Christ University Entrance Test 027ec8845a780

1
CHRIST UNIVERSITY
ENTRANCE TEST
MBA WT (ANALYTICAL WRITING

TEST) AT IIM
@SuperGrads IPM Page 1 of 30

Replication or other unauthorized use of this material is prohibited by the copyright laws of India
1
CHRIST UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE TEST

1. If one of the cars purchased by a car dealer is used (b) Conservatism
for business purpose, instead of resale, then it should (c) Consistency
be recorded by __________. (d) None of these
(a) Dr Drawing A/c & Cr Purchases
A/c 7. In income measurement & recognisation of assets &
(b) Dr Office Expenses A/c & Cr Motor Car A/c liabilities which of the following concepts goes
(c) Dr Motor Car A/c & Cr Purchases together?
A/c (a) Periodicity, Accrual, Matching
(d) Dr Motor Car & Cr Sales A/c (b) Cost, Accrual, matching
(c) Going concern, cost, Realization
2. Change in the capital A/c of proprietor may occur (d) Going concern, Periodicity, Reliability
due to __________.
(a) Profit earned (b) Loss incurred 8. Rohit carrying on real estate business sold a piece of
(c) Capital Introduced (d) All of the above land for Rs.4,00,00,000 (cost Rs.3,50,00,000) then
the type of receipt is __________ nature and profit on
3. Fixed assets are held by business for __________. sale is:
(a) Converting into cash (a) Capital & transferred to capital reserve
(b) Generating revenue (b) Revenue & transferred to P & L a/c
(c) Resale (c) Capital & transferred to P & L a/c
(d) None of the above (d) Revenue & transferred to general reserve
4. If nothing is given in the financial statements about 9. A firm has reported a profit of Rs.1,47,000 for the
the three accounting assumptions then it is to be year ended 31-3-2014 after taking into
treated as it consideration the following items.
(a) Is assumed that it is not followed (i) The cost of an asset Rs.23,000 has been taken as
(b) Is assumed to be followed an expense
(c) Is assumed to be followed to some extent (ii) The firm anticipated a profit of Rs.12,000 on the
(d) None of the above sale of an old furniture
5. Which of the following is wrong? (iii) Salary of Rs.7,000 outstanding for the year has
(a) All real and personal accounts not been taken into account.
are transferred to balance sheet (iv) An asset of Rs.85,000 was purchased for
(b) Nominal accounts are transferred to P & L Rs.75,000 and was recorded in the books at
account Rs.85,000.
(c) Each account is opened separately in ledger What is the correct amount of profit to be reported
(d) Rent is a personal account, outstanding rent in the books?
is nominal account (a) Rs.1,47,000 (b) Rs. 1,51,000
(c) Rs.1,63,000 (d) Rs.1,41,000
6. A trader purchases goods for Rs. 2500000, of these
70% of goods were sold during the year. At the end 10. Deewali advance given to an employee is:
of 31st December 2009, the market value of such (a) Revenue Expenditure
goods were Rs. 500000. But the trader recorded in (b) Capital Expenditure
his books for Rs. 750000. Which of the following (c) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
concept is violated? (d) Not an Expenditure
(a) Money measurement

1
11. A sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with after sailing far toward the north, were becalmed. The
an appropriate word. Four alternatives are weather became very cold, and they were surrounded
suggested. Choose the correct option. by great fields of ice. One night, while they were
You must _______ for this mistake. frozen up in the ice fields, Nelson and one of his
(a) account (b) courage ___________ stole away from their ship to attack a huge
(c) dedicate (d) adjust polar bear. Pretty soon they were missed but
although they were not far away, a thick fog _________
12. A sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with
those on board from seeing them. The captain became
an appropriate word. Four alternatives are
__________, the signal for their return was fired, and
suggested. Choose the correct option.
Nelson, much disappointed, went back to the ship.
The juice of gooseberry is said to be ________.
(a) salubrious (b) lugubrious 13. he asked ________ to go to sea
(c) sweetly (d) savoury (a) sanction (b) allow
(c) permission (d) suggestion
Direction (Q.13-Q.17): For each of the questions
below, a passage is given with five blanks. Choose the 14. he was __________ of the sea
correct words to be filled in each blank. (a) fonder (b) familiar
At twelve years of age, he asked ________ to go to sea (c) friendlier (d) offended
with an uncle named Suckling, but as his uncle did not
15. one of his ___________ stole away
sail that year, he was sent in charge of a friend, on a
(a) companion (b) comrades
voyage to the West Indies. It was not many days
(c) friendly (d) possessions
before the sailor boy knew the name of every rope on
the ship, and the use of each. He could "box the 16. a thick fog _________ those
compass," that is, repeat the names of all the thirty- (a) prevented (b) hinder
two points backwards and forwards, and could tell in (c) obstacle (d) assaulted
what direction the ship was sailing. When he returned
17. The captain became __________,
to England he was __________ of the sea than ever.
(a) deceived (b) frightening
Sometime after reaching home he heard that two
(c) scare (d) alarmed
ships of the navy were going to the North Pole, and he
obtained permission to go with them. The vessels

1
18. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence. 22. In the following questions, out of the four
Why can't you just be done with what (he has been alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to
trying) to tell you since so long? the word given.
(a) He has tried (b) He have trying Diffident
(c) Had he been trying (d) No improvement (a) Pleasure (b) Bashful
(c) Annoy (d) Separate
19. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.
Even after all the fuzz, the companies (have still not 23. In the following questions, out of the four
reach) a consensus. alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to
(a) Have still to reached the word given.
(b) Had till not reached Culminate
(c) Have still not reached (a) Jeopardize (b) Climax
(d) No improvement (c) Sample (d) Careful
20. In each of the questions below, four sentences are 24. In the following question, out of the four
given, which when properly arranged, make up a alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to
paragraph. Rearrange the given sentences and the word given.
choose the option that provides the correct final Ceremonious
order. (a) Abrupt (b) Repetitive
P. Now, researchers are working on a new alcohol- (c) Summation (d) Score
monitoring implant that could help people stay on the
25. In the following question, out of the four
wagon.
alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to
Q. All they'll have to give up is some of their autonomy.
the word given.
R. Wherever humans socialize, you can bet that the
Dunce
booze will follow.
(a) Forthcoming (b) Genius
S. Its omnipresence, plus its addictive qualities, can
(c) Developing (d) Sacred
make it really hard for people to stop drinking, even if
they really want to. 26. In the following questions, out of the four
(a) RSPQ (b) RPQS alternatives, select the alternative which best
(c) SPQR (d) SQRP expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.
A litmus test
21. In each of the questions below, four sentences are
(a) To know the potency of something
given, which when properly arranged, make up a
(b) To figure out the viability of something
paragraph. Rearrange the given sentences and
(c) A method that helps to know if something is
choose the option that provides the correct final
correct
order.
(d) To measure the effectiveness of something
P. Firing into the camp, they killed two of the Indians
and frightened the rest away. 27. In the following questions, out of the four
Q. When the girls did not return to their home, Boone alternatives, select the alternative which best
knew at once what had happened. expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.
R. With some neighbours he started in pursuit. Bite off more than you can chew
S. Guided by the twigs and bits of cloth they overtook (a) Not able to complete a task due to lack of ability
the savages just as they were cooking supper. (b) Take more than required
(a) SQRP (b) QPRS (c) Eat more than required
(c) QRSP (d) SPQR (d) Give someone excessive power

1

1
28. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any are blindingly obvious. A combined budget deficit of
grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in nearly a tenth of GDP must be tamed, particularly by
one part of the sentence. The option against that part cutting wasteful fuel subsidies. India must reform tax
will be the answer. In case of 'no error', choose and foreign-investment rules. It must speed up big
option (d) as the answer. (Ignore errors of industrial and infrastructure projects. It must
punctuation, if any.) confront corruption. None of these tasks is
(a) The cacophony of electioneering insurmountable. Most are supposedly government
(b) had hardly died down than policy.
(c) a whole new suite of claims
When the government tries to clear bottlenecks,
(d) No error
feuding and overlapping bureaucracies can get in the
29. In the following questions, the parts of sentence is way. When it suggests raising fuel prices, it faces
given in the options. Some part may contain protests and backs down. When it tries to pass
grammatical error. If any part contains error then reforms on foreign investment, its populist coalition
mark that option as the answer and if there is no partners threaten to pull the plug. It does not help
error then mark "no error" as the answer. that the ageing PM has little clout of his own: he
(a) As per the directions of our new editor, reports to the ailing president of the ruling party
(b) each of the mistakes have to be corrected
Some reformers pray for a financial crisis that will
(c) before the final version is sent for printing.
shake the politicians from their stupor, as happened
(d) No error
in 1991, allowing the PM to sneak through his changes.
30. out of the four alternatives, choose the one which What a paradox! Though India's banks face bad debts,
can be substituted for the given words/sentences. its cloistered financial system, high foreign-exchange
A group of people hired to applaud or abuse a reserves and capable central bank mean it is not
performer or public speaker about to keel over.
(a) Mob (b) Claque
Instead the dreary conclusion is that India's feeble
(c) Throng (d) Posse
politics are now ushering in several years of feebler
Direction (Q.31-Q.35): Read the following passage economic growth. Indeed, the politicians' most
and answer the questions that follow. complacent belief is that voters will just put up with
In A world economy as troubled as today's, news that lower growth—because they supposedly care only
India's growth rate has fallen to 5.3% may not seem about state handouts, the next meal, cricket and
important. But the rate is the lowest in seven years, religion. But as Indians discover that slower growth
and the sputtering of India's economic miracle carries means fewer jobs and more poverty, they will become
social costs that could surpass the pain in the Euro angry. Perhaps that will be no bad thing, if it makes
zone. them vote for change
But now, after a slump in the currency, a drying up of 31. The author says that the fall in India’s growth may
private investment and those GDP figures, the miracle not seem that important because
feels like a mirage. Whether India can return to a path (a) the rate is lowest in seven years
of high growth depends on its politicians — and, in (b) the fall would cost India socially
the end, its voters. The omens, frankly, are not good. (c) it is not a new phenomenon
(d) the world economy is going through a relatively
Some of this crunch reflects the rest of the world's
worse phase.
woes. The Congress-led coalition government, with
Brezhnev-grade complacency, insists things will 32. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
bounce back. But India's slowdown is due mainly to (a) Eurozone is going through some kind of crisis.
problems at home and has been looming for a while. (b) India’s economic growth in 2009 was less than
The state is borrowing too much, crowding out that in 2007.
private firms and keeping inflation high. It has not (c) The value of the rupee has dropped.
passed a big reform for years. (d) The millions of poor Indian’s will never come out
of poverty.
The remedies, agreed on not just by foreign investors
and liberal newspapers but also by the government,

1
33. The author puts the main blame for India’s economic 37. Which religious teacher established four maths in
slump on which of the following? four corners of the country at Badrinath (North),
(a) Global recession Dwarka (West), Puri (East) & Sringeri (South)?
(b) Uncontrollable factors (a) Swami Vivekananda (b) Guru Nanak
(c) International problems (c) Adi Shankaracharya (d) Ramanuja
(d) Domestic causes
38. Which element is necessarily present in all acids?
34. Which of the following is not a ‘remedy’ referred to by (a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen
the author? (c) Carbon (d) Nitrogen
(a) Control the budget deficit.
39. Who out of the following authored the book 'Business
(b) Improve tax and foreign investment rules.
at the Speed of Thought'?
(c) Speed up big industrial and infrastructural
(a) Warren Buffett (b) Elon Musk
projects.
(c) Bill Gates (d) Mark Zuckerberg
(d) Reduce wasteful use of fuel.
40. Which organ in the human body produces Bile?
35. Which of the following best describes ‘the paradox’
(a) Stomach (b) Liver
the author mentions in the penultimate paragraph?
(c) Pancreas (d) Kidneys
(a) The PM’s being allowed to come out of the
economic crisis by sneaking through changes. 41. What is the role of Siemens AG and Kyosan Electric
(b) Despite being faced with great difficulties the Manufacturing Co in the deployment of the Kavach
Indian banks and financial system are not about to system?
keel over. (a) Upgrading existing railway networks
(c) Economic reformers, who are desirous to come (b) Developing open-source technology
out of the present crisis, desiring for another as a (c) Deploying advanced 4G and 5G technology
remedy. (d) Participating in radio surveys
(d) The PM, who can bring the economic situation
42. What recent approval has Uttar Pradesh Chief
under control, not being allowed to sneak through his
Minister Yogi Adityanath given, and where will the
changes.
groundbreaking initiative be established?
36. In which city is the Netaji Subhash National Institute (a) Approval for a new airport in Lucknow
of Sports situated? (b) Approval for a shopping mall in Agra
(a) New Delhi (b) Patiala (c) Approval for a Telecom Center of Excellence in
(c) Mumbai (d) Kolkata Saharanpur
(d) Approval for a sports complex in Varanasi

1
43. Which products are identified as key drivers for the (a) Lack of awareness about the declaration’s
growth of India’s MMF textile exports? content
(a) Leather goods (b) Concerns that reducing greenhouse gas
(b) Synthetic footwear emissions for cooling in healthcare infrastructure
(c) Curtains, drapes, and interior blinds could hinder medical services in underserved
(d) Wooden furniture areas
(c) Disinterest in global climate initiatives
44. Diamond and Graphite are allotropes of which
(d) Political disagreements with COP28 Presidency
element?
(a) Oxygen (b) Carbon 51. Who is considered the father of the Mobile Phone?
(c) Silicon (d) Nitrogen (a) Steve Jobs (b) Martin Cooper
(c) Bill Gates (d) Mark Zuckerberg
45. Who is the only Indian cricketer to have taken all 10
wickets in a Test innings? 52. Gayatri Mantra is addressed to which Hindu god?
(a) Kapil Dev (b) Anil Kumble (a) Lord Shiva (b) Lord Vishnu
(c) Harbhajan Singh (d) Ravichandran Ashwin (c) Surya (Sun god) (d) Lord Ganesha
46. What regulatory measure was introduced by the 53. What is the primary purpose of a windfall tax in the
Indian government in April 2020 regarding FDI from context of the energy sector?
neighboring countries? (a) To encourage companies to generate higher
(a) Mandatory Registration profits
(b) Pre-Approval Requirement (b) To prevent companies from earning any profits
(c) Tax Incentives (c) To regulate excessive profits during favorable
(d) Automatic Clearance market conditions
(d) To increase government revenue from all
47. What is the current status of foreign portfolio
industries
investments in Indian equities for the calendar year?
(a) A net outflow of funds 54. What is the primary goal of the Amplifi 2.0 portal
(b) Approximately ₹96,340 crore invested launched by the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban
(c) A decrease compared to the previous year Affairs in India?
(d) No significant foreign investor interest (a) Enhancing Agricultural Practices
(b) Centralizing Data for Urban Development
48. Why has India resumed importing Venezuelan crude
(c) Promoting Rural Infrastructure
oil?
(d) Facilitating Health Services
(a) Due to a surplus in domestic oil production.
(b) Following the easing of U.S. sanctions on 55. What did Tata AutoComp Systems recently sell in
Venezuela. Pune?
(c) To counter rising oil prices in the Middle East. (a) Manufacturing unit
(d) In response to increased oil demand in India. (b) Land parcel and structure
(c) Research and development center
49. What is the primary focus of the World Bank’s
(d) Fleet of vehicles
initiative, led by President Ajay Banga, to scale
climate finance through the Private Sector 56.
8
−
36
+
54
−
27
is the expansion for
𝑥3 𝑥 2𝑦 𝑥𝑦 2 𝑦3
Investment Lab (PSIL)?
(a) (2/x - 3/y)3 (b) (2/x + 3/y)3
(a) Reducing carbon emissions directly
(c) (3/x - 2/y)3 (d) (3/x + 2/y)3
(b) Creating a securitizable asset class for climate
investments 57. In △ABC, E and F are points on AB and AC such that
(c) Increasing government funding for climate EF II BC. EF then produced to G such that ∠FCG =
projects ∠FGC. If AE/AB = 5/9 and AC = 72 cm, then find the
(d) Implementing carbon offset programs length of FG.
(a) 32 cm (b) 40 cm
50. Why did India refrain from signing the COP28
(c) 44 cm (d) Cannot be determined
Declaration on Climate and Health?

1
58. The number of students in a hostel increases from 61. A person bought a home theatre system that cost Rs.
5400 and becomes 6075. By what percentage should 25344 and made the payment in two equal
the hostel reduce the consumption of food so that the instalments at the rate of 25% rate of interest
expenditure does not increase? compounded annually. What is the instalment that he
(a) 12(1/2)% (b) 10% paid each year?
(c) 11(1/9)% (d) 8(1/3)% (a) Rs. 9011 (b) Rs. 16460
(c) Rs. 17600 (d) Rs. 17450
59. If c = a + b - x, a = b + c - y and 2b = z, then find the
value of (x2- y2- z2)/4. 62. A six-digit number 749xyz is divisible by 9, 11 and 4,
(a) b (a + b + c) (b) c (a - b - c) then what is the value of {3x - (4y + 5z)/2x}? [Assume
(c) a (a + b + c) (d) b (a - c - b) x ≠ z]
(a) 12 (b) 13
60. The average runs scored by Aman in 12 innings is 2.5
(c) 14 (d) 11
more than the average runs scored by Pritam in 11
innings. Pritam and Aman scored 79 and 93 runs 63. Height of a trapezium is 4 cm more than its shorter
respectively in 12th inning. If the average runs scored parallel side and 12 cm less than its longer parallel
by Pritam in 12 innings is 24, then what is the average side. If area of trapezium is 896 cm2, then calculate its
runs scored by Aman in 11 innings? height.
(a) 14 (b) 16 (a) 32 cm (b) 36 cm
(c) 15 (d) 17 (c) 24 cm (d) 28 cm
(a) 188 (b) 208
64. A shopkeeper mixes good quality Rice which cost him
(c) 196 (d) 212
Rs 60/kg and a poor-quality rice which cost him Rs
35/kg in the ratio 3:2. What is the discount 69. The ratio of cost price of 2 articles is 4:5. If they are
percentage provided by him if he sells it after a mark- marked up by 25% and 20% respectively and the
up of 28% such that he makes a profit of 15.2%? percentage discount provided on them is 10% and
(a) 5% (b) 8% 5% respectively, what is the ratio of their Selling
(c) 10% (d) 12% prices?
(a) 12:13 (b) 15:19
65. R and S started a business by investing Rs. 1600 and
(c) 16:21 (d) 17:19
Rs. 2480 respectively. S left the business after a few
months. At the end of twelve months, the ratio of the 70. In the following diagram, O is the centre of the circle
share of the profits received by R and S is 48:31 and AD is parallel to BC. If ∠AOB = 52 and ∠DFC = 64,
respectively. After how many months did S leave the what is the measure of ∠FAE?
business?
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 8
66. The value of (5 3/4 + 4 2/3) - [48% of 25 × (3 5/8 ÷ 1
13/16 + 7 3/4 - 12 1/8)] + (32 ÷ (4/3))% of 50 is:
5 11
(a) 11 (b) 50
12 12
11 7
(c) 40 (d) 48
12 12
67. Upper and lower radii of frustum of a cone are 7 cm

and 14 cm respectively. If the lateral surface area of
the frustum of cone is 462 √5 cm3 , then find its (a) 48° (b) 50°
approximate volume (in cm3). (take π = 22/7) (c) 52° (d) 54°
(a) 5031 (b) 5155
(c) 4873 (d) 4939 71. Find that value of (coefficient of x2y2 ÷ coefficient of
x4) in the expansion of (2x + 3y)4.
68. If (Ax3 + 27y3) ÷ (Bx + 3y) = 16x2 + 9y2- Cxy, then what (a) 14.5 (b) 12.5
is the value of B(A - C)? (c) 11.5 (d) 13.5
1
74. The vehicle of Mr. Ghosh needs 30% more fuel at the
72. Downstream speed of boat A is 80% of downstream
speed of 75 kmph than it needs at the speed of 50
speed of boat B and the ratio of upstream speed of
kmph. At a speed of 50 kmph, Mr. Ghosh can go to a
boat A and boat B is 9: 13 respectively. Speed of boat
distance of 195 kms. At the speed of 75 kmph, he will
A is approximately what percent of speed of boat B in
able to travel a distance of
still water?
(a) 120 kms (b) 150 kms
(a) 69%
(c) 160 kms (d) 140 kms
(b) 71%
(c) 76% 75. Which of the following pairs of numbers are relative
(d) Cannot be determined primes?
(i) 24, 25
73. The value of perimeter of rectangle is 68 cm and the
(ii) 133, 285
ratio of length to width is 4 ∶ 13. Find the difference in
(iii) 210, 255
the area when the value of length and width is
(iv) 15, 91
increased by 50%.
(v) 123, 164
(a) 348 cm2 (b) 260 cm2
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (i), (iv) and (v)
(c)225 cm 2 (d)468 cm2
(c) Only (i) and (iv) (d) Only (iv) and (v)

1

1
Direction (Q.76-Q.79): Study the following 82. Study the given pattern carefully and select the
information carefully to answer the given questions. number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.
There are eight persons sitting around a circular table
facing the centre. Z is a neighbour of W. Number of
persons sitting between A and P is the same as the
number of persons sitting between M and Q. D sits to
the immediate right of K. Two persons are sitting
between Q and W. Three persons are sitting between
K and A. Q is a neighbour of K and P is not a neighbour
of Q.
76. Who sits second to the left of P?
(a) W (b) Z
(c) D (d) Q (a) 12 (b) 21
77. What is the position of M with respect to D? (c) 16 (d) 18
(a) Immediate left (b) Second to the left 83. Select the option which shows the letter cluster which
(c) Second to the right (d) Third to the left can replace the question mark (?) in the series given
78. Who among them are the immediate neighbours of A? below.
(a) Q and D (b) W and D aBDg, hIKn, oPRu, vWYb, ?
(c) P and Z (d) M and Z (a) dGHk (b) dEHl
(c) cDFi (d) bEFj
79. Who sits opposite to Z?
(a) P (b) M 84. Who is the oldest person?
(c) Q (d) K (a) P (b) T
(c) S (d) Cannot be determined
80. In the following question, three statements are given
and three conclusions are given below these 85. How many persons are shorter than P?
statements. Choose the option which shows the (a) One (b) Two
conclusions which logically follow from the given (c) Three (d) Four
statements, disregarding commonly known facts. 86. Who is the tallest person?
Statements: (a) Q (b) T
All verbs are nouns. (c) S (d) P
Some nouns are adverbs.
No adverb is an adjective. 87. In a certain coded language, "TODAY" is coded as "23"
Conclusions: and "MOON" is coded as "14". Then, what will be the
I. Some verbs can be adverbs. code for "CHANNELS" in that coded language?
II. Some nouns are not adjectives. (a) 23 (b) 47
III. Some nouns are verbs. (c) 79 (d) 62
(a)Only I follows 88. Select the option which can replace the question
(b) Only I and III follows marks (?) in the given series.
(c) Either I or III and II follows LO, ___, JQ, IR, HS, GT, FU, ___
(d) All I, II and III follow (a) KP, EV (b) JO, DW
81. Ria is running in the east direction and runs for 45.2 (c) JK, VW (d) MN, XC
m. Then, she turns towards the west direction and 89. Select the option which can replace the question mark
runs for 87.5 m. Finally, she turns towards the east (?) in the given series.
direction and runs for 50.4 m. How far is she from her GH7, MN12, ST22, YZ42, ?, KL162, QR322
starting point? (a) CD88 (b) IJ144
(a) 12.5 m (b) 11.7 m (c) EF82 (d) JK142
(c) 8.1 m (d) 6.8 m

1
90. In the question below, a statement is given followed (a) if only conclusion I follows.
by a few conclusions which may or may not follow (b) if only conclusion II follows.
from the statement. Choose the one that reflects the (c) if either I or II follows.
conclusion that follows. (d) if neither I nor II follows.
Statement: Most Indians living in the USA prefer
94. In a coded language, FEAR is coded as 6, AWAY is
eating Indian food.
coded as 2 and GONE is coded as 20, then what is the
Conclusions:
code for IRON ?
I. People residing in foreign countries miss the local
(a) 8 (b) 32
cuisine of their native country.
(c) 24 (d) 11
II. Some Indians living in the USA prefer cuisines that
are not Indian. 95. In a certain code language, "MISERY" is coded as
(a) Only II follows "1391951825", "PLUTO" is coded as "1612212015"
(b) Neither I nor II follows find the code for "DONATE" in the same code
(c) Only I follows language.
(d) Both I and II follow (a) 416141204 (b) 515141206
(c) 415141215 (d) 415141205
91. In the following question, out of the four figures
marked (I), (II), (III) and (IV), three are similar in a 96. In a certain code language PRECISE is written as
certain manner. However, one figure is not like the FULCBPO. How would MONSOON be written in that
other three. Choose the figure which is different from code?
the rest. (a) OQRSNQQ (b) NQQSKML
(c) OQRSKML (d) OPQSKML
97. Direction: In the following question, two statements
are given. They may either be independent causes,
independent effects or bear a cause and effect
relationship that is unique to each other. Read both
(a) I (b) II the statements carefully and mark the answer.
(c) III (d) IV Statement:
92. Statement: I. The factory employees have started their indefinite
The Health Ministry issued an order to ban smoking hunger strike and lock out due to non-payment of
in public places from 2nd of October this year and a festival bonus by factory owner.
fine of Rs.500 to be imposed on the defaulters. II. The trade union have called of their week-long
Conclusions: strike and demonstration yesterday.
I. One should be ready to pay Rs.500 if one wants to (a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its
smoke in public places from 2nd of October this year. effect.
II. The cigarette manufactures will incur losses from (b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its
the 2nd of October this year. effect.
(a) if only conclusion I follows. (c) Both the statements I and II are independent
(b) if only conclusion II follows. causes.
(c) if either I or II follows. (d) Both the statements I and II are effects of
(d) if neither I nor II follows. independent causes.
93. Statement: 98. Find the mirror image of the figure given below when
The information needs of villagers are entirely a mirror is placed to the right of the figure:
different from that of urban people.
Conclusions:
I. There is no information need which is common for
villagers and urban people.
II. Urban people are well educated hence their needs
are different.

1
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
99. Which of the following figures among I, II, III, IV depict
the correct cube obtained on folding the given
unfolded hollow cube?
(a) I (b) II
(c) III (d) IV

1
100. In the following question, a series is given, with one 101. What is the expenditure of the company in 2010 (in
term missing. Choose the correct alternative from million rupees)?
the given ones that will complete the series. (a) 265.6 (b) 256.5
CAE, FEJ, IIO, LMT, ? (c) 260.9 (d) 206.9
(a) YOU (b) OUY
102. Income in 2011 is what percent more than that in
(c) OQY (d) UIO
2007?
Direction (Q.101-Q.105): Study the following (a) 26% (b) 16%
table and answer the questions given below it. (c) 27% (d) 32%
Given below is the table showing income, 103. What is the average income of the company (In
expenditure and profit percentage of a company. rupees) in 2008?
Income and expenditure are in million rupees (a) 255.1 million (b) 225.0 million
Year income Expenditure Profit %
(c) 230.8 million (d) 248.4 million
2006 234.5 - 12.5% 104. If the profit percent for the year 2005 was 2.5% less
than that for 2006, what was the expenditure for
2007 208.6 193.6 -
2005 (In million rupees)?
2008 - 197.0 9.7 5%
(a) 238.8 (b) 204.0
2009 274.4 202.8 - (c) 196.7 (d) 213.2
2010 332.0 - 25% 105. What is the net profit percent of the company
2011 - 218.6 21.25% during the period 2006-11?
(a) 18.88% (b) 21.42%
(c) 25.76% (d) 15.09%
Direction (Q.106-Q.110): There are 3 platforms in a railway station. Number of trains passing through these
platforms on 6 days of the week is given below:
50
43
40 37
33
31
30 28 27
23
20 17 17 16
13 13 14
11 11 12
9
10 7
0
Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday
Platform 1 Platform 2 Platform 3
106. If 35% of the trains passing through platform 1 107. On how many day(s) of the week, does number of
have this railway station as the source, then the trains passing through platform 2 is less than the
ratio of trains passing through platform 1 which average number of trains passing through all
have other stations as source to the total number of platforms on that particular day?
trains passing through platform 2 over whole week (a) 1 (b) 2
is? (c) 3 (d) 4
(a) 7:12 (b) 2:3
(c) 25:39 (d) 8:13

1
108. If 1/5th
of the trains passing through platform 3 are (a) 54% (b) 67%
superfast trains & 15% of the trains passing (c) 85% (d) 75%
through platform 1 are Rajdhani trains. Rest all the
110. Correct order of days according to number of trains
trains passing through all platforms are express
passing through all platforms of the railway station
trains. Find the number of express trains passing
is?
through the station over the week?
(a) Thursday > Monday > Saturday > Friday >
(a) 362 (b) 344
Wednesday > Tuesday
(c) 319 (d) 337
(b) Thursday > Monday > Friday > Saturday >
109. If due to some construction work, Platform 2 Tuesday > Wednesday
remained closed on Saturday & all the trains (c) Thursday > Monday > Saturday > Tuesday >
passing through platform 2 were equally divided Wednesday > Friday
into platforms 1 & 3. How much percent more trains (d) Thursday > Monday > Saturday > Friday
pass through platform 1 than platform 3 in such >Tuesday > Wednesday
scenario?
Direction (Q.111-Q.114): Following Pie charts represent the number of students, who have appeared and cleared
phase I of Civil Service Exam from various departments of an Arts and Science College.
Total number of students appeared for
Civil Service Exam = 5,484
Percentage of students appeared from various departments
Total number of students cleared phase I of

Civil service Exam = 847
Students cleared from various departments in degree

1
Other, 67o
English, 88o
Commerce, 72o
Maths, 60o
Physics,
42o
Chemistry, 31o
111. The total number of students clearing phase I from Direction (Q.115-Q.117): Study the given
commerce and other department is what information and answer the following questions
percentage of the number of students clearing A shop keeper bought some articles of A and B at
phase I from physics department(approx.) ? Rs.90 and Rs. 160 per article. He sold them each
(a) 340 % (b) 310 % article at Rs.120 such that on day 1 only one article
(c) 320 % (d) 330 % of A is sold and 450 articles of B were sold. Every
day the sale of article A is increased by 4 articles
112. What has the ratio between numbers of students
and the sale of article B is decreased by 6 articles.
appeared from Maths and physics departments to
the number of students appeared from chemistry 115. After how many days the shopkeeper will start
and commerce departments? earning profit on a whole?
(a) 16:15 (b) 15:17 (a) 75 Days (b) 100 Days
(c) 16:17 (d) 15:16 (c) 107 Days (d) 108 Days
113. From which department is the difference between 116. From which day the shopkeeper will start earning
the number of students cleared and the number of profit on daily basis?
students appeared is the second minimum? (a) 49th day (b) 50th day
(a) Chemistry (b) Physics (c) 51st day (d) 75th day
(c) Commerce (d) Maths
117. What is the loss observed by selling articles A and B
114. What is the percentage of students, who did not on Day 23?
clear the phase I of the exam? (a) Rs. 10,000 (b) Rs.10,050
(a) 84.45% (b) 84.55% (c) Rs. 10,360 (d) Rs. 11,500
(c) 83.55% (d) 83.45%

1
Direction (Q.118-Q.120): Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Below Chart has price of each share of 3 companies over the 5 years.
1600
1400
1200
1000
800
600
400
200
0
2017 2018 2019 2020 2021
ABC XYZ PQR
(a) 14.5% more (b) 12% less

118. In which of the following years the difference
(c) 10% less (d) 12.5% more
between the share price of XYZ and ABC is
maximum? 120. What is the difference between the average per
(a) 2018 and 2019 (b) 2019 and 2017 share average per share value of ABC for the year
(c) 2017 and 2020 (d) 2020 and 2021 2018, 2019 and 2020 and average per share value
of PQR for the years 2017, 2018 and 2019?
119. How much percent is the average per share value of
(a) 97.67 (b) 83.33
PQR over the years is more less than the per share
(c) 57.33 (d) 49.33
value of XYZ in 2018?

1
ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATIONS

1. (c) is the correct answer. 19. (c) Sol. The context is of past tense which will require
2. (d) is the correct answer. the past tense form of "reach", thereby eliminating
3. (b) is the correct answer. the original phrase. Option A houses an incorrectly
4. (b) is the correct answer. structured phrase as the infinitive 'to' must be
5. (d) is the correct answer. followed by the base form of the verb. "Till" from
6. (b) is the correct answer. option B will provide a different meaning, which
7. (a) is the correct answer. won't be correct here. Hence, option C will be the
8. (b) is the correct answer. correct answer.
9. (b) is the correct answer. 20. (a) Sol. R begins by telling us about the topic of
10. (d) is the correct answer. discussion - alcohol. S comments on its
11. (a) Sol. We need a noun in the given blank, while option omnipresence and tells us that it is hard for people
C and D are verb. 'courage' does not fit the context of to stop drinking. PQ follow as a pair: P tells us on a
the sentence. 'Account' for means to give a scientific method that can help people to stop
satisfactory record of something or to possess the drinking. Q gives us the cost of using such a method.
responsibility of something. Option (a) is the right RSPQ is the final order.
answer. 21. (c) Sol. Q begins the passage by introducing the main
12. (a) Sol. Salubrious: healthy. character - Boone. It tells us that the girls hadn't
Lugubrious: Sad returned home. R follows by telling us that he started
Savoury: Taste of salt or spicy. a pursuit accompanied by some neighbours. S
We need an adjective in the blank, while C is an continues by telling us how they were guided in their
adverb. Gooseberry (fruit) juice cannot be salty or pursuit. P concludes the passage by telling us they
spicy. But it is healthy. So, salubrious is the correct stormed into the camp and killed some Indians.
option. QRSP is the final order.
13. (c) Sol. Sanction - official grant for something. A will not 22. (b) Sol. 'Diffident' means modest or shy because of a lack
fit in the context, as the passage is not talking about of self-confidence. 'Bashful' means reluctant to draw
something formal or official. B is a verb while we attention to oneself; shy. Clearly, the two words are
need a noun. Between the remaining two words, synonyms of each other, making option B, the
only C makes contextual sense. correct answer.
14. (a) Sol. Fond - to like something. Familiar - to know well. 23. (b) Sol. 'Culminate' means to reach a 'climax' or point of
Offended - insulted. B and C will be incorrect as they highest development. Hence, option B will be the
should be followed by the preposition with, instead correct answer. 'Jeopardize' means to put (someone
of ‘of’. D makes no contextual sense in the passage. A or something) into a situation in which there is a
is the right answer. danger of loss, harm, or failure.
15. (b) Sol. Comrade – companion/ friend. Possession - 24. (a) Sol. 'Ceremonious' means relating or appropriate to
something which one owns. We need the plural form grand and formal occasions. The opposite of this
of the noun here, as warranted by the construction would be unceremonious, meaning having or
one + of + the + noun’. So, A is incorrect. Also, we showing a lack of courtesy; rough or 'abrupt'. Hence,
need a noun here, so C is incorrect as it is an adjective. option A will be the correct answer. 'Summation'
D is incorrect as it makes no contextual sense. B is means summary.
the right answer. 25. (b) Sol. 'Dunce' means a person who is slow at learning;
16. (a) Sol. Hinder - prevent. Obstacle - barrier. Assault - a stupid person. 'Genius' will be the apt antonym of
attack. We need a verb here, so C is incorrect as it is it. Hence, option B will be the correct answer.
a noun. Also, we need the simple past tense of the 26. (c) Sol. The idiom "A litmus Test" refers to a method
verb, as the sentence is in past tense. So, B is employed to determine whether something is
incorrect as it is in the simple present tense. D makes correct or not.
no contextual sense. A is the right answer. 27. (a) Sol. The idiom "Bite off more than you can chew"
17. (d) Sol. Deceived - tricked. Frightening - causing refers to not being able to complete a task due to lack
someone to get scared. Alarmed - scared. We need an of ability.
adjective here, so C is incorrect as it can act only as a 28. (b) Sol. The word 'when' is used with the conjunctive
noun or a verb. B is incorrect as we need an adjective adverb 'hardly' instead of 'than'. 'Than' is usually
that means scared, not one that means causing one used when comparing, which is not the case here.
to become scared. A makes no contextual sense. D is Hence, the correct form will be 'had hardly died
the right answer. down when'.
18. (d) Sol. The given sentence is perfectly correct, making 29. (b) Sol. Syntax: Each + of + noun (plural) + verb
option D, the correct answer. (singular). Each uses singular verb/auxiliary, hence

1
replace 'have' with 'has'. Hydrogen ion in the solution, the more acidic the
30. (b) Sol. Mob: a large crowd of people, especially one that solution is.
is disorderly and intent on causing trouble or 39. (c) Bill Gates
violence. Business at the Speed of Thought is a book written
Claque: A group of people hired to applaud or abuse by Bill Gates and Collins Hemingway in 1999. It
a performer or public speaker. discusses how business and technology are
Throng: a large, densely packed crowd of people or integrated, and explains how digital infrastructures
animals. and information networks can help someone get an
Posse: a group of people who have come together edge on the competition.
for the same purpose 40. (b) Liver
31. (d) Sol. option (d) is the correct answer as The, very first Bile is a fluid that is made and released by the liver
sentence of the passage gives us the answer to this: and stored in the gallbladder. Bile helps with
In a world… seem important.’ This clearly means digestion. It breaks down fats into fatty acids, which
that the world is going through a worse phase in can be taken into the body by the digestive tract.
comparison to India. This is why news about India’s 41. (d) Siemens AG and Kyosan Electric Manufacturing Co
bad phase may not seem that important. (a) is are involved in the deployment, and the
nowhere mentioned. (b) and (c) are irrelevant. collaboration involves radio surveys.
32. (d) Sol. (d) is the correct answer for this question. 42. (c) Approval for a Telecom Center of Excellence in
Choices (a) and (b) be understood from the first Saharanpur. The Chief Minister has given approval
paragraph, choice (c) can be understood from the for the establishment of the country’s inaugural
first sentence of the second paragraph Choice (d) is Telecom Center of Excellence in Saharanpur.
extreme in nature and cannot be inferred. The 43. (c) Curtains, drapes, and interior blinds. These products
author merely says the 2004 - 08 growth promised made from synthetic fibres are highlighted as crucial
to lift India’s poor out of poverty which would not in driving the growth of India’s MMF textile exports.
happen now. Well this does not mean that they will 44. (b) Carbon
NEVER come out of poverty. Diamond and Graphite are allotropes of carbon.
33. (d) Sol. (d) is the correct answer as in the third They consist of carbon atom atoms but they have
paragraph, second sentence, the author says, “... due different physical properties. They are polymorphs
mainly to…” clearly, it is domestic cause. (a) is not having the same chemistry but the crystalline
mentioned in the passage. (b) is not blamed by the structures are different.
author. No traces of (c) can be found. 45. (b) Anil Kumble
34. (d) Sol. (d) is the correct choice as In the fourth para, the On this day, February 7, in 1999, India's spin legend
author refers to the remedies. All except 4 are Anil Kumble became only the second bowler and
mentioned. The author talks about fuel subsidies, the first Indian to claim all 10 wickets in an innings
not the use of fuel itself. (a) and (b) and and (c) are of a Test match. Kumble achieved this 'unthinkable
mentioned by the author in para 4. feat' in the Delhi Test at the Feroz Shah Kotla
35. (c) Sol. option (c) is correct as In the penultimate ground (now Arun Jaitley Stadium) against arch-
paragraph the author talks about reformers praying rivals Pakistan.
for a crisis which will wake the politicians from their 46. (b) In April 2020, the government mandated prior
stupor. Now, in a crisis situation wishing for another approval for foreign investments from countries
is paradoxical. This is best expressed in c. (a) is sharing land borders with India to prevent
nowhere mentioned. (b) is not a close option thus opportunistic takeovers, particularly in the context
can be omitted. (d) is out of scope of the of the COVID-19 pandemic.
36. (b) Patiala 47. (b) Foreign portfolio investors have injected
It is considered a Premier Sports Institute in Asia. approximately ₹96,340 crore into Indian equities
The Institute is located at Moti Bagh Palace, Patiala this calendar year.
(Punjab). 48. (b) India resumed imports after the temporary lifting of
37. (c) Adi Shankaracharya U.S. sanctions on Venezuela in October.
Shankaracharya was an early 8th century Indian 49. (b) The PSIL’s main focus is on creating a securitizable
philosopher and theologian who consolidated the asset class in climate investments.
doctrine of Advaita Vedanta. He established four 50. (b) India refrained from signing due to concerns that the
major mathas in different regions of India - proposed reduction in greenhouse gas emissions for
Badrinath, Dwarka, Puri, Sringeri. cooling in healthcare infrastructure might impede
38. (b) Hydrogen the nation’s ability to meet the increasing demands
The element common to all acids is Hydrogen. The for medical services, especially in remote and
number of standardized hydrogen ions accounts for underserved areas.
the acidity of a compound. The more the number of 51. (b) Martin Cooper

1
Martin Cooper (born December 26, 1928, Chicago, 2b = z ........ (3)

Illinois, U.S.) American engineer who led the team Now,
that in 1972–73 built the first mobile cell phone and (x2- y2- z )/4
made the first cell phone call. He is widely regarded = [{(x - y) (x + y)} - z2]/4
as the father of the cellular phone. = [{(a + b - c - b - c + a) (a + b - c + b + c - a)} -
52. (c) Surya (2b)2]/4
The Gāyatrī mantra is dedicated to Savitṛ, a Sun = [{(a - c - c + a) (b + b)} - 4b2]/4
deity. The mantra is attributed to the much revered = [4b (a - c) - 4b2]/4
sage Vishwamitra, who is also considered the = b (a - c - b)
author of Mandala 3 of Rig Veda. 60. (c) The average runs scored by Pritam in 11 innings =
53. (c) A windfall tax is designed to regulate excessive (12 × 24 - 79)/11 = 19
profits that companies may earn during favorable Now, the average runs scored by Aman in 12
market conditions. It aims to ensure a fair innings = 2.5 + 19 = 21.5
distribution of wealth and prevent profiteering. Therefore, the average runs scored by Aman in 11
54. (b) The primary goal of the Amplifi 2.0 portal is to innings = (21.5 × 12 - 93)/11 = 15
centralize and streamline raw data from cities across 61. (c) P = X/(1 + r/100) + X/(1 + r/100)2 + .. + X/(1 +
India for effective urban development. r/100)n
55. (b) Tata AutoComp Systems sold a 13.26-acre land So, 25344 = X/(1 + 25/100) + X/(1 + 25/100)2
parcel along with a 100,000 sq ft structure in Pune’s 25344 = X/(5/4) + X/(5/4)2
Maan area. 25344 = X(20 + 16)/25
56. (a) (
8
−
36
+
54
−
27
) X = 17600
𝑥3 𝑥2𝑦 𝑥𝑦 2 𝑦3 So, monthly instalment = Rs. 17600
3 3
2 3 2 2 3 2 3 2 62. (c) For divisibility by 11,
= ( ) − ( ) − 3( ) ⋅ ( ) − 3⋅ ( )( ) (7 + 9 + y) - (4 + x + z) = 0 or multiple of 11
𝑥 𝑦 𝑥 𝑦 𝑥 𝑦
2 3
3 3
2 3 2 3 12 + y - x - z = 0 or 12 + y - x - z = 11
= ( ) − ( ) − 3 ⋅ ( ) ⋅ ( ) [( ) − ( )] x - y + z = 12 ---------(1)
𝑥 𝑦 𝑥 𝑦 𝑥 𝑦 or x - y + z = 1 -----------(2)
2 3 3 For divisibility of 9:
=( − )
𝑥 𝑦
7 + 4 + 9 + x + y + z = multiple of 9
57. (a) According to the question: 20 + x + y + z = 27, 36 or 45
So, x + y + z = 7, 16 or 25 -----(3)
When x + y + z = 7
So, from equation (1) and (3), we get
x + z = 19/2 which is not possible
From equation (2) and (3), we get
x+z=4
y=3
For divisibility of 4, the last two digits of a number
must be divisible by 4.
749xyz is divisible by 4 when yz = 32, 36
For z = 2, x = 2 which is not possible as x ≠ z.
For z = 6, x = -2 which is not possible
When x + y + z = 25
Here, AE/AB = AF/AC So, from equation (1) and (2), we get
Then, 5/9 = AF/72 x + z = 37/2 which is also not possible
AF = 40 cm From equation (2) and (3), we get
Now, FC = AC - AF = 72 - 40 = 32 cm x + z = 13
Here, ∠FCG = ∠FGC, so, FC = FG y = 12, which is not possible
Therefore, FG = 32 cm When x + y + z = 16
58. (c) Percentage increase in the number of people = (6075 So, from equation (1) and (2), we get
- 5400)/5400 × 100% = 12.5% x + z = 28/2 = 14
We know, in order to not increase expenditure, So, y = 2
reduction in consumption = (12.5/(100 + 12.5)) × For divisibility of 4, last two digits of a number
100% = 11(1/9)% must be divisible by 4.
59. (d) c = a + b - x 749xyz is divisible by 4 when yz = 20, 24, 28
x = a + b - c ........ (1) For z = 0, x = 14 which is not possible
a=b+c-y For z = 4, x = 10 which is not possible
y = b + c - a ....... (2) For z = 8, x = 6 which is possible.

1
Hence, number is 749628 M.P of first article = 4k(1 + 25/100) = Rs 5k

From equation (2) and (3), we get M.P of second article = 5k(1 + 20/100) = Rs 6k
x+z = 17/2, which is not possible. S.P of first article = 5k×(1 - 10/100) = Rs 9k/2
So, {3x – (4y + 5z)/2x} = {3 × 6 – (4 × 2 + 5 × 8)/(2 × S.P of second article = 6k× (1 - 5/100) = Rs 57k/10
6)} = 14 Required ratio = (9k/2) : (57k/10) = 45:57 = 15:19
63. (d) Let height of trapezium = h cm 70. (c) Joining BD,
Longer parallel side = (h + 12) cm
Shorter parallel side = (h - 4) cm
Now, area = (1/2) × (sum of parallel side) × height
896 = (1/2) × (h + 12 + h - 4) × h
h2 + 4h - 896 = 0
(h + 32)(h - 28) = 0
h = -32, 28 (but height cannot be negative)
So, height = 28 cm
64. (c) C.P of the mixed Rice = (60×3 + 35×2)/5 = Rs 50/kg
For a %profit of 15.2%,
S.P = 50× (115.2/100) = Rs 57.6
Since, %mark-up is 28%
M.P = 50(1 + 28/100) = Rs 64/kg
%discount = ((M.P - S.P)/M.P) ×100% = ((64 - ∠ADB = (1/2)*∠AOB = 26°
57.6)/64) ×100% = 10% Since, AD is parallel to BC
65. (b) R and S started a business by investing Rs. 1600 and ∠DBC = ∠ODB = ∠ADB = 26° [Alternate angles]
Rs. 2480 respectively. ∠DEC = ∠DBC = 26° [Angles in same segment]
Let S leave the business after 'm' months. ∠AFE = ∠DFC = 64° [Vertically opposite angles]
So, ratio of the shares of profits = (1600 × ∠DEA = 90° [Angle in a semicircle]
12):(2480 × m) = 240:31m ∠AEF = 90 − ∠DEF = 90 - 26 = 64°
Hence, 240:31m = 48:31 ∠FAE = 180 – 2×64 = 52°
m=5 71. (d) (r + 1)th term of (a + b)n = Tr + 1 = nCr an - r br
So, S left the business after 5 months. (r + 1)th term of (2x + 3y)4 = Tr + 1 = 4Cr(2x)4 - r(3y)r
66. (b) (5 3/4 + 4 2/3) - [48% of 25 × (3 5/8 ÷ 1 13/16 + 7 For coefficient of x4: 4 - r = 4 => r = 0
3/4 - 12 1/8)] + (32 ÷ (4/3))% of 50 1st term of (2x + 3y)4 = T0 + 1 = 4C0 (2x)4 – 0 (3y)0
= (9 + (9+8)/12) - [12 × (29/8 × 16/29 - 5 + 3/4 - = 1 × 16x4 × 1 = 16x4
1/8)] + (32 × 3/4)% of 50 For coefficient of x2y2, 4 - r = 2 => r = 2
= (9 + 17/12) - [12×(2-5+(6-1)/8)] + 24% of 50 3rd term of (2x + 3y)4 = T2 + 1 = 4C2 (2x)4 – 2 (3y)2
= (9 + 17/12) - [12 × (-3 + 5/8)] + 12 = 6 × 4x2 × 9y2 = 216x2y2
= (9 + 1 5/12) + (19×3)/2 + 12 Required answer = 216 ÷ 16
= 10 + 5/12 + 28 + 1/2 + 12 = 13.5
= 50 + (5+6)/12 72. (c) Sol. Let speed of boat A and boat B in still water are
= 50 11/12 'a' km/hr and 'b' km/hr respectively and stream is
67. (a) For the frustum of a cone: flowing with speed 's' km/hr.
Lateral surface area = π × (R + r) × l Upstream speed of boat A = a - s
462√5 = (22/7) × (14 + 7) × l Upstream speed of boat B = b - s
l = 7√5 Downstream speed of boat A = a + s
Now, l2 = (R - r)2 + h2 Downstream speed of boat B = b + s
(7√5)2 = (14 - 7)2 + h2 a + s = 80% of (b + s)
s = 4b - 5a
h = 14 cm
And, (a - s): (b - s) = 9: 13
Therefore, volume = (1/3) × πh × (R2 + rR + r2)
= (1/3) × (22/7) × 14 × (142 + 7 × 14 + 72) s = (13a - 9b)/4
= 5031 cm3 (approx.) 4b - 5a = (13a - 9b)/4
68. (b) We know, (a3 + b3) = (a + b)(a2- ab + b2) a = 25b/33
Percentage = 25 x 100/33 = 76% (approx.)
Then, on comparing the formula, we get A = (√16)3
73. (b) Length ∶ width = 4 ∶ 13
= 64
⇒ l/w = 4/13
And, B = √16 = 4 ⇒ l = 4w/13
C = 12 For the value of area,
Therefore, B(A - C) = 4(64 - 12) = 208 ⇒ Perimeter of rectangle = 2(l + w)
69. (b) Let the C.P of the articles be Rs 4k and Rs 5k ⇒ 68 = 2[(4w/13) + w]
respectively. ⇒ 34 = 17w/13

1
⇒ (34 × 13)/17 = w 6) The number of persons sitting between A and P is

⇒ w = 26 cm the same as the number of persons sitting between
Now, l = 4w/13 = (4 × 26)/13 = 8 cm M and Q.
Area of rectangle = w × l = 26 × 8 = 208 cm2 7) P is not a neighbour of Q.
Value of length and width increase by 50%, So, our final arrangement is,
Increased value of length = 1.5 × 8 = 12 cm
Increased value of width = 1.5 × 26 = 39 cm
New area formed = 12 × 39 = 468 cm2
∴ Difference in the area = 468 – 208 = 260 cm2
74. (b) The only thing which matters in this problem is
mileage or kms per litre of the fuel. At 50 kmph 195
kms can be covered. According to condition 1.3
times the fuel will be required at 75kmph.
Therefore, distance travelled will be 195/1.3 = 150
kms.
75. (c) (i) Numbers which are relative primes must have a
From the above arrangement, “Z” sits second to the
H.C.F. of 1, consecutive numbers are always relative
left of P.
prime.
Hence, “Z” is the correct answer.
(ii) 133 = 19 × 7
77. (d) 1) Three persons are sitting between K and A.
285 = 19 × 15
2) D sits to the immediate right of K.
As 19 is the HCF of 133 and 285, they are not relative
3) Q is a neighbour of K.
primes.
(iii) As both 210 and 255 are divisible by 3, they are
not relative primes.
(iv) 15 = 3 × 5
91 = 7 × 13
As 15 and 91 have no common factor other than 1,
they are relative primes.
(v) 123 = 3 × 41
164 = 4 × 41
As 41 is a common factor of 123 and 164, 123 and
164 cannot be relatively primes.
76. (b) 1) Three persons are sitting between K and A. 4) Two persons are sitting between Q and W.
2) D sits to the immediate right of K. 5) Z is a neighbour of W.
6) The number of persons sitting between A and P is

4) Two persons are sitting between Q and W. the same as the number of persons sitting between
5) Z is a neighbour of W. M and Q.
7) P is not a neighbour of Q.
So, our final arrangement is,

1
From the above arrangement, M sits third to the left 79. (c) 1) Three persons are sitting between K and A.
of D. 2) D sits to the immediate right of K.
Hence, “Third to the left” is the correct answer. 3) Q is a neighbour of K.
78. (c) 1) Three persons are sitting between K and A.
2) D sits to the immediate right of K.
4) Two persons are sitting between Q and W.

5) Z is a neighbour of W.
4) Two persons are sitting between Q and W.

5) Z is a neighbour of W.
6) The number of persons sitting between A and P is

the same as the number of persons sitting between
M and Q.
6) The number of persons sitting between A and P is 7) P is not a neighbour of Q.
the same as the number of persons sitting between So, our final arrangement is,
M and Q.
7) P is not a neighbour of Q.
So, our final arrangement is,
From the above arrangement, Q sits opposite to Z.

Hence, “Q” is the correct answer.
From the above arrangement, “P and Z” are the

immediate neighbours of A.
80. (d) The given statements are,

All verbs are nouns. Some nouns are adverbs. No adverb is an adjective.
The basic minimum overlapping diagram and another possible diagram are,

1
Here, some verbs can be adverbs, some nouns are not adjectives and some nouns are verbs.
Hence, all conclusions I, II and III follow.
81. (c) The distance from her starting point = 45.2 + 50.4 - Directions for questions 13 to 15: These questions
87.5 = 8.1 m are based on the following information.
82. (a) Diagonally: Five persons – P through T, are comparing their
23 + 35 = 58 and 71 - 58 = 13 heights and ages. P is taller than the second oldest
41 + 17 = 58 and 71 - 58 = 13 person R. Only two persons are younger than Q. T is
46 + 12 = 58 and 71 - 58 = 13 younger than P. No person is shorter as well as
83. (c) a B (c) D (e f) g h I (j) K (l m) n o P (q) R (s t) u v W younger than any one person.
(x) Y (z a) b c D (e) F (g h) i
84. (c) The statement "no person is shorter as well as younger than any one of the individual person" implies that the order of the
persons from the tallest to the shortest is same as the order of the persons from the youngest to the oldest.
Hence, Q is the third oldest as well as the third tallest. R is the second oldest as well as the second shortest.
It is given that P is taller than R. Hence, P is either the oldest or the second oldest. If P is the oldest, then he/she should be
the youngest. But this is not possible as it is given that T is younger than P.
Thus, P is the second oldest as well as the second youngest. T is the oldest as well as the youngest.
The final arrangement is as follows.
Order Height (tallest to shortest) Age (oldest to Youngest)
1 T S
2 P R
3 Q Q
4 R P
5 S T
S is the oldest person. Choice (C)
85. (c) The statement "no person is shorter as well as younger than any one of the individual person" implies that the order of the
1 T S
2 P R
3 Q Q
4 R P
5 S T
Three persons are shorter than P.
86. (b) The statement "no person is shorter as well as younger than any one of the individual person" implies that the order of the
1 T S
2 P R
3 Q Q
4 R P
5 S T
T is the tallest person.
87. (d) The words are coded considering the number of letters in the words.
TODAY -- (5 x 5) - 2 = 25 - 2 = 23.
MOON -- (4 x 4) - 2 = 16 - 2 = 14.
1
Hence, "CHANNELS" is coded as -- (8 x 8) - 2 = 64 - 2 = 62.

88. (a) Here, the positions of letters in the alphabetical order and in the reverse alphabetical order are considered.
𝟏 𝟐 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
𝐀 𝐁 C D E F G H I J K L M
𝐙 𝐘 X W V U T S R Q P O N
𝟐𝟔 𝟐𝟓 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14
89. (c) GH (I J K L) MN (O P Q R) ST (U V W X) YZ (A B C D) 91. (c) Each outer figure has two smaller figures of the same
EF (G H I J) KL (M N O P) QR shape inside it such that one of them is darkened III
7 + 5 = 12; 12 + 10 = 22; 22 + 20 = 42; 42 + 40 = 82; has two pentagons inside the big (outer) hexagon.
82 + 80 = 162; 162 + 160 = 322. In each of the questions below is given a statement
90. (a) Only II follows. From the statement, we can conclude followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
that not all people prefer Indian food, i.e., there are have to assume everything in the statement to be
some people who like other cuisines more than true and then consider the two conclusions together
Indian cuisine. (I) does not follow as we cannot and decide which of them logically follows beyond a
generalize about people living abroad based on the reasonable doubt from the information given in the
given data which states only about Indians living in statement. Give your answer as
the USA.
92. (a) From the statement it cannot be said how effectively the order will be implemented. But it is clear that one should be
prepared for the eventuality in case one defaults. Hence I follows.
It is not known how such a ban is going to have an effect on the sales of cigarettes. Hence, II does not follow.
∴ Only I follows. Choice (1)
93. (c) The statement does not imply that it talks about each and every need of the village and urban people. Hence I does not
follow.
The reason for which the information needs of urban people differ from those of villagers are not referred to in the
statement. Hence II also does not follow. Choice (3)
94. (c) Here, the alphabets and their positions in the alphabetical order are considered.
Sum of positions of the vowels is the code for each word.
Here, IRON has two vowels which are I and O.
Hence, the code for IRON is 9 + 15 = 24.
𝟏 𝟐 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
𝐀 𝐁 C D E F G H I J K L M
𝐙 𝐘 X W V U T S R Q P O N
𝟐𝟔 𝟐𝟓 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14

1
95. (d) When all the letters in alphabetical series from A to of festival bonus. The trade union called of the strike
Z are numbered from 1 to 26, because of some negotiations. There is no proof in
MISERY = 1391951825 the statements to link the two incident. We cannot
PLUTO = 1612212015 say the same trade union strike and factory strikes
DONATE = 415141205 are the same as there is no sufficient evidence in the
D=4 two statements.
O = 15 98. (d)
N = 14
A=1
T = 20
E=5
96. (c) First the given word is reversed and its letters are
shifted in the below manner: PRECISE
E S I C E R P
- - -
+1 +2 +3 0
3 2 1
F U L C B P O 99. (c) 6 is opposite to 1
2 is opposite to 4
Similarly, for MONSOON
3 is opposite to 5
N O O S N O M
+1 +2 +3 0 - -
-
3 2 1
O Q R S K M L
Hence, it would be written as OQRSKML Option c is
correct
97. (d) Both statements are the effects of independent cause.
The factory employees’ strike is due to non-payment
100. (c)
Alphabets A B C D E F G H I J K L M
Positional
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
value
Positional
26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14
value
Alphabets Z Y X W V U T S R Q P O N
The logic is as shown,
C + 3 → F, F + 3 → I, I + 3 → L, L + 3 → O
A + 4 → E, E + 4 → I, I + 4 → M, M + 4 → Q
E + 5 → J, J + 5 → O, O + 5 → T, T + 5 → Y
Hence, the required term is OQY.
101. (a) Income for 2008 =
100+9.75
× 197
100
Required expenditure 109.75
= 100 × 197
100
= × 332.0 ≈ 216.2 million
100+25
100 So, average income of the company
= × 332.0 234.5+208.6+216.2+274.4+332.0+265.0
125 =
= 265.6 million 6
102. (c) 1530 .7

121.25
=
6
Income in 2011 = 100 × 218.6 = Rs. 255.1 million
= 265.05 ≈ 265.0 million
So, required percent 104. (d)
265.0−208.6 Profit percent for the year 2005 = 12.5% - 2.5% = 10%
= × 100
208.6 So, expenditure for 2005
56.4
= × 100 = 27% =
100
× 234.5
208.6 100+10
100
103. (a) = 110 × 234.5
≈ 213.2 million
105. (a)

1
Expenditure for 2006

100
= 100+12.5 × 234.5
100
= × 234.5
112.5
≈ 208.4 million
Total income of the company for all the years
= 234.5 + 208.6 + 216.2 + 274.4 + 332.0 + 265.6
= 1530.7 million
and total expenditure of the company for all the years
= 2084 + 193.6 + 197.0 + 202.8 + 265.6 +218.6 = 1286 million
So, net profit of the company during the period 2006-11
1530 .7−1286
= × 100
1286
244.7
= × 100 = 18.88 %
1286
106. (b) From the given graphs we have:

Platform 1 Platform 2 Platform 3 Total
Monday 13 28 17 58
Tuesday 9 11 23 43
Wednesday 11 17 7 35
Thursday 43 33 37 113
Friday 13 16 27 56
Saturday 31 12 14 57
Total 120 117 125 362
Total no. of trains having this station as the source = 0.35 × 120 = 42
Trains having other stations as a source = 120 – 42 = 78
Total no. of trains passing through platform 2 = 117
Hence, ratio = 78: 117 = 2:3
107. (d) From the given graphs we have:
Monday 13 28 17 58
Tuesday 9 11 23 43
Thursday 43 33 37 113
Friday 13 16 27 56
Total 120 117 125 362
Day Average no. of Trains passing through

trains platform 2
Monday 58/3 = 19.33 28
Tuesday 43/3 = 14.33 11
Wednesday 35/3 = 11.67 17
Thursday 113.3 = 37.67 33
Friday 56/3 = 18.67 16
Saturday 57/3 = 19 12
So, there are 4 days on which trains passing through platform 2 is less than average: Tuesday, Thursday, Friday &
Saturday
108. (c) From the given graphs we have:
Monday 13 28 17 58
Tuesday 9 11 23 43
Thursday 43 33 37 113
Friday 13 16 27 56
Total 120 117 125 362
Total trains passing through platform 3 = 125
Superfast trains = 125/5 = 25
Total trains passing through platform 1 = 120
Rajdhani trains = 0.15 ×120 = 18
1
Express trains = total trains – (superfast trains + Rajdhani trains) = 362 – 25 – 18 = 319
109. (c) From the given graphs we have:
Monday 13 28 17 58
Tuesday 9 11 23 43
Thursday 43 33 37 113
Friday 13 16 27 56
Total 120 117 125 362
If platform 2 is closed, 6 extra trains each will pass through platform 1 and 3.
Then no. of trains passing through platform 1 = 31 + 6 = 37
& no. of trains passing through platform 3 = 14 + 6 = 20
Hence, percent = (37- 20)/20 × 100 = 17/20 × 100 = 85%
110. (d) From the given graphs we have:
Monday 13 28 17 58
Tuesday 9 11 23 43
Thursday 43 33 37 113
Friday 13 16 27 56
Total 120 117 125 362
The correct order is Thursday > Monday > Saturday > Friday > Tuesday > Wednesday
111. (d) → No. of students cleared from commerce & other dept. → % of students not cleared = (4637/5484) *100 =
= [(72+67) /360]*847 = (139/360)* 847 = 327 84.55 % (ans)
→ No. of students cleared physics department 115. (d) 108 Days
= (42/360)* 847 = 99 Day A B
→ X= (327/99)* 100 Day 1 1∗ 30 450∗ 40
→ X= 330 % (ans) Day 2 5∗ 30 444∗ 40
112. (c) → Ratio = (Maths +Physics): (Chemistry + Commerce) Day 76 301∗ 30 0∗ 40
= (18+14): (11+23) = 32: 34 = 16:17 (ans) Total loss = 75/2(2*450+74*6)*40 = 684000
113. (a) English Department: Total profit must be greater than 684000
→ Appeared = (27/100) * 5484 = 1481 n/2(2*1+(n1)*4)*30 >684000
→ Cleared = (88/360)* 847=207 For n =108 above equation satisfies
→ Difference = (1485-207) = 1274 116. (c) (1+(n-1)*4)*30> (450+(n-1)*-6)*40
Maths Department: n>50.91
→ Appeared = (18/100) * 5484 = 987 n=51
→ Cleared = (60/360)* 847=141 117. (b) Day 23: Articles A sold : 89 then profit = 89*30 =2670
→ Difference = (987-141) = 846 Articles B sold: 318 loss = 318*40 = 12720
Physics Department: 118. (d) Difference in 2017 = 450 - 350 = 1008
→ Appeared = (14/100) * 5484 = 768 Difference in 2018 = 400 - 300 = 100
→ Cleared = (42/360)* 847=99 Difference in 2019 = 450 - 450 = 0
→ Difference = (768-99) = 669 Difference in 2020 = 450 - 300 = 150
Chemistry Department: Difference in 2021 = 500 - 350 = 150
→ Appeared = (11/100) * 5484 = 603 The difference was maximum in 2020 and 2021.
→ Cleared = (31/360)* 847= 73 Hence, option 4.
→ Difference = (603-73) = 530 (ans) 119. (d) Average per share value of PQR over the years = (500+
Commerce Department: 450 +500 +350 + 450)/5 = 450
→ Appeared = (23/100) * 5484 = 1261 Required percentage = (450 x 100)/400 - 100 = 12.5%
→ Cleared = (72/360)* 847= 169 Hence, option 4.
→ Difference = (1261-169) = 1092 120. (b) Average per share value of ABC in 2018, 2019 and 2020
Other Departments: = (300 + 450 + 450)/3 = 400
→ Appeared = (7/100) * 5484 = 384 Average per share value of PQR in 2017, 2018 and
→ Cleared = (67/360)* 847= 158 2019 = (500+ 450 + 500)/3 = 483.33
→ Difference = (384-158) =226 ∴ required difference = 483.33 - 400 = 83.33
114. (b) → No. of students not cleared= (5484 -847) = 4637 Hence, option 2.

1


Christ University Entrance Test 027ec8845a780

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Christ University Entrance Test 027ec8845a780

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Christ University Entrance Test 027ec8845a780

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

1

MBA WT (ANALYTICAL WRITING

@SuperGrads IPM Page 1 of 30

CHRIST UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE TEST

@SuperGrads IPM Page 2 of 30

@SuperGrads IPM Page 3 of 30

@SuperGrads IPM Page 4 of 30

@SuperGrads IPM Page 5 of 30

@SuperGrads IPM Page 6 of 30

@SuperGrads IPM Page 7 of 30

@SuperGrads IPM Page 8 of 30

67. Upper and lower radii of frustum of a cone are 7 cm

@SuperGrads IPM Page 10 of 30

@SuperGrads IPM Page 11 of 30

@SuperGrads IPM Page 12 of 30

@SuperGrads IPM Page 13 of 30

@SuperGrads IPM Page 14 of 30

Platform 1 Platform 2 Platform 3

@SuperGrads IPM Page 15 of 30

Total number of students cleared phase I of

@SuperGrads IPM Page 16 of 30

@SuperGrads IPM Page 17 of 30

ABC XYZ PQR

(a) 14.5% more (b) 12% less

@SuperGrads IPM Page 18 of 30

ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATIONS

@SuperGrads IPM Page 19 of 30

@SuperGrads IPM Page 20 of 30

Martin Cooper (born December 26, 1928, Chicago, 2b = z ........ (3)

@SuperGrads IPM Page 21 of 30

Hence, number is 749628 M.P of first article = 4k(1 + 25/100) = Rs 5k

@SuperGrads IPM Page 22 of 30

⇒ (34 × 13)/17 = w 6) The number of persons sitting between A and P is

6) The number of persons sitting between A and P is

@SuperGrads IPM Page 23 of 30

4) Two persons are sitting between Q and W.

4) Two persons are sitting between Q and W.

6) The number of persons sitting between A and P is

From the above arrangement, Q sits opposite to Z.

From the above arrangement, “P and Z” are the

80. (d) The given statements are,

@SuperGrads IPM Page 24 of 30

Hence, "CHANNELS" is coded as -- (8 x 8) - 2 = 64 - 2 = 62.

@SuperGrads IPM Page 26 of 30

102. (c) 1530 .7

@SuperGrads IPM Page 27 of 30

Expenditure for 2006

106. (b) From the given graphs we have:

Day Average no. of Trains passing through

@SuperGrads IPM Page 29 of 30

@SuperGrads IPM Page 30 of 30

You might also like