(Answer) WBCS (Prelims) Mock Test-15

WBCS 2023 (Preliminary) Examination
Offline Mock Test-15
: English Grammar:
Q.1) In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate
word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate
option.
His father _____ him up in a construction business.
A. built
B. hold
C. keep
D. set
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: ‗Set someone up‘ means to establish someone in a particular capacity or role. The word
fits appropriately as the sentence means that his father established him in a construction business,
which the other words do not.
Q.2) In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate
word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate
option.
I have _____ respect for his achievement.
A. abundant
B. profound
C. strong
D. unique
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: ‗Profound‘ means very great or intense and is used to describe emotions. The other
words, although having similar meaning, do not define emotions such as respect. Hence, ‗profound‘ is
the correct word.
Q.3) In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to
the word given.
Boast
A. Avoid
B. Change
C. Rely
D. Pride
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Boast means to talk with excessive pride and self-satisfaction. Therefore, ‗pride‘ has a
similar meaning and is the correct answer. Avoid means to keep away from, change means to become
different and rely means to depend on.
Q.4) In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to
the word given.
Haste
A. Burden
B. Expect
C. Hurry
D. Sight
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Haste means excessive speed or hurry. Therefore, ‗hurry‘ has a similar meaning and is
the correct answer. Burden means a heavy load, expect means regard something to happen and sight
means the power of seeing.
Q.5) In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning
to the word given.
Refulgent
A. Dark
B. Loud
C. Rough
D. Sweet
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: ‗Refulgent‘ means shining very brightly. On the other hand, dark is the opposite of
bright. Therefore, it is the correct answer. Loud means noisy, rough means not smooth and sweet
means sugary.
to the word given.
Skeptic
A. Believer
B. Erroneous
C. Nervous
D. Nihilist
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Skeptic means a person inclined to question opinions. On the other hand, believer is a
person who believes in the truth of something. Therefore, it is the correct answer. Erroneous means
incorrect, nervous means anxious and nihilist means a person who believes that life is meaningless.
Q.7) In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best
expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Herculean task
A. Important task
B. Motivating
C. Optional to do
D. Very difficult task
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: ‗Herculean task‘ means requiring some great strength or a very hard to perform task.
An example sentence is: ‗She faced the Herculean task of raising her children single-handedly‘.
On tenterhooks
A. Flattery
B. In a disorganized manner
C. In anxious suspense
D. Speak quickly
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'On tenterhooks' is 'to mean being in a state of tension, uneasiness, anxiety, or suspense,
i.e. figuratively stretched like the cloth on the tenter'.
Q.9) Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

Neha (would be looked) beautiful in Indian attire.
A. had looking
B. was looked
C. would look
D. No imporvement
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: would look
‗Would look‘ indicates a future possibility of something happening, which fits the context of the
sentence of ‗looking beautiful‘. The other options make the sentence grammatically incorrect.
Q.10) Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

(People have been long known) how important the trees are to them.
A. People have to know long
B. People had long known
C. People have long known
D. No improvement
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: People have long known
‗have long known‘ is the present perfect form of the verb. It is correct as it signifies a time earlier than
now, when people knew how important trees were.
Q.11) In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the
best substitute of the phrase.
An associate in crime
A. Accomplice
B. Callous
C. Itinerant
D. Philistine
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is Option A)
Explanation:
 An accomplice is a person who helps another commit a crime.
 Callous means cold and cruel,
 Itinerant means travelling from place to place
 Philistine means materialist.
Thus, the correct answer is Accomplice
best substitute of the phrase.
Man behaving more like a woman than as a man
A. Biped
B. Effeminate
C. Gregarious
D. Inalienable
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Effeminate
‗Effeminate‘ means a man having characteristics as typical of a woman. Hence, it is the correct one-
word substitute. Biped means an animal that walks on two legs, gregarious means fond of company
and inalienable means non-transferable.
Q.13) In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly
spelt. Select the incorrectly spelt word.
A. Ecstasy
B. Profecient
C. Sacrifice
D. Temporary
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Profecient
‗Profecient‘ is the incorrectly spelt word. The correct spelling is ‗proficient‘, meaning adept.
Q.14) In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the
four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in
Passive/Active voice.
Sunita has written a story which fascinates everyone.
A. A story which has been written by Sunita fascinates every one.
B. Everyone is fascinated by the story which has been written by Sunita.
C. Every one fascinates the story which is written by Sunita.
D. Story written by Sunita fascinates everyone.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A story which has been written by Sunita fascinates everyone.
Only Sentence A follows the rules of Active to Passive voice conversion and is therefore, the correct
answer.
Q.15) In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the
Indirect/Direct speech.
Rajesh ordered his driver to do as he was told.
A. Rajesh ordered his driver ―Do as you are told‖.
B. Rajesh says to his driver ―Do as I told you‖.
C. Rajesh said to his driver, ―Do as you are told.‖
D. Rajesh says to his driver ―Do as you were told‖.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Rajesh said to his driver ―Do as you are told‖.
Sentence 3 changes ‗he‘ to ‗you‘ and ‗was‘ to ‗are‘, on converting from Indirect to Direct speech. The
other sentences do not follow the tense conversion and are incorrect therefore.
Q.16) In the following question, the sentence is given with blank to be filled in with an
appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the
appropriate option.
It took several men to ________ the fallen tree out of our yard.
A. erect
B. establish
C. haul
D. rivet
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is haul.
 Haul means to pull or drag something with effort. It fits the blank appropriately as the several
men had to drag the fallen tree out of the yard with a lot of effort. Hence, ‗haul‘ is the correct
option.
 rect: rigidly upright or straightEstablish: set up on a firm or permanent basisRivet: hold
(someone or something) fast so as to make them incapable of movement
Q.17) In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning
to the word given.
Whine
A. Gratification
B. Luxury
C. Thrill
D. Gripe
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Whine means to make a long, high-pitched complaining cry or sound. Gripe means to
complain about something in a persistent and irritating manner. Hence, the two words have similar
meanings. Gratification means pleasure gained from something, luxury means a state of comfort and
elegance and thrill means a sudden feeling of excitement or pleasure.
Q.18) In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning
to the word given.
Requisite
A. Peripheral
B. Deadwood
C. Trivial
D. Precondition
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Requisite means a thing that is necessary for completion of some other thing.
Precondition means a condition that must be fulfilled before other things can happen. Hence, the two
words have similar meanings. Peripheral means situated on the edge of something, deadwood means
people or things that are no longer useful and trivial means something of little value or importance.
to the word given.
Dominate
A. Surrender
B. Prevail
C. Dictate
D. Command
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Dominate means to have a commanding position. On the other hand, surrender means
to stop resisting and submit to authority. Thus, the two words have opposite meanings. Prevail means
to prove superior, dictate means state authoritatively and command means to give an authoritative
order.
to the word given.
Squander
A. Frivol
B. Dissipate
C. Hoard
D. Expend
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Squander means to waste resources like money or time in a reckless and foolish
manner. On the other hand, hoard means to accumulate resources and hide or store away for later use.
Thus, the two words have opposite meanings. Frivol means to behave carefree and superficial,
dissipate means to disappear and expend means to spend or use up something.
Go for a song
A. One's favourite music
B. Happy-go-lucky attitude
C. Sold cheaply
D. Something which is prohibitively expensive
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is Sold cheaply.
o The phrase ‗Go for a song‘ means to be sold for an unexpectedly low price
o An example sentence is: Things at a yard sale generally go for a song.
Hence, option C is the closest in meaning and is the correct answer.
Make an ass out of
A. Cause someone or oneself to look foolish or stupid
B. Work very hard like a donkey
C. Be smart but act dumb
D. Make a mistake
Correct Answer: A
Cause someone or oneself to look foolish or stupid.
Explanation:
 The phrase ‗make an ass out of‘ means to do something that makes someone or oneself
seem stupid or ridiculous.
 Hence, Option A is the closest in meaning and is the correct answer.
 An example sentence is: ‗Despite his best effort, he managed to make an ass out of himself
yet again‘.
best substitute of the words/sentence.
Full of twists and turns
A. Tortuous
B. Smooth
C. Cinch
D. Facile
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is Option A)
Explanation:
 Tortuous means full of twists and turns.
 Smooth means having a regular or even surface
 Cinch means an extremely easy task
 Facile means performing without effort.
Thus, the correct answer is Tortuous
best substitute of the words/sentence.
The practice of magic
A. Palpable
B. Witchery
C. Substantial
D. Corporeal
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is Option B)
 Witchery stands for the practice of magic.
 Palpable means almost tangible.
 Substantial means something of considerable importance or size.
 Corporeal means relating to the human body.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B)
Q.25) In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the
Passive/Active voice.
The class is required to watch a video tutorial every day.
A. A video tutorial is required to be watched by the class everyday.
B. A video tutorial is watched by the class every day.
C. Every day the class watches a required video tutorial.
D. Every day the class is watching a required video tutorial.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Sentence B changes the meaning as it removes the ‗is required‘ aspect, Sentence C also
changes the meaning as it implies that the required video tutorial is indeed watched every day, which
is not what the original sentence suggests and Sentence 4 uses the continuous tense which is
grammatically incorrect. Only Sentence 1 keeps the meaning intact along with the tense and is the
correct option.
: Indian History:
Q.26) Which among the following Harappan site has been divided into three parts?
[A] Dholavira
[B] Surkotda
[C] Daimabad
[D] Mohenjodaro
Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Dholavira located at the Khadirbet in Bhachau Taluka of Kutch District, Gujarat. The
archaeological finding at Dholavira are a) A unique water harnessing system and its storm water
drainage system. B) A large well & a bath (giant water reservoirs). C) Only site to be divided into 3
parts. D) Largest Harappan inscription used for civic purpose. E) A stadium.
Q.27) Which of the following Rigvedic deities represented Storm?

[A] Indra
[B] Maruts
[C] Varun
[D] Apas
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Aryans, The Vedic Age – Religion : They personified force of nature and worshipped
them as Vayu (air), Maruts (storm), Indra (rain), Varuna (water), Surya (sun), Agni (fire), Prithvi
(earth), Aranyani (forest) etc.
Q.28) Who among the following rulers of Gupta dynasty started Gupta Era?
[A] Vishnugupta
[B] Chandragupta I
[C] Skandgupta
[D] Samudragupta
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: The Gupta Era was started by Chandragupta I in 319-320 AD. He was the real founder
of the Gupta dynasty and was known as Maharajadhiraja (king of kings).
Q.29) Which among the following was the last ruler of Gupta empire?
[A] Vishnugupta
[B] Chandragupta II
[C] Buddhagupta
[D] Kumaragupta II
Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Vishnugupta was the last ruler of the Gupta empire. His reign lasted 10 years, from 540
to 550 CE
Q.30) At which Indus Valley Site, the beared man in steatite image has been found?
[A] Harappa
[B] Mohenjodaro
[C] Lothal
[D] Kalibanga
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: In the Indus Valley Civilization, a beared man in steatite image has been found
Mohenjodaro
Q.31) During whose reign was the Fourth Buddhist Council held?
[A] Ashoka
[B] Kalasoka
[C] Ajatsatru
[D] Kanishka
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: The Fourth Buddhist Council was held at Kundalvana, Kashmir in 72 AD during the
reign of Kushan king Kanishka. It was held under the Presidentship of Vasumitra to compose
commentaries on the Tripitika.
Q.32) Mathura, the famous city was the capital of which ancient Mahajanapada?
[A] Panchal
[B] Kasi
[C] Kuru
[D] Sursena
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Sursena Mathura, the famous city was the capital of Sursena Mahajanpada
Q.33) Saptanga‗ Theory which deals with the 7 limbs (sapta anga) of ancient political structure
was propounded by ?
[A] Manu
[B] Kautily
[C] Panini
[D] Bhaskara
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Saptanga theory of state was given by Kautilya in Arthashashtra. The seven limbs are
King, Amatya (Bureaucrats) , Janapada (territory), Durga (Fort), Kosa (Treasure), Danda (coercive
authority) and Mitra (ally).
Q.34) Who was the earliest known Chola King who conquered Sri Lanka and ruled it ?
[A] Karikala
[B] Elara
[C] Udiyangera
[D] Nedunjelian
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Elara was the earliest known Chola King and conquered Srilanka and ruled over it for
50 years .
Q.35) Which of the following is the equivalent term used for Raja in early vedic era?
[A] Gopati
[B] Gomat
[C] Gopa
[D] Gomitra
Correct Answer:A
Explanation: In the Early Vedic age, ‗Raja‗ was known as Gopati.
Q.36) Who of the following was the first women ruler of medieval India?
[A] Raziya Sultan
[B] Chand Bibi
[C] Durgavati
[D] Nur Jahan
Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Iltutmish nominated his daughter Raziya Sultan to the throne. However, the nobles
(Chahalgani) opposed. She had to content against her brothers too. She was the first woman ruler of
Sultanate (medieval period).
Q.37) Devichandraguptam was a work of ?

[A] Vishakhadatta
[B] Dandin
[C] Bharavi
[D] Kalidas
Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Vishakhadatta was an Indian Sanskrit playwright and poet. He is famously known for
his two plays Devichandraguptam and Mudrarakshasa.
Q.38) Who was the first Tirthankara in Jainism?

[A] Rishabhdev
[B] Parsavanath
[C] Mahavira
[D] Munisuvrata
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Lord Rishabhdev was the first Tirthankara of Jainism. He was born at Ayodhya in the
Ikshwaku Kula or clan. In Hinduism he is known to be an avatara or incarnation of Vishnu. The name
of Rishabh‗s parents has been mentioned in the Bhagvata Purana.
Q.39) Military system in reign of Akbar was based on –

[A] Mansabdari
[B] Zamindari
[C] Feudalistic
[D] Ain-i-dahsala
Correct Answer:A
Explanation: The Mansabdar was a military unit within the administrative system of the Mughal
Empire introduced by Akbar. The word mansab meant rank or position. In this system, nobles were
granted the rights to hold a jagir, which meant revenue assignment for services rendered by them but
the authority bestowed upon them was not unbridled but with the direct control of these nobles in the
hands of the king.
Q.40) The Subsidiary Alliance was not accepted by

[A] The Nizam of Hyderabad
[B] The Holkar state of Indore
[C] The Rajput state of Jodhpur
[D] The Ruler of Mysore
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Nizam of Hyderabad and the Ruler of Mysore. ... This system was first imposed on the
ruler of Hyderabad's Nizam, But several rulers refused to accept this system. Complete answer: The
Subsidiary Alliance was not accepted by the Holkar state of Indore.
Q.41) At the time when empires in Europe were crumbling before the might of Napoleon, which
one of the following Governors-General kept the British flag flying high in India?
[A] Lord Dalhousie
[B] Lord Cornwallis
[C] Lord Wellesley
[D] Lord Hastings
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Detailed Solution. Lord Wellesley (as Governor General) came to India in 1798 at a
time when the British were locked in a life and death struggle with France all over the world
Q.42) Who among the following was appointed as the first Viceroy of British India?
[A] Lord Canning
[B] Lord Wavell
[C] Lord Irwin
[D] Lord Mayo
Correct Answer:A
Explanation: First Viceroy of British India is Lord Canning Last Viceroy of British India is Lord
Mountbatten. First governor of Bengal in British India was Lord William Bentick. First governor
general of India was Warren Hasting.
Q.43) Which of the following statement is/are correct?

[A] Censorship of Press Act, 1799 was introduced by Lord Wellesley.
[B] Licensing regulation, 1823 was introduced by John Adams
[C] Press Act of 1835 by Metcalfe
[D] All the above
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: The correct match is given below: Censorship of Press Act, 1799- Lord Wellesley
Licensing Regulations, 1823- John Adams Press Act of 1835- Metcalfe James Augustus Hickey-
Calcutta General Advertise
Q.44) Under Shivaji's rule, the head of a unit of 25 in the Cavalry was known as
[A] Jumadar
[B] Havaldar
[C] Faujdar
[D] Hazari
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: One unit in the cavalry was formed of 25 troopers; over them was placed a havaldar,
and five havaldars formed one jumla under a jumladar. Ten jumladars made a hazari charge, and five
hazaris were placed under a panjhazari, who was given a salary of 2000 huns.
Q.45) Which Sultan of Delhi is said to have followed the policy of blood and iron?
[A] Iltutmish
[B] Jalaluddin Firuz Khalji
[C] Balban
[D] Firoz Shah Tughlaq
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Blood and Iron policy was used by Balban. This policy emphasised on being ruthless to
the enemies, use of sword, harshness, strictness and shedding blood. He used this policy to rise to high
post, betrayed Raziya and engineered revolts against her.
Q.46) Who introduced Subsidiary Alliance System in the administration to establish the British
power over the Indian States? [A] warren Hastings
[B] Lord Wellesley
[C] Lord Cornwallis
[D] Lord Dalhousie
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: The doctrine of subsidiary alliance was introduced by Lord Wellesley who was the
Governor General of India from 1798 to 1805. Early in his governorship Wellesley adopted a policy
of non–intervention in the princely states, but he later adopted the policy of forming subsidiary
alliances.
Q.47) Mangal Pandey was hanged in 1857 for attacking the British officers in:
[A] Allahabad
[B] Benaras
[C] Calcutta
[D] Barrackpore
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Mangal Pandey was hanged in 1857 for attacking the British officers in Barrackpore.
The primary reason behind Mangal Pandey's behavior was because of a new type of bullet cartridge
used in the Enfield P-53 rifle.
Q.48) The main aim of East India Company to make subsidiary alliance in Rajput gates was
[A] Receiving military support against enemies
[B] Protecting these states from Maratha-Pindari invasion
[C] To receive funds in the form of Khiraj
[D] To establish the sovereignty of the British
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: The main aim of East India Company to make subsidiary alliance in Rajput gates was
to establish the sovereignty of the British.
Q.49) Who gave the slogan "Do or Die" to the nation ?

[A] V D savarkar
[B] Mahatma Gandhi
[C] Bala gangadhara tilak
[D] Subhash chandra bose
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: On August 8, 1942 - exactly 75 years ago to the day - Mahatma Gandhi told a crowd
at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay, "Let every Indian consider himself to be a free man."
Q.50) Who were the first Europeans, brought a printing press to India?
[A] French
[B] Dutch
[C] Briten
[D] Portuguese
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: The Portuguese were the first Europeans, who brought a printing press to India. Hence,
D is the correct option.
: Indian National Movement:
Q.51) Which of the following Governor Generals was called ―Liberator of India Press?
[A] Lord William Bentinck
[B] Sir Charles Metcalfe
[C] Lord Auckland
[D] Lord Ellenborough
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Sir Charles Metcalfe (1835-36) is known to have given full liberty to the press and thus
was known so. He had though a short tenure which ended quickly due to politics at home.
Q.52) Which among the following Congress sessions was known for concession of separate
electorates for the Muslims by the Congress Party?
[A] 1913 Karachi Session
[B] 1915 Bombay Session
[C] 1916 Lucknow Session
[D] 1917 Calcutta Session
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Lucknow Session 1916 {presided by Ambica Charan Majumdar) was known for
concession of separate electorates for the Muslims by the Congress Party.
Q.53) Who is regarded as ―Maker of Modern India?

[A] M. G. Ranade
[B] Mahatma Gandhi
[C] Keshav Chandra Sen
[D] Ram Mohan Roy
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:Raja Rammohan Roy has come to be called the ‗Maker of Modern India‗. He was the
main force behind introduction of the western education and English language in India. He advocated
the study of English, Science, Western Medicine and Technology. He spent his money on a college to
promote these studies. He was the founder of the Brahmo Samaj and a great leader of social reform. It
was as a result of his persistent campaign that the custom of Sati was declared illegal in Bengal in
1829 A.D. By Lord William Bentick. He was the chief advocate of the modern process of education
and the scientific learning.
Q.54) At which of the following places was the first ever European township constructed in
India?
[A] Kochi
[B] Chinsurah
[C] Surat
[D] Chennai
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Fort Kochi in Ernakulam district of Kerala is the first European township in India. It is
a water-bound region toward the south-west of the mainland Kochi.
Q.55) The Cartaz system with reference to naval trade was used by which of the following?
[A] Dutch
[B] French
[C] English
[D] Portuguese
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Cartaz system referred to a naval trade license or pass issued by the Portuguese in
Indian ocean during the sixteenth century. A similar system used by British was navicert system in
20th century.
Q.56) Which of the following kingdoms granted the ―Golden Farman‖ to Holland to trade
freely in the state?
[A] Hyderabad
[B] Mumbai
[C] Golkunda
[D] Ahmednagar
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In 1632, the English obtained the Golden Farman with the right to trade in the kingdom
of Golkunda for a fixed duty of 500 PAGODAS a year.
Q.57) Which of the following cities was capital of Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
[A] Amritsar
[B] Patiala
[C] Lahore
[D] Kapurthala
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Maharaja Ranjit Singh (called ―The Lion of the Punjab‖) (1780-1839) was a Sikh ruler
of the Punjab. His tomb is located in Lahore, Pakistan. He is remembered for uniting the Punjab as a
strong state and his possession of the Koh-i-noor diamond. He took the title of Maharaja on April 12,
1801 (to coincide with Baisakhi day), with Lahore having served as his capital from 1799.
Q.58) Who inspired the young Bengal Movement in the 19th century ?
[A] Ram Tanu Lahiri
[B] Henry Vivian Dorozev
[C] Rasik Kumar Malik
[D] Piyare Chand Mitra
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Henry Louis Vivian Derozio (1809 –1831) was assistant headmaster of Hindu College,
Kolkata, a radical thinker and one of the first Indian educators to disseminate Western learning and
science among the young men of Bengal. He constantly encouraged them to think freely, to question
and not to accept anything blindly. His teachings inspired the development of the spirit of liberty,
equality and freedom. His activities brought about intellectual revolution in Bengal. It was called the
Young Bengal Movement and his students, also known as Derozians, were fiery patriots.
Q.59) The Battle of Buxar was fought between British East India Company and:
[A] Mir Qasim
[B] Saadat Ali Khan II
[C] Ali Vardi Khan
[D] Siraj ud-Daulah
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Battle of Buxar was fought on 22 October 1764 between the forces under the
command of the British East India Company led by Hector Munro and the combined armies of Mir
Qasim, the Nawab of Bengal; the Nawab of Awadh; and the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II.
Q.60) Which Viceroy passed the Vernacular Press Act and the Arms Act of 1878?
[A] Lord Lytton
[B] Lord Mayo
[C] Lord Dalhousie
[D] Lord Hardinge
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Lord Lytton served as Viceroy of India between 1876 and 1880. He has been criticised
for his handling of the Great Famine of 1876–78 and the Second Anglo-Afghan War. He passed the
Vernacular Press Act and the Arms Act of 1878.
Q.61) The Treaty of Seringapatam is associated with which of the following wars?
[A] Second Anglo-Maratha War
[B] Third Anglo-Mysore War
[C] Third Anglo-Maratha War
[D] Fourth Anglo–Mysore War
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Treaty of Seringapatam was signed on 18 March 1792 at the end of the Third
Anglo-Mysore War. Its signatories included Lord Cornwallis on behalf of the British East India
Company, representatives of the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Maratha Empire, and Tipu Sultan, the
ruler of Mysore.
Q.62) Lord Ripon appointed Hunter commission for:

[A] combating terrorism and other anti-national activities
[B] educational reforms in India
[C] appointment of Indian Judges in higher judiciary
[D] None of the Above Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Lord Ripon appointed the Education Commission on February 3, 1882 under the
Chairmanship of Sir William Hunter, a member of the Executive Council of Viceroy. The
commission recommended changes to be brought in primary and secondary education in India for
educational reform in country.
Q.63) Which of the following is NOT a correct statement with respect to Surendranath
Banerjee?
[A] He was co-founder of Indian National Association
[B] He was founder of Ripon College in Kolkata
[C] He is known to have evolved National Consciousness as a formal concept
[D] He co-founded Sadharan Brahmo Samaj with Anandmohan Bose
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The fourth statement is not correct. Banarejee had co-founded Indian National
Association with Anandmohan Bose but was not related to Sadharan Brahmo Samaj which was
created by Bose along with Shibnath Shastri, Sib Chandra Deb, Umesh Chandra Dutta etc.
Q.64) Which of the following is also known as Magna Carta of Indian Education?
[A] Wood‗s Despatch
[B] Sadler Commission
[C] Indian Universities Act 1904
[D] Raleigh commission
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Sir Charles Wood was the President of the Board of Control of the English East India
Company. He had an important effect on spreading education in India when in 1854 he sent a
despatch to Lord Dalhousie, the then Governor-General of India. He suggested that Primary Schools
Must Adopt vernacular languages, High school must adopt Anglo Vernacular Language and on
College Level English medium for education. This is known as Wood‗s despatch.
Q.65). During Freedom Struggle, Rabindranath Tagore renounced his Knighthood in protest
for?
[A] Partition of Bengal
[B] Jallianwalla Bagh Massacre
[C] Execution of Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev
[D] None of them
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Rabindranath Tagore had renounced his knighthood against the Jallianwalla Bagh
Massacre. He had written to Lord Chelmsford regarding this.
Q.66) Who was the only Viceroy of India to be murdered in office?

[A] Lord Mayo
[B] Lord Auckland
[C] Lord Lawrence
[D] Lord Northbrook
Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Lord Mayo was the only Viceroy of India to be murdered in office. While visiting the
convict settlement at Port Blair in the Andaman Islands in 1872 for the purpose of inspection, he was
assassinated by a Pathan convict.
Q.67) Who among the following was also known as Maratha Machiavelli?
[A] Nana Phadnavis
[B] Balaji Vishwanath
[C] Narayanrao Bajirao
[D] Sambhaji
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Nana Phadnavis was an influential minister and statesman of the Maratha Empire
during the Peshwa administration. He was called ―the Maratha Machiavelli‖ by the Europeans. He
played a pivotal role in holding the Maratha Confederacy together in the midst of internal dissension
and the growing power of British.
Q.68) Which Viceroy passed the famous Indian Coinage and Paper Currency act (1899)?
[A] Lord Minto
[B] Lord Hardinge
[C] Lord Curzon
[D] Lord Dufferin
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In January 1899, Lord Curzon was appointed Viceroy of India. Passed the Indian
Coinage and Paper Currency act (1899) and put India on a gold standard.
Q.69) Mahad Satyagraha was led by:

[A] Mahatma Gandhi
[B] Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
[C] Acharya Vinoba Bhave
[D] Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Mahad Satyagraha was a Satyagraha led by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar on 20 March 1927 to
allow untouchables to use water in a public tank in Mahad (currently in Raigad district), Maharashtra,
India
Q.70) Who among the following has written Ghoolamgiri?

[A] Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
[B] Acharya Vinoba Bhave
[C] Jyotiba Phule
[D] Dadu Dayal
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In 1873 Phule wrote a book named Gulamgiri, meaning slavery. Phule dedicated his
book to all those Americans who had fought to free slaves, thus establishing a link between the
conditions of the ―lower‖ castes in India and the black slaves in America
Q.71) In which year Archaeological Survey of India was made a permanent body?
[A] 1902
[B] 1861
[C] 1906
[D] 1910
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Archaeological Survey of India was founded in the year 1861 by Alexander
Cunnigham. In the year 1906 it was made as permanent body
Q.72) which year, Interim Government of India (Arzi Hukumat-i-Hind) was formed by
Subhash Chandra Bose?
[A] 1941
[B] 1942
[C] 1943
[D] 1945
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In the year 1943 Bose had established provincial government of Azad Hind known as
Arzi Hukumat-i- Hind in Singapore. It was supported by Axis powers of imperial Japan, Nazi
Germany, Italian Social republic and their allies. Under provincial government Bose was PM and
minister of war and foreign affairs Rash Behari Bose was designated as supreme advisor Capitan
Laxmi headed Women‗s organization
Q.73) Who was the president of INC at the time of independence?

[A] Gandhi
[B] JB Kripalani
[C] Sarojini Naidu
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: J. B. Kripalani was the President of Indian National Congress at the time of
independence. Acharya (scholar) Jiwantram Bhagwandas Kripalani was a Gandhian Socialist,
environmentalist, mystic and freedom fighter, noted for his incorruptibility and determination
Q.74) In which year, East India Company acquired Bombay from Portuguese?
[A] 1663
[B] 1668
[C] 1670
[D] 1689
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: On 21 September 1668, the Royal Charter of 27 March 1668, led to the transfer of
Bombay from Charles II to the British East India Company for an annual rent of £10. Thus, the island
of Bombay was acquired by the East India Company from Portugal in 1668 and was immediately
fortified.
Q.75) Which of the following statements is incorrect about the Poona Pact?
[A] It was the agreement between Jawaharlal Nehru and Dr. B R. Ambedkar
[B] The depressed classes agreed to adhere to the principle of Joint Electorate
[C] Seats were to be allotted to the depressed classes in the provincial legislatures
[D] It provided for adequate representation of the depressed classes in the civil services
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: First statement is incorrect because Poona Pact was an agreement between Mahatma
Gandhi and Dr. B R. Ambedkar
: Indian & West Bengal Geography:
Q.76) The "Diphu Pass' which is the tri-junction between India, Myanmar andChina is on
thisborder line?
[A] Palk Strait
[B] Radcliffe Line
[C] Durand Line
[D] McMahon Line
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Diphu Pass is mountain pass around theareaof the disputed tripoint borders of India,
China, and Myanmar. Diphu Pass is also a strategic approach to eastern Arunachal Pradesh. It lies on
the McMahon Line.
Q.77) Daringbadi Hill Station is located in the Indian State of

[A] Kerala
[B] Maharashtra
[C] Odisha
[D] West Bengal
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Daringbadi isa hill station in Kandhamal district of Odisha state of Odisha in eastern
India. Widely known as "Kashmir of Odisha, (for its climatic similarity), it is situated at a height of
3000 ft and is a popular tourist destination
Q.78) The river Ganga emerges from Gangotri Glacier and ends at ______________ .
[A] Pacific Ocean
[B] Bay of Bengal
[C] Indian Ocean
[D] Arabian Sea
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Gangotri glacier is situated in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. The Ganga
River flows from here and falls into the Bay of Bengal.
Q.79) Which is the most abundant mineral found in the Earth's continental crust?
[A] Rhinestone (Quartz)
[B] pyroxenes
[C] Feldspar
[D] asbestos
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The most abundant mineral in the Earth‗s continental crust is Feldspar.
Q.80) Which of the following is called the ' Grand Canyon of India' ?
[A] Gangani Grand Canyon
[B] Laitlum Canyon
[C] Chambal River Canyon
[D] Great Canyon of Gandikota
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The almost forgotten gorge of Gandikota is situated on the Pennar River in Andhra
Pradesh and is known as the Grand Canyon of India.
Q.81) Which state of India has the longest mainland coastline?

[A] Gujarat [B] Odisha
[C] Kerala
[D] Maharashtra
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Gujarat is strategically located with the largest share in India's coastline, followed by
Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
Q.82) ----------located in Thekkady, Kerala is the perfect example of nature‗s bounty with great
scenic beauty and rich biodiversity.
[A] Wild Ass Sanctuary
[B] Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
[C] Pakhal Sanctuary
[D] Dachigam National Park
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary, located in Thekkady is the perfect example of nature's
bounty with great scenic beauty and rich biodiversity. It is considered as the most protected area for
the elephants and tigers.
Q.83) Which state is the largest producer of mica in India?

[A] Madhya Pradesh
[B] Rajasthan
[C] Jharkhand
[D] Andhra Pradesh
Correct Answer: D E
Explanation: Andhra Pradesh is the largest producer of Mica. Nellore district of Andhra Pradesh is
famous for its mica (crude) production. On the other hand, mica (waste and scrap) is largely produced
by the states of Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar and Jharkhand.
Q.84) Which of the following is the highest mountain peak in Maharashtra?

[A] Kalsubai Shikhar
[B] Anjaneri
[C] Salher
[D] Taramati
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Kalsubai is a mountain in the Western Ghats, located in the Indian state of Maharashtra.
Its summit situated at an elevation of 1646 metres (5400 feet) is the highest point in Maharashtra.
Q.85) Where is the Dachigam sanctuary located?

[A] Jammu and Kashmir
[B] Assam
[C] Chhattisgarh
[D] Karnataka
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Dachigam National Park is located 22 kilometers from Srinagar in the state of Jammu
and Kashmir. The name of the park literally stands for "ten villages" which could be in memory of the
ten villages that were relocated for its formation.
Q.86) -----------is India‗s largest research reactor.

[A] Dhruva
[B] Apsara
[C] Circus
[D] Kamini
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Dhruva is India‗s largest research reactor. The Dhruva reactor is India's largest nuclear
research reactor. Located in the Mumbai (Bombay) suburb of Trombay at the Bhabha Atomic
Research Centre (BARC), it is India's primary generator of weapons-grade plutonium- bearing spent
fuel for its nuclear weapons program.
Q.87) According to 2011 census, the literacy rate among women in India ?
[A] 66.46
[B] 67.46
[C] 62.46
[D] 65.46
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: As per the census of 2011, the literacy rate of India is 74.04%. Literacy rate among the
males is 82.14% and among females is 65.46%.
Q.88) Manas Tiger Reserve is located in which Indian state?

[A] Assam
[B] Maharashtra
[C] Karnataka
[D] Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Manas National Park or Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is an UNESCO Natural World
Heritage site, a Project Tiger reserve, an elephant reserve and a biosphere reserve in Assam, India.
The park is known for its rare and endangered endemic wildlife such as the Assam roofed turtle,
hispid hare, golden langur and pygmy hog and the wild water buffalo.
Q.89) The maximum strength of Bangladeshi parliament is .

[A] 350
[B] 340
[C] 322
[D] 363
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The current Bangladesh Parliament contains 350 seats
Q.90) Considered one of the best in India, Temi Tea garden is the only tea estate in the state of:
[A] West Bengal
[B] Sikkim
[C] Assam
[D] Odisha
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Temi Tea Garden in Temi, established in 1969 by the Government of Sikkim, is
located in South Sikkim in the northeastern Indian state of Sikkim. It is the only tea garden in Sikkim
and considered one of the best in India and in the world. Top quality tea is produced, which is in
demand in the international market. The garden is laid over a gradually sloping hill. The tea produced
in this garden is also partly marketed under the trade name ―Temi Tea‖.
Q.91) Wings India', Asia's largest civil aviation event, will be held at Begumpet airport,
Hyderabad in March 2020. What will be the theme of thisevent?
[A] Flying for All
[B] Born to Fly
[C] Flying Everyone
[D] Women to Fly
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The theme of the "Wings India' event held in March 2020 is "Flying for All".
Q.92) Which one of the following phenomenon happens when the sun shines vertically over the
Tropic of Capricorn in the southern hemisphere?
[A] High pressure develops over North- western India due to low temperatures
[B] Low pressure develops over North- western India due to high temperatures
[C] No changes in temperature and pressure occur in north-western India [D] 'Loo' blows in the
North-western India.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: High pressure develops over North-western India due to low temperatures
Q.93) The Walayar Dam is in which district of Kerala?

[A] Kasaragod
[B] Palakkad
[C] Thrissur
[D] Idukki
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Walayar Dam is a dam in Palakkad district of Kerala, south India. This dam is
constructed across the Walayar River which is a tributary of Kalpathipuzha River.
Q.94) Which of the following is an inland riverine port?

[A] Kolkata
[B] Mumbai
[C] Chennai
[D] Tuticorin
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Kolkata is an inland riverine port. It is situated along the Hoogly river
Q.95) Which of the following pair of Tropical Grassland - Location is correct ?

[A] Campas – Venezuela
[B] Los Llanos – Brazil
[C] Savanna - Africa
[D] Steppe – Greenland
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The African savanna ecosystem is a tropical grassland with warm temperatures
throughout the year and with its highest seasonal rainfall in the summer. The savanna is characterized
by grasses and small or dispersed trees that do not form a closed canopy, allowing sunlight to reach
the ground.
Q.96) The capital of West Bengal is located close to the

[A] the Equator
[B] Tropic of Cancer
[C] Tropic of Capricorn
[D] Arctic circle
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is Tropic of Cancer. The capital of West Bengal, Kolkata is
located close to the Tropic of Cancer. Tropic of Cancer passes the districts of Purulia, Bankura,
Barddhman, and Nadia in West Bengal.
Q.97) The local self-government of Kolkata is

[A] The Kolkata Municipal Corporation (KMC)
[B] The Kolkata Corporation (KC)
[C] The Kolkata Metropolitan Development Authority (KMDA)
[D] The Calcutta Improvement Trust (CIT)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Kolkata Municipal Corporation (abbreviated KMC; formerly Calcutta Municipal
Corporation) is the local government of the Indian city of Kolkata, the state capital of West Bengal.
Q.98) Who had written the book "Barna Porichoy"

[A] Rajsekhar Basu
[B] Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
[C] Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
[D] Rabindranath Tagore
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar had written the book "Barna Porichoy".
Q.99) Which one is the state animal of West Bengal

[A] Fishing cat
[B] Barasingha
[C] Spotted Deer
[D] Nilgiri tahr
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Fishing cat is the state animal of West Bengal.
Q.100) Drought is occasionally experienced in the plateau region of West Bengal because of
[A] Lateritic Soil
[B] Extremely low rainfall
[C] Excessive evapotranspiration
[D] Inefficient water management
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is Extremely low rainfall. Drought is occasionally experienced in
the plateau region of West Bengal because of extremely low rainfall.
: Indian Polity & Indian Economy:
Q.101) Which one of following is a Fundamental Duty under the Indian Constitution?
[A] Promotion of cooperative societies
[B] To develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of enquiry and reform.
[C] To pay all taxes to government regularly and correctly.
[D] To cast vote in every election
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: To develop scientific temper, humanism & spirit of inquiry & reform is one of the
fundamental duties under Article 5 IA of Indian Constitution. There are total Il fundamental duties
under Article 5 1 A of Indian Constitution.
Q.102) Which one of the following Directive Principles were not added by the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act?
[A] Article 39A
[B] Article 42B
[C] Article 43A
[D] Article 48 A
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original
list. These are: 1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39). 2. To
promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A). 3. To take steps to
secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A). 4. To protect and
improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).
Q.103) Which article of the Constitution of India provisions for reservations of seats for
scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the House of People?
[A] Article 325
[B] Article 321
[C] Article 330
[D] Article 335
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Article 330 of the Indian Constitution has the provision of reservation for the
Scheduled Tribes and Scheduled caste in the house of People Article 325 : n o person to be ineligible
for inclusion in, or to claim to be included in a special, electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, caste
or sex. Article 321 : It is related to the working procedure of the Union public service commission and
State public service commission Article 355 : states that the duties of the government concerning
individual states ensure that the governance of all states is according to the constitution during an
emergency.
Q.104) The Constituent Assembly of India met for the first time on
[A] 6th December, 1946
[B] 9th December, 1946
[C] 20th February, 1947
[D] 3rd June, 1947
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly met for the first time on 9 December 1946, reassembling on
14 August 1947 as a sovereign body and successor to the British parliament's authority in India.
Q.105) Which one of following terms were not added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment
Act in the Preamble of Indian constitution?
[A] Socialist
[B] Secular
[C] Dignity
[D] Integrity
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment of Constitution of India, enacted in 1976, attempted to reduce
power of Indian Supreme Court & High Courts to pronounce upon constitutional validity of laws.
Also declared India to be a socialist &secular, republic, & as securing fraternity assuring unity "and
integrity" of Nation, by adding Socialist, Secular and Integrity words to Preamble of Constitution Of
India.
Q.106) Voting age of an Indian citizen is

[A] 18 years
[B] 21 years
[C] 22 years
[D] 25 years
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The minimum age of voting in India was lowered from 21 to 18 years by 61st
Amendment Act in 1988.
Q.107) Which article of Indian Constitution define State:

[A] Article 12
[B] Article 13
[C] Article 14
[D] Article 15
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
 Article 12 contains the definition of State which includes:
 The Government and Parliament of India,
 The Government and legislatures of the states, All local authorities and Other authorities in India or
under the control of the Government of India,
Q.108) The powers, privileges and immunities of either the House of Parliament and of its
Committees and Members have mainly been laid down in article ______ of the Constitution of
India.
[A] 115
[B] 107
[C] 105
[D] 102
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The powers, privileges and immunities of either the House of Parliament and of its
Committees and Members have mainly been laid down in article 105 of the Constitution of India.
Q.109) Which of the following parts of Indian Constitution has the provision of Separation of
judiciary from executive?
[A] The Preamble
[B] The Fundamental Rights
[C] The Directive Principles of State Policy
[D] The Fundamental Duties
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Independence of judiciary means a fair &neutral judicial structure of a country. Article
50 of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India deals with separation of
judiciary from executive.
Q.110) With reference to the Part 1 of Constitution, consider the following statements:
(1) Articles 1 to 4 under Part-1 of the Constitution deal with the Union and its territory.
(2) Article I describes India, that is, Bharat as a 'Federation of States' rather than a 'Union of States'.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both
[D] None
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Articles 1 to 4 under Part-1 of the Constitution deal with the Union and its territory.
Article I describes India, that is, Bharat as a 'Union of States' rather than a 'Federation of States'. This
provision deals with two things: one, name of the country; and two, type of polity
Q.111) Who among the following moved objective resolution in the first session of the Constituent
Assembly?
[A] Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
[B] Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
[C] Chakravarti Rajagopalachari
[D] Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: On December 13, 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic ‗Objectives Resolution‗
in the Assembly. It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure. The
Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Assembly on January 22, 1947. It influenced the eventual
shaping of the constitution through all its subsequent stages. Its modified version forms the Preamble
of the present Constitution.
Q.112) Article 25 of the Indian Constitution contain the freedom of: [A] Conscience
[B] Practice of religion
[C] Propagate religion
[D] All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: According to article 25 of Indian Constitution, all persons are equally entitled to
freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion.
Q.113) The one of the objectives of 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 of Indian Constitution was to:
[A] strengthen Panchayati Raj
[B] strengthen municipalities
[C] strengthen urban institution
[D] None of above
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Constitution (Seventy-3rd Amendment) Act, 1992 accorded Panchayati Raj
Institutions [PRIs] a constitutional status. The main features of 73rd Amendment Act are following:
Constitution of a three tier structure of Panchayats in every state [at village, intermediate & district
levels] having a population of twenty lakhs; Fixed tenure for Panchayat bodies [Article 243E] etc.
Q.114) Which one of the following is not a method of measurement of National Income?
[A] Value Added Method
[B] Income Method
[C] Expenditure Method
[D] Investment Method
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Investment Method is not a method of measurement of National Income. There are
three methods of measurement income method, product or value added method and the expenditure
method. Investment Method in only appropriate if the property is let or operated under as
management structure by a third party. Income Method- Under this method National Income is
measured as a flow of factor income.
Q.115) With reference to the United Nations‗ Sustainable Development Goals, which of the
Following is the SDG 10?
[A] Climate action
[B] Reduced inequalities
[C] Zero hunger
[D] Decent work and economic growth
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Sustainable Development Goal 10 is about reduced inequality and is one of the 17
Sustainable Development Goals established by the United Nations in 2015. The full title is: "Reduce
inequality within and among countries". The Goal has ten targets to be achieved by 2030. It was
started in 2015. It‗s mission was to reduce inequality within and among countries.
Q.116) Which of the following constitutes the Forex Reserve of India? 1. Foreign currency assets
2. Gold
3. SDRs
4. Shareholding of Indians in foreign countries
Select the correct code from the following —
[A] 1,2 and 3
[B] 1 and 3
[C] 1, 3 and 4
[D] All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The components of India‗s FOREX Reserves include Foreign Currency Assets (FCA),
Gold Reserves, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), RBI's reserve position with International Monetary
Fund.
Q.117) Which of the following is known as broad money?

[A] M1
[B] M2
[C] M3
[D] M4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: M3 is known as broad money as more items are included in this measure when
compared to M1 which is known as narrow money.
Q.118) What is the base year for measuring inflation at Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India?
[A] 2004-05
[B] 2001-02
[C] 2011-12
[D] 2014-15
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The new base year for measuring inflation is 2011-12.
Q.119) MICR code is used for which of these?

[A] For code banking solution
[B] For electric fund transfer
[C] For electronic clearance of cheques
[D] None of these
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (MICR) is a technology used to verify the
legitimacy and originality of paper documents, especially cheques. It is used mainly by the banking
industry to ease the processing and clearance of cheques.
Q.120) Which one of the following is not the principle of fiscal policy of Indian Government?
[A] Full employment
[B] Price stability
[C] Equitable distribution of wealth and income
[D] Regulation of interstate trade
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Fiscal policy means use of taxation and public expenditure by the government for
stabilisation or growth of economy. Its main objectives are — * To maintain conditions of full
employment * Economic stability * Stabilise the rate of growth
Q.121) Consider the following statements regarding the monetary policy of India –
1. Monetary Policy is the responsibility of the Ministry of Finance
2. According to Monetary Policy, the inflation has to be maintained in the range of 4%
Which of the following is/are correct?
[A] l only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Reserve Bank of India is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy.
Hence, statement (A) is wrong. The government has notified in the official Gazette 4 percent
Consumer Price Index (CP!) inflation as the target for the period from August 5, 2016 to March 31,
2021 with the upper tolerance limit of 6 percent and the lower tolerance limit of 2 percent.
Q.122) Consider the following statements about Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR). Which of them are
correct?
1. An increase in CRR sucks money from the economy
2. Decrease in CRR injects money into the economy
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the percentage of cash deposits that banks need to keep
with the Reserve Bank of India. By increasing CRR, the RBI sucks money supply from the Marker
and by decreasing CRR, it injects money supply in the market.
Q.123) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBM) concerns —

[A] Fiscal deficit only
[B] Revenue deficit only
[C] Both revenue and fiscal deficit
[D] Neither (A) nor (B)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act deals with both fiscal deficit and
revenue deficit. The N.K. Singh Committee suggested a new Debt Management and Fiscal
Responsibility Bill 2017 to replace FRBM Act, 2003.
Q.124) Which one of the following plans is also known as Gadgil Yojana?
[A] Third Five Year Plan
[B] Fourth five Year Plan
[C] Fifth Five Year Plan
[D] Sixth Five Year Plan
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The third Five-year plan was made for the duration of 1961 to 1966. This plan is
called 'Gadgil Yojna' also. The main target of this plan was to make the country economically
independent.
Q.125) Which one of the following Co-operative Societies is responsible for the production of
fertilizers?
[A] NAFED
[B] IFFCO
[C] NCDC
[D] TRIFED
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Indian Farmers Fertilizer Cooperative Ltd (IFFCO) is the co operative society
responsible for the production of fertilizers IFFCO was registered on November 3 1967 as a Multiunit
Co operative Society. NCDC National Co-operative Development Co-operation was established by
the Act of Parliament in 1963 as a statutory co operation under the Ministry of Agriculture.
: General Science:
Q.126) Name the components that are found in Plasma?

[A] Proteins [B] Gases
[C] Nutrients
[D] All the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Plasma consists of amino acids, proteins, nutrients, gases, etc.
Q.127) Besides carbohydrates, a major source of energy in our food is constituted by

[A] proteins
[B] fats
[C] minerals
[D] vitamins
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Fats provide a source of concentrated energy as well as the fat-soluble vitamins A, D,
E and K. Fat transports these vital nutrients around the body. Fats or lipids are broken down in the
body by enzymes called lipases produced in the pancreas.
Q.128) Ciliated columnar epithelium is present in

[A] oesophagus
[B] respiratory tract
[C] abdominal wall
[D] ureter
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Ciliated columnar epithelium is therefore found in the respiratory
tract where mucous and air are pushed away to clear the respiratory tract. Other areas where ciliated
columnar epithelium is found are the fallopian tubes, the uterus, and the central canal of the spinal
cord.
Q.129) Which one of the following is not an asexual structure?

[A] Conidia
[B] Buds
[C] Gemmules
[D] Gametes
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Asexual reproduction produces individuals that are genetically identical to the parent
plant. Roots such as corms, stem tubers, rhizomes, and stolon undergo vegetative reproduction.
Some plants can produce seeds without fertilization via apomixis where the ovule or ovary gives rise
to new seeds.
Q.130) Which one among the following statements regarding cell is not correct?
[A] Shape and size of cells are related to specific function
[B] Some cells have changing shapes
[C] Each cell has its own capacity to perform functions
[D] Same types of cells are present in all body tissues
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: All organisms have the cells. Cell is the basic structural and functional unit of life. All
cells have the same biochemical machinery and share same genetic tool. But all cells of different
tissue are differentiated.
Q.131) 'shock-absorber‗ is usually made of steel as it

[A] is not brittle
[B] has lower elasticity
[C] has higher elasticity
[D] has no ductile property
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A shock absorber is a mechanical device designed to smooth out or damp shock
impulse, and dissipate kinetic energy. Steel is an alloy made by combining iron and other elements,
the most common of these being carbon.
Q.132) The organism uses complex substance and break down into simple one is called
[A] autotrophs
[B] saprotrophs
[C] heterotrophs
[D] parasite
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The organisms which utilize complex substances and break them down into simpler
forms are called heterotrophs. After taking complex organic materials as food, heterotrophs break
them into simpler molecules with the help of biological catalysts, or enzymes, and utilise them for
their own metabolism.
Q.133) A particle is moving in a circular path of radius r, then the displacement after half a
circle would be
[A] zero
[B] πr
[C] 2r
[D] 2πr
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: After half the circle, the particle will reach the diametrically opposite points i.e., from
point A to point B.
A B
Displacement after half a circle = AB
=r+ r
= 2r
Q.134) Most of the carbon dioxide combines with forming carbonic acid.
[A] haemoglobin
[B] oxygen
[C] water
[D] sodium bicarbonate
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Carbon dioxide combines with water to form carbonic acid, a reaction accelerated by
carbonic anhydrase. The carbonic acid then freely dissociates
Q.135) Where do the hypothalamic hormones originate?

[A] Nerve endings
[B] Synaptic vesicles
[C] Hypothalamic neurons
[D] Axons
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The hypothalamic hormones originate in the hypothalamic neurons, pass through
axons, and are released from their nerve endings. These hormones reach the pituitary gland through a
portal circulatory system and regulate the function of the anterior pituitary.
Q.136) Which of the following is not a vector quantity?

[A] Speed
[B] Velocity
[C] Torque
[D] Displacement
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Scalar quantities are defined by a magnitude with no applicable direction. In contrast,
vector quantities must have both magnitude and direction of action. Some common scalar quantities
are distance, speed, mass, and time. Some common vector quantities are force, velocity,
displacement, and acceleration.
Q.137) Functional unit of ‗kidney‗

[A] axon
[B] neuron
[C] nephron
[D] artery
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Nephron, functional unit of the kidney, the structure that actually produces urine in
the process of removing waste and excess substances from the blood. There are about 1,000,000
nephrons in each human kidney.
Q.138) Intensity of gravitational field of the earth is maximum at

[A] poles
[B] equator
[C] centre of the Earth
[D] surface
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The earth is an oblate spheroid, and that means it bulges out in the middle (the
equator). That also means the poles end up a little closer to the centre of gravity. That is why on the
surface of earth, at the poles the intensity of gravity is the maximum.
Q.139) Name the characteristic of the sound which distinguishes a sharp sound from a grave or
dull sound?
[A] Intensity
[B] Echo
[C] Pitch
[D] Resonance
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Pitch is that characteristic of sound which distinguishes a sharp or shrill sound from a
grave or dull sound. It depends upon frequency. Higher the frequency higher will be the pitch and
shriller will be the sound and vice versa.
Q.140) If two conducting spheres are separately charged and then brought in contact
[A] the total energy of the two spheres is conserved
[B] the total charge on the two spheres is conserved
[C] both the total energy and the total charge are conserved
[D] the final potential is always the mean of the original potential of the two spheres Correct
Answer: B
Explanation: When two charged spheres are brought in contact, their total charge, total mass and
total energy will remain conserved as per the laws of conservation.
Q.141) An object is visible only when it the light falls on it.

[A] polarises
[B] reflects
[C] illuminates
[D] returns
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Objects can only be seen when light falls onto the object and is reflected back to our
eyes to form an image on the retina
Q.142) The work done on an object does not depend upon the
[A] displacement
[B] force applied
[C] angle between force and displacement
[D] initial velocity of the object
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Complete step by step answer We know that, W=F⋅dcos0. Here, F= force applied on
the object, d= displacement and 0 is angle between force and displacement. So, the work done on an
object does not depend upon the initial velocity of the object.
Q.143) The ability of metals to be drawn into thin wire is known as

[A] ductility
[B] malleability
[C] sonorousity
[D] conductivity
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The property of metals by virtue of which they can be drawn into wires is called
ductility.
Q.144) Double bond occurs in

[A] CH4
[B] C2H6
[C] C2H4
[D] C2H2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Its chemical formula is C2H4 where there is a double bond between the carbons. ...
The formula for this is C2H4.It has four hydrogen atoms bound. It is referred as gas olefiant or oil
making gas. Ethylene, C2H4, is the simplest alkene, and because it contains a double bond it an
unsaturated hydrocarbon.
Q.145) Hydrogen may be produced by the action of cold water on

[A] magnesium
[B] sodium
[C] zinc
[D] iron
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Hydrogen may be produced by the action of cold water on sodium.
Q.146) Which of the following equations is not an example of displacement reaction?

[A] 2Al + Fe203 --------> Al203 + 2Fe
[B] Ca + Cl2 ---------> CaCl2
[C] 2Kl+ Cl2 ---------> 2KCl+l2
[D] 2Na+2H2O --------> 2NaoH+H2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Calcium chloride is an inorganic compound, a salt with the chemical formula CaCl₂. It
is a white coloured crystalline solid at room temperature, and it is highly soluble in water. It can be
created by neutralising hydrochloric acid with calcium hydroxide.
Q.147) The most abundant organic compound in the world is

[A] cellulose
[B] alkaloids
[C] methane
[D] chlorophyll
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A type of carbohydrate, cellulose, contains chains of glucose rings. Providing strength
and rigidity, cellulose forms the cell walls of plants. Cellulose is the primary constituent of wood,
making this organic compound the most abundant one on the surface of the Earth.
Q.148) The force which is responsible for binding proton and neutron into nuclei of atom is
known as
[A] Coulomb's force
[B] electrostatic force
[C] nuclear force
[D] atomic force
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The nuclear force (or nucleon–nucleon interaction or residual strong force) is the
force between two or more nucleons. It is responsible for binding of protons and neutrons into atomic
nuclei.
Q.149) In Mendeleev's periodic table, gaps were left for the elements to be discovered later.
Which of the following elements found a place in the periodic table later?
[A] Germanium
[B] Chlorine
[C] Oxygen
[D] Silicon
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Germanium element found a place in the periodic table later in the place of Eka–
silicon in Mendeleev's periodic table.
Q.150) Human stomach produces acid X which helps in digestion of food. Acid X is
[A] acetic acid
[B] methanoic acid
[C] hydrochloric acid
[D] citric acid
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Parietal cells contain an extensive secretory network (called canaliculi) from which the
"hydrochloric acid" is secreted into the lumen of the stomach.
: Math & Reasoning:
Q.151) A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given
ones that will complete the series.
DEC, HIG, LMK, PQO, TUS, ?
A. XYZ
B. WXY
C. XYW
D. YZA
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 4 (D) + 4 → 8 (H); 8 (H) + 4 → 12 (L); 12 (L) + 4 → 16 (P); 16 (P) + 4 → 20 (T); 20
(T) + 4 → 24 (X)
5 (E) + 4 → 9 (I); 9 (I) + 4 → 13 (M); 13 (M) + 4 → 17 (Q); 17 (Q) + 4 = 21 (U); 21 (U) + 4 →
25 (Y)
3 (C) + 4 → 7 (G); 7 (G) + 4 → 11 (K); 11 (K) + 4 → 15 (O); 15 (O) + 4 → 19 (S); 19 (S) + 4 →
23 (W)
Hence, XYW will be the next term in the given series.
Q.152) Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Hence, option D is the correct answer.

Q.153) A truck travels 36 km North, then it turns West and travels 9 km, then it turns South
and travels 50 km, then it turns to its left and travels 9 km. Where is it now with reference to its
starting position?
A. 14 km North
B. 86 km South
C. 86 km North
D. 14 km South
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Hence, 50 - 36 = 14 km
Clearly, the truck is 14 km towards south from where it started.
Q.154) Select the odd number from the given alternatives.

A. 15
B. 20
C. 40
D. 60
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: All except 15 are divisible by 10.
Q.155) If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image
of the given figure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Option 4 is the correct answer.
Q.156) A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the
given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Option 1 is the correct answer.
Q.157) Select the related word from the given alternatives.

Pencil : Lead ∷Pen : ?
A. Ball
B. Write
C. Blue
D. Ink
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The writing portion of pencil is lead likewise; the writing portion of a pen is ink.
Hence, the answer is Ink.
Q.158) From the given words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the
given word.
JOSTLING
A. INLET
B. GLINT
C. INGOT
D. JINGO
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 1) INLET → JOSTLING → cannot be formed as there is no E
2) GLINT → JOSTLING → can be formed
3) INGOT → JOSTLING → can be formed
4) JINGO → JOSTLING → can be formed
There is no E in the given word.
Hence, the answer is INLET.
Q.159) Select the related number from the given alternatives.

236 : 472 : 123 : ?
A. 246
B. 426
C. 642
D. 247
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The pattern followed is:
(2 × 2) = 4 and (36 × 2) = 72, combining the two we get 472
Likewise; (1 × 2) = 2 and (23 × 2) = 46, combining the two we get 246.
Hence, the answer is 246.
Q.160) A series is given, with one word missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given
ones that will complete the series.
Laugh, Alter, Melts, Realm, Muesli, ?
A. Missile
B. Shall
C. Alien
D. Riﬂe
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Here, the letter ‗L‘ moves one place forward in every subsequent word in the series.
Laugh, Alter, Melts, Realm, Muesli, Missile
1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th 6th → (Position of letter ‘L‘)
Hence, the answer is Missile.
Q.161) Akarsh's birthday is on Saturday 29th July. On what day of the week will be Ojas's
Birthday in the same year if Ojas was born on 12th August?
A. Wednesday
B. Friday
C. Saturday
D. Sunday
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Akarsh's birthday → 29 July, Saturday
Ojas‘s birthday → 12 August
So, July has remaining → 2 Days
August → 12 Days
Total Days → 14 Days
Dividing 14 days by 7 (as there are 7 days in a week)
We get remainder 0.
Thus, Ojas's birthday will fall on Saturday.
Hence, the answer is Saturday.
Q.162) If PROJECT is coded as KILQVXG, then how will EGO be coded as?
A. VPU
B. MJN
C. VTL
D. SGD
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Here, the letter in the corresponding group of word is the letter which occupies the
same position from the other end of the English alphabet.
Refer to the table shown below;
Letter A B C D E F G H I J K L M
Letter Z Y X W V U T S R Q P O N
Likewise;
Hence, the answer is VTL.
Q.163) If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image
of the given figure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Hence, the answer is figure 2.
Q.164) Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded
cube in the question figure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Option 1st cube is not possible from unfolded cube. For circle on top and square in front, hexagon
should be on the right and not the cross mark.
Q.165) Select the related letters from the given alternatives.

DGI : JMO : RUW : ?
A. XAC
B. WYZ
C. ACE
D. ZAC
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Likewise;
Hence, the answer is XAC.
Q.166) If 15@7 = 44; 5@4 = 18; 6@17 = 46; then what is the value of 17@4 = ?
A. 36
B. 42
C. 40
D. 49
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The pattern is as follows:
(15 + 7) = 22 × 2 = 44
(5 + 4) = 9 × 2 = 18
(6 + 17) = 23 × 2 = 46
So, (17 + 4) = 21 × 2 = 42
Q.167) In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have
to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known
facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given
statements.
Statement 1: No shirts are t-shirts.
Statement 2: All t-shirts are cotton.
Conclusion I: Some shirts are cotton.

Conclusion II: No t-shirts are shirts
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Both I and II follow
D. Neither I nor II follows
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows:
I: Some shirts are cotton → false

II: No T-shirts are shirts → true.
Q.168) In a certain code language, ‗+' represents '×', '-‘represents ‗+', '×‘ represents '’‘ and '’‘
represents '-'. What is the answer to the following question?
75 - 5 + 25 ÷ 125 = ?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 3
D. 75
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Symbol
+ - × ÷
code
Meaning × + ÷ -
75 - 5 + 25 ÷ 125
Converting: 75 + 5 × 25 - 125
= 75 + 125 - 125
= 200 - 125 = 75
Q.169) What is the difference between the compound interest (in Rs.) compounded yearly and
compounded half yearly for 18 months at 20% per annum on a sum of Rs. 12,000?
A. 145
B. 165
C. 121
D. 132
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Given:
Principal amount = Rs. 12000
Time = 18 months
Rate of interest = 20%
Concept used:
Simple interest = (Principal × Time × Rate) ÷ 100
In the case of compound interest,
A = P × (1 + r/100)n
C.I = A - P
Here, A = Amount, P = Principal, r = Rate of interest. n = Time, C.I = Compound interest
Calculation:
When interest is compounded yearly,
Principal = Rs. 12,000
At the end of the first year, the principal becomes = 12000 × 1.21 = Rs. 14400
Then, after 6 months the interest accumulated on the principal amount of Rs. 14400
⇒ (14400 × 20 × 6/12) / 100
⇒ 1440
So, after 8 months the initial principal amount becomes = 14400 + 1440 = Rs. 15840
Interest accumuted in 18 months = Rs. (15840 - 12000) = Rs. 3840
When interest compounded half-yearly,
Rate of interest (R) = 20/2 % = 10%
Time (n) = 18 ÷ 6 = 3
Principal = 12,000
So, after 18 months the principal becomes
⇒ 12000 (1 + 10/100)3
⇒ Rs. 15972
Interest accumuted in 18 months = Rs. (15972 - 12000) = Rs. 3972
So, the difference between the interest accumulated = Rs. (3972 - 3840) = Rs. 132
∷The difference between the compound interest compounded yearly and compounded half
yearly for 18 months at 20% per annum on a sum of Rs. 12,000 is Rs. 132.
Alternate Method Formulae used:
CIhalf yearly – CIyearly = P[(1 + (r/200))2n – (1 + (r/100))n]
CIhalf yearly – CIyearly = 12000[(1 + (20/200))2(1.5) – (1 + (20/100))1.5]
CIhalf yearly – CIyearly = 12000 [(1 + (1/10))3– (1 + (1/5))1.5]
CIhalf yearly – CIyearly = 132
Q.170) A shopkeeper marks an article at a price such that after giving a discount of x%, he
gains 20%. If the cost price and the market price of the article are Rs. 920 and Rs. 1472
respectively, then what is the value of x?
A. 18
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Given:
Cost price of the article = Rs. 920
Marked price of the article = Rs. 1472
Discount = x%
Gain = 20%
Concept used:
Selling price = Cost price × (1 + Gain percentage/100)
Selling price = Marked price (1 - discount percentage/100)
Cost price/Marked price = (100 - Discount%)/(100 + Gain%)
Calculation:
So, the selling price of the article = 920 × 1.2 = Rs. 1,104
According to the question,
1472 (1 - x%) = 1104

⇒ (1 - x%) = 0.75
⇒ x = 25
∷The required value of x is 25.
Shortcut Trick
Cost price/Marked price = (100 - Discount%)/(100 + Gain%)
⇒ 920/1472 = (100 - Discount%)/(100 + 20)
⇒ (920/1472) × 120 = 100 - Discount%
⇒ 75 = 100 - Discount%
⇒ Discount% = 100 - 75 = 25
∷The required value of x is 25.
Q.171) A shopkeeper sold an article for Rs. 455 at a loss (in Rs.). If he sells it for Rs. 490, then he
would gain an amount four times the loss, At what price (in Rs.) should he sell the article to gain
25%?
A. 577.50
B. 575
C. 570.50
D. 115.50
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Given:
Original selling price = Rs. 455
If he sells it for Rs. 490, then he would gain an amount four times the loss.
Desired gain = 25%
Concept used:
Loss = Cost price - Selling price
Gain = Selling price - Cost price
Selling price = Cost price × (1 + gain percentage/100)
Calculation:
let the cost price of the article be CP.
4 × (CP - 455) = (490 - CP)
⇒ CP = 462
Now, to make 25%, the shopkeeper has to it at = (462 × 1.25) = Rs. 577.50
∷At Rs. 577.50 he should sell the article to gain 25%.
Q.172) A tank is filled in 4 hours by three pipes A, B and C. The pipe C is times as fast as B
and B is 3 times as fast as A. How many hours will pipe A alone take to fill the tank?
A. 17
B. 34
C. 30
D. 15
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Given:
The tank is filled in 4 hours by three pipes A, B, and C.
Pipe C is times as fast as B and B is 3 times as far as A

Concept used:
The capacity of that tank = the rate of flow of pipe C × time taken by the pipe
Calculation:
Given that, rate of flow C = (3/2)B and B = 3A
Let, pipe A fills the tank = 2Q unit per hour
Pipe B fills the tank = 3A = 3 × 2Q = 6Q unit per hour
Pipe C fills the tank = (3/2)B = (3/2) × 6Q = 9Q unit per hours

Together they can fill = (2Q + 6Q + 9Q) = 17Q unit per hour
Now, the capacity of that tank = 4 × 17 = 68Q unit per hour
So, Pipe A will take to fill that tank = 68Q ÷ 2Q = 34 hours
∷34 hours will pipe A alone take to fill the tank.
Shortcut TrickEfficiency of the pipes,
So, total work = 17 × 4 = 68 units

A will take 68/2 = 34 hours
Q.173) A certain sum is divided among A, B, C and D such that the ratio of the shares is A :B :C
: D = 4 : 12 : 30 : 45. If the difference between the shares of A and D is Rs. 5535, then the total
sum (in Rs.) is:
A. 12285
B. 11000
C. 12785
D. 13550
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Given:
The ratio among A, B, C, and D is 4 ∶ 12 ∶ 30 ∶ 45 respectively.
The difference between the shares of A and D is Rs. 5535
Concept used:
Ratio proportion
Calculation:
Let the common ratio among them be P.
So,
The share of A = Rs. 4P
The share of B = Rs. 12P
The share of C = Rs. 30P
The share of D = Rs. 45P
Total sum = (45 + 30 + 12 + 4)P = Rs. 91P
45P - 4P = 5535
⇒ 41P = 5535
⇒ P = 135
⇒ 91P = 12285
∷The total sum is Rs. 12285.
Q.174) The speed of a motorboat in still water is 20 km/h. It travels 150 km downstream and
then returns to the starting point. If the round trip takes a total of 16 hours, what is the speed
(in km/h) of the flow of river?
A. 6
B. 4
C. 8
D. 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Given:
The boat takes 16 hours to 150 km downstream and 150 km upstream.
Speed of the motorboat in the still water is 20 kmph
Concept used:
When going downstream, the speed of the boat and the flow of the river are added to calculate the net
speed.
When going upstream, we take the difference between the speed of the boat and the flow of the river
as the net speed.
Time = Distance / Speed
(A + B) (A - B) = A2 - B2
Calculation:
Let the flow of the river be R kmph.
{150 / (20 + R)} + {150 / (20 - R)} = 16
⇒ {150 × (20 + R + 20 - R)} / (202 - R2) = 16
⇒ (150 × 40) / (202 - R2) = 16
⇒ 400 - R2 = 375
⇒ R2 = 25
⇒R=5
∷The flow of the river is 5 kmph.
Q.175) What is the average of numbers from 1 to 50 which are multiples of 2 or 5? (correct to
one decimal place)
A. 25.4
B. 25.9
C. 26.4
D. 25.8
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Given:
Number range = 1 to 50
Numbers should be multiples of 2 or 5.
Concept used:
Average = (1st term + last term)/2
Average = Sum of elements/No. of elements
Total number of terms = tn= a + d(n − 1)
n = number of terms
a = 1st term
d = commons difference
Calculation:
For 2
Number of terms → 50 = 2 + 2n - 2
⇒ n = 25
Average = (2 + 50)/2 = 26
Total = 26 × 25 = 650
For 5
Number of terms → 50 = 5 + 5n - 5
⇒ n = 10
Average = (5 + 50)/2 = 27.5
Total = 27.5 × 10 = 275
10, 20, 30, 40, and 50 come two times
So,
Effective total = 650 + 275 - 150
⇒ 775
Now, the number of terms that are multiples of 2 or 5 = 25 + 10 - 5 = 30
Average = 775 ÷ 30 ≈ 25.8
∷The average of the numbers from 1 to 50 which are multiples of 2 or 5 is 25.8.
: Current Affairs:
Q.176) Which Country Won Maximum Medal At „2023 Asian Wrestling Championships‟
A.India
B.China
C.Kazakhstan
D.Japan
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Aman Sehrawat, a freestyle wrestler, won India‘s 1st gold medal, under the men‘s
57kg freestyle category, at the Asian Wrestling Championships 2023. 36th edition of Asian
Wrestling Championships was held in Astana, Kazakhstan, from 9 April to 14 April 2023.
Aman Sehrawat won the gold medal by defeating Kyrgyzstan‘s Almaz Smanbekov (9-4), who
won the bronze medal in 2022. India has won 14 medals(one gold, three silvers and 10 bronze)
and is ranked 7th in overall medal tally. Kazakhstan was topped in medal tally followed by Japan
and Iran.
Q.177) Who Won The Title Of „Miss India 2023‟ ?

A.Shreya Poonja
B.Nandini Gupta
C.Harnaz Sandhu
D.Mansi Varanasi
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Nandini Gupta from Rajasthan's Kota has been crowned Femina Miss India 2023
at a gala event in Manipur's Imphal. The 19-year-old was bestowed with the coveted title at the
grand finale ceremony held on April 15.
Q.178) Which State‟s Kangra Tea Got The European Gi Tag?

A.Assam
B.Sikkim
C.Himachal Pradesh
D.Uttrakhand
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The European Commission (EC) has awarded protected geographical indication
(PGI) status to Kangra tea, a unique variety of tea grown in the Kangra district of India's
Himachal Pradesh.
Q.179) When Was ―Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana‖ Launched?

A.2015
B.2014
C.2020
D.2017
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), the world's largest financial inclusion
scheme, was announced by the Prime Minister on 15 August 2014 from the historic Red Fort,
which was launched on 28 August 2014 across the country.
Q.180) Who became 1stfemale umpire in men‟s T20I match ?

A.Kim Cotton
B.Claire Polosak
C.Shivani Mishra
D.None Of These
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Kim Cotton of New Zealand becomes the first female on-field official in ICC's
full-member men's T20Is.
Q.181) Which Country Became 31stMember Of „NATO‟ ?

A.Finland
B.Denmark
C.Spain
D.Norway
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Finland became NATO‘s newest member today (4 April 2023), upon depositing its
instrument of accession to the North Atlantic Treaty with the United States at NATO
Headquarters in Brussels. NATO Allies signed Finland‘s Accession Protocol on 5 July 2022,
after which all 30 national parliaments voted to ratify the country‘s membership.
Q.182) ISRO‟s „OneWebIndia-2 Mission Launched How Many Satellite Of One Web
A.20
B.30
C.36
D.47
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: ISRO said, ―LVM3-M3/OneWeb India-2 mission is accomplished. All 36 OneWeb
Gen-1 Satellites injected into the intended orbits.‖ ―In its sixth consecutive successful flight,
LVM3 carried 5,805 kgs of payload to Low Earth Orbit,‖ the space agency said in its official
social media account. ISRO chairman S.
Q.183) Who has been elected as new President of New Development Bank ?
A.Ikram Taiyyib
B.Dilma Rousseff
C.Indermit Gill
D.Ashok Mittal
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Marcos Troyjo was elected president of the New Development Bank on 27 May,
2020. Following Luiz Inácio Lula da Silva election, the Brazilian government solicited his
renouncement, after then he was replaced by Dilma Rousseff by 24 March, 2023.
Q.184) Which State Has Launched „One Panchayat, One Playground‟ Initiative ?
A.Gujarat
B.Haryana
C.Kerala
D.West Bengal
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The 'One Panchayat, One Playground' project was launched by Kerala's Chief
Minister, Pinarayi Vijayan, at Kallikkad.
Q.185) Which State Has Topped List Of States With Most Ponds & Reservoirs ?
A.Uttrakhand
B.West Bengal
C.Uttar Pradesh
D.Bihar
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Whereas West Bengal has highest number of ponds & reservoirs, whereas Andhra
Pradesh has highest number of tanks, Tamil Nadu has highest number of lakes. First census of
water bodies was conducted with reference year 2017-18 across the country in 33 States/UTs
except Daman & Diu, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Lakshadweep.
Q.186) Who Will Receive ―Lata Deenanath Mangeshkar Award 2023‖ ?

A.Shahrukh Khan
B.Asha Bhosle
C.PM Modi
D.Alka Yagnik
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: By Press Trust of India: Legendary singer Asha Bhosle will be felicitated with the
Lata Deenanath Mangeshkar award, the Mangeshkar family announced on Tuesday (April 18).
The family and the trust instituted the award in the memory of Lata Mangeshkar, who died on
February 6, 2022, following multiple organ failure.
Q.187) LUCY Space Mission Was Launched By Which Space Agency?

A.NASA
B.ISRO
C.ESA
D.JAXA
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: On 4 January 2017, Lucy and Psyche were selected for development and launch.
On 31 January 2019, NASA announced that Lucy would launch in October 2021 on an Atlas V
401 launch vehicle from Cape Canaveral, Florida. The total cost for the launch was estimated to
be US$148.3 million.
Q.188) Who Has Received Germany‟s Highest Honor 'Order Of Marit‖ ?

A.Shashi Tharoor
B.Angela Merkel
C.PM Modi
D.Ruchira Kamboj
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Former Chancellor Angela Merkel received Germany's highest Order of Merit. The
Grand Cross award was handed to her by President Frank-Walter Steinmeier.
Q.189) Who Has Launched „YUVA PORTAL‟ Recently ?

A.Jitendra Singh
B.Rajnath Singh
C.PM Modi
D.Dharmendra Pradhan
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) Science & Technology; Minister of
State (Independent Charge) Earth Sciences; MoS PMO, Personnel, Public Grievances, Pensions,
Atomic Energy and Space, Dr. Jitendra Singh today launched ―YUVA PORTAL‖, which will
help in connecting and identifying potential young Start-Ups.
Q.190) Who has released the 1st Edition of the Dogriversion of the Constitution?
A.PM Modi
B.Kiran Rijiju
C.Amit Shah
D.Rajnath Singh
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Law Minister Kiren Rijiju releases 1st edition of Dogri version of Constitution of
India. Union Minister of Law, Justice and Parliamentary Affairs, Kiren Rijiju released the first
edition of the Dogri version of the Constitution of India at University of Jammu on Saturday.
Q.191) Who Has Inaugurated GAJ UTSAV-2023

A.JagdeepDhankar
B.PM Modi
C.DraupadiMurmu
D.RajnathSingh
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The President of India, Smt Droupadi Murmu inaugurated the Gaj Utsav-2023 at
the Kaziranga National Park today (April 7, 2023).
Q.192) Eravikulam National Park Is Located In Which State?

A.Uttrakhand
B.Tamil Nadu
C.Kerala
D.Andhra Pr
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Eravikulam National Park is a 97 km2 national park located along the Western
Ghats in the Idukki and Ernakulam districts of Kerala in India.
Q.193) When 'RBI Foundation Day‟ Is Observed Every Year?

A.1st April
B.2nd April
C.3rd April
D.4th April
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: It commenced its operations on 1 April 1935 in accordance with the Reserve Bank
of India Act, 1934.
Q.194) Who Has Won Men‟s Single Title At „2023 Swiss Open‟ ?
A.Satwiksairaj (IND)
B.Chirag Shetty (IND)
C.Koki Watanabe (Jap)
D.V Axelsen (Den)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Watanabe Koki wins shock Swiss Open badminton men's singles title
Q.195) Who Became 1stperson to swim from Gateway of India to Elephanta Caves
A.Krishna Prakash
B.Anjali Sharma
C.Abhijit Prakash
D.Aakash Dubey
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Krishna Prakash, a senior Indian Police Service (IPS) officer, has claimed that he
swam from the Gateway of India to Elephanta Caves in the Arabian Sea, and became the first
person in the world to do so.
Q.196) Which Country Launched Its It‟s Operational Earth Observation Satellite ―Taifa-1
A.Iran
B.Oman
C.Kenya
D.India
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Kenya Launched Its First Operational Earth Observation Satellite ―Taifa-1‖
Kenya's first operational Earth observation satellite, "Taifa-1," was successfully launched into
space on April 15th, 2023, using a rocket from Elon Musk's rocket company, SpaceX.
Q.197) Which Bank Has Launched India‟s 1stVoice Biometric Authentication Banking App
A.Canera Bank
B.HDFC Bank
C.City Union Bank
D.Axis Bank
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: City Union Bank launches India's 1st Voice Biometric Authentication Banking
App. City Union Bank Limited (CUB) has introduced a new feature that allows customers to use
voice biometric authentication when logging into the bank's mobile banking app, aimed at
improving security.
Q.198) Centre Approved ______ Projects Worth ₹638 Cr Under Namami Gange ?
A.4
B.8
C.12
D.16
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Govt approves 8 projects worth Rs 638 cr under Namami Gange programme. A
total of eight projects worth Rs 683 crore were approved.
Q.199) India‟s 1st Mangrove Pitta Bird Census Has Been Conducted In Which State?
A.Gujarat
B.Tamil Nadu
C.Odisha
D.West Bengal
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Central idea: The article talks about the first-ever census of mangrove pitta birds
conducted in two coastal districts of Odisha, India.
Q.200) When Did Jallianwala Bagh Massacre Take Place ?

A.13 April 1919
B.20 April 1919
C.10 April 1919
D.15 April 1919
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, also known as the Amritsar massacre, took place
on 13 April 1919. A large, peaceful crowd had gathered at the Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar,
Punjab, British India, to protest the Rowlatt Act and arrest of pro-independence activists
Saifuddin Kitchlew and Satyapal.

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WBCS 2023 (Preliminary) Examination

Offline Mock Test-15

Q.9) Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

Q.10) Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

Q.27) Which of the following Rigvedic deities represented Storm?

Q.37) Devichandraguptam was a work of ?

Q.38) Who was the first Tirthankara in Jainism?

Q.39) Military system in reign of Akbar was based on –

Q.40) The Subsidiary Alliance was not accepted by

Q.43) Which of the following statement is/are correct?

Q.49) Who gave the slogan "Do or Die" to the nation ?

: Indian National Movement:

Q.53) Who is regarded as ―Maker of Modern India?

Q.62) Lord Ripon appointed Hunter commission for:

Q.66) Who was the only Viceroy of India to be murdered in office?

Q.69) Mahad Satyagraha was led by:

Q.70) Who among the following has written Ghoolamgiri?

Q.73) Who was the president of INC at the time of independence?

: Indian & West Bengal Geography:

Q.77) Daringbadi Hill Station is located in the Indian State of

Q.81) Which state of India has the longest mainland coastline?

Q.83) Which state is the largest producer of mica in India?

Q.84) Which of the following is the highest mountain peak in Maharashtra?

Q.85) Where is the Dachigam sanctuary located?

Q.86) -----------is India‗s largest research reactor.

Q.88) Manas Tiger Reserve is located in which Indian state?

Q.89) The maximum strength of Bangladeshi parliament is .

Q.93) The Walayar Dam is in which district of Kerala?

Q.94) Which of the following is an inland riverine port?

Q.95) Which of the following pair of Tropical Grassland - Location is correct ?

Q.96) The capital of West Bengal is located close to the

Q.97) The local self-government of Kolkata is

Q.98) Who had written the book "Barna Porichoy"

Q.99) Which one is the state animal of West Bengal

: Indian Polity & Indian Economy:

Q.106) Voting age of an Indian citizen is

Q.107) Which article of Indian Constitution define State:

Q.117) Which of the following is known as broad money?

Q.119) MICR code is used for which of these?

Q.123) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBM) concerns —

Q.126) Name the components that are found in Plasma?

Q.127) Besides carbohydrates, a major source of energy in our food is constituted by

Q.128) Ciliated columnar epithelium is present in

Q.129) Which one of the following is not an asexual structure?

Q.131) 'shock-absorber‗ is usually made of steel as it

Q.135) Where do the hypothalamic hormones originate?

Q.136) Which of the following is not a vector quantity?

Q.137) Functional unit of ‗kidney‗

Q.138) Intensity of gravitational field of the earth is maximum at

Q.141) An object is visible only when it the light falls on it.

Q.143) The ability of metals to be drawn into thin wire is known as

Q.144) Double bond occurs in

Q.145) Hydrogen may be produced by the action of cold water on

Q.146) Which of the following equations is not an example of displacement reaction?

Q.147) The most abundant organic compound in the world is

: Math & Reasoning:

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

Q.154) Select the odd number from the given alternatives.

Option 4 is the correct answer.