Constitutional and Administrative Law and EU Law Manual
Constitutional and Administrative Law and EU Law Manual
Constitutional and Administrative Law and EU Law Manual
ADMINISTRATIVE LAW
AND EU LAW
CONSTITUTIONAL AND
ADMINISTRATIVE LAW
AND EU LAW
Trevor Tayleur
Published by
The University of Law,
2 Bunhill Row
London EC1Y 8HQ
© The University of Law 2021
All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted,
in any form or by any means, without the prior written permission of the copyright holder, application for which
should be addressed to the publisher.
Contains public sector information licensed under the Open Government Licence v3.0
British Library Cataloguing in Publication Data
A catalogue record for this book is available from the British Library.
ISBN 978 1 914219 05 4
Preface
This book is part of a series of Study Manuals that have been specially designed
to support the reader to achieve the SQE1 Assessment Specification in relation to
Functioning Legal Knowledge. Each Study Manual aims to provide the reader with
a solid knowledge and understanding of fundamental legal principles and rules,
including how those principles and rules might be applied in practice.
This Study Manual covers the Solicitors Regulation Authority’s syllabus for the SQE1
assessment for Constitutional and Administrative Law and EU Law in a concise
and tightly focused manner. The Manual provides a clear statement of relevant
legal rules and a well-defined road map through examinable law and practice.
The Manual aims to bring the law and practice to life through the use of example
scenarios based on realistic client-based problems and allows the reader to test their
knowledge and understanding through single best answer questions that have been
modelled on the SRA’s sample assessment questions.
For those readers who are students at the University of Law, the Study Manual is
used alongside other learning resources and the University’s assessment bank to
best prepare students not only for the SQE1 assessments, but also for a future life in
professional legal practice.
We hope that you find the Study Manual supportive of your preparation for SQE1 and
we wish you every success.
The legal principles and rules contained within this Manual are stated as at
1 October 2020.
Author acknowledgments
Trevor would like to thank Savvas Michael for reviewing and commenting on the
content of chapters and sample questions and Nancy Duffield and Gary Atkinson for
their source materials; their input was invaluable. Thanks must also go to David Stott
for his editorial support and guidance.
Contents
Prefacev
Table of Cases xv
Table of Statutesxxi
viii
Contents
ix
Contents
5.2.3 Offences 88
5.2.4 Imposing conditions on public processions 88
5.2.5 Offences under s 12 89
5.2.6 The power to prohibit processions 89
5.2.7 Offences under s 13 90
5.3 Meetings 90
5.3.1 Meetings: permission sometimes required 90
5.3.2 Imposing conditions on public assemblies 91
5.3.3 Offences under s 14 91
5.3.4 Trespassory assemblies 92
5.4 The common law: breach of the peace 93
Summary 95
Sample questions 97
Chapter 6 The Grounds of Judicial Review 101
SQE1 syllabus 101
Learning outcomes 101
6.1 Introduction to judicial review and the grounds of claim 102
6.2 What is judicial review? 103
6.3 Judicial review and fundamental principles of the UK constitution 104
6.3.1 The rule of law 104
6.3.2 The separation of powers 104
6.3.3 Parliamentary sovereignty 104
6.4 Identifying the grounds of review 105
6.5 Illegality as grounds for review 106
6.5.1 How might illegality occur? 106
6.6 Irrationality 113
6.6.1 The ‘Wednesbury Principle’ 113
6.6.2 Developments post-Wednesbury 113
6.7 The procedural grounds of judicial review 114
6.7.1 Procedural fairness –the rules of natural justice 115
6.8 Procedural ultra vires 123
6.8.1 ‘Mandatory’ or ‘directory’ requirements 123
6.8.2 Subsequent developments 124
6.9 Legitimate expectations 124
Summary 126
Sample questions 128
Chapter 7 Judicial Review –Procedure and Remedies 131
SQE1 syllabus 131
Learning outcomes 131
x
Contents
xi
Contents
xii
Contents
xiii
Contents
Summary 200
Sample questions 201
Chapter 10 Retained EU Law 205
SQE1 syllabus 205
Learning outcomes 205
10.1 Introduction to retained EU law 206
10.2 What is retained EU law? 206
10.2.1 EU-derived domestic legislation 207
10.2.2 Direct EU legislation 207
10.2.3 Rights etc arising under s 2(1) of the ECA 1972 208
10.3 Status of retained EU law 209
10.4 Interpretation of retained EU law 210
10.5 Retained EU case law 210
10.6 Retained general principles of EU law 211
10.7 Exclusion of state liability 212
10.8 Correcting ‘deficiencies’ in retained EU law 212
10.9 Supremacy of retained EU law 213
10.10 Challenges to retained EU law 213
10.11 The Withdrawal Agreement 214
Summary 215
Sample questions 216
Index219
xiv
Table of Cases
xvi
Table of Cases
O Observer and The Guardian v United Kingdom (1992) 14 EHRR 153 179
O’Reilly v Mackman [1983] 2 AC 2370 133, 135
Osman v United Kingdom [1997] 1 FLR 193 158
xvii
Table of Cases
xviii
Table of Cases
xix
Table of Cases
xx
Table of Statutes
C Charter of Fundamental Rights of the European Union ([2000] OJ C364/1) 29, 211
Art 47 211
Civil Procedure Rules (CPR)
Pt 54 132, 141, 146, 148
Colonial Laws Validity Act 1865 28
Communications Act 2003 179
Constitutional Reform Act 2005 6, 72, 73–4, 77, 80
s 1 63
s 3 72
Constitutional Reform and Governance Act 2010 71
Contempt of Court Act 1981 72
Coronavirus Act 2020 69
Crime and Security Act 2001 35, 63
Crime (Sentences) Act 1997
s 3(1) 35
s 29 35, 63
Criminal Justice Act 1988 9
Criminal Justice Act 2003 35
Criminal Justice and Courts Act 201 141, 142
Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994 92, 91, 171
Criminal Proceedings etc (Reform) (Scotland) Act 2007 53
Crown Proceedings Act 1947 8, 23, 64
xxii
Table of Statutes
s 5(2) 32
s 5(4) 211
s 5(5) 211
s 6 210
s 6(3) 210
s 6(5) A-D 210
s 6(6) 210
s 7 209
s 7(1) 209
s 7A 215
s 8 212
European Union (Withdrawal Agreement) Act 2020 25, 33, 29, 48, 78, 206, 218
s 38(1) 29
s 38(2) 29
European Union (Withdrawal) (No 2) Act 2019 70
European Union (Withdrawal) Act 2019 70
European Union Act 2011
s 18 32
Extradition Act 2003 25–6
xxiii
Table of Statutes
xxiv
Table of Statutes
s 11(4) 87
s 11(7)(a) 88
s 11(7)(b) 88
s 11(8) 88
s 11(9) 88
s 12 88–91, 96
s 12(1) 89
s 12(1)(a) 88
s 12(1)(b) 88
s 12(10) 89, 92
s 12(2) 88
s 12(2)(a) 89
s 12(2)(b) 89
s 12(4) 89
s 12(5) 89
s 12(6) 89
s 12(8) 89
s 12(9) 89, 91
s 13 90, 91, 96
s 13(1) 89
s 13(4) 89
s 13(5) 89, 90
s 13(7) 90
s 13(8) 90
s 13(9) 90
s 13(11) 90
s 13(12) 90
s 13(13) 90
s 14 88, 89, 91, 92, 96
s 14(1) 91, 98, 88
s 14(4) 91
s 14(5) 91, 92
s 14(6) 92
s 14(8) 91
s 14A 92, 93, 99
s 14A(1) 92
s 14A(9) 92
s 14B(1) 93
s 14B(2) 93
s 14B(3) 93
s 14B(5) 93
s 14B(6) 93
s 14B(7) 93
s 14C 93
s 16 87, 91
xxv
Table of Statutes
xxvi
1 Constitutional Fundamentals
and Sources of the Constitution
1.1 What is a constitution? 2
1.2 Classifying constitutions 2
1.3 Core constitutional principles 3
1.4 Sources of the UK constitution 4
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 assessment specification in
relation to functioning legal knowledge concerned with core constitutional principles,
including:
• the role of constitutional conventions; and
• prerogative power: relationship with legislation and constitutional conventions.
Note that for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case
names or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. Cases are provided for illustrative
purposes only.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to understand and apply some
fundamental constitutional principles appropriately and effectively, at the level
required of a competent newly qualified solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based
problems and situations, including the ability to:
• explain the meaning of the word ‘constitution’ and understand the ways in which
a constitution may be classified or described;
• appreciate the key principles upon which the UK constitution is based;
• explain the diverse sources of the UK constitution, including constitutional
conventions;
• understand the distinctions between the ‘legal’ and ‘non-legal’ sources of the UK
constitution; and
• understand the relationship between the royal prerogative and constitutional
conventions.
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Constitutional and Administrative Law and EU Law
1.2.1 Written/unwritten
A state with a written constitution will have its constitution set out in a single document.
This document will contain the fundamental laws of the constitution and define the powers of
the different branches of state. It may also contain a Bill of Rights setting out the fundamental
civil liberties to be enjoyed by citizens of the state.
A state with an unwritten constitution will not have its constitution set out in a single
authoritative document. Rather the constitution will be made up of a number of different
sources, such as statute and case law.
Unlike most countries, the UK has an unwritten constitution in the sense that there is no single
authoritative written document that sets out how the government should operate and what the
rights of individual citizens are. Rather, the UK constitution is made up of a variety of different
sources, which you will examine in detail later in this chapter.
1.2.2 Republican/monarchical
A state with a republican constitution will usually have a president (often elected directly or
indirectly) as its head of state. A state with a monarchical constitution will have an unelected
monarch as head of state (although the monarch’s role may be largely ceremonial).
The UK has a monarchical constitution. The head of state is the Queen, who is unelected and
head of state by virtue of her position within the royal family. As you will see later, however,
in practice the Queen exercises little real power. Most of her powers are, by convention,
exercised by the government on her behalf.
1.2.3 Federal/unitary
A state with a federal constitution will have a division of power between the central
government and regional government. A state with a unitary constitution will have a single
sovereign legislative body, with power being concentrated at the centre.
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Constitutional Fundamentals and Sources of the Constitution
The constitution of the UK is unitary. The Parliament at Westminster is the supreme (or
sovereign) law-making body, and other law-making bodies within the UK (such as the Scottish
Parliament or local authorities) derive their law-making powers from powers they have been
given by the Westminster Parliament. However, some commentators argue that, as a result
of devolution, the UK constitution now exhibits some quasi-federal characteristics. As further
powers are devolved, this argument is likely to take on increasing strength.
1.2.4 Rigid/flexible
A state that has a rigid constitution has a constitution that is said to be ‘entrenched’. This
means that the constitution may be changed only by following a special procedure. Most
states with written constitutions tend to be rigid. A state that has a flexible constitution has
a constitution that is comparatively easy to change because no special procedures are
necessary for the constitution to be amended.
As a result of being unwritten, the UK constitution is flexible. Although from a political point of
view it may often be difficult to amend the constitution as some principles attract widespread
adherence across the political spectrum, legally the constitution may be changed quite easily
because there are no lengthy or complex procedures to follow.
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Constitutional and Administrative Law and EU Law
• Laws should be clear –laws should be set out clearly and be accessible, and a citizen
should be punished only for a clearly defined breach of the law.
• Laws should be certain –laws should not operate retrospectively and a citizen should not
be punished for an act that was not a crime at the time they carried out that act.
• There should be equality before the law –all citizens should have equal access to the
legal process for the redress of grievances, and the law should treat all persons in the
same way (for example, the law should not provide special exemptions or ‘get-outs’ for
government officials).
• The judiciary should be independent and impartial –the courts should be sufficiently
independent from the legislature and the executive so that judges can uphold the law
without fear of repercussions from the other branches of state.
4
Constitutional Fundamentals and Sources of the Constitution
In this section, you will consider the different sources of the UK constitution. There are four
principal sources:
(a) Acts of Parliament;
(b) case law;
(c) the royal prerogative; and
(d) constitutional conventions.
Each source will be considered in turn.
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Constitutional and Administrative Law and EU Law
Constitutional Reform Act 2005: This Act reformed the office of Lord Chancellor, transferring
the Lord Chancellor’s powers as head of the judiciary to the Lord Chief Justice and
permitting the House of Lords to elect its own Speaker. It also provided for the creation of
a Supreme Court (to replace the Appellate Committee of the House of Lords) and created
a new body (the Judicial Appointments Commission) to oversee the appointment of judges
(see Chapter 4).
The European Union (Withdrawal) Act 2018: This Act repealed the European Communities
Act 1972 (ECA 1972), which had paved the way for the UK’s membership of the European
Union. It ended the supremacy of EU law and provided for the UK’s exit from the EU. It also
introduced into the UK’s legal systems the concept of retained EU law (see Chapter 10).
Although the above Acts are of great constitutional importance, each was enacted by
Parliament in the same way as any other Act of Parliament. No special procedure or
majority was required. Similarly, these Acts are not ‘entrenched’. In other words, each Act
may be repealed by an ordinary Act of Parliament, just as with any other statute. No special
procedure is required for its repeal. However, as you will see later, some recent Acts of
Parliament, such as the Scotland Act 2016, contain provisions stating that Parliament will not
legislate to achieve certain aims without first holding a referendum on the relevant issue.
As a result of having an unwritten constitution, in strictly legal terms, it is easy for Parliament
to make significant changes to the constitution. In the absence of a written constitution setting
out a ‘higher’ form of law against which all other legislation may be judged (and also as
a result of the development of the doctrine of parliamentary sovereignty), Parliament may
enact such legislation as it wishes and our courts cannot strike down such legislation as being
unconstitutional. Factors that limit Parliament’s ability to change the constitution tend to be
more political, economic or social as opposed to strictly legal. You will consider this further in
Chapter 2.
6
Constitutional Fundamentals and Sources of the Constitution
rulings, and that legal disputes should properly be resolved by the courts. The resolution
of legal disputes by the judiciary is another aspect of the rule of law.
(d) Habeas corpus and individual liberty
Although it is now strengthened by statute, the remedy of habeas corpus, whereby an
individual who has been detained by the state has the right to have the legality of that
detention tested before a court, developed originally through the common law.
(e) Right to a fair hearing
Through the common law, the courts have repeatedly stressed the importance of the right
to a fair hearing as a fundamental constitutional principle and an important part of the
rule of law. The right to a fair trial is also contained in Art 6 of the ECHR, which now forms
part of UK law following the enactment of the HRA 1998.
7
Constitutional and Administrative Law and EU Law
8
Constitutional Fundamentals and Sources of the Constitution
statute conflicted with the prerogative power, so the circulars were unlawful. The court held
that under the royal prerogative the Home Secretary had the power to maintain the Queen’s
Peace and to keep law and order. The court held that the statutory power could co-exist side
by side with the prerogative power, as they were not inconsistent. The prerogative would only
be curtailed if inconsistent with the statutory powers.
The House of Lords took a similar approach in R v Secretary of State for the Home
Department, ex p Fire Brigades Union [1995] 2 AC 513 to the one they had taken in the
De Keyser case. In 1964 the Government had set up a criminal injury compensation scheme
under prerogative powers with compensation being assessed on the basis of common law
damages. Parliament then passed the Criminal Justice Act 1988, which provided for a new
scheme with compensation payable on the same basis. Instead of bringing the Act into force,
the Home Secretary introduced under prerogative powers a new tariff based system which
generally provided less compensation. The claimants challenged the legality of the new
scheme.
The House of Lords held that the new tariff scheme was unlawful. It was an abuse of the
prerogative power to introduce a tariff scheme inconsistent with the statutory scheme
approved by Parliament. Statute had restricted the Home Secretary’s ability to introduce a
prerogative scheme based on inconsistent criteria.
As explained at 1.4.2.3 above, in R (Miller) v Secretary of State for Exiting the European Union
the Supreme Court ruled that the ECA 1972 had curtailed the Government’s powers with
regards to foreign relations. It could not use the prerogative to change domestic law and to
nullify rights that Parliament had created by statute. The accepted current position of law is
accordingly in line with the principle set out in De Keyser.
9
Constitutional and Administrative Law and EU Law
Royal Assent is required for a → The Monarch, on the advice of the Prime Minister,
bill to become a valid Act of always assents to a bill that has passed through
Parliament. The Monarch may Parliament.
refuse to give Royal Assent.
The Monarch constitutes part → The Monarch acts only on the advice of the Prime
of the executive branch of Minister and other ministers, and in practice most
government. decisions are taken by the Prime Minister and other
ministers themselves. Executive powers are exercised
through ministers, who are collectively and individually
responsible to Parliament.
The Government is the ‘Queen’s → The Monarch must appoint as Prime Minister the
government’, and she can person who can command the support of the majority
therefore appoint and dismiss its of the House of Commons (nowadays usually an
members as she chooses. elected party leader successful in a general election).
The Monarch must appoint and dismiss ministers on
the advice of the Prime Minister, all of whom must be
members of the House of Commons or Lords. Most will
be members of the Commons.
10
Constitutional Fundamentals and Sources of the Constitution
foresee the Argentine invasion of the Falkland Islands. Ministerial resignations owing to
departmental failings are, however, comparatively rare. In contrast, resignations relating
to a minister’s personal conduct are more frequent. For example, in November 2017 Priti
Patel resigned as International Development Secretary after conducting unauthorised
meetings with Israeli officials.
(f) Collective cabinet (or ministerial) responsibility. This constitutional convention has several
aspects to it:
(i) The cabinet is collectively responsible to Parliament for the actions of the Government
as a whole, and the Government must retain the confidence of the House of
Commons. A government that is defeated on a vote of ‘confidence’ in the House
of Commons must resign (as did the Labour Government when it lost such a vote
in 1979).
(ii) The cabinet must be united in public in support of government policy, and so a
cabinet minister must resign if he or she wishes to speak out in public against such
policy, as did Robin Cook in 2003, when he wished to voice his opposition to the war
in Iraq, and Boris Johnson in July 2018 over Theresa May’s Brexit policies.
(iii) Cabinet discussions must remain secret.
(g) The unelected House of Lords will not reject legislation that gives effect to an important
manifesto commitment of the democratically elected Government (the ‘Salisbury
Convention’).
(h) The UK Parliament will normally only legislate on a matter that has been devolved
to the Scottish Parliament if the Scottish Parliament has given its consent (the ‘Sewel
Convention’). Note that this convention was inserted into s 28 of the Scotland Act 1998 by
the Scotland Act 2016.
(i) Members of the judiciary do not play an active part in political life.
(j) Ministers and Members of Parliament do not criticise in public individual members of the
judiciary.
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Constitutional and Administrative Law and EU Law
Summary
The UK constitution is unwritten or uncodified. This means that there is no single document that
can be labelled ‘the Constitution’. Nonetheless, the UK does have a constitution with diverse
sources, in particular:
• Statute: These include statutes of constitutional significance such as the HRA 1998 and the
European Union (Withdrawal) Act 2018 (EUWA 2018).
• Case law: Judicial decisions have been responsible for many key constitutional principles,
such as the requirement for government actions to have legal authority and the right to a
fair trial.
• Royal prerogative: This comprises what is left of the Monarch’s arbitrary powers, and has
been very substantially curtailed by statute.
• Constitutional conventions: These are a non-legal source of the constitution and aid the
operation of the UK constitution.
12
Constitutional Fundamentals and Sources of the Constitution
Sample questions
Question 1
The Government is considering introducing a compensation scheme for victims of some
recent floods.
Which of the following best describes the options available to the Government in
relation to the royal prerogative?
A In the absence of statutory authority, the Government cannot use prerogative powers.
B By convention the Government should use statutory powers rather than prerogative
powers.
C The Government can use prerogative powers to introduce a compensation scheme less
generous than an existing statutory scheme.
D In the absence of a statutory scheme, the Government should be able to adopt a
non-statutory scheme and raise funds pursuant to its prerogative powers.
E In the absence of a statutory scheme, the Government should be able to adopt a
non-statutory scheme pursuant to its prerogative powers, subject to Parliament voting
the necessary funds.
Answer
Option E is correct. The type of scheme proposed in this question is similar to the criminal
injuries compensation scheme that was set up using prerogative powers. However,
Parliament will need to authorise expenditure, as the Government cannot use the
prerogative to authorise expenditure; hence option D is wrong.
Option A is wrong because prerogative powers are by definition non-statutory. In the
relatively rare fields where statutory and prerogative powers co-exist, there is no evidence
of a convention that the Government should use statutory powers; therefore option B is
wrong. Option C is also wrong as the Government cannot use a prerogative power in a
way that contradicts a statutory power.
Question 2
The Government is proposing to introduce legislation in Parliament that would breach a
recognised constitutional convention.
Which of the following best describes the constitutional implications of the
Government’s proposals?
A Any legislation passed by Parliament that breaches a recognised constitutional
convention risks being struck down by the Supreme Court.
B The courts will ignore the constitutional convention and apply the legislation.
C Although the courts will recognise the constitutional convention, they will nevertheless
apply the legislation.
D The courts will recognise the constitutional convention, but they will apply the legislation
if the breach of the convention is reasonable.
E It will be illegal for the Government to introduce legislation in Parliament that breaches
a recognised constitutional convention.
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Constitutional and Administrative Law and EU Law
Answer
Option C is correct. Parliament is sovereign and legally can pass any legislation it pleases.
The courts will recognise the convention’s existence, but this will not stop them applying the
legislation.
Option A is wrong because the courts do not have the power to strike down legislation. Option
D is wrong as the courts will apply the legislation irrespective of the convention and whether
the breach is reasonable or not. Equally, there is no legal limit on the type of legislation that
the Government can introduce; hence option E is wrong. On the other hand, the courts will not
ignore the convention, so option B is wrong.
Question 3
A bill has passed through all stages in Parliament and has been submitted to the Monarch
for Royal Assent. The Leader of the Opposition has called on the Monarch to refuse Royal
Assent as the bill, on the Government’s own admission, breaches international law.
Will the Monarch refuse Royal Assent?
A No, because by convention the Monarch always grants Royal Assent to a bill that has
been passed by Parliament.
B No, because by law the Monarch must always grant Royal Assent to a bill that has
been passed by Parliament.
C Yes, because it is unconstitutional for Parliament to pass a bill that breaches
international law.
D Yes, because the bill is invalid due to its breach of international law.
E Yes, because international law is a higher form of law, which the Monarch must obey.
Answer
Option A is correct. Indeed, the last time the Monarch refused Royal Assent to a bill was in
1707. Option B is wrong as it is by convention that the Monarch grants Royal Assent; there
is no law to that effect. Parliament is sovereign and can pass Acts that breach international
law, and there is no precedent for the Monarch to refuse Royal Assent in those circumstances.
Hence options D and E are wrong so far as the UK constitution is concerned.
Whilst there might be academic debate whether or not it is ‘unconstitutional’ for Parliament
to breach international law, that will not affect the granting of Royal Assent, so option C
is wrong.
14
2 Parliament and Parliamentary
Sovereignty
2.1 Parliament 16
2.2 The composition of Parliament 16
2.3 The legislative process 17
2.4 The sovereignty (or supremacy) of Parliament 21
2.5 Limitations on the supremacy of Parliament 24
2.6 Parliamentary privilege 36
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 assessment specification in
relation to functioning legal knowledge concerned with core constitutional principles,
including:
• parliament and parliamentary sovereignty;
• parliamentary privilege; and
• powers and procedures for the enactment, implementation and repeal of primary
and secondary legislation.
Note that for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case
names or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. Cases are provided for illustrative
purposes only.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to understand and apply some
fundamental constitutional principles appropriately and effectively, at the level
required of a competent newly qualified solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based
problems and situations concerned with:
• the role and functions of the UK Parliament;
• the composition of Parliament and the procedure that is followed when legislation
is enacted;
• the nature of the relationship between the House of Commons and the House
of Lords;
• the doctrine of parliamentary sovereignty;
• the limitations on the operation of parliamentary sovereignty in both a domestic
and a European context; and
• parliamentary privilege.
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Constitutional and Administrative Law and EU Law
2.1 Parliament
Parliament consists of three central elements: the House of Commons, the House of Lords
and the Monarch. Of the three elements the House of Commons is the most important.
Parliament’s main functions may be summarised as:
• Scrutinising the work of the Government
• Passing legislation; ie making new laws
• Debating the key issues of the day
• Approving the funding necessary for the Government to carry out its statutory duties and
legislative proposals
• Providing the personnel for Government (since all government ministers are drawn from
either the House of Commons or the House of Lords)
It is actually the Government that is responsible for drafting most legislation that is placed
before Parliament, and so, when it passes legislation, Parliament’s role is that of formal
enactment of legislation rather than making the law on its own initiative.
16
Parliament and Parliamentary Sovereignty
• The Lords Temporal –life peers (currently about 700) created under the Life Peerages Act
1958 and up to 92 hereditary peers.
• The Lords Spiritual (26 senior clergy of the Church of England).
Proposals for reforming the House of Lords and turning it into a partly or wholly elected body
have so far not come to fruition.
2.2.3.2 Duration
The Parliament Act 1911 limits the maximum life of a Parliament to five years. Historically,
however, most Parliaments have not in fact lasted for the full five-year term. Until recently this
was because, acting pursuant to the royal prerogative, the Monarch has dissolved Parliament
at the request of the Prime Minister, and successive Prime Ministers have tried to seek
dissolution at a time when their political parties were popular with the electorate so as to
maximise their chances of success in the subsequent general election.
This has been changed by the Fixed-term Parliaments Act 2011 (FTPA). This provides for fixed
days for polls for parliamentary general elections. The polling day for elections will ordinarily
be the first Thursday in May every five years. The first such polling day was 7 May 2015. The
Act also makes provision to enable the holding of early parliamentary general elections. The
trigger for such general elections is either a vote of no confidence following which the House of
Commons does not endorse a new government within 14 days, or a vote by at least two-thirds
of all MPs in favour of an early election. In April 2017, MPs used this latter provision to vote for
a general election, with 522 MPs voting in favour of an election in June 2017 and 13 against.
In October 2019, following unsuccessful attempts by the Government to obtain the requisite
two-thirds majority to trigger a general election, Parliament enacted the Early Parliamentary
General Election Act 2019 to circumvent the FTPA in order to pave the way for the December
2019 general election. Only a simple majority of MPs was needed for the Act to pass.
In December 2020 the Government submitted a bill to Parliament providing for the repeal of
the FTPA and the revival of the prerogative power to dissolve Parliament.
2.2.3.3 ‘Sessions’
Each Parliament is divided into ‘sessions’. Parliamentary sessions now usually start in the
spring of one year and end in the spring of the next. A session ends when Parliament is
‘prorogued’ by Royal Decree. Prorogation terminates all business pending at the end of
a session. Any public bills that have not passed into law will normally lapse, although it is
possible to carry over public bills from one session to the next, subject to agreement.
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Constitutional and Administrative Law and EU Law
First reading
This stage is purely formal: the title of the bill is read out and it is then printed and published.
Second reading
At this stage the main debate takes place in the House of Commons on the general principles of
the bill.
Committee stage
The bill is usually referred to a general (or public bill) committee, consisting of 16–50 members
appointed by the Committee of Selection. There is proportional representation of parties on
general committees (ie they reflect the division of the parties within the House).
Important bills (for example, bills of constitutional significance or concerned with authorising
government expenditure) or bills that require little discussion because they are uncontroversial
and unimportant may be referred to the ‘Committee of the Whole House’.
The purpose of the committee stage is to examine the bill in detail. Amendments may be made to
its clauses.
Third reading
This stage involves the consideration of the bill as amended - normally the debate is brief and
only verbal amendments may be made. This is the final opportunity to vote on the bill; often MPs
do not.
Royal Assent
Once Royal Assent is received, a bill becomes law and is referred to as an ‘Act of Parliament’.
The Act may suspend its ‘commencement’ until some future date, which may be determined by
delegated legislation made under the Act.
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2.3.3 The relationship between the House of Commons and the House of Lords
Although a bill must be passed by both Houses of Parliament, the House of Commons is
the more important of the two. This is because the members of the House of Commons are
directly elected by the people at a general election, and so the House of Commons has more
democratic legitimacy than the (currently) unelected House of Lords.
By convention the Prime Minister will sit in the House of Commons. Similarly, most cabinet and
junior government ministers will be drawn from the Commons.
The House of Lords is often described as being a ‘revising chamber’. There is a constitutional
convention, the Salisbury Convention, that the House of Lords will not reject a bill giving effect
to a major part of the democratically elected Government’s manifesto. Rather, the House
of Lords will use its considerable expertise to make small changes to legislation with which
it disagrees. Amendments are often proposed during proceedings in the Lords and, in a
significant number of cases, the Government accepts amendments after a defeat there.
If the House of Lords rejects a bill that has passed the House of Commons, the bill may still
eventually become law as a consequence of the provisions of the Parliament Acts of 1911 and
1949; see 2.3.4 below.
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All that a court of justice can do is to look to the Parliamentary Roll: if from that it
should appear that a bill has passed both Houses and received Royal Assent, no
court of justice can enquire into the mode in which it was introduced into Parliament,
what was done previously to it being introduced … or what passed … during its
progress … through Parliament.
This has become known as the ‘Enrolled Act’ rule –once an Act of Parliament has been
entered onto the Parliamentary roll, the courts will not question the validity of that Act or hold
the Act to be void.
In the later case of Pickin v British Railways Board 1974] AC 765, Lord Reid confirmed that the
courts had no power to disregard an Act of Parliament, or to investigate proceedings that had
taken place in Parliament to determine whether there had been any irregularity of procedure
or fraud.
The more recent case of R (Jackson and others) v HM Attorney General [2005] UKHL 56
suggests that the courts may, in certain circumstances, be prepared to consider the validity
of an Act of Parliament. The case concerned a challenge to the validity of the Hunting Act
2004, which had been enacted pursuant to the Parliament Acts 1911 and 1949. As explained
at 2.3.4 above, it was claimed that the 1911 Act could not be used to enact the 1949 Act.
If this argument had succeeded, then the Hunting Act would have been invalid as it had
been passed using the procedure set out in the 1949 Act. A strict application of the ‘Enrolled
Act’ rule would have precluded the House of Lords from considering the case. However, the
House of Lords held that it did have jurisdiction to consider the validity of the Hunting Act
as a question of statutory interpretation of the 1911 Act, namely whether the 1911 Act could
be used to enact the 1949 Act. It thus concluded that there was no conflict with the ‘Enrolled
Act’ rule.
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Parliament and Parliamentary Sovereignty
(d) Statute may operate retrospectively. In Burmah Oil Co v Lord Advocate [1965] AC 75,
Burmah Oil sought compensation from the British for the destruction of oil installations
during World War II (to prevent Japanese forces obtaining control of them). The House
of Lords found that the Crown was liable to pay compensation. Parliament then enacted
the War Damage Act 1965. This Act applied retrospectively and so removed the right to
compensation.
(e) Statute may abolish or curtail aspects of the royal prerogative. Some examples of this
include:
(i) the Crown Proceedings Act 1947, which abolished the immunity of the Crown in
respect of claims made against it in either tort or contract;
(ii) the Fixed-term Parliaments Act 2011, which removed the power of the Monarch to
dissolve Parliament and requires Parliament in future to sit for a fixed period of five
years before a general election will automatically take place (see 2.2.3.2 above);
(iii) R (Miller) v Secretary of State for Exiting the European Union [2017] UKSC 5, where
the Government argued that it could trigger Art 50 of the Treaty on European Union
using its prerogative powers to make or unmake treaties. The majority of the Supreme
Court held that the ECA 1972 was inconsistent with the future exercise by government
ministers of any prerogative power to withdraw from the EU treaties. Any such
withdrawal would need the consent of Parliament. Parliament subsequently passed
the European Union (Notification of Withdrawal) Act 2017.
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2.5.1.2 Devolution
On coming to power in 1997, the Labour Government devolved power to Scotland, Wales and
Northern Ireland. You will cover devolution in more depth in Chapter 3, so in this chapter we
shall simply consider its impact on parliamentary sovereignty.
The Scotland Act 1998 established a Scottish Parliament and Executive. Legislative powers in
certain areas (such as health, education and legal affairs) are devolved to the Parliament.
Other areas (such as foreign affairs and defence) are reserved to the Westminster Parliament.
The Scotland Act 2012 gave additional powers over some aspects of taxation and other areas
to the Scottish Parliament. The Scotland Act 2016 amends the Scotland Act 1998 and includes
provisions stating that:
(a) the Scottish Parliament and Scottish Government are a permanent part of the
constitutional arrangements of the UK;
(b) neither the Scottish Parliament nor Scottish Government may be abolished unless the
people of Scotland vote for this in a referendum; and
(c) the UK Parliament will not normally legislate with regard to devolved matters without the
consent of the Scottish Parliament.
The Scotland Act 2016 also increased the range of devolved powers, including the power to
vary income tax rates and thresholds.
The Government of Wales Act 1998 established a Welsh Assembly, initially without legislative
powers. The Wales Act 2017 has now changed this, so that devolution in Wales follows a
similar format to that in Scotland. Under the Wales Act 2017 the (now commonly known as the
Senedd Cymru) has been devolved power to legislate in those areas that are not reserved to
Westminster. The Wales Act 2017 also mirrors the provisions in the Scotland Act 2016 relating
to permanency, the need for a referendum and setting out the Sewel convention.
The Northern Ireland Act 1998 devolved powers to a Northern Ireland Assembly and created
a ‘power-sharing executive’ (which can be –and indeed on occasions has been –suspended
under the Act). It also contains a provision that Northern Ireland shall not cease to be part of
the UK unless the people of Northern Ireland vote for this in a referendum.
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Parliament and Parliamentary Sovereignty
The most significant devolution of power has been to Scotland under the terms of the Scotland
Act. The Scottish Parliament is not a sovereign legislature in the way that the UK Parliament
is as it derives its powers from the Scotland Act, an Act of the UK Parliament. Although its
legislation is designated as primary legislation, ie the Scottish Parliament has the power to
pass Acts, the Scottish Parliament may legislate only to the extent that it is given power to do
so by the UK Parliament under the Scotland Act.
The UK Parliament can also still legislate for Scotland, although the Sewel Convention provides
that the UK Parliament ‘will not normally legislate with regard to devolved matters without
the consent’ of the devolved legislatures. As a general rule, in normal circumstances the UK
Parliament is unlikely to legislate in devolved areas without the devolved legislature’s consent.
However, aspects of the European Union (Withdrawal Act) 2018 and the European Union
(Withdrawal Agreement) Act 2020 related to devolved matters, even though international
relations are reserved to the UK Parliament. The Scottish Parliament refused to give its
consent to the bills leading up to the 2018 and 2020 Acts, but the UK Parliament nevertheless
enacted them.
Whether the UK Parliament can repeal the Scotland Act 1998 is a matter of debate. The
Scotland Act 2016 states that the Scottish Parliament and Scottish Government are a
permanent part of the constitutional arrangements of the UK, and that neither the Scottish
Parliament nor Scottish Government may be abolished unless the people of Scotland vote
for this in a referendum. Thus, without such a referendum, it would be difficult for the UK
Parliament to do this. Depending on your view of the ‘manner and form debate’ (which
you will consider at 2.5.1.5 below), you may take the view that such difficulties would be
political only. Alternatively, you may take the view that the courts would not uphold legislation
repealing the Scotland Act 1998 in the absence of a referendum.
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The first of these Supreme Court decisions is H v Lord Advocate [2012] UKSC 24, in which
the Supreme Court considered an apparent contradiction between the Extradition Act
2003 and the Scotland Act 1998. The Supreme Court decided that there was no
contradiction between the Acts. Nonetheless, Lord Hope, obiter, went on to consider what
the position would have been had there been a contradiction between the two Acts.
Under the doctrine of implied repeal, the Extradition Act would have prevailed over the
Scotland Act. However, Lord Hope rejected this possibility, stating:
It would perhaps have been open to Parliament to override the [relevant]
provisions of [the Scotland Act] … But in my opinion only an express provision
to that effect could be held to lead to such a result. This is because of the
fundamental constitutional nature of the settlement that was achieved by the
Scotland Act. This in itself must be held to render it incapable of being altered
otherwise than by an express enactment. Its provisions cannot be regarded as
vulnerable to alteration by implication from some other enactment in which an
intention to alter the Scotland Act is not set forth expressly on the face of the
statute. (emphasis added)
Whilst Lord Hope was referring to the Scotland Act, there seems no reason to confine his
reasoning to that Act. The Scotland Act could not be impliedly repealed because of its
‘fundamental constitutional nature’; logically other statutes of a fundamental constitutional
nature, ie those described by Laws LJ as ‘constitutional statutes’, should also be immune to
implied repeal.
The issue of implied repeal was also raised in R (HS2 Action Alliance Ltd) v Secretary of
State for Transport [2014] UKSC 3. The case concerned a challenge to ‘HS2’, the proposed
high speed rail link between London and northern cities. Opponents of HS2 argued the
parliamentary process procedure did not comply with EU Directive 2011/92, which
requires public participation in major infrastructure decisions affecting the environment.
They argued that the parliamentary process did not provide for effective public
participation.
The Supreme Court decided that the Directive did not apply, but nonetheless went on to
consider in some very interesting obiter dicta what the position would have been had
it done so. If it had, the Supreme Court would have been obliged to consider whether
the parliamentary procedure complied with the requirements of the Directive. According
to Lord Reed, this could have impinged ‘upon long-established constitutional principles
governing the relationship between Parliament and the courts, as reflected for example
in article 9 of the Bill of Rights 1689’. This raised the possibility of conflict between
parliamentary privilege as set out in article 9 of the Bill of Rights and EU law, a conflict
that Lord Reed affirmed would have to be ‘resolved by our courts as an issue arising
under the constitutional law of the United Kingdom’.
As this case took place during the UK’s membership of the EU, the House of Lords
accepted the primacy of EU law over national law on the grounds that the ECA 1972
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Parliament and Parliamentary Sovereignty
required UK courts to give effect to that principle. However, it is also clear that the
Supreme Court thought that there were fundamental principles contained in Acts of
Parliament or recognised at common law that will not be overridden even by subsequent
constitutional statutes unless there is unequivocal evidence of parliamentary intention to
amend or repeal them. On the facts, the Supreme Court held the Directive did not require
it to investigate parliamentary procedure. However, if it had done so, the clear tenor of
the judgments of the justices is that the Supreme Court would have refused to carry out
such an investigation on the basis of article 9 of the Bill of Rights, which prohibits the
courts from enquiring into parliamentary procedure. Article 9 of the Bill of Rights would
therefore not have been impliedly repealed by the ECA 1972, which would have required
such an investigation.
In R (Miller) v Secretary of State for Exiting the European Union [2017] UKSC 5, the
Supreme Court referred to the ‘informative discussion’ by Laws LJ in Thoburn and
concluded that ‘[t]he 1972 Act accordingly has a constitutional character’.
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and not binding on domestic courts. Secondly, they argue that the position of the legislature of
New South Wales cannot be seen as analogous to that of the UK Parliament. This is because
the UK Parliament is truly ‘supreme’ (because it was not created by another body), whereas
the Parliament of New South Wales is a subordinate legislature in that it was created by an
Act of the UK Parliament (the Colonial Laws Validity Act 1865). Indeed, it has been suggested
that Trethowan supports the argument that parliamentary sovereignty cannot be limited,
because the case is an example of a subordinate legislature (ie the Parliament of New South
Wales) being kept within the powers granted to it by the supreme UK Parliament.
Some academics who oppose the ‘manner and form’ theory have argued that the meaning
of Parliament was ‘fixed’ following the constitutional restructuring in 1688 and the enactment
of the Bill of Rights in 1689 (see 2.4.2 above). They argue that the meaning of ‘Parliament’
cannot be altered by an ordinary Act of Parliament, and so no Parliament has the power to
redefine this meaning or to place limitations on the way in which a future Parliament may act.
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Other judges have lent support to the view that the rule of law may trump parliamentary
sovereignty in certain circumstances. In Moohan v Lord Advocate [2014] UKSC 67, Lord Hodge
stated, obiter:
I do not exclude the possibility that in the very unlikely event that a parliamentary
majority abusively sought to entrench its power by a curtailment of the franchise or
similar device, the common law, informed by principles of democracy and the rule of
law and international norms, would be able to declare such legislation unlawful.
However, he went on to state that ‘the existence and extent of such a power is a matter
of debate, at least in the context of the doctrine of the sovereignty of the United Kingdom
Parliament’.
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• Directives: Directives set out objectives to be achieved and oblige Member States to pass
domestic legislation themselves to implement those objectives. Directives set a date by
which Member States must implement them.
• Decisions: Decisions are directly binding in the same way as regulations, but only
on those to whom they are addressed, which may be Member States, companies or
individuals.
• Recommendations and opinions: Recommendations and opinions are not binding.
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• Section 3(1): This requires UK courts to apply EU law in accordance with principles laid
down by the ECJ (ie decisions of the ECJ are in effect binding).
Accordingly, during the UK’s membership of the EU, the ECA 1972 required UK courts to
apply EU law in the cases they were hearing. To ensure that the courts of the Member States
interpreted EU law correctly, Article 267 TFEU also enables and sometimes requires national
courts to refer questions of interpretation of EU law to the ECJ. During the UK’s membership
of the EU and the transition period, UK courts often referred questions of EU law to the ECJ
and then applied the EU’s interpretation to the facts of the case they were hearing. The ECJ
developed many key principles of EU law such as direct effect through Article 267 references
from national courts.
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interim injunction, effectively suspending the operation of an Act of Parliament. The effect
of this decision was that the doctrine of implied repeal did not prevent directly effective EU
law prevailing over post-1972 Acts of Parliament where there was a conflict between their
respective provisions. Where a conflict existed, the provisions of directly effective EU law
took precedence by virtue of s 2(4) of the ECA 1972, which had been acknowledged to be a
constitutional statute that could not be subject to implied repeal.
The judgment in Factortame had a profound effect on the doctrine of parliamentary
sovereignty. The House of Lords suspended the operation of an Act of Parliament and held
that, by virtue of s 2(4), directly effective EU law took precedence over conflicting UK law.
However, the reason that the House of Lords did this was because Parliament, by enacting the
ECA 1972, had in effect instructed the courts to do so.
Section 18 of the European Union Act 2011 confirmed this approach by clarifying that any
‘limits’ on sovereignty were imposed only at Parliament’s own behest.
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Whilst the bulk of EU-derived domestic legislation consists of secondary legislation, it also
includes some Acts of Parliament.
• Direct EU legislation: This will consist of EU legislation that applies directly in the UK such
as regulations and decisions.
• Rights etc arising under s 2(1) of the ECA 1972: This will consist of directly effective EU
rights and obligations that do not fall under either of the previous two categories. An
example given in the explanatory notes accompanying the EUWA 2018 is Art 157 TFEU –
equal pay for male and female workers.
One important consequence of legislation falling within the scope of retained EU law is that
it will retain a limited form of supremacy. Whilst the EUWA 2018 will terminate the general
supremacy of EU law, retained EU law will remain supreme over other UK legislation enacted
before the end of the transition period. For example, suppose an Act of Parliament passed in
2010 conflicts with an earlier piece of retained EU law such as an EU regulation adopted in
2005. Under the doctrine of implied repeal, the 2010 Act would prevail over the regulation, but
as retained EU law the EU regulation will prevail over the 2010 Act. However, UK legislation
enacted after the end of the transition period will prevail over retained EU law. It is in this
context important to know if an Act of Parliament is retained EU law. For example, an Act
passed in 2005 that is retained EU law will prevail over a later Act enacted before the end of
the transition period that is not retained EU law.
The European Union (Withdrawal Agreement) Act 2020 also gives direct effect to any
provisions in the Withdrawal Agreement that meet the criteria for direct effect. Chapter 10
covers this in more depth.
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than previously as can be seen, for example, in the comments of the Supreme Court in
R (Hallam) v Secretary of State for Justice [2019] UKSC 2.
(c) Section 3. Primary and secondary legislation must be interpreted in accordance with
Convention rights ‘so far as it is possible to do so’. This applies to legislation passed both
before and after the coming into force of the HRA 1998.
(d) Section 4. Where a court cannot interpret legislation in a manner that makes the
legislation compliant with Convention rights, the courts may make a declaration of
incompatibility. Such a declaration does not invalidate or affect the operation of the
offending Act.
(e) Section 10. Where a declaration of incompatibility has been made under s 4 or a
judgment of the ECtHR makes it clear that legislation is incompatible with Convention
rights, this section creates a ‘fast-track’ procedure that the Government may use to amend
the relevant legislation, if there are ‘compelling reasons’ to do so; alternatively it can
submit a bill to Parliament for this purpose. The Government is not, however, compelled to
amend the offending legislation, and if it decides not to, an aggrieved litigant would have
to take his or her case to the ECtHR to obtain redress.
(f) Section 19. A minister who introduces a government bill into Parliament must, before
the second reading of the bill, either make a statement that the provisions in the bill
are compatible with Convention rights, or alternatively make a statement to the effect
that although they are unable to make a statement of compatibility, the Government
nevertheless wishes the House of Commons to proceed with the bill.
This has been described as a ‘weak’ method of incorporation compared to the ECA 1972. The
drafting of the HRA 1998 was designed specifically to preserve the supremacy of Parliament.
In its White Paper, Rights Brought Home: The Human Rights Bill, the Government said that the
Act was ‘intended to provide a new basis for judicial interpretation of all legislation, not a
basis for striking down any part of it’.
There was a fear that, were a ‘strong’ method of incorporation chosen, the judiciary would
have had the power to strike down Acts of Parliament and deprive such acts of their legal
effect.
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living together and how, therefore, the relevant provisions should be interpreted in the light of
Article 8 of the ECHR (the right to respect for private and family life).
The House of Lords held that, when given its ordinary meaning, the housing legislation
treated survivors of homosexual partnerships less favourably than survivors of heterosexual
partnerships, without any rational or fair ground for such distinction, and this constituted a
breach of the surviving partner’s rights under Art 8 of the Convention. Accordingly the House of
Lords used its power under s 3 of the HRA 1998 to read the housing legislation as extending
to same-sex partners. This took the provisions of the legislation much further than their literal
meaning. The lead judgment was again given by Lord Steyn:
Section 3 requires a broad approach concentrating … in a purposive way on the
importance of the fundamental right involved.
Both cases show that the courts have perhaps gone further than Parliament intended when
exercising their powers of interpretation under s 3. The only occasions on which the courts will
be unable to use their interpretative powers under s 3 to ensure that a statute is compatible with
Convention rights is when to do so would be expressly contrary to the wording of the statute.
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The sole example where Parliament has refused to amend incompatible legislation is Hirst v
United Kingdom (No 2) [2005] ECHR 681, where the ECtHR ruled that a blanket ban on British
prisoners exercising the right to vote was contrary to Article 3 of Protocol 1 to the ECHR (the
right to free elections). The Scottish Registration Appeal Court in Smith v Scott 2007 SC 345
issued a declaration of incompatibility in relation to the ban, but the UK Government and
Parliament remain strongly opposed to amending the incompatible UK legislation, and any
amendments to UK legislation seem highly unlikely. Instead a compromise was reached,
with the Government allowing prisoners who are released on temporary licence or on home
detention curfew to vote (this did not require a change in legislation). The Council of Europe in
December 2018 accepted that this is sufficient to comply with the ECtHR’s judgment.
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Parliament and Parliamentary Sovereignty
2.6.2 The right to control its own composition and procedures –‘exclusive cognisance’
Parliament has sole control over all aspects of its own affairs: to decide for itself what
procedures it should adopt, whether any of its procedures have been breached and, if so,
what the consequences will be. This has been largely accepted by the courts who will not
question the validity of an Act on the basis that correct procedures were not followed (Pickin v
British Railways Board [1974] AC 765).
Parliament’s right to regulate its own affairs includes disciplinary powers over MPs; eg the
right to suspend them for misconduct. It also includes the right to punish anyone, including
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non-members, for contempt of Parliament –any conduct that might substantially prevent or
hinder the work of either House. In theory, Parliament may punish contempt by imprisonment,
though this has not occurred since the 19th century. More usually, offenders are given
reprimands. In December 2018 MPs voted to hold the Government in contempt of Parliament.
The Government had refused to release the legal advice given by the Attorney General
Geoffrey Cox to the then Prime Minister, Theresa May, regarding an agreement that the UK
had reached with the EU, despite Parliament passing a motion demanding that it be made
available. After the contempt motion, the Government published the advice. However, there
were no further consequences.
Summary
Parliament is one of the key actors in the UK constitution. It is the legislative branch of
government, but also performs other vital functions such as scrutinising the Government’s
policies and also providing the personnel of government.
Most Acts of Parliament are passed by both the House of Commons and the House of Lords.
However, the Parliament Acts 1911 and 1949 provide a procedure that enables the Commons
to bypass the Lords and submit a bill for Royal Assent without the Lords’ consent.
Parliamentary sovereignty is one of the fundamental features of the UK constitution. In theory
this means Parliament can pass any law it wants to and no one (including the courts) can
challenge an Act of Parliament. However, there are limitations on parliamentary sovereignty –
domestic and European.
Domestic limitations include:
• The impact of devolution
• The concept of constitutional statutes that cannot be impliedly repealed
• The ‘manner and form’ debate
• The rule of law
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Parliament and Parliamentary Sovereignty
The European limitations arise from the UK’s membership of the EU and the incorporation of
the ECHR into UK law. Whilst the UK left the EU on 31 January 2020, an understanding of the
impact of EU law in the UK remains essential.
You should also check your understanding of parliamentary sovereignty by considering the
summary diagram set out in Figure 2.1.
Proceedings in Parliament are absolutely privileged. This is to ensure that parliamentarians
can perform their duties without outside interference.
Definition (Dicey):
• Parliament may make or unmake
any law it likes
• No other person or body may override
this legislation or set it aside
Domestic limitations:
• Act of Union
• Devolution
• Grants of Independence History and development:
• Limits on implied repeal (Thoburn ) • Bill of Rights (1689), art 9
• ‘Manner and form’ debate • ‘Enrolled Act’ rule (Wauchope/
• ‘Henry VIII’ powers BRB v Pickin )
• Rule of law (Jackson )
Parliamentary Sovereignty
Express/Implied repeal:
• A later statute may expressly repeal
the contents of an earlier statute.
• A later statute will impliedly repeal the
contents of an earlier statute to the
extent of any inconsistency between
them (Ellen Street Estotes )
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Sample questions
Question 1
Assume that Parliament passed an Act (fictitious) in 2021 giving voting rights to 16-and
17-year-olds in local government elections in England. Following a change of government,
Parliament passed another Act in 2024 removing the voting rights of 16-and 17-year-olds.
The Act of 2024, however, makes no reference to the Act of 2021. A 16-year-old who has
been barred from voting in a local government election wants to challenge in court the loss
of her voting rights.
Will the challenge by the 16-year-old be successful?
A No, because the Act of 2024 impliedly repealed the inconsistent provisions contained in
the Act of 2021.
B No, because the Act of 2024 contained express words making clear the intention to
repeal the voting rights of 16-and 17-year-olds.
C Yes, because the Act of 2021 is a constitutional statute and cannot be impliedly
repealed.
D Yes, because the Act of 2024 did not expressly repeal the Act of 2021, a constitutional
statute.
E Yes, because the Act of 2024 did not refer to the Act of 2021, a constitutional statute.
Answer
Option B is correct. The Act of 2021, dealing with the franchise for local elections, is clearly a
constitutional statute. In Thoburn, Laws LJ stated that constitutional statutes cannot be impliedly
repealed, so option A is wrong. However, constitutional statutes may be repealed by express
words or words so specific that make Parliament’s intention to repeal very clear. The wording
of the Act of 2024 removing the voting rights of 16-and 17-year-olds seems very clear.
Whilst option C is correct in stating that constitutional statutes cannot be impliedly repealed,
in this instance the words of the Act of 2024 are sufficiently clear to repeal the Act of 2021.
Options D and E are wrong due to the clarity of the wording of the Act of 2024.
Question 2
The Government is considering introducing a bill that it believes will violate Convention
rights.
Which of the following best describes whether the Government can proceed with
the bill?
A The Government cannot proceed with the bill as the Human Rights Act 1998 precludes
the passage of legislation that violates Convention rights.
B The Government cannot proceed with the bill as the Human Rights Act 1998 is a
constitutional statute, which cannot be impliedly repealed.
C The Government can proceed with the bill. However, the minister introducing the bill
must state that, although they are unable to make a statement of compatibility, the
Government nevertheless wishes the House of Commons to proceed with the bill.
D The Government can proceed with the bill. However, the minister introducing the bill
must state that the Government wishes the House of Commons to proceed using the
procedures set out in the Parliament Acts 1911 and 1949.
E The Government can proceed with the bill. Parliament is sovereign and can expressly
or impliedly repeal the Human Rights Act 1998.
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Parliament and Parliamentary Sovereignty
Answer
The correct answer is C. The Human Rights Act 1998 preserved parliamentary sovereignty as
it permits the Government to proceed with a bill that violates Convention rights, subject to the
minister responsible for the bill making a statement on the proposed legislation’s compatibility
with Convention rights. Accordingly option A is wrong as the 1998 Act does not preclude
legislation that violates Convention rights. Although the 1998 Act is a constitutional statute,
option B is wrong as the doctrine of implied repeal does not prevent Parliament expressly
passing legislation violating human rights.
Option D is wrong because the Parliament Acts 1911 and 1949 enable the House of Commons
to override the House of Lords when enacting legislation. They have no direct connection with
the 1998 Act.
Option E is wrong because the Human Rights Act 1998 has been recognised by the courts as
a constitutional statute and so cannot be impliedly repealed.
Question 3
An MP makes a speech in a parliamentary debate in which she defames a well-known
celebrity. The statement is clearly untrue.
Which of the following best describes whether the celebrity can sue the MP?
A The celebrity cannot sue unless the Speaker of the House of Commons certifies that he
may proceed.
B The celebrity cannot sue as statements in parliamentary proceedings are absolutely
privileged.
C The celebrity can sue because parliamentary privilege does not protect statements that
are clearly untrue.
D The celebrity can sue because the MP has abused parliamentary privilege by making
an untrue statement.
E The celebrity can sue because the courts have decided that defamation proceedings
do not interfere with Parliament’s core business.
Answer
Option B is correct. MPs are immune from civil and criminal proceedings regarding anything
they say in parliamentary proceedings. This is based on article 9 of the Bill of Rights –
freedom of speech.
Option A is wrong because the privilege is absolute and the Speaker cannot waive
it. Whilst there are concerns that MPs may abuse parliamentary privilege by making
defamatory statements, the courts have no jurisdiction even if they do. Options C and D are
therefore wrong.
Option E is wrong, as the reasoning in it relates to the criminal prosecution of MPs for false
accounting in relation to expenses claims.
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3 Devolution
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 assessment specification in
relation to functioning legal knowledge concerned with core constitutional principles,
including:
• the status of the devolved institutions and their relationship with Westminster.
Note that for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case
names or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. Cases are provided for illustrative
purposes only.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to understand and apply some
fundamental constitutional principles appropriately and effectively, at the level
required of a competent newly qualified solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based
problems and situations concerned with:
• the creation of the Scottish Parliament, the Senedd Cymru of Wales (the Welsh
Parliament) and the Northern Ireland Assembly;
• the composition of the devolved institutions (legislative and executive);
• the powers of the devolved legislatures;
• the relationship between the devolved institutions and the UK Government and
Parliament; and
• the role of the courts regarding devolution issues.
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3.1.1 Scotland
Scotland was a separate country with a separate legal system and constitution until the Act
of Union 1707. From the accession of James I (VI of Scotland) in 1603 Scotland had shared
the same monarch as England and Wales. The effect of the Act of Union (and similar Scottish
legislation) was to abolish the separate Parliaments of England and Wales, and Scotland,
and to create a single Parliament of Great Britain, with authority over all three countries. In
certain key areas, for example the legal system, education and local government, Scotland
has remained distinct from England.
3.1.2 Wales
Wales was militarily conquered by Edward I, the English King, in 1283 and after that English
influence steadily grew. Under Henry VIII, the English Parliament passed the Laws in Wales
Acts 1535–1542 (subsequently labelled the Acts of Union) under which Wales was effectively
incorporated into England. The Welsh were granted the same rights as the King’s subjects
in England, and Welsh constituencies were added to the House of Commons. English was
declared to be the official language of the law.
Over the centuries that followed there was only limited constitutional recognition of the
distinctiveness of Wales, and it was not until 1964 that the UK Government created the cabinet
post of Secretary of State for Wales. The Welsh Language Act 1967 permitted the use of the
Welsh language in legal proceedings in Wales.
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Assembly collapsed in 1974 and the Northern Ireland Act 1974 then made provision for the
Government of Northern Ireland. The 1974 Act authorised the dissolution of the Northern
Ireland Assembly and transferred its legislative powers to the Queen in Council, ie the UK
Government.
In April 1998 the UK Government agreed proposals for constitutional change with the Irish
Government and various political parties in Northern Ireland. The proposals were submitted
to the electorate in both Northern Ireland and the Irish Republic in May 1998, and approved
by referendum. As a result, Parliament passed the Northern Ireland Act 1998, which devolved
legislative powers to a new Northern Ireland Assembly and created a ‘power-sharing
executive’. Further details are at 3.5.3 below.
However, in January 2017 the Northern Ireland executive collapsed and was not reconstituted
until January 2020.
3.2 Devolution
The United Kingdom is a unitary state. Although it comprises four countries, the Westminster
Parliament is sovereign and can, in theory at least, pass whatever legislation it likes for all
four countries. It is the one principal source of legal power in the UK and has the competence
to legislate for the whole of the UK at all levels. This is in contrast to a federal state where the
constitution gives powers to different levels of government, the federal government and state
governments, as in the USA and Germany. In a federal state the constitution will allocate certain
powers to the federal government, usually those relating to foreign policy, defence, immigration,
tariffs and responsibility for the country’s currency. There will be certain powers that can be
exercised concurrently by the federal and state governments, whilst the constitution will allocate
other powers such as education and ownership of property exclusively to the states. In a modern
state the division of powers between federal and state governments can raise highly complex
legal issues, but in simple terms if the federal government passes legislation on a matter
exclusively allocated to the states, then the courts can strike that legislation down.
The UK remains a unitary state despite devolution. The UK Parliament has devolved legislative
powers in many fields to the Scottish Parliament and Welsh and Northern Ireland assemblies.
However, the crucial difference between the UK and a federal state is that the UK Parliament
has delegated certain powers to the devolved legislatures and legally could revoke those
powers. The UK Parliament remains supreme, and so retains the power to legislate on all
devolved matters and to override the devolved legislatures. Whilst overriding the devolved
legislatures could have very significant political consequences, it is legally possible for the
UK Parliament to do so. Unlike in a federal state, power is not divided between the different
levels of government. Instead, the UK Parliament has delegated some of its powers to the
devolved legislatures without giving up those powers.
The political and legal impact of devolution has nonetheless been significant. The UK has
moved from being a very centralised state with power concentrated in London to one where,
in some areas at least, power is dispersed across the four countries.
3.3 Scotland
The first attempt at devolution in Scotland occurred in the late 1970s. The Scotland Act 1978
provided for the creation of a devolved assembly, subject to confirmation in a referendum.
The Act also required 40% of the eligible electorate to vote in favour of devolution. However,
although a majority of those voting supported the creation of the assembly, they represented
only 32.9% of the eligible electorate.
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Following the election of a new Labour Government in May 1997, the Referendums (Scotland
and Wales) Act 1997 paved the way for referendums on devolution in Wales and Scotland,
and a substantial majority of Scottish voters supported the creation of a Scottish Parliament.
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Originally, the Scottish Parliament also had the power to raise or cut income tax by 3p in the
pound, a power it never used. Since April 2016 the Scottish Parliament has had the power to
set a different rate of income tax in Scotland, known as the Scottish Rate of Income Tax (SRIT).
Since April 2017 it has had the power to set the tax band thresholds (excluding the personal
allowance) as well as the rates. This applies to all non-savings and non-dividend income of
Scottish taxpayers.
The Scotland Act 1998 provides that an Act of the Scottish Parliament is not law so far as
any of its provisions are outside the legislative competence of the Parliament, and expressly
specifies which areas are outside its competence. Provisions outside its legislative competence
are those that:
• would form part of the law of any territory other than Scotland;
• relate to reserved matters;
• modify certain enactments, including specified provisions of the Union with Scotland Act
1706 and the Union with England Act 1707 so far as they relate to the freedom of trade,
certain specified provisions of the ECA 1972 (until the end of the transition period), the
EUWA 2018 and the HRA 1998;
• are incompatible with the ECHR and with European Union law (although, following the
UK’s exit from the EU, the position is complex, but there are some restrictions on the
Scottish Parliament’s competence to legislate contrary to retained EU law); or
• would remove the Lord Advocate from their position as head of the systems of criminal
prosecution and investigation of deaths.
The minister in charge of a bill must make a statement that, in their view, the provisions of
the bill are within the Scottish Parliament’s legislative competence. The Presiding Officer must
also make a statement on legislative competence, but this differs from that of the minister in
charge. Whilst the minister’s statement must assert the Parliament’s legislative competence,
the Presiding Officer’s statement may, with reasons, indicate that in their opinion the bill is
outside its competence. A statement by the Presiding Officer in such terms does not preclude
the bill from proceeding. Neither opinion is, however, conclusive on the Parliament’s legislative
competence. Therefore, the Advocate General (the UK Government’s chief adviser legal
adviser on Scots law), the Lord Advocate (see 3.3.3 below) or the Attorney General may
refer to the Supreme Court the question whether a bill or any of its provisions are within the
Parliament’s legislative competence.
The Scotland Act 1998 also provides that where a provision in an Act of the Scottish
Parliament could be read as being outside its legislative competence, such a provision is
to be read as narrowly as is required for it to be within competence, if such a reading is
possible.
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not normally legislate on devolved matters in Scotland without the consent of the Scottish
Parliament. This convention has been labelled ‘the Sewel Convention’ after Lord Sewel, the
minister who first announced the policy. The convention was also extended to Wales and
Northern Ireland, and was incorporated in a series of memorandums of understanding
between the UK Government and the devolved administrations.
There is now statutory recognition of the Sewel Convention, as the Scotland Act 2016 added
a provision to the 1998 Act providing that the UK Parliament ‘will not normally legislate with
regard to devolved matters without the consent of the Scottish Parliament’ (s 28(8)). However,
this does not affect s 28(7) of the 1998 Act, which provides that the creation of the Scottish
Parliament does not affect the power of the UK Parliament to make laws for Scotland. The
Sewel Convention does not affect parliamentary sovereignty. The Supreme Court affirmed
this in R (Miller) v Secretary of State for Exiting the European Union [2017] UKSC 5 by holding
that the Sewel Convention, despite its recognition in statute, created no legal obligation on
the UK Parliament to seek the consent of the Scottish Parliament before passing legislation to
leave the European Union. Whilst the Sewel Convention provides a political constraint on the
Westminster Parliament, it is not the role of the courts to police it.
When the UK Parliament wants to legislate on a matter devolved to the Scottish Parliament, it
will, pursuant to the Sewel Convention, seek the Scottish Parliament’s consent before enacting
the legislation in question. The Scottish Parliament will give its consent through Legislative
Consent Motions (LCMs). LCMs are often uncontroversial. For example, suppose the UK
Parliament is considering legislation extending to Scotland that pertains to both devolved and
reserved matters, for example because it deals with technical issues that are sensibly handled
on a UK-wide basis. If the Scottish Parliament supports the legislation, it is more convenient for
the UK Parliament to deal with it. This avoids the need for two pieces of legislation, an Act of
the UK Parliament and an Act of the Scottish Parliament.
Whilst the Scottish Parliament has often been willing to pass LCMs, it has refused to do so
regarding much of the legislation regarding the UK’s withdrawal from the European Union.
For example, it refused consent to the EUWA 2018 and the European Union (Withdrawal
Agreement) Act 2020. Indeed, all three devolved legislatures refused consent to the 2020 Act.
Nonetheless, the UK Parliament proceeded with their enactment.
3.4 Wales
As with Scotland, there was also an abortive attempt at devolution in the late 1970s. Under
the then Labour Government, Parliament passed the Wales Act 1978, which provided for
the creation of a devolved assembly in Wales, provided Welsh voters supported it in a
referendum. However, in the ensuing Welsh referendum, 80% of the electorate voted against
devolution.
Following the election of a new Labour Government in May 1997, in the referendum triggered
by the Referendums (Scotland and Wales) Act 1997, there was a very narrow majority in
favour of devolution. Parliament then enacted the Government of Wales Act 1998, which
established the National Assembly of Wales. The 1998 Act granted the National Assembly
the power to pass delegated legislation in certain specified fields. In contrast to the reserved
powers model, this was termed a ‘conferred powers’ model as it limited the competence
of the National Assembly to those powers specifically granted to it. Initially there was no
distinction between the legislative and executive branches of the National Assembly, but the
Government of Wales Act 2006 split it into two parts, the National Assembly (the legislature)
and the Welsh Assembly Government, now simply called the Welsh Government (the
executive).
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property. Policing and criminal justice were originally reserved matters but in April 2010 they
were devolved and so became transferred matters.
The minister in charge of a bill must make a statement on or before its introduction that in
their opinion the bill is within the legislative competence of the Assembly. The Presiding Officer
(the Assembly’s equivalent to the Speaker) must refer to the Secretary of State any bill that the
Presiding Officer considers relates to an excepted or reserved matter.
There is also some entrenched legislation that the Assembly cannot amend, the most
significant being the HRA 1998 and many provisions in the Northern Ireland Act 1998 and,
until the end of the transition period, the ECA 1972; the same restrictions that apply to the
Scottish Parliament’s and Senedd Cymru’s legislative competence regarding retained EU law
apply to the Northern Ireland Assembly.
Legislation that discriminates against any person or class of person on the ground of religious
belief or political opinion is also outside the Assembly’s competence. Also, where primary
legislation is capable of being interpreted as within the Assembly’s legislative competence or
outside a competence, then it should be interpreted as being within a competence.
The Sewel Convention applies to Northern Ireland but, unlike the position in Scotland and
Wales, it does not have express statutory recognition.
The Assembly comprises 90 members known as Members of the Legislative Assembly
(‘MLAs’). Members are elected under the single transferable vote form of proportional
representation. Originally, elections were to be held every four years, but they now take place
every five years. An early (extraordinary) election will take place if two-thirds of MLAs vote in
favour of it or ministerial offices are not filled within the requisite time limit. The next election
must take place on or before 5 May 2022.
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Summary
The process of devolution in its modern form began in 1998 with the enactment by the UK
Parliament of legislation providing for the creation of devolved legislatures and governments
in Scotland, Wales and Northern Ireland. Since 1998, the UK Parliament has granted
increasing powers to the devolved legislatures –the Scottish Parliament, the Senedd Cymru or
Welsh Parliament, and the Northern Ireland Assembly.
Those three legislatures can only pass Acts on devolved matters (or ‘transferred’ areas in
the case of Northern Ireland), with reserved matters (or reserved and excepted in Northern
Ireland) remaining with the UK Parliament. The UK Parliament can still legislate in devolved
areas, but under the Sewel Convention does ‘not normally’ do so without the consent of the
relevant devolved legislature.
In each of the devolved legislatures the minister introducing a bill and the Presiding Officer
must make statements regarding whether the provisions of the bill are within the legislature’s
legislative competence. However, the courts are the final arbiter of whether legislation passed
by the devolved legislatures are within their competence.
Sample questions
Question 1
The minister in charge of a bill being presented to the Scottish Parliament has asked
for advice on whether they can make a statement that the bill is within the Parliament’s
legislative competence. The minister’s main concern is that the bill amends an Act of the UK
Parliament.
Can the minister make a statement that the bill is within the Parliament’s legislative
competence?
A No, because the bill amends an Act of the UK Parliament, which is a reserved matter.
B No, because amending Acts of the UK Parliament is explicitly excluded from the
Scottish Parliament’s legislative competence.
C No, because secondary legislation cannot be used to amend primary legislation.
D Yes, because the Scottish Parliament has full power to amend Acts of the UK Parliament
as Acts of the Scottish Parliament are primary legislation.
E Yes, because the Scottish Parliament has power to amend Acts of the UK Parliament
unless the subject matter of the bill is outside its legislative competence.
Answer
Option E is correct. The Scottish Parliament has power to amend Acts of the UK Parliament
unless the subject-matter of the bill is outside the legislative competence of the Scottish
Parliament.
Option A is wrong as Acts of the UK Parliament are not in themselves reserved matters. The
subject matter of some Acts are reserved matters, but the Acts concerned must be specifically
listed in the devolution legislation. Option B is wrong. Although there are some protected
statutes such as the Human Rights Act 1998, which the Scottish Parliament cannot amend, Acts
of the UK Parliament are not in general protected.
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Option C is wrong as Acts of the Scottish Parliament are primary legislation. Although the
Scottish Parliament is not sovereign in the way that the UK Parliament is, its Acts are still
primary legislation. In any event, it is possible for secondary legislation to amend primary
legislation. See for example Henry VIII powers discussed in Chapter 2.
Option D is wrong as, unlike the UK Parliament, there are limits on the Scottish Parliament’s
legislative competence.
Question 2
The Senedd Cymru, or Welsh Parliament, has passed an Act of the Senedd promoting
tourism. The Government of Wales Act 2006 (as amended) does not list tourism as a
devolved matter. A business affected by the Act has challenged it by way of judicial review
on the grounds that it is outside the Senedd’s legislative competence and irrational.
Which of the following best describes the approach the courts are likely to take to the
challenge?
A The courts will reject the challenge on the basis of the ‘Enrolled Act’ rule. UK courts will
not allow challenges to primary legislation.
B The courts will reject the challenge unless tourism is listed in the 2006 Act as a reserved
matter.
C The courts will uphold the challenge as the 2006 Act has not expressly devolved tourism
to the Senedd.
D The courts will uphold the challenge if they consider that the Act of the Senedd is
irrational.
E The courts will reject the challenge as only the law officers of the UK Government
or devolved governments have the standing to challenge Acts of the devolved
legislatures.
Answer
Option B is correct. The reserved powers model applies to the Senedd. This means that the
Senedd has the power to pass legislation on all matters which are not explicitly reserved
to the Westminster Parliament. (In fact, tourism is not a reserved matter so the Act will be
within the Senedd’s legislative competence.)
Option A is wrong because the Enrolled Act rule only applies to Acts of the UK Parliament,
which is a sovereign legislature. Option C is wrong, because under the reserved powers
model devolved matters are all those matters except for those that are reserved. Originally,
the conferred powers model applied in Wales; ie the National Assembly only had powers
over the matters expressly devolved to it. However, the reserved powers model now applies
to the Senedd.
Option D is wrong as the Supreme Court has stated that Acts of the devolved legislatures
cannot be challenged on common law grounds such as irrationality. Option E is wrong as
individuals (including businesses) do have the standing to challenge Acts of the devolved
legislatures.
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Question 3
The UK Parliament has passed an Act (fictitious) creating a new criminal offence in England
and Wales. The criminal offence relates to a matter that has not been reserved to the UK
Parliament. The Senedd Cymru has not passed a legislative consent motion in relation to
the Act as it opposed the legislation. A man has been prosecuted for committing the new
criminal offence in Wales. The man claims that he has not committed a criminal offence as
the Act creating it is unenforceable in Wales.
Will the courts uphold the man’s claim?
A Yes, because the UK Parliament does not have the competence to legislate on
devolved matters.
B Yes, because the Senedd Cymru has not passed a legislative consent motion.
C No, because the UK Parliament has power to pass Acts covering the whole of the UK
even if the devolved legislature opposes the legislation.
D No, because the Senedd Cymru lacks competence regarding criminal offences even in
relation to devolved matters.
E No, because the Senedd Cymru has not formally vetoed the application of the Act
in Wales.
Answer
Option C is correct. The Westminster Parliament remains sovereign notwithstanding devolution.
It can therefore can pass Acts for the whole of the UK pertaining to devolved matters even in
the face of opposition from the devolved legislatures. Although the Sewel Convention provides
that the UK Parliament will not normally legislate on a devolved matter without the devolved
legislature’s consent, it has the competence to do so as the Sewel Convention is not legally
enforceable. Accordingly, options A and B are both wrong.
Options D and E are wrong as they give incorrect reasons for why the courts will reject the
man’s claim. Contrary to what option D states, the Senedd Cymru does have the power to
create new offences relating to devolved matters. Option E incorrectly suggests that the
Senedd Cymru has a veto over Acts of the UK Parliament; as explained above, the UK
Parliament is sovereign.
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4 Legitimacy, Separation
of Powers and the Rule of Law
4.1 Legitimacy 60
4.2 The rule of law 60
4.3 The separation of powers 65
4.4 The relationship between the executive and the judiciary 72
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 assessment specification in
relation to functioning legal knowledge concerned with core constitutional principles,
including:
• the separation of powers and the rule of law.
Note that for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case
names or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. Cases are provided for illustrative
purposes only.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to understand and apply some
fundamental constitutional principles appropriately and effectively, at the level
required of a competent newly qualified solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based
problems and situations, including the ability to:
• explain what is meant by the idea of the ‘rule of law’, using traditional and
modern interpretations, and appreciate the importance of this principle;
• appreciate the extent of judicial and statutory recognition of the rule of law;
• describe the doctrine of the separation of powers and explain the reason(s)
behind its development;
• understand and analyse the relationship between the executive, legislative and
judicial branches of state in the UK; and
• assess the extent to which the UK constitution demonstrates a separation of
powers between the different branches of state.
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4.1 Legitimacy
The rules that determine whether a particular law has been legally enacted require
justification. Individuals need to know why they should obey the law of the land, even if at
times it may be inconvenient and on occasion disadvantageous to do so. Political power must
be derived from a valid source of authority in terms of shared beliefs on the part of society as
a whole to command the respect of citizens. In addition, the rules of power must ensure that
the people who wield power have the appropriate qualities to do so and that they govern
in the general interest. There need to be constraints on the rulers to ensure that they do not
abuse their power. To protect society, the rulers should not have untrammelled powers; their
conduct should be subject to adjudication by the courts to ensure that they act lawfully.
Events in South Africa during the apartheid era show that it is not enough for correct
procedures to be followed in order for laws to be legitimate. The racially discriminatory laws
that deprived black South Africans of voting rights, denied them the right to own property in
most of the country and enforced rigid segregation were all validly enacted under the South
African constitution, which could be traced back to an Act of the Westminster Parliament, the
South Africa Act 1909. However, the apartheid system blatantly lacked legitimacy as it resulted
in the gross oppression of the black majority by a white minority government.
The rule of law and separation of powers are two key constitutional principles that buttress
the legitimacy of the UK’s constitution. They help to ensure the legitimacy of the laws to which
British citizens and residents are subject.
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2. ‘… no man is above the law…every This element is concerned with equality before the
man and woman, whatever be his rank law. This means not only equality between citizens,
or condition, is subject to the ordinary but also between public officials and citizens. Thus:
law of the realm and amenable to the • L ike cases should be treated in like ways; there
jurisdiction of the ordinary tribunals’ should be no unjustified discrimination (for
example, on the grounds of race or gender).
• S tate officials have no exemption from legal
control or accountability as a result of their
position, and are subject to the ‘ordinary’ law of
the land (see Entick v Carrington in Chapter 1).
•M embers of the executive should not legislate
or adjudicate in court cases (this links to the
principle of the separation of powers).
3. ‘… the general principles of the Dicey sees the courts as protectors of individual
constitution (for example, the right to liberty, thereby developing constitutional principles
personal liberty, or the right of public through ‘ordinary’ judicial decisions (this links
meeting) are with us as a result of judicial to case law being an important source of
decisions … in particular cases brought constitutional law –see Chapter 1).
before the courts.’
Now that we have given a more up-to-date meaning to Dicey’s view of the rule of law, you
also need to understand why upholding the rule of law is such an important principle of the
UK constitution.
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(c) the law is set out clearly for all citizens and is made properly following a set procedure;
(d) the law does not operate retrospectively (ie someone should not be punished for an act
that was not a crime at the time he carried out that act, if that act subsequently becomes
a crime);
(e) there is equality before the law for all citizens;
(f) there is equal access to the law and the Government or state has no special exemptions
or ‘get-outs’;
(g) citizens have a means of legal redress for their grievances; and
(h) the independence of the judiciary is maintained, thereby preserving the separation of
powers and preventing the Government from exercising its powers in an arbitrary way.
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• Section 1 of the Constitutional Reform Act 2005 (a statute that you will look at later in this
chapter) acknowledges the importance of ‘the constitutional principle of the rule of law’
although, perhaps because of the difficulties of definition, does not seek to define it.
• In R (Jackson) v Attorney General [2005] UKHL 56, Lord Hope spoke of the rule of law
enforced by the courts as ‘the ultimate controlling factor on which our constitution is
based’.
Whilst these examples may seem academic, the courts have also been willing to use the rule
of law to justify their judgments.
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Legitimacy, Separation of Powers and the Rule of Law
The notion of equality before the law and the rule of law were clearly central to the judgment
of the House of Lords. The UK constitution does not grant special privileges or immunities to
officers of the state.
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Legitimacy, Separation of Powers and the Rule of Law
thereby preventing the exercise of tyrannical and arbitrary government by the executive (which
they saw as the weakness of the British constitution).
The absence of a ‘break’ in the constitutional history of the UK means that our constitution has
developed on an ad hoc basis and remains unwritten or uncodified. As a result of having an
unwritten constitution, no formal system or arrangement has been put in place to ensure that
the separation of powers is maintained. Instead, a partial separation of powers between the
three branches of state exists, together with a largely informal system of checks and balances.
Although there is no formal separation of powers within the UK constitution, you saw in
Chapter 1 that it is possible to identify the persons or bodies that make up the branches of
state in the UK.
The executive branch of state is made up of the Queen, the Prime Minister and other
government ministers, the civil service, and the members of the police and armed forces.
You may come across the terms ‘central government’ and ‘the Crown’ in connection with the
executive. Central government comprises the Queen, government ministers and members of
the civil service. The Crown is the central government plus members of the police and the
armed forces.
The legislative branch of state is made up of the Queen, the House of Lords and the House of
Commons.
The judicial branch of state is made up of the Queen, all legally qualified judges, and
magistrates.
Although the Queen is part of all three branches of state, her role is largely ceremonial. The
Government is legally the ‘Queen’s Government’, although in reality government ministers
are appointed by the Prime Minister and, by convention, most of the Queen’s legal powers
are exercised by the Government on her behalf. You considered some examples of this in
Chapter 1.
The Queen is part of the legislature because she must give Royal Assent before a bill that has
passed through Parliament becomes an Act of Parliament. Although legally the Queen may
refuse to give Royal Assent to a bill, by convention she will always give this (see Chapter 1).
The Queen is also head of the judiciary. Judges are the ‘Queen’s judges’ and the courts
are the ‘Queen’s courts’. That is why criminal cases are always cited: ‘R v …’ –‘R’ stands for
‘Regina’ (or ‘Rex’) or the Crown. The Queen does not, however, exercise any judicial power.
In the rest of this chapter you will consider the degree of separation and overlap between the
branches of state in the UK.
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Some commentators have gone further, however, and have suggested that the Government
effectively controls Parliament. In 1976, Lord Hailsham, a former Lord Chancellor,
characterised the system of government in the UK as being an ‘elective dictatorship’.
The phrase ‘elective dictatorship’ means that, although the people elect the Government
whenever a general election takes place, once that Government has been elected it can
generally act as it pleases and get Parliament to enact its legislative programme in full.
The only limitation on the Government is that it must submit itself for re-election at the next
general election. Lord Hailsham was suggesting that Parliament does not really play a role in
debating or considering legislation proposed by the Government, but merely ‘rubber stamps’
the Government’s legislative plans.
Lord Hailsham described the UK system of government as operating in this way because:
1. Our current ‘first past the post’ electoral system means that normally most MPs in the
House of Commons will be members of the political party that forms the Government.
(Although this is the usual position and now pertains following the December 2019
general election, following the general election in May 2010 no single party obtained
sufficient seats to form an overall majority. As a result, the UK had a coalition government
comprising the Conservative and Liberal Democrat parties between 2010 and May 2015.
Similarly, no party gained an overall majority in the June 2017 general election. The
Conservative Party obtained the largest number of seats and entered a confidence and
supply agreement with the Democratic Unionist Party. This gave it a slim overall majority,
but it only applied to votes on the Queen’s speech; the budget; legislation relating to
Brexit and national security.)
2. The Government therefore has an in-built majority in the House of Commons, particularly
given that most members of the Government (including the Prime Minister and other
cabinet ministers) are also MPs.
3. The Government has significant control over the parliamentary timetable, and most of
Parliament’s time is devoted to the Government’s legislative programme.
4. Most of the bills considered by Parliament are introduced by government ministers,
and the overwhelming majority of these bills will be passed by Parliament because the
majority of MPs represent the governing party.
5. The constitutional convention that the Government would resign if defeated in the House
of Commons on a confidence vote or a major part of its legislative programme meant
that governments were able to persuade their backbench MPs to support government
legislation, even if those MPs were reluctant to do so. The Fixed-term Parliaments Act
2011 has a similar effect. If the Government is defeated on a motion of no confidence, the
House of Commons will be dissolved and an early election called unless within 14 days
an alternative Government is formed or the incumbent Government is able to regain the
confidence of the House. The Prime Minister is also expected to resign if he or she no
longer has the confidence of the House and an alternative Government does have the
confidence.
6. Huge pressure is placed on MPs from the governing party to support bills introduced by
the Government through the government whips.
7. Although Parliament enacts primary legislation, many laws take the form of delegated or
subordinate legislation. This is legislation made by government ministers under powers
delegated by Parliament and there are only limited opportunities for Parliament to
scrutinise such legislation.
8. Acts of Parliament legislation will often contain what are referred to as ‘Henry VIII’ powers
(so called after the 1539 Statute of Proclamations, in which King Henry VIII gave his own
declarations the same force as legislation enacted by Parliament). Such powers enable
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• MPs may reject government bills. In normal times it is rare for a government bill to suffer
a defeat in the House of Commons. Nevertheless, this does occasionally happen, for
example in March 2016 when the Government was defeated in its plan to extend Sunday
opening hours.
The period between the June 2017 and December 2019 general elections during which
there was a Conservative Party minority government was, however, highly unusual. The
Government suffered a large number of defeats during this period, in particular relating to
its Brexit policies. Indeed, Parliament passed two Acts, the European Union (Withdrawal)
Act 2019 and the European Union (Withdrawal) (No 2) Act 2019 despite government
opposition. MPs opposed to the Government’s policies on the UK’s withdrawal from the
EU voted to suspend the normal standing orders giving priority to government business.
These Acts required the Government in certain circumstances to seek limited extensions
to the UK’s membership of the EU to prevent the UK from leaving without a withdrawal
agreement in place.
In addition to the formal mechanisms by which Parliament holds the Government to account
for its actions, the constitutional conventions of individual ministerial responsibility and
collective cabinet responsibility (which you considered in Chapter 1) also play an important
role here. Legally, government ministers are not accountable to Parliament for their decisions
or actions. However, through the operation of these conventions, accountability exists.
Under the convention of individual ministerial responsibility, ministers are responsible to
Parliament both for the running and proper administration of their respective departments
and also for their personal conduct. There must be no conflict of interest between a minister’s
public duties and his or her private interests. A minister who breaches this convention should
resign. Examples of ministers resigning following a breach of this convention include:
• In 1982, the Foreign Secretary and two junior ministers resigned over allegations that the
Foreign Office should have foreseen the Argentine invasion of the Falklands Islands and
planned accordingly.
• In 2004, David Blunkett resigned as Home Secretary after he had an affair with a married
woman and then had her nanny’s visa application fast-tracked. In 2005 he resigned as
Work and Pensions Secretary, following allegations concerning financial interests about
which he had failed to make proper disclosure.
• In 2011, Liam Fox resigned as Defence Secretary after he had acknowledged that he
had ‘mistakenly allowed’ the distinction between his personal and professional duties to
become ‘blurred’. He had permitted a lobbyist who was a close friend to attend official
meetings with him, travel with him on overseas trips and to hand out business cards
describing himself as Mr Fox’s adviser even though he had no official role.
• In 2017 Priti Patel resigned as Secretary for State for International Development following
unauthorised meetings with Israeli government officials about which she had misled the
Foreign Secretary and Prime Minister.
• In 2018 Amber Rudd resigned as Home Secretary in connection with the Windrush
deportation scandal. She had misled MPs over whether the Home Office had targets for
removing illegal immigrants.
The convention of collective cabinet responsibility provides that the cabinet is collectively
responsible to Parliament for the actions of the Government as a whole, and the Government
must retain the confidence of the House of Commons.
This convention also holds that ministers must resign if they wish to speak out in public against
government policy. An example of this occurred in 2003, when both Robin Cook and Clare
Short resigned as cabinet ministers in order to voice in public their opposition to the war in
Iraq. Further examples are the resignation of Baroness Warsi as Foreign Office Minister in
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2014 in protest at government policy on Gaza, and Iain Duncan Smith’s resignation as the
Secretary of State for Work and Pensions in 2016 in protest at the Government’s proposed
cuts to disability benefits. There were 36 ministerial resignations between June 2018 and May
2019, most relating to Theresa May’s Brexit policies. They included David Davis and Dominic
Raab, who had both been Secretaries of State for Exiting the EU, and Boris Johnson who was
the Foreign Secretary at the time.
Note that it is open to the Prime Minister to suspend the operation of the convention of
collective cabinet responsibility, as David Cameron did in the run up to the EU referendum in
June 2016.
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Commons or Lords that a treaty should not be ratified. According to the explanatory notes to
the Act:
should the House of Commons take the view that the Government should not
proceed to ratify a treaty, it can resolve against ratification and thus make it unlawful
for the Government to ratify the treaty. The House of Lords will not be able to prevent
the Government from ratifying a treaty, but if they resolve against ratification the
Government will have to produce a further explanatory statement explaining its belief
that the agreement should be ratified.
Whilst treaty ratification remains a prerogative power, the House of Commons can prevent
the Government from exercising it. However, treaties are subject to the ‘negative resolution
procedure’, which means that no debate or vote is required prior to ratification. Indeed, no
debates have taken place in the House of Commons under the provisions in the 2010 Act
since it was passed.
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unsuccessful litigant cannot sue a judge for making an error when carrying out his or her
duties.
(f) Constitutional conventions. By convention, members of the executive do not criticise
judicial decisions, and members of the judiciary do not engage in party political activity.
(g) The ‘sub-judice’ rule. Under this rule, Parliament (and therefore government ministers)
refrains from discussing matters currently being heard or waiting to be heard by the
courts.
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(b) Appointments to fill vacancies in the Supreme Court are made by the Queen on the
advice of the Prime Minister, who will in turn have received a recommendation from the
Lord Chancellor. A ‘selection commission’ consisting of the President of the Supreme
Court, a senior UK judge nominated by the President of the Supreme Court, and one
member from each of the three judicial appointments bodies will select candidates for
such recommendation.
(c) The system that has been introduced places primary responsibility for judicial
appointments on independent bodies, thus minimising any perception of improper
political involvement in the appointment of judges.
(d) The Act also requires that selection is based solely on merit. Nonetheless, where there are
two or more candidates of equal merit, a candidate may be selected for a post in order
to increase judicial diversity.
The Constitutional Reform Act 2005 also created the Supreme Court to replace the Judicial
Committee of the House of Lords. You will consider this below when you examine the
relationship between the legislature and the judiciary.
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important in preserving the separation of powers between the executive and judiciary. Were
the judiciary to examine the merits of a decision, it would usurp the role of the executive.
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In Blackburn v Attorney General [1971] 2 All ER 1380, Blackburn sought a declaration that
the Government, by signing the Treaty of Rome (now the Treaty on the Functioning of the
European Union), would unlawfully surrender part of Parliament’s sovereignty. The court held
that it had the power to determine whether a prerogative power existed but, once it had
determined the existence of the power, it had no right to review the exercise of the power. The
power to sign an international treaty was part of the royal prerogative and the exercise of that
power was immune from judicial review.
In CCSU v Minister for Civil Service [1984] UKHL 9, the Council of Civil Service Unions asked
the courts to review the decision of the Minister for the Civil Service to prohibit staff at GCHQ
from being members of a trade union without first consulting with the relevant trade union.
On the particular facts of the case, the House of Lords held that the minister’s decision had
been prompted by concerns about national security and the minister had been entitled to act
as she did; the Government was better placed to judge what was in the interests of national
security than the courts.
The case is more important, however, for what it said generally about the power of the courts
to review the exercise of royal prerogative powers by the executive. Retreating from the
decision in Blackburn, their Lordships held that the exercise of prerogative powers was not
automatically immune from the judicial review process. In his speech, Lord Roskill said that
any power exercised by the executive, whether the source of that power was from statute or
the royal prerogative, was capable of being judicially reviewed. The only exception to this
was if the power being exercised was not ‘justiciable’ (ie not an appropriate area for the
involvement of the courts).
Lord Roskill identified the following royal prerogative powers as being ‘non-justiciable’:
• Making international treaties
• Control of the armed forces
• Defence of the realm
• The dissolution of Parliament (following the Fixed-term Parliaments Act 2011, the power to
dissolve Parliament is no longer an aspect of the royal prerogative (see Chapter 1))
• The prerogative of mercy
• Granting public honours
The courts have subsequently reduced Lord Roskill’s list by judicially reviewing the exercise
of some of those prerogative powers that Lord Roskill considered to be non-justiciable. The
courts have, for example, reviewed the exercise of the prerogative of mercy by the Home
Secretary (R v Secretary of State for the Home Department, ex p Bentley [1993] 4 All ER 442).
Nonetheless, there are still some royal prerogative powers that remain non-justiciable and
therefore beyond the scope of the courts.
These are areas of ‘high politics’ (such as the conduct of foreign relations), and the areas of
national security and defence of the realm. An example is the prerogative power to make
international treaties, the exercise of which the Supreme Court confirmed in R (Miller) v Secretary
of State for Exiting the European Union [2017] UKSC 5 is not subject to judicial review.
The courts are reluctant to become involved in these areas for two reasons. First, these are
areas that are often highly political in nature, and members of the judiciary are concerned
that reviewing the actions of the executive in these areas will lead to their becoming
politicised and potentially losing their independence. The accountability of the executive in
these areas is better secured through the electorate at a general election than through the
courts. Secondly, these are areas where the executive is deemed to have greater technical
knowledge and expertise than the judiciary.
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One consequence of the courts’ refusal to review the exercise of prerogative powers in certain
areas is that this leaves some of the executive’s powers effectively beyond the scrutiny of
both the legislature and the judiciary. Some of the areas that the courts deem to be non-
justiciable (particularly matters of defence and national security) are the same areas in which
Parliament’s ability to hold the executive to account is limited (see 4.3.4.3 above).
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Summary
• In this chapter, you have looked at what is meant by the idea of the rule of law by
examining first Dicey’s views on this subject and then Lord Bingham’s more modern
version.
• You have also considered the meaning and historical development of the theory of the
separation of powers.
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• You have examined the relationship between the different branches of state in the UK by
considering the degree of overlap and separation between these branches. You have
done this in the context of the following relationships:
∘ Executive/legislature
∘ Executive/judiciary
∘ Legislature/judiciary
• You have observed that in the UK separation of powers is achieved by a combination of
constitutional conventions and statute, in particular the Constitutional Reform Act 2005.
• You have begun to assess the extent to which the UK constitution demonstrates an
effective separation of powers. There is considerable overlap between the executive and
legislature, but a substantial degree of separation between the judiciary and the other
branches of government.
• You should also check your understanding by considering the summary diagram in
Figure 4.1.
Definition:
• No overlap in functions/personnel
between different branches of state
Executive/Legislature:
• Checks and balances
• HoC (Disqualification) Act, ss 1–2
• Does the Government ‘control’
Parliament:
– Most ministers MPs Importance:
– Most legislation from Government • Avoid arbitrary or oppressive
– Government has in-built majority in exercise of power
Commons
– Weak role of Lords
– ‘elective dictatorship’
• Effectiveness of parliamentary scrutiny
of the Government?
• Ministerial responsibility Position in UK:
• Unwritten constitution
• No formal separation of
powers
Separation of powers
Judiciary/Legislature:
Executive/Judiciary:
• HoC (Disqualification) Act, s 1
• Judicial independence: salary/tenure/ • Convention – judges ‘avoid’ politics/MPs
contempt of court/civil immunity do not criticise individual judges
• Judicial Appointments Commission • Sub-judice rule
• Reduced role of Lord Chancellor • Bill of Rights 1689, art 9
• Judicial review of executive actions • Constitutional Reform Act 2005 –
• Royal prerogative
Supreme Court
• Quasi-judicial role of the executive
• Do judges legislate?
• Politicisation of judiciary?
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Sample questions
Question 1
The minister in charge of an emergency bill being presented to the UK Parliament to deal
with a major public health emergency is concerned about the approach the courts might
take to certain provisions in it, in particular provisions allowing for the indefinite detention
without trial of people who disobey provisions prohibiting anyone from being more than
five miles from their home. The minister has asked for advice regarding the possible
response of the courts should the courts find that the bill (when enacted) violates the rule
of law.
Which of the following best describes the possible response of the courts?
A The Supreme Court, adopting the approach outlined by eminent judges in case law, is
likely to strike down the legislation.
B Pursuant to the doctrine of parliamentary sovereignty, the courts will nonetheless apply
the legislation.
C The High Court or above is likely to issue a declaration of incompatibility pursuant to s
4 Human Rights Act 1998 disapplying the legislation.
D The High Court or above is likely to issue a declaration of incompatibility pursuant to s
4 Human Rights Act 1998 should the legislation violate the ECHR. The legislation will,
however, remain in force.
E The Supreme Court is likely to issue a declaration disapplying the legislation as, by
virtue of violating the rule of law, the legislation will breach retained EU law.
Answer
Option D is correct. It may be possible for the Government to introduce detention without
trial to combat a public health emergency, but indefinite detention is likely to violate Article
5 of the ECHR –the right to liberty and security –as well as being contrary to the rule of
law. Declarations of incompatibility do not, however, invalidate the legislation although they
put pressure on the Government to amend or repeal the offending provisions. Accordingly,
option C is wrong as the courts have no power under the Human Rights Act to disapply
legislation.
Option D is a better answer than option A as option A is based on obiter dicta and the
Supreme Court has never actually struck down legislation in this way. UK courts have
disapplied statutes for infringing EU law during the UK’s membership of the EU, but not for
infringing the rule of law. Option D is also a better answer than option B. Whilst the courts
are likely to apply the legislation due to parliamentary sovereignty, it is highly probable
that they would issue a declaration of incompatibility.
Option E is wrong as retained EU law only has limited supremacy over Acts of Parliament
enacted before the end of the transition period. Moreover, there is unlikely to be any
retained EU law with which the legislation in this question would conflict.
Question 2
The Government is considering whether to launch air strikes on a suspected terrorist base
in an overseas country. It believes the terrorists concerned pose a direct and imminent
threat to the UK. The Government has asked the Attorney General for advice as to whether
parliamentary approval is required for the air strikes.
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Answer
Option A is correct. The Cabinet Manual states that the Government has acknowledged
that a convention has developed that the House of Commons should have an opportunity
to debate the matter before military action is taken, except where an emergency exists and
such action would not be appropriate. Option A is a better answer than option B because
the reason parliamentary approval is not needed in the instant case is the existence of an
emergency. Option D is wrong because it ignores the possibility of dispensing with the need
for parliamentary approval where it would not be appropriate, as in the instant case.
Options C and E are wrong because taking military action is a prerogative power, not a
statutory one.
Question 3
The UK and South Africa are proposing to enter a treaty relating to the safeguarding of
intellectual property rights and data protection. The UK Government proposes to ratify it
using the royal prerogative. Some British businesses, relying on expert economic analysis,
believe the treaty will be highly damaging to their interests and will give an unfair
advantage to South African businesses. They would therefore like to challenge the treaty in
the UK courts.
Can the businesses bring a successful action challenging the treaty?
A Yes, because the courts are willing to rule on the extent of prerogative powers and it is
doubtful whether the UK Government can enter into treaties using prerogative powers.
B Yes, because the courts are willing to rule on how the Government exercises its
prerogative powers and on the facts the treaty seems unreasonable.
C No, because traditionally UK courts have refused to rule upon the extent of prerogative
powers and how they are exercised.
D No, because traditionally UK courts have refused to rule upon how prerogative powers
are exercised.
E No, because UK courts regard certain prerogative powers as non-justiciable and so
refuse to review how they are exercised.
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Answer
Option E is correct. Historically UK courts have been reluctant to review the exercise of
prerogative powers, but their approach shifted in the CCSU case and they are now willing
to review the exercise of some prerogative powers. Whilst option D reflects the traditional
approach of the UK courts, option E is a better answer as the courts no longer follow that
approach. However, the courts regard treaty-making as a political issue for the Government
to decide upon (Blackburn v Attorney General) and so is not subject to review by the
courts. Option B is therefore wrong because the courts will not interfere even if the treaty is
unreasonable.
Option C is wrong because the courts have for centuries been willing to rule on the extent of
prerogative powers. Option A is wrong as treaty-making is a prerogative power.
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5 Public Order Law
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 assessment specification in relation
to functioning legal knowledge concerned with police powers to control protests,
including:
• processions;
• assemblies; and
• breach of the peace.
Note that for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case
names or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. Cases are provided for illustrative
purposes only.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to understand and apply some
fundamental constitutional principles appropriately and effectively, at the level
required of a competent newly qualified solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based
problems and situations, including the ability to:
• understand and apply the powers of the police to control processions under the
Public Order Act 1986 (POA 1986);
• understand and apply the powers of the police to control assemblies under
POA 1986;
• identify when a breach of the peace occurs; and
• analyse the powers of the police to deal with a breach of the peace in the
context pf processions and assemblies.
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acquitted where the courts considered that the protesters acted reasonably. See also the
discussion at 5.3.4 below.
As processions and meetings are prima facie lawful, the police usually need specific powers
if they are to control them. The POA 1986 gives them significant powers to deal with potential
disruption to society and threats of violence. This chapter concentrates on preventative
measures –the power to impose conditions on or ban public processions and public meetings.
Additionally, the POA 1986 created a number of public order offences to replace the mainly
common law offences that had existed. These offences range from riot (s 1) with a maximum
sentence of 12 years’ imprisonment to threatening, abusive or insulting behaviour (s 5) with a
fine of £1,000 as a maximum sentence. These offences are outside the scope of this manual.
As well as having statutory powers, the police also retain common law powers to prevent
breaches of the peace. These sometimes supplement the statutory powers.
5.2 Processions
5.2.1 Advance notice
Section 11(1) of the POA 1986 requires any person organising a ‘public procession’ for any
of the purposes in s 11(1)(a), (b) and (c) to give the police at least six clear days’ notice
of the date, time and route of the proposed procession. The purposes set out in these
sub-sections are:
(a) to demonstrate support for or opposition to the views or actions of any person or body of
persons;
(b) to publicise a cause or campaign; or
(c) to mark or commemorate an event.
Football supporters on their way to watching a match or schoolchildren being led from their
school to a local library are therefore outside the notice requirements.
Section 16 defines ‘public procession’ as ‘a procession in a public place’ and defines ‘public
place’ as any highway or any other place that the public may lawfully access on payment
or otherwise. Public place therefore includes not only places such as public squares, parks
and beaches but also privately owned places, such as football grounds and theatres,
that the public can access on purchasing a ticket. Accordingly, the definition of public
procession would, for example, cover a march into a theatre to protest about a play being
performed there.
Section 11(4) requires the organisers to deliver the notice to a police station in the police area
where the procession will start.
The purpose of the notice provisions is to enable the police to plan and give directions to
avoid public disorder or other disruption.
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one of the cyclists challenged this requirement by way of judicial review. The House of Lords
held that Critical Mass was ‘commonly or customarily’ held even though it did not follow a
predetermined route but varied on each occasion. It was therefore exempt from the notice
requirement.
There is an also exception for occasions when it is not reasonably practicable to give notice.
This would cover an impromptu reaction to some news such as the sudden announcement of a
factory closure or unexpected military action by a government.
5.2.3 Offences
There are two offences under s 11. The organisers are guilty of the first offence if they do not
give the required notice (s 11(7)(a)). They are guilty of the second offence if the processions
differ from what the notice specified (s 11(7)(b)). It is a defence to the first offence if the
organiser did not know, and did not have any reason to suspect, that s 11 had not been
complied with (s 11(8)). It is a defence to the second offence if the departure from the details
in the notice arose from circumstances beyond the organiser’s control or from something done
with the agreement of the police or by their direction (s 11(9)). In both cases the burden of
proof is on the defendant on the balance of probabilities to prove that the defence exists.
On conviction the organisers are liable to a fine not exceeding level 3 on the standard scale,
currently £1,000.
Failure to provide notice results in the organisers committing an offence, but does not render
the protest/procession unlawful. Only the organisers commit an offence. It does not make the
participation in such a procession a criminal offence. The procession itself is lawful.
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senior police officer present at the scene (s 12(2)(a)) and they may be given verbally. For
conditions imposed in advance it is the chief officer of police –the Chief Constable of the
relevant police force or the Commissioner of Police of the Metropolis or for the City of London
(s 12(2)(b)). When given before the event, they must be provided in writing. Additionally, the
chief officer of police must provide sufficient reasons so that, firstly, the demonstrators can
understand why the conditions have been imposed and, secondly, a court can assess whether
the belief that the procession may result in the consequences listed above (serious disruption
etc) is reasonable (R (Brehony) v Chief Constable of Greater Manchester Police [2005] EWHC
640 (Admin) –a case on s 14 below applied by analogy to s 12).
When imposing conditions, the police also need to consider the impact of Article 11 ECHR.
Any conditions they impose must be proportionate.
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in the Public Order Act 1936 but its reasoning is likely to apply to the POA 1986. Monsignor
Bruce Kent, as General Secretary of the Campaign for Nuclear Disarmament (CND),
challenged an order banning all processions in the metropolitan district (covering an area
of 786 square miles) for 28 days, other than traditional May Day celebrations and those
of a religious character. He argued that the order was ultra vires because it applied to all
processions over a large area and was far too wide in its scope. The Metropolitan Police
Commissioner adduced evidence of serious public disorder largely due to National Front and
anti-National Front demonstrations. He stated that all processions, however peaceful in intent,
were potential targets for extremists.
The Court of Appeal upheld the banning order. The claimant had failed to show that the
Metropolitan Police Commissioner had no reasonable grounds for making the banning
order, although one Lord Justice did think the reasons were ‘meagre’. This shows that the
courts are reluctant to quash what are essentially operational decisions. The decision in this
case had been taken in a context where there had been significant outbreaks of violence in
various parts of London. The Court of Appeal suggested that CND should have applied for a
relaxation of the order, which is possible under s 13(5).
The power to prohibit processions has not been used frequently. The overwhelming majority
of bans have been imposed in relation to proposed marches by the National Front and more
recently by the English Defence League.
5.3 Meetings
Before the POA 1986 there were no statutory powers to control the holding of public meetings
as opposed to processions. Including the power to control meetings in the POA 1986 was a
response to concerns that static protests could cause public order problems. The Government
was particularly anxious about the impact of mass picketing in industrial disputes such as the
miners’ strike of 1984/5, although picketing is also covered in trade union legislation.
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A meeting on private land obviously requires the permission of the owner, otherwise the owner
can claim damages for trespass or apply to the courts for an injunction. The police could help
to eject any trespassers at the request of the owner, for example if there is a breach of the
peace, but they have no independent powers unless there is a breach of the peace or crimes
such as criminal damage are being committed.
The general rule remains, though, that the police have no power to ban assemblies, as the
power to impose conditions was regarded as being sufficient. The Criminal Justice and Public
Order Act 1994 has, however, granted a power to ban ‘trespassory assemblies’ on limited
grounds (see 5.3.4 below).
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• which may result in serious disruption to the life of the community or significant damage
to the land, building or monument which is of historical, archaeological or scientific
importance.
The chief officer may then apply to the local authority for an order prohibiting for a specified
period the holding of all trespassory assemblies in the district or part of it. There are,
however, strict time and geographical limits on the scope of the order. It must not last for
more than four days and must not apply to an area greater than that represented by a circle
of five miles’ radius from a specified centre. The local authority must also obtain the Home
Secretary’s consent for the making of such an order.
In London the Police Commissioner for the Metropolis or the Commissioner of the City of
London Police may make such an order with the consent of the Secretary of State.
The POA 1986 as amended by the CJPOA 1994 creates the following offences:
• s 14B(1): Organising an assembly knowing it to be prohibited.
Possible sanctions: Imprisonment not exceeding three months or a fine not exceeding
level 4 on the standard scale or both s 14B(5).
• s 14B(2): Taking part in assembly if the participant knows it is prohibited.
Possible sanctions: Fine not exceeding level 3 on the standard scale (s 14B(6)).
• s 14B(3): Incitement to organise or participate in an assembly if the person knows it is
prohibited.
Possible sanctions: Imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or a fine not
exceeding level 4 on the standard scale s 14B(7).
It is important to note, though, a notice prohibiting trespassory assemblies does not constitute
an absolute ban on all assemblies on that land. Such a notice only prohibits assemblies to
the extent those taking part in it are trespassing on the land. This point has been particularly
pertinent in relation to public roads, ie highways, as an assembly on a highway is only
trespassory if the participants go outside their right of access. DPP v Jones [1999] UKHL 5
is a leading case on this. Salisbury District Council had made an order prohibiting certain
trespassory assemblies within a radius of four miles from Stonehenge. Two protesters were
arrested while participating in a peaceful, non-obstructive demonstration of 21 people on a
highway near Stonehenge. The High Court held that the magistrates had correctly convicted
them under s 14B(2), holding that the public’s right to use the highway was restricted to
passing and repassing and any activities ancillary or incidental to that right, and that a public
assembly was not incidental to the right of passage.
The Lords ruled by a 3-2 majority that the defendants had not committed an offence. A public
highway was a public place that the public might enjoy for any reasonable purpose, provided
the activity in question did not involve a public or private nuisance and did not unreasonably
obstruct the highway. Accordingly, the power to ban trespassory assemblies is not as far-
reaching as it might seem at first sight.
Additionally, s 14C gives a constable in uniform who reasonably believes that a person is on
their way to a trespassory assembly the power to stop that person and direct them not to
proceed in the direction of the assembly. It is an offence to ignore such a direction punishable
by a level 3 fine (currently £1,000).
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The authoritative definition of breach of the peace is that set out in by the Court of Appeal in
R v Howell [1982] QB 416: ‘there is a breach of the peace whenever harm is actually done or
likely to be done to a person or in his presence to his property or a person is in fear of being
so harmed through an assault, an affray, a riot, unlawful assembly or other disturbance.’
A breach of the peace is not a criminal offence, but triggers various police powers to take
action to prevent the breach. At common law the police have a power of arrest not only if
a breach of the peace has occurred but also to prevent one from occurring. They also have
powers to take steps falling short of arrest such as requiring people breaching the peace or
threatening do so to move way. Likewise, the police can attend and disperse a gathering if
they reasonably fear a breach of the peace. Section 17(6) of the Police and Criminal Evidence
Act 1984 preserves the common law powers of entry without a warrant to prevent a breach of
the peace.
The case of Duncan v Jones [1936] 1 KB 218 shows how the police can use their common
law powers to prevent a public meeting. The appellant was about to address a meeting of
about 30 people taking place in a road to protest against the Incitement to Disaffection Bill.
There was evidence that previous meetings the appellant had addressed at that location
had led to disturbances. A policeman ordered the appellant not to hold the meeting, but she
persisted in trying to hold it and obstructed the police officer when he tried to stop her doing
so. No breach of the peace actually occurred but the Divisional Court upheld the appellant’s
conviction of wilfully obstructing the officer in the execution of his duty. The fact that the officer
reasonably apprehended a breach of the peace justified the finding that he was acting in
the execution of his duty. The police had the power to prevent a demonstration on a public
highway where there was any fear of a breach of the peace.
The police’s use of common law powers has sometimes proved controversial. The police do
not need to wait until actual violence occurs before they exercise such powers and can take
preventative action to prevent gatherings that could result in a breach of the peace. However,
the circumstances in which they can take preventative action against demonstrators have
proved contentious, as demonstrated by the case of Moss v McLachlin [1985] IRLR 76.
During the miners’ strike of 1984–85, the police stopped a convoy of up to 80 striking miners
at a junction on the M1 about 1.5 and 5 miles from four collieries at which miners were still
working. The striking miners were intending to picket those collieries. The police feared a
breach of the peace as violent confrontations were likely to take place if the striking miners
continued to their destination. Accordingly, to prevent a breach of the police, the police
instructed the miners not to proceed towards the collieries. Some of the miners tried to push
past the police cordon, and were arrested and subsequently convicted by magistrates of
obstructing a police officer in the execution of his duty.
On appeal the Divisional Court upheld the convictions. There had been numerous violent
confrontations during the course of the strike and so the police had acted lawfully. The police
had a duty to prevent a reasonably apprehended breach of the peace. The possibility of a
breach of the peace in close proximity both in place and time was real and immediate and
not remote.
However, under the impact of the HRA 1998 and Articles 10 and 11 of the ECHR, the approach
of the courts has shifted. In R (Laporte) v Chief Constable of Gloucester [2006] UKHL 55 a
group of about 120 anti-Iraq War campaigners were travelling to a demonstration outside RAF
Fairford when their coaches were stopped by the police who then escorted them the 90 miles
back to London without permitting breaks for relief or refreshment. The claimant argued her
Article 10 right to freedom of expression and Article 11 right to freedom of peaceful assembly
had been violated. The Court of Appeal held that it was lawful for the police to prevent
demonstrators joining the demonstration if they reasonably apprehended a breach of the
peace, stating that the requirement that the breach should be ‘imminent’ in a strict sense did
not apply to actions short of arrest. On further appeal, the House of Lords held that:
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1. The police were purporting to use powers to prevent a reasonably apprehended breach
of the peace. However, these powers are only available when a breach is ‘imminent’. On
the facts, the police did not believe that a breach of the peace was imminent.
2. The House of Lords rejected the distinction made by the Court of Appeal between powers
of arrest and other powers to prevent a breach of the peace (eg the power to disperse a
meeting). In all cases the breach of the peace must be ‘imminent’.
Although the House of Lords distinguished Laporte from Moss v McLachlan, the reasoning
in Laporte very much relies on the ECHR principle of proportionality. Even if intervention
had been permissible, the police would have been unable to show that their actions had
constituted a proportionate restriction of Convention rights. Their intervention had been
premature. As extensive precautions had been put in place at RAF Fairford to handle the
protests, it had been unreasonable to assume that the protesters on the coaches would have
become involved in violent protest upon arrival. The police could have taken less drastic
action such as allowing everyone to continue to the airbase and arresting anyone who
subsequently acted, or threatened to act, violently. The police’s conduct was indiscriminate,
failing to distinguish between the majority of protesters who had peaceful intent and the small
minority who actually threatened violence.
However, the decision of the House of Lords in Austin v Commissioner of the Police of the
Metropolis [2009] UKHL shows the police can in limited circumstances take drastic action to
prevent a breach of the peace, even if it adversely impacts innocent bystanders. This case
concerned demonstrators who had been confined within a police cordon at Oxford Circus
for several hours (a practice sometimes described as ‘kettling’) following May Day protests
against globalisation and capitalism, which previously had resulted in serious disorder. On this
occasion as well some of the protesters had threatened violence.
The House of Lords held that those caught in the police cordon did not suffer a violation
of their right to liberty guaranteed by Article 5 of the ECHR, even though some innocent
bystanders were caught up in it. Crowd control measures adopted by the police in order to
prevent a breach of the peace would not breach Article 5 provided they were not arbitrary
but were employed in good faith and were proportionate. In this case, the police intended
to maintain the cordon only so long as was reasonably necessary to achieve a controlled
dispersal in an unusually difficult exercise in crowd control; accordingly there was no arbitrary
deprivation of liberty. There was accordingly only a restriction on movement, which did not
engage Article 5.
Subsequently, in Austin & Others v The United Kingdom [2012] ECHR 459 the European Court
of Human Rights ruled in favour of the UK, stating that the police measures were the least
intrusive possible on the facts and there was no obvious point at which the restriction on
movement turned into a deprivation of liberty.
The common law powers relating to breach of the peace do give the police considerable
discretion in relation to demonstrations and assemblies. However, case law does show that
the police need to show their conduct is a proportionate response to the situation they are
facing to ensure that they do not violate Convention rights.
Summary
• In this chapter, you have looked at police powers to control public processions and public
assemblies.
• Under s 11 POA 1986, organisers of a public procession must, subject to certain
exceptions, give the police six clear days’ advance notice of their plans. The flowchart in
Table 5.1 shows the circumstances in which the organisers should give notice.
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Figure 5.1 Section 11 of the Public Order Act 1986: requirement to give notice
Public procession
Yes
Is it intended to
(a) demonstrate support for or opposition
to views or actions,
(b) publicise a cause or campaign, or
(c) mark or commemorate an event?
Yes No
• Under s 12 POA 1986, the police have the power to impose conditions on public
processions if necessary to prevent serious adverse consequences to the community or
intimidation. The police can impose conditions in advance of the procession or during it.
• Under s 13 POA 1986, the chief officer of police may apply to the local authority to
prohibit a public procession if necessary to prevent serious adverse consequences to the
community or intimidation. The local authority must obtain the Home Secretary’s consent
to make the order. The procedure in London is slightly different.
• Under s 14 POA 1986, the police have the power to impose conditions on public
assemblies relating to the place, maximum duration and number of persons if necessary
to prevent serious adverse consequences to the community or intimidation. The police can
impose conditions in advance of the assembly or during it.
• Under s 14A POA 1986 the chief officer of police may apply to the local authority to
prohibit a trespassory assembly to prevent serious disruption to the life of the community
or significant damage to land, buildings or monuments of particular importance. The
prohibition can only last for a maximum of four days and can only cover an area
represented by a circle with a radius of no more than five miles from a specified centre.
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Sample questions
Question 1
A woman is taking part in a march through the high street of a town in England. The
march is protesting against plans that the Government published two days ago to build
a new prison in the town. The march was scheduled to take place during the visit of
the government minister responsible for prisons to the town, which was only announced
yesterday. The woman learnt about the march from a leaflet that was put through the letter
box of her home. She has been arrested for taking part in an illegal procession.
Is the woman guilty of an offence?
A Yes, because the organisers of the march did not give six clear days’ notice of the
march. The march is therefore illegal.
B Yes, because a march during the controversial visit of a government minister is likely to
cause serious disruption to the life of the community.
C No, because although the organisers have committed an offence by failing to give six
clear days’ notice, the march itself is not illegal.
D No. As it was not reasonably practicable to give advance notice of the march, the
organisers have not committed an offence and in any event the march itself is not
illegal.
E No. Although the organisers have committed an offence by failing to give six clear
days’ notice, she has not committed an offence as she had no knowledge of this
omission.
Answer
Option D is correct. Under s 11(1) POA 1986 organisers of a public procession (march)
must give the police six clear days’ notice if it is for any of the purposes specified in the
section. Protesting against a new prison comes within these purposes. However, if it is not
reasonably practicable to give any advance notice of the procession, there is no duty to
give the notice. Here, the march seems to be an immediate response to the announcement
of the new prison and coincides with the visit of the responsible government minister. If
the organisers had given six clear days’ notice, they would have missed the minister’s visit.
Option D is thus a better answer than option C, as option C sets out what the position
would have been had the duty to give notice applied. Option E is wrong as the marches
remain legal even when the organisers should have given notice; the knowledge of the
marchers whether notice has been given is irrelevant.
Option A is wrong because, as stated above, the march remains legal even if a notice
should have been given. As regards option B, whilst the prospect of serious disruption to
the life of the community may give the police grounds for imposing conditions on the march,
it does not render the march itself illegal.
Question 2
A group of about 100 demonstrators have gathered in a square outside a town hall
protesting against a local authority’s cuts to library services. The time is nearly 17.00
when many of the local authority’s workers will be leaving the town hall and some of
them normally walk through the square on their way home. Most of the demonstrators are
chanting slogans such as ‘Save our libraries’ and ‘Down with the council’, but there has been
no violence. A police sergeant, supervised by her inspector, are the only police at the scene.
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The inspector orders the demonstrators to disperse in the next 15 minutes to ensure that the
workers can go home without any trouble.
Which of the following best describes whether the inspector’s order is lawful?
A As the senior police officer is present, she can impose a condition requiring the
protesters to disperse as the demonstrators’ behaviour will clearly intimidate the local
authority’s workers.
B She has common law powers to order the demonstrators to disperse as she has
reasonable grounds for believing that a breach of the peace will occur.
C Although the inspector is the senior police officer present, she cannot impose
conditions on the protest as she does not have reasonable grounds for believing that
the demonstrators’ behaviour will intimidate the local authority’s workers.
D The inspector does not have any common law powers to order the demonstrators to
disperse, even though she has reasonable grounds for believing that a breach of the
peace will occur.
E Although the inspector does have common law powers, they only empower her to
arrest the demonstrators and not to order them to disperse.
Answer
Option C is correct. As the senior police officer present at the scene, the inspector does
have the power under s 14(1) POA 1986 if she reasonably believes that the assembly will
result in serious public disorder, serious damage to property, or serious disruption to the
life of the community, or the purpose of the organisers is to intimidate others with a view
to compelling them not to do something that they have a right to do, or to do something
that they have a right not to. However, based on Police v Reid, it seems unlikely that the
organisers have intimidatory purpose, and the protest seems unlikely to lead to serious
disruption. For that reason option A is wrong.
The police do have common law powers to prevent a breach of the peace that can be
used to disperse meetings, so option D is wrong. However, option B is wrong because on
the facts there are no grounds for apprehending a breach of the peace as defined in R v
Howell, as the conduct of protesters seems unlikely to result in violence. Option E is wrong
because the common law powers to prevent a breach of the peace are not limited to
arrest, but can include a direction to disperse.
Question 3
A local authority has issued a notice prohibiting trespassory assemblies within the vicinity
of a well-known landmark. A group of about 25 protesters have, with the permission of the
farmer who owns the land, gathered on farm land within the area covered by the notice
and within the time frame specified in it. The farmer said they could remain on the land
as long as they did not camp on it. The police arrested the protesters for taking part in a
trespassory assembly after they put up tents on it.
Which of the following best describes whether the protesters are guilty of an offence
relating to trespassory assemblies?
A They are guilty because they have taken part in an assembly in the area covered by
the notice.
B They are guilty because they have taken part in an assembly on private land in the
area covered by the notice.
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C They are guilty because they put up tents, breaking the terms of the permission given
by the farmer.
D They are not guilty because the farmer gave them permission to be on the land, so
they are not trespassers.
E They are not guilty because the farmer gave them permission to be on the land, and
they have not threatened to breach the peace.
Answer
Option C is correct. Under s 14A the local authority has the power, with the Home Secretary’s
consent, to prohibit an assembly likely to be held without the permission of the occupier of the
land or to conduct itself in such a way as to exceed the limits of any permission granted by
the occupier. As long as the protesters remain within the limits of the farmer’s permission, the
assembly is not trespassory. However, once they put up tents they have exceeded the limits
of the permission. Options A and B are wrong as they define the type of land covered by a
prohibition notice too widely.
Options D and E are wrong because the protesters have exceeded the limits of the farmer’s
permission.
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6 The Grounds of Judicial Review
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 assessment specification in relation
to functioning legal knowledge concerned with core constitutional and administrative
law principles, including:
• the nature, process and limits of judicial review;
• the supervisory nature of judicial review;
• decisions which may be challenged by judicial review; and
• grounds for judicial review:
∘ illegality;
∘ irrationality;
∘ procedural impropriety; and
∘ legitimate expectation.
Note that for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case
names or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. Cases are provided for illustrative
purposes only.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations,
including the ability to:
• identify and apply the grounds under which judicial review claims may be
brought;
• identify the ways in which a public body may act illegally;
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3. Procedure
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The Grounds of Judicial Review
In addition, when a court judicially reviews the action or decision of a public body, that
body will normally have been acting under powers granted to it by Parliament. The court
will examine whether the body has acted in accordance with the powers granted to it by
Parliament, or whether it has exceeded or abused those powers. In this way, the court will
be upholding parliamentary sovereignty by ensuring that public bodies act as Parliament
intended.
Another way of understanding the relationship between judicial review and the basic
constitutional principles you considered in Chapters 2 and 4 is to consider the diagram in
Figure 6.2.
Parliament
• Ministers are responsible to it (convention of ministerial
responsibility).
• May create public bodies through legislation.
• Via primary legislation, may confer powers on government
ministers and public bodies.
Government
• May create delegated legislation.
• Exercises statutory powers conferred by Parliament.
• Exercises powers under the royal prerogative.
Judiciary
• Exercises powers of judicial review.
• Scrutinises via judicial review delegated legislation and
the exercise of statutory/prerogative powers by the
Government.
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Procedural impropriety focuses instead on the procedure followed in arriving at the decision
under review.
In addition to these three domestic grounds, judicial review claims can also be made under
two further ‘European’ grounds:
(a) breach of the ECHR; and
(b) breach of retained EU law.
Breach of the ECHR will be considered as a ground of judicial review claim in Chapter 9.
Breach of retained EU law will not be considered in detail in this manual. In practice it is
nonetheless important, and lawyers ignore it at their peril.
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The Grounds of Judicial Review
In R v Inner London Education Authority, ex p Westminster City Council [1986] 1 WLR 28 the
court used a different formulation. The Inner London Education Authority (ILEA) had statutory
power to ‘arrange for the publication within [its] area information on matters relating to
local government’. ILEA mounted a publicity campaign costing £651,000 concerning the
Government’s proposals for rate-capping, which would limit the amount it could raise in local
taxation and thus spend on education. Westminster City Council sought a declaration that this
was unlawful.
The High Court held that ILEA had sought to achieve two purposes:
(i) Giving information about rate-capping and its results; this was an authorised purpose.
(ii) Persuading the public to support ILEA’s views on rate-capping; this was not an authorised
purpose.
The test that the High Court applied when there were two purposes, one authorised and one
unauthorised, was as follows: ‘Was the authority pursuing an unauthorised purpose, which
materially influenced the making of its decision?’
The High Court considered that the unauthorised purpose was one of the purposes, if not
the major purpose, of the decision to launch the campaign. The unauthorised purpose had
therefore materially influenced the making of the decision and therefore the decision was
unlawful, because ILEA had taken into account an irrelevant consideration.
Although the High Court thought that the ‘material influence’ test was consistent with the
‘primary purpose’ test in the 1905 case, the two tests are not easy to reconcile.
6.5.1.6 Taking account of irrelevant considerations or failing to take account of relevant considerations
A public authority must both disregard irrelevant considerations and take into account relevant
considerations when exercising its powers. The case of Roberts v Hopwood [1925] AC 578 is
authority for both requirements, despite the outmoded language used by the Law Lords.
Poplar Borough Council had exercised its power under statute to pay its employees such
wages ‘as it saw fit’. It set a generous minimum wage and applied the minimum to female
workers in the same way as it did to male workers. The District Auditor ordered that the
council make good the financial losses caused by paying its employees so generously. The
council sought judicial review of the District Auditor’s order.
The House of Lords found for the District Auditor, first because the council had taken account
of irrelevant considerations, namely, ‘socialist philanthropy’ and ‘feminist ambition’, and,
secondly, because the council had also disregarded relevant considerations, namely the wage
levels in the labour market and the burden that would be placed on the ratepayers as a
consequence of its decision.
It need not always be the case that a public authority both takes into account an irrelevant
consideration and fails to take into account a relevant consideration. It may simply do one or
the other as the case of Padfield v Minister of Agriculture [1968] AC 997, a leading case on
taking into account irrelevant considerations, shows.
The Agricultural Marketing Act 1958 gave the Minister of Agriculture the discretionary power to
order an investigation by a committee into complaints made by farmers about the conduct of
the Milk Distribution Board, a public body set up to regulate the distribution of milk products.
A number of farmers made a complaint to the minister, alleging that the Board had fixed
milk prices in a way that was prejudicial to their interests. The minister refused to order an
investigation, stating that if the complaint were upheld he would be expected to give effect to
the committee’s recommendations.
The House of Lords held the minister had taken into account an irrelevant consideration
in deciding not to exercise his discretion to order an investigation. The potential political
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embarrassment to the minister was not a matter the minister ought to have taken into account
when refusing to consider the complaint.
The example exercise that follows will help you to apply the principle of illegality to a set
of facts.
Example
Assume that the Public Transport Act 2016 (‘the Act’) (fictitious) empowers local authorities
to give financial assistance in the form of grant aid to organisations involved in operating
any form of public transport. The aim of the Act is to encourage the use of public transport
to get people to work.
Greenborough District Council (GDC) has created a policy as to how it will deal with
applications for grant aid. The policy provides, amongst other things, that applications
from minibus operators should not be considered as there is no evidence that such
vehicles are regularly used in travel to and from work, and exhaust emissions from
minibuses are harmful to the environment.
Tariq has operated a minibus company for the past five years. He has recently secured
contracts with two large employers in the area to provide transport for their workforce.
His application for a grant has been refused without consideration, on the basis of GDC’s
policy.
Joanna is a taxi cab licence holder and has applied for a grant to expand her business
into operating minibuses. Her application was also refused. The decision was made by
GDC’s Transport Sub-Committee.
Consider whether Tariq and/or Joanna can challenge the decisions of GDC in respect of
their applications for grant aid.
Answer
Before reviewing the answers, consider whether the policy itself is lawful and whether
Tariq or Joanna could rely on the following categories of illegality:
• Fettering of discretion
• Taking into account irrelevant considerations
• Improper purpose
• Wrongful delegation
Policy
The statute has created a discretion in respect of the award of grant aid to organisations.
Any discretion must be exercised reasonably in accordance with the aims of the statute
(you will look at the requirement of reasonableness later). GDC has created a policy as
to how applications for grant aid should be processed. There is no objection in principle
to the formulation of such a policy by a public authority, provided the policy itself is
consistent with the statute. Furthermore, any policy must not be applied in an overly rigid
manner so as to fetter GDC’s discretion (discussed below).
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further environmental objectives, it is using the statute for an improper purpose (Congreve
v Home Office [1976] 1 QB 629).
This could, alternatively, be a case of mixed motives, whereby GDC has in fact achieved
two objectives, one of which is authorised (preventing use of private minibuses) and
one of which is not (promoting ecological issues). If the primary purpose is lawful
then obtaining an incidental advantage may not invalidate the exercise of the power
(Westminster Corporation v LNWR [1905] AC 426), but much will depend on what the
primary purpose was here. Furthermore, in more recent case law, the courts have
considered whether the unauthorised purpose ‘materially influenced’ the decision
(R v ILEA, ex p Westminster City Council [1986] 1 WLR 28). Tariq would need to establish
that the ecological issues materially influenced GDC’s formulation of its policy.
Fettering of discretion
Even if the policy itself is lawful, Tariq could argue that it has been over-rigidly applied
in his particular case. Although he operates minibuses, he should be treated as an
exception to it, having secured contracts from two employers in the area to transport their
workers (British Oxygen v Minister of Technology [1971] AC 610).
Wrongful delegation
Joanna can only raise the fact that the decision was taken by the Transport Sub-Committee.
However, under s 101 of the Local Government Act 1972, councils are allowed to delegate
their decision-making to council committees or sub-committees. If the GDC has formally
delegated its functions in this case, Joanna would not have any grounds of review.
Conclusion
GDC is entitled to formulate a general policy to guide it in its exercise of its discretionary
powers. However, the policy must be lawful. In this case, it seems GDC’s policy is unlawful
as GDC, through pursuing environmental objectives not envisaged by the empowering
statute, has taken into account an irrelevant consideration and is pursuing an improper
purpose, which has materially influenced its decision.
Even if the policy were lawful, GDC has fettered its discretion by applying its policy over-
rigidly. It should have considered Tariq’s evidence regarding his contracts.
Tariq therefore has a very good chance in succeeding in a judicial review claim.
In contrast, Joanna is unlikely to succeed, as GDC has probably delegated the decision-
making power lawfully.
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Errors of fact
Public authorities dealing with the same issues on a daily basis develop expertise in assessing
facts, and it would overload the courts if they had to decide all the factual disputes that arise
from executive decisions. So the courts are more reluctant to allow judicial review for errors of
fact than errors of law. Some errors of fact are, however, amenable to judicial review.
(a) ‘Jurisdictional’ errors of fact
Alleged ‘jurisdictional’ errors of fact are reviewable by the courts, as confirmed in the
case of R v Secretary of State for the Home Department, ex p Khawaja [1984] AC 74.
The Immigration Act 1971 allowed the Home Secretary to order the removal from the UK
of ‘illegal entrants’. The Home Secretary made such an order in respect of a Mr Khera.
Khera’s lawyer sought judicial review of the order on the grounds that the Home Secretary
had got a central fact wrong, in that Khera had not, as the Home Secretary had thought,
tried to hide his entry into the UK, and he was therefore not an illegal entrant.
The House of Lords decided that the matter was amenable to judicial review and found
for Khera. Their Lordships stated that decisions based on alleged errors of fact that go to
the root of a public authority’s capacity to act (ie ‘jurisdictional’ or ‘precedent’ facts) are
reviewable. This was such an error of fact, since the Home Secretary would not have been
able to rely on the Act if Khera genuinely had been legally in the UK.
(b) Other errors of fact
‘Non-jurisdictional’ errors of fact are not usually amenable to judicial review. The courts
will defer to the decision of the decision-maker designated by statute.
The example exercises that follow will help you to distinguish between error of law and fact.
Examples
(a) A local authority has a statutory power to buy land compulsorily unless it is residential
land, including parks and gardens. The authority makes a compulsory purchase
order in respect of some farmland. The owner asserts that the land is in fact part of a
park. Is this an error or law or of fact, and, if the latter, is it ‘jurisdictional’?
Answer
Whether farmland is part of a park and therefore ‘residential land’ depends on
evidence and is therefore a question of fact. Assuming that the local authority has
made an error, its decision can be challenged on the basis that it has made a
‘jurisdictional’ error of fact. Under the statute, the local authority did not have the
jurisdiction to make a compulsory purchase order if the land was in fact part of a
park. This is a ‘precedent fact’ relevant to the exercise of the power (R v Secretary of
State for the Home Department, ex p Khawaja).
(b) A statutory tribunal has power to fix rents for unfurnished lettings. The relevant statute
provides that a letting is furnished if a substantial part of the rent is attributable to
the use of furniture. The tribunal fixes the rent of a flat in one case where the landlord
has provided a threadbare carpet and a broken settee. The landlord objects on the
grounds that the flat is furnished. Is this an error or law or of fact, and, if the latter, is
it ‘jurisdictional’?
Answer
The decision will only be reviewed by the court if there is a ‘jurisdictional’ error of fact,
as in example (a) above. The issue here is whether the provision of a carpet and a
settee means that the property is in fact furnished. This depends on the evidence, and
therefore, if an error has been made, it is an error of fact. Under the statute, the tribunal
had no power to deal with a furnished letting, so the error would be jurisdictional.
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6.6 Irrationality
Successful challenges under the irrationality ground of review require proof of a very high
degree of unreasonableness. This is possibly due to concerns on the part of the judiciary that
ruling on irrationality will open the courts up to accusations of judging the merits of a decision
rather than whether the decision was arrived at lawfully.
As the courts have used different tests over the years, we need to consider how the test for
irrationality has developed.
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The example exercise that follows will give you an opportunity to apply the various tests for
irrationality, as well as considering aspects of illegality.
Example
Assume that, to combat traffic congestion in urban areas, Parliament passed the Parking
Restrictions Act 2008 (‘the Act’) (fictitious), giving local authorities power to ban parking of
cars ‘in such areas as they think fit’.
Herbert lives near a busy main road in the centre of Redton. He has received a letter from
the ‘Transport Officer’ of Redton Borough Council stating that he is no longer allowed to
park his car on his driveway.
Consider whether Herbert can challenge this decision on grounds of irrationality. Could
any other ground(s) of challenge be relevant?
Answer
Irrationality
Although there is a statutory power to ban parking of cars ‘in such areas as [Redton
Borough Council] think[s]fit’, the aim of the legislation was to combat traffic congestion in
urban areas. Herbert will argue that banning him from parking on his own driveway is not
a rational exercise of that power.
Applying the Wednesbury principle from Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v
Wednesbury Corporation [1948] 1 KB 223, the court must ask itself if it is a decision that
no reasonable local authority could have arrived at and, bearing in mind Lord Diplock’s
terminology in CCSU v Minister for Civil Service [1984] UKHL 9, if it could be regarded as
‘outrageous in its defiance of logic’.
Example
Assume that a statute sets up a tribunal to determine appeals from welfare benefit
claimants who have had their claims rejected.
Which of the following complaints would be procedural and which substantive? Why
should claimants be able to use procedural grounds of challenge?
(a) Claimant A says that the tribunal has made findings about his private life that he had
no chance to contest before the tribunal.
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(b) Claimant A also says that the findings about his private life are wrong.
(c) Claimant B says that she has not been told by the tribunal why her appeal was
refused.
(d) Claimant C says that a member of the tribunal deciding his case is a neighbour with
whom he has quarrelled in the past.
Answer
All the above complaints are procedural apart from (b). What they have in common is
that they are about the steps leading to and the circumstances surrounding the tribunal’s
decision, rather than the decision itself.
Procedures should be open to challenge because the claimant needs to know that their case
was handled fairly, quite apart from whether the decision affecting them was right or wrong.
Many procedural requirements, on which a decision’s validity depends, are found in the
statutes that confer the decision-making powers. To breach such requirements is said to be
‘procedurally ultra vires’.
Other requirements are derived from the common law rules of natural justice or, as it is
now widely known, the doctrine of ‘procedural fairness’. We shall examine the common law
procedural requirements first.
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orders. The House of Lords found for Dimes, stating that Lord Cottenham should have been
disqualified from hearing the case because he had a direct interest in the outcome.
In R v Bow Street Metropolitan Stipendiary Magistrate and Others, ex p Pinochet Ugarte
(No 2) [2000] 1 AC 119, the House of Lords added a new element to this principle. General
Augusto Pinochet was indicted for human rights violations committed in his native country
while he was the head of the military dictatorship that ruled Chile between 1973 and 1990. He
was indicted by a Spanish magistrate on 10 October 1998 and arrested in London six days
later pursuant to an international arrest warrant. Initially, he was successful in challenging his
arrest in the courts, with the Lord Chief Justice, Lord Bingham, ruling that he was ‘entitled to
immunity as a former sovereign from the … English courts’.
The House of Lords disagreed in R v Bow Street Metropolitan Stipendiary Magistrate and
Others, ex p Pinochet Ugarte (No 1) [2000] 1 AC 61. In November 1998 the Law Lords ruled
by a majority of three to two that state immunity applied only to acts that international law
recognised as being amongst the functions of a head of state, and this did not include torture
or hostage taking. Lord Hoffmann was one of the judges giving the majority decision, but
it subsequently became apparent that he had been an unpaid director and chairman of
Amnesty International Charity Ltd (AICL) since 1990. AICL was wholly controlled by Amnesty
International, which had been allowed to intervene in the appeal. Pinochet sought to have the
decision set aside on this basis, arguing that Lord Hoffmann had an interest that disqualified
him from taking part in the case.
Lord Browne-Wilkinson classified the case as one in which the decision-maker is a judge in
his own cause. Previously this category had been confined to cases of direct financial or
proprietary interest in the case. Lord Browne-Wilkinson decided that the category should
be extended to cases of non-pecuniary interest, where the decision-maker is involved in
promoting the same cause as a party to the case.
The Law Lords in the Pinochet (No 2) case thought that the public could not have complete
faith that bias had played no part in the original decision because Lord Hoffmann had an
apparently direct interest, albeit one from which he did not stand to benefit financially, which
should have disqualified him from sitting on the panel. The decision was therefore overturned.
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on himself to ensure that the final verdict would indeed be that she was guilty, so as not to
lose face.
The House of Lords agreed that it had been unwise of Magill to call a premature press
conference, but disagreed that there was any evidence of bias. The Law Lords were
nonetheless satisfied that Magill had not unwittingly created for himself an indirect interest in
the outcome of the investigation.
The House of Lords said that the following test should be applied in cases of indirect
bias: would a fair-minded and impartial observer conclude that there had been a real
possibility of bias? The court does not ask whether the decision was in fact affected by the
bias of the decision-maker, but how the decision would appear to the observer.
Another case that illustrates this rule is R v Pintori [2007] EWCA Crim 170. The appellant
was convicted of possessing a Class A drug after several police officers had raided his flat.
Following the trial, it became apparent that one of the jurors was a civilian working for the
police who knew some of the officers involved in the raid reasonably well. The appellant
appealed against his conviction on the ground that there was a real possibility that the juror
and therefore the jury as a whole was biased against him.
The Court of Appeal allowed the appeal, holding that the appellant did not have a fair trial
because the fact that the juror knew the officers would, of itself, have led the fair-minded and
informed observer to conclude that there was a real possibility of bias on her part. Such a
person would have concluded that the juror was disposed to find the appellant guilty simply
because she knew the officers, had worked with them, and therefore wanted (consciously or
unconsciously) to support them in the prosecution. Although the deliberations of a jury are
secret, the fair-minded and informed observer would also have concluded that there was a
real possibility that the juror had influenced her fellow jurors, leading to the conclusion that
there had been a ‘real possibility’ of bias.
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In the next example exercise you will consider into which category a potential claimant falls.
Example
Under the Factory Safety Act 2021 (fictitious), the Factory Approval Board (‘the Board’) is
given the power to regulate matters of health and safety in factories. Any person wishing
to open a new factory must apply to the Board for a licence. All existing factory owners
must apply to the Board for a licence to continue operating.
The Board publishes a circular that states that, in order to ensure the health and safety
of workers, it will grant a licence to someone wishing to open a new factory only if that
person can show that health and safety training will be provided to all those who are to
work at the factory.
1. Terence applies to the Board for a licence to open a new factory to manufacture
industrial lathes. Terence has never previously operated any factory premises.
2. Charlotte has operated a factory making garden ornaments for 10 years. When she
applies for a licence to continue operating her factory, she is informed by the Board
that her factory is to shut forthwith.
3. Paul applies to the Board for a licence to open a new factory that will manufacture
computer components. As part of his application, Paul supplied the Board with details
of an agreement he has reached with a company that will provide all his prospective
employees with two weeks’ worth of health and safety training.
Identify whether Terence, Charlotte and Paul respectively fall into the category of
forfeiture, legitimate expectation, or mere applicant.
Answer
1. Terence is a mere applicant. He is seeking a licence that he has not held previously.
2. Charlotte’s case is one of forfeiture. She is being deprived of something (ie the right
to use her factory) that she already has.
3. Paul has a legitimate expectation that his application will be granted. It is legitimate
for him to expect to receive a licence to operate his factory because he appears to
meet the criteria set out in the Board’s circular.
Forfeiture cases
For an example of a forfeiture case, consider Ridge v Baldwin [1964] AC 40. Ridge was the
Chief Constable of Sussex. Together with some more junior officers, Ridge was accused of
conspiracy to obstruct the course of justice. The other officers were found guilty but Ridge
was acquitted. Despite his acquittal, the trial judge criticised Ridge for not having set a good
example to the junior officers. Ridge was dismissed the following day, apparently on the
strength of the judge’s comments. He was given no warning and was not told of the case
against him. Ridge applied for judicial review of the decision to dismiss him on grounds of
procedural unfairness.
The House of Lords held that the outcome of the decision was of special importance in
this case, since Ridge stood to lose (or ‘forfeit’) his pension rights as well as his livelihood.
Consequently, he was entitled at the very least to know the case against him. The Law Lords
declared the decision to dismiss Ridge unlawful.
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(2) substantive legitimate expectation where the decision-maker has led someone to believe
that he or she will receive a benefit.
Here, we will examine the first of these: procedural legitimate expectation. R v Liverpool
Corporation, ex p Liverpool Taxi Fleet Operators [1972] 2 QB 299 provides an example of a
procedural legitimate expectation case. 300 existing Liverpool taxi licence holders were given
a written assurance by Liverpool City Council that they would first be consulted if the council
decided to grant any new licences to more taxi drivers. However, the council then passed a
resolution to grant more licences without consulting existing taxi drivers, who challenged the
decision on grounds of a broken written promise.
The Court of Appeal held that it had been legitimate for the existing taxi drivers to expect
the council to honour its written undertaking. The council was not at liberty to disregard its
promise.
What if a procedural policy, such as internal guidance within a government department, has
not been published publicly and therefore the claimant has no knowledge of it? In Mandalia
v Home Secretary [2015] UKSC 59 the Supreme Court held that the public body should apply
that policy unless it had a good reason not to do so. It stated that this principle ensured that
cases would be dealt with fairly and consistently. Such a principle was related to legitimate
expectation but was ‘freestanding’.
Application cases
For an example of an application case, see McInnes v Onslow-Fane [1978] 1 WLR 1520.
McInnes made six applications to the Boxing Board of Control for a licence to manage
boxers. On each occasion his application was refused, with no oral hearing being granted
and no reasons being given. McInnes applied for judicial review on the basis that he had not
received a fair hearing.
The court found for the Boxing Board as McInnes was a mere first-time applicant. All that
natural justice therefore required of the Board was that it should act honestly and without bias.
Another example of an application case is R v Gaming Board, ex p Benaim and Khaida
[1970] 2 QB 417. Applications to magistrates for gaming licences could be made only once
potential applicants had obtained a certificate of consent from the Gaming Board. The
Board refused to grant such a certificate to Benaim and Khaida. The Board gave them an
opportunity to make representations and disclosed information that had led them to doubt
the applicants’ suitability, referring to criteria laid down by statute. Benaim and Khaida sought
judicial review of the Board’s decision.
The Court of Appeal found in favour of the Board. The Board was under a duty, even with first-
time applicants, to give applicants a sufficient indication of the objections against them to
enable them to answer those objections. However, it had done this. It had no further duty to
give reasons for its decisions.
You have a chance to consider into which of the three categories the claimant falls in the next
example exercise.
Example
George, a taxi driver licensed by Blackton District Council, has just had his licence
revoked. He has been told that this is ‘on account of your inappropriate conduct’, but has
not been given any further details or granted a hearing.
Consider whether George can make a claim for judicial review of the council’s decision.
Answer
The decision affects George’s ability to continue to work as a taxi driver, so this is a
forfeiture case. This means that George will be entitled to expect more, including the right
to an oral hearing, for the hearing to be considered fair.
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The common law right to a fair hearing in any case requires that he should have been
given notice of the case against him and an opportunity to refute any evidence brought
against him prior to any decision being taken to revoke his licence (Ridge v Baldwin
[1964] AC 40).
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As you have just seen, the right to know the case against you is a standard requirement of
a fair hearing. However, the law has not yet accepted that public authorities also have a
general duty to give reasons for their decisions. In the case R (Hasan) v Secretary of State for
Trade and Industry [2008] EWCA Civ 1311, the High Court held that the law did not recognise
a general duty to give reasons for an administrative decision. However, exceptions do exist.
One exception is when a decision is taken which, in the absence of reasons, looks ‘aberrant’
(ie completely wrong). For example, in R v Civil Service Appeal Board, ex p Cunningham
[1991] IRLR 297, Cunningham was dismissed, unfairly in his opinion, from the prison service,
whose members had no right to claim unfair dismissal. Cunningham’s only option was to
apply to the Civil Service Appeal Board for compensation. The usual award in circumstances
where, as here, dismissal was considered unfair was around £15,000, but Cunningham was
awarded only £6,500. He therefore sought judicial review of the Board’s decision to award
him such a small amount.
The Court of Appeal ruled that natural justice requires that a decision-maker should give
reasons for a decision where fairness requires that a claimant should have an effective right
to challenge a decision that looks wrong; where, in the words of Lord Donaldson MR, the
decision ‘cries out for explanation’. This inexplicably low award amounted to such a case.
In R v Secretary of State for the Home Department, ex p Doody [1994] 1 AC 531, the
applicants were convicted of murder and received mandatory sentences of life imprisonment.
The Parole Board could only consider applications for a parole once the prisoner had served
a minimum period of imprisonment. This period, known as the tariff, was set by the Home
Secretary following recommendations by the trial judge. In the cases involving the appellants,
the Home Secretary decided not to follow recommendations of the trial judges and set longer
tariffs. The applicants were not consulted but they were told the tariffs they would have to
serve before a review of their sentences. The applicants claimed that the Home Secretary had
acted unlawfully by failing to give reasons for his decisions
The House of Lords expressly accepted that there is no general duty to give reasons for an
administrative decision. However, such a duty may in appropriate circumstances be implied.
In this case, the length of the tariff was of crucial importance to the prisoners. To give effect
to the fundamental considerations of procedural fairness, it was necessary to ensure, firstly,
that every life prisoner should have the opportunity to make written representations as to the
appropriate minimum period in their case and, secondly, those representations should be
informed by a full knowledge of any relevant judicial recommendations and comments. This
meant that, although the Home Secretary was not obliged to adopt the judicial view of the
tariff, if he departed from it he had to give reasons for doing so. Moreover, since the Home
Secretary’s decision was susceptible to judicial review, it would only be possible to mount an
effective attack on it if his reasoning was known.
In the case of Higher Education Funding Council, ex parte Institute of Dental Surgery [1994]
1 WLR 242, the court provided guidance on when decision-makers should give reasons. The
Higher Education Funding Council awarded research grants to institutions, according to the
quality of their research, based on the results of a research assessment exercise it conducted.
The council gave the Institute of Dental Surgery a low rating, resulting in a reduction of
£270,000 in the amount granted. The council gave no reasons as to why it had reduced the
Institute’s rating. The Institute applied for judicial review.
Sedley J confirmed that there was no general duty to give reasons, but there were classes of
case where fairness required the giving of reasons:
• where the legal subject matter is particularly important, for example, personal liberty;
• where the decision appears aberrant. The giving of reasons will then enable the recipient
to know whether the aberration is, in the legal sense, real (and so challengeable) or
apparent.
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However, as the instant case involved no more than the informed exercise of academic
judgment and there was nothing inexplicable about the decision itself, fairness did not require
the giving of reasons.
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published a draft order bringing in changes to the way solicitors were paid for conveyancing
work. On behalf of the committee and as required by s 56 of the Solicitors Act 1957, Lord
Hailsham, the Lord Chancellor, sent a draft of the order to the Law Society allowing a month’s
consultation period before the proposal would be finalised. The Law Society published the
proposal in the Law Society Gazette.
Bates was a solicitor who was also a member of the British Legal Association (BLA). The BLA
asked Lord Hailsham, the Lord Chancellor, to extend the one-month consultation period to
three months. Lord Hailsham refused the BLA’s request. Bates sought judicial review of the
refusal to extend the consultation period and sought an injunction against the proposed order
becoming finalised.
The court found for Lord Hailsham on the grounds that the committee’s function was legislative
rather than judicial, and so the rules of natural justice did not apply.
The reason why the rules of natural justice do not apply to legislative functions is that
delegated legislation usually affects the public or a section of the public as a whole, rather
than having a separate effect on each individual’s rights. Fairness could not require that each
member of the public should be heard before legislation is made.
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The changes meant that parents of pupils over 13 years of age might have to travel much
further to deliver their children to school. Three hundred parents therefore petitioned the
Secretary of State for Education against the planned changes, but the changes went ahead
regardless. The parents therefore sought judicial review of the Authority’s failure to comply in
full with the notice requirements.
The court found in favour of the Authority. In other words, the court considered non-compliance
with s 13 in this case to have been breach of a merely directory requirement, rather than
breach of a mandatory requirement.
How does the court decide whether a procedural requirement is mandatory or directory?
One of the factors the court will take into account is the wording of the statute itself. However,
given that both of the above cases turned on the same section of the Education Act, this is
clearly not the only factor they consider.
A closer inspection of any distinguishing facts between the two cases illustrates what other
factors the courts take into account.
In Bradbury, the London Borough of Enfield had failed to give any notice at all. It had made
no effort to comply with any of the notice requirements contained in s 13. The Court of
Appeal decided that the borough had thereby substantially prejudiced claimants, who were
significantly affected by the major reforms. The Court found that the requirements of the Act
were an important procedural safeguard for those likely to be affected by the school closures.
By contrast, in Coney the North Nottinghamshire Local Education Authority had placed notices
both in the local newspaper and in some conspicuous places. It had even placed notices
around the schools, but had simply not done so at or near the main entrances. The court
decided the Authority had not thereby substantially prejudiced claimants, who, the court felt,
had every prospect of seeing one of the many notices, despite their absence from the school
entrances.
A comparison of these two cases, then, shows that whether or not a claimant is substantially
prejudiced by non-compliance with an important procedural safeguard is a factor for the
courts to take into account in determining whether a statutory requirement is mandatory or
merely directory.
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A substantive legitimate expectation may occur where the decision-maker has led someone
to believe that they will receive a benefit. The leading case in this area is R v North and East
Devon Health Authority, ex p Coughlan [2001] QB 213. The claimant, having been injured in
a road accident, was severely disabled. She consented to be moved to a new care facility,
Mardon House, on the basis that she had been assured by the health authority that this would
be her home for life. However, a few years later, the authority decided to close Mardon House
on the basis that it was too expensive to run. Lord Woolf LCJ analysed the court’s role when
dealing with legitimate expectation cases. He stated that there are at least three possible
outcomes:
(a) The court may decide that the public authority is only required to bear in mind its previous
policy or other representation. It must give this the weight it thinks right, but no more,
before deciding whether to change course. Here the court is confined to reviewing the
decision on Wednesbury, that is irrationality, grounds. It will only be in exceptional cases
that irrationality will be found. An example where the decision-maker was found to be
irrational was R v IRC, ex p Unilever plc [1996] STC 681. The company claimed for loss
relief, a type of tax allowance. In this case the loss relief that the company claimed was
technically time-barred as the company applied for the relief after the official deadline.
However, the Inland Revenue had always accepted such claims by the company in the
past. The court held that, on the basis of the Revenue’s past practice, refusal to grant the
relief would be irrational.
(b) The court may decide that the promise or practice induces a legitimate expectation of,
for example, being consulted before a particular decision is taken. This is the ‘procedural
legitimate expectation’, which you considered at 6.7.1.4.
(c) The court may decide that the promise or practice has induced a legitimate expectation
of a substantive benefit and that to frustrate the expectation is so unfair that it would
amount to an abuse of power. In these cases, the court will have the task of weighing the
requirements of fairness to the individual against any overriding public interest relied on
by the public body for its change of policy.
Mrs Coughlan’s case fell into the third category. She had received both oral and written
assurances from the health authority that she could live at Mardon House for as long as
she chose to do so. She had interpreted this to mean for the remainder of her life. The court
had to consider the ‘compelling reasons’ put forward by the health authority for closure of
Mrs Coughlan’s home, ie that Mardon House had become ‘a prohibitively expensive white
elephant’. The court decided that Mrs Coughlan did have a substantive legitimate expectation
to remain in Mardon House for the remainder of her life. This expectation had arisen in her
mind as a result of words and actions of the local authority, which had not properly weighed
all the considerations before making its decision. There was no overriding public interest to
justify the breach of her legitimate expectation. The decision to close Mardon House was
therefore quashed.
The danger exists that in requiring a decision-maker to honour a substantive legitimate
expectation, the courts are usurping the role of the decision-maker. However, in R (Niazi) v
Secretary of State for the Home Department [2008] EWCA Civ 755, Laws LJ stressed that a
substantive legitimate expectation (Lord Woolf’s third category) would only arise where the
public body concerned had made a specific undertaking, directed at a particular individual
or group, that the relevant policy would be continued. Such undertakings are likely to be
directed at a small class of people. Laws LJ stressed that the type of legitimate expectation
found in Coughlan was likely to be exceptional. Public bodies will not normally be legally
bound to maintain a policy that they have reasonably decided to change. In addition, the
consequences of requiring the authority to keep to its promise in Coughlan were financial
only –and as the group of people was small, the impact on public finances would not be
severe.
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Legitimate expectation is rather difficult to classify under the traditional judicial review
grounds, and it would appear to span all three of Lord Diplock’s ‘domestic’ grounds in the
CCSU case. In the first of Lord Woolf’s categories, a claimant’s ground of challenge would
appear to be irrationality, in the second procedural impropriety, and in the third ‘abuse of
power’, a type of illegality. Some academics argue that legitimate expectation constitutes a
new ground of review. However, so far the courts seem to have squeezed it into the traditional
categories.
Summary
By studying this chapter, you should have gained an understanding of what judicial review
can achieve, how a claim can be established by reference to grounds of challenge, and
an understanding of the difference between substantive and procedural grounds. This will
provide a basis for you to go on in the next chapter to explore in detail how a claim for
judicial review is made.
• Illegality is a ground for challenge. The main categories of illegality are:
∘ Acting without legal authority (ultra vires): The decision-maker exceeds the powers
given by statute (ex p McCarthy and Stone).
∘ Error of law: the decision-maker misunderstands its powers (Anisminic).
∘ Jurisdictional error of fact: the decision-maker makes a mistake as to a fact that
must be in place to trigger the use of the power (ex p Khawaja [1984] AC 74).
∘ Policy: a decision-maker is allowed to formulate a policy on which to base decisions
for the purpose of administrative expediency (British Oxygen) but it must properly
reflect the statutory powers given to the decision-maker.
∘ Fettering discretion by applying a policy too rigidly: a decision-maker must not
close its ears to an applicant who has something new to say (British Oxygen).
∘ Fettering discretion by acting under the dictation of another: a decision-maker
must not allow another person to make the decision for it (Lavender & Son).
∘ Improper or unauthorised purpose:: the decision-maker must use its powers for the
correct purpose (ILEA).
∘ Dual purpose: the decision-maker should not use its powers to cover two or more
different purposes, if one or more of those purposes was unlawful and materially
influenced the decision. If, on the other hand, the authorised purpose was the
dominant purpose, then the decision will stand (ILEA).
∘ Considerations: a decision-maker must not take irrelevant considerations into account
when making its decision and must not ignore relevant considerations (Roberts v
Hopwood; Padfield).
• Irrationality is a ground for challenge where a decision is ‘so unreasonable’ that ‘no
reasonable authority could ever have come to it’ (Associated Provincial Picture Houses
v Wednesbury Corporation) or ‘so outrageous’ in its defiance of logic that ‘no sensible
person’ could have reached it (CCSU). Whilst the threshold for irrationality is high, cases
such as Wheeler v Leicester City Council show it can be reached.
• Procedural impropriety is a ground for challenge based on the way in which a decision
has been reached (‘procedure’). Figure 6.3 illustrates the categories of procedural
impropriety.
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Procedural impropriety
• The two common law rules of procedural fairness, or natural justice, are:
∘ The right to fair hearing: the rules of natural justice demand that a hearing should
be fair in all the circumstances (Ridge v Baldwin), although what constitutes a fair
hearing depends on factors such as the nature of the interest of a party adversely
affected by a decision (McInnes v Onslow-Fane).
∘ The rule against bias: an individual has the right to a fair and independent tribunal,
so they can challenge decisions where the decision-maker is biased or appears to be
biased. There are two categories of bias:
— Direct interest: the decision-maker should not judge in their own cause. If they
receive a pecuniary advantage as result of their decision, it will automatically be
void (Dimes v Grand Junction Canal Co.). The same principle applies if they have
a shared commitment or belief with one of the parties in the case (ex p Pinochet
Ugarte (No 2)).
— Indirect interest: the test is whether a fair-minded and informed observer would
conclude that there was a real possibility of bias (Porter v Magill).
• The final category of procedural impropriety is:
∘ Breach of statutory procedural requirements, or procedural ultra vires: according to
R v Soneji, whether a procedure set within a statute should be followed depends on
Parliament’s intention in the face of its breach.
• A legitimate expectation, either procedural or substantive, can arise as a result of a
promise made by a decision-maker. The promise should be honoured unless public
interest prevails (ex p Coughlan).
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Sample questions
Question 1
Assume that a statute (fictitious) gives local authorities the power to grant licences to
cinemas in their area ‘on such conditions as they think fit’. Exercising this power, a local
authority grants a company a licence on condition that no film should be shown at its
cinemas unless approval is first obtained from the local Churches Committee. The company
objects to this condition.
Which of the following best describes whether the company can successfully seek
judicial review of this licence condition?
A The decision is lawful as the licensing authority had effectively delegated its decision-
making power to another body, the local Churches Committee and the delegation
cannot be challenged.
B The decision is lawful because the delegation was made to a local committee and the
statutory exception relating to local bodies applies.
C There is illegality as the delegation to a religious body (the local Churches Committee)
was in breach of the rule against delegation.
D There is illegality as the licensing authority had delegated its decision-making power
to another body, which was neither a civil servant nor a local authority committee or
officer.
E There is illegality as the licensing authority, by delegating its decision-making power to
another body, was pursuing an unreasonable purpose.
Answer
Option D is correct. The facts are similar to that of Vine v National Dock Labour Board.
The licensing authority had delegated its powers in breach of the rule against delegation
and neither the civil servant nor local authority committee exemption applied because the
decision was delegated to a local Churches Committee. Option D is a better answer than
option C as the reason the rule against delegation was breached had nothing to do with
the nature of the Churches Committee. Option D is also a better answer than option E; on
the facts the licensing authority’s purpose is not known, but in any event even if its purpose
had been legitimate it would have breached the rule against delegation.
Option A is wrong, as there is a clear breach of the rule against delegation. Option B is
wrong as the statutory exception it refers to applies only to committees, sub-committees and
officers of local authorities, not to local bodies in general.
Question 2
Assume that a statute (fictitious) gives power to the Secretary of State to assess claims
for property damage arising out of terrorist bomb attacks and to award financial
compensation based on the damage suffered. The Act permits a maximum award of
£100,000 to be made.
A charity that provides temporary accommodation for the homeless had its premises
destroyed in a bomb attack. It applied to the Secretary of State for compensation of
£100,000 to go towards the cost of rebuilding, estimated at £150,000. It was awarded
compensation of only £5,000. No reasons were given by the Secretary of State for the size
of the award. Before applying for compensation, the charity consulted the Secretary of
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State’s department and was sent a copy of a departmental circular, which states ‘when
awarding compensation, a full award will normally be given to charitable organisations
providing care for disadvantaged groups’.
Which of the following best describes the grounds on which the charity should seek
judicial review of the amount of the award?
A The charity’s claim is likely to fail as it is a mere applicant and the Secretary of
State’s only duty is to act honestly and without bias. On the facts provided, there is no
evidence of dishonesty or bias.
B The charity’s claim is likely to fail. The Secretary of State is under no duty to give
reasons and, in the absence of reasons, the charity cannot prove the Secretary of State
has acted illegally or irrationally.
C The charity’s claim is likely to succeed. By failing to award £100,000 compensation, the
Secretary of State has breached a mandatory procedural requirement.
D The charity’s claim is likely to succeed. The statement in the circular is likely to create a
substantive legitimate expectation that its application will be successful and it will be
an abuse of power to frustrate that expectation.
E The charity’s claim is likely to succeed. In the absence of reasons, the decision is likely
to be held to be irrational.
Answer
Option E is correct. The charity will most likely be able to bring a claim based on irrationality.
Whilst there may also be procedural impropriety, neither option C nor option D correctly
summarises the position.
The charity is entitled to a fair hearing. On the face of it, it is a first-time applicant for
compensation (McInnes v Onslow-Fane), which may impact on what is expected of the
decision-maker in order to achieve fairness. However, the charity will argue that the statement
in the circular has created a substantive legitimate expectation that its application will be
successful.
It is then necessary to analyse whether this case falls within the first or third of Lord Woolf’s
categories in Coughlan. It is likely to fall within the first category as it involves the payment
of money rather than a basic need such as healthcare. The charity would therefore have to
rely on irrationality. As no reasons have been given for reducing the award of compensation
from £100,000 to £5,000, the charity has a strong argument that the Wednesbury threshold
of irrationality has been reached. Option E is therefore correct and a better answer than
option D. Option B is also clearly wrong as the absence of reasons is likely to lead to a
finding of irrationality.
Although there is no general requirement for ministers to give reasons for their decisions,
the courts may require this if the decision appears wrong. Here, they may require reasons
to enable the charity to ascertain whether the minister took all relevant circumstances into
account in reaching his decision (ex p Cunningham). In this case, the size of the award may
appear unjustifiably low, and if so, the decision could be quashed for the failure to give
reasons. However, this duty arises from the common law rules of procedural fairness, and do
not arise from statute; hence option C is wrong. Option A is wrong as the circular has created
a legitimate expectation that the charity will receive a full grant.
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Question 3
Assume that a statute (fictitious) gives local authorities the power to order the closure of
market stalls in a public market if the trader has repeatedly sold goods that are not of
a satisfactory quality. The statute provides that the operator of any stall that is to be the
subject of a closure order shall be given seven days’ notice of the order, and shall also
be given the right to make representations against the closure. Using its power, the local
authority has sent a notice to a trader ordering the closure of his stall after seven days.
The local authority has stated that due to the poor quality of the goods the trader sells,
there is no point in him making representations.
Which of the following best describes whether the trader could seek judicial review of
the closure notice?
A The trader’s claim is likely to fail. Due to the seriousness of the matter, the local
authority was entitled to dispense with the requirement to allow the trader to make
representations.
B The trader’s claim is likely to fail. The requirement to allow the trader to make
representations is merely a guidance as to good practice and its breach does not
render the closure notice invalid.
C The trader’s claim is likely to fail. The requirement to allow the trader to make
representations is merely a directory procedural requirement and its breach does not
render the closure notice invalid.
D The trader’s claim is likely to succeed. The requirement to allow the trader to make
representations is a mandatory procedural requirement as Parliament probably
intended its breach to invalidate the closure notice.
E The trader’s claim is likely to succeed. The local authority has acted without legal
authority in ordering the closure of the stall without allowing the trader to make
representations.
Answer
Option D is correct. The issue is whether the local authority has failed to comply with a
mandatory procedural requirement or a directory one. Non-compliance with the former
renders a decision invalid on grounds of procedural ultra vires, whereas failure to comply
with a directory requirement does not. An important factor that the court will take into account
is the wording of the statute itself. According to the facts, the statute provides that local
authorities ‘shall’ allow operators of stalls to make representations; this points towards a
mandatory obligation to consult. However, the language used is not conclusive.
Case law also shows that where a claimant is substantially prejudiced by non-compliance
with an important procedural safeguard, the courts are likely to rule a statutory requirement is
mandatory. Another question is whether Parliament would have intended the consequence of
non-compliance with the relevant statutory requirement to be the invalidity of the decision. This
seems likely, as closure of the stall will deprive the trader of his livelihood. Accordingly, options
C and B are wrong for suggesting the requirement is merely directory or guidance as to good
practice respectively.
Option A is wrong as, in the absence of statutory authority, the seriousness of the matter does
not dispense with the need to observe procedural requirements.
Option E is wrong as the local authority did have the legal authority to order the closure of
the stall, provided it followed the correct procedure. Acting without legal authority (one of the
headings under illegality) arises when a decision-maker does not have the power at all to
take a given decision, no matter how properly it tried to act.
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7 Judicial Review –Procedure
and Remedies
7.1 Introduction to procedure and remedies 132
7.2 Is judicial review the appropriate procedure to use? 133
7.3 Identity of the decision-maker 135
7.4. Standing in claims for judicial review 136
7.5 Making a claim for judicial review 137
7.6 Exclusion of the courts’ judicial review jurisdiction 139
7.7 Procedure for bringing a judicial review claim 141
7.8 Remedies in judicial review 142
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 assessment specification in relation
to functioning legal knowledge concerned with core administrative law principles,
including:
• judicial review:
∘ remedies;
∘ decisions that may be challenged;
∘ standing; and
∘ time limits.
Note that for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case names or
cite statutory or regulatory authorities. Cases are provided for illustrative purposes only.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas, including the ability to:
• explain the principle of ‘procedural exclusivity’;
• assess whether a decision-maker is one against whom judicial review claims may
be brought;
• assess whether the claimant is likely to be deemed to have sufficient interest to
bring a judicial review claim;
• assess whether attempts by Parliament to oust the judiciary from participating in
a judicial review claim are likely to succeed;
• assess whether a court is likely to permit a judicial claim which is brought neither
promptly nor without undue delay; and
• consider what remedies a successful claimant is likely to be granted.
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Is defendant
amenable to
judicial review?
3. Procedure
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Example
Consider which of the following claims you would expect to be brought by way of judicial
review proceedings:
1. A private care home has told an elderly woman that it is terminating her care
contract and will remove her from the home. She wishes to challenge the decision.
2. Your client has been given negligent advice by a council planning officer, leading
him to spend money on a planning application that has failed. He wishes to recover
compensation.
3. You act for an electricity company that has been told that the Government is revising
its national power strategy in favour of nuclear power sources. The company feels
that it was not properly consulted.
Answer
Only claim 3 would be brought via judicial review proceedings, as it involves a challenge
to a public body (the Government) on public law grounds (fair hearing).
Claim 1 involves a challenge to a private body (the care home) on private law grounds
(breach of contract).
Claim 2 involves a claim against a public body (the local authority) but on private law
grounds (claim in tort for negligent misstatement).
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of decisions (eg the permission and delay rules that affect an application for judicial
review – see 7.5 below).
(b) The judicial review procedure had been reformed in 1978 to remove the defects of the old
procedures.
7.2.2 Cases involving both a public law and a private law element
An exception to the ‘procedural exclusivity’ principle is where a case involves both private and
public law.
This was so in Roy v Kensington Family Practitioner Committee [1992] AC 624. Dr Roy, a GP,
argued that he was entitled, under NHS regulations, to be paid the ‘full rate’ on the fee scale
provided by the Kensington Family Practitioner Committee. Such a rate was available to any
GP where the Committee was satisfied that he or she was devoting a substantial amount of
his or her time to general practice.
The Committee believed that Dr Roy did not satisfy this criterion and so paid him 20% less
than the ‘full rate’. This was a public law decision, challengeable via judicial review. Dr Roy
sued the Committee for the balance, alleging breach of contract and pursuing ordinary
private law procedure. The Committee argued that he should have sought judicial review and
that his private law claim should therefore be dismissed.
The House of Lords found that where a claim is based on a mixture of private rights and
public law grounds, the public law element may be raised in private law proceedings.
However, it remains the case that exclusively public law issues must be determined in judicial
review proceedings, and exclusively private law issues must be determined in ordinary private
law proceedings.
Examples of the most common types of public law cases include challenges to the making
of a compulsory purchase order over land, challenges to the grant (or refusal) of a licence
permitting a particular type of activity to be carried out, and challenges to the refusal of
discretionary financial grants.
A public law issue may also be raised as a defence in private law proceedings, through the
principle of ‘collateral challenge’, as illustrated in the cases of Wandsworth London Borough
Council v Winder [1985] AC 461 and Boddington v British Transport Police [1998] 2 WLR 639.
In Wandsworth v Winder the Council had increased council rents substantially and sued a
council tenant who had refused to pay the increase. The defendant claimed, as a public law
defence, that the increase in rent was ultra vires. The Council argued that he should have used
judicial review.
The House of Lords confirmed that a defence alleging the invalidity of a public law decision
may be raised either in private law proceedings or through judicial review. In this case, the
public law issue is said to arise ‘collaterally’ in the private law proceedings.
In Boddington the House of Lords extended the concept of collateral challenge to criminal
cases. Mr Boddington had been prosecuted for smoking on a train in breach of a byelaw.
His defence was that the byelaw itself was unlawful. Although he failed to establish this, the
House of Lords found that a defendant to a criminal charge may normally use a public law
issue as a defence.
The next example exercise will enable you to consolidate your understanding of this area.
Example
(a) Aruna is a self-employed accountant who provided some accountancy services to the
Constantia District Council. The Council has refused to pay her bill, arguing that it is
too high.
How should Aruna proceed?
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(b) A group of protesters is being sued for trespassing on common land in contravention
of a local authority byelaw. The protesters claim that the byelaw is ultra vires and
therefore that they were not trespassing.
Will the protesters be able to assert their claim that the byelaw is ultra vires as a
defence against the claim for trespass?
Would your answer differ if the protesters were instead being privately prosecuted for
criminal trespass?
Answer
This activity aims to demonstrate the principle of procedural exclusivity (O’Reilly v
Mackman). Here, Aruna has a private law (contractual) relationship with the Constantia
District Council.
She needs to proceed by way of a private law claim for damages, not by way of judicial
review.
By way of exception to the general principle in O’Reilly v Mackman, the protesters should
be able to challenge the validity of the byelaw as part of their defence to what appears
to be a civil claim for trespass (rather than a criminal prosecution) as they are raising a
public law defence to private law proceedings (Wandsworth LBC v Winder).
If the protesters were defending a private prosecution for criminal trespass, they could
still raise the invalidity of the byelaw as a defence, but the appropriate authority for this is
Boddington v British Transport Police.
Example
Under the Advertising Regulation Act 2017 (fictitious) the Advertising Conduct Commission
(ACC) is established to regulate the advertising industry. Under the Act, a business
wanting to set up a new advertising agency must obtain a licence from the ACC.
Is the ACC amenable to judicial review?
Answer
The ACC was created by statute, namely, the Advertising Regulation Act 2017. It therefore
satisfies the first element of the two-part test, ie the source of power test, established in
R v Panel on Takeovers, ex p Datafin plc. Consequently, it is a public rather than a private
body and, as such, is amenable to judicial review.
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Example
You will recall from the previous example that, under the Advertising Regulation Act
2017 (fictitious) (as above), a business wanting to set up a new advertising agency must
obtain a licence from the ACC. The ACC has granted a licence to Abstotic Marketing Ltd
(‘Abstotic’).
The UK Consumer Forum (‘the Forum’), a well-known pressure group that campaigns for
better standards in the advertising industry, objects to the grant of the licence as one of
Abstotic’s major shareholders and its chief executive have both recently been convicted
and fined substantially under legislation prohibiting misleading advertisements.
Does the Forum have standing to bring a judicial review claim?
Answer
The courts will deem a claimant to have sufficient standing to bring a judicial review claim
only if they have ‘sufficient interest in the matter to which a claim relates’, as required by s
31(3) of the Senior Courts Act 1981.
The statute contains no definition of ‘sufficient interest’. Instead the courts apply factors
developed through case law. In the Forum’s case, the courts will apply the five factors
set out ex p World Development. On the basis of these factors the courts are likely to
consider that the Forum has ‘sufficient interest’ in the decision to grant Abstotic a licence
to apply for judicial review.
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Note also that in R (Kigen) v Secretary of State for the Home Department [2015] EWCA Civ
1286 the Court stated that, due to changes that had occurred since the decision in ex p
Jackson, it was no longer appropriate to treat delay in obtaining legal aid as a complete
answer to a failure to comply with procedural requirements. However, it may still be a factor
that can be taken into account.
Finally, in R v Dairy Produce Quota Tribunal, ex p Caswell [1990] 2 All ER 434, the court stated
that, even if permission was granted and the case proceeded to a full hearing, a remedy
could be refused if the application had been made outside the three-month time limit.
The next example exercise will enable you to check your understanding of time limits in
judicial review.
Example
Under the Advertising Regulation Act 2017 (fictitious) (as above), a business wanting to
set up a new advertising agency must obtain a licence from the ACC.
Adgreen Ltd made an application to the ACC for a licence, which was rejected. At the
time of the rejection, none of the directors of Adgreen Ltd knew of the existence and
availability of judicial review. Six months later, one of the directors discovered that it was
possible to ask the High Court to review decisions by public bodies such as the ACC.
Is it too late for Adgreen Ltd now to bring a claim for judicial review?
Answer
A claimant for judicial review must make its claim promptly and without undue delay.
At the very latest, the claim must be made within three months of the date on which the
decision being challenged was made. It is entirely within the court’s discretion to decide
that a period of less than three months is insufficiently prompt.
However, the court also has a discretion to extend the maximum time period beyond three
months where it is satisfied that the claim form was submitted late for a very good reason
(ex p Jackson (above)). In the case of Adgreen Ltd, though, it is unlikely that the court
would consider ignorance of the availability of judicial review to be a very good reason.
If leave were granted, the delay might result in refusal of a remedy (R v Dairy Produce
Quota Tribunal, ex p Caswell [1990] 2 All ER 434).
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The House of Lords was prepared to consider this case even though the statute that created
the FCC contained a provision stating that any decision made by the FCC ‘shall not be called
into question in any court of law’. The House of Lords stated if a public body steps outside its
permitted area, its decisions are not covered by an ouster clause because invalid decisions
are not in fact decisions at all, but ‘nullities’. Ouster clauses therefore only protect valid
decisions from judicial review.
The rationale of their Lordships in Anisminic was that, whenever a body created by statute
had misunderstood the law that regulated its decision-making powers, any decision based
on such a misunderstanding had to be ultra vires and a ‘nullity’. Parliament, in enacting the
statute that gave the body its powers, could not have intended decisions that were legally
incorrect to be immune from challenge, and therefore any ouster clause would be ineffective
in protecting such decisions.
The judgment of the House of Lords in Anisminic means that full ouster clauses will not protect
decisions that were never legally valid, and it is up to the court to review a decision to decide
whether it is legally valid or invalid.
In the recent case of R (Privacy International) v Investigatory Powers Tribunal [2019] UKSC
22, Lord Carnwath, who gave the lead judgment, stated that the courts’ treatment of ouster
clauses was ‘a natural application of the constitutional principle of the rule of law’. The
Supreme Court accepted that it may be possible to exclude judicial review by the use of very
clear and explicit words. However, to date, no legislation has been passed containing a full
ouster clause with sufficiently ‘clear and explicit words’ to be upheld by the courts.
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holding that the six-week time limit [in planning cases] provides a proportionate balance
between effective judicial review, and the need for certainty to enable such decisions to be
acted on with confidence’.
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The claim form is ‘served’ on the defendant (and any other interested party)
Note: if the judicial review proceedings are contested, the defendant should
respond to the claim form, indicating the grounds for contesting the claim.
The court will then decide whether to grant permission to the claimant to
proceed with the claim
Permission decisions will often be made ‘on the papers’ (ie without hearing
the parties).
If permission is granted, the defendant (and any other interested party) will
file its evidence. The court will now proceed to ‘Stage 2’, the substantive
hearing of the claim for which it will fix a date.
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that the outcome to the claimant would not have been substantially different if the conduct
complained of had not occurred. The court may, however, disregard this requirement for
reasons of exceptional public interest.
7.8.2.1 Declaration
A declaration is a court order confirming, but not changing, the legal position or rights of
the parties. It is a non-coercive remedy so can be ignored without any legal sanctions.
Nonetheless, declarations do perform a useful function. For example, in Royal College of
Nursing v Department of Health and Social Security [1981] AC 800 a government circular
asserted that nurses could lawfully undertake part of a procedure for terminating a pregnancy
without a doctor’s supervision. The claimants applied for a declaration that the government
circular was wrong in law, as its own guidance had pointed in the opposite direction.
A quashing order would not have been appropriate as there was no act or decision that
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could be quashed; however, it was desirable in the interests of nurses and the public for the
correct legal position to be established. This was the case even though, in the absence of any
prosecutions of nurses, it was an abstract point of law. The Government in turn counterclaimed
for a declaration that its guidance was not wrong in law and in fact was granted a
declaration in those terms.
7.8.2.2 Injunction
An injunction is a court order performing essentially the same function as a prohibiting order
(see 7.8.1.2), namely, to restrain a person or body from illegal action; eg a tort or breach of
contract. One of their main benefits is that it is possible to obtain an interim, as well as a final,
injunction. Temporary injunctions, for example preventing a decision from being implemented
pending the court’s final ruling on the decision’s lawfulness, can be very useful. For example,
a court may grant an interim injunction preventing an asylum seeker’s deportation pending
judicial review of the lawfulness of the decision to deport them. This may be essential to
guarantee that the person concerned has not been deported by the time the court determines
the lawfulness of the decision.
7.8.2.3 Damages
Under s 31(4) of the Senior Courts Act 1981, the Administrative Court can award damages
on a claim for judicial review where the claimant is seeking other relief (eg a quashing
order) and damages could have been awarded in a civil claim. This means that the claimant
must have a private law cause of action (eg in tort or contract) or a claim for breach of a
Convention right (see Chapter 9). Damages cannot be awarded just because the claimant
has a ground of challenge. This was confirmed in R v Knowsley MBC, ex p Maguire (1992) 142
NLJ 1375.
In the Maguire case, the claimant was a taxi driver who had been refused a taxi licence by
his local council. He sought judicial review of this and the court found in his favour, quashing
the decision. He also sought damages, claiming he had suffered losses as a result of the
unlawful refusal of the licence. The court ruled that no damages were available.
The court found that Parliament had not intended an individual to have a private right of
action in respect of a failure by a licensing authority properly to exercise its powers under the
Act governing the granting of taxi licences. In the absence of any negligence or breach of
contract, there was therefore no right to damages.
So there is no general right in law to damages for maladministration.
The next example exercise will enable you to check your understanding of this area.
Example
A market is held each week in Porchester. Stallholders are licensed annually by Porchester
Borough Council. Stefan was awarded a licence in March. In June, following allegations
made to the Council’s trading standards department that Stefan was selling fake ‘Rolex’
watches, the Council revoked Stefan’s licence with immediate effect, without giving him
any opportunity to respond to the allegations (which he denies). Stefan says he has
incurred significant losses through being unable to trade.
Consider what remedies (if any) may be available to Stefan on a successful claim for
judicial review, and whether he would be likely to obtain damages for his losses.
Answer
Assuming Stefan makes a successful claim for judicial review (on the basis of procedural
impropriety), he would seek a quashing order. This would quash the revocation and allow
him to continue trading under the licence.
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Stefan is unlikely to obtain damages. Because of s 31(4) of the Senior Courts Act 1981,
damages are in effect available in a claim for judicial review only where the claimant
is seeking another remedy (as here) and, in addition to breach of public law rights or
legitimate expectations, the claimant can establish that their private law rights have been
infringed. However, damages are not available purely for the infringement of a public law
right (R v Knowsley MBC, ex p Maguire (above)).
Summary
In this chapter you have considered the procedure and remedies in a judicial review claim,
and how they affect whether a claim is successful.
You have considered in particular the following:
• The decision-maker must be a public law body to be amenable to judicial review.
• Claimants must have ‘sufficient interest’ to have the standing to bring claims.
∘ Claimants who are directly affected by a decision have little difficulty in showing this.
∘ Pressure groups need to show they have a genuine interest in the proceedings and
are not ‘busy-bodies’.
• Claimants should apply for permission for judicial review promptly, without undue delay
and within three months of the date of the decisions affecting them. A claimant who
waits until the end of the three months before lodging a claim runs the risk of undue
delay. Courts have the discretion to extend the time limit of three months where good
reasons exist.
• Ouster clauses sometimes purport to preclude challenges to the decisions of a
decision-maker.
∘ The courts have found ways of circumventing legislative attempts to exclude their
judicial review jurisdiction and have held that complete ouster clauses will not protect
decisions that were never valid (‘nullities’).
∘ The courts are willing to uphold partial ouster clauses that do not attempt to exclude
judicial review, but merely shorten the time limit for bringing claims.
• There are two stages to judicial review claims:
∘ The permission stage
∘ Full hearing
• The following remedies are available:
∘ Prerogative remedies: Quashing, mandatory and prohibitory orders
∘ Non-prerogative remedies: Declarations, injunctions and damages.
See also the summary flowchart in Figure 7.3 that consolidates the issues you have studied in
Chapters 6 and 7. It also refers to judicial review claims based on Convention rights, which
you will study in Chapter 8.
Even litigation lawyers who do not specialise in public law will occasionally have to deal with
a judicial review claim. You should now be aware that making such a claim requires prompt
action and involves very different principles from an ordinary civil claim.
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3. Procedure
CPR, Pt 54
Stage 1 – Permission
Stage 2 – Hearing
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Sample questions
Question 1
In order to address concerns about the behaviour of nightclub door supervisors in
controlling patrons, Parliament passed the (fictitious) Regulation of Nightclubs Act 2016
(‘the Act’). The Act creates the Entertainment Conduct Authority (the Authority) to regulate
the nightclub industry and to grant licences to individuals. Every door supervisor must hold
a licence from the Authority to work in the industry.
The Nightclub Workers’ Federation (NWF) is concerned about the fee that the Authority
is asking its members to pay on applying for their licences, believing it has exceeded its
statutory powers and has acted in a biased manner. The NWF wishes to challenge this on
their behalf.
Can the NWF seek judicial review of the licence fee?
A No, because the Authority is not amenable to judicial review claims, nor does the NWF
have sufficient interest to apply for judicial review.
B No, because although the NWF does have sufficient interest to apply for judicial review,
the Authority is not amenable to judicial review claims.
C No, because although the Authority is amenable to judicial review claims, the NWF
does not have sufficient interest to apply for judicial review.
D Yes, because the Authority is amenable to judicial review claims, and the NWF does
have sufficient interest to apply for judicial review.
E Yes, because as the NWF has sufficient interest to apply for judicial review, the Authority
will be deemed to be amenable to judicial review claims.
Answer
Option D is correct. In order to seek judicial review of a decision, there must be a public
body carrying out a public function. Here, the Authority is empowered to grant licences, so
both elements are satisfied (ex p Datafin). The Authority is therefore amenable to judicial
review.
As regards standing, the NWF is a body representing a number of members but, not being
able to apply for a licence, is not itself directly affected by the decision. As such, it will
have to show that it has ‘sufficient interest’ to challenge the decision relating to application
fees, and the factors from the World Development Movement case will assist. The court will
consider the need to uphold the rule of law, which here involves what may be an arbitrary
attempt to impose a fee and a biased decision by a public body. The importance of the
issue, which in this instance is whether or not power is given in the statute to charge a
fee, and the facts of the case, which suggest that the challenge by the NWF would decide
a point of interest to a number of different applicants, would also be relevant. It is also
unlikely that its members would themselves have the resources to mount an individual
challenge. As such, the NWF may be permitted to seek judicial review.
Option A is wrong because it incorrectly states the position regarding both amenability and
standing. Although option B correctly states the position regarding standing, it is wrong
regarding amenability. Option C is correct regarding amenability, but wrong regarding
standing.
Option E is wrong. Although it correctly states that the NWF has standing, it does not
therefore follow that the decision-maker is amenable to judicial review claims.
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Question 2
A statute provides that all decisions by a particular public body ‘shall not be called into
question in any legal proceedings whatsoever’. A company now wants to challenge a
decision that adversely affects its interests two months after the decision was made. The
reason the company waited for two months before deciding to challenge the decision was
that its board of directors was unsure whether or not it was in the company’s interests to
bring a challenge. However, last week it obtained counsel’s opinion that there were valid
grounds for challenge.
Can the company seek judicial review of the decision?
A Yes, because the ouster clause will not protect decisions of the public body from
challenge and the claim will be lodged within the time limit of three months.
B Yes, because the ouster clause will not protect decisions of the public body from
challenge and the claim will be lodged without undue delay on the part of the
company.
C No, because even though the ouster clause will not protect decisions of the public body
from challenge, there has been undue delay on the part of the company in lodging
the claim.
D No, because the ouster clause will protect decisions of the public body from challenge
even though the claim will be lodged within the time limit of three months.
E No, because the ouster clause will protect decisions of the public body from challenge
and there has been undue delay on the part of the company in lodging the claim.
Answer
Option C is correct. The ouster clause is unlikely to protect the decision from challenge as in
Anisminic (above) the House of Lords held that ouster clauses would not protect decisions
that were ‘nullities’. Assuming that the counsel’s opinion correctly indicates there are valid
grounds for challenge, the ouster clause will not protect the decision from challenge.
However, the company must comply with the time limits and must seek permission promptly
and without undue delay (SCA 1981, s 31) and in any event within three months of the date
of the decision (CPR, Part 54). As the company has waited for two months without good
reason, it is probably guilty of undue delay so will not be granted permission to bring
a claim.
Option A is wrong; although it correctly sets out the position regarding the ouster clause,
it is wrong regarding the time limit; there has been undue delay on the part of the
company and so it probably cannot bring a claim even though it is still within three months
of the date of the decision. Option B is wrong as there has been undue delay on the
company’s part.
Options D and E are wrong because the ouster clause will not protect decisions of the
public body, even though option E does correctly state there has been undue delay.
Question 3
A local authority has the statutory power to license ice cream vans to sell ice cream within
its boundaries. A woman has applied to the local authority for a licence to operate an ice
cream van. The local authority has refused to consider her application. She has lost money
as a result of being unable to trade.
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Answer
Option E is correct. The purpose of quashing orders is to set aside unlawful decisions, but the
local authority has refused even to consider the application. A mandatory order will force the
local authority to consider the woman’s application lawfully.
Although the woman has lost money due to the refusal to consider the application, she is
unlikely to obtain damages. In a claim for judicial review, a claimant can only be awarded
damages if they can establish that their private law rights have been infringed. However,
damages are not available purely for the infringement of a public law right (ex p Maguire
(above)).
Options A and B are therefore wrong because there is not a decision to quash, and
additionally option B refers to damages. Options C and D are wrong because they refer to
damages, even though option D does correctly refer to a mandatory order.
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8 The European Convention
on Human Rights
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 assessment specification in relation
to functioning legal knowledge concerned with core constitutional and administrative
law principles, including:
• HRA 1998 and the ECHR; and
• Schedule 1 of HRA 1998: the ‘Convention Rights’
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Note that for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case
names or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. Cases are provided for illustrative
purposes only.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas, including the ability to:
• identify the rights and freedoms set out in the ECHR;
• understand the procedure for bringing claims before the European Court of
Human Rights (ECtHR); and
• identify where a breach of a right granted by the ECHR occurs.
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as a matter of international law. Article 1 of the ECHR requires the signatories to the ECHR,
including the UK, to secure the rights conferred by the ECHR in their own jurisdiction.
It was not until the enactment of the HRA 1998 that rights under the ECHR were incorporated
into UK law. Section 1 and Schedule 1 of the HRA 1998 incorporated most ECHR rights into UK
law as ‘Convention rights’. The HRA 1998 is covered in more detail is Chapters 2 and 9.
8.3 Procedure
8.3.1 Types of proceedings
There are two ways in which proceedings may commence:
(a) State applications. If a state is in violation of the ECHR, proceedings may be brought
against it by another signatory state.
For example, Georgia has lodged two separate inter-state applications against Russia.
The first was filed in 2007 and related to the deportation of hundreds of ethnic Georgians
by Russia following a row about spying (Georgia v Russia I (Application No 13255/07)).
The second was in connection with the conduct of the Russian military forces in the 2008
war between the two countries (Georgia v Russia II (Application No 38263/08)).
(b) Individual petitions to the ECtHR. Individuals who allege that their Convention rights have
been breached as a result of domestic law may start their own proceedings against
the state before the ECtHR in Strasbourg. However, it must be shown that any domestic
remedies that exist have first been exhausted. Furthermore, there is a time limit, requiring
the petition to be made within six months of the final decision (in the UK this will usually
be the decision of the highest UK court having jurisdiction).
Applicants must, personally and directly, be victims of violations of the ECHR, and must
have suffered a significant disadvantage.
In 2019, 40,667 cases were disposed of judicially by the ECtHR; there were 884 judgments
after full proceedings and 38,480 applications were declared inadmissible or struck out. Most
cases therefore do not proceed to a full hearing but, of those that have done so since 1959,
state violations have been found in 84% of cases.
Possible remedies include the court awarding compensation or requiring the state to change
its law. However, individual decisions are only binding as a matter of international law
under the ECHR and have no direct binding force in domestic law. The ECtHR relies on the
willingness of states to abide by the ECHR and accept its judgments.
It is also important to appreciate that the ECHR is a ‘living instrument’ in the sense that
it has to be generously interpreted in the light of its aim of protecting human rights, the
understanding of which may change with evolving social conditions. Thus the content of
the rights may change over time as the ECtHR reinterprets the ECHR to keep it attuned to
changing values.
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Other cases will be heard by a Chamber of judges, which will give judgment by a majority.
The Chamber’s judgment will become final only after three months, during which the
applicant or state party may ask for the case to be referred to the Grand Chamber for fresh
consideration. If the request for referral is accepted by the panel of the Grand Chamber, the
Grand Chamber will reconsider the case and hold a public hearing if necessary. The Grand
Chamber judgment will be final.
The Committee of Ministers of the Council of Europe is responsible for ensuring that states
comply with judgments of the ECtHR.
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(continued )
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8.5.2 Qualifications must be prescribed by law (or be ‘in accordance with the law’)
A government can rely on a Convention qualification to justify a restriction on a Convention
right only if provisions of that state’s law actually take advantage of the qualification. So, for
example, it would not be possible for the UK Government to justify infringement of the right
to respect for private life (eg by telephone tapping) on the basis that it was needed for the
prevention of crime (Art 8), unless UK law clearly permitted the infringement. The law giving
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effect to the qualification may be written or unwritten, but the qualification must be embodied
in law.
Moreover, the law must be accessible (in published form) and sufficiently precise to enable
the citizen to regulate his or her conduct. So in Malone v UK (1984) 7 EHRR 14, the ECtHR
held that English law on telephone tapping was not clear enough at that time to provide a
sufficient legal basis for a restriction on the right to respect for private life.
In the case of multiple sclerosis sufferer Debbie Purdy, the absence of a crime-specific policy
relating to assisted suicide, identifying the facts and circumstances that the Director of Public
Prosecutions (DPP) would take into account when deciding whether to prosecute an individual
for assisting another person to commit suicide, meant that the statutory offence of assisted
suicide was not in accordance with the law for the purposes of Article 8(2); accordingly it
amounted to a violation of her right to lead a private life (R (on the application of Purdy) v
DPP [2009] UKHL 45). The existing law was insufficiently clear about the factors the DPP would
take into account, and therefore a person could not accurately predict if they were likely to be
prosecuted with assisting another’s suicide.
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8.6 Derogations
Under Article 15 of the ECHR, a state may derogate from part of the ECHR ‘in time of war or
other public emergency threatening the life of the nation’. This means that for the period of
the derogation the state is not bound to apply the specified provisions. There are, however,
conditions that limit the power to derogate, and no derogation is possible in respect of
Articles 3 (torture, etc), 4(1) (slavery), or 7 (retrospective criminal offences), or from Article
2 (right to life) except in respect of deaths resulting from lawful acts of war. The principle is
clearly that some violations of human rights are so wrong that no state should countenance
them, even in wartime.
Section 14 HRA creates a statutory procedure for enacting a derogation as part of UK law,
and s 1 states that Convention rights are to be read subject to any such derogation. As a
result, a UK court will not be able to enforce Convention rights where a derogation is in
operation.
The UK has issued derogations from Article 5 of the ECHR (personal liberty) in respect of the
prevention of terrorism legislation in Northern Ireland (now expired) and the Anti-terrorism,
Crime and Security Act 2001. The delegated legislation implementing the latter derogation
was quashed by the House of Lords in A v Secretary of State for the Home Department, and
the Government subsequently removed the derogation on the enactment of the Prevention of
Terrorism Act 2005.
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The leading case in this area is McCann v United Kingdom (1996) 21 EHRR 97 (the ‘death on
the rock’ case), which involved a challenge by the relatives of three Provisional IRA members
who were shot dead by SAS soldiers in Gibraltar in 1988. The relatives won by a slim majority
(10:9) on the basis that the force used was more than absolutely necessary. Whilst the
actions of the SAS soldiers who had killed the terrorists did not violate Article 2, the control
and planning of the operation lacked sufficient regard for the protection of the lives of the
suspects, so Article 2 had been violated.
8.7.2.1 Embryos/foetuses
Article 2 has been held not to protect embryos by preventing their destruction when one party
withdraws his or her consent to implantation (Evans v UK (2006) 4 EHRLR 485–88). In this case,
the ECtHR dismissed an appeal by the applicant under Article 2 and accepted the decision
of the domestic courts that the embryos had no right to life under Article 2. The Court said this
decision was within the margin of appreciation allowed to member states. In the cases of Re
F (In Utero) (Wardship) [1988] 2 FLR 307 and Re MB (Medical Treatment) [1997] 2 FLR 426, it
had already been established that a foetus has no such right to life, so the right could clearly
not apply to an embryo.
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In Da Silva v United Kingdom (2016) 63 EHRR 12, the ECtHR found that there had been no
breach of the duty under Article 2 to conduct an effective investigation into the death. As soon
as it was confirmed that Mr Menezes was not a suspected suicide bomber, the Metropolitan
Police Service publicly accepted that he had been killed in error by special firearms officers.
A representative of the Metropolitan Police Service flew to Brazil to apologise to his family
face to face and to make a payment to cover their financial needs. They were further advised
to seek independent legal advice and assured that any legal costs would be met by the
Metropolitan Police Service.
The decision not to prosecute any individual officer was not due to any failings in the
investigation or the state’s tolerance of or collusion in unlawful acts. Rather, it was due to the
fact that, following a thorough investigation, a prosecutor considered all the facts of the case
and concluded that there was insufficient evidence against any individual officer to meet the
threshold evidential test in respect of any criminal offence.
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significant bruising. The stepfather was subsequently charged with assault occasioning actual
bodily harm. At trial, he raised the defence available under English law that the beatings
represented reasonable chastisement, which he was entitled to inflict. The stepfather was
acquitted and A applied to the ECtHR, arguing that his treatment constituted a violation of his
rights under Article 3.
The Court found that the injuries inflicted on A were sufficient to engage Article 3, and that
the state had failed to put in place laws that would satisfactorily protect the rights of children
such as A. The Court found in particular that the law was deficient in leaving it up to a
jury to decide whether the treatment received by A amounted to reasonable chastisement.
Parliament subsequently amended the law in this area.
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8.9.2 Slavery
The internationally accepted definition of slavery was set out in Article 1 of the 1926 Slavery
Convention. This defined slavery as ‘the status or condition of a person over whom any or all
of the powers attaching to the right of ownership are exercised’. The ECtHR has accepted this
definition.
8.9.3 Servitude
Someone in a position of servitude is not owned by another, and so is not a slave. The ECtHR
has found that servitude includes an obligation on the part of the person who is the ‘serf’ to
live on the property of another, and an inability for that person to change that condition.
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that this requirement did not breach of Article 4. The Court said that an essential element
of forced labour was that the individual had to be exploited, and that requirement was not
met here.
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The leading case in this area is Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333. In 1975, an Italian
court ordered that Guzzardi, a suspected Mafia leader, should be placed under special
supervision for three years with an obligation to reside on a small Italian island. The
island measured some 50 square kilometres but the area for Guzzardi’s compulsory
residence was limited to some 2.5 square kilometres.
A majority of the ECtHR held that these limitations amounted to a deprivation of liberty.
In its judgment, the Court said that: ‘The difference between deprivation of and restriction
upon liberty is one of degree or intensity, and not one of nature or substance.’
What the Court meant by this was that, in any given situation, it was necessary to look at
the level of the restrictions placed on an applicant, rather than their specific nature. The
Court held that deprivation of liberty may take many forms, going beyond what it referred
to as ‘classic detention in prison’.
In Guzzardi’s case, the Court found that, whilst the area around which Guzzardi could
move far exceeded the dimensions of a cell and was not bounded by any physical
barrier, it covered a tiny fraction of an island to which access was difficult and about nine-
tenths of which was occupied by a prison. Also, Guzzardi was housed in a tiny village,
living in the company of other persons subjected to the same measure. He was not
permitted to visit the main settlement on the island, and his social contacts were limited
to his near family, his fellow ‘residents’ and the supervisory staff. In addition, Guzzardi was
not able to leave his dwelling between 10pm and 7am without giving prior notification
to the authorities. He had to report to the authorities twice a day and inform them of the
name and number of his correspondent whenever he wished to use the telephone. In
conclusion, the Court said:
It is admittedly not possible to speak of ‘deprivation of liberty’ on the strength of
any one of these factors taken individually, but cumulatively and in combination
they certainly raise an issue of categorisation from the viewpoint of Article 5. In
certain respects the treatment complained of resembles detention in an ‘open
prison’ or committal to a disciplinary unit.
In a UK context, the definition of the term ‘deprivation of liberty’ was considered by the
House of Lords in Secretary of State for the Home Department v JJ [2007] UKHL 45. In this
case, the Secretary of State used statutory powers to make what were called control
orders over six people of Iranian or Iraqi nationality. The orders were made because the
Secretary of State had reasonable grounds for suspecting them of involvement in terrorist-
related activity and he considered the orders to be necessary to protect members of the
public from a risk of terrorism.
The orders required each controlled person at all times to wear an electronic tagging
device, to remain within his specified residence, a one-bedroom flat, except between
10am and 4pm, and to permit police searches of the premises at any time. Visitors to
the premises were permitted only where prior Home Office permission had been given.
During the six hours when the controlled persons were permitted to leave their residences
they were confined to restricted urban areas, which deliberately did not extend, except in
one case, to any area where they had previously lived. Each area contained a mosque,
health care facilities, shops and entertainment and sporting facilities. Each controlled
person was prohibited from meeting anyone by pre- arrangement without prior Home
Office approval.
Adopting the approach taken by the ECtHR in the Guzzardi case, the House of Lords held
that the right to individual liberty in Article 5 connoted the physical liberty of the person
and, in cases of dispute, it was for the court to assess into which category a particular
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case fell. In order to do this, the court needed to consider the situation of the particular
individual and, taking account of a whole range of criteria including the type, duration,
effects and manner of implementation of the measures in question, to assess their impact
on them in the context of the life they might otherwise have been living. Applying those
factors, a majority of the House of Lords held that the right to liberty of the six individuals
had been violated.
The cases of Guzzardi and JJ make it clear that a person may be deprived of their liberty
under Article 5 without being detained in prison. However, in such cases there would need
to be a significant element of physical confinement together with significant restrictions on
the life that can be lived when not so confined.
In recent years, the ECtHR has had to determine whether the ‘kettling’ of protesters falls
within the scope of Article 5. Kettling is the practice of containing a group of people in a
particular area for a limited period of time in the interests of public order.
In Austin v UK (2012) 55 EHRR 14, four people had been contained within a police cordon
for several hours during an anti-capitalism demonstration in central London. One had
been taking part in the demonstration, but the others were simply passers-by. Police
intelligence indicated that the demonstration presented a serious threat to public order,
and a risk of damage to property and serious injury or death.
As in Guzzardi, the Court stressed that Article 5 was not concerned with mere restrictions
on liberty of movement. The difference between a deprivation of liberty and a restriction
upon it was one of degree, and therefore the type, duration, effects and manner of
implementation of the measure used had to be considered.
The Court found that whilst the coercive nature, duration and effect of the containment
suggested a deprivation of liberty, the context was significant. The police had had no
alternative but to establish the cordon to isolate and contain a large crowd and to avert
a real risk of injury or damage. The applicants did not argue that they had been deprived
of their liberty as soon as the cordon was imposed, and the Court was unable to identify
a point at which a restriction on their freedom of movement became a deprivation of
their liberty. The police had made attempts at dispersal and had kept the situation under
review, but the dangerous conditions that had necessitated the imposition of the cordon
existed until early evening. Therefore, those within the cordon could not be said to have
been deprived of their liberty within the meaning of Article 5.
8.10.3 When may the state lawfully deprive an individual of their liberty?
Article 5(1)(a)–(f) lists six situations in which an individual may lawfully be deprived of
their liberty without a violation of the basic right contained in Article 5. In summary, these
limitations are:
(a) when an individual is sent to prison after being convicted of a criminal offence;
(b) when an individual is arrested or detained in order to ensure that the individual complies
with a court order;
(c) when an individual is arrested on suspicion of having committed a criminal offence, to
prevent them from committing an offence or to prevent them from fleeing after having
committed an offence;
(d) when a minor is detained for the purposes of educational supervision;
(e) when someone who is mentally ill is detained for their own protection or the protection of
others; and
(f) the detention of individuals in connection with asylum, deportation or extradition.
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Even if one of the limitations exists, any deprivation of liberty will only be within the
requirements of Article 5 if it takes place in accordance with a procedure prescribed by law.
This means that, if the state deprives an individual of his liberty, that detention must not be
carried out in an arbitrary manner –proper legal procedures must exist and must be followed
if a deprivation of liberty is to be lawful. In Saadi v United Kingdom (2008) 47 EHRR, the
ECtHR stated that a number of requirements need to be met in order to prevent a deprivation
of liberty being arbitrary.
• Firstly, the detention has to be carried out in good faith. This means that it has to be
closely connected to one of the purposes listed in Article 5(1)(a)–(f).
• Secondly, the detention must be necessary. This means that it can only be justified when
less severe measures have been considered and rejected.
• Thirdly, the length of the detention should not exceed that reasonably required for the
purpose pursued.
• Fourthly, proper records of the reason for the detention must be kept.
• Finally, the detention must be lawful within the terms of the national law of the state
concerned.
For example, Article 5(1)(a) permits the lawful detention of a person after conviction by
a competent court. Detention under this sub-paragraph will only be lawful if the term of
imprisonment imposed is proportionate to the crime committed, and there is a clear link
between the offence, the crime committed and the purpose for which the convicted person is
detained in prison.
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a fair trial under Article 6 would apply in a trial involving an alleged breach of contract by
the supplier of goods, or a trial where an individual claims damages for personal injuries
sustained in a road traffic accident caused by the negligence of another driver.
The Court has also recognised that employment law cases and the decisions of disciplinary
bodies that have the effect of preventing an individual pursuing their chosen profession also
fall with Article 6.
Article 6 can also apply to the administrative decisions taken by local authorities and other
public authorities, such as the determination of an application for a licence to carry out a
particular activity or decisions on the grant or refusal of planning permission. If a public
authority fails to provide an applicant in such cases with a fair trial, the applicant will have
recourse to judicial review proceedings to challenge the decision made.
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• where the exclusion is required in the interests of morality, public order or national
security;
• where the exclusion is required in the interests of juveniles or the protection of the private
life of the parties; or
• where there are special circumstances that, in the opinion of the court, would prejudice
the interests of justice.
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made that were recorded on a bugging device that had been placed at premises Khan was
visiting. The trial judge declined to exclude this evidence under s 78. Khan argued that this
violated his right to a fair trial under Article 6 and also his right to privacy under Article 8.
The ECtHR found that the installation of the bugging device had violated Khan’s right to
privacy, as the law in England concerning the use by the police of a covert listening device
was not sufficiently clear, and the installation of the bug was therefore unlawful. Despite this,
the Court held that there had been no violation of Khan’s right to a fair trial. The Court said
that the key question for the purposes of Article 6 was whether the trial as a whole was fair.
Khan had ample opportunity to challenge both the authenticity and the use of the recording,
and had the domestic courts been of the view that the admission of the evidence would have
given rise to substantive unfairness, they would have had a discretion to exclude it under s
78 PACE.
The approach that UK courts now take to evidence that the police have obtained improperly
or unlawfully is to allow the prosecution to use this evidence if it is relevant to an issue in the
case. The courts will only exclude this evidence if there is something unreliable about it.
There are, however, some circumstances in which the courts must exclude prosecution
evidence. The courts will refuse to allow the use of evidence in criminal proceedings if that
evidence has been obtained through torture or inhuman treatment. To allow such evidence
to be used at trial would be in breach of Article 3 of the Convention. Also, under s 76 PACE
courts must exclude evidence of any confession given by a defendant in criminal proceedings
if that evidence has been obtained either through oppressive behaviour by the police, or if
there are any other circumstances that make it unreliable.
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8.11.7.2 The right to have adequate time and facilities to prepare the defence
A defendant must also be given adequate time and facilities for the preparation of their
defence. A defendant may, for example, require time to contact witnesses who may assist their
defence or to obtain documents relevant to their defence.
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The case of R (on the application of Swami Suryananda) v Welsh Ministers [2007] EWCA
Civ 893 shows how this test works in practice. Following the increased incidence of bovine
tuberculosis amongst cattle, the Welsh Government adopted a policy of slaughtering all
positively tested cattle to reduce the spread of the disease. A Hindu community’s temple
bullock tested positive. Its slaughter would have been a particularly sacrilegious act to the
community, so they sought to have it excepted from the policy of automatic slaughter,
suggesting instead a regime of isolation and testing. The ministers entered into a
dialogue with the community, and took account of expert evidence before making the
decision to slaughter the bullock.
The community applied for judicial review of the decision but, after success at first
instance, lost in the Court of Appeal, which approached the case in the following way.
The Court asked if the slaughter of the bullock engaged the rights of the Hindu community
under Article 9. The Court accepted that this was the case because the slaughter of the
bullock was a violation of the community’s religious beliefs.
The Court of Appeal then applied the test set out in Article 9(2).
Firstly, the slaughter of the bullock had to be prescribed by law. This requirement was
satisfied because the ministers were using powers given to them in the Animal Health
Act 1981.
Secondly, the slaughter of the bullock had to be in pursuit of a legitimate aim. One of the
legitimate aims contained in Article 9(2) is the protection of health. As the slaughter of
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the bullock was intended to prevent the spread of bovine tuberculosis, this requirement
was met. The Court also said that another legitimate aim – the economic well-being
of the country – was also relevant as the spread of bovine tuberculosis was having a
devastating effect upon the rural economy in Wales.
Finally, the Court of Appeal considered whether the decision to slaughter the bullock was
proportionate. The Court said that it was. Stopping the spread of bovine tuberculosis
in Wales was an objective that was sufficiently important to limit the rights of the Hindu
community. As the temple bullock had tested positive for this disease, its slaughter was
a rational way to stop the spread of the disease. The Welsh ministers had considered
alternatives, such as quarantining the animal, but had obtained expert evidence to
suggest that this would not prevent the spread of this highly contagious disease. The
Court found ultimately that an appropriate balance had been struck between the rights of
the Hindu community and the rights of the wider Welsh community – whilst the slaughter
of the bullock was a significant interference with the community’s religious beliefs, it
was justified given the catastrophic consequences the disease could have were it not
controlled.
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for the indefinite retention of fingerprints and DNA samples obtained as a result of being
investigated, even where the person was subsequently acquitted of the offence being
investigated or the proceedings against them were discontinued.
The ECtHR concluded that the retention constituted ‘a disproportionate interference with
the applicants’ right to respect for private life and cannot be regarded as necessary in a
democratic society’. This conflicted with a previous decision of the House of Lords in R (S)
v Chief Constable of South Yorkshire [2004] UKHL 39. In this case their Lordships had held
by majority that Article 8(1) was not engaged and held unanimously that the retention was
justified under Article 8(2).
To comply with the ECtHR’s judgment, Parliament enacted the Protection of Freedoms Act
2012, which includes provisions requiring the deletion of some DNA profiles from the DNA
database; these provisions came into force on 31 October 2013.
8.15.1.2 Home
This means the right to respect for one’s home and where one currently lives.
8.15.1.3 Correspondence
This includes phone calls, letters and e-mails.
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permit. In 1991, Uner entered into a relationship with a Dutch national. They started living
together shortly afterwards and had a son in 1992. They lived together for some 16 months
before Uner moved out. In 1994, Uner was convicted of manslaughter and assault. He had
two previous convictions in the Netherlands for violent offences. He was sentenced to seven
years’ imprisonment.
Uner continued to see his partner while he was in prison and a second child was born to the
couple in 1996. In 1997, Uner’s permanent residence permit was withdrawn and a 10-year
exclusion order imposed on him in view of his conviction and sentence. This meant that he
could not live in the Netherlands for a 10-year period.
The Dutch authorities considered that the general interest in ensuring public safety outweighed
Uner’s interest in being able to continue his family life in the Netherlands. Uner argued
that the authorities had violated his rights under Article 8 by failing to strike a fair balance
between those competing interests.
The ECtHR held that the deportation, removal or extradition of an individual could engage
the right to respect for his family life under Article 8(1) and, if it did, there were several factors
that the court needed to apply to determine if that deportation, removal or extradition was
proportionate. These were:
1. The length of time the individual has been in the country;
2. The seriousness of the offences that the individual has committed;
3. Details of the particular family circumstances of the individual, such as the age of their
children or the length of any relationship;
4. The interests of the children;
5. The seriousness of the difficulties that the family may experience in the receiving
country; and
6. The nature of the ties that the individual has with both the expelling and the receiving
country.
In Uner’s case, the Court found that there had been no violation of Article 8. Whilst Uner had
strong ties to the Netherlands, he had only lived with his partner and first-born son for a short
period. He had then put an end to the cohabitation and had never lived with the second child.
Whilst Uner had arrived in the Netherlands at a young age, he still had social and cultural
ties with Turkey. The offences of manslaughter and assault committed by Uner were of a very
serious nature. Taking his previous convictions into account, Uner had criminal propensities.
Also, Uner’s children were still very young and thus of an adaptable age. The Court said that
given the nature and seriousness of Uner’s offences, the Netherlands had struck a fair balance
between its own interests and those of Uner.
We will be analysing Article 8 further in the next chapter, which looks at conflicting Convention
rights.
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subject to restrictions that are prescribed by law, in pursuit of a legitimate aim and are
proportionate.
8.16.2 Restrictions
An issue that has arisen in recent years is the extent to which individuals may be prevented
from manifesting their religious beliefs either through not being permitted to wear particular
items of clothing or by being required to carry out certain tasks. This has arisen in the context
of what an individual may not wear or may be required to do at work, and the restrictions that
a school may impose on items of clothing worn by its pupils.
The leading case on restrictions that may lawfully be imposed in the workplace is Eweida
and others v United Kingdom (2013) 57 EHRR 8. In this case, four separate applicants
argued that their respective employers had either imposed restrictions on dress or
dismissed them in violation of their rights under Article 9. They had been unsuccessful
before the domestic UK courts.
(a) Eweida
Eweida had been employed by British Airways. She wanted to wear a cross as a
sign of her commitment to the Christian faith. Between September 2006 and February
2007, she was not allowed to remain in her post whilst visibly wearing the cross.
(b) Chaplin
Chaplin was a Christian who had worn a cross since 1971. She had been employed
as a nurse by an NHS trust. Her employer’s uniform policy prohibited the wearing of
necklaces to reduce the risk of injury when handling patients. When she refused to
remove the cross and chain she was wearing, she was moved to a non-nursing post,
which shortly thereafter ceased to exist.
(c) Lavelle
Lavelle had been employed by a local authority as a registrar of births, deaths
and marriages. She was a Christian and believed that same-sex civil partnerships
were contrary to God’s law. She refused to be designated as a registrar of civil
partnerships, which resulted in disciplinary proceedings and the loss of her job.
(d) MacFarlane
MacFarlane, a Christian, had been employed by Relate – a marriage guidance
organisation – which had a policy of requiring staff to provide services equally to
heterosexual and homosexual couples. He refused to commit himself to providing
psycho-sexual counselling to same-sex couples, which resulted in disciplinary
proceedings being brought against him.
The ECtHR considered each application in turn.
(a) Eweida – outcome
The Court found that a fair balance had not been struck. On one side of the argument
was Eweida’s desire to manifest her religious belief. On the other was the employer’s
wish to project a certain corporate image. Whilst the Court accepted that this aim
was legitimate, it said that the domestic courts had accorded it too much weight.
Eweida’s cross was discreet and could not have detracted from her professional
appearance, and there was no evidence that the wearing of other, previously
authorised, items of religious clothing by other employees had had any negative
impact on British Airways’ brand or image. The Court found that the domestic
authorities had failed sufficiently to protect Eweida’s right to manifest her religion, in
breach of their positive obligation under Article 9.
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8.17.2 Qualifications
Although the ECtHR has repeatedly stressed the importance of protecting political free
speech, there are circumstances in which a state may lawfully interfere with the exercise of
this right, particularly where matters of national security are concerned. An example of this
is Observer and The Guardian v United Kingdom (1992) 14 EHRR 153. In this case, various
newspapers complained that the granting of interim injunctions restraining them from
publishing extracts from a book called ‘Spycatcher’ contravened their right to freedom of
expression. The book was written by a former member of the security services, and contained
allegations of unlawful behaviour by the British security service.
The Court was satisfied that the interim injunctions were lawful and in pursuit of the legitimate
aim of national security. In addition, the injunctions were proportionate as they were only
obtained on an interim basis, pending a final hearing to determine whether publication of the
book should be allowed.
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After being convicted in the UK, Norwood applied to the ECtHR, but his application was
rejected because the views he sought to express were aimed at undermining others and were
therefore incompatible with the values that underpinned the ECHR, such as tolerance, respect
and non-discrimination.
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Article 11 is, however, qualified. As with the other qualified rights you have considered, the state
may lawfully limit the exercise of the right to freedom of association provided that limitation is
prescribed by law, is in pursuit of a legitimate aim, and is proportionate to that aim.
There are occasions on which a state has sought to proscribe particular political parties or
associations. Proscription means simply that a party or association is banned.
The ECtHR first considered the proscription of political parties in the United Communist Party
of Turkey v Turkey (1998) 26 EHRR 121. The United Communist Party of Turkey was formed in
1990. Turkish law required that all new political parties had to have rules, aims and a political
programme that was compatible with the country’s constitution. The authorities in Turkey
applied to the country’s constitutional court to have the United Communist Party dissolved. It
was alleged that the Party had violated the Turkish constitution by having incorporated the
word ‘communist’ into its name, and by having carried on activities likely to undermine the
territorial integrity of the state, through advocating the establishment of a separate Kurdish
nation. In July 1991, the constitutional court made an order dissolving the Party, based on
the inclusion in its name of the constitutionally prohibited word ‘communist’ and the alleged
encouragement of Kurdish separatism. The Party and its leaders applied to the ECtHR,
complaining that the dissolution of the party infringed their right to freedom of association as
guaranteed by Article 11.
The Court found that the dissolution of the Party was permitted under Turkish law and
arguably had a legitimate aim –national security. However the Court found the ban to
be disproportionate. The Court said that political parties had an essential role in ensuring
pluralism and the proper functioning of democracy, and Article 11 therefore had to be viewed
in the light of the protection of freedom of expression as guaranteed by Article 10.
The Court held that a political party’s choice of name could not justify its dissolution in the
absence of other relevant and sufficient circumstances, and there was no evidence that the
United Communist Party represented a real threat to Turkish society or to the Turkish state.
Also, a detailed reading of the Party’s programme showed that it intended to resolve the
Kurdish issue through dialogue, not violence.
The Court accordingly concluded that the drastic measure of dissolving the Party breached
Article 11.
In 2003, the European Court considered another Turkish case that involved freedom of
association. The case, Refah Partisi (the Welfare Party) v Turkey (2003) 37 EHRR 1, was very
controversial.
Refah Partisi was a political party set up in 1983. By 1996, it was able to form a government in
coalition with another party and its leader was Prime Minister. In 1997, Turkey’s state counsel
successfully applied to the country’s constitutional court for the dissolution of Refah Partisi,
on the ground that its activities were contrary to the principle of the separation of the state
from religious institutions as set out in the Turkish constitution, and also because some of its
members had called for the establishment of an Islamic state and the imposition of sharia
law in Turkey. Refah Partisi applied to the European Court of Human Rights, arguing that the
interference with its rights under Article 11 had been violated.
The Court found that the dissolution of the Refah Partisi did not violate Article 11. Although
there had been an interference with the party members’ rights under Article 11, this was
justified as it met the urgent need to protect democracy, for which purpose the state could
take pre-emptive steps where necessary. Refah Partisi’s commitment to implement the strict
requirements of Muslim sharia law was not compatible with Turkey’s secular democracy. The
Court said that the model of society and government that Refah Partisi wished to introduce
would undermine the very basis on which the ECHR rested.
The fact that Refah Partisi could have gone on to implement those policies in government
meant that it posed an immediate danger to Turkish democracy. Given the nature and
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immediacy of the threat, the actions of the Turkish Constitutional Court in dissolving the Party
were proportionate.
8.19.1 Scope
The ECtHR ruled in 2002 that the right extends to transsexual people (Goodwin v United
Kingdom (2002) 35 EHRR 18). The ECtHR has, however, held that Article 12 does not require
the state to recognise same-sex marriages (Chapin and Charpentier v France [2016]
ECHR 504).
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‘Peaceful enjoyment’ of property would, on its face, suggest that it covers a wide range
of situations. However, only interference that affects the financial value of property or
possessions will engage the right to ‘peaceful enjoyment’ of them. Thus, for example, noise
nuisance will only interfere with peaceful enjoyment to the extent that it reduces the value of
that property.
8.22.2 Restrictions
There are some situations in which public authorities can deprive people of their property or
restrict the way they can use them. This is only possible where the authority can show that
its action is lawful and necessary for the public interest. Generally speaking, a ‘deprivation
of property’ under this Article will not be considered to be in the public interest unless the
owner receives compensation. The state must strike a fair balance between the interests of a
property owner and the general interests of society as a whole.
Accordingly, a public authority wanting to use a compulsory purchase order to acquire
property for public purposes must strike a fair balance between the rights of the individual
property owners and the rights of the community. A crucial factor in any such balance will
be the availability of compensation reflecting the value of the property being compulsorily
purchased.
This right does not affect the ability of public authorities to enforce taxes or fines.
8.22.2 Exclusions
Pupils who have been excluded from schools for disruptive behaviour have invoked this
right, but usually without success, as the right is subject to limitations. In Ali v United Kingdom
(2011) ECHR 17 the ECtHR held that the right did not preclude disciplinary measures such
as expulsion or temporary exclusion, though to be lawful any such measures had to be
foreseeable, had to pursue a legitimate aim and had to be proportionate to that aim. In
determining whether an exclusion resulted in a denial of the right to education, the court
would have to consider whether a fair balance had been struck between the exclusion and
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the justification for it. However, where an exclusion from a school is permanent, it is likely that
states should ensure that pupils of school-going age receive education at another school.
Summary
In this chapter you have examined the rights and freedoms guaranteed by the ECHR and how
individuals can rely on them in practice.
• You examined how cases can reach the European Court of Human Rights, either through
state action or individual petition.
• You then considered absolute, limited and qualified rights.
• Absolute rights are rights that cannot be limited or interfered with under any
circumstances, even if strong public interest arguments were to exist. Article 2, the right to
life, is an absolute right. However, there are exceptions that define its scope and if one
of the exceptions exists, then there is no interference with this right. For example, if the
police kill an armed person to prevent the murder of innocent people, then Article 2 is not
engaged provided the police have used no more force than absolutely necessary.
• Limited rights can be restricted in certain circumstances as specified in the relevant Article
of the ECHR. For example, Article 5, the right to liberty and security of the person, can
be limited if a person is convicted and sentenced to prison. They are similar to absolute
rights in the sense that, unlike qualified rights, they cannot be ‘balanced’ against the
rights of other individuals or the public interest.
• Qualified rights may be interfered with in order to protect the rights of another or the
wider public interest, eg Article 8, the right to private and family life. For example
the state can interfere with a person’s private life on grounds of national security
provided the interference is prescribed by law, necessary in a democratic society and
proportionate. UK courts use the text in the Bank Mellat case to evaluate proportionality.
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Sample questions
Question 1
The Waste Management Act 2015 (fictitious) established the Waste Disposal Commission
to decide where incinerators to dispose of household waste shall be built in England and
Wales. A woman has objected to a decision made by the Commission approving the
building of an incinerator 200 metres from her home. Her main ground of objection is that
emissions will harm her and other people living nearby. Experts had produced evidence
to the Commission that there were other suitable sites in the locality further away from
people’s houses.
Which of the following best describes whether the building of the incinerator breaches
any of the woman’s Convention rights?
A The building of the incinerator does not engage any Convention rights as it is in the
public interest.
B Although the building of the incinerator engages the woman’s right to a private life, it is
a proportionate interference in the public interest.
C Although the building of the incinerator engages the woman’s right to a private life, it is
prescribed by law and so cannot be challenged.
D Although the building of the incinerator is in the public interest, it is a disproportionate
interference with the woman’s right to a private life.
E The building of the incinerator is not prescribed by law and is a disproportionate
interference with the woman’s right to a private life.
Answer
Option D is correct. The woman may be able to argue that her Article 8 right (right to a
private life) is being breached; accordingly option A is wrong as Article 8 is engaged.
However, Article 8 is a qualified right. The qualification has a legal basis here –the Waste
Management Act 2015; hence option E is wrong. The legitimate aim(s) being pursued by
the Act are likely to be the ‘economic well-being of the country’. However, the qualification
must also be ‘necessary in a democratic society’. Option C is therefore wrong because it
incorrectly suggests that it is sufficient if the interference is prescribed by law.
As the qualification has a legal basis and the 2015 Act is pursuing a legitimate aim,
it is necessary to apply the proportionality test. In other words, is the interference with
the woman’s rights proportionate to the objective being achieved, or would any lesser
interference be possible? In this case, it seems likely that there are more suitable sites for
the incinerator, away from residential areas. Option B is therefore wrong because it states
the interference is proportionate.
Question 2
A country that is not a signatory to the European Convention on Human Rights (‘the
Convention’) has asked the UK Government to extradite a woman living in the UK to
stand trial for murder in that country. The woman holds the nationality of the country
requesting her extradition, but not of any other country. The Secretary of State has ordered
the woman’s extradition and the woman has appealed to the High Court against the
extradition order. During the hearing she produces evidence that she could face the death
penalty if extradited and the High Court accepts the woman’s evidence.
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Which of the following best explains whether the High Court would uphold the
extradition order?
A It would not uphold the order because the Convention prohibits extradition to non-
signatory countries.
B It would not uphold the order because extraditing a person to stand trial for an offence
that could result in the imposition of the death penalty would violate that person’s
Convention rights.
C It would not uphold the order because extraditing a person to stand trial for an offence
that could result in the imposition of the death penalty fails to strike a fair balance
between the rights of the individual and the interests of the community.
D It would uphold the order because it is not certain that the death penalty would be
imposed on the woman if she was extradited.
E It would uphold the order because the Convention only protects the rights of people
who hold the nationality of a state that has signed the Convention.
Answer
Option B is correct. Extraditing a person to a country where they could face the penalty
would breach Article 2 (right to life) and probably also of Article 3 of the Convention
(prohibition of torture) (Soering (8.8.2 above) and Article 1 of the 13th Protocol (abolition
of the death penalty) (8.25 above)). Option A is wrong because the Convention does not
prohibit extradition to non-signatory countries, whilst option C is wrong as the right to life
and prohibition of torture are absolute rights and, unlike qualified rights, do not involve a
balancing act between the rights of the individual and the interest of the community. Option
D is wrong as it is sufficient to engage Articles 2 and 3 if there is a possibility of the death
penalty being imposed, whilst option E is wrong as the Convention covers nationals of non-
signatory states resident in signatory states.
Question 3
A man employed as a shop assistant in a clothing shop has a small fish symbol tattooed
on to his hand. The fish symbol is a Christian symbol. The clothing shop’s employment
policy permits shop assistants to have small tattoos that are visible to customers, but
prohibits tattoos that have religious significance as it wants to adopt a secular image.
The shop has taken disciplinary action against the man. The UK courts have upheld the
lawfulness of the disciplinary action, so the man now wants to take action against the UK
Government before the European Court of Human Rights.
Can the man argue that the disciplinary action breaches his Convention rights?
A Yes, because the shop’s refusal to allow him to display a small tattoo means that
the state has permitted a disproportionate interference with his right to manifest his
religion.
B Yes, because the shop’s refusal to allow him to display a small tattoo means that the
state has permitted an interference with his absolute right to manifest his religion.
C Yes, because the shop’s refusal to allow him to display a small tattoo means that the
state has permitted an interference with his absolute right to freedom of religion.
D No, because the shop has treated all religious symbols equally, so there is no
interference with the man’s freedom to manifest his religion.
E No, because the shop’s refusal to allow him to display a small tattoo is a proportionate
interference with the man’s freedom to manifest his religion.
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Answer
Option A is correct. Based on the case of Eweida (8.16.2), it seems improbable that a small
discreet religious symbol would detract from the image that the shop wants to project. It is
therefore a disproportionate interference with the man’s qualified right to manifest his religious
belief. Option B is wrong because the right to manifest a religious belief is a qualified right,
not an absolute right. Option C is wrong because having a tattoo comes within the scope
of manifesting religious belief, a qualified right, rather than holding a religious belief, an
absolute right.
Option D is wrong because treating all religions the same does not mean that the right
to manifest one’s religion fails to be engaged. Option E is wrong as the interference with
the man’s right to manifest his religion seems to go further than necessary to maintain the
shop’s image.
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Human Rights in the UK
9.1 The Human Rights Act 1998 190
9.2 Convention rights in the UK 192
9.3 ‘Horizontal effect’ of Convention rights 195
9.4 Conflict between different rights and freedoms 195
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 assessment specification in relation
to functioning legal knowledge concerned with core constitutional and administrative
law principles, including:
• the HRA 1998 and the ECHR;
• Schedule 1 of the HRA 1998: the ‘Convention Rights’; and
• sections 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8 and 10 of the HRA 1998.
Note that for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case
names or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. Cases are provided for illustrative
purposes only.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas, including the ability to:
• appreciate the pervasive nature of the key provisions of the ECHR through its
incorporation into UK law by the HRA 1998;
• understand how the HRA 1998 has incorporated the ECHR into UK law;
• understand the inter-relationship between different rights and freedoms, in
particular Articles 8 and 10 of the ECHR;
• understand how to strike an appropriate balance in the legal protection when the
different rights and freedoms conflict with each other; and
• apply case law pertaining to the HRA 1998 to the facts of a scenario.
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enforcement of the provision in question, and does not bind the parties to the proceedings (s
4(6)). However, it does put political pressure on the Government to change the law.
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9.1.8 Standing
Section 7 of the HRA 1998 states that a claimant can bring proceedings for breach of a
Convention right only if they are a ‘victim’ of the breach. This means that an individual or
organisation must be directly and personally affected. Pressure groups will not be victims
under s 7 and therefore cannot bring claims for breach of Convention rights (R (Adath Yisroel
Burial Society) v HM Coroner for Inner North London [2018] EWHC 969 (Admin)).
Example
Assume that, owing to concerns regarding misleading information and the leaking of
confidential statistical information on Internet sites about school performance league
tables, Parliament passed the Electronic Communications Act 2018 (‘the Act’) (fictitious),
which empowers the Government, by way of order (a ‘restriction order’), to restrict the
dissemination on Internet sites of any matters that may be specified in such an order.
A series of recent Internet articles has also alleged that the poor performance in the
Government’s league tables of inner-city schools is due to weak leadership by the
relevant head teachers. In response to this, the Home Secretary issues a restriction order
banning publication on the Internet of any information relating to the performance of
schools. The Home Secretary believes that the widespread publication of information may
embarrass the Secretary of State for Education and may undermine the confidence of the
public in its local head teachers.
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The Parent and Teachers Forum (PTF) represents a large number of interested parents.
The PTF is prepared to fund a test case brought by Janice, an aggrieved parent, to
challenge the new restriction order on the basis that it unduly restricts parents’ rights of
access to information of genuine public interest.
Consider whether Janice may bring a judicial review claim based on:
(i) breach of her Convention rights, and (ii) any traditional grounds of review.
Answer
1. Is the issue a public matter?
Yes, performance of schools is a public matter.
2. Who is the decision-maker?
The Home Secretary.
3. Is the Home Secretary amenable to judicial review?
Apply the two-part Datafin test: if the source of power is statute or a prerogative power,
the decision-maker is amenable to judicial review. Here, the source of power is the
Electronic Communications Act 2018, so there is no need to go on to consider the second
part of the test.
The Home Secretary is also a ‘public authority’ for the purposes of s 6 of the HRA 1998.
4. Are there any ouster clauses, either complete or partial?
No, neither.
5. Does Janice have standing?
Yes, because she is an aggrieved parent who fears that her child(ren)’s education might
suffer as a result of the restriction order. She therefore qualifies as a victim as required by
s 7 of the HRA 1998, and clearly has ‘sufficient interest’ (the test for the domestic grounds).
6. ECHR grounds:
(a) Janice’s challenge is likely to involve human rights issues (see below). As already
stated, Janice will satisfy the victim test under s 7 of the HRA 1998.
(b) Janice may argue that her Convention rights have been infringed by the Home
Secretary’s order. Under s 6 of the HRA 1998, she may raise a human rights issue
as part of her claim for judicial review on the basis that it is unlawful for a public
authority to act in a way that is incompatible with Convention rights.
(c) The most relevant article here is Article 10 (freedom of expression). Article 10(1)
includes ‘the right to receive … information … without interference by public
authority …’.
Article 10(2) permits restrictions that are ‘prescribed by law’, pursue a legitimate aim
and are ‘necessary in a democratic society’. This is where proportionality becomes
relevant: following Bank Mellat, the court would apply the four-stage approach
outlined below, asking:
(i) whether the objective of the restriction order is sufficiently important to justify
limiting a fundamental right;
(ii) whether the restriction order is rationally connected to this objective;
(iii) whether a less intrusive measure than the restriction order could have been
used; and
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(iv) whether, having regard to these matters and to the severity of the consequences,
a fair balance has been struck between the rights of the individual and the
interests of the community.
The measures taken by the Home Secretary, ie the restriction order, are prescribed by law
‘(the Act’) and are in pursuit of the legitimate aims listed in Article 10(2) –the protection
of the reputation or rights of others and the prevention of disclosure of information
received in confidence.
Are the measures ‘necessary in a democratic society’ (ie proportionate)? At first sight,
they derive from Parliament’s legislative objective as expressed in the parent Act. That
objective is arguably sufficiently important (ie protecting the public from misinformation)
to justify the interference with a fundamental right, and the measures taken (the making
of the restriction order) are rationally connected to this objective if the Home Secretary
believes that he is acting in the interests of regulating publication on the Internet.
However, the order itself extends beyond these issues. Making the order (even partly)
to prevent embarrassment to another minister is, Janice would argue, not rationally
connected with the objective (‘protection of the reputation of others’ seems very tenuous
when just talking about embarrassment!).
In any event, the means used appear to be more intrusive than necessary (ie
disproportionate), banning all information relating to the performance of schools.
Given the above and the fact that the ban will mean parents have no access to any
information on the performance of schools, the rights of the parents may well outweigh
the interests of the community in such a ban.
Anther ground on which Janice would be able to base her claim is:
Illegality
All statutory powers must be exercised in accordance with the correct statutory purpose.
Here the legislation has been passed due to a need to regulate publication of material
on the Internet.
The Home Secretary has used the power in order to limit publication of material that may
undermine public confidence in head teachers, and also to prevent embarrassment to a
government minister. If the latter is actually the real reason for exercise of the statutory
power, it might be possible to argue that it has been exercised for an improper purpose
(Congreve v Home Office).
However, it seems more likely that the Home Secretary has in fact sought to achieve two
purposes. Where there is a duality of purpose behind the order, the court would need to
apply the primary (or ‘true and dominant’) purpose test to evaluate which was the main
objective, ie the one authorised by statute or not (Westminster Corp v LNWR). Alternatively,
the court may adopt the more ‘modern’ approach in R v ILEA, ex p Westminster City
Council: if the unauthorised purpose ‘materially influenced’ the creation of the order then
the order itself would be ultra vires. It seems that if the Home Secretary’s concerns are to
prevent embarrassment to the Secretary of State for Education, the unauthorised purpose
may well have materially influenced his decision to make the order. Further, this concern is
also an irrelevant consideration (Padfield v Minister of Agriculture).
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life, should be protected. This is particularly so where that right conflicts with another’s (eg a
newspaper’s) right to freedom of expression under Article 10.
By analysing the approach taken by the UK courts in these cases, you should be able to
assess how the courts will strike a balance when different individuals’ rights compete with
each other.
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children and sentenced to detention for life. During the trial, her name was made public. On
her release in 1980 she was given a new identity, which had subsequently been discovered
five times. She had a daughter, Y, who was 19 at the time of this hearing. This case concerned
X and Y seeking lifetime injunctions to protect their identities. Here it was held that, in contrast
to the Venables case, the risk of harm to X (formerly known as Mary Bell) did not reach the
standard required to come within Article 2 of the Convention. The case therefore came down
to a balance between the competing interests of X and Y under Article 8 and the press under
Article 10, which is discussed at 9.4.1.3 below.
In 2005, Maxine Carr, the former girlfriend of Soham murderer Ian Huntley, was granted
an indefinite order protecting her new identity by the High Court (Carr v News Group
Newspapers Ltd [2005] EWHC 971 (QB)), as it was necessary to protect ‘life and limb’ as well
as Carr’s psychological health. Carr’s lawyer had argued that such an order was justified on
the grounds laid down in the Venables and Thompson and Mary Bell cases, where similar
permanent injunctions were granted. The Carr case is significant because it is the first such
order granted to an adult who has not committed a serious offence (she was convicted
of perverting the course of justice with Huntley, but was not involved in the murder of the
schoolgirls Holly Wells and Jessica Chapman in August 2002).
9.4.1 Balancing freedom of expression with right to respect for private life
9.4.1.1 Human Rights Act 1998, s 12(4)
Section 12(4) of the 1998 Act is drafted so as to prevent claims of breach of privacy from
unduly restricting the freedom of the press. It states that the courts must have particular
regard to the right to the freedom of expression. Where proceedings relate to journalistic,
literary or artistic material, the court must consider the extent to which the material is already
in the public domain, whether publication would be in the public interest and any relevant
privacy code.
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(c) the length of time that had expired since offences were committed; and
(d) the serious risk of potential harassment and possible physical harm.
As a result of these exceptional circumstances, lifetime injunctions against the whole world
were granted to X and Y.
It is important to note that Dame Elizabeth placed great emphasis on evidence of X’s fragile
mental health, a fact that may limit the potential wider effects of this case.
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However, the court accepted that the newspaper was entitled to publish the story that
Campbell had been addicted to drugs to ‘set the record straight’, ie to correct her prior
assertion that she was not addicted. The court then had to consider publication of the details
of the Narcotics Anonymous meeting and the photographs of Campbell leaving the meeting.
The crucial factor in Campbell was that the model was photographed and the text identified
her as leaving Narcotics Anonymous meetings, which, being a medical matter, made the issue
particularly private and might even deter someone in these circumstances from having further
treatment. Baroness Hale distinguished the subject matter of the photograph in this case from
a photograph of Campbell simply walking down the street to go shopping. As a model who
made her living out of modelling designer clothes, there would have been no objection to a
photograph of her going about her daily business as readers of the newspaper would have
been interested in how she looked.
It is important to note that had it not been for the publication of the photographs, the majority
of the House of Lords would have been inclined to regard the balance between Articles 8 and
10 as about even.
It is also clear from Campbell, therefore, that it is not whether the individual action occurred in
the public or private domain that is the determining factor as to whether the individual has a
reasonable expectation of respect for their private life.
9.4.1.5 Photographs
A year after Campbell, the ECtHR considered the position of photographs in the case of
Von Hannover v Germany (No 1) (2005) 40 EHRR 1, which the domestic courts must take into
account as persuasive authority. The Von Hannover case involved a successful claim brought
by Princess Caroline of Monaco that a variety of photographs taken of her by the paparazzi
breached her Article 8 right to respect for her private and family life. The Princess’ claim was
successful, despite the fact that the photographs showed her shopping and skiing, and riding
with her children in a public place. In striking the balance between privacy and the freedom
of expression, the ECtHR ruled that the decisive factor was the contribution that the published
photos and articles made to a debate of general interest. As the applicant exercised no
official function and the photos and articles related exclusively to details of her private life,
they made no such contribution.
It is therefore clear from Von Hannover (No 1) that the fact that someone is a public figure
does not mean that they have no right of respect for their private life when in a public place.
However, in Von Hannover v Germany (No 2) (2012) 55 EHRR 15, the ECtHR may have
retreated slightly from the stringent approach to photographs that it took in Von Hannover (No
1). Von Hannover (No 2) concerned the publication in a German magazine of a photograph
showing Princess Caroline and her husband on a skiing holiday in Switzerland. Accompanying
the photograph was an article about the health of Prince Rainier, Princess Caroline’s father
and then reigning prince of Monaco. The information about Prince Rainier’s health was a
matter of public interest due to his status, and the public were legitimately interested in how
his children ‘reconciled their obligations of family solidarity with the legitimate needs of their
private life’. Moreover, even if Princess Caroline did not perform any official functions, she and
her husband were not ordinary private individuals, but were public figures.
The link between the photograph and accompanying article was close enough to justify its
publication, particularly as there was no evidence that the photographs were taken in either
a covert or intrusive manner. The judgment in Von Hannover (No 2) indicates that the ECtHR
may be allowing states a greater margin of appreciation in this type of case. Nonetheless the
judgment does not clear the way for the press to publish photographs of celebrities carrying
out everyday activities; the photographs must contribute to a genuine debate of general
interest.
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The case of Murray (by his Litigation Friends) v Express Newspapers plc and another [2008]
EWCA Civ 446, [2009] Ch 48 concerned the publication in the Daily Express of a photograph
of M, the infant son of the author JK Rowling, being pushed by his father down an Edinburgh
street in a buggy with his mother walking alongside. The court, following Campbell, confirmed
that the test of whether Article 8 has been engaged at all has to be answered first, before
any balancing exercise between Articles 8 and 10 is carried out, or issues of proportionality
discussed.
If there was a reasonable expectation of privacy, then the second question was how to strike
the balance between the claimant’s right to privacy and the publisher’s right to publish. At
that stage, the question of whether the publication of those private facts would be considered
highly offensive to an objective, reasonable person might be relevant.
Due to the nature of the case, the Court of Appeal did not need to reach a definitive decision
but concluded that it was at least arguable that M had a reasonable expectation of privacy
and that Article 8 was engaged. The court also thought M had an arguable case that the
balance between Articles 8 and 10 should be struck in his favour and against publication.
The court nonetheless thought there might well be circumstances, even after Hannover, in
which there would be no reasonable expectation of privacy. However, it all depended on the
circumstances of the case. Routine activities such as a walk down the street or a trip to the
grocer to buy milk would not necessarily give rise to a reasonable expectation of privacy;
everything depended on the circumstances. However, the court put particular weight on the
need to protect children of parents who were in the public eye from intrusive media attention,
at least to the extent of holding that the child had a reasonable expectation that they would
not be targeted in order to obtain photographs in a public place for publication, where the
taking of such photographs would be objected to on the child’s behalf. Accordingly, the Court
of Appeal’s decision in Murray appears to have dramatically expanded privacy protection for
children.
In the case of RocknRoll v News Group Newspapers Ltd [2013] EWHC 24 (Ch), the judge
granted an injunction to the new husband of the actor, Kate Winslet, preventing publication by
a newspaper of photographs that had been posted on Facebook by a friend of his.
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thought that Terry’s main concern was protecting his financial arrangements (eg sponsorship
deals), rather than the protection of his private life. An injunction was not necessary or
proportionate having regard to the level of gravity of the interference with the footballer’s
private life in the event of publication.
In Ferdinand v MGN Ltd [2011] EWHC 2454 (QB), another case involving an England football
team captain, Rio Ferdinand claimed that a newspaper article about his relationship with a
woman, which allegedly continued even once he had become engaged, breached his privacy.
The court found that since Ferdinand had stated that he was a family man, there was a public
interest in demonstrating that this image was false, particularly since he was by then captain
of the England football team.
Lastly, in PJS v News Group Newspapers Ltd [2016] UKSC 26, The Sun on Sunday proposed to
publish the story of PJS’s sexual encounters with AB, including a three-way sexual encounter
involving PJS, AB and AB’s partner. PJS sued for breach of confidence and breach of privacy
and asked for an injunction to prevent publication. The story had already been published in
the USA (and some other places) and on numerous websites. PJS argued that an injunction
was necessary to protect himself, his partner and their young children.
The majority of the Supreme Court was of the view that, should the injunction be refused, there
would be a ‘media storm’ in England and that an injunction was necessary to protect PJS, his
partner and especially their children.
This case has proved controversial. Details of the story had been published in the USA but, as
the celebrities involved were not so well known there, had not been widely taken up. There
were further articles in Canada and a Scottish newspaper and the details then started to
appear on numerous websites.
Summary
• In this chapter, you have looked at how the HRA 1998 has incorporated rights conferred
by the ECHR into UK law. Figure 9.1 sets out how the HRA 1998 gives effect to the ECHR.
• You then considered how individuals can rely on Convention rights against public bodies,
in particular by way of judicial review.
• You have looked at where conflict can arise between different Convention rights, with
particular emphasis on Articles 8 and 10.
• You have examined situations that have involved the courts having to balance one
person’s right to respect for their private life with another’s right to freedom of expression.
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Sample questions
Question 1
A religious group applied for planning permission to build a temple. Last week the local
planning authority refused the group planning permission because one of its core beliefs
is that women should have a subordinate role in society and be subject to the headship
of men. As the religious group has already secured alternative premises, it does not want
to challenge the refusal. However, a pressure group that campaigns for religious freedom
wants to apply for judicial review of the decision. (Note that this question includes topics
covered in Chapters 7 and 8).
Can the pressure group challenge the decision of the local planning authority by way
of judicial review on the grounds that it infringes the religious group’s freedom of
religion?
A Yes, because of the importance of the matter (the Convention right of freedom of
religion) and its role as a campaigner for freedom of religion.
B Yes, because there has been a clear breach of the Convention right of freedom of
religion.
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C No, because freedom of religion is a qualified right and the interference with it is
proportionate.
D No, because the pressure group is not a victim under the Human Rights Act 1998.
E No, because the religious group’s right to freedom of religion has not been engaged
as it has found premises elsewhere.
Answer
Option D is correct. A claimant can only bring proceedings for breach of a Convention right
if they are a ‘victim’; ie directly and personally affected as per s 7 of the Human Rights Act
1998. Accordingly, pressure groups will not be victims under s 7 and therefore do not have
the requisite standing to bring a claim for breach of Convention rights, including freedom of
religion. It may well be the case, as option C suggests, that an investigation of the situation
might conclude that the interference is proportionate. Nonetheless, option D is a better
answer than option C as, in the absence of a claimant with the requisite standing, the court
will not need to carry out a proportionality analysis.
Option A is wrong, as it summarises what the position might have been had the pressure
group been applying for judicial review on the traditional grounds (illegality, irrationality
and procedural impropriety), but it is not applicable to claims based on Convention rights.
(A court might nonetheless hold that the religious group would be a more appropriate
challenger.)
Option B is wrong as, even if there has been a clear breach of the religious group’s
Convention rights (which seems unlikely), the pressure group does not have the requisite
standing. Option E is wrong because the pressure group’s right to manifest its beliefs
has been engaged, even if the interference might on investigation be found to be
proportionate.
Question 2
A man convicted of murder committed when he was an adult is released after serving his
sentence. He changes his name and goes to live in a part of the country where he will not
be recognised, as he does not want the community in which he is living to know about his
past. Some newspapers have found out where he lives and want to publish the details.
Will the man be able to obtain an injunction stopping the newspapers from disclosing
his identity and where he lives?
A Yes, because publication of the information will violate his right to life and right to
privacy.
B Yes, because although publication of his details will not violate his right to life, it will be
a disproportionate interference of his right to privacy.
C Yes, because although publication of his details will not violate his right to privacy, it
will be an interference with his absolute right to life.
D No, because as he committed the murder as an adult, he has forfeited his right to
privacy and there is no interference with his right to life.
E No, because publication of the information will not violate his right to life nor be a
disproportionate interference with his right to privacy.
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Answer
Option E is correct. Based on the Mary Bell case, it seems unlikely that the risk of harm
to the man will reach the threshold to engage Article 2 (the right to life). As regards
privacy (Article 8), freedom of expression of the press is highly important and can only be
interfered with in exceptional circumstances, such as existed in the Mary Bell case. No such
circumstances seem to exist here.
Options A, B and C are therefore wrong because they suggest either that there has been an
interference with both Articles 2 and 8 (option A) or that one of them (options B and C) have
been interfered with; as explained above it is unlikely that either has been interfered with.
Option D is wrong as individuals do not forfeit their rights because of criminal conduct.
Question 3
A well-known actor was photographed leaving a walk-in HIV testing clinic in Birmingham.
A newspaper has published the photograph. During her career the actor has disclosed very
little about her private life.
Which of the following best describes whether the actor can bring a claim in the High
Court for breach of her Convention rights?
A She cannot do so. Although the newspaper has interfered with her right to privacy, she
can only bring a claim against it before the European Court of Human Rights.
B She cannot do so because freedom of expression is a more important right than the
right to a private life.
C She cannot do so because English law does not recognise a tort of privacy.
D She can do so because the right to a private life is entitled to greater protection than
freedom of expression.
E She can do so because the newspaper has disproportionately interfered with her right
to a private life.
Answer
Option E is correct. The photograph, relating to a health condition, clearly engages Article
8, the right to a private life, whilst in publishing the photograph the newspaper will be
exercising its Article 10 right of freedom of expression. Neither right has precedence over the
other, hence options B and D are wrong. Instead, the court will balance the actor’s Article
8 right with the newspaper’s Article 10 right. In this instance, following the House of Lords’
judgment in Campbell, the balance is likely to fall in favour of the actor’s Article 8 right as the
newspaper does not seem to have a legitimate reason for disclosing her medical condition.
Option A is wrong as the actor will be able to bring a claim in an English court under the
horizontal effect principle.
Option C is wrong. Following the Supreme Court judgment in in PJS v News Group
Newspapers, it is arguable that English law does recognise a tort of privacy. In any event,
under the horizontal effect principle the courts will give effect to Convention rights through
developing existing causes of action compatibly with the ECHR.
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10 Retained EU Law
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 assessment specification in relation
to functioning legal knowledge concerned with the status of EU law in the UK
following the UK’s exit from the EU, including:
• the place of EU law in the UK constitution:
∘ sources of retained EU law;
∘ categories/status/interpretation of retained EU law; and
∘ modification/withdrawal of retained EU law.
Note that for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case names or
cite statutory or regulatory authorities. Cases are provided for illustrative purposes only.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas, including the ability to:
• explain the meaning of retained EU law and its sources;
• understand the different categories of EU law;
• understand how retained EU law may be amended or repealed;
• apply retained EU law in practice; and
• understand how the Withdrawal Agreement agreed between the UK and EU may
give rise to enforceable rights.
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with effect from IP completion day. For example, as the UK Government decided that the UK
should leave the customs union and single market, UK legislation has repealed the bulk of
EU law on free movement, which will therefore not be retained. Nonetheless, there will be a
huge body of retained EU law, which the UK and devolved governments can decide over time
whether to keep or replace with their own laws.
It is important to understand the different types of EU legislation that can be converted into
retained EU law, and 2.5.3.2 provides a summary of this. Please ensure in particular that you
understand the following types of EU legislation:
• Treaty articles
• Regulations
• Directives
• Decisions.
Section 2.5.3.10 also gives a summary of the three main categories of retained EU
law, namely
• EU-derived domestic legislation
• Direct EU legislation
• Rights etc arising under s 2(1) of the ECA 1972.
However, the following paragraphs cover these in more depth.
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Member State or an individual company) and are directly applicable. UK courts gave effect to
rights and obligations arising under Regulations and Directives under s 2(1) ECA 1972.
Following the end of the transition period, EU legislation can no longer directly apply in the
UK. Section 3 ensures that, where appropriate, EU legislation continues to have effect in the
UK legal system by converting ‘direct EU legislation’ into domestic legislation at IP completion
day. Where legislation is converted under this section, it is the English language text that exists
on IP completion day that is converted.
EU decisions that are addressed only to a Member State other than the UK are not converted
into domestic law. Additionally, if EU-derived domestic legislation under s 2 reproduces the
effect of an EU Regulation or decision, then it is not converted under s 3. This is to avoid
unnecessary duplication.
An example of an EU Regulation that has become direct EU legislation is Regulation (EC)
261/2004 ([2004] OJ L46/1) protecting air passenger rights. This Regulation requires airlines
to pay compensation to passengers (eg €250 for a flight of less than 1,500 km) if a flight is
significantly delayed or cancelled unless due to circumstances beyond the airline’s control
and in any event to provide assistance (meals, accommodation and phone calls). Passengers
in the UK, backed up by judgments in English courts, have claimed millions of pounds in
compensation from airlines under this regulation. Section 3 ensures that airline passengers in
the UK continue to benefit from it after IP completion day, though as explained at 10.8 below
it has been amended slightly.
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doubt as to its meaning. If the rights granted by a Directive are clear, then there is unlikely
to be any case law regarding it. It would be strange if the only Directives that could provide
directly effective rights after IP completion day are those that needed litigation to determine
whether they were sufficiently clear and precise to have direct effect. The better interpretation
is that the type of rights granted by a given Directive must have been recognised by a court
pre-IP completion day. For example, the principle of equality has been recognised many
times in case law. Accordingly, a Directive that prohibited discrimination on the grounds of
race, disability, religion or sexual orientation could provide a directly effective right not to be
discriminated against, even if that particular Directive had not been the subject of case law.
EU Directives are not themselves part of retained EU law, so any retention of rights and
obligations in them depends on their implementation through EU-derived domestic legislation
and/or s 4 of EUWA 2018.
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defines deficiencies widely, challenges are probable on the basis that ministers have used
them to make substantive policy changes rather than simply to correct deficiencies.
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Section 7A of EUWA 2018 (inserted by the Withdrawal Agreement Act) provides for the
enforcement of rights arising under the Withdrawal Agreement in very similar terms to those
contained in the ECA 1972 regarding the EU Treaties. This gives supremacy to the Withdrawal
Agreement in much the same way that the ECA 1972 gave supremacy to the EU Treaties.
Direct effect will continue to play a role in UK law, albeit in a more limited field.
Even though most of the EU legislation regarding free movement of persons will not form part
of retained EU law as the UK will repeal it, much of that legislation will remain relevant after
the UK’s withdrawal from the EU under the Withdrawal Agreement. For example, whether
UK citizens, EU27 citizens and their respective family members are eligible for permanent
residence depends largely on whether they satisfy the criteria set in relevant EU legislation.
Additionally, UK courts will still be able to make Article 267 references concerning the citizens’
rights provisions in the Withdrawal Agreement for a period of up to eight years after the end
of the transition period. However, this is a discretionary power in that UK courts will not be
obliged to make a reference, unlike the position during the UK’s membership of the EU when
references were in certain circumstances mandatory. Nevertheless, if a UK court does make a
reference, it will be bound by the CJEU’s ruling.
As indicated above, the wording of the Withdrawal Agreement also suggests that the citizens’
rights provisions have direct effect, so UK and EU27 citizens and their respective family
members are able to rely on them even if national legislation implementing those provisions
is defective. For example, suppose UK immigration legislation denies an EU citizen rights
granted to them by the Withdrawal Agreement. The EU citizen will be able to enforce those
rights in a UK court and possibly also claim damages under the Francovich principle for any
loss suffered.
Summary
In this chapter you have examined the concept of retained EU law. EU law has pervaded
into large parts of the UK legal system and repealing and replacing it prior to the UK’s exit
from the EU would have been impossible. EUWA 2018 aims to ensure legal continuity and a
functioning statute post-exit by taking a snapshot of EU law as it exists in the UK at the end of
the transition period (defined as IP completion day) and converting it into ‘retained EU law’, a
novel type of law with its own characteristics.
Retained EU law
The three main categories of retained EU law are:
• EU-derived domestic legislation (secondary legislation and primary legislation enacted to
implement the UK’s EU obligations)
• Direct EU legislation (primarily EU Regulations and decisions)
• Rights etc arising under s 2(1) of the ECA 1972 (directly effective rights arising under the
EU Treaties and possibly also Directives).
Retained EU law will keep a limited form of supremacy in that it will prevail over other
legislation enacted pre-IP completion day. However, legislation enacted after IP completion
day will prevail over retained EU law.
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They may not, however, use the power to make changes of significance. If they do so, it is
probable that there will be challenges to the secondary legislation via judicial review.
Sample questions
Question 1
An EU Directive (fictitious) adopted in 2017 provides that Member States must ensure that
the use of latex gloves is prohibited in restaurants, cafeterias and other places that serve
hot food for consumption on the premises. The Directive was adopted due to medical
evidence that latex gloves were causing an allergic reaction. The Directive further provides
that Member States should implement it by 30 November 2019. The UK Government took no
steps to implement it. In May 2020 the CJEU ruled that the provisions of the Directive have
direct effect.
After IP completion day a woman working in a cafeteria operated by a government
department suffered an allergic reaction as a result of wearing latex gloves.
Can the woman make a claim against the government department based on the
Directive?
A Yes, because the Directive was due to be implemented before IP completion day, it has
direct effect, so it can be relied upon vertically against a state body.
B Yes, because the rights arising under the Directive are of a kind that have been
recognised by a UK or EU court or tribunal before IP completion day and so can be
relied upon vertically against a state body.
C Yes, because the Directive was due to be implemented before IP completion day, it has
become retained EU law and so can be relied upon vertically against a state body.
D No, because Directives do not become retained EU law and so cannot be enforced in
the UK after IP completion day.
E No, because rights arising under Directives cannot be enforced in the UK after IP
completion day as they are covered by an exclusion as regards enforcement in UK
legislation.
Answer
Option B is correct. Directives are capable of having direct effect if they have not been
implemented or implemented incorrectly, although only vertically against the state or state
bodies. As the rights granted by the Directive in this question are of a kind that have been
recognised by a UK or EU court or tribunal before IP completion day, the rights it grants
will become retained EU law. Option B is a better answer than option A as option A is too
simplistic and states the position during the UK’s membership of the EU.
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Option C is wrong as Directives do not become retained EU law, as normally they are
implemented into domestic law by primary or secondary legislation. Where rights under a
Directive are preserved, it is the rights themselves that become retained EU law rather than
the Directive.
Option D is wrong as, although it correctly states that Directives do not become retained EU
law, it ignores the fact that rights arising under Directives can become retained EU law, as set
out in option B. Option E is wrong. Although rights arising under Directives are only retained
in limited circumstances, there is no exclusion relating to the enforcement of any rights that
are retained. Regarding other sources of EU law, the main exclusions relate to the Charter of
Fundamental Rights and the enforcement of general principles.
Question 2
A woman is paid less by her employer than a male colleague doing work of equal value.
This is permitted by a (fictitious) Act of Parliament enacted in 2015. The woman claims that
the employer newspaper has infringed her right to equal pay for work of equal value under
Art 157 TFEU.
Can the woman make a claim against her employer relying on Art 157 TFEU?
A Yes, because directly effective rights arising under the TFEU become retained EU law.
B Yes, because directly effective rights arising under the TFEU become direct EU
legislation.
C No, because UK Acts of Parliament, whenever enacted, prevail over retained EU law.
D No, because rights arising under the TFEU fall within one of the exclusions from retained
EU law.
E No, because the UK has left the EU so rights arising under the TFEU are irrelevant.
Answer
A is the correct answer. Rights etc arising under s 2(1) of the ECA 1972 become retained EU
law (s 4 EUWA 2018), and the right to equal pay is a prime example of such a right. Option
B is wrong because they do not become direct EU legislation; an example of direct EU
legislation is an EU regulation that has become retained EU law.
Option C is wrong as retained EU law has a limited from of supremacy over UK legislation
(including Acts of Parliament) enacted pre-IP completion day. Option D is wrong as there is
no applicable exclusion.
Option E is wrong as it clear from s 4 of EUWA 2018 that treaty rights do remain relevant in
the UK legal system.
Question 3
A man who is a Danish citizen has been resident in the UK for over five years and applies
for settled status. Under the terms of the Withdrawal Agreement governing the UK’s exit
from the EU, he is entitled to permanent residence in the UK. The Home Office rejects his
application on the grounds that a section in an Act (fictitious) of the UK Parliament excludes
a person in his position from settled status. The Act does not, however, attempt to override
the Withdrawal Agreement.
Can the man challenge the Home Office’s refusal to grant him settled status?
A No, because an Act of Parliament will automatically override conflicting provisions in
the Withdrawal Agreement.
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B No, because the Withdrawal Agreement is an international treaty, which does not give
rise to rights in UK law.
C Yes, because international treaties are automatically incorporated into UK law when
ratified by the UK Government.
D Yes, because UK legislation has provided for the direct effect of the relevant provisions
of the Withdrawal Agreement.
E Yes, because the UK Parliament cannot legislate contrary to international treaties.
Answer
Option D is correct. EUWA 2018 provides for the Withdrawal Agreement, including the citizens’
rights provisions, to have direct effect, so its provisions will override the conflicting UK statute.
If the UK statute had expressly and unequivocally overridden the relevant provisions of the
Withdrawal Agreement, then UK courts would have applied the statute. However, the question
indicates that is not the case, so option A is wrong. Option B is wrong; although international
treaties do not in themselves give rise to rights in UK law, EUWA 2018 has incorporated the
Withdrawal Agreement into UK law.
Option C is wrong because international treaties need to be incorporated into UK law to
have direct effect. However, the Withdrawal Agreement Act 2020 did this. Option E is wrong
because Parliament can legislate contrary to international treaties, as Parliament is sovereign.
Nonetheless, any such legislation would breach international law.
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Index
A principles 3–4
residual freedom principle 6, 86
absolute rights 154–63, 172, 176–8, 183, 185 royal prerogative 7–9, 23
access to justice 64, 168 rule of law, and 3–4, 6, 62
accountability 11–12, 74–5 separation of powers, and 3–4, 11, 66–7
Acts of Devolution 5 sources of 4–12, 22
Acts of Parliament 5–6, 22–3, 25–6 sovereignty of Parliamentary, and 4, 22
Acts of Union 1706–07 5, 24–5, 44 types of 2–3
affirmative resolution procedure 20 contempt of court 36–8, 72
assisted suicide 159 Coronavirus Act 2020 69
corporal punishment 160–1
B cross-examination of witnesses 122, 172
bias, rule against 115–17, 127 Crown immunity 23, 64–5
Bill of Rights 1689 5, 21, 36–7
Bingham, Lord 62 D
breach of the peace 93–5 damages 144–5, 190, 192
Brexit see also retained EU law death penalty 158, 161, 185
background 6, 206 declarations 143–4
citizens' rights, protection of 214–16 declarations of incompatibility 34–6, 63, 190–1,
law changes resulting from 206–7 211, 213
Northern Ireland protocol 214 delegated legislation 20, 68–9, 122–3
sovereignty of Parliament, and 29, 32–3 delegation, rule against 106–7
transition period 206–7 democratic society, rights necessary in 157, 173
UK government commitments 214–15 deportation 64–5, 161, 175–6
Withdrawal Acts 6, 23–5, 32, 70, 206 devolution 5, 55
Withdrawal Agreement 25, 29, 33, 78, devolution process 45–6, 50, 55
206, 214–16 devolved matters 46–51, 48–9
broadcasting 179 devolved powers 24–5
Joint Ministerial Committee 54
C legislative process, impacts on 17–19, 28
Carltona principle 107 Northern Ireland 44–5, 50–2
constitutional conventions 71–2, 77 reserved powers model 46, 52
ministerial responsibility 10–11 Scotland 19, 44–8, 52–3
Parliamentary sovereignty, and 22 Sewel Convention 47–8, 50
purpose of 9–12 sovereignty of Parliament, and 23–5, 47–8
Constitutional Reform Act 2005 6, 63, 72–4, 77 sub-committees of the JMC 54
constitutions 12 Supreme Court, references/appeals to 52–3
case law, and 6–7 Supreme Court, role of 52–3
checks and balances 4, 7 tax-raising powers 46–7, 49
constitutional conventions 9–12, 71–2, 77 UK Government, relationships with devolved
constitutional statutes, repeal of 25–6 institutions 54
judicial review, and 7, 12 54
law reform 6 UK Parliamentary powers, impact on 45
legal authority for state actions 6 Wales 44, 48–50, 52
legislative sources of 5–6, 22 Dicey, AV 7, 21–2, 60–1
Index
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Index
restrictions 179 I
right to respect for private life, conflicts with
195–200 identity, protection of 196–7
freedom of thought, conscience and religion illegality 105–12, 126
156, 176–8 acting under dictation of another 107
acting without legal authority 106
applying general policy too strictly 108
G delegation, rule against 106–7
general committees 69 discretion, fettering of 107–8
general elections 16–17, 68 dual purposes 108–9
Grenfell Tower Inquiry 79 errors of law or fact 111–12
improper or unauthorised purposes 108
H irrelevant considerations 109–11
immunity
habeas corpus 7, 60 Crown immunity 23, 64–5
Hailsham, Lord 68 judiciary, of 72–3
hate speech 180–1 Parliamentary privilege, and 36–7
heads of state 2, 116 state immunity 116
Henry VIII powers 28, 68–9, 209 implied repeal, doctrine of 23, 25–6
House of Commons 5, 16, 19–20, 69 improper purposes, use of power for 108
House of Lords 5–6, 10–11, 16–17 indirect interests 116–17, 127
legislation, powers to injunctions 144
reject 11, 19–21, 69 international law 22
Human Rights Act 1998 5, 200–1 intimidation 88, 91
acts of public authorities 191 irrationality 105, 113–14
Convention rights conflicts 195–200
declaration of incompatibility 34–6, 63,
190–1, 211
J
delegated legislation 192 Joint Ministerial Committee 54
enforcement against private individuals Judicial Appointments Commission 6, 73
191, 194–5 judicial review, generally 103
enforcement against public common law development 7
bodies 192–4 constitutional principles, and 104–5
express repeal of 36 constitutions, of 7, 12
fast track procedures 190 executive powers, of 74–5
freedom of expression vs. right to respect grounds for (see judicial review grounds)
for private life 195–200 public procession/assembly bans, of
horizontal effect 191, 195 89–90, 92
incorporation of ECHR 33–4, 153, 190 royal prerogative powers, of 75–7
individual proceedings, right to bring rule of law, and 104
190–2, 195 separation of powers, role in 104–5
judicial interpretation, role of 34–6, 79 judicial review grounds 105–6, 126–7
judicial review, and 191–4 bias, rule against 115–17, 127
overview 190 EU law 106
proportionality 197–9 HRA, and 191–4
public order law, impact on 86 illegality 105–12, 126
remedial orders 191 irrationality 105, 113–14, 126
remedies for breach 153, 190, 192 legitimate expectations 117–20, 124–5, 127
right to life vs. right to respect for private mandatory or directory requirements 123–4
life 195 natural justice, and 115–23, 127
sovereignty of Parliament, and 34–6 procedural impropriety 106, 114–23, 126–7
standing 192 procedural ultra vires 123–4
Hunting Act 2004 20–2 statutory procedures, breach of 123–4, 127
Wednesbury principle 113
221
Index
222
Index
223
Index
224
Index
225
Index
W
Wales
devolution 24, 48–9
elections 49
226