Leader Live Minor-11 31 Dec QP

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Date: 31-12-2023 Paper Type: Minor Test-11
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Important Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 Hour 20 minutes duration and it contains 200 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct
response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
The maximum marks are 720.
2. In this Test, subject Physics will consist of two sections (Section A & Section B). Section A will consist of
35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to attempt any
10 questions out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first
3 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
3. Subject Chemistry will consist of two sections (Section A & Section B). Section A will consist of
4. Subject Biology-I & Biology-II will consist of two sections (Section A & Section B). Section A will consist of
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SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Topic : Current Portion : SHM, Waves, Back Portion : Gravitation,Thermodynamics
SECTION-A 5. Two spheres of masses m and M are situated in

Attempt All 35 questions air and the gravitational force between them is F.
the space around the masses is now filled with a
1. Find work done in process ABCD :- liquid of specific gravity 3. The gravitational
force between bodies will now be :-
(1) F (2) F
3
(3) F (4) 3F
9
6. Energy required to move a body of mass m from
an orbit of radius 4R to 6R is
(1) GMm (2) GMm
(1) 4 P0V0 (2) 2 P0V0
24R 8R
(3) 3 P0V0 (4) P0V0 (3) GMm (4) None
4R
2. In an adiabatic change, pressure P and
7. A planet of mass 'm' is moving in an elliptical
temperature T of a diatomic gas are related by orbit about the sun with time period 'T'. If 'A' be
the relation P ∝ TC where C equals :- the area of orbit, then its angular momentum
5 2 would be :-
(1) (2)
3 5 2mA
(1) (2) mAT
3 7 T
(3) (4)
5 2 mA
(3) (4) 2mAT
3. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working 2T
between the freezing point and boiling point of 8. A string with a mass density of 4 × 10 – 3 kg/m is
water, is :- under tension of 360 N and is fixed at both ends.
One of its resonance frequencies is 375 Hz. The
(1) 26.8% (2) 20%
next higher resonance frequency is 450 Hz. The
(3) 6.25% (4) 12.5% mass of the string is -
4. The orbital velocity of an artificial satellite in a (1) 2 × 10 – 3 kg (2) 3 × 10 – 3 kg
circular orbit just above the earth’s surface is v0. (3) 4 × 10 – 3 kg (4) 8 × 10 – 3 kg
The orbital velocity of satellite orbiting at an
9. A steel wire 0.72 m long has a mass of 5.0 × 10 –
altitude of half of the radius is :- 3 kg. If the wire is under tension of 60 N, what is
(1) 3 (2) 2 the speed of the transverse waves on the wire ?

v0 v0
2 3
(1) 186 m/s (2) √ 2 × 93 m/s
(3) 2 (4) 3
√ v0 √ v0
3 2 (3) 93 m/s (4) 45 m/s
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English / 31122023 Space for Rough Work Page 1/29

10. The equation of a stationary wave is 15. The length of a sonometer wire is 0.75 m and
Y = 10 sin πx cos20 π t. The distance between density 9 × 103 kg/m3. It can bear a stress of 8.1
4
two consecutive nodes in metres is - × 108 N/m2 without exceeding the elastic limit.
What is the fundamental frequency that can be
(1) 4 (2) 2 produced in the wire ?
(3) 5 (4) 8 (1) 100 Hz
11. Two identical sounds s1 and s2 reach at a point P (2) 200 Hz
in phase. The resultant loudness at point P is
ndB higher than the loudness of s1. The value of (3) 150 Hz
n is :- (4) 175 Hz
(1) 2 (2) 4 16. A particle is executing S.H.M. along a straight
(3) 5 (4) 6 line. The graph showing the variation of kinetic,
potential and total energy K, U and T
12. First overtone frequency of a closed organ pipe respectively with displacement is -
is equal to the first overtone frequency of an
open organ pipe. Further nth harmonic of closed
organ pipe is also equal to the mth harmonic of (1)
open pipe, where n and m are :-
(1) 5, 4 (2) 7, 5
(3) 9, 6 (4) 7, 3 (2)
13. Velocity of sound waves in air is 330 m/s. For a
particular sound in air, a path difference of 40
cm is equivalent to a phase difference of 1.6 π . (3)
The frequency of the wave is :-
(1) 165 Hz (2) 150 Hz
(4)
(3) 660 Hz (4) 330 Hz
14. Two waves are represented by y1 = 4sin 404 π t 17. A second harmonic has to be generated in a
and y2 = 3sin 400 π t. Then :- string of length L stretched between two rigid
(1) beat frequency is 4 Hz and the ratio of supports. The point where the string has to be
maximum to minimum intensity is 49 : 1 plucked and touched are :-
(2) beat frequency is 2 Hz and the ratio of (1) plucked at L L
and touch at
maximum to minimum intensity is 49 : 1 4 2
(2) plucked at L 3L
(3) beat frequency is 2 Hz and the ratio of and touch at
4 2
maximum to minimum intensity is 1 : 49 L L
(3) plucked at and touch at
(4) beat frequency is 4 Hz and the ratio of 2 2
maximum to minimum intensity is 1 : 49 (4) plucked at L 3L
and touch at
2 2
Page 2/29 Space for Rough Work English / 31122023

18. In a gaseous medium on increasing temperature 22. When sound wave travels from air to water,
800 K, speed of sound becomes 5 times of
√ which are of the following remain constant :
initial then initial temperature of medium in °C (1) wavelength (2) velocity
is:-
(3) frequency (4) intensity
(1) 27°C (2) 300°C
23. The phase difference between the instantaneous
(3) – 73°C (4) 73°C velocity and acceleration of a particle executing
19. For a resonance tube, the air columns for the simple harmonic motion is :-
first and the second resonance differ in length by (1) π (2) 0.707 π
31.5 cm. The wavelength of the wave is :-
(3) zero (4) 0.5 π
(1) 15.75 cm (2) 31.5 cm
24. A particle is oscillating in SHM. What fraction
(3) 63.0 cm (4) 126.0 cm of total energy is kinetic when the particle is at
20. Two waves of same frequency, constant phase A/2 from the mean position (A is the amplitude
difference but different amplitude superpose at a of oscillation)
point : (1) 3/4 (2) 2/4
(1) The resultant intensity varies periodically (3) 4/7 (4) 5/7
as a function of time
25. A particle executes simple harmonic motion
(2) There will be no interference d2x
according to equation 4 + 320x = 0. Its time
(3) There will be interference in which the dt2
minimum intensity will not be zero period is :-
2π
(4) There will be interference in which the (1) s
5 √3
minimum intensity is zero
π
(2) s
21. The vibrations of four air columns of same 3 √2
length are represented in figure. The ratio of π
(3) s
frequencies np : nq : nr : ns is: 2 √5
2π
(4) s
√3
26. A body executing S.H.M. along a straight line

has a velocity of 3 ms – 1 when it is at a distance
of 4 m from its mean position and 4 ms – 1 when
it is at a distance of 3 m from its mean position.
Its angular frequency and amplitude are :-
(1) 12 : 6 : 3 : 4 (1) 2 rad s – 1 & 5 m
(2) 1 : 2 : 4 : 3 (2) 1 rad s – 1 & 10 m
(3) 4 : 2 : 3 : 1 (3) 2 rad s – 1 & 10 m
(4) 6 : 2 : 3 : 4 (4) 1 rad s – 1 & 5 m

27. A particle of mass 1 kg is undergoing SHM for 31. Some springs are combined in series and parallel
which graph between force and displacement arrangement as shown in the figure and a mass m
(from mean position) is shown. Its time period is suspended from them. The ratio of their
in second is :- frequencies will be :
(1) π
(2) 2π (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
3 3
(3) √ 3:2 (4) 4 : 1
π 3
(3) (4)
6 π 32. The time period of spring is T. The spring is cut
28. The amplitude of a particle executing SHM is in n parts; then the new time period is :-
made three-fourth keeping its time period m
(1) 2π√
constant. Its total energy will be k
E (2) nm
(1) 2π√
2 k
(2) 3 (3) m
E 2π√
4 nk
(3) 9 2π m
E (4) √
16 n k
(4) None of these 33. In simple harmonic motion, the ratio of
29. A particle is performing SHM along x-axis with acceleration of the particle to its displacement at
any time is a measure of
amplitude 4 cm and time period 1.2 sec. Find
the minimum time taken by particle to move (1) Spring constant
from x = +2 cm to x = +4 cm and back again. (2) Angular frequency
(1) 0.4 sec (2) 0.2 sec (3) (Angular frequency)2
(3) 0.6 sec (4) 0.8 sec (4) Restoring force
30. The motion of a particle varies with time 34. A simple pendulum is suspended in a car. The
according to the relation : y = a (sin ω t + cos car starts moving on a horizontal road according
ω t), then :- to equation x = g 3t2 . Find the time period of
√
2
(1) the motion is oscillatory but not SHM oscillation of the pendulum.
(2) the motion is SHM with amplitude a (1) ℓ (2) 2ℓ

2π√ π√
g g
(3) the motion is SHM with amplitude a √ 2
ℓ ℓ
(4) the motion is SHM with amplitude 2a (3) 2π√ (4) 2π√
8g g √3

35. A pendulum has time period T for small 37. The following are the P-V diagrams for cyclic
oscillations. An obstacle is placed directly processes for a gas. In which of these processes
beneath the pivot, so that only the lowest one is heat absorbed by the gas ?
quarter of the string can follow the pendulum
bob when it swings in the left of its resting (i) (ii)
position as shown in the figure. The pendulum is
released from rest at a certain point A. The time
taken by it to return to that point is (iii) (iv)
(1) (i), (iii) (2) (ii), (iii)

(3) (iii), (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iii)
38. The depth d at which the value of acceleration
(1) T (2) T/2 due to gravity become 1 times the value at the
n
(3) 3T/4 (4) T/4 surface is (R = Radius of earth) :-
SECTION-B (1) R (2) R
n n2
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
n n−1
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of (3) R( ) (4) R( )
n+1 n
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
39. A stretched wire of some length under a tension
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
is vibrating with its fundamental frequency. Its
questions will be considered for marking.
length is decreased by 45% and tension is
36. increased by 21%. Now its fundamental
frequency :-
(1) increases by 50%
(2) increases by 100%
A cyclic process ABCD is shown in the P – V
diagram. Which of the following curves (3) decreases by 50%
represent the same process? (4) decreases by 25%
40. A sound wave of wavelength 0.40 m enters the
tube at S. The smallest radius r of the circular
(1) (2)
segment to hear minimum at detector D must be:-
(3) (4) (1) 1.75 m (2) 0.175 m

(3) 0.93 m (4) 9.3 m

41. An earthquake generates both transverse (S) and 44. Two masses m1 and m2 are suspended together
longitudinal (P) sound waves in the earth. The by a massless spring of constant k. When the
speed of S waves is about 4.5 km/s and that of P masses are in equilibrium, m1 is removed
waves is about 9.0 km/s. A seismograph records without disturbing the system; the amplitude of
P and S waves from an earthquake. The first P vibration is:
wave arrives 4.0 min before the first S wave.
The epicenter of the earthquake is located at a
distance of about
(1) 860 km (2) 1920 km
(3) 2160 km (4) 2468 km
42. A transverse wave is travelling along a string
from left to right. The adjoining figure (1) m1g/k (2) m2g/k
represents the shape of the string at a given
(m1 + m2 )g (m2 − m1 )g
instant. At this instant, among the following, (3) (4)
k k
choose the wrong statement :-
45. A body is executing SHM. At a displacement x
its potential energy is E1 and at a displacement y
its potential energy is E2. The potential energy E
at displacement (x + y) is : –
(1) √ E = √ E1 − √ E2 (2) √ E = √ E1 + √ E2
(1) Points D, E and F have upwards positive
velocity. (3) E = E1 + E2 (4) E = E1 – E2
(2) Points A, B and H have downwards 46. Find the time period of the motion of the particle
negative velocity. shown in figure. Neglect the small effect of the
bend near the bottom :
(3) Points C and G have zero velocity.
(4) Points A and E have minimum velocity
43. S1, S2 are two coherent sources (having initial
phase difference zero) of sound located along x-
axis separated by 4 λ where λ is wavelength of (1) 4 sec (2) 8 sec
sound emitted by them. Number of maxima (3) 2 sec (4) None
located on the elliptical boundary around it will
be : [ S1 and S2 are assumed to be at focus of 47. A particle executes SHM with amplitude of 20
ellipse] cm and time period of 12s. What is the minimum
time required for it to move between two points
10 cm on either side of the mean position ?
(1) 1s (2) 2s
(1) 16 (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 4 (3) 3s (4) 4s

48. The potential energy U of a particle is given 50. Column I Column II

by U = {20 + (x – 4)2}J. Total mechanical energy
of the particle is 36 J. Select the correct Motion of electron around
alternative :- (a) nucleus (i) Oscillatory
(1) The particle oscillates about point x = 4 m (as per Bohr's model)
(2) The amplitude of the particle is 4m Motion of block connected
(3) The kinetic energy of the particle at x=2 m to spring
(b) (ii) Periodic
is 12 J on smooth horizontal
(4) All of these surface
49. Which of the following equation does not Both
represent a simple harmonic motion ? Motion of simple pendulum periodic
(A) y = Asin ω t + B cos ω t (c) (iii)
in air medium &
(B) y = cos3 ω t
3π oscillatory
(C) y = 10cos ( − ωt)
2 Match the column
(D) y = 1 + ω t + ω 4t4
(1) a – (i), b – (ii), c – (iii)
(1) Only (A)
(2) a – (ii), b – (i), c – (iii)
(2) Only (D) does not represent SHM
(3) a – (ii), b – (iii), c – (i)
(3) Only (B) and (D)
(4) a – (iii), b – (ii), c – (iii)
(4) Only (B)

SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY
Topic : Current Portion : Alcohol-Phenol-Ether, Aldehyde-Ketone-Carboxylic Acid, Amine,

Biomolecules, Purification, Quantitative and Qualitative Analysis, Periodic Table, Back Portion :
Haloalkane & Haloarene
SECTION-A 56. A large difference between the fourth and fifth

Attempt All 35 questions ionization energies indicates the presence of :
51. Which has maximum first ionization potential - (1) 5 valence electrons in an atom
(1) F (2) Cl (2) 6 valence electrons in an atom
(3) S (4) O (3) 4 valence electrons in an atom
52. An element whose IUPAC name is Ununtrium (4) 8 valence electrons in an atom
(Uut) belongs to :- 57. Which of the following set of elements belongs
(1) s-block to same group?
(2) p-block (1) Cu, Zn, Ga
(3) d-block (2) Ni, Pd, Pt
(4) f-block (3) K, Ca, Sc
53. Which of the following will have least (4) Fr, Ra, U
ionisation potential ? 58. In a period, the elements are arranged in : –
(1) Li+
(1) Decreasing order of nuclear charge
(2) He
(2) Decreasing order of No. of electrons
(3) Ne
(3) Increasing order of nuclear charge
(4) Na+
(4) In order of same nuclear charge
54. 4d35s2 configuration belongs to which group ?
59. The order of ionisation potential between He+
(1) IIA ion and H-atom (both species are in gaseous
(2) IIB state) is:-
(3) VB (1) I.P. (He+) = I.P. (H)
(4) IIIB (2) I.P. (He+) < I.P. (H)
55. Which reaction required maximum amount of (3) I.P. (He+) > I.P. (H)
energy - (4) Cannot be compared
+
(1) X(g) → X(g) 60. Group no., period no of element having
(2) +
X(g) 2+
→ X(g) configuration – 5s24d105p1 :-
(3) 2+
X(g) → X(g) (1) 1, 4 (2) 13, 5
(4) All have same (3) 12, 4 (4) 3, 6

61. Sulphuric acid is not used during the reaction of 65. Most reactive towards SN2 is
alcohol with KI because ?
(1) I Θ is strong reducing agent which reduce (1) (2)
H2SO4 and converts in I2.
(2) I Θ is strong reducing agent which reduce
H2SO4 and converts in H-I.
(3) (4)
(3) Alcohol gets dehydrated.
(4) Oxidation of alcohol is possible.
66.
62. Which reaction gives aryl halide as a major
product ?
(1) Incorrect statement about above reaction is

(1) Reaction is nucleophilic substitution.
(2) (2) Presence of electron withdrawing group
increases reactivity of haloarenes.
(3) The effect is pronounced when – NO2 is
(3) introduced at meta position.
(4) Intermediate anion is formed
67. In which reaction 1° Alcohol is not obtained ?
(4)
(1) CH3 – COOH
63. Which reaction does not give cyanide
(1) CH3 – CH2 – Cl + KCN → (2) CH3 – COOCH3
(2) Ph – CH2 – OH + NaCN →
(3) CH3 – CHO + CH3MgBr →
(3) Ph – CH2 – Cl + AgCN →
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) H – CHO + EtMgBr →
64. Reaction of Haloalkane with AgCN gives
isocyanide as the major product not cyanide due to -
(1) C – N bond is more stable than C – C bond 68.
(2) AgCN is mainly covalent and carbon is free

to donate electron pair
(1) (2)
(3) AgCN is mainly ionic and carbon is free to
donate electron pair
(4) AgCN is mainly covalent bond and (3) (4)
nitrogen is free to donate electron pair

69. Which is incorrect reaction regarding major 72.

In Which reaction is obtained
product ?
as major product ?
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
70. Assertion : Reaction of acetyl chloride with
73. Match the column-I with Column-II
alcohol is carried in presence of base (pyridine). Column-II
Column-I
Reason : It shifts the equilibrium to the right (Reagent)
(A) CH3 – CH2 – OH →
hand side by removing HCl. (P) Cu/ Δ
Carboxylic acid
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the (Q)
Reason is a correct explanation of the KMnO4/H ⊕
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but (R) PCC
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion. (1) A → R; B → Q; C → P
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. (2) A → P; B → Q; C → R
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false. (3) A → R; B → P; C → Q
71. Statement-I : Tertiary alcohol produce turbidity (4) A → Q; B → R; C → P
immediately with Lucas reagent. 74.
Statement-II : Primary alcohols do not produce
turbidity at room temperature.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (1) (2)
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) (4)
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

75. Correct order of boiling point of 78. Correct statement about Cannizzaro reaction
is/are
(I) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CHO (a) Benzophenone can give this reaction
(II) CH3 – CH2 – COCH3 (b) can give reaction

(c) More reactive aldehyde is oxidised.
(III) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH
(d) Less reactive aldehyde is oxidised.
(IV) C2H5 – O – C2H5 (e) It is overall disproportionation reaction
(1) a, b, c, e (2) b, d, e
(1) III > I > II > IV
(3) b, c, d, e (4) b, c, e
(2) III > II > I > IV
79. Cross aldol condensation product of
(3) II > I > III > IV
is ?
(4) I > II < IV > III
76.
(1)
(1)
(2) (2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4) 1 and 3 both
77. In which reaction amide is not obtained ?
80. Which reaction does not gives Aldehyde ?
(1) (1) CH – C ≡ CH + H O −Hg +2
3 2 −−+
→
H
H2 O
(2) (2) Ph – CH + 2Cl −hν→−−→
3 2
(3) (3)
(4) All
(4)

81. Assertion : Primary amines have more boiling 85. Select the wrong pair :-
point than secondary and tertiary amines. (1) Cellulose → Polymer of β – D – Glucose
Reason : Primary amines have intermolecular
association due to H-bonding. (2) Lactose → β – D – Galactose and β – D
– Glucose
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is a correct explanation of the (3) Sucrose → β – D – Glucose and α – D –
Assertion. Fructose
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but (4) Starch → α – D – Glucose
SECTION-B
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false. these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
82. If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is
CTGTCAGTA, then the sequence of bases in its
complementary strand is 86. The ionic radii of N3 – , O2 – and F – are
(1) GUAUTGAUG respectively given by -
(2) GACAGTCAT (1) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71
(3) GUCCUGUTC (2) 1.36, 1.71, 1.40
(4) TAACGCUAC (3) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36
83. (4) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40

Lysine ; is :-
87. Group no., period no. and Block of element
(1) α -Amino acid having atomic no. 64 :-
(2) γ -amino acid
(1) 4, 6 d-Block
(3) Amino acid synthesised (2) 6, 3, f-Block
(4) β -Amino acid (3) 6, 6, p-Block
84. Which of the following reactions of glucose can (4) 3, 6, f-Block
be explained only by its cyclic structure.
88. In which series are the species listed in order of
(1) Glucose forms penta acetate
increasing size : -
(2) Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form
an oxime (1) F – < S2 – < Al3+ < Mg2+
(3) Penta acetate of glucose does not react with (2) F – < S2 – < Mg2+ < Al3+
hydroxylamine (3) Mg2+ < F – < Al3+ < S2 –
(4) Glucose is oxidised by nitric acid to (4) Al+3 < Mg+2 < F – < S2 –
gluconic acid

89. From the given set of species, point out the 93. Statement-I : In nucleophilic substitution of
species from each set having least atomic
radius:- haloarenes – NO2 at ortho and para increases
(1) O – 2, F – , Na+ (2) Ni, Cu, Zn
(3) Li, Be, Mg (4) He, Li+, H – stability of intermediate anion, compared to –
Correct answer is :-
(1) O – 2, Cu, Li, H – NO2 at meta position.
(2) Na+, Ni, Be, Li+ Statement-II : – M of – NO2 is observed at ortho

(3) F – , Zn, Mg, He and para position not at meta position.
(4) Na+, Cu, Be, He
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
90. A sudden jump between the values of second
and third ionization energies of an element (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
would be associated with the electronic
configuration:- (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(1) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s1 (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(2) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p1 94.
(3) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p2
(4) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2
91. Which of the following is not correct method to
obtain halide (1) (2)
(1)
(2) (3) (4)
(3)
95. Major product
(4)
92. Which is the example of racemization process?
(1) Ph – CH2 – Cl + H2O → (1) (2)
(2)
(3) CH3 – CH2 – CH=CH2 + HCl →

(3) (4)
(4)

96. 99. Assertion : Activating effect of – NH2 in aniline

is decreased due to acetylation.
Reason : Lone pair on nitrogen have resonance
with oxygen in acetanilide so lone pair is less
(1)
available for donation to benzene ring.
(2) (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3)
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but
Assertion.
(4)
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
97. Statement-I : Cyclohexanone forms cyanohydrin 100. The structure of D – (+) – Glucose is
in good yield but 2,2,6-trimethyl cyclo hexanone
does not.
Statement-II : 2,2,6-trimethyl cyclo hexanone
has not a-H.
The structure of L – ( – ) – Glucose will be :-
(1)
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
98. Statement-I :- Primary amine gives
sulphonamide with Hinsberg reagent, which is (2)
soluble in alkali.
Statement-II :- Sulphonamide is strongly acidic
due to presence of strong electron withdrawing
sulphonamide group. (3)

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (4)

SUBJECT : BIOLOGY-I
Topic : Current Portion : Anatomy of Flowering Plants, Microbes in Human Welfare, Neural
Control and Coordination, Back Portion : Morphology of Flowering Plants
SECTION-A 107. The electrical potential difference accross the

Attempt All 35 questions plasma membrane at the site of depolarisation is
called :-
101. Depolarisation of nerve cell involves :-
(1) Graded potential
(1) Influx of K+
(2) Resting potential
(2) Influx of Na+
(3) Action potential
(3) Influx of Ca2+ and Cl –
(4) None of the above
(4) Efflux of Na2+
108. Appearance of grey matter towards innerside is
102. Connection between axon and dendrite is : related with :-
(1) Synapse (2) Synapsis (1) Cerebrum
(3) Desmosome (4) Tight junction (2) Cerebellum
103. The nerve impulse is also called :- (3) Spinal cord
(1) Action potential (4) Crura cerebrai
(2) Resting potential 109. Tongue movement is control by ?
(3) Polarised potential (1) Facial nerve
(4) Repolarised potential (2) Occulomotor
104. The hind brain is made up of :- (3) Hypoglossal
(1) Pons (2) Cerebellum (4) Glossopharyngeal
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Cerebrum 110. Release of chemical messenger from synaptic
105. Part of the neuron involves in protein synthesis ? vesicles is triggered by ?
(1) Axons (2) Synaptic knob (1) Mg2+, Sr2+ (2) Fe, S
(3) Soma (4) Neurofibrils (3) Cl (4) Ca2+
106. Which of the following is not a function of 111. At the time of depolarisation, which is not true in
association area? the following :-
(1) Memory (1) Na+/K+ ion channel - open
(2) Communication (2) Na+/K+ pump - open
(3) Thermoregulation (3) Na+ voltage gated channel - open
(4) Intersensory association (4) K+ voltage gated channel - close

112. Outermost covering of brain is :- 119. In the exciting stage of neuron, where threshold
(1) Duramater (2) Piamater stimulus is applied, which one is responsible for
(3) Arachnoid mater (4) Sella turcica rapid influx of Na+ Ions :-
113. Nature of dorsal root of spinal cord is :- (1) Na+ – K+ – active Pump
(1) Sensory (2) K+ – V.G.C
(2) motor (3) Na+ – K+ – ions channels

(3) Mixed (4) Na+ – V.G.C
(4) Both (1) & (3) 120. In which phylum first apolar neuron appeared ?
114. Centre for urge for eating and drinking in brain (1) Porifera (2) Coelenterata
is: (3) Annelida (4) Arthropoda
(1) Pons (2) Medulla 121. Myelinated nerve fibers are enveloped
(3) Hypothalamus (4) Cerebrum with______which forms a myelin sheath around
115. The space between the two adjoining neurons the axon :-
where chemical transmitter is released known (1) Astrocytes (2) Nissl's granules
as
(3) Microgliocytes (4) Schwann Cells
(1) Synaptic vesicle (2) Synapse
122. Myelinogenesis (Myelin sheath formation)
(3) Synaptic cleft (4) Telodendria process occur in C.N.S. (central nervous system)
116. Cerebellar hemisphere is the centre of :- (1) By Schwann cells
(1) taste (2) smell (2) By oligodendrocytes
(3) balance (4) thinking (3) By axolemma
117. Which of the following cranial nerves of human (4) By neurilemma
are mixed in nature :-
123. If parasympathetic nerve is cut, then heart beat : –
(1) Vagus & trigeminal
(1) Unaffected (2) Decreases
(2) Optic & vagus
(3) Increases (4) Stop
(3) Auditory & olfactory
124. Tract of nerve fibres which connects both
(4) Trochlear and vagus cerebral hemisphere.
118. How many Na+ are transported outside the (1) Corpus albicans
neuron by Na+ – K+ pump ?
(2) Corpora quadrigemina
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) Corpus callosum
(3) 4 (4) 1
(4) Corpus luteum

125. Nissl's granules are not found in :- 130. In gobar gas, the maximum amount is that of :-
(1) Cyton (1) Propane
(2) Dendron (2) Carbon dioxide
(3) (1) and (2) both (3) Butane
(4) Axon (4) Methane
126. The part of brain which control respiration, 131. Which of the following is a free living biocontrol
cardiovascular reflexes and gastric secretions? microbial agent for plant pathogen?
(1) Hypothalamus (1) Mucor
(2) Mid brain (2) Glomus

(3) Trichoderma
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Rhizobium
(4) Pons
132. Vinegar is prepared from alcohol with the help
127. The cerebrum wraps around a structure of:-
called_____. Which is major coordinating centre (1) Lactobacillus
for sensory and motor signalling.
(2) Acetobacter
(1) Hypothalamus
(3) Azotobacter
(2) Corpus callosum
(4) Rhizobium
(3) Thalamus
133. Which of the biological control agent belongs to
(4) Epithalamus
the genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus ?
128. Find out correct match
(1) Bacillus Thuringiensis
(1) Clot buster - Streptokinase
(2) Lady Bird
(2) Cyclosporin -A - Blood cholesterol
(3) Baculoviruses
lowering agent
(4) All of the above
(3) Statins - immunosuppressive agent
134. Which of the following is not produced by
(4) Citric acid - Yeast
distillation of broth?
129. Trichoderma, Baculovirus and dragon flies are:-
(1) Plant pests (1) Wine
(2) Used as biocontrol agents (2) Whisky
(3) Broad spectrum larvicides (3) Brandy
(4) Source of antibiotics (4) Rum

135. Penicillin is obtained from :- 138. Which of the following statement is true ?
(1) Yeast (1) The electrical potential difference across
resting plasma membrane is called action
(2) Bacteria potential.
(3) Fungi (2) The axoplasm inside the axon contains high
(4) Algae concentration of K+ and negatively charged
proteins and low concentration of Na+.
SECTION-B (3) During resting state, axonal membrane is
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate comparatively more permeable to Na+ and
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of nearly impermeable to K+.
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts (4) Axonal membrane is completely permeable
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted to negatively charged proteins present
inside axon.
139. The accompanied diagram shows the structure of
136. Find out the correct statement - neuron. Identify A to E.
(1) Impulses transmission across an electrical
synapses is always slow than that across a
chemical synapses.
(2) Neurotransmitters are involved in
transmission of impulses across electrical
synapses.
(3) K+ diffuses outerside the membrane and
restores the resting potential of the
membrane at site of excitation
(4) During action potential membrane become
positively charged towards inner side and
A B C D E
negatively outside due to Na+ – K+ pump.
Cyton
Node
137. Along with hypothalamus, limbic system is (1)
Nerve or Schwann
of Synaptic knob
involved in : fibre cell cell
ranvier
body
(a) Sexual behaviour
(b) Emotion (Excitement, Pleasure, Rage, Fear) Cyton
Node
or Schwann
(c) Motivation (2) Dendrites of Synaptic knob
cell cell
ranvier
(d) Cardiovascular reflexes body
(1) a, b and c Node
Nerve Schwann
(3) Dendrites of Synaptic knob
cell cell
(2) a, b and d ranvier
(3) b, c and d Cyton

Node
or Nerve
(4) Dendrites of Synaptic knob
(4) a, c and d cell cell
ranvier
body

140. During repolarisation of nerve : 143. Which statement is correct about nerve fibres ?
(1) K+ gates closes and Na+ gates opens (1) All nerve fibres of CNS are enclosed by
(2) Na+ channels are closed and K+ channels Schwann cells.
are open (2) Only myelinated nerve fibres of PNS are
(3) both gates remain open enclosed by Schwann cells.
(4) both K+ and Na+ gates are closed (3) All nerve fibres of PNS are enclosed by
141. Following diagram shows/represents conduction Schwann cells.
of nerve impulse in A and B segments :-
(4) Only myelinated fibres of CNS are enclosed
by Schwann cells.
144. The product of which of the following organism
has been commercialised as blood cholesterol
lowering agent
What would be the direction of nerve impulse in
E.C.F ? (1) Trichoderma polysporum
(1) B to A (2) Monascus Purpureus
(2) A to B (3) Saccharomyces cerevisie
(3) In any direction (4) Aspergillus niger
(4) Direction less 145. Choose correctly matched column :-
142. The given diagram shows axon terminal and A B
synapse. Here A, B, C, D and E respectively Blood cholesterol
represent : (1) Streptokinase
lowering agent
Cyclosporin
(2) Immuno-stimulant
A
(3) Statins Clot-buster
(1) Axon terminal, Synaptic cleft, Synaptic (4) Pectinase Clearing of bottle juice
vesicles, Neurotransmitter and Receptors
146. Select the correct group of biocontrol agents :-
(2) Axon terminal, Synaptic vesicles, Synaptic
cleft, Receptors and Neurotransmitter (1) Agrobacterium tumifaciens,
Nucleopolyhedrovirus, Aphids
(3) Synaptic cleft, Synaptic vesicles, Axon
terminal, Neurotransmitter and Receptors (2) Ladybrid, Trichoderma, Nucleopolyhedrovirus
(4) Synaptic cleft, Axon terminal, Synaptic (3) Oscillatoria, Nostoc, Rhizobium
vesicles, Neurotransmitter and Receptors (4) Nostoc, Baculovirus, Trichoderma

147. Assertion : Bottled fruit juices bought from 149. Which of the following is correct ?
market are clearer as compared to those made at (1) Cyanobacteria form mycorhhiza which
home.
helps in absorption of phosphate
Reason : Bottled Juices are clarified by the use
of pectinases and proteases. (2) Methanobacterium digest cellulose in
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the anaerobic conditions
Reason is a correct explanation of the (3) Azotobacter fix nitrogen symbiotically
Assertion.
(4) Rhizobium can fix nitrogen both free living
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
and symbiotically
Assertion. 150. Assertion :- Trichoderma polysporum is an
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. important fungus.
Reason :- Cyclosporin-A is obtained from this
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
fungus which is used as an immunosuppressive
148. Which of the following is wrongly matched in
agent in organ transplant.
the given table ?
Microbe Product Application (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Trichoderma Cyclosporin immunosuppressive Reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
polysporum A drug Assertion.
Monascus lowering of blood
(2) Statins (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
purpureus cholesterol
removal of clot
(3) Streptococcus Streptokinase Assertion.
from blood vessel
Clostridium removal of oil (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Lipase
butylicum stains
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

SUBJECT : BIOLOGY-II
Topic : Current Portion : Anatomy of Flowering Plants, Microbes in Human Welfare, Neural
Control and Coordination, Back Portion : Morphology of Flowering Plants
SECTION-A 155. Which is not a character of leaves :

Attempt All 35 questions (1) Originate from shoot apical meristem
151. Replum is found in the ovary of (2) Arrange in basipetal order
(1) Brassicaceae (3) Bears a bud in its axil
(2) Malvaceae (4) Flattened photo synthetic structure
(3) Liliaceae 156. In given diagram A, B, C and D is :
(4) Asteraceae
152. The morphological nature of the edible part of a
coconut is
(1) Cotyledon (2) Perisperm
(3) Pericarp (4) Endosperm (1) (A)-Endocarp, (B)-Mesocarp,
153. In which placentation does the placenta develop (C)-Epicarp, (D)-Seed
at the base of the ovary, with a single ovule (2) (A)-Pericarp, (B)-Mesocarp,
attached? (C)-Endocarp, (D)-Seed
(1) Axile (2) Parietal (3) (A)-Epicarp, (B)-Mesocarp,
(3) Basal (4) Free central (C)-Seed, (D)-Endocarp
154. Identify the A to C in dicotyledonous seed. (4) (A)-Pericarp, (B)-Mesocarp,
(C)-Seed, (D)-Endocarp
157. Assertion : Cruciform corolla occurs in family
Brassicaceae.
Reason : Corolla consists of five petals.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(1) A – Hilum, B – Micropyle, C – Seed coat (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
(2) A – Seed coat, B – Hilum, C – Micropyle Assertion.
(3) A – Micropyle, B – Seed coat, C – Hilum (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) A – Micropyle, B – Hilum, C – Seed coat (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

158. The flowers of china rose is : 161. Which of the following is false for the leaf
(1) Zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted anatomy shown below?
aestivation.
(2) Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted
aestivation.
(3) Actinomorphic, epigynous with valvate
aestivation
(4) Zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate
aestivation
159. Assertion: Fruit is the mature or ripened ovary (1) It is w.r.t. a dorsiventral leaf
developed after fertilisation. (2) It is w.r.t. a dicot leaf

(3) It shows the leaf anatomy of plants like Zea
Reason: Fruit formed without fertilisation of the
mays
ovary is called parthenocarpic fruit.
(4) It shows the leaf anatomy of plants like
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the Pisum sativum
reason is the correct explanation of 162. Water containing cavities are present with in the
assertion. vascular bundles of ?
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the (1) Dicot stem
reason is not the correct explanation of (2) Monocot stem
assertion. (3) Dicot root
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false. (4) Monocot root
(4) Both assertion and reason are false. 163. The innermost layer of the cortex is called :-
160. How many of the following features are (1) Endodermis
associated with Hibiscus esculentum plant? (2) Pericycle
(a) Alternate phyllotaxy
(3) Pith
(b) Monoadelphous stamens
(c) Valvate aestivation in corolla (4) Hypodermis
(d) Axile placentation 164. Find the incorrect match from the following :-
(1) 2 (1) Monocot stem - Radial vascular bundle
(2) 3 (2) Dicot root - Exarch primary xylem
(3) 4 (3) Dicot stem - Endarch primary xylem
(4) 1 (4) Dicot leaf - Parenchymatous bundle sheath

165. Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the 169. Position of xylem in dorsiventral leaf is
guard cells are called
(1) Toward Adaxial surface
(1) Subsidiary cells
(2) Toward abaxial surface
(2) Bulliform cells
(3) Lenticels (3) Toward both adaxial & abaxial surface
(4) Complementary cells (4) Not determined
166. Assertion (A): Stomata are structures present in 170. Monocot root differs from dicot root in having
the epidermis of leaves.
Reason (R): Stomata regulate process of (1) open vascular bundles
transpiration only. (2) scattered vascular bundles
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation for (A) (3) well-developed pith
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (4) radially arranged vascular bundles
the correct explanation for (A) 171. The correct situation of mesophyll in isobilateral
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect grass leaf is shown by
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(1) palisade towards adaxial surface
167. What is the outermost layer of the stele?
(2) spongy towards abaxial surface
(1) Endodermis
(2) Pericycle (3) undifferentiated mesophyll
(3) Vascular bundles (4) palisade along both the surface

(4) Pith 172. Exarch and polyarch vascular bundles occur in
168. Vascular bundle which is shown in given (1) monocot stem
diagram is found in:-
(2) monocot root
(3) dicot stem
(4) dicot root
173. Sclerenchymatous hypodermis is found in :
(1) Sunflower Roots (1) Monocot root
(2) Sunflower stem (2) Monocot stem
(3) Maize stem
(3) Dicot root
(4) Maize leaf
(4) Dicot stem

174. Which sequence correctly illustrates the 178. In some plants like grass, Monstera and banyan
arrangement of layers from outside to inside in a tree, roots arise from parts other than the radicle
dicot stem? and are called:
(1) Hypodermis → Endodermis → Pericycle (1) Tertiary roots
→ Phloem → Xylem (2) Secondary roots
(2) Endodermis → Hypodermis → Pericycle (3) Tap roots
→ Xylem → Phloem
(4) Adventitious roots
(3) Hypodermis → Endodermis → Pericyele
→ Xylem → Phloem 179. Seed is made up of
(4) Endodermis → Hypodermis →Pericycle (1) Seed coat
→ Phloem → Xylem (2) Embryo
175. An old dicot stem & dicot root can be (3) Both (1) and (2)
distinguised from one another by observing : (4) Pericarp
(1) Cortical cells 180. Read the statement carefully & choose the
(2) Secondary xylem correct -
(3) Secondary phloem Statement (I) Vascular bundle are smaller in
(4) Protoxylem center and larger in peripheral portion.
Statement (II) such arrangement is present in
176. Classification of tissue system is
dicot stem
(1) Based on development
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) Based on origin
(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Based on thickness of cells
(3) Correct statement (I) & incorrect statement (II)
(4) Based on structure and location
(4) Correct statement (II) & incorrect statement (I)
177. Which of the following character/s is/are not
181. Find out the incorrect statement
related to the internal structure of
(1) Monocot and dicot are anatomically
dicotyledonous stem?
different
(1) Vascular bundles are conjoint, open and (2) Internal structures also show adaptations to
arranged in a ring diverse environment
(2) Primary xylem is endarch (3) The basic unit of plant is made up of cell
(3) Hypodermis is collenchymatous (4) Different organs of plants are similar in
(4) Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous their internal structure

182. The transverse section of a plant shows 185. Heartwood differs from sapwood in :
following anatomical features: (1) Being susceptible to pests and pathogens
(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles (2) Presence of rays and fibres
surrounded by bundle sheath. (3) Absence of vessels and parenchyma
(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground
(4) Having dead and non-conducting elements
tissue.
SECTION-B
(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed.
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent. can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
Identify the category of plant and its part :- these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
(1) Dicotyledonous root more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
(2) Monocotyledonous stem
186. Different types of phyllotaxy are shown in the
(3) Monocotyledonous root
following figures. Identify the types of
(4) Dicotyledonous stem phyllotaxy (A, B and C).
183. Passage cells are thin-walled cells found in :-
(1) Central region of style through which the
pollen tube grows towards the ovary.
(2) Endodermis of roots facilitating rapid
transport of water from cortex to pericycle (1) A - Alternate, B - Whorled, C - Opposite
(3) Phloem elements that serve as entry points (2) A - Whorled, B - Opposite, C - Alternate
for substances for transport to other plant (3) A - Alternate, B - Opposite, C - Whorled
parts (4) A - Whorled, B - Alternate, C - Opposite
(4) Testa of seeds to enable emergence of 187. Name the petals A, B and C in aestivation shown
in the below given figure.
growing embryonic axis during seed
germination.
184. Which one of the following is not a lateral
meristem?
(1) Intercalary meristem (1) A-Standards, B-Wing, C-Perianth
(2) Intrafascicular cambium (2) A-Standard, B-Keel, C-Wing
(3) Interfascicular cambium (3) A-Wing, B-Keel, C-Wing
(4) Phellogen (4) A-Standard, B-wing, C-Keel

188. Read the Statement-A and Statement-B carefully 190. Find the incorrect statement:
to mark the correct options given below :
Statement - A : The cells of meristematic region (1) A flower is modified shoot wherein the
are very small, thick-walled and with dense shoot apical meristem changes into floral
protoplasm. meristem
Statement - B : The cells of the elongation zone
gradually differentiate and mature. (2) The arrangement of flowers on the floral
(1) only A is correct. axis is called inflorescence
(2) Only B is correct. (3) Petals and sepals are modified leaves
(3) Both the statements are correct. (4) Sunflower is a solitary flower but not
(4) Both the statements are incorrect. an inflorescence
189. Match the Column-I and Column-II :- 191. How many of the following belongs to ground
Column - I Column - II tissue system G.T.S.?
Epidermis, Hypodermis, Cuticle, Stomata,
Endodermis, Pericycle
(A) Pea (I)
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(B) Lemon (II)
(4) Four
192. Identify the given anatomy and choose the
correct statement
(C) Mustard (III)
(D) Primrose (IV)
(1) It has large number of scattered vascular

(E) Sunflower (V) bundles
(2) The innermost layer of cortex is rich in
(1) A – V, B – II, C – I, D – III, E – IV starch grains
(2) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV, E – V (3) Phloem parenchyma is absent
(3) A – V, B – II, C – III, D – I, E – IV (4) It has semilunar patches of sclerenchyma
(4) A – V, B – III, C – II, D – I, E – IV just above medullary rays

193. Identify the types of vascular bundle in the (i) 195. Given figures (P and Q) represent the stomatal
and (ii) and select the correct option. apparatus of dicot and monocot leaves
respectively. Select the option which correctly
labels A, B and C.
(i) (ii)
Conjoint
(1) Conjoint collateral
bicollateral A B C
Conjoint Subsidiary
(2) Conjoint collateral (1) Stoma Guard cells
bicollateral cells
Conjoint collateral Conjoint collateral Subsidiary Epidermal

(2) Stoma
(3) cells cells
closed open
Guard
Conjoint collateral Conjoint collateral (3) Stoma Chloroplast
(4) cells
open closed
Subsidiary
(4) Stoma Guard cells
194. Match the followings and choose the correct cells
option. 196. Consider the following statements -
Column - I Column - II (A) In a dicot root, vascular bundles are radial
(A) Cuticle (I) Guard cells and exarch.
Bulliform (B) The innnermost layer of cortex in dicot root
(B) (II) Outer layer
cells is pericycle.
(C) Stomata (III) Waxy layer (C) In a dicot root, the phloem masses are
Empty colourless seperated from the xylem by parenchymatous

(D) Epidermis (IV)
cell cells that are known as the conjunctive tissue.
(1) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II (1) (A) and (C) are true and (B) is false.
(2) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV (2) (A), (B) and (C) all are true.
(3) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I (3) (A) and (B) are true and (C) is false.
(4) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV (4) Only (A) is true and (B) and (C) are false.

197. In the diagram of T.S of stele of dicot root, the 199. Read the following statements carefully and
different parts have been indicated by alphabets.
Choose the answer in which these alphabets mark the correct option given below.
correctly match with the parts they indicate. Statement-A:- In racemose type of
inflorescences the main axis continues to grow,
the flowers are borne laterally in basipetal order.
Statement-B:- In cymose type of inflorescence
the main axis terminates in a flower, the flowers
(1) A - Endodermis, B - Pericycle, C - Metaxylem,
D - Protoxylem, E - Phloem, F - Pith are borne in a acropetal succession.
(2) A - Endodermis, B - Pith, C - Protoxylem, (1) Only A is correct
D - Metaxylem, E - Phloem, F - Pericycle (2) Only B is correct
(3) A - Phloem, B - Metaxylem, C - Conjective (3) Both the statements are correct
tissue, D - Pith, E - Protoxylem, F -
Pericycle (4) Both the statements are incorrect
(4) A - Endodermis, B - Pericycle, C - Protoxylem, 200. Study carefully the given floral diagram and
D - Metaxylem, E - Phloem, F - Pith
select the option which correctly represent the
198. Read the following statements:
(a) Outer walls of guard cells are thick and the related floral formula :-
inner walls are thin.
(b) Stomatal aperture and subsidiary cells
together form stomatal apparatus.
(c) Cuticle is a waxy layer which prevents loss
of water in roots.
(d) Epidermis is usually multilayered.
(e) In grasses, the guard cells are dumb-bell
shaped.
(1) Fabaceae
How many of the above statements is/are
correct: (2) Solanaceae
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Liliaceae
(3) Two (4) One (4) Cruciferae

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SECTION-A 5. Two spheres of masses m and M are situated in

(1) 3 (2) 2 the speed of the transverse waves on the wire ?

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26. A body executing S.H.M. along a straight line

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(1) (i), (iii) (2) (ii), (iii)

(3) (4) (1) 1.75 m (2) 0.175 m

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(1) 16 (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 4 (3) 3s (4) 4s

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48. The potential energy U of a particle is given 50. Column I Column II

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Topic : Current Portion : Alcohol-Phenol-Ether, Aldehyde-Ketone-Carboxylic Acid, Amine,

SECTION-A 56. A large difference between the fourth and fifth

(1) F (2) Cl (2) 6 valence electrons in an atom

(3) S (4) O (3) 4 valence electrons in an atom

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(1) Incorrect statement about above reaction is

(2) AgCN is mainly covalent and carbon is free

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69. Which is incorrect reaction regarding major 72.

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(II) CH3 – CH2 – COCH3 (b) can give reaction

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(2) GACAGTCAT (1) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71

(3) GUCCUGUTC (2) 1.36, 1.71, 1.40

(4) TAACGCUAC (3) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36

83. (4) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40

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(2) Na+, Ni, Be, Li+ Statement-II : – M of – NO2 is observed at ortho

(2) (3) (4)

(3) CH3 – CH2 – CH=CH2 + HCl →

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96. 99. Assertion : Activating effect of – NH2 in aniline

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.