2023 Philippine National Chemistry Olympiad REGIONAL ELIMINATIONS [04 FEBRUARY 2023]

2023 Philippine National Chemistry Olympiad

REGIONAL ELIMINATIONS
04 FEBRUARY 2023

Examination prepared by the 2023 PNCO Examination Committee Region XI

Directions to the Examiner:

1. Examinees must be in their designated seats at least 15 minutes prior to the examination.
Allow the students to take care of their personal needs (e.g. going to the comfort room,
getting their pen, pencil and eraser) before the examination proper.
2. Check the calculators to be used by students. Only non-programmable calculators should be
allowed and there should be no decals/ stickers that contain numerical and textual
information (e.g. constants, equations) that may be used in the examination.
3. Read the directions to the examinee aloud and answer if there are questions regarding the
directions.
4. The examination questionnaire has 8 pages and this includes the periodic table and this page.
Only one answer sheet should be given to each examinee. No additional papers should be
given to the examinees.
5. If a student wants to leave the room, the questionnaire and the answer sheet must be
submitted. Once submitted, the questionnaire and answer sheet may not be taken back by
the student.

Directions to the Examinee:

1. Before the examination, please take care of your personal needs. You will not be allowed to
leave the room during the examination proper unless you submit your questionnaire and
answer sheet.
2. Only pens, pencils, eraser, and non-programmable calculator are allowed on the desk during
the examination proper.
3. The sharing of pen, pencil, eraser, and calculator between examinees is prohibited. Likewise,
conversation between examinees during the duration of the examination is not allowed.
4. All questions pertaining to the examination (e.g. clarifications) must be addressed to the
proctor.
5. The use of programmable calculators, mobile phones, and other electronic gadgets is a
ground for disqualification.
6. Check the number of pages in your questionnaire. There should be 8 pages and it should
include a periodic table and the general instructions.
7. Shade the letter of your answer on the answer sheet provided. Shade the box corresponding
to your answer darkly and completely using a pencil. Please refer to the answer sheet any
additional instructions on shading and changing of answers.
8. You may write on the questionnaire; no additional scratch paper will be provided. Do not
detach any pages from the questionnaire.
9. If you finish before the duration of examination is over, you may give your questionnaire
and answer sheet to the examiner. However, once submitted, the questionnaire and answer
sheet may not be taken back.

DO NOT TURN TO NEXT PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO

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2023 Philippine National Chemistry Olympiad REGIONAL ELIMINATIONS [04 FEBRUARY 2023]

LIST OF CONSTANTS

R = 8.314 J/ mol·K
R = 0.0821 L·atm/mol·K
F = 96,485 C/ mol
N A = 6.022 × 10 23 units of substance/mol
c = 2.998 × 10 8 m/s
h = 6.626 × 10 –34 J·s
0°C = 273 K
1 atm = 760 mm Hg

PERIODIC TABLE

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2023 Philippine National Chemistry Olympiad REGIONAL ELIMINATIONS [04 FEBRUARY 2023]

Directions:
a. Choose the correct or best answer and shade the corresponding box on the answer sheet
provided using a pencil.
b. Completely shade the box and do not make stray marks. If you want to change your
answer, be sure to erase the unwanted answer completely.
c. For each question, there is only one answer. Items with more than one circle shaded will
not marked incorrect.

1. A 5.00 g portion of an ore containing silver was treated appropriately to yield 0.9871 g of silve r
chloride, AgCl. What is the mass percent of Ag in the sample?
(A) 19.7% (C) 14.9 %
(B) 26.2% (D) 14.7%

2. When heated in the presence of a suitable catalyst, potassium chlorate (KClO 3) decomposes to
potassium chloride (KCl) and oxygen gas. What volume of O2 is generated when 4.5 g of KClO 3 is
heated? The ambient pressure and temperature are 1.01 atm and 25°C, respectively.
(A) 0.89 L (C) 0.59 L
(B) 1.3 L (D) 1.8 L

3. For the following oxides, which is the most acidic?

(A) SO3 (C) P2O5
(B) SiO2 (D) CaO

4. Given the solubility of copper (II) arsenate, Cu 3(AsO4) 2, 3.71 × 10–8 M, the Ksp of Cu3(AsO4) 2 is:
(A) 7.0 × 10–38 (C) 7.6 × 10–36
(B) 1.4 × 10 –15 (D) 8.3 × 10–15

5. An aqueous solution of Cr(NO 3) 3 has a freezing point of – 1.49°C. What is its molality? (Kf =
1.86°C/m)
(A) 0.20 m (C) 0.40 m
(B) 0.27 m (D) 0.80 m

6. A sample of volatile liquid was placed in a 2.00 L flask and was heated at 95°C until completely
vaporized. The mass of the vapor that remained inside the flask was 3.84 g. The pressure was
1.0 atm. What is the molecular weight of the liquid?
(A) 58.1 g/mol (C) 116 g/mol
(B) 47.0 g/mol (D) 93.9 g/mol

7. What is the hydribization of carbon in graphite?

(A) sp (C) sp3
(B) sp2 (D) sp3d

8. Which of the following solutions will have the highest osmotic pressure?
(A) 0.5m oxalic acid, H2C2O4
(B) 0.5m ferric nitrate, Fe(NO 3) 3
(C) 0.7m barium hydroxide, Ba(OH) 2
(D) 1.0 m sodium laurate, CH3(CH2) 10CO2Na

9. Which of the following molecules contains polar covalent bonds but does not have a net dipole
moment?
(A) BF3 (C) SO2
(B) CH2Cl2 (D) NH3

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2023 Philippine National Chemistry Olympiad REGIONAL ELIMINATIONS [04 FEBRUARY 2023]

10. Below are the bond enthalpies of the interhalogen compounds Br–F, I–Br, Br–Cl, and Cl–F.

Based on the given data, which of the following compounds will you predict to be the most
reactive?
(A) BrF (C) BrCl
(B) IBr (D) ClF

11. The heat of solution of ammonium nitrate is 26.2 kJ/mol. If a 5.368 g sample of NH4NO3 is
added to 40.0 mL of water in a calorimeter at 23.5°C, what is the minimum temperature
reached by the solution? (The specific heat of water = 4.18 J/g·°C; the heat capacity of the
calorimeter = 650. J/°C)
(A) 21.4°C (C) 20.8°C
(B) 14.3°C (D) –7.7°C

12. Which of the following is consistent with an exothermic reaction that is spontaneous at all
temperatures?
(A) ΔH > 0, ΔS < 0, ΔG < 0
(B) ΔH > 0, ΔS > 0, ΔG < 0
(C) ΔH < 0, ΔS > 0, ΔG < 0
(D) ΔH < 0, ΔS < 0, ΔG < 0

13. The hybridization of carbon in ethylene is ____.

(A) sp (C) sp3
(B) sp 2 (D) sp3d

14. Consider the energy diagram for a reaction depicted below.

If the Ea for the forward reaction is 45 kJ/mol and the enthalpy of reaction is –95 kJ/mol, what
is Ea for the reverse reaction?
(A) 140 kJ/mol (C) 95 kJ/mol
(B) 50 kJ/mol (D) –50 kJ/mol

15. How many peaks will you expect for the proton-decoupled C-13 NMR spectrum for bridged
bicyclic hydrocarbon norbornane?

(A) 2 (C) 4
(B) 3 (D) 5
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16. Which set of quantum numbers is invalid?

(A) 1, 1, 0, +1⁄2 (C) 2, 1, 0, + 1⁄2
(B) 3, 2, 1, –1⁄2 (D) 4, 3, –3, + 1⁄2

17. Which of the following is not a condensation polymer?

(A) polyethylene terephthalate
(B) poly(methyl methacrylate)
(C) polyurethane
(D) poly(hexamethylene adipamide)

18. Stereoisomers which are not mirror images are also called:
(A) optical isomers (C) enantiomers
(B) conformers (D) diastereomers

19. Which of the following compounds does not contain a carbonyl group?
(A) acetyl chloride (C) cyclohexylamine
(B) 2-pentanone (D) butyric acid

20. The mass spectrum for propane is given below:

What is the most likely formula of the base peak fragment ion?
(A) [CH3]+ (C) [C2H5]+
(B) [C2H4]∙+ (D) [C3H8]∙+
21. Which of the following reagents can be used to distinguish an aldehyde from ketone?
(A) Brady’s reagent (2,4-dinitropicrylhydrazine)
(B) Jones reagent (chromic acid)
(C) Benedict’s reagent (CuSO4, citrate, carbonate)
(D) Tollen’s reagent (ammoniacal silver nitrate)

22. Which of the following compounds is aromatic?

23. In 1-butyne, HC≡CCH2CH3, there are __ sigma bonds.

(A) 3 (C) 6
(B) 11 (D) 9

24. Nitric oxide, NO, is used by the human cardiovascular system as a signal molecule. Using the
molecular orbital theory, what is the expected bond order for NO?
(A) 1 (C) 1.5
(B) 2 (D) 2.5

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2023 Philippine National Chemistry Olympiad REGIONAL ELIMINATIONS [04 FEBRUARY 2023]

25. Which of the following species is expected to have the shortest bond?
(A) dioxygen, O2 (C) superoxide, (O 2−∙)
(B) peroxide, O22– (D) dioxygenyl, O2+

26. Which one of the following elements would have the lowest melting point?
(A) Kr (C) S8
(B) Br2 (D) Ca

27. Arrange the following aqueous solutions in order of increasing boiling points: 0.050 m
Mg(NO3) 2; 0.100 m ethanol; 0.090 m NaCl.
(A) Mg(NO3) 2 < NaCl < ethanol
(B) NaCl < ethanol < Mg(NO 3) 2
(C) ethanol < Mg(NO3) 2 < NaCl
(D) Mg(NO3) 2 < ethanol < NaCl

28. Which one of these salts will form a basic solution upon dissolving in water?
A) NaI C) NH4NO3
B) NaF D) LiBr

29. Which of the following molecular orbital diagrams for butadiene represents the highest
occupied molecular orbital in the excited state?

30. Consider the species Cl2+, Cl2, and Cl2–. Which of these species will be paramagnetic?
(A) only Cl2 (C) Cl2 and Cl2–
(B) Cl2+ and Cl2– (D) Cl2+ and Cl2

31. A possible reaction leading to removal of ClO from the atmosphere is 2ClO → Cl2 + O2. Studies
of this reaction have yielded an Arrhenius frequency factor, A, and an activation energy of 1.0 x
10–12 cm3 molecule –1 s–1 and 13.2 kJ/mol, respectively. Calculate the rate constant for the
disappearance of ClO at –30°C.
(A) 1.5 x 10–15 M–1 s–1 (C) 8.7 x 105 M–1 s–1
–13
(B) 9.9 x 10 M s –1 –1 (D) 1.7 x 106 M–1 s–1

32. The electron in a hydrogen atom falls from an excited energy level to the ground state in two
steps, causing the emission of photons with wavelengths of 2624 and 97.2 nm. What is the
quantum number of the initial excited energy level from which the ele ctron falls?
(A) 6 (C) 4
(B) 3 (D) 2

33. The scattering of helium atoms by a solid can be used to gain information about the lattice of
atoms, provided the wavelength of the helium atoms is comparable to the dimensions of the
lattice. What is the wavelength, in picometers, of a helium-4 atom with a kinetic energy of 0.10
eV. (mass of 4He = 4.0026 amu; 1 amu = 1.67 × 10–24 g; 1 eV = 1.602 × 10–19 J)
(A) 50 pm (C) 45 pm
(B) 87 pm (D) 72 pm

34. The first ionization energy of sodium is 495.9 kJ/mol. The energy change for the reaction Na(s)
→ Na+(g) + e– is therefore _____.
(A) 495.9 kJ/mol. (C) greater than 495.9 kJ/mol.
(B) less than 495.9 kJ/mol. (D) is equal to the electron affinity of sodium.

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2023 Philippine National Chemistry Olympiad REGIONAL ELIMINATIONS [04 FEBRUARY 2023]

35. Initially 1 mol of O2 is contained in a 1-liter vessel, and 5 mol of N 2 are in a 2-liter vessel; the two
vessels are connected by a tube with a stopcock. If the stopcock is opened and the gases mix,
what is the entropy change?
(A) 25.99 J/K (C) -25.99J/K
(B) 45.01 J/K (D) -45.01 J/mol

36. A form of radiationless relaxation in which the analyte moves from a higher electronic energy
level to a lower electronic energy level with a different spin state is called _______.
(A) absorption (C) internal conversion
(B) vibrational relaxation (D) intersystem crossing

37. Calculate the energy change for the reaction:

K(g) + Br(g) → K+(g) + Br–(g)
given the following ionization energy (IE) and electron affinity (EA) values:
Ionization Energy Electron Affinity
(IE) (EA)
K 419 kJ/mol 48 kJ/mol
Br 1140 kJ/mol 324 kJ/mol

(A) –1,092 kJ/mol (C) –95 kJ/mol

(B) 1,092 kJ/mol (D) 95 kJ/mol

38. A type of coprecipitated impurity, occurs when physically adsorbed interfering ions become
trapped within the growing precipitate.
(A) occlusion (C) mixed-crystal formation
(B) mechanical entrapment (D) adsorption

39. Which one of these metals would normally be obtained by chemical reduction?
(A) aluminum (C) lithium
(B) calcium (D) vanadium

40. Phosphoric acid is the most important of the phosphorus oxoacids. Industrially, phosphoric acid
is prepared by ___
(A) the Ostwald process.
(B) the Haber process.
(C) the reaction of phosphate rock with sulfuric acid.
(D) the reaction of P 4O10 with water.

41. How would you expect the molecule 1,10-phenanthroline (shown below) to function as a
ligand?

(A) It would be expected to be a monodentate ligand.

(B) It would be expected to be a bidentate ligand.
(C) It would be expected to be a tridentate ligand.
(D) It would be expected to be a tetradentate ligand.

42. How many unpaired electrons are there in the complex ion [Mn(CN) 6]3–?
(A) 0 (C) 2
(B) 1 (D) 3

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43. Two complex ions containing Ni are [Ni(NH3) 6]2+, which is blue, and [Ni(en) 3]2+, which is purple.
Which one of these statements is true?
(A) The crystal field splitting energy (Δ) is greater for [Ni(NH3) 6]2+ than for [Ni(en) 3]2+.
(B) [Ni(en) 3]2+ absorbs light in the violet region of the spectrum.
(C) Both complex ions are diamagnetic.
(D) The energy of the photon absorbed by [Ni(en) 3]2+ is greater than that absorbed by
[Ni(NH3) 6]2+.

44. The radioisotope potassium-40 decays to argon-40 by positron emission with a half-life of 1.3 ×
109 yr. A sample of moon rock was found to contain 78 argon-40 atoms for every 22 potassium-
40 atoms. The age of the rock is
(A) 8.1 × 10–10 yr (C) 2.4 × 109 yr
9
(B) 4.6 × 10 yr (D) 2.8 × 109 yr

45. Which of these reactions leads to a change in the hybridization of one or more carbon atoms?
(A) free radical halogenation of an alkane
(B) hydrolysis of an ester to yield an acid and an alcohol
(C) substitution of an aromatic ring using a halogen
(D) oxidation of an alcohol to yield a carboxylic acid

46. Which of the following polymers is formed by a condensation process?

(A) PVC (C) Teflon
(B) Nylon (D) Plexiglas

47. Using Trouton’s rule, estimate the molar enthalpy of vaporization of n-hexane, the normal
boiling point of which is 342.10 K.
(A) 34.77 kJ/mol (C) 31.91 kJ/mol
(B) 56.23 kJ/mol (D) 45.87 kJ/mol

48. A certain heat engine operates between 1000K and 500K. What is the maximum efficiency of
the engine?
(A) 0.25 (C) 0.75
(B) 0.50 (D) 0.10

49. The molar heats of sublimation and fusion of iodine are 62.3 kJ/mol and15.3 kJ/mol,
respectively. Calculate the molar heat of vaporization of liquid iodine.
(A) 77.6 kJ/mol (C) 47.0 kJ/mol
(B) –77.6 kJ/mol (D) 4.07 kJ/mol

50. Silver (Ag) has an atomic radius of 1.44 A and crystallizes in a cubic lattice with a unit cell edge
of 4.0776 A. In which of the following lattices does silver crystallize? (1 A= 10 —8 cm)
(A) Simple cubic (C) Face-centered cubic
(B) Body-centered cubic (D) Tetragonal

END OF EXAMINATION

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