1.

An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is

admissible in a court of law if it was made in the
presence of a counsel of his own choice and must be in
A. the presence of a fiscal
B. the presence of a police investigator
C. writing
D. front of a judge
C
2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and
supervision of the
A. National Bureau of Investigation
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government
C. Supreme Court
D. Department of Justice
D
3. The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way
and is most often used to question criminal suspects to
determine their probable guilt or innocence.
A. Inquiry
B. Interview
C. polygraph examination
D. interrogation
D
4. A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a
different and unofficial identity.
A. Tailing
B. Casing
C. Espionage
D. Undercover work
D
5. A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and
actions are taken in not losing the subject.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
D
6. A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of
the subject’s habits and associates is required.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
A
7. A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the
anticipated arrival of a suspect or observing his actions
from a fixed location.
A. Casing
B. Tailing
C. Stake out
D. Espionage
C
8. An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or
effects or a building, or premises with the purpose of
discovering contrabands or personal properties connected
in a crime.
 A. Search
B. Raid
C. Investigation
D. Seizure
A
9. A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence
of a different character to the same point.
A. Corroborative evidence
B. Circumstantial evidence
C. Direct evidence
D. Real evidence
A
10. The process of bringing together in a logical manner all
evidence collected during the investigation and present
it to the prosecutor.
A. case preparation
B. order maintenance
C. crime prevention
D. public service
A
11. Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping
and capturing the law breaker during the execution of a
criminal act.
A. Instigation
B. Inducement
C. Buy bust operation
D. Entrapment
D
12. A special qualification for an undercover agent.
A. excellent built
B. excellent eyesight
C. excellent looks
D. excellent memory
D
13. The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles
for the purpose of obtaining information concerning the
identities or activities of suspects.
A. close observation
B. espionage
C. tailing
D. surveillance
D
14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers
after that person has been taken into custody.
A. preliminary investigation
B. interrogation
C. custodial investigation
D. cross examination
B
15. As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at
A. day time
B. night time
C. any day and at any time of the day or night
D. weekdays
C
 16. Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or
attempts to be present when they are committed, through
the use of the undercover agents, electronic devices for
wiretapping or bugging, and stakeouts.
A. preventive measures
B. countermeasures
C. pro-active measures
D. tape measures
C
17. A police activity directed toward the identification and
apprehension of alleged criminals and the accumulation,
preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding
their alleged crimes.
A. police patrol
B. police intelligence
C. Criminal procedure
D. Criminal investigation
D
18. An extension or continuation of the preliminary
investigation.
A. initial investigation
B. custodial investigation
C. secondary investigation
D. follow-up investigation
D

19. To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary

purpose of
A. Interview
B. Surveillance
C. Investigation
D. Interrogation
D
20. Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably
discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has
been committed and that the object sought in connection
with the offense are in the place sought to be searched.
A. prima facie evidence
B. probable cause
C. prejudicial question
D. res ipsa loquitur
B
21. A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its
date. Thereafter, it shall be void.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45
A
22. It means that a specific crime was committed at a
specified time, date and place, and that the person named
in his report committed the crime.
A. corpus delicti
B. sufficiency of evidence
C. stare decisis
D. parens patriae
A
23. Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places
where crimes might be committed and by alerting citizens
to refrain from practices that make them or their
property vulnerable.
A. opportunity denial
B. order maintenance
C. criminal investigation
D. police intelligence
A
24. A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his
guilt.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
B

25. It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the

guilty fact as charge or of some essential part of the
commission of the criminal act itself.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
B
26. It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject
falling short of an acknowledgement of guilt.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
A
27. The simplest type of interview which concerns with the
gathering of information regarding the personal
circumstances of a person who is the subject of
investigation.
A. background interview
B. personal interview
C. intimate interview
D. pre-game interview
A
28. It means method of operation.
A. corpus delicti
B. parens patriae
 C. stare decisis
D. modus operandi
D
29. It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not
be shown in order to obtain conviction.
A. Intent
B. Motive
C. Opportunity
D. Inducement
B
30. The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their
application varies in proportion on their necessity to
establish the guilt of the accused in a criminal case.
A. information, interrogation, instrumentation
B. detection, apprehension, conviction ‘
C. inquiry, observation, conclusion
D. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure
A
31. The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in
the investigation.
A. Interview
B. Inquiry
C. Interrogation
D. Instrumentation
A
32. It involves a number of persons who might have handled
evidence between the time of the commission of the
alleged offense and the disposition of the case, should
be kept to a minimum.
A. chain of command
B. chain of custody
C. evidence tracking
D. tracing evidence
A
33. A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime
scene or offense. Examples are fingerprints, impressions,
blood etc.
A. physical evidence
B. associative evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. factual evidence
C
34. Articles and materials which are found in connection with
an investigation and which help in establishing the
identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances under
which the crime was committed or which in general, assist
in the prosecution of the criminal.
A. physical evidence
B. documentary evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. testimonial evidence
A
35. The following are different techniques in interrogation
except one:
A. sympathetic approach
B. emotional appeal
 C. financial assistance
D. friendliness
C
36. This may be applicable to a crime scene which is
approximately circular or oval. The searchers gather at
the center and proceed outward along radii or spokes.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
B
37. The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each
searcher is assigned to one quadrant.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
D
38. The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime
scene beginning in the outside and circling around a
central point.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
C
39. A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being
followed.
A. Convoy
B. Caravan
C. Tailing
D. Surveillance
C
40. Another term for tailing.
A. Impersonating
B. Backing
C. Supporting
D. Shadowing
D
41. A person who gives necessary information to the
investigator. He may give the information openly and
even offer to be a witness or he may inform the
investigator surreptitiously and request to remain
anonymous.
A. Witness
B. Expert witness
C. Hostile witness
D. Informant
D
42. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record
discreetly conversations of other people.
A. Bugging
B. Dubbing
C. Mimicking
D. Tapping
A
43. The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved
in a crime, but who knows about the crime or individuals
involved in it.
A. Interrogation
B. rumor mongering
C. interview
D. inquiry
C
44. An objective of criminal investigation.
A. determine the motive
B. identify criminals
C. rehabilitate criminals
D. prevent crimes
B
45. A term used to describe a transition which occur in the
development of a fire, when, for example, most of all the
combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their
ignition temperature at the same time.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
C
46. A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed
process of a solid is very complicated, since the
proportion of different flammable vapours varies from one
material to another and contact with oxygen must take
place before combustion can begin.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
B
47. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or
vacuum in a similar way to that of light.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
C
48. The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter
to cooler parts.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
D
49. The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime
scene is to
A. interview witnesses
B. view the site of the crime
C. preserve the fire/crime scene
D. phot opportunity in the fire/crime scene
C
50. Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly; it
is either set for revenge or self aggrandizing; or set by
psychotic fire setter, or for sexual gratification.
A. group fire setter
B. arson for profit
C. fire starter
D. solitary fire setter
D

51. The primary course of action in case of a fire.

A. pack up and flee
B. run for your life
C. call an ambulance
D. raise the alarm
D
52. The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not
poisonous but is an asphyxiant which lowers the
proportion of oxygen available for breathing.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
D
53. A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous,
especially when the air supply to the fire is restricted.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
B
54. The fire resisting property of structural elements and the
behavior of a building material in a fire, it is used to
predict how long it will resist the effect of a fire
before it fails.
A. fire resistance
B. fire duration
C. fire proof
D. fire strength
A
55. A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of
certain metals in finely divided forms; magnesium,
potassium, zinc, etc….
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
D
56. A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper,
textiles, and other carbonaceous materials.
Extinguishment of this fire is by quenching and cooling.
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
 D. class D
A
57. The following are components of fire except one:
A. Gas
B. Fuel
C. Oxygen
D. Heat
A
58. It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator
of the fire travel and point of origin.
A. Charring
B. Alligatoring
C. V pattern
D. Pour pattern
A
59. A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and
wood.
A. Crazing
B. Spalling
C. Light bulbs
D. Charring
A
60. A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the
fire and allow him to establish an alibi.
A. Accelerants
B. delaying tactic
C. timing device
D. stopper
C
61. It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors,
and the most common examples are gasoline, turpentine and
kerosene.
A. Accelerants
B. Trailers
C. timing device
D. Stopper
A
62. This catalytic combustion device is the most common means
employed to detect flammable vapors.
A. Accelerant
B. Sniffer
C. timing device
D. stopper
B
63. The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire
and experience gratification and satisfaction from it.
A. fire starter syndrome
B. pyrotechnic disease
C. pyromania
D. pyrophobia
C
64. It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.”
A. PD 1108
B. PD 1017
C. PD 1081
D. PD 1185
D

65. Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer

used to set off explosives.
A. blasting agent
B. blasting cap
C. gun powder
D. explosive primer
A
66. These are description of materials or compounds that are
easily set on fire except one:
A. Combustible
B. Corrosive
C. Flammable
D. Inflammable
B
67. Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree
Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
A
68. Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic
matter.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
A
69. An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of
an electric current across the space between two
conductors.
A. electrical arc
B. damper
C. duct system
D. ember
A
70. The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat
and light combustion.
A. explosion
B. arson
C. combustion
D. fire
D
71. A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.
A. class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
B
 72. A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas
where fluid at one temperature and density moves under
the influence of gravity at different temperatures.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Combustion
B
73. The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or
converted to vapor.
A. burning point
B. melting point
C. freezing point
D. boiling point
B
74. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a
collision course or to avoid hazard.
A. point of no return
B. point of no escape
C. start of evasive action
D. final position
C
75. The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or
highway.
A. Traffic
B. Flight
C. Trip
D. Journey
A
76. A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements
from two or more reference points.
A. traffic report
B. spot report
C. triangulation
D. accident investigation
C
77. The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of
the earth.
A. Inertia
B. Friction
C. Energy
D. Gravity
D
78. Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but
only injuries to one or more persons.
A. Fatal
B. Chronic
C. Non fatal
D. Injurious
B

79. The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of

the Philippines”
A. RA 7160
B. RA 8551
 C. RA 6425
D. RA 4136
D
80. An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually
produces unintended injury, death or property damage.
A. traffic incidents
B. traffic accidents
C. traffic hazards
D. traffic events
B
81. Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.
A. non motor vehicle traffic accident
B. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. motor vehicle traffic accident
D
82. An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in
court, but without detaining him.
A. traffic citation
B. traffic request
C. traffic warrant
D. traffic violation
A
83. The first accidental touching of an object collision
course or otherwise avoid a hazard.
A. primary contact
B. secondary contact
C. disengagement
D. initial contact
D
84. The following are the three E’s of Traffic Management and
Operation except one:
A. Engineering
B. Education
C. Enforcement
D. Evaluation
D
85. The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.”
A. RA 9870
B. RA 9165
C. RA 1017
D. RA 6195
B
86. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying
emotional change, thought disruption and ego distortion.
They are called psyhedelics.
A. Tranquillisers
B. Hallucinogens
C. Stimulants
D. Depressants
B
87. Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or
dullness of the mind with delusions.
A. Stimulants
B. Narcotics
C. Depressants
 D. Hallucinogens
B
88. The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse
for money or profit.
A. Gynaecology
B. Prostitution
C. White Slavery
D. Sex Trade
B
89. The scientific name of Indian hemp plant.
A. cannabis sativa L
B. Papaver somniforum
C. deoxyribonucleic acid
D. methamphetamine HCl
A
90. The original components of heroin and morphine.
A. Codeine
B. Caffeine
C. Opium
D. Methamphetamine
C
91. An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the
law against illegal drugs.
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. Bureau of Foods and Drugs
C. Dangerous Drug Board
D. Food and Drug Administration
A
92. A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads
to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and
body.
A. Vice
B. Abuse
C. Addiction
D. Virtue
A
93. The most common form of stimulant.
A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. Shabu
D

94. It is chemically known as methamphetamine hydro chloride.

A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. None of these
D
95. A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.
A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Morphine
D. Caffeine
A
96. Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including
the seeds.
A. opium poppy
B. marijuana
C. caffeine components
D. codeine
A
97. Another term for psychological drug addiction.
A. drug habituation
B. drug net consciousness
C. drug pushing
D. drug dependence
D
98. Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or
dispensed only by a physician’s order.
A. illegal drugs
B. prohibited drugs
C. regulated drugs
D. prescription drugs
D
99. Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical
nature alters the structure and functioning of living
organism.
A. Alcohol
B. Poison
C. Drug
D. Vice
C
100.It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining
information to determine the origin and cause of fire.
A. Evidence collection
B. laboratory examination of evidence
C. interview witnesses
D. interrogation of suspects
C