ATP Question Bank

Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank
06/13/2011
Bank: (Airline Transport Pilot)
The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of supplement publications. These publications,
available through several aviation publishers, include the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed to successfully
respond to certain test items. Use the following URL to download a complete list of associated supplement books:
http://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/
The Learning Statement Reference Guide for Airman Knowledge Testing contains listings of learning statements with
their associated codes. It can be located at:
http://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/airmen/media/LearningStatementReferenceGuide.pdf
1. PLT124 ATP
How does Vs (KTAS) speed vary with altitude?
A) Remains the same at all altitudes.
B) Varies directly with altitude.
C) Varies inversely with altitude.
2. PLT266 ATP
Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators?
A) Delays the onset of drag divergence at high speeds and aids in maintaining aileron effectiveness at high speeds.
B) Breaks the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing.
C) Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at low speed.
3. PLT245 ATP
How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil?
A) A decrease in angle of attack.
B) An abrupt change in relative wind.
C) Sudden decrease in load factor.
4. PLT303 ATP
What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D?
A) Drag increases because of increased parasite drag.
B) Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.
C) Drag increases because of increased induced drag.
5. PLT223 ATP
In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be
deflected outside the reference lines?
A) When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude of over 60°.
B) While maneuvering at minimum controllable airspeed or less to avoid overbanking.
C) when operating at any airspeed of Vmc or greater with only enough deflection to zero the side slip .
6. PLT248 ATP
What result does a level turn have on the total lift required and load factor with a constant airspeed?
A) Lift required remains constant, and the load factor increases.
B) Both total lift required and load factor increase.
C) Lift required increases, and the load factor decreases.
file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/ATP.htm[6/13/2011 12:37:12 PM]

7. PLT248 ATP
What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed?
A) Rate will decrease and radius will increase.
B) Rate and radius will increase.
C) Rate will increase and radius will decrease.
8. PLT214 ATP
What is the condition that may occur when gusts cause a swept wing type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the
other?
A) Wingover.
B) Mach buffet.
C) Dutch roll.
9. PLT234 ATP
During a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between the component of lift and centrifugal force?
A) Centrifugal force is less than the horizontal lift component, and the load factor is increased.
B) Centrifugal force is greater than the horizontal lift component.
C) Centrifugal force and the horizontal lift component are equal, and the load factor is decreased.
10. PLT004 ATP

By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's
A) lift, gross weight, and drag.
B) lift and airspeed, but not drag.
C) lift, airspeed, and drag.
11. PLT214 ATP

What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a sweptwing aircraft?
A) A high-speed stall and sudden pitchup.
B) Severe porpoising.
C) A severe moment or `Mach tuck.`
12. PLT347 ATP

Which engine is the `critical` engine of a twin-engine airplane?
A) The one with the center of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage.
B) The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centerline of the fuselage.
C) The one designated by the manufacturer because it develops the most usable thrust.
13. PLT170 ATP

What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach?
A) A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is a VFR authorization.
B) Both are the same but classified according to the party initiating the approach.
C) A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the pilot.
14. PLT172 ATP

Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is
A) an airborne RADAR system for monitoring approaches to two runways.
B) a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways.
C) a high update rate RADAR system for monitoring multiple aircraft ILS approaches to a single runway.

15. PLT406 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 106 and 107.) If the glide slope indication is lost upon passing HUNDA INT on the ILS RWY 25L
approach at LAX, what action should the pilot take?
A) Continue to the MAP, and execute the missed approach as indicated.
B) Continue the approach as an LOC, and add 100 feet to the DH.
C) Immediately start the missed approach direct to INISH INT.
16. PLT149 ATP

What special consideration is given for turbine-powered aircraft when 'gate hold' procedures are in effect?
A) They are expected to be ready for takeoff when they reach the runway or warmup block.
B) They are expected to be ready for takeoff prior to taxi and will receive takeoff clearance prior to taxi.
C) They are given preference for departure over other aircraft.
17. PLT012 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 15 and 18.) What are the time, fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude for
Operating Conditions BE-24?
A) 12.0 minutes; 220 pounds; 45 NM.
B) 10.0 minutes; 170 pounds; 30 NM.
C) 9.0 minutes; 185 pounds; 38 NM.
18. PLT004 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 15, 16, and 17.) What is the two-engine rate of climb after takeoff in climb configuration for
A) 2,450 ft/min.
B) 1,350 ft/min.
C) 2,300 ft/min.
19. PLT012 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-1?
A) 24,000 pounds.
B) 25,000 pounds.
C) 26,000 pounds.
20. PLT065 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 19 and 20.) Which statement is true regarding performance with one engine inoperative for
A) Service ceiling is below the MEA.
B) Bleed air OFF improves service ceiling by 3,000 feet.
C) Climb rate at the MEA is more than 50 ft/min.
21. PLT012 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 21, 22, 23, 24, and 25.) What is the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-
34?
A) 1 hour 7 minutes.
B) 1 hour 12 minutes.
C) 1 hour 2 minutes.
22. PLT012 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 26.) What are the time and distance to descend from 18,000 feet to 2,500 feet?
A) 10.0 minutes, 36 NM.
B) 9.8 minutes, 33 NM.
C) 10.3 minutes, 39 NM.
23. PLT011 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 43.) What is the single-engine landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle?
Gross weight 12,000 lb
Pressure altitude 3,500 ft
Temperature (OAT) +30 °C
A) 1,000 feet.
B) 850 feet.
C) 900 feet.
24. PLT008 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 27 and 28.) What is the landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle for Operating Conditions B-36?
A) 1,625 feet.
B) 1,900 feet.
C) 950 feet.
25. PLT169 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 12.) Given the following conditions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff?
Ice vanes Retracted
A) 3,000 foot-pound.
B) 3,110 foot-pound.
C) 3,050 foot-pound.
26. PLT052 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 104.) What effect on the takeoff run can be expected on Rwy 11R at Tucson Intl?
A) Takeoff length shortened to 6,986 feet by displaced threshold.
B) Takeoff run will be lengthened by the 0.6 percent upslope of the runway.
C) Takeoff run shortened by 0.6 percent runway slope to the SE.
27. PLT020 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 63 and 64.) What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions Q-1?
A) 84.0 percent.
B) 82.4 percent.
C) 84.8 percent.
28. PLT012 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 103, 104, 105, and 106.) Estimate the total fuel required to be on the aircraft, prior to taxi at
Tucson Intl. (Use 13°E for problem magnetic variation.)
A) 2,223 pounds.
B) 2,447 pounds.
C) 2,327 pounds.
29. PLT015 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 119, 120, 121, and 122.) What is the specific range in nautical air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel
from level-off to start of descent using .78 Mach?
A) 55.9 NAM/1000.
B) 52.5 NAM/1000.
C) 48.9 NAM/1000.
30. PLT314 ATP

What effect, if any, does altitude have on VMC for an airplane with unsupercharged engines?
A) None.
B) Decreases with altitude.
C) Increases with altitude.
31. PLT346 ATP

Which direction from the primary control surface does an anti-servo tab move?
A) Remains fixed for all positions.
B) Same direction.
C) Opposite direction.
32. PLT473 ATP

What is a purpose of flight spoilers?
A) Increase the camber of the wing.
B) Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.
C) Reduce lift without increasing airspeed.
33. PLT473 ATP

Which is a purpose of ground spoilers?
A) Aid in rolling an airplane into a turn.
B) Increase the rate of descent without gaining airspeed.
C) Reduce the wings' lift upon landing.
34. PLT128 ATP

During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the
pitot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected?
A) Increase in indicated airspeed.
B) Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing.
C) Decrease in indicated airspeed.
35. PLT343 ATP

What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall?
A) Reduce the throttle and then rapidly advance the throttle to decrease the angle of attack on the compressor blades, creating
more airflow.
B) Reduce the throttle and then slowly advance the throttle again and decrease the aircraft`s angle of attack.
C) Advance the throttle slowly to increase airflow and decrease the angle of attack on one or more compressor blades.
36. PLT499 ATP

The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is
A) limiting compressor speed.
B) limiting torque.
C) limiting exhaust gas temperature.

37. PLT343 ATP

Which part(s) in the turbojet engine is subjected to the high temperatures and severe centrifugal forces?
A) Turbine wheel(s).
B) Turbine vanes.
C) Compressor rotor(s) or impeller(s).
38. PLT108 ATP

What is the minimum glycol content of Type 1 deicing/anti-icing fluid?
A) 50 percent.
B) 30 percent.
C) 80 percent.
39. PLT148 ATP

Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL).
A) Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline.
B) Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone.
C) Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone.
40. PLT141 ATP

Taxiway Centerline Lead-Off Lights are color coded to warn pilots that
A) they are within the runway environment or run-up danger critical area.
B) they are within the runway environment or ILS/MLS critical area.
C) they are within the taxiway end environment or ILS/MLS critical area.
41. PLT509 ATP

Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to
A) sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence.
B) accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.
C) rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude.
42. PLT040 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 126.) What is the usual radius from the airport of the inner circle (now called surface area), C?
A) 5 miles.
B) 10 miles.
C) 7 miles.
43. PLT161 ATP

What is the maximum acceptable tolerance for penetrating a domestic ADIZ overland?
A) Plus or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 10 minutes.
B) Plus or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes.
C) Plus or minus 20 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes.
44. PLT161 ATP

What is the maximum acceptable position tolerance for penetrating a domestic ADIZ overwater?

45. PLT162 ATP

A minimum instrument altitude for enroute operations off of published airways which provides obstruction clearance of 1,000
feet in nonmountainous terrain areas and 2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas within the United States is called
A) Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA).
B) Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude (MSA).
C) Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude (OROCA).
46. PLT040 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 127.) Which altitude is appropriate for circle 6 (top of Class G airspace)?
A) 700 or 2,500 feet AGL.
B) 500 or 2,000 feet AGL.
C) 700 or 1,200 feet AGL.
47. PLT195 ATP

Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA)is expected to
A) maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact.
B) notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable.
C) request ATC clearance for the deviation.
48. PLT225 ATP

How should an off-airway direct flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?
A) The initial fix, the true course, and the final fix.
B) The initial fix, all radio fixes which the pilot wishes to be compulsory reporting points, and the final fix.
C) All radio fixes over which the flight will pass.
49. PLT108 ATP

A pretakeoff contamination check for snow, ice or frost is required by FAR Part 135. This check is required to
A) be completed within 5 minutes prior to beginning the takeoff.
B) be made within 2 minutes of starting the takeoff roll.
C) see that the aircraft is clean, therefore, a safe takeoff can be made during the next 5 minutes.
50. PLT280 ATP

The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration takeoff is known as
A) somatogravic illusion.
B) autokinesis.
C) inversion illusion.
51. PLT097 ATP

What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning?
A) Rapid, shallow breathing.
B) Dizziness.
C) Pain and cramping of the hands and feet.
52. PLT022 ATP

An experienced pilot trying to meet a schedule
A) can expect the flight crew to alert them to problems or areas of concern.
B) will always err on the side of caution.
C) can fail to perceive operational pitfalls.

53. PLT083 ATP

Under what condition may a pilot file an IFR flight plan containing a special or privately owned IAP?
A) Upon signing a waiver of responsibility.
B) Upon approval of the owner.
C) Upon approval of ATC.
54. PLT083 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 122, and appendix 1, legend 9.) What is the approximate rate of descent required (for planning
purposes) to maintain the electronic glide slope at 120 KIAS with a reported headwind component of 15 knots?
A) 635 ft/min.
B) 650 ft/min.
C) 555 ft/min.
55. PLT354 ATP

A GPS missed approach requires that the pilot take action to sequence the receiver
A) over the MAWP.
B) after the MAWP.
C) just prior to the MAWP.
56. PLT420 ATP

A pilot employed by an air carrier and/or commercial operator may conduct GPS/WAAS instrument approaches
A) if they are not prohibited by the FAA-approved aircraft flight manual and the flight manual supplement.
B) only if approved in their air carrier/commercial operator operations specifications.
C) only if the pilot was evaluated on GPS/WAAS approach procedures during their most recent proficiency check.
57. PLT323 ATP

What does "UNREL" indicate in the following GPS and WAAS NOTAM :BOS BOS WAAS LPV AND LNAV/VNAV MNM UNREL
WEF 0305231700 - 0305231815?
A) Satellite signals are currently unavailable to support LPV and LNAV/VNAV approaches to the Boston airport.
B) The predicted level of service, within the time parameters of the NOTAM, may not support LPV approaches.
C) The predicted level of service, within the time parameters of the NOTAM, will not support LNAV/VNAV and MLS approaches.
58. PLT420 ATP

To conduct a localizer performance with vertical guidance (LPV) RNAV (GPS) approach, the aircraft must be furnished with
A) a GPS/WAAS receiver approved for an LPV approach by the AFM supplement.
B) a GPS (TSO-129) receiver certified for IFR operations.
C) an IFR approach-certified system with required navigation performance (RNP) of 0.5.
59. PLT323 ATP

"Unreliable", as indicated in the following GPS NOTAMS: SFO 12/051 SFO WAAS LNAV/VNAV AND LPV MNM UNRELBL
WEF0512182025-0512182049 means
A) within the time parameters of the NOTAM, the predicted level of service will not support LPV approaches.
B) satellite signals are currently unavailable to support LPV and LNAV/VNAV approaches.
C) within the time parameters of the NOTAM, the predicted level of service will not support RNAV and MLS approaches.
60. PLT370 ATP

What minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance `cleared as filed` include?
A) Clearance limit, transponder code, and DP, if appropriate.

B) Destination airport, en route altitude, transponder code, and DP, if appropriate.

C) Clearance limit and en route altitude.
61. PLT433 ATP

What is one limitation when filing a random RNAV route on an IFR flight plan?
A) The entire route must be within radar environment.
B) The waypoints may only be defined by degree-distance fixes based on appropriate navigational aids.
C) The waypoints must be located within 200 NM of each other.
62. PLT379 ATP

An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if
A) the airport has AWOS-3 weather reporting.
B) the airport is located next to a restricted or prohibited area.
C) the NAVAIDS used for the final approach are unmonitored.
63. PLT300 ATP

Pilots are not authorized to fly a published RNAV or RNP procedure unless it is retrievable by the procedure name from
A) the aircraft navigation database, or manually loaded with each individual waypoint in the correct sequence.
B) the aircraft navigation database, or manually loaded with each individual waypoint and verified by the pilot(s).
C) the aircraft navigation database.
64. PLT355 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'D' correspond?
A) 4.
B) 17.
C) 15.
65. PLT276 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 137 and 138.) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the outer marker is
indicated?
A) 1,550 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 210 feet above the glide slope.
B) 775 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 420 feet below the glide slope.
C) 1,550 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 210 feet below the glide slope.
66. PLT091 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 125.) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is located on the 055° radial of the station and
heading away from the station?
A) 2.
B) 1.
C) 3.
67. PLT300 ATP

Which indication may be received when a VOR is undergoing maintenance and is considered unreliable?
A) An automatic voice recording stating the VOR is out-of-service for maintenance.
B) Identifier is preceded by 'M' and an intermittent 'OFF' flag might appear.
C) Coded identification T-E-S-T.
68. PLT276 ATP

When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection?

A) When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale right, or vice versa.
B) When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa.
C) When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right.
69. PLT128 ATP

Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the
leading edge and upper surface of a wing can
A) reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.
B) increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 40 percent.
C) reduce lift by as much as 40 percent and increase drag by 30 percent.
70. PLT083 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 193, 193A,194, 195, 195A, 196,and 196A.) While being radar vectored for the ILS/DME RWY
35R, Denver Approach Control tells PIL 10 to contact the tower, without giving the frequency. What frequency should PIL 10
use for tower?
A) 121.85.
B) 124.3.
C) 132.35.
71. PLT083 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 118A.) The touchdown zone elevation of the LOC BC RWY 26L approach at Phoenix Sky Harbor
Intl is
A) 1,123 feet.
B) 1,130 feet.
C) 1,640 feet.
72. PLT083 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 161A.) The La Guardia weather goes below minimums and New York Approach Control issues a
clearance to N711JB, via radar vectors, to ASALT Intersection. What is the lowest altitude that Approach Control may clear
N711JB to cross ASALT Intersection?
A) 2,500 feet.
B) 3,000 feet.
C) 2,000 feet.
73. PLT083 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 173A.) During the approach (ILS RWY 10 at SYR) while maintaining an on glide slope indication
with a groundspeed of 110 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent for PTZ 70?
A) 475 feet per minute.
B) 690 feet per minute.
C) 585 feet per minute.
74. PLT055 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 121, upper panel.) On the airway J220 (BUF R-158) SE of Buffalo, the MAA is 39,000 feet. What
is the MAA on J547 between BUF and PMM (lower panel)?
A) 60,000 feet.
B) 45,000 feet.
C) 43,000 feet.
75. PLT100 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 171, top panel.) The facility (Kankakee) that is located 9 miles NE of Chicago Midway or 27 miles

SSE of Northbrook (OBK) is a/an

A) Aeronautical Radio Inc. (AIRINC) transmitter.
B) Flight Service, Remote Communications Outlet.
C) Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS/ASOS) with frequency.
76. PLT078 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 99 and 101.) Which frequency should be selected to check airport conditions and weather prior to
departure at DFW Intl?
A) 117.0 MHz.
B) 135.5 MHz.
C) 134.9 MHz.
77. PLT083 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 111 and 112.) Which approach lighting is available for Rwy 32R?
A) HIRL.
B) TDZ and CL.
C) MALSR with RAIL.
78. PLT132 ATP

The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop
distance is
A) VEF.
B) V1.
C) V2.
79. PLT132 ATP

Which is the correct symbol for design cruising speed?
A) VC.
B) VA.
C) VS.
80. PLT395 ATP

What is the name of an area beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when
calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft?
A) Stopway.
B) Obstruction clearance plane.
C) Clearway.
81. PLT432 ATP

"Operational control" of a flight refers to
A) exercising the privileges of pilot in command of an aircraft.
B) the specific duties of any required crewmember.
C) exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
82. PLT440 ATP

If either pilot of an air carrier airplane leaves the duty station while flying at FL 410, the other pilot
A) must have a quick-donning type oxygen mask available.
B) and the flight engineer shall put on their oxygen masks and breath oxygen.
C) shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen.

83. PLT449 ATP

If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight
check in January 1989, the latter check is considered to have been taken in
A) January 1989.
B) November 1988.
C) December 1988.
84. PLT460 ATP

The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmembers serving on
pressurized airplanes operated above
A) FL 250.
B) FL 180.
C) FL 200.
85. PLT462 ATP

A crewmember interphone system is required on which airplane?
A) A large airplane.
B) An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.
C) A turbojet airplane.
86. PLT438 ATP

Above which altitude/flight level must at least one of the two pilots, at the controls of a pressurized aircraft (with quick-donning
masks) wear a secured and sealed oxygen mask?
A) FL 300.
B) FL 250.
C) FL 350.
87. PLT454 ATP

A certificate holder must have 'exclusive use' of
A) at least one aircraft that meets the requirements of the specific operations authorized in the certificate holder's Operations
Specifications.
B) at least one aircraft that meets the requirements of each kind of operation authorized in the Operations Specifications.
C) at least one aircraft that meets the requirements of at least one kind of operation authorized in the certificate holder's
Operations Specifications.
88. PLT139 ATP

In which airplanes is a Class A TAWS warning system required?
A) Turbine-powered aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, including any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more.
B) Turbine-powered airplanes having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more.
C) All airplanes having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more.
89. PLT437 ATP

Which is a requirement for life preservers during extended overwater operations? Each life preserver must be equipped with
A) one flashlight having at least two size 'D' cells or equivalent.
B) a dye marker.
C) an approved survivor locator light.
90. PLT405 ATP

During which time period must a required voice recorder of a passenger-carrying airplane be continuously operated?
A) From engine start at departure airport to engine shutdown at landing airport.
B) From the use of the checklist before the flight to completion of the final check at the end of the flight.
C) From the beginning of taxi to the end of the landing roll.
91. PLT462 ATP

Which aircraft must be equipped with an approved public address and crewmember interphone system?
A) Multiengine aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 10 seats or more.
B) All turbine-engine-powered aircraft having a seating configuration of more than 19 seats.
C) Aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of more than 19 seats.
92. PLT454 ATP

The weight and CG of an aircraft used in 135 operations must have been calculated from those values established by actual
weighing of the aircraft within what period of time?
A) Multiengine aircraft, last 36 calendar months; single-engine, last 24 calendar months.
B) Multiengine and single-engine aircraft, preceding 36 calendar months.
C) Multiengine aircraft, preceding 36 calendar months.
93. PLT385 ATP

Which restriction must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment?
A) It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to occupants.
B) Cargo carried in passenger seats must be forward of all passengers.
C) All cargo must be carried in a suitable bin and secured to a passenger seat or the floor structure of the aircraft.
94. PLT385 ATP

Which is a requirement governing the carriage of carry-on baggage?
A) All carry-on baggage must be restrained so that its movement is prevented during air turbulence.
B) Pieces of carry-on baggage weighing more than 10 pounds must be carried in an approved rack or bin.
C) Carry-on baggage must be stowed under the seat in front of the owner.
95. PLT392 ATP

An aircraft being operated outside of the United States, over a foreign country, by a 14 CFR part 135 operator must comply
with
A) rules of the U.S. State Department and the foreign country.
B) regulations of the foreign country.
C) the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), Annex 3, Rules of the Air.
96. PLT282 ATP

Which condition must be met to conduct IFR operations from an airport that is not at the location where weather observations
are made?
A) The Administrator must issue Operations Specifications that permit the procedure.
B) An 'Authorization Letter' permitting the procedure must be issued by the FAA district office charged with the overall
inspection of the certificate holder..
C) A 'Letter of Waiver' authorizing the procedure must be issued by the Administrator, after an investigation by the U.S.
National Weather Service and the FSDO which find the standard of safety to be satisfactory.
97. PLT437 ATP

Which performance requirement applies to passenger-carrying land airplanes being operated over water?
A) Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with the critical engine inoperative, at least 100 ft/min at 1,000 feet above the
surface.

B) Single-engine airplanes must be operated at an altitude that will allow them to reach land in case of engine failure.
C) Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with the critical engine inoperative, at least 50 ft/min at 1,500 feet above the
surface.
98. PLT442 ATP

To serve as pilot in command in an IFR operation, a person must have passed a line check
A) within the past 12 months, which include a portion of a civil airway and one instrument approach at one representative
airport, in one of the types of aircraft which that pilot is to fly.
B) since the beginning of the 12th month before that service, which included at least one flight over a civil airway, or approved
off-airway route, or any portion of either, in one type of aircraft which that pilot is to fly.
C) consisting of a flight over the route to be flown, with at least three instrument approaches at representative airports, within
the past 12 calendar months, in one type of aircraft which that pilot is to fly.
99. PLT424 ATP

A pilot in command who is authorized to use an autopilot system, in place of a second in command, may take the autopilot
check
A) concurrently with the instrument proficiency check, but at 12 month intervals.
B) concurrently with the competency check, providing the check is taken at 12 month intervals.
C) in any aircraft appropriately equipped, providing the check is taken at 6 month intervals.
100. PLT460 ATP

The certificate holder must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, gas expansion, and decompression to
crewmembers who serve in operations above
A) FL 180.
B) FL 250.
C) FL 200.
101. PLT440 ATP

A flight attendant crewmember is required on aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of
A) 19 or more.
B) 20 or more.
C) 15 or more.
102. PLT384 ATP

Before each takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers shall ensure that all passengers have been orally
briefed on the
A) use of seatbelts, smoking, and location and use of survival equipment.
B) location of normal and emergency exits, oxygen masks, and life preservers.
C) use of safety belts, location and operation of fire extinguishers, and smoking.
103. PLT443 ATP

A commuter air carrier certificate holder plans to assign a pilot as pilot in command of an aircraft having eight passenger seats
to be used in passenger-carrying operations. Which experience requirement must that pilot meet if the aircraft is to be flown
with an operative approved autopilot and no second in command?
A) 50 hours and 10 landings as pilot in command in the make and model.
B) 100 hours as pilot in command in the category, class, and type.
C) 100 hours as pilot in command in the make and model.
104. PLT464 ATP

When is a pilot not required to keep the shoulder harness fastened during takeoff and landing while at a pilot station?

A) When the pilot cannot perform the required duties with the shoulder harness fastened.
B) When serving as pilot in command or second in command of an aircraft having a total seating capacity of eight seats or less.
C) When operating an aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or less.
105. PLT443 ATP

What is the minimum passenger seating configuration that requires a second in command?
A) 12 seats.
B) 15 seats.
C) 10 seats.
106. PLT493 ATP

Which is an operational requirement concerning ice, snow, or frost on structural surfaces?
A) If snow, ice, or frost is adhering to the airplane's lift or control surfaces, but polished smooth, a takeoff may be made.
B) A takeoff may be made with ice, snow, or frost adhering to the wings or stabilizing or control surfaces, but polished smooth,
if the anti-icing and deicing equipment is operating.
C) A takeoff may not be made if ice or snow is adhering to the wings or stabilizing or control surfaces.
107. PLT407 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 173, and 173A.) The PIC of PTZ 70 has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the BE 1900. Due to
BUF weather being 100 feet, 1/4 mile in blowing snow, which is below landing minimums, the PIC requested and received
clearance to SYR, the filed alternate.
Under Part 135 what are the PIC's minimums at SYR for the ILS RWY 10?
A) 800/2.
B) 671/40.
C) 771/64.
108. PLT442 ATP

No person may serve, as second in command of an aircraft (under part 135), unless they hold a commercial pilot certificate with
the appropriate category, class rating and an instrument rating. For flight under IFR, that person must have accomplished within
the last 6 months, the recent instrument requirements of
A) holding procedures, using the navigation systems for intercepting and tracking courses, and 6 instrument approaches.
B) using the navigation systems for interception and tracking of courses, 6 instrument low approaches and holding.
C) using the navigation systems to intercept and track 3 inbound/3outbound courses, 6 holding patterns and 6 instrument
approaches.
109. PLT456 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 2.) May a small transport category, turbine-engine-powered airplane that has a computed landing
distance of 5,500 feet use one or both of the runways depicted in the illustration at the destination airport?
A) Rwy 1 or Rwy 19 may be used whether conditions are wet or dry.
B) Neither Rwy 1 nor Rwy 19 may be used if dry conditions exist.
C) Only Rwy 19 may be used provided dry conditions exist.
110. PLT008 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 1.) What is the maximum landing distance that may be used by a turbopropeller-powered, small
transport category airplane to land on Rwy 24 (dry) at the alternate airport?
A) 6,405 feet.
B) 5,490 feet.
C) 6,210 feet.
111. PLT008 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 1.) What is the maximum landing distance that may be used by a turbine-engine-powered, small
transport category airplane to land on Rwy 6 (wet) at the destination airport?
A) 5,460 feet.
B) 6,088 feet.
C) 5,880 feet.
112. PLT282 ATP

If a certificate holder makes arrangements for another person to perform aircraft maintenance, that maintenance shall be
performed in accordance with the
A) provisions of a contract prepared by a certificate holder and approved by the supervising FAA district office.
B) certificate holder's manual and FAR Parts 43, 91, and 135.
C) provisions and standards as outlined in the certificate holder's manual.
113. PLT442 ATP

A pilot, acting as second in command, successfully completes the instrument competency check specified in FAR Part 61. How
long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made?
A) 6 months.
B) 90 days.
C) 12 months.
114. PLT447 ATP

When a facsimile replacement is received for an airman`s medical certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid?
A) 30 days.
B) 90 days.
C) 60 days.
115. PLT463 ATP

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation
Security Division?
A) No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
B) No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action.
C) Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.
116. PLT460 ATP

In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may
instruct other pilots in air transportation service?
A) 6 hours.
B) 10 hours.
C) 8 hours.
117. PLT427 ATP

An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is
A) not required to have a medical certificate.
B) required to have a first-class medical certificate.
C) required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate.
118. PLT443 ATP

A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot
Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes?
A) ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737.

B) ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737.

C) Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747.
119. PLT405 ATP

An approved minimum equipment list or FAA Letter of Authorization allows certain instruments or equipment
A) to be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft if prescribed procedures are followed.
B) to be inoperative anytime with no other documentation required or procedures to be followed.
C) to be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base without further documentation from the
operator or FAA with passengers on board.
120. PLT429 ATP

When is DME or suitable RNAV required for an instrument flight?
A) Above 12,500 feet MSL.
B) In terminal radar service areas.
C) At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.
121. PLT508 ATP

What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR system when checking one
VOR against the other?
A) 6° on the ground and in flight.
B) 6° in flight and 4° on the ground.
C) 4° on the ground and in flight.
122. PLT373 ATP

No person may operate a U.S. registered civil aircraft
A) for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved operator`s manual
available.
B) for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available.
C) for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available or
the manual specified in part 135 section 135.19(b).
123. PLT161 ATP

The maximum indicated airspeed that an aircraft may be flown in Class B airspace, after departing the primary airport, while at
1,700 feet AGL and 3.5 nautical miles from the airport is
A) 250 knots.
B) 200 knots.
C) 230 knots.
124. PLT393 ATP

Which publication includes information on operations in the North Atlantic (NAT) Minimum Navigation Performance
Specifications Airspace?
A) 14 CFR Part 91.
B) 14 CFR Part 121.
C) ICAO Annex 1, Chapter 2.
125. PLT161 ATP

At what minimum altitude is a turbine- engine-powered, or large airplane, required to enter Class D airspace?
A) 2,000 feet AGL.
B) 2,500 feet AGL.

C) 1,500 feet AGL.
126. PLT383 ATP

During an emergency, a pilot in command does not deviate from a 14 CFR rule but is given priority by ATC. To whom or under
what condition is the pilot required to submit a written report?
A) Upon request by ATC, submit a written report within 48 hours to the ATC manager.
B) To the manager of the facility in control within 10 days.
C) To the manager of the General Aviation District Office within 10 days.
127. PLT162 ATP

What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace?
A) Notify ATC immediately.
B) Monitor the VOR receiver.
C) Squawk 7600.
128. PLT147 ATP

A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall
A) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
B) use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR.
C) not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received.
129. PLT277 ATP

If the middle marker for a Category I ILS approach is inoperative,
A) the RVR required to begin the approach is increased by 20%.
B) the DA/DH is increased by 50 feet.
C) the inoperative middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.
130. PLT078 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 168, 169, and 169A.) What action should be taken by the pilot if communications are lost after
departure from RWY 16 at PWK if VMC?
A) Start right turn within 1 mile of the departure end of RWY, remain east of ORD VOR/DME R-345, and maintain 3,000 feet; 3
minutes after departure, turn direct to PMM, and climb to FL 190.
B) Climb to 3,000 feet; after 3 minutes, turn direct to PMM and climb to FL 190.
C) Continue the flight under VMC and land as soon as practicable.
131. PLT421 ATP

What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not
reported?
A) 1/4 SM.
B) 3/8 SM.
C) 3/4 SM.
132. PLT292 ATP

In addition to the localizer, glideslope, marker beacons, approach lighting, and HIRL, which ground components are required to
be operative for a Category II instrument approach to a DH below 150 feet AGL?
A) Radar, VOR, ADF, runway exit lights, and RVR.
B) RCLS and REIL.
C) Each required ground component.

133. PLT420 ATP

When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach?
A) At the DA/DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible, or anytime thereafter that visual
reference is lost.
B) When the time has expired after reaching the DA/DH and the runway environment is not clearly visible.
C) At the DA/DH when the runway is not clearly visible.
134. PLT444 ATP

The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum ground visibility may be
substituted for the RVR value?
A) 3/4 SM.
B) 5/8 SM.
C) 7/8 SM.
135. PLT125 ATP

Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach light system as the
primary visual reference for the intended runway?
A) Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the approach light system can be seen.
B) The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that
the red light bars be visible and identifiable.
C) Under no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual reference for descent below DH or MDA.
136. PLT391 ATP

While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence
of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?
A) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport.
B) The route filed in the flight plan.
C) An off-airway route to the point of departure.
137. PLT409 ATP

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the
preceding
A) 12 hours.
B) 24 hours.
C) 8 hours.
138. PLT388 ATP

For what purpose may cockpit voice recorders and flight data recorders NOT be used?
A) Identifying procedures that may have been conducive to any accident, or occurrence resulting in investigation under NTSB
Part 830.
B) Determining causes of accidents and occurrences under investigation by the NTSB.
C) Determining any certificate action, or civil penalty, arising out of an accident or occurrence.
139. PLT367 ATP

Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-
powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine?
A) The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR.
B) No passengers may be carried.
C) The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length.

140. PLT425 ATP

Before an ETOPS flight may commence, an ETOPS
A) preflight check must be conducted by a certified A&P and signed off in the logbook.
B) pre-departure service check must be certified by a PDSC Signatory Person.
C) pre-departure check must be signed off by an A&P or the PIC for the flight.
141. PLT366 ATP

What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a 'serious injury'?
A) 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.
B) 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date of injury.
C) 10 days, with no other extenuating circumstances.
142. PLT515 ATP

The Telephone Information Briefing Service (TIBS) recordings are provided by selected Automated Flight Service Stations and
A) are updated on the hour.
B) are designed to replace the standard briefing given by a flight service specialist.
C) contain area briefings encompassing a 50 NM radius.
143. PLT076 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 149.) What will be the wind and temperature trend for an SAT ELP TUS flight at 16,000 feet?
A) Temperature decrease slightly.
B) Wind direction shift from southwest to east.
C) Windspeed decrease.
144. PLT042 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 153, 154, and 155.) Interpret the path of the jetstream.
A) Southern California, Nevada, Utah, Nebraska/Kansas, and then southeastward.
B) The Alaska area, across Canada to Montana, South Dakota, then across the Great Lakes area.
C) Oregon, Idaho, Wyoming, Nebraska, Iowa, and across the Great Lakes.
145. PLT061 ATP

KFTW UA/OV DFW/TM 1645/FL100/TP PA30/SK SCT031-TOP043/BKN060-TOP085/OVC097-TOPUNKN/WX FV00SM RA/TA
07.
This pilot report to Fort Worth (KFTW) indicates
A) the aircraft is in light rain.
B) the ceiling at KDFW is 6,000 feet.
C) that the top of the ceiling is 4,300 feet.
146. PLT274 ATP

The following weather condition may be conducive to severe in-flight icing:
A) visible rain at temperatures below 0° C ambient air temperature.
B) visible moisture at temperatures below 5° C ambient temperature.
C) visible rain at temperatures below 10° C ambient temperature.
147. PLT317 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 144.) How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter?
A) Performance increasing with a tailwind and updraft.
B) Performance decreasing with a headwind and downdraft.
C) Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft.

148. PLT302 ATP

The tropopause is generally found when the free air temperatures are
A) between -55° and -65° C.
B) between -40° and -55° C.
C) colder than -60° C.
149. PLT493 ATP

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
A) The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are falling.
B) Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint and the dewpoint is also below freezing.
C) Dew collects on the surface and then freezes because the surface temperature is lower than the air temperature.
150. PLT302 ATP

Where are jetstreams normally located?
A) In a break in the tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are located.
B) In areas of strong low pressure systems in the stratosphere.
C) In a single continuous band, encircling the Earth, where there is a break between the equatorial and polar tropopause.
151. PLT021 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG in inches from datum under Loading Conditions BE-1?
A) Station 290.3.
B) Station 291.8.
C) Station 285.8.
152. PLT021 ATP

What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit?
A) Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability.
B) Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability.
C) Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability.
153. PLT021 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG shift if the passengers in row 1 are moved to seats in row
9 under Loading Conditions BE-1?
A) 6.2 inches aft.
B) 1.5 inches aft.
C) 5.6 inches aft.
154. PLT470 ATP

What corrective action can a pilot take to prevent a retreating blade stall at its onset?
A) Reduce collective pitch and increase rotor RPM.
B) Reduce collective pitch and decrease rotor RPM.
C) Increase collective pitch and increase rotor RPM.
155. PLT237 ATP

Why are the rotor blades more efficient when operating in ground effect?
A) Induced drag is reduced.
B) Downwash velocity is accelerated.

C) Induced angle of attack is increased.
156. PLT310 ATP

What is the ratio between the total load supported by the rotor disc and the gross weight of a helicopter in flight?
A) Load factor.
B) Aspect ratio.
C) Power loading.
157. PLT004 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 41.) Given the following, what is the single-engine climb or descent performance?
A) 150 ft/min descent.
B) 100 ft/min descent.
C) 350 ft/min climb.
158. PLT048 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 37.) What is the maximum gross weight for hovering in ground effect at 3,000 feet pressure altitude
and +25 °C?
A) 16,600 pounds.
B) 17,300 pounds.
C) 14,700 pounds.
159. PLT011 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 39.) What is the takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle?
A) 1,100 feet.
B) 1,070 feet.
C) 1,020 feet.
160. PLT012 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 184, 186, 187, 188, and 188A.) What is the minimum fuel required under 14 CFR part 135 for this
IMC helicopter flight from LAS to PVU? The visibility is forecast to be 1.5 SM over the entire route.
A) 1,304 pounds.
B) 1,224 pounds.
C) 985 pounds.
161. PLT214 ATP

What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade?
A) It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.
B) It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.
C) It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight.
162. PLT470 ATP

Which type rotor system is more susceptible to ground resonance?
A) Rigid rotor system.
B) Fully articulated rotor system.

C) Semi-rigid rotor system.
163. PLT472 ATP

What type frequency vibration is associated with the main rotor system?
A) Medium frequency.
B) High frequency.
C) Low frequency.
164. PLT472 ATP

What type frequency vibration is associated with a defective transmission?
A) Medium or low frequency.
B) Low frequency only.
C) High or medium frequency.
165. PLT112 ATP

What is a helicopter pilot's responsibility when cleared to 'air taxi' on the airport?
A) Taxi direct to destination as quickly as possible.
B) Taxi below 100 feet AGL avoiding other aircraft and personnel.
C) Taxi at hover altitude using taxiways.
166. PLT170 ATP

How should the pilot execute a pinnacle-type approach to a rooftop heliport in conditions of high wind and turbulence?
A) Steeper-than-normal approach, maintaining the desired angle of descent with collective.
B) Shallow approach, maintaining a constant line of descent with cyclic.
C) Normal approach, maintaining a slower-than-normal rate of descent with cyclic.
167. PLT208 ATP

What corrective action can a pilot take to recover from settling with power?
A) Decrease forward speed and partially raise collective pitch.
B) Increase forward speed and partially lower collective pitch.
C) Increase forward speed and raise collective pitch.
168. PLT225 ATP

To assure expeditious handling of a civilian air ambulance flight, the word 'LIFEGUARD' should be entered in which section of
the flight plan?
A) Aircraft type/special equipment block.
B) Remarks block.
C) Pilot's name and address block.
169. PLT205 ATP

What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body?
A) Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases.
B) Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.
C) Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities.
170. PLT280 ATP

Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of
A) leveling off.
B) pitching up.

C) pitching down.
171. PLT171 ATP

What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to 'VERIFY 9,000' and the flight is actually maintaining 8,000?
A) Immediately climb to 9,000.
B) Report maintaining 8,000.
C) Report climbing to 9,000.
172. PLT277 ATP

Which of the following are required for a helicopter ILS approach with a decision height lower than 200 feet HAT?
A) Special aircrew training and aircraft certification.
B) Both a marker beacon and a radio altimeter.
C) ATP helicopter certificate and CAT II certification.
173. PLT349 ATP

Obstacles in most areas where `Copter GPS` instrument approaches are needed, require the approach speed must be limited
to
A) 70 knots on final and missed approach segments.
B) 60 knots on all segments except the missed approach.
C) 80 knots on initial and final segments.
174. PLT276 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 136 and 138.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,300-foot
point from the runway is indicated?
A) 28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline.
B) 21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline.
C) 21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.
175. PLT083 ATP

When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?
A) As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.
B) At the published DH.
C) At the MDA published or a circling approach.
176. PLT208 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 112.) What action should the pilot take if communications were lost during the Cugar Four Arrival,
after turning on the 305 radial of IAH?
A) Proceed direct to IAH VORTAC, then outbound on the IAH R-125 for a procedure turn for final approach.
B) Proceed direct to IAH VORTAC, then to either IAF on the IAH 10 DME Arc to final approach.
C) From BANTY INT, proceed to the IAF on the IAH R-290, then continue on the IAH 10 DME Arc to final approach.
177. PLT354 ATP

If the missed approach is not activated, the GPS receiver will display
A) an extension of the inbound final approach course.
B) an extension of the outbound final approach course.
C) an extension of the outbound final approach course, and the ATD will increase from the MAWP.
178. PLT354 ATP

If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach, the pilot should

A) continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured.
B) proceed as cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory.
C) select another type of approach using another type of navigation aid.
179. PLT354 ATP

Aircraft navigating by GPS are considered, on the flight plan, to be
A) RNAV equipped.
B) FMS/EFIS equipped.
C) Astrotracker equipped.
180. PLT091 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 125.) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4?
A) 285°.
B) 235°.
C) 055°.
181. PLT361 ATP

How does the SDF differ from an ILS LOC?
A) SDF - 15° usable off course indications, ILS - 35°.
B) SDF - 6° or 12° wide, ILS - 3° to 6°.
C) SDF - offset from runway plus 4° minimum, ILS - aligned with runway.
182. PLT087 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 123.) You receive this ATC clearance:
'...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL...'
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A) Direct only.
B) Parallel only.
C) Teardrop only.
183. PLT058 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 114, lower panel.) What is the minimum en route altitude on V210, when crossing the POM
VORTAC southwest bound and continuing on the same airway?
A) 5,300 feet.
B) 10,300 feet.
C) 10,700 feet.
184. PLT282 ATP

If previous arrangements have not been made by the operator, where can the procedures for servicing the aircraft be found?
A) Certificate holder's manual.
B) Certificate holder's maintenance manual.
C) Pilot's Handbook.
185. PLT454 ATP

What are the empty weight and balance currency requirements for aircraft used in 135 operations?
A) The empty weight and CG of multiengine aircraft must have been calculated from an actual weighing within the previous 36
calendar months.
B) The empty weight and CG of multiengine and single-engine aircraft must have been calculated from an actual weighing
within the previous 36 calendar months.

C) The empty weight and CG must have been calculated from an actual weighing within the previous 24 calendar months
unless the original Airworthiness Certificate was issued within the previous 36 calendar months.
186. PLT444 ATP

The pilot in command may deviate from 14 CFR Part 135 during an emergency involving the safety of persons or property only
A) if required to, by the emergency cockpit checklist.
B) after ATC is notified of the emergency and the extent of deviation required.
C) to the extent required to meet that emergency.
187. PLT409 ATP

What minimum rest period must be provided for a pilot assigned to Helicopter Hospital Emergency Medical Evacuation Service
(HEMES) who has been on duty for a 47-hour period?
A) 16 consecutive hours.
B) 12 consecutive hours.
C) 14 consecutive hours.
188. PLT440 ATP

Who may be allowed to carry a deadly weapon on board an aircraft operated under FAR Part 135?
A) Crewmembers and/or others authorized by the certificate holder.
B) Official bodyguards attached to foreign legations.
C) Employees of a municipality or a state, or of the United States.
189. PLT375 ATP

What document contains procedures that explain how the required return-to-service conditions have been met?
A) Maintenance manual.
B) Certificate holder's manual.
190. PLT440 ATP

The load manifest must be prepared prior to each takeoff for
A) any aircraft with more than one engine.
B) any aircraft with a passenger seating capacity of 10 seats or more.
C) all helicopters and large aircraft operated by a commuter air carrier.
191. PLT405 ATP

In addition to a two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC on appropriate frequencies, which equipment is the
helicopter required to have to operate within Class B airspace? (Letter of agreement not applicable.)
A) DME, a VOR or TACAN receiver, and an appropriate transponder beacon.
B) An appropriate ATC transponder.
C) A VOR or TACAN receiver.
192. PLT430 ATP

Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained by a helicopter during an off-
airways IFR flight over non-mountainous terrain?
A) 1,500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 3 statute miles of course.
B) 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 nautical miles of course.
C) 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 statute miles of course.
193. PLT459 ATP

According to FAR Part 91, when takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a civil airport, what are the takeoff minimums under
IFR for a multiengine helicopter?
A) 1 SM visibility.
B) 1200 RVR.
C) 1/2 SM visibility.
194. PLT166 ATP

When setting the altimeter, pilots should disregard
A) corrections for instrument error.
B) corrections for static pressure systems.
C) effects of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures and pressures.
195. PLT021 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 29, 31, 32, and 33.) Where is the longitudinal CG located under Operating Conditions BL-5?
A) Station 232.0.
B) Station 234.9.
C) Station 235.4.
196. PLT021 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 30, 32, 33, and 35.) What limit, if any, is exceeded under Loading Conditions BL-10?
A) No limit is exceeded.
B) Forward CG limit is exceeded at landing.
C) Aft CG limit is exceeded at takeoff.
197. PLT021 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 30, 31, 32, 33, and 34.) Given Loading Conditions BL-6, what is the effect on lateral CG if the
outside passengers from each row on the left side are deplaned? Deplaned passenger weights are 170 pounds each.
A) CG shifts 1.5 inches right, out of limits.
B) CG shifts 1.6 inches left, out of limits.
C) CG shifts 1.4 inches right, within limits.
198. PLT032 ATP

Within what Mach range does transonic flight regimes usually occur?
A) 1.20 to 2.50 Mach.
B) .50 to .75 Mach.
C) .75 to 1.20 Mach.
199. PLT213 ATP

What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability?
A) Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater.
B) Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down.
C) Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater.
200. PLT213 ATP

Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been
neutralized.
A) Negative static stability.
B) Negative dynamic stability.
C) Positive static stability.

201. PLT370 ATP

An ATC 'instruction'
A) is the same as an ATC 'clearance.'
B) must be 'read back' in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective.
C) is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action.
202. PLT004 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 40.) What is the climb performance with both engines operating?
Temperature (OAT) -5 °C
Heater ON
A) 600 ft/min.
B) 925 ft/min.
C) 335 ft/min.
203. PLT007 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating
Conditions O-5?
A) 219 knots and 1.28 EPR.
B) 218 knots and 1.27 EPR.
C) 214 knots and 1.26 EPR.
204. PLT012 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 68 and 69.) What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-
1?
A) 1,950 pounds.
B) 1,625 pounds.
C) 2,440 pounds.
205. PLT008 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 73, 74, and 75.) What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5?
A) 137 knots.
B) 130 knots.
C) 124 knots.
206. PLT011 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 14.) Given the following conditions, what is the accelerate-stop field length?
Weight 16,600 lb
Wind component 15 kts HW
Ice vanes Retracted
A) 4,950 feet.
B) 5,300 feet.
C) 4,800 feet.
207. PLT015 ATP

Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces?

A) Increasing speed or decreasing altitude.

B) Increasing altitude or decreasing speed.
C) Increasing speed or altitude.
208. PLT202 ATP

Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and displayed distance to the VORTAC?
A) Low altitudes close to the VORTAC.
B) High altitudes close to the VORTAC.
C) Low altitudes far from the VORTAC.
209. PLT346 ATP

When are inboard ailerons normally used?
A) High-speed flight only.
B) Low-speed flight only.
C) Low-speed and high-speed flight.
210. PLT346 ATP

Which of the following is considered a primary flight control?
A) Elevator.
B) Dorsal fin.
C) Slats.
211. PLT473 ATP

What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab?
A) Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures.
B) Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces.
C) Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight.
212. PLT127 ATP

As outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will
A) remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure.
B) increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air.
C) decrease due to higher density altitude.
213. PLT500 ATP

Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of
A) turbine inlet temperature.
B) propeller thrust only.
C) shaft horsepower and jet thrust.
214. PLT108 ATP

Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids used for deicing
A) on the ground, cause no performance degradation during takeoff.
B) provide ice protection during flight.
C) are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only.
215. PLT147 ATP

Which color on a tri-color VASI is a 'low' indication?

A) Green.
B) Amber.
C) Red.
216. PLT141 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'C' for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?
A) 1,000 feet.
B) 1,800 feet.
C) 1,500 feet.
217. PLT141 ATP

When instructed by ATC to 'Hold short of a runway (ILS critical area, etc.),' the pilot should stop
A) so the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line.
B) so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the hold line.
C) with the nose gear on the hold line.
218. PLT147 ATP

A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in
A) a hard landing.
B) landing short of the runway threshold.
C) increased landing rollout.
219. PLT170 ATP

The rate of descent for a 3.5° angle of descent glideslope is
A) 740 ft/min at 105 knots groundspeed.
B) 740 ft/min at 120 knots airspeed.
C) 740 ft/min at 120 knots groundspeed.
220. PLT332 ATP

Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?
A) Increased vision keenness.
B) Decreased breathing rate.
C) Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet.
221. PLT083 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 202 and 206.) PTL 55 received the following clearance from Bay Approach Control. PTL 55 is
cleared ILS RWY 19L at SFO, sidestep to RWY 19R. 1.3 times the Vso speed, of PTL 55, is 165 knots. What is the lowest
minimum descent altitude (MDA) and the lowest visibility that PTL 55 may accomplish the sidestep?
A) 340-1.
B) 340-2.
C) 340-1-1/2.
222. PLT087 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 124.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance:
A) Teardrop only.
B) Direct only.
C) Parallel only.

223. PLT047 ATP

When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot observe during turns in a holding pattern?
A) 3° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less.
B) 1-1/2° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less.
C) 3° per second or 30° bank, whichever is less.
224. PLT358 ATP

Within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?
A) 108.10 to 111.95 MHz.
B) 108.10 to 118.10 MHz.
C) 108.10 to 117.95 MHz.
225. PLT277 ATP

What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker?
A) Continuous dots at the rate of six per second identified as a high-pitched tone.
B) Alternate dots and dashes identified as an intermediate tone.
C) Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second identified as a low-pitched tone.
226. PLT395 ATP

An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a
community when the regular airport is not available is a/an:
A) alternate airport.
B) provisional airport.
C) destination airport.
227. PLT082 ATP

An airplane, operated by a commuter air carrier, flying in extended overwater operations must carry enough approved liferafts of
a rated capacity and buoyancy to accommodate the occupants of the aircraft. Each liferaft must be equipped with
A) one approved pyrotechnic signaling device.
B) one fishing kit for each person, the raft is rated to carry.
C) colored smoke flares and a signal mirror.
228. PLT404 ATP

Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior emergency lights, on aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 20 to
A) be armed or turned on during taxiing and all flight operations.
B) operate automatically when subjected to a negative G load.
C) be operable manually from the flightcrew station and a point in the passenger compartment.
229. PLT462 ATP

The crewmember interphone system on a large turbojet- powered airplane provides a means of two-way communications
between ground personnel and at least one of two flight crewmembers in the pilot compartment, when the aircraft is on the
ground.
The interphone station for use by ground personnel must be located so that those using the system from that station
A) are always visible from within the airplane.
B) may avoid visible detection from within the airplane.
C) are able to avoid the intake areas of the engines.
230. PLT405 ATP

No person may operate an aircraft under 14 CFR part 135, carrying passengers under VFR at night, unless
A) it is equipped with a flashlight having at least two size 'D' cell or the equivalent.
B) each flight crewmember has a flashlight having at least two size 'D' batteries or the equivalent.
C) each crewmember has a flashlight having at least two size 'D' cells and a spare bulb.
231. PLT464 ATP

Which airplanes must have a shoulder harness installed at each flight crewmember station?
A) All airplanes operating under FAR Part 135, having a seating configuration for 10 persons.
B) All turbojet-powered airplanes.
C) All airplanes used in commuter air service, having a passenger seating configuration of 9, excluding any pilot seat.
232. PLT438 ATP

A pressurized airplane being operated at FL 330 can descend safely to 15,000 feet MSL in 3.5 minutes. What oxygen supply
must be carried for all occupants other than the pilots?
A) 60 minutes.
B) 30 minutes.
C) 45 minutes.
233. PLT405 ATP

An approved cockpit voice recorder is required equipment in
A) multiengine, turbine-powered airplanes having a passenger seating configuration of 20 or more seats.
B) all aircraft operated in commuter air carrier service having a passenger seating configuration of 20 seats or more.
C) large turbine-powered airplanes having a maximum passenger capacity of 20 or more seats.
234. PLT404 ATP

When a crash ax is required equipment on an aircraft, where should it be located?
A) At a location accessible to both the crew and passengers during normal operations.
B) In the flight crew compartment.
C) At a location inaccessible to the passengers during normal operations.
235. PLT404 ATP

How many, if any, approved first aid kits are required on an aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 20 seats and a
passenger load of 14?
A) Two.
B) One.
C) None.
236. PLT367 ATP

Airborne weather radar equipment must be installed in large transport category aircraft, in the conterminous 48 United States,
A) that are engaged in passenger-carrying operations.
B) and be fully operational, although weather forecasts indicate no hazardous conditions.
C) that are engaged in either cargo or passenger-carrying operations.
237. PLT385 ATP

In a cargo-only operation, cargo must be loaded
A) in such a manner that at least one emergency or regular exit is available to all crewmembers, if an emergency occurs.
B) in such a manner that at least one emergency or regular exit is available to all occupants.
C) so that it does not obstruct the aisle between the crew and cargo compartments.

238. PLT409 ATP

What is the maximum number of hours that a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days as a pilot in commercial flying and as a pilot
for a commuter air carrier?
A) 34 hours.
B) 35 hours.
C) 32 hours.
239. PLT223 ATP

What performance is required of a multiengine airplane with the critical engine inoperative, while carrying passengers for hire in
IFR weather conditions?
A) Climb at least 100 ft/min at the highest MEA of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL, whichever is higher.
B) Climb at least 50 ft/min at the MEA's of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL, whichever is higher.
C) Climb at least 50 ft/min at the MEA's of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet AGL, whichever is higher.
240. PLT029 ATP

With regard to flight crewmember duties, which operations are considered to be in the 'critical phase of flight'?
A) Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL.
B) All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet, excluding cruise
flight.
C) All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, including
cruise flight.
241. PLT444 ATP

Which person, other than the second in command, may the pilot in command permit to manipulate the flight controls?
A) A pilot employed by an engineering firm who is authorized by the certificate holder to conduct flight tests.
B) A member of the National Transportation Safety Board who holds a pilot certificate appropriate for the aircraft.
C) An authorized FAA safety representative who is qualified in the aircraft, and is checking flight operations.
242. PLT440 ATP

Where must a certificate holder keep copies of completed load manifests and for what period of time?
A) 30 days, at the flight's destination.
B) 1 month at its principal operations base, or at a location approved by the Administrator.
C) 30 days at its principal operations base, or another location used by it and approved by the Administrator.
243. PLT413 ATP

If the weather forecasts do not require the listing of an alternate airport on an IFR flight, the airplane must carry sufficient fuel
to fly to the destination airport and
A) fly for 45 minutes thereafter at normal cruise climb speed.
B) make one missed approach and thereafter have a 45-minute reserve at normal cruising speed.
C) fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
244. PLT459 ATP

No person may takeoff an aircraft under IFR from an airport that has takeoff weather minimums but that is below landing
minimums unless there is an alternate airport within
A) 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air of the departure airport.
B) 1 hour at normal indicated airspeed of the departure airport.
C) 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.
245. PLT379 ATP

Assuming the required ceiling exists, an alternate for the destination airport is not required if, for at least 1 hour before and

after the ETA, the forecast visibility is at least

A) 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the instrument approach procedure to be used,
whichever is greater.
B) 5 miles, or 3 miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the instrument approach procedure to be used,
whichever is greater.
C) 3 nautical miles, or 2 nautical miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the approach procedure to be
used, which ever is greater.
246. PLT463 ATP

An employee who performs safety-sensitive functions, for a certificate holder, who has actual knowledge of an accident
involving an aircraft for which he or she performed a safety-sensitive function at or near the time of the accident shall not use
alcohol
A) within 8 hours of the accident.
B) until given a release by the NTSB or FAA.
C) until 4 hours after the accident.
247. PLT443 ATP

What are the minimum certificate and rating requirements for the pilot in command of a multiengine airplane being operated by
a commuter air carrier?
A) Airline transport pilot; airplane category; multiengine class.
B) Airline transport pilot; airplane category; multiengine class; airplane type rating, if required.
C) Commercial pilot; airplane category; multiengine class; instrument rating; airplane type rating, if required.
248. PLT011 ATP

When computing the takeoff data for reciprocating powered airplanes, what is the percentage of the reported headwind
component that may be applied to the `still air` data?
A) Not more than 100 percent.
B) Not more than 50 percent.
C) Not more than 150 percent.
249. PLT409 ATP

What instrument flight time may be logged by a second in command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?
A) One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan.
B) All of the time the second in command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments.
C) One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.
250. PLT475 ATP

If squalls are reported at the destination airport, what wind conditions existed at the time?
A) Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 15 knots to a sustained wind speed of 20 knots, lasting for at least 1 minute.
B) Rapid variation in wind direction of at least 20° and changes in speed of at least 10 knots between peaks and lulls.
C) A sudden increase in wind speed of at least 16 knots, the speed rising to 22 knots or more for 1 minute or longer.
251. PLT059 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 145.) What condition is reported at Childress (KCDS)?
A) Light rain showers.
B) The ceiling is solid overcast at an estimated 1,800 feet above sea level.
C) Heavy rain showers began 42 minutes after the hour.
252. PLT515 ATP

The Federal Aviation Administration`s Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides what products?

A) METARs, SIGMETs, PIREPs, and AIRMETs.

B) Convective SIGMETs, PIREPs, AWWs, and NOTAMs.
C) SPECIs, SIGMETs, NOTAMs, and AIRMETs.
253. PLT501 ATP

What action is recommended when encountering turbulence due to a wind shift associated with a sharp pressure trough?
A) Establish a straight course across the storm area.
B) Increase speed to get out of the trough as soon as possible.
C) Climb or descend to a smoother level.
254. PLT192 ATP

Which type clouds may be associated with the jetstream?
A) Cumulonimbus cloud line where the jetstream crosses the cold front.
B) Cirrostratus cloud band on the polar side and under the jetstream.
C) Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream.
255. PLT203 ATP

Which feature is associated with the tropopause?
A) Absence of wind and turbulence.
B) Abrupt change of temperature lapse rate.
C) Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.
256. PLT501 ATP

If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended?
A) Maintain a constant altitude.
B) Maintain constant airspeed and altitude.
C) Maintain a constant attitude.
257. PLT121 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 77, 79, and 80.) What is the gross weight index for Loading Conditions WT-6?
A) 181,340.5 index.
B) 165,991.5 index.
C) 156,545.0 index.
258. PLT002 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 42.) Given the following, what is the airspeed limit (VNE)?
A) 133 KIAS.
B) 128 KIAS.
C) 126 KIAS.
259. PLT011 ATP

Pressure altitude -1,000 ft

A) 1,000 feet.
B) 950 feet.
C) 900 feet.
260. PLT009 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 36.) Given the following conditions, what is the maximum allowable measured gas temperature
(MGT) during the power assurance check?
Engine torque 57 percent
A) 815 °C.
B) 810 °C.
C) 828 °C.
261. PLT012 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 197, 199, and 200.) What is the ETE for the IFR helicopter flight from Eagle County Regional to
Salt Lake City Intl? (PUC to FFU should read "14000" for altitude. Use PUC magnetic variation for entire problem.)
262. PLT163 ATP

What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet with a VFR-
on-Top clearance during daylight hours?
A) 3 statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
B) 5 statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
C) 3 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
263. PLT475 ATP

Where do squall lines most often develop?
A) Ahead of a cold front.
B) In an occluded front.
C) Behind a stationary front.
264. PLT007 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 59 and 60.) What is the max climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-1?
A) 2.04.
B) 1.82.
C) 1.96.
265. PLT004 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 71 and 72.) What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating
Conditions D-3?
A) 19,800 feet.
B) 22,200 feet.
C) 21,600 feet.
266. PLT012 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 84 and 85.) What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions H-

2?
A) 5,250 pounds.
B) 5,100 pounds.
C) 3,400 pounds.
267. PLT012 ATP

4?
A) 2,550 pounds.
B) 3,050 pounds.
C) 3,190 pounds.
268. PLT012 ATP

1?
A) 2,630 pounds.
B) 3,500 pounds.
C) 4,680 pounds.
269. PLT007 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating
Conditions O-1?
270. PLT008 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 73, 74, and 75.) What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1?
A) 143 knots.
B) 145 knots.
C) 144 knots.
271. PLT007 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 73 and 75.) What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-5?
A) 2.00 EPR.
B) 2.05 EPR.
C) 2.04 EPR.
272. PLT008 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 92.) What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3° glide slope at a weight
of 140,000 pounds?
A) 127 knots.
B) 156 knots.
C) 149 knots.
273. PLT008 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 92.) What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed
from flaps 30°, gear down, to flaps 0°, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots?
A) 15,300 pounds.

B) 13,500 pounds.
C) 13,300 pounds.
274. PLT008 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 89.) How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000-foot wet runway with reversers inoperative
at 122,000 pounds gross weight?
A) 2,200 feet.
B) 3,150 feet.
C) 2,750 feet.
275. PLT008 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 90.) Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an
icy runway?
A) Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight.
B) Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight.
C) Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight.
276. PLT008 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 51 and 52.) What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions L-1?
A) 81,600 pounds.
B) 80,300 pounds.
C) 78,850 pounds.
277. PLT011 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 81, 82, and 83.) What is the takeoff safety speed for Operating Conditions G-1?
A) 122 knots.
B) 137 knots.
C) 139 knots.
278. PLT010 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 45, 46, and 47.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions A-3?
A) 22 percent MAC.
B) 20 percent MAC.
C) 18 percent MAC.
279. PLT011 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 53, 54, and 55.) What is the takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-2?
A) 2.18.
B) 2.19.
C) 2.16.
280. PLT011 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 45, 46, and 47.) What are V1 and VR speeds for Operating Conditions A-1?
A) V1 120.5 knots; VR 123.5 knots.
B) V1 123.1 knots; VR 125.2 knots.
C) V1 122.3 knots; VR 124.1 knots.
281. PLT007 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 59 and 60.) What is the max continuous EPR for Operating Conditions T-5?

A) 2.00.
B) 1.96.
C) 2.04.
282. PLT085 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 231.) Given the following conditions, what is the takeoff climb limit?
Airport OAT: 38° C
Airport Pressure Altitude: 14 ft.
Flaps: 15°
Engine Bleed for packs: On
Anti-ice: Off
A) 136,000 lb.
B) 137,500 lb.
C) 139,000 lb.
283. PLT069 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 235 and 236.) Given the following conditions, what is the maximum Slush/Standing Water takeoff
weight?
Dry field/obstacle limit weight: 180,000 lb.
Slush/standing water depth: .25 inches
Temperature (OAT): 30° C
Field pressure altitude: 5431 ft.
Field length available: 9000 ft.
No Reverse thrust
A) 130,850 lb.
B) 147,550 lb.
C) 139,850 lb.
284. PLT011 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 237 and 238.) Given the following conditions, what are the takeoff V speeds?
Weight: 170,000 lb.
Flaps: 10°
Runway slope: 0%
Wind (KTS) Headwind: 8 KTS
Runway Condition: Wet Runway
For VR more than or equal to .1 VR, round up VR to the next value (example: 140 +.1 =141)
A) V1 134 kts., VR 140 kts., V2 145 kts.
B) V1 140 kts., VR 140 kts., V2 145 kts.
C) V1 138 kts., VR 141 kts., V2 145 kts.
285. PLT012 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-5?
B) 62 minutes.
C) 56 minutes.

286. PLT012 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 66 and 67.) What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-1?
A) 5,970 pounds.
B) 5,230 pounds.
C) 5,550 pounds.
287. PLT016 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 70.) How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 16,000 pounds (@ 2,350
lbs/min)?
Initial weight 175,500 lb
Zero fuel weight 138,000 lb
A) 9 minutes.
B) 8 minutes.
C) 10 minutes.
288. PLT015 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 115, 116, 117, 118, and 118C.) What is the specific range in nautical miles per 1,000 pounds of
fuel from level-off to the ARLIN Intersection using .78 Mach?
A) 47.9 NAM/1,000 pounds.
B) 48.2 NAM/1,000 pounds.
C) 48.8 NAM/1,000 pounds.
289. PLT524 ATP

With no traffic identified by TCAS, you
A) can rest assured that no other aircraft are in the area.
B) must continually scan for other traffic in visual conditions.
C) must scan only for hot air balloons.
290. PLT524 ATP

You see the indication in the figure on your PFD, but your standby indicator reads 120 knots and the power is set for 120-knot
cruise in level flight. You decide the
A) pitot tube may be plugged with ice or a bug.
B) standby indicator is defective because there is no red `X` on the speed tape display.
C) airspeed means attitude is incorrect.
291. PLT108 ATP

Which of the following will decrease the holding time during anti-icing using a two-step process?
A) Apply heated Type 2 fluid.
B) Increase the viscosity of Type 1 fluid.
C) Decrease the water content.
292. PLT141 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 156.) This sign, which faces the runway and is visible to the pilot, indicates
A) the point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway.
B) a point at which the aircraft will be clear of the runway.
C) a point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by the tower.
293. PLT144 ATP

What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speed have on hydroplaning?

A) Increases hydroplaning potential regardless of braking.

B) No effect on hydroplaning, but increases landing roll.
C) Reduces hydroplaning potential if heavy braking is applied.
294. PLT143 ATP

(Refer to appendix 1, legend 15 and appendix 2, figure 215.) Windsor Locks/Bradley Intl, is an FAR Part 139 airport. What
minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire-fighting vehicles, and what type and amount of fire-fighting agents are the airport
required to have?
A) Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC and 4,000 gallons of water.
B) Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 3,000 gallons of water.
C) Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 4,000 gallons of water.
295. PLT380 ATP

The minimum weather conditions that must exist for an airport to be listed as an alternate in the dispatch release for a
domestic air carrier flight are
A) those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, from 1 hours before or after the ETA for that flight.
B) those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, at the time the flight is expected to arrive.
C) those specified in the certificate holder's Operations Specifications for that airport, when the flight arrives.
296. PLT377 ATP

What restrictions must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment of an airplane operated
under FAR Part 121?
A) All cargo must be separated from the passengers by a partition capable of withstanding certain load stresses.
B) Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength to
eliminate the possibility of shifting.
C) All cargo must be carried in a suitable flame resistant bin and the bin must be secured to the floor structure of the airplane.
297. PLT390 ATP

Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the
entire route (in either direction) of flight?
A) Appropriate dispatch office.
B) Any FSS.
C) ARINC.
298. PLT405 ATP

Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a
A) flashlight in good working order.
B) key to the flight deck door.
C) certificate holder's manual.
299. PLT444 ATP

Assuring that appropriate aeronautical charts are aboard an aircraft is the responsibility of the
A) flight navigator.
B) pilot in command.
C) aircraft dispatcher.
300. PLT323 ATP

Where can the pilot of a flag air carrier airplane find the latest FDC NOTAM's?
A) Notices To Airmen publication.
B) Airport/Facility Directory.

C) Any company dispatch facility.
301. PLT409 ATP

Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency?
A) Airplane Flight Manual.
B) Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook.
C) Certificate holder's manual.
302. PLT452 ATP

A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is
required?
A) Not more than 2 hours.
B) More than 6 hours.
C) Not more than 1 hour.
303. PLT441 ATP

By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather,
and irregularities of facilities and services?
A) Air route traffic control center.
B) The aircraft dispatcher.
C) Director of operations.
304. PLT406 ATP

If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command
A) may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.
B) may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher.
C) must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made.
305. PLT394 ATP

An aircraft dispatcher declares an emergency for a flight and a deviation results. A written report shall be sent through the air
carriers operations manager by the
A) dispatcher to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event.
B) pilot in command to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event.
C) certificate holder to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event.
306. PLT403 ATP

When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report within
A) 10 days after returning home.
B) 10 days after the deviation.
C) 10 days after returning to home base.
307. PLT404 ATP

Which emergency equipment is required for a flag air carrier flight between John F. Kennedy International Airport and London,
England?
A) A self-buoyant, water resistant, portable survival-type emergency locator transmitter for each required liferaft.
B) A life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light or other flotation device for the full seating capacity of the
airplane.
C) An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required liferaft.

308. PLT404 ATP

For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately
equipped survival kits for
A) all passenger seats.
B) all aircraft occupants.
C) all of the passengers, plus 10 percent.
309. PLT404 ATP

An airplane operated by a supplemental air carrier flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?
A) Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.
B) Survival kit for each passenger.
C) Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror.
310. PLT408 ATP

Which factor determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required for flight under FAR Part 121?
A) Airplane passenger seating accommodations.
B) Number of passenger cabin occupants.
C) Number of passengers and crewmembers aboard.
311. PLT426 ATP

If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may
continue en route?
A) A Master Minimum Equipment List for the airplane.
B) Certificate holder`s manual.
C) Original dispatch release.
312. PLT430 ATP

Below what altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crewmembers prohibited?
A) FL 180.
B) 14,500 feet.
C) 10,000 feet.
313. PLT409 ATP

Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in FAR Part 121 operations?
A) If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard.
B) If required by the airplane's type certificate.
C) If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines.
314. PLT444 ATP

When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies?
A) Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger.
B) The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment.
C) The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment.
315. PLT459 ATP

If there is a required emergency exit located in the flightcrew compartment, the door which separates the compartment from the
passenger cabin must be
A) unlocked during takeoff and landing.
B) latched open during takeoff and landing.

C) locked at all times, except during any emergency declared by the pilot in command.
316. PLT412 ATP

The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the
dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the
A) minimum fuel supply.
B) weather reports and forecasts.
C) names of all crewmembers.
317. PLT409 ATP

How does deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty assignment, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier
flight crewmembers? It is
A) not considered to be part of a rest period.
B) considered part of the rest period for flight engineers and navigators.
C) considered part of the rest period if the flightcrew includes more than two pilots.
318. PLT409 ATP

A flag air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, having two pilots and one additional flight crewmember, for no more
than
A) 8 hours during any 12 consecutive hours.
B) 12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours.
C) 10 hours during any 12 consecutive hours.
319. PLT409 ATP

The maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier pilot may fly, as a crewmember, in a commercial operation, in
any 30 consecutive days is
A) 120 hours.
B) 300 hours.
C) 100 hours.
320. PLT443 ATP

The `age 65 rule` of 14 CFR part 121 applies to
A) any flight crewmember.
B) any required pilot crewmember.
C) the pilot in command only.
321. PLT493 ATP

What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane?
A) Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off.
B) Sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth.
C) Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane.
322. PLT443 ATP

When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums
for the destination airport?
A) Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 300 and 1.
B) Minimums are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile.
C) Minimums are decreased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile.

323. PLT444 ATP

Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has
A) logged 100 hours' flight time in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in
actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month.
B) logged 90 hours' flight time, 10 takeoffs and landings in make and model airplane and three Category II ILS approaches in
actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month, in operations under 14
CFR parts 91 and 121.
C) made at least six Category II approaches in actual IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar
months.
324. PLT442 ATP

What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of experience?
A) At least one landing must be made from a circling approach.
B) At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder.
C) At least one full stop landing must be made.
325. PLT465 ATP

When may two persons share one approved safety belt in a lounge seat?
A) Only during the en route flight.
B) During all operations except the takeoff and landing portion of a flight.
C) When one is an adult and one is a child under 3 years of age.
326. PLT438 ATP

The supplemental oxygen requirements for passengers when a flight is operated at FL 250 is dependent upon the airplane's
ability to make an emergency descent to a flight altitude of
A) 14,000 feet within 4 minutes.
B) 12,000 feet within 4 minutes or at a minimum rate of 2,500 ft/min, whichever is quicker.
C) 10,000 feet within 4 minutes.
327. PLT438 ATP

For flights above which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire flight at those altitudes?
A) 14,000 feet.
B) 16,000 feet.
C) 15,000 feet.
328. PLT034 ATP

For which of these aircraft is the 'clearway' for a particular runway considered in computing takeoff weight limitations?
A) U.S. certified air carrier airplanes certificated after August 29, 1959.
B) Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958.
C) Those passenger-carrying transport aircraft certificated between August 26, 1957 and August 30, 1959.
329. PLT396 ATP

If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance
that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport?
A) Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
B) Not more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one engine inoperative.
C) Not more than 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
330. PLT459 ATP

The minimum weather conditions that must exist for a domestic air carrier flight to take off from an airport that is not listed in

the Air Carrier's Operations Specifications (takeoff minimums are not prescribed for that airport.) is
A) 1,000 - 1, 900 - 11/4, or 800 - 2.
B) 1,000 - 1, 900 - 11/2, or 800 - 2.
C) 800 - 2, 1,100 - 1, or 900 - 11/2.
331. PLT407 ATP

A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding
A) 24 calendar months.
B) 6 calendar months.
C) 12 calendar months.
332. PLT442 ATP

What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier?
A) The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports.
B) The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown.
C) The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly.
333. PLT407 ATP

How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? Once every
334. PLT389 ATP

Where is a list maintained for routes that require special navigation equipment?
A) International Flight Information Manual.
B) Air Carrier's Operations Specifications.
C) Airplane Flight Manual.
335. PLT405 ATP

Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating
engines
A) may be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing.
B) may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes.
C) may all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines.
336. PLT404 ATP

The emergency lights on a passenger carrying airplane must be armed or turned on during
A) takeoff, cruise, and landing.
B) taxiing, takeoff, cruise, and landing.
C) taxiing, takeoff, and landing.
337. PLT462 ATP

Where should the portable battery-powered megaphone be located if only one is required on a passenger-carrying airplane?
A) In the cabin near the over-the-wing emergency exit.
B) The most forward location in the passenger cabin.
C) The most rearward location in the passenger cabin.
338. PLT404 ATP

If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to have an automatic deploying escape slide system, when must this system be
armed?
A) During taxi, takeoff, landing, and after ditching.
B) Only for takeoff and landing.
C) For taxi, takeoff, and landing.
339. PLT438 ATP

What is the minimum number of acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occupants who might require
undiluted oxygen for physiological reasons?
A) Four.
B) Two.
C) Three.
340. PLT322 ATP

When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on 'victor airways,' which navigation equipment is required to be
installed in duplicate?
A) VOR and DME.
B) VOR.
C) ADF.
341. PLT405 ATP

When must an air carrier airplane be DME/suitable RNAV system equipped?
A) For flights at or above FL 180.
B) Whenever VOR navigation equipment is required.
C) In Class E airspace for all IFR or VFR on Top operations.
342. PLT322 ATP

When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS, which rule applies?
A) The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of one other independent navigation system, to a suitable airport
and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system.
B) The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios anywhere along the route with 150% of
the forecast headwinds.
C) The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and land anywhere
along the route with 150% of the forecast headwinds.
343. PLT405 ATP

Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual Inertial Navigation System (INS) on a
proposed flight?
A) Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS.
B) The dual system must consist of two operative INS units.
C) A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.
344. PLT442 ATP

What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization?
A) Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or
Category II DH.
B) Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach
coupler.
C) Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH.

345. PLT063 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 152.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow B on the Radar
Summary Chart?
A) Weak echoes; heavy rain showers; area movement toward the southeast.
B) Strong echoes; moderate rain showers; no cell movement.
C) Weak to moderate echoes; rain showers increasing in intensity.
346. PLT192 ATP

Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight?
A) Freezing rain.
B) Embedded thunderstorms.
C) Clear air turbulence.
347. PLT121 ATP

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 96.1 X 133.3 inches?
Floor load limit 249 lb/sq ft
Pallet weight 347 lb
Tiedown devices 134 lb
A) 21,669.8 pounds.
B) 22,120.8 pounds.
C) 21,803.8 pounds.
348. PLT021 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 44.) What is the new CG if the weight is removed from the forward compartment under Loading
Conditions WS 1?
A) 27.1 percent MAC.
B) 30.0 percent MAC.
C) 26.8 percent MAC.

10/27/2011
The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of supplement

publications. These publications, available through several aviation publishers, include
the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed to successfully respond to certain test
items. Use the following URL to download a complete list of associated supplement
books: http://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/
The Learning Statement Reference Guide for Airman Knowledge Testing contains
listings of learning statements with their associated codes. It can be located at:
http://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/airmen/media/LearningStatementReferenceG
uide.pdf
1 PLT470 ATP
2 PLT523 ATP
A) Delays the onset of drag divergence at high speeds and aids in maintaining aileron
effectiveness at high speeds.
B) Breaks the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the
wing.
3 PLT245 ATP
4 PLT223 ATP
In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball
of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines?
C) when operating at any airspeed of Vmc or greater with only enough deflection to zero the side
slip .
5 PLT303 ATP
What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that
speed for maximum L/D?
6 PLT214 ATP
What is the condition that may occur when gusts cause a swept wing type airplane to roll in one
direction while yawing in the other?
A) Wingover.
B) Mach buffet.
C) Dutch roll.
7 PLT248 ATP
What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but
increasing airspeed?
8 PLT248 ATP
What result does a level turn have on the total lift required and load factor with a constant
airspeed?
9 PLT237 ATP
10 PLT237 ATP
11 PLT470 ATP
Ground resonance occurs when
A) a fully articulated rotor system is unbalanced.
B) a semi-rigid rotor system is out of balance.
C) a pilot lands with over inflated tires.
12 PLT214 ATP
What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing
root of a sweptwing aircraft?
13 PLT310 ATP
What is the ratio between the total load supported by the rotor disc and the gross weight of a
helicopter in flight?
A) Load factor.
B) Aspect ratio.
C) Power loading.
14 PLT213 ATP
15 PLT213 ATP
Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after
the controls have been neutralized.
16 PLT172 ATP
C) a high update rate RADAR system for monitoring multiple aircraft ILS approaches to a single
runway.
17 PLT083 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 106 and 107.) If the glide slope indication is lost upon passing
HUNDA INT on the ILS RWY 25L approach at LAX, what action should the pilot take?
C) Immediately start the missed approach direct to INISH INT.
18 PLT370 ATP
19 PLT149 ATP
What special consideration is given for turbine-powered aircraft when 'gate hold' procedures are
in effect?
B) They are expected to be ready for takeoff prior to taxi and will receive takeoff clearance prior
to taxi.
20 PLT004 ATP
A) 600 ft/min.
B) 925 ft/min.
C) 335 ft/min.
21 PLT004 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 15 and 18.) What are the time, fuel, and distance from the start of
climb to cruise altitude for Operating Conditions BE-24?
22 PLT004 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 15, 16, and 17.) What is the two-engine rate of climb after takeoff in
climb configuration for Operating Conditions BE-21?
A) 2,450 ft/min.
B) 1,350 ft/min.
C) 2,300 ft/min.
23 PLT007 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 59 and 60.) What is the max climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-
1?
A) 2.04.
B) 1.82.
C) 1.96.
24 PLT002 ATP
A) 133 KIAS.
B) 128 KIAS.
C) 126 KIAS.
25 PLT065 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 19 and 20.) Which statement is true regarding performance with one
engine inoperative for Operating Conditions BE-27?
26 PLT012 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 21, 22, 23, 24, and 25.) What is the en route time of the cruise leg
for Operating Conditions BE-34?
27 PLT012 ATP
A) 24,000 pounds.
B) 25,000 pounds.
C) 26,000 pounds.
28 PLT004 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 26.) What are the time and distance to descend from 18,000 feet to
2,500 feet?
29 PLT045 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 86 and 87.) What are descent time and distance under Operating
Conditions S-1?
A) 24 minutes, 118 NAM.
B) 25 minutes, 118 NAM.
C) 26 minutes, 125 NAM.
30 PLT004 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 41.) Given the following, what is the single-engine climb or descent
performance?
31 PLT004 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 71 and 72.) What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after
drift-down under Operating Conditions D-3?
A) 19,800 feet.
B) 22,200 feet.
C) 21,600 feet.
32 PLT007 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for
holding under Operating Conditions O-1?
33 PLT007 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for
holding under Operating Conditions O-5?
34 PLT012 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 68 and 69.) What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding
under Operating Conditions O-1?
A) 1,950 pounds.
B) 1,625 pounds.
C) 2,440 pounds.
35 PLT012 ATP
under Operating Conditions H-1?
A) 2,630 pounds.
B) 3,500 pounds.
C) 4,680 pounds.
36 PLT012 ATP
A) 5,250 pounds.
B) 5,100 pounds.
C) 3,400 pounds.
37 PLT012 ATP
A) 2,550 pounds.
B) 3,050 pounds.
C) 3,190 pounds.
38 PLT048 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 37.) What is the maximum gross weight for hovering in ground effect
at 3,000 feet pressure altitude and +25 °C?
A) 16,600 pounds.
B) 17,300 pounds.
C) 14,700 pounds.
39 PLT008 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 89.) How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000-foot wet
runway with reversers inoperative at 122,000 pounds gross weight?
A) 2,200 feet.
B) 3,150 feet.
C) 2,750 feet.
40 PLT008 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 92.) What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane
when configuration is changed from flaps 30°, gear down, to flaps 0°, gear up, at a constant
airspeed of 160 knots?
A) 15,300 pounds.
B) 13,500 pounds.
C) 13,300 pounds.
41 PLT021 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 51 and 52.) What is the approximate landing weight for Operating
Conditions L-1?
A) 81,600 pounds.
B) 80,300 pounds.
C) 78,850 pounds.
42 PLT008 ATP
A) 143 knots.
B) 145 knots.
C) 144 knots.
43 PLT078 ATP
All 14 CFR part 139 airports must report
A) accident and incident data annually.
B) noise complaint statistics for each departure procedure or runway.
C) declared distances for each runway.
44 PLT078 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 104.) What effect on the takeoff run can be expected on Rwy 11R at
Tucson Intl?
45 PLT011 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 12.) Given the following conditions, what is the minimum torque for
takeoff?
46 PLT011 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 14.) Given the following conditions, what is the accelerate-stop field
length?
A) 4,950 feet.
B) 5,300 feet.
C) 4,800 feet.
47 PLT011 ATP
A) 1,000 feet.
B) 950 feet.
C) 900 feet.
48
PL 011 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 45, 46, and 47.) What are V1 and VR speeds for Operating
Conditions A-1?
49 PLT011 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 81, 82, and 83.) What is the takeoff safety speed for Operating
Conditions G-1?
A) 122 knots.
B) 137 knots.
C) 139 knots.
50 PLT009 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 36.) Given the following conditions, what is the maximum allowable
measured gas temperature (MGT) during the power assurance check?
A) 815 °C.
B) 810 °C.
C) 828 °C.
51 PLT011 ATP
You are rolling out after touchdown and decide you really need to abort your landing, and takeoff.
Your airplane is at 116 knots and your engines have spooled down to 71% idle. You need a V2
of 142 to safely lift off and climb. The airplane will require 6 seconds to accelerate after the
engines spool up to takeoff thrust, which requires 4 seconds. How much runway will you require
for a safe landing abort from your decision point? (Use an average of 129 knots ground speed.)
A) 1,738 feet.
B) 2,178 feet.
C) 3,601 feet.
52 PLT012 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 103, 104, 105, and 106.) Estimate the total fuel required to be on the
aircraft, prior to taxi at Tucson Intl. (Use 13°E for problem magnetic variation.)
A) 2,223 pounds.
B) 2,447 pounds.
C) 2,327 pounds.
53 PLT016 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 70.) How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load
to 16,000 pounds (@ 2,350 lbs/min)?
A) 9 minutes.
B) 8 minutes.
C) 10 minutes.
54 PLT012 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 197, 199, and 200.) What is the ETE for the IFR helicopter flight
from Eagle County Regional to Salt Lake City Intl? (PUC to FFU should read "14000" for altitude.
Use PUC magnetic variation for entire problem.)
55 PLT015 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 115, 116, 117, 118, and 118C.) What is the specific range in
nautical miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from level-off to the ARLIN Intersection using .78 Mach?
56 PLT015 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 119, 120, 121, and 122.) What is the specific range in nautical air
miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from level-off to start of descent using .78 Mach?
A) 55.9 NAM/1000.
B) 52.5 NAM/1000.
C) 48.9 NAM/1000.
57 PLT015 ATP
Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft
weight reduces?
58 PLT223 ATP
A) None.
59 PLT195 ATP
60 PLT524 ATP
You see the indication in the figure on your PFD, but your standby indicator reads 120 knots and
the power is set for 120-knot cruise in level flight. You decide the
61 PLT519 ATP
C) Reduce lift without decreasing airspeed.
62 PLT346 ATP
63 PLT346 ATP
A) Elevator.
B) Dorsal fin.
C) Slats.
64 PLT473 ATP
A) Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control
pressures.
65 PLT128 ATP
During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air
input and drain hole of the pitot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed
indication can be expected?
66 PLT499 ATP
A) Reduce the throttle and then rapidly advance the throttle to decrease the angle of attack on
the compressor blades, creating more airflow.
B) Reduce the throttle and then slowly advance the throttle again and decrease the aircraft`s
angle of attack.
C) Advance the throttle slowly to increase airflow and decrease the angle of attack on one or
more compressor blades.
67 PLT127 ATP
A) remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air
pressure.
68 PLT500 ATP
69 PLT499 ATP
B) limiting torque.
70 PLT094 ATP
71 PLT470 ATP
72 PLT472 ATP
B) High frequency.
C) Low frequency.
73 PLT472 ATP
74 PLT149 ATP
When should transponders be operated on the ground while taxiing?
A) Only when ATC specifically requests your transponder to be activated.
B) Any time when the airport is operating under IFR.
C) All the time when at an airport with ASDE-X.
75 PLT149 ATP
When taxiing on an airport with ASDE-X, you should
A) operate the transponder only when the airport is under IFR or at night during your taxi.
B) operate the transponder with altitude reporting all of the time during taxiing.
C) be ready to activate the transponder upon ATC request while taxing.
76 PLT141 ATP
THL is the acronym for
A) Takeoff hold lights.
B) Taxi holding lights.
C) Terminal holding lights
77 PLT148 ATP
B) Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through
the touchdown zone.
78 PLT141 ATP
REL is the acronym for
A) Runway exit lights.
B) Runway entrance lights.
C) Ramp entry lights.
79 PLT141 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'C' for a nighttime
takeoff on runway 9?
A) 1,000 feet.
B) 1,800 feet.
C) 1,500 feet.
80 PLT141 ATP
When you see this pavement marking from the cockpit, you
A) can taxi past this point at your own risk.
B) must hold short until "Cleared" to taxi onto or past the runway.
C) may not cross the line until ATC allows you to "enter" or "cross" by instruction.
81 PLT141 ATP
The sign shown is an example of
A) a mandatory instruction sign.
B) runway heading notification signage.
C) an airport directional sign
82 PLT144 ATP
What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speed have on
hydroplaning?
83 PLT434 ATP
84 PLT149 ATP
Hot Spots are depicted on airport diagrams as
A) squares or rectangles around "HS and a number."
B) circles or polygons around "HS and a number."
C) triangles or blocks filled with "HS" and a number.
85 PLT149 ATP
As you call for taxi instructions, the key words to understand are
A) cleared to runway.
B) hold short of or "cross."
C) taxi to and "expedite."
86 PLT149 ATP
You received: "Taxi to Runway 30 via Lima and hold short of Runway 25L." Your airplane is on
the ramp by the terminal and NWS on the east side of the airport. Your taxi route
A) requires crossing of Runway 25L at Lima.
B) involves transiting HS 4.
C) requires crossing Runway 34R en route to the assigned runway.
87 PLT149 ATP
As you rolled out long on Runway 30 after landing at Long Beach (LGB) (figures 241 and 242),
you slowed and turned left on very wide pavement and now see Taxiway D signs on both sides of
your pavement. You notice your heading is about 250°. Tower is urging you to turn left on D,
cross 16R/34L, then taxi to G and hold short of Runway 30. You now know you
A) exited onto Runway 25R and transited HS 2.
B) exited onto Taxiway G.
C) exited at Taxiway J and transited HS 4.
88 PLT509 ATP
89 PLT040 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 126.) What is the usual radius from the airport of the inner circle (now
called surface area), C?
A) 5 miles.
B) 10 miles.
C) 7 miles.
90 PLT161 ATP
91 PLT161 ATP
92 PLT040 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 127.) Which altitude is appropriate for circle 6 (top of Class G
airspace)?
93 PLT147 ATP
A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI
glide slope angle may result in
A) a hard landing.
94 PLT522 ATP
How should the pilot execute a pinnacle-type approach to a rooftop heliport in conditions of high
wind and turbulence?
95 PLT045 ATP
96 PLT195 ATP
Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory
(RA)is expected to
97 PLT341 ATP
What corrective action can a pilot take to recover from settling with power?
98 PLT170 ATP
Approaching the runway 1° below glidepath can add how many feet to the landing distance?
A) 250 feet.
B) 500 feet.
C) 1,000 feet.
99 PLT170 ATP
Arriving over the runway 10 knots over Vref would add approximately how many feet to the dry
landing distance?
A) 800 feet.
B) 1,700 feet.
C) 2,800 feet.
100 PLT170 ATP

Upon landing, spoilers
A) decrease directional stability on the landing rollout.
B) function by increasing tire to ground friction.
C) should be extended after the thrust reversers have been deployed.
101 PLT225 ATP

To assure expeditious handling of a civilian air ambulance flight, the word 'LIFEGUARD' should
be entered in which section of the flight plan?
B) Remarks block.
102 PLT225 ATP

B) The initial fix, all radio fixes which the pilot wishes to be compulsory reporting points, and the
final fix.
103 PLT108 ATP

A pretakeoff contamination check for snow, ice or frost is required by 14 CFR Part 135. This
check is required to
A) be completed within 5 minutes prior to beginning the taxi to the runway.
C) see that the aircraft is clean; therefore, a safe takeoff can be made during the next 5 minutes.
104 PLT205 ATP
C) Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making
abilities.
105 PLT280 ATP

A) leveling off.
B) pitching up.
C) pitching down.
106 PLT332 ATP

107 PLT280 ATP

The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration takeoff is
known as
B) autokinesis.
108 PLT097 ATP

B) Dizziness.
109 PLT171 ATP

What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to 'VERIFY 9,000' and the flight is actually
maintaining 8,000?
110 PLT224 ATP

Under what condition may a pilot file an IFR flight plan containing a special or privately owned
IAP?
111 PLT083 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 122, and appendix 1, legend 9.) What is the approximate rate of
descent required (for planning purposes) to maintain the electronic glide slope at 120 KIAS with a
reported headwind component of 15 knots?
A) 635 ft/min.
B) 650 ft/min.
C) 555 ft/min.
112 PLT354 ATP
A) over the MAWP.
B) after the MAWP.
113 PLT354 ATP

You are cleared to HNL (figure 251) and plan to use the RNAV (RNP) RWY 26L approach.
Assuming you have received the training, you
A) should be prepared to program the FMS/GPS with the radio frequency to fly this approach.
B) can use the GPS and radio frequency communications to fly this approach to minimums.
C) know your FMS/GPS must have GPS and radius-to-fix capability.
114 PLT354 ATP

You are cleared to LXV (Figure 253) in your helicopter and expect to be given the GPS RWY 16
approach. Your helicopter is equipped with an IFR certified WAAS GPS. Your approach
minimums will be
A) 11,360` MDA and 3/4 mi.
B) 11,360` MDA and 1 1/4 mi.
C) 11,360` MDA and 6,600 RVR, or 1 1/2 mi.
115 PLT354 ATP

You arrive at the initial fix for the LPV approach into XYZ. The preflight briefer issued you an
unreliable advisory on the approach before you took off. Your avionics indicates good signals
and full GPS service is available. You
A) know you can fly the approach down to LPV minimums.
B) cannot use that approach because of the advisory from FSS.
C) must revert to another approach system such as VOR.
116 PLT049 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 136 and 138.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and
glide slope at the 1,300-foot point from the runway is indicated?
A) 28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline.
B) 21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline.
C) 21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.
117 PLT370 ATP

118 PLT296 ATP

A) Teardrop only.
B) Direct only.
C) Parallel only.
119 PLT047 ATP

When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot observe during
turns in a holding pattern?
120 PLT208 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 112.) What action should the pilot take if communications were lost
during the Cugar Four Arrival, after turning on the 305 radial of IAH?
A) Proceed direct to IAH VORTAC, then outbound on the IAH R-125 for a procedure turn for final
approach.
C) From BANTY INT, proceed to the IAF on the IAH R-290, then continue on the IAH 10 DME
Arc to final approach.
121 PLT354 ATP

A) RNAV equipped.
122 PLT354 ATP

If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS
approach, the pilot should
123 PLT355 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'D'
correspond?
A) 4
B) 17
C) 15
124 PLT276 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 137 and 138.) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope
at the outer marker is indicated?
A) 1,550 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 210 feet above the glide slope.
B) 775 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 420 feet below the glide slope.
C) 1,550 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 210 feet below the glide slope.
125 PLT277 ATP

126 PLT358 ATP

A) 108.10 to 111.95 MHz.
B) 108.10 to 118.10 MHz.
C) 108.10 to 117.95 MHz.
127 PLT091 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 125.) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by
illustration 4?
A) 285°.
B) 235°.
C) 055°.
128 PLT091 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 125.) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is located on the
055° radial of the station and heading away from the station?
A) 2
B) 1
C) 3
129 PLT361 ATP

130 PLT087 ATP

A) Direct only.
B) Parallel only.
C) Teardrop only.
131 PLT276 ATP

132 PLT090 ATP

Which indication may be received when a VOR is undergoing maintenance and is considered
unreliable?
133 PLT128 ATP

Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or
coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can
134 PLT049 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 173A.) During the approach (ILS RWY 10 at SYR) while maintaining
an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 110 knots, what was the approximate rate of
descent for PTZ 70?
135 PLT058 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 171, top panel.) The facility (Kankakee) that is located 9 miles NE of
Chicago Midway or 27 miles SSE of Northbrook (OBK) is a/an
136 PLT058 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 114, lower panel.) What is the minimum en route altitude on V210,
when crossing the POM VORTAC southwest bound and continuing on the same airway?
A) 5,300 feet.
B) 10,300 feet.
C) 10,700 feet.
137 PLT055 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 121, upper panel.) On the airway J220 (BUF R-158) SE of Buffalo,
the MAA is 39,000 feet. What is the MAA on J547 between BUF and PMM (lower panel)?
A) 60,000 feet.
B) 45,000 feet.
C) 43,000 feet.
138 PLT078 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 99 and 101.) Which frequency should be selected to check airport
conditions and weather prior to departure at DFW Intl?
A) 117.0 MHz.
B) 135.5 MHz.
C) 134.9 MHz.
139 PLT143 ATP

(Refer to appendix 1, legend 15 and appendix 2, figure 215.) Windsor Locks/Bradley Intl, is an
FAR Part 139 airport. What minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire-fighting vehicles, and
what type and amount of fire-fighting agents are the airport required to have?
A) Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC and
4,000 gallons of water.
B) Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus
C) Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus
140 PLT083 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 111 and 112.) Which approach lighting is available for Rwy 32R?
A) HIRL.
B) TDZ and CL.
C) MALSR with RAIL.
141 PLT049 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 202 and 206.) PTL 55 received the following clearance from Bay
Approach Control. PTL 55 is cleared ILS RWY 19L at SFO, sidestep to RWY 19R. 1.3 times the
Vso speed, of PTL 55, is 165 knots. What is the lowest minimum descent altitude (MDA) and the
lowest visibility that PTL 55 may accomplish the sidestep?
A) 340-1.
B) 340-2.
C) 340-1-1/2.
142 PLT049 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 161A.) The La Guardia weather goes below minimums and New
York Approach Control issues a clearance to N711JB, via radar vectors, to ASALT Intersection.
What is the lowest altitude that Approach Control may clear N711JB to cross ASALT
Intersection?
A) 2,500 feet.
B) 3,000 feet.
C) 2,000 feet.
143 PLT432 ATP
Operational control of a flight refers to
144 PLT506 ATP

The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane
within the accelerate-stop distance is
A) VEF.
B) V1.
C) V2.
145 PLT395 ATP

What is the name of an area beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions
and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft?
A) Stopway.
C) Clearway.
146 PLT506 ATP

A) VC.
B) VA.
C) VS.
147 PLT395 ATP

An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose
of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an:
148 PLT388 ATP

Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized
airplane with four reciprocating engines
C) may all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating
engines.
149 PLT380 ATP

The minimum weather conditions that must exist for an airport to be listed as an alternate in the
dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight are
A) those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, from 1 hours before or after the
ETA for that flight.
B) those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, at the time the flight is expected
to arrive.
C) those specified in the certificate holder's Operations Specifications for that airport, when the
flight arrives.
150 PLT385 ATP
What restrictions must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger
compartment of an airplane operated under FAR Part 121?
A) All cargo must be separated from the passengers by a partition capable of withstanding
certain load stresses.
B) Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown
having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting.
C) All cargo must be carried in a suitable flame resistant bin and the bin must be secured to the
floor structure of the airplane.
151 PLT390 ATP

Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under
normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?
B) Any FSS.
C) ARINC.
152 PLT444 ATP

153 PLT405 ATP

154 PLT323 ATP

155 PLT422 ATP

A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long
before a redispatch release is required?
156 PLT403 ATP

An aircraft dispatcher declares an emergency for a flight and a deviation results. A written report
shall be sent through the air carriers operations manager by the
157 PLT210 ATP
If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet
airplane, the pilot in command
A) may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest
suitable airport.
C) must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be
made.
158 PLT403 ATP

When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should
submit a written report within
159 PLT404 ATP

An airplane operated by a supplemental air carrier flying over uninhabited terrain must carry
which emergency equipment?
160 PLT404 ATP

For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier
must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for
161 PLT404 ATP

Which emergency equipment is required for a flag air carrier flight between John F. Kennedy
International Airport and London, England?
A) A self-buoyant, water resistant, portable survival-type emergency locator transmitter for each
required liferaft.
B) A life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light or other flotation device for
the full seating capacity of the airplane.
162 PLT408 ATP

Which factor determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required for flight under
FAR Part 121?
163 PLT436 ATP

If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates
whether the flight may continue en route?
164 PLT029 ATP
Below what altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight
crewmembers prohibited?
A) FL 180.
B) 14,500 feet.
C) 10,000 feet.
165 PLT373 ATP

Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in FAR Part 121
operations?
166 PLT368 ATP

167 PLT412 ATP

The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial
operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the
168 PLT409 ATP

A flag air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, having two pilots and one additional
flight crewmember, for no more than
169 PLT409 ATP

How does deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty assignment, affect the computation of
flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmembers? It is
170 PLT443 ATP

171 PLT409 ATP

The maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier pilot may fly, as a crewmember, in
a commercial operation, in any 30 consecutive days is
A) 120 hours.
B) 300 hours.
C) 100 hours.
172 PLT493 ATP
173 PLT407 ATP

Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in
command has
A) logged 100 hours' flight time in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three
Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the
beginning of the sixth preceding month.
B) logged 90 hours' flight time, 10 takeoffs and landings in make and model airplane and three
Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the
beginning of the sixth preceding month, in operations under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121.
C) made at least six Category II approaches in actual IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the
preceding 12 calendar months.
174 PLT443 ATP
When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how
does this affect the minimums for the destination airport?
175 PLT442 ATP

What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of
experience?
B) At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the
certificate holder.
176 PLT465 ATP

177 PLT438 ATP

For flights above which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the
entire flight at those altitudes?
A) 14,000 feet.
B) 16,000 feet.
C) 15,000 feet.
178 PLT438 ATP

179 PLT438 ATP
The supplemental oxygen requirements for passengers when a flight is operated at FL 250 is
dependent upon the airplane's ability to make an emergency descent to a flight altitude of
180 PLT034 ATP

For which of these aircraft is the 'clearway' for a particular runway considered in computing
takeoff weight limitations?
C) Those passenger-carrying transport aircraft certificated between August 26, 1957 and August
30, 1959.
181 PLT396 ATP

If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums,
what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the
departure airport?
182 PLT459 ATP

The minimum weather conditions that must exist for a domestic air carrier flight to take off from an
airport that is not listed in the Air Carrier's Operations Specifications (takeoff minimums are not
prescribed for that airport.) is
A) 1,000 - 1, 900 - 11/4, or 800 - 2.
B) 1,000 - 1, 900 - 11/2, or 800 - 2.
C) 800 - 2, 1,100 - 1, or 900 - 11/2.
183 PLT449 ATP

184 PLT407 ATP

How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial
training? Once every
185 PLT449 ATP

If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 2009 and the
required annual recurrent flight check in January 2011, the latter check is considered to have
been taken in
A) January 2011.
B) November 2010.
C) December 2010.
186 PLT442 ATP
What are the line check requirements for a domestic air carrier pilot in command under 60 years
of age?
A) The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and
airports.
B) The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be
flown.
187 PLT404 ATP

188 PLT462 ATP

Where should the portable battery-powered megaphone be located if only one is required on a
passenger-carrying airplane?
189 PLT322 ATP

A) The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of one other independent
navigation system, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the
remaining airplane radio system.
B) The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios
anywhere along the route with 150% of the forecast headwinds.
C) The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable
airport and land anywhere along the route with 150% of the forecast headwinds.
190 PLT429 ATP

191 PLT279 ATP

Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual Inertial
Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight?
192 PLT454 ATP

A certificate holder must have 'exclusive use' of
A) at least one aircraft that meets the requirements of the specific operations authorized in the
certificate holder's Operations Specifications.
B) at least one aircraft that meets the requirements of each kind of operation authorized in the
Operations Specifications.
C) at least one aircraft that meets the requirements of at least one kind of operation authorized in
the certificate holder's Operations
Specifications.
193 PLT438 ATP
A pressurized airplane being operated at FL 330 can descend safely to 15,000 feet MSL in 3.5
minutes. What oxygen supply must be carried for all occupants other than the pilots?
A) 60 minutes.
B) 30 minutes.
C) 45 minutes.
194 PLT438 ATP

Above which altitude/flight level must at least one of the two pilots, at the controls of a
pressurized aircraft (with quick-donning masks) wear a secured and sealed oxygen mask?
A) FL 300.
B) FL 250.
C) FL 350.
195 PLT469 ATP

Airborne weather radar equipment must be installed in large transport category aircraft, in the
conterminous 48 United States,
196 PLT404 ATP

An airplane, operated by a commuter air carrier, flying in extended overwater operations must
carry enough approved liferafts of a rated capacity and buoyancy to accommodate the occupants
of the aircraft. Each liferaft must be equipped with
197 PLT405 ATP

During which time period must a required voice recorder of a passenger-carrying airplane be
continuously operated?
B) From the use of the checklist before the flight to completion of the final check at the end of the
flight.
198 PLT404 ATP

Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior emergency lights, on aircraft having a
passenger seating configuration of 20 to
199 PLT404 ATP

How many, if any, approved first aid kits are required on an aircraft having a passenger seating
configuration of 20 seats and a passenger load of 14?
A) Two.
B) One.
C) None.
200 PLT282 ATP
If previous arrangements have not been made by the operator, where can the procedures for
servicing the aircraft be found?
201 PLT462 ATP

The crewmember interphone system on a large turbojet- powered airplane provides a means of
two-way communications between ground personnel and at least one of two flight crewmembers
in the pilot compartment, when the aircraft is on the ground.
202 PLT454 ATP

The weight and CG of an aircraft used in 135 operations must have been calculated from those
values established by actual weighing of the aircraft within what period of time?
203 PLT454 ATP

What are the empty weight and balance currency requirements for aircraft used in 135
operations?
A) The empty weight and CG of multiengine aircraft must have been calculated from an actual
weighing within the previous 36 calendar months.
B) The empty weight and CG of multiengine and single-engine aircraft must have been
calculated from an actual weighing within the previous 36 calendar months.
C) The empty weight and CG must have been calculated from an actual weighing within the
previous 24 calendar months unless the original Airworthiness Certificate was issued within the
previous 36 calendar months.
204 PLT462 ATP

Which aircraft must be equipped with an approved public address and crewmember interphone
system?
C) Aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of more than 19
seats.
205 PLT464 ATP

C) All airplanes used in commuter air service, having a passenger seating configuration of 9,
excluding any pilot seat.
206 PLT437 ATP

Which is a requirement for life preservers during extended overwater operations? Each life
preserver must be equipped with
B) a dye marker.
207 PLT385 ATP
A) in such a manner that at least one emergency or regular exit is available to all crewmembers,
if an emergency occurs.
208 PLT385 ATP

Which restriction must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger
compartment?
C) All cargo must be carried in a suitable bin and secured to a passenger seat or the floor
structure of the aircraft.
209 PLT442 ATP

A pilot, acting as second in command under 14 CFR 135, successfully completes the instrument
competency check specified in FAR Part 61. How long does this pilot remain current if no further
IFR flights are made?
A) 6 months.
B) 90 days.
C) 12 months.
210 PLT443 ATP

A) 12 seats.
B) 15 seats.
C) 10 seats.
211 PLT444 ATP

The pilot in command may deviate from 14 CFR Part 135 during an emergency involving the
safety of persons or property only
212 PLT409 ATP

What is the maximum number of hours that a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days as a pilot in
commercial flying and as a pilot for a commuter air carrier?
A) 34 hours.
B) 35 hours.
C) 32 hours.
213 PLT409 ATP

What minimum rest period must be provided for a pilot assigned to Helicopter Hospital
Emergency Medical Evacuation Service (HEMES) who has been on duty for a 47-hour period?
214 PLT392 ATP

An aircraft being operated outside of the United States, over a foreign country, by a 14 CFR part
135 operator must comply with
215 PLT282 ATP
Which condition must be met to conduct IFR operations from an airport that is not at the location
where weather observations are made?
B) An 'Authorization Letter' permitting the procedure must be issued by the FAA district office
charged with the overall inspection of the certificate holder.
C) A 'Letter of Waiver' authorizing the procedure must be issued by the Administrator, after an
investigation by the U.S. National Weather Service and the FSDO which find the standard of
safety to be satisfactory.
216 PLT223 ATP

What performance is required of a multiengine airplane with the critical engine inoperative, while
carrying passengers for hire in IFR weather conditions?
A) Climb at least 100 ft/min at the highest MEA of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL,
whichever is higher.
B) Climb at least 50 ft/min at the MEA's of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL, whichever is
higher.
C) Climb at least 50 ft/min at the MEA's of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet AGL, whichever is
higher.
217 PLT437 ATP

Which performance requirement applies to passenger-carrying land airplanes being operated
over water?
A) Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with the critical engine inoperative, at least 100
ft/min at 1,000 feet above the surface.
B) Single-engine airplanes must be operated at an altitude that will allow them to reach land in
case of engine failure.
C) Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with the critical engine inoperative, at least 50
ft/min at 1,500 feet above the surface.
218 PLT449 ATP

A pilot in command who is authorized to use an autopilot system, in place of a second in
command, may take the autopilot check
219 PLT442 ATP

A) within the past 12 months, which include a portion of a civil airway and one instrument
approach at one representative airport, in one of the types of aircraft which that pilot is to fly.
B) since the beginning of the 12th month before that service, which included at least one flight
over a civil airway, or approved off-airway route, or
any portion of either, in one type of aircraft which that pilot is to fly.
C) consisting of a flight over the route to be flown, with at least three instrument approaches at
representative airports, within the past 12 calendar months, in one type of aircraft which that pilot
is to fly.
220 PLT460 ATP

The certificate holder must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, gas
expansion, and decompression to crewmembers who serve in operations above
A) FL 180.
B) FL 250.
C) FL 200.
221 PLT407 ATP
A commuter air carrier certificate holder plans to assign a pilot as pilot in command of an aircraft
having eight passenger seats to be used in passenger-carrying operations. Which experience
requirement must that pilot meet if the aircraft is to be flown with an operative approved
autopilot and no second in command?
222 PLT443 ATP

A flight attendant crewmember is required on aircraft having a passenger seating configuration,
excluding any pilot seat, of
A) 19 or more.
B) 20 or more.
C) 15 or more.
223 PLT384 ATP

Before each takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers shall ensure that all
passengers have been orally briefed on the
224 PLT444 ATP

Which person, other than the second in command, may the pilot in command permit to
manipulate the flight controls?
A) A pilot employed by an engineering firm who is authorized by the certificate holder to conduct
flight tests.
B) A member of the National Transportation Safety Board who holds a pilot certificate
appropriate for the aircraft.
C) An authorized FAA safety representative who is qualified in the aircraft, and is checking flight
operations.
225 PLT436 ATP

Who may be allowed to carry a deadly weapon on board an aircraft operated under FAR Part
135?
226 PLT029 ATP

With regard to flight crewmember duties, which operations are considered to be in the 'critical
phase of flight'?
B) All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below
10,000 feet, excluding cruise flight.
C) All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below
10,000 feet MSL, including cruise flight.
227 PLT400 ATP

228 PLT375 ATP
What document contains procedures that explain how the required return-to-service conditions
have been met?
229 PLT493 ATP

A) If snow, ice, or frost is adhering to the airplane's lift or control surfaces, but polished smooth, a
takeoff may be made.
B) A takeoff may be made with ice, snow, or frost adhering to the wings or stabilizing or control
surfaces, but polished smooth, if the anti-icing and deicing equipment is operating.
C) A takeoff may not be made if ice or snow is adhering to the wings or stabilizing or control
surfaces.
230 PLT379 ATP

Assuming the required ceiling exists, an alternate for the destination airport is not required if, for
at least 1 hour before and after the ETA, the forecast visibility is at least
A) 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the instrument
approach procedure to be used, whichever is greater.
B) 5 miles, or 3 miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the instrument
approach procedure to be used, whichever is greater.
C) 3 nautical miles, or 2 nautical miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the
approach procedure to be used, which ever is greater.
231 PLT413 ATP

If the weather forecasts do not require the listing of an alternate airport on an IFR flight, the
airplane must carry sufficient fuel to fly to the destination airport and
B) make one missed approach and thereafter have a 45-minute reserve at normal cruising
speed.
232 PLT459 ATP

No person may takeoff an aircraft under IFR from an airport that has takeoff weather minimums
but that is below landing minimums unless there is an alternate airport within
233 PLT463 ATP

An employee who performs safety-sensitive functions, for a certificate holder, who has actual
knowledge of an accident involving an aircraft for which he or she performed a safety-sensitive
function at or near the time of the accident shall not use alcohol
234 PLT442 ATP
No person may serve, as second in command of an aircraft (under part 135), unless they hold a
commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate category, class rating and an instrument rating.
For flight under IFR, that person must have accomplished within the last 6 months, the recent
instrument requirements of
A) holding procedures, using the navigation systems for intercepting and tracking courses, and 6
instrument approaches.
B) using the navigation systems for interception and tracking of courses, 6 instrument low
approaches and holding.
C) using the navigation systems to intercept and track 3 inbound/3outbound courses, 6 holding
patterns and 6 instrument approaches.
235 PLT443 ATP

What are the minimum certificate and rating requirements for the pilot in command of a
multiengine airplane being operated by a commuter air carrier?
C) Commercial pilot; airplane category; multiengine class; instrument rating; airplane type rating,
if required.
236 PLT011 ATP

When computing the takeoff data for reciprocating powered airplanes, what is the percentage of
the reported headwind component that may be applied to the `still air` data?
237 PLT456 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 1.) What is the maximum landing distance that may be used by a
turbine-engine-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 6 (wet) at the
destination airport?
A) 9,100 feet.
B) 6,279 feet.
C) 5,460 feet.
238 PLT456 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 1.) What is the maximum planning landing distance that may be used
by a turbopropeller-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 24 (dry) at the
alternate airport?
A) 6,405 feet.
B) 5,490 feet.
C) 6,210 feet.
239 PLT456 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 2.) May a small transport category, turbine-engine-powered airplane
that has a computed landing distance of 5,500 feet use one or both of the runways depicted in the
illustration at the destination airport?
240 PLT282 ATP
If a certificate holder makes arrangements for another person to perform aircraft maintenance,
that maintenance shall be performed in accordance with the
A) provisions of a contract prepared by a certificate holder and approved by the supervising FAA
district office.
241 PLT409 ATP

What instrument flight time may be logged by a second in command of an aircraft requiring two
pilots?
B) All of the time the second in command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight
instruments.
242 PLT427 ATP

An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an
approved flight simulator, is
243 PLT463 ATP

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported
to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
244 PLT409 ATP

In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing,
that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service?
A) 6 hours.
B) 10 hours.
C) 8 hours.
245 PLT447 ATP

When a facsimile replacement is received for an airman`s medical certificate, for what maximum
time is this document valid?
A) 30 days.
B) 90 days.
C) 60 days.
246 PLT443 ATP

A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747
for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these
airplanes?
B) ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737.
247 PLT405 ATP
An approved minimum equipment list or FAA Letter of Authorization allows certain instruments or
equipment
C) to be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base without
further documentation from the operator or FAA with passengers on board.
248 PLT508 ATP

What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR
system when checking one VOR against the other?
249 PLT429 ATP

250 PLT147 ATP

A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered airplane on a runway served by a VASI shall
A) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe
landing.
251 PLT161 ATP

At what minimum altitude is a turbine- engine-powered, or large airplane, required to enter Class
D airspace?
A) 2,000 feet AGL.
B) 2,500 feet AGL.
C) 1,500 feet AGL.
252 PLT383 ATP

During an emergency, a pilot in command does not deviate from a 14 CFR rule but is given
priority by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot required to submit a written report?
253 PLT405 ATP

In addition to a two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC on appropriate frequencies,
which equipment is the helicopter required to have to operate within Class B airspace? (Letter of
agreement not applicable.)
254 PLT161 ATP

The maximum indicated airspeed that an aircraft may be flown in Class B airspace, after
departing the primary airport, while at 1,700 feet AGL and 3.5 nautical miles from the airport is
A) 250 knots.
B) 200 knots.
C) 230 knots.
255 PLT406 ATP
C) Squawk 7600.
256 PLT163 ATP

What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E
airspace at 9,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?
257 PLT391 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 168, 169, and 169A.) What action should be taken by the pilot if
communications are lost after departure from RWY 16 at PWK if VMC?
A) Start right turn within 1 mile of the departure end of RWY, remain east of ORD VOR/DME R-
345, and maintain 3,000 feet; 3 minutes after departure, turn direct to PMM, and climb to FL 190.
258 PLT459 ATP

According to FAR Part 91, when takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a civil airport, what are
the takeoff minimums under IFR for a multiengine helicopter?
A) 1 SM visibility.
B) 1200 RVR.
259 PLT277 ATP

260 PLT420 ATP

The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum
ground visibility may be substituted for the RVR value?
A) 3/4 SM.
B) 5/8 SM.
C) 7/8 SM.
261 PLT420 ATP

Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1
approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway?
A) Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the approach light
system can be seen.
B) The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100
feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable.
C) Under no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual reference for
descent below DH or MDA.
262 PLT430 ATP
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained by a
helicopter during an off-airways IFR flight over non-mountainous terrain?
263 PLT391 ATP

While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route
should be flown in the absence of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in
a further clearance?
264 PLT463 ATP

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been
consumed by that person within the preceding
A) 12 hours.
B) 24 hours.
C) 8 hours.
265 PLT388 ATP

A) Identifying procedures that may have been conducive to any accident, or occurrence resulting
in investigation under NTSB Part 830.
266 PLT462 ATP

267 PLT385 ATP

A) All carry-on baggage must be restrained so that its movement is prevented during air
turbulence.
B) Pieces of carry-on baggage weighing more than 10 pounds must be carried in an approved
rack or bin.
268 PLT407 ATP

The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression
to crewmembers serving on pressurized airplanes operated above
A) FL 250.
B) FL 180.
C) FL 200.
269 PLT366 ATP

What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB
as a 'serious injury'?
270 PLT076 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 149.) What will be the wind and temperature trend for an SAT ELP
TUS flight at 16,000 feet?
271 PLT059 ATP

272 PLT475 ATP

A) Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 15 knots to a sustained wind speed of 20 knots,
lasting for at least 1 minute.
B) Rapid variation in wind direction of at least 20° and changes in speed of at least 10 knots
between peaks and lulls.
C) A sudden increase in wind speed of at least 16 knots, the speed rising to 22 knots or more for
1 minute or longer.
273 PLT061 ATP

KFTW UA/OV DFW/TM 1645/FL100/TP PA30/SK SCT031-TOP043/BKN060-TOP085/OVC097-
TOPUNKN/WX FV00SM RA/TA 07.
274 PLT515 ATP

The Federal Aviation Administration`s Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides what
products?
275 PLT063 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 152.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by
arrow B on the Radar Summary Chart?
276 PLT302 ATP

277 PLT263 ATP

278 PLT493 ATP
A) The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of
moisture are falling.
B) Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint and the dewpoint is also below
freezing.
C) Dew collects on the surface and then freezes because the surface temperature is lower than
the air temperature.
279 PLT302 ATP

C) In a single continuous band, encircling the Earth, where there is a break between the
equatorial and polar tropopause.
280 PLT203 ATP

281 PLT166 ATP

282 PLT495 ATP

A) Freezing rain.
283 PLT501 ATP

284 PLT475 ATP

285 PLT021 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 77, 79, and 80.) What is the gross weight index for Loading
Conditions WT-6?
A) 181,340.5 index.
B) 165,991.5 index.
C) 156,545.0 index.
286 PLT021 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 44.) What is the new CG if the weight is removed from the forward
compartment under Loading Conditions WS 1?
287 PLT021 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 29, 31, 32, and 33.) Where is the longitudinal CG located under
Operating Conditions BL-5?
A) Station 232.0.
B) Station 234.9.
C) Station 235.4.
288 PLT021 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG in inches from datum under
Loading Conditions BE-1?
A) Station 290.3.
B) Station 291.8.
C) Station 285.8.
289 PLT021 ATP

290 PLT021 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 30, 32, 33, and 35.) What limit, if any, is exceeded under Loading
Conditions BL-10?
291 PLT021 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG shift if the passengers in row
1 are moved to seats in row 9 under Loading Conditions BE-1?
A) 6.2 inches aft.
B) 1.5 inches aft.
C) 5.6 inches aft.
292 PLT021 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 30, 31, 32, 33, and 34.) Given Loading Conditions BL-6, what is the
effect on lateral CG if the outside passengers from each row on the left side are deplaned?
Deplaned passenger weights are 170 pounds each.
06/14/2013
The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of supplement publications.

These publications, available through several aviation publishers, include the graphics, legends,
and maps that are needed to successfully respond to certain test items. Use the following URL to
download a complete list of associated supplement books:
http://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/test_questions/
The Learning Statement Reference Guide for Airman Knowledge Testing contains listings of
learning statements with their associated codes. It can be located at:
http://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/media/LearningStatementReferenceGuide.pdf
1. PLT170 ATP
Upon landing, spoilers
A) decrease directional stability on the landing rollout.
B) function by increasing tire to ground friction.
C) should be extended after the thrust reversers have been deployed.
2. PLT170 ATP
Arriving over the runway 10 knots over Vref would add approximately how many feet to the dry landing
distance?
A) 800 feet.
B) 1,700 feet.
C) 2,800 feet.
3. PLT104 ATP
Automation has been found to
A) create much larger errors at times.
B) improve crew situational awareness skills.
C) substitute for a lack of aviation experience.
4. PLT104 ATP
Pilots should remember the alcohol in one beer can be detected for as long as
A) a minimum of 2 hours.
B) a minimum of 3 hours.
C) a minimum of 4 hours.
5. PLT149 ATP
As you call for taxi instructions, the key words to understand are
A) "cleared to runway."
B) "hold short of" or "cross."
C) "taxi to" and "expedite."
6. PLT149 ATP
Hot Spots are depicted on airport diagrams as
A) squares or rectangles around "HS and a number."
B) circles or polygons around "HS and a number."
C) triangles or blocks filled with "HS" and a number.
7. PLT012 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 103, 104, 105, and 106.) Estimate the total fuel required to be on the
aircraft, prior to taxi at Tucson Intl. (Use 13°E for problem magnetic variation.)
A) 2,223 pounds.
B) 2,447 pounds.
C) 2,327 pounds.
8. PLT015 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 119, 120, 121, and 122.) What is the specific range in nautical air miles
per 1,000 pounds of fuel from level-off to start of descent using .78 Mach?
A) 55.9 NAM/1000.
B) 52.5 NAM/1000.
C) 48.9 NAM/1000.
9. PLT141 ATP
When you see this pavement marking from the cockpit, you
A) can taxi past this point at your own risk.
B) must hold short until "Cleared" to taxi onto or past the runway.
C) may not cross the line until ATC allows you to "enter" or "cross" by instruction.
10. PLT141 ATP

The sign shown is an example of
A) a mandatory instruction sign.
B) runway heading notification signage.
C) an airport directional sign
11. PLT354 ATP

You are cleared to HNL (figure 251) and plan to use the RNAV (RNP) RWY 26L approach. Assuming
you have received the training, you
A) should be prepared to program the FMS/GPS with the radio frequency to fly this approach.
B) can use the GPS and radio frequency communications to fly this approach to minimums.
C) know your FMS/GPS must have GPS and radius-to-fix capability.
12. PLT456 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 2.) May a small transport category, turbine-engine-powered airplane that
has a computed landing distance of 5,500 feet use one or both of the runways depicted in the
illustration at the destination airport?
13. PLT456 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 1.) What is the maximum planning landing distance that may be used by a
turbopropeller-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 24 (dry) at the alternate
airport?
A) 6,405 feet.
B) 5,490 feet.
C) 6,210 feet.
14. PLT367 ATP

You are assigned to ferry a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to
repair an inoperative engine? You know you are restricted to
A) VFR weather for takeoff, en route, and landing.
B) flight crewmembers only aboard.
C) a computed takeoff distance to reach V1 that cannot exceed 70 percent of the effective runway
length.
15. PLT219 ATP

A level attitude in flight in a helicopter indicates
A) acceleration.
B) descent.
C) stable flight.
16. PLT472 ATP

A medium or higher frequency vibration mainly present in the anti-torque pedals is
A) usually traceable to engine cooling fan assembly.
B) probably caused by the tail rotor.
C) to be expected and accepted as normal.
17. PLT470 ATP

Ground resonance occurs when
A) a fully articulated rotor system is unbalanced.
B) a semi-rigid rotor system is out of balance.
C) a pilot lands with over inflated tires.
18. PLT021 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 30, 31, 32, 33, and 34.) Given Loading Conditions BL-6, what is the effect
on lateral CG if the outside passengers from each row on the left side are deplaned? Deplaned
passenger weights are 170 pounds each.
19. PLT004 ATP

Heater ON
A) 600 ft/min.
B) 925 ft/min.
C) 335 ft/min.
20. PLT012 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 68 and 69.) What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under
Operating Conditions O-1?
A) 1,950 pounds.
B) 1,625 pounds.
C) 2,440 pounds.
21. PLT007 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding
under Operating Conditions O-1?
22. PLT002 ATP

A) 133 KIAS.
B) 128 KIAS.
C) 126 KIAS.
23. PLT012 ATP

Operating Conditions H-2?
A) 5,250 pounds.
B) 5,100 pounds.
C) 3,400 pounds.
24. PLT012 ATP

Operating Conditions H-1?
A) 2,630 pounds.
B) 3,500 pounds.
C) 4,680 pounds.
25. PLT015 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 115, 116, 117, 118, and 118C.) What is the specific range in nautical
miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from level-off to the ARLIN Intersection using .78 Mach?
26. PLT128 ATP

During icing conditions, a pilot response to tailplane stall symptoms should be to
A) retard power settings to increase the control margins.
B) retract the flaps to the previous setting.
C) apply as much power as the engine(s) can produce under those conditions.
27. PLT124 ATP

How does V s (KTAS) speed vary with altitude?
A) Remains the same at all altitudes.
B) Varies directly with altitude.
C) Varies inversely with altitude.
28. PLT128 ATP

Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or
coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can
29. PLT523 ATP

A) Delays the onset of drag divergence at high speeds and aids in maintaining aileron effectiveness at
high speeds.
B) Breaks the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing.
30. PLT346 ATP

A) Elevator.
B) Dorsal fin.
C) Slats.
31. PLT346 ATP

32. PLT519 ATP

C) Reduce lift without decreasing airspeed.
33. PLT473 ATP

A) Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures.
34. PLT473 ATP

Which is a purpose of ground spoilers?
A) Aid in rolling an airplane into a turn.
B) Increase the rate of descent without gaining airspeed.
C) Reduce the wings' lift upon landing.
35. PLT346 ATP

Which direction from the primary control surface does an anti-servo tab move?
A) Remains fixed for all positions.
B) Same direction.
C) Opposite direction.
36. PLT245 ATP

37. PLT134 ATP

One typical takeoff error is
A) delayed rotation which may extend the climb distance.
B) premature rotation which may increase takeoff distance.
C) extended rotation which may degrade acceleration.
38. PLT170 ATP

Approaching the runway 1° below glidepath can add how many feet to the landing distance?
A) 250 feet.
B) 500 feet.
C) 1,000 feet.
39. PLT134 ATP

Excessive takeoff speeds may result in approximately a
A) 4% takeoff distance increase for each 1% of additional takeoff speed.
B) 1% takeoff distance increase for each 2% of additional takeoff speed.
C) 2% takeoff distance increase for each 1% of additional takeoff speed.
40. PLT499 ATP

A) Reduce the throttle and then rapidly advance the throttle to decrease the angle of attack on the
compressor blades, creating more airflow.
B) Reduce the throttle and then slowly advance the throttle again and decrease the aircraft`s angle of
attack.
C) Advance the throttle slowly to increase airflow and decrease the angle of attack on one or more
compressor blades.
41. PLT127 ATP

A) remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure.
42. PLT499 ATP

B) limiting torque.
43. PLT499 ATP

Which part(s) in the turbojet engine is subjected to the high temperatures and severe centrifugal
forces?
A) Turbine wheel(s).
B) Turbine vanes.
C) Compressor rotor(s) or impeller(s).
44. PLT500 ATP

45. PLT303 ATP

What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed
for maximum L/D?
46. PLT223 ATP

In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a
slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines?
C) when operating at any airspeed of Vmc or greater with only enough deflection to zero the side slip .
47. PLT248 ATP

What result does a level turn have on the total lift required and load factor with a constant airspeed?
48. PLT248 ATP

What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but
increasing airspeed?
49. PLT214 ATP

What is the condition that may occur when gusts cause a swept wing type airplane to roll in one
direction while yawing in the other?
A) Wingover.
B) Mach buffet.
C) Dutch roll.
50. PLT234 ATP

During a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between the component of lift and centrifugal
force?
A) Centrifugal force is less than the horizontal lift component, and the load factor is increased.
B) Centrifugal force is greater than the horizontal lift component.
C) Centrifugal force and the horizontal lift component are equal, and the load factor is decreased.
51. PLT237 ATP
52. PLT214 ATP

What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of
a sweptwing aircraft?
53. PLT266 ATP

Swept wings causes a significant
A) increase in effectiveness of flaps.
B) reduction in effectiveness of flaps.
C) flap actuation reliability issue.
54. PLT347 ATP

Which engine is the `critical` engine of a twin-engine airplane?
A) The one with the center of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage.
B) The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centerline of the fuselage.
C) The one designated by the manufacturer because it develops the most usable thrust.
55. PLT213 ATP

56. PLT213 ATP

Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the
controls have been neutralized.
57. PLT477 ATP

The stall speed of an airplane
A) is constant regardless of weight or airfoil configuration.
B) is affected by weight, and bank angle.
C) is not affected by dynamic pressures and lift co-efficient.
58. PLT103 ATP
Accident prone pilots tend to
A) have disdain toward rules.
B) follow methodical information gathering techniques.
C) excessively utilize outside resources.
59. PLT103 ATP

When a recently certificated pilot decides to not wait any longer for the fog and low ceilings to burn off,
this pilot may be exhibiting the hazardous
A) resigned attitude.
B) macho attitude.
C) impulsive attitude.
60. PLT104 ATP

An experienced pilot trying to meet a schedule
A) can expect the flight crew to alert them to problems or areas of concern.
B) will always err on the side of caution.
C) can fail to perceive operational pitfalls.
61. PLT104 ATP

An air carrier crew fixated on completing the last flight of a four day trip often may exhibit
A) get-there-itis.
B) staged decision-making.
C) naturalistic decision-making.
62. PLT104 ATP

An aircarrier aircraft flown into the ground while troubleshooting a landing gear fault is an example of
A) neglect and reliance on memory.
B) loss of situational awareness.
C) lack of aviation experience.
63. PLT104 ATP

Automation has been found to
A) create higher workloads in terminal areas.
B) improve crew situational awareness skills.
C) substitute for a lack of aviation experience.
64. PLT104 ATP

Automatic Decision-Making is
A) a reflexive type of decision-making.
B) an impulsive type of decision-making.
C) an internalized type of decision-making.
65. PLT170 ATP

What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach?
A) A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is a VFR authorization.
B) Both are the same but classified according to the party initiating the approach.
C) A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the pilot.
66. PLT172 ATP

C) a high update rate RADAR system for monitoring multiple aircraft ILS approaches to a single
runway.
67. PLT140 ATP

A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts:
A) does not preclude a rejected landing.
B) precludes a rejected landing.
C) must be adhered to.
68. PLT149 ATP

As you rolled out long on Runway 30 after landing at Long Beach (LGB) (figures 241 and 242), you
slowed and turned left on very wide pavement and now see Taxiway D signs on both sides of your
pavement. You notice your heading is about 250°. Tower is urging you to turn left on D, cross 16R/34L,
then taxi to G and hold short of Runway 30. You now know you
A) exited onto Runway 25R and transited HS 2.
B) exited onto Taxiway G.
C) exited at Taxiway J and transited HS 4.
69. PLT049 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 193, 193A,194, 195, 195A, 196,and 196A.) While being radar vectored for
the ILS/DME RWY 35R, Denver Approach Control tells PIL 10 to contact the tower, without giving the
frequency. What frequency should PIL 10 use for tower?
A) 121.85.
B) 124.3.
C) 132.35.
70. PLT083 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 255A, 255B, 256, 257 and 257A.) If the glide slope indication is lost upon
passing LIMMA INT on the ILS RWY 25L approach at LAX, what action should the pilot take?
C) Immediately start the missed approach left turn to CATLY INT.
71. PLT370 ATP

72. PLT058 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 171, top panel.) The facility (Kankakee) that is located 9 miles NE of
Chicago Midway or 27 miles SSE of Northbrook (OBK) is a/an
73. PLT370 ATP

74. PLT149 ATP

What special consideration is given for turbine-powered aircraft when 'gate hold' procedures are in
effect?
B) They are expected to be ready for takeoff prior to taxi and will receive takeoff clearance prior to taxi.
75. PLT078 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 99 and 101.) Which frequency should be selected to check airport
conditions and weather prior to departure at DFW Intl?
A) 117.0 MHz.
B) 135.5 MHz.
C) 134.9 MHz.
76. PLT171 ATP

What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to 'VERIFY 9,000' and the flight is actually
maintaining 8,000?
77. PLT362 ATP

You notice ATC is unusually quiet and one of your VHF transmit lights is illuminated, you suspect
A) your VHF receiver is inoperative.
B) your VHF transmitter is keyed and you probably have a stuck microphone.
C) the radio is performing a self-test function.
78. PLT195 ATP

Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA)is
expected to
79. PLT161 ATP

80. PLT161 ATP

81. PLT141 ATP

Taxiway Centerline Lead-Off Lights are color coded to warn pilots that
A) they are within the runway environment or run-up danger critical area.
B) they are within the runway environment or ILS/MLS critical area.
C) they are within the taxiway end environment or ILS/MLS critical area.
82. PLT141 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 156.) This sign, which is visible to the pilot on the runway, indicates
A) the point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway.
B) a point at which the aircraft will be clear of the runway.
C) a point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by the tower.
83. PLT149 ATP

You received these ATC taxi instructions: "Taxi to Runway 30 via Lima and hold short of Runway 25L."
Your airplane is on the ramp by the terminal and NWS on the east side of the airport. (See figure 242.)
Your taxi route
A) requires crossing of Runway 25L at Lima.
B) involves transiting HS 4.
C) requires crossing Runway 34R en route to the assigned runway.
84. PLT141 ATP

"REL" is the acronym for
A) Runway exit lights.
B) Runway entrance lights.
C) Ramp entry lights.
85. PLT141 ATP

When instructed by ATC to 'Hold short of a runway (ILS critical area, etc.),' the pilot should stop
A) so the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line.
B) so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the hold line.
C) with the nose gear on the hold line.
86. PLT149 ATP

When should transponders be operated on the ground while taxiing?
A) Only when ATC specifically requests your transponder to be activated.
B) Any time when the airport is operating under IFR.
C) All the time when at an airport with ASDE-X.
87. PLT149 ATP

When taxiing on an airport with ASDE-X, you should
A) operate the transponder only when the airport is under IFR or at night during your taxi.
B) operate the transponder with altitude reporting all of the time during taxiing.
C) be ready to activate the transponder upon ATC request while taxing.
88. PLT225 ATP

B) The initial fix, all radio fixes which the pilot wishes to be compulsory reporting points, and the final fix.
89. PLT367 ATP

Before requesting RVSM clearance, each person
A) shall correctly annotate the flight plan.
B) must file an ICAO RSVM flight plan.
C) should file for odd altitudes only.
90. PLT002 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 73, 74, and 75.) What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions
L-5?
A) 137 knots.
B) 130 knots.
C) 124 knots.
91. PLT012 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 51 and 52.) What is the total time from starting to the alternate through
completing the approach for Operating Conditions L-1?
A) 44 minutes.
B) 30 minutes.
C) 29 minutes.
92. PLT004 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the ground distance covered during en route
climb for Operating Conditions W-4?
A) 61.4 NM.
B) 60.3 NM.
C) 58.4 NM.
93. PLT007 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 59 and 60.) What is the max climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-1?
A) 2.04.
B) 1.82.
C) 1.96.
94. PLT004 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 15, 16, and 17.) What is the two-engine rate of climb after takeoff in climb
configuration for Operating Conditions BE-21?
A) 2,450 ft/min.
B) 1,350 ft/min.
C) 2,300 ft/min.
95. PLT012 ATP

A) 24,000 pounds.
B) 25,000 pounds.
C) 26,000 pounds.
96. PLT007 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 59 and 60.) What is the max continuous EPR for Operating Conditions T-
5?
A) 2.00.
B) 1.96.
C) 2.04.
97. PLT045 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 86 and 87.) What are descent time and distance under Operating
Conditions S-1?
A) 24 minutes, 118 NAM.
B) 25 minutes, 118 NAM.
C) 26 minutes, 125 NAM.
98. PLT004 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 71 and 72.) What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-
down under Operating Conditions D-3?
A) 19,800 feet.
B) 22,200 feet.
C) 21,600 feet.
99. PLT008 ATP
A) 143 knots.
B) 145 knots.
C) 144 knots.
100. PLT007 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 73 and 75.) What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-5?
A) 2.00 EPR.
B) 2.05 EPR.
C) 2.04 EPR.
101. PLT008 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 92.) What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a
3° glide slope at a weight of 140,000 pounds?
A) 127 knots.
B) 156 knots.
C) 149 knots.
102. PLT008 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 92.) What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when
configuration is changed from flaps 30°, gear down, to flaps 0°, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160
knots?
A) 15,300 pounds.
B) 13,500 pounds.
C) 13,300 pounds.
103. PLT008 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 89.) How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000-foot wet runway
with reversers inoperative at 122,000 pounds gross weight?
A) 2,200 feet.
B) 3,150 feet.
C) 2,750 feet.
104. PLT008 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 90.) Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over
a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway?
A) Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight.
B) Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight.
C) Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight.
105. PLT021 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 51 and 52.) What is the approximate landing weight for Operating
Conditions L-1?
A) 81,600 pounds.
B) 80,300 pounds.
C) 78,850 pounds.
106. PLT078 ATP

All 14 CFR part 139 airports must report
A) accident and incident data annually.
B) noise complaint statistics for each departure procedure or runway.
C) declared distances for each runway.
107. PLT011 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 81, 82, and 83.) What is the takeoff safety speed for Operating Conditions
G-1?
A) 122 knots.
B) 137 knots.
C) 139 knots.
108. PLT010 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 45, 46, and 47.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions
A-3?
A) 22 percent MAC.
B) 20 percent MAC.
C) 18 percent MAC.
109. PLT011 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 53, 54, and 55.) What is the takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-2?
A) 2.18.
B) 2.19.
C) 2.16.
110. PLT011 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 45, 46, and 47.) What are V1 and VR speeds for Operating Conditions A-
1?
111. PLT010 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-5?
A) 7-1/2 ANU.
B) 6-3/4 ANU.
C) 8 ANU.
112. PLT078 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 348.) What effect on the takeoff run can be expected on Rwy 11R at
Tucson Intl?
113. PLT085 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 231.) Given the following conditions, what is the takeoff climb limit?
Airport OAT: 38° C
Airport Pressure Altitude: 14 ft.
Flaps: 15°
Engine Bleed for packs: On
Anti-ice: Off
A) 136,000 lb.
B) 137,500 lb.
C) 139,000 lb.
114. PLT069 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 235 and 236.) Given the following conditions, what is the maximum
Slush/Standing Water takeoff weight?
Dry field/obstacle limit weight: 180,000 lb.
Slush/standing water depth: .25 inches
Field length available: 9000 ft.
No Reverse thrust
A) 130,850 lb.
B) 147,550 lb.
C) 139,850 lb.
115. PLT011 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 237 and 238.) Given the following conditions, what are the takeoff V
speeds?
Weight: 170,000 lb.
Flaps: 10°
Runway slope: 0%
Wind (KTS) Headwind: 8 KTS
Runway Condition: Wet Runway
For VR more than or equal to .1 VR, round up VR to the next value (example: 140 +.1 =141)
A) V1 134 kts., VR 140 kts., V2 145 kts.
B) V1 140 kts., VR 140 kts., V2 145 kts.
C) V1 138 kts., VR 141 kts., V2 145 kts.
116. PLT020 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 63 and 64.) What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for
Operating Conditions Q-1?
A) 84.0 percent.
B) 82.4 percent.
C) 84.8 percent.
117. PLT011 ATP

You are rolling out after touchdown and decide you really need to abort your landing, and takeoff. Your
airplane is at 116 knots and your engines have spooled down to 71% idle. You need a V2 of 142 to
safely lift off and climb. The airplane will require 6 seconds to accelerate after the engines spool up to
takeoff thrust, which requires 4 seconds. How much runway will you require for a safe landing abort
from your decision point? (Use an average of 129 knots ground speed.)
A) 1,738 feet.
B) 2,178 feet.
C) 3,601 feet.
118. PLT147 ATP

A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide
slope angle may result in
A) a hard landing.
119. PLT012 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating
Conditions Z-5?
B) 62 minutes.
C) 56 minutes.
120. PLT012 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 66 and 67.) What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating
Conditions Z-1?
A) 5,970 pounds.
B) 5,230 pounds.
C) 5,550 pounds.
121. PLT016 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 70.) How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to
16,000 pounds (@ 2,350 lbs/min)?
Initial weight 175,500 lb
Zero fuel weight 138,000 lb
A) 9 minutes.
B) 8 minutes.
C) 10 minutes.
122. PLT144 ATP

What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speed have on
hydroplaning?
123. PLT104 ATP

The crew monitoring function is essential,
A) particularly during high altitude cruise flight modes to prevent CAT issues.
B) particularly during approach and landing to prevent CFIT.
C) during RNAV departures in class B airspace.
124. PLT104 ATP

CRM training refers to
A) the two components of flight safety and resource management, combined with mentor feedback.
B) the three components of initial indoctrination awareness, recurrent practice and feedback, and
continual reinforcement.
C) the five components of initial indoctrination awareness, communication principles, recurrent practice
and feedback, coordination drills, and continual reinforcement.
125. PLT104 ATP

Error management evaluation
A) should recognize not all errors can be prevented.
B) may include error evaluation that should have been prevented.
C) must mark errors as disqualifying.
126. PLT205 ATP

C) Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities.
127. PLT280 ATP

A) leveling off.
B) pitching up.
C) pitching down.
128. PLT280 ATP

The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration takeoff is known
as
B) autokinesis.
129. PLT332 ATP

130. PLT097 ATP

B) Dizziness.
131. PLT512 ATP

Large areas of land
A) tend to increase temperature variations.
B) do not influence the troposhere.
C) minimize temperature variations.
132. PLT203 ATP

133. PLT263 ATP

134. PLT302 ATP

135. PLT475 ATP

A) Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 15 knots to a sustained wind speed of 20 knots, lasting
for at least 1 minute.
B) Rapid variation in wind direction of at least 20° and changes in speed of at least 10 knots between
peaks and lulls.
C) A sudden increase in wind speed of at least 16 knots, the speed rising to 22 knots or more for 1
minute or longer.
136. PLT108 ATP

Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids used for deicing
A) on the ground, cause no performance degradation during takeoff.
B) provide ice protection during flight.
C) are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only.
137. PLT108 ATP

Which of the following will decrease the holding time during anti-icing using a two-step process?
A) Apply heated Type 2 fluid.
B) Increase the viscosity of Type 1 fluid.
C) Decrease the water content.
138. PLT108 ATP

What is the minimum glycol content of Type 1 deicing/anti-icing fluid?
A) 50 percent.
B) 30 percent.
C) 80 percent.
139. PLT274 ATP

The following weather condition may be conducive to severe in-flight icing:
A) visible rain at temperatures below 0° C ambient air temperature.
B) visible moisture at temperatures below 5° C ambient temperature.
C) visible rain at temperatures below 10° C ambient temperature.
140. PLT495 ATP

A) Freezing rain.
141. PLT475 ATP

142. PLT302 ATP

C) In a single continuous band, encircling the Earth, where there is a break between the equatorial and
polar tropopause.
143. PLT493 ATP

A) The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are
falling.
B) Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint and the dewpoint is also below freezing.
C) Dew collects on the surface and then freezes because the surface temperature is lower than the air
temperature.
144. PLT515 ATP

The Telephone Information Briefing Service (TIBS) recordings are provided by selected Automated
Flight Service Stations and
A) are updated on the hour.
B) are designed to replace the standard briefing given by a flight service specialist.
C) contain area briefings encompassing a 50 NM radius.
145. PLT515 ATP

The Federal Aviation Administration`s Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides what
products?
146. PLT047 ATP

When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot observe during turns
in a holding pattern?
147. PLT354 ATP

A) over the MAWP.
B) after the MAWP.
148. PLT354 ATP

To conduct a localizer performance with vertical guidance (LPV) RNAV (GPS) approach, the aircraft
must be furnished with
A) a GPS/WAAS receiver approved for an LPV approach by the AFM supplement.
B) a GPS (TSO-129) receiver certified for IFR operations.
C) an IFR approach-certified system with required navigation performance (RNP) of 0.5.
149. PLT195 ATP
150. PLT524 ATP

You see the indication in the figure on your PFD, but your standby indicator reads 120 knots and the power is set for 120-k
level flight. You decide the
151. PLT143 ATP
(Refer to appendix 1, legend 15 and appendix 2, figure 215.) Windsor Locks/Bradley Intl, is an FAR
Part 139 airport. What minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire-fighting vehicles, and what type and
amount of fire-fighting agents are the airport required to have?
A) Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC and 4,000
gallons of water.
B) Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 3,000
gallons of water.
C) Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 4,000
gallons of water.
152. PLT083 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 259.) Which approach lighting is available for Rwy 33R?
A) MIRL.
B) TDZ and CL.
C) MALSR with RAIL.
153. PLT149 ATP

Detailed investigations of runway incursions have identified
A) 2 major areas of contributing factors.
B) 3 major areas of contributing factors.
C) 4 major areas of contributing factors.
154. PLT045 ATP

155. PLT389 ATP

A pilot employed by an air carrier and/or commercial operator may conduct GPS/WAAS instrument
approaches
A) if they are not prohibited by the FAA-approved aircraft flight manual and the flight manual
supplement.
B) only if approved in their air carrier/commercial operator operations specifications.
C) only if the pilot was evaluated on GPS/WAAS approach procedures during their most recent
proficiency check.
156. PLT049 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 202 and 206.) PTL 55 received the following clearance from Bay
Approach Control. PTL 55 is cleared ILS RWY 19L at SFO, sidestep to RWY 19R. 1.3 times the Vso
speed, of PTL 55, is 165 knots. What is the lowest minimum descent altitude (MDA) and the lowest
visibility that PTL 55 may accomplish the sidestep?
A) 340-1.
B) 340-2.
C) 340-1-1/2.
157. PLT049 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 273.) The touchdown zone elevation of the ILS RWY 25L approach at
Phoenix Sky Harbor Intl is
A) 1,126 feet.
B) 1,135 feet.
C) 1,458 feet.
158. PLT049 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 293.) The La Guardia weather goes below minimums and New York
Approach Control issues a clearance to N711JB, via radar vectors, to ASALT Intersection. What is the
lowest altitude that Approach Control may clear N711JB to cross ASALT Intersection?
A) 2,500 feet.
B) 3,000 feet.
C) 2,000 feet.
159. PLT208 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 112.) What action should the pilot take if communications were lost during
the Cugar Four Arrival, after turning on the 305 radial of IAH?
A) Proceed direct to IAH VORTAC, then outbound on the IAH R-125 for a procedure turn for final
approach.
C) From BANTY INT, proceed to the IAF on the IAH R-290, then continue on the IAH 10 DME Arc to
final approach.
160. PLT162 ATP

A minimum instrument altitude for enroute operations off of published airways which provides
obstruction clearance of 1,000 feet in nonmountainous terrain areas and 2,000 feet in designated
mountainous areas within the United States is called
A) Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA).
B) Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude (MSA).
C) Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude (OROCA).
161. PLT055 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 121, upper panel.) On the airway J220 (BUF R-158) SE of Buffalo, the
MAA is 39,000 feet. What is the MAA on J547 between BUF and PMM (lower panel)?
A) 60,000 feet.
B) 45,000 feet.
C) 43,000 feet.
162. PLT058 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 114, lower panel.) What is the minimum en route altitude on V210, when
crossing the POM VORTAC southwest bound and continuing on the same airway?
A) 5,300 feet.
B) 10,300 feet.
C) 10,700 feet.
163. PLT148 ATP

B) Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the
touchdown zone.
164. PLT141 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'C' for a nighttime takeoff
on runway 9?
A) 1,000 feet.
B) 1,800 feet.
C) 1,500 feet.
165. PLT147 ATP

Which color on a tri-color VASI is a `low` indication?
A) Green.
B) Amber (not dark amber).
C) Red.
166. PLT141 ATP

"THL" is the acronym for
A) Takeoff hold lights.
B) Taxi holding lights.
C) Terminal holding lights
167. PLT128 ATP

During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input
and drain hole of the pitot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be
expected?
168. PLT166 ATP

169. PLT202 ATP

Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and displayed
distance to the VORTAC?
A) Low altitudes close to the VORTAC.
B) High altitudes close to the VORTAC.
C) Low altitudes far from the VORTAC.
170. PLT354 ATP

If the missed approach is not activated, the GPS receiver will display
A) an extension of the inbound final approach course.
B) an extension of the outbound final approach course.
C) an extension of the outbound final approach course, and the ATD will increase from the MAWP.
171. PLT354 ATP

If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach,
the pilot should
172. PLT354 ATP

A) RNAV equipped.
173. PLT354 ATP

What does "UNREL" indicate in the following GPS and WAAS NOTAM :BOS BOS WAAS LPV AND
LNAV/VNAV MNM UNREL WEF 0305231700 - 0305231815?
A) Satellite signals are currently unavailable to support LPV and LNAV/VNAV approaches to the Boston
airport.
B) The predicted level of service, within the time parameters of the NOTAM, may not support LPV
approaches.
C) The predicted level of service, within the time parameters of the NOTAM, will not support
LNAV/VNAV and MLS approaches.
174. PLT354 ATP

"Unreliable", as indicated in the following GPS NOTAMS: SFO 12/051 SFO WAAS LNAV/VNAV AND
LPV MNM UNRELBL WEF0512182025-0512182049 means
A) within the time parameters of the NOTAM, the predicted level of service will not support LPV
approaches.
B) satellite signals are currently unavailable to support LPV and LNAV/VNAV approaches.
C) within the time parameters of the NOTAM, the predicted level of service will not support RNAV and
MLS approaches.
175. PLT354 ATP

Pilots are not authorized to fly a published RNAV or RNP procedure unless it is retrievable by the
procedure name from
A) the aircraft navigation database, or manually loaded with each individual waypoint in the correct
sequence.
B) the aircraft navigation database, or manually loaded with each individual waypoint and verified by
the pilot(s).
C) the aircraft navigation database.
176. PLT354 ATP

You arrive at the initial fix for the LPV approach into XYZ. The preflight briefer issued you an unreliable
advisory on the approach before you took off. Your avionics indicates good signals and full GPS service
is available. You
A) know you can fly the approach down to LPV minimums.
B) cannot use that approach because of the advisory from FSS.
C) must revert to another approach system such as VOR.
177. PLT087 ATP

A) Direct only.
B) Parallel only.
C) Teardrop only.
178. PLT296 ATP

A) Teardrop only.
B) Direct only.
C) Parallel only.
179. PLT296 ATP

Civil aircraft holding at an altitude of 14,000 feet at a military or joint civil/military use airport should
expect to operate at which holding pattern airspeed?
A) 250 knots.
B) 230 knots.
C) 260 knots.
180. PLT355 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'D'
correspond?
A) 4.
B) 17.
C) 15.
181. PLT358 ATP

A) 108.10 to 111.95 MHz.
B) 108.10 to 118.10 MHz.
C) 108.10 to 117.95 MHz.
182. PLT277 ATP

183. PLT083 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 279, and appendix 1, legend 9.) What is the approximate rate of descent
required (for planning purposes) to maintain the electronic glide slope at 120 KIAS with a reported
headwind component of 15 knots?
A) 635 ft/min.
B) 650 ft/min.
C) 555 ft/min.
184. PLT083 ATP

When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver, at what point is the pilot expected to
commence this maneuver?
A) As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.
B) At the published DH.
C) At the MDA published or a circling approach.
185. PLT379 ATP

An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if
A) the airport has AWOS-3 weather reporting.
B) the airport is located next to a restricted or prohibited area.
C) the NAVAIDS used for the final approach are unmonitored.
186. PLT091 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 125.) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by
illustration 4?
A) 285°.
B) 235°.
C) 055°.
187. PLT091 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 125.) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is located on the 055°
radial of the station and heading away from the station?
A) 2.
B) 1.
C) 3.
188. PLT225 ATP

What is one limitation when filing a random RNAV route on an IFR flight plan?
A) The entire route must be within radar environment.
B) The waypoints may only be defined by degree-distance fixes based on appropriate navigational aids.
C) The waypoints must be located within 200 NM of each other.
189. PLT361 ATP
190. PLT090 ATP

Which indication may be received when a VOR is undergoing maintenance and is considered
unreliable?
191. PLT276 ATP

192. PLT506 ATP

The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the
accelerate-stop distance is
A) VEF.
B) V1.
C) V2.
193. PLT506 ATP

A) V C .
B) V A .
C) V S .
194. PLT395 ATP

What is the name of an area beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can
be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft?
A) Stopway.
C) Clearway.
195. PLT432 ATP

"Operational control" of a flight refers to
196. PLT395 ATP

An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of
providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an:
197. PLT388 ATP

Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane
with four reciprocating engines
C) may all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines.
198. PLT380 ATP

The minimum weather conditions that must exist for an airport to be listed as an alternate in the
dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight are
A) those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, from 1 hours before or after the ETA for
that flight.
B) those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, at the time the flight is expected to
arrive.
C) those specified in the certificate holder's Operations Specifications for that airport, when the flight
arrives.
199. PLT385 ATP

What restrictions must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment of
an airplane operated under FAR Part 121?
A) All cargo must be separated from the passengers by a partition capable of withstanding certain load
stresses.
B) Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having
enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting.
C) All cargo must be carried in a suitable flame resistant bin and the bin must be secured to the floor
structure of the airplane.
200. PLT390 ATP

Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal
conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?
B) Any FSS.
C) ARINC.
201. PLT405 ATP

202. PLT444 ATP

203. PLT323 ATP

204. PLT436 ATP

Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the
event of an emergency?
A) Airplane Flight Manual.
B) Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook.
C) Certificate holder's manual.
205. PLT422 ATP

A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before
a redispatch release is required?
206. PLT398 ATP

By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane
information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services?
A) Air route traffic control center.
B) The aircraft dispatcher.
C) Director of operations.
207. PLT210 ATP

If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet
airplane, the pilot in command
A) may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest
suitable airport.
C) must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made.
208. PLT403 ATP

An aircraft dispatcher declares an emergency for a flight and a deviation results. A written report shall
be sent through the air carriers operations manager by the
209. PLT403 ATP

When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit
a written report within
210. PLT404 ATP

Which emergency equipment is required for a flag air carrier flight between John F. Kennedy
International Airport and London, England?
A) A self-buoyant, water resistant, portable survival-type emergency locator transmitter for each
required liferaft.
B) A life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light or other flotation device for the full
seating capacity of the airplane.
211. PLT404 ATP

For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must
carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for
212. PLT404 ATP

An airplane operated by a supplemental air carrier flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which
emergency equipment?
213. PLT408 ATP

Which factor determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required for flight under FAR
Part 121?
214. PLT436 ATP

If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates
whether the flight may continue en route?
215. PLT029 ATP

Below what altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight
crewmembers prohibited?
A) FL 180.
B) 14,500 feet.
C) 10,000 feet.
216. PLT373 ATP

Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in FAR Part 121 operations?
217. PLT368 ATP

218. PLT459 ATP

If there is a required emergency exit located in the flightcrew compartment, the door which separates
the compartment from the passenger cabin must be
A) unlocked during takeoff and landing.
B) latched open during takeoff and landing.
C) locked at all times, except during any emergency declared by the pilot in command.
219. PLT412 ATP

The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators
that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the
220. PLT409 ATP

How does deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty assignment, affect the computation of flight
time limits for air carrier flight crewmembers? It is
221. PLT409 ATP

A flag air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, having two pilots and one additional flight
crewmember, for no more than
222. PLT409 ATP

The maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier pilot may fly, as a crewmember, in a
commercial operation, in any 30 consecutive days is
A) 120 hours.
B) 300 hours.
C) 100 hours.
223. PLT443 ATP

224. PLT493 ATP

225. PLT443 ATP

When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does
this affect the minimums for the destination airport?
226. PLT407 ATP

Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in
command has
A) logged 100 hours' flight time in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category
II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the
sixth preceding month.
B) logged 90 hours' flight time, 10 takeoffs and landings in make and model airplane and three
Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning
of the sixth preceding month, in operations under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121.
C) made at least six Category II approaches in actual IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the
preceding 12 calendar months.
227. PLT442 ATP

What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of
experience?
B) At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate
holder.
228. PLT465 ATP

229. PLT438 ATP

230. PLT438 ATP

The supplemental oxygen requirements for passengers when a flight is operated at FL 250 is
dependent upon the airplane's ability to make an emergency descent to a flight altitude of
231. PLT438 ATP

For flights above which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire
flight at those altitudes?
A) 14,000 feet.
B) 16,000 feet.
C) 15,000 feet.
232. PLT034 ATP

For which of these aircraft is the 'clearway' for a particular runway considered in computing takeoff
weight limitations?
C) Those passenger-carrying transport aircraft certificated between August 26, 1957 and August 30,
1959.
233. PLT396 ATP

If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is
the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport?
234. PLT459 ATP

The minimum weather conditions that must exist for a domestic air carrier flight to take off from an
airport that is not listed in the Air Carrier's Operations Specifications (takeoff minimums are not
prescribed for that airport.) is
A) 1,000 - 1, 900 - 11/4, or 800 - 2.
B) 1,000 - 1, 900 - 11/2, or 800 - 2.
C) 800 - 2, 1,100 - 1, or 900 - 11/2.
235. PLT449 ATP

If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 2010 and the required
annual recurrent flight check in January 2012, the latter check is considered to have been taken in
A) January 2011.
B) November 2010.
C) December 2011.
236. PLT449 ATP

237. PLT442 ATP

What are the line check requirements for a domestic air carrier pilot in command under 60 years of
age?
A) The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports.
B) The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown.
238. PLT407 ATP

How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial
training? Once every
239. PLT398 ATP

For flight planning, a Designated ETOPS Alternate Airport
A) for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO Category 3,
unless the airport`s RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes.
B) for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO Category 4,
C) for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO Category 4,
240. PLT404 ATP
241. PLT462 ATP

Where should the portable battery-powered megaphone be located if only one is required on a
passenger-carrying airplane?
242. PLT404 ATP

If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to have an automatic deploying escape slide system,
when must this system be armed?
A) During taxi, takeoff, landing, and after ditching.
B) Only for takeoff and landing.
C) For taxi, takeoff, and landing.
243. PLT438 ATP

What is the minimum number of acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occupants
who might require undiluted oxygen for physiological reasons?
A) Four.
B) Two.
C) Three.
244. PLT322 ATP

When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on 'victor airways,' which navigation
equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?
A) VOR and DME.
B) VOR.
C) ADF.
245. PLT429 ATP

246. PLT322 ATP

A) The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of one other independent navigation
system, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane
radio system.
B) The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios anywhere
along the route with 150% of the forecast headwinds.
C) The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport
and land anywhere along the route with 150% of the forecast headwinds.
247. PLT279 ATP

Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual Inertial Navigation
System (INS) on a proposed flight?
248. PLT404 ATP

Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior emergency lights, on aircraft having a passenger
seating configuration of 20 to
249. PLT462 ATP

The crewmember interphone system on a large turbojet- powered airplane provides a means of two-
way communications between ground personnel and at least one of two flight crewmembers in the pilot
compartment, when the aircraft is on the ground.
The interphone station for use by ground personnel must be located so that those using the system
from that station
250. PLT011 ATP

When computing the takeoff data for reciprocating powered airplanes, what is the percentage of the
reported headwind component that may be applied to the `still air` data?
251. PLT442 ATP

What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a
Category II authorization?
A) Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to
the Category I or Category II DH.
B) Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH
by use of an approach coupler.
C) Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH.
252. PLT447 ATP

When a facsimile replacement is received for an airman`s medical certificate, for what maximum time is
this document valid?
A) 30 days.
B) 90 days.
C) 60 days.
253. PLT463 ATP

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the
FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
254. PLT409 ATP

In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an
airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service?
A) 6 hours.
B) 10 hours.
C) 8 hours.
255. PLT427 ATP

An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved
flight simulator, is
256. PLT443 ATP

A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the
Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes?
B) ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737.
257. PLT040 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 127.) Which altitude is appropriate for circle 6 (top of Class G airspace)?
258. PLT040 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 126.) What is the usual radius from the airport of the inner circle (now
called surface area), C?
A) 5 miles.
B) 10 miles.
C) 7 miles.
259. PLT405 ATP

An approved minimum equipment list or FAA Letter of Authorization allows certain instruments or
equipment
C) to be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base without further
documentation from the operator or FAA with passengers on board.
260. PLT429 ATP

261. PLT508 ATP

What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR system
when checking one VOR against the other?
262. PLT161 ATP

The maximum indicated airspeed that an aircraft may be flown in Class B airspace, after departing the
primary airport, while at 1,700 feet AGL and 3.5 nautical miles from the airport is
A) 250 knots.
B) 200 knots.
C) 230 knots.
263. PLT163 ATP

What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at
9,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?
264. PLT393 ATP

Which publication includes information on operations in the North Atlantic (NAT) Minimum Navigation
Performance Specifications Airspace?
A) 14 CFR Part 91.
B) 14 CFR Part 121.
C) ICAO Annex 1, Chapter 2.
265. PLT161 ATP

At what minimum altitude is a turbine- engine-powered, or large airplane, required to enter Class D
airspace?
A) 2,000 feet AGL.
B) 2,500 feet AGL.
C) 1,500 feet AGL.
266. PLT383 ATP

During an emergency, a pilot in command does not deviate from a 14 CFR rule but is given priority by
ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot required to submit a written report?
267. PLT406 ATP

C) Squawk 7600.
268. PLT147 ATP

A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered airplane on a runway served by a VASI shall
A) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
269. PLT277 ATP

270. PLT420 ATP

What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when
that RVR value is not reported?
A) 1/4 SM.
B) 3/8 SM.
C) 3/4 SM.
271. PLT420 ATP

Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC,
glideslope, marker beacons, and approach lights?
A) Radar, VOR, ADF, taxiway lead-off lights and RVR.
B) All of the required ground components.
C) RCLS and REIL.
272. PLT420 ATP
In addition to the localizer, glideslope, marker beacons, approach lighting, and HIRL, which ground
components are required to be operative for a Category II instrument approach to a DH below 150 feet
AGL?
A) Radar, VOR, ADF, runway exit lights, and RVR.
B) RCLS and REIL.
C) Each required ground component.
273. PLT420 ATP

When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach?
A) At the DA/DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible, or anytime
thereafter that visual reference is lost.
B) When the time has expired after reaching the DA/DH and the runway environment is not clearly
visible.
C) At the DA/DH when the runway is not clearly visible.
274. PLT420 ATP

The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum ground
visibility may be substituted for the RVR value?
A) 3/4 SM.
B) 5/8 SM.
C) 7/8 SM.
275. PLT420 ATP

Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach
light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway?
A) Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the approach light system
can be seen.
B) The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet
above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable.
C) Under no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual reference for descent
below DH or MDA.
276. PLT391 ATP

While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should
be flown in the absence of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further
clearance?
277. PLT463 ATP

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed
by that person within the preceding
A) 12 hours.
B) 24 hours.
C) 8 hours.
278. PLT388 ATP

A) Identifying procedures that may have been conducive to any accident, or occurrence resulting in
investigation under NTSB Part 830.
279. PLT367 ATP

Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large,
three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine?
A) The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR.
B) No passengers may be carried.
C) The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway
length.
280. PLT462 ATP

281. PLT425 ATP

Before an ETOPS flight may commence, an ETOPS
A) preflight check must be conducted by a certified A&P and signed off in the logbook.
B) pre-departure service check must be certified by a PDSC Signatory Person.
C) pre-departure check must be signed off by an A&P or the PIC for the flight.
282. PLT385 ATP

A) All carry-on baggage must be restrained so that its movement is prevented during air turbulence.
B) Pieces of carry-on baggage weighing more than 10 pounds must be carried in an approved rack or
bin.
283. PLT407 ATP

The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to
crewmembers serving on pressurized airplanes operated above
A) FL 250.
B) FL 180.
C) FL 200.
284. PLT366 ATP

What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a
'serious injury'?
285. PLT076 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 149.) What will be the wind and temperature trend for an SAT ELP TUS
flight at 16,000 feet?
286. PLT061 ATP

KFTW UA/OV DFW/TM 1645/FL100/TP PA30/SK SCT031-TOP043/BKN060-TOP085/OVC097-
TOPUNKN/WX FV00SM RA/TA 07.
287. PLT042 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 153, 154, and 155.) Interpret the path of the jetstream.
A) Southern California, Nevada, Utah, Nebraska/Kansas, and then southeastward.
B) The Alaska area, across Canada to Montana, South Dakota, then across the Great Lakes area.
C) Oregon, Idaho, Wyoming, Nebraska, Iowa, and across the Great Lakes.
288. PLT063 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 152.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow
B on the Radar Summary Chart?
289. PLT121 ATP

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of
96.1 X 133.3 inches?
Floor load limit 249 lb/sq ft
Pallet weight 347 lb
Tiedown devices 134 lb
A) 21,669.8 pounds.
B) 22,120.8 pounds.
C) 21,803.8 pounds.
290. PLT021 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 77, 79, and 80.) What is the gross weight index for Loading Conditions
WT-6?
A) 181,340.5 index.
B) 165,991.5 index.
C) 156,545.0 index.
291. PLT021 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 44.) What is the new CG if the weight is removed from the forward
compartment under Loading Conditions WS 1?
292. PLT240 ATP

293. PLT240 ATP

An airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit will
A) fly more efficiently.
B) be very unbalanced in lateral control forces.
C) feel heavy in the longitudinal axis.
294. PLT501 ATP

295. PLT501 ATP

What action is recommended when encountering turbulence due to a wind shift associated with a sharp
pressure trough?
A) Establish a straight course across the storm area.
B) Increase speed to get out of the trough as soon as possible.
C) Climb or descend to a smoother level.
296. PLT317 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 144.) How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst
encounter?
A) Performance increasing with a tailwind and updraft.
B) Performance decreasing with a headwind and downdraft.
C) Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft.
297. PLT509 ATP
298. PLT094 ATP

299. PLT224 ATP

Under what condition may a pilot file an IFR flight plan containing a special or privately owned IAP?
300. PLT225 ATP

To assure expeditious handling of a civilian air ambulance flight, the word 'LIFEGUARD' should be
entered in which section of the flight plan?
B) Remarks block.
301. PLT004 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 15 and 18.) What are the time, fuel, and distance from the start of climb to
cruise altitude for Operating Conditions BE-24?
302. PLT065 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 19 and 20.) Which statement is true regarding performance with one
engine inoperative for Operating Conditions BE-27?
303. PLT012 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 21, 22, 23, 24, and 25.) What is the en route time of the cruise leg for
304. PLT004 ATP
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 26.) What are the time and distance to descend from 18,000 feet to 2,500
feet?
305. PLT008 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 27 and 28.) What is the landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle for
Operating Conditions B-36?
A) 1,625 feet.
B) 1,900 feet.
C) 950 feet.
306. PLT011 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 12.) Given the following conditions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff?
Ice vanes Retracted
307. PLT011 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 14.) Given the following conditions, what is the accelerate-stop field length?
Weight 16,600 lb
Wind component 15 kts HW
Ice vanes Retracted
A) 4,950 feet.
B) 5,300 feet.
C) 4,800 feet.
308. PLT009 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 36.) Given the following conditions, what is the maximum allowable
measured gas temperature (MGT) during the power assurance check?
Engine torque 57 percent
A) 815 °C.
B) 810 °C.
C) 828 °C.
309. PLT015 ATP
Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight
reduces?
310. PLT223 ATP

A) None.
311. PLT049 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 301.) During the approach (ILS RWY 10 at SYR) while maintaining an on
glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 110 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent for
PTZ 70?
312. PLT108 ATP

A pretakeoff contamination check for snow, ice or frost is required by 14 CFR Part 135. This check is
required to
A) be completed within 5 minutes prior to beginning the taxi to the runway.
C) see that the aircraft is clean; therefore, a safe takeoff can be made during the next 5 minutes.
313. PLT404 ATP

An airplane, operated by a commuter air carrier, flying in extended overwater operations must carry
enough approved liferafts of a rated capacity and buoyancy to accommodate the occupants of the
aircraft. Each liferaft must be equipped with
314. PLT405 ATP

No person may operate an aircraft under 14 CFR part 135, carrying passengers under VFR at night,
unless
A) it is equipped with a flashlight having at least two size 'D' cell or the equivalent.
B) each flight crewmember has a flashlight having at least two size 'D' batteries or the equivalent.
C) each crewmember has a flashlight having at least two size 'D' cells and a spare bulb.
315. PLT438 ATP

Above which altitude/flight level must at least one of the two pilots, at the controls of a pressurized
aircraft (with quick-donning masks) wear a secured and sealed oxygen mask?
A) FL 300.
B) FL 250.
C) FL 350.
316. PLT282 ATP

If previous arrangements have not been made by the operator, where can the procedures for servicing
the aircraft be found?
317. PLT139 ATP

In which airplanes is a Class A TAWS warning system required?
A) Turbine-powered aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, including any pilot seat, of 10
seats or more.
B) Turbine-powered airplanes having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10
seats or more.
C) All airplanes having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more.
318. PLT464 ATP

C) All airplanes used in commuter air service, having a passenger seating configuration of 9, excluding
any pilot seat.
319. PLT437 ATP

Which is a requirement for life preservers during extended overwater operations? Each life preserver
must be equipped with
B) a dye marker.
320. PLT438 ATP

A pressurized airplane being operated at FL 330 can descend safely to 15,000 feet MSL in 3.5 minutes.
What oxygen supply must be carried for all occupants other than the pilots?
A) 60 minutes.
B) 30 minutes.
C) 45 minutes.
321. PLT405 ATP

During which time period must a required voice recorder of a passenger-carrying airplane be
continuously operated?
B) From the use of the checklist before the flight to completion of the final check at the end of the flight.
322. PLT405 ATP

An approved cockpit voice recorder is required equipment in
A) multiengine, turbine-powered airplanes having a passenger seating configuration of 20 or more
seats.
B) all aircraft operated in commuter air carrier service having a passenger seating configuration of 20
seats or more.
C) large turbine-powered airplanes having a maximum passenger capacity of 20 or more seats.
323. PLT462 ATP

Which aircraft must be equipped with an approved public address and crewmember interphone
system?
C) Aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of more than 19 seats.
324. PLT454 ATP

The weight and CG of an aircraft used in 135 operations must have been calculated from those values
established by actual weighing of the aircraft within what period of time?
325. PLT404 ATP

When a crash ax is required equipment on an aircraft, where should it be located?
A) At a location accessible to both the crew and passengers during normal operations.
B) In the flight crew compartment.
C) At a location inaccessible to the passengers during normal operations.
326. PLT404 ATP

How many, if any, approved first aid kits are required on an aircraft having a passenger seating
configuration of 20 seats and a passenger load of 14?
A) Two.
B) One.
C) None.
327. PLT469 ATP

Airborne weather radar equipment must be installed in large transport category aircraft, in the
conterminous 48 United States,
328. PLT385 ATP
Which restriction must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment?
C) All cargo must be carried in a suitable bin and secured to a passenger seat or the floor structure of
the aircraft.
329. PLT385 ATP

A) in such a manner that at least one emergency or regular exit is available to all crewmembers, if an
emergency occurs.
330. PLT443 ATP

A) 12 seats.
B) 15 seats.
C) 10 seats.
331. PLT442 ATP

A pilot, acting as second in command under 14 CFR 135, successfully completes the instrument
competency check specified in FAR Part 61. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR
flights are made?
A) 6 months.
B) 90 days.
C) 12 months.
332. PLT444 ATP

The pilot in command may deviate from 14 CFR Part 135 during an emergency involving the safety of
persons or property only
333. PLT409 ATP

What is the maximum number of hours that a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days as a pilot in
commercial flying and as a pilot for a commuter air carrier?
A) 34 hours.
B) 35 hours.
C) 32 hours.
334. PLT392 ATP

An aircraft being operated outside of the United States, over a foreign country, by a 14 CFR part 135
operator must comply with
335. PLT282 ATP

Which condition must be met to conduct IFR operations from an airport that is not at the location where
weather observations are made?
B) An 'Authorization Letter' permitting the procedure must be issued by the FAA district office charged
with the overall inspection of the certificate holder..
C) A 'Letter of Waiver' authorizing the procedure must be issued by the Administrator, after an
investigation by the U.S. National Weather Service and the FSDO which find the standard of safety to
be satisfactory.
336. PLT223 ATP

What performance is required of a multiengine airplane with the critical engine inoperative, while
carrying passengers for hire in IFR weather conditions?
A) Climb at least 100 ft/min at the highest MEA of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL, whichever is
higher.
B) Climb at least 50 ft/min at the MEA's of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL, whichever is higher.
C) Climb at least 50 ft/min at the MEA's of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet AGL, whichever is higher.
337. PLT437 ATP

Which performance requirement applies to passenger-carrying land airplanes being operated over
water?
A) Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with the critical engine inoperative, at least 100 ft/min at
1,000 feet above the surface.
B) Single-engine airplanes must be operated at an altitude that will allow them to reach land in case of
engine failure.
C) Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with the critical engine inoperative, at least 50 ft/min at
1,500 feet above the surface.
338. PLT442 ATP

A) within the past 12 months, which include a portion of a civil airway and one instrument approach at
one representative airport, in one of the types of aircraft which that pilot is to fly.
B) since the beginning of the 12th month before that service, which included at least one flight over a
civil airway, or approved off-airway route, or any portion of either, in one type of aircraft which that pilot
is to fly.
C) consisting of a flight over the route to be flown, with at least three instrument approaches at
representative airports, within the past 12 calendar months, in one type of aircraft which that pilot is to
fly.
339. PLT449 ATP

A pilot in command who is authorized to use an autopilot system, in place of a second in command,
may take the autopilot check
340. PLT029 ATP

With regard to flight crewmember duties, which operations are considered to be in the 'critical phase of
flight'?
B) All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below
10,000 feet, excluding cruise flight.
C) All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below
10,000 feet MSL, including cruise flight.
341. PLT443 ATP

A flight attendant crewmember is required on aircraft having a passenger seating configuration,
excluding any pilot seat, of
A) 19 or more.
B) 20 or more.
C) 15 or more.
342. PLT384 ATP

Before each takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers shall ensure that all
passengers have been orally briefed on the
343. PLT444 ATP

Which person, other than the second in command, may the pilot in command permit to manipulate the
flight controls?
A) A pilot employed by an engineering firm who is authorized by the certificate holder to conduct flight
tests.
B) A member of the National Transportation Safety Board who holds a pilot certificate appropriate for
the aircraft.
C) An authorized FAA safety representative who is qualified in the aircraft, and is checking flight
operations.
344. PLT436 ATP

Who may be allowed to carry a deadly weapon on board an aircraft operated under FAR Part 135?
345. PLT407 ATP

A commuter air carrier certificate holder plans to assign a pilot as pilot in command of an aircraft having
eight passenger seats to be used in passenger-carrying operations. Which experience requirement
must that pilot meet if the aircraft is to be flown with an operative approved autopilot and no second in
command?
346. PLT464 ATP

When is a pilot not required to keep the shoulder harness fastened during takeoff and landing while at a
pilot station?
A) When the pilot cannot perform the required duties with the shoulder harness fastened.
B) When serving as pilot in command or second in command of an aircraft having a total seating
capacity of eight seats or less.
C) When operating an aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10
seats or less.
347. PLT375 ATP

What document contains procedures that explain how the required return-to-service conditions have
been met?
348. PLT400 ATP

Where must a certificate holder keep copies of completed load manifests and for what period of time?
A) 30 days, at the flight's destination.
B) 1 month at its principal operations base, or at a location approved by the Administrator.
C) 30 days at its principal operations base, or another location used by it and approved by the
Administrator.
349. PLT400 ATP

350. PLT493 ATP

A) If snow, ice, or frost is adhering to the airplane's lift or control surfaces, but polished smooth, a
takeoff may be made.
B) A takeoff may be made with ice, snow, or frost adhering to the wings or stabilizing or control
surfaces, but polished smooth, if the anti-icing and deicing equipment is operating.
C) A takeoff may not be made if ice or snow is adhering to the wings or stabilizing or control surfaces.
351. PLT413 ATP

If the weather forecasts do not require the listing of an alternate airport on an IFR flight, the airplane
must carry sufficient fuel to fly to the destination airport and
B) make one missed approach and thereafter have a 45-minute reserve at normal cruising speed.
352. PLT459 ATP

No person may takeoff an aircraft under IFR from an airport that has takeoff weather minimums but that
is below landing minimums unless there is an alternate airport within
353. PLT407 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 168 and 301.) The PIC (single pilot 135 with A/P) of PTZ 70 has less than
100 hours of PIC time in the BE 1900. Due to BUF weather being 100 feet, 1/4 mile in blowing snow,
which is below landing minimums, the PIC requested and received clearance to SYR, the filed
alternate.
Under Part 135 what are the PIC`s minimums at SYR for the ILS RWY 10?
A) 800/2.
B) 719/42.
C) 619/50.
354. PLT379 ATP

Assuming the required ceiling exists, an alternate for the destination airport is not required under 14
CFR part 135 if, for at least 1 hour before and after the ETA, the forecast visibility is
A) 3 statute miles, or 2 statute miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the
instrument approach procedure to be used, whichever is greater.
B) 5 statute miles, or 3 nautical miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the
instrument approach procedure to be used, whichever is greater.
C) 3 nautical miles, or 2 nautical miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the
approach procedure to be used, which ever is greater.
355. PLT463 ATP

An employee who performs safety-sensitive functions, for a certificate holder, who has actual
knowledge of an accident involving an aircraft for which he or she performed a safety-sensitive function
at or near the time of the accident shall not use alcohol
356. PLT442 ATP

No person may serve, as second in command of an aircraft (under part 135), unless they hold a
commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate category, class rating and an instrument rating. For
flight under IFR, that person must have accomplished within the last 6 months, the recent instrument
requirements of
A) holding procedures, using the navigation systems for intercepting and tracking courses, and 6
instrument approaches.
B) using the navigation systems for interception and tracking of courses, 6 instrument low approaches
and holding.
C) using the navigation systems to intercept and track 3 inbound/3outbound courses, 6 holding patterns
and 6 instrument approaches.
357. PLT443 ATP

What are the minimum certificate and rating requirements for the pilot in command of a multiengine
airplane being operated by a commuter air carrier?
C) Commercial pilot; airplane category; multiengine class; instrument rating; airplane type rating, if
required.
358. PLT456 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 1.) What is the maximum landing distance that may be used by a
turbopropeller-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 24 (dry) at the alternate
airport?
A) 6,150 feet.
B) 5,490 feet.
C) 9,150 feet.
359. PLT456 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 1.) What is the maximum landing distance that may be used by a turbine-
engine-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 6 (wet) at the destination airport?
A) 9,100 feet.
B) 6,279 feet.
C) 5,460 feet.
360. PLT282 ATP

If a certificate holder makes arrangements for another person to perform aircraft maintenance, that
maintenance shall be performed in accordance with the
A) provisions of a contract prepared by a certificate holder and approved by the supervising FAA district
office.
361. PLT409 ATP

What instrument flight time may be logged by a second in command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?
B) All of the time the second in command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight
instruments.
362. PLT373 ATP

No person may operate a U.S. registered civil aircraft
A) for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved
operator`s manual available.
B) for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved
AFM or RFM available.
C) for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved
AFM or RFM available or the manual specified in part 135 section 135.19(b).
363. PLT391 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 168, 169, and 169A.) What action should be taken by the pilot if
communications are lost after departure from RWY 16 at PWK if VMC?
A) Start right turn within 1 mile of the departure end of RWY, remain east of ORD VOR/DME R-345,
and maintain 3,000 feet; 3 minutes after departure, turn direct to PMM, and climb to FL 190.
364. PLT059 ATP

365. PLT021 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG in inches from datum under
Loading Conditions BE-1?
A) Station 290.3.
B) Station 291.8.
C) Station 285.8.
366. PLT021 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG shift if the passengers in row 1 are
moved to seats in row 9 under Loading Conditions BE-1?
A) 6.2 inches aft.
B) 1.5 inches aft.
C) 5.6 inches aft.
367. PLT341 ATP

What corrective action(s) can a pilot take to recover from settling with power?
368. PLT472 ATP

369. PLT470 ATP

370. PLT472 ATP

B) High frequency.
C) Low frequency.
371. PLT470 ATP

372. PLT522 ATP

How should the pilot execute a pinnacle-type approach to a rooftop heliport in conditions of high wind
and turbulence?
373. PLT237 ATP

374. PLT310 ATP

What is the ratio between the total load supported by the rotor disc and the gross weight of a helicopter
in flight?
A) Load factor.
B) Aspect ratio.
C) Power loading.
375. PLT434 ATP

376. PLT004 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 41.) Given the following, what is the single-engine climb or descent
performance?
377. PLT048 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 37.) What is the maximum gross weight for hovering in ground effect at
3,000 feet pressure altitude and +25 °C?
A) 16,600 pounds.
B) 17,300 pounds.
C) 14,700 pounds.
378. PLT008 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 43.) What is the single-engine landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle?
A) 1,000 feet.
B) 850 feet.
C) 900 feet.
379. PLT011 ATP

Pressure altitude -1,000 ft
A) 1,000 feet.
B) 950 feet.
C) 900 feet.
380. PLT012 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 184, 186, 187, 188, and 188A.) What is the minimum fuel required under
14 CFR part 135 for this IMC helicopter flight from LAS to PVU? The visibility is forecast to be 1.5 SM
over the entire route.
A) 1,304 pounds.
B) 1,224 pounds.
C) 985 pounds.
381. PLT012 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 197, 199, and 200.) What is the ETE for the IFR helicopter flight from
Eagle County Regional to Salt Lake City Intl? (PUC to FFU should read "14000" for altitude. Use PUC
magnetic variation for entire problem.)
382. PLT354 ATP

You are cleared to LXV (Figure 253) in your helicopter and expect to be given the GPS RWY 16
approach. Your helicopter is equipped with an IFR certified WAAS GPS. Your approach minimums will
be
A) 11,360` MDA and 3/4 mi.
B) 11,360` MDA and 1 1/4 mi.
C) 11,360` MDA and 6,600 RVR, or 1 1/2 mi.
383. PLT356 ATP

Which of the following are required for a helicopter ILS approach with a decision height lower than 200
feet HAT?
A) Special aircrew training and aircraft certification.
B) Both a marker beacon and a radio altimeter.
C) ATP helicopter certificate and CAT II certification.
384. PLT382 ATP

Obstacles in most areas where `Copter GPS` instrument approaches are needed, require the approach
speed must be limited to
A) 70 knots on final and missed approach segments.
B) 60 knots on all segments except the missed approach.
C) 80 knots on initial and final segments.
385. PLT409 ATP

What minimum rest period must be provided for a pilot assigned to Helicopter Hospital Emergency
Medical Evacuation Service (HEMES) who has been on duty for a 47-hour period?
386. PLT405 ATP

In addition to a two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC on appropriate frequencies, which
equipment is the helicopter required to have to operate within Class B airspace? (Letter of agreement
not applicable.)
387. PLT430 ATP

Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained by a
helicopter during an off-airways IFR flight over non-mountainous terrain?
388. PLT459 ATP

According to FAR Part 91, when takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a civil airport, what are the
takeoff minimums under IFR for a multiengine helicopter?
A) 1 SM visibility.
B) 1200 RVR.
389. PLT021 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 29, 31, 32, and 33.) Where is the longitudinal CG located under Operating
Conditions BL-5?
A) Station 232.0.
B) Station 234.9.
C) Station 235.4.
390. PLT021 ATP

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 30, 32, 33, and 35.) What limit, if any, is exceeded under Loading
Conditions BL-10?
8/10/2021
ATM - Airline Transport Pilot Multiengine Airplane
The following sample questions for Airline Transport Pilot Multiengine Class rating (121)
(ATM) are suitable study material for the ATP airplane multiengine certificate tests. The
full ATM test is 125 questions and a variable number of validation (non-credit)
questions interspersed throughout the test. Answer all of the questions to the best of
your ability. Please note that the ATP (ATM), the Airline Transport Pilot Single Engine
(ATS), and Aircraft Dispatcher (ADX) tests share many questions. The Application
Identification, Information Verification and Authorization Requirements Matrix lists all
FAA exams. It is available at
www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/media/testing_matrix.pdf
The FAA testing system is supported by a series of supplement publications. These

publications include the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed to successfully
respond to certain test questions. FAA-CT-8080-7D, Airman Knowledge Testing
Supplement for Airline Transport Pilot and Aircraft Dispatcher is available at
www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/supplements/media/atp_akts.pdf
The questions presented here have an associated Airman Certification Standards (ACS)
code. The ACS Codes link the individual question to a Task Element within the Airline
Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Airplane (ATP-ACS) document. The ATP ACS is
available at
www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/acs/media/atp_acs.pdf
The online Airline Transport Pilot Multiengine Airplane (ATM) practice test is available on
the PSI website at
https://faa.psiexams.com/FAA/login
NOTE: Some questions in the PSI Practice Test may contain the reference "Refer to
FAA-CT-8080 . ." You may access the referred to supplement by opening the following
link in a separate window while taking the test.
www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/supplements/media/atp_akts.pdf
1
1. As required by Part 121, an airport may be listed as an alternate in the flight release
only if the weather forecast indicates that conditions will be at or above the
A. alternate weather minima specified in the operation specifications at the time of

arrival.
B. lowest available IAP minima at the time of arrival.
C. lowest available IAP minima for 1 hour before to 1 hour after the time of arrival.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.G.K4
2. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 144.) On final approach to the airport,

airplane in position #5 would experience
A. decreased ground speed.

B. downdraft.
C. poor performance.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.C.K3h
3. What effect does extending leading edge slats have on an airplane's wing?
A. Increases the pitch up moment of an airfoil.

B. Increases the camber and CL-MAX.
C. Allows for earlier airflow separation.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.A.K12
4. A Runway Status Light (RWSL) System at an airport
A. relies on ASDE-X/Airport Surface Surveillance Capability (ASSC).

B. allows ATC to override any RWSL false indications.
C. does not require pilots to tell ATC when executing a go-around.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.II.C.K3
2
5. Under what conditions might a pilot expect the possibility of hydroplaning?
A. When landing on a wet runway that is covered in rubber from previous landings.
B. When departing a grooved runway with less than a thousandth of an inch of
water.
C. When the adiabatic lapse rate is high, and steam is rising from the landing
surface.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.III.B.R1
6. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 131.) What is the runway distance

remaining at "C" for a takeoff on Runway 9?
A. 1,000 feet.
B. 1,800 feet.
C. 1,500 feet.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.III.A.K4
7. Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?
A. Visual acuity.
B. Decreased breathing rate.
C. Tingling sensations.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.F.K1b
8. Altitude-induced hypoxia is caused by what atmospheric condition?
A. Significantly less oxygen molecules at high altitude.

B. Insufficient partial pressure of the inhaled oxygen.
C. Incorrect balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.F.K1a
9. When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot
observe during turns in a holding pattern?
A. 3° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less.

B. 1-1/2° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less.
C. 3° per second or 30° bank, whichever is less.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.VI.J.K1
3
10. How does an increase in an aircraft's weight affect its climb performance?
A. The aircraft will climb at a lower angle of attack, which allows for a higher TAS
and higher rate of climb.
B. Both parasite and induced drag are increased, which will lower the reserve
thrust available to climb.
C. A higher aircraft weight requires that the aircraft is configured for climb earlier in
the departure which allows a greater climb gradient.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.B.K2c
11. What is the absolute ceiling of an airplane?
A. The point where the minimum rate of climb becomes lower than the optimum
L/DMAX speed.
B. The altitude at which the aircraft is unable to climb at more than 100 feet per
minute.
C. When the maximum rate of climb and the maximum angle of climb speeds
converge.
12. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 273.) The touchdown zone elevation
for the ILS RWY 25L approach at Phoenix Sky Harbor International airport is
A. 1,126 feet.
B. 1,135 feet.
C. 1,326 feet.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.VI.E.K1
13. In a turbojet aircraft, when is braking performance optimized during landing?
A. Before the nose wheel touches down.

B. Wheel spin-up at touchdown.
C. Maximum weight on main wheels.
4
14. When ATC assigns a speed adjustment to an aircraft operating at FL 270, it will be at
a speed not less than
A. 250 knots.
B. 210 knots.
C. 200 knots.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.VI.C.K3
15. You are in IMC and descending below 1,000 feet above the TDZE on a straight-in
instrument approach in a turbojet. The approach is considered stabilized when the
airplane is
A. fully configured and on the correct speed with a descent rate of less than 1,000
FPM.
B. fully configured with the engines spooled up and a descent rate of no more than
500 FPM.
C. at least partially configured and on the correct speed with a descent rate of no
more than 1,200 FPM.
16. To conduct an RNAV (GPS) approach to LPV minimums, the aircraft must be
furnished with
A. a GPS/WAAS receiver approved for an LPV approach by the AFM.

B. a GPS (TSO-C129) receiver certified for IFR operations.
C. an IFR approach-certified system with required navigation performance (RNP) of
0.5.
17. When is the pilot responsible to see and avoid other traffic, terrain, or obstacles?
A. ATC maintains responsibility if the pilot is operating under IFR.

B. When meteorological conditions permit, regardless of flight rules.
C. When they have accepted an instruction to "maintain visual separation."
5
18. How does the stall speed (KCAS) vary as you climb from sea level to 33,000 feet?
A. It varies directly with a change in altitude.

B. It remains relatively unchanged throughout the climb.
C. It varies indirectly with a change in altitude.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.V.B.K1
19. While on an ILS approach, what is the proper way to recover from an impending
stall?
A. Engage the autopilot.

B. Changing flap settings.
C. Reducing the angle of attack.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.V.C.K5
20. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figures 241 and 242.) You land on Runway 12
at LGB and plan to exit the runway to the right on Taxiway J. What potential risk
should you be aware of on the airport diagram?
A. Convergence of taxiways D and J.

B. Convergence of taxiways C and J.
C. Convergence of runways 16R-34L and 07R-25L.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.II.C.K6
21. The crew monitoring function is essential,
A. particularly during high altitude cruise flight modes to prevent CAT issues.
B. particularly during approach and landing to prevent CFIT.
C. during RNAV departures in class B airspace.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.E.K12
22. One purpose of Crew Resource Management (CRM) is to give crews tools to
A. recognize and mitigate hazards.

B. maintain currency with regulations.
C. reduce the need for outside resources.
6
23. For passenger-carrying operations under 14 CFR part 121, which situation would be
considered part of the required rest period?
A. Deadheading to home base after the last scheduled flight.

B. Electing to fly as a passenger from home base after the flight duty period ends.
C. Training conducted in a flight simulator.
24. What is an advantage of a sweptback wing?
A. It allows shock wave induced flow separation.

B. The design delays the onset of compressibility.
C. The wings tend to stall at the wing root first.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.B.K4
25. When piloting a turbojet transport airplane, what is a possible result when operating
at speeds 5-10 percent above the critical Mach number?
A. Increased aerodynamic efficiency.

B. Decreased control surface effectiveness.
C. Occasional low speed Mach buffet warnings.
26. While operating a turbojet transport airplane at high altitude, which of the following is
most likely to cause a low speed Mach buffet?
A. Reducing the angle of attack after a high speed Mach buffet.
B. The airplane is flown too fast for its weight and altitude.
C. Tthe airplane is flown too slow for its weight and altitude.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.D.K9
27. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 473.) What is the maximum permissible
takeoff weight with an airfield altitude of 7,300 feet and an outside air temperature of
24 °C?
A. 65,000 pounds.
B. 62,400 pounds.
C. 63,800 pounds.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.B.K2b
7
28. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 478.) With a reported temperature of
5°C, and a weight of 57,000 pounds, an altitude of 5,355 feet, and a V1/VR ratio of 1.0,
the accelerate - stop distance is
A. 4,100 feet.
B. 4,900 feet.
C. 5,900 feet.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.B.K2a
29. According to 14 CFR part 121, what requirements must the second-in-command
possess?
A. ATP certificate with appropriate type rating.
B. ATP certificate with appropriate second-in-command type rating.
C. ATP certificate and third-class medical certificate.
30. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 149.) What is the forecasted wind
direction, speed, and temperature over ABI at 30,000 feet?
A. 240°, 108 knots, -33°C.

B. 240°, 8 knots, -33°C.
C. 240°, 8 knots, 33°C.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.C.K2
31. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 100, Area 8.) Where is the VOR
changeover point on V571 between Navasota (TNV) and Humble (IAH)?
A. 24 miles from IAH.

B. 18 miles from IAH.
C. Halfway between TNV and IAH.
32. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 293.) What is the distance from ASALT
intersection to the MAP?
A. 8.6 NM.
B. 2.6 NM.
C. 6 NM.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.VI.D.K1
8
33. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 258.) As you approach DEPEW in a
WAAS-equipped aircraft, on the RNAV (GPS) RWY 32 approach, the CDI needle
begins to show increasing deviation to the left with no increase in cross track. In this
situation, you
A. should immediately execute the missed approach.

B. know that the sensitivity of the CDI has increased.
C. would turn to the right to center the CDI needle.
34. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 465.) What is the reference stall speed
if you will be landing the aircraft at 55,000 pounds and 35° of flaps?
A. 92 knots.
B. 97 knots.
C. 102 knots.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.B.K2f
35. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 474.) What is the gross climb gradient
with the following conditions?
Outside air temperature: 0 °C
Airfield altitude: 4,000 feet
Weight: 55,000 pounds
A. 0.052%
B. 0.020%
C. 0.074%
36. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 145.) The minimums for the
nonprecision approach at KAMA are 3/4 mile visibility and 400 feet. When operating
under Part 121, can the pilot legally execute the approach with the given METAR
data?
A. Yes, they meet the minimum visibility requirements.

B. No, they do not meet the minimum visibility requirements.
C. No, they do not meet the minimum ceiling requirements.
9
37. What is the maximum load that can be placed on a pallet without exceeding the floor
weight limit of 260 pounds per square foot?
Pallet dimensions: 95.2 inches X 140.1 inches
Pallet weight: 350 pounds
Tiedown devices: 120 pounds
A. 23,611 pounds.
B. 24,076 pounds.
C. 24,546 pounds.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.B.K3e
38. Ground spoilers used after landing are
A. more effective at low speed.

B. equally effective at any speed.
C. more effective at high speed.
39. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 269.) The flight is filed Senic One
Departure, Daggett transition. Before reaching MOXIE intersection, ATC clears you to
turn left heading 030 and proceed direct LAHAB intersection. After the turn, you
realize you cannot cross LAHAB at 15,000 feet. What should you do if you are in
IMC?
A. Enter holding at LAHAB on the 185 degree radial until reaching 15,000 feet.
B. Advise Departure Control you cannot make the clearance and request radar
vectors.
C. Turn toward the Long Beach airport temporarily and continue the climb until you
can cross LAHAB at 15,000 feet.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.VI.B.K3
40. Embedded thunderstorms, which can be hazardous during instrument flight, are
most likely to occur
A. behind a fast-moving cold front.

B. in a warm front occlusion.
C. in a cold front occlusion.
10
41. A squall line is most likely to be encountered
A. on or ahead of a cold front in moist, unstable air.

B. during the passage of a warm front.
C. in an area of rising barometric pressure.
42. What would authorize an air carrier to conduct a Special Instrument Approach
Procedure?
A. Operations Specifications.
B. Compliance Statement.
C. Training Specifications.
43. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 69.) Before departure, you learn that
your destination airport`s arrivals are holding for 30 minutes on the arrival. In a two-
engine aircraft, how many pounds of fuel would be required to hold at 10,000 feet
with an EPR of 1.26 and an airplane weight of 85,000 pounds?
A. 1,155 pounds.
B. 2,310 pounds.
C. 4,620 pounds.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.VI.J.K2
44. An air carrier flight is preparing to depart from a domestic airport which is not listed in
the carrier`s operation specifications. There are no takeoff minimums prescribed for
the airport, and the weather is currently reporting a 900 foot overcast ceiling and 1
mile visibility in mist. The flight may
A. not depart until the weather improves.

B. depart if an alternate departure airport is filed.
C. depart without an alternate departure airport.
11
45. During a constant-rate climb in IMC above the freezing level, you notice that both the
airspeed and altitude are increasing. This indicates the
A. aircraft is in an unusual attitude.

B. gyroscopic instruments have failed.
C. pitot static system has malfunctioned.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.VII.A.K6
46. To improve the effectiveness and safety of the entire operations team as a working
system, CRM training should include
A. usage of seat-dependent checklists.
B. employee groups beyond the flightcrew.
C. failures the flightcrew must work through as a team.
47. While airborne and below the MEA, the pilot accepts an IFR clearance. Sole
responsibility for terrain and obstruction clearance remains with the pilot unless
A. the flight continues in clouds or above a ceiling and ATC transmits "RADAR
CONTACT."
B. an appropriate minimum IFR altitude providing obstruction clearance is attained.
C. the pilot advises ATC that he or she is unable to maintain terrain/obstruction
clearance.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.VI.B.K3
48. What weather phenomenon can be associated with the tropopause?
A. A constant temperature lapse rate.

B. Clear air turbulence associated with the jet stream.
C. The deflection of air currents to the right.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.C.K3g
49. How are wind speeds of 100 through 199 knots indicated on a Wind and Temperature
Aloft Forecast?
A. By subtracting 100 from the speed and adding 50 to the coded direction.
B. In the format of three-digit direction and three-digit speed.
C. This range is required to be annotated in plain language.
12
50. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figures 140 and 141.) If on a back course to
the Runway 9 approach, to which HSI presentation does aircraft 8 correspond?
A. Figure H.
B. Figure I.
C. Figure E.
51. Which of the following is a visual indication of conditions favorable to supercooled

large droplet icing?
A. Droplets that splash or splatter on impact at temperatures below +5°C.

B. Clear ice accumulation on the active part of the deicing boot.
C. Rapid ice accumulation on the propeller hub.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.C.K3i
52. Risk is increased when flightcrew members
A. fail to monitor automated navigation systems.

B. allocate time to verify expected performance of automated systems.
C. question the performance of each other`s duties.
53. In advanced avionics aircraft, proper automation management requires
A. relying on flight management systems to navigate in order for the pilot to

perform other tasks.
B. a thorough understanding of how the autopilot interacts with other systems.
C. the pilot to refrain from monitoring the automation after initial programming.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.F.K3
54. For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a
coordinated constant-altitude turn
A. increases with an increase in airspeed.

B. remains constant regardless of airspeed changes.
C. decreases with an increase in airspeed.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.IV.A.K2d
13
55. How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?
A. Steepen the bank and increase airspeed.

B. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.
C. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.IV.A.K2e
56. Consumption of alcohol
A. can severely impair a person for more than 8 hours.

B. is of no concern in aviation after 8 hours regardless of amount consumed.
C. in small amounts has no effect on judgment and decision-making.
57. When penetrating fog while flying an approach at night, you might experience the
illusion of
A. pitching up.
B. flying at a lower altitude.
C. constant turning.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.F.K1k
58. For passenger operations under Part 121, a flightcrew member may exceed
maximum flight time limitations if
A. immediately followed by 11 hours of rest.

B. unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff.
C. known ATC delays do not exceed 30 minutes.
59. For domestic operations under 14 CFR part 121, who is responsible for the preflight
planning, delay, and dispatch release of a flight?
A. Pilot in command and chief pilot.

B. Director of operations and aircraft dispatcher.
C. Pilot in command and aircraft dispatcher.
14
60. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 22.) You are considering a takeoff from
a runway with a magnetic heading of 330°, and the tower reported winds are 290° at
25 knots. What would be the computed headwind component?
A. 19 knots.
B. 25 knots.
C. 16 knots.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.III.A.K1
61. High density altitude can reduce turbojet aircraft performance in which of the
following ways?
A. It reduces the likelihood of maintaining laminar flow over the airfoils as airspeed
and altitude increase.
B. It reduces thrust because there is a reduced mass of gases to force out of the
exhaust.
C. It reduces thrust because there is an increased mass of gases that inhibits the
outflow of exhaust.
62. What should a pilot do if the remaining fuel supply requires priority handling after
declaring "minimum fuel" with ATC?
A. Declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.
B. Continue with your minimum fuel status, and advise ATC that you would prefer
no further delays.
C. Cancel your minimum fuel status, and prepare to divert to your filed alternate
airport.
63. As an airplane climbs to higher altitudes, what happens to the calibrated airspeed in
relation to true airspeed?
A. It remains equal.
B. It decreases.
C. It increases.
15
64. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figures 66 and 67.) What is the estimated fuel
consumption for Operating Conditions Z-2?
A. 9,300 pounds.
B. 10,270 pounds.
C. 11,232 pounds.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.B.K2d
65. Why does the FAA maintain a VOR Minimum Operational Network (MON)?
A. To provide VOR navigation service in the Western Mountainous USA below GPS
signal coverage.
B. To maintain the enroute Victor airway structure on overwater routes in the Gulf
of Mexico.
C. To support navigation of non-DME/DME equipped RNAV aircraft in the event of
GPS outage.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.II.A.K6
66. Jet streams are strongest during which season in the Northern Hemisphere?
A. Spring.
B. Summer.
C. Winter.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.C.K3e
67. Which are terms a pilot should use when reporting the quality of braking action for a
runway?
A. Good to medium.
B. Bad to minimum.
C. Effective to adequate.
68. A flight is scheduled at daybreak. The current weather is rainy, but is expected to
clear with temperature/dew point spread forecast to be 10°C/10°C and winds at 330/5.
What weather conditions should you expect?
A. Visual meteorological conditions until later in the day.
B. These conditions could produce radiation fog.
C. Dense fog that deepens later in the day.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.C.K3j
16
69. You are planning a flight to the West Coast of the United States, which is currently
below the published weather minimums for an ILS approach to that airport. The
winds are forecast to increase to above 20 knots from the west at your scheduled
arrival time. What weather conditions should you expect?
A. Visual meteorological conditions.

B. Advection fog will deepen with winds above 20 knots.
C. A layer of low stratus or stratocumulus is expected.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.C.K3j
70. You are planning to arrive at the KHOU airport at 0900Z, what conditions can be
expected as indicated by this TAF:
KHOU 151720Z 1518/1618 22009KT P6SM SCT030 SCT250
FM160000 18005KT P6SM BKN050 BKN120
FM160600 21007KT P6SM VCSH SCT025 BKN200
FM160900 34010KT P6SM VCTS BKN035CB BKN250
TEMPO 1611/1613 TSRA BKN012 OVC025CB
FM161600 35007KT P6SM BKN020
A. Winds from the south. blowing to the north at 10 knots.

B. Thunderstorm activity 5-10 miles from the airport's runway complex.
C. Rain showers, scattered clouds at 2500 feet, and overcast at 20,000 feet.
71. What is the reported ceiling in the following METAR?

KHOT 181253Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM FG VV001 08/08 A3000 RMK AO2 SLP158
T00780078
A. Indefinite at 100 feet.

B. Variable at 100 feet.
C. Measured at 100 feet.
72. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 154.) What weather phenomenon can
be found at Area #1 on the chart?
A. A high pressure area.

B. A low pressure trough.
C. A strong pressure ridge.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.C.K3e
17
73. Each person operating an aircraft equipped with ADS-B Out must operate it in the
transmit mode
A. at all times unless otherwise authorized by the FAA or directed by ATC.
B. when operating in Class B and C airspace, excluding operations conducted
under Day VFR.
C. all classes of airspace when the flight is operated for compensation or hire but
not otherwise.
74. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figures 262 and 263.) In a turbojet airplane,
when assigned the RIICE THREE ARRIVAL, at what speed would ATC expect you to
cross RIICE intersection when landing EAST at IAH?
A. 250 KIAS.
B. 280 KIAS.
C. 200 KIAS.
75. What conditions would cause an Air Traffic Controller to issue you a Safety Alert?
A. When your approach has become unstable, and you are required to execute a
go-around.
B. When the aircraft altitude places it in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or
other aircraft.
C. When they have implemented a temporary reduction in approach control
separation minimums.
76. Under 14 CFR part 121, when may non-essential communications take place below
10,000 feet?
A. In VMC conditions.
B. Before the Final Approach Fix.
C. During cruise flight.
18
77. Under 14 CFR part 91, what are the minimum number of hours that must pass after
alcohol consumption before attempting to act as a crewmember?
A. 8.
B. 10.
C. 12.
78. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 163A) Arriving at Ryan Field at 1600Z
under visual meteorological conditions (VMC) in a turbine-powered airplane, at what
altitude should you enter the traffic pattern and remain at that altitude until further
descent is required for a safe landing?
A. 1,000 feet AGL.

B. 2,500 feet AGL.
C. 1,500 feet AGL.
79. What course of action should the pilot take if encountering freezing rain?
A. Climb because the temperature is warmer at a higher altitude.

B. Descend because the temperature is warmer at a lower altitude.
C. No change is necessary if all anti-ice/deice equipment is working.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.C.K3i
80. Given the following, what would be the maximum payload?

Basic operating weight (BOW) = 100,500 lbs.
Maximum zero fuel weight = 138,000 lbs.
Maximum landing weight = 142,000 lbs.
Maximum takeoff weight = 184,200 lbs.
Fuel load = 40,000 lbs.
Fuel tank capacity = 54,000 lbs.
A. 43,700 lbs.
B. 37,500 lbs.
C. 29,700 lbs.
19
81. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 419.) With the following conditions,
would the airplane be in the approved weight and CG envelope for landing?
CG location: 25% MAC
Aircraft Weight: 74,000 lbs.
A. No, the airplane is over the maximum approved landing weight.

B. Yes, the airplane is within the approved weight and CG envelope.
C. No, the airplane is below the maximum landing weight, but the CG is aft of limits.
82. When is ear blockage most likely to occur?
A. Upon descent and is aggravated by upper respiratory infection.

B. During initial climb-out as expanding air in the middle ear pushes the eustachian
tube open.
C. During cruise flight as the pressure between the middle ear and aircraft cabin
equalizes.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.F.K1c
83. Which of the following is an effect of acute fatigue on performance?
A. Loss of accuracy and smoothness in control movements.

B. Heightened acuity in peripheral vision.
C. Mild euphoria, impaired judgment, and increased reaction time.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.F.K1h
84. In order to assess risk in aeronautical decision-making, what two basic

considerations are recommended?
A. Convenience and effort required.

B. Likelihood and severity.
C. Time and cost efficiency.
20
85. The maximum tailwind component of the airplane is 10 knots. The actual tailwind
calculated is 11 knots. Other aircraft are continuing to land, so you decide to ignore
the limitation and land as well. Which hazardous attitude are you displaying?
A. Impulsivity.
B. Resignation.
C. Anti-authority.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.I.F.R2
86. Which of the following is one of the five traits discovered to be common in pilots who
have had accidents in their past?
A. A low correlation between traffic safety violations and flying safety mishaps.
B. A tendency to be impulsive rather than disciplined, especially in decision-
making.
C. A sense of respect for rules and procedures.
87. What type of stressor can lead to poor decision-making?
A. Lack of sleep.
B. Lack of high workload.
C. Lack of motivation.
88. What is the purpose of a zero fuel weight limitation?

A. To limit load forces on the wing spars with heavy fuselage loads.
B. To limit load forces on the fuselage with a heavy wing fuel load.
C. To prevent overstressing the landing gear during a hard landing.
89. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-7D, Appendix 2, Figure 419.) You are preparing for a flight, with
the following planned loading at takeoff. Would the aircraft be within the approved
weight limitations?
Basic operating weight (including crew): 49,500 lb.
Passengers, baggage, and cargo: 20,850 lb.
Fuel weight: 9,500 lb.
A. Yes, the weight would be within limits.
B. No, max zero fuel weight would be exceeded.
C. No, the max takeoff weight would be exceeded.
Metadata: ACSCode : AA.II.A.K2d
21
90. What information is de-identified when a report is submitted through the Aviation
Safety Reporting System (ASRS)?
A. Crew identity information when criminal offenses have occurred.
B. Crew identity information involving time-sensitive data.
C. Crew identity information when prompt NTSB reporting is required.
91. What manual should the crewmembers of an air carrier reference when determining if
a portable electronic device is allowed to be operated on an aircraft?
A. The aircraft's approved flight manual.
B. The air carrier’s policy and procedures manual.
C. The operating manual for the device.
92. If available, what action could a pilot of an air carrier take if they violate a federal
regulation because of an air traffic control direction?
A. File a report through the Voluntary Disclosure Reporting Program (VDRP).
B. File a report through the Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP).
C. File a report through the Flight Operational Quality Assurance Program (FOQA).
93. What is the purpose of a Flight Operational Quality Assurance (FOQA) program?
A. To identify pilots who are having problems operationally.
B. To identify aggregate information for error trends.
C. To provide accountability within the air carrier system.
94. What adverse flight characteristics could result from operating an aircraft with the
Center of Gravity (CG) beyond the published forward limitations?
A. The flight control forces may become very light.
B. It could be difficult or impossible to flare for landing.
C. It could be difficult or impossible to recover from a stall.
95. What adverse flight characteristics could result from operating an aircraft with the
Center of Gravity (CG) beyond the published aft limitations?
A. The flight control forces may become very heavy.
B. It could be difficult to flare for landing.
C. It could be impossible to recover from a stall.
22
96. When does a typical aircraft exhibit reduced longitudinal stability?
A. With the Center of Gravity (CG) near the aft limit.
B. With the Center of Gravity (CG) near the forward limit.
C. With the Center of Gravity (CG) at a mid-range location.
97. What could cause a turbine engine hot start?

A. Lack of airflow due to insufficient turbine rpm.
B. Inlet and compressor airflow imbalance.
C. Insufficient fuel in the combustion chamber.
98. You are the pilot in command of a 14 CFR part 121 domestic operation flight. In
addition to yourself, who is jointly responsible for preflight planning, delay, and
dispatch release of the flight?
A. The director of operations.
B. The chief pilot or designee.
C. The aircraft dispatcher.
99. In a multicrew environment, who is responsible for the tone, pace, outcome of
decisions made, and will be held accountable for all outcomes in air carrier flights?
A. First officer.
B. Air carrier.
C. Captain.
100. Your airline recently initiated a new safety partnership with the FAA utilizing the
Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP) for all pilots, flight attendants, dispatchers
and mechanics. What does ASAP encourage?
A. Encourages an employee to utilize an ASAP report after receiving a criminal
substance abuse conviction so they do not face additional FAA enforcement.
B. Encourages an employee to utilize an ASAP report after receiving a criminal
substance abuse conviction so they do not face additional FAA enforcement.
C. Encourages airline management to utilize ASAP reports and voluntarily report
safety information to derive synergies and cost savings for the airline.
23

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10. PLT004 ATP

11. PLT214 ATP

12. PLT347 ATP

13. PLT170 ATP

14. PLT172 ATP

file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/ATP.htm[6/13/2011 12:37:12 PM]

15. PLT406 ATP

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17. PLT012 ATP

18. PLT004 ATP

19. PLT012 ATP

20. PLT065 ATP

21. PLT012 ATP

22. PLT012 ATP

file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/ATP.htm[6/13/2011 12:37:12 PM]

23. PLT011 ATP

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25. PLT169 ATP

26. PLT052 ATP

27. PLT020 ATP

28. PLT012 ATP

29. PLT015 ATP

file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/ATP.htm[6/13/2011 12:37:12 PM]

30. PLT314 ATP

31. PLT346 ATP

32. PLT473 ATP

33. PLT473 ATP

34. PLT128 ATP

35. PLT343 ATP

36. PLT499 ATP

file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/ATP.htm[6/13/2011 12:37:12 PM]

37. PLT343 ATP

38. PLT108 ATP

39. PLT148 ATP

40. PLT141 ATP

41. PLT509 ATP

42. PLT040 ATP

43. PLT161 ATP

44. PLT161 ATP

file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/ATP.htm[6/13/2011 12:37:12 PM]

45. PLT162 ATP

46. PLT040 ATP

47. PLT195 ATP

48. PLT225 ATP

49. PLT108 ATP

50. PLT280 ATP

51. PLT097 ATP

52. PLT022 ATP

file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/ATP.htm[6/13/2011 12:37:12 PM]

53. PLT083 ATP

54. PLT083 ATP

55. PLT354 ATP

56. PLT420 ATP

57. PLT323 ATP

58. PLT420 ATP

59. PLT323 ATP

60. PLT370 ATP

file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/ATP.htm[6/13/2011 12:37:12 PM]