NEET 2024 – SUPER ACHIEVER’s TEST SERIES

TEST – 1 (FULL SYLLABUS CLASS 11)

General Instructions:
1. The paper contains 180 objective type questions (45 each in Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology). Four

alternatives are given for each question out of which only one is correct.

2. Duration of the test is 3 HOURS (180 mins).

3. Darken the correct alternative on the given answer-sheet, with a pencil or pen.

4. All the questions carry four marks each.

5. For each incorrect answer 1 mark will be deducted.

6. For un-attempted questions the award is neither positive nor negative.

7. No student is permitted to leave examination hall before the time is complete.

8. Use of calculator is not permitted.

9. Use of unfair means shall invite cancellation of the test.

Name of the Student: _____________________________________________________________________

Mobile Number: _________________________________________________________________________
Invigilator’s Signature: ____________________________________________________________________
 ZOOLOGY 6. Which is not true for Ascending and Descending
loop of Henle?
1. Select the correct statements :
(1) Vasa recta runs parallel along the ALH and DLH.
(A) Platyhelminthes are triploblastic pseudocoelomate (2) NaCl is transported by descending limb of Henle's
and bilaterally symmetrical organisms. loop, which is exchanged with the ascending limb of
(B) Ctenophores reproduce only sexually and vasa recta.
fertilization is external. (3) Osmolarity increase towards the inner medullary
(C) In tapeworm, fertilization is internal but sexes are interstitium all along length of ALH & DLH
not separate. (4) Both (2) and (3)
(D) Ctenophores are exclusively marine, diploblastic
and bioluminescent organisms. 7. Match the hormone in column I with their function
(E) In sponges, fertilization is external and development in column II
is direct. Column I Column II
Choose the correct answer from the options given A. FSH 1) Prepare endometrium for
below: implantation.
(1) (A), (C) and (D) only B. LH 2) Develops female secondary
(2) (B), (C) and (D) only sexual character
(3) (A) and (E) only C. Progesterone 3) Contraction of uterine wall
(4) (B) and (D) only D. Estrogen 4) Development of corpus
luteum
2. Select the incorrect statements with respect to 5) Maturation of graffian
Cyclostomes: follicle
(a) They lack scales and paired fins. A B C D
(b) They have circular mouth with jaws. (1) 5 4 1 2
(c) They bear 6-15 pairs of gills. (2) 4 5 2 1
(d) They migrate to deep sea for spawning. (3) 4 3 2 5
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options (4) 5 1 2 4
given below:
(1) (a) and (d) only (2) (a) and (b) only 8. Which one of the following statements is false?
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (b) and (d) only (1) Presence of glucose in urine is glycosuria
(2) Presence of excess urea in blood is haematuria
3. Choose the correctly matched pair. (3) Presence of ketone bodies in urine is ketonuria.
(1) Tendon - Specialized connective tissue. (4) Inflammation of glomerular basement membrane is
(2) Adipose tissue - Dense connective tissue. known as glomerulonephritis.
(3) Areolar tissue - Loose connective tissue.
(4) Cartilage-Loose connective tissue. 9. Below diagram shows impulse transmission across
the synapse
4. Which one of the following types of cell is involved
in making of the inner walls of large blood vessels?
(1) Cuboidal epithelium
(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Squamous epithelium
(4) Stratified epithelium

5. Identify the correct and incorrect match about

respiratory volumes and capcities and mark the correct
answer.
A. Inspiratory capcity (IC) =TV+RV
B. Vital Capcity (V.C.) = TV + IRV + ERV
C. Residual Volume (R.V.) = VC - IRV
D. Tidal Volume (TV) = IC - IRV (1) location of the receptor molecules.
Options: (2) location of synaptic vesicles.
(1) A, B, C are incorrect and D correct (3) location of neurotrasmitters.
(2) A,C incorrect and B and D correct (4) location of synaptic cleft.
(3) A, B, D correct and C incorrect
(4) A, C correct and B, D incorrect
 1 2 3 4 pigmentation, our defence capability, and sexual
(1) C A B D maturity?
(3) B A C D (1) Calcitonin (2) Parathyroid
(4) C A D B (3) Melatonin (4) Thymine
(5) C D A B
18. At resting stage charge of Axolemma’s inner
10. Correctly match column-I with column-II. surface due to presence of :
Column-I Column-II (a) More Na+ ion and negatively charge protein
(A) Myasthenia gravis (i) A oxygen storing pigment molecules
(B) Muscular dystrophy (ii) Rapid spasm in muscles (b) More PO−2 +
4 and Na ions
(C) Myoglobin (iii) Progressive degeneration (c) More K + ion and negatively charge protein
of skeletal muscle molecules
(D) Tetany (iv) Autoimmune disorder (d) More Cl and PO−24
(1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv) 19. Read the following statements.
(3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv) A. High 𝐻 + concentration and higher temperature are
(4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii) favourable for dissociation of oxygen from
oxyhaemoglobin.
11. Which of the following option is incorrect B. Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli is higher than
(1) Hinge joint - between humerus and pectoral girdle. in tissue
(2) Pivot joint - between atlas and axis C. The maximum volume of air a person can breathe
(3) Saddle joint - between carpal and metacarpals of in, after a forced expiration is vital capacity
thumb D. In alveoli low 𝑃𝐶𝑂2 and high 𝑃𝑜2 are favourable
(4) Gliding joint - between carpals for dissociation of 𝐶𝑂2 .
Have Many statement are correct
12. Hypothalamus does not control- (1) Onle (2) Two
(1) Thermoregulation (3) Three (4) Four
(2) Urge of eating and drinking
(3) Produces hormones that regulate the synthesis and 20. W.B.Cs that resist infections and are also
secretion of pituitary hormones associated with allergic reactions are :-
(4) Creative thinking and Consciousness. (1) Eosinophils
(2) Monocyte
13. Which type of joint is shown by the flat skull (3) Neutrophills
bones? (4) Lymphocyte
(1) Saddle joint (2) Fibrous joint
(3) Synovial joint (4) Cartilaginous joint 21. Choose incorrect match :-
(1) Platelet count − 1.5-3.5 lakh/mm3
14. During joint diastole : (2) Lymphocyte − 6% of TLC
(a) All the four chambers of heart are in a relaxed state (3) Leucocyte count − 6000 − 8000/mm3
(b) The tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open (4) Neutrophil −60 − 65% of TLC
(c) The semilunar valves are closed
Which of the above stages are correct :- 22. Find out the correct labelling for given diagram
(1) only a and b (2) only b and c
(3) only a and c (4) a, b and c

15. Which of the following hormone have membrane

bound receptor?
(1) Testosterone (2) F.S.H
(3) Progesterone (4) Oestrogen

16. GFR is increased by which hormone?

(1) ADH (2) ANF, Renin
(3) Renin (4) Both (1) and (3)

17. Which endocrine hormone influences metabolism,

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 29. Ca2+ bind ...A... in skeletal muscles and leads to
the exposure of binding site for ...B... on the filament
...C...
Identify A, B and C, so as to complete the given
statements
(1) A-troponin, B-actin, C-relaxin
(2) A-actin, B-myosin, C-troponin
(3) A-troponin, B-myosin, C-actin
(4) A-tropomyosin, B-myosin, C-actin

30. Assertion: Both true ribs and floating ribs are

present in mammals.
23. Addison's disease results from :-
Reason: By nature, vertebra-sternal ribs are true ribs.
(1) Hypertrophy of gland
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
(2) Hypo-secretion of adrenal cortex
is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Hyperactivity of cells of leydig
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
(4) None of the above
is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
24. Decreased level of estrogen is associated with
(4) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
which of the following disorder?
(1) Rheumatoid arthritis
31. In Ascidians
(2) Osteoporosis
(1) notochord is not present
(3) Gouty arthritis
(2) notochord is present only throughout the life
(4) Muscular dystrophy
(3) notochord is present only in larval tail region
(4) notochord is replaced by vertebral column
25. If serum level of aldosterone increases than the
normal, then it would causes:
32. Select the correct statement with reference to
(1) Excretion of more Na+and less K + .
muscle structure
(2) Excretion of more K + and less Na+.
I. Each myosin is a polymerized protein
(3) Excretion of more Na+and less K + both.
II. Many meromyosin constitutes one thick filament
(4) Excretion of less Na+and less K + .
(myosin)
III. Each meromyosin's tail is called heavy
26. Unipolar neurons are:
meromyosin (HMM) and head is called light
(1) neurons in which cell body does not have any
meromyosin (LMM)
process and these neurons are commonly present in
IV. The globular head is an active ATPase enzyme and
retina of eye
has binding sites for ATP and active sites for actin
(2) neurons in which cell body have only one axon and
Choose the option with correct statements
these are normally present in embryonic stage
(1) All except I and II
(3) neurons in which cell body have only one axon and
(2) All except III and IV
these are present in cerebral cortex throughout the life
(3) All except III
(4) neurons in which either one axon or one dendrite is
(4) All except I and IV
present and these are commonly present in embryonic
stage
33. Addison's disease results from :-
(1) Hypertrophy of gland
27. Which activity stimulates the movement of the
(2) Hypo-secretion of adrenal cortex
synaptic vesicle towards the membrane
(3) Hyperactivity of cells of leydig
(1) Influx of K + (2) Efflux of Ca++
++ (4) None of the above
(3) Influx of Ca (4) Efflux of Na+
34. Decreased level of estrogen is associated with
28. Cushing syndrome occurs due to the
which of the following disorder?
(1) decreased concentration of cortisol
(a) Rheumatoid arthritis
(2) increased concentration of cortisol (b) Osteoporosis
(3) increased level of adrenaline
(c) Gouty arthritis
(4) increased concentration of mineralocorticoids
(d) Muscular dystrophy

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35. See the reactions given below carefully: (3) A → Motor neuron, B → Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(4) A → Motor neuron, B → Troponin protein

Reaction A and B respectively occurs in blood 40. Read the following statements carefully
(1) At tissue level and in RBCs (A) Bone and cartilage constitute our skeletal system.
(2) At tissue level and at alveoli level (B) Skull, Vertebral column, ribs and sternum
(3) At alveoli level and at tissue level constitute appendicular skeleton.
(4) Both reactions are occurring in plasma (C) Synovial joints allow maximum considerable
movements.
36. During muscle contraction length of all the (D) Joints are essential for all type of movements in
following reduces, except :- bony parts of the body.
(1) I-band (2) A-band How many statements are correct?
(3) H-zone (4) Sarcomere (1) Four
(2) Three
37. x and y occur at :- (3) Two
(4) One

41. Reabsorption and secretion of major substances at

different parts of the nephron are shown in the given
figure. In this figure A, B, C and D are respectively?

(a) Both at tissue level

(b) Both at alveolar level
(c) x at tissue and y at alveolar level
(d) x at alveolar and y at tissue level

38. Match the following columns

(1) HCO−3 Nutrients, Urea, NaCl

(2) NaCl, Urea, K + , HCO− 3
(3) NaCl, Urea, HCO− 3 , Ammonia
(4) H2 O, Urea, NaCl, HCO− 3

42. Assertion: The resting membrane of the neuron

exhibit polarity of charges.
Reason: The outer surface of the axonal membrane
possesses a negative charge while its inner surface
becomes positively charged.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(1) (A)-iii, (B)-v, (C)-iii, (D)-ii, (E)-i (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
(2) (A)-iii, (B)-iv, (C)-i, (D)-v, (E)-ii is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) (A)-i, (B)-iii, (C)-ii, (D)-v, (E)-iv (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) (A)-iii, (B)-i, (C)-iv, (D)-v, (E)-ii (4) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

39. During muscle contraction __A__ release 43. Assertion: Myelinated nerve fibres are present in
Acetylcholine and __B__ release 𝐂𝐚+𝟐 ions. A and B spinal and cranial nerves.
respectively ? Reason: Myelinated nerves conduct impulses more
(1) A → Sarcolemma, B → Sarcoplasm rapidly than unmyelinated nerves.
(2) A → Motor neuron, B → Sarcolemma (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
is the correct explanation of Assertion.

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(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason BOTANY
is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
46. In the following which one is an example of
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
bryophyta that has an elaborate mechanism of spore
(4) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
dispersal
(1) Polysiphonia (2) Marchantia
44. Given below are two statements :
(3) Polytrichum (4) Dryopteris
Statement I : Parathyroid hormone acts on bones and
stimulates the process of bone resorption.
47. Assertion : Mitosis is important in the life of an
Statement II : Parathyroid hormone along with
organism, especially in the growth of a multicellular
Thyrocalcitonin plays a significant role in
organism.
carbohydrate metabolism. Reason : Mitosis maintains and restores the nucleo-
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct cytoplasmic ratio.
answer from the options given below : (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
45. Which of the following statements are correct with
respect to the hormone and its function? 48. Match the column -
(A) Thyrocalcitonin (TCT) regulates the blood calcium Column-I Column-II
A. Black rust of wheat i. Puccinia
level.
B. Loose smut of wheat ii. Ustilago tritici
(B) In males, FSH and androgens regulate C. Late blight potato iii. Phytophthora
spermatogenesis. D. White rust of crucifer iv. Albugo
(C) Hyperthyroidism can lead to goitre.
(D) Glucocorticoids are secreted in Adrenal Medulla. (1) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv)
(E) Parathyroid hormone is regulated by circulating (2) A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iii), D - (iv)
levels of sodium ions. (3) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i), D - (iv)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options (4) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (i)
given below :
(1) (C) and (E) only 49. Neurospora and Claviceps differ from Mucor and
(2) (A) and (B) only Albugo in-
(3) (B) and (C) only (1) Meiospores developed exogenously
(4) (A) and (D) only (2) Presence of cross walls in their hyphae
(3) Presence of karyogamy in sexual life cycle
(4) More than one option is correct

50. Mark the mismatched pair w.r.t. bryophyte -

(1) Leafy stage of moss – Multicellular and branched
Rhizoids
(2) Protonema of moss – Filamentous stage
(3) Gemmae – Multicellular, sexual buds
(4) Capsule – Contains spores

51. A Prothallus is -
a. A structure in pteridophytes formed before the
thallus develops
b. A sporophytic free living structure formed in
pteridophytes
c. A gametophyte free living structure formed in
pteridophytes
d. A primitive structure formed after fertilization in
pteridophytes
Choose the correct set of correct statement/s -
(1) a, b (2) a, c (3) a, d (4) only C

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52. Diatomaceous earth is - (2) A - Family ; B-Reproducitve and vegitative
(1) Indestructible silicious cell wall of phytoplanktons (3) A-Genus ; B-Reproductive
(2) Destructible cell envelope of smallest living cells (4) A-Family; B-Vegetative only
(3) Indestructible silicious cell wall of 'whirling whips'
(4) Indestructible CaCO3 shells of amoeboid 61. Match the following columns and choose the
protozoans correct option-
Column I Column II
53. Fungus without any mycelium is - (a) Xylem vessels (1) Store food materials
(1) Albugo (2) Agaricus (b) Xylem tracheids (2) Obliterated lumen
(3) Puccinia (4) Sacharomyces (c) Xylem fibre (3) Perforated plates
(d) Xylem parenchyma (4) Chisel-like ends
54. Which of the following groups of plants do not
have endosperm in mature seeds - A B C D
(1) Bean, gram, pea (1) 4 3 2 1
(2) Castor, bean, gram (2) 3 2 1 4
(3) Wheat, onion, maize (3) 1 2 3 4
(4) Coconut, mango, onion (4) 3 4 2 1

55. Select the mismatched w.r.t. modification of leaf - 62. Which tissue forms the major component within
(a) Cacti - Spines organs?
(b) Bougainvillea - Thorn (1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma
(c) Nepenthes - Pitcher (3) Phloem (4) Fibres
(d) Australian Acacia - Phyllode
(1) Only b, d (2) a, b, d 63. Root hairs are present in -
(3) Only b (4) All are correct (1) Region of meristematic activity
(2) Region of elongation
56. The main fucntion of modified leaves in onion is - (3) Region of maturation
(1) Synthesis of food (2) Storage of food (4) None of the above
(3) Catching insects (4) Provides support
64. Match the column
57. Which of the following is an incorrect match? Column–I Column–II
(1) Perigynous flower - Plum, rose and peach A. Phloem parenchyma (i) Maintains pressure
(2) Monadelphous - Pea gradient
(3) Epigynous flower-Guava, cucumber, and ray B. Phloem fibres (ii) sclerenchymatous in
florets of sunflower nature
(4) Polyadelphous – Citrus C. Sclereids (iii)Dead cells
D. Companion cells (iv) Stores of resins
58. In the year 1971 T.O. diener discovered a new
infectious agent that was smaller than virues- A B C D
(I) It causes potato spindle tuber disease (1) i iii ii iv
(II)It is free RNA (2) ii i iv iii
(III) Molecular weight of RNA is low (3) i ii iii iv
The above statement are assigned to (4) iv ii iii i
(1) Viruses (2) Viroids
(3) Virulent (4) mycroplam 65. Monocotyledons are different from dicotyledons in
presence of –
59. __A__ is the process by which anything is grouped (1) Ring like arrangement of vascular bundle
into conveninent categories based on some easy __B__ (2) Secondary growth
(1) A-classification B - observable characters (3) Phloem parenchyma
(2) A – Taxonomy B - morphological character (4) Parallel venation in leaves.
(3) A - systematics B - anatomical characters
(4) A - Neo-systematics B - observable character 66. Match the following and choose the correct option
from those given below.
60. Solanum, Petunia and Datura are placed in next Column A Column B
higher category __ A _ on the basis of _ B_ characters. A. Molecular oxygen i. α-Ketoglutaric acid
(1) A-Genus ; B-Vegetative B. Electron acceptor ii. hydrogen acceptor

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C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase iii. cytochrome C (1) 10 (2) 20
D. Decarboxylation iv. acetyl CoA (3) 2 (4) 5
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii 74. Read the following statements w.r.t. antenna
molecules-
67. For synthesis of one molecule of glucose, the (a) The LHC are made up of hundreds of pigment
requirement of ATP and NADPH is respectively– molecules bound to proteins
(1) 12 and 18 (2) 33 and 22 (b) Water splitting complex is associated with the PS-II
(3) 18 and 12 (4) 18 and 22 (1) Only (b) is correct
(2) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect
68. Column I Column II (3) Only (a) is correct
I. IAA A. Terpenes (4) Both (a) and (b) are correct
II. GA B. Indole derivaties
III. ABA C. Adenine derivaties 75. Read the following statements
IV. C2 H4 D. Gas (a) 𝐶4 pathway is found in plants adapted to dry
V. Kinetin, E. Cartenoid
tropical regions
derivaties
(b) 𝐶3 pathway is the main biosynthetic pathway in 𝐶4
The correct match is-
plants
(1) I - B, II- A, III- E, IV- D, V- C
(2) I - A, II- B, III- C, IV- D, V- E (c) 𝐶4 plants have greater productivity of biomass
(3) I - E, II- D, III- A, IV- B, V- C (1) All are correct
(4) None (2) Only b is incorrect
(3) Only c is correct
69. The chemiosmosis in chloroplast requires- (4) Both b and c are incorrect
(I) a membrane (II) a proton pump
(III) a proton gradient (IV) ATP synthase 76. RQ of tripalmitin is -
6CO2 102CO2
(1) I, II, III (1) 6O2
(2) 145O2
(2) II, III and IV 2CO2 4CO2
(3) (4) 1O
(3) I, II, IV ZeroO 2 2

(4) I, II, III and IV

77. Find out the correct statement w.r.t. Gibberellins -
70. Which of the following is not the function of (1) They produce narrow range of physiological
ethylene? responses in plants
A. Promotes root growth and root hair formation. (2) GA3 was the last gibberellins to be discovered
B. Used to prepare weed free lawns by gardeners. (3) They never cause delay in senescence
C. Enhances respiration rate during fruit ripening. (4) Gibberellins hasten maturity period in juvenile
D. Speed up malting process in brewing industry. conifers
(1) A and C (2) B and D
(3) A and D (4) B and C 78. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. stroma lamellae -
(1) Presence of PS I
71. Which of the following complex of mitochondrial (2) Site of cydic photophosphorylation
ETS having two copper centres? (3) Perform photosynthesis at wavelength > 680 nm
(1) Cytochrome bc1 complex (4) Presence of NADP +reductase
(2) NADH dehydrogenase complex
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase complex 79. Which one is incorrect w.r.t cytochrome c-
(4) Cytochrome c oxidase complex (1) It is a mobile carrier protein
(2) It transfer electrones between complex II and III
72. Moll's experiment shows– (3) It transfer electrones between complex III and IV
(1) unequal transpiration form two surfaces of leaf (4) It is attached to outer surface of inner membrane.
(2) CO2 is essential for photosynthesis
(3) relation between transpiration and absorption
(4) chlorphyll is essential for photosynthesis 80. The __A __ plants respond to higher CO2
concentration and the __B__ plants respond to higher
73. To synthesize 10 molecules of acetyl CoA in temperature and show higher rate of photoysynthesis.
aerobic respiration, how many molecules of glucose The 𝐴 and 𝐵 in above paragraph respectively-
are required? (1) C3 plants, C4 plants (2) C4 plants, C3 plants
(3) C4 plants, C4 plants (4) 𝐶3 plants, 𝐶3 plants

8
 chromatids separate.
81. Pick up the correct comparision in reference with C. Terminalization takes place during Pachytene.
C4 plants D. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed
during Telophase.
E. Crossing over takes place between sister chromatids
Bundle of homologous chromosome.
sheath Mesophyll Choose the correct answer from the options given
cells below:
a) B and D only
(1) PEPcase present absent b) A, C and E only
(2) RuBisCo absent present c) B and E only
d) A and C only
(3) Chloroplast absent present
87. Arrange the following events of meiosis in the
do not correct sequences
(4)Decaboxylation takes place
takes place (A) Terminilisation of chiasmata
(B) Crossing over
(C) Synapsis
(D) Disjunction/separation of chromosome
(E) Dissociation of synaptonemal complex
82. In the given diagram labelled structures A, B, C are The correct sequence is:-
(1) A → B → C → D → E (2) E → D → C → B → A
(3) C → B → D → E → A (4) C → B → E → A → D

88. Which one of the following cellular part is not

correctly described?
(1) Nucleolus = It is a site for protein synthesis
(2) Heterochromaton = This is dark stained, thick part
(1) A-Subsidiary cells, B-Guard cells, C-Epidermal of chromation
cells (3) Nucleoplasm = Contain nucleolus and chromatin
(2) A-Epidermal cells, B-Subsidiary cells, C-Guard (4) Centriole = Play an important role in cell division.
cells
(3) A-Guard cells, B-Subsidiary cells, C-Epidermal 89. The core of eukaryotic flagellum is
cells
(1) Axoneme with 9+0 arrangement of microtubules
(4) A-Subsidiary cells, B-Epidermal cells, C-Guard
(2) Made up of number of microtubules running
cells
parallel to the short axis
83. To increase sugar production in sugarcanes, they (3) Having nine doublets of radially arranged
are sprayed with- peripheral microtubules
(1) IAA (2) Cytokinin (4) Having a pair of centrally located triplet
(3) Gibberellin (4) Ethylene microtubules

90. Assertion: Prophase is the first stage of mitosis

84. ABA acts antagonistic to-
which follows S and G1 phases of interphase.
(1) Ethylene (2) Cytokinin
Reason : Prophase is marked by the initiation of
(3) Gibberlic acid (4) IAA
clusters of chromosomes.
(5) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
85. Double fertilization means -
is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(1) fusion of two eggs
(6) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
(2) fusion of eggs and pollen nuclei of two pollen
is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
grains
(7) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) fusion of one male gamete with the egg and the
(8) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
other with the secondary nucleus
(4) fusion of one male gamete with the egg and the
other with the synergids

86. Select the correct statements.

A. Tetrad formation is seen during Leptotene.
B. During Anaphase, the centromeres split and

9
 CHEMISTRY 100. Among the compounds, BF3′ , NCl3 , H2 O, SF4 and
BeCl2′ identify the one in which the central atom has
91. Atoms 7 X A , 8 Y B and 9 Z17 are such that 8 Y is an
the same type of hybridisation:
isobar of 7 X and atom 9 Z17 is isotone of 8 𝑌. Mass no.
(1) BF3 and NCl3 (2) H2 O and BeCl2
of 𝑋 and no. of neutrons in Y are respectively-
(3) BF3 and H2 O (4) NCl3 and H2 O
(1) 8,8 (2) 17,7
(3) 9,8 (4) 16,8
101. Which statement is correct:-
(1) All the compounds having polar bonds, have dipole
92. The speed of the electron in the 2 nd orbit of the
moment
hydrogen atom [ 𝑐 is the velocity of light] -
(2) SO2 is non-polar
(1) 𝑐/1.37 (2) 𝑐/274
(3) 𝑐/13.7 (4) 𝑐/137 (3) H2 O molecule is non polar, having polar bonds
(4) PH3 is polar molecule having non polar bonds
93. In which of the following orbital diagrams, all of
three rules of electronic configuration are violated – 102. An element X belongs to fourth period and
fifteenth group of the periodic table. Which one of the
following is true regarding the outer electronic
configuration of X ? It has:
(1) partially filled d-orbitals and completely filled s-
orbital
(2) completely filled s-orbital and completely filled p-
orbitals
94. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (3) completely filled s-orbital and half filled 𝑝-orbitals
(1) Kinetic energy of electron is maximum in first orbit
(4) half filled d-orbitals and completely filled s-orbital.
(2) Velocity of electron is minimum is first orbit
(3) Radius of first orbit of H–atom is minimum
(4) The region of maximum electron density is called 103. Among the following molecules
antinode. (i) 𝑋𝑒𝑂3 (ii) 𝑋𝑒𝑂𝐹4 (iii) 𝑋𝑒𝐹6
Those having same number of lone pairs on Xe are -
95. If a0 be the first Bohr radius of hydrogen atom, (1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (i) and (iii) only
then deBroglie's wavelength of an electron revolving (3) (ii) and (iii) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
in the second excited state of H-atom will be -
(1) 6𝜋𝑎0 (2) 4𝜋𝑎0
104. Match Column-I with Column-II -
(3) 2𝜋𝑎0 (4) 𝜋𝑎0 Column-I Column-II
Molecule Molecular properties
96. Calculate the free energy and entropy change when
liquid water boils at 1 atmosphere. Latent heat of water
= 2.0723 kJg −1
(1) 0,0.1 (2) 0,10
(3) 37.3,0.1 (4) 37.3,10

97. Which one is incorrect statement -

Correct code for your answer -
(1) In open system mass and heat can exchange
P Q R S
(2) Pressure & temperature are intensive properties
(1) 4 1 2 3
(3) Work is not a state function
(2) 4 2 1 3
(4) Volume and density are extensive properties.
(3) 3 1 2 4
(4) 3 1 4 2
98. In a reaction, ΔH and ΔS both are more than zero.
In which of the following cases, the reaction would not
be spontaneous- 105. The boiling point of a compound is raised by -
Δ𝐻
(1) ΔH > TΔS (2) Δ𝑆 = (1) intermolecular hydrogen bonding
𝑇
(3) Δ𝐻 = 𝑇Δ𝑆 (4) All (2) High volatility
(3) intramolecular hydrogen bonding
99. The heat of formation of NH3 ( g) is (4) non-polarity
−46 kJ mol−1 . The ΔH (in kJmol−1 ) of the reaction,
2NH3 ( g) → N2 ( g) + 3H2 ( g) is: 106. Which has the bond order in fraction -
(1) 92 (2) -92 (1) O2 (2) HeH +
(3) 46 (4) − 46 (3) CO (4) CN

10
107. The covalent and vander Waal's radii of hydrogen 114. An organic compound contains 49.3% carbon,
respectively are:- 6.84% hydrogen and its vapour density is 73.
(1) 0.37Å, 0.8Å (2) 0.37Å, 0.37Å Molecular formula of compound will be -
(3) 0.8Å, 0.8Å (4) 0.8Å, 0.37Å (1) C6 H10 O4 (2) C3 H8 O2
(3) C3 H10 O2 (4) none
108. 350ml of a diatomic gas at 0∘ C and 2 atmosphere
115. Correct IUPAC name of 2,3-diethyl butane will
pressure weight 1gm. Calculate the mass of one atom-
be -
(1) 5.32 × 10−23 gm (2) 1.33 × 10−23 gm
(1) 2,3-Dimethyl hexame (2) 3,4-Dimethyl hexane
(3) 6.65 × 10−24 gm (4) 2.66 × 10−23 gm
(3) 2-Ethyl-3-methyl pentane (4) 2-Ethyl butane
109. Which of the following pairs have the same
116. Most stable conformation of butane is -
number of atoms-
(1) Eclipsed form (2) Staggered form
(a) 16 𝑔 of 𝑂2 ( 𝑔) and 4 𝑔 of 𝐻2 ( 𝑔)
(3) Skew-form (4) Anti-staggered form
(b) 16 𝑔 of 𝑂2 ( 𝑔) and 44 𝑔 of 𝐶𝑂2
(c) 28 𝑔 of 𝑁2 and 32 𝑔 of 𝑂2 117. Arrange the following free radicals in increasing
(d) 12 𝑔 of 𝐶(𝑠) and 23 𝑔 of 𝑁𝑎 (s) order of stability –
(1) a and c (2) b and d
(3) c and d (4) b, c and d

110. Which of the following is not a disproportionation

reaction:

(1) E < C < A < B < D (2) D < B < A < C < E
(3) A < C < E < B < D (4) E < C < A < D < B

118. Which is wrong resonating structure–

111. If electronegativity of Y > X > Z. Oxidation no.

of Z will be

(1) +4 (2) +6
(3) -6 and +4 (4) +3

112. Which among the following acts as oxidant and 119. Which one is incorrect statement-
reductant both - (1) Permanant partial displacement of 𝜎 electron in I
(a) H2 O2 (b) SO2 (c) HNO2 (d) H2 SO4 effect
(1) a, b, c (2) Permanant complete displacement of 𝜋 electron in
(2) a, b, d resonance
(3) a, c, d (3) Temporary complete displacement of 𝜎 electron in
(4) b, c hyperconjugation
(4) All
113. In the reaction
MnO− − −
4 + NO2 → NO3 + Mn
2+
̅̅̅̅ 3 is more stable than C̅F3
120. Assertion: CCl
one mole of MnO− 4 in acidic medium oxidises moles of 𝐑eason: - I effect of 𝐹 is more than 𝐶𝑙
NO− 2 (1) both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true and 𝑅 is correct explanation
(1) 5 (2) 5/2
of A
(3) 3 (4) 3/2
(2) both 𝐴 & 𝑅 are true but 𝑅 is not correct explanation
of A
(3) 𝐴 is true and 𝑅 is wrong
(4) 𝐴 and 𝑅 both are wrong

11
121. Among the following which is more reactive 126. Which carbon has most acidic hydrogen-
toward AgNO3

(1) C𝛼 (2) C𝛽
(3) Cy (4) C8

127. Which of the following is correct order of

stability of alkene-

122. Which one of the following statements is not

correct for electrophile -
(1) Electron deficient species are electrophile
(2) Electrophiles are lewis acids
(3) All +ve charged species are electrophiles
(4) AlCl3 , SF6 , IF7 . and SO3 are electrophiles

123. The correct order of decreasing basic strenghts of 128. Which of the following compound does not show
x, y and z is Fridel Craft reaction –
(1) Aniline (2) Nitrobenzene
(3) Phenol (4) all of the above

129. The order of reactivity of the following compounds

(1) x>y>z (2) x>z>y
(3) y>x>z (4) y>z>x

124. Consider the following compound

towards electrophilic substitution will be –

(1) I > II > III > IV
(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) II > I > III > IV
(4) III > II > I > IV

130. Which is the following alkenes is most reactive

125. Given below are the structures of five organic towards electrophilic addition reaction?
compounds (1) to (5) which can tautomerise.
(1) 𝐏𝐡𝐂𝐎𝐂𝐇𝟐 𝐂𝐎𝐂𝐇𝟑
(2) 𝐏𝐡𝐂𝐎𝐂𝐇𝟐 𝐂𝐇𝟑 ,
(3) 𝐏𝐡𝐂𝐎𝐂𝐇𝟐 𝐂𝐎𝐎𝐂𝟐 𝐇𝟓

(1) (5) is extensively enolized compared to (4)

(2) (4) is extensively enolized compared to (5)
(3) (2) is extensively enolized compared to (1)
(4) None

12
131. The conjugate base of NH3 is - PHYSICS
(1) NH4+ (2) NH2−
136. Velocity of sound is maximum in -
(3) NH2 (4) None
(1) Air (2) Water
(3) Vacuum (4) Steel
132. A ⇌ 2 B, K p ; C ⇌ D + E, K p′ . If degrees of
dissociation of 𝐴 and 𝐶 are same and 𝐾𝑝 = 2𝐾𝑝 , then 137. It is possible to distinguish between the transverse
the ratio of total pressure P/P′ = ? and longitudinal waves by studying the property of -
1 1 (1) Interference (2) Diffraction
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) Reflection (4) Polarisation
1
(3) (4) 2
4
138. A wave equation which gives the displacement
133. The reaction quotient (𝑄) for the reaction: along 𝑦 direction is given by 𝑦 = 0.001sin (100𝑡 +
𝑥) where 𝑥 and 𝑦 are in meter and t is time in second.
N2 ( g) + 3H2 ( g) ⇌ 2NH3 ( g) is given by Q =
This represented a wave -
[NH3 ]2 /[N2 ][H2 ]3. The reaction will proceed from 100
(1) Of frequency 𝜋 Hz
right to left if [𝐾𝑐 = equi. constant ]
(1) 𝑄 = 0 (2) 𝑄 = 𝐾𝑐 (2) Of wavelength one metre
50
(3) 𝑄 < 𝐾𝑐 (4) 𝑄 > 𝐾𝑐 (3) Travelling with a velocity of 𝜋 ms−1 in the
positive X-direction
(4) Travelling with a velocity of 100 ms−1 in the
134. At 400 K, K p = 6 for the reaction; negative X-direction
𝟏/𝟐 𝐍𝟐 ( 𝐠) + 𝟑/𝟐𝐇𝟐 ( 𝐠) ⇌ 𝐍𝐇𝟑 ( 𝐠).
What is K p for the reaction 139. The superposing waves are represented by the
𝟐𝐍𝐇𝟑 ( 𝐠) ⇌ 𝐍𝟐 ( 𝐠) + 𝟑𝐇𝟐 ( 𝐠) following equations :
(1) 0.028 (2) 6 𝑦1 = 5sin 2𝜋(10𝑡 − 0.1𝑥), 𝑦2
(3) 0.036 (4) 0.17 = 10sin 2𝜋(20𝑡 − 0.2𝑥)
𝐼
Ratio of intensities 𝐼max will be -
min
135. What is [H + ]of a solution that is 0.20M in (1) 1 (2) 9
CH3 COONa and 0.10M in CH3 COOH ? (3) 4 (4) 16
(K a for CH3 COOH = 1.8 × 10−5 )
(1) 9.0 × 10−6 (2) 3.5 × 10−4 140. In stationary waves, distance between a node and
−5
(3) 1.1 × 10 (4) 1.8 × 10−5 its nearest antinode is 20 cm. The phase difference
between two particles having a separation of 60 cm
will be -
(1) Zero (2) 𝜋/2
(3) 𝜋 (4) 3𝜋/2

141. Water contained in a tank flows through an orifice

of a diameter 2 cm, under a constant pressure
difference of 10 cm of water column. The rate of flow
of water through the orifice is -
(1) 44cc/s (2) 4.4cc/s
(3) 444cc/s (4) 4400cc/s
142. A rain drop of radius 0.3 mm has a terminal
velocity in air 1 m/s. The viscosity of air is 18 × 10−5
poise. The viscous force on it is -
(1) 101.73 × 10−4 dyne (2) 101.73 × 10−5 dyne
−5
(3) 16.95 × 10 dyne (4) 16.95 × 10−4 dyne

143. Two liquids of densities 𝑑1 and 𝑑2 are flowing in

identical capillaries under same pressure difference. If
t1 and t 2 are the time taken for the flow of equal
quantities of liquids, then the ratio of coefficients of
viscosities of liquids must be -

13
 𝑑1 𝑑2 𝑑1 𝑡 1 (1) ¼ (2) 1/8
(1) (2)
𝑡1 𝑡2 𝑑2 𝑡 2
(3) 2 (4) 1/2
𝑑 𝑡 𝑑 𝑡
(3) 𝑑1 𝑡2 (4) √(𝑑1 𝑡1 )
2 1 2 2
151. If the pressure P and volume V of a gas are related
by the equation PV = constant where 𝛾 is a positive
144. If a thermometer reads freezing point of water as (𝑑𝑃/𝑑𝑉)
constant. Then the graph of 𝑃 versus 𝑉 will be -
20∘ C and boiling point as 150∘ C, how much
thermometer will read when the actual temperature is
60∘ C -
(1) 98∘ C (2) 110∘ C
∘
(3) 40 C (4) 60∘ C

145. If the radius and length of a copper rod are both

doubled. the rate of flow of heat along the rod increase
(1) 4 times (2) 2 times
(3) 8 times (4) 16 times

146. One mole of an ideal gas is taken through the

process ABC as shown in the figure. The total work
done on the gas is-

152. The centre of mass of a body -

(1) Lies always at the geometrical centre
(2) Lies always inside the body
(3) Lies always outside the body
(1) Zero (2) 2RT0 /n2 (4) May lie within or outside the body
(3) −2𝑅𝑇0 ln 2 (4) 4RT0 /n2
153. Three point masses, each m, are placed at the
147. 1 mole of a gas with 𝛾 = 7/5 is mixed with 1 vertices of an equilateral triangle of side 'a'. Moment of
mole of a gas with 𝛾 = 5/3, then the value of 𝛾 for the inertia of the system about the axis COD which passes
resulting mixture is- through the mass at O and lies in the plane of triangle
(1) 7/5 (2) 2/5 and perpendicular to OA is –
(3) 24/16 (4) 12/7

148. Which of the following is NOT an assumption on

which the kinetic model of an ideal gas is based?
(1) All molecules behave as if they are perfectly elastic
spheres.
(2) The mean-square speed of the molecules is 2
proportional to the kelvin temperature. (1) 𝑚𝑎2 (2) 5 ma2
(3) Unless in contact, the forces between molecules are 9 5
(3) 4 𝑚2 (4) 4 ma2
negligible.
(4) The molecules are in continuous random motion.
154. The moment of inertia of a body does not depend
149. The slopes of isothermal and adiabatic curves are
on -
related as -
(1) the mass of the body
(1) Isothermal curve slope = adiabatic curve slope (2) the angular velocity of the body
(2) Isothermal curve slope = 𝛾 × adiabatic curve slope (3) the axis of rotation of the body
(3) Adiabatic curve slope = 𝛾 × isothermal curve (4) the distribution of the mass in the body
slope
(4) Adiabatic curve slope = 1/2 × isothermal curve
slope 155. On a smooth inclined plane a body of mass M is
attached between two springs. The other ends of the
150. Volume of an ideal gas decreases to one fourth of spring are fixed with rigid supports. If each spring has
initial when it undergoes adiabatic compression then a force constant k, the period of oscillation of the body
ratio of final and initial temperature is (𝛾 = 3/2) is -
(assuming the spring as massless)

14
 162. The momentum 𝑃 (in kgm/s ) of a particle is
varying with time 𝑡 (in s) as 𝑃 = 2 + 3𝑡 2 . The force
acting on the particle at t = 3 s will be -
(1) 18 N (2) 54 N
(3) 9 N (4) 15 N

𝑀 2𝑀 163. Two masses of 1 g and 4 g are moving with equal

(1) 2𝜋√2𝑘 (2) 2𝜋√
𝑘 kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitudes of their
𝑀sin 𝜃 2𝑀sin 𝜃 linear momenta is -
(3) 2𝜋√ (4) 2𝜋√
2𝑘 𝑘 (1) 4: 1 (2) √2: 1
(3) 1: 2 (4) 1: 16
156. Angular Momentum is -
(1) a polar vector (2) an axial vector
164. Find out the accelerations of the blocks –
(3) a scalar (4) none of these

157. A particle is oscillating in SHM. What fraction of

total energy is kinetic when the particle is at 𝐴/2(𝐴 =
Amplitude ) from the mean position
3 2
(1) (2)
4 4
4 5
(3) 7 (4) 7

158. The dimensions of moment of intertia is - (1) zero (2) 5 m/s2

(1) [𝑀1 𝐿2 𝑇 −1 ] (2) [𝑀0 𝐿−2 𝑇 0 ] (3) 10 m/s 2 (4) 2.5 m/s2
0 2 2
(3) [𝑀 𝐿 𝑇 ] (4) [𝑀1 𝐿2 𝑇 0 ]
165. A block of weight 9.8 N is placed on a table. The
159. Four massless springs whose force constants are table surface exerts an upward force of 10 N on the
2k, 2k, k and 2k respectively are attached to a mass M block. Assume g = 9.8 m/s2 −
kept on a frictionless plane (as shown in figure). If the (1) The block exerts a force of 10 N on the table
mass M is displaced in the horizontal direction, then (2) The block exerts a force of 19.8 N on the table
the frequency of the system – (3) The block exerts a force of 9.8 N on the table
(4) None of these

166. The linear momentum of a body is increased by

50%. The kinetic energy will be increased by -
(1) 25% (2) 50%
(3) 100% (4) 125%

167. The angular speed of ac motor wheel is increased

1 𝑘 1 4𝑘
(1) 2𝜋 √4𝑀 (2) 2𝜋 √ 𝑀 from 1200rpm to 3120rpm in 16 seconds. How many
1 𝑘 1 7𝑘
revolutions does the wheel make during this time -
(3) 2𝜋 √7𝑀 (4) 2𝜋 √ 𝑀 (1) 576 (2) 1152𝜋
(3) 288𝜋 (4) 288
160. Given 𝐹⃗ = (4𝑖ˆ − 10𝑗ˆ) and 𝑟⃗ = (−5𝑖ˆ − 3𝑗ˆ),
compute torque. 168. A sphere of mass m moving with a constant
velocity 𝑢 hits another stationary sphere of the same
(1) −62𝑗ˆ unit (2) 62𝑘ˆ unit
mass. If 𝑒 is the coefficient of restitution, then the ratio
(3) 48𝑖ˆ unit (4) −48𝑘ˆ unit
of the velocity of first sphere to second sphere after
collision will be -
161. A force 𝐹⃗ = (3𝑖ˆ + 4𝑗ˆ)N acts on a 2 kg movable 1−e 1+e2
(1) 1+e (2) 1−e2
object that moves from an initial position ⃗⃗ di (−3î −
1 𝑒−1
2ĵ)m to final position 𝑑⃗𝑓 (5𝑖ˆ + 4𝑗ˆ) in 6 s. The average (3) e−1 (4)
1
power delivered by the force during the interval is
equal to - 169. A car of mass 𝑚 is moving on a level circular
(1) 8 watt
50
(2) 6 watt track of radius R. If 𝜇𝑠 , represents the static friction
between the road and tyres of the car, the maximum
(3) 15 watt (4) None of thes
speed of the car in circular motion is given by -

15
 mRg 177. position of a body moving with acceleration ' 𝑎 '
(1) √ (2) √𝜇𝑠 Rg
𝜇s is given by 𝑥 = 𝑘𝑎𝑚 𝑡 𝑛 , here 𝑡 is time. The values of
𝑅𝑔 𝑚 and 𝑛 are given as ( 𝑘 is dimensionless)
(3) √𝜇𝑠 mRg (4) √
𝜇5 (1) 𝑚 = 1, 𝑛 = 1 (2) 𝑚 = 1, 𝑛 = 2
(3) 𝑚 = 2, 𝑛 = 1 (4) 𝑚 = 2, 𝑛 = 2
170. A uniform thick string of length 5 m is resting on
a horizontal frictionless surface. It is pulled by a 178. A physical quantity 𝑥 is calculated from the
horizontal force of 5 N from one end. The tension in 𝑎2 𝑏3
relation 𝑥 = . If the percentage error in 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐 and
𝑐 √𝑑
the string at 1m from the force applied is -
𝑑 are 2%, 1%, 3% and 4% respectively, what is the
(1) zero (2) 5 N
(3) 4 N (4) 1 N percentage error in x -
(1) ±10% (2) ±14%
171. The coordinate of a moving particle at any time (3) ±16% (4) ±12%
tare given by 𝑥 = 𝛼𝑡 3 and 𝑦 = 𝛽𝑡 3 . The speed of the
179. A car start moving along a straight line such that
particle at any time t is -
it travels one fourth distance with speed 𝑣1 and rest
(1) √𝛼 2 + 𝛽 2 (2) 3𝑡√𝛼 2 + 𝛽 2 distance of its journey with speed 𝑣2 . The average
(3) 3𝑡 2 √𝛼 2 + 𝛽 2 (4) 𝑡 2 √𝛼 2 + 𝛽 2 speed of the journey is -
𝑣 +2𝑣 2𝑣1 𝑣2
(1) (𝑣1 +4𝑣2 ) (2) 𝑣 +𝑣
172. The two ends of a train moving with constant 1 2 1 2
3𝑣1 +𝑣2 4𝑣1 𝑣2
acceleration pass a certain point with velocities 𝑢 and (3) (4)
𝑣2 +4𝑣1 𝑣2 +3𝑣1
3u. The velocity with which the middle point of the
train passes the same point is - 180. The magnitude of 𝑋 and 𝑌 components of a
3
(1) 2u (2) u
2 vector 𝐴⃗ is 8 and 5. The magnitude of 𝑋 and 𝑌
(3) √5u (4) √10u components of 𝐴⃗ + 𝐵 ⃗⃗ is 12 and 8 respectively, the
magnitude of 𝐵 ⃗⃗ is -
173. The initial velocity of a particle is 𝑢(𝑎𝑡𝑡 = 0 ) (1) 13 (2) 5
and the acceleration a is given by 𝛼𝑡 3/2 . Which of the (3) 8 (4) 6
following relations is valid?
3𝛼𝑡 3
(1) v = u + 𝛼t 3/2 (2) 𝑣 = 𝑢 +
2
2
(3) v = u + 𝛼t 5/2 (4) 𝑣 = 𝑢 + 𝛼𝑡 5/2
5

174. Two velocities (𝐴 + 𝐵) and (𝐴 − 𝐵) act such that THANK YOU

their resultant is √3𝐴2 + 𝐵2 . The angle between 𝐴⃗ and TEAM EXPONENT CLASSES
⃗⃗ is -
𝐵
(1) 0∘ (2) 30∘
(3) 60∘ (4) 90∘

175. Velocity of a stone projected, 2 second before it

reaches the maximum height, makes angle 53∘ with
the horizontal then the velocity at highest point will
be-
(1) 20 m/s (2) 15 m/s
(3) 25 m/s (4) 80/3 m/s

176. A particle is projected from a horizontal plane (

𝑥-z plane) such that its velocity vector at time 𝑡 is
given by 𝑣⃗ = 𝑎𝑖ˆ + (𝑏 − 𝑐𝑡)𝑗ˆ. Its range on the
horizontal plane is given by-
2ba 2ba
(1) g (2) c
3ba 3ba
(3) (4)
c g

16