Database Administator MCQ

PPSC Exam
Previous Years Question Paper

PPSC Competitive Exam for the Post of
Database Administrator
Question Paper Along with Answer Key
Date: 21st June, 2014

Time: 03: 00 PM to 05:00 PM
Total Number of Questions: 100
Q 1.
Which of the following ensure that changes made to the database by authorized users do not
result in a loss of data consistency?
Options:
A) Locking
B) Primary Key
C) Integrity constraints
D) Tuning
Correct Option: Option “C”

Q 2.
A user account is identified by a user name and defines the attributes of the user, including
Options:
A) Authentication method
B) Password for database authentication
C) Default table spaces for permanent and temporary data storage
D) All of the options
Correct Option: Option “D”

Q 3.
If the user will be creating database objects, then give the ___________ on each tablespace in
which the objects will be created.
Options:
A) Constraints
B) user account a space usage quota
C) Security
D) Reference
Correct Option: Option “B”

Q 4.
When you create a user account, you are also implicitly creating a __________ for that user.
Options:
A) Roll
B) Schema
C) Database
D) Privileges

Q 5.
A schema is a logical container for the database objects such as
Options:
A) Table
B) View
C) Triggers

Q 6.
When you delete a user, you must either simultaneously delete all _______ objects of that user
Options:
A) Rolls
B) Schema
C) Tables
D) Constraints

Q 7.
In addition to the user accounts that you create, the database includes several user accounts
that are automatically created upon
Options:
A) Installation
B) Configuration
C) Modification
D) Updation
Correct Option: Option “A”

Q 8.
______________ are highly privileged accounts, and are needed only by individuals authorized
to perform administrative tasks such as starting and stopping the database, managing database
memory and storage, creating and managing database users, and so on.
Options:
A) Normal Account
B) Administrative accounts
C) User account
D) Locked Account

Q 9.
Each sample schema has ____________ associated with it.
Options:
A) a user account
B) Tables
C) SQL
D) Procedures

Q 10.
A ____________ gives a user the ability to perform a particular action, or to perform an action
on any schema objects of a particular type.
Options:
A) Object Privilage
B) system privilege
C) Table Privilege
D) Schema Privilege

Q 11.
the system privilege CREATE TABLE permits a user to create tables in the ________ associated
with that user
Options:
A) Space
B) Database
C) Rolls
D) Schema

Q 12.
Which are statements that are executed automatically by the system as a side effect of a
modification to the database?
Options:
A) Triggers
B) Queries
C) Procedure
D) Commands

Q 13.
Managing privileges is made easier by using ________, which are named groups of related
privileges.
Options:
A) System
B) Roles
C) SQL
D) Commands

Q 14.
Unlike ___________, roles are not contained in any schema.
Options:
A) Database
B) Table
C) schema objects
D) Procedure

Q 15.
Which of the following Enables a user to create, modify, and delete certain types of schema
objects in the schema associated with that user?
Options:
A) SYS
B) CONNECT
C) DBA
D) RESOURCES

Q 16.
DBA Enables a user to perform most administrative functions, including
Options:
A) creating users and granting privileges;
B) creating and granting roles;
C) creating, modifying, and deleting schema objects in any schema

Q 17.
The ----------_____________ system privilege allows a user to perform basic operational tasks,
but without the ability to look at user data.
Options:
A) SYSDBA
B) SYSOPER
C) SYSUSER
D) None of the options

Q 18.
The _______ user is automatically granted the SYSDBA privilege upon installation.
Options:
A) SYS
B) DBA
C) OPER
D) Normal

Q 19.
Which of the following is not a valid system privilege?
Options:
A) CREATE TABLE
B) CREATE VIEW
C) CREATE CONSTRAINTS
D) CREATE SEQUENCE

Q 20.
The relation schema for a weak entity set must include the ___________ of the entity set on
which the weak entity set depends.
Options:
A) primary key
B) Foreign Key
C) Unique Key
D) Not Null

Q 21.
Database modifications can cause violations of
Options:
A) Primary Key Violation
B) referential integrity
C) Security Violation
D) Null Violation

Q 22.
If a tuple t2 is inserted into r2, the system must ensure that there is a tuple t1 in r1 such that
Options:
A) σα = t1[K] (r2)
B) t2’[α] ∈ ΠK (r1)
C) t1[K] = t2[α]
D) σα = t1[K] (r2)

Q 23.
Which statements concerning the creation of a view are true?
Options:
A) A constraint name must be provided when using the WITH CHECK OPTION clause
B) View columns that are the result of derived values must be given a column alias
C) When the view already exists, using the OR REPLACE option require the re-granting of the
object privileges previously granted on the view

Q 24.
If a tuple t1 is updated in r1, and the update modifies values for the primary key (K), then a test
similar to the delete case is made. The system must compute
Options:
A) σα = t1[K] (r2)
B) t2’[α] ∈ ΠK (r1)
C) t1[K] = t2[α]
D) σα = t1[K] (r2)

Q 25.
If a tuple t1 is deleted from r1, the system must compute the set of tuples in r2 that reference
t1:
Options:
A) σα = t1[K] (r2)
B) t2’[α] ∈ ΠK (r1)
C) t1[K] = t2[α]
D) σα = t1[K] (r2)

Q 26.
Although a user may be denied direct access to a relation, that user may be allowed to access
part of that relation through a ___________.
Options:
A) Table
B) View
C) Trigger
D) Database

Q 27.
The root of authorization graph is
Options:
A) the database administrator
B) The user
C) Database

Q 28.
Which of the following refers to protection from malicious access?
Options:
A) Database Access
B) Database Integrity
C) Database security
D) Database updation

Q 29.
Authorizations can be granted to___________, in exactly the same fashion as they are granted
to individual users.
Options:
A) Database
B) Tables
C) View
D) Roles

Q 30.
Which of the following is a log of all changes (inserts/deletes/updates) to the database, along
with information such as which user performed the change and when the change was
performed.
Options:
A) An audit trail
B) A back up
C) A commit
D) A roll back

Q 31.
Triggers are used to ensure some types of __________.
Options:
A) Security
B) Integrity
C) Roll management
D) Performance Tuning

Q 32.
The select privilege corresponds to the
Options:
A) Write privilege
B) readprivilege.
C) Update Privilege
D) Delete Privilege

Q 33.
The SQL ____________ includes commands to grant and revoke privileges.
Options:
A) Data Control Language
B) Data manipulation Language
C) Data Definition Language
D) Procedures

Q 34.
Which of the following allows the creation of new relations?
Options:
A) Resource authorization
B) Index authorization
C) Alteration authorization
D) Drop authorization

Q 35.
Domain constraints are the most elementary form of _______________.
Options:
A) Integrity Constraints
B) Referential Constraint
C) CHECK constraint
D) Unique Constraint

Q 36.
An__________ is a predicate expressing a condition that we wish the database always to satisfy.
Options:
A) Assertion
B) SQL
C) Schema
D) Object

Q 37.
To allow the database administrator to regulate the use of system resources, it is necessary to
treat ________ creation as a privilege.
Options:
A) User
B) Roll
C) Database
D) Index

Q 38.
Which of the following can hide data that a user does not need to see?
Options:
A) View
B) Table
C) Database
D) Procedure

Q 39.
Attributes of _________ are allowed to be null, provided that they have not otherwise been
declared to be non-null.
Options:
A) foreign keys
B) Primary Key
C) Unique Key
D) Null constraint

Q 40.
__________ are a structure for performance enhancements. However, __________ also
consume space, and all database modifications are required to update __________.
Options:
A) Constraints
B) Indices
C) Tables
D) References

Q 41.
_______ values complicate the semantics of referential integrity constraints in SQL.
Options:
A) Null
B) Alphabetic
C) Numeric
D) Alphanumeric

Q 42.
A user with ________ who creates a new relation is given all privileges on that relation
automatically.
Options:
A) Resource authorization
B) Index authorization
C) Alteration authorization
D) Drop authorization

Q 43.
By default, ___________ references the primary key attributes of the referenced table.
Options:
A) a foreign key
B) a unique key
C) A primary key

Q 44.
The database stores _________ just as if they were regular data, so that they are persistent and
are accessible to all database operations.
Options:
A) Triggers
B) Procedures
C) SQL
D) Tables

Q 45.
Foreign keys can be specified as part of the SQL _____________ statement by using the foreign
key clause.
Options:
A) Create Schema
B) Create User
C) Create Database
D) Create Table

Q 46.
If a user deletes all _________ of a relation, the relation still exists, but it is empty.
Options:
A) Tuples
B) Rows
C) Constraints
D) Schema

Q 47.
Which of the followingrefers to all current and future users of the system?
Options:
A) SYS
B) DBA
C) User
D) Public

Q 48.
Which of the following of an object (relation/view/role) gets all privileges on the object,
including the privilege to grant privileges to others?
Options:
A) Creator
B) SYSDBA
C) SYSOPER
D) Creator and SYSDBA

Q 49.
Ensuring atomicity is the responsibility of the database system itself; specifically, it is handled
by a component called the
Options:
A) Recovery Management Component.
B) Transaction Management Component
C) Concurrency Control Component
D) User Management

Q 50.
Either all operations of the transaction are reflected properly in the database, or none are
Options:
A) Atomicity
B) Consistency
C) Isolation
D) Durability

Q 51.
Execution of a transaction in isolation (that is, with no other transaction executing concurrently)
preserves the consistency of the database.
Options:
A) Atomicity
B) Consistency
C) Isolation
D) Durability

Q 52.
each transaction is unaware of other transactions executing concurrently in the system is called
Options:
A) Atomicity
B) Consistency
C) Isolation
D) Durability

Q 53.
After a transaction completes successfully, the changes it has made to the database persist,
even if there are system failures is called
Options:
A) Atomicity
B) Consistency
C) Isolation
D) Durability

Q 54.
Ensuring durability is the responsibility of a component of the database system called
Options:
D) User Management

Q 55.
Ensuring the isolation property is the responsibility of a component of the database system
called
Options:
D) User Management Component

Q 56.
Which of the following technique for atomicity and durability is extremely inefficient in the
context of large databases, since executing a single transaction requires copying the entire
database?
Options:
A) Shadow Copy
B) Replicate
C) Mirror Image

Q 57.
Concurrency control is important for which of the following reasons?
Options:
A) To ensure data integrity when updates occur to the database in a multiuser environment
B) To ensure data integrity when updates occur to the database in a single-user environment
C) To ensure data integrity while reading data occurs to the database in a multiuser environment
D) To ensure data integrity while reading data occurs to the database in a single-user environment

Q 58.
A single transaction failure leads to a series of transaction rollbacks, is called
Options:
A) Transaction recovery
B) Forward Rollback
C) Cascading rollback
D) Error recovery

Q 59.
Which of following is undesirable, since it leads to the undoing of a significant amount of work?
Options:
A) Cascading rollback
B) cascade less schedule
C) Cascading commit
D) Cascading backup

Q 60.
Which of the following is recoverable?
Options:
A) Cascading rollback
B) cascade less schedule
C) Cascading commit
D) Cascading backup

Q 61.
Which of the following is use to ensure that, even when multiple transactions are executed
concurrently, only acceptable schedules are generated, regardless of how the operating-system
time-shares resources (such as CPU time) among the transactions?
Options:
A) Backup and recovery
B) Transaction control
C) Performance tuning
D) concurrency-control schemes

Q 62.
____________ causes the current transaction to abort.
Options:
A) Rollback
B) Commit
C) Exit
D) Save point

Q 63.
Serializability of schedules generated by concurrently executing transactions can be ensured
through one of a variety of mechanisms called
Options:
A) Backup and recovery

Q 64.
Which of the following is responsible for ensuring the atomicity and durability properties of
transactions?
Options:
A) The recovery-management component

Q 65.
If a transaction Ti has obtained a shared-mode lock (denoted by S) on item Q, then
Options:
A) Ti cannot read, and cannot write, Q
B) Ti can read, but cannot write, Q
C) Ti can read, but can write, Q
D) Ti can read, but cannot read, Q

Q 66.
If a transaction Ti has obtained an exclusive-mode lock (denoted by X) on item Q, then
Options:
A) Ti cannot read, and cannot write, Q
B) Ti can read, but cannot write, Q
C) Ti can both read and write Q
D) Ti can read, but cannot read, Q

Q 67.
We shall require that each transaction in the system follow a set of rules, called a ___________,
indicating when a transaction may lock and unlock each of the data items.
Options:
A) Transacation Protocol
B) Backup and recovery protocol
C) Performance Tuning Protocol
D) locking protocol

Q 68.
Locking protocols restrict the number of possible
Options:
A) Schedules
B) Transactions
C) Rollbacks
D) Commit

Q 69.
When a transaction requests a lock on a data item in a particular mode, and no other
transaction has a lock on the same data item in___________, the lock can be granted.
Options:
A) a conflicting mode
B) A transaction mode
C) A recovery mode

Q 70.
A transaction may obtain locks, but may not release any lock is called
Options:
A) Execution phase
B) Growing phase
C) Shrinking phase
D) Recovery phase

Q 71.
A transaction may release locks, but may not obtain any new locks is called
Options:
A) Execution phase
B) Growing phase
C) Shrinking phase
D) Recovery phase

Q 72.
strict two-phase locking protocol requires not only that locking be two phase, but also that all
exclusive-mode locks taken by a transaction be held until that transaction
Options:
A) Stored
B) Recover
C) Rollback
D) Commits

Q 73.
Cascading rollbacks can be avoided by a modification of two-phase locking called the
Options:
A) Normal two-phase locking protocol
B) strict two-phase locking protocol
C) rigorous two-phase locking protocol
D) Lazy two-phase locking protocol

Q 74.
Which of the following requires that all locks be held until the transaction commits
Options:
A) Normal two-phase locking protocol
B) strict two-phase locking protocol
C) rigorous two-phase locking protocol
D) Lazy two-phase locking protocol

Q 75.
Method for determining the serializability order is to select an ordering among transactions in
advance
Options:
A) two-phase locking protocol
B) Locking Protocol
C) Transaction Protocol
D) Timestamp-Based Protocols

Q 76.
explicit locking is being done at a lower level of the tree, but with only shared-mode locks is
called
Options:
A) intention-shared (IS) mode
B) intention-exclusive (IX) mode
C) shared and intention-exclusive (SIX) mode

Q 77.
explicit locking is being done at a lower level, with exclusive-mode or shared-mode locks is
called
Options:

Q 78.
the subtree rooted by that node is locked explicitly in shared mode, and that explicit locking is
being done at a lower level with exclusive-mode locks is called
Options:

Q 79.
The simplest scheme under the first approach requires that each transaction locks all its data
items before it begins execution is called
Options:
A) deadlock prevention
B) deadlock detection
C) deadlock recovery

Q 80.
Recover from the deadlock when the detection algorithm determines that a deadlock exists is
called
Options:

Q 81.
Maintain information about the current allocation of data items to transactions, as well as any
outstanding data item requests is called
Options:

Q 82.
Which of the following is not a valid failure classification of database?
Options:
A) Transaction failure
B) System crash
C) Disk failure
D) Network Failure

Q 83.
The most widely used structure for recording database modifications is the
Options:
A) Log
B) Backup
C) Transaction
D) Locks

Q 84.
The ____________ensures transaction atomicity by recording all database modifications in the
log, but deferring the execution of all write operations of a transaction until the transaction
partially commits.
Options:
A) Immediate Database Modification
B) deferred-modification technique
C) Checkpoints
D) Shadow Paging

Q 85.
The redo operation must be_______; that is, executing it several times must be equivalent to
executing it once.
Options:
A) Transitive
B) Commutative
C) idempotent
D) Identity

Q 86.
The _________________ allows database modifications to be output to the database while the
transaction is still in the active state.
Options:
C) Checkpoints
D) Shadow Paging

Q 87.
Transactions are not allowed to perform any update actions, such as writing to a buffer block or
writing a log record, while a __________________ is in progress.
Options:
C) Checkpoints
D) Shadow Paging

Q 88.
An alternative to log-based crash-recovery techniques is
Options:
C) Checkpoints
D) Shadow Paging

Q 89.
To __________ a failed transaction, we must undo the updates performed by the transaction.
Options:
A) Commit
B) roll back
C) Update
D) Delete

Q 90.
A typical transaction server system today consists of multiple processes accessing data in shared
memory. The processes that form part of the database system include
Options:
A) Server processes
B) Lock manager process
C) Database writer process

Q 91.
Data that are shipped to a client on behalf of a transaction can be stored at the client, even
after the transaction completes is called
Options:
A) Page shipping
B) Locking
C) Data caching
D) Lock caching

Q 92.
Which of the following are measures of performance of a database system?
Options:
A) Throughput
B) Response Time
C) Error Recover
D) Failure Transaction Recovery
Correct Option: Option “A,B”

Q 93.
Which of the following are techniques for both ordered indexing and hashing?
Options:
A) Access types
B) Access time
C) Insertion time

Q 94.
An index record appears for only some of the search-key values is called
Options:
A) Primary Index
B) Dense index
C) Sparse index
D) Secondary Index

Q 95.
An index record appears for every search-key value in the file is called
Options:
A) Primary Index
B) Dense index
C) Sparse index
D) Secondary Index

Q 96.
____________ must be dense, with an index entry for every search-key value, and a pointer to
every record in the file.
Options:
A) Primary Index
B) Dense index
C) Sparse index
D) Secondary Index

Q 97.
In DBMS all files are ordered sequentially on some search key. Such files, with a __________on
the search key, are called index-sequential files.
Options:
A) Primary Index
B) Dense index
C) Sparse index
D) Secondary Index

Q 98.
The _______________ structure is the most widely used of several index structures that
maintain their efficiency despite insertion and deletion of data.
Options:
A) Primary Index
B) Dense index
C) Sparse index
D) B+-tree index

Q 99.
A __________ organizes the search keys, with their associated pointers, into a hash file
structure.
Options:
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Hash Index
D) B+-tree index

Q 100.
When SQL server is installed, which of the following database are created by default?
Options:
A) Master
B) Model
C) Both Master and Model
D) Root

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PPSC Exam

Previous Years Question Paper

Question Paper Along with Answer Key

Date: 21st June, 2014

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