ACT questions

Each passage is followed by several questions. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each
question.
Passage (1)
The study of genetics is based on the work of Gregor Mendel who studied specific traits in pea plants.
He observed self-pollination with tall and short pea plants. The traits that seemed to appear most
often he labeled dominant traits. Those traits that seemed to be hidden were considered recessive
traits. A Punnett square is used to find the probability whether a dominant trait or recessive trait
shows in a cross. A monohybrid cross is used for one trait. To find two traits, you use a dihybrid
Punnett square as shown below.
For the corn color, yellow (pp) is recessive and purple (PP, Pp) is dominant. For the skin texture,
wrinkled (ss) is recessive and smooth (SS, Ss) is dominant. The four possible gene combinations are:
PS Ps pS ps
If you cross a heterozygous parent PpSs with a heterozygous PpSs, the results are shown below:

Use the Punnett square to determine the probability of corn color and skin texture.

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……………………………………………………………………………………..
Passage (2)
Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder found in many African populations. The human red blood cell
is normally shaped as a round disc. People with
sickle cell anemia have a red blood cell, shaped
like a sickle that creates a shorter life expectancy
for the person. People with this genetic disorder
suffer with severe pain, shortness of breath,
fevers, etc.
People who carry the sickle cell (trait) have a
protective advantage against malaria according to
the Centers for Disease Control (CDC). They
found that there is a higher frequency of carriers
living in an area where malaria is predominating.
Below are some statistics from the CDC.

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Graph of survival curves (“survival function estimates”) of children without any sickle cell genes
(HbAA), children with sickle cell trait (HbAS), and children with sickle cell disease (HbSS).

Note: Number of hospitalizations include all listed sickle cell disease diagnoses.
Source: AHRQ, Center for Delivery, Organization, and Markets, Healthcare Cost and Utilization Project,
Nationwide Inpatient Sample.

Note: Number of hospitalizations include all listed sickle cell disease diagnoses.
Source: AHRQ, Center for Delivery, Organization, and Markets, Healthcare Cost and Utilization Project,
Nationwide Inpatient Sample.

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1. Why would there be a higher frequency of carriers for the sickle cell trait (HbAS) in areas
with high risk of malaria infection?
A. According to Figure 1, children with the HbSS genotype have the lowest death rate.
B. According to Figure 1, there are more children with the HbAS than the HbAA genotype.
C. According to Figure 1, the children with the HbAS genotype have a slight survival advantage.
D. There is no reason for a higher frequency of the HbAS genotype in areas with high risk of malaria
infection.
2. Based on the data in Figure 1, when does the child with sickle cell anemia suffer a severe
downfall?
A. 60 days
B. 90 days
C. 120 days
D. 210 days
3. In Figure 2 what year had the highest number of hospitalizations for children with sickle cell
anemia?
A. 1996
B. 1997
C. 2000
D. 2001
4. Which conclusion can be correctly drawn from the three figures that have been provided on
sickle cell disease?
A. Children with the sickle cell trait (HbAS) or sickle cell disease (HbSS) are less likely to survive than
children without any sickle cell genes (HbAA).
B. The number of hospitalizations for adults with sickle cell disease was greater than the number of
hospitalizations for children with sickle cell disease from 1994 to 2004.
C. The most hospitalizations for both adults and children with sickle cell disease were due to infections.
D. The number of hospitalizations for children and adults with sickle cell disease has decreased from
1994 to 2004 due to advances in medicine.
5. According to Figure 3, what condition or procedure experienced the highest percentage of
adults with sickle cell disease (SCD)?
A. Blood transfusions
B. Infections
C. Pulmonary conditions
D. Mental disorders
6. According to the passage on sickle cell disease, what is a plausible explanation for the data
on blood transfusions in Figure 3?
A. Sickle cell anemia is a genetic condition in which the red blood cell is shaped like a sickle instead
of a round disc; therefore, patients with sickle cell disease need blood transfusions.
B. People with sickle cell anemia do not need blood transfusions because they have a protective
advantage against malaria.
C. Sickle cell patients who receive blood transfusions will have a shorter life expectancy.
D. Cardiac conditions cause a higher percentage of hospitalizations than blood transfusions in people
with sickle cell disease because sickle cell is a disorder of the heart.

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 Passage (3)
The property of diffusion is where substances intermix. Diffusion occurs very fast in a gas, fast in a
liquid, and does not occur in a solid. In the case of solids in liquids, however, diffusion takes place at
a very slow rate. When a solid is in contact with an excess of solvent (liquid) in which it is soluble
(dissolves), some of the solid gets dissolved. This process is called dissolution, where diffusion of
solid particles into a liquid takes place.
Experiment 1
A scientist puts five grams of copper sulfate crystals (solid) into a 100 mL beaker. 50 mL of water are
added to the beaker. The scientist lets this mixture stand for a few minutes. The water starts to turn
blue. The scientist continues to observe until all of the copper sulfate crystals disappear.
Experiment 2
The scientist adds five grams of copper sulfate to three different beakers. She pours 100 mL of
distilled water in one of the beakers. Then the scientist pours 100 mL of cold water slowly into the
second beaker. She creates a third setup by putting the last beaker on a tripod stand for heating.
Here is a chart she created after observing the diffusion process and the dissolution of the copper
sulfate crystals.

Experiment 3
The scientist adds 50 mL of water to three different beakers. She measures 5 grams of copper sulfate
by crystal size—small, medium, and large—and puts the crystals in each beaker. Again she observes
and records the time required for complete dissolution.

1. What is the control in Experiment 2?

A. The amount of copper sulfate used
B. The time the copper sulfate is submerged in water
C. The temperature of the water used
D. The amount of heat applied to each beaker
2. Why do you need a control in an experiment?
A. The control determines the dependent and independent variables.
B. The control determines how to set up the experiment.
C. The control is the baseline for the experiment and allows results of other experiments to be
compared.
D. The control determines the length of the experiment.

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3. What is the variable in Experiment 2?
A. Temperature
B. Time
C. Size of beakers
D. There was no variable in this experiment.
4. What was the conclusion of Experiment 2?
A. The color of the water was blue.
B. The time stayed the same.
C. The rate of diffusion varies with time
D. The rate of diffusion varies directly with temperature.
5. What could you say about the conclusion in Experiment 3?
A. Large particles underwent diffusion quicker than smaller particles.
B. Small particles undergo diffusion quicker than larger particles.
C. Medium particles underwent diffusion all of the time.
D. Large and medium particles had an equal rate of diffusion.
6. What result appears in all three experiments?
A. When solids such as copper sulfate come in contact with a liquid such as water, diffusion takes
place.
B. When liquid such as water mixes with a solid like copper sulfate, the temperature decreases.
C. When a solid is a very large crystal, diffusion does not take place.
D. When the temperature increases, diffusion does not take place very quickly.
Passage (4)
Laboratory animals were given equal amounts of four different forms of a new drug. Each form of the
drug reaches a maximum concentration in the blood of the animal at a certain time and then declines.
The maximum level and rate of accumulation and decline is different for each form of the drug. The
following graph represents a summary of the amounts of each of these forms of the drug in the blood
of laboratory animals at different times after injection. Amounts of the drug are measured as
milligrams per Liter of blood (mg/L).

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1. According to the graph, what is the level of Form B of the drug at 24 hours?
A. 20 mg/L
B. 40 mg/L
C. 60 mg/L
D. 80 mg/L
2. According to the graph, which of the following conclusions about Form A of the drug would
be most accurate?
A. It reaches the highest concentration in the blood compared to all other forms.
B. It disappears from the blood more slowly than the other forms.
C. It remains in the blood for the longest time.
D. It is the most powerful form of the drug.
3. If a researcher could perform only one measurement of drug levels in the blood, which time
period would best differentiate between these forms of the drug?
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 48 hours
4. A researcher hypothesized that there would be one period at which the concentration of all
four forms of the drug would be similar. At what time does the concentration support that
conclusion?
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
5. A fifth form (E) of the drug was discovered and was found to have a maximum
concentration of 60 mg/L at 24 hours. Assuming that this new form behaves similarly to the
other forms of the drug, at what time period would this new form be completely absent from
the blood?
A. 20 hours
B. 30 hours
C. 42 hours
D. 54 hours
Passage (5)
During space flight under conditions of zero gravity, the larger skeletal bones weaken due to a rapid
loss of bone density. This loss of bone density is correlated with an increased excretion of calcium in
the urine and a decrease in the mineral content of the bones. Three possible treatments were tested
on rats while in a zero-gravity orbit for five days. The concentrations of calcium in their urine and the
mineral content of their spinal vertebrae were measured before, during, and one day after their flight.
Experiment 1
Animals were given free access
to a high calcium diet for one
month before and then during the
flight. The average urinary
calcium levels and bone mineral
contents of the animals are
shown below.

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Experiment 2
Some hormonal growth factors, such as insulin-like growth factor (IGF), can stimulate bone cell
replication. The animals were injected with various doses of IGF the day before the flight. The results
are shown
below:

Experiment 3
The animals were housed in activity wheels driven by timed motors and given periods of wheel
running activity each day while in flight. In place of urinary calcium concentrations, the muscle mass
of the hind legs was measured and is expressed as the ratio of post-flight to pre-flight measurements.
The data are shown below.

1. Do the results of these experiments support the conclusion that the loss of bone density in
zero gravity can be prevented?
A. Yes, in Experiments 2 and 3, bone mineral content increased with growth factor injection and wheel.
B. No, in Experiment 2 the urinary calcium levels on days 3 and 5 were greater in control animals
than in the IGF-treated animals.
C. Yes, in Experiment 1 the bone mineral content of treated animals was similar to that in the control
animals after the flight.
D. No, in Experiment 3 wheel running activity could not increase either muscle mass or bone mineral
content above preflight values.
2. Which of the following factors was an experimental variable in Experiment 1?
A. Weight of the animals
B. Volume of urine produced
C. Time spent in zero gravity conditions
D. Duration of treatment with the test diet before flight
3. If 50 mg of IGF were injected into each animal every day while in flight, one would predict
that in contrast to a single 50 mg pre-flight injection of IGF
A. the bone mineral content after the flight would be much lower than the pre-flight bone mineral content.
B. urinary calcium concentrations might not rise between day 3 and day 5.
C. the decline in bone mineral content that occurred during flight might proceed more rapidly.
D. urinary calcium concentrations might exceed control values on Day 5
4. From the data presented here, which of the following can one conclude about possible
treatments for preventing the loss of bone density in space flight?
A. Neither diet nor physical exercise has any measurable effect on the loss of bone

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density in flight.
B. Treatment with IGF is especially promising because of its ability to increase urinary
calcium excretion.
C. Physical exercise has a smaller effect on bone mineral content than the other potential
treatments, such as high calcium diet and IG injection.
D. Increasing the amount of calcium in the diet is the least effective treatment tested in preventing the
loss of bone density in flight.
5. In contrast to Experiment 1, Experiment 3 was probably a better designed experiment for
which of the following reasons?
A. The amount of the test diet eaten in Experiment 1 was not controlled while the time spent wheel
running in Experiment 3 was controlled.
B. The test diet was given for a month before the flight while the wheel running was performed during the flight.
C. Muscle mass was measured in Experiment 3 but not in Experiment 1.
D. Animals in the control group in Experiment 3 showed a greater loss of bone mineral content than
did animals in the control group in Experiment 1.
6. On the basis of the experimental results, what treatment is most likely to succeed in
maintaining the bone mineral content of astronauts during extended space flight?
A. A high calcium diet in addition to four hours of exercise daily
B. A pre-flight administration of growth factors combined with four hours of daily exercise
C. A daily administration of growth factors with a high calcium diet
D. A four-hour period of daily exercise combined with daily administration of growth factors.

Passage (6)
Where do extracellular biological materials come from?
There are many substances in the body that accumulate outside cells (extracellular). These include:
bone, teeth, cartilage, ligaments, and numerous other important structures, including membranes.
There is a particular membrane that appears in a space between two layers of cells. This membrane
is known as the dense membrane, and the cell layers are known as the outer cell layer and the inner
cell layer. The cells that make up the two layers are suspected of producing the dense membrane.
Biologist 1
When the dense membrane is fully formed, it is possible to scrape off large numbers of the cells from
the outer layer, grind them up, and subject them to chemical tests. Using this technique, Biologist 1
found that these cells contain many of the same biochemicals as found in the dense membrane.
Biologist 1 concluded that the dense membrane is therefore formed only by the cells of the outer
layer.
Biologist 2
Using a powerful microscope, Biologist 2 saw what appeared to be small particles of the dense
membrane within individual cells of the inner layer. These cells then deposited the particles in the
space between the inner and outer cell layers as the dense membrane was forming. Biologist 2 then
used special chemical tests to show that these small particles were composed of the same
biochemicals as those found in the dense membrane. Biologist 2
concluded that the dense membrane was produced only by the inner layer of cells.
1. Which of the following is a similarity between the experiments of Biologist 1 and Biologist
2? They both
A. removed and tested large numbers of cells.
B. studied bone, cartilage, and ligaments.
C. used a microscope to study the dense membrane.
D. identified the biochemicals of the dense membrane.
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2. Which of the following experimental procedures could have led Biologist 1 to reach a faulty
conclusion?
A. Large numbers of cells were scraped off to be tested.
B. Chemical tests were used to test biological material.
C. Some of the dense membrane was scraped off with the cells.
D. It was necessary to grind up the cells to perform the test.
3. The hypothesis of Biologist 2, that the dense membrane is produced only by the cells of the
inner layer, could best be DISPROVED by proving that
A. similar particles exist in the cells of the outer layer.
B. membrane particles exist in the cells of the inner layer.
C. the material of the dense membrane is found in other parts of the body.
D. the cells of the inner and outer layers are similar in appearance.
4. Which of the following procedures would provide the strongest support for the hypothesis
of Biologist 1, that the dense membrane is formed by the cells of the outer layer?
A. Try to scrape off large numbers of the inner cells and perform the same chemical tests.
B. Use a different chemical test on the cells of the outer layer.
C. Grind up the dense membrane and mix it with the cells of both layers.
D. Repeat the original experiment several times, using only cells of the outer layer.
5. Which of the following diagrams best depicts the conclusions of Biologist 2?

6. If you could place a radioactive marker on the unique chemicals that are used only to make
up the dense membrane and you injected that marked chemical into an animal, which cell
layer would become radioactive if the hypothesis of Biologist 1 was correct?
A. The inner layer of cells only
B. The outer layer of cells only
C. First the inner layer and then the outer layer of cells
D. Both the inner and outer layers of cells
7. In some animals, the inner cell layer is not present. When this happens, the dense
membrane never appears. This new evidence would
A. support the hypothesis of Biologist 1.
B. support the hypothesis of Biologist 2.
C. contradict the hypothesis of Biologist 2.
D. support the hypotheses of both Biologists 1 and 2.
Passage (7)
Hormones are chemical substances that circulate in the blood of all animals and regulate many body
functions and activities. Hormone A and Hormone B are found in most animals under normal
circumstances and influence the level of physical activity of the animal. A set of experiments was
designed, using laboratory mice, to determine the relationship between Hormone A and Hormone B.
All experimental mice were compared to a group of control mice that received no hormones or
surgery.

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Experiment 1
Hormone A can be injected directly into the animal or given in the form of pills hidden in the food.
High amounts of Hormone A were given to a group of laboratory mice. The levels of Hormone B were
then measured and found to be lower than in normal control mice.
Experiment 2
Hormone B is a very powerful hormone and very small amounts will have a dramatic effect; however,
this hormone can only be given by injection. Large amounts of Hormone B were injected into a group
of laboratory mice. The levels of Hormone A were then measured and found to be higher than in
normal control mice.
Experiment 3
The part of the body that produces Hormone A was surgically removed from a group of mice. Soon
after the operation, there was an increase in the levels of Hormone B in the blood of all the operated
animals, as compared to the control group.
1. Which of the following best describes the relationship between Hormones A and B?
A. They are not related to each other in any way.
B. They appear to have some control over each other in the body.
C. They both rise and fall simultaneously.
D. When the level of one hormone goes down,
the other always goes up.
2. From the experiments, the researchers can conclude that in the blood of normal mice, when
the level of Hormone B increases, the level of Hormone A
A. increases.
B. does not change.
C. decreases.
D. falls and then rises.
3. From these experiments, it is reasonable to conclude that
A. Hormones A and B are produced by the same part of the body.
B. the levels of hormones in the body never change.
C. levels of Hormone B are reduced when any part of the body is removed.
D. there is a mechanism in mice that regulates the
levels of hormones in their bodies.
4. In Experiment 2, should the researcher have administered Hormone B in the form of pills
hidden in the food of the animals?
A. No, because Hormone B will only work if it is injected.
B. Yes, because the experiments are testing the way in which the drug is administered.
C. Yes, because Hormone B should be administered in exactly the same way as Hormone A.
D. Yes, because this would serve as a better control.
5. What would you expect to happen if you removed the part of the body that produced
Hormone B?
A. Levels of Hormone B would increase.
B. Levels of Hormone A would increase.
C. Levels of Hormone A would decrease.
D. Levels of both Hormones A and B would increase.
6. If high levels of Hormone A cause the animal to become active and lower levels of Hormone
A cause the animal to fall asleep, what would happen if you injected extra amounts of
Hormone B?
A. The animal would sleep.
B. There would be no effect.
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C. The animal would require more sleep than usual.
D. The animal would become more active.
Passage (8)
The growth (i.e., proliferation) of tumor cells in culture depends on the amount of nutrients in the
culture media in which the cells are maintained. Cell proliferation can be determined by counting the
number of cells. The effects of various media concentrations of glucose and calcium on the growth of
three different cell types were tested. Each culture dish began the test with 0.5 million cells to which
were added fresh media containing known concentrations of either glucose or calcium. The results
after three days are shown below.

1. On the basis of the information in Graphs 1 and 2, one would predict that the growth of Cell
Type A would be greater than that of Cell Type B in media containing
A. 0.2 mg/ml glucose and 5 uM of calcium.
B. 0.4 mg/ml glucose and 5 uM of calcium.
C. 0.6 mg/ml glucose and 1 uM of calcium.
D. 0.2 mg/ml glucose and 1 uM of calcium.
2. Which of the following conclusions is consistent with the data presented in Graph 2?
A. High concentrations of calcium can have detrimental effects on the growth of some cell types.
B. Media calcium concentrations of 5 to 20 uM stimulate the growth of Cell Types A,
B, and C.
C. The growth of Cell Type B is less affected by the concentration of calcium in the media than is the
growth of Cell Type A.
D. The relationship between the media concentration of calcium and the number of cells per
dish is the same for Cell Types A and B.
3. Which of the above data supports the conclusion that increasing the concentrations of
nutrients in the media does NOT necessarily increase cell growth?
A. The growth of Type B cells when the three higher concentrations of calcium were tested
B. The growth of Type B cells when the three higher concentrations of glucose were tested
C. The growth of Type C cells when the three lower concentrations of calcium were tested
D. The growth of Type C cells when the three lower concentrations of glucose were tested.
4. Which of the following variables is represented by the vertical axis of the graphs?
A. The number of cells per culture dish after three days
B. The concentration of glucose or calcium present in the media after three days
C. The number of cells added to each culture dish on the first day
D. The concentration of glucose or calcium present in the media on the first day
5. On the basis of the data shown in Graph 1, which of the following conclusions about the

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necessity of glucose for cell growth is most accurate?
A. All three-cell types require at least 0.8 mg/ml of glucose for maximal growth.
B. Type B cells require more glucose than Type A cells for maximal growth.
C. At glucose concentrations less than 0.4 mg/ml, Type A cells proliferate more than Type B or C cells.
D. Cell Types A, B, and C will achieve maximal growth in media containing 0.6 mg/ml glucose.

Passage (9)
In many vertebrate species, females choose their mates. Researchers studied female choice in
guppies, a
species of fish. They performed three experiments in which females were presented with a choice
between males of two different tail sizes: (1) large and small, (2) large and medium, and (3) medium
and small. The researchers also counted the number of dance-like displays that males of different tail
sizes performed in their mating ritual. The results are presented below.

1. According to the data, approximately what percentage of females chose males with medium
tails when presented with a choice between males with large tails and males with medium
tails?
A. 70%
B. 65%
C. 35%
D. 0%

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2. Based on the data, which of the following results could be expected if females were
presented with a choice between males with small tails and a new category of males with
extremely small tails, assuming that females can differentiate between the two size classes?
A. More females would choose males with small tails than males with extremely small tails.
B. More females would choose males with extremely small tails than males with small tails.
C. Females would show no preference between males with small tails and those with extremely small tails.
D. Females would reject both males with small tails and males with extremely small tails.
3. The hypothesis that females choose males with larger tails at least three times as often as
they choose males with smaller tails is NOT supported by which experiment?
I. L vs. S
II. L vs. M
III. M vs. S
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
4. Based on the data, one could hypothesize that in the male guppies’ mating ritual
A. as tail size increases display rate decreases.
B. as tail size increases display rate increases.
C. those with small tails tend not to display.
D. those with large tails tend to display most frequently.
5. According to the data, the hypothesis that females prefer males that exhibit a greater
number of dance-like displays is inconsistent with which comparison?
I. L vs. S
II. L vs. M
III. M vs. S
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and III only

Passage (10)
To understand better the role of various chemicals in genetics, the following experiments were carried
out.
Experiment 1
The Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) causes disease in tobacco leaves and is made up only of protein
and the
nucleic acid RNA. Two mutant strains of TMV called A and B were developed. They contained
chemically altered protein and RNA. The proteins and RNAs from these strains could be separated
and then recombined to create new combinations called hybrids. One hybrid called Strain C contains
protein from Strain A and RNA from Strain B. When the three strains were allowed to infect tobacco
leaves, their offspring were analyzed for their protein and RNA compositions. The results are given in
Table 1.

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Experiment 2
Researchers using another virus called T-4 which infects and reproduces only inside the bacterium E.
coli
were able to radioactively label this virus. T-4 contains only protein and the nucleic acid DNA. P32
was used to label the phosphate groups of DNA and any other phosphate-containing compounds,
and S35 was used to label the sulfur containing amino acids of protein and any other sulfur-
containing compounds in T-4. After allowing the radioactively labeled T-4 to infect E. coli the
researchers were able to separate by shearing and centrifuging the portion of T-4 that was injected
into E. coli from the portion that remained outside E. coli. The results of their radioactive analysis are
shown in Table 2.

1. In order to be able to identify proteins and DNA when both are present, which of the
following conditions was assumed to be true in Experiment 2?
A. DNA contains no sulfur and protein contains no phosphate.
B. T-4 can reproduce outside E. coli.
C. T-4 DNA contains sulfur.
D. DNA will be labeled by the 35 S and protein by the 32P.
2. Do the results of Experiment 1 support the conclusion that the nucleic acid RNA controls
production of TMV?
A. Yes, because the protein of the offspring is like the parent strain’s protein.
B. No, because strain C does not produce its own unique protein.
C. Yes, because all offspring’s protein and RNA are the same as the parent strain’s RNA.
D. No, because the offspring’s protein and RNA are the same as the parent strain’s protein.
3. Based on the information in Experiment 2, what is the genetic material in T-4?
A. RNA
B. DNA
C. Protein
D. Both protein and DNA
4. In Experiment 1, if a new hybrid Strain D were made containing protein from Strain B and
RNA from Strain A, its offspring after infection would most likely resemble
A. Strain A.
B. Strain B.
C. Strain C.
D. Strain D.

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5. To investigate further the role of protein in infection, the experimenters tried unsuccessfully
to infect E. coli with T-4 DNA by itself. Therefore, the role of protein in infection probably
includes
A. providing nutrition for T-4 between infections.
B. protecting T-4 DNA after it is inside E. coli.
C. controlling production of new T-4 protein.
D. providing the mechanism for injecting DNA into E. coli.
6. On the basis of the results of Experiments 1 and 2, which of the following would be most
likely to permanently change the characteristics of a cell into which it has been injected?
A. Protein
B. Amino acids
C. DNA
D. Phosphate

Passage (11)
Prolactin is a hormone required for milk production. In female rats, prolactin secretion is stimulated by
not
only the suckling of newborn
pups but also the sight,
smell, and sound of suckling
of newborn pups.
Experiments were
performed to compare the
ability of these stimuli to
induce prolactin secretion.
Prolactin concentrations
were measured in the blood
of female rats after exposure
to the sight, odor, and/or
sound of newborn pups. The
results are shown below.

1. According to the table, in what range are the prolactin concentrations in untreated female
rats?
A. Between 25 and 50 ng/ml
B. Between 30 and 35 ng/ml
C. Between 20 and 50 ng/ml
D. Between 15 and 20 ng/ml
2. Is the statement “The sound of 10 pups causes a more rapid increase in prolactin secretion
than does the sight of 10 pups” supported by the information in the table?
A. Yes, prolactin concentrations are greater 10 minutes following the sound of 10 pups than following
the sight of 10 pups.
B. Yes, prolactin concentrations are greater 30 minutes following the sound of 10 pups than following
the sight of 10 pups.
C. No, after 30 minutes, prolactin concentrations are greater following the sight of 10 pups than
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following the sound of 10 pups.
D. No, both stimuli increased prolactin concentrations equally after 10 minutes.
3. What is the relationship between the strength of the pups’ odor and prolactin secretion after
10 minutes’ exposure?
A. The greater the number of pups providing the odor the smaller the prolactin response.
B. The smaller the number of pups providing the odor the greater the prolactin response.
C. The greater the number of pups providing the odor the greater the prolactin response.
D. The odor of the pups was unrelated to the prolactin response.
4. If an additional measurement had been taken after 60 minutes of exposure to the combined
sight and odor of 10 pups, what would the prolactin concentrations most likely have been?
A. The prolactin concentrations would have been higher at 60 minutes than at 30 minutes.
B. The prolactin concentrations would have been the same at 60 minutes as at 10 minutes.
C. The prolactin concentrations would have been greater at 60 minutes than at 10 or 30 minutes.
D. The prolactin concentrations would have been smaller at 60 minutes than at 10 or 30 minutes.
5. Which of the following conclusions is consistent with the data presented in the table?
A. The sound of the pups is the least potent stimulus for initiation of prolactin secretion.
B. The sound and odor of the pups induce more prolactin secretion when presented together than
when presented individually.
C. The sight of the pups induces a more rapid increase in prolactin secretion than does the sound of
the pups.
D. Prolactin secretion increases above and then returns to control levels during 30 minutes of
exposure to the sight of the pups.

Passage (12)
For many plant species, the seasonal flowering process is triggered by a photoperiod (each day’s
alternating
period of light and darkness), which changes with the season. It is known that the cocklebur is a plant
that depends on the photoperiod for the initiation of flowering. The following experiments were
performed on four groups of cocklebur plants. Each group contained 20 subjects. All groups were
exposed to a 12-hour light cycle followed by a 12-hour dark cycle.
Group 1: The dark period was not interrupted. Flowering occurred in all subjects.
Group 2: The dark period was interrupted by a single flash of white light. The flash was delivered
either 3, 5, 8, or 10 hours into the dark period. Flowering occurred in the subjects receiving a flash at
3 or 10 hours into the dark period. NO flowering occurred in the subjects receiving a flash at 5 or 8
hours into the dark period.
Group 3: The dark period was interrupted by a single flash of infrared (short wavelength) light. The
flash was
delivered at either 3, 5, 8, or 10 hours into the dark period. Flowering occurred in all subjects.
Group 4: The dark period was interrupted by a single flash of white light followed by a single flash of
infrared
light. Flash pairs were delivered at either 3, 5, 8, or 10 hours into the dark period. Flowering occurred
in all
subjects.
1. The theory that the flowering of plants is determined by the photoperiod assumes that
A. plants are capable of measuring time.
B. plants are capable of seasonal changes.
C. hormonal changes are involved in flowering.
D. plants are capable of producing seeds.

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2. Which of the following conclusions about how the red flash changes the effect of the white
flash is supported by the experimental results?
A. The red flash increases the effect of the white flash.
B. The red flash reverses the effect of the white flash.
C. The red and white flash are independent and do not interact.
D. The red flash decreases, but does not eliminate the effect of the white flash.
3. Different subjects received the flash of light at different time intervals into the dark period.
What was the significance of using this type of procedure?
A. The procedure was used to determine the effect of multiple flashes.
B. The procedure was used to evaluate the effects of different flash durations.
C. The procedure was used to eliminate the need for a control group.
D. The procedure was used to examine different phases of the dark period.
4. If a cocklebur is exposed to a 14-hour light cycle followed by a 10-hour dark cycle, which of
the following procedures could be used to prevent flowering?
A. A single flash of white light, delivered 4 hours into the dark period
B. A single white/red flash pair, delivered 2 hours into the dark period
C. A single flash of red light, delivered 3 hours into the dark period
D. A single flash of white light, delivered 1 hour into the dark period
5. Given the results observed in Groups 1 and 2, which of the following can one conclude
about the nature of the flowering process in the cocklebur?
A. Flowering is determined by the number of transitions from light to dark.
B. Flowering is determined by the length of the uninterrupted light period.
C. Flowering is determined by the length of the uninterrupted dark period.
D. Flowering is determined by the ratio of light period duration to dark period duration.
6. Keeping the results of all the experiments in mind, which of the following procedures would
be MOST helpful in further investigating the effect observed in Group 4?
A. Deliver the flash pair earlier in the dark period.
B. Change the wavelength of the second flash.
C. Increase the duration of the dark period.
D. Eliminate the delivery of the second flash.

Passage (13)
An experiment is conducted to determine the effect of an insecticide on the thickness of hens’
eggshells. A
batch of 100 hens of the same age and strain are selected for this study. The hens are randomly
divided into two groups—Group A and Group B—prior to carrying out the experiments.
Experiment 1
The hens from Group A were put on a normal diet of feed grain for a period of 30 days. After that
period,
the eggs were collected for five successive days and were examined for their eggshell thickness. The
average values from the analysis are as
follows:

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Experiment 2
Hens from Group B were fed the same but with 10 mg of the insecticide. After 30 days on this diet the
eggs were collected for five successive days and examined for their eggshell thickness. The average
values from the analysis are as follows:

Experiment 3
The diet of the hens in Group B was fortified with 50 mg of calcium. After keeping the hens for an
additional
30 days on both calcium and insecticide, the eggs were collected for five successive days and
examined for their shell thickness. The average values from the analysis are as follows:

1. Which of the three experiments served as a control?

A. Experiment 1 only
B. Experiment 2 only
C. Experiment 3 only
D. Both Experiments 1 and 3
2. Do the results of Experiment 2 support the conclusion that insecticide causes hens to lay
eggs with thinner shells?
A. No, because the number of hens that did not lay eggs is about the same compared to Group A.
B. No, because the number of hens that had eggshells thicker than 0.5 mm decreased only slightly
compared to Group A.
C. Yes, because the number of hens that laid eggs is about the same compared to Group A.
D. Yes, because the number of hens that laid eggs with shells below 0.2 mm thickness doubled.
3. Which of the hypotheses is consistent with the data from both Experiment 2 and
Experiment 3?
I. Trace amounts of insecticide in the hens’ diet produces eggs with thinner shells.
II. Calcium eaten in the free state by the hen does not affect eggshell thickness.
III. Calcium eaten in the free state by the hen increases its eggshell thickness.
A. II only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only
4. To test the hypothesis that trace amounts of insecticide lower the blood level calcium
concentration, the researcher should examine the blood of the
A. normal hens in Group A.
B. normal hens in Group B.
C. affected hens in Group B and compare it against the blood of the normal hens in Group A.
D. normal hens in Group B and compare it against the blood of the normal hens in Group A.

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5. On the basis of the results of the experiments, one can generalize that insecticides
A. are the leading cause of bird mortality.
B. are the leading cause of poor eggshell development among chickens.
C. are more useful than harmful.
D. affect the normal metabolism of birds.
6. To further investigate the effects of insecticide on shell thickness, the researcher should
vary which of the following in another experiment consisting of one control group and several
experimental groups?
A. The insecticide level in each experimental group
B. The number of hens in each experimental group
C. The amount of feed grain in each experimental group
D. The calcium level in each experimental group
7. If Experiment 2 had been continued for another 30 days, the results would be
A. different from the 30-day experiment.
B. the same as the 30- day experiment.
C. identical to the results in Experiment 3
D. undeterminable from the information given.

Passage (14)
A scientist carried out the following experiments to better understand why plants grow toward light.
Experiment 1
Oat seedlings were prepared in the way shown. The seedlings with no cap or a transparent cap grew
toward
the light. The seedling with an opaque cap at the tip did not grow toward the light, while the seedling
with a black ring around it below the tip grew toward the light.

Experiment 2
The tip of an oat shoot was cut off as shown. A layer of agar, a jelly-like material through which liquids
can
diffuse, was placed between the tip and the stump. The tip of another was cut off and the tip was not
replaced. When the plants were exposed to light, the one with the replaced tip bent toward the light.
The one without the tip did not.

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Experiment 3
A razor blade was used to cut into an agar block (see diagram) to prevent diffusion from one side of
the block
to the other. The tip of a shoot was placed on the block as shown and illuminated from one side. Then
the pieces of agar were placed on the edges of shoots from which the tip had been cut and the
shoots were placed in the dark. The plant with agar piece 1 bent more than twice as much as the one
with agar piece 2.

1. Which of the following plants served as the controls in Experiment 1?

A. Plants D and B
B. Plants B and C
C. Plants A and B
D. Plants A and D
2. Based on the information in Experiment 1, which of the following hypotheses would be
most appropriate in explaining the plant’s tendency to bend toward the light?
A. The weight of the caps
B. A bending factor produced in the tip of the plant
C. A bending factor produced at the base of the plant
D. A bending factor produced in the middle of the stem

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3. Which of the following conclusions about the pattern of the growth of the plants in
Experiment 3 is best supported by the data from Experiment 3?
A. More of the bending factor is on the illuminated side of the plant.
B. The bending factor is equally distributed in the plant.
C. More of the bending factor is on the shaded side of the plant.
D. The bending factor moves back and forth from one side of the plant to the other.
4. If a pot was turned on its side so that the plant growing in it was parallel to the surface
under a source of light, one could predict that
A. the plant would continue to grow parallel to the surface.
B. the plant would bend in a downward direction.
C. the plant would bend in an upward direction.
D. the plant would stop growing.
5. If a metal disk were substituted for the agar in Experiment 2, one could predict that
A. the plant would continue to grow toward light.
B. the plant would grow away from light.
C. the plant would not bend in response to light.
D. the plant would grow at right angles to the light.
6. A bending factor is injected into and evenly distributed
along the right side of a plant and the plant is placed in a
dark box. Based on the results of Experiment 3, which
diagram reflects the most probable result?

Passage (15)
In 1928 Frederick Griffith postulated that bacteria are capable of transferring genetic information
through a
process known as transformation. He experimented with two strains of Pneumococcus (a bacteria
that infects mice): Type III-S (smooth) and Type II-R (rough). The III-S strain covers itself with a
polysaccharide capsule that protects it from the host’s immune system, resulting in the death of the
host. The II-R strain doesn’t have that protective capsule and is defeated by the host’s immune
system.
Stage One

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1. Based on the results of his experiments, you can conclude that
A. the heat-killed III-S bacteria reproduced in the mice, creating more III-S bacteria.
B. even though dead, the heat-killed III-S bacteria were strong enough to kill the mice.
C. genetic information from the II-R bacteria transformed the dead III-S strain.
D. genetic information from the dead III-S bacteria transformed the live II-R strain.
2. You can infer from these experiments that the DNA of the III-S strain contains the genes
A. that reverse the effects of the heat on the III-S bacteria.
B. that form the protective polysaccharide capsule.
C. that cause the immune system of the mice to fail.
D. that destroy the protective polysaccharide capsule of the II-R bacteria.
3. Griffith’s experiment disproved bacteriologists’ belief that
A. information could be passed from one strain of bacteria to another.
B. strains of bacteria could be transformed.
C. types of bacteria were fixed and unchangeable from one generation to another.
D. heat could destroy the virulent strain of Pneumococcus bacteria.
4. If there was a fourth stage of the experiment in which heat-killed II-R bacteria were
combined with the live III-S strain, what would be the most likely result?
A. The mice would live since genetic information from the II-R bacteria would be transferred to the III-S strain.
B. The mice would live since the heat-killed II-R bacteria would make the virulent strain vulnerable to
the host’s immune system.
C. The mice would die since genetic information from the II-R bacteria would be transferred to the III-
S strain.
D. The mice would die since the live III-S bacteria contain a protective capsule that protects them
from the host’s immune system.

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 Passage (16)

How are white blood cells formed?

Human blood contains many different types of cells, including red blood cells (RBCs) and several
types of white blood cells (WBCs). Most of these blood cells are formed in the bone marrow. There
are numerous theories regarding the formation of the different types of white blood cells. In particular,
scientists and physicians have questioned whether all white blood cells arise from one single parent
cell known as a universal stem cell, or if each type of white blood cell has its own individual family
with separate parent stem cells.
Scientist 1
Small samples of circulating blood and bone marrow can be taken from normal healthy persons and
carefully examined with a microscope. Using this method, Scientist 1 was able to visually identify all
the stages of growth of these cells, from the most primitive stem cell through the fully mature adult
white cell. Based on these observations,
Scientist 1 concluded that each type of white blood cell has its own separate family, each with a
separate stem cell. According to this theory, one type of white blood cell could never turn into any
other type of white blood cell and once a white blood cell is formed it cannot change.
Scientist 2
Using many different techniques including centrifugation, filtration, and chemical gradients, Scientist 2
was able to prepare pure samples of each of the different types of white blood cell from the blood and
marrow of volunteers. These pure samples were then each placed in separate test tubes with special
nutrients and allowed to grow. When samples from these tubes were examined with a microscope,
some contained two or more different types of white blood cells. From this evidence, Scientist 2
concluded that white blood cells have the ability to develop or change into the other different types.
All white blood cells therefore, develop from a common ancestor or single universal stem cell which
can give rise to all the white cells found in the blood. Additionally, some cells can change into cells of
different types.
1. According to the hypothesis of Scientist 1, if a person had abnormalities in one of the stem
cells, would this abnormality also be seen in the white blood cells of that person?
A. No, the red blood cells would be abnormal.
B. Yes, but all types of white blood cells would be abnormal.
C. No, the white blood cells would all be normal.
D. Yes, but only one type of white blood cell would be abnormal.
2. Which of the following is the most likely technical error of Scientist 2 that could have
resulted in his difference of opinion with Scientist 1?
A. Some red blood cells became mixed with the white blood cells in the test tubes.
B. The white blood cells put in the test tubes were not all of one type.
C. The blood was taken from volunteers.
D. Many different techniques were used to prepare and separate the white blood cells.
3. Which of the following diagrams best describes the conclusion of Scientist 2? [WBC = white
blood cells; RBC = red blood cells]

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4. An experiment was performed in which a special chemical marker that “tags” only stem
cells were injected into the body of a test subject. The special tag was later found on all the
white blood cells in the subject’s blood. This experiment
A. supports the hypothesis of Scientist 1.
B. supports the hypothesis of Scientist 2.
C. does not provide support for either Scientist 1 or Scientist 2.
D. serves as a control for the experiment of Scientist 2.
5. Which of the following procedures would be most effective to test which of the hypotheses
regarding formation of white blood cells is most likely to be correct?
A. Mark several different white blood cells and inject them into a test subject where they will grow.
B. Mark a stem cell and then inject it into a test subject where it will grow.
C. Add a chemical that destroys all stem cells to a test tube containing blood.
D. Place some white blood cells in a tube and let them grow.
6. Scientist 1 and Scientist 2 would most likely agree on which of the following statements
regarding the formation of white blood cells?
A. White blood cells arise from a common ancestor.
B. The origin of white blood cells cannot be determined using only a microscope.
C. Each type of white blood cell arises from a separate stem cell.
D. The origin of white blood cells is a complex and not yet fully understood process.
7. Which of the following known facts provides support for the hypothesis of Scientist 2?
A. Serious diseases of individual stem cells also affect many different types of mature white blood cells.
B. Some blood diseases affect either white or red blood cells.
C. When a person loses blood, both white and red blood cells are replaced naturally by the body.
D. When there is an infection, many different types of white blood cells appear to defend the body.

Passage (17)
How do humans age? Two differing views are presented below.
Scientist 1
The body’s replaceable cells, constantly abused by stress, improper nutrition, lack of fresh air,
insufficient
exercise, and excessive toxins are forced to use up their longevity potential decades before nature
intended.
Experiments reveal that most human cells can duplicate and replace themselves only a finite number
of times before they lose this capacity and die. Not unlike the metaphorical nine lives of a cat, each
human cell has fifty lives, that is, approximately fifty duplications before the cell automatically shuts
down and dies.
How we choose to stretch these lives out over time is largely related to the way we live and how we
care for
our health. The combination of stressful living with unhealthful lifestyles can serve to speed up the
cellular aging process considerably, leading to disease and death long before our true biological
potential has been realized.
Scientist 2

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The major components of the body’s natural immune system are two types of white blood cells, “B”
cells and
“T” cells. B cells are primarily concerned with fighting bacteria and viruses by releasing appropriate
antibodies in the bloodstream, while the main job of T cells is to attack and destroy cells foreign to the
body such as transplant and cancer cells. For reasons not now understood, the body’s immunological
system sometimes breaks down and becomes less able to rid the body of harmful agents and
therefore less able to deter aging. In addition, when the immunological system degenerates in this
fashion, its capacity for discrimination is diminished, creating a situation in which the body’s own
disease fighting system turns against itself and kills healthy tissue. The gradual deterioration and
degeneration of the body’s immune system is at the root of most age-related sickness and
breakdown.
—Adapted from Theories of Aging, © 1981 by Alberto Villoldo and Ken Dychtwald.
From Millennium: Glimpses into the 21st Century.
1. Scientist 1’s theory of aging would be best supported by demonstrating that
A. B cells fail to fight invading bacteria.
B. dead cells are replaced by new cells a finite number of times.
C. proper nutrition causes cells to die prematurely.
D. T cells lose the ability to destroy foreign cells.
2. If true, which of the following findings would NOT be consistent with Scientist 1’s theory?
A. A damaged cell is irreplaceable.
B. A cell that is damaged can be replaced a finite number of times.
C. Our life span depends on how we stretch out the life of each cell.
D. Stressful living and unhealthful lifestyles speed up the cellular aging process.
3. Scientist 2’s theory on aging would be most weakened if it were found that
A. there is strong evidence for the cell duplication theory.
B. the blood count on white blood cells is the same for young and old people.
C. the aging process is a complex biological process and is not totally dependent on the
performance of B and T cells.
D. weakening of the immune system causes sickness, but not aging.
4. The hypothesis of Scientist 2 that gradual weakening of the immune system causes aging
would be best supported if it were found that
I. old people in general had weaker immune
systems compared to those of younger
people.
II. the immune system loses its capacity to
differentiate body cells from foreign cells
with increasing age of the person.
III. the longevity of a cell is shown to increase
for persons with healthful habits.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
5. To refute Scientist 2’s theory on aging, Scientist 1 might best demonstrate that
A. damaged cells are replaced a finite number of times before loss of this capability.
B. the immune system does not weaken with age.
C. B and T cells protect and defend the body.
D. the immune system loses its capability to differentiate healthy body cells from foreign cells.

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6. How does Scientist 1’s theory on aging differ from that of Scientist 2?
A. Scientist 1 believes that the cells die because of the attack from the immune system and not
because of their inability to replace themselves.
B. Scientist 1 believes that cells die when they are incapable of duplicating and not because of the
failure of the immune system.
C. Scientist 1 believes that cells die when the B and T cells fail to defend them from invading bacteria
and not because of their inability to replace.
D. There is essentially no difference between their theories.
7. If Scientist 2’s theory on aging is correct, in order to increase the life span of an individual
one should
A. eliminate the toxins in the cell produced by stress and poor health habits.
B. maintain an immune system that efficiently carries out its function.
C. increase the longevity of each cell by incorporating proper diet and exercise.
D. increase the number of times the cell can duplicate itself.

Passage (18)
Sleep disorders are more common in the elderly. Two theories to explain this have been proposed.
Theory A
Sleep disorders are more frequent in the elderly because of the age-related loss of specific brain
neurons.
These neurons release serotonin as their neurotransmitter. The serotonin released from these
neurons affects the activity of other neurons responsible for consciousness and sleep. With increased
age there is a decline in the amount of serotonin within the brain due to the dying off of brain
serotonin neurons. This theory states that
serotonin neurons slowly die in all adults and that, if the number of serotonin neurons is reduced
below a critical number, normal sleep functions are disturbed. The older an individual is the more
likely he or she will have too few remaining serotonin neurons to maintain normal sleep patterns. (The
concentration of other neurotransmitters in the brain also changes with age and this can cause other
non-sleep-related disorders, such as Parkinson’s disease.)
Theory B
Sleep disorders in the elderly are due to a decrease in the amount of serotonin synthesized within the
brain.
Reduced serotonin synthesis results in too little serotonin being released from the neurons to
maintain normal sleep wake cycles. With increasing age, there is a gradual decline in the intestinal
absorption of nutrients from food, including tryptophan, the compound from which serotonin is
synthesized. The synthesis of serotonin in the brain decreases when the amount of tryptophan
available in the body decreases. In the elderly, the absorption of tryptophan is further reduced
because of some commonly used medications which affect stomach and intestinal function. Irregular
eating habits or a generally poor diet may further reduce the amount of tryptophan absorbed in the
elderly.
1. Which of the following observations would be consistent with both Theories A and B?
A. Those people who eat a well-balanced diet have fewer sleep disorders.
B. Many brain functions controlled by serotonin show impairment with increasing age.
C. Gastrointestinal disorders may cause sleeplessness.
D. Persons with Parkinson’s disease are more likely to also have sleep disorders.
2. Which of the following conclusions is NOT consistent with Theory A?
A. The occurrence of sleep disorders can be predicted in individuals by measuring the concentrations
of brain serotonin.

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B. The ability of individual neurons to make serotonin decreases with age.
C. The loss of some serotonin neurons is compensated for by the remaining serotonin neurons.
D. There are a number of age-related changes in the brain, but only those involving serotonin
neurons cause sleep disorders.
3. The two theories are similar in describing the cause of sleep disorders in that both theories
maintain that
A. the lack of serotonin within the brain causes sleep disorders.
B. the lack of serotonin neurons within the brain causes sleep disorders.
C. the lack of tryptophan within the brain causes sleep disorders.
D. the lack of proper diet causes sleep disorders.
4. Which of the following experimental procedures would be best for testing Theory A?
A. Measure serotonin in the brain of animals that have been fed tryptophan.
B. Monitor the electrical activity of those areas of the brain responsible for consciousness in older animals.
C. Measure serotonin in the brain of animals of different ages maintained on tryptophan-free diets.
D. Monitor the sleep-wake patterns of animals whose serotonin neurons were destroyed with
a selective neurotoxin.
5. Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the explanation for the decline in brain
serotonin concentrations in Theory B?
A. The brain’s requirements for tryptophan change with age.
B. Tryptophan is not made or stored in sufficient quantities within the body to meet all the
body’s needs.
C. The ability of neurons to manufacture serotonin from tryptophan declines with age.
D. Elderly people require more sleep and therefore use more serotonin than their neurons can make.
6. If Theory A is correct, which of the following treatments would most likely benefit people
with sleep disorders?
A. Tryptophan diet supplements
B. Drugs that decrease serotonin release from serotonin neurons
C. Drugs that increase serotonin release from serotonin neurons
D. Drugs that increase nutrient absorption from the digestive system
7. Which of the following facts would support Theory A over Theory B?
A. Foods rich in tryptophan can cause drowsiness.
B. The brains of newborn laboratory mice have fewer serotonin neurons than the brains of adult mice.
C. A fixed schedule for meals helps maintain a regular sleep-wake pattern.
D. Tryptophan administration increases the amount of tryptophan within the brain, but
the majority of it is within non-neuronal cells which do not synthesize serotonin.
Passage (19)
Every year a debate ensues in the late summer and early autumn as to whether or not to get the
annual flu shot. Influenza, or the “flu,” is a highly contagious respiratory infection. It can cause fever,
chills, headache, cough, and many other symptoms including extreme fatigue. The H1N1 flu virus is
more deadly than the “typical” flu, hence the debate as to whether to take the vaccine. Two scientists
present their views below.
Position 1
Influenza is easily spread from person to person, primarily when an infected person coughs or
sneezes. After you are infected, symptoms usually appear about 3 days afterwards. Typically, 10 to
20 percent of the population contracts the flu each year. People over age 50, the extremely young, or
anyone having a chronic medical condition should get the flu shot. Additionally, health care workers
and those living with someone in a high-risk group should get the shot. With a serious strain like the
H1N1, everyone should get the shot. Health care workers are on this list as they can become vectors
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of transmission. That is, they can easily transmit it to large numbers of people.
Reasons to get the shot include the fact that at least 45,000 Americans die each year from the flu
(and pneumonia). This is the sixth leading cause of death in the U.S. Ninety percent of those who die
are age 65 or older. Additionally, those who receive the vaccine experience 25 percent fewer
episodes of upper respiratory illness and 44 percent fewer visits to the doctor’s office. Furthermore,
the flu shot is safe and effective. It will help you avoid days of lost productivity due to the flu even if
you do not become seriously ill. For the elderly, Medicare will pay for it.
Position 2
The risks of the flu vaccine outweigh any possible benefit for many people. Many of the statistics
often quoted do not indicate how many people were in the study and how many people (if any) in the
study suffered adverse reactions to the vaccine. Should we trust what we hear about the vaccine
when the studies are funded by the pharmaceutical industry? The problem with the vaccine begins
with how it is actually produced. First, the researcher must acquire the live virus. The live virus must
then be weakened for human use. This is accomplished by serial passage: passing the virus through
animal tissue several times to reduce its potency. For example, the measles virus is passed through
chicken embryos, polio virus through monkey kidneys. “Killed” vaccines are “inactivated” through
heat, radiation, or chemicals. The weakened germ must then be strengthened with adjuvants
(antibody boosters) and stabilizers. This is done by adding drugs, antibiotics, and toxic disinfectants
to the concoction: neomycin, streptomycin, sodium chloride, sodium hydroxide, aluminum hydroxide,
aluminum hydrochloride, sorbitol, hydrolized gelatin, formaldehyde, and thimerosal (a mercury
derivative). Aluminum, formaldehyde, and mercury are extremely toxic substances with a long history
of documented hazardous effects. Studies confirm again and again that microscopic doses of these
substances can lead to cancer, neurological damage, and death. Yet each of them may be found in a
variety of vaccines. In addition to the deliberately planned additives, unanticipated matter may
contaminate the shots. For example, during serial passage of the virus through animal cells, animal
RNA and DNA (foreign genetic material) is transferred from one host to another. Because this
biological matter is injected directly into the body, researchers say it can change our genetic makeup.
What happens next, once this foul concoction of live viruses, bacteria, toxic substances, and
diseased animal matter is created? This witch’s brew is forced into the healthy individual.
Among other things, flu vaccines are known to contain the following harmful ingredients:
1.Thimerosol - A mercury derived preservative that has been linked to brain damage and autoimmune
disease.
2. Phenol - Or carbolic acid, a common component of dyes and disinfectants.
3. Ethylene Glycol - Otherwise known as anti-freeze.
4. Formaldehyde - Yep, that’s the stuff they pickled the frog you dissected in biology class with.
5. Aluminum - added to promote antibody response, it is associated with Alzheimer’s and seizures and
has been known to cause cancer in lab mice.
6.Neomycin and Streptomycin - antibiotics to retard growth of contaminating bacteria, responsible for
allergic reactions in some patients.
Even the most avid supporters of flu vaccines readily admit that taking the shot is no guarantee of
avoiding the flu, and although consumers never see them, the vaccines are supposed to be
accompanied by an information sheet that presents the many known side effects that are associated
with them. There are many natural alternatives to prevent or even treat the flu, too many to address in
limited space here, but suffice it to say that building up natural immunity with whole foods and
supplements, managing stress and getting adequate rest and exercise is a great place to start.
1. Which of the following best summarizes the argument stated in Position 2?
A. The flu vaccine is a witch’s brew and is best avoided by all.

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B. The flu vaccine has many risks, and before deciding to get the vaccine, you should understand
both sides of the story.
C. The flu vaccine should only be taken by the ill and the elderly.
D. The flu vaccine is created through a complex series of steps, starting with bits of live virus material.
2. When a serious flu virus strain is expected, those arguing Position 1 would agree that
A. only the elderly, those who are extremely young, and those with chronic medical conditions should be vaccinated.
B. only the elderly should be vaccinated.
C. everyone should be vaccinated.
D. no one should ever have the flu vaccine administered.
3. Which of the following additives into the flu vaccine are known to interfere with brain
function?
A. Thimerosol
B. Thimerosol and Neomycin
C. Thimerosol and Aluminum
D. Aluminum and Neomycin
4. Which ingredient is common to both the flu vaccine and most automobile radiators?
A. Phenol
B. Ethylene Glycol
C. Formaldehyde
D. Streptomycin
5. Researchers from both positions would likely agree upon which of the following?
A. The flu vaccine is relatively safe, especially when compared to the risk of catching the flu.
B. The flu vaccine should never be taken under any circumstances.
C. The flu vaccine guarantees those who receive the vaccine from getting the flu.
D. The flu vaccine should be taken by the elderly, especially if they are chronically ill.
6. The strongest argument supporting position 1 is
A. 10-20% of the population contracts the flu every year.
B. those who receive the flu vaccine experience 44% fewer doctor visits.
C. 45,000 Americans die from the flu each year.
D. 90% of those who die from the flu are age 65 or older.
7. Researchers supporting position 2 may consider reversing their point of view if
A. definitive evidence was collected that the vaccine actually reduced the number of flu cases.
B. live virus was not involved in the development of the vaccine.
C. thimerosol and aluminum were removed as ingredients in the vaccine.
D. the flu shot could be made to be less painful.

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