ADC WRITTEN EXAMINATION MARCH 2018

Paper 1 - 45 SBQ, 35 MCQ

Paper 1
TOOTH CONSERVATION, DENTAL CARIES, ENDODONTICS, PENTAL PULP, DENTAL MATERIALS

SBQ 1 discolored tooth (past paper)

Patient with discolored upper right central incisor. He remembers having a trauma when he was 15
years old due to sporting injury and had a lot of treatment done for that tooth.
Picture was given. OPG given
Question 1
Which would give you the maximum information that will help you to do treatment planning?
A. Pulp sensibility
B. Periapical xray
C. Percussion
D. OPG
Answer: B

Question 2
What is the most possible cause of discoloration before making any investigation?
A. Tetracycline stains
B. pulpal hemorrhage
C. discoloration of the restoration.
D. pulp necrosis
Answer: D

Question 3
If the tooth was endodontically treated, what would be the most likely cause
A. Incomplete debridement of pulp chamber.
B. Sealer paste left on the pulp chamber.
C. Remaining gutta percha in the pulp chamber.
Answer: B

Question 4
What is the best treatment for him
A. external bleaching
B. internal bleaching
C. change restoration
D. crown
Answer: B
Question 5
What is the risk of this treatment:
A. internal resorption
B. external resorption
Answer: B

SBQ 2
Post crown failing 11&21 (past paper & odell chapter 65)
A 45 year old lady presents with a loose crown on a front tooth. She had this post and core for last 10-15
years on clinical picture the 11 had sinus tract associated with it. 11 and 21 had crown. Gingival margin
is level for 11&21. Patient is having a pain.

Question 1
What investigation would help you with regards to the pathology that you can see on the picture.
(Clinical picture provided with sinus tract visible)
A. Periodontal probing
B. Check the fit of the tooth/crown
C. GP cone with periapical x ray
D. Check the vitality
E. Percussion
Ans: D

Question 2
what is the most likely diagnosis in relation to 11? (no other information, just based on clinical picture)
A. Vertical root fracture
B. Periodontal abscess
C. Improper coronal seal
D. Chronic periapical abscess
Ans: D

Then, while examining the crown filling fell out and then x ray was taken.
On radiograph:
11 had post with screw shape (self threaded post) with no coronal filling/crown visible on x ray (as it
was written in the question ), J shaped radiolucency , 21 had periapical radiolucency, smooth post
(cemented post), post and core tooth seen on OPG 25- -rct filling not visible

Question 3
What is the main problem if we want to save the tooth (in the paper didn’t mention which tooth, but
because it mention “save” so this refer to tooth 11)
A. Not enough ferrule
B. Vertical root fracture
Ans : B

Question 4
what is the main problem for retreatment of the teeth (again the paper didn’t mention which tooth, but
because it mentioned “retreatment” so this refer to tooh 21)
A. Insufficient ferrule
B. Financial condition of the pt
Ans :A

Question 5
Picture: after removal of both post , root visible from gingiva and at level of gingiva, gingival margin is
even, not enough ferrule
If want to retreatment what is the consideration (this refer to tooth 21):
A. Ortho extrusion and surgical lengthening
B. apical positioned flap / surgical lengthening only
C. Exo
Ans: A

Question 6
You decided to extract the teeth, Which treatment option difficult to achieve if pt want to re create
diastema as it was in her natural dentition
A. Implant
B. Fixed partial denture
C. Adhesive bridge
D. Rpd/ Cr-co denture
E. Cantilever bridge

Question 7
Best long term replacement given the prognosis of the tooth.(refer to tooth 11 because of poor
prognosis)
A. Implants
B. Fpd
C. Rpd
D. Resin retained bridge

Question 8
the least reason of mobility of post core in tooth
A. Horizontal fracture
B. Decemented
C. Endo failure because of short obturation
D. Post is less than half the length of root
SBQ 3 Endo case
A lady come to you Friday night, she will attend a wedding on Sunday. She’s on severe pain which
prevents her sleeping and the closest big city is 400 km away . She is diagnosed with irreversible pulpitis
on 27. The lady is refusing rubber dam. Patient has already taken analgesic but it is not working.
Question 1
What treatment would you do for her?
A. Proceed with the endodontic treatment without rubber dam.
B. Refer her to endo specialist
C. Extraction
D. Ask her to take stronger pain killers
E. Refuse to do treatment
Ans: A

Question 2
What are the chances of finding 2 canals in mesiobuccal root of upper second molar tooth:
A. 80%
B. 50%
C. 20%
D. 40%
E. 99%
Ans: D (Walton 38%)

Question 3
On clinical picture: a second molar tooth that had been done access opening
for RCT treatment, and at the pulp chamber is nearly obliterated and very
small visible just one canal.

The picture is similar to this,but not a PFM, only 1 canal can be seen and the
shape of access cavity is not proper. No other explanation and it’s not the
tooth of the patient because in question 4, they gave IOPA and there’s no
calcification on the canals or pulp chamber.
They was asking about success rate of this RCT ?
A. Poor
B. Fair
C. Good
D. Very good
E. Excellent
And: A

Question 4
IOPA was given, the palatal root is curved, maybe near sinus
Which root would be expected to have 2 canals?
A. Mesio buccal root mostly has two canals.
B. disto buccal root has two canals.
C. two canals are found in palatal root

SBQ 4 Handbook question

A 64-year-old patient who is receiving warfarin as part of the management of his atrial fibrillation tells
you that one of his lower right back teeth was restored three years ago by a dentist who has since
retired from your practice. The tooth is now occasionally sensitive to hot and cold. The clinical notes
confirm the history and indicate that the tooth was restored using a resin composite material. Periapical
radiograph is attached as on handbook.

Question 1
In addition to testing the pulp vitality with either cold or an electric pulp tester, which
of the following clinical tests or procedures would be the most appropriate to assist in
making a diagnosis?
A. Orthopantomogram
B. Bite-wing radiograph
C. Percussion
D. Crack testing
E. INR

Question 2
In case like this Class II composite restorations of posterior teeth are more likely to
fail due to recurrent caries if
A. the material is placed in increments because of the risk of leakage between the increments.
B. a glass-ionomer lining is used because of the risk that the lining will leach out over time.
C. occlusal loads are applied to the marginal ridge due to flexure of the material.
D. the curing time is extended due to greater shrinkage of the material.
E. the gingival margin is on dentine because bonding under these conditions is unpredictable.

Question 3
Given the history and the radiographic evidence, would you expect the “sensitivity” to hot and cold that
the patient reports to be
A. sharp, occurring once or twice per week and only with ice-cream and hot coffee.
B. sharp and relieved on removal of the hot or cold stimulus.
C. dull and lingering for 1-2 minutes.
D. always present but worse after a hot or cold stimulus.
E. worse in the morning

Question 4
If you decided to extract the tooth and in planning for the procedure you find that that the patient’s INR
is 2.4, would you:
A. Proceed with the extraction and provide appropriate post-operative instructions.
B. Proceed with the extraction and suggest that the patient stop their warfarin for 3 days
C. Suggest that the patient stop their warfarin and commence taking 125 mg aspirin before
returning in 3 days to have the tooth removed.
D. Consult the patient’s cardiologist to discuss stopping their warfarin treatment.
E. Refer to patient to a consultant Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeon who is best placed to manage
complex surgical problems such as this.

Question 5
After removal of the 46, which of the following prosthodontic options would be most appropriate?
A. Immediate placement and immediate restoration with a dental implant.
B. Replacement with an immediate removable partial denture.
C. Replacement with a removable partial denture after the extraction site has healed.
D. Replacement with a fixed bridge.
E. No replacement until the patient has had an opportunity to assess their functional and aesthetic
concerns.

SBQ 5 Amalgam filling and naturopath (past papers, exactly the same)
Woman patient 40 years old lost an amalgam filling on upper right side. The tooth is vital.
Picture of Upper Right-side teeth:
• 16: only disto-palatal and disto-buccal cusps left, dark area of dentin on mesial-occlusal-facial palatal
surfaces.
• 14: MOD.
• 15: MOD.
• 17: MO amalgam fillings.
• Margins of fillings on premolars looked ditched, and fillings have overextended the margins. Patient
got 12 more amalgams in good condition, recently consulted a naturopath, is allergic to nickel, wants to
remove all the amalgam restorations.) case about a lady whose naturopath told her to replace 12
amalgam fillings. She uses st john’s wort (hypericum klamath goat weed) 1g per day for treatment of
stomach upset. Patient got a white patch with a spider web shape on the mucosa next to the premolars,
it can’t be wiped away, it is asymptomatic.

Question 1
Why the patient was sensitive to cold (What is the probable diagnosis)?
A. Dentine exposure
B. Reversible Pulpitis.
C. Irreversible Pulpitis.
D. Pulpal necrosis.

Question 2. The cause of the filling on 16 to be lost:

A. secondary caries.
B. non-retentive cavity.
C. Occlusal forces.
D. Vertical fracture of the crown.
E. Corrosion

Question 3 What will you advise her regarding the amalgam fillings?
A. Report to the mercury & dental amalgam at the NHMRC
B. Replace all the restorations
C. Explain that the level of mercury is not high enough to cause toxicity.
D. manage by referring to NHMRC

Question 4
Photo attached of the buccal mucosa along occlusal plane, diagnosis is:

A. Lichen planus
B. Lichenoid reaction
C. Frictional Keratosis (near the bite line)
D. Lichenoid Frictional keratosis

Question 5
Patient is taking warfarin for repaired septal defect, the defect was repaired three years back and its
normal now, patient GP has prescribed her Pradaxa(dabigatran). What would you do initially before
proceeding with her treatment plan (extraction).
A. Give antibiotic prophylaxis and treat endodontically
B. Monitor her INR
C. Give ABP, change Pradaxa, send her to cardiologist
D. Send her to GP, stop pradaxa, test liver function

Question 6.
What is the reason for such restoration margins on premolars?

A. creep
B. Corrosion
C. Ditching

Question 7
What treatment would you do for her?
A. Remove all the amalgam restorations
B. Refuse her any treatment
C. Remove only 17 which is leading to the lesion
D. Send her to GP

Question 8
What will you advise her about filling?
A. Composite will not last as long as amalgam
B. Lesion has to resolve first
C. Should replace all amalgam
D. Amalgam longevity is similar to composite.

SBQ 6 young man with reversible pulpitis and consuming sports drink (past paper)
James 17 years old, who is a cyclist and drinks a lot of sports drink presents for routine check-up. X-ray
was given. There was caries on 47 (occlusal). It is extending into dentin just 1-2 mm away from pulp.
Intraoral picture was given, which had a stained pit 1mm on occlusal surface of 47. The patient did not
have any symptoms now.
Question 1.
What is the management?
CPP-ACP (they have written the right substance, but they used CCP-ACP)
A. Diagnose as dental caries and do an exploratory cavity preparation
B. Deep fissure sealing with fluoride releasing material in all teeth
C. Tell the patient don’t need to do anything and come back in 6 months for review.
D. Tell the patient don’t need to do anything and come back in 1 year.
Question 2
The patient missed your appointment and reports a few weeks later with pain on eating hot or cold food
which disappears after removal of stimulus. You make a provisional diagnosis of reversible pulpitis.
What is your management now?
A. Place a sedative dressing now and a definite restoration later.
B. Refer to an endodontist.
C. Pulp extirpation and dry cotton pellets.
D. Place a definitive restoration.

Question 3
The patient missed appointment again and presents a few weeks later with spontaneous pain from the
tooth. You make a provisional diagnosis of irreversible pulpitis. Before making treatment plan, what
should you do?
A. Refer to specialist endodontist
B. do the emergency extirpation.
C. Extraction
D. OPG to find the erupting 3rd molar (question also says before giving definitive treatment. So we
should make sure it’s the pain not from 3rd molar???

Question 4
The patient drinks sports juices often and takes dry fruits to keep him energetic so that he can perform
well. The patient is at risk for caries, generalized sensitivity. What will you advise the patient?
A. To carry juices with the sport drink and alternate both and substitute dry fruits with banana and
muesli bar/snack
B. Stop sports drinks
C. Drink plenty of fluids during training
D. Advise to use a fluoride mouthwash before and after the race/training

SBQ 7 Hypoplasia case, picture exactly the same as shown below (past paper)

13 year old boy. Hasn't been to a dentist since 5 yrs. Conscious about discoloration of teeth. Photo
shows enamel hypoplasia in central incisors, lateral incisors, canines, both maxillary and mandibular.

Question 1
What is the condition?
A. Enamel Hypoplasia
B. Enamel hyperplasia
C. Enamel hypomineralisation
D. Enamel hypomineralization
E. Amelogenesis imperfecta.
Answer: A.

Question 2
What is the cause?
A. Systemic factors
B. Local factors
C. Genetic factors
D. Maternal infection during pregnancy
Answer: A.

Question 3
At which age did the defect occurred?
A. At birth
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 3 years
E. 6 years.
Answer: C.

Question 4
Treatment plan for this condition?
A. Porcelain veneers
B. Composite veneers
C. Bleaching (was this option gvn)
D. Microabrasion with remineralisation.
E. GIC veneers
Answer: B.

Question 5
Who will give consent if the treatment plan is executed
A. parent only
B. parent and child
C. child only

SBQ 8 erosion case (there are 2 different erosion cases, one in paper 1 and one in paper 4) (past paper)
53 years old have upper complete denture and in the mandible have 35 to 45. There are composite
filling good in appearance on 45 and 44. He has going through the recent divorce and has been
prescribed SSRIs for stress control. He works in a quarry and drinks cola-wine and chew gums in breaks
and smokes 20 cigarettes a day. He has not been to the dentist in past 3 years and only wants to visit
when there is a problem. He has mild sensitivity on 45 and 44. You complete the clinical examination
and find hard dentin and saucer shaped defects on the occlusal surface of lower anterior.

Question 1
What does this appearance suggest?
A. Extrinsic erosion
B. Intrinsic erosion
C. Attrition
D. Abfraction
E. Abrasion

Question 2
You decide to perform some treatment on the given teeth but will need
local anaesthesia with adrenaline. Does the patient’s current medication
allows this
A. No, SSRI is not contraindicated with adrenaline
B. Yes, SSRI is contraindicated with adrenaline
C. There is no contraindication to the local anaesthetic with adrenaline

Question 3
The appearance of incisal surface of lower anterior suggest:
A. Calcification of pulp
B. Staining caused by cola
C. Caries
D. Pulp exposure

Question 4
The reason for gingival enlargement around 44 and 45 is
A. Use of serotonin inhibitor
B. Locally due to plaque
C. Due to gum chewing
D. Traumatic from occlusion

Question 5
Smoking causes:
A. Dilation of blood vessels and periodontium
B. Constriction of blood vessels and periodontium
C. Hyperkeratosis
D. Increase resistance to the immune response
E. Dilates blood vessels
F. Masks periodontal disease by less bleeding
SBQ 9
Question 41
Question 42
Question 43
Question 44
Question 45

MCQ
Question 46
Which material least irritates the periapical tissue
A. Sodium hypochlorite
B. Sealer
C. Gutta percha
D. Silver cone
E. Pulp debris

Question 47
After obturation and on x-ray, you notice the sealer (not GP) is extruded 1 mm beyond apex
A. Leave is as it is
B. Refill the canal
C. Pull the GP cone about 1 mm out and take new x-ray

Question 48
the pulp horn most likely to be exposed in the preparation of large cavity in permanent molar tooth is
A. Mesio–Lingual
B. Mesio–Buccal in upper first molars
C. Disto–buccal in lower first molars
D. Mesio–Lingual in lower first molars-
E. Mesio- Buccal in lower first molar

Question 49
the caries is depend on which of following amount to grow and continue
A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Sucrose
D. Amylopectin
E. Dextrans

Question 50
Nerve fibres responsible for thermal testing?
A. c fibre
B. a beta fibres,
C. A delta fibre
D. c and A beta fibre
E. I don’t remember
Dr.karim

Question 51
How the pin system restoration can affect on the tooth? which is the most detrimental
A. Weakened the dentin of tooth
B. risk of accidental pulp exposure.
C. risk of damaging periodontal fiber.
D. weakening of restoration.
E.

Question 52
1st molar had big cavity preparation with deep cavity to pulp chamber, what material or how to restore
this teeth?
A. thin layer calcium hydroxide + gic + amalgam
B. thick layer calcium hydroxide + gic + amalgam
C. 3 pin +gic+ amalgam
D. calcium hydroxide or(zinc oxide eugenol) + composite resin.
E. root canal treatment followed by full coverage crown.

Question 53
What is the pulpotomy success rate depends on?
A. Young tooth better than mature tooth.
B. Mature tooth better than young tooth.
C.
D.

Question 54
Patient severe pain & swelling RCT done, obturation lack of 4mm, large radiolucent on the apex .
Abscess with post & crown, crown is still acceptable what is the immediate management (or maybe just
treatment)
A. Remove crown and try to remove post and refill the canal
B. Retrograde filling and antibiotics
C. Incision & drainage then give antibiotics & analgesics
D. Extraction and antibiotics and analgesics

Question 55
Which pin system has proven to be the most retentive
A. Self tapping threaded pin
B. Friction peak pin
C. Cemented pin

Question 56
What cells are NOT found in Human pulp?
A. Plasma cells.
B. Fat cells.
C. Fibrocytes.
D. Histiocytes

Question 57
Which of the following microorganisms are most frequently found in infected root canals? or root
caries?
A. Actinomycetes. (which is right answer)
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Lactobacilli.
D. Enterococci.
E. Staphylococcus albus.
Answer: D.

Question 58
The narrowest part of root canal:
A. Cementodentinal junction.
B. Middle third.
C. Coronal third.

Question 59
Following root canal therapy, the most desirable form of tissue response at the apical foramen is
A. cementum deposition.
B. connective tissue capsule formation.
C. epithelium proliferation from the periodontal ligament.
D. dentin deposition.
Answer: A

Question 60
The radiographic appearance of internal resorption is: (options are different, anyone can recall?)
A. radiolucent enlargement of the pulp cavity.
B. radiolucency around the apex of the root.
C. radiolucency on the surfaces of the root.
D. localized radiopacities in the pulp cavity.
E. radiopacity around the apex of the root.
Answer: A

Question 61
What is true regarding internal root resorption?
A. It can seen in necrotic pulp
B. Can seen in tooth that had calcium hydroxide treatment
C. Due to tooth trauma
D. ..

Question 62
Primary goal in endodontic treatment:
A. Complete debridement.
B. Complete apical seal.
C. Proper coronal seal.
Answer: A

Question 63
8 years old patient avulsed tooth about 25 min ago, presented to dental office and replaced successfully
and what u do next?
A. Wait and observe.
B. RCT.
C. Apexogenesis.
D. Splitting the tooth
Answer: A.

Question 64
Which of the following is true in relation to dental decay?
A. Foods that require vigorous mastication will increase salivary flow and reduce PH
B. Tooth brushing immediately after meals is most effective because demineralisation has already
started
C. Food that encourage the mastication will increase the number of lymphocytes in saliva and thus
reduce decay
D. Vigorous mastication will increase plaque PH and lead to reduce of decays
E. The Stephan Curve describes an increase in PH during a meal with resultant of demineralisation

Question 65
Following the removal of a vital pulp,the root canal is medicated and sealed. The patient returns with
apical periodontitis. The most common cause is:
A. Overinstrumentation.
B. Lateral perforation.
C. Incorrect medication.
D. Pulp tissue left in the root canal.
E. Infection.
Answer: A

Question 66
Common cause of microleakage in composite resin:
A. Shrinkage during setting
B. Due to saliva pellicle growth

Question 67
The main advantage of microfilled composite:
A. High thermal conductivity & high crushing strength
B. Low thermal conductivity & low crushing strength
C. High thermal conductivity & low crushing strength
D. Low thermal conductivity & high crushing strength

Question 68
Child age 8 years old 23 kg need to filling 65 and 75 and 55 and 85 and patient nervous and what to
travel to parties what types of local anesthesia
A. 6.6ml prilocaine 3%
B. 6.6 lignocaine 2%
C. 6.6 ml articaine with adrenaline
D. 6.6 ml lignocaine 2% with adrenaline 1:100000

Question 69
Internal resorption is,
A. Radiolucency over unaltered canal
B. Usually in a response to trauma
C. Radiopacity over unaltered canal

Question 70

After looking at IOPA which anatomical structure will appear to cast radiopaque shadow on apical region
of maxillary molars
A. coronoid process
B. Zygomatic buttress/zygoma
C. Mylohyoid ridge
D. hamular notch

Question 71
Tooth Eruption sequence of maxillary arch - Mixed Dentition - (some primary tooth mentioned) -
followed by 612435 - 5 options
Question 72
What is the Most commonly congenitally missing permanent teeth?
A. Mandibular laterals
B. Maxillary centrals
C. Maxillary laterals
D. Mandibular centrals
E. Mandibular second premolars

Question 73
In regard to the enamel surface:
A. It is a perfect substance for bonding
B. It does not conform to the bonding requirements (that’s why we need for itching and bonding )
C. It is the most inorganic, rough part
D. It is free from contamination and roughness
E. None of the above

Question 74
Bacterial culture for infected root canals:
A. Not needed as effective mechanical debridement is always enough.
B. Not needed as intracanal medicaments are enough.
C. Is always needed.
D. Is sometimes needed.

Question 75
Dental caries in primary teeth in proximal surface starts mostly:
A. Gingival to contact area.
B. Occlusal to contact area.
C. At the marginal ridge.
D.

Question 76
The high copper amalgam differs from low copper amalgam that the high copper amalgam is:
A. High corrosion resistance.
B. Lower strength.
C. They are the same.
D. It contains high tin phase.

Question 77
The objective of pulpotomy:
A. Preserve the radicular pulp.
B. Preserve the coronal pulp.
C. Preserve the entire pulp.

Question 78
The proximal caries in permanent teeth initially starts:
A. Gingival to the contact area.
B. Occlusal to contact area.
C. No specific area.

Question 79
The pits and fissure caries start:
A. At the walls of the fissure.
B. At the floor of the fissure.
C.

Question 80
To achieve a retentive form of restoration in premolars:
A. Buccal and lingual undercut preparation.
B. Mesial and distal undercut preparation.
C. Occlusal dovetail.
D. Axial grooves.

Question 81
Reaction of pulp to dental caries is by:
A. Formation of reparative dentin
B. Formation of primary dentin
C. Pulp polyp.
Answer: A.
We didn’t have this q

The reason for sensitivity after preparation?

A. Thermal influence.
B. Chemical influence.
C. Mechanical influence.
Answer: C.
We didn’t have this q to

17. Which primary teeth are least affected with the nursing bottle caries?
A. Maxillary molars
B. Maxillary and mandibular canine
C. Mandibular incisors
D. Maxillary incisors
E. Mandibular molars
Ans : C

Part of SBQ : Question about open contact after filling of class II filling
A. Not use a matrix band
B. put wedge more gingivally
C. Put wedge more Occlusally
D. using sectional matrix
E. using tofflemyer matrix

In regard to the glass of quartz particles of filling restorative resin; the microfill resins tend to have
A. A higher coefficient of thermal expansion and a higher crashing strength
B. A lower coefficient of thermal expansion and a higher crashing strength
C. A lower coefficient of thermal expansion and a lower crashing strength

Dental caries of the proximal surfaces usually starts at:

A. Somewhere between the ridge and the contact area
B. Just gingival to the contact areas
C. Just above the gingival margin
D. At the contact point
E. Occlusal to the contact point

The objective of pulp capping is to

A. Preserve vitality of coronal pulp
B. Preserve vitality of entire pulp
C. Preserve vitality of radicular pulp
D. Regenerate a degenerated and necrotic pulp E. None of the above

Q4. The patient drinks sports juices often and takes dry fruits to keep him energetic so that he can
perform well. The patient is at risk for caries, generalised sensitivity. What PREVENTIVE advice will you
give the patient?
A. To carry water with the sport drink and alternate both and substitute dry fruits with banana and
muesli bar/snack
B. Drink more fluids
C. toothbrush his teeth twice daily with fluoridated toothpaste
D. Advise to use a fluoride mouthwash before and after the snacks during race/training

Which Pulp fibers responds to the thermal stimulation:

A. Afferent and sympathetic
B. A delta fibres + C fibers
C. C fibres
D. A delta+ B fibers

SBQ-

56. Woman patient 40 years old lost an amalgam filling on upper right side. The tooth is vital. Picture of
Upper Right side teeth:
• 16: only disto-palatal and disto-buccal cusps left, dark area of dentin on mesial-occlusal- facialpalatal
surfaces.
• 14: MOD.
• 15: MOD.
• 17: MO amalgam fillings.
• Margins of fillings on premolars looked ditched, and fillings have overextended the margins. Patient
got 12 more amalgams in good condition, recently consulted a naturopath, is allergic to nickel, wants to
remove all the amalgam restorations. Patient got a white patch with a spider web shape on the mucosa
next to the premolars, it can’t be wiped away, it is asymptomatic.
I. Why the patient was sensitive to cold (What is the probable diagnosis)?
A. Dentine exposure. Cause not diagnosis
B. Reversible Pulpitis.
C. Irreversible Pulpitis.
D. Pulpal necrosis.

What sensitivity test would you perform:

A. Electric pulp test
B. Cold test
C. Warm water test

How many canals are present in MB root of the 26:

A. 2 canal one foramina
B. 2 canal 2 foramina
C. 1 canal 1 foramina

II. The cause of the filling on 16 to be lost:

A. secondary caries.
B. non-retentive cavity.
C. Occlusal forces.
D. Vertical fracture of the crown.
E. Corrosion
III What will you advise her?No correct answer ,Replace amalgam casuing problem, and refer for
NHMRC
A. Report to the mercury & dental amalgam at the NHMRC
B. Replace all the restorations
C. Explain that the level of mercury is not high enough to cause toxicity.
D. Change just the failing amalgams

IV Photo attached of the buccal mucosa along occlusal plane, diagnosis is:
A. Lichen planus
B. Lichenoid reaction
C. Frictional Keratosis (near the bite line)
D. Lichenoid Frictional keratosis

V. A temporary restoration was given, and the patient is asymptomatic now. What is the choice of
restoration?
A. amalgam filling with 3 pins for better retention.
B. composite resin.
C. GIC.
D. post + core + crown. E. core GIC + crown.

VI. Why amalgam fillings on premolars have such margins?

A. thermal expansion of amalgam.
B. Creep.
C. Corrosion.
D. Marginal breakdown/ leakage. E. Enamel wear off.

ADC WRITTEN EXAMINATION MARCH 2018

Paper 2
FIXED PROSTHO, REMOVABLE PROSTHO, IMPLANTOLOGY
50 SBQ, 30 MCQ

SBQ 1 bridge with fracture porcelain layer

A 55-year-old man has a four unit bridge in upper anteriors that is 11,12,21,22. The 21 has chipped
porcelain and the metal was seen (same as 401 PAST PAPERS but different options)
Question 1
What is the reason for chipped porcelain?
A. Improper framework
B. Bridge put in hyperocclusion
C. Thin porcelain
D. Hard biting in teeth.

Question 2
Name of this defect is:
A. adhesion defect.
B. cohesion defect.
C. adhesion, cohesion defect.

Question 3
Patient has important conference or meeting today. How will u repair it chair side?
A. Etch with 4% hydrofluoric acid for 5 min and restore with composite
B. CAD/CAM porcelain veneer to cover the defect
C. Composite resin with 37% orthophosphoric acid for 1 minute
D. With AFP gel 2.5% for 20 sec

Question 4
What will you consider while making a new restoration/ how will you prevent this in future?
A. Make group function occlusion.
B. Use splint at night
C. Anterior tooth preparation in favourable occlusion.

Question 5
What is the main problem to provide bridge to patient in future?
A. Uneven Gingival margins on abutments and pontics.
B. Grind incisal edge of 11.
C. Extract and place implant.

SBQ 2 about failure of dentures

s you are busy dentist your clinic is at rural side and 4 hr away from big city, every day u have 1 hr to see
and treat patients with denture defects

Question 6
Mr Baker comes with broken denture from middle, mr Baker had immediate denture 4 years ago and
the last 2 years had many times fractures in his denture and treatment had been done, what’s your
management?
A. fix the fracture with wire
B. fix the fracture with a metal mesh
C. reline the denture
D. advice patient to make a new one

Question 7
The 2nd case broken clasp, as the broken part is sharp, what to do?
A. take an impression with the denture in the mouth and Add a wrought wire clasp
u can’t fix the broken part and made new one
B. Laser weld it
C. Make a new metal denture
D. tell the patient the repair is not required

Question 8
Don’t have facility to pour impression, need to send to lab.and the nearest city is away from your clinic 4
hr , What is the best impression material ?
A. Pvs
B. Irreversible hydrocolloid
C. polyether

Question 9
Patient comes to your clinic with loose denture which needs a reline, what will you tell the patient
before you carry out the procedure?
A. It may increase the VDO by 2 mm

Question 10
A patient with complete dentures complains of clicking. The most common causes are
A. reduced vertical dimension and improperly balanced occlusion.
B. excessive vertical dimension and poor retention.
C. use of too large a posterior tooth and too little horizontal overlap.
D. improper relation of teeth to the ridge and excessive anterior vertical overlap.

SBQ 3 with case persistence of 75&85

Question 11
Q) the lower posterior teeth had been submerged, what’s the reason?
A. agenesis of second premolars
B. ectopic eruption of teeth

Question 12
Mr.john 80yrs old with gagging related to complete denture inserted two months ago,what is your initial
treatment?
A. Increase VDO
B. Reline the posterior area
C. Adjust retention and peripheral seal and give anti emetics
Question 13
In cementing maryland and roche bridges the effect is generally to…….
A. lighter the colour of the teeth by the opacity of the cement
B. Darken the colour of the abutment by the presence of metal on the lingual
C. have no detrimental colour effect

Question 14

Question 15

SBQ 4 pt that has reaction to impression material

Question 16
Pt had sensitivity to imp material, which is the most material will affect on this pt
A. zn oxide eganol
B. Plaster
C. Hydrocoloed

SBQ 5 pt with early Parkinson

Patient (80 years old) had undergone hip joint surgery recently. She had got most of her teeth
extracted since the age of 20 she had been wearing denture for last 60 years, was comfortable with it.
Now she got new denture done last 12months ago but not finding it comfortable as the upper denture
becomes lose and falls off. She was suffering from Parkinson’s disease which was diagnosed
12months ago. The only teeth present are lower anteriors and canines as shown in photo.
Question 21
Looking at the photo you can see a red elevated dot on the upper ridge in the midline region what is it?
A. Incisive papilla.
B. Abscess.
C. Root fragment.
D. Insertion of labial frenum.
(It was fovia palatene and not incisive papilla)

Answer: A.

Question 22
Reason for denture to become loose.
A. Involuntary muscles due to Parkinson.
B. Canine interference during lateral movements.
C. Increase VDO.
D. Improper palatal anatomy.
E. Due to Decrease saliva.
Answer: B.
Question 23
What is the difficulty during construction of lower RPD:
A. High occlusal level of lower ant teeth.
B. Inadequate space for the tongue.
C. Adjust occlusal plane according to retromolar.area and new vdo.
D. Deep buccal notch / frenum.
Answer: A.

Question 24
Before the procedure? (Patient had undergone hip replacement, what will you do before performing the
procedure/extraction)
A. No prophylaxis required
B. Refer to Orthopedic to consult regarding prophylaxis
C. (antibiotic dosage given)
Answer: A.

Question 25
What will be the difficulty in making new denture?
A. Recording jaw relation

SBQ 6 Full denture with vertical dimension too high

An old patient has pain under his full upper and lower dentures. The pain increases when he wears them
during the day and stops immediately after removing the dentures. His doctor thinks it is due to mental
nerve compression by lower denture and refers to you for the second opinion.

Question 26
What investigations will you perform other than checking denture borders?
A. occlusal prematurities.
B. soft tissues under denture.
C. assess vertical dimension.
D. retention of the denture.
E. palpation of muscles

Question 27
What is the clinical symptoms of mental nerve compression by the denture borders?
A. Lower lip numbness.
B. Pain.
C. Chin and lower lip numbness.
D. Pain in the floor of the mouth not crossing the midline
SBQ 7
A male patient comes to you complaining his lower teeth are loose and painful. Upper edentulous, lower
canine to canine present (or premolar to premolar). Lower incisors have grade 3 mobility. You agreed on
extraction and replacement with immediate denture.
Question 31
Forgot the first question but not this one
What test or procedure will help you in diagnosis?
A. Vitality
B. Percussion
C. Transillumination
Answer: A (no so sure because there is no point to do vitality for tooth with grade 3 moblity, sure there
is something missing)

Question 32
You decide to give immediate denture, what material will you recommend to the patient?
A. Acrylic
B. Cobalt chromium
Answer: A.

Question 33
If you decide to give acrylic denture, what is the advantage of acrylic over cobalt chromium?
A. Can add teeth in future

Question 34
What impression material will you use for final impression?
A. Alginate
B. ZnO Eugenol
C. PVS
D. Polyether
E. Impression plaster
Answer: A.

Question 35
After giving the denture, what instructions will you give to the patient?
A. You will need a new denture or relining will be required
B. Nothing, denture will be best for life
C. Denture will help in healing the socket
Answer: A.

SBQ 8 hyperplasia of tissue caused by buccal flanges of prosthesis

 MCQ
Question 51
Which is TRUE in regard to the preparation of occlusal rests
A. Use a flat fissure bur
B. canted from occlusal to margin (forgot the exact word but what i get was the occlusal is higher
than the margin)
C. Parallel to occlusal plane
D. At right angle to the long axis of tooth
E. occlusal force will be directed to apex of tooth

Question 52
Cement solubility in increasing matter
A. resin> GI> phosphate> carboxilate

Question 53
Question about undercut gauge

Question 54
Another question about undercut and undercut gauge
Maybe this:
In the construction of partial denture the surveyor is not used to:
A. Contour the wax as part of the fabrication of the working cast.
B. Locate the guide planes.
C. Determine the location of indirect retainers.
D. Identify any undesirable undercuts.

Question 55
Resin bonded bridges loose retention between:
A. resin-enamel.
B. resin-metal.
C. within resin.
Answer: A.

Question 56
Definition of osseointegration
A. the direct structural and functional connection between living bone and the surface of a load-
bearing artificial implant only radiographically
B. Direct contact of bone and implant radiographically and electron microscope
C. Fibrous connection between bone and implant
D.
E.
Question 57
Better retention of resin-bonded bridge: forgot the options
A. nickel-chromium.
B. Beryllium.

Question 58
What is the consideration of choosing lingual bar?
Maybe this
What determines the limits of the inferior border of the lingual component of an RPD (lower
RPD major connector)?
A. Elevation of anterior floor of the mouth.
B. Space of the tongue.
C. Sub Mandibular duct opening.
D. Anterior crowding.
E. Whether lingual plate or lingual bar is used.
(There’s an option missing, the border of mylohyoid ridge. Which is the right answer)

Question 59
Which of the following will preserve the gingiva after receiving a crown?
A. Good oral hygiene
B. Slight over contouring the crown
C. Slight under contouring the crown
D. 1mm below the gingival margin
E. Normal contour or accurate reproduction of tooth form in the gingival 1/3rd of the crown

Question 60
Pt cannot pronounce S
A. Diastema between anterior tooth
B.

Question 61
Pt with full denture and biting the check, what would you do

Question 62
If patient with full denture biting on cheeck, which surface need to be trim?
(I can remember my answer which was tricky and most reliable. It was: reduce maxillary occlusal fosa or
mandible can’t remember)

Question 63
The freeway space:
A. Can be measured accurately in dentulous patients.
B. Sets to 2-4mm in the edentulous patient.
C. Is OVD minus VD at rest.
Question 64
Regarding requirement for casting plaster (not sure)
Heat
Expand
shrink?

Question 65
Following the insertion of complete dentures, a generalized soreness over the entire mandibular
alveolar ridge can be caused by:
A. Inadequate interocclusal distance.
B. impingement on the buccal frenum.
C. high muscle attachments.
D. excess border thickness.

Question 66
Which impression material is the best when more than one cast is to be poured?
A. Condensation silicones.
B. Polysulfide.
C. Polyether.
D. Additional silicones.

Question 67
What is true about partial dentures?
A. They cause immediate changes in the oral plaque behavior.
B. Night wearing of dentures reduces plaque accumulation.
C. Relieving the gingival area reduces the gingival enlargement.

Question 68
Tripod marking in surveyor is used to:
A. Remount the cast on d articulator.
B. Re orient the cast on surveyor.
C.
D.

Question 69
Crown fits on the die, but on the tooth, there is a discrepancy of about 0.3mm, what will you do??
A. Relieve cast from the inside.
B. Take a new impression and make new crown.
C. Burnish margins.
D. Use thick mix of cement.
E. Grind the interior of the crown.
F. Prepare the tooth further.
Question 70
Maybe: What is important in determining the terminal hinge axis?
A. Kinematic face bow.
B. Wax bite registry.
C. Working casts in dye stone.

Question 71
Advantage of overdenture, except:
A. Increase masticatory force.
B. Increase d retention, stability and support.
C. increased alveolar bone resorption.
D. caries and periodontal problem

Question 72

Question 73
For two 3.5 mm implants to be placed, a__mm of space is required
A. 10 m
B. 18 mm
C. 8 mm
D. 14 mm
E. 13 mm

Question 74
Maryland bridge is made up of which material
A. nickel chrome
B. beryllium
C. gold?
D. resin

Part of SBQ:
Patient with only implant fixture of 47, 48 already tipped
What will be the problem?

X-ray with implant, no bone loss, probing 4 mm on mesial and 6mm on distal, no mobility, inflammation
on gingiva
1. What is the condition
A. Periimplantitis
B. Implantmucositis

In cementing Maryland or Roche bridges, the effect is generally to,

A. Lighten the color of the teeth by the opacity of the cement
B. Darken the color of the abutment by the presence of metal on the lingual
C. Have no detrimental color effect.
D. Darken the abutment teeth by incisal metal coverage

SBQ- Patient has been treated with post crown 5 years back on maxillary right central incisor. Now it has
become loose

Q1. What investigation will help

A. Vitality
B. Probing
C. Percussion
D. OPG

Q2. What could be the cause of dislodgement of the post core that has least favorable prognosis
A. Vertical root fracture
B. Internal resorption
C. Luting cement issue

Q3. How will you treat this patient?

A. Crown lengthening
B. Crown lengthening and orthodontic extrusion
C. Better post fabrication
D. Extraction
E. Gingivoplasty

Q4. What is the significant problem in replacing the post core

A. Insufficient ferrule
B. Retention
C. Absence of seal

Q5. If this tooth is extracted, what is best method of restoration which is long lasting
A. Implant
B. Fixed bridge
C. Cantilever bridge
D. RPD

SBQ- The patient with fracture porcelain

A male patient presented with a chipped porcelain 3-unit PFM bridge. It was made by another dentist
who moved interstate. Edge to edge bite is clearly seen. 3-unit bridge, porcelain chipped off in the
region of 11, 12. He has a meeting today and needs it to be fixed urgently.

Q1. What is the most probable main cause for this defect in bridge
A. Improper framework
B. Hyperocclusion- Unfavourable bite (resulting in chipping)
C. Bridge design
D. Hard biting
E. Thin porcelain

Q2. What is the name of this defect

A. Adhesion cohesion defect
B. Adhesion
C. Cohesion
D. Wrote adhesion

Q3. If you want to repair the fractured porcelain in the chair, what you will do
A. CAD/CAM or similar option
B. Etching with 4% hydrofluoric acid for 20 sec and restore with composite
C. Etching with 4% hydrofluoric acid for 5 min and restore with composite

Q4. How would you prevent similar fracture in future?

A. Occlusion
B. Use splint at night
C. Make group function occlusion

Q5. For a new bridge if you wanted to construct high strength metal free bridge, what material would
you use?
A. Feldspathic
A.
Close reduction
A. Open reduction...
B. Procera
C. Zirconia
D. Scinteredaluminia
E. Porcelain

Resin bonded bridges loose retention between

A. Resin-enamel
B. Resin-metal
C. Within resin

About "Tripod in Surveyor" Why do you need to put mark on the diagnostic/study model after
surveying?
A. Orient cast to surveyor
B. Orient cast on articulator
C. to make surveying reproducible not random

SBQ- A 64-year-old patient who is receiving warfarin as part of the management of his atrial fibrillation
tell you that one of his lower right back teeth was restored three years ago by a dentist who has since
retired from your practice. The tooth is now occasionally sensitive to hot and cold. The clinical notes
confirm the history and indicate that the tooth was restored using a resin composite material. (from
ADC written hand book)

A. Orthopantomogram.
B. Bite-wing radiograph.
C. Percussion.
D. Crack testing.
E. INR.

2. In case like this Class II composite restorations of posterior teeth are more likely to fail due to
recurrent caries if:
A. the material is placed in increments because of the risk of leakage between the increments.
B. a glass-ionomer lining is used because of the risk that the lining will leach out over time.
C. occlusal loads are applied to the marginal ridge due to flexure of the material.
D. the curing time is extended due to greater shrinkage of the material
E. the gingival margin is on dentine because bonding under these conditions is unpredictable.

3. Given the history and the radiographic evidence, would you expect the “sensitivity” to hot and cold
that the patient reports to be?
A. sharp, occurring once or twice per week and only with ice-cream and hot coffee
B. sharp and relieved on removal of the hot or cold stimulus.
C. dull and lingering for 1-2 minutes.
D. always present but worse after a hot or cold stimulus.
E. worse in the morning.

4. If you decided to extract the tooth and in planning for the procedure you find that that the patient’s
INR is 2.4,
would you:
A. Proceed with the extraction and provide appropriate post-operative instructions.
B. Proceed with the extraction and suggest that the patient stop their warfarin for 3 days.
C. Suggest that the patient stop their warfarin and commence taking 125mg aspirin before
returning in 3 days to have the tooth removed.
D. Consult the patient’s cardiologist to discuss stopping their warfarin treatment.
E. Refer to patient to a consultant Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeon who is best placed to manage
complex surgical problems such as this.

5. Which drug is used to control bleeding in warfarin taking patient having atrial fibrillation?
A. epsilon caproic acid.
B. Heparin.
C. ZOE pack.
D. Vitamin K.

6. After removal of the 46, which of the following prosthodontic options would be most appropriate?
A. Immediate placement and immediate restoration with a dental implant.
B. Replacement with an immediate removable partial denture.
C. Replacement with a removable partial denture after the extraction site has healed.
D. Replacement with a fixed bridge.
E. No replacement until the patient has had an opportunity to assess their functional and aesthetic
concerns.
7. With atrial fibrillation on warfarin, what is the minimum INR required?
A. 3.
B. 2.
C. 4.
D. 5.

8. What is the complication if this patient stops warfarin?

A. Myocardial infarction.
B. Cerebro-vascular Stroke.
C. Deep Venous thrombosis.

In complete dentures, cheek biting is most likely a result of

A. Reduced overjet of posterior
B. Increased vertical dimension
C. Teeth have large cusp inclines

A patient wearing denture complains of pain in lower premolar region spreading to lower lip which is
sharp. The most possible cause is:
A. Change in occlusion.
B. Altered vertical dimension. If problem not local

- An old patient has pain under his full upper and lower dentures. The pain increases when he wears
them during the day and stops immediately after removing the dentures. His doctor thinks it is due to
mental nerve compression by lower denture and refers to you for the second opinion.

I. What investigations will you perform other than checking denture borders?
A. occlusal prematurity.
B. soft tissues under denture.
C. assess vertical dimension
ADC WRITTEN EXAMINATION MARCH 2018

Paper 3
ANAESTHESIA, RESUSCITATION, INFECTION CONTROL, MEDICINE AND SURGERY, ORAL SURGERY, ORAL
MEDICINE, ORAL PATHOLOGY, PHARMACOLOGY AND THERAPEUTICS
11 SBQ, 25 MCQ

SBQ 1
James, 20yo Man. Patient came 2 days ago for scale and
clean. During scale and clean, he felt sensitive, so he wanted
to be given LA. He come today blame you causing ulcer on
corner of left lower lip.
On clinical picture: it was clearly lesion with several small
vesicles (herpes simplex) on his corner of left lower lip. The
picture was similar to this but more towards the corner of
mouth

Question 1
If it is injury, what is the least likely lead to this condition
A. Burnt by Hot instrument from hand scaler
B. Burnt by the cigarette while still numb
C. Burnt by hot food while still numb
D. Patient drink and bit his lip
E. Trauma from scaler tip or handpiece during treatment

Question 2
What is D
A. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
B. Secondary herpes simplex
C. Herpangina
D. Herpes zoster

Question 3
What is the symptoms before the lesion seen:
A. Pain, burning and tingling
B. fever
Question 4
Treatment:
A. Acyclovir cream
B. Corticosteroid cream
C. Antibiotic cream
D. miconazole
E. Systemic antibiotic if spread to throat??

Question 5
You recall make note etc. what will you do according code of the conduct
A. Give discount
B. Make detail notes n ask james to counter sign
C. Contact clinic management
D. Contact insurance
E. Wait until he makes legal step

SBQ 2 Leukoplakia on lateral tongue

Picture is similar to this but milder

Question 6
What is the unlikely diagnosis
A. Lichen planus
B. Leukoplakia
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Keratosis
E. something with keratin

Question 7
What is the least required:
A. Previous medical history
B. Previous dental history
C. Clinical mucosal manual palpation of lesion
D. History of chronology of the lesion
E. Palpation of lymph nodes.

Question 8
Which lesion can be easily differentiated with this lesion
A. candidiasis (pseudo leukoplakia)
B. Lichen planus
C. Keratosis
D.

Question 9
They gave 2 pictures of histopathology of the lesion

What is the finding based on histopathology pictures

A. Hyperkeratinization with mild malignant transformation
B. Hyperkeratinization with non specific inflammatory cells
C. Lichen planus
D. candidiasis

Question 10
If patient is old age, smoker, alcohol drinker. What is the chance of this malignancy transformation of
this lession?
A. 3%

SBQ 3 ameloblastoma?
Question 12
Additional and most helpful diagnostic method:
A. lateral oblique.
B. CT scan
18 years old teenage with controlled type I
diabetes. Multilocular radiolucency was seen in
the angle of the mandible (multilocular was
given in the text of the question). OPG shows large
radiolucent lesion in the right mandibular angle.
48 is positioned in close proximity to the lesion
near angle of mandible. Only crown can be seen (horizontally impacted) well beyond the occlusal plane.
The HbA1C 6%, it was controlled diabetes

Question 11
What is the diagnosis?
A. dentigerous cyst.
B. Ameloblastoma.
C. odontogenic keratocyst
D. MRI
E. IOPA

Question 13
What is the treatment?
A. enaculation + extraction + Carnoy's solution.
B. Resection.
C. enucleation
D. Marsupialization.
E. Curettage.

Question 14
In this patient, what problem/complication/ difficulty in managing this condition or what
problem/complication/ difficulty after/when managing this condition
(forgot exact question)
A. Poor healing
B. Infection
C. To control his glucose level before the surgery.
D. Risk of fracture of the mandible
E. to Control the glucose after operation with IV antibiotic

Question 15
He wants to know CDP for dentist in Australia?
A. 60hours (80% scientifically demonstrated)
B. 60hours (40% scientifically demonstrated)
C. 80hours (60% scientifically demonstrated)
D. 80hours...

SBQ 4 Trauma of TMJ on drunk patient

Young man can't remember after a night drinking, suffered a blow or a trauma.
Frontal X Ray was given. Couldn’t see clearly the position of the condyle, the x ray
was very opaque and more overlapping
Question 16
According to some Australian Medical Guidelines how many drinks per day is the maximum
recommended dose for a male?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Question 17
In a Standard Drink contain how much alcohol?
A. 10 grams
B. 15 grams
C. 20 grams
D. 25 grams
What’s a standard drink?
In Australia, a standard drink is one that contains 10 grams (about 12.5ml) of alcohol.

Question 18
Type of fracture in Xray?
A. Fracture body of mandible
B. Fracture ramus of mandible
C. Subcondylar fracture
D. Condylar fracture with dislocation

Question 19
Type of treatment?
A. Close reduction
B. Open reduction...
N.B.If fracture was without displacement then it’s treated with closed reduction

Question 20
What is the long-term Problem?
A. Malocclusion
B. Right TMJ problem
C. Left TMJ problem...

SBQ 5 military doctor with food impaction

72 years old Doctor came for extraction of his lower left molar. He complains sensitivity to cold and
sweet and bad odor (other symptoms can't remember). Previously he has a similar pain on right hand
side and eventually was extracted.
Current bitewing x-rays show:
• 35 - small caries on distal.
• 36 – missing.
• 37 - tipped, angular bone loss mesially contact between 35 and 37 is not fully closed,
bone loss.
Bitewing x-rays several years before (for comparison) 35- no caries

Question 21
What is the cause of the patient complain ? (i’m confused between reversible pulpitis and food
impaction, as there is sensitivity to sweet and cold as well)
A. open contact and food impaction.
B. caries on 35.
C. perio-endo lesion on 37.
D. periodontitis on 37.

Question 22
The patient insisted on extraction of 37. He tells you, that if you don't do it, he will do it himself as he
had an experience from the army. What will you do?
A. extract 37 as he insists, and he will do it anyway, make him sign a consent form.
B. give him instruments to do extraction.
C. refer to the maxillo-facial surgeon for second opinion and extraction if decided.
D. refuse to extract and make sure that the patient understand the diagnosis well.

Question 23
what is the other most significant difference between two BWs:
A. carious 15

Question 24
Periodontal state prognosis is based on assessment of:
A. periodontal pockets.
B. attachment loss.

Question 25
If implant will be put to replace 46 (47 is tipped to mesial and 45 tipped a bit to distal). What will you
tell to patient?
A. Implant can be put without problem
B. Implant can be put but there might be some complications or difficulties
C. Implant can not be put
SBQ 6 you are stationed in oral Medicine departmentQuestion 26 adult with gingival enlargement

On the picture: generalised gingival enlargement with no or very

mild gingival inflammation, no redness on gingiva, no plaque
accumulation.
Similar to below’s picture but not only on lower anterior but whole
buccal and labial gingiva on anterior and posterior both upper and
lower(more like pg-237-fig 234-pocket atlas of oral diseases)

What is the most likely diagnosis(No clue given about etiology or possible cause so was tricky to guess
by just seeing the clinical picture)
A. Hereditary gingival fibroma
B. Plaque induced gingival enlargement
C. Drug induced gingival enlargement
D. Wegners granulomatosis
E. Scurvy

Question 27
pt with ulcer

There are 2 minor ulcer pictures, one on free

gingiva and one on soft palate.

What will be the appropriate treatment

A. Topical corticosteroid such as triamcinolone during prodromal stage
B. Give systemic corticosteroid if there is lesion on faring
C. Give systemic antibiotic
D.

Question 28
Lesion on buccal mucosa. The picture is similar to this but no redness
How to describe the lesion
A. White /reticular patch with erythematous surrounding.
B. White macule
C. White papule
D. White plaque
E. White patch with irregular margins

Not like this

Question 29 palatal cyst (for this question i can’t remember if this is 1 whole
SBQ with 5 question or part of 1 SBQ with 2 questions)

What is the most unlikely in this finding? (i can’t remember

if they mention mid palatine swelling)
A radicular cyst
B radicular abscess
C follicular cyst
D traumatic bone cyst
E nasopalatine cyst

Question 30
What another investigation you need for lesion on question 49?
A. CBCT x-ray
B. periapical x-ray

SBQ 7 infection control

Question 31
You find the pouches on the autoclave are still wet after the cycle. What is the cause?
A. Improper seal of pouch
B. Overloaded cycle
C. Paper of pouches facing downward
D. Too much water in the reservoir

Question 32
Dental assistant get higher level training. She should be concerning infection control of
A. Universal measures and additional measures
B. Standard precautions and transmission-based measures
C. Local measures and additional measures
D. Local measures and transmission measures
Question 33
What is involved in Validation test:
A. Biological test and qualitative test
B. validation process done every 2 year unless used very less
C. helix test
D.

Question 34
You have irritation on your hands but after giving LA you wants to get the forceps from the drawer.
Select the best procedure you needs to follow.
A. Remove gloves, Use alcohol hand rub ,get the forceps from drawers, Use alcohol rub and put
gloves on
B. Remove gloves, use soap and water,
C. Remove gloves, use alcohol rub, get forceps , wear new gloves

Question 35
Which of the following are principles of good hand hygiene? (do we have this question??)
A. Liquid soap should be applied to the hands prior to water to get maximum benefit from the soap
B. Effective drying of hands is not necessary after hand washing
C. Hand hygiene is not required during decontamination of instruments as gloves are used, hence
preventing any microbes on the skin surface reaching the instruments and vice versa
D. Liquid soap or bar soap may be used in a dental practice setting for hand hygiene
E. If an antibacterial solution is used to clean the hands prior to donning non-sterile gloves for
clinical work it is not necessary to remove rings and bracelets as the solution will minimise the
numbers of bacteria on jewellery and s

SBQ 8 drug induced gingival enlargement

Boy 17 years old, with epilepsy, taking dilantin. Photo of teeth (hypertrophy of gingiva and generalized
plaque) came to your clinic for check-up.

Question 36
What is the medical condition if patient is taking Dilantin
A. Epilepsy

Question 37
What is treatment?
A. Resection and debridement
B. Professional debridement and oral prophylaxis with plaque control instructions can help resolve
a Problem
C. Surgical resection and professional debridement and drug stop
D. scaling, replacement of the medication, gingivectomy
E. no treatment

Question 38
He refused his teeth brushing. He said that he doesn’t want to bothered, he doesn’t like appearance of
his teeth and gums. What phase of trans-theoretical model his behavior belongs to?
A. Pre-contemplation
B. Contemplation
C. Preparation
D. Action
E. Maintenance

Question 39

Question 40

SBQ 9 middle age lady maybe with controlled diabetes.

Asian women, non –English speaker. came with her daughter to your clinic for a check-up. She has
diabetes type 2 which was managed with exercise and about 3 months back had been started on
medicines for her diabetes called Diabex . Her daughter tells you that her diabetes is maintained for the
last 3 months at HBA1C 7.

Question 41
Type of local anesthesia for debridement in diabetic type II with random glucose 6.5 mmol/mol (it
means well controlled)
A. Lidocaine 2% with 1:80000
B. Sitanest
C. Articaine 4%
D. Prilocaine
E. None - for this patient local anesthesia is contraindicated.

Question 42
Which of the following is best to assess glycemic control of diabetic patient?
A. Random blood sugar.
B. Glycosylated hemoglobin.
C. Glucose tolerance test.
D. Blood hemoglobin.

Or maybe this How to determine prognosis for this patient

A. Secure glucose level
Question 43
What is mechanism of influence of diabex.
A. Biguanide reduce production of hepatic glucose in liver and increase peripheral increase
peripheral uptake.
B. Reduce production of hepatic glucose, increase peripheral uptake.

Question 44

Question 45

SBQ 10
patient with swelling around orbital
A patient who has been referred to you an oral surgeon, who has fever 39.5, oedema of the lower eyelid
and pain in the infraorbital area. swelling involving his upper lip the corner of his nose and a region
under his left eye the swollen area is soft fluctuant and pointed on the labial plate under his lips on
leftside. An Infraorbital abscess has been diagnosed, the tooth has been treated with RCT before.

Question 46
Which tooth is most likely to cause the infection?
A. maxillary central I
B. Maxillary lateral I
C. maxillary canine.
D. maxillary premolars
E. maxillary molars

Question 47
What is the treatment?
A. Antibiotics
B. Exo + drainage
C. drainage through the skin.
D. drainage through intraoral incision.
E. RCT of the tooth involved.
F. extraction of the tooth involved.

Question 48
Which is a major complication of this event
A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

Question 49
Question 50

SBQ 11 maybe patient with adrenal suppression

Question 51
Question 52
Question 53
Question 54
Question 55

MCQ
Question 56
Congenital Pigmented nevus:
A. Never malignant
B. Can be malignant transformation after
C. Can be malignant transformation before puberty
D. Definitely become malignant
E. Sometimes can be malignant
F. Mostly become malignant

Question 57
Aim of IAN Block in Direct technique (the question was not like this and can’t remember the options)
The options, some of them explaining indirect technique, so need to know how to do IAN block both
direct and indirect
A. Contact bone at 25mm depth
B. Pass along coronoid notch and pterygomandibular raphe
C. as anterior as possible
D. Needle reach distal to lingual

Question 58
Most congenitally missing tooth
A. Maxillary Lateral Incisor
B. Mandibular second premolar

Question 59
Which Salivary glands produce the most serious in 24 hours
A. Submandibular glands
B. Sublingual glands
C. Parotid glands
D. Minor glands
E. Sweat glands
Question 60
Mandibular block in children:
A. Lower than for an adult
B. Higher than for an adult
C. At the same level as the adult
D. More anterior than for the adult
E. More posterior than for the adult

Question 61
Internal resorption associated with?
A. Pain
B. Ca hydroxide
C. Necrotic tooth
D. Trumatic tooth
Dr.karim

Question 62
A. Common type of biofilm in root surface
actinomycises
B. stephyloccocs metus
C. stephyloccocs basli

Dr.karim

Question 63
How does squamous cell carcinoma spread to other tissue?
A. Invasion & lymphatic

Question 64
Which local anasthesia that can give prolonged anesthesia after surgery or to relieve severe pain for
long time
A. Mepivacaine with adrenaline
B. Bupivacaine with adrenaline
C. Lignocaine with adrenaline
D. Articaine
E. Prilocaine with felypressin

Question 65
Pt. has immunization of hepatitis B if:
A. Hbs antibody positive
B. Hbs antigen positive
C. Hbe antigen positive
D. Hbe antibody positive
E. Hbc antibody positive
Question 66
Which statement is correct regarding Hepatitis B?
A. More infectious than hepatitis C

Or maybe this When the hepatitis B patient being infectious?

A. during the symptoms.
B. Before & during symptoms.
C. before, during, after symptoms.
D. After symptoms.

Question 67
Xerostomia commonly occurs as a result of this substance except:
A. Tricyclic antidepressants
B. Cannabis
C. Cocaine
D. Paracetamol
E. Beta blocker (maybe)

Question 68
Which of the statement are correct regarding a 9-year-old patient?
A. Children of this age should never be advised to use toothpaste with more than 1000 ppm
B. Fluoride tablets would be the best way of administering fluoride if the child shows evidence of
caries or a high caries risk and lives in a non-fluoridated area
C. . if the child lives in a fluoridated area of 1 ppm then you must have advised them to use non
fluoridated toothpaste as they are at risk from fluorosis
D. D. Mottling of enamel can occur with systemic administration of fluoride in water lat a level of 1
ppm
E. you could consider advising the use of a fluoride mouthwash if indicated by caries risk

Question 69
Disinfection that can be used for disinfecting impression
A. Sodium hypochlorite

Question 70
Paracetamol is:
A. Anti-pyretic
B. Anti-inflammatory
C. Locally acting
D. Hepatotoxic if overdose
E. Taken in doses of 500 mg -1 gr four times a day in adult

Or maybe this What is not affect of paracetamol

A. Anti-inflammatory

Question 71
In young children what is the commonest finding after dental complaint
A. Acute periodontal abscess

Question 72
Where you found kaposi sarcoma
A. In palate of HIV patient

Or maybe the sign of patient with HIV

A. Kaposi sarcoma on palate
B.

Question 73
Aspirin action
A. Inhibit cyclooxygenase production

Question 74
What is the maximum daily dose of Ibuprofen?
A. 1200mg per day
B. 2400mg per day
C. Can be given indefinitely

Question 75
Pt will ext. wisdom sensitive to penicillin what other antibioticyou will give
Clindamycine 600 mg oraly 1 hour before surgery

Question 76
The normal/ average therapeutic range of INR for patients taking warfarin with atrial fibrillation?
A. 1-2
B. 2-3
C. 3-4
D. 4-5

Question 77
Which INR value can be used as reference/guide if you want to do extraction on patient taking warfarin
with deep vein thrombosis?
A. INR 3.5, taken 6 hours before surgery
B. INR … , taken 24 hours before surgery
C. INR…, taken 3 hours before surgery
D. INR…, taken on the day of surgery
E. INR …, taken 48 hours before surgery
Question 78
Overdoze for morphine. How will you stop it.
A. Naloxane
B. Amphetamine
C. Epinephrine

Question 79
The most important feature that can be differentiated between Granuloma and a cyst is by
A. Histological or microscopical difference.
B. By lining of the lesion
C. By clinical and Radiographic findings

Question 80
=====
Below are questions that maybe came out in exam:

1215. Pain and difficulty on swallowing, trismus and a displaced uvula are signs and symptoms of
infection of which one of the following spaces?
A. Submandibular.
B. Lateral parapharyngeal.
C. Sublingual.
D. Deep temporal.
E. Submasseteric.

1279. What is incorrect about Hairy Leukoplakia?

A. It’s corrugated but not hairy.
B. It’s usually seen in the lateral ventral surface of tongue.
C. It can be covered (or invaded) by candida.
D. It’s invariably sign of HIV.

Which is TRUE about disinfectant solution?

A. Destruction of all microorganisms.
B. Destruction of all microorganism but not spores
C. Destruction of all microorganism and all spores
D. Destruction of microorganisms to a safe level.

You find the pouches on the autoclave are still wet after the cycle. What is the cause?
A. Improper seal of pouch
B. Overloaded cycle
C. Paper of pouches facing downward
D. Too much water in the reservoir
Dental assistant gets higher level training. She should be concerning infection control of
A. Universal measures and additional measures
B. Standard measures and transmission-based measures
C. Local measures and additional measures
D.

The infectivity of hepatitis, the question about what you would find in the blood of people vaccinated
against hepatitis (antibody -antigen)
A. Hbs Ag
B. Hbe Ag
C. Hbs Ab
D. Hbe Ab

Validation process include:

A. Installation and operational
B. operational and bioindicator
C. spore test indicator of microbial test
D. qualitative and penetration test
E. validation process done every 2 years unless used very less
F. helix test

Definite treatment for submandibular gland stone:

A. Widening of the gland duct orifice
B. Excision of the whole gland
C. Removal of the stone from inside the gland
D. Something about laser treatment

OPG errors-

Where is the point of insertion of the needle when an inferior alveolar nerve block injection is given to a
child as compared with an adult?
A. Lower than for an adult
B. Higher than for an adult
C. At the same level as the adult
D. More anterior than for the adult e. More posterior than for the adult

A patient has type I diabetes. Multilocular radiolucency in the angle of the mandible (multilocular was
given in the text of the question). OPG shows large radiolucent lesion in the right mandibular angle.
47(or 48 can't remember) is positioned in close proximity to the lesion. Only crown can be seen
(horizontally impacted) well beyond the occlusal plain, near the roots of 46(47?).

I. What is the diagnosis?

A. dentigorous cyst.
B. Ameloblastoma.
C. odontogenic keratocyst

II. Additional and most helpful diagnostic method:

A. lateral oblique.
B. CT
C. MRI

III. What is the treatment?

A. enaculation + extraction + Carnoy's solution.
B. Resection.
C. Excision.
D. Marsupilization. E. Curettage.

IV. If the patient with Ameloblastoma had diabetes type 1, What will be the difficulty in
the management
A. Poor healing
B. Infection
C. To control his glucose level before the surgery.
D. Intraoperative fracture

V.Long term prognosis?

A. Left tmj dysfunction
B. Right tmj dysfunction

The main question also included the diabetic status of patient. it said that patient diabetes is being
controlled for some years. n the option in question 4 were poor healing, infection, preoperative
glycemic control(due to fasting), post-operative glycemic control.

Case young man can't remember after a night drinking, suffered a blow or a trauma. Frontal Xray given.

Q.1 According to some Australian Medical Guidelines how many drinks per day is the maximum
recommended dose for a male?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Q.2 ml in a Standard Drink?

A. 10ml
B. 15ml C. 20ml D. 25ml

What’s a standard drink?

In Australia, a standard drink is one that contains 10 grams (about 12.5ml) of alcohol.

Q.3 type of fracture in Xray?

A. Fracture body
B. Fracture ramus
C. Fracture subcondylar with displacement
D. Fracture condylar

Q.4 type of treatment?

B.
N.B.If fracture was without displacement then it’s treated with closed reduction

Q.5. Problem long term?

A. Malocclusion
B. Right TMJ problem
C. Left TMJ problem...

Q.6 he wants to know CDP for dentist in Australia?

A. 60hours (80% scientifically demonstrated)
B. 60hours (40% scientifically demonstrated) C. 80hours (60% scientifically demonstrated) D.
80hours...

Question 3 was condylar fracture with displacement, condyle neck fracture

For 4 there was no option of closed reduction. it was intermaxillary fixation, open reduction.. one more
option with intermaxillary fixation for some weeks

Most commonly congenitally missing permanent teeth

Mandibular laterals Maxillary centrals

Maxillary laterals
Mandibular centrals
INR for prosthetic heart valve/ Atrial fibrillation(one of these )
1.5-2.5
2.5-3.5
3.5-4.0

2.5-3.5 for prosthetic heart valve

1.5-2.5 for all other options……..

Alteration of the intestinal flora by some chemotherapeutic agents can interfere with reabsorption of a
contraceptive steroid thus preventing the recirculation of the drug through the enterohepatic circulation.
Which of the following can interfere with this mechanism?
1. Codeine.
2. Penicillin V.
3. Acetaminophen 4. Tetracycline.
9

A. (1) (2) (3)

B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Answer: C.

ADC WRITTEN EXAMINATION MARCH 2018

Paper 4
ORTHODONTIC, PEDO, PERIO,PREVENTIVE, PUBLIC HEALTH, RADIOLOGY
50 SBQ, 30 MCQ

SBQ 1
Zara case ectopic 3 with persistence c
Zara, 12 yo (maybe) comes with her mom and is concerned about the tooth that the tooth has come out
abnormally.Principal dentist only comes once in a fortnight and the nearest orthodontist is 400 km
away. Zara and her mom came walking from their farm as there no public transportation and they don’t
have car.
In the picture, 63 persistence, labial ectopic 23 and almost fully erupted (the tip of cusp is in line with
63) with slight lack of space for 23
There was a congenitally absent lateral incisor on both sides in this case: OPG was provided (congenital
absence of the laterals was clearly seen) Photo was provided with the space almost absent in relation to
12, a labially erupting canine 23 was also seen.

Question 1
What is least likely to cause diastema?
A. Macrodontia
B. Anodontia
C. Supernumerary
D. Genetic trait/ hereditary
E. Forgot the options maybe impaction

Question 2
You decided to extract 63 and put space maintainer which is still in your scope of working. However, it’s
been a while since the last time you did space maintainer and you don’t feel confident. What will you
do?
A. do extraction anyway without putting space maintainer
B. do extraction anyway with putting space maintainer
C. refer to principal dentist
D. refer to orthodontist
E. Wait and observe

Question 3
According to the picture, what is the diagnosis:
A. Ectopic eruption of 23
B. Can’t remember other option
Question 4
Showed OPG of Zara, the symphysis of mandible is missing from the OPG, what is the most likely cause?
A. Chin too up
B. Chin too down
C. Position is to backward
D. Position is to forward
E. Patient has moved during radiograph

Question 5
Other significant finding:
A. Normal
B. Congenital missing laterals
C. Ectopic C left
D. Midline shift??

SBQ 2
Tom with BW
Tom’s mom has come to your practise and demanded on seeing you because her son is having a
toothache even though there are 2 patients waiting in the waiting room. You agree to see Tom and use
you lunch time while the next patients on schedule already waiting

On bitewing, you can see 64,65,26 & 36,75,74. Forgot how the bitewing looked liked, but i think The
permanent premolar is not resorbing the furcation. There’s cavity on 75 occlusal

Question 6
Based on bitewing only, what is the possible age of Tom(only 6s,1s and 2s) where seen erupted on rad,
with d and e and PMs underneath them almost resorbing the roots of the d and e.

A. 8-9
B. 9-11
C. 6-8
D. 12-13
E. 4-5
Question 7
When you see Tom, he doesn’t seem to be in pain. He mentioned it sensitive to cold and sweet.
What is the cause of the sensitivity to cold and sweet
A. Caries in 64
B. Caries in 65
C. Caries in 74
D. Caries in 75

Question 8
What will you do to for Tom’s tooth that is sensitive to cold and sweet
A. Do extraction straight away
B. Do filling straight away
C. Reschedule for filling
D. Reschedule for extraction
E. Find other dentist in the area who is free

Question 9
After 12 years later police contacted you and telling that forensic is ask for Tom’s record. What will you
do:
A. According to Australian law, you only need to keep record for 7 years and as you have kept it
more, but you give the record to them and saying that it so cannot be used for diagnostic
evidence
B. Give the original record and say to them that it’s not the current oral condition
C. Give the copy of the records ,keep the original record with you and say to them that it’s not the
current oral condition
D. Ask for further information why do they need the record before giving information(i’m not sure
about this option, maybe someone can complete or revise this opt)
E. Seek consent from the parents as the child was a minor at the time the records were made.

Question 10
Forgot the question, maybe Who need to give permission-
A. Child only
B. Parents and child
C. Only parents
D. No consent needed

SBQ 3 Talon cusp

7 yo patient present crowding on the upper front segment.

Question 11
What teeth are seen on the picture
A. 12,11,21,22
B. 52,51,61,62
C. 52,11,21,62

Question 12
What can you see on the palatal surface of the teeth clinically?
A. Talon cusp
B. Dens in dente
C. Enamel Hypoplasia

Question 13
There is black colour on the fissure. How to remove doubt:
A. Probing High speed burs
B. Sharp probe
C. Bitewing
D. Fissure sealant
Question 14
What is the management of 12, stained fissures was visible:
A. Refer to ortho as part tx for crowding
B. Fissure sealant the fissures
C. Fluoride varnish application
D. Explore the fissures with small round bur and seal with a composite filling
E. Remove the caries and Do a filling composite filling
F. Leave it as it is

What is the management for 22, clinically u can see a small dark shadow underneath the fissure.:
A. Refer to ortho as part tx for crowding
B. Fissure sealant the fissures
C. Flouride varnish application
D. Explore the fissures with small round bur and seal with a composite filling
E. Remove the caries and Do a composite filling
F. Leave it as it is

Question 15
Which x-ray they use:
A. True occlusal
B. Occlusal oblique
C. Lat Oblique
D. Lat oblique modified

Q2 Treatment
A. LA and start RCT
B. Give antibiotic and send home and further treatment after swelling subside
C. LA and extraction. Because of complexity
D. Hospitalization and IV antibiotics, extraction and drainage.

SBQ 4 Gingival enlargements

18 year old has enlarged gingiva; history of Dilantin.

Question 16
gives a history of Dilantin sodium what is you treatment?
A. Oral prophylaxis and gingivoplasty.
B. Oral prophylaxis, scaling, root planning.
C. Stop medication.
D. stop medication, scaling and rp and surgery

Question 17
What the dilantin used for ?
A. Epilepsy
B. ..
C. ..
D. ..
Dr.karim

Question 18
He refused his teeth brushing. He said that he doesn’t want to bother, he doesn’t like appearance of his
teeth and gums. What phase of trans-theoretical model his behavior belongs to?
A. Pre-contemplation
B. Contemplation
C. Preparation
D. Action
E. Maintenance

Question 19

Question 20
Women, photo of generalized swelling on teeth. She did not visit dentist 3-5 years, 2 years ago marked
mobility of her 2 lower teeth, now she is taking dilantin. Patient was complaining of a sudden
generalized pain and bleeding, waking up with bleeding spots on a pillow.
What is her disease?
A. Acute periodontal infection
B. ANUG
C. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
D. Leukemia

SBQ 5
OPG of an 40

Question 21.
What is the Diagnosis?
A. Chronic Periodontitis
B. Aggressive Periodontitis

Question 22
If you want to treat 36 (angular bone loss and furcation involvement) what determine the poor
prognosis
A. Furcation involvement
B. pathology
Question 23
What was reason for the bone loss?
A. uncontrolled diabetes
B. smoking
C. poor oral hygiene

Question 24. What is most difficult in managing/treating this patient?

A. poor healing
B. infection
C. pre-op blood glucose control
D. post-op blood glucose control

Question 25. What does Hba1c represent?

Blood glucose from last 2-3 months
Random blood glucose

SBQ 6
10 year old girl, who is going abroad in few weeks comes for regular checkup. Everything looks okay,
good oral hygiene, no complains. You took OPG.
Question 26
OPG:
A. is contraindicated below 12 years.
B. dose is less than combined 2 BW & 1 periapical X-ray.
C. gives better periapical view.
Answer: B.

Question 27:
On the OPG you can see 75 & 84 are heavily restored with amalgam including part of pulp chamber.
Below these 2 elements big circular well defined radiolucency below 75 and developing premolar35
underneath. What is the diagnosis of 75?
A. periapical abscess.
B. dentigerous cyst.
C. Granuloma.
D. radicular cyst.
Answer: B or A. (depend on what we see on the radiograph)

Question 28:
. The dentist looks at the child’s old BW when age was 7 yrs. In those BW, 84 has deep distal caries till
gingiva with 1/4th pulp involved & 75 has occlusal caries touching the pulp horns. The child had slight
sensitivity to cold in 75 and some pain in 84 on eating or biting. What would have been the ideal
treatment for 75 at that time?
A. indirect pulp capping & steel crown.
B. pulpotomy & steel crown.
C. pulpectomy & steel crown.
D. Extraction and spacemaintiner.
E. Ortho consultation, extraction, space maintainer.
Answer: B.

Question 29
Bitewing of 84, what is the treatment for 84 at that time?
A. indirect pulp capping & steel crown.
B. pulpotomy & steel crown.
C. pulpectomy & steel crown.
D. Extraction and spacemaintiner.
E. Ortho consultation, extraction, space maintainer.
Answer: C

Question 30
What is your present treatment plan if the girl is going to USA in 6 months time?
A. extraction 84 & 75. Use space maintainer.
B. extract 84,75,44. Refer to oral surgeon for that.
C. refer to oral surgeon & orthodontist for extraction 84,75,44,35 plus follow up overseas.
D. restore 84 & 75 and wait.
Answer: C

SBQ 7
about xray, pregnancy, safe position,

Question 31
Where is the safest position
A. Anywhere as long as 2m from xray source
B. 2 meter in front the cone
C. 2 meter behind the cone
D. 2 meter to the right of the cone (90 degree towards cone)
E. 2 meter to the left of the cone (90 degree towards cone)

Question 32
Your patient is pregnant but the question didn’t mention up to which trimester
A. Patient not allowed to take xray in the first trimester
B. Patient can take xrays as clinically indicated as other patients
C. Patient is not allowed to take x rays at all
D.

Question 33
Your dental assistant is pregnant:
A. She is not allowed to take xrays
B. She can assist with taking xrays as long as the exposure is less than 1 msv as it is for the public.
C. Can take xray by wearing lead apron
D. Can take x rays as normal routine procedures.

Question 34
Question 35

SBQ 8 X ray error

Question 36
Bitewing x ray was taken 1 year ago ,there was no fault on the x ray when it was taken.what is wrong
with the x ray now?
A. Bws had yellow stain all over it
B. Incorrect storage/archived
C. Insufficient rinsing after fixation
D. Insufficient developing

Question 37
Periapical xray of anterior teeth, can’t see the apical but can see crown of 5 anterior teeth. It’s in
landscape position not portrait
A. Incorrect horizontal angle
B. Incorrect vertical angle
C. Wrong position of film

Question 38
Periapical xray, there is a triangle radiopaque on the corner lower right of xray. Not very opaque like it is
caused by metal
A. It because of lead apron
B. Patient is moving
C. Cone cut

Question 39
Bitewing xray given all the interdental contacts are ok only overlap present between 48 and 47.48 was
mesially impacted in the x ray.
A. Incorrect horizontal angle
B. Incorrect vertical angle
C. Abnormal position of 48
D. Wrong position of film
E.

Question 40

After looking at IOPA which anatomical structure will appear to cast radiopaque shadow on apical region
of maxillary molars
A. coronoid process
B. Zygomatic buttress/zygoma
C. Mylohyoid ridge
D. hamular notch

SBQ 9 erosion case

Question 41
Question 42
Question 43
Question 44
Question 45

SBQ 10 Skateboard Accident (they made some changes to this published question) Rattan
Question 46

8year old child has been living in 4ppm flouride area before he moved,which tooth will be mottled?
A. no mottling
B. mottling in all permanent teeth
C. mottling in all primary and permanent teeth
D. mottling in all primary teeth

MCQ
Question 51
Cause of gingivitis in pregnant women.
A. Hormonal changes only.
B. Hormonal and attraction of bacteria actinomyces comitans.
C. Hormonal change lead to anaerobic bacteria growth.
D. Somethings related with progesteron and other options with estrogen hormones (which is right
answer) (dr.karim)

Question 52
The usual method of healing following regular periodontal treatment is by formation of :
A. Long junctional epith
B. Short junctional epith
C. By connective tissue attachment
D. New bone
E. New cementum

Question 53
FIRST SIGN OF PERIODONTAL DISEASE
A. Change in consistency of gingiva
B. Drifting of teeth
C. Mobility
D. Pocket formation

Question 54
Calculus on a buccal surface of 1st maxillary molar because of:
A. Stenson's duct opening.
B. Wharton's duct opening.
C. salivary glands in the area.
D. Sublingual glands opening

Question 55
A single hypoplastic defect located on the labial surface of a maxillary central incisor is most likely due to
a/an
A. dietary deficiency.
B. endocrine deficiency.
C. tetracycline therapy.
D. trauma to the maxillary primary central incisor.
E. high fluoride intake.

Question 56
What is the sequelae of failure of indirect pulp capping in primary tooth?
A. Internal resorption
B. Irrev pulpitis
C. Reversible pulpitis
D. Peri apical infection

Question 57
I’m not sure if we get this question
While removing the second primary molar of 9 years old child, the apical ¼ of the root fracture and stay
in the socket,
A. you will just leave it and observe it.
B. you take surgically by a lingual flap.
C. you try to take out by using a root apex elevator.
D. you use a fine end forceps to take it out.
No we didn’t had

Question 58
In a normal eruption pattern, the last primary tooth to be lost is the:
A. maxillary canine.
B. mandibular canine.
C. maxillary first molar.
D. mandibular second molar.
E. maxillary second molar.

Question 59
Dental caries of proximal surface in primary molars usually starts at
A. Just occlusal to the contact area
B. Just gingival to the contact area
C. At the level of contact area
D. At the level of gingival Margin

Question 60
The photo shows over retained submerged lower second molars. What is the reason for this?
A. Agenesis of 2nd premolars.
B. Ectopic eruption of 2nd premolars.
C. patient cannot bite properly
D. absence of succedaneous tooth/premolar
Answer: A or D.

Question 61
Fissure sealants, what is true?
A. unfilled resin Composite and GIC have equal success rate to fissure sealant material
B. Fissures that are sticky and catch probe should be sealed
C. you should do bitewing X-ray before fissure sealants
D. Cost effective method to prevent caries in all teeth

Question 62
What is the least accepted restoration for the pulpotomiated deciduous tooth?
A. Amalgam filling.
B. Composite filling.
C. SS crown.
D. Glass ionomer.
Answer: A

Question 63
Child ingested large amount of fluoride. What to do?
A. Call Australian Poison control.
B. force to drink fluids.
C. Induce vomiting.
D. give sodium bicarbonate.

Question 64
Most common congenitally missing tooth.
A. mandibular first premolar.
B. mandibular lateral incisor.
C. maxillary first molar.
D. maxillary lateral incisor.
E. Mandibular second premolar

Question 65
Eruption sequence:
A. 6,1,2,4,5,3
B. 6,1,2,3,4,5
C. 1,2,3,4,5
D. 1,2,4,5,3
M1- max central I - mand premolar - max C

Question 66
The EARLIEST apical radiographic change seen in a pulpally involved tooth is
A. resorption of bone.
B. loss of lamina dura.
C. external root resorption.
D. hyper-cementosis.
E. widening of the periodontal ligament space.
Answer: E.

Question 67
In perapical xray given ( i think they didn’t mention which technique), the radiopacity that can obliterate
the apices of maxillary molars is the:
A. maxillary sinus.
B. the zygoma.
C. orbital bone

Question 68
Exposure of the patient to ionising radiation when taking a radiograph is NOT REDUCED by:
A. The use of fast film
B. The addition of filtration
C. Collimation of the beam
D. The use of an open and lead lined cone
E. Decreasing the kilovoltage KvP.
Answer: E.

Question 69
On a bitewing radiograph of posterior teeth, which of the following is most likely to be
misdiagnosed as proximal caries?
A. Cemento-enamel junction.
B. Marginal ridge.
C. Carabelli cusp.
D. Calculus.
E. Cemental tear.

Question 70
Proximal caries in adult
Just below contact

Question 71
0.22% NaF, ask how many PPM or how many PPM of fluoride contained:
A. 1000
B. 1100
C. 220
D. 2000
E. 5000
The right answer in TG at fluoride percentage table

Question 72
Continue smoking will impair wound healing following a surgical procedure because of
A. stain development.
B. increased rate of plaque formation.
C. increased rate of calculus formation.
D. contraction of peripheral blood vessels.
E. superficial irritation to tissues by smoke.

Question 73
The blade angulation during sharpening the curette or scaler, is kept at:
A. 35-40 degree
B. 45-50 degree
C. 70-90
D. 90-110

Question 74
In periodontics, the best prognosis for bone regeneration follows the surgical treatment or maybe GTR
is:
A. suprabony pockets.
B. one-wall infrabony pockets.
C. two-wall infrabony pockets.
D. three-wall infrabony pockets.

Question 75
Root planning is to:
A. remove infected Cementum.
B. make root surface biologically acceptable.
C. make root surface mechanically acceptable
Question 76
In advanced periodontitis with marked mobility, teeth may be splinted:
A. to improve comfort for the patient.
B. as splinting helps in transmitting the force to the adjacent teeth to reduce the load on the
involved teeth.

Question 77
The infectivity of hepatitis, the question about what you would find in the blood of people vaccinated
against hepatitis (antibody -antigen)
A. Anti Hbs
B. HBs Ag
C. Hbc Ag
D. Hbe Aq

Question 78
Pdl fibres that help in maintaining the integrity of the arch
A. Transeptal fibres
B. Oblique fibres
C. Apical fibres
D. Circumferential fibre

Question 79
The first 8 year lives in area with high contain of fluoride. Which teeth affected

Question 80
Frankfort plane extends from:
A. horizontally from sella to nasion.
B. ala of the nose to tragus.
C. horizontally from point on superior aspect of external auditory meatus to orbitale.