary, focus on the more pressing challenges countries. The passage further notes that until the
Israel faces, and convince his allies of the crisis their Indian government probes the reasons behind
government is in. Hence, option C is the correct China's moves and the motivation for its persistent
answer. Option A is incorrect because the author aggressions, it will be hard to prepare for a future
does not agree with the government's plan to weaken course of action. Option A is incorrect because the
the judiciary. The passage suggests that such a move passage does not suggest any indication of India
has triggered widespread resistance from different severing diplomatic ties with China. It is an extreme
sections. and unreasonable option. Option B is incorrect
Option B is incorrect because the author describes because the passage does not suggest any indication
the current crisis as arguably Mr. Netanyahu's of India occupying Chinese territories along the
toughest, and he argues that suspending the Bills Line of Actual Control. It appears far-fetched.
only delayed, and not resolved, the impact of the Option C is incorrect because the passage does not
crisis. Option D is incorrect because the passage suggest any indication of the global community
does not suggest that Mr. Ben-Gvir is the cause of intervening to resolve the territorial dispute.
the crisis or that firing him would resolve it. 100. (a) The correct answer is A. The author argues that until
97. (c) The correct answer is C. Refer to, “The Ministry of the government probes the reasons behind China’s
External Affairs statement, that “invented names” moves and the motivation for its persistent
aggressions, it will be hard to prepare for a future revisions made to the social science textbooks in
course of action. Option A supports the author's India have been done without adequate consultation
argument by providing external evidence of China's with experts and are aimed at papering over
aggressive behavior towards its neighboring important social and political realities and
countries, which validates the need for the Indian preventing students from engaging with them
government to take the issue seriously and probe the critically. The revisions betray an anxiety to escape
reasons behind China's moves. Option B is incorrect unpalatable facts and maintain a particular
as it talks about the Indian public's sentiment, which ideological stance, rather than fostering critical
does not necessarily have a direct impact on the thinking and a nuanced understanding of the
government's actions. Option C is incorrect because complexities of social and political structures. The
an expert's statement alone does not necessarily correct answer is option D, which correctly
prove the author's argument. Option D is incorrect summarizes this main conclusion of the passage.
as it only confirms the movement of Chinese troops, Option A is incorrect because the passage notes that
without providing any context or evidence to the revisions did not address important gaps and
support the author's argument. deficits in the textbooks. Option B is incorrect
101. (d) The correct answer is D. The author's argument because the passage explicitly states that the
revolves around China's attempt to claim areas of revisions were conducted without adequate
Arunachal Pradesh and India's rejection of this consultation with experts. Option C is incorrect
claim. To hold this argument, it is necessary to because while the passage advocates for promoting
assume that China's attempt to rename areas in critical thinking, it notes that the revisions made to
Arunachal Pradesh is a deliberate affront to India's the textbooks do the opposite.
territorial sovereignty, which is mentioned in the 104. (d) The correct answer is D. Option D is correct because
passage: "The names... leave little doubt that the second paragraph talks about how the revisions
China’s list... is a deliberate affront to India’s in the social science textbooks do not address gaps
territorial sovereignty." Option A is incorrect and deficits, but instead excise content related to
because the passage mentions that there have been chapters in history that have acquired political
ongoing territorial disputes between India and overtones under the current regime, and how the
China: "political relations have not been resumed... pruning exercise was conducted without adequate
and transgressions that have led to scuffles." Option consultation with experts. This paragraph highlights
B is incorrect because the passage does not suggest the flaws in the revisions and justifies the claim
that the Indian government plans to take military made in the main conclusion of the passage. A) The
action against China: "it will be hard to prepare for paragraph does mention periodic "rationalisation"
a future course of action." Option C is incorrect endeavours, but it does not highlight the need for it.
because the passage mentions the lack of Moreover, it is not the main idea of the paragraph.
meaningful political dialogue between India and B) The paragraph does mention empowering
China: "political relations have not been resumed... teachers and developing critical faculties, but the
although there have been some meetings between option contradicts it (irrelevance) C) The paragraph
Foreign and Defence Ministers." does not justify the government's decision to delete
102. (d) The correct answer is D. The main conclusion of the content related to chapters in history that have
passage is that the Indian government needs to acquired political overtones. On the contrary, it
investigate the reasons behind China's recent suggests that the revisions do not address gaps and
aggressive actions and lack of meaningful dialogue deficits in the curriculum.
in order to prepare for future course of action. This 105. (c) The correct answer is C. The passage clearly states
is evident from the final sentence of the passage, that the recent revisions to the social science
"Until the government probes the reasons behind textbooks in India have removed important content
China’s moves and the motivation for its persistent related to chapters in history that have acquired
aggressions, it will be hard to prepare for a future political overtones under the current regime. The
course of action, even as it counters China’s false passage also argues that these changes have been
narrative and a renaming of areas that are firmly made without adequate consultation with experts
within India’s boundaries." Option A is incorrect and have the effect of preventing students from
because the passage does not suggest immediate engaging with important social and political realities
military action. Option B is partly correct but does critically. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
not encompass the overall main idea of the passage. Option A is incorrect because the passage states that
Option C is incorrect as it talks about lack of the pruning exercise was conducted without
discussion is the result of tussle where as in the adequate consultation with experts. Option B is
passage the author says India has to investigate the incorrect because the passage mentions that the NEP
motives of China to advance any future course of underlines the importance of developing the
action. student's critical faculties. Option D is incorrect
103. (d) The correct answer is D. The passage argues that the because the passage does not suggest that the
revisions have made knowledge more attractive and The argument depends on the assumption that the
accessible. changes made to the textbooks are not in the best
106. (b) The correct answer is B. The passage argues that the interest of the students, and are instead motivated by
revisions in social science textbooks have been political considerations. This assumption is
made without adequate consultation with experts. supported by several points made in the passage,
This lack of consultation is a marked contrast to the such as the lack of consultation with experts and the
wide-ranging conversations that the same removal of content related to chapters with political
government had before framing the National overtones under the current regime. Option A is not
Education Policy 2020. Option B correctly identifies the correct answer as it is a fact stated in the passage.
this point and strengthens the author's argument by Option C is a valid point made in the passage, but it
stating that the government should have consulted is not the assumption on which the author's
with experts before implementing the revisions. argument depends. Option D is incorrect as it is a
Instead it was done on the basis of cherry picking. claim made by the author, not an assumption on
Option A is incorrect because the passage does not which their argument depends.
mention maintaining the uniformity of content
across the country as a reason for the revisions. SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Option C is incorrect because while the passage does
mention reducing the curriculum load on students as Hint [109-112]: Given:
a justification for the revisions, it argues that the In the beginning, the company has 40% male
deletions have been made without proper employees and the remaining female employees.
consultation with experts. Option D is incorrect Current number of total employees = 600
because the passage argues that the revisions are Male employees: 40% of 600 = 0.4 × 600 = 240
aimed at removing content related to chapters in Female employees: 60% of 600 = 0.6 × 600 = 360
history that have acquired political overtones under Each year, the company hires 5% of male employees
the current regime, and that they could come in the and 8% of female employees, 3% of male
way of the student engaging with important employees, and 10% of female employees resign.
questions of caste, class, and religion and their Common Calculation:
relationship to power. This option is stating opposite Male employees hired 1st year: 5% of 600 = 0.05 ×
of it. 600 = 30
107. (a) The correct answer is A. Option A weakens the Female employees hired 1st year: 8% of 600 = 0.08
author's argument by suggesting that the revisions × 600 = 48
were made with the intention of providing a more Male employees resigned 1st year: 3% of 600 = 0.03
streamlined and relevant curriculum for students, × 600 = 18
rather than with the intention of avoiding Female employees resigned 1st year: 10% of 600 =
uncomfortable facts and promoting a particular 0.1 × 600 = 60
ideological stance. This option is correct because it After 3 years,
contradicts the author's assertion that the revisions the total number of male employees can be
were made without adequate consultation with calculated as follows:
experts and were meant to paper over important Total male employees = Initial male employees +
social and political realities. Option B is incorrect (Male employees hired - Male employees resigned)
because it suggests that the revisions were necessary × 3 = 240 + (30 - 18) × 3 = 240 + 12 × 3 = 240 + 36
to include new findings and perspectives in the = 276
disciplines, which the author acknowledges as a the total number of female employees can be
necessary aspect of curriculum reform. It also does calculated as follows:
not negate the political propaganda. Option C is Total female employees = Initial female employees
incorrect because the passage explicitly states that + (Female employees hired - Female employees
the revisions were made without adequate resigned) × 3 = 360 + (48 - 60) × 3 = 360 + (-12) ×
consultation with experts. Option D is incorrect 3 = 360 - 36 = 324
because the author argues that the revisions threaten 109. (c) Total number of managerial employees = 60% of
to undo one of the most progressive aspects of the total male employees + 30% of total female
NEP approach, which emphasizes the importance of employees = (0.6 × 276) +(0.3 × 324) = 262.8 ≈262
promoting critical thinking and a nuanced So, the Percentage of total managerial employees =
understanding of social and political structures. It 262
× 100 = 43.67% ≈ 44%
600
strengthens the author’s contention.
Hence, Option C is correct
108. (b) The correct answer is B. The author argues that the
110. (a) Total number of non-managerial employees = Total
revisions made to the social science textbooks are
emlyees- Total managerial employee
not beneficial to the students' education, as they
=600 – 262 = 338
remove important historical events and social
Hence, Option A is correct.
realities that students should engage with critically.
111. (d) The initial number of female employees = 60% of and 15𝑘 ×
18
respectively or
35𝑘
,
75𝑘 45𝑘
and
12 2 4 2
600 = 360
respectively.
After 3 years the total number of female employees
Similarly, the number of people who stayed in these
= 324 45𝑘 15𝑘 225𝑘
So, Percentage of female employees resign hotels in the year 2020 are × or .
2 12 8
360−324 36 So, the ratio of the number of people who stayed in
= × 100 = × 100 = 10%
360 360 the hotels managed by ABC company in 1996, 2000,
Hence, Option D is correct.
276 − 240 2004, 2008, 2012, 2016, 2017, 2018 and 2020 are 3
112. (b) × 100 = 15% 35 75 45 225𝑘
240 : 11 : 12 : 15 : 17 : : : : respectively or
Hint [113-116]: 2 4 2 8
24 : 88 : 96 : 120 : 136 : 140 : 150 : 180 : 225.
Since, Tanu and Manu invested same amount Rs. P
117. (b) Number of females who stayed in the hotels
in scheme A and B. 2
Difference simple and compound interest after 2 managed by ABC company in 2017 = × 150x =
5
years at same rate = P(R/100)2 = 3500 60x
P * (25/100)2 = 3500 According to the question,
P = Rs.56000 180x – 60x = 240000
Total interest received by Manu = (56000 * 25 * So, x = 2000
2)/100 = Rs.28000 Required answer = 90x = 180000
Total amount spent by Manu on food and rent Hence, option B is the correct answer.
together = (35 + 25)% of 28000 = Rs.16800 140
118. (b) Required answer = × 48000 = 70000
96
Total amount spent by Manu on shopping = Q% of
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
28000 = 28000 - (16800 + 7000) = 4200
Hint [119-120]: Dorms 1, 3, 5, 7, 9 – either need
Q = (4200 * 100)/28000
moderate repair
Q = 15
Or
Total amount spent by Manu on shopping = 15% of
Extensive repair
28000 = Rs.4200
Dorms 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 – either need light repair or
Total amount spent by Manu on shoes = 80% of
extensive repair Since 3/6, 3/9, dorm 6, light repair
3000 = Rs.2400
dorm 9 – moderate repair.
Total amount spent by Manu on dress = R = 4200 –
Since, dorm 8 needing the minimum repair = 1
2400 = Rs. 1800
crore. We gather following information from the
113. (c) Value of P = 56000.
data given.
114. (d) Value of Q = 15.
Dorms Estimated repair cost
115. (b) Value of R = 1800.
2 (crore)
25
116. (b) 56000 (1 + ) − 56000 = 31500 1 3/4/5/6
100
Hint [117-118]: Common Solution: 2 1/2/5/6
The ratio of the number of people who stayed in 3 3/4
hotels managed by ABC in the years 1996, 2000, 4 5
2004, and 2008 is in the ratio 3 : 11 : 12 : 15 5 3/4
respectively. 6 2
Let the number of people who stayed in these hotels 7 6
in 1996, 2000, 2004 and 2008 be 3k, 11k, 12k and
8 1
15k respectively.
So, the number of people in 2012 = 15k + 13.33% 9 3/4
of 15k = 17k 10 1/2/5/6
Also, the ratio for the number of people who stayed
in hotels managed by ABC company in 2008, 2016, 119. (d) Dorm 10 estimated repair cost is 6 crore
2017 and 2018 is 12 : 14 : 15 : 18 120. (a) 9 Odd number dorms are 1, 2, 5, 7, 9
So, the number of people who stayed in these hotels Since there are 3 dorms whose repair cost is 3 crore
14 15 and 1 dorm with repair cost of 4 crore
in 2016, 2017 and 2018 are 15𝑘 × , 15𝑘 ×
12 12  total cost for odd-numbered dorms = 3 × 3 + 4 +
6 = 19 crore
.
Notes:
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ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS

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