lOMoARcPSD|29178679

UP - Clinical Pharmacy

Pharmacy (University of Bohol)

Studocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university

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1.The blood clotting mechanism require this metallic ion as a 5. Contraindicated drug in patients with allergic bronchial
co-factor asthma
A. Barium A. Atropine
B. Sodium B. Methacholine
C. Calcium C. D-tubocurarine
D. Magnesium D. Propranolol
E. Potassium E. Phentotamine

Calcium should be present in order to activate Astham is treated as the symptoms arise. For acute
factors IX to IXa, factors X to Xa and factors II to IIa in the asthma, the drug of choice is a B-agonist because of their
intrinsic and extrinsic systems of blood coagulation greater potency and fast-acting property. Bronchodilators
such as theophylline and atropine are also used, therefore B-
blockers is contraindicated
2. The metabolism of this compound/substance leads to gout
A. Calcium
B. Purines 6. Bone marrow depression is most likely caused by this
C. Cholesterol antibiotic
D. Carbohydrate A. Streptomycin
B. Tetracycline
The end product of purine metabolism is uric acid in C. Amphotericin B
gout, there is hyperuricemia, acute or chronic recurrent D. Penicillin G
arthritis and deposits of monosodium urates E. Chloramphenicol

Chloramphenicol can exert three major types of

3. Mottling of teeth in children due to tetracycline therapy adverse effects
can occur between the ages of 1. Irreversible bone marrow aplasia unrelated to dose
A. One month in utero and 3 years 2. Reversible bone marrow suppression associated with
B. Six months in utero and 8 years chloramphenicol serum concentrations consistently
C. Birth and ten years exceeding 25mg/L
D. One and ten years 3. Gray baby syndrome associated with serum
concentrations of 40 to 200mg/L
Neonates and babies prior to the first dentition is of
greatest risk of untoward effect of tetracycline on teeth.
However, pigmentation of the permanent dentition is likely 7. The responses of the drug should be monitored when
to develop if the drug is administered between the ages 2 concurrently administered with propranolol
months and 5 years, during which these tooth are building A. Digoxin
calcium deposits B. Quinidine
C. Chlorothiazide
D. Insulin
4. Acromegaly can be manifested by a/an
A. Crowded teeth Propranolol inhibits the rebound of glucose levels in
B. Large tongue non-diabetic individuals following insulin administration due
C. Hypoglycemia to propranolol-induced suppression of lipolysis. Furthermore,
D. Edema propranolol has been shown to exhibit skeletal muscle
glycogenolysis which may contribute indirectly to
The condition of acromegaly is the over production hypoglycaemia through the continuous utilization of glucose
of growth hormones thus leading to increases size of some
parts of the body
8. Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with the following
except
A. Fatigue
B. Anorexia
C. Morning stiffness
D. Joing swelling and pain
E. Bleeding

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The early symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis may be Patients with pre-existing hearing loss, however, may fail to
non-specific and consist of malaise, fatigue, diffuse experience tinnitus despite potentially toxic serum salicylate
musculoskeletal pain and morning stiffness. After sometime, concentration of greater than 40mg/dL
the noon-specific musculoskeletal pain localized to the joints
bilaterally. The hands, wrists and feet are the ones first
involved 12. Drug which is used in Parkinsonism
A. Reserpine
B. Trihexyphenydyl
9. The condition manifested by a patient having a white cell C. Physostigmine
count of 3000 cells per cubic millimetre D. Chlorpromazine
A. Leukemia E. Pyridoxine
B. Leukolysis
C. Leukopenia The anticholinergic drugs of choice for Parkinson’s
D. Leukocytosis disease are the synthetic agents because they act more
selectively than atropine and scopolamine. The most
Leukopenia is a reduction in the number of white commonly used anticholinergics are trihexyphenidyl and
cells; occurs occasionally in viral disease benztropine. The antihistamines, diphenhydramine and
Leukocytosis is an increase in the number of white orphenadrine and the phenothiazine, ethoprozapine, have
cells generally indication an acute infection significant anticholinergic properties and are useful in
Leukemia is a condition when total white cell Parkinsonism
reaches as high as 500,000 per cubic millimetre

13. Hypothyrodism is treated with

10. Which of the following is considered to the drug of choice A. Perchlorate ion
for ringworm infection? B. Liothyronine
A. Nystatin C. Lugol’s solution
B. Neomycin D. Propylthiouracil
C. Amphtorecin B E. I 131
D. Griseofulvin
Liothyronine (T3), levothyroxine, liotrix,
Griseofulvin is usually employed systematically for thyroglobulin and dessicated thyroid are commercially
control of some dermatophytes belonging to the genera available thyroid preparations that can proved and maintain
Epidermophyton, Microsporium and Trichophyton a euthyroid state – the principal goal of thyroid hormone
Nystatin is indicated for the treatment of cutaneous, therapy. The first three preparations are synthetic while the
intestinal, and vaginal infections of Candida latter two are from natural sources
Neomycin, an aminoglycoside, indicated for
infectious diarrhea cause by enteropathogenic E. coli
Amphotericin – intravenous administration for the 14. Normal haemoglobin valued for females
treatment of potentially life-threatening disseminated A. 10-14 g/dL
mycotic infections such as blastomycosis, systemic B. 12-16 g/dL
candidiasis, coccidioidomycosis, cryptococcosis, C. 14-18 g/dL
histoplasmosis and moniliasis D. 16-20 g/dL
E. 18-22 g/dL

11. Salicylate administered for arthritis is decreased due to Hemoglobin is the oxygen carrying compound
this most frequent symptom of salicylate overdosage contained in the red blood cells. The normal values for male
A. Tinnitus is 14.0 to 18.0 g/dL and 11.5 to 15.5 g/dL for females. The
B. Metabolic acidosis total haemoglobin concentration depends primarily upon the
C. Skin rash number of red blood cells in the blood sample, although, it is
D. Fever also slightly influenced by the amount of haemoglobin in
E. Respiratory alkalosis each red cell

Tinnitus can be a useful therapeutic endpoint. In

those without hearing defects because it usually is apparent
when the serum salicylate concentration is about 30mg/dL.

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15.Which of the following is not a sign and symptoms of (mean 1%=50 hours) it can be given once a day. Piroxicam is
hypothyroidism? indicated for arthritis or osteoarthritis
A. Forgetfulness
B. Sensitivity to cold
C. Unexplained weight gain 19. Pancuronium does not exert the following action, except:
D. Irritability A. Increase muscle relaxation
E. Lethargy B. Increase duration of activity
C. Enhance rapidity of action
Irritability is a symptom of hyperthyroidism. Along
with nervousness and insomnia, these symptoms are Pancuronium is approximately 5 times as potent as
manifested as an increase in alkaline phosphatise level, an tubocurarine as a competitive neuromuscular blocker. Its
increase in calcium and an increase in AST (aspartate) advantages are:
 Minimal cardiovascular effect
 Little histamine-releasing or hormonal actions
16. The penicillin which is least bound in blood serum Pancuronium was synthesized in 1964
A. Ampicillin
B. Cephalosphorin
C. Penicillin 20. What will happen to serum phenytoin level when the
chlormaphenicol/phenytoin combination is used?
Ampicillin is about 20% bound to plasma proteins A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. No effect
17. Which antibiotic is known to cause a Fanconi-like
syndrome upon ingestion of expired and degraded from this The increase in the amount of phenytoin in serum is
drug? due to the significant inhibition of metabolism of phenytoin
A. Ampicillin caused by chloramphenicol. Half-life of phenytoin in
B. Doxycycline increased 2 to 3 times normal, thus there is a necessity to
C. Tetracycline decrease phenytoin dosage
D. Cephalosphorin
E. Clindamycin
21. Which of the following does not show elevation of plasma
A Fanconi-like syndrome is characterized by: level when given simultaneously with cimetidine?
 Polyuria A. Metoprolol
 Polydypsia B. Propranolol
 Proteinuria C. Atenolol
 Acidosis
 Glycosuria Cimetidine interacts with the following drugs:
 Gross aminoacidosis  Warfarin
These toxic effects are due o the damage brought  Phenytoin
about by expired and degraded tetracycline on the proximal  Theophylline
renal tubule  Phenobarbital
 Benzodiazepines
 Propranolol
18. Piroxicam is used over other NSAIDS because it  Nifedipine
A. Relatively expensive  Digitoxin
B. Acts by a different mechanism that may be additive to  Quinidine
other NSAIDS  Mexiletine
C. May be given on a once a day schedule  TCA eg imipramine
D. Can be taken with meals Because cimetidine shows the metabolism by
E. Has essentially no gastrointestinal effects inhibiting cytochrom P-450 and this prolong drug half-life

Piroxicam, an oxicam derivative, belongs to a class

of enolic acids that has anti-inflammatory, analgesic and
antipyretic activities. Because piroxicam has a long half-life

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22. Prednisone is a/an 26. Drug most likely to cause a lupus-like syndrome?
A. Adrenergic stimulant A. Captopril
B. Anti-inflammatory drug B. Hydralazine
C. Bronchodilator C. Propranolol
D. Minoxidil
The corticosteroids like prednisone inhibit both the
early manifestations of the inflammatory process: The lupus-like syndrome associated with
 Edema hydralazine occurs in less than 10% of patients with the
 Fibrin disposition following symptoms
 Migraton of leukocytes into the inflamed area  Myalgia
 Phagocytic activity and the later manifestations  Arthralgia
 Proliferation of capillaries and fibroblasts  Fever
 Deposition of collagen  Antinuclear antibodies
 Cicatrization  Rash
 Lymphadenopathy
 Chest pain
23. Patients taking which of the following drugs should their  Asthenia
CBC be monitored regularly?  Hepatosplenomegaly
A. Phenytoin Patients develop this syndrome usually after more
B. Bisacodyl than 2 months of therapy, slow acetylators of hydralazine,
C. Acetylcysteine during summer season and dosage of more than 200mg per
D. Isoproterenol day
E. Minocycline

Phenytoin has been implicated to cause aplastic 27. The diuretic of choice for poisoning in order to induce
anemia due to alteration in folate metabolism. Other diuresis
haematological reactions include neutropenia and leukemia A. HCTZ
B. Triamterene
C. Chlorthalidone
24. This laxative is recommended when chronic use is needed D. Mannitol
A. Bulk-forming
B. Stimulant Mannitol prevents the accumulation of high
C. Saline concentration of the toxic agent within the tubular fluid by
D. Lubricant exerting an osmotic effect within the tubular fluid, inhibiting
the reabsorption of water and maintaining the rate of urine
Examples of bulk laxatives flow
 Hydrophilic colloids – form gels within the large
intestine, distending the intestine and stimulating
its peristaltic activity 28. The vitamin used for hyperlipidemia
 Saline cathartics (magnesium hydroxide and A. Ascorbic acid
magnesium citrate) – also distend the bowel and B. Thiamine
stimulate its contraction C. Niacin
D. Cyanocobalamin
E. Pyridoxine
25. Which is not a pro-drug?
A. Bacampicillin Niacin is a rational choice for initial drug therapy for
B. Methampicillin hypercholesterolemic and hypertriglyceridemic patient at
C. Methicillin the same time because this drug can lower both cholesterol
D. None and triglyceride, but a better drug of choice would be
gemfibrozil
Bacampicillin is the 1-ethoxy-carbonyloxyethyl ester
of ampicilin. This inactive form is well absorbed after oral
administration and becomes active when it is hydrolyzed to
ampicillin during absorption from the GIT

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29. Which anti-neoplastic causes congestive heart failure intermediate between those of regular insulin and protamine
(CHF)? zinc insulin suspension
A. Doxorubicin
B. Tamoxifen
C. Methotrexate 33. This drug characteristically produce throbbing headache
D. Vincristine A. Procainamide
E. Cisplatin B. Propranolol
C. Verapamil
There are two ways by when CHF induced by long- D. Glyceryltrinitrate
term doxorubicin therapy is manifested E. Nifedipine
 Acute, transient and usually benign
electrocardiographic changes Headache is a common and expected side effect of
 Chronic, cumulative, dose-dependent and the nitrates and patients usually develop tolerance to this
potentially fatal cardiomyopathy effect in several weeks of beginning therapy. Mild analgesics
help correct this inconvenience. Occasional patients
experience continuing headache and discontinue their
30. Penicillin with the best gram-negative spectrum therapy
A. Nafcillin
B. Methicillin
C. Penicillin V 34. Hyperkinesis in children is treated with which of the
D. Phenethicillin following mild CNS stimulant?
E. Ampicillin A. Caffeine
B. Doxapram
Ampicillin and the related aminopenicillins are C. Methylphenidate
bactericidal for both gram-positive and gram-negative D. Theophylline
bacteria. They are somewhat less active than pen G against
gram-positive cocci but sensitive to the latter Methylphenidate, dextroamphetamine and
microorganisms. The meningococcus, pneumococcus, pemoline are all effective in the management of hyperactive
gonococcus and L. monocytogenes are sensitive to the drug children. The first two are both available in standard and
sustained-released preparations

31. Cyclophosphamide is a/an

A. Alkylating agent 35. This drug would have an equal effect on both early
B. Antimetabolite asthmatic and late asthmatic response
C. Natural product A. Corticosteroids
B. Albuterol
Cyclophosphamide is a modified nitrogen mustard. C. Theophylline
Although itself is inactive, it undergoes metabolism in the D. Sodium cromolyn
liver where it changes to the active form. The cleavage of the
phosphamide ring is postulated as the step that produces the Cromolyn sodium (a furanochromone) is thought to
active drug within the tumor cells. The drug is useful clinically stabilize mast cell membranes and prevent the release of
although non-selective activity is observed chemical mediators of inflammation. It is therefore useful
since mast cell mediator and important role in the
pathogenesis of bronchial hyperactivity
32. Isophane insulin suspension is a
A. Fast acting insulin
B. Intermediate-acting insulin 36. Tamoxifen is indicated for the treatment of
C. Long activity insulin A. Hodgkin’s disease
B. Bladder cancer
Isophane insulin suspension is also known as NPH C. Breast cancer
insulin: N for neutral solution, P for protamine zinc insulin D. Colorectal cancer
content, H for its origin in Hagedorn’s laboratory. The
concentrations of insulin, protamine and zinc are so arrange Tamoxifen is generally considered first-line
that the preparation has an onset and a duration of action endocrine therapy because of its relatively low toxicity and
widespread experience with the use in breast cancer

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37. Herpes simplex infection of the eyelids and conjunctiva is 40. Long term therapy is not recommended for
treated best by phenylbutazone since it has potential for producing
A. Thiabendazole A. Blood dyscrasias
B. Idoxuridine B. Damage to the optic nerve
C. Amphotericin C. Damage to the auditory nerve
D. Carbenicillin D. AOTA

Herpes simplex virus of the eye and conjunctiva Phenylbutazone and its analog, oxyphenbutazone,
causes corneal blindness. There are three approved drugs are well known to cause aplastic anemia and the risk when
available to manage this condition the drug is taken regularly and for a prolong period
 Trifluridine
 Idoxuridine
 Vidarabine 41. Drug of choice in the treatment of status epilepticus
Trifluridine is considered the drug of choice A. Phenobarbital
B. Amobarbital
C. Phenytoin
38. One of the following is a white blood cell except D. Paraldehyde
A Basophil E. Diazepam
B. Eosinophil
C. Monocyte Diazepam – 10mg is extremely effective for rapid
D. Reticulocyte but temporary, termination of seizure activity in status
E. Lymphocyte epilepticus. This is because high serum/CNS concentrations
is achieved rapidly
Reticulocyte is a young erythrocyte that is not yet Phenobarbital may be useful for the treatment of
completely mature status epilepticus in patients who cannot tolerate phenytoin
Basophil – an increase of which accompanies or in whom phenytoin has previously proven effective
chronic myeloid leukemia, myelofibrosis and polycythemia Phenytoin is considered the long-acting anti-
vera convulsant of choice for most patients with tonic-clonic
Eosinophil - a granular leukocyte that have surface status epilepticus
receptors that bing IgG and IgE
Monocyte – a non-granular WBC acting as
phagocytes, becoming transformed into macrophages after 42. Guanethidine’s antihypertensive activity is inhibited by
invading infected sites, where their number reach a peak in A. Diazepam
48 hours B. Amitryptyline
Lymphocyte – a non-granular leukocyte important C. HCTZ
in the process of immunity, producing antibodies and other D. Probenecid
agents involved in the immune process E. Nitrofurantoin

Desipramine and related compounds (amitryptyline

39. A tricyclic amine used to treat viral infections and imipramine) inhibit the uptake of guanathidine into the
A. Desipramine neuron terminal, thus preventing its accumulation from
B. Amantadine these sites
C. 5-fluouracil
D. Cytosine arabinoside
E. Idoxuridine 43. Emergency cases of CHF is treated by
A. Digitalis glycoside
Amantadine prevents influenza A viruses to B. Bed rest
penetrate the host cell by preventing the uncoating of the C. Inotropic agents
virus once it is attached to the cell membrane D. Vasodilators
E. Diuretics

A large number of inotropic agents are being

investigated for the treatment of CHF. The bipyridine
derivatives, amrinone and milrinone, are widely being used

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and studied. These drugs selectively inhibit phosphodiesteras 47. All are characteristics of Parkinson’s disease except
F-III, the cyclic AMP specific cardiac phosphodiesterase A. Muscle rigidity
In patients with severe heart failure or cardiogenic B. Ambivalence
shock, digitalis is not the initial drug choice because of the C. Bradykinesia
delay in its time to peak action and its possible deleterious D. Tremor
effect of the peri-infarction area E. Postural instability

Tremor and rigidity is manifested early in the course

44. The mainstay for the treatment of Parkinsonism of the disease when dopamine depletion is not substantial.
A. Dopamine precursor Bradykinesia and postural instability appear later in the
B. Anticholinergic course of the disease and are the most disabling symptoms
C. Direct acting dopamine agonist
D. Indirect acting dopamine agonist
E. Physical therapy 48. In schizophrenia, there is primarily
A. Increased cholinergic activity
Anticholinergic block the excitatory B. Decreased cholinergic activity
neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the substantia nigra. These C. Decreased dopaminergic activity
agents improve tremor and rigidity more than bradykinesia, D. Increased dopaminergic activity
postural imbalance or gait disturbance
Commonly encountered symptoms of schizophrenia
include Bleuter’s 4 A’s
45. The following drugs are useful in the treatment of cardiac  Autism – preoccupation with internal stimuli
failure except  inappropriate effect – external manifestations of
A. Digoxin mood
B. Esmolol  Associtational disturbances - illogical or
C. Dopamine idiosyncratic thought processes
D. Amrinone  Ambivalence – Simultaneous, contradictory thinking
E. Dobutamine

Digitalis (digoxin, digitoxin0 increases the force of 49. Factor most directly associated to angina attacks
contraction of both the normal and abnormal hear (positive A. Stress
inotropic effect), and decreases the conduction of velocity B. Myocardial ischemia
and prolong the refractory period of AV mode C. Heavy smoking
Dopamine and dobutamine (inotropic agents) are D. Obesity
frequently used in acute cardiac emergencies, but their used
is limited by the need for IV administration In men, not in women, a positive family history of
Amrinone, a non symphatomimeetic inotrope, is heart attack is independently predictive of death from all
associated with an unacceptably high incidence of side causes and from cardiovascular and ischemic heart attacks.
effects when given by mouth, but parenteral form Hypertension, obesity, hypercholesterolemia, smoking and
stress are risk factors which can be altered

46. One of these is not useful in the treatment of cough

A. Noscapine 50. In unipolar depression
B. KI A. Lithium is more effective that tricyclic anti-depressants
C. Syrup of ipecac B. Tricyclic antidepressants are more effective than lithium
D. Dextromethorphan C. Neither lithium nor tricyclic antidepressants are effective
E. Iodoquinol D. Lithium and tricyclic antidepressants are equally effective

Iodoquinol, or diiodohydroxyquin, a halogenated Tricyclic antidepressants are used in unipolar

hydroxyquinoline, is one of the earlist drugs used for depression while lithium for bipolar depression
amoebiasis

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51.What condition of the liver characterized by the presence 55. Patients should not take this drug with streptomycin
of nodule and fibrous tissue? A. Acetazolamide
A. Hepatitis B. Ethacrynic acid
B. Cirrhosis of the liver C. Triamterene
C. AOTA D. Chlorthalidone
E. Mannitol
Cirrhosis is a chronic disease of the liver where there
is widespread hepatic parenchymal cell destruction. There is Drugs that are ototoxic by itself can increase its
the formation of connective tissue and nodular regeneration. ototoxic effect by concurrent administration, especially in
The liver nodules change the anatomical location and renally compromised patients. Aminoglycosides (kanamycin,
function of the blood vessels and bile ducts, causing gentamicin, neomycin, streptomycin and tobramycin) and
obstruction and resulting in portal hypertension ascites, ethacrynic acid and is such a combination. Permanent or
jaundice and esophageal varices transient hearing loss results, thus, the concurrent use of
these drugs should be avoided

52. Asthma is treated with the anticholinergic drug

A. Ipratropium bromide 56. What disease is characterized by a wide variation over a
B. Benztropine short period of time in resistance to flow in intrapulmonary
C. Biperiden airways?
A. Chronic bronchitis
The anticholinergics, atropine, ipratropium B. Emphysema
bromide, glycopyrrolate, are used alone or in combination C. Asthma
with traditional bronchodilators in relieving asthma. These
are administered by metered-dose inhaler or nebulisation Chronic bronchitis is an inflammation of the
tracheobronchial tree in which cough and overproduction of
sputum are the prominent features
53. Ranitidine works effectively in the treatment of duodenal Pulmonary emphysema is a condition of the lungs
ulcers because it where an abnormal, permanent enlargement of airspaces
A. Strengthens the protective coating of intestinal wall distal to the terminal bronchiole is present
B. Is an agonist at H1 receptors and therefore reduces pepsin
secretion
C. Blocks histamine stimulation of gastric acid secretion by 57. This is not an alkylating anticancer agent
B2 blocker A. Busulfan
B. Chlorambucil
H2 antagonista are exemplified by cimetidine, C. Cisplatin
raniditine, famotidine and nizatidine. Of all the four, D. Vincristine
cimetidine is associated with more side effects and drug
interactions. Thus the use of ranitidine is recommended Vincristine acts by reversible inhibition of mitosis. It
binds to microtubule protein, tubulin, ultimately inhibiting
formation of mitotic spindles
54. The condition where there is an inflamed inner
membranous living of the heart caused by bacteria and fungi
A. Infective endocarditis 58. Proloid is indicated in
B. Angina pectoris A. Plummer’s disease
C. Congestive heart failure B. Myxedema
C.Graves’s disease
Infective endocarditis is a microbial infection of the
heart valves or other endocardial tissue. Its pathogenesis Proloid or thyroglobulin is a purified extract of hog,
involves a complex series of events which ends in the standardized biologically to give a T4-T3 ratio of 2.5:1. It is
formation of an infected platelet-fibrin thrombus on the used for myxedema coma which is the end stage of long-
valve surface standing, uncorrected hypothyroidism
Graves’s disease (toxic diffuse goiter) and
Plummer’s disease (toxic uninodular goiter) are
abnormalities that can cause hyperthyroidism, the former
being the most common

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59. Methotrexate is an antineoplastic drug and is used in Lithium toxicity is reported as a consequence of the
A. Hyperuricemia presence of NSAIDs that increase renal tubular reabsorption
B. Arthritis of sodium by inhibition of prostaglandin E
C. Goiter

In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, 64. Pseudomembraneous colitis is best treated by

methotrexate may be given either parenterally or orally. A. Cephalexin
Approximately 57% of a low dose methotrexate is absorbed B. Erythromycin
C. Vancomycin

60. Which of the following reduces the effectiveness of oral The anticlostridal antibiotics are used for severe
contraceptives? cases of pseudomembraneous colitis (PMC). An example of
A. Rifampicin which is vancomycin (125-500mg orally 4x a day) for 7 days to
B. Phenytoin 10 days is widely used a first line therapy
C. Barbiturates
D. AOTA
65. Which is not used in mania?
Rifampicin significantly induces liver enzymes and A. Carbamazepine
increase metabolism of corticosteroids, oral contraceptives, B. Lithium
quinidine, diazepam, ketoconazole, propranolol, metoprolol, C. Acetazolamide
sulfonylureas and warfarin
Carbamazepine, a dibenzazepine tricyclic
compound which is now being used increasingly in the
61. One of the following is not a sedative-antihistamine treatment and prophylaxis of refractory bipolar disorders of
A. Astemizole acute mania or depression
B. Chlorpheniramine Litium therapy is used in a patient with a prior
C. Promethazine history of mood disorder in the patient himself or in the
D. NOTA family or if there is a continuous manic behaviour

Terfenadine and astemizole

 Penetrate the CNS poorly
 Have a decreased affinity for CNS H1 receptors
compared to classical H1 antagonists
 Lack of anticholinergic activity

62. Ferrous sulfate can make doxycycline ____________.

A. Lower the serum concentration
B. Shorten its serum half-life
C. Both
D. NOTA

Ferrous sulfate given orally (200-600mg) inhibits the

absorption of tetracycline from the GIT, thus resulting in a
decreased serum tetracycline level. The converse is true for
this interaction. When the concurrent administration of these
2 drugs is necessary, the antibiotic should be taken 3 hours
after or 2 hours before iron administration

63. Lithium salts should be__________ when diclofenac is

being used
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Dose retained

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PRACTICE SET E. Panthothenic acid

1. All of the following therapies are used for metastatic 8. Prominent characteristic of angina pectoris
prostate cancer, except A. Diuresis
A. Estrogen B. Abnormal pulse rate
B. Leuprolide C. Squeezing chest pressure
C. Orchrectomy D. Skin pallor
D. Corticosteroids E. Weakness
E. Somatostatin analogues
9. Which analgesics is useful in patients with myocardial
2. Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are infaction?
useful in the diagnosis of A. Mefenamic acid
A. Anemia B. Acetaminophen
B. Sphetocytosis C. Morphine
C. Vitamin deficiency D. Aspirin
D. Eosinophilia
E. Thrombocytopenia 10. Which is not a clinical manifestation of gastroenteritis?
A. Fever
3. Which of the following barbiturates in the therapeutic B. Vomiting
doses is the longest acting? C. Abdominal pain
A. Amytal D. Night sweats
B. Nembutal
C. Secobarbital 11. All of the following are complication of untreated
D. Phenobarbital diabetes mellitus except
E. Pentothal A. Gangrene
B. Increased perception of pain and temperature
4. Which of the following classes of drugs undergoes the C. Atherosclerosis
least change in the body? D. Hypertension
A. Alcohols
B. Salicylates 12. Which of the following is not a diabetic complication?
C. Local anesthetics A. Retinopathy
D. Volatile anesthetics B. Cardiovascular complication
C. Nephropathy
5. Inflammation of the bladder D. Anemia
A. Urethritis
B. Cystitis 13. Phenobarbital is used for viral hepatitis to
C. Prostatitis A. Promote fatty acid synthesis
D. Pyelonephritis B. Activate the enzyme prolyl hydroxylase
E. Urinitis C. Induce the production of glucoronyl transferase

6. Overdosage with certain steroids leads to the 14. Shaking palsy

manifestations of Cushing’s syndrome. Which of the A. Frequent urination
following steroids produces most of the above effects? B. Stooped pressure
A. Estradiol C. Painful inflammation of the joint
B. Prednisolone
C. Diethylstilbestrol 15. Compounds whose absorption may be reduced by food
D. Testosterone A. Cefalexin
E. Progesterone B. Tetracycline
C. Isoniazid
7. A child shows evidence of poor growth, night blindness, D. Metronidazole
dryness of the conjunctiva, keratinisation of the cornea and a
dry scaly skin. Which preparation is indicated for therapy? 16. Compound whose absorption may be increased by food
A. Calciferol A. Griseofulvin
B. Dried yeast B. Nitrofurantoin
C. Vitamin A C. Rifampicin
D. Thiamine D. NOTA

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17. Enhances the effect of barbiturates 26. The reversal of anticoagulant-induced

A. Alcohol hypoprothrombinemia is most rapidly accomplished by the
B. MAOI’s administration of
C. Pethidine A. Phytonadione
D. AOTA B. Menadione
C. Menadione Na bisulfite
18. A cardioselective beta blocker D. Fresh blood or plasma
A. Alprenolol
B. Betaxolol 27. The clinical investigation of a new drug consists of 4
C. Metoprolol phases. Phase 1 of the clinical testing involves
D. AOTA A. To animals to determine the side effects of the drug
B. To animals for toxicity studies
19. The following are calcium antagonists except C. By select clinicians to healthy volunteers
A. Nifedipine D. To select clinicians to patients suffering from the diseases
B. Felodipine
C. Nicardipine 28. Which of the following phrases best defined the clinical
D. NOTA disorder known as hemochromatosis?
A. Lack of circulating antibodies
20. Affected by food in the stomach so should be given with B. Excessive storage of iron by the body
food one hour before meals C. Abnormally shaped blood cells
A. Captopril D. Diminished circulating blood volume
B. Enalapril
C. Cilazapril 29. A white cell differential count is a laboratory procedure
that
21. Comes only as an oral preparation A. Determines the relative proportions of the various white
A. Ranitidine blood cells
B. Famotidine B. Determines the relative proportion of white cells to red
C. Nizatidine cells
D. Cimetidine C. Differentiates between iron-deficient and folic acid
deficient anemia
22. Treatment of acute diarrhea includes D. Differentiates immature from mature white blood cells
A. Stool binding agents
B. Anti-vomiting drugs 30. Patients on lithium carbonate therapy should be advised
C. Oral rehydration salts A. To drink plenty of water to avoid crystalluria
B. To stop taking the drug if they experience mild side effects
23. The following drugs lose some of their potency due to C. Not to restrict then normal dietary salt intake
sorption to plastic materials except D. Not to take the drug during their manic phase of the cycle
A. Diazepam E. Not to take the drug with food
B. Chloroquine
C. Isosorbide dinitrate 31. The intentional administration of intravenous fluid into
D. NOTA subcutaneous tissue is called
A. Infiltration
24. The primary mechanism of ibuprofen B. Venoclysis
A. Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis C. Hypodermoclysis
B. Stimulates platelet aggregation D. Hemodialysis
C. AOTA E. Hemolysis
D. NOTA
32. Kernicterus is a drug-induced disorder that may occur in
25. Diazoxide is administered the neonate following therapy with which of the following
A. Orally drugs?
B. IM A. Isoniazid
C. By rapid IV injection B. Sulfisoxazole
D. By IV infusion C. Phenytoin
D. Gentamicin
E. Promethazine

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33. Which of the following enzymes would be elevated in 41. To be recorded in the recorded book except
acute pancreatitis? A. Pethidine
A. Alkaline phosphatise B. Fentanyl
B. Lactic dehydrogenase C. Codeine phosphate
C. Creatinine phosphokinase D. Obimin
D. Amylase E. Bromazepam

34. Fatigue, lethargy, and weakness are caused by the loss of 42. The following are true except
which ion? A. PT and C should be composed of at least 5 physicians
A. Sodium B. The pharmacists acts as the secretary of the committee
B. Lithium C. A mandatory committee under the conditions of
C. Calcium participation of the hospital insurance program
D. Potassium
43. IV admixture
35. All of the factors listed below may play a role in the A. Adding an additive to an IV fluid
development of duodenal ulcer disease, except: B. Incorporating an antibiotic into an IV drop
A. Spicy food ingestion C. Both A and B
B. Tobacco smoking D. Hyperalimentation
C. Genetic factors
D. Helicobacter pylori infection 44. TPN is administered through
A. Subclavian vein
36. What type of leukocyte appears first and is present in B. Femoral artery
greatest numbers in an inflammatory focus soon after tissue C. Nose
injury has occurred?
A. Plasma cell 45. Medication orders (chart orders) differ from prescriptions
B. Eosinophil in that they
C. Neutrophil A. Are intended for ambulatory use
D. Lymphocyte B. Contain only the generic name of the drug
C. May contain non-medication instructions from the
37. Most effective in acute treatment of migraine headache practitioner
A. Propranolol D. Contain quantity of medication to be dispensed
B. Methylsergide
C. Ergotamine sulfate 46. A package that contains one discrete pharmaceutical
dosage form
38. When used to treat susceptible urinary tract infection, A. Single unit package
which of the following anti-infective drugs will have its B. Unit dose dispensing system
activity increased in an alkaline urine? C. Drug distribution system
A. Methenamine D. NOTA
B. Nitrofurantoin
C. Tetracycline 47. A drug distribution system in which all doses are in unit
D. Gentamicin dose form at the time they are dispensed
A. Unit dose
39. The metabolism of which of the following compounds is B. Unit dose package
altered in patients taking anticonvulsants? C. Unit dose dispensing system
A. Pyridoxine D. AOTA
B. Folic acid
C. Riboflavin 48. The advantages of the individual prescription order
D. Tyrosine system of drug distribution
A. Increased potential for medication error
40. To be recorded in the additional opium book, except B. Increased drug inventory
A. Pentothal sodium C. Delay in drug administration
B. Nalbuphine HCl D. AOTA
C. Codeine phosphate, phenitamine maleate, guiafenesin E. NOTA
D. Diazepam

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49. A standard dosing schedule of “q6h” dictates that doses ANSWER KEY
be given at
A. 10 AM and 10 PM 1. E 26. D
B. 9 AM, 1PM, 5PM 2. D 27. C
C. 9AM, 3PM, 9PM, 3AM 3. D 28. B
D. 6AM, 12NN, 6PM 4. D 29. A
5. B 30. A
50. A sign at patients door stating “NPO” means 6. B 31. C
A. Patient should be left undisturbed 7. C 32. B
B. Patient should not be given anything by mouth 8. B 33. D
C. Patient should be given drugs before meals 9. C 34. D
D. Patients should be given drugs after meals
10. D 35. A
11. B 36. C
12. D 37. C
13. C 38. D
14. B 39. B
15. B 40. A
16. A 41. E
17. D 42. A
18. D 43. C
19. D 44. A
20. A 45. C
21. C 46. A
22. C 47. C
23. B 48. C
24. A 49. C
25. C 50. B

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