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17/06/2023 BỘ ĐỀ THÁNG 6 – MÃ 612

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. /ai/
Question 1. A. wine B. cinema C. diner D. ninth
Question 2. A. divisible B. design C. disease D. excursion
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. meaningful B. suitable C. attentive D. courteous
Question 4. A. detect B. conclude C. instruct D. contact
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. She was the first woman____________as the president of the Philippines.
A. to be elected B. elected C. to elect D. electing
Question 6. Peter is the________ student in my class.
A. taller than B. so tall as C. the tallest D. tallest
Question 7. Peter will wear this suit _______.
A. when he attends his friend’s wedding B. once he attended his friend’s wedding
C. as he was attending his friend’s wedding D. after he had attended his friend’s wedding
Question 8. Many workers are still unaware_________the importance of following safety procedures.
A. of B. about C. with D. in
Question 9. This room is very hot, _______?
A. wasn’t it B. is it C. isn’t it D. hasn’t it
Question 10:______number of boys were swimming in the lake, but I didn’t know the exact number of them.
A. A B. The C. no article D. An
Question 11: We have decided to________our research into environmental waste to ensure high health standards
in this city.
A. broaden B. outweigh C. exaggerate D. boost
Question 12. Peter was bitterly disappointed at the test result, but I think he’ll soon _______ it.
A. put through B. get over C. make up D. turn into
Question 13. In order to avoid________unexpected problems on the road, car owners are advised________out
regular maintenance on their vehicles.
A. having - carrying B. to have – carry C. to have - carried D. having - to carry
Question 14. Reading the article about damages caused by the heavy storm really brought a lump to my _______
A. teeth B. throat C. eye D. lip ý ch cm giác không nói
Question 15. Katherine _______ an essay when someone knocked the door. nên li
A. was writing B. has written C. writes D. is writing
Question 16. They _______ a big row about how to raise their child last night.
A. paid B. took C. gave D. had
Question 17. Laura was very happy when she _______ to the year-end party.
A. invited B. was invited C. has invited D. was inviting
Question 18. Nam is _______ at learning new information.
A. quickly B. quicken C. quick D. quickness
Question 19. Thousands of _______ flock to the British Museum every year.
A. audience B. eyewitnesses C. onlookers D. sightseers
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20. Jack and Linda are at the school gate.
- Jack: ‘Have a nice weekend!”
- Linda: “_______”
A. You’re welcome. B. Never mind. C. Same to you! D. Here you are.
Question 21. Hung is inviting Lan to join the youth club.
- Hung: “Would you like to join our youth club?”
- Lan: “_______”
A. Thanks a lot! B. My pleasure. C. Yes. I’d love to! D. No worries!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Mitchell appeared at the door, asking me to lend him some money.
A. saw B. arrived C. knew D. smiled
Question 23. The addition of some features made these smartphones more appealing to consumers.
A. attractive B. boring C. modem D. old
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. The details of the celebrity’s death were finally revealed by her mother.
A. created B. renewed C. hid D. opened
Question 25. His life hung in the balance when he had a massive stroke.
A. was certain B. worsened a lot C. was unsuccessful D. changed quickly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 26. You’re not allowed to record the programme.
A. You shouldn’t record the programme. B. You mustn’t record the programme.
C. You can’t record the programme. D. You needn’t record the programme.
Question 27. He hasn’t changed his Facebook profile picture for 2 years.
A. He had 2 years to change his Facebook profile picture.
B. He has changed his Facebook profile picture for 2 years.
C. He didn’t change his Facebook profile picture 2 years ago.
D. The last time he changed his Facebook profile picture was 2 years ago.
Question 28. “I am attending an online class,” Martin said.
A. Martin said he had attended an online class. B. Martin said he wasn’t attending an online class.
C. Martin said he was attending an online class. D. Martin said he hadn’t attended an online class.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 29. Her uncle comes to visit her family last summer holiday.
A B C D
Question 30. Young children are advised to participate in community activities to improve his
A B C D
social skills.
Question 31. Today's students also appear more formerly dressed and conservative- looking these days.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 32: The car driver in front stopped so suddenly. Therefore, the accident happened.
A. If the car driver in front didn’t stop so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t happen.
B. If the car driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t have happened.
C. If the car driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happened.
D. If the car driver in front had stopped suddenly, the accident would have happened.
Question 33: I had just arrived home. I was called immediately back to the head office 10 kilometers away
A. Hardly had I arrived home when I was called immediately back to the office 10 kilometers away.
B. Because I had just arrived home, I was called immediately back to the office 10 kilometers away.
C. Should I had just arrived home, I was called immediately back to the office 10 kilometers away.
D. Whenever I had just arrived home, I was called immediately back to the office 10 kilometers away.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
CULTURE SHOCK FOR LANGUAGE EXCHANGE STUDENTS
Students going to stay with a host family in another country usually have to make a number of cultural
adjustments. They may find it difficult to (34) _______ friendships with the children in the family and they will
certainly have to get used to a variety of new things, including food, the climate and the language. An extra
difficulty may be the different expectations (35) _______ the host parents have of them in comparison with their
own parents.
They may be (36) _______ for the fact that they are expected to help with the housework, or come home
earlier in the evenings than they ever would at home. They may not have as (37) _______ independence as they
are used to, and they may sometimes be surprised by the behaviour of the children in the family who, although
usually friendly and welcoming may sometimes seem a little immature. (38) _______, language exchange students
generally enjoy themselves and often form lasting friendships.
(Adapted from Complete First for Schools by Guy Brook-Hart and Helen Tiliouine)
Question 34. A. force B. shape C. form D. land
Question 35. A. whose B. which C. whom D. where
Question 36. A. illegal B. irresponsible C. impolite D. unprepared
Question 37. A. many B. a few C. each D. much
Question 38. A. However B. Therefore C. Otherwise D. For example
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Florists, personal trainers, professors, and nutritionists all have healthy jobs according to research. There are
many reasons for this. A florist, for example, sells flowers and plants to customers. This is very relaxing work. A
personal trainer, on the other hand, is usually very fit. He or she trains other people to lose weight and to keep fit.
However, research also shows that some jobs are 'unhealthy'. They cause a lot of stress and worry. For
example, a taxi driver drives all day. He often faces traffic jams and difficult passengers too. A firefighter puts out
dangerous fires and sometimes saves people from burning buildings.
Most people are looking for the perfect job. They want a job that is interesting, with a good salary and not
much stress. However, it is difficult to get everything. Healthy, relaxing jobs are usually not very well paid. On
the other hand, people with stressful jobs often get good salaries. For example, the head of a big company gets a
lot of money, but he or she does not always have good health, or the time to enjoy life.
(Adapted from New Headway Academic Skills by Richard Harrison)
Question 39. What does the passage mainly about?
A. Ways to find a healthy job B. New evidence about stress
C. Work and stress D. Jobs with good salaries
Question 40. The word ‘trains’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. shares B. copies C. sings D. teaches
Question 41. According to paragraph 2, unhealthy jobs _______.
A. make people stressed B. aren’t very dangerous
C. are quite relaxing D. cause traffic congestion
Question 42. The word ‘They’ in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. Jobs B. Salaries C. People D. Buildings
Question 43. Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. A personal trainer always follows a healthy diet.
B. Only difficult passengers travel by taxi.
C. People with relaxing jobs often get high salaries.
D. A president of a large company often have insufficient free time.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
The next time you're out in a public place, like a park or a restaurant, look around you. What is happening?
Some people are surfing the internet on their phones. Others are wearing headphones, listening to music on their
MP3 players. That's just the way life is today. We all spend a fair amount of our time connected to technology.
Now imagine living in a world without smartphones, tablets or any of the electronic gadgets we take for
granted these days. There's no internet and you go to the library and look at a book when you want to find anything
out. You play outside with friends in the real world instead of playing online video games in virtual worlds. There
are no texts, no DVDs and no email. Welcome to 1986!
That's the world the McMillan family from Ontario, Canada, decided to live in for a year. Blair, 27, Morgan,
28, and their two sons Trey and Denton, aged five and three, got rid of their cable TV, smartphones, internet, new
games console, digital camera, DVD player and sat nav, and instead used an old TV, a radio, old telephones, a
VHS video player, an old games console and maps. They decided to try it after seeing how their young children
were becoming dependent on technology. They aren't alone. More and more parents today worry about the effect
technology is having on their children, particularly very young children.
The McMillans decided to get back to basics to see how things have changed. So how did they find their year
without modem technology? ‘I thought Blair was mad when he suggested doing this whole thing,’ says Morgan,
but it's made me realise how much time we wasted. We seem much more relaxed now, not checking in on email
or Facebook all the time.’ The McMillans are now back in the present with a different attitude to today's technology.
Blair said, ‘I'm not anti-technology. I wanted to taste, and I wanted my kids to taste what it would be like without
it, and to see if we could actually do it.”
(Adapted from Optimise by Malcolm Mann and Steve Taylore-Knowles)
Question 44. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. A Year without Technology B. The Fresh Era of New Technology
C. A Day of Living without Your Phone D. Technology in Times of Change
Question 45. According to paragraph 1, people nowadays _______.
A. tend to stroll around public parks frequently B. are only keen on reading news on the Internet
C. lead an easier life D. are addicted to using technology
Question 46. The word ‘fair’ in paragraph 1 mostly means _______.
A. limited B. equal C. pretty small D. quite large
Question 47. The word ‘dependent’ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. reliant B. stuck C. pessimistic D. confused
Question 48. The word ‘They’ in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. Electronic gadgets B. The McMillans C. Modem parents D. Young children
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Life today is better and healthier than life in the past.
B. The McMillan family changed their forms of entertainment in their experiment.
C. Trey and Denton were very hooked on modern technology.
D. Many parents nowadays share the same concern as the McMillans.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Blair was crazy about a life dominated by modern technology.
B. Life with lots of electronic gadgets might make the McMillans quite stressful.
C. Morgan attributed the success of her family’s experiment to Blair’s willingness.
D. The McMillans returned to the present because they’re fed up the life in 1986.
18/06/2023 BỘ ĐỀ THÁNG 6 – MÃ 613

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. hide B. pick C. shine D. like
Question 2. A. cheap B. child C. chemist D. chair
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. effort B. actor C. perform D. visit
Question 4. A. disappear B. recommend C. entertain D. fortunate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. The conference _______ by non-governmental organizations was about global warming.
A. to plan B. planned C. planning D. plan
Question 6. I lost the match because I was playing very badly. It was even _______ than the last game.
A. more badly B. badly C. worst D. worse
Question 7. _______, she will buy her parents a new TV.
A. When she receives her salary B. Once she received her salary
C. Until she received her salary D. After she had received her salary
Question 8. I certainly hope that David is aware _______ all the problems involved.
A. on B. at C. of D. to
Question 9. She has recently bought a new car, _______?
A. hasn’t she B. didn’t she C. did she D. has she
Question 10. I have left my book in _________kitchen and I would like you to get it for me.
A. the B. a C. Ø (no article) D. an
Question 11. Environmental groups try to stop farmers from using harmful on their crops.
A. economy B. agriculture C. investments D. chemicals
Question 12. When petrol price _______ any more, I will have to use a bicycle to save money.
A. goes down B. goes up C. gets up D. gives up
Question 13. Although he knew very little about linguistics, he pretended _______ an expert in the field.
A. to be B. be C. being D. been
Question 14. When hearing the news, Tom tried his best to keep a _______ on his surprise.
A. hat B. roof C. hood D. lid
Question 15. Ngoc _______ in the kitchen when she saw a mouse.
A. is cooking B. has cooked C. was cooking D. cooks
Question 16: The jury _______ her compliments on her excellent knowledge of the subject.
A. paid B. gave C. made D. said
Question 17. Every day, Peter’s mother drives him to school. However, today, he _______ to school by his
father.
A. was taken B. is being taken C. is taking D. took
Question 18. The drug under examination has shown some _______ results when given to volunteers in some
countries.
A. impressed B. impresses C. impressive D. impression
Question 19. After a period of probation, you’ll be offered a written _______ of employment.
A. contract B. certificate C. degree D. licence

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges
Question 20: Mr. Smith is talking to a waiter in a restaurant.
- Mr. Smith: “Would you please bring me a cup of coffee!”
- Waiter: “__________”
A. But I don't want to drink. B. You know, my cup is on the table.
C. Of course. With or without sugar? D. Sure, I can do that. It's a piece of cake.
Question 21: Paul and Daisy are discussing life in the future.
- Paul: “I personally believe that people will stop using motorbikes and travel by bikes instead.”
- Daisy: “_______. Some countries now even ban motorbikes in specific areas.”
A. There’s no doubt about that B. I’m so sorry to hear that
C. I’m afraid I don’t agree with you D. It doesn’t matter at all
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Many women prefer to use cosmetics to enhance their beauty and make them look younger.
A. improve B. maximize C. worsen D. enrich
Question 23: I think we cannot purchase this device this time as it costs an arm and a leg.
A. is cheap B. is painful C. is confusing D. is expensive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un-
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The new air conditioner was installed yesterday.
A. inspected thoroughly B. put in position
C. well repaired D. delivered to the customer
Question 25: We were pretty disappointed with the quality of the food.
A. highly B. rather C. extremely D. very
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions
Question 26: It is unnecessary for you to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon
A. You needn’t finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
B. You have to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
C. You may finish the report after tomorrow afternoon.
D. You should finish the report until tomorrow afternoon
Question 27: The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have not seen her for three years.
B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
C. I have often seen her for the last three years.
D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her
Question 28: Tom said: “Why do you keep staring at me, Janet?”
A. Tom asked Janet why did she keep staring at him.
B. Tom asked Janet why she keeps staring at him.
C. Tom asked Janet why she had kept staring at him.
D. Tom asked Janet why she kept staring at him.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 29. She has disappeared three days ago, and they are still looking for her now.
A. has disappeared B. and C. are still D. for her
Question 30. Ozone has his origin in a number of sources, a prime one being the automobile engine.
A. his B. prime C. being D. the
Question 31. It is said that these good life skills will make young people become more confidential.
A. is said B. these C. become D. confidential
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 32: He is short-sighted. Therefore, he has to wear the glasses.
A. If he isn’t short-sighted, he won’t have to wear the glasses.
B. If he hadn’t been short-sighted, he wouldn’t have had to wear the glasses,
C. If he weren’t short-sighted, he wouldn’t have to wear the glasses.
D. Should he not be short-sighted, he won’t have to wear the glasses.
Question 33: Mike became a father. He felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents.
A. Were Mike to become a father himself, he would feel a strong sense of responsibility towards his
parents.
B. Only after Mike had become a father himself did he feel a strong sense of responsibility towards his
parents.
C. Had Mike become a father himself, he would have felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his
parents.
D. Not until he felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents did Mike become a father himself.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 -38
I was an MBA student in the USA and I lived in the university’s coed dormitory. In my culture, usually, if a
woman talks to a man, it is a sign of romantic interest. (34)_______, in the first few days of school, I found it
strange that so many women were talking to me and I was under the impression that some women on my
dormitory floor were interested in me. To (35) _____ their politeness, I would buy them flowers or offer small
gifts, as is done in my country. However, I was quite surprised to see that these same women now seemed (36)
_______ around me. One was even quite offended and told me to leave her alone. Eventually I talked to the
residence adviser on my floor to see what I was doing wrong, and he explained to me the way men and women
usually interact in the USA. I was quite relieved to hear that (37) _____ was wrong with me, but rather with the
way I was interpreting my conversations with women. Even though I did not find the love of my life while I was
in the USA, I still made many good female friends afterwards (38) _______I still maintain contact.
(Source: https://books.google.com.vn)
Question 34: A. However B. Therefore C. Moreover D. Otherwise
Question 35: A. pay B. show C. return D. give
Question 36: A. uncomfortable B. amazing C. exciting D. surprising
Question 37: A. nothing B. something C. anything D. everything
Question 38: A. whom B. to whom C. who D. with whom

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39- 43
Vietnam’s population is ageing quickly. In 2017, more than 10 per cent of the population will be 60 and older,
and in 15-20 years the elderly will account for one third of the total population. This raises concerns about
healthcare, welfare and pensions for the elderly at a time when Vietnam is focusing on economic integration and
requires a large labor force. So far two solutions have been proposed: to loosen the two-child policy and to
increase the retirement age to 58 for women and 62 for men. By ending the two-child policy the government
expects to make up for the ageing population within the next 20 years. But its effect could be creating an
uncontrollable boom in the Vietnamese population. When the government loosened the two-child policy in 2015
in a trial period, in the first 6 months of 2016 the third child birth rate increased remarkably by 7.5 per cent
Raising the retirement age has been proposed by the Ministry of Labor pending parliamentary evaluation in May
2017. While the policy is beneficial in utilizing the work experience of the elderly while creating savings in the
pension budget, it also means fewer job prospects and promotion opportunities for younger generations. It is also
not in the interest of all the elderly, especially the 70 per cent of Vietnam's labor force working in manual labor-
intensive sectors such as agriculture, manufacturing and construction where working above the age of 50 can be
dangerous and unproductive. Despite these drawbacks, raising the retirement age is still considered by
policymakers as one of the key solutions to the ageing population problem in Vietnam. However, these are only
temporary solutions.
Question 39: The best title for this passage could be ________.
A. Vietnam struggling with ageing population B. Stopping the two-child policy in Vietnam
C. Raising the retirement age in Vietnam D. How to solve the aging population in Vietnam
Question 40: Which statement is probably TRUE according to the information in the paragraph 1?
A. In 2017, the elderly take up for one third of the total population, this leads to more concerns about
healthcare, welfare and pensions for the elderly.
B. In 2015, the two-child policy has been officially tightened and succeeded.
C. The government would promote families to have two children to compensate for the ageing population
within the next 20 years.
D. In the next 15-17 years, Vietnam's economy will need a large labor force to integrate with global
economy.
Question 41: The word “its" in paragraph 1 refers to ________?
A. two-Child policy B. aging population
C. retirement age D. economic integration
Question 42: In the 2rd paragraph, the writer suggests that ________.
A. The Ministry of Labor has applied raising the retirement age in May 2017.
B. Raising the retirement age can reduce job opportunities for younger generations.
C. The elderly whose age is 50 would be dangerous if they continued to work
D. Raising the retirement age and stopping two-child policy can be considered as long-term and effective
solutions.
Question 43: The word "temporary" in paragraph 2 means ________.
A. constant B. permanent C. short-term D. long-term
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 - 50.
Volunteering offers many of the same social benefits, with the added bonus of helping others and
developing useful skills to put on your CV. Plus, students are in a unique position to help, suggests Tom Fox.
"They can take their enthusiasm and excitement for opportunities and share their passions, subject knowledge and
experience with people." The idea of giving up time for nothing might seem impractical at first, especially once
the pressures of study and coursework or exams begin to mount up. However, Michelle Wright, CEO of charity
support organization Cause4, suggests seeing volunteering as a two-way street. "I think it is fine for undergraduates
to approach volunteering as a symbiotic relationship where doing good is just one part of the motivation for
reaching personal and professional goals."
Katerina Rudiger, head of skills and policy campaigns at the Chartered Institute of Personnel and
Development (CIPD), says: "Volunteering can be a valuable way of gaining that experience, as well as building
confidence, broadening your horizons, becoming a better team player and developing those all- important
'employability skills' such as communication and decision making." Amanda Haig, graduate HR manager, agrees
that volunteering can help your employment prospects. "Volunteering can demonstrate positive personality traits
and skill sets, such as proactivity, and teamwork," she says.
A positive side-effect of volunteering is improving your time at university by getting involved in the local
community. Leaving the student bubble can make your time as an undergraduate much more varied. At Bath Spa
University, more than 1,000 students volunteered over the past year, doing everything from working on local
environmental projects to helping in schools or assisting the elderly. ”Quite often there can be a divide between
students and permanent residents," says students' union president Amy Dawson, "but if students invest a little time
now, they will be giving something back to the local community and will reap the benefits in the future."
“You might also find that volunteering helps your studies if you choose the right program. At Lancaster,
volunteering is linked into academic modules in some cases", explains Fox. "This has multiple wins. Students get
to apply their learning in the classroom and share their interests with children in local schools or community
organizations, while schools gain skilled students with a passion for a subject that enthuses their pupils."
Question 44: What is the most suitable title for this reading?
A. Volunteering at university
B. Volunteering helps employment prospects
C. Students should take part in extracurricular activities to put it on CV
D. The virtues of volunteering
Question 45: Which of the following information is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1?
A. Many social benefits are provided by volunteering.
B. Students are likely to be enthusiastic for chances and share their interests with people.
C. Volunteering might increase the pressures of study and coursework or exam.
D. Michelle Wright recommends seeing volunteering as a two-way street.
Question 46: The word “gaining” in paragraph 2 can be replaced by____________.
A. getting B. making C. lacking D. taking
Question 47: Personality traits and skill sets include____________.
A. communication and decision – making B. proactivity and collaboration
C. proactivity and confidence D. passions, subject knowledge and experience.
Question 48: What does the word “side-effect” mean?
A. additional result that you did not expect or want
B. an extra good result
C. another side of a street
D. a two-way street
Question 49: What does the word "they" refer to in paragraph 3?
A. projects B. residents C. students D. benefits
Question 50: Which of the following most accurately reflects Fox’s explanation in the last paragraph?
A. Students at universities must join at least one activity in volunteer campaign at local schools.
B. Students at universities should join as many activities in volunteer campaign at local schools as possible.
C. Students at universities who join volunteer work will gain a lot of purposes for the community only.
D. Students at universities who join volunteer work will gain a lot of purposes for not only themselves but also
the community.
19/06/2023 BỘ ĐỀ THÁNG 6 – MÃ 614

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. although B. width C. thump D. thank
Question 2. A. hike B. wind C. child D. tide
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. attract B. marry C. demand D. connect
Question 4. A. industry B. survival C. endanger D. commercial
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. The book _______ by New York magazine is the best-seller of this week.
A. to plan B. published C. planning D. plan
Question 6. Detective books are _______ than science fiction ones.
A. the most interesting B. interesting C. most interesting D. more interesting
Question 7. Richard will look for a job _______.
A. after he had passed his exams B. before he passed his exams
C. while he was passing his exams D. as soon as he passes his exams
Question 8. I think that married couples should be financially independent _______ their parents.
A. to B. of C. with D. on
Question 9. You brother is living in HCM city, _______?
A. is he B. isn’t he C. does he D. did he
Question 10. Football is considered one of the most popular sporting events in _______ world.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 11. He wasn't aware that only one mistake could _______ his chances of getting the job.
A. destroy B. damage C. ruin D. devastate
Question 12. People who live in or near endangered animals’ habitats _______ wildlife product for their
livelihood.
A. take care of B. rely on C. pay attention to D. think of
Question 13. They decided _________ tennis with us last night.
A. play B. to play C. playing D. played
Question 14. I can’t give you the answer on the _______; I’ll have to think about it for a few days.
A. place B. minute C. spot D. scene
Question 15. I think mobile phones are _______ for people of all ages.
A. usage B. usefully C. useful D. use
Question 16. It used to be a small town, where people ______ fishing for a living.
A. made B. did C. earned D. led
Question 17. Today, many serious childhood diseases _______ by early immunization.
A. can be prevented B. prevent C. are preventing D. can prevent
Question 18. The candidate took a ______ breath before he walked into the interview room.
A. deep B. deeply C. deepen D. depth
Question 19. Unless they win the case, they may be _______ for the costs of the world trial.
A. liable B. responsible C. reliable D. accessible

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges
Question 20: Andrew is talking to a waiter in a restaurant.
- Andrew: “Can I have the bill, please?”
- Waiter: “______”
A. You are very kind. B. Just a minute, please.
C. My pleasure D. You’re exactly right.
Question 21: Thanh and Nadia have just listened to Lan’s song.
– Thanh: “In my opinion, Lan’s the best singer in our school.”
– Nadia: “_______. I really love her beautiful voice.”
A. Yes, tell me about it! B. I can’t agree with you more!
C. That’s OK! D. Yes, please.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Today students are under a lot of pressure due to the high expectations from their parents and
teachers.
A. nervousness B. emotion C. stress D. relaxation
Question 23: She was like a cat on hot bricks before her driving test.
A. nervous B. comfortable C. depressed D. relaxing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un-
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society.
A. informative B. essential C. invented D. exciting
Question 25: It is amazing how quickly the new foreign student adapts to the local culture.
A. awful B. surprising C. boring D. dangerous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions
Question 26: It is not necessary for you to wear formal clothes to the party this evening.
A. You can’t wear formal clothes to the party this evening.
B. You needn’t wear formal clothes to the party this evening.
C. You must wear formal clothes to the party this evening.
D. You would wear formal clothes to the party this evening.
Question 27: The last time I went swimming was when we were in Spain.
A. I used to go swimming when I visited Spain.
B. I have not gone swimming since we were in Spain.
C. We often went swimming together when we were in Spain.
D. I always went swimming when we were in Spain.
Question 28: "What are you going to do after school, Anne?" Kevin asked.
A. Kevin asked Anne what was she going to do after school.
B. Kevin asked Anne what she was going to do after school.
C. Kevin wanted to know what would Anne do after school.
D. Kevin wanted to know what Anne would do after school.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 29. Yesterday morning, I get stuck in a traffic jam for an hour on the way to work.
A. get B. a C. an hour D. work
Question 30. Being almost unknown ten years ago, these firms are now famous for its high-quality products
and services.
A. unknown B. these C. its D. services
Question 31. Children at an impressive age should be under close parental supervision since they may be
led astray by their unsuitable friends.
A. impressive B. parental C. astray D. unsuitable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 32: Max has to attend an event this weekend. He can’t go on a picnic with his family.
A. If Max didn’t have to attend an event this weekend, he could go on a picnic with his family.
B. Provided that Max has to attend an event this weekend, he can’t go on a picnic with his family.
C. If Max had to attend an event this weekend, he could go on a picnic with his family.
D. If only Max had to attend an event this weekend, he could have gone on a picnic with his family.
Question 33: Hans told us about his investment in the company. He did it on his arrival at the meeting.
A. Hardly had he informed us about his investment in the company when Hans arrived at the meeting.
B. Only after investing in the company did Hans informs us of his arrival at the meeting.
C. No sooner had Hans arrived at the meeting than he told us about his investment in the company.
D. Not until Hans told us that he would invest in the company did he arrive at the meeting.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 -38
Most people today take relatively little general exercise. Over the last 30 or 40 years lifestyles have changed
considerably and (34) _______ people now travel even the shortest distances by car or bus. Lack of exercise
combined with eating too many fatty and sugary foods has meant that many people are becoming too fat. Experts
are particularly concerned that children (35) _______ a lot of their free time watching television or playing
computer games instead of being physically active.
In recent years, (36) _______, there has been a growing interest in fitness among young adults and many
belong to a sports club or gym. Membership of a sports club or gym can be (37) _______ and not everyone can
afford the subscription. Local sports centres are generally cheaper. Evening classes are also cheap and offer a wide
variety of fitness activities (38) _______ range yoga to jazz dancing. Some companies now provide sports facilities
for their employees or contribute to the cost of joining a gym.
(Extracted from The Oxford Guide to British and American Culture - Oxford Advanced Learner’s Compass)
Question 34: A. many B. another C. much D. every
Question 35: A. make B. take C. get D. spend
Question 36: A. for example B. however C. therefore D. otherwise
Question 37: A. popular B. easy C. cheap D. expensive
Question 38: A. whom B. who C. which D. where

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39- 43
Some doctors think that you should drink a glass of water each morning. You should drink this water first
thing, before doing anything else. The temperature of the water should be similar to body temperature; neither too
hot nor too cold. If you drink a glass of water which is too cold, it can cause an imbalance to the body and slow
down the digestive process. Besides, drinking too hot water can bring about some serious side effects such as
extensive damage to the tissue and other organs.
Why should you drink this water? Water helps your body in many ways. It helps clean out your kidneys. It
prepares your stomach for digestion. Water can also help your intestines work better. After drinking water, the
intestines can more easily take out nutrients from our food. Water also helps US go to the bathroom more easily.
Scientists suggest that people take in 1,600 milliliters of water each day. But don't drink all of that water in
one sitting. If you do, your kidneys will have to work much harder to eliminate it. It's better to drink some in the
morning and some in the afternoon. Some people think it's better to drink between meals and not during meals.
They think water dilutes the juices produced in our stomachs. This can interfere with normal digestion. Are you
drinking enough water every day? Check the color of your urine. If it is light yellow, you are probably drinking
enough. If your urine is very dark yellow, you probably need to drink more water. A little more water each day
could make you much healthier.
(Adapted from Reading Challenge 1 by Casey Malareher and Andrea Janzen)
Question 39: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. How to drink water correctly? B. The importance of water
C. The advice of the doctors D. The best amount of water to drink
Question 40: The word "which" in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. water B. a glass of water
C. water temperature D. body temperature
Question 41: According to the passage, water is good for the following organs of the body, EXCEPT
__________.
A. kidneys B. stomach C. livers D. intestines
Question 42: The word "eliminate" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. process B. preserve C. remove D. absorb
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. You need to drink more water if your urine is light yellow.
B. Drinking water while having meals may interfere with normal digestion.
C. You shouldn't drink too much water at the same time.
D. The first thing you should do every morning is to drink water.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39- 43
Companies big and small are plotting their post-pandemic working futures, and it seems likely that ever
fewer of us will funny return to the office as it was before. If the Covid-19 crisis subsides and economies can
largely reopen, the experiences of so many people working from home over the past year will surely shape what
happens next. For many of us, this could emerge as a return to the office for three days a week. Patterns will
obviously vary, but a common thread would be something like Monday, Tuesday and Thursday in the office and
Wednesday and Friday at home.
This coining shift will largely be driven by employers making a calculation between two different, equally
important forces. One is what companies see as the need for in-person creativity and connections, which will spur
their desire to bring people back into offices. For many, we are at our most creative working face to face, meeting
people, talking over lunch and coffee, or gathering in groups. At home, however, we tend to be more efficient in
the daily tasks that make up much of working life. This is the competing force that may keep many of us out of the
office, even after Covid. Working at home under the right conditions - which means in your own room with good
broadband and no children around - can be highly efficient. This greater efficiency on current tasks also combines
with other factors, like the time saved by avoiding the daily commute, offering a compelling reason for people to
stay at home. The past year of Covid home working has perhaps opened many more people's eyes to this.
As companies come to decisions on new working arrangements, they will be essentially making a basic
trade-off: the expectation of greater creativity in new projects at the office, but greater productivity on existing
tasks at home. And, as with most trade-offs, the right answer is not all or nothing — but something in the middle.
Employees seem to prefer this working pattern too. In a recent survey of 5,000 employees in Britain, working in
the office for three days a week was the most popular choice. Not only is this pattern more efficient for companies,
then, but it also helps to keep employees happy and motivated.
(Adapted from https://www.theguardiancom)
Question 44: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Advantages of home working B. Home working: happier and more efficient
C. Post-pandemic working pattern D. While- pandemic working pattern
Question 45: The word "One" in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. Calculation B. Shift C. Employer D. Force
Question 46: The word "compelling" in paragraph 2 closest in meaning to _______.
A. effective B. various C. convenient D. sensible
Question 47: What can be inferred about future working arrangement from this passage?
A. Employees should consider the benefits of a new working pattern.
B. Many businesses are likely to opt for a new working pattern.
C. Businesses must apply a new working pattern for the sake of their employees.
D. Many employers’ awareness of a new working pattern need raising.
Question 48: According to the passage, all of the statements are true EXCEPT _______.
A. Working at home can save time spent on the daily commute
B. Companies still want to have staff at office to increase their productivity
C. Working at home is productive under proper conditions
D. The Covid-19 pandemic will not affect future working arrangement
Question 49: The word "spur" in paragraph 2 closest in meaning to _______.
A. force B. encourage C. limit D. discourage
Question 50: According to paragraph 2, which of the following would best facilitate working from home?
A. Well-equipped working place
B. Daily commuting between home and office
C. Good internet connection and no kids surrounding
D. Face to face interaction with co-workers
20/06/2023 BỘ ĐỀ THÁNG 6 – MÃ 615

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. think B. there C. thing D. thank
Question 2. A. hit B. sit C. bit D. like

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. approve B. nature C. access D. manage
Question 4. A. minimum B. legacy C. conference D. magnetic

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. The bride and the groom entered the wedding hall _______ by four nice children.
A. were preceding B. preceding C. were preceded D. preceded
Question 6. The Korean are ____ than the American in addressing their bosses.
A. more formal B. formal C. most formal D. the most formal
Question 7. I'll feel more relaxed ________ .
A. after I finish my project B. after I had finished my project
C. after I finished my project D. after I'll finish my project
Question 8. He is responsible ________ recruiting and training new staff
A. to B. for C. about D. of
Question 9. This is your essay on smart cities by 2050, ____?
A. is this B. isn't this C. is it D. isn't it
Question 10. I think everyone wants to make friends with John. He is _______ honest person.
A. a B. an C. the D. 0
Question 11. I wish you would ____ the TV and go outside and get some exercise.
A. call off B. give off C. put off D. turn off
Question 12. I expected them _______ me a job.
A. offer B. offering C. to be offered D. to offer
Question 13. This latest evidence could be the final nail in the ________ for Jackson's case.
A. cave B. casket C. coffin D. cage
Question 14. I ________ to the radio when Helen phoned.
A. was listening B. listened C. will listen D. listen
Question 15. It is not always easy to ____ the difference between fact and opinion.
A. make B. say C. do D. tell
Question 16. Drake ________ for drunk driving again.
A. was arrested B. has arrested C. arrested D. arrest
Question 17. Children usually likes wearing _______ clothes.
A. colour B. colourfully C. colourful D. colourise
Question 18. Culture helps people ____ to the world around them.
A. adapt B. change C. alter D. fit
Question 19. We can surf the ____ to search for news, watch films, or download music.
A. e-book B. internet C. laptop D. smartphone

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20. Linda is at Mike’s house.
Mike:“Would you like a coke?”
Linda: "_______, but just a small one"
A. Yes, you’re right B. Help yourself C. Yes, please D. No, thanks
Question 21. Minh and Lucy are talking about learning foreign languages.
Lucy: “Females are better at learning foreign languages than males.”
Minh: “_______. Males learn foreign languages as well as females.”
A. I am not sure I agree. B. I couldn’t agree more.
C. You’re right. D. It’s true.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Cocktails are often garnished with paper cocktail umbrellas, live flowers, or plastic animals.
A. blemished B. beautified C. decorated D. embellished
Question 23. Though I persuaded my boss to solve a very serious problem in the new management system, he
just made light of it.
A. discovered by chance B. treated as important
C. completely ignored D. disagreed with
Mark the letter A, B, C. or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. During a successful business career, she accumulated a great amount of wealth.
A. gradually increased in number B. rapidly decreased in number
C. rapidly increased in number D. gradually decreased in number
Question 25. The pilot scheme for these new-style statements is now in its second year and has
resounding success.
A. excellent B. enormous C. effective D. exciting
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 26. It is compulsory for the students in this school to wear uniform.
A. The students in this school must wear uniform.
B. The students in this school can’t wear uniform.
C. The students in this school may wear uniform.
D. The students in this school needn’t wear uniform.
Question 27. I last met Mary two months ago.
A. I haven’t met Mary for two months B. I have met Mary for two months
C. I had met Mary since two months D. I haven’t meet Mary for two months
Question 28. "What are you doing now?" he asked.
A. He asked me what am I doing then. B. He asked me what I am doing then.
C. He asked me what was I doing then. D. He asked me what I was doing then.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 29. Having suffered water shortage in the past, we are all very economic on using water.
A. Having suffered B. in the past C. economic D. on using
Question 30. Last month, I go back to my hometown to visit my grandparents.
A. month B. go C. hometown D. grandparents
Question 31. The boy has a lot of assignments to do, but he is too lazy to do it.
A. has B. assignments C. but D. it

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32. He tried his best. He won the biggest prize.
A. If he had tried his best, he could have won the biggest prize.
B. Unless he tried his best, he couldn’t win the biggest prize.
C. Although he tried his best, he still won the biggest prize.
D. If he hadn’t tried his best, he couldn’t have won the biggest prize.
Question 33. I had got myself comfortable and closed my eyes. I heard the sound of the alarm.
A. Scarcely had I got myself comfortable and closed my eyes, I heard the sound of the alarm.
B. I hardly heard the sound of the alarm when I got myself comfortable and closed my eyes.
C. Hardly had I got myself comfortable and closed my eyes when I heard the sound of the alarm.
D. Only when I had got myself comfortable and closed my eyes did I hear the sound of the alarm.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 - 38.
Dressing up in costumes and trick-or-treating are popular Halloween activities, but few probably (34) ______
these lighthearted fall traditions with their origins in Samhain, a three-day ancient Celtic pagan festival.
For the Celts, who lived during the Iron Age in what is now Ireland, Scotland, the U.K. and (35) ______
parts of Northern Europe, Samhain (meaning literally, in modern Irish, “summer's end”) marked the end of summer
and kicked off the Celtic new year. Ushering in a new year signaled a time of both death and rebirth, something
that was doubly symbolic because it (36) ______ with the end of a bountiful harvest season and the beginning of
a cold and dark winter season that would present plenty of challenges.
Eventually, Halloween became more popular in secular culture than All Saints' Day. The pagan-turned-
Christian practices of dressing up in costumes, playing pranks and handing out offerings have evolved into popular
traditions even for those (37) ______ may not believe in otherworldly spirits or saints. (38) ______, whether
Halloween celebrants know it or not, they’re following the legacy of the ancient Celts who, with the festival of
Samhain, celebrated the inevitability of death and rebirth.
Question 34. A. separate B. estimate C. associate D. celebrate
Question 35. A. each B. every C. another D. other
Question 36. A. coincided B. originated C. compared D. occurred
Question 37. A. which B. whom C. who D. what
Question 38. A. Moreover B. However C. Instead D. Therefore

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 - 43.
Like many American pharmacists of the day, Pemberton was opposed to the drinking of alcohol and wanted
to produce a stimulating soft drink. First, he made "the French Wine of Coca," made from the coca leaf. Then he
began to experiment with the cola nut. Eventually, he managed to make a combination of the two that he thought
was sweet, but not too sweet. Deciding that "the two C's would look well in advertising," he named it Coca–Cola.
Pemberton's invention caught on fairly quickly. By 1905, "Coke" was being advertised all over the country
as "The Great Natural Temperance Drink." The drink enjoyed additional success since there was a large and
popular temperance movement in the US at that time. In the 1920s, alcohol was outlawed, and sales of Coke rose
significantly. However, they continued to rise even after the law was repeated.
Another reason for Coke's popularity was good business sense. A year after he invented it, Pemberton had
sold Coca–Cola to Asa Griggs Candler for only $283.26! Candler was a marketing genius, and by the time he sold
the Coca–Cola Company in1919, it was worth $25 million.
Question 39. Which of the following would be the best title for the reading?
A. The Invention and History of Coca–Cola
B. Cola is the World’s Most Popular Soft Drink
C. The Temperance Movement and Coke’s success
D. John Pemberton created Coca–Cola.
Question 40. In paragraph 3, the word “outlawed” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. made legal B. taken to court C. made illegal D. allowed
Question 41. All of the followings are true of Pemberton EXCEPT that _______.
A. he made “French wine of Coca” from the coca leaf
B. he combined the coca leaf and cola nut to make “French wine”
C. he produced stimulating alcohol from coca leaves and cola nuts
D. he made “French wine of Coca” from the cola nut
Question 42. In paragraph 3, the word “caught on” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. became popular B. became successful
C. became important D. became legal
Question 43. Which of the following is responsible for Coke’s additional success?
A. The temperance movement B. Its attracting name
C. Pemberton’s good business sense D. Coca–Cola’s great taste

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 - 50.
Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty Seconds. When this short amount of time elapses,
however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the information get there in the first place?
Information that makes its way to the short-term memory (STM) does so via the sensory storage area. The brain
has a filter that only allows stimuli that are of immediate interest to pass on to the STM, also known as the working
memory.
There is much debate about the capacity and duration of short-term memory. The most accepted theory comes
from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist who suggested that humans can remember approximately seven
chunks of information. A chunk is defined as a meaningful unit of information, such as a word or name rather than
just a letter or number. Modem theorists suggest that one can increase the capacity of the short-term memory and
improve the chances of a memory being passed on to long-term storage.
When making a conscious effort to memorize something, such as information for an exam, many people
engage in "rote rehearsal". By repeating something over and over again. one is able to keep a memory alive.
Unfortunately, this type of memory maintenance only succeeds if there are no interruptions. As soon as a person
stops rehearsing the information, it has the tendency to disappear. When a pen and paper are not handy. people
often attempt to remember a phone number by repeating it aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to come in
before a person has the opportunity to make a phone call, he will likely forget the number instantly. Therefore, rote
rehearsal is not an efficient way to pass information from short-term to long-term memory. A better way is to
practice "elaborate rehearsal". This involves assigning semantic meaning to a piece of information so that it can
be filed along with other pre- existing long-term memories.
Encoding information semantically also makes it more retrievable. Retrieving information can be done by
recognition or recall. Humans can easily recall memories that are stored in the long-term memory and used often;
however, if a memory seems to be forgotten, it may eventually be retrieved by prompting. The more cues a person
is given (such as pictures), the more likely a memory can be retrieved. This is why multiple-choice tests are often
used for subjects that require a lot of memorization.
Question 44. According to the passage, how do memories get transferred to the STM?
A. They revert from the long-term memory.
B. They enter via the nervous system.
C. They are filtered from the sensory storage area.
D. They get chunked when they enter the brain.
Question 45. All of the following are mentioned as places in which memories are stored EXCEPT the:
A. maintenance area B. long term memory
C. SIM D. sensory storage area
Question 46. Why does the author mention a dog's bark?
A. To provide a type of interruption
B. To give an example of a type of memory
C. To prove that dogs have better memories than humans
D. To compare another sound that is loud like a doorbell
Question 47. How do theorists believe a person can remember more information in a short time?
A. By rереаtіng іt B. By organizing it
C. By drawing it D. By giving it a name
Question 48. The word elaborate in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to:
A. efficient B. pretty C. regular D. complex
Question 49. The word it in the last paragraph refers to:
A. semantics B. encoding C. STM D. information
Question 50. Which of the following is NOT supported by the passage?
A. The working memory is the same as the short-term memory.
B. Multiple choice exams are the most difficult.
C. Cues help people to recognize information.
D. A memory is kept alive through constant repetition.
21/06/2023 BỘ ĐỀ THÁNG 6 – MÃ 616

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of stress in each of the following questions from 4 to 5.
Question 1: A. those B. thin C. thank D. thought
Question 2: A. natural B. damage C. endangered D. sacrifice
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. expect B. tonight C. become D. message
Question 4: A. achievement B. consuming C. media D. addicted
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: The people applauded _______ than before when Bobo the Clown came out.
A. most loudly B. louder C. loudest D. as loud
Question 6: Not many people are aware _______ male preference in this company.
A. with B. on C. about D. of
Question 7: The mass media are _______ of communication, such as books, newspapers, recordings, radio,
movies, television, mobile phones and the Internet.
A. models B. parts C. types D. means
Question 8: Not many building firms will _______ a profit this year due to Covid-19 pandemic.
A. do B. create C. construct D. make
Question 9: The books ____________ by William Shakespeare are interesting.
A. writes B. writing C. written D. wrote
Question 10: It is generally believed that “men build the house and women make it _______ home”.
A. the B. a C. ∅ (no article) D. an
Question 11: These bacteria have mutated into forms that are _______ to certain drugs.
A. resistivity B. resist C. resistant D. resistance
Question 12: We managed to _______ the competition by launching our product early.
A. outweigh B. outrage C. outwit D. outfight
Question 13: Using social networks helps you share feelings and work with friends, _______?
A. doesn’t it B. aren’t they C. isn’t it D. does it
Question 14: Garvin is ______ a new computer application to see whether it works.
A. looking after B. putting on C. trying out D. turning up
Question 15: Just hold your _______, Tom! Let's think out this for a moment because it is an important decision
to make.
A. cats B. dogs C. horses D. lions
Question 16: While Jim _______ for Sam outside the cinema, he realized that the street was too crowded.
A. had been waiting B. waited. C. had waited D. was waiting
Question 17: The telephone _______ by Alexander Graham Bell in 1876, which was a revolution in
communication.
A. was inventing B. had been invented C. was invented D. invented
Question 18: We wish _______ to college next year.
A. go B. to go C. going D. gone
Question 19: _______, they will launch it on a large scale.
A. By the time the company finished designing the product,
B. As soon as the company finished designing the product
C. When the company has finished designing the product
D. Until the company will finish designing the product
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges

Question 20: Tony is in a cafe.


- Tony: “Can I have a cup of coffee with ice?”
- Waiter: "_________.”
A. Sure. Wait a minute, please B. Don't mention it, please
C. It's too hard D. Sorry for saying that
Question 21: Peter and Dane are talking about environmental protection.
- Peter: “We should limit the use of plastic bags.”
- Dane: “ _____________. We can use paper bags instead.”
A. I completely agree B. It's not true C. I don't quite agree D. You're wrong
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: I really enjoy a cut and thrust with James; he always has a unique perspective, even if we
clash sometimes.
A. a lively debate B. an approval
C. a disagreement D. a boring discussion
Question 23: Many countries now have laws to conserve wild species which are being threatened.
A. access B. block C. protect D. hunt

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Although the cooling process may just be part of the natural variation of oceans, climatologists are
still confounded by the massive accountable loss of heat.
A. accepted B. confused C. affected D. recognized
Question 25: Teenagers can become addicted to social networking if they can't control they spend online.
A. indifferent to B. negligent in C. independent from D. much interested in

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 26: “How long have you lived here, Lucy?” asked Jack.
A. Jack asked Lucy how long did she live here.
B. Jack asked Lucy how long she had lived there.
C. Jack asked Lucy how long she lived here.
D. Jack asked Lucy how long had she lived there.
Question 27: It is over twenty years since I last got in touch with them.
A. I used to get in touch with them for over 20 years.
B. I haven’t gotten in touch with them for over 20 years.
C. I can’t help keeping getting in touch with them for over 20 years.
D. I have been getting in touch with them for over 20 years.
Question 28: It is compulsory for all the students to finish their class work before going home.
A. All the students needn’t finish their class work before going home.
B. All the students must finish their class work before going home.
C. All the students may finish their class work before going home.
D. All the students can’t finish their class work before going home.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 29: What I told her a few days ago is not the solution to most of her problems.
A. What I told her B. is C. to D. most of
Question 30: The project is nearly completed and needs little work to finish them.
A. nearly B. complete C. little D. them
Question 31: In Japan, retirement has become a risky business for many wives, who are finding the stress
of their husband’s presence at home endurable.
A. risky B. stress C. presence D. endurable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 32: Motorists are not careful. There are many accidents.
A. If motorists were careful, there would be fewer accidents.
B. Motorists are careful, but there are many accidents.
C. Motorists are so careful that there are many accidents.
D. Because motorists are careful, there are few accidents.
Question 33: She finished the meal. Her children came home after school soon after that.
A. Had it not been for her children’s coming home after school, she couldn’t have finished the meal.
B. Only after her children had come home after school did she finish the meal.
C. Not only did her children come home after school but she also finished the meal.
D. No sooner had she finished the meal than her children came home after school.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 -38
When an animal disappears totally from the surface of the Earth, we say that it has become extinct.
Dinosaurs used to roam this planet till the last one died millions of years ago. The dodo bird, (34) ______ used to
live in Mauritius, died out in 1681 when pigs destroyed their eggs and their young.
Today, (35) ______ animals are faced with extinction. The Californian condor, a majestic bird, and the
Siberian tiger are two such animals. Certain kinds of woodpeckers and alligators are also on the endangered list.
Some of these animals are decreasing in number because people have been (36) ______ them down for their fur
and skin. Others were killed in large numbers in the past because they posed a danger to human life.
With the global trend veering towards industrialization and urbanization, forests are being destroyed at an
alarming rate. (37) ______, many wild animals that used to live in these forests are forced to move to less fertile
areas. Sometimes they (38) ______ die out in their old homes when the forests gradually thin out. Hopefully, this
situation can be reversed before more and more animals become extinct.
(Source: http://www.englishdaily626.com)

Question 34: A. which B. who C. whom D. that


Question 35: A. every B. much C. each D. many
Question 36: A. killing B. hunting C. catching D. capturing
Question 37: A. As a result B. Otherwise C. However D. Or else
Question 38: A. basically B. easily C. simply D. plainly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Have you ever felt a sudden feeling of joy because you heard a favorite song playing? Then you know that
music can have a strong effect on your emotions. Try to take advantage of this power of music. It can help get you
out of a bad mood or stay in a good mood, says Alicia Ann Clair, professor of music therapy at the University of
Kansas. Music can also help you relax and feel rejuvenated.
To cheer up or boost your energy, listen to Latin music or anything with a strong beat, lots of percussion, and
a fast tempo. When you want to relax after a busy day, music with string instruments and woodwinds, less
percussion, and a slower tempo can calm you.
Listen to calming music before you start any stressful activities, advises Dr. Clair. “Once you’re in a good
state of mind, it’s easier to maintain it.” You can lower stress at work with music, too, by playing relaxing tunes.
But only play them when you really need them. You can change your mood by switching from one kind of music
to another. For example, first play some nice gentle ballads, and then listen to something more energetic. When
you want to calm down after a busy week at work, just do the opposite.
(Adapted from Strategic Reading by Richards and Eckstut-Didier)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The importance of listening to music B. New ways to listen to music
C. Benefits of listening to music D. The connection between music and moods
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as a benefit of listening to music?
A. It can help you relax. B. It can make you feel more energetic.
C. It can cheer you up. D. It can help you concentrate on your study.
Question 41: The word “calm” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to make somebody more ______.
A. relaxed B. busy C. worried D. intelligent
Question 42: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. activities B. ballads C. relaxing tunes D. instruments
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Music with a strong beat can make you happier.
B. It’s a good idea to listen to gentle music before you do some stressful work.
C. You should play relaxing tunes at all times to make you less tired.
D. You can change your feelings by switching music.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
The world's population reached five billion on the day I was born. That was in Indonesia back in 1987, and
my parents were amazed that there were so many people on the planet. However, since then the population has
continued to increase.
The growth of our human population is extraordinary. For more than two million years, humans lived with
no permanent home, finding plants to eat and hunting animals for meat. Then, just 10,000 years ago, we invented
agriculture. At that time, there were only about five million humans, but this figure quickly doubled. The population
reached a billion in 1805, and since then it has multiplied seven times.
The human population has never been bigger, but in some ways the planet seems to be getting smaller. In the
past, travellers from Europe to Indonesia spent months at sea. Now you just have to sit on a plane for a few hours.
When you arrived in another country a hundred years ago, you saw unfamiliar styles of clothing and architecture
and discovered a completely different culture. In many places today, clothing and new buildings are very similar,
and people enjoy the same sports, music, films and TV shows. We also buy the same products from huge, global
companies. In our different continents, we are starting to live the same lives. Even the languages that we use are
becoming more global. There are around seven thousand languages in use today, but the number is decreasing fast.
The same thing is happening around the world. Experts think that the number of different languages will halve
to just 3,500 by the end of this century. Where will it stop? Will there be a time in the future when Earth's billions
all speak just one language, and there are no cultural differences to divide us? Perhaps the planet would be more
peaceful if this happened, but I must admit that the idea is quite depressing. I prefer to think that, as our population
grows, we can celebrate not the similarity but the fascinating diversity of the human race.
(Adapted from Insight by Roberts and Sayer)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Languages: Why Saving Endangered Tongues Matters?
B. More People, Fewer Problems?
C. Going Global
D. Impressive Progress Across the Globe
Question 45: According to paragraph 1, the world’s population _______.
A. is set to stop at a certain time B. follows an upward trend
C. reached more than 5 billion in 1987 D. decreased quite a long time ago
Question 46: The word “extraordinary” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. unusual B. disappointing C. expected D. positive
Question 47: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. agriculture B. meat C. home D. population
Question 48: The word “discovered” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. quit B. found C. sought D. brought
Question 49: Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. In the past, humans only consumed plant-based products.
B. The global population rose considerably after the appearance of agriculture.
C. Taking a flight to travel from Europe to Indonesia is quite common nowadays.
D. Global products can only be bought at big companies.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The writer is in favour of a world with cultural differences.
B. People living in this world will ultimately speak the same language.
C. There certainly won’t be any cultural conflicts if a global language is in use.
D. Earth citizens should embrace the idea of cultural assimilation.
22/06/2023 BỘ ĐỀ THÁNG 6 – MÃ 617

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. thank B. thumb C. thought D. then
Question 2: A. night B. children C. shift D. quit
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. cancer B. treatment C. tissue D. disease
Question 4: A. graduate B. understand C. interview D. delicate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Most of the suggestions___________ at the meeting was not very practical.
A. made B. making C. were made D. which made
Question 6: I will give you the book about artificial intelligence ________.
A. after I have finished it B. when I was finishing it
C. as soon as I had finished it D. until I finished it
Question 7: Baking a cake isn't difficult - it's just a matter of following the ______.
A. ingredient B. recipe C. powder D. roller
Question 8: Kate plays _____ violin in an orchestra.
A. the B. an C. a D. no article
Question 9: Sales of organic food aren’t growing rapidly, ______?
A. are they B. weren’t they C. do they D. didn’t they
Question 10: During a ______ business career, she accumulated a great amount of wealth.
A. succeed B. success C. successfully D. successful
Question 11: The flood victims ________ with food and clean water by the volunteers.
A. provided B. were provided C. were providing D. provide
Question 12: I ______ several old friends when I went back to my hometown.
A. ran across B. ran up C. put across D. put up
Question 13: She always takes good care_______ her children.
A. in B. on C. to D. of
Question 14: The course was so difficult that I didn’t any progress at all.
A. do B. made C. produce D. create
Question 15: Detective books are __________ than science fiction ones.
A. more interesting B. most interesting C. interestingly D. interesting
Question 16: His ______ lies in his ability to communicate quite complex ideas very simply.
A. health B. skill C. mind D. pain
Question 17: My parents decided _____________ a taxi because it was late.
A. take B. to take C. taking D. took
Question 18: After six months of ______ and changing, we've decided to go back to our old system.
A. chopping B. moving C. fixing D. cutting
Question 19: While she was taking her exams, she _______ a terrible headache.
A. will have B. has C. had D. is having
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un-
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A number of potential buyers have expressed interest in the company.
A. temporary B. possible C. spiritual D. frequent
Question 21: Volunteers must provide their own transportation.
A. vehicle B. article C. channel D. sentence
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: We need to ensure that handwriting is properly taught in our primary schools.
A. actually B. exactly C. easily D. incorrectly
Question 23: The next time somebody tries to push your buttons, remember what Mom said and resist reacting.
A. encourage you B. hate you C. stop you D. urge you
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 24: John and Anna are in a conference.
- John: “Shall we have a drink when you finish your talk?”
- Anna: “___________.”
A. No, you can’t B. All right C. You’re welcome D. You needn’t do that
Question 25: Mrs Brown and Mr Smith are talking about teaching soft skills at school.
- Mrs Brown: “Some soft skills should be taught to children.”
- Mr Smith: “______. They are necessary for them.”
A. I don’t either B. I agree with you C. You’re quite wrong D. You’re welcome
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The International Day for the Elimination of Racial Discrimination is observed annually on the day the police
in Sharpeville, South Africa, opened fire and killed 69 people at a peaceful demonstration against apartheid "pass
laws" in 1960.
In 1979, the General Assembly (26) ________ a programme of activities to be undertaken during the second
half of the Decade for Action to Combat Racism and Racial Discrimination. On that occasion, the General
Assembly decided that a week of solidarity with the peoples struggling against racism (27) ________ racial
discrimination, beginning on 21 March, would be organized annually in all States.
Since then, the apartheid system in South Africa has been dismantled. Racist laws and practices have been
abolished in (28) ________ countries, and we have built an international (29) ________ for fighting racism, guided
by the International Convention on the Elimination of Racial Discrimination. The Convention is now nearing
universal ratification, yet still, in all regions, too many individuals, communities and societies suffer from the
injustice and stigma (30) ________ racism brings.
Question 26: A. accused B. admired C. admitted D. adopted
Question 27: A. and B. although C. so D. but
Question 28: A. every B. many C. another D. much
Question 29: A. distance B. product C. entrance D. framework
Question 30: A. where B. when C. that D. who
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
We have documented the history of individual metals before and we have also visualized their annual
production. However, we have not seen all of the metals on one timeline before such as in an infographic.
Worth noting is gold’s prominence ever since the beginning of history. Because the yellow metal is one of
the rare elements that can be found in native form, it was used by the earliest of our ancestors.
Comparatively, it is only recently that the technology has advanced to allow us to discover or extract the rest
of the metals on today’s periodic table. For example, even though we knew of titanium as early as 1791, it was
relatively useless all the way up until the 1940’s because of its metallurgy. In the 20th century, scientists advanced
a way to remove the impurities, making it possible to get the strong and hard titanium we know today.
Another standout fact is that it took all the way until the early 19th century for two very important elements
to be discovered. Both are not found free in nature very often and thus slipped detection for many centuries. Silicon,
which actually makes up 26% of the earth’s crust, was discovered in 1823. Then in 1827, aluminium was
discovered – we now know today that it is the most common metal in the earth’s crust. It’s actually 1200X more
abundant than copper.
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Today’s Periodic Table B. Rare Metal Elements
C. The History of Metals D. When Silicon was discovered
Question 32: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. prominence B. history C. yellow metal D. rare elements
Question 33: According to paragraph 3, titanium was relatively useless until the 1940’s because ______.
A. Men did not discover it until 1940
B. Metallurgy technology was too poor to make it strong and hard
C. There were no the impurities in titanium at the time
D. Titanium at the time was different from the one we know today
Question 34: The word “standout” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. remarkable B. specific C. efficient D. additional
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as an information of aluminium?
A. Aluminium was discovered in 1827.
B. Aluminium is the most common metal on earth.
C. The discovery of aluminium was not important.
D. Aluminium’s 1200 times more abundant than copper.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The practice of gathering and storing large amounts of information, and then attempting to make sense of
that information has been around for centuries. For example, the U.S. Census Bureau started recording population
data on punch cards in 1790. Fast forward 100 years, and the invention of the “Tabulating Machine” processed
information on these punch cards hundreds of times faster than humans could.
With the “information explosion” of the 1940s, society desperately needed a better way to both store and
access large amounts of data. In 1970, IBM Research Labs published the first paper on relational databases –
allowing for more efficient ways to locate data in large databases. Think of something similar to an Excel
spreadsheet.
The commercialization of the internet in 1995 paved the way for Web 2.0. In its infancy, the internet was
information-only, and featured static websites that provided dull user experiences. When Web 2.0 launched in
2004, end-users were now able to generate, distribute, and store their own content in a virtual community.
Internet users flooded social media networks like Facebook and Twitter in the mid-2000s, which led to the
distribution of even more data. Around this time, YouTube and Netflix forever changed the ways we would view
and stream video content. Data used from these platforms provided near-real-time insight into consumer behaviour
as well.
With the 2011 launch of Hadoop, a powerful open-source framework for storing data and running
applications, experts agreed that big data was the next frontier for innovation and competition.
The internet of things (IoT) revolutionized big data in 2014. With an internet-connected world, more
businesses decided to shift spending towards big data to reduce operational costs, boost efficiency, and develop
new products and services.
Now, the scope of big data is nearly endless. Researchers in “smart cities” are using real-time data to look at
electricity consumption, pollution, traffic, and much more. Emerging technologies like artificial intelligence and
machine learning are harnessing big data for future automation and helping humans unveil new solutions.
All of these milestones were made possible when the world decided to go digital.
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Population Data B. Content in A Virtual Community
C. Internet-connected World D. History of Big Data
Question 37: The word “that” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. internet B. websites C. information D. experiences
Question 38: In paragraph 1, the “Tabulating Machine” was invented to ______.
A. gather and store large amounts of information B. make sense of information collected
C. record population data D. process information faster
Question 39: The word “distribution” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. attention B. application C. allocation D. definition
Question 40: The word “operational” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. functioning B. encouraging C. inspiring D. shivering
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The first paper on relational databases was published by IBM Research Labs in 1940.
B. YouTube and Netflix forever changed the ways we watch video content.
C. More businesses invested in big data to reduce operational costs.
D. New solutions will be unveiled thanks to artificial intelligence.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 7?
A. Big data is going to end in the near future.
B. Application of artificial intelligence and machine learning is very large and useful.
C. Electricity consumption, pollution, traffic can all be controlled by AI.
D. Emerging technologies will soon eliminate current machinery.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 43: Linda was going to the supermarket to buy some sugar at the moment.
A. Linda B. was going C. the D. some
Question 44: Having watched this movie for several times, he doesn’t want to watch them once again.
A. Having watched B. several times C. them D. again
Question 45: Modern office buildings have false floors, under which computer and phone wires can be lain.
A. office buildings B. false floors C. which D. can be lain
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 46: My father hasn’t played chess for three years.
A. My father last played chess three years ago. B. My father didn’t play chess three years ago.
C. My father has played chess for three years. D. My father played chess for three years.
Question 47: Cindy said that “I haven’t seen John since last month.”
A. Cindy said she hasn’t seen John since last month
B. Cindy said she hadn’t seen John since the previous month
C. Cindy said I hadn’t seen John since the previous month
D. The man predicted to be there at the time.
Question 48: It isn’t necessary for you to finish this work today.
A. You needn’t finish this work today. B. You mustn’t finish this work today.
C. You should finish this work today. D. You can finish this work today.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: The weather is bad today. They cannot go swimming.
A. If only the weather is not bad today and they cannot go swimming.
B. If the weather were good today, they could go swimming.
C. They wish the weather were bad today and they could go swimming.
D. The weather is bad today so they can go swimming.
Question 50: He was appointed to the post. He then called to inform his wife.
A. Had it not been for his call to inform his wife, he wouldn’t have been appointed to the post.
B. Not only did he call to inform his wife but he was also appointed to the post.
C. Only after he had called to inform his wife was he appointed to the post.
D. Hardly had he been appointed to the post when he called to inform his wife.
23/06/2023 BỘ ĐỀ THÁNG 6 – MÃ 618

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. win B. high C. bike D. price
Question 2: A. charity B. chicken C. chance D. chemical
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. actress B. village C. morning D. machine
Question 4: A. volunteer B. introduce C. vaccinate D. correspond
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Your mom is cooking beef with cabbage, ______?
A. was he B. doesn’t he C. did he D. isn’t she
Question 6: The children are really excited _____ their summer vacation.
A. with B. between C. about D. among
Question 7: Could you speak Vietnamese _____ than, so I can understand what you mean?
A. more clearly B. the clearest C. clearly D. the most clearly
Question 8: How old is this tower? It _____ to be over 600 years ago.
A. is believing B. believes C. is believed D. believed
Question 9: Be careful! It is dangerous _____ out of the window.
A. to clean B. to cleaning C. clean D. cleaning
Question 10: The boy ______ a lot before his mother came back from work.
A. is crying B. has cried C. was crying D. had cried
Question 11: He tried to park his car but______ space wasn't big enough.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 12: __________, I will drop by grandmother’s house tomorrow.
A. When I finish the important project B. Once I finished the important project
C. Until I finished the important project D. After I had finished the important project
Question 13: I picked up some holiday brochures_________ around the table at the travel agency.
A. leave B. leaving C. to leaving D. left
Question 14: It's important to ______ your skin from the harmful effects of the sun.
A. protection B. protect C. protective D. protectively
Question 15: We're waiting until they ______ a new version of the system.
A. let out B. let up C. bring out D. bring up
Question 16: We must ______ to a decision about what to do next.
A. force B. come C. list D. hand
Question 17: He's often been accused of cynicism in his ______ towards politics.
A. nature B. health C. possibility D. attitude
Question 18: When you finish doing the crossword, the ______ is on the back page.
A. solution B. creation C. completion D. end
Question 19: So how does a government revive an economy that is ______ in the water?
A. deaf B. moist C. dead D. wet
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Two students are chatting in the corridor after class.
- Tim: “I think we should make a slide show for our history presentation next week.”
- Laura: “_________”
A. Sorry, I have to check my diary. B. That’s exactly what I was going to say.
C. I’d love to but I just can’t now. D. That’s true. I understand how you feel.
Question 21: Janet and Susan is talking after school.
- Janet: "Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?"
- Susan: "_________"
A. I don't agree, I'am afraid B. You're welcome
C. That would be great D. I feel very bored
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: She is expected to announce officially her candidacy for president early next week.
A. fairly B. unreliably C. deeply D. eagerly
Question 23: I should keep a stiff upper lip and take the high road and all that, so I will.
A. be talkative B. be calm C. be quiet D. be nervous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un-
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: You’ll need to be a little more imaginative if you want to hold their attention.
A. emotional B. historical C. inventive D. available
Question 25: People gathered at points along the route to wave and cheer.
A. road B. lock C. club D. edge
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Another area of AI research is evolutionary computation, which borrows from Darwin's theory of natural
selection, (26) ________ sees genetic algorithms undergo random mutations and combinations between
generations in an (27) ________ to evolve the optimal solution to a given problem.
This approach has even been used to help design AI models, effectively using AI to help build AI. This use
of evolutionary algorithms to (28) ________ neural networks is called neuroevolution, and could have an important
role to play in helping design efficient AI as the use of intelligent systems becomes (29) ________ prevalent,
particularly as demand for data scientists often outstrips supply. The technique was showcased by Uber AI Labs,
which released papers on using genetic algorithms to train deep neural networks for reinforcement learning
problems.
Finally, there are expert systems, (30) ________ computers are programmed with rules that allow them to
take a series of decisions based on a large number of inputs, allowing that machine to mimic the behaviour of a
human expert in a specific domain. An example of these knowledge-based systems might be, for example, an
autopilot system flying a plane.
Question 26: A. and B. but C. or D. because
Question 27: A. aspect B. addition C. instance D. attempt
Question 28: A. compare B. contain C. optimize D. supply
Question 29: A. many B. more C. few D. another
Question 30: A. when B. who C. where D. that
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Electricity makes marvellous things happen and its capacity to produce bright, radiant light makes an
especially striking impression when it arrives. Electricity’s introduction thus tends to be associated with progress
and modernity.
This was the case in 1879 when Thomas Edison displayed an incandescent lamp for the first time in Menlo
Park in New Jersey and seven years later when the sultan’s palaces in Zanzibar Town were lit.
Energy has traditionally been studied by researchers within the fields of natural sciences and economy.
Anthropologists who have engaged with energy and society have mainly concerned themselves with fossil fuels
and the role of these in global politics—specifically, around issues of climate change, energy security, and oil
depletion. The societal impact of introducing electricity and the enormous transformation going on in the South
in recent years have received little attention.
Tanja Winther and Harold Wilhite at the Centre for Development and Environment have recently published
an article where they used their fieldwork from Kenya and Tanzania to show how electricity’s arrival in new places
affects community and household practices, social relations, local economy and power relations.
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Capacity to Produce Light B. Traditional Study about Energy
C. Life Changes with Electricity D. Electricity’s Arrival in New Places
Question 32: According to paragraph 3, the societal impact of electricity received little attention because ______.
A. no researchers studied this type of energy
B. it’s not a field of natural sciences and economy
C. issues of climate change were too serious at the time
D. people paid attention to fossil fuels and their role
Question 33: The word “enormous” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. immense B. unique C. distinct D. entire
Question 34: The word “where” in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. Centre for Development and Environment B. article
C. fieldwork D. Kenya and Tanzania
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as an important event of
electricity?
A. The first display of an incandescent lamp was in 1879.
B. The sultan’s palaces in Zanzibar Town were lit in 1886.
C. Much attention has always been paid to the societal impact of electricity.
D. Tanja Winther and Harold Wilhite used their fieldwork to illustrate effects of electricity.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The best cloud computing services offer the opportunity for businesses to undergo digital transformation in
order to improve efficiency and reduce costs.
Cloud services have revolutionized computing, not least through IaaS, PaaS, and especially SaaS, which
have allowed businesses to develop virtualized IT infrastructure and deliver software through the cloud,
independent of a user's operating system.
Even better still, businesses can also mix and match cloud services from different providers through cloud
brokers in order to ensure these services work to maximum efficiency and cost effectiveness, but also to reduce
the chances of vendor lock-in while also improving redundancy. This may require additional cloud management
software, but for larger businesses the economic benefits can be significant.
Because cloud services are run through software platforms and virtualized networks, it means that it's easy
to access and analyse data for the purposes of analytics as well as for business intelligence purposes. It also makes
it easier to simplify all aspects of monitoring through cloud orchestration and the easy processing of log files
through cloud logging services. The result is IT infrastructure that allows for better maintenance and patching,
while providing for insights that would have previously been much more difficult to access.
Cloud computing services also offer the advantage of being scalable, which means not only can you access
additional resources exactly as you need them, but you are also charged only for the services you use so there's no
need to buy in extra hardware for additional redundancy.
This especially applies to when storing data, as online cloud storage can be treated as effectively limitless.
Even though you might be using cloud databases for your structured data, you can also archive everything else into
massive data lakes for additional processing using AI and machine learning for greater insights. Altogether, cloud
services offer unparalleled potential for improving business performance and increasing profits, and here we'll look
at the best cloud computing service provider.
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Best cloud computing services B. Virtualized IT Infrastructure
C. Software Platforms and Virtualized Networks D. Cloud Computing Services
Question 37: The word “benefits” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. messages B. advantages C. products D. percentages
Question 38: In paragraph 2, cloud services from different providers can be mixed and matched in order to ______.
A. ensure maximum efficiency and cost effectiveness
B. find suitable cloud brokers
C. make these potential services free
D. have additional cloud management software
Question 39: The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. files B. services C. result D. IT infrastructure
Question 40: The word “limitless” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. drowsy B. vicious C. infinite D. gorgeous
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Cloud services have allowed businesses to develop virtualized IT infrastructure.
B. With cloud services, it's easy to access and analyse data for the purposes of analytics.
C. Cloud computing services are powerful but not scalable.
D. You can archive everything else using AI and machine learning.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 6?
A. Online cloud storage cannot be treated as effectively limitless.
B. Cloud services improve business performance and increasing profits dramatically.
C. Cloud databases for your structured data haven’t been ready to use.
D. Machine learning for greater insights is technology of the far future.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 43: High prices are deterring much young people from buying houses.
A. prices B. much C. from D. houses
Question 44: He acknowledges that sometime art simply holds up a mirror to the society it is born from.
A. acknowledges B. sometime C. holds up D. born from
Question 45: I am watching an interesting football match at the same time yesterday.
A. am watching B. interesting C. match D. the
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 46: Charlie said, "I haven't seen Bill for a while".
A. He said that he hadn't seen Bill for a while. B. He said that I haven't seen Bill for a while.
C. He said that he hasn't seen Bill for a while. D. He said that I hadn't seen Bill for a while.
Question 47: It isn’t necessary for you to go out at this time at night.
A. You must go out at this time at night. B. You should go out at this time at night.
C. You needn’t go out at this time at night. D. You may not go out at this time at night.
Question 48: I haven’t seen my aunt and her husband for years.
A. I last saw my aunt and her husband years ago.
B. I didn’t see my aunt and her husband years ago.
C. I saw my aunt and her husband for years.
D. I have seen my aunt and her husband for years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Trang cannot speak Chinese. I really need her to understand how interesting it is.
A. If Trang can speak Chinese, she will understand how interesting it is.
B. I wish Trang could speak Chinese and could understand how interesting it is.
C. Once Trang can speak Chinese, she will understand how interesting it is.
D. Trang cannot speak Chinese in order to understand how interesting it is.
Question 50: I heard the full story. Then, I understood what it was about.
A. Only after I had understood what it was about did I hear the full story.
B. Having understood what it was about, I heard the full story.
C. Only when I heard the full story did I understand what it was about.
D. No sooner had I understood what it was about than I heard the full story.
24/06/2023 BỘ ĐỀ THÁNG 6 – MÃ 619

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. close-knit B. compulsory C. campus D. certificate
Question 2: A. secure B. shuttle C. future D. contribute
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. muscle B. organ C. disease D. poultry
Question 4: A. popular B. essential C. plentiful D. national
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: He is reading various kinds of books, _________?
A. doesn’t he B. did he C. isn’t he D. wasn’t he
Question 6: Nylon ________ by an American chemist, Julian Hill in the 1930s.
A. invented B. was invented C. invent D. was inventing
Question 7: My sister is very fond __________ eating chocolate candy.
A. of B. with C. about D. at
Question 8: Of all the candidates, Peter is probably _________.
A. more qualified B. qualified C. most qualified D. the most qualified
Question 9: We often go to school by ________ bicycle.
A. a B. an C. the D. ø (no article)
Question 10: They ________ a lot of preparation before the match started.
A. has made B. had made C. made D. were making
Question 11: My parents decided ________ a taxi because it was late.
A. take B. to take C. taking D. to taking
Question 12: Mary will have finished all her work _______.
A. as soon as her boss returned B. until her boss had returned
C. by the time her boss returns D. when her boss was returning
Question 13: You may choose one from the five World Heritage Sites in Viet Nam_______ in announcement by
the tour guide to visit on your next field trip.
A. mentioned B. to mention C. mentioning D. to mentioning
Question 14: To Vietnamese students, the requisite examination to university is very _______.
A. difficult B. difficulty C. difficulties D. difficultly
Question 15: The flight had to be _______ one hour late because of the bad weather.
A. put off B. turned on C. given up D. carried out
Question 16: Everyone wishes the war would ______ to an end soon.
A. come B. move C. reach D. go
Question 17: She spent three months in the ______ working on her latest album.
A. kitchen B. lab C. studio D. casino
Question 18: We had real ______ and games trying to bath the dog yesterday afternoon.
A. fish B. fun C. job D. hat
Question 19: The exhibition features a magnificent ______ of bronze statues.
A. pack B. herd C. crowd D. collection
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Linda and Mark are discussing hobbies.
- Linda: Watching television is a waste of time.
- Mark: “___________”
A. I enjoy watching cartoons. B. I don't think so either.
C. I think so, too. D. News is not my favorite program.
Question 21: Core is in a restaurant.
- Waiter: Would you like to order now?
- Core: _________. A salad and an orange juice, please.
A. No, thanks B. Yes, sure C. I will D. Help yourself
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The forest has been so heavily logged that it is in danger of disappearing.
A. seriously B. gracefully C. lightly D. noisily
Question 23: I lasted four years, finally throwing in the towel and heading back to the UK in 1997.
A. terminating B. succeeding C. activating D. deactivating
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un-
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The school is keen to involve the whole community in this project.
A. complete B. remote C. external D. relative
Question 25: Travellers might stop at the village but they rarely stay.
A. Professors B. Analysts C. Indicators D. Commuters
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 26: It isn’t necessary for you to worry about these trivial things.
A. You may worry about these trivial things.
B. You needn’t worry about these trivial things.
C. You shouldn’t worry about these trivial things.
D. You must worry about these trivial things.
Question 27: We haven’t gone to the concert for two years.
A. We last went to the concert two years ago.
B. We have gone to the concert for two years.
C. We went to the concert for two years.
D. We didn’t go to the concert two years ago.
Question 28: “You have not done your work well.” said the teacher to me.
A. The teacher told me I hadn’t done my work well.
B. The teacher told me I haven’t done my work well.
C. The teacher told me I hadn’t done your work well.
D. The teacher told me I hadn’t done his work well.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 29: Laurence had not seen one of his sisters since she left for Japan.
A. had not seen B. his sisters C. left D. Japan
Question 30: He spent hours talking about interesting things he did in its life.
A. hours B. about C. did D. its
Question 31: Dangerous species not only need species measures but also extra protection in order to survive.
A. dangerous B. not only C. protection D. survive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: His parents are away on holiday. He really needs their help now.
A. As long as his parents are at home, they will be able to help him.
B. He wishes his parents weren’t at home and could help him now.
C. If his parents are at home, they can help him now.
D. If his parents were at home, they could help him now.
Question 33: I put the mobile on the table. She then called me back.
A. Only after she had called me back did I put the mobile on the table.
B. Had it not been for her call, I wouldn’t have put the mobile on the table.
C. Not only did she call me back but I also put the mobile on the table.
D. Hardly had I put the mobile on the table when she called me back.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 -38.
Where Edison succeeded and surpassed his competition was in developing a practical and inexpensive light
bulb, according to the DOE. Edison and his team of researchers in Edison's laboratory in Menlo Park, N.J., tested
more than 3,000 (34) ________ for bulbs between 1878 and 1880. In November 1879, Edison filed a patent for
an electric lamp with a carbon filament. The patent listed (35) ________ materials that might be used for the
filament, including cotton, linen and wood. Edison spent the next year finding the perfect filament for his new
bulb, testing more than 6,000 plants to determine which material would burn the longest.
Several months after the 1879 patent was granted, Edison and his team (36) ________ that a carbonized
bamboo filament could burn for more than 1,200 hours. Bamboo was used for the filaments in Edison's bulbs (37)
________ it began to be replaced by longer-lasting materials in the 1880s and early 1900s.
In 1882, Lewis Howard Latimer, one of Edison's researchers, patented a more efficient way of manufacturing
carbon filaments. And in 1903, Willis R. Whitney invented a treatment for these filaments (38) ________ allowed them
to burn bright without darkening the insides of their glass bulbs.
Question 34: A. designs B. budgets C. targets D. functions
Question 35: A. no B. little C. several D. much
Question 36: A. concentrated B. discovered C. contributed D. hesitated
Question 37: A. because B. although C. so D. until
Question 38: A. why B. that C. when D. who
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
For millennia, the range of metals available for making things comprised a limited set of elements. Apart
from precious metals used for money and jewellery, the practical metals were exclusively forms or alloys of lead,
copper, or iron. This changed in the late 19th century, most spectacularly with the introduction of aluminium. This
was a metal that was not even suspected to exist until about 200 years ago, when chemists began to use new tools
to explore the composition of common minerals.
One of the minerals they investigated was alum, which people had relied on since ancient times as an
astringent and in making dyes more stable. This material appeared to have an unknown metallic origin, but the
metal was not separated out until the 1820s and not purified until the 1850s. Even then, it was very expensive and
difficult to make. The wonderful properties of aluminium—especially its remarkable light weight and its silvery
luster—attracted wide attention. Precious jewellery and exotic objects such as opera glasses were fabricated from
it. It was even seen fitting to make the small apex of the Washington Monument, completed in 1884, out of pure
aluminium.
The status of aluminium changed dramatically in the 1880s, when two young chemists, one in France and
the other in the United States, discovered how to make pure aluminium metal using strong electric currents. This
"electrolytic process" made the metal readily available, depending only on the availability of cheap electricity. The
coming of aviation in the early 1900s gave aluminium new strategic value, and expanded production to meet
wartime demand led to the metal becoming one of the most ubiquitous of the 20th century.
Question 39: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Is Aluminium a Metal? B. Aluminium and Opera Glasses
C. Wartime Demand for Metal D. Aluminium
Question 40: According to paragraph 1, people used to think aluminium didn’t exist because ______.
A. it wasn’t used for money and jewellery B. the composition of common minerals wasn’t explored
C. it wasn’t an alloy of lead, copper, or iron D. the introduction of aluminium was not accepted
Question 41: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. alum B. minerals C. ancient times D. astringent
Question 42: The word “ubiquitous” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. complex B. complete C. common D. competitive
Question 43: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as an application of aluminium
in human’s activities?
A. Opera glasses B. Small apex of the Washington Monument
C. Aviation D. Money and jewellery
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
The first modern air conditioner was invented in 1902 by Willis Haviland Carrier, a skilled engineer who
began experimenting with the laws of humidity control to solve an application problem at a printing plant in
Brooklyn, NY. Borrowing from the concepts of mechanical refrigeration established in earlier years, Carrier’s
system sent air through coils filled with cold water, cooling the air while at the same time removing moisture to
control room humidity. In 1933, the Carrier Air Conditioning Company of America developed an air conditioner
that used a belt-driven condensing unit and associated blower, mechanical controls, and evaporator coil, and this
device became the model in the growing U.S. marketplace for air-cooling systems.
Today’s air conditioners, while operating on the same fundamental science as Carrier’s 1933 system,
incorporate advancements in vapour compression, diagnostics and controls, electronic sensors, materials, and
energy efficiency. Carrier’s new top-of-the line central air conditioner, the Infinity, is far different than the
founder’s early models, featuring advanced components including a two-stage scroll compressor for quieter, more
energy-efficient performance.
Energy efficiency standards set by the U.S. Department of Energy are driving improvements in air-
conditioning systems. “Minimum efficiency standards for air conditioner systems have progressively increased,
particularly in the last five years, requiring manufacturers to optimize systems to reduce energy consumption,”
says Dennis Thoren, vice president of engineering and technology at Ingersoll Rand, Davidson, NC, which markets
the popular Trane line of air conditioners.
To comply with the regulations, air-conditioning manufacturers have successfully increased the Seasonal
Energy Efficiency Ratio (SEER) to 16 or 18, exceeding the DOE’s efficiency standards. Some high-end models
like the Lennox XC21 and Trane XL20i, in addition to the Infinity, are rated up to 21 SEER, further aiding the
environment while enabling energy cost savings for customers.
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The Father of the Air Conditioner B. Smart Technologies
C. Experimenting with The Laws of Humidity D. Air-conditioning Manufacturers
Question 45: The word “that” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. room humidity B. air conditioner C. condensing unit D. associated blower
Question 46: In paragraph 1, Willis Haviland Carrier did the experiment with the laws of humidity control to
______.
A. invent the modern air conditioner
B. solve problems at a printing plant
C. borrow the concepts of mechanical refrigeration
D. remove the cooling air from the room
Question 47: The word “efficiency” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. quality B. opportunity C. productivity D. reality
Question 48: The word “popular” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. unnatural B. colossal C. sentimental D. universal
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. In Carrier’s system, the air was cooled by sending air through coils filled with cold water.
B. Today’s air conditioners incorporate advancements to work more effectively.
C. The Infinity air conditioner is totally the same as the founder’s early models.
D. People have increased minimum efficiency standards for air conditioner systems.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4?
A. The regulations made air-conditioning manufacturers to limit their products.
B. The Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio was a difficulty for the manufacturers.
C. Some high-end models like the Lennox XC21 and Trane XL20i are too costly.
D. Air-conditioning manufacturers have made their products greener and more economical.
25/06/2023 BỘ ĐỀ THÁNG 6 – MÃ 620

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. honor B. exhibit C. hour D. habitat
Question 2: A. broth B. spot C. both D. knock
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. donate B. patient C. pressure D. planet
Question 4: A. argument B. reconcile C. romantic D. counsellor
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex is a well-known tourist attraction in Vietnam ________ by
UNESCO as a World Heritage Site.
A. is recognised B. to recognise C. recognising D. recognised
Question 6: My Japanese class is _______ than his English class.
A. funny B. funnier C. funniest D. the funniest
Question 7: We'll go and have a party outdoor ______.
A. before the weather was good B. as long as the weather is good
C. after the weather had been good D. when the weather was good
Question 8: As an adult, I am independent ________my parents financially.
A. by B. for C. of D. on
Question 9: You are watching a movie in this Cineplex, ______?
A. did you B. don’t you C. were you D. aren’t you
Question 10: On weekdays, I like playing ________ chess with my cousins after school.
A. a B. an C. the D. ø (no article)
Question 11: The local tourist bureau will send you _________ about hotels in the area.
A. news B. notice C. knowledge D. information
Question 12: My parents are busy workers and I often _________ my younger brother after school.
A. look after B. try out C. keep on D. work out
Question 13: This student expected_____________ the first winner of the award “The outstanding face of the
year”.
A. be B. being C. to be D. to being
Question 14: He is always full of _________. He can play football all day without tiredness.
A. beans B. apples C. blueberries D. peaches
Question 15: When Linda called last night, I ________my favourite show on TV.
A. watched B. have watched C. was watching D. am watching
Question 16: The government should ________ some measures to ensure that tourism develops in harmony with
the environment.
A. make B. keep C. take D. pay
Question 17: The first prize _____________ to the reporter by the board last week.
A. awards B. awarded C. was awarded D. has awarded
Question 18: Acting is very _______. You've got to really push yourself if you want to succeed.
A. compete B. competitive C. competition D. competitively
Question 19: The new factory will provide ______ for about a hundred local people.
A. employment B. management C. engagement D. development
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un-
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: It's a very complex issue to which there is no straightforward answer.
A. traditional B. interested C. additional D. complicated
Question 21: The student service centre will try their best to assist students in finding a suitable part-time job.
A. help B. allow C. make D. employ
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Many people oppose corporal punishment when educating young children though several of them
are badly behaved.
A. combat B. fight C. protest D. approve
Question 23: Judy has just won a full scholarship to one of the most prestigious universities in the country; she
must be on cloud nine now.
A. extremely panicked B. obviously delighted
C. incredibly optimistic D. desperately sad
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 24: Jenny and Jimmy are talking about university education.
- Jenny: “I think a university degree is the only way to succeed in life”.
- Jimmy: “__________. There are successful people without a degree.”
A. That’s life B. That’s all right C. I don’t quite agree D. I can’t agree more
Question 25: John and Anna are in a conference.
- John: “Shall we have a drink when you finish your talk?”
- Anna: “___________.”
A. No, you can’t B. All right C. You’re welcome D. You needn’t do that
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
WHO has been tracking mutations and variants since the start of the COVID-19 outbreak. Our global SARS-
CoV-2 laboratory network includes a dedicated Virus Evolution Working Group, which (26)______ to detect new
changes quickly and assess their possible impact.
Research groups have carried out genomic sequencing of the COVID-19 virus (27)_______ shared these
sequences on public databases, including GISAID. This global collaboration allows scientists to better track how
the virus is changing. WHO recommends that all countries increase the sequencing of the COVID-19 virus where
possible and share data to help one (28)_______ monitor and respond to the evolving pandemic.
WHO has also established a SARS-CoV-2 Risk Monitoring and Evaluation Framework to identify, monitor
and assess variants of concern. It will involve components like surveillance, research on variants of concern, and
(29)_______ of the impact on diagnostics, therapeutics and vaccines. The framework will serve as a guide for
manufacturers and countries on changes (30)_______ may be needed for COVID-19 vaccines.
Question 26: A. relies B. varies C. aims D. loses
Question 27: A. and B. as C. until D. but
Question 28: A. many B. another C. every D. other
Question 29: A. conversation B. transportation C. preparation D. evaluation
Question 30: A. that B. when C. whom D. where
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Non-verbal business communication is an essential part of how we communicate. One famous (and often
misunderstood) study from the 1960s estimated that the emotional content and interpretation of about 93 percent
of human communication is significantly influenced by body language, attitude, and tone, with only 7 percent of
the emotional content relying solely on the actual words that are used. While the study focused on the emotions,
not the literal meanings, behind what we communicate, this is still significant.
In the world of business too, as well as in our everyday lives, non-verbal communication expresses a range
of emotional content that we wish to convey. When we shake hands upon meeting someone, for instance, it usually
signifies that we are pleased to see or meet them and often reinforces verbal utterances like, “It’s great to see/meet
you.”
But the COVID-19 pandemic has made it more difficult to convey the emotions we can normally show
through our culturally diverse repertoire of body language. As a result, people have been coming up with creative
solutions like the “Wuhan shake” or the “air handshake.” Some voices in the media have even been asking if the
“new normal” might mark the end of the traditional handshake.
The truth is that the pandemic has not changed the use of body language and other non-verbal communication
in the world of business or in human interaction in general. It is simply escalating the changes that have already
been happening or were bound to happen at some point.
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Emotional Content and Interpretation
B. When We Shake Hands
C. How COVID-19 is changing the way we communicate
D. Solutions to Life with COVID-19 Pandemic
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, body language, attitude, and tone are crucial to communication because
_____.
A. they’re part of non-verbal business communication
B. they influenced about 93 percent of human communication
C. they’re faster than the actual words that are used
D. speaker doesn’t focus on the emotions
Question 33: The word “significant” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. noteworthy B. temporary C. appropriate D. independent
Question 34: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. business B. everyday lives
C. non-verbal communication D. emotional content
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a consequence of the COVID-
19 pandemic?
A. It’s more difficult to convey the emotions by body language.
B. People have created the “Wuhan shake” and the “air handshake.”
C. The use of body language and other non-verbal communication has been changed.
D. The traditional handshake might come to an end.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Among the various summer schools and seminars in existence, a special position is held by the International
Summer School in Oslo. For the past 20 years, students and teachers have gathered here from around the world.
With regard to the number of courses, the quality of the lecturers and the type of participants, this Summer School
undoubtedly holds a respected position.
In the space of six weeks in Norway, participants from almost all continents had the opportunity to live and
study together. They studied not only their particular subjects in the special courses, the general aspects of Norway,
its people and their way of life, but they also had a unique occasion for the exchange of experiences and thoughts
ranging over a wide area.
Today, when we are striving for the full affirmation of active peaceful coexistence—creating, developing
and accepting conditions for forming a real international community—every action in the field of international
understanding holds importance. Thus the gathering of nations in Oslo ideally presents the opportunity for the
creating of the new ideas needed for cooperation and understanding. The problem is to avoid accepting the existing
status quo in world relations. During the international evenings, chats after lectures, various discussions and, most
important, during personal talks each person had the opportunity to comprehend and finally accept some of his
friends’ ideas which at firsts appeared to be so strangely different.
The system of studies in different countries, problems of living standards, economic politics, political
freedom and, what is more important, ideological orientation was clarified for many of us after six weeks of living
together. The 42 days of lectures, conversations in the cafeteria, and excursions laid a strong foundation for the
development of new friendships. The need for cooperation and broader contact has become clearer to most of the
participants.
After the end of school, the small international society of Blindern composed of a mixture of people from
East and West, the North and South of the world will disappear. Each returns to his respective country, but the
rich and useful experiences prove how urgently international friendship is needed today, and that it must be striven
for and achieved.
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The Number of Courses, The Quality of The Lecturers
B. Affirmation of Active Peaceful Coexistence
C. Mutual Understanding - The International Summer School (ISS)
D. Strong Foundation for The Development of New Friendships
Question 37: The word “They” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. participants B. six weeks C. continents D. subjects
Question 38: In paragraph 2, participants from almost all continents had ______.
A. some time to live and study separately
B. a chance to exchange experiences and thoughts
C. knowledge about the general aspects of Norway only
D. unique occasion to visit a wild and wide area
Question 39: The word “gathering” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. recipe B. assembly C. passion D. concept
Question 40: The word “respective” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. magic B. chaotic C. melodic D. specific
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The Summer School undoubtedly holds a respected position.
B. The new ideas presented in Oslo are needed for cooperation and understanding.
C. The 40 days of lectures is the precious time for the development of new friendships.
D. The small international society includes people from almost all over the world.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5?
A. A school must have people from East and West, the North and South of the world.
B. Experiences students have got at school must be rich and useful.
C. Many more school like the International Summer School must be striven for and achieved.
D. People around the world should try to have international friendship that is urgently needed.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 43: I have gone to see Peter yesterday evening, but he was not at home.
A. have gone B. see C. but D. home
Question 44: Interacting in terms of their respectable roles, teacher and student know what to do and how to do it.
A. interacting B. terms C. respectable D. what
Question 45: We tend to speak more formal with his colleagues than with our friends.
A. tend to B. more formal C. his D. colleagues
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 46: He last had his eyes tested ten months ago.
A. He had tested his eyes ten months ago.
B. He had no tested his eyes for ten months then.
C. He hasn’t had his eyes tested for ten months.
D. He didn’t have any test on his eyes in ten months.
Question 47: He asked me, “Why don’t you recommend this destination for your foreign friends?”
A. He asked me why I don’t recommend this destination for my foreign friends.
B. He asked me why he didn’t recommend that destination for his foreign friends.
C. He asked me why I didn’t recommend that destination for my foreign friends.
D. He asked me why I hadn’t recommended this destination for my foreign friends.
Question 48: It’s compulsory for you to correct all these mistakes.
A. You must correct all these mistakes. B. You should correct all these mistakes.
C. You needn’t correct all these mistakes. D. You may not correct all these mistakes.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: She doesn’t have any apartment. She really wants to live comfortably here.
A. If only she had had an apartment and could have lived comfortably here.
B. If she had an apartment, she could live comfortably here.
C. She wishes she has an apartment and will be able to live comfortably here.
D. Even if she doesn’t have any apartment, she wants to live comfortably here.
Question 50: I asked the boys what happened. Then, I knew why my son was hurt.
A. No sooner had I known why my son was hurt than I asked the boys what happened.
B. Only after I had known why my son was hurt did I ask the boys what happened.
C. Having known why my son was hurt, I asked the boys what happened.
D. Only when I asked the boys what happened did I know why my son was hurt.
26/06/2023 BỘ ĐỀ THÁNG 6 – MÃ 621

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. character B. teacher C. chemist D. technical
Question 2: A. land B. ban C. mass D. swap
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. shadow B. unique C. worship D. printer
Question 4: A. volunteer B. creative C. exciting D. delicious
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: I enjoy ______ to classical music.
A. listening B. to listen C. listens D. listen
Question 6: The journey was quite quick ______.
A. as soon as the road has been clear B. although the road had been clear
C. because the road was clear D. in case the road will be clear
Question 7: Hoa went to bed after she ______ all her homework.
A. is completing B. has completed C. will complete D. had completed
Question 8: The last person ______ the room must turn off the lights.
A. left B. to leave C. leaving D. leave
Question 9: Her parents are now working in ______ Europe.
A. the B. a C. an D. Ø (no article)
Question 10: Exercising should come as ______ as brushing your teeth.
A. nature B. naturally C. natural D. naturalize
Question 11: My sister is much ____ than me.
A. pretty B. prettier C. the prettiest D. more prettier
Question 12: How can you ______ and see him accused of something he didn't do?
A. stand by B. stand down C. get by D. get down
Question 13: Are you interested ______ art and architecture.
A. from B. for C. up D. in
Question 14: Let's ______ in touch over the next few days while the installation is in progress.
A. let B. meet C. hold D. keep
Question 15: Tomatoes ______ before they are completely ripe.
A. can be picked B. can pick C. needn't pick D. should be picking
Question 16: Tell the mechanic that the ______ was making a strange grinding noise.
A. lamp B. engine C. table D. door
Question 17: She wasn’t talking constantly in class in those days, ______?
A. did she B. isn’t she C. was she D. doesn’t she
Question 18: Her Spanish has improved in ______ and bounds this year.
A. leaps B. risks C. points D. parts
Question 19: The unions assured the new ______ of the workers' loyalty to the company.
A. lawyers B. owners C. labourers D. employees
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un-
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: They live in a remote corner of Scotland, miles from the nearest shop.
A. major B. lower C. proper D. distant
Question 21: To comply with government hygiene regulations, there must be a separate sink for hand washing.
A. principals B. principles C. priorities D. primaries
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The company recently announced plans to lay off one-fifth of its workforce.
A. sharply B. correctly C. anciently D. greatly
Question 23: You must not stand on ceremony with me, or I shall find you exceedingly boring.
A. behave informally B. perform too much C. be faithful D. tell lies
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 24: Huy is advising Nam to buy the car.
Huy: “If I were you, I would buy that new car.”
Nam: “__________”
A. Why should I? B. Yes, I will. C. That’s a good idea. D. No, I can’t.
Question 25: Nam is talking to his classmate named Minh.
Nam: “I don’t understand what the teacher has just said.”
Minh: “__________”
A. Me either B. Neither do I. C. Me too. D. So do I.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Vaccinating many people against SARS-CoV-2 could stall infection rates even among unvaccinated children
in the same community. Last December, Israel launched one of the fastest vaccination schemes in the world,
reaching 50% of the population in 9 weeks. (26) ________ only people aged 16 and over were eligible for the jab.
To test the ripple effects of widespread vaccination, Tal Patalon at Maccabi Healthcare Services in Tel Aviv-
Yafo, Israel, Roy Kishony at the Technion — Israel Institute of Technology in Haifa and their colleagues analysed
COVID-19 vaccinations and test results (27) ________ between January and March 2021 for people in 223 Israeli
communities. In (28) ________ community, the authors examined the relationship between the vaccination rate in
adults over three 3-week intervals and the rate of positive results for a COVID-19 test in children 35 days later.
The authors found that, in the weeks after older people had received the Pfizer–BioNTech vaccine, the
infection risk among children under 16 dropped proportionally to the percentage of adults (29) ________ had been
vaccinated. The authors warn that their results might be influenced by children who had previously been infected,
even though the study included communities with low (30) ________ rates. The findings have not yet been peer
reviewed.
Question 26: A. Because B. Although C. Before D. But
Question 27: A. recorded B. intended C. depended D. afforded
Question 28: A. neither B. any C. each D. some
Question 29: A. which B. who C. where D. when
Question 30: A. infection B. pollution C. impression D. conclusion
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Depression drains your energy, hope, and drive, making it difficult to take the steps that will help you to feel
better. Sometimes, just thinking about the things you should do to feel better, like exercising or spending time with
friends, can seem exhausting or impossible to put into action.
It’s the Catch-22 of depression recovery: The things that help the most are the things that are the most
difficult to do. There is a big difference, however, between something that’s difficult and something that’s
impossible. While recovering from depression isn’t quick or easy, you do have more control than you realize—
even if your depression is severe and stubbornly persistent. The key is to start small and build from there. You
may not have much energy, but by drawing on all your reserves, you should have enough to take a walk around
the block or pick up the phone to call a loved one, for example.
Taking the first step is always the hardest. But going for a walk or getting up and dancing to your favorite
music, for example, is something you can do right now. And it can substantially boost your mood and energy for
several hours—long enough to put a second recovery step into action, such as preparing a mood-boosting meal or
arranging to meet an old friend. By taking the small but positive steps day by day, you’ll soon lift the heavy fog of
depression and find yourself feeling happier, healthier, and more hopeful again.
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Why Is Dealing with Depression So Difficult?
B. Depression - Your Energy and Hope
C. Depression Isn’t Quick or Easy
D. Your Mood and Energy for Several Hours
Question 32: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. recovery B. difference C. things D. something

Question 33: According to paragraph 2, it’s possible to recover from depression because ______.
A. it’s the most difficult thing to do
B. people have more control than they realize
C. it’s stubbornly persistent
D. people can pick up the phone to call regularly
Question 34: The word “severe” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. mental B. secure C. typical D. acute
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of the first
step to recover depression?
A. Dancing to the favourite music isn’t the thing you can do immediately.
B. The first step is always the hardest.
C. It can substantially boost your mood and energy.
D. You’ll soon lift the heavy fog of depression.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The history of paper dates back almost 2,000 years to when inventors in China first crafted cloth sheets to
record their drawings and writings. Before then, people communicated through pictures and symbols etched on
stone, bones, cave walls, or clay tablets.
Paper as we know it today was first made in Lei-Yang, China by Ts'ai Lun, a Chinese court official. In all
likelihood, Ts'ai mixed mulberry bark, hemp and rags with water, mashed it into pulp, pressed out the liquid, and
hung the thin mat to dry in the sun. During the 8th century, Muslims (from the region that is now Syria, Saudi
Arabia, and Iraq) learned the Chinese secret of papermaking when they captured a Chinese paper mill. Later, when
the Muslims invaded Europe, they brought this secret with them. The first paper mill was built in Spain, and soon,
paper was being made at mills all across Europe. Over the next 800 years, paper was used for printing important
books, bibles, and legal documents. England began making large supplies of paper in the late 15th century and
supplied the colonies with paper for many years. Finally, in 1690, the first U.S. paper mill was built in
Pennsylvania.
At first, American paper mills used the Chinese method of shredding old rags and clothes into individual
fibres to make paper. As the demand for paper grew, the mills changed used fibre from trees because wood was
less expensive and more abundant than cloth.
Today, paper is made from trees mostly grown on working forests and from recovered paper. Recycling has
always been a part of papermaking. When you recycle your used paper, paper mills will use it to make new
newspapers, notebook paper, paper grocery bags, corrugated boxes, envelopes, magazines, cartons, and other paper
products.
Besides using recovered paper and trees to make paper, paper mills may also use wood chips and sawdust
left over from lumber operations (whose products are used to make houses, furniture, and other things). Today,
more than 36 percent of the fibre used to make new paper products in the United States comes from recycled
sources.

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The Chinese Secret of Papermaking
B. First American Paper Mills
C. The History of Paper
D. The Fibre Used to Make New Paper Products
Question 37: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. Chinese B. Muslims C. secrets D. rags
Question 38: In paragraph 2, technology to make paper was available in Europe because ______.
A. Ts'ai Lun moved to Europe B. People from Spain learnt it from the Chinese
C. Chinese people revealed it to the European. D. the Muslims brought it to Europe
Question 39: The word “supplies” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. priorities B. penalties C. estates D. sources
Question 40: The word “abundant” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. plentiful B. wasteful C. graceful D. skilful
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Stone, bones, cave walls, or clay tablets were used to communicate more than 2,000 years ago.
B. Muslims knew how to make paper after capturing a Chinese paper mill.
C. Cloth to make paper was less expensive and more abundant than wood.
D. Recovered paper is also a source of material to make paper.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5?
A. Once made, paper cannot be recycled.
B. People try to make use of every source of material to make paper.
C. Wood chips and sawdust will no longer be used to make paper.
D. More than 36 percent of paper manufactured was consumed in the United States.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 43: Certain chemicals have been banned because of their damaging affect on the environment.
A. Certain chemicals B. because of C. their D. affect on
Question 44: When I arrived at the stadium, the football match have started.
A. at B. stadium C. the D. have started
Question 45: The company was losing money and they had to let people go.
A. The B. losing C. they D. people
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 46: It’s compulsory for you to call him and tell him the truth.
A. You must call him and tell him the truth. B. You can call him and tell him the truth.
C. You shouldn’t call him and tell him the truth. D. You may not call him and tell him the truth.
Question 47: This is the first time she has travelled so far.
A. She has ever travelled so far before. B. She has never travelled so far before.
C. She travelled so far long time ago. D. She didn’t travel so far for such a long time.
Question 48: “What did you do last night ?” the policeman asked the woman.
A. The policeman asked the woman what did she do the night before.
B. The policeman asked the woman what she had done the night before.
C. The policeman asked the woman what had she done the night before.
D. The policeman asked the woman what she did the night before.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: She didn’t stop her car because she didn’t see the signal.
A. If she saw the signal, she would stop her car.
B. If she had seen the signal, she would stop her car.
C. If she had seen the signal, she would have stopped her car.
D. If she saw the signal, she would have stopped her car.
Question 50: I spoke to my sister. Then, I know what she had experienced.
A. Only after I had spoken to my sister did I know what she had experienced.
B. Having known what my sister had experienced, I spoke to her.
C. Hardly had I known what my sister had experienced when I spoke to her.
D. But for what my sister had experienced, I wouldn’t have spoken to her.
27/06/2023 BỘ ĐỀ THÁNG 6 – MÃ 622

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. thought B. there C. these D. that
Question 2: A. scull B. pull C. full D. bull
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. upset B. preserve C. shadow D. expand
Question 4: A. important B. relevant C. effective D. expensive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Linda was waiting for us when we got off the plane, ______?
A. does she B. didn’t she C. is she D. wasn’t she
Question 6: Maria decided __________ her education after a gap year.
A. to continue B. to continuing C. continue D. continuing
Question 7: I took up Salsa, _________ by dance teacher, Thabo, who made us believe we were good enough to
perform in front of passengers and crew.
A. was greatly inspired B. greatly inspiring
C. greatly inspired D. having inspired greatly
Question 8: The weather this autumn is even ________than last autumn.
A. the worst B. worse C. worse and worse D. the worse
Question 9: I’ll take Mariana out to eat _____________.
A. as soon as she had finished her exam B. before she finished her exam
C. while she was finishing her exam D. after she has finished her exam
Question 10: When his wife ______ home from work, he was having dinner alone.
A. comes B. will come C. came D. was coming
Question 11: She thinks her homework ______before 5 o’clock this afternoon.
A. will be finished B. will be finishing C. will finish D. will have been finished
Question 12: If you really want to lose weight, you need to ______ eating desserts.
A. Give away B. give up C. put off D. take off
Question 13: I think everyone wants to make friends with John. He is honest person.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 14: These children have special ______ needs and require one-to-one attention.
A. educational B. educate C. educationally D. education
Question 15: Cities in poorer countries often lack basic __________ . Without it, they are unable to function
properly as cities.
A. structure B. construction C. infrastructure D. condition
Question 16: I will have a big exam tomorrow so I’ll be _________ the midnight oil tonight.
A. blistering B. burning C. firing D. staying
Question 17: Nguyen Thi Anh Vien performed so well in the 28th Sea Games women’s 200m butterfly that
none of her rivals could ___________ up with her.
A. look B. come C. catch D. put
Question 18: They’re over the ______ about their trip to Japan.
A. stream B. moon C. hole D. hill
Question 19: Keep children_______from the fire.
A. in with B. from C. away D. back
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un-
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: There is a regular train service between Glasgow and Edinburgh.
A. frequent B. popular C. recent D. several
Question 21: He said the primary responsibility of a state is to protect its citizens from attack.
A. speakers B. strangers C. inhabitants D. inspectors
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: We need to react toughly against those who were harbouring terrorists.
A. sadly B. safely C. openly D. gently
Question 23: We've done a little research, and that revealed we were a little behind the times with our methods.
A. successful B. up to date C. disappointed D. enthusiastic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 24: Thanh is saying goodbye to Giang after the party.
Thanh: “Good bye. Thank you for the tasty food tonight.”
Giang: “__________”
A. You’re welcome. B. Yes, you can go.
C. Why do you go? D. Sure, I’m a good cook.
Question 25: Alex is talking to David about his bookshelf.
Alex: “I regret that I bought such a small bookshelf.”
Davis: “__________”
A. What a pity. B. You bet!
C. Why are you so stupid? D. Yeah. A bigger one is better.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The 1901 Mercedes, designed by Wilhelm Maybach for Daimler Motoren Gesellschaft, deserves credit for
being the first modern motorcar in all essentials. Its thirty-five-horsepower engine weighed only fourteen pounds
per horsepower, (26) ________ it achieved a top speed of fifty-three miles per hour. By 1909, with the most
integrated automobile factory in Europe, Daimler employed (27) ________ seventeen hundred workers to produce
fewer than a thousand cars per year.
Nothing illustrates the superiority of European design better than the sharp contrast between this first
Mercedes model and Ransom E. Olds‘ 1901-1906 one-cylinder, three-horsepower, tiller-steered, curved-dash
Oldsmobile, (28) ________ was merely a motorized horse buggy. But the Olds sold for only $650, putting it within
reach of middle-class Americans, and the 1904 Olds output of 5,508 units (29) ________ any car production
previously accomplished.
The central problem of automotive technology over the first (30) ________ of the twentieth century would
be reconciling the advanced design of the 1901 Mercedes with the moderate price and low operating expenses of
the Olds. This would be overwhelmingly an American achievement.
Question 26: A. as B. and C. although D. for
Question 27: A. some B. any C. either D. each
Question 28: A. where B. who C. that D. which
Question 29: A. submitted B. committed C. surpassed D. assumed
Question 30: A. decade B. package C. contest D. debate
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The ancient Egyptians were the first to incorporate perfume into their culture, followed by the ancient
Chinese, Hindus, Israelites, Carthaginians, Arabs, Greeks, and Romans. The oldest perfumes were discovered by
archaeologists in Cyprus. They were more than 4,000 years old. A cuneiform tablet from Mesopotamia, dating
back more than 3,000 years, identifies a woman named Tapputi as the first recorded perfume maker. But perfumes
could also be found in India at the time.
The earliest use of perfume bottles is Egyptian and dates to around 1000 B.C. The Egyptians invented glass,
and perfume bottles were one of the first common uses for glass. Persian and Arab chemists helped codify the
production of perfume and its use spread throughout the world of classical antiquity. The rise of Christianity,
however, saw a decline in the use of perfume for much of the Dark Ages. It was the Muslim world that kept the
traditions of perfume alive during this time—and helped trigger its revival with the onset of international trade.
The 16th century saw the popularity of perfume explode in France, especially among the upper classes and
nobles. With help from “the perfume court,” the court of Louis XV, everything got perfumed: furniture, gloves,
and other clothing. The 18th-century invention of eau de Cologne helped the perfume industry continue to grow.
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Perfume Incorporated into Culture B. Perfume and Its Use Throughout the World
C. History of Perfume Around the World D. The Popularity of Perfume in France
Question 32: The word “common” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. usual B. narrow C. legal D. standard
Question 33: According to paragraph 1, the traditions of perfume were alive during the Dark Ages because ______.
A. Persian and Arab chemists helped preserved them
B. the rise of Christianity maintained them
C. the production of perfume and its use were popular
D. the Muslim world tried to keep them
Question 34: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. Dark Ages B. Muslim world C. traditions of perfume D. this time
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as an important timeline of
perfume?
A. The ancient Arabs were the first to incorporate perfume into their culture.
B. The earliest use of perfume dates to around 1000 B.C.
C. Perfume was extremely popular in France in 16th century.
D. Eau de Cologne was invented in the 18th-century.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
For thousands of years, our ancestors appreciated a small number of materials distinguished by their smooth
and often colourful appearance: Ivory, tortoiseshell, and horn could be turned into small luxury items that bore a
warmth and elegance hard to achieve in other substances. In the 1800s, the growth of markets, combined with a
greatly enlarged understanding of chemistry, gave rise to a whole new class of artificial substances that made it
possible to turn out such items in great quantities at low cost. The first commercial plastic was celluloid, made
from nitrated cotton and camphor. When this combination was heated under pressure, it was transformed into an
astonishingly versatile substance that could be made into everything from combs and collars to dolls, playing cards,
and, eventually, ping pong balls.
In the 20th century, this first plastic was joined by a host of substances that were even more, well, plastic.
The new plastics, by then typically made from by-products of coal or petroleum production, were sometimes
fashioned into more ersatz luxury items. But their properties also lent themselves to a host of technical uses, from
telephones and other electrical devices to substitute body parts and other medical devices that would be all but
unthinkable made out of any other substance.
Closely related to these plastics was rubber, which started out as a natural product brought to Europe by early
explorers of South America. Natives used the milky sap of Hevea brasiliensis for waterproofing and making
bouncing balls. The Europeans adapted lumps of dried sap to rub out pencil marks (hence the name "rubber"). It
was not until about 1840 that Charles Goodyear discovered how to make the material into a range of stable forms,
good for everything from combs to inflatable rafts. The rubber pneumatic tire proved indispensable for motor
transport in the 20th century, and this dependence led to the invention of synthetic rubber, much in the same fashion
as the plastics.
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Plastics & rubber B. Artificial Substances
C. By-products of Coal D. Rubber Pneumatic Tire
Question 37: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. celluloid B. combination C. substance D. everything
Question 38: In paragraph 1, the growth of markets in the 1800s gave rise to ______.
A. small luxury items
B. a greatly enlarged understanding of chemistry
C. a whole new class of artificial substances
D. nitrated cotton and camphor
Question 39: The word “properties” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. advantages B. consequences C. characteristics D. establishments
Question 40: The word “stable” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. bloody B. muddy C. tidy D. steady
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Smooth materials with colourful appearance were not appreciated by our ancestors.
B. Celluloid was the first commercial plastic.
C. Luxury items were sometimes made of the new plastics.
D. Rubber was brought to Europe by early explorers of South America.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 3?
A. The milky sap of Hevea brasiliensis is the best material to make bouncing balls.
B. Since discovered, rubber has become more and more essential for motor transport.
C. Charles Goodyear adapted lumps of dried sap to rub out pencil marks.
D. The invention of synthetic rubber was first discovered in 1840.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 43: The argument was upsetting for us all - I don't want to talk about them.
A. The B. for C. to talk D. them
Question 44: The new trade agreement should felicitate more rapid economic growth.
A. The B. should felicitate C. more D. economic growth
Question 45: Mr. Smith went to the church to feel relaxed every day.
A. Mr. B. went C. the D. relaxed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 46: The guard asked the man, “Who are you?”
A. The guard asked the man who he was.
B. The guard asked me who was I.
C. The guard asks me who he was.
D. The guard asked the man who I was.
Question 47: It’s compulsory for you to contact the customer and give her an explanation.
A. You needn’t contact the customer and give her an explanation.
B. You must contact the customer and give her an explanation.
C. You may contact the customer and give her an explanation.
D. You shouldn’t contact the customer and give her an explanation.
Question 48: I started to work as a teacher 14 years ago.
A. I last worked as a teacher 14 years ago. B. I didn’t work as a teacher 14 years ago
C. I haven’t worked as a teacher for 14 years. D. I have worked as a teacher for 14 years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: She helped us a lot with our project. We couldn’t continue without her.
A. Unless we had her contribution, we could continue with the project.
B. But for her contribution, we could have continued with the project.
C. If she hadn’t contributed positively, we couldn’t have continued with the project.
D. Provided her contribution wouldn’t come, we couldn’t continue with the project.
Question 50: I went home. Then, I realized I had left my laptop at the office.
A. But for the fact that I had left my laptop at the office, I wouldn’t have gone home.
B. Only after I had gone home did I realize I had left my laptop at the office.
C. Having realized I had left my laptop at the office, I went home.
D. Hardly had I left my laptop at the office when I went home.
28/06/2023 BỘ ĐỀ THÁNG 6 – MÃ 623

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. character B. teacher C. chemist D. technical
Question 2: A. smug B. tuck C. bury D. sum
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. mushroom B. conduct C. surface D. tackle
Question 4: A. faculty B. habitat C. opposite D. detective
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: We’re living in a house________ by green trees.
A. is surrounded B. surrounded C. to be surrounded D. which surrounded
Question 6: The Korean are ____ than the American in addressing their bosses.
A. more formal B. formal C. most formal D. the most formal
Question 7: I will have been away from home for more than three years___________.
A. by the time I return to my country next month. B. as soon as I will return next month
C. until I will have returned next month D. once I had returned next month
Question 8: I have some lurking doubts about whether Simon is really capable _______ doing this job.
A. at B. in C. of D. from
Question 9: They were always coming to class late, ______?
A. didn’t they B. do they C. weren’t they D. are they
Question 10: Do you think _____ rich should pay more taxes to help _____ poor?
A. the/ a B. a/ th e C. the/ the D. a/ a
Question 11: Terry says he’s ______ a new robotic device and he’s already applied for the patent.
A. discovered B. invented C. explored D. produced
Question 12: The fire brigade fought for hours to ______ the fire in the chemical factory.
A. put away B. put out C. put through D. put up
Question 13: I hope________ my autobiography before I die. Do you think anyone would read it?
A. write B. to writing C. to write D. writing
Question 14: There's no way I can take a vacation right now, I'm up to my _______ in work at the moment!
A. eyes B. ears C. shoulders D. hands
Question 15: When Linda called last night, I ______ my favourite show on TV.
A. watched B. have watched C. was watching D. am watching
Question 16: I gave Jim very clear instructions, but even then he managed to ______ a mess of it.
A. get B. make C. set D. take
Question 17: I think fast food __________ in schools.
A. sells B. should not sell C. was selling D. should not be sold
Question 18: I ski for the ______, but I'm also always aware of the risks.
A. excite B. excitement C. exciting D. excitingly
Question 19: On the envelope was a firm ______ to open the letter immediately.
A. instruction B. competition C. attention D. combination

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un-
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: He has established himself as the leading candidate in the election.
A. strict B. main C. rare D. huge
Question 21: The economy has shown significant improvement over the past 9 months.
A. innovation B. intention C. indication D. invention
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: We don't want to get too deeply involved with these people.
A. unexpectedly B. optimistically C. inadequately D. superficially
Question 23: You may not have this hot list out of the box, but you can hone it over time.
A. shortly B. however C. hereafter D. immediately
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 24: The porter at the hotel is offering help to Marry.
Porter: “Let me help you with that heavy luggage.”
Marry: “__________”
A. My pleasure. B. I don’t think you can.
C. I’m sad to hear that. D. Thank you. You are so kind.
Question 25: Linh is inviting Trang to her brother’s wedding on Sunday.
Linh: “I would like to invite you to my brother’s wedding this Sunday.”
Trang: “__________”
A. No way. B. That sounds great.
C. Forget it. D. I don’t think so.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Tsunamis have occurred often throughout history. So frequently in Japan, in fact, that they invented the word
specifically for the phenomenon: ‘tsu‘ meaning harbour and ‘nami‘ meaning wave.
“It’s actually quite frightening to think that the Japanese tsunami event is smaller than the 2004 Indian Ocean
tsunami, smaller even than the 1960 Chilean tsunami, yet the (26) ________ to Japan’s people and economy is still
profound,” says Professor James Goff, co-director of the Australian Tsunami Research Centre and Natural Hazards
Research Lab at the University of New South Wales. “It’s a horrendous tragedy, (27) ________ was caused by a
completely unpredictable event.”
(28) ________ little historical data exist on the size of tsunami waves, how many occur in one event, or how
far they advance on shore, scientists rank them according to how much damage they wreak. However, assessing
just how much damage a single tsunami event (29) ________ may take many months to years; and it may be (30)
________ time before the Japan earthquake and tsunami can be truly rated on a historical scale.
Question 26: A. standard B. account C. damage D. notice
Question 27: A. who B. that C. when D. which
Question 28: A. Because B. Except C. Before D. Although
Question 29: A. solves B. causes C. proves D. searches
Question 30: A. any B. another C. some D. every
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The Earth used to spin on its axis faster than it does today. After the hypothetical giant impact that led to the
formation of the moon, the Earth's day was as short as 6 hours. How did it get to a leisurely 24?
That's right, it was the moon! The moon makes some pretty nice tides, but the Earth is also spinning on its
axis. That spinning physically drags the tidal bulges around the planet. So instead of the tides appearing directly
beneath the moon, they're slightly ahead of it, orbitally speaking.
So you've got a big lump of extra ocean water in a place where it's not supposed to be. Since gravity is a
two-way street, that lump pulls on the moon. Like tugging a reluctant dog on a leash, that tidal bulge yanks on the
moon bit by bit, accelerating it into ever-higher orbits.
By the way, the moon is slowly getting farther away from Earth. And that energy to accelerate the moon has
to come from somewhere, and that somewhere is the Earth itself: Day by day, millennium by millennium, the Earth
slows down, converting its rotational energy into the moon's orbital energy.
If you took away the moon, itꞌs not like this process would reverse, but it wouldn't keep going. That might
or might not be a good thing, depending on how much you like the length of your workday.
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Do You Like 24 Hours in A Day? B. The Moon Makes Tides
C. Extra Ocean Water in A Place D. The Earth’s rotational energy
Question 32: According to paragraph 2, the tides appear slightly ahead of the moon because ______.
A. the moon is also spinning on its axis
B. the moon moves orbitally
C. the Earth’s spinning physically drags them
D. the Earth is much bigger than the moon
Question 33: The word “where” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. big lump B. ocean water C. place D. gravity
Question 34: The word “reluctant” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. unique B. unwilling C. conscious D. relevant
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a fact related to the moon?
A. The distance between the moon and the Earth is slowly farther.
B. The moon's orbital energy originates from the Earth’s rotational energy.
C. The disappearance of the moon wouldn’t reverse the process.
D. The length of your workday depends much on the moon.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Going beyond body language that involves skin contact, there are other business-related practices involving
contact with surfaces that will also likely be phased out. Again, this would probably have happened anyway, but
COVID-19 has hastened the process. The use of AirPlay and other mirroring technology will become the mainstay,
and using a public desktop computer in a meeting room, with people bringing their files on USB flash drives, will
become a thing of the past. Is your boss still printing hard copies of the meeting agenda and passing it out prior to
the meeting? This is the time to finally start sharing all those forms digitally and have them live on a cloud.
Touchless technology in general will become more standard across the board. For example, if your workplace
cafeteria currently doesn’t have a touchless payment system, it likely soon will. Accessible doors will finally gain
traction. Automatic doors for bathrooms and meeting rooms have been sold for years in the name of accessibility.
Now that they can serve a dual purpose (i.e. accessibility and the prevention of viral transmissions), more
companies will implement them.
Business travel, a source of much surface contact (as well as skin contact from all that handshaking), will
also be transformed. Most likely we’ll see an overall decrease of it, just like we did after 9/11 and the Great
Recession. Teleconferencing is here to stay and it will become much more immersive, eliminating the need for a
significant amount of business travel. In-person, physical travel will be reserved for the more essential trips.
Tim Cook, CEO of Apple, once said “For all of the beauty of technology and all the things we’ve helped
facilitate over the years, nothing yet replaces human interaction.” And it’s true. When it comes to effective business
communication, nothing will replace human interaction. Rather, human interaction, both in-person and digital, is
simply evolving. And this evolution, particularly when it is in response to shifting societal needs, is mostly a good
thing.
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The Use of AirPlay
B. Touchless Technology in General
C. Business Setups, Practices, and Travel Will Change
D. The Great Recession
Question 37: The word “process” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. inspection B. position C. reaction D. evolution
Question 38: In paragraph 1, practices involving contact with surfaces will ______.
A. happen more regularly B. be eliminated faster due to COVID-19
C. become the mainstay D. be passed out prior to the meeting
Question 39: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. cafeteria B. system C. traction D. accessibility
Question 40: The word “overall” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. practical B. general C. rational D. colossal
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Public desktop computer in a meeting room will become a thing of the past.
B. Touchless technology will become more and more popular.
C. Teleconferencing will never eliminate business travel.
D. According to Tim Cook, nothing can replace human interaction.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4?
A. Human interaction is irreplaceable, but it may change.
B. The beauty of technology will make things more interesting.
C. Effective business communication must be made with a digital device.
D. Shifting societal needs is mostly a good thing.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 43: Scientists think there is water on Mars a long time ago.
A. Scientists B. is C. on D. a
Question 44: When you've finished your work sheets, clip them together and hand it in to me.
A. When B. finished C. and D. it
Question 45: Kazakova's performance made her the heroin of the Moscow Film Festival.
A. Kazakova's B. made C. the heroin of D. Film Festival
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 46: They started to build their house two months ago.
A. They haven’t built their house for two months. B. They have built their house for two months.
C. They last built their house two months ago. D. They didn’t build their house two months ago.
Question 47: She said “I worked for a post office 3 years ago”.
A. She said that I had worked for a post office 3 years ago.
B. She said that she worked for a post office 3 years before.
C. She said that she had worked for a post office 3 years ago.
D. She said that she had worked for a post office 3 years before.
Question 48: You are not allowed to use red ink in the exam.
A. You should use red ink in the exam. B. You may use red ink in the exam.
C. You mustn’t use red ink in the exam. D. You needn’t use red ink in the exam.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: I don’t feel sleepy at all. I really want to sleep some more.
A. If I feel sleepy, I want to sleep some more.
B. Since I don’t feel sleepy at all, I want to sleep some more.
C. If only I had felt sleepy and could have slept some more.
D. I wish I felt sleepy and could sleep some more.
Question 50: He graduated from the university. He started to work for the local hospital soon after that.
A. No sooner had he graduated from the university than he started to work for the local hospital.
B. Only after he had started to work for the local hospital did he graduate from the university.
C. Not only did he start to work for the local hospital but he also graduated from the university.
D. Having started to work for the local hospital, he graduated from the university.
BỘ ĐỀ THÁNG 6 – MÃ 624 – TỰ LUYỆN THÊM

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. chemical B. discharge C. change D. church
Question 2: A. slope B. bomb C. whole D. home
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. explore B. mission C. threaten D. sector
Question 4: A. chemical B. medical C. solution D. decorate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: He has already achieved his main ______ in life - to become wealthy.
A. location B. direction C. definition D. ambition
Question 6: How long the journey takes will ______ on how long it takes to get through the traffic.
A. dependent B. dependently C. depend D. dependence
Question 7: The solar panel ________ on the roofs of the house can get enough energy for the whole family.
A. fixing B. to fix C. fixed D. that is fixing
Question 8: Anne was fond of Tim ______.
A. after he often annoys her B. though he often annoyed her
C. when he has often annoyed her D. until he will often annoy her
Question 9: A correction pen is used for........your writing mistakes.
A. cover B. covered C. covering D. to cover
Question 10: Trang went to see the dentist after she ______ able to suffer the toothache.
A. hasn’t been B. wasn’t C. hadn’t been D. won’t be
Question 11: He drives__________ his brother.
A. more careful than B. more carefully C. as careful as D. more carefully than
Question 12: The discount applies only to children ______ the age of ten.
A. under B. between C. during D. among
Question 13: So as not __________ by paparazzi, Angelina Jolie wore a veil.
A. recognize B. to be recognizing C. recognizing D. to be recognized
Question 14: These parts of the world don’t have different climatic conditions, ______?
A. didn’t they B. do they C. weren’t they D. are they
Question 15: _________ schooling is compulsory in Australia between_________ ages of six and seventeen.
A. The/ 0 B. A/ an C. 0/ the D. The/ an
Question 16: It is the job of the ______ to enforce compliance with the regulations.
A. employers B. owners C. inspectors D. players
Question 17: I ______ sight of my former teacher while I was out shopping yesterday.
A. seen B. caught C. viewed D. faced
Question 18: I’ve tried to get him to leave, but he can’t take a ______.
A. card B. care C. key D. hint
Question 19: They said the operation had been successful and they expected his wife to ______.
A. pull through B. come through C. pull away D. come away
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un-
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: She's just left a secure job to start up her own company.
A. odd B. weak C. safe D. fair
Question 21: I don't eat meat, only fish, but there's a good variety available here.
A. ability B. activity C. security D. diversity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: All non-violent religious and political beliefs should be respected equally.
A. frankly B. differently C. properly D. joyfully
Question 23: Sure, I've tried to live a benign life, putting my shoulder to the wheel for peace.
A. being indifferent to B. feeling tired of C. looking happy in D. becoming strong in
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 24: The postman is talking to Tom on the phone.
Postman: “I will come and give you the package a bit late.”
Tom: “__________”
A. Thanks anyway. B. Why late? C. No way. D. I don’t agree.
Question 25: Mary is feeling grateful to Gorge for his help.
Mary: “Thank you very much for your help in time.”
George: “__________”
A. Don’t thank. B. You say well. C. It’s my duty. D. Never mind.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
We might be drinking the recommended amount of fluid each day, but are we drinking the right things? Very
few of us can say that water is the only thing we drink and tea, coffee, fruit juices and carbonated drinks are a daily
choice for most of us, (26) ________ does the wrong choice of drink means we might actually be doing more (27)
________ than good? If thirst sees you reaching for a sweetened, caffeinated drink, you will be loading your system
with sugar and stimulants that bring with them excess calories, and a temporary boost (28) ________ is bound to
result in an energy slump soon afterwards. Fruit juice and smoothies should also be limited because of the natural
‘free’ sugars they contain and the high caffeine levels of (29) ________ tea and coffee can cause anxiety, insomnia
and digestive uses. Few of us will want to give up all these choices but swapping some of them for more tap water
in our diet each day can only be a good thing and if you are finding tap water a bit dull, try (30) ________ a slice
of lemon, lime or cucumber for a subtle taste. Also interested about how it works with food and health? And would
like to get a clear view on what is a healthy body fat percentage? Then take a look at our body fat percentage page.
Question 26: A. but B. because C. although D. as
Question 27: A. item B. harm C. face D. step
Question 28: A. who B. when C. where D. which
Question 29: A. few B. another C. some D. every
Question 30: A. adding B. building C. showing D. holding
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
A lot of wealthy individuals and companies around the world have personal and corporate jets. As you can
imagine, these jets do not come with a small price tag. And when money becomes tight, there are times when the
payments on these jets are not made, and they have to be repossessed. Enter the airplane repossession specialists.
These men and women are responsible for recovering commercial aircraft from around the world, sometimes from
less-than-ideal locations or owners, making it occasionally risky but equally thrilling work.
You will be responsible for finding the aircraft's location and monitoring the site, somewhat like that of a
private investigator. You will be determining the most opportune time to jump into the plane and take off with it.
It is not as simple as the car repo man who shows up with a tow truck in the middle of the night. When an owner
does not want to turn over their plane, planning to legally apprehend it can feel a bit like you're a secret agent in
the latest Hollywood blockbuster.
It is almost unheard of for airplane repo specialists to repossess planes on their own. You are typically sent
as part of a team, which includes a mechanic who checks the plane to ensure that it is safe for take-off. Although
airplane repo professionals come from all different kinds of backgrounds, you will have to become a commercial
pilot since you need to fly the plane. And you could expect to receive good compensation for doing so. You will
likely work on a commission basis. Forbes has reported that an airplane repo person can make anywhere from
$10,000 to $90,000 per plane, depending on its resale value.
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Payments on The Jets
B. Most Opportune Time to Jump into The Plane
C. Mechanic Checks The Plane
D. Airplane Repo Person
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, some jets have to be repossessed because ______.
A. wealthy individuals and companies stop hiring them
B. they come with a small price tag
C. the payments for these jets are not made
D. they make the trip occasionally risky
Question 33: The word “thrilling” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. willing B. exciting C. opening D. leading
Question 34: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. team B. plane C. blockbuster D. compensation
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as an information about the job
of the airplane repossession specialists?
A. They are responsible for finding the aircraft's location.
B. They check the plane to ensure that it is safe for take-off.
C. They are typically sent as part of a team.
D. They themselves need to fly the plane.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The coronavirus pandemic has changed the way we live and interact with each other. We often speak of the
“new normal”. This concerns our social norms – meaning patterns of behaviour, aspirations, attitudes. Norms can
be visible (overt) and hidden (covert); if we behave in a certain way long and frequently enough, it becomes normal
for us. Our norms have changed during the pandemic since the disease caused by the virus is so infectious that we
need to change our behaviour to prevent it from spreading further. These altered social norms include, among
others, social distancing, the way we greet each other (e.g. by touching elbows), and the way we work (e.g. many
of us are now working and learning remotely).
Changing social norms also affect our social bonds. Because of the lockdown, some relationships have grown
stronger (e.g. with family members, friends), and some – weaker (e.g. with more distant acquaintances, colleagues).
We’ve worked out new ways to keep in touch with each other, and even to form new relationships – by, for
example, organising online meetings or even parties. For many of us, this model of work and communication has
already become the “new normal”, and it’s hard to imagine that we won’t keep at least some of today’s behaviours
alive after the pandemic ends.
There are many threats underlying these changes, though. It may happen, for instance, that people will
become used to communicating only or almost only online, which will make their “offline” relationships weaker.
The sense of alienation at work may increase – employees can become more alienated not only from their
workplace but also from work itself. It’s still hard to tell what long-term social consequences the intensifying
economic crisis will be for our lifestyle and how the way we work and our consumer behaviours will change. Much
depends on how long the pandemic will last and how much our behaviour needs to change for us to be able to
adapt to the new reality.
It may appear that long after the threat is gone and all COVID-19-related restrictions, prohibitions, and
“lockdowns” are abolished, even if we forget about the coronavirus, some of the social norms having emerged
during the pandemic may be here to stay.
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. How to Alter Social Norms?
B. The Impact of COVID-19 on Social Norms
C. The Model of Work and Communication
D. COVID-19-related Restrictions and Prohibitions
Question 37: The word “norms” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. markets B. volumes C. penalties D. standards
Question 38: In paragraph 1, we need to change our behaviour to ______.
A. interact with each other
B. behave in a certain way long and frequently enough
C. prevent virus from spreading further
D. greet each other
Question 39: The word “model” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. matter B. value C. type D. body
Question 40: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. online communication B. people
C. changes D. relationships
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Altered social norms include the way we greet and work.
B. We have no new ways to keep in touch with each other.
C. People will become used to online communicating only.
D. It’s still hard to tell how our consumer behaviours will change.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4?
A. The threat of COVID-19 will soon disappear.
B. All COVID-19-related restrictions, prohibitions weren’t necessary.
C. People will soon forget about the coronavirus.
D. Some of the social norms emerged during the pandemic will exist for ages.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 43: Today's students also appear more formerly dressed and conservative-looking these days.
A. Today's B. also C. formerly D. these days
Question 44: She was studying English when the light goes out.
A. She B. English C. the D. goes out
Question 45: If anyone rings for me, please tell it I'll be back in the office at four o'clock.
A. rings B. it C. back D. at
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 46: You are not allowed to step on the grass in this area.
A. You cannot step on the grass in this area. B. You may step on the grass in this area.
C. You should step on the grass in this area. D. You mustn’t step on the grass in this area.
Question 47: My father started planting orchids several years ago.
A. My father has planted orchids for several years.
B. My father last planted orchids several years ago.
C. My father didn’t plant orchids several years ago.
D. My father hasn’t planted orchids for several years.
Question 48: “You can’t wear your dirty shoes in the class,” said the teacher to the student.
A. The teacher asked the student wear his dirty shoes in the class.
B. The teacher forbade the student from wearing his dirty shoes in the class.
C. The teacher invited the student wear his dirty shoes in the class.
D. The teacher informed the student wear his dirty shoes in the class.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Ms. Nga has little money. She really wants to buy a new mobile.
A. Because Ms. Nga has little money, she can buy a new mobile.
B. As long as Ms. Nga has more money, she will be able to buy a new mobile.
C. Ms. Nga wishes she had more money and could buy a new mobile.
D. Although Ms. Nga has little money, she still wants to buy a new mobile.
Question 50: She finished the meal. Her children came home after school soon after that.
A. Had it not been for her children’s coming home after school, she couldn’t have finished the meal.
B. Only after her children had come home after school did she finish the meal.
C. Not only did her children come home after school but she also finished the meal.
D. No sooner had she finished the meal than her children came home after school.
BỘ ĐỀ THÁNG 6 – MÃ 625 – TỰ LUYỆN THÊM

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. watched B. astonished C. closed D. cooked
Question 2: A. nail B. faint C. fail D. fair
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. flashy B. protect C. coffee D. current
Question 4: A. historic B. privacy C. principle D. charity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: She was 74 years of age ______.
A. in case she was writing her first novel B. as soon as she has written her first novel
C. when she wrote her first novel D. before she had written her first novel
Question 6: Television is an increasingly important means of ______.
A. protection B. communication C. agreement D. membership
Question 7: ______ we make a decision, does anyone want to say anything else?
A. After B. Despite C. Before D. Therefore
Question 8: Acupuncture has long been a part of traditional Chinese ______.
A. currency B. medicine C. communication D. martial art
Question 9: When he was busy with his work, his mother ______ care of his son.
A. was taking B. takes C. will take D. took
Question 10: Who ______ most of the cooking in your house?
A. holds B. deals C. makes D. does
Question 11: She has a ________ face, so she is quite beautiful.
A. oval happy pretty B. happy pretty oval C. pretty oval happy D. pretty happy oval
Question 12: We'll need to ______ some of the budget for travel later in the year.
A. keep back B. keep away C. call back D. call away
Question 13: The colder it is, ______ I get.
A. hungriest B. the hungriest C. hungrier D. the hungrier
Question 14: The meeting is on the fifth and we're hoping everyone will ______.
A. attend B. attention C. attentive D. attentively
Question 15: He learned English ______ listening to the radio.
A. under B. over C. at D. by
Question 16: ________ classical dance for five years, Akiko finally felt ready to perform in public.
A. Studied B. To study C. Being studied D. Having studied

Question 17: If it is foggy, that sport event __________.


A. will be cancelled B. will cancel C. will be calcelling D. will have cancelled
Question 18: The tabloid press had a ______ day with the latest government scandal.
A. hard B. field C. nice D. great
Question 19: The bank has streamlined systems for switching accounts, ______?
A. had it B. hasn’t it C. has it D. hadn’t it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un-
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: In cases of severe mental handicap, constant supervision is recommended.
A. serious B. negative C. opposite D. effective
Question 21: Dozens of valuable works of art disappeared during shipment to the US.
A. awareness B. tension C. confusion D. delivery
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: When you fill in the form, please write clearly in black ink.
A. freely B. vaguely C. frankly D. hardly
Question 23: In the initial days and weeks, it was literally a case of living from hand to mouth.
A. sending all the money B. spending a large amount of money
C. saving lots of money D. losing all the money
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 24: Nam is talking to his father about the driving test the next week.
Nam: “Do you think I can pass my driving test next week?”
Nam’s father: “__________”
A. Don’t pass it. B. Go ahead. You can!
C. No way. D. No, you can’t.
Question 25: Trang is asking her father for permission to use the car.
Trang: “May I borrow your car tonight?”
Trang’s father: “__________”
A. Yes, you can’t. B. No, it’s mine.
C. I’d love to. D. I’m afraid you can’t.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Jet lag occurs when you travel across multiple time zones and have trouble adjusting to the new schedule.
After traveling a long distance by air, your circadian (26) ________ may still be aligned with the previous time
zone. Your body may expect to sleep when it is daytime in the new time zone or be awake when you are supposed
to sleep.
Jet lag is a temporary condition. It may begin (27) ________ you travel across at least two time zones. The
severity of the jet lag depends on how many time zones (28) ________ you crossed and which direction you
travelled. Flying east is usually more difficult of an adjustment than westward travel. It is estimated that it takes
one day per time zone for your body clock to fully adjust to local time.
You may have a difficult time functioning when you are jet lagged. You may not feel awake and alert when
you need to do your job, socialize or sightsee. Anyone of any age can have jet lag, although older adults are likely
to have (29) ________ severe jet lag, and may need a much longer time to (30) ________ . Some people are able
to adjust more quickly than others to rapid shifts in time zones. Pilots, flight attendants and business travellers are
most likely to have jet lag due to their lifestyle.
Question 26: A. corners B. rhythms C. degrees D. tickets
Question 27: A. after B. but C. before D. until
Question 28: A. whom B. when C. that D. who
Question 29: A. another B. many C. every D. more
Question 30: A. recover B. respond C. connect D. cancel
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Cloud computing services are operated from giant datacentres around the world. AWS divides this up by
'regions' and 'availability zones'. Each AWS region is a separate geographic area, like EU (London) or US West
(Oregon), which AWS then further subdivides into what it calls availability zones (AZs). An AZ is composed of
one or more datacentres that are far enough apart that in theory a single disaster won't take both offline, but close
enough together for business continuity applications that require rapid failover. Each AZ has multiple internet
connections and power connections to multiple grids: AWS has over 50 AZs.
Google uses a similar model, dividing its cloud computing resources into regions which are then subdivided
into zones, which include one or more datacentres from which customers can run their services. It currently has 15
regions made up of 44 zones: Google recommends customers deploy applications across multiple zones and regions
to help protect against unexpected failures.
Microsoft Azure divides its resources slightly differently. It offers regions which it describes as is a "set of
datacentres deployed within a latency-defined perimeter and connected through a dedicated regional low-latency
network". It also offers 'geographies' typically containing two or more regions, that can be used by customers with
specific data-residency and compliance needs "to keep their data and apps close". It also offers availability zones
made up of one or more data centres equipped with independent power, cooling and networking.
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Separate AWS Region According to Geographic Areas
B. Cloud computing region and computing availability zone
C. Cloud computing resources of Google
D. How Microsoft Azure divides its resources
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, datacentres in an AZ are neither too far nor too near from one another
because ______.
A. they have to be able to avoid disaster and ensure rapid failover
B. they have multiple internet connections and power connections
C. they have multiple grids of AWS
D. they are divided into 'regions' and 'availability zones'
Question 33: The word “similar” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. available B. capable C. comparable D. remarkable
Question 34: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. Microsoft Azure B. resources C. datacentres D. regions
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of Microsoft Azure?
A. It offers availability zones made up of only one data centre.
B. It offers regions which it describes as is a set of datacentres.
C. Its datacentres are deployed within a latency-defined perimeter.
D. It offers geographies typically containing two or more regions.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
As Hubble orbits Earth, the Fine Guidance Sensors lock onto stars. The Fine Guidance Sensors are part of
the Pointing Control System and aim Hubble in the right direction. The telescope can lock onto a target that is one
mile away without moving more than the width of a human hair.
Once the target is acquired, Hubble's primary mirror collects light. The mirror can collect about 40,000 times
more light than the human eye. The light bounces off the primary mirror to the secondary mirror. The secondary
mirror focuses the light back through a hole in the primary mirror. From there, the light shines to Hubble's scientific
instruments. Each instrument has a different way of interpreting the light.
Hubble has five scientific instruments which include cameras and spectrographs. A spectrograph is an
instrument that splits light into its individual wavelengths.
The Wide Field Camera 3 is Hubble’s main camera. It studies everything from the formation of distant
galaxies to the planets in the solar system. The camera can see three different kinds of light: near-ultraviolet, visible
and near-infrared. But Hubble can only see each kind of light one at a time. Human eyes can see visible light. Near-
ultraviolet and near-infrared are just beyond what our eyes can see.
The Advanced Camera for Surveys captures images of large areas of space. These images have helped
scientists study some of the earliest activity in the universe.
The Cosmic Origins Spectrograph reads ultraviolet light. This spectrograph studies how galaxies, stars and
planets formed and changed.
The Space Telescope Imaging Spectrograph helps scientists determine the temperature, chemical
composition, density and motion of objects in space. It also has been used to detect black holes.
The Near Infrared Camera and Multi-Object Spectrometer, or NICMOS, sees objects in deep space by
sensing the heat they emit. It captures images and it is also a spectrograph. NICMOS helps scientists study how
stars, galaxies and planetary systems form.
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. the Fine Guidance Sensors B. Hubble's primary mirror
C. The Advanced Camera for Surveys D. What Instruments Are on Hubble?
Question 37: The word “instruments” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. apartments B. apparatuses C. collections D. communities
Question 38: In paragraph 2, the light shone to Hubble's scientific instruments will be ______.
A. interpreted by the instruments B. targeted by Hubble's primary mirror
C. made visible to human eye D. observed through a hole
Question 39: The word “distant” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. remote B. sturdy C. shadowy D. awesome
Question 40: The word “It” in paragraph 7 refers to ______.
A. temperature B. chemical composition
C. Space Telescope Imaging Spectrograph D. space
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. A target can be locked onto one mile away by the telescope.
B. Light cannot be split into its individual wavelengths by a spectrograph.
C. Hubble can see each kind of light one at a time.
D. Images captured by the Advanced Camera for Surveys will be used to study activities in the universe.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 7?
A. NICMOS can see objects in deep space by sensing the heat only.
B. NICMOS captures images like an ordinary camera.
C. The way stars, galaxies and planetary systems form can be studied with NICMOS.
D. NICMOS helps scientists reach stars and other galaxies earlier.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 43: The ancient Britons inhabited this parts of England before the Roman invasion.
A. The B. this C. before D. invasion
Question 44: A dangerous number of radioactivity was released into the environment last month.
A. number of B. was released C. the D. last month
Question 45: When I reach there, the highest building had been destroyed by the storm!
A. reach B. the C. destroyed D. the
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 46: “If I were you, I wouldn’t go abroad at this time,” he said.
A. He reminded me not to go abroad at this time.
B. He informed me not to go abroad at that time.
C. He advised me not to go abroad at that time.
D. He inquired me not to go abroad at this time.
Question 47: It’s not good for you to drive at that high speed.
A. You may drive at that high speed. B. You needn’t drive at that high speed.
C. You must drive at that high speed. D. You shouldn’t drive at that high speed.
Question 48: The police started investigating the case a week ago.
A. The police didn’t investigate the case a week ago.
B. The police haven’t investigated the case for a week.
C. The police have investigated the case for a week.
D. The police started to investigate the case for a week.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: I can’t sing that English song. I really want to sing it with my favourite singer.
A. Although I can’t sing that English song, I will sing it with my favourite singer.
B. I wish I could sing that English song and could sing it with my favourite singer.
C. Since I can’t sing that English song, I can sing it with my favourite singer.
D. Though I can’t sing that English song, I will be able to sing it with my favourite singer.
Question 50: The doctor's waiting room was bright. It was cheerful with yellow walls and curtains.
A. Not only was the doctor's waiting room bright but it was also cheerful with yellow walls and curtains.
B. However the doctor's waiting room was, it was cheerful with yellow walls and curtains.
C. No sooner had the doctor's waiting room been bright than it was cheerful with yellow walls and curtains.
D. Had it not been for the doctor's bright waiting room, it wouldn’t have been cheerful with yellow walls and
curtains.
BỘ ĐỀ THÁNG 6 – MÃ 626 – TỰ LUYỆN THÊM

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. looked B. visited C. watched D. passed
Question 2: A. come B. month C. some D. comb
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. digest B. country C. flora D. fortune
Question 4: A. interact B. entertain C. fantastic D. submarine
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: The nuclear plant provides a fifth of the nation's ______ supplies.
A. labour B. vegetable C. water D. energy
Question 6: ________ the dog coming towards her, she quickly crossed the road.
A. saw B. To see C. Having seen D. Being seen
Question 7: A joke can be very revealing about what someone's ______ thinking.
A. real B. reality C. realize D. really
Question 8: They ______ the proposal and decided to give it their approval.
A. talked out B. talked over C. pulled out D. pulled over
Question 9: If you cook a good meal for the family, I'll ______ the washing-up.
A. do B. catch C. touch D. hit
Question 10: The children were vaccinated against the major childhood ______.
A. activities B. memories C. diseases D. mistakes
Question 11: The crisis hasn’t led to price rises in basic foodstuffs, ______?
A. hasn’t it B. has it C. hadn’t it D. had it
Question 12: The examinees __________ the result of the examination next week.
A. will tell B. will be told C. will have told D. will be telling
Question 13: I really don't know what all the fuss is ______ .
A. with B. at C. about D. on
Question 14: The more I know him, ______ I like him.
A. the less B. less C. the least D. least
Question 15: Mrs. Annie looks so graceful because she has ________ hair.
A. black beautiful long B. beautiful long black
C. long black beautiful D. long beautiful black
Question 16: The shop near her house had closed before she ______ there last night.
A. got B. has got C. gets D. will get
Question 17: Students are not allowed to handle these chemicals ______ they are under the supervision of a
teacher.
A. because of B. because C. except D. unless
Question 18: The smell of that bacon cooking is making my mouth ______.
A. wet B. water C. dry D. swallow
Question 19: You're not going out ______.
A. because you had finished this B. when you finished this
C. as soon as you were finishing this D. until you've finished this
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un-
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Children with single parents at my school were very much in the minority.
A. unhappy B. personal C. unmarried D. appropriate
Question 21: We must invest our time and energy in the development of our craft.
A. proposal B. power C. penalty D. ambition
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: I'm tired of all these cloak-and-dagger meetings - let's discuss the issues openly.
A. closely B. highly C. anxiously D. secretly
Question 23: I only thought about it the day before the game and had my heart in my mouth from then on.
A. was very composed B. was extremely nervous
C. was very tired D. was extremely panic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 24: John is complaining about Mark’s using his car without asking.
John: “Why on earth did you use my car without asking me first?”
Mark: “__________”
A. I’m terribly sorry for that. B. I don’t think so.
C. Why should I? D. No problem at all.
Question 25: Nam is giving wishes to his teacher at Christmas.
Nam: “Wish you a merry Christmas and a happy new year!”
Nam’s teacher: “__________”
A. Thank you! B. Wish you too!
C. You can wish me again! D. The same to you!
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
An internal “body clock” regulates your sleep cycle, controlling when you feel tired and ready for bed or
refreshed and alert. This clock operates on a 24-hour cycle known as the circadian rhythm. After waking up from
sleep, you’ll become increasingly tired throughout the day. These feelings will (26) ________ in the evening
leading up to bedtime.
This sleep drive – also known as sleep-wake homeostasis – may be linked to adenosine, an organic compound
produced in the brain. Adenosine levels increase throughout the day as you become (27) ________ tired, and then
the body breaks down this compound during sleep.
Light also influences the circadian rhythm. The brain contains a special region of nerve cells known as the
hypothalamus, (28) ________ a cluster of cells in the hypothalamus called the suprachiasmatic nucleus, which
processes (29) ________ when the eyes are exposed to natural or artificial light. These signals help the brain
determine whether it is day or night.
As natural light disappears in the evening, the body will release melatonin, a hormone that induces
drowsiness. When the sun rises in the morning, the body will release the hormone known as cortisol (30) ________
promotes energy and alertness.
Question 26: A. peak B. wrap C. fold D. lay
Question 27: A. every B. each C. many D. more
Question 28: A. because B. so C. and D. although
Question 29: A. missions B. signals C. options D. projects
Question 30: A. where B. who C. when D. that
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The Schengen Agreement is a treaty between European nations which eventually led to the creation of a
common travel area in which there are few internal border checks. The agreement gets its name from the town of
Schengen in Luxembourg, where it was signed by representatives of five of the ten member states of the then
European Economic Community (EEC). The agreement proposed measures intended to gradually abolish border
checks at the signatories' common borders, including hugely reducing vehicle checks, freedom for citizens to cross
borders, and the harmonization of visa policies.
In 1990, the original agreement was supplemented by the Schengen Convention which proposed the
complete abolition of systematic internal border controls and a common visa policy. This led to the creation of the
Schengen Area in 1995. It operates very much like a single state for international travel purposes, with external
border controls imposed on travellers entering and exiting the area, but with no internal border controls.
Originally, the Schengen treaties and the rules adopted under them were officially independent from the EEC
and its successor, the European Union (EU). In 1999, they were incorporated into European Union law by the
Treaty of Amsterdam, which codified Schengen into EU law while providing opt-outs for Ireland and the U.K.,
with the latter since leaving the EU. EU member states that don’t have an opt-out which have not already joined
the Schengen Area are legally obliged to do so when they meet technical requirements. Although it is linked to
EU law, several non-EU countries are included in the area, having signed up to the agreement.
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. The Town of Schengen in Luxembourg
B. Abolition of Systematic Internal Border Controls
C. The EEC and Its Successor
D. What is the Schengen Agreement?
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, The Schengen Agreement was signed by the representatives because
______.
A. the harmonization of visa policies couldn’t be achieved
B. they want to gradually abolish border checks
C. they want to reducing the number of vehicles
D. the number of citizens crossing borders must be controlled
Question 33: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. visa policy B. agreement
C. Schengen Convention D. abolition
Question 34: The word “obliged” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. enforced B. interested C. sacred D. united
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of the
Schengen treaties?
A. The Schengen treaties were independent from the EEC.
B. The Schengen Area included Ireland and the U.K as well.
C. They were incorporated into European Union law.
D. Some member are legally obliged to joined the Schengen Area.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
In addition to light, the sun radiates heat and a steady stream of charged particles known as the solar wind.
The wind blows about 280 miles (450 kilometres) a second throughout the solar system, extending the sun's
magnetic field out more than 10 billion miles. Beyond that distance, the solar wind gives way to the colder, dense
material that drifts in between stars, forming a boundary called the heliopause. So far, just two spacecraft—
Voyager 1 and Voyager 2—have crossed this cosmic threshold, which defines the start of interstellar space.
Every so often, a patch of particles will burst from the sun in a solar flare, which can disrupt satellite
communications and knock out power on Earth. Flares usually stem from the activity of sunspots, cool regions of
the photosphere that form and dissipate as the sun's internal magnetic field shifts. Solar flares and sunspots obey a
regular cycle, rising and falling in number every 11 years as the poles of the sun's magnetic field flip back and
forth.
Sometimes, the sun will also launch huge bubbles of magnetized particles from its corona, in events called
coronal mass ejections (CMEs). Some CMEs can grow as large as the sun itself and fling as much as a billion tons
of material in a given direction. As they rush from the sun, CMEs can send huge shockwaves through the solar
wind. If a CME collided with Earth, its particles could pack enough power to fry electronics in orbit and on Earth's
surface.
Like many energy sources, the sun will not last forever. It has already used up nearly half of the hydrogen in
its core. The sun will continue to burn through the hydrogen for another five billion years or so, and then helium
will become its primary fuel. At that point, the sun will expand to about a hundred times its current size, swallowing
Mercury and Venus—and maybe Earth. It will burn as a red giant star for another billion years and then collapse
into a white dwarf star.
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Solar Wind and Flares B. Material That Drifts in Between Stars
C. Huge Shockwaves Through the Solar Wind D. Hydrogen in Sun’s Core
Question 37: The word “dense” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. quiet B. mature C. hopeful D. thick
Question 38: In paragraph 2, Solar flares and sunspots ______.
A. burst from the sun in a solar flare B. change when sun's magnetic field changes
C. share the same characteristics D. form and dissipate cool regions of the photosphere
Question 39: The word “ejections” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. sessions B. versions C. emissions D. passions
Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. billion tons B. CMEs C. shockwaves D. particles
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The speed of the solar wind can reach 450 kilometres a second.
B. Flares are usually created by the activity of sunspots.
C. CMEs can grow larger than the sun itself.
D. Like many energy sources, the sun will die one day.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4?
A. The sun will exist as long as Mercury and Venus.
B. The sun will expand to about a thousand times its current size.
C. It’s impossible for the sun to collapse into a white dwarf star.
D. The sun will die when it runs out of the hydrogen in its core.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 43: When I last see Carrie, she was thinking of buying a house, but now she’s changed her mind.
A. When B. see C. buying D. mind
Question 44: Do you think this jacket looks a bit funny with this trousers?
A. think B. jacket C. a bit D. this
Question 45: The organizers failed to do the necessary arrangements for dealing with so many people.
A. The organizers B. to do C. necessary D. for dealing with
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 46: I have not met her and her husband for three years.
A. I last met her and her husband three years ago.
B. I have met her and her husband for three years.
C. I did not meet her and her husband three years ago.
D. I met her and her husband for three years.
Question 47: “I’m sorry I forgot your birthday,” Harry told Mary.
A. Harry asked Mary to forget his birthday.
B. Harry admitted having forgetting Mary’s birthday.
C. Harry apologized Mary for having forgotten her birthday.
D. Harry denied to have forget Mary’s birthday.
Question 48: It’s not good for you to be aggressive to customers.
A. You need to be aggressive to customers. B. You shouldn’t be aggressive to customers.
C. You may not be aggressive to customers. D. You must be aggressive to customers.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: She is busy with her work. She really wants to go out with them for dinner.
A. She wishes weren’t busy with her work and could go out with them for dinner.
B. She is busy with her work, so she wants to go out with them for dinner.
C. As soon as she isn’t busy with her work, she will go out with them for dinner.
D. Even if she is busy with her work, she still wants to go out with them for dinner.
Question 50: My father supported me much in my career. I did really well in my business.
A. So well did I do in my business that my father supported me much in my career.
B. Hardly had I done so well in my business when my father supported me much in my career.
C. Only after I had done so well in my business did my father support me much in my career.
D. Had it not been for my father’s support, I couldn’t have done so well in my business.

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