SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 31.10.

2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-1 Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
In every subject:
(a) In Section – A, 35 questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from section – A
(b) In Section – B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which Answer 10 questions only.
(c) Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
PHYSICS
SECTION – A
1. From the top of tower, a particle is thrown vertically downwards with a velocity of 20 m/s. The ratio
of the distances covered by it in the 4th and 3rd seconds of the motion is : (Take g = 10 m/s2) :
1) 5 : 7 2) 11 : 9 3) 3 : 6 4) 6 : 3
2. Starting from rest, a particle rotates in a circle of radius R  2m with an angular acceleration
   / 4 rad / s2 . The magnitude of average velocity of the particle over the time it rotates quarter
circle is :
1) 1.5 m/s 2) 2 m/s 3) 1 m/s 4) 1.25 m/s
3. The dimensional formula for surface tension is :
1) MLT–2 2) MT–2 3) LT–2 4) ML2T –2 .
4. How many gm of ice at –14oC are needed to cool 200 gm of water from 25oC to 10oC :
1) 21 gm 2) 31 gm 3) 41 gm 4) 51 gm.
5. Induced electric field due to time varying magnetic field is –
1) Conservative 2) Non Conservative
3) Both Conservative and Non Conservative 4) None of these
6. A body is dropped from a height h. If it acquires a momentum p, then the mass of the body is :
p p2 2gh 2gh
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 gh 2 gh p p
7. A metal ball of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity of 36 km/h has a head-on collision with a
stationary ball of mass 3 kg. If after the collision, the two balls move together, the loss in kinetic
energy due to collision is :
1) 40 J 2) 60 J 3) 100 J 4) 140 J
8. A ring is rolling on a surface without slipping. What is the ratio of its translational kinetic energy and
rotational kinetic energy:
1) 5 : 7 2) 2 : 5 3) 2 : 7 4) 1 : 1
9. In a semiconducting material (1/5) th of the total current is carried by the holes and the remaining is
carried by the electrons. The drift speed of electrons is twice that of holes at this temperature, the
ratio between the number densities of electrons and holes is :-
1) 21 / 6 2) 5 3) 3 /8 4) 2
10. A gas undergoes a process in which its pressure P and volume V are related as VPn = constant. The
bulk modulus of the gas in this process in :
1) nP 2) P1/n 3) P/n 4) Pn
11. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely at the nth power of distance. Then time period of a
planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun will be proportional to :
 n 1   n 1   n2 
     
 2   2  n  2 
1) R 2) R 3) R 4) R
12. If atoms are in certain excited state. When these return to ground state, total number of wavelengths
emitted by them is 10. Then atoms were initially in state :
1) n = 2 2) n = 3 3) n = 4 4) n = 5.
13. A gaseous mixture consists of 16g of helium and 16g of oxygen. The ratio CP / CV of the mixture is
1) 1.4 2) 1.54 3) 1.59 4) 1.62
14. Which one of the following gases possesses the large internal energy :
1) 2 moles of helium occupying 1 m3 at 300 K
2) 56 g of nitrogen at 107 Nm–2 at 300 K
3) 8 grams of oxygen at 8 atm at 300 K
4) 6 × 1026 molecules of argon occupying 40 m3 at 900 K
15. A step down transformer is used to reduce the main supply of 220V to 11V. If the primary coil draws
a current of 5A and the current in secondary coil 90A, what is the efficiency of the transformer?
1) 60 % 2) 70% 3) 80% 4) 90%
16. The threshold frequency for a metallic surface corresponds to an energy of 6.2 eV, and the stopping
potential for a radiation incident on this surface 5V. The incident radiation lies in
1) X-ray region 2) ultra-violet region
3) infra-red region 4) visible region
17. A square loop and a long straight wire are situated in a common plane such that one edge of the
square is parallel to the wire. The mutual inductance between the wire and loop is :

0 a 0 a 0 a 0 a
1) ln  2  2) ln  2  3) 4)
4 2  2
18. If 1 g of substance of relative density 2 and 4 g of another substance of relative density 3 are mixed
together, then the relative density of the mixture is :
1) 2.4 2) 2.5 3) 2.7 4) 2.8
19. A material has Poisson's ratio 0.5. If a uniform rod of it suffers a longitudinal strain of 2 × 10–3, the
percentage increase in its volume is :
1) 0% 2) 2% 3) 4% 4) 8%.
20. For the given cyclic process CAB as shown for a gas, the work done is:

1) 1 J 2) 5 J 3) 10 J 4) 30 J
21. The voltage of cloud is 4 × 106 volt with respect to ground. In a lightning strike lasting for 100 ms, a
charge of 4 coulumb is delivered to the ground. The power of the lightning strike is:
1) 160 MW 2) 80 MW 3) 20 MW 4) 500 MW
22. A fish looking up through the water sees the outside world contained in a circular horizon. If the
refractive index of water is 4/3 and the fish is 12cm below the surface, the radius of this circle in cm
is

1) 36 5 2) 4 5 3) 36 7 4) 36 / 7
23. The de Broglie wavelength  associated with a proton changes by 0.25% if its momentum is changed
by p0 . The initial momentum was :-
1) 100 p0 2) p0 /400 3) 400 p0 4) p0 /100
24. The focal length of a convex mirror is 20 cm its radius of curvature will be
1) 10 cm 2) 20 cm 3) 30 cm 4) 40 cm
25. In Young's experiment with sodium light, the slits are 0.589 m apart. What is the angular position of
the third maximum ? (Given that  = 589 nm) :-
1) sin–1 (3 × 10–6) 2) sin–1 (3 × 10–8)
3) sin–1 (0.33 × 10–6) 4) sin–1 (0.33 × 10–8)
26. Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each other.
The currents flowing in them are l and 2l respectively. The resultant magnetic field induction at the
center will be:
I I 5 0 I 3 0 I
1) 0 2) 0 3) 4)
2R R 2R 2R
27. An electron is travelling with velocity   3iˆ  5 ˆjm / s in a magnetic field B  6iˆ  4 ˆj tesla. Then
what is the magnitude and direction of the force F acting on the electron:
1) 18e N along +ve z-axis 2) 18e N along –ve z-axis
3) 36e N along –ve z-axis 4) 54e N along +ve z-axis.
28. A river is flowing with speed u west to east. A boat takes t1 time to move distance S in down's stream
and t2 time to move distance in up stream time taken by boat to travel distance S in still water :
t t t t 2t t
1) 1 2 2) t1  t2 3) 1 2 4) 1 2
2 t1  t2 t1  t2
29. The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atoms is:
1) much greater than one 2) one
3) between zero and one 4) equal to zero
30. A coil of resistance 200  is placed in a magnetic field. If the magnetic flux  (wb) linked with the
coil varies with time t (sec) as  = 50t2 + 4, the current in the coil at t = 2 sec is:
1) 2 A 2) 1 A 3) 0.5 A 4) 0.1 A
2
31. The time dependence of physical quantity P is given by P  P0et where  is a constant and t is the
time. The constant  :
1) is dimensionless 2) has dimension [T–2]
3) has dimension [T2 ] 4) has dimension of P.
32. Consider the following two statements
Statement I : The binding energy per nucleon is practically independent of mass number for nuclei of
middle mass number (30 < A < 170).
Statement II : Binding energy per nucleon is lower for both light nuclei (A < 30) and heavy nuclei (A
> 170).
1) only statement I is correct
2) only statement II is correct
3) Both statement I and II are correct
4) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
33. Gravitational potential differernce between a point on surface of planet and another point 10 m above
is 4J/kg. Considering gravitational field to be uniform, how much work is done in moving a mass of
2kg from the surface to a point 5 m above the surface :
1) 4 J 2) 5 J 3) 6 J 4) 7 J
34. Two infinite parallel conductors P1 and P2 have charges Q1 and Q2 on them. The charges on the sides
A, B and C and D respectively are :

Q1  Q2 Q  Q2
1) QA  QD  and QB  QC  1
2 2
Q  Q2 Q  Q2
2) QA  QC  1 and QB  QD  1
2 2
Q  Q2 Q  Q2
3) QB  QC  1 and QA  QD  1
2 2
Q  Q2
4) QA  QB  QC  Q D  1
2
35. The intensity of an electric field inside a capacitor is E. The work required to make a charge q, move
in a closed rectangular circuit is :

1) 2  l  b  qE 2) 2IqE 3) 2bqE 4) Zero

SECTION – B
36. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated by a distance d. If F is the force of
repulsion between the ions, the number of electrons missing from each ion will be : (e being the
charge on an electron)
4 0 Fd 2 4 0 Fe 2 4 0 Fd 2 4 0 Fd 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
e2 d2 e2 e2
37. If each resistance in the figure of 9 then reading of the ammeter is :-

.
1) 8A 2) 5A 3) 2A 4) 9A
38. In the given circuit emf of cell = 12V & internal resistance of cell is zero. Reading of A is i1 when
key is opened & reading of A is i2 when key is closed then i1 / i2 will be

1) 2 2) 0.3 3) 0.6 4) 0.5

39. Two identical conducting balls A and B have positive charges q1 and q2 respectively but q1  q2 . The
balls are brought together so that they touch each other and then kept in their original positions. The
force between them is :
1) Less than that before the balls touched
2) Greater than that before the balls touched
3) Same as that before the balls touched
4) Zero.
40. Some equipotential surfaces, which are normal to x-y plane are shown in the figure given is

1) A or B 2) A or C 3) C or D 4) B or D
41. The electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from exited state (n = 3) to ground state (n = 1) and the
photons thus emitted irradiate a photosensitive material. If the work function of the material is
5.1 eV, the stopping potential is estimated to be: (the energy of the electron in nth state
13.6
En  eV )
n2
1) 5.1 V 2) 12.1 V 3) 17.2 V 4) 7V
42. P-V curve for change in the state of the gas from A to B through 3 different paths, a, b and c are
shown. Match the options of the two columns :

Column-I Column-II
a. Change in internal energy in paths a and b i. a
b. In all the three paths, heat ii. c
c. Heat absorbed/ released by gas is maximum in path iii. is absorbed by gas
d. Work done is minimum in path iv. Equal
1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii 4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii.
43. The resonant frequency of the L-C circuit is f0 before insertion of the dielectric of r = 16. After
inserting the dielectric, the resonant frequency will be :-

1) f0 / 2 2) 2 f0 3) f0 / 4 4) 4 f0
44. A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15 V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit shown
in figure. The current through the diode is :

1) 5 mA 2) 10 mA 3) 15 mA 4) 20 mA
45. In the given circuit, A, B and C are inputs and Y is the output. The output Y is:

1) High for all the high inputs 2) High for all the low inputs
3) Low for all low inputs 4) Low when A = 0, B = 0, C = 1.
46. In a progressive wave along X-direction, at a particular location, the particle of the medium are
executing:
1) oscillatory motion 2) rectilinear motion
3) rotational motion 4) none of these
47. Assertion: During horizontal circular turn of a car, the centripetal force required should be less than
the limiting friction between its tyres and road
Reason: The centripetal force to car is provided by the frictional force between its tyres and road
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is false
4) It the assertion is false and reason true.
48. Assertion: Path of a projectile with respect to another projectile is straight line
Reason: Acceleration of a projectile with respect to another projectile is zero
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is false
4) It the assertion and reason both are false
49. Consider the following two statements
Statement-1: When a girl sitting on a swing stands up, the periodic time of the swing will increase.
Statement-2: In standing position of a girl, the length of the swing will decrease.
1) only statement I is correct
2) only statement II is correct
3) Both statement I and II are correct
4) Both statement I and II are incorrect
50. In the following circuit of PN junction diodes D1 , D2 and D3 are ideal then i is :-

1) E/R 2) E/2R 3) 2E/3R 4) Zero

CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A
51. Riemer-Tiemann reaction and Kolbe’s reaction are respectively
1) Electrophilic addition and nucleophilic addition reactions
2) Both are electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions
3) Free radical addition reaction and electrophilic substitution reactions
4) Both are nucleophilic substitution reactions
52. The correct order of metallic character is
1) Si < Be < Mg < Na
2) Si < Mg < Be < Na
3) Na < Mg < Be < Si
4) Na < Be < Mg < Si
53. Assertion: The carbon-oxygen bond in phenol is slightly stronger than that in methanol.
Reason: In phenol, conjugation of unshared electron pair over oxygen with aromatic ring results in
partial double bond character in carbon-oxygen bond
1) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
2) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
3) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
4) Both assertion and reason are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
54. Statement I : Electrolysis of NaCl solution gives chlorine at anode instead of O2 .
Statement II : Formation of oxygen at anode requires overvoltage.
1) Both statements are false
2) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true
3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false
4) Both statements are true
55. XeF2 is iso-structural with
1) NaCl 2) SF4 3) I 3 4) BCl3
56. 0.01 M Acetic acid is 12.5 % dissociated. Its pH will be (log 1.25 = 0.0969)
1) 4.509 2) 3.723 3) 2.903 4) 5.623
57. Which one of the following statements regarding Henry’s law is NOT correct?
1) The value of K H increases with increase of temperature
2) Higher the value of K H at a given pressure, higher is the solubility of the gas in the liquids
3) The partial pressure of the gas in vapor phase is proportional to the mole fraction of the gas in the
solution
4) Different gases have different K H (Henry’s law constant) values at the same temperature
58. The momentum of a moving particle which has a de-Broglie wave length of 2 Å is
(Planck’s constant, h = 6.62 1034 m2 kg/sec)
1) 3.31  1024 Kg ms –1 2) 3.31 1020 Kg ms –1
3) 6.26  1024 Kg ms –1 4) 3.31  10–24 Kg ms –1
59. 20 mL of 0.1 M H 2 SO4 solution is added to 30 mL of 0.2 M NH 4OH solution. The pH of the
resultant mixture is approximately [ pkb of NH 4OH  4.7 ]
1) 9.4 2) 5.0 3) 8.99 4) 5.2
60. Although +3 is the characteristic oxidation state for lanthanoids but cerium also shows +4 oxidation
state because
(i) it has variable ionisation enthalpy
(ii) it has a tendency to attain noble gas configuration
(iii) it has a tendency to attain f 0 configuration
(iv) it resembles Pb
1) i and ii only 2) ii and iii only 3) i, ii and iv only 4) iv only
61. Arrange following complex ions in increasing order of crystal field splitting energy ( o )
3 3 3
I. Cr  Cl 6  II. Cr  CN 6  III. Cr  NH 3 6 
1) I < II < III 2) II < I < III 3) III < II < I 4) I < III < II
62. Wrong match of the following is
1) SO2 – turns acidified K2Cr2O7 to green
2) Cl2 – disproportionates in KOH solution
3) K2Cr2O7 can disproportionate in acidic medium
4) Sulphuric acid – di basic acid
63. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. The energy of second excited state of He
ion in eV is
1) -6.04 eV 2) -27.2 eV 3) -54.4 eV 4) -3.4 eV
64. How many of the following are amphoteric oxides ?
MgO , Cr2O3 , Mn2O7 , As2O3 , Cl2O7 , Sb2O3
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 5
65. Match the geometry with the complex ion -
X Y
(a) Octahedral (I) [ Ni(CN)4]2–
(b) Square Planer (II) [ Fe(CN)6]4–
(c) Tetrahedral (III) Ni(CO)4
a b c
1) I II III
2) II I III
3) III I II
4) I III II
66. Which of the following species are paramagnetic in nature?
1) O2 2) O2 3) S2 4) All of these
67. The eclipsed and staggered forms of ethane cannot be isolated because
1) Both the conformers are equally stable
2) There is a small energy barrier of rotation about the bond and they interconvert rapidly
3) There is a large energy barrier of rotation about the bond
4) The energy difference between the conformers is very large
68. A first order reaction is 20% completed in 10 min. The rate constant of the reaction is
1) 0.223 min1 2) 0.0223 min1 3) 2.23 min1 4) 22.3 min1
69. Which of the following does not follow Huckel rule?

I II III IV

1)Only IV 2)II and IV only 3)II and III only 4)I and IV only
1
70. The enthalpy of vaporization of liquid is 30 kJmol and entropy of vaporization is 75 JK 1mol 1 .
The boiling point of the liquid at 1 atm is
1) 127 K 2) 400 K 3) 450 K 4) 600 K
 
71. The Conjugate bases of H 2 PO4 and H 2 PO3 are respectively
1) PO43 and HPO32 2) HPO42 and HPO32
3) PO43 and HPO3 4) HPO42 and no Conjugate base
72. The relationship between the structures shown below is
Cl Cl

H Br Br CH3

CH3 H
1) Enantiomers 2) Identical compounds
3) Structural isomers 4) Conformational isomers
73. During photoelectric effect, the kinetic energy of the electron ejected from metal surface depends on
1) The intensity of incident light 2) The brightness of the incident light
3) The frequency of incident light 4) Both 1 and 2
74. The solubility of A2 X 3 in pure water is ( Ksp( A2 X3 )  1.1 X 1023 )
1) 1.01X 1025 mol / L 2) 9.9 X 1025 mol / L 3) 1X 105 mol / L 4) 1X 1015 mol / L
75. Consider the following reaction:

X and Y are isomeric compounds. Wrong statement about the above reactions is
1) X is a mixture of o- and p- chlorotoluenes
2) Y is a mixture of o- and p- Chloro toluenes
3) X is Benzyl chloride
4) Formation of Y is Electrophilic substitution reaction
Hg 2 / H 2 SO4
76. CH3 C CH HOH A
The number of sigma and pi bonds that are present in the molecule ‘A'
1) 9 sigma and 1 pi 2) 8 sigma and 2 pi
3) 8 sigma and 1 pi 4) 9 sigma and 2 pi
77. The set of reagents for the conversion of Aniline to 2, 4, 6- tribromofluorobenzene are
1) (i)Br2/H2O (ii) NaNO2/HCl-00C (iii) HBF4 ,∆
2) (i) Br2/H2O (ii) NaNO2/HCl-00C (iii) H3PO2 (iv) HBF4 followed by heating
3) (i) NaNO2/HCl-00C (ii) HBF4 /  (iii) Br2/H2O
4) (i) NaNO2/HCl-00C (ii) H3PO2 (iii) Br2/H2O
78. Which of the following compounds gives Iodoform test?
1) Benzaldehyde 2) Acetophenone 3) Benzophenone 4) 3- Pentanone
79. Which of the following anions has d   p bonding?
1) SO32  2) CO32  3) BO33 4) NO3
80. Articles can be electroplated with silver and gold smoothly and evenly from solutions of the
complexes containing
2)  Au  CN  2  and  AgCl2 
  
1)  Au  OH  4  and  Ag  OH  2 


3)  Au  NH 3  2  and  Ag  CN  2 
   
4)  Au  CN  2  and  Ag  CN  2 
81. Which of the following tests can be used to distinguish Phenol from carboxylic acid?
1) 2RCOOH  2 Na  2 RCOONa  H 2
2) RCOOH  NaOH  RCOONa  H2O
3) RCOOH  NaHCO3  RCOONa  H 2O  CO2
4) All the above
CH CH NH
82. C6 H5COOH  SOCl2  A 
3 2 2 B

Compounds A and B are the main products and which are respectively
1) C6H5COCl & CH3CH2-NH-COC6H5
2) C6H5SO2Cl & CH3CH2-NH- SO2C6H5
3) C6H5COCl & CH3CH2-CO-NH-C6H5
4) C6H5Cl & CH3CH2-NH-CH2CH3
83. What is the major product of the following reaction?

COOH CH 3
1) 2)
C H 3C H 2 HOOC
COOH

3) 4)
CH 3OOC
84. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to the property indicated?
1) Electronegativity: F > Cl > Br 2) Electron affinity: Cl > F > Br
3) Oxidising power: F2  Cl2  Br2 4) Bond energy: F2  Cl2  Br2
85. The standard potentials for the half reactions are given below
Zn2(aq)  2e  Zn( s ) E 0  0.76 V
Fe2( aq)  2e  Fe( s ) E 0  0.44 V
E 0 for the cell reaction
Fe2  Zn  Zn2  Fe is
1) - 0.35 V 2) -1.17 V 3) + 1.17 V 4) +0.32 V
SECTION – B
86. Statement –I: Fructose is a reducing sugar
Statement – II: Fructose contains a keto group
1) Both S-I and S-II are correct 2) Both S-I and S-II are wrong
3) S-I is correct but S-II is wrong 4) S-I is wrong but S-II is correct
87. Which of the following group shows +M and – I effects
1) –CHO 2) -COOR 3) –NO2 4) -OH
88. NH2OH is an important derivative of Ammonia. Which of the following compounds does not react
with NH2OH?

1) CH 3COCH 3 2) C2 H 5CHO 3) 4) Glucose pentaacetate

89. The diazonium ion of Benzenediazonium chloride can be replaced by Cl  , Br or CN  in presence
of
1) Cu (II) ions 2) Cu (I) ions 3) OH  ions 4) H  ions
90. In which of the following pairs of compounds 1st compound is more acidic than 2nd compound

1)

2) CH3COOH and Cl 3C  COOH

3) HCOOH and C6 H5COOH
4) NC  CH2 COOH and NO 2  CH2 COOH
3 29
91. For the reaction O2 g   O3 g  at 298 K if KC is 2 X 10 , then G0 is approximately
2
(Given R=8.314 JK-1mol-1)
1) 163700 KJmol 1 2) 16.37 KJmol 1 3) 163.7 KJmol 1 4) 0.1637 KJmol 1
92. Assertion : All collisions of reactant molecules lead to product formation.
Reason : Only those collisions in which molecules have correct orientation and sufficient kinetic
energy lead to compound formation.
1) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
2) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
3) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
4) Both assertion and reason are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
93. Match the following equilibria with the corresponding condition
(i) Liquid Vapour (a) Saturated solution
(ii) Solid Liquid (b) Boiling point
(iii) Solid Vapour (c) Sublimation point
(iv) Solute (s) Solute (solution) (d) Melting point

1) i    a  ii    d  iii    c  iv   b

2) i   b ii    d  iii    c  iv    a 

3) i    d  ii    a  iii    c  iv   b 

4) i    d  ii    a  iii   b iv    c 
94. One mole of any substance contains 6.022  1023 atoms/molecules. Number of molecules of H 2 SO4
present in 100 mL of 0.02M H 2 SO4 solution is ______.
1) 12.044 X 1020 molecules 2) 6.022 X 1023 molecules
3) 1X 1023 molecules 4) 12.044 X 1023 molecules
95. XY2 dissociates as, XY2(g) XY(g) + Y(g) when the initial pressure of XY2 is 600 mm Hg, the total
equilibrium pressure is 800 mm Hg. Calculate Kp for the reaction assuming that, the volume of the
system remains unchanged
1) 50 2) 400 3) 166.6 4) 100
96. IUPAC name of the given compound is

1) 4-methyl-5-chloronitrobenzene 2) 1-chloro-3-nitro-6-methylbenzene
3) 2-Chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene 4) 1-chloro-2-nitro-4-methylbenzene
97. The energy required to completely separate one mole of a solid ionic compound into its gaseous
constituent ions is called
1) Hydration enthalpy 2) Ionization enthalpy
3) Electron gain enthalpy 4) Lattice enthalpy
98. Which of the following equilibrium is affected by pressure?
I. N 2( g )  3H 2( g ) 2 NH 3( g ) II. 2SO2( g )  O2( g ) 2SO3( g )
III. 2 HI ( g ) H 2( g )  I 2( g ) IV. 2NO2( g ) N2O4 g 
1) II and III only 2) III only 3) I and II only 4) I, II and IV only
99. Which of the following regarding ‘Alkenes’ is a wrong statement?
1) Peroxide effect is not observed in the addition of HCl to propene
2) All alkenes except Ethene are odourless substances
3) Alkynes on reduction with sodium in liquid ammonia form cis- alkene
4) If dipole moment of trans – but -2–ene is zero, cis – but – 2 –ene might be 0.33D

100.

In the above sequence of reactions X and Y are respectively

1) NH2OH and Oximes 2) NH2-NH2 and Hydrazone
3) NH2-NH-Ph and Phenylhydrazone 4) R- NH2 and Schiff’s bases
BOTANY
SECTION – A
101. Which of the following has abundant reserve food materials in the ovule?
1) Integuments 2) Hilum 3) Nucellus 4) Funicle
102. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option
Column I Column II
(a) False fruit (i) Black pepper
(b) Perisperm (ii) Banana
(c) Parthenocarpic fruit (iii) Ricinus
(d) Albuminous seed (iv) Strawberry
1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
103. Which type of linkage/bond is formed when two nucleotides are linked to form a dinucleotide?
1) N-glycoside linkage 2) Peptide bond
3) Phosphodiester linkage 4) Hydrogen bond
104. The gene _____has been introduced in Bt-cotton to protect from corn borer
1) Cry I Ac 2) Cry II Ab
3) Cry IAc and Cry II Ab 4) Cry IAb
105. State true (T) or false (F) for the given statements and choose the correct option.
a. The lac operon consists of two regulatory genes and four structural genes.
b. The y gene codes for permease, which increases permeability of the cell to  -galactosides.
1) a-T, b-T 2) a-T, b-F 3) a-F, b-T 4) a-F, b-F
106. Select the incorrect statement.
1) A translational unit in mRNA is the sequence of RNA that is flanked by the start codon (AUG)
and the stop codon and codes for a polypeptide.
2) An mRNA has some additional sequences that are not translated and are referred as untranslated
regions (UTR)
3) The UTRs are present only at 5 ' -end
4) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred as negative regulation
107. A: The DNA-dependent DNA polymerases catalyse polymerization only in one direction, that is
5 '  3' .
B: The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses the polymerization only in one direction, that is
3'  5 ' .
Choose the correct option for the given statements
1) Only statement A is correct 2) Only statement B is correct
3) Both the statements are correct 4) Both the statements are incorrect
108. All of the following are correct w.r.t. the spring wood, except
1) Lighter in colour 2) Has a higher density
3) Vessels have wider lumen 4) Is also called early wood
109. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. anatomy of the monocotyledonous stem?
1) The ‘ring’ arrangement of vascular bundles is a characteristic of monocot stem
2) Phloem parenchyma is generally absent
3) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed
4) Monocot stem has a sclerenchymatous hypodermis
110. Gonyaulax is an example of
1) Chrysophytes 2) Euglenoids 3) Dinoflagellates 4) Slime moulds
111. Find out wrong statement regarding bryophytes
1) The plant body of bryophytes is more differentiated than that of algae
2) The sporophyte of bryophyte is haploid
3) The sex organs in bryophytes are multicellular
4) The male sex organs is called antheridium
112. Match the classes of pteridophytes with their example given below and choose the correct option
Column – I Column – II
(a) Lycopsida (i) Equisetum
(b) Psilopsida (ii) Dryopteris
(c) Pteropsida (iii) Selaginella
(d) Sphenopsida (iv) Psilotum
1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv 4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
113. The stroma lamellae membrane lacks
(a) PS I (b) PS II (c) NADP reductase enzyme
The correct ones are
1) (a) and (b) only 2) (b) and (c) only 3) (a) and (c) only 4) All (a), (b) and (c)
114. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. C 4 plants
1) They are adapted to dry tropical conditions
2) They have a special type of leaf anatomy
3) They perform a process called photorespiration
4) They tolerate higher temperatures
115. State true (T) or false (F) w.r.t. the Calvin cycle and choose the correct option.
A: Reduction is the most crucial step of the Calvin cycle.
B: Reduction involves utilization of 2 molecules of ATP for phosphorylation and two of NADPH for
reduction per CO2 molecule fixed.
C: The fixation of six molecules of CO2 and 6 turns of the cycle are required for the formation of one
molecule of glucose.
1) A-T, B-T, C-T 2) A-F, B-F, C-F 3) A-T, B-F, C-T 4) A-F, B-T, C-T
116. Select the mismatched pair about PGRs
1) Cytokinins - Used to prepare weed-free lawns
2) Ethylene - Causes sprouting of potato tubers
3) Abscisic acid - Inhibits seed germination
4) Gibberellins - Promotes bolting in beet
117. During the tricarboxylic acid cycle (TCA), a molecule of GTP is synthesized during conversion of
1)  -Ketoglutaric acid to succinyl-CoA 2) Succinic acid to fumaric acid
3) Succinyl CoA to succinic acid 4) Malic acid to oxaloacetic acid
118. In a pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed
with a green seeded plant, what ratio of green and yellow seeded plants would you except progeny.
1) 3 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 1 : 1 4) 9 : 1
119. Select the incorrect match
1) Aspergillus niger – Acetic acid 2) Lactobacillus – Lactic acid
3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae – Ethanol 4) Clostridium butylicum – Butyric acid
120. Which of the following is a member of Phaeophyceae?
1) Vovlox 2) Porphyra 3) Laminaria 4) Chara
121. Select the mismatch from the following options
1) Form bloom in polluted water bodies – Cyanobacteria
2) Presence of cell wall – Mycoplasma
3) Help in making curd – Heterotrophic bacteria
4) Heterocysts – Anabaena
122. Which of the following is an example of opposite phyllotaxy?
1) Alstonia 2) Mustard 3) Guava 4) China rose
123. Select the incorrectly matched pair regarding placentation and the examples
Placentation Examples
1) Axile Chine rose and tomato
2) Basal Sunflower and marigold
3) Free central Mustard and Argemone
4) Marginal Pea
124. Which of the following is correct sequence of different phases of prophase I of meiosis?
(a) Zygotene (b) Pachytene (c) Leptotene (d) Diplotene
(e) Diakinesis
1) a  b  c  e  d 2) b  a  d  c  e
3) c  b  a  d  e 4) c  a  b  d  e
125. All of the following are correct w.r.t. anaphase of mitosis, except
1) Chromatids move to opposite poles 2) Centromeres split
3) Chromatids separate 4) Chromosomes move to spindle equator
126. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. examples of classes of fungi
1) Phycomycetes – Alternaria, Colletotrichum
2) Basidiomycetes – Ustilago, Puccinia
3) Deuteromycetes – Trichoderm, Alternaria
4) Ascomycetes – Neurospora, Calviceps
127. Read the following Assertion and Reason and select correct option
Assertion (A): Golgi bodies are the site of synthesis of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
Reason (R): SER is site of synthesis of steroidal hormones in animal cells.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is false
4) It the assertion is false and reason true.
128. Select a polymer of fructose
1) Glycogen 2) Cellulose 3) Starch 4) Inulin
129. Identify the following compound and select the correct option

1) Adenine 2) Adenosine 3) Uracil 4) Uridine

130. The process of translation begins when
1) tRNA binds with amino acid
2) There is inactivation of amino acids
3) The small subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
4) The large subunit of ribosome binds with mRNA
131. Read the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Larger and more numerous nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out protein
synthesis.
Reason (R): Nucleolus are a site of active ribosomal RNA synthesis.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is false
4) It the assertion is false and reason true.
132. Choose the odd statement w.r.t. enzymes
1) Enzymes lower the activation energy and make the transition of substrate to product easy.
2) Succinic dehydrogenase enzyme is inhibited by a non competitive inhibitor called malonate.
3) Isomerases catalyses interconversion of optical, geometric and positional isomers.
4) The formation of enzyme substrate complex is a transient phenomenon
133. Match the following columns and select the correct option
Column I Column II
a. Cyclosporin A (i) Lactobacillus
b. Streptokinase (ii) Monascus Purpureus
c. Statin (iii) Trichoderma polysporum
d. Lactic acid (iv) Streptococcus
1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
134. The separated bands of DNA are cut from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece by a step
known as
1) Spooling 2) Elution 3) Transformation 4) Cloning
135. Triticum aestivum is not classified in the category named as
1) Poaceae 2) Monocotyledonae 3) Polymoniales 4) Angiospermae
SECTION – B
136. Which of the following spores are mitospores produced during favourable conditions in fungi?
a. Sporangiospores b. Zoospores c. Conidia
1) Only a 2) All a, b and c 3) Only c 4) Only b
137. Due to the apical dominance
1) The lateral buds do not grow 2) Apical buds do not grow
3) Bushy growth of plants take place 4) Lateral buds start developing into branches
138. Which of the following pathogens have ability to transform normal cells into tumor cells in plants
and animals, respectively?
1) Retroviruses and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
2) Meloidogyne incognita and Retroviruses
3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens and Retroviruses
4) Salmonella typhimurium and Retroviruses
139. Which of the following is not a fermented product of bacteria?
1) Dosa 2) Idli 3) Bread 4) Swiss cheese
140. “Ramachandran plot” is used to confirm the structure of
1) Sucrose 2) DNA 3) Collagen 4) Cholesterol
141. The starch synthesis regarding the grain size in garden pea show A for Bb genotype. Here A is
1) Codominance 2) Dominance
3) Incomplete dominance 4) Multiple allelism
142. The graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotypes of offspring in a
genetic cross is called
1) Pedigree 2) Punnett square 3) Idiogram 4) Karyotype
143. The process by which multiple copies of the gene (or DNA) of interest are synthesized in-vitro
requires all, except
1) DNA polymerase 2) Primers 3) DNA templates 4) Stirrer
144. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. electron transport system in mitochondria
1) NADH dehydrogenase – Complex I
2) Cytochrome bc1 - Complex III
3) Succinate dehydrogenase – Complex II
4) Cytochrome c oxidase – Complex V
145. How many documented varieties of Basmati rice are grown in India?
1) 50 2) 30 3) 27 4) 25
146. What is antisense technology
1) RNA polymerase producing DNA
2) Production of somaclonal variants in tissue culture
3) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used for synthesis of antigens
4) Post transcriptional m-RNA silencing
147. Presence of conjunctive tissue is a characteristic feature of
1) Dicot leaf 2) Dicot root 3) Monocot stem 4) Monocot leaf
148. CO2 is not released during
(a) Glycolysis (b) Link reaction (c) Kreb’s cycle (d) ETS
(e) Alcoholic fermentation (f) Lactic acid fermentation
1) ‘d’ and ‘f’ only 2) b, c, e only 3) a, d, f only 4) a, f only
149. What will be the amount of DNA in meiosis II product if meiocyte is containing 20 pg DNA in G1
phase?
1) 10 pg 2) 5 pg 3) 20 pg 4) 15 pg
150. All of the following plant hormones are acidic in nature except
1) Gibberlin 2) Auxin 3) ABA 4) Cytokinin
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A
151. Which event occur during Forcible expiration?
1) Except functional residual capacity the remaining air of the lungs is breathed out
2) Complete air is breathed out of lungs
3) Except residual volume, the remaining air is breathed out of lungs
4) Except residual volume, the remaining air is breathed into lungs
152. Most of the CO2 is transported in the form of A by B of blood
1) A = Bicarbonates, B = R.B.C 2) A = Carbamino compounds, B = R.B.C
3) A = Bicarbonates, B = Plasma 4) A = Carbamino compounds, B = Plasma
153. Assertion: Vertebro Chondral ribs are attached to 7th rib with the help of hyaline cartilage.
Reason: The Hyaline cartilage between vertebro chondral and 7th ribs is located on the dorsal surface
of the body.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of A
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true, R is false
4) A is false, R is true
154. During Oogenesis of female human being second polar body is formed along with
1) Secondary oocyte is Ampulla 2) Ootid in the ovary
3) Secondary oocyte in ovary 4) Ootid in the ampulla
155. Assertion: During HIV infection, TH cell count gets progressively decreased in the infected person.
Reason: During HIV infection, HIV after its entry into TH cells, replicate and produce progeny virus
which are released into blood and attack other TH cells.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of A
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true, R is false
4) A is false, R is true
156. During counter current exchange in the kidney, NaCl is transported from
1) The blood of Ascending limb of vasa recta into the descending limb of Henle’s loop
2) Renal filtrate of ascending limb of Henle into the blood of descending limb of vasa recta
3) Renal filtrate of descending limb of Henle into the blood of ascending limb of vasa recta
4) More than one options
157. Statement I: During each cardiac cycle lungs receive deoxygenated blood from heart and send
oxygenated blood into heart.
Statement II: During each cardiac cycle, the left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood into Aorta and
Right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood into pulmonary trunk. (Pulmonary artery)
1) Only statement A is correct 2) Only statement B is correct
3) Both statement A and B are correct 4) Both statement A and B are incorrect
158. During muscle contraction, cross bridge is broken due to the
1) Hydrolysis of ATP at Myosin head
2) Hydrolysis of ATP at acto-myosin junction
3) Attachment of ATP to ATP binding site of myosin head
4) Attachment of ATP to myosin head when it is in detached condition
159. Choose the incorrect one
1) Adipocytes of Adults – Nucleus is peripheral in position
2) Cardio-myocytes – Characterized by inter vertebral discs
3) Multipolar neurons – Located in grey matter of brain
4) Antigen sensitive B Lymphocytes – Mature cells in red bone marrow
160. Non overlapping region of sarcomere with respect to Anisotrophic band is
1) not overlapped by thin filaments
2) decreased in its length during muscle contraction
3) over lapped by thick filament
4) more than one option
161. Statement I: Compound epithelium possess many layers of cells, each layer of cells are arranged on
basement membrane.
Statement II: Compound epithelium exist in skin.
1) Only statement A is correct 2) Only statement B is correct
3) Both statement A and B are correct 4) Both statement A and B are incorrect
162. Excess ADH cause
1) Diuresis 2) Dehydration
3) Decreased B.P 4) Decreased urine output
163. This character exist in Tendon
1) Parallel arranged collagen bundles
2) Rows of collagen fibres
3) Elastic fibres
4) More than one option
164. SAN generates an action potential while
1) The semilunar valves are in closed conditions
2) The Atrio-ventricular valves are in closed condition
3) The blood is not flowing into ventricles
4) More than one option
165. Cartilage present in the pubic symphysis is
1) Hyaline cartilage 2) Elastic cartilage
3) Fibrous cartilage 4) Having non pliable matrix
166. Match the following
List I List II
I) VNTR (a) 1.4 million locations
II) SNPs (b) Vectors
III) BAC, YAC (c) Mini satellites
IV) ESTs (d) Identify all the genes that are expressed as RNA
1) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
2) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d
3) I-a, II-c, III-b, IV-d
4) I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b
167. Choose the correct w.r.t. haemophilic daughter
1) The mother should to be at least haemophilic
2) The father should be non haemophilic
3) The mother should be carrier only
4) The father should be hemophilic only
168. Source of energy for the respiration of plants is
1) NPP 2) GPP 3) GSP 4) NSP
169. Statement I: In human beings, insulin is synthesized as pro hormones.
Statement II: Pro insulin possess peptide chains in the order of A-B-C sequence.
1) Only statement A is correct 2) Only statement B is correct
3) Both statement A and B are correct 4) Both statement A and B are incorrect
170. In Plasmodium, Gametocytes are produced in
1) Human – hepatocytes
2) Mosquito – Lumen of gut
3) Human being – RBC
4) Mosquito – Gut wall
171. Presence of water vascular system is a characteristic feature of
1) Antedon 2) Chiton 3) Aedes 4) Pinctada
172. Basophil cells do not produce
1) Histamine 2) Heparin 3) Serotonin 4) Erythropoietin
173. A person having only anti-B antibodies in his plasma, can donate blood to people with blood groups
1) A and AB 2) Only B 3) O and B 4) O and A
174. Intercalated discs are present in
1) Smooth muscles
2) Striated voluntary muscles
3) Skeletal muscles
4) Cardiac muscles
175. Which of the following hormones will be detected in a sample of blood taken from hypophyseal
portal vein?
1) GnRH, GH, TSH
2) GnRH, somatostatin, TRH (releasing hormone)
3) GnRH, FSH, TRH (releasing hormone)
4) FSH, prolactin, GnRH
176. Generation of secondary messengers is associated with the mechanism of action of
1) Estrogen and ACTH 2) Insulin and TSH
3) Cortisol and ACTH 4) Progesterone and androgens
177. Total number of girdle bones are equal to
1) Number of facial bones 2) Number of ear ossicles
3) Number of cranial bones 4) Number of limb bones
178. In a sarcomere, only __________ filaments are present in H zone.
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank.
1) Actin 2) Myosin 3) Troponin 4) Tropomyosin
179. Which of the following is obtained from Cannabis sativa?
1) Opium 2) Charas 3) Morphine 4) Crack
180. Among the following terms, how many are related to physiological barrier of innate immunity
Skin, Tears, Interferons, Monocyte, Saliva, Mucus coating

1) One 2) Two 3) Four 4) Three

181. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. disease and vector
1) Dengue - Culex
2) Malaria - Anopheles
3) Chikungunya - Aedes
4) Filariasis - Culex
182. Koala, Banded anteater and Tasmania tiger cat represents example of
1) Analogous organ 2) Convergent evolution
3) Adaptive radiation 4) Adaptive convergence
183. Mammals directly evolved from
1) Thecodonts 2) Therapsids 3) Dinosaurs 4) Sauropsids
184. Complete the analogy w.r.t cranial capacity of hominids.
Homo habilis : 750 cc : : Homo erectus : ____________
1) 650 cc 2) 900 cc 3) 1450 cc 4) 160 cc
185. In the year 1947, India’s population was A and crosses B in may 2011.
1) A – 350 million, B – 35 billion 2) A – 35 million, B – 1.2 billion
3) A – 350 million, B – 1.2 billion 4) A – 35 million, B – 35 billion
SECTION – B
186. In human embryonic development first movement of foetus and appearance of hair on head are
observed by the end of
1) First month 2) Second month 3) First trimester 4) Fifth month
187. During oogenesis, a glycoprotein layer called zona pellucida is formed by
1) Primary oocyte 2) Theca cells
3) Secondary oocyte 4) Medullary stroma of ovary
188. All of the following are associated with test tube baby programme except
1) In vitro fertilization 2) ZIFT
3) IUI 4) ET
189. All of the following functions are attributed to ADH except
A : Increase in glomerular blood flow
B : Promoting diuresis
C : Decrease in blood pressure
D : Increase in body fluid volume
1) A and B 2) C and D 3) B and C 4) A and D
190. Protonephridia is an excretory organ of
1) Echinoderms 2) Arthropods 3) Molluscs 4) Cephalochordates
191. Addison’s disease is associated with
1) Hypothyroidism 2) Adrenal cortex 3) Pancrease 4) Pineal gland
192. Triploblastic, metamerically segmented, dioecious and coelomate animals are
1) Apis, Hirudinaria 2) Nereis, Locusta
3) Pheretima, Periplaneta 4) Nereis, Pila
193. The partial pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide in blood of superior vena cava are respectively
1) 104, 40 mm Hg 2) 40, 45 mmHg 3) 95, 40 mmHg 4) 45, 40 mmHg
194. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?
1) Bone marrow 2) Spleen 3) Payer’s patches 4) MALT
195. Axial skeletal bones and Appendicular skeletal bones are not connected by
1) Pectoral girdles 2) Pelvic girdle 3) Clavicle 4) Tibia – Fibula
196. Assertion : During the process of muscle contraction the length of H zone gets shortened.
Reason: During muscle contraction process, H-zone gets shortened due to the shortening of length of
thin filament.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is false
4) It the assertion is false and reason true.
197. Which disease spread through contamination by the eggs of pathogen.
1) Filariasis 2) Amoebiasis 3) Ascariasis 4) Malaria
198. In neuron, when Na-K-ATP pump is failed to function, then
1) Neuron immediately enters into Rest
2) Proteins present in axoplasm moves in the extracellular fluid present outside the axon
3) Positive charge increases in Axoplasm
4) Positive charge increases in extra cellular fluid
199. Colostrum provide
1) Active immunity 2) Innate immunity
3) Artificial acquired immunity 4) Passive immunity
200. Which of these is not an in-situ conservation method
1) Sacred Grooves 2) Biosphere reserves
3) Wild life safari parks 4) National parks
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 31.10.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-1 Max.Marks: 720
PHYSICS
1) 2 2) 3 3) 2 4) 2 5) 2 6) 1 7) 2 8) 4 9) 4 10) 3
11) 1 12) 4 13) 4 14) 4 15) 4 16) 2 17) 2 18) 3 19) 1 20) 3
21) 1 22) 4 23) 3 24) 4 25) 1 26) 3 27) 1 28) 4 29) 4 30) 2
31) 2 32) 3 33) 1 34) 1 35) 4 36) 3 37) 2 38) 4 39) 2 40) 1
41) 4 42) 4 43) 3 44) 1 45) 3 46) 1 47) 1 48) 1 49) 2 50) 4
CHEMISTRY
51) 2 52) 1 53) 1 54) 4 55) 3 56) 3 57) 2 58) 4 59) 3 60) 2
61) 4 62) 3 63) 1 64) 2 65) 2 66) 4 67) 2 68) 2 69) 4 70) 2
71) 2 72) 2 73) 3 74) 3 75) 1 76) 1 77) 1 78) 2 79) 1 80) 4
81) 3 82) 1 83) 3 84) 4 85) 4 86) 1 87) 4 88) 4 89) 2 90) 3
91) 3 92) 3 93) 2 94) 1 95) 4 96) 3 97) 4 98) 4 99) 3 100) 2
BOTANY
101) 3 102) 1 103) 3 104) 4 105) 3 106) 3 107) 1 108) 2 109) 1 110) 3
111) 2 112) 2 113) 2 114) 3 115) 4 116) 1 117) 3 118) 3 119) 1 120) 3
121) 2 122) 3 123) 3 124) 4 125) 4 126) 1 127) 2 128) 4 129) 3 130) 3
131) 1 132) 2 133) 2 134) 2 135) 3 136) 2 137) 1 138) 3 139) 3 140) 3
141) 3 142) 2 143) 4 144) 4 145) 3 146) 4 147) 2 148) 3 149) 1 150) 4
ZOOLOGY
151) 3 152) 3 153) 3 154) 4 155) 1 156) 2 157) 3 158) 3 159) 2 160) 4
161) 2 162) 4 163) 4 164) 1 165) 3 166) 2 167) 4 168) 2 169) 1 170) 3
171) 1 172) 4 173) 1 174) 4 175) 2 176) 2 177) 2 178) 2 179) 2 180) 2
181) 1 182) 3 183) 2 184) 2 185) 3 186) 4 187) 3 188) 3 189) 3 190) 4
191) 2 192) 2 193) 2 194) 1 195) 4 196) 3 197) 3 198) 3 199) 4 200) 3

PAPER SETTERS

SNO DIVISION SUBJECT NAME MOBILE NO

1 BLR-CO-KUVEMPU BHAVAN PHYSICS Sri. Suman 9640733017
2 BLR-CO-KUVEMPU BHAVAN CHEMISTRY Smt. Sucharitha 8867659202
3 BLR-CO-KUVEMPU BHAVAN BOTANY Smt. Seema 8010880904
4 BLR-CO-KUVEMPU BHAVAN ZOOLOGY Sri. RNR 9380961324
 Hints & Explanations
PHYSICS
1. 2)

2. 3) Magnitude of average velocity is

3. 2) MT 2
4. 2) Heat given by water,

5. 2) Non conservative
p2 p
6. 1)  mgh or
2m 2 gh
7. 2) v = 36 km/h = 10 ms–1. Applying conservation of momentum, we get ;
2 10   2  3V orV  4ms 1
1 1
 2  10    5   4   100  40  60 J
2 2
Loss in KE =
2 2
1
8. 4) Translational KE = mv 2
2
1 1
Rotational KE = I  2  mR 2 2  For a ring , I  mR 2 
2 2
1 1
 K R  m  R   mv 2
2

2 2
So translational KE = rotational KE
 KT
  1:1
KR
9. 4)

10. 3)

11. 1)

n  n  1
12. 4) n = n to n = 1, number of transition   10
2
n 2  n  20
n5
16
13. 4) For 16 g of helium, n1  4
4
16 1
For 16 g of oxygen, n2  
32 2
 For mixture of gases,
n1CV1  n2CV2 f
CV  where CV  R
n1  n2 2
n1CP1  n2CP2 f 
CP  where CP    1 R
n1  n2 2 
For helium, f  3, n1  4
For oxygen, f  5, n2  1/ 2
 5  1 7 
4 R   R
CP  2   2 2  47
    1.62
CV  3   1 5  29
 4 R     R 
 2  2 2 

14. 4) K  T
15. 4)

16. 2) For photo-electron emission

(Incident energy E) =  K.E.max  (Work function  )
Or E  K m  
Or E  5  6.2  11.2eV  11.2  1.6 1019  J
hc
  11.2  1.6  10 19


Or  
 6.63 10    3 10  m
34 8

11.2 1.6 1019

Or   1110 1010 m  1110 Ao
The incident radiation lies in ultraviolet region.
2a
0 0 a
17. 2) M   2 X adx  ln  2 
a
2
18. 3) Volume of first substance, V1 =1/2
Volume of second substance, V2 = 4/3
1 4 30
Relative density =   2.73
1/ 2    4 / 3 11
  r / r 
19. 1) Poisson's ratio,  
 L / L 
r
Or  1 10 3
r
Volume V   r 2 L
20. 3) Since P-V indicator diagram is given, so work done gas is area under the cyclic diagram.

21. 1) Work done = charge × potential difference W = 4 × (4 × 106 – 0) = 16 × 106 J

W 16 106
P   160MW
t 100 103
1 1 3
22. 4) For total internal reflection,    sin C  
sin C  4
sin c 3/ 4 3 4 3
tan c     
1  sin c
2
9 4 7 7
1
16
R 3 36
 R
12 7 7cm
23. 3)

R
24. 4) f   R  40cm
2
25. 1)

26. 3)

27. 1)
28. 4)

29. 4) The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is equal to zero.

30. 2)

1
31. 2)  t 2  1    2
 [T 2 ]
t
32. 3)
V  4  4
33. 1) Gravitational field g        J / kg m
X  10  10
Work done in moving a mass of 2kg from the surface to a point 5 m above the surface.
 4 J 
W  mgh   2kg     5m   4 J
 10 kgm 
34. 1)
35. 4) As electric field is conscrvative field so work done along close path is zero.
36. 3)

37. 2)
38. 4)
39. 2)
40. 1)
41. 4)

42. 4) Since initial and final states are same, hence U is same in all process. Area under the curve is
maximum in A and minimum in C. Hence, work done will be minimum in C and Q will be maximum
in A.
43. 3)
44. 1)
45. 3)

46. 1) In a progressive wave, at a point, particle performs oscillatory motion.

47. 1)
48. 1)
49. 2)
50. 4)

CHEMISTRY SOLUTIONS
51. Both are Electrophilic substitution reaction
52. Across the period metallic character decreases from left to right
53. Both are correct statements
54. Both are correct statements
55. Both undergo sp3d hybridization and both are linear
[ H  ]  C
0.01X 1.25
56.   1.25 X 103
100
pH   log(1.25 X 103 )  2.903
57. Higher the value of K H at a given pressure, lower is the solubility of the gas in the liquids
58. Sol: According to de-Broglie equation
 =h
p
h
p=

 6.62 1034
= 10
= 3.31 × 10–24 Kg ms–1
2 10

pOH  p kb  log
 salt 
base
59. Accorging to the given data
4 milli eq of acid is reacting with 6 milli eq of base
4
p OH  4.7  log
2
 5.001
p  14  5.001  8.99
H

60. it has a tendency to attain noble gas configuration and it has a tendency to attain f 0 configuration
61. Stronger the ligand, higher will be the splittingLigand strength order is Cl- < NH3< CN-
62. K 2Cr2O7 cannot undergo disproportiotation as Cr is in its maximum in Oxidation state.
63. Second excited state of He+ = 3rd level
Z2
E  13.6  2
n
64. Cr2O3 , As2O3 , Sb2O3
65. Nickel tetra carbonyl has terahedral structure
66. All are paramagnetic species
67. There is a small energy barrier of rotation about the bond and they interconvert rapidly and
hence they are conformers
2.303 a
68. K log =0.0223 min-1
t ax
69. Both II and III have 6 pi electrons and I and II have only 4
qrev
70. S 
T
71. Conjugate acid base pairs differ by one proton (H)
72. Identical compounds as both have R configuration
73. Frequency of ejected electron α K.E of electron ejected and Intensity α no of electrons ejected
74. Sol: NCERT,Equilibrium, Intext 7.26

75. Sol: X= Benzyl chloride and Y= o and p- chlorotoluene mixture.They can be distinguished by
Aq AgNO3. Benzyl chlorides gives white precipitate but not chlorotoluenes.[ NCERT,
Aromatic Hydrocarbons, properties of Benzene-13.5.5]
76. A = Acetone
77. First brominated as –NH2 of Aniline is an activator to form tribromo derivative and
diazotization followed by fluorination
78. C6 H 5COCH 3 can give Iodoform test
79. Sulphur has empty d-orbitals
80. In the form of their complexes they are used
81. The other two reactions are also positive to phenol also
82. C6H5COCl and CH3CH2-NH-COC6H5
83. Alkyl groups are oxidised to –COOH groups
84. Correct order is Cl2> Br2> F2
0
E(cell)  Ecathode
0
 Eanode
0

85.
  0.44  (0.76)  0.32 V
86. Fructose undergoes rearrangement in alkaline medium to generate –CHO group.
87. +M due to lone pairs on Oxygen atom and –I effect due to high EN of Oxygen atom
88. Glucose pentaacetate does not react as it has no free –CHO group
89. Cu(I) ions . It is Sandmeyer’s reaction

90. 1)
2) CH3COOH  Cl 3C  COOH
3) HCOOH  C6 H5COOH
4) NC  CH2 COOH  NO 2  CH2 COOH

91. NCERT in text question. (problem 5.12)

92. All collisions do not lead to product formation
93. i   b ii    d  iii    c  iv    a 
1 mole  6.022 X 1023
94. 100mlX 0.02M  2mmols  2 X 103 moles
 6.022 X 1023 X 2 X 103 moles  12.044 X 1020
XY2( g ) XY( g )  Y( g )
95. Sol. 600 0 0
600 – P P P
Total pressure = 600 – P + P + P = 800
P = 200 mm
PP 200 200
Kp = = = 100
600  P 400

96. According to IUPAC rules

97. It is lattice enthalpy by definition
98. If there is no change in no of moles before and after the reaction, there is no pressure effect
99. Alkynes on reduction with sodium in liquid ammonia form trans- alkene (Birch reduction)
NH 2  NH 2 KOH / Ethyene glycol ; 
100. R2C  O   R2C  N  NH 2   R2CH 2  N 2 Wolff-Kishner reduction
BOTANY SOLUTIONS
101. Nucellus in ovule has abundant food reserves.
102. As matched.
103. Phosphodiester linkage.
104. Cry I Ab.
105. Lac operon consists 3 structural genes.
106. UTR’s are present at both 5 ' and 3 ' end.
107. RNA polymerase catalyses synthesis of new chain in 5 '  3' direction.
108. Spring wood has lighter density.
109. Ring arrangement of vascular bundles is characteristic of dicot stem.
110. Gonyaulax is an example of Dinoflagellates.
111. The sporophyte of bryophyte is diploid.
112. As matched.
113. Stromal lamellae lacks Ps II and NADP Reductase enzyme.
114. C 4 plants lack photo respiration.
115. Carboxylation is the most crucial step of calvin cycle.
116. Auxins are used to prepare weed free lawns.
117. Substrate level phosphorylation takes place.
118. 1 : 1 – Test cross.
119. Aspergillus niger is a source of citric acid.
120. Laminaria is a brown algae.
121. Mycoplasma lacks cell wall.
122. Guava has opposite phyllotaxy
123. Free central placentation is present in Dianthus and Primrose.
124. Leptotene  Zygotene  Pachytene  Diplotene  Diakinesis.
125. Chromosomes move to spindle equator during metaphase.
126. Alternaria and Colletotrichum belong to Deuteromycetes.
127. Reason does not explain Assertion
128. Inulin is a polymer of fructose.
129. It is a N-base-Uracil.
130. Smaller submit binds with m-RNA.
131. Reason explain assertion.
132. Malonate is a non competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase.
133. As matched
135. Bread is a fermented product of yeast.
136. All are asexual spores formed during favourable conditions.
137. Lateral buds do not grow during apical dominance when auxin conc. is high.
138. Agrobacterium and Retrovirus.
139. Elution involves removal of piece of DNA from gel.
140. Ramachandran plot confirms structure of protein (collagen)
141. Bb genotype shows incomplete dominance for starch grain size as it has intermediate size.
142. Punett square.
143. Stirrer is not required during PCR technique.
144. Cytochrome C oxidase is complex IV.
145. 27 documented varieties of Basmati rice and grown in India.
146. RNAi is also called antisense technology.
147. Dicot root has conjuctive tissues.
148. Glycolysis, ETS, Lactic acid fermentation does not evolve CO2 .
149. Product of meiosis II = ‘c’
150. Cytokinin is basic in nature.
 ZOOLOGY SOLUTIONS
151. Even after forcible expirations, residual volume of air remains in lungs.
152. Most of the CO2 is transported by blood plasma in the form of sodium bicarbonates from tissues in to
lungs.
153. Vertebro chondral ribs (8, 9, 10th pairs) are attached to 7th rib with the help of Hyalin cartilage on
ventral side of the body.
154. Second polar body is formed along with otid due to II meiosis that occur in Ampulla.
155. During HIV infection, TH cell count decreases as HIV attack. TH cell in which they form new virus
again attacking TH cells.
156. Counter current exchange occur between vasa recta and Henle’s loop. In this process, NaCl is
transported from Ascending limb of Henle loop to descending limb of vasa recta.
157. During Cardiac cycle, lung receive doxygenated blood for oxygenation and after which it pumps to
heat.
158. Cross bridge is broken due to the attachment of ATP to myosin head.
159. Cardiomyocytes are characterised by intercalated discs.
160. Non overlapping zone in A band is not overlapped by thin filaments and gets decreased its length
during muscle contraction.
161. Compound epithelium exit in skin and only the cells on inner layer rest on basement membrane.
162. Excess ADH results decreased urine output.
163. Tendon possess parallel arranged collagen bundles and the rows of collagen fibres between collagen
bundles
164. SAN can generate action potentials when the semilunar valves are in closed condition.
165. Fibrous cartilage exist in pubic symphysis.
166. As per NCERT text book.
167. Haemophilic daughter always has haemophilic father and at least mother should be carrier.
168. GPP is the source for energy for plants.
169. Pro insulin in human being possess peptides in ACB sequence.
170. In plasmodium, Gametophytes are produced in the RBCs.
171. Water vascular system exist in Antedon.
172. Erythropoitin is produced by J-G cells of kidney but not basophils.
173. A person having ant B antibodies possess A blood group and can donate blood to A and AB persons.
174. Cardiac muscles are characterised by intercalated disc.
175. The blood of hypophyseal portal vein contain hormones like GnRH, Somatostatin, TRH produced by
Hypothalamus.
176. Secondary messengers are produced in response to water soluble hormones like insulin and TSH.
177. Total number of girdle bones are 6 equal to ear ossicles (6).
178. In sarcomere, only myosin filaments exist in H-zone.
179. Charas is obtained from cannabis sativa.
180. Physiological barriers are salvia and tears.
181. Dengue fever is spread by Aedes mosquito.
182. Koala, Banded eat water, and Tasmanian tiger cat exhibit Adaptive radiation.
183. Mammals are directly evolved from Therapsids.
184. Cranial capacity of Homo erectus is 900 cc.
185. Indian population in 1947 is 350 millions and in many 2011 is crossed 1.2 billion.
186. In human embryonic development, movement of foetus and appearance of hair is observed in 5th
month.
187. Zona pellucida is formed by secondary oocyte.
188. IUI is not associated with test tube baby programme.
189. ADH does not promote Diuresis.
190. Excretory organ of cephalo chordates is protonephridia.
191. Addison’s disease is associated with Adrenal cortex.
192. Triploblastic, metamerically segmented, dioecious coelomate animals are Neries and locusta.
193. Partial pressure of O2 and CO2 in the blood of superior vena cavae are 40 and 45 mm Hg respectively.
194. Primary Lymphoid organ is Bone marrow.
195. Axial and appendicular skeleton are not connected by Tibia – Fibula.
196. During muscle contraction, H-zone gets shortened due to the sliding of Thin filaments in to H-zone
over thick filaments.
197. Ascariasis spread through contaminations by its eggs.
198. When Na-K ATP pump fails, negative charge increases in E.C.F.
199. Colostrum provide passive immunity.
200. Wild life safari park are protected under Ex situ conservation method.
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 02.11.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-2 Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
In every subject:
(a) In Section – A, 35 questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from section – A
(b) In Section – B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which Answer 10 questions only.
(c) Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
PHYSICS
SECTION – A
A  x2
1. If energy of a body moving along x-axis at time ‘t’ and position ‘x’ is given by E  , then the
Bt
dimensions of AB will be
1) [M–1 L2 T1] 2) [M L T–2] 3) [M–1 L3 T–2] 4) [M L–3 T–2]
2. A particle performs SHM on x-axis with amplitude A and time period T. At t = 0 particle starts from
A
rest, then time taken by it to travel a distance will be
4

1)
T
16
2)
T
16
 
cos 1 3
4 3)
T
2
 
cos 1 3
4 4)
T
2
cos 1 1  
4
3. A honey bee is flying along straight line (x-axis) according to the equation x     t 2 where
  5 cm and   8cm / s 2 . Its acceleration when velocity of honey bee is 18 m/s, is
1) 8 cm/s2 2) 16 cm/s2 3) 4 cm/s2 4) zero
4. A string is rigidly tied at two ends and its equation of vibration is given by y  cos2t sin 2 x .
The minimum length of the string is
1)1 m 2)0.5 m 3) 5 m 4) 2 m
5. The majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor are
1) Holes 2) Electrons 3) Protons 4) Neutrons
0
6. A particle is projected from ground at an angle of 60 above the horizontal with speed 150 m/s. The
time (in second) after which particle is moving at an angle 450 with vertical, is
15 15
1) 15( 3  1) 2) ( 3  1) 3) 15( 3  1) 4) ( 3  1)
2 2
7. A large tank filled with water to a height ‘h’ is to be emptied through a small hole at the bottom. The
h h
time taken for the level of water to fall from h to is T1 and to fall from to zero is T2. The value
2 2
T
of 1 is
T2
1 1
1) 2 2) 2 1 3) 4)
2 1 2

Pg. 1
8. A convex lens of glass (  =1.5) having focal length f = 15 cm is dipped completely in water. Focal

 4
length of convex lens in water becomes  water  
 3
1) 60cm 2) 15cm 3) – 60m 4) 30 cm
9. The internal resistance of a cell of 2.1 V which gives a current of 0.2 A through a resistance of 10 
is
(1) 0.8  (2) 1.0  (3) 0.2  (4) 0.5 
10. Statement-I: Gravitational torque due to weight of a body about its centre of gravity is zero.
Statement-II: In the absence of external torque the angular momentum of a body changes.
1) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false
2) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true
3) Both S-I and S-II are true
4) Both S-I and S-II are false.
11. The electric potential V(x) in a region around the origin is given by v(x) = 4x volts. The electric
charge enclosed in a cube of 1 m side with its centre at the origin, will be
1) 8 0 2) 4 0 3) 8 0 4) Zero
12. Three rods made of the same material and having the same cross section have been joined as shown
in the figure. Each rod is of the same length. The left and right ends are kept at 0ºC and 90ºC
respectively. The temperature of the junction of the three rods will be

1) 45ºC 2) 60ºC 3) 30ºC 4) 20ºC

13. If the earth is supposed to be a sphere of radius R, and g’ is the value of acceleration due to gravity at
latitude of 300 and g at the pole, then the value of g – g’ will be
2R 3 2 R R 2
1) 2) 3)  R
2
4)
4 4 3
2
14. A coil of area 2 cm with turns 500 is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 T with its plane parallel to
field. The flux linked with the coil is
1) 50mwb 2) zero 3) 25mwb 4) 5mwb
15. Argon gas is adiabatically compressed to half its volume. If P, V and T represent the pressure,
volume and temperature of the gaseous system, at any stage, then the correct equation representing
the process is
2/5 5/3
1) TV = constant 2) VP = constant 3) TP 2/5 = constant 4) PT 2/5 = constant
16. In an ideal transformer, number of turns in primary coil are 140 and that in the secondary coil are
280. If current in the primary coil is 7 A, then that in the secondary coil is
1) 14 A 2) 3.5 A 3) 7A 4) 4A
17. Four charges, each equal to – Q are placed at the four corners of a square and charge q is at its
centre. If the system is in equilibrium the value of charges q is
Q Q Q Q
1) (1  2 2) 2)  (2 2  1) 3)  (1  2 2) 4) (1  2 2)
4 4 2 2

Pg. 2
18. The heat produced in a given resistor in a given time by the sinusoidal current I0 sin t will be the
same as that by a steady current of magnitude
I I
1) 0 2) I 0 3) 2I 0 4) 0
2 2
19. In the figure given below, the correct relation between acceleration a1, a2 and a3 is

1) 2a1  2a2  a3 2) a1  a2  2a3 3) a1  a2  a3 4) a1  a2  a3

20. The amplitudes of electric and magnetic fields in an electromagnetic wave are related to each other
as
1) E0  B0 2) E0  cB0 3) E0  B0 / c 4) E0  2 B
21. The magnetic field at the centre of a circular current carrying coil of radius R is B c. The magnetic
B
field on its axis at a distance R from the centre is Ba. The value of c will be
Ba
1 1
1) 2 2) 3) 2 2 4)
2 2 2
2
22. The binding energy of deutron (1H ) is 1.15 MeV per nucleon and an alpha particle has a binding
energy of 7.1 MeV per nucleon. Energy released in the following reaction will be
1 H 1 H 2 He  Q
2 2 4

1) 5.95 MeV 2) 26.1 MeV 3) 23.8 MeV 4) 28.9 MeV

23. The angular velocity of a rotating body is   iˆ  2 ˆj  2kˆ Velocity of a point on the body having
position vector r  4 ˆj  3kˆ is having magnitude
1) 29 unit 2) 79 unit 3) 120 unit 4) 87 unit
24. A uniform rod of length l is free to rotate in a vertical plane about a fixed horizontal axis through O.
The rod is allowed to rotate from rest from its unstable vertical position. Then, the angular velocity
of the rod when it has turned through an angle  is

3g 6g 3g 6g
1) sin  / 2 2) sin  / 2 3) cos  / 2 4) cos  / 2
l l l l

Pg. 3
25. Three blocks A, B and C, of masses 4 kg, 2kg and 1 kg respectively, are in contact on a frictionless
surface, as shown. If a force of 14 N is applied on the 4kg block, then the contact force between A
and B

1) 2N 2) 6N 3) 8N 4) 18N
26. If the critical angle for total internal reflection from a medium to vacuum is 300, then velocity of
light in the medium is
3 m m m 3 m
1)  108 2) 2  108 3) 3  108 4)  108
2 s s s 4 s
27. Which of the following waves have the maximum wave length
1) X – rays 2) Radio waves 3) Ultraviolet waves 4) Visible rays
28. A 2 µF capacitor is charged with the help of a 60 V battery. After disconnecting the battery it is
connected with another uncharged capacitor of 1µF. The potential difference across the plates of 2µ
F capacitor will be
1) 30 V 2) 60 V 3) 40 V 4) 20 V

29. Two coherent light waves of intensities I and 4I superpose at a point with phase difference of .
2
The resultant intensity of the superposed wave at that point will be
1) 1)5I 2)7I 3)6I 4)8I
30. To the captain of a ship A travelling with velocity v A 3i 4 j km / h , a second ship B appears

to have a velocity 5i 12 j km / h . What is the true velocity of the ship B ?

1) 2i 16 j km / h 2) 13i 8 j km / h 3) 2i 16 j km / h 4) 8 i j km / h
31. A small object is embedded in a glass sphere of µ = 3/2 and diameter 10 cm at a distance of 1.5 cm
left to the centre. Position of image of the object as seen by an observer standing to the left of the
sphere is nearly
1) 1 cm left to the centre 2) 2 cm left to the centre
3)1 cm right to the centre 4)2 cm right to the centre
32. For a nuclear reactor to run in critical condition the reproduction factor k should be
1) =1 2) >1 3) <1 4) >>1
33. A thin brass sheet at 20ºC and a thin steel sheet at 40°C have the same surface area. The common
temperature at which both would have the same area will be
( brass  19 106 / 0 C and  steel  11106 / 0 C )
1) – 3.7ºC 2) –7.5ºC 3)12ºC 4) Not possible
34. Part AB of the track shown below is smooth and beyond point-B track is rough. A block of mass 2
kg is released from rest at point A and it stops after travelling 8 m on track BC. The value of friction
coefficient µ between block and track BC is

1 1 3 6
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 8 4 5
Pg. 4
35. 100g of ice at 00C is mixed with 100g of water at 1000C. What will be the final temperature of the
mixture? (Assume no heat loss)
(1)200C (2) 400C (3)300C (4)100C
SECTION – B
36. On the basis of Bohr’s atomic model the radius of 3rd orbit of any atom is
1) Three times of radius of first orbit 2) Nine times of radius of first orbit
3) One third of radius of first orbit 4) Equal to the radius of first orbit
37. If the radius of a circular coil is doubled and the number of turns are halved then the magnetic field
at the centre of the coil, for the same current will
1) Get doubled 2) Get one fourth 3) Get quadrupled 4) Remains unchanged
38. Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit. The current supplied by the
battery is

1)Zero 2)0.5 A 3)0.4 A 4)0.75 A

39. A thin wooden rod of length 0.05 m is placed in front of a spherical mirror as shown in the figure.
Length of the image of the rod will be

10
1) 5cm 2) cm 3) 10 cm 4) both 2 and 3
21
40. The minimum force required to move a body up an inclined plane of inclination 30º is found to be
three times the minimum force required to prevent it from sliding down the plane. The coefficient of
friction between the body and plane is
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 2 3 3 3 4 3
41. An electron of mass m and charge e initially at rest gets accelerated by constant electric field E. The
rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength of this electron at time t is
2h h h 2h
1) 2) 3)  2
4)
eEt eEt eEt eEt 2
42. The minimum wavelength of the X-ray emitted by an X-ray tube operating at 10 kV is
o o o o
1) 1.24 A 2) 12.4 A 3) 3.1 A 4) 6.2 A
43. In a YDSE experiment, the coherent sources are at 2d distance from each other and screen is placed
a distance D from the slits. If nth bright fringe is formed on the screen exactly opposite to a slit, the
value of n must be
d2 d2 2d 2 d2
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 D D D 2 D
Pg. 5
44. Maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron is E when the wavelength of incident light is  . If
energy becomes four times when incident wavelength is reduced to one third, then work function of
the metal is
hc 3hc hc hc
1) 2) 3) 4)
  2 3
45. A Neutron’s moving with a certain kinetic energy collide head on with an atom of mass number ‘A’.
Find the fraction of kinetic energy retained by it
3 2
A 1 A 1 A 1 4A
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A 1 A 1 A 1 ( A 1) 2
46. A particle of charge q and mass m starts moving from the origin under the action of an electric field
E  Eiˆ and magnetic field B  Biˆ with velocity   0 ĵ . The speed of the particle will become 2 0
after a time.
2mυ0 2Bq 3Bq 3mυ0
(1) t = (2) t = (3) t = (4) t =
qE mυ 0 mυ0 qE
-1
47. A projectile is moving at 60ms at its highest point, where it breaks into two equal parts due to an
internal explosion. One part moves vertically up at 50 ms-1 w.r.t. ground. The other part will move
at
(1) 110 ms-1 (2) 120 ms-1 (3) 130 ms-1 (4)10 61 ms-1
48. A point charge q is placed at a distance ‘r’ from one end of a uniformly charged thin rod of length
‘L’ as shown in the figure. Magnitude of electric force between them will be

1 Qq 1 Qq Qq Qq
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 0 r(r  L) 4 0 r 2 2 0 r 2 4 0 ( L  r )2
49. Assertion(A): When a particle moves in a circular path with uniform speed , its velocity and
acceleration both change.
Reason (R): The centripetal acceleration in circular motion depends on angular velocity of the body.
1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is true but R is false
4) Both A and R are false.
50. Match list -I with list -II
List – I List – II
8RT
A) RMS velocity P)
M
1
B) Most probable velocity Q)
2  n D2
3RT
C) Average velocity R)
M
2RT
D) Mean free path S)
M
The correct match is
1) A  Q , B  S , C  R , D  P 2) A  S , B  P , C  Q , D  R
3) A  R , B  S , C  Q , D  P 4) A  R , B  S , C  P , D  Q
Pg. 6
 CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A
51. The molarity of aqueous NaCl solution which contains 5.85 g NaCl in 500 ml solution is
1 1 3 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 2 5 5
52. Which of the following set of quantum number is possible?
1
1) n = 4, l = 4, m = –3, s=+
2
1
2) n = 4, l = 3, m = –2, s= 
2
1
3) n = 2, l = 3, m = +3, s=+
2
1
4) n = 4, l = 4, m = 4, s= 
2
53. IUPAC name of element with Z = 110 is
1) Ununnillium 2) Unnilseptium 3) Unnilunium 4) Ununoctium
54. Square planar molecule among the following is
1) SF4 2) CH4 3) XeF4 4) ClF3
OH

55. Which of the following is not the product of dehydration of

(1) (2) (3) (4)

56. If enthalpy of combustion of butane is –2658 kJ mol –1 then how much heat energy will be released
by the combustion of 5.8 g of butane in kJ is
1)132.9 2)265.8 3)332.25 4)664.
57. If KC for the reaction N 2 ( g )  O2 2 NO(g) is x then KC for the reaction
1 1
NO (g) N 2 ( g )  O2 ( g ) is
2 2
1 1 1
1) x2 2) 3) 4)
x x2 x
58. Oxidation number of Cr in CrO5 is
1) +2 2) +5 3) +6 4) 10

i) O3
A + B
ii) Zn / H2O
CH3 C=CH CH3
CH3
KMnO4 / H+ A + C
59.
‘B’ on oxidation gives C. Identify A, B and C in the above reactions
(1) CH 3COCH 3 , CH 3CHO, CH 3COOH (2) CH3COOH , CH3CHO, CH3COCH3
(3) CH3COOH , CH3CHO, CH3COCH3 (4) CH 3COCH 3 , CH 3COOH , CH 3CHO
Pg. 7
60. When aqueous solution of 1 mole of PdSO4.4NH3 is treated with excess of BaCl2 solution one mole
of BaSO4 is precipitated . The formula of complex , primary and secondary valencies of metal are
respectively .
(1) [Pd(NH3)4]SO4 , 2 and 6 (2) [Pd(NH3)2SO4].2NH3 , 2 and 4
(3) [Pd(NH3)4]SO4 , 2 and 4 (4) [Pd(NH3)4SO4] , 2 and 6
61. Minimum electronegativity among the following is of
1) B 2) Al 3) In 4) Tl
62. Which of the following is a temporary effect?
1)Inductive 2) Electromeric 3) Resonance 4) Hyperconjugation
63. Which of the following can not be formed by Wurtz reaction?
1) C2H6 2) CH4 3) C3H8 4) C4H10
64. 0.126 g of an acid required 20 ml of 0.1 N NaOH for complete neutralization. Equivalent weight of
the acid is
1) 45 2) 53 3) 40 4) 63
65. P4  xNaOH  yH 2O   mNaH 2 PO2  nPH3
x, y, m, n are in the following order
1) 3, 2, 3, 1 2) 4, 2, 4, 1 3) 1, 2, 1, 2 4) 3, 3, 3, 1
66. Negative deviation solution among the following is/are
1) Phenol and aniline 2) Benzene and toluene
3) Ethanol and acetone 4) All of these
67. Which of the following is true?
1)  om KCl   om NaCl   om KBr   om NaBr 2)  om KCl   om NaCl   om KBr   om NaBr
3)  om KCl   om NaBr   om KBr   om NaCl 4) All of these
68. If half life of a first order reaction is 2 min then the ratio of initial rate to the rate after two half lives
is
1 1 2 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 4 1 1
69. Consider the following statement :
   
I) CH3O C H 2 is more stable than CH 3 C H 2
  
II) Me3 C more stable than CH3CH 2 CH 2
   
III) CH 2  CH  CH 2 is more stable than CH3CH 2 CH 2
 
IV) CH 2  CH is more stable than CH 3 CH 2
of these statement:
1) I and II are correct 2) III and IV are correct
3) I, II and III are correct 4) II, III and IV are correct
70. Which of the following oxide of Nitrogen is neutral?
1) N 2O5 2) N 2O3 3) N 2O4 4) N 2O
71. pH of a 1014 M NaOH is nearest to :
1) 10 2) 7 3) 4 4) 10.9
72. Fusion of chromite ore with sodium carbonate in free access of air gives
1) Na2CrO4 2) Fe2O3 3) CO2 4) All of these
Pg. 8
73. Total number of geometrical isomers possible for MABXL type square planar complex is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5

74. CH3 
KCN
 A 
H3O
 B The product B is
1) CH3OH 2) C2H5OH 3) CH3CHO 4) CH3COOH
75. Which of the following on reaction with Grignard reagent followed by hydrolysis form alcohol?
1) HCHO 2) CH3CHO 3) CH3COCH3 4) All of these
CHO Conc.NaOH

76. CHO Product A is

COOH CH 2OH CH 2ONa CH 2OH

1) COOH 2) COOH 3) COOH 4) COONa

77. Which of the following can give carbylamine test?
CH3
CH3 CH NH2 CH3 C NH2

1) CH3NH2 2) CH3 3) CH3 4) All of these

78. Which among the following will not react with Tollen’s reagent?
1) D-Mannose 2) D-fructose 3) Sucrose 4) Lactose
79. The incorrect combination among the following is
(1) XeF4 - sp3d2 hybridisation - Square planar

(2) XeF6 - sp3d3 hybridisation - Distorted octahedron

(3) XeO3 - sp2 hybridisation - Plane triangle

(4) XeO3 - sp3 hybridisation - Pyramidal

80. The EMF of the cell, Ni / Ni 2 0.01M // Cl (0.01) / Cl2 , Pt
is ______V, if the SRP of nickel and chlorine electrodes are -0.25V and +1.36V respectively
1)-1.79V 2) +1.79V 3)-1.61V 4)+1.61V
81. Most basic among the following in aqueous medium is
1)(CH3)2NH 2)CH3NH2 3)(CH3)3N 4)NH3
82. Which among the following will not give iodoform reaction?
1)HCHO 2)CH3CHO 3)CH3COCH3 4)C2H5OH
83. In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.20 g of an organic compound give 0.188 g of AgBr.
The % of bromine in the compound is (Molar mass of Ag = 108 g mol–1,
molar mass of Br = 80 g mol–1)
1)10% 2)20% 3)30% 4)40%
84. Statement-A : I- ion is linear.
3

Statement-B : In I3- ion, iodine is in 'sp' hybridised state.

1) Both A and B are true
2) Both A and B are false
3) A is true and B is false
4) A is false and B is true
85. Ratio of radius of fourth orbit of He+ ion to the radius of second orbit of Be3+ ion is
1) 1 : 1 2) 4 : 1 3) 1 : 4 4) 8 : 1
Pg. 9
 SECTION – B
86. If Kb for ammonia is 2 10 then the ionisation constant of NH 4 ion is
5

1) 2 1010 2) 2.5 1010 3) 5 1010 4) 5 1010

87. Which among the following is C-2 epimer of D-glucose?
1) D-galactose 2) D-Mannose 3) D-Allose 4) D-Fructose
88. Select the complex ion, which is paramagnetic in nature?
1) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ 2) [Co(C2O4)3]3– 3) [Zn(H2O)6]2+ 4) [Co(CN)6]3–
89. Total number of electrons present in antibonding molecular orbital of O2 is
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8
90. Two moles of ideal gas expand isothermally and reversibly to double its volume at 400°C. The
entropy change during the process is (log 2 = 0.3)
1) 6.74 J 2)11.5 J 3)15.61 J 4)19.5 J
91. Which of the following aquated ion is not coloured?
1Ti4+ 2) V3+ 3) Mn3+ 4) Cr2+
92. Which of the following is most basic in nature?
1) La(OH)3 2)Yb(OH)3 3)Eu(OH)3 4)Ce(OH)3
93. Reduction potential of hydrogen electrode at the pH of 1 and at 1 atm of H2(g) pressure is
1) –0.0591 V 2) 1 V 3) +0.0591 V 4) 0 V
94. For the reaction A + B → product following data were obtained.
[A] [B] Initial rate
(i) 0.1 0.1 0.04
(ii) 0.2 0.1 0.04
(iii) 0.1 0.2 0.16
Overall order of the reaction is
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
CH3
_
CH3 C Br + CH3CH2ONa+ P(Major)

95. Consider the following reaction CH3 Major product P

is
CH3
CH3 C CH2 CH3 C OC2H5

1) CH3 2) CH3
CH3
CH3 C CH2 OCH3 CH3 C CH2 OC2H5

3) CH3 4) CH3
96. Match the following
List – I List – II
I) Acidic nature a) HF> HI > HBr > HCl
II) Reducing nature b) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
III) Boiling points c) HCl > HBr > HI > HF
IV) Volatility d) HCl > HF > HBr > HI
The correct match is
I II III IV
1) a b c d
2) b d a c
3) d c a b
4) d b a c
Pg. 10
97. Which of the following is not a characteristic of interstitial compounds of transition elements?
1) The formulae of these compounds do not correspond to any normal oxidation state
2) They have melting points higher than those of pure elements
3) They are very hard and some compounds approach diamond in hardness
4) They do not exhibit metallic conductivity
98. The K SP of FeS  4  1019 at 298K. The minimum concentration of H  ions required to prevent
the precipitation of FeS from a 0.01M solution Fe 2 salt by passing H 2 S (0.1M)
21
(Given H 2 S ka1  ka2  10 )

1) 1.6  103 M 2) 2.5  104 M

3) 2.0  102 M 4) 1.2  104 M
99. Correct order of stability is:
1) cis – 2 – butene > 1 – butene > trans – 2 - butene
2) trans – 2 – butene > cis – 2 – butene > 1 – butene
3) 1 – butene > cis – 2 – butene > trans – 2 – butene
4) cis – 2 – butene > trans – 2 – butene > 1- butene

100.

1) 2)

3) 4)
BOTANY
SECTION – A
101. Select the wrong statement w.r.t kingdom: Monera:
(1) Both the structure and behaviour of bacteria are simple.
(2) Mycoplasma do not survive without oxygen.
(3) Bacilli form spores during favourable conditions.
(4) All of the above.
102. Both p-arms and q-arms are seen in:
(A) Metacentric chromosomes (B) Sub-metacentric chromosomes
(C) Acrocentric chromosomes (D) Telocentric chromosomes
The correct answer is:
(1) A and B (2) B and C (3) B, C and D (4) A, C and D
103. Centrioles are duplicated in animal cells during:
(1) G1- phase (2) S- phase 3) G2- phase 4) M- phase
Pg. 11
104. White spots disease on the leaves of mustard is caused by:
(1) Albugo (2) Aspergillus (3) Agaricus (4) Alternaria
105. Select the correctly typed scientific name of mango:
(1) Mangifera indica Linn. (2) Mangifera indica Linn.
(3) Mangifera indica Linn. (4) Mangifera Indica Linn.
106. Select the incorrect statement of the following:
(1) Desmids are chief producers in the oceans.
(2) Dinoflagellates are used in the filtration of oils and syrups.
(3) Euglenoids have two equal size flagella.
(4) All of the above.
107. Viroids differ from Prions in --------------------:
(1) RNA without capsid coat (2) Abnormally folded proteins
(3) Being infectious (4) Causing mad cow disease
108. Which of the following is correct w.r.t imperfect fungi?
(1) Possess aseptate and coenocytic mycelium
(2) Reproduce sexually by oospores
(3) Include truffles and morels
(4) Reproduce asexually by conidia
109. Which of the following organisms were not classified in the five-kingdom classification system
by R.H. Whittaker:
(a) Chlorella and Chlamydomonas (b) Amoeba and Paramecium
(c) Lichens and Prions (d) Viruses and Viroids
(1) Both (a) and (b) (2) Only (b) (3) Both (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
110. The correct floral formula of Brassicaceae is

(1) (2) K22C4 A33 G 2

(3) K22C4 A24 G 2 (4)

111. In cymose inflorescence __________:
(1) The peduncle has unlimited growth (2) The main axis terminates with a flower
(3) The flowers are borne in acropetal order (4) All of these
112. Dicot root differs from monocot root in:
(1) Having radial vascular bundles (2) Having exarch xylem
(3) Showing secondary growth (4) Having root hairs
113. Identify the following phases (A), (B), and (C) of meiosis:

(A) (B) (C)

(1) A= Prophase-I, B= Metaphase-II, C= Metaphase- I
(2) A= Metaphase-II, B= Metaphase- I, C= Prophase-II
(3) A= Metaphase-II, B= Prophase-I, C= Metaphase- I
(4) A= Metaphase-I, B= Telophase-I, C= Anaphase-I
114. Phloem parenchyma does not store:
(1) Food (2) Tannins (3) Mucilage (4) Latex

Pg. 12
115. The paramount importance of algae is:
(1) Primary producers of energy-rich compounds
(2) Producers of hydrophilic colloids
(3) Used as food by space travellers
(4) Used to produce iodine
116. Assertion (A): Chlorophyll- a is the chief pigment of photosynthesis in plants.
Reason (R): Chlorophyll- a shows peaks at blue and red wavelengths in the action spectrum and
absorption spectrum.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not correctly explain (A).
117. If the sequence of coding strand of DNA is 5`GGCCTTAATGGCG3`, what will be the
sequence of mRNA formed from its template strand?
(1)5`CCGGAAUUACCGC3` (2) 3`GGGGAATTACGCC5’
(3) 3’GGCCAAUUACCGC5` (4) 5’GGCCUUAAUGGCG3`
118. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t bundle sheath cells in C4- plants?
(A) Several layers of cells surrounding vascular bundles
(B) Intercellular spaces are present
(C) Do not permit gaseous exchange
(D) CO2 concentration is increased due to decarboxylation of C3- acid.
(1) A and B (2) B and C (3) B and D (4) A and D
119. Assertion (A): Respiration is an amphibolic pathway.
Reason (R): Carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids are not only degraded also synthesized in respiratory
pathway.
(1) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not correctly explain (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
120. RNAi occurs at the level of:
(1) DNA replication (2) Transcription (3) RNA splicing (4) Translation
121. The alignment of chloroplasts at low light intensity is:
(A) Parallel to the walls of mesophyll cells (B) Perpendicular to the walls of mesophyll cells
(C) Parallel to the incident light (D) Perpendicular to the incident light
(1) Both (A) and (B) (2) Only (D)
(3) Both (A) and (D) (4) Only (C)
122. Select the correct match of the following:
List- I List- II
I. IAA A. Adenine
II. Zeatin B. Tryptophan
III. GA3 C. Ethephon
IV. Ethylene D. Terpenes

(1) I- D, II- A, III- B, IV- C

(2) I- B, II- A, III- D, IV- C
(3) I- C, II- A, III- D, IV- B
(4) I- C, II- D, III- B, IV- A
Pg. 13
123. Lac- operon is a:
(1) Regulation of enzyme synthesis by its product.
(2) Regulation of enzyme synthesis by its substrate.
(3) Regulation of enzymes of lactose biosynthesis.
(4) All of the above
124. Which of the following is the strongest oxidant in the Z- scheme?
(1) H2O (2) P700 (3) P700+ (4) P680+
125. S- I: Cholesterol is a 27-carbon lipid.
S- II: Lysine is an aromatic aminoacid.
(1) S- I is true & S- II is false (2) S- I is false & S- II is true
(3) Both S-I & S-II are true (4) Both S- I & S- II are false
126. Early seed production in conifers is promoted by:
(1) ABA (2) GA (3) 2, 4- D (4) Kinetin
127. All of the following are characteristics of insect-pollinated flowers, except:
(1) Colourful, fragrant (2) Sticky pollen grains
(3) Floral rewards (4) Long ribbon-like pollen grains
128. In the EMP- pathway of glycolysis, two redox equivalents are removed from:
(1) 3- PGA (2) 3- PGAL (3) Pyruvate (4) 1,3 -BPGA
129. Which of the following processes take place in the matrix of mitochondria?
(a) Formation of acetyl CoA (b) Citric acid cycle
(c) ETS (d) Oxidative phosphorylation
(1) Only- (a) (2) Only- (c) (3) Both (b) and (d) (4) Both (a) and (b)
130. The residual, persistent nucellus is found in the seeds of:
(1) Arhar (2) Beet (3) Coconut (4) Maize
131. S- I: Mendel’s law of independent assortment applies to the genes located on the same chromosome.
S- II: The A, B, and O blood groups of humans show co-dominance.
(1) S- I is true & S- II is false (2) S- I is false & S- II is true
(3) Both S-I & S-II are true (4) Both S- I & S- II are false
132. Select the correct match of the following:
List- I List- II
I. Ribozyme A. 7- methyl GTP
II. UTR B. Ochoa enzyme
III. Polynucleotide phosphorylase C. Methionine
IV. Initiator tRNA D. 23S rRNA
(1) I- D, II- A, III- B, IV- C (2) I- B, II- A, III- D, IV- C
(3) I- C, II- A, III- D, IV- B (4) I- C, II- D, III- B, IV- A
133. Which genes are expressed in Bt- crops to resist the action of corn borers?
(1) Cry I Ac (2) Cry II Ab (3) Cry I Ab (4) Lac Z
134. Which of the following enzyme contains haem as the prosthetic group?
(1) Carboxy peptidase (2) Peroxidase
(3) Catalase (4) Both 2 and 3
135. Seeds are produced without fertilisation in:
(1) Asteraceae (2) Poaceae (3) Brassicaceae (4) Both 1 and 2
SECTION – B
136. The BOD of sewage was significantly reduced in ---------------------- tank of STP:
(1) Anaerobic sludge digester (2) Primary settling tank
(3) Aeration tank (4) Activated sludge tank
Pg. 14
137. Bacterial transformation was inhibited by ------------- enzyme during the experiment which
proved DNA as Griffith’s transforming principle:
(1) Protease (2) RNase (3) DNase (4) All of these
138. Select the correct match of the following:
List- I (placentation) List- II (Examples)
I. Basal A. Lemon
II. Parietal B. Primrose
III. Free central C. Marigold
IV. Axile D. Mustard
(1) I- D, II- A, III- B, IV- C (2) I- B, II- A, III- D, IV- C
(3) I- C, II- A, III- D, IV- B (4) I- C, II- D, III- B, IV- A
139. Assertion (A): Proteins show lateral movements within a bilayer.
Reason (R): Lipids show quasi-fluid nature in a bilayer.
(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A).
(2) (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not correctly explain (A).
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
140. Select the correct statement of the following:
(1) Growth is determinate in the leaves, flowers, and fruits of plants.
(2) A single root apical meristem in maize increases in size up to 3,50,000 times.
(3) In plants, growth and differentiation are not open forms.
(4) All of these.
141. α- helix and β- sheet structures of proteins were first discovered by:
(1) G.N. Ramachandran (2) Linus Pouling
(3) Watson and Crick (4) Boyer and Cohen
142. Which of the following forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and
that of cytoplasm?
(1) Periplasmic space (2) Intermembrane space
(3) Perimitochondrial space (4) Perinuclear space
143. Cells are much thickened at corners due to the deposition of cellulose, hemicellulose, and
pectin. This is the characteristic of:
(1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma (3) Sclereids (4) Bast fibres
144. When a snapdragon plant bearing pink flowers was selfed, 39 plants had red flowers and
39 plants had white flowers. How many plants will have pink flowers in this experiment?
(1) 39 (2) 69 (3) 78 (4) 138
145. Mendel’s law of independent assortment is related to the orientation of chromosomes at:
(1) Anaphase of mitosis (2) Metaphase-I of Meiosis-I
(3) Anaphase-I of meiosis-I (4) Anaphase-II of meiosis- II
146. RNA is the genetic material in:
(1) ф X-174 (2) E. coli (3) QB- bacteriophage (4) All of these
147. Select the correct match of the following:
List- I (placentation) List- II (Examples)
I. Ladybird A. Nitrogen fixer in paddy fields
II. Cyanobacteria B. Mycobiont in Mycorrhiza
III. Rhizobium C. Controls Aphids
IV. Glomus D. Symbiotic diazotroph

(1) I- D, II- A, III- B, IV- C (2) I- B, II- A, III- D, IV- C

(3) I- C, II- A, III- D, IV- B (4) I- C, II- D, III- B, IV- A
Pg. 15
148. Select the incorrect statements of the following:
(A) The DNA polymerases can initiate DNA replication on their own.
(B) All reference point while defining a transcription unit is made with coding strand.
(C) Inheritance of a character is not affected by the regulatory sequences of a structural gene.
(D) RNA polymerase catalyses the opening of DNA helix during transcription.
(1) A and C (2) B and C (3) A and B (4) A and D
149. Mammals, Wheat, Angiosperms, Muscidae and Plants represent:
(1) Taxa at different levels (2) Categories at same levels
(3) Taxa at same levels (4) Categories at different levels
150. 15 14
The percentage of hybrid DNA (N -N ) in E. coli in Meselson and Stahl experiment after
60min. of DNA replication is:
(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 75% (4) 100%
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A
151. The epithelium found in the lining of stomach and intestine is
1) Compound 2) Simple squamous 3) Cuboidal ciliated 4) Simple columnar
152. Bones differ from cartilage as the former lacks
1) Pliable matrix 2) Lacunae 3) Calcium salts 4) Collagen fibres
153. In which of the following organisms, female can produce two types of gametes?
1) Humans 2) Grasshopper 3) Birds 4) Drosophila
154. Choose the incorrect statement about sickle-cell anaemia:
1) It is an autosomal recessive disease.
2) Individuals with genotype HbA HbS appear apparently unaffected.
3) The disease/defect is caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid at 6th position of beta
chain.
4) The disease is controlled by a single pair of allele.
155. Choose the odd one w.r.t. Turner’s syndrome
1) Due to monosomy 2) Genetic compliment is 44 + XXY
3) Are sterile females 4) Have short stature
156. The amount of haemoglobin in every 100 mL of blood in a healthy individual is:
1) 25 – 30 grams 2) 25 – 30 mg.
3) 12 – 16 grams 4) 10 – 20 mg.
157. The universal blood donor group has:
1) Both anti – A and anti – B antibodies 2) both antigen A and B on the surface of RBC.
3) Only antigen A on the RBC 4) Only anti – B antibody in the blood plasma.
158. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. oxyhaemoglobin.
1) It dissociates near tissues due to increase in H+ concentration.
2) Formation of oxyhaemoglobin occurs in the alveoli and dissociation at the tissues.
3) Formaton of oxyhaemoglobin increases during carbon monoxide poisoning
4) The oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve is sigmoid in shape.
159. A chronic respiratory disorder characterised by damage of alveolar wall is
1) Asthma due to allergic conditions
2) Emphysema due to cigarette smoking
3) Common cold caused due to Rhino viruses
4) Pneumonia due to bacterial infection.
160. Conditional reabsorption of mainly Na+ from DCT occurs under the direct influence of
1) ADH 2) Aldosterone 3) ANF 4) Renin
Pg. 16
161. How many of the animals given below are uricotelic?
Reptiles, birds, cartilaginous fishes, mammals, aquatic insects, Hydra, land snails
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
162. The ‘renin’ which plays a complex regulatory role in kidney functioning is released from:
1) Liver 2) Adrenal Cortex 3) Adrenal medulla 4) JG cells
163. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. blood corpuscles in a healthy male.
Cells Number Function
3
1) Thrombocytes 1.5 – 3.5 lakhs/mm Blood clotting
2) Monocytes 6 – 8% of all leucocytes Phagocytosis
3) Lymphocytes 20 – 25% of all WBCs Immune responses of the body
4) Eosinophils 0  1% of all leucocytes Release heparin, histamine & serotonin
164. QRS complex in an ECG represents systole of
1) Only left ventricle 2) Only left atrium 3) Both ventricles 4)Only right ventricle
165. In the diagram given below, A and B respectively represent binding sites for

1) Myosin, actin 2) Actin, ATP 3) ATP, myosin 4)Tropomyosin, actin

166. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. human rib cage.
1) Vertebrosternal ribs are attached with the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage
2) The last two pairs of ribs are called vertebral ribs
3) Vertebrochondral ribs articulate with the 7th rib, thus are called false ribs
4) Bicephalic ribs attach to the sternum with 2 heads
167. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. the neuron.
1) Neuron is considered as structural and functional unit of neural system.
2) Neuron is a microscopic structure and is composed of three major parts, cell body, dendrites and
axon.
3) In most mammals, cell body is without nucleus but contain Nissl’s granules.
4) The axons transmits nerve impulses awau from the cell body.
168. Upon arrival of a stimulus, the polarised state of a resting neuronal membrane is reversed by
1) Efflux of Na+ to the outside 2) Activation of Na+ – K+ pump
3) Influx of Na+ into axoplasm 4) Influx of K+ into axoplasm
169. Which parts of the human brain are responsible for controlling body temperature and respiration
respectively?
1) Pons and medulla oblongata 2) Hypothalamus and cerebellum
3) Hypothalamus and medulla oblongata 4) Medulla oblongata and hypothalamus
170. Hyposecretion of thyroid hormones can lead to all the following, except
1) Myxoedema 2) Grave’s disease 3) Simple goitre 4) Cretinism
171. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. steroid hormones.
1) Their receptors are intracellular receptors
2) Upon binding with the receptor, they regulate gene expression
3) They bring about physiological response through cAMP and IP3
4) They are slower but long lasting in response as compared to lipid insoluble hormone
Pg. 17
172. Which of the following is a correct match of animal and its respective taxon?
1) Equus – Mammalia 2) Pinctada – Echinodermata
3) Felis – Aves 4) Spider – Annelida
173. Among the following the sponge is
1) Paramoecium 2) Ctenoplana 3) Sycon 4) Hydra
174. Male Periplaneta americana
1) Lacks anal cerci 2) Has caudal styles
3) Possesses three pairs of wings 4) Has total four jointed legs
175. The alimentary canal of cockroach has all the following, except
1) Crop 2) Ileum 3) Radula 4) Hepatic caecae
176. Choose the incorrect feature w.r.t. Struthio.
1) Oviparous 2) Poikilothermic nature
3) Pneumatic bones 4) Development direct
177. A disadvantage of asexual reproduction is that it
1) Is rapid 2) Is a simple process
3) Is uniparental 4) Does not contribute to evolution
178. Read the following statements.
A: Zona pellucida is a non – cellular layer secreted by the secondary oocyte around itself.
B: Implantation occurs in the uterus.
Choose the correct option.
1) Only A is correct 2) Only B is correct
3) Both A and B are incorrect 4) Both A and B are correct
179. Choose the incorrect statement.
1) Leydig cells of testes synthesise and secrete testicular hormones called androgens.
2) Small amounts of androgenic steroids are secreted by the adrenal cortex.
3) Menstruation in human females occurs due to LH surge.
4) The anterior lobe of pituitary secretes FSH which causes growth of ovarian follicle.
180. Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of ‘A’ from ‘B’. Choose the option that fills the blank
correctly.
1) A – Spermatozoa, B – Spermatid.
2) A – Primary spermatocyte, B – Secondary spermatocyte.
3) A – Spermatogonia, B – Primary spermatocyte.
4) A – Secondary spermatocyte, B – Spermatid.
181. Choose the odd one w.r.t. bacterial STI’s.
1) Syphilis 2) Gonorrhoea 3) Chlamydiasis 4) Genital herpes
182. Match Column I and II w.r.t. action of contraceptives.
Column I Column II
a. Jellies (i) Anovulation
b. Progestasert (ii) Spermicidal
c.Copper T (iii) Suppress sperm motility
(iv) Prevent deposition of sperms into vagina
Choose the correct option.
1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii) 2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) 3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv) 4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii)
183. According to Charles Darwin, all the following can cause evolution, except
1) Natural selection 2) Mutation 3) Branching descent 4) Variations
184. About ______ million years ago, the dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth.
1) 50 2) 65 3) 150 4) 200
Pg. 18
185. The brain capacity of Homo erectus is about:
1) 900 cc 2) 650 cc 3) Less than 500 cc 4) 1300 – 1650 cc
SECTION – B
186. The unisexual chordate with two auricles and one ventricle in heart is:
1) Fishes 2) Crocodiles 3) Amphibians 4) All the listed
187. About 50% of lymphoid tissue in human body is contributed alone by
1) Spleen 2) Thymus 3) MALT 4) Lymph nodes
188. An addictive compound obtained from Cannabis sativa which is known to affect cardiovascular
system is
1) Heroin 2) Hashish 3) Cocaine 4) Caffeine
189. The specialissed connective tissue which can resist compression is/are:
1) Cartilage 2) Bone 3) Muscle 4) Both 1 and 2
190. Total volume of air a person can inspire after a normal expiration is:
1) Inspiratory reserve volume 2) Inspiratory capacity
3) Expiratory reserve volume 4) Total lung capacity
191. Declining population
1) Is called stable population
2) Shows bell shaped age pyramid
3) Has less pre-reproductive individuals than reproductive
4) Is young population
192. In grassland ecosystem, which of the pyramids are upright?
a. Pyramid of energy b. Pyramid of number c. Pyramid of biomass
1) Only a 2) Only a and b 3) Only c 4) All a, b and c
193. Which of the following is not the alien species for India?
1) Parthenium 2) Lantana 3) Eichhornia 4) Saccharum barberi
194. Second heart sound ‘dub’ is associated with the closure of the
1) Tricuspid valve 2) Semilunar valve
3) Tricuspid and Bicuspid valves 4) AV valves and Aortic valves
195. Human kidneys can produce urine nearly ______ times concentrated than the initial filtrate formed.
1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 10
196. Which of the following genetic disorder is caused due to aneuploidy of autosomes ?
1) Klinefleter’s syndrome 2) Turner’s syndrome
3) Down’s syndrome 4) Phenylketonuria
197. Assertion: The possibility of a female becoming haemophilic is extremely rare.
Reason: Mother of such a female has to be at least carrier and the father should be haemophilic
(unviable in the later stage of life).
1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
198. Assertion: AIDS is not a congenital disease.
Reason: The transmission of HIV infection generally occurs from a infected mother to her child .
1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

Pg. 19
199. Assertion: Whether it is the plants in Britain, birds in Califorina or molluscs in New York State, the
slopes of the regression line (Z) are amazing similar
Reason: Regardless of the taxonomic group or the region value of regression line (Z) are amazingly
similar.
1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
200. Consider the following statements-
A. Catecholomines stimulate the breakdown of glycogen into glucose.
B. Glucocorticoids produces Anti-inflammatory reactions.
C. Erythropoietin stimulates RBC production whereas Cortisol inhibit RBC production.
D. Insulin results in hyperglycemia whereas Glucogon causes hypoglycemia.
The incorrect statements among the above are:
1) A and B 2) B and C 3) C and D 4) A and D

Pg. 20
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 02.11.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-2 Max.Marks: 720
PHYSICS
1) 1 2) 3 3) 2 4) 2 5) 1 6) 2 7) 2 8) 1 9) 4 10) 1
11) 4 12) 2 13) 2 14) 2 15) 3 16) 2 17) 1 18) 1 19) 2 20) 2
21) 3 22) 3 23) 1 24) 2 25) 2 26) 1 27) 2 28) 3 29) 1 30) 4
31) 2 32) 1 33) 2 34) 2 35) 4 36) 2 37) 2 38) 2 39) 2 40) 2
41) 3 42) 1 43) 3 44) 4 45) 3 46) 4 47) 3 48) 1 49) 2 50) 4
CHEMISTRY
51) 1 52) 2 53) 1 54) 3 55) 3 56) 2 57) 4 58) 3 59) 1 60) 3
61) 2 62) 2 63) 2 64) 4 65) 4 66) 1 67) 1 68) 4 69) 3 70) 4
71) 2 72) 4 73) 2 74) 4 75) 4 76) 4 77) 4 78) 3 79) 3 80) 2
81) 1 82) 1 83) 4 84) 3 85) 4 86) 3 87) 2 88) 1 89) 3 90) 2
91) 1 92) 1 93) 1 94) 3 95) 1 96) 4 97) 4 98) 1 99) 2 100) 2
BOTANY
101) 4 102) 2 103) 2 104) 1 105) 3 106) 4 107) 1 108) 4 109) 3 110) 3
111) 2 112) 3 113) 3 114) 2 115) 1 116) 2 117) 4 118) 3 119) 3 120) 4
121) 3 122) 2 123) 2 124) 4 125) 1 126) 2 127) 4 128) 2 129) 4 130) 2
131) 4 132) 1 133) 3 134) 4 135) 4 136) 3 137) 3 138) 4 139) 1 140) 1
141) 2 142) 4 143) 2 144) 3 145) 2 146) 3 147) 3 148) 1 149) 1 150) 1
ZOOLOGY
151) 4 152) 1 153) 3 154) 3 155) 2 156) 3 157) 1 158) 3 159) 2 160) 2
161) 1 162) 4 163) 4 164) 3 165) 2 166) 4 167) 3 168) 3 169) 3 170) 2
171) 3 172) 1 173) 3 174) 2 175) 3 176) 2 177) 4 178) 4 179) 3 180) 1
181) 4 182) 2 183) 2 184) 2 185) 1 186) 3 187) 3 188) 2 189) 1 190) 2
191) 3 192) 4 193) 4 194) 2 195) 3 196) 3 197) 1 198) 2 199) 1 200) 3

PAPER SETTERS

SNO DIVISION SUBJECT NAME MOBILE NO

1 VIJ-N-ELITE-CO PHYSICS Mr. VVRK 91823 75936
2 VIJ-N-ELITE-CO CHEMISTRY Mr. Nagaiah 98496 55655
3 VIJ-N-ELITE-CO BOTANY Mr. Rasool 90001 06103
4 VIJ-N-ELITE-CO ZOOLOGY Mr. Shafeeq 97000 06360

Pg. 1
 Hints & Explanations
PHYSICS
1.

2.

3.

4. y  sin  x cos 2t Comparing

with y  2 A sin kx cos t; we have   1m . Minimum length of string
 
 L    0.5m
first mode)  2
5. Conceptual
6.

Pg. 2
7.

8.

2.1
9. 0.2   10  r  10.5  r  0.5 
10  r

10. Conceptual

11.

12. Let the temperature of junction be  . Since roads B and C are parallel to each other (because both
having the same temperature difference). Hence given figure can be redrawn as follows
Q 1   2   Q  Q
 and     
t R  t  AB  t  BC


 90       0
R/2 R
180  2      60ºC
13.

14.


15. For an adiabatic process, PV =constant
TV 1 = constant; and

Pg. 3
 T  P1/ = constant;
Putting,   5 / 3 (argon being a monotomic gas), check the options
16.

17.

18.

19.

E0
20. C
B0
21.

22.

23.

Pg. 4
 l l
24. Height descended by centre of mass h   cos 
2 2
Loss in PE = gain in KE
1  ml 2  2
mgh   
2  3 
Put the value of h and solve to get the answer.
25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30. v B  v BA  v A
  
 5i  12 j  3i  4 j 
v B  8i  8 j

Pg. 5
31.

32. Conceptual
33.

34.

35.  mL  ms ice   ms water

100 80  t   100 100  t   t  100 C
36.

37.

Pg. 6
38.

39.

40. mg  sin    cos   3mg  sin    cos 

41.

42.

43.

Pg. 7
44.

45. Conceptual
46. Magnetic field has no effect on the charged particle
2
 Eq 
V Vx2  Vy2  4Vo2  Vo2  t
 m 
3mVo

qE
47. Law of conservation of linear momentum is applied at maximum height of projectile.

 m  m   
m  60 i   (50 j )  v 2  v 2  120 i  50 j
2 2
48.

49. Conceptual

50. Conceptual

Pg. 8
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 07.11.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-3 Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
In ever y s u bject:
( a ) In Section – A , 3 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. A n s w er all 3 5 qu estion s from section – A
( b ) In Section – B , 1 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. O ut of w hich A n s w er 1 0 qu estion s onl y .
(c) E ach qu estion c a rries 4 m a r k s. F or e ach correct respon se w ill get 4 m a r k s. F or e ach
incorrect respon se, one m a r k w ill be d e d ucte d from th e tot al scores.
PHYSICS
SECTION – A
1. A) A diver under water, looks obliquely at a fisherman standing on the bank of a lake. The fisherman
look shorter to the diver than what he actually is
B) A convex mirror always produces a virtual image independent of location of the real object
1) A, B are true 2) A is true, B is false
3) A is false, B is true 4) A, B are false
2. A short bar magnet has a magnetic moment of 0.48JT-1. The magnetic field at 10 cm distance from
centre of magnet on its axial line is
1) 0.96 gauss along S – N direction 2) 0.96 gauss along N – S direction
3) 0.48 gauss along S – N direction 4) 0.48 gauss along N – S direction
3. The refractive index of glass is 1.5. The speed of light in glass is (speed in vaccum is 3×108ms-1).
1) 1.66×108ms-1 2) 2×108ms-1 3) 1.5×108ms-1 4) 1.2×108ms-1
4. The distance for which ray opticals is good approximation for an aperture of 4mm and 400nm
wavelength is
1) 90m 2) 180m 3) 40m 4) 60m
5. In photoelectric effect experiment, the intensity of light is varied by changing the distance of light
source from emitter. Which of the following graphs depict he variation of photoelectric current C
with intensity of light l?

1) 2) 3) 4)
6. A moving electron has wavelength of 1.00nm. The kinetic energy of electron is
1) 0.34 eV 2) 1.44 eV 3) 1.24 eV 4) 12.2 eV
7. Assertion (A): The Bohr model is not applicable to atoms having many electrons.
Reason (R): In atoms having many electrons, each electron interacts not only with positively charged
nucleus but also with all other electrons.
1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanations of assertion.
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of essertion.
3) Assertion is true and reason is false
4) Assertion is false and reason is true
Pg. 1
8. The correct statements of the following about Electromagnetic waves are
a) Accelerated charges radiate E.M. waves
b) The frequency of wave is equal to the frequency of oscillating charge
c) Gamma rays are produced by radioactive decay of nucleus
1) a,b only 2) a,c only 3) b,c only 4) All a,b,c are correct
9. A 10.2 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. The series of
wavelength that will be emitted is
1) Balmer 2) Lyman 3) Paschen 4) Both Lyman and Balmer
10. What is the ratio of the radii of the nuclei of mass numbers 27 and 64.
3 4 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 3 4 3
56
11. Find the binding energy of 26 Fe . Atomic mass of Fe is 55.9349u and that Hydrogen is 1.00783u
and Mass of neutron is 1.00876u
1) 992.34MeV 2) 882.34MeV 3) 687.55MeV 4) 492.55MeV
12. In a semi conductor at 0 K
1) The Conduction band is completely filled with electrons.
2) The valency band is completely filled with electrons.
3) Both conduction and valency bands are partially filled with electrons.
4) The forbidden energy gap is zero
13. A) for a diode the forward bias resistance is low as compared to the reverse bias resistance
B) In rectifier circuits capacitor input filters use large capacitors
1) A,B are true 2) A is true, B is false
3) A is false, B is true 4) A,B are false
14. The combination of gates shown in the diagram is equivalent to

1) OR 2) AND 3) NAND 4) NOR

v
15. A quantity X is given by 0 L where 0 is the permittivity of vaccum, L is length, V is
t
potential difference and t is time interval. The dimensional formula for X is the same as that for
1) Resistance 2) Charge 3) Voltage 4) Current
16. Two identical capacitors have the same capacitance C. One of them is charged to a potential V1 and
the other to V2. If they are connected with their unlike plates together, the decrease in energy of the
combined system is
1 1 1 1
1) C (V12  V22 ) 2) C (V12  V22 ) 3) C (V1  V2 ) 2 4) C (V1  V2 ) 2
4 4 4 4
-6 3
17. A cube has side length 1.2×10 m . Its volume is
1) 1.7×10-6m3 2) 1.73×10-6m3 3) 1.70×10-6m3 4) 1.732×10-6m3
18. A comparison is drawn between damped oscillator and LCR series circuit when an AC voltage is
applied on it. The equivalent of damping constant in LCR circuit is
1) L 2) C 3) R 4) Charge on capacitor

Pg. 2
19. Some relations and laws related to fluids are given in column A, While the reasons behind them are
given in column B. Match A and B

Column - I Column - II
(a) Stoke’s law energy e) Surface potential
(b) Equation of continuity f) Viscosity
(c) Bernolli’s theorem g) Conservation of mass
(d) Velocity efflux h) Conservation of energy

1) (a) – (e), (b) – (f), (c) – (g), (d) – (h) 2) (a) – (f), (b) – (h), (c) – (g), (d) – (e)
3) (a) – (f), (b) – (g), (c) – (h), (d) – (e) 4) (a) – (e), (b) –(h), (c) – (g), (d) – (f)
20. When two identical batteries of internal resistance 1Ω each are connected in series across a resistor
R, the rate of heat produced in R is P1. Whenthe same batteries are connected in parallel across R, the
rate is P2. If P1=2.25 P2, the value of R is
1) 2Ω 2) 4Ω 3) 10Ω 4) 12Ω
21. A lamp is connected in series with a capacitor to an AC supply. If the capacitance of the capacitor is
increases, the lamp
1) Shines less brightly 2) Shines more brightly
3) Brightness does not change 4) Brightness turns off
22. A man walks on a straight road from his home to market 2.5km away with a speed of 5kmph.
Finding the market closed, he instantly turns and walks back home with a speed of 7.5 kmph. His
average speed is
1) 6.25 kmph 2) 6 kmph 3) 2.5 kmph 4) 2 kmph
23. If  is the angle of projection and H, R are the maximum height, range of a projectile, then Tan  is
1) 4H/R 2) 4R/H 3) 2H/R 4) 2R/H
-2
24. A train is accelerating at 10ms . A stone of mass 0.1kg is dropped from window of train. Just after it
is dropped the net force acting on stone is
1) 1N 2) 2N 3) 0.1N 4) Zero
25. The current in a circuit falls from 5A to zero in 0.1 S. If an average emf of 200 V is induced, the self
inductance of the circuit is
1) 20H 2) 4H 3) 2H 4) 40H
2g
26. A thin circular loop of radius R rotates about its vertical diameter with angular speed   . If a
R
bead on the wire loop remains at rest relative to loop, the angle made by the radius vector of bead
with the downward vertical is (Neglect friction)
1) 900 2) 450 3) 600 4) 300
27. A body of mass of 0.5kg travels in a straight line with velocity V = 5X3/2. Work done by the net force
during its displacement from x=0 to x=2m is
1) 10 J 2) 12 J 3) 40 J 4) 50 J
28. In the human body, the heart keeps the body temperature constant by the phenomena of
1) Conduction 2) Radiation
3) Free convection 4) Forced convection
29. A cord of negligible mass is wound round the rim of a fly wheel of mass 20kg and radius 20cm. A
steady tangential pull of 25N is applied on the chord. If the wheel is free to rotate about a normal
axis through its centre, the angular acceleration of the wheel is
1) 6rads-2 2) 30 rads-2 3) 12.5rads-2 4) 15 rads-2

Pg. 3
30. From a uniform disc of radius R, a circular hole of radius R/2 is cut out. The centre of the hole is at
R/2 from the centre of the original disc. The shift in centre of gravity of the resulting body is
1) R/3 2) R/4 3) R/12 4) R/6
31. A body weights 63N on the surface of earth. The gravitational force on the earth at a height equal to
half of the radius earth is
1) 28N 2) 32 N 3) 126N 4) 7N
32. Escape speed of a body from the earth depend on
1) Mass of the body
2) Shape of the body
3) Its direction of projection from earth’s surface
4) The height of launching location
33. A) The stretching of a coil is determined by its shear modulus.
B) Of the three states of matter the bulk modulus of elasticity is maximum for gases.
1) A,B are true 2) A is true, B is false
3) A is false, B is true 4) A,B are false
34. Excess pressure inside the drop of mercury of radius 3.00mm is (surface tension of mercury is
4.65×10-1Nm-1)
1) 860 Pa 2) 1240 Pa 3) 620 Pa 4) 310 Pa
2
35. A tank with a square base of area 1.0m is divided by a vertical partition in the middle. The bottom
of the partition has a small hinzed door of area 20 cm2. The tank is filled with water in one
compartment and an acid of relative density 1.7 in the other, both to a height of 4m. The force acting
on the door is (g=1mns-2)
1) 80 N 2) 56 N 3) 25 N 4) 120 N
SECTION – B
36. For an ideal gas at absolute temperature T, the coefficient of volume expansion at constant pressure
is
1) 2/T 2) 3/T 3) 1/T 4) 1/T2
37. Consider the situation shown in the figure. The wire AB is sliding on the fixed rails with a constant
velocity. If the wire AB is replaced by semicircular wire, the magnitude of the induced current will:

1) Increase
2) Remain the same
3) Decrease
4) Increase or decrease depending on whether the semicircle bulges towards the resistance or away
from it
38. A 10 KW drilling machine is used to drill a hole in a block of mass 5kg. If 50% of power is lost to
the surroundings, the rise in temperature of block in 2.5 minutes is (specific heat of material = 0.91
Jg-1k-1)
1) 1030C 2) 1500C 3) 560C 4) 2000C
39. If 2g hydrogen gas is contained in a vessel of volume of 3m 3 at 27 0 C , then the pressure of the gas is
1) 8.314 Pa 2) 83.14 Pa 3) 415.7 Pa 4) 831.4 Pa
Pg. 4
40. A gas undergoes a thermodynamic process ABC. The total work done by the gas is

1) 200 J 2) 300 J 3) 900 J 4) 450 J

41. The ratio of specific heats of polyatomic molecule having f vibrational modes is
4 f f 3 f 4 f 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 f f 4 f f 2
42. A body describes S.H.M. with an amplitude 5cm and period 0.2s. Velocity of the body when the
displacement is 3cm is (in cm s-1)
1) 5π2 2) 40π 3) 50π 4) 3π2
43. A string of mass 2.5kg is under a tension of 200N. The length of stretched string is 20m. If a
transverse jerk is struck at one end of the string, the time taken by the jerk to reach the other end is
1) 0.5 s 2) 1.5 s 3) 2 s 4) 2.5 s
44. A positive point charge is located at the origin of the co-ordinate system. Two points A and B are at
distances r1,r2,(r2>r1) from charge. The sign of the work done by the field and external agency in
moving a small negative charge from B to A are respectively
1) +, + 2) +, - 3) -, + 4) -, -
45. The equivalent resistance between A and B is

1) 16/3Ω 2) 16Ω 3) 8Ω 4) 3/16Ω

46. An element of length 1 cm placed at the origin carries 10A current along the positive
X – axis. The magnetic field at a point on the positive Y – axis at a distance 0.5 m from it is
   
1) 3  106 j 2) 4 108 k 3) 4  10 8 (  k ) 4) 3 106 ( j )
47. In Bohr model of atom an electron of charge (-e) and mass m is revolving around a nucleus of charge

+ze. If L is the orbital angular momentum of electron, then its magnetic moment is given by
e  e   Ze  Ze 
1)  L 2) L 3) L 4) L
2m 2m 2m 2m
48. The force per unit length on a wire carrying current of 8A making an angle of 300 with a uniform
magnetic field of 0.15 T is
1) 1.2 N 2) 1.02 N 3) 0.6 N 4) 2.4 N
2
49. A card sheet divided into squares each of size 1mm is being viewed at a distance of 9cm through a
converging lens of focal length 10cm held close to the eye. The area of the each image of square is
1) 1 cm2 2) 100 cm2 3) 10 cm2 4) 81 cm2
50. Force between two identical bar magnets whose centres are r metre apart is 4.8 N, when their axes are
in the same line. If separation is increased to 2r, the force between them is reduced to
1) 2.4 N (2) 1.2 N (3) 0.6 N (4) 0.3 N

Pg. 5
 CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A
51. The electron in the hydrogen atom undergoes transition from higher orbits to orbit of radius
211.6pm. This transition is associated with
1) Lyman series 2) Balmer series 3) Paschen series 4) Brackett series
52. Assertion (A): Helium is placed in ‘p’ block of modern periodic table
Reason (R): Differentiating electron in Helium enters into ‘p’ orbital
1) Both A and R are true and R explains A
2) Both A and R are true but R doesn’t explain A
3) A is true but R is false
4) Both A and R are false
53. The number of significant figures in 0.00025 is
1) 5 2) 3 3) 4 4) 2
54. Correct order of bond order is
1) N 2  N 2  N 22 2) N 2  N 2  N 22 3) N 21  N 2  N 2 4) N 2  N 22  N 2
55. No.of protons, electrons & neutrons in 27
13 Al 3 ion
1) 13,10,10 2) 13,10,14 3) 14,10,13 4) 10,13,14
56. For the reversible reaction NH 2COONH 4 (s )  2 NH 3 ( g )  CO2 ( g ), K p  4atm3 . Equilibrium
pressure would be.
1) 9 atm 2) 6 atm 3) 3 atm 4) 27 atm
57. In the formation of   bond, the atomic orbitals overlap in such a way that:
1) their axes remain parallel to each other and perpendicular to the internuclear axis
2) their axes remain parallel to each other and parallel to the internuclear axis
3) their axes remain perpendicular to each other and parallel to the internuclear axis
4) their axes remain perpendicular to each other and perpendicular to the internuclear axis

58. The product A is

1) 2) 3) 4)
59. The specific conductance of salt of 0.01M concentration is 1.06  10 4 mho.cm 1 Molar
conductance of same solution in mho.cm 2 .mol 1 is
1) 106.1 2) 10.61 3) 1.061 4) 1.061  10 4
3
60. If a gas absorbs 200 J of heat and expands by 500 cm against a constant pressure of
2 105 Nm2 , then change in internal energy is
1) -300J 2) -100 J 3) +100 J 4) +300 J

Pg. 6
61. CH 3  C|  CH 2  HBr 
( C6 H 5CO )2 O2
 X (major) Here the major product ‘X’ is
CH3

1) (CH3)2CBr CH3 2) (CH3)2 CH CH2Br

3) BrCH  CH |
 CH 3 4) CH 3  CHBr
|
 CH 3
CH 3 CH

62. The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with a concentration HNO3 while testing for halogens. By
doing so it
1) Helps in the precipitation of AgCl
2) Increases the solubility product of AgCl
3) Increases the concentration of NO3 ions
4) Decomposes Na2 S and NaCN, if formed
63. Which of the following is not optically active?
1)  Co(en)3  2)  Cr (ox)3  3) cis   CoCl2 (en)2  4) trans   CoCl2 (en)2 
3 3  

64. Choose the wrong statement

1) Degree of dissociation of an electrolyte increases with dilution
2) Electrical conductance of a metallic conductor decreases with increase in temperature
3) Electrical conductance of a metallic conductor increases with increase in temperature
4) Electrical conductance of an electrolytic conductor increases with increase in temperature
65. Which one is a reducing sugar
1) Cellulose 2) Starch 3) Maltose 4) Sucrose
66. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This
product formation is based on?
1) Huckel’s Rule 2) Saytzeff’s Rule 3) Hund’s Rule 4) Hofmann Rule
67. For a reaction 2 A  3B , if the rate of formation of B is x mol/L, the rate of consumption of A is
1) x 2) 3x 3) 2 x 4) 3x
2 3
68. Which of the following has less pka value ?
1) 30 butyl alcohol 2) Iso butyl alcohol
3) n- butyl alcohol 4) sec butyl alcohol
69. Standard enthalpy of formation is zero for all the following except for
1) Red phosphorous 2) Graphite 3) Rhombic sulphur 4) Oxygen (g)
70. Which of the following species is not aromatic?

1) 2) 3) 4)
71. The best preferable reagent for the conversion of an alcohol into pure alkyl halide?
1) PCl5 2) PCl3 3) SOCl2 4) HCl / ZnCl2
72. On electrolysing a sample of acidified water, 22.4ml of hydrogen was obtained. The value of
oxygen in ml obtained is
1) 22.4 2) 44.8 3) 11.2 4) 2.24
73. The maximum oxidation state of oxygen is
1) – 1 2) + 1 3) + 2 4) 0
Pg. 7
74. All the following can undergo disproportionation except
1) MnO4 2) MnO42 3) Cu  4) Cl2
75. For a solution in which CHCl3 is dissolved in C6 H 6 , molality is 0.1m . Then mole fraction of
C6H6 in the solution is
1) 0.0077 2) 0.077 3) 0.642 4) 0.9922
76. Which of the following pairs of compounds illustrate the law of multiple proportions ?
A) MgO, Na2O B) SnO, SnO2 C) H2O, H2O2 D) H2S, SO2
1) A & D 2) B & D 3) A & C 4) B& C
77. Which of the following compound not only gives positive iodoform test but also gives positive
Fehling test

1) 2) C6 H5CHO 3) C6 H5COCH3 4) CH3CHO

78. . What are A and B respectively

1) 2)

3) 4)
79. H  C  C  H 
1) red hot Irontube 873 k
CO  HCl / AlCl3
 product . The no.of sp 2 carbon atoms present in the product
1) 5 2) 6 3) 8 4) 7

80. . Compound ‘B’ is

1) 2) 3) 4)
81. Which one of the following is Lewis acid
1) H 2 SO4 2) AlCl3 3) H 2O 4) OH 
82. Choose incorrect stamen from the following
1) K2 MnO4 is green coloured
2) K2Cr2O7 is the primary standard in volumetric analysis
3) Cr2O3 is amphoteric
4) K 2CrO4 is orange coloured

Pg. 8
83. Two particles ‘A’ and ‘B’ have their debroglie wavelength ratio as 3 : 2 respectively. If the
mass ratio of A to B is 2 : 3 then the ratio of the velocities of A to B will be
1) 1 : 1 2) 9 : 4 3) 4 : 9 4) 1 : 3
84. Hydrolysis of ‘X’ is an example of disproportionation. ‘X’ is
1) XeF6 2) XeF2 3) XeF4 4) XeOF4
85. Wrong match is
1) CuSO4 - Cationic hydrolysis 2) Na2 B4O7 - Anionic hydrolysis
3) NaNO3 - No hydrolysis 4) NH4Cl - Both cationic and anionic hydrolysis
SECTION – B
86. At 0 C , ice and water are in equilibrium, H 2O( s )  H 2O(l ) , H  6kJ mol 1 . The value of S and
0

G for conversion of ice into liquid water at 0 0 C are

1) 2.19J K 1mol 1 and 0 2) 0.219J K 1mol 1 and 0
3) 21.9J K 1mol 1 and 0 4) 0.0219J K 1mol 1 and 0
87. The freezing point of an aqueous solution of 0.1m Hg2Cl2 will be: (if Hg2Cl2 is 80% ionized in the
solution to give Hg22 and Cl  )
1) 0.26K f 2) 2.6 K f 3) 4.6 K f 4) 0.42K f

88. . D in the above mentioned

reaction is.

1) 2)

3) 4)
89. Mole fraction of toluene in the vapour which is in equilibrium with a solution containing benzene
and toluene having 2 moles each is when vapour pressure of pure benzene and toluene are 120
torr and 80 torr respectively
1) 0.5 2) 0.25 3) 0.4 4) 0.6
90. Assertion (A): All the carbon atoms in H 2C  C  CH 2 are SP hybridized
2

Reason (R): CH 2  C  CH2 is a planar molecule

1) Both A and R are correct and the R is the correct explanation of the A
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of the A
3) A is correct but R is in correct
4) Both A and R are false
Pg. 9
91. t99.9% of a first order reaction is 100 minutes. Rate constant of the reaction is
1) 0.693 minutes 2) 2.303 minutes 3) 0.0693 minutes 4) 23.03 minutes
92. Select the correct stoichiometry and its K sp value according to given graphs

1) XY , Ks p  2  106 2) XY2 , Ks p  4 109

3) X 2Y , Ks p  9 109 4) XY2 , Ks p  1109
93. Identify correct statements
As the temperature increases
A) Rate of reaction increases
B) Number of activated molecules increases
C) Collision frequency increases
1) A only 2) A and C only 3) A, B and C 4) B only
94. Which of the following is correct acidic strength order for the marked hydrogen. The given
compound

1) a > d > b > c 2) a > b > d > c 3) c > d > b > a 4) a > c > b > d
95. Mass percentage of nitrogen in uracil is

1) 70 2) 50 3) 80 4) 25
3 3  1
96. 0
Emf of the cell Al (s ) / Al (10 M ) || Ag (10 M ) / Ag at 298 K is ( Ecell  2.46V )
1) 2.46 V 2) 2.4 V 3) 2.52 V 4) 2.37 V
97. Polar molecule among the following is
1) XeO3 2) XeF2 3) XeF4 4) XeO4
98. Molar mass is maximum for
1) Phosphorous 2) Sulphur 3) Copper 4) Ozone

Pg. 10
99. The energies of activation for forward and reverse reaction for A2  B2  2 AB are
180kJ mol 1 and 200kJ mol 1 respectively. The presence of catalyst lowers the activation
energy of both (forward and reverse) reactions by 100kJ mol 1 . The enthalpy change of the
reaction ( A2  B2  2 AB) in the presence of catalyst will be (in kJ mol 1 )
1) 300 2) 120 3) 280 4) -20
100. Which of the following is the correct order of electronegativity
1) O < S > Se > Te 2) S > O < Te > Se
3) Te < Se < S < O 4) O < S < Se < Te
BOTANY
SECTION – A
101. Taxonomic categories are
(i) Morphological aggregations (ii) Artificial aggregations
(iii) Distinctive biological entities (iv) Non distinctive groups
1) i, ii 2) ii, iii 3) ii, iv 4) i, iii
102. In scientific name of mango
1) Mangifera is specific epithet
2) Author name appears after indica
3) Both parts of the name are underlined together
4) Name is derived either from Latin or Greek irrespective of their origin
103. Conidial, septate, mycelial fungi are
1) Algal fungi and imperfect fungi 2) Sac fungi and imperfect fungi
3) Sac fungi and club fungi 4) Algal fungi and club fungi
104. Match the following column I and Column II and identify the correct match from options given
under
Column I Column II
a. Volvox i. Dioecious sporophyte with dioecious gametophytes
b. Sphagnum ii. Oogamous alga
c. Selaginella iii. Heterosporous pteridophyte
d. Cycas iv. Monoceious leafy gametophyte
Options:
1) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i 2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
105. Unique character of Bryophytes is
1) Rhizoidal gametophyte
2) Independent saporophyte
3) Multicellular jacketed sex organs
4) Total (or) partical parasitic sporophyte on gametophyte
106. The flowering plant with highly reduced sporophyte and gametophytes is
1) Opuntia 2) Wolfia 3) Canary grass 4) Carrot grass
107. Wrongly matched of the following is
1) Prop roots – Adventitious roots 2) Sheathy leaf base - Grasses
3) Potato – Modified root 4) Flower – modified shoot
108. Pentamerous, zygomorphic flowers with ten microsporophylls and one megasporophyll can be
assigned to
1) Brassicaceae 2) Fabaceae 3) Solanaceae 4) Lilliaceae

Pg. 11
109. Pick out the correct statement from the following
1) Tracheids are universal conducting elements present in all trachaeophytes
2) Seive tubes are lignified conducting elements without nucleus
3) Secondary phloem is the major tissue in woody dicot stem
4) Secondary cortex is collenchymatous in woody stem
110. Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed in
1) Dicot stem and monocot stem 2) Dicot root and monocot root
3) Moncot stem and leaves 4) Monocot root and leaves
111. Periderm does not include
1) Secondary phloem 2) Phelloderm 3) Phellogen 4) Phellem
112. Which of the following is not a function of Golgi complex?
1) Intercellular transport of materials 2) Packaging of materials
3) Cell plate formation in plant cells 4) Formation of glycoproteins & glycolipids
113. “Cell organelles within other cell organelles” is applicable to
1) Basal body in flagellum 2) Nucleolus in Nucleus
3) ‘70’s ribosomes in eukaryotic cell 4) ‘80’s ribosomes in eukaryotic cell
114. Which of the following are nitrogen containing non polymeric biomicromolecules?
A) Lecithin B) Uridine C) Ribose D) Glucosamine
1) All excepts A 2) All excepts B 3) All excepts C 4) All excepts D
115. Which phase mitosis is represented by the following diagram?

1) Prophase I 2) Metaphase I
3) Transition from prophase to metaphase 4) Transition from metaphase to Anaphase
116. Match the following and identify the correct match from the options given under
Column I Column II
i. Zygotene a. Chromatidal segregation
ii. Pachytene b. Synapsis
iii. Anaphase I c. Chromosomal segregation
iv. Anaphase II d. Crossing over
1) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d 2) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a 3) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c 4) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
117. A virus differs from a bacterium as its contains
1) A cell wall 2) Cytosol
3) DNA as genetic material 4) DNA or RNA as genetic material with no ribosome
118. Which of the following atmospheric gasses are utilized by N2 fixing cyanobacteria like Nostoc?
1) N2, CO2, O2 2) N2, O2 only 3) CO2, O2 only 4) N2 only
119. Identify the true statements from following
(i) Light phase in photosynthesis is light independent and temperature dependent
(ii) Photorespiration neither produces sugars nor ATP
(iii) Photo respiration is absent in C4 plants
(iv) Glycolysis neither consumes O2 nor evolves CO2
(v) Succinic dehydrogenase participates in both TCA cycle and ETS
1) i,ii,iii 2) i,iii,iv,v 3) i,iv,v 4) ii,iii,iv,v
Pg. 12
120. What is the yield of ATP for the complete oxidation of one molecule of Acetyl Co.A in Krebs cycle?
1) 12 2) 11 3) 9 4) 1
121. Match the following columns and identify the correct match
Column I Column II
(i) Auxins a. Fruit ripening
(ii) Gibberellic acid b. Root formation on stem cuttings
(iii) Cytokinin c. Produce new leaves
(iv) Ethylene d. Quick maturity of conifers
1) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d 2) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
3) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c 4) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
122. Branched rhizoids and leafy gametophytes are the characteristic of
1) Liverworts 2) Mosses 3) Ferns 4) Conifers
123. Match the columns I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given

Column I Column II Column III

a If the margins of sepals or petals overlap one 1 Vexillary K
another but not in any particular direction

b When sepals and petals just touch one another at the 2 Valvate L
margin, without overlapping

c Standard petal overlap wings which in turn overlap 3 Twisted M

the keel

d If one margin of the appendage overlaps that of the 4 Imbricate N

next one and so on

1) a-2-K, b-3-N, c-1-L, d-4-M 2) a-3-K, b-1-L, c-2-M, d-4-N

3) a-3-N, b-4-K, c-2-M, d-1-L 4) a-4-K, b-2-M, c-1-L, d-3-N
124. How many male gametes and female gametes are produced by each male and female gametophytes
respectively in flowering plants?
1) One, One 2) Two, Two 3) One, Two 4) Two, One
125. Pick out the correct statement from following
1) Monosporic embryo sac contains seven genomes
2) Autogamy is obligatory in commelina
3) Pollen pistil interaction begins with pollination and ends with entry of pollen tube into ovary
4) Both autogamy and geitenogamy are not possible in papaya
126. Emasculation is
1) Removal of anthers from flower bud
2) Necessary for preventing self pollinationin the flowers of female parent
3) Necessary for avoiding desirable cross pollination
4) Both 1 and 2
127. Both phenotypical ratio and genotypical ratios are same in
(i) Monohybrid cross (ii) Monohybrid test cross
(iii) Dihybrid test cross (iv) Dihybrid cross
1) i,iii 2) iii,iv 3) ii,iii 4) i,iv
Pg. 13
128. Mendelian dihybrid cross does not explain
1) Law of dominance 2) Law of segregation
3) Law of independent assortment 4) Linkage
129. How many photosynthetic cell types does the leaf that fix CO 2 in C4 plants & C3 plants respectively
are?
1) One & Three 2) Three & One 3) One & Two 4) Two & One
130. In medelian dihybrid crosses, the probability of parental phenotypes in F2 progeny is
1) 2/16 2) 6/16 3) 9/16 4) 10/16
131. Which of the following is wrong w.r.t DNA polymerase?
1) It shows high efficiency and accuracy
2) It is DNA polymerase during DNA replication
3) It is RNA dependent DNA polymerase during transcription
4) It can-not initiate polymerisation of nucleotides by it’s own
132. Statement-I: Aminoacylation of tRNA occurs during translation.
Statement-II: Initiation of polypeptide chain begins with the encountering of small subunit of
ribosome with mRNA
1) Both S-I and S-II are correct 2) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
3) S-I is correct but S-II is wrong 4) S-I is wrong but S-II is correct
133. The repressor of lac operon is inactivated by the binding of
1) Glucose 2) Galactose 3) Galactosidase 4) Allolactose
134. The correct sequence of following events w.r.t action of restriction enzymes?
(i) Cutting of strands of DNA (ii) Binding to recognition site
(iii) Finding of recognition sequence (iv) Inspection of length of DNA sequence
1) i,ii,iii,iv 2) iv,iii,ii,i 3) ii,iii,iv,i 4) iv,i,iii,ii
135. In the process of rDNA technology, the fragmentation of DNA is immediately followed by
1) Ligation 2) Transformation
3) Isolation of desired DNA fragment 4) Culturing of host cells
SECTION – B
136. Statement-I: All Fungi have cell wall.
Statement-II: All protists have cell wall.
1) Both S-I and S-II are correct 2) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
3) S-I is correct but S-II is incorrect 4) S-I is wrong but S-II is correct
137. Assertion (A): All enzymes are nitrogenous hetero polymers with catalytic activity.
Reason (R): Almost all enzymes are proteins and some are nucleic acids (ribozymes).
1) Both A and B are correct, R is the correct explanation to A.
2) Both A and B are correct, R is not the correct explanation to A.
3) A is correct but R is wrong
4) Both A and R are wrong
138. Wrongly matched of the following is
1) Orchids – Non endospermic seeds 2) Beans – Endospermic dicot seeds
3) Black pepper – Perispermic seeds 4) Mango – polyembryonic seeds
139. The main function of the stem is
1) Conduction of water, minerals & photosynthates
2) Storage of food, support, protection and vegetative propagation
3) Spreading out branches bearing leaves, flowers and fruits
4) All of the above

Pg. 14
140. How many ATP and NADPH 2 are respectively produced in the process of photorespiration?
1) 2 and 4 2) 1 and 2 3) 4 and 6 4) 0 and 0
141. Polymerase chain reaction does not require
1) DNA ligase 2) Oligonucleotide primers
3) DNA polymerase 4) Nucelotides
142. Bt toxins are
1) Insect species specific 2) Insect group specific
3) Not specific to any insects 4) Specific to pollinator insects
143. Respiratory quotient (R.Q) is
1) Volume of O2 evolved/Volume of CO2 consumed
2) Volume of CO2 evolved/Volume of O2 consumed
3) Volume of O2 consumed/Volume of CO2 evolved
4) Volume of CO2 consumed/Volume of O2 evolved
144. Assertion (A): Matured sieve elements are non-totipotent cells
Reason (R): Matured sieve elements are dead cells
1) Both A and B are true, R is the correct explanation to A
2) Both A and B are true but R is the correct explanation to A
3) A is true but R is false
4) Both A and R are false
145. Wrongly matched of the following is
1) LAB – Probiotic 2) Brewing- Bread making
3) Flocs – Aerobes 4) Glomus – Fungal biofertilizer
146. Which of the following are membrane bound cell organelles?
1) Ribosomes 2) Nucleosomes 3) Mesosomes 4) Microbodies
147. In tea plantations and hedge making, gardeners trim the plants regularly so that they remain bushy.
Scientific explanation behind this is
1) removal of apical dominance 2) growth of lateral buds
3) suppression of lateral buds 4) both 1 and 2
148. Wrongly matched w.r.t type of genetic material
1) T.M.V – ssRNA 2) QB Bacteriophage – ds DNA
3) T – even Bacteriophage – dsDNA 4) E.Coli – dsDNA
149. Which of the following are products of re - differentiation?
A) Medulla B) Secondary xylem
C) Primary phloem D) Secondary phloem
1) A,B 2) C,D 3) A,C 4) B,D
150. How many dsDNA molecules are present in each chromatid of metaphase chromosome?
1) 2 2) 1 3) 4 4) 8
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A
151. What is common to silkworm, filarial worm and tapeworm?
1) Double ventral nerve cord 2) Complete gut
3) Bilateral symmetry 4) Sexual dimorphism
152. “The Evil Quartet” is he sobriquet used to describe
1) Conservation of biodiversity 2) Causes of biodiversity losses
3) Causes of distribution of biodiversity 4) Patterns of regaining lost biodiversity
153. Which hormones from the ovary are dominating ‘before’ (a) and ‘after’ (b) ovulation during
menstrual cycle?
1) (a) Progesterone; (b) Estrogen 2) (a) Estrogen; (b) Progesterone
3) (a) Relaxin; (b) FSH 4) (a) Estrogen; (b) Epinephrine
Pg. 15
154. Given below are four matchings of an animal and its kind of respiratory organs
A) Dolphin – Gills B) Locust – Trachea
C) Balanoglossus - Lungs D) Prawn – Gills
The correct matchings are:
1) B and D 2) A and C 3) B,C and D 4) A,B and C
155. FSH and LH are gonadotropins. In males FSH acts on
1) Spermatogonia and stimulates the process of spermiation
2) Sertoli cells and stimulates the process of spermiogenesis
3) Leydig cells to release male sex hormones
4) Sertoli cells and stimulate the secretions of epididymis
156. Which of the following represents the correct combination without any exception?

Characteristics Class
1) Mouth terminal; moist skin without scales; two pairs of limbs; eyes with Amphibia
eye lids
2) Bony endoskeleton; gills with operculum; skin with placoid scales; Osteichthyes
internal fertilisation
3) Body covered by cornified skin; external ear openings absent; three – Reptilla
chambered heart; internal fertilisation
4) Body covered with feathers; bony endoskeleton; oviparous; direct Aves
development
157. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R):
Assertion (A): Hugo deVries believed that it is mutation which causes evolution and not the minor
heritable variation that Darwin talked about.
Reason (R): Evolution for Darwin was gradual, while deVries believed mutation caused speciation
and hence called it saltation.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
1) A and R are true and r is not the correct explanation of A.
2) A is true, R is false
3) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
4) Both A and r are false
158. Follow the features:
a) Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed
b) It is mesodermal in origin
c) Many fibres are oriented differently.
Where do you find the connective tissue with the above features?
1) Skin 2) Tendons 3) Elastic ligaments 4) Nephrons
159. Read the following statements and pick out the correct option:
Statement-I: Oral contraceptive pills inhibit ovulation and implantation.
Statement-II: Surgical contraceptive methods are highly effective but their reversibility is very
poor.
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are wrong
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
3) Statement I is correct, Statement II is wrong
4) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is correct
160. In frog, urinary bladder is located
1) Dorsal to rectum 2) Ventral to rectum 3) Ventral to stomach 4) Dorsal to stomach
161. In HGP, the sequence of which chromosome was completed in May 2006?
1) X Chromosome 2) Chromosome 1 3) Y Chromosome 4) Chromosome 10

Pg. 16
162. Given below are two Statement : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R)
Assertion (A): Despite occupying about 70percent of the surface, the productivity of oceans are only
55 billion tons.
Reason (R): In deep sea productivity is limited by light and nitrogen
In the light above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
1) A is true, R is false.
2) A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
4) Both A and R are false
163. DNA finger printing is a technique which works on the principle of
1) Non- heritable DNA mutations
2) Polymorphism in DNA sequences
3) Bulk genomic DNA major peaks
4) Polymorphism in nucleo proteins
164. During peak summer and winter frogs take shelter in deep burrows to protect them from extreme
heat and cold. Select the best option from the following statements in relations to this.
I) They have the ability of camouflage
II) They exhibit protective colouration, mimicry
III) They are eurythermal and euryhaline organisms.
IV) They perform only cutaneous respiration during aestivation and hibernation.
1) Only II 2) Only IV 3) I and III 4) II and IV
165. Observe the below given diagrammatic representations of the operation of natural selection

In the above A and B more individuals acquire

1) A – other than mean character value, B – mean character value
2) A – mean character value, B – peripheral character value
3) A – other than mean character value, B – peripheral character value
4) A – mean character value, B – other than mean character value
166. Maximum reabsorption occurs in which part of nephron
1) DCT 2) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop
3) PCT 4) Collecting duct
167. Secondary lymphoid organs provide the sites for interaction of (A) with the (B), then (A) proliferate
to become effector cells.
Fill the blanks with correct option:
1) (A) – Lymphocytes, (B) – antigens 2) (A) – Memory cells, (B) – lymphocytes
3) (A) – Auxillary cells, (B) – antibodies 4) (A) – Antigens, (B) – antibodies
168. Residual volume is not taken into consideration in measuring of these two capacities of the lungs
1) Vital capacity and expiratory capacity
2) Total lung capacity and expiratory capacity
3) Total lung capacity and functional residual capacity
4) Inspiratory capacity and functional residual capacity
169. Study the following and choose the incorrect:
1) Morphin and Heroin are opioids
2) Marijuana and Hashish are cannabinoids
3) Crack and smack are coca alkaloids
4) Atropa and Datura are plants with hallucinogenic properties
Pg. 17
170. Deoxygenated blood pumped into the pulmonary artery is passed on to the lungs from where the
oxygenated blood is carried by the pulmonary veins into the left atrium. This pathway constitutes
1) Systemic circulation 2) Portal circulation
3) Coronary circulation 4) Pulmonary circulation
171. α-1 antitrypsin is used to treat which disease
1) Phenylketonuria 2) Cystic fibrosis 3) Emphysema 4) Asthma
172. Which statements of the following are true for formed elements?
I) Leucocytes are generally short lived
II) Eosinophils resist infections and are also associated with allergic reactions.
III) Platelets are cell fragments produced from thrombocytes.
IV) Neutrophils and basophils are phagocytic cells.
1) III & IV 2) I & II 3) I & IV 4) II & III
173. In which of the following interactions both partners are adversely affected?
1) Sea anemone and clown fish
2) Flamingoes and resident fishes in South American lakes
3) Fig tree and pollinator wasp
4) Epiphytic orchid on a mango branch
174. Which of the following statements is correct?
1) The ascending limb of loop of Henie allows passage of small amounts of urea into the medullary
interstitium.
2) Distal convoluted touble reasorbs 70-80 percent of electrolytes and water
3) The collecing duct is lined by simple columnar ciliated epithelium.
4) Proximal convoluted tubule is lined by simple cuboidal brush border epithelium
175. The producer which breed only once in its life time is?
1) Salmon 2) Bamboo 3) Both 1 & 2 4) Calotropis
176. Read the following statements about colour blindness and choose the correct option:
Statement-A: It is an autosome linked dominant disorder.
Statement-B: The affected male should have an affected father.
1) Both statement A and statement B are wrong
2) Both statement A and Statement B are true
3) Statement A is correct, Statement B is wrong
4) Statement A is wrong, Statement B is correct
177. When number of immigrations and births is more than emigrations and deaths, the growth curve of
the population will show
1) Declining phase 2) Acceleration phase
3) Lag phase 4) Asymptote phase
178. Below given figure shows a diagrammatic view of ribs and rib case, select the correct identification
of A, B, C and D

1) A – vertebral column, which attaches to sternum

2) B – False ribs, they do not attach to sternum
3) C – True ribs, they attach directly to sternum
4) D – Sternum, to which true ribs attach with the help of hyaline cartilage

Pg. 18
179. Consider the following statements on ecological pyramids and pick out the correct statements:
A) Pyramids of energy can never be inverted, because when energy flows from a particular trophic
level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat at each step
B) In all ecosystems, the pyramids of number and of biomass are upright
C) The pyramid of biomass of sea is generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds
that of phytoplankton
1) Only A 2) A and B only 3) A and C only 4) All A,B and c
180. In myelinated axons, the gaps between two adjacent myelin sheaths are called
1) Axon hillock 2) synapses 3) nodes of Ranvier 4) axon terminal
181. Which among these is the correct combination of poisonous snakes?
1) Naja, Ptyas,Hemidactylus 2) Python, Calotes, Bangarus
3) Python, Calotes, Bangarus 4) Bangarus, Naja, Vipera
182. Which one of the following is a form of hyperthyroidism?
1) Disfigurement of face 2) Formation of ketone bodies
3) Exopthalmic goitre 4) Piloerection and over sweating
183. Which is considered as store house of calcium ion’s in muscle fibre?
1) Sarcosomes 2) Sarcolema
3) Sarcoplasmic Retculum 4) All the above
184. Hormone that enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilization is secreted by
1)  - cells of Islets of Langerhans 2)  - cells of Islets of Langerhans
3)  - cells of pancreas 4) f – cells of pancreas
185. The hormone which suppress immune responses is?
1) Adrenalin 2) Thyroxin 3) Melatoxin 4) Cortisol
SECTION – B
186. Cranium and vertebral column are cartilaginous in which vertebrate of the following?
1) Pterophyllum 2) Psittacula 3) Petromyzon 4) Pteropus
187. Out of ‘X’ serially arranged units of vertebrae in humans only ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ are fused units.
Select the option that correctly represents the value of X and provides Y and Z explanation.
(1) X=26, Three bones are fused to form sternum and four caudal vertebrae are
Y=sternum, fused to form coccyx.
Z=coccyx,
(2) X=26, Five sacral vertebrae and four coccygeal vertebrae are fused to form
Y=sacrum, sacrum and coccyx.
Z=coccyx,
(3) X=33, Five caudal vertebrae and four sacral vertebrae are fused to form
Y=coccyx, coccyx and sacrum
Z=sacrum,
(4) X=33, Seven cervical vertebrae and four sacral vertebrae are fused to form
Y=cervicum, cervicum and sacrum
Z=sacrum,
188. HGP was closely associated with the rapid development of a new area in biology called
1) Biopiracy 2) Biochemistry 3) Biostatistics 4) Bioinformatics
189. Convergent evolution is explained by
1) Vertebrate hearts 2) Thorn and Tendrils of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita
3) Eye of octopus and Mamuls 4) Vertebrate brains
190. Read the following Assertion and Reason and select the correct option given below:
Assertion (A): In ECG the P-wave represents the electrical excitation of the atria, which leads to the
contraction of both the atria.
Reason (R): Atrial systole increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by about 70percent.
1) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is true, R is false
4) Both A and R are false

Pg. 19
191. A haemophilic father passes the defective gene
1) to all his daughters 2) either to his son or to his daughter
3) to all his sons 4) neither to his sons nor to his daughters
192. Match the following common diseases (Column-I) with their causative agent (Column-II) and select
the correct option:
Column-I Column-II
(A) Pneumonia (i) Wuchereria
(B) Ringworm (ii) Salmonella
(C) Typhoid (iii) Haemophilus
(D) Filariasis (iv) Epidermophyton
1) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i) 2) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii)
3) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (i) 4) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (i)
193. Depolarization of nerve fibre is due to?
1) Efflux of Na+ 2) Efflux of K+ 3) Influx of K+ 4) Influx of Na+
194. Flippers of penguins and dolphins are the example of
1) Analogy 2) Homology 3) Divergent evolution 4) Stabilising selection
195. Match the following:
List-I List-II
(I) Correction of a genetic (a) Injecting functional ADA to the patient
defect
(II) Pro-insulin (b) Delivery of a normal gene into the individual
(III) Enzyme replacement therapy (c) Needs to be processed to become mature and functional
(IV) Recombinant therapeutics (d) Do not induce unwanted immunological responses
1) I – (c), II – (b), III – (a), IV – (d) 2) I – (b), II – (c), III – (d), IV – (a)
3) I – (b), II – (c), III – (a), IV – (d) 4) I – (c), II – (b), III – (d), IV – (a)
196. In the ovary of female human, degeneration of a large number of primary follicles occurs during
which phase?
1) From menarche to menopause 2) From birth to puberty
3) From foetal stage to birth 4) From menopause to death
197. If a person in infected with some deadly microbes to which quick immune response is required as in
tetanus, we need to inject
i) Preformed antibodies ii) Vaccines
iii) Antitoxins iv) Mature cells
Select the correct option from the following:
1) i and iii only 2) i, iii and iv only 3) ii, iii and iv only 4) i, ii, iii and iv
198. In which technique of the following, the semen collected from husband/donor is artificially
introduced into the uterus of the female?
1) Zygote intra fallopian transfer 2) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection
3) Gamete intra fallopian transfer 4) Intra – Uterine insemination
199. Read the following statements:
Statement – I: Induced abortions are considered relatively safe during the first trimester i.e., upto 12
weeks of pregnancy.
Statement – II: The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendement) Act, 2017 was enacted by
the government of India with the intension of reducing the illegal abortions.
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are wrong
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
3) Statement I is correct, statement II is wrong
4) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is correct
200. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in ‘aneuploidy’. Down’s
syndrome results due to
1) Gain of extra copy of chromosome 18 2) Gain of extra copy of chromosome 21
3) Loss of an X chromosome in human females 4) Loss of one of the chromosome 21

Pg. 20
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 07.11.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-3 Max.Marks: 720
PHYSICS
1) 3 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3 5) 1 6) 2 7) 1 8) 4 9) 2 10) 1
11) 4 12) 2 13) 1 14) 2 15) 4 16) 4 17) 1 18) 3 19) 3 20) 2
21) 2 22) 2 23) 1 24) 1 25) 2 26) 3 27) 4 28) 4 29) 3 30) 4
31) 1 32) 4 33) 2 34) 4 35) 2 36) 3 37) 2 38) 1 39) 4 40) 4
41) 1 42) 2 43) 1 44) 2 45) 1 46) 2 47) 1 48) 3 49) 1 50) 4
CHEMISTRY
51) 2 52) 3 53) 4 54) 1 55) 2 56) 3 57) 1 58) 4 59) 2 60) 3
61) 2 62) 4 63) 4 64) 3 65) 3 66) 2 67) 3 68) 3 69) 1 70) 3
71) 3 72) 3 73) 3 74) 1 75) 4 76) 4 77) 4 78) 3 79) 4 80) 2
81) 2 82) 4 83) 1 84) 3 85) 4 86) 3 87) 1 88) 4 89) 3 90) 4
91) 3 92) 1 93) 3 94) 1 95) 4 96) 1 97) 1 98) 2 99) 4 100) 3
BOTANY
101) 4 102) 2 103) 2 104) 1 105) 4 106) 2 107) 3 108) 2 109) 1 110) 3
111) 1 112) 1 113) 3 114) 3 115) 3 116) 2 117) 4 118) 1 119) 4 120) 1
121) 2 122) 2 123) 4 124) 4 125) 4 126) 4 127) 3 128) 4 129) 4 130) 4
131) 3 132) 1 133) 4 134) 2 135) 3 136) 3 137) 1 138) 2 139) 3 140) 4
141) 1 142) 2 143) 2 144) 3 145) 2 146) 4 147) 4 148) 2 149) 4 150) 2
ZOOLOGY
151) 3 152) 2 153) 2 154) 1 155) 2 156) 4 157) 3 158) 1 159) 2 160) 2
161) 2 162) 3 163) 2 164) 2 165) 4 166) 3 167) 1 168) 1 169) 3 170) 4
171) 3 172) 2 173) 2 174) 4 175) 2 176) 1 177) 2 178) 4 179) 3 180) 3
181) 4 182) 3 183) 3 184) 1 185) 4 186) 3 187) 2 188) 4 189) 3 190) 3
191) 1 192) 4 193) 4 194) 1 195) 3 196) 2 197) 1 198) 4 199) 2 200) 2

PAPER SETTERS

SNO DIVISION SUBJECT NAME MOBILE NO

1 VSP-CO-GAYATHIR BHAVAN PHYSICS Mr. Satya Rao 9060678957
2 VSP-CO-GAYATHRI BHAVAN CHEMISTRY Mr. Nagendra 9494597007
3 VSP-CO-GAYATHRI BHAVAN BOTANY Mr. PSR 9246633234
4 VSP-CO-GAYATHRI BHAVAN ZOOLOGY Smt. Sridevi 9848682450

Pg. 1
 Hints & Explanations
PHYSICS
A.D f
1. A)   , B) m 
R.D f u
 2M
2. B 0. 3
4 r
C
3.  0
C
a2
4. Zf 

5. Intensity α Current
12.2
6.  A
V
7. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanations of assertion.
8. All a,b,c are correct
9. Electron is excited to second orbit
3
10.
4
11. 492.55MeV
12. Conceptual
13. Conceptual
14. Conceptual
1 Q
15. V .
4 0 R
V 0 R is Q
1 C1C2
16. U  (V1  V2 )2
2 C1  C2
17. Two significant digits
18. Conceptual
19. Conceptual
2 2
 2E   E 
20.   R  R  2.25
 R2  R  0.5 
21. Impendence of circuit decreases

22.  V 
s
t
R
23. H  Tan 
4
24. F= mg only
dI
25. F  L
dt
26. N cos   mg
r
N sin   mr 2 where sin  
R
1
27. W  m (v 2  u 2 )
2
28. Conceptual
mr 2
29. F .R  1 I 
2
Pg. 2
 m R 3m
30.   X
4 2 4
gR 2
31. g1 
( R  h) 2
2GM
32. V
R
33. Conceptual
2T
34. P 
r
35. F= H(d1-d2)g×area of door where d1 and d2 are densities
1 V
36.  . and PV  nRT
V T
37. No change in motional emf magnitude
38. P.t = ms. 
M kg
39. M 
n mole
40. Area of PV - diagram
41. Conceptual
42. V   A2  Y 2
T L
43. V and t 
 V
44. Conceptual
45. 8 ohm and 16Ω are in series
 
  Id l  r
46. dB 0
4 r 3
M e
47. 
L 2m
48. F=BILsin 
f
49. m and A1  m2 A0
f u
1
50. In magnetic dipole, force 
r4
4.8 4.8
Hence, new force = 4   0.3N
2 16
CHEMISTRY
51. r(radius of lower orbit)  0.529  n 2 A0
2.116 A0  0.529  n 2 . A0
n2  4
n2
52. He…..1s 2 2 s 2
53. 0.00025 All zeros left to non-zero digits are not significant No.of significant figure = 2

54.
55.

Pg. 3
56. K p  pNH
2
3
. pCO2
Since 2 moles of NH 3 and 1 mole of CO2 are formed
2 1
X NH 3  ; X CO2 
3 3
2
2  1 
4    Ptot    Ptot 
3  3 
Ptot  3atm
57. their axes remain parallel to each other and perpendicular to the internuclear axis

58.
1000 1.06  104  1000
59. m  k  
M 0.01
1
 10.61s.cm mol c
2

60. +100 J
61. (CH3)2 CH CH2Br
62. Conceptual
63. Trans complex is symmetrical and is optically inactive.
64. Conceptual
65. Maltose has hemiacetal – OH group
66. Conceptual
67. Conceputal
68. n- butyl alcohol
69. Thermodynamically most stable allotrope of phosphorous is white phosphorous

70.
71. Conceptual
72. 2 H 2O (l ) 
 2 H 2 ( g )  O2 ( g )
73. +2
74. Mn in MnO4 is in its highest oxidation state
75. 0.9922
76. SnO, SnO2 & H2O, H2O2

77. gives both lodoform test Fehlings test

78.

79.
Pg. 4
80.
81. Conceptual
82. K 2CrO4 is yellow coloured
1 VA mB B VA 3  2
83.  ;  ;  1
mV VB mAA VB 2  3
84. XeF4  H 2 O 
 Xe  XeO3  HF  O2
85. NH 4  H 2O  NH 4OH  H 
86. Conceptual
i 1
87. 
n 1
i 1
0.8 
3 1
i = 2.6
T f  iK f .m
2.6  K f  0.1
T f  0.26 K f

88.
89. Mole fraction of toluene in vapour phase = YToluene  ( P 0 X )Toluene / ( P 0 X )benzene  ( P 0 X )Toluene
YToluene  2 / 4  80 / 2 / 4  80  2 / 4 120
 40 / 40  60  40 /100  0.4
90. The hybridization state of carbon atoms is
SP 2 SP SP2
H 2C  C  CH 2
91. t99.9%  10t1/2
t1/2  10 min
0.693
K m
10
92. XY ( s)  X  (aq)  Y (aq)
2 10 3 103
Ks p  [ X  ][Y  ]  2 103 103  2 106
93. Conceptual
94. Conceptual

Pg. 5
95. Molecular formula of uracil is C4 H 4 N 2O2
Molecular moves of uracil = 112
% of Nitrogen
96. Al   Al 3  3e
 Ag   e   Ag   3
0.0591 103
Ecell  2.46  log 1 2
3 (10 )
Ecell  2.46V
97. XeO3 is a polar molecule,   0
98. P4  124 g ; S8  256 g ; Cu  63.6 g ; O3  48g
99.

So, H reaction  E f  Eb
 80  100  20kJ mol 1
100. Te < Se < S < O
BOTANY
101. NCERT XI.P.No:8
102. Author name appears after indica
103. Sac fungi (Ascomycetes) and imperfect fungi (deuteromycetes)
104. a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
105. Dependent sporophyte on gametophyte
106. Wolffia-Microscopic, smallest angiosperm
107. Potato – Modified stem
108. Fabaceae
109. Tracheids are present usually in all trachaeophytes
110. Monocot stem and leaves
111. Secondary phloem is a part of bark but not periderm
112. Plasmodermata – Intercellular transport of materials
113. In eukaryotic cell, ‘70’s ribosomes are present in chloroplasts and mitochondria
114. Ribose – C5H10O5
115. Transition from prophase to metaphase
116. i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
117. In virus, DNA or RNA as genetic material with no ribosome
118. Nostoc can fix N2 by nitrogenase,
Nostoc can fix CO2 as it contains Chl.a (photosynthetic)
Nostoc can fix O2 as it is aerobic
119. Light phase is light dependent
120. 11ATP by OP (oxidative phosphorylation) and 1 ATP by SLP(substrate level phosphorylation)
121. i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
122. Mosses
123. a-4-K, b-2-M, c-1-L, d-3-N
124. Two, One
125. papaya shows dioecy
Pg. 6
126. Both 1 and 2
127. Monohybrid test cross – 1: 1, Dihybrid test cross -1: 1:1:1
128. Linkage – Morgan
129. C4 plants – Two ( Mesophyll cell, bundle sheath cell)
C3 plants – One ( Mesophyll cell)
130. 9 dominant, 1 recessive phenotypes
131. It is RNA dependent DNA polymerase during transcription
132. Both S-I and S-II are correct
133. Allolactose
134. iv,iii,ii,i
135. Isolation of desired DNA fragment
136. All protists do not have cell wall
137. Proteins and RNA are hetero polymers
138. Beans – Non endospermic seeds
139. Spreading out branches bearing leaves, flowers and fruits
140. In photorespiration , ATP and NADPH 2 are not produced, but ATP utilised
141. DNA ligase
142. Insect group specific
143. Volume of CO2 evolved/Volume of O2 consumed
144. Matured sieve elements are anucleated living cells
145. Brewing – alcohol formation
146. Microbodies
147. both 1 and 2
148. QB Bacteriophage – ssRNA
149. Secondary xylem, secondary phloem
150. One
ZOOLOGY
151. All of them show bilateral symmetry
152. “The Evil Quartet” is he sobriquet used to describe causes of biodiversity losses
153. Estrogen dominates before ovulation and progesterone dominates after ovulation
154. Dolphin – Lungs., Balanoglossus - Gills
155. FSH and LH are gonadotropins. In males FSH acts on Sertoli cells and stimulates the process of
spermiogenesis
156. Body covered with feathers; bony endoskeleton; oviparous; direct development - Aves
157. A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
158. In skin, dense irregular connective tissue is present.
159. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
160. In frog, urinary bladder is located Ventral to rectum
161. In HGP, the sequence of chromosome-1 was completed in May 2006
162. A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
163. DNA finger printing is a technique which works on the principle of Polymorphism in DNA
sequences
164. During aestivation and hibernation, frogs perform cutaneous respiration
165. A – mean character value, B – other than mean character value
166. Maximum reabsorption occurs in PCT of nephron
167. Secondary lymphoid organs provide the sites for interaction of Lymphocytes with the antigens,
then Lymphocytes proliferate to become effector cells
168. Residual volume is not taken into consideration in measuring of these two capacities of the
lungs Vital capacity and expiratory capacity
169. Smack is an opioid
170. Deoxygenated blood pumped into the pulmonary artery is passed on to the lungs from where the
oxygenated blood is carried by the pulmonary veins into the left atrium. This pathway constitutes
Pulmonary circulation
171. α-1 antitrypsin is used to treat which disease Emphysema
Pg. 7
172. Platelets are cell fragments produced from megakaryocytes
Basophils are not Phagocytic cells
173. In Competition, both partners are adversely affected
174. Proximal convoluted tubule is lined by simple cuboidal brush border epithelium
175. The producer which breed only once in its life time is Bamboo
176. Both statement A and statement B are wrong
177. When number of immigrations and births is more than emigrations and deaths, the growth curve of
the population will show Acceleration phase
178. D – Sternum, to which true ribs attach with the help of hyaline cartilage
179. In most of the ecosystems, the pyramids of number and of biomass are upright
180. In myelinated axons, the gaps between two adjacent myelin sheaths are called nodes of Ranvier
181. Bangarus, Naja, Vipera are poisonous snakes
182. Exopthalmic goitre is a form of hyperthyroidism
183. Sarcoplasmic Retculum is considered as store house of calcium ion’s in muscle fibre
184. Hormone that enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilization is secreted by  - cells of Islets of
Langerhans
185. The hormone which suppress immune responses is Cortisol
186. Cranium and vertebral column are cartilaginous in Petromyzon
187. X=26,
Y=sacrum,
Z=coccyx
188. HGP was closely associated with the rapid development of a new area in biology called
Bioinformatics
189. Convergent evolution is explained by Eye of octopus and Mamuls
190. Atrial systole increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by about 30percent
191. A haemophilic father passes the defective gene to all his daughters
192. A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (i)
193. Depolarization of nerve fibre is due to Influx of Na+
194. Flippers of penguins and dolphins are the example of Analogy
195. I – (b), II – (c), III – (a), IV – (d)
196. In the ovary of female human, degeneration of a large number of primary follicles occurs from
birth to puberty
197. If a person in infected with some deadly microbes to which quick immune response is required as in
tetanus, we need to inject preformed antibodies and Antitoxins
198. In Intra – Uterine insemination, the semen collected from husband/donor is artificially
introduced into the uterus of the female
199. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
200. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in ‘aneuploidy’.
Down’s syndrome results due to Gain of extra copy of chromosome 21

Pg. 8
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 09.11.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-4 Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
In ever y s u bject:
( a ) In Section – A , 3 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. A n s w er all 3 5 qu estion s from section – A
( b ) In Section – B , 1 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. O ut of w hich A n s w er 1 0 qu estion s onl y .
(c) E ach qu estion c a rries 4 m a r k s. F or e ach correct respon se w ill get 4 m a r k s. F or e ach
incorrect respon se, one m a r k w ill be d e d ucte d from th e tot al scores.
PHYSICS
SECTION – A
b  x2
1. The dimensions of a  b in the relation E  , where E is the energy, x is the displacement and it
at
is time are
1) ML2T 2) M 1L2T 3) ML2T 2 4) MLT 2
2. A particle starting with certain initial velocity and uniform acceleration covers a distance of 12m in
first 3 seconds and a distance of 30m in next 3 seconds. The initial velocity of the particle is
1) 3ms 1 2) 2.5ms 1 3) 2ms 1 4) 1ms 1
3. A particle undergoes simple harmonic motion having time period T. The time taken in 3 / 8th
oscillation is
3 5 5 7
1) T 2) T 3) T 4) T
8 8 12 12
4. When current in a coil changes from 5A to 2A in 0.1 s, average voltage of 50V is produced. The self-
inductance of the coil is :
1) 6 H 2) 0.67 H 3) 3 H 4) 1.67 H
5. The work function of aluminum is 4.2 eV . If two photons each of energy 3.5 eV strike an electron of
aluminum, then emission of electron will
1) Depend upon the density of the surface 2) Possible
3) Not possible 4) None of these
6. A doubly ionised Li atom is excited from its ground state  n  1 to n  3 state. The wavelengths of
the spectral lines are given by 32 , 31 and 21 . The ratio 32 / 31 and 21 / 31 are, respectively
1) 8.1, 0.67 2) 8.1,1.2 3) 6.4,1.2 4) 6.4, 0.67
7. Two wires A and B of the same material, having radii in the ratio 1: 2 and carry currents in the ratio
4 :1 . The ratio of drift speed of electrons in A and B is
1) 16 :1 2) 1:16 3) 1: 4 4) 4 :1
8. A bullet of mass 5 g , travelling with a speed of 210 m / s , strikes a fixed wooden target. One half of
its kinetics energy is converted in to heat in the wood. The rise of temperature of the bullet if the
specific heat of its material is 0.030 cal /  g   C 1cal  4.2 107 ergs  close to:
1) 87.5 C 2) 83.3 C 3) 119.2 C 4) 38.4 C

Pg. 1
9. An object undergoing SHM takes 0.5 s to travel from one point of zero velocity to the next such
point. The distance between those points is 50 cm . The period, frequency and amplitude of the
motion is
1) 1s,1Hz , 25cm 2) 2s ,1Hz ,50cm 3) 1s, 2 Hz , 25cm 4) 2s, 2 Hz ,50cm
10. ABC is an equilateral triangle. Charges  q are placed at each corner as shown in fig. The electric
intensity at centre O will be

1 q 1 q 1 3q
1) 2) 3) 4) zero
4  o r 4  o r 2 4  o r 2
11. A metallic bar is heated from 0 C to 100 C . The coefficient of linear expansion is 105 K 1. What
will be the percentage increase in length?
1) 0.01% 2) 0.1% 3) 1% 4) 10%
12. A rough vertical board has an acceleration a along the horizontal so that a block of the mass M
pressing against it does not fall. The coefficient of friction between block and the board is

a g a g
1)  2)  3)  4) 
g a g a
13. Plates of area A are arranged as shown. The distance between each plate d, the net capacitance is

0 A 7 A 6 A 5 A
1) 2) 0 3) 0 4) 0
d d d d
14. A plane wave of the wavelength 6250 A is incident normally a slit of width 2  102 cm . The width of
the principal maximum on a screen distant 50cm will be
1) 312.5  103 cm 2) 312.5  106 m 3) 312.5  103 m 4) 312.5  106 cm
15. The heat radiated per unit area in 1 hour by a furnace whose temperature is 3000K is
  5.7 108Wm2 K 4 
1) 1.7  1010 J 2) 1.1 1012 J 3) 2.8  108 J 4) 4.6  106 J
2 1
16. Two isolated conducting spheres S1 and S 2 of radius R and R have 12  C and 3 C charges,
3 3
respectively, They are now at large distance from each other. They are now connected by a
conducting wire. A long time after this is done the charges on S1 and S 2 are respectively:
1) 4.5 C on both 2) 4.5  C and 4.5  C
3) 3 C and 6 C 4) 6 C and 3 C
Pg. 2
17. A gun fires two bullets at 60 and 30 with horizontal. The bullets strike at some horizontal distance.
The ratio of maximum height for the two bullets is in the ratio of
1) 2 :1 2) 3 :1 3) 4 :1 4) 1:1
18. A generator has an e.m.f. of 440 Volt an internal resistance of 400 Ohm. Its terminals are connected
to a load of 4000 Ohm the voltage across the load is
1) 220 volt 2)440 volt 3) 200 volt 4) 400 volt
19. Electric field inside a copper wire length 10 meters, resistance 2 ohm connected to a 10 volt battery
is
1) 1Vm1 2) 0.5Vm1 3) 10Vm 1 4) 5Vm 1
20. A large number of liquid drops each of radius r coalesce to from a single drop of radius R. The
energy released in the process is converted into kinetic energy of the drop so formed. The speed of
the big drop is (given, surface tension of liquid T, density r)
T 1 1  2T  1 1  4T  1 1  6T  1 1 
1)  2)  3)  4) 
P  r R  P  r R  P  r R  P  r R 
21. The path difference between the two waves:
 2 x 
Y1  a1 sin  t  
  
 2 x 
And Y2  a2 sin  t     will be
  
2 2    2  
1)  2)    3)  4)   
   2 2   2
22. The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron in a certain atom. Which transition shown
represents the emission of a photon with the energy

1) IV 2) III 3) II 4) I
23. A body of mass 10kg and velocity 10m / s collides with a stationary body of mass 5kg. After
collision both bodies stick to each other, velocity of the bodies after collision will be
3 18 9 20
1) m/s 2) m/s 3) m/s 4) m/s
10 3 20 3
24. The r.m.s. velocity of oxygen molecule at 16 C is 474 m / sec. The r.m.s. velocity in m/s of hydrogen
molecule at 127 C is
1) 1603 2) 1869 3) 2230.59 4) 2730
25. The oscillating electric and magnetic field vectors of electromagnetic wave are oriented along
1) the same direction and in phase
2) the same direction but have a phase difference of 90
3) mutually perpendicular directions and are in same phase
4) mutually perpendicular directions but has a phase difference of 90
26. At 0 K which of the following properties of a gas will be zero

Pg. 3
 1) Kinetic energy 2) Potential energy 3) Vibrational energy 4) Density
27. A uniform rod of mass m, length  , area of cross-section A has young’s modulus Y . If it is hanged
vertically, elongation under its own weight will be
mg  2mg  mg  mgY
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 AY AY AY A
28. If two soap bubbles of different radii are connected by a tube. Then
1) air flows the smaller bubble to the bigger bubble
2) air flows from bigger bubble to the smaller bubble till sizes are interchanged
3) air flows from the bigger bubble to the smaller bubble till the sizes become equal
4) there is no flow of air.
29. A brass scale of a barometer gives correct reading at 0 C. Brass  0.00002 /  C . The barometer reads
75 cm at 27 C. The atmospheric pressure at 0 C is
1) 74.20cm 2) 74.62cm 3) 74.92cm 4) 75.04cm
30. The total length of a sonometer wire between fixed ends is 110 cm. Two bridges are placed to divide
the length of wire in ratio 6 : 3: 2. The tension in the wire is 400 N and the mass per unit length is
0.01 kg / m. What is the minimum common frequency with which three parts can vibrate
1) 1100 Hz 2) 1000 Hz 3) 166 Hz 4) 100 Hz
31. For the velocity time graph shown in the figure below the distance covered by the body in the last
two seconds of its motion is what fraction of the total distance travelled by it in all the seven seconds

1 1 2 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 4 3 3
32. A 25 cm long solenoid has radius 2 cm and 500 total number of turns. It carries a current of 15 A. If

it is equivalent to a magnet of the same size and magnetization M (magnetic moment/volume), then

M is
1) 30000 Am 1 2) 3 Am 1 3) 30000Am 1 4) 300Am 1
33. Assertion: The centre of mass of a body may lie where there is no mass.
Reason: Centre of mass of body is a point, where the whole mass of the body is
supposed to be concentrated.
1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is correct explanation for assertion.
2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct
34. Consider the following statements and select the correct statements(s).
I. Two statellites of equal masses orbiting the earth at different heights have equal moments of inertia
II. If earth were to shrink suddenly, length of the day will increase
III. Centre of gravity cannot coincide with centre of mass
1) I only 2) II only 3) I and II 4) I,II, and III

Pg. 4
35. Which of the following statements is/are correct
I. Pure Si doped with trivalent impurities gives a p-type semiconductor
II. Majority carries in a n-type semiconductor are holes
III. Minority carries in a p-type semiconductor are electrons
IV. The resistance of intrinsic semiconductor decreases with increase of temperature
1) I only 2) I,III and IV 3) I and IV 4) II only
SECTION-B
36. A stone is thrown with a velocity u making an angle  with the horizontal. The horizontal distance
covered by its fall to ground is maximum when the angle  is equal to
1) 0 2) 30 3) 46 4) 90
37. The figure shows the path of a positively charged particle 1 through a rectangular region of uniform
electric field as shown in the figure. What is the direction of electric field and the direction of
particles 2, 3 and 4 ?

1) Top, down, top, down 2) Top, down, down, top

3) Down, top, top, down 4) Down, top, down, down
38. A circular disc A of radius r is made from an iron plate of thickness t and another circular disc B of
radius 4r is made from an iron plate of thickness t/4. The relation between the moments of inertial I A
and I B is
1) I A  I B 2) I A  I B
3) I A  I B 4) depends on the actual value of t and r
39. The threshold frequency for a photosensitive metal is 3.3  1014 Hz . If light of frequency 8.2  1014 Hz
is incident on this metal, the cut-off voltage for the photoelectric emission is nearly
1) 2V 2) 3V 3) 5V 4) 1V
40. A light ray falls on a rectangular glass slab as shown, The index of refraction of the glass, if total
internal reflection is to occur at the vertical face,is

1) 3/ 2 2)
 
3 1
3)
 
2 1
4) 5 / 2
2 2
41. During ab adiabatic compression, 830 J of work is done on 2 moles of a diatomic ideal gas to reduce
its volume by 50%. The change in its temperature is nearly:  R  8.3 JK 1mo11 
1) 40K 2) 33K 3) 20K 4) 14K
42. Which of the given graphs proves newton’s law of cooling

1) 2) 3) 4) None of these
Pg. 5
43. When the rms voltages VL : VC : VR  1: 2 : 3. If the rms voltage of the AC sources is 100 V , the VR is
close to:
1) 50V 2) 70V 3) 90V 4) 100V

44. The gravitational field in a region is given by g  5 N / kgiˆ  12 N / kgjˆ. The change in the
gravitational potential energy of a particle of mass 1 kg when it is taken from the origin to a point
 7 m, 3m  is:
1) 71J 2) 13 58J 3) 71J 4) 1J
45. The counting rate observed from a radioactive source at t  0 was 1600 counts s 1 , and t  8s , it was
100 counts s 1. The counting rate observed as counts s 1 at t  6 s will be
`1) 250 2) 400 3) 300 4) 200
46. A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 15 and gives full scale deflection for a current of 4mA. To
convert it to an ammeter of range 0 to 6 A
1) 10 m resistance is to be connected in parallel to the galvanometer
2) 10 m resistance is to be connected in series with the galvanometer
3) 0.1 resistance is to be connected in parallel to the galvanometer
4) 0.1 resistance is to be connected in series with the galvanometer
47. A block of mass m is kept on a platform which starts from rest with constant acceleration g/2
upward, as shown in fig. work done by normal reaction on block in time t is :

m g 2t 2 m g 2t 2 3m g 2t 2
1)  2) 3) 0 4)
8 8 8
48. The conditions for producing sustained interference are
I. phase difference between interfering waves remains constant with time.
II. interfering waves have nearly same amplitude levels.
III. interfering waves are of same frequency.
IV. interfering waves are moving in opposite directions.
1) I, II and III 2) II and III 3) III and IV 4) I and IV
49. Assertion : Kirchoff’s junction rule follows from conservation of charge.
Reason : Kirchoff’s loop rule follows from conservation of momentum.
1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct: reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct
50. A uniform thin rope of length 12 m and mass 6 kg hangs vertically from a rigid support and a block
of mass 2 kg is attached to its free end. A transverse short wave-train of wavelength 6 cm is
produced at the lower end of the rope. What is the wavelength of the wavetrain ( in cm) when it
reaches the top of the rope
1) 3 2) 6 3) 12 4) 9

Pg. 6
 CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
–
51. What is the [OH ] in the final solution prepared by mixing 20.0 mL of 0.05 M HCl with 30.0 mL of
0.10 M Ba(OH)5 :
(1) 0.10 M (2) 0.40 M (3) 0.0050 M (4) 0.12 M
52. Assertion : 2 mol N2 react with 3 mol H2 to form 2 mol NH3 .
N 2  3H 2  2 NH 3
Reason : N2 is excess and H2 is the limiting reactant.
(1) If both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
53. Equal volume of which of the following solutions will give the precipitate of ferric oxalate (Ksp of
ferric oxalate is 1.0×10–7) :
(1) M/10 FeCl3 solution and M/10 Na2C2O4 solution
(2) M/15 FeCl3 solution and M/15 Na2C2O4 solution
(3) M/20 FeCl3 solution and M/20 Na2C2O4 solution
(4) All of these
54. Assertion : The IUPAC name of HC  C – CH 2 – CH  CH 2 is pent-4-en-1-yne.
Reason : A triple bond is always given a lower locant than a double bond.
(1) If both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
55. In the heterogeneous equilibrium;
Ag 2CrO4  s   2 Ag   aq   CrO42  aq 
What will be the effect on the concentration of CrO42  – ion, upon doubling the concentration of Ag+
ion
(1) reduced to half
(2) reduced to quarter
(3) increase to double
(4) remains unaffected
56. Assertion : The compounds having double bond between carbon atoms always show geometrical
isomerism. Reason : The rotation of groups or atom about carbon -carbon double bond is restricted.
(1) If both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(3) If the assertion is false but the reason is true.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
57. The dihydrogen phosphate of certain metal has formula MH2PO4 . The formula of metal chloride
would be :
(1) MCl (2) MCl2 (3) M2Cl3 (4) MCl3
58. If ionisation potential for hydrogen atom is 13.6eV, then ionisation potential for Li+2 will be:
(1) 54.4 eV (2) 6.8 eV (3) 13.6 eV (4) 122.4 eV

Pg. 7
59. Assertion : BCl3 does not exist as dimer but BH3 exist as dimer (B2H6 ) because.
Reason : Large size chlorine atoms do not fit between the small boron atoms whereas small sized
hydrogen atoms get fitted between boron atoms.
(1) If both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
60. In a reaction 5.0 moles of electrons are transferred to one mole of nitric acid. The possible product
obtained due to reduction is :
(1) 1.0 mole of N2 (2) 0.5 mole of N2 (3) 1.0 mole of N2O (4) 0.5 mole of N2O
61. During detection of phosphorous in an organic compound yellow precipitate are formed due to
formation of :
(1) (NH4)3PO4 (2) (NH4)2MoO4 (3) MgNH4PO4 (4) (NH4)3PO4.12MoO3
62. A compound with molecular formula, C7H16 shows optical isomerism, the compound will be :
(1) 2, 3-dimethylpentane (2) 2,2-dimethylpentane
(3) 2-methylhexane (4) None of these
–7
63. Assertion : pH of 10 M HCl is less than 7 at 250C. Reason : At very low concentration of HCl,
contribution of H+ from water is considerable.
(1) If both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
64. Among the following four structures I to IV

It is true that :
(1) Only II and IV are chiral compounds (2) All four are chiral compounds
(3) Only I and II are chiral compounds (4) Only III is a chiral compound
65. In the following sequence of reactions,

the compound B formed will be :

(1) Butanol-1 (2) Acetone
(3) 2-Methylpropanol-1 (4) 2-Methyl-2-propanol

66. on dehydration with conc. H2SO4 / 1600C predominantly forms :

1) 2) 3) 4)

Pg. 8
67. Assertion : On heating CuSO4 . 5H2O four H2O molecules are removed easily.
Reason : Fifth H2O molecule is held between coordinated water molecule and sulphate ion with the
help of H-bond.
(1) If both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
68. Which of the following compounds is most acidic

1) 2)

3) 4)
69. Identify Y in the sequence

CH 3COONH   X 
P2O5


(1) CH3CH2CONH2 (2) CH3CN (3) CH3COOH (4) (CH3CO)2O
70. CH 3  CH  OH  CH 3 
P .C .C
 A 
NH 2 NH 2
C2 H 5ONa

Compound B is :
(1) Aldoxime (2) Ethoxy propane (3) Propane (4) Propanol
71. The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level of an atom :
(1) 32 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 16
72. Which is incorrect statement :
As the s-character of a hybrid orbital decreases.
i. The bond angle decreases
ii. The bond strength increases
iii. The bond length increases
iv. Size of orbitals increases
(1) i, iii, iv (2) ii, iii, iv (3) Only ii (4) All are correct
73. The decreasing order of bond angle is :
(1) NO2  NO2  NO2 (2) NO2  NO2  NO2
(3) NO2  NO2  NO2 (4) NO2  NO2  NO2
74. Identify the set of reagent/reaction conditions 'X' and 'Y' in the following set of transformations:
CH 3  CH 2  CH 2 Br  X
 Product  Y
 CH 3  CH  Br  CH 3
(1) X=dilute aqueous NaOH, 200C; Y=HBr/acetic acid, 200C
(2) X=concentrated alcoholic NaOH, 800C; Y=HBr/acetic acid, 200C
(3) X=dilute aqueous NaOH, 200C; Y=Br2 /CHCl3 , 00C
(4) X=concentrated alcoholic NaOH, 800C; Y=Br2 /CHCl3 , 00C
75. An alcohol on oxidation is found to give CH3COOH and CH3CH2COOH. The structure of the
alcohol is
(1) CH3CH2CH2OH (2) (CH3)2C(OH)CH2CH3
(3) CH3 (CH2)3CH2OH (4) CH3 –CHOH–CH2 –CH2 –CH3

Pg. 9
76. Which among the following does not have p-electrons?
1) Na 2) He 3) Cl 4) N
77. In which among the following, back – bonding does not exist?
1) BF3 2) AlCl3 3) N  SiH 3 3 4) BCl3
78. Which of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism as well?
3
1) MnO4 2) Cr2 O72  3)  Fe  CN 6  4) CrO42 
79. Which one is a wrong statement?
1) Number of electrons in Na  Z  11 having quantum m  0 is 7
2)A d-orbital can accommodate maximum 2 electrons
3) The energy of 2s and 2p orbitals is equal in case of hydrogen atom
4) Orbital having 2 radial nodes and 2 total nodes is 2s
80. Consider the given reactions
C  graphite   O2  CO2 ; H 0   AkJ
2CO  O2  2CO2 ; H 0   BkJ heat of formation of CO will be
B A B  2A A  2B
1) 2) 3) 3B  2 A 4)
2 2 2
81. Limiting molar conductivity of NH 4 OH i.e.,  0m  NH 4 OH   is equal to
1)  0m  NH 4Cl    0m  NaOH    0m  NaCl 
2)  0m  NH 4Cl    0m  NaOH    0m  NaCl 
3)  0m  NaOH    0m  NaCl    0m  NH 4Cl 
4)  0m  NH 4Cl    0m  NaCl    0m  NaOH 
82. Oxidation number of carbon in C3O2 are
1) 0 and +2 2) -2 and +2 3) 0 and +4 4) -2 and 0
83. If the concentrations of N 2  0.2M , O2  0.4 M and NO  0.8 M in a sealed vessel at 800 K, then
select the correct option
N 2  g   O2  g   2 NO  g  K c at 800 K  0.62 
1) K c  Qc , Equilibrium is shifting in right
2) K c  Qc , Equilibrium is shifting in right
3) K c  Qc , Equilibrium is shifting in left
4) K c  Qc , Equilibrium is shifting in left
84. Match the following compound given in list I with their shapes given in the list II and identity the
correct code.

1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv 2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii 4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
Pg. 10
85. Which colligative property is widely used for the determination of molar masses of protein?
1) Relative lowering in vapour pressure 2) Elevation in boiling point
3) Depression in freezing point 4) Osmotic pressure
SECTION-B
86. In the Carius method of estimation of halogen 1 g of an organic compound produced 1.148 g of
AgCl. The percentage of chlorine present in the compound is (Atomic mass of Ag = 108 u and Cl =
35.5 u)
1) 18.2 % 2) 28.4 % 3) 36.5 % 4) 45.1 %
87. Consider the following reaction sequence
  
 B  major 
i DIBAL  H CH OH excess
CH 3CH 2CH 2CN 
 ii  H 2O  A 
3
HCl  gas 

Major product B is a/ an
1) Ester 2) Acetal 3) Ketal 4) Hemiketal
88. Consider the following reaction sequence

Major product B is

1) 2) 3) 4)
89. Chlorobenzene on reaction with sodium in presence of dry ether majorly gives

1) 2)

3) 4)
3
90. Statemenet –I : Ti  H 2O 6  appears violet in colour due to the d-d transition
3
Statement – II : Ti  H 2O 6  is a diamagnetic species.
In light of the above statements , Choose the most appropriate answer from options given below
1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

Pg. 11
91. Consider the following reaction sequence

NaNO2  HCl
A 
273 278 K
 C 
H 3 PO2
 D  H 3 PO3  N 2  HCl
Compounds B and D respectively are

1) 2)

3) 4)
92. The major product of the reaction of 2-Bromopenrane with alcoholic KOH is
1) Pentan-2-ol 2) Pent-2-ene 3) Pent-1-ene 4) Pentan-1-ol
93. Reaction methixybenzene with Br2 in ethanoic acid majrly gives
1) 2,4 Dibromoanisole 2) p- Bromophenol
3) p- Bromoanisole 4) o-Bromoanisole
94. Statement I : The oxidation states of P in H 3 PO4 and H 3 PO3 are +5 and +3 respectively.
Statement II : The oxidation state of S in H 2 SO5 is +8
In the light of the above statements choose he most appropriate answer from the options given below
1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
95. For a reaction to occur spontaneously
1) H must be negative 2)  H  T S  must be negative
3)  H  T S  must be negative 4) T S must be negative
96. pH of 0.2 M Ca  OH  2 solution is nearly
1) 0.4 2) 0.7 3) 13.3 4) 13.6
97. Highest occupied molecular orbital in N 2 molecule is
1)  * 2 pz 2)  * 2 px 3)  2 py 4)  2 pz
98. Aromatic and antiaromatic species respectively are

1) 2)

3) 4)

Pg. 12
99. Consider the following reaction sequence

Major product C is

1) 2) 3) 4)
100. Match the complezes given in List I with their hybridisation given List II

1) a-i, b-ii. C-iv, d-ii 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv 4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. Terminalisation of chiasmata occur during
1) Pachytene 2) Leptotene 3) Diakinesis 4) Zygotene
102. Assimilatory power required to fix one molecule of CO2 in Calvin cycle is
1) 1 ATP + 1 NADPH + H+ 2) 2 ATP + 3 NADPH + H+
3) 2 ATP + 2 NADPH + H+ 4) 3 ATP + 2 NADPH + H+
103. Constitutive gene in lac operon is
1) z- gene 2) y- gene 3) i-gene 4) a- gene
104. In a secondary growth of dicot root, vascular cambium develops from
1) Partly from cells of endodermis and partly from cells of conjunctive tissue
2) By dedifferentiation of cells of pericycle only
3) By dedifferentiation of cells of endodermis only
4) Partly from cells of pericycle and partly from cells of conjunctive tissue
105. Match the following

Pg. 13
 A B C D
1) iv iii ii i
2) i ii iii iv
3) ii iii i iv
4) iii iv ii i
106. Match column I and column II with respect to transcription and post transcriptional processing of
mRNA

A B C D
1) iii iv I ii
2) iv iii ii i
3) iii I iv ii
4) iii iv ii i
107. Match the following
Column- I Column-II
(Plant) (Character)
a) Chlamydomonas i) Monoecious sporophophyte
b) Pinus ii) Heterosporous pteridophyte
c) Selaginella iii) Zoospores
d) Sphagnum iv) Monoecious gametophyte
1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

Pg. 14
108. Statement – I : DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation only in one direction, that is 5'  3'
Statement – II : During replication of DNA, Okazaki fragments are forms on the leading strand
1) Both statement I and statements II are correct
2) Both Statement I and statement II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect but statements II is correct
109. Number of ATPs liberated in one turn of TCA cycle by substrate level phosphorylation reaction
1) Two 2) Three 3) One 4) Four
110. Assertion (A): When a restriction enzyme made a staggered cut in DNA, overhanging stretches or
sticky ends are formed.
Reason (R) : Some restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA a little away from the centre of
palindromic site
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is correct but R is not correct
4) A is no correct but R is correct
111. In general the egg apparatus of embryo sac in angiosperm consists of
1) One egg cell, two synergids, three antipodal cells, two polar nuclei
2) One egg cell, two synergids, three polar nuclei
3) One egg cell, two synergids
4) One egg cell, two synergids, two antipodal cells
112. Match List – I with List- II
List - I List – II
a) Imbricate i) Calotropis
b) Valvate ii) Cassia
c) Vexillary iii) Cotton
d) Twisted iv) Bean
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv 2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii 3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i 4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
113. Which of the following shoes adventitious roots as well as fibrous roots ?
1) Ficus 2) Sugar cane 3) Turnip 4) Carrot
114. Cork is formed from phellogen by
1) Differentiation 2) Dedifferentiation
3) Redifferentiation 4) Directly derived from procambium
115. Two carbon compound formed in photorespiration process in C3 plant
1) Phosphoglyceric acid 2) Phosphoglycolate
3) Oxalo acxetic acid 4) Pyruvic acid
116. Bivalents formed in meiosis clearly appear as tetrads in
1) Leptotene 2) Zygotene 3) Pachytene 4) Anaphase II
117. Match the following
List – I List – II
a) Polynucleotide phosphorylase i) S. Ochoa
b) Interpretor of genetic code ii) tRNA
c) Code is a combination of bases iii) G. Gamow
(Tripe core)
d) Cell free system for protein synthesis iv) M. Nirenberg
1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii 4) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
Pg. 15
118. Positional information of amino acids in a polypeptide chain is called as
1) Primary structure 2) Secondary structure
3) Tertiary structure 4) Quaternary structure
119. Read the following statements and identify the characters related to the alga shown in the diagram

a) They posses chlorophyll a, c cartotenoids and xanthophylls.

b) The vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall usually covered on the outside by a gelatinous coating
of algin
c) The plant body is usually attached to the substratum by a holdfast and has stipe and leaf like frond
d) They are usually grass due to the dominance of pigments chlorophyll a and b
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) a and b only 2) a, b and c only 3) a, c and d only 4) c, d and e only
120. Identify the correct statements regarding chemiosmotic hypothesis
a) Cytochrome b6/ f acts as proton pump
b) CF0 forms a transmembrane channel that carries out facilitated diffusion of protons across the
membrane
c) Conformational change in the CF1 particle of the ATP synthase leads to ATP formation
d) Energy is not used to pump protons across a membrane, to create a gradient or a high
concentration of protons with in the thylakoid lumen.
e) ATP synthesis occurs due to breakdown of proton concentration gradient established between
lumen and stroma.
1) a, b, d and e 2) a, b and d 3) b, c and d 4) a, b, c and e
121. What is the percentage of homozygous recombinants in the F2 generation of dihybrid cross?
1) 18.25 2) 37.5 3) 12.5 4) 6.25
122. Statement - I : Amino acids have a property of ionizable of -NH2 and - COOH groups hence have
different structures at different pH.
Statement – II : Amino acids valine and glycine are acidic amino acids
1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
123. Assertion (A) : Statins produced by Monascus purpureus have been commercialised as blood
cholesterol lowering agents
Reason ( R) : Statins competitively inhibit the enzymes responsible for synthesis of cholesterol
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is correct but R is not correct
4) A is not Correct but R is correct
Pg. 16
124. The so called red tide is due to the characteristic red colour imparted by dinoflagellates belonging to
genus
1) Aspergillus 2) Gonyaulax 3) Gymnodynium 4) Agaricus
125. Match the following

126. Butyric acid is produced by

1) Acetobacter aceti 2) Aspergillus niger
3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae 4) Clostridium butylicum
127. Statement A : Bt toxin is produced by Bacillus thuringiensis bacteria during particular phase of their
growth.
Statement B : Protoxins are converted into an active from of toxin due to alkaline pH of gut which
solubilise the crystals
1) Both statement A and statement B are correct
2) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect
3) Both statement A and statement B are incorrect
4) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct
128. Select the incorrect statement about diatoms
1) They are aquatic
2) Diatomaceous earth formed by the deposition of the cell walls of diatoms
3) They are microscopic
4) They are good indicators of water pollution as they live only in polluted water
129. Which of the following are non – motile mitospores ?
1) Ascospores 2) Zoospores 3) Conidia 4) Basidiospores
130. Viroid does not have
1) Ribonucleic acid 2) Infectious nature 3) Protein coat 4) Size smaller than virus
131. Assertion (A) : DNA is transmitted from one generation o the other without any change or alteration
Reason (R ) : DNA is carrier of genetic information
1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct and R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is false but R is true
4) Both A and R are false
132. What will be the recombination frequency of genes and A and B if number of recombinants obtained
are two and total offsprings are four?
1) 50 % 2) 25 % 3) 10 % 4) 75 %
Pg. 17
133. The structural RNA which also catalyses the peptide formation in bacteria is
1) snRNA 2) 23S rRNA 3) 28S rRNA 4) 18S rRNA
134. The codon AUG codes for Methionine. What would be the base sequence on anti-codon loop of
tRNA that would be aminoacylated with this amino acid?
1) 3’ A U G 5’ 2) 5’ U A C 3’ 3) 3’ G U A 5’ 4) 5’ C A U 3’
135. The stem of which plant has supporting roots coming out of the lower nodes?
1) Rhizophora 2) Sweet potato 3) Sugarcane 4) Turnip
SECTION-B
136. Select the incorrect statement from the following
1) Tendrils help plant to climb and it develops from axillary buds
2) Arid region plant, like Euphorbia modify their leaves into flattened structures having spines
3) Thorns protect from browsing animals
4) Underground stems of potato act as organs of perennation to tide over unfavourable conditions for
growth
137. Which meristem occurs in grasses and regenerates parts removed by the grazing herbivores?
1) Apical meristem 2) Secondary meristem
3) Lateral meristem 4) Intercalary meristem
138. No organelles, like the ones in eukaryotes, are found in prokaryotic cell, except
1) Vacuoles 2) Glogi body 3) Ribosomes 4) Lysosomes
139. Select the incorrect statement for inclusion bodies
1) Not surrounded by any unit membrane
2) Contain enzymes within vesicles
3) Gas vacuole is a type of inclusion body
4) They lie free in cytoplasm
140. A small bristle like structure sprouting out of the cell and they are known to help to attach bacteria to
rocks in stream is
1) Pili 2) Cilia 3) Flagella 4) Fimbriae
141. During glycolysis one glucose molecule, how many molecules of ATP are consumed and released
respectively ?
1) 4 and 2 2) 2 and 3 3) 3 and 4 4) 2 and 4
142. Read the following statements
a. Food is stored in the form of laminarin
b. Cell wall is covered on the outside by a coating algin
c. Reproduce asexually by non-motile spores.
d. All the membrane contain pyrenoids in chloroplast
Select the pair of incorrect statements w.r.t membrane of phaeophyceae.
1) a and c 2) b and c 3) c and d 4) a and b
143. Which of the following is not an example of moss?
1) Marchantia 2) Funaria 3) Polytrichum 4) Sphagnum
144. 20 Chromosomes and 30 pg of DNA is present in a meristematic cell. What will be the number of
chromosomes and amount of DNA present in this cell just after G2 phase of cell cycle?
1) 40 and 30 pg 2) 10 and 60 pg 3) 30 and 80 pg 4) 20 and 60 pg
145. During cytokinesis, phragmoplast is formed by
1) Lysosomes 2) Glogi complex 3) Nucleus 4) Plastids
146. A phytohormone that was first isolated from human urine is
1) Cytokinin 2) Auxin 3) Gibberellic acid 4) Abscisic acid

Pg. 18
147. The correct order of embryogeny (embryo development) in dicotyledonous plants is
1) Zygote  Globular embryo  Heart shaped embryo  proembryo
2) proembryo  Globular embryo  Heart shaped embryo  Zygote
3) Zygote  proembryo  Heart shaped embryo  Globular embryo  Mature embryo
4) Zygote  proembryo  Globular embryo  Heart shaped embryo  Mature embryo
148. Bacillus thuringiensis is a species of bacteria used to control
1) Bacterial pathogens 2) Viral pathogens
3) Insect pests 4) Protozoans
149. One of the following scientist used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same
chromosome to map their position on the chromosome
1) Alfred Sturtevant 2) Thomas Morgan 3) Robert Brown 4) Gregor Mendel
150. Which of the following is amide of acidic amino acid?
1) Glutamic acid 2) Glycine 3) Aspartic acid 4) Gultamine
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer.
List-I List – II
A) Saccoglossus i) Hooks and suckers
B) Pinctada ii) Nematocysts
C) Limulus iii) Proboscis gland
D) Taenia iv) Calcareous shell
E) Gorgonia v) Book gils
1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii, E-v (2) A-iii, B-iv, C-v, D-i, E-ii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-v, E-i (4) A-iii, B-v, C-iv, D-ii, E-i
152. Choose incorrect statement about frog's heart.
1) The left atrium receives blood from lungs through pulmonary veins
2) The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from sinus venosus
3) Mixed blood is pumped by the ventricle to all body parts
4) Ventricle opens into conus arteriosus on the dorsal side
153. Branchial respiration is not seen in
1) Chelone 2) Petromyzon 3) Catla 4) Aplysia
154. Phagocytic cells which destroy microbes are
1) Basophils, Neutrophils 2) Eosinophils, Lymphocytes
3) Lymphocytes, Neutrophils 4) Neutrophils, Monocytes
155. Statement I: The osmolarity gradient in the renal medullary interstitium of human kidney is mainly
caused by NaCl and urea.
Statement II: The ascending limb of loop of Henle allows active and passive transport of
electrolytes
1) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
2) Statement is correct and statement II is incorrect
3) Statements I and II are correct
4) Statements I and II are incorrect
156. Which of the following is incorrect about HBB gene of human?
1) It is located on 11th chromosome
2) Sickle cell anaemia is due to point mutationin it.
3) It codes for  -chain of haemoglobin
4)  - thalassemia is a quantitative problem due to mutation in it
Pg. 19
157. Which nematode parasite is transmitted to by female mosquito?
1) Wuchereria 2) Plasmodium 3) Ancylostoma 4) Trypanosoma
158. Which method of ex-situ conservation provides protection to the threatened animals?
1) Botanical gardens 2) Wild life safari parks
3) Sacred groves 4) National parks
159. Choose correct set of matching between List - I and List-II with reference to contraception in human.
List-I List – II
a) Condoms. i) prevent implantation
b) Diaphragms ii) prevent insemination
c) LNG – 20 iii) block sperm entry into cervix
d) Multiload -375 iv) suppress sperm motility
e) Oral pills v) inhibit ovulation
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
1) ii iii i v iv
2) ii iii i iv v
3) ii i v iii iv
4) ii iii iv v i
160. Assertion (A): Neurotransmitters are released into synaptic cleft when an action potential arrives at
the axon terminal.
Reason (R): Action potential stimulates the movement of synaptic vesicles which fuse with the
plasma membrane to release neuro transmitters.
1) A is false but R is true
2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
4) A is true but R is false
161. Which of the following does not represent homology?
1) Thoms of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita
2) Flipper of Delphinus and Aptenodytes
3) Flipper of Balaenoptera and wing of Pteropus
4) Hand of human and fore limb of Cheetah.
162. Choose correct set of statements about luteinising hormone.
a) It is secreted by pars distalis
b) It acts on Sertoli cells of testis
c) It maintains corpus luteum
d) It stimulates secretion of androgens
e) Its surge causes ovulation
1) All except b 2) a, d, e only 3) b, c, d only 4) All are correct
163. Choose the correct set of statements related to human skeleton
a) Acromion of sternum articulates with clavicle.
b) Dicondylic skull articulates with atlas
c) True ribs articulate dorsally with sternum through hyaline cartilage
d) Pubic symphysis contains fibrous cartilage
e) Hyoid is a 'U' shaped bone at the base of buccal cavity
1) a, b, d 2) b, d, e 3) all except a 4) c, d, e
164. Statement I: Degeneration of corpus luteum causes disintegration of endometrium leading to
menstruation.
Statement II: The levels of gonadotropins fall during proliferative phase.
1) Statements I and II are correct
2) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
3) Statements I and II are incorrect
4) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect

Pg. 20
165. Claspers are seen in
1) Clarias 2) Carcharodon 3) Caltoes 4) Corvus
166. Which of the following interaction is detrimental to one species and beneficial to the other species?
1) Pisaster and Asterias 2) Balanus and Chathamalus
3) Ascaris and human 4) Adamsia and clown fish
167. Observe the given picture showing human respiratory system and identify the answer with correctly
labelled part and description.

1) A – epiglottis - prevents entry of food into trachea

2) C- Alveoli - sites for pulmonary gaseous exchange
3) B – Trachea - supported by complete cartilaginous rings
4) D – Diaphragm - contraction causes expiration
168. Which peptide hormone causes hyperglycemia?
1)glucagon 2) insulin 3) Adrenalin 4) Cortisol
169. Match List I with List II and choose correct option.
List - I List – II
a) Grave's disease i) Low levels of estrogen
b) Myotonic dystrophy ii) Hypothyroidism
c) Osteoporosis iii) Autoimmune disorder
d) Atherosclerosis iv) Protein energy malnutrition
e) Marasmus v) Genetic disorder
vi) Deposition of fat in arteries
1) A - ii, B - v, C - i, D - vi, E – iv 2) A - iii, B - v, C - i, D - vi, E – iv
3) A - vi, B - v, C - ii, D - iii, E – iv 4) A - v, B - vi, C - i, D - iv, E – ii
170. The process of breakdown of detritus by detritivores such as earthworms is
1) Catabolism 2) Leaching 3) Fragmentation 4) Mineralisation
171. ZW-ZZ method of sex determination is seen in
1) grasshoppers 2) fruit flies 3) chicken 4) humans
172. Match List-I with List -II and identify the correct set.
List-I List-II
A) Goblet cells i) Myelin sheath
B) JG cells ii) Mucus
C) Ciliated cells iii) Erythropoietin
D) Schwann cells iv) Bronchioles
E) Mast cells v) Histamine
1) A - i, B - ii, C - v, D - i, E - iv 2) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - v, E - i
3) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i, E - v 4) A - ii, B - iv, C - v, D - iii, E – i
173. Which of the following statements are true for catecholamines?
a) Steroid hormones
b) They generate second messengers in target cells
c) Hormones of fight or flight
d) They stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis
e) They suppress immune responses
1) b, c, d 2) a, e only 3) b, c only 4) a, d, e
Pg. 21
174. Statement I: The release of Ca  ions from sarcoplasmic reticulum into sarcoplasm initiates muscle
contraction.
Statement II: Ca  ions bind to active sites of actin.
1) Statements I and II are incorrect
2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
3) Statements I and II are correct
4) Statement | is incorrect and statement II is correct
175. Assertion (A): Uncontrolled growth of cancer cells is due to contact inhibition.
Reason (R): Cancer cells exhibit the most feared property called metastasis.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is false but R is true
4) A is true but R is false
176. Which of the following STD is not completely curable?
1) Gonorrhoea 2) Syphilis 3) Genital herpes 4) Cancer
177. According to Hugo devries speciation is caused by
1) directional variation 2) single step large mutation
3) minor, gradual variations 4) heritable acquired characters
178. Choose the option with correct description for the first genetically engineered insulin.
1) It elicits immune response
2) C peptide is removed during maturation
3) Chains A and B were combined by creating diester bonds
4) The two DNA sequences were introduced into separate plasmids of E.coli
179. Match List - I with List - II and choose correct set.
List-I List-II
A) Placenta i) Progesterone
B) Endometrium ii) Colostrum
C) Corpus luteum iii) Testosterone
D) Leydig cells iv) Human chorionic gonadotropin
E) Mammary glands v) Fibrinolysin
1) A - iv, B - v, C - i, D - iii, E - ii 2) A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D - v, E - ii
3) A - iv, B - i, c - ii, D - iii, E - v 4) A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D - i, E - v
180. Highest biodiversity is seen in
1) Beetles 2) Fishes 3) Orchids 4) Crustaceans
181. Which of the following statements is correct for human heart?
1) The A-V valves open due to the pressure exerted by the contraction of atria
2) Decline in ventricular pressure causes opening of semilunar valves
3) The bicuspid and tricuspid valves close due to increased pressure exerted by the contraction of
ventricles
4) 'Dub' sound is associated with closure of semilunar valves during ventricular systole
182. Metamerism is seen in
1) Devil fish 2) Star fish 3) Jelly fish 4) Saw fish
183. If a colour blind man marries a normal woman whose mother is colour blind, what are the chances of
their progeny having colour blindness?
1) 50% 2) 25% 3) 75% 4) 0%

Pg. 22
184. Match List-I with List- II and choose the correct set.
List – I List – II
A) Natural killer cells i) Immunodeficiency
B) HIV ii) Autoimmunity
C) Antivenom iii) Passive immunity
D) Hepatitis B vaccine iv) Active immunity
E) Rheumatoid arthritis v) Innate immunity
1) A - v, B - ii, C - iii, D - i, E - iv 2) A - v, B - ii, C - ii, D - iv, E - i
3) A - v, B - iv, C - iii, D - i, E - ii 4) A - v, B - i, C - iii, D - iv, E – ii
185. Statement I : Net primary productivity is generally lesser than gross secondary productivity.
Statement II :Plants use some amount of GPP during respiration
1) Statements I and II are correct
2) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
3) Statement is correct and statement II is incorrect
4) Statements I and II are incorrect
SECTION-B
186. Which of the following statements are true for oogenesis, but do not hold true for spermatogenesis?
a) It is initiated at puberty
b) It results in formation of 4 haploid gametes
c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cells.
d) Meiosis produces unequal cells.
e) It does not cease after 50 years
1) a, b, c, e 2) d only 3) a, b, d 4) b, d only
187. Choose incorrect pair with reference to adaptations that enable survival of organisms.
1) Opuntia leaves reduced to spines
2) Desert fox - longer ears and limbs
3) Polar seal – Blubber
4) Tribes of Himalayas low RBC count
188. Which of the following animals are ureotelic?
1) Aquatic insects, marine fishes 2) Land snails, birds
3) Mammals, cartilage fishes 4) Bony fishes, aquatic amphibians
189. How many matching are correct:
Column – I Column – II
A. PCT Reabsorption of 70-80% electrolytes
B. Counter-current mechanism Concentration of urine
C. Renal corpuscle Filtration of blood
D. Counter-current mechanism Vasa Recta
1) Three 2) Four 3) Two 4) One
190. Which statement is incorrect for thick filament muscle fibre :
1) Each thick filament is a polymerised protein
2) Globular Head with a short arm are called HMM
3) Each thick filament is formed by actin protein
4) Active sites for actin are located over meromyosin.
191. How many matching are correct
a. Cartilaginous joints - Vertebral column
b. Synovial joints - Ball and socket joint
c. Synovial joints - Hinge joint
d. Cartilaginous joints - Saddle joint
e. Fibrous joint - Pivot joint
1) Two 2) One 3) Four 4) Three
Pg. 23
192. Which is a age-related disorder commonly caused by decreased levels of estrogen :
1) Myasthenia gravis 2) Muscular dystrophy
3) Osteoporosis 4) Tetany
193. In human ABO blood group is a example of :
1) Multiple allelism 2) Law of incomplete dominance
3) Law of independent assortment 4) Pleiotropy
194. If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier female to only some of
the male progeny, the disease is ;
1) Autosomal dominant 2) Autosomal recessive
3) Sex-linked dominant 4) Sex-linked recessive
195. Which one of the following is not a hormone
1) CCK 2) GIP 3) TCT 4) Pepsin
196. Select the correct statement for the given diagram

1) It is Involuntary and neurogenic 2) Present in visceral organ

3) A type of muscular tissue 4) All
197. Select the correct statement for the given below diagram:

a) Jaw less vertebrate b) Triploblastic animal

c) Coelomate animal d) Cranium and vertebral column are cartilaginous
1) a,b,c,d 2) Only a,b,c 3) Only b,c,d 4) Only c,d
198. In the given below hormones how many are not secreted by placenta in human HCG, HPL, Cortisol,
Estrogens, Progestogens, Thyroxine, Relaxin, Prolactin
1) 7 2) 6 3) 5 4) 4
199. The correct sequence of duct from inside to outside the mammary gland is:
1) Alveoli→ mammary duct → mammary tubules → mammary ampulla → lactiferous ducts
2) Alveoli→ mammary tubules→ mammary ampulla → mammary duct → lactiferous ducts
3) Alveoli→ mammary tubules → mammary duct → mammary ampulla → lactiferous duct
4) Alveoli → mammary duct → mammary ampulla → mammary tubules → lactiferous ducts
200. The birth canal forms from
1) Cervical canal and vagina 2) Vagina and uterus
3) Uterus and cervical canal 4) Ampulla and uterus

* * All the Best * *

Pg. 24
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 09.11.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-4 Max.Marks: 720
PHYSICS
1) 2 2) 4 3) 3 4) 4 5) 3 6) 3 7) 1 8) 1 9) 1 10) 4
11) 2 12) 4 13) 1 14) 1 15) 1 16) 4 17) 2 18) 4 19) 1 20) 4
21) 3 22) 2 23) 4 24) 3 25) 3 26) 1 27) 3 28) 1 29) 3 30) 2
31) 2 32) 3 33) 1 34) 2 35) 2 36) 3 37) 1 38) 3 39) 1 40) 1
41) 3 42) 2 43) 3 44) 4 45) 4 46) 1 47) 4 48) 1 49) 3 50) 3
CHEMISTRY
51) 1 52) 1 53) 1 54) 4 55) 2 56) 3 57) 1 58) 4 59) 1 60) 2
61) 4 62) 1 63) 1 64) 3 65) 2 66) 2 67) 1 68) 3 69) 2 70) 3
71) 4 72) 3 73) 3 74) 2 75) 4 76) 2 77) 2 78) 3 79) 4 80) 2
81) 1 82) 1 83) 4 84) 2 85) 4 86) 2 87) 3 88) 4 89) 1 90) 1
91) 2 92) 2 93) 3 94) 2 95) 2 96) 4 97) 4 98) 2 99) 4 100) 4
BOTANY
101) 3 102) 4 103) 3 104) 4 105) 1 106) 4 107) 3 108) 3 109) 3 110) 1
111) 3 112) 2 113) 2 114) 3 115) 2 116) 3 117) 1 118) 1 119) 2 120) 4
121) 3 122) 3 123) 1 124) 2 125) 3 126) 4 127) 1 128) 4 129) 3 130) 3
131) 1 132) 1 133) 2 134) 4 135) 3 136) 2 137) 4 138) 3 139) 2 140) 4
141) 4 142) 3 143) 1 144) 4 145) 2 146) 2 147) 4 148) 3 149) 1 150) 4
ZOOLOGY
151) 2 152) 4 153) 1 154) 4 155) 3 156) 4 157) 1 158) 2 159) 2 160) 2
161) 2 162) 1 163) 2 164) 4 165) 2 166) 3 167) 2 168) 1 169) 2 170) 3
171) 3 172) 3 173) 3 174) 2 175) 3 176) 3 177) 2 178) 4 179) 1 180) 1
181) 3 182) 4 183) 1 184) 4 185) 2 186) 2 187) 4 188) 3 189) 2 190) 3
191) 4 192) 3 193) 1 194) 4 195) 4 196) 4 197) 1 198) 4 199) 3 200) 1

PAPER SETTERS

SNO DIVISION SUBJECT NAME MOBILE NO

1 BLR-CO-KAVERI BHAVAN PHYSICS Mr. Yash 96504 28229
2 BLR-CO-KAVERI BHAVAN CHEMISTRY Mr. Kishore 81067 92252
3 BLR-CO-KAVERI BHAVAN BOTANY Mr. Ghouse 97385 20687
4 BLR-CO-KAVERI BHAVAN ZOOLOGY Smt. Kushbu 95172 70698

Pg. 1
 Hints & Explanations
PHYSICS
1. Ans) (b)
Here. b and x  L2 have same dimensions
2

x2 L2
Also, a    M 1T 1
E  t  M L T T
2 2

a  b   M 1 L2T 
2. Ans) (d)
Let u be the initial velocity that have to find and a be the uniform acceleration of the particle.
For t  3s, distance travelled S  12 m and
For t  3  3  6 s distance travelled
S   12  30  42m
From, S  ut  1/ 2 at 2
1
12  u  3   a  32
2
Or 26  6u  9a ….(i)
1
Similarly, 42  u  6   a  62
2
Or 42  6u  18a …..(ii)
On solving, we get u  1 m s 1
3. Ans) (c)
T
Time to complete 1/4th oscillation is s. Time to
4
1
Complete th vibration from extreme position is obtained from
8
a 2 T
y   a cos t or t  s
2 T 6
th
So time to complete 3/8 oscillation
T T 5T
  
4 6 12

4. Ans) (d)
According to Faraday’s law of electro-magnetic induction,
Ldi
Induced emf, e 
dt
 52 
50  L  
 0.1sec 
50  0.1 5
 L   1.67 H
3 3
5. Ans) (c)
Work function of aluminium is 4.2 eV . The energy of two photons can not be added at the moment
photons collide with electron all its energy will be dissipated or wasted as this energy is not
sufficient to knock it out. Hence emission of electron is not possible.
6. Ans) (c)
Pg. 2
7Ans) (a)
Current flowing through the conductor,
nev d1  (1) 2 vd 4  4 16
1 or 1   .
nev d 2  (2) 2
vd2 1 1
8Ans) (a)
According to question, one half of its kinetic energy is converted into heat in the wood.
1 2 1
mv   msT
2 2
vH 2 210  210
 T    87.5 C
4  s 4  4.2  0.3  1000
9Ans) (a)
Given : T / 2  0.5s
 T  1s
1 1
Frequency, f    1Hz
T 1
If A is the amplitude, then
2 A  50cm  A  25cm
10Ans) (d)
Unit positive charge at O will be repelled equally by
three charges at the three corners of triangle.

By symmetry, resultant E at O would be zero.
11Ans) (b)

  105  100  10 3


  100%  103  100

 10 1  0.1%
12Ans) (d)

Force on M  Mg
Reaction force  Ma
Force of friction   R   Ma
Force of friction will balance the weight. So
g
 Ma  Mg ;  
a
13Ans) (a)
The equivalent circuit is shown in figure
 A
Thus, Cab  C  0
d

Pg. 3
14Ans) (a)
15Ans) (a)
According to stefan’s law
E  T 4
Heat radiated per unit area in 1 hour  3600s  is

 5.7 108   3000   3600  1.7 1010 

4

16Ans) (d)
Total charge Q1  Q2  Q1  Q2
 12  C  3 C  9 C
Two isolated conducting sphres S1 and S 2 are now connected by a conducting wire.
KQ1 KQ2
V1  V2    12  3  9 C
2 R
R
3 3
Q1  2Q2  2Q2  Q2  9 C
 Q1  6 C and Q2  3 C
17Ans) (b)
The bullets are fired at the same initial speed
H u 2 sin 2 60 2g sin 2 60
  2 2  
H 2g u sin 30 sin 2 30

 
2
3/2 3
 
1/ 2
2
1
18Ans) (d)
Total resistance of the circuit
 4000  400  4400
V 440
Current flowing i    0.1 amp .
R 4400
Voltage across load  Ri
 4000  0.1  400volt.
19Ans) (a)
V 10
E   1Vm 1
 10
20Ans) (d)
21Ans) (c)
Phase difference  
 
Path diff   phase diff .  
2 2
22Ans) (b)
 1 1 
E  Rhe  2  2 
 n1 n2 
Pg. 4
  1 1 
E will be maximum for the transition for which  2  2  is
 n1 n2 
Maximum. Here n2 is the higher energy level.
 1 1 
Clearly,  2  2  is maximum for the third transition,
 n1 n2 
i.e. 2  1 . I transition represents the absorption of energy.
23Ans) (d)
Velocity after the collision
10  10  5  0 100 20
   m / sec.
15 15 3
24Ans) (c)
3R  289  3RT 
voxg .   vrms  
32  M 
3R  400
vH  so vH  2230.59m / sec
2

25Ans) (c)
The direction of oscillations of E and B fields are perpendicular to each other as well as to the
direction of propagation. So, electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature.
26Ans) (a)
The kinetic energy is directly proportional to temperature.
27Ans) (c)
F F  mg 
Y    
A YA YA
28Ans) (a)
Let pressure outside be P0
2T
 P1 ( in smaller bubble )  P0 
r
2T
P2 ( in bigger bubble )  P0  R  r
R
 P1  P2
Hence air moves from smaller bubble to bigger bubble.
29Ans) (c)
Suppose the correct barometer height at 0 C is  0 , then
 0    75
Or  0  75  ( Hg   b )  27  75
Or  0  75  (0.6  10 4  0.2  10 4 )  27  75
  0  74.92cm
30Ans) (b)
31Ans) (b)
Distance is last two second

Pg. 5
 1
  10  2  10m .
2
1
Total distance   10   6  2   40m .
2
32Ans) (c)
 NiA
M (mag . moment / volume) 
A
Ni  500 15
  2
 30000 Am 1
 25 10
33Ans) (a)
As the concept of centre of mass is only theoretical, therefore in practice no mass may lie at the
centre of mass. For example, centre of mass of a uniform circular ring is at the centre of the ring
where there is no mass.
34Ans) (b)
If the Earth shrinks suddenly, its radius R would decrease and
2
I  MR 2 would decrease, Thus,  increase to keep angular momentum constant.
5
Hence the length of the day will decrease.
35Ans) (b)
Majority carries in an n-type semiconductor are electrons.
36Ans) (c)
Since Range on horizontal plane is
u 2 sin 2
R
g

So it is max when sin 2  1  
4
37Ans) (a)
Positive charge particle moves in the direction of field and so the right trend is :
Top, down, top, down
38Ans) (c)
39Ans) (a)
K .E.  hv  hvth  eV0 V0  cut off voltage 
h
 V0 
e
 8.2  1014  3.3 1014 

6.6  1034  4.9  1014

  2V
1.6  1019
40Ans) (a)
41Ans) (c)
Given: Work done, W  830 J
No, of moles of gas,   2
For diatomic gas y  1.4
Work done during an adiabatic change
 R  T1  T2 
W
 1

Pg. 6
 2  8.3  T  2  8.3  T 
 830  
1.4  1 0.4
830  0.4
 T   20 K
2  8.3
42Ans) (b)
When hot water temperature T  and surrounding temperature T0  readings are noted, and
log  T  T0  is plotted versus time, we get a straight line having a negative slope; as a proof of
newton’s law of cooling.
43Ans) (c)
Given, V1 : VC : VR  1: 2 : 3
V  100V
VR  ?
As we know,
V  VR2  VL  VC 
2

Solving we get, VR  90V

44Ans) (d)
 
Gravitational field, I  5iˆ  12 ˆj N / kg
dv
1 
dr
x y

v     I x dx   I y dy 
0 0

   I x . x  I y .Y 

  5  7  0   12  3  0  
  35   36    1 J / kg
i.e., change in gravitational potential 1 J / kg .
Hence change in gravitational potential energy 1 J
45Ans) (d)
46Ans) (a)
G  15, ig  4 mA, i  6 A
Required shunt,
 i   4  103 
S   g G   3 
 15
 i i   6  4  10 
 g 
4 103
15
5.996
 10m ( in parallel )
47Ans) (d)

Pg. 7
 mg 3mg
Here, N  mg  ma  n
2 2
N = normal reaction
Now, work done by normal reaction ' N ' on
   3mg  1 2
Block in time t, W  NS    g / 2t 
 2  2 
3mg 2t 2
Or, W 
8
48Ans) (a)
When interfering sources have same frequency and their phase difference remains constant with
time, interference is sustained ( stayed for a finite time interval).
If amplitudes are of nearby values then contrast will be more pronounced.
49Ans) (c)
Kirchoff’s loop rule follows from conservation of energy.
50Ans) (c)

Using, V  f 
V1 V2 V
  2  2 1
1 2 V1
Again using,
V T T
n  2  2 1
 M T1
T2  8 g  Top 

51. No. of mili equivalant of Ba(OH)2

left = No. of mili equivalant of Ba(OH)2 – No. of mili equivalant of HCl
52. The given amount of nitrogen and hydrogen, considering the stoichiometry of the reaction, the given
statements are correct and explaining correctly.
53.

54. In case of symmetrical distribution of the given functional group, lowest locant rule must be follow
2
55. K   Ag   CrO42   Since the value of K is independent of concentration, CrO42  ion will reduce to
one fourth
56. Different groups or atoms must be attached to either of the doubly bonded carbon atoms to show
geometrical isomerism.
57. The dihydrogen phosphate of certain metal has formula MH2PO4 . The formula of metal chloride
would be MCl

Pg. 8
58. Ionisation potential E2 = 13.6 Z2
59. It is a fact.
60. [NCERT 258]
61. During detection of phosphorous in an organic compound yellow precepitate are formed due to
formation of (NH4)3PO4 .12MoO3 .
62.

63. If concentration of H+ is less than or equal to 10–7 then the contribution of H+ ions from water cannot
be neglected
64. I and II contain chiral C-atoms and hence are chiral compounds.
65. Compound A is CH3 –CH(OH)–CH3
Compound B is CH3 –CO–CH3
66.

67. It is a fact.
68. The phenoxide ion left from o- hydroxy benzaldehyde and p-hydroxybenzaldehyde are stabilized by
–I and –R effect of the CHO group. But in o-isomer, due to chelation, it is difficult to remove the H-
atom. Therefore, phydroxybenzaldehyde is the strongest acid.
69. Compound X is : CH3CONH2
Compound Y is : CH3CN
70. Compound A is CH3COCH3
Compound B is CH3CH2CH3
71.

72. [NCERT 103]

73. [NCERT XI 104]
74. [NCERT 292]
75. [NCERT 375]
76. He → 1s2 It does not have electron in p-subshell.
77. AlCl3 can not show back-bonding as none of the element belongs to the 2nd period.
78. [Fe(CN)6]3– is coloured due to d-d transition while other ions are coloured due to charge transfer
79. In Na (Z = 11): 1s2 , 2s2 , 2p6 , 3s1
7 electrons have m = 0
Pg. 9
 • For H- atom, energy of 2s = 2p
• Only 1 radial node is present in 2s orbital.
80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85. Osmotic pressure method has advantage over other methods as pressure measurement is done around
room temperature and molarity is used instead of molality.

Pg. 10
86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

Pg. 11
92. The reaction is -elimination and the preferred alkene is that which has greater number of alkyl
groups attached as per Saytzeff rule.
93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

Pg. 12
99.

100.

151. Saccoglossus – Proboscis gland

Pinctada – Calcareous shell
Limulus – Book gills
Taenia – Hooks and Suckers
Gorgonia – Nematocysts
152. Conus arteriosus is seen on ventral side
153. Chelone is turtle. Reptiles respire through lungs.
154. Phagocytic cells which destroy microbes are Neutrophils, Monocytes
155. The osmotic gradient in the medullary interstitum is caused by transport of NaCl from ascending
limb and passive diffusion of urea from collecting duct
156. Quantitative problem due to mutation in HBB gene is   thalassemia
157. Female Culex mosquito is a vector for Wuchereria which causes filariasis or elephantiasis
158. Wild life safari parks provide ex-situ conservation to animals
159. Condoms – prevent insemination
Diaphragms – prevent implantation
LNG – 20- inhibit ovulation
Multiload – 375 – block sperm entry into cervix
Oral pills – suppress sperm motility
160. Action potential at the axon terminal causes movement of synaptic vesicles which fuse with the
plasma membrane and release the neurotransmitter
161. Flipper of Delphinus (dolphin) and Aptenodytes (penguin) represent analogous organs which are
similar in function
162. LH stimulates secretion of androgens by acting on Leydig cells
163. Acromian is related to scapula. True ribs articulate ventrally with sternum
164. The levels of gonadotropins raise during proliferative phase which causes development of follicles
165. Claspers are seen in male cartilage fishes
166. In parasitism, the host is harmed but, the parasite is benefitted
167. Alveoli are sites for gaseous exchange in lungs Refer to picture in NCERT
168. Glucagon is a peptide hormone. It increases blood sugar by stimulating glycogenolysis and
gluconeogenesis
169. Grave’s disease – Autoimmune disorder
Myotonic dystrophy – Genetic disorder
Pg. 13
 Osteoporosis – Low levels of estrogen
Atherosclerosis – Deposition of fat on arteries
Marasmus – Protein energy malnutrition
170. Earthworms play a role in decomposition by fragmentation
171. ZW-ZZ method is seen in birds
172. Goblet cells – Mucus
JG cells – Erythropoietin
Ciliated cells – Bronchioles
Schwann cells – Myelin Sheath
Mast cells – Histamine
173. Catecholamines (adrenaline and noradrenalin) are amino acid derivatives. They stimulate
glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis which increase blood glucose level.
174. Ca++ ions bind to a subunit of troponin which causes unmasking of active sites of thin filaments
175. Cancer cells are devoid of contact inhibition
176. Genital herpes, AIDS and hepatitis B are not completely curable STD’s
177. According to Hugo Devries speciation is caused by single step large mutation (saltation)
178. It has A and B chains which were combined by creating disulphide bonds. It doesn’t generate
immune response as it is similar to human insulin
179. Placenta – Human chorionic gonadotropin
Endometrium – Fibrinolysins
Corpus luteum – progesterone
Leydig cells – Testosterone
Mammary glands – Colostrum
180. Beetles are nearly 3 lakh species. Among insects beetles have highest biodiversity.
181. During ventricular systole, the A-V values close due to increased pressure
182. Metamerism is seen in annelidsm, arthropods and chordates
183. The woman with normal vision is a carrier as her mother is colourblind

184. Natural killer cells – Innate immunity

HIV- Immunodeficiency
Antivenom – Passive immunity
Hepatitis – B vaccine – Active immunity
Rheumatoid arthritis – Autoimmunity
185. There is energy loss during transfer from producers to herbivores. Therefore NPP is higher than GSP
186. Meiosis I and II are unequal divisions in Oogenesis
187. People living on Himalayas have higher RBC count
188. Mammals and cartilage fishes excrete urea as a major excretory product

Pg. 14
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 16.11.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-5 Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
In ever y s u bject:
( a ) In Section – A , 3 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. A n s w er all 3 5 qu estion s from section – A
( b ) In Section – B , 1 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. O ut of w hich A n s w er 1 0 qu estion s onl y .
(c) E ach qu estion c a rries 4 m a r k s. F or e ach correct respon se w ill get 4 m a r k s. F or e ach
incorrect respon se, one m a r k w ill be d e d ucte d from th e tot al scores.
PHYSICS
SECTION – A
1. The dimensional formula of physical quantity is [M a LbT c ] . Then that physical quantity is
1) Surface tension if a=1, b=1, c=  2 2) Force if a=1, b=1, c=2
3) Angular frequency if a=0, b=0, c=  1 4) Spring constant if a=1, b=  1, c=  2
2. One soap bubble P has radius (n-1)r, another soap bubble Q has radius (n+1)r. The two come into
contact to form a common interface wall. The radius of curvature of this wall will be
( n 2  1) r ( n 2  1) r (n  1)r (n  1)r
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 2
3. The ceiling of a hall is 40m high. For maximum horizontal distance, the angle at which the ball may
be thrown with a speed of 56 ms-1 without hitting the ceiling of the hall is
1) 250 2) 300 3) 450 4) 600
4. A sonometer wire of density  and radius r is held between two sharp edges at a distance ‘l’. The
wire has a tension T. The frequency of pth overtone will be
( p  1) T ( p  1) T p T 1 T
1) n  2) n  3) n  4) n 
2l r 
2
2l r 
2
2l  r 2  2l  r 2 
5. A sample of gas expands from volume V1 to V2. The amount of work done by the gas is greater,
when the expansion is
1) Adiabatic 2) Equal in all cases 3) Isothermal 4) Isobaric
6. Coefficient of volume expansion of ideal gases at constant pressure and at temperature T K is
proportional to
1) 1/T 2) T 3) 1 / T 2 4) T
7. A tangential force F acts at the top of a disc of mass m and radius R. If it rolls without slipping. On
horizontal surface, then
2F 2F
1) Acceleration of disc  2) Friction force between disc and surface 
3m 3
6F F
3) Acceleration of disc  4) Friction force between disc and surface is 
5m 3
2
8. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm falls on a semi reflecting surface (50% reflecting and 50%
absorbing) at normal incidence having surface area 20 cm2. The energy absorbed by the surface
during time span of 1 minute is
1) 24  103 J 2) 48 103 J 3) 10  103 J 4) 12  103 J
Pg. 1
9. Minimum distance between object and image formed by concave mirror of focal length f can be
1) 2f 2) 4f 3)  4) Zero
10. When a moving charge enters a uniform magnetic field, then which among the following statements
may be wrong
1) Particle moment may change but kinetic energy remains constant
2) When particle velocity is perpendicular to magnetic field, the motion in plane perpendicular to
magnetic field is circular
3) If velocity is perpendicular to magnetic field, the magnetic force acts like a centripetal force
4) Larger is momentum, larger will be radius and angular frequency when charge motion in
perpendicular to magnetic field
11. A ray of light passes through an equilateral glass prism. Such that the angle of incidence is equal to
3
angle of emergence which is of the angle of prism. Find angle of deviation  of the ray
4
0 0
1) 0 2) 90 3) 600 4) 300
12. Determine the elongation of the steel bar 1m long and 1.5 cm2 cross-sectional area when subjected to
a pull of 1.5  10 4 N . (Take Y=2.0 x 1011 N/m2)
1) 0.5 mm 2) 10.5 mm 3) 0.1 mm 4) 6.0 mm
a
13. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio  interfere. Then the value of max is
amin
 1 1  1  2 
1) 2) 3) 4)
 1  2  1 
14. In a car race, car A takes time t less than car B and passes the finishing point with a velocity V more
than the velocity with which car B passes the point. Assuming that the cars start from rest and travel
V
with constant accelerations a1 and a2 respectively, the value of is
t
a1a2
1) 2a1a2 2) 3) a1a2 4) 2 a1a2
2
15. A lens having focal length f and aperture of diameter d forms a real image of intensity I. Aperture of
d
diameter in central region of lens is covered by a black paper. Focal length of lens and intensity
2
of image now will be respectively
I 3f I 3I f I
1) f , 2) , 3) f , 4) ,
4 4 2 4 2 2
16. Pentavalent impurity is called
1) Acceptor 2) Donor
3) Acceptor-donor 4) None of the above
17. A cylindrical vessel of 92 cm height is kept filled upto the rim. It has four holes 1, 2, 3 and 4 which
are respectively at heights of 20 cm, 30 cm, 46 cm and 80 cm from the horizontal floor. The water
falling at the maximum horizontal distance from the vessel comes from
1) Hole no.4 2) Hole no.3 3) Hole no.2 4) Hole no.1
18. Mean free path is inversely proportional to
1) Number density
2) Square of molecular diameter
3) Square of number of density
4) Both 1 and 2

Pg. 2
19. Light of wavelength 2  falls on a metal having work function hc / 0 . Photoelectric effect can take
place only if
0
1)   0 2)   20 3)   4) Both 1 and 2
2
20. A U – shaped smooth wire has a semicircular bending between A and B as shown in the figure. A
bead of mass m moving with uniform speed v through the wire enters the semicircular bend at A and
leaves at B. The average force, exerted by the bead on the part AB of the wire is

4mv 2 2mv 2 mv 2
1) 0 2) 3) 4)
d d d
21. If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from an orbit n1  3 to an orbit with level n f  2 , the
frequency of the emitted radiation is
36c cR 5Rc 6c
1) v  2) v  3) v  4) v 
5R 6 36 R
22. For electron revolving in a orbit of an atom if K is kinetic energy, U is potential energy and E is total
energy, then
1) K=E 2) K=  U 3) U=2E 4) None of these
23. An impulse I given to a body changes its velocity from v1 to v2 . The increase in the kinetic energy of
the body is given by
1) I (v1  v2 ) 2) I (v1  v2 ) / 2 3) I (v1  v2 ) 4) I (v1  v2 ) / 2
24. A spherical portion has been removed from a solid sphere having Q charge distributed uniformly in
its volume as shown in figure. The electric field inside the emptied space is

1) Zero energy where 2) Non-zero and uniform

3) Non-uniform 4) Zero only at its centre
25. Point charge q moves from point P to point S along the path PQRS (figure) in a uniform electric field
E pointing parallel to the positive direction of the x-axis. The coordinates of the points P, Q, R and S
are (a, b, 0), (2a, 0, 0), (a, -b, 0) and (0, 0, 0) respectively. The work done by the field in the above
process is given by expression

1) qEa 2) –qEa 3) qEa 2 4) qE [(2a ) 2  b 2 ]

Pg. 3
26. As shown in the figure, a magnet in moved with a fast speed towards a coil at rest. Due to this
induced electromotive force, induced current and induced charge in the coil are E, I and Q
respectively. If the speed of magnet is doubled, the incorrect statement is

1) E and I increase
2) I increases and Q remains same
3) E increases and Q remains same
4) E, I and Q increase
27. Photo electric emission is observed from a metallic surface for frequencies v1 and v2 of the incident
light (v2 > v1). If the maximum value of K.E of the photo electrons emitted in these two cases are in
the ratio 1: K, the threshold frequency of the metal surface is
Kv1  v2 Kv1  v2 Kv2  v1 Kv1  v2
1) 2) 3) 4)
K 1 K 1 K 1 K 1
28. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?

1) AND 2) NOR 3) OR 4) NAND

29. The debroglie wavelength of an electron is  and has energy E. If the de Broglie wavelength is
reduced by 25%, then how much extra kinetic energy will the electron have now
16 7 9 9
1) E 2) E 3) E 4) E
9 9 7 16
30. 0.4iˆ  0.6 ˆj  ckˆ represents a unit vector when c is
5 3 2 3 3 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 5 2 5 3
31. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
A) Electric field outside I) Constant
a conducting charged sphere
B) Electric potential outside II) Dicrectly proportional to
a conducting charged sphere distance from the centre
C) Electric field inside a non- III) Inversly proportional to
conducting charged sphere distance from the centre
D) Electric potential inside IV) Inversly proportional to square of the
Charged conducting sphere distance from the centre
1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Pg. 4
32. In the circuit given in the following figure, 1 and 2 are ammeters. Now just ofter key k is pressed to
complete the circuit, the readings are

1) Zero in both 1 and 2 2) None zero in both 1 and 2

3) Zero in 1 non zero in 2 4) Non zero in 1 and zero 2
33. A long glass tube is held vertically in water. A tuning fork is struck and held over the tube. Strong
resonances are observed at two successive lengths 0.50 m and 0.84 m above the surface of water. If
the velocity of sound is 340 ms-1, then the frequency of the tuning fork is
1) 250 Hz 2) 125 Hz 3) 500 Hz 4) 350 Hz
34. The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination  is perfectly smooth while lower half is rough. A
block starting from rest at the top of the plane will again come to rest at the bottom. Then the
coefficient of friction between the block and the lower half of the plane is given by
1 2
1)   2 tan  2)   tan  3)   4)  
tan  tan 
35. If two condensers of capacities 2 F and 3 F are connected in parallel with a battery, the charge
and energy of 2 F condenser are Q & E respectively. Then the charge and energy of 3 F
condenser are
3Q 2 E 2Q 3 E 3Q 3E
1) , 2) , 3) 3Q, 2E 4) ,
2 3 3 2 2 2
SECTION-B
36. During a rainy day, rain is falling vertically down with a velocity 2m/s. A boy at rest starts his
motion with a constant acceleration of 2m/s2 along a straight road. Find the rate at which the angle of
the axis of the umbrella with vertical should be changed so that the rain always appears to fall
parallel to the axis of the umbrella.
1 2 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
1 t 2
1 t 2
2t 2
1  2t 2
37. A resistance of 2 is connected across one gap of a metre-bridge (the length of the wire is 100 cm)
and unknown resistance, greater than 2 , is connected across the other gap. When these resistances
are interchanged, the balace point shifts by 20cm, neglecting any end correction, the unknown
resistance is
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
38. A U-tube in which the cross-sectional area of the limb on the left is one quarter of that of the limb on
the right, contains mercury (density 13.6 g/cm3). The level of mercury in the narrow limb is at a
depth of 36 cm from the upper end of the tube. What will be the rise in the level of mercury in the
right liumb if the left limb is filled to the top with water.

1) 1.2 cm 2) 2.64 cm 3) 0.56 cm 4) 0.8 cm

Pg. 5
39. Two identical wires are made of materials having specific conductivity 1 and  2 . The effective
conductivity of the combination formed by them placed side by side is
2 1  2  2  
1) 2) 1 3) 1 2 4) 1   2
1   2 2 1   2
40. Relative permittivity and permeability of a material are r and r respectively. Which of the
following values of these quantities are allowed for a diamagnetic material?
1) r  0.5, r  1.5 2) r  1.5, r  0.5 3) r  0.5, r  0.5 4) r  1.5, r  1.5
41. A body of mass 500g is thrown upward with a velocity 20m/s and reaches back to the surface of a
planet after 20 sec. Then gravity at the planet will be
1) 2N/kg 2) 4N/kg 3) 5N/kg 4) 1N/kg
42. The range of voltmeter of resistance 200  is changed from 5V to 30V. It can be done by connecting
a series resistance of
1) 1 K  2) 0.5 K  3) 10 K  4) 2.2 K 
43. Binding energy per nucleon verses mass number curve for nuclei is shown in the following figure.
Four nuclei W, X, Y and Z are indicated on the curve. The process that would release energy is

1) Y  2 Z 2) W  X  Z 3) W  2Y 4) X  Y  Z
44. Assertion (A) : For steady state during heat conduction across a uniform rod, temperature gradient is
same for all points.
Reason (R) : Thermal current decreases as we move across rod from higher temperature to lower
temperature
1) If both A and R are true and the R is the correct explanation of the A
2) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the A
3) If A is true but R is false
4) It the A and R both are false
45. In an AC circuit, the instantaneous value of e.m.f and current are e=200 sin 314 t volt and
 
i=sin  314t   ampere. The average power consumed in watt is
 3
1) 200 2) 100 3) 50 4) 25
46. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and separation between the plates d, is charged by a
constant current ‘I’. Consider a plane surface of area A/2 parallel to the plates and drawn between the
plates. The displacement current through the area is
I I I
1) I 2) 3) 4)
2 4 8
47. Statement-A : Two independent sources of light would no longer act as coherent sources
Statement-B : Average energy in the interfence pattern is same as it would be if there were no
interference
1) Both A and B correct 2) Both A and B wrong
3) A correct and B wrong 4) A wrong and B correct
Pg. 6
48. An object of mass 40 kg having velocity 4iˆ m / s collides with another object of mass 40 kg having
velocity 3 ˆj m / s . If the collision is perfectly inelastic, then the loss mechanical energy
1) 250 J 2) 100 J 3) 125 J 4) 35 J
49. A cone lies in a uniform electric field E as shown in figure. The electric flux entering the cone is

EhR
1) E R 2 2) ERh 3) 4) Eh2
2
50. Assertion (A) : There is no cause effect relation between action and reaction
Reason (R) : Action and reaction forces are not simultaneous forces
1) If both A and R are true and the R is the correct explanation of the A
2) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the A
3) If A is true but R is false
4) If the A and R both are false
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. Statement - I : Acetophenone shows aldol condensation
Statement - II : Acetophenone contains Carbonyl group
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
52. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the following will not be a viable
1) He22  2) He2 3) H 2 4) H 22 
53. In the following there are three carbon-oxygen bonds denoted by x, y, z.

Their lengths are in order :

1) x = y < z 2) x < y < z 3) x < y = z 4) None of these
54. The reaction

Is fastest when X is
1) OCOR 2) OC5 H5 3) NH 2 4) Cl
0
55. The minimum number of 90 angle between hybrid orbitals is observed in
1) sp3d2 2) d2sp3 3) dsp2 4) sp3d
56. In which option properties of the given three complex are correct :
[Ni(CN)4]2– [Ni(Cl)4]2– [Ni(CO)4]
1) Square planar Paramagnetic   8 B.M
2)  = 0 tetrahedral diamagnetic
3) diamagnetic   8 B.M Square planar
4) Square planar Diamagnetic Tetrahedral
Pg. 7
57. Number of visible lines when an electron returns from 5th orbit to ground state in H-spectrum.
1) 5 2) 4 3) 3 4) 10
58. Reaction BaO2 ( s)  BaO( s)  O2 ( g ); H  ve. In equilibrium condition pressure of O2 depends
on :
1) Increase mass of BaO2 2) Increase mass of BaO
3) Increase temperature on equilibrium 4) Increase mass of BaO2 and BaO both
59. The increasing order of basicity of the following compounds is :

1) b < c < a 2) b < a < c 3) c < a < b 4) None of these

60. Ph-OCH3 +Hl  Product
In the above reaction product and mechanism is
1) CH3I, SN1 2) CH3I, SN2 3) PhI, SN1 4) PhI, SN2
61. For a reaction A  2 B , rate of disappearance of ‘A’ is related to the rate of appearance of ‘B’ by the
expression
d [ A] d [ B] d [ A] 1 d [ B ] d [ A] 1 d [ B ] d [ A] d [ B ]
1)  4 2)   3)   4)  
dt dt dt 2 dt dt 4 dt dt dt
62. In the following sequence of reactions, the compound ‘B’ will be

The compound B is
1) CH3CHO 2) CH3CH2CHO 3) CH3COCH3 4) CH3CH2COCH3
63. For the following three reactions i, ii and iii equilibrium constants are given :

Which of the following relations is correct ?

1) K 3 .K 23  K12 2) K1 K2  K3 3) K 2 K3  K1 4) K3  K1K 2
64. In the hydrocarbon

The state of hybridization of carbons 1, 3 and 5 are in the following sequence

1) sp, sp3, sp2 2) sp, sp2, sp3 3) sp3, sp2, sp 4) sp2, sp, sp3
65. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
Name of oxo acid Oxidation state of ‘P’
A. Hypophosphorous acid I. +5
B. Orthophosphoric acid II. +4
C. Hypophosphoric acid III. +3
D. Orthophosphorous acid IV. +2
V. +1
1) A-IV, B-V, C-II, D-III 2) A-V, B-IV, C-II, D-III
3) A-V, B-I, C-II, D-III 4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Pg. 8
66. The conjugate acid of NH 2 is:
1) NH3 2) NH2OH 3) NH 4 4) N2H4
67. Statement-I : BF3 is nonpolar compound
Statement-II : It posess nonpolar bonds.
1) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect 2) Both S-I and S-II are correct
3) S-I is correct, S-II is incorrect 4) S-II is correct, S-I is incorrect
68. Which of the following gives iodoform test :
1) CH3CHO 2) HCHO 3) Both 1 and 2 4) None
69. Which one of the following is an outer orbital complex and exhibits paramagnetic behaviour :
1) [ Ni ( NH 3 ) 6 ]2  2) [ Zn( NH 3 ) 6 ]2  3) [Cr ( NH 3 ) 6 ]3 4) [Co( NH 3 ) 6 ]3
70. Which of the following pair of transition metal ions, have the same calculated values of spin only
magnetic moment :
1) Ti+2 and V+2 2) Fe+2 and Cu+2 3) Cr+2 and Fe+2 4) Co+2 and Ti+2
71. Vapour pressure of an ideal solution of two liquids A and B is given by P=90X A +119 (in torr), here
XA represents the mole fraction of A in liquid mixture. The vapour pressure (in torr) of equimolar
mixture of the two liquids will be
1) 209 2) 280 3) 140 4) 164
72. The IUPAC name of the compound is :

1) 5-Methylhex-3-en-2-ol 2) 2-Methylhex-3-en-5-ol
3) 2-Hydroxy-5-methyl-3-hexene 4) 5-Hydroxy-2-methyl-3-hexene
73. During the formation of a chemical bond :
1) Energy of the system does not change
2) Electron-electron repulsion becomes more than the nucleus-electron attraction
3) Energy decreases
4) Energy increases
74. Which of the following molecules have allylic carbon.
1) CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – X 2) CH2 = CH – CH2 – X

3) 4) All
75. Name and Catalyst of the following reaction is

1) Stephen reaction – H2 + Pd/BaSO4 2) Rosenmund reduction – SnCl2/HCl+H3O+

3) Rosenmund reduction – H2+Pd – BaSO4 4) Etard reaction – CrO2Cl2/CS2
76. If 0.5 mol of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.2 mol Na3PO4 then maximum number of moles of Ba3(PO4)2 that
can be formed is
1) 0.7 2) 0.5 3) 0.3 4) 0.1
77. The t1/2 of first order reaction is
1) dependent upon initial concentration
2) directly proportional to initial concentration
3) inversely proportional to initial concentration
4) independent of initial concentration
Pg. 9
78. All real gases behaves as ideal under
1) low pressure, high temperature 2) high pressure, high temperature
3) low pressure , low temperature 4) high pressure, low temperature
79. Standard electrode potentials of two half cells are given as
Zn2+/Zn = –0.76 V
Ag+/Ag = 0.80 V
The EMF of the cell
Zn | Zn2+ (1M) || Ag+ (1M) | Ag will be :
1) 1.56 V 2) 1.20 V 3) 0.04 V 4) – 1.56 V
80. The correct order of acidic strength is :
1) CH3CF2COOH>CH3CCl2COOH>CH3CBr2COOH
2) CH3CF2COOH>CH3CBr2COOH>CH3CCl2COOH
3) CH3CBr2COOH>CH3CCl2COOH>CH3CF2COOH
4) CH3CCl2COOH>CH3CBr2COOH>CH3CF2COOH
81. In test for primary amines, the amine is treated with CHCl3 and KOH and a bad smelling compound
is formed. If the primary amine used is ethylamine, identify the bad smelling compound formed :
1) CH3CN 2) CH3CNO 3) CH3CH2NC 4) CH3NCO
H SO
82. CaC2  H 2O  A 
HgSO  B
2 4
4

Identify A and B in the above reaction :

1) C2H2 and CH3COOH 2) C2H4 and CH3COOH
3) CH4 and HCOOH 4) C2H2 and CH3CHO
83. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not correct :
n l m s
1
1) 2 0 0 
2
1
2) 4 3 2 
2
1
3) 2 2 0 
2
4) All of these
84. Which of the following is most stable :
1) Sn+ + 2) Ge+ + 3) Si+ + 4) Pb+ +
85. The correct order of melting points of hydrides of group 16 elements is
1) H 2 S  H 2 Se  H 2Te  H 2O 2) H 2O  H 2 S  H 2 Se  H 2Te
3) H 2 S  H 2Te  H 2 Se  H 2O 4) H 2 Se  H 2 S  H 2Te  H 2O
SECTION-B
86. Which one of the following substances has the highest proton affinity :
1) H2O 2) H2S 3) NH3 4) PH3
87. Assertion (A) : The pH of water increases with increase in temperature
Reason (R) : The dissociation of water into H+ and OH- is an exothermic reaction
1) Both A and R are true, and the R is the correct explanation for the A
2) Both A and R are false
3) Both A and R are true, but the R is not the correct explanation for the A
4) A is not true, but R is true

Pg. 10
88. 12.3 g nitrobenzene is reduced into aniline by electrolysis, if current efficiency is 25% calculate
charge required in coulombs
1) 12 × 96500 coulombs 2) 1.2 × 9650 coulombs
3) 24 × 9650 coulombs 4) 96500 coulombs
89. In the preparation of compounds of Xe, Bartlett had taken O2 +PtF6 – as a base compound. This is
because
1) Both O2 and Xe have same size
2) Both O2 and Xe have same electron gain enthalpy
3) Both O2 and Xe have almost same ionisation enthalpy
4) Both Xe and O2 are gases
90. Assertion (A) : Boron is unable to form BF63
Reason (R) : Size of B is very small.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false and R is true
91. Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic attack?

1) 2) 3) 4)

92. Number of moles of MnO4 required to oxidize one mole of ferrous oxalate completely in acidic
medium will be:
1) 0.4 moles 2) 7.5 moles 3) 0.2 moles 4) 0.6 moles
93. Arrange the following carbocations in decreasing order of stability

1) A>C>B 2) A>B>C 3) C>B>A 4) B>A>C

94. Select the incorrect matching :
1) Keratin Protein – Tertiary structure 2)  -helical structure – right handed coiling
3) Insulin – Globular protein 4) Denaturation – do not loses its biological activity

95.

X is,

1) 2) 3) 4)

Pg. 11
96. If at 298 K the bond energies of C–H, C–C, C=C and H–H are respectively, 414, 347, 615 and 435
kJ mol–1, the value of enthalpy change for the reaction
H 2C  CH 2 ( g )  H2 ( g )  H 3C  CH3 ( g ) at 298 K will be :
1) +250 kJ 2) –250 kJ 3) +125 kJ 4) –125 Kj
+ 2+ 2+ 2+
97. The standard potentials of Ag /Ag, Hg2 /2Hg, Cu /Cu and Mg /Mg electrodes are 0.80, 0.79, 0.34
and -2.37 V, respectively. An aqueous solution which contains one mole per litre of the salts of each
of the four metals is electrolyzed. With increasing voltage, the correct sequence of deposition of the
metals at the cathode is
1) Ag, Hg, Cu, Mg 2) Cu, Hg, Ag only 3) Ag, Hg, Cu only 4) Mg, Cu, Hg, Ag
98. The correct order of bond dissociation enthalpy of halogens is
1) Cl2>Br2>F2>I2 2) F2>Cl2>Br2>I2 3) Cl2>F2>Br2>I2 4) I2>Br2>Cl2>F2
99. The total number of isomers for a square planar complex [M(F)(Cl)(SCN)(NO2)] is
1) 16 2) 8 3) 4 4) 12
100. The compound used in the treatment of lead poisoning is
1) D-penicillamine 2) Desferrioxime B 3) Cis-platin 4) EDTA

BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. The genetic material of causal agent of PSTD is different from genetic material of casual agent of
Tobacco mosaic disease as former
1) Has ssRNA
2) Is composed of deoxyribose sugar
3) Has genetic material of low molecular weight
4) Both 1 and 3
102. Alternaria
A) Asexually reproduces by conidia .
B) Lacks sex organs but shows sexual reproduction
C) Produces ascospores
Choose the correct one(s)
1) A and B 2) A only 3) B and C 4) A and C
103. Which of the following is correct
1) Convolulaceae and solanaceae belong to the order polymoniales
2) The family carnivora includes orders like canidae
3) Only seven categories are possible in classification system
4) Taxonomic categories are merely morphological aggregates
104. Which of the following is an incorrect match
1) Perigynous flower - Plum, rose and peach
2) Monadelphous - Pea
3) Epigynous flower - Guava, cucumber and ray florets of sunflower
4) Polyadelphous - Citrus
105. According to binomial nomenculture, the scientific name of mango is written as
Mangifera indica. Select the correct option about it
1) Mangifera indicates specific epithet
2) Name in italics indicates its Latin origin
3) Indica starts with small letter as it is generic name
4) Mangifera starts with capital letter to show its latin origin

Pg. 12
106. Identify the correct statement for the given stage

1) Microtubules from opposite poles of spindle attach to centromeres of sister chromatids

2) All the chromosomes are aligned on a single equatorial plate
3) The centromeres of the chromosomes are arranged in two rows at the equator
4) Transition to metaphase
107. Statement-I : A male gamete moves towards micropylar end and fuses with synergid cells to form
triploid primary endosperm nucleus
Statement II : Embryo develops at chalazal end of the embryo sac
1) Only S-I is correct 2) Only S-II is correct
3) Both S-I and S-II are correct 4) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
108. Select the incorrect match from the following
1) Sunflower-Alternate phyllotaxy 2) Australian acacia- Phylloclade
3) Alstonia- Whorled phyllotaxy 4) Venus-fly trap- Leaf modification
109. Assertion (A) : Carotenoids are also called shield pigments
Reason (R) : Carotenoids protect plants from excessive heat and prevent photo-oxidation of
Chlorophyll pigments
1) Both A & R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) Both A & R are false
4) A is true and R is false
110. Suberin layer in found in
1) Conjuctive tissue 2) Pericycle 3) Hypodermis 4) Endodermis
111. In dicot stem
1) Vascular bundles are conjoint, open and arranged in a ring
2) Xylem is endarch
3) Collenchymatous hypodermis
4) All of these
112. During which of the following steps in the complete oxidation of glucose, substrate level
phosphorylation occurs?
1) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 1,3 biphosphoglyceric acid
2) Succinyl-CoA to succinic acid
3) Succinic acid to fumaric acid
4) Citric acid to isocitric acid
113. Consider the following physiological effects of a particular plant growth regulator and identify it
A. In plant propagation, it initiates rooting in stem cutting
B. It helps to prevent early stage fruit or leaf drop
C. Its application on tomatoes can induce parthenocarpy
1) Cytokinin 2) Gibberellins 3) Auxin 4) Ethylene
114. Widening of tree trunk is mostly due to the activity of
1) Phelloderm 2) Fascicular cambium
3) Primary xylem 4) Secondary xylem
Pg. 13
115. Match the following
COLUMN-I COLUMN-II
A) Lysosome I. Has cis and trans faces
B) Golgi apparatus II. Not included in endomembrane system
C) Peroxisome III. Rich in hydrolytic enzymes
D) Vacuole IV. Contains excretory products
1) A-IV,B-I,C-III,D-II 2) A-III,B-IV,C-I,D-II
3) A-III,B-I,C-II,D-IV 4) A-IV,B-II,C-I,D-III
116. In a given section of an embryo of grass, select the mark which correctly label the scutellum

1) D 2) B 3) A 4) C
117. Select the cyanobacteria which can fix atmospheric nitrogen in aquatic and terrestrial environment
1) Azospirillum 2) Glomus 3) Azotobacter 4) Anabaena
118. In which among the following plant groups some members show the events precursor to the seed
habit?
1) Bryophyta 2) Gymnosperm 3) Angiosperm 4) Pteridophyta
119. Zygotene is important because of
1) Formation of synaptonemal complex along the length of homologous chromosome
2) Crossing over 3) Chiasmata formation
4) Initiation of condensation and coiling of chromatin fibre
120. Find the incorrect match w.r.t respiratory substrates and their RQ.
1) Tripalmitin- 0.7 2) Proteins- 0.9 3) Carbohydrates -1 4) Oxalic acid -0.6
121. Statement-I : Bacterial structure is very simple but their behaviour is very complex
Statement-II : Bacterial as a group show most extensive metabolic diversity
1) Only S-I is correct 2) Only S-II is correct
3) Both S-I and S-II are correct 4) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
122. Read the following statements and state them as a true (T) or false (F)
A. In angiosperms, the egg cell is the final product of sexual reproduction
B. Root cap enclosed in an undifferentiated sheath is called coleoptile
C. The wall of ovary develops into pericarp
D. In false fruit, thalamus may also contribute in the fruit formation
1) A-T,B-T,C-F,D-T 2) A-T,B-F,C-T,D-F
3) A-F,B-F,C-T,D-T 4) A-F,B-T,C-T,D-F
123. Exine is made up of
1) Cellulose 2) Pectin 3) Sporopollenin 4) Chitin
Pg. 14
124. Development of seeds without fertilization is
1) Parthenocarpy 2) Apomixis 3) Parthenogenesis 4) Both 1 and 2
125. Match the following
COLUMN-I COLUMN-II
I) Cliestogamy A. Orchids
II) Reduced second cotyledon
of monocot seed B. Viola
III) Coleorrhiza C. Scutellum
IV) Smallest seeds D. Epiblast
E. Present around the radicle of monocot
1) I-B, II-D, III-E, IV-A 2) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-E
3) I-A, II-E, III-B, IV-D 4) I-B, II-A, III-E, IV-E
126. Match the following group I and II
Group-I Group-II
A. Amyloplast I. Carbohydrates
B. Elaioplast II. Xanthophyll
C. Aleuroplast III. Protein
D. Chromoplast IV. Fat
E. Chloroplast V. Chlorophyll
1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-II, E-V 2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II, E-V
3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II, E-V 4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II, E-V
127. Sister chromatids are separate during
1) Anaphase-II 2) Anaphase 3) Telophase-I 4) Both 1 and 2
+
128. The protons for reduction of NADP are taken from
1) Stroma 2) Lumen of thylakoid
3) Cytoplasm 4) Matrix
129. Who gave the law of limiting factor and when ?
1) Lieman-1906 2) Black man-1905 3) Lieman -1905 4) Blackman - 1906
130. Secondary treatment in sewage treatment?
1) Physical 2) Chemical 3) Biological 4) All
131. How many linkage groups are present in human male?
1) 24 2) 23 3) 46 4) 22
132. Heterozygous tall and violet flowered pea plants were selfed and total 512 seeds are collected.
What will be total number of seeds for both heterozygous trails?
1) 128 2) 256 3) 384 4) 64
133. A test cross is carried out to
1) Determine the genotype of a plant at F2
2) Predict whether two traits are linked
3) Asses the number of alleles of a gene
4) Determine whether two species or varieties will breed successfully
134. Among the following substances which one has the minimum RQ
1) Glucose 2) Fat
3) Kreb’s cycle 4) Our muscle
135. How many amino acids will be coded by th mRNA sequence -
5’CCCUCAUAGUCAUAC3’ if a adenosine residue is inserted after 12th nucleotide?
1) 5 amino acids 2) 6 amino acids
3) 2 amino acids 4) 3 amino acids
Pg. 15
 SECTION-B
136. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at
position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will
be altered ?
1) 1 2) 11 3) 33 4) 333
137. Which one of the following is the start codon?
1) UAG 2) AUG 3) UGA 4) UAA
138. In Hershey and Chase experiment, the protein of T2 phage was made radioactive by using
1) S32 2) P31 3) S35 4) P32
139. Which one of the following generally act as on antagonist to gibberellins
1) Ethylene 2) ABA 3) IAA 4) Zeatin
140. The offspring of AAbbXaaBB is crossed with, aabb. The genotypic ratio of progeny will be
1) 9:3:3:1 2) 1:2:1 3) 1:1:1:1 4) 1:1
141. T.O Diener discovered
1) Free infectious DNA 2) Infectious protein
3) Bacteriophage 4) Free infectious RNA
142. The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a
1) Virus 2) Bacterium 3) Prion 4) Worm
143. Algae with floridean starch as reverse food material is also characterized by
1) Presence of chlorophyll b 2) Stacked thylakoids
3) Nonsulphated phycocolloids 4) Nonflagellate nature
144. Plants which are not differentiated into roots, stems and leaves are
1) Algae 2) Gymnosperms
3) Pteridophytes 4) Angiosperms
145. All enzymes are proteins except
1) RuBisCo 2) DNA polymerase
3) Rna polymerase 4) Ribozyme
146. Which of the following posses vascular tissues but lack seeds?
1) Mosses 2) Volvox 3) Ferns 4) Liverworts
147. Choose correct option w.r.t. origin of cork cambium in dicot stem and root
1) Completely primary in both
2) Completely secondary in both
3) Partially primary and partly secondary in both
4) Primary in stem and secondary in root
148. Find the wrong matched pair
1) Roquefort cheese - Ripened by a fungus
2) Swiss cheese - Has large holes that are produced by a fungus
3) Pencillin - Obtained from a mould
4) Ethanol - Produced by yeast
149. It is not a secondary metabolite
1) Abrin 2) Codeine 3) Cellulose 4) Lecithin
150. Endomembrane system of cell includes
1) Golgi complex
2) Lysosome and vacuoles
3) ER
4) All of these

Pg. 16
 ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. Which is NOT a correct match
1) Ascaris - Round worm
2) Taenia - Flat worm
3) Wuchereria - Filaria worm
4) Ancylostoma - Earthworm
152. Which of the following is a specialized connective tissue?
1) Cartilage 2) Bone 3) Blood 4) All of these
153. How many matchings are CORRECT from the following?
A. Tidal volume - 500 ml
B. IRV - 2000 to 2500 ml
C. ERV - 1000 to 2100 ml
D. RV - 1000 to 1100 ml
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
154. Which leucocytes are phagocytic cells that destroy foreign organisms entering the body
1) Neutrophils 2) Eosinophils 3) Basophils 4) All of these
155. Brain stem doesn’t includes
1) Optic lobes 2) Medulla oblongata 3) Pons 4) Cerebellum
156. Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers how much CO2 to the alveoli
1) 4 ml 2) 8 ml 3) 10 ml 4) 15 ml
157. Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched ?
1) Ammonotelism - Many bony fishes
2) Ureotelism - Human beings
3) Uricotelism - Birds
4) All of these
158. Scapula is a large triangular flat bone situated in the dorsal part of the thorax between
1) The second and fifth ribs 2) The second and seventh ribs
3) The third and sixth ribs 4) The third and eighth ribs
159. A hormone secreted from hypothalamus is
1) TSH 2) ADH 3) ANF 4) FSH
160. Which statement is CORRECT regarding insulin ?
1) Acts mainly on hepatocytes and adipocytes
2) It is a peptide hormone
3) Decreases cellular glucose uptake and utilization
4) Both 1 and 2
161. Role of scrotum is
1) Protect prostate gland
2) Give low temperature (2-2.50C less than internal body for spermatogenesis)
3) Protect seminal vesicles
4) Both 1 and 2
162. How man secondary spermatocytes are formed from single primary spermatocyte after first reduction
division
1) Two 2) Four 3) Eight 4) None
163. Medical termination of pregnancy act was passed in
1) 1961 2) 1971 3) 1981 4) 1991

Pg. 17
164. What is the full form of JGA?
1) Juxta glomerular artery 2) Juxta glomerular apparatus
3) Joint gonads artery 4) Joint glomerular apparatus
165. The hormone, relaxin is secreted from
1) Ovary 2) Testis 3) Umbilical cord 4) Both 1 and 2
166. A classic case in medicine called Mary Mallon who spread typhoid for years was professionally a
1) Painter 2) Cook 3) Teacher 4) Dish washer
167. In an antibody molecule how many sulphur atoms are involved to make a single sulphide bridge ?
1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) 1
168. First clinical gene therapy was given in which year
1) 1993 2) 1983 3) 1990 4) 1982
169. Nicotine stimulates which gland of the body ?
1) Pituitary gland 2) Thyroid gland 3) Adrenal gland 4) Prostate gland
170. The given structure is of which molecule ?

1) Oploid 2) Cannabinoid 3) Coca alkaloid 4) None of these

171. An example for mutualism is

1) Copepod – Marine fish 2) Cattle – Cattle egret
3) Koel – Crow 4) Ophyrys – Bumblee bee
172. Sacred groves of Meghalaya are located in
1) Jaintia hills 2) Bastar 3) Aravali hills 4) Chanda
173. Ecological diversity will be more in the country
1) Denmark 2) Norway 3) Sweden 4) India
174. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
I. Quagga A. Russia
II. Dodo B. Africa
III. Steller’s sea cow C. Australia
IV. Thylacine D. Mauritius
1) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D 2) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
3) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C 4) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
175. Thorns and tendrils of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita are the example of
1) Analogy 2) Homology
3) Different ancestry 4) None of these
176. Genetically engineered insulin was first produced by
1) CDRI 2) National Institute of Health
3) Eli Lilly 4) NACO
177. Rivet popper hypothesis was proposed by
1) Paul Ehrlich 2) Edward Wilson 3) Robert May 4) David Tilman
178. Populations evolve to maximize their reproductive fitness this is called Darwinian fitness. This is
represented by
1) Low ‘r’ value 2) High ‘r’ value 3) Moderate ‘r’ value 4) None

Pg. 18
179. According to the IUCN (2004), the total number of plant and animal species described so far is
1) Slightly more than 1.5 million 2) 1.5 million
3) 2.5 million 4) 3.5 million
180. Embryological support for evolution was proposed by
1) Ernst Heckel 2) Charles Darwin 3) Alfred Wallace 4) Thomas Malthus
181. Intercalated discs are present in
1) Cardiac muscle 2) Smooth muscle 3) Skeletal muscle 4) Both 1 and 3
182. Trachea divides into left and right primary bronchi at the level of
1) 5th lumbar vertebra 2) 5th thoracic vertebra
3) 5th cervical vertebra 4) 7th thoracic vertebra
183. Highest cranial capacity was found in
1) Australopithecus 2) Homo habilis 3) Neanderthal 4) Homo erectus
184. The concept “use and disuse” of organs was proposed by
1) Darwin 2) de Vries 3) Lamarck 4) Hardy and Weinberg
185. The process of release of water soluble inorganic nutrients into soil is
1) Humification 2) Fragmentation 3) Catabolism 4) Leaching
SECTION-B
186. Which is the CORRECT matching
Column-I Column-II
A. Scoliodon I. Pterophyllum
B. Trigon II. Betta
C. Fighting fish III. Dog fish
D. Angel fish IV. Sting ray
1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV 2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV 4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
187. Which of the following animals have spiny body and coelomate
A. Asterias B. Echinus C. Ophiura D. Chaetopleura
1) A and B 2) B and D 3) C and D 4) A, B and C
188. Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs in
1) Rh-negative foetus 2) Rh-positive father
3) Rh-positive foetus 4) Rh-negative mother
189. The function of PCT from the following
1) Reabsorption of 70-80% of water and electrolites
2) Conditional reabsorption of water
3) Passive reabsorption of urea
4) Secretion of bicarbonates
190. Statement-I : Myasthenia gravis is an auto-immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction
leading
to fatigue
Statement-II : Muscular dystrophy is progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly due to
genetic
disorder
1) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect 2) S-I is correct but S-II is incorrect
3) S-I is incorrect but S-II is correct 4) Both S-I and S-II are correct
191. Chance of survival of young ones is greater in case of which of the following
1) Snake 2) Sparrow 3) Human beings 4) Tadpole

Pg. 19
192. Which of the following is a copper releasing IUD ?
1) Cu-T 2) Cu-7 3) Multiload 4) All of these
193. A sex linked recessive gene C produces red green colour blindness in humans. A normal woman
whose father was colour blind marries a colour blind man. Of all the girls born to these parents, what
percentage is expected to be colour blind
1) 25% 2) 50 % 3) 75% 4) 100 %
194. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in gain or loss of chromosomes
is called
1) Cuploidy 2) Aneuploidy
3) Independent assortment 4) None of these
195. Anamnestic response is
1) Primary response to pathogen 2) Non specific
3) High intense 4) All of these
196. In 1997, the first transgenic cow ‘Rosie’ produced human protein enriched milk. The protein present
and the amount of the protein is
1)  Lactalbumin, 2.4 gm/lit 2)  Lactalbumin, 1.4 gm/lit
3)  Lactalbumin, 12.4 gm/lit 4)  Lactaglobulin, 12.4 gm/lit
197. A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He found that the average natality was 250,
average mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population is
1) 05 2) Zero 3) 10 4) 15
198. Today, transgenic models exist for many human diseases which includes
A. Cancer B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Alzhiemer’s disease
1) A and C 2) B and C 3) A, B and C 4) All of these
199. Australian marsupials form an example of
1) Homology 2) Evolution of anthopogenic action
3) Adaptive radiation 4) Chemical evolution
200. The rate of formation of new organic matter in consumers is known as
1) Gross primary productivity 2) Secondary productivity
3) Net primary productivity 4) Photosynthetically active radiation

Pg. 20
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 16.11.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-5 Max.Marks: 720
PHYSICS
1) 3 2) 1 3) 2 4) 2 5) 4 6) 1 7) 4 8) 4 9) 4 10) 4
11) 4 12) 1 13) 1 14) 3 15) 3 16) 2 17) 2 18) 4 19) 3 20) 2
21) 3 22) 3 23) 2 24) 2 25) 2 26) 4 27) 4 28) 1 29) 2 30) 2
31) 2 32) 4 33) 3 34) 1 35) 4 36) 1 37) 1 38) 3 39) 2 40) 2
41) 1 42) 1 43) 3 44) 3 45) 3 46) 2 47) 1 48) 1 49) 2 50) 3
CHEMISTRY
51) 4 52) 4 53) 2 54) 4 55) 3 56) 2 57) 3 58) 3 59) 2 60) 2
61) 2 62) 1 63) 4 64) 1 65) 3 66) 1 67) 3 68) 1 69) 1 70) 3
71) 4 72) 1 73) 3 74) 4 75) 3 76) 4 77) 4 78) 1 79) 1 80) 1
81) 3 82) 4 83) 3 84) 4 85) 1 86) 3 87) 2 88) 3 89) 3 90) 2
91) 2 92) 4 93) 4 94) 4 95) 3 96) 4 97) 3 98) 1 99) 4 100) 4
BOTANY
101) 4 102) 2 103) 1 104) 2 105) 2 106) 4 107) 4 108) 2 109) 1 110) 4
111) 4 112) 2 113) 3 114) 2 115) 3 116) 3 117) 4 118) 4 119) 1 120) 4
121) 3 122) 3 123) 3 124) 2 125) 1 126) 2 127) 4 128) 1 129) 2 130) 3
131) 1 132) 1 133) 1 134) 4 135) 3 136) 3 137) 2 138) 3 139) 2 140) 3
141) 4 142) 3 143) 4 144) 1 145) 4 146) 3 147) 2 148) 2 149) 4 150) 4
ZOOLOGY
151) 4 152) 4 153) 4 154) 1 155) 4 156) 1 157) 4 158) 2 159) 2 160) 4
161) 2 162) 1 163) 2 164) 2 165) 1 166) 2 167) 3 168) 3 169) 3 170) 2
171) 4 172) 1 173) 4 174) 3 175) 2 176) 3 177) 1 178) 2 179) 1 180) 1
181) 1 182) 2 183) 3 184) 3 185) 4 186) 2 187) 4 188) 3 189) 1 190) 2
191) 3 192) 4 193) 2 194) 2 195) 3 196) 1 197) 2 198) 4 199) 3 200) 2

PAPER SETTERS

SNO DIVISION SUBJECT NAME MOBILE NO

1 NLR-CO-PLUS-N40 PHYSICS Mr. LP 9908270150
2 NLR-CO-PLUS-N40 CHEMISTRY Mr. Seshaiah 9848331850
3 NLR-CO-PLUS-N40 BOTANY Mr. Damodhar 8500531999
4 NLR-CO-PLUS-N40 ZOOLOGY Mr. Prasad Babu 9989800805

Pg. 1
 Hints & Explanations
PHYSICS
1. Angular frequency = 2  Frequency
 [T 1 ]  [ M 0 L0T 1 ]
2h
t
g
2. Excess pressure in two soap bubbles are
4T 4T
PP  PQ 
( n  1) r (n  1) r
4T
So P  PP  PQ 
R
( n 2  1) r
R
2
3. Here, u=56 ms-1
Let  the angle of projection with the horizontal to have maximum range, with maximum
height=40m
u 2 sin 2 
Maximum height, H 
2g
(56) 2 sin 2 
40 
2  9.8
2  9.8  40 1
sin 2   
(56) 2 4
1 1
sin      sin 1    30 0
2 2
( p  1) T
4. For pth overtone, n 
2l  r2
5. In isobaric expansion, work done is maximum
V
6. 
V T
But PV  nRT
V nR

T P
nR 1
 
PV T
7. F  f  ma .....(i )
mR 2 a
FR  fR  ......(ii )
2 R
From equation (i) and (ii)
3ma 4F
2F  or a 
2 3m
m4 F
F f 
3m
4 F
f  F F 
3 3
Pg. 2
 50
8. E IAt
100
1
  20  20  60
2
 12 103 J
9. Zero. When the object is at the centre of curvature, the image will also be at the centre of curvature.
10. Larger is momentum, larger will be radius, but angular frequency remains same.
11. A=600 (for equilateral prism)
i  i '  3 / 4  60  450
So   i  i ' A  450  450  60  300
F/A Fl
12. Y l 
l / l AY
Substituting the values
(1.5 104 )(1.0)
l  4
 0.5  103 m
(1.5 10 )(2.0 10 ) 11

or l  0.5mm
A1 
13.  ,
A2 1
amax A1  A2

amin A1  A2
14. Given
V1  V2  V and t2  t1  t
V V1  V2 2a1S  2a2 S
Now,  
t t2  t1 2s 2S

a2 a1
a1  a2 V
   a1a2
1 1 t

a2 a1
15.  f remains same
I d2
New intensity of image
I 3I
I1  I  
4 4
16. Pentavalent is called donor
H
17. When h  , Range is maximum
2
1
18. 
2 nd 2
19. For photo electric emission incident light energy
hc hc
E 
2  0
1 1

2  0
Pg. 3
 2  0
0
 
2
Where 0 = threshold wavelength
20. Change in momentum  2mv
d
time, t 
2v
dp 4 mv 2
Force, F  
dt d
21. Frequency of emitted radiation
 1 1 
v  RC  2  2 
2 3 
5
v  RC
36
22. Conceptual
23. Impuse (I) = change in momentum
I  mv2  mv1  m(v2  v1 )
1 2 1 2 1 I (v  v )
Increase in K.E.  mv2  mv1  m(v2  v1 )(v2  v1 )  1 2
2 2 2 2
24. The electric field inside the emptied space is non-zero and uniform
25.

Work done in taking charge from one point to another is independent of path. From P to S we choose
path PN and NS. There is no work done in moving charge from P to N and from NS, work done is
–qEa.
 d
26. E , with increases in speed, E increases.
dt
i=E/R also increases ; 1=dq/dt ; dq = 1dt
E L  d
 dt  dt
R R dt
 d
Q   dq  independent of time
dt
Q remains the same
1 hv1  hv0
27. 
K hv2  hv0
Kv1  v2
v0 
K 1
28. Y  Y 1  Y2  Y1 .Y2  Y1 .Y2

Pg. 4
 h
29. As  
2 mE
h
E
2m 2
h2
New E ' 
2m(0.75 ) 2
Extra kinetic energy = E’-E
h2 h2
 
2m(0.75 ) 2 2m 2
h 2  0.56h 2 0.43h 2
   0.77 E
2m 2 (0.5625) 0.562m 2
7
Hence (2) E is correct
9
30. Let P = 0.4iˆ  0.6 ˆj  ckˆ
P= (0.4) 2  (0.6) 2  C 2  1

0.16  0.36  C 2  1
C 2  0.48
2 3
C
5
31. Conceptual
32. Conceptual
V 340
33. n   500Hz
2(l2  l1 ) 2(0.84  0.50)
34. Recall WET
l
(mg sin  )l  f   0
2
f  mg cos 
mg sin   
2 2
  2 tan 
35. When cacacitor’s are connected in parallel Q  C , E  C
Q2 C 2 E2 C 2 3Q 3E
  Q2  E2 
Q1 C1 E1 C1 2 2
36.

Pg. 5
37.

2 R

x 100  x
R  2(100  x )
2 x
 ...........(1)
R 100  x
Now intertage
R 2

x  20 80  x
R x  20 2 80  x
   ..........(2)
2 80  x R x  20
Solve 1 and 2
( x  20) x  (100  x )(80  x )
x  40
Put the value of x and we get
R  3
1
38. AL  AR
4
Also, AL y  AR x
 y  4x
PL  PR  (36  y ). g
PR  PR  ( x  y )  g
But , PL  PR
(36  4 x)  5 x  13.6
x  0.56 cm
1 1 1  L L 
39.    R  
R p R1 R2  A  A 
 2 A 1 A  2 A
 
L L L
1   2
Effective specific conductance,  
2
40. For diamagnetic r  1
r  1
41. u=20m/s m=500g=0.5 kg, t=2sec
1
S  ut  gt 2
2
1
0  20  20  g (20)2
2
g  2m / s 2
Pg. 6
42. The resistance connected to voltmeter in series to increase its range from 5V to 30V is,
 V V 
R   2 1  GV .
 V1 
Here GV is the resistance of voltmeter
 30  5 
 R   200  1000   1k 
 5 
43. The binding energies of the reactant and the products in the given nuclear reactions are follows
Reaction Reactant Products
1) Y  2 Z 60x8.5=510 MeV 2x30x5=300 MeV
2) W  X  Z 120x7.5=900 MeV 90x8+30x5=870 MeV
3) W  2Y 120x7.5=900 MeV 2x60x8.5=1020 MeV
4) X  Y  Z 90x8.0 = 720 MeV 60x8.5+30x5.0 = 660 MeV
The binding energy of the products in reaction (3) is greater than that of the reactant
44. A is true but R is false
45. Pavg  IV .EV cos   600
1 200
 cos 60 0
2 2
=50 watt
dE
46. id   0 A
dt
47. Conceptual

48. 40  4iˆ  40  3 ˆj  80 v
K  K i  K f
49. Plane normal to electric field is a triangle with base length 2R and height h
1
Area of triangle   2 Rh  Rh
2
  EA
  ERh
50. A is true but R is false
CHEMISTRY
51. Acetophenone shows aldol condensation
Acetophenone contains Carbonyl group

2
52. H 2 Bond order =0
53. x<y<z
54. -Cl is best leaving group
55. dsp2
56. Ni(CN)4]2– [Ni(Cl)4]2– [Ni(CO)4]
=0 tetrahedral diamagnetic
57. 5  2; 4  2; 3  2

Pg. 7
58. Conceptual
59. Conceptual
60. SN2 reaction
d [ A] 1 d [ B]
61.  
dt 2 dt
62. Reductive ozonolysis. Product B is acetaldehyde
63. Adding reaction (i) and (ii) gives (iii)
65.
Name of oxo acids Oxidation state
Hypophosphorous acid ( H 3 PO2 ) +1
Orthophosphorous acid ( H3 PO3 ) +3
Hypophosphoric acid ( H4 PO
2 6)
+4
Orthophosphoric acid ( H 3 PO4 ) +5
66.

67. For BF3;  =0

Due to symmetrical planar triangle shape. But B-F bonds are polar.
O
| |
68. Contains  C  CH 3 group
69. Two unpaired electrons are present
70. Cr+2 and Fe+2 possess four unpaired electrons
71.

72. (CH3)2CH–CH=CH–CHOH–CH3
5-Methylhex-3-en-2-ol
73. Conceptual
74. sp3-hybridised carbon atom adjacent to carbon -carbon double bond is allylic C-atom
75. Rosenmund reduction – H2+Pd – BaSO4
76. 3 BaCl2 + 2Na3PO4  Ba3(PO4)2 +6NaCl
mole 0.5 0.2 0.1
0.693
77. t1/2 
K
78. Conceptual
79. E  EZn
0
/ Zn 2
 E Ag
0

/ Ag

E = 0.76 + 0.8
E = 1.56 V

Pg. 8
80. -I effect  Acid strength
CHCl
81. CH 3CH 2 NH 2  
KOH
3
 CH 3CH 2 NC
H 2 SO4
82. CaC2  H 2O  C 2 H 2 
HgSO4  CH 3CHO

83. If n=2 then values of  are 0 and 1

84. NCERT
85. NCERT
86. NH3 is more basic
87. Ionisation of water is endothermic
1
[H  ] 
PH
88. For 123g of nitrobenzene  6F
For 12.3g of nitrobenzene  0.6 F (100%)
 2.4 F (25%)
89. NCERT
90. Absence of vacant d orbital
91.

92. 3moles MnO4  5 moles Ferrous oxalate

1
For 1 mole FeC2O4   3  0.6 moles
5
93. In (B) carbocation is stabilised by resonance with lone pair on oxygen atom and +H effect of 2 
hydrogens
94. During denaturation of proteins it loses its biological activity.
95. 1, 2 H  shift
96.

97. More the reduction potential, more is the deposition of metals at cathode
Ag>Hg>Cu
98. NCERT
99. Possible complexes No. of isomers
[M(F)(Cl)(SCN)(NO2)]  3 (Two cis and one trans)
[M(F)(Cl)(SCN)(ONO)]  3
[M(F)(Cl)(NCS)(NO2)]  3
[M(F)(Cl)(NCS)(ONO)]  3
Total = 12
100. NCERT
ZOOLOGY
151. Ancylostoma is ‘hook worm’
152. Cartilage, bones and blood are various types of specialised connective tissues
153. IRV - 2500 – 3000 ml
ERV - 1000 – 1100 ml
RV - 1100 – 1200 ml
Pg. 9
154. Neutrophils and monocytes (6-8 per cent) are phagocytic cells which destroy foreign organisms
entering the body
155. Brain stem includes mid brain, pons and medulla oblongata
156. Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
157. • Ammonotelism – Many bony fishes
• Ureotelism – Human
• Uricotelism – Birds
158. Scapula is located on the dorsal side of thorax between second and seventh ribs
159. Neurosecretory cells of hypothalamus secretes RH, IH, ADH and oxytocin
160. Insulin hormone acts mainly on hepatocytes, and adipocytes , and enhances cellular glucose uptake
and utilisation. It is a peptide hormone
161. The scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes (2–2.50 C lower than the normal
internal body temperature) necessary for spermatogenesis
162. A primary spermatocyte completes the first meiotic division (reduction division) leading to
formation of two equal, haploid cells called secondary spermatocytes, which have only 23
chromosomes each.
163. Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions to avoid its misuse. Such
restrictions are all the more important to check indiscriminate and illegal female foeticides which are
reported to be high in India
164. JGA = Juxta glomerular apparatus
165. Relaxin is secreted from corpus luteum of ovary
166. A classic case in medicine, that of Mary Mallon nicknamed Typhoid Mary, is worth mentioning
here. She was a cook by profession and was a typhoid carrier who continued to spread typhoid for
several years through the food she prepared
167.

168. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with adenosine deaminase
(ADA) deficiency.
169. Nicotine stimulates adrenal gland to release adrenaline and nor-adrenaline into blood circulation,
both of which raise blood pressure and increase heart rate.
170. This is the skeletal structure of cannabinoid molecule
171. Ophys (Mediterranian orchid) – Bumblee bee
172. Sacred groves of Meghalaya are present in Khasi and Jaintia hills
173. Ecological diversity: At the ecosystem level, India, for instance, with its deserts, rain forests,
mangroves, coral reefs, wetlands, estuaries, and alpine meadows has a greater ecosystem diversity
than a Scandinavian country like Norway
174. Quagga – Africa
Dodo – Mauritius
Steller’s sea cow – Russia
Thylacine – Australia
175. The thorn and tendrils of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita represent homology
Pg. 10
176. Eli Lilly in 1983
177. Paul Ehrlich
178. Populations evolve to maximise their reproductive fitness, also called Darwinian fitness (high r
value), in the habitat in which they live.
179. According to the IUCN (2004), the total number of plant and animal species described so far is
slightly more than 1.5 million, but we have no clear idea of how many species are yet to be
discovered and described.
180. Embryological support for evolution was also proposed by Ernst Heckel based upon the observation
of certain features during embryonic stage common to all vertebrates that are absent in adult.
181. Intercalated discs are present in cardiac muscle to facilitate rapid flow of ions, minerals etc. among
the muscle fibres
182. Trachea bifurcates into left and right primary bronchi at the level of 5th thoracic vertebra
183. Neanderthal with around 1400 CC
184. Lamarck
185. Leaching
186. Scoliodon – Dog fish, Trigon – Sting ray, Betta – Fighting fish, Pterophyllum – Angel fish
187. Asterias, Echinus, - Spiny body & coelomate Ophiura
188. Rh positive foetus formed in Rh negative mother
189. 70 – 80 % of water and electrolytes are reabsorbed in PCD
190. Each half of pectoral girdle consists of a clavicle and a scapula. Scapula is a large triangular flat bone
situated in the dorsal part of the thorax between the second and the seventh ribs. The dorsal, flat,
triangular body of scapula has a slightly elevated ridge called the spine which projects as a flat,
expanded process called the acromion
191. In viviparous animals (majority of mammals including human beings), the zygote develops into a
young one inside the body of the female organism. After attaining a certain stage of growth, the
young ones are delivered out of the body of the female organism. Because of proper embryonic care
and protection, the chances of survival of young ones is greater in viviparous organisms.
192. These Intra Uterine Devices are presently available as the non-medicated IUDs (e.g., Lippes loop),
copper releasing IUDs (CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375) and the hormone releasing IUDs (Progestasert,
LNG-20).
193.

194. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or loss of a
chromosome(s), called aneuploidy. For example, Down’s syndrome results in the gain of extra copy
of chromosome 21.
195. Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified secondary or anamnestic
response
It is the secondary response, specific in nature
196. In 1997, the first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced human protein-enriched milk (2.4 grams per litre).
The milk contained the human alpha-lactalbumin and was nutritionally a more balanced product for
human babies than natural cow-milk.
197. Nt+1 = Nt+[(B+I)–(D+E)]
B = Natality = 250
I = Immigration = 20
Pg. 11
 D = Mortality = 240
E = Emigration = 30
Nt + 1 = Nt + [(250+20) – (240+30)]
Nt+1 = Nt + 0
The net increase in population is zero.
198. These are specially made to serve as models for human diseases so that investigation of new
treatments for diseases is made possible. Today transgenic models exist for many human diseases
such as cancer, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and alzheimer’s.
199. Adaptive radiation
200. Secondary productivity

***

Pg. 12
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 21.11.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-7 Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
In ever y s u bject:
( a ) In Section – A , 3 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. A n s w er all 3 5 qu estion s from section – A
( b ) In Section – B , 1 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. O ut of w hich A n s w er 1 0 qu estion s onl y .
(c) E ach qu estion c a rries 4 m a r k s. F or e ach correct respon se w ill get 4 m a r k s. F or e ach
incorrect respon se, one m a r k w ill be d e d ucte d from th e tot al scores.
PH YSICS
SE C T ION-A
1. A gas m ix t ure consists of 3 m oles of ox ygen an d 5 m oles of argon at te m perat ure
T. Neglect i ng all v ibrat ional m odes, t he total i n ter nal energy of t he syste m is
1) 1 1 R T 2) 2 0 R T 3) 7.5 R T 4) 1 5 R T
2. A bloc k of m ass M is oscillat i ng on sm oot h floor t ied to a spri ng of force constan t
‘ K ‘. T he a m pli t ude of oscillat ion is A0 . When t he bloc k is at i ts m ean posi t ion, a
sm all clay ball of m ass m falls an d st ic ks to t he bloc k . n ew a m pli t ude of
oscillat ion will be
 M  M M M m
1) A0   2) 3) A0 4) A0  
mM  M m M m  m 
3. O ne of t he refract i ng surface of a prism of angle 300 is silvered. A ray of ligh t
i nciden t at an angle of 600 ret races i ts pat h. T he refract i ve i n dex of t he m aterial
of prism is
3 3
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4)
2 2
4. A curren t of 5 A passi ng t h rough a con ductor produces 1 6 0 J of heat i n 1 0
secon ds. T heresistance of t he con ductor i n oh m is
1) 0.3 2 2) 0.6 4 3) 0.1 6 4) 0.1 8
5. G i ven below are two state m en ts
A-A u n ifor m wire of 1 6 0 U is cu t i n to four equal par ts. T hese par ts are now
con nected i n parallel t hen equ i valen t resistance of t he co mbi nat ion will be 1 0 U
B-Two resistances 3 R an d 5 R are con nected i n parallel i n an elect rical circu i t. T he
value of t her m al energy developed i n 3 R an d 5 R will be i n t he rat io 5 : 3
I n t he ligh t of t he above state m en ts, choose t he correct op t ion
1) St a te m e n t A is cor rect w hile st a te m e n t B is
2) St a te m e n t B is cor rect w h ile sta te m e n t A is i n cor rect
3) B ot h sta te m e n ts A a n d B a re cor rect
4) B ot h sta te m e n ts A a n d B a re i n cor rect

Pg. 1
6. A bat ter y of 1 2 V is con nected to t he circu i t as shown below. T he curren t l drawn
fro m t he bat ter y is

1) 2 A 2) 1 A 3) 4 A 4) 3 A
7. T he average force requ ired to stop a bod y of m ass m an d m ov i ng wi t h veloci t y v i n
t i m e(t) will be
mv 2 mv 2 mv mv
1) 2) 3) 4)
2t t 2t t
1
8. A m agnet i z i ng field of 1 6 0 0 Am produces a m agnet ic flux 2.4 105 weber i n an iron
bar of cross-sect ional area 0.2 c m 2 . T he suscep t ibili t y of t he iron bar will be
1) 1 7 8 8 2) 1 1 9 2 3) 5 9 6 4) 2 9 8
9. A curren t I is flowi ng i n a closed loop as shown i n t he diagra m gi ven below. T he
m agnet ic field at t he cen ter ‘O’ of loop will be

0 I I I I
1)  2) 0  3) 0  4) 0 
8R 8R 2R 2R
1 0. A bod y of m ass m is m ov i ng wi t h a veloci t y v1 . If a force F acts on i t an d displaces
i t by d, t hen fi nal veloci t y will be
2Fd  mv12 2Fd  mv12 Fd  mv12 Fd  mv12
1) 2) 3) 4)
m m m m
1 1. A bullet of m ass 1 0 g m ov i ng wi t h veloci t y 2 5 0 m / s passes t h rough a bag of san d.
San d offers t he average frict ion of 2 0 N an d bullet t ravels 2 m i n san d, t hen t he
K . E of bullet after passi ng t h rough san d will be
1) 2 8 0 J 2) 2 7 2.5 0 J 3) 2 7 0 J 4) 3 0 0 J
1 2. Consider t he si t uat ion shown i n t he diagra m gi ven below. T he force on t he pulley
due to tension i n t he st ri ng will be

1) T 2) T 2 3) 2 T 4)0
Pg. 2
1 3. A m eter scale wi t h a load 2 5 0 g at one en d is balanced at 2 0 t h c m on t he shar p
k n ife edge. T he weigh t of t he scale is
1 1 1 1
1) kg 2) kg 3) kg 4) kg
3 6 2 4
1 4. A u n ifor m rod AB of m ass m an d lengt h L is free to rotate abou t A. T he rod is
released fro m rest i n hori zon tal posi t ion. T he i n i t ial angular accelerat ion of t he
rod will be

2g 3g 2g 3g
1) 2) 3) 4)
3L 2L 5L 4L
1 5. Consider t he followi ng state m en ts an d choose t he correct op t ion.
State m en t-A: I n isob a ric p rocess, d u ri n g a n ex p a n sio n of a ga s bot h vol u m e a n d
te m per a t u re of t h e ga s i n cre a se
State m en t-B: F or isob a ric p rocess h e a t a d ded to t h e ga s p a r tly gets co n ver ted i n to
i n ter n a l e n ergy a n d re m a i n i n g to do wor k
1) B ot h st a te m e n t (A) a n d st a te m e n t (B) a re i n cor rect
2) B ot h st a te m e n t (A) a n d st a te m e n t (B) a re cor rect
3) S t a te m e n t (A) is cor rect a n d st a te m e n t (B) is i n cor rect
4) S t a te m e n t (A) is i n cor rect a n d st a te m e n t (B) is cor rect
1 6. T he li near densi t y of t he st retched st ri ng is decreased by 1% wi t hou t change i n
tension an d radi us. T he change i n t raverse wave veloci t y will be
1) 2% i n cre a se 2) 1% i n cre a se 3) 0.5% i n cre a se 4) 1% decre a se
1 7. T here is an elect ric field E i n x-direct ion. If t he wor k done i n m ov i ng a change of
0.4 C t h rough distance of 2 m along a li ne m a k i ng an angle 600 wi t h x-ax is is 1 2 J,
t hen value of elect ric field E will be
1) 1 0 N / C 2) 2 0 N / C 3) 3 0 N / C 4) 5 N / C
1 8. F or a gi ven m aterial, t he You ng’s m od ulus is 2.4 t i m es t hat of origid i t y m odulus.
I ts Poisson ’s rat io is
1) 0.4 2) 2.4 3) 0.2 4) 1.2
1 9. D ue to capillar y act ion, a liqu id will rise capillar y t ube, if t he angle of con tact is
1) 1200 2) 900 3) 300 4) 1600
2 0. A par t icle hav i ng t he charge q m oves i n a circular pat h of radi us R u n der t he
i nfluence of a m agnet ic field of B. If an elect ric field E perpen dicular to prev ious
m agnet ic field B m a k es i t to m ove i n a st raigh t pat h, t hen t he m ass of t he
par t icle is
qBR qB 2 R qBE qB 2 R
1) 2) 3) 4)
E 2E R E

Pg. 3
2 1. Wh ich of t he followi ng is correct i n YDSE ?
1) If i n cide n t is w h ite lig h t, t h e n ce n t r a l fri n ge is w h ite w h ile a ll ot h er fri n ges a re
colo u red
2) S u st a i n ed i n terfere n ce p a t ter n c a n a lso be ob t a i n ed b y t wo i n co h ere n t so u rces of
lig h t

3) If i n iti a l p h a se differe n ce bet wee n w a ves is , ce n t r a l li n e will be occ u pied b y m i n i m a
2
4) B ot h (1) a n d (2)
2 2. A par t icle is at X=0 i n i t iall y. T he veloci t y of par t icle m ov i ng on x -ax is varies as
V  2 x . T hen t he t i m e depen dence of t he veloci t y of t he par t icle is
t2 t
1) 2) 2t 3) 4) 2t 2
2 2
2 3. O n equ ipoten t ial surface, t he value of grav i tat ional poten t ial re m ai ns
1) Positive 2) N ega tive 3) C o n st a n t 4) Z ero
2 4. A m etal ball has a dia m eter of 0.6 m an d is heated fro m 3 0 0 K to 4 5 0 k . If i ts
coefficien t of areal ex pansion is 3.4 10 5 K 1 , t hen t he i ncrease i n surface area of
t he ball will be
1) 4 103 m2 2) 2.7 103 m2 3) 8.5 103 m2 4) 5.7 103 m2
2 5. A star wh ich is act i ng li k e a blac k bod y has radi us T. What would be t he
te m perat ure of t he star, i n wh ich t he rate of energy product ion is equal to Q ?
1/ 2 1/ 4
 Q   Q 
  2)   3) (Q4 R 2 )1/4 4) (Q4 R 2 )1/4
 4 R    4 R  
2 2

2 6. A cer tai n charge Q is di v ided i n to two par ts let ’s say q1 and q2 an d t hen t hese two
q1
poi n t charges are placed at a cer tai n distance apar t. T he rat io ,for wh ich t he
q2
elect rostat ic force between t he m will be m ax i m u m
1) 2 2) 3 3) 1 4) 4
2 7. Two m etal sp heres, one of radi us R an d t he ot her of radi us 3 R respect i vel y have
t he sa m e surface charge densi t y  . T hey are touched wi t h each ot her an d t hen
separated. T heir new surface charge densi t ies will be
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
1)  1   ,  2   2)  1   ,  2   3)  1   ,  2   4)  1   ,  2  
2 2 2 6 3 3 6 3
2 8. Match t he en t ries i n colu m n I wi t h t heir correct en t ries i n colu m n II

Colu m n-I Colu m n-II

 
A F a r a d a y’s l a w of elect ro m ag n etic i n d u ctio n(P)
 B.d s  0
B G a u ss’s l a w i n m ag n etis m (q)   q
 E. d s   0
C G a u ss’s l a w i n elect rost a tics (r)    d 
 B. dl  0 lC   0 dtE 
D M a x well-A m pere’s circ u it a l l a w (S)   dB
 dl  dt
E.
1) A  s, B  p, C  q, D  r 2) A  s, B  q, C  s, D  r
3) A  q, B  p, C  s, D  r 4) A  r , B  q, C  p, D  s
Pg. 4
2 9. T he equ i valen t circu i t is

T he circu i t represen ts
1) N A N D ga te 2) O R ga te 3) A N D ga te 4) N O R ga te
3 0. I n a p-n ju nct ion diode, change i n te m perat ure due to heat i ng
1) Affects o n ly for w a r d c u r re n t
2) Affects o n ly reverse c u r re n t
3) Affects t h e over a ll V -I c h a r a cteristics
4) D oes n ot affect t h e c u r re n t of p - n j u n ctio n diode
3 1. A n ucleus rup t ures i n to two n uclear par ts, wh ich have t heir veloci t y rat io equal to
2:1. T he rat io of t heir n uclear radi us will be
1) 1: 2 2) 1: 21/3 3) 1: 2 4) 4 :1
3 2. If i m pact para m eter is zero, t hen angle of dev iat ion i n   par t icle scat teri ng
ex peri m en t, is
1) 900 2) 00 3) 600 4) 1800
3 3. T he di m ensional for m ula for veloci t y gradien t is equ i valen t to
1) Ti m e 2) F req u e n cy 3) Le n gt h 4) A cceler a tio n
3 4. A geo m et r y ruler has 2 0 di v isions between 5 c m . I ts least cou n t is
1) 0.2 5 c m 2) 2.5 c m 3) 0.2 5 m m 4) 0.0 2 5 m m
3 5. I n t he elect rical circu i t shown i n figure, t he curren t t h rough t he 6 resistor is

1
1) 2 A 2) A 3) 1 A 4) 2.2 A
2
SE C T ION - B
3 6. If two sli ts i n You ng’s ex peri m en t are 0.4 m m apar t an d fri nge wid t h on a screen
2 0 0 c m away is 2 m m , t he wavelengt h of ligh t illu m i nat i ng t he sli ts is
1) 5 0 0 n m 2) 6 0 0 n m 3) 4 0 0 n m 4) 3 0 0 n m
3 7. Two bodies A an d B star t m ov i ng on a circular t rac k i n opposi te direct ion wi t h

speed  rad / s an d rad / s as shown i n t he diagra m gi ven below. Radi us of t he
2
circle is 2 0 c m , t hen t he t i m e ta k en by t he m to collide will be (I n i t ial angular

separat ion rad )
3

10
1) 1 S 2) 2 S 3) 0.5 S 4) S
9
Pg. 5
3 8. A bloc k of m ass 2 kg is placed on rough hori zon tal surface. T he coefficien t of
3
frict ion between t he bloc k an d surface is , t hen m i n i m u m force requ ired to
4
m ove t he bloc k on t he surface will be ( g  10m / s 2 )

1) 1 1 N 2) 1 5 N 3) 1 2 N 4) 2 0 N
3 9. T he capaci t i ve reactance of a con denser to ru n a 4 0 V, 2 0 W la m p when con nected
i n series wi t h an A.C. Suppl y of 2 2 0 B an d 5 0 H z is nearl y equal to
1) 432  2) 180  3) 18  4) 18000 
4 0. Two m etallic sp here of radi i 1 c m an d 3 c m are gi ven charge of 1102 C an d
5 10 2 C ,respect i vel y. If t hese are con nected by a con duct i ng wire, t he fi nal
charge on t he sm all sp here will be
1) 2 102 C 2) 3 10 2 C 3) 4 102 C 4) 1102 C
4 1. Two iden t ical discs of m ass M an d radi us R are placed as shown i n figure. T he
m o m en t of i ner t ia of t he syste m abou t t he gi ven ax is wh ich lies i n plane of t he
discs will be

3MR 2 3MR 2 5MR 2 11MR 2

1) 2) 3) 4)
2 4 2 4
4 2. T he secon d over tone of a closed organ pipe has t he sa m e frequency as of t he first
over tone of an open pipe of L m et re lengt h. T he lengt h of t he closed pipe will be
3L 5L L 2L
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 4 4 3
4 3. O ne m ole of an ideal diato m ic gas u n dergoes a process described by t he equat ion
PV 2  cons tan t . T he heat capaci t y of t he gas duri ng t h is process is
11R 3R
1) 5 R 2) 2 R 3) 4)
3 2
4 4. Mercur y has an angle of con tact equal to 1400 wi t h soda li m e glass. A narrow t ube
of radi us 2.0 0 m m m ade of t h is glass is dipped i n a t rough con tai n i ng m ercur y. B y
what a m ou n t does t he m ercur y dip down i n t he t ube relat i ve to t he m ercur y level
ou tside? (Surface tension of m ercur y at te m perat ure of t he ex peri m en t is 0.5
N / m . Densi t y of m ercur y is 13.6 103 kg / m3 , cos 400  0.766)
1) 2.8 m m 2) 3.9 m m 3) 1 m m 4) 6.2 m m

Pg. 6
4 5. A rod of lengt h L hav i ng u n ifor m l y dist ribu ted charge Q is rotated abou t one en d
wi t h constan t frequency ‘f’. I ts m agnet ic m o m en t is
2 fQL2  fQL2
1) 2) 3) 2 fQL2 4)  fQL2
3 3
4 6. D iffract ion effect can be observed i n
1) O n ly so u n d w a ves 2) O n ly lig h t w a ves
3) O n ly u lt r a so n ic w a ves 4) B ot h so u n d a s well a s lig h t w a ves
4 7. A p hoton of energy 6 eV is i nciden t on m etal surface of wor k fu nct ion 4 eV, t hen
m ax i m u m k i net ic energy of elect ron em i t ted (h  6.6 1034 J s)
1) 4.8 e V 2) 2 e V 3) 0.8 e V 4) Z ero
4 8. T he heigh t above t he ear t h ’s surface at wh ich t he accelerat ion due to grav i t y
beco m es 9% of i ts value at t he surface is ( R is radi us of ear t h)
5R R 7R 7R
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 3 5 3
4 9. Colu m n I con tai ns t he na m e of t he logic gates an d colu m n II con tai ns t heir
Boolean ex pression (C haracterist ics equat ion). Match t he colu m n I wi t h colu m n II
an d choose t he correct op t ion. (Sy mbols have t heir usual m ean i ngs)
Colu m n-I Colu m n-II
A AND (P) Y  A B
B OR (q) Y  A B
C NOR (r) Y  A B
D NAND (S) Y  A B
1) A( R), B( P), C ( S ), D(Q) 2) A(P), B(Q), C (R), D(S)
3) A(R), B(S), C (P), D(Q) 4) A(Q), B(P), C (R), D(S)
5 0. Consider t he followi ng state m en ts abou t pri nciple of ho m ogenei t y an d choose t he
i ncorrect one.
1) W e c a n n ot derive a n ex p ressio n co n t a i n i n g t wo or m ore ter m s u si n g t h e m et h od of
di m e n sio n s
2) W e c a n c h ec k di m e n sio n a l co n siste n cy of a n ex p ressio n , u si n g m et h od of di m e n sio n s
3) W e c a n co n ver t v a l u e of a q u a lity fro m o n e syste m of u n it to a n ot h er u si n g m et h od of
di m e n sio n s
4) W e c a n fi n d t h e v a l u e of n o n -di m e n sio n a l co n st a n t u si n g m et h od of di m e n sio n
C H E M IST RY
SE C T ION – A
5 1. IUPA C no m enclat ure of t he gi ven co m pou n d is

1) 4- B ro m o-1- m et h yl-3- n it robe n ze n e

2) 1- B ro m o-4- m et h yl-2- n it robe n ze n e
3) 1- B ro m o-4- m et h yl-6- n it robe n ze n e
4) 2- B ro m o-5- m et h yl-1- n it robe n ze n e
Pg. 7
5 2. Total n u mber of products i ncludi ng stereoiso m ers on m ono ch lori nat ion of
isopen tane is
1) 4 2) 8 3) 6 4) 5
5 3. Correct order of energy of orbi tals for filli ng elect rons i n m ul t i-elect ron species
is
1) 5 d > 5 p > 5s> 4f> 4 d 2) 4f> 5 d > 5 p > 4 d > 5s
3) 5 d > 4f> 5 p > 4 d > 5s 4) 5 d = 5 p = 5s> 4f> 4 d
5 4. State m en t I : CCl2 F2 is c a lled F reo n 1 2
State m en t II : F reo n 1 2 is m a n u fa ct u red fro m tet r a -c h loro m et h a n e b y S w a r ts
re a ctio n
I n t he ligh t of t he above state m en ts, choose t he correct answer
1) B ot h st a te m e n t I a n d st a te m e n t II a re cor rect
2) B ot h st a te m e n t I a n d S t a te m e n t II a re i n cor rect
3) S t a te m e n t I is cor rect b u t st a te m e n t II is i n cor rect
4) S t a te m e n t I is i n cor rect b u t st a te m e n t II is cor rect
5 5. Consider t he followi ng react ion sequence,

Major product B is

1) 2) 3) 4)
5 6. T he co m pou n d wh ich does not react wi t h Br2 w a ter is

1) 2) D -gl u cose 3) 4)
5 7. T he a m i no acid wh ich con tai ns a heterocyclic ri ng is
1) Proli n e 2) Isole u ci n e 3) V a lli n e 4) P h e n yl a l a n i n e
5 8. Major product obtai ned when 3,3-D i m et h y l Bu t-1-ene reacts wi t h H CI is
1) 1- C h loro-3,3-di m et h ylb u t a n e 2) 2- C h loro-3,3-di m et h ylb u t a n e
3) 2- C h loro-2,3-di m et h ylb u t a n e 4) 1- C h loro-2,2-di m et h ylb u t a n e
5 9. Consider t he followi ng react ion sequence

Pg. 8
 Product A an d B respect i vel y are

1) 2)

3) 4)
6 0. T he co m pou n d wh ich will not react wi t h H i nsberg’s reagen t is

1) 2) 3) 4)
6 1. Wh ich of t he followi ng will be t he least react i ve towards n ucleop h ilic
subst i t u t ion ?

1) C2 H 5Cl 2) 3) 4)

CH 3COCl HCN H 2O
6 2. C6 H 6  
AlCl3
 A   B   C . T he st ruct ure of ‘C’ would be
OH
COOH
C COOH
CH 2 C CH 3
CH 3 OH
1) 2)
CN OH
C CH 3 CH 2 C CH 3

3) OH 4) CN
6 3. Asser t ion (A): E n ergy of X -r a ys is m ore t h a n U . V r a ys
Reason (R): V elocity of X -r a ys is m ore t h a n U . V r a ys
1) A is fa lse b u t R is t r u e
2) A is t r u e b u t R is fa lse
3) B ot h A a n d R a re cor rect a n d R is t h e cor rect ex pl a n a tio n of A .
4) B ot h A a n d R a re cor rect a n d R is n ot t h e cor rect ex pl a n a tio n of A
6 4. Wh ich of t he followi ng is not zero i n isot her m al free ex pansion ?
1)  S 2)  H 3) U 4) W

Pg. 9
6 5. F or wh ich of t he followi ng equ ilibri u m , K p is equal to Kc ?
1) PCl5 ( g )  PCl3 ( g )  Cl2 ( g ) 2) H 2O (l )  H 2O ( g )
3) 2SO2 ( g )  O 2 ( g )  2 SO3 ( g ) 4) CO(g)  H 2 O( g )  CO2 ( g )  H 2 ( g )
6 6. Ox idat ion n u mber of ox ygen i n O2 F2 is
1) -2 2) -1 3) + 1 4) + 2
6 7. Select t he i ncorrect state m en t a m ong t he followi ng
1) T h e u n its for r a te of 2 n d or der re a ctio n is M .sec -1
2) R a dioa ctive disi n tegr a tio n is a first or der re a ctio n
3) F or a n e n dot h er m ic re a ctio n A ctiv a tio n e n ergy is a lw a ys less t h a n h e a t of re a ctio n
4) B a se c a t a lysed h y d rolysis of ester is bi m olec u l a r a n d 2 n d or der re a ctio n
6 8. I n order to i ncrease t he boili ng poi n t of water by 10 C ,how m uch sucrose should
be added i n 5 0 0 g of water ?
( K b  0.5 K kg mol 1 for water )
1) 0.5 m ol 2) 1 m ol 3) 2 m ol 4) 4 m ol
6 9. G i ven below are two state m en ts one labeled as Asser t ion (A) an d t he ot her is
labeled as reason (R)
Asser t ion (A) : Press u re does n ot h a ve a n y sig n ific a n t effect o n sol u bility of solids i n
liq u id
Reason (R) : Solids a n d liq u ids a re h ig h ly i n co m p ressible
I n t h e lig h t of t h e a bove st a te m e n ts, c h oose t h e m ost a p p rop ri a te a n swer fro m t h e
op tio n s give n below
1) A is cor rect b u t R is n ot cor rect
2) A is n ot cor rect b u t R is cor rect
3) B ot h A a n d R a re cor rect a n d R is cor rect ex pl a n a tio n of A
4) B ot h A a n d R a re cor rect b u t R is n ot t h e cor rect ex pl a n a tio n of A
7 0. Select t he correct state m en t a m ong t he followi ng
1)  m i n cre a ses w h ile k decre a ses o n dil u tio n
2)  m decre a ses w h ile k i n cre a ses o n dil u tio n
3) B ot h  m a n d k i n cre a ses o n dil u tio n
4) B ot h  m a n d k decre a ses o n dil u tio n
7 1. O n doubli ng t he concen t rat ion of reactan t, if half-life also gets doubled t hen t he
order of react ion will be
1) Z ero 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
7 2. K H value for Ar (g) , C O 2(g) , H C H O (g) an d C H 4(g) are 4 0.3 9, 1.6 7, 1.83  10 5 an d 0.4 1 3
respect i vel y. Arrange t hese gases i n t he order of t heir i ncreasi ng solubili t y ?
1) HCHO  CH 4  CO2  Ar 2) HCHO  CO2  CH 4  Ar
3) Ar  CH 4  CO2  HCHO 4) Ar  CO2  CH 4  HCHO
7 3. Of t he followi ng m etals t hat can not be obtai ned by t he elect rol ysis of t he
aqueous solu t ion of t heir sal ts are
1) Ag a n d Mg 2) Mg a n d A l 3) Ag a n d A l 4) C u a n d C r

Pg. 10
7 4. T he value of m olar con duct i v i t y of H C l is greater t han t hat of NaC l at a
par t icular te m perat ure because
1) M olec u l a r m a ss of H C l is gre a ter t h a n t h a t of N a C l
2) H C l is st ro n gly a cidic
3) M obility of H + io n s is m ore t h a n t h a t of N a + io n s
4) Io n is a tio n of H C l is l a rger t h a n t h a t of N a C l
7 5. Consider t he followi ng Carbocat ions:

i) ii) iii)
T he correct order of t heir stabili t y is?
1) i>ii>iii 2) iii>i>ii 3) iii>ii>i 4) i>iii>ii
7 6. T hallous ch loride is m ore stable t han T hallic ch loride because of
1) M ore io n ic c h a r a cter 2) L a rger size of T1 io n
3) I n ter p a ir effect 4) H ig h h y d r a tio n e n ergy of T1 io n
7 7. T he correct order of m etallic character is gi ven by
1) Si  Mg  S  Cl 2) Si  Cl  Mg  S
3) Mg  Si  S  Cl 4) Cl  S  Si  Mg
7 8. T he correct order of elect ronegat i v i t y of IVA group ele m en ts is
1) C  Si  Ge  Sn  Pb 2) C  Si  Ge  Sn  Pb
3) C  Si  Ge  Sn  Pb 4) C  Si  Ge  Sn  Pb
7 9. Wh ich a m ong t he followi ng pairs of co m pou n ds can ex ist as h y drates?
1) NaCl , MgCl2 2) LiCl , NaCl 3) NaCl , KCl 4) LiCl , CaCl2
8 0. Wh ich a m ong t he followi ng species does not ex ist ?
1) O2 2) He2 3) Ne2 4) C2
8 1. Wh ich of t he followi ng ions is colourless i n i ts aqueous solu t ion ?
1) Cr 3 2) Sc 3 3) Mn 4 4) V 3
8 2. Wh ich of t he followi ng species is not ex pected be a ligan d ?
1) N O 2) NH 4
3) NH 2  CH 2  CH 2  NH 2 4) C O
8 3. Match t he co m plex ions gi ven i n colu m n-I wi t h t heir h ybridi zat ion an d n u mber
of u n paired elect rons gi ven i n colu m n-II an d choose t he correct op t ion

Colu m n-I Colu m n-II

(Co m plex ion) (H ybridisat ion, n u mber
of u n paired e s
A [Cr(H 2 O ) 6 ]3 (I) dsp 2 ,1
B [Co(CN) 4 ]2 (II) sp3d 2 ,5
C [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ]2  (III) d 2 sp 3 ,3
D [MnF6 ]4  (I V) sp 3d 2 , 2

1) A(iv),b(iii),c(ii),d(i) 2) a(ii),b(iv),c(i),d(iii)
3) a(iii),b(i),c(iv),d(ii) 4) a(i),b(ii),c(iv),d(iii)
Pg. 11
8 4. T he chalcogen hav i ng sa m e n u mber of elect rons bot h i n pen ul t i m ate an d an t i
pen ul t i m ate shells is?
1) Te 2) S 3) Se 4) O
8 5. Noble gases are spari ngl y soluble i n water, owi ng to
1) H y d roge n bo n di n g 2) dipole-dipole i n ter a ctio n s
3) dipole-i n d u ced dipole i n ter a ctio n s 4) i n d u ced dipole-i n d u ced dipole i n ter a ctio n s
SE C T ION - B
8 6. Consider t he followi ng react ion sequence

i ncorrect state m en t abou t B is

1) It gives positive iodofor m test
2) It for m s k et a l o n re a ctio n wit h excess m et h a n ol i n p rese n ce of d r y H C L
3) It u n dergoes A ldol co n de n s a tio n re a ctio n w h e n h e a ted wit h dil u te a l k a li
4) It red u ces Tolle n s’ re age n t
8 7. Major product of t he gi ven react ion is
O
O

NaBH 4
C2 H 5OH

O
OH

OH
1) 2)

3) 4)
8 8. State m en t I: I n positive elect ro m et ric effect t h e  -elect ro n s of t h e m u ltiple bo n d a re
t r a n sfer red to t h a t a to m to w h ic h t h e a t t a c k i n g re age n t gets a t t a c h ed
State m en t II: E lect ro m et ric effect is a per m a n e n t effect
I n t he ligh t of t he above state m en ts, choose t he correct answer
1) B ot h st a te m e n t I a n d st a te m e n t II a re cor rect
2) B ot h st a te m e n t I a n d st a te m e n t II a re i n cor rect
3) S t a te m e n t I is cor rect b u t st a te m e n t II is i n cor rect
4) S t a te m e n t I is i n cor rect b u t st a te m e n t II is cor rect
8 9. Correct order of boili ng poi n t of t he gi ven co m pou n d is
1) 2,2- D i m et h ylp rop a n e> H ex a n e>Pe n t a n e> 2 - M et h ylb u t a n e
2) H ex a n e>Pe n t a n e> 2 - M et h y b u t a n e> 2,2 - D i m et h ylp rop a n e
3) H ex a n e> 2,2- D i m et h ylp rop a n e> 2 - M et h ylb u t a n e>Pe n t a n e
4) H ex a n e> 2- M et h y b u t a n e>Pe n t a n e> 2,2 - D i m et h ylp rop a n e

Pg. 12
9 0. Match t he react ion gi ven i n list-I wi t h t he sa m e associated gi ven i n list-II
LIST-I LIST-II
A O
|| (I) C le m m e n se n red u ctio n
CH 3  CH 2  C  NH 2 
Br2
NaOH

B CH 3  CH 2  NH 2   
CHCl / KOH

(II) H off m a n n b ro m a m ide
degr a d a tio n re a ctio n
C CH 3  CH 2  COOH 
( i ) Br2 / Re d P
(ii) H 2 O
 (III) C a r b yl a m i n e re a ctio n
D Zn  Hg
CH 3  CH 2  C  CH 3   (I V) H ell- V ol h a r d Z eli n s k y
|| HCl
O re a ctio n

1) a(iv),b(ii),c(iii),d(i) 2) a(iii),b(ii),c(iv),d(i)
3) a(i),b(iii),c(iv),d(ii) 4) a(ii),b(iii),c(iv),d(i)
9 1. 1 0 g of m etal ox ide con tai ns 4 g of ox ygen. T he equ i valen t weigh t of t he m etal
carbonate is
1) 4 2 2) 2 4 3) 1 2 4) 5 0
9 2. Consider t he followi ng react ions,
C ( s )  O2 ( g )  CO2 (g);  rH 0  393.5 KJ mol 1
1
Co2 (g)  CO ( g )  O2 (g);  rH 0  283.0 KJ mol 1
2
t hen t he value of H for t he followi ng react ion
1
C (s)  O2 ( g )  CO(g) is
2
1) 110.5 KJ mol 1 2) 150.4 KJ mol 1 3) 750 KJ mol 1 4) 675.5 KJ mol 1
9 3. If K a of wea k acid H A is 10 8 t hen pK b of A-will be
1) 8 2) 7 3) 6 4) 4
9 4. Wh ich of t he followi ng can act as a self-i n dicator ?
1) KMnO4 2) K 2Cr2O7 3) l2 4) H 2C2O4
9 5. E lect rol y te used i n m ercur y cell is
1) M oist p a ste of NH 4Cl and ZnCl2 2) P a ste of K O H a n d Z n O
3) P a ste of H g O a n d c a r bo n 4) P a ste of H g O a n d NH 4Cl
9 6. Select t he correct ex pression of rate constan t k2 an d k1 an d T2 and T1 te m perat ure
respect i vel y [T2 an  T1 ]
K1 Ea  T2  T1  K 2 Ea  T2  T1 
1) log    2) log   
K 2 R  T1T2  K1 R  T1T2 
K1 Ea  T2  T1  K2 Ea  T2  T1 
3) log    4) log   
K 2 2.303R  T2T1  K1 2.303R  T1T2 
9 7. Nu mber of bridged C O groups i n  Co2  CO 8  is
1) 3 2) 1 3) 2 4) zero

Pg. 13
9 8. T he correct order of ion i zat ion en t halp y is gi ven by
1) Be  Mg  Ca  Sr 2) Sr  Ca  Mg  Be
3) Mg  Ca  Be  Sr 4) Be  Ca  Sr  Mg
9 9. State m en t-I : H 2 S is m ore pol a r t h a n H 2O
State m en t-II : H 2O a n d H 2 S a re isost r u ct u r a l m olec u les
I n t he ligh t of above state m en ts, choose t he correct op t ion
1) B ot h st a te m e n ts I a n d II a re t r u e
2) B ot h st a te m e n ts I a n d II a re fa lse
3) S t a te m e n t I is fa lse b u t st a te m e n t II is fa lse
4) S t a te m e n t I is fa lse b u t st a te m e n t II is t r u e
1 0 0. Arrange t he followi ng i n decreasi ng order of t heir boili ng poi n ts:
A) n – bu tane B) 2 – m et h y l bu tane
C) n – pen tane D) 2, 2 – di m et h y l propane
1) A > B > C > D 2) B > C > D > A 3) C > B > D > A 4) D > C > B > A
B O T ANY
SE C T ION-A
1 0 1. Select t he i ncorrect state m en t abou t lichens.
1) M u t u a lly be n efici a l a ssoci a tio n bet wee n a lga e a n d f u n gi
2) P h ycobio n t is h eterot rop h ic p a r t n er
3) F u n gi a bsor b w a ter for its p a r t n er
4) Lic h e n s a re ver y good poll u tio n i n dic a tors
1 0 2. Select t he correct m atch
1) Mucor- t h r p a r a sitic f u n gi o n m u st a r d
2) R hizop u s -t h e b re a d m o u ld
3) C alviceps - u sed ex te n sively i n bioc h e m ic a l ge n etic wor k
4) U stil ago - r u st f u n g u s
1 0 3. C h ief ‘producers’ i n t he oceans
1) C a n n ot be fo u n d i n m a ri n e e n viro n m e n ts
2) A re m icroscopic
3) H a ve e a sily dest r u ctible w a lls
4) A re s a p rot rop h ic
1 0 4. Morgan carried ou t several di h ybrid crosses i n D rosop h i l a to st ud y genes t hat
were sex-li n k ed (w & m).
Note: G e n e w-codes for eye colo u r
G e n e m -codes for wi n g size
Select t h e cor rect op tio n a bo u t it
1) H e fo u n d ge n es w a n d m segrega te i n depe n de n t a s t h ey a re n ot li n k ed
2) B ot h ge n es were sit u a ted o n differe n t c h ro m oso m es n ot o n t h e s a m e
3) It w a s fo u n d t h a t t h e p roge n y h a s m ore n o n -p a re n t a l co m bi n a tio n s t h a t p a re n t a l
4) F 2 r a tio devi a ted ver y sig n ific a n tly fro m t h e 9:3:3:1 r a tio.
1 0 5. Wh ich of t he followi ng pairs shares si m ilari t y as i n bot h cases t he fe m ales have
a pair of X X ch ro m oso m es?
1) B ir ds a n d b u t terflies 2) H u m a n s a n d b u t terflies
3) B u t terflies a n d Drosop hil a 4) Drosop hil a a n d G r a ss h op per
Pg. 14
1 0 6. State t rue (T) or false (F) for t he followi ng state m en ts an d select t he correct
op t ion.
A. Sic k le cell ane m ia is caused is caused due to t he change of one base i n t he
gene codi ng for alp ha chai n of hae m oglobi n
B. So m e m u tat ions i n volve changes i n whole set of ch ro m oso m es.
A B A B
1) F F 2) F T
3) T T 4) T F
1 0 7. Ox ygen is not produced duri ng p hotosy n t hesis by
1) G ree n s u lp h u r b a cteri a 2) Nostoc
3) C yc a s 4) B ot h 1 a n d 2
1 0 8. D uri ng non-cyclic p hotop hosp hor y lat ion, when elect rons are lost fro m t he
react ion cen t re at PS-II, what is t he source wh ich replaces t hese elect rons?
1) O x yge n 2) W a ter 3) C a r bo n dioxide 4) Lig h t
1 0 9. Wh ich of t he followi ng is not observed duri ng i n ter k i nesis?
1) D eco n de n s a tio n of c h ro m oso m es 2) Replic a tio n of ce n t rioles
3) R N A a n d p rotei n sy n t h esis 4) Replic a tio n of D N A
1 1 0. Spi n dle fibres for m at ion is not observed i n
1) M eiosis-I 2) M itosis 3) M eiosis-II 4) A m itosis
1 1 1. I n wh ich of t he followi ng p teridop h y tes ga m etop h y te is m onoecious i n nat ure?
1) Sel agin ell a 2) S alvini a 3) L y copodiu m 4) M a rsile a
1 1 2. Wh ich of t he followi ng br yop h y tes is a source of peat ?
1) Sp h agn u m 2) Pol y trich u m 3) F u n a ri a 4) M a rch a n ti a
1 1 3. I n wh ich aquat ic plan t, a lateral branch wi t h shor t i n ter nodes an d each node
beari ng a roset te of leaves an d a t uff of root is fou n d ?
1) C hr y s a n th em u m 2) Pi n e a p ple 3) Pisti a 4) B a n a n a
1 1 4. A t issue is a group of cell hav i ng a
1) D iffere n t origi n a n d u s u a lly perfor m co m m o n f u n ctio n
2) C o m m o n origi n a n d u s u a lly perfor m co m m o n f u n ctio n
3) C o m m o n origi n a n d a lw a ys perfor m differe n t f u n ctio n
4) D iffere n t origi n a n d u s u a lly perfor m differe n t f u n ctio n s
1 1 5. Select t he i ncorrect feat ure of collench y m as.
1) C ells m a y be ov a l, sp h eric a l or polygo n a l
2) T h ic k e n ed cor n ers d u e to depositio n of cell u lose, h e m icell u loses a n d pecti n
3) Provide m ec h a n ic a l s u p por t to t h e growi n g p a r ts of t h e pl a n t
4) I n tercell u l a r sp a ces a re p rese n t to p rovide b u oy a n cy
1 1 6. Select t he co m ponen t of pro k ar yot ic cell en velope wh ich prov ides st ic k y
characters to i t.
1) Sli m e l a yer 2) C a ps u le 3) C ell w a ll 4) Pl a s m a m e m b r a n e
1 1 7. Select t he m ism atched pair
1) A m ylopl a st-S tores c a r bo h y d r a tes
2) C h ro m opl a st-S tores w a ter sol u ble c a rote n oid pig m e n ts
3) E l a iopl a sts-S tores oils a n d fa ts
4) A le u ropl a st- S tores p rotei n s
Pg. 15
1 1 8. Read t he followi ng state m en ts an d choose t he correct op t ion
State m en t-A: T h e orga n elle w h ic h is for m ed b y t h e p rocess of p a c k agi n g i n t h e glogi
a p p a r a t u s co n sists of h y d rolytic e n zy m es.
State m en t-B: To n opl a st fa cilit a tes t r a n spor t of m a teri a ls o n ly a lo n g t h e
co n ce n t r a tio n gr a die n t i n to v a c u ole.
1) O n ly st a te m e n t A is cor rect 2) O n ly st a te m e n t B is cor rect
3) B ot h st a te m e n ts A a n d B a re cor rect 4) B ot h st a te m e n ts A a n d B a re i n cor rect
1 1 9. Select t he plan t i n wh ich t heir leaves get m odified i n to ten drils for cli mbi ng
1) C a cti 2) G r a pevi n es 3) C c u c u m ber 4) Pe a
1 2 0. T rue regenerat ion is observed i n
1) A moeb a 2) Ye a st 3) H y d r a 4) Pl a n a ri a
1 2 1. Read t he followi ng state m en ts an d select t he correct op t ion
State m en t-A: I n cre a se i n m a ss a n d i n cre a se i n n u m ber of i n divid u a ls a re t wi n
c h a r a cteristics of grow t h .
State m en t-B: I n m a jority of h ig h er a n i m a ls a n d pl a n ts, grow t h a n d rep rod u ctio n a re
sy n o n y m o u s |
1) O n ly st a te m e n t A is cor rect 2) O n ly st a te m e n t B is cor rect
3) B ot h st a te m e n ts a re cor rect 4) B ot h st a te m e n ts a re i n cor rect
1 2 2. Select t he correct op t ion w.r.t. en z y m e an d t he react ion i t catal yses
1) H exo k i n a se- B re a k dow n s u crose i n to gl u cose a n d fr u ctose
2) I n ver t a se-P h osp h or yl a tes gl u cose to gl u cose-6-p h osp h a te
3) Py r u v a te de h y d roge n a se- C o n ver ts p y r u vic a cid to a cetyl C oA
4) Py r u v a te dec a r box yl a se- C o n ver ts p y r u vic a cid directly to et h a n ol
1 2 3. What is t he role of large bu n dle sheat h cells fou n d arou n d t he vascular bu n dles
i n C 4 -plan ts?
1) F or t h e oper a tio n of C a lvi n cycle
2) To e n a ble t h e pl a n t to toler a te h ig h te m per a t u re
3) To p rotect t h e v a sc u l a r tiss u e fro m h ig h lig h t i n te n sity
4) To p rovide t h e site for p h otorespir a tor y p a t h w a y
1 2 4. Two closel y related species co m pet i ng for t he sa m e resources can not co-ex ist
i n defi n i tel y an d co m pet i t i vel y i nferior one will be eli m i nated even t uall y. I t was
stated by
1) M a c A r t h u r’s reso u rce p a r titio n i n g
2) G a u se’s co-ex ti n ctio n
3) G a u se’s co m petitive excl u sio n p ri n ciple
4) M a c A r t h u r’s co-evol u tio n
1 2 5. C hoose t he odd one ou t w.r.t. t y pe of ecosyste ms
1) F orest 2) G r a ssl a n d 3) D eser t 4) C rop fields
1 2 6. T he hor m one wh ich is sy n t hesised by t he t issues u n dergoi ng senescence
1) C yto k i n i n 2) G ib berelli n s 3) A u xi n 4) E t h yle n e
1 2 7. Read t he followi ng state m en ts
A) D ist a l e n d of fil a m e n t is u s u a lly a t t a c h ed to t h a l a m u s
B) E n dot h eci u m h elps i n n o u ris h m e n t of m icrospore
C) M icrospor a n gi a for m s polle n s a cs o n m a t u rity
D) Lobes of a n t h ers a re a t t a c h ed to e a c h ot h er b y sterile tiss u e
M a r k t r u e (T) or fa lse (F) to a bove st a te m e n ts a n d c h oose t h e cor rect op tio n
Pg. 16
 A B C D A B C D
1) T F T F 2) F T F F
2) T F F T 4) F F T T
1 2 8. Un isex ual flowers are seen i n
1) C h i n a rose 2) O n io n 3) Pe a 4) C u c u m ber
1 2 9. All are biocon t rol agen ts, excep t
1) J a ssids 2) T ric h oder m a 3) D r ago n fly 4) B a c u lovir u ses
1 3 0. Accessor y pigm en ts do not
1) E n a ble a wider r a n ge of lig h t w a vele n gt h s to be u tilized
2) Protect c h lorop h yll a fro m p h otop h osp h or yl a tio n
3) A bsor b lig h t a n d t r a n sfer t h e e n ergy to c h lorop h yll a
4) A bsor b lig h t of bl u e regio n
1 3 1. F i n d t he i ncorrect state m en t regardi ng n ucleoso m e
1) E a c h n u cleoso m e h a s a bo u t 2 0 0 b p lo n g D N A
2) N u cleoso m es for m repe a ti n g u n it of c h ro m a ti n
3) N u cleoso m e co n t a i n s N H C p rotei n s
4) N u cleoso m e h a s positively c h a rged core
1 3 2. Upst rea m of st ruct ural gene m eans DNA sequences
1) Tow a r ds 5’-e n d of codi n g st r a n d
2) Tow a r ds 3’-e n d of codi n g st r a n d
3) Tow a r ds 5’-e n d of te m pl a te st r a n d
4) Tow a r ds ter m i n a tor of st r u ct u r a l ge n e
1 3 3. H ow m an y of t he followi ng were used by Meselson an d Stah l for t heir
ex peri m en t t hat proved se m iconservati ve nat ure of replicat ion ?
A) E . coli B) B a cteriop h age C) C s C l D) 1 5 N H 4 C l
E) 35S O 4 F) 3 2 P O 4 G) Streptococcu s
C h oose t h e cor rect op tio n
1) Seve n 2) T h ree 3) F o u r 4) Six
1 3 4. E xa m ple of sacred grove i ncludes
1) G ir N A TI O N A L P a r k , G u j a r a t 2) S a rg u j a , M a d h y a Pr a des h
3) B h a r a t p u r W ildlife S a n ct u a r y 4) S u n d a r b a n s Tiger Reserve
1 3 5. Match t he followi ng colu m ns an d choose t he correct ion op t ion
Colu m n-I Colu m n-II
A) Pred a tio n i. + -
B) C o m m e n s a lis m ii. - 0
C) A m e n s a lis m iii. + 0
D) M u t u a lis m iv. + +
1) A   i  ; B   ii  ; C   iv  ; D   iii  2) A   iii  ; B   iv  ; C   ii  ; D   i 
3) A   i  ; B   ii  ; C   iii  ; D   iv  4) A   i  ; B   iii  ; C   ii  ; D   iv 
SE C T ION-B
1 3 6. A sm allest wall-less m oneran lac ks
1) C ell m e m b r a n e 2) D N A
3) P a t h oge n icity 4) P h otosy n t h etic pig m e n ts

Pg. 17
1 3 7. Nu mber of con t rast i ng t rai ts for each character of pea plan t ta k en by Men del to
perfor m ex peri m en ts is
1) 7 2) 4 3) 8 4) 2
1 3 8. Wh ich of t he followi ng t y pe of algae stores food as floridean starch ?
1) G ree n a lga e 2) B row n a lga e 3) Red a lga e 4) B l u e-gree n a lga e
1 3 9. What is t he net gai n of A TP when each m olecule of glucose is con ver ted to two
m olecules of p y ru v ic acid ?
1) 1 0 2) 2 3) 8 4) 4
1 4 0. Wh ich a m ong t he followi ng floral characters is not co m m on i n t he n u mbers of
F abaceae an d Solanaceae fa m il y ?
1) B isex u a l flowers 2) V a lv a te a estiv a tio n of c a ly x
3) B ic a r pell a r y gy n oeci u m 4) S u perior ov a r y
1 4 1. I n i t iat ion of lateral roots ta k en place i n t he cells of
1) E n doder m is 2) Pericycle 3) C o n j u n ctive tiss u e 4) C or tex
1 4 2. Consider t he followi ng state m en ts an d select t he i ncorrect one
1) B ot h cili a a n d fl agell a e m erge fro m ce n t riole li k e st r u ct u re c a lled t h e b a s a l bodies
2) I n a n a xo n e m e, ce n t r a l s h e a t h is co n n ected to bot h t u b u les of perip h er a l do u blets
b y r a di a l spo k es
3) T h e a r r a n ge m e n t of a xo n e m a l m icrot u b u les is refer red to a s 9 + 2 a r r a y.
4) F l agell a of bot h t h e p ro k a r yotes a n d ey k a r yotes a re st r u ct u r a lly differe n t fro m e a c h
ot h er
1 4 3. Asy m p tote i n a logist ic growt h curve is obtai ned when
1) T h e pop u l a tio n de n sity is m u c h m ore t h a n c a r r yi n g c a p a city
2) T h e pop u l a tio n de n sity re a c h es t h e c a r r yi n g c a p a city
3) T h e i n t ri n sic r a te of n a t u r a l i n cre a se a p p roa c h es to zero
4) T h e reso u rces beco m e u n li m ited i n a h a bit a t
1 4 4. Read t he followi ng state m en ts an d select t he correct op t ion
Asser t ion (A): Pri m a r y p rod u ctivity v a ries i n differe n t ty pes of ecosyste m s
Reason (R): Pri m a r y p rod u ctivity depe n ds u po n a verity of e n viro n m e n t a l fa ctors,
a v a il a bility of n u t rie n ts a n d p h otosy n t h etic c a p a city of pl a n ts
1) A is cor rect b u t R is i n cor rect
2) A is i n cor rect R is cor rect
3) B ot h A a n d R a re cor rect b u t R is n ot cor rect ex pl a n a tio n of A
4) B ot h A a n d R a re cor rect a n d R is cor rect ex pl a n a tio n of A
1 4 5. C he m icall y abscisic acids an d gibberellic acids are A an d B respect i vel y.
F i n d t he correct op t ion for A an d B
A B
1) I n dole co m po u n ds G a ses
2) Ter pe n es K i n eti n
3) A d n i n e deriv a tives Ter pe n es
4) D eriv a tives of c a rote n oids Ter pe n es
1 4 6. Wh ich of t he followi ng is i ncorrect ?
1) Self sterility is a ty pe of o u t b reedi n g device
2) O u t b reedi n g devices e n co u r age self-polli n a tio n
3) A po m ixis is ge n etic a lly co n t rolled
4) Poly m b r yo n y is see n i n so m e a n giosper m s
Pg. 18
1 4 7. Mai n const i t uen ts of biogas are
1) H y d roge n a n d s u lp h u r dioxide 2) C a r bo n dioxide a n d ox yge n
3) M a t h a n e a n d c a r bo n dioxide 4) H y d roge n a n d n it roge n oxide
1 4 8. State m en t-I: Process of t r a n scrip tio n does n ot n eed D N A h a lic a se e n zy m e
State m en t-II: R N A poly m er a se c a n u n wi n d t h e D N A h elix
I n t h e lig h t of t h e a bove st a te m e n ts c h oose t h e cor rect a n swer fro m t h e op tio n s give n
below
1) B ot h t h e st a te m e n ts a re cor rect b u t st a te m e n t II is n ot cor rect re a so n of
st a te m e n t I
2) B ot h t h e st a te m e n ts a re cor rect a n d st a te m e n t I is cor rect re a so n of st a te m e n t II
3) B ot h t h e st a te m e n ts a re cor rect a n d st a te m e n t II is cor rect re a so n of st a te m e n t I
4) O n ly st a te m e n t I is cor rect
1 4 9. Read t he followi ng state m en ts an d choose t he correct op t ion
State m en t-I: C l a ri a s g a riepin u s is a n i n d ige n o u s c a tfis h fa ci n g t h re a t of ex ti n ctio n
State m en t-II: L a n t a n a is a serio u s weed.
State m en t-III: C ic h lid fis h h a s led to ex ti n ctio n of N ile perc h
1) B ot h st a te m e n ts II a n d III a re cor rect 2) O n ly st a te m e n t II is cor rect
3) A ll st a te m e n ts a re i n cor rect 4) B ot h st a te m e n ts I a n d II a re i n cor rect
1 5 0. Wh ich state m en t is wrong for K rebs’ cycle?
1) T h ere a re t h ree poi n ts i n t h e cycle w h ere N A D + is red u ced to N A D H + H +
2) T h ere is o n e poi n t i n t h e cycle w h ere F A D + is red u ced to F A D H 2
3) D u ri n g co n versio n of s u cci n yl C o-A to s u cci n ic a cid, a m olec u le of G TP is
sy n t h esised
4) T h e cycle st a r ts wit h co n de n s a tio n of a cetyl gro u p (a cetyl C o-A) wit h p y r u vic a cid
to yield cit ric a cid
ZO O LO GY
SE C T ION-A
1 5 1. A m ong t he followi ng m et hods of con t racep t ion wh ich one m ost li k el y has t he
h ighest failure rate?
1) B a r rier m et h od 2) I U D 3) S teriliz a tio n 4) N a t u r a l m et h od
1 5 2. T he n u mber of bases per t ur n i n B-DNA of h u m an bei ngs is
1) 2 0 2) 1 0 3) 1 1 4) 2 2
1 5 3. T he axoplasm i nside t he axon con tai ns h igh concen t rat ion of
1) K + a n d N a + 2) K + a n d n ega tively c h a rged p rotei n s
3) N a + a n d C l - 4) N a + a n d n ega tively c h a rged p rotei n s
1 5 4. C hoose t he set fro m t he followi ng con tai n i ng on l y v iral diseases.
1) Tet a n u s a n d polio 2) AI D S a n d p n e u m o n i a
3) C o m m o n cold a n d m a l a ri a 4) D e n g u e a n d AI D S
1 5 5. T he m ost feared proper t y of m alignan t t u m ors is
1) M et a st a sis
2) B ei n g co n fi n ed to origi n a l loc a tio n
3) C o n t a ct i n h ibitio n ex h ibited b y cells
4) N eopl a stic t r a n sfor m a tio n
Pg. 19
1 5 6. Co m plete t he analogy w.r.t pB R 3 2 2 Ba m H I: tet R ::Pvu l:_______
1) ter R 2) a mp R 3) rop 4) p q
1 5 7. I n Hard y-Wei nberg equat ion, t he frequencies of ho m oz ygous i n di v iduals are
represen ted by
1) 2 p q 2) p 2 o n ly 3) p 2 a n d q 2 4) p q
1 5 8. Select t he correct m atch fro m followi ng
1) A m p h ibi a n s-L a y t h ic k s h elled eggs
2) C oel a c a n t h - F irst to i n v a de l a n d
3) C alotes - E volved i n to first a m p h ibi a n s
4) Ich th yos a urs - E volved i n to fis h li k e rep t iles
1 5 9. I n t he exa m ple of i n dust rial m elan ism duri ng ‘P’ period, t he t ree t ru n ks beca m e
dar k an d ‘Q’ m ot h surv i ved.
Iden t ify ‘P’ an d ‘Q’ an d select t he correct op t ion
1) Pre-i n d u st ri a lis a tio n -W h ite-wi n ged 2) Post- i n d u st ri a lis a tio n - D a r k -wi n ged
3) Post-i n d u st ri a lis a tio n -W h ite-wi n ged 4) Pre-i n d u st ri a lis a tio n - M el a n ised
1 6 0. If we are able to li n k an alien piece of DNA wi t h bacteriop hage DNA, we can
m ul t ipl y i ts n u mbers_________t he cop y n u mber of bacteriop hage
1) E q u a l to 2) M ore t h a n 3) D o u ble 4) Less t h a n
1 6 1. Wh ich of t he followi ng would be m ost useful for i ncreasi ng t he a m ou n t of DNA
available for test i ng?
1) Aga rose gel elect rop h oresis 2) E LIS A
3) D ow n st re a m p rocessi n g 4) P C R
1 6 2. C hoose t he i ncorrect state m en t a m ong t he followi ng w.r.t. classificat ion of
en z y m es
1) H y d rol a ses c a t a lyse h y d rolysis of pep tide bo n ds
2) O xidored u ctio n re a ctio n is c a t a lysed b y cl a ss 1 e n zy m e
3) C l a ss 5 e n zy m es c a t a lyse joi n i n g of C  O bo n d
4) Ly a ses c a n cre a te do u ble bo n ds b y re m ov a l of gro u ps fro m s u bst r a te
1 6 3. C hoose t he i ncorrect state m en t w.r.t adrenal glan d
1) C a tec h ol a m i n es a re secreted fro m zo n a glo m er u los a
2) C or tisol is secreted fro m zo n a fa scic u l a te
3) A C T H fro m a de n o h y pop h ysis reg u l a tes secretio n of m a i n ly gl u cocor ticoids
4) E m erge n cy h or m o n es a re secreted fro m a d re n a l m ed u ll a
1 6 4. Wh ich of t he followi ng is not correct l y m atched ?
1) C h iti n -Poly m er of N- a cetyl gl u cos a m i n e
2) I n u li n - H eteropolys a cc h a r dide
3) C ell u lose- H o m opolys a cc h a ride
4) G lycoge n -S tore h o u se of e n ergy i n a n i m a l tiss u es
1 6 5. T he tech n ique of i nser t ion of genes i n to an i n di v idual’s cells an d t issues to
t reat a genet ic disease is called
1) G e n e t h er a p y 2) R a diot h er a p y 3) P h ysiot h er a p y 4) P C R
1 6 6. I n I n dia, t he per m issible use of a m n iocen tesis is for
1) D etecti n g a n y ge n etic a b n or m a lity
2) D etecti n g sex of t h e u n bor n b a b y
3) A r tifici a l i n se m i n a tio n
4) T r a n sfer of e m b r yo i n to t h e u ter u s of a s u r roga te m ot h er
Pg. 20
1 6 7. All are correct for ver m ifor m appen dix, excep t
1) It is a vestigi a l orga n
2) It a rises fro m a l a rge bli n d s a c st r u ct u re of s m a ll i n testi n e
3) It is a n a r row fi n ger-li k e t u b u l a r p rojectio n
4) T h e st r u ct u re fro m w h ic h it a rises, h osts so m e sy m biotic m icro -orga n is m
1 6 8. C h y lo m icrons are
1) S m a ll p rotei n coa ted fa t glob u les
2) L a rge p rotei n coa ted fa t glob u les c a lled m icelles
3) L a rge fa t coa ted p rotei n glob u les
4) S m a ll fa t coa ted p rotei n glob u les
1 6 9. Pre-h istoric cave ar t developed abou t how m an y years ago?
1) 7 5,0 0 0 2) 1 0,0 0 0 3) 1 8,0 0 0 4) 4 0,0 0 0
1 7 0. T he m uscle fibres taper at bot h en ds bot h do not show st riat ions i n t he
1) M u scle p rese n t o n ly i n t h e h e a r t
2) S m oot h m u scle tiss u e w h ic h is vol u n t a r y i n n a t u re
3) M u scle p rese n t i n t h e biceps
4) S m oot h m u scle tiss u e w h ic h is i n vol u n t a r y i n n a t u re
1 7 1. All of t he followi ng are correct for joi n t diastole i n a cardiac cycle, excep t
1) T ric u spid a n d bic u spid v a lves a re forced ope n
2) Se m il u n a r v a lves a re closed
3) B lood fro m t h e p u l m o n a r y vei n s flows i n to t h e left ve n t ricle t h ro u g h t h e left a t ri a
4) B lood fro m t h e ve n a c a v a flows i n to t h e rig h t a t ri u m t h ro u g h t h e rig h t ve n t ricle
1 7 2. Read t he followi ng carefull y an d select t he correct op t ion
Asser t ion (A): H y posecretio n of grow t h h or m o n e i n a d u lts c a u ses a cro m ega ly.
Reason (R): A cro m ega ly is e a sy to di ag n ose i n t h e e a rly st ages.
1) B ot h (A) a n d (R) a re cor rect a n d (R) is t h e cor rect ex pl a n a tio n of (A)
2) B ot h (A) a n d (R) a re cor rect b u t (R) is n ot t h e cor rect ex pl a n a tio n of (A)
3) A is cor rect b u t R is i n cor rect
4) B ot h A a n d R a re i n cor rect
1 7 3. Reduct ion i n n u mber of wh ich for m ed ele m en t can lead to clot t i ng disorders?
1) M o n ocyte 2) Pl a telets 3) Le u cocytes 4) E r yt h rocytes a n d C a + 2
1 7 4. E ach fallopian t ube is abou t_________long an d t he par t closer to t he u terus is___.
Select t he correct op t ion to fill i n t he blan ks respect i vel y.
1) 1-2 m a n d i n f u n dib u l u m 2) 1 0-1 2c m a n d i n f u n dib u l u m
3) 4-5c m a n d ist h m u s 4) 1 0-1 2c m a n d ist h m u s
1 7 5. I n a fe m ale, oogon i u m star ts di v ision an d en ters i n to ‘ X ’ of t he m eiot ic di v ision
an d gets te m poraril y arrested at t h is stage, called pri m ar y oocy te.
Select t he correct op t ion for ‘ X ’:
1) M et a p h a se-I 2) Telop h a se-I 3) A n a p h a se-I 4) Prop h a se-I
1 7 6. Wh ich a m ong t he followi ng is a resul t of u nequal m eiot ic di v ision ?
1) Seco n d a r y sper m a tocyte
2) Seco n d a r y oocyte
3) O ogo n i a
4) Pri m a r y sper m a tocyte
Pg. 21
1 7 7. Select t he correct state m en t
1) T h e G r a afi a n follicle r u p t u res to rele a se t h e seco n d a r y follicle
2) C ell divisio n itself is a m ode of rep rod u ctio n i n A moeb a a n d spo n ges
3) S u ccessf u l t r a n sfer a n d co m i n g toget h er of ga m etes is esse n ti a l for m ost critic a l
eve n t i n sex u a l rep rod u ctio n i.e. , gest a tio n
4) D ege n er a tio n of cor p u s l u te u m le a ds to fa ll i n levels of p rogestero n e c a u si n g
m e n st r u a tio n
1 7 8. All of t he followi ng are i ncorrect l y m atched excep t
1) Liver fl u k e-Pse u docoelo m a te t h a t excretes t h ro u g h excretor y pore
2) F il a ri a l wor m - O perc u l a ted gills wit h st re a m li n ed bod y
3) D evi fis h - F ile-li k e r a spi n g orga n for feedi n g
4) F ig h ti n g fis h - F l a m e cells for os m org u l a tio n
1 7 9. Select t he i ncorrect op t ion w.r.t. feat ures of R a n a
1) E x h ibits ex ter n a l fer tilis a tio n 2) Prese n ce of cloa c a
3) Prese n ce of t wo c h a m bered h e a r t 4) I n a bility to reg u l a te t h e bod y te m per a t u re
1 8 0. Presence of dr y an d cor n ified sk i n, epider m al scales or scu tes are characters of
organ isms belongi ng to wh ich taxon ?
1) C yclosto m a t a 2) Rep tili a 3) Pisces 4) A m p h ibi a
1 8 1. All of t he gi ven products are obtai ned fro m Can nabis excep t
1) S m a c k 2)H a s h is h 3) M a rij u a n a 4) G a n j a
1 8 2. C hoose t he i ncorrect state m en t
1) T h e fe a t u res w h ic h is co m m o n bet wee n n e u r a l tiss u e a n d m u scle tiss u e is
excit a bility
2) T h ree ty pes of m u scles a re ide n tified o n t h e b a sis of t h eir loc a tio n
3) T h e fe a t u re w h ic h is excl u sive to m u scle fib res p rese n t i n t riceps is p rese n ce of
st ri a tio n s
4) C ili a a n d fl agell a a re h a ir -li k e o u tgrow t h s of t h e cell m e m b r a n e
1 8 3. A n u mber of m uscle bu n dles are held toget her by a co m m on_______t issue layer
called fascia.
Select t he op t ion t hat correct l y fills t he blan ks
1) E pit h eli a l 2) N e u r a l 3) M u sc u l a r 4) C o n n ective
1 8 4. What will happen if t he hairpi n shaped t ubules called Hen le’s loops are absen t
i n t he nep h rons of a k id ney ?
1) M ore co n ce n t r a ted u ri n e will be p rod u ced
2) D il u te u ri n e will be p rod u ced
3) No effect o n u ri n e p rod u ctio n
4) No u ri n e for m a tio n will occ u r
1 8 5. All of t he followi ng are i n volved i n select i ve secret ion of h y drogen ion excep t
1) P C T 2) Loop of H e n le 3) D C T 4) C ollecti n g d u ct

SE C T ION-B

1 8 6. H ow m an y of t he organ isms gi ven below i n t he box ex h ibi t brancial respirat ion ?

Snail, Shar k , Whale, Co m m on Carp, Prawn, Dolp h i n, Seal
1) 6 2) 7 3) 4 4) 5

Pg. 22
1 8 7. Select t he i ncorrect m atch w.r.t h u m ans
1) M a xi m u m vol u m e of a ir a perso n c a n i n spire after a n or m a l ex pir a tio n
-3 0 0 0-3 5 0 0 m L
2) V ol u m e of a ir re m a i n i n g i n t h e l u n gs eve n after a forcible ex pir a tio n - 1 0 0 0-1 1 0 0 m L
3) M a xi m u m vol u m e of a ir a perso n c a n ex pire after a n or m a l i n spir a tio n -
1 5 0 0-1 6 0 0 M l
4) V ol u m e of a ir i n spired per m i n u te i n n or m a l p h ysiologic a l co n ditio n - 6 0 0 0-8 0 0 0 M l
1 8 8. Consider t he gi ven state m en ts
State m en t-A: B re a k dow n of gl u cose i n to l a ctic a cid i n m u scles is a c a t a bolic p rocess
State m en t-B: F or m a tio n of c h olesterol fro m a cetic a cid is a biosy n t h etic p a t h w a y.
C hoose t he correct op t ion
1) B ot h S t a te m e n ts A a n d B a re i n cor rect 2) B ot h S t a te m e n ts A a n d B a re cor rect
3) O n ly S t a te m e n t B is i n cor rect 4) O n ly S t a te m e n t A is i n cor rect
1 8 9. Select t he correct m atch w.r.t. pat hogen an d t heir effect
1) S almon ell a ty p hi -S u st a i n ed h ig h fever (3 9 0 -4 0 0 C)
2) Pl a smodiu m viv a x - B l u is h lips a n d n a ils
3) H a emop hilu s influ e n z a e -S welli n g i n lower li m bs
4) W uch ereri a m al a y i - Rele a se of h a e m ozoi n
1 9 0. Observe t he gi ven step of PC R.

All of t he followi ng are requ ired nex t step of t he step shown above excep t
1) H e a t a t 9 4 0 C 2) d N TPs 3) T aq poly m er a se 4) Mg 2 + io n s
1 9 1. Read t he gi ven state m en ts w.r.t ali m en tar y canal of coc k roach
A . Prese n t i n t h e bod y c a vity
B . D ividi n g i n to t h ree regio n s; foreg u t, m idg u t a n d h i n d h u t.
C . M o u t h ope n s i n to a l a rge t u b u l a r p h a r y n x le a di n g to crop
Select t h e op tio n w h ic h i n cl u des o n ly cor rect st a te m e n ts
1) A , B a n d C 2) O n ly A a n d B 3) O n ly A a n d C 4) O n ly B
1 9 2. T he en z y m es catal ysi ng h y drol ysis of ester, et her, pep t ide, gl ycosidic, C  C ,
C  halide, P  N bon ds i nclude.
A . A l k a li n e p h osp h a tise C . Sm al
B . D N A liga se D . Rest rictio n exo n u cle a se
Select t h e cor rect opotio n
1) A a n d C 2) A a n d B 3) A , B a n d D 4) B a n d D
1 9 3. Read t he gi ven state m en ts carefull y
A . C h or d a te te n di n e a e of t h e bic u spid v a lve p reve n ts b a c k flow of blood fro m lfet
ve n t ricle i n to left a t ri u m .
B . I m p u lse t r a vels fro m S A N to b u n dle f H is t h ro u g h A V n ode a n d t h e n to h e a r t
m u scles t h ro u g h p u r k i n je fib res.
C . A r teries a re t h ic k -w a lled a n d h a ve n a r row l u m e n a s co m p a red to vei n s.
H ow m a n y of t h e a bove st a te m e n ts a re cor rect w.r.t. circ u l a tor y syste m of h u m a n s?
1) O n e 2) T h ree 3) T wo 4) Z ero
Pg. 23
1 9 4. D uri ng t he processi ng of t he proi nsuli n i n to i nsuli n
1) C -pep tide is a d ded to p roi n s u li n 2) C -pep tide is re m oved fro m p roi n s u li n
3) B - C h a i n is a d ded to p roi n s u li n 4) B -c h a i n is re m oved fro m p roi n s u li n
1 9 5. Match t he Colu m n-I wi t h Colu m n-II an d select t he correct op t ion
Colu m n-I Colu m n-II
A. T C T i. H y perc a lce m ic h oro m o n e
B . T h y roxi n e ii. Seco n d m esse n ger
C . PT H iii. I n t a rcell u l a r recep tor
D . E pi n e p h ri n e iv. H y poc a lce m ic h oro m o n e
1) A   i  ;B   ii  ;C   iv  ; D   iii  2) A   iv  ;B   iii  ;C   i  ;D   ii 
3) A   i  ;B   iii  ;C   iv  ;D   ii  4) A   iv  ;B   ii  ;C   iii  ;D   i 
1 9 6. Saheli is a non-steroidal preparat ion, was developed at
1) I n di a n C o u n cil of Agric u lt u r a l Rese a rc h , N ew D el h i
2) C e n t r a l D r u g Rese a rc h I n stit u te, L u c k n ow
3) I n di a n C o u n cil of M edic a l Rese a rc h , P u n e
4) A ll I n di a I n stit u te of M edic a l Scie n ces, n ew D el h i
1 9 7. Iron con tai n i ng co m plex protei n i n R BC is
1) I n s u li n 2) H a e m oglobi n 3) C ell u lose 4) Lecit h i n
1 9 8. Select t he i ncorrect state m en t fro m t he followi ng
1) C le a v age is a s a ries of m itotic divisio n s a s zygote m oves t h ro u g h t h e ist h m u s of t h e
ovid u ct
2) T h e n u m ber of c h ro m oso m es i n e a c h bl a sto m ere of m o r u l a a n d bl a st u l a is s a m e
3) I m pl a n t a tio n occ u rs i n t h e o u ter m ost l a yer of u ter u s
4) I n n er cell m a ss co n t a i n s cer t a i n cells c a lled ste m cells t h a t h a ve t h e pote n cy for
orga n oge n esis.
1 9 9. All of t he followi ng are li zards excep ts
1) C h a meleon 2) C alotes 3) H emid acty lu s 4) C h elon e
2 0 0. Read t he followi ng state m en ts an d choose t he op t ion wh ich represen ts t he m
correct l y as t rue / false.
A. Sna k es shed t heir scales as sk i n cast
B. Ost rich an d v ul t ure are fligh t less brids
C. E yes have eyelids i n a m p h ibians
Select t he correct op t ion
A B C A B C
1) T T F 2) T F T
3) F F T 4) T F F

Pg. 24
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 21.11.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-7 Max.Marks: 720
K EY
Ph ysics
1. 4 2. 3 3. 2 4. 2 5. 3 6. 1 7. 4 8. 3 9. 1 1 0. 2
1 1. 2 1 2. 2 1 3. 2 1 4. 2 1 5. 2 1 6. 3 1 7. 3 1 8. 3 1 9. 3 2 0. 4
2 1. 1 2 2. 2 2 3. 3 2 4. 4 2 5. 2 2 6. 3 2 7. 2 2 8. 1 2 9. 4 3 0. 3
3 1. 2 3 2. 4 3 3. 2 3 4. 1 3 5. 3 3 6. 3 3 7. 4 3 8. 3 3 9. 1 4 0. 4
4 1. 3 4 2. 2 4 3. 4 4 4. 1 4 5. 2 4 6. 4 4 7. 2 4 8. 4 4 9. 1 5 0. 4

C he m ist r y
5 1. 2 5 2. 3 5 3. 3 5 4. 1 5 5. 3 5 6. 3 5 7. 1 5 8. 3 5 9. 3 6 0. 4
6 1. 3 6 2. 1 6 3. 2 6 4. 1 6 5. 4 6 6. 3 6 7. 3 6 8. 2 6 9. 3 7 0. 1
7 1. 1 7 2. 4 7 3. 2 7 4. 3 7 5. 4 7 6. 3 7 7. 4 7 8. 1 7 9. 4 8 0. 3
8 1. 2 8 2. 2 8 3. 3 8 4. 1 8 5. 3 8 6. 4 8 7. 3 8 8. 3 8 9. 2 9 0. 4
9 1. 1 9 2. 1 9 3. 3 9 4. 1 9 5. 2 9 6. 4 9 7. 3 9 8. 2 9 9. 4 1 0 0. 3

Botan y
1 0 1. 2 1 0 2. 2 1 0 3. 2 1 0 4. 4 1 0 5. 4 1 0 6. 2 1 0 7. 1 1 0 8. 2 1 0 9. 4 1 1 0. 4
1 1 1. 3 1 1 2. 1 1 1 3. 3 1 1 4. 2 1 1 5. 4 1 1 6. 2 1 1 7. 2 1 1 8. 1 1 1 9. 4 1 2 0. 4
1 2 1. 1 1 2 2. 3 1 2 3. 1 1 2 4. 3 1 2 5. 4 1 2 6. 4 1 2 7. 4 1 2 8. 4 1 2 9. 1 1 3 0. 2
1 3 1. 3 1 3 2. 1 1 3 3. 2 1 3 4. 2 1 3 5. 4 1 3 6. 4 1 3 7. 4 1 3 8. 3 1 3 9. 2 1 4 0. 3
1 4 1. 2 1 4 2. 2 1 4 3. 2 1 4 4. 4 1 4 5. 4 1 4 6. 2 1 4 7. 3 1 4 8. 3 1 4 9. 2 1 5 0. 4

Zoology
1 5 1. 4 1 5 2. 1 1 5 3. 2 1 5 4. 4 1 5 5. 1 1 5 6. 2 1 5 7. 3 1 5 8. 4 1 5 9. 2 1 6 0. 1
1 6 1. 4 1 6 2. 3 1 6 3. 1 1 6 4. 2 1 6 5. 1 1 6 6. 1 1 6 7. 2 1 6 8. 1 1 6 9. 3 1 7 0. 4
1 7 1. 4 1 7 2. 4 1 7 3. 2 1 7 4. 4 1 7 5. 4 1 7 6. 2 1 7 7. 4 1 7 8. 3 1 7 9. 3 1 8 0. 2
1 8 1. 1 1 8 2. 3 1 8 3. 4 1 8 4. 2 1 8 5. 2 1 8 6. 3 1 8 7. 2 1 8 8. 2 1 8 9. 1 1 9 0. 1
1 9 1. 2 1 9 2. 4 1 9 3. 2 1 9 4. 2 1 9 5. 2 1 9 6. 2 1 9 7. 2 1 9 8. 3 1 9 9. 4 2 0 0. 2

Paper Set ter: H YD-M C O

SNO DIVISION SUBJECT NAME MOBILE NO

1 HYD-MCO PHYSICS Mr. Sridhar 7709922226
2 HYD-MCO CHEMISTRY Mr. Uday 9912346850
3 HYD-MCO BOTANY Smt. Sudharani 9490850599
4 HYD-MCO ZOOLOGY Smt. Nirmala 8885585200
 Ph ysics H i n ts & Solu t ion
1. U  U1  U 2
 n1Cv1T  n2 Cv 2T
5 3
 3  RT  5  R  T
2 2
 15RT
K
2. I n iti a l a ng u l a r freq u e n cy 0 
M
K
F i n a l a ng u l a r freq u e n cy  '  m
M
Now a p plyi ng co n serv a tio n of li n e a r m o m e n t u m
K K
M  A0  A'  ( M  m) 2
M M m
M
A'  A0
M m

3.
r2  00
r1  A  300
h  600
sin 600
 
sin 300
 3
4. H e a t p rod u ced H = f 2 Rt
 160  52  R  10
160 16
R   0.64
250 25
R
5. (A) Let resist a n ce of wire= R, after dividi ng it i n to fo u r p a r ts of a p a r t will be  R'
4

R
  R 160
Req   
4
  10
4 16 16
(B) F or p a r a llel co m bi n a tio n
1 P R
power developed P  1  2
R P2 R1
6. B a l a n ced W h e a tsto n e b ridge
12  6
Reff   2  6
18
12 12
l   2A
Reff 6
7. mv  Ft
mv
F
t
B 
8.  
H AH
2.4 105

0.2 104  16  102
2.4 105

16  2 103
1.2
  102
16
3
  103
4
 0.75 103 Wb/Am
0.75 103
r 
4 107
75
r  10 2
4
 5.9713376
 r  597
 m  r  1
 m  597  1
 m  596
9. B  BR  B2 R
i i
 0  0
4( R) 4(2 R)
i i
 0  0
4R 8R
i
 0 (outward the plane of paper )
8R
1 2 1 2
1 0. mv2  mv1  Fd
2 2
1 2 1
mv2  Fd  mv12
2 2
mv2  2 Fd  mv12
2

2Fd  mv12
v2 
m
1 10
1 1. ( K .E ) bullet    250  250
2 1000
 312.50 J
wor k do n e b y s a n d o n b u llet  20  2
 40J
t h e n e n ergy of b u llet after p a ssi ng t h ro u gh s a n d  312.50  40
 272.50J
1 2. T wo forces a re per pe n dic u l a r to e a c h ot h er t h erefore res u lt a n t of t h e t wo forces is
R  T 2 T 2
T 2

1 3.
1
g  20  mg  30
4
20
m
4  30
1
 kg
6
1 4.

0

I0
mgL / 2 3 g

mL2 / 3 2 L
1 5. PV  nRT
A t co n st a n t p ress u re
V T
A n d b y first l a w of t h er m od y n a m ics
Q  U  W
T
1 6. v
A
V 1 
100   100
V 2 
1
 1
2
0.5%(increase)
1 7. F  qE
W  Fd cos 
12  qEd cos 
1
12  0.4 E  2 
2
E  30 N / C
1 8. Y  2s (1   )
2T cos 
1 9. h
r g
O n ly if  is a c u te, cos  will be +ve w h ic h m e a n s t h a t t h e h eigh t will be positive.
H e n ce liq u id will rise
 mv
R
2 0. qB

F or st r a igh t p a t h qE  qvB
E
v
B
m E B2R
R  mq
qB  B  E
2 1. If i n cide n t ligh t is w h ite ligh t, t h e n ce n t r a l fri nge is w h ite w h ile a ll ot h er fri nges a re
colo u red
2 2. G ive n , v  2 X
dX
W e k n ow t h a t V
dt
dX t
  2 X   2dt
dt 0

1
1
X2
|0X  2t  2( X  0)  2t
 1 
   1
 2 
x  t  X  t2
dX d 2
v  t
dt dt
 v  2t
2 3. O n eq u ipote n ti a l s u rfa ce, t h e v a l u e of gr a vit a tio n a l pote n ti a l re m a i n s co n st a n t
2 4. A  AT
A  4 (0.3)2  3.4  105  (450  300)
 4  9  102  3.4  105  150
 5.7  103 m 2
2 5. Let t h e te m per a t u re of t h e st a r be T. T h e n
dQ
 eA T 4 e  1
dt
Q  (4 R 2 ) T 4
1\ 4
 Q 
T  
 4 R  
2

kq q
2 6. F  12 2 and q1  q2  Q
r
Fmax  (q1  q2 ) max
If a n u m ber is divided i n to t wo p a r ts, t h e n t h eir p rod u ct is m a xi m u m w h e n t h e
t wo p a r ts a re eq u a l.
T h erefore, if q1  q2 then (q1 q2 ) will be m a xi m u m a n d h e n ce force will be m a xi m u m
2 7. C h a rge o n 1 st sp h ere    4 R 2    (i )
C h a rge o n 2 n d sp h ere    4 (3R 2 )    (ii )
W h e n t h ey a re to u c h ed, t h e n t h eir pote n ti a l will beco m e s a m e.
KQ1 KQ2
   3Q1  Q2    (iii )
R 3R
Q1  Q2  40 R 2    (iv)
 Q1  3Q1  40 R 2  Q1  10 R 2
and Q2  3Q1  30 R 2
Q1 10 R 2 5
 1    
4 R12 4 R 2 2
Q2 30 R 2 5
 2    
4 R22 4 (3R)2 2
  d
2 8. F a r a d a y’s l a w of EMI   E .dl   B
dt
 
G a u ss’s l a w i n m agn etis m   B.ds
  q
G a u ss’s l a w i n elect rost a tics   E.ds 
0
M a x well-A m pere’s circ u it a l l a w
   d 
  B.dl  0  I C   0 E 
 dt 
2 9. O u t p u t of N O R ga te, y '  A  B
O u t p u t of N A N D ga te,
y ''   A  B  .  A  B    A  B . A  B 
O u t p u t of N O T ga te,
y '''  A  B
 T h e B oole a n ex p ressio n is for N O R ga te
3 0. T h e c h a nge i n te m per a t u re d u e to h e a ti ng, c h a nges t h e over a ll c u r re n t, h e n ce it
c h a nges over a ll I- V c h a r a cteristics of t h e diode.
3 1.  m1v1  m2 v2
m1 v2
 
m2 v1
1/3
R v   4 3
 1  2   m    R 
R2  v1   3 
1/3
R 1
 1  
R2  2 
 
3 2.  b  cot  
2
As b  0    1800
dv  LT 
1

3 3. V elocity gr a die n t,    T 1 

dX L
T h e di m e n sio n a l for m u l a of freq u e n cy is T 1 
measurement 5cm
3 4. Le a st co u n t = 
No.of divisions 20
= 0.2 5

3 5.
Req  14.5
 29
C u r re n t fro m b a t ter y l   2A
14.5
 C u r re n t i n 6 resistor l '  1A
D
3 6. F ri nge wid t h  
d
G ive n , d = 0.4 m m = 0.0 4 c m , D = 2 0 0 c m
  2 mm  0.2 cm
200  
 0.2     400 nm
0.04
3
3 7.  A/ B  rad / s
2

  2 
3
5
 
3
T h e n ti m e
5
 10
  3  s
 A/ B 3 9
2
 mg
3 8. Fmin 
1 2
3
 2 10
Fmin  4  12 N
2
 
3
1  
4
V 2 40  40
3 9. R   80
P 20
40
i 0.5 A
80
V 220
irms  0.5 A  rms 
Z Z
Z  440
R 2  X c2  440

6400  X c2  440
X c2  (440) 2  6400
X c2  187200
X c  187200
X c  432.67
q1  q q2  q
4 0. 
4 0 r1 4 0 r2
1102  q 5 10 2  q

1 3
3  10  3q  5  102  q
2

4q  8  102
 q  2  102 C
q 1  q  1 102 C

4 1.
 MR 2 
l   MR 2   2
 4 
5MR 2

2
5v V
4 2. 
4 L1 L
5L
L1 
4
R
4 3. C  Cv 
1 n
5R
C R
2
3R

2
2 S cos  2  0.5  cos(140)
4 4. h 
r g 2  103  13.6  103  10
2  0.5  cos(1800  400 )

2 13.6  10
 2.8 mm
Magnetic moment Q Q
4 5.   l  
Angular momentum 2 M 2M
Q ML2
 
2M 3
 fQL2

3
4 6. D iffr a ctio n effect c a n be observed i n bot h so u n d a s well a s ligh t w a ves
4 7. ( K .E ) max  6  4
 2 eV
GM
4 8. g  2     (i )
R
GM 9
g'   g    (ii)
(h  R) 100
2

9 GM GM

100 R 2
( R  h)2
9( R  h) 2  100 R 2
7R
3( R  h)  10 R  h 
3
4 9. Y  A  B  OR gate
Y  A  B  A.B  NAND gate
 Y  A  B  A.B  A.B  AND gate
Y  A  B  NOR gate
5 0. T h e v a l u e of n o n -di m e n sio n a l co n st a n t is deter m i n ed ex peri m e n t a lly a n d n ot b y
m et h od of di m e n sio n

C H E MIST RY H INTS & SO LUT IONS

5 1.
Lowest loc a n t r u le is a p plied. I U PA C n o m e n cl a t u re will be
1- B rl m o-4- m et h yl-2- n it robe n ze n e

5 2.
i) C o m po u n ds B a n d D co n t a i n o n e c h ir a l ce n t re (*) e a c h , h e n ce e a c h will exists a s
a p a ir of e n a n tio m ers.
ii) Tot a l n u m ber of co m po u n ds for m ed = 6
5 3. H igh er is t h e v a l u e of (n + 1) , h igh er is t h e e n ergy of or bit a l. F ro s a m e v a l u e of
(n + 1), h igh er is t h e v a l u e of n , h igh er is t h e e n ergy of or bit a l
C or rect or der of e n ergy of or bit a ls for m u lti elect ro n species is 5 d > 4f> 5 p > 4 d > 5s
5 4. F reo n 1 2 (CCl2 F2 ) is o n e of t h e m ost co m m o n freo n s i n i n d u st ri a l u se. It is
m a n u fa ct u red fro m tet r a -c h loro m et h a n e b y sw a r ts re a ctio n .
5 5.

5 6.

A l k a n e does n ot re a ct wit h Br2  water

5 7. Proli n e co n t a i n s h eterocyclic ri ng
COOH

H
HN

NH 3
|
 CH 3  CH  CH 2  CH
|
CH 3
Isoleucine

5 8.

5 9.

6 0. Teriti a r y a m i n e does n ot re a ct wit h H i n sberg’s re age n t[ PhSO4Cl ]

6 1. Pa r ti a l do u ble c h a r a cter i n iii
OH

C COOH

CH 3
6 2.
6 3. V elocity of X -r a ys a n d U . V r a ys is s a m e
6 4. E n t rop y c h a nge is positive i n isot h er m a l free ex p a n sio n w h ile U , H a n d W a re
zero
6 5. F or t h e eq u ilib ri u m
CO( g )  H 2O( g )  CO2( g )  H 2 ( g )
ng  (1  1)  (1  1)  0
 ng
 K p  K c ( RT )  K c ( RT ) 0  K c
6 6.

6 7. F or a n e n dot h er m ic re a ctio n E a is a lw a ys m ore t h a n h e a t of re a ctio n

6 8. Tb  iKb .m
1  1 0.5  m
1
m  2 molal
0.5
 2 mole sucrose is in 1000 g H 2O
 500 water requires  1 mol
6 9. Si n ce solids a n d liq u ids a re h igh ly i n co m p ressible t h erefore effect of p ress u re o n
sol u bility of solid i n liq u id is n ot sign ific a n t
7 0. K decre a ses o n dil u tio n a s co n ce n t r a tio n of io n s decre a se
 m i n cre a ses o n dil u tio n for st ro ng elect rolyte d u e to i n cre a se i n io n ic m obilities
 m i n cre a ses o n dil u tio n for we a k elect rolyte d u e to i n cre a se i n degree of
dissoci a tio n
7 1. F or zero or der re a ctio n t1/2  [ A0 ]
1
7 2. KH
solubility
7 3. Mg a n d A l
7 4. M obility of H + io n s is m ore t h a n t h a t of N a + io n s
7 5. C o n cep t u a l
7 6. I n ter p a ir effect
7 7. M et a llic c h a r a cter decre a ses a lo ng t h e period
7 8. E lect ro n ega tivity of C  Si  Ge  Sn  Pb
7 9. Li C l cr yst a llises a s LiCl.2H 2O w h ere a s ot h er a l k a li m et a l c h lorides do n ot for m
h y d r a tes
8 0. T h e species wit h zero bo n d or der does n ot exist
N  NA
B.O  B
2
10  10
B.O ( Ne2 )  0
2
2 1
B.O ( He2 )   0.5
2
10  7
B.O (O2 )   1.5
2
84
B.O (C2 )  2
2
8 1. Io n s h a vi ng a0 or d 0 co n fig u r a tio n m a y be colo u rless

8 2. I n NH 4 , t h ere is n o lo n e p a ir of elect ro n to do n a te
8 3.
8 4. Te h a s s a m e n u m ber of elect ro n s bot h i n pe n u lti m a te a n d a n tipe n u lti m a te s h ells
8 5. dipole-i n d u ced dipole i n ter a ctio n s

8 6.
B is a k eto n e so it does n ot re a ct wit h m ild oxidisi ng age n t li k e Tolle n s re age n t
8 7. NaBH 4 selectively red u ces k eto gro u p b u t does n ot red u ce ester gro u p
8 8. E lect ro m eric effect is a te m por a r y effect
8 9. H igh er t h e m ol a r m a ss, h igh er is t h e boili ng poi n t
F or iso m eric a l k a n es, lesser is t h e b r a n c h i ng m ore is t h e s u rfa ce a re a h e n ce m ore
will be t h e s u rfa ce a re a h e n ce m ore will t h e v a n der W a a ls’ force of a t t r a ctio n s a n d
h igh er will be t h e boili ng poi n t
9 0. 1) H off m a n n b ro m a m ide d egr a d a tio n re a ctio n
O
||
CH 3  CH 2  C  NH 2 
Br2
Naoh
 CH 3  CH 2  NH 2
2) C a r b yl a m i n e re a ctio n
CH 3  CH 2  NH 2  CHCl3 / KOH

 CH 3CH 2 NC
3) H V Z re a ctio n
CH 3CH 2COOH 
( i ) Br2 /Re d P
( ii ) H 2O
 CH 3  CH  COOH
|
Br

4) C le m m e n se n red u ctio n
Zn  Hg
CH 3  CH 2  C  CH 3  HCl
 CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  CH 3
||
O

9 1. E q u iv a le n t weigh t of m et a l c a r bo n a te is 1 2 + 3 0 = 4 2
9 2. B y a d di ng eq(1) a n d eq(2)
C( s )  O2( g )  CO2( g ); rH 0  393.5 KJ mol -------(1)
1
CO2( g )  CO( g )  O2( g ) ; rH 0  283 KJ mol 1 --------(2)
2
1
C( s )  O2( g )  CO( g ) ; rH 0  110.5 KJ mol 1
2
9 3. pK a   log K a   log 10 8  8
for co n j u ga te a cid b a se p a ir
pK a  14  pK a  14  8  6
9 4. MnO4 c a n a ct a s a self-i n dic a tor bec a u se it is a powerf u l oxidisi ng age n t a n d c a n be
u sed to detect e n d poi n t of tit r a tio n
9 5. M erc u r y cell co n sists of zi n c- m erc u r y a m a lga m a s a n ode a n d a p a ste of H g O a n d
c a r bo n a s t h e c a t h ode
Pa ste of K O H a n d Z n O is u sed a s elect rolyte
K 2 Ea  1 1 
9 6. In    
K1 R  T1 T2 
(or )
K2 Ea  T2  T1 
log   
K1 2.303R  T1T2 
9 7. C o n cep t u a l
9 8. As t h e a to m ic size i n cre a se dow n t h e gro u p, t h eir io n iz a tio n e n t h a lp y decre a se
9 9. H 2O has higher dipole moment than H 2 S
1 0 0. As n u m ber of c a r bo n s i n cre a ses boili ng poi n t i n cre a ses a n d a m o ng iso m eric
a l k a n es a s b r a n c h i ng i n cre a ses boili ng poi n t decre a ses.
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 23.11.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-8 Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
In ever y s u bject:
( a ) In Section – A , 3 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. A n s w er all 3 5 qu estion s from section – A
( b ) In Section – B , 1 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. O ut of w hich A n s w er 1 0 qu estion s onl y .
(c) E ach qu estion c a rries 4 m a r k s. F or e ach correct respon se w ill get 4 m a r k s. F or e ach
incorrect respon se, one m a r k w ill be d e d ucte d from th e tot al scores.
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. Identify the correct statements from the following:
A) Work done by a man in lifting a bucket out of a well by means of a rope tied to the bucket is
negative.
B) Work done by a gravitational force in lifting a bucket out of a well by a rope tied to the bucket is
negative.
C) Work done by friction on a body sliding down on an inclined plane is positive.
D) Work done by an applied force on a body moving on a rough horizontal plane with uniform
velocity in zero.
E) Work done by the air resistance on an oscillating pendulum in negative.
1) B and E only 2) A and C only 3) B, D and E only 4) B and D only
2. A car is moving on a horizontal curved road with radius 50 m. The approximate maximum speed of
car will be, if friction between tyres and road is 0.34 [take g = 10 m/s2]
1) 3.4 ms1 2) 22.4 ms1 3) 13 ms1 4) 17 ms1
3. The time taken by an object to slide down 450 rough inclined plane is n times as it takes to slide
down a perfectly smooth 450 incline plane. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the object and
the incline plane
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 1  3) 1  4) 1 
1  n2 n2 n2 n2
The nth division of main scale coincides with  n  1 division of vernier scale. Given one main
th
4.
scale division is equal to ‘a’ unit. The least count of vernier callipers is
n a a
1) 2) 3) an 4)
a 1 n 1 n
5. Surface tension of a soap bubble is 2.0 × 102 N/m. Work done to increase the radius of soap bubble
from 3.5 cm to 7 cm will be [Take  = 22/7]
1) 0.72 × 104 J 2) 5.76 × 104 J 3) 18.48 × 104 J 4) 9.24 × 104 J
6. In a resonance apparatus, the first and second resonating length of air column are 15cm and 48cm
respectively. The end correction for this apparatus is
1) 6 cm 2) 3 cm 3) 1.5 cm 4) 2 cm
0
7. A stone is projected at angle 30 to the horizontal the ratio of kinetic energy of the stone at point of
projection to its kinetic energy at the highest point of flight will be
1) 1 : 2 2) 1 : 4 3) 4 : 1 4) 4 : 3
Pg. 1
8. A faulty thermometer reads 50C in melting ice and 950C in steam. The correct temperature on
absolute scale will be ______, when the faulty thermometer reads 410C.
1) 313 K 2) 3130 C 3) 2730 C 4) 273 K
9. Find out the ratio of average translational kinetic energy of H2 and Argon at temperature 300C.
1) 1 : 4 2) 1 : 1 3) 3 : 5 4) 5 : 3
10. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Acceleration due to earth’s gravity decreases as you go up or down from earth’s
surface.
Statement II: Acceleration due to earth’s gravity is same at a height h and depth d from earth’s
surface, if h = d
In the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
1) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
2) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
4) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
11. Choose the correct length (L) versus square of time period (T2) graph for a simple pendulum
executing simple harmonic motion.

1) 2)

3) 4)
12. A satellite of mass ‘m’ is revolving around the planet.
E
Statement I: Total energy of satellite is E and its potential energy is .
2
Statement II: Total energy of satellite is E and its kinetic energy is 2E.
1) Statement I & II both are correct 2) Statement I & II both are wrong
3) Statement I is right statement II is wrong 4) Statement I is wrong statement II is right.
13. If momentum of particle increases by 50%. Then percentage increase in kinetic energy is
1) 75% 2) 50% 3) 125% 4) 100%
3
14. A bubble of volume 1 cm is at 40 m depth, when it reaches to the surface find its new volume?
(Assume process to be isothermal)
1) 5 cm3 2) 6 cm3 3) 7 cm3 4) 8 cm3
15. While measuring surface tension of water using capillary rise method the necessary precaution to be
taken is/are
1) capillary tube should be clean while water should have some grease
2) both capillary tube and water should be clean
3) no need to take care of temperature of water
4) none of these
Pg. 2
16. Travelling microscope is used for
1) determination of focal length of convex mirror
2) determination of focal length of convex lens
3) determination of refractive index of a prism
4) determination of refractive index of glass slab
17. A block moving with speed 1 m/s comes to rest after moving for 20 cm over a rough surface. The
coefficient of friction between the block and surface is  g  10m / s 2 
1) 0.5 2) 0.6 3) 0.25 4) 0.4
18. The frequency of a tuning fork is 300 Hz. The distance travelled by the sound, produced in air is 20
cm by the time particle in the medium completes one vibration. The speed of sound in air will be
1) 67 m/s 2) 60 m/s 3) 40 m/s 4) 30 m/s
19. The first Bohr radius of a hydrogen atom is
1) 2.5 × 1013 m 2) 1.0 × 1012 m 3) 7.0 × 1012 m 4) 0.53 × 1010 m
20. Sound waves doesn’t exhibits
1) Scattering 2) Interference 3) Diffraction 4) Polarisation
21. The angle between the dipole moment and electric field at any point on the equatorial plane is
1) 00 2) 450 3) 1800 4) 900
22. A transformer of efficiency 90% draws an input power of 4 kW. If the current in secondary coil is
6 A, voltage across the secondary coil is
1) 600 V 2) 200 V 3) 666.67 V 4) 732 V
23. Frequency of input signal in a half wave rectifier (HWR) is f. The ripple frequency of output of
HWR will be
1) f 2) 2f 3) f/2 4) 3f
24. A particle is dropped from a height H/4. The de-Broglie wavelength of the particle as a function of
height is proportional to
1 1 3 3
 
1) H 2
2) H 2
3) H 2
4) H 2

25. A ray of light is incident at an angle of 60 on one face of a prism of refracting angle 300. The
0

emergent ray of light makes an angle of 300 with incident ray. The emergent ray is
1) Normal to the face through which it emerges
2) Inclined at 300 to the face through which it emerges
3) Inclined at 600 to the face through which it emerges
4) Inclined at 450 to the face through which it emerges
26. Choose the correct relation between electric current  i  and drift speed  Vd  of electrons moving in
a conductor of length ‘l’ and area of cross section ‘A’.
(Note: n is the number density of free electrons)
neA nAVd iA i
1) i  2) i  3) Vd  4) Vd 
Vd e ne neA
27. The resultant magnetic moment vector in the diagram below will have angle from x-axis, if each
magnet has equal magnetic moment

1) 300 2) 450 3) 600 4) 400

Pg. 3
28. If the variation of magnetic flux through a closed loop is given by    3t 2  t  Wb, then induced emf
at t = 1 s is
1) 5 V 2) 2 V 3) 4 V 4) 1 V
29. A galvanometer of resistance 100  gives a full-scale deflection of a current of 105 A. To convert it
into an ammeter capable of measuring up to 1 A, we should connect a resistance of
1) 1  in parallel 2) 103  in a parallel 3) 105  in series 4) 100  in series
30. Value of inductance L for which the current is maximum in a series LCR circuit with C = 20 F and
 = 100 rad/s, is (All symbols have their usual meaning)
1) 5 H 2) 5 mH
3) 2 mH 4) Cannot be calculated as R is unknown
31. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery of potential ‘V’. After sometime, the battery is
disconnected and space between the plates is completely filled with dielectric having dielectric
constant K. The energy stored in it becomes
1) K2 times 2) K times 3) 1/K times 4) Remains same
32. The speed of electromagnetic wave in vacuum
1) Increase as we move from UV rays to microwaves
2) Decrease as we move from UV rays to microwaves
3) Is same for all rays
4) Is maximum for visible rays
33. A wave of wavelength 2 m is superposed on its reflected wave to form a stationary wave. A node is
located at x = 3 m. The next node will be located at x =
1) 3.25 m 2) 3.50 m 3) 3.75 m 4) 4 m
34. When the energy of the incident radiation is increased by 20%, the kinetic energy of the
photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface is increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work function
of the metal is
1) 0.65 eV 2) 1.0 eV 3) 1.3 eV 4) 1.5 eV
35. A particle with charge q mass m is projected with kinetic energy k into the region of a uniform
magnetic field B between two plates as shown below. If the particle just misses collision with the
opposite plate, then value of B is

2k 2kd 2km 2kq

1) 2) 3) 4)
qmd qm qd md
SECTION- B
36. Match column I with column II and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
I. Torque a. M 0 LT 2
II. Stress b. ML1T 1
III. Coefficient of viscosity c. ML1T 2
IV. Gravitational potential gradient d. ML2T 2
1) I  a, II  c, III  b, IV  d 2) I  d, II  b, III  c, IV  a
3) I  d, II  c, III  b, IV  a 4) I  a, II  c, III  d, IV  b
Pg. 4
37. A ball of mass ‘m’ moving with velocity ‘v’ collides and sticks to the body of mass ‘2m’, initially at
rest. The final velocity of combined mass is
1) v/3 2) v/4 3) v/8 4) v/10
38. If the weight on the surface of a planet of mass M, radius R is 200 N. Weight at depth R/2 from
surface of planet is
1) 200 N 2) 300 N 3) 100 N 4) 400 N
0
39. If a projectile is thrown with speed u at an angle 15 , the range obtained is 50 m. The range obtained
if the same particle is thrown at an angle of 450 with same speed u is
1) 50 m 2) 100 m 3) 200 m 4) 150 m
40. x(t) = t2  2t, speed of the particle at t = 2 sec is
1) 1 m/s 2) 2 m/s 3) 4 m/s 4) 6 m/s
41. A particle experiences a force F = 5x N, work done when particle moves from x = 2 m to x = 4 m is
1) 30 J 2) 10 J 3) 20 J 4) 50 J
42. An air bubble of radius R with surface tension T is placed in water at depth ‘h’. Find P2 – P1.
Given, P1 = Atmospheric pressure; P2 = Pressure inside the bubble
2T 4T 4T
1)  gh  2)  gh  3)  gh 4)
R R R
43. Work done by gas?
P(Pa)

400

100

V(m3)
2 4
1) 100 J 2) 200 J 3) 300 J 4) 350 J
44. If 4 A current flows across a cell of emf 2 V and internal resistance 2  (as shown) then terminal
potential difference across the cell will be

1) 10 V 2) 6 V 3) 8 V 4) 12 V
45. The focal length of a bi-convex lens is 80 cm in a medium. Radii of curvature of both surface of lens
are 40 cm and 20 cm respectively and refractive index of material of lens is  = 1.5. Refractive index
of medium in which lens is placed, is
1) 4/3 2) 6/5 3) 3/2 4) 9/7
46. The characteristics equation of logic circuit shown in the figure is

1) Y  A.B  A.B 2) Y  A.B  A  B 3) Y  A.B  A  B 4) Both (1) and (2)

Pg. 5
47. Calorimeter usually is made of copper because
1) it is cheaper and easily available 2) it does not get rusted
3) its emissive power is more 4) its thermal conductivity is high
48. An electric field is expressed as E  2iˆ  3 ˆj. The potential difference (VB  VA) between two points
A (1, 2, 0) and B (2, 1, 3).
1) 1 V 2) 1 V 3) 2 V 4) 4 V
49. The variation of magnetic flux density B at a distance r from the axis a long straight cylindrical wire
carrying a steady current can be represented as (R is the radius of wire)

1) 2) 3) 4)
 5 
50. When a voltage Vs  100 2 sin  t  V applied to an ac circuit, the current in the circuit is found
 12 
 
to be i  sin  t   A , then average power consumed is
 4
100
1) 100 6 W 2) 25 6 W 3) 25 2 W 4) W
2
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. In the reaction

Product [X] Will be

1) 2) 3) 4)


52. RCOOH  NH3 
 A   B i ) Br2
ii ) NaOH
C
If ‘R’ is benzyl group then ‘C’ would be
1) Aniline 2) Benzylamine
3) N-methyl benzyl amine 4) N-methyl Aniline
53. Of the following 0.10m aqueous solution, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point
depression
1) KCl 2) C6 H12 O6 3) Al2  SO4 3 4) CuSO4
54. When 0.1 mol MnO42 is oxidised the quantity of electricity required to completely oxidise MnO42 to
MnO4 is
1) 36500 C 2) 2  96500C 3) 9650C 4) 96.50C

Pg. 6
55. Statement (S): Ice melts earlier if NaCl is poured on it.
Explanation (E): The freezing point of water is lowered on addition of NaCl
1) S is correct but E is wrong
2) S is wrong but E is correct
3) Both S and E are correct and E is correct explanation S
4) Both S and E are correct but E is not correct explanation S
56. For the reversible reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g) + heat. The equilibrium shifts in forward
direction
1) By increasing the concentration of NH3(g)
2) By decreasing the pressure
3) By decreasing the concentration of N2(g) and H2(g)
4) By increasing pressure and decreasing temperature
57. For the reaction X2O4(l)  2XO2(g) U = 2.1 k cal, S =20 cal K – 1 at300K Hence, G is
1) 2.7 k cal 2) – 2.7 k cal 3) 9.3 k cal 4) – 9.3 k cal
58. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and
how much (At. Wt. Mg = 24; O = 16)
1) Mg, 0.16 g 2) O2, 0.16g 3) Mg, 0.44 g 4) O2. 0.28 g
59. Which of the following molecules has the maximum dipole moment
1) CO2 2) CH4 3) NH3 4) NF3
60. Oxidation state of Chlorine is maximum in
1) CaOCl2 2) NaClO3 3) KClO4 4) PCl5
61. Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following ions
(At. Nos. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Ni = 28)
1) Ti3+ 2) Ni2+ 3) Cr3+ 4) Mn2+
62. Which of the following complexes is used to be as an anticancer agent
1) mer-[Co(NH3)3Cl3] 2) cis-[PtCl2(NH3)2] 3) cis-K2[PtCl2Br2] 4) Na2CoCl4
63. Which of the following will be most stable diazonium salt RN 2 X 
1) CH 3 N 2 X  2) C6 H 5 N 2 X  3) CH 3CH 2 N 2 X  4) C6 H 5CH 2 N 2 X 
64. The ratio of energies of first orbits of H, He+, Li+2, Be+3 is
1 1 1 1 1 1
1) 1:2:3:4 2) 1:4:9:16 3) 1: : : 4) 1: : :
4 9 16 2 3 9
65. Longest period and longest group in the modern periodic table respectively are
1) 6th, IA 2) 6th, zero 3) 6th, IIIB 4) 5th, IVB
66. In the Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from
0.75g of sample, neutralized 10 mL of 1 M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is
1) 37.33 2) 45.33 3) 35.33 4) 43.33
67. H.V. Z reaction is not given by
1) CH COOH
3 2) HCOOH 3) C H COOH
6 5 4) Both (2) and (3)
68. Identify Z in the sequence of reactions:
CH 3CH 2 CH  CH 2 HBr / H 2O2
 Y 
C2 H 5ONa
Z
1) CH 3   CH 2 3  O  CH 2CH 3 2)  CH 3 2 CH 2  O  CH 2CH 3
3) CH 3  CH 2  4  O  CH 3 4) CH 3CH 2  CH  CH 3   O  CH 2CH 3
69. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electrons of rubidium atom(Z=37) is
1 1 1 1
1) 5, 0, 0,  2) 5,1, 0,  3) 5,1,1,  4) 5, 0,1, 
2 2 2 2
Pg. 7
70. The most acidic oxide of 2nd period element is
1) N2O5 2) CO2 3) F2O 4) B2O3
71. The metal that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of an aqueous solution of its salts is
1) Ag 2) Ca 3) Cu 4) Au
72. Which of the following properties is not shown by NO?
1) It is diamagnetic in gaseous state
2) It is a neutral oxide
3) It combines with oxygen to form nitrogen dioxide
4) Its bond order is 2.5
73. The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen of a particular gaseous mixture is 1:4. The ratio of
number of their molecules is:
1) 1:4 2) 7:32 3) 1:8 4) 3:16
2
74. In SN reactions the correct order of reactivity for the following compounds CH3Cl, CH3CH2Cl,
 CH 3 2 CHCl and  CH 3 3 CCl is :
1) CH 3Cl   CH 3 2 CHCl  CH 3CH 2Cl   CH 3 3 CCl
2) CH 3Cl  CH 3CH 2Cl   CH 3  2 CHCl   CH 3 3 CCl
3) CH 3CH 2Cl  CH 3Cl   CH 3  2 CHCl   CH 3 3 CCl
4)  CH 3  2 CHCl  CH 3CH 2Cl  CH 3Cl   CH 3 3 CCl
75. For which of the following molecules significant   0 ?

1) Only I 2) I and II 3) Only III 4) III and IV

76. Assertion (A): Empirical formula of Benzene and acetylene is CH
Reason (R): If percentage composition is same, then empirical formula is same
1) Both A and R are correct, and R is correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct, and R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
77. In the reaction, CH 3COOH  LiAlH 4
 A 
PCl5
 B 
Alk . KOH
 C The product C is :
1) Acetaldehyde 2) Acetylene 3) Ethylene 4) Acetyl chloride
78. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the codes given below:

Code List I Code List II

A XeF4 1 Distorted octahedral
B XeF6 2 Tetrahedral
C XeO3 3 Square planar
D XeO4 4 Trigonal pyramidal
1) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 2) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
3) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 4) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Pg. 8
79. For the elementary reaction M  N , the rate of disappearance of M increases by a factor of 8 upon
doubling the concentrations of M. The order of the reaction with respect to M is:
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
80. The product formed in the reaction of SOCl2 with white phosphorous is:
1) PCl3 2) SO2Cl2 3) SCl2 4) POCl3
81. The electronic configuration of Gadolinium (At.no. = 64) is
1) [Xe] 4f85d96s2 2) [Xe] 4f75d16s2 3) [Xe]4f35d56s2 4) [Xe]4f6 5d26s2
82. The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compound is:

1) III<I<II 2) III<II<I 3) I<II<III 4) II<I<III

83. The compound not acting as reducing agent is:
1) SO2 2) SeO2 3) TeO2 4) All the above
84. The correct order of acid strength:
1) Cl2O7  SO2  P4 O10 2) CO2  N 2O5  SO3
3) Na2O  MgO  Al2 O3 4) K 2O  CaO  MgO
85. Which one of the following compounds is expected to be colored?
1) AgCl 2) CuF2 3) MgCl2 4) CuCl
SECTION – B
86. Zr (Z=40) and Hf (Z=72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of:
1) Both belong to same group 2) Diagonal relationship
3) Lanthanide contraction 4) Having similar chemical properties
87. In a square planar complex of the type [Mabcx], the number of geometrical isomers can be:
1) No geometrical isomer 2) Three
3) Two 4) Four
88. 2  CH 3 3 CCHO   CH 3 3 CCH 2OH   CH 3 3 C  COONa
50%NaOH

The above chemical reaction represents.

1) Rosenmund’s reaction 2) Cannizzaro’s reaction
3) Kolbe’s reaction 4) Etard’s reaction
89. Holme’s signal uses chemical compound:
1) Calcium carbide 2) Calcium phosphate
3) Calcium carbide and Calcium phosphide 4) Calcium carbide and Aluminium carbide
90. Ultimate product obtained on heating B2H6 with NH3 is:
1) B3 N 3 H 6 2)  B  N 3 3) N 2 H 4 4) BH 4
91. IUPAC name of tertiary amyl alcohol is
1) 2-methyl-2-butanol 2) 3-methyl-2-butanol
3) 2-methyl-3-butanol 4) 1-methyl-2-butanol
92. Match the following:
List-I List-II
3
A) sp3 I) Co  NH 3 6 
B) dsp3 II)  Ni  CO 4 
C) sp3d2 III)  Pt  NH 3 2 Cl2 
IV)  CoF6 
3
D) d2sp3
V)  Fe  CO 5 
Pg. 9
 The correct answer is:
A B C D A B C D
1) III II IV I 2) V II IV III
3) II V IV I 4) II III I V
93. The structure of XeOF4 is
1) Trigonal bipyramidal 2) Square planar
3) Square pyramidal 4) Pyramidal
94. The number of angular and radial nodes of 4d-orbital respectively are
1) 3,1 2) 1,2 3) 3,0 4) 2,1
95. The oxide of a metal contains 40% of oxygen. The valency of metal is 2. What is the atomic weight
of the metal?
1) 24 2) 12 3) 40 4) 36
96. Which is more acidic in nature?
1) C2 H 4 2) C2 H 6 3) C6 H 6 4) C2 H 2
97. Which of the following gives blue colour in Borax bead test
1) Co+2 2) Fe+2 3) Mn+2 4) Al+3
98. Standard oxidation potential of H2-electrode at pH=4
1) -0.236 V 2) +0.236 V 3) -0.015 V 4) +0.015 V
 Ea / RT
99. According to Arrhenius equation rate constant k is equal to Ae , which of the following options
1
represents the graph ln k vs ?
T

1) 2)

3) 4)
100. How many primary amines are possible for the formula C4H11N (Structural only)
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. Amino acids are added one by one and translated into polypeptide sequences. This reaction is
dictated by
1) mRNA 2) tRNA 3) DNA 4) Ribosomes
102. Statement (S-I): Taxonomic groups /categories are distinct biological entitles and not mere
morphological aggregates
Statement (S-II): A taxonomic group insecta has distinct morphological characters (jointed legs,
segmented body) and at the same time include flies, beetles and mosquitoes
1) S-I and S-II are correct 2) S-I is correct and S-II is incorrect
3) S-I is incorrect and S-II is correct 4) S-I and S-II are incorrect

Pg. 10
103. Cells that stay in Go phase permanently and fail to proliferate are
1) skin cells 2) gut cells 3) heart cells 4) liver cells
104. Identify the mis-match with respect to physiological effects of phytohormones
1) Xylem differentiation – Auxin
2) Adventitious shoot growth – Gibberellins
3) Bolting in cabbage – Gibberellins
4) Sprouting of potato tuber – Ethylene
105. Zea mays (maize/corn) is associated with the following characters given below. Choose the option
with correct set of characters:
A) Stilt roots B) Parallel venation
C) Anemophily D) Monoecious condition
E) Endospermic seeds F) Single cotyledon 'scutellum'
1) A, B, C, D, E, F 2) A, C, E only
3) C, D, E, F only 4) B, C, F only
106. Read the following statements and choose the correct statement regarding DNA:
1) Two nucleotides of opposite strands are linked by phosphodiester bonds
2) The pitch of the DNA is 360
3) The distance between the successive base pairs would be 3.4nm
4) B - DNA consist of ten base pairs in each turn of helix
107. Assertion (A): Plasmids and bacteriophages could replicate within the bacterial cells independent of
the control of chromosomal DNA
Reason(R): Plasmid DNA and DNA of bacteriophage consists autonomous replication sequence.
1) A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2) A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true, R is false
4) Both A and R are false
108. Match the following:
List – I List - II
A. Biopiracy I. For screening transformed cells
B. Bio patenting II. Gene silencing
C. Reporter gene III. Illegal use of bioresources without proper authorization
D. RNAi IV. Right granted for discovery or use of biological entities
The correct match is:
1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III 2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II 4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
109. Identify the fungus that does not have sex organs but shows sexual reproduction
1) Rhizopus 2) Mucor 3) Penicillium 4) Agaricus
110. Which of the following is an example of lateral meristem not formed by dedifferentiation
1) Interfascicular cambium 2) Intrafascicular cambium
3) Cork cambium 4) Vascular cambium of dicot root
111. Centrioles undergo duplication during _A_ of _B_ and begin to move towards opposite poles of
the cell during _C_
A B C A B C
1) S phase Interphase Prophase 2) S phase Interphase Anaphase
3) Prophase Mitosis Metaphase 4) Prophase Mitosis Anaphase
112. Proteins enter respiratory pathway at
1) Pyruvic acid 2) Acetyl CoA 3) TCA cycle 4) 1 or 2 or 3

Pg. 11
113. In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over
shortness (t). If a plant with RRTt genotype is crossed with a plant that is rrtt,
1) 25% will be tall with red fruit 2) 50% will be tall with red fruit
3) 75% will be tall with red fruit 4) All the offsprings will be tall with red fruit
114. Find the wrongly matched pair?
1) Process of splicing – Dominance of RNA world
2) Split gene arrangement – Ancient feature of the genome
3) Presence of exons – Reminiscent of antiquity
4) Lac operon – Shows negative and positive regulation
115. Read the following statements and choose those in which fungi has a role in human welfare
a) Penicillin b) Statins c) Citric acid d) Cyclosporin-A
f) Bread e) Curd
1) All the above except a 2) All the above except d
3) All the above except e 4) All the above except b
116. Match the following:
Column – I Column–II
(Example) (Placentation)
(a) Dianthus (i) Basal
(b) Marigold (ii) Free central
(c) Argemone (iii) Axile
(d) Lemon (iv) Parietal
(e) Pea
The correct match is:
1) i – d, ii – b, iii – a, iv – c 2) i – a, ii – d, iii – c, iv – b
3) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c 4) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b
117. Read the following statements:
A) Leaves - Alternate phyllotaxy B) Sepals 4, free, 2+2
C) Petals 4, free, cruciform corolla D) Stamens: 6, (4 tall and 2 short)
E) Carpels: 2, parietal placentation F) Fruit: Dry fruit siliqua
G) Seed: Non endospermic
The above characters are related to
1) China rose 2) Pea 3) Mustard 4) Lily
118. Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed in
1) Dicot stem and monocot stem 2) Dicot root and monocot root
3) Monocot stem and leaves 4) Monocot root and leaves
119. DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated
by
1) centrifugation 2) polymerase chain reaction
3) electrophoresis 4) restriction mapping
120. Sutton and Boveri used to explain Mendel's law’s and used
1) Chromosome structure 2) Chromosome shape
3) Chromosome movement in meiosis 4) Allelic position
121. Commercially used natural hydro colloid substance is produced by
1) Spirullina 2) Gracilaria 3) Chlorella 4) Chara
122. The daughter cell which has withdrawn from cell cycle after a division shows the following events in
its development at cellular level
A. Plasmatic growth B. Cell expansion
C. Cell differentiation D. Cell maturation
1) A and B only 2) C and D only
3) A, B and D only 4) A, B, C and D
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123. Identify the statements as true(T) or false(F)
I. Lac Z gene codes for  -galactosidase enzyme which is a selectable marker in a plasmid.
II. pBR322 contains two antibiotic resistant genes as selectable marker.
III. Biolistic or gene gun method is suitable for vector less gene transfer in animals
IV. Lysozyme enzyme is used for isolating gene of interest from fungal cell.
1) I – T, II – T, III – F, IV – F 2) I – F, II – F, III – T, IV - T
3) I – T, II – T, III – T, IV – F 4) I – F, II – T, III – T, IV – F
124. Statement-I (S-I): Photorespiration does not occur in C4 plants
Statement-II (S-II): In C4 plants there is a mechanism that increases the O2 at the enzyme site
1) Both S-I and S-II are correct 2) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
3) S-I is correct but S-II is incorrect 4) S-I is incorrect but S-II is correct
125. Read the following statements and select the option with all correct statements:
A) In liver worts and mosses, the gametophytes are free living
B) Both Cycas and Marchantia are dioecious plants
C) In all seed bearing plants endosperm is post fertilization product
D) Sexual reproduction in Fucus and Volvox is Oogamous
1) A, C and D 2) A, B and D 3) B and D 4) C and D
126. Match the following:
List – I List – II
a) Pyrenoid 1) Golgi apparatus
b) Hub 2) Chloroplast
c) Hydrolytic enzymes 3) Centriole
d) Cisternae with cis and trans faces 4) Lysosome
The correct match is:
1) a – 2, b – 3, c – 4, d – 1 2) a – 2, b – 1, c – 4, d – 3
3) a – 3, b – 2, c – 1, d – 4 4) a – 4, b – 3, c – 1, d – 2
127. Which of the following trait is expressed in only homozygous condition?
a) Yellow seed (cotyledon) colour b) Green pod colour
c) Inflated pod shape d) Terminal position of flower
e) Yellow pod colour
1) Only e 2) a, b and c 3) a, b, c, d and e 4) d and e
128. Find the incorrect match if 16 chromosomes are present in somatic cell of a plant
1) Zygote: 16 2) Perisperm: 8 3) Nucellus: 16 4) Generative cell in pollen: 8
129. Virus with RNA as genetic material is seen in all except
1) TMV 2) QB bacteriophage
3) HIV 4)   174 bacteriophage
130. Read the following statements:
A. The LHC are made up of hundreds of pigment molecules bound to proteins
B. The single chlorophyll a molecule forms the reaction centre
1) Both A and B are correct 2) Only A is correct
3) Only B is correct 4) Both A and B are incorrect
131. Which one among the following is false?
1) Carrot and turnip store food materials in tap roots
2) Sweet potato and Asparagus stores food materials in adventitious roots
3) Ginger and turmeric stores food materials in underground tap roots
4) Pneumatophores in Rhizophora are negatively geotropic

Pg. 13
132. Read the following steps involved in translation and arrange them in correct sequence:
A) Chain elongation B) Initiation
C) Charging of tRNA D) Termination
E) Activation of amino acids F) Formation of peptide bond
1) B-E-A-C-D-F 2) E-C-A-F-B-D 3) B-E-F-C-A-D 4) E-C-B-F-A-D
133. If a mother cell of mitosis at G2 phase contains 14 chromosomes and 4C amount of DNA, then each
of its daughter cell will receive.
1) 14 chromosomes, 2C amount of DNA 2) 14 chromosomes, 4C amount of DNA
3) 7 chromosomes, 2C amount of DNA 4) 28 chromosomes, 4C amount of DNA
134. Which one among the following exemplify modified leaf?
1) Phylloclade of Opuntia 2) Thorns in Bougainvillia
3) Phyllode in Australian acacia 4) Bulb in Allium
135. Statement - I: Oxygen serves as the terminal electron acceptor during oxidative phosphorylation
Statement - II: NADP+ is the terminal electron acceptor in non-cyclic photophosphorylation
1) Both S-I and S-II are correct 2) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
3) S-I is correct but S-II is incorrect 4) S-I is incorrect but S-II is correct
SECTION-B
136. Assertion (A): Number of bivalents are half to the chromosome number in a species
Reason (R): Bivalent represents a pair of homologous chromosomes
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) If A is true, but R is false
4) Both A and R are false
137. Match the following:
List – I List – II
(A) Polynucleotides (i) Rubber
(B) Polypeptides (ii) RNA
(C) Polysaccharides (iii) GLUT-4
(D) Polymeric substance (iv) Glycogen
The correct match is:
1) A – iii, B – i, C –iv, D – ii 2) A – ii, B – iii, C –iv, D – i
3) A – ii, B – i, C –iii, D – iv 4) A – iii, B – ii, C –iv, D – i
138. S-I: Transcriptional unit is DNA flanked on either side by promoter and terminator
S-II: Translational unit is mRNA flanked on either side by initiator codon and terminator codon
1) Both S-I and S-II are correct 2) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
3) S-I is correct but S-II is incorrect 4) S-I is incorrect but S-II is correct
139. Pericycle of roots is the site for origin of all except
1) Root hairs 2) Lateral roots 3) Vascular cambium 4) Cork cambium
140. Mobile electron carriers in ETS of mitochondrial membrane are
1) PQ, PC 2) UQ, Cyt C 3) PQ, Cyt C 4) PC, CoQ
141. The following events are/is not a part of ‘Pollen Pistil interaction’
1) Germination of pollen grain 2) Growth of pollen tube through style
3) Entry of pollen tube into the ovule 4) Fertilisation
142. Which one of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t PCR?
1) It is based on principle of antigen-antibody interaction
2) In these multiple copies of gene of interest is synthesized in vitro
3) It uses two sets of primers.
4) It is also called as polymerase chain reaction.
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143. Axillary bud is formed from
1) apical meristem of shoot 2) intercalary meristem
3) vascular cambium 4) cork cambium
144. Proteins encoded by ___and___control cotton boll worms
1) Cry I Ab, Cry I Ac 2) Cry II Ab, Cry I Ab
3) Cry I Aa, Cry I Ac 4) Cry I Ac, Cry II Ab
145. Which of the following reactions are catalysed in a template independent manner?
1) Synthesis of mRNA by polynucleotide phosphorylase
2) 3’- tailing (poly adenylation) in hnRNA processing
3) Ligation of DNA fragments by DNA ligase
4) All of these
146. Which one among the following is NOT true?
1) Cassia - Zygomorphic flowers and imbricate activation
2) China rose - Actinomorphic flowers and twisted aestivation
3) Calotropis - Opposite phyllotaxy and valvate aestivation
4) Guava Alternate phyllotaxy and half inferior ovary
147. Find the correct statement among the following:
1) Microbodies are found only in plant cells
2) Nucleolus is membrane bounded and involved in rRNA sysnthesis
3) Centrosome holds two chromatids of a chromosome together during metaphase
4) Both mitochondria and chloroplast have protein biosynthetic mechanisms due to the presence of
DNA, RNA and 70 ‘S’ ribosomes
148. Match the following:
A. Griffith 1. Codon is triplet
B. Gamow 2. Double helical DNA
C. Watson and Crick 3. Induced mutation
D. Meselson and Stahl 4. Semiconservative replication of DNA
5. Phenomena of transformation
1) A-5, B-1, C-2, D-4 2) A-1, B-5, C-4, D-2
3) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 4) A-5, B-1, C-4, D-2
149. Which biochemical is synthesized in cytoplasm and transported into nucleus for its activity?
1) DNA 2) t RNA 3) Protein 4) hn RNA
150. The phenotype of an individual may be affected if the modified allele produces
(a) No enzyme at all
(b) The normal/less efficient enzyme
(c) A non-functional enzyme
1) Only (a) is correct 2) (a) and (c) are correct
3) (b) and (c) are correct 4) Only (c) is correct
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. No of genes that are present on chromosome 1?
1) 2869 2) 2968 3) 2698 4) 231
152. The fungi help the plant in the absorption of essential nutrients from the soil while the plants in turn
provides the fungi with energy yielding carbohydrates. This is an example of
1) Amensalism 2) Competition 3) Commensalism 4) mutualism
153. For chemical defence against herbivores, Calotropis has:
1) cardiac glycosides 2) strychnine 3) toxic sap 4) distasteful quinine

Pg. 15
154. Which of the following contraceptive methods inhibit ovulation?
1) Oral contraceptive pills and tubectomy
2) Lactational amenorrhea and oral contraceptive pills
3) Barrier methods and surgical methods
4) Coitus interruptus and nonmedicated IUDs
155. Identify the vector-borne viral diseases among the following and choose the correct option
A) Dengue B) Plague C) Filariasis D) Chikungunya
E) Diphtheria
1) A, D 2) A, B, D 3) A, C, D 4) A, D, E
156. Arrange the sequence of different hormones for their role during gametogenesis.
A) Gonadotropin (LH) stimulates synthesis and secretion of Androgen
B) Increase of GnRH
C) Androgen stimulates spermatogenesis
D) Gonadotropin FSH helps in the process of spermiogenesis
E) Gonadotropins from anterior pituitary gland.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) (E), (A), (D), (B), (C)
2) (C), (A), (D), (E), (B)
3) (B), (E), (A), (C), (D)
4) (D), (B), (A), (C), (E)
157. Select incorrect statement, regarding chemical structure of insulin.
1) Mature insulin molecule consists of two polypeptide chains-A & B.
2) Insulin is synthesized as prohormone which contains extra stretch of C-peptide.
3) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin molecule.
4) Polypeptide chains A and C are linked by disulphide bridges in mature insulin.
158. Assertion (A): Ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water and allows transport of
electrolytes actively or passively.
Reason (R): Concentration of filtrate takes place due to efflux of electrolytes in to the medullary
fluid.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) (A) is true but (R) is false
2) (A) is false but (R) is true
3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
159. Pronotum of cockroach
1) Represent the ventral sclerite of prothorax
2) Is used for grinding and chewing
3) A dorsal sclerite
4) Is one of the mouth part
160. The ratio of residual volume to functional residual capacity in a healthy human is about
1) 1:1 2) 1:5 3) 1:3 4) 1:2
161. Select the correct combination.
In-situ conservation - Ex-situ conservation
1) Zoological park - National Park
2) Cryopreservation - Wildlife sanctuary
3) Biodiversity hotspot - Biosphere reserve
4) Sacred grove - Seed bank

Pg. 16
162. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
A) Visceral hump I) Cucumaria
B) Water vascular system II) Pila
C) Canal system III) Spongilla
D) Flame cells IV) Taenia
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) 2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
3) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) 4) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
163. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
A) Sternum I) Skull bone
B) Sacrum II) Flat thoracic bone
C) Scapula III) Vertebral column
D) Sphenoid IV) Pectoral girdle
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A B C D A B C D
1) II III I IV 2) IV I II III
3) III IV I II 4) II III IV I
164. Which of the following hormones will be secreted by placenta
A) hCG B) hPL C) Estrogens D) Progestogens
E) Relaxin F) Oxytocin
1) A, C and E 2) B, D and F 3) A, B, C and D 4) A, B, C and E
165. Select the correct statements about sickle cell anaemia.
A) There is a change in gene for beta globin.
B) In the beta globin, there is valine in the place of Lysine.
C) It is an example of point mutation.
D) In the normal gene uracil is replaced by adenine
1) (B), (C) and (D) only 2) (B) and (D) only
3) (A), (B) and (D) only 4) (A) and (C) only
166. Incorrect statement from the following
1) Vigorous contraction of uterus at the end of pregnancy causes expulsion of the foetus
2) Parturition is induced by neuroendocrine mechanism
3) Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscle and causes strong uterine contraction
4) Foetal ejection reflex triggers release of vasopressin from maternal pituitary
167. The most abundant leucocytes are
1) neutrophils 2) basophils 3) lymphocytes 4) monocytes
168. Which of the following is not a part of limbic system
1) Amygdala 2) Hippocampus 3) Pons 4) Both (1) & (2)
169. Select the analogous organs from the following
1) Forelimbs of mammal 2) Thorns and tendrils of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita
3) Wing of bird and butterfly 4) Vertebrate hearts or brains
170. Identify A and B given below
Angiotensinogen __A_ Angiotensin-I __B__ Angiotensin-II
1) A-Angiotensinogenase, B-Renin
2) A-Rennin, B-Angiotensinogenase
3) A-Angiotensin converting enzyme, B-Renin
4) A-Renin, B-Angiotensin converting enzyme
Pg. 17
171. Among the following, how many are steroid hormones that help in erythropoiesis [Androgens,
Erythropoietin, Aldosterone, Cortisol, Thyrotropin]
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five
172. Choose the incorrect match:

1. Thalamus Coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling

2. Association areas of cerebral cortex Responsible for memory and communication
3. Corpora quadrigemina Four lobes on ventral side of midbrain
4. Brain stem Midbrain, pons, medulla

173. Cancer cells do not exhibit

1) Uncontrolled growth 2) Angiogenesis
3) Contact inhibition 4) Metastasis
174. Biological product used in the treatment of emphysema is
1) alpha-1- trypsin 2) alpha- interferon
3) alpha-lactalbumin 4) alpha-1-antitrypsin
175. Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes defective development and maturation of the growing
baby leading to
a. Cretinism b. Stunted growth
c. Mental retardation d. Low I.Q
e. Abnormal skin f. Deaf mutism
1) a, b, d & f only 2) b, c, d & e only 3) a, c, d, e & f only 4) a, b, c, d, e and f
176. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly due to genetic disorder is called?
1) Myasthenia gravis 2) Muscular dystrophy
3) Tetany 4) Gout
177. Most abundant and widely distributed tissue in animals is:
1) Epithelial tissue 2) Connective tissue 3) Muscular tissue 4) Neural tissue
178. Choose the incorrect option:
1) Oral contraceptive - Saheli 2) Barrier method - Diaphragms
3) I.U.D - Progestasert 4) Hormonal method - CuT
179. The group of symptoms that is indicative of pneumonia
1) constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots.
2) difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, cough, headache.
3) intestinal perforations cough, constipation, headache.
4) high fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of appetite, constipation.
180. Identify the physical barrier of immunity from the following.
1) Skin on our body 2) Acid in the stomach
3) PMNL-neutrophils 4) Both (a) and (b)
181. Which of the following statement is correct regarding evolution of man?
1) Neanderthalensis lived in east and central Asia with brain size 140 cc
2) Australopithecus probably ate meat
3) Homo erectus had a large brain size around 900 cc
4) Homo sapiens evolved into Dryopithecus
182. Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia?
1) Autosomal recessive gene disorder
2) X–linked recessive gene disorder
3) Chromosomal disorder
4) Dominant gene disorder
Pg. 18
183. Statement (S-I): Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into smaller
substances by microbes
Statement (S-II): Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin
1) S-I & S-II are correct 2) S-I is correct, S-II is incorrect
3) Both S-I & S-II are incorrect 4) S-I is incorrect, S-II is correct
184. A single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries constitutes epithelial lining in
1) Inner surface of hollow organs like fallopian tubes
2) Inner surface of bronchioles
3) PCT of nephrons in kidneys
4) Walls of blood vessels
185. The hepatic caeca of cockroach
1) Store excess food and are present between midgut and hindgut
2) produce digestive enzymes
3) are also called malpighian tubules
4) Removes few excretory products from partly digested food
SECTION-B
186. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the hormone and its function?
A) PTH increases the Ca++ levels in the blood.
B) In males, FSH and androgens regulate spermatogenesis.
C) Hypothyroidism can lead to goitre.
D) Glucocorticoids are secreted in Adrenal Medulla.
E) TCT regulates the blood calcium level
1) (C) and (E) only 2) (A), (B), (C) and (E)
3) (B), (D) and (E) only 4) (A) and (D) only
187. Which of the following options correctly represents the conditions in asthma and emphysema,
respectively?
1) Nasal congestion; inflammation of bronchioles
2) Spasm of bronchial muscles; increased respiratory surface
3) Inflammation of bronchioles; decreased respiratory surface
4) Decreased respiratory surface; inflammation of bronchioles
188 ‘Erythroblastosis foetalis’ be avoided by administering
1) Rh antigens to the mother
2) Rh antigens to the child
3) anti-Rh antibodies to the mother
4) anti-Rh antibodies to the child
189. If there are 750 snails in a pond, and within a year their number increases to 7500 by reproduction.
What should be their birth rate per snail per year?
1) 10 2) 9 3) 25 4) 15
190. Which of the following is not a general character of the phylum Mollusca?
1) Calcareous shell 2) Metameric segmentation
3) Radula for rasping the food 4) Gills in the mantle cavity
191. Verhulst-Pearl equation describes
1) Species-area relationship 2) Exponential growth
3) Genotypic frequencies 4) Logistic growth
192. How many of the following structures are found in a female cockroach
[Anal cerci, Ejaculatory duct, Vestibulum, Caudal styles, Phallic gland, Spermatheca]
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five

Pg. 19
193. Match the column:
List – I List - II
A) Diuresis i) Accumulation of uric acid crystals
B) Gout ii) Acute weakness and fatigue
C) Addison’s disease iii) More urine formation
D) Angina iv) Chest pain
v) Fibrosis of lungs
The correct match is
1) A- i, B- ii, C- iii, D- v 2) A- iv, B- iii, C- ii, D- v
3) A- iii, B- i, C- ii, D- iv 4) A- iv, B- i, C- ii, D- iii
194. Read the following statements:
i) DNA from every tissue of an individual shows the same degree of polymorphism
ii) The methodology of HGP that focused on identifying all the genes that are expressed is called
sequence annotation
iii) HGP is closely associated with Bioinformatics
The correct statement(s) is/are
1) i only 2) i and iii 3) ii and iii 4) iii only
195. The pathogen specific immunity is
1) innate immunity 2) acquired immunity
3) meditated by barriers 4) Both (1) & (3)
196. Statement-I (S-I): Chorionic villi are surrounded by the vaginal tissue and foetal blood
Statement-II (S-II): Placenta is connected to the embryo through an umbilical cord
1) S-I & S-II are correct 2) S-I is correct, S-II is incorrect
3) Both S-I & S-II are incorrect 4) S-I is incorrect, S-II is correct
197. The ‘variations’ explained by Darwin are
1) Sudden and non-gradual 2) Small and directional
3) Large and non-directional 4) Non heritable and random
198. Match the following
Column–I Column–II:
a) XO method of sex determination i) Down’s syndrome
b) XY method of sex determination ii) Female Pavo is heterogametic
c) Trisomy of 21 iii) Female bird
d) Z & W Chromosomes iv) Homo sapiens
The correct match is
a b c d a b c d
1) ii iv i iii 2) i iv ii iii
3) iii iv i ii 4) iv ii i iii
199. Which of the following is not the example of recent extinction
1) Steller’s sea cow 2) Dodo 3) Quagga 4) Delphinus
200. Which is not true about skeletal muscle?
1) dark and light bands are present 2) it is involuntary in action
3) biceps is an example 4) myoglobin is present

*** ALL THE BEST ***

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SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 23.11.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-8 Max.Marks: 720

PHYSICS

1) 1 2) 3 3) 4 4) 2 5) 3 6) 3 7) 4 8) 1 9) 2 1 0) 3
1 1) 3 1 2) 2 1 3) 3 1 4) 1 1 5) 2 1 6) 4 1 7) 3 1 8) 2 1 9) 4 2 0) 4
2 1) 3 2 2) 1 2 3) 1 2 4) 2 2 5) 1 2 6) 4 2 7) 2 2 8) 1 2 9) 2 3 0) 1
3 1) 3 3 2) 3 3 3) 4 3 4) 2 3 5) 3 3 6) 3 3 7) 1 3 8) 3 3 9) 2 4 0) 2
4 1) 1 4 2) 1 4 3) 3 4 4) 1 4 5) 4 4 6) 4 4 7) 4 4 8) 2 4 9) 4 5 0) 2

CHEMISTRY
5 1) 4 5 2) 2 5 3) 3 5 4) 3 5 5) 3 5 6) 4 5 7) 2 5 8) 1 5 9) 3 6 0) 3
6 1) 2 6 2) 2 6 3) 2 6 4) 2 6 5) 3 6 6) 1 6 7) 4 6 8) 1 6 9) 1 7 0) 1
7 1) 2 7 2) 1 7 3) 2 7 4) 2 7 5) 4 7 6) 1 7 7) 3 7 8) 4 7 9) 2 8 0) 1
8 1) 2 8 2) 1 8 3) 3 8 4) 1 8 5) 2 8 6) 3 8 7) 2 8 8) 2 8 9) 3 9 0) 1
9 1) 1 9 2) 3 9 3) 3 9 4) 4 9 5) 1 9 6) 4 9 7) 1 9 8) 2 9 9) 1 1 0 0) 4

BOTANY
1 0 1) 3 1 0 2) 1 1 0 3) 3 1 0 4) 2 1 0 5) 1 1 0 6) 4 1 0 7) 1 1 0 8) 3 1 0 9) 4 1 1 0) 2
1 1 1) 1 1 1 2) 4 1 1 3) 2 1 1 4) 3 1 1 5) 3 1 1 6) 3 1 1 7) 3 1 1 8) 3 1 1 9) 3 1 2 0) 3
1 2 1) 2 1 2 2) 4 1 2 3) 1 1 2 4) 3 1 2 5) 2 1 2 6) 1 1 2 7) 4 1 2 8) 2 1 2 9) 4 1 3 0) 1
1 3 1) 3 1 3 2) 4 1 3 3) 1 1 3 4) 3 1 3 5) 1 1 3 6) 1 1 3 7) 2 1 3 8) 1 1 3 9) 1 1 4 0) 2
1 4 1) 4 1 4 2) 1 1 4 3) 1 1 4 4) 4 1 4 5) 4 1 4 6) 4 1 4 7) 4 1 4 8) 1 1 4 9) 3 1 5 0) 2

ZOOLOGY
1 5 1) 2 1 5 2) 4 1 5 3) 1 1 5 4) 2 1 5 5) 1 1 5 6) 3 1 5 7) 4 1 5 8) 1 1 5 9) 3 1 6 0) 4
1 6 1) 4 1 6 2) 4 1 6 3) 4 1 6 4) 3 1 6 5) 4 1 6 6) 4 1 6 7) 1 1 6 8) 3 1 6 9) 3 1 7 0) 4
1 7 1) 1 1 7 2) 3 1 7 3) 3 1 7 4) 4 1 7 5) 4 1 7 6) 2 1 7 7) 2 1 7 8) 4 1 7 9) 2 1 8 0) 1
1 8 1) 3 1 8 2) 2 1 8 3) 2 1 8 4) 4 1 8 5) 2 1 8 6) 2 1 8 7) 3 1 8 8) 3 1 8 9) 2 1 9 0) 2
1 9 1) 4 1 9 2) 2 1 9 3) 3 1 9 4) 2 1 9 5) 2 1 9 6) 4 1 9 7) 2 1 9 8) 3 1 9 9) 4 2 0 0) 2

PAPER SETTER- KNL DIVISION

S NO SUBJECT NAME MOBILE NO
1 PHYSICS LAKSHMANA SIR 80198 85380
2 CHEMISTRY N V SUBBAREDDY SIR 88976 00758
3 BOTANY SAVITHA MAM 94928 44931
4 ZOOLOGY SREEDEVI MAM 94928 44932

Pg. 1
 Hints & Solutions
Physics
1. Conceptual.
2. fs = mv2/r
For maximum speed in safe turning
Fs = fs max = mg
Vmax (for safe turning) =  rg
 0.34  50 10  13ms 1
g
3. a1  g sin  
2
g Kg
a2  g sin   Kg cos   
2 2
t2  nt1 & a1t12  a2t22
g 2  g Kg  2 2
t1     n t1
2  2 2
1
K  1 2
n
1 M .S .D a
4. L.C  
No. of Vernier Divisions n  1
5. Surface area of soap bubble = 2 × 4R2
Work done = change in surface energy × TS
 TS  8   R22  R12 
22 3
 2 102  8   49  104
7 4
4
 18.48  10 J
l  3l1
6. e 2  1.5 cm
2
1
m u 
2
KEPOP 2 4
7.  
1
KEtop m  u cos 300  3
2

2
41  5
0 0
C  00
8. 
950  50 1000  00
36
 100  400 C  313K
90
K .E 3
9.  KT
molecule 2
So ratio is 1 : 1
g
10. g' 2
 h
1  
 R
 d
g '  g 1  
 R
Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
l
11. T  2
g
T oc l
 T 2 oc l
12. Conceptual
13. P  2mE
1.5 P  2mE '
E '  2.25 E
 E ' E 
% change in K.E    100  125%
 E 
14. 1 1  P2V2
PV
10 5
 4  105  V1  105 V2
5V1  V2
5 cm3 = V2
15. both capillary tube and water should be clean
16. determination of refractive index of glass slab
17. v2  u2 = 2aS
02  12 = 2(g)20/100
 = 1/4 = 0.25
18. Distance travelled by the sound in one vibration is equal to wavelength of the sound wave.
Hence  = 20 cm
V = f = 300 × 0.2
= 60 m/s
19. rn = r0n2
r1 = r0
= 0.53 × 1010 m
20. As sound waves are longitudinal therefore polarisation of sound waves is not possible.
21.

22. Poutput = (90/100) × 4 kW

= 3.6 kW
Vi = 3.6 kW
V = 3.6/6 kW
V = 600 V
23. For half wave rectifier fout = fin
H H
24. Velocity after falling height = 2g
4 4
h h
 
mV H
m  2g
4
1
H 2

25.

Given deviation  = 300

 i + e – A = 300

26. I = nAeVd
i
Vd 
neA
27. Since both magnetic has equal magnetic moment therefore resultant will be bisector of angle
between the magnets.
30  60
  450
2
d
28. E   6t  1
dt
E t 1  6  1  5 V
29. G = 100 
i = 105 A
i=1A
S=?
ig × G = (i  ig) × S
 ig   10 5 
S   G   5 
 100
ii  1  10 
 g 
103
S  10 3 
1  0.00001
1
30. L 
C
1
L
C 2
1

20 10 6 104
1 10
L 1
  5H
2 10 2
1 q2
31. We know U 
2C
Here, ‘q’ remains same while C becomes KC
 Energy becomes U/K i.e., 1/K times
32. Speed of all electromagnetic waves in vacuum is equal to speed of light.
33. Next node will be at x = 3 + (/2)
= 3 + (2/2) = 4 m
34. E = hv  
0.5 = hv   ---------(i)
0.8 = 1.2 hv   -------- (ii)
From (i) and (ii)
 = 1 eV
1 2
35. mv  k
2
2k
v
m
To just miss collision with the opposite plate, the particle must move in a radius r which is equal
to d.
 2k
m
mv m
r d 
qB qB
2km
B
qd
36. I  a, II  c, III  d, IV  b

37.
m v 2m

3m v'
mv  3mv '
v
m/ s  v'
3
38.
m 200 N

GM
200  m
R2
4
M   R3 
3
G4
200   Rm
3
Weight  R
Hence at R/2 from centre weight = 100 N
39.
u u

150 450
50 m R'
2
u sin 30
50 
g
2
u sin 90
R1 
g
50 1

R1 2
R '  100 m
40. x(t) = t2  2t
v(t) = 2t  2
v (t  2) = 4 – 2 = 2 m/s
4

41. w   5 xdx
2
5 2 4
w x 
2  2
5 5 12
w  16  4   30 J
2 2
 4T
42. P1   gh   P2
R
4T
P2  P1   gh 
R
43. Work done by gas = area under curve of P – V
1
  300  2  300 J
2
44. V =  + lr
V = 2 + 4(2)
V = 10 V
1  f  1 1 
45.   1   
f  s   R1 R3 
1.25  3  1 1 
  1   
100  2 s   40 20 
9
On solving  
7
46. Conceptual
47. its thermal conductivity is high
2 1
48. VB  VA    2dx   3dy
1 2

VB  VA  2  x 1  3 y 2
2 1

= 2(2 – 1) – 3 (1 – 2) = 1 V
49. Magnetic flux inside rod, B  r
And outside the rod, B  1/r2
V l cos   5  
50. Pav  0 0    
2  12 4 
100 2  1
 cos 30 0
2
100 2 3
=
2 2
 25 6 W
CHEMISTRY
51. Aldol condensation
52. RCOOH  NH 3  RCOO  NH 4 
 H 2O

O
Br2
R - C - NH2 R - NH2
NaOH

( Hofmann Bromamide
reaction )
53. T f  particle concentration
54. MnO42  MnO4  e 
1 mole require 96500c
0.1 mole require 9650c
56. High ‘p’ and low ‘T’ are favourable
57. H  U  nRT
 2.1  2  2  103  300  3.3Kcal
 G  H  T S
3.3  300  0.02  2.7KCal
58. 2Mg  O2  2 MgO
48g Mg reacts with 32g O2
x g Mg reacts with 0.56g O2
0.56 X 48
x  0.84 g
32
Mg left  1  0.84  0.16 g
61. Ni 2 has two unpaired electrons
62. Cis platin
63. C6 H 5 N 2 X 
1.4 X N X V 1.4 X 2 X 10
66. % of N 2    37.3%
W 0.75
67. Alpha hydrogen is required
68. Y  CH 3CH 2CH 2CH 2 Br
Z  CH 3CH 2CH 2CH 2 OC2 H 5
69. Rb-5s1
71. Ca
72. ‘NO’ is paramagnetic
nO2 1 28 7
73.  X 
nN2 4 32 32
74. SN 2 : Me  10  20  30
75. For III and IV   0
77. A  C2 H 5OH
B  C2 H 5Cl
C  C2 H 4
r  k M 
x
79.
8r  K  2 M 
x

2 x  8, x  3
80. P4  8SOCl2  4 PCl3  4SO2  2 S2 Cl2
82. III<I<II
83. TeO2 is oxidant
84. Cl2O7  SO2  P4 O10
85. CuF2
86. Lanthanide contraction
87. 3(two cis and one trans)
89. CaC2+Ca3P2
90. B3N3H6 (Borazole)
92. Conceptual
93. Square pyramidal
94. Nodal planes=l=2
Radial nodes=n-l-1=4-2-1=1
60
95. E.W of Metal  X 8  12
40
A.wt  12 X 2  24
97. Co+2 gives blue color
98. S.O. P = 0.059  pH
100. Primary amines are possible for the formula C4H11N is 4
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 29.11.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-9 Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
In ever y s u bject:
( a ) In Section – A , 3 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. A n s w er all 3 5 qu estion s from section – A
( b ) In Section – B , 1 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. O ut of w hich A n s w er 1 0 qu estion s onl y .
(c) E ach qu estion c a rries 4 m a r k s. F or e ach correct respon se w ill get 4 m a r k s. F or e ach
incorrect respon se, one m a r k w ill be d e d ucte d from th e tot al scores.
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. The relative error in the determination of the surface area of a sphere is 'α', then the relative error in
the determination of its volume is
3 2 5
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 
2 3 2
2. A closed coil has a resistance R. The total flux linked with the coil linearly changes with time according
to  = at + b , where a and b are constants. The magnitude of the average induced current in the coil is
a b b a a
(1) (2) (3) (4)
R R R 2R
3. A man goes to a height equal to the radius of earth from its surface. The weight of the person at that
height relative to his weight on the surface of earth is
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 3 4 5
4. For spectral series of hydrogen atom, match the following
Column I Column II
A. Lyman series 1. Ultraviolet region
B. Balmer series 2. Infrared region
C. Paschen series 3. Visible region
D. Brackett series
A B C D A B C D
(1) 1 3 2 2 (2) 2 1 2 2
(3) 2 1 3 3 (4) 1 2 2 3
5. The P-V diagram of a system undergoing thermodynamic transformation is shown in figure. The work
done on the system in going from A → B → C is 50 J and 20 cal heat is given to the system. The
change in internal energy between A and C is

(1) 34 J (2) 70 J (3) 84 J (4) 134 J

Pg. 1
6. In Young's experiment when sodium light of wavelength 5893 Å is used, then 62 fringes are seen in
the field of view. Instead, if violet light of wavelength 4358 Å is used then the number of fringes that
will be seen in the field of view will be
(1) 54 (2) 64 (3) 74 (4) 84
7. The light rays having photons of energy 1.8 eV are falling on a metal surface having a work function
1.2 eV. What is the stopping potential to be applied to stop the emitting electrons
(1) 3 eV (2) 1.2 eV (3) 0.6 V (4) 1.4 V
8. A storage battery of emf 8 V and internal resistance 0.5 Ω in being charged by a 120 V DC supply
using a series resistor of 15.5 Ω. What is the terminal voltage of the battery during charging
(1) 10 V (2) 11.5 V (3) 7 V (4) 16 V
9. A galvanometer of resistance 50 Ω is connected to a battery of 3V along with a resistance of 2950 Ω
in series. A full-scale deflection of 30 divisions is obtained in the galvanometer. In order to reduce this
deflection to 20 divisions, the resistance in series should be
(1) 6050 Ω (2) 4450 Ω (3) 5050 Ω (4) 5550 Ω
10. To what depth must a rubber ball be taken in deep sea so that its volume is decreased by 0.1% ? (Take,
density of sea water = 103 kg/m3, bulk modulus of rubber = 9 × 108 N/m2, g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 9 m (2) 18 m (3) 90 m (4) 180 m
11. The combination of gates shown below yields.

(1) NAND gate (2) OR gate (3) NOT gate (4) AND gate
12. The oscillating electric and magnetic field vectors of electromagnetic wave are oriented along
(1) The same direction and in phase
(2) The same direction but have a phase difference of 900
(3) Mutually perpendicular directions and are in phase
(4) Mutually perpendicular directions but has a phase difference of 900
C
13. Each molecule of a gas has f degrees of freedom. The ratio P   for the gas is
CV

1
f 1
1
1
2
1
 f  1
(1) 2 (2) f (3) f (4) 3
14. Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in series. The engine A receives heat from the source at
temperature T1 and rejects the heat to the sink at temperature T. The second engine B receives the heat
at temperature T and rejects to its sink at temperature T2 . For what value of T the efficiencies of the
two engines are equal?
T T T T
(1) 1 2 (2) 1 2 (3) TT
1 (4) TT
1 2
2 2
15. An ideal gas is taken from initial state (1) to final state (2) by a thermodynamic process. Consider the
two statements A and B given below and identify the correct choice in the options given.
A: The work done in the process is independent of the path by which the gas is taken from the initial
state to the final state.
B: The change in the internal energy in the process is independent of the path by which the gas is taken
from the initial state to the final state.
(1) A is false and B is true (2) Both A and B are true
(3) Both A and B are false (4) A is true and B is false
Pg. 2
16. N divisions on the main scale of a Vernier calliper coincide with (N+1) divisions of the Vernier scale.
If each division of main scale is ‘a’ units, then the least count of the instrument is
a N a
(1) a (2) (3) a (4)
N N a N a
17. The primary of a transformer with primary to secondary turns ratio of 1 : 2, is connected to an alternator
of voltage 200 V. A current of 4 A is flowing though the primary coil. Assuming that the transformer
has no losses, the secondary voltage and current are respectively
(1) 100 V, 8 A (2) 400 V, 8 A (3) 400 V, 2 A (4) 100 V, 2 A
18. The ratio of the weight of a man in a stationary lift and when it is moving downward with uniform
acceleration ‘a’ is 3 : 2. The value of ‘a’ is (g – Acceleration due to gravity on the earth)
(1) 3/2 g (2) g/3 (3) 2/3 g (4) g
19. Consider elastic collision of a particle of mass ‘m’ moving with velocity ‘u’ with another particle of
the same mass at rest. After the collision the projectile and the struck particle move in directions
making angles 1 and 2 respectively with initial direction of motion. The sum of the angles is 1  2
(1) 450 (2) 900 (3) 1350 (4) 1800
20. The r.m.s. velocity of a gas at a certain temperature is 2 times than that of the oxygen molecules at
that temperature. The gas can be
(1) H2 (2) He (3) CH4 (4) SO2
21. Statement(A): An astronaut in an orbiting space station above the Earth experiences weightlessness.
Statement(B): An object moving around the Earth under influence of Earth’s gravitational force is in
a state of freefall.
(1) Both A and B are true (2) A is true, B is false
(3) A is false, B is false. (4) Both A and B are false
22. Two long and parallel straight wires A and B carrying currents of 8.0 A and 5.0 A in the same direction
are separated by a distance of 4.0 cm. Estimate the force on a 10 cm section of wire A
(1) 2  105 Attractive (2) 4  105 Attractive
(3) 2  105 Repulsive (4) 4  105 Repulsive
23. Figure shows four charges q1 , q2 , q3 and q4 fixed in space. Then the total flux of electric field through
a closed surface, due to all charges q1 , q2 , q3 and q4 is

(1) Equal to the total flux through surface due to charges q1 and q2
(2) Equal to the total flux through surface due to charges q3 and q4
(3) Zero if q1  q2  q3  q4
(4) Twice the total flux through surface due to charges q3 and q4 if q1  q2  q3  q4
24. Current in a circuit falls from 5.0 A to 0.0 A in 0.1 s. If an average emf of 200 V is induced, then an
estimate of the self-inductance of the circuit is
(1) 2 H (2) 4 H (3) 6 H (4) 8 H

Pg. 3
25. A lens of power 16 D is used as a simple microscope. In order to obtain maximum magnification, at
what distance from the lens should a small object be placed?
(1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm (3) 16 cm (4) 25 cm
26. When a ceiling fan is switched on, it makes 10 rotations in the first 3 seconds. How many rotations
will it make in the next 3 seconds? (Assume uniform angular acceleration)
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 40
27. A copper rod of length l1 and an iron rod of length l2 are always maintained at the same common
temperature T. If the difference  l2  l1  is 15 cm and is independent of the value of T, the l1 and l2
have the values (given the linear coefficient of expansion for copper and iron are 2.0 106 C 1 and
1.0  10 6 C 1 respectively) :-
(1) l1 =15 cm, l2 30 cm (2) l1 = 30 cm, l2 15 cm
(3) l1 =10 cm, l2 25 cm (4) l1 = 25 cm, l2 10 cm
28. The mass and volume of a body are found to be (5.00  0.05) kg and (1.00  0.05) respectively. Then
the maximum possible percentage error in its density is:-
(1) 3% (2) 5% (3) 6% (4) 7%
29. A river 10 m deep is flowing at 5 m/s. The shearing stress between horizontal layers of the river is
   10 3
SI unit 
(1) 103 N / m 2 (2) 0.8  103 N / m2 (3) 0.5  103 N / m2 (4) 1N / m2
30. A parallel plate condenser with plate area A and separation d is filled with two dielectric materials as
shown in the figure. The dielectric constants are K1 and K 2 respectively. The capacitance will be :-

0 A 0 A  K1  K 2 
2 0 A  K1K 2  2 0 A  K1  K 2 
(1)  K1  K 2  (2)    (3)  (4)  
d d  K1K 2  d  K1  K 2  d  K1K 2 
31. Work done in time t on a body of mass m which is accelerated from rest to a speed v in time t1 as a
function of time t is given by
2
1 v v 1  mv  2 1 v2 2
(1) m t 2 (2) m t 2 (3)   t (4) m 2 t
2 t1 t1 2  t1  2 t1
32. In the circuit shown in figure, ammeter and voltmeter are ideal. What would be the reading of voltmeter

(1) Zero (2) 0.5 volt (3) 1 volt (4) 2 volt

33. How much mass of Uranium to be annihilated per minute to operate a nuclear reactor of 600 MW :-
(1) 400 g (2) 400 mg (3) 400 g (4) 400 kg

Pg. 4
34. A cylindrical tube (L = 120 cm) is resonant with a tuning fork of frequency 330 Hz. If it is filling by
water then to get resonance minimum length of water column is Vair  330 m / s 
(1) 45 cm (2) 60 cm (3) 25 cm (4) 20 cm
35. What is value of current I in given circuit

(1) 6 mA (2) 4 mA (3) 10 mA (4) Zero

SECTION-B
36. On moving a charge 0f 20 coulomb by 2 cm, 2 J of work is done, then the potential difference between
the points is
(1) 0.1 V (2) 8 V (3) 2 V (4) 0.5 V
37. The magnetic field due to a straight conductor of uniform cross section of radius a and carrying a
steady current is represented by

1) 2) 3) 4)
38. In an LCR circuit R =100 ohm. When capacitance C is removed, the current lags behind the voltage
by /3 . When inductance L is removed, the current leads the voltage by /3 . The impedance of the
circuit is
(1) 50 ohm (2) 100 ohm (3) 200 ohm (4) 400 ohm
39. The block of mass M moving on the frictionless horizontal surface collides with the spring of spring
constant K and compresses it by length L. The maximum momentum of the block after collision is

ML2 KL2
(1) Zero (2) K (3) MK L (4) 2M
40. Two conducting rods A and B of same length and cross-sectional area are connected (i) In series (ii)
In parallel as shown. In both combination a temperature difference of 100°C is maintained. If thermal
conductivity of A is 3K and that of B is K then the ratio of heat current flowing in parallel combination
to that flowing in series combination is

(1) 16/3 (2) 3/16 (3)1/1 (4)1/3

Pg. 5
41. STATEMENT- A: when 1 gram of ice at 00C melts at one atmosphere pressure, change in internal
energy is greater than 80 cal.
STATEMENT- B : when 1 gram of water at 1000C boils at one atmosphere pressure, change in internal
energy is less than 540 cal.
(1) Both statements are true (2) A is true but B IS false
(3) A is false and B is true (4) Both statements are false
42. In the given circuit the internal resistance of the 18 V cell is negligible. If R1  400 , R3  100 and
R4  500 and the reading of an ideal voltmeter across R4 is 5 V, then the value of R2 will be

(1) 450  (2) 550  (3) 230  (4) 300 

43. An electron moving with a speed u along the positive x-axis at y = 0 enters a region of uniform

ˆ
magnetic field   B0 k which exists to the right of y-axis. The electron exits from the region after
B
some time with the speed v at co-ordinate y, then

(1) v > u, y < 0 (2) v = u, y > 0 (3) v > u, y > 0 (4) v = u, y < 0
44. A body of circular cross-section is placed on a smooth horizontal surface. When a horizontal impulse
is given to its highest point, it begins to roll without slipping. The body is a
(1) ring (2) disc (3) solid sphere (4) hollow sphere
2
45. The uniform disk in the figure has a moment of inertia of 1.2 kgm around the axis that passes through
O and is perpendicular to the plane of the disk. If a segment is cut out from the disk as shown, the
moment of inertia of the remaining disk about the same axis is

(1)1.0 kgm2 (2) 0.8 kgm2 (3) 0.9 kgm2 (4) 1.1 kgm2
4
46. The kinetic energy of a body initially at rest is found to be proportional to t . The force acting on the
body is proportional to
1
1) t
2
(2) t (3) t (4) t
Pg. 6
47. A solenoid has length of L and has N turns. If a current of I is passed through it, the magnetic induction
at a point on its axis is
NI  NI NI
(1) B   0 NI (2) B  (3) B  0 (4) B 
0 L 0 L
48. A particle executes SHM with a period of 8s. Half a second after it crosses the equilibrium position, it
is at a point P. The minimum time interval after which it will be again at P is
(1) 1.5 s (2) 3 s (3) 4.5 s (4) 7.5 s
49. A planoconvex lens fits exactly into a plane -concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each
other. If the lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices 1 and  2 and ‘R’ is the radius
of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then focal length of the combination is
2R R R R
(1)  2
  1 
(2)  1
2   2  2   1   2 
(3) (4) 1   2
50. A point P on the trajectory of a projectile projected at an angle  with horizontal subtends angle α and
 at the point of projection and point of landing then

(1) tan  + tan α = tan  (2) tan α + tan  = tan 

(3) tan  + tan  = tan α (4) tan  + tan α = 2 tan .
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. For a chemical process H = + ve, S = - ve then process can be:
(1) spontaneous at low temperature
(2) spontaneous at high temperature
(3) spontaneous at both low and high temperature
(4) non spontaneous at all temperatures
52. For the reaction C( S )  CO2(g)  2CO(g) the partial pressures of CO2 and CO at equilibrium
respectively are 2.0 atm and 4.0 atm. Then the value of Kp for the above system is
(1) 0.5 atm (2) 4.0 atm (3) 8.0 atm (4) 32 atm
53. Which of the following oxides is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide?
1) BeO 2) B2O3 3) CaO 4) SiO2
54. Correct statement of the following is
1) Alkyl halides are less reactive than aryl halides towards nucleophilic substitution reaction
2) Aryl halides are less reactive than alkyl halides towards nucleophilic substitution reaction
3) Replacement of –Cl atom in chlorobenzene by strong base proceeds via formation of carbocation
4) Presence of EWG at O & P position decreases the reactivity of chlorobenzene towards nucleophilic
substitution
55. The electro chemical equivalent of a bivalent metal is 2.0  104 g / c .Then the molecular weight of
the metal sulphate is
(1) 134.6 (2) 128 (3) 110 (4) 96

Pg. 7
56. Wrong statement of the following is
1) All the noble gases are monoatomic.
2) Noble gases have very high melting and boiling points.
3) Bartlett prepared a red compound which is formulated as O2+PtF6–
4) The first ionisation enthalpy of molecular oxygen was almost identical with that of xenon.
57. Calculate the energy of a photon of sodium light of wavelength 2 10–16 m
(1) 9.9 10–10J (2) 6.6 10–11J (3) 9.9 10–12J (4) 4.8 10–11J
58. The configuration of an element "X" is 1s22s1. It exhibits diagonal relationship with another
element "Y". Then the electron configuration of "Y" is
1) 1s22s22p63s1 2) 1s22s22p63s2
3) 1s22s22p63s23p1 4) 1s2
59. For a reaction A → P, following data is given
t 1/2 (s) 10 20
[A] mol/l 0.2 0.1
What will be the order of reaction?
(1) Zero order (2) 1st order (3) 2nd order (4) 3rd order
60. The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water-ethanol is less than that of both water and
ethanol. Then
(1) The mixture shows negative deviation from Raoult's law
(2) The mixture shows positive deviation from Raoult's law
(3) The mixture shows no deviation from Raoult's law
(4) The mixture cannot be considered as solution
61. Wrong match of the following is
Pair of compounds Distinguish Reagent
1. CH 3OH and CH3CH 2OH I2 + KOH
2. CHO Fehling’s reagent

and CH3CHO

3. OH COOH NaHCO3 solution

and

4. CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  NH 2 and CH 3  CH  CH3 Hinsberg reagent

|
NH2
62. According to Henry's law 'the partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase (p) is proportional to the
mole fraction of the gas (x) in the solution. For different gases the correct statement about Henry's
constant is
(1) Higher the value of KH at a given pressure, higher is the solubility of the gas
(2) Higher the value of KH at a given pressure, lower is the solubility of the gas
(3) KH is not a function of nature of gas
(4) KH value for all gases is same at a given pressure

Pg. 8
63. The IUPAC name of the given compound is
CH 3 CH 3
H

H Br
CH 3
1) 3-bormo-2-methylbut-1-ene 2) 4-bromo-3-methylpent-2-ene
3) 1-bromo-2-methylbut-2-ene 4) none of these
64. 20% of a first order reaction is completed in 20 minutes. Then what percentage of it is completed in
40 min?
(1) 72 (2) 80 (3) 120 (4) 36
65. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R)
Assertion(A): Boron is unable to form BF63 ion.
Reason(R): Due to non-availability of d-orbitals, boron is unable to expand its octet.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
O O
|| ||
66. A) CH 3  CH 2  C  H B) CH3  C  CH3
Incorrect statement about A and B is
1) A and B are functional isomers
2) A and B exhibit tautomerism
3) A and B can be differentiated by using Tollens reagent.
4) A and B give iodoform test
67. (n  1)d10 ns2 is the general electronic configuration of
1) Cu, Ag, Au 2) Cr, Mo, W 3) Zn, Cd, Hg 4) Sc, Y, La
68. In which of the following processes, the bond order has increased and paramagnetic character has
changed to diamagnetic?
(1) O2  O2 (2) O2  O22 (3) N 2  N 2 (4) NO  N 
69. Which of the following acids is a vitamin?
(1) Aspartic acid (2) Ascorbic acid (3) Adipic acid (4) Saccharic acid
70. Given blow are two statements:
Statement-I: Addition of chlorine to alkene in presence of CCl4 solvent will give geminal dichloride.
Statement-II: Addition of two mole of HCl to alkyne will give vicinal dichloride.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
71. [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O are
1) Linkage isomers 2) Hydrate isomers
3) Coordination position isomers 4) Ionisation isomers

Pg. 9
72. Column - I Column - II
(A) XeF4 (i) Pyramidal
(B) XeF6 (ii) Square planar
(C) XeOF4 (iii) Distorted octahedral
(D) XeO3 (iv) Square pyramidal
Regarding structure correct match is
(1) A-III, B-IV,C-I,D-II (2) A-I, B-II,C-III,D-IV
(3) A-II, B-III,C-IV,D-I (4) A-II, B-III,C-I,D-IV
73. A2  B2  2 AB........I ;
A2  2 A........II ;
2 B  B2 ........III ;
If k1 , k2 , k3 are the equilibrium constants of I, II and III respectively then for the reaction A  B  AB
equilibrium constant is
kk k1k3 k k1
(1) 1 3 (2) (3) 1 (4)
k2 k2 k2 k3 k2 k3
74. The two isomers given below are
COOH COOH
H OH H OH
HO H and
H OH
COOH COOH
1) Enantiomers 2) Diastereomers
3) Same molecule 4) Positional isomers
75. Number of significant figures in 2.0034 is
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 3
76. The order HF  HCl  HBr  HI corresponds to which of the following properties
1) Bond length 2) Thermal stability
3) Bond dissociation enthalpy 4) Dipole moment
77. Non reducing sugar among the following is
(1) Fructose (2) Galactose (3) Mannose (4) Sucrose
78. 2  0
The emf of the following Galvanic cell is Mg / Mg (0.1M ) / / Cl (0.01M ) / Cl2(1atm) , pt is Ecell  3.70V
(1) 3.70 V (2) 3.76 V (3) 3.88 V (4) 3.52 V
79. Match the columns
Column-I (Reaction) Column-II (Product)
O O
(CH3)2Cd
C2H5 C Cl C H C CH3
(A) (p) 2 5
O O
i) CH3MgBr
C2 H 5 C H C H C C6H5
(B) ii) H3O+ (q) 2 5
Hg2+ , H2SO4 O
CH3 C C H
H2 O CH3 C CH3
(C) (r)
CH3CH2CN
i) PhMgBr OH
(D) ii) H3O+
C2H5 CH CH3
(s)

1) (A) − (p), (B) − (s), (C) − (r), (D) − (q) 2) (A) − (q), (B) − (s), (C) − (p), (D) − (r)
3) (A) − (s), (B) − (r), (C) − (q), (D) − (p) 4) (A) − (r), (B) − (s), (C) − (p), (D) − (q)

Pg. 10
80. The rate constant of a first order reaction is K. The time ‘t’ required for the completion of 99.9% the
reaction is given by
4.606 6.909 23.03 0.301
(1) t  (2) t  (3) t  (4) t 
k k k k
81. Read the following statements about the group 14 elements and their compounds.
A) Tin decomposes steam to form dioxide and dihydrogen gas.
B) GeX4 is more stable than GeX2, whereas PbX2 is more stable than PbX4.
C) The dioxides — CO2, SiO2 and GeO2 are acidic, whereas SnO2 and PbO2 are amphoteric in
nature.
D) The first ionization enthalpy of group 14 members is smaller than the corresponding members of
group 13.
Chose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A and D only 2) B and C only
3) A, B and D only 4) A, B and C only
82. Acetanilide on nitration followed by hydrolysis mainly gives
1) o-Nitro acetanilide 2) p-Nitroaniline
3) m-Nitroaniline 4) 2, 4, 6-Trinitroaniline
83. Consider the complex having molecular formula CoCl3.4NH3. Its Werner's structure gives the
information.
1) Two Cl– ions and four NH3 molecules satisfy secondary valencies.
2) Three Cl– ions and four NH3 molecules satisfy secondary valencies.
3) Two Cl– ions and one NH3 molecules satisfy primary valencies.
4) Three Cl– ions satisfy both primary and secondary valencies.
84. The radius of the second Bohr orbit, in terms of the Bohr radius, a0 , in Li 2 is
2a0 4a 4a 2a
(1) (2) 0 (3) 0 (4) 0
3 3 9 9
85. In which of the following reactions O – H bond breaking of alcohol is not involved
1) C2 H5OH  Na  2) CH 3COOH  C2 H 5OH 
ZnCl
3) C2 H5OH  HCl 
2
 4) CH 3MgCl  C 2 H5OH 
SECTION-B
86. Given below are some statements regarding carbylamine test of amines
A) In carbylamine test primary amine is heated with chloroform and alcoholic KOH.
B) Aliphatic as well as aromatic primary amines give carbylamine test
C) Carbylamine so formed is highly toxic and should be destroyed immediately after the test. For
this cool the test tube and add carefully an excess of conc. HCl.
D) Alkyl cyanide is the product when primary amine is heated with chloroform and alcoholic KOH.
1) Only B, C and D are true
2) Only A, B and D are true
3) Only A, B and C are true
4) All are true statements
87. One mole of a perfect gas expand reversibly and isothermally to ten times of its original volume. The
change in entropy
(1) 0.1 R (2) 10 R (3) 2 R (4) 2.303 R

Pg. 11
88. Galvanisation is
(1) Zinc coating on iron (2) Iron coating on zinc
(3) Both 1 & 2 (4) Silver coating on iron
89. The Van’tHoff factor of 0.005 m aq.solution of KCl is 1.95. The degree of ionization of KCl is
(1) 0.95 (2) 0.97 (3) 0.90 (4) 0.99
90. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R)
Assertion(A): Dry ether is used as solvent in the Wurtz reaction of alkyl halide with sodium metal.
Reason(R): Wurtz reaction is used for the preparation of symmetrical alkanes containing even
number of carbon atoms.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
91. –141 kJ mol–1, –200 kJ mol–1, –195 kJ mol–1, –190 kJ mol–1 and –174 kJ mol–1 are the electron gain
enthalpy values of group 16 elements. Which value is associated with sulphur?
1) –200 kJ mol–1 2) –190 kJ mol–1
3) –141 kJ mol–1 4) –174 kJ mol–1
92. 25 mL of the given HCl solution requires 30 mL of 0.1M sodium carbonate solution. What is the
volume of this HCl solution required to titrate 30mL of 0.2M aqueous NaOH solution?
(1) 50mL (2) 75mL (3) 12.5mL (4) 25mL
93. The graph between [ ] and r(radial distance) is shown below. This represents
2

(1) 3s orbital (2) 2p orbital (3) 1s orbital (4) 2s orbital

94. Which oxide of manganese is acidic in nature
1) MnO 2) Mn 2O7 3) Mn 2O3 4) MnO2
95. Which of the following molecules is more reactive towards aromatic electrophilic substitution
reaction?
OCH3 NH2 CH3 NH-CO-CH3

1) 2) 3) 4)
96. Which of the following is not a fibrous protein ?
1) wool 2) silk 3) Albumin 4) Myosin
97. Given blow are two statements:
Statement-I: In the case of nitrogen, all oxidation states from +1 to +4 tend to disproportionate in
acid solution.
Statement-II: Basicity of group 15 hydrides decreases in the order NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
Pg. 12
98. IUPAC name of Cr  NH 3 6   SO4 3 is
2

1) Hexaammine chromium (III) sulphate

2) Hexaammine chromate (III) sulphate
3) Hexaammine sulphato chromium (III)
4) Bis (Hexaammine chromium (III)) trisulphate
99. Assertion (A) : All the ‘S atoms in S 4 O62 have oxidation number equal to +2.5
Reason (R) : Average oxidation number of sulphur in S 4 O62 is +2.5
(1) A & R are correct R is the correct explanation of A
(2) A & R are correct R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct, but R is wrong
(4) A is wrong, but R is correct
100. pKa of a weak acid (HA) and pKb of a weak base (BOH) are 3.2 and 3.4, respectively. The pH of their
salt (AB) solution is:
(1) 7.0 (2) 1.0 (3) 7.2 (4) 6.9
BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. Which of the following organelle does not belong to endomembrane system?
(1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast (3) Peroxisomes (4) All of these
102. The Km value is:
(1) Enzyme concentration at half-maximal velocity
(2) Temperature co-efficient at half-maximal velocity
(3) Substrate concentration at half-maximal velocity
(4) Inhibitor constant at half-maximal velocity
103. Identify the correct statement of the following:
(1) Papaver shows multicarpellary, apocarpous pistil.
(2) The vegetative cell of a pollen grain contains a spindle-shaped nucleus.
(3) Pollen grains in some cereals lose viability within 30 min. of their release.
(4) Insect pollination is quite common in grasses.
104. Identify the incorrect match of the following:
(1) 2, 4- D ------------ Kills immature monocot weeds.
(2) GA3 ---------------- Sprouting of potato tubers.
(3) Zeatin ------------- Delay of leaf senescence.
(4) Ethylene ---------- Root hair formation.
105. Karyogamy is delayed in:
(1) Phycomycetes & Basidiomycetes (2) Ascomycetes & Basidiomycetes
(3) Ascomycetes & Deuteromycetes (4) Basidiomycetes & Deuteromycetes
106. Bulliform cells are present in:
(1) Abaxial epidermis of leaves in grasses (2) Adaxial epidermis of leaves in dicots
(3) Abaxial epidermis of leaves in dicots (4) Adaxial epidermis of leaves in grasses
107. Prions are:
(1) Infectious proteins (2) Abnormally folded proteins
(3) Causative agents of brain disorders (4) All of these
108. Identify the correct statement w.r.t experiments of Morgan on linkage in drosophila:
(1) The y and w genes are linked more tightly than w and m genes.
(2) The w and m genes are more tightly linked than y and w genes.
(3) The genes y and w (or) w and m showed 9:3:3:1 ratio.
(4) Recombination frequency is greater in y and w genes than in m and w genes.
Pg. 13
109. Which of the following organelle shows cartwheel like structure?
(1) Centrosome (2) Flagellum (3) Cilium (4) Centriole
110. Parietal placentation is seen in:
(1) Sunflower (2) Pea (3) China rose (4) Mustard
111. The double helix of DNA and Triple helix of collagen are:
(1) Primary structures (2) secondary structures
(3) Tertiary structures (4) Quaternary structures
112. The chemical components that mediate pollen-pistil interactions are present in:
(1) Ovary (2) Pollen grains (3) Stigma (4) Both 2 and 3
113. Microbes used in the preparation of cheese are:
(1) Bacteria (2) Fungi (3) Yeast (4) More than one option
114. The C4 – plants developed a special mechanism to increase CO2- concentration at
RuBisCO enzyme site. That mechanism is:
(1) Decarboxylation of C3- acid (2) Decarboxylation of C4- acid
(3) Carboxylation of C3- acid (4) Carboxylation of C4- acid
115. Identify the correct match of the following:
Column- I Column- II
I. Sclerenchymatous pericycle A. Dicot root
II. Polyarch xylem bundles B. Monocot stem
III. Sclerenchymatous bundle sheath C. Monocot root
IV. Pith is small/inconspicuous D. Dicot stem
(1) I- B, II- A, III- D, IV- C (2) I- B, II- D, III- C, IV- A
(3) I- D, II- C, III- B, IV- A (4) I- C, II- B, III- D, IV- A
116. How many genes are produced, if 10 genes are subjected to 3 PCR cycles?
(1) 40 (2) 80 (3) 160 (4) 320
117. Nitrogen fixer in paddy fields is:
(1) Rhizobium (2) Frankia (3) Glomus (4) Anabaena
118. Assertion (A): Alien DNA and Vector DNA having sticky ends are widely used in rDNA
technology.
Reason (R): This stickiness of DNA ends facilitates the action of DNA ligase.
(1) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(2) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
119. In prokaryotes, ribosomes are associated with:
(1) Plasma membrane (2) Cytoplasm
(3) mRNA (4) All of these
120. The ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of:
(1) Ray florets of sunflower (2) Brinjal
(3) Rose (4) China rose
121. S- I: Cyt- C is a mobile electron carrier attached to the outer side of inner membrane of
mitochondria.
S- II: SDH involves in both Krebs cycle and ETS in mitochondria.
(1) S- I is true & S- II is false (2) S- I is false & S- II is true
(3) Both S-I & S-II are true (4) Both S- I & S- II are false
122. The cell walls fit together like a soap box in -----------------------:
(1) Diatoms (2) Dinoflagellates (3) Slime moulds (4) Euglenoids

Pg. 14
123. Identify the correct statement of the following:
(1) Pyrenoids contain starch besides protein.
(2) Floridian starch is similar to inulin and cellulose in structure.
(3) Red algae reproduce by non-motile spores and gametes.
(4) Agar is isolated from kelps.
124. To check the progression of restriction enzyme digestion ----------------- method is employed:
(1) Agarose gel electrophoresis (2) Polymerase chain reaction
(3) Paper chromatography (4) Cscl- density gradient centrifugation
125. Gametophyte is dioecious in:
(1) Selaginella (2) Pinus (3) Pisum (4) All of these
126. Select the correct match of the following:
Column- I Column- II
I. Tallest tree A. Equisetum
II. Horse tail B. Pinus
III. Mycorrhiza C. Marchantia
IV. Gemmae D. Sequoia
(1) I- B, II- A, III- D, IV- C (2) I- B, II- D, III- A, IV- C
(3) I- C, II- A, III- D, IV- B (4) I- D, II- A, III- B, IV- C
127. The antibiotic resistance gene gets inactivated due to the insertion of alien DNA helps in the
selection of:
(1) Transformed cells (2) Recombinant cells
(3) Non-transformed cells (4) Non- recombinant cells
128. RQ value will be less than one for:
(1) Citric acid (2) Tripalmitin (3) Proteins (4) Both 2 and 3
129. Haploid cells divide by mitosis in:
(1) Animals (2) Some lower plants (3) Social insects (4) Both 2 and 3
130. Diplotene lasts months or years in -----------------:
(1) Oocytes of all mammals (2) Pollen mother cells of plants
(3) Oocytes in some vertebrates (4) Insect salivary glands
131. Assertion (A): Differentiation in plants is open.
Reason (R): Meristems continuously divide and add new cells to the plant body.
(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
132. BOD is the direct measure of:
(1) Pollution potential of water
(2) Organic matter content in water
(3) Amount of oxygen consumed by aerobic bacteria
(4) All of these
132. In bacteria, DNA replication occurs:
(1) Before binary fission (2) In S- phase
(3) Before S- phase (4) DuringInterkinesis
133. The Intermediate size starch grains in pea is an example of:
(1) Codominance (2) Complete dominance
(3) Incomplete dominance (4) Polygenic inheritance

Pg. 15
134. The functions of GEAC are:
(A) Patent terms and R&D initiatives
(B) Validity of GM research
(C) Emergency provisions
(D) Safety of introduction of GMOs for public services
(1) A and B (2) B and C (3) B and D (4) A and D
135. The flowers pollinated by ------------------------------ release foul odours:
(1) Lizards and Birds (2) Lemurs and Rodents
(3) Flies and Beetles (4) All of these
SECTION-B
136. Removal of introns and joining of exons occur at the level of:
(1) hnRNA (2) rRNA (3) tRNA (4) mRNA
137. Assertion (A): Dominance depends on a product of phenotypic expression.
Reason (R): Morgan experiments in Drosophila were similar to Mendel’s one-gene inheritance.
(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
138. Select the correct match of the following:
Column- I Column- II
I. RER A. Packaging and transport
II. SER B. Acid hydrolases
III. Golgi complex C. Steroid hormones
IV. Lysosomes D. 80 S ribosomes
(1) I- C, II- D, III- B, IV- A (2) I- D, II- C, III- A, IV- B
(3) I- D, II- A, III- B, IV- C (4) I- B, II- A, III- C, IV- D
139. Gametophytes do not have an independent free-living existence in:
(1) Funaria (2) Pinus (3) selaginella (4) Adiantum
140. Which of the following is an amphoteric molecule?
(1) Lecithin (2) Adenylic acid (3) Starch (4) Alanine
141. Which of the following is an example for competitive enzyme inhibition?
(1) Bacterial pathogens are killed by penicillin.
(2) Action of statins on the key enzyme of cholesterol biosynthesis.
(3) Action of malonic acid on succinate dehydrogenase (SDH).
(4) All of these
142. Amino acids are added one by one and translated into polypeptide chains.
This is represented by:
(1) tRNA (2) mRNA (3) rRNA 4) DNA
143. Select the correct match of the following:
Column- I Column- II
I. Mustard A. Epicalyx
II. Hibiscus B. Polyandrous condition.
III. Tridax C. Zygomorphic flowers
IV. Wheat D. Persistent pappus like calyx
(1) I- B, II- A, III- D, IV- C (2) I- B, II- D, III- C, IV- A
(3) I- D, II- C, III- B, IV- A (4) I- C, II- B, III- D, IV- A

Pg. 16
144. Lac-operon is:
(1) Repressible operon (2) Catabolic operon
(3) Inducible operon (4) Both 2 and 3
145. The plant vectors Ti- plasmids are present in:
(1) B. thuringiensis (2) A. tumefaciens (3) E. coli (4) Retroviruses
146. S- I: Ori – gene in pBR322 controls DNA copy number.
S- II: rop- gene in pBR 322 controls Ori- gene by rop- protein.
(1) S- I is true & S- II is false (2) S- I is false & S- II is true
(3) Both S-I & S-II are true (4) Both S- I & S- II are false
147. Assertion (A): All living organisms on the earth are connected to one another.
Reason (R): They share the common genetic material to same level (degree).
(1) Both (A) and (R) are right
(2) (A) is right but (R) is wrong
(3) Both (A) and (R) are right, (R) correctly explains (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are right, (R) does not correctly explains (A).
148. Bacterial flagella can be seen under a microscope at --------------- magnification:
(1) 1500 X (2) 50, 000 X (3) 1,00, 000 X (4) 1, 50, 000 X
149. The highest degeneracy is shown by --------------------- aminoacid:
(1) Tryptophan (2) Arginine (3) Methionine (4) Isoleucine
150. How many of the following are non-defining characteristics of living organisms?
(Response to touch, Cellular organisation, Self-consciousness, Reproduction)
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. Read the following statements about AIDS
A. The word AIDS stands for “Additional Infectious Deficiency Syndrome”
B. It is caused by a group of ‘arbovirus’
C. AIDS is characterized by a group of symptoms
D. The disease was first reported in the year 1981
The correct statements among the above are
1. A and C 2. A and D 3. B, C and D 4. C and D
152. The historic convention on biological diversity, ‘The Earth Summit’ was held in Rio de Janerio in the
year:
1. 1986 2. 1992 3. 2002 4. 1985
153. The rate of biomass production by autotrophs which becomes available for the consumption to
heterotrophs is termed as
1. Gross Primary Productivity 2. Net Primary Producctivity
3. Gross Secondary Productivity 4. Net Secondary Productivity
154. Proinsulin is:
1. Pro – enzyme
2. Has more peptide chains but equal the number of disulphide bridges.
3. Produced by liver and get activated in pancreas
4. Has less amino acids than mature insulin
155. Statement – I: Male and female grasshopper have same humber of autosomes.
Statement – II: The type of sex determination in grasshopper is XO type.
1. Both the statements – I and II are correct
2. Both the statements – I and II are incorrect
3. Statement – I is only correct
4. Statement – I is incorrect whereas statement – II is correct.

Pg. 17
156. Read the following lines about Chikungunya and identify the incorrect statement:
1. Symptoms includes fever and severe joint pain.
2. Spread by the bite of an infected mosquito.
3. Caused by gram negative bacterium.
4. Treatment for symptoms includes rest, fluids, and use of analgesics and antipyretics.
157. THe ‘variable number of tandem repeats’ used as a probe in the
1. Expressed sequence tag 2. Bacterial Arificial Chromosome
3. Satellite DNA 4. Restriction enzyme
158. Greatest biodiversity on earth can be seen in:
1. Temperate Amazon Rain Forest of South America
2. Alpine Amazon Rain Forest of South America
3. Tropical Amazon Rain Forest of South America
4. Tropical Amazon Rain Forest of North America
159. Read the following statements carefully:
A. It is due to the absence of one autosome.
B. Individuals are very tall with severe facial disfigurement.
C. Affected females are ferile whereas affected males are sterile.
D. The affected individuals have rudimentary gonads and lack secondary sexual characters.
Among the above, the correct statement(s) regarding Turner’s syndrome:
1. Only A and C 2. A and D 3. Only D 4. C and D
160. Match List – I with List – II with reference to certain phenomenon and their venue/location:
A. Gametogenesis I. Uterus
B. Insemination II. Fallopian tubule
C. Fertilizaton III. Vagina
D. Implantation IV. Primary sex organs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1. A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I 2. A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
3. A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I 4. A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
161. Match List – I with List – II with reference to the recent extinct animals:
List – I (Animals) List – II (Area)
A. Dodo I. Indonesia
B. Quagga II. Africa
C. Thylacine III. Mauritius
D. Caspian IV. Australia
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1. A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I 2. A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
3. A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I 4. A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
162. One can remain free of these STD/RTIs, if he/she can follow all these steps, except:
1. Avoiding sex with unknown partners or multiple partners.
2. In case of doubt, get diagnosed and get complete treatment.
3. Always try to use condoms during coitus.
4. Avoiding marriage even after marriageable age.
163. Assertion (A): The problem of predation is more severe for plants.
Reason (R): Unlike animals, plants cannot run anway from their predators.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.
1. Both A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation to A
2. Both A and R are correct. R is the not correct explanation to A
3. A is correct but R is incorrect
4. Both A and R are false
Pg. 18
164. The centre primarily responsible for the regulation of respiratory activity is _______ and is located in
_______.
1. Rhythm centre, Medulla oblongata 2. Pneumotaxic centre, Pons.
3. Respiratory rhythm centre, Pons 4. Pneumotaxic centre, Medulla, hind brain.
165. Match column – I with column – II and choose the correct option with reference to Population
Interaction:
Column – I (Interaction) Column – II (Species A and B).
A. Mutualism i. – (A), 0 (B).
B. Commensalism ii. + (A), – (B).
C. Amensalism iii. + (A), + (B).
D. Parasitism iv. + (A), 0 (B).
1. A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv 2. A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i
3. A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii 4. A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii
166. The following factors might be responsible for oncogenic transformation of normal cell.
1. Physical agents 2. Chemical agents
3. Biological agents 4. All of the above
167. Functionally the following are antagonistic in action:
1. ANF and Angiotensin – II 2. Angiotensin – I and Angiotensin – II
3. Vasopressin and ADH 3. ADH and Angiotensinogen.
168. Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option:
A. Typhoid I. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Malaria II. Wuchereria bancrofti
C. Pneumonia III. Plasmodium vivax
D. Filaria IV. Salmonella typhi
1. A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III 2. A– IV, B – III, C – I, D – II
3. A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I 4. A– I, B – III, C – II, D – IV
169. ELISA stands for:
1. Estimating Lymphocyte In Serum Accuracy
2. Entire Leucocyte Incident Serum Assay
3. Enzyme Linked Immunity Serum Assay
4. Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay
170. Which of the following is not a connective tissue:
1. Bone 2. Muscle 3. Blood 4. Cartilage.
171. Match the contents of Column – I with Column – II
List – I List – II
A. P – wave I. Depolarization of ventricles
B. QRS – Complex II. End of systole
C. T – wave III. Depolarization of atria
D. End of T – wave IV. Repolarization of ventricles
Choose the correct answer from the option given below
1. A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II 2. A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II
3. A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II 4. A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
172. Read the following statements carefully:
Statement (A): Frogs are poikilothermic.
Statement (2): Frog never drink water.
1. Both the statements (1) and (2) are correct
2. Both the statements (1) and (2) are incorrect
3. Only statement (1) is correct
4. Only statement (2) is correct
Pg. 19
173. From the following pedigree chart of a family, one can make on analysis that:

1. It is an autosomal recessive trait 2. It is an allosomal dominant trait.

3. It is an autosomal dominant trait 4. It is an allosomal recessive trait.
174. Assertion (A): HIV or AIDS infected persons need not be isolated from family and society
Reason (R): HIV or AIDS will not spread by mere touch or physical contact
1. Both A and R are true. R is clear explanation to A
2. A is true, R is false
3. Both A and R are true. R doesn’t explain A
4. Both A and R are false
175. Match the column – I with column – II and choose the CORRECT answer from the following given
options:
Column – I Column – II
A. Myasthenia gravis i. Decreased bone mass
B. Muscular Dystrophy ii. Autoimmune disorder
C. Osteoporosis iii. Rapid spasm due to low Ca++
D. Tetany iv. Genetic disorder
1. A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D – iv 2. A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv
3. A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii 4. A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i
176. Read the following statements about annelids:
A. It includes few parasitic (blood suckers).
B. Body wall muscles (both longitudinal and circular) help in locomotion.
C. It includes both aquatic and terrestrial forms.
D. Paired ganglia are connected to the nerve cord by lateral nerves.
E. Annelida includes both monoecious and dioecious forms.
The correct statemenst among the above are:
1. Only A 2. B and D 3. D and E 4. A, B, C, D and E
177. Match the following:
List – I (Body parts) List – II (Example)
A. Proboscis, collar and trunk I. Loligo
B. Water vascular system II. Spongilla
C. Head, foot and hump III. Scorpion
D. Head, thorax and abdomen IV. Saccoglossus.
E. Water canal system V. Echinus
Choose the correct combination:
1. A – IV, B – V, C – I, D – III, E – II 2. A – III, B – V, C – II, D – I, E – IV
3. A – V, B – IV, C – II, D – III, E – I 4. A – IV, B – V, C – III, D – I, E – II
178. Read the given statements and identify them as True (T) or False (F):
I. Thread like anal styles are absent in female cockroach.
II. Mesothoracic wings called tegmina are used in flight.
III. A ring of 6 – 8 blind tubes called hepatic caecae are present at the junction of midgut and Ileum.
IV. Male cockroach excrete in the form of urea whereas female cockroach as uric acid.
1. I – F, II – F, III – F, IV – T 2. I – T, II – F, III – T, IV – T
3. I – T, II – F, III – F, IV – T 4. I – T, II – F, III – F, IV – F
Pg. 20
179. Trachea is a straight tube which bifurcates into right and left bronchi at the level of:
1. 5th cervical vertebra 2. 12th vertebra
3. 7th thoracic vertebra 4. 12th thoracic vertebra
180. Thyroid gland produces certain hormones with iodine as their raw material. Identify the thyroid
hormone, which is not composed of iodine.
1. TSH 2. T3 3. T4 4. TCT.
181. ‘Zygomatic’ is the part of:
1. Skull 2. Vertebral column 3. Pectoral girdle 4. Bones of hind limb
182. The type of natural selection in which more individuals acquire peripheral character value at both ends
of the distribution curve is:
1. Stabilizing selection 2. Centripital selection
3. Disruptive selection 4. Directional selection
183. When released from ovary, each human ovum carries:
1. One Y chromosome 2. One X chromosome
3. Either X or Y chromosome 4. Both X and Y chromosome
184. Juxta Glmoerular Apparatus is a special sensitive region formed by the cellular modification in:
1. Distal convoluted tubule and afferent arteriole
2. Proximal convoluted tubule and afferent arteriole.
3. Loop of Henle and Distal convoluted tubule
4. Descending limb of Loop of Henle and Distal convoluted tubule.
185. Within a neuron, the Nissl bodies are observed in:
1. Dendrites and Cell body 2. Cell body and axon
3. Axon and Dendron 4. Dendrites, Axon and Cell body
SECTION-B
186. Spirometer cannot evaluate:
1. Tidal volume 2. Inspiratory capacity
3. Vital capacity 4. Residual volume.
187. In human heart the Chordae tendinae are found in:
1. Atria and Ventricles 2. Both Atria
3. Both Ventricles 4. At Nodal tissue
188. The number of bones of axial skeleton are:
1. 206 2. 80 3. 126 4. 29
189. According to Hardy Weinberg equation, allelic frequency of heterozygous is:
1. p2 2. 1 3. 2 pq 4. q2
190. Radula is:
1. Larval form of coelenterate 2. File like rasping organ of molluscs
3. Larval form of annelids 4. Stomochord of hemichordate
191. The functioning of the kidney is efficiently monitored and regulated by:
1. Hormone feedback by Hypothalamus 2. Juxta Glomerular Apparatus
3. Heart 4. All the above three.
192. The correct sequence in the evolution of modern man is:
1. Dryopithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens.
2. Australopithecus → Dryopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens.
3. Homo habilis → Dryopithecus → Australopithecus → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens.
4. Dryopithecus → Homo habilis → Australopithecus → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens.
193. Which type of joint is characterised by fluid filled cavity and plays a significant role in locomotion
and movement:
1. Fibrous joint 2. Cartilaginous joint
3. Synarthrodial joint 4. Synovial joint
Pg. 21
194. Location of thymus gland:
1. Between thyroid and parathyroid glands 2. Dorsal to heart and ventral to aorta
3. Dorsal to sternum and ventral to heart 4. Between the heart and lungs
195. The amount of blood ejected from each ventricle per stroke is about:
1. !20 mL 2. 220 mL 3. 70 mL 4. 140 mL
196. Statement – I: Number of chromosomes in each spermatid are 23
Statement – II: The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa (sperms) by the process called
spermiogenesis.
1. Both I and II are correct 2. Statement – I is only correct
3. Statement – II is only correct 4. Both I and II are incorrect
197. In sharks, the teeth are modified __________ scales and are directed ___________ (respectively).
1. Placoid, forwardly 2. Placoid, backwardly
3. Ctenoid, backwardly 4. Ctenoid, both backwardly and forwardly
198. Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland ecosystem
Column – I Column – II
(a). Fourth Trophic Level (i) Crow
(b). Second Trophic Level (ii) Vulture
(c). First Trophic Level (iii) Rabbit
(d). Third Trophic Level (iv) Grass
Select the correct option
1. (a) – i, (b) – ii, (c) – iii, (d) – iv 2. (a) – ii, (b) – iii, (c) – iv, (d) - i
3. (a) – iii, (b) – ii, (c) – i, (d) – iv 4. (a) – iii, (b) – iv, (c) – ii, (d) - i
199. ‘Charas’ and ‘Ganja’ are the drugs which effect
1. Digestive system 2. Respiratory system
3. Excretory system 4. Cardiovascular system
200. The list of people who are at high risk of getting HIV infection are given below. Identify who does not
belong to this category:
1. Having multiple sexual partners 2. Drug addicts who take drugs intravenously
3. Who require repeated blood transfusions 4. Working in stone crushing industry

*** ALL THE BEST ***

Pg. 22
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 29.11.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-9 Max.Marks: 720

KEY
PHYSICS

1) 1 2) 3 3) 3 4) 1 5) 4 6) 4 7) 3 8) 2 9) 2 1 0) 3
1 1) 2 1 2) 3 1 3) 3 1 4) 4 1 5) 1 1 6) 4 1 7) 3 1 8) 2 1 9) 2 2 0) 3
2 1) 1 2 2) 1 2 3) 2 2 4) 2 2 5) 1 2 6) 3 2 7) 1 2 8) 3 2 9) 3 3 0) 3
3 1) 4 3 2) 1 3 3) 1 3 4) 1 3 5) 2 3 6) 1 3 7) 1 3 8) 2 3 9) 3 4 0) 1
4 1) 1 4 2) 4 4 3) 4 4 4) 1 4 5) 1 4 6) 4 4 7) 3 4 8) 2 4 9) 4 5 0) 2

CHEMISTRY
5 1) 4 5 2) 3 5 3) 3 5 4) 2 5 5) 1 5 6) 2 5 7) 1 5 8) 2 5 9) 3 6 0) 2
6 1) 4 6 2) 2 6 3) 2 6 4) 4 6 5) 2 6 6) 4 6 7) 3 6 8) 4 6 9) 2 7 0) 3
7 1) 2 7 2) 3 7 3) 2 7 4) 2 7 5) 1 7 6) 1 7 7) 4 7 8) 3 7 9) 1 8 0) 2
8 1) 4 8 2) 2 8 3) 1 8 4) 2 8 5) 3 8 6) 3 8 7) 4 8 8) 1 8 9) 1 9 0) 3
9 1) 1 9 2) 4 9 3) 4 9 4) 2 9 5) 2 9 6) 3 9 7) 3 9 8) 1 9 9) 4 1 0 0) 4

BOTANY
1 0 1) 4 1 0 2) 3 1 0 3) 3 1 0 4) 2 1 0 5) 2 1 0 6) 4 1 0 7) 4 1 0 8) 1 1 0 9) 4 1 1 0) 4
1 1 1) 2 1 1 2) 4 1 1 3) 4 1 1 4) 2 1 1 5) 3 1 1 6) 2 1 1 7) 4 1 1 8) 2 1 1 9) 4 1 2 0) 3
1 2 1) 3 1 2 2) 1 1 2 3) 3 1 2 4) 1 1 2 5) 4 1 2 6) 4 1 2 7) 2 1 2 8) 4 1 2 9) 4 1 3 0) 3
1 3 1) 2 1 3 2) 1 1 3 3) 3 1 3 4) 3 1 3 5) 3 1 3 6) 1 1 3 7) 3 1 3 8) 2 1 3 9) 2 1 4 0) 4
1 4 1) 4 1 4 2) 2 1 4 3) 1 1 4 4) 4 1 4 5) 2 1 4 6) 3 1 4 7) 2 1 4 8) 2 1 4 9) 2 1 5 0) 3

ZOOLOGY
1 5 1) 4 1 5 2) 2 1 5 3) 2 1 5 4) 2 1 5 5) 1 1 5 6) 3 1 5 7) 3 1 5 8) 3 1 5 9) 3 1 6 0) 4
1 6 1) 1 1 6 2) 4 1 6 3) 1 1 6 4) 1 1 6 5) 3 1 6 6) 4 1 6 7) 1 1 6 8) 2 1 6 9) 4 1 7 0) 2
1 7 1) 4 1 7 2) 1 1 7 3) 1 1 7 4) 1 1 7 5) 3 1 7 6) 4 1 7 7) 1 1 7 8) 4 1 7 9) 2 1 8 0) 4
1 8 1) 1 1 8 2) 3 1 8 3) 2 1 8 4) 1 1 8 5) 1 1 8 6) 4 1 8 7) 3 1 8 8) 3 1 8 9) 3 1 9 0) 2
1 9 1) 4 1 9 2) 1 1 9 3) 4 1 9 4) 3 1 9 5) 3 1 9 6) 1 1 9 7) 2 1 9 8) 2 1 9 9) 4 2 0 0) 4

PAPER SETTER- VIJ-N120

S NO SUBJECT NAME MOBILE NO
1 PHYSICS Sri. VVRK 9182375936
2 CHEMISTRY Sri. Nagaiah 9849655655
3 BOTANY Sri. Rasool 9000106103
4 ZOOLOGY Sri. Abdul Shafeeq 9700006360

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 Hints & Solutions
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4. Conceptual
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SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 05.12.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-11 Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
In ever y s u bject:
( a ) In Section – A , 3 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. A n s w er all 3 5 qu estion s from section – A
( b ) In Section – B , 1 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. O ut of w hich A n s w er 1 0 qu estion s onl y .
(c) E ach qu estion c a rries 4 m a r k s. F or e ach correct respon se w ill get 4 m a r k s. F or e ach
incorrect respon se, one m a r k w ill be d e d ucte d from th e tot al scores.
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. The terminal potential difference of a cell is greater than its e.m.f. when it is
1) Being discharged 2) Being charged
3) Being either charged or discharged 4) In open circuit
2. The magnetic field due to current carrying circular loop of radius 6cm at a point on the axis at a
distance of 8cm from the centre is 27 T . The magnetic field at the centre of current carrying a loop
is.
1) 75 T 2) 125 T 3) 150 T 4) 250 T
3. Consider a network of resistances each of value of R as shown in figure

Column – I Column – II
a) Equivalent of network between A and C is p) same
5
b) Equivalent resistance between A and B q) R
8
c) Potentials of B and D when voltage source r) R
is applied across A and C is
d) Equivalent resistance between B and D is s) R/2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1) r q p s
2) q r s p
3) s p r q
4) p s q r
4. Assertion (A): It is better to wash clothes in hot soap water solution.
Reason (R): The surface tension of hot soap water solution is less than the surface tension of cold-
water solution.
1) Both A and R are true and R explains A 2) Both A and R are true but R doesn't explain A
3) A is true but R is false 4) Both A and R are false

Pg. 1
5. A circular wire loop of radius 'a' carries a total charge Q distributed uniformly over its length. A
small length dL of the wire is cut off. The electric field at the centre due to remaining wire
1 QdL 1 QdL 1 QdL 1 QdL
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 o a 2
8  o a
2 3
2 o a 6 o a 4
6. Assertion (A): The lines of induced electric field are closed curves and have no beginning and ending
Reason (R): The induced electric field is non conservative in nature
1) Both A and R are true and R explains A 2) Both A and R are true but R doesn't explain A
3) A is true but R is false 4) Both A and R are false
7. In a Vernier calipers, 19 main scale division is equal to 20 vernier scale division smallest division on
the main scale is 1mm, when fixed jaw touches the movable jaw, zero of vernier scale lies on the
right of the zero of the main scale and 15th division of vernier scale coincides with any division of
main scale. What is the type of zero error and its value?
1) positive, 0.75 mm 2) negative, 0.75 mm 3) positive, 0.15 mm 4) negative, 0.15 mm
8. Two spheres of radii in the ratio 2: 3 have charges 2q and 3q. The force between them is F for certain
separation. Now they are touched with each other and placed at the same separation. The force
between them becomes
5F
1) F 2) 2F 3) 5F 4)
3
9. The electric potentials at A, B and C due to the following charged (Q) conductors are VA ,VB , and VC
respectively. Then
(Consider Radius is same in all)

1) VA ,VB & VC 2) VA  VB  VC 3) VA  VB  VC 4) VA  VB  VC
10. The ratio of energy required to raise a satellite up to a height 2R above the earth surface (R=radius of
earth) to the magnitude of total energy of satellite revolving in an orbit at that height is
1) 2:3 2) 3:1 3) 4:1 4) 5:2
11. A charged particle is projected in a magnetic field of  7 iˆ  3 ˆj  T. The acceleration of the particle is
found to be (ai+7j) m/s². Find the value of a
1) 1 2) 3 3) 5 4) 0
12. Two rods A and B of identical dimensions are at temperatures 30°C. If A is heated upto 180°C and B
upto T°C, their lengths became same. The ratio of  of A and B is 4: 3 then the value of T is
1) 150°C 2) 200°C 3) 100°C 4) 230°C
13. Which of the following statement/s are correct
Statement A: A metal sphere of radius 1cm cannot hold a charge of 1 coulomb
Statement B: The dielectric strength of air is 3 106 V/m
1) Both A and B are true 2) A is true, B is false 3) Both A and B are false 4) A is false, B is true
14. Four wires from a larger circuit intersect at the junction A as shown. The magnitude and direction of
the current between points A and B

1) 2A from A to B 2) 2A from B to A 3) 3A from A to B 4) 6A from A to B

Pg. 2
15. An alternating current is given by i   3sin t  4 cos t  A. The rms current will be
7 1 5
1) A 2) A 3) A 4) 5 A
2 2 2
16. In the following graph, distance travelled by the body in metres is

1) 200 2) 250 3) 300 4) 400

17. If magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to magnitude of difference of those two vectors, then the
angle between the vectors is
1) 45° 2) 180° 3) 0° 4) 90°
18. In the fig., a massless pulley is pulled by a constant force of magnitude P. There is no friction
between the block and the floor. The acceleration produced in the block of mass m is

1) P/m 2) P/2 m 3) P/3 m 4) P/4 m

19. A block of mass 2 Kg rests on another block of mass 3 Kg and the second block is on a smooth table.
Coefficient of friction between the two block is 0.2. Then the largest force that can be applied on the
lower block so that the system moves without sliding off of the upper block is

1) 4.9 N 2) 9.8 N 3) 14.7 N 4) 19.6 N

20. A uniform chain has mass M and length L respectively. It is lying on a smooth horizontal table with
half of its length hanging vertically down. The work done in pulling the chain completely on to the
table is
1) MgL/2 2) MgL/4 3) MgL/8 4) MgL/16
21. A particle moves along the Y-axis according to the equation y = a + b sinwt. The motion is simple
harmonic. The maximum acceleration of the particle has a magnitude of
1) a2 2) b2 3)  2 a 2  b 2 4) w2  a  b 
22. When YDSE is carried out in liquid, 5th bright fringe lies at a point on the screen where 3rd dark
fringe lying in air. The refractive index of the medium is
1) 1.5 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1.2
23. Average magnetic energy density in plane electromagnetic wave is x. The average electric energy
density is
1) x 2) 2 x 3) x/2 4) x
24. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron at 270 C is  . What will be its wavelength at 927°C?
   
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3 4 9

Pg. 3
25. An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom passes from the fifth energy level to the ground level. The
velocity that the atom acquired as a result of photon emission will be (m is the mass of the electron,
R-Rydberg constant and h-plank's constant)
24hR 25hR 25m 24m
1) 2) 3) 4)
25m 24m 24hR 25hR
26. A full wave rectifier is used to convert 50 Hz ac to dc. Then the number of pulses per sec present in
the rectified voltage is
1) 50 2) 100 3) 200 4) 400
27. Which of the following is the unit of mobility of an electron in a conductor?
1) kg 1s 2 A1 2) kg 1s 2 A 3) kg 1ms 2 A1 4) kgms 1 A1
28. A Carnot engine absorbs an amount of heat Q from a reservoir at an absolute temperature T and
rejects heat to a sink at a temperature T/3. The amount of heat rejected is
Q Q Q 2Q
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3 4 3
29. Statement I: At the centre of the earth the bodies become massless
Statement II: At the centre of the earth g becomes zero
1) Statements I and II are correct
2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
4) Statements I and II are incorrect
30. A capacitor of capacity C is charged by connecting it to a battery of emf E. The capacitor is now
disconnected and reconnected to the battery with reverse polarity. Heat developed in the connecting
wire is
1) 4 CE 2) 6CE2 3) 8 CE 4) 2CE 2
31. Two electrons, e1 and e2 of mass m and charge q are injected into the perpendicular direction of the
magnetic field B such that the kinetic energy of e1 is double than that of e2 The relation of their
frequencies of rotation, f₁ and f₂ is
1) f1  f 2 2) f1  2 f 2 3) 2 f1  f 2 4) 4 f1  f 2
32. A particle of mass 'm' is driven by a machine that delivers constant power 'k' watts. If the particle
starts from rest the force on the particle at time 't' is
mk 1/2 1
1) 2mkt 1/2 2) mkt 1/2 3) t 4) mkt 1/2
2 2
33. A man spinning in free space changes the shape of his body by spreading his arms (or) curling up.
By doing this he can change his
a) Moment of inertia b) Angular momentum
1) Both a and b are correct 2) Both a and b are false 3) Only a is correct 4) Only b is correct
34. A wheel of radius 'r' rolls without slipping with a speed 'v' on a horizontal road. When it is at point
'A’ on the road, a small lump of mud separates from the wheel at its highest point B and drops at
point 'C' on the road. The distance AC will be
r r r 3r
1) v 2) 2v 3) 4v 4) v
g g g g
35. If K1 and K 2 are maximum kinetic energies of photoelectrons emitted when lights of wavelength 1
and 2 respectively incident on a metallic surface. If 1  32 then
1) K1   K 2 / 3 2) K1   K 2 / 3 3) K1  3K 2 4) K 2  3K1

Pg. 4
 SECTION-B
36. A bomber plane moves horizontally with a speed of 500 m/s and a bomb released from it. strikes the
ground in 10 sec. Angle at which it strikes the ground will be ( g  10m / s 2 )

1 1
1) tan 1   2) tan 1   3) tan 1 1 4) tan 1  5
5 2
37. In an adiabatic process, the density of a diatomic gas becomes 32 times its initial value. The final
pressure of the gas is found to be n times the initial pressure. The value of n is:
1
1) 32 2) 326 3) 128 4)
32
38. An equilateral prism is placed on a horizontal surface. A ray PQ is incident onto it. For minimum
deviation

1) PQ is horizontal 2) QR is horizontal 3) RS is horizontal 4) any one will be horizontal

39. In a nuclear fission, 0.1% mass is converted into energy. The energy released by the fission of 1kg
mass will be
1) 9 1019 J 2) 9 1017 J 3) 9 1016 J 4) 9 1013 J
40. A spherical ball of iron of radius 2 mm is falling through a column of glycerine. If densities of
glycerine and iron are respectively 1.3 × 103 kg/m³ and 8 × 103 kg/m³, η coefficient of viscosity for
glycerine=0.83 Nm2 sec, then the terminal velocity is
1) 0.7 m/s 2) 0.07 m/s 3) 0.007 m/s 4) 0.0007 m/s
41. The I  V characteristics shown in figure represents

1) ohmic conductors 2) non-ohmic conductors 3) insulators 4) superconductors

42. If L denotes the inductance of an inductor through which a current i is flowing, the dimensions of Li²
are
1)  ML2T 2  2)  MLT 2  3)  M 2 L2T 2  4) Not expressible in M, L, T

43. A cylindrical resonance tube, open at both ends, has a fundamental frequency f in air. If half of the
length is dipped vertically in water, the fundamental frequency of the air column will be
3f f
1) 2) 2f 3) f 4)
2 2

Pg. 5
44. According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted
photoelectrons from a metal vs the frequency of the incident radiation gives a straight line whose
slope
1) depends on the intensity of the radiation
2) depends on the nature of the metal used
3) depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal used
4) is the same for all metals and independent of the intensity of the radiation
45. To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter, one should connect:
1) High resistance is series with galvanometer 2) Low resistance in series with galvanometer
3) Low resistance in parallel with galvanometer 4) High resistance in parallel with galvanometer
46. A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an angle of 60° with the horizontal direction,
with a velocity of 147 ms1 . Then the time interval after which inclination with the horizontal is 45
for the first time is

1) 15  
3 1 s 2) 15  
3 1 s 3) 7.5  
3 1 s 4) 7.5  
3 1 s

47. If the coefficient of cubical expansion is x times of the coefficient of superficial expansion, then
value of x is
1) 3 2) 2.5 3) 1.5 4) 2

48. Consider an electric field E  E0 xˆ where E0 is a constant. The flux through the shaded area (as

shown in the figure) due to this field is

2 2 E0 a 2
1) 2E0a 2) 2E0 a 2 3) E0a 4)
2
49. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of permittivity  0 and permeability is 0

given by

0 1 0
1) 2) 0 0 3) 4)
0 0 0 0

50. A heater of 220 V heats a volume of water in 5 minutes. A heater of 110 V heats the same volume of
water in
1) 5 minutes 2) 8 minutes 3) 10 minutes 4) 20 minutes

Pg. 6
 CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. The ratio of the concentration of dissociated water to the undissociated water at 250 C would be :
1) 1.0 107 2) 1.8 107 3) 1.0 109 4) 1.8 109
52. The order of degree of hydrolysis of M/10 solution of K 2O  I  , K 2 S  II  , K2 Se  III  and K 2Te  IV 

will be:
1) I > II > III > IV 2) IV > III > II > I 3) IV > II > I > III 4) I > III > IV > II
53. For following equilibrium;
PCl5  g   PCl3  g   Cl2 ( g ) and

N 2O4  g   2 NO2 ( g ) the degree of dissociation of PCl5 and N2O4 is same. If the ratio of

equilibrium pressure is 48:1 respectively, the ratio of  K p  to  K p  will be:

PCl 5 N O 2 4

1) 2: 9 2) 9: 1 3) 36: 1 4) 12: 1
54. Atomic mass of an element is 35.5. It has two isotopes of atomic mass 35 and 37. The % of heavier
isotope is:
1) 10 2) 15 3) 20 4) 25
55. Change in enthalpy of reaction
H 2O2  l   H 2O  l   1/ 2 O2  g 

If heat of formation of H 2O2  l  and H 2O  l  are –188 and–286 kJ/mol respectively:

1) –196 KJ/mol 2) +196 KJ/mol 3) +98 KJ/mol 4) –98 KJ/mol

56. Ammonia obtained from 0.4 gm of an organic substance by Kjeldahl’s method was absorbed in 30
ml of 0.25 M H 2 SO4 . The excess of acid was neutralized by the addition of 30 ml 0.2 M NaOH

calculate the % of nitrogen in the substance:

1) 31.5% 2) 30% 3) 26% 4) 20%
57. Among the following compounds, the optically active alkane having lowest molecular mass is

1) CH 3 – CH 2 – CH 2 – CH 3 2) 3) 4) CH 3 – CH 2 – C  CH

58. IUPAC name of the compound

1) 2-Methoxy-3-methylpentane 2) 3-Methyl-2-methoxyhexane
3) 3-Methyl-4-methoxypentane 4) 2-Methoxy hexane

Pg. 7
59. Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a product D
C6 H 5 NH 2 
NaNO2
HCL
 A 
CuCN
 B 
M2
Nl
 C 
HNO2
D

The structure of the product D would be:

1) C6 H 5CH 2OH 2) C6 H 5 H 2 NH 2 3) C6 H 5 NHOH 4) C6 H 5 NHCH 2CH 3

60. Which compound does not react with glucose:

1) HCN 2) NH3 3) NaHSO3 4) Both 2 and 3

61. If the following salts have the same magnitude of the solubility product, then the most soluble salt in
water is
1) AB 2) AB2 3) AB3 4) AB4

62. In a exothermic equilibrium A  3B  AB3 all the reactants and products are in the gaseous state.

According to Lechateliers principle, the formation of AB3 is favoured at

1) low temperature and low pressure 2) low temperature and high pressure
3) high temperature and high pressure 4) high temperature and low pressure
63. The vapour pressure of two liquids P and Q are 80 and 60 torr respectively. The total vapour pressure
of solution obtained by mixing 3 moles of P and 2 moles of Q would be (assuming ideal behaviour)
1) 68 torr 2) 20 torr 3) 140 torr 4) 72 torr
64. Number of amperes of current that must pass through a solution for one second to liberate 1cc of
Cl2 at STP is
1) 965 2) 43 3) 8.6 4) 96500

65. The rate constant of the reaction A → B is 0.6 ×10–3 mol L–1s–1 . If the initial concentration of
A is 5 M, then concentration of B after 1200 seconds is
1) 3.60 M 2) 0.36 M 3) 0.72 M 4) 1.08 M
66.
on heating w i t h NaHCO 3 releases

1) 2) 3) CO 4) H 2

67.

Select the correct one regarding A & B?


1) Both A & B gives benzoic acid with KMnO4 / KOH and H3O
2) A and B are homologues
3) Both A and B have same number of hyper conjugated H – atoms
4) A & B are functional isomers
Pg. 8
68. Methyl halides with highest and least dipole moment values are
1) CH 3 F , CH 3Cl 2) CH 3Cl , CH 3 I 3) CH 3Cl , CH 3 F 4) CH 3 F , CH 3 Br

69. The normality of 1 M solution of H3 PO4 in the following reaction H 3 PO4  NaOH  Na3 PO4  H 2O

is
1) 1 N 2) 2 N 3) 3 N 4) 4 N
70. The correct order of solubility in water for He, Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe is
1) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe 2) Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He
3) Ne > Ar > Kr > He > Xe 4) Ar > Ne > He > Kr > Xe
71. The major organic product in the reaction
CH 3 — O — CH  CH 3  2  HI 

1) ICH 2OCH  CH 3  2 2)

3) CH 3 I   CH3  2 CHOH 4) CH 3OH   CH 3  2 CHI

72. The major product formed in the following reaction is :

1) 2)

3) 4)
73. Which is the most suitable reagent among the following to distinguish compound (c) from rest of the
compounds ?
a) CH 3  C  C  CH 3 b) CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  CH 3 c) CH 3  CH 2C  CH d) CH 3CH  CH 2

1) Bromine in carbon tetrachloride 2) Bromine in acetic acid

3) Alk KMnO4 4) Ammonical silver nitrate
74. In nitrogen family, the H-M-H bond angle in the hydrides gradually becomes closer to 90 on going
from N to Sb. This shows that gradually
1) The basic strength of the hydrides increases
2) Almost pure p-orbitals are used for M-H bonding
3) The bond energies of M-H bonds increase
4) The bond pairs of electrons become nearer to the central atom
Pg. 9
75. In an adiabatic process which of the following is true?
1) q = + w 2) q = 0 3) E  q 4) P  V  0

76. (I) n  3, l  2, m1  –2

(II) n  3, l  1, m1  0

(III) n  3, l  0, m1  –1

(IV) n  3, l  2, m1  0

(V) n  3, l  3, m1  –2

Of this question state designation which does not describe an allowed state for an electron in an atom
1) I and IV 2) III and V 3) II and V 4) IV and V
77. The correct priorities for the substituents shown below, according to the E-Z sequence rule is

I. – CN II. – CBr (CH 3 ) 2 III. – COOH s IV. v.

1) II, III, V, I, IV 2) V, II, I, IV, III 3) III, IV, I, II, V 4) II, V, I, IV, III
78. Identify X in the sequence given:

1) 2) 3) 4)
79. Select the rate law that corresponds to the data shown for the following reaction A  B 
C
Expt. No [A] [B] Initial Rate
1 0.012 0.035 0.10
2 0.024 0.070 0.80
3 0.024 0.035 0.10
4 0.012 0.070 0.070
1) Rate = K[B]3 2) Rate = K [B]4 3) Rate = K [A] [B]3 4) Rate = K [A]2 [B]2
80. If Cl2 gas is passed into aqueous solution of KI containing some CCl4 and the mixture is shaken,
then”.
1) Upper layer becomes violet 2) Lower layer becomes violet
3) Homogenous violet layer is formed 4) None

Pg. 10
81. In an amino acid, the carboxyl group ionises at pK a1  2.34 and ammonium ion at pK a 2  9.60 The

isoelectric point of the amino acid is at pH

1) 5.97 2) 2.34 3) 9.60 4) 6.97
82. Equal volume of 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M glucose are mixed. The mixture will have
1) Lower osmotic pressure 2) Same osmotic pressure
3) Higher osmotic pressure 4) None of these
83. Which of the following shows iso-structural species?
    2 3 
1) NH 4 and NH 2 2) CH3 and CH3 3) SO4 , PO4 and  BF4  4) NH 4 and NH3

84. Fluorine is more electronegative than either boron or phosphorus. What conclusion can be drawn
from the fact that BF3 has no dipole moment but PF3 does?
1) BF3 is not spherically symmetrical but PF3 is spherically symmetrical.
2) BF3 molecule must be linear
3) The atomic radius of P is larger than that of B
4) The BF3 molecule must be planar triangular
85. An example of electrophilic substitution reaction is
1) Chlorination of methane 2) Conversion of methyl chloride to methyl alcohol
3) Nitration of benzene 4) Formation of ethylene from ethyl alcohol
SECTION-B
86. The screening effect of inner electrons on the nucleus causes:
1) Increase in the atomic size 2) An increase in the ionization potential
3) An increase electronegativity 4) All of these
87. In which of the following pair of species, both the metals are in its maximum Oxidation state:
3
1) CrO2Cl2 , MnO4 2) Fe3O4 , MnO2 3)  Fe  CN 6  , MnO3 4) None of these
88. Calculate the magnetic moment of a divalent ion in aqueous solution. If its atomic number is 25:
1) 3.92 BM 2) 5.92 BM 3) 2.92 BM 4) 8.92 BM
89. What should be the hybridisation of C in CO, CO2 and C3O2 respectively :
1) sp, sp2 and sp3 2) sp, sp and sp2 3) sp, sp and sp3 4) sp, sp and sp
90. If water vapour is assumed to be a perfect gas, molar enthalpy change for vapourisation of 1 mol of
water at 1 bar and 100 C is 41 kJ mol-1. Calculate the internal energy change, when 1 mol of water is
converted into ice
1) 21.00 kJ mol-1 2) 12 kJ mol-1 3) 14 kJ mol-1 4) None of these
91. Select the correct electronic configuration for high spin octahedral complex having d4 configuration
1) t23g e1g 2) t21 g eg3 3) t22g eg2 4) t2og eg4
92.

Which of the following is X?

1) 2) 3) 4)

Pg. 11
93. Statement I: Rate of chemical reaction increases with an increase in temperature.
Statement II: On increasing temperature, activation energy decreases.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from options given below.
1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
94. Pentane and isopentane are
1) Chain isomers 2) Metamers 3) Tautomers 4) Position isomers
95. Which among the following compounds will have minimum pKb in aqueous medium?
1) CH3 NH 2 2) (CH 3 )3 N 3) (CH3 )2 NH 4) NH3
96. What will be the emf for the given cell Pt H 2  P1  H   aq  H 2  P2  Pt
RT P1 RT P1 RT P2
1) ln 2) ln 3) ln 4) None of these
F P2 2 F P2 F P1
97. Tertiary nitro compounds do not tautomerise because
1) there is no double bond 2) there is no  -hydrogen
3) oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen 4) all of the above
98. In which case, van’t Hoff factor i remains unchanged?
1) PtCl4 reacts with aq. KCl 2) aq. ZnCl2 reacts with aq. NH3
3) aq. FeCl3 reacts with aq. K4 [Fe(CN)]6 4) KMnO4 reduced to MnO2 in alkaline medium
99. Which one of the following complexes will have four different isomers?
1)  Co  en  2 Cl2  Cl 2)  Co  en  NH 3  Cl2  Cl 3)  Co  PPh3  2 Cl2  Cl 4)  Co  en 3  Cl3
100. When dihydroxyacetone reacts with HIO4 , the product is/ are :
1) HCHO 2) HCOOH 3) HCHO and HCOOH 4) HCHO and CO2
BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. Which of the following gas abundant reserve food materials in the ovule?
1) Integuments 2) Hilum 3) Nucellus 4) Funicle
102. Which type of linkage/bond is formed when two nucleotides are linked to form a dinucleotide?
1) N-glycoside linkage 2) Peptide bond 3) Phosphodiester linkage 4) Hydrogen bond
103. Consider the following statements
A. Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils because of the presence of sporopollenin
B. Intine in pollen grain is a thin and continuous layer made up of cellulose and pectin
Choose the correct option
1)Only statement A is incorrect 2) Only statement B is incorrect
3) Both the statements are incorrect 4) Both the statements are correct
104. State true T or false F for given statement and choose the correct option.
a. The lac operon consists of two regulatory genes and four structural genes.
b. The y gene codes for permease, which increases permeability of the cell to  -galactosides.
a b
1) T T
2) T F
3) F T
4) F F

Pg. 12
105. Select the incorrect statement.
1) A translational unit in mRNA is the sequence of RNA that flanked by the start codon(AUG) and the
stop codon and codes for a polypeptide
2) An mRNA has some additional sequence that are not translated and are referred as untranslated
regions(UTR)
3) The UTRs are present only at 5’-end
4) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred as negative regulation
106. A. The DNA-dependent DNA polymerases catalyse polymerization only in one direction, that is 5 '  3 '
B. The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses the polymerization only in one direction, that is
3'  5'
Choose the correct option for the given statements
1) Only statement A is correct 2) Only statement B is correct
3) Both the statements are correct 4) Both statements are incorrect
107. Select the incorrect match
1) Aspergillus Niger - Acetic acid 2) Lactobacillus – Lactic acid
3) Saccharomyces – Ethanol 4) Clostridium butylicum – Butyric acid
108. Which of the following us a member of Phaeophyceae?
1) Volvox 2) Porphya 3) Laminaria 4) Chara
109. How many chromosomes will be found in a cell of at anaphase- II having 2n=50
1) 50 2) 40 3) 100 4) 25
110. Select the incorrectly matched pair regarding placentation and the examples.
Placentation Examples
1) Axile China rose and tomato
2) Basal Sunflower and marigold
3) Free central Mustard and Argemone
4) Marginal Pea
111. Which of the following is an example of opposite phyllotaxy?
1) Alstonia 2) Mustard 3) Guava 4) China rose
112. Which of following is correct sequence of different phase of prophase I of meiosis?
a) Zygotene b) Pachytene c) Leptotene d) Diplotene e) Diakinesis
1) a  b  c  e  d 2) b  a  d  c  e
3) c  b  a  d  e 4) c  a  b  d  e
113. Which of the following elements is responsible for pollen germination and carbohydrate translocation through
phloem?
1) Copper 2) Zinc 3) Boron 4) Sulphur
114. Which of the following chromosomes has centromere slightly away from the middle of the chromosome
resulting into one shorter arm and one longer arm?
1) Metacentric 2) Acrocentric 3) Sub-metacentric 4) telocentric

Pg. 13
115. Select the incorrect match w.r.t examples of classes of fungi
1) Phycomycetes- Albugo, Colletotrichum 2) Basidiomycetes- Ustilago, Puccinia
3) Deuteromycetes- Trichoderma, Alternaria 4) Ascomycetes- Neurospora, Claviceps
116. Select the incorrect statement
1) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is extensive and continuous with the outer membrane of the nucleus
2) In animal cells, steroidal hormones are synthesized in smooth endoplasmic reticulum
3) Golgi apparatus is the important site of formation of glycoproteins
4) Golgi apparatus remains in close association with the endoplasmic reticulum
117. All of the following are correct w.r.t the spring wood, except
1) Lighter in colour 2) Has a higher density
3) Vessels have wider lumen 4) Is also called early wood
118. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t anatomy of the monocotyledonous stem?
1) The ring arrangement of vascular bundles is a characteristic of monocot system
2) The problem parenchyma is generally absent
3) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed
4) Monocot stem has as sclerenchymatous hypodermis
119. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t C4 plants
1) They are adapted to dry tropical conditions
2) They have a special type of leaf anatomy
3) They perform a process called photorespiration
4) They tolerate higher temperature
120. Find out the wrong statement regrading bryophytes
1) The plant body of bryophytes is more differentiated than of algae
2) The Sporophyte of bryophyte is haploid
3) The sex organs in bryophytes are multicellular
4) The male sex organs is called antheridium
121. Match the classes of pteridophytes with their example given below and choose the correct option
Column – I Column - II
a) Lycopsida i) Equisetum
b) Psilopsida ii) Dryopteris
c) Pteropsida iii) Selaginella
d) Sphenopsida iv) Psilotum
1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv 4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
122. During the tricarboxylic acid cycle(TCA), a molecule of GTP is synthesized during conversion of
1)  - Ketoglutaric acid to succinyl – CoA 2) Succinic acid to fumaric acid
3) Succinyl CoA to succinic acid 4) Malic acid to oxaloacetic acid
123. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with a
green seeded plant, what ratio of green and yellow seeded plants would you expect in F1 generation ?
1) 3 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 1 : 1 4) 9 : 1
Pg. 14
124. Z-scheme of photosynthesis involves
1) Ps-II 2) Ps-I 3) Electro carries 4) All of these
125. Identify the following compound and select the correction option.

1) Adenine 2) Adenosine 3) Uracil 4) Uridine

126. A mixture containing DNA fragments, a, b, c and d with molecular weight of a + b = c, a > b and d > c, was
subjected to agarose gel electrophoresis. The position of these fragments from anode to cathode sides of gel
would be
1) b,a,c,d 2) a, b, c, d 3) c, b, a, d 4) b, a, d, c
127. What will be the amount of DNA in meiosis II product if meiocyte is containing 20 pg DNA in G1 phase?
1) 10 pg 2) 5 pg 3) 20 pg 4) 15 pg
128. Presence of conjugative tissue is a characteristic feature of
1) Dicot leaf 2) Dicot root 3) Monocot stem 4) Monocot leaf
129. A : These are thin walled parenchymatous cells with numerous intercellular spaces produced by activity of
phellogen.
B : They create pressure on epidermis which soon results in rupture of epidermal cells and from lenticels.
Above statements are true for
1) Hydathodes 2) Stomata 3) Complementary cells 4) Bulliform cells
130. How many molecules of ATP are required in reduction step of calvin cycle to produce one molecule of
sucrose ?
1) 12 2) 24 3) 18 4) 36
131. Statement A : Mosses along with lichens are the first organisms to colonise rocks.
Statement B : Diploid spores germinate to produce gametophyte in bryophytes.
Correct the above statements and select the correct option
1) Only statement A is correct 2) Only statement B is correct
3) Both statements A and B are correct 4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
132. Surface area of a leaf has increased from 50 cm2 to 55 cm2. Calculate its relative growth rate and select the
correct option
1) 5 % 2) 10 % 3) 50 % 4) 100 %
133. Choose the substrate level phosphorylation reaction step
1) PEP  Pyruvate 2) Succinyl CaA  Succinate 3) 1,3 bispGA  3pGA 4) All of the above
134. In angiosperms, ____A_____ meiotic division(s) and ____B____ mitotic divisions are required to form male
gametes from microspore mother cell. Here A and B are respectively.
1) 2 and 1 2) 1 and 2 3) 2 and 3 4) 2 and 4
Pg. 15
135. Which of the following yields the most ATP when glucose is completely oxidized?
1) Glycolysis 2) TCA cycle
3) Oxidative phosphorylation 4) Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
SECTION-B
136. Synthesis of which of the following will be affected if RNA polymerase III is removed from the cell?
1) 5.8S rRNA 2) 5S rRNA 3) 28S rRNA 4) hnRNA
137. The starch synthesis regarding the grain size in garden pea show ___A___ for Bb genotype. Here A is
1) Codominance 2) Dominance 3) Incomplete dominance 4) Multiple allelism
138. A : It is produced by the bacterium and is modified by genetic engineering.
B : It is used as clot buster for removing clots from the blood vessels of patients who have undergone
myocardial infraction.
Above statements are true for
1) Statins 2) Proteases 3)Streptokinase 4)Cyclosporin A
139. A : It helps in formation of plasma membrane during cytokinesis
B : Root cap cells are rich in this organelle as it secretes mucilage for the lubrication of root tip.
Above statements are true for
1) Vacuoles 2) SER 3) Lysosomes 4) Golgi apparatus
140. All of the given statements are advantages of cleistogamy, except
1) It ensures seed formation even in absence of pollinating agent
2) It is cheaper for plant as no costly nectar or fragrance needs to be produced by plant
3) The offsprings produced have limited genetic diversity
4) There is no loss of pollen grains
141. G2 phase of cell cycle involves duplication of all the organelles, except
1) Centrioles 2) Chloroplast 3) Mitochondria 4) Golgi bodies
142. The infectious RNA particles which are devoid of protein coat are
1) Viruses 2) Prions 3) Virusoids 4) Viroids
143. Margins of petals in whorl just touch each other with out overlapping in
1) China rose 2) Calotropis 3) Cotton 4) Cassia
144. Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous in
1) Monocot leaf 2) Dicot stem 3) Dicot root 4) Monocot stem
145. Which among the following algae has stored food very similar to amylopectin and glycogen?
1) Laminaria 2) Porphyra 3) Ulothrix 4) Fucus
146. The process through which multiple copies of the gene (or DNA) of interest are synthesized in – vitro requires
all, except
1) DNA polymerase 2) Primers 3) DNA templates 4) Stirrer

Pg. 16
147. Choos the incorrect match.

(1) Bt.cotton - Drought resistance plant

(2) Polyethylene glycol - Fusagen
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens - Used for transfer of foreign DNA into plants
(4) Golden rice - Enriched with vitamin A
148. Formation of sexual spore is absent in
1) Aspergillus 2) Albugo 3) Agaricus 4) Trichoderma
149. A : These organisms have a very simple structure but are very complex in behavior.
B : They exhibit a primitive form of sexual reproduction
C : They lack nuclear membrane.
The above given statements are true for
1) Bacteria 2) Fungi 3) Plants 4) Protists
150. Systematic differs from taxonomy as the former includes
1) Characterisation 2) Classification
3) Evolutionary relationships among organisms 4) Nomenclature
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a gene defect that
has been diagnosed in a child/embryo.
Statement II : The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1999 to a 14 years old girl with ADA
deficiency. Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
152. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Insulin used for diabetes was earlier extracted from pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pigs.
Statement II : Insulin from an animal source though caused some patients to develop allergy or other
types of reactions to the foreign protein. Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
153. Select the correct statement for the given diagram

(1) Representation of age pyramids for human population

(2) Representation of adaptation for human population
(3) Representation of energy pyramid
(4) Representation of pyramid of number
Pg. 17
154. How many matching are correct
a. Mutualism – Mycorrhizae
b. Mutualism – Lichen
c. Mutualism – Fig tree and wasp
d. Commensalism – Cuscuta and hedge plant
(1) Four (2) Three (3) One (4) Two
155. Which one of the following is the incorrect match
(1) Stellers's sea cow – Over exploitation by humans
(2) Passenger pigeon – Over exploitation by Human
(3) Nile perch – Alien species invasions
(4) None of these
156. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Any calculation of energy content, biomass or numbers has to be include all organism at
that trophic level.
Statement II : One must remember that the trophic level represents a functional level, not a species as
such Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
157. Given below are two statements
Statement I: An ecosystem can be visualised as a functional unit of nature, where living organisms
interact among themselves and also with the surrounding physical environment.
Statement II : Ecosystem varies greatly in size from a small pond to a large forest or a sea. Choose the
correct answer from the option given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
158. Which one of the following is the correct match
(1) Down syndrome – Palm crease (2) Klinefelters syndrome – Sterile individual
(3) Turner's syndrome – Rudimentary ovaries (4) All
159. Select the correct option for the given diagram :

(1) Diagrammatic representation of millers experiment

(2) Diagrammatic representation of Hrshey-chase experiment
(3) Diagrammatic representation of meselson - stahl experiment
(4) Diagrammatic representation of HGP
Pg. 18
160. Select the correct option for the given diagram

(1) Examples of homologous organ (2) Examples of Analogous organ

(3) Examples of Hind limb bones (4) Industrial melanism
161. How many are correct full form of words
(a) RTI– Reproductive tract infections
(b) IUI – Intra uterine insemination
(c) IUT – Intra uterine technology
(d) IMR – Infant mortality rate
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One
162. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Except for hepatitis –B, genital warts, gonorrhoea, HIV infection other disease are
completely curable if detected early and treated properly.
Statement II : STIs are a major threat to a healthy society.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
163. Select the correct option for the given diagram

(1) Homogametes of human (2) Homogametes of Cladophora

(3) Heterogametes of Human (4) Heterogametes of Fucus
164. Main source of infection of amoebiasis is
(1) mosquitoes bite (2) contaminated water and food by faecal matter
(3) droplets of nasal discharge of infected person (4) all of these

Pg. 19
165. In the given pedigree chart what will be the genotype of individuals A and B, if it is for autosomal recessive
trait ?

A B
1) Aa Aa
2) AA Aa
3) aa AA
4) Aa aa
166. Regarding to human genome, match column-I with column-II and choose correct option.

a b c d a b c d
1) ii iii iv i 2) iii iv ii i
3) iii i iv ii 4) iv ii i iii
167. India at present has ____(i)_____ national parks and ___(ii)____ biosphere reserves
Select the correct option for (i) and (ii).
(i) (ii)
1) 448 90
2) 14 448
3) 90 14
4) 90 448
168. Which of the following disorders is said to be associated only with males ?
1) Sickle cell anaemia 2) Klinefelter’s syndrome 3) Thalassemia 4) Colour blindness
169. According to IUCN, red list (2004), for which of the following groups there are maximum extinction in the
last 500 years ?
1) Vertebrates 2) Bryophytes 3) Invertebrates 4) Angiosperms
170. Coronary system of blood vessels present in our body is for
1) Circulation of blood from heart to the gut
2) Circulation of blood from cardiac musculature to skeletal musculature
3) Circulation of blood to and from the cardiac musculature
4) Circulation of blood any lymph from cardiac musculature to smooth muscles of the body

Pg. 20
171. ABO blood group system is based on
1) Presence of antibodies in plasma of different individuals
2) Presence or absence of single surface antigen on RBCs
3) Presence or absence of two surface antigens on RBCs namely A and B
4) Presence of membrane around body cells
172. Globulins in plasma are involved in
1) Coagulation of blood 2) Carrying urea
3) Defense mechanisms of the body 4) Transport of O2 and CO2 in the body
173. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t tissues present in humans
1) The bone marrow of all bones is the site of production of blood cells
2) Connective tissues are most abundant and widely distributed in the body
3) Epithelium of PCT has microvilli
4) Blood is a fluid connective tissue containing plasma, RBCs, WBCs, and platelets
174. In cockroach , head is formed by the fusion of _______ select the option that fills the blank correctly
1) Five segments 2) Six segments 3) Four segments 4) Thorax and check
175. Select the feature from the options given below that is correct for alveoli
1) Cells are multi layered in appearance 2) Vascularised bag like structures
3) Presence of branched muscle fibres 4) Absence of blood vessels and basement membrane
176. The number of carpals in one forelimb in an adult man is equal to the number of
1) Facial bones 2) Cranial bones 3) Cervical vertebrae 4) Ribs
177. Which of the following phenomenon takes place during muscle contraction?
1) Release of Ca+2 and its binding to troponin complex 2) Closing of actin binding state
3) Repolarisation of sarcoplasmic reticulum 4) H-zone remains unchanged
178. Besides vasa recta, the U-shaped part of nephron p plays a very significant role in production of concentrated
urine in case of mammals. Identify p and choose the correct option.
1) PCT 2) DCT 3) CD 4) Loop of Henle
179. The reason that explains why uric acid is excreted by birds is
1) Uric acid is readily soluble in water
2) Uric acid is metabolically less expensive to synthesise than other excretory products
3)Uric acid requires little water for its removal
4) Uric acid excretion allows birds to live in plenty of water
180. Louis Pasteur by careful experimentation dismissed which of the following theory?
1) Panspermia 2) Spontaneous generation theory
3)Big bang theory 4) Theory of special creation
181. Select the odd one among the following w.r.t presence of tail.
1) Salamandra 2) Hippocampus 3) Chameleon 4) Loligo
182. In the case of industrial melanism, the agent of natural selection were
1) Lichens 2) Moths 3) Birds 4) Pollution
183. Which of the following hormones is not associated with Addison’s disease?
1) Adrenaline 2) Cortisol 3) Aldosterone 4) Mineralocorticoid
Pg. 21
184. Which of the following methods of contraception change the quality of cervical mucus to retard the entry of
sperms ?
1) CuT 2)Multiload 375 3) Tubectomy 4) Oral pills
185. A special method of early diagnosis of diseases like HIV is based on gene amplification principle. Select the
correct name of the method used in amplification of genes
1) PCR 2) ELISA 3) Widal test 4) Autoradiography
SECTION-B
186. Select the correctly matched contraceptive method and mode of action
1) Steroidal pills - Prevent sperm reaching to cervix
2) Condoms - Prevent implementation
3) Vasectomy - Semen contains no sperms
4) Copper T - Prevents ovulation
187. Exoskeleton of insects is made up of polymer of
1) N-acetyl glucosamine 2)   Glucose 3) Amylose and amylopectin 4)   D-glucose

188. Additional volume of air, which a normal person can inspire by forcible inspiration averages to about
1) 2000-2500 mL 2) 2500-3000 mL 3) 1000-1100 mL 4) 1100-1200 mL
189. A person Y is suffering a disorder called rheumatoid arthritis. Which parts of the body would mainly be
affected by this?
1) Kidney 2) Joints 3) Heart 4) Liver
190. Choose the correct statement.
1) All mammals have seven cervical vertebrae 2) All chordates have notochord in their adult life
3) All cyclostomes lack jaw, scales and paired fin 4) All mollusca exhibit closed circulatory system
191. Choose the correct match from the option given below

192. All of the following are poisonous vertebrates , excepts

1) Naja 2) Bungarus 3) Scorpion 4) Vipera
193. Comprehend the given statements w.r.t menstrual cycle and select the correct option
Statement-A : The follicular phase us followed by the menstrual phase
Statement –B: Regular menstruation is an indicator of normal reproductive cycle.
1) Both statements A and B are correct 2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
3) Only statement A is correct 4) Only statement B is correct

Pg. 22
194. The theca layer is organized into an outer theca externa and inner theca interna in
1) Primordial follicle 2) Primary follicle 3) Secondary follicle 4) Tertiary follicle
195. During fertilization, the contact of sperm with X layer of the ovum induces changes in the membrane to block
the entry of additional sperms
Select the correct option for X
1)Corona radiata 2) Perivitelline space 3) Zona pellucida 4) Vitelline membrane
196. Select the correct the match

197. Assertion(A) :P The maximum pO2 in alveoli is always considerably less than pO2 in the atmosphere
Reason (R) : pO2 is more in pulmonary artery than pulmonary vein
Correct answer from the options given below
1) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation A
3) A is true , R false
4) A is false , R is true
198. Identify the given animal and select the correct option w.r.t it.

1) Shows convergent evolution with marsupial rat

2) It is placental mammal
3) Shows adaptive radiation with Darwin’s finches
4) It evolved from an ancestral stock but remained with in Australia
199. Select the incorrect one w.r.t insulin
1) The inactive from of insulin is pro insulin which has an extra stretch called the C-peptide
2) The insulin prepared through rDNA technology has C-peptide chain
3) Mature insulin does not have C-peptide chain
4) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin are joined by disulphide bonds
200. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on
1) Axon terminals 2) Membrane of synaptic vesicles
3) post-synaptic membrane 4) Pre – synaptic membrane

*** ALL THE BEST ***

Pg. 23
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 05.12.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-11 Max.Marks: 720

KEY
PHYSICS

1) 2 2) 2 3) 1 4) 1 5) 2 6) 1 7) 1 8) 1 9) 2 1 0) 3
1 1) 2 1 2) 4 1 3) 1 1 4) 3 1 5) 3 1 6) 1 1 7) 4 1 8) 2 1 9) 2 2 0) 3
2 1) 2 2 2) 3 2 3) 1 2 4) 1 2 5) 1 2 6) 2 2 7) 2 2 8) 2 2 9) 3 3 0) 4
3 1) 1 3 2) 3 3 3) 3 3 4) 3 3 5) 2 3 6) 1 3 7) 3 3 8) 2 3 9) 4 4 0) 2
4 1) 2 4 2) 1 4 3) 3 4 4) 4 4 5) 3 4 6) 3 4 7) 3 4 8) 3 4 9) 3 5 0) 4

CHEMISTRY
5 1) 4 5 2) 1 5 3) 4 5 4) 4 5 5) 4 5 6) 1 5 7) 3 5 8) 1 5 9) 1 6 0) 4
6 1) 4 6 2) 2 6 3) 4 6 4) 3 6 5) 3 6 6) 1 6 7) 1 6 8) 2 6 9) 3 7 0) 2
7 1) 3 7 2) 4 7 3) 4 7 4) 2 7 5) 2 7 6) 2 7 7) 2 7 8) 2 7 9) 3 8 0) 2
8 1) 1 8 2) 3 8 3) 3 8 4) 4 8 5) 3 8 6) 4 8 7) 1 8 8) 2 8 9) 4 9 0) 4
9 1) 1 9 2) 1 9 3) 1 9 4) 1 9 5) 3 9 6) 2 9 7) 2 9 8) 2 9 9) 2 1 0 0) 4

BOTANY
1 0 1) 3 1 0 2) 3 1 0 3) 4 1 0 4) 3 1 0 5) 3 1 0 6) 1 1 0 7) 1 1 0 8) 3 1 0 9) 1 1 1 0) 3
1 1 1) 3 1 1 2) 4 1 1 3) 3 1 1 4) 3 1 1 5) 1 1 1 6) 1 1 1 7) 2 1 1 8) 1 1 1 9) 3 1 2 0) 2
1 2 1) 2 1 2 2) 3 1 2 3) 3 1 2 4) 4 1 2 5) 3 1 2 6) 1 1 2 7) 1 1 2 8) 2 1 2 9) 3 1 3 0) 2
1 3 1) 1 1 3 2) 2 1 3 3) 4 1 3 4) 2 1 3 5) 3 1 3 6) 2 1 3 7) 3 1 3 8) 3 1 3 9) 4 1 4 0) 4
1 4 1) 1 1 4 2) 4 1 4 3) 2 1 4 4) 4 1 4 5) 2 1 4 6) 4 1 4 7) 1 1 4 8) 4 1 4 9) 1 1 5 0) 3

ZOOLOGY
1 5 1) 2 1 5 2) 4 1 5 3) 1 1 5 4) 2 1 5 5) 4 1 5 6) 4 1 5 7) 4 1 5 8) 4 1 5 9) 1 1 6 0) 1
1 6 1) 2 1 6 2) 3 1 6 3) 3 1 6 4) 2 1 6 5) 4 1 6 6) 3 1 6 7) 3 1 6 8) 2 1 6 9) 3 1 7 0) 3
1 7 1) 3 1 7 2) 3 1 7 3) 1 1 7 4) 2 1 7 5) 2 1 7 6) 2 1 7 7) 1 1 7 8) 4 1 7 9) 3 1 8 0) 2
1 8 1) 4 1 8 2) 3 1 8 3) 1 1 8 4) 4 1 8 5) 1 1 8 6) 3 1 8 7) 1 1 8 8) 2 1 8 9) 2 1 9 0) 3
1 9 1) 1 1 9 2) 3 1 9 3) 4 1 9 4) 4 1 9 5) 3 1 9 6) 1 1 9 7) 3 1 9 8) 4 1 9 9) 2 2 0 0) 3

PAPER SETTER- BLR-CO-KAVERI BHAVAN

S NO SUBJECT NAME MOBILE NO
1 PHYSICS YASH +91 96504 28229
2 CHEMISTRY KISHORE +91 81067 92252
3 BOTANY GHOUSE +91 97385 20687
4 ZOOLOGY KHUSBOO +91 95172 70698

Pg. 1
 Hints & Solutions
PHYSICS
1. 12.
In charging V > E

2.
B0
BA  3/2
 X2 
 1 
 R 2 
3. CONCEPTUAL

4. AS temperature increases S.T. decreases 13. COCEPTUAL

1 1  Q  1 QdL 14. Apply Kirchoff’s junction rule
5. E 2 
dL   2
4 0 a  2 r  8  0 a 3
6. COCEPTUAL i0 5
15. i0  5 A  irms   A
2 2
1
7. LC   0.05 cm
20 16. Area of the graph gives distance
Zero error= 0.05  15  0.75 17. CONCEPTUAL
8.
18. T = ma and P = T + T
 a = P/2 m
19.

9. COCEPTUAL

10. MgL MgL

2 
20. W n  2  ;W 
2n 8
amax   2 A
21.
amax   2b

11. 22.
5 m  2.5 0
5
5m  0
2

 0  2
m

23. CONCEPTUAL

24. CONCEPTUAL
2|Page
25. 1
2 
3
hc
E

Energy becomes tripled kinetic energy
more than tripled
K 2  3K1
36.

26. CONCEPTUAL
V
27. Mobility   d
E
Q2 T / 3 Q
28.   Q2 
Q T 3

29. A is incorrect and B is correct

30. Q = CE appears on one plate and – Q on

the other plate. When polarity is reserved –
37.
Q on first plate and Q on the other plate.
Then charge 2Q flows through the battery
Work done = W = Vq = E  2Q  2CE 2
Heat generated = 2CE 2
31. So, frequency is independent of kinetic
energy of electron, therefore f1  f 2
w
32. p   w  kt
t
1
m  v 2  u 2   kt
2 38.
1 2
mv  kt
2
2k
v t
m
39.
dv 2k 1 1/2
a  t
dt m 2
mk 1/2
F  ma 
t
2
33. CONCEPTUAL
2  2r
34. R  2V
g

35. 1  32

Pg 3
40. 45. Low resistance in parallel with
galvanometer
46. CONCEPTUAL

47.

41. The figure is showing I  V characteristics

of non ohmic or non linear conductors

42. Energy stored in a inductor

1 48. CONCEPTUAL
 Li 2   ML2T 2 
2
49.
43.

50.

44.

51.

53.

52.

Pg 4
54.

55.

56.

57. 65.

58.

66.

59. 67.

60.

62.
68.

69.
63.

70.
64.

Pg 5
71.

80.

72.

81.

73. 82.
For adiabatic process, q = 0
83.

74.

75. For adiabatic process, q = 0

76.

84.
79.

Pg 6
85. 94.

95.

86.

97. It is the correct answer.

87.

88.

89.

91.

92.

93.

Pg 7
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 07.12.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-12 Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
In ever y s u bject:
( a ) In Section – A , 3 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. A n s w er all 3 5 qu estion s from section – A
( b ) In Section – B , 1 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. O ut of w hich A n s w er 1 0 qu estion s onl y .
(c) E ach qu estion c a rries 4 m a r k s. F or e ach correct respon se w ill get 4 m a r k s. F or e ach
incorrect respon se, one m a r k w ill be d e d ucte d from th e tot al scores.
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. If alpha, beta and gamma rays carry the same momentum, which has the longest wavelength?
1) Alpha rays 2) Beta rays
3) Gamma rays 4) All have the same wavelength
2. A non-uniform thin rod of length L is placed along the x-axis such that one of its ends is at the
origin. The linear mass density of the rod is   0 x. Find the distance of the centre of mass of the
rod from the origin.
L 2L L L
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3 4 5
3. A uniform cylinder has a radius R and length L. If the moment of inertia of this cylinder about an
axis passing through its center and normal to its circular face is equal to the moment of inertia of the
same cylinder about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its length
1) L  R 2) L  3R 3) L  R 3 4) L  0
4. Ferromagnetic substances show their properties due to
1) Filled inner subshells 2) Vacant inner subshells
3) Partially filled inner subshells 4) All the subshells are equally filled
5. For a cell, the terminal potential difference is 2.2V when the circuit is open and is reduce to 1.8V
when the cell is connected to a resistance R = 5  . Determine the internal resistance of the cell
10 9 11 5
1)  2)  3)  4) 
9 10 9 9

6. A current of 3A flows through the 2  resistor as shown in the circuit. The power dissipated in the 5
 resistor is

1) 4 W 2) 2 W 3) 1 W 4) 5 W

Pg. 1
7. A lamp consumes only 50 % of peak power in an A.C. circuit. What is the phase difference between
the applied voltage and the circuit current
   
1) 2) 3) 4)
6 3 4 2
8. A solid metal cube of edge length 2cm is moving in the positive y-direction at a constant speed of
6ms-1. There is a uniform magnetic field of 0.1 T in the positive z-direction. The potential difference
between the two faces of the cube perpendicular to the x-axis is
1) 12m V 2) 1 mV 3) 2 mV 4) 6 mV
9. Charges are placed at the corner of a square of side as shown in the following figure. The charged
q
particle placed at A is in equilibrium. The ratio 1 is
q2

1 3
1) 1 2) 2 3) 4)
2 2
10. Acceleration due to gravity on moon is 1/6 of the acceleration due to gravity on earth. If the ratio of
  5
densities of earth  e  and moon  m  is  e   then radius of moon Rm in terms of Re will be
 m  3
5 1 3 1
1) Re 2) Re 3) Re 4) Re
18 6 18 2 3
11. One mole of a monoatomic gas behaving as per PV=nRT at 270 C. If the initial pressure was 1.0 atm
then the value of 1n ( Pfinal ) is (given 1n 2= 0.7 )
1) 1.75 2) 0.176 3) 1.0395 4) 2.0
12. Ail expands from 5 lit to 10 lit at 2 atm pressure. External work done is
1) 10 J 2) 3000 J 3) 300 J 4) 1000 J
13. The temperature of 5 moles of a gas at constant volume is changed from 100 C to 1200 C. The
0

change in internal energy is 80J. The heat capacity of the gas at constant volume ( in JK-1 ) is
1) 8 2) 4 3) 0.8 4) 0.4
14. A body moves with speed V1 for distance L and then with speed V2 for distance 2L. The average
speed for the motion is
V V 3V1V2 3V1V2 3V1V2
1) 1 2 2) 3) 4)
2 V1  2V2 2V1  V2 V1  V2
15. A mass M is suspended by a rope from rigid support at A as shown in the figure. Another rope is tied
at the end B and it is pulled horizontally with a force F. If the rope AB makes an angle  with the
vertical, then the tension in the string AB is

Mg Mg F
1) F sin  2) 3) 4)
cos  sin  cos 
Pg. 2
16. Two bodies A and B of equal mass are suspended from two separate massless springs of constant k1
and k2 respectively. If the bodies oscillate vertically such that their maximum velocities are equal,
the ratio of the amplitude of A to that of B is
k1 k2 k1 k2
1) 2) 3) 4)
k2 k1 k2 k1
17. When a metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength  , the stopping
potential is 5V0. When the same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 3  , the stopping
potential is V0. The work function of the metallic surface is
hc hc hc hc
1) 2) 3) 4)
6 5 3 4
-1
18. Terminal speed of 2 cm radius ball in a viscous liquid is 20 cms . Then the speed of 1 cm radius ball
in the same liquid is
1) 5cms 1 2) 10 cms 1 3) 40 cms 1 4) 80cms 1
19. Specific heat of a gas in an isothermal process is
1) Zero 2) Infinity 3) Negative 4) Remains constant
20. The frequency ‘f’ of vibration of mass ‘m’ suspended from a spring of spring constant ‘k’ is given by
f  cm x k y . Where c is a dimensionless constant. The values of x and y are respectively
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
1) , 2)  , 3) , 4)  , 
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
21. The displacement x of body of mass 1 kg on a horizontal smooth surface as a function of time t is
t4
given by x  . The work done in the first second is
4
1 1 3 5
1) J 2) J 3) J 4) J
4 2 4 4
22. When an electron of a hydrogen atom jumps from n = 4 to n = 1 state, the number of spectral lines
emitted are
1) 9 2) 3 3) 6 4) 15
st nd rd th
23. The ratio of distance travelled by a freely falling body in the 1 , 2 , 3 and 4 second
1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 3) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16 4) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7
24. The energy that will be ideally radiated by a 100 k W transmitter in 1 hour is
1) 1  10 5 J 2) 36  107 J 3) 36  10 4 J 4) 36  105 J
25. Match List – I with List – II

List – I List – II

(a) Gravitational constant ( G) (i)  L2T 2 

(b) Gravitational potential energy (ii)  M 1 L3T 2 

(c) Gravitational potential (iii)  LT 2 

(d) Gravitational intensity (iv)  ML2T 2 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii 2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii 3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii 4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i

Pg. 3
26. If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds of a
transverse wave along the string is
1) 1 : 2 2) 1 : 1 3) 2 :1 4) 1 : 2
27. A capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF is charged fully by 100 V battery B as shown in figure (a).
Then it is disconnected from the battery and connected to another uncharged capacitor of capacitance
C = 900 pF as shown in figure (b). The electrostatic energy stored by the system (b) is

1) 1.5  10 6 J 2) 4.5  10 6 J 3) 3.25  10 6 J 4) 2.25  10 6 J

28. The angle between the electric lines of force and the equipotential surface is
1) 1800 2) 00 3) 450 4) 900
29. As the temperature increases, the electrical resistance
1) Decreases for conductors but increases for semi-conductors
2) Increases for both conductors and semiconductors
3) Decreases for both conductors and semiconductors
4) Increases for conductors but decreases for semiconductors
30. A big circular coil of 1000 turns and average radius 10 m is rotating about its horizontal diameter at
2 rad s-1 If the vertical component of earth’s magnetic field at that place is 2  10 5 T and electrical
resistance of the coil is 12.56  , then the maximum induced current in the coil will be
1) 2 A 2) 0.25 A 3) 1.5 A 4) 1 A
31. When light propagates through a material medium of relative permittivity  r and relative
permeability  r , the velocity of light V is given by ( c – velocity of light in vacuum )
c r r
1) V  2) V  c 3) V  4) V 
 r r r r
32. Two transparent media A and B separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in those media are
1.5  108 m / s and 2.0 108 m / s, respectively. The critical angle for a ray of light for these two media
is
1) tan 1 (0.75) 2) sin 1 (0.50) 3) sin 1 (0.75) 4) tan 1 (0.50)
33. A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20 cm each. If the refractive index of the material of the lens
is 1.5, the power of lens is
1) Infinity 2)  2D 3)  20 D 4) 5 D
34. Let T1 and T2 be the energy of an electron in the first and second excited states of hydrogen atoms,
respectively. According to the Bohr’s model of an atom, the ratio T1 :T2 is
1) 9 : 4 2) 1 : 4 3) 4 : 1 4) 4 : 9
35. A copper wire Y  10 Nm11 2
 of length 8m and steel wire Y  2 10 11
Nm 2
 of length 4m and
each of cross – sectional area 0.5 cm2 are fastened end to end and stretched with a tension of 500 N.
Match the given columns and select the correct option given below.
COLUMN – I COLUMN – II
i) Elongation in copper wire ( in mm) (p) 0.2
ii) Elongation in steel wire ( in mm ) (q) 1.0
iii) Total elongation ( in mm ) (r) 0.8
1) i-r, ii-p, iii-q 2) i-p, ii-q, iii-r 3) i-q, ii-r, iii-p 4) i-p, ii-r, iii-p
Pg. 4
 SECTION – B
36. When a current carrying coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field with its magnetic moment anti-
parallel to the field
a) Torque on it is maximum b) Torque on it is zero
c) Potential energy is maximum d) Dipole is in unstable equilibrium
1) b, c, d are correct 2) Only b is correct 3) a and c are correct 4) None
37. A thin plastic ring of radius R carries a charge q uniformly spread over the entire ring. The ring is
rotating with angular velocity  about its axis. The magnetic induction at the centre of the ring is
 q  q  q
1) 0 2) 0 3) 0 4) Zero
2 R R 4 R
38. A closed-loop PQRS carrying a current is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic forces
on segments PS, SR and RQ are F1 and F2 and F3 respectively and are in the plane of the paper and
along the directions shown the force on the segment QP is

1) ( F3  F1 )2  F22 2) F3  F1  F2 3) F3  F1  F2 4) ( F3  F1 )2  F22
39. A ball is suspended by a thread from the ceiling of a train car. The breaks are applied and the speed
of the car changes uniformly from 30 Kmh-1 to zero is 5s. The angle by which the ball deviates from
the vertical is  g  10ms 2 
1 1 1 1
1) tan 1   2) sin 1   3) tan 1   4) cot 1  
3 5 5 3
40. Binding energy per uncleon versus mass number curve for nuclei is shown in the figure. W, X, Y and
Z are four nuclei indicated on the curve. The process that would release energy is

1) Y  2 Z 2) W  X  Z 3) W  2Y 4) X  Y  Z
 
41. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by the equations y1  0.1sin  100 t   and
 3
y 2  0.1cos(100 t ). The phase difference of the velocity of particle 1 with respect to the velocity of
particle 2 is
   
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 6 6 3
42. Water rises in a vertical capillary tube up to a height of 2.0 cm. If the tube is inclined at an angle of
600 with the vertical, then up to what length the water will rise in the tube?
1) 2.0 cm 2) 4.0 cm 3) 6.0 cm 4) 8.0 cm

Pg. 5
43. A thin uniform circular disc of mass m and radius R is rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis
passing through its centre and perpendicular to the plane with an angular velocity  . Another disc of
1
same dimensions but of mass m is placed gently on the first disc co-axially. The angular velocity
4
of the system is
4 3 1
1) 2 2)  3)  4) 
5 4 3
44. A silicon diode has threshold voltage of 0.7V. If an input voltage given by 2 sin ( t ) volts is supplied
to a half-wave rectifier circuit using this diode, the rectified output has a peak value of
1) 2 V 2) 1.4 V 3) 1.3 V 4) 0.7 V
45. In the following circuit of PN junction diodes D1 , D2 and D3 are ideal then ‘i’ is

E E 2E
1) 2) 3) 4) Zero
R 2R 3R
46. An ideal gas is taken from state 1 to state 2 through path A, B, C and D as shown in the PV diagram.
Let Q, W and U represent the heat supplied, work done and change in internal energy of the gas
respectively. Then

1) Q A  Q D  W A  W D 2) QB  WB  QC  WC
3) WA  WB  WC  WD 4) QA  QB  QC  QD
47. The first diffraction minimum due to single slit diffraction is at an angle  for a light of wavelength
0
5000 A . If the width of the slit is 1104 cm, then the value of  is
1) 300 2) 450 3) 600 4) 150
48. Two point charges q and q are placed at a distance of L, as shown in the figure.
The magnitude of electric field intensity at a distance R ( R  L ) from centre of both charges along
line joining the charges varies as:

1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
R6 R2 R3 R4

Pg. 6
49. Assertion (A) : The distance between two floating objects on a river flowing uniformly does not
change with time.
Reason (R) : The floating object has the same velocity as that of the river.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
50. The force exerted by the lift on the foot of a person standing in it is more than his weight, then the
lift is
a) Going up and slowing down b) Going up and speeding up
c) Going down and slowing down d) Going down and speeding up
1) ( a, b ) 2) ( b , c ) 3) ( a, c ) 4) ( b, d )
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. The moles of O2 required for reacting with 6.8g ammonia
 _ NH 3  _ O2  _ NO  _ H 2O  is
1) 5 2) 2.5 3) 1 4) 0.5
52. Which of the following quantum number set is not possible?
1) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0 2) n = 3, l = 1, m = - 1
3) n = 2, l = 0, m = - 1 4) n = 2, l = 1, m = - 1
53. The ions which are arranged in correct order of increasing radii are
1) K  , Ca 2 , S 2 2) Be2 , Mg 2 , Na  3) O2 , F  , N 3 4) S 2 , O 2 , As 3
54. Hydrogen bond is not present in
1) H2O 2) Glycerol 3) HF 4) H 2 S
55. Which of the following is paramagnetic with bond order 0.5
1) F2 2) H 2 3) N 2 4) O2
56. Which one is wrong statement ?
1) Schrodinger wave equation cannot give information about spin quantum number
2) The orbital angular momentum of a s – electron in 3rd orbit zero
3) The magnetic quantum number of an electron present in 2nd orbit can be ‘- 2’
4) In H – atom, the order of energies of orbitals is : 3s  3 p  3d
57. pKa of a week acid (HA) and pKb of a week base (BOH) are 3.2 and 3.4, respectively. The pH of
their salt (AB) solution is:
1) 7.0 2) 1.0 3) 7.2 4) 6.9
58. 2 moles of each reactants A and B are taken in the reaction flask. They react in the following manner
A  BCD
( g ) ( g ) ( g ) ( g ) . At equilibrium, it was found that the concentration of ‘C’ is triple to that of B.
The equilibrium constant for the reaction is
1) 4.5 2) 6 3) 9 4) 1/6
59. Degree of dissociation of 0.1 NCH 3COOH  K a  110 5
 is
1) 10 5 2) 10 4 3) 10 3 4) 10 2
60. In the balanced reaction, IO3  SO2  4 H 2O 
 I 2  SO42  8 H  the coefficient of SO2 is
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6

Pg. 7
61. Statement - I : Glycine must be taken through diet.
Statement - II : It is an essential amino acid.
1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
62. Mark the correct order of decreasing acid strength of the following compounds:

1) V  IV  II  I  III 2) V  IV  III  II  I
3) IV  V  III  II  I 4) II  IV  III  I  V
63. Regarding silica
I) Quartz is amorphous form of silica
II) Silica dissolves in NaOH
III) Silica dissolves in HF
The correct combination is
1) All are correct 2) II & III are correct 3) III only correct 4) I & III are correct
64. In the following structures, which two forms are staggered conformation of ethane?

I) II) III) IV)

1) I and IV 2) II and III 3) I and II 4) I and III
65. The number of optical isomers of 2, 3- dihydroxy butanal is
1) 2 2) 4 3) 8 4) 3
66. The most stable resonating structure among the given structures is

1) I 2) II
3) III 4) All of these are equally stable
67. Which carbanion is maximum stable?

1) 2) 3) 4)

Pg. 8
68. When a alkene, on reductive ozonolysis gives formaldehyde and acetone, the alkene is

1) 2) 3) 4) All of these
69. Match List I (Reaction) with List II (Name) and select the correct answer using the code given below
lists

Codes:
1) I – A, II – B, III – C, IV – D 2) I – B, II – A, III – C, IV – D
3) I – C, II – D, III – A, IV – B 4) I – D, II – C, III – A, IV – B
70. Which of the following reacts with cold. AlK. KMnO4 but does not react with ammonical AgNO3
1) C2 H 6 2) CH 4 3) C2 H4 4) C2 H2
71. The property of halogen acids, that indicated incorrect is:
1) H I  H B r  H C l  H F .......... bond length
2) H I  H B r  H C l  H F .......... reducing strength
3) H F  H C l  H Br  H I .......... acidic strength
4) H F  H C l  H Br  H I .......... thermal stability
72. Which of the following compounds is aromatic alcohol?

1) I, II, III, IV 2) I, IV 3) II, III 4) I

73. Statement-I : First ionization energy of nitrogen is lower oxygen.
Statement-II : Across a period effective nuclear charge decreases.
1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
74. The Van’tHoff factor of 0.005m aq.solution of KCl is 1.95. The degree of ionization of KCl is
1) 0.95 2) 0.97 3) 0.90 4) 0.99

Pg. 9
75. 1F deposits ________ in electrolysis.
1) 23g sodium 2) 12g Mg
3) 9g Al 4) All of these are correct
2 
76. The standard electrode potentials for Cu( aq )  e   Cu(aq ) and Cu(aq )  e 
 Cu( s ) 0.15V and
0
0.50V respectively. The value of ECu 2
/ Cu
will be
1) 0.15 V 2) 0.5 V 3) 0.35 V 4) 0.325 V
77. In a first order reaction the concentration of reactants decreases from 400 mol L-1 to 25 mol L-1 in
200 seconds. The rate constant of the reaction is
1) 1.01386 s 2) 2  10 2 s  3) 1.386  10 2 s  4) 34.65 s 
78. Statement-I : A very dilute acidic solution of Cd 2 and Ni 2 gives yellow precipitate of CdS on
passing hydrogen sulphide.
Statement-II : Solubility product of CdS is more than that of NiS.
1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
79. Statement-I : S , G and H are zero for cyclic process.
Statement-II : Free energy, entropy and enthalpy are state function.
1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
80. For spontaneous process:
1) S 0 2) G  0 3) S 0 4) S 0
total total total
81. Which nitrogen oxide is blue solid and acidic in nature
1) NO 2) NO2 3) N2O5 4) N2O3
82. H2 SO4 oxidizes ‘C’ and ‘S’ respectively into
1) CO, SO2 2) CO2 , SO3 3) CO, SO3 4) CO2 , SO2
83. Consider the following statements
I. Sc has a low value of EM0 3 / M 2
II. Zn has the highest value of EM0 3 / M 2
III. Mn and Fe have comparatively high and low values of EM0 3 / M 2 respectively
The correct set of statements is (choose the low values of EM0 3 / M 2 respectively
The correct set of statements is (choose the appropriate option)
1) I and II only 2) I, II and III 3) I and III only 4) II and III only

84. KMnO4 oxides I in neutral or faintly alkaline solutions in to
1) I2 2) IO4 3) IO2 4) IO3
85. IUPAC name of  Ag ( NH 3 )2  Ag (CN )2  is
1) Diammine silver (O) dicyano argentate (II) 2) Diammine silver (I) dicyano argentate (I)
3) Diammine silver (O) dicyano silver (II) 4) Diammine silver (II) dicyano silver (II)

Pg. 10
 SECTION – B
86. At certain temperature, the solution of benzene in toluene exhibits the vapour pressure (in m bar)
represents as P  150 x  65, where ‘x’ is mole fraction of benzene, the vapour pressure of pure
benzene is
1) 150 m bar 2) 215 m bar 3) 90 m bar 4) 65 m bar
87. Correct order of increasing field strength of ligands is
1) I   Cl   H 2O  CN  2) I   H 2O  Cl   CN 
3) Cl   I   H 2O  CN  4) Cl   H 2O  I   CN 
88. Statement-I : Kinetic energy of photoelectrons increases with increase in the frequency of incident
radiation.
Statement-II : The number of photoelectrons ejected increases with increase in intensity of incident
radiation.
1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

89. In the following sequence of reaction, CH 3 Br 
KCN
 
H 3O
 B 
LiAH 4
ether
 C .' C ' is
1) Acetone 2) Methane 3) Acetaldehyde 4) Ethyl alcohol
90. Among the following amines, the strongest Bronsted base is:

1) 2) 3) 4)
91. What is Z in the following sequence of reactions?
Phenol 
Zn dust
 X 
CH 3Cl
anhyd AlCl3
 Y  
AlKaline KMNO4
H
Z
1) Toluene 2) Benzene 3) Benzoic acid 4) Benzaldehyde
92. The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in the sequence:
1) Tl  In  Ga  Al 2) Al  Ga  In  Tl 3) Ga  In  Al  Tl 4) In  Tl  Ga  Al
93. Isocyanide is prepared by
1) Wurtz reaction 2) Carbylamine reaction 3) Williamson synthesis 4) Etard reaction
94. The correct order of increasing acidic strength is :
1) Phenol<Ethanol<Chloroacetic acid<Acetic acid
2) Ethanol<Phenol<Acetic acid<Chloroacetic acid
3) Ethanol<Phenol<Chloroacetic acid<Acetic acid
4) Chloroacetic acid<Acetic acid<Phenol<Ethanol
95. Which of the following acids is a vitamin?
1) Aspartic acid 2) Ascorbic acid 3) Adipic acid 4) Saccharic acid
96. Select the correct matching :
List-I List-II
A. XeF4 1. Pyramidal
B. XeF6 2. T-Shape
C. XeO3 3. Distorted octahedral
D. XeOF2 4. Square planar

Pg. 11
 A B C D
1) 1 2 3 4
2) 4 3 1 2
3) 2 1 3 4
4) 4 1 3 2
97. Assertion (A) : Aryl halides undergo nucleophilic substitution reactions with ease.
Reason (R) : The carbon halogen bond in aryl halides has partial double bonds character.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
98. In a reaction : A   B , the concentration of ‘A’ at time 10s and 20s is 2.2 mol L1 and 1.1mol L1 .
The average rate of the reaction during the time period is
1) 1.1mol L1S 1 2) 2.2 mol L1S 1 3) 0.11mol L1S 1 4) 11.0 mol L1S 1
99. Which of the following is carcinogenic hydrocarbon
1) 1, 2-Benzanthracene 2) 1, 2-Benzpyrene
3) 3-Methyl cholanthrene 4) All of these
2
100. Assertion (A) : All the ‘S atoms in S 4O6 have oxidation number equal to +2.5
Reason (R) : Average oxidation number of sulphur in S 4O62 is +2.5
1) A & R are correct R is the correct explanation of A
2) A&R are correct R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is correct, but R is wrong
4) A is wrong, but R is correct
BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. In Euglena, the pellicle layer are made up of
1) Carbohydrates 2) Protein 3) Lipids 4) All of these
102. Assertion (A) : Cyanobacteria form blooms in polluted water bodies.
Reason (R) : Primary contaminants are nitrates and phosphates in water, which act as plant nutrients
1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
2) A is correct but R is not correct
3) A is not correct but R is correct
4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
103. Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of
mosses
1) Heterotrophy 2) Mode of Nutrition
3) Multiplication by fragmentation 4) Diplontic life cycle
104. Read the following statements regarding Marchantia
A. Is unisexual
B. Has antheridiophore and archegoniophore
C. Foot and seta in its sporophyte absent
D. Is homosporous in nature
Which of these statements are correct
1) A and B only 2) C and D only 3) A, B and D only 4) B and C only

Pg. 12
105. Read the following statements
I. Chlorella is rich in proteins and are used as food supplements even by space travellers
II. In phaeophyceae flagella are 2-8 in number, equal in size and apical in position
III. In chlorophyceae the flagella are eight in number, unequal in size and lateral in position
Which of these are correct
1) I, II and III 2) II and III 3) I and III 4) Only I
106. Statement-I : Some hyphae are continuous tubes filled with multinucleated cytoplasm these are
called coenocytic hyphae
Statement-II : Coenocytic hyphae are aseptate
1) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect 2) S-I is correct but S-II is incorrect
3) S-I is incorrect but S-II is correct 4) Both, S-I and S-II are correct
107. Suberin layer is found in
1) Conjuctive tissue 2) Pericycle 3) Hypodermis 4) Endodermis
108. In dicot root
1) Vascular cambium is only primary in origin 2) Vascular cambium is only secondary in origin
3) Vascular cambium is absent 4) Vascular cambium is circular initially
109. Protophloem and metaphloem have
1) Narrow and bigger sieve tubes respectively 2) Bigger and narrow sieve tubes respectively
3) Both have bigger sieve tubes 4) Both have narrow sieve tubes
110. Match the following
List-I List-II
A. Polyadelphous I. Brinjal
B. Epipetalous II. Citrus
C. Epiphyllous III. Lily
D. Perigynous IV. Peach
1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV 2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I 4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
111. Assertion (A) : Capsid is covering of units of proteins in tobacco mosaic virus
Reason (R) : Capsomeres are arranged in helical or polyhedral geometric forms
1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
2) A is correct but R is not correct
3) A is not correct but R is correct
4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
112. A scar in seed through which seeds are attached to the fruit is known as
1) Micropyle 2) Radicle 3) Plumule 4) Hilum
113. Find the correct statement from given option
A. For the complete oxidation of glucose to CO2 and H2O, organisms adopt Krebs’ cycle
B. Aerobic respiration requires O2 supply
C. Incomplete oxidation of glucose is achieved under anaerobic conditions by single step of reactions
D. Pyruvic acid is convereted to CO2 and ethanol in fermentation
1) C and D only 2) A and C only 3) B and D only 4) B and C only
114. Which of the following is/are an example of secondary metabolites
1) Abrin 2) Ricin 3) GLUT-4 4) 1 and 2
115. Statement-I : Sucorse is converted into glucose and fructose by the enzyme, invertase
Staement-II : Glucose and fructose are phosphorylated to give rise to glucose-6 phosphate and
fructose-6 phosphate by the activity of the enzyme hexokinase
1) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect 2) S-I is correct but S-II is incorrect
3) S-I is incorrect but S-II is correct 4) Both S-I and S-II are correct
Pg. 13
116. Formation of peptide bond is the process of
1) Dehydration 2) Glycosylation 3) Hydrolysis 4) Conjugation
117. Assertion (A) : Buttercup plant shows heterophilly
Reason (R) : Development of heterophylly due to environment
1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
2) A is correct but R is not correct
3) A is not correct but R is correct
4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
118. Crossing over is
1) Non-enzyme mediated process 2) Only autosomal process
3) An enzyme mediated process 4) Both 2 and 3
119. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
A. Metaphase I. Initiation of condensation of chromosomal material
B. Interphase II. Nuclear envelops assembles around the chromosomes clusters
C. Telophase III. Chromosomes arranged at equatorial plate
D. Prophase IV. The period between two cell division-M-phase
1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II 4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
120. How many meiotic division would be required to produced 101 embryo in angiosperms
1) 26 2) 127 3) 101 4) 202
121. The cytoskeleton in a cell are involved in
1) Mechanical support 2) Motility
3) Maintenance of the shaped of the cell 4) All of the above
122. Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system
1) Lysosome 2) Glogi complex 3) Ribosome 4) Vacuole
123. An egg cell has 5 pg of DNA in its nucleus. How much amount of DNA will be in this animal at the
end of G2 phase of mitosis
1) 2.5 pg 2) 10 pg 3) 5 pg 4) 20 pg
124. Yeasts poison themselves to death when the concentration of alcohol reaches
1) About 13% 2) About 11% 3) At 18% 4) About 16%
125. T.W. Engelmann using a prism and split the light into its spectral components and then illuminated a
green alga, placed in a suspension of aerobic bacterium. Name that green alga
1) Chlorella 2) Cladophora 3) Chlamydomonas 4) Nostoc and Anabaena
126. For formation of six molecule of glucose, how many CO2 molecule are require
1) 28 2) 25 3) 36 4) 20
127. When CO2 is added to PEP, the first stable product synthesized is
1) Phosphoglycerate 2) Oxaloacetic acid
3) Pyruvate 4) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
128. What is not true about bundle sheath cells of Zea maize
1) They have numerous chloroplast
2) Intercellular spaces absent
3) Their walls are not impervious to gaseous exchange
4) Their walls are thick

Pg. 14
129. Find the correct option for given diagram

1) Juvenile leaf of Larkspur 2) Adult leaf of Larkspur

3) Terrestrial leaf of Buttercup 4) Aquatic leaf of Buttercup
130. Enzymes which catalyze the conversion of pyrivic acid into CO2 and ethanol in fermentation are
1) Pyruvic acid decarboxylase 2) Alcohol dehydrogenase
3) Both 1 and 2 4) None
6
131. N -furfurylamino purine is
1) Guanine derivative 2) Adenine derivative
3) A stress hormone 4) A terpene
132. When alien DNA ligate at the Pvu I or Pst I site of vector pBR322, it lose its resistance for antibiotic
1) Ampicillin 2) Chloramphenicol 3) Tetracycline 4) Kanamycin
133. From among the situations given below, choose the one that prevents both autogamy and
geitonogamy
1) Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers
2) Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers
3) Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers
4) Dioecious plant iwht bisexual flowers
134. Which of the following statements is true regarding histones
A. Histones are basic proteins
B. Histones are rich in lysine and alanine
C. DNA is wrapped around core of histone proteins
D. Nucleoid is the region in which prokaryotic DNA is present
1) All true 2) A, B, C 3) A, C, D 4) C and D
135. Which scientist concluded that (R) strain bacteria had been transformed by heat killed (S) strain
bacteria
1) Griffith 2) Avery, macleod and Mc carty
3) Hershey and chase 4) Sanger
SECTION – B
136. Sexual reproduction is of isogamous, anisogamous and oogamous in
1) Phaeophycease and Rhodophyceae 2) Chlorophyceae and phaeophyceae
3) Rhodophyceae only 4) Chlorophyceae and Rhodophyceae
137. matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl performed an experiment to prove that replication is
semiconservative in year
1) 1869 2) 1952 3) 1958 4) 1963
138. Statement-I : A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA helix
Statement-II : Histones are organized to form a unit of eight molecules called as histone octamer
1) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect 2) S-I is correct but S-II is incorrect
3) S-I is incorrect but S-II is correct 4) Both S-I and S-II are correct
139. The metabolic reaction which results in the production of ethanol by yeast is called
1) Fermentation 2) Putrefaction 3) Respriation 4) Degradation
140. Which is used for commercial production of ethanol
1) Aspergillus 2) Saccharomyces 3) Lactobacillus 4) Both 1 and 2

Pg. 15
141. A cross between two tall plants results in offspring having few dwarf plants. What would be the
genotypes of both the parents
1) TT and Tf 2) Tt and Tt 3) TT and TT 4) Tt and tt
142. Which one is not related to modern biotechnology
1) Curd making 2) DNA vaccine 3) Test tube baby 4) Gene therapy
143. Normal E.coli cell have which antibiotic resistance genes
1) Tetracycline 2) Amphicycline 3) Both 1 and 2 4) None of these
144. Eco-RI cuts DNA sequence at
1) 5 ' GAATTC  3 ' 2) 5 ' GAATTC  3 ' 3) 5 ' GAATTG  3 ' 4) 5 ' CTATTG  3 '
3 ' GTTAAC  5 ' 3 ' CTTAAG  5 ' 3 ' GTTAAG  5 ' 3 ' GTTAAC  5 '
145. Find out correct statement in the following
A. DNA fragments move towards which electrode in electrophoresis technique-anode
B. Meloidegyne incognitia infects plant part root
C. RNAi takes place in all eukaryotes as a method of cellular defense
D. Insulin consist of two polypeptide chains
1) Only A, B and C 2) A, B, C and D 3) Only A, C and D 4) Only C
146. Select the correct statement
1) To produce large quantities of desired proteins bioreactors are used
2) Bioreacters are vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted to specific products
using synthetic chemicals
3) Bioreacter provides optimum conditions of temperature, pH, substrate, salts, oxygen etc.
4) Both 1 and 3
147. Select the correct match of the following
List-I List-II
I. Mango A. Muscidae
II. Housefly B. Primata
III. Wheat C. Sapindales
IV. Man D. Monocotyledonal
1) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B 2) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
3) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A 4) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
148. Biogas producing bacteria are
1) Eubacteria 2) Cyanobacteria 3) Archaebacteria 4) Mycoplasma
149. Identify the incorrect one for neurospora
1) It has coenocytic mycelia 2) It asexually reproduce by conidia
3) It is a sac fungus 4) It has a short dikaryophase
150. Select the correct match of the following
List-I List-II
A. phycomycetes I. Sac fungi
B. Ascomycetes II. Algal fungi
C. Basidiomycetes III. Fungi imperfecti
D. Deuteromycetes IV. Club fungi
1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Pg. 16
 ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. Match the following
List – I (Phylum) List – II (feature)
A) Annelida I) The body is covered with external exoskeleton made of chitin
B) Arthropoda II) Metamerically segmented with pseudocoelom
C) Echinodermata III) Cellular level of organization
D) Porifera IV) Water vascular system
V) Jointed appendages
VI) Metamerically segmented with true coelom
1) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III 2) A – VI, B – V, C – IV, D – III
3) A – VI, B – I, C – III, D – IV 4) A – II, B – V, C – IV, D – VI
152. Radially symmetrical acoelomates are
1) Chordates 2) Annelidans 3) Cnidarians 4) Echinoderms
153. Water canal system is the characteristic feature of
1) Porifera 2) Echinodermata 3) Urochordata 4) Coelenterata
154. Inner surface of bronchioles is lined by
1) Cuboidal non ciliated epithelium 2) Columnar ciliated epithelium
3) Columnar non ciliated epithelium 4) Cuboidal ciliated epithelium
155. Difficulty in breathing causing wheezing is a symptom in
1) Asthma 2) Emphesema 3) Fibrosis 4) Bronchitis
156. Find out the INCORRECT one w.r.t. normal respiratory volumes and capacities
1) IC = TV + IRV 2) TLC = VC + RV
3) FRC = IC + VC 4) VC = TV + IRV + ERV
157. Which of the following can activate the chemo sensitive area situated adjacent to the rhythm centre ?
1) High CO2 concentration, less H+ concentration
2) High CO2 concentration, high H+ concentration
3) Less CO2 concentration, high H+ concentration
4) Less CO2 concentration, less H+ concentration
158. Find out the INCORRECT one
1) The lumen of vein is narrower than the lumen of artery
2) In the pulmonary circulation only deoxygenated blood is circulated
3) Tunica media is thin in both arteries & veins
4) All of the above
159. To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected to the machine with three electric leads
1) One to each ankle and to the left wrist
2) One to each wrist and to the left ankle
3) One to each wrist and to the left chest region
4) One to each ankle and to the left chest region
160. Statement-I : Accumulation of urea in blood is known as uremia.
Statement-II : Glomerulonephritis is due to the inflammation of renal tubule of kidney.
1) Both S-I and S-II are correct
2) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect.
3) S-I is correct but S-II is incorrect
4) S-I is incorrect but S-II is correct

Pg. 17
161. Read the following statements w.r.t. human circulatory system
I) Great veins carry oxygenated blood always
II) Pulmonary veins and pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated and oxygenated blood respectively
III) Aorta carries deoxygenated blood
Find out the incorrect statement/s
1) I & II only 2) II & III only 3) II only 4) I, II & III
162. Identify the MISMATCH
1) Myasthenia gravis – Auto immune disorder
2) Arthritis – Inflammation of joints
3) Muscular dystrophy – Contagious disease
4) Gout – Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals
163. Which of the following accommodates pituitary gland in man?
1) Frontal bone 2) Parietal bone
3) Sella tursica (bone cavity) 4) Occipital bone
164. Find out a protein NOT present in thin filaments of myofibrils
1) Actin 2) Troponin 3) Tropomyosin 4) Meromyosin
165. Which of the following structures or regions is INCORRECTLY paired with its function?
1) Medulla oblongata - Controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes
2) Limbic system - Non emotional brain
3) Hypothalamus - Controls body temperature, urge for eating and drinking.
4) Corpus callosum - Tract of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres
166. Hormones involved in carbohydrate metabolism are
1) Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and parathormone
2) Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and glucocorticoids
3) Insulin, glucagon, glucocorticoid and calcitonin
4) Insulin, glucagon, norepinephrine and parathormone
167. Assertion (A) : The presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity.
Reason (R) : In some women the hymen persists even after coitus and it can also be broken by a
sudden fall or Jolt.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
168. Which of the following retains bulk of nutrient rich cytoplasm?
1) Oogonia 2) Gamete mother cell 3) Secondary oocyte 4) Polar body
169. Identify the CORRECT one
1) The presence of X or Y chromosome in the sperm determines the sex of the embryo in human
beings
2) The reproductive cycle of non primates is called menstrual cycle
3) The zygote undergoes repeated meiotic division to form blastocyst
4) All of the above
170. Which of the following is a non-medicated IUD ?
1) CuT 2) Multiload 375 3) Lippes loop 4) LNG
171. Statement I : Increased health facilities along with better living conditions had an explosive impact
on the growth of population.
Statement II : An ideal contraceptive should be user friendly, easily available, effective and
reversible with no or least side-effects
1) Both S-I and S- II are correct 2) S-I is correct but S-II is incorrect
3) S-I is incorrect but S-II is correct 4) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
Pg. 18
172. Identify the STD caused by a protozoan ?
1) Syphilis 2) Gonorrhoea 3) Trichomoniasis 4) All of the above
173. Match the items of column I with column II
Column-I Column-II
A) XX-XO method of sex determination I. Turner's syndrome
B) XX-XY method of sex determination II. Female heterogametic
C) Karyotype-45 III. Grasshopper
D) ZW-ZZ method of sex determination IV. Female Homogametic
1) A-II,B-IV,C-I,D-III 2) A-I,B-IV,C-II,D-III
3) A-III,B-IV,C-I,D-II 4) A-IV,B-II,C-I,D-III
174. In sickle cell anaemia, the sequence of amino acids from the first to the seventh position of the  -
globin chain of haemoglobin S (Hbs) peptide is
1) His, Leu, THr, Pro, Glu, Val, Val 2) Val, His, Leu, Thr, Pro, Glu, Glu
3) Val, His, Leu, Thr, Pro, Val, Glu 4) Thr, His, Pro, Val, Pro, Val, Glu
175. Match the following with regard to Human genome
Column-I Column-II
A) Total number of estimated genes I. 231 genes
B) Base pairs (Nucleotide) in
human genome II. 3164.7 million
C) Chromosome-1 III. 2968 genes
D) Y-chromosome IV. 30,000
V. 8 million
1) A-IV, B-V, C-III, D-I 2) A-IV, B-II, C-V, D-I
3) A-V, B-II, C-III, D-I 4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
176. Assertion (A) : The repetitive DNA are separated from bulk genomic DNA as different peaks during
density gradient centrifugation
Reason (R) : The bulk DNA forms a minor peak & other major peaks are referred to as satellite
DNA
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
177. Arrange the following steps of DNA fingerprinting in sequence:
I) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
II) Isolation of DNA
III) Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography
IV) Southern blotting
V) DNA fragment separation by gel electrophoresis
VI) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases
1) I – II-III - IV –V – VI 2) II – VI-V - IV – I- III
3) II– VI - IV – I –V- III 4) II – V – VI – I – IV – III
178. In Miller’s experiment which of the following were used in spark chamber (closed flask)
1) CH4 2) H2 3) NH3 4) All of the above
179. If 64% of the individuals in a population are homozygous recessive for a character then calculate the
percentage of homozygous dominant individuals in this population
1) 4% 2) 0.4 % 3) 0.8 % 4) 32 %

Pg. 19
180. Homo erectus had a large brain capacity around
1) 650 cc 2) 900 cc 3) 1400 cc 4) 1650 cc
181. The biological product produced from the first transgenic cow was
1) Alpha-I Anti pepsin 2) Beta-1 trypsin
3) Alpha-1 Anti trypsin 4) Beta -1 Anti trypsin
182. Number of disulphide bridges in insulin and proinsulin respectively
1) 3 and 2 2) 1 and 1 3) 2 and 3 4) 3 and 3
183. With regard to insulin choose CORRECT options
a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide.
c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide.
d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges.
Choose the CORRECT answer from the options given below
1) b and d only 2) b and c only 3) a, c and d only 4) a and d only
184. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four year old girl with ADA deficiency ?
1) Immuno therapy 2) Radiation therapy 3) Gene therapy 4) Chemo therapy
185. Statement – I : No population of any species in nature has at its disposal unlimited resources to
permit exponential growth
Statement – II : A logistic growth curve show initially an asymptote phase
1) Both the S-I and S-II are wrong 2) S-I is true but S-II is wrong
3) Both the S-I and S-II are correct 4) S-II is true but S-I is wrong
SECTION – B
186. Identify the INCORRECT one
1) New York at 41 0N has 105 species of birds
2) Greenland at 71 0N has the least number of bird species compare to New York
3) Temperate latitudinal range of 23.5 0N to 23.5 0S harbor more species
4) More solar energy is available in tropics
187. Verhulst – Pearl logistic growth is expressed as
KN
1) dN / dt = r 2) dN / dt  rN   3) r = b - d 4) S  cAz
 K 
188. Which of the following is INCORRECT statement ?
1) All energy pyramids are upright
2) The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted
3) Saprophytes are given prior importance in ecological pyramids
4) All of the above
189. Assertion (A) : Pyramid of biomass is always upright for the tree ecosystem
Reason (R) : Total biomass of a tree in a specific area is more than that of herbivores
1) Both A and R are true and the R is a correct explanation of the A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of the A
3) A is true but the R is false
4) Both A and R are false
190. In a terrestrial ecosystem, the major producers are
1) Phytoplanktons 2) Zooplanktons 3) Woody plants 4) Fishes
191. ‘Rivet Popper Hypothesis’ explains that
1) Areas rich in biodiversity have high productivity.
2) Species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.
3) Areas rich in endemic species might be sites of active speciation
4) Loss of keystone species affects the functioning of ecosystem severely.

Pg. 20
192. Plants capture ____ per cent of PAR in photosynthesis
1) 1 – 5 2) 1 – 10 3) 2 – 10 4) 10 – 20
193. The annual net primary productivity (NPP) of the whole biosphere is approximately _____
1) 170 million tons 2) 170 billion tons 3) 17 billion tons 4) 117 million tons
194. ‘Widal test’ is widely used to diagnose
1) Malaria 2) Dengue 3) Typhoid 4) Black fever
195. Gametocytic stage of Plasmodium develops in
1) Stomach of mosquito 2) Liver of man
3) RBC of man 4) Salivary glands of mosquito
196. Find the CORRECT set matching
A) Opioids - Papaver somniferum - Morphine
B) Cannabinoids - Cannabis sativa - Heroin
C) Cocaine - Erythroxylum coca - Cannabinoid
1) A & B 2) B & C 3) Only A 4) Only C
197. Select the INCORRECT statement with respect to acquired immunity.
1) Anamnestic response is elicited on subsequent encounters with the same pathogen
2) Anamnestic response is due to memory of first encounter
3) Acquired immunity is non-specific type of defense present at the time of birth
4) Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time
198. Match the column and choose the correct option
Column-I Column-II
A. Physical Barrier I PMNL
B. Physiological Barrier II. Saliva
C. Cellular Barrier III. Skin
D. Cytokine Barrier IV. Interferon
1) D-I, C-II, B-III, A-IV 2) D-II, C-I, B-III, A-IV
3) D-III, C-II, B-I, A-IV 4) D-IV, C-I, B-II, A-III
199. Which one of the following options gives the CORRECT matching of a disease with its causative
organism and mode of infection?
1) Malaria – Plasmodium vivax – Bite of male Anopheles mosquito
2) Typhoid – Salmonella typhi – With inspired air and bite of housefly
3) Pneumonia – Streptococcus pneumonie – Droplet infection
4) Elephantiasis – Wuchereria bancrofti – With infected water and food
200. Choose an INCORRECT statement from the following
1) Areolar tissue is present beneath skin
2) In the skin fibres are oriented differently
3) Intercellular material of cartilage is solid and pliable
4) Intercellular material of bone is solid and pliable

*** ALL THE BEST ***

Pg. 21
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 07.12.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-12 Max.Marks: 720

KEY SHEET
PHYSICS
1) 4 2) 2 3) 2 4) 3 5) 1 6) 4 7) 2 8) 1 9) 2 10) 1
11) 1 12) 4 13) 2 14) 3 15) 2 16) 2 17) 1 18) 1 19) 2 20) 2
21) 2 22) 3 23) 4 24) 2 25) 3 26) 4 27) 4 28) 4 29) 4 30) 4
31) 1 32) 3 33) 4 34) 1 35) 1 36) 1 37) 3 38) 4 39) 3 40) 3
41) 3 42) 2 43) 2 44) 3 45) 1 46) 1 47) 1 48) 3 49) 1 50) 2

CHEMISTRY
51) 4 52) 3 53) 2 54) 4 55) 2 56) 3 57) 4 58) 3 59) 4 60) 3
61) 1 62) 4 63) 2 64) 3 65) 2 66) 3 67) 4 68) 3 69) 3 70) 3
71) 3 72) 3 73) 1 74) 1 75) 4 76) 4 77) 3 78) 2 79) 2 80) 4
81) 4 82) 4 83) 2 84) 4 85) 2 86) 2 87) 1 88) 4 89) 4 90) 4
91) 3 92) 2 93) 2 94) 2 95) 2 96) 2 97) 4 98) 3 99) 4 100) 4

BOTANY
101) 2 102) 4 103) 3 104) 3 105) 4 106) 4 107) 4 108) 2 109) 1 110) 1
111) 3 112) 4 113) 3 114) 4 115) 4 116) 1 117) 4 118) 3 119) 4 120) 2
121) 4 122) 3 123) 4 124) 1 125) 2 126) 3 127) 2 128) 3 129) 1 130) 3
131) 2 132) 1 133) 2 134) 3 135) 1 136) 2 137) 3 138) 4 139) 1 140) 2
141) 2 142) 1 143) 4 144) 2 145) 2 146) 2 147) 1 148) 3 149) 1 150) 2

ZOOLOGY
151) 2 152) 3 153) 1 154) 2 155) 1 156) 3 157) 2 158) 3 159) 2 160) 3
161) 4 162) 3 163) 3 164) 4 165) 2 166) 2 167) 4 168) 3 169) 1 170) 3
171) 1 172) 3 173) 3 174) 3 175) 4 176) 2 177) 2 178) 4 179) 1 180) 2
181) 3 182) 4 183) 3 184) 3 185) 1 186) 3 187) 2 188) 3 189) 1 190) 3
191) 4 192) 3 193) 2 194) 3 195) 3 196) 3 197) 3 198) 4 199) 3 200) 4

PAPER SETTER – NLR-ZONE

SNO DIVISION SUBJECT NAME MOBILE NO
1 NLR-NHB PHYSICS PARDHASARADHI SIR 9398666615
2 NLR-SHIVANI CHEMISTRY SURESH SIR 9491459148
3 NLR-COPLUS BOTANY M. DAMODHAR SIR 8500531999
4 NLR-COPLUS ZOOLOGY A. PRASAD BABU SIR 9989800805

Pg 1
 HINTS AND SOLUTIONS
PHYSICS
h
1. 
P
L
2. X cm   xdm
0

MR 2
ML2  R2 
3.  M  
2 12  4 
E V
5. 
Rr R
6. 2(3)  i(1  5)
i  1A
H  i2R
 (1)2  5
 5W
7. P  Vi cos
Vi
 Vi cos 
2
1
cos  
2
  600
8. e  Bl
9. Net force on the charge at A  0
4
10. g  G R 
3


11. P T  1

12. W  P.dV
dQ
13. H 
dt
L  2L L 2L
14.  
V V1 V2
15. T cos  Mg
16. max  A
K
A
m
hc
17. e(V0 )  
3
hc
e(5V0 )  W

18. v r 2
1 dQ
19. c . 
n O
Pg 2
20. M 0T 1  M x (MT 2 ) y
dx
21. V
dt
1 2
and E  mv
2
 n2  n1  n2  n1  1  N
22.
2
g
23. Sn  (2 n  1)
2
24. U  P.t
Fr 2 Gm1m2
25. a) G  b) U 
m1m2 r
W F
c) Vg  d) E g 
m m
T
26. V 

C1V1  C2V2
27. Common potential V 
C1  C2
1
energy stored U  (C1  C 2 )V 2
2
NAB
30. i
R
V
31. r  r 
C
C 1
32.  a 
Cm sin C
Cm 1.5
sin C    0.75
Ca 2.0
1    1 2
33. P 
f R
1
34. E
n2
F
35. l 
AY
36. Torque   NiAB cos
here   0
P.E , U   MB
 0i
37. B
2R

38. F PQ  ( F3  F1 )i  F2 j
a
39. Tan 
g

Pg 3
  
41.   
3 2


6
h
42 l .
cos 60
I I 
43. 1  1 1 2 2
I1  I 2
44. V  2  0.7  1.3
E
45. i
R
46. dU IA 2  dU1D 2
47. a sin   n
1 2P
48. Eaxial 
4 0 x3
50. N  m( g  a)
CHEMISTRY
51. 4NH3  5O2  4NO  6H2O

52. ‘m’ can not more than ‘I’

53. Be2  Mg 2  Na

54. Sulphur cannot from hydrogen bonds

55. H 
2  Ie  so bond order 0.5 and paramagnetic 

56. For the electron present in 2nd orbit, n = 2, 1 can be 0 (or) 1 and m can be -1, 0, +1 but cannot be -2’
1
57. pH  7   pK a  pK b 
2

58. Initial equation

Pg 4
59.
60. 2 IO3  5SO2  4 H 2O  I 2  5SO42  8H 
61. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
62. II  IV  III  I  V
63. Quartz is crystalline form of silica
64. 1 and 2 represent staggered conformation
65. Two chiral carbon atoms and no symmetry elements  22  4
66. All atoms have octet configuration in (III)
67. Due to strong – I nature of  NO2
68. Conceptual
69. I – C (Clemmesen reduction), II – D (Cannizzaro reaction ), III – A (Friede I – Crafts reaction).
IV – B ( Kolbe’s reaction ). Thus, option (c) is correct.
70. It must be alkene (or) internal alkyne
71. HF  HCl  HBr  HI .......... acidic strength
72. II, III
73. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
i  1 1.95  1
74.    0.95
n 1 2 1
75. 1F deposits 1 gm equivalent
76.  nFE 0   nFE 0    nFE 0 

77. 400  25 means 4t 1/ 2

78. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

79. Both statement I and statement II are correct
80. S 0
total
81. NCERT
82. S  2 H 2 SO4  3SO2  2 H 2O
C  2 H 2 SO4  CO2  2 SO2  2 H 2O
83. Conceptual
85. NCERT
86. 215 m bar
87. NCERT
88. Both statement I and statement II are correct
89. A  CH3CN , B  CH3COOH , C  CH3CH2OH
90.

Pg 5
91. X = Benzene, Y = Toluene and Z = Benzoic acid
92. Al  Ga  In  Tl
93. Carbylamine reaction gives isocyanide
94. Ethanol<Phenol<Acetic acid<Chloroacetic acid
95. Vitamin ‘C’ is Ascorbic acid
96. 4 3 1 2
97. A is false but R is true
98. Average rate of reaction

BOTANY
101. In Euglena, the pellicle layer are made up of protein
102. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
103. Multiplication by fragmentation occurs in Algae, fungi and also in bryophytes
104. Foot and seta in its sporophyte present
105. Chlorella and Spirullina are rich in proteins and are used as food supplements even by space
travellers
106. Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct
107. Suberin is present in endodermis
108. In dicot root vascular cambium is only secondary in origin. Initially it froms a wavy ring
109. The first formed primary phloem consists of narrow sieve tubes and is referred to as protophloem
and the later formed phloem has bigger sieve tubes and is referred to as metaphloem
110. Polyadelphous – Citrus
Epipetalous – Brinjal
Epiphyllous – Lily
Perigynous – Peach
111. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
112. The hilum is a scar on the seed coat through which the developing seeds were attached to the fruit
113. • Aerobic respiration requires O2 supply.
• Pyruvic acid is converted to CO2 and ethanol in fermentation
114. When one analyses plant, fungal and microbial cells, one would see thousands of compounds other
than these called primary metabolites, e.g. alkaloides, flavonoides, rubber, essential oils, antibiotics,
coloured pigments, scents, gums, spices. These are called secondary metabolites (Table 9.3). While
primary metabolites have identifiable functions and play known roles in normal physiological
processes, we do not at the moment, understand the role or functions of all the ‘secondary
metabolites’ in host organisms
115. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
116. When the –COOH group of one amino acid reacts with the –NH2 group of the next amino acid with
the elimination of a water moiety is called dehydration
117. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
118. Crossing over is also an enzyme-mediated process and the enzyme involved is called recombinase

Pg 6
119. Metaphase – Chromosomes arranged at equatorial plate
Interphase – The period between two cell division - M-phase
Telophase – Nuclear envelops assembles around the chromosomes clusters
Prophase – Initiation of condensation of chromosomal material
120. 101 meiotic division would be required to produced 101 female gametophyte in angiosperms
121. An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm is collectively
referred to as the cytoskeleton. The cytoskeleton in a cell are involved in many functions such as
mechanical support, motility, maintenance of the shape of the cell.
122. Endomembrane system involves – Golgi, ER, vacuole and lysosome.
123. G2 phase comes after S-phase in which DNA replication takes place hence in G2 20 Pg
In gamete the amount of DNA is 1/4 of the cell at S and G2 phase.
Hence the DNA amount in a cell at the end of G2 or S phase in four times.
124. Yeasts poison themselves to death when the concentration of alcohol reaches about 13 per cent
125. T.W Engelmann (1843 – 1909). Using a prism he split light into its spectral components and then
illuminated a green alga, Cladophora, placed in a suspension of aerobic bacteria.
126. One molecule of glucose 6 turns of the cycle (6 CO2) are required. So five mole required thirty turn.
127. The primary CO2 acceptor is a 3-carbon molecule phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) and is present in the
mesophyll cells. The enzyme responsible for this fixation is PEP carboxylase or PEPcase. It is
important to register that the mesophyll cells lack RuBisCO enzyme. The C4 acid OAA is formed in
the mesophyll cells.
128. The particularly large cells around the vascular bundles of the C4 pathway plants are called bundle
sheath cells, and the leaves which have such anatomy are said to have ‘Kranz’ anatomy. ‘Kranz’
means ‘wreath’ and is a reflection of the arrangement of cells. The bundle sheath cells may form
several layers around the vascular bundles; they are characterised by having a large number of
chloroplasts, thick walls impervious to gaseous exchange and no intercellular spaces. You may like
to cut a section of the leaves of C4 plants – maize or sorghum – to observe the Kranz anatomy and
the distribution of mesophyll cells.
129. Juvenile leaf of Larkspur
130. In fermentation, say by yeast, the incomplete oxidation of glucose is achieved under anaerobic
conditions by sets of reactions where pyruvic acid is converted to CO2 and ethanol. The enzymes,
pyruvic acid decarboxylase and alcohol dehydrogenase catalyse these reactions.
131. PGRs could be indole compounds (indole-3-acetic acid, IAA); adenine derivatives (N6-furfurylamino
purine, kinetin), derivatives of carotenoids (abscisic acid, ABA); terpenes (gibberellic acid, GA3) or
gases (ethylene, C2H4).
132. Ampicillin
133. Situation prevent autogamy and Geitenogamy – Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers
134. Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues lysines and arginines. Both the amino acid residues
carry positive charges in their side chains.
135. Griffith concluded that (R) strain bacteria had been transformed by heat killed (S) strain bacteria.
136. Chlorophyceae and phaeophyceae
137. Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl performed an experiment to proove that replication is
semiconservatve in year 1958.
138. Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct
139. In fermentation
– Incomplete oxidation of glucose
– anaerobic conditions

Pg 7
 – pyruvic acid is converted to CO2 and ethanol
140. Yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) is used for commercial production of ethanol.
141.

142. Old biotechnology - used microorganism – curd making

Modern biotechnology- used genetic engineering- DNA vaccine, test tube baby (IVF) and gene
tharapy
143. The normal E. coli cells do not carry resistance against any of these antibiotics.
144. Eco-RI cuts DNA sequence at
5'–GAATTC–3'
3'–CTTAAG–5'
145. Meloidegyne incognitia infects root
A novel strategy was adopted to prevent this infestation which was based on the process of RNA
interference (RNAi).
RNAi takes place in all eukaryotes as a method of cellular defense
146. Bioreactors can be thought of as vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted into
specific products, individual enzymes, etc., using microbial plant, animal or human cells.

ZOOLOGY
151. Annelida - Body segmentation like rings
Arthropoda - Jointed appendages
Echinodermata - Water vascular system
Porifera - Cellular level of organization
152. Cnidarians
153. Porifera
154. Columnar ciliated epithelium
155. Asthma
156. FRC=ERV+RV
157. High CO2, H+ concentration
158. Tunica media is thin in veins than arteries
159. One to each wrist and to the left ankle
160. Glomerulonephritis is the inflammation of glomeruli of nephrons
161. I) Great veins carry de-oxygenated blood
II) Pulmonary veins and pulmonary arteries carry oxygenated and deoxygenated blood respectively
III) Aorta carries oxygenated blood
162. Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder due to a defective gene on x-chromosome
163. Sella tursica is a cavity in sphenoid bone, which lodges pituitary gland
164. Meromyosin is present in thick filaments
165. Limbic system - Controls emotions, sexual behavier etc.
166. Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and glucocorticoids
168. Secondary oocyte
169. The reproductive cycle of non primates is called oestrous cycle
Zygote undergoes repeated mitotic divisions called cleavages
170. Lippes loop
172. Trichomoniasis
Pg 8
173. Matching type
174. Va, His, Leu, Thr, Pro, Val, Glu
175. Matching type
176. During density gradient centrifugation repetitive sequences are separated from bulk genomic DNA as
minor peaks
177. Isolation of DNA- Digestion of DNA-Gel electrophoresis-Southern blotting-Hybridisation-Detection
by autoradiography
178. CH4, H2, NH3
179. q2 = 64%
64
Frequency of q 2 
100
= 0.64
q = 0.8
p = 0.2
p2 = 0.04 or 4%
180. 900 cc
181. Alpha-1 Anti trypsin
182. 3 and 3
183. The insulin produced by rDNA technology does not includes c-peptide
184. Gene therapy
185. Asymptomate phase occurs when population reaches carrying capacity
186. Tropical latitudinal range of 23.5 0N to 23.5 0S harbor more species
KN
187. dN / dt  rN  
 K 
188. Saprophytes are not given any place in ecological pyramids
190. Woody plants
191. Loss of keystone species affects the functioning of ecosystem severely
192. 2 – 10 %
193. 170 billion tons
194. Typhoid
195. RBC of man
196. Opioids - Papaver somniferum-Morphine
197. Acquired immunity is specific type of defense gained after birth
198. Matching type
199. Pneumonia – Streptococcus pneumonie – Droplet infection
200. Intercellular material of bone is solid and non pliable

Pg 9
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 12.12.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-13 Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
In ever y s u bject:
( a ) In Section – A , 3 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. A n s w er all 3 5 qu estion s from section – A
( b ) In Section – B , 1 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. O ut of w hich A n s w er 1 0 qu estion s onl y .
(c) E ach qu estion c a rries 4 m a r k s. F or e ach correct respon se w ill get 4 m a r k s. F or e ach
incorrect respon se, one m a r k w ill be d e d ucte d from th e tot al scores.
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
hc

1. In the formula F  A.e , where h is Planck’s constant, and c is speed of light. The dimensional
x

formula for x is
1) [ M 0 L0T 0 ] 2) [M 1 L3T 2 ] 3) [M 0 LT
1 0
] 4) [M 1 L2T 2 ]
2. The centripetal acceleration of a particle, moving in a circle of radius 12m, varies with time t as
shown in diagram. If the particle starts from the rest then speed of particle after 1 s is

1) 3 m/s 2) 4 m/s 3) 5 m/s 4) 6 m/s

3. A container filled with a liquid of density 2 is as shown in figure. The velocity of efflux through
orifice is nearly (  density of water, g = 10 m s 2 )

1) 14.1 m/s 2) 28 m/s 3) 10 m/s 4) 20 m/s

4. The length of sonometer wire is 0.75 m and it’s material density is 9 10 kg / m 3 . It can bear
3

maximum stress of 8.1 108 N m 2 without exceeding elastic limit. Fundamental frequency that can
be produced in the wire is
1) 200 Hz 2) 230 Hz 3) 400 Hz 4) 900 Hz
5. Rain is falling vertically downwards with speed 4 km/h. A boy moves on a straight horizontal road
with velocity of 4 km/h. What is apparent velocity of rain w.r.t. boy?
1) Zero 2) 8 km/h 3) 5 km/h 4) 4 2 km/h
6. The electric field lines distribution due to two charges is shown in the figure. Which of the following
is correct?

1) | q A || qB | 2) | q A || qB | 3) | q A || qB | 4) 2 | q A || qB |

7. A pendulum vibrate with a time period of 1 second. The sound produced in it is in the range of
1) supersonic 2) ultrasonic 3) audible 4) infrasonic
Pg. 1
8. Which among the following diode, is forward biased?
1) 2)

3) 4)

1
9. The distance travelled by a particle in t time is given by s  ut  at 3 , where u is the velocity and a
2
is the acceleration. The equation is
1) Dimensionally true 2) Dimensionally false
3) Correct equation 4) (1) and (3) are correct
10. Statement I: A device in which heat measurement can be made is called calorimeter.
Statement II: Skating is possible on snow due to the formation of water below the skates. Water is
formed due to the increase of temperature and ice melts.
Statement III: Two bodies at different temperature are mixed in a calorimeter. Total internal energy
of the two bodies remains conserved.
Which of the following is correct?
1) Statement I, II and III are true
2) Statements I is true, but statements II and III are false
3) Both statements I and II are true, but statements III is false
4) Both statements I and III are true, but statements II is false
11. Assertion (A): Though the same current flows through the line wires and the filament of the bulb but
heat produced in the filament is much higher than that in line wires.
Reason (R): The filament of bulbs is made of a material of high resistance and low melting point.
1) Both A and R are true and R is a correct explanation for A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation for A
3) A is true, R is false
4) A is false, R is true
12. A point source of power 16 W is emitting sound waves. The intensity at a distance 100 m from
source will be
1) 4 104W / m2 2) 2 104W / m2
3) 9 102W / m2 4) 8 103W / m2
13. In a Young’s double slit experiment setup, if the distance between the slit plane and screen is
doubled and the distance between the slits is halved, then the distance between first maxima and
third minima on same side of the central maxima
1) Will remain unchanged 2) Will become four times of initial value
3) Will become two times of initial value 4) Will become half of initial value
0
14. The angle of prism is equal to 60 and the refractive index is 2 . The angle of incidence for the
condition of minimum deviation will be
1) 45o 2) 60o 3) 30o 4) 90o
15. The electric field at a distance 3R from centre of a uniformly charged spherical shell of radius R is E.
R
The electric field at a distance from the centre will be
4
E E
1) 2) 3) 3E 4) Zero
2 4
16. In the following circuit, the rms value of the current through the source will be

1) 60 A 2) 55 A 3) 78 A 4) 110 A

Pg. 2
17. For which of the following values of A and B, would the value of Y be high (1)?

1) A = 1, B = 1 2) A = 0, B = 1 3) A = 1, B = 0 4) All of these
18. Centre of mass is a point
1) which is the geometric centre of a body
2) which is the origin of reference frame
3) where the whole mass of the body is supposed to be concentrated
4) from which distances of all particles are same
19. Assertion (A): Angular speed, linear speed as kinetic energy change with time but angular
momentum about the sun remains constant for a planet orbiting the sun.
Reason (R): Angular momentum about the sun is constant as no torque acts on the planet.
1) Both A and R are true and R is a correct explanation for A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation for A
3) A is true, R is false
4) A is false, R is true
20. A solid sphere is set into motion on a rough horizontal surface with a linear speed v in the forward
v
direction and an angular speed in the anticlockwise direction as shown in figure. Find the linear
R
v
speed of the sphere when it stops rotating and  
R

3v 2v 4v 7v
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 5 3 3
21. A pendulum is swinging in an elevator. Its period will be greatest when the elevator is
1) moving upwards at constant speed 2) moving downwards
3) moving downwards at constant speed 4) accelerating downwards
22. Match the following diagrams with the correct statement
List I List II
(a) (i) image on the other side of lens and inverted.

(b) (ii) Positive magnification m > 1

(c) (iii) Real image

(d) (iv) No image

1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) 2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) 4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
Pg. 3
23. Glass has refractive index '  ' with respect to air and the critical angle for a ray of light going from
glass to air is ' ' . If a ray of light is incident from air on the glass with angle of incidence ' ' ,
corresponding angle of refraction is
 1   1  1
1) sin 1 
    
2) sin 1  3) sin 1  2 
 
4) sin 1  

 
24. Assertion (A) : The air bubble shines in water.
Reason (R): Air bubble in water shines due to refraction of light.
1) Both A and R are true and R is a correct explanation for A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation for A
3) A is true, R is false
4) A is false, R is true
25. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity at a point where the path difference is
 I
(  =wavelength of the light) is I. If I 0 denotes the maximum intensity, then is equal to
6 I0
1 3 1 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 4
26. The photoelectric threshold wavelength for silver is 0 . The energy of the electron ejected from the
surface of silver by an incident wavelength     0  will be:
hc h     
1) hc  0    2) 3)  0  4) hc  0 
0   c  0   0 
27. From the figure describing photoelectric effect we may infer correctly that:

1) Na and Al both have the same threshold frequency

2) maximum kinetic energy for both the metals depend linearly on the frequency
3) the stopping potential are different for Na and Al for the same change in frequency
4) Al is a better photo sensitive material than Na
28. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron is the same as that of a 50 keV X-ray photon. The ratio of
the energy if the photon to the kinetic energy of the electron is (the energy equivalent of electron
mass is 0.5 MeV)
1) 1 : 50 2) 1 : 20 3) 20 : 1 4) 50 : 1
29. An electron is moving is an orbit of a hydrogen atom from which there can be a maximum of six
transition. An electron is moving in an orbit of another hydrogen atom from which there can be a
maximum of three transition. The ratio of the velocities of the electron in these two orbits is:
1 2 5 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 1 4 4
30. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is  13.6eV . When its electron is in the first excited state,
its excitation energy is
1) 3.4 eV 2) 6.8 eV 3) 10.2 eV 4) Zero
31. When hydrogen atom is in its first excited level, its radius is
1) four times, its ground state radius 2) twice, its ground state radius
3) same as its ground state radius 4) half of its ground state radius

Pg. 4
32. Assume that each diode as shown in the figure has a forward bias resistance of 50  and an infinite
reverse bias resistance. The current through the resistance 150  is

1) 0.66 A 2) 0.05 A 3) zero 4) 0.04 A

33. The barrier potential of p-n junction depends on
(i) type of semiconductor material
(ii) amount of doping
(iii) temperature
Which one of the following is correct?
1) (i) and (ii) only 2) (ii) only
3) (ii) and (iii) only 4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
34. The ratio of acceleration due to gravity at a height h above the surface of the earth and at a depth h
below the surface of the earth h << R, radius of earth
1) is constant 2) increase linearly with h
3) decreases linearly with h 4) decreases parabolically with h
35. A solid cylinder at rest at top of an inclined plane of height 2.7m, rolls down without slipping. If the
same cylinder has to slide down a frictionless inclined plane and acquire the same velocity as that
acquired by centre of mass of rolling cylinder, at the bottom of inclined plane, the height of the
inclined plane should be
1) 6 ms 1 , 1.5 m 2) 7 ms 1 , 2.5 m 3) 6 ms 1 , 1.8 m 4) 3 ms 1 , 1.2 m
SECTION-B
36. A satellite is orbiting the Earth in a circular orbit of radius R. Which one of the following statement
is true?
1
1) Angular momentum varies as 2) Linear momentum varies as R
R
1 1
3) Frequency of revolution varies as 2 4) Kinetic energy varies as
R R
37. A uniform rod is suspended horizontally from its mid-point. A piece of metal whose weight is w is
suspended at a distance l from the mid-point. Another weight W1 is suspended on the other side at a
distance l1 from the mid-point to bring the rod to a horizontal position. When w is completely
immersed in water, w1 needs to be kept at a distance l2 from the mid-point to get the rod back into
horizontal position. The specific gravity of the metal piece is
w wl1 l l
1) 2) 3) 1 4) 1
w1 wl  w1l2 l1  l2 l2
38. A soap bubble of radius 1.0 cm is formed inside another soap bubble of radius 2.0 cm. The radius of
an another soap bubble which has the same pressure difference as that between the inside of the
smaller and outside of large soap bubble, in meters is
1) 6.67 103 2) 3.34 103 3) 2.23103 4) 4.5 103
39. Match the following List-I with the List-II
List I List II
(A) Equation of continuity (I) Less than critical velocity
(B) Bernoulli’s theorem (II) Formation of eddies and vortices
(C) Turbulent flow (III) Law of conservation of mass
(D) Stream line flow (IV) Law of conservation of energy
The correct answer is
1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) 2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) 4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Pg. 5
40. Match the column I with column II and select the correct choice out of the three options
Column I Column II
(a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (i) Change in internal energy is zero
(b) First law of thermodynamics (ii) Defines internal energy
(c) In a complete cycle of changes (iii) Give us the concept of temperature
1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) 2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) 4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
41. Tangential and angular acceleration of a particle are 10 m / s 2 and 5 rad / s 2 respectively. What is its
distance from rotational axis?
1) 0.5 m 2) 1 m 3) 2 m 4) 4 m
42. Assertion (A): The heat supplied to a system is always equal to the increase in its internal energy.
Reason (R): When a system change from one thermal equilibrium to another, some heat may be is
absorbed by it.
1) Both A and R are true and R is a correct explanation for A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation for A
3) A is true, R is false
4) A is false, R is true
43. Match the following with correct sequence
Column I Column II
(a) F (i) m  v
(b) P (ii) Momentum after collision are equal
p  p1
(c) P (iii) 2
t
(d) Momentum before collision (iv) m  a
1) a(iv), b(i),c(iii), d(ii) 2) a(ii), b(iv),c(i), d(iii)
3) a(iii), b(ii),c(iv), d(i) 4) a(i), b(iii),c(ii), d(iv)
44. A body kept on a smooth inclined plane having inclination 1 in s will remain stationary relative to
inclined plane if the body is given a horizontal acceleration equal to

g gs g s2 1
1) 2) 3) 4) g s 2  1
s 1
2
s 1
2 s
45. In the cube of side ‘a’ shown in the figure, the vector from the central point of the face ABOD to the
central point of the face BEFO will be

1)
2

1 ˆ ˆ
a i k  1
2

2) a ˆj  iˆ  1

3) a ˆj  kˆ
2
 1

4) a kˆ  iˆ
2

46. A drunker takes a step of 1 m in 1s. He takes 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward and so on. The
time taken by him to fall in a pit 13 m away from the start is
1) 26 s 2) 31 s 3) 37 s 4) 32 s
Pg. 6
47. Two masses A and B of 15 kg and 10 kg are connected with a string passing over a frictionless
pulley fixed at the corner of a table (as shown in figure). The coefficient of friction between the table
and block is 0.4. The minimum mass of C, that may be placed on A to prevent it from moving is:

1) 10 kg 2) 5 kg 3) zero 4) 15 kg
48. A 13m ladder is placed against a smooth vertical wall its lower end at a distance 5m from the wall.
The minimum coefficient of friction between the ladder and the floor so that the ladder remains in
equilibrium is nearly
1) 0.52 2) 0.72 3) 0.21 4) 0.36
49. A bullet of mass 25g moves horizontally at a speed of 250 m/s is fired into a wooden block of mass 1
kg suspended by a long string. The bullet crosses the block and emerges on the other side. If the
centre of the mass of the block rises through a height of 20cm. The speed of the bullet as it emerges
from the block is (take, g = 10 m / s 2 )
1) 300 m/s 2) 220 m/s 3) 150 m/s 4) 170 m/s
50. The average speed of the bob of a simple pendulum oscillating with a small amplitude A and time
period T is
4A 2 A 4 A 2A
1) 2) 3) 4)
T T T T
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. Which of the following reagents/ reactions will convert 'A' to 'B'?

1) PCC oxidation 2) Ozonolysis


3) BH 3 , H 2O2 / OH followed by PCC oxidation
4) HBr, hydrolysis followed by oxidation by K 2Cr2O7
52. The conversion of propan-1-ol to n-butylamine involves the sequential addition of reagents. The
correct sequential order of reagents is
1) (i) SOCl2 (ii) KCN , (iii) H 2 / Ni, Na  Hg  / C2 H 5OH
2) (i) HCl (ii) H 2 / Ni ,(iii) Na(Hg)/ C 2 H 5OH
3) (i) SOCl2 (ii) KCN, (iii) CH 3 NH 2 4) (i) HCl (ii) CH 3 NH 2
53. The IUPAC name of ethylidene chloride is :-
1) 1-Chloroethene 2) 1-Chloroethyne 3) 1,2-Dichloroethane 4) 1,1-Dichloroethane
54. Consider the following pairs of electrons
(A) (i) n = 3, l = 1, ml = 1, ms = +1/2
(ii) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 1, ms = +1/2
(B) (i) n = 3, l = 2, ml = –2, ms = –1/2
(ii) n = 3, l = 2, ml = –1, ms = –1/2
(C) (i) n = 4, l = 2, ml = 2, ms = +1/2
(ii) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 2, ms = +1/2
The pairs of electron present in degenerate orbitals is/are
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) B and C
Pg. 7
55. Identify the incorrect statement
1) Noble gases being monoatomic have no interatomic forces except weak dispersion forces and
therefore, they are liquefied at very low temperatures
2) Bromine and iodine are only sparingly soluble in water but are insoluble in organic solvents such
as chloroform, carbon tetrachloride, carbon disulphide and hydrocarbons to give coloured solutions
3) The large difference between the melting and boiling points of oxygen and sulphur may be
explained on the basis of their atomicity
4) In the case of nitrogen, all oxidation states from +1 to +4 tend to disproportionate in acid solution.
56. Halogenation of which one of the following will yield m-substituted product with respect to methyl
group as a major product ?

1) 2) 3) 4)

57. Which statement is not correct for benzenesulphonyl chloride ?

1) It is known as Hinsberg’s reagent
2) It is used to distinguish primary, secondary and tertiary amines
3) On treatment with secondary amine, it leads to a product, that is soluble in alkali
4) It doesn’t react with tertiary amines
58. Which one of the following is a water soluble vitamin, that is not excreted easily ?
1) Vitamin B2 2) Vitamin B1
3) Vitamin B6 4) Vitamin B12
59. The ratio of number of oxygen atoms (O) in 16.0g ozone ( O3 ), 28.0 g carbon monoxide (CO) and
16.0 oxygen ( O2 ) is (Atomic mass : C = 12, O = 16 and Avogadro’s constant N A = 6.0 1023 mol 1 )
1) 3 : 1 : 2 2) 1 : 1 : 2 3) 3 : 1 : 1 4) 1 : 1 : 1

60. The decreasing order of bond angles in BF3 , NH 3 , PF3 and I3 is :
1) I 3  BF3  NH 3  PF3
2) BF3  I 3  PF3  NH 3
3) BF3  NH 3  PF3  I3
4) I 3  NH 3  PF3  BF3
61. 1 mol of an ideal gas expanded reversibly from 10 L to 100 L at 27°C. Work done involved in the
process is
1) –5.74 J 2) –5.74 kJ 3) –57.4 kJ 4) –57.4 J
62. For the reaction A(g) →2B(g)
∆U = 2 kcal, ∆S = 15 cal K 1 at 300 K
∆G for the above reaction is
1) –1.5 kcal mol 1 2) –1.9 kcal mol 1
3) –3.5 kcal mol 1 4) –3.8 kcal mol 1
63. Identify the incorrect statement.
1) The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity due to their ability
to adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes
2) Interstitial compounds are those that are formed when small atoms like H, C or N are trapped
inside the crystal lattices of metals
3) The oxidation state of chromium in CrO42  and Cr2 O72  are not the same
4) Cr 2   d 4  is a stronger reducing agent than Fe2   d 6  in water

Pg. 8
64. Arrange the following conformational isomers of n-butane in order of their increasing potential
energy :

1) II < III < IV < I 2) I < IV < III < II

3) II < IV < III < I 4) I < III < IV < II
3
65. If the molar conductivity of 10 M HA is 39 S cm 2 mol 1 , then its dissociation constant will be
[Given 0m  HA  390 S cm2 mol 1 ]
1) 107 M 2) 106 M 3) 108 M 4) 105 M
66. Represent the cell in which the following reaction takes place
Mg  s   2 Ag   0.0001M   Mg 2   0.130 M   2 Ag  s  . Calculate its Ecell if Eocell   3.17V . (
log1.3  0.1139 )
1) 3.17 2) 2.96 3) 0.21 4) 3.38
67. For the non-equilibrium process,
A  B  products,
the rate is first-order w.r.t. A and second-order w.r.t. B. If 1.0 mole each of A and B introduced into a
1.0 L vessel and the initial rate was1.0  10 2 mol L1 s 1 , rate when half reactants have been turned
into products is :
1) 1.25  10 3 mol L1s 1 2) 1  10 2 mol L1 s 1
3) 2.50  10 3 mol L1s 1 4) 2.0  10 2 mol L1s 1
68. A first order reaction has a rate constant 1.15 103 s 1 . How long will 5g of this reactant take to
reduce to 3g ?
1) 444 sec 2) 222 sec 3) 400 sec 4) 333 sec
69. Which of the following is a Transuranium element ?
1) Tb 2) W 3) Th 4) Np
70. Which among the following complexes shows optical isomerism ?
1) [ Pt  NH3 2 ClBr ] 2) [Co  NH 3 6 ]Cl3
3) [Co  en 3 ]Cl3 4) [ Fe  H 2O 5 NO]SO4
71. Which of the following alkyl halides is most reactive towards S N 1 reaction ?
1) CH 2  CH  CH 2  Cl 2) CH 3  CH 2  Cl
Cl
3) 4) |
CH 3  CH  CH 3
72. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives :

1) 2) 3) 4)

Pg. 9
73. Arrange the following carbocations in decreasing order of stability.

1) B > A > C 2) A > B > C 3) C > B > A 4) C > A > B

3
74. The pair, in which ions are isoelectronic with Al is:
1) Br  and Be2 2) Cl  and Li 
3) S 2 and K  4) O2 and Mg 2 
75. The intermediate X, in the reaction

is

1) 2) 3) 4)

76. Match List-I with List-II

List I List-II
2
A. [ PtCl4 ] (i) sp 3 d
B. BrF5 (ii) d 2 sp 3
C. PCl5 (iii) dsp 2
D. [Co  NH3 6 ]3 (iv) sp 3 d 2
1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii 2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
3) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii 4) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
77. Match the compounds given in column I with the reagents (Which can distinguish the compounds)
given in column II
Column I Column II
CH 3  C  H CH 3  C  CH 3
(A) || || (p) Tollen’s reagent
O O
I II

(B) (q) I 2 / NaOH

OH O
(C) | || (r) Lucas reagent
CH 3  CH  CH 3 , CH 3  C  CH 3
I II
CH 3  CH 2  C  H CH 3  C  H
(D) || || (s) Neutral FeCl3
O O
I II

Pg. 10
 Choose the correct code:
1) (A)-(p), (B)-(s), (C)-(r), (D)-(q)
2) (A)-(p), (B)-(q), (C)-(r), (D)-(s)
3) (A)-(s), (B)-(q), (C)-(r), (D)-(p)
4) (A)-(q), (B)-(p), (C)-(s), (D)-(r)
78. The most common oxidation state of Lanthanoid elements is +3. Which of the following is likely to
deviate easily from +3 oxidation state ?
1) Ce (At. No. 58) 2) La (At. No. 57) 3) Lu (At. No. 71) 4) Gd (At. No. 64)
79. Which of the following statements /relationships is not correct in thermodynamic changes ?
1)  U  0 (isothermal reversible expansion of a gas)
V
2) w   nRT in 2 (isothermal reversible expansion of a gas)
V1
V
3) w  nRT in 2 (isothermal reversible expansion of a gas)
V1
4) For a system of constant volume heat involved directly change to internal energy
80. Conjugate acid and bases for H 2 PO4 ion respectively are
1) H 3 PO4 and H 3 PO2 2) H 3 PO4 and PO43 
3) H 3 PO3 and HPO42 4) H 3 PO4 and HPO42
81. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction ?
1) 2,3-Dimethylbutane 2) n-Heptane
3) n-Butane 4) n-Hexane

82. During the change of O2 to O2 the incoming electron goes to the orbital:
1)  2 p y 2)  * 2 pz 3)  * 2 px 4)  2 p x
2
 
83. Fe  SCN   Fe  SCN  
3
 aq 

 aq 
Yellow  deep red   aq 
Colourless

The equilibrium can be shifted in the opposite direction (i.e., decrease in intensity of red colour) by
adding reagents like
1) Mercuric chloride 2) Potassium thiocyanate
3) Oxalic acid 4) Both (1) and (3)
84. Oxidation number of potassium in K 2 O , K 2O2 and KO2 , respectively is
1) +2, +1 and +1/2 2) +1, +1 and +1 3) +1, +4 and +2 4) +1, +2 and +4
85. Haemoglobin contains 0.25% iron by weight. The molecular weight of haemoglobin is 89600. What
is the number of iron atom per molecule of haemoglobin? (atomic weight Fe = 56)
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8
SECTION-B
86. 3 p z orbital has
a) One radial node b) Two radial nodes
c) One angular node d) Two angular nodes
1) b and d only 2) a and c only 3) b and c only 4) a and d only
87. Identify the incorrect match. Name IUPAC official name
A. Unnilunium i. Mendelevium
B. Unniltrium ii. Lawrencium
C. Unnilhexium iii. Sea borgium
D. Unununnium iv. Darmstadtium
1) A - i 2) B - ii 3) C - iii 4) D – iv
88. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their covalent character:
(A) LiCl (B) NaCl (c) KCl (d) CsCl
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
1) (A)>(C)>(B)>(D) 2) (B)>(A)>(C)>(D)
3) (A)>(B)>(C)>(D) 4) (A)>(B)>(D)>(C)
Pg. 11
89. If the sparingly soluble salts M 2 X , QY2 and PZ 3 have the same solubilities, their K sp values are
related as: (S << 1)
1) K sp  M 2 X   K sp  QY2   K sp  PZ 3  2) K sp  M 2 X   K sp  QY2   K sp  PZ 3 
3) K sp  M 2 X   K sp  QY2   K sp  PZ 3  4) K sp  M 2 X   K sp  QY2   K sp  PZ 3 
90. Assertion : The relative stability of +1 oxidation state progressively increases for heavier elements:
Al  Ga  In  Tl .
Reason: Down the group, due to poor shielding effect of intervening d and f orbitals, the increased
effective nuclear charge holds ns electrons tightly (responsible for inert pair effect) and thereby,
restricting their participation in bonding.
1) Both Assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion .
2) Both Assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion .
3) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
4) Assertion is false, but reason is true
91. Statement I: GeX 4 is more stable than GeX 2 .
Statement II: All tetrachlorides of group 14 elements are easily hydrolysed by water because the
central atom can accommodate the lone pair of electrons from oxygen atom of water molecule in d
orbital.
1) Both statement I and statement II are true
2) Statement I is true, statement II is false
3) Statement I is false, statement II is true
4) Both statement I and statement II are false
92. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is

1) 4-methyl-2-nitro-5-oxohept-3-enal
2) 4-methyl-5-oxo-2-nitrohept-3-enal
3) 4-methyl-6-nitro-3-oxohept-4-enal
4) 6-formyl-4-methyl-2-nitrohex-3-enal
93. CH 3  CH 2 Cl 
alcoholic KOH
 A 
Br2
B 
Zn

C
1) Acetylene 2) Ethane 3) Ethene 4) Methane
94. Which of the following statements is correct regarding a solution of two components A and B
exhibiting positive deviation from ideal behaviour ?
1) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are stronger than those between A-B.
2) ∆mixH = 0 at constant T and P
3) ∆mixV = 0 at constant T and P
4) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are equal to those between A-B
95. Which will have largest Tb ?
1) 180 g glucose in 1 kg water
2) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water
3) 18 g of sucrose in 100 g of water
4) 65 g of urea in 1 kg of water
96. In the given reaction,

The number of electrons present in the product ‘P’ is ___

1) 6e– 2) 4e– 3) 8e– 4) 2e–
Pg. 12
97. Ethanoic acid cannot be obtained by which of the following reaction?
(i) C2 H 5Cl 
( i ) KCN
( ii ) H O 

3

(ii) CH 3Cl 

( i ) aq . KOH
( ii ) PCC

(iii) CH 3CH  CH 2 
KMnO4 / H

(iv) CH 3 Br ( i ) Mg
( ii ) CO2

( iii ) H 3O 

1) (iii) and (iv) only 2) (i) and (ii) only

3) (ii) and (iii) only 4) (i) and (iv) only
98. In which one of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the
properties indicated against it
1) CO2  SiO2  SnO2  PbO2  increasing oxidising power
2) HF  HCl  HBr  HI  increasing acidic strength
3) H 2O  H 2 S  H 2 Se  H 2Te  increasing pKa value
4) NH 3  PH 3  AsH 3  SbH 3  increasing reducing power
99. In solid state PCl5 is a _____.
1) covalent solid
2) Octahedral structure
3) ionic solid with [ PCl6 ] octahedral and [ PCl4 ] tetrahedra
4) ionic solid with [ PCl4 ] octahedral and [ PCl6 ] octrahedra
100. Consider the following reaction sequence
CH 3  C  CH  HgSO4
dil . H 2 SO4
 X 
CH 3 MgBr
H O
Y
3

The number of (C – H)  -bonds in ‘Y’ is

1) 10 2) 12 3) 11 4) 9
BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. Microphylls are found in
1) Selaginella 2) Pteris 3) Dryopteris 4) Adiantum
102. Identify the given organism and label A, then select the suitable option

Organism Label A
(a) Laminaria Stipe
(b) Porphyra Frond
(c) Fucus Air bladder
(d) Polysiphonia Branches
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
103. Select the set of organisms in which flagellated gametes are not formed.
1) Ulothrix, Volvox, Spirogyra 2) Porphyra, Gelidium, Spirogyra
3) Sargassum, Fucus, Ulothrix 4) Ulothrix, Chara, Chlamydomonas
Pg. 13
104. “Protoxylem lies towards the A in stem. Such arrangement of xylem is called B . Select the
correct option for A and B.
1) A-Centre, B-Exarch 2) A-Periphery, B-Exarch
3) A-Centre, B-Endarch 4) A-Periphery, B-Endarch
105. A few epidermal cells, in the vicinity of the guard cells become specialized in their shape and size,
are known as
1) Subsidiary cells 2) Complementary cells
3) Bulliform cells 4) Passage cells
106. Companion cells
1) Are specialized sclerenchymatous cells
2) Are closely associated with sieve tube elements
3) Lack nucleus at maturity
4) Are found in gymnosperms
107. Read the given statements and select the correct ones regarding viroids.
(a) A protein coat is present
(b) Smallest self replicating particle
(c) Discovered by T.O. Diener
(d) They infect plants
1) Only (a) & (b) 2) Only (b) & (c)
3) Only (b), (c) & & (d) 4) Only (c) & (d)
108. Assertion (A): Members of kingdom fungi show a great diversity in their morphology and habitat.
Reason (R): Fungi are cosmopolitan and prefer to grow in cool and humid places only.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
109. Spores in slime moulds
1) Are formed during unfavourable conditions
2) Are without cell wall
3) Are dispersed with the help of flagella
4) Are formed in gemmae cups
110. Match the columns and select the correct option
Column I Column II
a. Polyandrous condition (i) Sepals united
b. Polyadelphous condition (ii) Filaments are united into more than two
bundles
c. Epiphyllous stamen (iii) Free stamens
d. Gamosepalous condition (iv) Stamen is attached to perianth
1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) 2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) 4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
111. Flowers of which of the given plants are asymmetric?
(a) Canna (b) Cassia (c) Bean (d) Mustard
(e) Datura
1) Only (b) 2) Both (c) and (e) 3) Both (d) and (e) 4) Only (a)
112. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. placentation
1) Tomato – Axile 2) Mustard – Parietal
3) Marginal – Pea 4) Free central – Sunflower
113. Select the incorrect statement
1) Split-gene arrangement is a characteristic feature of eukaryotes
2) During splicing introns are removed and exons are joined
3) In prokaryotes, mRNA does not require any processing to become active
4) For the transmission of genetic information, DNA is better material
114. The protein encoded by gene crylAb controls
1) Mosquito 2) Beetles 3) Corn borer 4) Flies

Pg. 14
115. RNA interference has been used in the development of tobacco plants resistant to
1) Nematodes 2) Armyworm 3) Beetles 4) Flies
116. Assertion : Bt cotton plants are pesticide resistant.
Reason: Bt cotton plants have been prepared by introducing toxin from Bacillus thuringiensis.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
3) Assertion is true statement but reason is false
4) Both assertion and reason are false statements
117. Identify the feature which is not true for plants that are better adapted for dry tropical regions and
have Hatch and Slack cycle.
1) They show double carboxylation
2) They have large number of chloroplasts in bundle sheath cells
3) They have cold sensitive enzyme PEPcase in bundle sheath cells
4) They lack photorespiration
118. How many ATP molecules are required for regeneration of 6 molecules of RuBP during regeneration
step of C3 cycle?
1) 18 2) 3 3) 6 4) 1
119. The transmembrane channel embedded into the thylakoid membrane that carries out facilitated
diffusion of protons across the membrane into the stroma of the chloroplast is
1) CF1 -particle 2) CF0 -particle 3) Cytochrome b0 f 4) PQ
120. Which of the following pairs represents the cyanobacteria used as biofertilizers?
1) Anabaena and Oscillatoria
2) Rhizobium and Nostoc
3) Glomus and Aulosira
4) Azotobacter and Pinus
121. Pectinases and proteases are used for
1) Clarification of bottled juices
2) Lowering cholesterol levels of blood
3) Suppressing the immune system of the body
4) Primary treatment of sewage
122. Read the following statements and state true (T) or false (F).
A. Conventional farming is a holistic approach that seek to develop an understanding of the webs of
interaction between the myriad of organisms that constitute the field fauna and flora.
B: The use of biocontrol measures will greatly reduce the dependence on toxic chemicals and
pesticides.
C. Baculoviruses are available in sachets as dried spores which are mixed with water and sprayed
onto vulnerable plants such as Brassicas and fruit trees.
D. Trichoderma species are free-living fungi that are very common in the root ecosystems.
1) A(T), B(T), C(T), D(T) 2) A(T), B(T), C(F), D(T)
3) A(F), B(T), C(F), D(T) 4) A(F), B(T), C(T), D(T)
123. Select the correct option representing hierarchical arrangement of taxonomic categories in ascending
order.
1) Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
2) Species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom
3) Kingdom, phylum, order, class, family, genus, species
4) Species, genus, family, class, order, phylum, kingdom
124. Diplotene stage of meiosis
1) Involves crossing over between homologous chromosome
2) Can last for months or years in the oocytes of some vertebrates
3) Involves synapsis of homologus chromosomes
4) Represents transition to metaphase I
125. Enzyme recombinase activity is seen in
1) Pachytene 2) Zygotene
3) Leptotene 4) Diplotene
Pg. 15
126. Match column I with column II and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
a. S-phase (i) Actual cell division
b. G2 -phase (ii) Centriole duplication
c. G1 -phase (iii) Tubulin protein synthesis
d. M-phase (iv) Duplication of most of the cell organelles
1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) 2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) 4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
127. Select the odd one out w.r.t. functions of mesosomes
1) They help in cell wall formation
2) They help in DNA replication and distribution to daughter cells
3) They help in respiration and secretion process
4) They decrease the surface area of plasma membrane and enzymatic content
128. Which of the following cell organelles is bounded by a single membrane?
1) Chloroplasts 2) Mitochondria
3) ER 4) Nucleus
129. How many of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) The cell wall of a young plant cell is capable of growth
(b) Secondary cell wall holds or glues the different neighbouring cells together
(c) Middle lamella is formed on the inner side of the plant cell
(d) The cell wall and middle lamella may be traversed by plamodesmata which connect the
cytoplasm of neighbouring cell
1) One 2) Three 3) Four 4) Two
130. ‘P’ is the complex nitrogen containing homopolysaccharide that forms
1) Fungal cell wall
2) Reserve food material in plants
3) Energy storing material in mammals
4) Most abundant organic compound in biosphere
131. ‘X’ belongs to class of enzymes that cleaves the peptide bonds while ‘Y’ belongs to the class of
enzymes that leads to the formation of phosphodiester bonds. (responsible for ligation)
Identify the class of enzymes to which ‘X’ and ‘Y’ belong to respectively and select the correct
option.
1) 2, 5 2) 3, 6 3) 4, 6 4) 2, 3
132. Choose the basic amino acid among the following
1) Glutamic acid 2) Lysine
3) Valine 4) Glycine
133. Experimental verification chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by
1) Bateson and Punnet 2) T.H. Morgan
3) Watson and Crick 4) Sutton and Boveri
134. Match the following columns and select the correct option
Column I Column II
(a) Primary constriction (i) Kinetochores
(b) Beyond secondary constriction (ii) Satellite
(c) Disc shaped structures on the sides of primary (iii) Telomere
constriction
(d) End of the chromosome (iv) Centromere
1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) 2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) 4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
135. Complete the analogy and select the correct option.
Lysozyme : Bacteria : : Chitinase : ______
1) Plant cell 2) Fungus 3) Animal cell 4) Protozoan

Pg. 16
 SECTION-B
136. Restriction enzyme whose restriction site is represented by the region marked ‘A’ is

1) Pvu I 2) Bam HI 3) Pst I 4) Hind III

137. DNA that is isolated with the help of enzymes and chilled ethanol can be removed by a glass rod,
process called
1) Elution 2) Dialysis 3) Spooling 4) Cloning
138. Find the incorrect pair of the scientists and the plant material they worked on w.r.t. discovered of
plant growth regulators
1) F.W. Went - Oat seedling
2) E. Kurosawa - Rice seedling
3) F. Skoog - Ripened orange
4) Francis Darwin - Canary grass
139. Arrange the RQ of the following substrates in ascending order and select the correct option
a. Oxalic acid b. Tripalmitin c. Glucose d. Albumin
1) a < c < d < b 2) b < d < c < a 3) a < d < c < d 4) b < c < d < a
140. In one of the events related to translation of mRNA, the release factor can bind to all of the following
codons, except
1) UAG 2) UAA 3) UGG 4) UGA
141. Assertion (A): Pollen tube enters the ovule usually through micropylar end.
Reason (R): Embryo sac is mostly formed by functional megaspore present towards micropylar pole
of ovule.
Find the correct option w.r.t. above Assertion (A) and reason (R)
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
4) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
142. Tricarboxylic acid cycle
1) Serve as a common oxidative pathway for carbohydrates, fats and proteins
2) Includes two steps of substrate level phosphorylation reactions
3) Involves action of succinate dehydrogenase which is found in mitochondrial matrix
4) Is also known as gateway reaction
143. Cytochrome a, a3 and two copper centres constitutes
1) Complex IV of ETS that receives electron directly from cytochrome c
2) Complex V of ETS that receives electron directly from ubiquinone
3) Complex II of ETS that receives electron directly from NADH 2
4) Complex III of ETS that receives electron directly from FADH 2
144. Choose the incorrect match
1) Auxin - Controls xylem differentiation
2) ABA - Overcome apical dominance
3) Gibberellic acid - Speeds up malting process
4) Ethylene - Promotes abscission in plants
145. Which among the following is not a dedifferentiated tissue?
1) Interfascicular vascular cambium 2) Wound cambium
3) Cork 4) Cork cambium

Pg. 17
146. A person has both I A and I B alleles of gene I. His blood group will be A due to B . Select the
correct option to fill in the blanks A and B.
A B
1) AB Incomplete dominance
2) A Pleiotropy
3) B Dominance
4) AB Co-dominance
147. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
a. Non-histone chromosomal proteins (i) Nucleotide polymerization
b. Severe Ochoa enzyme (ii) Extrachromosomal DNA
c. H2A, H2B protein (iii) Involved in packaging of chromatin
d. Plasmids (iv) Present in Nucleosome
1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) 2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) 4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
148. RNA polymerase I transcribes all of the following except
1) 5.8S rRNA 2) 18 S rRNA 3) 5S rRNA 4) 28S rRNA
149. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of
1) Watson and Crick 2) Avery, Macleod, McCarty
3) Hershey and Chase 4) Meselson and Stahl
150. Sigma   factor and Rho    factor in prokaryotes are involved in transcription, respectively in
1) Termination and initiation 2) Elongation and termination
3) Initiation and termination 4) Termination and elongation
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. Choose wrong statement for symmetry of animals.
(i) Sponges are mostly asymmetrical.
(ii) When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two
identical halves, it is called radial symmetry.
(iii) Coelenterates, Ctenophores and Echinoderms have bilateral symmetry.
(iv) Animals like annelids, arthropods have radial symmetry.
(v) The body can be divided into identical left and right halves in only one plane, exhibit bilateral
symmetry.
1) (iii), (iv) and (v) 2) (ii), (iv) and (v)
3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 4) (iii) and (iv)
152. Choose the incorrect statement for cartilaginous fish from given statements.
(i) Petromyzon and Myxine are cartilaginous fish.
(ii) Notochord is persistent throughout life.
(iii) Gill slits are separate and without operculum.
(iv) The skin is tough, containing minute cycloid/ctenoid scaled
(v) Due to the air bladder, they have to swim constantly to avoid sinking.
(vi) They have internal fertilization and many of them are viviparous.
1) (iv), (v) and (vi)
2) All except (iii) and (v)
3) All except (ii), (iii) and (vi)
4) All of the above
153. Which of the following not true for reproductive system of frog:
1) Vasa efferentia arise from testes and enter the kidneys on their side and open into Bidder’s canal.
2) In the male frogs two ureters emerge from the kidneys and ureters act as urinogenital duct which
opens into the cloaca.
3) Functional connection present between kidneys and ovaries, oviduct arising from the ovaries
opens into the cloaca with ureters.
4) A mature female can lay 2500 to 3000 ova at a time.

Pg. 18
154. What is common to the techniques (i) in vitro fertilization, (ii) Cryo presentation and (iii) tissue
culture?
1) All are in situ conservation methods
2) All are ex situ conservation methods
3) All require ultra modern equipment and large space
4) All are methods of conservation of extinct organisms only

155.

Select the correct option w.r.t. age pyramids

1) A – Expanding, B-Stable, C-Declining 2) A-Stable, B-Expanding, C-Declining
3) A-Stable, B-Declining, C-Expanding 4) A-Declining, B-Stable, C-Expanding
156. Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth is described by:
dN K  N  dN  N
(i)  rN   (ii)  rN 1  
dt  K  dt  K
dN dN N K 
(iii)  rN (iv)  rN 
dt dt  N 
1) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct 2) (i) and (ii) are correct
3) (ii) and (iv) are correct 4) (i) and (iii) are correct
157. With regard to insulin choose correct options.
(1) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
(2) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide.
(3) The pro-insulin has C-peptide.
(4) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) (1) and (4) only 2) (2) and (4) only 3) (2) and (3) only 4) (1), (3) and (4) only
158. Assertion: Transgenic animals are used for chemical safety testing.
Reason: Transgenic animals are made that carry genes which make them more sensitive to toxic
substances.
Mark the correct choice from given options:
1) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
3) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong
159. Identify the molecules shown below and select the right option which giving their correct source and
use.

1) Cocaine – Erythroxylon coca – Interferes the transport of dopamine

2) Heroin – Cannabis sativa – Depressant and slows down body functions
3) Cannabinoids – Atropa belladonna – Produces hallucinations
4) Morphine – Papaver somniferum – Sedative and painkiller
Pg. 19
160. What will be the cardiac output of a person if both ventricles of heart totally pump 200 ml blood
during one cardiac cycle and the rate of heart beat is 77/minute?
1) 15400 ml/minute 2) 5040 ml/minute 3) 6000 ml/minute 4) 7700 ml/minute
161. In a species, the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an average
weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with weights from 2 to 2.5 kg or
4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type of selection process is taking place
1) Stabilising selection 2) Disruptive selection
3) Cyclical selection 4) Directional selection
162. Assertion : Gene flow increases genetic variations.
Reason: The random introduction of new alleles into recipient population and their removal from the
donor population affects allele frequency.
1) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
3) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong
163. Which of the following statements are incorrect for Natural selection?
(i) Natural selection is based on certain observations which are factual.
(ii) Populations are stable in size except for seasonal fluctuation, means that there had been
competition for resources.
(iii) Variation is the most fundamental evolutionary factor and all variations are inherited to the
progeny.
(iv) Variations which are heritable and which make resource utilization better for few (adapted to
habitat better) will enable only those to reproduce and leave more progeny.
(v) Herbicides, pesticides etc., resistant organisms/cells are appearing in a time scale of months or
years and not centuries.
(vi) Appearance of herbicides, pesticides etc., resistant organisms/cells are examples of evolution by
anthropogenic action.
1) (i), (ii) and (vi) 2) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vii)
3) Only (iii) 4) All of these
164. Assertion : Sequences in DNA fragment in HGP were arranged based on some overlapping regions
present in them.
Reason : Alignment of these sequences was humanly not possible. Therefore, specialized computer
based programmes were developed.
1) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
3) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong
165. How many statements are correct?
(i) Satellite DNA used as probe in DNA fingerprinting shows very high degree of polymorphism.
(ii) The VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNA referred to as mini-satellite.
(iii) Their copy number varies from chromosome to chromosome in an individual.
(iv) The size of VNTR varies in size from 0.1 to 20 kb.
(v) DNA from a single cell is not enough to perform DNA fingerprinting analysis.
(vi) DNA fingerprinting can be used to determine population and genetic diversities.
1) Four 2) Five 3) Six 4) Only two
166. Identify the correct statement:
(i) Henking could trace a specific nuclear structure all through spermatogenesis in a few insect and
named it a X body.
(ii) In XX + XY type of sex determination both males and females have usually unequal number of
chromosome.
(iii) Grasshopper is an example of XO-XX type of sex determination.
(iv) In XO and XY type of mechanism male heterogamety is observed.
(v) Sex chromosome of a female bird is designated to be Z and Y chromosomes.
1) (i), (ii), (iii) 2) (i), (iv), (v) only
3) (i), (iii), (iv), (v) 4) All are correct
Pg. 20
167. Haemophilic female marries normal male, the theoretical ratio of their offsprings regarding
haemophilia will be
1) All offsprings are haemophilic 2) All girls are haemophilic
3) All sons are haemophilic 4) Half daughters and half sons are haemophilic
168. Given below is a pedigree chart with symbols for sex-linked trait in humans. The trait of the above
pedigree chart is:

1) Recessive Y-linked 2) Recessive X-linked

3) Dominant Y-linked 4) Dominant X-linked
169. Match the columns and select correct option:
Column I Column II
(A) Chemical (i) Tubectomy and vasectomy
(B) IUDs (ii) Copper T and Lippes loop
(C) Barriers (iii) Condom and cervical cap
(D) Sterilization (iv) Spermicidal jelly and foam
(v) Coitus interrupts and calendar method
1) A(iv), B(ii), C(iii), D(i) 2) A(iv), B(v), C(ii), D(iii)
3) A(i), B(iii), C(ii), D(v) 4) A(iv), B(ii), C(v), D(i)
170. Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed thereafter:
(A) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during first trimester is generally safe.
(B) Generally, chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infant upto two years.
(C) Intrauterine devices like copper T are effective contraceptives.
(D) Contraception pills may be taken upto one week after coitus to prevent conception.
Which two of the above statements are correct?
1) A, C 2) A, B 3) B, C 4) C, D
171. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction acts on:
1) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin.
2) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH.
3) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH.
4) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin
172. Read the following statements:
(i) Each seminiferous tubules is lined on its inside by two types of cells called male germ cells and
Sertoli cells.
(ii) Sertoli cells undergo meiotic divisions and provide nutrition to the germ cells.
(iii) The regions outside the seminiferous tubules called interstitial space, contain interstitial cells for
secretion of inhibin.
(iv) Leydig cells synthesise and secrete testicular hormones called androgens.
(v) The male sex accessory ducts include epididymis and vas deferens.
(vi) The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into the vasa efferentia through rete testis.
How many statements are correct?
1) Two 2) Four 3) Five 4) Six

Pg. 21
173. Fertilization is fusion of
1) Diploid spermatozoa with diploid ovum to form diploid zygote.
2) Haploid spermatozoa with diploid ovum to form diploid zygote.
3) Diploid spermatozoa with haploid ovum to form diploid zygote.
4) Haploid spermatozoa with haploid ovum to form diploid zygote.
174. Testis and ovary performs dual function as a primary sex organ as well as an endocrine gland. Select
incorrect statements for gonads:
(i) The testis secretes androgens mainly testosterone.
(ii) Androgens stimulate the development, maturation and functions of the male accessory sex organs
and secondary sex characters of the male.
(iii) Testosterone stimulates spermatogenesis, male sexual behavior (libido) and erythro-poiesis.
(iv) The ovary secretes estrogen and progesterone.
(v) Estrogen stimulates growth and development of female accessory sex organs and secondary sex
characters.
(v) Progesterone plays a major role in the maintenance of pregnancy as well as in mammary gland
development and lactation.
(vi) Gonadial hormones produce anabolic (synthetic) effects on protein and carbohydrate
metabolism.
1) (vi) and (vii) 2) (iii) and (vi) 3) (iii), (v) and (vii) 4) None of these
175. According to the accepted concept of hormone action, if receptor molecules are removed from target
organs, then the target organ will:
1) Continue to respond to hormone but in opposite way
2) Continue to respond to the hormone without any difference
3) Continue to respond to hormone but will require higher concentration
4) Not respond to the hormone
176. PTH causes
1) Hypercalcaemia 2) Hypocalcaemia
3) Hyperglycacemia 4) All of these
177. Low heartbeat, low body temperature and retarded sexual and neural development are indications of
1) Thyroxine deficiency 2) Deficiency TCT
3) PTH deficiency 4) Melatonin deficiency
178. How many statements are incorrect for neuron?
(i) Neurons are excitable cells because their membranes are in a polarized state.
(ii) Different types of ion channels are present on the neural membrane.
(iii) Ion channels are selectively permeable to different ions.
(iv) When a neuron is not conducting any impulse the axonal membrane is comparatively less
permeable to K  and nearly impermeable to Na  .
(v) Resting membrane is impermeable to negatively charged proteins present in the axoplasm.
(vi) The ionic gradients across the resting membrane are maintained by the active transport of ions
by the sodium-potassium pump.
(vii) In sodium-potassium pump 2 Na  transported outward and 3 K  into the cell.
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
179. Mammals have the ability to produce a concentrated urine. Which statement does not match with
production of concentrated urine?
(i) The Henle’s loop and vasa recta play a significant role in this.
(ii) Concentration of urine occurs by removal of water.
(iii) Osmolarity increasing from cortex to medulla.
(iv) Osmolarity increasing from 300 mos mol L1 in the cortex to about 1200 mos mol L1 in the inner
medulla.
(v) Osmolarity gradient from cortex to medulla is mainly caused by urea and HCO3 .
(vi) Presence of osmolarity gradient helps in formation of dilute urine.
(vii) Human kidneys can produce urine nearly four times concentrated than the initial filtrate formed.
1) (iv) and (v) 2) (ii) and (iii) 3) (v) and (vii) 4) (v) and (vi)

Pg. 22
180. Osteoporosis is a
1) Inflammation of joints
2) Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals
3) Age-related disorder characterized by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fractures
4) All of the above
181. Assertion: For a recipient to receive blood from a donor, the recipients plasma must not have an
antibody, cause the donor’s cells to agglutinate.
Reason: The possibility of blood clumping does not depends on anti A and anti B antibody and blood
type.
1) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
2) Assertion and reason both are wrong
3) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
4) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
182. Read the following statements:
(i) The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by tricuspid valve.
(ii) Bicuspid or mitral valve guards the opening between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
(iii) The openings of the right and the left ventricles into the pulmonary artery and the aorta
respectively are provided with the semilunar valves.
(iv) Only ventricle of heart is made of cardiac muscles.
(v) The walls of ventricles are much thicker than that of the atria.
(vi) A specialized cardiac musculature present in the right upper corner of the right atrium called the
atrio-ventricular node (AVN).
Which option contain only wrong statement?
1) (i), (ii) and (v) 2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
3) (iv) and (vi) 4) (i), (ii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

183. Low PO2 , high PCO2 , high H concentration and higher temperature, the conditions are favourable for
the dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin?
1) In the alveoli 2) In the tissues
3) In the both tissues and alveoli 4) None of the above
184. Mechanisms of breathing vary among different groups of animals depending mainly on their habitats
and levels of organization, which option contain all correct statements?
(i) Lower invertebrates like sponges, coelenterates, flatworms, etc., exchange O2 and CO2 by simple
diffusion over their entire body surface.
(ii) Earthworms use their moist cuticle for exchange O2 with CO2 .
(iii) Insects have tracheal tubes to transport atmospheric air within the body.
(iv) Special vascularised structures called gills are used by most of the aquatic arthropods and
molluscs.
(v) Terrestrial forms use vascularised bags called lungs for the exchange of gases.
(vi) Among vertebrates, fishes use gills whereas reptiles, birds and mammals respire through lungs
and also use skin for respiration.
1) (i), (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi) 2) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi)
3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) 4) All of the above
185. Which characters for cell junctions are correct from given characters?
(i) Three types of cell junctions are found in the epithelium and other tissues, these are called as
tight, adhering and gap junctions.
(ii) Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
(iii) Adhering junctions perform cementing to keep neighboring cells together.
(iv) Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other.
(v) Rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and sometimes big molecules takes place through
adhering junctions.
1) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) 2) (iii), (iv) and (v)
3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 4) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

Pg. 23
 SECTION-B
186. Assertion : Generally, a woman do not conceive during lactation period.
Reason: The hormone prolactin initiates and maintain lactation in a woman.
Mark the correct choice from given options:
1) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
2) Assertion and reason both are wrong
3) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
4) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
187. What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data?
Secondary consumer : 120 g;
Primary consumer : 60 g;
Primary producer : 10 g;
1) Inverted pyramid of biomass
2) Inverted pyramid of energy
3) Upright pyramid of numers
4) Upright pyramid of biomass
188. The process of mineralization by micro-organisms helps in the release of
1) Inorganic nutrients from human
2) Both organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus
3) Organic nutrients from humus
4) Inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus
189. The figure given below is a diagrammatic representation of response of organisms to abiotic factors.
What do A, B and C represent respectively?

1) A-Regulator, B-Partial regulator, C-Conformer

2) A-Partial regulator, B-Regulator, C-Conformer
3) A-Regulator, B-Conformer, C-Partial regulator
4) A-Conformer, B-Regulator, C-Partial regulator
190. Haemozoin is a toxic substance formed in case of malaria. It is produced from
1) Glycogen of RBC
2) Coloured pigment of RBC
3) Dead WBC
4) Cryptozoites
191. Identify correct statement regarding to a particular type of immunity
1) Cellular barriers – Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and monocytes
2) Active immunity – Anti-tetanus and anti-snake bite injections
3) Physical barriers – Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes
4) Physiological barriers – Mucus coating of epithelium lining the urinogential tract and the HCl in
stomach
192. The child affected with Down’s syndrome has:
1) Flattened nasal bridge, open mouth with protruding tongue
2) Small forehead, bulging eyes and raised nasal bridge
3) Habitually open mouth with long protruding tongue, bulging eyes and small forehead
4) Large forehead, raised nasal bridge and long included tongue
Pg. 24
193. How many statements are true for reproduction in Periplaneta americana?
(i) Anterior part of female genital pouch contains female gonopore, spermathecal pores and collateral
glands.
(ii) In males, genital pouch or chamber lies the hind end of abdomen bounded dorsally by 9th and 10th
terga and ventrally by the 9th sternum.
(iii) Males, genital pouch contains dorsal anus, ventral male genital pore and gonapophysis.
(vi) Males bear a pair of short, threat like anal styles which are absent in females.
(v) In both sexes, the 10th segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci.
1) One 2) Two 3) Four 4) Five
194. How many statements are not correct for transport of oxygen?
(i) About 97 per cent of O2 is transported by RBCs in the blood.
(ii) Each haemoglobin molecule can carry a maximum of four molecules of O2 .
(iii) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to partial pressure of O2 .
(iv) Partial pressure of CO2 , hydrogen ion concentration and temperature are the other factor which
can interfere with this binding.
(v) A sigmoid curve is obtained when percentage saturation of haemoglobin with O2 is plotted
against the PO2 .
(v) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of CO2 to the lungs under normal
physiological conditions.
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
195. Assertion: Medulla is considered as a respiratory centre in animals.
Reason : Rate of breathing is regulated by medulla because of the changes in O2 content of blood.
1) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
2) Assertion and reason both are wrong
3) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
4) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
196. I. Effect of increased ventricular B.P. on AV valves.
II. Effect of increased ventricular B.P. on semilunar valves.
1) I and II are same and II generates dubb sound
2) I and II are opposite and I generates no sound
3) I and II are same but II generates no sound
4) I and II are opposite and I generates lubb sound
197. ECG is a graphical representation of the electrical activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle. Read
following statements.
(i) Eelctrocardiograph machine is used to obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
(ii) To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected to the machine with three electrical leads one to
each wrist and to the left ankle.
(iii) For a detailed evaluation of the heart’s function, multiple leads are attached to the chest region.
(iv) The P wave represents the repolarization of the atria, which leads to the contraction of both the
atria.
(v) The QRS complex represents the depolarization of the ventricles, which initiates the ventricular
contraction.
(vi) The T wave represents the return of the ventricles from excited to normal state.
Which of the followign option contain correct statements:
1) (i), (ii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
2) (i), (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi)
3) (iii), (iv) and (vi)
4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
198. When a person is suffering from poor renal reabsorption, then which of the following will not help in
the maintenance of blood volume?
1) Decreased glomerular filtration 2) Increased ADH secretion
3) Decreased arterial pressure in kidney 4) Increased arterial pressure in kidney
Pg. 25
199. During the transmission of nerve impulse, which of the following takes place?
1) Flux of Na  inwards and K  outwards
2) Flux of K  inwards and Na  outwards
3) Flux of K  inwards and Na  inwards
4) Flux of K  outwards and Na  outwards
200. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of
plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?
1) First positive, then negative and continue to be negative
2) First negative, then positive and continued to be positive
3) First positive, then negative and continue to be positive
4) First negative, then positive and continue to be negative

* * All the Best * *

Pg. 26
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 12.12.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-13 Max.Marks: 720

KEY
PHYSICS
1) 2 2) 1 3) 1 4) 1 5) 4 6) 1 7) 4 8) 2 9) 2 1 0) 4
1 1) 3 1 2) 1 1 3) 2 1 4) 1 1 5) 4 1 6) 2 1 7) 4 1 8) 3 1 9) 1 2 0) 1
2 1) 4 2 2) 1 2 3) 3 2 4) 3 2 5) 4 2 6) 4 2 7) 2 2 8) 3 2 9) 4 3 0) 3
3 1) 1 3 2) 4 3 3) 4 3 4) 2 3 5) 3 3 6) 4 3 7) 3 3 8) 1 3 9) 4 4 0) 1
4 1) 3 4 2) 4 4 3) 1 4 4) 1 4 5) 2 4 6) 3 4 7) 1 4 8) 3 4 9) 4 5 0) 1

CHEMISTRY
5 1) 3 5 2) 1 5 3) 4 5 4) 2 5 5) 2 5 6) 3 5 7) 3 5 8) 4 5 9) 4 6 0) 1
6 1) 2 6 2) 2 6 3) 3 6 4) 4 6 5) 4 6 6) 2 6 7) 1 6 8) 1 6 9) 4 7 0) 3
7 1) 3 7 2) 4 7 3) 1 7 4) 4 7 5) 3 7 6) 2 7 7) 1 7 8) 1 7 9) 3 8 0) 4
8 1) 2 8 2) 3 8 3) 4 8 4) 2 8 5) 2 8 6) 2 8 7) 4 8 8) 3 8 9) 1 9 0) 1
9 1) 2 9 2) 3 9 3) 3 9 4) 1 9 5) 4 9 6) 2 9 7) 2 9 8) 3 9 9) 4 1 0 0) 4

BOTANY
1 0 1) 1 1 0 2) 2 1 0 3) 2 1 0 4) 3 1 0 5) 1 1 0 6) 2 1 0 7) 3 1 0 8) 3 1 0 9) 1 1 1 0) 4
1 1 1) 4 1 1 2) 4 1 1 3) 4 1 1 4) 3 1 1 5) 1 1 1 6) 4 1 1 7) 3 1 1 8) 3 1 1 9) 2 1 2 0) 1
1 2 1) 1 1 2 2) 3 1 2 3) 2 1 2 4) 2 1 2 5) 1 1 2 6) 3 1 2 7) 4 1 2 8) 3 1 2 9) 4 1 3 0) 1
1 3 1) 2 1 3 2) 2 1 3 3) 2 1 3 4) 1 1 3 5) 2 1 3 6) 2 1 3 7) 3 1 3 8) 3 1 3 9) 2 1 4 0) 3
1 4 1) 2 1 4 2) 1 1 4 3) 1 1 4 4) 2 1 4 5) 3 1 4 6) 4 1 4 7) 2 1 4 8) 3 1 4 9) 3 1 5 0) 3

ZOOLOGY
1 5 1) 4 1 5 2) 3 1 5 3) 3 1 5 4) 2 1 5 5) 1 1 5 6) 2 1 5 7) 4 1 5 8) 3 1 5 9) 4 1 6 0) 4
1 6 1) 1 1 6 2) 2 1 6 3) 3 1 6 4) 2 1 6 5) 2 1 6 6) 3 1 6 7) 3 1 6 8) 4 1 6 9) 1 1 7 0) 1
1 7 1) 2 1 7 2) 2 1 7 3) 4 1 7 4) 4 1 7 5) 4 1 7 6) 1 1 7 7) 1 1 7 8) 2 1 7 9) 4 1 8 0) 3
1 8 1) 4 1 8 2) 3 1 8 3) 2 1 8 4) 3 1 8 5) 3 1 8 6) 1 1 8 7) 1 1 8 8) 2 1 8 9) 3 1 9 0) 2
1 9 1) 1 1 9 2) 1 1 9 3) 4 1 9 4) 1 1 9 5) 4 1 9 6) 4 1 9 7) 2 1 9 8) 4 1 9 9) 1 2 0 0) 4

PAPER SETTER :: BLR – CO KUVEMPU BHAVAN

SUBJECT NAME PH NUMBER
PHYSICS MADHUSUDHAN 8689946989
CHEMISTRY ABDUL KHADIR JILANI 7899056439
BOTANY SEEMA 8010880904
ZOOLOGY LOKENDRA 9482849286
Pg. 1
 PHYSICS SOLUTIONS
 hc 
1. Sol: (2)     [M 0 L0T 0 ]
x
[ x]  [ hc]
 [ x]  [ M .L2T 1 ][ LT 1 ]  [ ML3T 2 ]
2. Sol: (1)
ac
 tan 370
t
3
ac  t
4
2
v 3
 t
r 4

v2 3
 t
r 4
3
v 2  t 12  9t
4
At t=1sec, v = 3m/sec
3. Sol: (1) v  2 gh , here h = 10 m
(In formula, velocity does not depend on density)
v  2  10  10  200  14.1 m / s
M  r2    L
4. Sol: (1)    , T  max .  stress  area
L L
T max.stress   r 2 max.stress
So,  
 r 
2

1 max.stress 1 8.1108 2
n      3  102  200 Hz
2L  2  0.75 9 10 3
3
5. Sol: (4)

VRB  VRG   VBG 

| VRB | VRG2
 VBG
2
 4 2km / h
6. Sol: (1) More the field lines originating or terminating more is the charge.
1 1
7. Sol: (4) Frequency =   1Hz
t 1
Infrasonic wave have range less than 20 Hz. Therefore, sound will be in range of infrasonic.
8. Sol: (2) If potential at p-side is greater than potential at n-side, then the diode is forward biased,
which is for option (2).
Pg. 2
 1 1
9. Sol: (2)  s  ut  at 3 is dimensionally false, the correct equation is s  ut  at 2
2 2
10. Sol: (4) Statement I- True – A device in which heat measurement can be made is called calorimeter.
The type of calorimeters are differential scanning calorimeters, titration calorimeters, isothermal
micro calorimeters and accelerated rate calorimeters.
Statement II – False – While skating, a person pressure the snow downward with his weight, i.e.,
increase pressure on snow below the skates. We are applying pressure on the ice with skating blades,
the ice will turn to water wherever we are applying pressure and this water formed will act as
lubricant of smooth movement of the blades. So statement II is false.
Statement III – True – When two bodies at different temperatures are mixed, then the body at higher
temperature releases heat while the body at lower temperature absorbs it. So that heat loss is equal to
the heat gained. Thus calorimeter represents the law of conservation of heat energy.
11. Sol: (3)
P P
12. Sol: (1) I  
area 4 r 2
16
I = 4  10 4 W / m 2
4 100 
2

n D
13. Sol: (2) YI max 
d
 1   D 5 D
Y min   3   
 2 d 2d
5 D  D 3 D
y   
2d d 2d
3    2D   3 D 
y '   4   4y
2  d / 2  2d 
 60o   m 
sin  
 2 
14. Sol: (1) 2
sin  60o / 2 
On solving,  m  30o
Also,  m  2i  A  2i  60o  30o
 i  45o
15. Sol: (4) Inside a uniformly charged spherical shell, the electric field is zero in electrostatic condition.
Sol: (2) Z  R 2   X L  X C 
2
16.

Z  22   4  2   2 2
2

220 / 2 220
 irms    55 A
2 2 4
17. Sol: (4) This is an OR gate.
18. Sol: (3) Centre of mass of a body is a point at which the whole of the mass of the body supposed to
be concentrated.

19. Sol: (1) We know that, Net torque acting on the rotating planet is zero.
Then,  = 0
We know that,
dL
Torque ( )=
dt
Pg. 3
 dL
 0 [  0]
dt
Hence, L = constant
We also know,
Angular momentum (L) = mvr
Where, L= constant, vr = constant
From above equation, we can say that the distance between sun and planet changes. Its kinetic
energy also changes.
We also know,
Angular momentum (L) = mr 2
Where, L = constant, r 2 = constant
So, as the distance between sun and planet changes, angular speed of the plant changes.
Hence, both A and R are true but R is correct explanation of A.
v
20. Sol: (1) Given that, angular speed    , linear speed = v
r

We take moment at A then external torque will be zero. Initial angular momentum = Angular
momentum after rotation stop
Mv  R  I   Mv0  R
2 v
MvR   MR 2   Mv0 R
5 R
2
MvR   MvR  Mv0 R
5
3MvR
 Mv0 R
5
3v
v0 
5
21. Sol: (4) Time period of a simple pendulum is given by
l
T  2
geff
l
T
geff
When the elevator is accelerating downwards, the net gravitational acceleration is ( g – a).
So, the time period, when elevator is accelerating downwards is greatest.
22. Sol: (1)

Pg. 4
23. Sol: (3) Refractive index of glass with respect to air = 
Critical angle = 
1
  .........(i )
sin 
When a ray of light incident from air on the glass with angle of incidence  . If ‘r’ be angle of
refraction, then by Snell’s law,
sin 
Also,  
sin r
sin  1/ 
sin r   [From equation (i)]
 
 1 
r  sin 1  2 
 
24. Sol: (3) Shining of air bubble in water is on account of total internal reflection.

25. Sol: (4) Given, x 
6
2
We know,   x

2 
  
 6

 
3
Now, I '  I1  I 2  2 I1 I 2 cos 
Pg. 5
 
And, I '  I  I  2 I cos  3I ….(i)
3
And, I 0  I  I  2 I cos 0 o  4 I …(ii)
I 3
From equation (i) and (ii), we get 
I0 4
26. Sol: (4) According to Einstein photoelectric equation – K.E = hv  hv0
 c  v 
hc hc   1 1     

 c c   hc     hc  0 
 0  v   and v0      0   0 
 0 

27. Sol: (2) We know that,

hv0   K .E max
eV0  hv  hv0
hv hv
V0   0
e e
Comparing equation with straight line
y  mx  c
h
Slope =
e
 K .E max  v
So, it is clear the maximum kinetic energy for both the metals depend linearly on the frequency.
28. Sol: (3) Given mc 2  0.5 MeV  0.5  10 6 eV  5  105 eV
hc
E  50keV  50 103 eV  5 10 4 eV

WE know that,
h
de-Broglie wavelength    
2mK
The kinetic energy of electron –
1 h2
K electron   ...........(a)
2m  2
The photon energy –
hc
E photon  ...........(b)

Dividing equation (b) from equation (a)
hc
E photon  hc 2  2m
 
K electron 1 h2 h2  
 2
2m 
E photon 2mc 2mc 2
 
K electron h hc / 
E ph 2  5 105

Ke 5 10 4
E ph 20

Ke 1
E ph
 20 :1
Ke
29. Sol: (4) As we know that number of spectral lines obtained due to transition of electrons is
Pg. 6
 n  n  1
N
2
Case I - when maximum of six transitions are possible
n  n  1
i.e., N = 6 then, 6  1 1
2
n1  4
Case II – When maximum of three transition is possible
n  n  1
i.e., N = 3, then 3  2 2
2
n2  3
1
Velocity of electron in hydrogen atom in nth orbit - vn 
n
v1 n2 3
So,  
v2 n1 4
30. Sol: (3) The energy of an electron in Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is given by the expression,
Z2
En  13.6 2 (When n = energy state of electron)
n
For hydrogen, Z = 1
E1  13.6eV  given 
For the first excited state n = 2,
13.6
Thus, E2  eV
22
E2  3.4eV
Now, E  E2  E1  3.4   13.6   10.2eV
31. Sol: (1) Radius of Hydrogen atom is given by
1
2
n2
ro  0.529  0.529
Z Z
0.529
ro 
Z
For first excited state n = 2
 2
2

r1  0.529  4ro  4 times of radius in ground state.

Z
32. Sol: (4) Given that,

Diode D2 is reverse bias so it will behave as open circuit.

So new circuit,

Pg. 7
 Apply KVL is loop
10  50 I  50 I  150 I  0
250 I  10
10
I  0.04
250
I  0.04 A
33. Sol: (4) The barrier potential of a p-n junction depends on type of semiconductor material, amount of
doping and temperature. Hence, all the given statements are correct.
34. Sol: (2) Gravity at above earth’s surface
GM
g …..(i)
 R  h
2

‘ Gravity at below earth’s surface

GM  h 
g '  2  1   ….(ii)
R  R
Ratio of acceleration due to both gravities
GM  h 
1  
R 2  R  GM  h   R  h 
2
g'
  2 1   
g GM R  R GM
 R  h
2

2
 h  h
 1    R 2 1  
g'  R  R
 2
g R
g '  h  h   h   2h  h  
2 2

So,   1   1    1  1     
g  R  R   R   R  R  
2 2 3 2 3
2h  h  h h h h h h
 1      2      1      
h R R R R R  R  R
 h  R , neglecting higher power of h/R
g' h
 1
g R
Thus, it increases linearly with ‘h’.
35. Sol: (3) Given, h = 2.7 m, H = ?
Following the question, we get
Loss in gravitational potential energy,
U =Gain in rotational K.E. + Gain in translational K.E.
1 1 m
mgh  mv 2   v 2
2 2 2

Pg. 8
 1 2 1 2
10  2.7  v  v
2 4
27  4
v2 
3
v  36
2

v  6m / s
Since, same velocity is acquired when there is frictionless inclined plane,
v  2 gH
6  2 10  H
36
H
20
 H  1.8m
36. Sol: Angular momentum (L) = mvr
 GM  GMR 2
L  m   R  m
 R  R
L  m GMR
L R
Statement first is wrong
Linear momentum (L) = mv
GM
Lm
R
1
L
R
So, second statement is wrong
1
Frequency, f 
T
2 R
T
v
2 R
T
GM
R
R3
T  2
GM
T  R3
So, third statement are also wrong.
Kinetic energy of satellite is,
2
1 1  GM  1 GM
K .E.  mv 2  m    m
2 2  R  2 R
GMm
K .E . 
2R
1
K .E. , so statement (4) is true.
R
37. Sol: (3) As question

Pg. 9
 In equilibrium condition in air
wl  w1l1...........(i )
Now, in water W  FB  l  w1l2 (where FB =buoyant force)
W
And FB 

 W
Hence,  W   l  w1l2
 
 1 l  w 
W  1   l  W . .l2  w1  l 
  l1  l1 
 1  l2
1     l
  1
1 l
 1 2
 l1
l
 1
l1  l2
38. Sol: (1) Given, R1  1cm, R2  2cm

We know that, pressure inside bubble (P) = 4T/R

4T
Excess pressure inside smaller bubble, P2  P  .....(i)
R1
4T
Excess pressure inside bigger bubble, P  P0  .....(ii)
R2
 R  R2 
From equation (i) & (ii) we get P2  P0  4T  1 
 R1R2 
P  P2  P0
Now, 4T  R  R2 
 4T  1 
R  R1.R2 
1 R1  R2

R R1 R2
R1 R2
R
R1  R2

Pg. 10
 2 1 2
R   0.667cm
2 1 3
R  6.67  10 3 m
39. Sol: (4) Equation of continuity  Law of conservation of mass.
Bernoulli’s theorem  Law of conservation of energy
Turbulent flow  Formation of eddies and vortices
Stream line flow  Less than critical velocity
40. Sol: (1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
41. Sol: (3) a    r
10  5  r
r  2m
42. Sol: (4) For first law of thermodynamics,
dQ = dU + PdV
If heat is supplied in such a manner that volume does not change (dV = 0) then work done (W) zero
heat energy supplied to the system will increase internal energy only.
dQ = PdV
Thermal equilibrium is no flow of heat from one portion of the system to another. Because if the
temperature of the system remains constant. Hence, if both the assertion and reason are in incorrect.
43. Sol: (1) a(iv), b(i),c(iii), d(ii)
44. Sol: (1) Body at stationary

1
Given, sin  
s
1
tan   …..(ii)
s2  1
On putting value of eq. (ii) in eq. (i) we get
g
a
s 2 1
45. Sol: (2)

Pg. 11
 a a
Position vector of G is, G  , 0, 
2 2
 a a
OG  iˆ  kˆ
2 2
46. Sol: (3) When he takes 8 steps, the displacement is (5-3) = 2m
Time taken for 8 steps = 8s
2 1
 Average velocity =  ms 1
8 4
In the last 5 steps the drunkard will not be able to come backward because he would fall in the pit.
 Total displacement required = 13 – 5 = 8 m
8
Time required =  32s
1/ 4
47. Sol: (1)

Let mc be the mass of block C and f s be mass static friction.

From free body diagram we have,
For block A, R =  mA  mC  g and f s  T
  mA  mC  g  T ....(i )
For block B, T  mB g ….(ii)
From equation (i) & (ii) we have
  mA  mC  g  mB g
mB   mA 10  0.4 15
mC  
 0.4
mC  10kg
48. Sol: (3)

Pg. 12
   0.21
49. Sol: (4) Given data –
Mass of bullet (m) = 25g = 0.025 kg
Mass of block (M) = 1 kg
Increase in height (h) = 20 cm = 0.2 m
Velocity of block before collision (v) = 0 m/s
Velocity of bullet before collision (u) = 250 m/s

Pg. 13
50. Sol: (1) We know that,
 2 
x  A sin  t
 T 
 T
Distance covered in time  t    A
 4
A 4A
Average speed = 
T /4 T

CHEMISTRY SOLUTIONS
BH 3 , H 2 O2 /  OH followed by PCC oxidation
51. Sol: (3)

52. Sol: (1)

53. Sol: (4)

“1, 1-Dichloroethane is Ethylidene chloride”.

54. Sol: (2) Based on “n+1” rule only (B) has pair of electron in degenerate orbitals.
55. Sol: (2)
Bromine and iodine are only sparingly soluble in water but are soluble in organic solvents such as
chloroform, carbon tetrachloride, carbon disulphide and hydrocarbons to give coloured solutions
56. Sol: (3) Electrophile will attack at ortho and para position with respect to better electron releasing
group (ERG)

Pg. 14
 Para position with respect to OH   R  group and it will be meta position with respect to CH 3
group.
57. Sol: (3)

Hinsberg’s reagent

58. Sol: (4)

16 16 16
59. Sol: (4) 16.0 g O3  mol   6.023 10 23 molecules  3   6.023 1023 atoms
48 48 48
= 6.023  10 23 atoms
28
28.0 g CO  mol  1mol
28
 1  6.023  10 23 molecules  1  6.023  10 23 atoms  6.023  10 23 atoms
16 16 16
16.0 g O2  mol   6.023 1023 molecules  2   6.023 1023 atoms  6.023 1023 atoms
32 32 32
Therefore, the ratio is 6.023  10 : 6.023  10 : 6.023  10 23
23 23

i.e., 1 : 1 : 1
60. Sol: (1)

Pg. 15
 V   100 
61. Sol: (2) W  2.303nRT log  2   2.303 1 8.314  300 log  
 V1   10 
 2.303  8.314  300  5.744kJ
62. Sol: Sol: (2) H  U  ng RT
 2  10 3  1  2  300  2000  600  2600  2.6kcal
G  H  T S  2600  300  15  2600  4500  1900cal  1.9kcal mol 1
63. Sol: (3) Chromate  CrO42   Oxidation state= +6
Dichromate  Cr2O72   Oxidation state = +6
Oxidation state are same
1
64. Sol: (4) Potential energy 
Stability
Stability order : I > III > IV > II
So, potential energy : II > IV > III > I
m 39
65. Sol: (4) o   0.1
 m 390
HA  A  H 
(i ) C O O
( f ) C  C C C
C 2
 C 2  10 3   0.1  105 M
2
Ka 
1
66. Sol: (2) The cell can be written as
Mg | Mg 2  0.130M  || Ag   0.001M  | Ag
RT [ Mg 2  ] 0.059V 0.130
E cell   Eocell   ln  3.17V  log  3.17  0.21  2.96V
 0.0001
 2 2
2 F [ Ag ] 2
67. Sol: (1) A  B  Pr oduct
Initial conc. 1 1
Initially
1.0 102  K [1][1]2  K  1.0 102
When half of reactant reacted

Pg. 16
 2
1  1
Rate  1.0  10      Rate  1.25 103
2

2 2
2.303 [ R] 2.303 5
68. Sol: (1) t  log 0  3
log  444
K [ R] 1.15 10 3
69. Sol: (4) Element with Z > 92 are transuranium element.
70. Sol: (3)
[Co  en 3 ]Cl3  shows optical isomerism.

71. Sol: (3) Reactivity towards

S N 1 reaction depends upon stability of carbocation.
Order of stability of carbocation:

72. Sol: (4)

73. Sol: (1) Carbocation is stabilised by resonance with lone pairs on oxygen atom and +H effect of 2

alpha hydrogens B>A>C

3 2 2
74. Sol: (4) Isoelectronic species have same no. of electrons Al , O , Mg all have 10 electrons.
75. Sol: (3) It’s a classic Reimer – Tiemann reaction.

Will be the intermediate formed.

76. Sol: (2)
A.[ PtCl4 ]2   (iii) dsp 2
B.BrF5  (iv ) sp 3 d 2
Pg. 17
 C.PCl5  (i ) sp 3 d
D.[Co  NH 3 6 ]3  (ii)d 2 sp 3
77. Sol: (1) (A)-(p), (B)-(s), (C)-(r), (D)-(q)
78. Sol: (1) Ce  [ Xe]4 f 1 5d 1 6 s 2
Ce3  [ Xe]4 f 1 5d 0
Ce4  [ Xe]4 f 0 5d 0 (Nobel gas configuration)
V2
79. Sol: (3) For isothermal reversible expansion w   nRT in
V1
80. Sol: (4)
H
H 2 PO4   H 3 PO4
Conjugate acid


H 2 PO4 
H
 HPO42
Conjugatebase

81. Sol: (2) n-Heptane can not be made in good yield using Wurtz reaction since it is unsymmetrical
alkane.
82. Sol: (3) Electronic configuration of O2 is  1s 2 *1s 2 2 s 2 * 2 s 2 2 pz2 2 px2   2 p 2y
 * 2 p1x   * 2 p1y
When an electron is added in O2 to form O2 , the incoming electron goes to  * 2 px or  * 2 py orbital.
83. Sol: (4)
84. Sol: (2) Oxidation number of potassium is always +1.
85. Sol: (2) 100%  89600
0.25%  ?[ Fe]
0.25  89600
WFe   224
100
224
nFe  4
56
86. Sol: (2) Number of radial nodes = n  l  1
Number of angular nodes = l
87. Sol: (4) Unnununnium – Roentgenium
88. Sol: (3) LiCl > NaCl > KCl > CsCl (Covalent character)
89. Sol: (1) M 2Y  2 M   X 2 
K sp  [2 s]2 [ s]  4 s3
For QY2 same as above = 4s 3
For PZ3  P3  3Z  K sp  [ s][3s]3  27 s 4
So K sp  M 2 X   K sp  QY2   K sp  PZ3 
90. Sol: (1)
91. Sol: (2)
92. Sol: (3)

Pg. 18
93. Sol: (3)

94. Sol: (1)

95. Sol: (4) Tb  No. of solute particle  n where is n in no. of mole of substance (solute).
96. Sol: (2)

97. Sol: (2)

98. Sol: (3) pKa decreases down the group among hydrides.
99. Sol: (4)
100. Sol: (4)

BOTANY SOLUTIONS
101. Microphylls are absent in ferns.
102. As given.
103. Red algae and spirogyra have non flagellate of gametes.
104. Protoxylem lies in centre in stem hence endarch.
105. Subsidiary cells differ in shape and size.
106. Companion cell have a conspicuous nucleus and are absent in gymnosperms.
107. Protein coat is absent in viroids.
108. Fungi prefers to grow in warm and humid places.
109. Spores have true walls, are dispersed by air currents and formed in fruiting bodies.
110. As matched.
111. Cassia and Bean have zygomorphic flower. Mustard and Datura have actinomorphic flowers.
112. Sunflower has basal placentation.
113. RNA is better for transmission of genetic information.
114. Cry I Ab is specific for corn borer.
115. Nematode cause root knot disease in tobacco.
116. Bt cotton is pest resistant.
Bt cotton is formed by introducing cry gene into cotton plants.
117. Pepcase is present in cytoplasm of mesophyll cells.
118. 1 ATP is required for regeneration of 1 RuBP.
119. CF0 has proton channels.
120. Anabena, Oscillatoria.
121. Pectinase, proteases.
122. Organic farming is a holistic approach. Bt spores are available in sachets.
123. Species  genus  Family  order  clan  phylum  kingdom.
124. Synapsis occur in zygotene.
125. Pachytene.
126. As matched.
127. Mesosomes increase surface area.
128. All others are bound by double membrane.
129. Middle lamella holds or glues different cells to together.
130. ‘P’ – chitin made of NAG.
131. Hydrolases / Proteases cleaves peptide bonds.
132. Lysine is a basic a.a.
133. T.H. Morgan.
Pg. 19
134. As matched.
135. Chitinase can dissolve chitin and is found in fungus.
136. Bam HI
137. Spooling.
138. F.S koog – Tobacco pith culture.
139. 0.7 < 0.9 < 1 < 4.
140. UGG codes for Tryptophase.
141. Reason explain Assertion.
142. It is common for respiratory substrates.
143. Complex IV has 2 copper centres.
144. Overcomes apical dominance – Cytokinin.
145. Cork is redifferntiated tissue.
146. AB – Codominance.
147. As matched.
148. 5s rRNA – RNA polymerase III.
149. Hershey and Chase.
150. Initiation and termination.

Pg. 20
Cou rse: SR ST A R C O SUP E R C H AINA D ate: 1 4-1 2-2 0 2 3
D u rat io n: 3.2 0 H rs G R AND T EST-1 4 Max. Mar ks: 7 2 0 M
Note: I m por tan t I nst ruct ions
 T h e test is of 3.2 0 hours d u r a tio n a n d t h is Test B oo k let co n t a i n s 2 0 0 quest ions.
E a c h q u estio n c a r ries 4 m ar ks. F or e a c h cor rect respo n se, t h e c a n did a te will get 4
m ar ks. F or e a c h i n cor rect respo n se, one m ar k will be ded u cted fro m t h e tota l
scores. T h e m a xi m u m m a r k s a re 7 2 0.
 I n t h is Test Pa per, e a c h s u bject will co n sist of t wo sectio n s. Sectio n A will co n sist of
3 5 q u estio n s (a ll q u estio n s a re m a n d a tor y) a n d Sectio n B will h a ve 1 5 quest ions.
C a n did a te c a n c h oose to a t te m p t a n y 1 0 quest ions o u t of t h ese 1 5 quest ions. I n
c a se if c a n did a te a t te m p ts m ore t h a n 1 0 quest ions, first 1 0 at te m p ted q u estio n s
will be co n sidered for m a r k i ng
 T h e c a n did a te h a s to w rite h is / h er a n s wers i n t h e O M R s h eet b y d a r k e n i ng t h e
a p p rop ri a te b u b ble wit h t h e h elp of Blue / Blac k Ball Poi n t Pen o n ly a s t h e cor rect
a n swer(s) of t h e q u estio n a t te m p ted
PH YSICS
SE C T ION-A
1. A bod y possesses k i net ic energy x, m ov i ng on a rough hori zon tal surface, is
stopped i n a distancey. T he frict ion force exer ted on t he bod y is:
x x x y
1) 2) 3) 4)
y y y x
2. A step – down t ransfor m er is used on a 1 0 0 0V li ne to deli ver 2 0A at 1 2 0V at
t he secon dar y coil. If t he efficiency of t he t ransfor m er is 8 0% t he curren t
drawn fro m t he li ne is:
1) 3 A 2) 3 0 A 3) 0.3 A 4) 2.4 A
3. T h ree m asses 7 0 0g, 5 0 0g an d 4 0 0g are suspen ded at t he en d of a spri ng as
shown an d are i n equ ilibri u m . When t he 7 0 0g m ass is re m oved, t he syste m
oscillates wi t h a period of 3 secon ds; when t hen 5 0 0g m ass is also re m oved,
i t will oscillate wi t h a period of:

12
1) 1sec 2) 2sec 3) 3sec 4)
sec
5
4. F i n d t he m ax i m u m veloci t y for not sk iddi ng for a car m oved on a circular
t rac k of radi us 1 0 0 m . T he coefficien t of frict ion between t he road an d t y re is
0.2:
1) 0.1 4 m / s 2) 1 4 0 m / s 3) 1.4 m / s 4) 1 4.1 m / s
Pg . 1
5. What is t he con di t ion for i n terferenceof two waves?
1) T h ey m u st h a ve t h e s a m e freq u e n cy a n d w a vele ngt h
2) T h ey m u st h a ve t h e s a m e a m plit u de a n d p h a se
3) T h ey m u st h a ve a co n st a n t p h a se differe n ce
4) T h ey m u st h a ve t h e s a m e speed a n d directio n
6. Two waves hav i ng equat ions x1  a sin t  1  , x2  a sin  t  2  . If i n t he resul tan t
wave t he frequency an d a m pli t ude re m ai n equal to t hose of superi m posi ng
waves. T hen p hase difference between t he m is:
1)  / 6 2) 2 / 3 3)  / 4 4)  / 3
  
7. A project ile is t h rown wi t h an i n i t ial veloci t y of V  a i  b j . If t he range of t he
project ile is double of t he m ax i m u m heigh t reached by i t, t hen:
1) a = 2 b 2) b = a 3) b = 2 a 4) b = 4 a
8. A car is m ov i ng wi t h a speed of 3 0 m / s on a circular pat h of radi us 5 0 0 m . If
i ts speed is i ncreasi ng at a rate of 5 m / s 2 , t hen t he resul tan t accelerat ion at
t hat i nstan t is:
1) 6.8 3 m / s 2 2) 8 m / s 2 3) 5.3 1 m / s 2 4) 4 m / s 2
9. T he k i net ic energy of a bod y varies direct l y as square of t i m e elapsed. T he
force act i ng varies direct l y as:
1
1) t 2) t 3) 4) t 0
t
1 0. T he total energy of t he bod y execu t i ng S. H. M. is E . T hen t he k i net ic energy
when t he displace m en t is half of t he a m pli t ude:
E E 3E 3
1) 2) 3) 4) E
2 4 4 4
1 1. Wi t h how m uch veloci t y a bloc k of m ass 2 kg should m ove on a frict ion less
hori zon tal surface so as to co m press a spri ng wi t h force constan t 2N / m by
4m:
1) 4 m / s 2) 1 6 m / s 3) 2 m / s 4) No n e of t h ese
1 2. F or a par t icle execu t i ng S. H. M t he k inet ic energy K is gi ven by K  K 0 cos 2  t .
T he m ax i m u m value of poten t ial energy is:
K K
1) K 0 2) zero 3) 0 4) 0
2 4
1 3. A bod y falls on t he surface of t he ear t h fro m a heigh t of 2 0c m . If after
collidi ng wi t h t he ear t h, i ts m echan ical energy is lost by 7 5% t hen deter m i ne
heigh t up to t he bod y would reach:
1) 5c m 2) 1 0c m 3) 2 0 c m 4) 1 5 c m
1 4. I n You ng‘s ex peri m en t for i n terference of ligh t t he sli ts are 0.2 c m . apar t are
 
illu m i nated by yellow ligh t   6000A0 . What would be t he fri nge wid t h on a
screen placed 1 m eter fro m t he plane of sli ts. When t he whole ex peri m en t is
i m m ersed i n water    4 / 3 :
1) 2.2 1 m m 2) 0.2 2 1 m m 3) 0.4 0 m m 4) 0.0 4 m m
1 5. Two m onoch ro m at ic ligh t waves of a m pli t udes ‘A’ an d ‘2A’ i n terferi ng at a
poi n t, have a p hase difference of 6 0 0 . T he i n tensi t y at t he poi n t will be
propor t ional to:
1) 7 A 2) 5 A 2 / 3 3) 7 A 2 4) 7 A 4

Pg . 2
1 6. I n t he con tex t of n uclear fusion, what is m ean t by t he “ t her m on uclear
react ion ”
1) A re a ctio n a t low te m per a t u re
2) A re a ctio n a t ex te n ds h igh te m per a t u re
3) A re a ctio n i n volvi ng h e a vy ele m e n ts
4) A re a ctio n wit h n o h e a r p rod u ctio n
1 7. T he force between two charges 0.0 6 m apar t is 5N. If each charge is m oved
towards t he ot her by 0.0 1 m , t hen t he force between t he m will beco m e:
1) 7.2 0 N 2) 1 1.2 5 N 3) 2 2.5 0 N 4) 4 5.0 0 N
1 8. Two si m ilar sp heres hav i ng +q an d –q charge are k ep t at a cer tai n distance. F
force acts between t he two. If t he m iddle of two sp heres, anot her si m ilar
sp here hav i ng +q / 2 charge is k ep t, t hen i t ex perience a force i n m agn i t ude
an d direct ion as:
1) zero h a vi ng n o directio n 2) 8 F tow a r ds +q c h a rge
3) 8 F tow a r ds –q c h a rge 4) 4 F tow a r ds –q c h a rge
1 9. F or t he arrange m en t shown i n figure, t he tension i n t he st ri ng to preven t i t
fro m slidi ng down, is  g  10m / s 2  all t he surfaces are frict ion less:

1) 1 2 N 2) 2 1.6 N 3) 0 N 4) 2.4 N
2 0. T he radi us of gy rat ion of a solid sp here abou t a tangen t is gi ven by:
2 2 5 7
1)   R 2)   R 3)   R 4)   R
3 5  3 5
2 1. Two persons of m asses 5 5 kg an d 6 5 kg respect i vel y, are at t he opposi te en ds
of a boat. T he lengt h of t he boat is 3.0 m an d weigh ts 1 0 0 kg. T he 5 5 kg m an
wal ks up to t he 6 5 kg m an an d si ts wi t h h i m . If t he boats is i n st ill water t he
cen t re of m ass of t he syste m sh ifts by:
1) 0.7 5 m 2) 3.0 m 3) 2.3 m 4) zero
2 2. T he wavelengt h of t he least energet ic p hoton i n t he Bal m er spect ru m of
h y drogen ato m is:
1) 3 6 5 n m 2) 6 5 6 n m 3) 9 1 2 n m 4) No n e of t h ese
2 3. A n aeroplane wi t h wi ng span 5 0 m is fl y i ng hori zon tall y wi t h t he speed
3 6 0 K m / h r i n presence of ver t ical m agnet ic field 2  10 4 tesla t hen poten t ial
difference between t he t ips of wi ngs would be:
1) zero 2) 0.1 V 3) 1 V 4) 0.0 1 V
2 4. Two con densers C 1 an d C 2 i n a circu i t are joi ned as shown i n figure. T he
poten t ial of poi n t A is V 1 an d t hat of B is V 2 . T he poten t ial of poi n t D will be:

1 C2V1  C1V2 C1V1  C2V2 C2V1  C1V2

1) V1  V2  2) 3) 4)
2 C1  C2 C1  C2 C1  C2

Pg . 3
2 5. Two circular coils can be arranged i n an y of t he t h ree si t uat ions shown i n t he
figure t heir m u t ual i n ductances are M a , M b , an d M c respect i vel y t hen:

1) M a > M b > M c 2) M a > M b < M c 3) M a > M c > M b 4) M a < M c < M b

2 6. I n a m eter bridge ex peri m en t, t he n ull poi n t is obtai ned at 2 0c m fro m one
en d of t he wire when resistance X is balanced agai nst anot her resistance Y. If
X<Y, t hen where will t he new posi t ion of t he n ull poi n t be fro m t he sa m e
en d, if one decides to balance a resistance of 4 X agai nst Y?
1) 4 0c m 2) 5 0c m 3) 7 0c m 4) 8 0c m
2 7. Len z’s law is consequence of t he law of conservat ion of:
1) C h a rge 2) M a ss 3) M o m e n t u m 4) E n ergy
2 8. T he for m ula for i n duced e. m .f. i n a coil due to change i n m agnet ic flux

t h rough t he coil is (here A  area of t he coil B  m agnet ic field)
d  
1) = − ⃗ 2) = − ⃗ 3) = − ⃗. ⃗  
4) e  
dt
A B

2 9. A long m agnet ic needle of lengt h 2L, m agnet ic m o m en t M an d pole st rengt h

m u n i ts is bro k en i n to two pieces at t he m iddle perpen dicular to i ts lengt h.
T he m agnet ic m o m en t an d pole st rengt h of each piece will be:
M m m M
1) , 2) M , 3) ,m 4) M , m
2 2 2 2
3 0. If t he tension an d dia m eter of a sono m eter wire of fu n da m en tal frequency n
are doubled an d densi t y is halved t hen i ts fu n da m en tal frequency will
beco m e:
n n
1) 2) 2n 3) n 4)
4 2
3 1. T he relat ion between t he gas pressure P an d average k i net ic energy per u n i t
volu m e E is :
1 3 2
1) P  E 2) P  E 3) P  E 4) P  E
2 2 3
3 2. A t 0 K wh ich of t he followi ng proper t ies of a gas will be zero
1) K i n etic e n ergy 2) Pote n ti a l e n ergy 3) M a ss 4) D e n sity
3 3. I n t he elect ric filed of a poi n t charge q, a cer tai n charge is carried fro m A to
C, A to D an d to E . A, B, C, D, E are on t he circle wi t h cen t re at poi n t +q.
T hen t he wor k done:

1) Is le a st a lo ng t h e p a t h A B
2) Is le a st a lo ng t h e p a t h A D
3) Is zero a lo ng a ll t h e p a t h s A B , A C , A D a n d A E
4) Is le a st a lo ng A E
Pg . 4
3 4. T he co mbi nat ion of t he gates shown i n t he figure below produces:

1) N O R ga te 2) O R ga te 3) A N D ga te 4) X O R ga te
3 5. Wh ich state of t ripl y ion ised Ber y lli u m (Be ) has t he sa m e orbi tal radi us as
3+

t hat of t he grou n d state of h y drogen:

1) n = 4 2) n = 3 3) n = 2 4) n = 1
SE C T ION-B
3 6. T he circu i t has two opposi tel y con nected ideal diodes i n parallel. What is t he
curren t flowi ng i n t he cell:

1) 1.7 1 A 2) 2.0 0 A 3) 2.3 1 A 4) 1.3 3 A

3 7. A wire fixed at t he upper en d st retches by lengt h l by appl y i ng a force F . T he
energy stored i n t he wire is:
F Fl
1) 2) Fl 3) 2Fl 4)
2l 2
3 8. If t he ter m i nal speed of a sp here of gold (densi t y =1 9.5 kg / m 3 ) is 0.2 m / s i n a
v iscous liqu id (densi t y =1.5 kg / m 3 ), fi n d t he ter m i nal speed of a sp here of
silver (densi t y = 1 0.5 kg / m 3 ) of t he sa m e si ze i n t he sa m e liqu id. :
1) 0.4 m / s 2) 0.1 3 3 m / s 3) 0.1 m / s 4) 0.2 m / s
3 9. Wor k done i n i ncreasi ng t he si ze of a soap bubble fro m a radi us of 3c m to 5
c m is nearl y (Surface tension of soap solu t ion =0.0 3 N m -1 ) :
1) 2 mJ 2) 0.4 mJ 3) 4 mJ 4) 0.2 mJ
4 0. Wavelengt h of ligh t used i n an op t ical i nst ru m en t are 1  4000A an d
2  5000A , t hen rat io of t heir respect i ve frequencies to 1 an d 2 is :
1) 1 6:2 5 2) 9:1 3) 4:5 4) 5:4
4 1. A flu te wh ich we t reat as a pipe open at bot h en ds is 3 4c m long. T he
fu n da m en tal frequency of t he flu te when all i ts holes si t uated at curved
surface are covered is: [ Ta k e veloci t y of sou n d i n air =3 4 0 m / s]
1) 1 0 0 H z 2) 2 5 0 H z 3) 5 0 0 H z 4) 2 8 0 H z
4 2. Two sp herical bodies of m ass M an d 5 M an d radi i R an d 2 R are released i n
free space wi t h i n i t ial separat ion between t heir cen t res equal to 1 2 R. If t hey
at t ract each ot her due to grav i tat ional force on l y, t hen t he distance covered
by sm aller bod y before collisions is:
1) 2.5 R 2) 4.5 R 3) 7.5 R 4) 1.5 R
4 3. T he power dissipated i n t he circu i t shown i n t he figure is 3 0 wat t. T he value
of R is:

1) 1 0  2) 1 5  3) 2 0  4) 3 0 
Pg . 5
4 4. Radi us of curren t carr y i ng coil is ‘R’. T hen rat io of m agnet ic fields at t he
cen t re of t he coil to t he ax ial poi n t, wh ich is R 3 distance away fro m t he
cen t re of t he coil:
1) 1:1 2) 1:2 3) 1:4 4) 8:1
4 5. Wh ich of t he followi ng will ex perience a force due to u n ifor m m agnet ic field:
1) a n iro n rod
2) c u r re n t c a r r yi ng coil
3) st a tic c h a rge
4) a co n d u ctor c a r r yi ng c u r re n t
4 6. A vessel is quar ter filled wi t h a liqu id of refract i ve i n dex  . T he re m ai n i ng
3
.
par t of t he vessel is filled wi t h an i m m iscible liqu id of refract i ve i n dex
2
T he apparen t dep t h of t he vessel is 5 0% of t he act ual dep t h. T he value of 
is:
1) 1 2) 3 / 2 3) 2 / 3 4) 4 / 3
4 7. H ow m uch heat energy is gai ned when 5 kg of water at 2 0 0 C is brough t to i ts
boili ng poi n t ?
(Specific heat of water = 4.2 k J kg-1 C -1 ) :
1) 1 6 8 0 k J 2) 1 7 0 0 k J 3) 1 7 2 0 k J 4) 1 7 4 0 k J
4 8. Match t he colu m n –I an d colu m n – II :
Colu m n – I Colu m n – II
a. Isot her m al i. Constan t pressure
b. Isochoric i i. Constan t te m perat ure
c. Adiabat ic i i i.Constan t volu m e
d. Isobaric i v. No t ransfer of heat.
1) a -i, b- iii, c- ii, d- iv 2) a - iii, b- ii, c- i, d- iv
3) a - ii, b-iv, c- iii, d- i 4) a - ii, b- iii, c- iv, d- i
4 9. Asser t ion:Magnet ic fieldcan not accelerate aβ par t icle.
Reason: Mass of t he elect ron is ver y sm all co m pare to β- particle.
1) If bot h a sser tio n a n d re a so n a re t r u e a n d t h e re a so n is t h e cor rect ex pl a n a tio n
of t h e a sser tio n
2) If bot h a sser tio n a n d re a so n a re t r u e b u t re a so n is n ot t h e cor rect ex pl a n a tio n
of t h e a sser tio n
3) if a sser tio n is t r u e b u t re a so n is fa lse
4) If t h e a sser tio n a n d re a so n bot h a re fa lse
5 0. State m en t 1: - I n a m ot ion,a bod y can not have a constan t rate of change i n
veloci t y an d si m ul taneousl y variable rate of change i n speed.
State m en t 2: -I n a m ot ion,a bod y can not have a constan t rate of change i n
speed an d si m ul taneousl y variable rate of change i n veloci t y.
1) S t a te m e n t 1 a n d st a te m e n t 2 bot h a re cor rect
2) S t a te m e n t 1 is cor rect b u t st a te m e n t 2 is i n cor rect
3) S t a te m e n t 1 is i n cor rect b u t st a te m e n t 2 is cor rect
4) B ot h st a te m e n ts a re i n cor rect

Pg . 6
 C H E M IST RY
SE C T ION–A
5 1. Gi ven below are two state m en ts:
State m en t I: NH 3 is st rong field ligan d t han PH 3 .
State m en t II: PH 3 is m ore basic t han NH 3 . I n t he ligh t of t he above
state m en ts, choose t he m ost appropriate answer fro m t he op t ions gi ven
below:
1) B ot h S t a te m e n t I a n d S t a te m e n t II a re i n cor rect
2) S t a te m e n t I is cor rect b u t S t a te m e n t II is i n cor rect
3) S t a te m e n t I is i n cor rect b u t S t a te m e n t II is cor rect
4) B ot h S t a te m e n t I a n d S t a te m e n t II a re cor rect
5 2. I n wh ich of t he followi ng state m en ts
T he sequence is not st rict l y accordi ng to t he proper t y wri t ten agai nst i t ?
1) CO2  SiO2  SnO2  PbO2 ; i n cre a si ng oxidisi ng power
2) HF  HCl  HBr  HI ; i n cre a si ng a cid st re ngt h
3) NH 3  PH 3  AsH 3  SbH 3 ; i n cre a si ng b a sic st re ngt h
4) B  C  O  N ; i n cre a si ng first io n is a tio n e n t h a lp y
0
5 3. Consider t he cell poten t ials EMg 2
/ mg
0
 2.37V an d EFe3
/ Fe
 0.04V . T he best
reduci ng agen t would be:
1) Mg 2 + 2) F e 3 + 3) Mg 4) F e
5 4. H ow m an y u n paired elect rons are presen t i n Cr  cat ion(ato m ic no=2 4)
1) 0 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
5 5. Wh ich of t he followi ng liberates C O 2 on react ion wi t h NaH C O 3 :
1) N a O H 2) P h e n ol 3) H C N 4) H C l

5 6.
Product of gi ven react ion is:

5 7. What will be react i v i t y order for isocyan ide test for followi ng a m i nes:

P. Q. R. S.
1) P> R > Q > S 2) P> S > Q > R 3) P> Q > R > S 4) Q > R > S > P
5 8. T he reagen t used for t he separat ion of acetaldeh y de fro m acetop henone
1) NaHSO3 2) C6 H 5 NHNH 2 3) NH 2OH 4) NaOH  I 2
5 9. Non– aro m at ic co m pou n d a m ongst t he followi ng:

1) 2) 3) 4)

Pg . 7
6 0. Wh ich of t he followi ng is correct order of C- N bon d lengt h i n gi ven
co m pou n ds:

1) x =y 2) x <y 3) x >y 4) No n e of t h ese

6 1. I n t he react ion 2CuSO4  4 KI  Cu 2 I 2  I 2  2 K 2 SO4 t he equ i valen t weigh t of C u will
be:
1) 3 1.7 5 2) 6 3.5 3) 1 2 7 4) 1 5.8 8
6 2. F or wh ich co m pou n d are t he e m pirical an d m olecular for m ulas t he sa m e:
1) C6 H 5COOH 2) C6 H 4  COOH  2 3) HOOCCOOH 4) CH 3COOH
6 3. F or t he react ion,
C2 H 5OH  HX   C2 H 5 X , T he order of react i v i t y is.
1) HI  HCl  HBr 2) HI  HBr  HCl 3) HCl  HBr  HI 4) HBr  HI  HCl
6 4. IP is i nfluenced by:
1) size of a to m 2) effective n u cle a r c h a rge
3) elect ro n s p rese n t i n i n n er s h ell 4) A ll
6 5. T he m ax i m u m n u mber of S ato ms t hat are coplanar i n S 8 m olecule are:
1) 8 2) 4 3) 3 4) 6
6 6. C hoose t he correct relat ion t hat can be possible for an ele m en tar y react ion
 P  Q  Product 
1) R a te = K  P  Q  2) R a te= K  P  Q 
1 3 1

3) R a te = K  P Q  4) R a te = K  PQ
1/ 2

2
6 7.  Ni  CO  4  an d  Ni  NH3  4  do not differ i n
1) M agn etic m o m e n t 2) O xid a tio n N u m ber
3) G eo m et r y 4) E A N
6 8. Wh ich of t he followi ng can act as an oxidisi ng agen t :
1) KMnO4 2) H 2 SO4 3) HNO3 4) A ll of t h ese
6 9. What will be t he approx i m ate st rengt h of 1 0 volu m e solu t ion of h y drogen
perox ide
1) 3g / L 2) 3 0g / L 3) 6g / L 4) 3 0g / m L
7 0. A mbiden tate ligan d a m ong t he followi ng is / are:
1) CN  2) NO2 3) e n 4) B ot h 1 a n d 2
7 1. Wh ich is t he st rongest base:
1) Py role 2) A n ili n e 3) Py ridi n e 4) Piperidi n e
7 2. F or t he react ion,

6Cl2
AlCl3  excess 
A

2 
Cl excess

h 500 K
B
1) A is n ot a ro m a tic 2) B is a ro m a tic 3) A is a ro m a tic 4) B is h ex a c h lorobe n ze n e

Pg . 8
7 3. T he h ybridisat ion of P i n p hosp hate i n is t he sa m e as i n:...
1) I in I Cl4  2) S in SO3 3) N in NO3  4) S in SO3 
7 4. Co m pou n d i n wh ich carbons use on l y sp 2 h ybrid orbi tals for bon d for m at ion
is

1) 2)
3) CH 2  CH  CH  CH 2 4) CH 3  CH  C  CH 2
7 5. T he ox idat ion sate of As i n H 2 AsO4 ion is :
1) + 2 2) + 3 3) + 5 4) + 7

7 6. Wh ich h ybridisat ion is i n volved i n t he m etal ion of  Ni  H 2O 6  co m plex:
1) d 2 sp 3 2) sp 3 3) dsp 2 4) sp 3 d 2
7 7. T he P- O- P li n k ages i n P 4 O 1 0 an d P 4 O 6 are
1) 5,5 2) 5,6 3) 6,5 4) 6,6
O
||
CH 3  CH 2  C  NH 2 
NaOH
Br2
A
7 8. , Aqueous solu t ion of A
1) T u r n s bl u e lit m u s to red 2) T u r n s red lit m u s to bl u e
3) D oes n ot affect t h e lit m u s 4) D ecolo u rises t h e lit m u s
7 9. A  g   2 B  g   2C  g  ; H  ve T he con di t ions t hat will favour forward react ion
are:
1) H igh te m per a t u re, H igh p ress u re 2) Low te m per a t u re, H igh p ress u re
3) H igh te m per a t u re, Low p ress u re 4) Low te m per a t u re, Low p ress u re
8 0. A m olecule i n wh ich cen t ral ato m has 2 lone pairs of elect rons an d 2  
bon ds will have what t y pe of h ybridisat ion:
1) sp 2) sp 2 3) sp 3 4) sp 3 d
8 1. I n reverse osm osis t he solven t m olecules m ove across t he SPM :
1) fro m sol u tio n to solve n t side
2) fro m solve n t to sol u tio n side
3) i n bot h directio n s b u t i n u n eq u a l flow r a tes
4) solve n t does n ot m oves sol u te m oves
8 2. T he correct configurat ion is:

1) 2 R, 3 R 2) 2 R, 3 S 3) 2 S, 3 S 4) 2 S, 3 R
8 3. T he solven t t he favours SN 2 m echan ism :
1) W a ter 2) A lco h ol 3) Acid 4) D M F
8 4. Wh ich of t he followi ng is i ncreasi ng order of en t halp y of vapori zat ion:
1) NH 3  PH 3  AsH 3 2) AsH 3  PH 3  NH 3
3) NH 3  AsH 3  PH 3 4) PH 3  AsH 3  NH 3
8 5. Assu m i ng t hat H u n d’s rule is v iolated, t he bon d order an d m agnet ic nat ure of
t he diato m ic m olecule B 2 is
1) 1 a n d di a m agn etic 2) 0 a n d p a r a m agn etic
3) 0 a n d di a m agn etic 4) 1 a n d p a r a m agn etic

Pg . 9
 SE C T ION-B
8 6. T he best m et hod of con version of an alcohol i n to an al k y l ch loride is by
t reat i ng t he alcohol wi t h:
1) P C l 5 2) S O C l 2 i n p rese n ce of p y ridi n e
3) P C l 3 4) D r y H C l i n p rese n ce of a n h y d. Z n C l 2
8 7.  n    rule is v iolated i n:
1) N a 2) Pd 3) C r 4) No n e of t h e a bove
8 8. 3.0 m ole of N 2 an d 6.0 m ole of H 2 are m ixed i n a con tai ner of volu m e 1 d m 3

an d reacts as N2 g   2H 2 g   N2 H4 g 
If at equ ilibri u m 6 4g of N 2 H 4 is obtai ned, t he equ ilibri u m constan t for t he
gi ven react ion will be:
1) 0.2 0 2) 0.2 5 3) 0.5 0 4) 0.7 5
8 9. Wh ich of t he followi ng acids is a v i ta m i n:
1) s a cc h a ric a cid 2) a dipic a cid 3) a sp a r tic a cid 4) a scor bic a cid
9 0. H ow m uch water m ust be added to 3 0 0 m l of 0.2 M solu t ion of
CH 3COOH  K a  1.8  10 5  for t he D.O.I   of t he acid to double?
1) 6 0 0 m l 2) 9 0 0 m l 3) 1 2 0 0 m l 4) 1 5 0 0 m l
9 1. What are q, W an d E if a gas absorbs 2 0 0 J of heat an d ex pan ds fro m 1 0 to 2 0
L at 2 7 0 C agai nst a pressure of 1 at m :
1) -2 0 0, J - 1 0 1 3 J , -8 1 3 J 2) -2 0 0 J , 1 0 1 3 J , -1 2 1 3 J
3) + 2 0 0 J , -1 0 1 3 J , -8 1 3 J 4) + 2 0 0 J , 1 0 1 3 J , 1 2 1 3 J
9 2. T he geo m et r y of Br F 3 is:
1) B E N T- T- S H AP E 2) T rigo n a l B ip y r a m id a l
3) T- S h a pe 4) Py r a m id a l
9 3. T he bon d angles an d t he bon d lengt hs of all confor m at ions are
1)S a m e 2) D iffere n t
3) depe n ds o n e n ergy of co n for m s 4) c a n n ot p redict
9 4. Wri te IUPAC na m es of followi ng co m pou n ds.

1) 2,8- D i m et h yl -3,6–dec a die n e 2) 3,9- D i m et h yl – 4,7-dec a die n e

3) 9- E t h yl -2- m et h yl -3,6- n o n a die n e 4) 2- M et h yl -9- et h yl -3,6- n o n a die n e
9 5. Wh ich of t he followi ng ‘d’ orbi tals par t icipate i n t he h ybridisat ion for X e i n
t he cat ion ic par t of XeF6 s 

(A) d xy (B) d x2  y 2 (c) d z2 (D) dyz

1) A , B 2) B , C 3) C , D 4) A , C
9 6. T he act i vat ion energy of a react ion is zero. T he rate constan t of t he react ion
1) I n cre a ses wit h i n cre a se of te m per a t u re
2) D ecre a ses wit h decre a se of te m per a t u re
3) D ecre a ses wit h i n cre a se of te m per a t u re
4) I n depe n de n t of te m per a t u re
9 7. Wh ich one of t he followi ng aqueous solu t ions will show lowest boili ng poi n t ?
1) 0.0 1 5 M u re a 2) 0.0 1 M K N O 3 3) 0.0 1 M B a C l 2 4) 0.0 1 M s u crose
Pg . 1 0
 9 8. A cell react ion would be spon taneous if t he cell poten t ial an d rG are
respect i vel y:
1) positive a n d n ega tive 2) n ega tive a n d positive
3) zero, zero 4) positive , zero
9 9. If a che m ical react ion is catal ysed by negat i ve catal yst t hen t here will be a /
an
1) red u ce t h e e n t h a lp y of re a ctio n
2) decre a se r a te co n st a n t of t h e re a ctio n
3) i n cre a ses i n t h e v a l u e of eq u ilib ri u m co n st a n t of t h e re a ctio n
4) decre a se i n t h e v a l u e of eq u ilib ri u m co n st a n t of t h e re a ctio n
1 0 0. A  2 B  C , t he rate equat ion for t h is react ion is gi ven as Rate = K[A][B]. If t he
concen t rat ion of A is k ep t t he sa m e bu t t hat of B is doubled what will happen
to t he rate i tself?
1) h a lved 2) t h e s a m e 3) do u bled 4) q u a d r u pled

B O T ANY
SE C T ION –A
1 0 1. C hoose t he correct m atch.
List-I List-II
A) A rc h ego n i a te p h a n eroga m s I. F irst t r u e l a n d pl a n ts
B) E m b r yop h ytic a t r a c h eop h ytes II. Pl a n ts wit h e n closed seeds
C) V a sc u l a r cr y p toga m s III. N a k ed seeded pl a n ts
D) No n - a rc h ego n i a te p h a n eroga m s I V . A m p h ibi a n s of pl a n t k i ngdo m
A B C D A B C D
1) III IV I II 2) IV III II I
3) III IV II I 4) III II I IV
1 0 2. Asser t ion (A): M ore t h a n o n e stig m a per gy n oeci u m is observed i n Lot u s
Reason (R): I n Lot u s, gy n oeci u m is a poc a r po u s
1) B ot h A a n d R a re t r u e a n d R is t h e cor rect ex pl a n a tio n of A
2) B ot h A a n d R a re t r u e a n d R is n ot t h e cor rect ex pl a n a tio n of A
3) A is t r u e b u t R is fa lse
4) A is fa lse b u t R is t r u e
1 0 3. F ila m en tous algae wi t h C h l.a an d C h l.c is / are
1) Spirog y r a 2) Ulothrix
3) E ctoc a rp u s 4) M ore t h a n o n e op tio n cor rect
1 0 4. C hoose t he i ncorrect m atch.
1) Ag a ricu s –M u s h roo m 2) Puccini a –R u st f u ngi
3) F ucu s –D iplo n tic life cycle 4) Altern a ri a –Sex u a l exoge n o u s spores
1 0 5. C hoose t he i ncorrect m atch.
1) D N A–G e n etic m a teri a l i n a ll cell u l a r orga n is m s
2) R N A–G e n etic m a teri a l i n vir u ses o n ly
3) N u cleotides–M o n o m ers of n u cleic a cids
4) R N A–S t r u ct u r a l a n d c a t a lytic role i n e u k a r yotes o n ly
1 0 6. Ma k oi an d Potato would be classified i n
1) T h e s a m e divisio n b u t differe n t cl a sses
2) T h e s a m e cl a ss, b u t differe n t fa m ilies
3) T h e s a m e cl a ss, b u t differe n t species
4) A differe n t cl a ss a n d differe n t or der
Pg . 11
1 0 7. H ow m an y of t he followi ng feat ures are u n ique to A ngiosper ms on l y ?
I) Sy nga m y II) D o u ble fer tiliz a tio n
III) F er tiliz a tio n i n volvi ng polle n t u be IV) Polli n a tio n
V) T riple f u sio n
1) F o u r 2) T h ree 3) T wo 4) F ive
1 0 8. Si m ilari t y between m oss protone m a an d fer n prot hallus is
1) No n -gree n i n colo u r 2) H a ploid n a t u re
3) H a ve v a sc u l a t u re 4) Possess t r u e roots
1 0 9. Wh ich of t he followi ng co mbi nat ion of characters is t rue for sli m e m oulds?
1) S a p rop h ytic, pl a s m odi u m wit h w a lls, spores dispersed b y w a ter
2) Pa r a sitic, pl a s m odi u m wit h w a lls, spores dispersed b y a ir c u r re n ts
3) Pa r a sitic, pl a s m odi u m wit h o u t w a lls, spores dispersed b y w a ter
4) S a p rop h ytic, pl a s m odi u m wit h o u t w a lls, spores dispersed b y a ir c u r re n ts
1 1 0. Wh ich of t he followi ng state m en t is i ncorrect ?
1) Prop h a se II is si m pler t h a n Prop h a se I
2) N u cle a r m e m b r a n e re a p pe a rs i n telop h a se I
3) A n a p h a se II is n ot c h a r a cterise d b y t h e split ti ng of c h ro m a tids
4) Prop h a se I is lo nger a n d co m plex t h a n Prop h a se of m itosis
1 1 1. Match t he Colu m n I wi t h Colu m n II.
Colu m n I Colu m n II
A) S pi n dle fib re a t t a c h m e n t to k i n etoc h ores I) H e a r t cells i n a d u lt a n i m a ls
B) Q u iesce n t st age II) G 1 p h a se
C) M a le h o n ey bees III) M et a p h a se
D) C ell orga n elles d u plic a tio n I V) M itosis
A B C D A B C D
1) III I IV II 2) II III IV I
3) I II IV III 4) I IV III I
1 1 2. A plan t cell has 8 bi valen ts at Prop hase I of m eiosis. H ow m an y ch ro m oso m es
an d ch ro m at ids respect i vel y are presen t i n each ga m ete of t he plan t ?
1) 8 c h ro m oso m es, 1 6 c h ro m a tids 2) 8 c h ro m oso m es, 8 c h ro m a tids
3) 1 6 c h ro m oso m es, 3 2 c h ro m a tids 4) 8 c h ro m oso m es, 4 c h ro m a tids
1 1 3. Asser t ion (A): Pin u s seeds c a n n ot ger m i n a te a n d est a blis h ed wit h o u t t h e p rese n ce
of m ycor r h iz a e
Reason (R): M ycor r h iz a e is a sy m biotic a ssoci a tio n of a f u ng u s wit h s h oot syste m of
v a sc u l a r pl a n ts
1) B ot h A a n d R a re t r u e a n d R is t h e cor rect ex pl a n a tio n of A
2) B ot h A a n d R a re t r u e a n d R is n ot t h e cor rect ex pl a n a tio n of A
3) A is t r u e b u t R is fa lse
4) A is fa lse b u t R is t r u e
1 1 4. Wh ich of t he followi ng st ruct ure is si m ilar to bacteria an d an i m al cell ?
1) C ell w a ll 2) C e n t roso m e 3) N u cle u s 4) C ell m e m b r a n e
1 1 5. State m en t-I (S-I): A ll n u cleic a cids a n d p rotei n s a re h eteropoly m ers
State m en t-II (S-II): N u cleic a cids a re poly m ers of n ecleotides a n d p rotei n s a re
poly m er of a m i n oa cids
1) B ot h S-I a n d S-II a re fa lse 2) S-I is t r u e a n d S-II is fa lse
3) S-I is fa lse b u t S-II is t r u e 4) B ot h S-I a n d S-II a re t r u e

Pg . 12
1 1 6. St ud y t he gi ven flow char t of cyclic p hotop hosp hor y lat ion an d select t he
correct answer for A, B an d C

A B C
1) PS I e a ccep tor
– P680
2) PS I e – a ccep tor P700
3) PS II C ytoc h ro m e P 7 0 0
4) PS II C ytoc h ro m e P 6 8 0
1 1 7. Iden t ify t he i ncorrect state m en t.
1) I n a erobic respir a tio n ox yge n a cts a s u lti m a te elect ro n a ccep tor
2) I n a erobic respir a tio n ox yge n gets red u ced to w a ter
3) I n fer m e n t a tio n N A D H is oxidized d u ri ng t h e for m a tio n of et h yl a lco h ol
4) O x yge n i n cre a ses t h e r a te of a n a erobic respir a tio n .
1 1 8. I n t he op t ions gi ven below A, B, C an d D represen t various fu nct ions
regulated by p h y tohor m ones. C hoose t he op t ion t hat shows all t he fu nct ions
regulated by sa m e hor m one:
A B C D
1) Prod u ctio n of O verco m es a pic a l Pro m otes A pic a l h oo k for m a tio n
n ew le a ves do m i n a n ce n u t rie n t
m obiliz a tio n
2) D el a yi ng of S peeds u p E a rly seed Pro m otes bolti ng
se n esce n ce m a lti ng p rocess p rod u ctio n i n
co n ifers
3) B re a k s seed a n d Pro m otio n of S t ress h or m o n e R a pid i n ter n ode
b u d dor m a n cy floweri ng i n elo nga tio n i n deep
pi n e a p ple w a ter rice pl a n ts
4) I n iti a tes rooti ng Pro m otes a pic a l Pro m ote n u t rie n t Pro m otio n of seed
i n ste m c u t ti ng do m i n a n ce m obiliz a tio n m a t u r a tio n a n d
dor m a n cy
1 1 9. State m en t-I (S-I): M ycopl a s m a c a n s u rvive wit h o u t ox yge n .
State m en t-II (S-II): M ostly D i n ofl agell a tes a re m a ri n e a n d p h otosy n t h etic.
1) B ot h S-I a n d S-II a re t r u e
2) S-I is t r u e a n d S-II is fa lse
3) B ot h S-I a n d S-II a re fa lse
4) S-I is fa lse a n d S-II is t r u e
1 2 0. T he percen tage of ga m etes wh ich con tai n ‘R’ gene produced by ‘R rYy ’ paren t
will be
1) 2 5 2) 7 5 3) 5 0 4) 4 0
Pg . 13
1 2 1. Match t he followi ng.
List I List II
A)C o m plete do m i n a n ce I) S n a p d r ago n
B) I n co m plete do m i n a n ce II) Pe a pl a n t
C) C o-do m i n a n ce III) Drosop hil a
D) Li n k age IV) A B O blood gro u p
T he correct m atch is
A B C D A B C D
1) I II III IV 2) II I IV III
3) II I III IV 4) II III I IV
1 2 2. I n D rosop h i l a , t he genes for wh i te eye an d yellow bod y shows …….a…….
reco mbi nat ion an d genes for wh i te eye an d m i n iat ure wi ng shows ………b………
li n k age i n F 2
1) a→98.7%, b→37.2% 2) a→98.7%, b→62.8%
3) a→1.3%, b→37.2% 4) a→1.3%, b→62.8%
1 2 3. Match t he no m enclat ure of en z y m e Eco RI gi ven i n t he colu m ns.
Colu m n I Colu m n II
A) G e n u s n a m e i) C O
B) S pecies n a m e i i) E
C) N a m e of st r a i n i i i) I
D) O r der of isol a tio n i v) R
A B C D A B C D
1) I II III IV 2) IV II III I
3) III I II IV 4) II I IV III
1 2 4. Match t he colu m ns:-
Colu m n-I Colu m n-II
A) A le u ropl a st i) C a rote n oids
B) A m ylopl a st ii) C a r bo h y d r a tes
C) E l a iopl a st iii) F a ts & O ils
D) C h ro m opl a st iv) Protei n s
1) A – iv, B – ii, C – iii, D – i 2) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv
3) A – iv, B – i, C – ii, D – iii 4) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – i
1 2 5. Select a bioche m ical wh ich acts as clot buster-
1) C yclospori n -A 2) S t rep to k i n a se 3) S t a ti n s 4) C it ric a cids
1 2 6. Wh ich a m ong t he followi ng che m ical is NO T produced by fu ngi ?
1) C it ric a cid 2) S t a ti n s 3) L a ctic a cid 4) C yclospori n -A
1 2 7. Con joi n t, collateral vascular bu n dles are presen t i n
1) S te m s o n ly 2) Roots a n d ste m s o n ly
3) S te m s a n d le a ves o n ly 4) Roots, ste m s a n d le a ves
1 2 8. Match t he colu m n I an d II, an d choose t he correct co mbi nat ion fro m t he
op t ions gi ven.
Colu m n I Colu m n II
a) F r u it I) I n teg u m e n t
b)O v u le II) M a ize gr a i n
c) Seed coa t III) M ega spor a ngi u m
d) N u cell u s IV) Perisper m
A B C D A B C D
1) II III I IV 2) III II IV I
3) III II I III 4) I V II III I

Pg . 14
1 2 9. State m en t-I (S-I): A po m ixis m i m ics sex u a l rep rod u ctio n
State m en t-II (S-II): I n a po m ixix, diploid egg cell is for m ed wit h o u t red u ctio n
divisio n a n d develops i n to t h e e m b r yo wit h o u t fer tiliz a tio n
1) B ot h S-I a n d S-II a re i n cor rect 2) B ot h S-I a n d S-II a re cor rect
3) S-I is cor rect b u t S-II is i n cor rect 4) S-I is i n cor rect b u t S-II is cor rect
1 3 0. Correct set of plan ts showi ng en dosper m ic seeds
1) Pe a , B e a n , G ro u n d n u t 2) W h e a t, M a ize, C oco n u t
3) W h e a t, M a ize, Pe a n u t 4) Rice, Pe a , B e a n
1 3 1. Asser t ion (A):- M itoc h o n d ri a a n d c h loropl a st bot h co n t a i n do u ble-st r a n ded circ u l a r
D N A m olec u les, riboso m es a n d c h lorop h yll pig m e n ts.
Reason (R):- Riboso m es of c h loropl a st a n d m itoc h o n d ri a a re s m a ller t h a n
p ro k a r yotic riboso m es.
1) B ot h (A) a n d (R) a re cor rect b u t (R) is cor rect ex pl a n a tio n of (A)
2) B ot h (A) a n d (R) a re cor rect & (R) is n ot cor rect ex pl a n a tio n of (A)
3) (A) is cor rect b u t (R) is i n cor rect
4) B ot h (A) a n d (R) a re i n cor rect
1 3 2. Read all t he followi ng state m en ts carefull y:-
(A) U s u a lly t h e lower s u rfa ce of isobil a ter a l le af h a s gre a ter n u m ber of sto m a t a
(B) C ell u lose m icrofib rils i n g u a r d cells a re orie n ted lo ngit u di n a lly r a t h er t h a n
r a di a lly
(C) T r a n spir a tio n m a i n t a i n s t h e s h a pe a n d st r u ct u re of pl a n ts b y k eepi ng cells
t u rgid
(D) T h e i n n er w a ll of e a c h g u a r d cell tow a r ds t h e pore is t h i n a n d el a stic
H ow m an y of above state m en ts are i ncorrect ?
1) A , B , C 2) A , B , D 3) B , C , D 4) A , C , D
1 3 3. Match colu m n I an d colu m n II
Colu m n-I Colu m n-II
A) L ysoso m e i) C ell pl a te
B) V a c u ole ii) N u cle a r e n velop
C) E R iii) H y d rol a ses
D) G olgi co m plex iv) To n opl a st
1) a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv 2) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i
3) a–iii, b–ii, c–iv, d–i 4) a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii

1 3 4. R Q of lact ic acid(C 3 H 6 O 3) i n aerobic con di t ion is-

1) O n e 2) Less t h a n 1 3) M ore t h a n o n e 4) 4
1 3 5. T r i t icu m aest ivu m, Ma ngi fer a i n d ica , Sol a n u m t uberosu m, Sol a n u m n igr u m,
Homo sa p iens, Musca domest ica , Colch icu m a u t u m n a le a n d
Sol a n u m melongen a .
T hese are so m e scien t ific na m es of organ isms. H ow m an y species an d genera
are i ncluded respect i vel y i n t hese na m es?
1) 6, 8 2) 8, 7 3) 8, 8 4) 8, 6

Pg . 15
 SE C T ION-B
1 3 6. Read t he followi ng state m en ts an d state t rue (T) or F alse (F) an d select t he
correct op t ion.
A) T h e sporop h yte of M a rch a n ti a is dioecio u s a s a n t h eridi a a n d a rc h ego n i a a re
p rese n t o n differe n t t h a lli
B) I n h eterosporo u s p teridop h ytes, t h e p rot h a lli a re dioecio u s
C) T h a lloid bod y is n ot a fe a t u re of b r yop h ytes.
D) C y c a s pl a n t is dioecio u s, m icro a n d m ega sporop h ylls a re p rese n t i n t h e s a m e
pl a n t
A B C D A B C D
1) T F T F 2) T T F F
3) F F T T 4) F T T F
1 3 7. T he genet ic m aterial of v iroids could be
1) D N A 2) R N A
3) B ot h D N A a n d R N A 4) E it h er D N A or R N A
1 3 8. Wh ich a m i no acid can be coded by one codon on l y ?
1) Lysi n e 2) P h e n yl a l a n i n e 3) A rgi n i n e 4) M et h io n i n e
1 3 9. Asser t ion (A): E n zy m es c a n n ot be p rotei n s o n ly.
Reason (R):A few e n zy m es c a n be poly ribo n u cleotides.
1) B ot h A a n d R a re t r u e a n d R is t h e cor rect ex pl a n a tio n of A
2) B ot h A a n d R a re t r u e a n d R is n ot t h e cor rect ex pl a n a tio n of A
3) A is t r u e b u t R is fa lse
4) A is fa lse b u t R is t r u e
1 4 0. If 1 8 A TP are u t ili zed i n regenerat ion p hase of Calv i n cycle t hen,
A) N u m ber of C O 2 red u ced _______ B) Tot a l N A D P H 2 u tilized _______
C) G l u cose m olec u les for m ed ______ D) N et P G A L p rod u ced ________
A B C D A B C D
1) 1 8 18 3 6 2) 18 36 6 18
3) 1 8 36 3 6 4) 18 18 3 3
1 4 1. Match t he followi ng based on t he n u mber of A TP y ield duri ng aerobic
respirat ion
List-I List-II
A) O n e m olec u le of Py r u vic a cid I. 9
B) O n e m olec u le of G 3P II. 1 5
C) O n e m olec u le of Acetyl C oA III. 1 7
D) O n e m olec u le of 1, 3 B P G A IV. 1 2
V. 2 0
T he correct m atch is
A B C D A B C D
1) II V IV III 2) III II V IV
3) I IV III II 4) IV III II I
1 4 2. State m en t-I (S-I): L a w of do m i n a n ce ex pl a i n s a bo u t ex p ressio n of o n ly o n e t r a it i n
F 1 ge n er a tio n
State m en t-II (S-II): I n h eterozygo u s co n ditio n o n e fa ctor do m i n a tes t h e ot h er.
1) B ot h S-I a n d S-II a re i n cor rect 2) B ot h S-I a n d S-II a re cor rect
3) S-I is cor rect b u t S-II is i n cor rect 4) S-I is i n cor rect b u t S-II is cor rect

Pg . 16
1 4 3. Iden t ify an i ncorrect state m en t wi t h respect to et h ical issues i n biotech nology
1) B a s m a ti rice is disti n ct for its u n iq u e a ro m a a n d fl a vo u r a n d 2 7 doc u m e n ted
v a rieties of b a s m a ti a re grow n i n I n di a
2) I n 1 9 9 7, a n A m eric a n co m p a n y got p a te n t righ ts o n b a s m a ti rice t h ro u gh t h e U S
Pa te n t a n d T r a de m a r k office
3) B iopir a cy is t h e ter m u sed to refer to t h e u se of bioreso u rces b y m u lti n a tio n a l
co m p a n ies wit h o u t p roper a u t h oriz a tio n fro m t h e co u n t ries a n d people co n cer n ed
wit h o u t co m pe n s a tor y p a y m e n t
4) T h e c u r re n t i n terest i n t h e m a n ip u l a tio n of m icrobes, pl a n ts a n d a n i m a ls h a s
r a ised n o et h ic a l q u estio n s
1 4 4. F i n d t he odd t issue w.r.t t he origi n-
1) C or tex 2) Pit h 3) V a sc u l a r tiss u es 4) Pericycle
1 4 5. Biogas is t he m ix t ure of gases produced by t he m icrobial act i v i t y. T he t y pe of
gas produced depen ds upon
1) T y pe of m icrobes 2) T y pe of orga n ic s u bst r a te (or) w a ste
3) Size of digester 4) M ore t h a n o n e op tio n cor rect
1 4 6. Iden t ify t he label A an d B i n gi ven figure.

1) A-A rc h ego n i u m , B -A n t h eridi u m 2) A- O ospore, B - O ogo n i u m

3) A- O osp h ere, B -A rc h ego n i u m 4) A- O ogi n i u m , B -A n t h eridi u m
1 4 7. T he i nfor m at ion wh ich is not prov ided by floral diagra m is:-
1) Aestiv a tio n of pet a ls
2) A d h esio n of st a m e n s
3) N u m bers of loc u les i n ov a r y a n d ty pe of pl a ce n t a tio n
4) Positio n of ov a r y
1 4 8. Wh ich is co m m on i n diato ms an d di noflagellates?
1) E u k a r yotic n a t u re 2) U n icell u l a r 3) H olop h ytic n u t ritio n 4) A ll of t h e m
1 4 9. Protei n → A m i no acid
Above gi ven react ion is catal ysed by wh ich en z y m es?
1) Iso m er a se 2) Ly a ses 3) H y d rol a ses 4 T r a n sfer a se
1 5 0. Wh ich of t he followi ng helps i n m ai n tenance of ex posed surface of t he m edi u m
i n a bioreactor-
1) F oa m b re a k er 2) S te a m for steriliz a tio n
3) S terile a ir 4) M a i n t a i n p H
ZO OL OGY
SE C T ION-A
1 5 1. Wh ich a m ong t he followi ng is / are not t he effects of Glucocor t icoids?
(a) S ti m u l a tio n of gl u co n eoge n esis.
(b) I n cre a ses t h e i m m u n e respo n se.
(c) S ti m u l a tes R B C s p rod u ctio n .
(d) Pro m otes t h e cell u l a r u p t a k e of a m i n o a cids.
(e) S ti m u l a tes sy n t h esis of p rotei n s
1) a , b, c 2) b, c, d 3) b, d, e 4) a , b, e
Pg . 17
1 5 2. T he regions of cerebral cor tex wh ich are responsible for co m plex fu nct ions
li k e m e m or y an d co m m u n icat ion are
1) Se n sor y a re a s 2) M otor a re a s 3) C or p u s c a llos u m 4) Associ a tio n a re a s
1 5 3. Select t he i ncorrect m atch fro m t he followi ng
1) B a ll a n d soc k et joi n t – h u m er u s a n d pector a l gir dle
2) Pivot joi n t – c a r p a l a n d m et a c a r p a l of t h u m b
3) C a r til agi n o u s joi n t – bet wee n a dj a ce n t ver teb r a e
4) H i nge joi n t – K n ee joi n t
1 5 4. A n i ncrease i n G F R an d blood pressure causes release of ‘ X ’ wh ich decreases
t he blood pressure. Select t he correct op t ion t hat represen ts ‘ X ’.
1) Re n i n 2) A ldostero n e 3) A N F 4) A D H
1 5 5. Observe t he followi ng diagra m an d select t he state m en t wh ich doesn ’ t
correct l y represen t ‘ T ’.

1) D u ri ng t h is p h a se t h e ve n t ricles get filled b y blood.

2) It is t h e ret u r n of ve n t ricles fro m excited st a te to n or m a l st a te.
3) E n d of T w a ve m a r k s t h e e n d of ve n t ric u l a r systole.
4) D u ri ng t h is p h a se blood is p u m ped o u t i n to t h e respective a r teries.
1 5 6. Wh ich a m ong t he followi ng factors is pri m aril y responsible for dissociat ion of
ox y hae m oglobi n i n t issues.
1) I n cre a se p O 2 i n a r teri a l blood.
2) D ecre a se co n ce n t r a tio n of H + io n s i n tiss u es
3) D ecre a se i n t h e te m per a t u re
4) I n cre a se p C O 2 i n tiss u es
1 5 7. I n frog blood fro m m ajor vei ns drai n i n to righ t at ri u m t h rough a t riangular
st ruct ure called
1) C o n u s a r terios u s 2) Si n u s ve n os u s
3) Ly m p h n odes 4) Peric a r di u m
1 5 8. I n ter nal fer t ili zat ion wi t h ov iparous nat ure an d poi k ilot her m y is seen i n
1) E xocoet u s 2) H yl a 3) C a lotes 4) A p te n od ytes
1 5 9. Read t he followi ng state m en ts an d select t he correct op t ion
S t a te m e n t I: E xcretio n occ u rs t h ro u gh p roboscis gl a n ds i n B al a nogloss u s .
S t a te m e n t II: T h e m ost disti n ctive fe a t u re of ec h i n oder m s is t h e p rese n ce of w a ter
c a n a l syste m .
1) B ot h st a te m e n t I a n d st a te m e n t II a re cor rect.
2) S t a te m e n t I is cor rect, b u t st a te m e n t II is i n cor rect.
3) B ot h st a te m e n t I a n d st a te m e n t II a re cor rect.
4) S t a te m e n t I is i n cor rect, b u t st a te m e n t II is cor rect.
1 6 0. Wh ich a m ong t he followi ng is responsible for origi n of signals for par t uri t ion ?
1) F u lly developed foet u s 2) M a ter n a l pit u it a r y
3) Pl a ce n t a 4) B ot h 1 & 3
1 6 1. Select t he hor m onal IUD fro m t he followi ng
1) Progest a ser t 2) Lip pes loop 3) M u ltiloa d 3 7 5 4) C u 7
Pg . 1 8
1 6 2. X – li n k ed recessi ve disorders are m ore co m m on i n m ales t han i n fe m ales
because
1) Affected m a les receive t h e dise a se-c a u si ng ge n e fro m m a le p a re n t.
2) Prese n ce eve n a si ngle cop y of dise a se-c a u si ng ge n e m a y le a d to disor der i n
m a les.
3) F e m a les get affected o n ly i n h eterozygo u s co n ditio n .
4) If fe m a le is affected a ll h er offsp ri ng’s will be affected.
1 6 3. Satelli te DNA is classified i n to m icrosatelli tes an d m i n i satelli tes depen di ng
on all factors excep t.
1) Le ngt h of seg m e n t 2) B a se co m positio n
3) No of S NPs 4) No of repetitive u n its
1 6 4. Wh ich a m ong t he followi ng state m en ts is i ncorrect w.r.t origi n an d evolu t ion
of m an
1) N e a n der t h a l m a n u sed h ides to p rotect t h eir bod y a n d b u ried t h eir de a d.
2) T h e first h u m a n -li k e bei ng t h e h o m i n id w a s H o m o erect u s.
3) M oder n H o m o s a pie n s a rose d u ri ng ice age bet wee n 7 5 0 0 0 – 1 0 0 0 0 ye a rs ago.
4) A u st r a lopit h ec u s h u n ted wit h sto n e we a po n s b u t esse n ti a lly a te fr u it.
1 6 5. _____ is a ver y effect i ve sedat i ve an d pai n k iller an d is ver y useful i n pat ien ts
who have u n dergone surger y.
1) C oc a i n e 2) M a rij u a n a 3) B e n zodi a zepi n e 4) M or p h i n e
1 6 6. Gi ven below are two state m en ts: one is labelled as Asser t ion (A) an d t he ot her
is labelled as Reason (R).
Asser tio n (A): T h e first cli n ic a l ge n e t h er a p y for A D A deficie n cy w a s n ot a
per m a n e n t c u re.
Re a so n (R): T h e ly m p h ocytes wit h f u n ctio n a l A D A ge n e t h a t were t r a n sf u sed were
n ot i m m or t a l a n d req u ired periodic t r a n sf u sio n .
1) Asser tio n is cor rect, b u t Re a so n is i n cor rect.
2) B ot h Asser tio n a n d Re a so n a re cor rect, a n d Re a so n is cor rect ex pl a n a tio n of
Asser tio n .
3) B ot h Asser tio n a n d Re a so n a re cor rect, a n d Re a so n is n ot a cor rect ex pl a n a tio n
of Asser tio n .
4) Asser tio n is i n cor rect, b u t Re a so n is cor rect.
1 6 7. A t y pe of populat ion i n teract ion where none of t he i n teract i ng species are
benefi t ted is
1) C o m m e n s a lis m 2) C o m petitio n 3) A m e n s a lis m 4) M u t u a lis m
1 6 8. Wh ich a m ong t he followi ng is not t rue w.r.t p y ra m id of energy ?
1) It is a lw a ys u p righ t.
2) A m o u n t of e n ergy a t lower t rop h ic level is h igh est.
3) W it h s u ccessive t rop h ic levels so m e e n ergy is lost.
4) H igh est a m o u n t of e n ergy is p rese n t i n t h e h igh er t rop h ic level.
1 6 9. I n wh ich of t he followi ng m ode of conservat ion m et hods t he t h reatened
species are protected i n t heir nat ural habi tat.
1) S a cred grooves 2) B ot a n ic a l ga r de n s
3) Zoologic a l p a r k s 4) W ildlife s afa ri p a r k s
1 7 0. Read t he followi ng state m en ts an d select t he i ncorrect one.
1) S m o k i ng i n cre a ses c a r bo n m o n oxide co n te n t i n blood a n d red u ces t h e
co n ce n t r a tio n of h a e m -bo u n d ox yge n .
2) A d dictio n is psyc h ologic a l a t t a c h m e n t to cer t a i n effects s u c h a s e u p h ori a .
3) C T u ses X r a ys to ob t a i n a t h ree – di m e n sio n a l i m age of t h e i n ter n a l orga n s.
4) I n H I V i n fectio n t h e n u m ber of m a crop h ages d r a stic a lly decre a ses i n n u m ber.
Pg . 19
1 7 1. Wh ich a m ong t he followi ng is not t he fu nct ion of circulator y syste m i n
coc k roach
1) T r a n spor t of n u t rie n ts 2) T r a n spor t of ga sses
3) T r a n spor t of w a ste 4) B ot h 1 & 2
1 7 2. A t wh ich p hase of t he cardiac cycle i n adul t h u m ans m ax i m u m filli ng of
ven t ricles ta k es place u n der nor m al p h ysiological con di t ions?
1) V e n t ric u l a r systole 2) A t ri a l systole
3) J oi n t di a stole 4) A t ri a l di a stole
1 7 3. A t rest i ng state of sk eletal m uscle fibres, a subu n i t of wh ich of t he followi ng
m asks t he act i ve bi n di ng si tes for m yosi n on act i n fila m en ts?
1) M yosi n 2) M ero m yosi n 3) F – a cti n 4) T ropo n i n
1 7 4. T he par t of brai n i n volved i n regulat ion of sex ual behav ior as well as h unger
an d t h irst is
1) Po n s 2) M ed u ll a 3) H y pot h a l a m u s 4) C erebell u m
1 7 5. Wh ich a m ong t he followi ng hor m ones is produced on l y i n a pregnan t fe m ale
1) h C G 2) E st roge n 3) Progestero n e 4) T h y roxi n e
1 7 6. Wh ich one of t he followi ng op t ions gi ves one correct exa m ple, each of
con vergen t evolu t ion an d di vergen t evolu t ion
Con vergen t E volu t ion D i vergen t evolu t ion
T h or n s of B o u ga i n ville a
1) W i ngs of b u t terfly a n d of bir ds
a n d te n d rils of C u c u r bit a
2) V er teb r a te h e a r ts or b r a i n F oreli m bs of w h a le a n d c h eet a h
F lip pers of T h or n s of B o u ga i n ville a
3)
pe ng u i n a n d dolp h i n a n d te n d rils of C u c u r bit a
4) S weet pot a to a n d pot a to E ye of t h e octop u s a n d of m a m m a ls
1 7 7. Read t he followi ng state m en ts an d select t he correct op t ion
State m en t I: E LIS A is a di agn ostic m et h od b a sed o n t h e p ri n ciple of a n tige n
a n tibod y i n ter a ctio n .
State m en t II: I n a u tor a diogr a p h y t h e i m age of t h e m u t a ted ge n e does n’t a p pe a r
o n t h e p h otogr a p h ic fil m .
1) B ot h st a te m e n t I a n d st a te m e n t II a re cor rect.
2) S t a te m e n t I is cor rect, b u t st a te m e n t II is i n cor rect.
3) B ot h st a te m e n t I a n d st a te m e n t II a re cor rect.
4) S t a te m e n t I is i n cor rect, b u t st a te m e n t II is cor rect.
1 7 8. T he st ruct ure presen t i n p h y lu m Mollusca t hat helps i n respirat ion an d
excret ion is
1) N ep h ridi a 2) F l a m e cell 3) R a d u l a 4) C te n idi a
1 7 9. Select t he i ncorrect state m en t fro m t he followi ng.
1) T h e v a l u e of p O 2 i n syste m ic vei n s is eq u a l to v a l u e of p C O 2 i n a lveol a r a ir.
2) T h e v a l u e of p O 2 i n syste m ic a r teries is m ore t h a n t h a t of p O 2 i n a lveol a r a ir.
3) T h e v a l u e of p O 2 i n p u l m o n a r y a r ter y is eq u a l to v a l u e of p C O 2 i n syste m ic
a r teries.
4) T h e v a l u e of p O 2 i n deox yge n a ted blood is eq u a l to v a l u e of p C O 2 i n ox yge n a ted
blood.

Pg . 2 0
1 8 0. I n a case where t he fe m ale par t ner suffers fro m anov ulat ion wh ich a m ong t he
followi ng m et hods of Assisted reproduct i ve tech nologies is reco m m en ded ?
1) A r tifici a l i n se m i n a tio n 2) I n t r a u teri n e i n se m i n a tio n
3) G a m etes i n t r a fa llopi a n t r a n sfer 4) B ot h 1 & 2
1 8 1. T he set of hor m ones t hat are i n volved i n m ai n tenance of calci u m levels i n
bod y
1) C a lcito n i n – Pa r a t h y roid h or m o n e 2) So m a tost a ti n – So m a tot rop h i n
3) A d re n a li n e – No n a d re n a li n e 4) M el a to n i n – F S H
1 8 2. Read t he followi ng state m en ts an d select t he i ncorrect one
1) M a crop h ages a n d N K cells a re p a r t of cell u l a r b a r rier.
2) A n ti ve n o m a n d a n ti-tet a n u s ser u m a re ex a m ples of a r tifici a lly a cq u ired p a ssive
i m m u n ity.
3) Sy m p to m s r a ised d u e to a llergy c a n be t re a ted b y a d m i n ist r a tio n of a d re n a li n e,
steroids, a n d A n ti h ist a m i n e.
4) Ly m p h n odes a n d splee n a re p ri m a r y ly m p h oid orga n s t h a t a re i n volved i n
m a t u r a tio n a n d p rolifer a tio n of ly m p h ocytes.
1 8 3. Match t he followi ng colu m ns an d select t he correct op t ion.
Colu m n - I Colu m n -II
a . X X - X O ty pe i. B u t terflies
b. X X – X Y ty pe ii. G r a ss h op per
c. Z W – Z Z ty pe iii. D rosop h il a
d. Z O – Z Z ty pe iv. B ir ds
1) a -ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv 2) a -ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
3) a -iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv 4) a -ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
1 8 4. Wh ich a m ong t he followi ng state m en ts is not t rue w.r.t H u m an geno m e
project
1) D yst rop h i n is t h e l a rgest k n ow n h u m a n ge n e wit h 2.4 m illio n b a ses.
2) Less t h a n 2 perce n t of t h e h u m a n ge n o m e codes for p rotei n s.
3) Si ngle n u cleotide poly m or p h is m occ u rs a t 1.4 billio n loc a tio n s i n h u m a n
ge n o m e.
4) Repe a ted seq u e n ces m a k e u p ver y l a rge por tio n of h u m a n ge n o m e.
1 8 5. _____ is t he m ost species rich taxono m ic group a m ong i n ver tebrates.
1) I n sects 2) M oll u scs 3) C r u st a ce a n s 4) F is h es
SE C T ION-B
1 8 6. Gi ven below are two state m en ts: one is labelled as Asser t ion (A) an d t he ot her
is labelled as Reason (R).
Asser t ion (A): M a xi m u m a m o u n t of n u t rie n ts a n d 7 0-8 0 perce n t of elect rolytes
a n d w a ter is a bsor bed fro m P C T.
Reason (R): P C T is li n ed b y si m ple b r u s h bor dered c u boid a l epit h eli u m wit h
a b u n d a n t m itoc h o n d ri a .
1) A is cor rect, b u t R is i n cor rect.
2) B ot h A a n d R a re cor rect, a n d R is cor rect ex pl a n a tio n of A .
3) Bot h A a n d R a re cor rect, a n d R is n ot a cor rect ex pl a n a tio n of A .
4) A is i n cor rect, b u t R is cor rect.
1 8 7. C hoose t he n u mber of diseases fro m t he gi ven below set for wh ich t ransgen ic
m odels do not ex ist.
Cancer, Alz hei m er’s, cyst ic fibrosis, M yast hen ia grav is, R heu m atoid ar t h ri t is,
Graves’ disease
1) T h ree 2) F o u r 3) T wo 4) O n e
Pg . 21
1 8 8. All of t he followi ng are exa m ples of au toso m al li n k ed diseases excep t
1) T h a l a sse m i a 2) Sic k le cell a n a e m i a
3) P h e n yl k eto n u ri a 4) H a e m op h ili a
1 8 9. T he rate of for m at ion of new organ ic m at ter by consu m ers is called
1) Pri m a r y p rod u ctivity 2) Seco n d a r y p rod u ctivity
3) G ross p ri m a r y p rod u ctivity 4) N et p ri m a r y p rod u ctivity
1 9 0. I n a h u m an populat ion of 1 0 0 0 i n di v iduals 9 0 are affected by t halasse m ia. I n
t h is populat ion t he frequency of carrier i n di v iduals is
1) 0.4 2) 0.2 3) 0.4 2 4) 0.8
1 9 1. Wh ich a m ong t he followi ng organ isms shows t riploblast ic nat ure wi t h
bilateral sy m m et r y an d open t y pe of circulat ion ?
1) Ph eritim a 2) Lim ulu s 3) Petrom y zon 4) E xocoetu s
1 9 2. Select t he m ism atch a m ong t he followi ng w.r.t disorders associated wi t h
en docri ne glan ds.
1) A d diso n’s dise a se – U n der p rod u ctio n of h or m o n es b y a d re n a l m ed u ll a
2) C reti n is m – H y pot h y roidis m
3) Acro m ega ly – E xcessive secretio n of G H i n a d u lts
4) G r a ve’s dise a se – H y per t h y roidis m
1 9 3. Wh ich a m ong t he followi ng is / are excretor y st ruct ures i n coc k roach
1) F a t bodies 2) M a lpigh i a n t u b u les
3) U ricose gl a n ds 4) A ll of t h ese
1 9 4. Neuroglia m a k es up _____ of t he volu m e of neural t issue i n our bod y.
1) O n e t h ir d 2) Less t h a n h a lf
3) M ore t h a n h a lf 4) A ro u n d 2 5%
1 9 5. Wh ich a m ong t he followi ng hor m ones has t he least concen t rat ion i n blood
between 1 0 t h to 1 4 t h day of m enst rual cycle?
1) L H 2) E st roge n 3) Progestero n e 4) F S H
1 9 6. Stat u tor y ban on a m n iocen tesis i n I n dia was necessar y because
1) It is ver y ex pe n sive
2) It c a n le a d to p re- n a t a l sex deter m i n a tio n of c h ild a n d co n seq u e n tly fe m a le
foeticide
3) It is a n i n v a sive p roced u re a n d c a r ries h igh ris k of a bor tio n s
4) It c a n h elp to k n ow c h ro m oso m a l a ber r a tio n s.
1 9 7. Sustai ned h igh fever, const ipat ion, loss of appet i te an d i n test i nal perforat ion
i n severe cases are sy m p to ms of wh ich of t he followi ng disease?
1) T y p h oid 2) P n e u m o n i a 3) M a l a ri a 4) Pl ag u e
1 9 8. Gi ven below are two state m en ts: one is labelled as Asser t ion (A) an d t he ot her
is labelled as Reason (R).
Asser tio n (A): C a r di a c o u t p u t i n cre a ses wit h i n cre a se i n h e a r t r a te or st ro k e
vol u m e.
Re a so n (R): I n cre a se i n h e a r t r a te red u ces t h e d u r a tio n of c a r di a c cycle.
1) A is cor rect, b u t R is i n cor rect.
2) B ot h A a n d R a re cor rect, a n d R is cor rect ex pl a n a tio n of A .
3) Bot h A a n d R a re cor rect, a n d R is n ot a cor rect ex pl a n a tio n of A .
4) A is i n cor rect, b u t R is cor rect.
1 9 9. T he correct equat ion w.r.t respirator y capaci t ies is
1) F R C = T V + E R V 2) V C = E R V +I C
3) T L C = V C + T V 4) I C = T V + R V
2 0 0. Gl ycosuria an d k eton uria are m ost l y i n dicat i ve of
1) D i a betes i n sipid u s 2) G lo m er u lo n ep h ritis
3) Re n a l c a lc u li 4) D i a betes m ellit u s

Pg . 22
Cou rse: SR ST A R C O SUP E R C H AINA Dat e: 1 4-1 2-2 0 2 3
D u rat io n: 3.2 0 H rs G R AN D T EST-1 4 Max. M ar ks: 7 2 0 M

KEY
PH YSICS
1. 3 2. 1 3. 2 4. 4 5. 3 6. 2 7. 3 8. 3 9. 4 1 0. 3
1 1. 1 1 2. 1 1 3. 1 1 4. 2 1 5. 3 1 6. 2 1 7. 2 1 8. 4 1 9. 1 2 0. 4
2 1. 4 2 2. 2 2 3. 3 2 4. 3 2 5. 1 2 6. 2 2 7. 4 2 8. 3 2 9. 3 3 0. 3
3 1. 4 3 2. 1 3 3. 3 3 4. 2 3 5. 3 3 6. 2 3 7. 4 3 8. 3 3 9. 2 4 0. 4
4 1. 3 4 2. 3 4 3. 1 4 4. 4 4 5. 4 4 6. 2 4 7. 1 4 8. 4 4 9. 4 5 0. 4
C H E MIST RY

5 1. 2 5 2. 3 5 3. 3 5 4. 3 5 5. 4 5 6. 2 5 7. 3 5 8. 1 5 9. 4 6 0. 3
6 1. 2 6 2. 1 6 3. 2 6 4. 4 6 5. 2 6 6. 4 6 7. 1 6 8. 4 6 9. 2 7 0. 4
7 1. 4 7 2. 3 7 3. 4 7 4. 3 7 5. 3 7 6. 4 7 7. 4 7 8. 2 7 9. 2 8 0. 3
8 1. 3 8 2. 4 8 3. 4 8 4. 4 8 5. 1 8 6. 2 8 7. 2 8 8. 3 8 9. 4 9 0. 2
9 1. 3 9 2. 2 9 3. 1 9 4. 1 9 5. 2 9 6. 4 9 7. 4 9 8. 1 9 9. 2 1 0 0. 3
B O T ANY

1 0 1. 1 1 0 2. 1 1 0 3. 3 1 0 4. 4 1 0 5. 4 1 0 6. 3 1 0 7. 3 1 0 8. 2 1 0 9. 4 1 1 0. 3
1 1 1. 1 1 1 2. 2 1 1 3. 3 1 1 4. 4 1 1 5. 4 1 1 6. 2 1 1 7. 4 1 1 8. 2 1 1 9. 1 1 2 0. 3
1 2 1. 2 1 2 2. 4 1 2 3. 4 1 2 4. 1 1 2 5. 2 1 2 6. 3 1 2 7. 3 1 2 8. 1 1 2 9. 2 1 3 0. 2
1 3 1. 4 1 3 2. 2 1 3 3. 2 1 3 4. 1 1 3 5. 4 1 3 6. 2 1 3 7. 2 1 3 8. 4 1 3 9. 1 1 4 0. 3
1 4 1. 1 1 4 2. 2 1 4 3. 4 1 4 4. 3 1 4 5. 4 1 4 6. 4 1 4 7. 4 1 4 8. 4 1 4 9. 3 1 5 0. 1
ZO O L O GY

1 5 1. 3 1 5 2. 4 1 5 3. 2 1 5 4. 3 1 5 5. 1 1 5 6. 4 1 5 7. 2 1 5 8. 3 1 5 9. 2 1 6 0. 4
1 6 1. 1 1 6 2. 2 1 6 3. 3 1 6 4. 2 1 6 5. 4 1 6 6. 2 1 6 7. 3 1 6 8. 4 1 6 9. 1 1 7 0. 4
1 7 1. 2 1 7 2. 3 1 7 3. 4 1 7 4. 3 1 7 5. 1 1 7 6. 3 1 7 7. 1 1 7 8. 4 1 7 9. 2 1 8 0. 3
1 8 1. 1 1 8 2. 4 1 8 3. 4 1 8 4. 3 1 8 5. 1 1 8 6. 2 1 8 7. 3 1 8 8. 4 1 8 9. 2 1 9 0. 3
1 9 1. 2 1 9 2. 1 1 9 3. 4 1 9 4. 3 1 9 5. 3 1 9 6. 2 1 9 7. 1 1 9 8. 3 1 9 9. 2 2 0 0. 4

M C O-DIV ISION
Ph y sics : Sri. R a k es h Mis hr a Sir : 7004638518
C h emistr y : Sri. Ris h a v R aj Sir : 8233074218
Bot a n y : Sri. Vim al Sir : 8470980454
Zoolog y : Sri.. A tul Singh Sir : 9573541870
Pg. 1
 PH YSICS H INTS & SO LUT ION
1. B y wor k e n ergy t h eore m fy  x  f  x/y
80 Vs I s
2. 
100 V p I p
20  120
Ip   3A
0.8  1000
m T m1
3. T  2  1 
K T2 m2
3 900 3
  
T2 400 2
T2  2 sec
4. Vmax   Rg
 0.2  100  10 = 1 4.1 m / s
5. T h ey m u st h a ve a co n st a n t p h a se differe n ce
6. A A12  A22  2 A1 A2 cos 
A2  A2  A2  2 A2 cos 
cos A   1 / 2
A  2 / 3
7. R  2H
2ab b2
2
g 2g
8. a  ar2  at2
2
 30  30 
    5 = 5.3 1 m / s
2 2
 500 
9. t 0

1  A2  3 E
1 0. KE    A2  
2  4  4
1 2 1 2
1 1. mv  kx
2 2
2  v  2  42
2

v  4 m/s
1 2. S H M is a co n serv a tive field t h a t’s w h y m a xi m u m K . E is eq u a l to m a xi m u m P. E = k 0
25
1 3. Tf  Ti
100
1
mgh '   mg  20
4
h '  5 cm
B
1 4. B  air
w
 1 D 1 1 5896  1010
    
  d 4/3 0.2 102
3 5896  10 8
   22110  10 8 m
4 0.2
= 0.2 2 1 m m

Pg. 2
1 5. AR2  a12  a22  2a1a2 cos 600
AR2  5 A2  2  A  2 A  1 / 2
 7 A2
I  AR2
1 6. A re a ctio n a t ex te n ds h igh te m per a t u re
2
5  0.04 
1 7.   or F '  11.25 N
F '  0.06 
1 8.

Kq 2
F 2
r
q q
kq   Kq  
F '   2   2   4 F tow a r ds – q
2
2
r r
   
 2 2
1 9. T  mg sin 
7
2 0.  R
5
2 1. If t h ere is n o ex ter n a l force o n t h e syste m ce n t re of m a ss does n ot c h a nge i n
positio n
2 2.  F or le a st e n ergetic
i.e. max
max for B a l m er series
36
max 
5R
36
  912  656 nm
5R
 
2 3. e  BV  l
5
 2  104  360   50 = 1 volt
18
2 4. C1 V1  V   C2 V  V2 
C1V1  C2V2  V  C1  C2 
C1V1  C2V2
V
C1  C2
2 5. Ma  Mb  Mc
X 20 1
2 6.    Y  4X
Y 80 4
4X  4X 
     50 .
Y 100   4 X 100  
2 7. E n ergy
2 8. B y fa r a d a y l a w
d
e
dt

Pg. 3
2 9. Pole st re ngt h of e a c h p a r t = m
m agn etic m o m e n t of e a c h p a r t
L M
M '  m'L'  m 
2 2
1 T
3 0. n 
21  r 2 
2
n1 T r  
 1 2 2
n2 T2  r1  1
n1  n2
3
3 1. K E  PV
2
KE 3
E  P
V 2
3 2. K i n etic e n ergy
 
3 3. w  q V f  Vi  qV
for eq u ipote n ti a l s u rfa ce
V  0
3 4. O R ga te
n2
3 5. rn  r0
Z
If rn  r0
n Z
F or Be
Z = 4
n = 2
12
3 6. I  2A
42
0 F F
3 7. Fav  
2 2
0 F  FI
W  I 
 2  2
2
2r
3 8. VT      g
9
VT  Ag   Ag   l 10.5  1.5
  VT   0.2 = 0.1 m / s
VT  Gold   gold   l 19.5  1.5
3 9. W = (s u rfa ce e n ergy)f – (s u rfa ce e n ergy)i
4 T  5 102    3 102    2
2 2

 
4  0.03  16  10  24

 3.94    10 4
0.394  mJ  0.4  mJ
1
4 0. RP   5 : 4

4 1. F u n d a m e n t a l freq u e n cy of ope n orga n pipe
V 340
f    500 Hz
2l 2  0.34

Pg. 4
4 2.

C M of t h e syste m w h e n t h ey a re a t 1 2 R dist a n ce a p a r t.
M  0  5M  12 R
  10 R
6M
C M of t h e co m bi n ed syste m w h e n t h ey a re i n co n t a ct
M  0  3R  5M
  2.5 R
6M
So, sp h ere o n e m oves = 1 0 R – 2.5 R = 7.5 R
10 2 10 2
4 3.   30
5 R
R  10 
0 2 NiR 2
4 4. B 
4  R 2  X 2 3/ 2
3/2

 

2
BC   R   R 3 
2

 = 8 : 1
BX   R 2   0 2 
 
4 5. A co n d u ctor c a r r yi ng c u r re n t
h 3h h
4 6.  
4  4 3  2
2
6 3
 
4 2
4 7. Q  ms 
 5  103  4.2  80
= 1680K J
4 8. C o n cep t u a l
4 9. C o n cep t u a l
5 0. C o n cep t u a l
C H E MIST RY H INTS & SO LUT ION
5 1. NH 3 is m ore b a sic t h a n P H 3
5 2. I n N H 3 .p . is p rese n t i n sp 3 h y b ridis a ble or bit a l w h ere a s i n P H 3 , A 3 H 3 . S b H 3 .p is
p rese n t i n p u re p or bit a l. H e n ce N H 3 is stro nger box. aga i n st t h e h y d ride of n it roge n
fa m ily.
5 3. Mg
5 4. 24 Cr   Ar  3d 5 4 s1
24 Cr    Ar  3d 3 4 s 0
Tot a l u n p a r a lleled elect ro n s a re 3.
5 5. H C l
5 6.

Pg. 5
5 7. P > Q > R > S
5 8. NaHSO3 is u sed to sep a r a te t h e cr yst a l of a lde h y de fro m k eto n es.

5 9.
6 0. x > y
6 1. 2CuSO4  4 KI  Cu 2 I 2  I 2  2 K 2 SO4
Cu 2  1e   Cu 
ECu  63.5 / 1  63.5
6 2. C 7 H 6O2
7 : 6 : 2 is t h e si m plest r a tio
6 3. I n SN 2 re a ctio n gre a ter t h e le a vi ng gro u p te n de n cy h igh er will be t h e re a ctivity of
h a lides.
 I   Br   Cl   F  (L. G . Te n de n cy)
6 4. IP is i n fl u e n ced b y size of a to m , effective n u cle a r c h a rge a n d elect ro n s p rese n t i n
i n n er s h ell
6 5. 4
6 6. F or ele m e n t a r y re a ctio n , or der = m olec u l a rity
6 7. M agn etic m o m e n t
6 8. C o n cep t u a l
6 9. 1 0 L of O 2 a t S TP fro m 1 L H 2 O 2
10
moles of O2
22.4
2  10
m oles of H 2O2 
22.4
2  10
w t of H 2 O2   34
22.4
7 0. C o n cep t u a l
7 1.

7 2.
Cl

Cl Cl

6Cl2
AlCl3  excess 
A
Cl Cl

Cl
Cl

2 
Cl excess

h 500 K
B Cl Cl

Cl Cl

Cl
Pg. 6
7 3.
O
Z  4  sp 3 
P

O O O

S Z  3  1  4  sp 3 

O O
.
7 4. A ll c a r bo n s a re sp 2 h y b ridised
7 5. C o n cep t u a l
7 6. N i 2 + h a s 3 d 8 co n fig u r a tio n it will for m o u ter or bit a l co m plexes
7 7. B ot h h a ve 6 P – O – P bo n d
7 8. T u r n s red lit m u s to bl u e.
7 9. Low te m p r a t u re, H igh p ress u re
8 0. 2 bo n ds + 2 lo n e p a irs of elect ro n s 4 steric n o.
sp 3
8 1. i n bot h directio n s b u t i n i n eq u a l flow r a tes
8 2. 2 S, 3 R
8 3. A p rotic solve n ts or solve n ts of l a w pol a rity fa vo u r S N 2
8 4. P H 3 < As H 3 < N H 3 (e n t h a lp y of v a poriz a tio n)
1
8 5. B2   1s 2 *1s 2 2s 2 * 2s 2 2 p x2   2 p y B.O  .
2
8 6. R  OH  SOCl2  R  Cl  SO2   HCl
Pyridine

8 7. Pd   Kr  5s 2 , 4df 0 (i n cor rect)

Pd   Kr  5s 0 , 4 f 10 (cor rect)
F or 5s n = 5 l = 0 n + e = 5
F or 4 d n = 4 l = 2 n + e = 6
I n ste a d of 5s elect ro n s goes to 4 d
 N2 H 4 
8 8.  N2 H 4   2,  N2   3  2  1 a n d  H 2   2 u si ng KC 
 N2  H 2 
2

8 9. V it a m i n C is a scor bic a cid

9 0. 9 0 0 m l.
9 1. Q = + 2 0 0 J
W   PV  1  20  10  10 a t m L
 10  101.3 J  1013 J
E  q  W   200  1013 J  813J
9 2. B r F 3 h a s sp 3 d 1 h y b ridis a tio n its geo m et r y is t rigo n a l bip y r a m id a l its s h a pe is B e n t T
s h a ped
9 3. I n C o n for m a tio n s, e n ergy of differe n t co n for m a rs a re c h a nged

Pg. 7
9 4.

2, 8- D i m et h yl-3, 6-dec a die n e

9 5. C o n cep t u a l
9 6. I n depe n de n t of te m per a t u re.
9 7. T f  i.K f .m
T f  i.m
9 8. E  0 & G  0 for a spo n t a n eo u s re a ctio n
9 9.

1 0 0. R  K  A B 
R '  K  A 2B 
R'
2
R .

Pg. 8
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 19.12.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-15 Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
In ever y s u bject:
( a ) In Section – A , 3 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. A n s w er all 3 5 qu estion s from section – A
( b ) In Section – B , 1 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. O ut of w hich A n s w er 1 0 qu estion s onl y .
(c) E ach qu estion c a rries 4 m a r k s. F or e ach correct respon se w ill get 4 m a r k s. F or e ach
incorrect respon se, one m a r k w ill be d e d ucte d from th e tot al scores.
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector, then magnitude of difference is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 1/ 2 4) 5
2. A sail boat sails 2km due East, 5km 370 south of east and finally an unknown displacement. If the final
displacement of the boat from the starting point is 6km due east, determine the third displacement
1) 3km, north 2) 4km, south 3) 5km, east 4) 3km, west
3. A stone tied to the end of a string 100cm long is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If
the stones makes 14 revolutions in 25 sec, what is the acceleration of the stone?
2 2
 88   25   88   25 
1)   ms 2 2)   ms 2 3)   ms 2 4)   ms 2
 25   88   25   88 
4. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the nth power of distance. Then, the time period of
a planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun will be proportional to
1) R n 2) R  n 2  / 2 3) R  n 1 / 2 4) R  n 1 / 2
5. A body of mass 500 g is thrown upwards from the surface of a planet with velocity 20 m/s and reaches
back to the surface of the planet after 20 sec. Then the weight of the body on that planet is
1) 2 N 2) 4 N 3) 5 N 4) 1 N
0
6. The temperature of argon, kept in a vessel, is raised by 1 C at a constant volume. The total heat
suppled to the gas is a combination of translational and rotational energies. Their respective shares are
1) 60% and 40% 2) 40% and 60% 3) 50% and 50% 4) 100%and 0%
7. System shown in figure is in equilibrium and at rest. The spring and string are massless, now the
string is cut. The acceleration of mass 2m and m just after the string is cut will be:

g g
1) upwards, g downwards 2) g upwards, downwards
2 2
3) g upwards, 2g downwards 4) 2g upwards, g downwards

Pg. 1
8. Three identical spheres, each of mass 1kg are kept as shown in figure, touching each other, with their
centres on a straight line. If their centres are marked P, Q, R respectively, the distance of centre of
mass of the system from P is

PQ  PR  QR PQ  PR PQ  QR PR  QR
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 3 3 3
9. A magnet of magnetic moment M is lying in a magnetic field of induction B. W1 is the work done in
turning it from 00 to 600 and W2 is the work done in turning it from 300 to 900. Then
W
1) W2  1 2) W2  2W1 3) W2  W1 4) W2  3W1
2
10. One solid sphere A and another hollow sphere B are of same mass and same outer radii. Their
moments of inertia about their diameters are respectively I A and I B such that
IA dA
1) I A  I B 2) I A  I B 3) I A  I B 4) 
IB dB
11. A particle of mass 0.1 kg is held between two rigid supports by two springs of spring constant 8 N/m
and 2 N/m. If the particle is displaced along the direction of length of the springs, its frequency of
vibration is
5 8 2 1
1) Hz 2) Hz 3) Hz 4) Hz
   
12. The energy stored in an inductor of self-inductance L henry carrying a current of I ampere is
1 1
1) L2 I 2) LI 2 3) LI 2 4) L2 I
2 2
1
13. A Carnot engine operating between temperatures T1 and T2 has efficiency .When T2 is lowered by
6
1
62K its efficiency increases to . T1 and T2 are
3
1) 372K, 310K 2) 372K.330K 3) 330K, 268K 4) 310K, 248K
14. The relation between internal energy U, pressure P and volume V of a gas in an adiabatic process is
U = a + b PV where a and b are constants. The effective value of adiabatic constant γ is
1) a/b 2) (b+1)/b 3) (a+1)/a 4) b/a
15. For most materials the young’s modulus is n times the rigidity modulus, where n is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
16. Water rises in a capillary tube to a height of 2.0 cm. In another capillary tube whose radius is one-third
of it, how much the water will rise?
1) 5 cm 2) 3 cm 3) 6 cm 4) 9 cm
17. Fission of nuclei is possible because the binding energy per nucleon in them
1) Increase with mass number at high mass numbers
2) Decrease with mass number at high mass numbers
3) Increase with mass number t low mass numbers
4) Decrease with mass number at low mass numbers
Pg. 2
 3t 2
18. Power supplied to a particle of mass 2 kg varies with time as P = watt. Here, t is in seconds. If
2
velocity of particle at t = 0 is v = 0, the velocity of particle at time t = 2s will be:
1) 1 m/s 2) 4 m/s 3) 2 m/s 4) 2 2 m / s
19. A tuning fork A produced 4 beats with tuning fork B of frequency 256 Hz. When A is filled beats are
found to occur at shorter intervals. What was its original frequency of tuning fork A?
1) 260 Hz 2) 252 Hz 3) 256 Hz 4) 258 Hz
20. In the circuit below, A and B represent two inputs and C represent the output. The circuit represents

1) OR gate 2) NOR gate 3) AND gate 4) NAND gate

21. The mean translational kinetic energy K of a perfect gas molecule at the temperature T is
1 3
1) k BT 2) kBT 3) k BT 4) 2k BT
2 2
22. Maxwell distribution function is shown in figure for different gases, which of the following is correct
matching?

1) A  Ne, B  O2, C  He 2) A  Ne, B  He, C  O2

3) A  O2, B  He, C  Ne 4) A  O2, B  Ne, C  He
0 0
23. In Young’s double slit experiment, the wavelength of light was changed from 7000 A to 3500 A .
While doubling the separation between the slits, which of the following is not true for this experiment?
1) The width of fringes changes.
2) The colour of bright fringes changes.
3) The separation between successive bright fringes changes.
4) The separation between successive dark fringes remains unchanged.
24. Current through the ideal diode as shown in figure is

1 1
1) Zero 2) 20A 3)A 4) A
20 50
25. Angle between the plane of vibration and plane of polarization is
1) 300 2) 900 3) 600 4) 700
Pg. 3
26. A semicircular arc of radius a is charged uniformly and the charge per unit length is  . The electric
field at its centre is
  2 
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 0 a 2 4 0 a 2 0 a 2 0 a
27. Electric potential at an equatorial point of a small dipole with dipole moment p (r, distance from the
dipole) is
p p 2p
1) 2) 3) Zero 4)
4 0 r 3
4 0 r 2
4 0 r 3
28. An uncharged conductor A is brought near a positively charged conductor B. Then
1) The charge on B will increase, but the potential of B will not change
2) The charge on B will not change, but the potential of B will decrease
3) The charge on B will decrease, but the potential of B will not change
4) The charge on B will not change, but the potential of B will increase
29. Six resistors each of 10 are connected as shown. The equivalent resistance between points X and Y
is

25
1) 20 2) 5 3)  4) 10
3
30. In the circuit shown below, the power developed in the 6  resistor is 6 watt. The power in watts
developed in the 4  resistor is

1) 16 2) 9 3) 6 4) 4
31. Column - I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic conductor.
Column - II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities.
Match Column - I and Column - II with appropriate relations.
Column-I Column-II
m
A) Drift velocity P) 2
ne 
B) Electrical Resistivity Q) nevd
eE
C) Relaxation period R) 
m
E
D) Current density S)
J
1) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P 2) A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q
3) A-R, B-Q, C-S, D-P 4) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q

Pg. 4
 
32. An arc of a circle of radius R subtends an angle at the centre. It carries a current I. The magnetic
2
field at the centre will be
I I I 2 0 I
1) 0 2) 0 3) 0 4)
2R 8R 4R 5R
33. An electron is revolving around a proton in a circular path of diameter 0.1nm. It produces a magnetic
field 14 tesla at a proton. Then the angular speed of the electron is
1) 8.8 1016 rad s 1 2) 4.4 1016 rad s 1 3) 2.2 1016 rad s 1 4) 1.11016 rad s 1
34. Proton and   particle projected perpendicularly in a magnetic field, if both move in a circular path
with same speed. Then ratio of their radii is
1) 1:2 2) 2:1 3) 1:4 4) 1:1
35. Two wires of same length are shaped into a square and a circle. If they carry same current, ratio of
magnetic moment is
1) 2 :  2)  : 2 3)  : 4 4) 4 : 
SECTION-B
36. A particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle of radius r under a centripetal force F = -K/r2,
where K is a constant. The total energy of the particle is
1) K/2r 2) -K/2r 3) -K/r 4) K/r
37. The flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given by   10t  50t  250. Then induced emf at
2

t=3sec is
1) -10 V 2) 0 V 3) 190 V 4) -190 V
38. Two identical coaxial coils P and Q carrying equal amount of current in the same direction are brought
nearer. The current in
1) P increases while in Q decreases 2) Q increases while in P decreases
3) Both P and Q increases 4) Both P and Q decreases
39. An open tube is in resonance with string (frequency of vibration of tube is n0). If tube is dipped in
water so that 75% of length of tube is inside water, then the ratio of the frequency of tube to string now
will be
2 3
1) 1 2) 2 3) 4)
3 2
40. The ratio of the speed of the electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom to the speed of light in
vacuum is
1 2 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 237 137 237
41. The total energy of a hydrogen atom in its ground state is -13.6 eV. If the potential energy in the first
excited state is taken as zero then the total energy in the ground state will be
1) -3.4 eV 2) 3.4 eV 3) -6.8 eV 4) 6.8 eV
42. The natural boron of atomic weight 10.81 is found to have two isotopes B10 and B11. The ratio of
abundance of isotopes in natural boron should be
1) 11:10 2) 81:19 3) 10:11 4) 19:81
43. The surface energy of a liquid drop is U. It is splitted into 1000 equal droplets. Then its surface energy
becomes
1) U 2) 10 U 3) 100 U 4) 1000 U
235
44. The energy released in the fission of 1 kg of 92 U is (Energy per fission = 200 MeV)
1) 5.11026 eV 2) 5.11026 J 3) 8.2 1013 J 4) 8.2 1013 MeV

Pg. 5
45. If the focal length of objective and eye lens are 1.2 cm and 3 cm respectively and the object is put
1.25 cm away from the objective lens and the final image is formed at infinity. The magnifying power
of the microscope is
1) 150 2) 200 3) 250 4) 400
46. Light of wavelength  is incident on a slit of width d. The resulting diffraction pattern is observed on
a screen at a distance D. The linear width of the principal maximum is equal to the width of the slit, if
D equals
d2 d 2 2 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2  d d
47. A ray of light is incident at the glass-water interface at an angle i. It emerges finally parallel to the
surface of water. Then the value of  g would be

1) (4/3) sin i 2) 1 / sin i 3) 4/3 4) 1

48. Ge and Si diodes conduct at 0.3 V and 0.7 V respectively. In the following figure if Ge diode
connection is reversed, the value of V0 changes by

1) 0.2V 2) 0.4V 3) 0.6V 4) 0.8V

49. The springs shown are identical. When A=4kg, the elongation of spring is 1cm. if B=6kg, the
elongation produced by it is

1) 4cm 2) 3cm 3) 2cm 4) 1cm

50. A linear charge having linear charge density λ penetrates a cube diagonally and then it penetrates a
sphere diametrically as shown. What will be the ratio of the flux coming out of the cube and the
sphere?

1) 1/2 2) 2 / 3 3) 3/2 4) 1
Pg. 6
 CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. Match the following:
List-I (Salt) List – II (Colour)
A) Mn-Salt P) Pale green
B) Fe-Salt Q) Blue
C) Cu-Salt R) Pale pink
D) Ca-Salt S) White
A B C D A B C D
1) P Q R S 2) R P Q S
3) S R P Q 4) R Q S P
52. Which is the correct thermal stability order for H2E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)
1) H2S < H2O < H2Se < H2Po 2) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te > H2Po
3) H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O 4) H2Se < H2Te < H2Po < H2O < H2S
53. Which of the following is incorrect statement?
1) DNA does not contain Uracil 2) RNA does not contain Thymine
3) Sucrose is non-reducing sugar 4) Lactose and maltose are non-reducing sugars
3 2
54. Assertion: Fe is more stable than Fe
Reason: Ce, Hf are d-block elements
1) A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2) A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true, R is false
4) Both A and R are false
55. C2 H 5 Br 
AlcKOH
 A 
1% Cold Alk KMnO4
 B, B is
1) Ethanal 2) Glyoxal 3) Ethylene 4) Ethyleneglycol
56. If 800 ml of mixture of O2 and O3 weighs 1.5 gram at NTP, what is the mole fraction of ozone in the
mixture at NTP?
1) 0.534 2) 0.465 3) 0.625 4) 0.785
57. RMgX  A
 RH , here 'A' can be
1) CH 3OH 2) H 2O 3) C2 H 5 NH 2 4) all
58. Rate constant (k) for a zero-order reaction is 4  10-2 mol L-1 sec-1. If the concentration of reactant
after 30 sec is 0.6 M, initial concentration must have been
1) 1.25 M 2) 12.5M 3) 18.0M 4) 1.8M
59. The number of atoms of aluminum deposited by 10A current in 96.5 s is nearly
1) 6  1021 2) 6  10 3) 2  1021 4) 2  1020
60. 1.4 g of an organic compound was digested in kjeldahl’s method. The ammonia evolved is passed
through 30 ml of M/5 H2SO4. The left-over acid required 30ml of M/15 NaOH. The percentage of
nitrogen in the compound is
1) 4% 2) 6% 3) 8% 4) 10%
61. How many aromatic isomers of C8H10 on oxidation with KMnO4 gives benzoic acid under suitable
conditions
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
62. Calculate degree of ionization of Ca(NO3)2 in a solution containing 1.23g Ca(NO3)2 in 10g of water
boiling at 100.9750C. (Kb = 0.52 K Kg mol – 1)
1) 50% 2) 75% 3) 25% 4) 66%

Pg. 7
63. Which of the following is the electronic configuration of Cm (Z = 96)
1) [Xe] 4f75d16s2 2) [Rn] 4f7 5d1 6s2 3) [Rn] 5f7 6d1 7s2 4) [Rn] 5f7 7s2
64. Hybridisation of Ni in [Ni(CN)4]2-
1) Sp3 2) SP3d 3) SP3 d2 4) dSP2
65. S-I: Fac and mer isomers of [Co(NO2)3(NH3)3] are optically inactive
S-II: Both have asymmetry
1) S-I is true and S-II is false 2) Both S-I and S-II are true
3) Both S-I and S-II are false 4) S-I is false and S-II is true
66. pH of 0.2 M monobasic acid measured to be 2. Its osmotic pressure at a given temperature ‘T’
Kelvin.
1)   0.21RT 2)   0.51RT 3)   0.71RT 4)   0.91RT
67. If 6  10-3 mole of K2Cr2O7 reacts completely with 9  10-3 mole of Xn+ to give XO3 and Cr3+, then the
value of n is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 5
68. Select the correct match:
1) PF3 < PCl3 < PBr3 – bond angle 2) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 – Basic nature
3) N2O3 > P2O3 > As2O3 – acidic character 4) All the above

69. 4 FeS 2  11O2   2 Fe2O3  8SO2 , In this reaction the elements oxidised are
1) S, O 2) Fe, S 3) S only 4) Fe, O
70. To make a solution of pH = 12 amount of NaOH dissolved in one litre of the solution should be
1) 0.1gm 2) 0.2gm 3) 0.4gm 4) 1.2gm
71. The heat of solution of anhydrous CuSO4 is -66.5 kJ and that of CuSO4.5H2O is 11.7 kJ. Calculate
the heat of hydration of CuSO4.
1) 77.2 kJ 2) 78.2 kJ 3) 88.2 kJ 4)  66.5 kJ
72. The number of sigma bonds & pi-bonds in XeO4 are
1) 3,4 2) 4,4 3) 4,3 4) 3,3
73. Which pair of compounds cannot exit together in aqueous solution
1) NaHSO3 + NaOH 2) NaHCO3 + NaOH 3) Na2HPO4 + NaOH 4) All of these
74. Hybridisation of B in BCl3 is
1) SP 2) SP2 3) SP3 4) SP3d
75. Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of nucleophilic addition reaction:

1) II> IV> III> I 2) I> II> III> IV 3) IV> III> II> I 4) II> III> IV> I
76. The reaction of C6H5CH = CHCHO with NaBH4 gives
1) C6H5CH2CH2CH2OH 2) C6H5CH = CHCH2OH
3) C6H5CH2CH2CHO 4) C6H5CH2CHOHCH3
77. Which of the following ligand is not a chelating agent?
1) EDTA 2) en 3) Oxalato 4) Pyridine
78. The IUPAC name of the Wilkinson’s catalyst [ RhCl  P Ph3 3 ] is
1) Chlorido tris (triphenylphosphine) rhodium (I)
2) Chlorido tris (triphenylphosphine) rhodium (IV)
3) Chlorido tris (triphenylphosphine) rhodium (0)
4) Chlorido tris (triphenylphosphine) rhodium (VI)
Pg. 8
 
79. Phenol  NaOH
 A 
CO2 , H3O
 B , In this reaction ‘B’ is
1) Benzoic acid 2) O-Salicylaldehyde
3) P- Salicylaldehyde 4) O-Salicylic acid
80. Hydrolysis of ester in acidic medium follows the order
CH 3COOC2 H 5  H 2O  CH 3COOH  C2 H 5OH
1) Zero order 2) First order 3) Second order 4) Third order

81.

Here A, B respectively are

1) 2)

3) 4)

82. For a reaction 2 NOCl g   2 NO g   Cl2 g  , K C at 4270C is 3  106 L mol– 1, The value of KP is nearly
1) 7.5  105 2) 2.5  10 5 3) 2.5  10 4 4) 1.7  104
83. Match the following for the following reaction H 2O  l   H 2O  s 
Column I (Temp) Column II (G)
1) 10C a) Ve
2) -10C b) Ve
3) 0C c) 0
1) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c 2) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c 3) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a 4) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b
84. K2HgI4 is 40% ionised in aqueous solution. The value of its van’t Hoff factor (i) is
1) 1.6 2) 1.8 3) 2.2 4) 2.0
 
85. E for F2  2e  2F is 2.8V , E for 1/ 2 F2  e  F is :
0 0

1) 2.8V 2) 1.4V 3) -2.8V 4) -1.4V

SECTION-B
86. Conductivity is maximum for
1) Li+(aq) 2) Na+(aq) 3) K+(aq) 4) Cs  (aq)
87. Identify ‘B’ in the given reaction below:

1) 2) 3) 4)

Pg. 9
88. Dry heating of 6.2g Cx(H2O)y produces 2.48g carbon. The empirical formula of compound is
1) CH2O 2) CH4O2 3) C2H2O 4) C3H4O2
89. Which of the following is more acidic
1) C6H5OH 2) CH3COOH 3) CH3OH 4) C2H2
90. If EFe2 Fe  x1V , EFe3 / Fe2  x2V , what is the value of EFe3 / Fe
0 0 0

2 x1  x2 2x  x 2x  x
1) 2) 1 2 3) 1 2 4) 2x1  x2
4 3 2
91. What are the oxidation states of two N-atoms in NH4NO3
1) +1, -1 2) -3, +3 3) +5, +3 4) -3, +5
92. S-I: SeCl4 does not have a tetrahedral structure
S-II: Se in SeCl4 has two lone pairs
1) S-I is correct but S-II is wrong
2) S-I is wrong but S-II is correct
3) Both S-I and S-II are correct and S-II is correct explanation of S-I
4) Both S-I and S-II are correct but S-II is not correct explanation of S-I
93. Reduction potentials of some ions are given below. Arrange them in decreasing order of oxidising
power
Ion ClO4 BrO4 IO4
Reduction potential E 0 / V E0=1.19V E0=1.74V E0=1.65V
1) ClO4  IO4  BrO4 2) IO4  BrO4  ClO4
3) BrO4  IO4  ClO4 4) BrO4  ClO4  IO4
94. Which of the following is correct for given configuration?

1) 2S, 3S 2) 2S, 3R 3) 2R, 3S 4) 2R, 3R

95. De-broglie wave length of a photo electron is related to  and 0 as
2
1 1  1 
1)   2)   3)     0 4)    
  0   0    0 
96. Frequency of radiation of wavelength  =60000 A
1) 2x1014 2) 2x 1015 3) 5x 1015 4) 5x 1014
97. Which of the following will undergo fastest dehydration?

1) 2) 3) 4)

98. Number of nodal planes for 3d z 2

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 0
99. Which of the following have ionic, covalent and dative bonds
i) NH4Cl ii) K4[Fe(CN)6] iii) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4
1) i, ii only 2) ii, iii only 3) i only 4) i, ii, iii
Pg. 10
100. Select the correct statement:
1) C2 has bond order 2, both these are   bonds
2) In B2 there exists a weak single   bond
3)  2P x and  2P y have only one nodal plane each while  2* px and  2* py have two nodal planes each
4) All the above
BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. In which plants the leaflets are attached at a common point i.e. at the tip of petiole
1) Nerium 2) Neem 3) Calotropis 4) Silk cotton
102. “Cells of liver enter into an inactive stage in which cells no longer proliferate”
The above description is about a cell present in
1) M-phase 2) G0 phase 3) S-phase 4) G2 phase
103. How many of the below listed plants have free living gametophytes?
Marchantia, Ulothrix, Cycas, Sphagnum, Adiantum, Gingko, Polytrichum, Pinus, Funaria.
1) Four 2) Six 3) Five 4) Eight
104. In angiosperms, free nuclear divisions occur in
1) Megaspore 2) Primary endosperm
3) Zygote 4) Both (1) and (2)
105. A replication fork is shown in the figure. Identify the template DNA.

1) A only 2) B only 3) C only 4) Both A and B

106. Select out the odd one with respect to type of nutrition:
1) Bladder wort 2) Venus fly trap 3) Pitcher plant 4) Cuscuta
107. Read the following statements and state (T) and false (F)
A) Mendel experimented on 14 true breeding pea plant varieties
B) Mendel conducted hybridization experiments on garden pea from 1856 to 1863
C) All genes for seven characters studied by Mendel were located on same chromosomes
D) Mendel’s work on inheritance of characters were rediscovered 1900
1) A-T, B-T, C-T, D-F 2) A-F, B-F, C-F, D-T
3) A-T, B-T, C-F, D-T 4) A-F, B-T, C-F, D-T
108. Water splitting in photosynthesis is associated with
1) Plastoquinone 2) PS I 3) Plastocyanin 4) PS II
109. CryIAb gene is responsible for controlling of
1) Bollworm 2) Round worm 3) corn borer 4) fruitfly
110. Sigma factor is associated with _____ during _____
1) RNA Polymerase, Termination of transcription
2) DNA Polymerase, Replication
3) RNA Polymerase, Initiation of transcription
4) RNA Polymerase, Elongation of transcription
Pg. 11
111. is the floral formula of
1) Sesbania 2) Petunia 3) Brassica 4) Allium
112. Identify the following cell organelles
Statement (P): Cell organelle in an organelle
Statement (S): Cell organelle containing another cell organelle
Statement (R): Cell organelle divide by fission

P S R
1) Ribosome Chloroplast Lysosome
2) Chloroplast Ribosome Chloroplast
3) Mitochondria Ribosome Mitochondria
4) Ribosome Chloroplast Mitochondria
113. The catalytic efficiency of two enzymes can be compared by
1) Vmax 2) Km 3) Activation energy 4) Transition state
114. Match the following:
List-I List-II
A) Toxin I) Vinblastin
B) Drugs II) Abrin, Ricin
C) Polymeric substances III) Rubber, Cellulose
D) Essential oils IV) Lemon grass oil
The correct match is:
A B C D A B C D
1) I II III IV 2) II I IV III
3) II I III IV 4) I IV II III
115. “Self-replicating, evolving and self-regulating interactive systems capable of responding to external
stimulus”. The above statement is applicable to
1) Plants only 2) Animals only 3) Humans only 4) All living organisms
116. Read the following statements (A – E) and answer the question following them:
A. In DNA, adenine is connected to uracil by two hydrogen bonds
B. The diploid content of human DNA is 6.6x109 bp
C. Reverse transcription is observed in some bacteria
D. Pitch of DNA helix is 0.34 nm
E. Cytosine is a nucleotide
How many of the above statements are false?
1) Four 2) Two 3) Three 4) One
117. Which of the following is the source of complementary strand in m-RNA silencing?
1) An infection by viruses having RNA genome
2) Mobile genetic elements (Transposons)
3) Both (1) and (2)
4) Proteins
118. How many of the following statements are correct with respect to prophase:
A) Chromosome condensation B) Movement of centrioles to opposite poles
C) Nucleolus disappear D) Spindle fibres start appearing
E) Nuclear envelope disappears
1) 2 2) 4 3) 5 4) 3
Pg. 12
119. Match the following:
Column-I Column-II
A. Elongated tubelike cells with tapering ends I. Xylem parenchyma cells
B. Living cells with thin cellulosic cell wall II. Xylem fibres
C. Septate or aseptate cells with obliterated lumen III. Tracheids
D. Secondary phloem fibres IV. Bast fibres
Choose the correct option:
1) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II 2) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
3) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II 4) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
120. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy in cattle is caused by
1) A free RNA molecule 2) Abnormally folded protein
3) Acellular agent having DNA and protein 4) Symbiotic organisms, lichens
121. S-I: Photorespiration does not occur in C4 plants
S-II: In C4 plants there is a mechanism that increase the O2 at the enzyme site
1) Both S-I and S-II are correct 2) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
3) S-I is correct and S-II is incorrect 4) S-I is incorrect and S-II is correct
122. Primers are attached at _____ of the DNA template in a PCR
1) 5' end 2) 3' end 3) 2' OH group 4) Any end
123. Present atmospheric CO2 concentration is limiting to
1) C3 plants like – Tomato and bell pepper
2) C3 plants like – Sorghum
3) C4 plants like – Maize
4) C4 plants like – Sorghum, Sugarcane
124. Assertion (A): Double fertilization is observed in angiosperms but not in gymnosperms
Reason (R): In gymnosperms, haploid endosperm is formed before fertilization whereas in
angiosperms it is a product of triple fusion
1) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'.
2) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is not the correct explanation of 'A'
3) 'A' is true and 'R' is false
4) 'A' is false and 'R' is false
125. Chromosome with two chromatids move towards poles during
1) Anaphase 2) Anaphase-I 3) Anaphase-II 4) Metaphase-I
126. Identify the incorrect regarding pBR322:
1) rop region contains recognition site for Pvu I
2) Selectable markers are ampR and tetR
3) Sal I recognition site is present in tetR region
4) rop is involved in proteins necessary for replication of plasmid
127. Study the following and identify the option having haploid meiospores
1) Aplanospore, Sporangiospores, Oospores
2) Ascospore, Zygospore, Oospore
3) Basidiospores, Ascospores
4) Conidia, Zoospores, Ascospores
128. In a marriage between male ‘A’ blood group ( IAi ) and female with ‘B’ blood group (( IBi ) ) , then
what could be blood groups in progeny ?
I) A II) B III) AB IV) O
1) I, II only 2) I, III only 3) II, IV only 4) I, II, III, IV
129. Conjoint vascular bundles are not seen in
1) Dicot leaf 2) Monocot leaf 3) Dicot stem 4) Monocot root
Pg. 13
130. Match the following:
List-I List-II
A) Cytoskeleton I) Lipid synthesis
B) Ribosomes II) Protein synthesis
C) Lysosomes III) Digesting biomolecules
D) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum IV) Mechanical support
The correct match is :
A B C D A B C D
1) II I III IV 2) III II I IV
3) IV II III I 4) I II III IV
131. The map distance between A and C = 30 cM, B and C = 20 cM, A and B is 50 cM, B and D = 10 cM
C and D = 30 cM. What is the arrangement of ABCD gene on chromosome?
1) ABCD 2) ACBD 3) BACD 4) CABD
132. Read the following:
Intrafascicular cambium, vascular cambium of dicot root, interfascicular cambium, cork cambium,
apical meristem.
How many of the above meristems are formed by dedifferentiation?
1) 5 2) 4 3) 3 4) 2
133. Which of the following is not a mobile carrier of electron transport chain?
1) Plastoquinone 2) Ubiquinone 3) Plastocyanin 4) Cytochrome b
134. Character not related to wind pollinated flowers is
1) Pollen is light in weight 2) Pollen grains are non-sticky
3) Numerous ovules in each ovary 4) Stamens are exerted
135. Observe the base sequence given below:
C C A C AA G T T G A C C G A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Which of the following will not lead to frame shift mutation?
1) Insertion of the base ‘G’ after 5th base
2) Deletion of the 5th base
3) Deletion of 4th and 5th base together
4) Deletion of 7th, 8th and 9th base together
SECTION - B
136. In which of the following member, the ovary is one chambered and two rows of ovules are attached
to the ventral suture?
1) Mustard 2) Hibiscus 3) Pisum 4) Allium
137. Choose the incorrect statements from the following:
I. Function of GLUT-4 is to enable glucose transport into the cells.
II. Neural tissues have lipids with more complex structure.
III. Lipids are strictly macromolecules.
IV. Metabolic pathways of a living system crisscross each other.
V. Bioenergetics deals with how and in which direction the metabolites flows in a metabolic
pathway. 1) II, III, IVand V only 2) IV and V only
3) I, III, IVandV only 4) III and V only
138. In aerobic respiration, presence of this molecule is vital as it drives the whole process of ETS by
removing hydrogen from the system?
1) NAD+ 2) FAD+
3) O2 4) NADH+H+ and FADH+H+

Pg. 14
139. Match the following lists:
List-I List-II
A) Achenes i) Dry fruits
B) Asteraceae ii) Polyembryony
C) Mustard iii) Strawberry
D) Mango iv) Apomixis
The correct match is:
1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv 2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i 4) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
140. Statement (A): A sparged stirred tank bioreactor has more surface area for oxygen transfer.
Statement (B): Downstream processing and quality control testing remain same for all kinds of
products.
1) Both A and B are correct 2) Both A and B are false
3) A is true but B is false. 4) A is false but B is true
141. Identify the mis-match with respect to physiological effects of phytohormones:
1) Xylem differentiation – Auxin 2) Adventitious root growth – Cytokinins
3) Sprouting of potato tuber – Ethylene 4) Bolting in cabbage – Gibberellins
142. Assertion (A): Statins produced by Monascus purpureus have been commercialized as blood-
cholesterol lowering agents
Reason (R): Statins competitively inhibit the enzymes responsible for synthesis of cholesterol
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
143. Read the statement:
“He postulated the presence of adaptor molecule that would on one hand read the code and on other
hand would bind to specific amino acid.” Who is the scientist & adaptor molecule?
1) Holley & t-RNA 2) Nirenberg & m-RNA
3) Crick & t-RNA 4) Crick & m-RNA
144. Identify the mis-matched pair w.r.t. algae:
1) Volvox – Non-motile female gamete 2) Chlamydomonas – Unicellular algae
3) Fucus – Floridean starch 4) Sargassum – Biflagellate zoospore
145. ‘Each gamete is pure for a trait’, given statement explains
1) Law of segregation 2) Law of dominance
3) Law of independent assortment 4) Linkage
146. Which of the following is correct for the diagram of lac – operon shown below?

1) This occurs in the absence of repressor protein

2) This occurs in the absence of inducer
3) This occurs in the presence of lactose
4) This occurs both in the presence and absence of inducer

Pg. 15
147. Dumb bell-shaped cells present in both abaxial and adaxial epidermis of grass leaves regulating
stomatal movement are
1) Bulliform cells 2) Guard cells
3) Subsidiary cells 4) Mesophyll cells
148. The chromatin fibres contain
I) DNA II) Histones III) RNA IV) Non-histone proteins
1) I, II only 2) I, II, III only 3) II, III only 4) I, II, III, IV
149. The products of light reactions on which dark reaction of photosynthesis depends are
1) ATP and NADPH 2) ATP and O2 3) CO2 and O2 4) O2 and NADPH
150. Modified stem meant for perennation, vegetative reproduction and storage of food materials is seen
in
1) Opuntia 2) Colocasia 3) Bougainvillea 4) grapevine
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. Match the following
List – I List-II
A) Pila I. Placoid scales
B) Physalia II. Four pairs of gills
C) Petromyzon III. Circular mouth
D) Pterophyllum IV. Cnidocytes
E) Pristis V. Radula
The correct match is:
A B C D E A B C D E
1) V IV III I II 2) V IV II III I
3) V IV III II I 4) IV V III II I
152. Identify the animals in the given figures A, B, C and D and choose the correct option.

A B C D

A B C D

1) Fish with clasper Reptile with 4 Bird with air sacs Mammal without
chambered heart mammary glands
2) Fish with Reptile with external Bird without scales Mammal with 3
operculum ear opening chambered heart
3) Fish with air Reptile with 4 Feathered Oviparous mammal
bladder chambered heart homeotherm
4) Bony fish Lizard with dry skin Bipedal Homeotherm Viviparous mammal

153. In cockroach hind wings are

1) Called tegmina 2) Transparent
3) Dark and leathery 4) Meso thoracic in position

Pg. 16
154. Identify the following pictures and choose the correct option

A B
1) a. unicellular glandular epithelium like salivary glands
b. multicellular glandular epithelium like goblet cells of alimentary canal
2) a. multicellular glandular epithelium like goblet cells of alimentary canal
b. unicellular glandular epithelium like adrenal glands
3) a. multicellular glandular epithelium like salivary glands
b. unicellular glandular epithelium like goblet cells of alimentary canal
4) a. unicellular glandular epithelium like goblet cells of alimentary canal
b. multicellular glandular epithelium like mammary glands
155. Read the following statements
I) Adipose tissue is a loose fibrous connective tissue
II) The inter cellular material of cartilage is solid and pliable
III) Cuboidal epithelium is composed of a single layer of tall and slender cells with nuclei at the base
of cells
IV) Cardiac muscle fibers taper at both ends and do not show striations
Which of the above statement(s) is (are) correct
1) II only 2) I and II 3) IV only 4) III and IV
156. Assertion (A): Vasopressin is called as anti diuretic hormone
Reason (R): ADH acts mainly at the kidney and stimulates resorption of water and electrolytes by
the distal tubules and there by increases loss of water through urine
1) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are correct and ‘R’ is correct explanation to ‘A’
2) Only ‘A’ is correct but ‘R’ is incorrect
3) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are correct and ‘R’ is not correct explanation to ‘A’
4) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are incorrect
157. Given below is the incomplete table about certain hormones. Select the option that correctly fills the
blanks A, B and C
Gland Secretion Effect on body
A Thymosin Major role in immunity
Pineal gland B Regulation of diurnal rhythms
Adrenal cortex C Anti-inflammatory reactions
A B C
1 Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin
2 Thymus Melatonin Cortisol
3 Placenta Insulin Vasopressin
4 Ovary FSH Calcitonin
158. Read the statements given below
I. Aquatic insects are ammonotelic
II. Land snails excretes uric acid
III. Many bony fishes are ureotelic
IV. On average 1100-1200 liters of blood is filtered by the kidneys per minute
How many statements are true?
1) Four 2) Three 3) Two 4) One
Pg. 17
159. Unlike the electrical synapses, in chemical synapse
1) The membranes of pre synaptic and post synaptic neurons are in close proximity
2) Transmission of impulse is faster
3) Pre synaptic neuron does not release neurotransmitter
4) Synaptic cleft is present
160. The glandular layer of uterine wall is
1) Perimetrium 2) Endometrium 3) Mesometrium 4) Myometrium
161. The number of autosomes in human primary spermatocyte is
1) 44 2) 23 3) 22 4) 46
162. Select the incorrect statement from the following
1) MTPs are relatively safe during the first trimester
2) All sexually transmitted diseases are not completely curable
3) Hormone releasing IUDs make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to
sperms
4) Lactational amenorrhea is effective only up to a maximum period of six weeks following
Parturition
163. In ART, zygote or an early embryo (up to 8 blastomeres) is transferred into fallopian tube. The
technique is X and fertilization in this method is Y
Choose the correct option with regard to ‘X’ and ‘Y’
X Y
1) GIFT In Vivo
2) ZIFT In Vitro
3) ICSI In Vivo
4) IUT In Vitro
164. Study the following features
A. Furrowed tongue B. Gynaecomastia
C. Small round head D. Overall masculine development
E. Palm is broad with characteristic palm crease
F. Partially opened mouth
Which among the above are the characteristics of Down’s syndrome
1) A, C, E and F only 2) A, B, C and F only
3) B, C, D, E and F only 4) B and D only
165. About ________ the dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth
1) 56 bya 2) 65 bya 3) 65 mya 4) 56 mya
166. Find the correct match / matches from the following table
Column-I Column – II Column - III
I Tendrils of cucurbita and thorns of Homologous Divergent evolution
Bougainvillea structures
II Vertebrate hearts Homologous Divergent evolution
structures
III Sweet potato and potato Analogy Convergent evolution
IV Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins Analogous structures Convergent evolution
1) I, III only 2) I, II and III only 3) II, III and IV only 4) All
167. ‘Smack’ is
1) Coca alkaloid
2) Interferes with the transport of the neuro-transmitter dopamine
3) a cannabinoid
4) White, odour less, bitter crystalline compound
Pg. 18
168. The Indian government organization that make decisions regarding the validity of GM research and
the safety of introducing GM – organisms for public services is
1) ICAR 2) GEAC 3) IUCN 4) Biosafety committee
169. Find the correct statements
1) The number fungi species in the world is less than the combined total of species of fishes,
amphibians, reptiles and mammals
2) Species diversity increases as we move away from the equator towards the poles
3) Western Ghats have a greater amphibian species diversity than Eastern Ghats
4) Dodo is an extinct species of tiger in Mauritius
170. Identify the correctly matched pairs
i. Trichophyton – Round worm
ii. Secondary response – anamnestic response
iii. Sporozoite – infective stage of plasmodium to mosquito
iv. Adrenalin – reduce the symptoms of allergy
1) i and iv only 2) ii and iii only 3) i and ii only 4) ii and iv only
171. Find the correct statement
1) Energy that is trapped into an organism remains in it for ever
2) In terrestrial ecosystem grazing food chain is the major conduit for the energy flow
3) In aquatic ecosystem a large fraction of energy flows through detritus food chain
4) All organisms are depended for their food on producers either directly or indirectly
172. Study the given graph of oxygen dissociation curve and select the correct option regarding it

1) Part ‘A’ represents haemoglobin saturation

2) High pO2, low pCO2, more H+ and low PH concentration shifts the curve to the left side
3) High H+ concentration and high temperature favors formation of oxyhaemoglobin
4) part – B is percentage saturation of Haemoglobin with oxygen
173. Identify the correct from the following
1) Broadly utilitarian argument – economic benefits from biodiversity
2) Narrowly utilitarian argument – aesthetic pleasure from nature
3) Ethical argument – moral duty to take care of biodiversity
4) Both (1) and (2)
174. Select the correct combination with regarding to human disorders
1) Tetany – rapid spasms in the muscle due to high ca++ in body fluid
2) Gout – inflammation of joints due to accumulation of urea crystals
3) Atherosclerosis – Caronary artery disease
4) Addisson’s disease – Auto immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to paralysis
of skeletal bones

Pg. 19
175. Given below is the figure of right pectoral girdle and upper arm.

Select the correct option regarding above figure:

1) ‘A’ has two curvature and with acetabulum
2) ‘D’ and ‘E’ are the wrist bones
3) ‘B’ has slightly elevated ridge
4) ‘C’ is the component of axial skeleton
176. Read the following
a) Gene migration b) Genetic drift c) Mutation d) Gene flow
e) Genetic recombinations f) Natural selection
How many of the above factors are known to affect Hardy – Weinberg equilibrium?
1) Six 2) Five 3) Four 4) Three
177. ‘Malignant malaria’ is caused by
1) Plasmodium ovale 2) Plasmodium vivax
3) Plasmodium falciparum 4) Plasmodium malariae
178. Read the following equations pertaining to blood clotting
A B
A) Prothrombin   Thrombin B) Fibrinogen   Fibrin
In above equations A & B respectively are
1) Thrombokinase & Thrombin 2) Thrombin & Thrombokinase
3) Rennin & Prothrombinase 4) Rennin & Renin
179. Statement – I: Pneumotaxic center can alters rate of breathing
Statement – II: We have the ability to increase the strength of inspiration & expiration with the help
of additional muscles in the abdomen
1) Both statement -1 and statement – II are true.
2) Statement – 1 is true but statement – II is false
3) Both Statement –I and Statement – II are false
4) Statement – I is false but Statement – II is true
180. Which of the following part of the brain is a major coordinating center for sensory & motor signaling
1) Thalamus 2) Medulla 3) Cerebellum 4) Hypothalamus
181. XO- type of sex determination is seen in
1) Corvus 2) Drosophila 3) Honey bee 4) Grass hopper

Pg. 20
182. Match the following
List – I List – II
A) Areolar tissue I) Non pliable specialized connective tissue
B) Tendon II) Beneath the skin
C) Squamous epithelium III) Between skeletal muscle and bone
D) Cartilage IV) Wall of blood vessel
V) Tip of the nose
The correct combination is:
A B C D A B C D
1) I V III IV 2) IV II I V
3) II III IV V 4) V IV III II
183. Un myelinated nerve fibres are found in
1) Cranial nerves 2) Spinal nerves
3) Somatic neural system 4) Both (1) and (2)
184. Read the following
I. Detritivores breakdown the detritus into smaller particles
II. Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels is called stratification
III. Decomposition is largely an oxygen requiring process
The correct statement (s) is (are)
1) I only 2) II & III only 3) II only 4) I, II & III
185. Identify the mismatch from the following related to major features of human embryonic
development
1) 1st movement – 5th month
2) Hair on the body – end of 14th week
3) 1st sign of foetal growth – 1st month
4) External genitalia – end of 12th week
SECTION-B
186. Study the following statements
A) Asterias and Apis are monoecious
B) Limulus is a living fossil
C) In molluscs gill have respiratory and excretory functions
D) In hemichordata an excretory system is absent
How many of the above statements are correct?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
187. The sclerite that is common in the genital pouch of both male and female cockroaches
1) 7th sternal plate 2) 8th sternal plate 3) 9th sternal plate 4) 9th tergal plate
188. Pick out the incorrect statement
1) White muscle fibers possess low amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum
2) Content of myoglobin is high in red muscle fibers
3) Red muscle fibers have many mitochondria
4) White muscle fibers possess less number of Mitochondria
189. Correct order of action of Protein hormones
I) Hormones interact with membrane bound receptor
II) Physiological response
III) Biochemical response
IV) Generation of secondary messenger
Choose the correct option
1) I, II, III and IV 2) II, I, III and IV 3) III, I, II, and IV 4) I, IV, III and II

Pg. 21
190. If for some reason, the rete testis in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not
be transported from
1) Seminiferous tubules to vasa efferentia 2) Vasa efferentia to vas deferens
3) Epididymis to vas deferens 4) Vas deferens to epididymis
191. Which of the following is a copper releasing IUD
1) Lippes loop 2) Multiload 375 3) Progestasert 4) LNG-20
192. For a autosomal recessive gene find the genotypes of father and mother in the given pedigree chart

Father Mother
1) Aa Aa
2) A A aa
3) A a aa
4) a a AA
193. Find the incorrect statement related to evolution
1) Resistant organisms/cells are appearing in a time scale of months or years and not centuries
2) Evolution is a stochastic process based on chance mutation in the organism
3) Evolution is a directed process in the sense of determinism
4) Man could create new breeds within hundreds of years through intensive breeding programme
194. Identify the correct match
1) Physical barrier – Acquired immunity
2) Primary lymphoid organs – Spleen, Thymus
3) Cell mediated immunity - B lymphocytes
4) Non specific immunity – At the time of birth
195. Select the one pair which is separated from other three sets with respect to animal associations
1) Barnacle on whale 2) Clown fish & Sea anemone
3) Wasp and fig tree 4) Cattle egret & Grazing cattle
196. Statement –I: Primary productivity depends on the plant species inhabiting a particular area.
Statement – II: Gross primary productivity is the rate of formation of new organic matter by
consumers
1) Both statement -1 and statement – II are true.
2) Statement – 1 is true but statement – II is false
3) Both Statement –I and Statement – II are false
4) Statement – I is false but Statement – II is true
197. Match the following
List-I List-II
A) Producer of terrestrial ecosystem I. Phytoplankton, algae
B) Herbivore of terrestrial ecosystem II. Molluscs
C) Producer of aquatic ecosystem III. Woody plants
D) Herbivore of aquatic ecosystem IV. Fungi and saprobes
V. Insects and mammals
The correct match is:
A B C D
1) I II III IV
2) V IV I II
3) III V I II
4) II IV V III
Pg. 22
198. Which of the following cause dilation of blood vessels
1) Angiotensin – II 2) ADH
3) Atrial Natriuretic Factor 4) Aldosterone
199. When a heterozygous ‘A’ blood group man marries a woman who is homozygous ‘B’ blood group,
then the % of progeny with ‘B’ blood group is
1) 75% 2) 0% 3) 50% 4) 100%
200. The partial pressure of oxygen in human alveolar air is
1) 95 mm of Hg 2) 40 mm of Hg 3) 159 mm of Hg 4) 104 mm of Hg

***ALL THE BEST***

Pg. 23
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 19.12.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-15 Max.Marks: 720
KEY SHEET

PHYSICS

1) 2 2) 1 3) 1 4) 3 5) 4 6) 4 7) 1 8) 2 9) 4 1 0) 3
1 1) 1 1 2) 2 1 3) 1 1 4) 2 1 5) 2 1 6) 3 1 7) 2 1 8) 3 1 9) 1 2 0) 1
2 1) 3 2 2) 1 2 3) 4 2 4) 1 2 5) 2 2 6) 4 2 7) 3 2 8) 2 2 9) 2 3 0) 2
3 1) 4 3 2) 2 3 3) 2 3 4) 1 3 5) 3 3 6) 2 3 7) 1 3 8) 4 3 9) 2 4 0) 3
4 1) 3 4 2) 4 4 3) 2 4 4) 3 4 5) 2 4 6) 1 4 7) 2 4 8) 2 4 9) 2 5 0) 3

CHEMISTRY

5 1) 2 5 2) 3 5 3) 4 5 4) 3 5 5) 4 5 6) 3 5 7) 4 5 8) 4 5 9) 3 6 0) 4
6 1) 1 6 2) 2 6 3) 3 6 4) 4 6 5) 1 6 6) 1 6 7) 1 6 8) 4 6 9) 2 7 0) 3
7 1) 2 7 2) 2 7 3) 4 7 4) 2 7 5) 2 7 6) 2 7 7) 4 7 8) 1 7 9) 4 8 0) 2
8 1) 2 8 2) 4 8 3) 2 8 4) 2 8 5) 1 8 6) 4 8 7) 2 8 8) 1 8 9) 2 9 0) 2
9 1) 4 9 2) 1 9 3) 3 9 4) 3 9 5) 2 9 6) 4 9 7) 2 9 8) 4 9 9) 4 1 0 0) 4

BOTANY

1 0 1) 4 1 0 2) 2 1 0 3) 2 1 0 4) 4 1 0 5) 4 1 0 6) 4 1 0 7) 3 1 0 8) 4 1 0 9) 3 1 1 0) 3
1 1 1) 2 1 1 2) 4 1 1 3) 2 1 1 4) 3 1 1 5) 4 1 1 6) 1 1 1 7) 3 1 1 8) 3 1 1 9) 2 1 2 0) 2
1 2 1) 3 1 2 2) 2 1 2 3) 1 1 2 4) 1 1 2 5) 2 1 2 6) 1 1 2 7) 3 1 2 8) 4 1 2 9) 4 1 3 0) 3
1 3 1) 2 1 3 2) 3 1 3 3) 4 1 3 4) 3 1 3 5) 4 1 3 6) 3 1 3 7) 4 1 3 8) 3 1 3 9) 2 1 4 0) 3
1 4 1) 2 1 4 2) 1 1 4 3) 3 1 4 4) 3 1 4 5) 1 1 4 6) 3 1 4 7) 2 1 4 8) 4 1 4 9) 1 1 5 0) 2

ZOOLOGY

1 5 1) 3 1 5 2) 3 1 5 3) 2 1 5 4) 4 1 5 5) 2 1 5 6) 2 1 5 7) 2 1 5 8) 3 1 5 9) 4 1 6 0) 2
1 6 1) 1 1 6 2) 4 1 6 3) 2 1 6 4) 1 1 6 5) 3 1 6 6) 4 1 6 7) 4 1 6 8) 2 1 6 9) 3 1 7 0) 4
1 7 1) 4 1 7 2) 4 1 7 3) 3 1 7 4) 3 1 7 5) 3 1 7 6) 1 1 7 7) 3 1 7 8) 1 1 7 9) 1 1 8 0) 1
1 8 1) 4 1 8 2) 3 1 8 3) 3 1 8 4) 4 1 8 5) 2 1 8 6) 2 1 8 7) 3 1 8 8) 1 1 8 9) 4 1 9 0) 1
1 9 1) 2 1 9 2) 3 1 9 3) 3 1 9 4) 4 1 9 5) 3 1 9 6) 2 1 9 7) 3 1 9 8) 3 1 9 9) 3 2 0 0) 4

PAPER SETTER- KNL LT N40

SNO SUBJECT NAME MOBILE NO
1 PHYSICS MURTHI SIR 81255 16669
2 CHEMISTRY N V SUBBAREDDY SIR 88976 00758
3 BOTANY SAVITHA MAM 94928 44931
4 ZOOLOGY SREEDEVI MAM 94928 44932

Pg. 1
 HINTS

1. Let n 1 and n 2 are the two-unit vectors, then the sum n s  n 1  n 2 or
nss  n12  n22  2n1n2 cos   1  1  2 cos  Since it is given that ns is also a unit vector, therefore
1
1=1+1+2cos   cos     =1200
2
Now the difference vectors is n d  n 1  n 2 or n12  n22  2n1n2 cos   1  1  2 cos 1200 
 nd2  2  2  1/ 2   2  1  3  nd  3
2. Given resultant displacement is 6km due east which may be expressed as 6i

Given displacements are

i) 2km due east or 2i
4
ii) 5km 370 south of east its components along x-axis = 5cos 370 = 5   4i
5
3
along y-axis =5sin 370 = 5   3i
5
iii) Unknown displacement let it be ai  b j
 2i  4i  3 j  ai  b j  6i
 6i  ai  3 j  bi  6i  ai  bi  3 j
88
3. Here r  100 cm  1m,   rad s 2
25
2 2
 88   88 
   2     1.0    ms 2
 25   25 
Centripetal acceleration,
2 2
 88   88 
ac   r     1.0    ms 2
2

 25   25 
2
GMm  2 
4. As n
 mR  
R  T 
4 2 R n1
T 2  or T 2 R n1 or T  R  n 1/ 2
GM
5. Here u  20m / s, m  500 g  0.5kg , t  20 s
1
h  ut  gt 2
2
Where g is the acceleration due to gravity on the planet.
1
0  20  20    g  20  or g  2 m / s 2
2

2
Weight of the body on the planet
 mg  0.5kg  2m / s 2  1N
6. Since, argon is monoatomic gas, it has only translational energy
7. For 2m
3mg  2mg  2ma1 ; a1  g / 2

Pg. 2
 For m
mg  ma2 ; a2  g
 M P  0    M Q   PQ    M R  PR 
8. X CM 
M P  MQ  M R
1 0  1 PQ  1 PR PQ  PR
 
111 3
9. As W   MB  cos  2  cos 1 
 1  MB
W1   MB cos 600  cos 00    MB   1 
2  2
 3 3MB
W2   MB cos 900  cos 300    MB  0    ; W2  3W1
 2  2

10. Let M and R be the mass and outer radius of each sphere. The moment of inertia of solid sphere A
about its diameter
2
I A  MR 2 .....  i 
5
Similarly the moment of inertia of hollow sphere (spherical shell) B about its diameter
2
I B  MR 2 .....  ii 
3
It is clear from equations (i) and (ii) I A  I B
11. Here, m  0.1kg , k1  8 N / m, k2  2 N / m
The springs are connected in parallel, the equivalent spring constant is

keq  k1  k2
 8 N / m  2 N / m  10 N / m
The frequency of oscillation is
1 keq 1 10 N / m 10 1
   Hz  Hz
2 m 2 0.1 kg 2 2
12. The energy stored in an inductor of self-inductance L henry carrying a current of I ampere is
1
U  LI 2
2
T 1 T 1 5
13. 1  1  2   2  1  
T1 6 T1 6 6
T2  62 
1 T  62  1 2
2  1   2  1 
T1 3 T1 3 3
T1  372 K , T2  310 K
14. For adiabatic process
dQ  dU  PdV  0
d  a  bPV   PdV  0  bVdP  bPdV  PdV  0   b  1 PdV  bVdP  0
dv dp
 b  1 b  0   b  1 log v  b log p  constant
v p
Pg. 3
 b 1 b 1
log  P b V b1   const PV b
 const   b

15. For most materials, the modulus of rigidity, G is one third of the Young’s modulus, y
1
G  Y or Y  3G
3
n=3
2 S cos 
16. According to ascent formula, h 
rg
2 S cos 
For a given liquid, hr   constant
g
h r  2.0  r1 
 h1r1  h2 r2 or h2  1 1    2.0  3  6.0cm
r2  r1 / 3
17. For lighter and heavier nuclei have low binding energy per nucleons
2
t2 t3 
18. W   p.dt     4
t1
 2 0
1
W  KE  m  vt2  vi2 
2
4  vt  vt  2m / s
2

19. As tuning fork A produces 4 beats with tuning fork B of frequency B   256 Hz  , the frequency of
A  A  will be
 A   B  4  256, i.e.,  A  252 Hz or 260 Hz
Now on filing due to decrease in inertia frequency of A will increase and occurrence of beats at
shorter duration means increase in beat frequency, so if  A  252 Hz then 256   A  4 Hz and so
with increase in  A beat frequency will decrease. If  A  260 Hz , then  A  256  4 Hz and so with
increase in  A beat frequency will increase and as on filing beat frequency increases the frequency of
A before filing was 260 Hz.
20. The given circuit represents OR gate.
3
21. The mean translational kinetic energy of a perfect gas molecule at the temperature T, K is k BT
2
22. Conceptual
D
23. As   
d
1th
Therefore, when  is halved and d is doubled,  becomes
4
The separation between successive dark fringes reduces. It does not remain unchanged.
24. Here, p-n junction is reverse biased. Therefore, the current flowing through p-n junction is zero.
25. An angle between the plane of vibration and plane of polarization is 900.
26. Electric intensity at centre O, due to small element dl of charged ring
 dl   ad 
dE  
4 0 a 2
4 0 a 2

Pg. 4
 As is clear from figure, horizontal components of dE will cancel out in pairs and vertical components
will add.
 
 
  cos  0

 E   dE sin    sin  d 
0 0
4 0 a 4 0 a
 
E   cos   cos 0  
4 0 a 2 0 a
27. Electric potential at an equatorial point of a small dipole with dipole moment p
(r, distance from the dipole) is zero because cos 900  0
28. Charge will be induced on A, but total charge on A will remain zero. Negative charge of A will be
closer to b than positive charge on A. So potential of B will decrease

29. The equivalent circuit of the given network is as shown in the figure

When a battery is connected between the points X and Y, no current will flow in the arm AB.
Then the equivalent circuit will be as shown in figure (a) and (b)

The equivalent resistance between the points X and Y is

1 1 1 1
   or Req  5
Req 20 20 10
V2 V2
30. P6  6  V  6V
6 6
 6
2

P4   9W
4
31. A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
32. Magnetic field at the centre of a circular arc of radius R, carries current I and making an angle  at
the centre is given by
 I
B 0
4 R
Pg. 5
 
In the given problem  
2
0 I   / 2   0 I
B  
4 R 8R
33. Here, 2r = 0.1 nm, r = 0.05 nm, r  0.05 109 m  5 1011 m, B  14T
Current due to motion of electron is
e e  2 
I     
T 2  T 
Magnetic field at a proton is
 I 2 I 0 2  e  0 e
B 0   
4 r 4 r  2  4 r
 4  r 1 5 1011
  B     14  7   4.4 1016 rad s 1
 0  e
19
10 1.6 10
34. When a charged particle of charge q is projected perpendicularly in a uniform magnetic field B, it
mv
follows a circular path of radius R, R 
qB
m
Since, v and B are same for the given two particles, R 
q
Rp mp q m 2e 1
    
R qp m e 4m 2
l
35. Length of each side of square 
4
2
l l2
Area of square A1    
 4  16
If r is radius of the circle, then
1
l  2 r , r 
2
2
 1  l2
Area of circle, A2   r   2
 
 2  4
M 1 IA1 l 2 /16 4 
     :4
M 2 IA2 l 2 / 4 16 4
mv 2 k 1 k
36.  2 , KE  mv 2 
r r 2 2r
r
  r
 K  k
U    F .dr     2 dr  
  r  r
k k k
Total energy E = PE + KE   
r 2r 2r
37. Here   10t 2  50t  250
d d
The induced emf is      10t 2  50t  250     20t  50 
dt dt
At t  3 s,     20  3  50   10V
38. Two identical coaxial coils P and Q carrying equal amount of current in the same direction are
brought nearer. The current in both P and Q decreases because induced current opposes the initial
currents.

Pg. 6
 
39. f open 
2l
For closed tube length available for resonance
25 l
l '  1 
100 4
  
f closed   
4l ' 4 1/ 4 l
f
f open  2 f open  closed  2
f open
40. Speed of the electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is
2 e 2 e
   c
4 0 h 137
e2
(Where c is the speed of light in vacuum &   is the fine structure constant)
2 0 h
1  1
It is pure number whose value is .  
137 c 137
41. The total energy in the first excited state is
13.6
 eV  3.4eV .
4
This consists of the kinetic energy of 3.4 eV and the potential energy of -6.8 eV to all energy levels.
The total energy in ground state then becomes 13.6  6.8 eV   6.8eV .
42. Let abundance of B10 be x %
 Abundance of B11  100  x  %

 10.81 
10  x   11100  x 
100
or 1081  10 x  1100  11x or x  19
19 19
 Ratio of abundance  
100  19 81
43. Let R be the radius of the drop and S be the surface tension. Then u  S  4 R 2
When the drop splitted into 1000 droplets each of radius r, then
4 4 R
1000  r 3   R 3 or r 
3 3 10
 Surface energy of all droplets
2
R
 S  1000  4 r  S  1000  4    10  S 4 R 2   10u
2

 10 
44. Energy of single fission is 200 MeV.
Number of atoms in 235 g  6.023 1023
1000
 Number of atoms in 1 kg of uranium 235   6.023 1023
235
 Energy released in fission of 1 kg of U 235
200 106  1000  6.023  10 23  1.6  10 19
 J  8.2  1013 J
235
45. f0  1.2cm, fe  3 cm

Pg. 7
 u0  1.25 cm
1 1 1 1 1
   
v0 f 0 u0 1.2 1.25
v0  30cm
v0 D 30 25
Magnification (m) = .    200
u0 f e 1.25 3
2 D
46. The linear width of central principal maximum  if it is equal to width of slit (d), then
d
2 D d2
 d or D 
d 2
47. At glass-water interface
4
 g sin i  sin r......1
3
At water-air interface
4
sin r  1......  2 
3
From (1) and (2)
1
 g sin i  1 ;  g 
sin i
48. Initial Ge diode is in FB
12  0.3
i  2.34mA
5  103
V0  Ri  5 103  2.34 103  11.7V
When Ge diode is in RB
V0  12  0.7  11.3V
Charge in value=11.7-11.3=0.4V
49. F  kx  mg  kx  m  kx
m1 k1 x1 4 k 1
    
m2 k 2 x2 6 k / 2 x2
 x2  3cm
a 3 .2a 1 3
50. For cube 1  For sphere 2   
0 0 2 2
51. Mn 2  Pink
Fe 2  Green
Cu 2  Blue
52. H 2 PO  H 2Te  H 2 Se  H 2 S  H 2O
53. Lactose and maltose are reducing sugar
54. Conceptual
55. Conceptual
57. Water, alcohols, amines are sufficiently acidic to convert RMg X into RH
58. R0  R  kt
59. Al 3  3e   Al
1.4( N aVa  N bVb )
60. %N 
w
2 1 
1.4   30   30 
 5 15  =10%
1.4
Pg. 8
61.

W 1000
62. Tb  ikb 
M W
1.23 1000
0.975  i  0.52  
164 10
i = 2.5 = 1+ (n – 1) 
 =0.75
63. [Rn] 5f7 6d1 7s2
64. dSP2
65. Both have plane of symmetry
66. H   c
i  1   n  1 
  iCRT
68. Conceptual
69. Fe, S
73. Acidic salts reacts with alkali
74. sp2
79.

80. First order

81. A= B=

K p  K C  RT 
n
82.
 3 106  0.082  700 
 1.7 104
83. For spontaneous reaction G  ve
86. Cs+(aq)

87.

Pg. 9
88.
C H2O
Wt 2.48 3.72
Wt/Aw 2.48/12 3.72/18
0.206 0.206
Simplest Ratio 1 1

89. CH3COOH
90. nE = n1E1 + n2E2
3E = 2x1 + x2
E = 2x1 + x2/3
91. -3, +5
h
95. 
2mKE
KE  h   0 
c 3 108
96.  
 6000 1010
97. Stability of carbo cation
98. Zero
99. Conceptual
100. Bonding electrons are in  2 px and  2 py orbitals

Pg. 10
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 21.12.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-16 Max.Marks: 720
Important Instructions:
In ever y s u bject:
( a ) In Section – A , 3 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. A n s w er all 3 5 qu estion s from section – A
( b ) In Section – B , 1 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. O ut of w hich A n s w er 1 0 qu estion s onl y .
(c) E ach qu estion c a rries 4 m a r k s. F or e ach correct respon se w ill get 4 m a r k s. F or e ach
incorrect respon se, one m a r k w ill be d e d ucte d from th e tot al scores.

PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. The Young's modulus of a rubber string 8 cm long and density 1.5 kg / m3 is 5 108 N / m2 , It is
suspended from the ceiling in a room. The increase in length due to its own weight will be  g  10m / s 2 
(1) 9.6  105 m (2) 9.6 1011 m (3) 9.6  103 m (4) 9.6 m
2. A beam of light of wavelength 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the
resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between the first dark fringes
on either side of the central bright fringe is
(1) 1.2 mm (2) 1.2 cm (3) 2.4 cm (4) 2.4 mm
3. Figure shows a block ABCD sliding down a rough (fixed) inclined plane.
A) Angular momentum of the block is conserved about any point on the surface of the inclined plane.
B) Normal force applied by inclined plane on the block will be at the midpoint of the surface AB.
D

A
C
B

(1) A & B are true (2) A is true, B is false (3) A is false B is true (4) A & B are false
1
4. A body is projected with a velocity 60ms at 30º to the horizontal from the ground. The time after

which its velocity is perpendicular to initial velocity is ____seconds.

 g  10ms 2

(1) 12 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) None

5. For a series LCR circuit R = XL = 2XC. The impedance of the circuit and phase difference (between) V
and i will be
5R 5R 1 1
(1) , tan 1 (2) (2) , tan 1   (3) 5 X C , tan 1 (2) (4) 5 R, tan 1  
2 2  
2 2
6. When a gas expands adiabatically
(1) No energy is required for expansion
(2) Energy is required and it comes from the wall of the container of the gas
(3) Internal energy of the gas is used in doing work
(4) Law of conservation of energy does not hold

Pg. 1
7. When 92 U 235 undergoes fission, 0.1% of its original mass is changed into energy. How much energy is
released if 1kg of 92U 235 undergoes fission
(1) 9 1010 J (2) 9 1011 J (3) 9 1012 J (4) 9 1013 J
8. A particle executing S.H.M. of amplitude 4 cm and T = 4 sec. The time taken by it to move from positive
extreme position to half the amplitude is
(1) 1 sec (2) 1/3 sec (3) 2/3 sec (4) 3 / 2 sec
9. Electric charges q, q,  2q are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle ABC of side l . The
magnitude of electric dipole moment of the system is
(1) ql (2) 2ql (3) 3ql (4) 4ql
 
10. The vector P  aiˆ  ajˆ  3kˆ and Q  aiˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ are perpendicular to each other. The positive value of a
is
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 9 (4) 13
11. The acceleration due to gravity on the planet A is 9 times the acceleration due to gravity on planet B. A
man jumps to a maximum height of 2m on the surface of A. What is the maximum height of jump by the
same person on the planet B
2 2
(1) 18m (2) 6m (3) m (4) m
3 9
12. A heat flux of 4000 J / s is to be passed through a copper rod of length 10 cm and area of cross-section
100 cm 2 . The thermal conductivity of copper is 400 W / m oC . The two ends of this rod must be kept at
a temperature difference of
(1) 1o C (2) 10o C (3) 100o C (4) 1000o C
13. In an apparatus, the electric field was found to oscillate with an amplitude of 18 V/m. The magnitude of
the oscillating magnetic field will be
(1) 4 106 T (2) 6 108 T (3) 9 109 T (4) 111011 T
14. If work done in increasing the size of a soap film from 10 cm  6 cm to 10 cm 11 cm is 2 104 J , then
the surface tension is
(1) 2  102 Nm 1 (2) 2 104 Nm1 (3) 2 106 Nm1 (4) 2 108 Nm1
15. Magnetic flux in a circuit containing a coil of resistance 2 changes from 2.0 Wb to 10 Wb in 0.2 sec.
The charge passed through the coil in this time is
(1) 0.4 C (2) 40 C (3) 2.0 C (4) 4.0 C
16. If the mean free path of atoms is doubled at constant temperature then the pressure of gas will become
(1) P/4 (2) P/2 (3) P/8 (4) P
17. The ratio of the speed of sound in nitrogen gas to that in helium gas, at 300 K is
(1) 2 / 7 (2) 1/ 7 (3) 3 / 5 (4) 6 / 5
18. Work function of a metal surface is 2 eV. A photon of energy 8 eV is incident on an electron in the
surface. If the electron looses 10% of its energy in each collision, and given that it suffers two collisions
before coming out, the kinetic energy of this electron after coming out of metal surface would be ____
eV
(1) 4.86 (2) 4. 32 (3) 4.22 (4) 4.48
19. A tuning fork gives 4 beats with 50 cm length of a sonometer wire. If the length of the wire is shortened
by 1 cm, the number of beats is still the same. The frequency of the fork is
(1) 396 (2) 400 (3) 404 (4) 384
20. The electric intensity E, current density j and specific resistance k are related to each other by the relation
(1) E  j / k (2) E  jk (3) E  k / j (4) k  jE
Pg. 2
21. The length of the resistance wire is increased by 10%. What is the corresponding change in the resistance
of wire
(1) 10% (2) 25% (3) 21% (4) 9%
22. A potential barrier of 0.50 V exists across a P-N junction. If the depletion region is 5.0 107 m wide, the
intensity of the electric field in this region is
(1) 1.0 106 V /m (2) 1.0 105 V /m (3) 2.0 105 V /m (4) 2.0 106 V /m
23. The wavelength of de-Broglie wave is 2m, then its momentum is (h = 6.63  10–34 J-s)
(1) 3.315  10–28 kg-m/s (2) 1.66  10–28 kg-m/s
(3) 4.97  10–28 kg-m/s (4) 9.9  10–28 kg-m/s
24. Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II
A) Bernoulli’s theorem P) Conversation of mass
B) Equation of continuity Q) Conversation of angular momentum
C) Kepler’s second law R) Conversation of charge
D) Kirchoff’s first law S) Conversation of energy
(1) AR, BP, CS, DR (2) AS, BQ, CP, DR
(3) AS, BP, CR, DQ (4) AS, BP, CQ, DR
25. A: emf always arises due to non-electrostatic force.
B: emf is work done by battery per unit charge, when it is moved through a closed path.
(1) A & B are true (2) A & B are false (3) A is true, B is false (4) A is false, B is true

26. A charged particle is projected with velocity v is in XY plane, into a uniform magnetic field Bi as shown
in the figure. The axis of helical path
y


x
z
1) is x – axis 2) a straight line parallel to x - axis
3) is y – axis 4) a straight line parallel to y – axis
27. Assertion : Soft iron is used as a core of transformer.
Reason : Area of hysteresis is loop for soft iron is small.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false. (4) Assertion is false but reason is true.
28. Figure represents the graph of photo current I versus applied voltage (V). The maximum energy of the
emitted photoelectrons is

1) 2eV 2) 4 eV 3) 0 eV 4) 4 J

Pg. 3
29. Two equal bar magnets are kept as shown in the figure. The direction of resultant magnetic field,
indicated by arrow head at the point P is (approximately)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

30. The work done in rotating a magnet of magnetic moment 2 A-m in a magnetic field of 5  10–3 T from
2

the direction along the magnetic field to opposite direction to the magnetic field, is
(1) Zero (2) 2  10–2 J (3) 10–2 J (4) 10 J
31. Let us consider a loop of a stationary wave formed in a stretched string. In the following statements,
which one is wrong?

Right half
Left half

(1) There would be no energy transfer from the left half to the right half of loop.
(2) Energy transfer never takes place among the particles in the left half.
(3) Energy of particle at node is non zero except when particles are at their respective mean positions.
(4) Total energy of a particle at antinode is zero when particles are at their respective extreme positions.
32. A ray of light is incident on the surface of separation of a medium at an angle 45° and is refracted in the
medium at an angle 30°. What will be the velocity of light in the medium
(1) 1.96 108 m/s (2) 2.12  108 m / s (3) 3.18 108 m / s (4) 3.33 188 m / s
33. A convex lens of focal length 30 cm and a concave lens of 10 cm focal length are placed so as to have
the same axis. If a parallel beam of light falling on convex lens leaves concave lens as a parallel beam,
then the distance between two lenses will be
(1) 40 cm (2) 30 cm (3) 20 cm (4) 10 cm
34. An infinite number of charges, each of charge 1 C, are placed on the x-axis with co-ordinates x = 1, 2,
4, 8, ….. If a charge of 1 C is kept at the origin, then what is the net force acting on 1 C charge
(1) 9000 N (2) 12000 N (3) 24000 N (4) 36000 N
35. Four equal charges ‘Q’ are placed at the four corners of a square of each side ‘a’. Work done in removing
a charge – Q from its centre to infinity is
2Q 2 2Q 2 Q2
(1) 0 (2) (3) (4)
4 0 a  0 a 2 0 a
SECTION-B
V
36. The resistance R = where V= 100  5 volts and i = 10  0.2 amperes. What is the total error in R
i
(1) 5% (2) 7% (3) 5.2% (4) 5/2 %
37. If a slab of insulating material 4  103 m thick is introduced between the plates of a parallel plate
capacitor, the separation between plates has to be increased by 3.5 103 m to restore the capacity to
original value. The dielectric constant of the material will be
(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 12

Pg. 4
38. An electron makes a transition from orbit n = 4 to the orbit n = 2 of a hydrogen atom. The wave number
of the emitted radiations (R = Rydberg's constant) will be
(1) 16/3R (2) 2R/16 (3) 3R/16 (4) 4R/16
39. Atomic weight of boron is 10.81 and it has two isotopes 5 B and 5 B . Then ratio of 5 B10 :5 B11 in nature
10 11

would be
(1) 19 : 81 (2) 10 : 11 (3) 15 : 16 (4) 81 : 19
40. Two cylinders A and B fitted with pistons contain equal amounts of an ideal diatomic gas at 300 K. The
piston of A is free to move while that of B is held fixed. The same amount of heat is given to the gas in
each cylinder. If the rise in temperature of the gas in A is 30 K, then the rise in temperature of the gas in
B is
(1) 30 K (2) 18 K (3) 50 K (4) 42 K
41. In the Young's double slit experiment, the spacing between two slits is 0.1 mm. If the screen is kept at a
distance of 1.0 m from the slits and the wavelength of light is 5000 Å, then the fringe width is
(1) 1.0 cm (2) 1.5 cm (3) 0.5 cm (4) 2.0 cm
42. A force acts on a 30 gm particle in such a way that the position of the particle as a function of time is
given by x  3t  4t 2  t 3 , where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The work done during the first 4
seconds is
(1) 5.28 J (2) 450 mJ (3) 490 mJ (4) 530 mJ
43. A body takes just twice the time as long to slide down a rough plane inclined at 30o to the horizontal as
when the plane were frictionless. The coefficient of friction between the body and the plane is
3 4 3
(1) (2) 3 (3) (4)
4 3 4
44. When a resistance of 2ohm is connected across the terminals of a cell, the current is 0.5 amperes. When
the resistance is increased to 5 ohm, the current is 0.25 amperes. The internal resistance of the cell is
(1) 0.5ohm (2) 1.0ohm (3) 1.5ohm (4) 2.0ohm
45. A diode having potential difference 0.5 V across its junction which does not depend on current, is
connected in series with resistance of 20  across a source. If 0.1 A passes through resistance then what
is the voltage of the source
(1) 1.5 V (2) 2.0 V (3) 2.5 V (4) 5 V
46. The magnetic field due to a current carrying circular loop of radius 3 cm at a point on the axis at a
distance of 4 cm from the centre is 54 T. What will be its value at the centre of the loop
(1) 250  T (2) 150  T (3) 125  T (4) 75  T
47. For the magnetic field to be maximum due to a small element of current carrying conductor at a point,
the angle between the element and the line joining the element to the given point must be
(1) 0° (2) 90° (3) 180° (4) 45°
48. A body of mass 2 kg collides with a wall with speed 100 m/s and rebounds with same speed. If the time
of contact was 1/50 second, the force exerted on the wall is
(1) 8 N (2) 2 104 N (3) 4 N (4) 104 N
49. A body is projected vertically upwards from the surface of a planet of radius R with a velocity equal to
half the escape velocity for that planet. The maximum height attained by the body is
(1) R/3 (2) R/2 (3) R/4 (4) R/5
50. The potential energy of a particle of mass m is given by
E ; 0  x  1
U ( x)   0
0; x 1
1 and 2 are the de-Broglie wavelengths of the particle, when 0  x  1 and x > 1 respectively. If the
1
total energy of particle is 2E0, the ratio will be
2
1
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4)
2
Pg. 5
 CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. Oxidation states of Bromine atoms in Br3O8 are:
(1) +6, +4 and +6 (2) +4, +5 and +4 (3) +6, +2 and +4 (4) +4, +6 and +7
52. Significant figures in 0.03, 2.005 and 0.200 are respectively
(1) 1,4,2 (2) 1,4,3 (3) 1,2,1 (4) 2,4,3
53. The enthalpy changes for two reactions are given by the equations
3
2Cr ( s )  O2 ( g )  Cr2 O3 ( g ), H  1130kJ
2
1
C ( s )  O2 ( g )  CO ( g ), H  110kJ
2
What is the enthalpy change (in kJ) for the reaction ?
3C ( s )  Cr2O3 ( s)  2Cr ( s)  3CO( g )
(1) - 1460kJ (2) + 800kJ (3) - 345kJ (4) - 652 kJ
54. How many litres of water must be added to 1 L of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to prepare
an aqueous solution with pH of 2?
(1) 0.6 L (2) 2.0 L (3) 9.0 L (4) 0.1 L
55. The rate constant for a reaction A  B at 25 C and 35 C are 2.6  103 s 1 and 7.8  103 s 1
o o

respectively. The temperature coefficient of reaction is

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
56. Phenol (mol.wt.94) is dimerised to 60% in a solvent, the observed molar mass of phenol will be
(1) less than 94 (2) 134.2 (3) 94 (4) 150
57. Passage of 96500 coulomb of electricity liberates ....litre of O2 at STP during electrolysis
(1) 5.6 (2) 0.28 (3) 1.12 (4)11.2
58. If sodium sulphate is considered to be completely dissociated into cations and anions in aqueous solution,
the change in freezing point of water (Tf ) , when 0.01 mol of sodium sulphate is dissolved in 1kg of
water is ( Kf= 1.86kg/mol)
(1) 0.0186 K (2) 0.0372K (3) 0.0558K (4) 0.0744K
59. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (Kf) will be:
(1) un changed (2) doubled (3) halved (4) tripled
60. Arrange the following species in the correct order of their bond order: C2 , Li2 , O2 , He2
(1) Li2  He2  O2  C2 (2) C2  O2  Li2  He2
(3) He2  Li2  C2  O2 (4) O2  C2  Li2  He2
61. When initial concentration of a reactant is doubled in a reaction, its half-life period is not affected. The
order of the reaction is
(1) Zero (2) First (3) Second (4) More than zero but less than one
62. Deficiency of vitamin D causes
(1) Rickets (2) Night blindness (3) Scurvy (4) Beriberi
63. The standard emf of a cell, involving two electron change is found to be 0.591 V at 25o C . The
equilibrium constant of the reaction is
( F  96500C / mol , R  8.314 JK 1mol 1 )
(1) 1 10 20 (2) 1 1010 (3) 1 1030 (4) 1 1015
64. If an electron has spin quantum number of +1/2 and a magnetic quantum number of -1, then it cannot be
represented in
(1) s-orbital (2) p-orbital (3) d-orbital (4) f-orbital
Pg. 6
65. Which among the following is a correct statement ?
(1) Sucrose is reducing sugar
(2) Two  -D-glucose units in maltose are linked by 1, 4–linkage
(3) β D -glucose and β - D – fructose units are linked by 1,4–linkage in lactose
(4) Two β – D glucose units in maltose are linked by 1,4linkage
66. Addition of sodium hydroxide solution to a weak acid (HA) result in a buffer of pH 6 if ionization
5
constant of HA is 10 , the ratio of salt to acid concentration in the buffer solution will be:
(1) 10 : 1 (2) 4 : 5 (3) 5 : 4 (4) 1 : 10
67. If there is no S-P mixing then the bond order and magnetic character in C2 molecule are
(1) 1 and paramagnetic (2) 1 and diamagnetic
(3) 2 and paramagnetic (4) 2 and diamagnetic
0
68. The uncertainty involved in the measurement of velocity of a electron within a distance of 0.1A is
(1) 5.78  108 ms 1 (2) 5.79  105 ms 1 (3) 5.79  106 ms 1 (4) 5.79  107 ms 1
69. Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of boiling point
A) Propan-1-ol B) Butan-1-ol C) Butan-2-ol D) Pentan-1-ol
1) A > C > B > D 2) A > B > C > D 3) D > C > B > A 4) D > B > C > A
70. Which of the following are functional isomers?
1) CH 3CH 2Cl and CH3CH 2 Br 2) CH 3CHBr2 and CH 2 BrCH 2 Br
CH3CH 2CHO and CH3  CH  CH 2
3) C 2H 5OC 2 H5 and CH3OC3H 7 4) O

71. What is the composition of misch metal alloy?

1) Lanthanoid metal (95%) + Iron (5%) 2) Cu (69%) + Zn (31%)
3) Al (20%) + Cu (80%) 4) Cr (50%) +Zn (30%)
72. Highest fluoride and oxide of Mn are respectively
1) MnF7 and Mn 2O7 2) MnF4 and Mn 2O7
3) MnF5 and Mn 2O7 4) MnF6 and Mn 2O7
73. The I.U.P.A.C. name of tartaric acid is
1) 1, 4-dihydroxy butane-2, 3-dioic acid
2) 2, 3-dihydroxy butane-1, 4-dioic acid
3) 1, 4-dicarboxy 2, 3-dihydroxy ethane
4) 1, 1-dihydroxy butane-1, 4-dioic acid
74. Which of the following statements are correct?
I) Aniline does not undergo Friedal-Craft reaction due to salt formation with aluminium chloride.
II) Direct nitration of aniline yields tarry oxidation products in addition to the nitro derivatives.
III) Aniline on nitration gives substantial amount of m-nitroaniline due to formation of anilinium ion.
1) Only I and II 2) Only II and III 3) Only I and III 4) I, II and III
75. Wrong statement of the following is
1) Dihydrogen gas adds to alkenes and alkynes in the presence of finely divided catalysts like Pt, Pd or
Ni to form alkanes.
2) Ni, Pd or Pt absorb dihydrogen gas on their surface and activate the H – H bond.
3) Pt and Pd catalyse the reaction at room temperature but relatively higher temperature and pressure are
required with Ni catalyst.
4) Propyne gives propene as final product in hydrogenation in the presence of Pd.

Pg. 7
76. Which of the following is strongest base among the given compounds?
NH2 CH2-NH2
O 2N NH2
1) 2) 3) 4) CH 3 C  NH 2
||
O
77. Match the column-I with column-II
column-I column-II
A) CH 4 (g)  2O2 (g)  CO2 (g)  2H 2O(l ) i) Incomplete combustion
B) CH 4 (g)  O2 (g)  C(s)  2H 2O(l ) ii) Controlled oxidation
Cu 573K iii) Complete combustion
C) 2CH 4  O2 
100atm
 2CH3OH
Mo O iv) Controlled hydrogenation
D) CH 4  O2 
2 3

  HCHO  H 2O
1) A‒ii, B‒ii, C‒iii, D‒i 2) A‒iii, B‒i, C‒ii, D‒ii
3) A‒ii, B‒iii, C‒i, D‒iv 4) A‒ii, B‒iv, C‒iii, D‒i
78. The incorrect statement regarding group 13 elements is
1) The compounds in +1 oxidation state, as expected from energy considerations, are more ionic than
those in +3 oxidation state.
2) In trivalent state, the number of electrons around the central atom in a molecule of the compounds of
these elements will be only six.
3) The relative stability of +1 oxidation state progressively decreases for heavier elements: Al > Ga > In
> Tl.
4) Gallium with unusually low melting point (303K), could exist in liquid state during summer.
79. Consider the following statements
(a) SnF4 and PbF4 are ionic in nature (b) [SiF6 ]2 does not exist
(c) Hybridisation of central atom in [GeF6 ]2 is sp3d 2
The correct statements are
1) (a) and (b) only 2) (b) and (c) only 3) (a) and (c) only 4) (a), (b) and (c)
80. In the reaction for dinitration, the major dinitrated X is
OH

nitration
X
CH3

OH OH OH
O2N OH NO2
O2 N NO2
CH3 CH3 O2N CH3
NO2 CH
3 2 NO NO2
1) 2) 3) 4)
81. Choose the correct option from the following
1) SN2 is bimolecular reaction having order = 1.
2) SN1 is unimolecular reaction having order = 2.
3) Leaving group ability for both SN1 and SN2 is R–I > R–Br > R–Cl > R–F
4) In SN1 reaction 100% racemisation occurs.
Pg. 8
82. Incorrect statement about noble gases of the following is
1) All these gases except radon and oganesson occur in the atmosphere.
2) The main commercial source of helium is natural gas.
249 48
3) Oganesson has been synthetically produced by collision of 98 Cf atoms and 20 Ca ions
4) All these are gases and chemically reactive.
83. All the elements of Group 16 form hydrides of the type H2E. Incorrect combination about these hydrides
is
1) Acidic character --- H 2O  H 2S  H 2Se  H 2Te
2) Bond enthalpy for the dissociation of H–E --- H 2O  H 2S  H 2Se  H 2Te
3) Reducing property --- H 2O  H 2S  H 2Se  H 2Te
4) Boiling points --- H 2O  H 2Te  H 2Se  H 2S
84. The spin only magnetic moment of [MnBr4 ]2 is 5.9 BM. Predict the geometry of the complex ion and
hybridisation of central metal?
1) Square planar and dsp2 2) Tetrahedral and sp3
3) Square planar and sp3 4) Tetrahedral and dsp2
85. Match the following:
Element (outer most Successive values of I.E.
shell configuration) (eV/atom)
(A) 3s 1 (P) 22, 25, 36, 42, 250

(B) 3s 2 (Q) 18, 26, 32, 240, 260

(C) 3s2 3p1 (R) 20, 24, 210, 230

(D) 3s2 3p 2 (S) 15, 180, 200, 220

Match the type of element, with the corresponding successive values of I.E:
1) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R 2) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
3) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P 4) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
SECTION-B
86. Incorrect statement is
2
(1) Uncertainty principle is: x. 
4
(2) Spin quantum number cannot be deduced from Schroedinger’s wave equation
(3) C14 has 6 neutrons
(4) Absorption spectrum is always discontinuous.
87. The reduction potential of hydrogen half-cell will be negative if
(1) P H2  = 1atm and  H   = 2M (2) P H2  = 1atm and  H   = 1M
(3) P H2  = 2atm and  H   = 1M (4) P H2  = 2atm and  H   = 2M
88. D-Glucose and D-mannose are
(1) C-4 epimers (2) C-2 epimers (3) Anomers (4) Tautormers
89. Incorrect statement among the following is
(1) A catalyst does not change the equilibrium constant of a reaction
(2) A catalyst alters Gibbs energy, G of a reaction
(3) Order of a reaction is an experimental quantity
(4) For complex reaction molecularity has no meaning
Pg. 9
90. The electrode potential for: Cu 2  aq   e   Cu   aq  and Cu   aq   e  Cu  s  are +0.15V and
0
+0.5V respectively. The value of ECu 2
/ Cu
will be
(1) 0.150V (2) 0.50V (3) 0.325V (4) 0.650V
91. When 1litre of 1M HCl is mixed with 1 litre of 1M NaOH, the rise in temperature was found to be T1 .
In another experiment 2 litre of 1M NaOH is mixed with 2 litre of 1M HCl. The rise in temperature was
found to be T2 . Then
(1) T1  T2 (2) T1  2T2 (3) 2T1  T2 (4) T1  3T2
92. Hybridisation of sulphur and the ratio of pπ  dπ bonds in SO2 and SO3 molecules
(1) sp 3 , 1 : 1 (2) sp 2 , 1 : 2 (3) sp 3 , 2 : 1 (4) sp, 2 : 3
93. Compound A oxidised by using acidified K 2Cr2O7 solution and give 'B'. Compound B gives 2,4-DNP
test but not silver mirror test, then compound A is:
1) CH3  CHO 2) CH3 CH CH3 3) CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  OH 4) CH3  C  CH3
| ||
OH O
94. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The single N–N bond is weaker than the single P–P bond.
Reason(R): There is high inter electronic repulsion of the non-bonding electrons of nitrogen, owing to
the small bond length.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
95. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Aryl halides are more reactive than alkyl halide towards nucleophilic substitution
reactions.
Reason(R): Intermediate carbocation is more stable obtained from Aryl halide
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect 4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
96. Choose the correct set representing the given statements as true (T) or false (F).
(I) Coordination isomerism arises from the interchange of ligands between cationic and anionic entities
present in a complex.
(II) Thiocyanate ligand is an ambidentate ligand.
(III) Ionisation isomerism arises when the counter ion in a complex salt is itself a potential ligand and
can displace a ligand which can then become the counter ion.
(IV) [Co(NH3 )6 ][Co(CN)6 )] does not exhibit coordination isomerism
1) FTTT 2) TTTT 3) TTTF 4) FTFT
97. The major product in the following reaction sequence is
O O
|| || i) NH2NH2
anhyd.
 CH3  C  O  C  CH3 A B
AlCl3 ii) KOH/(CH2OH)2 

OH

1) 2) 3) 4)
Pg. 10
 O
||
C  CH 3
Cl2/KOH
X+Y
98. Products X and Y are
CH2OH CH2OH
and CHCl3 and CHCl3
1) 2)
COO COO
and CHCl3 and CHCl3
3) 4)
99. Match Column - I with Column – II
Column – I Column – II
(I) Chile saltpetre (a) Ca 9 (PO4 )6 .CaF2
(II) Indian saltpetre (b) NaNO3
(III) Fluorapatite (c) Ca 9 (PO 4 )6 .Ca(OH)2
(IV) Hydroxapatite (d) KNO3
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) (I)-(a); (II)-(b); (III)-(c); (IV)-(d) 2) (I)-(b); (II)-(d); (III)-(a); (IV)-(c)
3) (I)-(d); (II)-(b); (III)-(c); (IV)-(a) 4) (I)-(b); (II)-(d); (III)-(c); (IV)-(a)
100. Which of the following phenolic compound does not produce colour in phthalein dye test?
OH
OH OH OH
CH3

CH3 CH3
1) 2) 3) 4)
BOTANY
SECTION -A
101. In which phase of meiosis, bivalents (tetrads) move to the poles without splitting of centromere?
1) Anaphase- II 2) Metaphase- II 3) Anaphase- I 4) Metaphase- I
102. The flowers are usually tetramerous, stamens are in 2+ 4 arrangement (tetradynamous) and ovules on
parietal placentation in:
1) Fabaceae 2) Malvaceae 3) Asteraceae 4) Brassicaceae
103. Drupe fruit is present in:
1) Straw berry 2) Banana 3) Mango 4) Apple
104. Which of the following factor is involved in termination of transcription:
1) σ  factor 2) Rho  (ρ) factor 3) Helicase 4) DCMU
105. Select the correct statement w.r.t anaerobic respiration:
1) Triose phosphate is the electron donor and acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor.
2) Triose phosphate is the electron donor and pyruvic acid is the electron acceptor.
3) There is no electron donor or acceptor.
4) Both 1 and 2
106. Which of the following is not a stop codon:
1) UAA 2) UCA 3) UAG 4) UGA
107. The family ‘Felidae’ belongs to -------------------- order:
1) Primata 2) Diptera 3) Carnivora 4) Chordata
Pg. 11
108. Statement-I: Bacteria as a group show the most extensive metabolic diversity.
Statement-II: Fungi show a great diversity in morphology and habitat.
1) Statement-I and statement-II are correct
2) Statement-I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
3) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
4) Both Statements-I and statement-II are Incorrect
109. Select the wrong statement of the following:
1) Genetic engineering includes the technique to alter the chemistry of genetic material.
2) Genetic engineering does not allow the undesirable genes into the target organism.
3) Natural sciences were directed to develop technologies since the days of Rene Descartes.
4) Plasmids are autonomously replicating extrachromosomal linear DNA in eukaryotes.
110. Recombinant DNA is directly introduced into an animal cell by which method?
1) Microinjection 2) Biolistic method 3) by Ti- plasmids 4) Heat shock method
111. In the production of Meloidogyne (pest) resistant transgenic tobacco, the Alien DNA used is:
1) Plasmids from E. coli 2) Ti- plasmids from Agrobacterium tumefaciens
3) Plasmids from Bacillus thuringiensis 4) Transposons
112. Conjoint, Collateral, and Closed vascular bundles are found in:
1) Dicot leaf 2) Monocot leaf 3) Monocot stem 4) All of these
113. Assertion (A): RNA viruses have a shorter half-life and evolve faster.
Reason (R): RNA mutates at a slower rate and is highly stable.
1) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is true but R is false 4) Both A and R are false.
114. Identify the figure cited below with correct description:

1) Brown alga - Ecotocarpus 2) Red alga - Polysiphonia

3) Green alga - Eudorina 4) Red alga – Porphyra
115. Which one of the following is involved in the production of large amount of CO2 which forms large
holes in swiss-cheese?
1) Cornybatcerium 2) Acetobacter 3) Thermoacetobacter 4) Propionibacterium
116. In secondary treatment (biological treatment), if microbes consume major part of the organic matter in
effluent, the BOD of the effluent will be:
1) Greatly increased 2) Significantly reduced 3) Not changed 4) More than one option
117. Which of the following is correct for transfer RNA?
1) Tertiary structure of tRNA appears as a Clover leaf
2) It is charged with amino acid at its 5’-end
3) Secondary structure is the actual structure of tRNA.
4) It is also called as sRNA (soluble RNA).

Pg. 12
118. The Cu1 and Cu2 are present in which of the following complex?
1) Complex- IV 2) Complex- II 3) Complex- I 4) Complex- III
119. The precursor of cytokinin is:
1) Cytosine 2) Adenine 3) Guanine 4) Uracil
120. Match the following columns-A and B correctly:
Column – A Column – B
A) Primary CO2 acceptor of C3 cycle I) OAA
B) Primary CO2 acceptor of C4 cycle II) PGA
C) Primary CO2 fixation product of C3 cycle III) PEP
D) Primary CO2 fixation product of C4 cycle IV) RuBP
V) PGAL
1) A-IV, B-II, C-V, D-I 2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II 4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
121. Identify the incorrect match of the following:
1) Ectocarpus – unicellular brown alga 2) Ulothrix – filamentous green alga
3) Gelidium – agar producing red alga 4) Volvox – colonial green alga
122. Lichens are pollution indicators because_________.
1) Lichens grow in polluted areas 2) Lichens show symbiosis
3) Fungi are the partners of lichens 4) They do not grow in polluted areas
123. The number of ATP formed by oxidative phosphorylation in aerobic respiration from one glucose
molecule is:
1) 34 2) 36 3) 38 4) 40
124. Statement-I: LHC is made up of a single molecule of Chlorophyll-a.
Statement-II: Reaction centers of photosystems are made up of hundreds of pigments bind with proteins.
1) Statement-I and statement-II are correct
2) Statement-I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
3) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
4) Both Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
125. Which is the correct statement w.r.t sclereids?
1) These are oval shaped 2) These are found in the soft parts of the plants
3) These are living cells 4) The lumen is highly reduced and wall is lignified.
126. Select the incorrect match of the following:
1) Pinus – Male and female cones are borne on different plants.
2) Marchantia – Gemmae.
3) Salvinia – Heterosporous fern.
4) Polysiphonia – Non-motile spores and non-motile gametes.
127. Match the following columns-A and B correctly:
Column – A Column -B
A) Incomplete dominance I) Skin colour in human
B) Co–dominance II) Sickle cell anaemia
C) Polygenic inheritance III) ABO blood groups in human
D) Point mutation IV) Intermediate size starch grains in pea
1) A-IV, B-I , C-III, D-II 2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV 4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
128. Which of the following amino acid does not show degeneracy?
1) Tyrosine 2) Tryptophan 3) Methionine 4) Phenylalanine

Pg. 13
129. Agarose gel electrophoresis is used:
1) For the amplification of DNA
2) To separate DNA fragments based on size
3) To check the progress of restriction enzyme digestion
4) Both 2 and 3
130. Cry I Ab and Cry II Ab genes of Bacillus thuringiensis produce toxins which control----------:
1) Cotton bollworms and Corn borer, respectively
2) Cotton bollworms and Cotton boll worms, respectively
3) Corn borers and Corn borers, respectively
4) Corn borers and Cotton bollworms, respectively
131. Which of the following eukaryote is used as symbiotic bio-fertilizer?
1) Azospirillum 2) Anabaena 3) Glomus 4) All of these
132. Match the following columns-A and B correctly:
Column – A Column – B
A) Collagen I) Lectin
B) Concanavalin-A II) Triple helix
C) Catalase III) Zinc
D) Carboxypeptidase IV) Heme
1) A-II, B-I , C-IV, D-III 2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
133. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t EMP- pathway?
1) Four ATP molecules are directly synthesized from substrate.
2) Two ATP molecules are utilised.
3) Acetyl Co- A is the key end product.
4) Two redox– equivalents are removed from 3-PGAL.
134. Assertion (A) : Chiasmata appears clearly in diplotene of meiosis-I.
Reason (R) : Dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs in diplotene of meiosis-I.
1) (A) is true and (R) is false
2) (A) and (R ) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3) Both (A) and (R ) are false.
4) (A) and (R ) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
135. Which of the following cell organelle does not belong to endomemrane system?
1) Golgi apparatus 2) Endoplasmic reticulum
3) Mitochondria 4) Both 1 and 2
SECTION -B
136. Which of the following is not a homopolymer ?
1) Inulin 2) Insulin 3) Cellulose 4) Starch
137. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t transcription unit:
1) It is present on mRNA.
2) Presence of promoter in a transcription unit defines the template and coding strands.
3) Promoter and terminator flank structural genes.
4) All the reference point while defining a transcription unit is made with coding strand.
138. Mobile electron carrier attached to outer side of inner membrane of mitochondria and mobile electron
carrier attached to inner side of thylakoid membrane of chloroplast are, respectively:
1) Plastocyanin and Cytochrome- C 2) Plastoquinone and Ubiquinone
3) Cytochrome- C and Plastocyanin 4) Plastocyanin and Cytochrome- C1

Pg. 14
139. S-I : The systematics is derived from a Latin word ‘systema’ which means systematic arrangement of
organisms.
S-II : Systematics considers evolutionary relationships among organisms.
1) Both S-I and S-II are correct 2) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
3) Only S-I is correct 4) Only S-II is correct
140. Match column – I with Column – II correctly:
Column – I Column – II
A) Auxins I) Stress/ wound response
B) Cytokinins II) Bakane disease
C) GA3 III) Xylem differentiation
D) ABA IV) Coconut milk
1) A-IV, B-III , C-II, D-I 2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II 4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
141. Which of the following is a constitutive gene of Lac- operon?
1) Lac- i 2) Lac- a 3) Lac- y 4) Lac- z
142. The cell organelle involved in lipids or steroids metabolism is:
1) RER 2) Golgi complex 3) SER 4) Ribosomes
143. Identify Y and X in the given diagram, respectively:

1) Root apical meristem and Central cylinder

2) Central cylinder and Protoderm
3) Central cylinder and Root apical meristem
4) Root apical meristem and Protoderm
144. Assertion (A): DNA is purified by using protease, RNase and ethanol treatment in r-DNA technology after
its isolation from a cell.
Reason (R): In order to cut DNA with restriction enzymes, it needs to be in pure form.
1) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is true, R is false
4) Both A and R are false.
145. Arrange the following in the ascending order of their number of carbon atoms:
A) Pyruvate B) α -ketoglutaric acid C) Malic acid D) Acetyl CoA
E) Citric acid
1) E B C A D 2) D A B C E 3) D A C B E 4) D A C E B
+
146. In cellular respiration, NAD acts as:
1) Coenzyme 2) Electron carrier 3) Source of ATP 4) Both 1 and 2
147. DNA replication occurs in a semiconservative method. This was first proposed by:
1) Harshey and Chase 2) Messelson and Stahl
3) Nirenberg and Ochoa 4) Watson and Crick

Pg. 15
148. Match the following columns-A and B correctly:
Column – A Column -B
A) DNA ligase I) Acts as an invitro RNA polymerase
B) RTase II) Depends on template and primer
C) Ochoa enzyme III) RNA is the template
D) Taq-polymerase IV) Template and primer independent enzyme
1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II 2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II 4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
149. The body of the ovule fuses with the funicle in the region called:
1) Chalaza 2) Micropyle 3) Integuments 4) Hilum
150. In which of the following family, highly reduced perianth is seen?
1) Solanaceae 2) Poaceae 3) Asteraceae 4) Fabaceae
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A
151. Among the ‘Evil Quartet’, which one is considered the most important cause driving extinction of
species:
1. Over exploitation for economic gain 2. Alien species invasion
3. Co – Extinctions 4. Habitat loss and fragmentation
152. Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels is called:
1. Stratification 2. Biome 3. Biotope 4. Species composition
153. In the given expression “GPP – R = NPP”, the ‘R’ stands for:
1. A part of the productivity utilized by the plant for respiration.
2. A part of the productivity utilized by the primary consumer for respiration
3. A part of the productivity utilized by the primary carnivore for respiration
4. All the above listed are valid
154. Amensalism is an association between two species where:
1. One species is harmed and the other is benefitted.
2. One species is harmed and the other is unaffected.
3. One species is benefitted and the other is unaffected.
4. Both the species are harmed.
155. In a geographical area, death of several members of a population due to natural calamities and the
original size of population is then restored by mating among the survivor. The new population may lack
the gene of certain traits. This type of genetic drift is known as:
1. Gene flow 2. Bottleneck effect 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Lost effect
156. The second heart sound (dub) is associated with the closure of:
1. Tricuspid valve 2. Semilunar valve 3. Bicuspid valve 4. AV Valves.
157. Match the following:
List – I List – II
A. Proboscis, collar and trunk I. Loligo
B. Water vascular system II. Spongilla
C. Head, foot and hump III. Cockroach
D. Head, thorax and abdomen IV. Saccoglossus.
E. Water canal system V. Echinus
Choose the correct combination:
1. A – IV, B – V, C – I, D – III, E – II 2. A – III, B – V, C – II, D – I, E – IV
3. A – V, B – IV, C – II, D – III, E – I 4. A – IV, B – V, C – III, D – I, E – II

Pg. 16
158. Which of the following is not an invasive alien species in the Indian context?
1. Lantana 2. Mangifera 3. Parthenium 4. Eicchornia
159. ADA is an enzyme which is deficient in a genetic disorder of immune system called SCID. What is the
full form of ADA?
1. Adenosine deoxyaminase 2. Adenosine deaminase
3. Aspartate deaminase 4. Arginine deaminase
160. Statement – I: Among the Ctenophores only sexual reproduction is observed.
Statement – II: In Ctenophores sexes are not separate.
1. Both the statement – I and II are correct 2. Only Statement – I is correct
3. Only statement – II is correct 4. Both the statements – I and II are incorrect
161. In kidney, the filtration of blood takes place at:
1. PCT 2. DCT 3. CD 4. Glomerulus
162. Assertion (A): Less than 2% of the human genome codes for proteins.
Reason (R): Repeated sequences make up very large poprtion of the human genome.
1. Both A and R are true. R is a clear explanation to A.
2. Both A and R are true. R is not a clear explanation to A.
3. A is true and R is false
4. Both A and R are false
163. Which of the following endocrine gland exist in pairs:
1. Testes 2. Adrenal gland 3. Thymus gland 4. More than one option
164. Statement – I: Volume of inspired air during a normal respiration is tidal volume.
Statement – II: Volume of expired air during a normal respiration is tidal volume.
1. Both the statements – I and II are correct
2. Both the statements – I and II are incorrect
3. Statement – I is only correct
4. Statement – I is incorrect whereas statement – II is correct.
165. Which of the following symbol represents consanguineous marriage?

166. Match the causative organism and disease:

A Haemophilus influenza I Malignant Malaria
B Entamoeba histolytica II Elephantiasis
C Plasmodium falcifarum III Pneumonia
D Wuchereria bancrofti IV Typhoid
E Salmonella typhi V Amoebiasis
1. A – I, B – V, C – III, D – II, E – IV 2. A – III, B – V, C – I, D – II, E – IV
3. A – V, B – I, C – III, D – IV, E – II 4. A - I, B – III, C – II, D - V, E – IV
167. Read the given statements and select the CORRECT one:
Statement (A): Cardiac arrest is the state of heart when it is not pumping the blood effectively to meet
the needs of the body.
Statement (B): When the heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply, it is called
heart attack.
1. Both statements A and B are correct 2. Both statements A and B are incorrect
3. Only statement A is correct 4. Only statement B is correct.
168. India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans like ‘family planning program’
in _______.
1. 1977 2. 1951 3. 1941 4. 1971
Pg. 17
169. Stanley Miller performed his experiment at ______ temperature:
1. 33oC 2. 500oC 3. 100oC 4. 800oC
170. In Mollusca, the mantle cavity is:
1. The space between the visceral hump and head.
2. The apsce between the foot and head
3. The space between the visceral hump and the mantle.
4. The space above the head and below the mantle.
171. Nissl’s granules are not found in:
1. Cell body 2. Axon 3. Dendrites 4. Both 1 and 3
172. Match the following structures of the female reproductive system with their respective functions and
select the correct option:
Column – I Column – II
A Ovaries I Production of Ova
B Fallopian tube II Site of fertilization
C Uterus III Implantation and development of the embryo
D Cervix IV Passage of menstrual blood and childbirth
E Vagina V Sexual intercourse and childbirth
1. A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV, E – V 2. A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – V, E – II
3. A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV, E – V 4. A – I, B – II, C – V, D – IV, E – III
173. Match the following organisms with their respective characteristics:
(a). Pila (i) Flame cells
(b). Bombyx (ii) Comb Plates
(c). Pterobranchi (iii) Radula
(d). Taenia (iv) Malpighian Tubules
Select the correct option
1. a–ii, b–iv, c–iii, d–i 2. a–iv, b–ii, c–iii, d–i 3. a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv 4. a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i
174. Which of the following disease is related to the hormones secreted from the structures marked ‘A’ in the
given figure:

A. Goitre B. Cretinism C. Acromegaly D. Gigantism

E. Adison’s Disease F. Diabetes insipidus
1. A, B, C, D and E 2. C, D and E 3. Only F 4. Only C
175. The animal phyla showing two different types of symmetry in their life span is:
1. Arthropoda 2. Ctenophora 3. Echinodermata 4. Annelida
176. Assertion (A): Human genome project was called mega project.
Reason (R): Human genome project was coordinated by the US Department of energy and the national
institute of Health.
1. Both A & R are correct. R is the explanation to A
2. Both A & R are correct, but R doesn’t explains A
3. A is true, R is false
4. Both the statements are incorrect

Pg. 18
177. Match the column – I with column – II:
Column – I Column – II
A Platelet I Resist infection
B Systole II Gas transport
C Eosinophil III Universal receipient
D AB blood groep IV Cooagulation
E RBC V Contraction of Heart
1. A – I, B – V, C – II, D – IV, E – III 2. A – V, B – II, C – I, D – III< E – IV
3. A – IV, B – V, C – I, D – III, E – II 4. A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV, E – V
178. Read out the following characters:
A. Digestion is both extracellular and Intracellular. B. Bioluminescence is well marked.
C. Reproduction occurs only sexually. D. Indirect development.
These features can be observed in
1. Ctenoplana 2. Petromyzon 3. Balanoglossus 4. Hydra
179. The figure given below is a skeletal structure of:

1. Morphine 2. Cannabinoid 3. Cocaine 4. LSD

180. ‘we save the entire forest to save the tiger’ – this approach is called:
1. On – site conservation 2. Ex – situ conservation
3. Off – site conservation 4. Both 1 and 2
181. Match List – I with List – II with reference to certain phenomenon and its venue:
A. Gametogenesis I. Uterus
B. Insemination II. Fallopian tubule
C. Fertilizaton III. Vagina
D. Implantation IV. Primary sex organs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1. A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I 2. A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
3. A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV 4. A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
182. Myotonic dystrophy is an example of:
1. Autosomal dominant disorder 2. Autosomal recessive disorder
3. Sex linked recessive disorder 4. Sex linked dominant disorder
183. Match List – I with List – II:
List – I List – II
A. Metamerism I. Coelenterata
B. Canal System II. Ctenophora
C. Comb plates III. Annelida
D. Cnidoblast IV. Porifera
Choose the CORRECT answers from the options given below
1. A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III 2. A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II
3. A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III 4. A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
184. Heart stops beating is recognized as:
1. Heart block 2. Heart attack 3. Heart failure 4. Cardiac arrest
Pg. 19
185. Correctly match the content in column – I with column – II:
Column – I Column – II
A Appendicular skeleton I 12
B Cranial bones II 14
C Axial skeleton III 126
D Vertebrosternal ribs IV 80
E Thoracic vertebrae V 8
1. A – I, B – V, C – II, D – III, E – IV 2. A – III, B – V, C – IV, D – II, E – I
3. A – IV, B – III, C – V, D – I, E – II 4. A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV, E – V
SECTION – B
186. In a population of 2000 individuals, 960 belong to genotype ‘Aa’ and 320 to ‘aa’. Based on this data the
frequency of allele ‘A’ in the population is:
1. 0.7 2. 0.8 3. 0.4 4. 0.6
187. Pectoral girdle and Pelvic girdle bones help in:
1. Articulation of upper limb with lower limb.
2. Articulation of the upper and lower limbs respectively with appendicular skeleton.
3. Articulation of the upper and lower limbs respectively with axial skeleton.
4. Articulation of only upper limb with axial skeleton.
188. The expiratory reserve volume is:
1. 1000 mL to 11oo mL 2. 4000 mL to 4500 mL.
3. 2000 mL to 3000 mL 4. 5000 mL to 6500 mL.
189. Read the following statement carefully and choose correct:
Statement (A): The Indian Parliament has recently cleared the second amendment of the Indian Patent
Bill.
Statement (B): In 2022, an American company got patent right on Basmati rice.
1. Both statement A and B are incorrect 2. Only statement A is correct
3. Only statement B is correct 4. Both statement A and B are correct
190. Hormones that interact with membrane bound receptors normally do not enter the target cells, but
generate second messengers which in turn regulate cellular metabolism. This is not true in case of
1. Amino acid derivative hormone 2. Insulin and Glucagon
3. Steroid and Iodothyronines 4. Pituitary hormones
191. Frogs:
1. Are Uricotelic
2. Have olfactory lobes in the midbrain
3. Do not have renal portal system
4. Have lymphatic system
192. Choose the incorrect statement about human respiratory system:
1. Trachea divides at the level of 5th thoracic vertebra.
2. Pharynx is common passage for food and air.
3. Haemoglobin is red coloured copper containing pigmant.
4. Outer pleural membrane is in close contact with thoracic lining
193. The hormones responsible for the conditional reabsorption of Na+ and Water are respectively:
1. Aldosterone and Anti Diuretic Hormone
2. Vasopressin and Oxytocin
3. Vasopressin and Anti Diuretic Hormone
4. Anti Diuretic Horome and Atrial Natriuretic Peptide.

Pg. 20
194. What is the figure given below showing in particular?

1. Tubectomy 2. Orchiopexy 3. Vasectomy 4. Castration

195. The correct sequence in the evolution of modern man is:
1. Dryopithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens.
2. Australopithecus → Dryopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens.
3. Homo habilis → Dryopithecus → Australopithecus → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens.
4. Dryopithecus → Homo habilis → Australopithecus → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens.
196. Match the column – I with column – II
Coilumn – I Column – II
A XX – XO I Birds
B ZW – ZZ II Grasshopper
C XX – XY III Human
D Haplodiploidy IV Honeybee
1. A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV 2. A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III
3. A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II 4. A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
197. Dengue and Chikungunya are:
1. Bacterial infections 2. Viral infections
3. Helminthic infections 4. Former is bacterial and later is viral.
198. Match the column – I with column – II:
Column – I Column – II
A Barrier method I. Periodic abstinecce
B Chemical method II. Multiload - 375
C Copper based method III. Nirodh
D Natural method IV. Pills
1. A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV 2. A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II
3. A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III 4. A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
199. A sugar which acts as a sperm fuel is secreted by which gland:
1. Mammary gland 2. Skinnes gland 3. Pituitary gland 4. Seminal vesicle
200. Blood cells are the components of:
1. Dense connective tissue 2. Specialized connective tissue
3. Dense irregular connective tissue 4. Areolar connective tissue

*** The End ***

Pg. 21
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 21.12.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-16 Max.Marks: 720
KEY
PHYSICS
1. 2 2. 4 3. 4 4. 4 5. 2 6. 3 7. 4 8. 3 9. 3 10. 1
11. 1 12. 3 13. 2 14. 1 15. 4 16. 2 17. 3 18. 4 19. 1 20. 2
21. 3 22. 1 23. 1 24. 4 25. 1 26. 2 27. 1 28. 2 29. 2 30. 2
31. 2 32. 2 33. 3 34. 2 35. 3 36. 2 37. 2 38. 3 39. 1 40. 4
41. 3 42. 1 43. 1 44. 2 45. 3 46. 1 47. 2 48. 2 49. 1 50. 3

CHEMISTRY

51. 1 52. 2 53. 2 54. 3 55. 3 56. 2 57. 1 58. 3 59. 1 60. 3
61. 2 62. 1 63. 2 64. 1 65. 2 66. 1 67. 3 68. 3 69. 4 70. 4
71. 1 72. 2 73. 2 74. 4 75. 4 76. 2 77. 2 78. 3 79. 3 80. 1
81. 3 82. 4 83. 3 84. 2 85. 3 86. 3 87. 3 88. 2 89. 2 90. 3
91. 1 92. 2 93. 2 94. 1 95. 3 96. 2 97. 3 98. 3 99. 2 100.4

BOTANY

101.3 102.4 103.3 104.2 105.4 106.2 107.3 108.1 109.4 110.1
111.4 112.4 113.3 114.4 115.4 116.2 117.4 118.1 119.2 120.2
121.1 122.4 123.1 124.4 125.4 126.1 127.2 128.2 129.4 130.4
131.3 132.1 133.3 134.2 135.3 136.2 137.1 138.3 139.1 140.4
141.1 142.3 143.3 144.1 145.3 146.4 147.4 148.3 149.4 150.2

ZOOLOGY

151. 4 152. 1 153. 1 154. 2 155. 2 156. 2 157. 1 158. 2 159. 2 160. 1
161. 4 162. 2 163. 4 164. 1 165. 2 166. 2 167. 4 168. 2 169. 4 170. 3
171. 2 172. 1 173. 4 174. 3 175. 3 176. 2 177. 3 178. 1 179. 2 180. 1
181. 4 182. 1 183. 4 184. 4 185. 2 186. 4 187. 3 188. 1 189. 2 190. 3
191. 4 192. 3 193. 1 194. 3 195. 1 196. 1 197. 2 198. 4 199. 4 200. 2

PAPER SETTERS
SNO DIVISION SUBJECT NAME MOBILE NO
1 VIJ-N-ELITE-CO PHYSICS Mr. VVRK 91823 75936
2 VIJ-N-ELITE-CO CHEMISTRY Mr. Nagaiah 98496 55655
3 VIJ-N-ELITE-CO BOTANY Dr. S.N. Rasool 90001 06103
4 VIJ-N-ELITE-CO ZOOLOGY Dr. Shafeek 97000 06360

Pg. 1
 Solutions R2 5
Also Z  R 2  (X L  X C ) 2  R2   R
1. (2) 4 2

L2 dg (8 102 ) 2 1.5 10 6. (3)

l   9 . 6  10 11 m
2Y 2  5 10 8 Q  U  W  0  W   U
2. (4) if  W is positive i.e., gas does work then  U
Distance between the first dark fringes on should be negative meaning internal energy
either side of central maxima = width of is used in doing work.
2D 9 7. (4)
central maxima = = 2  600  103  2 =
d 1  10 0. 1
E  mc 2 , m   10  3 kg
2.4 mm. 100
3. (4)  E  10 3  (3  10 8 )2  10 3  9  10 16  9  10 13 J .
A) As the block is moving with variable 8. (3)
velocity Equation of motion y  a cos t
i.e, has acceleration along the surface of 
a 1
 a cos t  cos t   t 

plane. 2 2 3
The block may topple and may have torque 
T
2t  4 2
 Generally we can’t say whether A.M.C can be   t 3   sec
T 3 2 32 3
applied (or) not
9. (3)
B) If toppling is possible then normal will act
somewhere in between midpoint of AB and B.
In liming case, normal will act at B.
4. (4)
Initial State

pnet  p 2  p 2  2 pp cos 60   3 p  3 ql
60 30 ( p = ql)
10. (1)
30º P .Q  0  a 2  2a  3  0  a  3

30 3 11. (1)
u2 1
H max   H max 
2g g
required state On planet B value of g is 1 / 9 times to that of
90 A. So value of H max will become 9 times i.e.
2  9  18 metre

12. (3)
60º Q  l 4000  0 .1
    100 o C
V KAt 400  10  2
30 3 13. (2)
vertical velocity = 90 m/s E E 18
is not possible c B   6  10 8 T .
B c 3  10 8
14. (1)
W 2  10 4
T   2  10  2 N /m
5. (2) A 2  (50  10 4 )
X L  R, X C  R / 2
15. (4)
R N 1
R q ( )   (10  2)  4 C
XL  XC 2  1
 tan    R 2
R R 2
   tan 1 (1 / 2)
16. (2)

Pg. 2
 kT 26. (2)
As   . By increasing  two times
2 d 2 P Y
pressure will become half. 
17. (3) B
RT T vsin 
Velocity of sound in gas v  v
M M

v N2  N2
7
R4 vcos X
M 3
   He  5 
v He  He M H2 5 5
3
R  28 Force due to magnetic field acts as centripetal
18. (4) force. The axis of helix is x axis.
After absorbing 8ev it get 1st collision energy Bqvsin 
10
loss  8ev   0.8ev 27. (1)
100
Hysteresis loss in the core of transformer
Remaining energy = 7.2 ev
directly proportional to the hysteresis loop
After 2nd collision energy loss
area of the core material. Since soft iron has
10
 7.2   0.72ev narrow hysteresis loop area, that is why soft
100 iron core is used in the transformer.
7.20  0.72  6.48ev 28. (2)
After coming out due to work function From the graph stopping potential |Vs|= –V
KE  6.48ev  2ev  4.48ev Also kmax = (|V0|eV = 4e
1
19. (1) n  n1l1  n2 l2  29. (2)
l
(n  4 )49  (n  4 )50  n  396
20. (2)
E
Specific resistance k 
j
21. (3)
2 30. (2)
R1  l1 
  , If l1  100 then l2 = 110 W  MB (1  cos  ); where   180 o
R2  l2 
2  W  2 MB  W  2  2  5  10 3  2  10 2 J
R1  100 
    R 2  1 . 21 R 1 31. (2)
R2  110 
R2  R1
Power is zero at antinodes.
% change  100  21 %
There would be no transfer of energy from
R1
22. (1) left half to right half but power  0 in left
V 0. 5 half so there is energy transfer among
E   10 6 V / m .
d 5  10 7 particles in left half.
23. (1) 32. (2) 
c sin i sin 45 o
 
h h 6 .63  10 34 v sin r sin 30 o
 p   3 .31  10 28 kg- m / sec
p  2  10  6 3  10 8
 v  2. 12  10 8 m / s
24. (4) 2
AS, BP, CQ, DR 33. (3)
25. (1) Let distance between lenses be x . As per the
F.d given condition, combination behaves as a
Emf is  9 plane glass plate, having focal length  .
1 1 1 x
So by using   
F is a non conservational force F f1 f2 f1 f2
B is definite is true. 1 1 1 x
     x  20 cm
  30  10 (30 )(10 )

Pg. 3
34. (2) In both cylinders A and B the gases are
The schematic diagram of distribution of diatomic ( = 1.4). Piston A is free to move
charges on x-axis is shown in figure below : i.e. it is isobaric process. Piston B is fixed i.e.
1C
it is isochoric process. If same amount of heat
1C 1C 1C 1C
Q is given to both then
O x =1 x =2 x =4 x =8 (Q )isobaric  (Q)isochoric   C p (T )A   Cv (T )B
Total force acting on 1 C charge is given by Cp
 (T )B  (T )A   (T )A  1.4  30  42 K.
1  1  1  10 6 1  1  10 6 Cv
F  
4 0  (1)2 (2)2
41. (3)
1  1  10 6
1  1  10 6  D 5000  10 10  1
   ....     m  5  10  3 m  0 .5 cm .
(4 )2 (8 )2  d 0 . 1  10  3
  42. (1)
10  6  1 1 1  1 
1  9 6   dx
      ...    9  10  10 v  3  8 t  3t 2
4  0  1 4 16 64   1 
1  dt
 4 
4 4
 v0  3 m / s and v 4  19 m /s
 9  10 9  10  6   9  10 3  = 12000 N
3 3 1
W m(v 42  v02 ) (According to work energy
35. (3) 2

Potential at centre O of the square theorem)

1
  0 .03  (19 2  3 2 )  5. 28 J
2

43. (1)
 1   1  3
 Q    tan   1  2   tan 30  1  2  
VO  4    n   2  4
 4  (a / 2 ) 
 0 
44. (2)
Work done in shifting (– Q) charge from Let the e.m.f. of cell be E and internal
centre to infinity W   Q (V  VO )  QV0 E
resistance be r. Then 0. 5  and
4 2Q 2
2Q 2 (r  2)
 
4  0 a  0 a E
0 . 25 
(r  5 )
36. (2)
5 r
  R  100  
V
 100 
I
 100 On dividing, 2  r  1
2 r
 R  max V I
5 0. 2 45. (3)
  100   100  (5  2)% = 7%
100 10 V '  V  IR

37. (2) = 0.5 + 0.1  20 = 2.5 V

K
t

4  10 3
8
46. (1)
t  d ' 4  10  3  3 . 5  10  3 3 /2 3/2
B center  x2  B   4 2  125
38. (3)  1  2   center   1     
Baxis  r  54  3  27
 
1  1 1  1 1  3R
Wave number  R 2  2   R    B center  250 T
  1
n n 2 
  4 16  16
47. (2)
39. (1) The magnetic field due to small element of
Let the percentage of B 10 atoms be x, then conductor of length is given by
Average atomic weight  0 Idl sin
10 x  11(100  x ) N B 10 dB 
19 4 r2
  10 .81  x  19  
100 N B11 81
This value will be maximum when
40. (4) sin  1  sin 90 or,   90
48. (2)

Pg. 4
 dp dv m  2v 2  2  100 50. (3)
F m  =  2  10 4 N
dt dt 1/50 1/50
K.E.= 2 E0– E0 = E0 (for 0  x  1) 
49. (1) h
If body is projected with velocity v (v  v e )
1 
2m E0
R
then height up to which it will rise, h h
ve2
2
1 K.E. = 2 E0 (for x > 1)  2 
v 4m E0
ve R R R
v (given)  h   1
  2.
2
2  ve  4 1 3
  2
 v /2   1
 e 

Pg. 5
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 28.12.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-17 Max.Marks: 720
Important Instructions:
In ever y s u bject:
( a ) In Section – A , 3 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. A n s w er all 3 5 qu estion s from section – A
( b ) In Section – B , 1 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. O ut of w hich A n s w er 1 0 qu estion s onl y .
(c) E ach qu estion c a rries 4 m a r k s. F or e ach correct respon se w ill get 4 m a r k s. F or e ach
incorrect respon se, one m a r k w ill be d e d ucte d from th e tot al scores.

PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. The circuit diagram shown here corresponds to the logic gate

1) OR 2) AND 3) NOR 4) NAND

2. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer.
Statement(A): Zener diode is used in reverse bias for using as a voltage regulator.
Statement (B): Zener diode cannot be used in forward bias.
1) Both the statements are correct.
2) Both the statements are correct.
3) Statement(A) is correct while (B) is incorrect
4) Statement (B) is correct while (A) is incorrect.
3. The density of a material in S.I. units is 192 kg m-3. In certain units in which the unit of length is
25cm and the unit of mass is 50 gm, the numerical value of density of material is
1) 640 2) 60 3) 410 4) 56
4. The dimensional formula for Boltzman’s constant is
1) ML2T 2 K 1 2) ML0T 2 K 1 3) ML2T 2 K 1 4) ML2T 2 K
5. A helium atom, a hydrogen atom and a neutron have masses of 4.003 u, 1.008 u and 1.009 u (unified
atomic mass units), respectively. Assuming that hydrogen atoms and neutrons can fuse to form
helium, what is the binding energy of a helium nucleus?
1) 2.01 u 2) 3.031 u 3) 1.017 u 4) 0.031 u
6. The ratio of energies of hydrogen atom in its first excited state to third excited state is
1) 4:1 2) 3:2 3) 1:9 4) 2:3
7. A given circuit consists of three resistors and an ideal battery of emf 24V as shown in the figure.
Current passing through the resistor 6  , will be .

8 4 2
1) 4A 2) A 3) A 4) A
3 3 3
Pg. 1
8. Time period of a simple pendulum attached with the ceiling of a truck is 4 seconds, When the truck
Was at rest. If truck starts moving with an acceleration of 10ms-2 along horizontal then time period of
pendulum becomes Use g  10m / s 2 
4 4
1) 21/2S 2) 4  21/2 S 3) 1/ 4
S 4) 1/ 2 S
2 2
9. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the assumptions of kinetic theory of gases ?
1) Collision between the molecules of gases and with the walls of the container are elastic .
2) Number of molecules in the sample should be of the order of moles
3) Gas molecules have some intermolecular forces of attraction
4) Gas molecules have negligible volume
10. A hollow prism having refracting angle 6o0 is filled with a liquid having refractive index  . If angle
of minimum deviation produced by the prism is 30o , then value of  will be .
3
1) 2 2) 2 3) 3 4)
2
11. In figure, after closing switch S, what is the change in current flowing through A? The battery is
ideal

1) No change 2) Decreases 3) Increases 4) Cannot say

12. An object is placed at a distance of 30cm in front of a concave mirror having focal length 20cm.
Which of the following is correct about the image formed?
1) Image forms at a distance of 60 cm from mirror
2) Image formed will be effect
3) Image will be real and inverted
4) Both (1) and (3)
13. Two particle of mass 1 kg each are put at (3,4) m and (1,2) m. The moment of inertia of the system
about Z-axis in kg m2 will be
1)20 2) 30 3) 10 4) 15.
14. The kinetic energy of a rotating wheel is 100 J and its angular momentum has a magnitude of 50Js.
Then its moment of inertia will be
1) 12.5kgm2 2) 25kgm2 3) 8kgm2 4) 16 kgm2
15. When the temperature of 0.5 mol of a gas is changed from 1000C to 1200C keeping the volume
constant, the change in internal energy of the gas is 80J. the heat in internal energy of the gas is 80j.
The heat capacity of the gas at constant volume will be
1) 2J/K 2) 8J/K 3) 4J/k 4) 1J/k
16. Two identical flutes produce fundamental notes of frequency 300Hz at 270C. If the temperature of air
In one flute increases to 310C, the number of beats observed per second will be
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
17. If 100 joule of work must be done to move an electric change of -2C from a point, where potential is
-10 volt to another point, where potential is V volt, the value of V is
1) -50 2) -60 3) 30 4) 40
Pg. 2
18. A man is 100m behind a bus and he tries to catch it. The bus is moving with 8m/s and the man starts
Running to wards it with 2m/s2. The time taken by the man to catch the bus will be
1) 4 S 
2) 4  2 29 S  
3) 4  2 29 S  
4) 2  29 S 
19. The acceleration due to gravity on earth’s surface is g, then its value at height R is (R is radius of
earth)
g g g
1) 2) g 3) 4)
4 8 2
20. Suppose you want to cool 200g of lemon water (Specific heat 4200J kg-1K-1) at 300C by adding ice
At -100C. The amount of ice that should be added, so that the final temperature becomes 00C with all
the final temperature becomes 00C with all ice melt is
(Specific heat of ice=2000 J kg-1k-1 and
1) 30g 2) 50g 3) 120g 4) 71g
21. A spherical shell of mean radius 2m has a point heat source of power 100  kw at its centre. The
material of the shell has thermal conductivity 80W/mk. If the temperature difference between the
outer and the temperature difference between the outer and the inner surface of the shell is not to
exceed 250C, then the thickness of the shell should not be less than
1) 64cm 2) 32cm 3) 6.4cm 4) 3.2cm
22. Which rays are not part of electromagnetic spectrum ?
1) X-rays 2)  -rays 3) Radio waves 4) Ultraviolet
23. A uniformly charged solid sphere of radius R has electric field E on its surface, then the value of
R
Electric field at distance from its centre is
2
3E E
1) Zero 2) 3) E 4)
2 2
24. Which of the following is incorrect regarding electrostatic field ?
1) It originates from positive charge
2) It terminates on negative charge
3) It can from closed loops
4) Two electrostatic field lines do not intersect .

25. A body has acceleration a  3tiˆ  2t 2 ˆj if body starts from rest then the ratio of Vx and Vy at t=2 sec
will be
6 9 4
1) 3 2) 3) 4)
1 8 3
26. A bullet is fired from a gun then select the correct option, (neglect the support provided to gun)
1) Rate of change of momentum of bullet and gun will be same
2) Rate of change of momentum of bullet will be greater than gun
3) Rate of change of momentum of gun will be greater than bullet
4) All of these .
27. Consider the statement about the work done by friction below and select the correct option,
1) Work done by friction is always positive
2) Work done by friction is always negative.
3) Work done by friction is always zero
4) Work done by friction may be positive, negative or zero.
28. The time period of oscillation of a bar magnet in magnetic field B having magnetic moment M for
small angular displacement will be
I MB IB IM
1) T  2 2) T  2 3) T  2 4) T  2
MB I M B
Pg. 3
29. In the diagrams given below coupling constant will be minimum for .

1) 2) 3) 4) Equal for all three

30. The equation of current flowing through a circuit is given by i=(t-1)3 then the average value of
current for first two seconds will be
3 1
1) 0 A 2) 6 A 3) A 4) A
4 8
31. A horizontal pipe of cross-sectional diameter 4cm carries water at a speed of 6m/s. The pipe is
connected to a smaller pipe with a cross-sectional diameter 2cm. The velocity of the water through
the smaller pipe is
1) 12m / s 2) 14m / s 3) 18m / s 4) 24 m / s
32. In Young’s double-slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen, where the path
difference is  , is I. The intensity of light at a point where the path difference becomes  / 3 is
I I I
1) 2) 3) 4) I
4 3 2
33. Invar, an alloy of iron and nickle remains almost dimensionally stable with temperature change
because
1) Very low coefficient of thermal expansion
2) very low coefficient of thermal expansion
3) Very low value of young’s modulus of elasticity
4) Very high value of young’s modulus of elasticity
34. A candidate connects a moving coil voltmeter V, a moving coil ammeter A, and a resistor R as shown
in figure. If the voltmeter reads 20 V and the ammeter reads 4 A, R is

1) Equal to 5
2) Greater than 5
3) Less than 5
4) Greater or less than 5 depending upon its material
35. A solenoid 50 cm long has 4 layers of winding of 800 truns each. If the current carried is 12 A, then
Magnetic field at the Centre of solenoid is.
1) 9.64 102 T 2) 9.42 104 T 3) 1.2 102 4) 6.48 102 T
SECTION -B
36. In Young’s double-slit experiment, how many maximas can be obtained on a screen (including the
 o

central maximum) on both sides of the central fringe    2000 A  ?
 
1) 12 2) 7 3) 18 4) 4

Pg. 4
37. A non-viscous liquid is flowing through a frictionless duct, with cross-section varying as shown in
figure.

Which of the following graph best represent the variation of pressure P along the axis of tube?

38. If light of frequency 5.11014 Hz is incident on the metal, cut-off voltage for photoelectric emission
is 2.03V. The threshold frequency is
(h  6.63  10 34 Js; e  1.6 10 19 C )
1) 0.2 1014 Hz 2) 3.2 1014 Hz 3) 5.4 1014 Hz 4) 1.2 1014 Hz
39. When on impurity is doped into an intrinsic semiconductor, the conductivity of the semiconductor
1) Increases 2) Decreases 3) Remains the same 4) Becomes zero
40. If momentum (P), area (A) and time (T) are taken to be the fundamental quantities then the
dimensional formula for energy is
1)  P1/ 2 AT 1  2)  P 2 AT 2  3)  PA1/ 2T 1  4)  PA1T 2 
41. A metal coin is at the bottom of a beaker filled up to a height of 8 cm. The refractive index of the
5
liquid is . To an observer looking from above the surface of the liquid, the coin appears raised
3
Up by
1) 4.8 cm 2) 1.6 cm 3) 3.2cm 4) 2.8cm
42. Two cells A and B of emf 4V and 3V respectively, are connected as shown in figure through an
external resistance 10 . If internal resistance of each cell is 2 than potential difference EA and EB
across the terminals of the cells A and B respectively are

31 35 27 22 22 31
1) 4V , 3V 2) V, V 3) V, V 4) V, V
4 7 7 7 7 4
43. A man of mass 40kg is standing on a uniform plank of mass 60kg lying on horizontal frictionless ice.
The man walks from one end to the other end of plank. The distance walked by the man relative to
ice is (given length of plank =5m)
1) 2 m 2) 3m 3) 5 m 4) 4 m

Pg. 5
 x 
44. The equation of a stationary wave is y  0.8cos   sin 200 t where x is in cm and t is in s. The
 20 
separation between consecutive nodes will be
1) 20 cm 2) 10 cm 3) 40 cm 4) 30 cm
45. In the circuit below, if a dielectric is inserted into C1 then the change on C2 will

1) Increase 2) Decrease 3) Remain same 4) Be halved

46. In a cyclic process
1) Work done is always zero 2) Heat Supplied is always zero
3) Change in internal energy is always Zero 4) All of these
47. An artificial satellite is moving in a circular obit (of radius r) around the earth the earth and its orbital
1
speed is equal to rd of the escape speed from the earth’s surface. The value of r in terms of radius
3
of earth R is.
9R 3R 9R
1) 3R 2) 3) 4)
2 2 4
48. The extension in the spring in the situation given below will be (all surfaces are smooth and F1>F2)

F1M 1  F2 M 2 F1M 1  F2 M 2 F1M 2  M 1F2 F1M 2  F2 M1

1) 2) 3) 4)
K  M1  M 2  K  M1  M 2  K  M1  M 2  K  M1  M 2 
49. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on a rough horizontal surface the co-efficient of friction between the
block and surface is 0.5. A force of 10 N is acting on the body at an angle 300 with the horizontal
work done by friction force in one second will be

1) 0 J 2) 10J 3) 5J 4) 6 J
50. A capacitor of capacitance 2  F is connected across 20V 50Hz supply then the approximate
Value of Capacitive reactance will be.
1) 1592 2) 2000 3) 15.92 4) 200
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. In a compound, C=40% and H=6.66%. are present, what is the empirical formula of the compound?
1) CH 2O 2) C4 HO4 3) CHO 4) CH 2O
52. Ambidentate ligand among the following is
1) H2O 2) en 3) NH3 4) CN-

Pg. 6
53. Half-life of a first order reaction with rate constant of 0.02s-1 will be nearly
1) 69.3 s 2) 34.65 s 3) 100 s 4) 50 s
54. Sec-butyl alcohol on reaction with l2 and NaOH majorly gives
1) CH 2 l2 and CH 3COONa 2) CHl3 and CH 3CH 2 COONa
3) CH 3l and CH 3CH 3CH 2CH 2  OH 4) Cl4 and CH3CH2COONa
55. Correct order of ionic radii of the given species is
1) Nd 3  Tb3  Tm3 2) Tm3  Tb3  Nd 3
3) Tb3  Nd 3  Tm3 4) Tb3  Tm3  Nd 3
56. Match the compounds given in list-I with their characteristic reactions in list-II and choose the correct
answer.
List-I(Compounds) List-II(Reactions)
a. CH 3
| i) Gives red colouration in victor
CH 3  C  CH 3 Meyer’s test
|
OH

b ii) Produces immediate turbidity with

Luca’s reagent

c CH 3CH 2CHO iii) Forms white precipitate with

bromine water
d C6 H 5CH 2OH iv) Forms silver mirror on reaction
with ammoniacal AgNO3 solution.
1) a(ii), b(iii) , c(i), d(iv) 2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii),d(iii)
3) a(iii),b(ii)c(iv), d(i) 4) a(ii),b(iii),c(iv),d(i)
57. Catalyst used in the given reaction is
CO  2 H 2 
Catalyst
200  300 atm
CH 3OH
573 673 K

1) Pd 2) Mo2O3 3) CuCl2 4) ZnO-Cr2O3

58. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. acidic character?
1) CH 3COOH  C6 H 5OH  EtOH

2) C6 H 5OH  CH 3COOH  EtOH

3) EtOH  CH 3COOH  C6 H 5OH

4) EtOH  C6 H 5OH  CH 3COOH

59. Basic amino acid among the following is

1) Lysine 2) Glutamicacid 3) Isoleucine 4) Alanine
60. In DNA, C joins with ………. base by ………hydrogen bonds.
1) A,2 2) G,3 3) T,2 4) U,3
61. What is the Ecell of the following adjustment? (log 13 = 1.119)

Ag  s  Ag   0.0001M  Mg 2  0.13M  Mg  s  ; Ecell

0
 3.17V
1) 3.38 V 2) 2.97 V 3) 3.17 V 4) 2.75 V

Pg. 7
62. Correct order of boiling points for the given compounds is

63. Which of the following compounds is most reactive towards SN2 reaction.

1) CH3-CI 2) 3) 4)
64. If the mass of an electron is 9.111031 kg, and uncertainty in position is 10 8 m, the uncertainty in
velocity would be:
1) 5.8  10 3 ms 1 2) 5.8  103 ms 1 3) 5.8  10 8 ms 1 4) 5.8  108 ms 1
The CFSE for octahedral  CoCl6  is corresponding to 18,000 (w.r.t wave number cm1 ). The CFSE
4
65.

tetrahedral  CoCl4  will be:

2
for
1) 18, 000cm1 2) 16, 000 cm 1 3) 8, 000cm 1 4) 20, 000cm 1
66. Which of the following statements (s) is/are true?
a. Molarity is the number of moles of solute dissolved per litre of solution.
b. Molarity is temperature independent concentration term.
c. Molality of a solution is defined as the number of moles of solute dissolved in 1000 g of solution
d. The ratio of mole fractions of solute and solvent is in the ratio of their respective moles.
1) a and c only 2) a and d only 3) b and c only 4) a only
st nd rd
67. For any H like species, the ratio of radii of 1 ,2 , and 3 orbits is.
1 1
1) 1:4:9 2) 1: : 3) 1: 2 : 3 4) 1:1:1
4 9
68. Given below are two statements.
Statement-I: Negative electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is greater than chlorine.
Statement-II: Ionisation enthalpy of fluorine is less than chlorine.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
69. For the equilibrium, C  s   CO2  g   2CO  g 
k p =60 atm at 1000K. If at equilibrium PCO  10 PCO , then the total pressure at equilibrium is
2

1) 6.1 atm 2) 6.6 atm 3) 0.6 atm 4) 66.6 atm

70. Assertion(A): PbI4 is a stable compound.
Reason(R): Iodide stabilises higher oxidation state.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4) Both the (A) and (R) are not correct.
Pg. 8
71. The correct order of stability of the following resonating structures is

1) x > y > z 2) z > y > x 3) y > x > z 4) y > z > x

72. Assertion(A): Nitrogen exhibits +5 oxidation state
Reason(R): Nitrogen does not form pentahalide
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4) Both the (A) and (R) are not correct.
o

73. PhNH 2 
HNO2 /0 c
 A 
HBF4
 B   c; c is :

1) PhN   N  BF4 

2)

3) 4) PhF
74. Out of the following 0.1 molal aqueous solutions which will have maximum freezing point ?
1) Glucose 2) Potassium chloride
3) Sodium sulphate 4) Aluminum sulphate
3
75. A solution containing 20 g per dm urea is isotonic with a 10% (W/V) solution of a non-volatile solute
‘B’. The molar mass of the solute ‘B’ is.
1) 100 g/mol 2) 200 g/mol 3) 300 g/mol 4) 600 g/mols
If  m of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa are x, y and z S cm2mol-1 respectively then  m of CH3COOH
o o
76.
will be.
1) z + y+ x 2) x- z -y 3) z + y- x 4) z – y – x
77 The following mechanism has been proposed for the reaction of NO with Br2 to form NOBr
NO  g   Br2  g  
 NOBr2  g 
NOBr2  g   NO  g  
 2 NOBr  g 
If the second step is the rate determining step, the order of reaction w.r.t NO(g) is :
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
78. Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be determined by:
1) determining the rate constant at standard temperature.
2) determining the rate constants at two temperatures.
3) determining probability of collisions.
4) using catalyst.

79. The ratio of distance of separation of electrodes to their area of cross section   is called ……. and
 A
is represented as ……….
1) resistance R 2) conductance
3) cell constant, G * 4) revert resistance, G *

Pg. 9
80. Using molecular orbital theory, predict which of the following species has the shortest bond length?
1) O2 2) O2 3) O22  4) O2
81. Which of the following species, do not show disproportionation reaction?
1) ClO- 2) ClO 4 3) ClO 3 4) ClO 2
82. Which of the following molecules has the maximum dipole moment?
1) NH 3 2) NF3 3) CO2 4) CH 4
83. Which of the following compounds can be best prepared by Wurtz reaction?
1) n-pentane 2) Isopentane 3) Isobutane 4) n-butane
84. The bond energies for A – A, B -B and A- B, are a, b and c kj mol 1 respectively. The  r H for the
1 1
reaction A2  B2  AB will be
2 2
a b a b
1) a  b  c 2) c   3) c  a  b 4)   c
2 2 2 2
85. Which among the following elements is unable to form a compound in 3 osadition state?
1) Al 2) TI 3) Ga 4) In
SECTION-B
86. Hybridisation of carbons in the given compound

1) sp and sp2 2) sp and sp3 3) sp2 and sp3 4) sp, sp2 and sp3
87. The equivalent weight of Cr2  SO4 3  mol . wt  M  in the following reaction is
Cr2  SO4 3  H 2O2  NaH 
Na2 CrO4  Na2 SO4  H 2 O
M M M
1) 2) 3) M 4)
3 4 6
88. U is equal to:
1)isothermal work 2) isochoric work 3) isobaric work 4) adiabatic work
89. Which of the following electrolytes will give a linear relationship between molar conductivity  m and
square root of concentration?
1) CH3COOH 2) KCl 3) HCOOH 4) NH4OH
90. Match list-l with list-ll and choose the correct option.
List-I(Compound) List-II (isomerism)

(a) Co  NH 3 6  Cr  CN 6  (i) Optical isomerism

(b)  Fe  H 2O 5 Cl  Br (ii) Coordination isomerism

(c)  PtCl2  NH 3 2  (iii) Ionisation isomerism

(d) K 3 Co  OX 3  (iv) Geometrical isomerism

1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) 2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) 4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
Pg. 10
91. Statement -I: Rate of reaction for end ischaemic reaction increases with increases in temperature.
Statement-II : Rate of reaction for exothermic reaction decreases with increase in temperature.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
2) Statement l is incorrect but statement II is correct
3) Both statement l and statement II are incorrect
4) Both statement l and statement II are correct
92. Consider the following reaction sequence

Product C is

1) 2) 3) 4)
93. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell having I= 2 and n = 3 is
1) 2 2) 6 3) 10 4) 14
94. Strongest acid among the following is
1) HCOOH 2) C6 H 5COOH 3) CH 3COOH 4) CH 3CH 2COOH
95. Match list-I with list-II and choose the correct answer.

List -I List-ll
(Group attached (Effect shown by the group)
in benzene)
a.  NO2 (i) -R effect and-l effect

b. O (ii) +R effect and-l effect

c. O  CH 3 (iii) +R effect and+ I effect

d. CH 3 (iv) +l effect and no resonance

1) a(i),b(iii),c(ii),d(iv) 2) a(i),b(ii),c(iii),d(iv)
3) a(iv),b(iii),c(ii),d(i) 4) a(i),b(iv),c(iii),d(ii)
CH 3   CH 2  4  CH 3 
Br / FeBr 
96. Cr2O3 / Al2O3
773 K /10  20 atm
 A 
2 2
 B 
Mg
Ether
 C 
H 2O / H
D
Br
OH OH
COOH

1) 2) 3) 4)

Pg. 11
97. An organic compound (X) on reaction with ethanoic anhydride gives N- phenyl ethanamide. Correct
statements about the compound (X) are
I. X on reaction with chloroform and ethanolic potassium hydroxide forms isocyanide
II. X on reaction with nitrous acid at low temperature forms benzene diazonium salt
III. X is more basic than pyridine
1) I and III only 2) I and II only 3) II and III only 4) All I, II and III
98. Which branched chain isomer of hydrocarbon with molecular mass 72 u gives only one mono
substituted alkyl halide?
1) Isopentane 2) Neopentane 3) Is hexane 4) Neohexene
99. The major product of the following reaction is

1) 2) 3) 4)
100. Which among the following is not true for a cyclic process?
1) W = 0 2)  U = 0 3)  H = 0 4)  S = 0
BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. Mark the features similar between Agaricus and morels.
a) Both of them are edible fungi
b) Both are Unicellular
c) Produce asexual spores
d) Commercially important
1) a and c only 2) a, c and d only 3) a and d only 4) a and b only
102. Assertion (A): Paramoecium is actively moving organism.
Reason (R): It possess thousands of cilia.
In the light of above statements choose the correct option.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
103. Cyanobacteria can be all, except
1) Aquatic or terrestrial
2) Unicellular or filamentous
3) Autotropic or heterotrophic
4) Nitrogen fixers
104. One of the Mendel’s pea plants was pure for green seed colour. How many genotypically different
types of male gametes can be produced by this plant for the same trait?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
105. In green plants, what colour does the chlorophyll pigment show in chromatogram which is present in
the reaction centre in the photosystem?
1) Yellow-orange 2) Bright or blue green
3) Yellow-green 4) Yellow

Pg. 12
106. DNA as a/an ____(i)____ substance was first identified by ____(ii)___ and named it as ___(iii)___.
Select the option that fills the blanks correctly.

(i) (ii) (iii)

1) Neutral Francis Crick Nuclein
2) Basic Friedrich Meischer Chromatin
3) Alkaline Francis Crick Chromatin
4) Acidic Friedrich Meischer Nuclein

107. The inducer of Lac operon is a/an

1) Disaccharide 2) Pentose sugar 3) Amino acid 4) Phospholipid
108. Match the following
List – I List – II
A) Spore like stage I) Paramecium and Euglena
B) Silica shells II) Trypanosoma
C) Sleeping sickness III) Entamoeba
D) Gullet IV) Plasmodium
A B C D
1) I II III IV
2) IV III II I
3) III II I IV
4) II I III IV
109. Which among the following is an ornamental plant belonging to family Fabaceae?
1) Trifolium 2) Lupin 3) Indigofera 4) Sesbania
110. In which tissue of the plant casparian strips are observed?
1) Cortex 2) Epidermis 3) Pericycle 4) Endodermis
111. In Acrocentric chromosome, position of primary constriction is
1) Is slightly away from the middle of the chromosome.
2) Is at the telomere
3) Results in the formation of two equal arms of the chromosome.
4) Is close to one of its end, forming one extremely short and one very long arm.
112. The structure important for excretion in Amoeba is
1) Lysosomes 2) Contractile vacuole
3) Inclusion bodies 4) Microbodies
113. Granular (or) Rough endoplasmic reticulum is involved in
1) Synthesis of lipids
2) Active production of steroidal hormone in animal cell
3) Synthesise proteins and help in secretion
4) Digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.
114. Assertion (A): Apomictic seeds do not lose superior trait over generations.
Reason (R): Formation of apomictic seeds do not involve meiosis and fertilisation.
In light of above statements, find the correct option.
1) Both the (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
2) Only (R) is correct.
3) Both the (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is correct explanation of (A).
4) Only (A) is correct.

Pg. 13
115. Which one of the following process releases carbon dioxide molecule?
1) Glycolysis 2) Lactic acid fermentation
3) Alcohol fermentation 4) Electron transport system
116. How many of the following categories are equivalent to rank of Carnivora?
a) Primata b) Insecta c) Diptera d) Mammalia e) Chordata
1) Two 2) Three 3) Five 4) Four
117. If one molecule of pyruvic acid is completely oxidised aerobically then, ____ are obtained.
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank.
1) 3CO2  3NADH 2  2 FADH 2  1ATP 2) 3CO2  4 NADH  4 H   FADH 2  ATP
3) 2CO2  4 NADH 2  3FADH 2  1ATP 4) 3CO2  4 NADH  2 FADH 2  ATP
118. A fern differs from a moss in possessing
1) Swimming / flagellate antherozoids 2) Flask – shaped archegonia
3) Independent sporophyte 4) Independent gametophyte
119. Chiasmata are first seen in __________
1) Leptotene 2) Zygotene 3) Diakinesis 4) Diplotene
120. All of the following are part of ‘resting phase’ in cell cycle, except
1) G1-phase 2) G2-phase 3) M-phase 4) S-phase
121. Select the correct alga, which exhibits all the following features.
A) Isogamous form of sexual reproduction
B) Filamentous form
C) Produce flagellated zoospores
D) Cell wall made up of cellulose and pectose.
1) Eudorina 2) Ulothrix 3) Polysiphonia 4) Chlamydomonas
122. Evolutionary relationships are taken into consideration in which of the following system of
classification.
1) Artificial system of classification 2) Natural system of classification
3) Phylogenetic system of classification 4) Morphological system of classification
123. Prions are similar to viruses in
1) Having both DNA and RNA 2) Having RNA only
3) Size 4) Having DNA
124. To complete the process of replication of E.coli in 18 minutes, the average rate of replication has to
be approximately
1) 4600 bp per second 2) 2000 bp per second
3) 4250 bp per second 4) 3500 bp per second
125. In which plant, the placenta develops at the base of the ovary and a single ovule is attached to it?
1) Dianthus 2) Mustard 3) Sunflower 4) Primrose
126. Choose the correct statement for chloroplast.
1) Majority of chloroplasts are found in epidermal cells of the leaves.
2) In some eukaryotes, chloroplast is a part of endomembrane system.
3) The ribosomes of the chloroplast are smaller than the cytoplasmic ribosomes in an eukaryotic cell
4) The membrane of the thylakoids enclose a space called stroma.
127. Initial size of leaf A & leaf B was 10 cm2 & 100 cm2 respectively. Both leaves A & B have increased
their area by 10 cm2 in a given time to produce A’ & B’ leaves. Select incorrect statement.
1) Absolute growth in both leaves are equal
2) Relative growth in leaf B’ is higher than leaf A’
3) Leaf A’ increases to double of its size
4) Relative growth in leaf A’ is higher than leaf B’
Pg. 14
128. Find the incorrect pair
1) Zostera – Pollination through H2O
2) Maize – Pollination through wind
3) Vallisneria – Pollination through Insects
4) Yucca – Pollination through Insects
129. Which of the following are used for clarifying fruit juices?
1) Streptokinases 2) Amylases 3) Lipases 4) Pectinases
130. _______ is written at the end of the biological name, i.e., after the species epithet and is written in an
abbreviated form
1) Name of the place 2) Name of the country
3) Name of the author 4) All of these
131. Identify the wrong statements for gymnosperms from below.
i) Gymnosperms include medium-sized trees or tall trees and shrubs.
ii) Giant red wood tree Sequoia is one of the tallest tree species.
iii) The roots are generally adventitious roots.
iv) Roots in some genera have fungal association in the form of mycorrhiza (Pinus).
v) The leaves may be simple or compound
1) (i) and (iii) 2) (ii), (iv) and (v) 3) (iii) and (iv) 4) Only (iii)
132. Statement I: Spread of living pteridophytes is unlimited and found in all geographical regions.
Statement II: Prothallus requires cool, damp, shady places to grow and the need water for
fertilization.
1) Both statements are correct
2) Statement I is correct & Statement II is incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect & Statement II is correct
4) Both statements are incorrect
133. Archegoniate includes
1) Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms
2) Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms, Angiosperms
3) Algae, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes
4) Algae, Gymnosperms, Angiosperms
134. In stems, the protoxylem lies towards the ________ and the metaxylem lies towards the _______ of
the organ.
1) Centre; Periphery 2) Periphery; centre
3) Periphery; periphery 4) Centre; centre
135. Which of the following statements are correct for cell wall?
i) Cell wall of algae is made of cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals like calcium carbonate.
ii) Plants cell wall consists of cellulose, hemicellulose, pectins and proteins.
iii) The primary wall gradually diminishes as the cell matures and the secondary wall is formed.
iv) The middle lamella is a layer mainly made of sodium pectate which holds or glues the different
neighbouring cells together.
v) The cell wall and middle lamellae may be traversed by plasmodesmata which connect the
cytoplasm of neighbouring cells.
1) (i), (iii) and (v) only
2) (i), (ii) (iii) and (iv) only
3) (ii) and (v) only
4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) only

Pg. 15
 SECTION-B
136. Match Column I (organic compound) with column II (examples) and choose the correct combination
from the given options.
Column I Column II
(Organic Compounds) (Examples)
A) Fatty acid I) Glutamic acid
B) Phospholipid II) Tryptophan
C) Aromatic amino acid III) Lecithin
D) Acidic amino acid IV) Palmitic acid
1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
137. Which of the following pair is correctly matched?
1) Anaphase I – Homologous chromosomes are separated.
2) Metaphase I – Pairing of maternal and paternal chromosomes.
3) Interphase – Karyokinesis and Cytokinesis occur.
4) Prophase I – Non-homologous chromosomes are separated.
138. If a plant growing in the condition where only light of wavelengths beyond 680 nm are available
then find correct option.
i) No NADPH2 formation ii) e– back to same reaction center
iii) Only PS II is active iv) ATP formed
v) O2 evolution takes-place
1) iii & iv are correct 2) ii, iii & iv are correct
3) i, ii & iv are correct 4) iv & v are correct
139. Choose the correct one.
1) Under certain conditions, organic acids can be used as respiratory substrate.
2) Carbon skeleton produced during respiration is used as precursor for biosynthesis of other
molecules.
3) During cellular respiration, energy is released in a series of slow stepwise reaction.
4) More than one option is correct
140. Which of the following statement can be explained on the basis of law of dominance?
1) Characters are controlled by discrete units called factors.
2) Factors occur in pairs.
3) In a dissimilar pair of factors one member of the pair dominates the other
4) All of the above
141. Assertion: Baculoviruses have negative impacts on plants, mammals, birds, fish or even on non-
target insects.
Reason: Baculoviruses are excellent species-specific, broad spectrum insecticidal applications.
1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
142. Statement I: If any protein encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous host, it is called a
recombinant protein.
Statement II: The cells harbouring cloned genes of interest may be grown on a small scale in the
laboratory.
1) Both statements are correct
2) Statement I is correct & Statement II is incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect & Statement II is correct
4) Both statements are incorrect
Pg. 16
143. Which one of the following structure is not associated with gynoecium?
1) Ovary 2) Style 3) Stigma 4) Filament
144. Succinic dehydrogenases is inhibited by a competitive inhibitor called
1) Succinate 2) Malonate 3) Fumaric acid 4) Palmitic acid
145. Choose the correct statement w.r.t proteins.
1) Trypsin is a nucleic acid which acts as an enzyme.
2) Insulin is a polysaccharide hormone
3) GLUT-4 is a transporter which enables glucose transport into cells
4) Collagen is intracellular ground substance
146. During denaturation step of PCR, the separation of DNA strands occur due to the breakdown of
1) Phosphodiester bonds 2) Hydrogen bonds
3) Disulphide bonds 4) Peptide bonds
147. Restriction endonuclease works by breaking the bond between
1) Adenine and thymine
2) Purine and phosphate group of deoxyribose nucleic acid
3) Deoxyribose sugar and phosphate backbone of DNA at specific points on each strand.
4) Deoxyribose and thymine
148. EcoRI cuts the DNA between bases ‘X’ and ‘Y’ only when the sequence 5’-GAATTC-3’ is present
in the DNA. These two bases form how many H2 bonds, respectively, with their complementary N2
bases?
1) 3 and 2 2) 2 and 3 3) 2 and 2 4) 3 and 3
149. Match Column-I with Column II
Column I Column II
a) Lectin i) Abrin
b) Toxin ii) Curcumin
c) Alkaloid iii) Concanavalin A
d) Drug iv) Morphine
Select the correct option.
1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv) 2) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i)
3) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii) 4) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
150. Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisms without authorisation from the
concerned country and its people is called
1) Biodegradation 2) Biopiracy
3) Bio-infringement 4) Bioremediation
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. The type of body symmetry shown below can be found in

1) All sponges, Coelenterates and Ctenophores

2) Platyhelminthes, Aschelminths and Annelids
3) Coelenterates, Ctenophores and adult Echinoderms
4) Arthropods, Molluscs, Hemichordates and Chordates
Pg. 17
152. Two separate circulatory pathways are present in the following organisms.
1) Crocodiles 2) Birds 3) Mammals 4) All of these
153. Assertion(A): Tentacles in hydra are locomotory organs.
Reason(R): Tentacles in hydra useful for swimming.
1) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion
3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false
4) If both the assertion and reason are false
154. The drugs that are used as medicines to help patients cope with mental illnesses like insomnia,
depression does not include
1) Morphine 2) Amphetamines 3) Barbiturates 4) Benzodiazepines
155. Allergy is due to the release of chemicals like ____ and serotonin from _____ cells.
1) Anti-histamine, mast 2) Histamine, mast
3) Adrenaline, mast 4) Cortisol, mast
156. The common feature exhibited by both muscle fibre and nerve fibre is
1) Contractility 2) Excitability 3) Extensibility 4) Elasticity
157. Select the incorrect match w.r.t the type of joint with its example in human skeletal system.
Type of joint Example
1) Saddle joint - Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
2) Pivot joint - Between atlas and axis vertebrae
3) Hinge joint - Between humerus and pectoral girdle of fore limbs.
4) Gliding joint - Between the carpals of wrist
158. Dengue fever is transmitted by this genus of mosquitoes
1) Anopheles 2) Culex 3) Psorophora 4) Aedes
159. Kidneys do not play any significant role in removal of nitrogenous waste in
1) Canis 2) Clarias 3) Felis 4) Delphinus
160. Choose the incorrect statement from the following.
1) Asthma is attributed only to bacterial infection of lungs
2) Reduction in pH of blood will decrease the affinity of haemoglobin with oxygen
3) Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma
4) Cigarette smoking may leads to damage alveolar walls
161. The number of base pairs (bp) found in human genome.
1) 3164.7 billion 2) 3164.7 million
3) 316.47 billion 4) 31.647 million
162. ‘X’ is an important part of ‘Y’ which lies at the base of the structure which is a major coordinating
centre for sensory and motor signalling. ‘X’ contains a number of centres which control body
temperature, urge for eating and drinking. Identify X and Y from the options given below
1) X -Cerebellum ; Y – Hindbrain
2) X -Hypothalamus ; Y – Thalamus
3) X -Corpora quadrigemina ; Y – Midbrain
4) X -Pituitary gland ; Y - Forebrain
163. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below
Column I Column II
A. Copper releasing IUD (i) LNG-20
B. Hormone releasing IUD (ii) Lippes loop
C. Non medicated IUD (iii) Saheli
D. Non steroidal pill (iv) Multiload-375
1) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii 2) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
3) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii 4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
Pg. 18
164. The work of which of the following influenced Darwin?
1) Lamarck 2) Louis Pasteur 3) Thomas Malthus 4) S.L. Miller
165. Which one of the given options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and
divergent evolution?
Convergent evolution Divergent evolution
1) Vertebrate hearts Wings of butterfly and of birds
2) Forelimbs of whale and bat Vertebrate brains
3) Flippers of penguins and dolphins Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita
4) Darwin’s finches Industrial melansim
166. If gene migration happens multiple time then it is named as
1) Gene pool 2) Genetic recombination
3) Genetic drift 4) Gene flow
167. How many of the given statements are correct?
a. The world population was around 2 billion in the year 1900.
b. Indian population was approximately 35 million at the time of our independence.
c. According to 2011 census report population growth rate was more than 2 percent.
d. Rapid increase in MMR and IMR are probable reasons for huge increase in the population.
Choose the correct option.
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
168. Which one of the following is incorrect w.r.t improved reproductive health of the society?
1) Better awareness of the sex-related matters
2) Better detection and cure of STIs
3) Decreased number of medically assisted deliveries and poor post-natal care
4) Increased number of couples with small families.
169. For gene therapy of ADA deficiency, permanent cure can be provided if gene is isolated from bone
marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at
1) Later embryonic stages 2) Early childhood stages
3) During puberty 4) Early embryonic stages
170. Cerebral aqueduct is present in this part of brain that is located
1) At the dorsal wall of thalamus
2) In the inner parts of cerebral hemisphere
3) Between thalamus and pons
4) Between cerebellum and pons
171. Following are the functions of aldosterone, except
1) Maintenance of electrolyte balance
2) Maintenance of osmotic pressure and blood pressure
3) Growth of pubic hair during puberty
4) Maintenance of fluid volume of the body
172. The percent of eosinophils count in our blood is
1) 0.5 – 1.0 2) 60 – 65 3) 6 – 8 4) 2 – 3
173. Additional volume of air a person can expires by a forcible expiration is called
1) Tidal volume
2) Functional residual volume
3) Inspiratory reserve volume
4) Expiratory reserve volume

Pg. 19
174. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement-A: Hypopharynx acts as tongue in cockroach.
Statement-B: In both male and female cockroach, 10th segment bears a pair of jointed non-
filamentous structures called anal cerci.
1) Both statements A and B are correct
2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
3) Only statement A is correct
4) Only statement B is correct
175. Select the type of cell junctions that perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
1) Tight junctions 2) Gap junctions
3) Adhering junctions 4) Zonula occludes
176. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t coagulation of blood.
1) It is a mechanism to prevent excessive loss of blood from the body
2) Calcium ions play a very important role
3) Certain factors released by the tissues at the site of injury can initiate this mechanism
4) Dark yellowish black scum formed at the site of a cut or an injury is called coagulum
177. In humans, cardiac output is decreased by
1) Release of adrenaline
2) Stimulation of sympathetic neural signals
3) Stimulation of parasympathetic neural signals
4) Release of norepinephrine
178. Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II
a) Lymphocytes i) Allergic reactions
b) Eosinophils ii) Phagocytic cells
c) Neutrophils iii) Blood coagulation
d) Thrombocytes iv) Immune response
1) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv) 2) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv)
3) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iii) 4) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)
179. One of the given below organisms belongs to a phylum that was earlier considered as a subphylum
under phylum Chordata due to presence of rudimentary structure similar to notochord.
Identify and select the correct option w.r.t this organism.
1) Pleurobrachia 2) Chaetopleura 3) Balanoglossus 4) Branchiostoma
180. Many diseases can be diagnosed by observing the symptoms in the patient.
Which group of symptoms are indicative of pneumonia?
1) Difficulty in breathing, fever, chills, cough and headache.
2) Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps and blood clots.
3) Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, sore throat and headache.
4) High fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of appetite and constipation
181. Select the odd one among the following w.r.t metamerism.
1) Pheretima 2) Culex 3) Pila 4) Pteropus
182. The structures which are spirally arranged and energy source for swimming are present in which part
of a mammalian sperm?
1) Acrosome 2) Nucleus 3) Tail 4) Middle piece
183. Which among the following hormones is found in both pregnant and non-pregnant women?
1) hPL 2) hCG 3) Relaxin 4) Progesterone

Pg. 20
184. What will happen if most of the GnRH secreting cells of hypothalamus gets damaged?
1) Increased secretion of gonadotropins 2) Increase in follicular development
3) Decreased secretion of LH and FSH 4) No effect on secretion of gonadotropins
185. Which of the following equation correctly describes Verhulst - Pearl logistic growth curve of
population growth?
KN KN
1) dN / dt  rN   2) dN / dt  rN  
 r   t 
KN KN
3) dN / dt  N   4) dN / dt  rN  
 N   K 
SECTION-B
186. Assertion (A): A Scoliodon can stay at a desired level in water without swimming.
Reason (R): It has a buoyancy-regulating organ called as the air bladder or swim bladder.
1) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion
3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false
4) If both the assertion and reason are false
187. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t immune response.
1) Cell-mediated immune response is responsible for graft rejection.
2) PMNLs provide non-specific type of defence to body.
3) Antigenic proteins of pathogen provide passive immunity.
4) Active immunity is slow and take time to give its full effective response.
188. In human beings, sex is determined
1) Before fertilization of ovum
2) During 6th week of foetal life when androgens are produced
3) At the time of fertilization of ovum
4) During 7th and 8th weeks of foetal life when gonads differentiate into testis and ovary
189. Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in Himalayan ranges has variation in the potency and concentration of
active chemical, reserpine is an example for
1) Ecological diversity 2) Species diversity
3) Genetic diversity 4) All of these
190. Read the given statements
a) The embryos of all vertebrates including humans develop a row of vestigial gill slits just behind
the head but these are functional organs only in fish and not found in any other adult terrestrial
vertebrates.
b) In 1920, it was observed that there were more white-winged moths on trees than dark winged
moths.
c) The rate of appearance of new forms is linked to the life cycle or the life span.
Choose the correct option.
1) ‘a’ and ‘c’ are correct but ‘b’ is incorrect 2) ‘a’ and ‘b’ are correct but ‘c’ is incorrect
3) ‘b’ and ‘c’ are correct but ‘a’ is incorrect 4) All statements are correct
191. Select the correct option to complete the analogy w.r.t hormone and its effect/function.
Catecholamine: Pupillary dilation: : __________ : Reabsorption of Na+ and water.
1) Aldosterone 2) Insulin 3) Epinephrine 4) Glucagon
192. Depolarisation of axon is caused due to
1) Influx of potassium 2) Influx of sodium
3) Efflux of potassium 4) Efflux of sodium

Pg. 21
193. One could be free of STIs by following the principles given below, except
1) Always try to use condoms during coitus.
2) Avoid sex with unknown partners
3) Have unprotected sex with multiple partners
4) Taking advise from a qualified doctor and regular health checkup.
194. Matching the following and choose the correct option.
Taxonomic group Facing threat of Extinction
A) Birds I) 12 percent
B) Amphibians II) 23 percent
C) Mammals III) 31 percent
D) Gymnosperms IV) 32 percent
1) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV 2) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
3) A – I, B – IV, C – II, D – III 4) A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV
195. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t tissue fluid in humans.
1) It is also called as interstitial fluid.
2) It has the same mineral distribution as that in plasma
3) Exchange of nutrients, gases, etc., between the blood and the cells always occur through this fluid.
4) It is a red coloured fluid containing specialised lymphocytes.
196. An American company got patent rights on ‘Basmati Rice’ through the U.S patent and trademark
office in this year.
1) 1987 2) 1990 3) 1947 4) 1997
197. Identify the organisms ‘X’ and ‘Y’ given below.

Select the correct option w.r.t ‘X’ and ‘Y’

1) ‘X’ lives in freshwater whereas ‘Y’ lives in ocean.
2) A central gastro-vascular cavity with a single opening (mouth) on hypostome is present in both
‘X’ and ‘Y’.
3) Both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are sessile animals and ‘Y’ uses its tentacles for capturing the prey.
4) Stinging capsule is present in ‘Y’ and ‘X’ contains flagellated collar cells.
198. Select the incorrect feature w.r.t comb jellies.
1) Exclusively marine 2) Only sexual reproduction
3) Internal fertilisation 4) Sexes are not separate
199. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
a) Chemo sensitive area i) Causes expiration or inspiration according to
need of body
b) Respiratory rhythm centre ii) Neural signals reduce the duration of inspiration
and alter the respiratory rate.
c) Pneumotaxic centre iii) Highly sensitive to CO2 and H+ ions
1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii) 2) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii)
3) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii) 4) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i)
200. In which of the given conditions, renin is released from JG cells?
1) Increase in secretion of ANF 2) Increase in glomerular blood flow
3) A fall in glomerular filtration rate 4) Increase in blood pressure

* * All the Best * *

Pg. 22
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 28.12.2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-17 Max.Marks: 720
KEY
PHYSICS
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 3 5) 4 6) 1 7) 2 8) 3 9) 3 1 0) 1
1 1) 1 1 2) 4 1 3) 2 1 4) 1 1 5) 2 1 6) 2 1 7) 2 1 8) 3 1 9) 1 2 0) 4
2 1) 2 2 2) 2 2 3) 4 2 4) 3 2 5) 3 2 6) 1 2 7) 4 2 8) 1 2 9) 2 3 0) 1
3 1) 4 3 2) 1 3 3) 1 3 4) 2 3 5) 1 3 6) 2 3 7) 1 3 8) 1 3 9) 1 4 0) 3
4 1) 3 4 2) 3 4 3) 2 4 4) 1 4 5) 1 4 6) 3 4 7) 2 4 8) 3 4 9) 1 5 0) 1

CHEMISTRY
5 1) 1 5 2) 4 5 3) 2 5 4) 2 5 5) 1 5 6) 4 5 7) 4 5 8) 1 5 9) 1 6 0) 2
6 1) 2 6 2) 3 6 3) 1 6 4) 2 6 5) 3 6 6) 2 6 7) 1 6 8) 2 6 9) 2 7 0) 4
7 1) 3 7 2) 2 7 3) 4 7 4) 1 7 5) 3 7 6) 3 7 7) 3 7 8) 2 7 9) 3 8 0) 1
8 1) 2 8 2) 1 8 3) 4 8 4) 4 8 5) 2 8 6) 3 8 7) 4 8 8) 4 8 9) 2 9 0) 2
9 1) 1 9 2) 2 9 3) 3 9 4) 1 9 5) 1 9 6) 1 9 7) 2 9 8) 2 9 9) 2 1 0 0) 1

BOTANY
1 0 1) 3 1 0 2) 1 1 0 3) 3 1 0 4) 1 1 0 5) 2 1 0 6) 4 1 0 7) 1 1 0 8) 2 1 0 9) 2 1 1 0) 4
1 1 1) 4 1 1 2) 2 1 1 3) 3 1 1 4) 3 1 1 5) 3 1 1 6) 1 1 1 7) 2 1 1 8) 3 1 1 9) 4 1 2 0) 3
1 2 1) 2 1 2 2) 3 1 2 3) 3 1 2 4) 2 1 2 5) 3 1 2 6) 3 1 2 7) 2 1 2 8) 3 1 2 9) 4 1 3 0) 3
1 3 1) 4 1 3 2) 3 1 3 3) 1 1 3 4) 1 1 3 5) 4 1 3 6) 2 1 3 7) 1 1 3 8) 3 1 3 9) 4 1 4 0) 4
1 4 1) 4 1 4 2) 1 1 4 3) 4 1 4 4) 2 1 4 5) 3 1 4 6) 2 1 4 7) 3 1 4 8) 1 1 4 9) 3 1 5 0) 2

ZOOLOGY
1 5 1) 3 1 5 2) 4 1 5 3) 1 1 5 4) 1 1 5 5) 2 1 5 6) 2 1 5 7) 3 1 5 8) 4 1 5 9) 2 1 6 0) 1
1 6 1) 2 1 6 2) 2 1 6 3) 4 1 6 4) 3 1 6 5) 3 1 6 6) 4 1 6 7) 1 1 6 8) 3 1 6 9) 4 1 7 0) 3
1 7 1) 3 1 7 2) 4 1 7 3) 4 1 7 4) 3 1 7 5) 3 1 7 6) 4 1 7 7) 3 1 7 8) 4 1 7 9) 3 1 8 0) 1
1 8 1) 3 1 8 2) 4 1 8 3) 4 1 8 4) 3 1 8 5) 4 1 8 6) 4 1 8 7) 3 1 8 8) 3 1 8 9) 3 1 9 0) 1
1 9 1) 1 1 9 2) 2 1 9 3) 3 1 9 4) 3 1 9 5) 4 1 9 6) 4 1 9 7) 4 1 9 8) 3 1 9 9) 2 2 0 0) 3

Pg. 1
 PAPER SETTER: KA-BLR-CO-CVRAMAN BHAVAN
PHYSICS – DINAKAR SIR – 9703134810
CHEMISTRY - LAKSHMAN SIR – 9866434408
BOTANY - PADMAJA MAM - 8309787419
ZOOLOGY - VENKAT REDDY SIR – 8553741982

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS
1. When both A and B are high (1) then LED is shorted i.e., become ‘OFF’. For other possibilities of A
and B, the LED will be ON ie., output Y will be (1). This realizes ‘NAND’ gate.
2. For voltage regulation, Zener diode is used in reverse bias Zener diode operates as a normal p-n
junction diode.
50
kg
1kg
3. n1u1  n2u2  192  3  n2  1000 3
1m  25  3
  m
 100 
n2
 192  20
1/ 64
n  64
 192  2
20
192  20
 n2   60
64
PV MLT 2 L3
4. KB   2
   ML2T 2 K 1 
NT L K
5. Reaction  H1  H1  N 01  N 01  He24
1 1

Mass of reactants : H  1.008u , Ne  1.009u

Mass of products He = 4.003u
Mass difference = 2H = 2  1.008 = 2.016u
2Ne = 2  1.009  2.018u
2H + 2Ne = 2.016 + 2.018 = 4.034
Mass defect = 4.034 – He = 4.034 – 4.003 = 0.031u
1
2
Z 1 E
6. E  2  E0  E  2  2  4  4 :1
n n E4 1
16
24
7. Current by the battery  I  4A
6
Now, current passing through 6  ,
4  12 8
I'  A
18 3
I
8. Initially T  2
g
I
Finally T '  2
geff

Pg. 2
 4 g 2  a2 10 2
  
T' g 10
4
T '
21/ 4
9. According to KTG, gas molecules have negligible intermolecular forces.
 A m 
sin  
10.   2 
 A
sin  
2
 60o  30o 
sin   o
 2   sin 45  2

 60o  sin 30o
sin  
 2 
11. All the four resistances are in parallel to E. So current in them flows independently. Hence, no
change in current flowing in A after closing the switch.
1 1 1
12.  
f v u
1 1 1
  
20 v (30)
On solving v = –60c, image is real, inverted and enlarged.
13. i  m  r12  r22 

 1 5 2   5    30 kg m
2
2

L2
14. K .E 
2I
 50
2

100 
2I
2500
I  12.5 kg m 2
200
15. Q  U  W
W=0
nCVdT = 80
0.5CV  20  80
CV  8 J / K
V
16. f 
2I
1  RT

2I M
f 1 T

f 2 T
f 1 4
 
f 2 300

Pg. 3
 f  2 beats per second
17. W  q  v f  vi 

100  2  v f  10 
50  v f  10
v f  60 volt
18. Equation of motion for the man
1
x1   2  t 2 … (i)
2
Equation of motion for the bus
x2  8  t …(ii)
x2  100  x1  8t  100  t 2
t 2  8t  100  0
8  82  4  100
t
2
t  4  116

 4  2 29 
GM
19. g …. (i)
R2
GM 1 GM g
g' 2
 
(2 R ) 4 R2 4
20. Heat gain by ice = Heat loss by lemon water mi  2000  10  mi  3.34  105
1
  4200  30
5
mi 104  2  33.4   4200  6
4200  6
mi  kg  71.1 g
35.4  10 4
21. In the steady state, the power generated by source should be conducted by the shell. Therefore

P  kA
x
 A  4 R 2 
It is given that   25o C
P  x
  
k  4 R 2
  k  4 R 2
x 
P
Substituting the values we get x  32 cm
22.   rays are not the part of electromagnetic spectrum.
KQr
23. Electric field due to uniformly charged solid sphere for r  R is given by E 
R3
KQ
Here, At surface r  R  E  ….(i)
R2

Pg. 4
 R
KQ
R 2  1 KQ
At r   E '  3
…(ii)
2 R 2 R2
E
E ' 
2
24. Electrostatic field lines cannot form closed loops.
2 2
3t 2
25. Vx   3t   6m/ s
0 2 0
2 2
2t 3 16
Vy   2t  2

0 3 0 3
Vx 6 18 9
  
Vy 16 16 8
3
26. Due to action-reaction, pairs under newton’s 3rd law, rate of change of momentum for both will be
same.
27. Work done by friction may be positive, negative or zero.
I
28. T  2
MB
29. Zero coupling constant will be for option (2)
2

  t  1
3
dt
30. iavg  0
2

iavg 
t  1 4 2
 0
4 2
14  (1)4

8
iavg  0
31. By equation continuity
A1v1  A2v2
A1v1
v2 
A2
6    (2  102 ) 2
v2 
  (1  10 2 )2
v2  24 m / s

32. I  4 a 2 cos 2
2
In the first case,   2
 I '  4a 2
2
In the second case, 
3
Pg. 5
 2
 I '  4a 2 cos 2 or r  a 2
3
I' 1 I
 or I'
I 4 4
33. Almost for all materials, the modulus of elasticity decreases with the rise in temperature, but
elasticity of invar remains unchanged with change in temperature because it has very low coefficient
of thermal expansion.
34. Let a current of x ampere pass through the voltmeter; then (4 – x) ampere passes through the
20
resistance R. Therefore, voltmeter reading is 20  (4  x ) R, i.e., R  , i.e., R  5
4x
35. I = 0.5 m
i = 12A
4  800
n  6400 m1
0.5
Magnetic field at the centre = 0ni
 4  10 7  6400  12
 9.64  102 T
36. For maximum intensity on the screen, d sin   n
n (n)(2000) n
Or sin    
d (7000) 3.5
sin   1 n  0,1, 2,3 only
Thus, only seven maxima can be obtained on both sides of the screen.
38. h  h0  e  4.06
h  (e  4.06)
0 
h
1.6  10 19  2.03
 5.1  10 
14

6.63  10 34
 5.1  1014  0.489  1015
 5.1  1014  4.89  1014
 0.2  1014 Hz
39. There is a considerable change in the electrical properties due to the addition of impurity.
40. E  P a AbT c  [ ML2T 2 ]  [ MLT 1 ]a [ L2 ]b [T ]c
 ML2T 2  M a La 2bT  a c
1
 a  1, b  , c  1
2
5
41. Here,   , Real depth = 8 cm
3
h 8 24
h'     4.8 cm
 5 5
3
Pg. 6
 Coin will appear to be raised by y = 8 – 4.8 = 3.2 cm
43 1
42. I  A
2  2  10 14

Potential difference across the cell A

1 1 27
EA  4  2  4  V
14 7 7
Potential difference across the cell B
1 1 22
EB  3  2 3  V
14 7 7
43. Net displacement of centre of mass of the system is zero.
40(5  x)  60 x  0
200 = 100x
x=2m
5–x=5–2=3m
2 x 2 vt
44. Standard equation y  A cos sin
 
By comparing this equation with given equation.
2 x  x
    40 cm
 20
45. q  Ceff V
1 1 1
 
Ceff C1 C2
On inserting dielectric C1 will increase therefore Ceff increase and charge on C2 will increase.
46. In a cyclic process work done equal to the quantity of heat given to the system or taken and U  0
.
GM
47. Orbital speed  v0 
r
2GM
Escape speed from surface of earth  ve 
R
1 GM 1 2GM
Given v0  ve  
3 r 3 R
9R
On solving, we get r 
2
F  F2
48. a 1
M1  M 2
Pg. 7
 For block M 1
F1  kx  M 1a
F1  M 1a  Kx
F  M 1a
x 1
K
 F  F2 
F1   1  M1
M
 1  M 2 

K
M F  M 2 F1  M 1F1  M 1F2
x 1 1
K (M1  M 2 )
F M  M 1F2
x 1 2
K (M1  M 2 )
F M  M 1F2
x 1 2
K (M1  M 2 )
49.

f r  (20  5 3)0.5  5.67

fr  5
Therefore, body will not move.
W=0
1
50. XC 
2 fc
1 104
   1592.35 
2  50  2  106 2
CHEMISTRY
51.
Elements moles Simple radio E.F

C 40
 3.33 1
12

6.66
H  6.66 2 CH 2O
1

O 53.4
 3.33
16 1

Pg. 8
52. Both carbon and nitrogen can work as donating site in CN  hence it is an ambidentate ligand.
0.693
53. t1 
2 k
0.693
  34.65 s
0.02
54.


l2
NaOH
 CHl3  CH 3CH 2CO O Na 
55. Long Radii(pm)
Nd 3 99
3
Tb 92
Tm 3 87
56. (CH 3 )3 C  OH 
ZnCl2
HCl
  CH 3 3 C  Cl
Immediate sturbidity is because of the formation of  CH 3 3 C  Cl


 Ag  NH  
CH 3CH 2CHO 
 3 2

OH 

Ag (sliver mirror )  CH 3CH 2COO 

ZnO  Cr2O3
57. CO  2 H 2 
200  300 atm
CH 3OH
578 673 K

58 Order of acidic strength is

Carboxylic acids > Phenols > Alcohols
59. Lysine is a basic aminoacid as it has more number of  NH 2 groups than COOH groups.
60. In DNA, C joins with G by three hydrogen bonds
61. 0.059
E  E0   log Q
n
0.059 0.13
 3.17  log 2  2.97V
2 104 
62.

Pg. 9
63. Lesser is the steric hindrance faster is S N 2 rate.
CH 3Cl has least steric repulsion around carbon atom so it will give fastest S N 2 reaction
h 6.626  1034 Js
64. v  
4 mx 4  22  9.11 1031 kg  108 m
7
65.  
4
0  t
9
nSolute
X Solute n n n
66.  solute Solvent  solute
X Solvent nSolvent nsolvent
nsolute  nsolvent

number of moles of solute

Molarity 
Volume of solution in litres
So, option (a)and (d) are correct
67. rn n2
68. Negative electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less than chlorine while ionization enthalpy of fluorine
is more than the chlorine.
69. C  s   CO2  g   2CO  g 

10P 
2
CO2
 60
PCO2
70. Pbi4 is not stable.
71.  y is most stable as it has more number of  -bonds.
 x is more stable than z because x has negative charge on more electronegative element.
72. Nitrogen exhibits +5 oxidation state but does not form pentahalides because it does not have d-
orbitals to expends its covalence beyond four.
 PhN 2  BF4  
o 
73. PhNH 2 
HNO2 / 0 c
 PhN 2 
HBF4 
 Ph  F  N 2  BF3
74.  f T  imK f
For the solutions of same m and K f
fT  i
For C6 H12O6  i  1
KCl  i  2
Na2 SO4  i  3
Al2  SO4 3  i  5
Minimum i is for glucose so T f will be minimum for it and freezing point will be maximum for
glucose.
75.   CRT

Pg. 10
 1   2
 C1  C2
20 10 1000

60 1 Mol.wt B  100
600
Molar mass of B   300 g / mol
2
76.  om CH 3COOH   om CH 3COO    om H 
  om CH 3COONa   om HCl   om NaCl
 z yx

Rate  k  NO   Br2 
2
77.
78. Arrhenius equation is to be employed
l
Cell, constant, G 
*
79.
A
80.
Species Bond Order
(a) O 
2
(i) 2.5

(b) O2 (ii) 1.5

(c) O22  (iii) 1

(d) O2 (iv) 2

Bond length decreases as bond order increases.

81. ClO4 does not show disproportionation because Cl is present in its highest oxidation state, So,
cannot be further oxidized.
82.

1) 2)
83. Wurtz reaction is useful to prepare symmetrical alkanes with even number of carbon atoms.
1 1
84. A2  B2  AB
2 2
 r H   BERe ac tan t   BE products
1 1
a bc
2 2
a b
r H    c
2 2
85. Tl predominantly exists in +1 oxidation state, due to inert pair effect.
86.

Pg. 11
 All carbon atoms present in ring are sp 2 hybridized
87. C r2  SO4 3  Na2 Cr O4
3 6

 Change in oxidation state of Cr per atom = 3

 As there are two Cr atoms in Cr2  SO4 3 so the total changes or total transfer of electrons
 3 2  6
M
 Equivalent weight of Cr2  SO4 3 
6
88. U  q  W
U  W , where q  0  Adiabatic case
89. The plot of  m vs C for strong electrolyte is a straight line with negative slope
90.

91. Rate of both endothermic and exothermic reaction increase with increase in temperature
92.

93. Subshell =3d

Maximum number of electrons in d subshell is 10.
94. Acidic strength increases as pk a decreases. HCOOH has least pk a value so it will be strongest acid
among the following
95.

Pg. 12
 CH 3   CH 2  4  CH 3 
Br / FeBr 
96. Cr2O3 / Al2 O3
773 K /10  20 atm
C6 H 6 
2 2
 C6 H 5 Br 
Mg
Ether
 C6 H 5 MgBr 
H 2O / H
 C6 H 6
97.

 Pyridine is more basic than aniline because in aniline the lone pair of nitrogen is delocalized .
98.

99.

100. Work is a path function , therefore will not be zero for a cyclic process whereas rest all are state
functions.

BOTANY
101. Both Agaricus campestris (common mushroom) and yeast are edible fungi. Hence thay are
commercially important.
102. Paramoecium is actively moving organism because it bears thousands of cilia.
103. Cyanobacteria or blue green algae are autotrophic. They are not heterotrophic.
104. Homozygous for the trait means it has ‘rr’ for green seed color. It can produce same types of gametes
with genotype r.
105. Chlorophyll a molecule in the photosystem forms the reaction centre. This molecule in the
chromatogram shows bright or blue-green colour.
106. DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus was first identified by Friedrich Meischer in 1869. He
named it as Nuclein.
107. The inducer of lac operon is lactose or allolactose. It is a disaccharide (carbohydrate).
108. List – I List – II
A) Spore like stage IV) Plasmodium
B) Silica shells III) Entamoeba
C) Sleeping sickness II) Trypanosoma
D) Gullet I) Paramecium and Euglena
109. Lupin is an ornamental plant belongs to family Fabaceae. Sesbania and Trifolium are fodder plants
belong to family Fabaceae.
110. The tangential as well as radial walls of the endodermal cells have deposition of impermeable, waxy
material suberin in the form of casparian strips.
111. In acrocentric chromosome, the centromere is situated close to its end forming one extremely short
and one very long arm.

Pg. 13
112. In Amoeba, the contractile vacuole is important for excretion.
113. RER is frequently observed in the cells actively involved in protein synthesis and secretion.
114. Apomictic seeds do not lose superior traits over generation because of absence of meiosis.
115. Alcohol fermentation releases carbon dioxide molecule.
116. Carnivora is an order including families like Felidae and Canidae.
Primita and Diptera are orders while Insecta and Mammalia are classes.
Chordata is phylum.
117. If one molecule of pyruvic acid is completely oxidized aerobically then, 3CO2 are released and
4NADH + FADH2 + ATP are obtained.
118. A fern differs from a moss in possessing independent sporophyte.
119. Chiasmata are first seen in Diplotene.
120. Interphase is called the resting phase because there is no apparent activity related to cell division,
rather, it deals with the changes or preparations that occur in a cell and the nucleus, before it enters
into cell division.
121. Eudorina shows anisogamous form of sexual reproduction. Polysiphonia shows oogamous form of
sexual reproduction. Chlamydomonas is unicellular algae. All the given characteristics belong to
Ulothrix.
122. Phylogenetic system of classification is based on evolutionary relationships. The fossils play an
important role in elucidation of evolutionary relationships.
123. Prions are similar to viruses in size. They do not have RNA, DNA or capsid.
124. E.coli has 4.6  106 bp , completes the process of replication with the average rate of polymerization
approximately 2000 bp per second.
125. In basal placentation, the placenta develops at the base of ovary and a single ovule is attached to it,
as in sunflower and marigold.
126. Majority of chloroplast are found in mesophyll cells of the leaves and it is a part of ground tissues.
Chloroplast is not a part of endomembrane system.
The membrane of the thylakoids encloses a space called lumen.
127. Relative growth rate in leaf B is 10%
128. Vallisneria shows hyrophily.
129. Pectinases and proteases help in clarifying fruit juices.
130. Name of the author written at the end of the biological name, i.e., after the species epithet and is
written in an abbreviated form
131. The roots are generally tap roots.
132. Spread of living pteridophytes is limited and found in only few geographical regions.
133. Archegoniate includes Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms.
134. In stems, the protoxylem lies towards the centre and the metaxylem lies towards the periphery of the
organ.
135. The middle lamella is a layer mainly made of calcium pectate which holds or glues the different
neighbouring cells together.
136. A) Fatty acid IV) Palmitic acid
B) Phospholipid III) Lecithin
C) Aromatic amino acid II) Tryptophan
D) Acidic amino acid I) Glutamic acid
137. Metaphase I – Homologous chromosomes are aligned at the equator.
Interphase – Resting phase and preparatory phase.
Prophase I – Homologous chromosomes are paired.

Pg. 14
138. If a plant growing in the condition where only light of wavelengths beyond 680 nm are available
only PS-I is functional so cyclic photophosphorylation occurs.
139. 1) Under certain condition organic acids can be used as respiratory substrate.
2) Carbon skeleton produced during respiration is used as precursor for biosynthesis of other
molecules.
3) During cellular respiration, energy is released in a series of slow stepwise reaction.
140. 1) Characters are controlled by discrete units called factors.
2) Factors occur in pairs.
3) In a dissimilar pair of factors one member of the pair dominates the other
141. Assertion: Baculoviruses have no negative impacts on plants, mammals, birds, fish or even on non-
target insects.
Reason: Baculoviruses are excellent species-specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal applications.
142. Both statements are correct
143. Filament is a part of stamen.
144. Succinic dehydrogenases is inhibited by a competitive inhibitor called Malonate
145. 1) Trypsin is a protein which acts as an enzyme.
2) Insulin is a protein that acts as hormone
4) Collagen is intercellular ground substance
146. During denaturation step of PCR, the separation of DNA strands occur due to the breakdown of
Hydrogen bonds
147. Restriction endonuclease works by breaking the bond between Deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
backbone of DNA at specific points on each strand.
148. G C
A=T
149. a) Lectin iii) Concanavalin A
b) Toxin i) Abrin
c) Alkaloid iv) Morphine
d) Drug ii) Curcumin
150. Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisms without authorisation from the
concerned country and its people is called Biopiracy.

ZOOLOGY
151. Coelenterates, ctenophores and adult echinoderms exhibit radial symmetry. Sponges are mostly
asymmetrical. Platyhelminthes, Aschelminths, annelids, arthropods exhibit bilateral symmetry.
152. Crocodiles, birds and mammals are four chambered animals and exhibit pulmonary and systemic
circulations.
153. In hydra tentacles are useful for locomotion, Anchoring and capture of prey.
154. Drugs like barbiturates, amphetamines, benzo- diazepines and other similar drugs, that are normally
used as medicines to help patients cope with mental illnesses like depression and insomnia, are often
abused. Morphine is a very effective sedative and painkiller and is very useful in patients who have
undergone surgery.
155. Allergy is due to the release of chemicals like histamine and serotonin from mast cells due to the
action of IgE antibodies.
156. Muscles have special properties like elasticity, excitability, extensibility and contractility. Nerve
fibers exhibit excitability.
157. Ball and socket joint is present between humerus and pectoral girdle. Knee joint is an example of
hinge joint.

Pg. 15
158. Aedes species of mosquitoes spread diseases like chikungunya, yellow fever and dengue caused by
virus.
159. Clarias is a bony fish which is ammonotelic in nature. Ammonia, as it is readily soluble is generally
excreted by diffusion through gill surfaces as ammonium ions.
160. Asthma may be caused by inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles due to allergy in the lungs.
161. During denaturation, the high temperature break the hydrogen bonds between the two strands of the
original DNA double helix, providing the necessary single-stranded templates.
162. Hypothalamus is the basal part of thalamus and controls body temperature, appetite thirst etc.,
163. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II.
164. The work of Thomas Malthus on populations influenced Darwin. Lamarck proposed theory of use
and disuse of organs.
165.
Convergent evolution Flippers of penguins and dolphins, Wings
of butterfly and birds
Divergent evolution Vertebrate hearts or brains, Thorns of
Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita,
Forelimb of whale and bat

166. Genetic drift is change in allele frequency by chance. Gene pool is total genes and their alleles in a
population. Gene flow occurs due to migration of animals between two populations many times.
167. According to 2011 census report, population growth rate was less than 2 percent.
Indian population was approx. 350 million at the time of our independence.
A decline in MMR and IMR are probable reasons for huge increase in the population.
168. Better awareness of sex related matters, increased number of medically assisted deliveries and post-
natal care indicate improved reproductive health of the society.
169. If the gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into the cells at early embryonic
stages, it could be a permanent cure for patients suffering from ADA deficiency.
170. Cerebral aqueduct is present in midbrain. Midbrain is situated between thalamus and pons.
171. Androgenic steroids help in the growth of pubic hair, axial hair and facial hair.
172. In our WBC the percent of neutrophils 60 -65, basophils 0.5 – 1.0, Lyymphocytes 20 -25, Monocytes
6 – 8 and Eosinophils 2 – 3.
173. Volume of air inspired or expired during a normal respiration is called tidal volume. Volume of air
remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration is called residual volume. Additional volume
of air a person can inspire by forcible inspiration is called IRV and expires is ERV.
174. In both male and female cockroach, 10th segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous structures called
anal cerci.
175. Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue. Adhering junctions perform
cementing to keep neighboring cells together. Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with
each other by connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells, for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules
and sometimes big molecules.
176. Dark reddish brown scum forms at the site of a cut or an injury over a period of time called
coagulum.
177. Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves (part of ANS) can increase the rate of heart beat, the
strength of ventricular contraction and thereby the cardiac output. On the other hand,
parasympathetic neural signals (another component of ANS) decrease the rate of heart beat, speed of
conduction of action potential and thereby the cardiac output.
178. Lymphocytes - Immune response
Pg. 16
 Eosinophils - Allergic reactions
Neutrophils - Phagocytic cells
Thrombocytes - Blood coagulation
179. Hemichordata was considered as a sub-phylum under phylum Chordata previously.
Animal Phylum
Pleurobrachia - Ctenophora
Chaetopleura - Mollusca
Branchiostoma - Cephalochordata
Balanoglosses - Hemichordata
180. Pneumonia is characterized by difficulty in breathing, headache, fever, cough etc.
181. The members of phylum Annelida (Pheretima), Arthropoda (Culex) and Chordata (Pteropus) exhibit
metamerism. Molluscs (Pila) possess unsegmented body.
182. The middle piece possesses many mitochondria, which produce energy for the movement of tail that
facilitate sperm motility essential for fertilization.

183. hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in women only during pregnancy.
184. GnRH stimulates the secretion of FSH and LH from adenohypophysis.
KN 
185. The equation for sigmoid growth curve of population growth is dN / dt  rN  
 K 
186. Both assertion and reason are false. Scoliodon is a Chondrichthyes. It has no air bladder so it
constantly swims in water to avoid sinking.
187. A preparation of antigenic proteins of pathogen is vaccine, which provides active immunity by
triggering the immune system of body to generate antibodies.
188. In human beings sex is determined at the time of union of male and female gametes called
fertilization.
189. Genetic diversity causes variation in potency and concentration of reserpine in rauwolfia.
190. In a collection of moths made in 1850s, i.e., before industrialization set in, it was observed that there
were more white-winged moths on trees than dark-winged or melanised moths. However, in the
collection carried out from the same area, but after industrialization, i.e., in 1920, there were more
dark-winged moths in the same area, i.e., the proportional was reversed.
191. Aldosterone acts mainly at distal part of the renal tubule and stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ and
water and excretion of K+ and phosphate ions.
192. Influx of sodium causes depolarization and efflux of potassium causes repolarization.
193. Have protective sex with life partner.
194. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III.
Pg. 17
195. Lymph is a colourless fluid.
196. In 1997 an American company get patent rights to basmati rice.
197. ‘X’ is Euspongia (marine sponge) and ‘Y’ is Aurrelia (medusa). Aurelia is an umbrella-shaped and
free swimming cnidarian.
198. Fertilization is external in ctenophores.
199. Strong signals from pneumotaxic centre result in shallow and fast breathing by shortening duration
of inspiration.
200. A fall in GFR can activate the JG cells to release renin which can stimulate the glomerular blood
flow and thereby the GFR back to normal.

Pg. 18
SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 04.01.2024
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-19 Max.Marks: 720
Important Instructions:
In ever y s u bject:
( a ) In Section – A , 3 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. A n s w er all 3 5 qu estion s from section – A
( b ) In Section – B , 1 5 qu estion s w ill be give n. O ut of w hich A n s w er 1 0 qu estion s onl y .
(c) E ach qu estion c a rries 4 m a r k s. F or e ach correct respon se w ill get 4 m a r k s. F or e ach
incorrect respon se, one m a r k w ill be d e d ucte d from th e tot al scores.

PHYSICS
SECTION-A
20
1. The displacement time wave function of wave pulse is given as y  , where x is in metre
3   x  2t 
2

and t is in second then velocity of wave pulse is

1. 3 m/s 2. 2 m/s 3. 3/2 m/s 4. 20/3 m/s
2. Change in internal energy of an ideal gas is given by U  nCv T . This is applicable for ( Cv =molar
heat capacity at constant volume)
1. Isochoric process only 2. All processes
3 A process where T is positive 4. All those process except isothermal process

3.  
An electric field is given by E  yi  x j N / C . The work done in slowly moving a 2 C charge from
 
   
rA  2i  2 j m to rB  4i  j m is
1. +8J 2. -8J 3. +16J 4. Zero
 
4. 
The linear velocity of particle moving with angular velocity   2 j at position vector r  2i  3k is 

1. 6i  4 j  
2. 6i  4k  3. 8i 4. 6k
5. Moment of inertia I of a solid sphere about an axis parallel to a diameter and a distance X from its
centre of mass varies with X as

1. 2. 3. 4.

stress
6. The ratio remains constant for small deformation of a metal wire . When the deformation
strain
increases, then the ratio will
1. Increase 2. Decrease
3. Remains constant 4. First increase then decrease

Pg. 1
7. A paper disc of radius R from which a hole of radius r is cut out is floating on liquid of surface
tension, T. What will be force on the disc due to surface tension?
1. 2  R  r  T 2.  r  R  r  T 3. 2  R  r  T 4. 4  R  r  T
8. The magnetic induction due to an infinitely long straight wire carrying a current i at a distance r from
the wire
is given by
  2i   r  4 2i   4  r
1. B  0 2. B  0 3. B   4. B   
4 r 4 2i 0 r  0  2i
9. If a violet light is replaced by a green light in a YDSE, then the path difference of the light from the
two slit at central maxima will
1. Increase 2. Decrease
3. Remains same 4. May be increase or decrease
10. A particle is moving on a straight line. Its velocity displacement graph is given below. Which of the
given graphs best represents the variation of acceleration with displacement?

1. 2. 3. 4.

11. Assertion(A): The value of acceleration due to gravity does not depend upon mass of the body on
which force is applied.
Reason(R): Acceleration due to gravity is a constant quantity.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
12. A metal cube at room temperature T has side length a and its coefficient of linear expansion is  .
The cube is heated slightly and its temperature becomes T  T . The increase in the volume of the
cube is approximately
a 3T
1. a3T 2. 2a3T 3. a 3 3T 4.
2
0 0
13. When the two ends of metal rod are maintained at temperatures 80 C and 110 C , the rate of heat
flow in the rod is found to be Q J/s. If the ends are maintained at temperatures 1500 C and 2100 C ,
then the rate of heat flow in the rod will be (in J/s)
Q Q
1. Q 2. 3. 4. 2Q
2 4
14. Two positive charges each having charge q are placed on the coordinates  a , 0  and  0, a  . Then the
magnitude of net electric field at the origin will be
2kq 2kq kq
1. 2 2. 2
3. Zero 4. 2
a a a
Pg. 2
15. Three point charges q, 2q, q are arranged on a line as shown in figure. The electric potential at a
point ‘p’ as shown in the figure is

 kq  kq 3kq 2kq
1. 2. 3. 4.
3r r r r
16. If the electric field component of a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in Z direction is in the
 
direction of i  j , then the direction of its magnetic field component is along

 2i  j   2i  j 

1. i  j  
2. i  j  3.
5
4.
5
17. If in a n-p junction diode ,a sinusoidal input signal is applied as shown in the figure , then the output
signal across the diode will be

1. 2. 3. 4.

18. Which among the following represents the logic circuit for ‘AND’ gate?

1. 2. 3. 4.

19. 200MeV of energy may be obtained per fission of U 235 . A reactor is generating 1000 kW of power.
The rate of nuclear fission in the reactor is
1. 1000 2. 2 108 3. 3.125 1016 4. 931
20. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is
1. -2:3 2. 3:-2 3. 1:(-2) 4. 1:(-1)
21. With regards to significant figures 4000m can be written as
1. 400000 cm 2. 4 km 3. 4,000 km 4. Both 1 and 2
22. The dimensional formula for force per unit surface tension is
1.  L 2.  L1  3.  L2  4. Dimensionless

23. The closest value of temperature at which the average translational kinetic energy of a molecule in a
gas became equal to the kinetic energy of an electron accelerated from rest through a potential
difference 4 V?
1. 7730 K 2. 30.526 K 3. 30917 K 4. 18220 K

Pg. 3
24. A light rigid rod is supported by two springs from above and carries a mass m suspended from a
spring from its centre as shown in the figure. Natural frequency of oscillations of mass will be

1 k1  k2  k3 1 4k1k2 k3
1. 2.
2 m  k1k3  k3 k2  2 m  k1  k 2  k3 
1 k1k 2 k3 1 k1k3  k2 k3
3. 4.
2 m  k1k 2  k2 k3  k3 k 1 2 m  k1  k 2  k3 
25. For the circuit shown in the figure below , the equivalent resistance between A and B is

1. 24 2. 17 3. 15 4. 32

26. In the circuit shown in the figure, three resistances are connected with a battery of emf E=22V and
internal resistance r  1 . Reading of Ammeter (ideal) connected in the circuit will be

1. 3 A 2. 1 A 3. 2 A 4. 4 A
27. A small insect on a table is viewed from a distance of 60 cm above the table . By what distance
would the insect appear to be raised if it is viewed from the same point through a 24 cm thick glass
 3
slab held parallel to the table ?    
 2
1. 16 cm 2. 52 cm 3. 8 cm 4. 22 cm
28. A thin , symmetric double convex lens of power ‘p’ is cut into three parts A,B and C as shown . The
power of

1. Part A is 2p 2. Part B is 2p 3. Part C is p/2 4. Part C is 3p/2

29. Statement-I: A bar magnet does exert a torque on itself due to its own field
Statement-II: The direction of magnetic field on the equatorial line of a bar magnet is antiparallel to
its magnetic moment.
1) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
2) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
3) Both I and II statements are correct
4) Both I and II statements are wrong
Pg. 4
30. A body of mass m kg is placed on a rough horizontal surface. If the maximum friction that surface
m
can offer is numerically equal to N then the acceleration of particle if horizontal force F=2m N is
4
applied on it will be
3 7 4
1. 2m / s 2 2. m / s 2 3. m / s 2 4. m / s 2
5 4 3
31. If current i1  sin t and i2  cos t the i3 in the diagram below will be

       
1. i3  2 sin  t   2. i3  sin  t   3. i3  2 sin  t   4. i3  4 sin  t  
 4  4  4  4
 
32. A force F  2i  x j  3k is acting on a body. This force displaces the body by d  xi  5 j  2k . If net
work done on the body is zero, then value of x will be
1. -1 2. 1 3. -6/7 4. 6/7
33. The induced e.m.f in a coil doesn’t depend upon
1. Relative orientation of area vector and magnetic field
2. The resistance of the circuit
3. Number of turns in the coil
4. The rate of change of magnetic flux
34. If a body is moving on a circular track of radius 2m with speed 2t m/s , then the net acceleration of
particle at t=3s will be
1. 328 2. 259 3. 324 4. 423
35. A block of mass m is placed on an inclined plane having an angle of inclination of 300 with
horizontal. The block is connected to a massless string which passes over a pulley as shown in
diagram. If the coefficient of friction between block and surface is 1.2 then tension in the string is (in
newton)

1. 0 2. 1.2 3. 0.2 4. 3
SECTION-B
36. Two closed pipes produce 10 beats per second when emitting their fundamental nodes. Their lengths
25
are in the ratio of , then their fundamental frequencies are
26
1. 270,280 2. 260,270 3. 260,250 4. 260,280
37. P-V diagram of an ideal gas is shown in figure. Work done by the gas in the process ABCD is

1. PV
0 0 2. 3PV
0 0 3. 2PV
0 0 4.  PV
0 0

Pg. 5
38. A capacitor of capacitance 10  F is charged to a potential 50V with a battery. The battery is now
disconnected and an additional charge 200  C is given to the positive plate of the capacitor. The
potential difference across the capacitor will be
1. 60 V 2. 100 V 3. 80 V 4. 50 V
39. A disc is performing pure rolling on a smooth stationary surface with constant angular velocity as
shown in figure. At any instant for most lower point of the disc

1. Velocity is v, acceleration is zero 2. Velocity is zero, acceleration is zero

2
v v2
3. Velocity is v, acceleration 4. Velocity is zero, acceleration is
R R
40. A moving coil galvanometer of resistance 100 is used as an ammeter using a resistance 0.1 . The
maximum deflection current in the circuit so that the ammeter shows maximum deflection is
1. 100.1 mA 2. 1000.1 mA 3. 10.01 mA 4. 1.01 mA
41. A cubical block is floating in a liquid with half of its volume immersed in the liquid. When the whole
system accelerates upwards with acceleration of g/3, the fraction of volume immersed in the liquid
will be

1. 1/2 2. 3/8 3. 2/3 4. 3/4

42. The first diffraction minima due to a single slit diffraction is at 30 for a light of wavelength 6000A0 .
0

The width of the slit is (in  m ).

1. 1.2 2. 2.1 3. 4.3 4. 3.4
43. The magnetic moment of a current carrying circular coil of radius(r) number of turns (n) is M. If
radius of the coil is doubled keeping number of turns unchanged then magnetic moment becomes
(Assume current is constant)
M
1. M 2. 2M 3. 4M 4.
4
44. Let the earth is revolving around the sun in a circular orbit of radius r, then the angular momentum of
the earth around the sun is proportional to
 1 
 
1. r 2 
2. r 3/ 2 3. r 4. r
45. In the given figure, which of the diodes are forward biased?

1) 1, 2, 3 2) 2, 4, 5 3) 1, 3, 4 4) 2, 3, 4
Pg. 6
46. While measuring the rate of flow of a liquid v through a pipe, the percentage error in measuring
pressure gradient (p), radius (r) and coefficient of viscosity   were recorded as 1%, 0.5%, 1%
respectively. The percentage error in measuring rate of flow of liquid (V) is
 pr 4
Given V 

1. 2% 2. 4% 3. 6% 4. 5.5%
47. How much water should be filled in a container of height 72 cm, so that it appears to be one third
 4
filled to an observer when viewed from the top of the container?   for water  
 3
1. 24cm 2. 48 cm 3. 28.8 cm 4. 40 cm
48. Three resistances 15,15 and 18 are connected as shown in figure. If the point S divides the
resistance 18 into two equal halves, the resistance between points P and S will be

37
1. 32 2. 12 3. 27 4. 
49
49. A body starts moving on a circular track of radius 2 m. If mass of the body is 1 kg and its speed
varies as v   3t  2  m / s , then work done on the body in first 2 s will be
1. 64 J 2. 0 J 3. 30 J 4. 15 J
50. The power factor for the phasor diagram given below (for a series LCR circuit) will be

1 1 1
1. 2. 1 3. 4.
2 5 5 4 5
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. The compound which is most easily hydrolysed by aqueous alkali is

1) 2) 3) 4)

52. The compound which will give red colour in victor meyer test is

1) 2) 3) 4)

Pg. 7
53. Assertion(A): Cumene is oxidized in the presence of air to cumene hydroperoxide
Reason( R): Cumene hydroperoxide on reaction with dilute acid gives benzaldehyde
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
54. Moles of MnO4 required to oxidese one mole of iodide ion in faintly alkaline medium is
8 5
1) 2) 3) 2 4) 5
3 2
55. consider the following reactions.

A and B respectively are

1) 2)
3) 4)

56. Which of the following compounds is most reactive towards S N 1 reaction?

1) 2) 3) 4) CH 3  CI

57. Statement-I: For SN 2 reaction reactivity order is isobutyl Bromide greater than secondary butyl
Bromide
Statement-II: For SN 1 reaction reactivity order is secondary Butyl Bromide greater than isobutyl /
bromide
1) Both I and II statements are correct
2) Both I and II statements are wrong
3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
58. Common name of Phenetole is
1) Methoxy Benxene 2) Ethoxy Benzene 3) Ethyl phenyl ether 4) Both 2 & 3
59. Which of the following statements is not correct from the view point of molecular orbital theory?
1) Be2 does not exist
2) He2 does not exist but He2 is expected to exist
3) Bond strength of N 2 is maximum amongst the homonuclear diatomic molecules
4) The order of energies of molecular orbitals in N 2 molecule is
 1s   *1s   2s   * 2s   2 p z   2 px   2 p y    * 2 px   * 2 p y    * 2 pz
60. Disproportionation reaction among the following
1) CH 4  2O2  CO2  2 H 2 O 2) CH 4  4CI 2  CCI 4  4 HCI
 
3) 2F2  2OH  2F  OF2  H 2O 4) 2 NO2  2OH   NO2  NO3  H 2O
61. Shape of XeF4 molecule is
1) T – shape 2) See-saw
3) Square planar 4) Square pyramidal

Pg. 8
62. Number of neutrons present in 1.8g of H 2 O is
NA N 
1) N A 2) 3)  A   8 4) N A  10  8
10  10 
63. Orbital having 2 angular nodes and 2 total nodes is
1) 4d 2) 2p 3) 3d 4) 3p
64. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented?
1) CI   CI   CI 2) K   CI   S 2
3) S 2  CI   K  4) AI 3  Mg 2  N 3
65. 1 mol of tertiary butyl alcohol react with 1 mol of Al, produce how many moles of H 2
1) No reaction between tertiary alcohol and Al, so H 2 not produced.
2) Reaction possible between tetritory alcohol and Al, but H 2 not produce
3) In this reaction Al is limiting reagent
4) 0.5 mole of H 2 produced
66. Correct statements are
1) Propiophenone show +ve test for iodo form reaction
2) In vanillin major functional group is phenolic group
dil . Ba  OH 2

3) CH 3COCH 3  

 Mesityl oxide



4) All are correct

67. Ratio of mass of Ca to Na produced by the same charge during the electrolysis of their molten
chlorides is
20 40 23 23
1) 2) 3) 4)
23 23 40 20
68. For preparation of aldehydes match suitable substate and reagent
Substrate Reagents

i) H 2 / Pd  BaSO4

a)
b) PhCoCl ii) DIBAL  H / H 2 O
O iii) CrO2Cl2 / H 2O
||
c) R  C  OC 2 H 5
iv) CO  HCl / Anlydrus CuCl

d)

1) a – iii, b – i, c – ii, d – iv 2) a – ii, b – i, c – iii, d – iv

3) a – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – iii 4) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv
69. Find out the solubility of Ni  OH 2 in 0.2M NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni  OH 2 is
2 1015
1) 2 1014 M 2) 2 1013 M 3) 5 1014 M 4) 1013 M
A
70. But-2-ene  ethanal
1) Bayer’s reagent 2) Tollen’s reagent
3) Reductive ozonalyis 4) All the above
Pg. 9
71. The compound which cannot show metamerism is
1) C4 H10O 2) C3 H8O 3) C4 H 8O2 4) C5 H10O
72. C8 H8O  2,4  DNP reagent 
 H 2O
 2,4 DNP derivative
C8 H 8O  H 2CrO4  Benzoic acid
C8 H8O  NaOH / I 2  SodiumBenzoate  Iodo form
About C8 H8O
1) It reduce Toll’s reagent 2) It decolorize bronine water
3) It involve cannizaro reaction 4) It has 12  and 4 bonds
73. Coordination number of Co in K 3  Co  ox 3  is
1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) 6
1 1
74. For a reaction with rate constant x mol Ls , order of reaction will be
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 0
75. In which of the following options, the given order does not agree with variation of property indicated
against it?
1) H 2O  H2Te  H2 Se  H 2 S  Boiling Pont 
2) NH3  PH3  AsH3  SbH3  Basicity 
3) NH3  PH3  AsH3  SbH3  Boiling Point 


4) H 2O  H 2 S  H 2 Se  H 2Te HEH bond angle  0  
76. Cl2 on reaction with hot and conc. NaOH gives
1) NaCl and NaClO3 2) NaCl and NaOCl
3) NaClO3 and NaOCl 4) NaCl and NaClO4
77. The correct option for irreversible free expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition is
1) STotal  0, U  0 2) U  0, q  0 3) STotal  0, q  0 4) q  0, w  0
78. The major product of the following chemical reaction is

1) 2) 3) 4)

79. Assertion(A): Primary aliphatic amines react with nitrous acid liberate nitrogen gas quantitatively
and alcohol
Reason(R): Quantitative evolution of nitrogen is used in estimation of amino acids and proteins
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true

Pg. 10
80. Consider the following sequence of reactions,

1) 2)

3) 4)
81. The disease which is caused by the deficiency of pyridoxine is
1) Convulsions 2) Cheilosis 3) Night blindness 4) Scurvy
82. I) Butan  1  ol 
Jones reagent
A
KMNO4  H 2 SO4
II) Cyclo hexene 
B
III) Butanal    
1)Tollen ' s reagent
2) H 
C
1) A and C are same 2) B is di carboxylic acid
3) B is not a Homologue of A and C 4) All are correct
83. The following concentrations were obtained for the formation of NH 3 from N 2 and H 2 at equilibrium
at 500K
 N2   1.5 102 M  H2   3.0 102 M  NH3   1.2 102 M , calculate, KC
1) 1.06 2) 2.66 3) 2.66 103 4) 1.06 103
84. Which one of the following electrolytes has the same value of Van’t Hoff factor (i) as that of K 2 SO 4
(assuming all are 100% ionized)?
1) AI 2  SO4 3 2) K 4  Fe  CN 6  3) Na3 AIF6 4) Hg 2 I 2
85. Mole fraction of the solute in a 2 molal aqueous solution is
1 18 1 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
9 518 55.55 518
SECTION-B
86. Which of the following pairs of amines can be distinguished using isocyanide test?

1) 2)  CH3 3 N and  CH3  2 NH

3) 4)
87. Hydrolysis of sucrose gives
Sucrose  H 2O  Glu cos e  Fructose
Equilibrium constant K is 2 1013 at 300K calculate G 0 at 300K
1) 7.64 104 J mol 1 2) 7.64 104 J mol 1
3) 3.64 104 J mol 1 4) 3.64 104 J mol 1
Pg. 11
88. Match the species given in column-I with the oxidation states of the central atoms given in column-II
and identify the correct option

1) i  c, ii  d , iii  b, iv  a 2) i  a, ii  b, iii  c, iv  d
3) i  b, ii  a, iii  d , iv  c 4) i  d , ii  c, iii  a, iv  b
89. Calculate pH of a 108 M aqueous solution of NaOH
1) 6.98 2) 7.02 3) 8 4) 6
90. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about CO32  ?
a. The hybridization of central atom is sp3 .
b. Its resonance structure has one C-O single bond and two C=O double bonds.
c. The bond order of C-O bond is 1.25
d. All C-O bond lengths are equal.
1) a only 2) a and d only 3) b and c only 4) d only
91. Consider the following sets of quantum numbers

Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not possible?

1) a and c 2) b, c and d 3) a, b, c and d 4) b, d and e
92. A( s)  2B  (aq)  A2 (aq)  2 B( s)
For the above reaction if E 0 is 0.2591 V then equilibrium constant is
1) 101 2) 10 2 3) 1010 4) 1020
93. Which among the following salt solutions is acidic in nature?
1) CH 3COONa 2) NH 4 Cl 3) Na2CO3 4) NaCl
94. The pKa of acetic acid and pKb of NH 4OH is 4.76 and 4.75 what is nature of ammonium acetate
solution at 250 C
1) Acidic 2) Basic 3) Neutral 4) Data in sufficient

Pg. 12
95. The most stable carbocation, among the following is

1) 2) 3) 4)

96. match list-I with list-II and choose the correct option.

1) a  ii, b  iv, c  i, d  iii 2) a  i, b  iv, c  ii, d  iii

3) a  ii, b  iii, c  i, d  iv 4) a  i, b  iii, c  ii, d  iv
97. In half-life of a first order reaction is 20 min then time required for consumption of 87.5% of reactant
will be
1) 40 min 2) 60 min 3) 50 min 4) 80 min
98. Which among the following is an electrophilic substitution reaction?
1) Chloroethane with alc. KOH, 
2) Benzene with Cl2 , anhy FeCl3
3) Isobutane with Cl2 , hv
4) Propyne with H 2 , Pd
99. One mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally from 0.1 L to 0.5 L against a constant external
pressure of 2 atm. The work done by the gas is [ Given that 1 L atm = 101.3 J]
1) 10 J 2) – 81 J 3) 81 J 4) – 10 J
100. Consider the following statements
a. Phenylacetic acid is stronger acid than benzoic acid.
b. Benzoic acid does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction.
c. Carboxylic acid are reduced to primary alcohols with diborane followed by hydrolysis.
The correct statements are
1) a and b only 2) b and c only 3) a, b and c 4) a and c only
BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. The taxon more in common characters among the following is
1) Kingdom 2) Order 3) Genus 4) Species
102. Edible fungus of class Basidiomycetes is
1) Yeast 2) Morels 3) Mushroom 4) Colletotrichum
103. Select the incorrect match:
1) Viroids – are smaller than viruses
2) Prions – are similar in size to viruses
3) Lichens – do not grow in polluted areas
4) Mycorrhiza – symbiotic association of alga and fungus

Pg. 13
104. How many types of gametes can be produced by a pea plant which is heterozygous for both seed
shape
and seed colour?
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Eight
105. Select the incorrect statement:
1) Sutton and Boveri argued that the pairing and separation of a pair of chromosomes would lead to
the segregation of a pair of factors they carried
2) Morgan conducted the dihybrid crosses on fruit flies and he observed that the two genes did not
segregate independently of each other
3) Mendal’s Law of segregation explains that the factors or alleles of a pair segregate from each
other such that a gamete receives only one of the two factors.
4) Mendel proposed that ‘when two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair
of characters is dependent on the other pair of characters.
106. Sickle cell anemia is due to
1) Deletion of a single base pair of DNA 2) Change in a single base pair of DNA
3) Insertion of a single base pair of DNA 4) None of these
107. The final hydrogen acceptor of aerobic respiration
1) PEP 2) Acetyl Co A 3) Oxygen 4) OAA
108. Find the incorrect statement:
1) UAG is a stop codon
2) Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon
3) AUG has dual function
4) 64 codons code for amino acids
109. Statement – I: Aminoacylation of mRNA is required before translation
Statement – II: Okazaki fragments are formed on DNA template strand with polarity 5’  3’
1) Both the statements are correct 2) Only statement – I is correct
3) Only statement – II is correct 4) Both the statements are incorrect
110. Select the correct option:
Direction of polypeptide synthesis Direction of reading of m RNA
1) C – terminal to N – terminal 3’  5’
2) C – terminal to N – terminal 5’  3’
3) N – terminal to C – terminal 3’  5’
4) N – terminal to C – terminal 5’  3’
111. Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and healthier fats is
1) Biomagnification 2) Biofortification 3) Bioremediation 4) Biocontrol
112. The method in which the plant cells are bombarded with high velocity of micro-particles of gold or
tungsten coated with DNA is
1) Biolistic method 2) Heat shock method 3) Micro-injection 4) None of these
113. Which among the following is the common feature of spines and thorns
1) Both are modified stems 2) Both develop from axillary bud
3) Both provide defense against animals 4) Both are modified leaves
114. Which among the following plant tissues is not a part of ground tissue system?
1) Pericycle 2) Trichomes 3) Medullary rays 4) Pith
115. In cymose type of inflorescence
1) Older flowers are present at the apex of the stem
2) Shoot axis continues to grow indefinitely
3) Flowers are borne in acropetal succession
4) The main axis does not terminate into a flower
Pg. 14
116. Consider the following statements and choose the option accordingly:
Statement - A: In stems, the cells of cambium present between primary xylem and phloem is called
as inter-fascicular cambium
Statement - B: In isobilateral leaf, mesophyll is not differentiated
1) Only statement – A is correct 2) Only statement – B is correct
3) Both the statements A and B are incorrect 4) Both the statements A and B are correct
117. Select the incorrect match:
1) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek – First saw and described a living cell
2) Robert Brown – Discovered nucleus
3) Matthias Schleiden – Observed the plants are composed of different kinds of cells
4) Theodore Schwann – A Germon botanist who examined different types of animal cells
118. The shape of mesophyll cells
1) Round and biconcave 2) Branched and long
3) Round and oval 4) Long and narrow
119. Which organelle principally performs the function of packaging of materials?
1) Golgi apparatus 2) Endoplasmic reticulum
3) Lysosomes 4) Vacuole
120. The most obvious and technically complicated feature of all living organisms is
1) Growth 2) Cellular organization
3) Metabolism 4) Consciousness
121. Read the following statements and select the correct option:
Statement - A: Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal breeders, both plants and animals
Statement - B: Human being is the only organism who is aware of himself
1) Only statement – A is correct 2) Only statement – B is correct
3) Both the statements are correct 4) Both the statements are incorrect
122. Which of the following features are common among alcoholic fermentation and lactic acid
fermentation?
a) Release CO2
b) Less than 7% energy in glucose is released
c) Harmful end products are produced
1) Only a 2) Only a and c 3) Only b 4) Only b and c
123. During the period of 1960 to 2000, wheat production increased from _ A__ million tonnes to _ B__
million tonnes
A B
1) 11 89.5
2) 35 89.5
3) 11 75
4) 35 75
124. What does ‘r’ indicates in the equation: W1=W0ert
1) Initial size 2) Growth rate
3) Base of natural logarithms 4) Time of growth
125. Climax community of the ecological succession is
1) The community that invade first into an area during succession
2) The community that declines and disappear during succession
3) The seral community that is not in near equilibrium with environment
4) The community that is in near equilibrium with the environment

Pg. 15
126. Match the column – I with column – II and select the correct option
Column – I (Compound) Column – II (Number of carbon/molecule)
A) Primary CO2 acceptor of tomato (i) PGA
B) Primary CO2 fixation product of bell pepper (ii) OAA
C) Primary CO2 acceptor of maize (iii) RUBP
D) Primary CO2 fixation product of sugar cane (iv) PEP
1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) 2) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
3) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii) 4) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
127. All of the following are correct except
1) Cytokinins help overcome the apical dominance.
2) Abscisic acid plays an important role in seed development, maturation and dormancy
3) Gibberellins are growth inhibitors that delay senescence
4) Auxins help to initiate rooting in stem cuttings
128. How many meiotic divisions are required to form 200 seeds in a plant?
1) 250 2) 200 3) 50 4) 10
129. Cytokinesis is centrifugal in
1) Animals 2) Plants 3) Bacteria 4) Viruses
130. Match the column – I with column – II and select the correct option:
Column – I Column – II
a) Chlorophyceae (i) Air bladders
b) Phaeophyceae (ii) Pyrenoids
c) Rhodophyceae (iii) Funori - Carrageen
1) a-(i); b-(iii); c(ii) 2) a-(ii); b-(iii); c(i)
3) a-(iii); b-(ii); c(i) 4) a-(ii); b-(i); c(iii)
131. Which of the following taxonomic branches is based on chemical constituents of the plants?
1) Chemotaxonomy 2) Cytotaxonomy
3) Karyotaxonomy 4) Numerical taxonomy
132. Commercially streptokinase is obtained from a
1) Fungus 2) Alga 3) Bacterium 4) Protozoan
133. The Fumigatory is a member of
1) Fabaceae 2) Solanaceae 3) Liliaceae 4) Brassicaceae
134. post-fertilization events in angiosperms do not include
1) Formation of embryosac
2) Formation of nuclear endosperm
3) Formation of seeds from ovules
4) formation of embryo from zygote
135. Heterophyllous development due to environment can be seen in
1) Buttercup 2) Cotton 3) Coriander 4) Larkspur
SECTION-B
136. Who tried to put price tag on nature’s life support services?
1) Robert Constanza 2) Robert Emerson
3) Robert Brown 4) Robert Hill
137. The outer seed coat layer is called
1) Hilum 2) Tegmen 3) Testa 4) Aleurone layer
138. Conjuctive tissue is present in
1) Monocot leaf 2) Dicot root 3) Monocot stem 4) Dicot leaf

Pg. 16
139. Match the column – I with Column – II and choose the correct option
Column – I Column – II
a) Inclusion body (i) Small bristle like fibres sprout out of a bacterial cell
b) Fimbriae (ii) Found in eukaryotic organism
c) Cilia (iii) Lie free in the cytoplasm
d) Flagella (iv) Help in motility in bacteria
1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) 2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) 4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
140. How many of the following characteristics can determine the vegetation in any area?
Percolation; Water holding capacity; pH; Mineral composition; Topography
1) 2 2) 5 3) 4 4) 3
141. In primary succession in water, the pioneer species are
1) Lichens 2) Mosses 3) Submerged plants 4) Phytoplanktons
142. All of the following are mosses except
1) Funaria 2) Marchantia 3) Sphagnum 4) Polytrichum
143. The splitting of water is associated with
1) PS II 2) Stroma 3) PS I 4) None of these
144. Select the incorrect statement.
1) Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in cell wall structure
2) Viruses can have DNA enclosed in a protein coat
3) Majority of bacteria cannot synthesize their own food
4) Slime moulds are flagellated photosynthetic protists
145. If a white flower bearing Snapdragon plant is crossed with pink flowered snapdragon plant, then the
percentage of white flowered progeny in F1 generation will be
1) 25% 2) 50% 3) 75% 4) 100%
146. Read the following statements
a) Pitch of DNA helix is 3.4nm
b) Backbone of dsDNA helix is constituted by nitrogenous bases
c) Two chains of DNA run anti-parallel to each other
d) Each turn of dsDNA helix has 9 bases at most
How many of the above statements are correct.
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
147. Statement – I: Secondary succession is faster than primary succession
Statement – II: Secondary succession begins in areas with some soil or sediment
1) Both the statements are correct and statement – II is correct explanation of statement - I
2) Both the statements are correct but statement – II is not the correct explanation of statement – I
3) Only statement – I is wrong
4) Only statement – II is wrong
148. How many of the following structures are haploid and triploid respectively
Aleurone layer, Perisperm, Synergid, Integument, Antipodal cell, Coconut water, Mesocarp
1) 1 and 2 2) 2 and 2 3) 2 and 3 4) 2 and 1
149. Find the incorrect statement w. r. t. growth
1) It is one of the most fundamental and conspicuous characteristics of a living being
2) It is an irreversible permanent increase in size of an organ or its parts or even of an individual cell.
3) Growth is accompanied by anabolic processes but not the catabolic processes
4) The expansion of a leaf is growth

Pg. 17
150. Find the incorrect statement w. r. t. biofertilizers
1) Cyanobacteria can be used in paddy field as biofertilizer
2) BGA adds organic matter to soil
3) BGA increases alkalinity of soil
4) BGA can fix nitrogen in soil
ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A
151. Which of the following are not analogous organs
1) Wings of butterfly and bird 2) Eye of octopus and Mammals
3) Thorns of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita 4) Flippers of Penguins & Dolphins
152. Flagellar movement assists in all of the following, except
1) Swimming of spermatozoa in female genital tract
2) Maintenance of water current in the canal system of sponges
3) Locomotion of protozoans like Euglena
4) Locomotion of Paramecium
153. Choose the incorrect statement.
1) Patella bone is not a part of appendicular skeleton
2) Knee joint and elbow joint are examples of hinge joint
3) The skull is composed of two set of bones, cranial and facial bones
4) The vertebral column serves as the point of attachment for the ribs
154. During the process of ultrafiltration, all of the given constituents of plasma can pass on to the lumen
of Bowman’s capsule, except
1) Lipids 2) Glucose 3) Albumin 4) Minerals
155. The amount of CO2 delivered by 5 L of deoxygenated blood to the alveoli is
1) 20 mL 2) 2 mL 3) 200 L 4) 200 mL
156. Human RBCs have an average life span of
1) 120 weeks 2) 120 days 3) 60 days 4) 120 months
157. All of the given are involved in coagulation of blood, except
1) Thrombokinase 2) Calcium ions 3) Thrombocytes 4) Globulins
158. Choose the incorrect statement for simple epithelial tissues in humans.
1) It is composed of a single layer of cells
2) It functions as a lining for body cavities, ducts and tubes
3) On the basis of structural modification of cells, it is divided into three types
4) It covers the dry surface of the skin
159. The abdomen in both adult male and female cockroach consists of
1) 9 and 10 segments, respectively 2) 10 and 11 segments, respectively
3) 10 segments 4) 11 segments
160. How many of the following given below are belongs to the Down’s syndrome
a) Autosomal disorder b) Two allosomes present
c) Furrowed tongue d) Total no of chromosomes are 47
st
e) Ttisomy at 21 chromosome
f) Palm is broad with characteristic palm crease
1) Three 2) Four 3) Five 4) Six
161. In humans, pancreas is
1) Exocrine gland 2) Mixed gland
3) Largest endocrine gland 4) Neither endocrine nor exocrine gland

Pg. 18
162. Select the correct match w.r.t ABO blood grouping in humans.
1) Blood group ‘A’ – Antigen ‘A’ on RBCs
2) Blood group ‘O’ – Anti- A and anti-B antibodies on RBC membrane
3) Blood group ‘AB’ – Donor’s group is only AB and B
4) Blood group ‘B’ – Donor’s group is only B
163. Select the odd one w.r.t parts of brain stem.
1) Midbrain 2) Pon’s
3) Cerebellum 4) Medulla oblongata
164. Select the correct option w.r.t the composition of thyroid gland.
1) Follicles and lymphoid mass 2) Follicles and stromal tissues
3) Stromal tissue only 4) Follicles and cartilage
165. What was the population of India at the time of its independence?
1) 35 million 2) 350 million 3) 1.2 billion 4) 35 billion
166. Programmes covering wider reproduction-related areas are currently operational under which of the
following popular names?
1) Reproductive and Child health care 2) Reproductive and family health care
3) Family planning programmes 4) Family welfare schemes
167. A collection of methods that allows correction of a gene defect, that has been diagnosed in an
embryo or a child, is called
1) PCR 2) RDT 3) Gene therapy 4) ELISA
168. Giraffes in an attempt to forage leaves on tall trees had to adapt by elongation of their necks
Select the incorrect option w.r.t above given statements.
1) Explained by a French naturalist Lamarck
2) This example was used in the theory which states that evolution is driven by use and disuse of
organs
3) Everyone believes this conjecture till now
4) It was observed that acquired character of elongated neck was passed to succeeding generations
169. Who made a sea voyage in a sail ship called HMS Beagle round the world?
1) Alfred Wallace 2) Charles Darwin 3) Thomas Malthus 4) Haeckel
170. Cave paintings by pre-historic humans can be seen at rock shelter in Raisen district of
1) Maharashtra 2) Andhra Pradesh 3) Arunachal Pradesh 4) Madhya Pradesh
171. Gland ‘X’ is located in between lungs behind sternum on the ‘Y’ side of aorta.
Select the correct option for ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively
1) Thymus and dorsal 2) Thymus and ventral
3) Thyroid gland and ventral 4) Thyroid gland and dorsal
172. If ‘B’ is the number of births, ‘D’ is the number of deaths, ‘I’ is immigration and ‘E’ is emigration,
then, population density will increase if
1) (B + I) < (D + E) 2) (B + I) > (D + E) 3) (B +E) < (D + I) 4) (B+ E) > (D + I)
173. Which of the following food chains will represent inverted pyramid of number?
1) Plants  insects  birds
2) Grasses  Goats  Lion
3) Phytoplanktons  Zooplanktons  Small  fishes  Large fish
4) Tree  Herbivorous birds  Parasites
174. If a human male ejaculates about 100 million sperms during a coitus. For normal fertility, how
many sperms must have normal shape and size and must show vigorous motility?
1) 60 million 2) 74 million 3) 24 million 4) 40 million

Pg. 19
175. ‘X’ acts on Sertoli cells and stimulates the secretion of some factors which help in the process of
spermiogenesis.
1) LH 2) FSH 3) TSH 4) GnRH
176. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option.

COLUMN – I COLUMN - II
A Gametogenesis (i) Attachment of blastocyst to uterine wall
B Insemination (ii) Release of sperm into female genital tract
C Ejaculation (iii) Formation of sperms and ova
D Implantation (iv) Release of sperms out of the male body

1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i 4) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
177. Which of the following disorders are recessive and related to blood?
a) Haemophilia b) Sickle-cell anaemia c) Thalassemia
1) a & c only 2) b only 3) b & c only 4) All a, b & c
178. The air sacs connected to lungs supplement respiration in
1) Neophron 2) Pristis 3) Rana 4) Betta
179. Select the incorrect statement.
1) The most unique mammalian characteristic is the presence of milk-producing glands
2) In all proto chordates, notochord is present only in larval tail
3) Notochord is replaced by cartilaginous vertebral column in cyclostomes
4) Ventral muscular heart and paired appendages are seen in chordates
180. Which among the following feature is common in between chordates and non-chordates?
1) Presence of notochord 2) Absence of dorsal heart
3) Presence of central nervous system 4) Absence of post-anal tail
181. Identify the incorrect statement about the productivity
1) The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is approximately 170 billion tons
2) GPP is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs
3) GPP – R = NPP
4) New organic matter produced by the consumers is known as secondary productivity
182. During decomposition, water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get
precipitated as unavailable salts, that process is known as
1) Fragmentation 2) Catabolism 3) Humification 4) Leaching
183. “The Earth summit” held in
1) Rio de janeiro in 2010 2) Riode janeiro in 1992
3) Johannes burg – 2002 4) Johannes burg - 1992
184. The biological response modifiers used for cancer patients include
1) Vinblastine
2)   interferons
3) Chemotherapeutic drugs
4) Use of X-rays
185. Choose the mismatched pair w.r.t disease and its symptoms.
1) AIDS - Bouts of fever, diarrhoea and weight loss
2) Ringworm – Appearance of dry, scaly lesions
3) Filariasis – Internal bleeding, anaemia
4) Amoebiasis – Abdominal pain and cramps

Pg. 20
 SECTION - B
186. Identify the incorrect one
1) Actin filaments – present in both I- band & A-band
2) A-band – only thick filaments are present
3) I-band – only actin filaments are present
4) Myosin filaments – Present only in A-band
187. Identify the structure given below and choose the incorrect statement w.r.t it

1) These are naturally obtained from inflorescences of the plant, Cannabinus sativa
2) Marijuana can be produced from it
3) Its receptors are present principally in the brain
4) It is a depressant and slows down body functions
188. Select the correct statement
1) All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates
3) All annelids are bisexual
2) All aschelminths exhibit direct development with oviparity
4) All flatworms are parasitic in nature
189. Select the option that is not a feature of cartilaginous fishes.
1) Streamlined body
2) Absence of ventral mouth
3) Presence of placoid scales
4) Exhibit internal fertilisation
190. A triploblastic, pseudocoelomate among the following is
1) Wuchereria 2) Fasciola
3) Hirudinaria 4) Anopheles
191. Which of the following is situated on the basilar membrane?
1) Organ of corti 2) Semi-circular canals
3) Crista ampullaris 4) Otolith organ
192. Match the following
COLUMN – I COLUMN – II
a) Nutrophils I) 6 – 8 %
b) Eosinophils II) 60 – 65 %
c) Monocytes III) 20 – 25 %
d) Lymphocytes IV) 2 – 3 %
V) 0.5 – 1 %
1) a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III 2) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
3) a-IV, b-II, c-I, d-V 4) a-II, b-V, c-I, d-III
193. All of the following are the common reasons for producing transgenic animals, except
1) Normal physiology and development
2) Vaccine safety
3) Chemical safety testing
4) Early diagnosis of diseases

Pg. 21
194. A woman with 110 days of her pregnancy consulted a doctor with a request of MTP. Which of the
following is correct w.r.t her MTP?
1) She needs opinion of one registered medical practitioner
2) She needs opinion of two registered medical practitioners
3) She needs an affidavit from a family court
4) She does not require opinion of any medical practitioner
195. Assertion (A) :- Pouched mammals survived and flourished in Australia.
Reason (R) :- There was lack of competition from any other mammal to pouched mammals of
Australia due to continental drift.
1) Both (A) and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) Both A and R are false
196. Identify the correct one
1) HGP was closely associated with the rapid development of a new area in biology called
Biotechnology
2) The sequence of chromosome 1 was completed only in May 2006
3) The dystrophin protein gene consists of 1.4 million bases
4) Y – chromosome has 2968 genes
197. Identify the incorrect
1) The signals for parturition originated form the fully developed foetus and the placenta
2) Parturition is a complex neuro endocrine mechanism
3) Foetal ejection reflex triggers the release of oxytocin from foetal pituitary
4) Breast feeding during the initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing
up a healthy baby
198. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement I :- The value of pO2 in alveolar air is more than the value of pO2 in systemic arteries.
Statement II :- The value of pO2 in pulmonary artery is equal to the value of pCO2 in pulmonary
vein.
1) Both statement A and B are correct
2) Both statement A and B are incorrect
3) Only statement A is correct
4) Only statement B is correct
199. The process of release of urine i.e., micturition is due to
1) Relaxation of smooth muscles of the bladder and contraction of urethral sphincter
2) Contraction of smooth muscles of the bladder and relaxation of urethral sphincter
3) Contraction of skeletal muscles of the bladder and relaxation of urethral sphincter
4) Relaxation of skeletal muscles of the bladder and contraction of urethral sphincter
200. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. circulatory system in humans.
1) SA node has the highest rate of depolarisation
2) Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is more than that in the pulmonary vein
3) The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from intestine
4) Ventricular systole increases the flow of blood into the ventricles from atrium by about 30
percent

* * All the Best * *

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