Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition 2023 by Alfred Thomas Mario
Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition 2023 by Alfred Thomas Mario
Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition 2023 by Alfred Thomas Mario
1. Anatomy 1
2. Physiology 7
5. Pharmacology 45
6. Nephrology 55
7. Cardiology 90
8. Hepatology 108
9. Gastroenterology 116
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ANATOMY
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
○ Bone age delayed by more than two years from the chronological age indicates a
pathological cause. For example, chronological age 10 years and bone age 7 years
○ Bone age delayed within two years from the chronological age indicates CDGP.
For example, chronological age 10 years and bone age 9 years
● Distinguishing between true precocious puberty and precocious puberty due to
hypothyroidism
○ Advanced bone age suggests true precocious puberty and delayed bone age
suggests precocious puberty due to hypothyroidism
4. Little’s Area
● It is a highly vascular area located in the anteroinferior part of the nasal septum just
above the vestibule.
● Five arteries anastomose here to form a vascular plexus called Kiesselbach’s plexus.
● The participating arteries are :
1. Septal branch of anterior ethmoidal artery (a branch of ophthalmic artery)
2. Septal branch of posterior ethmoidal artery (a branch of ophthalmic artery)
3. Septal branch of sphenopalatine artery (a branch of maxillary artery)
4. Septal branch of greater palatine artery (a branch of maxillary artery)
5. Septal branch of superior labial artery (a branch of facial artery)
Applied aspects
It is exposed to the drying effect of inspiratory current and to finger nail trauma and is the usual
site for epistaxis.
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
● Mandibular arch
● Maxillary process
● Median nasal process
● Lateral nasal process
Any defect in the fusion of these arches leads to formation of cleft lip and palate
Classification system
L/l : denotes lip
A/a : denotes alveolus
H/h : denotes hard palate
S/s : denotes palate
Capital letter : signifies complete cleft
Small letter : signifies incomplete cleft
Examples of this classification system
● LAHS : unilateral complete type cleft of lip, alveolus, hard and soft palate
● lahs : unilateral incomplete type cleft of lip, alveolus, hard and soft palate
● LAHSHAL : bilateral complete clefts of lip, alveolus, hard and soft palate
● lahSh : unilateral incomplete cleft lip and alveolus and complete cleft soft
palate which incompletely extends to hard palate bilaterally
Associations of cleft lip and palate
● Pierre Robin sequence
● Apert syndrome
● Treacher Collin syndrome
● Stickler syndrome
Incidence
1 in 1000 live births
Problems of cleft lip and palate
Difficulty in sucking and swallowing
Defective speech
Altered dentition
Recurrent respiratory tract infections
Cosmetic disfigurement
Timing of surgical repair
● Cleft lip alone : 4-6 months
● Cleft palate
○ involving Soft palate alone : Six months
○ involving soft and hard palate : two staged operation
● soft palate correction at six months
● hard palate correction at 18 months
● Combined cleft lip and palate : two staged operation
○ lip and soft palate correction at six months
○ hard palate correction at 18 months
6. Cervical nodes
Levels
Level I
Ia – submental nodes
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
Ib – submandibular nodes
Level II – upper cervical modes
Level III – middle cervical nodes
Level IV – lower cervical nodes
Level V – posterior triangle nodes
Level VI – pretracheal and prelaryngeal nodes
Level VII – mediastinum
Applied aspects
● Kawasaki disease
● Tuberculous lymphadenitis
● Hodgkin lymphoma
● Reactive lymphadenopathy
● Head and neck cancers - Nodal staging of metastases
○ N0 – No nodal involvement
○ N1 – Single node involvement < 3 cm
○ N2a – Single node involvement 3 – 6 cm
○ N2b – Multiple nodes involved 3 – 6 cm
○ N3 – Any node > 6 cm
7. Development of tongue
Anterior ⅔ tongue
From first pharyngeal arch
One median swelling (tuberculum impar) and two lateral lingual swellings
Posterior ⅓ tongue
Cranial part of hypobranchial eminence (mesoderm of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal arches)
Posterior most tongue
Caudal part of hypobranchial eminence
Muscles of tongue
All muscles of tongue arise from occipital somites, except palatoglossus (derived from
4th pharyngeal arch)
8. Development of spleen
● Lymphoid organs develop from mesoderm
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
● Spleen develops from mesoderm in the dorsal mesogastrium, close to the developing
stomach
● It develops as a collection of mesenchymal cells, which forms small lobular masses of
splenic tissue (spleniculi) in the dorsal mesogastrium
● These lobules later fuse to form a single mass (spleen)
● Due to the splenic projection, the dorsal mesogastrium is divided into an anterior part
(gastrosplenic ligament) and a posterior part (lienorenal ligament)
Applied aspects
● Presence of splenic notch is an evidence of development of spleen from lobules
● Splenic agenesis
● Accessory spleen - It can be located in gastrosplenic ligament, lienorenal ligament and
along splenic artery
● Situs inversus
9. Pharyngeal arches
Arch Skeletal derivatives Muscle derivatives Arteries Nerves
1st Malleus Mastication muscles Maxillary V3
Incus Ant belly digastric
Maxilla
Mandible
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
4. Second arch is all about S. So we have stapes, stapedius and stapedial artery belonging to
the second arch. Since stapes is in the second arch, the other two ear ossicles are present
in the first arch.
5. Digastric muscle is unique because it has two bellies belonging to different arches. The
word ‘posterior’ has the letter ‘s’ in it. Second arch is all about S. Hence, the posterior
belly belongs to the second arch. So, the anterior belly is placed in the first arch.
6. Hyoid bone is also unique because it has two horns and two halves which belong to
different arches. Superior half and lesser horn have the letter ‘s’ in them. So they are
placed in the second arch (Second arch is all about S). The inferior half and greater horn
belong to the third arch.
7. Stylopharyngeal rhymes with glossopharyngeal. Hence, both stylopharyngeal muscle and
glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) remain together in the third arch.
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PHYSIOLOGY
1. Sleep
Types of sleep
REM
● 20-30% of sleep duration
● Dreams occur in REM sleep
● Deep sleep occurs in REM sleep
NREM
● No movement of eyeballs
● No dreams
● 70-80% of sleep
● Stages
○ NREM I – Drowsy
○ NREM II – Light sleep
○ NREM III – Medium sleep
○ NREM IV – Deep sleep
Centres of sleep
● Raphe nucleus (pons and medulla)
● Locus coeruleus of pons
● Inhibition of Ascending Reticular Activating System (ARAS)
Sleep disorders
● REM disorders
■ Nightmare – frightening dreams with vivid recall
■ Narcolepsy – Cataplexy + muscle paralysis + dream like hallucinations +
excessive daytime sleepiness
● NREM disorders
■ Sleepwalking – Most common in children
■ Sleep terrors – Child sits up and screams in between sleep; does not
remember this when asked about it the next day
■ Bruxism – occurs due to psychological reasons or stress
■ Enuresis
2. Hormones of lactation
A. Hormones of milk secretion
○ Lactogenesis
■ Initiation of milk secretion
■ Prolactin
○ Galactopoiesis
■ Maintenance of milk secretion
■ Prolactin, T4, GH, cortisol
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
4. Physiology of pancreas
A. Endocrine pancreas
Source of pancreatic hormones
● Alpha cells – Glucagon
● Beta cells – Insulin, Amylin
● Delta cells – Somatostatin
● Epsilon cells – Ghrelin
● F cells – Pancreatic polypeptide
Role of pancreatic hormones
Glucagon
● Glycogenolysis
● Gluconeogenesis
● Lipolysis
● Ketogenesis
Insulin
● Glycogenic
● Anti gluconeogenic
● Antilipolytic
● Antiketogenic
Amylin
● Delays gastric emptying
● Reduces food intake
● Reduces glucagon secretion
● Delays appearance of glucose in the blood
Somatostatin
● Inhibits GH secretion
● Inhibits insulin and glucagon secretion
● Decreases GI motility and secretions
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
Ghrelin
● Inhibiting insulin secretion
● Increases glucagon secretion
● Stimulates release of Growth Hormone
Pancreatic Polypeptide
● Slows down absorption of nutrients from GIT
Applied aspects
1. T1DM
2. Hypoglycemia is seen in ABCC2 defect (persistent hyperinsulinemic hypoglycemia of
infancy). Somatostatin analogue (octreotide) is used to manage hypoglycemia in these
children.
3. Amylin analog (Pramlintide) is an anti diabetic medication
4. Glucagon injection is used in diabetic patients who present with severe hypoglycemia
B. Exocrine pancreas
Enzymes for protein digestion
● Trypsin
● Chymotrypsin
● Elastase
● Carboxypeptidase A & B
Enzymes for fat digestion
● Lipase
● Colipase
● Cholesteryl ester hydrolase
● Phospholipase
Enzymes for starch digestion
● Amylase
Enzymes for nucleic acid digestion
● Ribonuclease
● Deoxyribonuclease
Storage and activation
● All enzymes are stored as zymogens (inactive form)
● Enterokinase converts trypsinogen to trypsin, which then activates all other
enzymes
Nature’s antacid
● 1500 mL pancreatic juice is secreted per day with a high concentration of
bicarbonate (pH 7.8 – 8.4)
Applied aspects
Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency is seen in conditions like Shwachman Diamond
syndrome, cystic fibrosis, and chronic pancreatitis and it manifests as malabsorption.
5. Regulation of respiration
A. Neural regulation
● Pre-Botzinger complex
○ Initiates the respiratory rhythm (pacemaker)
● Dorsal respiratory group
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
7. Starling forces
● Forces that govern fluid movements in capillaries are called Starling forces
● The major Starling forces are
○ Capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc) favours filtration
○ Interstitial oncotic pressure (πi)
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
● Starling’s hypothesis states that the net filtration pressure (NFP) through the capillary
membrane is proportional to the hydrostatic pressure difference across the membrane,
minus the oncotic pressure difference. In other words,
● If NFP is positive, then fluid filtration is favoured. If NFP is negative, then fluid
reabsorption is favoured.
● At the arterial end of the capillary, fluid filtration occurs. At the venous end of the
capillary, fluid reabsorption occurs. The filtered fluid is not entirely reabsorbed in the
capillaries. The filtered fluid, which is not reabsorbed, is known as “interstitial fluid”.
The interstitial fluid is returned to circulation as “lymph”.
Applied Aspects
Causes of oedema
● Due to increased capillary hydrostatic pressure – CCF, DVT
● Due to reduced plasma oncotic pressure – nephrotic syndrome, SAM
● Lymphatic obstruction - filariasis
8. Sham feeding
● A hole is made in the neck of an anaesthetised dog. The oesophagus is transversely cut
and brought out through the hole in the neck. When the dog then eats food, it comes out
through the cut end of the oesophagus. But the dog has the satisfaction of eating the food.
This is called sham (false) feeding.
● Subsequently, a fistula is created from the stomach to the exterior. When the dog now
feeds, even though the food does not enter the stomach, the gastric secretion is initiated
and it is measured through the fistula created.
● Finally, a vagotomy is performed. When the dog now feeds, gastric secretion is not
induced. This series of experiments proves the role of the vagus nerve during cephalic
phase of gastric secretion.
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
9. Clubbing
● It is a selective bulbous enlargement of the distal portion of the digit due to increased
subungual soft tissue.
● Grading
○ Grade I : Softening of the nail bed
○ Grade II : Obliteration of the angle between the nail and nail bed and positive
fluctuation test
○ Grade III : Parrot beak appearance, drumstick appearance
○ Grade IV : Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy
● Pathogenesis
Clubbing occurs as a result of peripheral deposition of megakaryocytes which are usually
sequestered by pulmonary vasculature. The increased release of platelet-derived growth
factor (PDGF) from peripheral megakaryocytes leads to increased vascularity,
permeability, and ultimately connective tissue changes. The release of PDGF is enhanced
by hypoxia.
● Causes
Pulmonary
● Bronchiectasis
● ILD
● Lung abscess
● Empyema
● TB in later stages
● Mesothelioma
Cardiac
● Cyanotic congenital heart diseases
● Infective endocarditis
● Eisenmenger syndrome
Abdomen
● Chronic liver disease
● Inflammatory bowel disease
● GI malignancy
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
Unilateral clubbing
● AV malformation
● Aneurysms of any major vessel
Unidigital clubbing
● Trauma
Pseudoclubbing
● Hyperparathyroidism due to excessive bone resorption
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
11. Leukotrienes
Leukotrienes are produced from arachidonic acid
Lipoxygenase
Arachidonic acid LTA4 LTB4, LTC4, LTD4 & LTE4
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BIOCHEMISTRY & GENETICS
1. Homocystinuria
Cystathione Beta Synthase
Homocysteine Cystathionine
(cofactor is vitamin B6)
2. Phenylketonuria
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
Phenylalanine Tyrosine
● This pathway is affected in PKU
● Clinical features
○ Mental retardation
○ Mousy odour
○ Fair complexion (Tyrosine necessary for melanin production)
● Investigations
○ UMS – FeCl3 test positive
○ TMS
● Management
○ Low phenylalanine diet (tapioca)
○ Sapropterin dihydrochloride to reduce phenylalanine levels
○ Inclusion of large neutral amino acids in diet, which would compete with
○ phenylalanine for transport across BBB
3. Galactosemia
● Deficiency of galactose – 1 – phosphate uridyl transferase
● Clinical features
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
4. Serum electrophoresis
● Movement of charged particles through an electrolyte when subjected to an electric field
● The positively charged particles (cations) move to the cathode (negative terminal) and
vice versa.
● Factors affecting electrophoresis
○ Net charge on the particles
○ Mass and shape of the particles
○ pH of the medium
○ Strength of the electrical field
○ Temperature
● Serum electrophoresis patterns :
Normal pattern
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
Inflammatory response
(elevated alpha2, beta & gamma)
Multiple myeloma
(highly elevated gamma)
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
(*Arginine and histidine are semi-essential amino acids. They are needed in children, but not
needed in adults)
Indications
● Glucose challenge in pregnancy
● Symptoms of diabetes mellitus are present, but FBS value is inconclusive
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
9. HbA1c
● Non-enzymatic addition of sugar to a protein is called glycation. When once attached,
glucose is not removed from haemoglobin. It remains inside the RBC throughout the
lifespan of the RBC (120 days).
● The glycated haemoglobins are together called the HbA1 fraction. Out of this, 80%
molecules are HbA1c. Routine clinical assays are carried out by HPLC. The value of
HbA1c is expressed as a fraction of the total haemoglobin eg. 5%, 10% etc.
● An HbA1c value between 5.7 and 6.4 suggests impaired glucose tolerance and a value >
6.5 suggests diabetes mellitus. This value is also checked after initiating appropriate
therapy to assess the level of glycemic control.
HbA1c value Estimated 3 month average glucose Level of glycemic control
5.5 110 Very good
6 126 Good
7 154 Adequate
8 183 Inadequate
9 212 Poor
10 240 Very poor
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
12. Vitamin A
● It is a fat soluble vitamin
● RDA : 1500 IU
● Foods rich in vitamin A : Green, yellow and orange colour vegetables and fruits, milk,
egg, fish
Vitamin A deficiency
● It manifests as xerophthalmia.
● WHO classification of xerophthalmia
○ XN Night blindness
○ X1A Conjunctival xerosis
○ X1B Bitot spots
○ X2 Corneal xerosis
○ X3A Corneal ulceration involving less than one third of the cornea
○ X3B Corneal ulceration involving more than one third of the cornea
○ XS Corneal scarring
○ XF Fundal changes
● Treatment of vitamin A deficiency
○ <6 month old child - 50,000 IU
○ 6-12 month old child - 1 lakh IU
○ >1 year old child - 2 lakh IU
○ This dose of vitamin A is given on day 0, day 1 and day 28.
● Prevention of vitamin A deficiency
○ 1 lakh IU vitamin A is given at 9 months along with MR vaccine first dose
○ 2 lakh IU vitamin A is given at 18 months along with DPT first booster
Hypervitaminosis A
● Toxicity is noted if >50,000 IU/day of vitamin A is ingested for several months
● It can manifest as pseudotumour cerebri, dermatitis, alopecia, hyperostosis and
hepatosplenomegaly.
● Toxic levels in pregnancy (>10,000 IU/day) can be teratogenic.
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
13. Vitamin E
● It is a fat soluble vitamin
● RDA 5-15 mg
● Foods rich in vitamin E - cereals, vegetable oils
Applied aspects
● Vitamin B12 deficiency manifests as posterolateral spinal cord syndrome with large fiber
neuropathy. The exact same manifestation can be seen in vitamin E deficiency and copper
deficiency as well.
● Vitamin E is to be supplemented in children with malabsorption and cholestasis.
● Physiological anaemia of prematurity has various causes and one of the causes is vitamin
E deficiency in preterm babies. Hence vitamin E supplements may be given in preterm
babies till 40 weeks postmenstrual age.
● Vitamin E is used in the treatment of NASH (non alcoholic steatohepatitis)
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Management
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MICROBIOLOGY & IMMUNOLOGY
1. Stool examination
Procedure
● Stool specimen diluted with NS and two drops are placed on glass slides
● Place a cover slip on the first drop (unstained preparation)
● Add a drop of iodine to the other drop and place a cover slip (stained preparation)
Methods of concentrating the parasitic eggs so that they are easily found
● Floatation : Dissolve stool specimen in a solution of higher density than the eggs
(eg. saturated salt solution) so that the eggs float
● Sedimentation : Dissolve stool specimen in a solution of density less than the eggs
(eg. water) so that the eggs concentrate at the bottom
Also mention about
● Stool occult blood
● Faecal elastase and fat globules assessment in malabsorption
● Draw pictures with brown colour pencil
2. PCR
Definition
Amplification of a specific fragment of DNA in successive cycles
Steps
● Denaturation : dsDNA ssDNA at 94 deg C
● Annealing : Primers are added which anneal with complementary sequences
● Extension : Taq polymerase provides complementary strands at 72 deg C
Application
Detecting infections eg. TB, COVID-19
Detecting mutations
Forensic medicine (DNA fingerprinting)
Genetic engineering
DNA sequencing in Human Genome Project
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
5. Blood culture
Blood culture aids in the diagnosis of bloodstream infections. Isolating the bacteria on solid
media makes identification and susceptibility testing possible.
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
inhibition of growth of bacteria around the discs. The results are reported as ‘sensitive’,
‘moderately sensitive’ or ‘resistant’.
2. Dilution method
● In this method serial dilutions of the antibiotic in broth are taken in tubes and a
standardised suspension of the test bacterium is inoculated into the tubes. After overnight
incubation, the “minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)” is read by noting the lowest
concentration of the antibiotic that inhibits growth. The “minimum bactericidal
concentration (MBC)” is the lowest concentration of the antibiotic that kills the
bacterium.
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
examination (eg. gram staining). This empirical therapy may be later modified after the culture
result is available.
Applied aspects
1. Blood culture is the main investigation whenever blood stream infection is suspected.
2. If blood culture grows staphylococcus aureus, always perform echocardiography to rule out
infective endocarditis.
3. Positive blood culture is part of the major criteria in modified Duke’s criteria for infective
endocarditis.
4. In pyogenic meningitis, if lumbar culture is delayed or contraindicated, perform blood culture
prior to the first dose of antibiotics.
5. In neonatal sepsis, culture positive sepsis needs antibiotics for 14 days. We can stop antibiotics
earlier in culture negative sepsis based on symptoms and CRP.
6. Coombs Test
Applications of DCT
● Testing for AIHA
● Testing for isoimmunisation in neonatal jaundice due to Rh / ABO incompatibility
Applications of ICT
● Cross match before transfusion
● Screening for Rh isoimmunisation in antenatal Rh negative women
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
7. ABO incompatibility
People are divided into four main groups based on the antigens found on their RBCs. They will
also have the corresponding opposing antibody in their serum.
Group Ag on RBC Ab in serum Reaction to anti-A sera Reaction to anti-B sera
A A anti-B Agglutination No agglutination
B B anti-A No agglutination Agglutination
AB A and B – Agglutination Agglutination
O – anti-A & anti-B No agglutination No agglutination
Applications
1. Cross match in blood bank
2. Hemolytic disease of newborn
8. ELISA
If HIV antibodies are present in the serum sample (PLHA), then the HIV antibodies form a
stable complex with the antigen
Washing of the container is performed to remove other unrelated human antibodies. This step
ensures that only HIV antibodies stay behind in the container, by virtue of being bound to the
adsorbed HIV antigen, which will not get washed away
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
The anti-human Ig will bind to the HIV antibodies. (However, if the serum sample did not
contain HIV antibodies, then there would not have been a target for the anti-human Ig to bind to)
Washing of the container is again performed to remove unbound anti-human Ig (if any). This
process cannot remove the anti-human Ig which is bound to the HIV antibodies, which is in turn
bound to the HIV antigen adsorbed onto the container. (If the serum sample did not contain HIV
antibodies, then the unbound anti-human Ig gets washed away in this step)
A substrate is now added to the container, which is acted upon by the enzyme linked to the
anti-human Ig. (If the anti-human Ig was washed away in the previous step, then the enzyme
would not have been available in the container to act on the substrate) The substrate reacts with
the enzyme to give a coloured product, and the colour-change is an indication of test positivity.
Applications of ELISA
● Detecting antibodies eg. HIV, HCV, Dengue, Scrub, ANCA
● Detecting tumour markers eg. PSA, CEA
● Estimating hormone levels eg. LH, FSH
● Screening donated blood for HIV/HBsAg/HCV
● Detecting drug abuse
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
10. Leptospirosis
Agent
Leptospira (spirochete)
Transmission
Direct or indirect contact with urine of infected animal
Clinical features
● Fever, conjunctival suffusion, severe mylagia, polyserositis
● Severe disease : Jaundice (Weil’s disease), renal failure, myocarditis, meningitis
Modified Faine’s criteria is used to diagnose leptospirosis
● Part A – Clinical data eg. bilateral conjunctival suffusion – 4 points
● Part B – Epidemiological factors eg. rainfall – 5 points
● Part C – Laboratory findings eg. MAT positive – 15 points
● Total score : > 25 – Definite leptospirosis
20 to 25 – Possible leptospirosis
Investigations
● Microscopic Agglutination Test (MAT) – 1:400 in endemic, 1:100 in non-endemic
● Dark Field Microscopy (DFM) – direct visualisation of leptospira
● Others – PCR, IgM ELISA
Management
● Doxycycline 5-10 mg/kg/day for 7 days
● Severe disease : Crystalline penicillin 50,000-1,00,000 U/kg/day or Ceftriaxone
● Supportive : Dialysis, management of hepatic failure, inotropes etc.
Prevention
● Not to wade through flood waters, not to play in puddles
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Investigations
● PS : Atypical lymphocytes with large, eccentrically placed nuclei
● Paul Bunnell Test (Heterophile agglutination test) : EBV specific antibodies
agglutinate cells from different species (eg. horse RBC)
● ELISA : IgM VCA (Viral Capsid Antigen)
● PCR
Management
● Supportive
● Avoid contact sports for 2-3 weeks (splenic rupture)
20. Ebola
It is a filovirus. It is a negative sense, single-stranded, enveloped RNA virus. It was first
discovered in 1976 near Ebola river, Africa
Reservoir
Fruit bats, primates
Transmission
Direct close contact with blood and body fluids of infected patients
(Health care workers and close contacts – family members are at risk)
Clinical features
● Prodromal symptoms similar to any other viral illness
● Progression to abdominal pain, haemorrhage, shock and death
Investigations
ELISA & RT-PCR
Management
● Supportive
● Remdesivir
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22. Chikungunya
It is an alphavirus. It is a positive sense, single-stranded, enveloped RNA virus.
Vector
Aedes mosquito
Differentiation Dengue Chikungunya
Rash Day 3-7 Day 1-4
Myalgia Common Possible
Polyarthritis, tenosynovitis No Common
Leukopenia, thrombocytopenia Common No
Bleeds, shock Common No
Investigations
ELISA & RT-PCR
Management
Supportive
Prevention
Vector control
23. Bacteriophage
It is a type of virus that infects and replicates within bacteria.
Applications
● Lysogenic conversion
○ Bacteriophage DNA can code for a new protein in the bacteria by this method. eg.
toxin production by diphtheria bacilli is determined by prophage beta.
● Transduction
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
○ Bacteriophage can carry genes from one bacterium to another. eg. transfer of
plasmid-mediated drug resistance in staphylococcus.
● Cloning vectors
○ Bacteriophage can transfer genes of interest to the intended bacterial host in
genetic engineering.
Life cycle
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Applied Basic Sciences in Paediatrics Second Edition (2023) Alfred Thomas Mario
25. Cryptococcus
● Opportunistic pathogen
● Infection usually acquired by inhalation
● Frequently found in soil contaminated with avian excreta
Clinical features
● Pulmonary cryptococcosis – causes pneumonitis
● Visceral cryptococcosis – resembles leukaemia
● Cutaneous cryptococcosis – vary from small ulcers to large granulomas
● CNS cryptococcosis – AES
Investigations
● Negative staining of capsules by India ink & nigrosin
● Gram stain : Gram positive round budding yeast cells
● Latex agglutination test
● Fungal culture (Sabourad Dextrose Agar)
Management
● CNS – Amphotericin B
● Others – Fluconazole
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Advantages
● Economical
● Highly sensitive test
● Test results in 15 minutes
Disadvantages
● Plasmodium species identification may not always be possible
● At very low levels of parasitaemia QBC may be negative
2. RDT
Principle
Detection of antibodies to plasmodium antigens in blood sample
Antigens
PfHRP, pLDH, Aldolase
Advantages
● Simple
● Test results in 15 minutes
Disadvantages
● Costly
● Less sensitive
● False positive in patients with RA factor positivity
Applications
● Screening in blood bank to identify infected donors
● Field work in remote locations (eg. Africa)
● Epidemiological surveys
3. PCR
Parasite nucleic acids are detected using PCR. Although this technique may be slightly
more sensitive than smear microscopy, it is of limited clinical utility as the results are
often not available quickly enough to be of value in a sick child.
28. Amoebiasis
It is caused by Entamoeba histolytica
Amoebic colitis
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● When there is no immunity in the population (A), an infectious individual (red) can
readily spread disease to its contacts (bold lines), who are susceptible (green). These, in
turn, can then transmit to their susceptible contacts (thin lines). When some individuals
are immune (blue) but the population is below the herd immunity threshold (B), a large
outbreak may still occur. When the population is above the threshold (C), large epidemics
are prevented but small outbreaks may still occur among clusters of susceptible
individuals.
Applied aspects
● Herd immunity is critical for the long-term control of many infectious diseases. Since
vaccines are never 100% effective and uptake is imperfect, achieving herd immunity
offers a means of indirectly protecting those who remain at risk of infection, including
those who are unable to be vaccinated due to their age or health.
● Herd immunity has been achieved by vaccination for a number of infectious diseases,
leading to global eradication. eg. smallpox. Polio and several other diseases are near
eradication. However, until global eradication is achieved, countries that do not maintain
vaccination above the herd-immunity threshold may experience a resurgence.
● A classic example is measles in the UK. Prior to measles vaccine introduction, there were
500,000 cases of measles occurring in the UK annually. Mathematical models suggested
that 93% of the population should be vaccinated to attain herd immunity to prevent the
spread of measles. After the vaccine was introduced in 1971, the number of cases quickly
fell below 100,000 per year. In 1992, the 93% threshold was reached. For the next 10
years measles cases never rose above 500 annually, putting the UK on the brink of
eliminating measles. However, the claims of a link between the MMR vaccine and autism
in 1996 caused vaccine uptake to decline, reaching a nadir of 80% in 2004. There have
been multiple measles outbreaks since then, and although vaccine uptake subsequently
improved, the UK lost its ‘measles elimination status’ from the World Health
Organization.
31. AEFI
A medical incident that takes place after immunisation, which causes concern; this may be a true
adverse event or an event co-incidental to the immunisation
Classification based on clinical picture
● Minor AEFI
○ Local reaction, fever, GI symptoms, myalgia etc.
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● Severe AEFI
○ Those AEFIs that are not minor, but do not result in hospitalisation,
disability or death
● Serious AEFI
○ Those AEFIs that result in disability, hospitalisation or death
Classification based on aetiology
● Vaccine related reactions
○ AEFI due to inherent properties of the vaccine (eg. suppurative
lymphadenitis in BCG) or quality defects of vaccine
● Programmatic error / immunisation error related reactions
○ AEFI due to inappropriate vaccine handling, inappropriate prescription or
inappropriate administration (eg. infection due to non-sterile injection).
These are preventable AEFIs
● Anxiety related reactions
○ AEFI arising from anxiety about immunisation eg. syncope
● Co-incidental event
○ AEFI that happens after immunisation, but is not related to it
Examples of AEFI
● BCG – disseminated BCG infection. suppurative lymphadenitis
● OPV – VAPP
● MMR – thrombocytopenia
● DTP – persistent screaming, seizures, hypotonic hyporesponsive episode,
encephalopathy
Reporting of AEFI
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PHARMACOLOGY
2. Teratogenicity
All drugs are assigned a category, based on the risk of teratogenicity.
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5. Amikacin
● Aminoglycoside antibiotic
● Mechanism : inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis; bactericidal
● Dose : 15 mg/kg/day as OD
● ADR : nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity
● Indications
○ UTI
○ First line antibiotic in neonatal sepsis
○ Nosocomial infections (anti-pseudomonal)
○ While withholding conventional ATT due to drug induced liver injury
○ Severe malaria
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7. Systemic antifungals
● Polyene antibiotic
○ Example : Amphotericin B
○ Mechanism : Increase fungal cell membrane permeability
○ ADR : distal RTA, AKI
● Echinocandin
○ Example : Caspofungin
○ Mechanism : Disrupt fungal cell by inhibiting glucan synthase
○ ADR : Similar to Amphotericin B; but less severe
● Triazole
○ Example : Fluconazole, Voricanozole
○ Mechanism : Impair ergosterol synthesis which then disrupts fungal membranes
○ ADR : Fluconazole – GI effects, Voriconazole – QTc prologation, visual
disturbances
8. 3% saline
Mechanism of action
Increases osmolality of blood, resulting in extravascular fluid entering intravascular
compartment, thereby reducing oedema
Indications
● Raised ICT (0.5-2 mL/kg/hour)
● Symptomatic severe hyponatremia
● Nebulisation
ADR
● Thrombophlebitis
● Osmotic demyelination syndrome (Monitor sodium frequently)
9. Levetiracetam
● Levetiracetam is a novel antiepileptic drug.
● Mechanism of action
○ SV2A protein is a part of secretory vesicle membranes that mediates
calcium-dependent vesicular neurotransmitter release. The binding of
levetiracetam to SV2A modifies the release of GABA and glutamate.
● Adverse effects Most common side effects are neuropsychiatric, like sedation, irritability
and mood swings. Most of the time, the side effects are mild. Dose reduction is
associated with improvement in behavioural problems
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● Indications
○ In status epilepticus, if seizures are not controlled with benzodiazepines,
levetiracetam is an excellent option. A loading dose of 20-30 mg/kg is followed
by maintenance with 10 mg/kg/dose q8-12h.
○ It is useful in treating a wide variety of seizures like generalised seizures, partial
seizures, myoclonic seizures and Lennox Gastaut syndrome. The usual starting
dose is 20 mg/kg/day.
○ It is safe in pregnancy.
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Iron requirement (in mg) = 2.3 x body weight x (target Hb minus patient’s Hb) + 10 mg/kg for
iron stores
● Formulations available
○ In addition to the usual iron sucrose and iron dextran, there are newer
formulations available like iron isomaltose and ferric carboxymaltose.
13. LMW Heparin
● Mechanism of action
○ Both heparin and LMWH exert their anticoagulant activity by activating
antithrombin III, which inactivates thrombin, factor X and factor IX.
● Advantages over heparin
○ Better bioavailability with subcutaneous administration (70-90%)
○ Longer t½ (OD dosing)
○ Laboratory monitoring with aPTT not needed (as in heparin)
● Adverse effects
○ Osteoporosis
○ Hypersensitivity
○ Heparin induced thrombocytopenia
○ Increased risk of bleeding
● Indications
○ Established thrombosis (eg. LV clot, DVT, cortical venous thrombosis)
○ DVT and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis in high risk surgical patients,
immobilised children etc.
○ COVID-19 in children
■ Therapeutic role in COVID-19
● Established thrombosis
● MIS-C with dilated coronaries > 10 SD, or LVEF < 35%
14. Statins
● Cholesterol lowering medication
● Mechanism of action
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16. Diuretics
Mechanism of action
● Loop diuretics block the Na-K-2Cl channel on the apical membrane of thick ascending
loop of Henle
● Thiazide diuretics block the Na-Cl symporter located on the DCT
● Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists (MRA) block the mineralocorticoid receptor and
hence block the aldosterone mediated reabsorption of salt and water
● ENaC blocker blocks the epithelial sodium channel through which aldosterone reabsorbs
sodium
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(Diazoxide, octreotide and chlorothiazide are used in children with persistent hypoglycemia eg.
ABCC8 gene mutation causing persistent hyperinsulinemic hypoglycemia of infancy)
19. IVIg
● Isolated from pooled human plasma (~10,000 donors) and screened for HIV, HBV &
HCV
● Indications
○ Neurology – GBS, Myasthenia gravis, ADEM, Autoimmune encephalitis,
PANDAS
○ Haematology – ITP, AIHA, pure red cell aplasia
○ Cardiology – KD, Myocarditis
○ Nephrology – HUS
○ Immunology – XLA, CVID, WAS, HIGM
○ NICU – NNH due to Rh/ABO incompatibility
○ PICU – Profound sepsis (off label)
○ COVID-19 – MIS-C
● Dose
○ Replacement dose – 0.4-0.6 g/kg every 2-4 weeks
○ Others – 2 g/kg over 2-5 days
● ADR
○ Anaphylaxis
○ AKI
Monoclonal antibodies are proteins produced by hybrid cells (hybridomas) resulting from the
fusion of a B cell capable of producing specific antibodies against a certain antigen, and a
myeloma cell capable of indefinite multiplication. The monoclonal antibodies hence produced
are all identical and are specifically targeted to a concrete antigen.
Applied aspects
1. Diagnostic application
MAbs have been produced against all the cell surface markers (CD), thus allowing the
identification and classification of a broad range of cells in flow cytometry. Hence it has wide
applications in diagnosis of haematological malignancies and immunodeficiency workup.
2. Therapeutic applications
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Neurology
● Rituximab in autoimmune encephalitis and NMO spectrum disorders
● Natalizumab (anti alpha 4 integrin), alemtuzumab (anti CD52) and ocrelizumab
(humanised anti CD20) for multiple sclerosis
Haematology
● Rituximab in non-Hodgkin lymphoma, AIHA and ITP
● Emicizumab in haemophilia - it is a humanised monoclonal antibody directed against
factor IXa and factor X. It binds to factor IXa with one arm and factor X with the other
thereby promoting factor IXa-catalysed factor X activation. Hence it mimics the cofactor
function of the deficient factor VIII in these patients
● Eculizumab (anti C5) in paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
Cardiology
● PCSK9 inhibitors (alirocumab, evolocumab) in familial hypercholesterolemia
Nephrology
● Rituximab in membranous nephropathy
● Eculizumab in atypical HUS
Immunology
● JIA
○ Anti TNF therapy (adalimumab) for polyarticular JIA and uveitis associated with
JIA
○ IL-1 inhibitors (anakinra) for sJIA
○ IL-6 inhibitors (tocilizumab) for sJIA
● Enthesitis related arthritis
○ Anti TNF therapy
● SLE
○ Rituximab in refractory nephritis and refractory cytopenias associated with lupus
● JDM
○ Rituximab in refractory JDM
● ANCA associated vasculitis
○ Rituximab in GPA and MPA with RPGN or diffuse alveolar haemorrhage
○ Mepolizumab (anti IL5) in EGPA
● Kawasaki disease
○ Anti TNF therapy may be considered in children who fail to respond to the first
dose of IVIg (instead of second dose IVIg or IV methylprednisolone)
Pulmonology
● Omalizumab (anti IgE), dupilumab (anti IL4) and mepolizumab (anti IL5) in asthma
Ophthalmology
● Ranibizumab (humanised anti VEGF) in age related macular degeneration
Gastroenterology
● Anti TNF therapy in inflammatory bowel disease
● Cetuximab (anti EGFR) in Ménétrier disease
Endocrinology
● Denosumab (anti RANKL) and romosozumab (anti sclerostin) in osteoporosis
Oncology
● Multiple therapeutic targets in solid organ cancers eg. bevacizumab (anti VEGF),
trastuzumab (anti HER2/neu)
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Transplant immunology
● Rituximab in recipients who have pre-formed anti-HLA antibodies against the potential
donor (desensitisation protocol to remove the antibodies)
● Basiliximab (anti CD25) and alemtuzumab (anti CD52) in the induction phase of
immunosuppression post-transplant to prevent graft rejection
Infectious diseases
● Anti rabies monoclonal antibody (Rabishield) can be used instead of ERIG or HRIG. It is
more potent and requires a lower dose (3.33 IU/kg)
● COVID-19
On 03.12.2021, FDA approved bamlanivimab and etesivimab (administered
together) for the treatment of mild to moderate COVID-19 in all paediatric
patients, including newborns, who are at high risk for progression to severe
COVID-19 eg. a child on cancer chemotherapy with COVID-19 positivity
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NEPHROLOGY
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2. Anion gap
● Total cations in the body = Total anions in the body
● So, Measured cations + unmeasured cations = Measured anions + unmeasured
anions
● On rearranging, we get
(Measured cations - measured anions) = (Unmeasured anions - unmeasured
cations)
● But, (Measured cations - measured anions) is the anion gap. Hence,
Anion gap = (Measured cations - measured anions) = (Unmeasured anions -
unmeasured cations)
Serum anion gap
● In the serum, measured cation is sodium and measured anions are chloride and
bicarbonate. So,
Serum anion gap = serum Na - (serum Cl + serum HCO3) = Unmeasured anions -
unmeasured cations
● The normal serum anion gap is 8-12 mEq/L.
Applied aspects
● Metabolic acidosis is characterised by a decrease in serum bicarbonate. To maintain
electroneutrality in the body, this loss of bicarbonate has to be compensated by an
increase in another anion.
HAGMA
● If the loss of bicarbonate is compensated by an increase in unmeasured anions, then the
anion gap increases. It is called high anion gap metabolic acidosis (HAGMA).
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● Examples of unmeasured anions which cause HAGMA : ketone acid (DKA), lactic acid
(lactic acidosis)
● Explanation
○ Serum anion gap = Unmeasured anions - unmeasured cations
○ So,whenever the unmeasured anions increase in the body, the serum anion gap
increases.
● Whenever HAGMA is diagnosed, the next step is to calculate the delta ratio.
● Delta ratio = (anion gap - 12)/(24 - bicarbonate)
● Normal delta ratio value is 1-2 and it implies that HAGMA is the only disorder which is
present.
○ If delta ratio is <1, it implies that there is HAGMA plus NAGMA.
○ If delta ratio is >2, it implies that there is HAGMA plus metabolic alkalosis.
NAGMA
● If the loss of bicarbonate is compensated by an increase in chloride, then the anion gap
remains unaltered. It is called normal anion gap metabolic acidosis (NAGMA).
● Explanation
○ Serum anion gap = serum Na - (serum Cl + serum HCO3)
○ When bicarbonate falls, chloride increases and so serum anion gap remains
unaffected (NAGMA). Hence NAGMA is also called hyperchloremic metabolic
acidosis.
● NAGMA has two main causes
○ RTA
○ Gastrointestinal loss of bicarbonate eg. diarrhoea, VIPoma, post
ureterosigmoidostomy
○ How to differentiate between the two ? The answer is urine anion gap.
Urine anion gap
● Anion gap = Measured cations - measured anions = Unmeasured anions - unmeasured
cations
● In the urine, measured cations are sodium and potassium, while the measured anion is
chloride. So,
● Urine anion gap = (urine Na + urine K) - urine Cl = Unmeasured anions - unmeasured
cations
● The normal urine anion gap is slightly negative. A positive urine anion gap is abnormal.
Highly negative urine anion gap is also abnormal.
● In RTA, there is defective secretion of hydrogen ions into the lumen of the distal tubule.
Normally the hydrogen ions combine with ammonia (NH3) to form ammonium ions
(NH4+). But in RTA, due to the decreased secretion of hydrogen ions into the lumen, the
urine concentration of NH4+ falls. NH4+ is an unmeasured cation in the urine.
○ Urine anion gap = Unmeasured anions - unmeasured cations
○ So, when unmeasured cations reduce, the urine anion gap becomes positive.
● Hence urine anion gap is positive in RTA. In gastrointestinal loss of bicarbonate, urinary
ammonium excretion is not impaired and so urine anion gap remains negative.
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3. Metabolic alkalosis
It is defined as high blood pH (>7.4) due to increased serum bicarbonate (>24)
Pathophysiology
There are two types of metabolic alkalosis - chloride responsive metabolic alkalosis and chloride
resistant metabolic alkalosis
● Chloride responsive metabolic alkalosis
○ This is due to chloride depletion via non-renal routes eg. gastrointestinal loss due
to vomiting, skin loss in cystic fibrosis etc. Since the chloride depletion is via
non-renal route, urine chloride level is <15 mEq/L.
○ Basically chloride depletion means that there will be coexisting fluid depletion
also. Volume depletion activates the RAAS axis. Aldosterone produces alkalosis
and hypokalemia.
○ This can be managed by saline infusion (which contains chloride). Replenishment
of the volume will inhibit RAAS and so pH and potassium return to normalcy.
● Chloride resistant metabolic alkalosis
○ This is due to chloride depletion via renal route. Since the chloride depletion is
via renal route, urine chloride level is >15 mEq/L.
○ It is further subdivided into two categories :
■ Chloride resistant metabolic alkalosis with high BP
● It is caused due to excessive mineralocorticoid activity and this
produces alkalosis and hypokalemia. eg. primary
hyperaldosteronism, Liddle syndrome, apparent mineralocorticoid
excess, glucocorticoid responsive aldosteronism etc. It will not be
corrected by saline infusion because volume replacement cannot
inhibit the excessive constitutive mineralocorticoid activity.
■ Chloride resistant metabolic alkalosis with low to normal BP
● It is seen in Bartter syndrome and Gitelman syndrome. Both these
conditions lead to salt wasting and polyuria. This causes secondary
activation of RAAS and then aldosterone produces alkalosis and
hypokalemia. It will not be corrected by saline infusion because
even after volume replacement, there is ongoing salt wasting and
polyuria due to an inherent defect in the renal tubules. The ongoing
salt wasting and polyuria once again lead to secondary activation
of RAAS, which again causes alkalosis and hypokalemia.
○ Chloride resistant metabolic alkalosis management is focused on treating the
primary condition like primary hyperaldosteronism and Bartter syndrome, with
which pH and potassium return to normalcy. Acetazolamide may also be
considered in patients with normal renal function.
Clinical features
Symptoms in metabolic alkalosis are produced due to a decrease in ionised calcium. Tingling,
paresthesias, tetany, seizures and arrhythmias may be seen. Symptoms of the coexisting
hypokalemia may also be seen, like cramps, muscle weakness and arrhythmias.
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4. Hypokalemia
It is defined as serum potassium level <3.5 mEq/L.
Physiology
● Out of the total body stores of potassium, 80% is present in the muscles.
● Movement of potassium from the blood into the cell is an active process. Intracellular
accumulation of potassium against its electrochemical gradient is made possible by
Na-K-ATPase.
● What causes the shift of potassium from the blood into the cell ?
○ Insulin
○ Beta-2 agonist
○ Alkalosis
○ Drugs : BCT (barium, chloroquine and theophylline)
○ Hypokalemic periodic paralysis (It is a calcium channelopathy however)
● Renal handling of potassium
○ 65% of potassium is reabsorbed passively at the PCT. This reabsorption occurs
irrespective of the potassium levels in the body and hence is not important for us
to study.
○ 25% is reabsorbed at the thick ascending loop of Henle via the Na-K-2Cl channel
(applied aspect : Bartter syndrome)
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Workup of hypokalemia
● The first step is to rule out coexisting hypomagnesemia.
● The next step is to check urine spot potassium creatinine ratio.
○ If it is more than 13 mEq/g, it suggests renal loss of potassium.
○ If it is less than 13 mEq/g, then it implies non-renal loss. Non-renal loss can mean
either gastrointestinal loss (eg. VIPoma causing WDHA syndrome) or shift of
potassium from the blood into the cell due to insulin, beta-2 agonist, alkalosis,
drugs and hypokalemic periodic paralysis.
● The next step in renal loss of potassium assessment is blood gas analysis.
○ If there is acidosis, it means RTA.
○ If there is alkalosis, then go to the next step.
● The next step is blood pressure assessment.
○ Renal loss of potassium with alkalosis and high blood pressure suggests endocrine
hypertension (primary hyperaldosteronism, Cushing syndrome, Liddle syndrome,
apparent mineralocorticoid excess and glucocorticoid responsive aldosteronism).
○ Renal loss of potassium with alkalosis and low-to-normal blood pressure suggests
Bartter syndrome or Gitelman syndrome.
Clinical features
● Muscle symptoms
○ Mild hypokalemia can present with cramps or a patchy weakness
○ Severe hypokalemia can present as a bilaterally symmetric ascending flaccid
quadriparesis sparing the sphincters and cranial nerves. Hypokalemia can also
precipitate rhabdomyolysis.
● Polyuria as hypokalemia is a cause of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.
● Colonic pseudo obstruction
● ECG changes in hypokalemia
○ Sagging of ST segment
○ Flattening of T wave
○ Appearance of U waves
○ Prolongation of QT interval (QU interval)
Management
● Oral potassium chloride is the best and safest mode of correction.
● Severe hypokalemia may require an acute potassium correction with 0.3-0.5 mEq/kg
infusion over one hour followed by adding potassium supplementation in the
maintenance fluid and periodic serum potassium monitoring.
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Management
● Acidosis causes growth retardation. Hence Shohl or uriliser solution (alkali) is given. The
requirement of alkali is 5-15 mEq/kg/day.
● Phosphate supplementation 50-100 mg/kg/day for the rickets.
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● Acquired causes
○ Sjögren's syndrome
○ Primary biliary cirrhosis
○ Amphotericin B
Management
● Acidosis causes growth retardation. Hence alkali solution is given. The requirement of
alkali in distal RTA is 1-2 mEq/kg/day, much lower than the requirement in proximal
RTA, even though the acidosis is more severe in distal RTA. It is because in proximal
RTA, the proximal tubular dysfunction causes loss of the supplemented bicarbonate as
well and hence a higher dose is needed.
● Phosphate supplementation is not required in distal RTA.
Type 4 RTA
● Discussed under hyperkalemia
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6. Hyperkalemia
It is defined as serum potassium level >5 mEq/L.
Physiology
● Movement of potassium from the blood into the cell is an active process. But the
movement of potassium from the cell into the blood is a passive process.
● What causes the shift of potassium from the cell to the blood ?
○ Destruction of cells eg. hemolysis, tumour lysis
○ Non-selective beta blocker eg. propranolol
○ Acidosis
○ Exercise
○ Drugs : SAM (succinylcholine, arginine, mannitol)
● Out of the total daily intake of potassium, 90% is excreted by the kidneys. So
hyperkalemia is due to low GFR, unless proved otherwise.
Workup of hyperkalemia
● The first step is to rule out low GFR.
● After ruling out low GFR, check urine potassium.
○ If urine potassium is >40 mEq/L, then it means that hyperkalemia is due to shift
of potassium from the cell to the blood due to hemolysis, tumour lysis,
non-selective beta blocker, acidosis, exercise and drugs.
○ If urine potassium is <40 mEq/L, then it means that hyperkalemia is due to RTA
type 4 which is a defect in the renal tubule at the level of the principal cell of
collecting duct. Recall that aldosterone activates ENaC in the principal cell and
reabsorbs sodium and water. To counter this, potassium moves out. The defect in
the principal cell impairs the tubular excretion of potassium and hence causes
hyperkalemia. RTA type 4 can be due to either hypoaldosteronism or
pseudohypoaldosteronism (inability to excrete potassium by the principal cell
despite aldosterone being normally available). This is differentiated by TTKG
(transtubular potassium gradient) and that is the next step.
● TTKG = (urine K/urine osmolality) x (plasma osmolality/plasma K)
○ Normal TTKG value is 6-12. In RTA type 4, as urine potassium (numerator) is
low due to impaired potassium excretion, TTKG is always <6.
○ Now the patient is administered fludrocortisone (mineralocorticoid). If the TTKG
increases to >10 post-fludrocortisone, then it means that RTA type 4 is due to
aldosterone deficiency because supplementing a mineralocorticoid increases the
urinary potassium excretion. Causes of hypoaldosteronism include Addison
disease and salt wasting forms of CAH.
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○ If the TTKG remains <6 post-fludrocortisone, then it means that RTA type 4 is
due to pseudohypoaldosteronism. Causes of pseudohypoaldosteronism :
■ Mineralocorticoid receptor defect (aldosterone cannot cause sodium
reabsorption and potassium excretion because its receptor is defective)
■ Chronic tubulointerstitial diseases like primary hyperoxaluria, ADPKD,
reflux nephropathy etc. - these conditions lead to tubulointerstitial fibrosis
and hence aldosterone cannot enter the cell to mediate its actions.
Clinical features
● Neuromuscular - tingling, paresthesias, muscle weakness
● ECG changes in hyperkalemia
Potassium level (mEq/L) ECG changes
○ 6-7 Tall peaked T waves
○ 7-8 Flattening of P waves, prolongation of PR interval,
widening of QRS interval
○ 8-9 QRS waves increase in amplitude
○ >9 No P waves (sine wave pattern), conduction blocks,
VT
Management
● Calcium gluconate stabilises the myocardium.
○ 10% calcium gluconate 0.5 mL/kg IV over 10 minutes under ECG monitoring
○ This does not reduce the potassium level however.
● Potassium lowering measures
○ Salbutamol nebulisation
○ 0.1 U/kg insulin in 1 gram/kg dextrose as an infusion over one hour
○ Potassium binding resins (K-bind) 1 gram/kg orally or PR
● Hyperkalemia refractory to medical therapy is an indication for dialysis.
7. Serum osmolality
● Osmolality indicates the concentration of all the particles dissolved in body fluid.
● It is calculated by the formula :
Serum osmolality = (2 x Na) + (glucose/18) + (BUN/2.8)
● Normally serum osmolality is 285-290 mOsm/kg of water.
● Water normally flows from the compartment of low osmolality to the compartment of
high osmolality. For example, if a cell is in a relatively hyperosmolar solution, fluid will
move out of the cell towards the highly concentrated compartment to reach homeostasis.
As a result, the cell will shrink.
Applied aspects
● Conditions with a high serum osmolality
○ Diabetes insipidus
○ Dehydration
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8. Countercurrent system
Countercurrent multiplication
● The osmolality of the blood reaching the glomerulus for filtration is 285-290 mOsm/kg of
water (normal blood osmolality).
● The osmolality of the fluid reaching the PCT is 285-290 mOsm/kg of water.
● The osmolality of the fluid leaving the PCT is also 285-290 mOsm/kg of water as there is
iso-osmotic reabsorption occurring at PCT (both solutes and water are being reabsorbed
together at PCT).
● In the descending loop of Henle, only water is being reabsorbed. Hence the osmolality of
the tubular fluid increases and is the highest at the tip of the loop of Henle (1200
mOsm/kg of water).
● In the thick ascending loop of Henle (ThAL), only solutes are being reabsorbed (eg.
Na-K-2Cl transporter). Hence the osmolality reduces and reaches its lowest point (50-100
mOsm/kg of water) at the ThAL-DCT junction.
Countercurrent exchanger
● Although the osmolality of the tubular fluid in the ThAL-DCT junction is 50-100
mOsm/kg of water, the osmolality of the urine that we usually excrete is 800-900
mOsm/kg of water. How does this happen ?
● The concentration of urine has four major players. Only when all four players co-exist,
can we excrete a concentrated urine. If there is a defect in even one of the four players,
the concentrating mechanism of the kidney is lost and we will excrete a dilute urine with
osmolality <600 mOsm/kg of water.
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● Player 2 : Urea
○ The osmolality of the medullary interstitium is maintained at high levels with the
help of urea. Once the osmolality of the renal medullary interstitium is high, then
the stage is set for the entry of Player 3.
● Player 3 : ADH
○ ADH causes free water reabsorption thereby increasing the urine osmolality.
Further, ADH activates UTA1 (urea transporter A1) which reabsorbs urea (player
2).
○ Applied aspects - Deficiency of ADH causes central diabetes insipidus (DI).
Resistance to ADH causes nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI). DI patients pass
dilute urine.
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9. Hyponatremia
It is a disorder of water metabolism. It is defined as serum sodium level <135 mEq/L.
Mechanism of hyponatremia
A. Pseudohyponatremia
● Serum osmolality = 2(Na) + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8
● The most effective osmole is sodium. In other words, the strongest contributor to tonicity
is sodium. That is why the formula has 2(Na).
● So hyponatremia is associated with hypotonicity. When hyponatremia is associated with
hypertonicity or normal tonicity, it is called pseudohyponatremia.
● Example - in hyperglycemia, glucose increases the effective osmolality in the blood
outside the cell (hypertonic state). The concentration of glucose in the blood is higher
than its concentration inside the cell. Conversely, water concentration inside the cell is
higher than its concentration outside the cell. Water always moves from its higher
concentration to lower concentration. So water moves from inside the cell to the blood.
This translocation of water increases the water concentration inside the blood and hence
reduces serum sodium concentration. This is pseudohyponatremia due to translocational
hyponatremia. For every 100 mg/dL increase in blood glucose over 200, sodium level
falls by 1.6 mEq/L.
● Other causes of pseudohyponatremia are paraproteinemia (eg. multiple myeloma) and
hypertriglyceridemia which interfere with the laboratory methodology of assessing serum
sodium.
B. True hyponatremia
Pathogenesis of true hyponatremia
● Excess ADH
○ In the resting state there is no ADH. As soon as serum osmolality increases (eg.
due to dehydration), the thirst mechanism is activated and ADH is also released.
ADH causes free water absorption. Both these regulatory mechanisms reduce the
sodium levels and osmolality. The most important stimulus for ADH release is
increase in tonicity (osmotic stimulus).
○ Another stimulus (non-osmotic stimulus) for ADH release is decreased effective
intravascular volume, when ADH acts in unison with RAAS. Although there is
sodium reabsorption occurring due to aldosterone, water gets reabsorbed more
than sodium, which leads to hyponatremia.
● Psychogenic polydipsia
○ Because of a central defect in thirst regulation, the patient keeps on drinking water
(>20 litres/day) and it is beyond the kidney’s capacity to regulate.
Workup of hyponatremia
● First rule out pseudohyponatremia due to translocational hyponatremia, paraproteinemia
and hypertriglyceridemia.
● Next assess the volume status of the patient using clinical methods like signs of
dehydration, skin turgor, tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension and radiological methods
like the assessment of IVC on ultrasonography. Hence classify the patient as belonging to
either hypovolemic hyponatremia, hypervolemic hyponatremia and euvolemic
hyponatremia.
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● Hypovolemic hyponatremia
○ Reduced intravascular volume due to hypovolemia is the trigger for release of
excess ADH, which causes hyponatremia.
○ Causes of hypovolemic hyponatremia
■ Renal loss eg. tubular injury in ATN, cerebral salt wasting,
hypoaldosteronism
■ Gastrointestinal loss eg. diarrhoea, vomiting
■ Third space loss eg. burns, pancreatitis
○ To differentiate between renal and non-renal causes, check urine sodium.
■ If urine sodium is >20 mEq/L, it indicates renal loss.
■ If urine sodium is <10 mEq/L, it indicates non-renal aetiology like
gastrointestinal and third space losses.
■ Another clue is to assess the urine volume. If urine output is increased,
then it indicates renal loss. If urine output is low or normal, it indicates
non-renal loss.
● Hypervolemic hyponatremia
○ Causes of hypervolemia
■ Congestive cardiac failure
■ Liver cirrhosis with portal hypertension and ascites
○ Even though there is hypervolemia in these patients, the effective intravascular
volume is reduced due to significant extravascular edema and splanchnic
vasodilation. This is a stimuli for excess ADH release and this leads to
hyponatremia.
○ Identification of these patients is easy due to the presence of significant
extravascular edema. USG can help in confirming the suspicion by assessing the
IVC.
● Euvolemic hyponatremia
○ Once hypovolemia and hypervolemia are ruled out, then we are left with only
euvolemic hyponatremia.
○ Clinical clues and USG help in ruling out hypovolemia and hypervolemia.
○ The causes of euvolemic hyponatremia are hypothyroidism, hypocortisolism and
SIADH.
○ So after ruling out hypothyroidism and hypocortisolism with TFT and serum
cortisol levels, the diagnosis of exclusion is SIADH. Inappropriate release of
excess ADH in the absence of osmotic stimuli and non-osmotic stimuli leads to
SIADH.
Clinical features
● Mild hyponatremia : Sodium 130-134 mEq/L
○ Gastrointestinal symptoms only eg. nausea, vomiting, anorexia
● Moderate hyponatremia : Sodium 120-129 mEq/L
○ Gastrointestinal symptoms are predominant
○ Neurological symptoms are rare eg. lethargy, mild headache
● Severe hyponatremia : Sodium 100-119 mEq/L
○ Neurological symptoms are predominant eg. confusion, agitation, gait
abnormalities, ataxia
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Management
● The most common cause of hyponatremia in children is hypovolemic hyponatremia. In
general, it is recommended that the correction rate of sodium does not exceed 8-10
mEq/L per day in order to prevent the risk of osmotic demyelination syndrome. In
children without seizures/coma/raised ICP, replacement of the lost fluid along with the
normal maintenance fluid may be all that is necessary.
● In children with seizures/coma/raised ICP, the aim is to increase serum sodium quickly by
2-3 mEq/L (which increases the serum osmolality by 4-6 mOsm/kg of water). This
increment may be sufficient to reverse cerebral edema and avoid impending brain
herniation.
○ This increment is achieved by infusing hypertonic saline at a dose of 2-3 mL/kg
over 30-60 minutes.
○ Subtract this bolus dose of hypertonic saline from the total fluid requirement
calculated for the day.
○ Also ensure that the subsequent rate of rise of serum sodium does not exceed
0.3-0.4 mEq/L per hour, by frequent serum sodium monitoring.
Example : A 10 kg child with sodium 100 mEq/L with seizures planned for 3 mL/kg (30 mL)
hypertonic saline
○ One litre of hypertonic saline contains 513 mEq sodium. So infusate sodium is
513 mEq/L
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● Patients with hypervolemic hyponatremia (eg. DCLD with ascites, CCF) will require salt
restriction and diuretics. SIADH needs fluid restriction.
10. Hypernatremia
It is a disorder of water metabolism. It is defined as serum sodium level >145 mEq/L.
Mechanism of hypernatremia
● Normal serum osmolality is 285-290 mOsm/kg of water.
● In the resting state there is no ADH. As soon as serum osmolality increases (eg. due to
dehydration), the thirst mechanism is activated and ADH is also released. ADH causes
free water absorption. Both these regulatory mechanisms reduce the sodium levels and
osmolality. A failure in these two regulatory mechanisms lead to hypernatremia.
○ Usually dehydration activates the thirst mechanism and the patient drinks water
and hence hypernatremia is prevented. Extreme dehydration along with the
patient not drinking water leads to hypernatremia. Examples of such a scenario :
■ Extreme preterm baby on nil per oral kept under radiant warmer and
phototherapy
■ Severe burns patient on nil per oral
■ A ventilated child with diarrhoea and severe dehydration on nil per oral
○ Diabetes insipidus (DI)
■ Central DI is due to defective ADH secretion. Causes of central DI -
● Injury to the pituitary stalk due to trauma, tumour (eg. growth
hormone secreting pituitary adenoma) or infiltration (eg.
Langerhans cell histiocytosis, sarcoidosis)
● Wolfram syndrome (DIDMOAD)
■ Nephrogenic DI is due to ADH resistance
● Causes of nephrogenic DI -
● Mutation of V2 receptor or aquaporin-2
● Hypercalcemia
● Hypokalemia
Clinical features
● Hypernatremia causes cellular dehydration by movement of fluid from inside the brain
cell to outside, resulting in brain shrinkage and tearing of bridging blood vessels, which
leads to intracranial haemorrhage.
● Hypercoagulability due to dehydration increases the risk of thrombosis.
● Osmotic demyelination syndrome which is seen in rapid correction of hyponatremia can
also occur in hypernatremia.
● Features of dehydration and doughy skin
Management of hypernatremia
● If there is shock at presentation, can resuscitate with 0.9% saline boluses as required.
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in other words, the clearance of a substance from the blood. Assessment of GFR using
inulin is considered the gold standard method for the estimation of GFR. Other
exogenous markers used are radioisotopes such as chromium-EDTA and
technetium-DTPA.
● The most commonly used endogenous marker for the assessment of glomerular function
is creatinine.
○ Using the Cockcroft-Gault equation, creatinine clearance can be calculated.
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H+ cannot be excreted in the urine in distal RTA and hence urine pH is >5.5. But
urine pH is normal in proximal RTA.
C. Urine analysis
Urine dipstick can be used to identify the following
● Glucose - positive in proximal RTA, diabetes mellitus etc.
● Ketones - positive in DKA
● Bilirubin - positive in conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
● Urobilinogen
○ Increased in extravascular haemolysis
○ Absent in complete obstruction of the biliary tree
● Leukocyte esterase and nitrite may indicate UTI
● Protein
● Haematuria
Urine Protein
● Urine dipstick detects only albumin. Other proteins (eg. light chains excretion in multiple
myeloma) are not detected by dipstick.
○ The results are expressed as - negative, trace, 1+, 2+, 3+ and 4+
○ 1+ albuminuria roughly corresponds to a urinary loss of 800 mg/day and 2+
roughly corresponds to 2000 mg/day (normal urine albumin excretion is <30
mg/day)
● The best test to look for proteinuria will be 24 hours urine protein.
○ A value of >500 mg/24 hours is significant proteinuria in adults.
○ In children, a value of >4 mg/m2/hour is considered abnormal and >40
mg/m2/hour indicates nephrotic range proteinuria.
● An alternative to the cumbersome 24 hour testing would be urine spot protein creatinine
ratio. In children, a value of <0.2 mg/mg is considered insignificant, >0.2 mg/mg is
significant proteinuria and >2 mg/mg indicates heavy proteinuria.
Workup of haematuria
● If 100 patients test positive for blood by urine dipstick :
○ 90% patients usually have urological cause eg. urolithiasis, Wilm’s tumour
○ 9% patients have a medical renal cause eg. glomerular hematuria
○ 1% patients have a haematological cause eg. intravascular haemolysis due to
paroxysmal cold haemoglobinuria, paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria etc.
● If the dipstick is positive for blood, the next step is urine centrifugation at 1600-2000 rpm
for 5 minutes.
○ After centrifugation, if the urine is still high coloured, then it indicates that the
cause of high coloured urine is haemoglobin (intravascular haemolysis) or
myoglobin (eg. rhabdomyolysis)
○ After centrifugation, if the supernatant becomes clear, then the cause for high
coloured urine is RBCs (RBCs settle down at the bottom). Now check under a
microscope to see if the “40-5-1 rule” is satisfied.
■ If the 40-5-1 rule is satisfied, then it is a glomerular haematuria. The rule
is satisfied if any one of these three are present
● > 40% dysmorphic RBCs
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● > 5% acanthocytes
● > 1 RBC cast
■ If all three are negative, then it is non-glomerular haematuria, which
usually indicates a urological cause.
Urine microscopy
● Urine RBCs
○ > 5 RBCs/hpf in a centrifuged specimen indicates microscopic haematuria. Urine
colour may be normal in microscopic haematuria.
● Urine WBCs
○ Isolated presence of WBCs does not confirm UTI. Presence of any bacteria/hpf in
fresh uncentrifuged urine is strongly suggestive of UTI, however.
● Casts in urine
○ Casts are formed in the DCT.
○ Matrix of the cast is formed by Tamm Horsfall protein.
○ RBC cast is seen in glomerular haematuria eg. IgA nephropathy.
○ WBC cast is seen in acute pyelonephritis, acute tubular necrosis(ATN), acute
interstitial nephritis (AIN) and post streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
○ Eosinophil cast is seen in ATN and AIN. But WBC casts and eosinophil casts are
not specific for ATN/AIN because they need not always be present in these cases.
○ Renal tubular epithelial cast is specific for tubulointerstitial injury (ATN/AIN).
○ Fatty cast is seen in nephrotic syndrome and Fabry’s disease.
○ Broad waxy cast is seen in CKD.
● Crystals in urine
Shape of the crystal Cause
○ Rhomboid Uric acid
○ Dumbbell Calcium oxalate monohydrate
○ Envelope Calcium oxalate dihydrate
○ Star Calcium phosphate
○ Coffin lid Triple phosphate (magnesium-ammonium-phosphate)
○ Hexagon Cystine
○ Cholesterol Nephrotic syndrome
○ Broom brush Amoxicillin
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16. Erythropoietin
Erythropoietin (EPO) is a glycoprotein with 165 amino acids and 4 heavily sialylated
carbohydrate chains. EPO is produced by the peritubular interstitial fibroblasts in the renal cortex
and outer medulla.
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Erythroblast
EPO and iron dependent
Reticulocyte
EPO and iron dependent
RBC
Stimulation of EPO
Tissue hypoxia due to anaemia
Hypoxia inducible factor (HIF) alpha forms a dimer with HIF beta
Applied aspects
The main indication for EPO is in CKD patients with anaemia.
● In CKD, there is a disturbed oxygen-sensing mechanism. Hence the production of EPO in
CKD patients is inappropriately low for the degree of anaemia and tissue hypoxia in
them.
● In addition, the chronic inflammation in CKD activates hepcidin.
● Plus there are several uremic toxins in these patients which are inhibitors of
erythropoiesis.
● But the most important cause for anaemia in CKD patients is iron deficiency. Iron
deficiency can be due to anorexia, impaired iron absorption and uremic blood loss.
So always rule out iron deficiency before starting EPO in CKD patients with anaemia. Serum
ferritin >500 ng/mL plus transferrin saturation > 30% indicates that there is no iron
deficiency in a CKD patient with anaemia. This patient may be started on EPO therapy. If
serum ferritin <500 ng/mL or transferrin saturation <30%, then it is iron deficiency
anaemia and hence iron deficiency must be treated first before considering EPO.
Initiating EPO therapy : EPO is usually started at 50-100 units/kg/week and can go upto 300
units/kg/week.
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If the EPO requirement is >300 units/kg/week, then rule out the following :
● Iron deficiency
● Inadequate dialysis (uremic inhibitors of erythropoiesis are not being removed
efficiently)
● Chronic inflammation (eg. due to indwelling haemodialysis catheter infection etc.)
Contraindications of EPO
● Malignancy
● Stroke
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Micturition reflex
Filling of urinary bladder
Stimulation of stretch receptor
Afferent impulse via pelvic nerve
Sacral segment of spinal cord
Efferent impulse via pelvic nerve
Contraction of detrusor and relaxation of internal sphincter
Voiding of urine
● Automatic bladder
○ It is also known as spastic bladder or UMN type of bladder
○ It is seen in injury to spinal cord segments above S2 eg. T8 level intramedullary
cord compression
○ Awareness of bladder filling is intact and micturition reflex is present
○ However, voluntary inhibition of the micturition reflex (control by the higher
brain centres) will be lost
○ There is detrusor overactivity. So when the bladder reaches a certain volume,
suddenly the detrusor contracts (automatically) and this forces open the sphincters
and the patient voids unexpectedly.
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Cloaca
Primitive urogenital sinus Primitive rectum
Vesicourethral canal (VUC) Definitive urogenital sinus (DUS)
Urinary Prostatic urethra Pelvic part of DUS Phallic part of DUS
bladder upto the opening Rest of the prostatic Spongy urethra
of ejaculatory duct urethra and also
membranous urethra
● In females, the urethra is formed from the VUC and pelvic part of DUS. The phallic part
of DUS gives rise to the vestibule.
● The lower portion of mesonephric ducts become incorporated into the posterior wall of
bladder to form trigone
Applied aspects – bladder exstrophy, urachal fistula (when a remnant of allantois persists)
19. Development of kidney
● Intermediate mesoderm gives rise to three structures - urogenital ridge, mesonephric duct
and paramesonephric duct.
● The lateral portion of the urogenital ridge is nephrogenic cord. The nephrogenic cord is
aligned close to the mesonephric duct.
● The nephrogenic cord forms the pronephros in the 4th week gestational age, which soon
regresses. Later in the 4th week, the nephrogenic cord forms the mesonephros, but this
also regresses by the 16th week.
● During the 5th week, two important structures are formed, namely :
○ Nephrogenic cord forms the metanephric blastema (which gives rise to the
excretory part of the nephron)
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○ Mesonephric duct forms the ureteric bud (which gives rise to the collecting
system of the nephron)
● In between the 6th and 8th week, there occurs an important process called “epithelial
mesenchymal interaction (EMI)”. It is an interaction occurring between the epithelium of
the ureteric bud and the mesenchyme of the metanephric blastema. EMI leads to the
formation of the first nephron by the end of 8th week. The first urine is formed by the 9th
week. Nephrogenesis is completed by 32-36 weeks.
Applied aspects
1. Genes involved in the process of EMI are PAX2, WT1, FGF etc. Defects in these genes
lead to renal agenesis.
2. Nephrogenesis ends by 36 weeks and there are no new nephrons being formed after birth.
This means that the final number of nephrons in each kidney is established at birth.
Studies have demonstrated that SGA babies (birth weight <10th percentile) have lesser
nephrons at birth and hence smaller kidneys. This is called “nephron underdosing” and
it is a risk factor for developing hypertension and CKD in later life.
20. Development of female reproductive system
The medial portion of the urogenital ridge is gonadal ridge.
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Intermediate mesoderm
Urogenital ridge
Gonadal ridge (medial portion of the urogenital ridge)
Primary sex cords formed
Primordial germ cells migrate from the yolk sac to the primary sex cord in the 5th week
Secondary sex cords formed
The primary sex cords eventually degenerate
The primordial germ cells undergo mitosis and then there occurs an arrest in meiotic prophase I.
This germ cell is now called primary germ cell (primary oocyte) and the primary oocytes are
situated inside primary follicles. A baby girl is born with 1-2 million primary follicles.
Paramesonephric ducts form the uterine tubes, uterus, cervix and the vagina.
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89
CARDIOLOGY
1. Heart tube
The heart is at first seen in the form of a heart tube that has five dilatations
The atrioventricular (AV) canal is initially circular in shape and later becomes transverse
Two thickenings (AV endocardial cushions) appear on the dorsal and ventral walls of AV canal
The fused cushions form the AV septum, which is also known as “septum intermedium”
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Before the septum primum reaches and fuses with the AV endocardial cushions, blood flows
through the gap between them (this gap is ostium primum)
Before the septum primum fuses with the endocardial cushions and ostium primum is closed, the
upper part of the septum primum breaks down to form ostium secundum (so that blood can keep
flowing from RA to LA in the foetus)
A second septum (septum secundum) grows down from the superior wall. Septum secundum lies
to the right of septum primum. Septum secundum grows downward, but stops before reaching
the endocardial cushions. This ensures that most of the ostium secundum is covered by the
septum secundum, but a small gap is left behind. This gap is known as foramen ovale and this
remains patent throughout the foetal life for blood to flow from RA to LA
At birth, when pressure in the LA increases, septum primum and septum secundum press against
each other and close the foramen ovale. This process gets completed at around three months of
age
Applied aspects
Ostium primum ASD : Septum primum fails to fuse with the endocardial cushions
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● The distal half of bulbus cordis (known as conus), forms the outflow tract of both
ventricles
● Two septa are formed in the conus – proximal and distal bulbar septa
○ Proximal bulbar septum contributes to formation of interventricular septum
○ Distal bulbar septum separates the conus into aortic vestibule and infundibulum
● Truncus arteriosus undergoes division by spiral aortopulmonary septum into ascending
aorta and pulmonary trunk
● The spiral aortopulmonary septum is formed by union of truncal ridges and bulbar ridges,
which are in turn derived from neural crest cells
● Orientation and fusion of these ridges take place in such a manner, that at the proximal
part of the spiral septum, the pulmonary trunk lies anterior to the aorta, and in the
intermediate aspect of the spiral septum, the pulmonary trunk is on the left side and aorta
is on the right side, and at the distal part of the spiral septum, aorta lies anterior to the
pulmonary trunk
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Applied aspects
○ Persistent truncus arteriosus
■ Failure of formation of spiral aortopulmonary septum
○ Transposition of great arteries
■ If the aortopulmonary septum is not aligned in a spiral fashion, then the
great arteries are also not spirally aligned, and they open into the opposite
ventricles
○ Fallot’s tetrad
■ It occurs when the aortopulmonary septum fails to align properly with the
interventricular septum
Interventricular septum (IVS) has three parts – muscular, bulbar and membranous IVS
○ Muscular IVS
■ Develops as an outgrowth of the muscular wall in the floor of the
primitive ventricle. This outgrowth grows up towards the AV endocardial
cushions, but does not join with it and hence creates the interventricular
foramen, leaving the septum incomplete.
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○ Bulbar IVS
■ The fusion of the right and left bulbar ridges in the conus forms the
proximal bulbar septum.
■ The proximal bulbar septum grows downward towards the muscular IVS,
but does not join with it.
○ Membranous IVS
■ The interventricular foramen and the gap between the upper edge of
muscular IVS and the lower edge of bulbar IVS are filled up by
proliferation of tissue from the AV endocardial cushions and right and left
bulbar ridges
Applied aspects
○ If these three components fail to fuse, it may result in ventricular septal defect. It
occurs commonly in the membranous part of the IVS
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● Embryology
○ During foetal life, the endocardial cushion tissue contributes to the closure of both
the lower part of the atrial septum (i.e. ostium primum) and the upper part of the
ventricular septum, in addition to the formation of the mitral and tricuspid valves.
○ The failure of normal development of this tissue may be either complete or
partial. In partial ECD, an ostium primum ASD is present, associated with a
mitral valve cleft. Ostium primum ASD, inlet VSD and clefts in the mitral and the
tricuspid valve leaflets are all present in complete ECD.
● Haemodynamics of partial ECD
○ It is similar to ostium secundum ASD, in which the RA and RV are dilated with
increased pulmonary blood flow. The cleft mitral valve is insignificant because
blood regurgitated into the LA is immediately shunted to the RA, thereby
decompressing the LA
● Haemodynamics of complete ECD
○ It is the sum of the changes seen in ASD and VSD. There is volume overload of
the LA and LV as in VSD and partially due to MR. In addition, it has volume
overload of the RA and RV as in ASD. The result is biatrial and biventricular
enlargement. The magnitude of the left to right shunt is determined by the level of
pulmonary vascular resistance.
Clinical features
● Partial ECD
○ The clinical features are similar to ostium secundum ASD.
○ These patients are asymptomatic during childhood.
○ Findings :
■ Wide fixed split S2
■ Systolic ejection murmur at the upper left sternal border
■ Systolic murmur of MR
■ Mid diastolic murmur of relative tricuspid stenosis
● Complete ECD
○ 70% of children with complete ECD have Down syndrome. 50% of the cardiac
defects found in Down syndrome patients are ECD.
○ Children with complete ECD develop heart failure 1-2 months after birth and
recurrent pneumonia is common.
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○ Findings :
■ Hyperactive precordium
■ Systolic murmurs of VSD and MR
■ Loud and narrowly split S2 because of pulmonary hypertension
● ECG
○ Superior QRS axis is characteristic of ECD.
○ Evidence of RV hypertrophy in partial ECD
○ Evidences of biventricular hypertrophy and biatrial hypertrophy in complete ECD
● Management
○ Partial ECD
■ Device closure cannot be done. Elective intracardiac repair can be
performed in asymptomatic children between 2-4 years of age. If
symptomatic, surgery can be performed earlier.
○ Complete ECD
■ PA banding in early infancy is no longer done. Most centres perform
intracardiac repair between 2-4 months of age.
7. Foetal circulation
Placenta
Oxygenated blood
Umbilical vein
Ductus venosus
IVC
Right atrium
Pulmonary artery
Pulmonary vein
Left atrium
Left ventricle
Aorta
Placenta
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8. Cardiac cycle
Atrial systole
● At the end of the reduced filling phase (last step mentioned in this question), 70%
of the ventricles is already filled with blood. For emptying the remaining 30%
blood, the atria has to contract.
● If the ventricles are stiff due to impaired relaxation (ventricular diastolic
dysfunction eg. AS, HCM), then the atria contracts forcefully to fill the ventricles.
This causes S4.
Isovolumetric contraction
● To eject blood into aorta and PA, ventricles must open the semilunar valves
● Pressure inside a totally relaxed ventricle at the end of diastole is zero mm Hg.
But the pressure inside the aorta is 80 mm Hg.
● To open the semilunar valves, ventricles starts contracting and the pressure inside
the ventricle increases
● When the ventricular pressure exceeds the atrial pressure, AV valves close to
prevent regurgitation from the ventricles to the atria. (S1 heard)
● Now the ventricles contract against closed valves, and so the ventricular volume
will not change (isovolumetric contraction)
● Once the left ventricular pressure reaches above 80 mm Hg, the aortic valve opens
(similarly the pulmonary valve also opens)
Rapid ejection
● Once semilunar valves are opened, ventricles eject blood rapidly
Reduced ejection
● Ventricular pressure starts decreasing and ejection slowly falls
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Protodiastole
● Ventricular pressure becomes less than that of the aorta and PA. This causes
closure of semilunar valves to prevent regurgitation from the great arteries to the
ventricles (S2 heard).
Isovolumetric relaxation
● All 4 valves are closed. Pressure inside ventricles falls even more without change
in ventricular volume (isovolumetric relaxation)
● Once ventricular pressure falls below atrial pressure, AV valves open
Rapid filling
● Opening of AV valves leads to rapid filling of ventricles
● This rapid inflow of blood vibrates ventricular walls and causes S3
Reduced filling
● Rate of ventricular filling declines
9. Clinical significance of S2
● At the end of the ventricular systole, during the protodiastole phase, the ventricular
pressure becomes less than that of the aorta and PA. This causes closure of semilunar
valves to prevent regurgitation from the great arteries to the ventricles.
● Aortic pressure is higher than PA pressure and the distensibility of the aorta is also lesser
than that of the PA. Hence the aortic valve closes first (A2) followed by closure of the
pulmonary valve (P2). Further, A2 is normally louder than P2.
● The normal A2-P2 gap is 30 milliseconds. This is hard to appreciate. On asking the
patient to take a deep breath (inspiration), with increased venous return, the A2-P2 gap
can go upto 40-50 msec and may be appreciated. So, normally A2-P2 split cannot be
heard in expiration and is heard only in inspiration.
Applied aspects
● Loud P2 is heard in pulmonary hypertension. Soft P2 is heard in PS.
● In calcific AS, the A2 is soft. But in AS due to bicuspid aortic valve, there is no valve
degeneration like calcific AS. So the A2 can be louder here.
● In AR due to valve pathology (eg. RHD), the A2 is soft. But in AR due to aortic root
pathology (eg. syphilitic AR), the A2 is louder.
● Wide variable splitting of S2 : A2 occurs first, followed by P2. The split can be heard in
both inspiration and expiration. This can occur due to either early closure of A2 or
delayed closure of P2.
○ Early closure of A2 occurs because the LV blood escapes into the RV or the LA
instead of going into the aorta. The causes are VSD and severe MR.
○ Delayed closure of P2 occurs because it is difficult for the RV to pump out blood.
The causes are PS and pulmonary hypertension.
● Wide fixed split : here the ability of the right heart to accommodate the increased venous
return associated with inspiration is lost. So the variability of A2-P2 occurring with
respiration is lost. It is seen in RV failure and ASD.
● Paradoxical (or reverse) split S2 : here P2 occurs first, followed by A2. The split is heard
only during expiration and not during inspiration. This can occur due to either early
closure of P2 or delayed closure of A2.
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○ Early closure of P2 occurs because the RV blood escapes into the RA instead of
going into the PA. It is seen in severe TR.
○ Delayed closure of A2 occurs because it is difficult for the LV to pump out blood
due to obstruction occuring in conditions like severe AS and HCM. It may also be
seen when the LV contains excess blood as in severe AR, which takes longer
duration to pump out.
10. JVP
● Jugular venous pressure (JVP) assesses the right heart dynamics and the relationship of
the right heart to the venous system.
● Measurement of JVP
The patient is made to lie supine and a bed rest is applied at 45 degrees. The topmost
point of the IJV pulsations is normally at a height of 3 cm from the sternal angle and the
sternal angle is considered to be at a distance of 5 cm from the RA.
● Causes of JVP elevation
1. Increase in the effort needed to fill RV eg. RV failure, pulmonary hypertension,
conditions with diastolic dysfunction like RCM and CCP
2. Increase in RA pressure eg. TS
3. Circulatory overload eg. renal failure, cirrhosis with portal hypertension and
ascites
Jugular venous pulse (JVP) waveforms
a – right Atrial contraction
c – Carotid artery impact; tricuspid valve ascends
x – right atrial relaXation
v – Venous filling into right atrium
y – emptYing of right atrium
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This is seen due to three conditions producing severe diastolic dysfunction namely RCM
(restrictive cardiomyopathy), CCP (chronic constrictive pericarditis) and CT (cardiac
tamponade). Due to the severe diastolic dysfunction, filling of the cardiac chambers with
blood cannot occur in diastole as the chambers cannot expand freely. Hence filling can
occur only during ventricular systole, and systole is normal in these patients. So the x
descent is prominent due to the prominent cardiac filling occurring in the ventricular
systolic phase.
6. Absent y descent
In CT and RCM, there is no ventricular filling occurring in the diastole. Hence there is
absent y descent in both these conditions.
7. Prominent y descent
In CCP, the degree of diastolic dysfunction is probably not as severe as in RCM and CT.
Ventricular filling does occur during the early one-third of the ventricular diastole. After
the early one-third of the diastole, there is elevation and equalisation of pressures in all
four chambers due to the pericardial pathology. Hence the RA blood has to rapidly empty
within the early one-third of the ventricular diastole. This rapid emptying of blood from
the RA into the RV during the early one-third of the ventricular diastole produces the
prominent y descent in CCP.
8. Slow y descent is seen due to an obstruction impairing the atrial emptying eg. TS
Impulses originate from the SA node because the pacemaker potential of the SA node has the
highest slope and also because the intrinsic firing rate of the SA node is higher than the others
SA node depolarises the atria and it is seen on the ECG as the P wave
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AV node
Bundle of His
Purkinje fibres
Ventricular depolarisation occurs. It is seen as the QRS complex on the ECG. This is followed by
ventricular repolarisation, and this is seen as the T wave on the ECG.
Applied aspects
1. SA node dysfunction (eg. due to sick sinus syndrome) can initially manifest as sinus
bradycardia. Later when the SA node rate is too low, the AV node can take over
producing a junctional rhythm (AV node is the junction).
2. Supraventricular tachycardia has been discussed as the next question.
3. Sometimes an aberrant pathway can exist which provides an alternative circuit for the
electrical impulses to travel between the atria and ventricles. An example is Wolff
Parkinson White syndrome, in which the aberrant pathway is the bundle of Kent.
4. AV node dysfunction leads to heart blocks - first, second and third degree blocks.
5. Blocks can occur at the right and left bundle branches producing RBBB and LBBB.
6. In abnormal hearts (eg. post MI with scar) or due to dyselectrolytemia or due to
congenital conditions like long QT syndrome, ventricular tachycardias can occur.
12. Physiology of supraventricular tachycardia
Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a general term that refers to any rapid heart rhythm
originating above the ventricular tissue.
Mechanisms
● The majority of SVTs are caused by re-entry. Examples include atrioventricular nodal
re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT) and atrioventricular re-entry tachycardia (AVRT).
● The other mechanism is enhanced automaticity. Examples include atrial tachycardia and
junctional tachycardia.
AVNRT
● In a normal person, there are two pathways in the AV node :
○ Fast pathway - conducts faster, but it has a longer refractory period
○ Slow pathway - conducts slower, but it has a shorter refractory period
● The impulse from the SA node reaches the AV node and travels down by both the fast
and slow pathways. But the conduction in the fast pathway is faster and hence the
fast-pathway-impulse reaches the ventricle first and activates the ventricle. A portion of
the fast-pathway-impulse goes back via the slow pathway and meets the
slow-pathway-impulse and both get neutralised.
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● In AVNRT, a perfectly timed ectopic PAC (premature atrial complex) impulse enters the
AV node. But the fast pathway is still in its refractory period after conducting the
previous normal impulse (from the SA node). So the PAC impulse enters the slow
pathway as it has a shorter refractory period. The slow-pathway-impulse reaches the
ventricle and activates it. By this time the fast pathway has completed its refractory
period and is ready to conduct. So, a portion of the slow-pathway-impulse goes back via
the fast pathway and activates the atria in a retrograde manner. This sets up the re-entry.
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● The retrograde activation of the atria through the fast pathway produces a P wave on the
ECG. But it is being produced at the same time as ventricular depolarisation. So, the P
waves are buried inside the QRS waves. That is why P waves are usually not seen in
AVNRT.
AVRT
● AVRT is the most common tachyarrhythmia seen in the paediatric age group.
● AVRT occurs in the setting of Wolff Parkinson White (WPW) syndrome. In WPW
syndrome, there exists a bypass tract (accessory atrioventricular conduction pathway)
between the atria and ventricles, known as the bundle of Kent.
● In AVRT, a perfectly timed ectopic PAC impulse enters the AV node. The AV node
conducts the impulse in an antegrade manner and it activates the ventricles. But the
impulse also travels back through the bundle of Kent and activates the atria (retrograde
activation of atria). This sets up the re-entry.
Closing remarks
● Both AVRT and AVNRT usually present with narrow QRS complex tachycardia and it
may occasionally be difficult to distinguish between the two on the ECG. But the
treatment for both the conditions are the same i.e. adenosine in haemodynamically stable
patients and synchronised DC cardioversion in unstable patients. Once the patient reverts
to sinus rhythm, then the ECG can reveal classical features of WPW syndrome like short
PR interval and delta waves. And the final diagnosis can be retrospectively made as
WPW syndrome with AVRT. All WPW syndrome patients will need Holter monitoring
and a cardiology consultation prior to discharge.
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Innocent murmurs arise from cardiovascular structures in the absence of anatomic abnormalities.
More than 80% of children have innocent murmurs of one type or another sometime during
childhood.
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disappears in the supine position. It can be obliterated by rotating the head or by gently
occluding the neck veins with fingers
● Mechanism : flow of blood causes the jugular vein walls to vibrate thereby creating a
humming noise
● How to differentiate from PDA : The PDA murmur is loudest at the upper left sternal
border or left infraclavicular area. It may be associated with bounding peripheral pulses.
Further, the systolic component is louder than the diastolic component
E. Carotid bruit
● Common age group : any age
● Best heard at : right supraclavicular area and over the carotids
● Nature : early systolic murmur of grade 2 to 3 with an occasional faint thrill over the
carotid. There is no ejection click
● Mechanism : bruit is produced by turbulence in the carotid arteries
● How to differentiate from AS : The AS murmur is louder at the upper right sternal border
and is often associated with a systolic thrill. Further, an ejection click is often present
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● However there is no evidence that RVOT spasm occurs as the primary event in cyanotic
spells. It is more likely that SVR reduction occurs as the primary event and sets the ball
rolling. Crying, defecation and increased physical activity can reduce SVR and initiate a
cyanotic spell. In addition to decreased SVR, other causes such as excessive tachycardia
or hypovolemia can also increase the right-to-left shunt resulting in hypoxia.
● Hypoxia leads to acidosis and this stimulates the respiratory centre which produces
hyperpnea. The hyperpnea, in turn makes the negative thoracic pump more efficient and
this results in an increase in the systemic venous return to the RV. This leads to more
right-to-left shunting, which further worsens the hypoxia and hence establishes a vicious
cycle.
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Swollen eosinophilic collagen surrounded by lymphocytes, giant cells and Anitschkow cells
(cells with caterpillar like chromatin) in myocardium in rheumatic fever
● Causes
○ Fracture of long bones
○ Sickle cell anaemia
● Clinical features
○ Pulmonary insufficiency
○ Neurological symptoms (CVA)
○ Petechial rash
● Investigations
○ Anaemia
○ Thrombocytopenia
○ Fat globules in urine
● Management
○ Supportive therapy
● Prevention
○ Early fixation of long bone fractures
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HEPATOLOGY
1. Bilirubin metabolism
Heme
Heme oxygenase
Biliverdin
Biliverdin reductase
Conjugated bilirubin
Conjugated bilirubin enters intestines and is then deconjugated (into urobilinogen and
stercobilinogen) by intestinal flora
Applied aspects
1. In Crigler Najjar syndrome type I, there is severe unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia due to
complete absence of UDP glucuronyl transferase I activity.
2. In Crigler Najjar syndrome type II, there is moderate unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
due to UDP glucuronyl transferase I activity being <10% of normal.
3. In Gilbert syndrome, there is mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia due to UDP
glucuronyl transferase I activity being around 30% of normal.
4. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in Dubin Johnson syndrome due to MRP2
mutation.
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3. Portosystemic anastomoses
The hepatic portal system has a fairly robust collateral circulation. When blood flow through the
liver is severely reduced in portal hypertension, portal blood will be diverted along the following
three routes of collateral circulation to enter the IVC in order to return to the heart.
Site Portal system vein IVC system vein Applied aspect
Umbilicus Paraumbilical vein Sup. & inf. epigastric veins Caput medusae
Rectum Superior rectal vein Middle & inf. rectal veins Anorectal varices
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Applied aspects
● Portal hypertension is defined as :
○ Portal venous pressure > 12 mm Hg
○ Sinusoidal pressure > 6 mm Hg
○ Hepatic Venous - Portal pressure Gradient (HVPG) > 10 mm Hg
■ When HVPG is more than 12 mm Hg, there is high risk of complications
occurring due to portal hypertension.
■ When HVPG is more than 20 mm Hg, there is a high risk of variceal
rupture.
Copper metabolism
● Copper is absorbed from the proximal small intestine.
● Copper is sequestered inside the duodenal epithelial cell by binding to metallothionein.
● Subsequently copper reaches the liver and it binds to apoceruloplasmin with the help of
ATP7B protein to form holoceruloplasmin, which then enters the systemic circulation.
● The excess copper in the liver which does not bind to apoceruloplasmin is subsequently
excreted in the bile with the help of ATP7B.
In Wilson disease, ATP7B is defective and hence copper can neither be incorporated into
apoceruloplasmin to form holoceruloplasmin, nor can it be excreted in the bile. So,
● Copper gets deposited in the hepatocellular lysosomes
● This eventually leads to free radical mediated hepatocyte inflammation and damage.
● Finally it spills over to plasma with toxicity of the extrahepatic organs including basal
ganglia, cornea, erythrocytes and kidney.
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Applied aspects
● Serum ceruloplasmin level is low in Wilson disease as the half life of apoceruloplasmin is
less than that of holoceruloplasmin.
● Copper chelators like penicillamine and trientene inhibit accumulation of copper in
hepatocellular lysosomes and also increase urinary copper excretion.
● Further, zinc increases metallothionein synthesis in the intestine. Metallothionein traps
copper inside the intestinal epithelial cell so that it finally gets excreted in faeces without
reaching the liver.
5. Chronic hepatitis
● Causes
○ Chronic HBV / HCV
○ Metabolic causes like Wilson’s disease
○ Autoimmune hepatitis
○ Budd Chiari syndrome
○ Alcohol
○ NASH
● Clinical features
○ Chronic hepatitis is usually asymptomatic or has only vague symptoms. Fatigue is
the most common symptom. Jaundice is not usually seen. Hence it is difficult to
diagnose the disease in the “chronic hepatitis” stage and patients usually end up
progressing to cirrhosis and then portal hypertension and that is when they present
to us.
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6. Ascites
Pathophysiology
● Mechanical and functional components during the origin of portal hypertension
○ The fibrous septations in cirrhosis compress the sinusoids causing a resistance to
flow (mechanical component).
○ Nitric oxide (NO) levels are increased everywhere else (eg. splanchnic
circulation), but inside the hepatic sinusoids, there is a decrease in NO level. This
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8. Reye syndrome
Mitochondrial injury
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Investigations
○ CSF total count < 8
○ CSF analysis not suggestive of infective aetiology
○ LFT and ammonia elevated
○ Liver biopsy – Jones Type 2 fulminant hepatic failure
Management
○ Supportive management of hypoglycaemia, liver failure and raised ICT
Hackett’s grading
Grade 0 - Spleen not palpable even on deep inspiration
Grade 1 - Palpable only on deep inspiration and it is palpable below the costal margin
Grade 2 - Palpable till halfway between the costal margin and umbilicus
Grade 3 - Palpable till the umbilicus
Grade 4 - Palpable below the umbilicus
Grade 5 - Palpable till the pubic symphysis
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GASTROENTEROLOGY
1. Rotation of gut
● Midgut forms a U-shaped loop that herniates through the primitive umbilical ring into the
extraembryonic coelom, beginning at week 6 of intrauterine life (IUL).
● The midgut loop has two limbs
○ Cranial limb – consists of jejunum and upper part of ileum
○ Caudal limb – lower part of ileum, caecum, appendix, ascending colon and
proximal ⅔ of transverse colon
● The herniated midgut loop rotates 270 degrees anti-clockwise around the superior
mesenteric artery (SMA) before it returns into the abdominal cavity at around week 10-11
IUL.
Applied aspects
● Non rotation
○ The small intestine lies on the right side of the abdomen and the entire large
intestine lies on the left.
○ Generally children with this condition are asymptomatic. However, if volvulus
occurs in such a child, SMA may get obstructed, resulting in bowel gangrene.
● Mixed rotation / incomplete rotation
○ The caecum lies just inferior to the pylorus of the stomach, and is fixed to the
posterior abdominal wall by peritoneal bands (Ladd bands) that pass over the
duodenum. These bands and volvulus usually cause duodenal obstruction.
● Reverse rotation
○ The midgut loop rotates in a clockwise direction instead of anti-clockwise
direction. As a result, the duodenum lies anterior to the SMA, instead of being
posterior to it. Also, the transverse colon lies posterior to the SMA, instead of
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being anterior to it. The transverse colon may get obstructed by pressure from
SMA.
● Omphalocele (ventral body wall defect)
○ Failure of physiologically herniated bowel loops to return to the body cavity
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● Rule of two
○ 2% population
○ 2 inches long
○ 2 feet from ileocaecal valve
● Contains ectopic gastric or pancreatic mucosa
● Peptic ulceration is noted at the junction of ileal and ectopic gastric mucosa because
bicarbonate rich secretion of duodenum and pancreas is not available in ileum to
neutralise the acid from ectopic gastric mucosa
● Most common clinical manifestation is intermittent painless hematochezia in babies < 2
years old
● Always rule out Meckel diverticulum in a child with significant painless bleeding PR
● Investigations : Meckel scan (99mTc) or diagnostic laparoscopy
● Management : Surgical excision
3. Development of pancreas
Ventral bud gives rise to uncinate process and a Dorsal bud gives rise to the
(Wirsung) (Santorini)
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Applied aspects
● Pancreatic divisum (not fused)
● Annular pancreas : the two parts of pancreas surround the duodenum and constrict
it
Starch Maltose
Stomach
Pancreas
Pancreatic amylase
Starch Maltose
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Intestine
Brush border enzymes (also known as disaccharidases) act on disaccharides and convert
them into monosaccharides
Maltase
Lactase
Sucrase
Absorption
● Carbohydrate absorption predominantly occurs in the duodenum and jejunum
● Glucose and galactose get absorbed via SGLT1
● Fructose gets absorbed via GLUT5
Applied aspects
● D-xylose test : D-xylose is a pentose that is completely absorbed in the proximal small
intestine independent of pancreatic assistance. 25 gram of D-xylose is given orally and
urine is then collected for the next 5 hours. An excretion of <5 gram D-xylose in the urine
is suggestive of malabsorption affecting the proximal small intestine.
Mouth
No proteolytic enzyme
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Stomach
Pepsin
Pancreas
Enterokinase converts trypsinogen to trypsin. Trypsin then activates the remaining enzymes.
Carboxypeptidase A & B
Intestine
Aminopeptidase
Tripeptidase
Dipeptidase
Absorption
Absorption of amino acids occurs primarily in the proximal small intestine (duodenum and
jejunum) via various transporters (facilitated diffusion).
Applied aspects
1. Protein malabsorption usually occurs along with carbohydrate and fat malabsorption (eg.
celiac sprue). Protein malabsorption is detected by reduced levels of chymotrypsin and
elastase in stool.
2. Diseases affecting only protein malabsorption
a. Enterokinase deficiency
b. Transporter defect
i. Neutral amino acid transporter defect - Hartnup disease
ii. Dibasic amino acid transporter defect - Cystinuria
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There are eight steps in fat digestion and absorption. Defect in any of these steps will lead to fat
malabsorption resulting in steatorrhea.
Step 1
● Bile acids (also known as bile salts) are formed in the liver.
● Defect in step 1 : In liver cirrhosis, bile acids are not formed.
Step 2
● Bile acids travel down in the biliary tree
● Defect in step 2 : In biliary cirrhosis (eg. PBC), bile acids cannot reach the intestine
Step 3
● Bile acids reach the intestine and are ready to attack
● Defect in step 3 : In SIBO (small intestinal bacterial overgrowth), the bile acids are
rapidly deconjugated and inactivated by the bacteria present in the small intestine
Step 4
● Bile acids act together with pancreatic lipase to convert the fats into micelles
● Defect in step 4 : Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
Step 5
● Micelles are transported across the intestinal mucosa into the intestinal epithelial cell
● Defect in step 5 : In celiac sprue, tropical sprue and Whipple disease, there is a loss of
integrity of the intestinal epithelial mucosa
Step 6
● Micelles are converted into triglycerides. Then triglyceride (lipid) combines with Apo
B48 (apoprotein) to form chylomicron (apolipoprotein)
● Defect in step 6 : Defect in the enzyme (MTTP) needed for chylomicron formation
results in abetalipoproteinemia
Step 7
● Delivery of chylomicron from the intestinal cell into the lymphatics
● Defect in step 7 : Abnormal lymphatics (lymphangiectasia)
Step 8
● 95% of the bile acids reaching the ileum get reabsorbed and travel back to the liver to
repeat this cycle again. Enterohepatic circulation maintains the bile acid pool
● Defect in step 8 : Ileal diseases like Crohn's disease and TB result in impaired bile acid
reabsorption and depletion of the bile acid pool
7. Tropical sprue
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● Investigations
○ Absorption of all the three main nutrients are affected as proximal small
intestine and distal small intestine are both involved (pan intestinal involvement).
So, d-xylose test is positive, faecal elastase is low and faecal fat globules are
present.
○ Vitamin B12 and folate levels are low.
○ Intestinal biopsy shows partial villous atrophy (celiac disease has complete
villous atrophy).
● Management
○ A combination of antibiotics and micronutrients (folic acid and vitamin B12) is
given for an extended duration.
8. Hirschsprung disease
● Failure of cranio-caudal migration of ganglion cell precursors along GIT during 5-12 wk
GA
● Loss of intrinsic innervations of the distal colon
● The aganglionic segment is in a state of constant contraction and the internal anal
sphincter does not relax. The bowel proximal to the aganglionic segment becomes dilated
due to the functional obstruction
● Clinical features
○ Any newborn not passed meconium within 48 HOL – suspect HD
○ During the PR exam, the anal canal and rectum appear to be empty. But, as the
finger is withdrawn, there is a sudden explosive gush of offensive stools.
○ Intractable constipation in older children
● Investigations
○ Barium enema
○ Anorectal manometry
○ Rectal biopsy showing absence of ganglion cells (IHC is used to stain AChE)
● Management
○ Resection of aganglionic segment and re-anastomoses
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● It can be used to differentiate between IBD and irritable bowel syndrome. Patients with
Crohn’s disease can have occult blood in stools. Ulcerative colitis generally presents with
bloody stools. Irritable bowel syndrome has no blood in stools.
● Gastrointestinal involvement in Henoch Schönlein purpura can be identified by testing
for occult blood in stools. Severe GI involvement may be an indication for steroids.
● It is used during workup of iron deficiency anaemia, to rule out gastrointestinal blood
loss.
● It can be used to screen for colorectal malignancies.
10. Probiotics
● It is a preparation containing viable microorganisms that alter the gut flora by
colonisation and hence exert a beneficial effect.
Examples
● Lactobacilli
● Bifidobacteria
Indications
● It has been demonstrated that probiotics reduce the duration of hospital stay in children
admitted with infectious diarrhoea.
● Probiotics induce colonisation by normal gut flora which suppress clostridium difficile
and hence are useful in pseudomembranous enterocolitis.
● Alteration in gut flora plays a role in IBD pathogenesis. Probiotics can have a supportive
role in inducing and maintaining remission in IBD. Turboprobiotics are strains of
lactobacillus which have been genetically engineered to secrete IL-10 (an
anti-inflammatory cytokine) in vivo. They are found to be useful in Crohn’s disease.
● Probiotics are used in the prophylaxis of NNEC in babies with birth weight <1.25 kg and
babies with birth weight between 1.25-1.5 kg with A/REDF.
Prebiotics
● The drawback of probiotics is that it is difficult to deliver viable bacteria to the distal gut
as the bacteria may be destroyed in the stomach or duodenum.
● Prebiotics are fibres and complex proteins that are not digested or absorbed in the gut.
They deliver nutrients to the endogenous flora and hence stimulate their growth.
● Examples - lactulose, chicory
● Mother’s milk is a natural prebiotic.
Synbiotics
● Viable microorganisms (probiotics) are combined along with prebiotics to ensure the
survival of the probiotic microorganisms. eg. bifidobacterium with chicory
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HAEMATO-ONCOLOGY
1. Flow cytometry
Provides rapid analysis of multiple characteristics of single cells, made to flow in a single line
Indications
Oncology – Leukaemia and lymphoma markers
Haematology – EMA in HS, diagnosis of PNH
Immunology – HLA typing, immunodeficiency workup
Obstetrics – quantification of FMH
Blood Bank – Assessment of WBC contamination of blood products
2. RBC indices
MCV
Average volume of one RBC (80-100 fL)
MCH
Average mass of haemoglobin per RBC (30 ± 3 pg)
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MCHC
Average concentration of Hb in a given volume of packed red cells (34 ± 2 g/dL)
RDW
Coefficient of variation of RBC volume (12-16)
Applied aspects
3. Reticulocyte count
● The ESR test measures the rate at which the erythrocytes, in a sample of whole blood, fall
to the bottom of the Westergren tube. This process of "falling" is called sedimentation.
● Blood containing an anticoagulant in a tube remains as suspension (without erythrocytes
settling at the bottom) for a relatively long time due to negative electrical charges on
erythrocyte surfaces, which make them repel each other.
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● Erythrocytes typically fall at a faster rate in people with inflammatory conditions such as
infections, cancer, or autoimmune conditions. These conditions lead to an increase in the
number of proteins in the blood. Many plasma proteins have positive charges and can
effectively neutralise the negative surface charges of the erythrocytes, which causes red
blood cells to aggregate and settle at a faster rate, thereby forming a longer column on the
tube, which translates to a higher millimetre reading.
● In anaemia, with the haematocrit reduced, the velocity of the upward flow of plasma is
altered, so that the erythrocytes fall faster.
● Methods of measuring ESR : Westergren method, Wintrobe method, automated ESR
analyser
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● Rouleaux formation : linking of RBCs into chains resembling stacks of coins eg.
paraproteinemia in multiple myeloma
C. Identifying WBC abnormalities
● WBCs in infection
○ Apart from helping to detect the usual leukocytosis, leukopenia, neutrophilia,
lymphocytosis etc. some important findings are :
○ Toxic granules - Toxic granulations are seen in the neutrophils cytoplasm due to
compensatory increase in microbicidal granules.
○ Left shift - Normally, the band neutrophil population on a smear is less than 8%
and metamyelocytes less than 0.5%. An increase in the proportion of myeloid
precursors is termed left shift.
○ Leukemoid reaction - A leukemoid reaction is a haematological disorder, defined
by a leukocyte count greater than 50,000 cells/cu. mm, caused by reactive causes
outside the bone marrow. It is characterised by a significant increase in mature
neutrophils in the peripheral blood and also a differential count showing marked
left shift. The most important cause is severe infection.
● Granules within the WBCs
○ Chediak Higashi syndrome patients have typical giant granules in the leukocyte
cytoplasm.
● Lymphoblasts, myeloblasts, plasmablasts etc. help in identification of haematological
malignancy cases. But confirmation with flow cytometry is performed in all cases as it
will yield additional information which helps in prognostication and planning treatment.
● Neutrophil nuclear segmentation
○ The nuclei of neutrophils have a segmented appearance. The majority of
neutrophils have three nuclear segments (lobes).
○ Hypersegmented neutrophils (>5 lobes) - megaloblastic anaemia
○ Pseudo Pelger Huet cells (<2 lobes) - dysplastic WBCs in myelodysplastic
syndrome
D. Platelet abnormalities
● Apart from helping to detect the usual thrombocytopenia and thrombocytosis, the
important platelet abnormalities identified on the peripheral smear are :
○ Giant platelets - Bernard Soulier syndrome
○ Microthrombocytopenia - There is reduction in the number and size of the
platelets in Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
E. Parasites
● The following parasitic infections are detected on peripheral smear :
● 1. Malaria
● 2. Babesiosis
● 3. Filariasis
● 4. Leishmaniasis
● 5. Trypanosomiasis
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7. Iron absorption
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8. Thrombogenesis
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A-3. Hypercoagulability
Applied aspects
● Defective thrombogenesis may be due to :
1. Thrombocytopenia
2. Platelet function defects
■ Bernard Soulier syndrome (Gp Ib/IX defect)
■ Glanzmann thrombasthenia (Gp IIb/IIIa defect)
■ von Willebrand disease (vWF defect)
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3. Disorders of coagulation
■ Haemophilias
■ Vitamin K deficiency
■ Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
9. Platelets
● Platelets are disc-shaped anucleate cell fragments which are shed from megakaryocytes.
● There are two types of granules in the platelets :
○ Alpha granules - contain clotting factors and PDGF
■ Defect in alpha granules causes grey platelet syndrome
○ Dense granules - contain ADP and serotonin
■ Defect in dense granules causes Hermansky Pudlak syndrome
● Mention about vWF, gp IIb/IIIa and gp Ib/IX
Applied aspects
● Thrombocytosis is seen in inflammatory conditions (eg. KD) and also in essential
thrombocytosis
● Thrombocytopenia can be seen in viral infections, microangiopathic hemolytic anaemia,
hypersplenism, ITP and can also occur as part of pancytopenia.
● Platelet functional disorders are screened for by PFA-100 analyser. Examples of such
disorders include von Willebrand disease, Bernard Soulier syndrome and Glanzmann
thrombasthenia.
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● Inheritance
○ All are AD inherited, except type 3 (AR)
● Role of vWF
○ Adhesion of platelets to subendothelium
○ Binding protein of factor VIII (hence increases t½ of factor VIII)
● Pathology
○ Type 1 – partial deficiency of vWF; most common type
○ Type 2 – qualitative defect of vWF
○ Type 3 – severe deficiency of vWF; most severe type
● Investigations
○ PT – normal
○ aPTT – increased
○ TT – normal
○ Ristocetin induced platelet aggregation – defective
● Management
○ Desmopressin induces the release of vWF from endothelium
○ vWF concentrates are now available
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Graft versus host disease (GVHD) occurs when immunocompetent T cells in the graft attack the
immunodeficient recipient due to minor HLA mismatches.
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● Causes
○ Genetic – Mutations of the PDL1 gene on chromosome 9
○ Infection – EBV
○ Immunity – NF-kb is upregulated
● Pathological types (and how to remember them)
○ Mixed Cellularity - the Most Common classical RS cells are seen (MC for MC)
○ lymphocyte Predominant - Popcorn RS cells are seen (P for P)
○ lymphocyte DEPLETION - No RS cells (DEPLETION of RS cells)
○ Lymphocyte RICH - (Being rich is better than being depleted. So) there are few
RS cells
○ NODULAR sclerosis - LACUNAR RS cells are seen (nodular rhymes with
lacunar)
● Clinical features
○ Painless LAD (80% cases have cervical LAD) – most common symptom
○ HSM or mediastinal mass
○ B symptoms
■ weight loss > 10%
■ unexplained persistent/recurrent fever
■ drenching night sweats
● Ann Arbor staging
○ Stage I – single region (LN or extralymphatic site) involved
○ Stage II – two or more regions involved on the same side of the diaphragm
○ Stage III – involvement on both sides of the diaphragm
○ Stage IV – Diffuse or disseminated involvement
○ A – absence of B symptoms; B – at least one B symptom within the last 6 months
● Investigations
○ LN biopsy
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16. Neuroblastoma
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● Causes
○ N-myc mutations
○ Hyperdiploidy
● Sites
○ Adrenal (30%) > paravertebral (28%) > post. mediastinum (15%) > pelvis (5%) >
neck (5%)
● Clinical features
○ Abdominal lump
○ Fever
○ Raccoon eyes
○ Bone pain
○ Two paraneoplastic syndromes
■ Watery diarrhoea (VIP secretion)
■ Opsoclonus – myoclonus syndrome (immunologic phenomenon)
● Investigations
○ Imaging – USG/MRI/CT
○ Nuclear scintigraphy – MIBG scan
○ Urine catecholamines
○ Biopsy with Neuron Specific Enolase (NSE) positivity on IHC is gold standard
○ Homer Wright pseudorosettes, primitive neuroblasts & punctate calcification on
HPE
● Staging
○ I – Localised tumour with complete excision undertaken; lymph nodes negative
○ II – Localised tumour; incompletely excised – lymph nodes negative
○ II B – Localised tumour; incompletely excised – ipsilateral LN +ve, contralateral
–ve
○ III – Tumour infiltrating across midline (or) contralateral LN involvement
○ IV – Distant metastases
○ IV S
■ S for Special
■ S for Small children (applicable only in infants)
■ S for Small primary tumour (localised disease as in stage I or II)
■ S for Spread limited to Skin, liver and/or marrow
■ S for Spontaneous regression likely
● Management
○ Localised tumour – Surgery alone
○ Advanced disease – Chemotherapy along with surgery, radiotherapy and BMT
○ IV S tumour – Observation for spontaneous regression
● Aetiology
○ Gene mutations associated with Wilms tumour
■ Loss of function mutations of tumour suppressor genes like WT1, WT2,
FWT1, FWT2, p53, BRCA2
○ Syndromes associated with Wilms tumour
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NEUROLOGY
1. Brachial plexus
Roots
C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1
Trunks
C5 and C6 give rise to upper trunk
C7 gives rise to middle trunk
C8 and T1 give rise to lower trunk
Divisions
Each trunk gives rise to anterior and posterior divisions
Cords
Anterior divisions of upper and middle trunks join to form the lateral cord
Anterior division of lower trunk forms the medial cord
Posterior divisions of all three trunks join to form the posterior cord
Branches
Root branches
Dorsal scapular nerve
Long thoracic nerve of Bell
Upper trunk branches
Suprascapular nerve
Nerve to subclavius
Lateral cord branches (LML)
Lateral pectoral nerve
Musculocutaneous nerve
Lateral root of median nerve
Medial cord branches (M4U)
Medial pectoral nerve
Medial root of median nerve
Medial cutaneous nerve of forearm
Medial cutaneous nerve of arm
Ulnar nerve
Posterior cord branches (STARS)
upper Subscapular nerve
Thoracodorsal nerve
Axillary nerve
Radial nerve
lower Subscapular nerve
Applied aspects
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2. Sciatic nerve
Sacral plexus
Sciatic nerve
Enters gluteal region through greater sciatic notch and passes below piriformis
Branches
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3. Facial nerve
Fibres of facial nerve
● SVA – Taste from anterior two thirds of tongue and palate
● SVE – Muscles of facial expression
● GVE – Lacrimal pathway to lacrimal, nasal and palatine (LNP) glands
- Submandibular pathway to submandibular & sublingual salivary (SSS)
glands
● GVA – Sensation from soft palate and adjacent pharyngeal wall
● GSA – Sensation from posterior surface of external ear (posterior auricular
branch)
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Facial nerve loops around abducens nucleus (raising the facial colliculus)
Lesion D
Geniculate ganglion
Lesion C
Nerve to stapedius
Lesion B
tractus solitarius
Lesion A
Causes
Idiopathic; may be associated with HSV infection
Management
Oral prednisolone within 48 hours of onset may reduce inflammation and duration of
weakness. Taper gradually over two weeks.
Acyclovir
Artificial tears / eye lubrication / adhesive strapping of eyelids
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Physiotherapy
Prognosis
Usually recovers in 4-8 weeks
NCS or EMG may be used to prognosticate
Aberrant reinnervation causes crocodile tears syndrome and synkinesia (jaw winking)
Lesion B Proximal to chorda tympani Loss of taste in anterior two third of tongue
Decreased salivation
4. Abducens nerve
● It is the sixth cranial nerve which supplies the lateral rectus muscle of the eyeball.
● Nucleus
The abducens nucleus is situated in the lower pons beneath the facial colliculus.
● Course
○ The nerve runs downwards to reach the lower border of the pons and then it runs
upward through the cisterna pontis to reach the cavernous sinus.
○ The nerve pierces the posterior wall of the cavernous sinus, and bends sharply
forwards over the petrous temporal bone superior border, and then lies lateral to
the internal carotid artery in the cavernous sinus.
○ The nerve enters the orbit through the middle part of the superior orbital fissure
and ends by supplying the lateral rectus muscle.
Applied aspects
● Abducens nerve paralysis is one of the most common false localising signs in patients
with raised intracranial pressure. Its susceptibility to such damage is due to its long
course in the cisterna pontis and its sharp bend over the petrous temporal bone superior
border. Abducens nerve paralysis causes failure of abduction of the affected eye and
results in diplopia.
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5. Cavernous sinus
● Dural venous sinus that lies on either side of the body of sphenoid bone in middle cranial
fossa
● Extent
○ From superior orbital fissure to apex of petrous temporal bone
○ Average length – 2 cm, width – 1 cm
● Contents
○ Cavernous segment of ICA
○ Perivascular T1 sympathetic plexus associated with cavernous segment of ICA
○ III nerve
○ IV nerve
○ V1 (ophthalmic nerve)
○ V2 (maxillary nerve)
○ VI nerve
● Role
○ Receives blood from brain, meninges and orbit
Applied aspects
● Infection involving dangerous area of face may lead to cavernous sinus septic thrombosis
● Clinical features of cavernous sinus pathology
○ Ptosis (weakness of levator palpebrae superioris)
○ Proptosis (venous congestion causes protrusion)
○ Chemosis (congestion leads to swelling of conjunctiva)
○ Periorbital oedema
○ Diplopia (dysmotility of extraocular muscles)
○ Sluggish pupillary response (involvement of III nerve)
○ Decreased corneal reflexes (involvement of V1 nerve)
○ Sensory disturbances in V1 and V2 territory
6. Corticospinal tract
Origin
Subcortex
● Corona radiata
● Internal capsule
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CST fibres are not near cortico- In internal capsule, both are in close
-bulbar fibres in corona radiata proximity
Corona radiata lesions do not have Internal capsule lesions are usually
coexisting facial weakness associated with facial weakness
Brainstem
In the lowermost part of the medulla, CST fibres decussate to the opposite side.
Spinal cord
In the spinal cord, CST fibres descend in the lateral funiculus of the spinal cord and
finally terminate on the anterior horn cell.
7. Internal capsule
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Blood supply
● Superior part of anterior and posterior limbs and genu
○ Lenticulostriate branches of MCA
● Inferior part of anterior limb
○ Anterior cerebral artery (including recurrent branch of Heubner)
● Inferior part of genu
○ Internal carotid artery
● Inferior part of posterior limb
○ Anterior choroidal artery (branch of internal carotid artery)
Applied aspects
● Internal capsule is prone to CVA because the perforating arteries that supply the region
are predisposed to occlusion or rupture due to their small diameter.
● Lesion of the anterior two-third of the posterior limb of the internal capsule produces
contralateral motor weakness.
● Further, the motor fibres are densely packed in the internal capsule and hence there is
dense hemiplegia in internal capsule lesions.
● Also, in the internal capsule the corticospinal tract fibres are in close proximity to the
corticobulbar fibres. Hence internal capsule lesions are usually associated with facial
weakness as well.
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8. Circle of Willis
Location
At the base of the brain, in the interpeduncular fossa
Formation
Formed by nine arteries
Anteriorly – Anterior communicating artery
Anterolaterally – Paired anterior cerebral arteries
Laterally – Proximal segments of both ICAs
Posterolaterally – Paired posterior communicating arteries
Posteriorly – Proximal segments of both posterior cerebral arteries
Role
● It serves as a channel of collateral circulation, in the event of an arterial occlusion
Branches
● Central branches
○ Anteromedial branches
■ Largest branch is the recurrent artery of Heubner
○ Anterolateral branches
■ Largest branch is Charcot’s artery of cerebral haemorrhage
○ Posterolateral branches
○ Posteromedial branches
● Cortical branches / External branches
○ Run on the surface of cerebrum and anastomose freely
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9. Visual pathway
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2nd order neuron : neurons of marginal nucleus and substantia gelatinosa of Rolando
(cross over to the opposite side occurs in the spinal cord itself)
● When a skeletal muscle with an intact nerve supply is stretched within physiological
limits, it contracts.
● Example – tapping patellar tendon stretches the quadriceps femoris, which leads to its
contraction and extension of the knee joint
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Spindle afferents
Muscle contraction
Gamma motor neuron sends efferents to muscle spindle from spinal cord
○ Role - Increase the sensitivity of stretch reflex
○ Example - Jendrassik manoeuvre
CSF is secreted by choroid plexus within the ventricles by ultrafiltration & active secretion
Lateral ventricles
3rd ventricle
Aqueduct of Sylvius
4th ventricle
Production : 20 mL CSF/hour
Applied aspects
1. Aqueductal stenosis presents with hydrocephalus involving the third and lateral
ventricles. But the 4th ventricle is normal sized.
2. In tubercular meningitis, basal exudates can involve the basal cisterns. This can cause
hydrocephalus either via impaired absorption of CSF at the level of arachnoid
granulations, or there may be obstruction to the flow at the level of basal cisterns.
3. Ventriculoperitoneal shunt or endoscopic third ventriculostomy are operative
interventions available to address hydrocephalus.
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● Vasogenic oedema
○ Due to disruption of BBB
○ eg. VEGF induced increased vascular permeability causing peri-tumoral oedema
● Cytotoxic oedema
○ Due to cell injury
○ eg. head injury, stroke
● Interstitial oedema
○ Due to outflow of CSF
○ eg. hydrocephalus
● Osmotic oedema
○ Due to osmolarity derangement
○ eg. DKA, hyponatremia
Stimulus
Depolarisation
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When the impulse reaches the end of the axon, it increases the permeability of calcium ions
Few molecules of ACh escape degradation by AChE and get attached to ACh receptor
Applied aspects
● Myasthenia gravis
○ Blocking type antibodies are formed against postsynaptic ACh receptors at the
NMJ of skeletal muscles
● Botulism
○ Botulinum toxin produces paralysis by blocking the presynaptic release of ACh at
the NMJ
● Organophosphate poisoning
○ The mechanism of action of this poison is inhibition of AChE, leading to
accumulation of ACh throughout the nervous system, resulting in overstimulation
of muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
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● Neutrophils fill the subarachnoid space and are found around the leptomeningeal blood
vessels
● Later, they infiltrate the vessel walls and extend into the brain substance (cerebritis)
● Phlebitis leads to venous thrombosis and hemorrhagic infarction of the underlying brain
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By the end of the third week, the lateral margins of the neural plate thicken and become elevated
to form the neural folds
The neural folds then grow over the midline and begin to fuse to form the neural tube, which
later separates from the surface ectoderm
Neural tube has a cavity (neural canal) which is in continuity with the amniotic cavity in the
beginning. The cavity gives rise to the central canal of the spinal cord and ventricles of the brain
Closure of the neural tube begins in the cervical region and continues cranially and caudally.
When the neural tube starts closing in the cervical region, the neural canal is still open at the
cranial end (anterior neuropore) and caudal end (posterior neuropore). Gradually the neuropores
shut close, disconnecting the neural canal from the amniotic cavity
Applied aspects
● Craniorachischisis occurs due to total failure of neural tube closure.
● Non-closure of anterior neuropore leads to anencephaly.
● Non-closure of posterior neuropore leads to spina bifida.
○ Spina bifida occulta - failure of vertebrae to close around the spinal cord
○ Meningocele - meninges extend out of the defective spinal canal
○ Meningomyelocele - meninges and spinal cord extend out of the defective spinal
canal
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Management
● MRI spinal cord with brain screening
● Surgical closure of the defect
Prevention
● Prescribe periconceptional folic acid for all prospective mothers - 0.4 mg/day two months
before and three months after conception. For mothers with neural tube defect in their
previous child, the dose of folic acid is 4 mg/day.
● Anomaly USG, elevated levels of maternal AFP and elevated levels of amniotic fluid
AFP and acetyl cholinesterase for antenatal diagnosis.
Anatomy
Paired internal cerebral veins drain the deep parts of the cerebral hemisphere and finally unite to
form the great cerebral vein of Galen. Just before their union, each internal cerebral vein receives
the corresponding basal vein of Rosenthal. The great cerebral vein of Galen then empties into the
straight sinus.
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Embryology
● Between the 6th and 11th week of intrauterine life, the developing choroid plexus has
arterial blood supplied by the ICA and its terminal branches and the venous drainage is
by the median prosencephalic vein.
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● By the 11th week, the paired internal cerebral veins take over the venous drainage of the
choroid plexus. This results in the regression of the median prosencephalic vein, except
for its most caudal part, which joins the internal cerebral veins to form the vein of Galen.
● Vein of Galen malformations result due to the failure of the regression of the median
prosencephalic vein. This means that the original connections between the arteries (that
were supplying the developing choroid plexus) and the median prosencephalic vein
persist and result in enlargement of the latter. Hence, arterial blood is shunted from
choroidal arteries (high pressure) to the median prosencephalic vein (low pressure).
● The median prosencephalic vein lacks a fibrous wall, is largely unsupported and lies free
in the subarachnoid space within the fluid of the quadrigeminal cistern and hence it
balloons out to a large size.
● The high flow across the arteriovenous fistula may result in the retention of foetal
patterns of venous drainage, which could in turn prevent development of other sinuses
such as the straight sinus.
Clinical features
● During intrauterine life, the low resistance of the placental circulation competes with the
cerebral arteriovenous shunt, thereby blood flow through the shunt is not as great as it is
after birth. Exclusion of the low resistance placental circulation results in an abrupt
increase in the flow across the fistula, leading to high-output cardiac failure.
● The high flow within the arteriovenous shunt and restriction of venous drainage results in
high cerebral venous pressure, which prevents resorption of CSF and thus results in
hydrocephalus, cerebral edema, and hypoxia.
Management
● Antenatal USG can pick up this anomaly and such mothers are referred to higher centres
for delivery.
● Cranial MRI is the preferred preoperative imaging modality.
● Aggressive management of cardiac failure can usually postpone the intervention until the
child is aged about 5-6 months, at which point intervention is easier and safer.
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● Prior to endovascular intervention, the prognosis was dismal, with 100% mortality
without treatment and 90% mortality following conventional intracranial surgery. At
present, the AV fistulas are occluded by an interventional neuroradiologist using embolic
agents such as coils, balloons or cyanoacrylate glue.
● Emergency embolization of the malformation may be necessary to reduce the shunt in
neonates with refractory cardiac failure.
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PULMONOLOGY
1. Bronchopulmonary segments
● A bronchopulmonary segment (BPS) is the anatomical, functional and surgical unit of the
lung.
● It is the largest subdivision of a lobe of the lung.
● It is named according to the segmental bronchus supplying it.
● It is wedge-shaped and is surgically resectable.
● It contains a segmental bronchus, a branch of the bronchial artery and a branch of the
pulmonary artery, which run together through the central part of the segment and is
surrounded by connective tissue.
● The bronchopulmonary segments are :
Right lung Left lung
Applied aspects
● The tributaries of the pulmonary veins are intersegmental and lie at the margins of the
bronchopulmonary segments. They create surgical planes, which a surgeon can follow for
segmental resection with minimal tissue damage.
● In case of foreign body aspiration occurring in erect posture, the aspirated material most
commonly enters the posterior basal (X) BPS of the right lower lobe. In case of aspiration
occurring in supine posture, the aspirate usually enters the apical (VI) BPS of the right
lower lobe or the posterior (II) BPS of the right upper lobe.
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2. Respiratory muscles
Muscles of inspiration
● During quiet inspiration, diaphragm is the major muscle. During deep inspiration, the
accessory muscles like the external intercostal muscles, scalene and sternocleidomastoid
are utilised.
Muscles of expiration
● Expiration is a passive process caused by the elastic recoil of the lungs. Active expiration
occurs during speech, singing, exercise and in pathological conditions. During active
expiration, rectus abdominis, external and internal oblique muscles, transversus
abdominis and internal intercostal muscles are utilised.
Applied aspects
● Abnormal lungs due to pneumonia etc. result in increased airway resistance and
decreased chest and lung compliances. This requires a greater pressure to inflate the lung
to the same volume. This results in the recruitment of the accessory muscles of
respiration. Retractions of the intercostal, subcostal, sternal and supraclavicular muscles
indicate that the underlying lung is diseased. In severe respiratory distress, when the
oxygen supply-demand balance of the respiratory muscles is disturbed, respiratory failure
may ensue because of muscle fatigue.
● Respiratory muscle weakness may be seen in muscle pathology (eg. DMD), NMJ
disorders (eg. myasthenia gravis) and also neuropathy (GBS). This manifests as shallow
breathing and may require mechanical ventilatory support.
● Phrenic nerve (C3 C4 C5) injury leads to elevation and paradoxical movement of the
hemidiaphragm during forceful inspiration.
● Ondine’s curse (congenital central hypoventilation syndrome) is characterised by the
loss of involuntary control of breathing during sleep.
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HPE findings
Congestion
● Vascular engorgement
● Intra-alveolar fluid accumulation
● Bacterial growth in the fluid
● Neutrophilic infiltrate
Red hepatisation
RBCs, fibrin and neutrophils present in the alveolar exudates
Grey hepatisation
RBCs disintegrate, leaving behind a fibrinosuppurative alveolar exudates
Resolution
Alveolar exudates undergo enzymatic degradation into debris
This debris can be either expectorated, or ingested by macrophages, or
organised into fibroblasts
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Empyema is defined as the presence of frank pus or microorganisms in the pleural fluid. If
frank pus or microorganisms are absent in the pleural fluid, then empyema may be diagnosed if
the following features are met :
● Pleural fluid pH <7.2
● Pleural fluid LDH >1000 IU/L
● Pleural fluid glucose <40 mg/dL
Intercostal drainage tube should be inserted in all children diagnosed with empyema.
6. GeneXpert
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Delamanid
● It is a nitroimidazole derivative.
● Mechanism of action
○ Mycolic acid synthesis inhibitor
● ADR
○ QT prolongation
● Indication
○ It is an oral group C drug used in XDR-TB. Duration of treatment with delamanid
is for six months. Other medications are continued for 18-24 months.
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10. Bronchodilators
Beta-2 agonists, anticholinergics methylxanthines are the three main medications in this
category.
Beta-2 agonists
● Types of beta-2 agonists and examples
○ Short acting beta-2 agonists (SABA) - salbutamol, terbutaline
○ Long acting beta-2 agonists (LABA) - formoterol, salmeterol
● Mechanism of action
○ When the beta-2 receptor is activated, the smooth muscle of the airway relaxes
and so the patient experiences better airflow.
● Adverse effects
○ Tremor, tachycardia, palpitations, and muscle cramps.
● Indications
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○ SABA is used as reliever as and when needed in the long term management of
asthma
○ SABA is also used in asthmatic exacerbation
■ Salbutamol is used in acute severe asthma, life threatening asthma and
near fatal asthma - 2.5 mg of salbutamol nebuliser solution is diluted in
3-4 mL normal saline and nebulised through oxygen over 20 minutes and
can be repeated thrice.
■ Terbutaline infusion may be considered in near fatal asthma.
○ LABA is used along with ICS in step 3 (moderate persistent asthma) and step 4
(severe persistent asthma) of long term management of asthma.
Anticholinergics
● Examples
○ Ipratropium, tiotropium
● Mechanism of action
○ Anticholinergics target parasympathetic nervous system receptors (M3) in the
airways and inhibit their function. Since the parasympathetic nervous system is
responsible for increased bronchial secretions and bronchoconstriction, reversing
those should provide bronchodilation and fewer secretions.
● Adverse effects
○ Dry mouth, urinary retention, tachycardia and constipation.
● Indication
○ Ipratropium is used in life threatening asthma and near fatal asthma - 250-500
mcg ipratropium is nebulised through oxygen over 20 minutes and can be
repeated thrice.
Methylxanthines
● Examples
○ Aminophylline, caffeine
● Mechanism of action
○ Methylxanthines act by blockade of adenosine receptors and by inhibition of
phosphodiesterase. This leads to bronchial smooth muscle relaxation.
○ Methylxanthines also increase calcium uptake in diaphragmatic muscles. Hence
they increase the contractility of diaphragm and also reverse the fatigue of
diaphragm.
● Adverse effects
○ Methylxanthines have a narrow therapeutic index with greatest efficacy at serum
drug concentrations of 5 to 15 mcg/mL and when the level exceeds 20 mcg/mL,
adverse effects like tachycardia, palpitations, hypotension, arrhythmias, tremors
and seizures are seen. Hence methylxanthines are to be used with caution.
● Indications
○ Asthmatic exacerbation - aminophylline infusion may be considered in near fatal
asthma.
○ Caffeine is used in NICU for babies with recurrent apnoea.
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Mechanism of action
● Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) have potent glucocorticoid activity and work directly at the
cellular level by reversing capillary permeability and lysosomal stabilisation to reduce
inflammation.
● This mode of administration decreases the dose required for the desired effect as it
bypasses the first-pass metabolism in drugs taken orally. The reduced systemic
bioavailability also minimises side effects.
Mode of administration
● ICS is usually administered through metered-dose inhalers (MDI). Additionally a spacer
may be used, which acts as a reservoir for the aerosol, resulting in greater drug delivery
to the airways and less wastage to the atmosphere.
● Selecting the appropriate inhalation device
○ <4 years : MDI with spacer and face mask
○ 4-12 years : MDI with spacer
○ >12 years : MDI may be used directly
Adverse effects
● Adverse effects include dysphonia, reflex cough and oral candidiasis. It is advisable to
have the patient rinse their mouth out after ICS use to prevent oral candidiasis.
Indication
● It is used in the long term management of asthma.
● Step 1 (intermittent asthma)
○ Symptoms less than twice a month
○ Low dose ICS is taken along with SABA, whenever SABA is taken PRN
● Step 2 (mild persistent asthma)
○ Symptoms more than twice a month
○ Daily low dose ICS
● Step 3 (moderate persistent asthma)
○ Symptoms on most days, or waking with asthma once a week or more
○ Daily low dose ICS plus LABA
● Step 4 (severe persistent asthma)
○ Symptoms on most days, or waking with asthma once a week or more, and
low lung function
○ Daily medium dose ICS plus LABA
● Examples and dose of ICS
○ Budesonide
■ Low dose ICS : 100-200 mcg/day
■ Medium dose ICS : 200-400 mcg/day
○ Fluticasone
■ Low dose ICS : 50-100 mcg/day
■ Medium dose ICS : 100-200 mcg/day
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ENDOCRINOLOGY
Calcium
● Calcium intestinal absorption
○ Calcium absorption occurs predominantly in the upper small intestine.
○ 95% of calcium is absorbed actively and 5% is absorbed passively.
○ The active absorption is transcellular (through the cell) and is controlled by
vitamin D.
○ The passive absorption is paracellular (in between two cells) and it is not
dependent on vitamin D.
○ Calbindin is a vitamin D dependent protein and is responsible for calcium entry
into the cell, along with the TRPV6 channel.
○ When the body needs calcium, vitamin D increases calcium absorption via
calbindin. When the body does not need calcium, vitamin D does not activate
calbindin.
○ Further, PTH is the most important stimulator of 1-alpha hydroxylase which
forms active vitamin D. So, PTH and vitamin D together increase the intestinal
absorption of calcium.
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○ DCT
■ Here the calcium reabsorption occurs by an active transcellular process
mediated by PTH and vitamin D (TRPV5 and calbindin)
So, PTH and vitamin D together increase the renal reabsorption of calcium.
Phosphorus
● Phosphorus intestinal absorption
○ Phosphorus absorption occurs predominantly in the upper small intestine. 80% is
absorbed actively and 20% is absorbed passively.
○ The active absorption is transcellular and is controlled by vitamin D (TRPV6 and
calbindin). The passive absorption is paracellular and it is not dependent on
vitamin D.
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Applied aspects
● Rickets
● Phosphorus has the ability to convert a normal endothelial cell into an osteoblast. These
osteoblasts trap calcium and lead to irreversible tunica media calcification inside the
blood vessels. This is the reason why medial calcification occurs in CKD patients with
hyperphosphatemia. Hence CKD patients are advised dietary phosphate restriction and
phosphate binders.
● Proximal RTA can be differentiated from distal RTA based on fractional excretion of
phosphorus. It will be normal in distal RTA and increased in proximal RTA, as 100% of
phosphorus reabsorption occurs at PCT. Further, proximal RTA will have more severe
rickets than distal RTA, due to heavy loss of phosphorus in urine.
● Primary hyperparathyroidism (eg. due to parathyroid adenoma) manifests with high
calcium and low phosphorus levels.
● Hypoparathyroidism (eg. due to DiGeorge syndrome) manifests with hypocalcemia.
● Bartter syndrome type 5 is seen due to gain of function mutation of CaSR and
manifests with hypocalcemia and hypercalciuria. Familial hypercalcemic hypocalciuria
(FHH) is seen due to loss of function mutation of CaSR and manifests with
hypercalcemia and hypocalciuria.
2. Development of thyroid
Thyroid diverticulum
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Descends caudally into the neck passing ventral to hyoid and laryngeal cartilages
Thyroglossal duct is later obliterated and the site of the duct is marked by foramen cecum
Parafollicular C-cells of thyroid are derived from the neural crest cells via the ultimobranchial
body in the fourth pharyngeal pouch, and then these C-cells migrate into thyroid (secrete
calcitonin)
Plasma iodide
Transport across the basolateral membrane uses NIS (sodium iodide symporter).
NIS is blocked by thiocyanates and perchlorates.
Transport across the apical membrane uses pendrin, which is also present in the
inner ear. Pendred syndrome due to a defect in pendrin manifests with goitre and
SNHL.
Iodide is converted to iodine by the enzyme TPO (thyroid peroxidase). TPO is blocked by
methimazole, carbimazole and propylthiouracil. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is characterised by
anti-TPO antibodies.
MCT8 is a membrane protein which is responsible for the efflux and uptake of thyroid
hormones. In the thyroid gland, it transports thyroid hormones across the basolateral
membrane (efflux) into the circulation. In the brain, MCT8 is responsible for the entry of
thyroid hormones (uptake) into the brain cells. Defective MCT8 in the brain impairs
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thyroid hormone entry into the brain cells and hence produces a condition which presents
similar to congenital hypothyroidism with hypotonia and severe developmental delay.
But the distinguishing feature is that fT3 level is elevated in this condition (fT3 cannot
enter the cell) whereas in congenital hypothyroidism, fT3 is low. The name of this
condition is Allan Herndon Dudley syndrome.
Iodide at high doses transiently inhibits the synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones
(Wolff Chaikoff effect) and this principle is used in thyrotoxic crisis.
Peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
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● Fourth generation chemiluminescence immunoassays are used for measuring TSH and
thyroid hormones.
● TFT reference range in adults
○ TSH 0.5 - 5 milliIU/L
○ fT4 12 - 20 pmol/L
○ fT3 2 - 5 pmol/L
● It is recommended to use age-appropriate reference ranges while interpreting TFT in
children.
Applied aspects
1. Approach to hypothyroidism
● Scenario I : High TSH and low fT4 (Primary hypothyroidism)
Thyroid autoantibodies
Positive Negative
Confirm with
perchlorate discharge test
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2. Approach to hyperthyroidism
Thyroid autoantibodies
Present in Absent in
Either cord blood or 72 hour postnatal sample can be used to check TSH levels
40-80 >80
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● Adrenal gland
○ Cortex – develops from intermediate mesoderm
○ Medulla – develops from neural crest cells
● Development of adrenal cortex
Intermediate mesoderm
A. Adrenal cortex
1. Mineralocorticoids
● Aldosterone acts at the principal cell of the cortical collecting duct and enhances the
reabsorption of sodium and water as well as the excretion of potassium and acid.
○ The RAAS axis is activated by renal hypoperfusion due to intravascular volume
depletion and this leads to increased aldosterone activity causing return of BP to
normalcy and also metabolic alkalosis along with hypokalemia. This is known as
secondary hyperaldosteronism (secondary to RAAS activation). Secondary
hyperaldosteronism due to hypovolemia is the cause of hypokalemia and
metabolic alkalosis in Bartter syndrome and Gitelman syndrome.
○ Primary hyperaldosteronism is caused due to excess aldosterone production by the
adrenal cortex occurring independently of the RAAS axis eg. adrenocortical
adenoma. Primary hyperaldosteronism leads to hypertension, metabolic alkalosis
and hypokalemia.
○ Hypoaldosteronism causes type 4 RTA with metabolic acidosis and hyperkalemia
eg. salt wasting CAH.
2. Glucocorticoids
a. Effect on glucose metabolism - Cortisol stimulates gluconeogenesis. Hence,
hypercortisolism (eg. Cushing syndrome) produces impaired glucose tolerance.
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B. Adrenal medulla
It secretes the catecholamines (adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine), which increase the
basal metabolic rate, increase the rate and force of cardiac contraction and also stimulate
gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and ketogenesis. It plays a major role during the fight or flight events.
Excess adrenal medulla activity is noticed in conditions like pheochromocytoma and
neuroblastoma.
7. Puberty
● Defined as
○ attainment of fertility
○ associated with maturation of gonads
○ and appearance of primary and secondary sexual characteristics
● Normal age of puberty
○ Girls 8 – 14 years
○ Boys 9 – 15 years
Initiation of puberty
Increase in pulsatile release of GnRH
Nocturnal LH pulses
Puberty
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Name Onset of action (min) Peak action in (hr) Duration of action (hr)
Lispro 10 1 4
Regular insulin 20 2 8
NPH 60 4 12
Glargine 60 Peakless action 24
Degludec 60 Peakless action 48
Applied aspects
● Basal bolus regimen is now considered as the standard of care. The twice daily split-mix
regimen offered inadequate glycemic control and hence is no longer recommended.
● Insulin can either be administered as multiple daily injections or by continuous
subcutaneous insulin infusion (insulin pump). The pump is programmed to deliver insulin
at a slow continuous basal rate with pre-meal boluses. Latest models have sensors with
CGMS (continuous glucose monitoring system) so that the pump can automatically
decrease the rate of insulin infusion when blood glucose levels are dropping and increase
it when the glucose levels begin to rise.
● The usual starting dose in T1DM is 1 U/kg/day with half of this dose given as long acting
insulin eg. glargine (basal) and the rest divided into pre-meal boluses.
For example, a 20 kg child may require 10 U glargine at bedtime along with 3 U lispro
thrice a day with meals
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CRITICAL CARE
1. Inotropes
Inotropes are medications used to increase cardiac contractility in patients with shock.
A. Dopamine
Mechanism
● At low doses (2-5 mcg/kg/min), it acts on dopaminergic receptors and increases
the renal blood flow.
● At moderate doses (5-10 mcg/kg/min), it acts on beta-1 receptors and enhances
inotropy and chronotropy, thereby increasing the cardiac output.
● At high doses (>10 mcg/kg/min), it acts on alpha receptors and causes systemic
vasoconstriction.
The typical indication of dopamine is fluid refractory septic shock.
The usual starting dose is 5-10 mcg/kg/min.
B. Dobutamine
Mechanism
● It acts on beta-1 and beta-2 receptors.
○ By acting on beta-1 receptors, it enhances inotropy and chronotropy,
thereby increasing the cardiac output.
○ By acting on beta-2 receptors, it causes systemic vasodilation, thereby
decreasing the afterload.
The typical indication for dobutamine is normotensive cardiogenic shock due to a primary
myocardial pathology eg. myocarditis or congenital heart disease.
The usual starting dose is 5-10 mcg/kg/min.
C. Adrenaline
Mechanism
● At low doses (0.05-0.3 mcg/kg/min), it acts on beta-1 and beta-2 receptors and
causes enhanced inotropy and chronotropy and also vasodilation.
● At high doses (>0.5 mcg/kg/min), there is a predominant alpha receptor mediated
systemic vasoconstriction. This leads to an increase in SBP, DBP and MAP.
Although the heart rate increases, the cardiac output falls due to increased
afterload contributed by systemic vasoconstriction.
Fluid refractory dopamine refractory cold septic shock is a typical indication for adrenaline.
The usual starting dose is 0.1-0.3 mcg/kg/min.
D. Noradrenaline
Mechanism
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E. Milrinone
Mechanism
● Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor and it increases the cytosolic cAMP
levels by inhibiting its breakdown.
● Milrinone causes enhanced inotropy and lusitropy (improved diastolic relaxation).
It also causes vasodilation of both arteries and veins, resulting in decreased
preload and afterload.
● Potent vasodilation can result in hypotension and hence it is to be used with
caution in patients with borderline low BP.
Catecholamine refractory cold shock (with normal BP) is a typical indication for milrinone.
A loading dose of 50 mcg/kg is given over 60 minutes, followed by a maintenance infusion rate
of 0.5 mcg/kg/min usually.
2. Paracetamol toxicity
Toxic dose
> 100 mg/kg/day
Mechanism
● Accumulation of toxic metabolite N-acetyl benzo quinone imine (NABQI)
● Depletion of glutathione
Clinical features
Stage I – nonspecific symptoms; LFT normal
Stage II – Clinical features similar to hepatitis; LFT and PT/INR begin to rise
Stage III – Fulminant hepatic failure
Stage IV – Recovery
Management
● If the patient is seen after 4 hours after ingestion, we can estimate paracetamol levels and
prognosticate using Rumack Matthews nomogram.
○ <100 mcg/mL - no toxicity
○ 100-200 mcg/mL - possible liver injury
○ >200 mcg/mL - definite liver injury
● Can use activated charcoal upto 4 hours of ingestion
● NAC 150 mg/kg over 1 hr, then 50 mg/kg over 4 hrs and finally 100 mg/kg over 16 hrs
● King’s college criteria for liver transplant (rule of 3) : pH after resuscitation <7.3 (or)
All 3 present : Creatinine >3.3, Encephalopathy stage >3, PT in 3 digits (>100)
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4. Methemoglobinemia
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5. Oxygenation index
● The oxygenation index (OI) is used as a marker of severity of hypoxemic respiratory
failure in children.
● The equation for OI is :
OI = mean airway pressure (MAP) x FiO2 x 100 ÷ PaO2
● Oxygen saturation index (OSI) is a noninvasive measurement and has been shown to be a
reliable surrogate marker of OI.
● The equation for OSI is :
OSI = MAP x FiO2 x 100 ÷ SpO2
● MAP values will be calculated by the ventilator and will be available on the ventilator
screen.
● The formula for MAP is :
For volume control ventilation,
MAP = 0.5 x (PIP - PEEP) x (Ti/Ttot) + PEEP
Ti : inspiratory time
Applied aspects
1. ARDS severity is graded by using OI and OSI
Category OI OSI
Mild ARDS 4-8 5-7.5
Moderate ARDS 8-16 7.5-12.3
Severe ARDS >16 > 12.3
2. OI >40 is an indication for starting ECMO in children with ARDS
3. Postductal OI >25 is one of the criteria to be satisfied prior to initiating INO in a baby with
PPHN and hypoxemic respiratory failure
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6. ICP monitoring
● The normal intracranial pressure (ICP) is 5-15 mm Hg.
● ICP monitoring can be done by invasive and non-invasive methods.
A. Invasive method of ICP monitoring
● It is the most accurate way to measure ICP.
● Additionally, invasive ICP monitoring via an external ventricular drain provides a
therapeutic option to drain the CSF and hence reduce ICP, if required, in case of
high pressures during monitoring.
● Indications of invasive monitoring
○ Although invasive ICP monitoring is most commonly used in the
management of severe traumatic head injury, it may also be used
occasionally in hydrocephalus or conditions at high risk of developing
hydrocephalus (eg. subarachnoid haemorrhage)
● Contraindications
○ Bleeding disorders
○ Scalp infection
○ Brain abscess
● Procedure
○ An incision is made at Kocher’s point and a burr hole is made
○ The dura is opened and a catheter is inserted into the anterior horn of the
lateral ventricle. CSF will appear in the catheter
○ Confirm drain placement after suturing with CT
○ Attach the catheter to a transducer to measure the pressure transmitted
from CSF in the ventricles
● ICP monitoring waveforms (depicted in image A)
○ Percussion wave (P1) - represents arterial pulsation
○ Tidal wave (P2) - represents brain compliance
○ Dicrotic wave (P3) - represents aortic valve closure
○ Normally the height order of the waves is P1 > P2 > P3
○ With decreasing brain compliance, the following changes are noticed
■ Waveform amplitude will increase
■ Rising P2 above P1 and P3
■ Appearance of Lundberg A waves - Lundberg A waves signify a
sustained increase in ICP for 5 to 10 minutes. They reflect reduced
cerebral compliance and impending herniation
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