ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 01 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM

(Đề thi có 05 trang) 2023

Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. scholar B. charity C. chemistry D. chaos
Question 2: A. intend B. compete C. medal D. defend
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. purchase B. ladder C. forest D. police
Question 4: A. organize B. devastate C. sacrifice D. deliver
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5:Mr Robert, _________ from the company, is now facing legal charges.
A. was fired B. fired C. firing D. was firing
Question 6: Playing basketball is _______ than playing badminton.
A. easier B. most easy C. the easiest D. more easy
Question 7: You will receive an automatic email notification ________.
A. as soon as you completed your online profile
B. once your profile is available online
C. after your profile will be available online
D. when you finished your online profile
Question 8: I'm not really interested _______ watching horror movies.
A. in B. on C. about D. of
Question 9: The number of rare animals is decreasing so rapidly, ________ ?
A. is it B. isn't it C. doesn't it D. does it
Question 10: She needs __________ new phone because her old one was broken.
A. Ø (no article) B. an C. the D. a
Question 11: If you put your money in a bank now, you may get 8% _______ annually.
A. interest B. profit C. money D. income
Question 12: I could hear voices but I couldn't ________ what they were saying.
A. bring about B. turn up C. try out D. make out
Question 13: John is planning ___________ to the gym after work today.
A. go B. to go C. going D. went
Question 14: Could I pick your _______ on the subject before the meeting?
A. intellect B. head C. mind D. brains
Question 15: When the old man ________ past the park, he saw some children playing football.
A. was walking B. is walking C. walked D. walks
Question 16: I didn’t _______ to see my aunt when I was in Paris.
A. take B. make C. get D. meet
Question 17: The application form ________ to the university before May 31st.
A. must send B. must be sending C. sent D. must be sent
Question 18: Rapid ________ happened during the period of industrialization in Europe and North
America the 19th and early 20" centuries.
A. urbanized B. urbanize C. urbanization D. urbanizing
Question 19: The judge _______ the pedestrian for the accident.
A. accused B. charged C. sued D. blamed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: Maria and Alex are talking about the environment.
- Maria: “Our environment is getting more and more polluted. Do you think so?”
- Alex: “ ________ . It's really worrying.”
A. I don't think so. B. I'll think about that.
C. I don't agree D. I can't agree with you more.
Question 21: A student is asking the librarian to help her to fax a report.
- Student: “Could you help me to fax this report?” - Librarian: “ ________ ”
A. Certainly, what's the fax number? B. It's very kind of you to say so.
C. Sorry, I have no idea. D. What rubbish! I don't think it's helpful.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: With the final examinations coming very soon his anxiety was rising to almost unbearable
limits.
A. joy B. boredom C. confidence D. apprehension
Question 23: He was too wet behind the ears to be in charge of such a difficult task.
A. full of sincerity B. full of experience
C. without money D. lack of responsibility
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The natives were angry when the foreigners came to their country and took over their land.
A. tourists B. migrants C. members D. locals
Question 25: I am now reconciled with two of my estranged siblings - not just my older brother, but my
sister, whom I hadn't spoken to for 17 years,
A. opposed B. contactable C. truthful D. harmonized
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: I am pretty sure Dan is at home because the lights are on
A. Dan may be at home because the lights are on
B. Dan needn't be at home because the lights are on.
C. Dan can't be at home because the lights are on
D. Dan must be at home because the lights are on
Question 27: We last visited my uncle two years ago
A. We have two years to visit my uncle.
B. We have visited my uncle for two years,
C. We haven't visited my uncle for two years.
D. We didn't visit my uncle two years ago.
Question 28: "I met her two days ago," said Tim
A. Tim said that he had met her two days before.
B. Tim said that he had met her two days ago
C. Tim said that I met her two days before
D. Tim said that I met her two days ago
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 29: Most workers seem to be happy with its new working conditions.
A B C D
Question 30: My mother and her friends always went out together every weekend.
A B C D
Question 31: The party has won a historical victory at the polls.
 A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: My father wants to help me with the assignments. He doesn't have time.
A. If my father had had time, he could help me with the assignments.
B. Provided my father has time, he cannot help me with the assignments.
C. My father wishes he had time so that he could help me with the assignments.
D. If only my father had time, he couldn't help me with the assignments.
Question 33: She tested positive for Covid-19. She isolated herself to protect other people in her
community.
A. Had she tested positive for Covid-19, she would have isolated herself to protect other people in
her community,
B. Not only did she test positive for Covid-19 but she also isolated herself to protect other people in
her community.
C. Only when had she tested positive for Covid-19, she isolated herself to protect other people in her
community.
D. No sooner had she tested positive for Covid-19 than she isolated herself to protect other people in
her community.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
CITIES GOING GREEN
As more and more people concentrate in cities, planners are looking for ways to transform cities into
better living spaces, (34) ________ can be done by improving existing infrastructure while also creating
more public (35) ________ that are both beautiful and green. This can be hard to accomplish, especially in
cities with a haphazard fashion. Some cities have been created with the idea of a green city as the goal.
One such city, Masdar City in the United Arab Emirates, aims to become a model for (36) ________
cities to follow. It is being known as a truly green city that relies strictly on renewable sources such as
solar energy to provide all of its energy needs. (37) ________ , it will be a zero waste city in which
everything that is used can be recycled. Whether it will truly (38) ________ its goal remains to be seen,
but it will also act as an experiment for environmentally friendly areas to be tested.
(Adapted from https://www.purdueglobal.edu/)
Question 34: A. why B. when C. which D. that
Question 35: A. rooms B. places C. spaces D. breaks
Question 36: A. other B. every C. one D. another
Question 37: A. Therefore B. In addition C. although D. However
Question 38: A. accompany B. access C. account D. accomplish
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Culture is the lens with which we evaluate everything around us; we evaluate what is proper or
improper, normal or abnormal, through our culture. If we are immersed in a culture that is unlike our own,
we may experience culture shock and become disoriented when we come into contact with a
fundamentally different culture. People naturally use their own culture as the standard to judge other
cultures; however, having our own judgment could lead us to discriminate other cultural values which are
different from our own because we do not understand them.
Cultural diversity is important because our country, workplaces, and school increasingly consist of
various cultural, racial, and ethnic groups. We can learn from one another, but first we must have a level
of understanding about each other in order to facilitate collaboration and cooperation. Learning about
other cultures helps us understand different perspectives within the world in which we live and
helps dispel negative stereotypes and personal biases about different groups.
 In addition, cultural diversity helps us recognize and respect "ways of being" that are not necessarily
our own, so that we interact with others, we can build bridges to trust, respect, and understanding across
cultures. Furthermore, this diversity makes our country a more interesting place to live, as people from
diverse cultures contribute language skills, new ways of thinking, new knowledge, and different
experiences.
(Adapted from https://www.purdueglobal.edu/)
Question 39: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. How can we learn from culture? B. What is the function of culture?
C. How do people use own culture? D. Why is cultural diversity a "good thing"?
Question 40: The word "which" in paragraph 1 refers to ________
A. cultural values B. other cultures C. judgment D. standard
Question 41: Which of the following is TRUE about the main reason for discrimination?
A. Making judgment B. Immersed in a culture
C. Valuating everything D. Contacting with a different culture
Question 42: The word "dispel" in paragraph 2 mostly means ________
A. realize B. remove C. contain D. discuss
Question 43: According to the passage, which of the following do people from diverse cultures NOT
contribute to a country?
A. new ways of thinking B. a more interesting place
C. language skills D. different experiences
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50
If you go back far enough, everything lived in the sea. At various points in evolutionary history,
enterprising individuals within many different animal groups moved out onto the land, sometimes even to
the most parched deserts, taking their own private seawater with them in blood and cellular fluids. In
addition to the reptiles, birds, mammals and insects which we see all around us, other groups that have
succeeded out of water include scorpions, snails, crustaceans such as woodlice and land crabs, millipedes
and centipedes, spiders and various worms. And we mustn’t forget the plants, without whose prior
invasion of the land, none of the other migrations could have happened.
Moving from water to land involved a major redesign of every aspect of life, including breathing and
reproduction. Nevertheless, a good number of thoroughgoing land animals later turned around, abandoned
their hard-earned terrestrial re-tooling, and returned to the water again. Seals have only gone part way
back. They show us what the intermediates might have been like, on the way to extreme cases such as
whales and dugongs. Whales (including the small whales we call dolphins) and dugongs, with their close
cousins, the manatees, ceased to be land creatures altogether and reverted to the full marine habits of their
remote ancestors. They don’t even come ashore to breed. They do, however, still breathe air, having never
developed anything equivalent to the gills of their earlier marine incarnation. Turtles went back to the sea
a very long time ago and, like all vertebrate returnees to the water, they breathe air. However, they are, in
one respect, less fully given back to the water than whales or dugongs, for turtles still lay their eggs on
beaches.
There is evidence that all modem turtles are descended from a terrestrial ancestor which lived before
most of the dinosaurs. There are two key fossils called Proganochelys quenstedti and Palaeochersis
talampayensis dating from early dinosaur times, which appear to be close to the ancestry of all modem
turtles and tortoise. You might wonder how we can tell whether fossil animals lived in land or in water,
especially if only fragments are found. Sometimes it’s obvious. Ichthyosaurs were reptilian
contemporaries of the dinosaurs, with fins and streamlined bodies. The fossils look like dolphins
and they surely lived like dolphins, in the water. With turtles it is a little less obvious. One way to tell is
by measuring the bones of their forelimbs.
Question 44: Which of the following best serves as the main idea for the passage?
A. The relationship between terrestrial species and marine creatures.
 B. The reasons why species had to change their living place.
C. The evidences of the time marine animals moved to land.
D. The evolution of marine species in changing places to live.
Question 45: As mentioned in paragraph 2, which of the following species returned to the water least
completely?
A. Manatees B. Whales C. Dugongs D. Turtles
Question 46: The word “ceased” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. got familiar B. soon became
C. stopped happening or existing D. began to happen or exist
Question 47: The word “incarnation” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by _______.
A. evolution B. ancestor C. natural selection D. embodiment
Question 48: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Apart from breathing and breeding, marine species were expected to change nothing to live on
land.
B. Seals are able to live on land and in the water.
C. Some terrestrial habits were remained when the species reverted to water life.
D. Proganochelys quenstedti and Palaeochersis talampayensis appear to be close to the ancestry of all
modern turtles and tortoise.
Question 49: What does the word “they” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. dolphins B. fragments C. ichthyosaurs D. turtles
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that _______.
A. it’s clear to determine the living places of all species through the fragments found
B. the body features of the fossil animals help scientists to distinguish the terrestrial and marine
species
C. turtles’ ancestor and dinosaurs became extinct contemporarily
D. the fossils of turtles and tortoises might have the similar appearances with dolphins

ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
02 2023
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. than B. thumb C. thank D. think
Question 2: A. habitat B. campfire C. survive D. wildlife
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. hacker B. evolve C. software D. marvel
Question 4: A. economics B. philosophy C. experiment D. biology
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5:The movie ______ by the producer will be released next month.
A. produces B. producing C. produced D. is producing
Question 6: Learning a new language is _______ than learning a new skill on the computer.
A. difficult B. most difficult C. the most difficult D. more difficult
Question 7: _______, we will leave for the conference at the City Hall.
A. As soon as it stops raining B. Once it stopped raining
 C. When it had stopped raining D. While it was stopping raining
Question 8:He was amazed ______ the beauty of the sunset.
A. in B. by C. with D. of
Question 9: Michael returned to his hometown last summer, _______?
A. won't he B. doesn't he C. didn't he D. hasn't he
Question 10: I bought ___ new shirt yesterday. It was very nice.
A. Ø (no article) B. an C. the D. a
Question 11: You’ll get a better _______ of exchange at another bank.
A. worth B. value C. rate D. charge
Question 12: I could not _______ the lecture at all. It was too difficult for me.
A. hold on B. take in C. make off D. get along
Question 13: Sarah said she would like _________ Paris someday to see the Eiffel Tower.
A. visit B. to visit C. visiting D. visited
Question 14: I always get ________ in my stomach before visiting the dentist. This is really hard for me.
A. worms B. mosquitoes C. crabs D. butterflies
Question 15: He_________ into the house to steal things, she was bitten by a dog.
A. broke B. breaking C. was breaking D. has broken
Question 16: It is important to ________ in mind that these financial consequences have remained largely
hidden
A. know B. give C. hold D. bear
Question 17: My close friend ________ a new tablet on her birthday last week
A. was given B. was giving C. gives D. has given
Question 18: Her ________ has declined since her return from exile two years ago.
A. popularity B. popularly C. popularize D. popular
Question 19: There is a ________ mood everywhere in in the world on New Year's Day.
A. optimistic B. constant C. popular D. festive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: Minh is talking to Thomas after his test.
- Minh: "My first English test was not as good as I expected." - Thomas: " _______ "
A. Good Heavens! B. Never mind, better job next time!
C. That's brilliant enough! D. It's okay. Don't worry.
Question 21: Ann and John is talking about social network.
- Ann: "Today social network plays an important role in communication.” - John: “ ________ ”
A. It's rubbish B. I'm afraid I don't know
C. I don't agree with you D. I agree with you
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment,
A. consideration B. worry C. ease D. speculation
Question 23: My brother has become a bit of couch potato since he stopped playing football.
A. a nice person B. a kind person C. a live wire D. a lazy person
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Children brought up in a caring environment tend to grow more sympathetic towards others.
A. dishonest B. healthy C. loving D. hateful
Question 25: According to the officials of the MOET, reopening schools is inevitable since the vaccine
rate is high now.
A. unlikely B. doubtful C. unavoidable D. dispensable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: She started driving to work one month ago.
A. She has driven to work since one month.
B. It is one month when she started driving to work.
C. She has driven to work for one month.
D. It was one month after she started driving to work.
Question 27: It’s important that you pay attention to the lecture.
A. You must pay attention to the lecture.
B. You shouldn’t pay attention to the lecture.
C. You can pay attention to the lecture.
D. You needn’t pay attention to the lecture.
Question 28: “I had lunch with my friends last month,” Jean said.
A. Jean said that she had had lunch with her friends the previous month.
B. Jean said that I had had lunch with my friends the previous month.
C. Jean said that I had lunch with her friends last month.
D. Jean said that she would have lunch with her friends last month.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 29: The main cause of the strike was the management’s refusal to give further consideration
A B
to the question of pay differences.
C D
Question 30: A turtle differs from all other reptiles in that its body is encased in a protective shell of
A B
their own.
C D
Question 31: Last Sunday is so beautiful a day that we took a drive in the country.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: She tested positive for Covid-19. She isolated herself to protect other people in her
community.
A. Had she tested positive for Covid-19, she would have isolated herself to protect other people in her
community,
B. Not only did she test positive for Covid-19 but she also isolated herself to protect other people in
her community.
C. Only when had she tested positive for Covid-19, she isolated herself to protect other people in her
community.
D. No sooner had she tested positive for Covid-19 than she isolated herself to protect other people in
her community.
Question 33: My father wants to help me with the assignments. He doesn't have time.
A. If my father had had time, he could help me with the assignments.
B. Provided my father has time, he cannot help me with the assignments.
C. My father wishes he had time so that he could help me with the assignments.
D. If only my father had time, he couldn't help me with the assignments.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
The outbreak of COVID-19 is an unprecedented public health crisis, touching nearly all countries
and (34) ________ across the world. The health impacts of COVID-19 are devastating and, rightly, in the
forefront of our minds, cross our media, and impacting people's lives and livelihoods across the world. One
of the most tangible outcomes of COVID-19 is the ever-increasing socio-economic gap between learners.
Over 365 million children are missing out on important school feeding programmes (35) ________ keep
them healthy and motivated to learn. Moreover, families may be pushed to (36) ________ to negative
coping mechanisms to meet their needs, including child labour or reducing the number and quality of meals
at a time when staying healthy and keeping a strong immune system is particularly important.
Home learning may itself be a source of stress for families and learners, with pressure to take on
new responsibilities. (37) ________ children are suffering from anxiety, living without access to the
internet or other means required to benefit from distance learning. Some older children are stressed about
missing months of education (38) ________ they have to care for younger children in the home while
parents and caregivers are working.
(Adapted from https://en.unesco.org/news)
Question 34: A. basics B. communities C. backgrounds D. contexts
Question 35: A. why B. who C. when D. which
Question 36: A. mitigate B. resort C. offer D. worry
Question 37: A. Every B. Others C. Much D. Many
Question 38: A. although B. however C. because D. therefore
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Australians place a high value on independence and personal choice. This means that a teacher or
course tutor will not tell students what to do, but will give them a number of options and suggest they work
out which one is the best in their circumstances. It also means that they are expected to take action if
something goes wrong and seek out resources and support for themselves.
Australians are also prepared to accept a range of opinions rather than believing there is one truth.
This means that in an educational setting, students will be expected to form their own opinions and defend
the reasons for that point of view and the evidence for it.
Australians are uncomfortable with differences in status and hence idealise the idea of treating
everyone equally. An illustration of this is that most adult Australians call each other by their first names.
This concern with equality means that Australians are uncomfortable taking anything too seriously and are
even ready to joke about themselves.
Australians believe that life should have a balance between work and leisure time. As a consequence,
some students may be critical of others who they perceive as doing nothing but study. Australian notions
of privacy mean that areas such as financial matters, appearance and relationships are only discussed with
close friends. While people may volunteer such information, they may resent someone actually asking them
unless the friendship is firmly established. Even then, it is considered very impolite to ask someone what
they earn.
Question 39: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. A story about Australia B. Australian culture shock
C. Things to do in Australia D. Australian culture
Question 40: The word "them" in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. circumstances B. Australians C. options D. students
Question 41: In paragraph 3, most adult Australians call each other by their first names because _______.
A. Australians are difficult to remember people's surnames
B. Australians restrict class discrimination
C. Australians get on well with each other
D. Calling each other by their first names makes them friendlier
Question 42: The word "critical” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. faultfinding B. grateful C. complimentary D. appreciative
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Asking someone what they earn is considered fairly polite.
 B. Australians are prepared to accept a range of opinions.
C. Students in Australia will be expected to form their own opinions.
D. A teacher or course tutor will not tell students what to do.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50
There have been many famous detectives in literature. But one of the first-and certainly the most
famous is Sherlock Holmes. Holmes was created by the British writer Sir Arthur Conan Doyle in the late
nineteenth century.
Sherlock Holmes made his first appearance in the work A Study in Scarlet, which was published in
1887. Holmes instantly became a popular literary figure with the general populace, who demanded that
Doyle write more stories involving him. Doyle compiled and eventually wound up writing fifty-six short
stories and four novels that featured Holmes. While he took a break of several years from creating stories
about Holmes, Doyle continued to write Holmes stories until 1927. Among the most famous of all the
works featuring Holmes are The Hound of the Baskervilles, The Blue Carbuncle, and A Scandal in
Bohemia
One of the reasons that Sherlock Holmes was so popular concerns the method he employs to solve his
cases: logic. Together with his partner, Dr. Watson, Holmes uses his powers of observation to detect clues
that can help him solve the cases he accepts. Holmes has an incredibly sharp mind that enables him to
determine who the guilty party is or what the problem is. Holmes also is a master of disguise, which he
proves many times, and he is skilled at boxing as well as sword fighting.
While Holmes often solves cases that are unrelated to one another, he has a nemesis with whom he
comes into both direct and indirect conflict in several stories. That person is Professor Moriarty, the leader
of a crime ring in London. In one of the stories, The Final Problem, Holmes and Moriarty fight one another
and fall to their deaths by plunging down a steep cliff near a waterfall. When he wrote that story, Doyle had
tired of Holmes and wanted to kill off the character. He then refrained from writing about Holmes for
many years but public demand for more detective stories induced him to bring Holmes back from the dead
and to continue writing.
(Adapted from Reading Intermediate)
Question 44: What is the best title for the passage?
A. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle: The Creator of Sherlock Holmes
B. The Most Famous Detectives in the World
C. Sherlock Holmes and Dr. Watson
D. A Brief Biography of Sherlock Holmes
Question 45: The word “him” in paragraph 2 refers to ________
A. Sherlock Holmes B. criminal C. children D. populace
Question 46: In paragraph 4, the word “nemesis” is closest in meaning to ________
A. competitor B. rival C. peer D. partner
Question 47: According to the passage, which is NOT TRUE about Sherlock Holmes?
A. He was fluent in several foreign languages.
B. He often resorted to fighting during his investigations.
C. He relied upon logic to solve various mysteries.
D. He discouraged Dr. Watson to become more observant.
Question 48: In paragraph 4, the phrase “refrained from” is closest in meaning to ________
A. continued B. resumed C. postponed D. stopped
Question 49: What does the author imply about Professor Moriarty?
A. There is an unknown reason why he engaged in a life of crime.
B. Critics consider him to be the greatest literary villain in history,
C. Sherlock Holmes and he are related to one another.
D. He fails to encounter Holmes in some stories he is involved in.
Question 50: Why did Doyle kill Sherlock Holmes in one of his stories?
 A. He had no desire to write about Holmes anymore.
B. Killing Holmes would help Doyle increase his sales.
C. It was too difficult for him to come up with new storylines.
D. His fans demanded that Holmes be killed off.

ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 03 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
(Đề thi có 05 trang) 2023
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. thoughtful B. threaten C. therefore D. thin
Question 2. A. idiot B. idea C. idol D. ideal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. conceal B. contain C. conserve D. conquer
Question 4. A. inflation B. maximum C. applicant D. character
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. The conference _______ by non-governmental organizations was about globalization.
A. plans B. planning C. planned D. is planning
Question 6. He arrived _______ than anyone else, so he had to wait more than an hour.
A. earlier B. more early C. early D. earliest
Question 7. As soon as he _______ dinner, he will take the children for a walk to a nearby playground.
A. finishes B. will finish C. had finished D. finished
Question 8. Police said the thieves were obviously well acquainted _______ the alarm system at the
department store.
A. with B. to C. of D. in
Question 9. His parents don't approve of what he does, _______?
A. do they B. don’t they C. did they D. didn’t they
Question 10. Air pollution is getting more and more serious in _______ big cities such as Hanoi and
Beijing.
A. the B. a C. an D. x
Question 11. Yesterday the naval authorities _______ the reports in Friday’s newspapers that they had
exploded three bombs near an unknown submarine.
A. published B. confirmed C. re-stated D. agreed
Question 12. She had been depressed all day but she started to _______ after she heard that she was
promoted.
A. turn up B. cheer up C. take up D. break up
Question 13. In the sustainable agriculture, farmers try _______ the use of chemicals and fertilizers.
A. to limit B. limiting C. limited D. limit
Question 14. It’s a good idea in theory, but it’s going to be hard to put in into ________.
A. practice B. trial C. test D. examination
Question 15. Yesterday I _______ in the park when I saw Dick playing football.
A. was walking B. is walking C. has walked D. has been walking
Question 16. Laura had a blazing _______ with Eddie and stormed out of the house.
A. word B. row C. gossip D. chat
Question 17. The trees _______ more and more in our countryside next year.
A. will plant B. will be planted C. are planted D. plant
Question 18. To many children, playing computer games is a form of _______.
A. relax B. relaxingly C. relaxation D. relaxed
Question 19. An important rule in Tim's family is that they have to pay _______ visits to their
grandparents in the countryside.
A. customary B. normal C. usual D. regular
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 20. Sue and Anne are talking about their future plans.
- Sue: “I am not interested in the idea of taking a gap year and going backpacking in Nepal.”
- Anne: “Well, _______.”
A. I am B. help yourself C. neither do I D. that’s life
Question 21. Jack and Peter are talking about their plan for this weekend.
- Jack: “Why don’t we visit the imperial citadel this weekend?” - Peter: “_______.”
A. To learn more about its history B. That’s a great idea
C. Because it is very old D. I couldn’t agree with you more
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22. The ASEAN Foreign Ministers had candid and fruitful discussions on ASEAN's priorities for
the year ahead, as well as deep exchanges on regional and international developments.
A. frank B. personal C. insincere D. dishonest
Question 23. They are always optimistic although they don’t have a penny to their name.
A. are very poor B. are very rich C. are very mean D. are very healthy
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24. We can never feel fulfilled by following someone else's dreams: independent living is the
only way to find true satisfaction.
A. amused B. frightened C. satisfied D. tired
Question 25. The sun is a powerful energy source, and this energy source can be harnessed by installing
solar panels.
A. depleted B. exploited C. devastated D. expressed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26. It isn’t necessary for us to discuss this matter in great detail.
A. We should discuss this matter in great detail.
B. We might discuss this matter in great detail.
C. We needn’t discuss this matter in great detail.
D. We mustn’t discuss this matter in great detail.
Question 27. The last time I talked to Rose was three years ago.
A. I didn't talk to Rose three years ago. B. I have talked to Rose for three years.
C. I haven't talked to Rose for three years. D. I hadn't talked to Rose for three years.
Question 28. “Why didn’t you send me the brochure?” Mr. William asked the agent.
A. Mr. William asked the agent why she didn’t send him the brochure.
B. Mr. William asked the agent to send him the brochure.
C. Mr. William asked the agent not to send him the brochure.
D. Mr. William asked the agent why she had not sent him the brochure.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 29. It will require a collectable effort from the government, providers, and the media to meet our
goals.
A. collectable B. effort C. government D. media
Question 30. Her last book is published in many languages 5 years ago.
A. last B. is C. published D. years
Question 31. ASEAN aims at promoting economic growth, regional peace as well
as providing opportunities for their members.
A. economic growth B. their C. providing D. aims at
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32. He was tired this morning. He stayed up late to watch a football match last night.
A. He wouldn't be tired this morning if he had stayed up late to watch a football match last night.
B. He wouldn't have been tired this morning if he had not stayed up late to watch a football match last
night.
C. If he didn't stay up late to watch a football match last night, he wouldn't be tired this morning
D. He would have been tired this morning if he had stayed up late to watch a football match last night.
Question 33. James started working. He then realized that his decision had not been a good one.
A. No sooner had James begun his new job than he knew his decision was wrong.
B. Had James not begun his new job, he would have gone looking for a better one.
C. Since James did not like his new job, he began looking for a better one.
D. Just before James took up his new post, he realized that he was not suited for it.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks.
Testing games
How lucky can you be? Twelve-year-old Eloise Noakes has got the best job in the world – (34)
_______ out new games. A leading company held a competition to find young testers and Eloise was
selected to test games (35) _______ are about to be launched onto the market. Each week she is given a
different game to play before recording her thoughts on a form designed by the company. As the company
director said, “What better way to find out about games than to put them in the hands of the customers who
will make most use of them?” Eloise is (36) _______ with her new job but she also takes it very seriously.
She is allowed to keep the games after testing them. (37) _______, she has decided instead to give them
away to children less fortunate than herself. “I’ve got (38) _______ of games and some children don’t have
any,” she explained.
(Adapted from Cambridge English First for Schools
12015)
Question 34. A. doing B. trying C. carrying D. finding
Question 35. A. whom B. whose C. which D. who
Question 36.A. amused B. proud C. thankful D. delighted
Question 37.A. However B. Although C. Otherwise D. Moreover
Question 38.A. many B. plenty C. several D. much
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Ostriches
Ostriches are the largest and heaviest birds on earth. They can grow to be as tall as 9 feet and can
weigh as much as 250 pounds. Even though they have wings, they cannot fly. Instead, ostriches have long,
powerful legs that help them to run very fast when they feel threatened. Ostriches use their wings to move
themselves forward and to help them change direction.
Ostriches are native to Africa, where they still live in desert areas and dry, open grasslands called
savannahs. Ostriches can also be found in zoos all over the world. Humans have domesticated ostriches, so
now ostriches live on farms in over a dozen countries, including the United States, China, India, Japan,
Brazil and Costa Rica. They are raised for their meat, skin, and feathers.
 Ostriches like to live in small groups called herds. The male ostrich is called a rooster; the female, a
hen. Baby ostriches are called chicks. The female ostrich lays the eggs, but both the male and the female
take turns sitting on the eggs to keep them warm.
(Adapted from Readtheory.org website)
Question 39. What is the passage mainly about?
A. the male and female ostriches B. all about eggs of ostriches
C. distribution and habitat of ostriches D. facts about ostriches and their habits
Question 40. The word “threatened” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. stolen B. consumed C. saved D. endangered
Question 41. The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. male B. eggs C. ostriches D. female
Question 42. According to the passage, ostriches use their wings to _______.
A. fly faster than most other birds B. move forward and change direction
C. keep their eggs warm in the nest D. scare potential predators away
Question 43. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as the purpose of raising ostriches?
A. meat B. skin C. medicine D. feather
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
The green building movement, started in the 1970s as a way to reduce environmental destruction, is
changing the way buildings are constructed. In the early years, green builders were a small minority, and
their goals of reducing the environmental impact of buildings were considered unrealistic. Now, however,
the movement is growing, as builders have been able to take advantage of new technology.
Green builders try to make use of recycled materials, which means less waste in dumps. Also, they
reduce environmental impact by reducing the energy requirements of a building. One way is to provide an
alternative, non-polluting source of energy. First, with solar panels, it is possible to produce electricity from
the rays of the sun. Once installed, they provide energy at no they cost and with no pollution.
Another solution is to reduce the amount of energy required in a building. It is possible to cut
electricity use noticeably by improving natural lighting and installing low-energy light bulbs. To reduce the
amount of fuel needed for heating or cooling, builders also add insulation to the walls so that the building
stays warmer in winter and cooler in summer.
One example of this advanced design is the Genzyme Center of Cambridge, the most environmentally
responsible office building in America. Every aspect of the design and building had to consider two things:
the need for a safe and pleasant workplace for employees and the need to lessen the negative environmental
impact. 75 percent of the building materials were recycled materials, and the energy use has been reduced
by 43 percent and water use by 32 percent, compared with other buildings of the same size.
In other parts of the world, several large-scale projects have recently been developed according to
green building principles. One of these is in Vauban, Germany, in an area that was once the site of army
housing. The site has been completely rebuilt with houses requiring 30 percent less energy than
conventional ones. These houses, heated by special non-polluting systems, are also equipped with solar
panels.
A larger project is under way in China. The first phase of this project will include houses for 400
families built with solar power, non-polluting bricks, and recycled wall insulation. In a second phase, entire
neighborhoods in six cities will be built. If all goes well, the Chinese government plans to copy these ideas
in new neighborhoods across China.
Green building ideas, on a small or large scale, are spreading. Individuals, companies, and
governments are beginning to see their benefits. Not only are they environmentally friendly, green
buildings improve living and working conditions and also save money in the long run.
(Adapted from "Advanced Reading Power" by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries)
Question 44. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Successful green building projects all over the world
 B. An environmentally friendly approach to constructing buildings
C. New technologies applied to constructing office buildings
D. Economic benefits of environmentally responsible buildings
Question 45. The word "insulation" in paragraph 3 mostly means _______.
A. devices that monitor changes in temperature
B. systems that protect buildings from the sun's rays
C. materials that prevent heat loss and absorption
D. panels that convert solar energy into electricity
Question 46. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 7 as a merit of green buildings?
A. Improving living conditions B. Proving more economical eventually
C. Being friendly to the environment D. Increasing work productivity
Question 47. According to paragraph 1, the environmental goals set by green builders were initially
considered unrealistic presumably because _______.
A. the problems of environment destruction were not prevalent at the time
B. there was an abundance of natural materials for the construction of conventional buildings
C. the potential applications of technology to constructing green buildings were not recognised then
D. there was a lack of green builders at the beginning of the 20th century
Question 48. According to the passage, which of the following statements about green buildings is TRUE?
A. They are environmentally responsible constructions with gardens
B. They have only been built in technologically developed countries
C. They are gaining in popularity in different parts of the world
D. They are more economical and produce no pollution
Question 49. The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. green builders B. recycled materials C. rays of the sun D. solar panels
Question 50. The phrase "under way" in paragraph 6 mostly means _______.
A. being inspected B. being certified C. being notified D. being launched
THE END

ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 04 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
(Đề thi có 05 trang) 2023
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. weather B. sunbathe C. breathe D. apathy
Question 2:A. deal B. teach C. break D. clean
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. desert B. common C. hotel D. temple
Question 4: A. customer B. stationery C. furniture D. deliver
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5:The cake ______ by the baker looks delicious and smells amazing.
A. bakes B. baking C. baked D. is baking
Question 6: The food at the new restaurant is _________ than the old one.
A. delicious B. more delicious C. the most delicious D. deliciouser
Question 7: She'll start exercising _____.
A. when she feels better B. after she is feeling better
 C. before she will feel better D. until she felt better
Question 8: Her new apartment is different ______ her old one.
A. to B. from C. of D. for
Question 9:These books aren’t yours, ____________?
A. are these B. aren’t these C. are they D. aren’t they
Quetion 10: You are ________ only person whose opinion is of any value to me in the present
regrettable circumstances.
A. Ø B. the C. a D.an
Question 11: Americans believe in 'romantic' marriage - a boy and a girl are to each other, fall in
love, and decide to marry each other.
A. loved B. handed C. attracted D. married
Question 12: Mary met her second husband not long after her first marriage ______.
A. broke in B. broke down C. broke up D. broke off
Question 13: They decided ___________ to Japan for their summer holiday.
A. going B. to go C. go D. to going
Question 14: The _____ time was a charm for Korea’s Pyeongchang 2018 Winter Olympic bid
committee.
A. third B. first C. second D. forth
Question 15. Hanh will finish all her work ________________.
A. as soon as her boss returns B. after her boss had returned
C. while her boss was returning D. before her boss returned
Question 16 :Language belongs to everyone, so most people feel that they have a right to ______ an
opinion about it.
A. express B. have C. hold D. take
Question 17: The new shopping mall _____ next month and a grand opening ceremony is being planned.
A. will be opened B. opened C. will open D. opens
Question 18:The woman ____________ about her son’s travelling because there is so much traffic on
the narrow and crowded way to school.
A. worrisome B. worrying C. worriment D. worries
Question 19:Removing one's footwear before entering a home or a temple before worship _______ a
sign of respect, humility, and submissiveness.
A. infers B. refers C. denotes D. deduces
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: “How was the game show last night?” - “_______.”
A. It showed at 8 o'clock. B. Just talking about it.
C. I think it wasn't a good game. D. Great. I gained more knowledge about biology.
Question 21: “What did the meeting discuss? I didn’t attend it because of traffic jam.” - “__________”
A. I didn’t, either. B. That was great.
C. You missed the meeting. D. I’m sorry, I can’t.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. When being interviewed, You should focus on what the interviewer is saying or asking
you.
A. to pay no attention to B. be interested in
C. be related D. express interested in
Question 23. They've always encouraged me in everything I've wanted to do.
A. unpardoned B. misconstrue C. discouraged D. impaired
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24.We should join hands to protect our environment.
A. take up B. put up C. work together D. make decisions
Question 25. The fact that space exploration has increased dramatically in the past thirty years indicates
that we are very eager to learn all we can about our solar system.
A. seriously B. gradually C. significantly D. doubtfully
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: It is essential that all students attend the meeting.
A. All students don't have to attend the meeting.
B. All students must attend the meeting.
C. All students may attend the meeting.
D. All students could attend the meeting.
Question 27: They last visited Paris in 2010.
A. They visited Paris in 2010 for the last time.
B. They didn't visit Paris for the last time in 2010.
C. They haven't visited Paris for the last time in 2010.
D. They have visited Paris for the last time in 2010.
Question 28 My sister asked, "When will you be back from your trip?"
A. My sister asked me when I will be back from my trip.
B. My sister asked me when will I be back from my trip.
C. My sister asked me when I would be back from my trip.
D. My sister asked me when would I be back from my trip..
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29:Though formally close friends, they have now been estranged from each other due to some
A B C
regrettable misunderstandings.
D
Question 30: My close friends spend most of their free time helping the homeless people in the
A B C D
communitylast year.
Question 31. Commercial airliners do not fly in the vicinity of volcanic eruptions because even a
A
small amount of volcanic ash can damage its engines.
B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: My son really hates Math. Its complicated formulas are the reason.
A. If it were not for the complicated formulas, my son would like Math.
B. Unless Math has complicated formulas, my brother will hate it.
C. Since my son really hates Math, its formulas are complicated.
D. Math’s formulas would be complicated if my son didn’t hate it
Question 33: The outcome of the election was never in doubt.
A. At no time was the outcome of the election in doubt.
B. At no time the outcome of the election was in doubt.
C. Never in doubt was the outcome of the election.
D. By no means was the outcome of the election been suspected.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
 The joys and tribulations of being a pet owner! During our lifetime most of us have some experience
of either owning a pet or being in close contact with someone who does. Is there such a thing as “the ideal
pet”? If so what characterizes the ideal pet? Various (34) _______ influence one‟s choice of pet, from
your reasons for getting a pet to_ your lifestyle. For example, although quite(35) ______ pets are
relatively cheap to buy, the cost of upkeepcan be considerable. Everything must be taken into account,
from food (36) __ bedding, to vaccinations and veterinary bills. You must be prepared to spend time on
your pet, this involves shopping for it, cleaning and feeding it. Pets can be demanding and a big
responsibility. Are you prepared to exercise and housetrain an animal or do you prefer a more
independent pet? How much spare room do you have? Is it right to lock an energetic animal into a (37)
_______ space? Do you live near a busy road(38)_______ may threaten the life of your pet? Pets such as
turtles and goldfish can be cheap and convenient, but if you prefer affectionate pets, a friendly cat or dog
would be more appropriate. People get pets for a number of reasons, for company, security or to teach
responsibility to children. Pets can be affectionate and loyal and an excellent source of company as long
as you know what pet suit you and your lifestyle.
Question 34: A. points B. facets C. factors D. elements
Question 35:A. much B. a few C. little D. a
Question 36: A. upbringing B. maintenance C. raising D. and
Question 37: A. reduced B. detained C. confined D. closed
Question 38:A. which B. what C. that D. this
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Whales are the largest animals in the world, and the gentlest creatures we know. Although the whale
is very huge, it is not hindered at all by its size when it is in the water. Whales have tails that end like
flippers. With just a gentle flick, it can propel itself forward. The skin of a whale is so smooth that it does
not create any friction that can slow the whale down. A whale’s breathing hole is located on the top of its
head, so it can breathe without having to completely push its head out of the water. Whales are protected
from the cold seawater by body fat that is called blubber.
Whales live in the ocean but, in terms of behaviors, they are more similar to humans than fish.
They live in family groups and they even travel in groups when they have to migrate from cooler to
warmer waters. The young stay with their parents for as long as fifteen years. Whales are known not to
desert the ill or injured members; instead, they cradle them.
When whales are in danger, there are people who go to great lengths to help them. One such case
occurred in 1988, when three young whales were trapped in the sea. It was close to winter and the sea had
begun to freeze over. Whales are mammals that require oxygen from the air, so the frozen ice was a great
danger to them. All they had then was a tiny hole in the ice for them to breathe through. Volunteers from
all over soon turned up to help these creatures. They cut holes in the ice to provide more breathing holes
for the whales. These holes would also serve as guides for the whales so that they could swim to warmer
waters.
(Trích từ đề minh họa lần 2, 2017)
Question 39: Which of the following best describes the main idea of this passage?
A. Successful attempts to rescue whales all over the world.
B. Some remarkable similarities of whales to humans.
C. Whales as the largest, gentlest but vulnerable creatures.
D. Whales as the only animals to live in warm water.
Question 40: Whales can move easily in water thanks to their______.
A. tail and blubber B. size and head C. tail and skin D. skin and head
Question 41: According to paragraph 2, the author mentions all of the following to show that whales
“are more similar to humans” EXCEPT _______.
A. they do not desert the ill or injured members
B. they do not migrate from cooler to warmer waters
 C. they live in family groups and travel in groups
D. the young stay with their parents for almost fifteen years
Question42 : The word “tiny” in paragraph 3 probably means________ .
A. very small B. very deep C. very fat D. very ugly
Question 43: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to___________.
A. guides B. holes C. the whales D. warmer waters
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Nuclear family, also called elementary family, in sociology and anthropology, is a group of people
who are united by ties of partnership and parenthood and consisting of a pair of adults and their socially
recognized children. Typically, but not always, the adults in a nuclear family are married. Although such
couples are most often a man and a woman, the definition of the nuclear family has expanded with the
advent of same-sex marriage. Children in a nuclear family may be the couple’s biological or adopted
offspring.
Thus defined, the nuclear family was once widely held to be the most basic and universal form of
social organization. Anthropological research, however, has illuminated so much variability of this form
that it is safer to assume that what is universal is a “nuclear family complex” in which the roles of
husband, wife, mother, father, son, daughter, brother, and sister are embodied by people whose biological
relationships do not necessarily conform to the Western definitions of these terms. In matrilineal
societies, for example, a child may be the responsibility not of his biological genitor but of his mother’s
brother, who fulfills the roles typical of Western fatherhood.
Closely related in form to the predominant nuclear-family unit are the conjugal family and the
consanguineal family. As its name implies, the conjugal family is knit together primarily by the marriage
tie and consists of mother, father, their children, and some close relatives. The consanguineal family, on
the other hand, typically groups itself around a unlineal descent group known as a lineage, a form that
reckons kinship through either the father’s or the mother’s line but not both. Whether a culture is
patrilineal or matrilineal, a consanguineal family comprises lineage relatives and consists of parents, their
children, and their children’s children. Rules regarding lineage exogamy are common in these groups;
within a given community, marriages thus create cross-cutting social and political ties between lineages.
The stability of the conjugal family depends on the quality of the marriage of the husband and wife,
a relationship that is more emphasized in the kinds of industrialized, highly mobile societies that
frequently demand that people reside away from their kin groups. The consanguineal family derives its
stability from its corporate nature and its permanence, as its relationships emphasize the perpetuation of
the line.
(Source: https://www.britannica.com/)
Question 44: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The definition of nuclear family B. The types of nuclear family
C. The component of nuclear family D. The relationship of nuclear family
Question 45: According to the passage, the following are members forming a nuclear
family, EXCEPT _________.
A. a man and a woman B. a man and a man
C. a woman and a woman D. children and children
Question 46: The word “illuminated” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. changed B. clarified C. improved D. confused
Question 47: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is TRUE?
A. There are some similarities between conjugal and consanguineous family.
B. The conjugal family depends on marriage to knit its members and close relatives.
C. The consanguineous family relies on both father’s and mother’s line to form its group.
D. The consanguineous family only consists parents and their children.
Question 48: The word “lineage” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by ___________.
 A. ancestry B. generation C. insertion D. incorporation
Question 49: What does the word “its” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. the permanence’s B. the nature’s
C. the stability’s D. the consanguineous family’s
Question 50: What does the author imply in the last paragraph?
A. The married couples must maintain the quality of their marriage to meet the demand of modern
society.
B. Members in each family must preserve their family’s basement to protect their stability.
C. The permanence of the consanguineous family may emphasize its line in society.
D. The industrialized society probably causes many difficulties for the consanguineous family.

ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
05 2023
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------

Họ, tên thí sinh:………………………………………………………………

Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. think B. thank C. theater D. therefore
Question 2: A. find B. think C. drive D. mind
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. effort B. effect C. deafness D. speaker
Question 4: A. committee B. referee C. employee D. refugee
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5:The website ______ by the web developer is user-friendly and easy to navigate.
A. develops B. developing C. developed D. is developing
Question 6: Tom is ________ than David.
A. handsome B. the more handsome C. more handsome D. the most handsome
Question 7:John will start studying for the exam _____.
A. after he finished his lunch B. when he finishes his lunch
C. before he finished his lunch D. until he is finishing his lunch
Question 8:The manager is directly responsible ___________ the efficient running of the office
A. about B. for C. at D. in
Question 9:Silly is going to my party, _____?
A. isn’t she B. will she C. won’t she D. doesn’t she
Question 10:We needed ________ house to live in when we were in London.
A. a B. the C. any D. Ø
Question 11 :"How was your exam?" "A couple of questions were tricky, but on the . it was pretty
easy
A. spot B. general C. hand D. whole
Question 12: The United States __________ some 150,000 military reservists when the war broke out.
A. came about B. caught on C. called up D. carried out
Question 13: We wish _______ to college next year.
A. go B. to go C. going D. shall go
Question 14: I was left out in the ______ in the annual promotions in the company.
A. rain B. sun C. snow D. cold
Question 15: I _________ TV when the phone rang.
A. was watching B. was watched C. was watch D. is watching
Question 16: Population explosion seems to surpass the ability of the earth to the demand for food.
A. make B. need C. have D. meet
Question 17: The company hopes that their new product launch ________by many potential customers.
A. will be attended B. will attend C. was attended D. will be attending
Question 18: Mr Lam is a cycle driver in Ho Chi Minh City, who usually has a ________ working day.
A. business B. busy C. busily D. busying
Question 19. Despite the initial _________ result, they decided to go on with the proposed scheme.
A. courage B. courageous C. discouraged D. discouraging
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20. John and Mary are talking about what to do after class.
- John: “______” - Mary: “Yes, I’d love to.”
A. Do you often have time for a drink after class? B. Would you like to have a drink after class?
C. Do you often go out for a drink after class? D. Would you like tea or coffee after class?
Question 21. Paul and Daisy are discussing life in the future.
- Paul: “I believe space travel will become more affordable for many people in the future.”
- Daisy: “______”
A. It doesn’t matter at all. B. There’s no doubt about that.
C. It is very kind of you to say so. D. I am sorry to hear that.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Those who advocate for doctor-assisted suicide say the terminally ill should not have
to suffer.
A. support B. oppose C. annul D. convict
Question 23. James may get into hot water when driving at full speed after drinking.
A. get into trouble B. fall into disuse C. remain calm D. stay safe
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24. American children customarily go trick-or-treating on Halloween.
A. inevitably B. happily C. traditionally D. readily
Question 25. At times, I look at him and wonder what is going on his mind.
A. Never B. Always C. Hardly D. Sometimes
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: Surely John won't forget his wedding anniversary again.
A. John could have forgotten his wedding anniversary again.
B. John must forget his wedding anniversary again.
C. John may forget his wedding anniversary again.
D. John can't forget his wedding anniversary again.
Question 27:The only time I’ve ever eaten sushi was when I was on a trip to Japan.
A. I haven't eaten sushi since my trip to Japan.
B. I often eat sushi on my trips to Japan.
C. When I went to Japan, I was always eating sushi.
D. I finally ate sushi when I went to Japan.
Question 28: My mother said to me, "Have you finished your homework yet?"
A. My mother asked me if I had finished my homework
 B. My mother told me to finish my homework .
C. My mother reminded me to finish my homework
D. My mother questioned me whether I would finish my homework .
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 29: At the comer of the street is a shop where you can buy something special for your
A B C
significantly other.
D
Question 30: The boy swum the narrow canal in ten minutes to find himself in the base, out of danger.
A B C D
Question 31: A turtle differs from other reptiles in that its body is encased in a protective shell of their
A B C D
own.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: She doesn’t have a car. She can’t drive to work.
A. Provided that she has a car, she can drive to work.
B. If she had a car, she could drive to work.
C. If she has a car, she could drive to work.
D. as if she had a car, she can drive to work.
Question 33: I only realized what I had missed when they told me about it later.
A. Only after I had realized what I had missed did they tell me about it later.
B. As soon as they told me about it I realized what I had missed.
C. Only when they told me about it later did I realize what I had missed.
D. They told me about it and I realized what I had missed.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
In European and North American cultures, body language behaviors can be divided into 2 groups:
open or closed and forward or backward.
Open/closed postures are the easiest to (34)__________. People are open to messages when they
show open hands, face you fully, and have both feet on the grounD. This indicates that they
are (35)__________ to listen to what you are saying, even if they are disagreeing with you. When people
are closed to messages, they have their arms folded or their legs crossed, and they may turn their bodies
away. This body language usually means that people are rejecting your message.
Forward or backward behavior reveals an active(36) _________ a passive reaction to what is being
said. If people lean forward with their bodies toward you, they are actively engaged in your message. They
may be accepting or rejecting it, but their minds are on (37)__________ you are saying. On the other
hand, if people lean back in their chairs or look away from you, or perform activities such as drawing or
cleaning their eyeglasses, you know that they are either passively taking in your message or that they are
ignoring it. In other case, they are not very (38)______ ___ engaged in the conversation.
Adapted from FCE Use of English).
Question 34: A. indicate B. do C. refer D. recognize
Question 35: A. likely B. reluctant C. able D. willing
Question 36: A. or B. but C. and D. so
Question 37: A. who B. what C. that D. things
Question 38. A.much B. many C. little D. more
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
 It used to be that people would drink coffee or tea in the morning to pick them up and get them going
for the day. Then cola drinks hit the market. With lots of caffeine and sugar, these beverages soon became
the pick-me-up of choice for many adults and teenagers. Now drink companies are putting out so-called
“energy drinks.” These beverages have the specific aim of giving tired consumers more energy.
One example of a popular energy drink is Red Bull. The company that puts out this beverage has
stated in interviews that Red Bull is not a thirst quencher. Nor is it meant to be a fluid replacement drink
for athletes. Instead, the beverage is meant to revitalize a tired consumer’s body and mind. In order to do
this, the makers of Red Bull, and other energy drinks, typically add vitamins and certain chemicals to their
beverages. The added chemicals are like chemicals that the body naturally produces for energy. The
vitamins, chemicals, caffeine, and sugar found in these beverages all seem like a sure bet to give a person
energy.
Health professionals are not so sure, though. For one thing, there is not enough evidence to show that
all of the vitamins added to energy drinks actually raise a person’s energy level. Another problem is that
there are so many things in the beverages. Nobody knows for sure how all of the ingredients in energy
drinks work together.
Dr. Brent Bauer, one of the directors at the Mayo Clinic in the US, cautions people about believing
all the claims energy drinks make. He says, “It is plausible if you put all these things together, you will
get a good result.” However, Dr. Bauer adds the mix of ingredients could also have a negative impact on
the body. “We just don’t know at this point,” he says.
(Trích từ đề minh họa lần 1, 2017)
Question 39: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Caffeine is bad for people to drink.
B. It is uncertain whether energy drinks are healthy.
C. Red Bull is the best energy drink.
D. Teenagers should not choose energy drinks.
Question 40: The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to ______.
A. one example B. the company C. Red Bull D. thirst quencher
Question 41: According to the passage, what makes it difficult for researchers to know if an energy drink
gives people energy?
A. Natural chemicals in a person‘s body B. The average age of the consumer
C. The number of beverage makers D. The mixture of various ingredients
Question 42: The word “plausible” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. impossible B. reasonable C. typical D. unlikely
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Bauer does not seem to believe the claims of energy drink makers.
B. Colas have been on the market longer than energy drinks.
C. It has been scientifically proved that energy drinks work.
D. The makers of Red Bull say that it can revitalize a person.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
The cause of tooth decay is acid, which is produced by bacteria in the mouth. The acid removes
minerals from tooth enamel, allowing tooth decay to begin; the saliva in your mouth encourages
remineralization and neutralizes the acid. The rate at which bacteria in the mouth produce acid depends on
the amount of plaque on the teeth, the composition of the microbial flora, and whether the bacteria of the
plaque have been "primed" by frequent exposure to sugar. To keep your teeth healthy, a regular dental
hygiene program should be followed.
Removing plaque with a toothbrush and dental floss temporarily reduces the numbers of bacteria in
the mouth and thus reduces tooth decay. It also makes the surfaces of the teeth more accessible, enabling
saliva to neutralize acid and remineralize lesions. If fluoride is present in drinking water when teeth are
forming, some fluoride is incorporated into the enamel of the teeth, making them more resistant to attack
by acid. Fluoride toothpaste seems to act in another way, by promoting the remineralization of early
carious lesions.
In addition to a regular dental hygiene program, a good way to keep your teeth healthy is to reduce
your intake of sweet food. The least cavity-causing way to eat sweets is to have them with meals and not
between. The number of times you eat sweets rather than the total amount determines how much harmful
acid the bacteria in your saliva produce. But the amount of sweets influences the quality of your
saliva. Avoid, if you can, sticky sweets that stay in your mouth a long time. Also try to brush and floss
your teeth after eating sugary foods. Even rinsing your mouth with water is effective.
Whenever possible, eat foods with fiber, such as raw carrot sticks, apples, celery sticks, etc.,
that scrape off plaque, acting as a toothbrush. Cavities can be greatly reduced if these rules are followed
when eating sweets.
Question 44: What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Good nutrition B. Food with fiber
C. Ways to keep your teeth healthy D. Fluoridization and cavities
Question 45: The word “it” refers to_________.
A. dental floss B. bacteria C. removal of plaque D. plaque
Question 46: According to the passage, all of the following statements about plaque are true
EXCEPT_________.
A. It consists of acid producing bacteria
B. It is not affected by eating sweets
C. It can be removed from teeth by brushing and flossing
D. It reduces the positive effect of saliva
Question 47: We can infer from the passage that one benefit of fluoride to healthy teeth is_________.
A. It strengthens tooth enamel
B. It stimulates saliva production
C. It makes teeth whiter
D. It is a replacement for brushing and flossing in dental care
Question 48: What can be concluded from the passage about sweets?
A. All sweets should be avoided.
B. Sweets should be eaten with care.
C. It is better to eat sweets a little at a time throughout the day.
D. Sticky sweets are less harmful than other sweets.
Question 49: The author of the passage states that the amount of acid produced by the bacteria in your
saliva increases_________.
A. with the amount of sweets you eat B. with the number of times you eat sweets
C. if you eat sweets with your meals D. if you eat sticky sweets
Question 50: The word "scrape off" is closest in meaning to_________.
A. repel B. rub together with C. remove D. dissolve