Crim
Crim
a. Catharsis hypothesis 47. An effect that occurs when criminals try new
b. Stress release hypothesis offenses they had previously avoided because
c. All of the above situation crime prevention programs neutralized their
d. Nota crime of choice
40. Violations of these canons of Code of ethics and a. DISCOURAGEMENT
professional responsibility of Criminologist which is b. DISPLACEMENT
considered as grave, shall be the termination as c. EXTINCTION
member in good standing of the criminology d. REPLACEMENT
profession, except 48. A shoplifter with the intention of reselling of his
a. Canon 9 stolen merchandise.
b. Canon 10 a. Fence
c. Canon 11 b. Booster
d. Canon 12 c. Reseller
41. For violation of these Canons, the sanction shall d. Retailer
be suspension. 49. An old English rule, which prefers to restitution
a. Grave paid for killing someone in an open fight, similar to
b. Less grave blood money
c. Minor a. Wergeld
d. Light b. Wergild
42. For violation of canons which is considered as c. Bet
minor, the penalty shall be d. Bot
a. Suspension 50. An individual who is complying with the law
b. Admonition because it is the right thing to do.
c. Disqualification a. Conformist
d. I.R b. Acute conformist
43. Contemporary criminology includes categorizing c. Natural conformist
criminal’s motives whether they are d. Organic conformist
_________
A. expressive or impressive THEORIES OF CRIME CAUSATION
B. instrumental and experimental 1. In general, it is not a theory but a category that
C. expressive or instrumental covers many perspectives regarding the interaction
D. experimental or motivational between biological and social factors as they relate to
44. An effect that occurs when crime control efforts crime.
targeting a particular locale help reduce crime in a. Sociobiology
surrounding areas and population- b. Evolutionary psychology
a. DISCOURAGEMENT c. Genetics
b. DISPLACEMENT d. Biosocial theory
c. EXTINCTION 2. This theory supports that behavior is regulated by
d. REPLACEMENT behavioral activating inhibition systems that are two
45. An effect that occurs when crime control efforts opposing mechanisms.
simply move, or redirect offenders to less heavily a. Reward dominance theory
guarded alternative targets. b. Behavior theory
a. DISCOURAGEMENT c. Differential association theory
b. DISPLACEMENT d. Psychological theory
c. EXTINCTION 3. What is means of "R" in the criminal formula by
d. REPLACEMENT Abrahamsen?
46. An effect that occurs when crime reduction A. Total Situation
programs produce a short-term positive effect, but B. Criminal Tendency
benefits dissipate as criminals adjust to new C. Temperament
conditions D. none of these
a. DISCOURAGEMENT 4. It is sensitive to reward and can be likened to an
b. DISPLACEMENT accelerator motivating a person to seek rewarding
c. EXTINCTION stimuli.
d. REPLACEMENT a. Motive
b. Behavioral inhibition system
EVOCATIVE – refers to the way others react to the aggressive. As a result of his experience, he always
individual on the basis of his or her behavior entangles into trouble and brawls. What specific
ACTIVE – seeking of environments compatible with theory can explain the causes of his criminal
our genetic dispositions behavior?
PASSIVE - refers to the association between the a. Anomie theory
genotype a child inherits from her parents and the b. Subculture theory
environment in which the child is raised. c. Strain theory
d. Differential theory
16. Refers to the association between the genotype a 23. Since childhood, Kardo idolized his father. He
child inherits from her parents and the environment in dreamed of becoming a top ranking police officer like
which the child is raised. his father. However, he did not qualify due to health
a. EVOCATIVE problem. As a result, he turned his frustration by
b. ACTIVE joining a gang that influence him to develop antisocial
c. PASSIVE behavior. This is supported by…
d. All of the above a. Anomie theory
17. This type of anxiety, which is very common and b. Differential association theory
that almost all of us have, originates from a young c. Labeling theory
age and refers to the Id and the impulses that arise d. Strain theory
instinctively. 25. Youths who fail in both the criminal and conflict
a. Neurotic anxiety subcultures tend to go into other areas of delinquency
b. Moral anxiety and deviant behavior like drinking alcoholic liquor,
c. Realistic anxiety smoking and drug addiction. This statement is
d. Anxiety consistent with which of the following?
18. A child becomes intensely distress and anxious by a. social structure
separation, and in new environments, they often cling b. retreatist subculture
anxiously to their parents without much exploration. c. conflict subculture
a. Attachment theory d. criminal subculture
b. Anxious-ambivalent attachment 26. Delinquent youth cannot adapt to conventional
c. avoidant attachment means by higher class to achieve conventional goals.
d. all of the above As a result, some of them formed a gang wherein
19. One of the basic tenets of this theory is that that they can achieve their goals through illegal means.
if the government intervenes in the lives of offenders, a. Conformity
for example by arresting them, they will only make b. Innovation
things worse. c. Ritualism
a. Labeling theory d. Retreatism
b. Anomie theory e. Rebellion
c. Strain theory 27. Assume that everyone has the potential to violate
d. Stress theory the law and that criminality is not an innate human
20. This asserts that strong self-image protects the characteristic.
youth from the influence and pressure of a. Social process theories
criminogenic pulls in his environment. b. Social control theory
a. Rational Choice theory c. Social learning theory
b. Conflict theory d. Sociological theory
c. Label theory 28. These theories assume that people are born with
d. Containment theory no tendency to commit crimes but that they learn to
21. Emphasize relationships among social institutions be aggressive through their life experiences.
and describe the types of behavior that tend to a. Social process theories
characterized groups of people rather than b. Social control theory
individuals. c. Social learning theory
a. Social process theories d. Social structure theories
b. Social control theory 29. These are morally tinged influences that have
c. Social learning theory become entrenched in the culture but are publicly
d. Social structure theories condemned.
22. Kardo suffered from frustration because of his a. Subterranean values
failure to pass his 2 subjects and became angry and b. Social values
42. This theory claims that people do not change; b. Adler's theory of masculinity
maturity brings fewer opportunities, early social c. Power control theory
control like proper parenting can reduce criminal d. Critical feminist
propensity. e. Opportunity theory
a. Life course theory 48. In this theory includes that in egalitarian families,
b. Routine activity theory in which the husband and the wife share similar
c. Lifestyle theory positions of power at home and in the workplace –
d. Latent trait theory daughters gain a kind of freedom that reflects
e. Age graded theory reduced parental control.
43. In this theory, the type of crime committed by a. Marginalization theory
certain individual is in consonance with his age or his b. Adler's theory of masculinity
age governs or dictates the type of crime to be c. Power control theory
committed by him. d. Critical feminist
a. Life course theory e. Opportunity theory
b. Routine activity theory 49. It is carried out by women whose office jobs can
c. Lifestyle theory be characterized as being set on a low to medium
d. Latent trait theory level, or more simply speaking, at a position as
e. Age graded theory accountants etc. That is, women who may not have
44. According to this view, as children mature within carrying, main functions, but still have enough powers
their environment, elements of socialization control and opportunities to commit fraud or theft at their
their development process and either insulate them jobs.
from delinquency or encourage their antisocial a. Blue collar crime
activities. b. White collar crime
a. Social development model c. Feminist crime
b. Differential coercion theory d. Women crime
c. Control balance theory e. Nota
d. AGE - GRADED THEORY 50. This theory claims that the cause of criminality
45. Kardo, because of poverty, forced to steal from originates with the onset of male supremacy and the
convenience store to satisfy his hunger. What source efforts of males to control female sexuality.
of coercion is this? a. Critical feminist
a. Interpersonal coercion b. Feminist criminology
b. Impersonal coercion c. MARGINALIZATION THEORY
c. Personal coercion d. Power control theory
d. Economic coercion HUMAN BEHAVIOR & VICTIMOLOGY
e. Two sources of coercion. 1. Is a process in which a progressive series of
Interpersonal coercion – is direct, involving the changes occurs as a result of maturation and
use of threat or force and intimidation from parents, experience of a person.
peers, and law enforcement officer. a. Development
Impersonal coercion – involves [pressures beyond b. Human development
individual control, such as economic and social c. Innovation
pressure caused by unemployment, poverty or d. Maturation
competition among businesses or other groups 2. It refers to the person’s knowledge of a given
46. This strength of the theory is that it can explain stimulus which largely helps to determine the actual
the pattern and trends of female crime in first world behavioral response in a given situation.
nations and it explains the involvement of women in a. Perception
property crime. b. awareness
a. Marginalization theory c. Sensation
b. Adler's theory of masculinity d. Learning
c. Power control theory 3. What is that common human tendency to discount
d. Critical feminist the influence of the situation and explain behavior by
e. Opportunity theory referring to the personality of the actor instead?
47. This theory says that increasing chances of A. Self-serving bias
women reduced the rates of violent female offending, B. Crime of obedience
but increased the rates of property crimes. C. Frustration-induced situation
a. Marginalization theory D. Fundamental attribution error
4. Which describes traits of people who will often try D. Primary psychopath
to justify their faults often think that any criticism is 11. Primary psychopathy has a characteristic
directed at them; loves praises because it gives them emotional deficiency while Secondary psychopathy
temporary self-confidence; and they do not like is characterized by______
competition unless they are certain to win because it a. Emotional disorder
hurts them too much when they lose? b. emotional disturbance
A. Superiority complex c. organic disorder
B. Maladjusted personality d. functional disorder
C. Anti-personality disorder 12. Jose and his fellow adolescents are living with
D. Inferiority complex economic difficulties and are engaged in some
5. In the Mendelsohn's victim types, who is the victim unlawful activities. Adjacent in their environment is a
with minor guilt? subdivision not regularly patrolled by policemen and
A. No provocation or facilitating behavior "tanods" and whose residents are mostly middle and
B. Victim provokes or instigate the casual act upper class of the society whose houses are fully
C. Victim was engaging in vice crimes and was equipped with easily saleable items, fixtures and
hurt, suicide victim appliances. Applying the routine activity theory, which
D. Victim inadvertently places himself in may aptly consider to Jose and his fellow
compromising situation adolescents?
6. What occurs when a victim unintentionally makes it A. Motivated offenders
easier for an offender to commit a crime, a victim B. Economically poor
may, and in this way be a catalyst for victimization ? C. Suitable targets
A. Victim precipitation D. Capable guardians
B. Victim provocation 13. What is the sexual disfunction wherein there is no
C. Victim facilitation sexual drive or interest in sexual activity?
D. Victim instigation A. Sexual aversion disorder
7. Which of the following conditions is characterized B. Hypoactive sexual desire disorder
by a cluster of behavioral and emotional features that C. Sexual pain disorder
were often shared by women who have been D. Post traumatic sexual disorder
physically and psychologically abused over a period of 14. What is the false interpretation of external
time by the dominant male figure in their lives? stimulus which manifested through sight, hearing,
A. Intimate partner violence taste, smell and touch?
B. Munchausen syndrome by proxy A. Hallucination
C. Same sex domestic violence B. Illusion
D. Battered women syndrome C. Delusion
8. Which of the following is the true psychopath? D. Mania
A. Secondary psychopath 15. Which of the following is characterized by infantile
B. Dyssocial psychopath level of response, lack of conscience, deficient feeling
C. Neurotic of affection to others and aggression to environment
D. Primary psychopath and other people?
9. They have often grown up with parental conflict A. Schizophrenic personality
and harsh inconsistent parenting. They display B. Psychopathic personality
aggressive, antisocial behaviour learned from their C. Compulsive neurosis
subculture. D. Neurotic personality
A. Secondary psychopath 16. Which of the following is a disorder characterized
B. Dyssocial psychopath by chronic mental and physical fatigue and by various
C. Neurotic aches and pains?
D. Primary psychopath A. Anxiety disorder
10. They commit antisocial or violent acts because of B. Somatoform disorder
severe emotional problems or inner conflicts. They C. Dissociative disorder
demonstrate more emotional instability and D. Amnesia
impulsivity than primary psychopath, and are more 17. In Sigmund Freud's psychosexual development, in
aggressive and violent. phallic stage, the libido focuses on what?
A. Secondary psychopath A. Bowel and bladder control
B. Dyssocial psychopath B. Mouth area
C. Neurotic C. Genitals
he shall be facing administrative case. What type of Statement number 4:, moral is the application of
duty is the above mentioned? ethics.
A. Natural duties a. 1 and 2 only
B. Positive duties b. 1,2 and 3 only
C. Confirmative duties c. 1,3 and 4 only
D. Negative duties d. All of the above
24. It was observed by the public through media and 30. Peter was walking down the street when he heard
news print outs that Police Chief Dalisay was several boys catcall a lady who was wearing mini
exercising proper legitimate use of authority in the skirt. Peter told the group to stop what they are doing
performance of his duty to avoid critiques from the since it was wrong. Select which best describes
oppositions, Police Chief Dalisay is performing what Peter's action.
ethical standard? A. Moral decision
A. Police discretion B. Moral issue
B. Public service C. Courtesy
C. Justice D. Moral judgment
D. Judicious use of authority 31. A type of vincible ignorance where the agent is
25. What is the most supreme CORE VALUES of the very much aware and fully capable of overcoming his
Philippine National Police? own ignorance without exerting much effort and it
A. Respect for sanctity of marriage can increase culpability for a sin, especially if it
B. Respect for women displays hardness of heart.
C. Respect for authority a. studied ignorance
D. Love of God b. Vincible ignorance
26. The PNP members shall actively involved in all c. Invincible ignorance
civic, religious and other social activities with the end d. Nota
purpose of increasing ____ awareness. 32. Kardo was a bus driver. As he was driving near a
A. Business bridge, he noticed a couple riding a motorbike. When
B. Camaraderie he applied the brakes, it did not respond. The only
C. Religious way he could avoid the couple is to ditch the vehicle
D. Social into the river which will possibly kill numerous
27. What does it presents if Patrolman Kardo and his passengers or run over the couple. This situation
immediate family members were actively involved in which calls for choosing between, two evils is called
the religious, social and civic activities which a. Moral judgment
somehow enhance the image of the Police b. Moral dilemma
Organization even without affecting Patrolman Kardo c. Moral decision
official duties? d. Moral issue
A. Non-partisanship 33. All public officers and employees of the
B. Physical Fitness government including every member of the armed
C. Table manners forces shall, before entering upon the discharge of his
D. Social awareness duties ______
28. Public officials and employees shall provide a. bear true faith and allegiance to it; obey the
service to everyone without unfair discrimination and laws, legal orders and decrees promulgated
regardless of party affiliation or preference. by the duly constituted authorities
A. Police neutrality b. Take an oath or affirmation to uphold and
B. Political neutrality defend the Constitution
C. Professionalism c. voluntarily assumes the obligation imposed
D. Commitment to public interest by his oath of office
29. Which oof the following is/are true? d. Copies of the oath shall be deposited with
Statement number 1: Ethics ordinarily suggests the the Civil Service Commission and the
study of moral conduct or the principle underlying the National Archives.
desirable types of human conduct; 34. Officers authorized to administer oaths, with the
Statement number 2. Morals ordinarily refers to the exception of __________are not obliged to administer
human conduct itself. oaths or execute certificates save in matters of official
Statement number 3: Ethics will guide a person’s business.
judgment concerning the morality of human acts 1. notaries public
C. Serve as an effective instrument in the moral outcome of which decides whether possible bad
values internalization in the PNP consequences will follow.
D. Gives moral and ethical guidance to all PNP A. Disaster
members B. Risk
45. Which PNP ethical standard mandates that PNP C. Crisis
members are public servant and not the masters of D. Incident
the people and they shall perform their duties without 2. Which is not a positive effect of time in hostage
arrogance? crisis negotiation?
A. Obedience A. Abrupt tactical movement
B. Discipline B. Reduced anxiety
C. Courtesy C. Allow formation of Stockholm syndrome
D. Humility D. Increase human needs
46. Which of the following choices exemplifies that 3. The following are the tested methods of closing a
PNP members shall provide services to everyone negotation, except _____.
without discrimination regardless of party affiliation? A. Do not offer deadlines and warnings
A. Non-partisanship B. Offer concessions
B. Non-solicitation of political patronage C. Split the difference
C. Devotion to duty D. Suggest an adjournment
D. Secrecy discipline 4. An essential element of crisis management that
47. Identify the basic mission of the police. focuses on mitigating the adverse effects that may be
A. To serve and protect brought about by an incident.
B. Cooperation from the public a. Incident management
C. To bear fruitful allegiance to the government b. Consequence management
D. Crime prevention c. Risk management
48. The PICE program is intended to enhance police d. A and b
skills and to promote work ethics. The acronym 5. The main strategy for settling disputes in
P.I.C.E stands for? Katarungang Pambarangay.
A. Police Investigations Corrections Education a. To provide a venue for the disputing parties
B. Police Information and Continuing Education to search for a solution that is mutually
C. People's Initiative for Corrective Education acceptable.
D. Police Investigation and Correctional b. To assist the parties in discussing the
Engagement possible amicable settlement of their
49. Patrolman Kardo hosted a birthday party in a disputes.
hotel which provided him with one free room. When c. To promote autonomy among parties in
he was in the room, he found out that he lost several settling their disputes.
pieces of jewelry and cash. Suspecting that the d. All of these
program coordinator is the perpetrator, Patrolman
Kardo frisked him in front of the guests. Which is the 6. Natural calamities and disasters are the
basis of the civil liability of Patrolman Kardo, if any? responsibilities of the ________ while PNP shall act as
A. Abuse of a right the _________
B. Doctrine of self help a. National and Local Peace and Order Council :
C. Doctrine of vicarious liability Support Personnel
D. Performance of duty b. National and Local Disaster Risk Reduction
50. The PNP is characterized as an agency which is and Management Council : First Responder
civilian in character and national in scope. What is the c. National and Local Peace and Order Council :
source of this provision? First Responder
A. RA 8551 d. National and Local Disaster Risk Reduction
B. 1987 Constitution Section 6 Article XVI and Management Council : Support
C. 1987 Constitution Section 16 Article VI Personnel
D. RA 6975 7. Restorative justice is an approach focused on
DISPUTE RESOLUTION AND CRISIS determining the following, except:
MANAGEMENT a. What is the harm resulted from the crime
1. Which refers to a turning point in the course of b. What law was broken
something decisive or crucial time, stage or event? It c. What needs to be done to repair the harm
may also mean a time of great danger or trouble, the d. Who is responsible for repairing the harm
8. Retributive justice focuses on the past by b. May also act as arbitrator of the same
determining the person to be blamed for the crime dispute
committed, while restorative justice ______ c. May also act as arbitrator of the same
a. Requires that the punishment fit the crime dispute if the parties expressly authorized
and that like cases be treated alike. d. Nota
b. Wrongdoers deserve blame and punishment 15. A mediation service provider may determine such
in direct proportion to the harm inflicted mediation fee as is reasonable taking into
c. Focused on determining the following what consideration the following factors, among others,
law was broken. except.
d. Focuses on the future to determine the a. The social class or standing of both parties
matters to be considered so that the crime b. The complexity of the case.
will not be repeated. c. The number of hours spent in mediation.
9. How shall the vacancies in the Pangkat be filled d. The training, experience and stature of
up? mediators.
a. Shall be chosen by the parties to a dispute 16. It is not required that a mediator shall have
b. shall be chosen by chairman of Lupon special qualifications by background or profession
c. shall be chosen by secretary of Lupon unless the special qualifications of a mediator shall,
d. shall be chosen by chairman of pangkat except:
10. The primary role of the Katarungang a. Maintain the continually upgrade his/her
Pambarangay System. professional competence in mediation skills.
a. To provide a venue for the disputing parties b. The mediator does not have the
to search for a solution that is mutually qualifications, training and experience to
acceptable. enable him/her to meet the reasonable
b. To assist the parties in discussing the expectations of the parties.
possible amicable settlement of their c. Ensure that his/her qualifications, training
disputes. and experience are known to and accepted
c. To promote autonomy among parties in by the parties.
settling their disputes. d. Nota
d. All of these 17. A mediator shall recognize and put in mind that
11. Hostage has ______ value to the hostage taker. the primary responsibility of resolving a dispute and
a. Indispensable the shaping of a voluntary and uncoerced settlement
b. Important rests with the parties.
c. Timely a. IMPARTIALLY
d. No b. CONFIDENTIALITY
12. What is the ultimate goal of mediation c. CONSENT AND SELF-DETERMINATION
a. To help the disputants to come to a d. SEPARATION OF MEDIATION FROM
consensus of their own. COUNSELING AND LEGAL ADVICE
b. To render a peaceful resolution 18. A mediator shall make reasonable efforts to
c. Both a and b ensure that each party understands the nature and
d. Nota character of the mediation proceeding.
13. A stage wherein the neutral third party focuses on a. IMPARTIALLY
the interest, improve cooperation, minimizing impact b. CONFIDENTIALITY
of problems and eliminating adversarial attitude of c. CONSENT AND SELF-DETERMINATION
both parties. d. SEPARATION OF MEDIATION FROM
a. Preventive And Cooperation Stage COUNSELING AND LEGAL ADVICE
b. Dispute De-escalation Control and Real Time 19. A mediator shall refrain from giving legal or
Resolution Stage technical advice and otherwise engaging in counseling
c. Facilitated Resolution Stage or advocacy.
d. Binding Resolution Stage a. IMPARTIALLY
14. As a general rule, a mediator, after having been b. CONFIDENTIALITY
engaged and having acted as mediator of a dispute c. CONSENT AND SELF-DETERMINATION
between the parties, following a failed mediation d. SEPARATION OF MEDIATION FROM
______________ COUNSELING AND LEGAL ADVICE
a. Shall not act as arbitrator of the same
dispute
a. The child in conflict with the law who is 49. The preliminary investigation of cases related to
at least 15 years old and below is child abuse shall be terminated ________
determined by the LSWDO to be a. Within a period of 60 days from the date of
dependent, abandoned, neglected or filing
abused by the parents. b. within a period of 45 days from the date of
b. The best interest of the child requires that filing.
the child be placed in a youth care facility or c. within a period of 30 days from the
“Bahay Pag-asa,” date of filing.
c. The child, who is above twelve (12) years of d. within a period of 15 days from the date of
age up to fifteen (15) years of age, commits filing.
a serious crime under RA 10630 50. Which of the following is the universal or generic
d. All of the above term used for youthful offender?
45. A child in conflict with law may undergo diversion A. Child at risk
proceedings outside of the criminal justice system B. Juvenile delinquent
when the case is referred to the Barangay through C. Minor offender
the_______ D. Child in conflict with the law
a. Chairman RESEARCH 1 AND 2
b. Lupong tagapamayapa 1. It is the primary tool for advancing any body of
c. Pangkat tagapagkasundo knowledge, including the field of criminal justice
d. Pangkat tagapagsindi a. Research
46. The child, together with the parents or guardians, b. Investigation
shall present themselves to the competent authorities c. Criminological research
that imposed the diversion program, d. Nota
____________for reporting and evaluation of the 2. It is a systematic and accumulative study of issues
effectiveness of the program. related to the causes and consequences of crime and
a. at least once a month it lies at the heart of criminological theory, influences
b. at least twice a month social policy development, as well as informs criminal
c. Not less than three times justice practice.
d. As may be determined by court a. Research
47. General rule, the investigation of the crime b. Investigation
committed by a child shall be conducted by the____ c. Criminological research
a. WCPD d. Nota
b. general investigation section. 3. It is defined as an attribute of an object of study.
c. CIDG These are names that are given to the variance the
d. Prosecutor researcher wishes to explain.
48. If any person contesting the age of the child in a. Variance
conflict with the law, prior to the filing of the b. Variables
information in any appropriate court, what shall be c. Variation
done? d. Attributes
1. file a case in a summary proceeding 4. The term "thesis" comes from the Greek meaning
which shall be decided by the judge __________, and refers to an intellectual proposition.
within twenty-four (24) hours a. something put forth
2. file a motion to determine the age b. discussion
of the child in the same court c. to discuss
where the case is pending. d. to prove
3. file a motion for temporary 5. Research is being undertaken within a framework
suspension of hearing while the of a set of ______ which means approaches either
contest is pending on court qualitative, quantitative and the academic discipline in
4. file a complaint in barangay or which you have been trained.
police station a. Validity
a. 1 and 2 b. Philosophies
b. 1 and 4 c. Research instrument
c. 2 and 3 d. Research design
d. 3 and 4 6. It is designed to collect data that may help develop
a new theory about a process or phenomenon. The